{"id": "converted_712", "sentence1": "Is PER3 required for CHK2 activation in human cells?", "sentence2": "Per3, a circadian gene, is required for Chk2 activation in human cells., Depletion of Per3 by siRNA almost completely abolished activation of checkpoint kinase 2 (Chk2) after inducing DNA damage in human cells., Per3 overexpression induced Chk2 activation in the absence of exogenous DNA damage,, Per3 overexpression also led to the inhibition of cell proliferation and apoptotic cell death., These combined results suggest that Per3 is a checkpoint protein that plays important roles in checkpoint activation, cell proliferation and apoptosis., Depletion of Per3 by siRNA almost completely abolished activation of checkpoint kinase 2 (Chk2) after inducing DNA damage in human cells, Per3 overexpression induced Chk2 activation in the absence of exogenous DNA damage, and this activation depended on ATM, In addition, Per3 physically interacted with ATM and Chk2[SEP]Relations: PER3 has relations: protein_protein with CHEK2, protein_protein with CHEK2, protein_protein with PER2, protein_protein with PER2, molfunc_protein with kinase binding, molfunc_protein with kinase binding, protein_protein with BTK, protein_protein with BTK, protein_protein with DHRS2, protein_protein with DHRS2. Definitions: checkpoint kinase 2 defined as following: Serine/threonine-protein kinase Chk2 (543 aa, ~61 kDa) is encoded by the human CHEK2 gene. This protein plays an essential role in the DNA damage checkpoint of the cell cycle.. Chk2 defined as following: Human CHEK2 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 22q12.1 and is approximately 57 kb in length. This allele, which encodes serine/threonine-protein kinase Chk2 protein, is involved in prevention of entry into mitosis and induction of G1 checkpoint arrest in response to DNA damage. Certain allelic variants of the CHEK2 gene that encode protein products with reduced or abolished activity are associated with Li-Fraumeni syndrome 2. Heritable alterations in this gene also confer susceptibility to breast, colorectal and prostate cancers.. CHK2 defined as following: Human CHEK2 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 22q12.1 and is approximately 57 kb in length. This allele, which encodes serine/threonine-protein kinase Chk2 protein, is involved in prevention of entry into mitosis and induction of G1 checkpoint arrest in response to DNA damage. Certain allelic variants of the CHEK2 gene that encode protein products with reduced or abolished activity are associated with Li-Fraumeni syndrome 2. Heritable alterations in this gene also confer susceptibility to breast, colorectal and prostate cancers..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_1013", "sentence1": "Is farnesoid X receptor (FXR) a nuclear receptor?", "sentence2": "Farnesoid X receptor (FXR) belongs to the ligand-activated nuclear receptor superfamily, and functions as a transcription factor regulating the transcription of numerous genes involved in bile acid homeostasis, lipoprotein and glucose metabolism, Farnesoid X receptor (FXR) is an ascending target for metabolic and inflammatory diseases. As a nuclear receptor, FXR exhibits many physiological effects in transcription control of several genes., FXR is a member of the nuclear receptor superfamily which is also highly expressed in the liver. , Farnesoid X receptor (FXR) is a bile acid nuclear receptor described through mouse knockout studies as a tumor suppressor for the development of colon adenocarcinomas, Farnesoid X receptor (FXR, Nr1h4) is a ligand-activated transcription factor belonging to the nuclear receptor superfamily., the nuclear receptor farnesoid X receptor , farnesoid X receptor (FXR), a nuclear receptor activated by bile acid ligands. , T-β-MCA is an farnesoid X receptor (FXR) nuclear receptor antagonist,, Farnesoid X receptor (FXR), a nuclear receptor (NR) and originally considered as a bile acid-activated transcriptional factor, , The nuclear receptor farnesoid X receptor (FXR) plays a major role in the enterohepatic cycling of bile acids, Liver X receptors, LXRs, are ligand-activated transcription factors that belong to the group H nuclear receptor (NR) superfamily. , The intracellular nuclear receptor farnesoid X receptor and the transmembrane G protein-coupled receptor TGR5 respond to bile acids by activating transcriptional networks and/or signalling cascades., ncluding those of nuclear receptors, primarily farnesoid X receptor (FXR), , ile acids and their cognate nuclear receptor, FXR,, Farnesoid X receptor (FXR, Nr1h4) and small heterodimer partner (SHP, Nr0b2) are nuclear receptors that are critical to liver homeostasis., he activation of the nuclear receptor farnesoid X receptor (FXRα), bile acid-activated nuclear receptor farnesoid X receptor (FXR), nuclear receptor signaling, notably by the farnesoid X receptor (FXR, FXR (farnesoid X receptor, NRIH4), a nuclear receptor, plays a major role in the control of cholesterol metabolism., The role of the nuclear receptor FXR is unclear., nuclear receptor FXR , a member of the nuclear receptor superfamily of ligand-activated transcription factors,, Farnesoid X receptor (FXR) is a nuclear receptor that functions as a bile acid sensor controlling bile acid homeostasis.[SEP]Relations: nuclear receptor activity has relations: molfunc_protein with RXRA, molfunc_protein with RXRA, molfunc_protein with RXRG, molfunc_protein with RXRG, molfunc_protein with RXRB, molfunc_protein with RXRB, molfunc_protein with NKX3-1, molfunc_protein with NKX3-1, molfunc_protein with ESR1, molfunc_protein with ESR1. Definitions: Farnesoid X receptor defined as following: This gene is involved in bile acid binding and metabolism.. Nr0b2 defined as following: Human NR0B2 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 1p36.1 and is approximately 2 kb in length. This allele, which encodes nuclear receptor 0B2 protein, is involved in transcriptional repression that is mediated by nuclear hormone receptor interactions. Mutations and dysfunction in the gene is associated with obesity.. FXR defined as following: Human NR1H4 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 12q23.1 and is approximately 91 kb in length. This allele, which encodes bile acid receptor protein, plays a role in both the metabolism of bile acids and ligand-dependent transcriptional regulation.. nuclear receptor defined as following: Proteins that regulate transcription via interaction with chromatin and basal transcription machinery at the promoter regions of genes. Nuclear receptors are ligand-dependent transcription factors including steroids, retinoids, vitamin D, unliganded thyroid hormone, and orphan receptors (unknown ligands). Coregulators (coactivators or corepressors) are important in mediating these interactions and thereby modulate positive or negative receptor activity.. transcription factor defined as following: Endogenous substances, usually proteins, which are effective in the initiation, stimulation, or termination of the genetic transcription process.. colon adenocarcinomas defined as following: An adenocarcinoma arising from the colon. It is more frequently seen in populations with a Western type diet and in patients with a history of chronic inflammatory bowel disease. Signs and symptoms include intestinal bleeding, anemia, and change in bowel habits. According to the degree of cellular differentiation, colonic adenocarcinomas are divided into well, moderately, and poorly differentiated. Histologic variants include mucinous adenocarcinoma, signet ring cell carcinoma, medullary carcinoma, serrated adenocarcinoma, cribriform comedo-type adenocarcinoma, and micropapillary adenocarcinoma.. Liver X receptors defined as following: Nuclear receptors that bind OXYSTEROLS and function as heterodimers with RETINOID X RECEPTORS. They have important functions in regulating cholesterol homeostasis, ENERGY METABOLISM; INFLAMMATION; and the immune response.. genes defined as following: A category of nucleic acid sequences that function as units of heredity and which code for the basic instructions for the development, reproduction, and maintenance of organisms.. farnesoid X receptor defined as following: This gene is involved in bile acid binding and metabolism..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_2975", "sentence1": "Is dupilumab effective for treatment of asthma?", "sentence2": "The appropriate use of these biologics, and of those in development (e.g., benralizumab and dupilumab), should be aided by further understanding of asthma phenotypes and endotypes, utilizing appropriate biomarkers., Simultaneous targeting of both IL-4 and IL-13 by blocking IL-4 receptor α using dupilumab has yielded more consistent results in reducing asthma exacerbations and improving lung function, especially in patients with increased blood eosinophils., In a pivotal, phase 2b study (NCT01854047), dupilumab reduced severe exacerbations, improved lung function and quality of life, and was generally well tolerated in patients with uncontrolled persistent asthma despite using medium-to-high-dose inhaled corticosteroids plus long-acting β2-agonists., CONCLUSIONS: Dupilumab 300 mg q2w significantly improved AR-associated nasal symptoms in patients with uncontrolled persistent asthma and comorbid PAR., Small molecules (e.g. ligustrazine and SP600125) and large molecule antibodies (e.g. lebrikizumab, benralizumab, dupilumab) are being considered as novel agents for the pharmacotherapy of asthma. , Dupilumab Efficacy and Safety in Moderate-to-Severe Uncontrolled Asthma., CONCLUSIONS: In this trial, patients who received dupilumab had significantly lower rates of severe asthma exacerbation than those who received placebo, as well as better lung function and asthma control. , Dupilumab for the treatment of asthma.Dupilumab (REGN668/SAR231893), produced by a collaboration between Regeneron and Sanofi, is a monoclonal antibody currently in phase III for moderate-to-severe asthma. , Dupilumab inhibits interleukin-4 (IL-4) and interleukin-13 (IL-13) signaling and was previously found to be effective in asthma., Dupilumab (REGN668/SAR231893), produced by a collaboration between Regeneron and Sanofi, is a monoclonal antibody currently in phase III for moderate-to-severe asthma., If confirmed, efficacy of dupilumab in both eosinophilic and non-eosinophilic severe asthma phenotype might represent an advantage over approved biologics for asthma, including omalizumab, mepolizumab, and reslizumab., In this review, we focused on IL-4 and IL-13, as these interleukins are considered to play a key role in the pathophysiology of asthma, and on dupilumab, an anti-IL-4 receptor human mAb, as a forthcoming treatment for uncontrolled severe asthma in the near future., Expert opinion: Supported by a strategic mechanism of action, as well as by convincing preliminary clinical results, dupilumab currently appears to be a very promising biological drug for the treatment of severe uncontrolled asthma., All drugs decreased asthma exacerbations but the results were only significant for reslizumab and dupilumab., Anti-IL-4 and IL-13 agents (dupilumab, lebrikizumab, and tralokinumab) which block different Th-2 inflammatory pathways and agents targeting the Th-17 inflammatory pathway in severe refractory asthma are under development., Dupilumab for the treatment of asthma., In addition, dupilumab is currently under phase III development across the world for the treatment of asthma and nasal polyposis as well as for atopic dermatitis in paediatric patients., BACKGROUND\nDupilumab (an anti-interleukin-4-receptor-α monoclonal antibody) blocks signalling of interleukin 4 and interleukin 13, type 2/Th2 cytokines implicated in numerous allergic diseases ranging from asthma to atopic dermatitis., Dupilumab: a novel treatment for asthma., Dupilumab for the treatment of asthma., The efficacy and safety profile of dupilumab in the treatment of allergic diseases has been tested for more than 10 years in a variety of large clinical trials in atopic dermatitis, asthma, chronic rhinosinusitis with nasal polyposis, and eosinophilic esophagitis., Areas covered: Pathophysiological role of IL-4 and IL-13 in asthma; mechanism of action of dupilumab; pharmacology of IL-4 receptor; phase I and phase II studies with dupilumab; regulatory affairs., Expert opinion: Patients with severe asthma who are not sufficiently controlled with standard-of-care represent the target asthma population for dupilumab., CONCLUSIONS In patients with glucocorticoid-dependent severe asthma, dupilumab treatment reduced oral glucocorticoid use while decreasing the rate of severe exacerbations and increasing the FEV1., CONCLUSIONS In patients with persistent, moderate-to-severe asthma and elevated eosinophil levels who used inhaled glucocorticoids and LABAs, dupilumab therapy, as compared with placebo, was associated with fewer asthma exacerbations when LABAs and inhaled glucocorticoids were withdrawn, with improved lung function and reduced levels of Th2-associated inflammatory markers., Expert opinion: Patients with severe asthma who are not sufficiently controlled with standard-of-care represent the target asthma population for dupilumab., Dupilumab inhibits interleukin-4 (IL-4) and interleukin-13 (IL-13) signaling and was previously found to be effective in asthma., Expert opinion: Supported by a strategic mechanism of action, as well as by convincing preliminary clinical results, dupilumab currently appears to be a very promising biological drug for the treatment of severe uncontrolled asthma., Dupilumab inhibits interleukin-4 (IL-4) and interleukin-13 (IL-13) signaling and was previously found to be effective in asthma., A recent trial showed that in patients with difficult-to-control asthma, dupilumab can markedly decrease asthma exacerbations and improve respiratory symptoms and lung function; these effects were paralleled by significant reductions in T-helper 2-associated inflammatory biomarkers.[SEP]Relations: Dupilumab has relations: drug_drug with Olaratumab, drug_drug with Olaratumab, drug_drug with Lucatumumab, drug_drug with Lucatumumab, drug_drug with Dusigitumab, drug_drug with Dusigitumab, drug_drug with Tremelimumab, drug_drug with Tremelimumab, drug_drug with Avelumab, drug_drug with Avelumab. Definitions: interleukin-13 defined as following: Interleukin-13 (146 aa, ~16 kDa) is encoded by the human IL13 gene. This protein plays a role in the negative regulation of cytokine production and the positive regulation of B-cell proliferation.. eosinophil defined as following: Granular leukocytes with a nucleus that usually has two lobes connected by a slender thread of chromatin, and cytoplasm containing coarse, round granules that are uniform in size and stainable by eosin.. mepolizumab defined as following: A humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against interleukin-5 (IL-5) with anti-asthmatic and potential immunosuppressive activity. Upon subcutaneous administration, mepolizumab selectively binds to IL-5, preventing it from associating with interleukin-5 receptor subunit alpha (IL5RA) on the surface of eosinophils and their progenitors. IL-5 plays a role in the regulation of eosinophil development from hematopoietic progenitors as well as eosinophil maturation, differentiation, mobilization, activation, and survival. IL-5 also play a role in the pathogenesis of some phenotypes of hypereosinophilic syndrome (HES).. lebrikizumab defined as following: A humanized monoclonal antibody against interleukin 13 (IL-13) with immunosuppressive and anti-asthmatic activities. Lebrikizumab binds to IL-13 and inhibits IL-13-mediated pathways. IL-13, a cytokine mainly secreted by type 2 helper T cells, plays a key role in the induction of allergic inflammation.. PAR defined as following: That proportion of disease in the whole population that can be ascribed to the risk factor of concern.. omalizumab defined as following: A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the C-epsilon 3 domain of immunoglobulin E. Olizumab binds to this IgE domain, thereby preventing IgE from binding to its high-affinity mast-cell receptor. (NCI04). Small molecules defined as following: A molecule with a low molecular weight that is not determined by a genome sequence.. monoclonal antibody defined as following: A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against parathyroid hormone-related protein (PTH-rP). As a poly-hormone with diverse biological roles, PTH-rP is expressed by normal tissues, acting in local tissue environments in a variety of ways; it is commonly overexpressed by breast, prostate, and other cancers, acting systemically by promoting bone resorption, inhibiting calcium excretion from the kidney, inducing hypercalcemia, and possibly playing a role in the formation of bony metastases. By blocking the effects of PTH-rP on calcium metabolism, monoclonal antibody CAL may inhibit cancer-related hypercalcemia. (NCI04). interleukin 13 defined as following: The recombinant analogue of an endogenous cytokine interleukin 13 with potential antineoplastic activity. Produced by lymphocytes and exhibiting a variety of functions, interleukin-13 (therapeutic) inhibits DNA synthesis and regulates inflammatory and immune responses. In animal models, this agent has been shown to kill tumor cells both directly and indirectly by activating the host immune system at the tumor site. (NCI04). IL-4 receptor α defined as following: Receptors present on a wide variety of hematopoietic and non-hematopoietic cell types that are specific for INTERLEUKIN-4. They are involved in signaling a variety of immunological responses related to allergic INFLAMMATION including the differentiation of TH2 CELLS and the regulation of IMMUNOGLOBULIN E production. Two subtypes of receptors exist and are referred to as the TYPE I INTERLEUKIN-4 RECEPTOR and the TYPE II INTERLEUKIN-4 RECEPTOR. Each receptor subtype is defined by its unique subunit composition.. interleukin 4 defined as following: Interleukin-4 (153 aa, ~17 kDa) is encoded by the human IL4 gene. This protein is involved in the regulation of the expression of class II MHC molecules, Fc receptors and cell surface-bound immunoglobulins.. IL-4 defined as following: A recombinant therapeutic agent which is chemically identical to or similar to the endogenous cytokine interleukin-4 (IL-4). Produced primarily by activated T-cells, IL-4 binds to and activates its cell-surface receptor, stimulating the proliferation and differentiation of activated B-cells and enhancing their ability to present antigens to T-cells. As a potential immunotherapeutic agent, recombinant IL-4 also augments the effects of other cytokines on dendritic cells (DC), cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTL), and tumor-infiltrating lymphocytes (TIL). Check for \"https://www.cancer.gov/about-cancer/treatment/clinical-trials/intervention/C589\" active clinical trials using this agent. (\"http://ncit.nci.nih.gov/ncitbrowser/ConceptReport.jsp?dictionary=NCI%20Thesaurus&code=C589\" NCI Thesaurus). interleukins defined as following: Formulated therapeutic analogs of one of a number of endogenous cytokine interleukins. Produced by T cells, macrophages, and other cells, interleukins bind to a specific surface receptor on immunohematopoietic cells, thereby inducing a multitude of biologic effects including stimulation of growth, differentiation, and proliferation of lymphocytes and eosinophils; activation of lymphocytes and macrophages; enhancement of mast cell activity; activation of the acute phase response; and stimulation of hematopoiesis. Some interleukins may enhance the host's immune response to malignant cells by stimulating lymphokine-activated killer (LAK) cells and tumor-infiltrating lymphocytes (TIL), which are capable of lysing some tumor cells. (NCI04). asthma defined as following: A form of bronchial disorder with three distinct components: airway hyper-responsiveness (RESPIRATORY HYPERSENSITIVITY), airway INFLAMMATION, and intermittent AIRWAY OBSTRUCTION. It is characterized by spasmodic contraction of airway smooth muscle, WHEEZING, and dyspnea (DYSPNEA, PAROXYSMAL).. dupilumab defined as following: A recombinant human monoclonal immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4) antibody directed against the alpha chain of the interleukin-4 receptor (IL-4R alpha) with potential immunomodulatory activities. Upon injection, dupilumab selectively binds to the IL-4R alpha chain. This disrupts IL-4/IL-13 signaling and prevents the activation of downstream pathways that mediate type 2 inflammation and may potentially inhibit tumor cell proliferation, survival, and metastasis. IL-4 and IL-13 receptors are present on the surface of numerous cells involved in the pathophysiology of type-2 helper T-cell (Th2) allergic responses, including B-lymphocytes, eosinophils, dendritic cells (DCs), monocytes, macrophages, basophils, keratinocytes, bronchial epithelial cells, endothelial cells, fibroblasts, and airway smooth muscle cells. Additionally, both IL-4 and IL-13 receptors are overexpressed in a variety of cancers and IL-4 and IL-13 and may serve as biomarkers for cancer aggressiveness. IL-4 and IL-13 are thought to be key regulatory cytokines in the tumor microenvironment (TME) and may play a role in the activation of tumor-associated macrophages (TAMs) and myeloid-derived suppressor cells (MDSCs) that mediate tumor cell survival.. human defined as following: Members of the species Homo sapiens.. nasal polyposis defined as following: Focal accumulations of EDEMA fluid in the NASAL MUCOSA accompanied by HYPERPLASIA of the associated submucosal connective tissue. Polyps may be NEOPLASMS, foci of INFLAMMATION, degenerative lesions, or malformations.. benralizumab defined as following: An afucosylated, humanized monoclonal antibody against the alpha chain of the interleukin-5 receptor (IL-5Ra), with potential anti-asthmatic activity. Upon administration, benralizumab binds to IL-5Ra and elicits an antibody-directed cell cytotoxicity (ADCC) against IL-5Ra-expressing cells. This induces apoptosis in IL-5Ra-expressing cells and may reduce asthmatic episodes. IL-5Ra, expressed on both eosinophils and basophils, plays a key role in asthma.. atopic dermatitis defined as following: A chronic inflammatory genetically determined disease of the skin marked by increased ability to form reagin (IgE), with increased susceptibility to allergic rhinitis and asthma, and hereditary disposition to a lowered threshold for pruritus. It is manifested by lichenification, excoriation, and crusting, mainly on the flexural surfaces of the elbow and knee. In infants it is known as infantile eczema..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_3216", "sentence1": "Is collagen matrix of human articular cartilage changing with disease?", "sentence2": "The collagen matrix of human articular cartilage is an essentially permanent structure that has no significant turnover in adults, even with the occurrence of disease., the chondrocytes in ageing articular cartilage have limited capacity to turnover the interterritorial matrix., Type II collagen is a major component of articular cartilage and its breakdown is a key feature of osteoarthritis. [SEP]Relations: articular cartilage of joint has relations: anatomy_anatomy with hyaline cartilage tissue, anatomy_anatomy with hyaline cartilage tissue. negative rheumatoid factor polyarthritis has relations: disease_disease with arthritic joint disease, disease_disease with arthritic joint disease. collagen type II trimer has relations: cellcomp_protein with COL2A1, cellcomp_protein with COL2A1. chondrocyte hypertrophy has relations: bioprocess_bioprocess with growth plate cartilage chondrocyte growth, bioprocess_bioprocess with growth plate cartilage chondrocyte growth, bioprocess_protein with MEX3C, bioprocess_protein with MEX3C. Definitions: Type II collagen defined as following: A fibrillar collagen found predominantly in CARTILAGE and vitreous humor. It consists of three identical alpha1(II) chains.. chondrocytes defined as following: Polymorphic cells that form cartilage.. osteoarthritis defined as following: A progressive, degenerative joint disease, the most common form of arthritis, especially in older persons. The disease is thought to result not from the aging process but from biochemical changes and biomechanical stresses affecting articular cartilage. In the foreign literature it is often called osteoarthrosis deformans.. disease defined as following: A definite pathologic process with a characteristic set of signs and symptoms. It may affect the whole body or any of its parts, and its etiology, pathology, and prognosis may be known or unknown.. articular cartilage defined as following: A protective layer of firm, flexible cartilage over the articulating ends of bones. It provides a smooth surface for joint movement, protecting the ends of long bones from wear at points of contact.. collagen defined as following: A polypeptide substance comprising about one third of the total protein in mammalian organisms. It is the main constituent of SKIN; CONNECTIVE TISSUE; and the organic substance of bones (BONE AND BONES) and teeth (TOOTH)..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_2271", "sentence1": "Is davunetide being considered for the treatment of progressive supranuclear palsy?", "sentence2": "Critical appraisal of the role of davunetide in the treatment of progressive supranuclear palsy., Davunetide's efficacy and tolerability are being tested in a placebo-controlled study in PSP patients, making it the most advanced drug candidate in this indication. This review examines the disease characteristics of PSP, the rationale for treating PSP with davunetide and assesses some of the challenges of clinical trials in this patient population.[SEP]Relations: progressive supranuclear palsy has relations: disease_phenotype_positive with Parkinsonism with favorable response to dopaminergic medication, disease_phenotype_positive with Parkinsonism with favorable response to dopaminergic medication, disease_disease with supranuclear oculomotor palsy, disease_disease with supranuclear oculomotor palsy, disease_disease with syndromic disease, disease_disease with syndromic disease, disease_phenotype_positive with Neuromuscular dysphagia, disease_phenotype_positive with Neuromuscular dysphagia, disease_phenotype_positive with Retrocollis, disease_phenotype_positive with Retrocollis. Definitions: PSP defined as following: A degenerative disease of the central nervous system characterized by balance difficulties; OCULAR MOTILITY DISORDERS (supranuclear ophthalmoplegia); DYSARTHRIA; swallowing difficulties; and axial DYSTONIA. Onset is usually in the fifth decade and disease progression occurs over several years. Pathologic findings include neurofibrillary degeneration and neuronal loss in the dorsal MESENCEPHALON; SUBTHALAMIC NUCLEUS; RED NUCLEUS; pallidum; dentate nucleus; and vestibular nuclei. (From Adams et al., Principles of Neurology, 6th ed, pp1076-7).", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_980", "sentence1": "Is there a relationship between junctin and ryanodine receptors?", "sentence2": "Junctin, a 26 kDa intra-sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) protein, forms a quaternary complex with triadin, calsequestrin and the ryanodine receptor (RyR) at the junctional SR membrane. , Junctin ablation appears to affect how RyRs 'sense' SR Ca(2+) load, resulting in decreased diastolic SR Ca(2+) leak despite an elevated [Ca(2+)](SR). , Single channel recordings of RyRs from WT and JCN-KO cardiac SR indicate that the absence of junctin produces a dual effect on the normally linear response of RyRs to luminal [Ca(2+)]: at low luminal [Ca(2+)] (<1 mmol l(-1)), junctin-devoid RyR channels are less responsive to luminal [Ca(2+)]; conversely, high luminal [Ca(2+)] turns them hypersensitive to this form of channel modulation. Thus, junctin produces complex effects on Ca(2+) sparks, transients, and leak, but the luminal [Ca(2+)]-dependent dual response of junctin-devoid RyRs demonstrates that junctin normally acts as an activator of RyR channels at low luminal [Ca(2+)], and as an inhibitor at high luminal [Ca(2+)]., Normal Ca(2+) signalling in skeletal muscle depends on the membrane associated proteins triadin and junctin and their ability to mediate functional interactions between the Ca(2+) binding protein calsequestrin and the type 1 ryanodine receptor in the lumen of the sarcoplasmic reticulum., We show here that purified skeletal ryanodine receptors are similarly activated by purified triadin or purified junctin added to their luminal side, although a lack of competition indicated that the proteins act at independent sites. Surprisingly, triadin and junctin differed markedly in their ability to transmit information between skeletal calsequestrin and ryanodine receptors. Purified calsequestrin inhibited junctin/triadin-associated, or junctin-associated, ryanodine receptors and the calsequestrin re-associated channel complexes were further inhibited when luminal Ca(2+) fell from 1mM to, By fusing GCaMP6f to the N-terminus of triadin 1 or junctin, GCaMP6f-T/J was targeted to dyadic junctions, where it colocalized with t-tubules and RyRs after adenovirus-mediated gene transfer. , The junctional face of the jSR, facing the transverse tubules, is occupied by a molecular complex composed of the transmembrane Ca2+ release channels (ryanodine receptors); the luminal protein calsequestrin (CSQ); the 2 membrane proteins, junctin (Jct), and triadin (Tr), which mediate CSQ-ryanodine receptor interactions; and several other components., Calsequestrin, the main calcium buffer in the sarcoplasmic reticulum, provides a pool of calcium for release through the ryanodine receptor and acts as a luminal calcium sensor for the channel via its interactions with triadin and junctin. We examined the influence of phosphorylation of calsequestrin on its ability to store calcium, to polymerise and to regulate ryanodine receptors by binding to triadin and junctin. , Junctin is a 26 kDa membrane protein that binds to calsequestrin, triadin, and ryanodine receptors (RyRs) within the junctional sarcoplasmic reticulum of calcium release units. [SEP]Relations: ryanodine receptor complex has relations: cellcomp_protein with RYR1, cellcomp_protein with RYR1, cellcomp_protein with RYR1, cellcomp_protein with RYR1, cellcomp_protein with RYR1, cellcomp_protein with RYR1, cellcomp_protein with FKBP1A, cellcomp_protein with FKBP1A, cellcomp_protein with FKBP1A, cellcomp_protein with FKBP1A. Definitions: junctin defined as following: This gene is involved in calcium ion channel regulation and amino acid hydroxylation.. calcium defined as following: A dietary supplement containing the mineral calcium.. Junctin defined as following: This gene is involved in calcium ion channel regulation and amino acid hydroxylation.. RyR defined as following: A voltage-gated calcium-release channel complex of the sarcoplasmic or endoplasmic reticulum. It plays an important role in the excitation-contraction (E-C) coupling of muscle cells. RyR comprises a family of ryanodine receptors, widely expressed throughout the animal kingdom. [GOC:ame, PMID:22822064]. type 1 ryanodine receptor defined as following: Ryanodine receptor 1 (5038 aa, ~565 kDa) is encoded by the human RYR1 gene. This protein is involved in the transport of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum and neurons.. membrane proteins defined as following: Proteins which are found in membranes including cellular and intracellular membranes. They consist of two types, peripheral and integral proteins. They include most membrane-associated enzymes, antigenic proteins, transport proteins, and drug, hormone, and lectin receptors.. luminal defined as following: Relating to the lumen of a blood vessel or other tubular structure.. proteins defined as following: Linear POLYPEPTIDES that are synthesized on RIBOSOMES and may be further modified, crosslinked, cleaved, or assembled into complex proteins with several subunits. The specific sequence of AMINO ACIDS determines the shape the polypeptide will take, during PROTEIN FOLDING, and the function of the protein.. lumen defined as following: A SI derived unit of luminous flux. It is the amount of light that falls on a unit area at unit distance from a source of one candela.. sarcoplasmic reticulum defined as following: A network of tubules and sacs in the cytoplasm of SKELETAL MUSCLE FIBERS that assist with muscle contraction and relaxation by releasing and storing calcium ions.. ryanodine receptor defined as following: A tetrameric calcium release channel in the SARCOPLASMIC RETICULUM membrane of SMOOTH MUSCLE CELLS, acting oppositely to SARCOPLASMIC RETICULUM CALCIUM-TRANSPORTING ATPASES. It is important in skeletal and cardiac excitation-contraction coupling and studied by using RYANODINE. Abnormalities are implicated in CARDIAC ARRHYTHMIAS and MUSCULAR DISEASES.. WT defined as following: A designation used to describe a wild-type zebrafish line that is of unknown stock.. membrane defined as following: A device that is made from or resembles a thin flexible sheet of material..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_3566", "sentence1": "Has LB-100 been tested in clinical trials?", "sentence2": "To determine the MTD and to assess the safety, tolerability, and potential activity of LB-100, a first-in-class small-molecule inhibitor of protein phosphatase 2A (PP2A) in adult patients with progressive solid tumors., Safety, Tolerability, and Preliminary Activity of LB-100, an Inhibitor of Protein Phosphatase 2A, in Patients with Relapsed Solid Tumors: An Open-Label, Dose Escalation, First-in-Human, Phase I Trial.[SEP]Relations: protein phosphatase 2A binding has relations: molfunc_protein with IGBP1, molfunc_protein with IGBP1, molfunc_protein with STRN, molfunc_protein with STRN, molfunc_protein with SMG5, molfunc_protein with SMG5, molfunc_protein with ARPP19, molfunc_protein with ARPP19, molfunc_protein with STRN3, molfunc_protein with STRN3. Definitions: PP2A defined as following: PP2A core enzyme consists of a 36-kDa catalytic C subunit and a constant 65-kDa regulatory/structural A subunit that interact with either a B regulatory subunit or with cell signaling molecules, that likely modulate substrate selectivity, catalytic activity, and subcellular localization, yielding the trimeric holoenzyme. Combinations of different subunit isoforms can generate many forms of PP2A, which may differ in substrate specificity, subcellular localization, or tissue specific expression.. Relapsed defined as following: To regress after partial recovery from illness. LB-100 defined as following: A water soluble inhibitor of the protein phosphatase 2A (PP2A), with potential chemo- and radiotherapy enhancing activity. Upon injection, PP2A inhibitor LB-100 inhibits the removal of phosphate groups from proteins essential for cell cycle progression. When used with radio- or chemotherapy treatment, this agent prevents the activation of PP2A-mediated repair mechanisms and allows for malignant cells to progress through the cell cycle without having their damaged DNA repaired. This enhances the cytotoxic effect of the chemotherapeutic or radiotherapeutic agent and results in tumor cell apoptosis. PP2A, a serine/threonine phosphatase that plays a key role in the control of cell growth and DNA damage repair.. solid tumors defined as following: A benign or malignant neoplasm arising from tissues that do not include fluid areas. Representative examples include epithelial neoplasms (e.g. lung carcinoma, prostate carcinoma, breast carcinoma, colon carcinoma), and neoplasms arising from the soft tissues and bones (e.g. leiomyosarcoma, liposarcoma, chondrosarcoma, osteosarcoma). Neoplasms originating from the blood or bone marrow (leukemias and myeloproliferative disorders) are not considered solid tumors..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_2637", "sentence1": "Is there a disease or condition called Exploding Head Syndrome?", "sentence2": "This case report describes the first-ever diagnosis of exploding head syndrome in a patient with longstanding epilepsy and novel nocturnal events. , Exploding head syndrome (EHS) is characterized by loud noises or a sense of explosion in the head during sleep transitions., Exploding head syndrome is characterized by the perception of loud noises during sleep-wake or wake-sleep transitions. , Exploding head syndrome (EHS) is characterized by attacks of a sudden noise or explosive feeling experienced in the head occurring during the transition from wake to sleep or from sleep to wake., Exploding head syndrome is characterized by the perception of abrupt, loud noises when going to sleep or waking up., xploding head syndrome (EHS) is a rare parasomnia in which affected individuals awaken from sleep with the sensation of a loud bang. , Contrary to some earlier theorizing, exploding head syndrome was found to be a relatively common experience in younger individuals., Exploding head syndrome is characterized by the perception of loud noises during sleep-wake or wake-sleep transitions., Fifty patients suffering from the \"exploding head syndrome\" are described., In spite of the fact that its characteristic symptomatology was first described approximately 150 y ago, exploding head syndrome has received relatively little empirical and clinical attention., After first discussing the history, prevalence, and associated features, the available polysomnography data and five main etiological theories for exploding head syndrome are summarized., Exploding head syndrome: six new cases and review of the literature., Exploding Head Syndrome in the Epilepsy Monitoring Unit: Case Report and Literature Review., Exploding head syndrome: a case report., Exploding head syndrome is common in college students., Exploding head syndrome episodes were accompanied by clinically significant levels of fear, and a minority (2.80%) experienced it to such a degree that it was associated with clinically significant distress and/or impairment., Attention has recently been drawn to a condition termed the exploding head syndrome, which is characterized by unpleasant, even terrifying sensations of flashing lights and/or sounds during reported sleep., Exploding head syndrome is a rare phenomenon but can be a significant disruption to quality of life., The rare headache disorder hypnic headache and the exploding head syndrome are also discussed., This case report describes the first-ever diagnosis of exploding head syndrome in a patient with longstanding epilepsy and novel nocturnal events., BACKGROUND Exploding head syndrome (EHS) is characterized by attacks of a sudden noise or explosive feeling experienced in the head occurring during the transition from wake to sleep or from sleep to wake., INTRODUCTION Exploding head syndrome (EHS) is a rare parasomnia in which affected individuals awaken from sleep with the sensation of a loud bang., Contrary to some earlier theorizing, exploding head syndrome was found to be a relatively common experience in younger individuals., This hitherto unreported syndrome is characterised by a sense of an explosive noise in the head usually in the twilight stage of sleep., EHS is a well-defined disease entity with a benign nature., Exploding head syndrome: a case report., Clinical features of the exploding head syndrome., Exploding head syndrome is common in college students., The exploding head syndrome: polysomnographic recordings and therapeutic suggestions., This article reviews the features of an uncommon malady termed \"the exploding head syndrome.\" Sufferers describe terrorizing attacks of a painless explosion within their head, The case is reported of a 47-year old female suffering from the exploding head syndrome. This syndrome consists of a sudden awakening due to a loud noise shortly after falling asleep, sometimes accompanied by a flash of light.[SEP]Relations: epilepsy has relations: disease_disease with brain disease, disease_disease with brain disease, disease_disease with Angelman syndrome, disease_disease with Angelman syndrome, disease_disease with Klinefelter syndrome, disease_disease with Klinefelter syndrome, disease_disease with Coffin-Lowry syndrome, disease_disease with Coffin-Lowry syndrome, disease_disease with electroclinical syndrome, disease_disease with electroclinical syndrome. Definitions: parasomnia defined as following: Movements or behaviors associated with sleep, sleep stages, or partial arousals from sleep that may impair sleep maintenance. Parasomnias are generally divided into four groups: arousal disorders, sleep-wake transition disorders, parasomnias of REM sleep, and nonspecific parasomnias. (From Thorpy, Sleep Disorders Medicine, 1994, p191). headache disorder defined as following: Various conditions with the symptom of HEADACHE. Headache disorders are classified into major groups, such as PRIMARY HEADACHE DISORDERS (based on characteristics of their headache symptoms) and SECONDARY HEADACHE DISORDERS (based on their etiologies). (International Classification of Headache Disorders, 2nd ed. Cephalalgia 2004: suppl 1). head defined as following: A projection on the end of an object. epilepsy defined as following: A disorder characterized by recurrent episodes of paroxysmal brain dysfunction due to a sudden, disorderly, and excessive neuronal discharge. Epilepsy classification systems are generally based upon: (1) clinical features of the seizure episodes (e.g., motor seizure), (2) etiology (e.g., post-traumatic), (3) anatomic site of seizure origin (e.g., frontal lobe seizure), (4) tendency to spread to other structures in the brain, and (5) temporal patterns (e.g., nocturnal epilepsy). (From Adams et al., Principles of Neurology, 6th ed, p313). painless defined as following: Not causing physical or psychological misery, pain or distress..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_2184", "sentence1": "Is hydroxyurea usually used to treated infectious disease?", "sentence2": "Hydroxyurea represents the only available disease-modifying therapy for SCA, and has proven safety and efficacy in high-resource countries, In conclusion, the data here presented suggests that hydroxyurea may prevent priapism attacks in sickle cell disease, probably at higher doses than usually prescribed for painful crisis prevention.., Clinical follow-up of hydroxyurea-treated adults with sickle cell disease., t may also attenuate optimal response to hydroxyurea therapy, the only effective and practical treatment option for SCD in sub-Saharan Africa, Hydroxyurea is one of the most successfully used therapies for sickle cell disease, Clinical experience with hydroxyurea for patients with sickle cell disease (SCD) has been accumulating for the past 25 years. The bulk of the current evidence suggests that hydroxyurea is well-tolerated, safe, and efficacious for most patients with SCD[SEP]Relations: Hydroxyurea has relations: contraindication with anemia (disease), contraindication with anemia (disease), contraindication with kidney disease, contraindication with kidney disease, drug_drug with Hepatitis A Vaccine, drug_drug with Hepatitis A Vaccine, drug_effect with Fever, drug_effect with Fever, drug_drug with Antipyrine, drug_drug with Antipyrine. Definitions: hydroxyurea defined as following: An antineoplastic agent that inhibits DNA synthesis through the inhibition of ribonucleoside diphosphate reductase.. SCA defined as following: Cessation of heart beat or MYOCARDIAL CONTRACTION. If it is treated within a few minutes, heart arrest can be reversed in most cases to normal cardiac rhythm and effective circulation.. sickle cell disease defined as following: A disease characterized by chronic hemolytic anemia, episodic painful crises, and pathologic involvement of many organs. It is the clinical expression of homozygosity for hemoglobin S.. SCD defined as following: Schnyder corneal dystrophy (SCD) is a rare form of stromal corneal dystrophy (see this term) characterized by corneal clouding or crystals within the corneal stroma, and a progressive decrease in visual acuity.. infectious disease defined as following: An illness caused by an infectious agent or its toxins that occurs through the direct or indirect transmission of the infectious agent or its products from an infected individual or via an animal, vector or the inanimate environment to a susceptible animal or human host..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_4119", "sentence1": "Can propofol cause green urine?", "sentence2": "Reasons for discontinuing propofol are signs of rhabdomyolysis (92.9%), green urine, elevated liver enzymes (71.4% each) and elevated triglycerides (57.1%)., Propofol-Induced Green Urine in a Patient with Refractory Status Epilepticus., We present the case of a 52-year-old man, who developed green urine following propofol coma therapy for status epilepticus., The green discoloration of urine is a rare and benign condition, which occurs when clearance of propofol exceeds the hepatic and extrahepatic elimination., Green discolouration of urine following propofol infusion in a dog., During mechanical ventilation, anaesthesia was maintained using a propofol target-controlled infusion system and, subsequently, the dog produced bright green urine in the urine collection system. Although previously documented in humans, this appears to be the first report of green urine in a dog following propofol use., Green urine is also caused by medications such as propofol and infections such as pseudomonas., Although it is assumed that the phenolic derivatives of propofol can cause green discoloration of the urine, the actual origin remains unknown., An uncommon adverse effect of propofol is green discoloration of the urine, which has been reported not only under general anesthesia but also with sedation., Antibiotics were avoided when propofol was recognized as a rare and benign potential cause of the green urine., Green Urine Due to Propofol: A Case Report with Review of Literature., Herein, we present a case of 62-year-old postoperative lady, noticed to be passing green coloured urine believed to be due to intravenous Propofol administration for induction of general anaesthesia., Green urine is rare indeed and it is a benign potential side effect of propofol; this phenomenon is related to the metabolism of propofol., Clinical significance of rare and benign side effects: propofol and green urine., Green urine in a patient who received a continuous infusion of propofol: A case report., This phenomenon is due to metabolism of propofol which may lead to a phenolic green chromophore which is conjugated in the liver and excreted in the urine., Green Urine Discoloration due to Propofol Infusion: A Case Report., An analysis of green discoloration of urine caused by propofol infusion., We experienced green urine from a long-term anesthetized patient who received a continuous infusion of propofol., We present a 19-year-old man who excreted green urine after propofol infusion., green colour of urine due to Propofol occurs when clearance of Propofol exceeds hepatic elimination, and extrahepatic elimination of Propofol occurs. Thi, Green urine from propofol infusion is a benign and rare side effect, Grass-green urine from propofol infusion, Propofol-Induced Green Urine in a Patient with Refractory Status Epilepticus, sedation. An uncommon adverse effect of propofol is green discoloration of the urine, which has been reported not only under general anesthesia but also with, erein, we present a case of 62-year-old postoperative lady, noticed to be passing green coloured urine believed to be due to intravenous Propofol administration for induction of general anaesthesia. T, en urine is rare indeed and it is a benign potential side effect of propofol; this phenomenon is related to the metabolism of propofol. W, Green urine is also caused by medications such as propofol and infections such as pseudomonas, Green Urine Due to Propofol: A Case Report with Review of Literature, LUSION: We experienced a case of a patient with green discoloration of the urine after general anesthesia using propofol. Al, After starting continuous infusion of propofol for postoperative sedation, his urine became dark green., We believe that the green discoloration of the urine was caused by propofol infusion and was related to impaired enterohepatic circulation and extrahepatic glucuronidation in the kidneys., WHAT IS KNOWN AND OBJECTIVE: Propofol, a commonly used sedative, has on rare occasions, been reported to discolour urine green, IS NEW AND CONCLUSION: Green discoloration of the urine from propofol infusion is dose dependent. It, We report on a patient who produced dark green discoloration of urine from prolonged propofol infusion, administered for intractable epilepsy, Dark green discoloration of the urine after prolonged propofol infusion: a case report., experienced a case of a patient with green discoloration of the urine after general anesthesia using propofol. A, On the third day of propofol infusion his urine was dark green., Green urine from propofol infusion is a benign and rare side effect., The green colour of urine due to Propofol occurs when clearance of Propofol exceeds hepatic elimination, and extrahepatic elimination of Propofol occurs., ur change is dose dependent. We report on a patient who produced dark green discoloration of urine from prolonged propofol infusion, administered for intractable epilepsy.CASE SUMMARY: The colour intensity of the patient's uri, Several substances in literature have been associated with green urine including propofol, biliverdin, metoclopramide, methylene blue, indigo blue, amitriptyline, methocarbamol, indomethacin, promethazine, cimetidine and food colourings. , We discuss a case of a benign cause of green discoloration of urine caused by propofol infusion, which reversed following its discontinuation., The patient's urine subsequently showed a green discoloration. Urine discoloration was completely reversible upon discontinuation of propofol., Two days after admittance, we observed a green discoloration of the urine. This is a rare and benign side effect of propofol., We describe a 58-year-old man who developed green urine after operation on a pressure ulcer. The discolouration disappeared gradually after two days. We think that the use of methylene blue dye during the revision of the wounds and the use of the sedative propofol could have caused it.[SEP]Relations: Propofol has relations: drug_effect with Vomiting, drug_effect with Vomiting, drug_drug with Urethane, drug_drug with Urethane, drug_effect with Urinary retention, drug_effect with Urinary retention, drug_effect with Cough, drug_effect with Cough, drug_drug with Urapidil, drug_drug with Urapidil. Definitions: indomethacin defined as following: A non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agent (NSAID) that inhibits CYCLOOXYGENASE, which is necessary for the formation of PROSTAGLANDINS and other AUTACOIDS. It also inhibits the motility of POLYMORPHONUCLEAR LEUKOCYTES.. discolouration defined as following: A change in color that deviates from the norm or outwith the bounds of what is considered normal.. Propofol defined as following: An intravenous anesthetic agent which has the advantage of a very rapid onset after infusion or bolus injection plus a very short recovery period of a couple of minutes. (From Smith and Reynard, Textbook of Pharmacology, 1992, 1st ed, p206). Propofol has been used as ANTICONVULSANTS and ANTIEMETICS.. triglycerides defined as following: An ester formed from GLYCEROL and three fatty acid groups.. benign defined as following: For neoplasms, a non-infiltrating and non-metastasizing neoplastic process that is characterized by the absence of morphologic features associated with malignancy (e.g., severe atypia, nuclear pleomorphism, tumor cell necrosis, and abnormal mitoses). For other conditions, a process that is mild in nature and not dangerous to health.. amitriptyline defined as following: Tricyclic antidepressant with anticholinergic and sedative properties. It appears to prevent the re-uptake of norepinephrine and serotonin at nerve terminals, thus potentiating the action of these neurotransmitters. Amitriptyline also appears to antagonize cholinergic and alpha-1 adrenergic responses to bioactive amines.. cimetidine defined as following: A histamine congener, it competitively inhibits HISTAMINE binding to HISTAMINE H2 RECEPTORS. Cimetidine has a range of pharmacological actions. It inhibits GASTRIC ACID secretion, as well as PEPSIN and GASTRIN output.. humans defined as following: Members of the species Homo sapiens.. hepatic defined as following: Pertaining to, affecting, or associated with the liver.. biliverdin defined as following: 1,3,6,7-Tetramethyl-4,5-dicarboxyethyl-2,8-divinylbilenone. Biosynthesized from hemoglobin as a precursor of bilirubin. Occurs in the bile of AMPHIBIANS and of birds, but not in normal human bile or serum.. status epilepticus defined as following: A prolonged seizure or seizures repeated frequently enough to prevent recovery between episodes occurring over a period of 20-30 minutes. The most common subtype is generalized tonic-clonic status epilepticus, a potentially fatal condition associated with neuronal injury and respiratory and metabolic dysfunction. Nonconvulsive forms include petit mal status and complex partial status, which may manifest as behavioral disturbances. Simple partial status epilepticus consists of persistent motor, sensory, or autonomic seizures that do not impair cognition (see also EPILEPSIA PARTIALIS CONTINUA). Subclinical status epilepticus generally refers to seizures occurring in an unresponsive or comatose individual in the absence of overt signs of seizure activity. (From N Engl J Med 1998 Apr 2;338(14):970-6; Neurologia 1997 Dec;12 Suppl 6:25-30). methylene blue defined as following: A compound consisting of dark green crystals or crystalline powder, having a bronze-like luster. Solutions in water or alcohol have a deep blue color. Methylene blue is used as a bacteriologic stain and as an indicator. It inhibits GUANYLATE CYCLASE, and has been used to treat cyanide poisoning and to lower levels of METHEMOGLOBIN.. metoclopramide defined as following: A dopamine D2 antagonist that is used as an antiemetic.. wounds defined as following: bodily injury caused by physical means, with disruption of the normal continuity of structures.. promethazine defined as following: A phenothiazine derivative with histamine H1-blocking, antimuscarinic, and sedative properties. It is used as an antiallergic, in pruritus, for motion sickness and sedation, and also in animals.. green urine defined as following: An abnormal green color of urine. [PMID:28413291]. dog defined as following: The domestic dog, Canis familiaris, comprising about 400 breeds, of the carnivore family CANIDAE. They are worldwide in distribution and live in association with people. (Walker's Mammals of the World, 5th ed, p1065). Al defined as following: A population of lymphocytes isolated from an individual, altered in vitro, and returned to the same individual for therapeutic purposes. (NCI04). substances defined as following: Any matter of defined composition that has discrete existence, whose origin may be biological, mineral or chemical.. propofol defined as following: An intravenous anesthetic agent which has the advantage of a very rapid onset after infusion or bolus injection plus a very short recovery period of a couple of minutes. (From Smith and Reynard, Textbook of Pharmacology, 1992, 1st ed, p206). Propofol has been used as ANTICONVULSANTS and ANTIEMETICS..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_3073", "sentence1": "Is the NLM medical text indexer (MTI) still useful and relevant?", "sentence2": "12 years on - Is the NLM medical text indexer still useful and relevant?, Facing a growing workload and dwindling resources, the US National Library of Medicine (NLM) created the Indexing Initiative project in 1996. This cross-library team's mission is to explore indexing methodologies for ensuring quality and currency of NLM document collections. The NLM Medical Text Indexer (MTI) is the main product of this project and has been providing automated indexing recommendations since 2002. After all of this time, the questions arise whether MTI is still useful and relevant.METHODS: To answer the question about MTI usefulness, we track a wide variety of statistics related to how frequently MEDLINE indexers refer to MTI recommendations, how well MTI performs against human indexing, and how often MTI is used. To answer the question of MTI relevancy compared to other available tools, we have participated in the 2013 and 2014 BioASQ Challenges. The BioASQ Challenges have provided us with an unbiased comparison between the MTI system and other systems performing the same task.RESULTS: Indexers have continually increased their use of MTI recommendations over the years from 15.75% of the articles they index in 2002 to 62.44% in 2014 showing that the indexers find MTI to be increasingly useful. The MTI performance statistics show significant improvement in Precision (+0.2992) and F1 (+0.1997) with modest gains in Recall (+0.0454) over the years. MTI consistency is comparable to the available indexer consistency studies. MTI performed well in both of the BioASQ Challenges ranking within the top tier teams.CONCLUSIONS: Based on our findings, yes, MTI is still relevant and useful, and needs to be improved and expanded. The BioASQ Challenge results have shown that we need to incorporate more machine learning into MTI while still retaining the indexing rules that have earned MTI the indexers' trust over the years. We also need to expand MTI through the use of full text, when and where it is available, to provide coverage of indexing terms that are typically only found in the full text. The role of MTI at NLM is also expanding into new areas, further reinforcing the idea that MTI is increasingly useful and relevant., The role of MTI at NLM is also expanding into new areas, further reinforcing the idea that MTI is increasingly useful and relevant., CONCLUSIONS\nBased on our findings, yes, MTI is still relevant and useful, and needs to be improved and expanded., 12 years on - Is the NLM medical text indexer still useful and relevant?Based on our findings, yes, MTI is still relevant and useful, and needs to be improved and expanded. , The role of MTI at NLM is also expanding into new areas, further reinforcing the idea that MTI is increasingly useful and relevant., After all of this time, the questions arise whether MTI is still useful and relevant.
METHODS: To answer the question about MTI usefulness, we track a wide variety of statistics related to how frequently MEDLINE indexers refer to MTI recommendations, how well MTI performs against human indexing, and how often MTI is used., The MTI performance statistics show significant improvement in Precision (+0.2992) and F
CONCLUSIONS: Based on our findings, yes, MTI is still relevant and useful, and needs to be improved and expanded., The role of MTI at NLM is also expanding into new areas, further reinforcing the idea that MTI is increasingly useful and relevant.
, After all of this time, the questions arise whether MTI is still useful and relevant., The role of MTI at NLM is also expanding into new areas, further reinforcing the idea that MTI is increasingly useful and relevant., Based on our findings, yes, MTI is still relevant and useful, and needs to be improved and expanded.[SEP]Relations: F11 has relations: anatomy_protein_absent with vastus lateralis, anatomy_protein_absent with vastus lateralis, drug_protein with Coagulation Factor IX (Recombinant), drug_protein with Coagulation Factor IX (Recombinant), anatomy_protein_absent with biceps brachii, anatomy_protein_absent with biceps brachii, anatomy_protein_present with lung, anatomy_protein_present with lung, drug_protein with Zinc sulfate, unspecified form, drug_protein with Zinc sulfate, unspecified form. Definitions: human defined as following: Members of the species Homo sapiens..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_618", "sentence1": "Does molindone affect body weight?", "sentence2": "Mean weight increased by 0.54 kg, and mean body mass index by 0.24 kg/m(2). , A large-scale trial comparing a first-generation antipsychotic (molindone) with newer agents did not find significant differences in treatment response, although the newer antipsychotics were associated with more severe weight gain. , No agent demonstrated superior efficacy, and all were associated with side effects, including weight gain. , The three treatment arms did not significantly differ in symptom decrease or time to discontinuation. Akathisia was more common with molindone and elevated prolactin concentrations more common with risperidone. Although weight gain and metabolic adverse events had occurred more often with olanzapine and risperidone during the acute trial, no significant between-drug differences emerged in most of these parameters during maintenance treatment. , Olanzapine and risperidone were associated with significantly greater weight gain. Olanzapine showed the greatest risk of weight gain and significant increases in fasting cholesterol, low density lipoprotein, insulin, and liver transaminase levels. Molindone led to more self-reports of akathisia. , Molindone is no more or less likely than typical drugs to cause movement disorders, but it does cause significantly more weight loss (2RCTs n=60 RR 2.78, CI 1.10 to 6.99, NNH 5 CI 2 to 77). , Molindone may be an effective antipsychotic but its adverse effect profile does not differ significantly from that of typical antipsychotics (apart from the event of weight loss). , Convergent evidence suggests a hierarchy in the magnitude of BWG that may be induced by diverse agents, being very high for clozapine and olanzapine; high for quetiapine, zotepin, chlorpromazine, and thioridazine; moderate for risperidone and sertindole; and low for ziprazidone, amisulpiride, haloperidol, fluphenazine, pimozide, and molindone. , Loxapine and molindone induce weight decreases, and these exceptions are difficult to explain., It is no more or less likely than typical drugs to cause movement disorders, but causes significantly more weight loss (RR 2.78, CI 1.10 to 6.99)., Molindone may be an effective antipsychotic; however, its adverse effect profile does not differ significantly from that of typical antipsychotics, apart from the event of weight loss. , Among conventional agents, mean weight change ranged from a reduction of 0.39 kg with molindone to an increase of 3.19 kg with thioridazine., Weight gain has been reported with nearly every antipsychotic drug on the market (molindone is an exception). , Although almost all antipsychotics induce bodyweight gain, molindone and loxapine appear to induce bodyweight loss. , Clozapine and low-potency phenothiazines are associated with the largest gains and molindone with weight loss, but the mechanism is not known. , On average, molindone patients lost 5 pounds over the 6 weeks of treatment, whereas thioridazine patients gained 6 pounds. , Clinically, molindone has a tendency to cause weight loss and may have less effect on seizure threshold than conventional antipsychotic agents, Monthly weights and neuroleptic dosages during the first three months of psychiatric hospitalization were compared between matched groups of patients receiving molindone, a combination of molindone and other neuroleptics, or other neuroleptic drugs. We found no significant differences in weight gain among the three groups. , The weight-reducing property of molindone, a recently introduced antipsychotic drug, was tested in 9 hospitalized chronic schizophrenic patients. There was an average weight loss of 7.6 kg after 3 months on molindone; most of the loss occurred during the first month.[SEP]Relations: Molindone has relations: drug_effect with Increased body weight, drug_effect with Increased body weight, drug_effect with Nausea, drug_effect with Nausea, drug_effect with Tremor, drug_effect with Tremor, drug_effect with Hyperkinetic movements, drug_effect with Hyperkinetic movements, drug_effect with Dyspnea, drug_effect with Dyspnea. Definitions: phenothiazines defined as following: The determination of the amount of phenothiazine present in a sample.. loxapine defined as following: An antipsychotic agent used in SCHIZOPHRENIA.. Olanzapine defined as following: A synthetic derivative of thienobenzodiazepine with antipsychotic, antinausea, and antiemetic activities. As a selective monoaminergic antagonist, olanzapine binds with high affinity binding to the following receptors: serotoninergic, dopaminergic, muscarinic M1-5, histamine H1, and alpha-1-adrenergic receptors; it binds weakly to gamma-aminobutyric acid type A, benzodiazepine, and beta-adrenergic receptors. The antinausea and antiemetic effects of this agent appear to be due to the blockade of 5-HT2 and 5-HT3 receptors for serotonin. Although its exact mechanism of action in schizophrenia is unknown, it has been proposed that olanzapine's antipsychotic activity is mediated through antagonism to dopamine D2 receptors with rapid ligand-receptor dissociation kinetics that help to minimize extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS). Olanzapine may also stimulate appetite.. thioridazine defined as following: A phenothiazine antipsychotic used in the management of PHYCOSES, including SCHIZOPHRENIA.. movement disorders defined as following: Syndromes which feature DYSKINESIAS as a cardinal manifestation of the disease process. Included in this category are degenerative, hereditary, post-infectious, medication-induced, post-inflammatory, and post-traumatic conditions.. risperidone defined as following: A selective blocker of DOPAMINE D2 RECEPTORS and SEROTONIN 5-HT2 RECEPTORS that acts as an atypical antipsychotic agent. It has been shown to improve both positive and negative symptoms in the treatment of SCHIZOPHRENIA.. insulin defined as following: A synthetic or animal-derived form of insulin used in the treatment of diabetes mellitus. Therapeutic insulin is formulated to be short-, intermediate- and long-acting in order to individualize an insulin regimen according to individual differences in glucose and insulin metabolism. Therapeutic insulin may be derived from porcine, bovine or recombinant sources. Endogenous human insulin, a pancreatic hormone composed of two polypeptide chains, is important for the normal metabolism of carbohydrates, proteins and fats and has anabolic effects on many types of tissues.. clozapine defined as following: A tricylic dibenzodiazepine, classified as an atypical antipsychotic agent. It binds several types of central nervous system receptors, and displays a unique pharmacological profile. Clozapine is a serotonin antagonist, with strong binding to 5-HT 2A/2C receptor subtype. It also displays strong affinity to several dopaminergic receptors, but shows only weak antagonism at the dopamine D2 receptor, a receptor commonly thought to modulate neuroleptic activity. Agranulocytosis is a major adverse effect associated with administration of this agent.. molindone defined as following: An indole derivative effective in schizophrenia and other psychoses and possibly useful in the treatment of the aggressive type of undersocialized conduct disorder. Molindone has much lower affinity for D2 receptors than most antipsychotic agents and has a relatively low affinity for D1 receptors. It has only low to moderate affinity for cholinergic and alpha-adrenergic receptors. Some electrophysiologic data from animals indicate that molindone has certain characteristics that resemble those of CLOZAPINE. (From AMA Drug Evaluations Annual, 1994, p283). akathisia defined as following: An uncomfortable feeling of inner restlessness and inability to stay still. It can be a side effect of psychotropic medications.. chlorpromazine defined as following: The prototypical phenothiazine antipsychotic drug. Like the other drugs in this class chlorpromazine's antipsychotic actions are thought to be due to long-term adaptation by the brain to blocking DOPAMINE RECEPTORS. Chlorpromazine has several other actions and therapeutic uses, including as an antiemetic and in the treatment of intractable hiccup.. fluphenazine defined as following: A phenothiazine used in the treatment of PSYCHOSES. Its properties and uses are generally similar to those of CHLORPROMAZINE.. Weight gain defined as following: A question about whether an individual is gaining or has gained weight.. low density lipoprotein defined as following: A class of lipoproteins of small size (18-25 nm) and light (1.019-1.063 g/ml) particles with a core composed mainly of CHOLESTEROL ESTERS and smaller amounts of TRIGLYCERIDES. The surface monolayer consists mostly of PHOSPHOLIPIDS, a single copy of APOLIPOPROTEIN B-100, and free cholesterol molecules. The main LDL function is to transport cholesterol and cholesterol esters to extrahepatic tissues.. quetiapine defined as following: A dibenzothiazepine derivative with antipsychotic property. Quetiapine fumarate antagonizes serotonin activity mediated by 5-HT 1A and 5-HT2 receptors. With a lower affinity, this agent also reversibly binds to dopamine D1 and D2 receptors in the mesolimbic and mesocortical areas of the brain leading to decreased psychotic effects, such as hallucinations and delusions. In addition, quetiapine also binds to other alpha-1, alpha-2 adrenergic and histamine H1 receptors.. ziprazidone defined as following: A benzothiazolylpiperazine derivative and an atypical antipsychotic agent with an antischizophrenic property. Ziprasidone functions as an antagonist at the dopamine D2 and serotonin 5-HT2A and 5-HT1D receptors, and as an agonist at the 5-HT1A receptor. Ziprasidone also inhibits the synaptic reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine. The mechanism of action by which ziprasidone exerts its antischizophrenic effect is unknown but is potentially mediated through a combination of dopamine D2 and serotonin 5-HT2 antagonism. This agent also has antagonistic activity against histamine H1 and alpha-1-adrenergic receptors.. haloperidol defined as following: The determination of the amount of haloperidol in a sample.. pimozide defined as following: A diphenylbutylpiperidine that is effective as an antipsychotic agent and as an alternative to HALOPERIDOL for the suppression of vocal and motor tics in patients with Tourette syndrome. Although the precise mechanism of action is unknown, blockade of postsynaptic dopamine receptors has been postulated. (From AMA Drug Evaluations Annual, 1994, p403). seizure defined as following: Clinical or subclinical disturbances of cortical function due to a sudden, abnormal, excessive, and disorganized discharge of brain cells. Clinical manifestations include abnormal motor, sensory and psychic phenomena. Recurrent seizures are usually referred to as EPILEPSY or \"seizure disorder.\". weight loss defined as following: The measured decrease in body weight over a specified period of time..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_3703", "sentence1": "Does radiotherapy for Hodgkin disease increases risk for lung cancer?", "sentence2": "Risks of lung, breast, and gastrointestinal (GI) cancers increase with higher radiation dose. , CONCLUSIONS: RT treatment, especially with doses higher than 42 Gy, and smoking increase the risk of SN after HL. In this series, LC patients with early stages had a shorter elapsed time from HL diagnosis and longer OS, therefore the role of LC screening in HL survivors should be prospectively evaluated and smoking cessation counseling ought to be a key aspect during follow-up., BACKGROUND: Long-term Hodgkin lymphoma (HL) survivors have an increased risk of late cardiac morbidity and secondary lung cancer after chemotherapy and mediastinal radiotherapy. , PURPOSE: Hodgkin lymphoma (HL) survivors have an increased risk of cardiovascular disease (CD), lung cancer, and breast cancer., Lung cancer (LC) represents the most common solid tumor in survivors of Hodgkin's disease (HD), and the assessment of the mutational status of oncogenic driver mutations in LC is now standard. , PURPOSE: Hodgkin lymphoma (HL) survivors face an increased risk of treatment-related lung cancer. , Increased risk of second lung cancer in Hodgkin's lymphoma survivors: a meta-analysis., BACKGROUND: Patients treated for Hodgkin's lymphoma (HL) have a higher risk of developing second lung cancer (SLC) compared with the general population. , The pooled relative risk (RR) of SLC was 4.62 (95 % confidence interval [CI], 3.18-6.70], I (2) = 98 %), with a median absolute excess rate of 10.4 per 10,000 person-years. , CONCLUSIONS: The current meta-analysis provided a detailed estimate of the risk of SLC among HL survivors. , CONCLUSIONS\n\nThe excess risk of lung cancer in Hodgkin's disease patients treated with radiotherapy is related to the radiation dose received by the affected area of the lung., BACKGROUND\n\nLung cancer is a frequent cause of death in patients cured of Hodgkin's disease, but the contributions of chemotherapy, radiotherapy, and smoking are not well described., CONCLUSIONS\n\nPast treatments with alkylating agents and radiation therapy for Hodgkin's disease were associated with an increased risk of lung cancer in a dose-dependent and additive fashion., BACKGROUND\n\nSeveral studies have shown that survivors of Hodgkin's disease have increased risk of lung cancer, but the factors responsible for this excess risk are not well known., PURPOSE\n\nThis study was undertaken to investigate the effects of radiation dose, chemotherapy, and smoking on the risk of lung cancer following treatment of Hodgkin's disease., Increased risk of lung cancer, non-Hodgkin's lymphoma, and leukemia following Hodgkin's disease., It is recognized that survivors of Hodgkin's disease are at a substantially increased risk of lung cancer., The risk of lung and breast cancer is significantly increased after therapy for Hodgkin 's disease ( HD) , but there are few data that describe the molecular profiles of these tumors . , Hodgkin lymphoma ( HL ) survivors have an increased risk of cardiovascular disease ( CD) , lung cancer , and breast cancer . , BACKGROUND\nLung cancer is a frequent cause of death in patients cured of Hodgkin's disease, but the contributions of chemotherapy, radiotherapy, and smoking are not well described., CONCLUSIONS\nPast treatments with alkylating agents and radiation therapy for Hodgkin's disease were associated with an increased risk of lung cancer in a dose-dependent and additive fashion., Lung cancer in Hodgkin's disease: association with previous radiotherapy., Twenty-eight (94%) of 30 patients developing metachronous lung cancer received supradiaphragmatic irradiation as primary therapy for HD., The risk ratio for the development of lung cancer among HD patients was 5.6 times that expected in the general population., Seven cases of lung cancer were observed in patients with Hodgkin's disease (HD) since 1970., BACKGROUND\nSeveral studies have shown that survivors of Hodgkin's disease have increased risk of lung cancer, but the factors responsible for this excess risk are not well known., The excess risk of lung cancer in Hodgkin's disease patients treated with radiotherapy is related to the radiation dose received by the affected area of the lung., Lung cancer is a frequent cause of death in patients cured of Hodgkin's disease, but the contributions of chemotherapy, radiotherapy, and smoking are not well described., Past treatments with alkylating agents and radiation therapy for Hodgkin's disease were associated with an increased risk of lung cancer in a dose-dependent and additive fashion., Several studies have shown that survivors of Hodgkin's disease have increased risk of lung cancer, but the factors responsible for this excess risk are not well known.[SEP]Relations: Non-Hodgkin lymphoma has relations: drug_effect with Bortezomib, drug_effect with Bortezomib, drug_effect with Bortezomib, drug_effect with Bortezomib, drug_effect with Fluoxetine, drug_effect with Fluoxetine, drug_effect with Fluoxetine, drug_effect with Fluoxetine, drug_effect with Raltegravir, drug_effect with Raltegravir. Definitions: HL defined as following: A malignant disease characterized by progressive enlargement of the lymph nodes, spleen, and general lymphoid tissue. In the classical variant, giant usually multinucleate Hodgkin's and REED-STERNBERG CELLS are present; in the nodular lymphocyte predominant variant, lymphocytic and histiocytic cells are seen.. alkylating agents defined as following: Highly reactive chemicals that introduce alkyl radicals into biologically active molecules and thereby prevent their proper functioning. Many are used as antineoplastic agents, but most are very toxic, with carcinogenic, mutagenic, teratogenic, and immunosuppressant actions. They have also been used as components in poison gases.. leukemia defined as following: A progressive, malignant disease of the blood-forming organs, characterized by distorted proliferation and development of leukocytes and their precursors in the blood and bone marrow. Leukemias were originally termed acute or chronic based on life expectancy but now are classified according to cellular maturity. Acute leukemias consist of predominately immature cells; chronic leukemias are composed of more mature cells. (From The Merck Manual, 2006). breast cancer defined as following: A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the breast. The vast majority of cases are carcinomas arising from the breast parenchyma or the nipple. Malignant breast neoplasms occur more frequently in females than in males.. Hodgkin's lymphoma defined as following: Any of a group of malignant tumors of lymphoid tissue that differ from HODGKIN DISEASE, being more heterogeneous with respect to malignant cell lineage, clinical course, prognosis, and therapy. The only common feature among these tumors is the absence of giant REED-STERNBERG CELLS, a characteristic of Hodgkin's disease.. tumors defined as following: New abnormal growth of tissue. Malignant neoplasms show a greater degree of anaplasia and have the properties of invasion and metastasis, compared to benign neoplasms.. SLC defined as following: This gene is involved in the regulation of leukocyte migration.. cardiovascular disease defined as following: Pathological conditions involving the CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM including the HEART; the BLOOD VESSELS; or the PERICARDIUM.. breast defined as following: In humans, one of the paired regions in the anterior portion of the THORAX. The breasts consist of the MAMMARY GLANDS, the SKIN, the MUSCLES, the ADIPOSE TISSUE, and the CONNECTIVE TISSUES.. solid tumor defined as following: A benign or malignant neoplasm arising from tissues that do not include fluid areas. Representative examples include epithelial neoplasms (e.g. lung carcinoma, prostate carcinoma, breast carcinoma, colon carcinoma), and neoplasms arising from the soft tissues and bones (e.g. leiomyosarcoma, liposarcoma, chondrosarcoma, osteosarcoma). Neoplasms originating from the blood or bone marrow (leukemias and myeloproliferative disorders) are not considered solid tumors.. Hodgkin disease defined as following: A malignant disease characterized by progressive enlargement of the lymph nodes, spleen, and general lymphoid tissue. In the classical variant, giant usually multinucleate Hodgkin's and REED-STERNBERG CELLS are present; in the nodular lymphocyte predominant variant, lymphocytic and histiocytic cells are seen..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_162", "sentence1": "Is there an increased risk for cancer in Dyskeratosis Congenita?", "sentence2": "People with DC are at increased risk for progressive bone marrow failure (BMF), myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) or acute myelogenous leukemia (AML), solid tumors (usually squamous cell carcinoma of the head/neck or anogenital cancer), and pulmonary fibrosis, Clinical progression of the disease can lead to aplastic anemia (86% of all patients) and to pulmonary or hepatic complications. These patients also have an increased risk of cancer., Fanconi anaemia (FA), dyskeratosis congenita (DC), Diamond-Blackfan anaemia (DBA), and Shwachman-Diamond syndrome (SDS) comprise major inherited bone marrow failure syndromes (IBMFS). Adverse events include severe bone marrow failure (BMF), myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS), acute myeloid leukaemia (AML), and solid tumours (ST), Patients with FA had earlier onset of cancers, need for stem cell transplant, and death; followed by DC; DBA and SDS were mildest. While FA and DC patients had markedly increased risks of cancer, AML and MDS, there were no cases of leukaemia in DBA or SDS patients, The findings demonstrate that both FA and DC are major cancer susceptibility syndromes, People with DC are at increased risk for progressive bone marrow failure (BMF), myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) or acute myelogenous leukemia (AML), solid tumors (usually squamous cell carcinoma of the head/neck or anogenital cancer), and pulmonary fibrosis, Patients with dyskeratosis congenita (DC) have an increased risk of cancer, but also exhibit heightened radiation sensitivity., Dyskeratosis congenita (DC) is characterized by the clinical triad of reticular skin pigmentation, oral leukoplakia, and nail dystrophy associated with bone marrow failure (BMF) and an high risk to develop cancer and pulmonary complications., CONCLUSION: Dyskeratosis congenita is a rare condition; however, it is vital to recognise the increased risk of upper aerodigestive tract cancers in these patients., Point mutations in the DKC1 gene that encodes dyskerin cause the rare inherited syndrome called X-linked dyskeratosis congenita, characterized by a failure of proliferating tissues and increased susceptibility to cancer., Dyskeratosis Congenita (DC) also known as Zinsser-Engman-Cole syndrome is a rare multi-system bone marrow failure syndrome characterised by mucocutaneous abnormalities and an increased predisposition to cancer\"., Dyskeratosis congenita is an inherited syndrome characterised by mucocutaneous features, bone marrow failure, an increased risk of malignancy and other somatic abnormalities., Dyskeratosis congenita is a rare condition; however, it is vital to recognise the increased risk of upper aerodigestive tract cancers in these patients., Epidermal atrophy, hair growth defects, bone marrow failure and increased risk of cancer are also common in DC patients., Telomere dysfunction and tumor suppression responses in dyskeratosis congenita: balancing cancer and tissue renewal impairment., Patients with dyskeratosis congenita (DC) have an increased risk of cancer, but also exhibit heightened radiation sensitivity, Dyskeratosis congenita is a rare condition; however, it is vital to recognise the increased risk of upper aerodigestive tract cancers in these patients, Dyskeratosis congenita is an inherited syndrome characterised by mucocutaneous features, bone marrow failure, an increased risk of malignancy and other somatic abnormalities, While FA and DC patients had markedly increased risks of cancer, AML and MDS, there were no cases of leukaemia in DBA or SDS patients, As in Fanconi anemia and dyskeratosis congenita, DBA is both an inherited bone marrow failure syndrome and a cancer predisposition syndrome; cancer risks appear lower in DBA than in Fanconi anemia or dyskeratosis congenita, Severe pancytopenia frequently causes early mortality of DC patients, who have an increased risk of developing oropharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma, Here different aspects of telomere biology, concerning adult stem cells senescence, tumor suppression and cancer are considered in the context of DC, resulting in two translational models: late onset of DC symptoms in telomere-related mutations carriers is a potential indicator of increased cancer risk and differences in tumor suppression capacities among the genetic subgroups are (at least partial) causes of different clinical manifestations of the disease, Point mutations in the DKC1 gene that encodes dyskerin cause the rare inherited syndrome called X-linked dyskeratosis congenita, characterized by a failure of proliferating tissues and increased susceptibility to cancer, Dyskeratosis congenita is a cancer-prone bone marrow failure syndrome caused by aberrations in telomere biology.[SEP]Relations: dyskeratosis congenita has relations: disease_protein with TERC, disease_protein with TERC, disease_protein with TERT, disease_protein with TERT. dyskeratosis congenita, X-linked has relations: disease_phenotype_positive with Carcinoma, disease_phenotype_positive with Carcinoma, disease_protein with TERT, disease_protein with TERT, disease_disease with X-linked disease, disease_disease with X-linked disease. Definitions: cancer defined as following: A malignant tumor at the original site of growth.. Telomere defined as following: A terminal section of a chromosome which has a specialized structure and which is involved in chromosomal replication and stability. Its length is believed to be a few hundred base pairs.. oropharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma defined as following: A squamous cell carcinoma arising from the oropharynx. It predominantly affects adults in their fifth and sixth decades of life and is associated with alcohol and tobacco use. Human papillomavirus is present in approximately half of the cases. It is characterized by a tendency to metastasize early to the lymph nodes. When the tumor is small, patients are often asymptomatic. Physical examination may reveal erythematous or white lesions or plaques. The majority of patients present with locally advanced disease. Signs and symptoms include mucosal ulceration, pain, bleeding, weight loss, neck swelling, and difficulty speaking, chewing, and swallowing. Patients may also present with swollen neck lymph nodes without any symptoms from the oropharyngeal tumor. The most significant prognostic factors are the size of the tumor and the lymph nodes status.. oral leukoplakia defined as following: A white patch seen on the oral mucosa. It is considered a premalignant condition and is often tobacco-induced. When evidence of Epstein-Barr virus is present, the condition is called hairy leukoplakia (LEUKOPLAKIA, HAIRY).. DBA defined as following: Congenital pure red cell aplasia caused by autosomal dominant mutation(s) in the RPS19 gene, encoding 40S ribosomal protein S19.. acute myelogenous leukemia defined as following: Clonal expansion of myeloid blasts in bone marrow, blood, and other tissue. Myeloid leukemias develop from changes in cells that normally produce NEUTROPHILS; BASOPHILS; EOSINOPHILS; and MONOCYTES.. cancers defined as following: A tumor composed of atypical neoplastic, often pleomorphic cells that invade other tissues. Malignant neoplasms often metastasize to distant anatomic sites and may recur after excision. The most common malignant neoplasms are carcinomas, Hodgkin and non-Hodgkin lymphomas, leukemias, melanomas, and sarcomas.. dyskerin defined as following: H/ACA ribonucleoprotein complex subunit 4 (514 aa, ~58 kDa) is encoded by the human DKC1 gene. This protein is involved in telomerase stabilization and maintenance and the processing of ribosomal RNA.. DKC1 gene defined as following: This gene is involved in both H/ACA small nucleolar RNA ribonucleoprotein assembly and telomerase stabilization and maintenance.. DC defined as following: A predominantly X-linked recessive syndrome characterized by a triad of reticular skin pigmentation, nail dystrophy and leukoplakia of mucous membranes. Oral and dental abnormalities may also be present. Complications are a predisposition to malignancy and bone marrow involvement with pancytopenia. (from Int J Paediatr Dent 2000 Dec;10(4):328-34) The X-linked form is also known as Zinsser-Cole-Engman syndrome and involves the gene which encodes a highly conserved protein called dyskerin.. IBMFS defined as following: A group of inherited genetic hematopoietic stem cell disorders characterized by bone marrow failure that involves one or more cell lines. Representative examples include Fanconi anemia, Diamond-Blackfan anemia, and Shwachman-Diamond syndrome.. pancytopenia defined as following: Deficiency of all three cell elements of the blood, erythrocytes, leukocytes and platelets.. leukaemia defined as following: A progressive, malignant disease of the blood-forming organs, characterized by distorted proliferation and development of leukocytes and their precursors in the blood and bone marrow. Leukemias were originally termed acute or chronic based on life expectancy but now are classified according to cellular maturity. Acute leukemias consist of predominately immature cells; chronic leukemias are composed of more mature cells. (From The Merck Manual, 2006). SDS defined as following: A patient reported questionnaire composed of rating scales developed to measure the degree of distress experienced by the patient for specific symptoms.. death defined as following: Irreversible cessation of all bodily functions, manifested by absence of spontaneous breathing and total loss of cardiovascular and cerebral functions.. Point mutations defined as following: A mutation caused by the substitution of one nucleotide for another. This results in the DNA molecule having a change in a single base pair.. nail dystrophy defined as following: Deformity or discoloration of a fingernail or toenail.. aplastic anemia defined as following: A form of anemia in which the bone marrow fails to produce adequate numbers of peripheral blood elements.. myelodysplastic syndrome defined as following: Clonal hematopoietic stem cell disorders characterized by dysplasia in one or more hematopoietic cell lineages. They predominantly affect patients over 60, are considered preleukemic conditions, and have high probability of transformation into ACUTE MYELOID LEUKEMIA.. Fanconi anemia defined as following: Fanconi anemia caused by mutations of the FANCA gene. FANCA gene mutations are the most common cause of Fanconi anemia. This gene provides instructions for making a protein that is involved in the Fanconi anemia (FA) pathway.. bone marrow failure defined as following: A reduced number of hematopoietic cells present in the bone marrow relative to marrow fat. [DDD:wouwehand, HPO:probinson]. Fanconi anaemia defined as following: Congenital disorder affecting all bone marrow elements, resulting in ANEMIA; LEUKOPENIA; and THROMBOPENIA, and associated with cardiac, renal, and limb malformations as well as dermal pigmentary changes. Spontaneous CHROMOSOME BREAKAGE is a feature of this disease along with predisposition to LEUKEMIA. There are at least 7 complementation groups in Fanconi anemia: FANCA, FANCB, FANCC, FANCD1, FANCD2, FANCE, FANCF, FANCG, and FANCL. (from Online Mendelian Inheritance in Man, http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/entrez/dispomim.cgi?id=227650, August 20, 2004). Diamond-Blackfan anaemia defined as following: A rare congenital hypoplastic anemia that usually presents early in infancy. The disease is characterized by a moderate to severe macrocytic anemia, occasional neutropenia or thrombocytosis, a normocellular bone marrow with erythroid hypoplasia, and an increased risk of developing leukemia. (Curr Opin Hematol 2000 Mar;7(2):85-94). solid tumors defined as following: A benign or malignant neoplasm arising from tissues that do not include fluid areas. Representative examples include epithelial neoplasms (e.g. lung carcinoma, prostate carcinoma, breast carcinoma, colon carcinoma), and neoplasms arising from the soft tissues and bones (e.g. leiomyosarcoma, liposarcoma, chondrosarcoma, osteosarcoma). Neoplasms originating from the blood or bone marrow (leukemias and myeloproliferative disorders) are not considered solid tumors.. X-linked dyskeratosis congenita defined as following: Dyskeratosis congenita inherited in an X-linked recessive pattern. It is caused by mutations in the DKC1 gene.. MDS defined as following: A rare syndrome caused by deletion of genetic material in the short arm of chromosome 17. It is characterized by an abnormally smooth brain with fewer folds and grooves. It results in intellectual disability, developmental delay, seizures, spasticity, hypotonia, and feeding difficulties. Affected individuals have distinctive facial features that include a prominent forehead, midface hypoplasia, small, upturned nose, low-set ears, small jaw, and thick upper lip.. squamous cell carcinoma defined as following: A squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) arising from the anal canal or the anal margin (perianal skin). Human papillomavirus is detected in the majority of cases. Homosexual HIV-positive men have an increased risk of developing anal squamous cell carcinoma in comparison to the general male population. Symptoms include anal pruritus, discomfort when sitting, pain, change in bowel habit, and bleeding. The prognosis is generally better for anal margin SCC than for anal canal SCC.. BMF defined as following: Bcl-2-modifying factor (184 aa, ~21 kDa) is encoded by the human BMF gene. This protein plays a role in the positive regulation of pro-apoptotic gene products.. Dyskeratosis Congenita defined as following: A predominantly X-linked recessive syndrome characterized by a triad of reticular skin pigmentation, nail dystrophy and leukoplakia of mucous membranes. Oral and dental abnormalities may also be present. Complications are a predisposition to malignancy and bone marrow involvement with pancytopenia. (from Int J Paediatr Dent 2000 Dec;10(4):328-34) The X-linked form is also known as Zinsser-Cole-Engman syndrome and involves the gene which encodes a highly conserved protein called dyskerin..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_3434", "sentence1": "Can CMB305 be used against sarcomas?", "sentence2": "CMB305 induces NY-ESO-1 specific T cell responses in both SS and MRC patients and these patients had excellent overall survival (OS) outcomes in the initial phase I study., Data suggesting this vaccine may improve OS for SS and MRCL patients is exciting but early, and on-going work is testing the impact of CMB305 on patient outcomes., The potential of the CMB305 vaccine regimen to target NY-ESO-1 and improve outcomes for synovial sarcoma and myxoid/round cell liposarcoma patients.[SEP]Relations: BCG vaccine has relations: drug_drug with Sarilumab, drug_drug with Sarilumab, drug_drug with Sirukumab, drug_drug with Sirukumab, drug_drug with Sorafenib, drug_drug with Sorafenib, drug_drug with Sarecycline, drug_drug with Sarecycline. breast synovial sarcoma has relations: disease_disease with breast sarcoma, disease_disease with breast sarcoma. Definitions: T cell defined as following: Lymphocytes responsible for cell-mediated immunity. Two types have been identified - cytotoxic (T-LYMPHOCYTES, CYTOTOXIC) and helper T-lymphocytes (T-LYMPHOCYTES, HELPER-INDUCER). They are formed when lymphocytes circulate through the THYMUS GLAND and differentiate to thymocytes. When exposed to an antigen, they divide rapidly and produce large numbers of new T cells sensitized to that antigen.. NY-ESO-1 defined as following: Human CTAG1A wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of Xq28 and is approximately 2 kb in length. This allele, which encodes cancer/testis antigen 1 protein, may play a role in both spermatogeneis and development of the testes. Aberrant expression of this gene is associated with incontinentia pigmenti.. synovial sarcoma defined as following: A malignant neoplasm arising from tenosynovial tissue of the joints and in synovial cells of tendons and bursae. The legs are the most common site, but the tumor can occur in the abdominal wall and other trunk muscles. There are two recognized types: the monophasic (characterized by sheaths of monotonous spindle cells) and the biphasic (characterized by slit-like spaces or clefts within the tumor, lined by cuboidal or tall columnar epithelial cells). These sarcomas occur most commonly in the second and fourth decades of life. (From Dorland, 27th ed; DeVita Jr et al., Cancer: Principles & Practice of Oncology, 3d ed, p1363). myxoid/round cell liposarcoma defined as following: A liposarcoma characterized by the presence of round non-lipogenic primitive mesenchymal cells and small signet ring lipoblasts within a myxoid stoma with a branching vascular pattern. This category includes hypercellular lesions with round cell morphology, formerly known as round cell liposarcoma.. MRC defined as following: A publicly funded organization that is part of United Kingdom Research and Innovation, and is dedicated to improving human health through world-class medical research.. SS defined as following:

Supernumerary mandibular right first primary molar

. sarcomas defined as following: A malignant neoplasm arising exclusively from the soft tissues..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_238", "sentence1": "Can valproic acid act as an activator of AMPK?", "sentence2": "Here we demonstrate that VPA is a novel activator of AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK), a key regulator of cellular metabolism, using primary mouse and human hepatocytes., These studies are the first to establish VPA and its metabolites as in vitro activators of AMPK.[SEP]Relations: Valproic acid has relations: drug_drug with Amprenavir, drug_drug with Amprenavir, drug_drug with Amphetamine, drug_drug with Amphetamine, drug_effect with Arthropathy, drug_effect with Arthropathy, drug_drug with Acetylsalicylic acid, drug_drug with Acetylsalicylic acid, drug_drug with Glutaric Acid, drug_drug with Glutaric Acid. Definitions: AMP-activated protein kinase defined as following: Intracellular signaling protein kinases that play a signaling role in the regulation of cellular energy metabolism. Their activity largely depends upon the concentration of cellular AMP which is increased under conditions of low energy or metabolic stress. AMP-activated protein kinases modify enzymes involved in LIPID METABOLISM, which in turn provide substrates needed to convert AMP into ATP.. VPA defined as following: A fatty acid with anticonvulsant and anti-manic properties that is used in the treatment of EPILEPSY and BIPOLAR DISORDER. The mechanisms of its therapeutic actions are not well understood. It may act by increasing GAMMA-AMINOBUTYRIC ACID levels in the brain or by altering the properties of VOLTAGE-GATED SODIUM CHANNELS.. metabolites defined as following: Any substance involved in metabolism, either as a product of metabolism or as necessary for metabolism.. valproic acid defined as following: A fatty acid with anticonvulsant and anti-manic properties that is used in the treatment of EPILEPSY and BIPOLAR DISORDER. The mechanisms of its therapeutic actions are not well understood. It may act by increasing GAMMA-AMINOBUTYRIC ACID levels in the brain or by altering the properties of VOLTAGE-GATED SODIUM CHANNELS.. AMPK defined as following: Catalysis of the reaction: [3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl-CoA reductase (NADPH)] + ATP = [3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl-CoA reductase (NADPH)] phosphate + ADP. [EC:2.7.11.31, MetaCyc:2.7.1.109-RXN].", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_93", "sentence1": "Have Quantitative Trait Loci affecting splicing (splicing QTLs) been linked to disease?", "sentence2": "The spontaneously hypertensive rat (SHR) is a widely used rodent model of hypertension and metabolic syndrome. Previously we identified thousands of cis-regulated expression quantitative trait loci (eQTLs) across multiple tissues using a panel of rat recombinant inbred (RI) strains derived from Brown Norway and SHR progenitors. These cis-eQTLs represent potential susceptibility loci underlying physiological and pathophysiological traits manifested in SHR. We have prioritized 60 cis-eQTLs and confirmed differential expression between the parental strains by quantitative PCR in 43 (72%) of the eQTL transcripts., These colocalizing correlated cis-eQTLs (c3-eQTLs) are highly attractive as primary susceptibility loci for the colocalizing pQTLs. Furthermore, sequence analysis of the c3-eQTL genes identified single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) that are predicted to affect transcription factor binding affinity, splicing and protein function. These SNPs, which potentially alter transcript abundance and stability, represent strong candidate factors underlying not just eQTL expression phenotypes, but also the correlated metabolic and physiological traits. In conclusion, by integration of genomic sequence, eQTL and QTT datasets we have identified several genes that are strong positional candidates for pathophysiological traits observed in the SHR strain., Identifying associations between genotypes and gene expression levels using microarrays has enabled systematic interrogation of regulatory variation underlying complex phenotypes. This approach has vast potential for functional characterization of disease states, but its prohibitive cost, given hundreds to thousands of individual samples from populations have to be genotyped and expression profiled, has limited its widespread application.RESULTS: Here we demonstrate that genomic regions with allele-specific expression (ASE) detected by sequencing cDNA are highly enriched for cis-acting expression quantitative trait loci (cis-eQTL) identified by profiling of 500 animals in parallel, with up to 90% agreement on the allele that is preferentially expressed. We also observed widespread noncoding and antisense ASE and identified several allele-specific alternative splicing variants.CONCLUSION: Monitoring ASE by sequencing cDNA from as little as one sample is a practical alternative to expression genetics for mapping cis-acting variation that regulates RNA transcription and processing., The six genes corresponded to rat and mouse quantitative trait loci (QTLs) that had shown associations with the common traits such as the well characterized MS and even tumor susceptibility. Our findings suggest that the six genes may play important roles in the pleiotropic effects on lipid metabolism and the MS, which increase the risk of Type 2 Diabetes and cardiovascular disease. The use of the multivariate phenotypes can be advantageous in identifying genetic risk factors, accounting for the pleiotropic effects when the multivariate phenotypes have a common etiological pathway., To elucidate mechanisms involved in multiple sclerosis (MS), we studied genetic regulation of experimental autoimmune encephalomyelitis (EAE) in rats, assuming a conservation of pathogenic pathways. In this study, we focused on Eae23, originally identified to regulate EAE in a (LEW.1AV1xPVG.1AV1)F2 cross. Our aim was to determine whether one or more genes within the 67 Mb region regulate EAE and to define candidate risk genes.METHODOLOGY/PRINCIPAL FINDINGS: We used high resolution quantitative trait loci (QTL) analysis in the 10th generation (G10) of an advanced intercross line (AIL) to resolve Eae23 into two QTLs that independently regulate EAE, namely Eae23a and Eae23b. [SEP]Relations: qualitative or quantitative defects of titin has relations: disease_disease with TTN-related myopathy, disease_disease with TTN-related myopathy, disease_disease with qualitative or quantitative protein defects in neuromuscular diseases, disease_disease with qualitative or quantitative protein defects in neuromuscular diseases, disease_disease with limb-girdle muscular dystrophy, disease_disease with limb-girdle muscular dystrophy, disease_disease with tibial muscular dystrophy, disease_disease with tibial muscular dystrophy. multiple sclerosis has relations: disease_disease with demyelinating disease, disease_disease with demyelinating disease. Definitions: allele defined as following: Variant forms of the same gene, occupying the same locus on homologous CHROMOSOMES, and governing the variants in production of the same gene product.. single nucleotide polymorphisms defined as following: A single nucleotide variation in a genetic sequence that occurs at appreciable frequency in the population.. hypertension defined as following: Persistently high systemic arterial BLOOD PRESSURE. Based on multiple readings (BLOOD PRESSURE DETERMINATION), hypertension is currently defined as when SYSTOLIC PRESSURE is consistently greater than 140 mm Hg or when DIASTOLIC PRESSURE is consistently 90 mm Hg or more.. rat defined as following: The common rat, Rattus norvegicus, often used as an experimental organism.. conservation defined as following: The maintenance of certain characteristics in an unchanged condition.. genotypes defined as following: The genetic constitution of the individual, comprising the ALLELES present at each GENETIC LOCUS.. transcripts defined as following: The initial RNA molecule produced by transcription.. cardiovascular disease defined as following: Pathological conditions involving the CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM including the HEART; the BLOOD VESSELS; or the PERICARDIUM.. tissues defined as following: Collections of differentiated CELLS, such as EPITHELIUM; CONNECTIVE TISSUE; MUSCLES; and NERVE TISSUE. Tissues are cooperatively arranged to form organs with specialized functions such as RESPIRATION; DIGESTION; REPRODUCTION; MOVEMENT; and others.. multiple sclerosis defined as following: An autoimmune disorder mainly affecting young adults and characterized by destruction of myelin in the central nervous system. Pathologic findings include multiple sharply demarcated areas of demyelination throughout the white matter of the central nervous system. Clinical manifestations include visual loss, extra-ocular movement disorders, paresthesias, loss of sensation, weakness, dysarthria, spasticity, ataxia, and bladder dysfunction. The usual pattern is one of recurrent attacks followed by partial recovery (see MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS, RELAPSING-REMITTING), but acute fulminating and chronic progressive forms (see MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS, CHRONIC PROGRESSIVE) also occur. (Adams et al., Principles of Neurology, 6th ed, p903). metabolic syndrome defined as following: A combination of medical conditions that when present, increase the risk of heart attack, stroke, and diabetes mellitus. It includes the following medical conditions: increased blood pressure, central obesity, dyslipidemia, impaired glucose tolerance, and insulin resistance.. quantitative trait loci defined as following: Genetic loci associated with a quantitative trait.. genes defined as following: A category of nucleic acid sequences that function as units of heredity and which code for the basic instructions for the development, reproduction, and maintenance of organisms.. disease defined as following: A definite pathologic process with a characteristic set of signs and symptoms. It may affect the whole body or any of its parts, and its etiology, pathology, and prognosis may be known or unknown..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_3162", "sentence1": "Is actin present in the nucleus?", "sentence2": "Moreover, inhibition of ATM kinase or deficiency in nuclear actin polymerization causes carcinogenic RET/PTC chromosome rearrangements after DSBs induction in human cells., Our findings establish that nuclear actin-based mobility shapes chromatin organization by generating repair domains that are essential for homology-directed repair in eukaryotic cells., The discovery of nuclear actin opened new perspective on the field, suggesting that the nuclear activities of actin reflect the functions of primordial actin-like proteins., The revitalization of research into nuclear actin occurred after it was found that cellular stresses induce the nuclear localization and alter the structure of actin. , While it is long known that actin is part of the nuclear proteome, its properties and functions as regulated, functional and dynamically assembled actin filaments are only recently emerging.[SEP]Definitions: eukaryotic cells defined as following: Cells of the higher organisms, containing a true nucleus bounded by a nuclear membrane.. actin filaments defined as following: The part of the cytoskeleton (the internal framework of a cell) composed of actin and associated proteins. Includes actin cytoskeleton-associated complexes. [GOC:jl, ISBN:0395825172, ISBN:0815316194]. actin defined as following: Filamentous proteins that are the main constituent of the thin filaments of muscle fibers. The filaments (known also as filamentous or F-actin) can be dissociated into their globular subunits; each subunit is composed of a single polypeptide 375 amino acids long. This is known as globular or G-actin. In conjunction with MYOSINS, actin is responsible for the contraction and relaxation of muscle.. nucleus defined as following: Within a eukaryotic cell, a membrane-limited body which contains chromosomes and one or more nucleoli (CELL NUCLEOLUS). The nuclear membrane consists of a double unit-type membrane which is perforated by a number of pores; the outermost membrane is continuous with the ENDOPLASMIC RETICULUM. A cell may contain more than one nucleus. (From Singleton & Sainsbury, Dictionary of Microbiology and Molecular Biology, 2d ed).", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_3583", "sentence1": "Has amantadine ER been approved by the FDA?", "sentence2": "ADS-5102 (amantadine) extended-release (ER) capsules (GOCOVRITM) is a recent US FDA-approved treatment for dyskinesia in PD patients. [SEP]Relations: Amantadine has relations: drug_drug with Ergometrine, drug_drug with Ergometrine, drug_drug with Ergotamine, drug_drug with Ergotamine, drug_drug with Ertapenem, drug_drug with Ertapenem, drug_drug with Eribulin, drug_drug with Eribulin, drug_drug with Erdafitinib, drug_drug with Erdafitinib. Definitions: amantadine defined as following: An antiviral that is used in the prophylactic or symptomatic treatment of influenza A. It is also used as an antiparkinsonian agent, to treat extrapyramidal reactions, and for postherpetic neuralgia. The mechanisms of its effects in movement disorders are not well understood but probably reflect an increase in synthesis and release of dopamine, with perhaps some inhibition of dopamine uptake.. PD defined as following: A score of 4 or 5 on a 5-point PET scale with an increase in intensity of uptake from baseline and/or new FDG-avid foci consistent with lymphoma at interim or end of treatment assessment.. dyskinesia defined as following: Abnormal involuntary movements which primarily affect the extremities, trunk, or jaw that occur as a manifestation of an underlying disease process. Conditions which feature recurrent or persistent episodes of dyskinesia as a primary manifestation of disease may be referred to as dyskinesia syndromes (see MOVEMENT DISORDERS). Dyskinesias are also a relatively common manifestation of BASAL GANGLIA DISEASES.. ER defined as following: A system of cisternae in the CYTOPLASM of many cells. In places the endoplasmic reticulum is continuous with the plasma membrane (CELL MEMBRANE) or outer membrane of the nuclear envelope. If the outer surfaces of the endoplasmic reticulum membranes are coated with ribosomes, the endoplasmic reticulum is said to be rough-surfaced (ENDOPLASMIC RETICULUM, ROUGH); otherwise it is said to be smooth-surfaced (ENDOPLASMIC RETICULUM, SMOOTH). (King & Stansfield, A Dictionary of Genetics, 4th ed).", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_4538", "sentence1": "Is lumbar puncture the first test that should be performed on a patient with increased intracranial pressure?", "sentence2": "As an emergency diagnostic procedure, spinal puncture is indicated when CNS infection is suspected or to establish the diagnosis of subarachnoid hemorrhage when results of cranial computed tomography are normal. The major contraindication is elevated intracranial pressure with evidence of a mass lesion., Brain shift is a contraindication to LP, whether CSF pressure is raised or not, and whether papilloedema is present or not. Subsequently, recommendations are offered for indications to perform CT before LP, grouped according to the safety and clinical utility of LP., Death following lumbar puncture (LP) is feared by physicians. Many opinions are found in literature on the question whether computed cranial tomography (CT) should be performed before LP, to prevent herniation., Headache, caused by cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) hypotension, is a frequent complication of lumbar puncture; hematic patch is a therapeutic option for severe cases. The most serious complication is cerebral herniation and, for its prevention, computed tomography (CT) or cerebral magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) must always be performed before lumbar puncture: a lesion with evident mass effect is a contraindication., Lumbar puncture (LP) is usually contra-indicated in situations where the ICP is suspected to be high., Low-dose cranial computed tomography (LD-CCT) based on iterative reconstruction has been shown to have sufficient image quality to assess cerebrospinal fluid spaces (CSF) and midline structures but not to exclude subtle parenchymal pathologies. Patients without focal neurological deficits often undergo CCT before lumbar puncture (LP) to exclude contraindications to LP including brain herniation or increased CSF pressure., Lumbar puncture is performed routinely for diagnostic and therapeutic purposes in idiopathic intracranial hypertension, despite lumbar puncture being classically contraindicated in the setting of raised intracranial pressure., Although generally considered innocuous, there may be considerable danger when lumbar puncture is performed in the presence of increased intracranial pressure, especially when a mass lesion is present., Lumbar puncture should be avoided if focal neurologic findings suggest concomitant mass lesion, as in brain abscess, and lumbar puncture should be approached with great caution if meningitis is accompanied by evidence of significant intracranial hypertension., There are few abnormal CT scans presenting a contraindication for lumbar puncture and the majority of these patients usually have clinical signs to suggest raised intracranial pressure.[SEP]Relations: pseudotumor cerebri has relations: disease_phenotype_positive with Increased intracranial pressure, disease_phenotype_positive with Increased intracranial pressure. intracranial hypertension has relations: contraindication with Brompheniramine, contraindication with Brompheniramine, contraindication with Phenylpropanolamine, contraindication with Phenylpropanolamine, contraindication with Trolnitrate, contraindication with Trolnitrate, contraindication with Butorphanol, contraindication with Butorphanol. Definitions: Headache defined as following: The symptom of PAIN in the cranial region. It may be an isolated benign occurrence or manifestation of a wide variety of HEADACHE DISORDERS.. subarachnoid hemorrhage defined as following: Bleeding into the intracranial or spinal SUBARACHNOID SPACE, most resulting from INTRACRANIAL ANEURYSM rupture. It can occur after traumatic injuries (SUBARACHNOID HEMORRHAGE, TRAUMATIC). Clinical features include HEADACHE; NAUSEA; VOMITING, nuchal rigidity, variable neurological deficits and reduced mental status.. hypotension defined as following: Abnormally low BLOOD PRESSURE that can result in inadequate blood flow to the brain and other vital organs. Common symptom is DIZZINESS but greater negative impacts on the body occur when there is prolonged depravation of oxygen and nutrients.. papilloedema defined as following: Swelling of the OPTIC DISK, usually in association with increased intracranial pressure, characterized by hyperemia, blurring of the disk margins, microhemorrhages, blind spot enlargement, and engorgement of retinal veins. Chronic papilledema may cause OPTIC ATROPHY and visual loss. (Miller et al., Clinical Neuro-Ophthalmology, 4th ed, p175). Death defined as following: Irreversible cessation of all bodily functions, manifested by absence of spontaneous breathing and total loss of cardiovascular and cerebral functions.. idiopathic intracranial hypertension defined as following: A condition marked by raised intracranial pressure and characterized clinically by HEADACHES; NAUSEA; PAPILLEDEMA, peripheral constriction of the visual fields, transient visual obscurations, and pulsatile TINNITUS. OBESITY is frequently associated with this condition, which primarily affects women between 20 and 44 years of age. Chronic PAPILLEDEMA may lead to optic nerve injury (see OPTIC NERVE DISEASES) and visual loss (see BLINDNESS).. herniation defined as following: Protrusion of tissue, structure, or part of an organ through the bone, muscular tissue, or the membrane by which it is normally contained. Hernia may involve tissues such as the ABDOMINAL WALL or the respiratory DIAPHRAGM. Hernias may be internal, external, congenital, or acquired.. meningitis defined as following: Inflammation of the coverings of the brain and/or spinal cord, which consist of the PIA MATER; ARACHNOID; and DURA MATER. Infections (viral, bacterial, and fungal) are the most common causes of this condition, but subarachnoid hemorrhage (HEMORRHAGES, SUBARACHNOID), chemical irritation (chemical MENINGITIS), granulomatous conditions, neoplastic conditions (CARCINOMATOUS MENINGITIS), and other inflammatory conditions may produce this syndrome. (From Joynt, Clinical Neurology, 1994, Ch24, p6). cerebrospinal fluid defined as following: A watery fluid that is continuously produced in the CHOROID PLEXUS and circulates around the surface of the BRAIN; SPINAL CORD; and in the CEREBRAL VENTRICLES.. CCT defined as following: The use of a computer to help an individual improve cognitive skills including focus, attention, memory, and information processing.. spinal puncture defined as following: Tapping fluid from the subarachnoid space in the lumbar region, usually between the third and fourth lumbar vertebrae.. neurological deficits defined as following: Loss of movement function.. CT defined as following: Tomography using x-ray transmission and a computer algorithm to reconstruct the image.. intracranial hypertension defined as following: Increased pressure within the cranial vault. This may result from several conditions, including HYDROCEPHALUS; BRAIN EDEMA; intracranial masses; severe systemic HYPERTENSION; PSEUDOTUMOR CEREBRI; and other disorders..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_4367", "sentence1": "Can bergapten cross the blood-brain barrier?", "sentence2": "Moreover, pharmacokinetic studies showed that bergapten has higher absolute bioavailability and can cross the blood-brain barrier and has a great potential for treating brain disease, but the mechanism needs further clarification to make greater use of its ability to treat brain diseases. [SEP]Relations: blood brain barrier has relations: anatomy_anatomy with glial blood brain barrier, anatomy_anatomy with glial blood brain barrier, anatomy_anatomy with cell layer, anatomy_anatomy with cell layer. brain disease has relations: contraindication with Cefepime, contraindication with Cefepime, contraindication with Cyclopentolate, contraindication with Cyclopentolate, contraindication with Edrophonium, contraindication with Edrophonium. Definitions: bergapten defined as following: A linear furanocoumarin that has phototoxic and anti-inflammatory properties, with effects similar to METHOXSALEN. It is used in PUVA THERAPY for the treatment of PSORIASIS.. brain disease defined as following: Pathologic conditions affecting the BRAIN, which is composed of the intracranial components of the CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM. This includes (but is not limited to) the CEREBRAL CORTEX; intracranial white matter; BASAL GANGLIA; THALAMUS; HYPOTHALAMUS; BRAIN STEM; and CEREBELLUM..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_1283", "sentence1": "Is factor XI deficient in Hemophilia C?", "sentence2": "Factor XI deficiency is a rare hematologic disorder. Hemophilia C (factor XI deficiency) affects both genders and it is usually asymptomatic,, Congenital factor XI deficiency (also known as the Rosenthal syndrome or hemophilia C), rare case of an acute cerebral aneurysm rupture in a patient with a known factor XI deficiency. Aneurysmal subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) accounts for a high mortality and morbidity rate. When SAH is associated with an inherited coagulation disorder such as hemophilia C, Factor XI deficiency (Hemophilia C), Factor XI deficiency, also called hemophilia C,[SEP]Relations: factor XI deficiency has relations: disease_disease with hemophilia, disease_disease with hemophilia, disease_disease with congenital factor XI deficiency, disease_disease with congenital factor XI deficiency. hematologic disease has relations: disease_disease with L-ferritin deficiency, disease_disease with L-ferritin deficiency, disease_disease with GATA1-Related X-Linked Cytopenia, disease_disease with GATA1-Related X-Linked Cytopenia, contraindication with Adomiparin, contraindication with Adomiparin. Definitions: SAH defined as following: A Turkic language spoken by the Yakut people in the Sakha Republic in the Russian Federation.. hemophilia C defined as following: A hereditary deficiency of blood coagulation factor XI (also known as plasma thromboplastin antecedent or PTA or antihemophilic factor C) resulting in a systemic blood-clotting defect called hemophilia C or Rosenthal's syndrome, that may resemble classical hemophilia.. hematologic disorder defined as following: Disorders of the blood and blood forming tissues.. Hemophilia C defined as following: A hereditary deficiency of blood coagulation factor XI (also known as plasma thromboplastin antecedent or PTA or antihemophilic factor C) resulting in a systemic blood-clotting defect called hemophilia C or Rosenthal's syndrome, that may resemble classical hemophilia..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_4677", "sentence1": "Is Ameloblastoma (AB) a benign tumor that never metastasizes?", "sentence2": "Ameloblastic carcinoma (AC) is defined as a rare primary epithelial odontogenic malignant neoplasm and the malignant counterpart of benign epithelial odontogenic tumor of ameloblastoma (AB) by the WHO classification, AC develops pulmonary metastasis in about one third of the patients and reveals a poor prognosis, Ameloblastomas are benign but locally invasive neoplasms which may grow to massive proportions and cause significant morbidity. Although some types of ameloblastoma can be treated predictably with aggressive surgical treatment, recurrent ameloblastoma and metastasising ameloblastoma are still difficult to treat., Ameloblastoma of the maxilla is a rare odontogenic tumor that rarely metastasizes., Ameloblastoma is an odontogenic tumor, usually benign, which rarely metastasizes to distant organs., Although ameloblastomas rarely metastasise, recurrences together with radical surgery often result in facial deformity and significant morbidity., The World Health Organization (WHO) has defined malignant ameloblastoma (MA) as a histologically benign-appearing ameloblastoma that has metastasized., Distant metastasis is a very rare condition and is designated as metastasizing (malignant) ameloblastoma despite its benign histological appearance., Ameloblastoma is a locally invasive, histologically nonmalignant tumor that may on very rare occasions give rise to metastases.[SEP]Relations: ameloblastoma has relations: disease_disease with musculoskeletal system benign neoplasm, disease_disease with musculoskeletal system benign neoplasm, disease_disease with musculoskeletal system benign neoplasm, disease_disease with musculoskeletal system benign neoplasm, disease_disease with benign epithelial neoplasm, disease_disease with benign epithelial neoplasm, disease_disease with benign epithelial neoplasm, disease_disease with benign epithelial neoplasm, disease_disease with bone ameloblastoma, disease_disease with bone ameloblastoma. Definitions: Ameloblastoma defined as following: An immature epithelial tumor of the JAW originating from the epithelial rests of Malassez or from other epithelial remnants of the ENAMEL from the developmental period. It is a slowly growing tumor, usually benign, but displays a marked propensity for invasive growth.. maxilla defined as following: One of a pair of irregularly shaped bones that form the upper jaw. A maxillary bone provides tooth sockets for the superior teeth, forms part of the ORBIT, and contains the MAXILLARY SINUS.. odontogenic tumor defined as following: Neoplasms produced from tooth-forming tissues.. Ameloblastic carcinoma defined as following: A rare, cytologically malignant ameloblastoma that may metastasize.. neoplasms defined as following: New abnormal growth of tissue. Malignant neoplasms show a greater degree of anaplasia and have the properties of invasion and metastasis, compared to benign neoplasms.. malignant ameloblastoma defined as following: A rare, well differentiated, cytologically benign ameloblastoma which paradoxically metastasizes.. benign tumor defined as following: A neoplasm which is characterized by the absence of morphologic features associated with malignancy (severe cytologic atypia, tumor cell necrosis, and high mitotic rate). Benign neoplasms remain confined to the original site of growth and do not metastasize to other anatomic sites..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_3812", "sentence1": "Can secondary glioblastoma be caused by brain irradiation?", "sentence2": "Prolonged survival in secondary glioblastoma following local injection of targeted alpha therapy with , [Radiation induced glioblastoma: a case report]., We report a surgical case of a 54-year-old woman with a radiation induced glioblastoma., Glioblastoma multiforme following cranial irradiation and chemotherapy for acute lymphocytic leukaemia., The occurrence of glioblastoma multiforme following radiation and chemotherapy in acute lymphocytic leukaemia (ALL) is rare., Glioblastoma multiforme following cranial irradiation and chemotherapy for acute lymphocytic leukaemia. R, exact cause for the development of glioblastoma multiforme following therapy for ALL is not clear. A gen, ndary malignant and benign brain tumors such as astrocytoma, meningioma and glioblastoma have been described in long-term survivors of conventional myeloablative alloBMT. Here w, The authors consider irradiation-induced glioblastomas secondary to primarily verified medulloblastomas in patients who had previously undergone craniospinal irradiation as a component of combined treatment after tumor resection., The authors analyzed patterns of occurrence of irradiation-induced glioblastomas depending on the molecular genetic group and clinical characteristics of patients after primary surgery., Secondary brain tumors rarely arise after cranial irradiation; among them, meningiomas and glioblastomas are the most common and secondary oligodendroglial tumors the most rare., Secondary glioblastoma multiforme (sGBM) can occur after a long latency period following radiation treatment of various diseases including brain tumors, leukemia, and more benign disorders like tinea capitis., Irradiation, however, acts as an oncogenic factor as a delayed effect and it is rare that glioblastoma multiforme develops during the remission period of ALL., A cerebellar glioblastoma was discovered in a 28 year old woman, 5 years after a focal 50 grays brain irradiation for meningioma of the clivus., Glioblastoma multiforme following cranial irradiation and chemotherapy for acute lymphocytic leukaemia. Report of 3 cases., Secondary tumors including glioblastomas are under special attention since their occurrence is associated with a fatal outcome., We describe a case of radiation-induced glioblastoma after radiotherapy for germinoma., [A Case of Radiation-induced Glioblastoma 29 Years after Treatments for Germinoma]., Paradoxically, radiation is also a risk factor for GBM development, raising the possibility that radiotherapy of brain tumors could promote tumor recurrence or trigger secondary gliomas., An SMN may have a benign course, as in meningioma, or be a dilemma for the patient, as in glioblastoma., During a median of 2 years of follow-up review after the diagnosis of a secondary tumour, 3 patients died related to the secondary tumours (2 sarcomas, 1 glioblastoma), one died of a recurrent primary glioma, while the remaining 7 have been alive for from 10 months to 12 years after being treated for the secondary tumours (median: 3 years). , In particular, children treated with X-irradiation for acute lymphoblastic leukemia show a significantly elevated risk of developing gliomas and primitive neuroectodermal tumor (PNET), often within 10 years after therapy. TP53 mutations are frequent in low-grade gliomas and secondary glioblastomas derived therefrom., Pathologic diagnoses were one glioblastoma, two cases of anaplastic astrocytoma, one medulloblastoma, one low-grade glioma, one high-grade glial tumor, and one atypical meningioma., A 22 year-old-man with acute lymphoblastic leukaemia had received prophylactic cranial irradiation and intrathecal chemotherapy. Eighteen years later a cerebellar glioblastoma multiforme was diagnosed. , She developed glioblastoma 5.7 years after the initial GK surgery.[SEP]Relations: adult glioblastoma has relations: disease_disease with glioblastoma (disease), disease_disease with glioblastoma (disease), disease_disease with glioblastoma (disease), disease_disease with glioblastoma (disease). Glioma has relations: phenotype_phenotype with Brainstem glioma, phenotype_phenotype with Brainstem glioma, disease_phenotype_positive with retinoblastoma, disease_phenotype_positive with retinoblastoma, disease_phenotype_positive with glioblastoma (disease), disease_phenotype_positive with glioblastoma (disease). Definitions: acute lymphocytic leukaemia defined as following: Leukemia with an acute onset, characterized by the presence of lymphoblasts in the bone marrow and the peripheral blood. It includes the acute B lymphoblastic leukemia and acute T lymphoblastic leukemia.. SMN defined as following: Small nuclear ribonucleoprotein-associated protein N (240 aa, ~25 kDa) is a nucleotide metabolism protein that is encoded by the human SNRPN gene and plays a role in mRNA splicing.. medulloblastoma defined as following: A malignant neoplasm that may be classified either as a glioma or as a primitive neuroectodermal tumor of childhood (see NEUROECTODERMAL TUMOR, PRIMITIVE). The tumor occurs most frequently in the first decade of life with the most typical location being the cerebellar vermis. Histologic features include a high degree of cellularity, frequent mitotic figures, and a tendency for the cells to organize into sheets or form rosettes. Medulloblastoma have a high propensity to spread throughout the craniospinal intradural axis. (From DeVita et al., Cancer: Principles and Practice of Oncology, 5th ed, pp2060-1). meningioma defined as following: A grade I, slowly growing meningioma. Only a minority of tumors recur following complete resection.. benign brain tumors defined as following: A primary, slow growing, noninvasive neoplasm of the brain. In children, astrocytomas of the cerebellum represent relatively common benign brain neoplasms. In adults meningiomas, neurilemomas and pituitary tumors comprise the majority of benign tumors.. leukemia defined as following: A progressive, malignant disease of the blood-forming organs, characterized by distorted proliferation and development of leukocytes and their precursors in the blood and bone marrow. Leukemias were originally termed acute or chronic based on life expectancy but now are classified according to cellular maturity. Acute leukemias consist of predominately immature cells; chronic leukemias are composed of more mature cells. (From The Merck Manual, 2006). acute lymphoblastic leukemia defined as following: A type of ALL characterized by elevated levels of B-cell lymphoblasts in the bone marrow and the blood. [NCIT:C8644]. meningiomas defined as following: A relatively common neoplasm of the CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM that arises from arachnoidal cells. The majority are well differentiated vascular tumors which grow slowly and have a low potential to be invasive, although malignant subtypes occur. Meningiomas have a predilection to arise from the parasagittal region, cerebral convexity, sphenoidal ridge, olfactory groove, and SPINAL CANAL. (From DeVita et al., Cancer: Principles and Practice of Oncology, 5th ed, pp2056-7). germinoma defined as following: A malignant neoplasm of the germinal tissue of the GONADS; MEDIASTINUM; or pineal region. Germinomas are uniform in appearance, consisting of large, round cells with vesicular nuclei and clear or finely granular eosinophilic-staining cytoplasm. (Stedman, 265th ed; from DeVita Jr et al., Cancer: Principles & Practice of Oncology, 3d ed, pp1642-3). sarcomas defined as following: A malignant neoplasm arising exclusively from the soft tissues.. Glioblastoma defined as following: The most malignant astrocytic tumor (WHO grade 4). It is composed of poorly differentiated neoplastic astrocytes and is characterized by the presence of cellular polymorphism, nuclear atypia, brisk mitotic activity, vascular thrombosis, microvascular proliferation, and necrosis. It typically affects adults and is preferentially located in the cerebral hemispheres. (Adapted from WHO). gliomas defined as following: Benign and malignant central nervous system neoplasms derived from glial cells (i.e., astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, and ependymocytes). Astrocytes may give rise to astrocytomas (ASTROCYTOMA) or glioblastoma multiforme (see GLIOBLASTOMA). Oligodendrocytes give rise to oligodendrogliomas (OLIGODENDROGLIOMA) and ependymocytes may undergo transformation to become EPENDYMOMA; CHOROID PLEXUS NEOPLASMS; or colloid cysts of the third ventricle. (From Escourolle et al., Manual of Basic Neuropathology, 2nd ed, p21). astrocytoma defined as following: Neoplasms of the brain and spinal cord derived from glial cells which vary from histologically benign forms to highly anaplastic and malignant tumors. Fibrillary astrocytomas are the most common type and may be classified in order of increasing malignancy (grades I through IV). In the first two decades of life, astrocytomas tend to originate in the cerebellar hemispheres; in adults, they most frequently arise in the cerebrum and frequently undergo malignant transformation. (From Devita et al., Cancer: Principles and Practice of Oncology, 5th ed, pp2013-7; Holland et al., Cancer Medicine, 3d ed, p1082). glioblastomas defined as following: A malignant form of astrocytoma histologically characterized by pleomorphism of cells, nuclear atypia, microhemorrhage, and necrosis. They may arise in any region of the central nervous system, with a predilection for the cerebral hemispheres, basal ganglia, and commissural pathways. Clinical presentation most frequently occurs in the fifth or sixth decade of life with focal neurologic signs or seizures.. brain tumors defined as following: Neoplasms of the intracranial components of the central nervous system, including the cerebral hemispheres, basal ganglia, hypothalamus, thalamus, brain stem, and cerebellum. Brain neoplasms are subdivided into primary (originating from brain tissue) and secondary (i.e., metastatic) forms. Primary neoplasms are subdivided into benign and malignant forms. In general, brain tumors may also be classified by age of onset, histologic type, or presenting location in the brain.. tinea capitis defined as following: Ringworm of the scalp and associated hair mainly caused by species of MICROSPORUM; TRICHOPHYTON; and EPIDERMOPHYTON, which may occasionally involve the eyebrows and eyelashes.. anaplastic astrocytoma defined as following: A central nervous system tumor with morphological features of anaplastic astrocytoma in which there is insufficient information on the IDH genes status.. GBM defined as following: A sheet of amorphous extracellular material upon which the basal surfaces of epithelial cells rest and is the covering surface of a glomerular capillary, interposed between the cellular elements and the underlying connective tissue.. PNET defined as following: A group of highly cellular primitive round cell neoplasms which occur extracranially in soft tissue and bone and are derived from embryonal neural crest cells. These tumors occur primarily in children and adolescents and share a number of characteristics with EWING SARCOMA.. primitive neuroectodermal tumor defined as following: A group of malignant tumors of the nervous system that feature primitive cells with elements of neuronal and/or glial differentiation. Use of this term is limited by some authors to central nervous system tumors and others include neoplasms of similar origin which arise extracranially (i.e., NEUROECTODERMAL TUMORS, PRIMITIVE, PERIPHERAL). This term is also occasionally used as a synonym for MEDULLOBLASTOMA. In general, these tumors arise in the first decade of life and tend to be highly malignant. (From DeVita et al., Cancer: Principles and Practice of Oncology, 5th ed, p2059). cranial irradiation defined as following: The exposure of the head to roentgen rays or other forms of radioactivity for therapeutic or preventive purposes.. glioblastoma defined as following: The most malignant astrocytic tumor (WHO grade 4). It is composed of poorly differentiated neoplastic astrocytes and is characterized by the presence of cellular polymorphism, nuclear atypia, brisk mitotic activity, vascular thrombosis, microvascular proliferation, and necrosis. It typically affects adults and is preferentially located in the cerebral hemispheres. (Adapted from WHO).", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_2938", "sentence1": "Does Groucho related gene 5 (GRG5) have a role only in late development?", "sentence2": "Groucho related gene 5 (GRG5) is a multifunctional protein that has been implicated in late embryonic and postnatal mouse development. Here, we describe a previously unknown role of GRG5 in early developmental stages by analyzing its function in stem cell fate decisions. By both loss and gain of function approaches we demonstrate that ablation of GRG5 deregulates the Embryonic Stem Cell (ESC) pluripotent state whereas its overexpression leads to enhanced self-renewal and acquisition of cancer cell-like properties. The malignant characteristics of teratomas generated by ESCs that overexpress GRG5 reveal its pro-oncogenic potential., Here, we describe a previously unknown role of GRG5 in early developmental stages by analyzing its function in stem cell fate decisions., Groucho related gene 5 (GRG5) is involved in embryonic and neural stem cell state decisions.Groucho related gene 5 (GRG5) is a multifunctional protein that has been implicated in late embryonic and postnatal mouse development. [SEP]Relations: embryo has relations: anatomy_protein_present with GRK5, anatomy_protein_present with GRK5, anatomy_protein_present with GRK6, anatomy_protein_present with GRK6. TLE5 has relations: protein_protein with GRB2, protein_protein with GRB2, protein_protein with GRAP2, protein_protein with GRAP2, protein_protein with GRN, protein_protein with GRN. Definitions: embryonic defined as following: The entities of developing ANIMALS in early stages.. cancer defined as following: A malignant tumor at the original site of growth.. Embryonic Stem Cell defined as following: Cells derived from the BLASTOCYST INNER CELL MASS which forms before implantation in the uterine wall. They retain the ability to divide, proliferate and provide progenitor cells that can differentiate into specialized cells.. teratomas defined as following: A true neoplasm composed of a number of different types of tissue, none of which is native to the area in which it occurs. It is composed of tissues that are derived from three germinal layers, the endoderm, mesoderm, and ectoderm. They are classified histologically as mature (benign) or immature (malignant). (From DeVita Jr et al., Cancer: Principles & Practice of Oncology, 3d ed, p1642). multifunctional protein defined as following: This gene is involved in fatty acid oxidation..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_3117", "sentence1": "Are there tools for visualizing and processing long-read sequencing data?", "sentence2": "NanoPack: visualizing and processing long-read sequencing data., Here we describe NanoPack, a set of tools developed for visualization and processing of long-read sequencing data from Oxford Nanopore Technologies and Pacific Biosciences.Availability and implementation: The NanoPack tools are written in Python3 and released under the GNU GPL3.0 License. The source code can be found at https://github.com/wdecoster/nanopack, together with links to separate scripts and their documentation. The scripts are compatible with Linux, Mac OS and the MS Windows 10 subsystem for Linux and are available as a graphical user interface, a web service at http://nanoplot.bioinf.be and command line tools., Summary\nHere we describe NanoPack, a set of tools developed for visualization and processing of long-read sequencing data from Oxford Nanopore Technologies and Pacific Biosciences., NanoPack: visualizing and processing long-read sequencing data.Supplementary data are available at Bioinformatics online., Summary: Here we describe NanoPack, a set of tools developed for visualization and processing of long-read sequencing data from Oxford Nanopore Technologies and Pacific Biosciences.
Availability and implementation: The NanoPack tools are written in Python3 and released under the GNU GPL3.0 License., Here we describe NanoPack, a set of tools developed for visualization and processing of long-read sequencing data from Oxford Nanopore Technologies and Pacific Biosciences.[SEP]", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_2522", "sentence1": "Does Uc.160 promote cancer?", "sentence2": "We previously discovered the downregulation of T-UCR expression in gastric cancer (GC), indicating that T-UCRs could play an important role in GC biology. Uc.160+, a T-UCR reported to be downregulated in human cancer, has not been examined in GC.METHODS: We analyzed the expression pattern of Uc.160+ in nonneoplastic and tumor tissues of the stomach by using uantitative reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction (qRT-PCR) and in situ hybridization (ISH), specifically focusing on the mechanism of transcriptional regulation and target genes that are regulated by T-UCRs. We also attempted to determine the effect of Uc.160+ expression on biological features of GC cell lines by Western blotting.RESULTS: On the basis of the qRT-PCR and ISH results, Uc.160+ expression in adenoma and GC tissues was clearly downregulated compared with that in nonneoplastic mucosa tissues of the stomach. Cancer-specific DNA methylation in the promoter region of Uc.160 was observed by bisulfite genomic DNA sequencing analysis. The effect of DNA methylation on Uc.160+ expression was further confirmed by reporter gene assay. We also revealed that Uc.160+ inhibited the phosphorylation of Akt by regulating phosphatase and tensin homolog (PTEN) expression.CONCLUSIONS: These results indicate that Uc.160+ could possibly have a tumor suppressive role in GC., Uc.160+, a T-UCR reported to be downregulated in human cancer, has not been examined in GC.
METHODS: We analyzed the expression pattern of Uc.160+ in nonneoplastic and tumor tissues of the stomach by using uantitative reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction (qRT-PCR) and in situ hybridization (ISH), specifically focusing on the mechanism of transcriptional regulation and target genes that are regulated by T-UCRs., We also revealed that Uc.160+ inhibited the phosphorylation of Akt by regulating phosphatase and tensin homolog (PTEN) expression.
CONCLUSIONS: These results indicate that Uc.160+ could possibly have a tumor suppressive role in GC.
, We also attempted to determine the effect of Uc.160+ expression on biological features of GC cell lines by Western blotting.
RESULTS: On the basis of the qRT-PCR and ISH results, Uc.160+ expression in adenoma and GC tissues was clearly downregulated compared with that in nonneoplastic mucosa tissues of the stomach., CONCLUSIONS These results indicate that Uc.160+ could possibly have a tumor suppressive role in GC., Uc.160+, a T-UCR reported to be downregulated in human cancer, has not been examined in GC., Among the T-UCRs that were reactivated upon drug treatment, Uc.160+, Uc283+A and Uc.346+ were found to undergo specific CpG island hypermethylation-associated silencing in cancer cells compared with normal tissues., Uc.160+, a T-UCR reported to be downregulated in human cancer, has not been examined in GC., These results indicate that Uc.160+ could possibly have a tumor suppressive role in GC..[SEP]Relations: malignant giant cell tumor has relations: disease_disease with cancer, disease_disease with cancer. tumor of adipose tissue has relations: disease_disease with lipomatous cancer, disease_disease with lipomatous cancer, disease_disease with benign lipomatous neoplasm, disease_disease with benign lipomatous neoplasm, disease_disease with mesenchymal cell neoplasm, disease_disease with mesenchymal cell neoplasm. adenoma has relations: disease_protein with SUZ12, disease_protein with SUZ12. Definitions: cancer cells defined as following: Cells of, or derived from, a malignant tumor.. Akt defined as following: Expressed in diverse tissues, Protein Kinase B (AKT/RAC Family) is a group (Alpha, Beta and Gamma) of cytoplasmic serine/threonine enzymes that covalently transfer the terminal, gamma phosphate group from ATP to a variety of substrate proteins and regulate cell signaling responses to insulin, PDGF, and IGF1 (through PI3K) involved in cell survival, cell proliferation, differentiation, apoptosis, glycogen synthesis, and glucose uptake.. tissues defined as following: Collections of differentiated CELLS, such as EPITHELIUM; CONNECTIVE TISSUE; MUSCLES; and NERVE TISSUE. Tissues are cooperatively arranged to form organs with specialized functions such as RESPIRATION; DIGESTION; REPRODUCTION; MOVEMENT; and others.. PTEN defined as following: Phosphatidylinositol 3,4,5-trisphosphate 3-phosphatase and dual-specificity protein phosphatase PTEN (403 aa, ~47 kDa) is encoded by the human PTEN gene. This protein plays a role in signaling and as both a dual-specificity phosphoprotein phosphatase and a lipid phosphatase.. gastric cancer defined as following: A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the stomach.. cell lines defined as following: Established cell cultures that have the potential to propagate indefinitely.. promoter region defined as following: DNA sequences which are recognized (directly or indirectly) and bound by a DNA-dependent RNA polymerase during the initiation of transcription. Highly conserved sequences within the promoter include the Pribnow box in bacteria and the TATA BOX in eukaryotes.. adenoma defined as following: A benign epithelial tumor with a glandular organization.. tumor tissues defined as following: A tumor sample, or entire tumor that is removed for microscopic examination.. genes defined as following: A category of nucleic acid sequences that function as units of heredity and which code for the basic instructions for the development, reproduction, and maintenance of organisms.. cancer defined as following: A malignant tumor at the original site of growth..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_3880", "sentence1": "Does inactivation of CYLD help in colorectal cancer?", "sentence2": "Inactivation of CYLD in intestinal epithelial cells exacerbates colitis-associated colorectal carcinogenesis - a short report., CYLD is a tumor suppressor that has been linked to the development of various human malignancies, including colon cancer. The tumor-suppressing function of CYLD is associated with its deubiquitinating activity, which maps to the carboxyl-terminal region of the protein. In the present study we evaluated the role of intestinal epithelial CYLD in colitis-associated cancer using a conditional mouse CYLD inactivation model.METHODS: In order to evaluate the role of CYLD in intestinal epithelial carcinogenesis, mice (IEC-Cyld (Δ9) mice) that carry a mutation that eliminates the deubiquitinating domain of CYLD in intestinal epithelial cells (IEC) were generated by crossing Villin-Cre transgenic mice to previously generated mice carrying a loxP-flanked Cyld exon 9 (Cyld (flx9) mice).RESULTS: We found that IEC-Cyld (Δ9) mice did not present spontaneous intestinal abnormalities up to one year of age. However, upon challenge with a combination of genotoxic (AOM) and pro-inflammatory (DSS) agents we found that the number of adenomas in the IEC-Cyld (Δ9) mice was dramatically increased compared to the control mice. Inactivation of CYLD in intestinal epithelial cells did not affect the classical nuclear factor-kappaB (NF-κB) and c-Jun kinase (JNK) activation pathways under physiological conditions, suggesting that these pathways do not predispose CYLD-deficient intestinal epithelia to colorectal cancer development before the onset of genotoxic and/or pro-inflammatory stress.CONCLUSIONS: Our findings underscore a critical tumor-suppressing role for functional intestinal epithelial CYLD in colitis-associated carcinogenesis. CYLD expression and its associated pathways in intestinal tumors may be exploited for future prognostic and therapeutic purposes., Inactivation of CYLD in intestinal epithelial cells exacerbates colitis-associated colorectal carcinogenesis - a short report[SEP]Relations: malignant colon neoplasm has relations: disease_disease with colorectal cancer, disease_disease with colorectal cancer, disease_protein with RECK, disease_protein with RECK, contraindication with Indomethacin, contraindication with Indomethacin, disease_protein with EGFR, disease_protein with EGFR. intestine has relations: anatomy_protein_present with CYLD, anatomy_protein_present with CYLD. Definitions: epithelial cells defined as following: Cells that line the inner and outer surfaces of the body by forming cellular layers (EPITHELIUM) or masses. Epithelial cells lining the SKIN; the MOUTH; the NOSE; and the ANAL CANAL derive from ectoderm; those lining the RESPIRATORY SYSTEM and the DIGESTIVE SYSTEM derive from endoderm; others (CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM and LYMPHATIC SYSTEM) derive from mesoderm. Epithelial cells can be classified mainly by cell shape and function into squamous, glandular and transitional epithelial cells.. c-Jun kinase defined as following: A c-jun amino-terminal kinase that is found predominantly within NEURONS of the BRAIN, suggesting a role in stress-induced neuronal APOPTOSIS. Several isoforms of the protein with molecular sizes of 47 kDa and 52 kDa exist due to multiple ALTERNATIVE SPLICING.. intestinal tumors defined as following: Tumors or cancer of the INTESTINES.. Cyld defined as following: Ubiquitin carboxyl-terminal hydrolase CYLD (956 aa, ~107 kDa) is encoded by the human CYLD gene. This protein is involved in the mediation of protein deubiquitination and the regulation of the cell cycle.. IEC defined as following: A separate body such as an institutional, regional, national or supranational committee, made up of medical/scientific professionals and non-scientific members, whose responsibility it is to ensure the protection of the rights, safety, and well-being of human subjects involved in a clinical trial. It tries to provide public assurance of that protection by reviewing and approving the trial protocol, the suitability of the investigator(s), facilities, methods, and materials to be used in documenting informed consent of the trial subjects. (ICH). colitis-associated cancer defined as following: Colonic neoplasms associated with chronic inflammation conditions such as ULCERATIVE COLITIS and CROHN DISEASE.. human defined as following: Members of the species Homo sapiens.. domain defined as following: A taxonomic category above that of Kingdom.. JNK defined as following: Human MAPK8 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 10q11.22 and is approximately 133 kb in length. This allele, which encodes mitogen-activated protein kinase 8 protein, plays a role in the induction of programmed cell death mediated by both tumor necrosis factor-alpha and ultraviolet radiation.. mutation defined as following: Any transmissible change in the genetic material of an organism, which can result from radiation, viral infection, transposition, treatment with mutagenic chemicals and errors during DNA replication or meiosis. The effects of mutation range from single base changes to loss or gain of complete chromosomes. As many of the simpler alterations to DNA may be repaired, such changes are only heritable once the change is fixed in the DNA by the process of replication. Mutations may be associated with genetic diversity or with pathologies including cancer.. colon cancer defined as following: A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the colon. Representative examples include carcinoma, lymphoma, and sarcoma.. adenomas defined as following: A benign epithelial tumor with a glandular organization.. AOM defined as following: Stickler syndrome inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern, caused by mutation(s) in the COL2A1 gene, encoding collagen alpha-1(II) chain.. transgenic mice defined as following: Laboratory mice that have been produced from a genetically manipulated EGG or EMBRYO, MAMMALIAN.. intestinal defined as following: The section of the alimentary canal from the STOMACH to the ANAL CANAL. It includes the LARGE INTESTINE and SMALL INTESTINE.. CYLD defined as following: Ubiquitin carboxyl-terminal hydrolase CYLD (956 aa, ~107 kDa) is encoded by the human CYLD gene. This protein is involved in the mediation of protein deubiquitination and the regulation of the cell cycle..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_2558", "sentence1": "Is the gene CDKN2A nevogenic?", "sentence2": "Germline mutations in CDKN2A are frequently identified among melanoma kindreds and are associated with increased atypical nevus counts., Phenotypic characteristics of members of a melanoma prone kindred with a V126D CDKN2A gene mutation were monitored over approximately 15 y., Rare germline mutations in CDKN2A predispose to melanoma and appear to be nevogenic, although the correlation between nevus phenotype and mutation status is poor. It is plausible that more common CDKN2A variants may influence both melanoma susceptibility and nevus susceptibility. , supporting the view that CDKN2A is nevogenic.[SEP]Relations: cyclin-dependent protein serine/threonine kinase inhibitor activity has relations: molfunc_protein with CDKN2A, molfunc_protein with CDKN2A, molfunc_protein with CDKN2D, molfunc_protein with CDKN2D, molfunc_protein with CDKN2B, molfunc_protein with CDKN2B, molfunc_protein with CDKN1A, molfunc_protein with CDKN1A, molfunc_protein with CDKN2C, molfunc_protein with CDKN2C. Definitions: melanoma defined as following: A benign or malignant, primary or metastatic neoplasm affecting the melanocytes.. CDKN2A defined as following: Cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor 2A (156 aa, ~17 kDa) is encoded by the human CDKN2A gene. This protein is involved in the inhibition of both cell proliferation and cell cycle progression.. gene CDKN2A defined as following: Tumor suppressor genes located on human chromosome 9 in the region 9p21. This gene is either deleted or mutated in a wide range of malignancies. (From Segen, Current Med Talk, 1995) Two alternatively spliced gene products are encoded by p16: CYCLIN-DEPENDENT KINASE INHIBITOR P16 and TUMOR SUPPRESSOR PROTEIN P14ARF..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_3294", "sentence1": "Is PTEN a tumour suppressor?", "sentence2": "PTEN is a potent tumour suppressor, Genomic aberrations of the PTEN tumour suppressor gene are among the most common in prostate cancer.[SEP]Relations: Protein S human has relations: drug_drug with Cloricromen, drug_drug with Cloricromen, drug_drug with Naproxen, drug_drug with Naproxen, drug_drug with Lepirudin, drug_drug with Lepirudin, drug_drug with Turoctocog alfa, drug_drug with Turoctocog alfa, drug_drug with (R)-warfarin, drug_drug with (R)-warfarin. Definitions: Genomic defined as following: The genetic complement of an organism, including all of its GENES, as represented in its DNA, or in some cases, its RNA.. PTEN defined as following: Phosphatidylinositol 3,4,5-trisphosphate 3-phosphatase and dual-specificity protein phosphatase PTEN (403 aa, ~47 kDa) is encoded by the human PTEN gene. This protein plays a role in signaling and as both a dual-specificity phosphoprotein phosphatase and a lipid phosphatase.. prostate cancer defined as following: A primary or metastatic malignant tumor involving the prostate gland. The vast majority are carcinomas..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_146", "sentence1": "Is SLC22A3 expressed in the brain?", "sentence2": "The organic cation transporter (OCT) 3 is widely expressed in various organs in humans, and involved in the disposition of many exogenous and endogenous compounds. Several lines of evidence have suggested that OCT3 expressed in the brain plays an important role in the regulation of neurotransmission. , The organic cation transporter 3 (OCT3; synonymous: extraneuronal monoamine transporter, EMT, Slc22a3) encodes an isoform of the organic cation transporters and is expressed widely across the whole brain., In agreement with this distribution, OCT3/Slc22a3-deficient mice show evidence of altered monoamine neurotransmission in the brain, with decreased intracellular content and increased turnover of aminergic transmitters., CRT, taurine transporter (TauT/SLC6A6) and organic cation transporter (OCT3/SLC22A3) expressed at the BCSFB are involved in guanidinoacetic acid or creatinine efflux transport from CSF., The organic cation transporter 3 (OCT3; synonymous: extraneuronal monoamine transporter, EMT, Slc22a3) encodes an isoform of the organic cation transporters and is expressed widely across the whole brain, The organic cation transporter 3 (OCT3; synonymous: extraneuronal monoamine transporter, EMT, Slc22a3) encodes an isoform of the organic cation transporters and is expressed widely across the whole brain. , CRT may be a key factor facilitating blood-to-brain guanidinoacetate transport in patients deficient in S-adenosylmethionine:guanidinoacetate N-methyltransferase, the creatine biosynthetic enzyme, resulting in cerebral accumulation of guanidinoacetate. CRT, taurine transporter (TauT/SLC6A6) and organic cation transporter (OCT3/SLC22A3) expressed at the BCSFB are involved in guanidinoacetic acid or creatinine efflux transport from CSF., Slc22a3) encodes an isoform of the organic cation transporters and is expressed widely across the whole brain., CRT, taurine transporter (TauT/SLC6A6) and organic cation transporter (OCT3/SLC22A3) expressed at the BCSFB are involved in guanidinoacetic acid or creatinine efflux transport from CSF. Interestingly, BBB efflux transport of GCs, including guanidinoacetate and creatinine, is negligible, though the BBB has a variety of efflux transport systems for synthetic precursors of GCs, such as amino acids and neurotransmitters., The organic cation transporter (OCT) 3 is widely expressed in various organs in humans, and involved in the disposition of many exogenous and endogenous compounds. Several lines of evidence have suggested that OCT3 expressed in the brain plays an important role in the regulation of neurotransmission., CRT, taurine transporter (TauT/SLC6A6) and organic cation transporter (OCT3/SLC22A3) expressed at the BCSFB are involved in guanidinoacetic acid or creatinine efflux transport from CSF., Several lines of evidence have suggested that OCT3 expressed in the brain plays an important role in the regulation of neurotransmission., The organic cation transporter 3 (OCT3; synonymous: extraneuronal monoamine transporter, EMT, Slc22a3) encodes an isoform of the organic cation transporters and is expressed widely across the whole brain., OCT2-OCT-3 display differential tissue distribution: OCT1 is predominantly found in liver of humans, and liver and kidney in rodents; OCT2 is most strongly expressed in both human and rodent kidney, whereas is OCT3 primarily expressed in placenta, but also more widely detected in various tissues, including brain and lung.[SEP]Relations: SLC22A3 has relations: anatomy_protein_present with heart, anatomy_protein_present with heart, anatomy_protein_present with colon, anatomy_protein_present with colon, cellcomp_protein with membrane, cellcomp_protein with membrane, anatomy_protein_present with kidney, anatomy_protein_present with kidney, anatomy_protein_present with intestine, anatomy_protein_present with intestine. Definitions: OCT2 defined as following: This gene is involved in transcriptional activation and plays a role in mature B cell maintenance.. BBB defined as following: Specialized non-fenestrated tightly-joined ENDOTHELIAL CELLS with TIGHT JUNCTIONS that form a transport barrier for certain substances between the cerebral capillaries and the BRAIN tissue.. OCT1 defined as following: This gene plays a role in transcriptional activation and modulates immunoglobulin activity.. intracellular defined as following: The organized colloidal complex of organic and inorganic substances (as proteins and water) that constitutes the living nucleus, cytoplasm, plastids, and mitochondria of the cell. It is composed mainly of nucleic acids, proteins, lipids, carbohydrates, and inorganic salts.. CSF defined as following: A watery fluid that is continuously produced in the CHOROID PLEXUS and circulates around the surface of the BRAIN; SPINAL CORD; and in the CEREBRAL VENTRICLES.. CRT defined as following: Treatment that combines chemotherapy with radiotherapy.. Slc22a3 defined as following: This gene is involved in membrane potential-dependent transport of organic cations.. S-adenosylmethionine defined as following: Physiologic methyl radical donor involved in enzymatic transmethylation reactions and present in all living organisms. It possesses anti-inflammatory activity and has been used in treatment of chronic liver disease. (From Merck, 11th ed). rodents defined as following: A mammalian order which consists of 29 families and many genera.. OCT3 defined as following: This gene plays a role in early mammalian development.. isoform defined as following: Refers to variants of the same protein which can be separated on special conducting media using electrophoresis. The differences may arise from genetically determined differences in primary structure or by modification of the same primary sequence.. organic cation transporter defined as following: Solute carrier family 22 member 1 (554 aa, ~61 kDa) is encoded by the human SLC22A1 gene. This protein is involved in bidirectional cation transport.. organic cation transporter 3 defined as following: Solute carrier family 22 member 3 (556 aa, ~61 kDa) is encoded by the human SLC22A3 gene. This protein is involved in mediating membrane potential-dependent transport of organic cations and may play a role in the disposition of cationic neurotoxins and neurotransmitters in the brain.. GCs defined as following: Ceramide glucosyltransferase (394 aa, ~45 kDa) is encoded by the human UGCG gene. This protein is involved in the glycosylation of N-acylsphingosine.. organs defined as following: A unique macroscopic (gross) anatomic structure that performs specific functions. It is composed of various tissues. An organ is part of an anatomic system or a body region. Representative examples include the heart, lung, liver, spleen, and uterus.. humans defined as following: Members of the species Homo sapiens.. tissues defined as following: Collections of differentiated CELLS, such as EPITHELIUM; CONNECTIVE TISSUE; MUSCLES; and NERVE TISSUE. Tissues are cooperatively arranged to form organs with specialized functions such as RESPIRATION; DIGESTION; REPRODUCTION; MOVEMENT; and others.. SLC22A3 defined as following: This gene is involved in membrane potential-dependent transport of organic cations..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_3188", "sentence1": "Are artificial blood cells available?", "sentence2": "The critical point for the break through for artificial blood products did not come yet but could be ahead-, We suggest a novel method that uses artificial blood cells (hemoglobin vesicles, Hb-Vs) as photosensitizers in dye laser treatment (at 595-nm wavelength) for port-wine stains (i.e., capillary malformations presenting as red birthmarks) based on the results of animal experiments. [SEP]Relations: Capillary malformation has relations: disease_phenotype_positive with nevus anemicus (disease), disease_phenotype_positive with nevus anemicus (disease), phenotype_phenotype with Angioma serpentinum, phenotype_phenotype with Angioma serpentinum, disease_phenotype_positive with macrocephaly-intellectual disability-neurodevelopmental disorder-small thorax syndrome, disease_phenotype_positive with macrocephaly-intellectual disability-neurodevelopmental disorder-small thorax syndrome, disease_phenotype_positive with pulmonary venoocclusive disease, disease_phenotype_positive with pulmonary venoocclusive disease, disease_phenotype_positive with capillary malformation-arteriovenous malformation, disease_phenotype_positive with capillary malformation-arteriovenous malformation. Definitions: port-wine stains defined as following: A vascular malformation of developmental origin characterized pathologically by ectasia of superficial dermal capillaries, and clinically by persistent macular erythema. In the past, port wine stains have frequently been termed capillary hemangiomas, which they are not; unfortunately this confusing practice persists: HEMANGIOMA, CAPILLARY is neoplastic, a port-wine stain is non-neoplastic. Port-wine stains vary in color from fairly pale pink to deep red or purple and in size from a few millimeters to many centimeters in diameter. The face is the most frequently affected site and they are most often unilateral. (From Rook et al., Textbook of Dermatology, 5th ed, p483). capillary malformations defined as following: A capillary malformation is a flat, sharply defined vascular stain of the skin. It may cover a large surface area or it may be scattered and appear as little islands of color. In a capillary maformation, the predominant vessels are small, slow-flow vessels (i.e., arterioles and postcapillary venules). [PMID:22483320, PMID:25864701].", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_3323", "sentence1": "Is BNN20 involved in Parkinson's disease?", "sentence2": "Neurotrophic factors are among the most promising treatments aiming at slowing or stopping and even reversing Parkinson's disease (PD). However, in most cases, they cannot readily cross the human blood-brain-barrier (BBB). Herein, we propose as a therapeutic for PD the small molecule 17-beta-spiro-[5-androsten-17,2'-oxiran]-3beta-ol (BNN-20), a synthetic analogue of DHEA, which crosses the BBB and is deprived of endocrine side-effects. Using the \"weaver\" mouse, a genetic model of PD, which exhibits progressive dopaminergic neurodegeneration in the Substantia Nigra (SN), we have shown that long-term administration (P1-P21) of BNN-20 almost fully protected the dopaminergic neurons and their terminals, via i) a strong anti-apoptotic effect, probably mediated through the Tropomyosin receptor kinase B (TrkB) neurotrophin receptor's PI3K-Akt-NF-κB signaling pathway, ii) by exerting an efficient antioxidant effect, iii) by inducing significant anti-inflammatory activity and iv) by restoring Brain-Derived Neurotrophic Factor (BDNF) levels. By intercrossing \"weaver\" with NGL mice (dual GFP/luciferase-NF-κΒ reporter mice, NF-κΒ.GFP.Luc), we obtained Weaver/NGL mice that express the NF-κB reporter in all somatic cells. Acute BNN-20 administration to Weaver/NGL mice induced a strong NF-κB-dependent transcriptional response in the brain as detected by bioluminescence imaging, which was abolished by co-administration of the TrkB inhibitor ANA-12. This indicates that BNN-20 exerts its beneficial action (at least in part) through the TrkB-PI3K-Akt-NF-κB signaling pathway. These results could be of clinical relevance, as they suggest BNN-20 as an important neuroprotective agent acting through the TrkB neurotrophin receptor pathway, mimicking the action of the endogenous neurotrophin BDNF. Thus BNN-20 could be proposed for treatment of PD.[SEP]Relations: Parkinson disease has relations: disease_protein with BST1, disease_protein with BST1, disease_protein with BDNF, disease_protein with BDNF, disease_protein with FBP1, disease_protein with FBP1, disease_protein with CNTNAP2, disease_protein with CNTNAP2, disease_protein with TBP, disease_protein with TBP. Definitions: Substantia Nigra defined as following: The black substance in the ventral midbrain or the nucleus of cells containing the black substance. These cells produce DOPAMINE, an important neurotransmitter in regulation of the sensorimotor system and mood. The dark colored MELANIN is a by-product of dopamine synthesis.. TrkB defined as following: BDNF/NT-3 growth factors receptor (822 aa, ~92 kDa) is encoded by the human NTRK2 gene. This protein plays a role in growth factor-dependent signaling, tyrosine phosphorylation and nervous system development.. PD defined as following: A score of 4 or 5 on a 5-point PET scale with an increase in intensity of uptake from baseline and/or new FDG-avid foci consistent with lymphoma at interim or end of treatment assessment.. BDNF defined as following: A member of the nerve growth factor family of trophic factors. In the brain BDNF has a trophic action on retinal, cholinergic, and dopaminergic neurons, and in the peripheral nervous system it acts on both motor and sensory neurons. (From Kendrew, The Encyclopedia of Molecular Biology, 1994). neurodegeneration defined as following: Loss of functional activity and trophic degeneration of nerve axons and their terminal arborizations following the destruction of their cells of origin or interruption of their continuity with these cells. The pathology is characteristic of neurodegenerative diseases. Often the process of nerve degeneration is studied in research on neuroanatomical localization and correlation of the neurophysiology of neural pathways.. Neurotrophic factors defined as following: Factors which enhance the growth potentialities of sensory and sympathetic nerve cells.. somatic cells defined as following: Nucleated cell which has one or more diploid sets (46 pairs) of chromosomes.. DHEA defined as following: A synthetic form of dehydroepiandrosterone with potential chemopreventive activity. Produced endogenously, dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) is an intermediate in the conversion of cholesterol to androgens and estrogens. Although the mechanisms of action of exogenously administered DHEA have not been fully illuminated, they may result in both direct and indirect physiologic effects. Direct effects include GABA-a receptor complex and NMDA receptor modulation, and enhanced pancreatic beta cell insulin secretion and antiglucocorticoid activities. (NCI04). dopaminergic neurons defined as following: Neurons whose primary neurotransmitter is DOPAMINE.. Parkinson's disease defined as following: A progressive, degenerative neurologic disease characterized by a TREMOR that is maximal at rest, retropulsion (i.e. a tendency to fall backwards), rigidity, stooped posture, slowness of voluntary movements, and a masklike facial expression. Pathologic features include loss of melanin containing neurons in the substantia nigra and other pigmented nuclei of the brainstem. LEWY BODIES are present in the substantia nigra and locus coeruleus but may also be found in a related condition (LEWY BODY DISEASE, DIFFUSE) characterized by dementia in combination with varying degrees of parkinsonism. (Adams et al., Principles of Neurology, 6th ed, p1059, pp1067-75). dopaminergic defined as following: The hydrochloride salt form of dopamine, a monoamine compound with positive inotropic activity. Dopamine is a naturally occurring catecholamine formed by decarboxylation of dehydroxyphenylalanine and a precursor of norepinephrine and epinephrine. Dopamine binds to alpha-1- and beta-1- adrenergic receptors. Mediated through myocardial beta-1-adrenergic receptors, dopamine increase heart rate and force, thereby increasing cardiac output. Alpha-1-adrenergic receptor stimulation on vascular smooth muscle, leads to vasoconstriction and results in an increase in systemic vascular resistance. Stimulation of dopaminergic receptors in renal vasculature, leads to renal blood vessel dilation, and an increase in glomerular filtration rate, renal blood flow, sodium excretion, and urine output..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_3900", "sentence1": "Are Toll-like receptors (TLRs) induced by microbes?", "sentence2": "The C-type lectin receptor CLEC4E and Toll-like receptor TLR4 expressed by host cells are among the first line of defense in encountering pathogens., Gram-negative bacteria and endogenous molecules coordinate to trigger inflammatory cascades via Toll-like receptor 4 to induce excessive expression of cytokines such as tumor necrosis factor-α and to activate NLRP3 inflammasome, a multiprotein complex that processes pro-interleukin-1β into its mature form. , During viral infection, viral nucleic acids are detected by virus sensor proteins including toll-like receptor 3 or retinoic acid-inducible gene I-like receptors (RLRs) in mammalian cells. , Toll-like receptor 9 (TLR9) activation is attributed to delivery of bacterial DNA, We determine that HBCs have the capacity to play a defensive role, where they are responsive to Toll-like receptor stimulation and are microbicidal.[SEP]Relations: Toll-like receptor 1-Toll-like receptor 2 protein complex has relations: cellcomp_protein with TLR1, cellcomp_protein with TLR1, cellcomp_protein with TLR1, cellcomp_protein with TLR1, cellcomp_protein with TLR1, cellcomp_protein with TLR1, cellcomp_protein with TLR2, cellcomp_protein with TLR2, cellcomp_protein with TLR2, cellcomp_protein with TLR2. Definitions: Toll-like receptor defined as following: Toll-like receptor 2 (784 aa, ~90 kDa) is encoded by the human TLR2 gene. This protein is involved in signal transduction that modulates innate immunity.. Toll-like receptor 9 defined as following: Toll-like receptor 9 (1032 aa, ~116 kDa) is encoded by the human TLR9 gene. This protein plays a role in the mediation of inflammatory signaling.. TLR4 defined as following: Human TLR4 wild-type allele is located within 9q32-q33 and is approximately 11 kb in length. This allele, which encodes toll-like receptor 4 protein, is involved in pathogen recognition, signal transduction and innate immunity. Mutations in the gene are associated with differences in LPS responsiveness.. molecules defined as following: An aggregate of two or more atoms in a defined arrangement held together by chemical bonds.. Toll-like receptor 4 defined as following: A pattern recognition receptor that interacts with LYMPHOCYTE ANTIGEN 96 and LIPOPOLYSACCHARIDES. It mediates cellular responses to GRAM-NEGATIVE BACTERIA.. TLR9 defined as following: This gene plays a role in innate immunity.. toll-like receptor 3 defined as following: A pattern recognition receptor that binds DOUBLE-STRANDED RNA. It mediates cellular responses to certain viral pathogens.. bacterial DNA defined as following: Deoxyribonucleic acid that makes up the genetic material of bacteria.. viral infection defined as following: A general term for diseases caused by viruses.. Toll-like receptors defined as following: A family of pattern recognition receptors characterized by an extracellular leucine-rich domain and a cytoplasmic domain that share homology with the INTERLEUKIN 1 RECEPTOR and the DROSOPHILA toll protein. Following pathogen recognition, toll-like receptors recruit and activate a variety of SIGNAL TRANSDUCING ADAPTOR PROTEINS..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_2862", "sentence1": "Does lucatumumab bind to CD140?", "sentence2": "Lucatumumab is a fully humanized anti-CD40 antibody that blocks interaction of CD40L with CD40 and also mediates antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC). , Phase I study of the anti-CD40 humanized monoclonal antibody lucatumumab (HCD122) in relapsed chronic lymphocytic leukemia., Saturation of CD40 receptor on CLL cells was uniform at all doses post-treatment but also persisted at trough time points in the 3.0 mg/kg or greater cohorts.[SEP]Relations: Chronic lymphatic leukemia has relations: drug_effect with Pramipexole, drug_effect with Pramipexole, drug_effect with Paroxetine, drug_effect with Paroxetine, drug_effect with Nelarabine, drug_effect with Nelarabine, disease_phenotype_positive with Aicardi-Goutieres syndrome, disease_phenotype_positive with Aicardi-Goutieres syndrome, disease_phenotype_positive with sweet syndrome, disease_phenotype_positive with sweet syndrome. Definitions: CD40L defined as following: A membrane glycoprotein and differentiation antigen expressed on the surface of T-cells that binds to CD40 ANTIGENS on B-LYMPHOCYTES and induces their proliferation. Mutation of the gene for CD40 ligand is a cause of HYPER-IGM IMMUNODEFICIENCY SYNDROME, TYPE 1.. CD40 defined as following: Members of the tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily with specificity for CD40 LIGAND. They are found on mature B-LYMPHOCYTES, some EPITHELIAL CELLS; and lymphoid DENDRITIC CELLS. Evidence suggests that CD40-dependent activation of B-cells is important for generation of memory B-cells within the germinal centers. Mutations in the CD40 antigen gene result in HYPER-IGM IMMUNODEFICIENCY SYNDROME, TYPE 3. Signaling of the receptor occurs through its association with TNF RECEPTOR-ASSOCIATED FACTORS.. chronic lymphocytic leukemia defined as following: A chronic leukemia characterized by abnormal B-lymphocytes and often generalized lymphadenopathy. In patients presenting predominately with blood and bone marrow involvement it is called chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL); in those predominately with enlarged lymph nodes it is called small lymphocytic lymphoma. These terms represent spectrums of the same disease.. lucatumumab defined as following: A fully human monoclonal antibody directed against the B-cell surface antigen CD40 with potential antineoplastic activity. Lucatumumab binds to and inhibits CD40, thereby inhibiting CD40 ligand-induced cell proliferation and triggering cell lysis via antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) in cells overexpressing CD40. CD40, an integral membrane protein found on the surface of B lymphocytes, is a member of the tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily and is highly expressed in a number of B-cell malignancies..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_822", "sentence1": "Could transcription factors act as cell-cell signalling molecules?", "sentence2": "Pax6 is a transcription factor essential for the development of tissues including the eyes, central nervous system and endocrine glands of vertebrates and invertebrates. It regulates the expression of a broad range of molecules, including transcription factors, cell adhesion and short-range cell-cell signalling molecules, hormones and structural proteins, Recent data support the view that transcription factors - in particular, homeoproteins - can be transferred from cell to cell and have direct non-cell-autonomous (and therefore paracrine) activities[SEP]Relations: transcription factor binding has relations: molfunc_protein with STAT3, molfunc_protein with STAT3, molfunc_protein with MYC, molfunc_protein with MYC, molfunc_protein with PPARD, molfunc_protein with PPARD, molfunc_protein with JUN, molfunc_protein with JUN, molfunc_protein with NFIA, molfunc_protein with NFIA. Definitions: endocrine glands defined as following: Ductless glands that secrete HORMONES directly into the BLOOD CIRCULATION. These hormones influence the METABOLISM and other functions of cells in the body.. transcription factor defined as following: Endogenous substances, usually proteins, which are effective in the initiation, stimulation, or termination of the genetic transcription process.. tissues defined as following: Collections of differentiated CELLS, such as EPITHELIUM; CONNECTIVE TISSUE; MUSCLES; and NERVE TISSUE. Tissues are cooperatively arranged to form organs with specialized functions such as RESPIRATION; DIGESTION; REPRODUCTION; MOVEMENT; and others.. Pax6 defined as following: This gene plays a role in transcriptional regulation.. molecules defined as following: An aggregate of two or more atoms in a defined arrangement held together by chemical bonds.. homeoproteins defined as following: Proteins encoded by homeobox genes (GENES, HOMEOBOX) that exhibit structural similarity to certain prokaryotic and eukaryotic DNA-binding proteins. Homeodomain proteins are involved in the control of gene expression during morphogenesis and development (GENE EXPRESSION REGULATION, DEVELOPMENTAL).. vertebrates defined as following: Animals having a vertebral column, members of the phylum Chordata, subphylum Craniata comprising mammals, birds, reptiles, amphibians, and fishes.. eyes defined as following: The organ of sight constituting a pair of globular organs made up of a three-layered roughly spherical structure specialized for receiving and responding to light.. transcription factors defined as following: Endogenous substances, usually proteins, which are effective in the initiation, stimulation, or termination of the genetic transcription process..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_703", "sentence1": "Is there an association between FGFR3 mutation and plagiocephaly?", "sentence2": "Series of neurosurgical interventions were carried out, principally for acrocephaly and posterior plagiocephaly. The most common achondroplasia mutation, a p.Gly380Arg in the fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR3) gene, was detected. , The most common mutation for achondroplasia (FGFR3 Gly380Arg, resulting in 1138G>A) was identified. Imaging studies disclosed complex craniosynostosis and neurosurgical intervention was carried out, particularly for posterior plagiocephaly., FGFR mutations and plagiocephaly., FGFR genes have important effects on bone development, and mutations in 4 \"hot spot\" exons of FGFR1-3 are found in many patients with craniosynostosis and some with synostotic plagiocephaly. , Mutation analyses in the FGFR3 gene revealed nucleotide alterations located in the mutational hot spot at amino acid residue 250 (g.C749)., RESULTS: In our cohort of 159 patients with various craniosynostosis syndromes, mutations were found in 100% of patients with Apert syndrome, 83.3% with Pfeiffer syndrome, 72.7% with Crouzon syndrome, 50.0% with Saethre-Chotzen syndrome, 27.7% with plagiocephaly, 31.8% with brachicephaly, 20% of complex cases, and 6.9% of mixed cases. , The genetic alterations that could cause unilateral coronal synostosis are more elusive., Mutations were found in eight of 47 patients: two patients with different single-amino-acid changes in FGFR2, three patients with FGFR3 Pro250Arg, and three patients with TWIST mutations. , Other abnormalities in the craniofacial region and extremities were clues to a particular mutation in FGFR2, FGFR3, TWIST, or the X-linked mutation. , To determine whether the autosomal dominant fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR3) Pro250Arg mutation causes anterior plagiocephaly, patients with either apparently sporadic unicoronal synostosis (N = 37) or other forms of anterior plagiocephaly (N = 10) were studied for this mutation., The occurrence of the FGFR3 mutation among patients with unicoronal synostosis provides evidence for a genetic basis of certain forms of plagiocephaly., None of the 6 patients with nonsynostotic plagiocephaly and none of the 4 patients with additional suture synostosis had the FGFR3 mutation., Between January and December of 1996, patients with a diagnosis of plagiocephaly at the Children's Hospital of Philadelphia were evaluated for the FGFR3 mutation., Between January and December of 1996, patients with a diagnosis of plagiocephaly at the Children's Hospital of Philadelphia were evaluated for the FGFR3 mutation, FGFR genes have important effects on bone development, and mutations in 4 "hot spot" exons of FGFR1-3 are found in many patients with craniosynostosis and some with synostotic plagiocephaly, To determine whether the autosomal dominant fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR3) Pro250Arg mutation causes anterior plagiocephaly, patients with either apparently sporadic unicoronal synostosis (N = 37) or other forms of anterior plagiocephaly (N = 10) were studied for this mutation, None of the 6 patients with nonsynostotic plagiocephaly and none of the 4 patients with additional suture synostosis had the FGFR3 mutation, The occurrence of the FGFR3 mutation among patients with unicoronal synostosis provides evidence for a genetic basis of certain forms of plagiocephaly, FGFR mutations and plagiocephaly, Between January and December of 1996, patients with a diagnosis of plagiocephaly at the Children's Hospital of Philadelphia were evaluated for the FGFR3 mutation. , None of the 6 patients with nonsynostotic plagiocephaly and none of the 4 patients with additional suture synostosis had the FGFR3 mutation. , The occurrence of the FGFR3 mutation among patients with unicoronal synostosis provides evidence for a genetic basis of certain forms of plagiocephaly. , To determine whether the autosomal dominant fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR3) Pro250Arg mutation causes anterior plagiocephaly, patients with either apparently sporadic unicoronal synostosis (N = 37) or other forms of anterior plagiocephaly (N = 10) were studied for this mutation. Of 37 patients with unicoronal synostosis, 4 tested positive for the Pro250Arg mutation in FGFR3, and 33 were negative for this mutation., To determine whether the autosomal dominant fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR3) Pro250Arg mutation causes anterior plagiocephaly, patients with either apparently sporadic unicoronal synostosis (N = 37) or other forms of anterior plagiocephaly (N = 10) were studied for this mutation., In a girl with seemingly isolated plagiocephaly we identified a P250L (749C-->T) mutation in FGFR3., FGFR mutations and plagiocephaly., None of the 6 patients with nonsynostotic plagiocephaly and none of the 4 patients with additional suture synostosis had the FGFR3 mutation., The occurrence of the FGFR3 mutation among patients with unicoronal synostosis provides evidence for a genetic basis of certain forms of plagiocephaly.[SEP]Relations: FGFR3 has relations: disease_protein with isolated plagiocephaly, disease_protein with isolated plagiocephaly, disease_protein with polydactyly (disease), disease_protein with polydactyly (disease), disease_protein with epilepsy, disease_protein with epilepsy, protein_protein with FGF1, protein_protein with FGF1. Plagiocephaly has relations: disease_phenotype_positive with FG syndrome, disease_phenotype_positive with FG syndrome. Definitions: genetic alterations defined as following: Any detectable and heritable change in the genetic material that causes a change in the GENOTYPE and which is transmitted to daughter cells and to succeeding generations.. FGFR3 defined as following: Fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (806 aa, ~88 kDa) is encoded by the human FGFR3 gene. This protein is involved in fibroblast growth factor signaling and skeletal development.. craniosynostosis defined as following: A form of syndromic craniosynostosis with characteristics of highly variable craniosynostosis with frontal bossing, turribrachycephaly and cloverleaf skull anomaly. Hypoplasia of the supraorbital ridges, cleft palate, extra teeth and limb anomalies has also been described. Associated problems include headache, poor vision, and seizures. Intelligence is normal.. plagiocephaly defined as following: The condition characterized by uneven or irregular shape of the head often in parallelogram shape with a flat spot on the back or one side of the head. It can either result from the premature CRANIAL SUTURE closure (CRANIOSYNOSTOSIS) or from external forces (NONSYNOSTOTIC PLAGIOCEPHALY).. acrocephaly defined as following: Premature closing of the lambdoid and coronal sutures.. achondroplasia defined as following: An autosomal dominant disorder that is the most frequent form of short-limb dwarfism. Affected individuals exhibit short stature caused by rhizomelic shortening of the limbs, characteristic facies with frontal bossing and mid-face hypoplasia, exaggerated lumbar lordosis, limitation of elbow extension, GENU VARUM, and trident hand. (Online Mendelian Inheritance in Man, http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/Omim, MIM#100800, April 20, 2001). unicoronal synostosis defined as following: Synostosis affecting only one of the coronal sutures. [DDD:awilkie]. TWIST defined as following: A motion or state where one end of a part is twisted about a longitudinal axis while the opposite end is held fast or turned in the opposite direction.. fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 defined as following: A fibroblast growth factor receptor with specificity for FIBROBLAST GROWTH FACTORS; HEPARAN SULFATE PROTEOGLYCAN; and NEURONAL CELL ADHESION MOLECULES. Several variants of the receptor exist due to multiple ALTERNATIVE SPLICING of its mRNA. Fibroblast growth factor receptor 1 contains three extracellular IMMUNOGLOBULIN C2-SET DOMAINS and is a tyrosine kinase that transmits signals through the MAP KINASE SIGNALING SYSTEM.. anterior plagiocephaly defined as following: Asymmetry of the anterior part of the skull. [DDD:awilkie]. FGFR2 defined as following: A fibroblast growth factor receptor which contains three extracellular IMMUNOGLOBULIN I-SET DOMAINS and is expressed as two isoforms. One receptor isoform is expressed in the MESENCHYME and is activated by FIBROBLAST GROWTH FACTOR 2. A second isoform is expressed mainly by EPITHELIAL CELLS and is activated by FIBROBLAST GROWTH FACTOR 7 and FIBROBLAST GROWTH FACTOR 10. Mutation of the gene for fibroblast growth factor receptor 2 can result in craniosynostotic syndromes (e.g., APERT SYNDROME; and CROUZON SYNDROME).. mutation defined as following: Any transmissible change in the genetic material of an organism, which can result from radiation, viral infection, transposition, treatment with mutagenic chemicals and errors during DNA replication or meiosis. The effects of mutation range from single base changes to loss or gain of complete chromosomes. As many of the simpler alterations to DNA may be repaired, such changes are only heritable once the change is fixed in the DNA by the process of replication. Mutations may be associated with genetic diversity or with pathologies including cancer.. Pfeiffer syndrome defined as following: An autosomal dominant inherited type of acrocephalosyndactyly caused by mutations in the FGFR1 or FGFR2 genes. It is characterized by early closure of the sutures between the skull bones, bulging and wide-set eyes, broad thumbs, big toes, and partial syndactyly in the hands and toes.. FGFR3 gene defined as following: This gene plays a role in bone development and maintenance and mutations in the gene are associated with craniosynostosis and several types of skeletal dysplasia.. Philadelphia defined as following: City located in Pennsylvania.. nonsynostotic plagiocephaly defined as following: A deformity of the SKULL that is not due to bone fusion (SYNOSTOSIS), such as craniosynostoses, and is characterized by an asymmetric skull and face. It is observed with an increased frequency in INFANTS after the adoption of supine sleeping recommendations to prevent SUDDEN INFANT DEATH SYNDROME.. exons defined as following: The parts of a transcript of a split GENE remaining after the INTRONS are removed. They are spliced together to become a MESSENGER RNA or other functional RNA.. FGFR1 defined as following: Fibroblast growth factor receptor 1 (822 aa, ~92 kDa) is encoded by the human FGFR1 gene. This protein is involved in the regulation of embryonic development, cell proliferation, cell differentiation and cellular migration.. Apert syndrome defined as following: An autosomal dominant inherited type of acrocephalosyndactyly caused by mutations in the FGFR2 gene. It is characterized by early closure of the sutures between the skull bones, bulging eyes, low-set ears, fusion of the second, third, and forth fingers, and fusion of the toes.. Mutations defined as following: The result of any gain, loss or alteration of the sequences comprising a gene, including all sequences transcribed into RNA..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_874", "sentence1": "Is cystatin C or cystatin 3 used as a biomarker of kidney function?", "sentence2": "to explore the effect of ageing on renal function with cystatin C as the marker of glomerular filtration rate (GFR) in the general population without vascular disease or diabetes., Cystatin C, a more specific kidney function biomarker, was also elevated at 24 h after CLP., This study evaluated FGF-23 as well as traditional markers of kidney disease, namely urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio (UACR) and creatinine-cystatin C estimated GFR (eGFRCrCyC), as risk factors for AKI in elderly individuals. , he primary predictor was estimated GFR (eGFR) calculated using serum cystatin C (eGFR(cys))., A number of recent reports have suggested that the cystatin C/creatinine (CysC/Cr) ratio might be a useful biomarker of renal function in pediatric patients., The CKD-EPI equation using cystatin C was the most precise method of renal function evaluation in patients with neurogenic bladder., Serum cystatin C (CysC) is an endogenous marker of kidney function., The urinary content of CysC reflects tubular epithelial dysfunction whereas that of NGAL also characterizes tubular atrophy., Estimated kidney function based on serum cystatin C , : Several formulas for glomerular filtration rate (GFR) estimation, based on serum creatinine or cystatin C, have been proposed. , he highest and lowest eGFR levels corresponded to the cystatin C-based and MDRD-4 equations, respectively. , The Chronic Kidney Disease Epidemiology Collaboration (CKD-EPI) recently proposed an equation to estimate GFR in subjects without cirrhosis using both serum creatinine and cystatin C levels., Emerging evidence has shown that cystatin C may improve classification of glomerular filtration rate for defining chronic kidney disease in certain clinical populations and assist in understanding the complications of chronic kidney disease, Beta-trace protein (BTP) and cystatin C (CysC) are novel biomarkers of renal function. , Cystatin C could improve chronic kidney disease (CKD) classification in HIV-infected women relative to serum creatinine., Iohexol clearance and cystatin C formulae identify a greater proportion of patients with a GFR <60 mL/min/1.73 m(2), which also predicts the development of AKI., Cystatin C was recently reported to be an endogenous surrogate of kidney function, and a high level of cystatin C is reported to be a strong predictor of CVD;, Studies that have simultaneously compared measured GFR and estimated GFR (using endogenous filtration markers such as creatinine, or newer ones such as cystatin C or β-trace protein)[SEP]Relations: kidney disease has relations: contraindication with Biotin, contraindication with Biotin, contraindication with Pravastatin, contraindication with Pravastatin, contraindication with Cyclacillin, contraindication with Cyclacillin, contraindication with Isotretinoin, contraindication with Isotretinoin, contraindication with Phenacetin, contraindication with Phenacetin. Definitions: CKD defined as following: Impairment of the renal function secondary to chronic kidney damage persisting for three or more months.. kidney disease defined as following: Pathological processes of the KIDNEY or its component tissues.. Iohexol defined as following: An effective non-ionic, water-soluble contrast agent which is used in myelography, arthrography, nephroangiography, arteriography, and other radiographic procedures. Its low systemic toxicity is the combined result of low chemotoxicity and low osmolality.. cystatin C defined as following: An extracellular cystatin subtype that is abundantly expressed in bodily fluids. It may play a role in the inhibition of interstitial CYSTEINE PROTEASES.. NGAL defined as following: Human LCN2 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 9q34 and is approximately 5 kb in length. This allele, which encodes neutrophil gelatinase-associated lipocalin protein, may be involved in both the modulation of inflammation and the regulation of the transport of hydrophobic substances (ie. retinol, lipopolysaccharide). The expression of this gene may be elevated in many cancers and inflammatory diseases.. neurogenic bladder defined as following: Dysfunction of the URINARY BLADDER due to disease of the central or peripheral nervous system pathways involved in the control of URINATION. This is often associated with SPINAL CORD DISEASES, but may also be caused by BRAIN DISEASES or PERIPHERAL NERVE DISEASES.. cirrhosis defined as following: Liver disease in which the normal microcirculation, the gross vascular anatomy, and the hepatic architecture have been variably destroyed and altered with fibrous septa surrounding regenerated or regenerating parenchymal nodules.. urinary defined as following: The duct which coveys URINE from the pelvis of the KIDNEY through the URETERS, BLADDER, and URETHRA.. tubular atrophy defined as following: The presence of renal tubules with thick redundant basement membranes, or a reduction of greater than 50% in tubular diameter compared to surrounding non-atrophic tubules. [HPO:probinson, PMID:27211375]. diabetes defined as following: A heterogeneous group of disorders characterized by HYPERGLYCEMIA and GLUCOSE INTOLERANCE.. serum creatinine defined as following: A quantitative measurement of the amount of creatinine present in a sample of serum.. vascular disease defined as following: Pathological processes involving any of the BLOOD VESSELS in the cardiac or peripheral circulation. They include diseases of ARTERIES; VEINS; and rest of the vasculature system in the body.. cystatin 3 defined as following: This gene is involved in enzyme inhibition..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_1219", "sentence1": "Can ferric carboxymaltose be used to treat anemia in inflammatory bowel disease patients?", "sentence2": "Intravenous iron should be preferred where oral iron is poorly tolerated or where it has failed in moderate to severe anemia, and in combination with erythropoietin, Ferric carboxymaltose is much more convenient, and has been shown to be more effective than iron sucrose in a large randomized tria, nemia and iron deficiency anemia are very common in inflammatory bowel disease (IBD, Ferric carboxymaltose was associated with cost savings of 30-44 % per patient per treatment cycle compared to iron sucrose. , Iron deficiency is common in pregnancy, postpartum, inflammatory bowel disease, chronic kidney disease, chronic heart failure, heavy uterine bleeding, cancer and following surgery. We estimate the budget impact (BI) on the Swiss mandatory health insurance associated with substituting iron sucrose (standard) with ferric carboxymaltose (new treatment) using real-life data., reating iron deficiency involves substantial costs to the Swiss MHI which may be reduced by substituting iron sucrose with ferric carboxymaltose., e aim of this study was to observe, in a non-interventional way, how Swedish gastroenterologists adhere to guidelines in IBD outpatients treated with intravenous ferric carboxymaltose (FCM), and the result of treatment, FCM lowers platelet counts and platelet activation in patients with IBD-associated secondary thrombocytosis., We performed a randomized, single-blinded placebo-controlled trial testing the effect of ferric carboxymaltose (FCM) in patients with IBD with secondary thrombocytosis (platelets > 450 G/L), e performed a randomized, placebo-controlled trial to determine if administration of ferric carboxymaltose (FCM) prevents anemia in patients with IBD and low levels of serum ferritin, FCM prevents recurrence of anemia in patients with IBD, compared with placebo. , A subgroup was analyzed regarding efficacy and side effects of iron supplementation with ferric carboxymaltose., Iron deficiency and anemia are frequent in IBD patients. Treatment with ferric carboxymaltose is efficious, safe and well tolerated in iron-deficient IBD patients., Intravenous iron avoids these concerns, especially with the development of ferric carboxymaltose, which allow up to 1000mg to be given rapidly., What is the optimal treatment for anemia in inflammatory bowel disease?, We compared the efficacy and safety of a novel fixed-dose ferric carboxymaltose regimen (FCM) with individually calculated iron sucrose (IS) doses in patients with inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) and IDA, Study drugs were well tolerated and drug-related adverse events were in line with drug-specific clinical experience, The simpler FCM-based dosing regimen showed better efficacy and compliance, as well as a good safety profile, compared with the Ganzoni-calculated IS dose regimen., Ferric carboxymaltose can be rapidly administered in doses of 15 mg/kg body weight, up to a ceiling dose of 1000 mg. A test dose is not required, and it can be used more widely across a spectrum of iron deficiency and iron deficiency anemia indication, Intravenous iron offers a rapid means of iron repletion and is superior to oral iron in many circumstances, especially in the presence of anemia of chronic disease, where it appears to overcome the block to absorption of iron from the gastrointestinal tract and immobilization of stored iron. The clinical situations where high doses of iron are commonly required are reviewed. These include nondialysis-dependent chronic kidney disease, inflammatory bowel disease, obstetrics, menorrhagia, and anemia associated with cancer and its treatment. , Ferric carboxymaltose can be administered at 15 mg/kg body weight to a maximum dose of 1000 mg, whereas iron isomaltoside 1000 can be administered at 20 mg/kg body weight. The ability to give high doses of iron is important in the context of managing iron deficiency anemia in a number of clinical conditions where demands for iron are high (including chronic blood loss associated with inflammatory bowel disease, menorrhagia, and chronic kidney disease), erric carboxymaltose (FCM, Ferinject) was effective and well tolerated in the treatment of iron-deficiency anemia (IDA) in nine, Phase III, randomized, controlled, multicenter trials in a diverse range of indications, including patients with inflammatory bowel disease (IBD), post-partum anemia (PPA) or abnormal uterine bleeding (AUB), chronic heart failure (CHF), non-dialysis-dependent chronic kidney disease (CKD) and those undergoing hemodialysis (HD, In patients with IBD or PPA, improvements in Hb levels were more rapid with FCM than with FeSulf. , CM improved patient quality of life to an equivalent extent to oral FeSulf in patients with IBD or PPA, and to a greater extent than oral FeSulf in women with AUB, Four different products are principally used in clinical practice, which differ in their pharmacokinetic properties and safety profiles: iron gluconate and iron sucrose (lower single doses), and iron dextran and ferric carboxymaltose (higher single doses)., he prevalence of anemia across studies on patients with inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is high (30%)., novel intravenous iron formulation for treatment of anemia in inflammatory bowel disease: the ferric carboxymaltose (FERINJECT) randomized controlled trial., FeCarb is effective and safe in IBD-associated anemia. It is noninferior to FeSulf in terms of Hb change over 12 wk, and provides a fast Hb increase and a sufficient refill of iron stores., Treatment-related adverse events (AEs) occurred in 28.5% of the FeCarb and 22.2% of the FeSulf groups, with discontinuation of study medication due to AEs in 1.5% and 7.9%, respectively., The median Hb improved from 8.7 to 12.3 g/dL in the FeCarb group and from 9.1 to 12.1 g/dL in the FeSulf group, demonstrating noninferiority (P= 0.6967). , Ferric carboxymaltose prevents recurrence of anemia in patients with inflammatory bowel disease., Ferric carboxymaltose (FCM, Ferinject) was effective and well tolerated in the treatment of iron-deficiency anemia (IDA) in nine, Phase III, randomized, controlled, multicenter trials in a diverse range of indications, including patients with inflammatory bowel disease (IBD), post-partum anemia (PPA) or abnormal uterine bleeding (AUB), chronic heart failure (CHF), non-dialysis-dependent chronic kidney disease (CKD) and those undergoing hemodialysis (HD)., Ferric carboxymaltose (FCM, Ferinject) was effective and well tolerated in the treatment of iron-deficiency anemia (IDA) in nine, Phase III, randomized, controlled, multicenter trials in a diverse range of indications, including patients with inflammatory bowel disease (IBD), post-partum anemia (PPA) or abnormal uterine bleeding (AUB), chronic heart failure (CHF), non-dialysis-dependent chronic kidney disease (CKD) and those undergoing hemodialysis (HD)[SEP]Relations: Ferric carboxymaltose has relations: drug_drug with Ofloxacin, drug_drug with Ofloxacin, drug_drug with Fleroxacin, drug_drug with Fleroxacin, drug_drug with Ferric pyrophosphate citrate, drug_drug with Ferric pyrophosphate citrate, drug_drug with Ferric pyrophosphate, drug_drug with Ferric pyrophosphate, drug_drug with Enoxacin, drug_drug with Enoxacin. Definitions: platelets defined as following: Non-nucleated disk-shaped cells formed in the megakaryocyte and found in the blood of all mammals. They are mainly involved in blood coagulation.. cancer defined as following: A malignant tumor at the original site of growth.. CKD defined as following: Impairment of the renal function secondary to chronic kidney damage persisting for three or more months.. iron defined as following: homeopathic drug. IDA defined as following: A toxic purine analogue. Inosine dialdehyde inhibits ribonucleotide reductase, resulting in decreased synthesis of DNA, RNA, and proteins, and G2/M-phase cell cycle arrest. This agent also forms stable covalent crosslinks in proteins, thereby inhibiting the activity of enzymes involved in nucleic acid synthesis. (NCI04). iron sucrose defined as following: A glucaric acid-iron conjugate that is used in the treatment of IRON-DEFICIENCY ANEMIA, including in patients with chronic kidney disease, when oral iron therapy is ineffective or impractical.. PPA defined as following: A sympathomimetic that acts mainly by causing release of NOREPINEPHRINE but also has direct agonist activity at some adrenergic receptors. It is most commonly used as a nasal vasoconstrictor and an appetite depressant.. iron isomaltoside defined as following: An intravenous colloidal solution containing trivalent iron (Fe3+) chelated to isomaltosides, used as iron replacement. The iron in iron isomaltoside 1000 is strongly bound to the carbohydrate particles; each particle contains a trivalent iron core and a carbohydrate shell of isomaltosides which protects and stabilizes the iron core. This results in low levels of free iron and decreases inorganic, unbound iron-related toxicities thereby allowing for administration of higher doses of iron as compared to other iron-containing formulations. Upon parenteral administration and degradation of the carbohydrate shell, the iron in iron isomaltoside 1000 is released and replenishes iron stores.. FCM defined as following: A rare genetic movement disorder with characteristics of autosomal dominant, adult-onset, slowly progressive, multifocal, cortical myoclonus. Patients present somatosensory-evoked, brief, jerky, involuntary movements in the face, arms and legs, associated in most of cases with sustained, multiple, sudden falls without loss of consciousness. Seizures or other neurological deficits, aside from mild cerebellar ataxia late in the course of the illness, are absent. The disease is caused by heterozygous mutation in the NOL3 gene on chromosome 16q22.. menorrhagia defined as following: Excessive uterine bleeding during MENSTRUATION.. chronic disease defined as following: Diseases which have one or more of the following characteristics: they are permanent, leave residual disability, are caused by nonreversible pathological alteration, require special training of the patient for rehabilitation, or may be expected to require a long period of supervision, observation, or care (Dictionary of Health Services Management, 2d ed). For epidemiological studies chronic disease often includes HEART DISEASES; STROKE; CANCER; and diabetes (DIABETES MELLITUS, TYPE 2).. iron dextran defined as following: A complex of ferric oxyhydroxide with dextrans of 5000 to 7000 daltons in a viscous solution containing 50 mg/ml of iron. It is supplied as a parenteral preparation and is used as a hematinic. (Goodman and Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 8th ed, p1292). IBD defined as following: Gastrointestinal symptoms characterized by chronic abdominal pain and altered bowel habits in the absence of any organic cause.. CHF defined as following: Heart failure accompanied by EDEMA, such as swelling of the legs and ankles and congestion in the lungs.. erythropoietin defined as following: A recombinant therapeutic agent which is chemically identical to or similar to the endogenous glycoprotein erythropoietin (Epo). Epo promotes the differentiation and maturation of hematopoietic progenitors into erythrocytes; is a mitogen and a chemoattractant for endothelial cells; stimulates activated and differentiated B-cells and enhances B-cell immunoglobulin production and proliferation; and is hypoxia-inducible. (NCI04). Hb defined as following: The oxygen-carrying proteins of ERYTHROCYTES. They are found in all vertebrates and some invertebrates. The number of globin subunits in the hemoglobin quaternary structure differs between species. Structures range from monomeric to a variety of multimeric arrangements.. AEs defined as following: An instrument that consist of an ultra high vacuum scanning microscope column combined with an electron energy analyzer, which can determine the elemental composition of the outer surface of a sample.. HD defined as following: A malignant disease characterized by progressive enlargement of the lymph nodes, spleen, and general lymphoid tissue. In the classical variant, giant usually multinucleate Hodgkin's and REED-STERNBERG CELLS are present; in the nodular lymphocyte predominant variant, lymphocytic and histiocytic cells are seen.. iron-deficiency anemia defined as following: Anemia characterized by decreased or absent iron stores, low serum iron concentration, low transferrin saturation, and low hemoglobin concentration or hematocrit value. The erythrocytes are hypochromic and microcytic and the iron binding capacity is increased..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_3198", "sentence1": "Can therapeutic levels of Vedolizumab be found in the breast milk of nursing mothers following treatment for Inflammatory bowel disease?", "sentence2": "Vedolizumab can be detected in the breast milk of nursing mothers. Although more data are imperative, the concentrations of vedolizumab in breast milk are minute and are therefore unlikely to result in systemic or gastro-intestinal immune-suppression of the infant., Although more data are imperative, the concentrations of vedolizumab in breast milk are minute and are therefore unlikely to result in systemic or gastro-intestinal immune-suppression of the infant., Results\nVedolizumab was undetectable in breast milk in IBD patients before the first infusion of vedolizumab [n = 3] and in all of the healthy controls [n = 5]., However, on serial measurements in breast milk after an infusion, drug levels did not surpass 480 ng/ml, which was roughly 1/100 of the comparable serum levels., However, on serial measurements in breast milk after an infusion, drug levels did not surpass 480 ng/ml, which was roughly 1/100 of the comparable serum levels.
Conclusions: Vedolizumab can be detected in the breast milk of nursing mothers., However, on serial measurements in breast milk after an infusion, drug levels did not surpass 480 ng/ml, which was roughly 1/100 of the comparable serum levels.[SEP]Relations: Vedolizumab has relations: drug_drug with Ibalizumab, drug_drug with Ibalizumab, drug_drug with Pomalidomide, drug_drug with Pomalidomide, drug_drug with Urelumab, drug_drug with Urelumab, drug_drug with Cabazitaxel, drug_drug with Cabazitaxel, drug_drug with Reslizumab, drug_drug with Reslizumab. Definitions: Vedolizumab defined as following: A recombinant humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against the human lymphocyte Peyer's patch adhesion molecule 1 (LPAM-1; alpha4beta7; a4b7), with immunomodulating, anti-inflammatory, and potential antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, vedolizumab selectively binds to integrin a4b7 and prevents the binding of a4b7, expressed on the surface of a subset of T-lymphocytes, to its natural ligand, mucosal addressin cell adhesion molecule-1 (MAdCAM-1), which is mainly expressed on the surface of gut endothelial cells. This prevents a4b7-mediated signaling, adhesion of lymphocytes to the endothelium and the migration of T-lymphocytes across the endothelium into inflamed gastrointestinal (GI) tissue. By preventing this infiltration to the affected area, inflammation is reduced. The human lymphocyte a4b7 integrin, plays a key role in gastrointestinal (GI) inflammation; it is overexpressed in certain types of cancer cells. The alpha4beta7/MAdCAM-1 signaling pathway plays a critical role in the homing of T-lymphocytes to intestinal tissue.. IBD defined as following: Gastrointestinal symptoms characterized by chronic abdominal pain and altered bowel habits in the absence of any organic cause..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_1581", "sentence1": "Can the iPS cell technology be used in Fanconi anemia therapy?", "sentence2": "We explain a protocol for the reproducible generation of genetically corrected iPSCs starting from the skin biopsies of Fanconi anemia patients using retroviral transduction with OCT4, SOX2 and KLF4, Before reprogramming, the fibroblasts and/or keratinocytes of the patients are genetically corrected with lentiviruses expressing FANCA., Disease-corrected haematopoietic progenitors from Fanconi anaemia induced pluripotent stem cells, Here we show that, on correction of the genetic defect, somatic cells from Fanconi anaemia patients can be reprogrammed to pluripotency to generate patient-specific iPS cells. These cell lines appear indistinguishable from human embryonic stem cells and iPS cells from healthy individuals, Most importantly, we show that corrected Fanconi-anaemia-specific iPS cells can give rise to haematopoietic progenitors of the myeloid and erythroid lineages that are phenotypically normal, that is, disease-free[SEP]Relations: Fanconi anemia has relations: disease_protein with FANCI, disease_protein with FANCI, disease_protein with FANCE, disease_protein with FANCE, disease_disease with DNA repair disease, disease_disease with DNA repair disease, contraindication with Phenol, contraindication with Phenol. Fanconi anemia complementation group has relations: disease_phenotype_positive with Squamous cell carcinoma, disease_phenotype_positive with Squamous cell carcinoma. Definitions: FANCA defined as following: Fanconi anemia caused by mutations of the FANCA gene. FANCA gene mutations are the most common cause of Fanconi anemia. This gene provides instructions for making a protein that is involved in the Fanconi anemia (FA) pathway.. OCT4 defined as following: This gene plays a role in early mammalian development.. Fanconi anaemia defined as following: Congenital disorder affecting all bone marrow elements, resulting in ANEMIA; LEUKOPENIA; and THROMBOPENIA, and associated with cardiac, renal, and limb malformations as well as dermal pigmentary changes. Spontaneous CHROMOSOME BREAKAGE is a feature of this disease along with predisposition to LEUKEMIA. There are at least 7 complementation groups in Fanconi anemia: FANCA, FANCB, FANCC, FANCD1, FANCD2, FANCE, FANCF, FANCG, and FANCL. (from Online Mendelian Inheritance in Man, http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/entrez/dispomim.cgi?id=227650, August 20, 2004). KLF4 defined as following: Krueppel-like factor 4 (470 aa, ~50 kDa) is encoded by the human KLF4 gene. This protein regulates transcription.. keratinocytes defined as following: Epidermal cells which synthesize keratin and undergo characteristic changes as they move upward from the basal layers of the epidermis to the cornified (horny) layer of the skin. Successive stages of differentiation of the keratinocytes forming the epidermal layers are basal cell, spinous or prickle cell, and the granular cell.. iPS cells defined as following: Cells from adult organisms that have been reprogrammed into a pluripotential state similar to that of EMBRYONIC STEM CELLS.. myeloid defined as following: A type of white blood cell. Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils are granulocytes.. somatic cells defined as following: Nucleated cell which has one or more diploid sets (46 pairs) of chromosomes.. cell lines defined as following: Established cell cultures that have the potential to propagate indefinitely.. SOX2 defined as following: Transcription factor SOX-2 protein (317 aa, ~34 kDa) is encoded by the human SOX2 gene. This protein is involved in neural cell progenitor differentiation and neurogenesis.. erythroid defined as following: 1) Reddish in color. 2) relating to erythrocytes or their precursors.. lentiviruses defined as following: A genus of the family RETROVIRIDAE consisting of non-oncogenic retroviruses that produce multi-organ diseases characterized by long incubation periods and persistent infection. Lentiviruses are unique in that they contain open reading frames (ORFs) between the pol and env genes and in the 3' env region. Five serogroups are recognized, reflecting the mammalian hosts with which they are associated. HIV-1 is the type species.. human embryonic stem cells defined as following: A type of PLURIPOTENT STEM CELLS derived from early stage human embryos, up to and including the BLASTOCYST stage.. Fanconi anemia defined as following: Fanconi anemia caused by mutations of the FANCA gene. FANCA gene mutations are the most common cause of Fanconi anemia. This gene provides instructions for making a protein that is involved in the Fanconi anemia (FA) pathway..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_690", "sentence1": "Are retroviruses used for gene therapy?", "sentence2": "Several immunodeficiencies have been treated successfully by stem cell-targeted, retroviral-mediated gene transfer with reconstitution of the immune system following infusion of the transduced cells., In this work we have developed and tested a self-inactivating (SIN) gammaretroviral vector (SINfes.gp91s) containing a codon-optimized transgene (gp91(phox)) under the transcriptional control of a myeloid promoter for the gene therapy of the X-linked form of CGD (X-CGD)., We used a lentiviral vector encoding functional WASP to genetically correct HSPCs from three WAS patients and reinfused the cells after a reduced-intensity conditioning regimen, We used a lentiviral vector to transfer a functional ARSA gene into hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs) from three presymptomatic patients who showed genetic, biochemical, and neurophysiological evidence of late infantile MLD. , We assessed lentiviral vectors (LVs) targeted to the EC surface marker CD105 for in vivo gene delivery., gef and apoptin genes were cloned into a doxycycline-regulated retrovirus-mediated gene expression system.[SEP]Relations: Geneticin has relations: drug_drug with Trimebutine, drug_drug with Trimebutine, drug_drug with Reviparin, drug_drug with Reviparin, drug_drug with Ledipasvir, drug_drug with Ledipasvir, drug_drug with Dexmedetomidine, drug_drug with Dexmedetomidine, drug_drug with Rasagiline, drug_drug with Rasagiline. Definitions: immunodeficiencies defined as following: Syndromes in which there is a deficiency or defect in the mechanisms of immunity, either cellular or humoral.. HSCs defined as following: Progenitor cells from which all blood cells derived. They are found primarily in the bone marrow and also in small numbers in the peripheral blood.. WASP defined as following: Human WAS wild-type allele is located within Xp11.4-p11.21 and is approximately 8 kb in length. This allele, which encodes Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome protein, plays a role in actin cytoskeletal organization. Mutations in this gene are the cause of Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome an X-linked disease characterized by eczema, immune deficiencies and thrombocytopenia.. MLD defined as following: An autosomal recessive metabolic disease caused by a deficiency of CEREBROSIDE-SULFATASE leading to intralysosomal accumulation of cerebroside sulfate (SULFOGLYCOSPHINGOLIPIDS) in the nervous system and other organs. Pathological features include diffuse demyelination, and metachromatically-staining granules in many cell types such as the GLIAL CELLS. There are several allelic and nonallelic forms with a variety of neurological symptoms.. gef defined as following: Protein factors that promote the exchange of GTP for GDP bound to GTP-BINDING PROTEINS.. cells defined as following: The fundamental, structural, and functional units or subunits of living organisms. They are composed of CYTOPLASM containing various ORGANELLES and a CELL MEMBRANE boundary.. SIN defined as following: An Indo-European language of the Indo-Aryan branch that is the native language of the Sinhalese people, who make up the largest ethnic group in Sri Lanka.. genetic defined as following: Having to do with information that is passed from parents to offspring through genes in sperm and egg cells.. WAS defined as following: A rare, X-linked immunodeficiency syndrome characterized by ECZEMA; LYMPHOPENIA; and, recurrent pyogenic infection. It is seen exclusively in young boys. Typically, IMMUNOGLOBULIN M levels are low and IMMUNOGLOBULIN A and IMMUNOGLOBULIN E levels are elevated. Lymphoreticular malignancies are common.. ARSA gene defined as following: This gene is involved in the metabolism of cerebroside sulfate.. retroviruses defined as following: Family of RNA viruses that infects birds and mammals and encodes the enzyme reverse transcriptase. The family contains seven genera: DELTARETROVIRUS; LENTIVIRUS; RETROVIRUSES TYPE B, MAMMALIAN; ALPHARETROVIRUS; GAMMARETROVIRUS; RETROVIRUSES TYPE D; and SPUMAVIRUS. A key feature of retrovirus biology is the synthesis of a DNA copy of the genome which is integrated into cellular DNA. After integration it is sometimes not expressed but maintained in a latent state (PROVIRUSES)..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_1716", "sentence1": "Is the PTPN22 gene a biomarker for Rheumatoid Arthritis?", "sentence2": "Combined longitudinal analysis of the 2 cohorts suggests further association of several loci with Larsen score (KIF5A, PTPN22, AFF3, TAGAP) and therefore a significant accumulation of RA severity markers among RA susceptibility markers (p = 0.016), A non-intronic marker at TNFAIP3, GIN1/C5orf30, STAT4, ANKRD55/IL6ST, BLK and PTPN22 showed association with RA susceptibility, irrespective of the serological status, the latter three markers remaining significantly associated with anti-CCP negative RA, after correction for multiple testing, A C-to-T single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP) located at position 1858 of human PTPN22 cDNA and converting an arginine (R620) to tryptophan (W620) confers the highest risk of rheumatoid arthritis among non-HLA genetic variations that are known to be associated with this disease, TPN22 is a tyrosine phosphatase and functions as a damper of TCR signals. A C-to-T single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP) located at position 1858 of human PTPN22 cDNA and converting an arginine (R620) to tryptophan (W620) confers the highest risk of rheumatoid arthritis among non-HLA genetic variations that are known to be associated with this disease, In addition, how the overall activity of PTPN22 is regulated and how the R-to-W conversion contributes to rheumatoid arthritis is still poorly understood, Our data depict a model that can reconcile the conflicting observations on the functional impact of the C1858T SNP and also suggest that PTPN22.6 is a novel biomarker of rheumatoid arthritis., the level of PTPN22.6 in peripheral blood correlates with disease activity of rheumatoid arthritis, Lack of association of common variants in PTPN22 with RA in Han Chinese was confirmed, This study identifies MMEL1 and CTLA4 as RA susceptibility genes, provides suggestive evidence of association for a further six loci in the Han Chinese population and confirms lack of PTPN22 association in Asian populations, PTPN22 R620W genotype-phenotype correlation analysis and gene-environment interaction study in early rheumatoid arthritis: results from the ESPOIR cohort, PTPN22 620W risk allele was associated with ACPA production [odds ratio (OR) = 2.21, 95% CI 1.4, 3.4, P < 0.0001], Hormonal treatment exposition and smoking were found to act with a protective effect against ACPA production (OR = 0.44, 95% CI 0.3, 0.7, P = 0.001) and early bone erosion (OR = 0.56, 95% CI 0.4-0.8, P = 0.003), respectively, and independently of HLADR and PTPN22 status, RA patients (n=333) and controls (n=490) from the Cree/Ojibway NAN population in Central Canada were HLA-DRB1 typed and tested for 21 single-nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) that have previously been associated with RA, including PTPN22, TRAF1-C5, CTLA4, PADI4, STAT4, FCRL3, CCL21, MMEL1-TNFRSF14, CDK6, PRKCQ, KIF5A-PIP4K2C, IL2RB, TNFAIP3, IL10-1082G/A and REL, 21 single-nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) that have previously been associated with RA, including PTPN22, TRAF1-C5, CTLA4, PADI4, STAT4, FCRL3, CCL21, MMEL1-TNFRSF14, CDK6, PRKCQ, KIF5A-PIP4K2C, IL2RB, TNFAIP3, IL10-1082G/A and REL, Several other genes, including PTPN22 and PADI4, show modest association with RA, he HLA locus, particularly HLA-DRB1, is its strongest genetic risk determinant across ethnicities. Several other genes, including PTPN22 and PADI4, show modest association with RA. , Other variants in potentially pathogenic genes located in non-MHC regions have been implicated by recently performed genome wide analysis studies. These genes include PTPN22, TRAF1-C5, PADI4, STAT4, Several alleles in the epitope-recognition part of the HLA molecule that show the highest association with RA susceptibility, also share a common string of amminoacid residues (the so-called shared-epitope hypothesis). Other variants in potentially pathogenic genes located in non-MHC regions have been implicated by recently performed genome wide analysis studies. These genes include PTPN22, TRAF1-C5, PADI4, STAT4. , Among these genes, PTPN22 plays an outstanding role. CD40, STAT4, PRM1, and TNFAIP3 also seem to be of relevance., n particular, genome-wide association studies (GWAS) have provided supportive evidence that RA is a disease with a strong genetic background. Interestingly, a series of candidate genes have been identified outside of the classical major histocompatibility (MHC) locus, which had long been regarded as the major contributor to the pathogenesis of this disease. Among these genes, PTPN22 plays an outstanding role., HLA-DRB1 and the R620W single-nucleotide polymorphism of PTPN22 were genotyped, In addition, evidence of a significant interaction between the shared epitope and the risk allele of PTPN22 was observed only in these patients, Although SNPs in PADI4 had similar allele frequency among three groups [maximal difference 11%; (P >0.05)], the other three loci revealed statistically significant allele frequency differences (maximal difference 39% (P <0.00001), 13% (P <0.00001), and 8% (P <0.00001) in SLC22A4, PDCD1, and PTPN22, respectively), Several multiple, large-scale, genetic studies on autoimmune-disease-associated SNPs have been reported recently: peptidylarginine deiminase type 4 (PADI4) in rheumatoid arthritis (RA); solute carrier family 22 members 4 and 5 (SLC22A4 and 5) in RA and Crohn's disease (CD); programmed cell death 1 (PDCD1) in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1D), and RA; and protein tyrosine phosphatase nonreceptor type 22 (PTPN22) in T1D, RA, and SLE, Recently a number of convincing candidate genes have begun to emerge and an update has been provided for three of these: PTPN22, CTLA-4 and MIF., Recently a number of convincing candidate genes have begun to emerge and an update has been provided for three of these: PTPN22, challenges in identifying genetic polymorphisms that influence the susceptibility to rheumatoid arthritis are the same as those faced in most complex diseases, Association studies support a role for several genes, including TNFR2, PADI4, SLC22A4, RUNX1, and PTPN22, Although HLA-DRB1 is the main RA gene, it accounts for only part of the familial risk for RA. HLA-DRB1 alleles are neither necessary nor sufficient to cause the development of RA in a given individual. Several genome scans conducted in populations from France, Japan, North America and UK have confirmed the role of the HLA region and suggested several other susceptibility loci. Association studies support a role for several genes, including TNFR2, PADI4, SLC22A4, RUNX1, and PTPN22., Analyses of families with multiple autoimmune disorders have revealed a functional polymorphism, 620W, in the intracellular tyrosine phosphatase gene PTPN22 as a predisposing factor for type 1 diabetes, seropositive rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, and Hashimoto thyroiditis, and the presence of the PTPN22 protein appears to herald the development of autoantibodies in these disorders, Replication of putative candidate-gene associations with rheumatoid arthritis in >4,000 samples from North America and Sweden: association of susceptibility with PTPN22, CTLA4, and PADI4., We found strong evidence of an association of PTPN22 with the development of anti-citrulline antibody-positive RA (odds ratio [OR] 1.49; P=.00002), using previously untested EIRA samples., Exploration of our data set with clinically relevant subsets of RA reveals that PTPN22 is associated with an earlier age at disease onset (P=.004) and that PTPN22 has a stronger effect in males than in females (P=.03), Given the strong statistical power to replicate a true-positive association in this study, our results provide support for PTPN22, CTLA4, and PADI4 as RA susceptibility genes and demonstrate novel associations with clinically relevant subsets of RA, In logistic regression analysis, ACPA predicted RA-development independent of PTPN22, while the PTPN22 polymorphism had no independent effect., In this Dutch cohort of UA-patients, the PTPN22 1858T allele does not markedly improve individual decision-making to predict RA-development, Risk of progression from undifferentiated arthritis to rheumatoid arthritis: the effect of the PTPN22 1858T-allele in anti-citrullinated peptide antibody positive patients, progression from undifferentiated arthritis to rheumatoid arthritis: the effect of the PTPN22 1858T-allele, Anti-citrullinated peptide antibodies (ACPA) and the C1858T missense single-nucleotide polymorphism (SNP) in the PTPN22 gene are both associated with the development of rheumatoid arthritis (RA), Associations between human leukocyte antigen, PTPN22, CTLA4 genotypes and rheumatoid arthritis phenotypes of autoantibody status, age at diagnosis and erosions in a large cohort study, HLA-DRB1 shared epitope (HLA-SE), PTPN22 and CTLA4 alleles are associated with cyclic citrullinated peptide (CCP) and rheumatoid arthritis (RA), Auto-antibodies, HLA and PTPN22: susceptibility markers for rheumatoid arthritis, The combination of the PTPN22 1858T variant and anti-CCP antibodies gave a high specificity for the disease, and was significantly associated with RA (P = 8.86 x 10(-5), OR 10.05, 95% CI 1.88-53.73), The combination of the T variant of the 1858 polymorphism of the PTPN22 gene in combination with the presence of anti-CCP antibodies, preferentially in a SE-positive individual, is associated with the development of RA, No association of the PTPN22 gene with mortality was detected, Cox proportional hazards regression models were used to assess the association of the HLA-DRB1 (including the shared epitope [SE]) and PTPN22 genes with the risk of death from all causes and from cardiovascular disease (CVD) and to assess the interactions between SE, smoking, and anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) status, adjusted by age at symptom onset and sex, The disease association of the common 1858C>T Arg620Trp (rs2476601) nonsynonymous single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP) of protein tyrosine phosphatase; nonreceptor type 22 (PTPN22) on chromosome 1p13 has been confirmed in type 1 diabetes and also in other autoimmune diseases, including rheumatoid arthritis and Graves' disease, To evaluate the predictive values for disease progression of various antibodies against citrullinated peptide proteins (ACPA) and their relation to PTPN22 1858C/T polymorphism and HLA-DRB1 alleles in early rheumatoid arthritis (RA), PTPN22, PADI-4, and CTLA-4 have been associated with risk for rheumatoid arthritis (RA), A significant multiplicative interaction between PTPN22 and smoking for more than 10 pack-years was observed (P = 0.04), No gene-gene interaction was observed between PTPN22 and HLA-SE, After adjusting for smoking and reproductive factors, PTPN22 was associated with RA risk among Caucasian women in these cohorts. We found both additive and multiplicative interactions between PTPN22 and heavy cigarette smoking., After adjusting for smoking and reproductive factors, PTPN22 was associated with RA risk among Caucasian women in these cohorts, Weak evidence for an effect at the PTPN22 locus was also observed, Association of the PTPN22 gene (-1123G > C) polymorphism with rheumatoid arthritis in Chinese patients, These data suggest, the CC genotype and C allele of the -1123G > C in the PTPN22 gene are associated with an increased risk for RA in Chinese population, Therefore, the CC genotype and C allele of the -1123G > C in the PTPN22 gene may be used as a genetic marker for the predisposition of RA in Chines, A longer duration of breastfeeding increased the risk of developing RA, especially among individuals seropositive for ACPA or IgM-RF or carrying the PTPN22 1858T variant, In a multiple logistic regression analysis, increasing time of breastfeeding (OR 9.5, 95% CI 2.14-42.43 for ≥ 17 months), seropositivity for ACPAs (OR 19.5, 95% CI 4.47-84.81), and carriage of the PTPN22 1858T variant (OR 3.2, 95% CI 1.36-7.54) remained significant predictors of RA, After quality control, 3209 patients and 3692 controls were included in the study. Eight markers (ie, rs1160542 (AFF3), rs1678542 (KIF5A), rs2476601 (PTPN22), rs3087243 (CTLA4), rs4810485 (CD40), rs5029937 (6q23), rs10760130 (TRAF1/C5) and rs7574865 (STAT4)) were significantly associated with RA by meta-analysis, Recent genome-wide association studies (GWAS) on RA identified known and novel susceptibility genes like HLA-DRB1, PTPN22, STAT4, TRAF1/C5, OLIG3/TNFAIP3, CD40, CCL21, MMEL1-TNFRSF14, CDK6, PRKCQ, IL2RB, and KIF5A-PIP4K2C, In the total RA inception cohort, the HLA-DRB1 shared epitope (per-allele odds ratio (OR) = 2.1, trend P < 0.0001), PTPN22 (per-allele OR = 1.5, trend P < 0.0001), OLIG3/TNFAIP3 locus (per-allele OR = 1.2, trend P = 0.009) and TRAF1/C5 locus (per-allele OR = 1.1, trend P = 0.04) were associated with RA, This study investigated five confirmed rheumatoid arthritis (RA) susceptibility genes/loci (HLA-DRB1, PTPN22, STAT4, OLIG3/TNFAIP3 and TRAF1/C5) for association with susceptibility and severity in an inception cohort, Progress has been made in determining the relative contributions and the interaction of the shared epitope, PTPN22 and smoking in conferring the risk of anticitrullinated protein antibodies-positive and negative RA, Homozygous and heterozygous carriers of the PTPN22 1858T allele had a decreased probability of remission, Our analyses have confirmed previous findings for genes PTPN22 and C5, Fifty-five percent of the FDRs had > or =1 copy of the shared epitope, 20% had > or =1 copy of the PTPN22 polymorphism, and approximately 16% were positive for rheumatoid factor (RF; including isotypes) and/or anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibody, As an effect several new genes have been recognized as an HLA-independent genetic risk factors of RA. PTPN22 gene polymorphism, C5/TRAF1 genes region polymorphism and TNFAIP3-OLIG3 genes region polymorphism(s) are among newly identified and already confirmed genetic risk factors, whereas STAT 4, CTLA4, PADI4 and IRF5 genes polymorphisms are listed among probable RA development genetic risk factors, After initial completion of the Human Genome Project on the 16th February 2001, significant progress has been made in identifying other than HLA genome regions linked to the increased RA susceptibility. As an effect several new genes have been recognized as an HLA-independent genetic risk factors of RA. PTPN22 gene polymorphism, C5/TRAF1 genes region polymorphism and TNFAIP3-OLIG3 genes region polymorphism(s) are among newly identified and already confirmed genetic risk factors, Patients were analysed for anti-MCV and anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (CCP), and were genotyped for human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-DRB1 \"shared epitope\" (SE) and protein tyrosine phosphatase, non-receptor type 22 (PTPN22) 1858T, As well as the major susceptibility gene HLA-DRB1, recent genome-wide and candidate-gene studies reported additional evidence for association of single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP) markers in the PTPN22, STAT4, OLIG3/TNFAIP3 and TRAF1/C5 loci with RA., However, we were able to replicate the association signals between RA and HLA-DRB1 alleles, STAT4 (rs7574865), PTPN22 (rs2476601) and OLIG3/TNFAIP3 (rs10499194 and rs6920220), Additionally, SNPs rs7574865STAT4 (P = 9.2*10-6; OR = 1.71, 95% CI = 1.35 - 2.18) and rs2476601PTPN22 (P = 9.5*10-4; OR = 1.67, 95% CI = 1.23 - 2.26) were associated with susceptibility to RA, whereas after permutation testing OLIG3/TNFAIP3 SNPs rs10499194 and rs6920220 missed our criteria for significance (Pcorr = 0.114 and Pcorr = 0.180, respectively, In our Slovak population, HLA-DRB1 alleles as well as SNPs in STAT4 and PTPN22 genes showed a strong association with RA, Recent advances have led to novel identification of genetic polymorphisms that are associated with susceptibility to rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Currently, 5 loci (HLA, PTPN22, TRAF1/C5, TNFAIP3, and STAT4) have been consistently reported, whereas others have been observed less systematically, Genetic markers such as shared epitope alleles and PTPN22 1858T variant increase the relative risk for disease development, Particularly, ACPAs in combination with human leukocyte antigen-shared epitope alleles and PTPN22 1858T carriage increased the relative risks of developing RA compared with not having these factors, However, inconsistent results of the contributions of non-HLA susceptibility genes have been described, with the exception of a few genes repeatedly associated with RA-susceptibility, such as PTPN22 gene in populations of European ancestry and PADI4 gene in populations of Asian ancestry, revealing the presence of genetic heterogeneity in RA., Functional polymorphisms of PTPN22 and FcgR genes in Tunisian patients with rheumatoid arthritis, We found strong evidence of an association of PTPN22 620W allele and RA, In conclusion, we have confirmed that PTPN22 620W allele is associated with Tunisian RA but does not constitute a factor influencing clinical manifestations., The C1858T allele of the PTPN22 gene has been reported to confer risk for RA, Similarly, the presence or absence of the HLA-DRB1 shared epitope or the RA-associated PTPN22 allele had no influence on this association, Although some genetic risk factors for RA are well-established, most notably HLA-DRB1 and PTPN22, these markers do not fully account for the observed heritability, Lastly, in combination with the other two known genetic risk factors, HLA-DRB1 and PTPN22, the variants reported here generate more than a 45-fold RA-risk differential, Contribution of PTPN22 1858T, TNFRII 196R and HLA-shared epitope alleles with rheumatoid factor and anti-citrullinated protein antibodies to very early rheumatoid arthritis diagnosis, PTPN22 1858T, TNFRII 196R and HLA-SE alleles do not improve the predictive value of RF and ACPA for RA diagnosis in our cohort, and do not contribute to an earlier diagnosis in undifferentiated patients initially negative for RF and ACPA[SEP]Relations: PTPN22 has relations: disease_protein with rheumatoid arthritis, disease_protein with rheumatoid arthritis, disease_protein with juvenile idiopathic arthritis, disease_protein with juvenile idiopathic arthritis, disease_protein with type 1 diabetes mellitus, disease_protein with type 1 diabetes mellitus, disease_protein with IDDM 1, disease_protein with IDDM 1. MMEL1 has relations: disease_protein with rheumatoid arthritis, disease_protein with rheumatoid arthritis. Definitions: chromosome defined as following: A specific pair of human chromosomes in group A (CHROMOSOMES, HUMAN, 1-3) of the human chromosome classification.. genetic polymorphisms defined as following: The regular and simultaneous occurrence in a single interbreeding population of two or more discontinuous genotypes. The concept includes differences in genotypes ranging in size from a single nucleotide site (POLYMORPHISM, SINGLE NUCLEOTIDE) to large nucleotide sequences visible at a chromosomal level.. autoantibodies defined as following: Antibodies that react with self-antigens (AUTOANTIGENS) of the organism that produced them.. PADI4 defined as following: Protein-arginine deiminase type-4 (663 aa, ~74 kDa) is encoded by the human PADI4 gene. This protein is involved in the deimination of arginine residues in histones.. CTLA4 defined as following: Human CTLA4 wild-type allele is located within 2q33 and is approximately 6 kb in length. This allele, which encodes cytotoxic T-lymphocyte protein 4, is involved in signal transduction and T-cell regulation. Variant alleles generated from mutations in the gene, have been associated with insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus, Graves disease, Hashimoto thyroiditis, celiac disease, systemic lupus erythematosus, thyroid-associated orbitopathy, and other autoimmune diseases.. single nucleotide polymorphism defined as following: A single nucleotide variation in a genetic sequence that occurs at appreciable frequency in the population.. RUNX1 defined as following: Runt-related transcription factor 1 (453 aa, ~49 kDa) is encoded by the human RUNX1 gene. This protein is involved in the promotion of gene transcription and hematopoiesis.. CDK6 defined as following: Cyclin-dependent kinase 6 (326 aa, ~37 kDa) is encoded by the human CDK6 gene. This protein plays a role in both protein phosphorylation and cell cycle progression.. TNFR2 defined as following: A tumor necrosis factor receptor subtype that is expressed primarily in IMMUNE SYSTEM cells. It has specificity for membrane-bound form of TUMOR NECROSIS FACTORS and mediates intracellular-signaling through TNF RECEPTOR ASSOCIATED FACTORS.. PRKCQ defined as following: A calcium-independent, phospholipid- and diacylglycerol-dependent, protein kinase C subtype that contains an N-terminal C2 DOMAIN and two diacylglycerol-binding ZINC FINGERS. It is expressed primarily by T-LYMPHOCYTES and localizes to IMMUNOLOGICAL SYNAPSES where it regulates downstream signaling for the activation, proliferation, and survival of mature T-cells. It plays a critical role in allergic, autoimmune, and alloimmune responses of TH2 CELLS and TH17 CELLS.. genes defined as following: A category of nucleic acid sequences that function as units of heredity and which code for the basic instructions for the development, reproduction, and maintenance of organisms.. CCL21 defined as following: A therapeutic recombinant analogue of a member of the endogenous CC chemokines with potential antineoplastic activity. Expressed by various lymphoid tissues, endogenous 6Ckine is chemotactic for B and T lymphocytes and dendritic cells.. PTPN22 defined as following: Tyrosine-protein phosphatase non-receptor type 22 (807 aa, ~92 kDa) is encoded by the human PTPN22 gene. This protein is involved in both protein dephosphorylation and modulation of T-cell receptor signaling.. PDCD1 defined as following: Programmed cell death protein 1 (288 aa, ~32 kDa) is encoded by the human PDCD1 gene. This protein is involved in the regulation of apoptosis.. RA defined as following: A chronic systemic disease, primarily of the joints, marked by inflammatory changes in the synovial membranes and articular structures, widespread fibrinoid degeneration of the collagen fibers in mesenchymal tissues, and by atrophy and rarefaction of bony structures. Etiology is unknown, but autoimmune mechanisms have been implicated.. ACPA defined as following: Myeloblastin (256 aa, ~28 kDa) is encoded by the human PRTN3 gene. This protein is involved in the proteolysis of extracellular matrix proteins.. alleles defined as following: Variant forms of the same gene, occupying the same locus on homologous CHROMOSOMES, and governing the variants in production of the same gene product.. REL defined as following: Proto-oncogene c-Rel (619 aa, ~69 kDa) is encoded by the human REL gene. This protein plays a role in both transcriptional regulation and signal transduction.. CCP defined as following: The specific finding of alternating fascial motion preference at transitional regions of the body described by Zink and Neider.. STAT4 defined as following: Signal transducer and activator of transcription 4 (748 aa, ~86 kDa) is encoded by the human STAT4 gene. This protein is involved in transcriptional activation and signal transduction.. intracellular defined as following: The organized colloidal complex of organic and inorganic substances (as proteins and water) that constitutes the living nucleus, cytoplasm, plastids, and mitochondria of the cell. It is composed mainly of nucleic acids, proteins, lipids, carbohydrates, and inorganic salts.. TNFAIP3 defined as following: This gene may play a role in the regulation of apoptosis.. CTLA-4 defined as following: An inhibitory T CELL receptor that is closely related to CD28 ANTIGEN. It has specificity for CD80 ANTIGEN and CD86 ANTIGEN and acts as a negative regulator of peripheral T cell function. CTLA-4 antigen is believed to play role in inducing PERIPHERAL TOLERANCE.. IL2RB defined as following: Interleukin-2 receptor subunit beta (551 aa, ~61 kDa) is encoded by the human IL2RB gene. This protein is involved in signal transduction-mediated by and receptor mediated endocytosis of interleukin-2.. peptidylarginine deiminase type 4 defined as following: A widely expressed isoenzyme of peptidylarginine deiminase, a post-translational modification enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of protein-bound ARGININE residues to CITRULLINE residues in a CALCIUM ion-dependent manner.. rheumatoid factor defined as following: The determination of the amount of rheumatoid factor antibody present in a sample.. PADI4 gene defined as following: This gene is involved in arginine modification.. MIF defined as following: Proteins released by sensitized LYMPHOCYTES and possibly other cells that inhibit the migration of MACROPHAGES away from the release site. The structure and chemical properties may vary with the species and type of releasing cell.. TRAF1-C5 defined as following: An intergenic gene locus on the short arm of human chromosome 9 located between the TRAF1 and C5 genes. Polymorphism in this region may be associated with increased susceptibility for rheumatoid arthritis.. arginine defined as following: An essential amino acid that is physiologically active in the L-form.. CD40 defined as following: Tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member 5 (277 aa, ~31 kDa) is encoded by the human CD40 gene. This protein is involved in the positive regulation of immunoglobulin secretion.. Anti-citrullinated peptide antibodies defined as following: Autoantibodies to citrullinated-peptides and proteins.. disease defined as following: A definite pathologic process with a characteristic set of signs and symptoms. It may affect the whole body or any of its parts, and its etiology, pathology, and prognosis may be known or unknown.. Hashimoto thyroiditis defined as following: An autoimmune disorder caused by the production of autoantibodies against thyroid tissue. There is progressive destruction of the thyroid follicles leading to hypothyroidism.. TCR defined as following: The nucleotide-excision repair process that carries out preferential repair of DNA lesions on the actively transcribed strand of the DNA duplex. In addition, the transcription-coupled nucleotide-excision repair pathway is required for the recognition and repair of a small subset of lesions that are not recognized by the global genome nucleotide excision repair pathway. [PMID:10197977, PMID:11900249]. autoimmune diseases defined as following: Disorders that are characterized by the production of antibodies that react with host tissues or immune effector cells that are autoreactive to endogenous peptides.. AFF3 defined as following: AF4/FMR2 family member 3 (1226 aa, ~133 kDa) is encoded by the human AFF3 gene. This protein is involved in the regulation of both development and transcription.. protein tyrosine phosphatase defined as following: An enzyme group that specifically dephosphorylates phosphotyrosyl residues in selected proteins. Together with PROTEIN-TYROSINE KINASE, it regulates tyrosine phosphorylation and dephosphorylation in cellular signal transduction and may play a role in cell growth control and carcinogenesis.. locus defined as following: The position of a gene or a chromosomal marker on a chromosome; also, a stretch of DNA at a particular place on a particular chromosome. The use of locus is sometimes restricted to mean regions of DNA that are expressed.. Hormonal defined as following: Relating to hormones.. BLK defined as following: This gene is involved in signal transduction in B lymphocytes.. candidate genes defined as following: A gene proposed to have a primary role in a disease, based upon its known function in other organisms or model systems or based upon its physical proximity to markers linked to a genetic disease.. T1D defined as following: A chronic condition characterized by minimal or absent production of insulin by the pancreas.. tryptophan defined as following: An essential amino acid that is necessary for normal growth in infants and for NITROGEN balance in adults. It is a precursor of INDOLE ALKALOIDS in plants. It is a precursor of SEROTONIN (hence its use as an antidepressant and sleep aid). It can be a precursor to NIACIN, albeit inefficiently, in mammals.. SLE defined as following: A chronic, relapsing, inflammatory, and often febrile multisystemic disorder of connective tissue, characterized principally by involvement of the skin, joints, kidneys, and serosal membranes. It is of unknown etiology, but is thought to represent a failure of the regulatory mechanisms of the autoimmune system. The disease is marked by a wide range of system dysfunctions, an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate, and the formation of LE cells in the blood or bone marrow.. variants defined as following: An alteration or difference from a norm or standard.. CVD defined as following: A spectrum of pathological conditions of impaired blood flow in the brain. They can involve vessels (ARTERIES or VEINS) in the CEREBRUM, the CEREBELLUM, and the BRAIN STEM. Major categories include INTRACRANIAL ARTERIOVENOUS MALFORMATIONS; BRAIN ISCHEMIA; CEREBRAL HEMORRHAGE; and others.. cardiovascular disease defined as following: Pathological conditions involving the CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM including the HEART; the BLOOD VESSELS; or the PERICARDIUM.. protein defined as following: Protein; provides access to the encoding gene via its GenBank Accession, the taxon in which this instance of the protein occurs, and references to homologous proteins in other species.. Graves' disease defined as following: Hyperthyroidism associated with diffuse hyperplasia of the thyroid gland (goiter), resulting from production of antibodies that are directed against the thyrotropin receptor complex of the follicular epithelial cells. As a result, the thyroid gland enlarges and secretes increased amounts of thyroid hormones.. Rheumatoid Arthritis defined as following: A chronic systemic disease, primarily of the joints, marked by inflammatory changes in the synovial membranes and articular structures, widespread fibrinoid degeneration of the collagen fibers in mesenchymal tissues, and by atrophy and rarefaction of bony structures. Etiology is unknown, but autoimmune mechanisms have been implicated..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_2491", "sentence1": "Has ATF4 transcription factor been linked to cancer and neoplastic transformation?", "sentence2": "aken together, we discovered a novel axis of BCL10-regulated OSCC progression via STAT1/ATF4/S100P/P65 signaling, which could predict the prognosis of OSCC and will be beneficial for developing therapeutic strategy against advanced OSCC, s a result, the level of phosphorylated Eukaryotic Initiation Factor 2 alpha (eIF2α) is markedly elevated, resulting in the promotion of a pro-adaptive signaling pathway by the inhibition of global protein synthesis and selective translation of Activating Transcription Factor 4 (ATF4). , Many cancers overexpress ATF4, a stress-induced transcription factor that promotes cell survival under hypoxic conditions and other stresses of the tumor microenvironment, but the potential contributions of ATF4 to oncogenesis itself have been little explored. Here, we report that ATF4 promotes oncogene-induced neoplastic transformation by suppressing the expression of cellular senescence-associated genes. , Here, we report that ATF4 promotes oncogene-induced neoplastic transformation by suppressing the expression of cellular senescence-associated genes., Elevated levels of ATF4 were sufficient to suppress expression of these proteins and drive oncogenic transformation., Our findings define a central function for ATF4 in promoting oncogenic transformation by suppressing a central pathway of cellular senescence.
, ATF4 expression is upregulated in cancer., Activating transcription factor 4 (ATF4), an endoplasmic reticulum stress-inducible transcription factor, plays important roles in cancer progression and resistance to therapy., Activating transcription factor 4 (ATF4) is a stress-induced transcription factor that is frequently upregulated in cancer cells., Our findings define a central function for ATF4 in promoting oncogenic transformation by suppressing a central pathway of cellular senescence., Stress-regulated transcription factor ATF4 promotes neoplastic transformation by suppressing expression of the INK4a/ARF cell senescence factors., Activating transcription factor 4 (ATF4), a member of the ATF/CREB family, has been reported to be related to tumor angiogenesis[SEP]Relations: transcription coactivator activity has relations: molfunc_protein with IRF4, molfunc_protein with IRF4, molfunc_protein with TAF6, molfunc_protein with TAF6, molfunc_protein with YAF2, molfunc_protein with YAF2, molfunc_protein with UTF1, molfunc_protein with UTF1, molfunc_protein with PHF2, molfunc_protein with PHF2. Definitions: proteins defined as following: Linear POLYPEPTIDES that are synthesized on RIBOSOMES and may be further modified, crosslinked, cleaved, or assembled into complex proteins with several subunits. The specific sequence of AMINO ACIDS determines the shape the polypeptide will take, during PROTEIN FOLDING, and the function of the protein.. cancer defined as following: A malignant tumor at the original site of growth.. cancer cells defined as following: Cells of, or derived from, a malignant tumor.. Activating transcription factor 4 defined as following: Activating transcription factors were originally identified as DNA-BINDING PROTEINS that interact with early promoters from ADENOVIRUSES. They are a family of basic leucine zipper transcription factors that bind to the consensus site TGACGTCA of the cyclic AMP response element, and are closely related to CYCLIC AMP-RESPONSIVE DNA-BINDING PROTEIN.. cancers defined as following: A tumor composed of atypical neoplastic, often pleomorphic cells that invade other tissues. Malignant neoplasms often metastasize to distant anatomic sites and may recur after excision. The most common malignant neoplasms are carcinomas, Hodgkin and non-Hodgkin lymphomas, leukemias, melanomas, and sarcomas.. ATF4 defined as following: Cyclic AMP-dependent transcription factor ATF-4 (351 aa, ~39 kDa) is encoded by the human ATF4 gene. This protein plays a role in the regulation of gene transcription.. ATF4 transcription factor defined as following: An activating transcription factor that regulates the expression of a variety of GENES involved in amino acid metabolism and transport. It also interacts with HTLV-I transactivator protein..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_3444", "sentence1": "Does ProSavin use an adenoviral vector?", "sentence2": "Long-Term Follow-Up of a Phase I/II Study of ProSavin, a Lentiviral Vector Gene Therapy for Parkinson's Disease., ProSavin, a lentiviral vector based gene therapy that delivers local and continuous dopamine, was previously shown to be well tolerated in a Phase I/II first-in-human study, with significant improvements in motor behavior from baseline at 1 year. [SEP]Relations: Dopamine has relations: drug_drug with Saquinavir, drug_drug with Saquinavir, drug_drug with Adefovir dipivoxil, drug_drug with Adefovir dipivoxil, drug_drug with Protirelin, drug_drug with Protirelin, drug_drug with Adefovir, drug_drug with Adefovir, drug_drug with Procaine benzylpenicillin, drug_drug with Procaine benzylpenicillin. Definitions: Parkinson's Disease defined as following: A progressive, degenerative neurologic disease characterized by a TREMOR that is maximal at rest, retropulsion (i.e. a tendency to fall backwards), rigidity, stooped posture, slowness of voluntary movements, and a masklike facial expression. Pathologic features include loss of melanin containing neurons in the substantia nigra and other pigmented nuclei of the brainstem. LEWY BODIES are present in the substantia nigra and locus coeruleus but may also be found in a related condition (LEWY BODY DISEASE, DIFFUSE) characterized by dementia in combination with varying degrees of parkinsonism. (Adams et al., Principles of Neurology, 6th ed, p1059, pp1067-75). dopamine defined as following: One of the catecholamine NEUROTRANSMITTERS in the brain. It is derived from TYROSINE and is the precursor to NOREPINEPHRINE and EPINEPHRINE. Dopamine is a major transmitter in the extrapyramidal system of the brain, and important in regulating movement. A family of receptors (RECEPTORS, DOPAMINE) mediate its action.. adenoviral vector defined as following: One of a number of genetically-engineered adenoviruses designed to insert a gene of interest into a eukaryotic cell where the gene of interest is subsequently expressed. Unlike most other vectors, adenovirus vectors have the ability to infect post-mitotic cells. Thus, these agents are especially useful for gene transfer into neuronal cells. (NCI04).", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_2232", "sentence1": "Is there any role of TBR1 in autism?", "sentence2": "TBR1 regulates autism risk genes in the developing neocortex, Exome sequencing studies have identified multiple genes harboring de novo loss-of-function (LoF) variants in individuals with autism spectrum disorders (ASD), including TBR1, a master regulator of cortical development. We performed ChIP-seq for TBR1 during mouse cortical neurogenesis and show that TBR1-bound regions are enriched adjacent to ASD genes. ASD genes were also enriched among genes that are differentially expressed in Tbr1 knockouts, which together with the ChIP-seq data, suggests direct transcriptional regulation. Of the nine ASD genes examined, seven were misexpressed in the cortices of Tbr1 knockout mice, including six with increased expression in the deep cortical layers. ASD genes with adjacent cortical TBR1 ChIP-seq peaks also showed unusually low levels of LoF mutations in a reference human population and among Icelanders. We then leveraged TBR1 binding to identify an appealing subset of candidate ASD genes. Our findings highlight a TBR1-regulated network of ASD genes in the developing neocortex that are relatively intolerant to LoF mutations, indicating that these genes may play critical roles in normal cortical development., T-Brain-1--A Potential Master Regulator in Autism Spectrum Disorders., T-Brain-1 (TBR1), a causative gene in autism spectrum disorders (ASDs), encodes a brain-specific T-box transcription factor. It is therefore possible that TBR1 controls the expression of other autism risk factors. The downstream genes of TBR1 have been identified using microarray and promoter analyses. In this study, we annotated individual genes downstream of TBR1 and investigated any associations with ASDs through extensive literature searches. Of 124 TBR1 target genes, 23 were reported to be associated with ASDs., Among these 24 genes, four transcription factors Auts2, Nfia, Nr4a2, and Sox5 were found, suggesting that TBR1 controls a transcriptional cascade relevant to autism pathogenesis. A further five of the 24 genes (Cd44, Cdh8, Cntn6, Gpc6, and Ntng1) encode membrane proteins that regulate cell adhesion and axonal outgrowth. These genes likely contribute to the role of TBR1 in regulation of neuronal migration and axonal extension. Besides, decreases in Grin2b expression and increases in Gad1 expression imply that neuronal activity may be aberrant in Tbr1 deficient mice. These analyses provide direction for future experiments to reveal the pathogenic mechanism of autism., The activity-regulated gene expression of transcription factors is required for neural plasticity and function in response to neuronal stimulation. T-brain-1 (TBR1), a critical neuron-specific transcription factor for forebrain development, has been recognized as a high-confidence risk gene for autism spectrum disorders. , Disruptive mutations in the TBR1 gene have been repeatedly identified in patients with autism spectrum disorders (ASDs). , Next-generation sequencing recently revealed that recurrent disruptive mutations in a few genes may account for 1% of sporadic autism cases. Coupling these novel genetic data to empirical assays of protein function can illuminate crucial molecular networks. Here we demonstrate the power of the approach, performing the first functional analyses of TBR1 variants identified in sporadic autism., T-brain-1 (TBR1) is a brain-specific T-box transcription factor. In 1995, Tbr1 was first identified from a subtractive hybridization that compared mouse embryonic and adult telencephalons. Previous studies of Tbr1 (-∕-) mice have indicated critical roles for TBR1 in the development of the cerebral cortex, amygdala, and olfactory bulb. Neuronal migration and axonal projection are two important developmental features controlled by TBR1. Recently, recurrent de novo disruptive mutations in the TBR1 gene have been found in patients with autism spectrum disorders (ASDs). Human genetic studies have identified TBR1 as a high-confidence risk factor for ASDs., TBR1 regulates autism risk genes in the developing neocortex., De novo TBR1 mutations in sporadic autism disrupt protein functions., In humans, PAX6, EOMES, and TBR1 have been linked to intellectual disability and autism., It is therefore possible that TBR1 controls the expression of other autism risk factors., Neuronal excitation upregulates Tbr1, a high-confidence risk gene of autism, mediating Grin2b expression in the adult brain., T-Brain-1 (TBR1), a causative gene in autism spectrum disorders (ASDs), encodes a brain-specific T-box transcription factor., Recently, recurrent de novo disruptive mutations in the TBR1 gene have been found in patients with autism spectrum disorders (ASDs)., Here we demonstrate the power of the approach, performing the first functional analyses of TBR1 variants identified in sporadic autism., Among these 24 genes, four transcription factors Auts2, Nfia, Nr4a2, and Sox5 were found, suggesting that TBR1 controls a transcriptional cascade relevant to autism pathogenesis., Disruptive mutations in the TBR1 gene have been repeatedly identified in patients with autism spectrum disorders (ASDs)., T-Brain-1 (TBR1), a causative gene in autism spectrum disorders (ASDs), encodes a brain-specific T-box transcription factor, Among these 24 genes, four transcription factors Auts2, Nfia, Nr4a2, and Sox5 were found, suggesting that TBR1 controls a transcriptional cascade relevant to autism pathogenesis, Disruptive mutations in the TBR1 gene have been repeatedly identified in patients with autism spectrum disorders (ASDs), Among these 24 genes, four transcription factors Auts2, Nfia, Nr4a2, and Sox5 were found, suggesting that TBR1 controls a transcriptional cascade relevant to autism pathogenesis., It is therefore possible that TBR1 controls the expression of other autism risk factors., TBR1 regulates autism risk genes in the developing neocortex., De novo TBR1 mutations in sporadic autism disrupt protein functions., Our findings highlight a TBR1-regulated network of ASD genes in the developing neocortex that are relatively intolerant to LoF mutations, indicating that these genes may play critical roles in normal cortical development.[SEP]Relations: autism spectrum disorder has relations: disease_protein with TBR1, disease_protein with TBR1, disease_protein with TBL1XR1, disease_protein with TBL1XR1, disease_protein with TBL1X, disease_protein with TBL1X, disease_protein with FMR1, disease_protein with FMR1, disease_protein with GABBR1, disease_protein with GABBR1. Definitions: Gpc6 defined as following: This gene plays a role in protein binding.. TBR1 gene defined as following: This gene is involved in both brain development and transcriptional regulation.. EOMES defined as following: This gene plays a role in both transcriptional activation and embryonic development.. PAX6 defined as following: This gene plays a role in transcriptional regulation.. T-Brain-1 defined as following: T-box brain protein 1 (682 aa, ~74 kDa) is encoded by the human TBR1 gene. This protein is involved in both transcriptional regulation and brain development.. olfactory bulb defined as following: Ovoid body resting on the CRIBRIFORM PLATE of the ethmoid bone where the OLFACTORY NERVE terminates. The olfactory bulb contains several types of nerve cells including the mitral cells, on whose DENDRITES the olfactory nerve synapses, forming the olfactory glomeruli. The accessory olfactory bulb, which receives the projection from the VOMERONASAL ORGAN via the vomeronasal nerve, is also included here.. Gad1 defined as following: Glutamate decarboxylase 1 (594 aa, ~67 kDa) is encoded by the human GAD1 gene. This protein is involved in the conversion of glutamate to gamma-aminobutyric acid.. cerebral cortex defined as following: The thin layer of GRAY MATTER on the surface of the CEREBRAL HEMISPHERES that develops from the TELENCEPHALON and folds into gyri and sulci. It reaches its highest development in humans and is responsible for intellectual faculties and higher mental functions.. Grin2b defined as following: This gene plays a role in both neurotransmitter binding and ion transport.. intellectual disability defined as following: Subnormal intellectual functioning which originates during the developmental period. This has multiple potential etiologies, including genetic defects and perinatal insults. Intelligence quotient (IQ) scores are commonly used to determine whether an individual has an intellectual disability. IQ scores between 70 and 79 are in the borderline range. Scores below 67 are in the disabled range. (from Joynt, Clinical Neurology, 1992, Ch55, p28). autism defined as following: A disorder beginning in childhood. It is marked by the presence of markedly abnormal or impaired development in social interaction and communication and a markedly restricted repertoire of activity and interest. Manifestations of the disorder vary greatly depending on the developmental level and chronological age of the individual. (DSM-V). autism spectrum disorders defined as following: A spectrum of developmental disorders that includes autism, Asperger syndrome, and Rett syndrome. Signs and symptoms include poor communication skills, defective social interactions, and repetitive behaviors.. Cd44 defined as following: Acidic sulfated integral membrane glycoproteins expressed in several alternatively spliced and variable glycosylated forms on a wide variety of cell types including mature T-cells, B-cells, medullary THYMOCYTES; GRANULOCYTES; MACROPHAGES; erythrocytes, and fibroblasts. Their interaction with HYALURONIC ACID mediates binding of lymphocytes to high endothelial VENULES.. ChIP-seq defined as following: A molecular genetic technique that combines chromatin immunoprecipitation (ChIP) with massively parallel DNA sequencing to map the binding sites of DNA-associated proteins in a sample of cells. First, crosslinked protein-DNA complexes are isolated using ChIP. Next, the crosslinks are broken, the proteins are removed and the purified DNA is modified with adaptor oligonucleotides to facilitate massively parallel DNA sequencing. Following sequencing, the DNA sequences that are obtained can be mapped to their genomic locations.. genes defined as following: A category of nucleic acid sequences that function as units of heredity and which code for the basic instructions for the development, reproduction, and maintenance of organisms.. amygdala defined as following: Almond-shaped group of basal nuclei anterior to the INFERIOR HORN OF THE LATERAL VENTRICLE of the TEMPORAL LOBE. The amygdala is part of the limbic system.. Nfia defined as following: Nuclear factor 1 A-type (509 aa, ~56 kDa) is encoded by the human NFIA gene. This protein plays a role in the regulation of both gene replication and transcription.. mutations defined as following: The result of any gain, loss or alteration of the sequences comprising a gene, including all sequences transcribed into RNA.. variants defined as following: An alteration or difference from a norm or standard.. humans defined as following: Members of the species Homo sapiens.. transcription factors defined as following: Endogenous substances, usually proteins, which are effective in the initiation, stimulation, or termination of the genetic transcription process.. ASD defined as following: Developmental abnormalities in any portion of the ATRIAL SEPTUM resulting in abnormal communications between the two upper chambers of the heart. Classification of atrial septal defects is based on location of the communication and types of incomplete fusion of atrial septa with the ENDOCARDIAL CUSHIONS in the fetal heart. They include ostium primum, ostium secundum, sinus venosus, and coronary sinus defects.. TBR1 defined as following: This gene is involved in both brain development and transcriptional regulation..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_2166", "sentence1": "Is intraoperative radiotherapy used for treatment of glioblastoma?", "sentence2": " 1) Intraoperative radiotherapy ( IOR , 1,000-2,000 rad) was applied in 13 cases; the 2-year survival was 41.6%. , The median survival time after IORT was 12 months for 9 patients with glioblastoma or anaplastic astrocytoma, while it was 51 months for 8 patients with less infiltrative tumors (ependymoma, anaplastic ependymoma, and anaplastic oligodendroglioma). , It is concluded that IORT combined with extensive tumor removal has an acceptable toxicity in previously irradiated patients and can be effective for selected recurrent malignant brain tumors., CONCLUSIONS: The results of this study indicate that IORT can contribute to successful tumor treatment while neither increasing peri-operative morbidity nor subacute sequelae., This review compiles preclinical and clinical evidence for a dedicated treatment of both residual cancer cells and regional microenvironment using intraoperative radiotherapy (IORT)., Intraoperative radiotherapy (IORT) is a pragmatic and effective approach to sterilize the margins from persistent tumor cells, abrogate post-injury proliferative stimuli and to bridge the therapeutic gap between surgery and radiochemotherapy. , [Surgical treatment and radiation therapy for glioblastoma multiforme, with special reference to intraoperative radiotherapy]., Rationale for intraoperative radiotherapy in glioblastoma., Intraoperative radiotherapy (IORT) was performed in 20 of 36 patients with glioma; 11 glioblastomas, 7 malignant astrocytomas, 2 benign astrocytomas., [Surgical treatment and radiation therapy for glioblastoma multiforme, with special reference to intraoperative radiotherapy], INTRAGO: intraoperative radiotherapy in glioblastoma multiforme—a phase I/II dose escalation study, Intraoperative cobalt-60 treatment of glioblastoma multiforme, An intraoperative remote afterloading endocurietherapy (ECT) technique with high-activity 60cobalt (60Co) for the treatment of glioblastoma multiforme (GM) is described, [Surgical treatment and radiation therapy for glioblastoma multiforme, with special reference to intraoperative radiotherapy]., Rationale for intraoperative radiotherapy in glioblastoma., Intraoperative cobalt-60 treatment of glioblastoma multiforme., INTRAGO: intraoperative radiotherapy in glioblastoma multiforme—a phase I/II dose escalation study., Intraoperative remote afterloading endocurietherapy with high-activity 60cobalt for treatment of glioblastoma multiforme., Combining intraoperative carmustine wafers and Stupp regimen in multimodal first-line treatment of primary glioblastomas., The intraoperative use of carmustine wafers in combination with Stupp regimen is a viable first-line treatment option of glioblastomas., An intraoperative remote afterloading endocurietherapy (ECT) technique with high-activity 60cobalt (60Co) for the treatment of glioblastoma multiforme (GM) is described., The study investigated if intraoperative use of carmustine wafers, particularly in combination with Stupp regimen, is a viable and safe first-line treatment option of glioblastomas.[SEP]Relations: adult glioblastoma has relations: disease_disease with glioblastoma (disease), disease_disease with glioblastoma (disease), disease_disease with glioblastoma (disease), disease_disease with glioblastoma (disease), disease_disease with adult infiltrating astrocytic neoplasm, disease_disease with adult infiltrating astrocytic neoplasm, disease_disease with adult infiltrating astrocytic neoplasm, disease_disease with adult infiltrating astrocytic neoplasm. anaplastic oligodendroglioma has relations: disease_disease with grade III glioma, disease_disease with grade III glioma. Definitions: anaplastic oligodendroglioma defined as following: A central nervous system tumor with morphological features of anaplastic oligodendroglioma in which there is insufficient information on the IDH genes and 1p/19q codeletion status.. glioblastoma multiforme defined as following: The most malignant astrocytic tumor (WHO grade 4). It is composed of poorly differentiated neoplastic astrocytes and is characterized by the presence of cellular polymorphism, nuclear atypia, brisk mitotic activity, vascular thrombosis, microvascular proliferation, and necrosis. It typically affects adults and is preferentially located in the cerebral hemispheres. (Adapted from WHO). IOR defined as following: Catalysis of the reaction: (indol-3-yl)pyruvate + CoA + oxidized ferredoxin = S-2-(indol-3-yl)acetyl-CoA + CO2 + reduced ferredoxin. [EC:1.2.7.8]. cancer cells defined as following: Cells of, or derived from, a malignant tumor.. glioma defined as following: Benign and malignant central nervous system neoplasms derived from glial cells (i.e., astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, and ependymocytes). Astrocytes may give rise to astrocytomas (ASTROCYTOMA) or glioblastoma multiforme (see GLIOBLASTOMA). Oligodendrocytes give rise to oligodendrogliomas (OLIGODENDROGLIOMA) and ependymocytes may undergo transformation to become EPENDYMOMA; CHOROID PLEXUS NEOPLASMS; or colloid cysts of the third ventricle. (From Escourolle et al., Manual of Basic Neuropathology, 2nd ed, p21). ECT defined as following: Electrically induced CONVULSIONS primarily used in the treatment of severe AFFECTIVE DISORDERS and SCHIZOPHRENIA.. anaplastic astrocytoma defined as following: A central nervous system tumor with morphological features of anaplastic astrocytoma in which there is insufficient information on the IDH genes status.. ependymoma defined as following: Glioma derived from EPENDYMOGLIAL CELLS that tend to present as malignant intracranial tumors in children and as benign intraspinal neoplasms in adults. It may arise from any level of the ventricular system or central canal of the spinal cord. Intracranial ependymomas most frequently originate in the FOURTH VENTRICLE and histologically are densely cellular tumors which may contain ependymal tubules and perivascular pseudorosettes. Spinal ependymomas are usually benign papillary or myxopapillary tumors. (From DeVita et al., Principles and Practice of Oncology, 5th ed, p2018; Escourolle et al., Manual of Basic Neuropathology, 2nd ed, pp28-9). carmustine defined as following: A cell-cycle phase nonspecific alkylating antineoplastic agent. It is used in the treatment of brain tumors and various other malignant neoplasms. (From Martindale, The Extra Pharmacopoeia, 30th ed, p462) This substance may reasonably be anticipated to be a carcinogen according to the Fourth Annual Report on Carcinogens (NTP 85-002, 1985). (From Merck Index, 11th ed). glioblastomas defined as following: A malignant form of astrocytoma histologically characterized by pleomorphism of cells, nuclear atypia, microhemorrhage, and necrosis. They may arise in any region of the central nervous system, with a predilection for the cerebral hemispheres, basal ganglia, and commissural pathways. Clinical presentation most frequently occurs in the fifth or sixth decade of life with focal neurologic signs or seizures.. toxicity defined as following: The finding of bodily harm due to the poisonous effects of something.. GM defined as following: Glucose-galactose malabsorption (GGM) is a very rare, potentially lethal, genetic metabolic disease characterized by impaired glucose-galactose absorption resulting in severe watery diarrhea and dehydration with onset inthe neonatal period.. anaplastic ependymoma defined as following: A WHO grade 3 malignant glioma of ependymal origin with accelerated growth and an unfavorable clinical outcome, particularly in children. It is characterized by high mitotic activity, often accompanied by microvascular proliferation and pseudo-palisading necrosis. (Adapted from WHO). malignant brain tumors defined as following: A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm affecting the brain.. glioblastoma defined as following: The most malignant astrocytic tumor (WHO grade 4). It is composed of poorly differentiated neoplastic astrocytes and is characterized by the presence of cellular polymorphism, nuclear atypia, brisk mitotic activity, vascular thrombosis, microvascular proliferation, and necrosis. It typically affects adults and is preferentially located in the cerebral hemispheres. (Adapted from WHO).", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_2599", "sentence1": "A bite from the Lone Star Tick Amblyomma americanum, can cause the victim to become allergic to red meat, yes or no?", "sentence2": "A recent discovery of an IgE antibody specific to galactose-α-1,3-galactose, which is a carbohydrate abundantly expressed on cells and tissues of beef, pork, and lamb, adds one more tool to aid the clinician in making the appropriate diagnosis. A link has been discovered between the bite of the Lone Star Tick (Amblyomma americanum) and the development of sensitivity to galactose-α-1,3-galactose. , . Recently described conditions such as Southern tick-associated rash illness and anaphylaxis to red meat following tick bites have been attributed to the lone star tick., Recently described conditions such as Southern tick-associated rash illness and anaphylaxis to red meat following tick bites have been attributed to the lone star tick.[SEP]Relations: Bite cells has relations: phenotype_phenotype with Poikilocytosis, phenotype_phenotype with Poikilocytosis, disease_phenotype_positive with hereditary stomatocytosis, disease_phenotype_positive with hereditary stomatocytosis. anaphylaxis has relations: disease_disease with hypersensitivity reaction disease, disease_disease with hypersensitivity reaction disease, contraindication with Brimonidine, contraindication with Brimonidine. injury has relations: contraindication with Amlodipine, contraindication with Amlodipine. Definitions: tissues defined as following: Collections of differentiated CELLS, such as EPITHELIUM; CONNECTIVE TISSUE; MUSCLES; and NERVE TISSUE. Tissues are cooperatively arranged to form organs with specialized functions such as RESPIRATION; DIGESTION; REPRODUCTION; MOVEMENT; and others.. antibody defined as following: An immunoglobulin complex that is secreted into extracellular space and found in mucosal areas or other tissues or circulating in the blood or lymph. In its canonical form, a circulating immunoglobulin complex is composed of two identical heavy chains and two identical light chains, held together by disulfide bonds. Some forms of are polymers of the basic structure and contain additional components such as J-chain and the secretory component. [GOC:add, ISBN:0781735149]. carbohydrate defined as following: A class of organic compounds composed of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen in a ratio of Cn(H2O)n. The largest class of organic compounds, including STARCH; GLYCOGEN; CELLULOSE; POLYSACCHARIDES; and simple MONOSACCHARIDES.. bites defined as following: A wound inflicted by the teeth or fangs of an individual or animal.. cells defined as following: The fundamental, structural, and functional units or subunits of living organisms. They are composed of CYTOPLASM containing various ORGANELLES and a CELL MEMBRANE boundary.. anaphylaxis defined as following: An acute hypersensitivity reaction due to exposure to a previously encountered ANTIGEN. The reaction may include rapidly progressing URTICARIA, respiratory distress, vascular collapse, systemic SHOCK, and death.. allergic defined as following: Pertaining to, caused by, affected with or of the nature of allergy..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_4419", "sentence1": "Is Sotatercept effective for Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension?", "sentence2": "Sotatercept for the Treatment of Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension., CONCLUSIONS: Treatment with sotatercept resulted in a reduction in pulmonary vascular resistance in patients receiving background therapy for pulmonary arterial hypertension., Sotatercept for the Treatment of Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension, CONCLUSIONS: Treatment with sotatercept resulted in a reduction in pulmonary vascular resistance in patients receiving background therapy for pulmonary arterial hypertensio, n hematologic adverse events. One patient in the sotatercept 0.7-mg group died from cardiac arrest.CONCLUSIONS: Treatment with sotatercept resulted in a reduction in pulmonary vascular resistance in patients receiving background t[SEP]Relations: Sotatercept has relations: drug_drug with Estriol, drug_drug with Estriol, drug_drug with Estradiol, drug_drug with Estradiol, drug_drug with Ipafricept, drug_drug with Ipafricept, drug_drug with Estradiol acetate, drug_drug with Estradiol acetate, drug_drug with Epimestrol, drug_drug with Epimestrol. Definitions: sotatercept defined as following: A soluble fusion protein composed of the extracellular domain of the activin receptor type IIA (ActRIIA) linked to the Fc portion of human IgG1 with anabolic bone activity. Sotatercept selectively binds to activin, inhibiting its binding to ActRIIA and ActRIIA signaling, resulting in the stimulation of osteoblast activity and the inhibition of osteoclast activity and so normal bone formation and increased bone mineral density and strength. The Fc moiety of this fusion protein binds to the salvage receptor FcRN, preventing its lysosomal degradation and so extending its half-life in the circulatory system.. cardiac arrest defined as following: Cessation of heart beat or MYOCARDIAL CONTRACTION. If it is treated within a few minutes, heart arrest can be reversed in most cases to normal cardiac rhythm and effective circulation.. pulmonary arterial hypertension defined as following: Increased blood pressure in the arteries of the lungs; the etiology is unknown.. Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension defined as following: Increased blood pressure in the arteries of the lungs; the etiology is unknown.. Sotatercept defined as following: A soluble fusion protein composed of the extracellular domain of the activin receptor type IIA (ActRIIA) linked to the Fc portion of human IgG1 with anabolic bone activity. Sotatercept selectively binds to activin, inhibiting its binding to ActRIIA and ActRIIA signaling, resulting in the stimulation of osteoblast activity and the inhibition of osteoclast activity and so normal bone formation and increased bone mineral density and strength. The Fc moiety of this fusion protein binds to the salvage receptor FcRN, preventing its lysosomal degradation and so extending its half-life in the circulatory system..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_1055", "sentence1": "Does splicing occur co-transcriptionally?", "sentence2": "Researchers working in multiple model organisms - notably yeast, insects and mammalian cells - have shown that pre-mRNA can be spliced during the process of transcription (i.e. co-transcriptionally), as well as after transcription termination (i.e. post-transcriptionally), The consensus view, based on four organisms, is that the majority of splicing events take place co-transcriptionally in most cells and tissues., Deep sequencing of subcellular RNA fractions shows splicing to be predominantly co-transcriptional, We show that in the human genome, splicing occurs predominantly during transcription., Consistent with co-transcriptional spliceosome assembly and splicing, we have found significant enrichment of spliceosomal snRNAs in chromatin-associated RNA compared with other cellular RNA fractions and other nonspliceosomal snRNAs. , The majority of introns in higher eukaryotes are excised prior to transcript release in a manner that is dependent on transcription through pol II, s a result of co-transcriptional splicing, variations in pol II elongation influence alternative splicing patterns, wherein a slower elongation rate is associated with increased inclusion of alternative exons within mature mRNA. , We show that the pattern of intronic sequence read coverage is explained by nascent transcription in combination with co-transcriptional splicing, Modelling reveals co-transcriptional splicing to be the most probable and most efficient splicing pathway for the reporter transcripts, due in part to a positive feedback mechanism for co-transcriptional second step splicing, RNA processing events that take place on the transcribed pre-mRNA include capping, splicing, editing, 3' processing, and polyadenylation. Most of these processes occur co-transcriptionally while the RNA polymerase II (Pol II) enzyme is engaged in transcriptional elongation, Abundant evidence indicates that splicing to excise introns occurs co-transcriptionally, prior to release of the nascent transcript from RNAP II, Together, our work establishes a system for co-transcriptional splicing in vitro, in which the spliceosome containing the 5' and 3' exons are tethered to RNAP II for splicing., Co-transcriptional splicing of constitutive and alternative exons, Current evidence supports co-transcriptional spliceosomal assembly, but there is little quantitative information on how much splicing is completed during RNA synthesis, Thus, we demonstrate that the decision to include or skip an alternative exon is made during transcription and not post-transcriptionally, Here, we demonstrated that the co-transcriptional splicing of the intron in vitro was blocked by antisense oligonucleotides (AONs) targeting the P3-P7 core of the intron, RNA editing and alternative splicing: the importance of co-transcriptional coordination, Co-transcriptional splicing of pre-messenger RNAs: considerations for the mechanism of alternative splicing, The realization that splicing occurs co-transcriptionally requires two important considerations[SEP]Relations: rRNA transcription has relations: bioprocess_bioprocess with plastid rRNA transcription, bioprocess_bioprocess with plastid rRNA transcription, bioprocess_protein with SPIN1, bioprocess_protein with SPIN1, bioprocess_protein with SIRT7, bioprocess_protein with SIRT7, bioprocess_protein with ANG, bioprocess_protein with ANG, bioprocess_protein with TP53, bioprocess_protein with TP53. Definitions: pre-mRNA defined as following: A primary RNA transcript synthesized from a DNA template in eukaryotic nuclei which is post-transcriptionally modified and spliced to produce a mature mRNA.. RNA polymerase II defined as following: A DNA-dependent RNA polymerase present in bacterial, plant, and animal cells. It functions in the nucleoplasmic structure and transcribes DNA into RNA. It has different requirements for cations and salt than RNA polymerase I and is strongly inhibited by alpha-amanitin. EC 2.7.7.6.. yeast defined as following: A species of the genus SACCHAROMYCES, family Saccharomycetaceae, order Saccharomycetales, known as \"baker's\" or \"brewer's\" yeast. The dried form is used as a dietary supplement.. tissues defined as following: Collections of differentiated CELLS, such as EPITHELIUM; CONNECTIVE TISSUE; MUSCLES; and NERVE TISSUE. Tissues are cooperatively arranged to form organs with specialized functions such as RESPIRATION; DIGESTION; REPRODUCTION; MOVEMENT; and others.. eukaryotes defined as following: Organism or cells with a nucleus separated from the cytoplasm by a two membrance nuclear envelope and compartmentalization of function into distinct cytoplasmic organelles.. introns defined as following: Sequences of DNA in the genes that are located between the EXONS. They are transcribed along with the exons but are removed from the primary gene transcript by RNA SPLICING to leave mature RNA. Some introns code for separate genes.. antisense oligonucleotides defined as following: Short fragments of DNA or RNA that are used to alter the function of target RNAs or DNAs to which they hybridize.. RNA editing defined as following: A process that changes the nucleotide sequence of mRNA from that of the DNA template encoding it. Some major classes of RNA editing are as follows: 1, the conversion of cytosine to uracil in mRNA; 2, the addition of variable number of guanines at pre-determined sites; and 3, the addition and deletion of uracils, templated by guide-RNAs (RNA, GUIDE, KINETOPLASTIDA).. cells defined as following: The fundamental, structural, and functional units or subunits of living organisms. They are composed of CYTOPLASM containing various ORGANELLES and a CELL MEMBRANE boundary.. mRNA defined as following: RNA sequences that serve as templates for protein synthesis. Bacterial mRNAs are generally primary transcripts in that they do not require post-transcriptional processing. Eukaryotic mRNA is synthesized in the nucleus and must be exported to the cytoplasm for translation. Most eukaryotic mRNAs have a sequence of polyadenylic acid at the 3' end, referred to as the poly(A) tail. The function of this tail is not known for certain, but it may play a role in the export of mature mRNA from the nucleus as well as in helping stabilize some mRNA molecules by retarding their degradation in the cytoplasm.. exons defined as following: The parts of a transcript of a split GENE remaining after the INTRONS are removed. They are spliced together to become a MESSENGER RNA or other functional RNA.. organisms defined as following: A living entity.. transcript defined as following: The initial RNA molecule produced by transcription..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_4258", "sentence1": "Can FTO promote pancreatic cancer development?", "sentence2": "m6A demethylase FTO suppresses pancreatic cancer tumorigenesis by demethylating PJA2 and inhibiting Wnt signaling., Moreover, FTO demethylated the m6A modification of praja ring finger ubiquitin ligase 2 (PJA2), thereby reducing its mRNA decay, suppressing Wnt signaling, and ultimately restraining the proliferation, invasion, and metastasis of pancreatic cancer cells.[SEP]Relations: malignant exocrine pancreas neoplasm has relations: disease_disease with exocrine pancreatic carcinoma, disease_disease with exocrine pancreatic carcinoma, disease_disease with pancreatoblastoma, disease_disease with pancreatoblastoma, disease_disease with pancreatic exocrine neoplasm, disease_disease with pancreatic exocrine neoplasm, disease_disease with malignant pancreatic neoplasm, disease_disease with malignant pancreatic neoplasm, disease_disease with pancreatic intraductal papillary-mucinous neoplasm, disease_disease with pancreatic intraductal papillary-mucinous neoplasm. Definitions: pancreatic cancer defined as following: A primary or metastatic malignant tumor involving the pancreas. Representative examples include carcinoma and lymphoma.. FTO defined as following: Alpha-ketoglutarate-dependent dioxygenase FTO (505 aa, ~58 kDa) is encoded by the human FTO gene. This protein is involved in the demethylation of RNA and DNA.. m6A defined as following: This gene is involved in methlyation of mRNA..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_4422", "sentence1": "Is pRETRO-SUPER an adenoviral vector?", "sentence2": " In this study, we investigated the effect of small interfering RNA (siRNA) of connective tissue growth factor (CTGF) by pRetro-Super (PRS) retrovirus vector on the expression of CTGF and related extracellular matrix molecules in human renal proximal tubular cells (HKCs) induced by high glucose, to provide help for renal tubulointerstitial fibrosis therapy.[SEP]Relations: connective tissue has relations: anatomy_protein_present with PRELP, anatomy_protein_present with PRELP, anatomy_protein_present with FAAP24, anatomy_protein_present with FAAP24, anatomy_protein_present with ZPR1, anatomy_protein_present with ZPR1, anatomy_protein_present with MRPL24, anatomy_protein_present with MRPL24. Small interfering RNA (siRNA) biogenesis has relations: pathway_protein with PRKRA, pathway_protein with PRKRA. Definitions: small interfering RNA defined as following: Small double-stranded, non-protein coding RNAs (21-31 nucleotides) involved in GENE SILENCING functions, especially RNA INTERFERENCE (RNAi). Endogenously, siRNAs are generated from dsRNAs (RNA, DOUBLE-STRANDED) by the same ribonuclease, Dicer, that generates miRNAs (MICRORNAS). The perfect match of the siRNAs' antisense strand to their target RNAs mediates RNAi by siRNA-guided RNA cleavage. siRNAs fall into different classes including trans-acting siRNA (tasiRNA), repeat-associated RNA (rasiRNA), small-scan RNA (scnRNA), and Piwi protein-interacting RNA (piRNA) and have different specific gene silencing functions.. human defined as following: Members of the species Homo sapiens.. PRS defined as following: An endoscopic technique that uses polarized light to provide qualitative morphological information of tissue in situ, with reduced background signals, to evaluate epithelial tissue for dysplasia and ischemia.. CTGF defined as following: A CCN protein family member that regulates a variety of extracellular functions including CELL ADHESION; CELL MIGRATION; and EXTRACELLULAR MATRIX synthesis. It is found in hypertrophic CHONDROCYTES where it may play a role in CHONDROGENESIS and endochondral ossification.. connective tissue defined as following: Tissue that supports and binds other tissues. It consists of CONNECTIVE TISSUE CELLS embedded in a large amount of EXTRACELLULAR MATRIX.. adenoviral vector defined as following: One of a number of genetically-engineered adenoviruses designed to insert a gene of interest into a eukaryotic cell where the gene of interest is subsequently expressed. Unlike most other vectors, adenovirus vectors have the ability to infect post-mitotic cells. Thus, these agents are especially useful for gene transfer into neuronal cells. (NCI04).", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_825", "sentence1": "Could Catecholaminergic Polymorphic Ventricular Tachycardia (CPVT)\ncause sudden cardiac death?", "sentence2": "Two siblings died suddenly at the ages of 9 and 10 years, Catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (CPVT) is a type of cardiac arrhythmia that occurs in people with a structurally normal heart. Stress or anxiety-induced release of endogenous catecholamines causes a dysfunction in the myocytic calcium-ion channel, leading to ventricular arrhythmias that can cause dizziness, syncope, or sudden cardiac death. , During a follow-up of 48±94 months, arrhythmia events (sudden cardiac death and aborted cardiac arrest) associated with noncompliance occurred in 2 patients. , We report a family with repeat events of sudden cardiac death and recurrent ventricular fibrillation in a teenage girl, where autopsy data and clinical investigations were inconclusive. The diagnosis of catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (CPVT) was established only following finding a gene mutation in the cardiac ryanodine receptor. , Catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (CPVT) is a devastating inherited disorder characterized by episodic syncope and/or sudden cardiac arrest during exercise or acute emotion in individuals without structural cardiac abnormalities. Although rare, CPVT is suspected to cause a substantial part of sudden cardiac deaths in young individuals. , catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (CPVT), and Brugada syndrome (BrS), leave no evidence to be found at autopsy, a spectrum of sudden cardiac death (SCD)-predisposing heritable cardiac arrhythmia syndromes, including long QT syndrome (LQTS), short QT syndrome (SQTS), Brugada syndrome (BrS), and catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (CPVT). , CPVT is a familial arrhythmogenic syndrome characterized by abnormal calcium (Ca(2+)) handling, ventricular arrhythmias, and sudden cardiac death, Mutations in RyR2 are linked to catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (CPVT) and sudden cardiac death., Patients with CPVT often present with exercise- or emotion induced syncope, the first presentation can also be sudden cardiac death., Among the five major arrhythmogenic disorders occurring in the absence of a structural heart disease is catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (CPVT), which is a highly lethal form of inherited arrhythmias. , Patients with CPVT are at high risk of developing life-threatening ventricular arrhythmias when untreated. , Catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (CPVT) is an inherited arrhythmia syndrome characterized by VT induced by adrenergic stress in the absence of structural heart disease and high incidence of sudden cardiac death. , CPVT is an inherited arrhythmia syndrome caused by gene mutations that destabilize cardiac ryanodine receptor Ca(2+) release channels. Sudden cardiac death is incompletely prevented by conventional drug therapy with β-blockers with or without Ca(2+) channel blockers. , Catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (CPVT) is an inherited arrhythmogenic disease that can cause sudden cardiac death due to ventricular fibrillation (VF)., Important potential causes of sudden cardiac deaths in the absence of heart disease are primary electrical diseases such as Brugada syndrome, long QT syndrome (LQTS), short QT syndrome and catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachyarrhythmias. , catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (CPVT), and Brugada syndrome (BrS) are primary inherited arrhythmia syndromes that may cause syncope and sudden cardiac death in young individuals. , Catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (CPVT) is a cardiac channelopathy characterized by altered intracellular calcium handling resulting in ventricular arrhythmias and high risk of cardiac sudden death in young cases with normal structural hearts. , Catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (CPVT) is an inherited arrhythmogenic disorder that causes syncopal episodes related with stress or emotion and even sudden cardiac deaths., Catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia caused by mutations in the RyR2 gene manifests as severe arrhythmias, and may provide a candidate for sudden cardiac deaths., Patients diagnosed with an electrical cardiomyopathy have an increased risk of syncope and sudden cardiac death (SCD). , Patients with CPVT present with exercise-induced syncope and sudden cardiac death but normal resting electrocardiograms. , Over 80% of SCD occurs in patients with organic heart disease. However, approximately 10-15% of SCD occurs in the presence of structurally normal heart and the majority of those patients are young. In this group of patients, changes in genes encoding cardiac ion channels produce modification of the function of the channel resulting in an electrophysiological substrate of VA and SCD. Collectively these disorders are referred to as Cardiac Ion Channelopathies. The 4 major syndromes in this group are: The Long QT Syndrome (LQTS), the Brugada Syndrome (BrS), the Short QT Syndrome (SQTS), and the Catecholaminergic Polymorphic VT (CPVT). , Important potential causes of sudden cardiac deaths in the absence of heart disease are primary electrical diseases such as Brugada syndrome, long QT syndrome (LQTS), short QT syndrome (SQTS), and catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachyarrhythmias (CPVT). , Catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (CPVT) is a familial cardiac arrhythmia that is related to RYR2 or CASQ2 gene mutation. It occurs in patients with structurally normal heart and causes exercise-emotion-triggered syncope and sudden cardiac death., Potentially lethal ion channel disorders (channelopathies) such as the long QT syndromes (LQTS), catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (CPVT), Aberrant spontaneous, diastolic Ca2+ leak from the SR due to dysfunctional RyR2 contributes to the formation of delayed after-depolarisations, which are thought to underlie the fatal arrhythmia that occurs in both heart failure (HF) and in catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (CPVT). , Catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (CPVT) is an uncommon heritable disease presenting with syncope or sudden cardiac death., Mutations in RyR2 have been linked to exercise-induced sudden cardiac death (catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia [CPVT])., Catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (CPVT) is a heritable arrhythmia unmasked by exertion or stress, characterized by triggered activity and sudden cardiac death in affected patients., families that exhibit CPVT (catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia), a condition in which physical or emotional stress can trigger severe tachyarrhythmias that can lead to sudden cardiac death., that often leads to sudden death in HF and in CPVT., Catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (CPVT) is an inherited disease characterized by adrenergically mediated polymorphic ventricular tachycardia leading to syncope and sudden cardiac death., Catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (CPVT) is an autosomal dominant inherited disorder characterized by adrenergic induced polymorphic ventricular tachycardias and associated with sudden cardiac death. , These data suggest that \"leaky\" RyR2 channels can trigger fatal cardiac arrhythmias, providing a possible explanation for CPVT., Catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (CPVT) is a rare arrhythmogenic disorder characterized by syncopal events and sudden cardiac death at a young age during physical stress or emotion, in the absence of structural heart disease. , catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (CPVT), idiopathic ventricular fibrillation (VF), and arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy (ARVC) account for a relevant proportion of sudden cardiac death cases in young patients cohorts. , has recently been shown to be involved in at least two forms of sudden cardiac death (SCD): (1) Catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (CPVT) [SEP]Relations: catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia has relations: disease_phenotype_positive with Sudden cardiac death, disease_phenotype_positive with Sudden cardiac death, disease_phenotype_positive with Sudden death, disease_phenotype_positive with Sudden death, disease_phenotype_positive with Cardiac arrest, disease_phenotype_positive with Cardiac arrest, disease_phenotype_positive with Prolonged QT interval, disease_phenotype_positive with Prolonged QT interval. Sudden cardiac death has relations: disease_phenotype_positive with catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia, disease_phenotype_positive with catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia. Definitions: BrS defined as following: A scale developed by Smith, et al, designed to assess an individual's ability to recover from stressful circumstances.. cardiac abnormalities defined as following: Developmental abnormalities involving structures of the heart. These defects are present at birth but may be discovered later in life.. calcium defined as following: A dietary supplement containing the mineral calcium.. gene mutations defined as following: The result of any gain, loss or alteration of the sequences comprising a gene, including all sequences transcribed into RNA.. SCD defined as following: Schnyder corneal dystrophy (SCD) is a rare form of stromal corneal dystrophy (see this term) characterized by corneal clouding or crystals within the corneal stroma, and a progressive decrease in visual acuity.. cardiac arrhythmia defined as following: Any disturbances of the normal rhythmic beating of the heart or MYOCARDIAL CONTRACTION. Cardiac arrhythmias can be classified by the abnormalities in HEART RATE, disorders of electrical impulse generation, or impulse conduction.. catecholamines defined as following: A general class of ortho-dihydroxyphenylalkylamines derived from TYROSINE.. ventricular arrhythmias defined as following: A disorder characterized by an electrocardiographic finding of an atypical cardiac rhythm resulting from a pathologic process in the cardiac ventricles.. heart failure defined as following: Heart failure accompanied by EDEMA, such as swelling of the legs and ankles and congestion in the lungs.. disease defined as following: A definite pathologic process with a characteristic set of signs and symptoms. It may affect the whole body or any of its parts, and its etiology, pathology, and prognosis may be known or unknown.. HF defined as following: Abnormal accumulation of serous fluid in two or more fetal compartments, such as SKIN; PLEURA; PERICARDIUM; PLACENTA; PERITONEUM; AMNIOTIC FLUID. General fetal EDEMA may be of non-immunologic origin, or of immunologic origin as in the case of ERYTHROBLASTOSIS FETALIS.. CPVT defined as following: An electrocardiographic finding of ventricular tachycardia that is associated with syncope and/or cardiac arrest triggered by emotion or exercise in patients whose baseline ECG is normal. (ACC). heart disease defined as following: Pathological conditions involving the HEART including its structural and functional abnormalities.. sudden cardiac death defined as following: Unexpected rapid natural death due to cardiovascular collapse within one hour of initial symptoms. It is usually caused by the worsening of existing heart diseases. The sudden onset of symptoms, such as CHEST PAIN and CARDIAC ARRHYTHMIAS, particularly VENTRICULAR TACHYCARDIA, can lead to the loss of consciousness and cardiac arrest followed by biological death. (from Braunwald's Heart Disease: A Textbook of Cardiovascular Medicine, 7th ed., 2005). polymorphic defined as following: The quality or state of being able to assume different forms.. SQTS defined as following: Ventricular tachyarrhythmias occurring in association with short QT syndrome.. arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy defined as following: A congenital cardiomyopathy that is characterized by infiltration of adipose and fibrous tissue into the RIGHT VENTRICLE wall and loss of myocardial cells. Primary injuries usually are at the free wall of right ventricular and right atria resulting in ventricular and supraventricular arrhythmias.. genes defined as following: A category of nucleic acid sequences that function as units of heredity and which code for the basic instructions for the development, reproduction, and maintenance of organisms.. long QT syndrome defined as following: A condition that is characterized by episodes of fainting (SYNCOPE) and varying degree of ventricular arrhythmia as indicated by the prolonged QT interval. The inherited forms are caused by mutation of genes encoding cardiac ion channel proteins. The two major forms are ROMANO-WARD SYNDROME and JERVELL-LANGE NIELSEN SYNDROME.. ventricular tachycardia defined as following: An electrocardiographic finding of three or more consecutive complexes of ventricular organ with a rate greater than a certain threshold (100 or 120 beats per minute are commonly used). The QRS complexes are wide and have an abnormal morphology. (CDISC). ventricular fibrillation defined as following: An electrocardiographic finding of a rapid grossly irregular ventricular rhythm with marked variability in QRS cycle length, morphology, and amplitude. The rate is typically greater than 300 bpm. (CDISC). SR defined as following: Human SNCG wild-type allele is located within10q23.2-q23.3 and is approximately 13 kb in length. This allele, which encodes gamma-synuclein protein, plays a role in the modulation of axonal architecture and neurofilament integrity. This gene is highly expessed in advanced breast carcinomas, suggesting a correlation between SNCG overexpression and breast tumor development.. Brugada Syndrome defined as following: An autosomal dominant defect of cardiac conduction that is characterized by an abnormal ST-segment in leads V1-V3 on the ELECTROCARDIOGRAM resembling a right BUNDLE-BRANCH BLOCK; high risk of VENTRICULAR TACHYCARDIA; or VENTRICULAR FIBRILLATION; SYNCOPAL EPISODE; and possible sudden death. This syndrome is linked to mutations of gene encoding the cardiac SODIUM CHANNEL alpha subunit.. modification defined as following:

Respond with exceptions, completions and modifications or revisions done before completion

. adrenergic defined as following: Drugs that act on adrenergic receptors or affect the life cycle of adrenergic transmitters. Included here are adrenergic agonists and antagonists and agents that affect the synthesis, storage, uptake, metabolism, or release of adrenergic transmitters.. sudden cardiac arrest defined as following: Sudden suspension of cardiac activity that is usually due to ARRHYTHMIA, in contrast to heart attack (MYOCARDIAL INFARCTION) which occurs due to blockage. The sudden suspension of cardiac activity generally requires RESUSCITATION.. gene mutation defined as following: A change in the nucleotide sequence of the TAF1 gene.. cardiac channelopathy defined as following: A disorder that affects the myocardial ion channels, altering the electrical properties of the heart and changing the ECG and/or predisposing the subject to pro-arrhythmic events.. channelopathies defined as following: A variety of neuromuscular conditions resulting from MUTATIONS in ION CHANNELS manifesting as episodes of EPILEPSY; HEADACHE DISORDERS; and DYSKINESIAS.. ventricular tachycardias defined as following: An abnormally rapid ventricular rhythm usually in excess of 150 beats per minute. It is generated within the ventricle below the BUNDLE OF HIS, either as autonomic impulse formation or reentrant impulse conduction. Depending on the etiology, onset of ventricular tachycardia can be paroxysmal (sudden) or nonparoxysmal, its wide QRS complexes can be uniform or polymorphic, and the ventricular beating may be independent of the atrial beating (AV dissociation).. channel defined as following: An independent acquisition scheme, i.e., a route or conduit through which flows data consisting of one particular measurement using one particular parameter.. LQTS defined as following: A rare group of genetic, cardiac rhythm diseases characterized by a prolongation of the QT interval at basal electrocardiography (ECG) and by a high risk of life-threatening arrhythmias.. Ventricular Tachycardia defined as following: An electrocardiographic finding of three or more consecutive complexes of ventricular organ with a rate greater than a certain threshold (100 or 120 beats per minute are commonly used). The QRS complexes are wide and have an abnormal morphology. (CDISC).", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_297", "sentence1": "Are cyclophilins proteins that bind to prolines?", "sentence2": "Cyclophilins are ubiquitously expressed proteins that bind to prolines and can catalyse cis/trans isomerization of proline residues., a characteristic of the cyclophilin family of proteins that bind prolines and often act as cis-trans peptidyl-prolyl isomerases. , The cyclophilins are widely expressed enzymes that catalyze the interconversion of the cis and trans peptide bonds of prolines. , an immunophilin on the isomerization of critical prolines that are found in the tCHT1 sequence.[SEP]Relations: Protein S human has relations: drug_protein with PROC, drug_protein with PROC, drug_drug with Proglumetacin, drug_drug with Proglumetacin, drug_drug with Procarbazine, drug_drug with Procarbazine, drug_drug with Doxycycline, drug_drug with Doxycycline, drug_drug with Progesterone, drug_drug with Progesterone. Definitions: proteins defined as following: Linear POLYPEPTIDES that are synthesized on RIBOSOMES and may be further modified, crosslinked, cleaved, or assembled into complex proteins with several subunits. The specific sequence of AMINO ACIDS determines the shape the polypeptide will take, during PROTEIN FOLDING, and the function of the protein.. immunophilin defined as following: An enzyme that catalyzes the isomerization of proline residues within proteins. EC 5.2.1.8.. Cyclophilins defined as following: A family of peptidyl-prolyl cis-trans isomerases that bind to CYCLOSPORINS and regulate the IMMUNE SYSTEM. EC 5.2.1.-. cis defined as following: Cytokine-inducible SH2-containing protein (258 aa, ~29 kDa) is encoded by the human CISH gene. This protein is involved in the modulation of signal transduction.. cyclophilins defined as following: A family of peptidyl-prolyl cis-trans isomerases that bind to CYCLOSPORINS and regulate the IMMUNE SYSTEM. EC 5.2.1.-.", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_2617", "sentence1": "Is there a link between nuclear position and DNA repair pathway choice?", "sentence2": "Nuclear position dictates DNA repair pathway choice., We demonstrate that DSBs induced at the nuclear membrane (but not at nuclear pores or nuclear interior) fail to rapidly activate the DNA damage response (DDR) and repair by homologous recombination (HR). Real-time and superresolution imaging reveal that DNA DSBs within lamina-associated domains do not migrate to more permissive environments for HR, like the nuclear pores or the nuclear interior, but instead are repaired in situ by alternative end-joining. Our results are consistent with a model in which nuclear position dictates the choice of DNA repair pathway, thus revealing a new level of regulation in DSB repair controlled by spatial organization of DNA within the nucleus., Our results are consistent with a model in which nuclear position dictates the choice of DNA repair pathway, thus revealing a new level of regulation in DSB repair controlled by spatial organization of DNA within the nucleus., Nuclear position dictates DNA repair pathway choice., Our results are consistent with a model in which nuclear position dictates the choice of DNA repair pathway, thus revealing a new level of regulation in DSB repair controlled by spatial organization of DNA within the nucleus.[SEP]Relations: nuclear envelope has relations: cellcomp_protein with DNASE1, cellcomp_protein with DNASE1, cellcomp_protein with NRM, cellcomp_protein with NRM, cellcomp_protein with LMNA, cellcomp_protein with LMNA, cellcomp_protein with RAN, cellcomp_protein with RAN, cellcomp_protein with DST, cellcomp_protein with DST. Definitions: nuclear pores defined as following: An opening through the NUCLEAR ENVELOPE formed by the nuclear pore complex which transports nuclear proteins or RNA into or out of the CELL NUCLEUS and which, under some conditions, acts as an ion channel.. nucleus defined as following: Within a eukaryotic cell, a membrane-limited body which contains chromosomes and one or more nucleoli (CELL NUCLEOLUS). The nuclear membrane consists of a double unit-type membrane which is perforated by a number of pores; the outermost membrane is continuous with the ENDOPLASMIC RETICULUM. A cell may contain more than one nucleus. (From Singleton & Sainsbury, Dictionary of Microbiology and Molecular Biology, 2d ed). nuclear membrane defined as following: The membrane system of the CELL NUCLEUS that surrounds the nucleoplasm. It consists of two concentric membranes separated by the perinuclear space. The structures of the envelope where it opens to the cytoplasm are called the nuclear pores (NUCLEAR PORE).. DNA defined as following: A deoxyribonucleotide polymer that is the primary genetic material of all cells. Eukaryotic and prokaryotic organisms normally contain DNA in a double-stranded state, yet several important biological processes transiently involve single-stranded regions. DNA, which consists of a polysugar-phosphate backbone possessing projections of purines (adenine and guanine) and pyrimidines (thymine and cytosine), forms a double helix that is held together by hydrogen bonds between these purines and pyrimidines (adenine to thymine and guanine to cytosine)..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_418", "sentence1": "Is there evidence that tomato juice lowers cholesterol levels?", "sentence2": "The hypocholesterolemic effect of tomato juice has been investigated in an intervention study with rats, along with the possible inhibition effect of bioactive tomato compounds binding to the HMGCR enzyme., The molecular modelling showed that components of tomato can bind to the active site of the enzyme and compete with the ligand HMGCoA. Lycopene, from tomato juice, accumulates in the liver and can inhibit the activity of the rate-limiting enzyme of cholesterol biosynthesis, HMGCR., Juice consumption significantly improved resistance of LDL+VLDL-C to Cu(2+)-mediated oxidation (P = 0.039), HDL-C (47.3 ± 15.8 to 51.7 ± 14.8 mg/dL, P<0.001), and the ratio of total-C/HDL-C (4.25 ± 1.59 to 3.63 ± 1.16, P<0.001) at 8 wk., RESULTS: Intervention with the enriched juice had no effect on the lipid profile, and serum levels of triglycerides and cholesterol (total, LDL, and HDL) remained unchanged. , Women consuming ≥10 compared with<1.5 servings/wk of tomato-based food products had significant but clinically modest improvements in total cholesterol (TC) (5.38 vs. 5.51 mmol/L; P = 0.029), the TC:HDL cholesterol ratio (4.08 vs. 4.22; P = 0.046), and hemoglobin A1c (5.02 vs. 5.13%; P<0.001) in multivariable models. Considering clinical cutpoints, women consuming ≥10 compared with<1.5 servings/wk were 31% (95% CI = 6%, 50%), 40% (95% CI = 13%, 59%), and 66% (95% CI = 20%, 86%) less likely to have elevated TC (≥6.21 mmol/L), LDL cholesterol (≥4.14 mmol/L), and hemoglobin A1c (≥6%), respectively. , In conclusion, women consuming ≥10 compared with<1.5 servings/wk of tomato-based food products had clinically modest but significant improvements in TC, the TC:HDL cholesterol ratio, and hemoglobin A1c but not other coronary biomarkers., Tomato juice decreases LDL cholesterol levels and increases LDL resistance to oxidation., Total cholesterol concentration was reduced by 5.9 (sd 10) % (P = 0.002) and LDL cholesterol concentration by 12.9 (sd 17.0) % (P = 0.0002) with the high tomato diet compared to the low tomato diet., In conclusion, a high dietary intake of tomato products had atheroprotective effects, it significantly reduced LDL cholesterol levels, and increased LDL resistance to oxidation in healthy normocholesterolaemic adults., Total, LDL and HDL cholesterol were significantly lower in the intervention group after the intake of tomato juice, Total cholesterol concentration was reduced by 5.9 (sd 10) % (P = 0.002) and LDL cholesterol concentration by 12.9 (sd 17.0) % (P = 0.0002) with the high tomato diet compared to the low tomato diet. [SEP]Relations: Cholesterol has relations: drug_drug with Folic acid, drug_drug with Folic acid, drug_drug with Riluzole, drug_drug with Riluzole, drug_drug with Testosterone cypionate, drug_drug with Testosterone cypionate, drug_drug with Topotecan, drug_drug with Topotecan, drug_drug with Rimegepant, drug_drug with Rimegepant. Definitions: HMGCR defined as following: 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl-coenzyme A reductase (888 aa, ~97 kDa) is encoded by the human HMGCR gene. This protein is involved in cholesterol synthesis.. triglycerides defined as following: An ester formed from GLYCEROL and three fatty acid groups.. LDL defined as following: A class of lipoproteins of small size (18-25 nm) and light (1.019-1.063 g/ml) particles with a core composed mainly of CHOLESTEROL ESTERS and smaller amounts of TRIGLYCERIDES. The surface monolayer consists mostly of PHOSPHOLIPIDS, a single copy of APOLIPOPROTEIN B-100, and free cholesterol molecules. The main LDL function is to transport cholesterol and cholesterol esters to extrahepatic tissues.. tomato defined as following: A plant species of the family SOLANACEAE, native of South America, widely cultivated for their edible, fleshy, usually red fruit.. rats defined as following: The common rat, Rattus norvegicus, often used as an experimental organism.. LDL cholesterol defined as following: Cholesterol which is contained in or bound to low density lipoproteins (LDL), including CHOLESTEROL ESTERS and free cholesterol.. HDL defined as following: A class of lipoproteins of small size (4-13 nm) and dense (greater than 1.063 g/ml) particles. HDL lipoproteins, synthesized in the liver without a lipid core, accumulate cholesterol esters from peripheral tissues and transport them to the liver for re-utilization or elimination from the body (the reverse cholesterol transport). Their major protein component is APOLIPOPROTEIN A-I. HDL also shuttle APOLIPOPROTEINS C and APOLIPOPROTEINS E to and from triglyceride-rich lipoproteins during their catabolism. HDL plasma level has been inversely correlated with the risk of cardiovascular diseases.. hemoglobin A1c defined as following: Products of non-enzymatic reactions between GLUCOSE and HEMOGLOBIN A, occurring as a minor fraction of the hemoglobin components of human erythrocytes. Hemoglobin A1c is hemoglobin A with glucose covalently bound to the terminal VALINE of the beta chain. Glycated hemoglobin A is used as an index of the average blood sugar level over a lifetime of erythrocytes.. cholesterol defined as following: The principal sterol of all higher animals, distributed in body tissues, especially the brain and spinal cord, and in animal fats and oils.. active site defined as following: The catalytic site of an enzyme, the part of an enzyme where the actual enzymatic function is performed.. HDL cholesterol defined as following: Cholesterol which is contained in or bound to high-density lipoproteins (HDL), including CHOLESTEROL ESTERS and free cholesterol.. TC defined as following: Human CD55 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 1q32 and is approximately 40 kb in length. This allele, which encodes complement decay-accelerating factor protein, is involved in the modulation of complement activity..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_1228", "sentence1": "Is Rheumatoid Arthritis related to myopathy?", "sentence2": "Prevalence of risk factors for statin-induced myopathy in rheumatoid arthritis patients, we describe a patient with rheumatoid arthritis and respiratory failure associated with proximal myopathy secondary to HCQ, Occurrence of chloroquine-induced myopathy after low-dose treatment of rheumatoid arthritis for seven years, a 75 year old female with rheumatoid arthritis treated with daily doses of 250 mg of chloroquine for four years. The patient visited because of several months history of predominantly proximal progressive tetraparesis with areflexia, Myopathy and neuropathy in rheumatoid arthritis, with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) have clinical or subclinical evidence of peripheral neuropathy or myopathy, The study reveals an increased prevalence of neurogenic but not myogenic changes in patients with RA compared with controls[SEP]Relations: Rheumatoid arthritis has relations: phenotype_phenotype with Arthritis, phenotype_phenotype with Arthritis, disease_phenotype_positive with rheumatoid arthritis, disease_phenotype_positive with rheumatoid arthritis, drug_effect with Acamprosate, drug_effect with Acamprosate, disease_phenotype_positive with dystonia, disease_phenotype_positive with dystonia, phenotype_phenotype with Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis, phenotype_phenotype with Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis. Definitions: peripheral neuropathy defined as following: Diseases of the peripheral nerves external to the brain and spinal cord, which includes diseases of the nerve roots, ganglia, plexi, autonomic nerves, sensory nerves, and motor nerves.. rheumatoid arthritis defined as following: A chronic systemic disease, primarily of the joints, marked by inflammatory changes in the synovial membranes and articular structures, widespread fibrinoid degeneration of the collagen fibers in mesenchymal tissues, and by atrophy and rarefaction of bony structures. Etiology is unknown, but autoimmune mechanisms have been implicated.. chloroquine defined as following: The prototypical antimalarial agent with a mechanism that is not well understood. It has also been used to treat rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, and in the systemic therapy of amebic liver abscesses.. myopathy defined as following: Acquired, familial, and congenital disorders of SKELETAL MUSCLE and SMOOTH MUSCLE.. low-dose defined as following: A reduced quantity of a therapeutic agent prescribed to be taken at one time or at stated intervals.. tetraparesis defined as following: Weakness of all four limbs. [HPO:probinson]. HCQ defined as following: A chemotherapeutic agent that acts against erythrocytic forms of malarial parasites. Hydroxychloroquine appears to concentrate in food vacuoles of affected protozoa. It inhibits plasmodial heme polymerase. (From Gilman et al., Goodman and Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 9th ed, p970). areflexia defined as following: A finding indicating the complete absence of neurological reflexes.. respiratory failure defined as following: The significant impairment of gas exchange within the lungs resulting in hypoxia, hypercarbia, or both, to the extent that organ tissue perfusion is severely compromised. Causes include chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, asthma, emphysema, acute respiratory distress syndrome, pneumonia, pulmonary edema, pneumothorax, and congestive heart failure. Treatment requires intubation and mechanical ventilation until the time the lungs recover sufficient function.. neuropathy defined as following: A disorder affecting the cranial nerves or the peripheral nervous system. It manifests with pain, tingling, numbness, and muscle weakness. It may be the result of physical injury, toxic substances, viral diseases, diabetes, renal failure, cancer, and drugs.. Rheumatoid Arthritis defined as following: A chronic systemic disease, primarily of the joints, marked by inflammatory changes in the synovial membranes and articular structures, widespread fibrinoid degeneration of the collagen fibers in mesenchymal tissues, and by atrophy and rarefaction of bony structures. Etiology is unknown, but autoimmune mechanisms have been implicated..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_1564", "sentence1": "Are adenylyl cyclases always transmembrane proteins?", "sentence2": "ransmembrane adenylyl cyclase, Transmembrane adenylyl cyclase (tmAC) and soluble AC (sAC) , Soluble adenylyl cyclase (sAC) is a recently recognized source of the signaling molecule cyclic AMP (cAMP) that is genetically and biochemically distinct from the classic G-protein-regulated transmembrane adenylyl cyclases (tmACs)., Soluble adenylyl cyclase , transmembrane adenylyl cyclases (tmACs), and soluble adenylyl cyclase (sAC). , Here, we showed that both transmembrane AC (tmAC) and soluble AC (sAC) are distinctly involved in the regulation of sperm motility in the ascidian Ciona intestinalis. , cAMP production in beta cells is mediated not simply by transmembrane adenylyl cyclases (TMACs), but also by sAC., In contrast to tmAC, sAC produces cAMP in various intracellular microdomains close to specific cAMP targets, e.g., in nucleus and mitochondria, soluble adenylyl cyclase (sAC, ADCY10), the ubiquitous, non-transmembrane adenylyl cyclase, was found to play a key role in neuronal survival and axon growth., Central role of soluble adenylyl cyclase[SEP]Relations: mitochondrion has relations: cellcomp_protein with ACADS, cellcomp_protein with ACADS, cellcomp_protein with ACSL1, cellcomp_protein with ACSL1, cellcomp_protein with ACADSB, cellcomp_protein with ACADSB, cellcomp_protein with CYRIB, cellcomp_protein with CYRIB, cellcomp_protein with ACACB, cellcomp_protein with ACACB. Definitions: sAC defined as following: A signaling process that delays the metaphase/anaphase transition until the spindle is correctly assembled and chromosomes are attached to the spindle. [GOC:mah]. nucleus defined as following: Within a eukaryotic cell, a membrane-limited body which contains chromosomes and one or more nucleoli (CELL NUCLEOLUS). The nuclear membrane consists of a double unit-type membrane which is perforated by a number of pores; the outermost membrane is continuous with the ENDOPLASMIC RETICULUM. A cell may contain more than one nucleus. (From Singleton & Sainsbury, Dictionary of Microbiology and Molecular Biology, 2d ed). mitochondria defined as following: Semiautonomous, self-reproducing organelles that occur in the cytoplasm of all cells of most, but not all, eukaryotes. Each mitochondrion is surrounded by a double limiting membrane. The inner membrane is highly invaginated, and its projections are called cristae. Mitochondria are the sites of the reactions of oxidative phosphorylation, which result in the formation of ATP. They contain distinctive RIBOSOMES, transfer RNAs (RNA, TRANSFER); AMINO ACYL T RNA SYNTHETASES; and elongation and termination factors. Mitochondria depend upon genes within the nucleus of the cells in which they reside for many essential messenger RNAs (RNA, MESSENGER). Mitochondria are believed to have arisen from aerobic bacteria that established a symbiotic relationship with primitive protoeukaryotes. (King & Stansfield, A Dictionary of Genetics, 4th ed). cAMP defined as following: A chemotherapy regimen consisting of cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin, methotrexate, and procarbazine that may be used in the treatment of non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC).. Ciona intestinalis defined as following: Vase or tube shaped TUNICATES with a cosmopolitan distribution.. adenylyl cyclases defined as following: Enzymes of the lyase class that catalyze the formation of CYCLIC AMP and pyrophosphate from ATP..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_2007", "sentence1": "Is the mouse Sry gene locus free of repetitive sequences?", "sentence2": "We demonstrate that the presence of long inverted repeats (IR) flanking the mouse Sry gene leads to the formation of the Sry circular transcript in cultured cells, Circularization requires the presence of both IR. As few as 400 complementary nt are necessary for this process, The presence of the IR does not significantly stimulate intermolecular annealing and trans-splicing in vivo, We have found that in an in vitro assay, the SRY protein binds to several sites of the Sry gene and especially to a (CA)25 sequence and to a (CAG)30 repeat, The Q-rich domain of the mouse sex determining gene, Sry, is encoded by an in-frame insertion of a repetitive sequence composed of mostly CAG repeats., Inverted repeat structure of the Sry locus in mice., We performed separate amplifications of DXZ4 repetitive satellite sequences on the X chromosome, and SRY gene - testis determined factor on the Y chromosome, using nested PCR, Detailed analysis of the Sry genomic locus reveals a further difference in that the mouse Sry open reading frame lies within 2.8 kilobases of unique sequence at the center of a large inverted repeat. , Detailed analysis of the Sry genomic locus reveals a further difference in that the mouse Sry open reading frame lies within 2.8 kilobases of unique sequence at the center of a large inverted repeat., The mouse genomic Sry locus is characterized by two arms of a large inverted repeat, flanking a unique region that, between an acceptor and a donor splice site, contains a single exon encoding the Sry protein., Recombination involving the repeat region may have led to an 11-kilobase deletion, precisely excising Sry in a line of XY female mice., Repetitive element analysis revealed numerous LINE-L1 elements at regions where conservation is lost among the Sry copies., Inverted repeat structure of the Sry locus in mice.[SEP]Relations: mRNA splice site selection has relations: bioprocess_protein with SRSF6, bioprocess_protein with SRSF6, bioprocess_protein with SRSF1, bioprocess_protein with SRSF1, bioprocess_protein with SRSF9, bioprocess_protein with SRSF9, bioprocess_protein with SRSF5, bioprocess_protein with SRSF5, bioprocess_protein with SRSF10, bioprocess_protein with SRSF10. Definitions: gene defined as following: A category of nucleic acid sequences that function as units of heredity and which code for the basic instructions for the development, reproduction, and maintenance of organisms.. Sry gene defined as following: The primary testis-determining gene in mammalians, located on the Y CHROMOSOME. It codes for a high mobility group box transcription factor (TRANSCRIPTION FACTORS) which initiates the development of the TESTES from the embryonic GONADS.. exon defined as following: The parts of a transcript of a split GENE remaining after the INTRONS are removed. They are spliced together to become a MESSENGER RNA or other functional RNA.. cultured cells defined as following: Cells propagated in vitro in special media conducive to their growth. Cultured cells are used to study developmental, morphologic, metabolic, physiologic, and genetic processes, among others.. repeat defined as following: Something occurring more than once.. conservation defined as following: The maintenance of certain characteristics in an unchanged condition.. Sry defined as following: Sex-determining region Y protein (204 aa, ~24 kDa) is encoded by the human SRY gene. This protein is involved in sex determination and transcriptional regulation.. IR defined as following: A lymphoma response that cannot be distinguished between flare/pseudo-progression and true progressive disease.. region defined as following: The continents and countries situated on those continents; the UNITED STATES and each of the constituent states arranged by region; CANADA and each of its provinces; AUSTRALIA and each of its states; the major bodies of water and major islands on both hemispheres; and selected major cities.. repetitive sequence defined as following: Nucleotide sequences present in multiple copies in the genome. There are several types of repeated sequences. Interspersed (or dispersed) DNA repeats (Interspersed Repetitive Sequences) are copies of transposable elements interspersed throughout the genome. Flanking (or terminal) repeats (Terminal Repeat Sequences) are sequences that are repeated on both ends of a sequence, for example, the long terminal repeats (LTRs) on retroviruses. Direct terminal repeats are in the same direction and inverted terminal repeats are opposite to each other in direction. Tandem repeats (Tandem Repeat Sequences) are repeated copies which lie adjacent to each other. These can also be direct or inverted. The ribosomal RNA and transfer RNA genes belong to the class of middle repetitive DNA.. Y chromosome defined as following: The male sex chromosome, being the differential sex chromosome carried by half the male gametes and none of the female gametes in humans and in some other male-heterogametic species in which the homologue of the X chromosome has been retained.. X chromosome defined as following: The female sex chromosome, being the differential sex chromosome carried by half the male gametes and all female gametes in human and other male-heterogametic species.. repetitive sequences defined as following: Nucleotide sequences present in multiple copies in the genome. There are several types of repeated sequences. Interspersed (or dispersed) DNA repeats (Interspersed Repetitive Sequences) are copies of transposable elements interspersed throughout the genome. Flanking (or terminal) repeats (Terminal Repeat Sequences) are sequences that are repeated on both ends of a sequence, for example, the long terminal repeats (LTRs) on retroviruses. Direct terminal repeats are in the same direction and inverted terminal repeats are opposite to each other in direction. Tandem repeats (Tandem Repeat Sequences) are repeated copies which lie adjacent to each other. These can also be direct or inverted. The ribosomal RNA and transfer RNA genes belong to the class of middle repetitive DNA..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_1294", "sentence1": "Are optogenetics tools used in the study and treatment of epilepsy?", "sentence2": "The emerging revolutionary technique of optogenetics enables manipulation of the activity of specific neuronal populations in vivo with exquisite spatiotemporal resolution using light. We used optogenetic approaches to test the role of hippocampal excitatory neurons in the lithium-pilocarpine model of acute elicited seizures in awake behaving rats., This chapter focuses on the development of optogenetics and on-demand technologies for the study of epilepsy and the control of seizures., We then turn to the use of optogenetics, including on-demand optogenetics in the study of epilepsies, which highlights the powerful potential of optogenetics for epilepsy research., Optogenetic techniques provide powerful tools for bidirectional control of neuronal activity and investigating alterations occurring in excitability disorders, such as epilepsy., Therefore, one could optogenetically activate specific or a mixed population of interneurons and dissect their selective or concerted inhibitory action on principal cells. We chose to explore a conceptually novel strategy involving simultaneous activation of mixed populations of interneurons by optogenetics and study their impact on ongoing epileptiform activity in mouse acute hippocampal slices., Our data suggest that global optogenetic activation of mixed interneuron populations is a more effective approach for development of novel therapeutic strategies for epilepsy, but the initial action potential generation in principal neurons needs to be taken in consideration., Recently, a number of experiments have explored the treatments for epilepsy with optogenetic control of neurons. Here, we discuss the possibility that an optogenetic approach could be used to control the release of gliotransmitters and improve astrocyte function such as glutamate and K(+) uptake, and thereby offer a potential strategy to investigate and treat astrocyte-related epilepsy., Optogenetic and designer receptor technologies provide unprecedented and much needed specificity, allowing for spatial, temporal and cell type-selective modulation of neuronal circuits. Using such tools, it is now possible to begin to address some of the fundamental unanswered questions in epilepsy, to dissect epileptic neuronal circuits and to develop new intervention strategies. , We then turn to the use of optogenetics, including on-demand optogenetics in the study of epilepsies, which highlights the powerful potential of optogenetics for epilepsy research., Moreover, optogenetics may be considered for developing potential treatment strategies for brain diseases, particularly for excitability disorders such as epilepsy., This chapter focuses on the development of optogenetics and on-demand technologies for the study of epilepsy and the control of seizures., How might novel technologies such as optogenetics lead to better treatments in epilepsy?, WONOEP appraisal: optogenetic tools to suppress seizures and explore the mechanisms of epileptogenesis., Finally, optogenetic tools allow rapid and reversible suppression of epileptic electroencephalography (EEG) activity upon photoactivation., Our data suggest that epileptiform activity in the hippocampus caused by impaired inhibition may be controlled by optogenetic silencing of principal neurons and potentially can be developed as an alternative treatment for epilepsy., Seizure suppression by high frequency optogenetic stimulation using in vitro and in vivo animal models of epilepsy., Optogenetic techniques provide powerful tools for bidirectional control of neuronal activity and investigating alterations occurring in excitability disorders, such as epilepsy. , We first discuss the benefits and caveats to using optogenetic approaches and recent advances in optogenetics related tools. We then turn to the use of optogenetics, including on-demand optogenetics in the study of epilepsies, which highlights the powerful potential of optogenetics for epilepsy research.[SEP]Relations: epilepsy has relations: contraindication with Edetic acid, contraindication with Edetic acid, contraindication with Olanzapine, contraindication with Olanzapine, contraindication with Ergometrine, contraindication with Ergometrine, contraindication with Atomoxetine, contraindication with Atomoxetine, contraindication with Physostigmine, contraindication with Physostigmine. Definitions: interneurons defined as following: Most generally any NEURONS which are not motor or sensory. Interneurons may also refer to neurons whose AXONS remain within a particular brain region in contrast to projection neurons, which have axons projecting to other brain regions.. seizures defined as following: Clinical or subclinical disturbances of cortical function due to a sudden, abnormal, excessive, and disorganized discharge of brain cells. Clinical manifestations include abnormal motor, sensory and psychic phenomena. Recurrent seizures are usually referred to as EPILEPSY or \"seizure disorder.\". neurons defined as following: The basic cellular units of nervous tissue. Each neuron consists of a body, an axon, and dendrites. Their purpose is to receive, conduct, and transmit impulses in the NERVOUS SYSTEM.. rats defined as following: The common rat, Rattus norvegicus, often used as an experimental organism.. epilepsies defined as following: A disorder characterized by recurrent episodes of paroxysmal brain dysfunction due to a sudden, disorderly, and excessive neuronal discharge. Epilepsy classification systems are generally based upon: (1) clinical features of the seizure episodes (e.g., motor seizure), (2) etiology (e.g., post-traumatic), (3) anatomic site of seizure origin (e.g., frontal lobe seizure), (4) tendency to spread to other structures in the brain, and (5) temporal patterns (e.g., nocturnal epilepsy). (From Adams et al., Principles of Neurology, 6th ed, p313). Optogenetic defined as following: The combination of genetic and optical methods in controlling specific events with temporal precision in targeted cells of a functioning intact biological system.. epilepsy defined as following: A disorder characterized by recurrent episodes of paroxysmal brain dysfunction due to a sudden, disorderly, and excessive neuronal discharge. Epilepsy classification systems are generally based upon: (1) clinical features of the seizure episodes (e.g., motor seizure), (2) etiology (e.g., post-traumatic), (3) anatomic site of seizure origin (e.g., frontal lobe seizure), (4) tendency to spread to other structures in the brain, and (5) temporal patterns (e.g., nocturnal epilepsy). (From Adams et al., Principles of Neurology, 6th ed, p313).", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_4178", "sentence1": "Do bacteria release extracellular vesicles?", "sentence2": "Bacterial extracellular vesicles (EVs) are bilayered lipid membrane structures, bearing integral proteins and able to carry diverse cargo outside the cell to distant sites., Knowledge of the structure, molecular cargo and function of bacterial extracellular vesicles (BEVs) is primarily obtained from bacteria cultured in laboratory conditions. , bacteria derived-extracellular vesicles[SEP]Relations: membrane lipid metabolic process has relations: bioprocess_protein with AGMO, bioprocess_protein with AGMO, bioprocess_bioprocess with sphingolipid metabolic process, bioprocess_bioprocess with sphingolipid metabolic process, bioprocess_protein with B4GALT4, bioprocess_protein with B4GALT4, bioprocess_bioprocess with glycolipid metabolic process, bioprocess_bioprocess with glycolipid metabolic process. Bacteremia has relations: disease_phenotype_positive with staphylococcal pneumonia, disease_phenotype_positive with staphylococcal pneumonia. Definitions: EVs defined as following: The NCI EVS is set of services and resources that address NCI's needs for controlled vocabulary. The EVS Project is a collaborative effort of the Center for Bioinformatics and the NCI Office of Communications. The NCI Thesaurus, which is a biomedical thesaurus created specifically to meet the needs of the NCI, is produced by the NCI EVS project. The NCI Thesaurus is provided under an open content license. The EVS Project also produces the NCI Metathesaurus, which is based on NLM's Unified Medical Language System Metathesaurus supplemented with additional cancer-centric vocabulary. In addition the EVS Project provides NCI with licenses for MedDRA, SNOMED, ICD-O-3, and other proprietary vocabularies.. bacterial extracellular vesicles defined as following: Small membrane vesicle (< 1 um) that buds off a prokaryotic cell plasma membrane, able to carry proteins, phospholipids, lipopolysaccharides, nucleic acids, viruses, and more. Important in intercellular communication and pathogenesis; can exist within host cells. [GOC:aa, PMID:25704309]. lipid membrane defined as following: Lipids, predominantly phospholipids, cholesterol and small amounts of glycolipids found in membranes including cellular and intracellular membranes. These lipids may be arranged in bilayers in the membranes with integral proteins between the layers and peripheral proteins attached to the outside. Membrane lipids are required for active transport, several enzymatic activities and membrane formation.. bacteria defined as following: One of the three domains of life (the others being Eukarya and ARCHAEA), also called Eubacteria. They are unicellular prokaryotic microorganisms which generally possess rigid cell walls, multiply by cell division, and exhibit three principal forms: round or coccal, rodlike or bacillary, and spiral or spirochetal. Bacteria can be classified by their response to OXYGEN: aerobic, anaerobic, or facultatively anaerobic; by the mode by which they obtain their energy: chemotrophy (via chemical reaction) or PHOTOTROPHY (via light reaction); for chemotrophs by their source of chemical energy: CHEMOLITHOTROPHY (from inorganic compounds) or chemoorganotrophy (from organic compounds); and by their source for CARBON; NITROGEN; etc.; HETEROTROPHY (from organic sources) or AUTOTROPHY (from CARBON DIOXIDE). They can also be classified by whether or not they stain (based on the structure of their CELL WALLS) with CRYSTAL VIOLET dye: gram-negative or gram-positive.. extracellular vesicles defined as following: Any vesicle that is part of the extracellular region. [GO_REF:0000064, GOC:pm, GOC:TermGenie, PMID:24769233].", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_878", "sentence1": "Is dichlorphenamide effective for periodic paralysis?", "sentence2": "BACKGROUND AND PURPOSE: Acetazolamide and dichlorphenamide are carbonic anhydrase (CA) inhibitors effective in the clinical condition of hypokalemic periodic paralysis (hypoPP)., In one study dichlorphenamide (DCP) vs placebo was tested in two groups of participants: 42 with hypokalemic periodic paralysis (HypoPP) and 31 with hyperkalemic periodic paralysis (HyperPP), based on clinical criteria. Thirty-four of 42 participants with hypokalemic periodic paralysis completed both treatment phases. For the 34 participants having attack rate data for both treatment phases, the mean improvement in attack rate (P = 0.02) and severity-weighted attack rate (P = 0.01) on DCP relative to placebo were statistically significant. , AUTHORS' CONCLUSIONS: The largest included study that met our inclusion criteria suggested that DCP was effective in the prevention of episodic weakness in both hypokalemic and hyperkalemic periodic paralyses., For periodic paralysis, dichlorphenamide--a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor--has been shown in a controlled trial to prevent attacks for many patients with both hypokalemic and hypokalemic periodic paralysis. , Chronically, acetazolamide, dichlorphenamide, or potassium-sparing diuretics decrease attack frequency and severity but are of little value acutely. , In the HypoPP trial, there were 13 subjects who exhibited a preference (in terms of the end point) for either DCP or placebo, and 11 of these preferred DCP. In the PSPP trial, DCP significantly reduced attack rates relative to placebo. DCP also significantly reduced attack rates relative to placebo in the HypoPP subjects. We conclude that DCP is effective in the prevention of episodic weakness in both HypoPP and PSPP., Diclofenamid has now already been administered for 2 years. It is well tolerated and has suppressed further attacks., Three patients with Hypokalemic Periodic Paralysis (HOPP)-associated progressive interattack muscle weakness, who became unresponsive or worsened by acetazolamide, responded favorably to dichlorophenamide, a more potent carbonic anhydrase inhibitor. Dichlorophenamide in single-blind placebo-controlled trials, considerably improved functional strength in two of the patients and had a moderate but definite effect in the third., Dichlorophenamide should be considered as an alternate to acetazolamide in the treatment of patients with HOPP-associated interattack muscle weakness who have become unresponsive or worsened by acetazolamide., Acetazolamide and dichlorphenamide are carbonic anhydrase (CA) inhibitors effective in the clinical condition of hypokalemic periodic paralysis (hypoPP)., For periodic paralysis, dichlorphenamide--a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor--has been shown in a controlled trial to prevent attacks for many patients with both hypokalemic and hypokalemic periodic paralysis., BACKGROUND AND PURPOSE: Acetazolamide and dichlorphenamide are carbonic anhydrase (CA) inhibitors effective in the clinical condition of hypokalemic periodic paralysis (hypoPP). Whether these drugs prevent vacuolar myopathy, which is a pathogenic factor in hypoPP, is unknown. , Acetazolamide and dichlorphenamide are carbonic anhydrase (CA) inhibitors effective in the clinical condition of hypokalemic periodic paralysis (hypoPP)., For periodic paralysis, dichlorphenamide--a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor--has been shown in a controlled trial to prevent attacks for many patients with both hypokalemic and hypokalemic periodic paralysis. A second trial, comparing dichlorphenamide with acetazolamide versus placebo, is currently in progress., Despite our better understanding of the pathogenesis of these disorders, current treatments are largely empirical and the evidence in favor of specific therapy largely anecdotal. For periodic paralysis, dichlorphenamide--a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor--has been shown in a controlled trial to prevent attacks for many patients with both hypokalemic and hypokalemic periodic paralysis.[SEP]Relations: hypokalemic periodic paralysis has relations: contraindication with Desflurane, contraindication with Desflurane. hyperkalemic periodic paralysis has relations: contraindication with Phenylephrine, contraindication with Phenylephrine, contraindication with Ammonium chloride, contraindication with Ammonium chloride, contraindication with Sodium citrate, contraindication with Sodium citrate, contraindication with Calcium chloride, contraindication with Calcium chloride. Definitions: Acetazolamide defined as following: One of the CARBONIC ANHYDRASE INHIBITORS that is sometimes effective against absence seizures. It is sometimes useful also as an adjunct in the treatment of tonic-clonic, myoclonic, and atonic seizures, particularly in women whose seizures occur or are exacerbated at specific times in the menstrual cycle. However, its usefulness is transient often because of rapid development of tolerance. Its antiepileptic effect may be due to its inhibitory effect on brain carbonic anhydrase, which leads to an increased transneuronal chloride gradient, increased chloride current, and increased inhibition. (From Smith and Reynard, Textbook of Pharmacology, 1991, p337). HypoPP defined as following: An autosomal dominant familial disorder characterized by recurrent episodes of skeletal muscle weakness associated with falls in serum potassium levels. The condition usually presents in the first or second decade of life with attacks of trunk and leg paresis during sleep or shortly after awakening. Symptoms may persist for hours to days and generally are precipitated by exercise or a meal high in carbohydrates. (Adams et al., Principles of Neurology, 6th ed, p1483). Dichlorophenamide defined as following: A carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that is used in the treatment of glaucoma.. HyperPP defined as following: An autosomal dominant familial disorder which presents in infancy or childhood and is characterized by episodes of weakness associated with hyperkalemia. During attacks, muscles of the lower extremities are initially affected, followed by the lower trunk and arms. Episodes last from 15-60 minutes and typically occur after a period of rest following exercise. A defect in skeletal muscle sodium channels has been identified as the cause of this condition. Normokalemic periodic paralysis is a closely related disorder marked by a lack of alterations in potassium levels during attacks of weakness. (Adams et al., Principles of Neurology, 6th ed, p1481). carbonic anhydrase defined as following: A family of zinc-containing enzymes that catalyze the reversible hydration of carbon dioxide. They play an important role in the transport of CARBON DIOXIDE from the tissues to the LUNG. EC 4.2.1.1.. Periodic defined as following: Applies to a sign, symptom, or other manifestation that recurs with a fixed time interval, i.e., the symptom-free periods are always of the same length. []. DCP defined as following: Des-gamma carboxyprothrombin (622 aa, ~70 kDa) is encoded by the human F2 gene. This protein is involved in blood coagulation. This form of prothrombin is not efficiently converted to the active enzyme thrombin because it lacks gamma-carboxyglutamyl residues. These modified glutamyl residues are absent because of either vitamin K deficiency or inhibition of vitamin K activity that, in turn, inhibits the enzyme that carboxylates these residues, vitamin K-dependent gamma-carboxylase.. paralysis defined as following: A general term most often used to describe severe or complete loss of muscle strength due to motor system disease from the level of the cerebral cortex to the muscle fiber. This term may also occasionally refer to a loss of sensory function. (From Adams et al., Principles of Neurology, 6th ed, p45). dichlorphenamide defined as following: A carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that is used in the treatment of glaucoma..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_4433", "sentence1": "Should perampanel be used for amyotrophic lateral sclerosis?", "sentence2": "RESULTS: Six participants were enrolled. All had adverse events, mostly behavioral. Two completed the trial and the other four withdrew due to adverse events. All participants reported resolution of these events after discontinuation of the drug. The trial was halted due to the large number of adverse events.DISCUSSION: The use of perampanel in this study of ALS was limited by its poor tolerability, CONCLUSIONS: Perampanel was associated with a significant decline in ALSFRS-R score and was linked to worsening of the bulbar subscore in the 8 mg group., DISCUSSION: The use of perampanel in this study of ALS was limited by its poor tolerabilit[SEP]Relations: Perampanel has relations: drug_drug with Diphemanil, drug_drug with Diphemanil, drug_drug with Propranolol, drug_drug with Propranolol, drug_drug with Eplerenone, drug_drug with Eplerenone, drug_drug with Cyclopropane, drug_drug with Cyclopropane, drug_drug with Propentofylline, drug_drug with Propentofylline. Definitions: Perampanel defined as following: An orally active, non-competitive, and selective alpha-amino-3-hydroxy-5-methyl-4-isoxazolepropionic acid (AMPA) glutamate receptor antagonist, with anti-epileptic activity. Although the mechanism of action through which perampanel exerts its antiepileptic effect has not been fully elucidated, this agent antagonizes the AMPA subtype of the excitatory glutamate receptor found on postsynaptic neurons in the central nervous system (CNS). This antagonistic action prevents AMPA receptor activation by glutamate and results in the inhibition of neuronal excitation, repetitive neuronal firing, and the stabilization of hyper-excited neural membranes. Glutamate, the primary excitatory neurotransmitter in the CNS, plays an important role in various neurological disorders caused by neuronal hyperexcitation.. ALS defined as following: A degenerative disorder affecting upper MOTOR NEURONS in the brain and lower motor neurons in the brain stem and SPINAL CORD. Disease onset is usually after the age of 50 and the process is usually fatal within 3 to 6 years. Clinical manifestations include progressive weakness, atrophy, FASCICULATION, hyperreflexia, DYSARTHRIA, dysphagia, and eventual paralysis of respiratory function. Pathologic features include the replacement of motor neurons with fibrous ASTROCYTES and atrophy of anterior SPINAL NERVE ROOTS and corticospinal tracts. (From Adams et al., Principles of Neurology, 6th ed, pp1089-94). perampanel defined as following: An orally active, non-competitive, and selective alpha-amino-3-hydroxy-5-methyl-4-isoxazolepropionic acid (AMPA) glutamate receptor antagonist, with anti-epileptic activity. Although the mechanism of action through which perampanel exerts its antiepileptic effect has not been fully elucidated, this agent antagonizes the AMPA subtype of the excitatory glutamate receptor found on postsynaptic neurons in the central nervous system (CNS). This antagonistic action prevents AMPA receptor activation by glutamate and results in the inhibition of neuronal excitation, repetitive neuronal firing, and the stabilization of hyper-excited neural membranes. Glutamate, the primary excitatory neurotransmitter in the CNS, plays an important role in various neurological disorders caused by neuronal hyperexcitation.. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis defined as following: An inherited form of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, usually inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern, caused by mutation(s) in the SOD1 gene, encoding superoxide dismutase..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_2429", "sentence1": "Is Apremilast effective for Behcet’s syndrome?", "sentence2": "Apremilast is an immunomodulatory agent that works through phosphodiesterase 4 inhibition. A randomized controlled trial has shown that it is effective for the management of oral and genital ulcers and is generally well tolerated., AREAS COVERED: This review provides a digest of all current experience and evidence about pharmacological agents recently described as having a role in the treatment of BS, including interleukin (IL)-1 inhibitors, tocilizumab, rituximab, alemtuzumab, ustekinumab, interferon-alpha-2a, and apremilast., CONCLUSIONS: Apremilast was effective in treating oral ulcers, which are the cardinal manifestation of Behçet's syndrome., Apremilast, an inhibitor of phosphodiesterase-4, was effective in a phase 2, double blind, placebo-controlled study., Apremilast (Otezla(®)), an oral small molecule inhibitor of type-4 cyclic nucleotide phosphodiesterase (PDE-4), is under development with Celgene Corporation for the treatment of psoriatic arthritis, psoriasis, ankylosing spondylitis, Behçet's syndrome, atopic dermatitis, and rheumatoid arthritis., There were two serious adverse events in patients receiving apremilast.
CONCLUSIONS: Apremilast was effective in treating oral ulcers, which are the cardinal manifestation of Behçet's syndrome., Apremilast (Otezla(®)), an oral small molecule inhibitor of type-4 cyclic nucleotide phosphodiesterase (PDE-4), is under development with Celgene Corporation for the treatment of psoriatic arthritis, psoriasis, ankylosing spondylitis, Behçet's syndrome, atopic dermatitis, and rheumatoid arthritis., CONCLUSIONS Apremilast was effective in treating oral ulcers, which are the cardinal manifestation of Behçet's syndrome., Apremilast, an oral small molecule inhibitor of phosphodiesterase 4 (PDE4), is in development for chronic inflammatory disorders, and has shown efficacy in psoriasis, psoriatic arthropathies, and Behçet's syndrome., oral ulcers the hallmark of behçet s syndrome can be resistant to conventional treatment therefore alternative agents are needed apremilast is an oral phosphodiesterase 4 inhibitor that modulates several inflammatory pathways we conducted a phase 2 multicenter placebo controlled study in which 111 patients with behçet s syndrome who had two or more oral ulcers were randomly assigned to receive 30 mg of apremilast twice daily or placebo for 12 weeks this regimen was followed by a 12 week extension phase in which the placebo group was switched to apremilast and a 28 day post treatment observational follow up phase the patients and clinicians were unaware of the study assignments throughout the trial the primary end point was the number of oral ulcers at week 12 secondary outcomes included pain from these ulcers measured on a 100 mm visual analogue scale with higher scores indicating worse pain the number of genital ulcers overall disease activity and quality of life the mean sd number of oral ulcers per patient at week 12 was significantly lower in the apremilast group than in the placebo group 0 5 1 0 vs 2 1 2 6 p 0 001 the mean decline in pain from oral ulcers from baseline to week 12 was greater with apremilast than with placebo 44 7 24 3 mm vs 16 0 32 5 mm p 0 001 nausea vomiting and diarrhea were more common in the apremilast group with 22 9 and 12 incidents respectively among 55 patients than in the placebo group with 10 1 and 2 incidents respectively among 56 patients findings that were similar to those in previous studies of apremilast there were two serious adverse events in patients receiving apremilast apremilast was effective in treating oral ulcers which are the cardinal manifestation of behçet s syndrome this preliminary study was neither large enough nor long enough to assess long term efficacy the effect on other manifestations of behçet s syndrome or the risk of uncommon serious adverse events funded by celgene clinicaltrials gov number nct00866359., current trends in the management of behçet s syndrome will be reviewed in this article biologic agents have gained increasing importance over the years in the management of behçet s syndrome long term results of observational studies have shown that anti tumor necrosis factor agents may be effective in behçet s syndrome patients with refractory eye involvement case series reporting about use of anti tumor necrosis factor agents in vascular and gastrointestinal involvement have also shown good results caution is required for infectious complications with these agents apremilast is an immunomodulatory agent that works through phosphodiesterase 4 inhibition a randomized controlled trial has shown that it is effective for the management of oral and genital ulcers and is generally well tolerated the outcome of behçet s syndrome with major organ involvement has improved with more effective management strategies especially with the use of biologic agents in severe cases controlled trials are needed to guide physicians in making treatment decisions.[SEP]Relations: Apremilast has relations: drug_drug with Bepotastine, drug_drug with Bepotastine, drug_drug with Bevacizumab, drug_drug with Bevacizumab, drug_drug with Aprepitant, drug_drug with Aprepitant, drug_drug with Bexarotene, drug_drug with Bexarotene, drug_drug with Cefetamet, drug_drug with Cefetamet. Definitions: biologic agents defined as following: Endogenously synthesized compounds that influence biological processes not otherwise classified under ENZYMES; HORMONES or HORMONE ANTAGONISTS.. Apremilast defined as following: An orally bioavailable, small molecule inhibitor of phosphodiesterase 4 (PDE4), with potential anti-inflammatory activity. Upon oral administration, apremilast targets, binds to and inhibits the activity of PDE4, thereby blocking cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) degradation and increasing intracellular cAMP levels. This may decrease the production of the proinflammatory cytokines including tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha). PDE4 is an enzyme that plays an important role in the degradation of cAMP and in cytokine production in inflammatory cells.. psoriasis defined as following: A common genetically determined, chronic, inflammatory skin disease characterized by rounded erythematous, dry, scaling patches. The lesions have a predilection for nails, scalp, genitalia, extensor surfaces, and the lumbosacral region. Accelerated epidermopoiesis is considered to be the fundamental pathologic feature in psoriasis.. alemtuzumab defined as following: Any monoclonal antibody directed against the cell surface glycoprotein CD52, regardless of the antibody type (e.g., rat, mouse, humanized).. psoriatic arthritis defined as following: A type of inflammatory arthritis associated with PSORIASIS, often involving the axial joints and the peripheral terminal interphalangeal joints. It is characterized by the presence of HLA-B27-associated SPONDYLARTHROPATHY, and the absence of rheumatoid factor.. rheumatoid arthritis defined as following: A chronic systemic disease, primarily of the joints, marked by inflammatory changes in the synovial membranes and articular structures, widespread fibrinoid degeneration of the collagen fibers in mesenchymal tissues, and by atrophy and rarefaction of bony structures. Etiology is unknown, but autoimmune mechanisms have been implicated.. ulcers defined as following: A lesion on the surface of the skin or a mucous surface, produced by the sloughing of inflammatory necrotic tissue.. rituximab defined as following: A murine-derived monoclonal antibody and ANTINEOPLASTIC AGENT that binds specifically to the CD20 ANTIGEN and is used in the treatment of LEUKEMIA; LYMPHOMA and RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS.. PDE4 defined as following: A family of phosphodiesterases that hydrolyze cyclic AMP to form AMP. This enzyme family is the primary cyclic nucleotide phosphodiesterase expressed by immune cells.. diarrhea defined as following: An increased liquidity or decreased consistency of FECES, such as running stool. Fecal consistency is related to the ratio of water-holding capacity of insoluble solids to total water, rather than the amount of water present. Diarrhea is not hyperdefecation or increased fecal weight.. vascular defined as following: Any of the tubular vessels conveying the blood (arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins).. phosphodiesterase 4 defined as following: A cyclic nucleotide phosphodiesterase subfamily that is found predominantly in inflammatory cells and may play a role in the regulation of CELL-MEDIATED IMMUNITY. The enzyme family includes over twenty different variants that occur due to multiple ALTERNATIVE SPLICING of the mRNA of at least four different genes.. oral ulcers defined as following: A loss of mucous substance of the mouth showing local excavation of the surface, resulting from the sloughing of inflammatory necrotic tissue. It is the result of a variety of causes, e.g., denture irritation, aphthous stomatitis (STOMATITIS, APHTHOUS); NOMA; necrotizing gingivitis (GINGIVITIS, NECROTIZING ULCERATIVE); TOOTHBRUSHING; and various irritants. (From Jablonski, Dictionary of Dentistry, 1992, p842). organ defined as following: A unique macroscopic (gross) anatomic structure that performs specific functions. It is composed of various tissues. An organ is part of an anatomic system or a body region. Representative examples include the heart, lung, liver, spleen, and uterus.. atopic dermatitis defined as following: A chronic inflammatory genetically determined disease of the skin marked by increased ability to form reagin (IgE), with increased susceptibility to allergic rhinitis and asthma, and hereditary disposition to a lowered threshold for pruritus. It is manifested by lichenification, excoriation, and crusting, mainly on the flexural surfaces of the elbow and knee. In infants it is known as infantile eczema.. tocilizumab defined as following: A recombinant, humanized IgG1 monoclonal antibody directed against the interleukin-6 receptor (IL-6R) with immunosuppressant activity. Tocilizumab targets and binds to both the soluble form of IL-6R (sIL-6R) and the membrane-bound form (mIL-6R), thereby blocking the binding of IL-6 to its receptor. This prevents IL-6-mediated signaling. IL-6, a pro-inflammatory cytokine that plays an important role in the regulation of the immune response, is overproduced in autoimmune disorders, certain types of cancers and possibly various other inflammatory conditions.. Behcet’s syndrome defined as following: Rare chronic inflammatory disease involving the small blood vessels. It is of unknown etiology and characterized by mucocutaneous ulceration in the mouth and genital region and uveitis with hypopyon. The neuro-ocular form may cause blindness and death. SYNOVITIS; THROMBOPHLEBITIS; gastrointestinal ulcerations; RETINAL VASCULITIS; and OPTIC ATROPHY may occur as well..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_555", "sentence1": "Could DNA (cytosine-5-)-methyltransferases serve as tumour markers?", "sentence2": "Here, we report evidence of the overexpression of DNA methyltransferases 3B (DNMT3B) in invasive cervical cancer and of the inhibition of metastasis by DNMT3B interference., This study was designed to determine the significance of DNA methyltransferases (DNMTs) in DNA hypermethylation in esophageal squamous cell carcinoma (ESCC) and to identify DNA methylation markers in serum for the early diagnosis of ESCC., DNA methyltransferase 1 as a predictive biomarker and potential therapeutic target for chemotherapy in gastric cancer., We examined the prognostic and predictive impact of DNA methyltransferase (DNMT) 1 and 3b expression in gastric carcinomas (GC) treated by neoadjuvant chemotherapy., High DNMT1 and DNMT3b expression was found in 105/127 (83%) and 79/127 (62%) carcinomas, respectively., Tumoral DNMT3b mRNA up-regulation was significantly correlated with hypermethylation of multiple tumor-related genes (P=0.021)., A regulator of de novo DNA methyltransferases DNMT3A and DNMT3B, DNMT3L promoter was found to have lost DNA methylation to varying levels in 14 out of 15 cancer cervix samples analysed. The present study highlights the importance of DNA methylation profile at DNMT3L promoter not only as a promising biomarker for cervical cancer, which is the second most common cancer among women worldwide, but also provides insight into the possible role of DNMT3L in cancer development., DNMT3L is a novel marker and is essential for the growth of human embryonal carcinoma., Among the DNMT genes, we found that mRNA for DNMT3L was specifically expressed in TGCTs, but neither in normal testicular tissues nor in cancer cells of somatic tissue origin. DNMT3L protein was strongly expressed in two EC cell lines, but not in the cell lines of somatic tissue origin., Positive nuclear labeling for DNMT3a was found only in few neoplasms: 1 pleomorphic adenoma (9.0%), 2 adenoid cystic carcinoma (16.6%) and 1 mucoepidermoid (9.0%) cases. CONCLUSIONS: Our results were not able to demonstrate a clear correlation between DNMT1 and DNMT3a immunoexpression and salivary gland neoplasms development., DNA methylation, mediated by the combined action of three DNA methyltransferases (DNMT1, DNMT3A, and DNMT3B), is essential for mammalian development and is a major contributor to cellular transformation., The prevalence, the prognostic effect, and interaction with other molecular markers of DNMT3A mutations was studied in 415 patients with acute myeloid leukemia (AML) younger than 60 years., The recent identification of DNMT3A mutations in de novo acute myeloid leukemia prompted us to determine their frequency, patterns and clinical impact in a cohort of 98 patients with either therapy-related or secondary acute myeloid leukemia developing from an antecedent hematologic disorder., DNA methyltransferases (DNMT1 and DNMT3b) were also decreased in vorinostat-treated A549 cancer cells., To identify the mechanisms responsible for these genome-wide DNA methylation alterations, we measured the gene expression levels of several DNA methyltransferases (DNMTs) and their interacting proteins by TaqMan qPCR and observed increased expression of DNMT3A2, DNMT3B, and EZH2 in tumors., DNA methyltransferase 1 (DNMT1) is the primary enzyme that maintains DNA methylation., 5-Azactydine inhibits cell growth by direct cytotoxic action as well as by inhibition of DNA methyl transferase enzyme., Alterations in metabolism of methyl donors, disturbances in activity and/or expression of DNA methyltransferases, and presence of DNA single-strand breaks could contribute to the loss of cytosine methylation during carcinogenesis; however, the precise mechanisms of genomic hypomethylation induced by chemical carcinogens remain largely unknown., Recently, three single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) of the DNMT3B promoter region, C46359T (-149C>T), -283T>C, and -579G>T have also been reported to be stratification markers that can predict an individual's susceptibility to cancers., Aberrant DNA methylation has been shown to play important roles during multistage carcinogenesis in various human organs., Thus, tumour subsets exist that display concurrent decreased BRCA1 expression, BRCA1 promoter methylation, cytoplasmic CTCF expression and with DNMT3b over-expression., DNA methylation patterns in genome are maintained during replication by a DNA methyltransferase Dnmt1., Aberrant DNA methylation has been shown to play an important role during multistage carcinogenesis in various human organs., To investigate the relationship between the expression of DNMT and clinical prognosis in adult patients with acute leukemia (AL), the mRNA expressions of DNMT, p15(INK4B), mdr1 were measured in 72 AL patients and 20 normal controls by semi-quantitative reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR); the ratio of p15 CpG land methylation was measured in 56 AL patients and 14 normal controls by methylation-specific PCR (MSP-PCR)., DNA methyltransferase Dnmt1 ensures clonal transmission of lineage-specific DNA methylation patterns in a mammalian genome during replication., Overexpression of the major DNA methyltransferase Dnmt1 is cytotoxic and has been hypothesized to result in aberrant hypermethylation of genes required for cell survival., DNA (cytosine-5-)-methyltransferase 1 (DNMT1) plays an important role in the maintenance of DNA methylation patterns via complicated networks including signaling pathways and transcriptional factors, relating to cell differentiation or carcinogenesis., We evaluated the significance of aberrant DNA methyltransferase 1 (DNMT1) protein expression during gastric carcinogenesis.[SEP]Relations: DNA (cytosine-5-)-methyltransferase activity has relations: molfunc_protein with DNMT3A, molfunc_protein with DNMT3A, molfunc_protein with DNMT3A, molfunc_protein with DNMT3A, molfunc_protein with DNMT3B, molfunc_protein with DNMT3B, molfunc_protein with DNMT3B, molfunc_protein with DNMT3B, molfunc_protein with DNMT1, molfunc_protein with DNMT1. Definitions: EZH2 defined as following: Histone-lysine N-methyltransferase EZH2 (746 aa, ~85 kDa) is encoded by the human EZH2 gene. This protein is involved in the regulation of chromatin modification.. Dnmt1 defined as following: Human DNMT1 wt allele is located in the vicinity of 19p13.2 and is approximately 62 kb in length. This allele, which encodes DNA (Cytosine-5)-Methyltransferase 1, is involved in epigenetic modification of chromatin DNA and control of gene expression.. cancer defined as following: A malignant tumor at the original site of growth.. acute myeloid leukemia defined as following: Clonal expansion of myeloid blasts in bone marrow, blood, and other tissue. Myeloid leukemias develop from changes in cells that normally produce NEUTROPHILS; BASOPHILS; EOSINOPHILS; and MONOCYTES.. genome defined as following: Anatomical set of genes in all the chromosomes.. DNMT3L defined as following: DNA (cytosine-5)-methyltransferase 3-like (386 aa, ~44 kDa) is encoded by the human DNMT3L gene. This protein is involved in the modulation of DNA methyltransferase activity.. DNMT3b defined as following: DNA (cytosine-5)-methyltransferase 3B (853 aa, ~96 kDa) is encoded by the human DNMT3B gene. This protein is involved in DNA methylation.. cytosine defined as following: A pyrimidine base that is a fundamental unit of nucleic acids.. DNA defined as following: A deoxyribonucleotide polymer that is the primary genetic material of all cells. Eukaryotic and prokaryotic organisms normally contain DNA in a double-stranded state, yet several important biological processes transiently involve single-stranded regions. DNA, which consists of a polysugar-phosphate backbone possessing projections of purines (adenine and guanine) and pyrimidines (thymine and cytosine), forms a double helix that is held together by hydrogen bonds between these purines and pyrimidines (adenine to thymine and guanine to cytosine).. cervical cancer defined as following: A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the cervix.. mdr1 defined as following: Human ABCB1 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 7q21.1 and is approximately 210 kb in length. This allele, which encodes multidrug resistance protein 1, is involved in transmembrane transport. Amplification of the ABCB1 gene is a major determinant in the development of multi-drug resistance, which decreases the effectiveness of many chemotherapeutic agents used in cancer treatment.. DNMT3B defined as following: This gene plays a role in embryonic development, imprinting, and X-chromosome inactivation.. DNMT3a defined as following: DNA (cytosine-5)-methyltransferase 3A protein (909 aa, ~102 kDa) is encoded by the human DNMT3A gene. This soluble, nuclear protein is involved in epigenetic modification of chromatin, catalyzing the methylation of C5 in CpG dinucleotides within DNA.. hematologic disorder defined as following: Disorders of the blood and blood forming tissues.. esophageal squamous cell carcinoma defined as following: A carcinoma that originates usually from cells on the surface of the middle and lower third of the ESOPHAGUS. Tumor cells exhibit typical squamous morphology and form large polypoid lesions. Mutations in RNF6, LZTS1, TGFBR2, DEC1, and WWOX1 genes are associated with this cancer.. gastric carcinomas defined as following: A malignant epithelial tumor of the stomach mucosa. The vast majority of gastric carcinomas are adenocarcinomas, arising from the gastric glandular epithelium.. transcriptional factors defined as following: Endogenous substances, usually proteins, which are effective in the initiation, stimulation, or termination of the genetic transcription process.. mammalian defined as following: Warm-blooded vertebrate animals belonging to the class Mammalia, including all that possess hair and suckle their young.. mRNA defined as following: RNA sequences that serve as templates for protein synthesis. Bacterial mRNAs are generally primary transcripts in that they do not require post-transcriptional processing. Eukaryotic mRNA is synthesized in the nucleus and must be exported to the cytoplasm for translation. Most eukaryotic mRNAs have a sequence of polyadenylic acid at the 3' end, referred to as the poly(A) tail. The function of this tail is not known for certain, but it may play a role in the export of mature mRNA from the nucleus as well as in helping stabilize some mRNA molecules by retarding their degradation in the cytoplasm.. cancers defined as following: A tumor composed of atypical neoplastic, often pleomorphic cells that invade other tissues. Malignant neoplasms often metastasize to distant anatomic sites and may recur after excision. The most common malignant neoplasms are carcinomas, Hodgkin and non-Hodgkin lymphomas, leukemias, melanomas, and sarcomas.. cancer cells defined as following: Cells of, or derived from, a malignant tumor.. DNA methyltransferase 1 defined as following: Enzymes that are part of the restriction-modification systems. They are responsible for producing a species-characteristic methylation pattern, on either adenine or cytosine residues, in a specific short base sequence in the host cell's own DNA. This methylated sequence will occur many times in the host-cell DNA and remain intact for the lifetime of the cell. Any DNA from another species which gains entry into a living cell and lacks the characteristic methylation pattern will be recognized by the restriction endonucleases of similar specificity and destroyed by cleavage. Most have been studied in bacterial systems, but a few have been found in eukaryotic organisms.. acute leukemia defined as following: A clonal (malignant) hematopoietic disorder with an acute onset, affecting the bone marrow and the peripheral blood. The malignant cells show minimal differentiation and are called blasts, either myeloid blasts (myeloblasts) or lymphoid blasts (lymphoblasts).. BRCA1 defined as following: A tumor suppressor gene (GENES, TUMOR SUPPRESSOR) located on human CHROMOSOME 17 at locus 17q21. Mutations of this gene are associated with the formation of HEREDITARY BREAST AND OVARIAN CANCER SYNDROME. It encodes a large nuclear protein that is a component of DNA repair pathways.. gastric cancer defined as following: A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the stomach.. DNMT3A2 defined as following: Human DNMT3A wt allele is located in the vicinity of 2p23 and is approximately 110 kb in length. This allele, which encodes DNA (Cytosine-5)-Methyltransferase 3A, is involved in epigenetic modification of chromatin DNA and control of gene expression.. CTCF defined as following: CCN family member 2 (349 aa, ~38kDa) is encoded by the human CCN2 gene. This protein plays a role in the promotion of proliferation and differentiation of chondrocytes and also mediates heparin- and divalent cation-dependent cell adhesion in many different cell types.. adenoid cystic carcinoma defined as following: Carcinoma characterized by bands or cylinders of hyalinized or mucinous stroma separating or surrounded by nests or cords of small epithelial cells. When the cylinders occur within masses of epithelial cells, they give the tissue a perforated, sievelike, or cribriform appearance. Such tumors occur in the mammary glands, the mucous glands of the upper and lower respiratory tract, and the salivary glands. They are malignant but slow-growing, and tend to spread locally via the nerves. (Dorland, 27th ed). cell lines defined as following: Established cell cultures that have the potential to propagate indefinitely.. genes defined as following: A category of nucleic acid sequences that function as units of heredity and which code for the basic instructions for the development, reproduction, and maintenance of organisms.. clonal defined as following: Related by descent from a single progenitor cell.. carcinomas defined as following: A malignant neoplasm made up of epithelial cells tending to infiltrate the surrounding tissues and give rise to metastases. It is a histological type of neoplasm and not a synonym for \"cancer.\". single nucleotide polymorphisms defined as following: A single nucleotide variation in a genetic sequence that occurs at appreciable frequency in the population.. pleomorphic adenoma defined as following: A benign, slow-growing tumor, most commonly of the salivary gland, occurring as a small, painless, firm nodule, usually of the parotid gland, but also found in any major or accessory salivary gland anywhere in the oral cavity. It is most often seen in women in the fifth decade. Histologically, the tumor presents a variety of cells: cuboidal, columnar, and squamous cells, showing all forms of epithelial growth. (Dorland, 27th ed). tumors defined as following: New abnormal growth of tissue. Malignant neoplasms show a greater degree of anaplasia and have the properties of invasion and metastasis, compared to benign neoplasms.. p15 defined as following: Human CDKN2B wild-type allele is located within 9p21 and is approximately 27 kb in length. This allele, which encodes cyclin-dependent kinase 4 inhibitor B protein, plays roles in both the regulation of cell growth and tumor suppression.. human defined as following: Members of the species Homo sapiens.. embryonal carcinoma defined as following: A highly malignant, primitive form of carcinoma, probably of germinal cell or teratomatous derivation, usually arising in a gonad and rarely in other sites. It is rare in the female ovary, but in the male it accounts for 20% of all testicular tumors. (From Dorland, 27th ed & Holland et al., Cancer Medicine, 3d ed, p1595).", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_2449", "sentence1": "Is cilengitide effective for treatment of glioblastoma?", "sentence2": "RESULTS: fourteen randomized clinical trials were identified (7 with bevacizumab, 2 cilengitide, 1 enzastaurin, 1 dasatinib, 1 vandetanib, 1 temsirolimus, 1 cediranib) including 4330 patients. Antiangiogenic drugs showed no improvement in overall survival with a pooled HR of 1.00, a trend for an inferior outcome, in terms of overall survival, was observed in the group of patients receiving antiangiogenic drug alone compared to cytotoxic drug alone (HR=1.24, p=0.056)., However, we could not conclusively confirm whether cilengitide 2000mg/5/week was the optimum regime, as only one trial using this protocol was included in our study., Cilengitide (CGT) is a cyclic pentapeptide that demonstrated efficacy for GBM treatment by targeting the integrins avβ3 and avβ5 over-expressed on GBM cells., Cilengitide is recently failed in Phase III CENTRIC trial in unselected patients with GBM., In conclusion, we demonstrate that EGFRvIII/integrin β3 complexes promote GBM progression and metastasis in the environment of hypoxia and vitronectin-enrichment, and cilengitide may serve as a promising therapeutics for EGFRvIII-positive GBMs., he addition of molecularly targeted drugs to TEM + RAD did not improve the OS of patients with GBM; however, it did improve PFS in patients treated by cilengitide who could not get improvement in OS. , The randomized phase III CENTRIC and phase II CORE trials explored the integrin inhibitor cilengitide in patients with newly diagnosed glioblastoma with versus without O6-methylguanine DNA methyltransferase (MGMT) promoter methylation. These trials failed to meet their primary endpoints, . In CORE, higher αvβ3 levels in tumor cells were associated with improved progression-free survival by central review and with improved overall survival in patients treated with cilengitide., Cilengitide combined with metronomic temozolomide and procarbazine in MGMT-promoter unmethylated glioblastoma did not improve survival compared with historical data and does not warrant further investigation., The addition of cilengitide to temozolomide chemoradiotherapy did not improve outcomes; cilengitide will not be further developed as an anticancer drug., Cilengitide treatment of newly diagnosed glioblastoma patients does not alter patterns of progression., It may be proposed that the combination therapy of NG2 suppression and cilengitide treatment showed no considerable effect on glioblastoma compared to cilengitide therapy alone.[SEP]Relations: Temozolomide has relations: drug_effect with Brainstem glioma, drug_effect with Brainstem glioma, drug_effect with Myalgia, drug_effect with Myalgia, drug_drug with Glipizide, drug_drug with Glipizide, drug_drug with Cephalexin, drug_drug with Cephalexin. Temsirolimus has relations: contraindication with glioblastoma (disease), contraindication with glioblastoma (disease). Definitions: procarbazine defined as following: An antineoplastic agent used primarily in combination with mechlorethamine, vincristine, and prednisone (the MOPP protocol) in the treatment of Hodgkin's disease.. Cilengitide defined as following: A cyclic Arg-Gly-Asp peptide with potential antineoplastic activity. Cilengitide binds to and inhibits the activities of the alpha(v)beta(3) and alpha(v)beta(5) integrins, thereby inhibiting endothelial cell-cell interactions, endothelial cell-matrix interactions, and angiogenesis. (NCI04). MGMT defined as following: An enzyme that transfers methyl groups from O(6)-methylguanine, and other methylated moieties of DNA, to a cysteine residue in itself, thus repairing alkylated DNA in a single-step reaction. EC 2.1.1.63.. GBM defined as following: A sheet of amorphous extracellular material upon which the basal surfaces of epithelial cells rest and is the covering surface of a glomerular capillary, interposed between the cellular elements and the underlying connective tissue.. glioblastoma defined as following: The most malignant astrocytic tumor (WHO grade 4). It is composed of poorly differentiated neoplastic astrocytes and is characterized by the presence of cellular polymorphism, nuclear atypia, brisk mitotic activity, vascular thrombosis, microvascular proliferation, and necrosis. It typically affects adults and is preferentially located in the cerebral hemispheres. (Adapted from WHO). vandetanib defined as following: An orally bioavailable 4-anilinoquinazoline. Vandetanib selectively inhibits the tyrosine kinase activity of vascular endothelial growth factor receptor 2 (VEGFR2), thereby blocking VEGF-stimulated endothelial cell proliferation and migration and reducing tumor vessel permeability. This agent also blocks the tyrosine kinase activity of epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR), a receptor tyrosine kinase that mediates tumor cell proliferation and migration and angiogenesis.. bevacizumab defined as following: An anti-VEGF humanized murine monoclonal antibody. It inhibits VEGF RECEPTORS and helps to prevent PATHOLOGIC ANGIOGENESIS.. temozolomide defined as following: A dacarbazine derivative that is used as an alkylating antineoplastic agent for the treatment of MALIGNANT GLIOMA and MALIGNANT MELANOMA.. temsirolimus defined as following: An ester analog of rapamycin. Temsirolimus binds to and inhibits the mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR), resulting in decreased expression of mRNAs necessary for cell cycle progression and arresting cells in the G1 phase of the cell cycle. mTOR is a serine/threonine kinase which plays a role in the PI3K/AKT pathway that is upregulated in some tumors.. tumor cells defined as following: Cells of, or derived from, a tumor.. hypoxia defined as following: A disorder characterized by a decrease in the level of oxygen in the body.. NG2 defined as following: Human CPSG4 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 15q24.2 and is approximately 38 kb in length. This allele, which encodes chondroitin sulfate proteoglycan 4 protein, plays a role in both cellular proliferation and migration. The wild-type allele is involved in the regulation of both vascularization and axonal outgrowth.. dasatinib defined as following: An orally bioavailable synthetic small molecule-inhibitor of SRC-family protein-tyrosine kinases. Dasatinib binds to and inhibits the growth-promoting activities of these kinases. Apparently because of its less stringent binding affinity for the BCR-ABL kinase, dasatinib has been shown to overcome the resistance to imatinib of chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) cells harboring BCR-ABL kinase domain point mutations. SRC-family protein-tyrosine kinases interact with a variety of cell-surface receptors and participate in intracellular signal transduction pathways; tumorigenic forms can occur through altered regulation or expression of the endogenous protein and by way of virally-encoded kinase genes.. CGT defined as following: Human UGT8 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 4q26 and is approximately 80 kb in length. This allele, which encodes 2-hydroxyacylsphingosine 1-beta-galactosyltransferase protein, plays a role in the synthesis of galactocerebrosides.. cells defined as following: The fundamental, structural, and functional units or subunits of living organisms. They are composed of CYTOPLASM containing various ORGANELLES and a CELL MEMBRANE boundary.. cilengitide defined as following: A cyclic Arg-Gly-Asp peptide with potential antineoplastic activity. Cilengitide binds to and inhibits the activities of the alpha(v)beta(3) and alpha(v)beta(5) integrins, thereby inhibiting endothelial cell-cell interactions, endothelial cell-matrix interactions, and angiogenesis. (NCI04).", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_3680", "sentence1": "Is Verubecestat effective for Alzheimer's Disease?", "sentence2": "The lack of efficacy of verubecestat in mild-to-moderate AD raises important questions about the timing of intervention with BACE-1 inhibitors, and anti-amyloid therapies in general, in AD treatment. , CONCLUSIONS: Verubecestat did not reduce cognitive or functional decline in patients with mild-to-moderate Alzheimer's disease and was associated with treatment-related adverse events., These results support the continued global development of verubecestat as a potential disease-modifying agent for Japanese and non-Japanese subjects who are at-risk for developing AD. , CONCLUSIONS\n\nVerubecestat did not reduce cognitive or functional decline in patients with mild-to-moderate Alzheimer's disease and was associated with treatment-related adverse events., CONCLUSIONS\n\nVerubecestat did not improve clinical ratings of dementia among patients with prodromal Alzheimer's disease, and some measures suggested that cognition and daily function were worse among patients who received verubecestat than among those who received placebo., However, in the EPOCH trial of verubecestat in mild-to-moderate Alzheimer's disease, it was not beneficial and increased adverse effects., In APECS, verubecestat 40 mg worsened cognition and increased adverse effects., The lack of efficacy of verubecestat in mild-to-moderate AD raises important questions about the timing of intervention with BACE-1 inhibitors , and anti-amyloid therapies in general , in AD treatment . , Verubecestat , a BACE1 inhibitor that reduces Aβ levels in the cerebrospinal fluid of humans , was not effective in a phase 3 trial ( EPOCH ) of mild-to-moderate AD and was associated with adverse events . , Lessons that can be learnt from the failure of verubecestat in Alzheimer 's disease ., CONCLUSIONS\nVerubecestat did not improve clinical ratings of dementia among patients with prodromal Alzheimer's disease, and some measures suggested that cognition and daily function were worse among patients who received verubecestat than among those who received placebo., In APECS, verubecestat 40 mg worsened cognition and increased adverse effects.Expert opinion: In recruiting subjects to clinical trials in Alzheimer's disease, a clinical diagnosis involving the measurement of Aβ should be undertaken for all subjects, as this may help to clarify the findings., In my opinion, the failure of verubecestat in EPOCH and APECS probably could have been avoided if a safety and potential efficacy trial (phase 2) had been completed prior to starting phase 3., CONCLUSIONS: Verubecestat was associated with increased risk for several types of adverse events., Verubecestat did not improve clinical ratings of dementia among patients with prodromal Alzheimer's disease, and some measures suggested that cognition and daily function were worse among patients who received verubecestat than among those who received placebo. (, Verubecestat did not reduce cognitive or functional decline in patients with mild-to-moderate Alzheimer's disease and was associated with treatment-related adverse events. ([SEP]Relations: familial Alzheimer disease has relations: disease_disease with Alzheimer disease, disease_disease with Alzheimer disease, disease_disease with inherited prion disease, disease_disease with inherited prion disease, disease_protein with PRNP, disease_protein with PRNP, disease_phenotype_positive with Sleep disturbance, disease_phenotype_positive with Sleep disturbance, disease_phenotype_positive with Perseveration, disease_phenotype_positive with Perseveration. Definitions: EPOCH defined as following: A portion of a study containing one or more study segments with a consistent objective such as screening subjects or treating disease.. BACE1 defined as following: Beta-secretase 1 (501 aa, ~56 kDa) is encoded by the human BACE1 gene. This protein plays a role in the proteolysis of ectodomains of membrane proteins.. dementia defined as following: The presence of dementia in an individual younger than age sixty five.. cerebrospinal fluid defined as following: A watery fluid that is continuously produced in the CHOROID PLEXUS and circulates around the surface of the BRAIN; SPINAL CORD; and in the CEREBRAL VENTRICLES.. Alzheimer's disease defined as following: Alzheimer's disease caused by mutation(s) in the APP gene, encoding amyloid-beta A4 protein. The onset of this condition typically occurs before age 65.. humans defined as following: Members of the species Homo sapiens..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_1226", "sentence1": "Are there interactomes available for POU5F1 and SOX2?", "sentence2": "The interactomes of POU5F1 and SOX2 enhancers in human embryonic stem cells., We assayed long-range chromosomal interactions on putative enhancers of POU5F1 and SOX2 genes in human embryonic stem cells (hESCs) using 4C-Seq technique. We discovered that their frequent interacting regions mainly overlap with early DNA replication domains. The interactomes are associated with active histone marks and enriched with 5-hydroxymethylcytosine sites. In hESCs, genes within the interactomes have elevated expression. Additionally, some genes associated with the POU5F1 enhancer contribute to pluripotency. Binding sites for multiple DNA binding proteins, including ATF3, CTCF, GABPA, JUND, NANOG, RAD21 and YY1, are enriched in both interactomes.[SEP]Relations: NANOG has relations: protein_protein with SOX2, protein_protein with SOX2, protein_protein with POU5F1, protein_protein with POU5F1, pathway_protein with POU5F1 (OCT4), SOX2, NANOG repress genes related to differentiation, pathway_protein with POU5F1 (OCT4), SOX2, NANOG repress genes related to differentiation, pathway_protein with POU5F1 (OCT4), SOX2, NANOG activate genes related to proliferation, pathway_protein with POU5F1 (OCT4), SOX2, NANOG activate genes related to proliferation, protein_protein with PSORS1C3, protein_protein with PSORS1C3. Definitions: NANOG defined as following: This gene plays a role in the underlying pluripotency of inner cell mass and embryonic stem cells.. CTCF defined as following: CCN family member 2 (349 aa, ~38kDa) is encoded by the human CCN2 gene. This protein plays a role in the promotion of proliferation and differentiation of chondrocytes and also mediates heparin- and divalent cation-dependent cell adhesion in many different cell types.. POU5F1 defined as following: POU domain, class 5, transcription factor 1 protein (360 aa, ~39 kDa) is encoded by the human POU5F1 gene. This protein plays a role in the regulation of early embryonic development.. Binding sites defined as following: The parts of a macromolecule that directly participate in its specific combination with another molecule.. JUND defined as following: Human JUND wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 19p13.2 and is approximately 2 kb in length. This allele, which encodes transcription factor jun-D protein, plays a role in the modulation of transcription by RNA polymerase II.. RAD21 defined as following: Double-strand-break repair protein rad21 homolog (631 aa, ~72 kDa) is encoded by the human RAD21 gene. This protein is involved in DNA repair, cell cycle-dependent chromosomal cohesion and apoptosis.. ATF3 defined as following: Cyclic AMP-dependent transcription factor ATF-3 (181 aa, ~21 kDa) is encoded by the human ATF3 gene. This protein plays a role in both DNA binding and the repression of gene expression.. YY1 defined as following: This gene is involved in the negative regulation of transcription.. SOX2 defined as following: Transcription factor SOX-2 protein (317 aa, ~34 kDa) is encoded by the human SOX2 gene. This protein is involved in neural cell progenitor differentiation and neurogenesis.. hESCs defined as following: A type of PLURIPOTENT STEM CELLS derived from early stage human embryos, up to and including the BLASTOCYST stage.. genes defined as following: A category of nucleic acid sequences that function as units of heredity and which code for the basic instructions for the development, reproduction, and maintenance of organisms..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_3012", "sentence1": "Is pimavanserin effective for Parkinson's disease psychosis?", "sentence2": "Two cases of Parkinson's disease with an unusual delusional misidentification, intermetamorphosis, are presented, along with their improvement with pimavanserin, a novel atypical antipsychotic medication., RATIONALE: Pimavanserin, a selective serotonin 2A receptor inverse agonist, is a promising candidate for treating Parkinson's disease psychosis., OBJECTIVE: Our aim was to describe the efficacy and tolerability of pimavanserin, a highly selective serotonin 5-HT2A receptor inverse agonist/antagonist indicated for the treatment of hallucinations and delusions associated with Parkinson's disease psychosis (PDP), using the metrics of number needed to treat (NNT) and number needed to harm (NNH)., Pimavanserin: novel pharmacotherapy for Parkinson's disease psychosis., INTRODUCTION: Pimavanserin is the first FDA-approved atypical antipsychotic drug indicated for the treatment of hallucinations and delusions associated with Parkinson's disease psychosis (PDP), A pivotal phase III clinical trial demonstrated significant improvement in PDP symptoms in patients receiving pimavanserin compared to placebo-treated patients. , Pimavanserin's mechanism of action might contribute to its unique psychopharmacological properties in the improved treatment of PDP, and perhaps psychosis in other diseases including schizophrenia and dementia-related psychosis., Pimavanserin (Nuplazid™) for the treatment of Parkinson disease psychosis: A review of the literature.Options for the treatment of Parkinson disease psychosis are limited. , Pimavanserin for the treatment of Parkinson's disease psychosis.Pimavanserin is an antipsychotic with a unique mechanism of action (5-HT2A receptor inverse agonist) and no measurable dopaminergic activity; it has been demonstrated to be efficacious, well tolerated and safe for the treatment of PDP. , A Retrospective Study of Pimavanserin Use in a Movement Disorders Clinic.Pimavanserin, a 5-HT2A inverse agonist, was commercially released in the United States in April 2016 for the treatment of Parkinson disease psychosis. , receptor inverse agonist pimavanserin was recently approved by the US FDA for the treatment of PDP and may prove to be a more targeted therapy without the downsides of atypical antipsychotics., Evidence-Based Review of Pharmacotherapy Used for Parkinson's Disease Psychosis.Despite lack of rigor in study designs, published data to date suggest that clozapine and pimavanserin should be considered drugs of choice to treat PD psychosis., Pimavanserin: A novel therapeutic option for Parkinson disease psychosis.While pimavanserin appears to be a safe, effective, and well-tolerated therapeutic option for PDP, additional clinical trials and open-label extension studies are needed to determine the long-term safety and efficacy of this promising therapy. , Objective: Pimavanserin is the first United States Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-approved treatment for Parkinson's disease psychosis (PDP)., Pimavanserin: A Novel Drug Approved to Treat Parkinson's Disease Psychosis., CONCLUSIONS\nPimavanserin is the only FDA-approved treatment for the hallucinations and delusions seen in patients with psychosis of Parkinson's disease., OBJECTIVE\nTo summarize the US Food and Drug Administration's (FDA's) review of the safety and effectiveness for pimavanserin, an atypical antipsychotic, for the treatment of hallucinations and delusions associated with Parkinson's disease psychosis., RESULTS\nPimavanserin 34 mg/d was effective in treating hallucinations and delusions associated with Parkinson's disease., BACKGROUND\nPimavanserin is a selective 5-HT2A receptor inverse agonist and antagonist approved in the USA for the treatment of hallucinations and delusions associated with Parkinson's disease psychosis., Pimavanserin is the first FDA-approved atypical antipsychotic drug indicated for the treatment of hallucinations and delusions associated with Parkinson's disease psychosis (PDP)., INTERPRETATION\nPimavanserin may benefit patients with Parkinson's disease psychosis for whom few other treatment options exist., Pimavanserin (ACP-103) is a selective inverse agonist of the 5-hydroxytryptamine 2A (5-HT2A) receptor intended to treat patients with Parkinson's disease psychosis (PDP)., INTERPRETATION\nPimavanserin showed efficacy in patients with Alzheimer's disease psychosis at the primary endpoint (week 6) with an acceptable tolerability profile and without negative effect on cognition., [Pimavanserin: a new treatment for the Parkinson's disease psychosis]., Pimavanserin, a serotonin(2A) receptor inverse agonist, for the treatment of parkinson's disease psychosis., Pimavanserin, a selective 5-HT2A inverse agonist/antagonist, was approved in the U.S. for treating hallucinations and delusions associated with Parkinson's disease psychosis (PDP)., Pimavanserin: A Novel Antipsychotic for Parkinson's Disease Psychosis., CONCLUSIONS Pimavanserin is the only FDA-approved treatment for the hallucinations and delusions seen in patients with psychosis of Parkinson's disease., OBJECTIVE To summarize the US Food and Drug Administration's (FDA's) review of the safety and effectiveness for pimavanserin, an atypical antipsychotic, for the treatment of hallucinations and delusions associated with Parkinson's disease psychosis., RESULTS Pimavanserin 34 mg/d was effective in treating hallucinations and delusions associated with Parkinson's disease., If this is granted, we believe the evidence of Pimavanserin efficacy, safety and tolerability will position this medication as the first choice for treatment of Parkinson's disease psychosis., The development of pimavanserin as an antipsychotic opened a new therapeutic avenue in the treatment of PDP as well as targeting psychosis in other disorders such as Alzheimer's disease., OBJECTIVE To review the pharmacology, pharmacokinetics, efficacy, safety, and place in therapy of pimavanserin for the treatment of hallucinations and delusions of Parkinson's disease psychosis (PDP)., INTERPRETATION Pimavanserin may benefit patients with Parkinson's disease psychosis for whom few other treatment options exist., OBJECTIVE: To summarize the US Food and Drug Administration's (FDA's) review of the safety and effectiveness for pimavanserin, an atypical antipsychotic, for the treatment of hallucinations and delusions associated with Parkinson's disease psychosis., Data were available from 616 patients with Parkinson's disease with hallucinations and delusions who received at least 1 dose of pimavanserin, with a total exposure of 825 patient-years in the Parkinson's disease psychosis population.
RESULTS: Pimavanserin 34 mg/d was effective in treating hallucinations and delusions associated with Parkinson's disease., Pimavanserin did not worsen motor function, an adverse effect commonly observed with other antipsychotics, probably because of a lack of consequential dopamine binding.
CONCLUSIONS: Pimavanserin is the only FDA-approved treatment for the hallucinations and delusions seen in patients with psychosis of Parkinson's disease., Pimavanserin (Nuplazid™) is a selective and potent serotonin 2A (5-HT2A) receptor inverse agonist and antagonist developed by ACADIA Pharmaceuticals that has been approved in the US as a treatment for patients with hallucinations and delusions associated with Parkinson's disease psychosis., This article summarizes the milestones in the development of pimavanserin leading to this first approval for the treatment of hallucinations and delusions in patients with Parkinson's disease psychosis., In a Phase 2 study with pimavanserin in Alzheimer's disease psychosis, pimavanserin significantly (p=0.045) improved psychosis at Week 6 vs. placebo on the NPI-NH Psychosis Score (PS)., To summarize the US Food and Drug Administration's (FDA's) review of the safety and effectiveness for pimavanserin, an atypical antipsychotic, for the treatment of hallucinations and delusions associated with Parkinson's disease psychosis., Pimavanserin is the only FDA-approved treatment for the hallucinations and delusions seen in patients with psychosis of Parkinson's disease., Pimavanserin 34 mg/d was effective in treating hallucinations and delusions associated with Parkinson's disease.[SEP]Relations: Parkinson disease has relations: contraindication with Pimozide, contraindication with Pimozide, contraindication with Alimemazine, contraindication with Alimemazine. Pimavanserin has relations: drug_drug with Hypericin, drug_drug with Hypericin, drug_drug with Melatonin, drug_drug with Melatonin, drug_drug with Pomalidomide, drug_drug with Pomalidomide. Definitions: agonist defined as following: An agent that has affinity for a receptor and intrinsic activity at that receptor.. PDP defined as following: A condition chiefly characterized by thickening of the skin of the head and distal extremities, deep folds and furrows of the skin of the forehead, cheeks, and scalp, SEBORRHEA; HYPERHIDROSIS; periostosis of the long bones, digital clubbing, and spadelike enlargement of the hands and feet. It is more prevalent in the male, and is usually first evident during adolescence. Inheritance is primarily autosomal recessive, but an autosomal dominant form exists.. clozapine defined as following: A tricylic dibenzodiazepine, classified as an atypical antipsychotic agent. It binds several types of central nervous system receptors, and displays a unique pharmacological profile. Clozapine is a serotonin antagonist, with strong binding to 5-HT 2A/2C receptor subtype. It also displays strong affinity to several dopaminergic receptors, but shows only weak antagonism at the dopamine D2 receptor, a receptor commonly thought to modulate neuroleptic activity. Agranulocytosis is a major adverse effect associated with administration of this agent.. NNH defined as following: A rare life-threatening mitochondrial DNA depletion syndrome disease with characteristics of severe progressive sensorimotor neuropathy associated with corneal ulceration, scarring or anesthesia, acral mutilation, metabolic and immunologic derangement and hepatopathy (which can manifest with fulminant hepatic failure, a Reye-like syndrome or indolent progression to liver cirrhosis, depending on clinical form involved), present in the Navajo Native American population. Clinical presentation includes failure to thrive, distal limb weakness with reduced sensation, limb contractures with loss of function, areflexia, recurrent metabolic acidosis with intercurrent illness, immunologic anomalies manifesting with severe systemic infections and sexual infantilism.. Antipsychotic defined as following: Agents that control agitated psychotic behavior, alleviate acute psychotic states, reduce psychotic symptoms, and exert a quieting effect. They are used in SCHIZOPHRENIA; senile dementia; transient psychosis following surgery; or MYOCARDIAL INFARCTION; etc. These drugs are often referred to as neuroleptics alluding to the tendency to produce neurological side effects, but not all antipsychotics are likely to produce such effects. Many of these drugs may also be effective against nausea, emesis, and pruritus.. 5-HT2A receptor defined as following: A serotonin receptor subtype found widely distributed in peripheral tissues where it mediates the contractile responses of variety of tissues that contain SMOOTH MUSCLE. Selective 5-HT2A receptor antagonists include KETANSERIN. The 5-HT2A subtype is also located in BASAL GANGLIA and CEREBRAL CORTEX of the BRAIN where it mediates the effects of HALLUCINOGENS such as LSD.. delusions defined as following: A false belief regarding the self or persons or objects outside the self that persists despite the facts, and is not considered tenable by one's associates.. Parkinson's disease defined as following: A progressive, degenerative neurologic disease characterized by a TREMOR that is maximal at rest, retropulsion (i.e. a tendency to fall backwards), rigidity, stooped posture, slowness of voluntary movements, and a masklike facial expression. Pathologic features include loss of melanin containing neurons in the substantia nigra and other pigmented nuclei of the brainstem. LEWY BODIES are present in the substantia nigra and locus coeruleus but may also be found in a related condition (LEWY BODY DISEASE, DIFFUSE) characterized by dementia in combination with varying degrees of parkinsonism. (Adams et al., Principles of Neurology, 6th ed, p1059, pp1067-75). Pharmaceuticals defined as following: Any natural, endogenously-derived, synthetic or semi-synthetic compound with pharmacologic activity. A pharmacologic substance has one or more specific mechanism of action(s) through which it exerts one or more effect(s) on the human or animal body. They can be used to potentially prevent, diagnose, treat or relieve symptoms of a disease. Formulation specific agents and some combination agents are also classified as pharmacologic substances.. Alzheimer's disease defined as following: Alzheimer's disease caused by mutation(s) in the APP gene, encoding amyloid-beta A4 protein. The onset of this condition typically occurs before age 65.. hallucinations defined as following: Subjectively experienced sensations in the absence of an appropriate stimulus, but which are regarded by the individual as real. They may be of organic origin or associated with MENTAL DISORDERS.. psychosis defined as following: Disorders in which there is a loss of ego boundaries or a gross impairment in reality testing with delusions or prominent hallucinations. (From DSM-IV, 1994).", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_2145", "sentence1": "Are alterations in ultraconserved elements associated with colorectal adenocarcinoma?", "sentence2": "Genetic variants within ultraconserved elements and susceptibility to right- and left-sided colorectal adenocarcinoma, Our results strongly suggest that several genetic variants in the UCEs may contribute to CRC susceptibility, individually and jointly, and that different genetic etiology may be involved in RCRC and LCRC, Identification of polymorphisms in ultraconserved elements associated with clinical outcomes in locally advanced colorectal adenocarcinoma, To the authors' knowledge, this is the first study to evaluate the association between SNPs within UCEs and clinical outcome in patients with CRC. The results suggested that SNPs within UCEs may be valuable prognostic biomarkers for patients with locally advanced CRC who receive 5-fluorouracil-based chemotherapy, Identification of polymorphisms in ultraconserved elements associated with clinical outcomes in locally advanced colorectal adenocarcinoma., Genetic variants within ultraconserved elements and susceptibility to right- and left-sided colorectal adenocarcinoma., We investigated whether single nucleotide polymorphisms within ultraconserved elements (UCEs) are associated with susceptibility to overall colorectal cancer (CRC) and susceptibility to tumor site-specific CRC., We investigated whether single nucleotide polymorphisms within ultraconserved elements (UCEs) are associated with susceptibility to overall colorectal cancer (CRC) and susceptibility to tumor site-specific CRC, Identification of polymorphisms in ultraconserved elements associated with clinical outcomes in locally advanced colorectal adenocarcinoma., Genetic variants within ultraconserved elements and susceptibility to right- and left-sided colorectal adenocarcinoma., Expression levels of transcribed ultraconserved regions uc.73 and uc.388 are altered in colorectal cancer.[SEP]Relations: Adenocarcinoma of the large intestine has relations: phenotype_phenotype with Neoplasm of the large intestine, phenotype_phenotype with Neoplasm of the large intestine, phenotype_phenotype with Adenocarcinoma of the colon, phenotype_phenotype with Adenocarcinoma of the colon, phenotype_phenotype with Adenocarcinoma of the intestines, phenotype_phenotype with Adenocarcinoma of the intestines, disease_phenotype_positive with sclerosing cholangitis, disease_phenotype_positive with sclerosing cholangitis, disease_phenotype_positive with anal canal adenocarcinoma (disease), disease_phenotype_positive with anal canal adenocarcinoma (disease). Definitions: polymorphisms defined as following: The regular and simultaneous occurrence in a single interbreeding population of two or more discontinuous genotypes. The concept includes differences in genotypes ranging in size from a single nucleotide site (POLYMORPHISM, SINGLE NUCLEOTIDE) to large nucleotide sequences visible at a chromosomal level.. SNPs defined as following: A single nucleotide variation in a genetic sequence that occurs at appreciable frequency in the population.. colorectal adenocarcinoma defined as following: The most common type of colorectal carcinoma. It is characterized by the presence of malignant glandular epithelial cells invading through the muscularis mucosa into the submucosa. Histologic variants include mucinous adenocarcinoma, signet ring cell carcinoma, medullary carcinoma, serrated adenocarcinoma, cribriform comedo-type adenocarcinoma, and micropapillary adenocarcinoma.. CRC defined as following: The disappearance of all signs of cancer, including the absence of a detectable disease-related genetic abnormality, as determined by techniques such as karyotyping or FISH, in response to treatment..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_1981", "sentence1": "Does the hERG gene code for a protein which is part of a sodium channel?", "sentence2": " The human ether-à-go-go-related gene (hERG 1a) potassium channel is critical for cardiac repolarization, Human ether-a-go-go-related gene (hERG) channels conduct delayed rectifier K(+) current. , The KvLQT1 and minK genes code the slowly activating, delayed rectifier (Iks) potassium channel, the HERG gene code the rapidly activating, delayed rectifier (Ikr) potassium channel of the heart, while the SCN5A gene codes a cardiac sodium channel., The molecular basis of inherited disorders caused by a mutation in either the gene coding for a particular potassium channel called HERG-or another gene, SCN5A, which codes for the sodium channel and disruption of which results in a loss of inactivation of the Na+ current., The aim of this study was to test whether a recently reported polymorphism in the HERG gene coding for the rapidly activating delayed rectifier K+ channel has influence on myocardial repolarization., Mutations in KvLQT1, minK and HERG genes affects repolarising, rectifier potassium currents, while SCN5A mutations cause delayed inactivation and reopening of the cardiac sodium channel, which initiates the depolarisation of cardiac cells., A human genetic defect associated with 'long Q-T syndrome', an abnormality of cardiac rhythm involving the repolarization of the action potential, was recently found to lie in the HERG gene, which codes for a potassium channel., Therefore, matrine and oxymatrine may have the potential to cure LQT2 as a potassium channel activator by promoting hERG channel activation and increasing hERG channel expression., The human delta1261 mutation of the HERG potassium channel results in a truncated protein that contains a subunit interaction domain and decreases the channel expression., HERG (human eag-related gene) encodes an inward-rectifier potassium channel formed by the assembly of four subunits., The human ether-?-go-go-related gene (HERG) encodes the pore-forming subunit of the rapidly activating delayed rectifier potassium channel in the heart., The human ether-a-go-go-related gene (hERG) encodes the rapidly activating, delayed rectifier potassium channel (IKr) important for cardiac repolarization., Role of glycosylation in cell surface expression and stability of HERG potassium channels., The human ERG protein (HERG or Kv 11.1) encoded by the human ether-a-go-go-related gene (herg) is the pore-forming subunit of the cardiac delayed rectifier potassium current (IKr) responsible for action potential (AP) repolarization, Human ether-a-go-go related gene (herg) encoding HERG K(+) channel has been demonstrated in many previous studies with its association to cell cycle progression and growth in tumor cells, A human genetic defect associated with 'long Q-T syndrome', an abnormality of cardiac rhythm involving the repolarization of the action potential, was recently found to lie in the HERG gene, which codes for a potassium channel. , Drug-induced long QT syndrome: hERG K+ channel block and disruption of protein trafficking by fluoxetine and norfluoxetine., OBJECTIVES: The aim of this study was to test whether a recently reported polymorphism in the HERG gene coding for the rapidly activating delayed rectifier K+ channel has influence on myocardial repolarization. , The aim of this study was to test whether the K897T polymorphism of the KCNH2 (HERG) gene coding for the rapidly activating delayed rectifier K+ channel influences cardiac repolarization assessed by principal component analysis (PCA) of T-wave morphology. , The KvLQT1 and minK genes code the slowly activating, delayed rectifier (Iks) potassium channel, the HERG gene code the rapidly activating, delayed rectifier (Ikr) potassium channel of the heart, while the SCN5A gene codes a cardiac sodium channel., All code for subunits of sodium or potassium channels: two a subunits of the potassium channels (QVLQT1 for LQT1, HERG for LQT2), the a subunit of the sodium channel INa (SCN5A for LQT3), and two regulatory subunits of potassium channels (KCNE1 for LQT5 regulating the KvLQT1 channel and MiRP1 regulating HERG)., The corresponding genes code for potassium channels KVLQT1 (LQT1) and HERG (LQT2) and the sodium channel SCN5A (LQT3)., The molecular basis of inherited disorders caused by a mutation in either the gene coding for a particular potassium channel called HERG-or another gene, SCN5A, which codes for the sodium channel and disruption of which results in a loss of inactivation of the Na+ current., There may also be correlation between the strength of binding of the medicinal substance to the potassium channel coded by the HERG gene and prolongation of the QT interval., We demonstrate that the mRNA 3'UTR of ppk29 affects neuronal firing rates and associated heat-induced seizures by acting as a natural antisense transcript (NAT) that regulates the neuronal mRNA levels of seizure (sei), the Drosophila homolog of the human Ether-à-go-go Related Gene (hERG) potassium channel., Mutations in KvLQT1, minK and HERG genes affects repolarising, rectifier potassium currents, while SCN5A mutations cause delayed inactivation and reopening of the cardiac sodium channel, which initiates the depolarisation of cardiac cells., Among the congenital forms, particularly interest is focused on the potassium channel coded by the HERG gene located on chromosome 7 and with a key role in the normal electric cardiac activity., By employing heterologous expression and making comparisons to cells expressing wild-type human-ether-a-go-go-related protein (HERG), a potassium channel that contributes to I(Kr) current in ventricular cardiomyocytes, we demonstrate activation of an elevated endoplasmic reticulum (ER) stress response by the mutant I593R HERG potassium channel implicated in long QT syndrome type 2., Correction of defective protein trafficking of a mutant HERG potassium channel in human long QT syndrome., Mutations in the human ether-à-go-go-related gene (HERG), which encodes a delayed-rectifier potassium channel,, s HERG and KvLQT1 potassium channel genes, HERG encodes the cardiac I(Kr) potassium channel., block of the cardiac potassium channel human ether-à-go-go-related gene (hERG) , The human ether-a-go-go-related gene (hERG) encodes the pore-forming α-subunit of the rapidly activating delayed rectifier K(+) channel in the heart, which plays a critical role in cardiac action potential repolarization. , Effects of donepezil on hERG potassium channels., Human ether-a-go-go related-gene K⁺ channels (hERG) participate in the regulation of tumor cell proliferation and apoptosis. HERG channel activity is up-regulated by growth factors, hERG potassium channels, HERG, a K+ channel gene.[SEP]Relations: sodium channel complex has relations: cellcomp_protein with SCNN1G, cellcomp_protein with SCNN1G, cellcomp_protein with SCNN1B, cellcomp_protein with SCNN1B, cellcomp_protein with SCNN1D, cellcomp_protein with SCNN1D, cellcomp_protein with SCNN1A, cellcomp_protein with SCNN1A, cellcomp_protein with TRPM4, cellcomp_protein with TRPM4. Definitions: LQT5 defined as following: An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the KCNE1 gene, encoding potassium voltage-gated channel subfamily E member 1. It is characterized by a prolonged QT interval that may result in torsade de pointes, ventricular fibrillation and/or sudden cardiac death.. LQT2 defined as following: An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the KCNH2 gene, encoding potassium voltage-gated channel subfamily H member 2. It is characterized by a prolonged QT interval that may result in torsade de pointes, ventricular fibrillation and/or sudden cardiac death.. LQT3 defined as following: An autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation(s) in the SCN5A gene, encoding sodium channel protein type 5 subunit alpha. It is characterized by a prolonged QT interval that may result in torsade de pointes, ventricular fibrillation and/or sudden cardiac death.. SCN5A gene defined as following: This gene is involved in voltage-dependent sodium ion transport.. ER defined as following: A system of cisternae in the CYTOPLASM of many cells. In places the endoplasmic reticulum is continuous with the plasma membrane (CELL MEMBRANE) or outer membrane of the nuclear envelope. If the outer surfaces of the endoplasmic reticulum membranes are coated with ribosomes, the endoplasmic reticulum is said to be rough-surfaced (ENDOPLASMIC RETICULUM, ROUGH); otherwise it is said to be smooth-surfaced (ENDOPLASMIC RETICULUM, SMOOTH). (King & Stansfield, A Dictionary of Genetics, 4th ed). LQT1 defined as following: A form of long QT syndrome that is without congenital deafness. It is caused by mutation of the KCNQ1 gene which encodes a protein in the VOLTAGE-GATED POTASSIUM CHANNEL.. Mutations defined as following: The result of any gain, loss or alteration of the sequences comprising a gene, including all sequences transcribed into RNA.. KvLQT1 defined as following: Potassium voltage-gated channel subfamily KQT member 1 (676 aa, ~75 kDa) is encoded by the human KCNQ1 gene. This protein is involved in cardiac repolarization through modulation of potassium ion transport.. fluoxetine defined as following: The first highly specific serotonin uptake inhibitor. It is used as an antidepressant and often has a more acceptable side-effects profile than traditional antidepressants.. mutant defined as following: An altered form of an individual, organism, population, or genetic character that differs from the corresponding wild type due to one or more alterations (mutations).. growth factors defined as following: Growth Factors are extracellular signaling molecules (ligands) involved in control of target cell proliferation, cell survival, and cell differentiation. (NCI). protein defined as following: Protein; provides access to the encoding gene via its GenBank Accession, the taxon in which this instance of the protein occurs, and references to homologous proteins in other species.. sodium channel defined as following: Ion channels that specifically allow the passage of SODIUM ions. A variety of specific sodium channel subtypes are involved in serving specialized functions such as neuronal signaling, CARDIAC MUSCLE contraction, and KIDNEY function.. genes defined as following: A category of nucleic acid sequences that function as units of heredity and which code for the basic instructions for the development, reproduction, and maintenance of organisms.. chromosome 7 defined as following: A specific pair of GROUP C CHROMOSOMES of the human chromosome classification.. long QT syndrome defined as following: A condition that is characterized by episodes of fainting (SYNCOPE) and varying degree of ventricular arrhythmia as indicated by the prolonged QT interval. The inherited forms are caused by mutation of genes encoding cardiac ion channel proteins. The two major forms are ROMANO-WARD SYNDROME and JERVELL-LANGE NIELSEN SYNDROME.. donepezil defined as following: The hydrochloride salt of a piperidine derivative with neurocognitive-enhancing activity. Donepezil reversibly inhibits acetylcholinesterase, thereby blocking the hydrolysis of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine and, consequently, increasing its activity. This agent may improve neurocognitive function in Alzheimer's disease, reduce sedation associated with opioid treatment of cancer pain, and improve neurocognitive function in patients who have received radiation therapy for primary brain tumors or brain metastases.. tumor cells defined as following: Cells of, or derived from, a tumor.. mutation defined as following: Any transmissible change in the genetic material of an organism, which can result from radiation, viral infection, transposition, treatment with mutagenic chemicals and errors during DNA replication or meiosis. The effects of mutation range from single base changes to loss or gain of complete chromosomes. As many of the simpler alterations to DNA may be repaired, such changes are only heritable once the change is fixed in the DNA by the process of replication. Mutations may be associated with genetic diversity or with pathologies including cancer.. human defined as following: Members of the species Homo sapiens.. cells defined as following: The fundamental, structural, and functional units or subunits of living organisms. They are composed of CYTOPLASM containing various ORGANELLES and a CELL MEMBRANE boundary.. polymorphism defined as following: The regular and simultaneous occurrence in a single interbreeding population of two or more discontinuous genotypes. The concept includes differences in genotypes ranging in size from a single nucleotide site (POLYMORPHISM, SINGLE NUCLEOTIDE) to large nucleotide sequences visible at a chromosomal level..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_2159", "sentence1": "Is autophagy the process where bacteria ingest viral particles?", "sentence2": "Autophagy, a cellular degradation process, Autophagy, a form of lysosomal degradation capable of eliminating dysfunctional proteins and organelles, is a cellular process associated with homeostasis., Autophagy, a programmed process in which cell contents are delivered to lysosomes for degradation, appears to have both tumor-suppressive and tumor-promoting functions; both stimulation and inhibition of autophagy have been reported to induce cancer cell death, and particular genes and proteins have been associated both positively and negatively with autophagy, Autophagy is a lysosome-mediated catabolic process involving the degradation of intracellular contents (e.g., proteins and organelles) as well as invading microbes (e.g., parasites, bacteria and viruses)., Autophagy is a cellular process that targets proteins, lipids and organelles to lysosomes for degradation, but it has also been shown to combat infection with various pathogenic bacteria., Autophagy, an intracellular degradation process highly conserved from yeast to humans, is viewed as an important defence mechanism to clear intracellular bacteria., Autophagy has intracellular anti-viral and anti-bacterial functions, and plays a role in the initiation of innate and adaptive immune system responses to viral and bacterial infections., documented abundant autophagy within VZV-infected cells throughout the infectious cycle but also demonstrated that VZV-induced autophagy facilitated VZV glycoprotein biosynthesis and processing., Autophagy is a highly conserved process by which cells can recycle organelles and proteins by degrading them in the lysosomes.[SEP]Relations: Bacteremia has relations: phenotype_phenotype with Bloodstream infectious agent, phenotype_phenotype with Bloodstream infectious agent, disease_phenotype_positive with cyclic hematopoiesis, disease_phenotype_positive with cyclic hematopoiesis, disease_phenotype_positive with shigellosis, disease_phenotype_positive with shigellosis, disease_phenotype_positive with listeriosis, disease_phenotype_positive with listeriosis. lymphocyte anergy has relations: bioprocess_bioprocess with B cell anergy, bioprocess_bioprocess with B cell anergy. Definitions: lipids defined as following: A generic term for fats and lipoids, the alcohol-ether-soluble constituents of protoplasm, which are insoluble in water. They comprise the fats, fatty oils, essential oils, waxes, phospholipids, glycolipids, sulfolipids, aminolipids, chromolipids (lipochromes), and fatty acids. (Grant & Hackh's Chemical Dictionary, 5th ed). lysosomes defined as following: A class of morphologically heterogeneous cytoplasmic particles in animal and plant tissues characterized by their content of hydrolytic enzymes and the structure-linked latency of these enzymes. The intracellular functions of lysosomes depend on their lytic potential. The single unit membrane of the lysosome acts as a barrier between the enzymes enclosed in the lysosome and the external substrate. The activity of the enzymes contained in lysosomes is limited or nil unless the vesicle in which they are enclosed is ruptured or undergoes MEMBRANE FUSION. (From Rieger et al., Glossary of Genetics: Classical and Molecular, 5th ed).. proteins defined as following: Linear POLYPEPTIDES that are synthesized on RIBOSOMES and may be further modified, crosslinked, cleaved, or assembled into complex proteins with several subunits. The specific sequence of AMINO ACIDS determines the shape the polypeptide will take, during PROTEIN FOLDING, and the function of the protein.. infection defined as following: An illness caused by an infectious agent or its toxins that occurs through the direct or indirect transmission of the infectious agent or its products from an infected individual or via an animal, vector or the inanimate environment to a susceptible animal or human host.. humans defined as following: Members of the species Homo sapiens.. organelles defined as following: Specific particles of membrane-bound organized living substances present in eukaryotic cells, such as the MITOCHONDRIA; the GOLGI APPARATUS; ENDOPLASMIC RETICULUM; LYSOSOMES; PLASTIDS; and VACUOLES.. yeast defined as following: A species of the genus SACCHAROMYCES, family Saccharomycetaceae, order Saccharomycetales, known as \"baker's\" or \"brewer's\" yeast. The dried form is used as a dietary supplement.. parasites defined as following: Invertebrate organisms that live on or in another organism (the host), and benefit at the expense of the other. Traditionally excluded from definition of parasites are pathogenic BACTERIA; FUNGI; VIRUSES; and PLANTS; though they may live parasitically.. cells defined as following: The fundamental, structural, and functional units or subunits of living organisms. They are composed of CYTOPLASM containing various ORGANELLES and a CELL MEMBRANE boundary.. intracellular defined as following: The organized colloidal complex of organic and inorganic substances (as proteins and water) that constitutes the living nucleus, cytoplasm, plastids, and mitochondria of the cell. It is composed mainly of nucleic acids, proteins, lipids, carbohydrates, and inorganic salts.. bacteria defined as following: One of the three domains of life (the others being Eukarya and ARCHAEA), also called Eubacteria. They are unicellular prokaryotic microorganisms which generally possess rigid cell walls, multiply by cell division, and exhibit three principal forms: round or coccal, rodlike or bacillary, and spiral or spirochetal. Bacteria can be classified by their response to OXYGEN: aerobic, anaerobic, or facultatively anaerobic; by the mode by which they obtain their energy: chemotrophy (via chemical reaction) or PHOTOTROPHY (via light reaction); for chemotrophs by their source of chemical energy: CHEMOLITHOTROPHY (from inorganic compounds) or chemoorganotrophy (from organic compounds); and by their source for CARBON; NITROGEN; etc.; HETEROTROPHY (from organic sources) or AUTOTROPHY (from CARBON DIOXIDE). They can also be classified by whether or not they stain (based on the structure of their CELL WALLS) with CRYSTAL VIOLET dye: gram-negative or gram-positive.. viruses defined as following: Minute infectious agents whose genomes are composed of DNA or RNA, but not both. They are characterized by a lack of independent metabolism and the inability to replicate outside living host cells.. genes defined as following: A category of nucleic acid sequences that function as units of heredity and which code for the basic instructions for the development, reproduction, and maintenance of organisms.. viral particles defined as following: A unit for virus amount measurement that represents the total number of viral particles (live and dead combined)..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_3854", "sentence1": "Are super enhancers structurally insulated in chromatin loops?", "sentence2": "Dissecting super-enhancer hierarchy based on chromatin interactions, Genetic ablation of hub enhancers results in profound defects in gene activation and local chromatin landscape., We also demonstrate that the Wap super-enhancer, which is built on STAT5 and other common transcription factors, retains its exquisite mammary specificity when placed into globally permissive chromatin, suggesting a limited role of chromatin in controlling cell specificity. , Although there is evidence that chromatin neighbourhoods, formed by the zinc-finger protein CTCF, can sequester enhancers and their target genes, there is limited in vivo evidence for CTCF demarcating super-enhancers and preventing cross talk between distinct regulatory elements., CTCF sites are porous borders, allowing a super-enhancer to activate a secondary target., Transcription factors and chromatin-remodeling complexes are key determinants of embryonic stem cell (ESC) identity. [SEP]Relations: Protein S human has relations: drug_drug with Cisplatin, drug_drug with Cisplatin, drug_drug with Omega-3-acid ethyl esters, drug_drug with Omega-3-acid ethyl esters, drug_drug with Anti-inhibitor coagulant complex, drug_drug with Anti-inhibitor coagulant complex, drug_drug with Antihemophilic Factor (Recombinant), PEGylated, drug_drug with Antihemophilic Factor (Recombinant), PEGylated. RNA localization to chromatin has relations: bioprocess_protein with HNRNPU, bioprocess_protein with HNRNPU. Definitions: embryonic stem cell defined as following: Cells derived from the BLASTOCYST INNER CELL MASS which forms before implantation in the uterine wall. They retain the ability to divide, proliferate and provide progenitor cells that can differentiate into specialized cells.. STAT5 defined as following: Two highly conserved members of the signal transducer and activator of transcription (STAT) protein family, STAT5A and STAT5B. Constitutive phosphorylation of STAT5 proteins, which leads to constitutive activation and aberrant expression of STAT5-dependent genes, has been observed in various neoplastic diseases.. CTCF defined as following: CCN family member 2 (349 aa, ~38kDa) is encoded by the human CCN2 gene. This protein plays a role in the promotion of proliferation and differentiation of chondrocytes and also mediates heparin- and divalent cation-dependent cell adhesion in many different cell types.. sites defined as following: A position in relation to its surroundings.. Transcription factors defined as following: Endogenous substances, usually proteins, which are effective in the initiation, stimulation, or termination of the genetic transcription process.. chromatin defined as following: The ordered and organized complex of DNA, protein, and sometimes RNA, that forms the chromosome. [GOC:elh, PMID:20404130]. mammary defined as following: Glandular tissue in the BREAST of human that is under the influence of hormones such as ESTROGENS; PROGESTINS; and PROLACTIN. In WOMEN, after PARTURITION, the mammary glands secrete milk (MILK, HUMAN) for the nourishment of the young.. genes defined as following: A category of nucleic acid sequences that function as units of heredity and which code for the basic instructions for the development, reproduction, and maintenance of organisms..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_3466", "sentence1": "Is Hemochromatosis type 4 is caused by a mutation in a recessive gene?", "sentence2": " severely affect iron homeostasis causing type 4 hereditary hemochromatosis, an autosomal dominant iron overload condition with variable phenotypic manifestations, Hemochromatosis type 4, also known as ferroportin disease, is an autosomal dominant genetic disorder caused by pathogenic mutations in the SLC40A1 gene, which encodes ferroportin 1 (FPN1)., Hemochromatosis type 4 is a rare form of primary iron overload transmitted as an autosomal dominant trait caused by mutations in the gene encoding the iron transport protein ferroportin 1 (SLC40A1)., Type 4 hemochromatosis follows an autosomal dominant trait; the corresponding mutation affects the basolateral iron carrier ferroportin 1., Type 4 hemochromatosis follows an autosomal dominant trait; the corresponding mutation affects the basolateral iron carrier ferroportin 1, Type 4 hemochromatosis follows an autosomal dominant trait; the corresponding mutation affects the basolateral iron carrier ferroportin 1.[SEP]Relations: hemochromatosis has relations: disease_phenotype_positive with Autosomal recessive inheritance, disease_phenotype_positive with Autosomal recessive inheritance, disease_disease with hereditary hemochromatosis, disease_disease with hereditary hemochromatosis, disease_phenotype_positive with Autosomal dominant inheritance, disease_phenotype_positive with Autosomal dominant inheritance, disease_protein with BMP6, disease_protein with BMP6. SLC40A1 has relations: pathway_protein with Defective SLC40A1 causes hemochromatosis 4 (HFE4) (duodenum), pathway_protein with Defective SLC40A1 causes hemochromatosis 4 (HFE4) (duodenum). Definitions: gene defined as following: A category of nucleic acid sequences that function as units of heredity and which code for the basic instructions for the development, reproduction, and maintenance of organisms.. Hemochromatosis type 4 defined as following: A form of rare hereditary hemochromatosis, a group of diseases characterized by excessive tissue iron deposition of genetic origin. Type 4 is less rare than the other rare forms of hereditary hemochromatosis. The disease is phenotypically heterogeneous with two sub-types. Ferroportin disease form A is the usual form and is generally asymptomatic with no tissue damage and further complications. Ferroportin disease form B is rarer and resembles hemochromatosis type 1, but can affect children. Ferroportin disease is due to mutations in the SLC40A1 gene located on chromosome 2, which encodes for ferroportin (FPN), an iron exporter negatively regulated by the hepcidin hormone. Transmission is autosomal dominant.. mutation defined as following: Any transmissible change in the genetic material of an organism, which can result from radiation, viral infection, transposition, treatment with mutagenic chemicals and errors during DNA replication or meiosis. The effects of mutation range from single base changes to loss or gain of complete chromosomes. As many of the simpler alterations to DNA may be repaired, such changes are only heritable once the change is fixed in the DNA by the process of replication. Mutations may be associated with genetic diversity or with pathologies including cancer.. autosomal defined as following: Any chromosome other than a sex chromosome. [GOC:mah]. mutations defined as following: The result of any gain, loss or alteration of the sequences comprising a gene, including all sequences transcribed into RNA.. recessive gene defined as following: Genes that influence the PHENOTYPE only in the homozygous state..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_2656", "sentence1": "Is Enlimomab effective for stroke treatment?", "sentence2": "However, this treatment failed to show benefit in the Enlimomab Acute Stroke Trial., There was no increase in the frequency of adverse events with increasing doses of enlimomab.CONCLUSIONS: Doses of enlimomab between 140 and 480 mg administered over 5 days did not increase the risk of adverse events in patients with ischaemic or haemorrhagic stroke during an observation period of 30 +/- 10 days., Examination of several potential mechanisms for the negative outcome in a clinical stroke trial of enlimomab, a murine anti-human intercellular adhesion molecule-1 antibody: a bedside-to-bench study., BACKGROUND AND PURPOSE: Enlimomab, a murine monoclonal anti-human intercellular adhesion molecule (ICAM)-1 antibody, had a negative outcome in a multicenter acute-stroke trial. , These observations provide several possible mechanisms for central nervous system-related clinical deterioration that occurred when Enlimomab was given in acute ischemic stroke., Fewer patients had symptom-free recovery on enlimomab than placebo (p = 0.004), and more died (22.2 versus 16.2%). The negative effect of enlimomab was apparent on days 5, 30, and 90 of treatment (p = 0.005). There were significantly more adverse events with enlimomab treatment than placebo, primarily infections and fever. , CONCLUSIONS: The authors conclude that anti-ICAM therapy with enlimomab is not an effective treatment for ischemic stroke in the model studied and, indeed, may significantly worsen stroke outcome., Patients experiencing fever were more likely to have a poor outcome or die.The authors conclude that anti-ICAM therapy with enlimomab is not an effective treatment for ischemic stroke in the model studied and, indeed, may significantly worsen stroke outcome., The negative effect of enlimomab was apparent on days 5, 30, and 90 of treatment (p = 0.005)., Patients experiencing fever were more likely to have a poor outcome or die.
CONCLUSIONS: The authors conclude that anti-ICAM therapy with enlimomab is not an effective treatment for ischemic stroke in the model studied and, indeed, may significantly worsen stroke outcome.
, Unfortunately, the case fatality rate in this trial was significantly higher in the enlimomab patient group than in the placebo group., CONCLUSIONS The authors conclude that anti-ICAM therapy with enlimomab is not an effective treatment for ischemic stroke in the model studied and, indeed, may significantly worsen stroke outcome., BACKGROUND AND PURPOSE Enlimomab, a murine monoclonal anti-human intercellular adhesion molecule (ICAM)-1 antibody, had a negative outcome in a multicenter acute-stroke trial., The authors conclude that anti-ICAM therapy with enlimomab is not an effective treatment for ischemic stroke in the model studied and, indeed, may significantly worsen stroke outcome..[SEP]Relations: Ischemic stroke has relations: drug_effect with Celecoxib, drug_effect with Celecoxib, drug_effect with Celecoxib, drug_effect with Celecoxib, drug_effect with Ramipril, drug_effect with Ramipril, drug_effect with Ramipril, drug_effect with Ramipril, drug_effect with Pazopanib, drug_effect with Pazopanib. Definitions: Doses defined as following: A quantity of an agent (such as substance or energy) administered, taken, or absorbed at one time.. ischemic stroke defined as following: An acute episode of focal cerebral, spinal, or retinal dysfunction caused by infarction of brain tissue.. stroke defined as following: A group of pathological conditions characterized by sudden, non-convulsive loss of neurological function due to BRAIN ISCHEMIA or INTRACRANIAL HEMORRHAGES. Stroke is classified by the type of tissue NECROSIS, such as the anatomic location, vasculature involved, etiology, age of the affected individual, and hemorrhagic vs. non-hemorrhagic nature. (From Adams et al., Principles of Neurology, 6th ed, pp777-810). murine defined as following: Any of numerous species of small rodents belonging to the genus Mus and various related genera of the family Muridae..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_2071", "sentence1": "Has the gorilla genome been determined?", "sentence2": "Starting with human, chimpanzee, gorilla, and orangutan genomes, our software generated an exhaustive data set of 292 ALs (∼1 kb each) in ∼3 h. , We generated a high-quality assembly of the gorilla genome using single-molecule, real-time sequence technology and a string graph de novo assembly algorithm, Here we present the assembly and analysis of a genome sequence for the western lowland gorilla, and compare the whole genomes of all extant great ape genera., DNA sequencing reveals that the genomes of the human, gorilla and chimpanzee share more than 98% homology.[SEP]Definitions: gorilla defined as following: This single species of Gorilla, which is a member of the HOMINIDAE family, is the largest and most powerful of the PRIMATES. It is distributed in isolated scattered populations throughout forests of equatorial Africa.. homology defined as following: A gene from one species which corresponds to a gene in another species and that is related via a common ancestral species. These genes retain a similar sequence and function.. chimpanzee defined as following: The common chimpanzee, a species of the genus Pan, family HOMINIDAE. It lives in Africa, primarily in the tropical rainforests. There are a number of recognized subspecies.. genomes defined as following: The genetic complement of an organism, including all of its GENES, as represented in its DNA, or in some cases, its RNA.. human defined as following: Members of the species Homo sapiens..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_3845", "sentence1": "Do polycomb group proteins (PcG) mediate the formation of chromatin loops?", "sentence2": "A chromatin insulator driving three-dimensional Polycomb response element (PRE) contacts and Polycomb association with the chromatin fiber, the Drosophila gypsy insulator behaves as a conformational chromatin border that is able to prohibit contacts between a Polycomb response element (PRE) and a distal promoter, Polycomb action at a distance can be organized by local chromatin topology, Polycomb repressive complex 2 is recruited through the interaction of CTCF, CTCF governs gene expression by orchestrating chromatin loop structures and by serving as a DNA-binding protein scaffold to recruit and bind polycomb repressive complexes, The chromatin loops completely dissolve, accompanied by loss of PcG proteins and H3K27me3 marks, when Tera-2 cells receive differentiation signals which induce a approximately 60-fold increase in GATA-4 expression., Polycomb-mediated chromatin loops revealed by a subkilobase-resolution chromatin interaction map., es or \"anchors\" are associated with CTCF protein in mammals, loop anchors in Drosophila were found most often in association with the polycomb group (PcG) protein Polycomb (Pc), a subunit of polycomb repressive complex 1 (PRC1). Loops were frequently located within domains of PcG, We also provide novel insight that PcG-occupied and H3K27me3-enriched regions can form chromatin loops and physically interact in cis around a single gene in mammalian cells., Repressive loops within polycomb domains are formed after the midblastula transition between polycomb response elements by the action of GAGA factor and polycomb proteins., PcG proteins, DNA methylation, and gene repression by chromatin looping., Loops were frequently located within domains of PcG-repressed chromatin., iation to proliferation control. Our results revealed a chromatin looping mechanism of long-range control and argue against models involving homogeneous spreading of PcG silencers [SEP]Relations: protein binding has relations: molfunc_protein with PCP4, molfunc_protein with PCP4, molfunc_protein with PCTP, molfunc_protein with PCTP, molfunc_protein with PCCA, molfunc_protein with PCCA, molfunc_protein with PCNP, molfunc_protein with PCNP, molfunc_protein with PCDHA4, molfunc_protein with PCDHA4. Definitions: PRC1 defined as following: PRC1 (Polycomb repressive complex 1) contains the products of the PcG genes Polycomb, Posterior sex combs, polyhomeotic, Sex combs on midleg, and several other proteins. Preincubation of PRC1 with nucleosomal arrays blocks the ability of these arrays to be remodeled by SWI/SNF. PRC1 and SWI/SNF are likely compete with each other for the nucleosomal template.. gene defined as following: A category of nucleic acid sequences that function as units of heredity and which code for the basic instructions for the development, reproduction, and maintenance of organisms.. proteins defined as following: Linear POLYPEPTIDES that are synthesized on RIBOSOMES and may be further modified, crosslinked, cleaved, or assembled into complex proteins with several subunits. The specific sequence of AMINO ACIDS determines the shape the polypeptide will take, during PROTEIN FOLDING, and the function of the protein.. PcG defined as following: A family of proteins that play a role in CHROMATIN REMODELING. They are best known for silencing HOX GENES and the regulation of EPIGENETIC PROCESSES.. CTCF defined as following: CCN family member 2 (349 aa, ~38kDa) is encoded by the human CCN2 gene. This protein plays a role in the promotion of proliferation and differentiation of chondrocytes and also mediates heparin- and divalent cation-dependent cell adhesion in many different cell types.. H3K27me3 defined as following: A post-translationally modified form of histone H3 where the lysine residue at position 28 is trimethylated. This modification is associated with formation of heterochromatin and polycomb repressive complex 1 (PRC1).. mammals defined as following: Warm-blooded vertebrate animals belonging to the class Mammalia, including all that possess hair and suckle their young.. chromatin fiber defined as following: A level of DNA packaging in chromatin above that of the nucleosome, the fundamental subunit of chromatin structure. The chromatin fiber has a thickness of about 30 nanometers and results from the folding of a linear array of nucleosomes (thickness about 10 nm) into a more compact fiber.. DNA-binding protein defined as following: Proteins which bind to DNA. The family includes proteins which bind to both double- and single-stranded DNA and also includes specific DNA binding proteins in serum which can be used as markers for malignant diseases.. Pc defined as following: A group of inherited ectodermal dysplasias whose most prominent clinical feature is hypertrophic nail dystrophy resulting in PACHYONYCHIA. Several specific subtypes of pachyonychia congenita have been associated with mutations in genes that encode KERATINS.. CTCF protein defined as following: A repressor protein with poly(ADP)-ribose binding activity that binds CHROMATIN and DNA; its structure consisting of 11 CYS2-HIS2 ZINC FINGERS allows it to recognize many different DNA target sites. It functions as a repressor by binding to INSULATOR ELEMENTS and preventing interaction between promoters and nearby enhancers and silencers. It plays a critical role in EPIGENETIC PROCESSES, including GENOMIC IMPRINTING..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_4565", "sentence1": "Is Sotrovimab effective for COVID-19?", "sentence2": "It seems that monoclonal antibodies (e.g., low dosage bamlanivimab, baricitinib, imatinib, and sotrovimab) are a better choice for treating severe or non-severe COVID-19 patients. , The Food and Drug Administration has granted emergency use authorization to sotrovimab for the treatment of mild to moderate COVID-19 in patients at increased risk for progression to severe illness., Early Treatment for Covid-19 with SARS-CoV-2 Neutralizing Antibody Sotrovimab., Sotrovimab is a pan-sarbecovirus monoclonal antibody that was designed to prevent progression of Covid-19 in high-risk patients early in the course of disease, CONCLUSIONS: Among high-risk patients with mild-to-moderate Covid-19, sotrovimab reduced the risk of disease progression., The Food and Drug Administration has granted emergency use authorization to sotrovimab for the treatment of mild to moderate COVID-19 in patients at increased risk for progression to severe illness.Sotrovimab is a monoclonal antibody that works directly against the spike protein of SARS-CoV-2 to block its attachment and entry into a human cell., In patients with non-severe covid-19, casirivimab-imdevimab probably reduces hospitalisation; bamlanivimab-etesevimab, bamlanivimab, and sotrovimab may reduce hospitalisation. Convalescen, ms that monoclonal antibodies (e.g., low dosage bamlanivimab, baricitinib, imatinib, and sotrovimab) are a better choice for treating severe or non-severe COVID-19 patients. Clini, Early Treatment for Covid-19 with SARS-CoV-2 Neutralizing Antibody Sotrovimab, The Food and Drug Administration has granted emergency use authorization to sotrovimab for the treatment of mild to moderate COVID-19 in patients at increased risk for progression to severe illness[SEP]Relations: Baricitinib has relations: drug_drug with Sofosbuvir, drug_drug with Sofosbuvir, drug_drug with Cortivazol, drug_drug with Cortivazol, drug_drug with Somatostatin, drug_drug with Somatostatin, drug_drug with Efalizumab, drug_drug with Efalizumab. Imatinib has relations: drug_drug with Sofosbuvir, drug_drug with Sofosbuvir. Definitions: monoclonal antibodies defined as following: Antibodies produced by a single clone of cells.. casirivimab-imdevimab defined as following: A combination of two monoclonal antibodies, casirivimab and imdevimab, directed against the spike protein (SP) of severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus-2 (SARS-CoV-2), that can potentially be used for immunization against COVID-19. Upon administration, casirivimab and imdevimab specifically target and bind to non-overlapping regions of the receptor-binding domain (RBD) of SP, thereby blocking viral attachment and entry into human cells and may thereby neutralize SARS-CoV-2. This may slow the progression of the disease and accelerate recovery, and may potentially provide temporary protection against infection with SARS-CoV-2. Binding to two distinct regions of the RBD of SP may decrease the potential for virus escape mutants that occur upon treatment with a single SARS-CoV-2 antibody, and may provide enhanced protection against loss of efficacy.. baricitinib defined as following: An orally bioavailable inhibitor of Janus kinases 1 and 2 (JAK1/2), with potential anti-inflammatory, immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, baricitinib binds to JAK1/2, which inhibits JAK1/2 activation and leads to the inhibition of the JAK-signal transducers and activators of transcription (STAT) signaling pathway. This decreases the production of inflammatory cytokines and may prevent an inflammatory response. In addition, baricitinib may induce apoptosis and reduce proliferation of JAK1/2-expressing tumor cells. JAK kinases are intracellular enzymes involved in cytokine signaling, inflammation, immune function and hematopoiesis; they are also upregulated and/or mutated in various tumor cell types.. illness defined as following: A state of ill health, bodily malfunction, or discomfort.. spike protein defined as following: A protein complex comprised of two heavy chains and two light chains. Monoclonal immunoglobulin (M protein) is found in abundance in patients who have multiple myeloma. The protein is not produced in response to an antigen, but it is expressed in malignant plasma cells and excreted into the blood and urine.. monoclonal antibody defined as following: A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against parathyroid hormone-related protein (PTH-rP). As a poly-hormone with diverse biological roles, PTH-rP is expressed by normal tissues, acting in local tissue environments in a variety of ways; it is commonly overexpressed by breast, prostate, and other cancers, acting systemically by promoting bone resorption, inhibiting calcium excretion from the kidney, inducing hypercalcemia, and possibly playing a role in the formation of bony metastases. By blocking the effects of PTH-rP on calcium metabolism, monoclonal antibody CAL may inhibit cancer-related hypercalcemia. (NCI04). imatinib defined as following: An antineoplastic agent that inhibits the Bcr-Abl fusion protein tyrosine kinase, an abnormal enzyme produced by chronic myeloid leukemia cells that contain the Philadelphia chromosome. Imatinib also inhibits the receptor tyrosine kinases for platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF) and stem cell factor (SCF)/c-kit; the SCF/c-kit receptor tyrosine kinase is activated in gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST). This agent inhibits proliferation and induces apoptosis in cells that overexpress these oncoproteins..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_95", "sentence1": "Does the CTCF protein co-localize with cohesin?", "sentence2": "To investigate cohesin-non-CTCF (CNC) binding events in vivo we mapped cohesin and CTCF, as well as a collection of tissue-specific and ubiquitous transcriptional regulators using ChIP-seq in primary mouse liver., In contrast to regions of the genome where cohesin and CTCF colocalize, CNC sites coincide with the binding of master regulators and enhancer-markers and are significantly associated with liver-specific expressed genes., Here we report that cohesins colocalize with CTCF at two additional imprinted loci, the Dlk1-Dio3 and the Kcnq1/Kcnq1ot1 loci., By use of human hepatocellular carcinoma cells (HepG2), we found that liver-specific transcription factors colocalize with cohesin independently of CTCF at liver-specific targets that are distinct from those found in breast cancer cells, Because cohesin can colocalize with CTCF, we performed chromatin immunoprecipitation for the cohesin subunit Rad21 and found lineage and stage-specific Rad21 recruitment to CTCF in all Ig loci, Here we show that zebrafish runx1 is directly bound by cohesin and CCCTC binding factor (CTCF) at the P1 and P2 promoters, and within the intron between P1 and P2., The intronic binding sites for cohesin and CTCF coincide with histone modifications that confer enhancer-like properties, and two of the cohesin/CTCF sites behaved as insulators in an in vivo assay, The identified cohesin and CTCF binding sites are likely to be cis-regulatory elements (CREs) for runx1 since they also recruit RNA polymerase II (RNAPII)., We have found that CTCF and cohesin are highly enriched at the convergent and partially overlapping transcripts for the LMP1 and LMP2A genes, but it is not yet known how CTCF and cohesin may coordinately regulate these transcripts, haracterization of constitutive CTCF/cohesin loci: a possible role in establishing topological domains in mammalian genomes, Our analysis revealed: 1) constitutive CTCF loci were located in constitutive open chromatin and often co-localized with constitutive cohesin loci, In brain, a third of CTCF and cohesin binding sites coincide, consistent with the potential for many interactions between cohesin and CTCF but also many instances of independent action, Here, we focus on the emerging roles of CTCF and the cohesin in coordinating long-range interactions between regulatory elements, Chromatin immunoprecipitation for CTCF and the cohesin subunits RAD21 and SMC3 reveals evolutionarily conserved binding sites within unmethylated regions ∼5 kb downstream of the PLAGL1 differentially methylated region and within the PLAGL1 3' untranslated region (UTR), TCF physically links cohesin to chromatin, ohesin and CTCF: cooperating to control chromosome conformation?, Recently, three groups mapped numerous cohesin-binding sites in mammalian chromosomes and found substantial overlap with the CCCTC-binding factor (CTCF), We found that each site contains a conserved CTCF consensus sequence, binds CTCF, and recruits the cohesin subunit Rad21 in vivo, Recent experiments have revealed that cohesin binds to the same sites in mammalian genomes as the zinc finger transcription factor CTCF, Here we review what is known about the roles of cohesin and CTCF in regulating gene expression in mammalian cells, and we discuss how cohesin might mediate the insulator function of CTCF, Previous studies have shown that this major latency control region is occupied by the cellular chromatin boundary factor CTCF and chromosome structural maintenance proteins SMC1, SMC3, and RAD21, which comprise the cohesin complex, Cohesin subunits assembled at the CTCF binding sites and bound CTCF proteins in a cell cycle-dependent manner, We propose that the CTCF-cohesin complex plays a critical role in regulating the cell cycle control of viral gene expression during latency and that failure to maintain cell cycle control of latent transcripts inhibits host cell proliferation and survival, We used chromosome conformation capture to determine long-range interactions among CTCF/cohesin sites over 2 Mb on human chromosome 11 encompassing the beta-globin locus and flanking olfactory receptor genes, These results support a genome-wide role for CTCF/cohesin sites through loop formation that both influences transcription and contributes to cell-type-specific chromatin organization and function, Increased methylation at this promoter triggered the dissociation of the insulator protein CTCF as well as the accompanying cohesin from the BDNF locus, icotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD)-regulated DNA methylation alters CCCTC-binding factor (CTCF)/cohesin binding and transcription at the BDNF locus, ecent studies have shown that the protein CTCF, which plays an important role in insulation and in large-scale organization of chromatin within the eukaryotic nucleus, depends for both activities on recruitment of the cohesin complex, We show here that the interaction of CTCF with the cohesin complex involves direct contacts between the cohesin subunit SA2 and specific regions of the C-terminal tail of CTCF, Taken together, our results demonstrate that specific sites on the C terminus of CTCF are essential for cohesin binding and insulator function, The only direct interaction between CTCF and cohesin involves contact with SA2, which is external to the cohesin ring, These numerous CTCF/cohesin sites potentially form the bases of the multiloop rosette structures at the Igh locus that compact during Ig heavy chain rearrangement, We have previously shown that the Kaposi's Sarcoma-Associated Herpesvirus (KSHV) major latency transcripts encoding LANA, vCyclin, vFLIP, v-miRNAs, and Kaposin are regulated, in part, by a chromatin organizing element that binds CTCF and cohesins, Mutation of the CTCF-cohesin binding site reduced or eliminated the chromatin conformation linkages, and deregulated viral transcription and genome copy number control, Our findings indicate that KSHV genomes are organized into chromatin loops mediated by CTCF and cohesin interactions, and that these inter-chromosomal linkages coordinate latent and lytic gene control., We show here that GA disrupts an RNA polymerase II (RNAPII) complex that accumulates at the CTCF-cohesin binding site within the first intron of the latency transcript., GA altered the enrichment of the RNAPII pausing complex, along with pausing factors SPT5 and NELF-A, at the intragenic CTCF-cohesin binding sites., GA treatment also inhibited the transcription of some cellular genes, like c-myc, which contain a similar CTCF-cohesin binding site within the first intron., These findings suggest that RNAPII pauses at intragenic CTCF-cohesin binding sites and that abrogation of this pausing by GA leads to loss of proper mRNA production and defects in sister chromatid cohesion, a process important for both viral and cellular chromosome stability., TCF and cohesin cooperatively mediate the cell-type specific interchromatin interaction between Bcl11b and Arhgap6 loci, Additional experiments verified that the interchromatin interaction between the Bcl11b and Arhgap6 loci was cell-type specific, which was cooperatively mediated by CTCF and cohesin., enome-wide studies of CCCTC-binding factor (CTCF) and cohesin provide insight into chromatin structure and regulation, Recent genome-wide studies mapping the binding sites of CTCF and its interacting partner, cohesin, using chromatin immunoprecipitation coupled with deep sequencing (ChIP-seq) revealded that CTCF globally co-localizes with cohesin, Here, we show by ChIP-Seq that most human subtelomeres contain a CTCF- and cohesin-binding site within ∼1-2 kb of the TTAGGG repeat tract and adjacent to a CpG-islands implicated in TERRA transcription control., These findings indicate that CTCF and cohesin are integral components of most human subtelomeres, and important for the regulation of TERRA transcription and telomere end protection, In addition, we show that this DNA looping requires specific binding of the CTCF/cohesin complex to two symmetrically aligned binding sites in both the transcriptionally active promoters and in one of the enhancers[SEP]Relations: cohesin complex has relations: cellcomp_protein with SMC3, cellcomp_protein with SMC3, cellcomp_protein with SMC1A, cellcomp_protein with SMC1A, cellcomp_protein with STAG1, cellcomp_protein with STAG1, cellcomp_protein with SMC1B, cellcomp_protein with SMC1B, cellcomp_protein with STAG3L4, cellcomp_protein with STAG3L4. Definitions: histone modifications defined as following: The covalent alteration of one or more amino acid residues within a histone protein. [GOC:krc]. PLAGL1 defined as following: This gene plays an inhibitory role in the regulation of cellular proliferation and is a tumor suppressor.. CTCF defined as following: CCN family member 2 (349 aa, ~38kDa) is encoded by the human CCN2 gene. This protein plays a role in the promotion of proliferation and differentiation of chondrocytes and also mediates heparin- and divalent cation-dependent cell adhesion in many different cell types.. genome defined as following: Anatomical set of genes in all the chromosomes.. vFLIP defined as following: FLICE inhibitory protein (188 aa, ~21 kDa) is encoded by the human HHV8 ORF71 gene. This protein is involved in the modulation of host signaling pathways.. Kaposi's Sarcoma-Associated Herpesvirus defined as following: A species in the genus RHADINOVIRUS, subfamily GAMMAHERPESVIRINAE, isolated from patients with AIDS-related and \"classical\" Kaposi sarcoma.. RAD21 defined as following: Double-strand-break repair protein rad21 homolog (631 aa, ~72 kDa) is encoded by the human RAD21 gene. This protein is involved in DNA repair, cell cycle-dependent chromosomal cohesion and apoptosis.. SMC3 defined as following: Human SMC3 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 10q25 and is approximately 37 kb in length. This allele, which encodes structural maintenance of chromosomes protein 3, is involved in the regulation of chromosome migration during mitosis.. intron defined as following: Sequences of DNA in the genes that are located between the EXONS. They are transcribed along with the exons but are removed from the primary gene transcript by RNA SPLICING to leave mature RNA. Some introns code for separate genes.. DNA defined as following: A deoxyribonucleotide polymer that is the primary genetic material of all cells. Eukaryotic and prokaryotic organisms normally contain DNA in a double-stranded state, yet several important biological processes transiently involve single-stranded regions. DNA, which consists of a polysugar-phosphate backbone possessing projections of purines (adenine and guanine) and pyrimidines (thymine and cytosine), forms a double helix that is held together by hydrogen bonds between these purines and pyrimidines (adenine to thymine and guanine to cytosine).. cellular defined as following: The fundamental, structural, and functional units or subunits of living organisms. They are composed of CYTOPLASM containing various ORGANELLES and a CELL MEMBRANE boundary.. Bcl11b defined as following: B-cell lymphoma/leukemia 11B (894 aa, ~96 kDa) is encoded by the human BCL11B gene. This protein may play a role in the modulation of p53-mediated signaling, tumor suppression and T cell development.. binding sites defined as following: The parts of a macromolecule that directly participate in its specific combination with another molecule.. RNA polymerase II defined as following: A DNA-dependent RNA polymerase present in bacterial, plant, and animal cells. It functions in the nucleoplasmic structure and transcribes DNA into RNA. It has different requirements for cations and salt than RNA polymerase I and is strongly inhibited by alpha-amanitin. EC 2.7.7.6.. CCCTC binding factor defined as following: A repressor protein with poly(ADP)-ribose binding activity that binds CHROMATIN and DNA; its structure consisting of 11 CYS2-HIS2 ZINC FINGERS allows it to recognize many different DNA target sites. It functions as a repressor by binding to INSULATOR ELEMENTS and preventing interaction between promoters and nearby enhancers and silencers. It plays a critical role in EPIGENETIC PROCESSES, including GENOMIC IMPRINTING.. viral gene defined as following: The functional hereditary units of VIRUSES.. transcripts defined as following: The initial RNA molecule produced by transcription.. cohesin complex defined as following: A protein complex that is required for sister chromatid cohesion in eukaryotes. The cohesin complex forms a molecular ring complex, and is composed of structural maintenance of chromosomes (SMC) and kleisin proteins. For example, in yeast, the complex is composed of the SMC proteins Smc1p and Smc3p, and the kleisin protein Scc1p. In vertebrates, the complex is composed of the SMC1 (SMC1A or SMC1B) and SMC3 heterodimer attached via their hinge domains to a kleisin (RAD21, REC8 or RAD21L) which links them, and one STAG protein (STAG1, STAG2 or STAG3). [GOC:jl, GOC:sp, GOC:vw, PMID:9887095]. promoter defined as following: A DNA sequence at which RNA polymerase binds and initiates transcription.. chromatin defined as following: The ordered and organized complex of DNA, protein, and sometimes RNA, that forms the chromosome. [GOC:elh, PMID:20404130]. NELF-A defined as following: Negative elongation factor A (528 aa, ~57 kDa) is encoded by the human NELFA gene. This protein plays a role in transcriptional pausing.. ChIP-seq defined as following: A molecular genetic technique that combines chromatin immunoprecipitation (ChIP) with massively parallel DNA sequencing to map the binding sites of DNA-associated proteins in a sample of cells. First, crosslinked protein-DNA complexes are isolated using ChIP. Next, the crosslinks are broken, the proteins are removed and the purified DNA is modified with adaptor oligonucleotides to facilitate massively parallel DNA sequencing. Following sequencing, the DNA sequences that are obtained can be mapped to their genomic locations.. runx1 defined as following: Runt-related transcription factor 1 (453 aa, ~49 kDa) is encoded by the human RUNX1 gene. This protein is involved in the promotion of gene transcription and hematopoiesis.. SA2 defined as following: Human STAG2 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of Xq25 and is approximately 462 kb in length. This allele, which encodes cohesin subunit SA-2, plays a role in sister chromatid adhesion.. TERRA defined as following: A large, non-coding RNA that can be encoded by any chromosomal telomeric DNA sequence, and is an integral part of the telomeric heterochromatin. These oligoribonucleotides may play a role in the regulation of both telomere replication and chromosomal remodeling. Their sizes are dependent on the telomere sequence length.. flanking defined as following: The region on either side of the body that extends from the last rib to the hip.. LANA defined as following: Latent nuclear antigen (1036 aa, ~119 kDa) is encoded by the human herpesvirus 8 ORF73 gene. This protein plays a role in both viral latency and the transcriptional regulation of host genes that modulate apoptosis and cell proliferation.. Mutation defined as following: Any transmissible change in the genetic material of an organism, which can result from radiation, viral infection, transposition, treatment with mutagenic chemicals and errors during DNA replication or meiosis. The effects of mutation range from single base changes to loss or gain of complete chromosomes. As many of the simpler alterations to DNA may be repaired, such changes are only heritable once the change is fixed in the DNA by the process of replication. Mutations may be associated with genetic diversity or with pathologies including cancer.. locus defined as following: The position of a gene or a chromosomal marker on a chromosome; also, a stretch of DNA at a particular place on a particular chromosome. The use of locus is sometimes restricted to mean regions of DNA that are expressed.. sites defined as following: A position in relation to its surroundings.. human defined as following: Members of the species Homo sapiens.. genomes defined as following: The genetic complement of an organism, including all of its GENES, as represented in its DNA, or in some cases, its RNA.. telomere defined as following: A terminal section of a chromosome which has a specialized structure and which is involved in chromosomal replication and stability. Its length is believed to be a few hundred base pairs.. SPT5 defined as following: This gene is involved in both positive and negative regulation of transcriptional elongation. It also plays a role in the modification of chromatin.. CTCF protein defined as following: A repressor protein with poly(ADP)-ribose binding activity that binds CHROMATIN and DNA; its structure consisting of 11 CYS2-HIS2 ZINC FINGERS allows it to recognize many different DNA target sites. It functions as a repressor by binding to INSULATOR ELEMENTS and preventing interaction between promoters and nearby enhancers and silencers. It plays a critical role in EPIGENETIC PROCESSES, including GENOMIC IMPRINTING..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_1874", "sentence1": "Is there an association between Muenke Syndrome and FGFR3 gene mutation?", "sentence2": "RESULTS: Forty-four with a positive FGFR3 mutation, median age 9 years, range 7 months to 52 years were enrolled. In addition, 10 unaffected siblings served as controls (5 males, 5 females; median age, 13 years; range, 3-18 years)., Muenke is a fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR-3)-associated syndrome, which was first described in late 1990 s. , The syndrome is defined molecularly by a unique point mutation c.749C>G in exon 7 of the FGFR3 gene which results to an amino acid substitution p.Pro250Arg of the protein product. , Muenke syndrome caused by point mutation (C749G) in the FGFR3 gene affects 1 in 30,000 newborns and accounts for 25% to 30% of genetic causes of craniosynostosis., Phenotypic variability in two families of Muenke syndrome with FGFR3 mutation., PURPOSE: There are a number of craniosynostosis syndromes with hearing loss-including Muenke, Apert, Pfeiffer, Crouzon, Beare-Stevenson, Crouzon with acanthosis nigricans, and Jackson-Weiss syndromes-that result from mutations in the fibroblast growth factor receptor (FGFR) genes. , Muenke syndrome is an autosomal dominant craniosynostosis syndrome resulting from a defining point mutation in the Fibroblast Growth Factor Receptor3 (FGFR3) gene., Talocalcaneal coalition in Muenke syndrome: report of a patient, review of the literature in FGFR-related craniosynostoses, and consideration of mechanism., To better understand the pathophysiology of the Muenke syndrome, we present collective findings from several recent studies that have characterized a genetically equivalent mouse model for Muenke syndrome (FgfR3 (P244R)) and compare them with human phenotypes., We show in this study that knock-in mice harboring the mutation responsible for the Muenke syndrome (FgfR3(P244R)) display postnatal shortening of the cranial base along with synchondrosis growth plate dysfunction characterized by loss of resting, proliferating and hypertrophic chondrocyte zones and decreased Ihh expression., Muenke syndrome is caused by a single defining point mutation in the fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR3) gene., The Pro250Arg mutation in the FGFR3 gene is found in patients with Muenke syndrome and is one of the most frequently encountered mutations in craniosynostosis syndromes., Epilepsy in Muenke syndrome: FGFR3-related craniosynostosis., Muenke syndrome (FGFR3-related craniosynostosis): expansion of the phenotype and review of the literature., The Pro250Arg mutation in the FGFR3 gene is found in patients with Muenke syndrome and is one of the most frequently encountered mutations in craniosynostosis syndromes., PURPOSE: The Muenke syndrome mutation (FGFR3 (P250R)), which was discovered 15 years ago, represents the single most common craniosynostosis mutation., The heterozygous Pro250Arg substitution mutation in fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR3), which increases ligand-dependent signalling, is the most common genetic cause of craniosynostosis in humans and defines Muenke syndrome., P250R mutation in the FGFR3 gene also known as Muenke syndrome is associated with coronal craniosynostosis, sensorineural deafness, craniofacial, and digital abnormalities., Muenke syndrome caused by the FGFR3 Pro250Arg mutation is associated with craniosynostosis, hearing loss, and various bony anomalies., Muenke syndrome is an autosomal dominant disorder characterized by coronal suture craniosynostosis, hearing loss, developmental delay, carpal and tarsal fusions, and the presence of the Pro250Arg mutation in the FGFR3 gene., Muenke syndrome, defined by heterozygosity for a Pro250Arg substitution in fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR3), is the most common genetic cause of craniosynostosis in humans., In addition, sensorineural hearing loss is detected in all FgfR3 (P244R) mutant mice as in the majority of Muenke syndrome patients., Genetic testing identifies a pathogenic mutation or chromosomal abnormality in ∼ 21% of cases, but it is likely that further causative mutations remain to be discovered.To identify a shared signature of genetically determined craniosynostosis by comparing the expression patterns in three monogenic syndromes with a control group of patients with non-syndromic sagittal synostosis.Fibroblasts from 10 individuals each with Apert syndrome (FGFR2 substitution S252W), Muenke syndrome (FGFR3 substitution P250R), Saethre-Chotzen syndrome (various mutations in TWIST1) and non-syndromic sagittal synostosis (no mutation detected) were cultured, The craniosynostosis syndromes: Apert syndrome, Beare-Stevenson syndrome, Crouzon syndrome, Jackson-Weiss syndrome, Muenke syndrome, Pfeiffer syndrome and Saethre-Chotzen syndrome can be caused by mutation in either FGFR1, FGFR2, or FGFR3, Identical proline-->arginine gain-of-function mutations in fibroblast growth factor receptor (FGFR) 1 (Pro252Arg), FGFR2 (Pro253Arg) and FGFR3 (Pro250Arg), result in type I Pfeiffer, Apert and Muenke craniosynostosis syndromes, respectively, The Pro250Arg mutation in the FGFR3 gene is found in patients with Muenke syndrome and is one of the most frequently encountered mutations in craniosynostosis syndromes, Mutation analysis of FGFR-3 revealed a missense mutation in exon 6, c.749 C>G, with a resultant amino acid change from proline to arginine at codon 250 (P250R), in keeping with Muenke syndrome (Am J Hum Genet 1997;60:555-564), In an attempt to delineate functional features separating SCS from Muenkes syndrome, we screened patients presenting with coronal suture synostosis for mutations in the TWIST 1 gene, and for the Pro250Arg mutation in FGFR3, Since the Gly380Arg achondroplasia mutation was recognized, similar observations regarding the conserved nature of FGFR mutations and resulting phenotype have been made regarding other skeletal phenotypes, including hypochondroplasia, thanatophoric dysplasia, and Muenke coronal craniosynostosis, Mutations in the gene that encodes Fibroblast Growth Factor Receptor 3 (FGFR3) are associated with Achondroplasia (MIM 100800), Hypochondroplasia (MIM 146000), Muenke Syndrome (MIM 602849), Thanatophoric Dysplasia (MIM 187600, MIM 187601) and Lacrimo-Auriculo-Dento-Digital Syndrome (MIM 149730).Here we report a clinical and molecular study in a large cohort of 125 Portuguese patients with these skeletal disorders. , The Muenke syndrome (MS) is characterized by unicoronal or bicoronal craniosynostosis, midfacial hypoplasia, ocular hypertelorism, and a variety of minor abnormalities associated with a mutation in the fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR3) gene. , P250R mutation in the FGFR3 gene also known as Muenke syndrome is associated with coronal craniosynostosis, sensorineural deafness, craniofacial, and digital abnormalities. , METHODS: Fibroblasts from 10 individuals each with Apert syndrome (FGFR2 substitution S252W), Muenke syndrome (FGFR3 substitution P250R), Saethre-Chotzen syndrome (various mutations in TWIST1) and non-syndromic sagittal synostosis (no mutation detected) were cultured. , Muenke syndrome is an autosomal dominant disorder characterized by coronal suture craniosynostosis, hearing loss, developmental delay, carpal and tarsal fusions, and the presence of the Pro250Arg mutation in the FGFR3 gene. , Muenke syndrome, also known as FGFR3-associated coronal synostosis, is defined molecularly by the presence of a heterozygous nucleotide transversion, c.749C>G, encoding the amino acid substitution Pro250Arg, in the fibroblast growth factor receptor type 3 gene (FGFR3). , In spite of a variable phenotype, Muenke syndrome has been related to a unique mutation on the FGFR3 gene, Pro 250 to Arg, which is characteristic of this disease. , Skeletal analysis of the Fgfr3(P244R) mouse, a genetic model for the Muenke craniosynostosis syndrome., Muenke syndrome is caused by a single defining point mutation in the fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR3) gene., Epilepsy in Muenke syndrome: FGFR3-related craniosynostosis., Muenke syndrome, also known as FGFR3-associated coronal synostosis, is defined molecularly by the presence of a heterozygous nucleotide transversion, c.749C>G, encoding the amino acid substitution Pro250Arg, in the fibroblast growth factor receptor type 3 gene (FGFR3)., The Muenke syndrome mutation (FGFR3 (P250R)), which was discovered 15 years ago, represents the single most common craniosynostosis mutation.[SEP]Relations: Muenke syndrome has relations: disease_protein with FGFR3, disease_protein with FGFR3. FGFR3 has relations: disease_protein with Muenke syndrome, disease_protein with Muenke syndrome, disease_protein with apert syndrome, disease_protein with apert syndrome, disease_protein with LADD syndrome, disease_protein with LADD syndrome. apert syndrome has relations: disease_protein with FGFR3, disease_protein with FGFR3. Definitions: Muenke Syndrome defined as following: A rare autosomal dominant inherited disorder caused by mutations in the FGFR3 gene. It is characterized by premature fusion of cranial bones, resulting in head shape abnormalities, flattened cheekbones, and wide-set eyes.. Fibroblast Growth Factor Receptor 3 defined as following: A fibroblast growth factor receptor with specificity for FIBROBLAST GROWTH FACTORS; HEPARAN SULFATE PROTEOGLYCAN; and NEURONAL CELL ADHESION MOLECULES. Several variants of the receptor exist due to multiple ALTERNATIVE SPLICING of its mRNA. Fibroblast growth factor receptor 1 contains three extracellular IMMUNOGLOBULIN C2-SET DOMAINS and is a tyrosine kinase that transmits signals through the MAP KINASE SIGNALING SYSTEM.. fibroblast growth factor receptor defined as following: A fibroblast growth factor receptor which contains three extracellular IMMUNOGLOBULIN I-SET DOMAINS and is expressed as two isoforms. One receptor isoform is expressed in the MESENCHYME and is activated by FIBROBLAST GROWTH FACTOR 2. A second isoform is expressed mainly by EPITHELIAL CELLS and is activated by FIBROBLAST GROWTH FACTOR 7 and FIBROBLAST GROWTH FACTOR 10. Mutation of the gene for fibroblast growth factor receptor 2 can result in craniosynostotic syndromes (e.g., APERT SYNDROME; and CROUZON SYNDROME).. hearing loss defined as following: Partial or complete loss of the ability to detect or understand sounds resulting from damage to the outer, middle, or inner ear structures. Causes include exposure to loud noise, ear infections, injuries to the ear, genetic, and congenital disorders.. sensorineural hearing loss defined as following: Hearing loss resulting from damage to the COCHLEA and the sensorineural elements which lie internally beyond the oval and round windows. These elements include the AUDITORY NERVE and its connections in the BRAINSTEM.. proline defined as following: A non-essential amino acid that is synthesized from GLUTAMIC ACID. It is an essential component of COLLAGEN and is important for proper functioning of joints and tendons.. P250R mutation defined as following: A change in the nucleotide sequence of the ARID1B gene.. FGFR-3 defined as following: Fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (806 aa, ~88 kDa) is encoded by the human FGFR3 gene. This protein is involved in fibroblast growth factor signaling and skeletal development.. coronal craniosynostosis defined as following: Premature closure of the coronal suture of skull. [HPO:probinson]. genetic defined as following: Having to do with information that is passed from parents to offspring through genes in sperm and egg cells.. disease defined as following: A definite pathologic process with a characteristic set of signs and symptoms. It may affect the whole body or any of its parts, and its etiology, pathology, and prognosis may be known or unknown.. Mutations defined as following: The result of any gain, loss or alteration of the sequences comprising a gene, including all sequences transcribed into RNA.. Hypochondroplasia defined as following: An autosomal dominant disorder that is often caused by a defect in fibroblast growth factor receptor 3, and characterized by short stature, micromelia, and a comparatively large head. The features are milder than those seen in achondroplasia.. thanatophoric dysplasia defined as following: Thanatophoric dysplasia characterized by a normally shaped skull and curved femurs. It is the most common type of thanatophoric dysplasia.. achondroplasia defined as following: An autosomal dominant disorder that is the most frequent form of short-limb dwarfism. Affected individuals exhibit short stature caused by rhizomelic shortening of the limbs, characteristic facies with frontal bossing and mid-face hypoplasia, exaggerated lumbar lordosis, limitation of elbow extension, GENU VARUM, and trident hand. (Online Mendelian Inheritance in Man, http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/Omim, MIM#100800, April 20, 2001). Beare-Stevenson syndrome defined as following: A rare, autosomal dominant inherited disorder caused by mutations in the FGFR2 gene. It is characterized by the premature fusion of the bones of the skull (craniosynostosis) and a skin abnormality called cutis gyrata. The craniosynostosis results in a cloverleaf-shaped skull, wide-set eyes, ear abnormalities, underdeveloped upper jaw, and developmental delays. Cutis gyrata is characterized by a wrinkled skin appearance, especially on the face, near the ears, and on the palms and soles.. FGFR defined as following: Specific molecular sites or structures on cell membranes that react with FIBROBLAST GROWTH FACTORS (both the basic and acidic forms), their analogs, or their antagonists to elicit or to inhibit the specific response of the cell to these factors. These receptors frequently possess tyrosine kinase activity.. craniofacial defined as following: refers to the bones of the skull and face.. Apert syndrome defined as following: An autosomal dominant inherited type of acrocephalosyndactyly caused by mutations in the FGFR2 gene. It is characterized by early closure of the sutures between the skull bones, bulging eyes, low-set ears, fusion of the second, third, and forth fingers, and fusion of the toes.. TWIST1 defined as following: Twist-related protein 1 (202 aa, ~21 kDa) is encoded by the human TWIST1 gene. This protein plays a role in the negative regulation of both transcription and myogenesis.. arginine defined as following: An essential amino acid that is physiologically active in the L-form.. genes defined as following: A category of nucleic acid sequences that function as units of heredity and which code for the basic instructions for the development, reproduction, and maintenance of organisms.. point mutation defined as following: A mutation caused by the substitution of one nucleotide for another. This results in the DNA molecule having a change in a single base pair.. Arg defined as following: This gene plays a role in signal transduction.. Epilepsy defined as following: A disorder characterized by recurrent episodes of paroxysmal brain dysfunction due to a sudden, disorderly, and excessive neuronal discharge. Epilepsy classification systems are generally based upon: (1) clinical features of the seizure episodes (e.g., motor seizure), (2) etiology (e.g., post-traumatic), (3) anatomic site of seizure origin (e.g., frontal lobe seizure), (4) tendency to spread to other structures in the brain, and (5) temporal patterns (e.g., nocturnal epilepsy). (From Adams et al., Principles of Neurology, 6th ed, p313). chondrocyte defined as following: Polymorphic cells that form cartilage.. mutation defined as following: Any transmissible change in the genetic material of an organism, which can result from radiation, viral infection, transposition, treatment with mutagenic chemicals and errors during DNA replication or meiosis. The effects of mutation range from single base changes to loss or gain of complete chromosomes. As many of the simpler alterations to DNA may be repaired, such changes are only heritable once the change is fixed in the DNA by the process of replication. Mutations may be associated with genetic diversity or with pathologies including cancer.. Pfeiffer syndrome defined as following: An autosomal dominant inherited type of acrocephalosyndactyly caused by mutations in the FGFR1 or FGFR2 genes. It is characterized by early closure of the sutures between the skull bones, bulging and wide-set eyes, broad thumbs, big toes, and partial syndactyly in the hands and toes.. craniosynostosis syndromes defined as following: Premature closure of one or more CRANIAL SUTURES. It often results in plagiocephaly. Craniosynostoses that involve multiple sutures are sometimes associated with congenital syndromes such as ACROCEPHALOSYNDACTYLIA; and CRANIOFACIAL DYSOSTOSIS.. P250R defined as following: Human ARID1B wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 6q25.1 and is approximately 433 kb in length. This allele, which encodes AT-rich interactive domain-containing protein 1B, is involved in both cell type-specific transcriptional regulation and chromatin remodeling.. amino acid substitution defined as following: The naturally occurring or experimentally induced replacement of one or more AMINO ACIDS in a protein with another. If a functionally equivalent amino acid is substituted, the protein may retain wild-type activity. Substitution may also diminish, enhance, or eliminate protein function. Experimentally induced substitution is often used to study enzyme activities and binding site properties.. craniosynostosis defined as following: A form of syndromic craniosynostosis with characteristics of highly variable craniosynostosis with frontal bossing, turribrachycephaly and cloverleaf skull anomaly. Hypoplasia of the supraorbital ridges, cleft palate, extra teeth and limb anomalies has also been described. Associated problems include headache, poor vision, and seizures. Intelligence is normal.. FGFR1 defined as following: Fibroblast growth factor receptor 1 (822 aa, ~92 kDa) is encoded by the human FGFR1 gene. This protein is involved in the regulation of embryonic development, cell proliferation, cell differentiation and cellular migration.. humans defined as following: Members of the species Homo sapiens.. FGFR3 gene defined as following: This gene plays a role in bone development and maintenance and mutations in the gene are associated with craniosynostosis and several types of skeletal dysplasia.. Jackson-Weiss syndrome defined as following: A rare, autosomal dominant inherited disorder caused by mutations in the FGFR2 gene. It is characterized by the premature fusion of the bones of the skull (craniosynostosis) and foot abnormalities. The craniosynostosis results in a malformed skull, widely spaced eyes, and a bulging forehead. The foot abnormalities consist of short and wide first toes, which bend away from the other toes. In addition, syndactyly in some toes may be present. The hands are almost always normal.. cranial base defined as following: The inferior region of the skull consisting of an internal (cerebral), and an external (basilar) surface.. autosomal dominant disorder defined as following: An inherited disorder that manifests when one copy of a mutated gene is present.. FGFR3 gene mutation defined as following: A change in the nucleotide sequence of the FGFR3 gene..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_4114", "sentence1": "Is YKL-40 used as a biomarker for Alzheimer's disease?", "sentence2": "Recently, cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) YKL-40 levels were reported to be a promising candidate biomarker of glial inflammation in Alzheimer's disease (AD). , Disease groups differed between them except AD versus FTD for YKL-40. , YKL-40 appears to be a more reliable biomarker in neurological diseases than NSE.[SEP]Relations: familial Alzheimer disease has relations: disease_disease with Alzheimer disease, disease_disease with Alzheimer disease, disease_protein with PRNP, disease_protein with PRNP, disease_phenotype_positive with Perseveration, disease_phenotype_positive with Perseveration, disease_phenotype_positive with Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder, disease_phenotype_positive with Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder, disease_disease with inherited prion disease, disease_disease with inherited prion disease. Definitions: cerebrospinal fluid defined as following: Used for the presence or analysis of substances in the cerebrospinal fluid; also for examination of or changes in cerebrospinal fluid in disease states.. YKL-40 defined as following: A lectin that binds CHITIN, but lacks chitinase activity. It may be involved in tissue remodeling and cellular responses to the environment, including the response of type 2 HELPER T-CELLS to INFLAMMATION and sensitization to ALLERGENS. Mutations in the CHI3L1 gene are associated with ASTHMA.. NSE defined as following: Human ENO2 wild-type allele is located within 12p13 and is approximately 9 kb in length. This allele, which encodes gamma-enolase protein, is involved in glycolysis. The ENO2 gene is overexpressed in certain cancers such as neuroendocrine carcinomas and small cell lung cancer.. Alzheimer's disease defined as following: Alzheimer's disease caused by mutation(s) in the APP gene, encoding amyloid-beta A4 protein. The onset of this condition typically occurs before age 65..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_46", "sentence1": "Are there web based self management strategies for chronic pain ?", "sentence2": "Fibromyalgia Symptom Reduction by Online Behavioral Self-monitoring, , This study aimed to evaluate effects of a web-based, self-monitoring and symptom management system (SMARTLog) that analyzes personal self-monitoring data and delivers data-based feedback over time., Moderate use (3 times weekly x 3 months) increased likelihood of clinically significant improvements in pain, memory, gastrointestinal problems, depression, fatigue, and concentration; heavy use (4.5 times weekly x five months) produced the above plus improvement in stiffness and sleep difficulties., Results suggest that the tailored online chronic pain management program showed promising effects on pain at 1 and 6 months posttreatment and quality of life at 6 months posttreatment in this naturalistic study., Results suggest the potential value of self-management for chronic pain patients and the potential acceptability of web-based delivery of intervention content., Patient involvement can be fostered by web-based applications combining health information with decision support or behaviour change support. These so-called Interactive Health Communication Applications (IHCAs) can reach great numbers of patients at low financial cost and provide information and support at the time, place and learning speed patients prefer., Web-based interventions may also be effective in enhancing self-management for individuals with chronic pain, but little is known about long-term effects. Research on Web-based interventions to support self-management following participation in pain management programs is limited. OBJECTIVE: The aim is to examine the long-term effects of a 4-week smartphone-intervention [SEP]Relations: Chronic pain has relations: phenotype_phenotype with Pain, phenotype_phenotype with Pain, disease_phenotype_positive with Sjogren syndrome, disease_phenotype_positive with Sjogren syndrome, disease_phenotype_positive with Loeys-Dietz syndrome, disease_phenotype_positive with Loeys-Dietz syndrome, disease_phenotype_positive with Machado-Joseph disease, disease_phenotype_positive with Machado-Joseph disease, disease_phenotype_positive with glycogen storage disease, disease_phenotype_positive with glycogen storage disease. Definitions: chronic pain defined as following: Aching sensation that persists for more than a few months. It may or may not be associated with trauma or disease, and may persist after the initial injury has healed. Its localization, character, and timing are more vague than with acute pain.. fatigue defined as following: The state of weariness following a period of exertion, mental or physical, characterized by a decreased capacity for work and reduced efficiency to respond to stimuli..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_882", "sentence1": "Is nivolumab used for treatment of Non–Small-Cell Lung Cancer?", "sentence2": "BACKGROUND: Patients with advanced squamous-cell non-small-cell lung cancer (NSCLC) who have disease progression during or after first-line chemotherapy have limited treatment options. This randomized, open-label, international, phase 3 study evaluated the efficacy and safety of nivolumab, a fully human IgG4 programmed death 1 (PD-1) immune-checkpoint-inhibitor antibody, as compared with docetaxel in this patient population., CONCLUSIONS: Among patients with advanced, previously treated squamous-cell NSCLC, overall survival, response rate, and progression-free survival were significantly better with nivolumab than with docetaxel, regardless of PD-L1 expression level., Agents currently in active clinical development for lung cancer include ipilimumab, which modulates the cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 pathway, and multiple agents targeting the programmed death protein 1 (PD-1) pathway, both anti-PD-1 compounds (nivolumab, pembrolizumab [MK-3475]) and those that target programmed death ligand 1 (PD-L1), a key ligand for PD-1 (BMS-936559, MPDL3280A)., Overall Survival and Long-Term Safety of Nivolumab (Anti-Programmed Death 1 Antibody, BMS-936558, ONO-4538) in Patients With Previously Treated Advanced Non-Small-Cell Lung Cancer., We report overall survival (OS), response durability, and long-term safety in patients with non-small-cell lung cancer (NSCLC) receiving nivolumab in this trial.PATIENTS AND METHODS: Patients (N = 129) with heavily pretreated advanced NSCLC received nivolumab 1, 3, or 10 mg/kg intravenously once every 2 weeks in 8-week cycles for up to 96 weeks. , CONCLUSION: Nivolumab monotherapy produced durable responses and encouraging survival rates in patients with heavily pretreated NSCLC. Randomized clinical trials with nivolumab in advanced NSCLC are ongoing., Two PD-1 inhibitors, Bristol-Myers Squibb's nivolumab and Merck's MK-3475, both demonstrated positive results in phase I trials of previously treated patients with non-small cell lung cancer, reported at the World Conference on Lung Cancer in Sydney, Australia., Recently, many trials addressed the role of such therapies for metastatic NSCLC treatment: ipilimumab, tremelimumab, nivolumab and lambrolizumab are immunotherapeutic agents of main interest in this field., Two PD-1 inhibitors, Bristol-Myers Squibb's nivolumab and Merck's MK-3475, both demonstrated positive results in phase I trials of previously treated patients with non-small cell lung cancer, reported at the World Conference on Lung Cancer in Sydney, Australia, Nivolumab, pembrolizumab (formerly known as MK-3475 and lambrolizumab), and pidilizumab are anti-PD-1 antibodies in clinical development for melanoma, non-small cell lung cancer, renal cell carcinoma, head and neck cancers, lymphoma, and several other cancers, Nivolumab versus Docetaxel in Advanced Squamous-Cell Non-Small-Cell Lung Cancer., Activity and safety of nivolumab, an anti-PD-1 immune checkpoint inhibitor, for patients with advanced, refractory squamous non-small-cell lung cancer (CheckMate 063): a phase 2, single-arm trial., Patients with squamous non-small-cell lung cancer that is refractory to multiple treatments have poor outcomes. We assessed the activity of nivolumab, a fully human IgG4 PD-1 immune checkpoint inhibitor antibody, for patients with advanced, refractory, squamous non-small-cell lung cancer., Nivolumab has clinically meaningful activity and a manageable safety profile in previously treated patients with advanced, refractory, squamous non-small cell lung cancer. These data support the assessment of nivolumab in randomised, controlled, phase 3 studies of first-line and second-line treatment.[SEP]Relations: Nivolumab has relations: drug_drug with Blosozumab, drug_drug with Blosozumab, drug_drug with Sifalimumab, drug_drug with Sifalimumab, drug_drug with Nimotuzumab, drug_drug with Nimotuzumab, drug_drug with Tositumomab, drug_drug with Tositumomab, drug_drug with Afelimomab, drug_drug with Afelimomab. Definitions: PD-1 defined as following: Human PDCD1 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 2q37.3 and is approximately 9 kb in length. This allele, which encodes programmed cell death protein 1, plays a role in the modulation of both apoptosis and cellular immunity. Mutation of the gene is associated with systemic lupus erythematosus type 2.. Nivolumab defined as following: A fully human immunoglobulin (Ig) G4 monoclonal antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell surface receptor programmed death-1 (PD-1, PCD-1) with immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, nivolumab binds to and blocks the activation of PD-1, an immunoglobulin superfamily (IgSF) transmembrane protein, by its ligands programmed cell death ligand 1 (PD-L1), which is overexpressed on certain cancer cells, and programmed cell death ligand 2 (PD-L2), which is primarily expressed on antigen-presenting cells (APCs). This results in the activation of T-cells and cell-mediated immune responses against tumor cells. Activated PD-1 negatively regulates T-cell activation and plays a key role in tumor evasion from host immunity.. ipilimumab defined as following: A recombinant human immunoglobulin (Ig) G1 monoclonal antibody directed against the human T-cell receptor cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 (CTLA4), with immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Ipilimumab binds to CTLA4 expressed on T-cells and inhibits the CTLA4-mediated downregulation of T-cell activation. This leads to a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL)-mediated immune response against cancer cells. CTLA4, an inhibitory receptor and member of the immunoglobulin superfamily, plays a key role in the downregulation of the immune system.. non-small cell lung cancer defined as following: A heterogeneous aggregate of at least three distinct histological types of lung cancer, including SQUAMOUS CELL CARCINOMA; ADENOCARCINOMA; and LARGE CELL CARCINOMA. They are dealt with collectively because of their shared treatment strategy.. lymphoma defined as following: A general term for various neoplastic diseases of the lymphoid tissue.. tremelimumab defined as following: A human IgG2 monoclonal antibody directed against the T-cell receptor protein cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated protein 4 (CTLA4). Tremelimumab binds to CTLA4 and blocks the binding of the antigen-presenting cell ligands B7-1 and B7-2 to CTLA4, resulting in inhibition of B7-CTLA4-mediated downregulation of T-cell activation; subsequently, B7-1 or B7-2 may interact with another T-cell surface receptor protein, CD28, resulting in a B7-CD28-mediated T-cell activation unopposed by B7-CTLA4-mediated inhibition.. renal cell carcinoma defined as following: A malignant epithelial neoplasm of the kidney characterized by the presence of lipid-containing clear cells within a vascular network. The tumor may metastasize to unusual sites and late metastasis is common.. cancers defined as following: A tumor composed of atypical neoplastic, often pleomorphic cells that invade other tissues. Malignant neoplasms often metastasize to distant anatomic sites and may recur after excision. The most common malignant neoplasms are carcinomas, Hodgkin and non-Hodgkin lymphomas, leukemias, melanomas, and sarcomas.. squamous non-small cell lung cancer defined as following: A squamous cell carcinoma that arises from the lung. It is characterized by the presence of large malignant cells. It includes the clear cell and papillary variants of squamous cell carcinoma.. PD-L1 defined as following: Human CD274 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 9p24 and is approximately 20 kb in length. This allele, which encodes programmed cell death 1 ligand 1 protein, plays a role in the regulation of T cell stimulation and proliferation.. Docetaxel defined as following: A semisynthetic analog of PACLITAXEL used in the treatment of locally advanced or metastatic BREAST NEOPLASMS and NON-SMALL CELL LUNG CANCER.. head and neck cancers defined as following: A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm affecting the head and neck. Representative examples include oral cavity squamous cell carcinoma, laryngeal squamous cell carcinoma, and salivary gland carcinoma.. melanoma defined as following: A benign or malignant, primary or metastatic neoplasm affecting the melanocytes.. lambrolizumab defined as following: A humanized monoclonal immunoglobulin (Ig) G4 antibody directed against human cell surface receptor PD-1 (programmed death-1 or programmed cell death-1) with potential immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, pembrolizumab binds to PD-1, an inhibitory signaling receptor expressed on the surface of activated T cells, and blocks the binding to and activation of PD-1 by its ligands, which results in the activation of T-cell-mediated immune responses against tumor cells. The ligands for PD-1 include programmed cell death ligand 1 (PD-L1), overexpressed on certain cancer cells, and programmed cell death ligand 2 (PD-L2), which is primarily expressed on APCs. Activated PD-1 negatively regulates T-cell activation and plays a key role in in tumor evasion from host immunity.. human defined as following: Members of the species Homo sapiens.. PD-1 inhibitors defined as following: An agent designed to interfere with the activity of programmed cell death protein 1 (PD1). PD1 inhibitors block T-cell apoptosis and act as non-specific activators of the immune system.. nivolumab defined as following: A fully human immunoglobulin (Ig) G4 monoclonal antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell surface receptor programmed death-1 (PD-1, PCD-1) with immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, nivolumab binds to and blocks the activation of PD-1, an immunoglobulin superfamily (IgSF) transmembrane protein, by its ligands programmed cell death ligand 1 (PD-L1), which is overexpressed on certain cancer cells, and programmed cell death ligand 2 (PD-L2), which is primarily expressed on antigen-presenting cells (APCs). This results in the activation of T-cells and cell-mediated immune responses against tumor cells. Activated PD-1 negatively regulates T-cell activation and plays a key role in tumor evasion from host immunity..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_4717", "sentence1": "Can parasite infections by Schistosoma japonicum prevent or improve asthma?", "sentence2": "Helminths and their products can shape immune responses by modulating immune cells, which are dysfunctional in inflammatory diseases such as asthm, Schistosoma japonicum peptide SJMHE1 suppresses airway inflammation of allergic asthma in mice., Schistosoma japonicum infection downregulates house dust mite-induced allergic airway inflammation in mice., To our knowledge, it is the first study to reveal the impact of S. japonicum infection on house dust mite induced severe asthma. More in depth investigation is need to elucidate the underlying mechanisms, Novel T-cell epitopes on Schistosoma japonicum SjP40 protein and their preventive effect on allergic asthma in mice., hese results reveal a novel form of immune protective mechanism, which may play an important role in the modulating effect of helminth infection on allergic asthmatic reactions., Using a panel of overlapping peptides, we identified T-cell epitopes on SjP40 protein of Schistosoma japonicum, which can induce Th1 cytokine and inhibit the production of Th2 cytokines and airway inflammation in a mouse model of allergic asthma., Helminths and their products can regulate immune response and offer new strategies to control and alleviate inflammation, including asthma., SJMHE1 Peptide from Schistosoma japonicum Inhibits Asthma in Mice by Regulating Th17/Treg Cell Balance via miR-155., We previously found that a peptide named as SJMHE1 from Schistosoma japonicum can suppress asthma in mice, el of overlapping peptides, we identified T-cell epitopes on SjP40 protein of Schistosoma japonicum, which can induce Th1 cytokine and inhibit the production of Th2 cytokines and airway inflammation in a mouse model of allergic asthma. These resul, has been shown that helminth infections including Schistosoma mansoni may modulate atopic diseases including asthma. I, Schistosoma japonicum infection downregulates house dust mite-induced allergic airway inflammation in mice, it is the first study to reveal the impact of S. japonicum infection on house dust mite induced severe asthma. More in depth inv, s study, we investigated the impact of Schistosoma japonicum infection on the allergic airway inflammation induced by repeated intracheal inoculations of house dust mites (HDM), which is a Th17 and neutrophils dominant murine asthma model, mimicking severe asthma. We found, Schistosoma japonicum infection showed protective effects against allergic airway inflammation (AAI)., Therefore, we hypothesize that Schistosoma japonicum egg antigens, a type of native antigen, can induce production of CD4(+) CD25(+) T cells with regulatory activity, modulating airway inflammation and inhibiting asthma development., Schistosoma japonicum infection modulates the development of allergen-induced airway inflammation in mice., It has been shown that helminth infections including Schistosoma mansoni may modulate atopic diseases including asthma., Schistosoma japonicum egg antigens stimulate CD4 CD25 T cells and modulate airway inflammation in a murine model of asthma., Most previous studies focused on understanding the preventive effect of S. japonicum infection on asthma (infection before allergen sensitization), whereas the protective effects of S. japonicum infection (allergen sensitization before infection) on asthma were rarely investigated., In conclusion, our data showed that lung-stage S. japonicum infection could relieve OVA-induced asthma in a mouse model., In this study, we investigated the protective effects of S. japonicum infection on AAI using a mouse model of OVA-induced asthma., prior to OVA immunization. These results suggest that both bisexual and male S. japonicum infections may modulate the development of allergic asthma., aponicum, which can induce Th1 cytokine and inhibit the production of Th2 cytokines and airway inflammation in a mouse model of allergic asthma. These, ve found that Schistosoma infection or Schistosoma related products can improve or prevent some immune and inflammatory diseases, such as severe asthm, Our findings indicated that S. japonicum infection was able to effectively inhibit host's allergic airway inflammation, which may be related to the upregulated Treg cells upon infection., These results suggest that both bisexual and male S. japonicum infections may modulate the development of allergic asthma., We found that lung-stage S. japonicum infection significantly ameliorated OVA-induced AAI, whereas post-lung-stage infection did not., In a murine model of asthma, S. japonicum egg antigens decreased the expression of Th2 cytokines, relieved antigen-induced airway inflammation, and inhibited asthma development., We found that S. japonicum infection downregulated airway hyperresponsiveness., However, in recent years, studies have found that Schistosoma infection or Schistosoma related products can improve or prevent some immune and inflammatory diseases, such as severe asthma, inflammatory bowel disease, diabetes and so on., In areas where schistosomiasis is endemic, a negative correlation is observed between atopy and helminth infection, associated with a low prevalence of asthma.[SEP]Relations: Schistosoma japonicum infectious disease has relations: disease_disease with schistosomiasis, disease_disease with schistosomiasis. schistosomiasis has relations: disease_disease with Schistosoma japonicum infectious disease, disease_disease with Schistosoma japonicum infectious disease, disease_disease with Schistosoma japonicum infectious disease, disease_disease with Schistosoma japonicum infectious disease, disease_disease with Schistosoma intercalatum infectious disease, disease_disease with Schistosoma intercalatum infectious disease, disease_disease with Schistosoma intercalatum infectious disease, disease_disease with Schistosoma intercalatum infectious disease. Definitions: Treg cells defined as following: CD4-positive T cells that inhibit immunopathology or autoimmune disease in vivo. They inhibit the immune response by influencing the activity of other cell types. Regulatory T-cells include naturally occurring CD4+CD25+ cells, IL-10 secreting Tr1 cells, and Th3 cells.. inflammation defined as following: A pathological process characterized by injury or destruction of tissues caused by a variety of cytologic and chemical reactions. It is usually manifested by typical signs of pain, heat, redness, swelling, and loss of function.. helminth infection defined as following: Infestation with parasitic worms of the helminth class.. atopy defined as following: Human MS4A2 wild-type allele is located within 11q12-q13 and is approximately 10 kb in length. This allele, which encodes high affinity immunoglobulin epsilon receptor subunit beta protein, plays a role in both immunoglobulin binding and mast cell responses.. Helminths defined as following: Commonly known as parasitic worms, this group includes the ACANTHOCEPHALA; NEMATODA; and PLATYHELMINTHS. Some authors consider certain species of LEECHES that can become temporarily parasitic as helminths.. peptide defined as following: Members of the class of compounds composed of AMINO ACIDS joined together by peptide bonds between adjacent amino acids into linear, branched or cyclical structures. OLIGOPEPTIDES are composed of approximately 2-12 amino acids. Polypeptides are composed of approximately 13 or more amino acids. PROTEINS are considered to be larger versions of peptides that can form into complex structures such as ENZYMES and RECEPTORS.. antigen defined as following: Substances that are recognized by the immune system and induce an immune reaction.. murine defined as following: Any of numerous species of small rodents belonging to the genus Mus and various related genera of the family Muridae.. schistosomiasis defined as following: Infection with flukes (trematodes) of the genus SCHISTOSOMA. Three species produce the most frequent clinical diseases: SCHISTOSOMA HAEMATOBIUM (endemic in Africa and the Middle East), SCHISTOSOMA MANSONI (in Egypt, northern and southern Africa, some West Indies islands, northern 2/3 of South America), and SCHISTOSOMA JAPONICUM (in Japan, China, the Philippines, Celebes, Thailand, Laos). S. mansoni is often seen in Puerto Ricans living in the United States.. Schistosoma mansoni defined as following: A species of trematode blood flukes of the family Schistosomatidae. It is common in the Nile delta. The intermediate host is the planorbid snail. This parasite causes schistosomiasis mansoni and intestinal bilharziasis.. diabetes defined as following: A heterogeneous group of disorders characterized by HYPERGLYCEMIA and GLUCOSE INTOLERANCE.. asthma defined as following: A form of bronchial disorder with three distinct components: airway hyper-responsiveness (RESPIRATORY HYPERSENSITIVITY), airway INFLAMMATION, and intermittent AIRWAY OBSTRUCTION. It is characterized by spasmodic contraction of airway smooth muscle, WHEEZING, and dyspnea (DYSPNEA, PAROXYSMAL).. neutrophils defined as following: Granular leukocytes having a nucleus with three to five lobes connected by slender threads of chromatin, and cytoplasm containing fine inconspicuous granules and stainable by neutral dyes.. Schistosoma japonicum infection defined as following: Schistosomiasis caused by Schistosoma japonicum. It is endemic in the ASIA, EASTERN and affects the bowel, liver, and spleen.. Schistosoma japonicum defined as following: A species of trematode blood flukes belonging to the family Schistosomatidae whose distribution is confined to areas of the ASIA, EASTERN. The intermediate host is a snail. It occurs in man and other mammals.. infection defined as following: An illness caused by an infectious agent or its toxins that occurs through the direct or indirect transmission of the infectious agent or its products from an infected individual or via an animal, vector or the inanimate environment to a susceptible animal or human host.. T-cell defined as following: Lymphocytes responsible for cell-mediated immunity. Two types have been identified - cytotoxic (T-LYMPHOCYTES, CYTOTOXIC) and helper T-lymphocytes (T-LYMPHOCYTES, HELPER-INDUCER). They are formed when lymphocytes circulate through the THYMUS GLAND and differentiate to thymocytes. When exposed to an antigen, they divide rapidly and produce large numbers of new T cells sensitized to that antigen.. OVA defined as following: A mature haploid female germ cell extruded from the OVARY at OVULATION..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_3552", "sentence1": "Is the BAGEL algorithm used for arrayed CRISPR screens?", "sentence2": "BAGEL: a computational framework for identifying essential genes from pooled library screens., The adaptation of the CRISPR-Cas9 system to pooled library gene knockout screens in mammalian cells represents a major technological leap over RNA interference, the prior state of the art. New methods for analyzing the data and evaluating results are needed.RESULTS: We offer BAGEL (Bayesian Analysis of Gene EssentiaLity), a supervised learning method for analyzing gene knockout screens. Coupled with gold-standard reference sets of essential and nonessential genes, BAGEL offers significantly greater sensitivity than current methods, while computational optimizations reduce runtime by an order of magnitude.CONCLUSIONS: Using BAGEL, we identify ~2000 fitness genes in pooled library knockout screens in human cell lines at 5 % FDR, a major advance over competing platforms. BAGEL shows high sensitivity and specificity even across screens performed by different labs using different libraries and reagents., CONCLUSIONS\n\nUsing BAGEL, we identify ~2000 fitness genes in pooled library knockout screens in human cell lines at 5 % FDR, a major advance over competing platforms., BAGEL: a computational framework for identifying essential genes from pooled library screens, CONCLUSIONS\nUsing BAGEL, we identify ~2000 fitness genes in pooled library knockout screens in human cell lines at 5 % FDR, a major advance over competing platforms., CONCLUSIONS: Using BAGEL, we identify ~2000 fitness genes in pooled library knockout screens in human cell lines at 5 % FDR, a major advance over competing platforms., Conclusions Using BAGEL, we identify ~2000 fitness genes in pooled library knockout screens in human cell lines at 5 % FDR, a major advance over competing platforms.[SEP]Definitions: reagents defined as following: Any natural or synthetic substance used in a chemical or biological reaction in order to produce, identify, or measure another substance.. RNA defined as following: A polynucleotide consisting essentially of chains with a repeating backbone of phosphate and ribose units to which nitrogenous bases are attached. RNA is unique among biological macromolecules in that it can encode genetic information, serve as an abundant structural component of cells, and also possesses catalytic activity. (Rieger et al., Glossary of Genetics: Classical and Molecular, 5th ed). genes defined as following: A category of nucleic acid sequences that function as units of heredity and which code for the basic instructions for the development, reproduction, and maintenance of organisms..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_3399", "sentence1": "Does CXorf21 escape X chromosome inactivation?", "sentence2": "This revealed a 637-kb tandem duplication that in addition to DAX1 includes the four MAGEB genes, the hypothetical gene CXorf21, GK, and part of the MAP3K7IP3 gene, Among statin users, diabetes cases had marginal but insignificantly different expression of ZNF532 (up-regulated 15%, Q-value=0.0584), CXORF21 (up-regulated 11%, Q-value=0.0584), and ZNHIT3 (up-regulated 19%, Q-value=0.0959), compared with controls., For this, we selected five SNPs (rs1801274 in FCGR2A and rs2286672 in PLD2, rs887369 in CXorf21, rs9782955 in LYST, and rs3794060 in NADSYN1), Examination of X-linked DEGs, such as GTPBP6, TAF9L, and CXORF21, that show verbal cognition-gene expression correlations may establish a causal link between these genes, neurodevelopment, and language function.[SEP]Relations: ZNHIT3 has relations: protein_protein with XRCC3, protein_protein with XRCC3, bioprocess_protein with box C/D snoRNP assembly, bioprocess_protein with box C/D snoRNP assembly. NADSYN1 has relations: protein_protein with NOXA1, protein_protein with NOXA1, anatomy_protein_absent with cerebellar vermis, anatomy_protein_absent with cerebellar vermis. Protein S human has relations: drug_drug with Coagulation Factor IX (Recombinant), drug_drug with Coagulation Factor IX (Recombinant). Definitions: ZNF532 defined as following: Zinc finger protein 532 (1301 aa, ~142 kDa) is encoded by the human ZNF532 gene. This protein is involved in transcriptional regulation and DNA binding.. DAX1 defined as following: Human NR0B1 wild-type allele is located within Xp21.3-p21.2 and is approximately 5 kb in length. This allele, which encodes nuclear receptor subfamily 0 group B member 1 protein, is involved in the regulation of both transcription and receptor-mediated signal transduction. Mutations in the gene are associated with both X-linked congenital adrenal hypoplasia and hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. A duplication part of the short arm of the X chromosome, which contains this gene, in XY individuals is linked to dosage-sensitive sex reversal.. SNPs defined as following: A single nucleotide variation in a genetic sequence that occurs at appreciable frequency in the population.. GK defined as following: Catalysis of the reaction: ATP + glycerol = sn-glycerol 3-phosphate + ADP + 2 H(+). [EC:2.7.1.30, RHEA:21644]. FCGR2A defined as following: Low affinity immunoglobulin gamma Fc region receptor II-a (317 aa, ~35 kDa) is encoded by the human FCGR2A gene. This protein plays a role in the endocytosis of opsonized antigens.. LYST defined as following: Human LYST wild-type allele is located within 1q42.1-q42.2 and is approximately 223 kb in length. This allele, which encodes lysosomal-trafficking regulator protein, plays a role in the modulation of intracellular protein sorting. Mutations in the gene are associated with Chediak-Higashi syndrome.. diabetes defined as following: A heterogeneous group of disorders characterized by HYPERGLYCEMIA and GLUCOSE INTOLERANCE.. genes defined as following: A category of nucleic acid sequences that function as units of heredity and which code for the basic instructions for the development, reproduction, and maintenance of organisms..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_784", "sentence1": "Can NXY-059 be used for treatment of acute ischemic stroke patients?", "sentence2": "Even when the international recommendations for preclinical stroke research, the Stroke Academic Industry Roundtable (STAIR) criteria, were followed, we have still seen limited success in the clinic, examples being NXY-059 and haematopoietic growth factors which fulfilled nearly all the STAIR criteria, This occurred during 1993-2006, when the 2,4-disulfonylphenyl PBN derivative, called NXY-059 in the stroke studies, was shown to be safe in humans and was taken all the way through clinical phase 3 trials and then was deemed to be ineffective. , The nitrone-based compound NXY-059, which is the first drug to reach clinical trials for the treatment of acute ischemic stroke, has provided promise for the development of more robust pharmacological agents. , OKN-007 is a proprietary compound that has had extensive commercial development (designated as NXY-059) for another indication, acute ischemic stroke, and after extensive clinical studies was shown to lack efficacy for this indication but was shown to be very safe for human use. , NXY-059, a polar compound with limited transport across the blood-brain barrier, has demonstrated neuroprotection in several animal models of acute ischemic stroke but failed to confirm clinical benefit in the second phase III trial (SAINT-II)., NXY-059 is no longer in development following a lack of efficacy found in a Phase III trial in patients with acute ischemic stroke. , We analyzed the quality and adequacy of animal studies supporting the efficacy of NXY-059 and other neuroprotective agents that are currently being investigated in phase II/III trials, In the aftermath of the failed stroke clinical trials with the nitrone spin trap/radical scavenger, NXY-059, a number of articles raised the question: are we doing the right thing? , In 2006, the first positive trial of neuroprotection was published: the SAINT I (Stroke-Acute Ischemic NXY Treatment) study. In February 2008, the SAINT II study was published, indicating that NXY-059 was not effective for AIS treatment., CONCLUSIONS: NXY-059 is ineffective for treatment of AIS within 6 hours of symptom onset. , BACKGROUND AND PURPOSE: The SAINT I trial that showed a significant benefit of the neuroprotectant NXY-059 used a novel outcome for acute ischemic stroke trials: a shift toward good functional outcome on the 7-category modified Rankin scale (mRS)., BACKGROUND: The free-radical-trapping agent NXY-059 showed promise as a neuroprotectant in the Stroke-Acute Ischemic NXY Treatment I (SAINT I) trial, reducing disability when given to patients who had acute ischemic stroke. , CONCLUSIONS: NXY-059 is ineffective for the treatment of acute ischemic stroke within 6 hours after the onset of symptoms., The continued failure in approving new drugs for treatment of acute stroke has been recently set back by the failure of the NXY-059 (Stroke-Acute Ischemic NXY Treatment (SAINT) II) trial., The SAINT II Trial, a large randomized multicenter clinical trial of the putative neuroprotectant, NXY-059, failed to demonstrate a treatment benefit in acute ischemic stroke. , The positive results from the first Stroke-Acute-Ischaemic-NXY-Treatment (SAINT-I) trial of the free-radical spin-trap drug, NXY-059, which followed many of the STAIR guidelines, reinvigorated enthusiasm in neuroprotection, but the SAINT-II trial did not replicate the positive effect on the same primary prespecified outcome measure. , NXY-059, a free radical spin trap agent, was felt by many to have followed these criteria and it was recently shown to improve outcome in AIS patients in the SAINT I trial. However, the repeat, SAINT II trial was a neutral study, the results of which cast doubt on neuroprotection as a viable strategy for AIS. , NXY-059 is a novel free radical-trapping neuroprotectant that reduces infarct size and preserves brain function in animal models of acute ischemic stroke. It is the first neuroprotectant to demonstrate a reduction in global disability in a phase III clinical trial, as measured by the modified Rankin Scale., BACKGROUND AND PURPOSE: NXY-059 is a free radical-trapping neuroprotectant demonstrated to reduce disability from ischemic stroke., CONCLUSIONS: NXY-059 within 6 hours of acute ischemic stroke significantly reduced disability. , CONCLUSIONS: The administration of NXY-059 within six hours after the onset of acute ischemic stroke significantly improved the primary outcome (reduced disability at 90 days), but it did not significantly improve other outcome measures, including neurologic functioning as measured by the NIHSS score. Additional research is needed to confirm whether NXY-059 is beneficial in ischemic stroke. , BACKGROUND: The free-radical-trapping agent NXY-059 showed promise as a neuroprotectant in the Stroke-Acute Ischemic NXY Treatment I (SAINT I) trial, reducing disability when given to patients who had acute ischemic stroke., NXY-059 is no longer in development following a lack of efficacy found in a Phase III trial in patients with acute ischemic stroke., The free-radical-trapping agent NXY-059 showed promise as a neuroprotectant in the Stroke-Acute Ischemic NXY Treatment I (SAINT I) trial, reducing disability when given to patients who had acute ischemic stroke, The continued failure in approving new drugs for treatment of acute stroke has been recently set back by the failure of the NXY-059 (Stroke-Acute Ischemic NXY Treatment (SAINT) II) trial[SEP]Relations: Ischemic stroke has relations: drug_effect with Naltrexone, drug_effect with Naltrexone, drug_effect with Naltrexone, drug_effect with Naltrexone, disease_phenotype_positive with stroke disorder, disease_phenotype_positive with stroke disorder, disease_phenotype_positive with stroke disorder, disease_phenotype_positive with stroke disorder, drug_effect with Ramipril, drug_effect with Ramipril. Definitions: drug defined as following: Any natural, endogenously-derived, synthetic or semi-synthetic compound with pharmacologic activity. A pharmacologic substance has one or more specific mechanism of action(s) through which it exerts one or more effect(s) on the human or animal body. They can be used to potentially prevent, diagnose, treat or relieve symptoms of a disease. Formulation specific agents and some combination agents are also classified as pharmacologic substances.. humans defined as following: Members of the species Homo sapiens.. OKN-007 defined as following: A disulfonyl derivative of phenyl-tert-butyl nitrone (PBN), with potential anti-glioma activity. Although the exact mechanism(s) of action of OKN007 are still largely unknown, this agent appears to inhibit cancer cell proliferation and migration. This agent appears to inhibit the activity of sulfatase 2 (SULF2), a highly specific endoglucosamine-6-sulfatase that is overexpressed in the extracellular matrix of cancer cells and catalyzes the removal of sulfate from the 6-O-sulfate esters of heparin. In addition, OKN007 may induce changes in tumor metabolism and scavenge free radicals. Check for \"https://www.cancer.gov/about-cancer/treatment/clinical-trials/intervention/C102983\" active clinical trials using this agent. (\"http://ncit.nci.nih.gov/ncitbrowser/ConceptReport.jsp?dictionary=NCI%20Thesaurus&code=C102983\" NCI Thesaurus). ischemic stroke defined as following: An acute episode of focal cerebral, spinal, or retinal dysfunction caused by infarction of brain tissue.. stroke defined as following: A group of pathological conditions characterized by sudden, non-convulsive loss of neurological function due to BRAIN ISCHEMIA or INTRACRANIAL HEMORRHAGES. Stroke is classified by the type of tissue NECROSIS, such as the anatomic location, vasculature involved, etiology, age of the affected individual, and hemorrhagic vs. non-hemorrhagic nature. (From Adams et al., Principles of Neurology, 6th ed, pp777-810).", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_3290", "sentence1": "Are ICAMS, Intracellular Adhesion Molecules, part of the immunoglobulin superfamily?", "sentence2": "It has now been shown that adhesion molecules, particularly those of the immunoglobulin super family (e.g. ICAM-1, VCAM-1 and PECAM-1),, Intercellular adhesion molecule 3 (ICAM-3, also known as CD50), a human leukocyte-restricted immunoglobulin super-family (IgSF) member, has previously been implicated in apoptotic cell clearance,, Intercellular adhesion molecule-1 (ICAM-1), vascular cell adhesion molecule-1 (VCAM-1) and platelet-endothelial cell adhesion molecule-1 (PECAM-1) are members of the immunoglobulin super-family which are present on the surface of endothelial cells., Intracellular adhesion molecule 1 (ICAM-1) is an adhesion-related molecule belonging to the immunoglobulin superfamily., Immunologically important integrin ligands are the intercellular adhesion molecules (ICAMs), immunoglobulin superfamily members present on inflamed endothelium and antigen-presenting cells., The intercellular adhesion molecules (ICAMs) are members of the immunoglobulin superfamily and have been identified to play major roles in inflammation and immune responses., The intercellular adhesion molecules (ICAMs) are members of the immunoglobulin superfamily and have been identified to play major roles in inflammation and immune responses., ICAM-1 is a member of immunoglobulin-like superfamily of adhesion molecules that binds LFA-1 to mediate leukocytes adhesion and migration., Immunologically important integrin ligands are the intercellular adhesion molecules (ICAMs), immunoglobulin superfamily members present on inflamed endothelium and antigen-presenting cells., The immunoglobulin superfamily includes leukocyte function antigen-2 (LFA-2 or CD2), leukocyte function antigen-3 (LFA-3 or CD58), intercellular adhesion molecules (ICAMs), vascular adhesion molecule-1 (VCAM-1), platelet-endothelial cell adhesion molecule-1 (PE-CAM-1), and mucosal addressin cell adhesion molecule-1 (MAdCAM-1)., The main ligand binding site of LFA-1 is the I-domain, which recognizes intercellular adhesion molecules (ICAMs), members of the immunoglobulin superfamily., Intercellular adhesion molecules (ICAMs) are structurally related members of the immunoglobulin supergene family and are ligands for the beta2 integrin molecules present on leukocytes., Intercellular adhesion molecules (ICAMs) belong to the immunoglobulin superfamily and participate in diverse cellular processes including host-pathogen interactions., Members of the immunoglobulin superfamily of endothelial adhesion molecules, vascular cell adhesion molecule (VCAM-1) and intercellular cell adhesion molecule (ICAM-1), participate in leukocyte adhesion to the endothelium and play an important role in all stages of atherosclerosis., Members of the immunoglobulin superfamily of endothelial adhesion molecules, vascular cell adhesion molecule (VCAM-1) and intercellular cell adhesion molecule (ICAM- 1), strongly participate in leukocyte adhesion to the endothelium and play an important role in all stages of atherogenesis., Intercellular adhesion molecule-3 (ICAM-3, CD50), a member of the immunoglobulin gene superfamily, is a major ligand for the lymphocyte function-associated antigen 1 (LFA-1, CD18/CD11a) in the resting immune system and plays a role as a signaling and costimulatory molecule on T lymphocytes., Expression of the immunoglobulin superfamily molecules MUC18/MCAM and ICAM-1 are associated with primary tumors and metastases.[SEP]Relations: heterophilic cell-cell adhesion via plasma membrane cell adhesion molecules has relations: bioprocess_protein with ICAM1, bioprocess_protein with ICAM1. alpha9-beta1 integrin-vascular cell adhesion molecule-1 complex has relations: cellcomp_protein with VCAM1, cellcomp_protein with VCAM1. integrin binding has relations: molfunc_protein with ICAM3, molfunc_protein with ICAM3, molfunc_protein with ICAM2, molfunc_protein with ICAM2. cell surface has relations: cellcomp_protein with ICAM1, cellcomp_protein with ICAM1. Definitions: VCAM-1 defined as following: Cytokine-induced cell adhesion molecule present on activated endothelial cells, tissue macrophages, dendritic cells, bone marrow fibroblasts, myoblasts, and myotubes. It is important for the recruitment of leukocytes to sites of inflammation. (From Pigott & Power, The Adhesion Molecule FactsBook, 1993, p154). atherosclerosis defined as following: Thickening and loss of elasticity of the walls of ARTERIES of all sizes. There are many forms classified by the types of lesions and arteries involved, such as ATHEROSCLEROSIS with fatty lesions in the ARTERIAL INTIMA of medium and large muscular arteries.. inflammation defined as following: A pathological process characterized by injury or destruction of tissues caused by a variety of cytologic and chemical reactions. It is usually manifested by typical signs of pain, heat, redness, swelling, and loss of function.. antigen-presenting cells defined as following: A heterogeneous group of immunocompetent cells that mediate the cellular immune response by processing and presenting antigens to the T-cells. Traditional antigen-presenting cells include MACROPHAGES; DENDRITIC CELLS; LANGERHANS CELLS; and B-LYMPHOCYTES. FOLLICULAR DENDRITIC CELLS are not traditional antigen-presenting cells, but because they hold antigen on their cell surface in the form of IMMUNE COMPLEXES for B-cell recognition they are considered so by some authors.. LFA-1 defined as following: An integrin heterodimer widely expressed on cells of hematopoietic origin. CD11A ANTIGEN comprises the alpha chain and the CD18 antigen (CD18 ANTIGENS) the beta chain. Lymphocyte function-associated antigen-1 is a major receptor of T-CELLS; B-CELLS; and GRANULOCYTES. It mediates the leukocyte adhesion reactions underlying cytolytic conjugate formation, helper T-cell interactions, and antibody-dependent killing by NATURAL KILLER CELLS and granulocytes. Intracellular adhesion molecule-1 has been defined as a ligand for lymphocyte function-associated antigen-1.. endothelium defined as following: A layer of epithelium that lines the heart, blood vessels (ENDOTHELIUM, VASCULAR), lymph vessels (ENDOTHELIUM, LYMPHATIC), and the serous cavities of the body.. LFA-3 defined as following: Lymphocyte function-associated antigen 3 (250 aa, ~28 kDa) is encoded by the human CD58 gene. This protein is involved in the adhesion and activation of T-lymphocytes.. Intercellular adhesion molecule 3 defined as following: A membrane glycoprotein and cell adhesion molecule expressed by LEUKOCYTES that contains multiple Ig-like domains. It is a ligand for LFA-1 (integrin alphaLbeta2) and integrin alpha-D/beta-2. Its interaction with LFA-1 may play a role in the PHAGOCYTOSIS of NEUTROPHILS by MACROPHAGES following APOPTOSIS.. primary tumors defined as following: A tumor at the original site of origin.. ICAM-1 defined as following: A cell-surface ligand involved in leukocyte adhesion and inflammation. Its production is induced by gamma-interferon and it is required for neutrophil migration into inflamed tissue.. LFA-2 defined as following: Human CD2 wild-type allele is located within 1p13 and is approximately 15 kb in length. This allele, which encodes T-cell surface antigen CD2, plays a role in immune recognition and facilitates helper T lymphocyte contact with antigen-presenting cells.. MAdCAM-1 defined as following: Mucosal addressin cell adhesion molecule 1 (382 aa, ~40 kDa) is encoded by the human MADCAM1 gene. This protein plays a role in both lymphocyte migration and integrin-mediated cell adhesion.. PECAM-1 defined as following: Platelet endothelial cell adhesion molecule (738 aa, ~83 kDa) is encoded by the human PECAM1 gene. This protein is involved in leukocyte transendothelial migration and angiogenesis.. CD2 defined as following: Glycoprotein members of the immunoglobulin superfamily which participate in T-cell adhesion and activation. They are expressed on most peripheral T-lymphocytes, natural killer cells, and thymocytes, and function as co-receptors or accessory molecules in the T-cell receptor complex.. T lymphocytes defined as following: Lymphocytes responsible for cell-mediated immunity. Two types have been identified - cytotoxic (T-LYMPHOCYTES, CYTOTOXIC) and helper T-lymphocytes (T-LYMPHOCYTES, HELPER-INDUCER). They are formed when lymphocytes circulate through the THYMUS GLAND and differentiate to thymocytes. When exposed to an antigen, they divide rapidly and produce large numbers of new T cells sensitized to that antigen.. integrin defined as following: A family of transmembrane glycoproteins (MEMBRANE GLYCOPROTEINS) consisting of noncovalent heterodimers. They interact with a wide variety of ligands including EXTRACELLULAR MATRIX PROTEINS; COMPLEMENT, and other cells, while their intracellular domains interact with the CYTOSKELETON. The integrins consist of at least three identified families: the cytoadhesin receptors (RECEPTORS, CYTOADHESIN), the leukocyte adhesion receptors (RECEPTORS, LEUKOCYTE ADHESION), and the VERY LATE ANTIGEN RECEPTORS. Each family contains a common beta-subunit (INTEGRIN BETA CHAINS) combined with one or more distinct alpha-subunits (INTEGRIN ALPHA CHAINS). These receptors participate in cell-matrix and cell-cell adhesion in many physiologically important processes, including embryological development; HEMOSTASIS; THROMBOSIS; WOUND HEALING; immune and nonimmune defense mechanisms; and oncogenic transformation.. surface defined as following: The extended two-dimensional outer boundary of a three-dimensional object.. endothelial cells defined as following: Highly specialized EPITHELIAL CELLS that line the HEART; BLOOD VESSELS; and lymph vessels, forming the ENDOTHELIUM. They are polygonal in shape and joined together by TIGHT JUNCTIONS. The tight junctions allow for variable permeability to specific macromolecules that are transported across the endothelial layer..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_1372", "sentence1": "Does nimotuzumab improve survival of glioblastoma patients?", "sentence2": "The survival times were similar to those seen in historical data of standard therapy., The survival time of a matched population treated at the same hospital with irradiation alone was decreased (median 8.0 and 12.2 mo for GBM and AA patients, respectively) compared with that of the patients who received nimotuzumab and curative-intent radiotherapy., This study, in a poor prognosis population, validates the previous data of survival gain after combining nimotuzumab and radiotherapy, in newly diagnosed high-grade glioma patients., The mean and median survival time for subjects treated with nimotuzumab was 31.06 and 17.76 vs. 21.07 and 12.63 months for the control group. CONCLUSIONS: In this randomized trial, nimotuzumab showed an excellent safety profile and significant survival benefit in combination with irradiation., Nimotuzumab was well-tolerated and treatment with the antibody yielded a survival benefit: median survival time was 32.66 mo and the 2-y survival rate was 54.2%. This study demonstrated the feasibility of prolonged administration of nimotuzumab and showed preliminary evidence of clinical benefit in HGG patients with poor prognosis., Recent clinical studies show that patients with malignant gliomas could benefit from nimotuzumab treatment., CONCLUSIONS: Nimotuzumab in combination with chemotherapy has moderate activity in patients with malignant gliomas and the toxicities are well tolerable, therefore, worth further investigation., It has been evaluated in malignant brain tumors in adults and children, and shown to be therapeutically safe and effective in terms of increased survival and improved quality of life. , Conclusions As used in this study, nimotuzumab demonstrated a broad safety profile, making it acceptable for chronic use, and implied clinical benefits in terms of increased survival and improved functional status in these patients, compared to findings described in the literature. , Nimotuzumab prolongs survival in patients with malignant gliomas: A phase I/II clinical study of concomitant radiochemotherapy with or without nimotuzumab., Conclusions As used in this study, nimotuzumab demonstrated a broad safety profile, making it acceptable for chronic use, and implied clinical benefits in terms of increased survival and improved functional status in these patients, compared to findings described in the literature., This study, in a poor prognosis population, validates the previous data of survival gain after combining nimotuzumab and radiotherapy, in newly diagnosed high-grade glioma patients, Conclusions As used in this study, nimotuzumab demonstrated a broad safety profile, making it acceptable for chronic use, and implied clinical benefits in terms of increased survival and improved functional status in these patients, compared to findings described in the literature, A multicenter exploratory study combining nimotuzumab and radiotherapy showed disease control and an overall patient survival similar to previous experiences along with an improvement in the quality of patient survival and no severe side effects., Combining craniospinal irradiation (CSI) with concurrent temozolomide and nimotuzumab therapy may slightly improve tumor control and overall survival[SEP]Relations: Nimotuzumab has relations: drug_drug with Afelimomab, drug_drug with Afelimomab, drug_drug with Nemolizumab, drug_drug with Nemolizumab, drug_drug with Eculizumab, drug_drug with Eculizumab, drug_drug with Obiltoxaximab, drug_drug with Obiltoxaximab, drug_drug with Visilizumab, drug_drug with Visilizumab. Definitions: malignant gliomas defined as following: A grade 3 or grade 4 glioma arising from the central nervous system. This category includes glioblastoma, anaplastic astrocytoma, anaplastic ependymoma, anaplastic oligodendroglioma, and anaplastic oligoastrocytoma.. GBM defined as following: A sheet of amorphous extracellular material upon which the basal surfaces of epithelial cells rest and is the covering surface of a glomerular capillary, interposed between the cellular elements and the underlying connective tissue.. nimotuzumab defined as following: A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) with potential antineoplastic activity. Nimotuzumab binds to and inhibits EGFR, resulting in growth inhibition of tumor cells that overexpress EGFR. This agent may act synergistically with radiation therapy.. AA defined as following: A rare autosomal dominant inherited chorioretinal degenerative disease presenting at birth or during infancy. The disease has characteristics of progressive bilateral retinal and choroidal atrophy which appears as lesions on the optic nerve and peripheral ocular fundus and leads to loss of central vision. Congenital anterior polar cataracts are sometimes associated with this disease. There is evidence this disease is caused by heterozygous mutation in the TEA domain family member-1 gene (TEAD1) on chromosome 11p15.. temozolomide defined as following: A dacarbazine derivative that is used as an alkylating antineoplastic agent for the treatment of MALIGNANT GLIOMA and MALIGNANT MELANOMA.. antibody defined as following: A protein complex that in its canonical form is composed of two identical immunoglobulin heavy chains and two identical immunoglobulin light chains, held together by disulfide bonds and sometimes complexed with additional proteins. An immunoglobulin complex may be embedded in the plasma membrane or present in the extracellular space, in mucosal areas or other tissues, or circulating in the blood or lymph. [GOC:add, GOC:jl, ISBN:0781765196]. toxicities defined as following: The finding of bodily harm due to the poisonous effects of something.. malignant brain tumors defined as following: A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm affecting the brain.. glioblastoma defined as following: The most malignant astrocytic tumor (WHO grade 4). It is composed of poorly differentiated neoplastic astrocytes and is characterized by the presence of cellular polymorphism, nuclear atypia, brisk mitotic activity, vascular thrombosis, microvascular proliferation, and necrosis. It typically affects adults and is preferentially located in the cerebral hemispheres. (Adapted from WHO).", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_4546", "sentence1": "Is METTL1 overexpression associated with better patient survival?", "sentence2": " Here we find METTL1 is frequently amplified and overexpressed in cancers and is associated with poor patient survival. METTL1 depletion causes decreased abundance of m7G-modified tRNAs and altered cell cycle and inhibits oncogenicity. Conversely, METTL1 overexpression induces oncogenic cell transformation and cancer. [SEP]Relations: METTL1 has relations: protein_protein with MAX, protein_protein with MAX, anatomy_protein_present with heart, anatomy_protein_present with heart, anatomy_protein_present with colon, anatomy_protein_present with colon, anatomy_protein_present with lung, anatomy_protein_present with lung, anatomy_protein_present with brain, anatomy_protein_present with brain. Definitions: cancers defined as following: A tumor composed of atypical neoplastic, often pleomorphic cells that invade other tissues. Malignant neoplasms often metastasize to distant anatomic sites and may recur after excision. The most common malignant neoplasms are carcinomas, Hodgkin and non-Hodgkin lymphomas, leukemias, melanomas, and sarcomas.. cancer defined as following: A malignant tumor at the original site of growth..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_4600", "sentence1": "Is NfL (neurofilament light chain) a biomarker of neurodegeneration?", "sentence2": "Neurofilament light chain (NfL) has recently been proposed as a promising biomarker in frontotemporal dementia (FTD). , Neurofilament light chain (NfL) is a new, non-disease specific, widely studied biomarker indicative of axonal injury and degeneration, the neurodegeneration biomarker neurofilament light chain (NfL) , bNfL can be used as a potential biomarker to predict disease onset, severity, and progression of genetic ataxia., Neurofilament light chain protein (NfL) is a promising biomarker of neurodegeneration.[SEP]Relations: Frontotemporal dementia has relations: disease_phenotype_positive with PRKAR1B-related neurodegenerative dementia with intermediate filaments, disease_phenotype_positive with PRKAR1B-related neurodegenerative dementia with intermediate filaments, disease_phenotype_positive with frontotemporal dementia with motor neuron disease, disease_phenotype_positive with frontotemporal dementia with motor neuron disease. Protein S human has relations: drug_drug with Nefazodone, drug_drug with Nefazodone, drug_drug with Phenylbutazone, drug_drug with Phenylbutazone, drug_drug with Flurbiprofen axetil, drug_drug with Flurbiprofen axetil. Definitions: NfL defined as following: Human NEFL wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 8p21 and is approximately 6 kb in length. This allele, which encodes neurofilament light polypeptide protein, plays a role in both the establishment and maintenance of axonal and dendritic structures. Mutation of the gene is associated with Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease types 1F and 2E.. Neurofilament light chain defined as following: Neurofilament light polypeptide (543 aa, ~62 kDa) is encoded by the human NEFL gene. This protein is involved in the modulation of neuronal structure.. neurodegeneration defined as following: Loss of functional activity and trophic degeneration of nerve axons and their terminal arborizations following the destruction of their cells of origin or interruption of their continuity with these cells. The pathology is characteristic of neurodegenerative diseases. Often the process of nerve degeneration is studied in research on neuroanatomical localization and correlation of the neurophysiology of neural pathways.. FTD defined as following: The most common clinical form of FRONTOTEMPORAL LOBAR DEGENERATION, this dementia presents with personality and behavioral changes often associated with disinhibition, apathy, and lack of insight.. neurofilament light chain defined as following: This gene is involved in the structure of neuronal processes..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_1843", "sentence1": "Are deletions of chromosomal regulatory boundaries associated with congenital disease?", "sentence2": "Deletions of chromosomal regulatory boundaries are associated with congenital disease., Our results suggest that enhancer adoption caused by deletions of regulatory boundaries may contribute to a substantial minority of copy-number variation phenotypes and should thus be taken into account in their medical interpretation, Deletions of chromosomal regulatory boundaries are associated with congenital disease, Deletions of chromosomal regulatory boundaries are associated with congenital disease.[SEP]Relations: congenital nervous system disorder has relations: disease_disease with chromosome 18q deletion syndrome, disease_disease with chromosome 18q deletion syndrome, disease_disease with chromosome 1p36 deletion syndrome, disease_disease with chromosome 1p36 deletion syndrome, disease_disease with chromosome 5q12 deletion syndrome, disease_disease with chromosome 5q12 deletion syndrome, disease_disease with chromosome 19p13.13 deletion syndrome, disease_disease with chromosome 19p13.13 deletion syndrome, disease_disease with chromosome 19q13.11 deletion syndrome, disease_disease with chromosome 19q13.11 deletion syndrome. Definitions: deletions defined as following: A genetic rearrangement through loss of segments of DNA or RNA, bringing sequences which are normally separated into close proximity. This deletion may be detected using cytogenetic techniques and can also be inferred from the phenotype, indicating a deletion at one specific locus.. congenital disease defined as following: existing at, and usually before, birth; referring to conditions that are present at birth, regardless of their causation; inborn metabolism disorders are generally not treed here.. enhancer defined as following: A 50-150bp DNA sequence that increases the rate of transcription of coding sequences. It may be located at various distances and in either orientation upstream from, downstream from or within a structural gene. When bound by a specific transcription factor it increases the levels of expression of the gene, but is not sufficient alone to cause expression. Distinguished from a promoter, that is alone sufficient to cause expression of the gene when bound..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_3792", "sentence1": "Is tocilizumab a csDMARD?", "sentence2": "The task force agreed on 5 overarching principles and 12 recommendations concerning use of conventional synthetic (cs) DMARDs (methotrexate (MTX), leflunomide, sulfasalazine); glucocorticoids (GCs); biological (b) DMARDs (tumour necrosis factor inhibitors (adalimumab, certolizumab pegol, etanercept, golimumab, infliximab), abatacept, rituximab, tocilizumab, sarilumab and biosimilar (bs) DMARDs) and targeted synthetic (ts) DMARDs (the Janus kinase (JAK) inhibitors tofacitinib, baricitinib, filgotinib, upadacitinib). [SEP]Relations: Tocilizumab has relations: drug_drug with Concizumab, drug_drug with Concizumab, drug_drug with Cetuximab, drug_drug with Cetuximab, drug_drug with Cemiplimab, drug_drug with Cemiplimab, drug_drug with Vedolizumab, drug_drug with Vedolizumab, drug_drug with Depatuxizumab, drug_drug with Depatuxizumab. Definitions: methotrexate defined as following: An antineoplastic antimetabolite with immunosuppressant properties. It is an inhibitor of TETRAHYDROFOLATE DEHYDROGENASE and prevents the formation of tetrahydrofolate, necessary for synthesis of thymidylate, an essential component of DNA.. GCs defined as following: Ceramide glucosyltransferase (394 aa, ~45 kDa) is encoded by the human UGCG gene. This protein is involved in the glycosylation of N-acylsphingosine.. leflunomide defined as following: An isoxazole derivative that inhibits dihydroorotate dehydrogenase, the fourth enzyme in the pyrimidine biosynthetic pathway. It is used an immunosuppressive agent in the treatment of RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS and PSORIATIC ARTHRITIS.. sarilumab defined as following: A recombinant, human immunoglobulin (IgG) monoclonal antibody targeting the interleukin 6 receptor (IL-6R), with potential anti-inflammatory activity. Upon intravenous administration of sarilumab, this agent targets and binds to both soluble IL-6 receptor (sIL-6R) and membrane-bound IL-6 receptor (mIL-6R). This inhibits the binding of the pro-inflammatory cytokine IL-6 to the IL-6 receptor (IL-6R), which results in the blockade of the IL-6/IL-6R-mediated signal transduction pathway. This may inhibit IL-6/IL-6R-mediated inflammation.. abatacept defined as following: A soluble fusion protein consisting of the extracellular domain of human cytotoxic T lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 (CTLA-4) linked to a modified Fc (hinge, CH2, and CH3 domains) portion of human immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) with immunosuppressive activity. Abatacept binds CD80 and CD86 on antigen presenting cells (APCs), blocking interaction with CD28 on T lymphocytes, which initiates a co-stimulatory signal required for full activation of T lymphocytes.. rituximab defined as following: A murine-derived monoclonal antibody and ANTINEOPLASTIC AGENT that binds specifically to the CD20 ANTIGEN and is used in the treatment of LEUKEMIA; LYMPHOMA and RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS.. infliximab defined as following: A chimeric monoclonal antibody to TNF-ALPHA that is used in the treatment of RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS; ANKYLOSING SPONDYLITIS; PSORIATIC ARTHRITIS and CROHN'S DISEASE.. JAK defined as following: A family of intracellular tyrosine kinases that participate in the signaling cascade of cytokines by associating with specific CYTOKINE RECEPTORS. They act upon STAT TRANSCRIPTION FACTORS in signaling pathway referred to as the JAK/STAT pathway. The name Janus kinase refers to the fact the proteins have two phosphate-transferring domains.. filgotinib defined as following: An orally bioavailable inhibitor of the tyrosine kinase Janus kinase 1 (JAK1), with potential anti-inflammatory and immunomodulating activities. Upon oral administration, filgotinib specifically targets, binds to, and inhibits the phosphorylation of JAK1, which interferes with JAK/STAT (signal transducer and activator of transcription)-dependent signaling. As JAK1 mediates signaling of many pro-inflammatory cytokines, JAK1 inhibition prevents cytokine signaling and activity in many inflammatory and immune-mediated processes and leads to a decrease in inflammation and activation of certain immune cells. JAK1 plays a key role in the signaling and activity of many cytokines and growth factors and is often dysregulated in a variety of autoimmune and inflammatory diseases, as well as some malignancies.. Janus kinase defined as following: Tyrosine-protein kinase JAK1 (1154 aa, ~133 kDa) is encoded by the human JAK1 gene. This protein plays a role in both tyrosine phosphorylation and interferon-mediated signaling.. adalimumab defined as following: A recombinant, human IgG1 monoclonal antibody directed against tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha), with immunomodulating activity. Upon administration, adalimumab binds to TNF-alpha, thereby preventing its binding to the p55 and p75 TNF cell surface receptors and inhibiting TNF-mediated immune responses. TNF-alpha, a pro-inflammatory cytokine, is upregulated in various autoimmune diseases.. synthetic defined as following: The process of producing a chemical compound, usually by the union of simpler chemical compounds.. baricitinib defined as following: An orally bioavailable inhibitor of Janus kinases 1 and 2 (JAK1/2), with potential anti-inflammatory, immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, baricitinib binds to JAK1/2, which inhibits JAK1/2 activation and leads to the inhibition of the JAK-signal transducers and activators of transcription (STAT) signaling pathway. This decreases the production of inflammatory cytokines and may prevent an inflammatory response. In addition, baricitinib may induce apoptosis and reduce proliferation of JAK1/2-expressing tumor cells. JAK kinases are intracellular enzymes involved in cytokine signaling, inflammation, immune function and hematopoiesis; they are also upregulated and/or mutated in various tumor cell types.. tofacitinib defined as following: An orally available inhibitor of Janus kinases (JAK), with immunomodulatory and anti-inflammatory activities. Upon administration, tofacitinib binds to JAK and prevents the activation of the JAK-signal transducers and activators of transcription (STAT) signaling pathway. This may decrease the production of pro-inflammatory cytokines, such as interleukin (IL)-6, -7, -15, -21, interferon-alpha and -beta, and may prevent both an inflammatory response and the inflammation-induced damage caused by certain immunological diseases. JAK kinases are intracellular enzymes involved in signaling pathways affecting hematopoiesis, immunity and inflammation.. etanercept defined as following: A recombinant version of soluble human TNF receptor fused to an IgG FC fragment that binds specifically to TUMOR NECROSIS FACTOR and inhibits its binding with endogenous TNF receptors. It prevents the inflammatory effect of TNF and is used to treat RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS; PSORIATIC ARTHRITIS and ANKYLOSING SPONDYLITIS.. golimumab defined as following: A human monoclonal antibody directed against the pro-inflammatory cytokine tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-a) with immunosuppressive activity. Golimumab binds to TNF-a, thereby preventing TNF-a-mediated immune responses. TNF-a production is dysregulated in various auto-immune diseases and in cancer.. tocilizumab defined as following: A recombinant, humanized IgG1 monoclonal antibody directed against the interleukin-6 receptor (IL-6R) with immunosuppressant activity. Tocilizumab targets and binds to both the soluble form of IL-6R (sIL-6R) and the membrane-bound form (mIL-6R), thereby blocking the binding of IL-6 to its receptor. This prevents IL-6-mediated signaling. IL-6, a pro-inflammatory cytokine that plays an important role in the regulation of the immune response, is overproduced in autoimmune disorders, certain types of cancers and possibly various other inflammatory conditions.. sulfasalazine defined as following: A drug that is used in the management of inflammatory bowel diseases. Its activity is generally considered to lie in its metabolic breakdown product, 5-aminosalicylic acid (see MESALAMINE) released in the colon. (From Martindale, The Extra Pharmacopoeia, 30th ed, p907).", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_245", "sentence1": "Is the Drosophila Translational Control Element (TCE) involved in spermatogenesis?", "sentence2": "Gene regulation in Drosophila spermatogenesis: analysis of protein binding at the translational control element TCE., We have previously identified a 12 nucleotide long sequence element, the TCE, that was demonstrated to be necessary for translational control of expression in the male germ line of Drosophila melanogaster (Schäfer et al., 1990)., Gene regulation in Drosophila spermatogenesis: analysis of protein binding at the translational control element TCE, The Drosophila Translational Control Element (TCE) is required for high-level transcription of many genes that are specifically expressed in testes, Bioinformatic analyses of core promoter sequences from 190 genes that are specifically expressed in testes identified a 10 bp A/T-rich motif that is identical to the translational control element (TCE), The Drosophila Translational Control Element (TCE) is required for high-level transcription of many genes that are specifically expressed in testes.[SEP]Relations: inferior colliculus has relations: anatomy_anatomy with lateral structure, anatomy_anatomy with lateral structure. Definitions: testes defined as following: The posterior pair of the quadrigeminal bodies which contain centers for auditory function.. TCE defined as following: An endomicroscopy procedure that uses a tethered capsule endoscope to capture microscopic images of the gastrointestinal tract mucosa.. genes defined as following: A category of nucleic acid sequences that function as units of heredity and which code for the basic instructions for the development, reproduction, and maintenance of organisms..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_475", "sentence1": "Can venlafaxine block NET and SERT?", "sentence2": "Treatment for 14 days with 70 mg/kg per day venlafaxine, which inhibits both the NET and SERT, or 10 mg/kg per day phenelzine, a monoamine oxidase inhibitor, produced antidepressant-like effects on behavior without altering NET or SERT expression., Venlafaxine blocks both serotonin and norepinephrine transporters (SERT and NET), with higher affinity for SERT., Chronic venlafaxine treatment affected SERT and NET binding differently from paroxetine or desipramine., Venlafaxine blocks both serotonin and norepinephrine transporters (SERT and NET), with higher affinity for SERT, Paroxetine and venlafaxine are potent serotonin transporter (SERT) antagonists and weaker norepinephrine transporter (NET) antagonists, Using a novel blood assay that estimates CNS transporter occupancy we estimated the relative SERT and NET occupancy of paroxetine and venlafaxine in human subjects to assess the relative magnitude of SERT and NET inhibition, Treatment for 14 days with 70 mg/kg per day venlafaxine, which inhibits both the NET and SERT, or 10 mg/kg per day phenelzine, a monoamine oxidase inhibitor, produced antidepressant-like effects on behavior without altering NET or SERT expression, We then performed the first reported investigation of epistasis between the SERT gene and norepinephrine transporter gene (SLC6A2, alias NET) in AN, as an earlier study suggested that atypical AN responds to the dual serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor venlafaxine, Of particular interest were the findings that paroxetine, generally thought of as a selective SERT antagonist, possesses moderately high affinity for the NET and that venlafaxine, which has been described as a "dual uptake inhibitor", possesses weak affinity for the NET, The ratios of measured occupancy ED(50) values (doses at which 50% occupancy occurs) among SERT, NET and DAT sites for duloxetine, venlafaxine, nomifensine, indatraline, DOV 21,947 and DOV 216,303 were consistent with the ratios of the in vitro affinities between these target binding sites, SERT and NET occupancy by venlafaxine and milnacipran in nonhuman primates: a PET study, In this study in nonhuman primates, we aimed to investigate the relationship between SERT and NET affinity by measuring the in vivo occupancy at both transporters of venlafaxine and milnacipran, We hypothesized that venlafaxine would affect monoamine transporters dose-dependently, with low doses causing selective reduction of SERT binding sites and higher doses reducing both SERT and NET binding sites, Comparative studies with clinically used antidepressants showed that venlafaxine possessed a profile similar to S33005 but was less potent. Clomipramine likewise interacted with SERTs and NETs but also with several other receptors types, while citalopram and reboxetine were preferential ligands of SERTs and NETs, respectively. In conclusion, S33005 interacts potently with SERTs and, less markedly, with NETs. , Venlafaxine blocks both serotonin and norepinephrine transporters (SERT and NET), with higher affinity for SERT. Serotonergic effects occur with lower doses, whereas both serotonergic and noradrenergic effects occur with higher doses of venlafaxine., Taken together, the results from this study indicate that the low dose of venlafaxine blocked selectively the reuptake of 5-HT, whereas the high dose blocked the reuptake of both 5-HT and NE. Moreover, an enhancement of serotonergic neurotransmission by venlafaxine was only achieved under conditions whereby the desensitization of the terminal 5-HT(1B) autoreceptor is appended to that of the somatodendritic 5-HT(1A) receptor.[SEP]Relations: Venlafaxine has relations: drug_drug with Netupitant, drug_drug with Netupitant, drug_drug with Sertindole, drug_drug with Sertindole, drug_drug with Sertraline, drug_drug with Sertraline, drug_effect with Intestinal obstruction, drug_effect with Intestinal obstruction, drug_drug with Serotonin, drug_drug with Serotonin. Definitions: phenelzine defined as following: One of the MONOAMINE OXIDASE INHIBITORS used to treat DEPRESSION; PHOBIC DISORDERS; and PANIC.. binding sites defined as following: The parts of a macromolecule that directly participate in its specific combination with another molecule.. Paroxetine defined as following: A serotonin uptake inhibitor that is effective in the treatment of depression.. 5-HT defined as following: A biochemical messenger and regulator, synthesized from the essential amino acid L-TRYPTOPHAN. In humans it is found primarily in the central nervous system, gastrointestinal tract, and blood platelets. Serotonin mediates several important physiological functions including neurotransmission, gastrointestinal motility, hemostasis, and cardiovascular integrity. Multiple receptor families (RECEPTORS, SEROTONIN) explain the broad physiological actions and distribution of this biochemical mediator.. Clomipramine defined as following: A tricyclic antidepressant similar to IMIPRAMINE that selectively inhibits the uptake of serotonin in the brain. It is readily absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract and demethylated in the liver to form its primary active metabolite, desmethylclomipramine.. citalopram defined as following: A furancarbonitrile that is one of the SELECTIVE SEROTONIN REUPTAKE INHIBITORS used as an antidepressant. The drug is also effective in reducing ethanol uptake in alcoholics and is used in depressed patients who also suffer from TARDIVE DYSKINESIA in preference to tricyclic antidepressants, which aggravate dyskinesia.. venlafaxine defined as following: A synthetic phenethylamine bicyclic derivative with antidepressant activity. Venlafaxine and its active metabolite, O-desmethylvenlafaxine (ODV), are potent inhibitors of neuronal serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake and weak dopamine reuptake inhibitors. This agent may reduce hormone-related vasomotor symptoms. (NCI04). PET defined as following: An imaging technique using compounds labelled with short-lived positron-emitting radionuclides (such as carbon-11, nitrogen-13, oxygen-15 and fluorine-18) to measure cell metabolism. It has been useful in study of soft tissues such as CANCER; CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM; and brain. SINGLE-PHOTON EMISSION-COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHY is closely related to positron emission tomography, but uses isotopes with longer half-lives and resolution is lower.. reboxetine defined as following: A morpholine derivative that is a selective and potent noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor; it is used in the treatment of DEPRESSIVE DISORDER.. nomifensine defined as following: An isoquinoline derivative that prevents dopamine reuptake into synaptosomes. The maleate was formerly used in the treatment of depression. It was withdrawn worldwide in 1986 due to the risk of acute hemolytic anemia with intravascular hemolysis resulting from its use. In some cases, renal failure also developed. (From Martindale, The Extra Pharmacopoeia, 30th ed, p266). desipramine defined as following: A tricyclic dibenzazepine compound that potentiates neurotransmission. Desipramine selectively blocks reuptake of norepinephrine from the neural synapse, and also appears to impair serotonin transport. This compound also possesses minor anticholinergic activity, through its affinity to muscarinic receptors.. NET defined as following: This gene plays a role in neurotransmitter recycling.. norepinephrine transporter gene defined as following: Sodium chloride-dependent neurotransmitter symporters located primarily on the PLASMA MEMBRANE of noradrenergic neurons. They remove NOREPINEPHRINE from the EXTRACELLULAR SPACE by high affinity reuptake into PRESYNAPTIC TERMINALS. The norepinephrine transporter regulates signal amplitude and duration at noradrenergic synapses and is the target of ADRENERGIC UPTAKE INHIBITORS.. monoamine oxidase inhibitor defined as following: A chemically heterogeneous group of drugs that have in common the ability to block oxidative deamination of naturally occurring monoamines. (From Gilman, et al., Goodman and Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 8th ed, p414). antidepressants defined as following: Mood-stimulating drugs used primarily in the treatment of affective disorders and related conditions. Several MONOAMINE OXIDASE INHIBITORS are useful as antidepressants apparently as a long-term consequence of their modulation of catecholamine levels. The tricyclic compounds useful as antidepressive agents (ANTIDEPRESSIVE AGENTS, TRICYCLIC) also appear to act through brain catecholamine systems. A third group (ANTIDEPRESSIVE AGENTS, SECOND-GENERATION) is a diverse group of drugs including some that act specifically on serotonergic systems.. milnacipran defined as following: A cyclopropanecarboxamide serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) that is used in the treatment of FIBROMYALGIA.. human defined as following: Members of the species Homo sapiens..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_1270", "sentence1": "Can administration of the thyrotropin releasing hormone reduce fatigue in cancer patients?", "sentence2": "TRH administration was associated with significant improvement (p < 0.05) in fatigue levels as measured by the Visual Analog Scale-Energy (VAS-E), was associated with significant (p < 0.05) improvement in sleep disturbances and improved quality of life. , This decrease in CRP level with TRH administration was associated with improvement in energy levels as measured by the VAS-E. , In the present pilot, randomized, placebo-controlled, crossover study, we investigated the efficacy and safety of TRH as a treatment for CF., TRH administration was associated with significant improvement in fatigue level as measured by the VAS-E, the fatigue and vigor subscales of the POMS, and the fatigue subscale of FACIT-F (p < 0.05). , TRH administration was efficacious, safe, and tolerable in the treatment of CF with a positive impact on quality of life. These results provide a crucial impetus for pursuing TRH therapeutics to treat CF., Thyrotropin-releasing hormone can relieve cancer-related fatigue: hypothesis and preliminary observations., Global assessment using both subjective and objective parameters showed that TRH exerted clear anti-fatigue effects in four of the six TRH treatments. , These initial findings support the proposal that TRH can ameliorate cancer-related fatigue.[SEP]Relations: Fatigue has relations: drug_effect with Atropine, drug_effect with Atropine, drug_effect with Urofollitropin, drug_effect with Urofollitropin, drug_effect with Parathyroid hormone, drug_effect with Parathyroid hormone, drug_effect with Mitoxantrone, drug_effect with Mitoxantrone, drug_effect with Levothyroxine, drug_effect with Levothyroxine. Definitions: Thyrotropin-releasing hormone defined as following: Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (3 aa, ~0.4 kDa) is encoded by the human TRH gene. This protein plays a role in the positive regulation of thyrotropin (thyroid-stimulating hormone; TSH) production and release.. TRH defined as following: Pro-thyrotropin-releasing hormone (242 aa, ~27 kDa) is encoded by the human TRH gene. This protein plays a role in the regulation of thyrotropin (thyroid-stimulating hormone; TSH) production.. CRP defined as following: A plasma protein that circulates in increased amounts during inflammation and after tissue damage. C-Reactive Protein measured by more sensitive methods often for coronary heart disease risk assessment is referred to as High Sensitivity C-Reactive Protein (hs-CRP).. fatigue defined as following: The state of weariness following a period of exertion, mental or physical, characterized by a decreased capacity for work and reduced efficiency to respond to stimuli.. POMS defined as following: A 65-item self-report questionnaire that utilizes a 5-point Likert Scale rating system to assess an individual's mood state.. thyrotropin releasing hormone defined as following: Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (3 aa, ~0.4 kDa) is encoded by the human TRH gene. This protein plays a role in the positive regulation of thyrotropin (thyroid-stimulating hormone; TSH) production and release.. cancer defined as following: A malignant tumor at the original site of growth..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_2128", "sentence1": "Is Beta-Thalassemia is associated with a mutation or deletion of the gene that codes for alpha globin?", "sentence2": "Beta-thalassemia, one of the most common single-gene disorders, is the result of reduced or absent production of β-globin chains, The beta-thalassemia syndromes are a heterogeneous group of genetic disorders characterized by reduced or absent expression of the beta-globin gene[SEP]Relations: beta thalassemia has relations: disease_disease with thalassemia, disease_disease with thalassemia, disease_phenotype_positive with Abnormal hemoglobin, disease_phenotype_positive with Abnormal hemoglobin, disease_protein with HBG1, disease_protein with HBG1, disease_phenotype_positive with Reduced hemoglobin A, disease_phenotype_positive with Reduced hemoglobin A, disease_disease with beta-thalassemia and related diseases, disease_disease with beta-thalassemia and related diseases. Definitions: Beta-thalassemia defined as following: A disorder characterized by reduced synthesis of the beta chains of hemoglobin. There is retardation of hemoglobin A synthesis in the heterozygous form (thalassemia minor), which is asymptomatic, while in the homozygous form (thalassemia major, Cooley's anemia, Mediterranean anemia, erythroblastic anemia), which can result in severe complications and even death, hemoglobin A synthesis is absent.. beta-globin gene defined as following: Human HBB wt allele is located in the vicinity of 11p15.5 and is approximately 4 kb in length. This allele, which encodes hemoglobin subunit beta protein, plays a role in the transport of oxygen to tissues of the body. Mutations in this gene are associated with beta-thalassemia.. gene defined as following: A category of nucleic acid sequences that function as units of heredity and which code for the basic instructions for the development, reproduction, and maintenance of organisms.. alpha globin defined as following: Hemoglobin subunit alpha (142 aa, ~15 kDa) is encoded by both the human HBA1 and human HBA2 genes. This protein plays a role in the distribution of oxygen from the lungs to other organs and tissues.. mutation defined as following: Any transmissible change in the genetic material of an organism, which can result from radiation, viral infection, transposition, treatment with mutagenic chemicals and errors during DNA replication or meiosis. The effects of mutation range from single base changes to loss or gain of complete chromosomes. As many of the simpler alterations to DNA may be repaired, such changes are only heritable once the change is fixed in the DNA by the process of replication. Mutations may be associated with genetic diversity or with pathologies including cancer.. Beta-Thalassemia defined as following: A disorder characterized by reduced synthesis of the beta chains of hemoglobin. There is retardation of hemoglobin A synthesis in the heterozygous form (thalassemia minor), which is asymptomatic, while in the homozygous form (thalassemia major, Cooley's anemia, Mediterranean anemia, erythroblastic anemia), which can result in severe complications and even death, hemoglobin A synthesis is absent..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_747", "sentence1": "Is Hirschsprung disease one of the characteristics of the Mowat-Wilson syndrome?", "sentence2": "Mowat-Wilson syndrome is a genetic disease caused by heterozygous mutations or deletions of the zinc finger E-box-binding homeobox 2 (ZEB2) gene. The syndrome is characterized by typical facial features, moderate-to-severe mental retardation, epilepsy and variable congenital malformations, including Hirschsprung disease, genital anomalies, congenital heart disease, agenesis of the corpus callosum, and eye defects, Mowat-Wilson syndrome (MWS) is a rare genetic condition where variable and multiple congenital anomalies including Hirschsprung's disease, intellectual disability, and prominent facial features are present, Individuals with Mowat-Wilson syndrome (MWS; OMIM#235730) have characteristic facial features, a variety of congenital anomalies such as Hirschsprung disease, and intellectual disabilities caused by mutation or deletion of ZEB2 gene, Mowat-Wilson syndrome is a genetic disease characterized by typical facial features, Hirschsprung disease and multiple congenital abnormalities, Mowat-Wilson syndrome (MWS) is a severe intellectual disability (ID)-distinctive facial gestalt-multiple congenital anomaly syndrome, commonly associating microcephaly, epilepsy, corpus callosum agenesis, conotruncal heart defects, urogenital malformations and Hirschsprung disease (HSCR), The prevalence of Mowat-Wilson syndrome is currently unknown, but it seems that Mowat-Wilson syndrome is underdiagnosed, particularly in patients without Hirschsprung disease., Mowat-Wilson syndrome is a mental retardation-multiple congenital anomaly syndrome characterized by a typical facies, developmental delay, epilepsy, and variable congenital malformations, including Hirschsprung disease, urogenital anomalies, congenital heart disease, and agenesis of the corpus callosum., \"Mowat-Wilson\" syndrome with and without Hirschsprung disease is a distinct, recognizable multiple congenital anomalies-mental retardation syndrome caused by mutations in the zinc finger homeo box 1B gene., Mowat-Wilson syndrome (MWS) is a recently delineated mental retardation; a multiple congenital anomaly syndrome characterised by a typical facial gestalt, Hirschsprung disease or severe constipation, genitourinary anomaly, congenital heart defects, agenesis of corpus callosum and eye defects., We report a girl who had Hirschsprung disease in association with distinct facial appearance, microcephaly, agenesis of the corpus callosum and mental retardation (Mowat-Wilson syndrome)., Mowat-Wilson syndrome (MWS) is characterized by severe mental retardation with seizures, specific facial dysmorphism, Hirschsprung disease, anomalies of the corpus callosum, and genitourinary and cardiac malformations., BACKGROUND/PURPOSE: Patients with zinc finger homeo box 1B (ZFHX1B) mutations or deletions develop multiple congenital anomalies including Hirschsprung disease, known as Mowat-Wilson syndrome (MWS)., Severe clinical course of Hirschsprung disease in a Mowat-Wilson syndrome patient., Mowat-Wilson syndrome (MWS) is a multiple congenital anomaly syndrome characterized by a distinct facial phenotype (high forehead, frontal bossing, large eyebrows, medially flaring and sparse in the middle part, hypertelorism, deep set but large eyes, large and uplifted ear lobes, with a central depression, saddle nose with prominent rounded nasal tip, prominent columella, open mouth, with M-shaped upper lip, frequent smiling, and a prominent but narrow and triangular pointed chin), moderate-to-severe intellectual deficiency, epilepsy and variable congenital malformations including Hirschsprung disease (HSCR), genitourinary anomalies (in particular hypospadias in males), congenital heart defects, agenesis of the corpus callosum and eye anomalies., Mowat-Wilson syndrome (MWS) is a multiple congenital anomaly syndrome characterized by a distinct facial phenotype, Hirschsprung disease, microcephaly and mental retardation., Mowat-Wilson syndrome is a genetic disease characterized by typical facial features, Hirschsprung disease and multiple congenital abnormalities., Supernumerary intestinal muscle coat in a patient with Hirschsprung disease/Mowat-Wilson syndrome., We present the 1st case report of an additional enteric smooth muscle layer in a patient with Mowat-Wilson syndrome and Hirschsprung disease., Mowat-Wilson\" syndrome with and without Hirschsprung disease is a distinct, recognizable multiple congenital anomalies-mental retardation syndrome caused by mutations in the zinc finger homeo box 1B gene., Mowat-Wilson syndrome (MWS) is an autosomal dominant intellectual disability syndrome characterised by unique facial features and congenital anomalies such as Hirschsprung disease, congenital heart defects, corpus callosum agenesis and urinary tract anomalies., Mowat-Wilson syndrome (MWS) is a mental retardation syndrome associated with distinctive facial features, microcephaly, epilepsy, and a variable spectrum of congenital anomalies, including Hirschsprung disease (HSCR), agenesis of the corpus callosum, genitourinary abnormalities, and congenital heart disease., Mowat-Wilson syndrome is a mental retardation-multiple congenital anomaly syndrome characterized by a typical facies, developmental delay, epilepsy, and variable congenital malformations, including Hirschsprung disease, urogenital anomalies, congenital heart disease, and agenesis of the corpus callosum, Mowat-Wilson syndrome is a genetic disorder characterized by a distinct facial appearance, moderate-to-severe mental retardation, microcephaly, agenesis of the corpus callosum, Hirschsprung disease, congenital heart disease, and genital anomalies, We present the 1st case report of an additional enteric smooth muscle layer in a patient with Mowat-Wilson syndrome and Hirschsprung disease, Mowat-Wilson syndrome (MWS) is an autosomal dominant intellectual disability syndrome characterised by unique facial features and congenital anomalies such as Hirschsprung disease, congenital heart defects, corpus callosum agenesis and urinary tract anomalies, Mowat-Wilson syndrome (MWS) is characterized by severe mental retardation with seizures, specific facial dysmorphism, Hirschsprung disease, anomalies of the corpus callosum, and genitourinary and cardiac malformations, zfhz1b is the causative gene for Mowat-Wilson syndrome, in which patients demonstrate developmental delay and Hirschsprung disease, as well as other anomalies., Mowat-Wilson syndrome (MWS) is a mental retardation syndrome associated with distinctive facial features, microcephaly, epilepsy, and a variable spectrum of congenital anomalies, including Hirschsprung disease (HSCR), agenesis of the corpus callosum, genitourinary abnormalities, and congenital heart disease, Outcomes of Hirschsprung's disease associated with Mowat-Wilson syndrome., Mowat-Wilson syndrome (MWS) is a multiple congenital anomaly syndrome characterized by a distinct facial phenotype, Hirschsprung disease, microcephaly and mental retardation[SEP]Relations: Mowat-Wilson syndrome has relations: disease_disease with monogenic epilepsy, disease_disease with monogenic epilepsy, disease_protein with RELN, disease_protein with RELN, disease_phenotype_positive with Abnormal eye morphology, disease_phenotype_positive with Abnormal eye morphology, disease_disease with syndromic intestinal malformation, disease_disease with syndromic intestinal malformation, disease_protein with NRG1, disease_protein with NRG1. Definitions: genitourinary anomaly defined as following: Congenital structural abnormalities of the UROGENITAL SYSTEM in either the male or the female.. congenital heart defects defined as following: Developmental abnormalities involving structures of the heart. These defects are present at birth but may be discovered later in life.. frontal bossing defined as following: A skeletal deformity characterized by an unusually prominent forehead. Causes include acromegaly, Hurler syndrome, Silver-Russell syndrome, and thalassemia major.. ZFHX1B defined as following: Human ZEB2 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 2q22 and is approximately 132 kb in length. This allele, which encodes zinc finger E-box-binding homeobox 2 protein, is involved in regulation of transcription. Mutations in this gene are associated with Mowat-Wilson syndrome.. hypospadias defined as following: Location of the urethral opening on the inferior aspect of the penis. [HPO:curators]. epilepsy defined as following: A disorder characterized by recurrent episodes of paroxysmal brain dysfunction due to a sudden, disorderly, and excessive neuronal discharge. Epilepsy classification systems are generally based upon: (1) clinical features of the seizure episodes (e.g., motor seizure), (2) etiology (e.g., post-traumatic), (3) anatomic site of seizure origin (e.g., frontal lobe seizure), (4) tendency to spread to other structures in the brain, and (5) temporal patterns (e.g., nocturnal epilepsy). (From Adams et al., Principles of Neurology, 6th ed, p313). ZEB2 defined as following: This gene is involved in regulation of transcription.. congenital malformations defined as following: Malformations of organs or body parts during development in utero.. microcephaly defined as following: Head circumference below 2 standard deviations below the mean for age and gender. [PMID:15806441, PMID:19125436, PMID:25465325, PMID:9683597]. intellectual disability defined as following: Subnormal intellectual functioning which originates during the developmental period. This has multiple potential etiologies, including genetic defects and perinatal insults. Intelligence quotient (IQ) scores are commonly used to determine whether an individual has an intellectual disability. IQ scores between 70 and 79 are in the borderline range. Scores below 67 are in the disabled range. (from Joynt, Clinical Neurology, 1992, Ch55, p28). conotruncal heart defects defined as following: A congenital malformation of the outflow tract of the heart. Conotruncal defects are thought to result from a disturbance of the outflow tract of the embryonic heart, and comprise truncus arteriosus, tetralogy of Fallot, interrupted aortic arch, transposition of the great arteries, and double outlet right ventricle. [HPO:probinson]. ear lobes defined as following: The soft fleshy portion of the lower external ear composed of areolar and adipose connective tissues.. Hirschsprung's disease defined as following: Congenital MEGACOLON resulting from the absence of ganglion cells (aganglionosis) in a distal segment of the LARGE INTESTINE. The aganglionic segment is permanently contracted thus causing dilatation proximal to it. In most cases, the aganglionic segment is within the RECTUM and SIGMOID COLON.. deletions defined as following: A genetic rearrangement through loss of segments of DNA or RNA, bringing sequences which are normally separated into close proximity. This deletion may be detected using cytogenetic techniques and can also be inferred from the phenotype, indicating a deletion at one specific locus.. MWS defined as following: An autoinflammatory disease caused by mutations in the NLRP3 gene which encodes cryopyrin. It is characterized by recurrent episodes of urticaria and fever which develop in infancy. It may lead to sensorineural hearing loss and/or amyloidosis.. facial defined as following: Of, or related to, or in the direction of the face.. Mowat-Wilson syndrome defined as following: A rare autosomal dominant syndrome caused by mutations in the ZEB2 gene. It is characterized by mental retardation, and a distinctive facial appearance (wide set eyes, uplifted earlobes, broad nasal bridge, prominent chin, and a smiling expression). The majority of patients have Hirschsprung disease (colonic enlargement and constipation due to intestinal blockage).. mutation defined as following: Any transmissible change in the genetic material of an organism, which can result from radiation, viral infection, transposition, treatment with mutagenic chemicals and errors during DNA replication or meiosis. The effects of mutation range from single base changes to loss or gain of complete chromosomes. As many of the simpler alterations to DNA may be repaired, such changes are only heritable once the change is fixed in the DNA by the process of replication. Mutations may be associated with genetic diversity or with pathologies including cancer.. genital anomalies defined as following: An abnormality of the genital system. [HPO:probinson]. hypertelorism defined as following: Abnormal increase in the interorbital distance due to overdevelopment of the lesser wings of the sphenoid.. eyes defined as following: The organ of sight constituting a pair of globular organs made up of a three-layered roughly spherical structure specialized for receiving and responding to light.. mutations defined as following: The result of any gain, loss or alteration of the sequences comprising a gene, including all sequences transcribed into RNA.. seizures defined as following: Clinical or subclinical disturbances of cortical function due to a sudden, abnormal, excessive, and disorganized discharge of brain cells. Clinical manifestations include abnormal motor, sensory and psychic phenomena. Recurrent seizures are usually referred to as EPILEPSY or \"seizure disorder.\". urinary tract anomalies defined as following: An abnormality of the urinary system. [HPO:probinson]. eyebrows defined as following: Curved rows of HAIR located on the upper edges of the eye sockets..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_4502", "sentence1": "Is autism thought to be related to the Arginine Vasopressin Peptide (AVP)?", "sentence2": "However, we recently found that cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) concentration of the \"social\" neuropeptide arginine vasopressin (AVP) is significantly lower in pediatric ASD cases vs. controls., A large number of controlled trials demonstrated that exogenous oxytocin or arginine-vasopressin administration can mitigate social behavior impairment in ASD, An accumulating body of evidence indicates a tight relationship between the endocrine system and abnormal social behavior. Two evolutionarily conserved hypothalamic peptides, oxytocin and arginine-vasopressin, because of their extensively documented function in supporting and regulating affiliative and socio-emotional responses, have attracted great interest for their critical implications for autism spectrum disorders (ASD, Preclinical research suggests that arginine vasopressin (AVP), a neuropeptide involved in promoting mammalian social behaviors, may be a possible treatment for ASD. , These preliminary findings suggest that AVP has potential for treating social impairments in children with ASD., The aim of this study was a systematic review of previous studies regarding the differences in OXT and vasopressin levels in ASD and neurotypical persons, Differences in oxytocin and vasopressin levels in individuals suffering from the autism spectrum disorders vs general population - a systematic review., The contribution of oxytocin and vasopressin to mammalian social behavior: potential role in autism spectrum disorder., Although the mechanisms underlying its etiology and manifestations are poorly understood, several lines of evidence from rodent and human studies suggest involvement of the evolutionarily highly-conserved oxytocin (OXT) and arginine-vasopressin (AVP), as these neuropeptides modulate various aspects of mammalian social behavior., linical research suggests that arginine vasopressin (AVP), a neuropeptide involved in promoting mammalian social behaviors, may be a possible treatment for ASD. Using, Previous results suggest that OXT and arginine vasopressin (AVP) may play a role in the etiopathogenesis of ASD, There has been intensified interest in the neuropeptides oxytocin (OT) and arginine vasopressin (AVP) in autism spectrum disorders (ASD) given their role in affiliative and social behavior in animals, positive results of treatment studies using OT, and findings that genetic polymorphisms in the AVP-OT pathway are present in individuals with ASD, BACKGROUND: Arginine vasopressin (AVP) has been hypothesized to play a role in aetiology of autism based on a demonstrated involvement in the regulation of social, Preclinical research suggests that arginine vasopressin (AVP), a neuropeptide involved in promoting mammalian social behaviors, may be a possible treatment for ASD., There has been intensified interest in the neuropeptides oxytocin (OT) and arginine vasopressin (AVP) in autism spectrum disorders (ASD) given their role in affiliative and social behavior in animals, positive results of treatment studies using OT, and findings that genetic polymorphisms in the AVP-OT pathway are present in individuals with ASD., We therefore hypothesized that AVP signaling deficits may contribute to social impairments in children with autism spectrum disorder (ASD)., Given the emerging biological, animal model, and now genetic data, AVPR1a and genes in the AVP system remain strong candidates for involvement in autism susceptibility and deserve continued scrutiny., The behavioral effects of AVP are mediated through the AVP receptor 1a (AVPR1a), making the AVPR1a gene a reasonable candidate for autism susceptibility., Dysfunction of brain-derived arginine-vasopressin (AVP) systems may be involved in the etiology of autism spectrum disorder (ASD)., These results strongly suggest that changes in structure and FC in brain regions containing AVP may be involved in the etiology of autism., Arginine Vasopressin Is a Blood-Based Biomarker of Social Functioning in Children with Autism., These findings also suggest that AVP biology may be a promising therapeutic target by which to improve social cognition in individuals with ASD., Genes Related to Oxytocin and Arginine-Vasopressin Pathways: Associations with Autism Spectrum Disorders., BACKGROUND: Dysregulation of the vasopressin (AVP) system has been implicated in the pathogenesis of autistic spectrum dis[SEP]Relations: autism spectrum disorder has relations: disease_protein with AVP, disease_protein with AVP, disease_protein with AVPR1A, disease_protein with AVPR1A. AVPR1A has relations: disease_protein with autism (disease), disease_protein with autism (disease), disease_protein with autism spectrum disorder, disease_protein with autism spectrum disorder, disease_protein with autism susceptibility 1, disease_protein with autism susceptibility 1. Definitions: OXT defined as following: Oxytocin-neurophysin 1 (125 aa, ~13kDa) is encoded by the human OXT gene. This protein plays a role in hormonal signaling involved in smooth muscle contraction in both the mammary gland and uterus, and many other psychological and physiological processes.. autism defined as following: A disorder beginning in childhood. It is marked by the presence of markedly abnormal or impaired development in social interaction and communication and a markedly restricted repertoire of activity and interest. Manifestations of the disorder vary greatly depending on the developmental level and chronological age of the individual. (DSM-V). AVP defined as following: Vasopressin-neurophysin 2-copeptin (164 aa, ~17 kDa) is encoded by the human AVP gene. This protein is involved in neuropeptide hormone activity.. AVPR1a defined as following: Vasopressin V1a receptor (418 aa, ~47 kDa) is encoded by the human AVPR1A gene. This protein is involved in vasopressin-mediated G protein-coupled receptor signaling.. autism spectrum disorders defined as following: A spectrum of developmental disorders that includes autism, Asperger syndrome, and Rett syndrome. Signs and symptoms include poor communication skills, defective social interactions, and repetitive behaviors.. oxytocin defined as following: A synthetic cyclic peptide form of the naturally occurring posterior pituitary hormone oxytocin. Oxytocin binds to oxytocin receptors in the uterine myometrium, which triggers the G-protein coupled receptor signal transduction cascade that causes increased intracellular calcium concentrations. Increased calcium concentration levels activate myosin light chain kinase which, in turn, induces the formation of the contractile protein actomyosin. This stimulates uterine smooth muscle contractions. This agent also stimulates smooth muscles in the mammary glands, thereby causing lactation.. vasopressin defined as following: The determination of the amount of antidiuretic hormone present in a sample.. autism spectrum disorder defined as following: A category of developmental disorders characterized by impaired communication and socialization skills. The impairments are incongruent with the individual's developmental level or mental age. These disorders can be associated with general medical or genetic conditions.. arginine-vasopressin defined as following: Arginine-vasopressin (9 aa, ~1 kDa) is encoded by the human AVP gene. This protein is involved in peripheral blood vessel vasoconstriction and antidiuretic action in the kidney.. Arginine Vasopressin defined as following: A synthetic peptide identical to the endogenous nonapeptide hormone with antidiuretic property. Synthesized in the hypothalamus and stored/released from the posterior lobe of the pituitary, argipressin's primary function is regulating extracellular fluid volume. This agent can also act as a vasoconstrictor, increasing blood pressure and systemic vascular resistance.. human defined as following: Members of the species Homo sapiens.. rodent defined as following: A mammalian order which consists of 29 families and many genera.. AVPR1a gene defined as following: This gene is involved in cellular motility, proliferation, blood coagulation, and glycogenolysis.. OT defined as following: Skilled treatment that helps individuals achieve independence in all facets of their lives. It assists in the development of skills needed for independent living.. genetic polymorphisms defined as following: The regular and simultaneous occurrence in a single interbreeding population of two or more discontinuous genotypes. The concept includes differences in genotypes ranging in size from a single nucleotide site (POLYMORPHISM, SINGLE NUCLEOTIDE) to large nucleotide sequences visible at a chromosomal level.. cerebrospinal fluid defined as following: A watery fluid that is continuously produced in the CHOROID PLEXUS and circulates around the surface of the BRAIN; SPINAL CORD; and in the CEREBRAL VENTRICLES.. Genes defined as following: A category of nucleic acid sequences that function as units of heredity and which code for the basic instructions for the development, reproduction, and maintenance of organisms.. mammalian defined as following: Warm-blooded vertebrate animals belonging to the class Mammalia, including all that possess hair and suckle their young.. ASD defined as following: Developmental abnormalities in any portion of the ATRIAL SEPTUM resulting in abnormal communications between the two upper chambers of the heart. Classification of atrial septal defects is based on location of the communication and types of incomplete fusion of atrial septa with the ENDOCARDIAL CUSHIONS in the fetal heart. They include ostium primum, ostium secundum, sinus venosus, and coronary sinus defects..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_63", "sentence1": "Are long non coding RNAs as conserved in sequence as protein coding genes?", "sentence2": "Most lncRNAs are under lower sequence constraints than protein-coding genes and lack conserved secondary structures, making it hard to predict them computationally., hey are under stronger selective pressure than neutrally evolving sequences-particularly in their promoter regions, which display levels of selection comparable to protein-coding genes., bout one-third seem to have arisen within the primate lineage.[SEP]Relations: GLI proteins bind promoters of Hh responsive genes to promote transcription has relations: pathway_protein with GLI2, pathway_protein with GLI2, pathway_protein with GLI1, pathway_protein with GLI1, pathway_protein with GLI3, pathway_protein with GLI3. Definitions: promoter regions defined as following: DNA sequences which are recognized (directly or indirectly) and bound by a DNA-dependent RNA polymerase during the initiation of transcription. Highly conserved sequences within the promoter include the Pribnow box in bacteria and the TATA BOX in eukaryotes..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_2659", "sentence1": "Is human lysyl oxidase-like 2 a glycoprotein?", "sentence2": "This method was successfully applied to a novel recombinant protein, human lysyl oxidase-like 2. Furthermore, the glycosylation PTMs were readily detected at two glycosylation sites in the protein. , application to the characterization of human lysyl oxidase-like 2 glycosylation, These results suggest that the N-glycan at Asn-644 of hLOXL2 enhances the solubility and stability of the LOX catalytic domain.[SEP]Relations: Protein S human has relations: drug_drug with Imidazole salicylate, drug_drug with Imidazole salicylate, drug_drug with Phenyl aminosalicylate, drug_drug with Phenyl aminosalicylate, drug_drug with Glycochenodeoxycholic Acid, drug_drug with Glycochenodeoxycholic Acid, drug_drug with Butylphthalide, drug_drug with Butylphthalide, drug_drug with Hyodeoxycholic Acid, drug_drug with Hyodeoxycholic Acid. Definitions: protein defined as following: Protein; provides access to the encoding gene via its GenBank Accession, the taxon in which this instance of the protein occurs, and references to homologous proteins in other species.. recombinant protein defined as following: Proteins prepared by recombinant DNA technology.. LOX defined as following: Protein-lysine 6-oxidase (417 aa, ~47 kDa) is encoded by the human LOX gene. This protein plays a role in both lysine metabolism and the formation of cross-links in extracellular matrix proteins..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_3056", "sentence1": "As of Feb 2019, are major brain gangliosides a target for the treatment of Alzheimer's disease?", "sentence2": "An understanding of the mechanism on the interaction of GM1 and Aβs in AD may contribute to the development of new neuroregenerative therapies for this disorder., Abnormal ganglioside metabolism also may occur in AD brains, Continuous intraventricular infusion of GM1 has recently been shown to have a significant beneficial effect in Alzheimer disease of early onset (AD Type I)., Gangliosides--a new therapeutic agent against stroke and Alzheimer's disease., Gangliosides--a new therapeutic agent against stroke and Alzheimer's disease.Gangliosides are glycosphingolipids localized to the outer leaflet of the plasma membrane of vertebrate cells. , Continuous intraventricular infusion of GM1 has recently been shown to have a significant beneficial effect in Alzheimer disease of early onset (AD Type I).
[SEP]Relations: Alzheimer disease has relations: disease_disease with Alzheimer disease without neurofibrillary tangles, disease_disease with Alzheimer disease without neurofibrillary tangles, disease_disease with dementia (disease), disease_disease with dementia (disease), disease_disease with familial Alzheimer disease, disease_disease with familial Alzheimer disease. familial Alzheimer disease has relations: disease_disease with Alzheimer disease, disease_disease with Alzheimer disease. gangliosidosis has relations: disease_disease with GM1 gangliosidosis, disease_disease with GM1 gangliosidosis. Definitions: plasma membrane defined as following: The lipid- and protein-containing, selectively permeable membrane that surrounds the cytoplasm in prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.. GM1 defined as following: A specific monosialoganglioside that accumulates abnormally within the nervous system due to a deficiency of GM1-b-galactosidase, resulting in GM1 gangliosidosis.. Gangliosides defined as following: A subclass of ACIDIC GLYCOSPHINGOLIPIDS. They contain one or more sialic acid (N-ACETYLNEURAMINIC ACID) residues. Using the Svennerholm system of abbrevations, gangliosides are designated G for ganglioside, plus subscript M, D, or T for mono-, di-, or trisialo, respectively, the subscript letter being followed by a subscript arabic numeral to indicated sequence of migration in thin-layer chromatograms. (From Oxford Dictionary of Biochemistry and Molecular Biology, 1997). stroke defined as following: A group of pathological conditions characterized by sudden, non-convulsive loss of neurological function due to BRAIN ISCHEMIA or INTRACRANIAL HEMORRHAGES. Stroke is classified by the type of tissue NECROSIS, such as the anatomic location, vasculature involved, etiology, age of the affected individual, and hemorrhagic vs. non-hemorrhagic nature. (From Adams et al., Principles of Neurology, 6th ed, pp777-810). Alzheimer's disease defined as following: Alzheimer's disease caused by mutation(s) in the APP gene, encoding amyloid-beta A4 protein. The onset of this condition typically occurs before age 65..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_4311", "sentence1": "Does bleomycin cause lung toxicity?", "sentence2": "bleomycin-induced pulmonary fibrosis, bleomycin (BLM)-induced pulmonary , Pulmonary toxicity is a devastating complication of bleomycin chemotherapy. , Bleomycin containing regimen is routinely employed in the treatment of HL. Pulmonary toxicity due to this drug is the most feared side effect in these regimens where the mortality rate is approximately 2%-3%. , Bleomycin might cause pulmonary fibrosis at higher cumulative doses as toxic effect directly to the lungs or most likely in addition by the formation of vascular microthrombi., The comparative pulmonary toxicity induced by bleomycin and talisomycin (former trivial name: tallysomycin A) was evaluated by measuring lung hydroxyproline content., Clinicians should always remember that bleomycin toxicity may lead to fatal complications in patients with comorbid conditions., CONTEXT: The application of bleomycin is limited due to its side effects including lung toxicity., Bleomycin is an antineoplastic agent that causes a dose-related lung fibrosis that limits its therapeutic effectiveness., Acute Lung Toxicity After Intralesional Bleomycin Sclerotherapy., We report a case of a severe acute lung toxicity after a low dose of a second bleomycin intralesional injection in a 5-year-old girl., Renal damage, following cisplatin administration, with subsequent accumulation of bleomycin was the likely cause of the high lung toxicity., Whenever possible, bleomycin should precede cisplatin infusion to minimize the risk of lung toxicity., The most severe form of BLM-induced pulmonary toxicity is lung fibrosis., Results from this study suggest that an excess production of superoxide anions by alveolar macrophages may be the underlying cause of bleomycin pulmonary toxicity., Bleomycin lung toxicity is well established and can manifest as bleomycin-induced pneumonitis, but pneumomediastinum and pneumothorax are very rare complications., High doses of bleomycin administered to patients with lymphomas and other tumors lead to significant lung toxicity in general, and to apoptosis of epithelial cells, in particular. , sis of bleomycin-induced lung toxicity is based on the combination of clinical and radiological features, and requires to rule out differential diagnoses including pneumocystis. \"Bleo, Doxorubicin, bleomycin, vinblastine sulfate, and dacarbazine (ABVD) is associated with severe toxicity in older patients, particularly from bleomycin-induced lung toxicity (BLT). Ther, s studies have proposed that the lung toxicity caused by bleomycin is related to the C-terminal regions of these drugs, which have been shown to closely interact with DNA in metal-bleomycin-DNA complexes. Some o, OBJECTIVES: Bleomycin, etoposide, and cisplatin (BEP) is the most common and successful chemotherapy regimen for germ-cell tumor (GCT) patients, accompanied by a bleomycin-induced dose-dependent lung toxicity in certain pat, e been no respiratory problems attributable to bleomycin lung toxicity in this study compared with four (3 associated with patient deaths) seen in 91 previously treated patients. The relat, Mechanisms of bleomycin-induced lung damage., Previous studies have proposed that the lung toxicity caused by bleomycin is related to the C-terminal regions of these drugs, which have been shown to closely interact with DNA in metal-bleomycin-DNA complexes., g V30 cutoff value of 32% was estimated.CONCLUSION: Bleomycin and RT may cause lung injury , Postmortem lung studies were performed in all six patients and revealed findings compatible with bleomycin-induced lung toxicity., However, the cytotoxic effects of bleomycin cause a number of adverse responses, in particular in the lung and the skin., Bleomycin, a widely used anti-cancer drug, may give rise to pulmonary fibrosis, a serious side effect which is associated with significant morbidity and mortality., Bleomycin is a cancer therapeutic known to cause lung injury which progresses to fibrosis., and repair. Bleomycin pulmonary toxicity is mediated, at least in part, by the generation of active oxy, This report suggests that bleomycin lung toxicity may be reversible if treated aggressively., Although all bleomycin-treated animals had some evidence of lung toxicity, histologic examination of the lungs revealed markedly reduced bleomycin toxicity in the rats exposed to hypoxia., Low temperature inhibits bleomycin lung toxicity in the rat., Results at day 22, 3 wk after bleomycin treatment, showed that airway delivery of liposomes before and after intratracheal administration of bleomycin significantly reduced bleomycin-induced lung toxicity as evidenced by less body weight loss, chronic lung inflammation, and fibrosis as well as improved lung compliance compared with controls., Protective effect of hypoxia on bleomycin lung toxicity in the rat., N-acetyl cysteine (NAC) has recently been shown to have antioxidant properties, and since bleomycin produces pulmonary damage via free oxygen radical toxicity, the possible protective effect of NAC on bleomycin lung toxicity was investigated., All rats treated with bleomycin only had typical changes of bleomycin lung toxicity whereas the animals treated with bleomycin and NAC had minimal pathology., atic compliance on day 15 was severely decreased with bleomycin alone and showed a further significant decrease when granulocyte colony-stimulating factor was added (controls, 3.85 +/- 0.14 mL/kPa; bleomycin, 1.44 +/- 0.06 mL/kPa; and bleomycin + granulocyte colony-stimulating factor, 0.65 +/- 0.09 mL/kPa; control vs. bleomycin, p <.0001; and bleomycin vs. bleomycin + granulocyte colony-stimulating factor, p =.0003). Lung m, Bleomycin sometimes causes fatal pulmonary toxicity, including bleomycin-induced pneumonitis., Bleomycin is an antineoplastic agent causing fatal pulmonary toxicity., Pulmonary toxicity is an important adverse effect of bleomycin treatment., Pulmonary toxicity is the most significant complication of bleomycin administration., It is possible, however, that the low incidence of clinically significant and fatal pulmonary toxicity, as experienced in this group of patients, may be related to the infusion of bleomycin., Bleomycin-mediated pulmonary toxicity: evidence for a p53-mediated response., Occurrence of bleomycin lung toxicity requires an immediate and often permanent discontinuation., All three developed bleomycin induced pulmonary toxicity in the form of pulmonary fibrosis during treatment of the disease., One of the fatal side effect of bleomycin is pulmonary toxicity., Pulmonary Toxicity of Bleomycin - A Case Series from a Tertiary Care Center in Southern India., Bleomycin is potentially capable of inducing a diffuse interstitial fibrosis of the lung, the pathogenesis of which has not yet been elucidated., Intratracheal instillation of bleomycin 1.5 mg resulted in a severe pneumonitis with influx of inflammatory cells into the alveoli as assessed by alveolar lavage, oedema of the alveolar walls, and up to an eight fold increase in the total pulmonary extravascular albumin space, maximal at 72 hours., Development of acute lung injury after the combination of intravenous bleomycin and exposure to hyperoxia in rats., Bleomycin is a highly effective antitumor agent, but pulmonary toxicity, characterized by an acute inflammatory reaction and associated pulmonary edema, limits clinical use of the drug., In this study we investigated bleomycin-induced pulmonary toxicity in patients with germ-cell tumour by means of technetium-99m diethylene triamine penta-acetic acid aerosol scintigraphy.[SEP]Relations: Bleomycin has relations: drug_effect with Respiratory distress, drug_effect with Respiratory distress, drug_effect with Cough, drug_effect with Cough, drug_effect with Pulmonary infiltrates, drug_effect with Pulmonary infiltrates, drug_effect with Pulmonary fibrosis, drug_effect with Pulmonary fibrosis, drug_effect with Pneumonia, drug_effect with Pneumonia. Definitions: etoposide defined as following: A semisynthetic derivative of PODOPHYLLOTOXIN that exhibits antitumor activity. Etoposide inhibits DNA synthesis by forming a complex with topoisomerase II and DNA. This complex induces breaks in double stranded DNA and prevents repair by topoisomerase II binding. Accumulated breaks in DNA prevent entry into the mitotic phase of cell division, and lead to cell death. Etoposide acts primarily in the G2 and S phases of the cell cycle.. epithelial cells defined as following: Cells that line the inner and outer surfaces of the body by forming cellular layers (EPITHELIUM) or masses. Epithelial cells lining the SKIN; the MOUTH; the NOSE; and the ANAL CANAL derive from ectoderm; those lining the RESPIRATORY SYSTEM and the DIGESTIVE SYSTEM derive from endoderm; others (CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM and LYMPHATIC SYSTEM) derive from mesoderm. Epithelial cells can be classified mainly by cell shape and function into squamous, glandular and transitional epithelial cells.. alveoli defined as following: Any of the terminal sacs in the lungs through which gas exchange takes place with the pulmonary capillary blood.. cancer defined as following: A malignant tumor at the original site of growth.. DNA defined as following: A deoxyribonucleotide polymer that is the primary genetic material of all cells. Eukaryotic and prokaryotic organisms normally contain DNA in a double-stranded state, yet several important biological processes transiently involve single-stranded regions. DNA, which consists of a polysugar-phosphate backbone possessing projections of purines (adenine and guanine) and pyrimidines (thymine and cytosine), forms a double helix that is held together by hydrogen bonds between these purines and pyrimidines (adenine to thymine and guanine to cytosine).. alveolar macrophages defined as following: Round, granular, mononuclear phagocytes found in the alveoli of the lungs. They ingest small inhaled particles resulting in degradation and presentation of the antigen to immunocompetent cells.. dacarbazine defined as following: An antineoplastic agent. It has significant activity against melanomas. (from Martindale, The Extra Pharmacopoeia, 31st ed, p564). BEP defined as following: A chemotherapy regimen consisting of bleomycin, etoposide and cisplatin used for the treatment of ovarian and testicular germ cell tumors (GCTs).. lymphomas defined as following: A general term for various neoplastic diseases of the lymphoid tissue.. cisplatin defined as following: An inorganic and water-soluble platinum complex. After undergoing hydrolysis, it reacts with DNA to produce both intra and interstrand crosslinks. These crosslinks appear to impair replication and transcription of DNA. The cytotoxicity of cisplatin correlates with cellular arrest in the G2 phase of the cell cycle.. pneumomediastinum defined as following: Presence of air in the mediastinal tissues due to leakage of air from the tracheobronchial tree, usually as a result of trauma.. bleomycin defined as following: A complex of related glycopeptide antibiotics from Streptomyces verticillus consisting of bleomycin A2 and B2. It inhibits DNA metabolism and is used as an antineoplastic, especially for solid tumors.. drug defined as following: Any natural, endogenously-derived, synthetic or semi-synthetic compound with pharmacologic activity. A pharmacologic substance has one or more specific mechanism of action(s) through which it exerts one or more effect(s) on the human or animal body. They can be used to potentially prevent, diagnose, treat or relieve symptoms of a disease. Formulation specific agents and some combination agents are also classified as pharmacologic substances.. rat defined as following: The common rat, Rattus norvegicus, often used as an experimental organism.. toxicity defined as following: The finding of bodily harm due to the poisonous effects of something.. pulmonary fibrosis defined as following: A process in which normal lung tissues are progressively replaced by FIBROBLASTS and COLLAGEN causing an irreversible loss of the ability to transfer oxygen into the bloodstream via PULMONARY ALVEOLI. Patients show progressive DYSPNEA finally resulting in death.. hypoxia defined as following: A disorder characterized by a decrease in the level of oxygen in the body.. ABVD defined as following: A chemotherapy regimen consisting of doxorubicin, bleomycin, vinblastine and dacarbazine, used alone or in combination with radiation therapy, for the primary treatment of Hodgkin lymphoma.. vinblastine sulfate defined as following: The sulfate salt of vinblastine, a natural alkaloid isolated from the plant Catharanthus roseus (Madagascar periwinkle) with antineoplastic properties. Vinblastine disrupts microtubule formation and function during mitosis and interferes with glutamic acid metabolism. (NCI04). N-acetyl cysteine defined as following: The N-acetyl derivative of CYSTEINE. It is used as a mucolytic agent to reduce the viscosity of mucous secretions. It has also been shown to have antiviral effects in patients with HIV due to inhibition of viral stimulation by reactive oxygen intermediates.. Doxorubicin defined as following: Antineoplastic antibiotic obtained from Streptomyces peucetius. It is a hydroxy derivative of DAUNORUBICIN.. fibrosis defined as following: Any pathological condition where fibrous connective tissue invades any organ, usually as a consequence of inflammation or other injury.. Pulmonary toxicity defined as following: Toxicity that impairs or damages the lung(s). This condition is often caused by the administration of a pharmaceutical agent that causes damage to the lungs.. tumors defined as following: New abnormal growth of tissue. Malignant neoplasms show a greater degree of anaplasia and have the properties of invasion and metastasis, compared to benign neoplasms.. hydroxyproline defined as following: A hydroxylated form of the imino acid proline. A deficiency in ASCORBIC ACID can result in impaired hydroxyproline formation.. BLT defined as following: 1. According to Sutherland's model, all the joints in the body are balanced ligamentous articular mechanisms. The ligaments provide proprioceptive information that guides the muscle response for positioning the joint and the ligaments themselves guide the motion of the articular components. (Foundations) 2. First described in \"Osteopathic Technique of William G. Sutherland\", that was published in the 1949 Year Book of Academy of Applied Osteopathy.. pneumothorax defined as following: An accumulation of air or gas in the PLEURAL CAVITY, which may occur spontaneously or as a result of trauma or a pathological process. The gas may also be introduced deliberately during PNEUMOTHORAX, ARTIFICIAL.. pneumocystis defined as following: Pneumonia resulting from infection with Pneumocystis jirovecii, frequently seen in the immunologically compromised, such as persons with AIDS, or steroid-treated individuals, the elderly, or premature or debilitated babies during their first three months. Patients may be only slightly febrile (or even afebrile), but are likely to be extremely weak, dyspneic, and cyanotic. This is a major cause of morbidity among patients with AIDS.. acute lung injury defined as following: A condition of lung damage that is characterized by bilateral pulmonary infiltrates (PULMONARY EDEMA) rich in NEUTROPHILS, and in the absence of clinical HEART FAILURE. This can represent a spectrum of pulmonary lesions, endothelial and epithelial, due to numerous factors (physical, chemical, or biological).. superoxide defined as following: Highly reactive compounds produced when oxygen is reduced by a single electron. In biological systems, they may be generated during the normal catalytic function of a number of enzymes and during the oxidation of hemoglobin to METHEMOGLOBIN. In living organisms, SUPEROXIDE DISMUTASE protects the cell from the deleterious effects of superoxides.. lung injury defined as following: Damage to any compartment of the lung caused by physical, chemical, or biological agents which characteristically elicit inflammatory reaction. These inflammatory reactions can either be acute and dominated by NEUTROPHILS, or chronic and dominated by LYMPHOCYTES and MACROPHAGES.. hyperoxia defined as following: An abnormal increase in the amount of oxygen in the tissues and organs.. granulocyte colony-stimulating factor defined as following: A glycoprotein of MW 25 kDa containing internal disulfide bonds. It induces the survival, proliferation, and differentiation of neutrophilic granulocyte precursor cells and functionally activates mature blood neutrophils. Among the family of colony-stimulating factors, G-CSF is the most potent inducer of terminal differentiation to granulocytes and macrophages of leukemic myeloid cell lines.. liposomes defined as following: Artificial, single or multilaminar vesicles (made from lecithins or other lipids) that are used for the delivery of a variety of biological molecules or molecular complexes to cells, for example, drug delivery and gene transfer. They are also used to study membranes and membrane proteins.. HL defined as following: A malignant disease characterized by progressive enlargement of the lymph nodes, spleen, and general lymphoid tissue. In the classical variant, giant usually multinucleate Hodgkin's and REED-STERNBERG CELLS are present; in the nodular lymphocyte predominant variant, lymphocytic and histiocytic cells are seen.. lungs defined as following: Either of the pair of organs occupying the cavity of the thorax that effect the aeration of the blood.. oedema defined as following: Abnormal fluid accumulation in TISSUES or body cavities. Most cases of edema are present under the SKIN in SUBCUTANEOUS TISSUE..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_2464", "sentence1": "Is Marfan syndrome associated with chordal rupture?", "sentence2": "Repair of the mitral valve in children who have Marfan syndrome is especially difficult due to the presence of generalized connective tissue disorder, which may lead to future elongation and rupture of chordae tendineae that were unaffected at the time of mitral valve repair., Mitral regurgitation was caused by annulus dilatation in all patients, by leaflet prolapse in five patients, and by chordal rupture due to endocarditis in two. , Perioperative coronary artery spasm in modified Bentall's operation for annulo-aortic ectasia in Marfan's syndrome. A case report of perioperative chordal rupture of the mitral valve., In a modified Bentall's operation (button technique), perioperative severe coronary artery spasm occurred in spite of the preventive use of nitroglycerin infusion, which resulted in profound ventricular fibrillation and subsequent chordal rupture of the mitral valve with Sellers IV regurgitation., It is worthy to report this case because of rarities such as Marfan's syndrome accompanied by Prinzmetal's variant angina, perioperative coronary artery spasm in modified Bentall's operation, and perioperative chordal rupture of the mitral valve and progression of mitral valve regurgitation. , The four Major Complications- sudden death, infective endocarditis, spontaneous rupture of chordae tendineae, and progressive mitral regurgitation- are examined. Associated Cardiac Diseases, i.e., Marfan's syndrome, ostium secundum atrial septal defect and atherosclerotic coronary artery disease, are discussed, and a section on Treatment deals chiefly with prophylaxis for infective endocarditis and the management of arrhythmias and chest pain. , Acute mitral regurgitation due to chordal rupture in a patient with neonatal Marfan syndrome caused by a deletion in exon 29 of the FBN1 gene., Acute mitral regurgitation due to chordal rupture in a patient with neonatal Marfan syndrome caused by a deletion in exon 29 of the FBN1 gene., Total chordal augmentation in a child with Marfan syndrome and severe mitral insufficiency.[SEP]Relations: Marfan syndrome has relations: disease_protein with NODAL, disease_protein with NODAL, disease_disease with Marfan and Marfan-related disorder, disease_disease with Marfan and Marfan-related disorder, disease_disease with syndromic myopia, disease_disease with syndromic myopia, disease_protein with CAT, disease_protein with CAT, disease_disease with hereditary connective tissue disorder, disease_disease with hereditary connective tissue disorder. Definitions: endocarditis defined as following: Inflammation of the inner lining of the heart (ENDOCARDIUM), the continuous membrane lining the four chambers and HEART VALVES. It is often caused by microorganisms including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and rickettsiae. Left untreated, endocarditis can damage heart valves and become life-threatening.. Marfan syndrome defined as following: This gene is involved in the maintenance of connective tissue.. nitroglycerin defined as following: A volatile vasodilator which relieves ANGINA PECTORIS by stimulating GUANYLATE CYCLASE and lowering cytosolic calcium. It is also sometimes used for TOCOLYSIS and explosives.. ostium secundum atrial septal defect defined as following: A kind of atrial septum defect arising from an enlarged foramen ovale, inadequate growth of the septum secundum, or excessive absorption of the septum primum. [DDD:dbrown, HPO:probinson]. mitral insufficiency defined as following: Backflow of blood from the LEFT VENTRICLE into the LEFT ATRIUM due to imperfect closure of the MITRAL VALVE. This can lead to mitral valve regurgitation.. modified defined as following: The act of alteration or modification; changed or altered in form or character.. arrhythmias defined as following: Any disturbances of the normal rhythmic beating of the heart or MYOCARDIAL CONTRACTION. Cardiac arrhythmias can be classified by the abnormalities in HEART RATE, disorders of electrical impulse generation, or impulse conduction.. rupture defined as following: Forcible or traumatic tear or break of an organ or other soft part of the body.. variant angina defined as following: A clinical syndrome characterized by the development of CHEST PAIN at rest with concomitant transient ST segment elevation in the ELECTROCARDIOGRAM, but with preserved exercise capacity..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_2176", "sentence1": "Is dexamethasone recommended for treatment of intracerebral hemorrhage?", "sentence2": "Dexamethasone and other glucocorticoids should be avoided. , During the third interim analysis, the death rate at the 21st day was identical in the two groups (dexamethasone vs. placebo, 21 of 46 vs. 21 of 47; chi-square = 0.01, P = 0.93). In contrast, the rate of complications (mostly infections and complications of diabetes) was much higher in the dexamethasone group (chi-square = 10.89, P less than 0.001), leading to early termination of the study. In the light of the absence of a demonstrable beneficial effect and the presence of a significant harmful effect, current practices of using dexamethasone for treatment of primary supratentorial hemorrhage should be reconsidered., In the light of the absence of a demonstrable beneficial effect and the presence of a significant harmful effect, current practices of using dexamethasone for treatment of primary supratentorial hemorrhage should be reconsidered.[SEP]Relations: Dexamethasone has relations: drug_effect with Vitreous hemorrhage, drug_effect with Vitreous hemorrhage, contraindication with hypertension, contraindication with hypertension, contraindication with ocular hypertension, contraindication with ocular hypertension, contraindication with hyperglycemia, contraindication with hyperglycemia, contraindication with myxedema, contraindication with myxedema. Definitions: death defined as following: Irreversible cessation of all bodily functions, manifested by absence of spontaneous breathing and total loss of cardiovascular and cerebral functions.. Dexamethasone defined as following: An anti-inflammatory 9-fluoro-glucocorticoid.. diabetes defined as following: A heterogeneous group of disorders characterized by HYPERGLYCEMIA and GLUCOSE INTOLERANCE.. dexamethasone defined as following: An anti-inflammatory 9-fluoro-glucocorticoid.. intracerebral hemorrhage defined as following: Bleeding into one or both CEREBRAL HEMISPHERES including the BASAL GANGLIA and the CEREBRAL CORTEX. It is often associated with HYPERTENSION and CRANIOCEREBRAL TRAUMA..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_220", "sentence1": "Has depression been shown to be a predictor of frailty?", "sentence2": "significant role of frailty as a predictor of depression in a relatively younger old Chinese population, significant relationships between frailty and depressive symptoms and mortality at 1 year, These findings suggest that malnutrition is a major predictor of frailty or the \"failure to thrive\" syndrome in older persons. Depression is a major cause of poor nutritional status in older persons., Depressed mood was associated with increased risk of steep strength decline, in particular in older men with low body weight. Low body weight in combination with depressed mood may be an indicator of frailty or severe disease status that leads to accelerated strength loss and disability., Longitudinally, depressed mood was the only independent predictor of decline in cognition, functional ability, physician-rated health, and mortality;[SEP]Relations: Malnutrition has relations: disease_phenotype_positive with lysinuric protein intolerance, disease_phenotype_positive with lysinuric protein intolerance, drug_effect with Ganciclovir, drug_effect with Ganciclovir, drug_effect with Primidone, drug_effect with Primidone, disease_phenotype_positive with secondary short bowel syndrome, disease_phenotype_positive with secondary short bowel syndrome, disease_phenotype_positive with fructose intolerance, disease_phenotype_positive with fructose intolerance. Definitions: depressed mood defined as following: An emotional state characterized by feelings of sadness, emptiness, and/or tearfulness.. malnutrition defined as following: An imbalanced nutritional status resulting from insufficient intake of nutrients to meet normal physiological requirement..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_1653", "sentence1": "Is imatinib an antidepressant drug?", "sentence2": "Gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST) is the most common mesenchymal tumor of the gastrointestinal tract. Surgery remains the elective treatment. We retrospectively compared two group of patients, who underwent surgery for GIST before and after Imatinib advent in order to analyze the recurrence and survival rate., Adjuvant imatinib 400 mg/day for 3 years duration is a standard treatment in all patients with significant risk of recurrence following resection of primary GISTs, R1 surgery (versus R0) alone is not an indication for adjuvant imatinib in low-risk GIST., Treatment is not recommended in an imatinib-insensitive D842V-mutated GIST, Prognostic factors such as tumor size, mitotic rate and presence of metastases may provide an indication for adjuvant imatinib mesylate (IM) treatment. Here we present a young patient with a large GIST with high-risk features who is in complete remission after surgical excision and adjuvant IM treatment. This patient is the only colon-located CD117-positive case where IM was administered., Imatinib mesylate is the sole BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase inhibitor approved as first-line treatment of accelerated-phase (AP) chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)., imatinib mesylate could be a therapeutic target of strategies against osteosarcoma tumors., Allogeneic hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT) is well-established as a potentially curative treatment for patients who have chronic myeloid leukemia. The success of imatinib and other tyrosine kinase inhibitors (TKI) as initial therapy has changed the treatment paradigm for this disease., Imatinib plus hydroxyurea is well tolerated among patients with meningioma but has modest anti-tumor activity for this indication., Ki67 correlated with time to recurrence (p=0.022). Ki67 >11% was taken as the indication to start imatinib chemotherapy (sensitivity 61.5%, specificity 92.0%, p=0.022)., Significant pharmacokinetic interactions have already been shown between St. John's Wort (SJW) and the anticancer drugs imatinib and irinotecan., for CML we analysed imatinib, dasatinib and nilotinib., Imatinib mesylate, an orally administered kinase inhibitor that targets the Kit (CD117) protein, currently has 10 approved indications including treatment of chronic myelogenous leukemia and metastatic gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GIST)., The drugs were assessed according to clinical evidence on efficacy and safety, based on Micromedex categorization, on systematic reviews and meta-analyses. Indications present in the legal documentation were compared to the indications approved by regulatory agencies. RESULTS: Bevacizumab, capecitabine, cetuximab, erlotinib, rituximab, imatinib, and temozolomide, Bcr-Abl, an oncogene responsible for CML, Bcr-Abl-expressing cells showed resistance to death activated by spindle defects, reversed by imatinib., Imatinib, an oral tyrosine kinase inhibitor (TKI), is first-line treatment in patients with metastatic or unresectable GIST., Surgical indication for metastatic gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST) treated with imatinib is not yet established., Surgery of residual disease upon best clinical response seems associated with survival benefit compared with historical controls in similar patient collectives treated with imatinib alone., To explore the effect of preoperative imatinib mesylate (IM) in patients with unresectable or locally advanced primary gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST), The patient had been diagnosed 14 months earlier and had been submitted to surgery, followed by adjuvant radiotherapy and temozolomide-based chemotherapy. On clinical suspicion of recurrence 5 months later, magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) revealed a lesion at the site of preceded surgery, which was treated by imatinib mesylate, Radical surgery remains the most effective method of GIST treatment. In inoperable/metastatic lesion the treatment of choice is tyrosinase kinase inhibitor--imatinib., Imatinib mesylate (STI571), a specific Bcr-Abl inhibitor, has shown a potent antileukemic activity in clinical studies of chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) patients., Imatinib, an inhibitor of the tyrosine kinase activity of c-kit, was used as an adjuvant chemotherapy in two patients who underwent curative surgery for recurrent gastrointestinal stromal tumors., Adjuvant imatinib 400 mg/day for 3 years duration is a standard treatment in all patients with significant risk of recurrence following resection of primary GISTs.[SEP]Relations: Imatinib has relations: drug_drug with Afatinib, drug_drug with Afatinib, drug_drug with Cocaine, drug_drug with Cocaine, drug_drug with Lapatinib, drug_drug with Lapatinib, drug_drug with Adenosine, drug_drug with Adenosine, drug_drug with Nevirapine, drug_drug with Nevirapine. Definitions: tyrosine kinase defined as following: Protein kinases that catalyze the PHOSPHORYLATION of TYROSINE residues in proteins with ATP or other nucleotides as phosphate donors.. metastatic gastrointestinal stromal tumors defined as following: Gastrointestinal stromal tumor which has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site.. irinotecan defined as following: A semisynthetic derivative of camptothecin, a cytotoxic, quinoline-based alkaloid extracted from the Asian tree Camptotheca acuminata. Irinotecan, a prodrug, is converted to a biologically active metabolite 7-ethyl-10-hydroxy-camptothecin (SN-38) by a carboxylesterase-converting enzyme. One thousand-fold more potent than its parent compound irinotecan, SN-38 inhibits topoisomerase I activity by stabilizing the cleavable complex between topoisomerase I and DNA, resulting in DNA breaks that inhibit DNA replication and trigger apoptotic cell death. Because ongoing DNA synthesis is necessary for irinotecan to exert its cytotoxic effects, it is classified as an S-phase-specific agent.. capecitabine defined as following: A deoxycytidine derivative and fluorouracil PRODRUG that is used as an ANTINEOPLASTIC ANTIMETABOLITE in the treatment of COLON CANCER; BREAST CANCER and GASTRIC CANCER.. gastrointestinal stromal tumor defined as following: All tumors in the GASTROINTESTINAL TRACT arising from mesenchymal cells (MESODERM) except those of smooth muscle cells (LEIOMYOMA) or Schwann cells (SCHWANNOMA).. chronic myeloid leukemia defined as following: Clonal hematopoetic disorder caused by an acquired genetic defect in PLURIPOTENT STEM CELLS. It starts in MYELOID CELLS of the bone marrow, invades the blood and then other organs. The condition progresses from a stable, more indolent, chronic phase (LEUKEMIA, MYELOID, CHRONIC PHASE) lasting up to 7 years, to an advanced phase composed of an accelerated phase (LEUKEMIA, MYELOID, ACCELERATED PHASE) and BLAST CRISIS.. erlotinib defined as following: A quinazoline derivative with antineoplastic properties. Competing with adenosine triphosphate, erlotinib reversibly binds to the intracellular catalytic domain of epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) tyrosine kinase, thereby reversibly inhibiting EGFR phosphorylation and blocking the signal transduction events and tumorigenic effects associated with EGFR activation.. meningioma defined as following: A grade I, slowly growing meningioma. Only a minority of tumors recur following complete resection.. osteosarcoma tumors defined as following: A sarcoma originating in bone-forming cells, affecting the ends of long bones. It is the most common and most malignant of sarcomas of the bones, and occurs chiefly among 10- to 25-year-old youths. (From Stedman, 25th ed). Bcr-Abl defined as following: A fusion gene that results from a translocation t(9;22)(q34;q11) that fuses the 5' part of the BCR gene to the 5' side of exon 2 of the ABL1 gene. There are 3 potential products that are formed depending on which BCR exon has the breakpoint. All of the protein products have constitutively active tyrosine kinase activity. This fusion is associated with both chronic myeloid leukemia and acute lymphoblastic leukemia.. mesenchymal tumor defined as following: A benign, intermediate, or malignant neoplasm that arises from the mesenchyma-derived cells of the soft tissue or bone. Representative examples include lipoma, leiomyoma, leiomyosarcoma and osteosarcoma.. hydroxyurea defined as following: An antineoplastic agent that inhibits DNA synthesis through the inhibition of ribonucleoside diphosphate reductase.. nilotinib defined as following: An orally bioavailable aminopyrimidine-derivative Bcr-Abl tyrosine kinase inhibitor with antineoplastic activity. Designed to overcome imatinib resistance, nilotinib binds to and stabilizes the inactive conformation of the kinase domain of the Abl protein of the Bcr-Abl fusion protein, resulting in the inhibition of the Bcr-Abl-mediated proliferation of Philadelphia chromosome-positive (Ph+) chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) cells. This agent also inhibits the receptor tyrosine kinases platelet-derived growth factor receptor (PDGF-R) and c-kit, a receptor tyrosine kinase mutated and constitutively activated in most gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GISTs). With a binding mode that is energetically more favorable than that of imatinib, nilotinib has been shown to have an approximately 20-fold increased potency in kinase and proliferation assays compared to imatinib.. Imatinib defined as following: An antineoplastic agent that inhibits the Bcr-Abl fusion protein tyrosine kinase, an abnormal enzyme produced by chronic myeloid leukemia cells that contain the Philadelphia chromosome. Imatinib also inhibits the receptor tyrosine kinases for platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF) and stem cell factor (SCF)/c-kit; the SCF/c-kit receptor tyrosine kinase is activated in gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST). This agent inhibits proliferation and induces apoptosis in cells that overexpress these oncoproteins.. tyrosine kinase inhibitor defined as following: Protein kinase inhibitors that inhibit TYROSINE PROTEIN KINASES.. disease defined as following: A definite pathologic process with a characteristic set of signs and symptoms. It may affect the whole body or any of its parts, and its etiology, pathology, and prognosis may be known or unknown.. Ki67 defined as following: This gene is involved in cellular proliferation.. cetuximab defined as following: A chimeric monoclonal antibody that functions as an ANTINEOPLASTIC AGENT through its binding to the EPIDERMAL GROWTH FACTOR RECEPTOR, where it prevents the binding and signaling action of cell growth and survival factors.. oncogene defined as following: Genes whose gain-of-function alterations lead to NEOPLASTIC CELL TRANSFORMATION. They include, for example, genes for activators or stimulators of CELL PROLIFERATION such as growth factors, growth factor receptors, protein kinases, signal transducers, nuclear phosphoproteins, and transcription factors. A prefix of \"v-\" before oncogene symbols indicates oncogenes captured and transmitted by RETROVIRUSES; the prefix \"c-\" before the gene symbol of an oncogene indicates it is the cellular homolog (PROTO-ONCOGENES) of a v-oncogene.. CML defined as following: chronic leukemia in which myeloid progenitor cells predominate; the hallmark of CML, the Philadelphia chromosome, is a reciprocal translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22 which activates the proto- oncogene c-abl.. c-kit defined as following: Mast/stem cell growth factor receptor Kit (976 aa, ~110 kDa) is encoded by the human KIT gene. This protein is involved in cell survival, tyrosine phosphorylation and ligand-mediated signaling.. rituximab defined as following: A murine-derived monoclonal antibody and ANTINEOPLASTIC AGENT that binds specifically to the CD20 ANTIGEN and is used in the treatment of LEUKEMIA; LYMPHOMA and RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS.. temozolomide defined as following: A dacarbazine derivative that is used as an alkylating antineoplastic agent for the treatment of MALIGNANT GLIOMA and MALIGNANT MELANOMA.. dasatinib defined as following: An orally bioavailable synthetic small molecule-inhibitor of SRC-family protein-tyrosine kinases. Dasatinib binds to and inhibits the growth-promoting activities of these kinases. Apparently because of its less stringent binding affinity for the BCR-ABL kinase, dasatinib has been shown to overcome the resistance to imatinib of chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) cells harboring BCR-ABL kinase domain point mutations. SRC-family protein-tyrosine kinases interact with a variety of cell-surface receptors and participate in intracellular signal transduction pathways; tumorigenic forms can occur through altered regulation or expression of the endogenous protein and by way of virally-encoded kinase genes.. death defined as following: Irreversible cessation of all bodily functions, manifested by absence of spontaneous breathing and total loss of cardiovascular and cerebral functions.. Bevacizumab defined as following: An anti-VEGF humanized murine monoclonal antibody. It inhibits VEGF RECEPTORS and helps to prevent PATHOLOGIC ANGIOGENESIS.. Bcr-Abl inhibitor defined as following: Any agent that inhibits the tyrosine kinase BCR-ABL.. cells defined as following: The fundamental, structural, and functional units or subunits of living organisms. They are composed of CYTOPLASM containing various ORGANELLES and a CELL MEMBRANE boundary.. imatinib defined as following: An antineoplastic agent that inhibits the Bcr-Abl fusion protein tyrosine kinase, an abnormal enzyme produced by chronic myeloid leukemia cells that contain the Philadelphia chromosome. Imatinib also inhibits the receptor tyrosine kinases for platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF) and stem cell factor (SCF)/c-kit; the SCF/c-kit receptor tyrosine kinase is activated in gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST). This agent inhibits proliferation and induces apoptosis in cells that overexpress these oncoproteins..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_520", "sentence1": "Does ziconotide bind to N-type calcium channels?", "sentence2": "Since this region partially overlaps with residues previously implicated in block of the channel by omega-conotoxin GVIA, we assessed the effects of mutations in the putative EF hand domain on channel block by omega-conotoxin GVIA and the structurally related omega-conotoxin MVIIA. Both of the toxins irreversibly block the activity of wild type alpha(1B) N-type channels. , Despite their high sequence homology, the peptide neurotoxins omega-conotoxin MVIIA and MVIIC selectively block N- and P/Q-type calcium channels, respectively. , Binding assay for both N- and P/Q-type calcium channels showed that amino acid residues restricted to the N-terminal half are important for the recognition of N-type channels, whereas essential residues for P/Q-type channel recognition are widely spread over the whole omega-conotoxin molecule., Ziconotide is a novel peptide that blocks the entry of calcium into neuronal N-type voltage-sensitive calcium channels, preventing the conduction of nerve signals., Ziconotide is a selective, potent and reversible blocker of neuronal N-type voltage-sensitive calcium channels (VSCCs)., The therapeutic benefit of ziconotide derives from its potent and selective blockade of neuronal N-type voltage-sensitive calcium channels., Interactions of intrathecally administered ziconotide, a selective blocker of neuronal N-type voltage-sensitive calcium channels, with morphine on nociception in rats., Ziconotide, a new N-type calcium channel blocker, administered intrathecally for acute postoperative pain., Ziconotide, an intrathecally administered N-type calcium channel antagonist for the treatment of chronic pain., Thus, ziconotide is the first of a new class of agents--N-type calcium channel blockers, or NCCBs., Ziconotide, formerly known also as SNX- 111, represents a new class of agents, the N-type calcium channel blockers., The selective N-type calcium channel blocker ziconotide ameliorates severe chronic pain but has a narrow therapeutic window and requires intrathecal administration., A selective N-type calcium channel inhibitor, ziconotide (Prialt), is a neuroactive peptide recently marketed as a novel nonopioid treatment for severe chronic pain., As the clinically available analgesics, pregabalin (alpha2delta-subunit calcium channel ligand), ziconotide (N-type calcium channel blocker), mexiletine (sodium channel blocker), and duloxetine (serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors) were evaluated in these neurochemically-induced allodynia models., The present investigation was designed to assess the safety and analgesic efficacy of ziconotide, a new N-type calcium channel blocker, when administered intrathecally to patients with acute postoperative pain., Inhibition of the N-type calcium channel by intrathecal administration of the channel-specific blocker omega-conotoxin MVIIA (ziconotide) is efficacious in the treatment of severe chronic pain., Ziconotide is a powerful analgesic drug that has a unique mechanism of action involving potent and selective block of N-type calcium channels, which control neurotransmission at many synapses., In conclusion, present findings provide implication that the spinal anti-nociceptive mechanistic site of pregabalin is different from that of ziconotide, mexiletine, and duloxetine, and pregabalin could have a broader anti-nociceptive mechanism other than N-type calcium channel blockade., Ziconotide (SNX-111), a selective blocker of neuronal N-type voltage-sensitive calcium channels, is antinociceptive when it is administered intrathecally., Effects of intrathecal administration of ziconotide, a selective neuronal N-type calcium channel blocker, on mechanical allodynia and heat hyperalgesia in a rat model of postoperative pain., A state-dependent Ca(V)2.2 inhibitor may provide an improved therapeutic window over ziconotide, the peptidyl Ca(V)2.2 inhibitor used clinically. , There is also human validation data from ziconotide, the CaV2.2-selective peptidyl inhibitor used clinically to treat refractory pain. , A selective N-type calcium channel inhibitor, ziconotide (Prialt), is a neuroactive peptide recently marketed as a novel nonopioid treatment for severe chronic pain. , The neuroprotective effects of intrathecal administration of the selective N-type calcium channel blocker ziconotide in a rat model of spinal ischemia.[SEP]Relations: Ziconotide has relations: drug_drug with Calcium, drug_drug with Calcium, drug_drug with Calcium cation, drug_drug with Calcium cation, drug_drug with Calcium acetate, drug_drug with Calcium acetate, drug_drug with Calcium chloride, drug_drug with Calcium chloride, drug_drug with Calcium gluconate, drug_drug with Calcium gluconate. Definitions: omega-conotoxin GVIA defined as following: A neurotoxic peptide, which is a cleavage product (VIa) of the omega-Conotoxin precursor protein contained in venom from the marine snail, CONUS geographus. It is an antagonist of CALCIUM CHANNELS, N-TYPE.. pregabalin defined as following: A 3-isobutyl derivative of gamma-amino butyric acid (GABA) with anti-convulsant, anti-epileptic, anxiolytic, and analgesic activities. Although the exact mechanism of action is unknown, pregabalin selectively binds to alpha2delta (A2D) subunits of presynaptic voltage-dependent calcium channels (VDCCs) located in the central nervous system (CNS). Binding of pregabalin to VDCC A2D subunits prevents calcium influx and the subsequent calcium-dependent release of various neurotransmitters, including glutamate, norepinephrine, serotonin, dopamine, and substance P, from the presynaptic nerve terminals of hyperexcited neurons; synaptic transmission is inhibited and neuronal excitability is diminished. Pregabalin does not bind directly to GABA-A or GABA-B receptors and does not alter GABA uptake or degradation.. calcium defined as following: A dietary supplement containing the mineral calcium.. mexiletine defined as following: Antiarrhythmic agent pharmacologically similar to LIDOCAINE. It may have some anticonvulsant properties.. morphine defined as following: The principal alkaloid in opium and the prototype opiate analgesic and narcotic. Morphine has widespread effects in the central nervous system and on smooth muscle.. Ziconotide defined as following: A synthetic, nonopiod, twenty-five amino acid polybasic peptide analogue of an omega-conotoxin derived from the marine snail Conus magus with analgesic activity. Ziconotide appears to block neuronal N-type voltage-sensitive calcium channels (NCCB), inhibiting transmission from pain-sensing primary nociceptors. This agent may exhibit significant analgesic activity in refractory pain.. rat defined as following: The common rat, Rattus norvegicus, often used as an experimental organism.. peptide defined as following: Members of the class of compounds composed of AMINO ACIDS joined together by peptide bonds between adjacent amino acids into linear, branched or cyclical structures. OLIGOPEPTIDES are composed of approximately 2-12 amino acids. Polypeptides are composed of approximately 13 or more amino acids. PROTEINS are considered to be larger versions of peptides that can form into complex structures such as ENZYMES and RECEPTORS.. region defined as following: The continents and countries situated on those continents; the UNITED STATES and each of the constituent states arranged by region; CANADA and each of its provinces; AUSTRALIA and each of its states; the major bodies of water and major islands on both hemispheres; and selected major cities.. serotonin defined as following: A biochemical messenger and regulator, synthesized from the essential amino acid L-TRYPTOPHAN. In humans it is found primarily in the central nervous system, gastrointestinal tract, and blood platelets. Serotonin mediates several important physiological functions including neurotransmission, gastrointestinal motility, hemostasis, and cardiovascular integrity. Multiple receptor families (RECEPTORS, SEROTONIN) explain the broad physiological actions and distribution of this biochemical mediator.. postoperative pain defined as following: Pain during the period after surgery.. mutations defined as following: The result of any gain, loss or alteration of the sequences comprising a gene, including all sequences transcribed into RNA.. human defined as following: Members of the species Homo sapiens.. synapses defined as following: Specialized junctions at which a neuron communicates with a target cell. At classical synapses, a neuron's presynaptic terminal releases a chemical transmitter stored in synaptic vesicles which diffuses across a narrow synaptic cleft and activates receptors on the postsynaptic membrane of the target cell. The target may be a dendrite, cell body, or axon of another neuron, or a specialized region of a muscle or secretory cell. Neurons may also communicate via direct electrical coupling with ELECTRICAL SYNAPSES. Several other non-synaptic chemical or electric signal transmitting processes occur via extracellular mediated interactions.. chronic pain defined as following: Aching sensation that persists for more than a few months. It may or may not be associated with trauma or disease, and may persist after the initial injury has healed. Its localization, character, and timing are more vague than with acute pain.. ziconotide defined as following: A synthetic, nonopiod, twenty-five amino acid polybasic peptide analogue of an omega-conotoxin derived from the marine snail Conus magus with analgesic activity. Ziconotide appears to block neuronal N-type voltage-sensitive calcium channels (NCCB), inhibiting transmission from pain-sensing primary nociceptors. This agent may exhibit significant analgesic activity in refractory pain..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_2056", "sentence1": "Is PUVA therapy indicated for eczema treatment?", "sentence2": "With bath PUVA treatment, the best results were found in patients with hyperkeratotic eczema (17/22; 77% good clinical response) followed by patients with palmoplantar psoriasis (26/41; 63%) and patients with dyshidrotic eczema (8/16; 50%). , Oral vs. bath PUVA using 8-methoxypsoralen for chronic palmoplantar eczema., Both oral and bath PUVA with 8-methoxypsoralen (8-MOP) have been shown to be effective in the treatment of chronic palmoplantar eczema. , Oral PUVA is preferable for patients with hyperkeratotic eczema and bath PUVA for patients with dyshidrotic eczema., Treatment of hand eczema is dominated by the administration of topical glucocorticosteriods. If topical treatment fails, the best second-line option is ultraviolet (UV) therapy alone or as combination therapy. UVB and PUVA (psoralen plus UVA) therapy is effective and has relatively few side effects. , Although local PUVA has been proven to be effective in the treatment of chronic hand eczema, little is known about the efficacy and safety of local narrowband UVB (TL-01) for this condition., Local narrowband UVB phototherapy regimen is as effective as paint-PUVA therapy in patients with chronic hand eczema of dry and dyshidrotic types., Smoking is likely to be a reason for the failure of bath-PUVA therapy in the treatment of chronic palmoplantar eczema, in particular regarding smokers with eczema of the dyshidrotic type where no complete remission was achieved., Treatment of chronic palmoplantar eczema with local bath-PUVA therapy., Bath-PUVA therapy has been described as successful treatment for palmoplantar eczema., Systemic PUVA therapy may be useful in the treatment of chronic palmoplantar eczema., A new psoralen-containing gel for topical PUVA therapy: development, and treatment results in patients with palmoplantar and plaque-type psoriasis, and hyperkeratotic eczema., These results indicate that topical PUVA therapy with psoralen in aqueous gel is a useful therapeutic modality for treatment of psoriasis patients, and patients with recalcitrant dermatoses such as palmoplantar psoriasis and hyperkeratotic eczema., In order to evaluate environmental influences possibly having an impact on the efficacy of this therapy, smokers and non-smokers suffering from palmoplantar eczema treated with bath-PUVA therapy were compared., Does smoking influence the efficacy of bath-PUVA therapy in chronic palmoplantar eczema?, PUVA therapy caused acute aggravation of the eczema., Hyperkeratotic eczema cleared significantly better with oral than with bath PUVA (P=0.03).CONCLUSION: Oral PUVA is preferable for patients with hyperkeratotic eczema and bath PUVA for patients with dyshidrotic eczema., BACKGROUND: Systemic PUVA therapy may be useful in the treatment of chronic palmoplantar eczema., These results indicate that topical PUVA therapy with psoralen in aqueous gel is a useful therapeutic modality for treatment of psoriasis patients, and patients with recalcitrant dermatoses such as palmoplantar psoriasis and hyperkeratotic eczema., Vitiligo (60.9%) was the commonest skin disorder treated with PUVA, followed by psoriasis (20.9%), endogenous eczema (11.3%), mycosis fungoides (3.5%), lichen amyloidosis (2.6%) and prurigo nodularis (0.9%)., bath PUVA using 8-methoxypsoralen for chronic palmoplantar eczema., A 36-year-old female patient was treated with PUVA for dyshidrotic eczema that had not shown sufficient response to topical therapy over the previous months., BACKGROUND: Both oral and bath PUVA with 8-methoxypsoralen (8-MOP) have been shown to be effective in the treatment of chronic palmoplantar eczema., One patient with hand eczema consistently had detectable 8-MOP levels 1 hour after topical PUVA treatments.CONCLUSION: This report indicates that there is minimal, if any, systemic absorption of 8-MOP after topical PUVA treatment of patients with palmoplantar psoriasis., In the narrowband UVB-treated side, the tolerance of all the patients to the treatment was good all patients well-tolerated the treatment with the exception of mild xerosis that responded to topical emollients.Local narrowband UVB phototherapy regimen is as effective as paint-PUVA therapy in patients with chronic hand eczema of dry and dyshidrotic types, Bath-PUVA therapy has been described as successful treatment for palmoplantar eczema, Smoking is likely to be a reason for the failure of bath-PUVA therapy in the treatment of chronic palmoplantar eczema, in particular regarding smokers with eczema of the dyshidrotic type where no complete remission was achieved, Systemic PUVA therapy may be useful in the treatment of chronic palmoplantar eczema, However, few data are available on the effectiveness of local bath-PUVA therapy in palmoplantar eczema.Our purpose was to assess the effectiveness of local bath-PUVA therapy in 28 patients with chronic palmar or plantar eczema or both who were resistant to conventional topical treatment.After fungal or bacterial infection had been excluded in all patients, hands or feet or both were soaked for 15 minutes in warm water containing 1 mg/L 8-methoxypsoralen, No phototoxic reactions were observed.Local bath-PUVA therapy is of value in the management of chronic palmoplantar eczema resistant to standard modes of topical treatment, Treatment of chronic palmoplantar eczema with local bath-PUVA therapy, Bath-PUVA therapy has been described as successful treatment for palmoplantar eczema. , Smoking is likely to be a reason for the failure of bath-PUVA therapy in the treatment of chronic palmoplantar eczema, in particular regarding smokers with eczema of the dyshidrotic type where no complete remission was achieved., OBJECTIVE: Our purpose was to assess the effectiveness of local bath-PUVA therapy in 28 patients with chronic palmar or plantar eczema or both who were resistant to conventional topical treatment. , CONCLUSION: Local bath-PUVA therapy is of value in the management of chronic palmoplantar eczema resistant to standard modes of topical treatment. , Topical PUVA therapy for chronic hand eczema., However, few data are available on the effectiveness of local bath-PUVA therapy in palmoplantar eczema.Our purpose was to assess the effectiveness of local bath-PUVA therapy in 28 patients with chronic palmar or plantar eczema or both who were resistant to conventional topical treatment.After fungal or bacterial infection had been excluded in all patients, hands or feet or both were soaked for 15 minutes in warm water containing 1 mg/L 8-methoxypsoralen., No phototoxic reactions were observed.Local bath-PUVA therapy is of value in the management of chronic palmoplantar eczema resistant to standard modes of topical treatment., Smoking is likely to be a reason for the failure of bath-PUVA therapy in the treatment of chronic palmoplantar eczema, in particular regarding smokers with eczema of the dyshidrotic type where no complete remission was achieved., However, our own observations showed that patients with palmoplantar eczema of the dyshidrotic or hyperkeratotic type responded only partially to bath-PUVA therapy., In the narrowband UVB-treated side, the tolerance of all the patients to the treatment was good all patients well-tolerated the treatment with the exception of mild xerosis that responded to topical emollients.Local narrowband UVB phototherapy regimen is as effective as paint-PUVA therapy in patients with chronic hand eczema of dry and dyshidrotic types., Comparison of localized high-dose UVA1 irradiation versus topical cream psoralen-UVA for treatment of chronic vesicular dyshidrotic eczema., No phototoxic reactions were observed.CONCLUSION: Local bath-PUVA therapy is of value in the management of chronic palmoplantar eczema resistant to standard modes of topical treatment., These results indicate that topical PUVA therapy with psoralen in aqueous gel is a useful therapeutic modality for treatment of psoriasis patients, and patients with recalcitrant dermatoses such as palmoplantar psoriasis and hyperkeratotic eczema.., Treatment of chronic palmoplantar eczema with local bath-PUVA therapy., Oral PUVA is preferable for patients with hyperkeratotic eczema and bath PUVA for patients with dyshidrotic eczema.., Does smoking influence the efficacy of bath-PUVA therapy in chronic palmoplantar eczema?, Local bath-PUVA therapy is of value in the management of chronic palmoplantar eczema resistant to standard modes of topical treatment., However, few data are available on the effectiveness of local bath-PUVA therapy in palmoplantar eczema., A new psoralen-containing gel for topical PUVA therapy: development, and treatment results in patients with palmoplantar and plaque-type psoriasis, and hyperkeratotic eczema., Smoking is likely to be a reason for the failure of bath-PUVA therapy in the treatment of chronic palmoplantar eczema, in particular regarding smokers with eczema of the dyshidrotic type where no complete remission was achieved.., In order to investigate the effectiveness of topical PUVA-bath therapy (PUVA-soak therapy) on chronic palmoplantar dermatoses, 30 patients with plaque-type psoriasis, pustular psoriasis, endogenous eczema, dyshidrotic eczema and hyperkeratotic dermatitis of the palms and soles were treated over 8 weeks with PUVA-soak using 8-MOP., Our purpose was to assess the effectiveness of local bath-PUVA therapy in 28 patients with chronic palmar or plantar eczema or both who were resistant to conventional topical treatment.[SEP]Relations: Eczema has relations: drug_effect with Fluvoxamine, drug_effect with Fluvoxamine, drug_effect with Fluvoxamine, drug_effect with Fluvoxamine, drug_effect with Cevimeline, drug_effect with Cevimeline, drug_effect with Cevimeline, drug_effect with Cevimeline, drug_effect with Retapamulin, drug_effect with Retapamulin. Definitions: psoriasis defined as following: A common genetically determined, chronic, inflammatory skin disease characterized by rounded erythematous, dry, scaling patches. The lesions have a predilection for nails, scalp, genitalia, extensor surfaces, and the lumbosacral region. Accelerated epidermopoiesis is considered to be the fundamental pathologic feature in psoriasis.. dyshidrotic eczema defined as following: A recurrent eczematous reaction characterized by the development of vesicular eruptions on the palms and soles, particularly along the sides and between the digits. It is accompanied by pruritus, a burning sensation, and hyperhidrosis. The disease is self-limiting, lasting only a few weeks. (Dorland, 27th ed). PUVA defined as following: Strong evidences have indicated causal association between 8-methoxypsoralen with UVA (PUVA) treatment and non-melanocytic skin patients with psoriasis. 8-Methoxypsoralen alone did not alter the incidence of new skin cancer development in a 2-year study. In a large number of studies, 8-Methoxypsoralen in combination with ultraviolet A radiation induced chromosomal aberrations, sister chromatid exchanges, mutation, DNA damage and DNA cross-links in human cells in vitro. This treatment is classified as carcinogenic to Human by IARC. (NCI05). bacterial infection defined as following: Infections by bacteria, general or unspecified.. 8-methoxypsoralen defined as following: A naturally occurring furocoumarin compound found in several species of plants, including Psoralea corylifolia. It is a photoactive substance that forms DNA ADDUCTS in the presence of ultraviolet A irradiation.. lichen amyloidosis defined as following: The presence of amyloid deposition in the superficial dermis. [HPO:probinson, PMID:19690585]. fungal defined as following: A kingdom of eukaryotic, heterotrophic organisms that live parasitically as saprobes, including MUSHROOMS; YEASTS; smuts, molds, etc. They reproduce either sexually or asexually, and have life cycles that range from simple to complex. Filamentous fungi, commonly known as molds, refer to those that grow as multicellular colonies.. palms defined as following: The palm family of order Arecales, subclass Arecidae, class Liliopsida.. hands defined as following: The distal part of the arm beyond the wrist in humans and primates, that includes the palm, fingers, and thumb.. eczema defined as following: A pruritic papulovesicular dermatitis occurring as a reaction to many endogenous and exogenous agents (Dorland, 27th ed)..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_2223", "sentence1": "Are selenium supplements recommended for prostate cancer prevention?", "sentence2": "Our meta-analysis in prospective studies demonstrated a significant inverse association between selenium status and CVD risk within a narrow selenium range and a null effect of selenium supplementation on CVD was observed in RCTs. These findings indicate the importance of considering selenium status, dose and safety in health assessment and future study design., Selenium supplementation of 140 or more μg/day after diagnosis of nonmetastatic prostate cancer may increase risk of prostate cancer mortality. Caution is warranted regarding usage of such supplements among men with prostate cancer., The SELECT study failed to show any significant risk reduction for prostate cancers ascribable to selenium and vitamin E supplementations., Vitamins and supplements, including selenium or vitamin E, have not been proven in clinical trials to prevent prostate cancer and in the case of Vitamin E has been found to increase the risk of incident prostate cancer. Ongoing and future trials may further elucidate the role of diet and immunotherapy for prevention of prostate cancer.[SEP]Relations: Selenium has relations: drug_drug with Testosterone, drug_drug with Testosterone, drug_drug with Testosterone enanthate, drug_drug with Testosterone enanthate, drug_drug with Methadone, drug_drug with Methadone, drug_drug with Ketamine, drug_drug with Ketamine, drug_drug with Ampicillin, drug_drug with Ampicillin. Definitions: prostate cancers defined as following: A primary or metastatic malignant tumor involving the prostate gland. The vast majority are carcinomas.. prostate cancer defined as following: A primary or metastatic malignant tumor involving the prostate gland. The vast majority are carcinomas..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_277", "sentence1": "Is apixaban effective for treatment of acute venous thromboembolism?", "sentence2": "Apixaban is a direct inhibitor of factor Xa, and is a potential alternative for the treatment of acute venous thromboembolism. , These results suggest a lack of clear superiority of apixaban relative to enoxaparin. Apixaban is an oral alternative with similar efficacy and safety to existing anticoagulant therapies., A fixed-dose regimen of apixaban alone was noninferior to conventional therapy for the treatment of acute venous thromboembolism and was associated with significantly less bleeding, To critically review the effectiveness of the novel oral anticoagulants (rivaroxaban, dabigatran, ximelagatran, and apixaban) in the treatment of acute venous thromboembolism., ompared with vitamin K antagonists, the novel oral anticoagulants had a similar risk of recurrence of acute venous thromboembolism and all cause mortality, though rivaroxaban was associated with a reduced risk of bleeding, Nowadays, the new anticoagulants, such as dabigatran, rivaroxaban and apixaban, show potential advantages over classical treatments. These agents inhibit specific coagulation factors and are administered orally at fixed doses., In a recently completed phase III trial, apixaban also demonstrated promising efficacy and safety in that indication, the most advanced oral direct inhibitors to factor Xa (rivaroxaban and apixaban) and IIa (dabigatran)[SEP]Relations: Apixaban has relations: drug_drug with Antithrombin Alfa, drug_drug with Antithrombin Alfa, drug_drug with Prothrombin, drug_drug with Prothrombin, drug_drug with Antithrombin III human, drug_drug with Antithrombin III human, drug_drug with Thiopental, drug_drug with Thiopental, drug_drug with Antipyrine, drug_drug with Antipyrine. Definitions: rivaroxaban defined as following: An orally bioavailable oxazolidinone derivative and direct inhibitor of the coagulation factor Xa with anticoagulant activity. Upon oral administration, rivaroxaban selectively binds to both free factor Xa and factor Xa bound in the prothrombinase complex. This interferes with the conversion of prothrombin (factor II) to thrombin and eventually prevents the formation of cross-linked fibrin clots. Rivaroxaban does not affect existing thrombin levels.. Apixaban defined as following: An orally active inhibitor of coagulation factor Xa with anticoagulant activity. Apixaban directly inhibits factor Xa, thereby interfering with the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin and preventing formation of cross-linked fibrin clots.. oral defined as following: The introduction of a substance to the mouth or into the gastrointestinal tract by the way of the mouth, usually for systemic action. It is the most common, convenient, and usually the safest and least expensive route of drug administration, but it uses the most complicated pathway to the tissues and bioavailability varies. The disadvantages of method are hepatic first pass metabolism and enzymatic degradation of the drug within the gastrointestinal tract. This prohibits oral administration of certain classes of drugs especially peptides and proteins.. coagulation factors defined as following: Endogenous substances, usually proteins, that are involved in the blood coagulation process.. factor Xa defined as following: Activated form of factor X that participates in both the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways of blood coagulation. It catalyzes the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin in conjunction with other cofactors.. dabigatran defined as following: A THROMBIN inhibitor which acts by binding and blocking thrombogenic activity and the prevention of thrombus formation. It is used to reduce the risk of stroke and systemic EMBOLISM in patients with nonvalvular atrial fibrillation.. bleeding defined as following: Bleeding or escape of blood from a vessel.. enoxaparin defined as following: Low-molecular-weight fragment of heparin, having a 4-enopyranosuronate sodium structure at the non-reducing end of the chain. It is prepared by depolymerization of the benzylic ester of porcine mucosal heparin. Therapeutically, it is used as an antithrombotic agent. (From Merck Index, 11th ed). apixaban defined as following: An orally active inhibitor of coagulation factor Xa with anticoagulant activity. Apixaban directly inhibits factor Xa, thereby interfering with the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin and preventing formation of cross-linked fibrin clots..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_3503", "sentence1": "Are stretch enhancers transcribed more than super-enhancers?", "sentence2": "Super-enhancers are transcriptionally more active and cell type-specific than stretch enhancers., We found that stretch enhancers are more abundant, more distal to transcription start sites, cover twice as much the genome, and are significantly less conserved than super-enhancers. In contrast, super-enhancers are significantly more enriched for active chromatin marks and cohesin complex, and more transcriptionally active than stretch enhancers. Importantly, a vast majority of super-enhancers (85%) overlap with only a small subset of stretch enhancers (13%), which are enriched for cell type-specific biological functions, and control cell identity genes. These results suggest that super-enhancers are transcriptionally more active and cell type-specific than stretch enhancers, and importantly, most of the stretch enhancers that are distinct from super-enhancers do not show an association with cell identity genes, are less active, and more likely to be poised enhancers., These results suggest that super-enhancers are transcriptionally more active and cell type-specific than stretch enhancers, and importantly, most of the stretch enhancers that are distinct from super-enhancers do not show an association with cell identity genes, are less active, and more likely to be poised enhancers.[SEP]Relations: cohesin complex has relations: cellcomp_protein with STAG2, cellcomp_protein with STAG2, cellcomp_protein with RAD21, cellcomp_protein with RAD21, cellcomp_protein with STAG1, cellcomp_protein with STAG1, cellcomp_protein with SMC1A, cellcomp_protein with SMC1A, cellcomp_protein with SMC1B, cellcomp_protein with SMC1B. Definitions: cohesin complex defined as following: A protein complex that is required for sister chromatid cohesion in eukaryotes. The cohesin complex forms a molecular ring complex, and is composed of structural maintenance of chromosomes (SMC) and kleisin proteins. For example, in yeast, the complex is composed of the SMC proteins Smc1p and Smc3p, and the kleisin protein Scc1p. In vertebrates, the complex is composed of the SMC1 (SMC1A or SMC1B) and SMC3 heterodimer attached via their hinge domains to a kleisin (RAD21, REC8 or RAD21L) which links them, and one STAG protein (STAG1, STAG2 or STAG3). [GOC:jl, GOC:sp, GOC:vw, PMID:9887095]. genome defined as following: Anatomical set of genes in all the chromosomes..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_3773", "sentence1": "Do circular exons increase gene expression?", "sentence2": "Each of these species was present at very low copy numbers in primary and cultured cells; however, only the expression of ANRIL isoforms containing exons proximal to the INK4/ARF locus correlated with the ASVD risk alleles., These results identify novel circular RNA products emanating from the ANRIL locus and suggest causal variants at 9p21.3 regulate INK4/ARF expression and ASVD risk by modulating ANRIL expression and/or structure., To explore the potential for using this methodology to express circular RNA in vivo, circular forms of the HDV ribozyme and RNaseP RNA were produced in E. coli. , The activity of in vivo expressed circular ribozymes could be demonstrated indicating that they fold into active conformation, We found that: i) the circRNA expression profile revealed 1,285 significant differences in circRNA expression, with circRNA expression downregulated in 594 samples and upregulated in 691 samples via interactions with miRNAs., These circRNAs regulated the expression of target genes through interactions with miRNAs and might become new molecular biomarkers for GC in the future, 69 differentially expressed circRNAs were found that might adsorb specific miRNAs to regulate the expression of their target gene mRNAs., Novel coding, translation, and gene expression of a replicating covalently closed circular RNA of 220 nt., The highly structured (64% GC) covalently closed circular (CCC) RNA (220 nt) of the virusoid associated with rice yellow mottle virus codes for a 16-kDa highly basic protein using novel modalities for coding, translation, and gene expression, Recent evidence has demonstrated that circular RNAs (circRNAs) played crucial roles in fine-tuning the levels of gene expression by sequestering the corresponding microRNA (miRNAs). , It has been proposed that circRNA regulate gene expression at the transcriptional or post-transcriptional level by interacting with miRNAs and that circRNAs may have a role in regulating miRNA function in cancer initiation and progression.[SEP]Relations: Protein C has relations: drug_drug with Interferon gamma-1b, drug_drug with Interferon gamma-1b, drug_drug with Interferon beta-1b, drug_drug with Interferon beta-1b, drug_drug with Interferon alfa-2a, Recombinant, drug_drug with Interferon alfa-2a, Recombinant, drug_drug with Interferon alfa-2b, drug_drug with Interferon alfa-2b, drug_drug with Interferon alfa-n1, drug_drug with Interferon alfa-n1. Definitions: gene defined as following: A category of nucleic acid sequences that function as units of heredity and which code for the basic instructions for the development, reproduction, and maintenance of organisms.. microRNA defined as following: Small double-stranded, non-protein coding RNAs, 21-25 nucleotides in length generated from single-stranded microRNA gene transcripts by the same RIBONUCLEASE III, Dicer, that produces small interfering RNAs (RNA, SMALL INTERFERING). They become part of the RNA-INDUCED SILENCING COMPLEX and repress the translation (TRANSLATION, GENETIC) of target RNA by binding to homologous 3'UTR region as an imperfect match. The small temporal RNAs (stRNAs), let-7 and lin-4, from C. elegans, are the first 2 miRNAs discovered, and are from a class of miRNAs involved in developmental timing.. RNA defined as following: A polynucleotide consisting essentially of chains with a repeating backbone of phosphate and ribose units to which nitrogenous bases are attached. RNA is unique among biological macromolecules in that it can encode genetic information, serve as an abundant structural component of cells, and also possesses catalytic activity. (Rieger et al., Glossary of Genetics: Classical and Molecular, 5th ed). circRNA defined as following: RNA molecules in which the 3' and 5' ends are covalently joined to form a closed continuous loop. They are resistant to digestion by EXORIBONUCLEASES.. cultured cells defined as following: Cells propagated in vitro in special media conducive to their growth. Cultured cells are used to study developmental, morphologic, metabolic, physiologic, and genetic processes, among others.. coding defined as following: The activity of implementing rules that are used to map the elements of one set onto the elements of another set, usually on a one-to-one basis.. ANRIL defined as following: Human CDKN2B-AS1 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 9p21.3 and is approximately 126 kb in length. This allele, which encodes CDKN2B antisense RNA 1, is involved in epigenetic silencing of nearby genes. Loss of expression of the gene may be associated with increased susceptibility for cardiovascular disease, melanoma and several other cancers, intracranial aneurysm, type-2 diabetes, periodontitis, Alzheimer's disease, endometriosis, frailty in the elderly, and glaucoma.. protein defined as following: Protein; provides access to the encoding gene via its GenBank Accession, the taxon in which this instance of the protein occurs, and references to homologous proteins in other species.. 9p21.3 defined as following: A chromosome band present on 9p. exons defined as following: The parts of a transcript of a split GENE remaining after the INTRONS are removed. They are spliced together to become a MESSENGER RNA or other functional RNA..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_409", "sentence1": "Does a linker histone exist in the yeast genome?", "sentence2": "Hho1p is a bona fide linker histone, In Saccharomyces cerevisiae, HHO1 encodes a putative linker histone with very significant homology to histone H1, HHO1p may play a similar role to linker histones, but at restricted locations in the chromatin, The putative linker histone in Saccharomyces cerevisiae, Hho1p, has two regions of sequence (GI and GII) that are homologous to the single globular domains of linker histones H1 and H5 in higher eukaryotes. , The Saccharomyces cerevisiae homologue of the linker histone H1, Hho1p, has two domains that are similar in sequence to the globular domain of H1 (and variants such as H5), Two homologous domains of similar structure but different stability in the yeast linker histone, Hho1p, Saccharomyces cerevisiae encodes a single linker histone, Hho1p, with two globular domains. , The Saccharomyces cerevisiae linker histone Hho1p, with two globular domains, can simultaneously bind to two four-way junction DNA molecules, Here, we show in yeast, that the presence of yeast linker histone Hho1p represses expression of a pol II transcribed gene (MET15) embedded in the rDNA., Yeast linker histone Hho1p is required for efficient RNA polymerase I processivity and transcriptional silencing at the ribosomal DNA, Saccharomyces cerevisiae linker histone Hho1p is not essential for cell viability, and very little is known about its function in vivo. , Saccharomyces cerevisiae linker histone Hho1p functionally interacts with core histone H4 and negatively regulates the establishment of transcriptionally silent chromatin, Unlike canonical linker histones in higher eukaryotes that have a single conserved globular domain, Hho1p possesses two globular domains. We show that the carboxyl-terminal globular domain of Hho1p is dispensable for its function, suggesting that the mode of Hho1p action is similar to that of canonical linker histones, To identify new proteins involved in spore nuclear organization, we purified chromatin from mature spores and discovered a significant enrichment of the linker histone (Hho1), Hho1 chromatin immunoprecipitation followed by sequencing (ChIP-seq) revealed increased genome-wide binding in mature spores and provides novel in vivo evidence of the linker histone binding to nucleosomal linker DNA, One of the peculiarities of S. cerevisiae cells is the unusual and less abundant linker histone, Hho1p., Hho1p, the linker histone of Saccharomyces cerevisiae, is important for the proper chromatin organization in vivo, Characteristically, linker histone depleted chromatin generally exhibited longer chromatin loops than the wild-type. , Saccharomyces cerevisiae linker histone-Hho1p maintains chromatin loop organization during ageing., Database homology searching against the complete yeast genome has identified a gene, HHO1, (or YPL127C, formerly LPI17) which encodes a protein that has two regions that show similarity to the pea histone H1 globular domain., Database homology searching against the complete yeast genome has identified a gene, HHO1, (or YPL127C, formerly LPI17) which encodes a protein that has two regions that show similarity to the pea histone H1 globular domain. , Biochemical studies to date have not been able to identify the linker histone H1 protein in the budding yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae. Database homology searching against the complete yeast genome has identified a gene, HHO1, (or YPL127C, formerly LPI17) which encodes a protein that has two regions that show similarity to the pea histone H1 globular domain., Database homology searching against the complete yeast genome has identified a gene, HHO1, (or YPL127C, formerly LPI17) which encodes a protein that has two regions that show similarity to the pea histone H1 globular domain.[SEP]Relations: FGFR1 has relations: molfunc_protein with heparin binding, molfunc_protein with heparin binding, drug_protein with Heparin, drug_protein with Heparin, disease_protein with isolated cloverleaf skull syndrome, disease_protein with isolated cloverleaf skull syndrome, anatomy_protein_present with connective tissue, anatomy_protein_present with connective tissue, anatomy_protein_present with putamen, anatomy_protein_present with putamen. Definitions: yeast defined as following: A species of the genus SACCHAROMYCES, family Saccharomycetaceae, order Saccharomycetales, known as \"baker's\" or \"brewer's\" yeast. The dried form is used as a dietary supplement.. rDNA defined as following: DNA sequences encoding RIBOSOMAL RNA and the segments of DNA separating the individual ribosomal RNA genes, referred to as RIBOSOMAL SPACER DNA.. chromatin loop defined as following: A higher order chromatin structure above the level of the chromatin fiber. The organization of chromatin into loops permits the partitioning of chromatin into topologically independent domains, and is thought to facilitate its compartmentation into functionally independent regions.. proteins defined as following: Linear POLYPEPTIDES that are synthesized on RIBOSOMES and may be further modified, crosslinked, cleaved, or assembled into complex proteins with several subunits. The specific sequence of AMINO ACIDS determines the shape the polypeptide will take, during PROTEIN FOLDING, and the function of the protein.. histones defined as following: Small chromosomal proteins (approx 12-20 kD) possessing an open, unfolded structure and attached to the DNA in cell nuclei by ionic linkages. Classification into the various types (designated histone I, histone II, etc.) is based on the relative amounts of arginine and lysine in each.. histone H1 defined as following: Linker Histone H1 interacts with DNA between nucleosome units in mediating chromatin compaction into higher order structures. Histones are basic nuclear proteins responsible for the nucleosome structure of eukaryotic chromatin. Repeating nucleosome units contain two molecules each of core Histones H2A, H2B, H3, and H4 that form an octamer complex around which approximately 146 base pairs of DNA is wrapped. (NCI). protein defined as following: Protein; provides access to the encoding gene via its GenBank Accession, the taxon in which this instance of the protein occurs, and references to homologous proteins in other species.. chromatin defined as following: The ordered and organized complex of DNA, protein, and sometimes RNA, that forms the chromosome. [GOC:elh, PMID:20404130]. RNA polymerase I defined as following: A DNA-dependent RNA polymerase present in bacterial, plant, and animal cells. The enzyme functions in the nucleolar structure and transcribes DNA into RNA. It has different requirements for cations and salts than RNA polymerase II and III and is not inhibited by alpha-amanitin.. eukaryotes defined as following: Organism or cells with a nucleus separated from the cytoplasm by a two membrance nuclear envelope and compartmentalization of function into distinct cytoplasmic organelles.. gene defined as following: A category of nucleic acid sequences that function as units of heredity and which code for the basic instructions for the development, reproduction, and maintenance of organisms.. H5 defined as following: This gene plays a role in mitogenesis and differentiation.. homology defined as following: A gene from one species which corresponds to a gene in another species and that is related via a common ancestral species. These genes retain a similar sequence and function..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_4628", "sentence1": "Is tirabrutinib effective for lymphoma?", "sentence2": "In March 2020, oral tirabrutinib was approved in Japan for the treatment of recurrent or refractory primary central nervous system lymphoma. Tirabrutinib is also under regulatory review in Japan for the treatment of Waldenström's macroglobulinemia and lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma. Clinical development is underway in the USA, Europe and Japan for autoimmune disorders, chronic lymphocytic leukaemia, B cell lymphoma, Sjogren's syndrome, pemphigus and rheumatoid arthritis. This article summarizes the milestones in the development of tirabrutinib leading to the first approval of tirabrutinib for the treatment of recurrent or refractory primary central nervous system lymphoma in Japan., CONCLUSION: These data indicate favorable efficacy of tirabrutinib in patients with relapsed/refractory PCNSL., Tirabrutinib was well tolerated and showed promising efficacy for B-cell NHL/CLL., rabrutinib was approved in Japan for the treatment of recurrent or refractory primary central nervous system lymphoma. Tirabrutinib is also , Here, we provide a comprehensive review of the preclinical and clinical activity of tirabrutinib, a drug approved in Japan for relapsed or refractory primary central nervous system lymphoma and all lines of Waldenström macroglobulinemia/lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma., Tirabrutinib (ONO/GS-4059; Ono Pharmaceutical) is a newly developed drug that selectively and irreversibly inhibits Bruton's tyrosine kinase (BTK) and has been approved in Japan for treating relapsed/refractory primary central nervous system lymphoma (PCNSL)., A 64-year-old patient with recurrent PCNSL enrolled in the phase I/II clinical trial of tirabrutinib, a second-generation BTK inhibitor designed for treating relapsed/refractory PCNSL., BACKGROUND: The safety, tolerability, efficacy, and pharmacokinetics of tirabrutinib, a second-generation, highly selective oral Bruton's tyrosine kinase inhibitor were evaluated for relapsed/refractory primary central nervous system lymphoma (PCNSL).M, 2020, oral tirabrutinib was approved in Japan for the treatment of recurrent or refractory primary central nervous system lymphoma. Tirabru, ine kinase inhibitor tirabrutinib (for relapsed and refractory PCNSL) and high-dose chemotherapy with autologous stem cell transplantation support using thiotepa and busulfan (BuTT) were approved by the Japanese Ministry of Health and Welfare in March 2020 and has recently become available for clinical practice. While these novel, BACKGROUND: The safety, tolerability, efficacy, and pharmacokinetics of tirabrutinib, a second-generation, highly selective oral Bruton's tyrosine kinase inhibitor were evaluated for relapsed/refractory primary central nervous system lymphoma (PCNSL).METHODS: Patients with relapsed/refractory PCNSL, Karnofsky performance status ≥70, and normal end-organ function received tirabrutinib 320 and 480 , Histological verification of the treatment effect of tirabrutinib for relapsed/refractory primary central nervous system lymphoma., In March 2020, oral tirabrutinib was approved in Japan for the treatment of recurrent or refractory primary central nervous system lymphoma.[SEP]Relations: Ibrutinib has relations: drug_drug with Ibritumomab tiuxetan, drug_drug with Ibritumomab tiuxetan, drug_drug with Acalabrutinib, drug_drug with Acalabrutinib, drug_drug with Tixocortol, drug_drug with Tixocortol. Thiotepa has relations: drug_drug with Ibritumomab tiuxetan, drug_drug with Ibritumomab tiuxetan, drug_drug with Acalabrutinib, drug_drug with Acalabrutinib. Definitions: drug defined as following: Any natural, endogenously-derived, synthetic or semi-synthetic compound with pharmacologic activity. A pharmacologic substance has one or more specific mechanism of action(s) through which it exerts one or more effect(s) on the human or animal body. They can be used to potentially prevent, diagnose, treat or relieve symptoms of a disease. Formulation specific agents and some combination agents are also classified as pharmacologic substances.. PCNSL defined as following: A non-Hodgkin or Hodgkin lymphoma that arises in the brain or spinal cord as a primary lesion. There is no evidence of lymphoma outside the central nervous system at the time of diagnosis.. thiotepa defined as following: A very toxic alkylating antineoplastic agent also used as an insect sterilant. It causes skin, gastrointestinal, CNS, and bone marrow damage. According to the Fourth Annual Report on Carcinogens (NTP 85-002, 1985), thiotepa may reasonably be anticipated to be a carcinogen (Merck Index, 11th ed).. Bruton's tyrosine kinase defined as following: A non-receptor tyrosine kinase that is essential for the development, maturation, and signaling of B-LYMPHOCYTES. It contains an N-terminal zinc finger motif and localizes primarily to the PLASMA MEMBRANE and nucleus of B-lymphocytes. Mutations in the gene that encode this kinase are associated with X-LINKED AGAMMAGLOBULINEMIA.. rheumatoid arthritis defined as following: A chronic systemic disease, primarily of the joints, marked by inflammatory changes in the synovial membranes and articular structures, widespread fibrinoid degeneration of the collagen fibers in mesenchymal tissues, and by atrophy and rarefaction of bony structures. Etiology is unknown, but autoimmune mechanisms have been implicated.. autoimmune disorders defined as following: Disorders that are characterized by the production of antibodies that react with host tissues or immune effector cells that are autoreactive to endogenous peptides.. lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma defined as following: A clonal neoplasm of small B-lymphocytes, lymphoplasmacytoid cells, and plasma cells involving the bone marrow, lymph nodes, and the spleen. The majority of patients have a serum IgM paraprotein.. B cell lymphoma defined as following: A group of heterogeneous lymphoid tumors generally expressing one or more B-cell antigens or representing malignant transformations of B-lymphocytes.. BTK defined as following: Tyrosine-protein kinase BTK (659 aa, ~76 kDa) is encoded by the human BTK gene. This protein is involved in both B-cell development and signal transduction.. Tirabrutinib defined as following: An orally available formulation containing an inhibitor of Bruton agammaglobulinemia tyrosine kinase (BTK), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, tirabrutinib covalently binds to BTK within B cells, thereby preventing B cell receptor signaling and impeding B cell development. As a result, this agent may inhibit the proliferation of B cell malignancies. BTK, a cytoplasmic tyrosine kinase and member of the Tec family of kinases, plays an important role in B lymphocyte development, activation, signaling, proliferation and survival.. chronic lymphocytic leukaemia defined as following: A chronic leukemia characterized by abnormal B-lymphocytes and often generalized lymphadenopathy. In patients presenting predominately with blood and bone marrow involvement it is called chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL); in those predominately with enlarged lymph nodes it is called small lymphocytic lymphoma. These terms represent spectrums of the same disease.. busulfan defined as following: An alkylating agent having a selective immunosuppressive effect on BONE MARROW. It has been used in the palliative treatment of chronic myeloid leukemia (MYELOID LEUKEMIA, CHRONIC), but although symptomatic relief is provided, no permanent remission is brought about. According to the Fourth Annual Report on Carcinogens (NTP 85-002, 1985), busulfan is listed as a known carcinogen.. Sjogren's syndrome defined as following: Chronic inflammatory and autoimmune disease in which the salivary and lacrimal glands undergo progressive destruction by lymphocytes and plasma cells resulting in decreased production of saliva and tears. The primary form, often called sicca syndrome, involves both KERATOCONJUNCTIVITIS SICCA and XEROSTOMIA. The secondary form includes, in addition, the presence of a connective tissue disease, usually rheumatoid arthritis.. lymphoma defined as following: A general term for various neoplastic diseases of the lymphoid tissue..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_353", "sentence1": "Are there any functional differences between Mfd and its human Cocaine syndrome protein B (CSB) homolog?", "sentence2": "In humans, the TCR coupling factor, CSB, plays a critical role in restoring transcription following both UV-induced and oxidative DNA damage. It also contributes indirectly to the global repair of some forms of oxidative DNA damage. The Escherichia coli homolog, Mfd, is similarly required for TCR of UV-induced lesions., Mfd may be functionally distinct from its human CSB homolog in that it does not detectably contribute to the recovery of gene expression or global repair following oxidative damage., CSB has an ATPase activity that is stimulated strongly by DNA; however, it neither acts as a helicase nor does it dissociate stalled RNA polymerase II, suggesting a coupling mechanism in humans different from that in prokaryotes. , In addition, these findings imply that Mfd may be functionally distinct from its human CSB homolog in that it does not detectably contribute to the recovery of gene expression or global repair following oxidative damage., In addition, these findings imply that Mfd may be functionally distinct from its human CSB homolog in that it does not detectably contribute to the recovery of gene expression or global repair following oxidative damage., In contrast, no difference was detected in the rate of transcription recovery in mfd, uvrA, fpg, nth, or polB dinB umuDC mutants relative to wild-type cells following oxidative damage[SEP]Relations: Adenosine phosphate has relations: drug_protein with FBP1, drug_protein with FBP1, drug_protein with PRKAB2, drug_protein with PRKAB2, drug_protein with PDE4D, drug_protein with PDE4D, drug_protein with PRKAB1, drug_protein with PRKAB1, drug_protein with AMPD1, drug_protein with AMPD1. Definitions: ATPase defined as following: A group of enzymes which catalyze the hydrolysis of ATP. The hydrolysis reaction is usually coupled with another function such as transporting Ca(2+) across a membrane. These enzymes may be dependent on Ca(2+), Mg(2+), anions, H+, or DNA.. CSB defined as following: A form of syndromic craniosynostosis with characteristics of highly variable craniosynostosis with frontal bossing, turribrachycephaly and cloverleaf skull anomaly. Hypoplasia of the supraorbital ridges, cleft palate, extra teeth and limb anomalies has also been described. Associated problems include headache, poor vision, and seizures. Intelligence is normal.. TCR defined as following: The nucleotide-excision repair process that carries out preferential repair of DNA lesions on the actively transcribed strand of the DNA duplex. In addition, the transcription-coupled nucleotide-excision repair pathway is required for the recognition and repair of a small subset of lesions that are not recognized by the global genome nucleotide excision repair pathway. [PMID:10197977, PMID:11900249]. RNA polymerase II defined as following: A DNA-dependent RNA polymerase present in bacterial, plant, and animal cells. It functions in the nucleoplasmic structure and transcribes DNA into RNA. It has different requirements for cations and salt than RNA polymerase I and is strongly inhibited by alpha-amanitin. EC 2.7.7.6.. humans defined as following: Members of the species Homo sapiens.. DNA defined as following: A deoxyribonucleotide polymer that is the primary genetic material of all cells. Eukaryotic and prokaryotic organisms normally contain DNA in a double-stranded state, yet several important biological processes transiently involve single-stranded regions. DNA, which consists of a polysugar-phosphate backbone possessing projections of purines (adenine and guanine) and pyrimidines (thymine and cytosine), forms a double helix that is held together by hydrogen bonds between these purines and pyrimidines (adenine to thymine and guanine to cytosine).. mutants defined as following: An altered form of an individual, organism, population, or genetic character that differs from the corresponding wild type due to one or more alterations (mutations)..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_741", "sentence1": "Is the circadian clock involved in ribosome biogenesis?", "sentence2": "The circadian clock coordinates ribosome biogenesis., Here we show that the circadian clock exerts its function also through the regulation of mRNA translation. Namely, the circadian clock influences the temporal translation of a subset of mRNAs involved in ribosome biogenesis by controlling the transcription of translation initiation factors as well as the clock-dependent rhythmic activation of signaling pathways involved in their regulation. Moreover, the circadian oscillator directly regulates the transcription of ribosomal protein mRNAs and ribosomal RNAs. Thus the circadian clock exerts a major role in coordinating transcription and translation steps underlying ribosome biogenesis., Namely, the circadian clock influences the temporal translation of a subset of mRNAs involved in ribosome biogenesis by controlling the transcription of translation initiation factors as well as the clock-dependent rhythmic activation of signaling pathways involved in their regulation, The circadian clock coordinates ribosome biogenesis, Here we show that the circadian clock exerts its function also through the regulation of mRNA translation, Here we show that the circadian clock exerts its function also through the regulation of mRNA translation. Namely, the circadian clock influences the temporal translation of a subset of mRNAs involved in ribosome biogenesis by controlling the transcription of translation initiation factors as well as the clock-dependent rhythmic activation of signaling pathways involved in their regulation.[SEP]Relations: ribosome has relations: cellcomp_protein with AURKAIP1, cellcomp_protein with AURKAIP1, cellcomp_protein with SNCA, cellcomp_protein with SNCA, cellcomp_protein with RNA28SN5, cellcomp_protein with RNA28SN5, cellcomp_protein with RPS17, cellcomp_protein with RPS17, cellcomp_protein with RNA28SN4, cellcomp_protein with RNA28SN4. Definitions: mRNA translation defined as following: The cellular metabolic process in which a protein is formed, using the sequence of a mature mRNA or circRNA molecule to specify the sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain. Translation is mediated by the ribosome, and begins with the formation of a ternary complex between aminoacylated initiator methionine tRNA, GTP, and initiation factor 2, which subsequently associates with the small subunit of the ribosome and an mRNA or circRNA. Translation ends with the release of a polypeptide chain from the ribosome. [GOC:go_curators]. ribosome defined as following: Multicomponent ribonucleoprotein structures found in the CYTOPLASM of all cells, and in MITOCHONDRIA, and PLASTIDS. They function in PROTEIN BIOSYNTHESIS via GENETIC TRANSLATION.. ribosomal protein defined as following: Proteins found in ribosomes. They are believed to have a catalytic function in reconstituting biologically active ribosomal subunits..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_539", "sentence1": "Are integrins part of the extracellular matrix?", "sentence2": "Several constituents of the ECM provide adhesive cues, which serve as binding sites for cell trans-membrane receptors, such as integrins., We also determined that blocking β1integrins, the major class of receptors for all ECM proteins tested,, Here, we elucidate a cross-scale mechanism for tissue assembly and ECM remodeling involving Cadherin 2, the ECM protein Fibronectin, and its receptor Integrin α5. , due to the diverse functions and variable expression of proteoglycans, matrix proteins, and integrins, it is rather difficult to identify a comprehensive therapeutic target among ECM components., Integrin-dependent cell-extracellular matrix (ECM) adhesion is a determinant of spindle orientation., The extracellular matrix component periostin is a secreted protein that functions as both a cell attachment protein and an autocrine or paracrine factor that signals through the cell adhesion molecule integrins αvβ3 and αvβ5. , Integrin receptors connect the extracellular matrix to the cell cytoskeleton to provide essential forces and signals. , the integrin, talin, and actin filament form a linear complex of which both ends are typically anchored to the extracellular matrices via integrins., Integrins, a central family of cellular ECM receptors, have been implicated in these processes but their specific role in ES cell self-renewal remains unclear., Attachment to the extracellular matrix is mediated by a complex of adhesion proteins, including integrins, signaling molecules, actin and actin-binding proteins, and scaffolding proteins., Beta 1 integrin binding plays a role in the constant traction force generation in response to varying stiffness for cells grown on mature cardiac extracellular matrix.[SEP]Relations: extracellular matrix has relations: cellcomp_protein with IGFALS, cellcomp_protein with IGFALS, cellcomp_protein with IHH, cellcomp_protein with IHH, cellcomp_protein with COMP, cellcomp_protein with COMP, cellcomp_protein with NYX, cellcomp_protein with NYX, cellcomp_protein with VEGFA, cellcomp_protein with VEGFA. Definitions: integrins defined as following: A family of transmembrane glycoproteins (MEMBRANE GLYCOPROTEINS) consisting of noncovalent heterodimers. They interact with a wide variety of ligands including EXTRACELLULAR MATRIX PROTEINS; COMPLEMENT, and other cells, while their intracellular domains interact with the CYTOSKELETON. The integrins consist of at least three identified families: the cytoadhesin receptors (RECEPTORS, CYTOADHESIN), the leukocyte adhesion receptors (RECEPTORS, LEUKOCYTE ADHESION), and the VERY LATE ANTIGEN RECEPTORS. Each family contains a common beta-subunit (INTEGRIN BETA CHAINS) combined with one or more distinct alpha-subunits (INTEGRIN ALPHA CHAINS). These receptors participate in cell-matrix and cell-cell adhesion in many physiologically important processes, including embryological development; HEMOSTASIS; THROMBOSIS; WOUND HEALING; immune and nonimmune defense mechanisms; and oncogenic transformation.. ECM defined as following: Human MMRN1 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 4q22 and is approximately 75 kb in length. This allele, which encodes multimerin-1 protein, plays a role in platelet factor V/Va homeostasis.. Cadherin 2 defined as following: Cadherin-2 (906 aa, ~100 kDa) is encoded by the human CDH2 gene. This protein is involved in both neural stem cell anchorage and quiescence.. binding sites defined as following: The parts of a macromolecule that directly participate in its specific combination with another molecule.. actin-binding proteins defined as following: A diverse group of proteins that bind to actin. These proteins direct a complex network of protein filaments that provide stability to the cellular infrastructure by supporting the dynamic motility of microfilaments, thereby enabling intracellular translocation and organelle transport.. extracellular matrices defined as following: A meshwork-like substance found within the extracellular space and in association with the basement membrane of the cell surface. It promotes cellular proliferation and provides a supporting structure to which cells or cell lysates in culture dishes adhere.. spindle defined as following: The array of microtubules and associated molecules that forms between opposite poles of a eukaryotic cell during mitosis or meiosis and serves to move the duplicated chromosomes apart. [ISBN:0198547684]. actin defined as following: Filamentous proteins that are the main constituent of the thin filaments of muscle fibers. The filaments (known also as filamentous or F-actin) can be dissociated into their globular subunits; each subunit is composed of a single polypeptide 375 amino acids long. This is known as globular or G-actin. In conjunction with MYOSINS, actin is responsible for the contraction and relaxation of muscle.. cells defined as following: The fundamental, structural, and functional units or subunits of living organisms. They are composed of CYTOPLASM containing various ORGANELLES and a CELL MEMBRANE boundary.. actin filament defined as following: The part of the cytoskeleton (the internal framework of a cell) composed of actin and associated proteins. Includes actin cytoskeleton-associated complexes. [GOC:jl, ISBN:0395825172, ISBN:0815316194]. extracellular matrix defined as following: A meshwork-like substance found within the extracellular space and in association with the basement membrane of the cell surface. It promotes cellular proliferation and provides a supporting structure to which cells or cell lysates in culture dishes adhere..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_2261", "sentence1": "Has ruxolitinib received FDA approval?", "sentence2": "Testing for JAK2 mutations is now included in the World Health Organization (WHO) criteria for the diagnosis of MPN, and in 2011 the oral JAK2 kinase inhibitor ruxolitinib became the first Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-approved drug for the treatment of myelofibrosis.[SEP]Relations: Ruxolitinib has relations: drug_drug with Rutin, drug_drug with Rutin, drug_drug with Orlistat, drug_drug with Orlistat, drug_drug with Medical Cannabis, drug_drug with Medical Cannabis, drug_drug with Lapatinib, drug_drug with Lapatinib, drug_drug with Dovitinib, drug_drug with Dovitinib. Definitions: JAK2 defined as following: Tyrosine-protein kinase JAK2 (1132 aa, ~131 kDa) is encoded by the human JAK2 gene. This protein is involved in immunity, tyrosine phosphorylation and signal transduction.. ruxolitinib defined as following: An orally bioavailable Janus-associated kinase (JAK) inhibitor with potential antineoplastic and immunomodulating activities. Ruxolitinib specifically binds to and inhibits protein tyrosine kinases JAK 1 and 2, which may lead to a reduction in inflammation and an inhibition of cellular proliferation. The JAK-STAT (signal transducer and activator of transcription) pathway plays a key role in the signaling of many cytokines and growth factors and is involved in cellular proliferation, growth, hematopoiesis, and the immune response; JAK kinases may be upregulated in inflammatory diseases, myeloproliferative disorders, and various malignancies.. MPN defined as following: Conditions which cause proliferation of hemopoietically active tissue or of tissue which has embryonic hemopoietic potential. They all involve dysregulation of multipotent MYELOID PROGENITOR CELLS, most often caused by a mutation in the JAK2 PROTEIN TYROSINE KINASE.. myelofibrosis defined as following: A de novo myeloproliferation arising from an abnormal stem cell. It is characterized by the replacement of bone marrow by fibrous tissue, a process that is mediated by CYTOKINES arising from the abnormal clone..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_836", "sentence1": "Is there any functional association during viral replication between flaviviridae viral RNA depended RNA polymerase and viral helicase?", "sentence2": "Several labs have obtained evidence for a protein complex that involves many of the nonstructural (NS) proteins encoded by the virus. NS3, NS4A, NS4B, NS5A, and NS5B appear to interact structurally and functionally. In this study, we investigated the interaction between the helicase, NS3, and the RNA polymerase, NS5B. Pull-down experiments and surface plasmon resonance data indicate a direct interaction between NS3 and NS5B that is primarily mediated through the protease domain of NS3. This interaction reduces the basal ATPase activity of NS3. However, NS5B stimulates product formation in RNA unwinding experiments under conditions of excess nucleic acid substrate. When the concentrations of NS3 and NS5B are in excess of nucleic acid substrate, NS5B reduces the rate of NS3-catalyzed unwinding. Under pre-steady-state conditions, in which NS3 and substrate concentrations are similar, product formation increased in the presence of NS5B. The increase was consistent with 1:1 complex formed between the two proteins. A fluorescently labeled form of NS3 was used to investigate this interaction through fluorescence polarization binding assays. Results from this assay support interactions that include a 1:1 complex formed between NS3 and NS5B., Contradictory results have been reported regarding NS3 in RNA synthesis. To investigate the effect of NS3 on classical swine fever virus (CSFV) NS5B RNA-dependent RNA polymerase activity (RdRp) activity and NS3-NS5B interaction, RdRp reactions, GST-pull-down assays and co-immunoprecipitation analyses containing NS5B and either of NS3 protein and the different truncated NS3 mutants were performed, respectively. We found that NS3 stimulated NS5B RdRp activity in a dose-dependent manner by binding to NS5 through a NS3 protease domain. Furthermore, mapping important regions of the NS3 protease domain was carried out by deletion mutagenesis, associated with RdRp reactions, GST-pull-down assays and co-immunoprecipitation analyses. Results showed that stimulation of CSFV NS5B RdRp activity was obtained by NS3 binding to NS5B through a 31-amino acid fragment at the N-terminal end of NS3 protease domain, which mediated a specific NS3-NS5B interaction., The protocols detailed in this unit are used to purify three recombinant enzymes that are widely used in HCV research: the HCV NS3 protease domain, the helicase domain as an NS3+NS4A complex, and the NS5B RNA-dependent RNA polymerase. The active enzymes are purified to homogeneity by two-column chromatography to support a screening program for HCV inhibitors., Among potential targets are viral entry factors, including scavenger receptor type B1 (SR-B1) and CD81, as well as neutralizing antibodies against the viral glycoproteins. Popular targets related to translation and replication are the NS3/4A protease (inhibited by telaprevir and boceprevir) and the NS5B polymerase, as well as the NS2/3 autoprotease, the NS3 helicase, and nonenzymatic targets such as NS4B and NS5A proteins. , The NS3 helicase domain competes with NS3 full-length for NS5 RdRp binding, with a K(d.) of 2.5μM. Since NS3 and NS5 are required for DENV replication, this fascile assay could be used to screen for non-nucleoside, allosteric inhibitors that disrupt the interaction between the two proteins.[SEP]Relations: RNA-directed DNA polymerase activity has relations: molfunc_protein with ERVK-11, molfunc_protein with ERVK-11, molfunc_protein with ERVK-8, molfunc_protein with ERVK-8, molfunc_protein with ERVK-10, molfunc_protein with ERVK-10, molfunc_protein with ERVK-7, molfunc_protein with ERVK-7, molfunc_protein with ERVK-6, molfunc_protein with ERVK-6. Definitions: NS5 defined as following: Noonan syndrome caused by autosomal dominant mutation(s) in the RAF1 gene, encoding RAF proto-oncogene serine/threonine-protein kinase.. SR-B1 defined as following: Human SCARB1 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 12q24.31 and is approximately 106 kb in length. This allele, which encodes scavenger receptor class B member 1 protein, plays a role in both binding and import of lipids and lipoproteins.. boceprevir defined as following: An orally bioavailable, synthetic tripeptide inhibitor of the nonstructural protein 3 and 4A complex (NS3/NS4A), with potential activity against hepatitis C virus (HCV) genotype 1. Upon administration, boceprevir reversibly binds to the active center of the HCV NS3/NS4A and prevents NS3/NS4A protease-mediated polyprotein maturation. This disrupts the processing of viral proteins and the formation of a viral replication complex, which inhibits viral replication in HCV genotrype 1-infected host cells. NS3, a serine protease, is essential for the proteolytic cleavages within the HCV polyprotein and plays a key role during HCV viral RNA replication. NS4A is an activating factor for NS3. HCV is a small, enveloped, single-stranded RNA virus belonging to the Flaviviridae family.. telaprevir defined as following: An orally available peptidomimetic small molecule with activity against hepatitis C virus (HCV). Telaprivir is a selective protease inhibitor that targets the viral HCV NS3-4A serine protease and disrupts processing of viral proteins and formation of a viral replication complex.. proteins defined as following: Linear POLYPEPTIDES that are synthesized on RIBOSOMES and may be further modified, crosslinked, cleaved, or assembled into complex proteins with several subunits. The specific sequence of AMINO ACIDS determines the shape the polypeptide will take, during PROTEIN FOLDING, and the function of the protein.. NS3 defined as following: Noonan syndrome caused by autosomal dominant mutation(s) in the KRAS gene, encoding GTPase KRas.. ATPase defined as following: A group of enzymes which catalyze the hydrolysis of ATP. The hydrolysis reaction is usually coupled with another function such as transporting Ca(2+) across a membrane. These enzymes may be dependent on Ca(2+), Mg(2+), anions, H+, or DNA.. mutants defined as following: An altered form of an individual, organism, population, or genetic character that differs from the corresponding wild type due to one or more alterations (mutations).. CD81 defined as following: A tetraspanin protein that is involved in a variety of cellular functions including BASEMENT MEMBRANE assembly, and in the formation of a molecular complexes on the surface of LYMPHOCYTES.. protease domain defined as following: The portion of a proteolytic protein which causes hydrolysis and cleavage of other protein polypeptides.. deletion mutagenesis defined as following: Mutagenesis where the mutation is caused by the loss of DNA sequences within a gene. This may occur spontaneously in vivo or be experimentally induced in vivo or in vitro.. domain defined as following: A taxonomic category above that of Kingdom.. neutralizing antibodies defined as following: Antibodies that reduce or abolish some biological activity of a soluble antigen or infectious agent, usually a virus.. virus defined as following: Minute infectious agents whose genomes are composed of DNA or RNA, but not both. They are characterized by a lack of independent metabolism and the inability to replicate outside living host cells.. RdRp defined as following: Catalysis of the reaction: nucleoside triphosphate + RNA(n) = diphosphate + RNA(n+1); uses an RNA template, i.e. the catalysis of RNA-template-directed extension of the 3'-end of an RNA strand by one nucleotide at a time. [EC:2.7.7.48, GOC:mah, GOC:pf]. RNA defined as following: A polynucleotide consisting essentially of chains with a repeating backbone of phosphate and ribose units to which nitrogenous bases are attached. RNA is unique among biological macromolecules in that it can encode genetic information, serve as an abundant structural component of cells, and also possesses catalytic activity. (Rieger et al., Glossary of Genetics: Classical and Molecular, 5th ed). nucleic acid defined as following: High molecular weight polymers containing a mixture of purine and pyrimidine nucleotides chained together by ribose or deoxyribose linkages.. viral RNA defined as following: Ribonucleic acid that makes up the genetic material of viruses..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_3500", "sentence1": "Does deletion of cohesin change gene expression?", "sentence2": " The conditional deletion of cohesin from noncycling thymocytes preserved enhancer position, H3K27ac, H4K4me1, and enhancer transcription, but weakened interactions between enhancers., Interestingly, ∼ 50% of deregulated genes reside in the vicinity of enhancer elements, suggesting that cohesin regulates gene expression through spatial clustering of enhancer elements., We propose a model for cohesin-dependent gene regulation in which spatial clustering of enhancer elements acts as a unified mechanism for both enhancer-promoter \"connections\" and \"insulation.\"[SEP]Relations: Abnormality of the dentition has relations: disease_phenotype_positive with chromosome 15q24 deletion syndrome, disease_phenotype_positive with chromosome 15q24 deletion syndrome, disease_phenotype_positive with chromosome 4q21 deletion syndrome, disease_phenotype_positive with chromosome 4q21 deletion syndrome, disease_phenotype_positive with chromosome 9p deletion syndrome, disease_phenotype_positive with chromosome 9p deletion syndrome, disease_phenotype_positive with chromosome 8q21.11 deletion syndrome, disease_phenotype_positive with chromosome 8q21.11 deletion syndrome, disease_phenotype_positive with 22q11.2 deletion syndrome, disease_phenotype_positive with 22q11.2 deletion syndrome. Definitions: H3K27ac defined as following: A post-translationally modified form of histone H3 where the lysine residue at position 28 is acetylated. This modification may be a marker for transcriptional enhancement.. enhancer elements defined as following: Cis-acting DNA sequences which can increase transcription of genes. Enhancers can usually function in either orientation and at various distances from a promoter.. genes defined as following: A category of nucleic acid sequences that function as units of heredity and which code for the basic instructions for the development, reproduction, and maintenance of organisms..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_1955", "sentence1": "Does oculocutaneous albinism show an autosomal recessive inheritance?", "sentence2": "Oculocutaneous albinism (OCA) is an autosomal recessive disorder characterized by hypopigmentation in eyes, hair and skin, accompanied with vision loss. , Oculocutaneous albinism (OCA) is an autosomal recessive hereditary pigmentation disorder affecting humans and several other animal species. , Oculocutaneous albinism type 2 (OCA2) is a human autosomal-recessive hypopigmentation disorder associated with pathological mutations of the OCA2 gene., Oculocutaneous albinism type1 (OCA1) is characterized by the absence of melanin pigmentation. The mutation on TYR gene makes OCA1 as an autosomal recessive genetic disorder. , Our patients were diagnosed as affected with Oculocutaneous albinism type1a. Analysis of pedigree pattern showed an autosomal recessive inheritance. , Oculocutaneous albinism (OCA) is an autosomal recessive disorder of melanin biosynthesis that results in congenital hypopigmentation of ocular and cutaneous tissues., Oculocutaneous albinism is an autosomal recessive genetic disorder., Melanin biosynthesis is reduced in oculocutaneous albinism, an autosomal recessive disorder., The pedigrees were consistent with an autosomal recessive inheritance pattern.CONCLUSION: This unique type of oculocutaneous albinism has heterogeneous clinical features., BACKGROUND: Oculocutaneous albinism (OCA) is an autosomal recessive hereditary pigmentation disorder affecting humans and several other animal species., The Q402 allele has been associated with autosomal recessive ocular albinism when it is in trans with a tyrosinase gene mutation associated with oculocutaneous albinism type 1., Analysis using the POINTER program showed that this type of oculocutaneous albinism was inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern, with an estimated gene frequency of 0.025 +/- 0.007 in this population., We have identified 12 families with oculocutaneous albinism type 1 that exhibit segregation of the c.1205G>A variant with a known pathologic mutation on the homologous chromosome, and demonstrate no genetic association between autosomal recessive oculocutaneous albinism and the Q402 variant., BACKGROUND: Type II (tyrosinase-positive) oculocutaneous albinism is an autosomal recessive disorder that has recently been mapped to chromosome segment 15q11-q13., The child with ocular albinism was heterozygous for two different mutations in the P gene.CONCLUSIONS: Abnormalities of the P gene are associated with a wide range of clinical phenotypes, including type II oculocutaneous albinism, albinism associated with the Prader-Willi syndrome, and at least some cases of autosomal recessive ocular albinism., Mutations in the TYR gene (TYR, 11q14-21, MIM 606933) cause oculocutaneous albinism type 1 (OCA1, MIM 203100), a developmental disorder having an autosomal recessive mode of inheritance, The pedigrees were consistent with an autosomal recessive inheritance pattern.This unique type of oculocutaneous albinism has heterogeneous clinical features, Oculocutaneous albinism (OCA) is an autosomal recessive disorder, Oculocutaneous albinism (OCA) is an autosomal recessive disorder of abnormal melanin formation, which results in hypopigmentation of skin, hair and eyes, The mutation of the tyrosinase (TYR) gene results in oculocutaneous albinism type 1 (OCA1), an autosomal recessive genetic disorder, We found oculo-cutaneous albinism in two brothers and granular dystrophy in three brothers, the mother and a son.Corneal dystrophy is an autosomal dominant disorder inherited independently of oculocutaneous albinism, which is inherited as an autosomal recessive condition, Oculocutaneous albinism (OCA) type 4 is a newly identified human autosomal recessive hypopigmentary disorder that disrupts pigmentation in the skin, hair and eyes, Analysis using the POINTER program showed that this type of oculocutaneous albinism was inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern, with an estimated gene frequency of 0.025 +/- 0.007 in this population. , DISCUSSION: Corneal dystrophy is an autosomal dominant disorder inherited independently of oculocutaneous albinism, which is inherited as an autosomal recessive condition. , BACKGROUND: Oculocutaneous albinism type II (OCA2) is an autosomal recessively inherited disorder, characterized by white hair and skin, and loss of pigment in the eyes. , Is autosomal recessive deafness associated with oculocutaneous albinism a \"coincidence syndrome\"?, Oculocutaneous albinism, immunodeficiency, hematological disorders, and minor anomalies: a new autosomal recessive syndrome?, Mutations in the TYR gene (TYR, 11q14-21, MIM 606933) cause oculocutaneous albinism type 1 (OCA1, MIM 203100), a developmental disorder having an autosomal recessive mode of inheritance., Oculocutaneous albinism (OCA) is an autosomal recessive disorder characterized by hypopigmentation in eyes, hair and skin, accompanied with vision loss., Oculocutaneous albinism (OCA) is an autosomal recessive hereditary pigmentation disorder affecting humans and several other animal species.[SEP]Relations: autosomal recessive disease has relations: disease_disease with autosomal recessive ocular albinism, disease_disease with autosomal recessive ocular albinism. Autosomal recessive inheritance has relations: disease_phenotype_positive with oculoosteocutaneous syndrome, disease_phenotype_positive with oculoosteocutaneous syndrome. autosomal dominant oculocutaneous albinism has relations: disease_disease with autosomal dominant disease, disease_disease with autosomal dominant disease. autosomal dominant disease has relations: disease_disease with autosomal dominant oculocutaneous albinism, disease_disease with autosomal dominant oculocutaneous albinism. ocular albinism (disease) has relations: disease_disease with autosomal recessive ocular albinism, disease_disease with autosomal recessive ocular albinism. Definitions: autosomal recessive disorder defined as following: An inherited disorder manifested only when two copies of a mutated gene are present.. OCA1 defined as following: A group of tyrosine related oculocutaneous albinism (OCA1) that includes OCA1A, OCA1B, type 1 minimal pigment oculocutaneous albinism (OCA1-MP) and type 1 temperature sensitive oculocutaneous albinism (OCA1-TS). The phenotypic spectrum seen in OCA1 is variable. Pigmentation present in the skin, hair and eyes can range from little or none to pigmentation only to the peripheries. Findings of nystagmus, photophobia and reduced visual acuity are often present. The disease is caused by a mutation in the TYR gene located on chromosome 11q14.3 encoding tyrosinase. Mutations in OCA1A and OCA1B lead to a total or partial loss of the catalytic activity of tyrosinase while those in OCA1-MP and OCA1-TS lead to minimal activity or temperature sensitive tyrosinase proteins. The different forms of OCA1 are all transmitted autosomal recessively.. variant defined as following: An alteration or difference from a norm or standard.. Corneal dystrophy defined as following: Bilateral hereditary disorders of the cornea, usually autosomal dominant, which may be present at birth but more frequently develop during adolescence and progress slowly throughout life. Central macular dystrophy is transmitted as an autosomal recessive defect.. TYR defined as following: An enzyme of the oxidoreductase class that catalyzes the reaction between L-tyrosine, L-dopa, and oxygen to yield L-dopa, dopaquinone, and water. It is a copper protein that acts also on catechols, catalyzing some of the same reactions as CATECHOL OXIDASE. EC 1.14.18.1.. melanin defined as following: Insoluble polymers of TYROSINE derivatives found in and causing darkness in skin (SKIN PIGMENTATION), hair, and feathers providing protection against SUNBURN induced by SUNLIGHT. CAROTENES contribute yellow and red coloration.. Mutations defined as following: The result of any gain, loss or alteration of the sequences comprising a gene, including all sequences transcribed into RNA.. Oculocutaneous albinism defined as following: A form of oculocutaneous albinism (OCA) characterized by rufous or brown albinism and occurring mainly in the African population.. Oculocutaneous albinism type 2 defined as following: A type of Oculocutaneous albinism with varying degrees of skin and hair hypopigmentation, numerous ocular changes and misrouting of the optic nerves at the chiasm. Cutaneous hypopigmentation is often visible at birth and signs of nystagmus and strabismus present in the first year of life. Visual changes are not progressive. Caused by mutations in the membrane-associated transporter protein (MATP) gene, SLC45A2, encoding a transporter protein which is thought to mediate melanin synthesis. Inheritance is autosomal recessive.. ocular albinism defined as following: Albinism affecting the eye in which pigment of the hair and skin is normal or only slightly diluted. The classic type is X-linked (Nettleship-Falls), but an autosomal recessive form also exists. Ocular abnormalities may include reduced pigmentation of the iris, nystagmus, photophobia, strabismus, and decreased visual acuity.. pigment defined as following: something that gives color. Type II defined as following: Fungating. OCA2 defined as following: A form of oculocutaneous albinism characterized by variable hypopigmentation of the skin and hair, numerous characteristic ocular changes and misrouting of the optic nerves at the chiasm.. OCA2 gene defined as following: This gene plays a role in transport and melanin synthesis.. Prader-Willi syndrome defined as following: An autosomal dominant disorder caused by deletion of the proximal long arm of the paternal chromosome 15 (15q11-q13) or by inheritance of both of the pair of chromosomes 15 from the mother (UNIPARENTAL DISOMY) which are imprinted (GENETIC IMPRINTING) and hence silenced. Clinical manifestations include MENTAL RETARDATION; MUSCULAR HYPOTONIA; HYPERPHAGIA; OBESITY; short stature; HYPOGONADISM; STRABISMUS; and HYPERSOMNOLENCE. (Menkes, Textbook of Child Neurology, 5th ed, p229). autosomal defined as following: Any chromosome other than a sex chromosome. [GOC:mah]. autosomal recessive inheritance defined as following: A mode of inheritance that is observed for traits related to a gene encoded on one of the autosomes (i.e., the human chromosomes 1-22) in which a trait manifests in individuals with two pathogenic alleles, either homozygotes (two copies of the same mutant allele) or compound heterozygotes (whereby each copy of a gene has a distinct mutant allele). [HPO:probinson]. mutation defined as following: Any transmissible change in the genetic material of an organism, which can result from radiation, viral infection, transposition, treatment with mutagenic chemicals and errors during DNA replication or meiosis. The effects of mutation range from single base changes to loss or gain of complete chromosomes. As many of the simpler alterations to DNA may be repaired, such changes are only heritable once the change is fixed in the DNA by the process of replication. Mutations may be associated with genetic diversity or with pathologies including cancer.. eyes defined as following: The organ of sight constituting a pair of globular organs made up of a three-layered roughly spherical structure specialized for receiving and responding to light.. humans defined as following: Members of the species Homo sapiens.. P gene defined as following: Human OCA2 wild-type allele is located within 15q12-q13.1 and is approximately 344 kb in length. This allele, which encodes P protein, is involved in eye and skin color. Mutations in this gene are associated with type 2 oculocutaneous albinism.. vision loss defined as following: A condition in which the ability to see is impaired.. autosomal dominant disorder defined as following: An inherited disorder that manifests when one copy of a mutated gene is present.. oculocutaneous albinism defined as following: A form of oculocutaneous albinism (OCA) characterized by rufous or brown albinism and occurring mainly in the African population..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_3114", "sentence1": "Is there any association between suicide and autism in adolescents, yes or no?", "sentence2": ": In all subjects from our research on PubMed, 21.3% of subjects with autism spectrum disorder reported suicidal ideation, have attempted suicide or died by suicide (115 out of 539 subjects) and 7.7% of subjects supported for suicidal thoughts or attempted suicide exhibited an autism spectrum disorder (62 out of 806 subjects), all ages combined. , Suicide attempts are accompanied by a willingness for death and can lead to suicide. They are more common in high-functioning autism and Asperger subjects., A total sample of 10 adolescents and young adults diagnosed with AS was obtained. The high proportion of respondents with scores above the cutoff point on the overt victimization and relational victimization scales suggests that these adolescents and young adults experienced high levels of victimization. Of the sample, 20 percent met criteria for a diagnosis of Major Depressive Disorder, 30 percent met criteria for Generalized Anxiety Disorder and 50 percent had clinically significant level of suicidal ideation., Previous studies reported a high prevalence of depression among patients with autism spectrum disorder (ASD) and suggested a relationship between ASD and suicidality, Patients with ASD had an increased risk of suicide attempts compared with those without ASD., The suicidal behaviors are frequently observed in the adolescents and adults with an ASD without intellectual deficience. , Suicide is a major problem in Western society. However we have very little understanding of suicidal behaviour among individuals with autism spectrum disorders. , The available research provides little empirical evidence for the processes underlying suicidal behaviour in adolescents and young adults with autism, The present study aims to assess the rate of suicidality (suicidal ideation, behaviors and attempts) and associated risk factors for suicidality in high functioning ASD, here is a lack of clinical awareness on suicidal behaviors of children and adolescents with autism spectrum disorder (ASD), suicidality in children and adolescents with diagnosis of high functioning autism spectrum disorder , Consistent with the previous findings, rate of suicidality is higher in individuals with ASD, Detection of Suicidality in Adolescents with Autism Spectrum Disorders, Over 15% of young people with autism spectrum disorders (ASD) will contemplate or attempt suicide during adolescence. Yet,, Until recently, suicidality in autism spectrum disorder (ASD) was rarely discussed. , Suicidality in Autism Spectrum Disorder., highlighted not only that suicidal thoughts and suicide attempts can occur in adolescents and young adults with ASD, but also that suicidality is likely more common in ASD than in the general population. , The emerging studies indicate that the increased risk of self-injurious behavior in younger and less cognitively able children with ASD3,4 is matched by an increased risk of suicidality in those at a more advanced developmental level., RESULTS\nIn all subjects from our research on PubMed, 21.3% of subjects with autism spectrum disorder reported suicidal ideation, have attempted suicide or died by suicide (115 out of 539 subjects) and 7.7% of subjects supported for suicidal thoughts or attempted suicide exhibited an autism spectrum disorder (62 out of 806 subjects), all ages combined., Risk of Suicide Attempts Among Adolescents and Young Adults With Autism Spectrum Disorder: A Nationwide Longitudinal Follow-Up Study., Although the suicide risk of autism spectrum disorder (ASD) has been suggested to be higher than previously recognized, there are few case reports focusing on the process for preventing suicide reattempts.[SEP]Relations: autism spectrum disorder has relations: disease_disease with autism (disease), disease_disease with autism (disease), disease_protein with MTNR1A, disease_protein with MTNR1A, disease_protein with MAOA, disease_protein with MAOA, disease_protein with ADA, disease_protein with ADA, disease_protein with AVP, disease_protein with AVP. Definitions: death defined as following: Irreversible cessation of all bodily functions, manifested by absence of spontaneous breathing and total loss of cardiovascular and cerebral functions.. autism defined as following: A disorder beginning in childhood. It is marked by the presence of markedly abnormal or impaired development in social interaction and communication and a markedly restricted repertoire of activity and interest. Manifestations of the disorder vary greatly depending on the developmental level and chronological age of the individual. (DSM-V). Autism Spectrum Disorder defined as following: A category of developmental disorders characterized by impaired communication and socialization skills. The impairments are incongruent with the individual's developmental level or mental age. These disorders can be associated with general medical or genetic conditions.. self-injurious behavior defined as following: Behavior in which persons hurt or harm themselves without the motive of suicide or of sexual deviation.. autism spectrum disorders defined as following: A spectrum of developmental disorders that includes autism, Asperger syndrome, and Rett syndrome. Signs and symptoms include poor communication skills, defective social interactions, and repetitive behaviors.. Suicidality defined as following: Thoughts of taking one's own life.. ASD defined as following: Developmental abnormalities in any portion of the ATRIAL SEPTUM resulting in abnormal communications between the two upper chambers of the heart. Classification of atrial septal defects is based on location of the communication and types of incomplete fusion of atrial septa with the ENDOCARDIAL CUSHIONS in the fetal heart. They include ostium primum, ostium secundum, sinus venosus, and coronary sinus defects..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_691", "sentence1": "Do lincRNAs play a role in human cancer?", "sentence2": "Long non-coding RNA H19 increases bladder cancer metastasis, These data suggest that upregulated H19 enhances bladder cancer metastasis by associating with EZH2 and inhibiting E-cad expression, lncRNA H19 is essential for human tumor growth, Previous reports have demonstrated that HOTAIR associates with chromatin modifications in cooperation with the Polycomb complex PRC2, and promotes breast and colorectal cancer metastasis, although the clinical significance of HOTAIR expression in HCC may not be as pronounced as that in breast and colorectal cancers, the current study demonstrates that HOTAIR expression is associated with HCC progression, warranting further studies., Long non-coding RNA HOTAIR is an independent prognostic marker for nasopharyngeal carcinoma progression and survival, Long non-coding RNA influences radiosensitivity of colorectal carcinoma cell lines by regulating cyclin D1 expression, Long non-coding RNA urothelial carcinoma associated 1 (UCA1) promotes human bladder cancer cell proliferation, but the underlying mechanism remains unknown, UCA1 regulated cell cycle through CREB via PI3K-AKT dependent pathway in bladder cancer., Long non-coding RNA UCA1 regulated cell cycle distribution via CREB through PI3-K dependent pathway in bladder carcinoma cells, overexpression of Yiya promotes cell cycle progression at the G1/S transition, therefore identifying Yiya as a cell-cycle-associated long non-coding RNA, The long noncoding RNA HOTAIR has been reported as a poor prognostic biomarker in patients with breast cancer. The aim of the present study is to examine the expression pattern of HOTAIR in hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) and its clinical significance as well as its biological role in tumor progression, The high expression level of HOTAIR in HCC could be a candidate biomarker for predicting tumor recurrence in HCC patients who have undergone liver transplant therapy and might be a potential therapeutic target, Long non-coding RNA ANRIL is required for the PRC2 recruitment to and silencing of p15(INK4B) tumor suppressor gene, A 42 kb region on human chromosome 9p21 encodes for three distinct tumor suppressors, p16(INK4A), p14(ARF) and p15(INK4B), and is altered in an estimated 30-40% of human tumors, These results advance our understanding of the role of lncRNA-LET as a regulator of hypoxia signaling and offer new avenues for therapeutic intervention against cancer progression., Silencing MALAT1 is a potential novel therapeutic approach for this cancer.[SEP]Relations: Protein S human has relations: drug_drug with Linsidomine, drug_drug with Linsidomine, drug_drug with Ximelagatran, drug_drug with Ximelagatran, drug_drug with Melagatran, drug_drug with Melagatran, drug_drug with Vinblastine, drug_drug with Vinblastine, drug_drug with Letaxaban, drug_drug with Letaxaban. Definitions: EZH2 defined as following: Histone-lysine N-methyltransferase EZH2 (746 aa, ~85 kDa) is encoded by the human EZH2 gene. This protein is involved in the regulation of chromatin modification.. cancer defined as following: A malignant tumor at the original site of growth.. HOTAIR defined as following: This gene plays a role in the repression of HOXD gene expression.. breast defined as following: In humans, one of the paired regions in the anterior portion of the THORAX. The breasts consist of the MAMMARY GLANDS, the SKIN, the MUSCLES, the ADIPOSE TISSUE, and the CONNECTIVE TISSUES.. colorectal cancers defined as following: A malignant epithelial neoplasm that arises from the colon or rectum and invades through the muscularis mucosa into the submucosa. The vast majority are adenocarcinomas.. PRC2 defined as following: A multisubunit polycomb protein complex that catalyzes the METHYLATION of chromosomal HISTONE H3. It works in conjunction with POLYCOMB REPRESSIVE COMPLEX 1 to effect EPIGENETIC REPRESSION.. urothelial carcinoma defined as following: A malignant neoplasm derived from the transitional epithelium of the urinary tract (urinary bladder, ureter, urethra, or renal pelvis). It is frequently papillary.. hepatocellular carcinoma defined as following: A primary malignant neoplasm of epithelial liver cells. It ranges from a well-differentiated tumor with EPITHELIAL CELLS indistinguishable from normal HEPATOCYTES to a poorly differentiated neoplasm. The cells may be uniform or markedly pleomorphic, or form GIANT CELLS. Several classification schemes have been suggested.. H19 defined as following: Maternally expressed exclusively and developmentally regulated human putative tumor suppressor H19 Gene encodes H19 Imprinted Maternal Untranslated mRNA. Expression in developing skeletal and smooth muscles correlates with specific differentiation events. It accumulates during skeletal muscle development with maximal adult expression and correlates with the nonproliferative, actin-positive muscle cell phenotype. Loss of H19 expression may be involved in Wilms tumorigenesis. (NCI). MALAT1 defined as following: Metastasis-associated lung adenocarcinoma transcript 1 (~8.7 kb) is encoded by the human MALAT1 gene. This non-coding RNA may play a role in cancer and metastasis.. tumor suppressors defined as following: Genes that inhibit expression of the tumorigenic phenotype. They are normally involved in holding cellular growth in check. When tumor suppressor genes are inactivated or lost, a barrier to normal proliferation is removed and unregulated growth is possible.. nasopharyngeal carcinoma defined as following: A carcinoma that originates in the EPITHELIUM of the NASOPHARYNX and includes four subtypes: keratinizing squamous cell, non-keratinizing, basaloid squamous cell, and PAPILLARY ADENOCARCINOMA. It is most prevalent in Southeast Asian populations and is associated with EPSTEIN-BARR VIRUS INFECTIONS. Somatic mutations associated with this cancer have been identified in NPCR, BAP1, UBAP1, ERBB2, ERBB3, MLL2, PIK3CA, KRAS, NRAS, and ARID1A genes.. hypoxia defined as following: A disorder characterized by a decrease in the level of oxygen in the body.. breast cancer defined as following: A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the breast. The vast majority of cases are carcinomas arising from the breast parenchyma or the nipple. Malignant breast neoplasms occur more frequently in females than in males.. CREB defined as following: Ubiquitously or widely expressed human cAMP Responsive Element Binding Proteins (bZIP/CREB Family) are conserved nuclear bZIP domain dimeric transcription factors that bind to octameric DNA palindrome cAMP-response elements (CRE) present in many viral and cellular promoters and induce gene transcription in response to cAMP signaling pathways. CREB proteins bind to DNA as a homodimer or a heterodimer with JUN/c-Jun or ATF2/CREBP1. Increased cAMP levels following stimulation activate cAMP-dependent protein kinase A, which phosphorylates CREB proteins that stimulate transcription of cAMP-responsive genes. Calcium-regulated CREB transcription factors integrate calcium and cAMP signals. cAMP pathways provide a chief means by which cellular growth, differentiation, and function can be influenced by extracellular signals. (NCI). cyclin D1 defined as following: Protein encoded by the bcl-1 gene which plays a critical role in regulating the cell cycle. Overexpression of cyclin D1 is the result of bcl-1 rearrangement, a t(11;14) translocation, and is implicated in various neoplasms.. tumors defined as following: New abnormal growth of tissue. Malignant neoplasms show a greater degree of anaplasia and have the properties of invasion and metastasis, compared to benign neoplasms.. Long non-coding RNA defined as following: A molecule of RNA 200-17000 nucleotides in length that is transcribed by non-protein coding areas of DNA. These ribonucleotides may play a role in a variety of biological processes.. human defined as following: Members of the species Homo sapiens.. bladder cancer defined as following: A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the bladder.. lincRNAs defined as following: A molecule of RNA 200-17000 nucleotides in length that is transcribed by non-protein coding areas of DNA. These ribonucleotides may play a role in a variety of biological processes..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_2663", "sentence1": "Is the petrous bone used in ancient DNA sampling?", "sentence2": "Large-scale genomic analyses of ancient human populations have become feasible partly due to refined sampling methods. The inner part of petrous bones and the cementum layer in teeth roots are currently recognized as the best substrates for such research., Ancient DNA (aDNA) research involves invasive and destructive sampling procedures that are often incompatible with anthropological, anatomical, and bioarcheological analyses requiring intact skeletal remains. The osseous labyrinth inside the petrous bone has been shown to yield higher amounts of endogenous DNA than any other skeletal element; however, accessing this labyrinth in cases of a complete or reconstructed skull involves causing major structural damage to the cranial vault or base., first genome-wide ancient DNA from Anatolian Neolithic farmers, whose genetic material we obtained by extracting from petrous bones,[SEP]Relations: petrous part of temporal bone has relations: anatomy_anatomy with zone of bone organ, anatomy_anatomy with zone of bone organ. acalvaria has relations: disease_protein with NAT2, disease_protein with NAT2, disease_phenotype_positive with Abnormal skull morphology, disease_phenotype_positive with Abnormal skull morphology, disease_protein with MTHFR, disease_protein with MTHFR, disease_protein with MTHFD1, disease_protein with MTHFD1. Definitions: labyrinth defined as following: The portion of the ear located within the temporal bone that is involved in both hearing and balance and includes the semicircular canals, vestibule, and cochlea. (from American Heritage Dictionary online). DNA defined as following: A deoxyribonucleotide polymer that is the primary genetic material of all cells. Eukaryotic and prokaryotic organisms normally contain DNA in a double-stranded state, yet several important biological processes transiently involve single-stranded regions. DNA, which consists of a polysugar-phosphate backbone possessing projections of purines (adenine and guanine) and pyrimidines (thymine and cytosine), forms a double helix that is held together by hydrogen bonds between these purines and pyrimidines (adenine to thymine and guanine to cytosine).. cranial vault defined as following: The roof or dome of the skull.. petrous bones defined as following: The dense rock-like part of temporal bone that contains the INNER EAR. Petrous bone is located at the base of the skull. Sometimes it is combined with the MASTOID PROCESS and called petromastoid part of temporal bone.. human defined as following: Members of the species Homo sapiens..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_2549", "sentence1": "Are stress granules membraneous?", "sentence2": "PMLOs are different in size, shape, and composition, and almost invariantly contain intrinsically disordered proteins (e.g., eIF4B and TDP43 in stress granules,, Liquid-liquid phase separation (LLPS) of RNA-binding proteins plays an important role in the formation of multiple membrane-less organelles involved in RNA metabolism, including stress granules., Stress granules (SG) are membrane-less compartments involved in regulating mRNAs during stress., In addition to membrane delimited organelles, proteins and RNAs can organize themselves into specific domains. Some examples include stress granules and subnuclear bodies. [SEP]Relations: stress granule assembly has relations: bioprocess_protein with PUM2, bioprocess_protein with PUM2, bioprocess_protein with EIF2S1, bioprocess_protein with EIF2S1, bioprocess_bioprocess with organelle assembly, bioprocess_bioprocess with organelle assembly, bioprocess_protein with LSM14A, bioprocess_protein with LSM14A, bioprocess_protein with MAPT, bioprocess_protein with MAPT. Definitions: proteins defined as following: Linear POLYPEPTIDES that are synthesized on RIBOSOMES and may be further modified, crosslinked, cleaved, or assembled into complex proteins with several subunits. The specific sequence of AMINO ACIDS determines the shape the polypeptide will take, during PROTEIN FOLDING, and the function of the protein.. RNAs defined as following: A polynucleotide consisting essentially of chains with a repeating backbone of phosphate and ribose units to which nitrogenous bases are attached. RNA is unique among biological macromolecules in that it can encode genetic information, serve as an abundant structural component of cells, and also possesses catalytic activity. (Rieger et al., Glossary of Genetics: Classical and Molecular, 5th ed). organelles defined as following: Specific particles of membrane-bound organized living substances present in eukaryotic cells, such as the MITOCHONDRIA; the GOLGI APPARATUS; ENDOPLASMIC RETICULUM; LYSOSOMES; PLASTIDS; and VACUOLES.. membrane defined as following: A device that is made from or resembles a thin flexible sheet of material.. TDP43 defined as following: Human TARDBP wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 1p36.22 and is approximately 13 kb in length. This allele, which encodes TAR DNA-binding protein 43, plays a role in the mediation of both mRNA splicing and DNA transcription. Mutation of the gene is associated with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis type 10.. RNA-binding proteins defined as following: Proteins that bind to RNA molecules. Included here are RIBONUCLEOPROTEINS and other proteins whose function is to bind specifically to RNA.. stress granules defined as following: A dense aggregation in the cytosol composed of proteins and RNAs that appear when the cell is under stress. [GOC:ans, PMID:17284590, PMID:17601829, PMID:17967451, PMID:20368989].", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_4611", "sentence1": "Has CPX-351 been approved by the FDA and the EMA?", "sentence2": "CPX-351 (United States: Vyxeos®; Europe: Vyxeos® Liposomal), a dual-drug liposomal encapsulation of daunorubicin and cytarabine in a synergistic 1:5 molar ratio, is approved by the US FDA and the EMA for the treatment of adults with newly diagnosed therapy-related acute myeloid leukemia or acute myeloid leukemia with myelodysplasia-related changes.[SEP]Relations: Cytarabine has relations: drug_drug with Paclitaxel, drug_drug with Paclitaxel, drug_drug with Acipimox, drug_drug with Acipimox. Daunorubicin has relations: drug_drug with Paclitaxel trevatide, drug_drug with Paclitaxel trevatide, drug_drug with Paclitaxel poliglumex, drug_drug with Paclitaxel poliglumex, drug_drug with Paclitaxel, drug_drug with Paclitaxel. Definitions: cytarabine defined as following: A pyrimidine nucleoside analog that is used mainly in the treatment of leukemia, especially acute non-lymphoblastic leukemia. Cytarabine is an antimetabolite antineoplastic agent that inhibits the synthesis of DNA. Its actions are specific for the S phase of the cell cycle. It also has antiviral and immunosuppressant properties. (From Martindale, The Extra Pharmacopoeia, 30th ed, p472). therapy-related acute myeloid leukemia defined as following: An acute myeloid leukemia arising as a result of the mutagenic effect of chemotherapy agents and/or ionizing radiation. (WHO, 2001). EMA defined as following: An autosomal recessive disorder of fatty acid oxidation, and branched chain amino acids (AMINO ACIDS, BRANCHED-CHAIN); LYSINE; and CHOLINE catabolism, that is due to defects in either subunit of ELECTRON TRANSFER FLAVOPROTEIN or its dehydrogenase, electron transfer flavoprotein-ubiquinone oxidoreductase (EC 1.5.5.1).. daunorubicin defined as following: A very toxic anthracycline aminoglycoside antineoplastic isolated from Streptomyces peucetius and others, used in treatment of LEUKEMIA and other NEOPLASMS.. acute myeloid leukemia defined as following: Clonal expansion of myeloid blasts in bone marrow, blood, and other tissue. Myeloid leukemias develop from changes in cells that normally produce NEUTROPHILS; BASOPHILS; EOSINOPHILS; and MONOCYTES.. Liposomal defined as following: Artificial, single or multilaminar vesicles (made from lecithins or other lipids) that are used for the delivery of a variety of biological molecules or molecular complexes to cells, for example, drug delivery and gene transfer. They are also used to study membranes and membrane proteins..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_340", "sentence1": "Is it feasible to determine the complete proteome of yeast?", "sentence2": "or model organisms like yeast, we can now quantify complete proteomes in just a few hours., A complete mass-spectrometric map of the yeast proteome applied to quantitative trait analysis., So far, attempts to generate such maps for any proteome have failed to reach complete proteome coverage. Here we use a strategy based on high-throughput peptide synthesis and mass spectrometry to generate an almost complete reference map (97% of the genome-predicted proteins) of the Saccharomyces cerevisiae proteome.[SEP]Definitions: yeast defined as following: A species of the genus SACCHAROMYCES, family Saccharomycetaceae, order Saccharomycetales, known as \"baker's\" or \"brewer's\" yeast. The dried form is used as a dietary supplement..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_2390", "sentence1": "Is Loss of function one of the cardinal signs of inflammation?", "sentence2": "The concept of the four cardinal signs of acute inflammation comes from antiquity as rubor et tumor cum calore et dolore, (redness and swelling with heat and pain) extended later by functio laesa (loss of function)., As early as 2000 years ago, the Roman encyclopaedist Aulus Cornelius Celsus recognised four cardinal signs of this response-redness, heat, swelling and pain; a fifth sign is loss of function.[..., It was Galen who added the disturbance of function (functio laesa) as the fifth cardinal sign of inflammation to the four well-known cardinal signs of Celsus (rubor, calor, tumor, dolor)., Tumor, calor, rubor, and dolor describe four cardinal signs of inflammation. The fifth-functio laesa, or loss of function-was promulgated by Rudolf Virchow, who, in the 19th century, also noted an intricate link between inflammation and cancer. [SEP]Relations: Impaired temperature sensation has relations: disease_phenotype_positive with superficial siderosis, disease_phenotype_positive with superficial siderosis, disease_phenotype_positive with pachydermoperiostosis, disease_phenotype_positive with pachydermoperiostosis, disease_phenotype_positive with Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease, disease_phenotype_positive with Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease. Portal inflammation has relations: phenotype_phenotype with Abnormality of the biliary system, phenotype_phenotype with Abnormality of the biliary system. Erythema has relations: disease_phenotype_positive with neonatal inflammatory skin and bowel disease, disease_phenotype_positive with neonatal inflammatory skin and bowel disease. Definitions: cancer defined as following: A malignant tumor at the original site of growth.. inflammation defined as following: A pathological process characterized by injury or destruction of tissues caused by a variety of cytologic and chemical reactions. It is usually manifested by typical signs of pain, heat, redness, swelling, and loss of function.. swelling defined as following: Enlargement; expansion in size; sign of inflammation. redness defined as following: Redness of the skin produced by congestion of the capillaries. This condition may result from a variety of disease processes..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_4444", "sentence1": "Can epigenetic modifications be heritable?", "sentence2": "Epigenetic alterations (epimutations) could thus contribute to heritable variation within populations and be subject to evolutionary processes such as natural selection and drift. [SEP]", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_1652", "sentence1": "Is cardiac magnetic resonance imaging indicated in the pre-participation screening of athletes?", "sentence2": "As modern imaging further enhances our understanding of the spectrum of athlete's heart, its role may expand from the assessment of athletes with suspected disease to being part of comprehensive pre-participation screening in apparently healthy athletes., Finally we will address the role of CMR in pre-participation screening.[SEP]", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_3238", "sentence1": "Do tumour-associated macrophages have a prognostic role in gliomas?", "sentence2": "Increasing evidence suggests that tumour-associated macrophages/microglia (TAMs) facilitate tumour progression by acquiring a M2-like phenotype. Our objective was to investigate the prognostic value of TAMs in gliomas using automated quantitative double immunofluorescence., This is the first study to use automated quantitative immunofluorescence to determine the prognostic impact of TAMs. Our results suggest that M2-like TAMs hold an unfavourable prognostic value in high-grade gliomas and may contribute to a pro-tumourigenic microenvironment., Our data revealed that the amount of especially CD204+ TAMs increases with malignancy grade. In grade III-IV, high CD204 expression was associated with shorter survival, while high IBA-1 intensity correlated with a longer survival. In grade IV, CD204 showed independent prognostic value when adjusting for clinical data and the methylation status of O6-methylguanine-DNA methyltransferase.[SEP]Relations: Glioma has relations: phenotype_phenotype with Ependymoma, phenotype_phenotype with Ependymoma, phenotype_phenotype with Brainstem glioma, phenotype_phenotype with Brainstem glioma, phenotype_phenotype with Malignant neoplasm of the central nervous system, phenotype_phenotype with Malignant neoplasm of the central nervous system, phenotype_phenotype with Neuroepithelial neoplasm, phenotype_phenotype with Neuroepithelial neoplasm, disease_phenotype_positive with glioma susceptibility, disease_phenotype_positive with glioma susceptibility. Definitions: CD204 defined as following: Human MSR1 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 8p22 and is approximately 450 kb in length. This allele, which encodes macrophage scavenger receptor types I and II protein, is involved in the modulation of cholesterol and lipoprotein transport. Mutation of the gene is associated with Barrett esophagus and prostate cancer.. gliomas defined as following: Benign and malignant central nervous system neoplasms derived from glial cells (i.e., astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, and ependymocytes). Astrocytes may give rise to astrocytomas (ASTROCYTOMA) or glioblastoma multiforme (see GLIOBLASTOMA). Oligodendrocytes give rise to oligodendrogliomas (OLIGODENDROGLIOMA) and ependymocytes may undergo transformation to become EPENDYMOMA; CHOROID PLEXUS NEOPLASMS; or colloid cysts of the third ventricle. (From Escourolle et al., Manual of Basic Neuropathology, 2nd ed, p21).", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_552", "sentence1": "Is zyxin a focal adhesion protein?", "sentence2": " zyxin from FAs, zyxin relocation from focal adhesions , . Here we systematically examined the expression, localization, and function of zyxin, a focal adhesion protein, focal adhesion protein zyxin, Focal adhesions formed in the absence of α-actinins are delayed in their maturation, exhibit altered morphology, have decreased amounts of Zyxin and VASP, and reduced adhesiveness to extracellular matrix, one focal adhesion protein (zyxin), Zyxin is a focal adhesion protein that has been implicated in the modulation of cell adhesion and motility, focal adhesion proteins (vinculin, talin, zyxin, FAK, and paxilin), Such paxillin-positive complexes mature into focal adhesions by tyrosine phosphorylation and recruitment of zyxin. , Zyxin concentrates at focal adhesions , zyxin, a focal adhesion protein,, Focal adhesion proteins Zyxin and Vinculin are co-distributed at tubulobulbar complexes., Here we explore the prediction that zyxin, a focal adhesion protein known to be present at podosomes, also is present at apical TBCs, the association of zyxin with focal adhesions is force-dependent, smaller zyxin-positive adhesion as well as its higher turnover rate suggests that the traction force in focal adhesion on 350 nm topography is decreased., . Zyxin is a focal adhesion protein that responds to external mechanical forces;, Vinculin and zyxin in focal adhesions but not integrins are seen to bridge ligand gaps. , The focal adhesion protein zyxin, . To explore how this response is regulated by focal adhesion-associated proteins the expression levels of paxillin, focal adhesion kinase (FAK), and zyxin were knocked down using gene silencing techniques, Zyxin is an adaptor protein at focal adhesion plaque, ocked localization of zyxin at focal adhesion sites[SEP]Relations: focal adhesion has relations: cellcomp_protein with ZYX, cellcomp_protein with ZYX, cellcomp_protein with ZYX, cellcomp_protein with ZYX, cellcomp_protein with ZFYVE21, cellcomp_protein with ZFYVE21, cellcomp_protein with ZFYVE21, cellcomp_protein with ZFYVE21, cellcomp_protein with EZR, cellcomp_protein with EZR. Definitions: vinculin defined as following: Vinculin (1134 aa, ~124 kDa) is encoded by the human VCL gene. This protein plays a role in the modulation of both cell-matrix adhesion and cell-cell adhesion.. integrins defined as following: A family of transmembrane glycoproteins (MEMBRANE GLYCOPROTEINS) consisting of noncovalent heterodimers. They interact with a wide variety of ligands including EXTRACELLULAR MATRIX PROTEINS; COMPLEMENT, and other cells, while their intracellular domains interact with the CYTOSKELETON. The integrins consist of at least three identified families: the cytoadhesin receptors (RECEPTORS, CYTOADHESIN), the leukocyte adhesion receptors (RECEPTORS, LEUKOCYTE ADHESION), and the VERY LATE ANTIGEN RECEPTORS. Each family contains a common beta-subunit (INTEGRIN BETA CHAINS) combined with one or more distinct alpha-subunits (INTEGRIN ALPHA CHAINS). These receptors participate in cell-matrix and cell-cell adhesion in many physiologically important processes, including embryological development; HEMOSTASIS; THROMBOSIS; WOUND HEALING; immune and nonimmune defense mechanisms; and oncogenic transformation.. Zyxin defined as following: Zyxin (572 aa, ~61 kDa) is encoded by the human ZYX gene. This protein is involved in focal adhesion assembly and function.. Focal adhesions defined as following: A cell-substrate junction that anchors the cell to the extracellular matrix and that forms a point of termination of actin filaments. In insects focal adhesion has also been referred to as hemi-adherens junction (HAJ). [GOC:aruk, GOC:bc, ISBN:0124325653, ISBN:0815316208, PMID:10419689, PMID:12191915, PMID:15246682, PMID:1643657, PMID:16805308, PMID:19197329, PMID:23033047, PMID:26923917, PMID:28796323, PMID:8314002]. zyxin defined as following: This gene is involved in focal adhesion assembly.. paxillin defined as following: Paxillin (591 aa, ~65 kDa) is encoded by the human PXN gene. This protein plays a role in cell adhesion, integrin-mediated signal transduction and actin remodeling.. focal adhesion kinase defined as following: A family of non-receptor, PROLINE-rich protein-tyrosine kinases.. VASP defined as following: Vasodilator-stimulated phosphoprotein (380 aa, ~40 kDa) is encoded by the human VASP gene. This protein is involved in both cell motility and cell adhesion.. FAK defined as following: A non-receptor protein tyrosine kinase with PROTEIN PHOSPHATASE 1 regulatory activity that is localized to FOCAL ADHESIONS and is a central component of integrin-mediated SIGNAL TRANSDUCTION PATHWAYS. Focal adhesion kinase 1 interacts with PAXILLIN and undergoes PHOSPHORYLATION in response to adhesion of cell surface integrins to the EXTRACELLULAR MATRIX. Phosphorylated p125FAK protein binds to a variety of SH2 DOMAIN and SH3 DOMAIN containing proteins and helps regulate CELL ADHESION and CELL MIGRATION.. podosomes defined as following: An actin-rich adhesion structure characterized by formation upon cell substrate contact and localization at the substrate-attached part of the cell, contain an F-actin-rich core surrounded by a ring structure containing proteins such as vinculin and talin, and have a diameter of 0.5 mm. [PMID:12837608, PMID:15890982]. FAs defined as following: A teratogenic disorder observed in a newborn or child of a mother who consumed alcohol during pregnancy. Manifestations of the syndrome include low birth weight, atypical facies, microcephaly, failure to thrive, developmental defects, organ dysfunction, mental deficiencies, poor motor coordination and behavioral problems.. tyrosine defined as following: A non-essential amino acid. In animals it is synthesized from PHENYLALANINE. It is also the precursor of EPINEPHRINE; THYROID HORMONES; and melanin.. extracellular matrix defined as following: A meshwork-like substance found within the extracellular space and in association with the basement membrane of the cell surface. It promotes cellular proliferation and provides a supporting structure to which cells or cell lysates in culture dishes adhere.. adaptor protein defined as following: A broad category of carrier proteins that play a role in SIGNAL TRANSDUCTION. They generally contain several modular domains, each of which having its own binding activity, and act by forming complexes with other intracellular-signaling molecules. Signal-transducing adaptor proteins lack enzyme activity, however their activity can be modulated by other signal-transducing enzymes.", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_773", "sentence1": "Is corpus callosum involved in the Mowat–Wilson syndrome?", "sentence2": " The syndrome is characterized by typical facial features, moderate-to-severe mental retardation, epilepsy and variable congenital malformations, including Hirschsprung disease, genital anomalies, congenital heart disease, agenesis of the corpus callosum, and eye defects. , Mowat-Wilson syndrome in a fetus with antenatal diagnosis of short corpus callosum: advocacy for standard autopsy., It is mainly characterized by moderate-to-severe intellectual disability, epilepsy, facial dysmorphism and various malformations including Hirschsprung disease and corpus callosum anomalies. , The association of a corpus callosum hypoplasia with a histological Hirschsprung disease and a typical facial gestalt allowed the guiding of genetic testing., Mowat-Wilson syndrome (MWS) is a severe intellectual disability (ID)-distinctive facial gestalt-multiple congenital anomaly syndrome, commonly associating microcephaly, epilepsy, corpus callosum agenesis, conotruncal heart defects, urogenital malformations and Hirschsprung disease (HSCR). , Mowat-Wilson syndrome (MWS) is characterized by severe mental retardation with seizures, specific facial dysmorphism, Hirschsprung disease, anomalies of the corpus callosum, and genitourinary and cardiac malformations., Mowat-Wilson syndrome (MWS) is a genetic disease caused by heterozygous mutations or deletions of the ZEB2 gene and is characterized by distinctive facial features, epilepsy, moderate to severe intellectual disability, corpus callosum abnormalities and other congenital malformations., The striking facial phenotype in addition to other features such as severely impaired speech, hypotonia, microcephaly, short stature, seizures, corpus callosum agenesis, congenital heart defects, hypospadias, and Hirschsprung disease are particularly important clues for the initial clinical diagnosis. , Mowat-Wilson syndrome is a genetic disorder characterized by a distinct facial appearance, moderate-to-severe mental retardation, microcephaly, agenesis of the corpus callosum, Hirschsprung disease, congenital heart disease, and genital anomalies. , It is characterized by a distinctive facial appearance in association with intellectual disability (ID) and variable other features including agenesis of the corpus callosum, seizures, congenital heart defects, microcephaly, short stature, hypotonia, and Hirschsprung disease. , Mowat-Wilson syndrome (MWS) is an autosomal dominant intellectual disability syndrome characterised by unique facial features and congenital anomalies such as Hirschsprung disease, congenital heart defects, corpus callosum agenesis and urinary tract anomalies., Mowat-Wilson syndrome (MWS) is a recently delineated mental retardation; a multiple congenital anomaly syndrome characterised by a typical facial gestalt, Hirschsprung disease or severe constipation, genitourinary anomaly, congenital heart defects, agenesis of corpus callosum and eye defects. , Agenesis or hypogenesis of the corpus callosum., The anomalies may include Hirschsprung disease, heart defects, structural eye anomalies including microphthalmia, agenesis of the corpus callosum, and urogenital anomalies. , Mowat-Wilson syndrome (MWS; OMIM #235730) is a genetic condition caused by heterozygous mutations or deletions of the ZEB2 gene, and characterized by typical face, moderate-to-severe mental retardation, epilepsy, Hirschsprung disease, and multiple congenital anomalies, including genital anomalies (particularly hypospadias in males), congenital heart defects, agenesis of the corpus callosum, and eye defects., In 11 of the 28 patients with ACC, the following diagnoses could be established: Mowat-Wilson syndrome (n = 2), Walker-Warburg syndrome (n = 1), oro-facial-digital syndrome type 1 (n = 1), and chromosomal rearrangements (n = 7), including a patient with an apparently balanced reciprocal translocation, which led to the disruption and a predicted loss of function in the FOXG1B gene., Mowat-Wilson syndrome (MWS) is a multiple congenital anomaly syndrome characterized by a distinct facial phenotype (high forehead, frontal bossing, large eyebrows, medially flaring and sparse in the middle part, hypertelorism, deep set but large eyes, large and uplifted ear lobes, with a central depression, saddle nose with prominent rounded nasal tip, prominent columella, open mouth, with M-shaped upper lip, frequent smiling, and a prominent but narrow and triangular pointed chin), moderate-to-severe intellectual deficiency, epilepsy and variable congenital malformations including Hirschsprung disease (HSCR), genitourinary anomalies (in particular hypospadias in males), congenital heart defects, agenesis of the corpus callosum and eye anomalies., Mowat-Wilson syndrome is a mental retardation-multiple congenital anomaly syndrome characterized by a typical facies, developmental delay, epilepsy, and variable congenital malformations, including Hirschsprung disease, urogenital anomalies, congenital heart disease, and agenesis of the corpus callosum. , Mowat-Wilson syndrome (MWS) is a recently delineated mental retardation (MR)-multiple congenital anomaly syndrome, characterized by typical facies, severe MR, epilepsy, and variable congenital malformations, including Hirschsprung disease (HSCR), genital anomalies, congenital heart disease (CHD), and agenesis of the corpus callosum (ACC). , Medical issues in our cohort of patients included seizures (75%) with no predeliction for any particular seizure type; agenesis of the corpus callosum (60% of our patients studied); congenital heart defects (75%), particularly involving the pulmonary arteries and/or valves; hypospadias (55% of males); severely impaired or absent speech (100% of individuals over 1 year of age) with relatively spared receptive language; and Hirschsprung disease (50%) or chronic constipation (25%). , Mowat-Wilson syndrome (MWS) is a mental retardation syndrome associated with distinctive facial features, microcephaly, epilepsy, and a variable spectrum of congenital anomalies, including Hirschsprung disease (HSCR), agenesis of the corpus callosum, genitourinary abnormalities, and congenital heart disease., ACC is found in 40% of the cases of Mowat-Wilson syndrome (MWS), a polytopic embryonic defect including a distinctive facial gestalt, severe mental retardation, epilepsy and postnatal microcephaly as constant features. , However, analysis of MWS should be considered in the differential diagnosis of ACC, especially when the facial features raise the possibility of MWS., Frameshift mutation of the zinc finger homeo box 1 B gene in syndromic corpus callosum agenesis (Mowat-Wilson syndrome)., We report a girl who had Hirschsprung disease in association with distinct facial appearance, microcephaly, agenesis of the corpus callosum and mental retardation (Mowat-Wilson syndrome)., Congenital anomalies, including Hirschsprung disease (HSCR), congenital heart disease, hypospadias, genitourinary anomalies, agenesis of the corpus callosum, and short stature are common. [SEP]Relations: Agenesis of corpus callosum has relations: disease_phenotype_positive with Mowat-Wilson syndrome due to monosomy 2q22, disease_phenotype_positive with Mowat-Wilson syndrome due to monosomy 2q22, disease_phenotype_positive with Mowat-Wilson syndrome due to a ZEB2 point mutation, disease_phenotype_positive with Mowat-Wilson syndrome due to a ZEB2 point mutation, disease_phenotype_positive with Mowat-Wilson syndrome, disease_phenotype_positive with Mowat-Wilson syndrome. Mowat-Wilson syndrome has relations: disease_phenotype_positive with Agenesis of corpus callosum, disease_phenotype_positive with Agenesis of corpus callosum, disease_phenotype_positive with Hypoplasia of the corpus callosum, disease_phenotype_positive with Hypoplasia of the corpus callosum. Definitions: genitourinary anomaly defined as following: Congenital structural abnormalities of the UROGENITAL SYSTEM in either the male or the female.. congenital heart defects defined as following: Developmental abnormalities involving structures of the heart. These defects are present at birth but may be discovered later in life.. corpus callosum defined as following: An area within the corpus callosum, a white matter structure within the cleft that separates the left and right cerebral hemispheres in the mammalian brain, between the genu (anterior region) and the splenium (posterior region).. frontal bossing defined as following: A skeletal deformity characterized by an unusually prominent forehead. Causes include acromegaly, Hurler syndrome, Silver-Russell syndrome, and thalassemia major.. hypospadias defined as following: Location of the urethral opening on the inferior aspect of the penis. [HPO:curators]. epilepsy defined as following: A disorder characterized by recurrent episodes of paroxysmal brain dysfunction due to a sudden, disorderly, and excessive neuronal discharge. Epilepsy classification systems are generally based upon: (1) clinical features of the seizure episodes (e.g., motor seizure), (2) etiology (e.g., post-traumatic), (3) anatomic site of seizure origin (e.g., frontal lobe seizure), (4) tendency to spread to other structures in the brain, and (5) temporal patterns (e.g., nocturnal epilepsy). (From Adams et al., Principles of Neurology, 6th ed, p313). microphthalmia defined as following: Congenital or developmental anomaly in which the eyeballs are abnormally small.. FOXG1B gene defined as following: Human FOXG1 wild-type allele is located within 14q12-q13 and is approximately 4 kb in length. This allele, which encodes forkhead box protein G1, is involved in both the modulation of transcription by RNA polymerase II and in the regional development of the brain.. congenital malformations defined as following: Malformations of organs or body parts during development in utero.. microcephaly defined as following: Head circumference below 2 standard deviations below the mean for age and gender. [PMID:15806441, PMID:19125436, PMID:25465325, PMID:9683597]. seizure defined as following: Clinical or subclinical disturbances of cortical function due to a sudden, abnormal, excessive, and disorganized discharge of brain cells. Clinical manifestations include abnormal motor, sensory and psychic phenomena. Recurrent seizures are usually referred to as EPILEPSY or \"seizure disorder.\". intellectual disability defined as following: Subnormal intellectual functioning which originates during the developmental period. This has multiple potential etiologies, including genetic defects and perinatal insults. Intelligence quotient (IQ) scores are commonly used to determine whether an individual has an intellectual disability. IQ scores between 70 and 79 are in the borderline range. Scores below 67 are in the disabled range. (from Joynt, Clinical Neurology, 1992, Ch55, p28). conotruncal heart defects defined as following: A congenital malformation of the outflow tract of the heart. Conotruncal defects are thought to result from a disturbance of the outflow tract of the embryonic heart, and comprise truncus arteriosus, tetralogy of Fallot, interrupted aortic arch, transposition of the great arteries, and double outlet right ventricle. [HPO:probinson]. ACC defined as following: Birth defect that results in a partial or complete absence of the CORPUS CALLOSUM. It may be isolated or a part of a syndrome (e.g., AICARDI'S SYNDROME; ACROCALLOSAL SYNDROME; ANDERMANN SYNDROME; and HOLOPROSENCEPHALY). Clinical manifestations include neuromotor skill impairment and INTELLECTUAL DISABILITY of variable severity.. ear lobes defined as following: The soft fleshy portion of the lower external ear composed of areolar and adipose connective tissues.. ZEB2 gene defined as following: This gene is involved in regulation of transcription.. deletions defined as following: A genetic rearrangement through loss of segments of DNA or RNA, bringing sequences which are normally separated into close proximity. This deletion may be detected using cytogenetic techniques and can also be inferred from the phenotype, indicating a deletion at one specific locus.. MWS defined as following: An autoinflammatory disease caused by mutations in the NLRP3 gene which encodes cryopyrin. It is characterized by recurrent episodes of urticaria and fever which develop in infancy. It may lead to sensorineural hearing loss and/or amyloidosis.. facial defined as following: Of, or related to, or in the direction of the face.. Mowat-Wilson syndrome defined as following: A rare autosomal dominant syndrome caused by mutations in the ZEB2 gene. It is characterized by mental retardation, and a distinctive facial appearance (wide set eyes, uplifted earlobes, broad nasal bridge, prominent chin, and a smiling expression). The majority of patients have Hirschsprung disease (colonic enlargement and constipation due to intestinal blockage).. genital anomalies defined as following: An abnormality of the genital system. [HPO:probinson]. Walker-Warburg syndrome defined as following: Rare autosomal recessive lissencephaly type 2 associated with congenital MUSCULAR DYSTROPHY and eye anomalies (e.g., RETINAL DETACHMENT; CATARACT; MICROPHTHALMOS). It is often associated with additional brain malformations such as HYDROCEPHALY and cerebellar hypoplasia and is the most severe form of the group of related syndromes (alpha-dystroglycanopathies) with common congenital abnormalities in the brain, eye and muscle development.. hypertelorism defined as following: Abnormal increase in the interorbital distance due to overdevelopment of the lesser wings of the sphenoid.. hypotonia defined as following: A diminution of the skeletal muscle tone marked by a diminished resistance to passive stretching.. eyes defined as following: The organ of sight constituting a pair of globular organs made up of a three-layered roughly spherical structure specialized for receiving and responding to light.. chronic constipation defined as following: Constipation for longer than three months with fewer than 3 bowel movements per week, straining, lumpy or hard stools, and a sensation of anorectal obstruction or incomplete defecation. [ORCID:0000-0001-5208-3432]. mutations defined as following: The result of any gain, loss or alteration of the sequences comprising a gene, including all sequences transcribed into RNA.. urinary tract anomalies defined as following: An abnormality of the urinary system. [HPO:probinson]. anomalies defined as following: Used with organs for congenital defects producing changes in the morphology of the organ. It is used also for abnormalities in animals.. eyebrows defined as following: Curved rows of HAIR located on the upper edges of the eye sockets.. MR defined as following: Backflow of blood from the LEFT VENTRICLE into the LEFT ATRIUM due to imperfect closure of the MITRAL VALVE. This can lead to mitral valve regurgitation.. Frameshift mutation defined as following: A type of mutation in which a number of NUCLEOTIDES deleted from or inserted into a protein coding sequence is not divisible by three, thereby causing an alteration in the READING FRAMES of the entire coding sequence downstream of the mutation. These mutations may be induced by certain types of MUTAGENS or may occur spontaneously..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_4221", "sentence1": "Does a comet assay measure radiation induced mutations?", "sentence2": "Evaluation of primary DNA-damage is one way to identify potential genotoxic agents and for this purpose the Comet assay has, for the last decades, been used to monitor DNA single strand and double strand breaks in individual cells, DNA strand-break frequency was examined by means of the comet assay i, . The comet assay (as this method was subsequently named) was able to measure, for the first time, the fraction of radiobiologically hypoxic cells in mouse and human tumors. It was used to determine that the rate of rejoining of DNA breaks was relatively homogenous within an irradiated population of cells, The comet assay is frequently used to measure DNA damage in individual cells. , Thus a complete repair of DNA damage induced by gamma-irradiation and measurable by the Comet assay was observed, whereas the yield of somatic mutations increased in relation to the radiation dose., xanthi) mutagenicity assay is the ability to analyze and compare on the same plants under identical treatment conditions both the induced acute DNA damage in somatic cells as measured by the Comet assay and the yield of induced leaf somatic mutations., The present study reveals that gamma radiation induces single strand breaks in DNA as measured by alkaline comet assay in bivalves and comet assay serves as a sensitive and rapid method to detect genotoxicity of gamma radiation., The present study is aimed (a) to know the genotoxic effect of gamma radiation on aquatic fauna employing two species of selected bivalves, (b) to evaluate the possible use of 'Comet assay' for detecting genetic damage in haemocytes of bivalves as a biomarker for environmental biomonitoring and also (c) to compare the relative sensitivity of two species of bivalves viz., The single cell gel electrophoresis (SCGE) assay, more commonly known as the comet assay, due to the \"comet-like\" appearance of the cells, was originally developed as a technique to measure the presence of DNA single-strand breaks., BACKGROUND: The neutral comet assay was devised to measure double-stranded DNA breaks, but it has also been used to measure apoptosis based on its characteristic DNA fragmentation patterns., 2, 4, 6, 8 and 10 Gy) of gamma radiation and their genotoxic effects on the haemocytes were studied using the comet assay., PURPOSE: The Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA) Comet assay, being a quick, simple, sensitive, reliable and fairly inexpensive method for measuring DNA strand breaks, has been used to assess DNA damage caused by gamma radiation in developmental stages of maize weevil Sitophilus zeamais Motschulsky., This paper attempts a correlation between the induction and repair of DNA damage measured in the comet assay and the clinical observed reaction in order to evaluate the suitability of the comet assay for prediction of radiation sensitivity., gle cell gel electrophoresis (e.g., Comet Assay) and immunofluoresence microscopy to detect the presence of gamma-H2AX foci, we find that Cr[VI] induces DNA double-strand breaks similar to ionizing radiation (IR). We also demo, ir of DNA damage induced by gamma-irradiation and measurable by the Comet assay was observed, whereas the yield of somatic mutations increased in relation to the radiation dose. Data on the kinetic, eased yield of somatic mutations was highly correlated (r = 0.996) with the increased DNA damage measured by the Comet assay immediately after irradiation. With inc, rther assess potential co-mutagenic effects of FA, we exposed A549 human lung cells to FA in combination with various mutagens and measured the induction and removal of DNA damage by the comet assay and the production of chromosomal mutations by the cytokinesis-block micronucleus assay (CBMN assay). The , DNA effects were analysed in leukocytes using the alkaline Comet assay, gene mutations and chromosome aberrations were measured in erythrocytes using the flow cytometric Pig-a gene mutation assay and the micronucleus test (applying both microscopic and flow cytometric evaluation), respectively., A wide variety of mutagens have been shown to cause DNA alterations detectable with the comet assay, but it is not yet clear whether a relationship exists between the DNA effects and the induction of mutations., The transgenerational changes in mutation rates were attributed to the presence of a persistent subset of endogenous DNA lesions (double- and single-strand breaks), measured by the phosphorylated form of histone H2AX (gamma-H2AX) and alkaline Comet assays., The single-cell electrophoresis (comet) assay is an established method for measuring radiation-induced strand breaks in DNA., The COMET assay is recognized as a rapid and sensitive method in quantifying radiation induced DNA damage., The relationship between cellular radiosensitivity and radiation-induced DNA damage measured by the comet assay., Reliable Comet assay measurements for detecting DNA damage induced by ionising radiation and chemicals., Radiation sensitivity of lymphocytes from healthy individuals and cancer patients as measured by the comet assay., The comet assay is a potential tool for use in neutron therapy, as well as a method for the rapid screening of samples from individuals accidentally exposed to radiation., Induction and repair of DNA damage as measured by the Comet assay and the yield of somatic mutations in gamma-irradiated tobacco seedlings., The increased yield of somatic mutations was highly correlated (r = 0.996) with the increased DNA damage measured by the Comet assay immediately after irradiation., The alkaline version of single cell gel electrophoresis (comet) assay is widely used for evaluating DNA damage at the individual cell level., Induction (2 and 5 Gy) of gamma-ray-induced DNA damage and its repair (during 60 min after irradiation) was measured with the alkaline and neutral comet assay., The alkaline single-cell gel electrophoresis (SCGE or Comet) assay appears to be a promising tool for measuring DNA damage at the individual cell level in both in vitro and in vivo studies., Considering our previous studies showing significant increases in the frequency of cytogenetic damage (when measured as micronuclei) in patients treated with relatively low doses of 131I, the results obtained in the present work by using the Comet assay could indicate that 1 week after the exposure most of the radioiodine-induced DNA lesions, that can be detected with this assay, have already been repaired., Hence, we are using the single-cell gel electrophoresis (comet assay) to detect mouse mutants that display a genetic susceptibility to ionizing radiation., We have established the analysis parameters in the comet assay which are currently used to detect radiation-sensitive mouse mutants and to control the variance within the mouse population in the ENU screen., Comet assay as a tool to screen for mouse models with inherited radiation sensitivity.[SEP]Relations: Protein S human has relations: drug_drug with Azithromycin, drug_drug with Azithromycin, drug_drug with Triptolide, drug_drug with Triptolide, drug_drug with Bamet-UD2, drug_drug with Bamet-UD2, drug_drug with Arsenic trioxide, drug_drug with Arsenic trioxide, drug_drug with Trastuzumab emtansine, drug_drug with Trastuzumab emtansine. Definitions: cancer defined as following: A malignant tumor at the original site of growth.. gene mutations defined as following: The result of any gain, loss or alteration of the sequences comprising a gene, including all sequences transcribed into RNA.. DNA defined as following: A deoxyribonucleotide polymer that is the primary genetic material of all cells. Eukaryotic and prokaryotic organisms normally contain DNA in a double-stranded state, yet several important biological processes transiently involve single-stranded regions. DNA, which consists of a polysugar-phosphate backbone possessing projections of purines (adenine and guanine) and pyrimidines (thymine and cytosine), forms a double helix that is held together by hydrogen bonds between these purines and pyrimidines (adenine to thymine and guanine to cytosine).. chromosome aberrations defined as following: Abnormal number or structure of chromosomes. Chromosome aberrations may result in CHROMOSOME DISORDERS.. histone H2AX defined as following: Histone H2AX (143 aa, ~15 kDa) is encoded by the human H2AX gene. This protein plays a role in nucleosome formation and V(D)J recombination.. mutagens defined as following: Chemical agents that increase the rate of genetic mutation by interfering with the function of nucleic acids. A clastogen is a specific mutagen that causes breaks in chromosomes.. micronuclei defined as following: A toxicology screening result where proliferating cells that are exposed to a genotoxic chemical produce some daughter cells containing cytoplasmic bodies that are comprised of chromosomes or chromosome fragments, which were not sorted properly during mitosis or meiosis, and are bounded by a nuclear membrane.. leaf defined as following:

Include only the concept itself in the domain or value set. Do not include descendents of the concept.

. gamma-H2AX defined as following: A post-translationally modified form of variant histone H2AX where the serine residue at position 139 and/or the tyrosine residue at 142 is phosphorylated. Phosphorylation of serine-139 may be a marker for DNA damage. While phosphorylation or dephosphorylation of tyrosine-142 appears to affect the recruitment of pro-apoptotic factors or DNA repair proteins, respectively.. tumors defined as following: New abnormal growth of tissue. Malignant neoplasms show a greater degree of anaplasia and have the properties of invasion and metastasis, compared to benign neoplasms.. chemicals defined as following: A substance with a defined atomic or molecular structure that results from, or takes part in, reactions involving changes in its structure, composition, or properties.. plants defined as following: Multicellular, eukaryotic life forms of kingdom Plantae. Plants acquired chloroplasts by direct endosymbiosis of CYANOBACTERIA. They are characterized by a mainly photosynthetic mode of nutrition; essentially unlimited growth at localized regions of cell divisions (MERISTEMS); cellulose within cells providing rigidity; the absence of organs of locomotion; absence of nervous and sensory systems; and an alternation of haploid and diploid generations. It is a non-taxonomical term most often referring to LAND PLANTS. In broad sense it includes RHODOPHYTA and GLAUCOPHYTA along with VIRIDIPLANTAE.. human defined as following: Members of the species Homo sapiens.. somatic cells defined as following: Nucleated cell which has one or more diploid sets (46 pairs) of chromosomes.. cells defined as following: The fundamental, structural, and functional units or subunits of living organisms. They are composed of CYTOPLASM containing various ORGANELLES and a CELL MEMBRANE boundary.. mutations defined as following: The result of any gain, loss or alteration of the sequences comprising a gene, including all sequences transcribed into RNA..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_3366", "sentence1": "Should Pentoxifylline be used for treatment of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis?", "sentence2": ".RESULTS: At the end of the study, after 547 days of follow-up, 103 patients (51.7%) in the pentoxifylline group and 120 (59.7%) in the placebo group were alive (unadjusted risk 1.28, p = 0.107; adjusted risk 1.43, p = 0.02). In contrast, analysis of secondary outcome functional variables did not show the same negative effect of the drug. , CONCLUSIONS: Pentoxifylline is not beneficial in ALS and should be avoided in patients treated with riluzole. , RESULTS: At the end of the study, after 547 days of follow-up, 103 patients (51.7%) in the pentoxifylline group and 120 (59.7%) in the placebo group were alive (unadjusted risk 1.28, p = 0.107; adjusted risk 1.43, p = 0.02).[SEP]Relations: Pentoxifylline has relations: drug_drug with Canrenoic acid, drug_drug with Canrenoic acid, drug_drug with Phylloquinone, drug_drug with Phylloquinone, drug_drug with Penbutolol, drug_drug with Penbutolol, drug_drug with Ampicillin, drug_drug with Ampicillin, drug_drug with Eplerenone, drug_drug with Eplerenone. Definitions: ALS defined as following: A degenerative disorder affecting upper MOTOR NEURONS in the brain and lower motor neurons in the brain stem and SPINAL CORD. Disease onset is usually after the age of 50 and the process is usually fatal within 3 to 6 years. Clinical manifestations include progressive weakness, atrophy, FASCICULATION, hyperreflexia, DYSARTHRIA, dysphagia, and eventual paralysis of respiratory function. Pathologic features include the replacement of motor neurons with fibrous ASTROCYTES and atrophy of anterior SPINAL NERVE ROOTS and corticospinal tracts. (From Adams et al., Principles of Neurology, 6th ed, pp1089-94). Pentoxifylline defined as following: A METHYLXANTHINE derivative that inhibits phosphodiesterase and affects blood rheology. It improves blood flow by increasing erythrocyte and leukocyte flexibility. It also inhibits platelet aggregation. Pentoxifylline modulates immunologic activity by stimulating cytokine production.. riluzole defined as following: A glutamate antagonist (RECEPTORS, GLUTAMATE) used as an anticonvulsant (ANTICONVULSANTS) and to prolong the survival of patients with AMYOTROPHIC LATERAL SCLEROSIS.. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis defined as following: An inherited form of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, usually inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern, caused by mutation(s) in the SOD1 gene, encoding superoxide dismutase..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_181", "sentence1": "Is the abnormal dosage of ultraconserved elements disfavored in cancer cells?", "sentence2": "Abnormal dosage of ultraconserved elements is highly disfavored in healthy cells but not cancer cells., We begin by showing that depletion for UCEs characterizes the most recent large-scale human CNV datasets and then find that even newly formed de novo CNVs, which have passed through meiosis at most once, are significantly depleted for UCEs. In striking contrast, CNVs arising specifically in cancer cells are, as a rule, not depleted for UCEs and can even become significantly enriched. This observation raises the possibility that CNVs that arise somatically and are relatively newly formed are less likely to have established a CNV profile that is depleted for UCEs. Alternatively, lack of depletion for UCEs from cancer CNVs may reflect the diseased state. In support of this latter explanation, somatic CNVs that are not associated with disease are depleted for UCEs. Finally, we show that it is possible to observe the CNVs of induced pluripotent stem (iPS) cells become depleted of UCEs over time, suggesting that depletion may be established through selection against UCE-disrupting CNVs without the requirement for meiotic divisions., Alternatively, lack of depletion for UCEs from cancer CNVs may reflect the diseased state.[SEP]Relations: malignant giant cell tumor has relations: disease_disease with cancer, disease_disease with cancer, disease_disease with giant cell tumor, disease_disease with giant cell tumor, disease_disease with giant cell tumor of soft tissue, disease_disease with giant cell tumor of soft tissue, disease_disease with malignancy in giant cell tumor of bone, disease_disease with malignancy in giant cell tumor of bone, disease_disease with malignant giant cell tumor of soft parts, disease_disease with malignant giant cell tumor of soft parts. Definitions: cancer defined as following: A malignant tumor at the original site of growth.. cancer cells defined as following: Cells of, or derived from, a malignant tumor.. human defined as following: Members of the species Homo sapiens.. disease defined as following: A definite pathologic process with a characteristic set of signs and symptoms. It may affect the whole body or any of its parts, and its etiology, pathology, and prognosis may be known or unknown..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_3143", "sentence1": "Velocardial facial syndrome, otherwise known as Di George syndrome is caused by a deletion in chromosome 21, yes or no?", "sentence2": "The deletion of chromosome 22q11.2 is involved in the majority of DiGeorge or velo-cardiofacial syndrome., deletions of chromosome 7q11.23 (Williams syndrome), 15q11-q13 (Angelman syndrome, Prader-Willi syndrome) and 22q11 (Di George syndrome), Submicroscopic deletions of chromosome 22q11 have been reported in a multiple anomaly syndrome variously labelled as velocardiofacial syndrome, conotruncal anomaly face syndrome, and Di George syndrome, The 22q11.2 deletion syndrome (di George syndrome) is one of the most prevalent genetic disorders., UNLABELLED\nMost of the children with Di George syndrome and 60% of patients with velocardiofacial syndrome exhibit a microdeletion within chromosome 22q11., Submicroscopic deletions of chromosome 22q11 have been reported in a multiple anomaly syndrome variously labelled as velocardiofacial syndrome, conotruncal anomaly face syndrome, and Di George syndrome., 22q11.2DS has several presentations including Di George's syndrome, velo-cardio-facial syndrome or Shprintzen's syndrome and it is the most frequent microdeletion syndrome in the general population (prevalence estimated at 1/4000 births, de novo: 90%)., Di George syndrome due to mutation on 22q or 10q) and can also result from microdeletion or point mutation (in the Shprintzen syndrome 70% represent microdeletion and 30% point mutation at 22q11, in Rubinstein-Taybi syndrome 10% cases result from microdeletions and 90% from point mutations); 7) Population incidence of microdeletions is high (1:4000 to 1:30,000) because their etiologic mechanism is related to the common unequal crossing over; 8) Imprinting plays a role in some cases, e.g., [Microdeletion of the chromosome 22q11 in children: apropos of a series of 49 patients].Most of the children with Di George syndrome and 60% of patients with velocardiofacial syndrome exhibit a microdeletion within chromosome 22q11. , 22q11.2DS has several presentations including Di George's syndrome, velo-cardio-facial syndrome or Shprintzen's syndrome and it is the most frequent microdeletion syndrome in the general population (prevalence estimated at 1/4000 births, de novo: 90%). , UNLABELLED: Most of the children with Di George syndrome and 60% of patients with velocardiofacial syndrome exhibit a microdeletion within chromosome 22q11., Most of the children with Di George syndrome and 60% of patients with velocardiofacial syndrome exhibit a microdeletion within chromosome 22q11.[SEP]Relations: Williams syndrome has relations: disease_disease with syndrome caused by partial chromosomal deletion, disease_disease with syndrome caused by partial chromosomal deletion, disease_disease with partial deletion of the long arm of chromosome 7, disease_disease with partial deletion of the long arm of chromosome 7. DiGeorge syndrome has relations: disease_disease with syndrome caused by partial chromosomal deletion, disease_disease with syndrome caused by partial chromosomal deletion. Abnormality of the dentition has relations: disease_phenotype_positive with chromosome 15q24 deletion syndrome, disease_phenotype_positive with chromosome 15q24 deletion syndrome, disease_phenotype_positive with chromosome 9p deletion syndrome, disease_phenotype_positive with chromosome 9p deletion syndrome. Definitions: chromosome defined as following: A specific pair of human chromosomes in group A (CHROMOSOMES, HUMAN, 1-3) of the human chromosome classification.. point mutation defined as following: A mutation caused by the substitution of one nucleotide for another. This results in the DNA molecule having a change in a single base pair.. Rubinstein-Taybi syndrome defined as following: A chromosomal disorder characterized by MENTAL RETARDATION, broad thumbs, webbing of fingers and toes, beaked nose, short upper lip, pouting lower lip, agenesis of corpus callosum, large foramen magnum, keloid formation, pulmonary stenosis, vertebral anomalies, chest wall anomalies, sleep apnea, and megacolon. The disease has an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance and is associated with deletions of the short arm of chromosome 16 (16p13.3).. Di George's syndrome defined as following: Congenital syndrome characterized by a wide spectrum of characteristics including the absence of the THYMUS and PARATHYROID GLANDS resulting in T-cell immunodeficiency, HYPOCALCEMIA, defects in the outflow tract of the heart, and craniofacial anomalies.. mutation defined as following: Any transmissible change in the genetic material of an organism, which can result from radiation, viral infection, transposition, treatment with mutagenic chemicals and errors during DNA replication or meiosis. The effects of mutation range from single base changes to loss or gain of complete chromosomes. As many of the simpler alterations to DNA may be repaired, such changes are only heritable once the change is fixed in the DNA by the process of replication. Mutations may be associated with genetic diversity or with pathologies including cancer.. 22q defined as following: Distal (long) arm of chromosome 22. 10q defined as following: Distal (long) arm of chromosome 10. velo-cardio-facial syndrome defined as following: Typical facies with a prominent nose and retruded mandible, cleft palate, cardiovascular defects, learning disability, retarded mental development, and short stature. Elements of this syndrome are frequently present in the Robin syndrome.. Angelman syndrome defined as following: A syndrome characterized by multiple abnormalities, MENTAL RETARDATION, and movement disorders. Present usually are skull and other abnormalities, frequent infantile spasms (SPASMS, INFANTILE); easily provoked and prolonged paroxysms of laughter (hence \"happy\"); jerky puppetlike movements (hence \"puppet\"); continuous tongue protrusion; motor retardation; ATAXIA; MUSCLE HYPOTONIA; and a peculiar facies. It is associated with maternal deletions of chromosome 15q11-13 and other genetic abnormalities. (From Am J Med Genet 1998 Dec 4;80(4):385-90; Hum Mol Genet 1999 Jan;8(1):129-35). Williams syndrome defined as following: A disorder caused by hemizygous microdeletion of about 28 genes on chromosome 7q11.23, including the ELASTIN gene. Clinical manifestations include SUPRAVALVULAR AORTIC STENOSIS; MENTAL RETARDATION; elfin facies; impaired visuospatial constructive abilities; and transient HYPERCALCEMIA in infancy. The condition affects both sexes, with onset at birth or in early infancy.. deletions defined as following: A genetic rearrangement through loss of segments of DNA or RNA, bringing sequences which are normally separated into close proximity. This deletion may be detected using cytogenetic techniques and can also be inferred from the phenotype, indicating a deletion at one specific locus.. Prader-Willi syndrome defined as following: An autosomal dominant disorder caused by deletion of the proximal long arm of the paternal chromosome 15 (15q11-q13) or by inheritance of both of the pair of chromosomes 15 from the mother (UNIPARENTAL DISOMY) which are imprinted (GENETIC IMPRINTING) and hence silenced. Clinical manifestations include MENTAL RETARDATION; MUSCULAR HYPOTONIA; HYPERPHAGIA; OBESITY; short stature; HYPOGONADISM; STRABISMUS; and HYPERSOMNOLENCE. (Menkes, Textbook of Child Neurology, 5th ed, p229). chromosome 21 defined as following: A specific pair of GROUP G CHROMOSOMES of the human chromosome classification.. Di George syndrome defined as following: Congenital syndrome characterized by a wide spectrum of characteristics including the absence of the THYMUS and PARATHYROID GLANDS resulting in T-cell immunodeficiency, HYPOCALCEMIA, defects in the outflow tract of the heart, and craniofacial anomalies..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_1489", "sentence1": "Is there any role for long noncoding RNAs in adipogenesis?", "sentence2": "Long noncoding RNAs regulate adipogenesis., Here we profiled the transcriptome of primary brown and white adipocytes, preadipocytes, and cultured adipocytes and identified 175 lncRNAs that are specifically regulated during adipogenesis. Many lncRNAs are adipose-enriched, strongly induced during adipogenesis, and bound at their promoters by key transcription factors such as peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor γ (PPARγ) and CCAAT/enhancer-binding protein α (CEBPα). RNAi-mediated loss of function screens identified functional lncRNAs with varying impact on adipogenesis. Collectively, we have identified numerous lncRNAs that are functionally required for proper adipogenesis., Here we profiled the transcriptome of primary brown and white adipocytes, preadipocytes, and cultured adipocytes and identified 175 lncRNAs that are specifically regulated during adipogenesis. Many lncRNAs are adipose-enriched, strongly induced during adipogenesis, and bound at their promoters by key transcription factors such as peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor γ (PPARγ) and CCAAT/enhancer-binding protein α (CEBPα). [SEP]Relations: transcription factor binding has relations: molfunc_protein with EPAS1, molfunc_protein with EPAS1, molfunc_protein with AIP, molfunc_protein with AIP, molfunc_protein with PPARA, molfunc_protein with PPARA, molfunc_protein with SRY, molfunc_protein with SRY, molfunc_protein with HMGA2, molfunc_protein with HMGA2. Definitions: promoters defined as following: A DNA sequence at which RNA polymerase binds and initiates transcription.. peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor γ defined as following: TRANSCRIPTION FACTORS that are activated by ligands and heterodimerize with RETINOID X RECEPTORS and bind to peroxisome proliferator response elements in the promoter regions of target genes.. white adipocytes defined as following: Fat cells with light coloration and few MITOCHONDRIA. They contain a scant ring of CYTOPLASM surrounding a single large lipid droplet or vacuole.. transcription factors defined as following: Endogenous substances, usually proteins, which are effective in the initiation, stimulation, or termination of the genetic transcription process..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_2424", "sentence1": "Are organisms in the genus Morexella associated with sepsis?", "sentence2": "Out of 130 culture proven cases of neonatal sepsis, gram negative bacteria were found in 71 (54.6%) cases and gram positive bacteria in 59 (45.4%) cases. Staphylococcus aureus was the most common bacteria found in 35 (26.9%) cases followed by Escherichia coli in 30 (23.1%) cases. Acinetobacter species, Staphylococcus epidermidis, Klebseila, Streptococci, Enterobacter cloacae and Morexella species were found in 17 (13.1%), 17 (13.1%), 13 (10%), 7 (5.4%), 6 (4.6%), and 5 (3.8%) cases respectively. [SEP]Relations: Bacteremia has relations: disease_phenotype_positive with shigellosis, disease_phenotype_positive with shigellosis, disease_phenotype_positive with melioidosis, disease_phenotype_positive with melioidosis, disease_phenotype_positive with listeriosis, disease_phenotype_positive with listeriosis. escherichia coli infection has relations: disease_phenotype_positive with Recurrent gram-negative bacterial infections, disease_phenotype_positive with Recurrent gram-negative bacterial infections, disease_disease with infectious disease, disease_disease with infectious disease. Definitions: Escherichia coli defined as following: A species of gram-negative, facultatively anaerobic, rod-shaped bacteria (GRAM-NEGATIVE FACULTATIVELY ANAEROBIC RODS) commonly found in the lower part of the intestine of warm-blooded animals. It is usually nonpathogenic, but some strains are known to produce DIARRHEA and pyogenic infections. Pathogenic strains (virotypes) are classified by their specific pathogenic mechanisms such as toxins (ENTEROTOXIGENIC ESCHERICHIA COLI), etc.. Streptococci defined as following: A genus of gram-positive, coccoid bacteria whose organisms occur in pairs or chains. No endospores are produced. Many species exist as commensals or parasites on man or animals with some being highly pathogenic. A few species are saprophytes and occur in the natural environment.. bacteria defined as following: One of the three domains of life (the others being Eukarya and ARCHAEA), also called Eubacteria. They are unicellular prokaryotic microorganisms which generally possess rigid cell walls, multiply by cell division, and exhibit three principal forms: round or coccal, rodlike or bacillary, and spiral or spirochetal. Bacteria can be classified by their response to OXYGEN: aerobic, anaerobic, or facultatively anaerobic; by the mode by which they obtain their energy: chemotrophy (via chemical reaction) or PHOTOTROPHY (via light reaction); for chemotrophs by their source of chemical energy: CHEMOLITHOTROPHY (from inorganic compounds) or chemoorganotrophy (from organic compounds); and by their source for CARBON; NITROGEN; etc.; HETEROTROPHY (from organic sources) or AUTOTROPHY (from CARBON DIOXIDE). They can also be classified by whether or not they stain (based on the structure of their CELL WALLS) with CRYSTAL VIOLET dye: gram-negative or gram-positive.. organisms defined as following: A living entity..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_3714", "sentence1": "Is deletion at 6q24.2-26 associated with shorter survival for ovarian cancer patients?", "sentence2": "Deletion at 6q24.2-26 predicts longer survival of high-grade serous epithelial ovarian cancer patients., Standard treatments for advanced high-grade serous ovarian carcinomas (HGSOCs) show significant side-effects and provide only short-term survival benefits due to disease recurrence. Thus, identification of novel prognostic and predictive biomarkers is urgently needed. We have used 42 paraffin-embedded HGSOCs, to evaluate the utility of DNA copy number alterations, as potential predictors of clinical outcome. Copy number-based unsupervised clustering stratified HGSOCs into two clusters of different immunohistopathological features and survival outcome (HR = 0.15, 95%CI = 0.03-0.81; Padj = 0.03). We found that loss at 6q24.2-26 was significantly associated with the cluster of longer survival independently from other confounding factors (HR = 0.06, 95%CI = 0.01-0.43, Padj = 0.005). The prognostic value of this deletion was validated in two independent series, one consisting of 36 HGSOCs analyzed by fluorescent in situ hybridization (P = 0.04) and another comprised of 411 HGSOCs from the Cancer Genome Atlas study (TCGA) (HR = 0.67, 95%CI = 0.48-0.93, Padj = 0.019). In addition, we confirmed the association of low expression of the genes from the region with longer survival in 799 HGSOCs (HR = 0.74, 95%CI = 0.61-0.90, log-rank P = 0.002) and 675 high-FIGO stage HGSOCs (HR = 0.76, 95%CI = 0.61-0.96, log-rank P = 0.02) available from the online tool KM-plotter. Finally, by integrating copy number, RNAseq and survival data of 296 HGSOCs from TCGA we propose a few candidate genes that can potentially explain the association. Altogether our findings indicate that the 6q24.2-26 deletion is an independent marker of favorable outcome in HGSOCs with potential clinical value as it can be analyzed by FISH on tumor sections and guide the selection of patients towards more conservative therapeutic strategies in order to reduce side-effects and improve quality of life., We found that loss at 6q24.2-26 was significantly associated with the cluster of longer survival independently from other confounding factors (HR = 0.06, 95%CI = 0.01-0.43, Padj = 0.005)., OBJECTIVE\n\nWe aimed to evaluate the prognostic and predictive value of the nucleotide excision repair-related gene GTF2H5, which is localized at the 6q24.2-26 deletion previously reported by our group to predict longer survival of high-grade serous ovarian cancer patients., We found that loss at 6q24.2-26 was significantly associated with the cluster of longer survival independently from other confounding factors (HR = 0.06, 95%CI = 0.01-0.43, Padj = 0.005)., OBJECTIVE\nWe aimed to evaluate the prognostic and predictive value of the nucleotide excision repair-related gene GTF2H5, which is localized at the 6q24.2-26 deletion previously reported by our group to predict longer survival of high-grade serous ovarian cancer patients., OBJECTIVE: We aimed to evaluate the prognostic and predictive value of the nucleotide excision repair-related gene GTF2H5, which is localized at the 6q24.2-26 deletion previously reported by our group to predict longer survival of high-grade serous ovarian cancer patients., We aimed to evaluate the prognostic and predictive value of the nucleotide excision repair-related gene GTF2H5, which is localized at the 6q24.2-26 deletion previously reported by our group to predict longer survival of high-grade serous ovarian cancer patients.[SEP]Relations: Abnormality of the dentition has relations: disease_phenotype_positive with chromosome 6pter-p24 deletion syndrome, disease_phenotype_positive with chromosome 6pter-p24 deletion syndrome, disease_phenotype_positive with chromosome 15q24 deletion syndrome, disease_phenotype_positive with chromosome 15q24 deletion syndrome, disease_phenotype_positive with chromosome 8q21.11 deletion syndrome, disease_phenotype_positive with chromosome 8q21.11 deletion syndrome, disease_phenotype_positive with 22q11.2 deletion syndrome, disease_phenotype_positive with 22q11.2 deletion syndrome, disease_phenotype_positive with chromosome 4q21 deletion syndrome, disease_phenotype_positive with chromosome 4q21 deletion syndrome. Definitions: DNA defined as following: A deoxyribonucleotide polymer that is the primary genetic material of all cells. Eukaryotic and prokaryotic organisms normally contain DNA in a double-stranded state, yet several important biological processes transiently involve single-stranded regions. DNA, which consists of a polysugar-phosphate backbone possessing projections of purines (adenine and guanine) and pyrimidines (thymine and cytosine), forms a double helix that is held together by hydrogen bonds between these purines and pyrimidines (adenine to thymine and guanine to cytosine).. region defined as following: The continents and countries situated on those continents; the UNITED STATES and each of the constituent states arranged by region; CANADA and each of its provinces; AUSTRALIA and each of its states; the major bodies of water and major islands on both hemispheres; and selected major cities.. genes defined as following: A category of nucleic acid sequences that function as units of heredity and which code for the basic instructions for the development, reproduction, and maintenance of organisms.. ovarian cancer defined as following: A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the ovary. Most primary malignant ovarian neoplasms are either carcinomas (serous, mucinous, or endometrioid adenocarcinomas) or malignant germ cell tumors. Metastatic malignant neoplasms to the ovary include carcinomas, lymphomas, and melanomas..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_2205", "sentence1": "Does the Abelson-related gene (ARG) gene encode for a serine kinase?", "sentence2": "One isoform of Arg/Abl2 tyrosine kinase is nuclear and the other seven cytosolic isoforms differently modulate cell morphology, motility and the cytoskeleton., The non-receptor tyrosine kinase Abelson related gene (Arg/Abl2) regulates cell migration and morphogenesis by modulating the cytoskeleton. , The human Arg (Abl2) nonreceptor tyrosine kinase has a role in cytoskeletal rearrangements by its C-terminal F-actin- and microtubule-binding sequences. , The tyrosine kinase abl-related gene ARG is fused to ETV6 in an AML-M4Eo patient with a t(1;12)(q25;p13): molecular cloning of both reciprocal transcripts., The ARG gene encodes for a nonreceptor tyrosine kinase characterized by high homology with c-Abl in the TK, SH2, and SH3 domains. This is the first report on ARG involvement in a human malignancy., Ultraviolet-A and -B differentially modify the tyrosine-kinase profile of human keratinocytes and induce the expression of Arg+., Arg (Abelson-related gene, Abl2) was the PTK with the highest prevalence (30% of all PTKs) and UVA led to a further induction of Arg expression reaching nine-fold mRNA baseline expression at 17 h after irradiation., To investigate the expression profile of protein tyrosine kinases (PTKs) in normal human epidermal keratinocytes (NHEK) in response to UVA and UVB we employed a reversed transcriptase polymerase chain reaction (PCR) approach using degenerate primers derived from the conserved catalytic domain of PTKs. , By 3'rapid amplification of cDNA ends-polymerase chain reaction (3'RACE-PCR), a novel fusion transcript was identified between the ETV6 and the Abelson-related gene (ARG) at 1q25, resulting in a chimeric protein consisting of the HLH oligomerization domain of ETV6 and the SH2, SH3, and protein tyrosine kinase (PTK) domains of ARG., The non-receptor tyrosine kinase Abelson related gene (Arg/Abl2) regulates cell migration and morphogenesis by modulating the cytoskeleton., Arg (Abelson-related gene, Abl2) was the PTK with the highest prevalence (30% of all PTKs) and UVA led to a further induction of Arg expression reaching nine-fold mRNA baseline expression at 17 h after irradiation., We studied the relationship of direct karyotypes, determined at diagnosis and remission, to Abelson-related tyrosine kinase activity and the cytogenetic features of erythroid and myeloid colonies derived from remission marrow of six children with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)., ABL2/ARG (ABL-related gene) belongs to the ABL (Abelson tyrosine-protein kinase) family of tyrosine kinases, The non-receptor tyrosine kinase Abelson related gene (Arg/Abl2) regulates cell migration and morphogenesis by modulating the cytoskeleton, The ARG gene encodes for a nonreceptor tyrosine kinase characterized by high homology with c-Abl in the TK, SH2, and SH3 domains., ABL2/ARG (ABL-related gene) belongs to the ABL (Abelson tyrosine-protein kinase) family of tyrosine kinases., We report that the Abelson (Abl) and Abl-related gene (Arg) nonreceptor tyrosine kinases are required for maintenance of cortical dendrites in the mouse brain., The products of the human ARG gene and the human ABL gene characterize the Abelson family of non-receptor tyrosine protein kinases., The products of the human Arg gene and human, mouse, Drosophila, and nematode Abl genes characterize the Abelson family of nonreceptor tyrosine protein kinase., By 3'rapid amplification of cDNA ends-polymerase chain reaction (3'RACE-PCR), a novel fusion transcript was identified between the ETV6 and the Abelson-related gene (ARG) at 1q25, resulting in a chimeric protein consisting of the HLH oligomerization domain of ETV6 and the SH2, SH3, and protein tyrosine kinase (PTK) domains of ARG., The tyrosine kinase abl-related gene ARG is fused to ETV6 in an AML-M4Eo patient with a t(1;12)(q25;p13): molecular cloning of both reciprocal transcripts.[SEP]Relations: protein tyrosine kinase binding has relations: molfunc_protein with NEDD9, molfunc_protein with NEDD9, molfunc_protein with GRM5, molfunc_protein with GRM5, molfunc_protein with ITGB1, molfunc_protein with ITGB1, molfunc_protein with ACVR1, molfunc_protein with ACVR1, molfunc_protein with CRK, molfunc_protein with CRK. Definitions: protein tyrosine kinases defined as following: Protein kinases that catalyze the PHOSPHORYLATION of TYROSINE residues in proteins with ATP or other nucleotides as phosphate donors.. chimeric protein defined as following: A protein in which the coding region of two genes have become in-frame and co-continuous. Fusion proteins can be formed by chromosomal breakage and/or recombination and also can be experimentally created using recombinant DNA techniques.. ETV6 defined as following: Human ETV6 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 12p13 and is approximately 246 kb in length. This allele, which encodes transcription factor ETV6 protein, is involved in the repression of transcription by RNA polymerase II. Several malignancies, particularly leukemias, are linked to chromosomal translocations of this gene.. ARG defined as following: This gene plays a role in signal transduction.. erythroid defined as following: 1) Reddish in color. 2) relating to erythrocytes or their precursors.. Abelson tyrosine-protein kinase defined as following: Abelson tyrosine-protein kinase 2 (1182 aa, ~128 kDa) is encoded by the human ABL2 gene. This protein plays a role in cell motility, apoptosis, cell adhesion, receptor endocytosis, autophagy, tyrosine phosphorylation and signal transduction.. acute lymphoblastic leukemia defined as following: A type of ALL characterized by elevated levels of B-cell lymphoblasts in the bone marrow and the blood. [NCIT:C8644]. transcripts defined as following: The initial RNA molecule produced by transcription.. c-Abl defined as following: This gene is involved in cell adhesion, differentiation, division and stress response.. mRNA defined as following: RNA sequences that serve as templates for protein synthesis. Bacterial mRNAs are generally primary transcripts in that they do not require post-transcriptional processing. Eukaryotic mRNA is synthesized in the nucleus and must be exported to the cytoplasm for translation. Most eukaryotic mRNAs have a sequence of polyadenylic acid at the 3' end, referred to as the poly(A) tail. The function of this tail is not known for certain, but it may play a role in the export of mature mRNA from the nucleus as well as in helping stabilize some mRNA molecules by retarding their degradation in the cytoplasm.. Abl defined as following: An autosomal recessive disorder of lipid metabolism. It is caused by mutation of the microsomal triglyceride transfer protein that catalyzes the transport of lipids (TRIGLYCERIDES; CHOLESTEROL ESTERS; PHOSPHOLIPIDS) and is required in the secretion of BETA-LIPOPROTEINS (low density lipoproteins or LDL). Features include defective intestinal lipid absorption, very low serum cholesterol level, and near absent LDL.. genes defined as following: A category of nucleic acid sequences that function as units of heredity and which code for the basic instructions for the development, reproduction, and maintenance of organisms.. nematode defined as following: class of unsegmented helminths with fundamental bilateral symmetry and secondary triradiate symmetry of the oral and esophageal structures; many species are parasites.. isoform defined as following: Refers to variants of the same protein which can be separated on special conducting media using electrophoresis. The differences may arise from genetically determined differences in primary structure or by modification of the same primary sequence.. ALL defined as following: Leukemia with an acute onset, characterized by the presence of lymphoblasts in the bone marrow and the peripheral blood. It includes the acute B lymphoblastic leukemia and acute T lymphoblastic leukemia.. tyrosine kinase defined as following: This gene is involved in both protein phosphorylation and interferon-mediated signaling.. human defined as following: Members of the species Homo sapiens.. HLH defined as following: A rare but potentially life-threatening disorder characterized by the proliferation of histiocytes and macrophages and phagocytosis of red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. It may be inherited or secondary, due to infections, autoimmune disorders, or underlying malignancies. Signs and symptoms include fever, lymphadenopathy, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, and pancytopenia.. homology defined as following: A gene from one species which corresponds to a gene in another species and that is related via a common ancestral species. These genes retain a similar sequence and function.. Abelson-related gene defined as following: This gene plays a role in signal transduction.. serine kinase defined as following: A group of enzymes that catalyzes the phosphorylation of serine or threonine residues in proteins, with ATP or other nucleotides as phosphate donors..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_2796", "sentence1": "Does vesatolimod inhibit TLR7?", "sentence2": "Vesatolimod (GS-9620) is an oral agonist of toll-like receptor 7, an activator of innate and adaptive immune responses. [SEP]Relations: Vesatolimod has relations: drug_drug with Anthrax vaccine, drug_drug with Anthrax vaccine, drug_drug with BCG vaccine, drug_drug with BCG vaccine, drug_drug with Rubella virus vaccine, drug_drug with Rubella virus vaccine, drug_drug with Typhoid Vaccine Live, drug_drug with Typhoid Vaccine Live, drug_drug with Adenovirus type 7 vaccine live, drug_drug with Adenovirus type 7 vaccine live. Definitions: toll-like receptor 7 defined as following: This gene plays a role in receptor signaling and in innate immune responses.. TLR7 defined as following: Human TLR7 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of Xp22.3 and is approximately 22 kb in length. This allele, which encodes toll-like receptor 7 protein, plays a role in pathogen recognition and innate immunity activation in response to microbial agents..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_1543", "sentence1": "Is there a mouse model for Fanconi anemia?", "sentence2": "Cyclophosphamide promotes engraftment of gene-modified cells in a mouse model of Fanconi anemia without causing cytogenetic abnormalities, We compared Cy preconditioning with fludarabine (Flu) or cytarabine (AraC) or no conditioning as a control in fanca ( -/- ) mutant mice receiving gene-modified bone marrow cells, We conclude that Cy is an effective and superior preparative regimen with respect to engraftment of lentivirus-transduced cells and functional correction in fanca ( -/- ) mice, To study whether there is a causal relationship between FA pathway defects and tumour development, we have generated a mouse model with a targeted disruption of the FA core complex gene Fancf, Fancf-deficient mouse embryonic fibroblasts displayed a phenotype typical for FA cells: they showed an aberrant response to DNA cross-linking agents as manifested by G(2) arrest, chromosomal aberrations, reduced survival, and an inability to monoubiquitinate FANCD2, Fancf homozygous mice were viable, born following a normal Mendelian distribution, and showed no growth retardation or developmental abnormalities. The gonads of Fancf mutant mice functioned abnormally, showing compromised follicle development and spermatogenesis as has been observed in other FA mouse models and in FA patients, In a cohort of Fancf-deficient mice, we observed decreased overall survival and increased tumour incidence, To provide further experimental access to the FA-M complementation group we have generated Fancm-deficient mice by deleting exon 2, FANCM deficiency caused hypogonadism in mice and hypersensitivity to cross-linking agents in mouse embryonic fibroblasts (MEFs), thus phenocopying other FA mouse models, Fancm(Delta2/Delta2) mice also showed unique features atypical for FA mice, including underrepresentation of female Fancm(Delta2/Delta2) mice and decreased overall and tumor-free survival, Fancm-deficient mice reveal unique features of Fanconi anemia complementation group M, Fancf-deficient mice are prone to develop ovarian tumours, In vivo proliferation advantage of genetically corrected hematopoietic stem cells in a mouse model of Fanconi anemia FA-D1, Using an FA mouse model with a marked hematopoietic phenotype, the FA-D1 (Brca2(Delta27/Delta27)) mice, we demonstrate that the lentivirus-mediated gene therapy of FA HSCs results in the progressive expansion of genetically corrected clones in mild-conditioned FA-D1 recipients, Consistent with these data, hematopoietic progenitors from FA recipients progressively became mitomycin C resistant and their chromosomal instability was reverted, Hematopoietic dysfunction in a mouse model for Fanconi anemia group D1, We have investigated the hematopoietic phenotype of mice with a hypomorphic mutation in the Brca2/Fancd1 gene (Brca2(Delta27/Delta27) mutation), Conventional BM competition experiments showed a marked repopulation defect in Brca2(Delta27/Delta27) hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs), compared to wild-type HSCs, Moreover, we have observed for the first time in a DNA repair disease model a very significant proliferation defect in Brca2(Delta27/Delta27) HSCs maintained in their natural physiological environment, The hematopoietic phenotype associated with the Brca2(Delta27/Delta27) mutation suggests that this FA-D1 mouse model will constitute an important tool for the development of new therapies for FA, including gene therapy, In vitro phenotypic correction of hematopoietic progenitors from Fanconi anemia group A knockout mice, In this study we characterized the hematopoietic phenotype of a Fanca knockout mouse model and corrected the main phenotypic characteristics of the bone marrow (BM) progenitors using retroviral vectors, The hematopoiesis of these animals was characterized by a modest though significant thrombocytopenia, consistent with reduced numbers of BM megakaryocyte progenitors, As observed in other FA models, the hematopoietic progenitors from Fanca(-/-) mice were highly sensitive to mitomycin C (MMC), Aiming to correct the phenotype of Fanca(-/-) progenitors, purified Lin(-)Sca-1(+) cells were transduced with retroviral vectors encoding the enhanced green fluorescent protein (EGFP) gene and human FANCA genes. Lin(-)Sca-1(+) cells from Fanca(-/-) mice were transduced with an efficiency similar to that of samples from wild-type mice. More significantly, transductions with FANCA vectors corrected both the MMC hypersensitivity as well as the impaired ex vivo expansion ability that characterized the BM progenitors of Fanca(-/-) mice, The Btbd12 knockout mouse therefore establishes a disease model for Fanconi anemia and genetically links a regulator of nuclease incision complexes to the Fanconi anemia DNA crosslink repair pathway., Hematopoietic dysfunction in a mouse model for Fanconi anemia group D1., Bone marrow failure in the Fanconi anemia group C mouse model after DNA damage., In vivo proliferation advantage of genetically corrected hematopoietic stem cells in a mouse model of Fanconi anemia FA-D1., Assessment of the flexed-tail mouse as a possible model for Fanconi anemia: analysis of mitomycin C-induced micronuclei., The Btbd12 knockout mouse therefore establishes a disease model for Fanconi anemia and genetically links a regulator of nuclease incision complexes to the Fanconi anemia DNA crosslink repair pathway., Cyclophosphamide promotes engraftment of gene-modified cells in a mouse model of Fanconi anemia without causing cytogenetic abnormalities., Mouse models of Fanconi anemia., Five of these genes have been deleted or mutated in the mouse, as well as a sixth key regulatory gene, to create mouse models of Fanconi anemia., This review summarizes the phenotype of each of the Fanconi anemia mouse models and highlights how genetic and interventional studies using the strains have yielded novel insight into therapeutic strategies for Fanconi anemia and into how the Fanconi anemia pathway protects against genomic instability., To study FA complementation group A using the mouse as a model system, we cloned and characterized the mouse homolog of the human FANCA cDNA., Here we describe the phenotype of the Btbd12 knockout mouse, the mouse ortholog of SLX4, which recapitulates many key features of the human genetic illness Fanconi anemia., Five of these genes have been deleted or mutated in the mouse, as well as a sixth key regulatory gene, to create mouse models of Fanconi anemia, In contrast to observations made in other Fanconi anemia (FA) mouse models, low numbers of hematopoietic colony-forming cells (CFCs) were noted in Brca2(Delta27/Delta27) mice, either young or adult, Fanconi anemia group A and C double-mutant mice: functional evidence for a multi-protein Fanconi anemia complex., In addition, mouse models are also useful for testing treatments for FA., Development and characterization of immortalized fibroblastoid cell lines from an FA(C) mouse model., These mouse models display the characteristic FA feature of cellular hypersensitivity to DNA cross-linking agents[SEP]Relations: Fanconi anemia complementation group has relations: disease_disease with Fanconi anemia, disease_disease with Fanconi anemia, disease_disease with Fanconi anemia, disease_disease with Fanconi anemia, disease_disease with Fanconi anemia, disease_disease with Fanconi anemia, disease_phenotype_positive with Abnormal facial shape, disease_phenotype_positive with Abnormal facial shape, disease_phenotype_positive with Abnormal facial shape, disease_phenotype_positive with Abnormal facial shape. Definitions: Cyclophosphamide defined as following: Precursor of an alkylating nitrogen mustard antineoplastic and immunosuppressive agent that must be activated in the LIVER to form the active aldophosphamide. It has been used in the treatment of LYMPHOMA and LEUKEMIA. Its side effect, ALOPECIA, has been used for defleecing sheep. Cyclophosphamide may also cause sterility, birth defects, mutations, and cancer.. HSCs defined as following: Progenitor cells from which all blood cells derived. They are found primarily in the bone marrow and also in small numbers in the peripheral blood.. cytarabine defined as following: A pyrimidine nucleoside analog that is used mainly in the treatment of leukemia, especially acute non-lymphoblastic leukemia. Cytarabine is an antimetabolite antineoplastic agent that inhibits the synthesis of DNA. Its actions are specific for the S phase of the cell cycle. It also has antiviral and immunosuppressant properties. (From Martindale, The Extra Pharmacopoeia, 30th ed, p472). Flu defined as following: Human ZMYND10 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 3p21.3 and is approximately 6 kb in length. This allele, which encodes zinc finger MYND domain-containing protein 10, is involved in motile ciliary function. Mutations in this gene are associated with primary ciliary dyskinesia-22.. FANCM defined as following: This gene plays a role in transcriptional regulation and ubiquitination.. BM defined as following: The normal process of elimination of fecal material from the RECTUM.. CFCs defined as following: A rare genetic syndrome most often caused by BRAF gene mutations. It is characterized by a distinctive facial appearance (high forehead, short nose, and widely spaced eyes), sparse and brittle hair, skin disorders, heart malformations, mental retardation and developmental delay.. fanca defined as following: Fanconi anemia caused by mutations of the FANCA gene. FANCA gene mutations are the most common cause of Fanconi anemia. This gene provides instructions for making a protein that is involved in the Fanconi anemia (FA) pathway.. genetic defined as following: Having to do with information that is passed from parents to offspring through genes in sperm and egg cells.. hypersensitivity defined as following: Heightened emotional reactivity to environmental stimuli, including emotions of others. [PMID:23250816]. tumour defined as following: New abnormal growth of tissue. Malignant neoplasms show a greater degree of anaplasia and have the properties of invasion and metastasis, compared to benign neoplasms.. FANCD2 defined as following: Fanconi anemia caused by mutations of the FANCD2 gene. This gene is involved in the repair of DNA double-strand breaks, both by homologous recombination and single-strand annealing.. Btbd12 defined as following: Human SLX4 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 16p13.3 and is approximately 30 kb in length. This allele, which encodes structure-specific endonuclease subunit SLX4 protein, plays a role in both the regulation of endonuclease activity and the recognition of damaged DNA. Mutation of the gene is associated with Fanconi anemia complementation group P.. MMC defined as following: An antineoplastic antibiotic produced by Streptomyces caespitosus. It is one of the bi- or tri-functional ALKYLATING AGENTS causing cross-linking of DNA and inhibition of DNA synthesis.. spermatogenesis defined as following: The process of germ cell development in the male from the primordial germ cells, through SPERMATOGONIA; SPERMATOCYTES; SPERMATIDS; to the mature haploid SPERMATOZOA.. green fluorescent protein defined as following: Protein analogs and derivatives of the Aequorea victoria green fluorescent protein that emit light (FLUORESCENCE) when excited with ULTRAVIOLET RAYS. They are used in REPORTER GENES in doing GENETIC TECHNIQUES. Numerous mutants have been made to emit other colors or be sensitive to pH.. ovarian tumours defined as following: Tumors or cancer of the OVARY. These neoplasms can be benign or malignant. They are classified according to the tissue of origin, such as the surface EPITHELIUM, the stromal endocrine cells, and the totipotent GERM CELLS.. mitomycin defined as following: A group of methylazirinopyrroloindolediones obtained from certain Streptomyces strains. They are very toxic antibiotics used as ANTINEOPLASTIC AGENTS in some solid tumors. PORFIROMYCIN and MITOMYCIN are the most useful members of the group.. Bone marrow failure defined as following: A reduced number of hematopoietic cells present in the bone marrow relative to marrow fat. [DDD:wouwehand, HPO:probinson]. genes defined as following: A category of nucleic acid sequences that function as units of heredity and which code for the basic instructions for the development, reproduction, and maintenance of organisms.. megakaryocyte defined as following: Very large BONE MARROW CELLS which release mature BLOOD PLATELETS.. hypogonadism defined as following: Condition resulting from deficient gonadal functions, such as GAMETOGENESIS and the production of GONADAL STEROID HORMONES. It is characterized by delay in GROWTH, germ cell maturation, and development of secondary sex characteristics. Hypogonadism can be due to a deficiency of GONADOTROPINS (hypogonadotropic hypogonadism) or due to primary gonadal failure (hypergonadotropic hypogonadism).. gonads defined as following: The gamete-producing glands, OVARY or TESTIS.. Fancf defined as following: Fanconi anemia caused by mutations of the FANCF gene. This gene encodes a polypeptide with homology to the prokaryotic RNA-binding protein ROM.. retroviral vectors defined as following: Any one of the recombinant retroviruses (RNA viruses) designed for gene transfer applications to deliver genetic material of interest into cells. These retroviral vectors are replication defective and have decreased immunogenicity. They are able to efficiently infect dividing cells, and the exogenous genetic material is integrated into the genome of the target cell. Thereby, the expression of the exogenous gene is stable instead of transient as in the case of adenoviral vectors.. mutation defined as following: Any transmissible change in the genetic material of an organism, which can result from radiation, viral infection, transposition, treatment with mutagenic chemicals and errors during DNA replication or meiosis. The effects of mutation range from single base changes to loss or gain of complete chromosomes. As many of the simpler alterations to DNA may be repaired, such changes are only heritable once the change is fixed in the DNA by the process of replication. Mutations may be associated with genetic diversity or with pathologies including cancer.. SLX4 defined as following: Structure-specific endonuclease subunit SLX4 (1834 aa, ~200 kDa) is encoded by the human SLX4 gene. This protein is involved in the both the recognition of DNA damage and the promotion of endonuclease activity.. regulatory gene defined as following: Genes which regulate or circumscribe the activity of other genes; specifically, genes which code for PROTEINS or RNAs which have GENE EXPRESSION REGULATION functions.. Fanconi anemia defined as following: Fanconi anemia caused by mutations of the FANCA gene. FANCA gene mutations are the most common cause of Fanconi anemia. This gene provides instructions for making a protein that is involved in the Fanconi anemia (FA) pathway..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_1138", "sentence1": "Does surgery for ovarian endometriomas improve fertility?", "sentence2": "CONCLUSION: Endometriomas per se appear to be the main cause of the reduced long-term reproductive performance of the affected patients, with little or no contribution from surgery. Furthermore, endometrioma surgery seems to improve the success rates of fertility treatment., Amongst the 38 women desiring pregnancy after endometrioma surgery, 19 (50%) achieved a spontaneous pregnancy during the follow-up period. , Of 33 women who wished to conceive, 67% became pregnant, spontaneously in 59%, CONCLUSIONS: Recurrence and pregnancy rates are encouraging in that they seem comparable to the best reported results after endometrioma cystectomy. , While laparoscopic excision is known to improve fertility, recurrence can cause significant ovarian damage and adverse affects on fertility., Surgery is considered to play a role within the framework of the therapeutic options to cure infertile women with the disease even though its effectiveness is generally modest. , Randomized controlled trials showed that the excision technique is associated with a higher pregnancy rate and a lower rate of recurrence although it may determine severe injury to the ovarian reserve. , Surgical treatment is associated with a high recurrence rate and its employment for women undergoing assisted conception has recently been challenged., Laparoscopic excision of ovarian endometrioma prior to IVF does not offer any additional benefit over expectant management. , For those women subsequently attempting to conceive it was also associated with a subsequent increased spontaneous pregnancy rate in women who had documented prior sub-fertility (OR 5.21 CI 2.04-13.29)., here is insufficient evidence to favour excisional surgery over ablative surgery with respect to the chance of pregnancy after controlled ovarian stimulation and intra-uterine insemination (OR 1.40 CI 0.47-4.15) . , CONCLUSIONS: These findings suggest that in a context of more than one year infertility only related to endometriosis, it is reasonable to offer these patients a complete operative laparoscopic treatment of their lesions, which enables 65% of them to be pregnant within a 8.5 months post-surgical median time to pregnancy and spontaneously in 60%. , It was also associated with a subsequent increased rate of spontaneous pregnancy women who had documented prior sub-fertility (OR 5.21 CI 2.04-13.29). AUTHORS' CONCLUSIONS: There is some evidence that excisional surgery for endometriomata provides for a more favourable outcome than drainage and ablation, with regard to the recurrence of the endometrioma, recurrence of symptoms and subsequent spontaneous pregnancy in women who were previously subfertile. , Surgery is an option for treatment, but there is no convincing evidence that it promotes a significant improvement in fertility., In conclusion, ovarian surgery for the treatment of endometriosis reduces the ovarian outcome in IVF/ICSI cycles in women >35 years old, and might also decrease pregnancy rates. , Improvement of pain symptoms occurred in 87% of the patients and fertility rate was 45%., The long-term results, especially the fertility outcome, have been promising: 12 of 20 women (60%) achieved a term pregnancy following a laparoscopic endometrioma procedure alone. , Among this group, 115 patients (54%) conceived following surgery; of these conceptions, 109 resulted in a living child., WIDER IMPLICATIONS OF THE FINDINGS: Despite the available evidence that surgery for endometriomas does not improve the outcome of ART and may damage ovarian reserve, it seems that the majority of gynaecologists in the UK offer ovarian cystectomy to their patients., Ovarian endometriomas does not exclude fertility., Removal of endometriomas before in vitro fertilization does not improve fertility outcomes: a matched, case-control study., Conclusion(s): Laparoscopic cystectomy for endometriomas before commencing an IVF cycle does not improve fertility outcomes., Despite the available evidence that surgery for endometriomas does not improve the outcome of ART and may damage ovarian reserve, it seems that the majority of gynaecologists in the UK offer ovarian cystectomy to their patients., Furthermore, laparoscopic removal of endometriomas does not improve IVF results, but may cause a decrease of ovarian responsiveness to gonadotropins., Furthermore, endometrioma surgery seems to improve the success rates of fertility treatment., Laparoscopic cystectomy for endometriomas before commencing an IVF cycle does not improve fertility outcomes[SEP]Relations: cervix endometriosis has relations: disease_disease with cervix disease, disease_disease with cervix disease, disease_disease with endometriosis (disease), disease_disease with endometriosis (disease). endometrial endometrioid adenocarcinoma has relations: disease_disease with secretory uterine corpus endometrioid adenocarcinoma, disease_disease with secretory uterine corpus endometrioid adenocarcinoma, disease_disease with endometrioid adenocarcinoma, disease_disease with endometrioid adenocarcinoma. dermoid cyst of ovary has relations: disease_disease with ovarian cystic teratoma, disease_disease with ovarian cystic teratoma. Definitions: ovarian endometrioma defined as following: A cystic form of endometriosis affecting the ovary. It may or may not be associated with endometriosis in other areas in the pelvis.. lesions defined as following: A localized pathological or traumatic structural change, damage, deformity, or discontinuity of tissue, organ, or body part.. infertility defined as following: Complete inability to conceive or induce conception.. gonadotropins defined as following: A class of formulated therapeutic analogs of the endogenous gonadotropin that stimulates or promotes the function of the gonads. Therapeutic gonadotropins are derived from animal or recombinant sources. Gonadotropins include follicle-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone and chorionic gonadotropin. These agents stimulate discrete cellular components of the gonads, exerting effects in both males and females. (NCI04). endometriosis defined as following: A condition in which functional endometrial tissue is present outside the UTERUS. It is often confined to the PELVIS involving the OVARY, the ligaments, cul-de-sac, and the uterovesical peritoneum..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_4148", "sentence1": "Is the glucocorticoid receptor a transcription factor?", "sentence2": "GR and KLF4, both pioneer transcription factors,, The glucocorticoid receptor (GR) is a ligand-binding dependent transcription factor that ultimately regulates vital biological processes and inflammation response through specific gene expression control, thus representing a notable drug target to explore. , The glucocorticoid receptor (GR) is a ligand-activated transcription factor that translocates to the nucleus upon hormone stimulation and distributes between the nucleoplasm and membraneless compartments named nuclear foci.[SEP]Relations: glucocorticoid receptor activity has relations: molfunc_protein with NR3C1, molfunc_protein with NR3C1. Protein S human has relations: drug_drug with Antihemophilic factor, human recombinant, drug_drug with Antihemophilic factor, human recombinant, drug_drug with Antihemophilic factor human, drug_drug with Antihemophilic factor human, drug_drug with Platelet Activating Factor, drug_drug with Platelet Activating Factor, drug_drug with Factor IX Complex (Human), drug_drug with Factor IX Complex (Human). Definitions: drug defined as following: Any natural, endogenously-derived, synthetic or semi-synthetic compound with pharmacologic activity. A pharmacologic substance has one or more specific mechanism of action(s) through which it exerts one or more effect(s) on the human or animal body. They can be used to potentially prevent, diagnose, treat or relieve symptoms of a disease. Formulation specific agents and some combination agents are also classified as pharmacologic substances.. nucleus defined as following: Within a eukaryotic cell, a membrane-limited body which contains chromosomes and one or more nucleoli (CELL NUCLEOLUS). The nuclear membrane consists of a double unit-type membrane which is perforated by a number of pores; the outermost membrane is continuous with the ENDOPLASMIC RETICULUM. A cell may contain more than one nucleus. (From Singleton & Sainsbury, Dictionary of Microbiology and Molecular Biology, 2d ed). KLF4 defined as following: Krueppel-like factor 4 (470 aa, ~50 kDa) is encoded by the human KLF4 gene. This protein regulates transcription.. inflammation defined as following: A pathological process characterized by injury or destruction of tissues caused by a variety of cytologic and chemical reactions. It is usually manifested by typical signs of pain, heat, redness, swelling, and loss of function.. nucleoplasm defined as following: That part of the nuclear content other than the chromosomes or the nucleolus. [GOC:ma, ISBN:0124325653]. glucocorticoid receptor defined as following: This gene is involved in ligand-activated transcriptional regulation and mutations in the gene are associated with glucocorticoid resistance.. GR defined as following: Glutathione reductase, mitochondrial (522 aa, ~56 kDa) is encoded by the human GSR gene. This protein plays a role in the synthesis of the sulfhydryl form of glutathione.. transcription factor defined as following: Endogenous substances, usually proteins, which are effective in the initiation, stimulation, or termination of the genetic transcription process..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_1536", "sentence1": "Are OATP1B1 and OATP1B3 associated with bilirubin transport?", "sentence2": "OATP1B1 and OATP1B3-mediated transport of bilirubin was confirmed and inhibition was determined for atazanavir, rifampicin, indinavir, amprenavir, cyclosporine, rifamycin SV and saquinavir. , Examples of adaptive nontoxic changes in liver function, which may elevate direct (conjugated) and/or indirect (unconjugated) bilirubin above baseline levels, include reversible inhibition of UGT1A1-mediated bilirubin metabolism and OATP1B1-, OATP1B3-, or MRP2-mediated transport (Keogh., Due to limited solubility and poor ionization of bilirubin and its glucuronide, the formation of estradiol 3-glucuronide was used as a surrogate to assess UGT1A1 activity, while the transport of pitavastatin, CDCF, and taurocholate were used as surrogate probe substrates to monitor the function of OATP1B1/OATP1B3, MRP2, and BSEP, respectively., OATP1B1 and OATP1B3-mediated transport of bilirubin was confirmed and inhibition was determined for atazanavir, rifampicin, indinavir, amprenavir, cyclosporine, rifamycin SV and saquinavir., However, because drug transporters also contribute to bilirubin elimination, the purpose of this work was to investigate the in vitro inhibition of OATP1B1, OATP1B3, MRP2, and BSEP of select test drugs known to elicit hyperbilirubinemia., Thus, disruption of hepatic reuptake of bilirubin glucuronide due to coexisting OATP1B1 and OATP1B3 deficiencies explains Rotor-type hyperbilirubinemia.Moreover, OATP1B1 and OATP1B3 null mutations may confer substantial drug toxicity risks., Bilirubin elimination is a multifaceted process consisting of uptake of bilirubin into the hepatocytes facilitated by OATP1B1 and OATP1B3., Complete OATP1B1 and OATP1B3 deficiency causes human Rotor syndrome by interrupting conjugated bilirubin reuptake into the liver., Thus, disruption of hepatic reuptake of bilirubin glucuronide due to coexisting OATP1B1 and OATP1B3 deficiencies explains Rotor-type hyperbilirubinemia., The data show that a substantial fraction of bilirubin conjugates is primarily secreted by MRP3 at the sinusoidal membrane into the blood, from where they are subsequently reuptaken by sinusoidal membrane-bound organic anion transporting polypeptides OATP1B1 and OATP1B3., Evaluating the in vitro inhibition of UGT1A1, OATP1B1, OATP1B3, MRP2, and BSEP in predicting drug-induced hyperbilirubinemia., OATP1B1 and OATP1B3-mediated transport of bilirubin was confirmed and inhibition was determined for atazanavir, rifampicin, indinavir, amprenavir, cyclosporine, rifamycin SV and saquinavir, Bilirubin elimination is a multifaceted process consisting of uptake of bilirubin into the hepatocytes facilitated by OATP1B1 and OATP1B3, Due to limited solubility and poor ionization of bilirubin and its glucuronide, the formation of estradiol 3-glucuronide was used as a surrogate to assess UGT1A1 activity, while the transport of pitavastatin, CDCF, and taurocholate were used as surrogate probe substrates to monitor the function of OATP1B1/OATP1B3, MRP2, and BSEP, respectively, Examples of adaptive nontoxic changes in liver function, which may elevate direct (conjugated) and/or indirect (unconjugated) bilirubin above baseline levels, include reversible inhibition of UGT1A1-mediated bilirubin metabolism and OATP1B1-, OATP1B3-, or MRP2-mediated transport (Keogh, In vitro, faldaprevir inhibited key processes involved in bilirubin clearance: UDP glucuronosyltransferase (UGT) 1A1 (UGT1A1) (IC50 0.45 µM), which conjugates bilirubin, and hepatic uptake and efflux transporters, organic anion-transporting polypeptide (OATP) 1B1 (IC50 0.57 µM), OATP1B3 (IC50 0.18 µM), and multidrug resistance-associated protein (MRP) 2 (IC50 6.2 µM), which transport bilirubin and its conjugates, Thus, disruption of hepatic reuptake of bilirubin glucuronide due to coexisting OATP1B1 and OATP1B3 deficiencies explains Rotor-type hyperbilirubinemia, Thus, disruption of hepatic reuptake of bilirubin glucuronide due to coexisting OATP1B1 and OATP1B3 deficiencies explains Rotor-type hyperbilirubinemia.Moreover, OATP1B1 and OATP1B3 null mutations may confer substantial drug toxicity risks, OATP1B1 (a.k.a. OATP-C, OATP2, LST-1, or SLC21A6) is a liver-specific organic anion uptake transporter and has been shown to be a higher affinity bilirubin uptake transporter than OATP1B3, In vitro OATP1B1 and OATP1B3 inhibition is associated with observations of benign clinical unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia., Examples of adaptive nontoxic changes in liver function, which may elevate direct (conjugated) and/or indirect (unconjugated) bilirubin above baseline levels, include reversible inhibition of UGT1A1-mediated bilirubin metabolism and OATP1B1-, OATP1B3-, or MRP2-mediated transport (Keogh. Adv Pharmacol 63:1-42, 2012). , Using mice deficient in Oatp1a/1b and in the multispecific sinusoidal export pump Abcc3, we found that Abcc3 secretes bilirubin conjugates into the blood, while Oatp1a/1b transporters mediate their hepatic reuptake. , Bilirubin elimination is a multifaceted process consisting of uptake of bilirubin into the hepatocytes facilitated by OATP1B1 and OATP1B3. , OATP1B1 polymorphism is a major determinant of serum bilirubin level but not associated with rifampicin-mediated bilirubin elevation., Unconjugated bilirubin (UCB) is taken up into hepatocytes by human organic anion transporting polypeptide 1B1 (OATP1B1; encoded for by the SLCO1B1 gene)., However, because drug transporters also contribute to bilirubin elimination, the purpose of this work was to investigate the in vitro inhibition of OATP1B1, OATP1B3, MRP2, and BSEP of select test drugs known to elicit hyperbilirubinemia. Test drugs investigated in this study were atazanavir and indinavir, which are associated with hyperbilirubinemia and elevations in serum transaminase; ritonavir and nelfinavir, which are not associated with hyperbilirubinemia; and bromfenac, troglitazone, and trovafloxacin, which are associated with severe idiosyncratic hepatotoxicity exhibiting elevations in serum bilirubin and transaminase., Test drugs investigated in this study were atazanavir and indinavir, which are associated with hyperbilirubinemia and elevations in serum transaminase; ritonavir and nelfinavir, which are not associated with hyperbilirubinemia; and bromfenac, troglitazone, and trovafloxacin, which are associated with severe idiosyncratic hepatotoxicity exhibiting elevations in serum bilirubin and transaminase. Due to limited solubility and poor ionization of bilirubin and its glucuronide, the formation of estradiol 3-glucuronide was used as a surrogate to assess UGT1A1 activity, while the transport of pitavastatin, CDCF, and taurocholate were used as surrogate probe substrates to monitor the function of OATP1B1/OATP1B3, MRP2, and BSEP, respectively., In vitro, faldaprevir inhibited key processes involved in bilirubin clearance: UDP glucuronosyltransferase (UGT) 1A1 (UGT1A1) (IC50 0.45 µM), which conjugates bilirubin, and hepatic uptake and efflux transporters, organic anion-transporting polypeptide (OATP) 1B1 (IC50 0.57 µM), OATP1B3 (IC50 0.18 µM), and multidrug resistance-associated protein (MRP) 2 (IC50 6.2 µM), which transport bilirubin and its conjugates., In vitro OATP1B1 and OATP1B3 inhibition is associated with observations of benign clinical unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia., 3.  The results indicated that in vivo Fi values >0.2 or R-values >1.5 for OATP1B1 or OATP1B3, but not UGT1A1, are associated with previously reported clinical cases of drug-induced unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia., OATP1B1 and OATP1B3-mediated transport of bilirubin was confirmed and inhibition was determined for atazanavir, rifampicin, indinavir, amprenavir, cyclosporine, rifamycin SV and saquinavir.[SEP]Relations: UGT1A1 has relations: disease_protein with bilirubin encephalopathy, disease_protein with bilirubin encephalopathy, bioprocess_protein with bilirubin conjugation, bioprocess_protein with bilirubin conjugation, protein_protein with B3GALT1, protein_protein with B3GALT1, drug_protein with Alvocidib, drug_protein with Alvocidib. SLCO1B1 has relations: molfunc_protein with bile acid transmembrane transporter activity, molfunc_protein with bile acid transmembrane transporter activity. Definitions: MRP3 defined as following: Human ABCC3 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 17q22 and is approximately 57 kb in length. This allele, which encodes canalicular multispecific organic anion transporter 2 protein, plays a role in bile metabolism and transport.. OATP1B1 defined as following: Human SLCO1B1 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 12p12 and is approximately 109 kb in length. This allele, which encodes solute carrier organic anion transporter family member 1B1 protein, plays a role in both endogenous factor uptake in the liver and the removal of drug compounds. Mutations in this gene are associated with hyperbilirubinemia, Rotor type, digenic.. BSEP defined as following: Human ABCB11 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 2q24 and is approximately 108 kb in length. This allele, which encodes bile salt export pump protein, is involved in bile salt transport. Mutation of the gene is associated with hereditary intrahepatic cholestasis.. saquinavir defined as following: An HIV protease inhibitor which acts as an analog of an HIV protease cleavage site. It is a highly specific inhibitor of HIV-1 and HIV-2 proteases, and also inhibits CYTOCHROME P-450 CYP3A.. bilirubin defined as following: A bile pigment that is a degradation product of HEME.. cyclosporine defined as following: A cyclic undecapeptide from an extract of soil fungi. It is a powerful immunosupressant with a specific action on T-lymphocytes. It is used for the prophylaxis of graft rejection in organ and tissue transplantation. (From Martindale, The Extra Pharmacopoeia, 30th ed).. pitavastatin defined as following: A novel statin that induces plaque regression and elevates HDL-cholesterol levels.. rifampicin defined as following: A semisynthetic antibiotic produced from Streptomyces mediterranei. It has a broad antibacterial spectrum, including activity against several forms of Mycobacterium. In susceptible organisms it inhibits DNA-dependent RNA polymerase activity by forming a stable complex with the enzyme. It thus suppresses the initiation of RNA synthesis. Rifampin is bactericidal, and acts on both intracellular and extracellular organisms. (From Gilman et al., Goodman and Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 9th ed, p1160). Abcc3 defined as following: Canalicular multispecific organic anion transporter 2 (1527 aa, ~169 kDa) is encoded by the human ABCC3 gene. This protein is involved in both the transport and metabolism of bile.. OATP1B3 defined as following: Human SLCO1B3 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 12p12 and is approximately 279 kb in length. This allele, which encodes solute carrier organic anion transporter family member 1B3 protein, is involved in both bile acid and bilirubin transport and sodium-independent uptake of endogenous and xenobiotic compounds. Mutations in this gene are associated with hyperbilirubinemia, Rotor type, digenic.. glucuronide defined as following: Glycosides of GLUCURONIC ACID formed by the reaction of URIDINE DIPHOSPHATE GLUCURONIC ACID with certain endogenous and exogenous substances. Their formation is important for the detoxification of drugs, steroid excretion and BILIRUBIN metabolism to a more water-soluble compound that can be eliminated in the URINE and BILE.. drug defined as following: Any natural, endogenously-derived, synthetic or semi-synthetic compound with pharmacologic activity. A pharmacologic substance has one or more specific mechanism of action(s) through which it exerts one or more effect(s) on the human or animal body. They can be used to potentially prevent, diagnose, treat or relieve symptoms of a disease. Formulation specific agents and some combination agents are also classified as pharmacologic substances.. bromfenac defined as following: A nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) with analgesic and anti-inflammatory activities. Upon ophthalmic administration, bromfenac binds to and inhibits the activity of cyclooxygenase II (COX II), an enzyme which converts arachidonic acid to cyclic endoperoxides, precursors of prostaglandins (PG). By inhibiting PG formation, bromfenac is able to inhibit PG-induced inflammation, thereby preventing vasodilation, leukocytosis, disruption of the blood-aqueous humor barrier, an increase in vascular permeability and an increase in intraocular pressure (IOP).. hyperbilirubinemia defined as following: A benign, autosomally recessive inherited hyperbilirubinemia characterized by the presence of a dark pigment in the centrilobular region of the liver cells. There is a functional defect in biliary excretion of bilirubin, cholephilic dyes, and porphyrins. Affected persons may be asymptomatic or have vague constitutional or gastrointestinal symptoms. The liver may be slightly enlarged, and oral and intravenous cholangiography fails to visualize the biliary tract.. probe defined as following: brand name of methazole herbicide. troglitazone defined as following: A chroman and thiazolidinedione derivative that acts as a PEROXISOME PROLIFERATOR-ACTIVATED RECEPTORS (PPAR) agonist. It was formerly used in the treatment of TYPE 2 DIABETES MELLITUS, but has been withdrawn due to hepatotoxicity.. hepatocytes defined as following: The main structural component of the LIVER. They are specialized EPITHELIAL CELLS that are organized into interconnected plates called lobules.. toxicity defined as following: The finding of bodily harm due to the poisonous effects of something.. MRP defined as following: A sequence-related subfamily of ATP-BINDING CASSETTE TRANSPORTERS that actively transport organic substrates. Although considered organic anion transporters, a subset of proteins in this family have also been shown to convey drug resistance to neutral organic drugs. Their cellular function may have clinical significance for CHEMOTHERAPY in that they transport a variety of ANTINEOPLASTIC AGENTS. Overexpression of proteins in this class by NEOPLASMS is considered a possible mechanism in the development of multidrug resistance (DRUG RESISTANCE, MULTIPLE). Although similar in function to P-GLYCOPROTEINS, the proteins in this class share little sequence homology to the ATP BINDING CASSETTE TRANSPORTER, SUBFAMILY B, MEMBER 1 family of proteins.. ritonavir defined as following: An HIV protease inhibitor that works by interfering with the reproductive cycle of HIV. It also inhibits CYTOCHROME P-450 CYP3A.. MRP2 defined as following: Human ABCC2 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 10q24 and is approximately 69 kb in length. This allele, which encodes canalicular multispecific organic anion transporter 1 protein, plays a role in both multidrug resistance and organic anion transport. Mutation of the gene is associated with Dubin-Johnson syndrome.. UDP glucuronosyltransferase defined as following: A family of enzymes accepting a wide range of substrates, including phenols, alcohols, amines, and fatty acids. They function as drug-metabolizing enzymes that catalyze the conjugation of UDPglucuronic acid to a variety of endogenous and exogenous compounds. EC 2.4.1.17.. indinavir defined as following: A potent and specific HIV protease inhibitor that appears to have good oral bioavailability.. amprenavir defined as following: A synthetic derivative of hydroxyethylamine sulfonamide that selectively binds to and inhibits human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) protease.. bilirubin glucuronide defined as following: water soluble conjugated bilirubin.. rifamycin SV defined as following: A natural antibiotic produced by Streptomyces mediterranei, Rifamycin (Ansamycin Family) is a commonly used antimycobacterial drug that inhibits prokaryotic DNA-dependent RNA synthesis and protein synthesis; it blocks RNA-polymerase transcription initiation. Rifamycin has an activity spectrum against Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria, but is mainly used against Mycobacterium sp. (especially M. tuberculosis) in association with other agents to overcome resistance. (NCI04). UGT1A1 defined as following: This gene is involved in controlling serum levels of bilirubin and in glucuronidation.. atazanavir defined as following: An aza-dipeptide analogue with a bis-aryl substituent on the (hydroxethyl)hydrazine moiety with activity against both wild type and mutant forms of HIV protease. Atazanavir does not elevate serum lipids, a common problem with other protease inhibitors.. transaminase defined as following: Enzymes of the transferase class that catalyze the conversion of L-aspartate and 2-ketoglutarate to oxaloacetate and L-glutamate. EC 2.6.1.1.. nelfinavir defined as following: A potent HIV protease inhibitor. It is used in combination with other antiviral drugs in the treatment of HIV in both adults and children.. SLCO1B1 gene defined as following: This gene is involved in sodium-independent uptake of numerous endogenous compounds in the liver.. human defined as following: Members of the species Homo sapiens.. conjugates defined as following: A compound formed by the union of two entities or compounds..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_278", "sentence1": "Is the tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle affected in inflammation?", "sentence2": "In this study, the levels of amino acids and trichloroacetic acid (TCA) cycle-related molecules in the colonic tissues and sera of patients with ulcerative colitis (UC) were profiled by gas chromatography/mass spectrometry (GC/MS), with the aim of evaluating whether the clinical state induced by UC leads to variations in the amino acid profile, Our study raises the possibility that GC/MS-based profiling of amino acids and TCA cycle-related molecules is a useful early diagnostic tool for UC., Succinate is an intermediate of the tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle, and plays a crucial role in adenosine triphosphate (ATP) generation in mitochondria., In plasma, most metabolites in the central metabolic pathway (glycolysis and TCA cycle) were significantly downregulated after zymosan administration, Thus, IL-1beta+TNFalpha treated astrocytes show a marked decrease in glycogen levels, a slight but not significant decrease in lactate release as well as a massive increase in both the pentose phosphate pathway and TCA cycle activities., A total of 77 and 92 metabolites were detected in serum and colon tissue, respectively, and among the metabolites the compositions of TCA cycle intermediates and amino acids changed depending on the degree of colitis, Extension of these findings identified a functional role for stretch-induced inhibition of succinate dehydrogenase (SDH) in mediating normoxic HIF1A stabilization, concomitant increases in glycolytic capacity, and improved tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle function, These studies reveal a surprising role for HIF1A in lung protection during ALI, where normoxic HIF1A stabilization and HIF-dependent control of alveolar-epithelial glucose metabolism function as an endogenous feedback loop to dampen lung inflammation, These results suggest a cataplerosis of the TCA cycle induced by phenobarbital, caused by the massive withdrawal of succinyl-CoA by ALAS induction, such that the TCA cycle is unable to supply the reduced cofactors to the RC, The mitochondrial respiratory chain (RC) and the tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle were explored in the Hmbs(-/-) mouse model. RC and TCA cycle were significantly affected in comparison to controls in mice treated with phenobarbital with decreased activities of RC complexes, Several changes in substrate utilization for energy homeostasis were identified in severe AAH, including increased glucose consumption by the pentose phosphate pathway, altered tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle activity, and enhanced peptide catabolism. , Enhanced mitochondrial glucose oxidation was achieved by increased recruitment of the NOTCH1 intracellular domain (NICD1) to nuclear and mitochondrial genes that encode respiratory chain components and by NOTCH-dependent induction of pyruvate dehydrogenase phosphatase 1 (Pdp1) expression, pyruvate dehydrogenase activity, and glucose flux to the TCA cycle. , Metabolic reprogramming is implicated in macrophage activation,, BHB blocks the NLRP3 inflammasome without undergoing oxidation in the TCA cycle, and independently of uncoupling protein-2 (UCP2), sirtuin-2 (SIRT2), the G protein-coupled receptor GPR109A or hydrocaboxylic acid receptor 2 (HCAR2). , Our findings suggest that the anti-inflammatory effects of caloric restriction or ketogenic diets may be linked to BHB-mediated inhibition of the NLRP3 inflammasome., Succinate: a metabolic signal in inflammation.[SEP]Relations: acute tricyclic antidepressant poisoning has relations: disease_disease with poisoning, disease_disease with poisoning. ulcerative colitis (disease) has relations: contraindication with Trihexyphenidyl, contraindication with Trihexyphenidyl, disease_protein with HNF4A, disease_protein with HNF4A, disease_protein with HERC2, disease_protein with HERC2. Phenobarbital has relations: drug_drug with Tricaine, drug_drug with Tricaine. Definitions: pentose defined as following: Monosaccharide sugar molecules that contain a five carbon backbone.. AAH defined as following: Aspartyl/asparaginyl beta-hydroxylase (758 aa, ~86 kDa) is encoded by the human ASPH gene. This protein is involved in amino acid hydroxylation.. inflammation defined as following: A pathological process characterized by injury or destruction of tissues caused by a variety of cytologic and chemical reactions. It is usually manifested by typical signs of pain, heat, redness, swelling, and loss of function.. mitochondria defined as following: Semiautonomous, self-reproducing organelles that occur in the cytoplasm of all cells of most, but not all, eukaryotes. Each mitochondrion is surrounded by a double limiting membrane. The inner membrane is highly invaginated, and its projections are called cristae. Mitochondria are the sites of the reactions of oxidative phosphorylation, which result in the formation of ATP. They contain distinctive RIBOSOMES, transfer RNAs (RNA, TRANSFER); AMINO ACYL T RNA SYNTHETASES; and elongation and termination factors. Mitochondria depend upon genes within the nucleus of the cells in which they reside for many essential messenger RNAs (RNA, MESSENGER). Mitochondria are believed to have arisen from aerobic bacteria that established a symbiotic relationship with primitive protoeukaryotes. (King & Stansfield, A Dictionary of Genetics, 4th ed). uncoupling protein-2 defined as following: A mitochondrial uncoupling protein that is expressed in many tissues and exhibits the greatest expression in SKELETAL MUSCLE. It regulates mitochondrial ATP production and the generation of REACTIVE OXYGEN SPECIES.. trichloroacetic acid defined as following: A strong acid used as a protein precipitant in clinical chemistry and also as a caustic for removing warts.. Succinate defined as following: Derivatives of SUCCINIC ACID. Included under this heading are a broad variety of acid forms, salts, esters, and amides that contain a 1,4-carboxy terminated aliphatic structure.. SIRT2 defined as following: A sirtuin family member found primarily in the CYTOPLASM. It is a multifunctional enzyme that contains a NAD-dependent deacetylase activity that is specific for HISTONES and a mono-ADP-ribosyltransferase activity.. pyruvate dehydrogenase phosphatase 1 defined as following: (Pyruvate dehydrogenase (lipoamide))-phosphate phosphohydrolase. A mitochondrial enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolytic removal of a phosphate on a specific seryl hydroxyl group of pyruvate dehydrogenase, reactivating the enzyme complex. EC 3.1.3.43.. succinate dehydrogenase defined as following: A flavoprotein containing oxidoreductase that catalyzes the dehydrogenation of SUCCINATE to fumarate. In most eukaryotic organisms this enzyme is a component of mitochondrial electron transport complex II.. UC defined as following: Inflammation of the COLON that is predominantly confined to the MUCOSA. Its major symptoms include DIARRHEA, rectal BLEEDING, the passage of MUCUS, and ABDOMINAL PAIN.. HIF1A defined as following: Hypoxia-inducible factor 1-alpha (826 aa, ~93 kDa) is encoded by the human HIF1A gene. This protein plays a role in transcriptional regulation in response to hypoxia.. adenosine triphosphate defined as following: An adenine nucleotide containing three phosphate groups esterified to the sugar moiety. In addition to its crucial roles in metabolism adenosine triphosphate is a neurotransmitter.. ALAS defined as following: Human ALAS1 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 3p21.1 and is approximately 16 kb in length. This allele, which encodes 5-aminolevulinate synthase, nonspecific, mitochondrial protein, is involved in both heme biosynthesis and lipid metabolism.. cofactors defined as following: Something that must join with another to produce a given result.. tricarboxylic acid defined as following: Organic compounds that are acyclic and contain three acid groups. A member of this class is citric acid which is the first product formed by reaction of pyruvate and oxaloacetate. (From Lehninger, Principles of Biochemistry, 1982, p443). phenobarbital defined as following: A barbituric acid derivative that acts as a nonselective central nervous system depressant. It potentiates GAMMA-AMINOBUTYRIC ACID action on GABA-A RECEPTORS, and modulates chloride currents through receptor channels. It also inhibits glutamate induced depolarizations.. astrocytes defined as following: A class of large neuroglial (macroglial) cells in the central nervous system - the largest and most numerous neuroglial cells in the brain and spinal cord. Astrocytes (from \"star\" cells) are irregularly shaped with many long processes, including those with \"end feet\" which form the glial (limiting) membrane and directly and indirectly contribute to the BLOOD-BRAIN BARRIER. They regulate the extracellular ionic and chemical environment, and \"reactive astrocytes\" (along with MICROGLIA) respond to injury.. mitochondrial defined as following: The distribution of mitochondria, including the mitochondrial genome, into daughter cells after mitosis or meiosis, mediated by interactions between mitochondria and the cytoskeleton. [GOC:mcc, PMID:10873824, PMID:11389764]. colitis defined as following: Inflammation of the COLON section of the large intestine (INTESTINE, LARGE), usually with symptoms such as DIARRHEA (often with blood and mucus), ABDOMINAL PAIN, and FEVER.. metabolites defined as following: Any substance involved in metabolism, either as a product of metabolism or as necessary for metabolism..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_1493", "sentence1": "Was modafinil tested for schizophrenia treatment?", "sentence2": "Modafinil improves antipsychotic-induced parkinsonism but not excessive daytime sleepiness, psychiatric symptoms or cognition in schizophrenia and schizoaffective disorder: a randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled study., CONCLUSION: The data suggest that modafinil was a safe adjunctive treatment which improved parkinsonian symptoms and signs in patients with schizophrenia or schizoaffective disorder. , A review of its effects in schizophrenia suggests that modafinil facilitates cognitive functions, with pro-mnemonic effects and problem solving improvements. Emotional processing also appears to be enhanced by the drug, although to date there are only a limited number of studies., BACKGROUND: Modafinil, a putative cognitive enhancing drug, has previously been shown to improve performance of healthy volunteers as well as patients with attention deficit disorder and schizophrenia, mainly in tests of executive functions. , A review of modafinil and armodafinil as add-on therapy in antipsychotic-treated patients with schizophrenia., It has been suggested that modafinil and its isomer armodafinil as an add-on strategy to antipsychotic treatment in patients with schizophrenia may improve cognitive functioning, attenuate fatigue, inactiveness and other negative functions as well as weight gain., Evidence for the use of modafinil or armodafinil as add-on therapy to antipsychotic drugs to alleviate fatigue, sleepiness and inactivity is inconclusive. One cohort study and one out of two single-dose crossover RCTs in which modafinil addition was studied could demonstrate a positive effect. All five RCTs of modafinil (three RCTs) and armodafinil (two RCTs) addition with a longer study duration could not demonstrate a positive effect. , In RCTs with a treatment duration of 4 weeks or more, however, no positive effect could be demonstrated on cognitive functioning with modafinil and armodafinil addition. Yet, four single-dose crossover RCTs of modafinil addition show significant positive effects on executive functioning, verbal memory span, visual memory, working memory, spatial planning, slowing in latency, impulse control and recognition of faces expressing sadness and sadness misattribution in the context of disgust recognition. The addition of modafinil or armodafinil to an antipsychotic regime, despite theoretical and preclinical considerations, has not been proved to enhance cognitive function, attenuate fatigue, enhance activity, improve negative symptoms and reduce weight in patients with schizophrenia., RATIONAL: In recent years, evidence suggests that modafinil may be useful for certain symptom domains of schizophrenia, especially for the negative and cognitive symptoms. , CONCLUSION: The present study indicates modafinil as a potential adjunctive treatment strategy for treatment of schizophrenia particularly the negative symptoms. , Modafinil is a wake-promoting drug that has been shown to improve attention, memory and executive function in the healthy population and in patients with schizophrenia., CONCLUSIONS: Results of this pilot trial do not support routine use of modafinil to counteract increased weight and metabolic diseases in patients taking clozapine., Modafinil (2-((diphenylmethyl)sulfinyl)acetamide) is described as an atypical stimulant and is a putative cognition enhancer for schizophrenia, but the precise mechanisms of action remain unclear., Modafinil is a wake-promoting drug that has been shown to improve emotion discrimination in healthy individuals and attention and executive function in schizophrenia. , CONCLUSIONS: These data support clinical evidence that modafinil may alleviate cognitive deficits in schizophrenia and also demonstrate the benefit of applying PLSR modeling to characterize functional brain networks in translational models relevant to central nervous system dysfunction., Modafinil improves working memory in healthy subjects and individuals diagnosed with schizophrenia and Attention Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder, though the effects of modafinil have not been evaluated on working memory in methamphetamine-dependent subjects., Modafinil is a psychostimulant approved for treating excessive sleepiness in adults; off-label uses (e.g., treatment of cognitive impairment in schizophrenia, ADHD and age-related dementias) are currently being explored. , CONCLUSIONS: Results of this pilot trial do not support routine use of modafinil to treat negative symptoms, cognitive deficits, or wakefulness/fatigue in patients on clozapine., We have previously shown that the amount of movement exhibited by patients with schizophrenia is positively correlated with the volume of left anterior cingulate cortex and that this quantity of movement can be increased by modafinil. , OBJECTIVE: Given recent reports about the off-label use of modafinil as an adjuvant for the treatment of antipsychotic-associated sedation in schizophrenia patients and the recent interest in its putative cognitive-enhancing effects in this population, we present a systematic review of available data on trials of modafinil as an adjuvant in the treatment of cognitive deficits, negative symptoms, and antipsychotic-induced fatigue, and its tolerability. , RESULTS: One of 4 reviewed studies found a significant effect of modafinil as an alerting agent for antipsychotic-induced fatigue and sedation. Neither of 2 reviewed studies found modafinil to improve negative symptoms of schizophrenia. Three of 6 reviewed studies showed that modafinil may improve short-term memory, attention, and the ability to shift mental sets. , CONCLUSIONS: While the available data suggest that modafinil is generally well tolerated and may have some efficacy in the treatment of antipsychotic-induced sedation and cognitive domains, the small sample sizes, contradictory results, and methodological differences between trials, especially with respect to cognitive testing, make it difficult to draw firm conclusions about the overall effectiveness of modafinil as an adjunct in the treatment of schizophrenia. , Hence, before prescribing modafinil to a schizophrenia patient, the possible risks and benefits of each particular case should be evaluated., Modafinil had a substantial placebo effect on outcomes such as fatigue, excessive sleepiness and depression in patients with traumatic brain injury, major depressive disorder, schizophrenia, post-polio fatigue and multiple sclerosis; however, it did not provide any benefit greater than placebo., RATIONALE: The wake-promoting agent modafinil selectively improves neuropsychological task performance in healthy volunteers, in adults with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and in schizophrenia. , Recently, however, modafinil has been shown to improve attentional set-shifting performance in patients with schizophrenia., In addition, modafinil shows initial promise for a variety of off-label indications in psychiatry, including treatment-resistant depression, attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder, and schizophrenia., There is increasing interest in the use of modafinil to improve cognition in schizophrenia as well as in other disorders such as attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder., Initial findings indicate that modafinil may lead to better executive functioning and attentional performance in patients with schizophrenia. , CONCLUSIONS: Although no effect on negative symptoms was found, adjunctive therapy with modafinil may result in global improvements in patients with schizophrenia who have prominent negative symptoms., CONCLUSIONS: Modafinil did not improve cognitive control in all schizophrenia patients., . These data suggest that modafinil increases quantifiable motor behaviour in schizophrenia and may have an impact on avolition., One patient was on treatment with both modafinil and trazodone and reported no change after tapering each in separate discontinuation trials, while another 3 patients were taking sleeping medications and also noted no change after discontinuation., Neuroprotective agents as add-on therapies (e.g., modafinil, erythropoietin, glycine, D-serine, memantine and celecoxib) are currently being evaluated in schizophrenia and related disorders. , In the modafinil (N = 10) and placebo (N = 10) groups, fatigue improved significantly over time (p < .01), but there were no differences between groups on changes in fatigue, positive and negative symptoms, or cognition. , CONCLUSIONS: Modafinil modulates anterior cingulate cortex function in chronic schizophrenia but its beneficial cognitive effects may be restricted to a subset of patients requiring further characterisation., Modafinil significantly improved overall clinical condition, with 64% and 82% of patients rated as clinically improved at week 4 by a blinded clinician and the investigator respectively., Modafinil significantly improved fatigue (P = 0.025, week 3) and tended to improve cognitive functioning scores. , Although preliminary, these results suggest modafinil may be an effective and well-tolerated adjunct treatment that improves global functioning and clinical condition, and reduces fatigue in patients with schizophrenia or schizoaffective disorder. , Modafinil had some cognitive enhancing properties in schizophrenia similar to those observed in healthy adults and adult patients with ADHD. , Modafinil may have potential as an important therapy for cognitive impairment in patients with schizophrenia, particularly because of its beneficial effects on attentional set shifting., While the available data suggest that modafinil is generally well tolerated and may have some efficacy in the treatment of antipsychotic-induced sedation and cognitive domains, the small sample sizes, contradictory results, and methodological differences between trials, especially with respect to cognitive testing, make it difficult to draw firm conclusions about the overall effectiveness of modafinil as an adjunct in the treatment of schizophrenia., Given recent reports about the off-label use of modafinil as an adjuvant for the treatment of antipsychotic-associated sedation in schizophrenia patients and the recent interest in its putative cognitive-enhancing effects in this population, we present a systematic review of available data on trials of modafinil as an adjuvant in the treatment of cognitive deficits, negative symptoms, and antipsychotic-induced fatigue, and its tolerability., The present study indicates modafinil as a potential adjunctive treatment strategy for treatment of schizophrenia particularly the negative symptoms., It has been suggested that modafinil and its isomer armodafinil as an add-on strategy to antipsychotic treatment in patients with schizophrenia may improve cognitive functioning, attenuate fatigue, inactiveness and other negative functions as well as weight gain., CONCLUSION: The present study indicates modafinil as a potential adjunctive treatment strategy for treatment of schizophrenia particularly the negative symptoms., OBJECTIVE: Given recent reports about the off-label use of modafinil as an adjuvant for the treatment of antipsychotic-associated sedation in schizophrenia patients and the recent interest in its putative cognitive-enhancing effects in this population, we present a systematic review of available data on trials of modafinil as an adjuvant in the treatment of cognitive deficits, negative symptoms, and antipsychotic-induced fatigue, and its tolerability., CONCLUSIONS: While the available data suggest that modafinil is generally well tolerated and may have some efficacy in the treatment of antipsychotic-induced sedation and cognitive domains, the small sample sizes, contradictory results, and methodological differences between trials, especially with respect to cognitive testing, make it difficult to draw firm conclusions about the overall effectiveness of modafinil as an adjunct in the treatment of schizophrenia., The present study indicates modafinil as a potential adjunctive treatment strategy for treatment of schizophrenia particularly the negative symptoms., Although preliminary, these results suggest modafinil may be an effective and well-tolerated adjunct treatment that improves global functioning and clinical condition, and reduces fatigue in patients with schizophrenia or schizoaffective disorder., While the available data suggest that modafinil is generally well tolerated and may have some efficacy in the treatment of antipsychotic-induced sedation and cognitive domains, the small sample sizes, contradictory results, and methodological differences between trials, especially with respect to cognitive testing, make it difficult to draw firm conclusions about the overall effectiveness of modafinil as an adjunct in the treatment of schizophrenia, The present study indicates modafinil as a potential adjunctive treatment strategy for treatment of schizophrenia particularly the negative symptoms, Modafinil, a putative cognitive enhancing drug, has previously been shown to improve performance of healthy volunteers as well as patients with attention deficit disorder and schizophrenia, mainly in tests of executive functions[SEP]Relations: Modafinil has relations: contraindication with psychotic disorder, contraindication with psychotic disorder, contraindication with mental disorder, contraindication with mental disorder, drug_drug with Labetalol, drug_drug with Labetalol, drug_effect with Mania, drug_effect with Mania, drug_drug with Ethanol, drug_drug with Ethanol. Definitions: drug defined as following: Any natural, endogenously-derived, synthetic or semi-synthetic compound with pharmacologic activity. A pharmacologic substance has one or more specific mechanism of action(s) through which it exerts one or more effect(s) on the human or animal body. They can be used to potentially prevent, diagnose, treat or relieve symptoms of a disease. Formulation specific agents and some combination agents are also classified as pharmacologic substances.. sleepiness defined as following: Compelling urge to sleep.. schizoaffective disorder defined as following: A disorder in which the individual suffers from both symptoms that qualify as schizophrenia and symptoms that qualify as a mood disorder (e.g., depression or bipolar disorder) for a substantial portion (but not all) of the active period of the illness; for the remainder of the active period of the illness, the individual suffers from delusions or hallucinations in the absence of prominent mood symptoms.. memantine defined as following: AMANTADINE derivative that has some dopaminergic effects. It has been proposed as an antiparkinson agent.. D-serine defined as following: A non-essential amino acid and dextro isomer of serine with antipsychotic activity. D-serine is a selective full agonist at the glycine site of N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA)-type glutamate receptor. Hypofunction of NMDA type of neurotransmission is believed to play a major role in pathophysiology of schizophrenia, therefore, administration of D-serine and subsequent activation of NMDA receptors may alleviate psychotic tendencies.. clozapine defined as following: A tricylic dibenzodiazepine, classified as an atypical antipsychotic agent. It binds several types of central nervous system receptors, and displays a unique pharmacological profile. Clozapine is a serotonin antagonist, with strong binding to 5-HT 2A/2C receptor subtype. It also displays strong affinity to several dopaminergic receptors, but shows only weak antagonism at the dopamine D2 receptor, a receptor commonly thought to modulate neuroleptic activity. Agranulocytosis is a major adverse effect associated with administration of this agent.. traumatic brain injury defined as following: A form of acquired brain injury which occurs when a sudden trauma causes damage to the brain.. ADHD defined as following: A behavior disorder originating in childhood in which the essential features are signs of developmentally inappropriate inattention, impulsivity, and hyperactivity. Although most individuals have symptoms of both inattention and hyperactivity-impulsivity, one or the other pattern may be predominant. The disorder is more frequent in males than females. Onset is in childhood. Symptoms often attenuate during late adolescence although a minority experience the full complement of symptoms into mid-adulthood. (From DSM-V). multiple sclerosis defined as following: An autoimmune disorder mainly affecting young adults and characterized by destruction of myelin in the central nervous system. Pathologic findings include multiple sharply demarcated areas of demyelination throughout the white matter of the central nervous system. Clinical manifestations include visual loss, extra-ocular movement disorders, paresthesias, loss of sensation, weakness, dysarthria, spasticity, ataxia, and bladder dysfunction. The usual pattern is one of recurrent attacks followed by partial recovery (see MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS, RELAPSING-REMITTING), but acute fulminating and chronic progressive forms (see MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS, CHRONIC PROGRESSIVE) also occur. (Adams et al., Principles of Neurology, 6th ed, p903). erythropoietin defined as following: A recombinant therapeutic agent which is chemically identical to or similar to the endogenous glycoprotein erythropoietin (Epo). Epo promotes the differentiation and maturation of hematopoietic progenitors into erythrocytes; is a mitogen and a chemoattractant for endothelial cells; stimulates activated and differentiated B-cells and enhances B-cell immunoglobulin production and proliferation; and is hypoxia-inducible. (NCI04). modafinil defined as following: A benzhydryl acetamide compound, central nervous system stimulant, and CYP3A4 inducing agent that is used in the treatment of NARCOLEPSY and SLEEP WAKE DISORDERS.. celecoxib defined as following: A pyrazole derivative and selective CYCLOOXYGENASE 2 INHIBITOR that is used to treat symptoms associated with RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS; OSTEOARTHRITIS and JUVENILE ARTHRITIS, as well as the management of ACUTE PAIN.. fatigue defined as following: The state of weariness following a period of exertion, mental or physical, characterized by a decreased capacity for work and reduced efficiency to respond to stimuli.. armodafinil defined as following: The R-enantiomer of the racemic synthetic agent modafinil with central nervous system (CNS) stimulant and wakefulness-promoting activities. Although the exact mechanism of action has yet to be fully elucidated, armodafinil appears to inhibit the reuptake of dopamine by binding to the dopamine-reuptake pump, which leads to an increase in extracellular dopamine levels in some brain regions. This agent does not bind to or inhibit several receptors and enzymes that may be involved in sleep/wake regulation and is not a direct- or indirect-acting dopamine receptor agonist. Armodafinil has a longer half-life than modafinil.. cognitive deficits defined as following: Disorders characterized by disturbances in mental processes related to learning, thinking, reasoning, and judgment.. trazodone defined as following: A serotonin uptake inhibitor that is used as an antidepressive agent. It has been shown to be effective in patients with major depressive disorders and other subsets of depressive disorders. It is generally more useful in depressive disorders associated with insomnia and anxiety. This drug does not aggravate psychotic symptoms in patients with schizophrenia or schizoaffective disorders. (From AMA Drug Evaluations Annual, 1994, p309). attention deficit disorder defined as following: A mental disorder characterized by inattention, easy distraction, careless mistakes and avoidance of tasks that require sustained mental focus. These behaviors can lead to maladaptive consequences in the affected individual's life.. weight gain defined as following: A question about whether an individual is gaining or has gained weight..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_1103", "sentence1": "Is miR-21 related to carcinogenesis?", "sentence2": "miR-21* and miR-203 were significantly dysregulated (P < 0.05) in PTC tissues with BRAFV600E., Expressions of miRNAs in papillary thyroid carcinoma and their associations with the BRAFV600E mutation., Levels of miRNA-21 (miR-21) and miR-106a in gastric cancer tissues were significantly higher compared with the levels in adjacent tissues (P = .006 and P = .001, respectively). Patients who had gastric cancer had significantly different levels of gastric juice miR-21 and miR-106a compared with patients who had benign gastric diseases (both P < .001)., miR-21 levels in intestinal type gastric cancer specimens were higher than that in diffuse (P = .003) or mixed (P < .001) gastric cancer types., MiR-155 and miR-21 appeared significantly over-expressed in the colonic mucosa of IBD subjects without CRC, but also in neoplastic tissues of IBD patients compared to non-IBD controls (p<0.001). Importantly, in patients with IBD-CRCs, miR-155 and miR-21 over-expression extended to the distant non-neoplastic mucosa (p<0.001)., Here we hypothesize that over-expression of miR-155 and miR-21, two inflammation-related miRNAs that target core MMR proteins, may constitute a pre-neoplastic event for the development of MSI IBD-CRCs., After administration, we determined the expressions of miR-21, miR-27a, miR-34a, miR-93, miR-143, miR-146a, miR-148a, miR-155, miR-196a, miR-203, miR-205, miR-221 and nuclear factor kappa-light-chain enhancer of activated B-cells-1 (Nfκb1), mitogen-activated protein kinase-8 (Mapk8) and v-Ki-ras2 Kirsten rat sarcoma viral oncogene homolog (K-ras) genes in the liver of mice., Programmed cell death 4 (PDCD4) is a tumor suppressor gene whose expression is controlled by miR-21., Consistently with PDCD4 downregulation, miR-21 was upregulated in neoplastic by comparison with nonneoplastic tissue samples., Expression of miR-21 (p=0.027), miR-181b (p=0.002), and miR-146b (p=0.021) in tumor tissue and miR-21 (p=0.003) in noncancerous tissue were associated with patients' overall survival., We analyzed the expression of nine miRNAs (miR-21, miR-127, miR-154, miR-224, miR-323, miR-370, miR-9*, miR-183, and miR-375) by quantitative real-time-polymerase chain reaction in 34 cases of sMTC, 6 cases of hMTC, and 2 cases of C-cell hyperplasia (CCH)., MTC and CCH were both characterized by a significant overexpression of the whole set of miRNAs (the increase being 4.2-fold for miR-21, 6.7-fold for miR-127, 8.8-fold for miR-154, 6.6-fold for miR-224, 5.8-fold for miR-323, 6.1-fold for miR-370, 13-fold for miR-9*, 6.7-fold for miR-183, and 10.1 for miR-375, p<0.0001)., The most frequent changes in miRNAs in CLL cells included downregulation of miR-126, miR-572, miR-494, miR-923, miR-638, miR-130a, miR-181a and miR-181b and up-regulation of miR-29a, miR-660, miR-20a, miR-106b, miR-142-5p, miR-101, miR-30b, miR-34a, miR-let-7f, miR-21 and miR-155., Results: MTC and CCH were both characterized by a significant overexpression of the whole set of miRNAs (the increase being 4.2-fold for miR-21, 6.7-fold for miR-127, 8.8-fold for miR-154, 6.6-fold for miR-224, 5.8-fold for miR-323 and 6.1-fold for miR-370, 13-fold for miR-9*, 6.7-fold for miR-183 and 10.1 for miR-375, p<0.0001)., We found that the onco-miRNAs miR-21 and miR-221 displayed upregulated expression while the liver-specific miR-122 was downregulated., The aim of the present review was to describe the mechanisms of several known miR, summarize recent studies on oncogenic miR (e.g. miR-21, miR-106a and miR-17), tumor suppressor miR (e.g. miR-101, miR-181, miR-449, miR-486, let-7a) and controversial roles of miR (e.g. miR-107, miR-126) for gastric cancer., MiR-15b and miR-21 were differentially expressed in CSF samples from patients with gliomas, compared to control subjects with various neurologic disorders, including patients with primary CNS lymphoma and carcinomatous brain metastases., Moreover, inclusion of miR-15b and miR-21 in combined expression analyses resulted in an increased diagnostic accuracy with 90% sensitivity and 100% specificity to distinguish patients with glioma from control subjects and patients with primary CNS lymphoma., Many aberrantly expressed miRNAs were related to various cancers (e.g., miR-125b, hepatocellular carcinoma; miR-21, leukemia; miR-16, chronic lymphocytic leukemia; miR-192, pituitary adenomas; miR-199a-3p, ovarian cancer; miR-34a, pancreatic cancer). Several miRNAs (e.g., miR-34a, miR-21) and proteins (e.g., TGM2, NDRG2) that play crucial roles in liver tumorigenesis were first found to be affected by MC-LR in mouse liver., Except for miR-21 and miR-206, the expression levels of all miRNAs significantly changed during the progression of CaP., In addition, diet and carcinogen exposure modulated a number of microRNAs (miR-16, miR-19b, miR-21, miR26b, miR27b, miR-93, and miR-203) linked to canonical oncogenic signaling pathways., RESULTS: Elevated miR-21 (HR 2.06, 1.13-3.75), miR-17 (HR 2.00, 1.10-3.61), and miR-155 (HR 2.37, 1.27-4.42) was associated with worse cancer-specific mortality in the Maryland cohort., NF-κB targets miR-16 and miR-21 in gastric cancer: involvement of prostaglandin E receptors., Expression of miR-21, miR-29b, miR-34a/b/c, miR-155, and let-7a was determined by quantitative real-time PCR in formalin-fixed paraffin-embedded tumor specimens from 639 IALT patients., hese two miRNAs have previously been identified as being overexpressed in MCF-7 breast cancer cells, with miR-21 specifically implicated in down-regulating the tumor suppressor gene, tropomyosin-1., MicroRNA-21 is involved in ionizing radiation-promoted liver carcinogenesis., We showed here that among several hundred miRNAs, miR-21 was the only one that increased 6 folds in high-LET IR-promoted mouse liver tumors when compared with that in the non-irradiated liver tissues. We also showed that miR-21 was up-regulated in human or mouse hepatocytes after exposure to IR, as well as in liver tissues derived from whole body irradiated mice., After the non-irradiated, low-LET or high-LET irradiated human hepatocytes were over-expressed with miR-21, these cells became tumorigenesis in nude mice., METHODS: We used this combined ISH/IHC assay to study a subset of cancer-associated miRNAs, including miRNAs frequently detected at low (miR-34a and miR-126) and high (miR-21 and miR-155) levels, in a panel of breast, colorectal, lung, pancreas, and prostate carcinomas., The miR-15a, miR-16, miR-143, miR-155, and miR-21 were upregulated in M059K, and the modulation of these miRNAs fluctuated in M059J cells in a time-dependent manner., Aberrantly increased expression of miR-21 plays a significant role in lung carcinogenesis and is a potential therapeutic target in both epidermal growth factor receptor-mutant and wild-type cases., Additionally, high miR-21 expression was associated with significantly decreased 5 year survival in patients (hazard ratio, 1.68; 95% CI: 1.04-2.77) in a model controlled for patient age, gender and tumor stage., ESULTS: In adenocarcinoma patients, miR-21, miR-223, miR-192, and miR-194 expression was elevated, whereas miR-203 expression was reduced in cancerous compared with noncancerous tissue., Significantly, elevated miR-21 expression in noncancerous tissue of SCC patients and reduced levels of miR-375 in cancerous tissue of adenocarcinoma patients with Barrett's were strongly associated with worse prognosis., miR-21, mir-31, miR-130a, miR-146b and miR-377 were consistently upregulated, whereas miR-1 and miR-143 were downregulated in lung tumors relative to normal lungs. In mice treated with VC and given I3C in the diet, levels of miR-21, mir-31, miR-130a, miR-146b and miR-377 were reduced relative to the level in mice treated with the carcinogen only., Further studies with miR-21 indicated that phosphatase and tensin homolog, programmed cell death 4 and rich protein with Kazal motifs are potential targets for the oncogenic effect of miR-21 and the chemopreventive activity of I3C., This study examines the potential clinical utility of an inflammatory gene expression signature as a prognostic biomarker for colon cancer in addition to previously examined miR-21 expression., CONCLUSIONS: IRS and miR-21 expression are independent predictors of colon cancer prognosis and may provide a clinically useful tool to identify high-risk patients., The most highly expressed miRNAs in gastric cancer tissues were miR-20b, miR-20a, miR-17, miR-106a, miR-18a, miR-21, miR-106b, miR-18b, miR-421, miR-340*, miR-19a and miR-658., Recent findings report their involvement in hair follicle morphogenesis (ablation of miRNAs from keratinocytes causes several defects, such as evagination instead of invagination), in psoriasis (skin-specific expression of miR-203 and psoriasisspecific expression of miR-146a, miR-21 and miR-125b in the skin), in autoimmune diseases affecting the skin, such as SLE and ITP, in wound healing (changes in the expression of specific miRNA at specific phases of the regeneration process), and in skin carcinogenesis (a novel miRNA signature that includes induction of miR-21, a candidate oncogenic miRNA)., RESULTS: Several microRNAs were differentially expressed in serous ovarian carcinoma compared with normal ovarian tissues, including miR-21, miR-125a, miR-125b, miR-100, miR-145, miR-16, and miR-99a, which were each differentially expressed in >16 patients., Selected for validation were miR-20a, miR-21, miR-106a, miR-181b, and miR-203, and all 5 were enriched in tumors from the validation cohort (P < .001). Higher miR-21 expression was present in adenomas (P = .006) and in tumors with more advanced TNM staging (P < .001). In situ hybridization demonstrated miR-21 to be expressed at high levels in colonic carcinoma cells., To test this hypothesis, we studied the pharmacologic roles of three microRNAs previously implicated in cancer biology (let-7i, mir-16, and mir-21) and also used in silico methods to test pharmacologic microRNA effects more broadly., Changing the cellular levels of let-7i, mir-16, and mir-21 affected the potencies of a number of the anticancer agents by up to 4-fold. The effect was most prominent with mir-21, with 10 of 28 cell-compound pairs showing significant shifts in growth-inhibitory activity. Varying mir-21 levels changed potencies in opposite directions depending on compound class; indicating that different mechanisms determine toxic and protective effects. In silico comparison of drug potencies with microRNA expression profiles across the entire NCI-60 panel revealed that approximately 30 microRNAs, including mir-21, show highly significant correlations with numerous anticancer agents., Conversely, expression of other miRNAs was detected at varying levels predominantly within luminal epithelial cells in normal tissue; expression of miR-21 was frequently increased, whereas that of let-7a was decreased in malignant cells., We describe a novel EMT-specific microRNA signature that includes induction of miR-21, a candidate oncogenic microRNA associated with carcinogenesis., Notable was the high expression of miR-21 and miR-205., Recently, microRNAs (miRNAs) have emerged as key actors in carcinogenesis and we demonstrated that microRNA-21 (miR-21), oncomiR is expressed early during PDA., These results indicated that miR-21 plays a role in the carcinogenesis and metastasis of O. viverrini-associated CCA by suppressing the function of PDCD4., Importantly, in patients with IBD CRCs, miR-155 and miR-21 overexpression extended to the distant non-neoplastic mucosa (P < 0.001)., Ectopic overexpression of miR-21 promoted Akt activation and phosphorylation of EZH2, whereas inhibiting miR-21 by transfecting the cells with anti-miR-21 inhibited Akt activation and EZH2 phosphorylation., PDCD4 nuclear down-regulation (which parallels miR-21 up-regulation) is involved in the molecular pathway of IBD-associated carcinogenesis., The expression levels of miR-21 (p = 0.027), miR-181b (p = 0.002) and miR-146b (p = 0.021) in tumor tissue and miR-21 (p = 0.003) in noncancerous tissue were associated with overall survival of patients., OBJECTIVE: As an important oncogenic miRNA, miR-21 has been reported to play crucial roles in glioblastoma (GBM) carcinogenesis., We further analyzed the expression of microRNA-21 (miR-21), an oncogenic noncoding RNA involved in oncogenic Ras signaling, by quantitative reverse-transcription polymerase chain reaction and in situ hybridization., MicroRNA-21 (miR-21) plays crucial roles in carcinogenesis and is considered as one of the most studied oncomiRNAs., Although microRNA-21 (miR-21) has been implicated in various aspects of carcinogenesis, its functions and molecular mechanisms in carcinogen-induced tumorigenesis are unclear., Substantial evidence indicates that microRNA-21 (miR-21) is a key oncomiR in carcinogenesis and is significantly elevated in multiple myeloma (MM)., MicroRNA 21 (miR-21) has been implicated in various aspects of carcinogenesis., Conversely, pAkt and miR-21 expression was significantly up-regulated in the whole spectrum of preneoplastic/neoplastic lesions considered., Several miRNAs (e.g., miR-34a, miR-21) and proteins (e.g., TGM2, NDRG2) that play crucial roles in liver tumorigenesis were first found to be affected by MC-LR in mouse liver., RESULTS: Except for miR-21 and miR-206, the expression levels of all miRNAs significantly changed during the progression of CaP., MicroRNA 21 (miR-21) is overexpressed in virtually all types of carcinomas and various types of hematological malignancies., As expected, miR-21 expression was significantly upregulated in preneoplastic/neoplastic samples, consistent with PDCD4 downregulation., Furthermore, miR-21 levels in the primary tumours correlated with disease stage (P < 0.0001)., We found that miR-16 and miR-21 were upregulated upon nicotine stimulation, transfection with anti-miR-16 or anti-miR-21 significantly abrogated cell proliferation., MicroRNA-21 (miR-21) is a unique miRNA in that it is overexpressed in most tumour types analysed so far., Although altered expressions of miR-21 and miR-34a were manifested within cancer cells, those of miR-126 and miR-155 were predominantly confined to endothelial cells and immune cells, respectively., However, the function of miR-21 in osteosarcoma is still unclear., In SCC patients, we found elevated miR-21 and reduced miR-375 expression levels in cancerous compared with noncancerous tissue., miR-21, mir-31, miR-130a, miR-146b and miR-377 were consistently upregulated, whereas miR-1 and miR-143 were downregulated in lung tumors relative to normal lungs., Precancerous adenomas also frequently showed miR-21 up-regulation., Higher miR-21 expression was present in adenomas (P = .006), Importantly, the inflammatory ZD esophagus had a distinct microRNA signature resembling human ESCC or tongue SCC miRNAomes with miR-31 and miR-21 as the top-up-regulated species., Several miRNAs have been recently reported to be involved in modulation of glioma development, especially some upregulated miRNAs, such as microRNA-21 (miR-21), which has been found to function as an oncogene in cultured glioblastoma multiforme cells., OBJECTIVE: MicroRNA-21 (miR-21) is one of the miRNAs that are frequently and highly overexpressed in tumor tissue of colorectal cancer (CRC) patients; however, only a little is known about its functional role in CRC., Inhibition of microRNA-21 (mir‑21) induced upregulation of Spry2 and PTEN which underscores the importance of mir-21 in Spry2-associated tumorigenesis of the colon., The microRNA miR-21, a known oncogenic miRNA, was found to be upregulated in papillary and clear cell carcinomas., Since microRNA-21 (miR-21) may contribute to tumorigenesis and chemoresistance in many cancer types, we aimed to investigate its efficacy in TCCs., Several miRNAs have been recently reported to be involved in modulation of glioma development, especially some up-regulated miRNAs, such as microRNA-21 (miR-21), which has been found to function as an oncogene in cultured glioblastoma multiforme cells., In this study, by using high-throughput microRNA profiling, we identified that two miRNAs (miR-21 and miR-148a) overexpressed in CD4+ T cells from both patients with lupus and lupus-prone MRL/lpr mice, which promote cell hypomethylation by repressing DNA methyltransferase 1 (DNMT1) expression., The microRNA-21 (miR-21) has been identified as the only miRNA overexpressed in a variety of cancers, including leukemia., OBJECTIVE: The contribution of overexpressed microRNA-21 and -221 (miR-21 and miR-221) to the malignant phenotype was determined by inhibiting these miRNAs using antisense oligonucleotides., The microRNA-21(miR-21) has been identified as the only miRNA over-expressed in a wide variety of cancers, including cervical cancer., To determine the functions of these microRNAs in lymphomagenesis, we examined the effects of antisense oligonucleotides (ASOs) targeting miR-21 (ASO-21) and/or miR-155 (ASO-155) in NK-cell lymphoma lines overexpressing one or both of these miRNAs., In this study, microRNA (miRNA) expression profiling of 28 cases of never-smoker lung cancer identified aberrantly expressed miRNAs, which were much fewer than in lung cancers of smokers and included miRNAs previously identified (e.g., up-regulated miR-21) and unidentified (e.g., down-regulated miR-138) in those smoker cases., The oncogenic miRNA, microRNA-21 (miR-21), was found to be upregulated in laryngeal carcinoma tissues., OBJECTIVE: To better understand microRNA miR-21 function in carcinogenesis, we analyzed miR-21 expression patterns in different stages of colorectal cancer development using in situ hybridization (ISH)., Of these miRNAs, miR-21 appears to be important in tumorigenesis given its up-regulation in almost all types of human cancer examined., The microRNA-21 gene (mir-21) has been identified as the only miRNA commonly overexpressed in solid tumors of the lung, breast, stomach, prostate, colon, brain, head and neck, esophagus and pancreas., RESULTS: Our data showed that a common pattern of microRNA expression distinguishes any tumor type from normal pancreas, suggesting that this set of microRNAs might be involved in pancreatic tumorigenesis; the expression of miR-103 and miR-107, associated with lack of expression of miR-155, discriminates tumors from normal; a set of 10 microRNAs distinguishes endocrine from acinar tumors and is possibly associated with either normal endocrine differentiation or endocrine tumorigenesis; miR-204 is primarily expressed in insulinomas and correlates with immunohistochemical expression of insulin; and the overexpression of miR-21 is strongly associated with both a high Ki67 proliferation index and presence of liver metastasis., To search for tumor-associated mutations that could affect processing and expression of mature miRNAs, a panel of 91 cancer-derived cell lines was analyzed for sequence variations in 15 miRNAs implicated in tumorigenesis by virtue of their known target transcripts (let-7 family targeting oncogenic Ras) or their localization to sites of frequent chromosomal instability (miR-143, miR-145, miR-26a-1, and miR-21).[SEP]Relations: MIR122 has relations: disease_protein with hepatocellular carcinoma, disease_protein with hepatocellular carcinoma, disease_protein with pediatric hepatocellular carcinoma, disease_protein with pediatric hepatocellular carcinoma, disease_protein with drug-induced liver injury, disease_protein with drug-induced liver injury. lung has relations: anatomy_protein_present with MIR23B, anatomy_protein_present with MIR23B, anatomy_protein_present with MIR25, anatomy_protein_present with MIR25. Definitions: EZH2 defined as following: Histone-lysine N-methyltransferase EZH2 (746 aa, ~85 kDa) is encoded by the human EZH2 gene. This protein is involved in the regulation of chromatin modification.. miR-21 defined as following: This gene is involved in the regulation of gene expression and plays an oncogenic role in hepatocellular, breast, esophageal, gastric, pancreatic, prostatic and squamous cell carcinomas, glioblastoma and glioma.. miR-221 defined as following: Human MIR221 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of Xp11.3 and is 109 bases in length. This allele, which encodes the MIR221 pre-miRNA, plays a role in the regulation of gene expression. Alteration in the expression of this gene is associated with the development of cancers of the liver, ovary, breast, lung, thyroid and prostate, as well as melanoma and glioblastoma multiforme.. leukemia defined as following: A progressive, malignant disease of the blood-forming organs, characterized by distorted proliferation and development of leukocytes and their precursors in the blood and bone marrow. Leukemias were originally termed acute or chronic based on life expectancy but now are classified according to cellular maturity. Acute leukemias consist of predominately immature cells; chronic leukemias are composed of more mature cells. (From The Merck Manual, 2006). gliomas defined as following: Benign and malignant central nervous system neoplasms derived from glial cells (i.e., astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, and ependymocytes). Astrocytes may give rise to astrocytomas (ASTROCYTOMA) or glioblastoma multiforme (see GLIOBLASTOMA). Oligodendrocytes give rise to oligodendrogliomas (OLIGODENDROGLIOMA) and ependymocytes may undergo transformation to become EPENDYMOMA; CHOROID PLEXUS NEOPLASMS; or colloid cysts of the third ventricle. (From Escourolle et al., Manual of Basic Neuropathology, 2nd ed, p21). PTEN defined as following: Phosphatidylinositol 3,4,5-trisphosphate 3-phosphatase and dual-specificity protein phosphatase PTEN (403 aa, ~47 kDa) is encoded by the human PTEN gene. This protein plays a role in signaling and as both a dual-specificity phosphoprotein phosphatase and a lipid phosphatase.. oncogene defined as following: Genes whose gain-of-function alterations lead to NEOPLASTIC CELL TRANSFORMATION. They include, for example, genes for activators or stimulators of CELL PROLIFERATION such as growth factors, growth factor receptors, protein kinases, signal transducers, nuclear phosphoproteins, and transcription factors. A prefix of \"v-\" before oncogene symbols indicates oncogenes captured and transmitted by RETROVIRUSES; the prefix \"c-\" before the gene symbol of an oncogene indicates it is the cellular homolog (PROTO-ONCOGENES) of a v-oncogene.. DNMT1 defined as following: Human DNMT1 wt allele is located in the vicinity of 19p13.2 and is approximately 62 kb in length. This allele, which encodes DNA (Cytosine-5)-Methyltransferase 1, is involved in epigenetic modification of chromatin DNA and control of gene expression.. Mapk8 defined as following: Mitogen-activated protein kinase 8 (427 aa, ~48 kDa) is encoded by the human MAPK8 gene. This protein plays a role in serine/threonine phosphorylation, apoptosis and toll-like receptor signaling.. gastric cancer defined as following: A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the stomach.. miR-31 defined as following: Human MIR31 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 9p21.3 and is approximately 0.1 kb in length. This allele, which encodes MIR31 pre-miRNA, may be involved in both tumor suppression and the modulation of transcription.. Akt defined as following: Expressed in diverse tissues, Protein Kinase B (AKT/RAC Family) is a group (Alpha, Beta and Gamma) of cytoplasmic serine/threonine enzymes that covalently transfer the terminal, gamma phosphate group from ATP to a variety of substrate proteins and regulate cell signaling responses to insulin, PDGF, and IGF1 (through PI3K) involved in cell survival, cell proliferation, differentiation, apoptosis, glycogen synthesis, and glucose uptake.. clear cell carcinomas defined as following: An adenocarcinoma characterized by the presence of varying combinations of clear and hobnail-shaped tumor cells. There are three predominant patterns described as tubulocystic, solid, and papillary. These tumors, usually located in the female reproductive organs, have been seen more frequently in young women since 1970 as a result of the association with intrauterine exposure to diethylstilbestrol. (From Holland et al., Cancer Medicine, 3d ed). multiple myeloma defined as following: A malignancy of mature PLASMA CELLS engaging in monoclonal immunoglobulin production. It is characterized by hyperglobulinemia, excess Bence-Jones proteins (free monoclonal IMMUNOGLOBULIN LIGHT CHAINS) in the urine, skeletal destruction, bone pain, and fractures. Other features include ANEMIA; HYPERCALCEMIA; and RENAL INSUFFICIENCY.. miR-181 defined as following: A microRNA that has six isoforms that may play a role in the activity of phosphatidylinositol-4,5-bisphosphate 3-kinase and natural killer cells. The MIR181 isoforms have been implicated in a variety of cancers, including chronic lymphocytic leukemia, glioblastoma, multiple myeloma and hepatocellular carcinoma.. miR-145 defined as following: This gene is involved in the regulation of gene expression and plays a role in the development of colorectal and prostate carcinomas as well as chronic lymphocytic leukemia, Burkitt lymphoma and diffuse large B-cell lymphoma.. tropomyosin-1 defined as following: Tropomyosin alpha-1 chain (284 aa, ~33 kDa) is encoded by the human TPM1 gene. This protein plays a role in muscle contraction.. insulin defined as following: A synthetic or animal-derived form of insulin used in the treatment of diabetes mellitus. Therapeutic insulin is formulated to be short-, intermediate- and long-acting in order to individualize an insulin regimen according to individual differences in glucose and insulin metabolism. Therapeutic insulin may be derived from porcine, bovine or recombinant sources. Endogenous human insulin, a pancreatic hormone composed of two polypeptide chains, is important for the normal metabolism of carbohydrates, proteins and fats and has anabolic effects on many types of tissues.. microRNAs defined as following: Small double-stranded, non-protein coding RNAs, 21-25 nucleotides in length generated from single-stranded microRNA gene transcripts by the same RIBONUCLEASE III, Dicer, that produces small interfering RNAs (RNA, SMALL INTERFERING). They become part of the RNA-INDUCED SILENCING COMPLEX and repress the translation (TRANSLATION, GENETIC) of target RNA by binding to homologous 3'UTR region as an imperfect match. The small temporal RNAs (stRNAs), let-7 and lin-4, from C. elegans, are the first 2 miRNAs discovered, and are from a class of miRNAs involved in developmental timing.. Spry2 defined as following: Protein sprouty homolog 2 (315 aa, ~35 kDa) is encoded by the human SPRY2 gene. This protein is involved in antagonism of growth factor signaling pathways.. serous ovarian carcinoma defined as following: An adenocarcinoma that arises from the ovary and is characterized by the presence of malignant epithelial cells that, in well differentiated tumors, resemble the epithelium of the fallopian tube or, in poorly differentiated tumors, show anaplastic features and marked nuclear atypia.. pancreatic cancer defined as following: A primary or metastatic malignant tumor involving the pancreas. Representative examples include carcinoma and lymphoma.. MMR defined as following: A DNA repair pathway involved in correction of errors introduced during DNA replication when an incorrect base, which cannot form hydrogen bonds with the corresponding base in the parent strand, is incorporated into the daughter strand. Excinucleases recognize the BASE PAIR MISMATCH and cause a segment of polynucleotide chain to be excised from the daughter strand, thereby removing the mismatched base. (from Oxford Dictionary of Biochemistry and Molecular Biology, 2001). lung tumors defined as following: Tumors or cancer of the LUNG.. liver tumors defined as following: Tumors or cancer of the LIVER.. tumors defined as following: New abnormal growth of tissue. Malignant neoplasms show a greater degree of anaplasia and have the properties of invasion and metastasis, compared to benign neoplasms.. Kazal motifs defined as following: Highly conserved protein domains characteristic of SERINE PROTEASE INHIBITORS, KAZAL TYPE. They generally occur as tandem repeats, with each domain consisting of approximately 60 amino acids that form a large extended amino acid chain, two short ALPHA-HELICES, and a three-stranded anti-parallel BETA-SHEET. Kazal-like domains also occur in the extracellular portions of AGRIN.. DNA methyltransferase 1 defined as following: Enzymes that are part of the restriction-modification systems. They are responsible for producing a species-characteristic methylation pattern, on either adenine or cytosine residues, in a specific short base sequence in the host cell's own DNA. This methylated sequence will occur many times in the host-cell DNA and remain intact for the lifetime of the cell. Any DNA from another species which gains entry into a living cell and lacks the characteristic methylation pattern will be recognized by the restriction endonucleases of similar specificity and destroyed by cleavage. Most have been studied in bacterial systems, but a few have been found in eukaryotic organisms.. psoriasis defined as following: A common genetically determined, chronic, inflammatory skin disease characterized by rounded erythematous, dry, scaling patches. The lesions have a predilection for nails, scalp, genitalia, extensor surfaces, and the lumbosacral region. Accelerated epidermopoiesis is considered to be the fundamental pathologic feature in psoriasis.. PDCD4 defined as following: Programmed cell death protein 4 (469 aa, ~52 kDa) is encoded by the human PDCD4 gene. This protein may be involved in the regulation of both apoptosis and translation.. human defined as following: Members of the species Homo sapiens.. hematological malignancies defined as following: Neoplasms located in the blood and blood-forming tissue (the bone marrow and lymphatic tissue). The commonest forms are the various types of LEUKEMIA, of LYMPHOMA, and of the progressive, life-threatening forms of the MYELODYSPLASTIC SYNDROMES.. insulinomas defined as following: A benign tumor of the PANCREATIC BETA CELLS. Insulinoma secretes excess INSULIN resulting in HYPOGLYCEMIA.. ITP defined as following: Thrombocytopenia occurring in the absence of toxic exposure or a disease associated with decreased platelets. It is mediated by immune mechanisms, in most cases IMMUNOGLOBULIN G autoantibodies which attach to platelets and subsequently undergo destruction by macrophages. The disease is seen in acute (affecting children) and chronic (adult) forms.. miR-223 defined as following: The human MIR223 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of Xq12 and is 109 bases in length. This allele, which encodes MIR223 RNA, plays a role in development of cancers of the liver and ovary, acute promyelocytic leukemia and chronic myeloid leukemia.. colonic carcinoma defined as following: A malignant epithelial neoplasm that arises from the colon and invades through the muscularis mucosa into the submucosa. The vast majority are adenocarcinomas.. lungs defined as following: Either of the pair of organs occupying the cavity of the thorax that effect the aeration of the blood.. endothelial cells defined as following: Highly specialized EPITHELIAL CELLS that line the HEART; BLOOD VESSELS; and lymph vessels, forming the ENDOTHELIUM. They are polygonal in shape and joined together by TIGHT JUNCTIONS. The tight junctions allow for variable permeability to specific macromolecules that are transported across the endothelial layer.. CNS lymphoma defined as following: A non-Hodgkin or Hodgkin lymphoma that arises in the brain or spinal cord as a primary lesion. There is no evidence of lymphoma outside the central nervous system at the time of diagnosis.. tumor tissue defined as following: A tumor sample, or entire tumor that is removed for microscopic examination.. keratinocytes defined as following: Epidermal cells which synthesize keratin and undergo characteristic changes as they move upward from the basal layers of the epidermis to the cornified (horny) layer of the skin. Successive stages of differentiation of the keratinocytes forming the epidermal layers are basal cell, spinous or prickle cell, and the granular cell.. cervical cancer defined as following: A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the cervix.. colon cancer defined as following: A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm that affects the colon. Representative examples include carcinoma, lymphoma, and sarcoma.. gastric juice defined as following: The liquid secretion of the stomach mucosa consisting of hydrochloric acid (GASTRIC ACID); PEPSINOGENS; INTRINSIC FACTOR; GASTRIN; MUCUS; and the bicarbonate ion (BICARBONATES). (From Best & Taylor's Physiological Basis of Medical Practice, 12th ed, p651). HR defined as following: The rapid, localized death of plant cells in response to invasion by a pathogen. [ISBN:0582227089]. NDRG2 defined as following: This gene is involved in the regulation of cellular differentiation.. proteins defined as following: Linear POLYPEPTIDES that are synthesized on RIBOSOMES and may be further modified, crosslinked, cleaved, or assembled into complex proteins with several subunits. The specific sequence of AMINO ACIDS determines the shape the polypeptide will take, during PROTEIN FOLDING, and the function of the protein.. cancer cells defined as following: Cells of, or derived from, a malignant tumor.. miR-181b defined as following: A 23 ribonucleotide sequence that is a final product of the processing of either MIR181B1 pre-miRNA or MIR181B2 pre-miRNA. This oligonucleotide may be involved in the negative regulation of gene expression.. autoimmune diseases defined as following: Disorders that are characterized by the production of antibodies that react with host tissues or immune effector cells that are autoreactive to endogenous peptides.. MSI defined as following: The occurrence of highly polymorphic mono- and dinucleotide MICROSATELLITE REPEATS in somatic cells. It is a form of genome instability associated with defects in DNA MISMATCH REPAIR.. carcinomas defined as following: A malignant neoplasm made up of epithelial cells tending to infiltrate the surrounding tissues and give rise to metastases. It is a histological type of neoplasm and not a synonym for \"cancer.\". TGM2 defined as following: Protein-glutamine gamma-glutamyltransferase 2 (687 aa, ~77 kDa) is encoded by the human TGM2 gene. This protein plays a role in both the induction of apoptosis and the formation of covalent bonds between peptide-bound glutamine and various primary amines.. miR-16 defined as following: A 22 ribonucleotide sequence that is a final product of the processing of either MIR16-1 pre-miRNA or MIR16-2 pre-miRNA. This oligonucleotide may be involved in the negative regulation of gene expression.. chronic lymphocytic leukemia defined as following: A chronic leukemia characterized by abnormal B-lymphocytes and often generalized lymphadenopathy. In patients presenting predominately with blood and bone marrow involvement it is called chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL); in those predominately with enlarged lymph nodes it is called small lymphocytic lymphoma. These terms represent spectrums of the same disease.. pituitary adenomas defined as following: A non-metastasizing tumor that arises from the adenohypophysial cells of the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland. The tumor can be hormonally functioning or not. The diagnosis can be based on imaging studies and/or radioimmunoassays. Due to its location in the sella turcica, expansion of the tumor mass can impinge on the optic chiasm or involve the temporal lobe, third ventricle and posterior fossa A frequently associated physical finding is bitemporal hemianopsia which may progress to further visual loss.. antisense oligonucleotides defined as following: Short fragments of DNA or RNA that are used to alter the function of target RNAs or DNAs to which they hybridize.. CSF defined as following: A watery fluid that is continuously produced in the CHOROID PLEXUS and circulates around the surface of the BRAIN; SPINAL CORD; and in the CEREBRAL VENTRICLES.. nicotine defined as following: Nicotine is highly toxic alkaloid. It is the prototypical agonist at nicotinic cholinergic receptors where it dramatically stimulates neurons and ultimately blocks synaptic transmission. Nicotine is also important medically because of its presence in tobacco smoke.. let-7 defined as following: A microRNA that has seven isofoms and is known to be a regulator of the RAS oncogene. The length of the miRNA is ~22 nucleotides, and the 3' UTR is the mechanistic path of regulation. The let-7 isoforms have been implicated in a variety of cancers, including lung and breast.. ovarian cancer defined as following: A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the ovary. Most primary malignant ovarian neoplasms are either carcinomas (serous, mucinous, or endometrioid adenocarcinomas) or malignant germ cell tumors. Metastatic malignant neoplasms to the ovary include carcinomas, lymphomas, and melanomas.. miR-203 defined as following: The human MIR203A wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 14q32.33 and is approximately 110 bases in length. This allele, which encodes MIR203A pre-miRNA, plays a role in the regulation of gene expression. Alteration in the expression of this gene is associated with development of acute lymphoblastic leukemia, chronic myeloid leukemia and psoriasis.. Ras defined as following: A family of oncogenes that are highly homologous with the retrovirus-associated DNA sequences (ras) originally isolated from Harvey and Kirsten murine sarcoma viruses. Mutated or overexpressed forms of the human ras genes are associated with constitutive ras GTPase activity, increased cellular proliferation, and cell transformation.. cancers defined as following: A tumor composed of atypical neoplastic, often pleomorphic cells that invade other tissues. Malignant neoplasms often metastasize to distant anatomic sites and may recur after excision. The most common malignant neoplasms are carcinomas, Hodgkin and non-Hodgkin lymphomas, leukemias, melanomas, and sarcomas.. cells defined as following: The fundamental, structural, and functional units or subunits of living organisms. They are composed of CYTOPLASM containing various ORGANELLES and a CELL MEMBRANE boundary.. toxic defined as following: The finding of bodily harm due to the poisonous effects of something.. glioblastoma defined as following: The most malignant astrocytic tumor (WHO grade 4). It is composed of poorly differentiated neoplastic astrocytes and is characterized by the presence of cellular polymorphism, nuclear atypia, brisk mitotic activity, vascular thrombosis, microvascular proliferation, and necrosis. It typically affects adults and is preferentially located in the cerebral hemispheres. (Adapted from WHO). hepatocellular carcinoma defined as following: A primary malignant neoplasm of epithelial liver cells. It ranges from a well-differentiated tumor with EPITHELIAL CELLS indistinguishable from normal HEPATOCYTES to a poorly differentiated neoplasm. The cells may be uniform or markedly pleomorphic, or form GIANT CELLS. Several classification schemes have been suggested.. breast defined as following: In humans, one of the paired regions in the anterior portion of the THORAX. The breasts consist of the MAMMARY GLANDS, the SKIN, the MUSCLES, the ADIPOSE TISSUE, and the CONNECTIVE TISSUES.. osteosarcoma defined as following: A usually aggressive malignant bone-forming mesenchymal neoplasm arising from the bone. It may arise de novo or from a pre-existing lesion of the bone. Pain and a palpable mass are the most frequent clinical sign and symptom. It may spread to other anatomic sites, particularly the lungs.. prostaglandin E receptors defined as following: Cell surface receptors which bind prostaglandins with a high affinity and trigger intracellular changes which influence the behavior of cells. Prostaglandin E receptors prefer prostaglandin E2 to other endogenous prostaglandins. They are subdivided into EP1, EP2, and EP3 types based on their effects and their pharmacology.. miR-19b defined as following: A 23 ribonucleotide sequence that is a final product of the processing of either MIR19B1 pre-miRNA or MIR19B2 pre-miRNA. This oligonucleotide may be involved in the negative regulation of gene expression.. IBD defined as following: Gastrointestinal symptoms characterized by chronic abdominal pain and altered bowel habits in the absence of any organic cause.. I3C defined as following: A naturally occurring, orally available cleavage product of the glucosinolate glucobrassicanin, a natural compound present in a wide variety of plant food substances including members of the family Cruciferae with antioxidant and potential chemopreventive properties. Indole-3-carbinol scavenges free radicals and induces various hepatic cytochrome P450 monooxygenases. Specifically, this agent induces the hepatic monooxygenase cytochrome P4501A1 (CYP1A1), resulting in increased 2-hydroxylation of estrogens and increased production of the chemoprotective estrogen 2-hydroxyestrone.. C-cell hyperplasia defined as following: Neoplastic or reactive proliferation of the C-cells in the thyroid gland. The neoplastic C-cell hyperplasia is associated with familial medullary thyroid gland carcinoma and multiple endocrine neoplasia type II and IIB. Morphologically, it is characterized by the presence of clusters of intrafollicular C-cells with atypical cytologic features. The reactive C-cell hyperplasia is also known as physiological or secondary C-cell hyperplasia and it is associated with conditions that cause hypercalcemia (e.g., hyperparathyroidism).. PDA defined as following: Branch of right coronary artery which runs along the upper third of the posterior interventricular sulcus to supply the posterior wall of right and left ventricles and the posterior third of the interventricular septum.. papillary thyroid carcinoma defined as following: A differentiated adenocarcinoma arising from the follicular cells of the thyroid gland. Radiation exposure is a risk factor and it is the most common malignant thyroid lesion, comprising 75% to 80% of all thyroid cancers in iodine sufficient countries. Diagnostic procedures include thyroid ultrasound and fine needle biopsy. Microscopically, the diagnosis is based on the distinct characteristics of the malignant cells, which include enlargement, oval shape, elongation, and overlapping of the nuclei. The nuclei also display clearing or have a ground glass appearance.. CRC defined as following: The disappearance of all signs of cancer, including the absence of a detectable disease-related genetic abnormality, as determined by techniques such as karyotyping or FISH, in response to treatment.. head and neck defined as following: For oncology, an area of the body generally construed to comprise the base of skull and facial bones, sinuses, orbits, salivary glands, oral cavity, oropharynx, larynx, thyroid, facial and neck musculature and lymph nodes draining these areas.. MTC defined as following: A neuroendocrine carcinoma arising from the C-cells of the thyroid gland. It is closely associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia syndromes. Approximately 10% to 20% of medullary thyroid carcinomas are familial. Patients usually present with a thyroid nodule that is painless and firm. In the majority of cases nodal involvement is present at diagnosis. Surgery is the preferred treatment for both primary lesions and recurrences. This carcinoma is generally not very sensitive to radiation and almost unresponsive to chemotherapy.. liver tissues defined as following: The tissue of the liver. It includes the hepatic lobules, hepatic sinusoids, perisinusoidal spaces, and portal triad. The hepatic lobules are composed of hepatocytes.. tissues defined as following: Collections of differentiated CELLS, such as EPITHELIUM; CONNECTIVE TISSUE; MUSCLES; and NERVE TISSUE. Tissues are cooperatively arranged to form organs with specialized functions such as RESPIRATION; DIGESTION; REPRODUCTION; MOVEMENT; and others.. GBM defined as following: A sheet of amorphous extracellular material upon which the basal surfaces of epithelial cells rest and is the covering surface of a glomerular capillary, interposed between the cellular elements and the underlying connective tissue.. miR-206 defined as following: The human MIR206 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 6p12.2 and is approximately 85 bases in length. This allele, which encodes MIR206 pre-miRNA, plays a role in the regulation of gene expression. Alteration in the expression of this gene is associated with development of breast cancer and schizophrenia.. papillary defined as following: Of or relating to or resembling papilla.. lung cancers defined as following: A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the lung.. lupus defined as following: chronic form of cutaneous lupus erythematosus in which the skin lesions mimic those of the systemic form but in which systemic signs are rare; characterized by the presence of discoid skin plaques showing varying degrees of edema, erythema, scaliness, follicular plugging, and skin atrophy; lesions are surrounded by an elevated erythematous border; the condition typically involves the face and scalp, but widespread dissemination may occur.. adenomas defined as following: A benign epithelial tumor with a glandular organization.. MM defined as following: A unit of concentration (molarity unit) equal to one thousandth of a mole (10E-3 mole) of solute per one liter of solution.. miR-122 defined as following: This gene is involved in the regulation of gene expression and plays a role in the development of hepatocellular carcinoma.. laryngeal carcinoma defined as following: Carcinoma that arises from the laryngeal epithelium. More than 90% of laryngeal carcinomas are squamous cell carcinomas. The remainder are adenoid cystic carcinomas, mucoepidermoid carcinomas and carcinomas with neuroendocrine differentiation.. miR-181a defined as following: A 23 ribonucleotide sequence that is a final product of the processing of either MIR181A1 pre-miRNA or MIR181A2 pre-miRNA. This oligonucleotide may be involved in the negative regulation of gene expression.. tumor suppressor gene defined as following: Genes that inhibit expression of the tumorigenic phenotype. They are normally involved in holding cellular growth in check. When tumor suppressor genes are inactivated or lost, a barrier to normal proliferation is removed and unregulated growth is possible.. solid tumors defined as following: A benign or malignant neoplasm arising from tissues that do not include fluid areas. Representative examples include epithelial neoplasms (e.g. lung carcinoma, prostate carcinoma, breast carcinoma, colon carcinoma), and neoplasms arising from the soft tissues and bones (e.g. leiomyosarcoma, liposarcoma, chondrosarcoma, osteosarcoma). Neoplasms originating from the blood or bone marrow (leukemias and myeloproliferative disorders) are not considered solid tumors.. SLE defined as following: A chronic, relapsing, inflammatory, and often febrile multisystemic disorder of connective tissue, characterized principally by involvement of the skin, joints, kidneys, and serosal membranes. It is of unknown etiology, but is thought to represent a failure of the regulatory mechanisms of the autoimmune system. The disease is marked by a wide range of system dysfunctions, an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate, and the formation of LE cells in the blood or bone marrow..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_4530", "sentence1": "Are functional tests a good biomarker for Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy?", "sentence2": "North Star Ambulatory Assessment is practical and reliable., allow assessment of high-functioning boys with Duchenne muscular dystrophy., agnosis and tracking of symptom progression of DMD usually relies on creatine kinase tests, evaluation of patient performance in various ambulatory assessments, and detection of dystrophin from muscle biopsies, which are invasive and painful for the patient. While the, Aim: Using baseline data from a clinical trial of domagrozumab in Duchenne muscular dystrophy, we evaluated the correlation between functional measures and quantitative MRI assessments of thigh muscle. Patients & methods: Analysis included timed functional tests, knee extension/strength and North St, A New Functional Scale and Ambulatory Functional Classification of Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy: Scale Development and Preliminary Analyses of Reliability and Validity., his preliminary investigation describes the relationship between community ambulation measured by the StepWatch activity monitor and the current standard of functional assessment, the 6-minute walk test, in ambulatory boys with Duchenne muscular dystrophy (n = 16) and healthy controls (n = 13). All, ith strength assessments. MV index, fat fraction and T2-mapping measures had moderate correlations (r ∼ 0.5) to all functional tests, North Star Ambulatory Assessment and age. Conclusion: The moderate correlation between functional tests, age and baseline MRI measures supports MRI as a biomarker in Duchenn, on with clinically meaningful outcome measures such as North Star Ambulatory Assessment (NSAA) and 6 minute walk test (6MWT) is paramount for biomarker qualification. In this stu, Quantitative muscle strength assessment in duchenne muscular dystrophy: longitudinal study and correlation with functional measures., The 6-minute walk test, timed 10-meter walk/run test, and supine-up time are commonly used timed functional tests that also sufficiently monitor changes in muscle function; however, they strongly depend on patient collaboration, Conclusion: The moderate correlation between functional tests, age and baseline MRI measures supports MRI as a biomarker in Duchenne muscular dystrophy clinical trials., Currently, functional measures continue to serve as the primary outcome for the majority of DMD clinical trials., Patients & methods: Analysis included timed functional tests, knee extension/strength and North Star Ambulatory Assessment., The 6-minute walk test, timed 10-meter walk/run test, and supine-up time are commonly used timed functional tests that also sufficiently monitor changes in muscle function; however, they strongly depend on patient collaboration., We have developed a new scale and the associated classification system, to assess the functional ability of children diagnosed with DMD. Preliminary evaluation of the psychometric properties of the functional scale and classification systems indicate sufficient reliability and concurrent validity., Quantitative MRI is an objective and sensitive biomarker to detect subclinical changes, though the examination costs may be a reason for its limited use. In this study, a high correlation between all clinical assessments and quantitative MRI scans was found. The combinational use of these methods provides a better understanding about disease progression; however, longitudinal studies are needed to validate their reliability., The children's functional performance was assessed using 6-minute walk tests and timed performance tests. The correlations between the flexibilities of the lower limb muscles and the performance tests were examined., The flexibilities of the lower extremity muscles were found to be correlated to the 6-minute walk tests and the timed performance tests. The flexibility of the hamstrings (r = -.825), the gastrocnemius muscles (r = .545), the hip flexors (r = .481), and the tensor fascia latae (r = .445) were found to be correlated with functional performance as measured by the 6-minute walk tests (P < .05), Nine biomarkers have been identified that correlate with disease milestones, functional tests and respiratory capacity. Together these biomarkers recapitulate different stages of the disorder that, if validated can improve disease progression monitoring., In conclusion, the motor function measure and timed function tests measure disease severity in a highly comparable fashion and all tests correlated with quantitative muscle MRI values quantifying fatty muscle degeneration., This study is to date the most thorough long-term evaluation of QMT in a cohort of DMD patients correlated with other measures, such as the North Star Ambulatory Assessment (NSAA) or three 6-min walk test (6MWT)., The MFM scale was a useful instrument in the follow up of patients with DMD. Moreover, it is a more comprehensive scale to assess patients and very good for conducting trials to evaluate treatment., MD subjects were evaluated using the Vignos lower extremity functional rating, and tests including 6 min walk test (6MWT) and 10 m walk., TFTs appear to be slightly more responsive and predictive of disease progression than the 6MWT in 7-12.9 year olds., herefore, in our group of ambulant patients with DMD, timed functional testing was the most sensitive parameter to determine the extent of disease progression. Timed functional testing may therefore be considered as an additional outcome measure in drug trials to evaluate the effects of therapy in ambulant patients with DMD and possibly in other neuromuscular disorders., Time to rise is a useful and simple tool in the screening of neuromuscular disorders such as Duchenne muscular dystrophy,, he muscle strength of the wrist extensors and the radial deviation range of motion at the wrist were found to be strongly correlated with six of the seven tasks assessed. These two clinical assessments appear to be good indicators of overall wrist and hand function.[SEP]Relations: Duchenne muscular dystrophy has relations: disease_phenotype_positive with Muscular dystrophy, disease_phenotype_positive with Muscular dystrophy, disease_phenotype_positive with Skeletal muscle atrophy, disease_phenotype_positive with Skeletal muscle atrophy, disease_protein with BCHE, disease_protein with BCHE, disease_protein with DMD, disease_protein with DMD, disease_protein with ACHE, disease_protein with ACHE. Definitions: gastrocnemius muscles defined as following: A large muscle in the back of the lower leg. Its action involves the plantar flexion of the foot.. DMD defined as following: An X-linked recessive muscle disease caused by an inability to synthesize DYSTROPHIN, which is involved with maintaining the integrity of the sarcolemma. Muscle fibers undergo a process that features degeneration and regeneration. Clinical manifestations include proximal weakness in the first few years of life, pseudohypertrophy, cardiomyopathy (see MYOCARDIAL DISEASES), and an increased incidence of impaired mentation. Becker muscular dystrophy is a closely related condition featuring a later onset of disease (usually adolescence) and a slowly progressive course. (Adams et al., Principles of Neurology, 6th ed, p1415). dystrophin defined as following: A muscle protein localized in surface membranes which is the product of the Duchenne/Becker muscular dystrophy gene. Individuals with Duchenne muscular dystrophy usually lack dystrophin completely while those with Becker muscular dystrophy have dystrophin of an altered size. It shares features with other cytoskeletal proteins such as SPECTRIN and alpha-actinin but the precise function of dystrophin is not clear. One possible role might be to preserve the integrity and alignment of the plasma membrane to the myofibrils during muscle contraction and relaxation. MW 400 kDa.. NSAA defined as following: A standardized 17-item scale that was developed by Elaine Scott and Michelle Eagle in 2011 to measure functional motor ability in ambulant children and adolescents with Duchenne muscular dystrophy. The instrument, which is partly based on the Hammersmith Motor Ability Scale (2003), utilizes a 3-point rating scale to grade activities ranging from standing to running, as well as abilities that are necessary for a patient to remain functionally ambulant and that are known to progressively deteriorate in untreated DMD.. neuromuscular disorders defined as following: A general term encompassing lower MOTOR NEURON DISEASE; PERIPHERAL NERVOUS SYSTEM DISEASES; and certain MUSCULAR DISEASES. Manifestations include MUSCLE WEAKNESS; FASCICULATION; muscle ATROPHY; SPASM; MYOKYMIA; MUSCLE HYPERTONIA, myalgias, and MUSCLE HYPOTONIA.. muscle biopsies defined as following: Removal of tissue from the muscle, for microscopic examination..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_2916", "sentence1": "Is there any role for HUWE1 in MYC signalling?", "sentence2": "HUWE1 is a critical colonic tumour suppressor gene that prevents MYC signalling, DNA damage accumulation and tumour initiation., To determine the importance of HUWE1, we chose to examine its function in colorectal cancer, where it is mutated in up to 15 per cent of tumours. Modelling of identified mutations showed that they inactivate the E3 ubiquitin ligase activity of HUWE1. Genetic deletion of Huwe1 rapidly accelerated tumourigenic in mice carrying loss of the intestinal tumour suppressor gene Apc, with a dramatic increase in tumour initiation. Mechanistically, this phenotype was driven by increased MYC and rapid DNA damage accumulation leading to loss of the second copy of Apc The increased levels of DNA damage sensitised Huwe1-deficient tumours to DNA-damaging agents and to deletion of the anti-apoptotic protein MCL1. Taken together, these data identify HUWE1 as a bona fide tumour suppressor gene in the intestinal epithelium and suggest a potential vulnerability of HUWE1-mutated tumours to DNA-damaging agents and inhibitors of anti-apoptotic proteins.[SEP]Relations: receptor signaling protein tyrosine kinase inhibitor activity has relations: molfunc_protein with HYAL2, molfunc_protein with HYAL2. regulation of intestinal epithelial structure maintenance has relations: bioprocess_protein with NEUROD1, bioprocess_protein with NEUROD1. anus neoplasm has relations: disease_protein with IFNB1, disease_protein with IFNB1. Protein S human has relations: drug_drug with Peginterferon beta-1a, drug_drug with Peginterferon beta-1a, drug_drug with Peginterferon beta-1a, drug_drug with Peginterferon beta-1a. Definitions: HUWE1 defined as following: E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase HUWE1 (4374 aa, ~482 kDa) is encoded by the human HUWE1 gene. This protein is involved in the modulation of ubiquitination of target proteins involved in DNA replication and repair, apoptosis, chromatin remodeling, circadian rhythms and tumor suppression.. tumour defined as following: New abnormal growth of tissue. Malignant neoplasms show a greater degree of anaplasia and have the properties of invasion and metastasis, compared to benign neoplasms.. mutations defined as following: The result of any gain, loss or alteration of the sequences comprising a gene, including all sequences transcribed into RNA.. MYC defined as following: Myc proto-oncogene protein (439 aa, ~49 kDa) is encoded by the human MYC gene. This protein plays a role in the regulation of transcription and cell proliferation.. tumour suppressor gene defined as following: Genes that inhibit expression of the tumorigenic phenotype. They are normally involved in holding cellular growth in check. When tumor suppressor genes are inactivated or lost, a barrier to normal proliferation is removed and unregulated growth is possible.. mutated defined as following: Any transmissible change in the genetic material of an organism, which can result from radiation, viral infection, transposition, treatment with mutagenic chemicals and errors during DNA replication or meiosis. The effects of mutation range from single base changes to loss or gain of complete chromosomes. As many of the simpler alterations to DNA may be repaired, such changes are only heritable once the change is fixed in the DNA by the process of replication. Mutations may be associated with genetic diversity or with pathologies including cancer..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_1535", "sentence1": "Are immune cells affected in Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis?", "sentence2": "Therapeutic immunization of mSOD1 mice with a myelin-derived peptide led to CP activation, and was followed by the accumulation of immunoregulatory cells, including IL-10-producing monocyte-derived macrophages and Foxp3(+) regulatory T cells, and elevation of the neurotrophic factors IGF-1 and GDNF in the diseased spinal cord parenchyma, Immunization with a Myelin-Derived Antigen Activates the Brain's Choroid Plexus for Recruitment of Immunoregulatory Cells to the CNS and Attenuates Disease Progression in a Mouse Model of ALS., Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is a rapidly progressing fatal neurodegenerative disorder characterized by the selective death of motor neurons (MN) in the spinal cord, and is associated with local neuroinflammation., T-cell deficiency increases neuronal loss, while boosting T cell levels reduces it., As disease accelerates, a shift occurs from beneficial immune responses (involving M2 microglia and regulatory T-cells) to deleterious immune responses (involving M1 microglia and Th1 cells). In this review, we underscore the importance of immune-mediated mechanisms in the pathogenesis of ALS and discuss the alterations and distinct phenotypes of immune cells at the different stages of disease., Immunological disturbances have been implicated in the pathogenesis of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). Chemokines are involved in the recruitment of immune cells., The immune system has been found to be involved with positive and negative effects in the nervous system of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) patients. In general, T cells, B cells, NK cells, mast cells, macrophages, dendritic cells, microglia, antibodies, complement and cytokines participate in limiting damage., Immunological disturbances have been implicated in the pathogenesis of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). Chemokines are involved in the recruitment of immune cells., We propose the following mechanism for the effect of mesenchymal stem cells (MSCs) administered intrathecally in amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS): MSCs increase infiltration of peripheral immune cells into CNS and skew the infiltrated immune cells toward regulatory T lymphocytes (Treg ) and Th2 lymphocytes., Immune cell infiltration to the brain's territory was considered for decades to reflect a pathological process in which immune cells attack the central nervous system (CNS); such a process is observed in the inflammatory autoimmune disease, multiple sclerosis (MS).[SEP]Relations: amyotrophic lateral sclerosis has relations: disease_disease with familial amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, disease_disease with familial amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, disease_disease with motor neuron disease, disease_disease with motor neuron disease, disease_protein with FIG4, disease_protein with FIG4, disease_protein with OTOG, disease_protein with OTOG, disease_disease with progressive muscular atrophy, disease_disease with progressive muscular atrophy. Definitions: amyotrophic lateral sclerosis defined as following: A degenerative disorder affecting upper MOTOR NEURONS in the brain and lower motor neurons in the brain stem and SPINAL CORD. Disease onset is usually after the age of 50 and the process is usually fatal within 3 to 6 years. Clinical manifestations include progressive weakness, atrophy, FASCICULATION, hyperreflexia, DYSARTHRIA, dysphagia, and eventual paralysis of respiratory function. Pathologic features include the replacement of motor neurons with fibrous ASTROCYTES and atrophy of anterior SPINAL NERVE ROOTS and corticospinal tracts. (From Adams et al., Principles of Neurology, 6th ed, pp1089-94). T cells defined as following: A subset of therapeutic autologous T-lymphocytes that express a T-cell receptor (TCR) composed of one gamma chain and one delta chain, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the therapeutic gamma delta T-lymphocytes, these cells secrete interferon-gamma (IFN-g), and exert direct killing of tumor cells. In addition, these cells activate the immune system to exert a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells. Gamma delta T-lymphocytes play a key role in the activation of the immune system and do not require major histocompatibility complex (MHC)-mediated antigen presentation to exert their cytotoxic effect.. dendritic cells defined as following: Specialized cells of the hematopoietic system that have branch-like extensions. They are found throughout the lymphatic system, and in non-lymphoid tissues such as SKIN and the epithelia of the intestinal, respiratory, and reproductive tracts. They trap and process ANTIGENS, and present them to T-CELLS, thereby stimulating CELL-MEDIATED IMMUNITY. They are different from the non-hematopoietic FOLLICULAR DENDRITIC CELLS, which have a similar morphology and immune system function, but with respect to humoral immunity (ANTIBODY PRODUCTION).. microglia defined as following: The third type of glial cell, along with astrocytes and oligodendrocytes (which together form the macroglia). Microglia vary in appearance depending on developmental stage, functional state, and anatomical location; subtype terms include ramified, perivascular, ameboid, resting, and activated. Microglia clearly are capable of phagocytosis and play an important role in a wide spectrum of neuropathologies. They have also been suggested to act in several other roles including in secretion (e.g., of cytokines and neural growth factors), in immunological processing (e.g., antigen presentation), and in central nervous system development and remodeling.. NK cells defined as following: Bone marrow-derived lymphocytes that possess cytotoxic properties, classically directed against transformed and virus-infected cells. Unlike T CELLS; and B CELLS; NK CELLS are not antigen specific. The cytotoxicity of natural killer cells is determined by the collective signaling of an array of inhibitory and stimulatory CELL SURFACE RECEPTORS. A subset of T-LYMPHOCYTES referred to as NATURAL KILLER T CELLS shares some of the properties of this cell type.. mast cells defined as following: Granulated cells that are found in almost all tissues, most abundantly in the skin and the gastrointestinal tract. Like the BASOPHILS, mast cells contain large amounts of HISTAMINE and HEPARIN. Unlike basophils, mast cells normally remain in the tissues and do not circulate in the blood. Mast cells, derived from the bone marrow stem cells, are regulated by the STEM CELL FACTOR.. neurodegenerative disorder defined as following: Hereditary and sporadic conditions which are characterized by progressive nervous system dysfunction. These disorders are often associated with atrophy of the affected central or peripheral nervous system structures.. spinal cord defined as following: A cylindrical column of tissue that lies within the vertebral canal. It is composed of WHITE MATTER and GRAY MATTER.. T cell defined as following: Lymphocytes responsible for cell-mediated immunity. Two types have been identified - cytotoxic (T-LYMPHOCYTES, CYTOTOXIC) and helper T-lymphocytes (T-LYMPHOCYTES, HELPER-INDUCER). They are formed when lymphocytes circulate through the THYMUS GLAND and differentiate to thymocytes. When exposed to an antigen, they divide rapidly and produce large numbers of new T cells sensitized to that antigen.. regulatory T-cells defined as following: CD4-positive T cells that inhibit immunopathology or autoimmune disease in vivo. They inhibit the immune response by influencing the activity of other cell types. Regulatory T-cells include naturally occurring CD4+CD25+ cells, IL-10 secreting Tr1 cells, and Th3 cells.. Chemokines defined as following: Formulated therapeutic analogs of one of a number of endogenous small polypeptide cytokines with potential antineoplastic activity. Synthesized by macrophages, endothelial cells, keratinocytes, fibroblasts, and smooth muscle cells, chemokines are released in the presence of infection or physical tissue damage, and act as chemoattractants to recruit macrophages, neutrophils, and T cells from the blood to sites of infection or damage. These agents may regulate tumor growth by modulating tumor-associated angiogenesis and metastasis and can either promote or retard tumor growth. (NCI04). IGF-1 defined as following: A well-characterized basic peptide believed to be secreted by the liver and to circulate in the blood. It has growth-regulating, insulin-like, and mitogenic activities. This growth factor has a major, but not absolute, dependence on GROWTH HORMONE. It is believed to be mainly active in adults in contrast to INSULIN-LIKE GROWTH FACTOR II, which is a major fetal growth factor.. GDNF defined as following: The founding member of the glial cell line-derived neurotrophic factor family. It was originally characterized as a NERVE GROWTH FACTOR promoting the survival of MIDBRAIN dopaminergic NEURONS, and it has been studied as a potential treatment for PARKINSON DISEASE.. Immune cell defined as following: A cell in the immune system that is involved in host defense. This category may include lymphocytes, monocytes, macrophages, neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, mast cells, and thrombocytes. Precursor cells in these lineages may also be included.. MN defined as following: A system of universal human blood group isoantigens with many associated subgroups. The M and N traits are codominant and the S and s traits are probably very closely linked alleles, including the U antigen. This system is most frequently used in paternity studies.. Th1 cells defined as following: A subset of helper-inducer T-lymphocytes which synthesize and secrete INTERLEUKIN-2; INTERFERON-GAMMA; and INTERLEUKIN-12. Due to their ability to kill antigen-presenting cells and their lymphokine-mediated effector activity, Th1 cells are associated with vigorous delayed-type hypersensitivity reactions.. B cells defined as following: Lymphoid cells concerned with humoral immunity. They are short-lived cells resembling bursa-derived lymphocytes of birds in their production of immunoglobulin upon appropriate stimulation.. mesenchymal stem cells defined as following: An undifferentiated stromal cell with the ability to develop into the cells that form distinct mesenchymal tissues; such as bone, muscle, connective tissue, blood vessels, and lymphatic tissue.. multiple sclerosis defined as following: An autoimmune disorder mainly affecting young adults and characterized by destruction of myelin in the central nervous system. Pathologic findings include multiple sharply demarcated areas of demyelination throughout the white matter of the central nervous system. Clinical manifestations include visual loss, extra-ocular movement disorders, paresthesias, loss of sensation, weakness, dysarthria, spasticity, ataxia, and bladder dysfunction. The usual pattern is one of recurrent attacks followed by partial recovery (see MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS, RELAPSING-REMITTING), but acute fulminating and chronic progressive forms (see MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS, CHRONIC PROGRESSIVE) also occur. (Adams et al., Principles of Neurology, 6th ed, p903). MSCs defined as following: Enables the transmembrane transfer of an ion by a channel that opens in response to a mechanical stress and when a cyclic nucleotide has been bound by the channel complex or one of its constituent parts. [GOC:jl, PMID:22206667]. CNS defined as following: The main information-processing organs of the nervous system, consisting of the brain, spinal cord, and meninges.. motor neurons defined as following: Neurons which send impulses peripherally to activate muscles or secretory cells..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_1880", "sentence1": "Are alterations in ultraconserved elements implicated in breast cancer?", "sentence2": "SNPs in ultraconserved elements and familial breast cancer risk, In the present study, we investigated the influence of six SNPs within UCEs on familial breast cancer risk. Two out of six SNPs showed an association with familial breast cancer risk, This is the first study indicating that SNPs in UCEs might be associated with cancer risk, SNPs in ultraconserved elements and familial breast cancer risk., Recent studies have indicated that UCEs are not mutation cold regions and likely to be concerned with cancers, including breast cancer (BC). , SNPs in ultraconserved elements and familial breast cancer risk., Genetic variants in ultraconserved elements and risk of breast cancer in Chinese population.[SEP]Relations: breast-ovarian cancer, familial, susceptibility to has relations: disease_protein with RAD51D, disease_protein with RAD51D, disease_protein with RAD51C, disease_protein with RAD51C, disease_phenotype_positive with Breast carcinoma, disease_phenotype_positive with Breast carcinoma, disease_phenotype_positive with Multifactorial inheritance, disease_phenotype_positive with Multifactorial inheritance, disease_phenotype_positive with Ovarian carcinoma, disease_phenotype_positive with Ovarian carcinoma. Definitions: cancers defined as following: A tumor composed of atypical neoplastic, often pleomorphic cells that invade other tissues. Malignant neoplasms often metastasize to distant anatomic sites and may recur after excision. The most common malignant neoplasms are carcinomas, Hodgkin and non-Hodgkin lymphomas, leukemias, melanomas, and sarcomas.. SNPs defined as following: A single nucleotide variation in a genetic sequence that occurs at appreciable frequency in the population.. breast cancer defined as following: A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the breast. The vast majority of cases are carcinomas arising from the breast parenchyma or the nipple. Malignant breast neoplasms occur more frequently in females than in males.. familial breast cancer defined as following: Breast carcinoma that has developed in relatives of patients with history of breast carcinoma.. mutation defined as following: Any transmissible change in the genetic material of an organism, which can result from radiation, viral infection, transposition, treatment with mutagenic chemicals and errors during DNA replication or meiosis. The effects of mutation range from single base changes to loss or gain of complete chromosomes. As many of the simpler alterations to DNA may be repaired, such changes are only heritable once the change is fixed in the DNA by the process of replication. Mutations may be associated with genetic diversity or with pathologies including cancer..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_2409", "sentence1": "Are mouse chromosomes acrocentric?", "sentence2": " Based on combined fluorescence in situ hybridization and linkage mapping, the gene order on CFA9 is similar to that of the homologous genes on HSA17q and mouse chromosome 11 (MMU11), but in the dog the gene order is inverted with respect to the centromere. , In murine models of human carcinogenesis, however, karyotype analysis is technically demanding because mouse chromosomes are acrocentric and of similar size., The minor satellite is closer to the short arms of the acrocentric chromosomes than the major satellite, These cells contain Robertsonian translocated chromosomes 1 and 7 as the only submetacentric chromosome in an otherwise acrocentric genome., The resulting metacentric chromosomes are very different in size and in morphology from normal mouse acrocentric chromosomes., Because of 35 independent primary hybrids used in this study were derived from two types of feral mice, each with a different combination of Robertsonian translocation chromosomes, as well as from mice with a normal complement of acrocentric chromosomes, analysis of 16 selected mouse enzyme markers provided data on the segregation of all 20 mouse chromosomes in these hybrids, The two mouse stocks exhibit karyotypes consisting of nine pairs of metacentric chromosomes as a result of centric fusions of acrocentric chromosomes in different combinations., Physical gene mapping by in situ hybridization is a difficult task in an all-acrocentric mouse karyotype, because all of the chromosomes are morphologically very similar., The resulting metacentric chromosomes are very different in size and in morphology from normal mouse acrocentric chromosomes., murine models of human carcinogenesis are exceedingly valuable tools to understand genetic mechanisms of neoplastic growth the identification of recurrent chromosomal rearrangements by cytogenetic techniques serves as an initial screening test for tumour specific aberrations in murine models of human carcinogenesis however karyotype analysis is technically demanding because mouse chromosomes are acrocentric and of similar size fluorescence in situ hybridization fish with mouse chromosome specific painting probes can complement conventional banding analysis although sensitive and specific fish analyses are restricted to the visualization of only a few mouse chromosomes at a time here we apply a novel imaging technique that we developed recently for the visualization of human chromosomes to the simultaneous discernment of all mouse chromosomes the approach is based on spectral imaging to measure chromosome specific spectra after fish with differentially labelled mouse chromosome painting probes utilizing a combination of fourier spectroscopy ccd imaging and conventional optical microscopy spectral imaging allows simultaneous measurement of the fluorescence emission spectrum at all sample points a spectrum based classification algorithm has been adapted to karyotype mouse chromosomes we have applied spectral karyotyping sky to chemically induced plasmocytomas mammary gland tumours from transgenic mice overexpressing the c myc oncogene and thymomas from mice deficient for the ataxia telangiectasia atm gene results from these analyses demonstrate the potential of sky to identify complex chromosomal aberrations in mouse models of human carcinogenesis.[SEP]Relations: chromosome has relations: cellcomp_protein with MBD6, cellcomp_protein with MBD6, cellcomp_protein with HOXA13, cellcomp_protein with HOXA13, cellcomp_protein with TEX12, cellcomp_protein with TEX12, cellcomp_protein with CBX6, cellcomp_protein with CBX6, cellcomp_protein with CCDC86, cellcomp_protein with CCDC86. Definitions: tumour defined as following: New abnormal growth of tissue. Malignant neoplasms show a greater degree of anaplasia and have the properties of invasion and metastasis, compared to benign neoplasms.. chromosomal defined as following: In a prokaryotic cell or in the nucleus of a eukaryotic cell, a structure consisting of or containing DNA which carries the genetic information essential to the cell. (From Singleton & Sainsbury, Dictionary of Microbiology and Molecular Biology, 2d ed). fish defined as following: A type of IN SITU HYBRIDIZATION in which target sequences are stained with fluorescent dye so their location and size can be determined using fluorescence microscopy. This staining is sufficiently distinct that the hybridization signal can be seen both in metaphase spreads and in interphase nuclei.. chemically defined as following: A substance with a defined atomic or molecular structure that results from, or takes part in, reactions involving changes in its structure, composition, or properties.. chromosomes defined as following: A specific pair of human chromosomes in group A (CHROMOSOMES, HUMAN, 1-3) of the human chromosome classification.. human defined as following: Members of the species Homo sapiens.. hybrids defined as following: Being comprised of mixed attributes or parts.. centromere defined as following: The clear constricted portion of the chromosome at which the chromatids are joined and by which the chromosome is attached to the spindle during cell division.. thymomas defined as following: A neoplasm originating from thymic tissue, usually benign, and frequently encapsulated. Although it is occasionally invasive, metastases are extremely rare. It consists of any type of thymic epithelial cell as well as lymphocytes that are usually abundant. Malignant lymphomas that involve the thymus, e.g., lymphosarcoma, Hodgkin's disease (previously termed granulomatous thymoma), should not be regarded as thymoma. (From Stedman, 25th ed). cells defined as following: The fundamental, structural, and functional units or subunits of living organisms. They are composed of CYTOPLASM containing various ORGANELLES and a CELL MEMBRANE boundary.. plasmocytomas defined as following: Any discrete, presumably solitary, mass of neoplastic PLASMA CELLS either in BONE MARROW or various extramedullary sites.. transgenic mice defined as following: Laboratory mice that have been produced from a genetically manipulated EGG or EMBRYO, MAMMALIAN.. murine defined as following: Any of numerous species of small rodents belonging to the genus Mus and various related genera of the family Muridae.. probes defined as following: A device designed to reach into a location for manipulating or sensing..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_1156", "sentence1": "Is armodafinil used for treatment of insomnia?", "sentence2": " Other therapies, such as sedative hypnotics, target daytime insomnia, while pharmacologic agents such as modafinil, armodafinil, and caffeine and non-pharmacologic approaches such as napping promote nighttime alertness., Other treatment options may include pharmacologic interventions such as modafinil and armodafinil, which have shown efficacy in this population., BACKGROUND: Armodafinil (Nuvigil(®), Cephalon, Inc., Frazer, PA, USA), the longer-lasting isomer of racemic modafinil, is a nonamphetamine, wakefulness-promoting medication. In patients with excessive sleepiness associated with shift work disorder, treated obstructive sleep apnoea, or narcolepsy, armodafinil has been found to improve wakefulness throughout the shift or day. In addition, while not approved for this indication, armodafinil has been found to improve excessive sleepiness associated with jet-lag disorder., STUDY OBJECTIVES: Armodafinil is a wakefulness-promoting medication. Its efficacy and tolerability have been established in 12-week studies of patients with excessive sleepiness (ES) associated with treated obstructive sleep apnea (OSA), shift work disorder (SWD), or narcolepsy. , Armodafinil represents an option for long-term treatment of patients with ES associated with treated OSA, SWD, or narcolepsy., The wakefulness-promoting agents armodafinil and modafinil are FDA approved for the treatment of ES in patients with SWD., CONCLUSIONS: Armodafinil significantly improved overall clinical condition related to excessive sleepiness as rated by the CGI-C and was well tolerated in patients with treated OSA and comorbid depression., CONCLUSION: In patients with excessive sleepiness associated with chronic SWD of moderate or greater severity, armodafinil significantly improved wakefulness during scheduled night work, raising mean nighttime sleep latency above the level considered to indicate severe sleepiness during the daytime. Armodafinil also significantly improved measures of overall clinical condition, long-term memory, and attention. , Adjunct treatment with armodafinil significantly improved wakefulness, long-term memory, and patients' ability to engage in activities of daily living in nCPAP-adherent individuals with ES associated with OSA. , A number of studies have evaluated countermeasures or interventions in shift workers; proposed treatments include chronobiotic interventions, such as light exposure, melatonin, hypnotic agents, caffeine and CNS stimulants (amphetamine), and the wake-promoting agents modafinil and armodafinil. , These studies showed that modafinil and armodafinil significantly improve the ability to sustain wakefulness during waking activities (e.g. working, driving), overall clinical condition, and sustained attention or memory in patients with SWSD. , CONCLUSIONS: In this selected population of patients with OSA/HS and residual ES despite effective treatment with nCPAP, armodafinil QD used as an adjunct to nCPAP treatment was associated with improved wakefulness and overall clinical condition. , Other therapies, such as sedative hypnotics, target daytime insomnia, while pharmacologic agents such as modafinil, armodafinil, and caffeine and non-pharmacologic approaches such as napping promote nighttime alertness., Armodafinil represents an option for long-term treatment of patients with ES associated with treated OSA, SWD, or narcolepsy., Other therapies, such as sedative hypnotics, target daytime insomnia, while pharmacologic agents such as modafinil, armodafinil, and caffeine and non-pharmacologic approaches such as napping promote nighttime alertness., In this selected population of patients with OSA/HS and residual ES despite effective treatment with nCPAP, armodafinil QD used as an adjunct to nCPAP treatment was associated with improved wakefulness and overall clinical condition[SEP]Relations: Armodafinil has relations: contraindication with anxiety disorder, contraindication with anxiety disorder, contraindication with mental disorder, contraindication with mental disorder, drug_drug with Omeprazole, drug_drug with Omeprazole, drug_drug with Antipyrine, drug_drug with Antipyrine, contraindication with neurotic disorder, contraindication with neurotic disorder. Definitions: sleepiness defined as following: Compelling urge to sleep.. amphetamine defined as following: Analogs or derivatives of AMPHETAMINE. Many are sympathomimetics and central nervous system stimulators causing excitation, vasopressin, bronchodilation, and to varying degrees, anorexia, analepsis, nasal decongestion, and some smooth muscle relaxation.. caffeine defined as following: The determination of the amount of caffeine present in a sample.. PA defined as following: A SI derived unit of pressure equivalent to one newton per square meter or 10 bars or to 1.45x10E-4 pounds per square inch.. OSA defined as following: A disorder characterized by recurrent apneas during sleep despite persistent respiratory efforts. It is due to upper airway obstruction. The respiratory pauses may induce HYPERCAPNIA or HYPOXIA. Cardiac arrhythmias and elevation of systemic and pulmonary arterial pressures may occur. Frequent partial arousals occur throughout sleep, resulting in relative SLEEP DEPRIVATION and daytime tiredness. Associated conditions include OBESITY; ACROMEGALY; MYXEDEMA; micrognathia; MYOTONIC DYSTROPHY; adenotonsilar dystrophy; and NEUROMUSCULAR DISEASES. (From Adams et al., Principles of Neurology, 6th ed, p395). Armodafinil defined as following: The R-enantiomer of the racemic synthetic agent modafinil with central nervous system (CNS) stimulant and wakefulness-promoting activities. Although the exact mechanism of action has yet to be fully elucidated, armodafinil appears to inhibit the reuptake of dopamine by binding to the dopamine-reuptake pump, which leads to an increase in extracellular dopamine levels in some brain regions. This agent does not bind to or inhibit several receptors and enzymes that may be involved in sleep/wake regulation and is not a direct- or indirect-acting dopamine receptor agonist. Armodafinil has a longer half-life than modafinil.. modafinil defined as following: A benzhydryl acetamide compound, central nervous system stimulant, and CYP3A4 inducing agent that is used in the treatment of NARCOLEPSY and SLEEP WAKE DISORDERS.. melatonin defined as following: A therapeutic chemically synthesized form of the pineal indole melatonin with antioxidant properties. The pineal synthesis and secretion of melatonin, a serotonin-derived neurohormone, is dependent on beta-adrenergic receptor function. Melatonin is involved in numerous biological functions including circadian rhythm, sleep, the stress response, aging, and immunity.. CNS defined as following: The main information-processing organs of the nervous system, consisting of the brain, spinal cord, and meninges.. armodafinil defined as following: The R-enantiomer of the racemic synthetic agent modafinil with central nervous system (CNS) stimulant and wakefulness-promoting activities. Although the exact mechanism of action has yet to be fully elucidated, armodafinil appears to inhibit the reuptake of dopamine by binding to the dopamine-reuptake pump, which leads to an increase in extracellular dopamine levels in some brain regions. This agent does not bind to or inhibit several receptors and enzymes that may be involved in sleep/wake regulation and is not a direct- or indirect-acting dopamine receptor agonist. Armodafinil has a longer half-life than modafinil.. insomnia defined as following: A sleep disorder characterized by difficulty in falling asleep and/or remaining asleep..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_2459", "sentence1": "Is there any link between ERCC1-XPF and cohesin?", "sentence2": "ERCC1-XPF cooperates with CTCF and cohesin to facilitate the developmental silencing of imprinted genes., Using an in vivo biotinylation tagging approach in mice, we show that the nucleotide excision repair (NER) structure-specific endonuclease ERCC1-XPF complex interacts with the insulator binding protein CTCF, the cohesin subunits SMC1A and SMC3 and with MBD2; the factors co-localize with ATRX at the promoters and control regions (ICRs) of imprinted genes during postnatal hepatic development. Loss of Ercc1 or exposure to MMC triggers the localization of CTCF to heterochromatin, the dissociation of the CTCF-cohesin complex and ATRX from promoters and ICRs, altered histone marks and the aberrant developmental expression of imprinted genes without altering DNA methylation. We propose that ERCC1-XPF cooperates with CTCF and cohesin to facilitate the developmental silencing of imprinted genes and that persistent DNA damage triggers chromatin changes that affect gene expression programs associated with NER disorders., Using an in vivo biotinylation tagging approach in mice, we show that the nucleotide excision repair (NER) structure-specific endonuclease ERCC1-XPF complex interacts with the insulator binding protein CTCF, the cohesin subunits SMC1A and SMC3 and with MBD2; the factors co-localize with ATRX at the promoters and control regions (ICRs) of imprinted genes during postnatal hepatic development., We propose that ERCC1-XPF cooperates with CTCF and cohesin to facilitate the developmental silencing of imprinted genes and that persistent DNA damage triggers chromatin changes that affect gene expression programs associated with NER disorders., We propose that ERCC1-XPF cooperates with CTCF and cohesin to facilitate the developmental silencing of imprinted genes and that persistent DNA damage triggers chromatin changes that affect gene expression programs associated with NER disorders., We propose that ERCC1-XPF cooperates with CTCF and cohesin to facilitate the developmental silencing of imprinted genes and that persistent DNA damage triggers chromatin changes that affect gene expression programs associated with NER disorders.
, ERCC1-XPF cooperates with CTCF and cohesin to facilitate the developmental silencing of imprinted genes., We propose that ERCC1-XPF cooperates with CTCF and cohesin to facilitate the developmental silencing of imprinted genes and that persistent DNA damage triggers chromatin changes that affect gene expression programs associated with NER disorders..[SEP]Relations: heterochromatin has relations: cellcomp_protein with HSF1, cellcomp_protein with HSF1, cellcomp_protein with FOXC1, cellcomp_protein with FOXC1, cellcomp_protein with MORC2, cellcomp_protein with MORC2, cellcomp_protein with ORC2, cellcomp_protein with ORC2, cellcomp_protein with CBX1, cellcomp_protein with CBX1. Definitions: ATRX defined as following: A rare, X-linked recessive inherited syndrome caused by mutations in the ATRX gene. It is characterized by intellectual disability, developmental delays, hypotonia, widely spaced eyes, small nose, low-set ears, tented upper lip, skeletal abnormalities, and a mild form of alpha thalassemia.. CTCF defined as following: CCN family member 2 (349 aa, ~38kDa) is encoded by the human CCN2 gene. This protein plays a role in the promotion of proliferation and differentiation of chondrocytes and also mediates heparin- and divalent cation-dependent cell adhesion in many different cell types.. SMC3 defined as following: Human SMC3 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 10q25 and is approximately 37 kb in length. This allele, which encodes structural maintenance of chromosomes protein 3, is involved in the regulation of chromosome migration during mitosis.. promoters defined as following: A DNA sequence at which RNA polymerase binds and initiates transcription.. Ercc1 defined as following: DNA excision repair protein ERCC-1 (297 aa, ~33 kDa) is encoded by the human ERCC1 gene. This protein plays a role in 5-prime incision during both UV cross-link repair and nucleotide excision repair.. heterochromatin defined as following: The portion of chromosome material that remains condensed and is transcriptionally inactive during INTERPHASE.. chromatin defined as following: The ordered and organized complex of DNA, protein, and sometimes RNA, that forms the chromosome. [GOC:elh, PMID:20404130]. MMC defined as following: An antineoplastic antibiotic produced by Streptomyces caespitosus. It is one of the bi- or tri-functional ALKYLATING AGENTS causing cross-linking of DNA and inhibition of DNA synthesis.. genes defined as following: A category of nucleic acid sequences that function as units of heredity and which code for the basic instructions for the development, reproduction, and maintenance of organisms..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_865", "sentence1": "Have C12orf65 mutations been associated with axonal neuropathy and optic atrophy?", "sentence2": "Novel C12orf65 mutations in patients with axonal neuropathy and optic atrophy, Charcot-Marie Tooth disease (CMT) forms a clinically and genetically heterogeneous group of disorders. Although a number of disease genes have been identified for CMT, the gene discovery for some complex form of CMT has lagged behind. The association of neuropathy and optic atrophy (also known as CMT type 6) has been described with autosomaldominant, recessive and X-linked modes of inheritance. Mutations in Mitofusin 2 have been found to cause dominant forms of CMT6. Phosphoribosylpyrophosphate synthetase-I mutations cause X-linked CMT6, but until now, mutations in the recessive forms of disease have never been identified.METHODS: We here describe a family with three affected individuals who inherited in an autosomal recessive fashion a childhood onset neuropathy and optic atrophy. Using homozygosity mapping in the family and exome sequencing in two affected individuals we identified a novel protein-truncating mutation in the C12orf65 gene, which encodes for a protein involved in mitochondrial translation, Novel C12orf65 mutations in patients with axonal neuropathy and optic atrophy., Our study broadens the phenotypic spectrum of C12orf65 defects and highlights the triad of optic atrophy, axonal neuropathy and spastic paraparesis as its key clinical features., C12orf65 participates in the process of mitochondrial translation and has been shown to be associated with a spectrum of phenotypes, including early onset optic atrophy, progressive encephalomyopathy, peripheral neuropathy, and spastic paraparesis.We used whole-genome homozygosity mapping as well as exome sequencing and targeted gene sequencing to identify novel C12orf65 disease-causing mutations in seven affected individuals originating from two consanguineous families., A homozygous mutation of C12orf65 causes spastic paraplegia with optic atrophy and neuropathy (SPG55)., Optic atrophy and a Leigh-like syndrome due to mutations in the c12orf65 gene: report of a novel mutation and review of the literature., Recently, we identified the causative gene, C12orf65, that was reported the gene for Leigh syndrome, for autosomal recessive spastic paraplegia with optic atrophy and neuropathy (SPG55)., We describe 2 siblings with compound heterozygous mutations in the recently identified C12orf65 gene who presented with optic atrophy and mild developmental delays and subsequently developed bilateral, symmetric lesions in the brainstem reminiscent of Leigh syndrome., C12orf65 participates in the process of mitochondrial translation and has been shown to be associated with a spectrum of phenotypes, including early onset optic atrophy, progressive encephalomyopathy, peripheral neuropathy, and spastic paraparesis.We used whole-genome homozygosity mapping as well as exome sequencing and targeted gene sequencing to identify novel C12orf65 disease-causing mutations in seven affected individuals originating from two consanguineous families, Our study broadens the phenotypic spectrum of C12orf65 defects and highlights the triad of optic atrophy, axonal neuropathy and spastic paraparesis as its key clinical features, CONCLUSIONS: This work describes a mutation in the C12orf65 gene that causes recessive form of CMT6 and confirms the role of mitochondrial dysfunction in this complex axonal neuropathy., C12orf65 participates in the process of mitochondrial translation and has been shown to be associated with a spectrum of phenotypes, including early onset optic atrophy, progressive encephalomyopathy, peripheral neuropathy, and spastic paraparesis.We used whole-genome homozygosity mapping as well as exome sequencing and targeted gene sequencing to identify novel C12orf65 disease-causing mutations in seven affected individuals originating from two consanguineous families. , Our study broadens the phenotypic spectrum of C12orf65 defects and highlights the triad of optic atrophy, axonal neuropathy and spastic paraparesis as its key clinical features. , We described a large consanguineous family with neuropathy and optic atrophy carrying a loss of function mutation in the C12orf65 gene., In these patients, we identified a homozygous splice mutation, g.21043 T>A (c.282+2 T>A) which leads to skipping of exon 2. Our study broadens the phenotypic spectrum of C12orf65 defects and highlights the triad of optic atrophy, axonal neuropathy and spastic paraparesis as its key clinical features., This work describes a mutation in the C12orf65 gene that causes recessive form of CMT6 and confirms the role of mitochondrial dysfunction in this complex axonal neuropathy., Our study broadens the phenotypic spectrum of C12orf65 defects and highlights the triad of optic atrophy, axonal neuropathy and spastic paraparesis as its key clinical features., Novel C12orf65 mutations in patients with axonal neuropathy and optic atrophy., This work describes a mutation in the C12orf65 gene that causes recessive form of CMT6 and confirms the role of mitochondrial dysfunction in this complex axonal neuropathy., A homozygous mutation of C12orf65 causes spastic paraplegia with optic atrophy and neuropathy (SPG55)., C12orf65 participates in the process of mitochondrial translation and has been shown to be associated with a spectrum of phenotypes, including early onset optic atrophy, progressive encephalomyopathy, peripheral neuropathy, and spastic paraparesis.We used whole-genome homozygosity mapping as well as exome sequencing and targeted gene sequencing to identify novel C12orf65 disease-causing mutations in seven affected individuals originating from two consanguineous families.[SEP]Relations: Optic atrophy has relations: disease_phenotype_positive with neurodevelopmental disorder, mitochondrial, with abnormal movements and lactic acidosis, with or without seizures, disease_phenotype_positive with neurodevelopmental disorder, mitochondrial, with abnormal movements and lactic acidosis, with or without seizures, disease_phenotype_positive with cerebellar ataxia with neuropathy and bilateral vestibular areflexia syndrome, disease_phenotype_positive with cerebellar ataxia with neuropathy and bilateral vestibular areflexia syndrome, disease_phenotype_positive with mitochondrial hypertrophic cardiomyopathy with lactic acidosis due to MTO1 deficiency, disease_phenotype_positive with mitochondrial hypertrophic cardiomyopathy with lactic acidosis due to MTO1 deficiency, disease_phenotype_positive with neurodevelopmental disorder with visual defects and brain anomalies, disease_phenotype_positive with neurodevelopmental disorder with visual defects and brain anomalies, disease_phenotype_positive with Mowat-Wilson syndrome due to a ZEB2 point mutation, disease_phenotype_positive with Mowat-Wilson syndrome due to a ZEB2 point mutation. Definitions: gene defined as following: A category of nucleic acid sequences that function as units of heredity and which code for the basic instructions for the development, reproduction, and maintenance of organisms.. CMT6 defined as following: A rare axonal hereditary motor and sensory neuropathy disease characterized by progressive, peripheral, axonal sensorimotor neuropathy (of variable severity), affecting predominantly the distal lower limbs, associated with progressive, variably severe, optic atrophy, which frequently leads to visual loss. Patients typically present distal limb muscle weakness and atrophy, hypo/areflexia, foot deformities, poor visual acuity (often with a central scotoma), nystagmus, and reduced peripheral and nocturnal vision. Additional reported manifestations include sensorineural hearing loss, major joint contractures, anosmia, scoliosis/lumbar hyperlordosis, cognitive impairment and vocal cord paresis.. Mitofusin 2 defined as following: This gene is involved in mitochondrial fusion.. peripheral neuropathy defined as following: Diseases of the peripheral nerves external to the brain and spinal cord, which includes diseases of the nerve roots, ganglia, plexi, autonomic nerves, sensory nerves, and motor nerves.. mutation defined as following: Any transmissible change in the genetic material of an organism, which can result from radiation, viral infection, transposition, treatment with mutagenic chemicals and errors during DNA replication or meiosis. The effects of mutation range from single base changes to loss or gain of complete chromosomes. As many of the simpler alterations to DNA may be repaired, such changes are only heritable once the change is fixed in the DNA by the process of replication. Mutations may be associated with genetic diversity or with pathologies including cancer.. axonal neuropathy defined as following: Any nerve disorder affecting the axon of a nerve.. protein defined as following: Protein; provides access to the encoding gene via its GenBank Accession, the taxon in which this instance of the protein occurs, and references to homologous proteins in other species.. CMT defined as following: brand name of choline magnesium trisalicylate. Leigh syndrome defined as following: A group of metabolic disorders primarily of infancy characterized by the subacute onset of psychomotor retardation, hypotonia, ataxia, weakness, vision loss, eye movement abnormalities, seizures, dysphagia, and lactic acidosis. Pathological features include spongy degeneration of the neuropile of the basal ganglia, thalamus, brain stem, and spinal cord. Patterns of inheritance include X-linked recessive, autosomal recessive, and mitochondrial. Leigh disease has been associated with mutations in genes for the PYRUVATE DEHYDROGENASE COMPLEX; CYTOCHROME-C OXIDASE; ATP synthase subunit 6; and subunits of mitochondrial complex I. (From Menkes, Textbook of Child Neurology, 5th ed, p850).. optic atrophy defined as following: Dominant optic atrophy is a hereditary optic neuropathy causing decreased visual acuity, color vision deficits, a centrocecal scotoma, and optic nerve pallor (Hum. Genet. 1998; 102: 79-86). Mutations leading to this condition have been mapped to the OPA1 gene at chromosome 3q28-q29. OPA1 codes for a dynamin-related GTPase that localizes to mitochondria.. Mutations defined as following: The result of any gain, loss or alteration of the sequences comprising a gene, including all sequences transcribed into RNA.. mitochondrial dysfunction defined as following: A functional anomaly of mitochondria. [ORCID:0000-0001-5208-3432]. spastic paraparesis defined as following: Mild or moderate loss of motor function accompanied by spasticity in the lower extremities. This condition is a manifestation of CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM DISEASES that cause injury to the motor cortex or descending motor pathways.. neuropathy defined as following: A disorder affecting the cranial nerves or the peripheral nervous system. It manifests with pain, tingling, numbness, and muscle weakness. It may be the result of physical injury, toxic substances, viral diseases, diabetes, renal failure, cancer, and drugs.. mutations defined as following: The result of any gain, loss or alteration of the sequences comprising a gene, including all sequences transcribed into RNA..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_1501", "sentence1": "Have germline variants been associated to colorectal cancer?", "sentence2": "Overall, we identified aberrant transcripts in 8% of the patients (familial cases 30%; early-onset manifestation 21%). In eight of them, two different out-of-frame pseudoexons were found consisting of a 167-bp insertion from intron 4 in five families with a shared founder haplotype and a 83-bp insertion from intron 10 in three patients. The pseudoexon formation was caused by three different heterozygous germline mutations, which are supposed to activate cryptic splice sites, We apply OS-Seq to resequence the exons of either 10 or 344 cancer genes from human DNA samples. In our assessment of capture performance, >87% of the captured sequence originated from the intended target region with sequencing coverage falling within a tenfold range for a majority of all targets. Single nucleotide variants (SNVs) called from OS-Seq data agreed with >95% of variants obtained from whole-genome sequencing of the same individual., The minor alleles of CD44 rs8193 C>T, ALCAM rs1157 G>A, and LGR5 rs17109924 T>C were significantly associated with increased TTR (9.4 vs. 5.4 years; HR, 0.51; 95% CI: 0.35-0.93; P = 0.022; 11.3 vs. 5.7 years; HR, 0.56; 95% CI: 0.33-0.94; P = 0.024, and 10.7 vs. 5.7 years; HR, 0.33; 95% CI: 0.12-0.90; P = 0.023, respectively) and remained significant in the multivariate analysis stratified by ethnicity. In recursive partitioning, a specific gene variant profile including LGR5 rs17109924, CD44 rs8193, and ALDH1A1 rs1342024 represented a high-risk subgroup with a median TTR of 1.7 years (HR, 6.71, 95% CI: 2.71-16.63, P < 0.001)., In this study, we identified common germline variants in VEGF-dependent and -independent angiogenesis genes predicting clinical outcome and tumor response in patients with mCRC receiving first-line bevacizumab and oxaliplatin-based chemotherapy., We identified 22 nonsynonymous somatic mutations of which the majority was of missense type. In germline, three novel nonsynonymous variants were identified in the following genes: CSMD3, EPHB6 and C10orf137, and none of the variants were present in 890 population-matched healthy controls. It is possible that the identified germline variants modulate predisposition to CRC., One patient proved to carry an APC whole-gene deletion; 4 of 25 (16%) patients showed biallelic and 3 of 25 (12%) monoallelic MUTYH mutations. In the three heterozygous subjects no pathogenetic variants were found in OGG1, MTH1, APE1, MSH2, and MSH6 genes. Frequency assessment of MUTYH mutations in healthy subjects showed that only Y165C and G382D reach a subpolymorphic frequency., Scrutinizing the molecular genetic results and family data of 242 index patients with pathogenic APC mutations led to the identification of 10 mosaic cases (4%). C>T transitions were observed in CGA sites in four of the 10 cases with somatic mosaicism, which is significantly more than 26 of the 232 non-mosaic cases (p = 0.02). Phenotypes of patients with somatic mosaicism ranged from an attenuated form of polyposis coli to florid polyposis with major extracolonic manifestations., Altogether 12 previously reported changes and four novel genetic alterations, mostly in intronic sequences, were identified. The results revealed the presence of biallelic germline MYH mutations in two patients. These patients were compound heterozygotes for two of the most common germline mutations c.494 A>G (p.Y165C); c.1,145 G>A (p.G382D). These variants are established to be associated with adenomatous polyposis and colorectal cancer.[SEP]Relations: EDRF1 has relations: disease_protein with colorectal cancer, disease_protein with colorectal cancer, disease_protein with colorectal carcinoma, disease_protein with colorectal carcinoma. Somatic mutation has relations: disease_phenotype_positive with colorectal cancer, disease_phenotype_positive with colorectal cancer, disease_phenotype_positive with esophageal cancer, disease_phenotype_positive with esophageal cancer. malignant colon neoplasm has relations: disease_disease with colorectal cancer, disease_disease with colorectal cancer. Definitions: MSH2 defined as following: DNA mismatch repair protein Msh2 (934 aa, ~105 kDa) is encoded by the human MSH2 gene. This protein is involved in DNA mismatch repair.. gene variant defined as following: A variation in the nucleic acid sequence of a specific gene.. TTR defined as following: Transthyretin (147 aa, ~16 kDa) is encoded by the human TTR gene. This protein is involved in both the binding and transport of retinol and thyroxine.. somatic mosaicism defined as following: The presence of genetically distinct populations of somatic cells in a given organism caused by DNA mutations, epigenetic alterations of DNA, chromosomal abnormalities or the spontaneous reversion of inherited mutations. [HPO:probinson, PMID:12360233]. CRC defined as following: The disappearance of all signs of cancer, including the absence of a detectable disease-related genetic abnormality, as determined by techniques such as karyotyping or FISH, in response to treatment.. MUTYH defined as following: Adenine DNA glycosylase protein (546 aa, ~60 kDa) is encoded by the MUTYH gene. This nuclear enzyme plays a role in mismatch repair via the removal of mutagenic adenine/8-oxo-guanine.. MTH1 defined as following: Human NUDT1 wild-type allele is located within 7p22 and is approximately 9 kb in length. This allele, which encodes 7,8-dihydro-8-oxoguanine triphosphatase protein, is involved in the hydrolysis of 8-oxo-dGTP in the free nucleotide pool. Overexpression of the NUDT1 gene is associated with several types of cancer such as non-small-cell lung carcinomas, renal cell carcinomas and prostate cancer.. OGG1 defined as following: N-glycosylase/DNA lyase (345 aa, ~39 kDa) is encoded by the human OGG1 gene. This protein is involved in nucleotide excision repair.. transcripts defined as following: The initial RNA molecule produced by transcription.. MYH defined as following: Human MUTYH allele is located within 1p34.3-p32.1 and is approximately 92 kb in length. This allele, which encodes adenine DNA glycosylase protein, is involved in repair of the mutagenic adenosine/8-oxo-guanine mismatched base pair in DNA. Certain allelic variants of the MUTYH gene are associated with colorectal cancer.. APC defined as following: A heterogeneous group of immunocompetent cells that mediate the cellular immune response by processing and presenting antigens to the T-cells. Traditional antigen-presenting cells include MACROPHAGES; DENDRITIC CELLS; LANGERHANS CELLS; and B-LYMPHOCYTES. FOLLICULAR DENDRITIC CELLS are not traditional antigen-presenting cells, but because they hold antigen on their cell surface in the form of IMMUNE COMPLEXES for B-cell recognition they are considered so by some authors.. CSMD3 defined as following: CUB and sushi domain-containing protein 3 (3707 aa, ~406 kDa) is encoded by the human CSMD3 gene. This protein plays a role in the development of neuronal projections.. APE1 defined as following: This gene is involved in DNA repair processes.. genes defined as following: A category of nucleic acid sequences that function as units of heredity and which code for the basic instructions for the development, reproduction, and maintenance of organisms.. LGR5 defined as following: Leucine-rich repeat-containing G-protein coupled receptor 5 (907 aa, ~100 kDa) is encoded by the human LGR5 gene. This protein plays a role in signal transduction.. exons defined as following: The parts of a transcript of a split GENE remaining after the INTRONS are removed. They are spliced together to become a MESSENGER RNA or other functional RNA.. adenomatous polyposis defined as following: A polyposis syndrome due to an autosomal dominant mutation of the APC genes (GENES, APC) on CHROMOSOME 5. The syndrome is characterized by the development of hundreds of ADENOMATOUS POLYPS in the COLON and RECTUM of affected individuals by early adulthood.. alleles defined as following: Variant forms of the same gene, occupying the same locus on homologous CHROMOSOMES, and governing the variants in production of the same gene product.. polyposis defined as following: A condition characterized by the presence of numerous polyps.. MSH6 defined as following: DNA mismatch repair protein Msh6 (1360 aa, ~153 kDa) is encoded by the human MSH6 gene. This protein is involved in the DNA damage response.. mutations defined as following: The result of any gain, loss or alteration of the sequences comprising a gene, including all sequences transcribed into RNA.. HR defined as following: The rapid, localized death of plant cells in response to invasion by a pathogen. [ISBN:0582227089]. variants defined as following: An alteration or difference from a norm or standard.. EPHB6 defined as following: Ephrin type-B receptor 6 (1021 aa, ~111 kDa) is encoded by the human EPHB6 gene. This protein plays a role in the regulation of ephrin-B signaling pathways.. genetic alterations defined as following: Any detectable and heritable change in the genetic material that causes a change in the GENOTYPE and which is transmitted to daughter cells and to succeeding generations..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_231", "sentence1": "Do orphan and gene related CpG islands follow power-law-like distributions?", "sentence2": "Orphan and gene related CpG Islands follow power-law-like distributions in several genomes: evidence of function-related and taxonomy-related modes of distribution., Here, an investigation of their distributional characteristics in a variety of genomes is undertaken for both whole CGI populations as well as for CGI subsets that lie away from known genes (gene-unrelated or \"orphan\" CGIs). In both cases power-law-like linearity in double logarithmic scale is found., Our results on power-law-like linearity found in orphan CGI populations suggest that the observed distributional pattern is independent of the analogous pattern that protein coding segments were reported to follow. The power-law-like patterns in the genomic distributions of CGIs described herein are found to be compatible with several other features of the composition, abundance or functional role of CGIs reported in the current literature across several genomes, on the basis of the proposed evolutionary model., Our results on power-law-like linearity found in orphan CGI populations suggest that the observed distributional pattern is independent of the analogous pattern that protein coding segments were reported to follow., The power-law-like patterns in the genomic distributions of CGIs described herein are found to be compatible with several other features of the composition, abundance or functional role of CGIs reported in the current literature across several genomes, on the basis of the proposed evolutionary model., Our results on power-law-like linearity found in orphan CGI populations suggest that the observed distributional pattern is independent of the analogous pattern that protein coding segments were reported to follow. , Our results on power-law-like linearity found in orphan CGI populations suggest that the observed distributional pattern is independent of the analogous pattern that protein coding segments were reported to follow. The power-law-like patterns in the genomic distributions of CGIs described herein are found to be compatible with several other features of the composition, abundance or functional role of CGIs reported in the current literature across several genomes, on the basis of the proposed evolutionary model., Initially, they were assigned the role of transcriptional regulation of protein-coding genes, especially the house-keeping ones, while more recently there is found evidence that they are involved in several other functions as well, which might include regulation of the expression of RNA genes, DNA replication etc. Here, an investigation of their distributional characteristics in a variety of genomes is undertaken for both whole CGI populations as well as for CGI subsets that lie away from known genes (gene-unrelated or \"orphan\" CGIs). In both cases power-law-like linearity in double logarithmic scale is found. , Our results on power-law-like linearity found in orphan CGI populations suggest that the observed distributional pattern is independent of the analogous pattern that protein coding segments were reported to follow., The power-law-like patterns in the genomic distributions of CGIs described herein are found to be compatible with several other features of the composition, abundance or functional role of CGIs reported in the current literature across several genomes, on the basis of the proposed evolutionary model., Our results on power-law-like linearity found in orphan CGI populations suggest that the observed distributional pattern is independent of the analogous pattern that protein coding segments were reported to follow.[SEP]Definitions: gene defined as following: A category of nucleic acid sequences that function as units of heredity and which code for the basic instructions for the development, reproduction, and maintenance of organisms..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_3337", "sentence1": "Are Spinal Intradural Primary Malignant Peripheral Nerve Sheath Tumors(MPNST) rare in neurofibromatosis patients?", "sentence2": "Spinal intradural primary malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumors (MPNST) are rare in patients without neurofibromatosis., Primary malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumors (MPNSTs) are extremely rare in patients without a history of neurofibromatosis; only 18 cases have been reported in the English-language literature to this point.[SEP]Relations: malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor has relations: disease_disease with tumor of cranial and spinal nerves, disease_disease with tumor of cranial and spinal nerves, disease_disease with peripheral nervous system cancer, disease_disease with peripheral nervous system cancer, disease_disease with nerve sheath neoplasm, disease_disease with nerve sheath neoplasm, disease_disease with malignant melanocytic neoplasm of the peripheral nerve sheath, disease_disease with malignant melanocytic neoplasm of the peripheral nerve sheath, disease_disease with malignant glandular tumor of peripheral nerve sheath, disease_disease with malignant glandular tumor of peripheral nerve sheath. Definitions: MPNST defined as following: A malignant neurilemmoma with nerve sheath differentiation. It is often associated with NEUROFIBROMATOSIS 1 and RHABDOMYOSARCOMA.. neurofibromatosis defined as following: Tumor suppressor genes located on the long arm of human chromosome 17 in the region 17q11.2. Mutation of these genes is thought to cause NEUROFIBROMATOSIS 1, Watson syndrome, and LEOPARD syndrome..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_3408", "sentence1": "Is cathepsin L active in endosomes?", "sentence2": "Cathepsin L in the Late Endosome/Lysosome, endosomal cathepsin L, Immunofluorescence and immunoblotting investigations revealed the presence of cathepsin L in the nuclear compartment in addition to its expected endo-lysosomal localization in colorectal carcinoma cells., cleavage by the endosomal/lysosomal protease cathepsin L[SEP]Definitions: endosomes defined as following: Cytoplasmic vesicles formed when COATED VESICLES shed their CLATHRIN coat. Endosomes internalize macromolecules bound by receptors on the cell surface..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_137", "sentence1": "Is GAGA associated with nucleosome-free regions (NFR)?", "sentence2": "One of the three nuclease hypersensitive sites in the Fab-7 boundary, HS1, contains multiple consensus-binding sequences for the GAGA factor, a protein known to be involved in the formation and/or maintenance of nucleosome-free regions of chromatin., The HS3 sequence contains consensus binding sites for the GAGA factor, a protein implicated in the formation of nucleosome-free regions of chromatin, and Pleiohomeotic (Pho), a Polycomb group protein that is related to the mammalian transcription factor YY1., The interactions of GAGA factor and heat shock factor with their binding sites in chromatin occurred in two modes. Their interaction with binding sites in the nucleosome-free regions did not require ATP. In the presence of ATP both factors interacted also with nucleosomal binding sites, causing nucleosome rearrangements and a refinement of nucleosome positions, While chromatin remodeling upon transcription factor interaction has previously been interpreted to involve nucleosome disruption, the data suggest energy-dependent nucleosome sliding as main principle of chromatin reorganization., These (CT)n repeats are associated with a nonhistone protein(s) in vivo and are bound by a purified Drosophila protein, the GAGA factor, in vitro., This (CT)n element appears to contribute to formation of the wild-type chromatin structure of hsp26, an organized nucleosome array that leaves the HSEs in nucleosome-free, DNase I-hypersensitive (DH) site, The HS3 sequence contains consensus binding sites for the GAGA factor, a protein implicated in the formation of nucleosome-free regions of chromatin, and Pleiohomeotic (Pho), a Polycomb group protein that is related to the mammalian transcription factor YY1., One of the three nuclease hypersensitive sites in the Fab-7 boundary, HS1, contains multiple consensus-binding sequences for the GAGA factor, a protein known to be involved in the formation and/or maintenance of nucleosome-free regions of chromatin., The iab-7 polycomb response element maps to a nucleosome-free region of chromatin and requires both GAGA and pleiohomeotic for silencing activity., The HS3 sequence contains consensus binding sites for the GAGA factor, a protein implicated in the formation of nucleosome-free regions of chromatin, and Pleiohomeotic (Pho), a Polycomb group protein that is related to the mammalian transcription factor YY1. [SEP]Relations: nucleosome mobilization has relations: bioprocess_protein with POLE3, bioprocess_protein with POLE3, bioprocess_bioprocess with nucleosome organization, bioprocess_bioprocess with nucleosome organization, bioprocess_protein with INO80, bioprocess_protein with INO80, bioprocess_protein with ARID1A, bioprocess_protein with ARID1A, bioprocess_protein with BPTF, bioprocess_protein with BPTF. Definitions: leaves defined as following: Expanded structures, usually green, of vascular plants, characteristically consisting of a bladelike expansion attached to a stem, and functioning as the principal organ of photosynthesis and transpiration. (American Heritage Dictionary, 2d ed). Pho defined as following: A condition chiefly characterized by thickening of the skin of the head and distal extremities, deep folds and furrows of the skin of the forehead, cheeks, and scalp, SEBORRHEA; HYPERHIDROSIS; periostosis of the long bones, digital clubbing, and spadelike enlargement of the hands and feet. It is more prevalent in the male, and is usually first evident during adolescence. Inheritance is primarily autosomal recessive, but an autosomal dominant form exists.. binding sites defined as following: The parts of a macromolecule that directly participate in its specific combination with another molecule.. transcription factor defined as following: Endogenous substances, usually proteins, which are effective in the initiation, stimulation, or termination of the genetic transcription process.. Polycomb group protein defined as following: A family of proteins that play a role in CHROMATIN REMODELING. They are best known for silencing HOX GENES and the regulation of EPIGENETIC PROCESSES.. YY1 defined as following: This gene is involved in the negative regulation of transcription.. HS1 defined as following: Human EEF1A2 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 20q13.3 and is approximately 11 kb in length. This allele, which encodes elongation factor 1-alpha 2 protein, is involved in the promotion of protein elongation. The gene is expressed aberrantly at elevated levels in many ovarian cancers.. nucleosome defined as following: A complex comprised of DNA wound around a multisubunit core and associated proteins, which forms the primary packing unit of DNA into higher order structures. [GOC:elh]. ATP defined as following: An adenine nucleotide containing three phosphate groups esterified to the sugar moiety. In addition to its crucial roles in metabolism adenosine triphosphate is a neurotransmitter.. protein defined as following: Protein; provides access to the encoding gene via its GenBank Accession, the taxon in which this instance of the protein occurs, and references to homologous proteins in other species.. chromatin defined as following: The ordered and organized complex of DNA, protein, and sometimes RNA, that forms the chromosome. [GOC:elh, PMID:20404130]. mammalian defined as following: Warm-blooded vertebrate animals belonging to the class Mammalia, including all that possess hair and suckle their young.. NFR defined as following: The quotient of the number of particular entities (constituents) and the number of all constituents in the system..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_3151", "sentence1": "Can oleuropein aglycone interfere with amyloid aggregation?", "sentence2": "Oleuropein, a phenolic secoiroid glycoside, is the main polyphenol in the olive oil. It has been reported that the aglycone form of Oleuropein (OleA) interferes in vitro and in vivo with amyloid aggregation of a number of proteins/peptides involved in amyloid, particularly neurodegenerative, diseases avoiding the growth of toxic oligomers and displaying protection against cognitive deterioration.[SEP]Relations: Abnormality of immune serum protein physiology has relations: phenotype_phenotype with Abnormal cytokine signaling, phenotype_phenotype with Abnormal cytokine signaling. Motor deterioration has relations: disease_phenotype_positive with PRKAR1B-related neurodegenerative dementia with intermediate filaments, disease_phenotype_positive with PRKAR1B-related neurodegenerative dementia with intermediate filaments, disease_phenotype_positive with neuronal ceroid lipofuscinosis, disease_phenotype_positive with neuronal ceroid lipofuscinosis, disease_phenotype_positive with infantile neuronal ceroid lipofuscinosis, disease_phenotype_positive with infantile neuronal ceroid lipofuscinosis, disease_phenotype_positive with spinocerebellar ataxia, disease_phenotype_positive with spinocerebellar ataxia. Definitions: polyphenol defined as following: A large class of organic compounds having more than one PHENOL group.. OleA defined as following: A plant genus of the family Oleaceae. The olive fruit is the source of OLIVE OIL.. amyloid defined as following: A family of apolipoproteins that are associated with high-density lipoprotein particles in the serum. These proteins may play a role in both the acute-phase of inflammation and in cholesterol transport..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_4065", "sentence1": "Is ofatumumab effective for multiple sclerosis?", "sentence2": "Anti-CD20 Agents for Multiple Sclerosis: Spotlight on Ocrelizumab and Ofatumumab., Ofatumumab, a fully human anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody, that binds a distinct epitope, has been further investigated in phase 3 trials for relapsing forms of MS. , Conclusion: Ofatumumab offers beneficial outcomes for RMS by reducing relapse and disability progression risk., Currently, new therapies are emerging that promise more convenience and an improved safety profile (ofatumumab) or remyelinating potential with clinical improvement (opicinumab)., The emerging B-cell depleting therapies, particularly anti-CD20 agents such as rituximab, ocrelizumab, as well as the fully human ofatumumab, have shown promising clinical and magnetic resonance imaging benefit., AREAS COVERED: In this manuscript, we review mechanisms of action, efficacy, safety, and tolerance of anti-CD20 therapies for MS, including rituximab, ocrelizumab, and ofatumumab., Another CD20 directed mAb, ofatumumab, is in phase 3. , Ofatumumab offers beneficial outcomes for RMS by reducing relapse and disability progression risk., CONCLUSION: Imaging showed that all subcutaneous ofatumumab doses demonstrated efficacy (most robust: cumulative doses ≥30 mg/12 wk), with a safety profile consistent with existing ofatumumab data., CONCLUSIONS: Among patients with multiple sclerosis, ofatumumab was associated with lower annualized relapse rates than teriflunomide. [SEP]Relations: Ofatumumab has relations: drug_drug with Denosumab, drug_drug with Denosumab, drug_drug with Crotedumab, drug_drug with Crotedumab, drug_drug with Urelumab, drug_drug with Urelumab, drug_drug with Afelimomab, drug_drug with Afelimomab, drug_drug with Fasinumab, drug_drug with Fasinumab. Definitions: ocrelizumab defined as following: A Fc-modified, humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the B-cell CD20 cell surface antigen, with immunosuppressive activity. Ocrelizumab binds to CD20 on the surfaces of B-cells, triggering complement-dependent cell lysis (CDCL) and antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) of B-cells overexpressing CD20. The CD20 antigen, a non-glycosylated cell surface phosphoprotein that acts as a calcium ion channel, is found on over 90% of B-cells, B-cell lymphomas, and other lymphoid tumor cells of B-cell origin; it plays an important role in B-cell functioning.. ofatumumab defined as following: A fully human, high-affinity IgG1 monoclonal antibody directed against the B cell CD20 cell surface antigen with potential antineoplastic activity. Ofatumumab binds specifically to CD20 on the surfaces of B cells, triggering complement-dependent cell lysis (CDCL) and antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) of B cells overexpressing CD20. The CD20 antigen, found on over 90% of B cells, B cell lymphomas, and other B cells of lymphoid tumors of B cell origin, is a non-glycosylated cell surface phosphoprotein that acts as a calcium ion channel; it is exclusively expressed on B cells during most stages of B cell development.. CD20 defined as following: Human MS4A1 wild-type allele is located within 11q12 and is approximately 13 kb in length. This allele, which encodes B-lymphocyte antigen CD20 protein, plays a role in the development and differentiation of B-cells into plasma cells.. human defined as following: Members of the species Homo sapiens.. rituximab defined as following: A murine-derived monoclonal antibody and ANTINEOPLASTIC AGENT that binds specifically to the CD20 ANTIGEN and is used in the treatment of LEUKEMIA; LYMPHOMA and RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS.. multiple sclerosis defined as following: An autoimmune disorder mainly affecting young adults and characterized by destruction of myelin in the central nervous system. Pathologic findings include multiple sharply demarcated areas of demyelination throughout the white matter of the central nervous system. Clinical manifestations include visual loss, extra-ocular movement disorders, paresthesias, loss of sensation, weakness, dysarthria, spasticity, ataxia, and bladder dysfunction. The usual pattern is one of recurrent attacks followed by partial recovery (see MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS, RELAPSING-REMITTING), but acute fulminating and chronic progressive forms (see MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS, CHRONIC PROGRESSIVE) also occur. (Adams et al., Principles of Neurology, 6th ed, p903). RMS defined as following: A statistical measure of the magnitude of a set of variable values. The root mean square is the square root of the mean value for the squares of the original values..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_3711", "sentence1": "Was vivotif licensed in Europe and the US at the same time?", "sentence2": "Vivotif® is an oral live attenuated vaccine which contains a mutated strain of Salmonella (Ty21a) and reproduces the natural infection. The vaccine was first licensed in Europe in 1983 and in the US in 1989, and over the years it has proved efficacious and safe.[SEP]Relations: salmonellosis has relations: disease_protein with HLA-DRB1, disease_protein with HLA-DRB1, disease_disease with invasive non-typhoidal salmonellosis, disease_disease with invasive non-typhoidal salmonellosis, disease_disease with paratyphoid fever, disease_disease with paratyphoid fever, disease_disease with salmonella infections, animal, disease_disease with salmonella infections, animal, disease_disease with typhoid fever, disease_disease with typhoid fever. Definitions: Salmonella defined as following: A genus of gram-negative, facultatively anaerobic, rod-shaped bacteria that utilizes citrate as a sole carbon source. It is pathogenic for humans, causing enteric fevers, gastroenteritis, and bacteremia. Food poisoning is the most common clinical manifestation. Organisms within this genus are separated on the basis of antigenic characteristics, sugar fermentation patterns, and bacteriophage susceptibility..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_3996", "sentence1": "Are mucin overexpression associated with disease?", "sentence2": "The pathological mechanism underlying hepatolithiasis is closely related to bacterial infections of the intrahepatic bile duct, followed by chronic inflammation and the overexpression of mucin 5AC (MUC5AC)., MUC1 is a membrane glycoprotein, which in adenocarninomas is overexpressed and exhibits truncated O-glycosylation. , Mucin 13 (MUC13) is reportedly overexpressed in human malignancies., Inflammation causes MUC1 overexpression and hypoglycosylation. [SEP]Relations: Protein S human has relations: drug_drug with Mitomycin, drug_drug with Mitomycin, drug_drug with Mitomycin, drug_drug with Mitomycin, drug_drug with Obinutuzumab, drug_drug with Obinutuzumab, drug_drug with Obinutuzumab, drug_drug with Obinutuzumab. bladder calculus has relations: disease_disease with urinary bladder disease, disease_disease with urinary bladder disease. Definitions: MUC1 defined as following: Human MUC1 wild-type allele is located within 1q21 and is approximately 121 kb in length. This allele, which encodes mucin-like protein 1, plays a role in both cellular defense by binding pathogens and in cell signaling.. mucin defined as following: Mucin-1 (1255 aa, ~122 kDa) is encoded by the human MUC1 gene. This protein plays a role in both signaling and cell adhesion.. human defined as following: Members of the species Homo sapiens.. membrane glycoprotein defined as following: Glycoproteins found on the membrane or surface of cells.. MUC5AC defined as following: Mucin-5AC (5030 aa, ~527 kDa) is encoded by the human MUC5AC gene. This protein plays a role in the defense of the gastrointestinal and respiratory tracts from microorganism infection.. intrahepatic bile duct defined as following: Passages within the liver for the conveyance of bile. Includes right and left hepatic ducts even though these may join outside the liver to form the common hepatic duct.. hepatolithiasis defined as following: The presence of solitary or multiple stones in the intrahepatic bile ducts.. disease defined as following: A definite pathologic process with a characteristic set of signs and symptoms. It may affect the whole body or any of its parts, and its etiology, pathology, and prognosis may be known or unknown..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_1139", "sentence1": "Are ACTA1 (alpha actin) and NEB (nebulin) genes related to nemaline myopathy?", "sentence2": "Nemaline myopathy (NM) is a group of congenital myopathies, characterized by the presence of distinct rod-like inclusions \"nemaline bodies\" in the sarcoplasm of skeletal muscle fibers. To date, ACTA1, NEB, TPM3, TPM2, TNNT1, and CFL2 have been found to cause NM., Nemaline myopathy (NM) is the most common congenital myopathy and is caused by mutations in various genes including NEB (nebulin), TPM2 (beta-tropomyosin), TPM3 (gamma-tropomyosin), and ACTA1 (skeletal alpha-actin). 20-25% of NM cases carry ACTA1 defects and these particular mutations usually induce substitutions of single residues in the actin protein. , Nemaline myopathy (NM) is a genetically and clinically heterogenous muscle disorder, which is myopathologically characterized by nemaline bodies. Mutations in six genes have been reported to cause NM: Nebulin (NEB Pelin 1999), alpha-skeletal muscle actin (ACTA1 Nowak 1999), alpha-slow tropomyosin (TPM3 Laing 1995), beta-tropomyosin (TPM2 Donner 2002), slow troponin T (TNNT1 Johnston 2000) and cofilin 2 (CFL2 Agrawal 2007). The majority of cases are due to mutation in NEB and ACTA1. , Nemaline myopathy is a heterogenous form of congenital myopathy characterised by a variable spectrum of clinical features, predominated in the severe form by profound muscle hypotonia and weakness accompanied by respiratory insufficiency. The clinical variability, with differing age of onset and severity of symptoms makes the diagnosis of nemaline myopathy difficult in some cases. Severe forms of nemaline myopathy may be caused by mutation of a number of different genes: skeletal muscle actin (ACTA1), nebulin (NEB) and alpha-tropomyosin (TPM3), all of which encode components of the sarcomeric thin filaments of skeletal muscle. , Most nemaline myopathy patients have mutations in the nebulin (NEB) or skeletal muscle alpha-actin (ACTA1) genes. , We report muscle MRI findings of 10 patients from 8 families with nemaline myopathy. Patients with involvement of the nebulin (NEB) gene showed a consistent pattern of selective muscle involvement corresponding to clinical severity., Patients with nemaline myopathy secondary to mutations in the skeletal muscle alpha-actin (ACTA1) gene showed diffuse involvement of thigh and leg muscles with relative sparing of the gastrocnemii., Congenital myopathies are clinical and genetic heterogeneous disorders characterized by skeletal muscle weakness ranging in severity. Three major forms have been identified: actin myopathy, intranuclear rod myopathy, and nemaline myopathy. Nemaline myopathy is the most common of these myopathies and is further subdivided into seven groups according to severity, progressiveness, and age of onset. At present, five genes have been linked to congenital myopathies. These include alpha-actin (ACTA1), alpha- and beta-tropomyosin (TPM3 and TPM2), troponin T (TNNT1), and nebulin (NEB). , Nemaline myopathy is a structural congenital myopathy which may show both autosomal dominant and autosomal recessive inheritance patterns. Mutations in three different genes have been identified as the cause of nemaline myopathy: the gene for slow alpha-tropomyosin 3 (TPM3) at 1q22-23, the nebulin gene (NEB) at 2q21.1-q22, and the actin gene (ACTA1) at 1q42., Nemaline myopathy is a clinically and genetically heterogeneous condition. The clinical spectrum ranges from severe cases with antenatal or neonatal onset and early death to late onset cases with only slow progression. Three genes are known to cause nemaline myopathy: the genes for nebulin (NEB) on chromosome 2q22, slow alpha-tropomyosin (TPM3) on chromosome 1q21 and skeletal muscle alpha-actin (ACTA1) on chromosome 1q42. , Nemaline myopathy (NM) is the most common congenital myopathy and is caused by mutations in various genes including NEB (nebulin), TPM2 (beta-tropomyosin), TPM3 (gamma-tropomyosin), and ACTA1 (skeletal alpha-actin)., Three genes are known to cause nemaline myopathy: the genes for nebulin (NEB) on chromosome 2q22, slow alpha-tropomyosin (TPM3) on chromosome 1q21 and skeletal muscle alpha-actin (ACTA1) on chromosome 1q42., Five genes have now been associated with nemaline myopathy: alpha-tropomyosin-3 (TPM3), alpha-actin (ACTA1), nebulin (NEB), beta-tropomysin (TPM2) and troponin T (TNNT1)., Most nemaline myopathy patients have mutations in the nebulin (NEB) or skeletal muscle alpha-actin (ACTA1) genes., Severe forms of nemaline myopathy may be caused by mutation of a number of different genes: skeletal muscle actin (ACTA1), nebulin (NEB) and alpha-tropomyosin (TPM3), all of which encode components of the sarcomeric thin filaments of skeletal muscle., Five genes have now been associated with nemaline myopathy: alpha-tropomyosin-3 (TPM3), alpha-actin (ACTA1), nebulin (NEB), beta-tropomysin (TPM2) and troponin T (TNNT1)., Three genes are known to cause nemaline myopathy: the genes for nebulin (NEB) on chromosome 2q22, slow alpha-tropomyosin (TPM3) on chromosome 1q21 and skeletal muscle alpha-actin (ACTA1) on chromosome 1q42., Mutations in three different genes have been identified as the cause of nemaline myopathy: the gene for slow alpha-tropomyosin 3 (TPM3) at 1q22-23, the nebulin gene (NEB) at 2q21.1-q22, and the actin gene (ACTA1) at 1q42., Most nemaline myopathy patients have mutations in the nebulin (NEB) or skeletal muscle alpha-actin (ACTA1) genes, Five genes have now been associated with nemaline myopathy: alpha-tropomyosin-3 (TPM3), alpha-actin (ACTA1), nebulin (NEB), beta-tropomysin (TPM2) and troponin T (TNNT1), Three genes are known to cause nemaline myopathy: the genes for nebulin (NEB) on chromosome 2q22, slow alpha-tropomyosin (TPM3) on chromosome 1q21 and skeletal muscle alpha-actin (ACTA1) on chromosome 1q42, Nemaline myopathy (NM) is the most common congenital myopathy and is caused by mutations in various genes including NEB (nebulin), TPM2 (beta-tropomyosin), TPM3 (gamma-tropomyosin), and ACTA1 (skeletal alpha-actin), Five genes have now been associated with nemaline myopathy: alpha-tropomyosin-3 (TPM3), alpha-actin (ACTA1), nebulin (NEB), beta-tropomysin (TPM2) and troponin T (TNNT1), Nemaline myopathy (NM) is the most common congenital myopathy and is caused by mutations in various genes including NEB (nebulin), TPM2 (beta-tropomyosin), TPM3 (gamma-tropomyosin), and ACTA1 (skeletal alpha-actin), Mutations in three different genes have been identified as the cause of nemaline myopathy: the gene for slow alpha-tropomyosin 3 (TPM3) at 1q22-23, the nebulin gene (NEB) at 2q21.1-q22, and the actin gene (ACTA1) at 1q42, Three genes are known to cause nemaline myopathy: the genes for nebulin (NEB) on chromosome 2q22, slow alpha-tropomyosin (TPM3) on chromosome 1q21 and skeletal muscle alpha-actin (ACTA1) on chromosome 1q42, Most nemaline myopathy patients have mutations in the nebulin (NEB) or skeletal muscle alpha-actin (ACTA1) genes, Severe forms of nemaline myopathy may be caused by mutation of a number of different genes: skeletal muscle actin (ACTA1), nebulin (NEB) and alpha-tropomyosin (TPM3), all of which encode components of the sarcomeric thin filaments of skeletal muscle[SEP]Relations: nemaline myopathy has relations: disease_protein with ACTA1, disease_protein with ACTA1, disease_disease with alpha-actinopathy, disease_disease with alpha-actinopathy, disease_protein with NEB, disease_protein with NEB, disease_disease with qualitative or quantitative defects of alpha-actin, disease_disease with qualitative or quantitative defects of alpha-actin. alpha-actinopathy has relations: disease_disease with nemaline myopathy, disease_disease with nemaline myopathy. Definitions: troponin T defined as following: The determination of the amount of troponin T present in a blood sample.. chromosome defined as following: A specific pair of human chromosomes in group A (CHROMOSOMES, HUMAN, 1-3) of the human chromosome classification.. weakness defined as following: Clinical sign or symptom manifested as debility, or lack or loss of strength and energy.. TPM3 defined as following: Tropomyosin alpha-3 chain (284 aa, ~33 kDa) is encoded by the human TPM3 gene. This protein plays a role in the modulation of muscle contraction.. cofilin 2 defined as following: A member of the cofilin family of proteins that is expressed in MUSCLE CELLS. It has ACTIN depolymerization activity that is dependent on HYDROGEN-ION CONCENTRATION.. muscle hypotonia defined as following: A diminution of the skeletal muscle tone marked by a diminished resistance to passive stretching.. muscle defined as following: Contractile tissue that produces movement in animals.. NM defined as following: A group of inherited congenital myopathic conditions characterized clinically by weakness, hypotonia, and prominent hypoplasia of proximal muscles including the face. Muscle biopsy reveals large numbers of rod-shaped structures beneath the muscle fiber plasma membrane. This disorder is genetically heterogeneous and may occasionally present in adults. (Adams et al., Principles of Neurology, 6th ed, p1453). genetic defined as following: Having to do with information that is passed from parents to offspring through genes in sperm and egg cells.. Mutations defined as following: The result of any gain, loss or alteration of the sequences comprising a gene, including all sequences transcribed into RNA.. alpha-tropomyosin defined as following: Tropomyosin alpha-1 chain (284 aa, ~33 kDa) is encoded by the human TPM1 gene. This protein plays a role in muscle contraction.. sarcoplasm defined as following: The cytoplasm of a muscle cell; includes the sarcoplasmic reticulum. [ISBN:0198547684]. genes defined as following: A category of nucleic acid sequences that function as units of heredity and which code for the basic instructions for the development, reproduction, and maintenance of organisms.. TPM2 defined as following: This gene plays a role in both muscle contraction and actin binding.. myopathies defined as following: Acquired, familial, and congenital disorders of SKELETAL MUSCLE and SMOOTH MUSCLE.. NEB defined as following: The mitotic cell cycle process in which the controlled partial or complete breakdown of the nuclear membranes during occurs during mitosis. [GOC:bf, PMID:32848252]. autosomal dominant defined as following: A rare distal arthrogryposis syndrome with characteristics of multiple pterygia (typically involving the neck, axilla and popliteal areas), joint contractures, ptosis, camptodactyly of the hands with hypoplastic flexion creases, vertebral fusions, severe scoliosis and short stature. There is evidence this disease is caused by heterozygous mutation in the MYH3 gene on chromosome 17p13.. respiratory insufficiency defined as following: Failure to adequately provide oxygen to cells of the body and to remove excess carbon dioxide from them. (Stedman, 25th ed). nemaline myopathy defined as following: A type of nemaline myopathy (NM) only observed in several families of the Amish community.. mutation defined as following: Any transmissible change in the genetic material of an organism, which can result from radiation, viral infection, transposition, treatment with mutagenic chemicals and errors during DNA replication or meiosis. The effects of mutation range from single base changes to loss or gain of complete chromosomes. As many of the simpler alterations to DNA may be repaired, such changes are only heritable once the change is fixed in the DNA by the process of replication. Mutations may be associated with genetic diversity or with pathologies including cancer.. 1q42 defined as following: A chromosome band present on 1q.", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_3237", "sentence1": "Is the crystal structure of Pim-1 available?", "sentence2": "Recent crystallographic studies of Pim-1 have identified unique structural features but have not provided insight into how the kinase recognizes its target substrates. , a co-crystal structure of lead molecule (HS38) in complex with DAPK3, a dual Pim/DAPK3 inhibitor (HS56), The crystal structure of this compound with PIM1 confirmed the predicted binding mode and protein-ligand interactions except those in the acidic ribose pocket. , Using the determined X-ray crystal structure of PIM1 complexed to the compound 1-R as a control, we discuss the importance of including the protein flexibility inherent in the ensemble docking protocol, for the accuracy of the structure prediction of the bound state. , Here, we describe the crystal structure of Pim1 in complex with a newly developed pyrido[4,3-d]pyrimidine-derivative inhibitor (SKI-O-068)., Crystallographic and docking data analyses have been undertaken using inhibitor complexes , The crystal structures of Pim1 in apo form and bound with AMPPNP have been solved[SEP]Relations: Protein C has relations: drug_drug with Pivhydrazine, drug_drug with Pivhydrazine, drug_drug with Peginterferon beta-1a, drug_drug with Peginterferon beta-1a, drug_drug with Piroxicam, drug_drug with Piroxicam, drug_drug with Pirlindole, drug_drug with Pirlindole, drug_drug with Peginterferon alfa-2b, drug_drug with Peginterferon alfa-2b. Definitions: AMPPNP defined as following: 5'-Adenylic acid, monoanhydride with imidodiphosphoric acid. An analog of ATP, in which the oxygen atom bridging the beta to the gamma phosphate is replaced by a nitrogen atom. It is a potent competitive inhibitor of soluble and membrane-bound mitochondrial ATPase and also inhibits ATP-dependent reactions of oxidative phosphorylation.. protein defined as following: Protein; provides access to the encoding gene via its GenBank Accession, the taxon in which this instance of the protein occurs, and references to homologous proteins in other species.. kinase defined as following: Mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase kinases (MAPKKKs) are serine-threonine protein kinases that initiate protein kinase signaling cascades. They phosphorylate MITOGEN-ACTIVATED PROTEIN KINASE KINASES; (MAPKKs) which in turn phosphorylate MITOGEN-ACTIVATED PROTEIN KINASES; (MAPKs)..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_2936", "sentence1": "Can midostaurin inhibit angiogenesis?", "sentence2": "Midostaurin was a prototype kinase inhibitor, originally developed as a protein kinase C inhibitor and subsequently as an angiogenesis inhibitor, based on its inhibition of vascular endothelial growth factor receptor.[SEP]Relations: Midostaurin has relations: drug_drug with Estradiol, drug_drug with Estradiol, drug_drug with Antipyrine, drug_drug with Antipyrine, drug_drug with Aldosterone, drug_drug with Aldosterone, drug_drug with Sparteine, drug_drug with Sparteine, drug_drug with Azelastine, drug_drug with Azelastine. Definitions: vascular endothelial growth factor receptor defined as following: A 180-kDa VEGF receptor found primarily in endothelial cells that is essential for vasculogenesis and vascular maintenance. It is also known as Flt-1 (fms-like tyrosine kinase receptor-1). A soluble, alternatively spliced isoform of the receptor may serve as a binding protein that regulates the availability of various ligands for VEGF receptor binding and signal transduction.. protein kinase C defined as following: An serine-threonine protein kinase that requires the presence of physiological concentrations of CALCIUM and membrane PHOSPHOLIPIDS. The additional presence of DIACYLGLYCEROLS markedly increases its sensitivity to both calcium and phospholipids. The sensitivity of the enzyme can also be increased by PHORBOL ESTERS and it is believed that protein kinase C is the receptor protein of tumor-promoting phorbol esters.. Midostaurin defined as following: A synthetic indolocarbazole multikinase inhibitor with potential antiangiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Midostaurin inhibits protein kinase C alpha (PKCalpha), vascular endothelial growth factor receptor 2 (VEGFR2), c-kit, platelet-derived growth factor receptor (PDGFR) and FMS-like tyrosine kinase 3 (FLT3) tyrosine kinases, which may result in disruption of the cell cycle, inhibition of proliferation, apoptosis, and inhibition of angiogenesis in susceptible tumors.. midostaurin defined as following: A synthetic indolocarbazole multikinase inhibitor with potential antiangiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Midostaurin inhibits protein kinase C alpha (PKCalpha), vascular endothelial growth factor receptor 2 (VEGFR2), c-kit, platelet-derived growth factor receptor (PDGFR) and FMS-like tyrosine kinase 3 (FLT3) tyrosine kinases, which may result in disruption of the cell cycle, inhibition of proliferation, apoptosis, and inhibition of angiogenesis in susceptible tumors..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_3402", "sentence1": "Does promoter shape vary across populations?", "sentence2": "Promoter shape varies across populations and affects promoter evolution and expression noise., Animal promoters initiate transcription either at precise positions (narrow promoters) or dispersed regions (broad promoters), a distinction referred to as promoter shape. Although highly conserved, the functional properties of promoters with different shapes and the genetic basis of their evolution remain unclear. Here we used natural genetic variation across a panel of 81 Drosophila lines to measure changes in transcriptional start site (TSS) usage, identifying thousands of genetic variants affecting transcript levels (strength) or the distribution of TSSs within a promoter (shape). Our results identify promoter shape as a molecular trait that can evolve independently of promoter strength. Broad promoters typically harbor shape-associated variants, with signatures of adaptive selection. Single-cell measurements demonstrate that variants modulating promoter shape often increase expression noise, whereas heteroallelic interactions with other promoter variants alleviate these effects. These results uncover new functional properties of natural promoters and suggest the minimization of expression noise as an important factor in promoter evolution., Promoter shape varies across populations and affects promoter evolution and expression noise[SEP]Relations: promoter clearance from RNA polymerase I promoter has relations: bioprocess_bioprocess with promoter clearance during DNA-templated transcription, bioprocess_bioprocess with promoter clearance during DNA-templated transcription, bioprocess_bioprocess with promoter clearance from RNA polymerase I promoter for nuclear large rRNA transcript, bioprocess_bioprocess with promoter clearance from RNA polymerase I promoter for nuclear large rRNA transcript. HIV Transcription Initiation has relations: pathway_protein with POLR2G, pathway_protein with POLR2G, pathway_protein with POLR2J, pathway_protein with POLR2J, pathway_protein with CCNH, pathway_protein with CCNH. Definitions: variants defined as following: An alteration or difference from a norm or standard.. promoter defined as following: A DNA sequence at which RNA polymerase binds and initiates transcription.. TSS defined as following: A rare acute life-threatening systemic bacterial noncontagious illness caused by any of several related staphylococcal exotoxins. It is characterized by high fever, hypotension, rash, multi-organ dysfunction, and cutaneous desquamation during the early convalescent period. The toxins affect the host immune system, causing an exuberant and pathological host inflammatory response. Laboratory findings include leukocytosis, elevated prothrombin time, hypoalbuminemia, hypocalcemia, and pyuria.. transcriptional start site defined as following: The first nucleotide of a transcribed DNA sequence where RNA polymerase (DNA-DIRECTED RNA POLYMERASE) begins synthesizing the RNA transcript.. transcript defined as following: The initial RNA molecule produced by transcription..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_1369", "sentence1": "Are microRNA (miR) regulated through DNA methylation of their promoters?", "sentence2": "We found that Tcf3 down-regulation in the context of constitutively active Wnt signaling does not result from promoter DNA methylation but is likely to be caused by a plethora of mechanisms at both the RNA and protein level as shown by the observed decrease in activating histone marks (H3K4me3 and H3-acetylation) and the upregulation of miR-211, a novel Wnt-regulated microRNA that targets Tcf3 and attenuates early neural differentiation in mouse ESCs, ene silencing of MIR22 in acute lymphoblastic leukaemia involves histone modifications independent of promoter DNA methylation, Whereas a CpG island was identified within the promoter element of MIR22, no promoter DNA methylation was detected in these cells, xtensive promoter DNA hypermethylation and hypomethylation is associated with aberrant microRNA expression in chronic lymphocytic leukemia, Integration of DNA methylation and miRNA promoter data led to the identification of 128 recurrent miRNA targets for aberrant promoter DNA methylation, Together, our findings characterize the role of epigenetic changes in the regulation of miRNA transcription and create a repository of disease-specific promoter regions that may provide additional insights into the pathogenesis of CLL, NA methylation of microRNA genes in multiple myeloma, Recently, epigenetic dysregulation of tumor-suppressor miRNA genes by promoter DNA methylation has been implicated in human cancers, including multiple myeloma (MM), ethylation of tumor suppressor microRNAs, Dysregulation of miRNA expression involved in cancer can be triggered by multiple mechanisms including aberrant DNA methylation of the miRNA gene promoter, Of note, DNA methylation of tumor suppressor miRNAs has been implicated in various human cancers, Moreover, miRNA silencing mediated by aberrant promoter DNA methylation can potentially be reversed by hypomethylating agents, and hence may pose a new therapeutic target in cancer, In this review, the authors will focus on the aberrant methylation of miRNAs in the pathogenesis of lymphoid malignancies including chronic lymphocytic leukemia, multiple myeloma and acute lymphoblastic leukemia, Here, we review those miRNAs implicated in AD that are regulated by promoter DNA methylation and/or chromatin modifications and, which frequently direct the expression of constituents of the epigenetic machinery, concluding with the delineation of a complex epigenetic-miRNA regulatory network and its alterations in AD, Furthermore, we also discuss epigenetic dysregulation of tumor-suppressor miRNA genes by promoter DNA methylation and the interaction of DNA methylation with miRNAs involved in the regulation of HSC activation and liver fibrosi, Instead, the cell type-specific silencing of these genes is due to enhanced p21 mRNA degradation, 14-3-3sigma promoter DNA methylation and reduced processing of the miR-34a primary transcript, Some tumor-suppressive miRNAs are known to be epigenetically silenced by promoter DNA methylation in cancer, In the present study, we aimed to identify miRNA genes that are silenced by DNA hypermethylation in hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC), It was found that miR-335, which is harbored within an intron of its protein-coding host gene, MEST, was downregulated by aberrant promoter hypermethylation via further methylation assays, including methylation-specific PCR, combined bisulfite and restriction analysis, bisulfite sequencing analysis and 5-aza-2'-deoxycytidine treatment, he levels of miR-335/MEST methylation were significantly higher in 18 (90%) out of 20 primary HCC tumors, compared to their non-tumor tissue counterparts (P<0.001), In conclusion, our results indicate that expression of miR-335 is reduced by aberrant DNA methylation in HCC.[SEP]Relations: promoter clearance from RNA polymerase I promoter has relations: bioprocess_bioprocess with promoter clearance during DNA-templated transcription, bioprocess_bioprocess with promoter clearance during DNA-templated transcription, bioprocess_bioprocess with promoter clearance from RNA polymerase I promoter for nuclear large rRNA transcript, bioprocess_bioprocess with promoter clearance from RNA polymerase I promoter for nuclear large rRNA transcript. histone modification has relations: bioprocess_bioprocess with histone methylation, bioprocess_bioprocess with histone methylation, bioprocess_bioprocess with histone biotinylation, bioprocess_bioprocess with histone biotinylation. MEST has relations: bioprocess_protein with regulation of lipid storage, bioprocess_protein with regulation of lipid storage. Definitions: histone modifications defined as following: The covalent alteration of one or more amino acid residues within a histone protein. [GOC:krc]. cancer defined as following: A malignant tumor at the original site of growth.. intron defined as following: Sequences of DNA in the genes that are located between the EXONS. They are transcribed along with the exons but are removed from the primary gene transcript by RNA SPLICING to leave mature RNA. Some introns code for separate genes.. acute lymphoblastic leukemia defined as following: A type of ALL characterized by elevated levels of B-cell lymphoblasts in the bone marrow and the blood. [NCIT:C8644]. HSC defined as following: Progenitor cells from which all blood cells derived. They are found primarily in the bone marrow and also in small numbers in the peripheral blood.. CpG island defined as following: Areas of increased density of the dinucleotide sequence cytosine--phosphate diester--guanine. They form stretches of DNA several hundred to several thousand base pairs long. In humans there are about 45,000 CpG islands, mostly found at the 5' ends of genes. They are unmethylated except for those on the inactive X chromosome and some associated with imprinted genes.. CLL defined as following: A chronic leukemia characterized by abnormal B-lymphocytes and often generalized lymphadenopathy. In patients presenting predominately with blood and bone marrow involvement it is called chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL); in those predominately with enlarged lymph nodes it is called small lymphocytic lymphoma. These terms represent spectrums of the same disease.. MIR22 defined as following: This gene may be involved in the regulation of target gene transcription.. microRNA defined as following: Small double-stranded, non-protein coding RNAs, 21-25 nucleotides in length generated from single-stranded microRNA gene transcripts by the same RIBONUCLEASE III, Dicer, that produces small interfering RNAs (RNA, SMALL INTERFERING). They become part of the RNA-INDUCED SILENCING COMPLEX and repress the translation (TRANSLATION, GENETIC) of target RNA by binding to homologous 3'UTR region as an imperfect match. The small temporal RNAs (stRNAs), let-7 and lin-4, from C. elegans, are the first 2 miRNAs discovered, and are from a class of miRNAs involved in developmental timing.. Tcf3 defined as following: Human TCF7L1 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 2p11.2 and is approximately 177 kb in length. This allele, which encodes transcription factor 7-like 1 protein, is involved in Wnt pathway-dependent transcriptional regulation.. MM defined as following: A unit of concentration (molarity unit) equal to one thousandth of a mole (10E-3 mole) of solute per one liter of solution.. hepatocellular carcinoma defined as following: A primary malignant neoplasm of epithelial liver cells. It ranges from a well-differentiated tumor with EPITHELIAL CELLS indistinguishable from normal HEPATOCYTES to a poorly differentiated neoplasm. The cells may be uniform or markedly pleomorphic, or form GIANT CELLS. Several classification schemes have been suggested.. promoter defined as following: A DNA sequence at which RNA polymerase binds and initiates transcription.. 5-aza-2'-deoxycytidine defined as following: An azacitidine derivative and antineoplastic antimetabolite. It inhibits DNA methyltransferase to re-activate silent genes, limiting METASTASIS and NEOPLASM DRUG RESISTANCE. Decitabine is used in the treatment of MYELODISPLASTIC SYNDROMES, and ACUTE MYELOID LEUKEMIA.. multiple myeloma defined as following: A malignancy of mature PLASMA CELLS engaging in monoclonal immunoglobulin production. It is characterized by hyperglobulinemia, excess Bence-Jones proteins (free monoclonal IMMUNOGLOBULIN LIGHT CHAINS) in the urine, skeletal destruction, bone pain, and fractures. Other features include ANEMIA; HYPERCALCEMIA; and RENAL INSUFFICIENCY.. genes defined as following: A category of nucleic acid sequences that function as units of heredity and which code for the basic instructions for the development, reproduction, and maintenance of organisms.. miR-211 defined as following: Human MIR211 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 15q13.3 and is approximately 110 bp in length. This allele, which encodes MIR211 pre-miRNA, plays a role in gene regulation.. tumors defined as following: New abnormal growth of tissue. Malignant neoplasms show a greater degree of anaplasia and have the properties of invasion and metastasis, compared to benign neoplasms.. H3K4me3 defined as following: A post-translationally modified form of histone H3 where the lysine residue at position 4 is trimethylated. This modification may be a marker for areas of active gene expression.. RNA defined as following: A polynucleotide consisting essentially of chains with a repeating backbone of phosphate and ribose units to which nitrogenous bases are attached. RNA is unique among biological macromolecules in that it can encode genetic information, serve as an abundant structural component of cells, and also possesses catalytic activity. (Rieger et al., Glossary of Genetics: Classical and Molecular, 5th ed). human defined as following: Members of the species Homo sapiens.. p21 defined as following: A cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor that mediates TUMOR SUPPRESSOR PROTEIN P53-dependent CELL CYCLE arrest. p21 interacts with a range of CYCLIN-DEPENDENT KINASES and associates with PROLIFERATING CELL NUCLEAR ANTIGEN and CASPASE 3.. cancers defined as following: A tumor composed of atypical neoplastic, often pleomorphic cells that invade other tissues. Malignant neoplasms often metastasize to distant anatomic sites and may recur after excision. The most common malignant neoplasms are carcinomas, Hodgkin and non-Hodgkin lymphomas, leukemias, melanomas, and sarcomas.. cells defined as following: The fundamental, structural, and functional units or subunits of living organisms. They are composed of CYTOPLASM containing various ORGANELLES and a CELL MEMBRANE boundary.. NA defined as following: A wild-type zebrafish line, the stock of which was obtained from an area east of Calcutta in a district called Nadia.. promoters defined as following: A DNA sequence at which RNA polymerase binds and initiates transcription..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_356", "sentence1": "Is the yeast Μac1 transcription factor induced upon copper deficiency?", "sentence2": "Low-affinity copper transporter CTR2 is regulated by copper-sensing transcription factor Mac1p in Saccharomyces cerevisiae., The copper-depletion induced CTR2 transcription can be abrogated by genetic deletion of copper-sensing transcription factor Mac1p, Taken together, our results suggest that Mac1p can activate the expression of vacuolar copper transporter Ctr2p in response to copper deficiency, resulting in yeast resistance to copper starvation., The ablation of either MAC1 or AFT1 also abrogated CTR2 expression induced by copper depletion, Our further study revealed that exogenous Aft1p upregulates CTR2 transcription only in the presence of Mac1p, whereas exogenous Mac1p upregulates CTR2 transcription only in the presence of Aft1p., We previously reported that CTR2 can be upregulated by copper deficiency via copper-sensing transcription factor Mac1p., In Saccharomyces cerevisiae, transcriptional responses to copper deficiency are mediated by the copper-responsive transcription factor Mac1, Although Mac1 activates the transcription of genes involved in high affinity copper uptake during periods of deficiency, little is known about the mechanisms by which Mac1 senses or responds to reduced copper availability. , The catalytic activity of Sod1 is essential for Mac1 activation and promotes a regulated increase in binding of Mac1 to copper response elements in the promoter regions of genomic Mac1 target genes., In Saccharomyces cerevisiae, copper ions regulate gene expression through the two transcriptional activators, Ace1 and Mac1., Ace1 mediates copper-induced gene expression in cells exposed to stressful levels of copper salts, whereas Mac1 activates a subset of genes under copper-deficient conditions., Taken together, our results suggest that Mac1p can activate the expression of vacuolar copper transporter Ctr2p in response to copper deficiency, resulting in yeast resistance to copper starvation., In Saccharomyces cerevisiae, transcriptional responses to copper deficiency are mediated by the copper-responsive transcription factor Mac1., We previously reported that CTR2 can be upregulated by copper deficiency via copper-sensing transcription factor Mac1p., The yeast Mac1 protein is a copper-sensing transcription factor that is essential for both the activation and inactivation of genes required for high affinity copper ion transport., The copper-depletion induced CTR2 transcription can be abrogated by genetic deletion of copper-sensing transcription factor Mac1p. , Copper-mediated repression of the activation domain in the yeast Mac1p transcription factor., We previously reported that CTR2 can be upregulated by copper deficiency via copper-sensing transcription factor Mac1p. , In this study, we found that copper depletion can upregulate yeast CTR2 gene transcription while copper overload downregulate it. The copper-depletion induced CTR2 transcription can be abrogated by genetic deletion of copper-sensing transcription factor Mac1p.[SEP]Relations: Copper has relations: drug_protein with MT1F, drug_protein with MT1F, drug_protein with NME1, drug_protein with NME1, drug_protein with MT1A, drug_protein with MT1A, drug_protein with MT1M, drug_protein with MT1M, drug_protein with MTF1, drug_protein with MTF1. Definitions: copper defined as following: A heavy metal trace element with the atomic symbol Cu, atomic number 29, and atomic weight 63.55.. Sod1 defined as following: Superoxide dismutase [Cu-Zn] (154 aa, ~16 kDa) is encoded by the human SOD1 gene. This protein is involved in the conversion of superoxides into oxygen and hydrogen peroxide.. Ace1 defined as following: Human ACE wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 17q23.3 and is approximately 45 kb in length. This allele, which encodes angiotensin-converting enzyme protein, is involved in both hydrolysis and the regulation of vasoconstriction. Mutation of the gene is associated with renal tubular dysgenesis and susceptibility to ischemic stroke, microvascular complications of diabetes type 3 and diabetic end-stage renal disease.. promoter regions defined as following: DNA sequences which are recognized (directly or indirectly) and bound by a DNA-dependent RNA polymerase during the initiation of transcription. Highly conserved sequences within the promoter include the Pribnow box in bacteria and the TATA BOX in eukaryotes.. yeast defined as following: A species of the genus SACCHAROMYCES, family Saccharomycetaceae, order Saccharomycetales, known as \"baker's\" or \"brewer's\" yeast. The dried form is used as a dietary supplement.. cells defined as following: The fundamental, structural, and functional units or subunits of living organisms. They are composed of CYTOPLASM containing various ORGANELLES and a CELL MEMBRANE boundary.. copper deficiency defined as following: abnormally diminished concentration of copper in the blood.. genes defined as following: A category of nucleic acid sequences that function as units of heredity and which code for the basic instructions for the development, reproduction, and maintenance of organisms..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_3349", "sentence1": "The LINCS L1000 data set contains gene expression data for drug treated human cells, yes or no?", "sentence2": " Library of Integrated Network-based Cellular Signatures (LINCS) L1000 dataset that measured changes in GE before and after treatment of human cells with over 20 000 small-molecule compounds including most of the FDA-approved drugs., The Library of Integrated Network-based Cellular Signatures (LINCS) L1000 big data provide gene expression profiles induced by over 10 000 compounds, shRNAs, and kinase inhibitors using the L1000 platform., The Library of Integrated Cellular Signatures (LINCS) project provides comprehensive transcriptome profiling of human cell lines before and after chemical and genetic perturbations., Recently, resources such as the Library of Integrated Network-Based Cellular Signatures (LINCS) L1000 database provide gene expression profiles induced by various chemical and genetic perturbations, The library of integrated network-based cellular signatures (LINCS) L1000 data set currently comprises of over a million gene expression profiles of chemically perturbed human cell lines., The LINCS L1000 data repository contains almost two million gene expression profiles for thousands of small molecules and drugs., The GE data is from the Library of Integrated Network-based Cellular Signatures (LINCS) L1000 dataset that measured changes in GE before and after treatment of human cells with over 20 000 small-molecule compounds including most of the FDA-approved drugs.[SEP]Relations: AV node cell to bundle of His cell signaling has relations: bioprocess_protein with CACNA1G, bioprocess_protein with CACNA1G, bioprocess_bioprocess with cell-cell signaling involved in cardiac conduction, bioprocess_bioprocess with cell-cell signaling involved in cardiac conduction, bioprocess_bioprocess with AV node cell to bundle of His cell communication, bioprocess_bioprocess with AV node cell to bundle of His cell communication. blood group, lewis system has relations: disease_disease with Mendelian disease, disease_disease with Mendelian disease. Definitions: chemical defined as following: A substance with a defined atomic or molecular structure that results from, or takes part in, reactions involving changes in its structure, composition, or properties.. drug defined as following: Any natural, endogenously-derived, synthetic or semi-synthetic compound with pharmacologic activity. A pharmacologic substance has one or more specific mechanism of action(s) through which it exerts one or more effect(s) on the human or animal body. They can be used to potentially prevent, diagnose, treat or relieve symptoms of a disease. Formulation specific agents and some combination agents are also classified as pharmacologic substances..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_2785", "sentence1": "Are whole-genome duplications more divergent than small-scale duplications in yeast?", "sentence2": " Also, we observe that transporter and glycolytic genes have a higher probability to be retained in duplicate after WGD and subsequent gene loss, both in the model as in S. cerevisiae, which leads to an increase in glycolytic flux after WGD, We show that the retention of genes in duplicate in the model, corresponds nicely with those retained in duplicate after the ancestral WGD in S. cerevisiae, Thus, our model confirms the hypothesis that WGD has been important in the adaptation of yeast to the new, glucose-rich environment that arose after the appearance of angiosperms., Whole-genome duplicates tend to exhibit less profound phenotypic effects when deleted, are functionally less divergent, and are associated with a different set of functions than their small-scale duplicate counterparts., The results uncover the WGD as a major source for the evolution of a complex interconnected block of transcriptional pathways., These selected pairs, both WGD and SSD, tend to have decelerated functional evolution, have higher propensities of co-clustering into the same protein complexes, and share common interacting partners., Moreover, we find additional transcriptional profiles that are suggestive of neo- and subfunctionalization of duplicate gene copies. These patterns are strongly correlated with the functional dependencies and sequence divergence profiles of gene copies., Functional and transcriptional divergence between the copies after gene duplication has been considered the main driver of innovations ., Whole-genome duplicates tend to exhibit less profound phenotypic effects when deleted, are functionally less divergent, and are associated with a different set of functions than their small-scale duplicate counterparts., Empirical data shows that whole-genome duplications (WGDs) are more likely to be retained than small-scale duplications (SSDs), though their relative contribution to the functional fate of duplicates remains unexplored.[SEP]Relations: developmental delay with autism spectrum disorder and gait instability has relations: disease_phenotype_positive with Recurrent hand flapping, disease_phenotype_positive with Recurrent hand flapping, disease_phenotype_positive with Narrow palate, disease_phenotype_positive with Narrow palate, disease_phenotype_positive with Self-mutilation, disease_phenotype_positive with Self-mutilation, disease_phenotype_positive with Unsteady gait, disease_phenotype_positive with Unsteady gait, disease_disease with syndromic intellectual disability, disease_disease with syndromic intellectual disability. Definitions: yeast defined as following: A species of the genus SACCHAROMYCES, family Saccharomycetaceae, order Saccharomycetales, known as \"baker's\" or \"brewer's\" yeast. The dried form is used as a dietary supplement.. SSD defined as following: Persistent difficulty with speech sound production such that it interferes with verbal communication.. transporter defined as following: Membrane proteins whose primary function is to facilitate the transport of molecules across a biological membrane. Included in this broad category are proteins involved in active transport (BIOLOGICAL TRANSPORT, ACTIVE), facilitated transport and ION CHANNELS.. angiosperms defined as following: vascular plant with flower as a reproductive structure with microsporophylls protecting seed, fruit for seed dispersal; sporophyte generation is dominant; pollination may be by animal carriers; may be terrestrial or aquatic.. genes defined as following: A category of nucleic acid sequences that function as units of heredity and which code for the basic instructions for the development, reproduction, and maintenance of organisms..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_724", "sentence1": "Are there any clinical trials of the effect of evening primrose oil on postmenopausal symptoms ?", "sentence2": "To analyze whether the time (morning/evening) of administration of a compound containing 60 mg of dry soy seed extract (glycine max) with 40% of total isoflavones, primrose oil and α-tocopherol modifies the effect on the climacteric syndrome., The object of this study was to evaluate the effect of different doses of a compound containing isoflavones 60 mg, primrose oil 440 mg and vitamin E 10 mg. (IOVE) on menopausal complaints. This was an open, multicentre, randomised, group comparative, efficacy and safety trial., Emphasis was placed on randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled clinical trials, as these provide the best efficacy and safety data, Nonprescription therapies reviewed include black cohosh, dong quai, evening primrose oil, physical activity, phytoestrogens, and red clover, The effect of oral evening primrose oil on menopausal hot flashes: a randomized clinical trial., The aim of this study was to compare the efficacy of evening primrose with placebo in improvement of menopausal hot flashes. , The application of oral evening primrose oil compared with placebo for controlling hot flashes may decrease more the intensity of attacks , Our search identified 58 randomised controlled trials of which 11 involved the use of clonidine, six for SSRIs, four for gabapentin, seven for black cohosh, seven for red clover, 18 for phytoestrogens, two for ginseng, one for evening primrose,, Single clinical trials have found no benefit for dong quai, evening primrose oil,, Single clinical trials have found that dong quai, evening primrose oil,, To evaluate the efficacy of gamolenic acid provided by evening primrose oil in treating hot flushes and sweating associated with the menopause. DESIGN: Randomised, double blind, placebo controlled study.[SEP]Relations: Evening primrose oil has relations: drug_drug with Primidone, drug_drug with Primidone, drug_drug with Estradiol, drug_drug with Estradiol, drug_drug with Acetaminophen, drug_drug with Acetaminophen, drug_drug with Prednisone, drug_drug with Prednisone, drug_drug with Antipyrine, drug_drug with Antipyrine. Definitions: SSRIs defined as following: Any agent that increases the extracellular level of the neurotransmitter serotonin (5-HT) by inhibiting its reuptake into the presynaptic cell. Increased level in the synaptic cleft prolongs the action of 5-HT on the postsynaptic receptor. This type of agent is typically used as an antidepressant and in the treatment of anxiety disorders and some personality disorders. They are also typically effective and used in treating some cases of insomnia.. gamolenic acid defined as following: An omega-6 fatty acid produced in the body as the delta 6-desaturase metabolite of linoleic acid. It is converted to dihomo-gamma-linolenic acid, a biosynthetic precursor of monoenoic prostaglandins such as PGE1. (From Merck Index, 11th ed). gabapentin defined as following: A cyclohexane-gamma-aminobutyric acid derivative that is used for the treatment of PARTIAL SEIZURES; NEURALGIA; and RESTLESS LEGS SYNDROME.. isoflavones defined as following: 3-Phenylchromones. Isomeric form of FLAVONOIDS in which the benzene group is attached to the 3 position of the benzopyran ring instead of the 2 position.. climacteric syndrome defined as following: A grouping of variable physical, vasomotor and psychological symptoms in climacteric females. Physical symptoms include: cessation of menses, headaches, fatigue, weight gain and vaginal dryness. Vasomotor symptoms typically include: palpitations, hot flashes and night sweats. Psychological symptoms may include: decrease in libido, emotional lability, difficulty concentrating and insomnia.. clonidine defined as following: An imidazoline sympatholytic agent that stimulates ALPHA-2 ADRENERGIC RECEPTORS and central IMIDAZOLINE RECEPTORS. It is commonly used in the management of HYPERTENSION.. dong quai defined as following: An herbal extract derived from the root of the plant Angelica sinensis with possible antiinflammatory, antispasmodic, vasodilatory, estrogenic, and antitumor activities. Angelica sinensis contains volatile oils, including safrole, isosafrole, and n-butylphthalide; coumarin derivatives, including psoralens, bergapten, osthol, imperatorin, and oxypeucedanin; and ferulic acid. The coumarin derivatives in this agent may vasodilate and relax smooth muscle and may exhibit additive anticoagulant effects. Ferulic acid, a phenolic phytochemical present in plant cell walls, may neutralize free radicals such as reactive oxygen species. In addition, Angelica sinensis extract has been shown to inhibit the growth and induce apoptosis of glioblastoma mutltiforme brain tumor cells through p53-dependent and p53-independent pathways..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_3610", "sentence1": "Is g-H2AX a marker for double strand breaks?", "sentence2": "The specific phosphorylation of histone H2AX on serine residue 139, described as γ-H2AX, is an excellent indicator or marker of DNA double-strand breaks (DSBs). , expression of the DNA double-strand break marker gamma-H2AX (γH2AX) , pH2AX, a marker of the DNA double-strand break (DSB)[SEP]Relations: Serine has relations: drug_protein with SPTLC2, drug_protein with SPTLC2, drug_protein with SPTLC1, drug_protein with SPTLC1, drug_protein with SLC16A10, drug_protein with SLC16A10, drug_protein with AGXT, drug_protein with AGXT, contraindication with phosphorus metabolism disease, contraindication with phosphorus metabolism disease. Definitions: serine defined as following: A non-essential amino acid occurring in natural form as the L-isomer. It is synthesized from GLYCINE or THREONINE. It is involved in the biosynthesis of PURINES; PYRIMIDINES; and other amino acids..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_334", "sentence1": "Is exome sequencing efficient for the detection of germline mutations?", "sentence2": "Whole exome sequencing is an efficient and sensitive method for detection of germline mutations in patients with phaeochromcytomas and paragangliomas, Whole exome sequencing is sensitive, rapid and efficient for detection of PCC/PGL germline mutations., These results from deep sequencing demonstrate a higher mutational detection rate than reported with conventional sequencing methodology., We performed exome sequencing of germline DNA from members of the affected family. Exome-wide analysis identified a novel loss-of-function mutation in the BAP1 gene, previously suggested as a tumor suppressor., whole-exome sequencing has been widely applied in the identification of germline mutations underlying Mendelian disorders, somatic mutations in various cancers and de novo mutations in neurodevelopmental disorders.[SEP]Relations: adaptation to pheromone regulating conjugation with mutual genetic exchange has relations: bioprocess_bioprocess with negative adaptation of signaling pathway, bioprocess_bioprocess with negative adaptation of signaling pathway, bioprocess_bioprocess with response to pheromone regulating conjugation with mutual genetic exchange, bioprocess_bioprocess with response to pheromone regulating conjugation with mutual genetic exchange, bioprocess_bioprocess with regulation of conjugation, bioprocess_bioprocess with regulation of conjugation. Paraganglioma has relations: disease_phenotype_positive with von Hippel-Lindau disease, disease_phenotype_positive with von Hippel-Lindau disease, disease_phenotype_positive with hereditary pheochromocytoma-paraganglioma, disease_phenotype_positive with hereditary pheochromocytoma-paraganglioma. Definitions: neurodevelopmental disorders defined as following: A childhood disorder that has a neurological basis and manifests as a developmental disability.. cancers defined as following: A tumor composed of atypical neoplastic, often pleomorphic cells that invade other tissues. Malignant neoplasms often metastasize to distant anatomic sites and may recur after excision. The most common malignant neoplasms are carcinomas, Hodgkin and non-Hodgkin lymphomas, leukemias, melanomas, and sarcomas.. BAP1 gene defined as following: This gene is involved in cellular growth regulation and is purported to have tumor suppression activity.. mutations defined as following: The result of any gain, loss or alteration of the sequences comprising a gene, including all sequences transcribed into RNA..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_1044", "sentence1": "Does Chromatin Immunoprecipitation (ChIP) show a bias for highly expressed loci?", "sentence2": "However, several issues in the processing and analysis of ChIP-chip data have not been resolved fully, including the effect of background (mock control) subtraction and normalization within and across arrays, Proper normalization is essential for ChIP-chip experiments. The proposed normalization technique can correct systematic errors and compensate for the lack of mock control data, thus reducing the experimental cost and producing more accurate results., Subtraction of the mock (non-specific antibody or no antibody) control data is generally needed to eliminate the bias, but appropriate normalization obviates the need for mock experiments and increases the correlation among replicates, The proposed method can handle several control samples allowing for correction of multiple sources of bias simultaneously, However, the data generated will always contain noise due to e.g. repetitive regions or non-specific antibody interactions, The generation of high copy numbers of DNA fragments as an artifact of the PCR step in ChIP-seq is an important source of bias of this methodology, Here we describe several technical aspects of the ChIP-Seq assay that diminish bias and background noise and allow the consistent generation of high-quality data, This theoretical paper systematically characterizes the biases and properties of ChIP-seq data by comparing 62 separate publicly available datasets, using rigorous statistical models and signal processing techniques, We detected a chromatin-state bias: open chromatin regions yielded higher coverage, which led to false positives if not corrected, This bias had a greater effect on detection specificity than any base-composition bias, This problem turns out to be surprisingly difficult, even in simple pairwise comparisons, because of the significant level of noise in ChIP-seq data, We show that the ChIPnorm method removes most of the noise and bias in the data and outperforms other normalization methods, We investigated the impact of library amplification bias on the identification of allele-specific (AS) molecular events from high-throughput sequencing data derived from chromatin immunoprecipitation assays (ChIP-seq), The 238 loci, termed \"hyper-ChIPable\", were in highly expressed regions with strong polymerase II and polymerase III enrichment signals, and the correlation between transcription level and ChIP enrichment was not limited to these 238 loci but extended genome-wide, The localization of unrelated proteins, including the entire silencing complex, to the most highly transcribed genes was highly suggestive of a technical issue with the immunoprecipitations[SEP]Relations: heterochromatin organization involved in chromatin silencing has relations: bioprocess_bioprocess with chromatin organization involved in negative regulation of transcription, bioprocess_bioprocess with chromatin organization involved in negative regulation of transcription, bioprocess_protein with SMCHD1, bioprocess_protein with SMCHD1, bioprocess_bioprocess with heterochromatin organization, bioprocess_bioprocess with heterochromatin organization, bioprocess_bioprocess with heterochromatin maintenance, bioprocess_bioprocess with heterochromatin maintenance. positive regulation of peptide secretion has relations: bioprocess_protein with ADORA1, bioprocess_protein with ADORA1. Definitions: proteins defined as following: Linear POLYPEPTIDES that are synthesized on RIBOSOMES and may be further modified, crosslinked, cleaved, or assembled into complex proteins with several subunits. The specific sequence of AMINO ACIDS determines the shape the polypeptide will take, during PROTEIN FOLDING, and the function of the protein.. ChIP-seq defined as following: A molecular genetic technique that combines chromatin immunoprecipitation (ChIP) with massively parallel DNA sequencing to map the binding sites of DNA-associated proteins in a sample of cells. First, crosslinked protein-DNA complexes are isolated using ChIP. Next, the crosslinks are broken, the proteins are removed and the purified DNA is modified with adaptor oligonucleotides to facilitate massively parallel DNA sequencing. Following sequencing, the DNA sequences that are obtained can be mapped to their genomic locations.. repetitive regions defined as following: Nucleotide sequences present in multiple copies in the genome. There are several types of repeated sequences. Interspersed (or dispersed) DNA repeats (Interspersed Repetitive Sequences) are copies of transposable elements interspersed throughout the genome. Flanking (or terminal) repeats (Terminal Repeat Sequences) are sequences that are repeated on both ends of a sequence, for example, the long terminal repeats (LTRs) on retroviruses. Direct terminal repeats are in the same direction and inverted terminal repeats are opposite to each other in direction. Tandem repeats (Tandem Repeat Sequences) are repeated copies which lie adjacent to each other. These can also be direct or inverted. The ribosomal RNA and transfer RNA genes belong to the class of middle repetitive DNA..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_4277", "sentence1": "Αre plants from the genus Strychnos the original source of curare?", "sentence2": "Poisons are widespread in plants and animals and humankind has often tried to turn them to its own advantage. Owing to their poisonous properties, some species of Strychnos genus have been employed mainly in hunting and fishing, as an adjunct to weapons used not only in the search of food and clothes, but also for preventing depredation by wild animals. They have been employed for martial and criminal purposes and also as a means of determining guilt or innocence. By their nature, poisons such as strychnine and curare affect the functioning of the victim's body; , The ethnobotanical uses of South American species of Strychnos L. (Loganiaceae) are reviewed, with the exception of their major rôle in the preparation of curare, which will be dealt with in detail elsewhere., VELOPMENT: Curare is prepared by boiling the roots, bark and stalks of different plants belonging to the Loganiaceae (Strychnos) and Menispermaceae families (Chondrodendron, Curarea and Abuta). , The history to about 1850 of the muscle-relaxant poison curare is discussed, especially the developments leading to the botanical identification of the plants that yield the alkaloidal active principles: Loganiaceae (Strychnos species) and Menispermaceae (Abuta, Chondrodendron, and Curarea species)., or centuries. The study reviews the historical and ethnographic aspects of the use of curares and timbós in the Amazonian region.DEVELOPMENT: Curare is prepared by boiling the roots, bark and stalks of different plants belonging to the Loganiaceae (Strychnos) and Menispermaceae families (Chondrod[SEP]Relations: Plantar pits has relations: disease_phenotype_positive with Darier disease, disease_phenotype_positive with Darier disease, disease_phenotype_positive with monosomy 9q22.3, disease_phenotype_positive with monosomy 9q22.3, disease_phenotype_positive with PTEN hamartoma tumor syndrome, disease_phenotype_positive with PTEN hamartoma tumor syndrome, phenotype_phenotype with Abnormality of the plantar skin of foot, phenotype_phenotype with Abnormality of the plantar skin of foot, disease_phenotype_positive with nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome, disease_phenotype_positive with nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome. Definitions: roots defined as following: The usually underground portions of a plant that serve as support, store food, and through which water and mineral nutrients enter the plant. (From American Heritage Dictionary, 1982; Concise Dictionary of Biology, 1990). guilt defined as following: Subjective feeling of having committed an error, offense or sin; unpleasant feeling of self-criticism. These result from acts, impulses, or thoughts contrary to one's personal conscience.. curare defined as following: Plant extracts from several species, including genera STRYCHNOS and Chondodendron, which contain TETRAHYDROISOQUINOLINES that produce PARALYSIS of skeletal muscle. These extracts are toxic and must be used with the administration of artificial respiration.. Loganiaceae defined as following: A plant family of the order Gentianales, subclass Asteridae, class Magnoliopsida. They have leaflike appendages at the base of the leafstalks, have terminal flower clusters. Petals have four or five overlapping lobes and the fruit is a capsule containing winged or wingless seeds.. plants defined as following: Multicellular, eukaryotic life forms of kingdom Plantae. Plants acquired chloroplasts by direct endosymbiosis of CYANOBACTERIA. They are characterized by a mainly photosynthetic mode of nutrition; essentially unlimited growth at localized regions of cell divisions (MERISTEMS); cellulose within cells providing rigidity; the absence of organs of locomotion; absence of nervous and sensory systems; and an alternation of haploid and diploid generations. It is a non-taxonomical term most often referring to LAND PLANTS. In broad sense it includes RHODOPHYTA and GLAUCOPHYTA along with VIRIDIPLANTAE..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_3129", "sentence1": "Has Hesperidin any role as a Neuroprotective Agent?", "sentence2": "Neuroprotective effect of hesperetin and nano-hesperetin on recognition memory impairment and the elevated oxygen stress in rat model of Alzheimer's disease, Hesperidin attenuates depression-related symptoms in mice with mild traumatic brain injury, Neuroprotective Effects of Hesperidin on Cerebral Vasospasm, The neuroprotective effect of hesperidin in NMDA-induced retinal injury acts by suppressing oxidative stress and excessive calpain activation., This study suggests a potential neuroprotective role of hesperidin against 3-NP-induced Huntington's disease-like manifestations., Hesperidin potentiates the neuroprotective effects of diazepam and gabapentin against pentylenetetrazole-induced convulsions in mice: Possible behavioral, biochemical and mitochondrial alterations., Hesperidin, a flavanoglycone abundantly present in citrus fruits, is reported to have antioxidant, anti-inflammatory, and neuroprotective properties., PURPOSE\nHesperidin, a glycoside flavonoid, is thought to act as an anti-cancer agent, since it has been found to exhibit both pro-apoptotic and anti-proliferative effects in several cancer cell types., Hesperidin is a flavonone glycoside, belonging to the flavonoid family, which is widely found in Citrus species and acts as a potent antioxidant and anticancer agent., BACKGROUND\nHesperidin, a flavanone present in citrus fruits, has been identified as a potent anticancer agent because of its proapoptotic and antiproliferative characteristics in some tumor cells., Oxidative stress and cancer; the role of hesperidin, a citrus natural bioflavonoid, as a cancer chemoprotective agent., Our data suggests that hesperidin exerts its neuroprotective effect against rotenone due to its antioxidant, maintenance of mitochondrial function, and antiapoptotic properties in a neuroblastoma cell line., Taken together, these results demonstrate potent antioxidant and neuroprotective effects of hesperetin, implying its potential role in protecting neurons against various types of insults associated with many neurodegenerative diseases., The neuroprotective effect of hesperidin in NMDA-induced retinal injury acts by suppressing oxidative stress and excessive calpain activation.We found that hesperidin, a plant-derived bioflavonoid, may be a candidate agent for neuroprotective treatment in the retina, after screening 41 materials for anti-oxidative properties in a primary retinal cell culture under oxidative stress. , Neuroprotective effects of hesperidin, a plant flavanone, on rotenone-induced oxidative stress and apoptosis in a cellular model for Parkinson's disease.Rotenone a widely used pesticide that inhibits mitochondrial complex I has been used to investigate the pathobiology of PD both in vitro and in vivo. , Cytoprotective effects of hesperetin and hesperidin against amyloid β-induced impairment of glucose transport through downregulation of neuronal autophagy., Hesperidin potentiates the neuroprotective effects of diazepam and gabapentin against pentylenetetrazole-induced convulsions in mice: Possible behavioral, biochemical and mitochondrial alterations.Hesp possesses potent anticonvulsant activity which might be mediated through modulation of gamma-amino butyric acid/benzodiazepine receptor action., Antioxidant and neuroprotective effects of hesperidin and its aglycone hesperetin.The present study evaluated antioxidant and neuroprotective activities of hesperidin, a flavanone mainly isolated from citrus fruits, and its aglycone hesperetin using cell-free bioassay system and primary cultured rat cortical cells. , Potential neuroprotective effects of hesperidin on 3-nitropropionic acid-induced neurotoxicity in rats., Hesperidin inhibits glutamate release and exerts neuroprotection against excitotoxicity induced by kainic acid in the hippocampus of rats., Emerging evidences indicate hesperidin, a citrus flavanone, attenuates neurodegenerative processes and related complications., Potential anti-inflammatory effects of hesperidin from the genus Citrus., Antioxidant and neuroprotective effects of hesperidin and its aglycone hesperetin., Hesperidin is a flavonoid present in high concentration in citrus species and has numerous biological properties, principally antioxidant and anti-inflammatory.[SEP]Relations: Hesperetin has relations: drug_drug with Meperidine, drug_drug with Meperidine, drug_drug with Famotidine, drug_drug with Famotidine, drug_drug with Nevirapine, drug_drug with Nevirapine, drug_drug with Antipyrine, drug_drug with Antipyrine, drug_drug with Acenocoumarol, drug_drug with Acenocoumarol. Definitions: diazepam defined as following: A benzodiazepine with anticonvulsant, anxiolytic, sedative, muscle relaxant, and amnesic properties and a long duration of action. Its actions are mediated by enhancement of GAMMA-AMINOBUTYRIC ACID activity.. cancer defined as following: A malignant tumor at the original site of growth.. flavonoid defined as following: A group of phenyl benzopyrans named for having structures like FLAVONES.. Hesperidin defined as following: A flavanone glycoside found in CITRUS fruit peels.. kainic acid defined as following: (2S-(2 alpha,3 beta,4 beta))-2-Carboxy-4-(1-methylethenyl)-3-pyrrolidineacetic acid. Ascaricide obtained from the red alga Digenea simplex. It is a potent excitatory amino acid agonist at some types of excitatory amino acid receptors and has been used to discriminate among receptor types. Like many excitatory amino acid agonists it can cause neurotoxicity and has been used experimentally for that purpose.. gabapentin defined as following: A cyclohexane-gamma-aminobutyric acid derivative that is used for the treatment of PARTIAL SEIZURES; NEURALGIA; and RESTLESS LEGS SYNDROME.. anti-inflammatory defined as following: Substances that reduce or suppress INFLAMMATION.. pesticide defined as following: Chemicals used to destroy pests of any sort. The concept includes fungicides (FUNGICIDES, INDUSTRIAL); INSECTICIDES; RODENTICIDES; etc.. rotenone defined as following: A botanical insecticide that is an inhibitor of mitochondrial electron transport.. neurons defined as following: The basic cellular units of nervous tissue. Each neuron consists of a body, an axon, and dendrites. Their purpose is to receive, conduct, and transmit impulses in the NERVOUS SYSTEM.. rat defined as following: The common rat, Rattus norvegicus, often used as an experimental organism.. traumatic brain injury defined as following: A form of acquired brain injury which occurs when a sudden trauma causes damage to the brain.. neurotoxicity defined as following: Neurologic disorders caused by exposure to toxic substances through ingestion, injection, cutaneous application, or other method. This includes conditions caused by biologic, chemical, and pharmaceutical agents.. cancer cell defined as following: Cells of, or derived from, a malignant tumor.. neuroblastoma defined as following: A common neoplasm of early childhood arising from neural crest cells in the sympathetic nervous system, and characterized by diverse clinical behavior, ranging from spontaneous remission to rapid metastatic progression and death. This tumor is the most common intraabdominal malignancy of childhood, but it may also arise from thorax, neck, or rarely occur in the central nervous system. Histologic features include uniform round cells with hyperchromatic nuclei arranged in nests and separated by fibrovascular septa. Neuroblastomas may be associated with the opsoclonus-myoclonus syndrome. (From DeVita et al., Cancer: Principles and Practice of Oncology, 5th ed, pp2099-2101; Curr Opin Oncol 1998 Jan;10(1):43-51). mitochondrial complex I defined as following: A complex of over 40 proteins found in the inner mitochondrial membrane. This protein complex catalyzes the transfer of electrons from NADH to ubiquinone (coenzyme Q10) and plays a role in the initiation of the mitochondrial electron transport chain.. Parkinson's disease defined as following: A progressive, degenerative neurologic disease characterized by a TREMOR that is maximal at rest, retropulsion (i.e. a tendency to fall backwards), rigidity, stooped posture, slowness of voluntary movements, and a masklike facial expression. Pathologic features include loss of melanin containing neurons in the substantia nigra and other pigmented nuclei of the brainstem. LEWY BODIES are present in the substantia nigra and locus coeruleus but may also be found in a related condition (LEWY BODY DISEASE, DIFFUSE) characterized by dementia in combination with varying degrees of parkinsonism. (Adams et al., Principles of Neurology, 6th ed, p1059, pp1067-75). Alzheimer's disease defined as following: Alzheimer's disease caused by mutation(s) in the APP gene, encoding amyloid-beta A4 protein. The onset of this condition typically occurs before age 65.. PD defined as following: A score of 4 or 5 on a 5-point PET scale with an increase in intensity of uptake from baseline and/or new FDG-avid foci consistent with lymphoma at interim or end of treatment assessment.. tumor cells defined as following: Cells of, or derived from, a tumor.. glycoside defined as following: Cyclopentanophenanthrenes with a 5- or 6-membered lactone ring attached at the 17-position and SUGARS attached at the 3-position. Plants they come from have long been used in congestive heart failure. They increase the force of cardiac contraction without significantly affecting other parameters, but are very toxic at larger doses. Their mechanism of action usually involves inhibition of the NA(+)-K(+)-EXCHANGING ATPASE and they are often used in cell biological studies for that purpose..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_3445", "sentence1": "Does radiation for tinea capitis increases brain tumor risk?", "sentence2": "Emphasis is placed on meningiomas resulting from childhood treatment for primary brain tumor or tinea capitis, exposure to dental x-rays, and exposure to atomic explosions in Hiroshima and Nagasaki. , It is well known that radiation can induce meningiomas. These tumors usually arise in patients with a history of low-dose radiation to the scalp for treatment of tinea capitis or high-dose radiation for a previous brain tumor. , This paper describes six cases of radiation-associated intracranial meningiomas in patients previously treated with low-dose radiation to the scalp for tinea capitis., After a median follow-up of 40 years, an ERR/Gy of 4.63 and 1.98 (95% CI = 2.43-9.12 and 0.73-4.69) and an EAR/Gy per 10(4) PY of 0.48 and 0.31 (95% CI = 0.28-0.73 and 0.12-0.53) were observed for benign meningiomas and malignant brain tumors, respectively. , The estimated ERR/Gy for malignant brain tumors decreased with increasing age at irradiation from 3.56 to 0.47 (P = 0.037), while no trend with age was seen for benign meningiomas. The ERR for both types of tumor remains elevated at 30-plus years after exposure., Although meningiomas are known to be induced by low doses of cranial irradiation, such as those given to treat tinea capitis, little experience has been reported on the induction of meningiomas by high-dose cranial irradiation. , The exposed rats had a greater incidence of pituitary chromophobe adenomas, epithelial and mesothelial cell tumors than the unexposed controls but the excessive occurrence of malignant gliomas that was observed in the monkeys was absent in the rats. , We have analyzed 60 cases of intra-axial brain tumors associated with antecedent radiation therapy. These include four new cases. The patients had originally received radiation therapy for three reasons: (a) cranial irradiation for acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL), (b) definitive treatment of CNS neoplasia, and (c) treatment of benign disease (mostly cutaneous infections). , Long-term follow-up for brain tumor development after childhood exposure to ionizing radiation for tinea capitis., Benign and malignant thyroid neoplasms after childhood irradiation for tinea capitis., There is evidence to show that moderate doses of ionising radiations given in childhood for tinea capitis are associated with a late risk of developing a meningioma, This paper describes six cases of radiation-associated intracranial meningiomas in patients previously treated with low-dose radiation to the scalp for tinea capitis., These tumors usually arise in patients with a history of low-dose radiation to the scalp for treatment of tinea capitis or high-dose radiation for a previous brain tumor., There is evidence to show that moderate doses of ionising radiations given in childhood for tinea capitis are associated with a late risk of developing a meningioma., In addition to high dose radiation-induced meningiomas, intracranial meningiomas were observed in patients who underwent low-dose radiation for tinea capitis in childhood, applied en mass to immigrants coming to Israel from the North Africa and the Middle East during the 1950., A 39-year-old male developed primary brain lymphoma 33 years after receiving scalp irradiation for tinea capitis., Secondary glioblastoma multiforme (sGBM) can occur after a long latency period following radiation treatment of various diseases including brain tumors, leukemia, and more benign disorders like tinea capitis., The main data come from series of patients who underwent radiotherapy during childhood: a high incidence of tumors of the nervous system is found after irradiation of one to a few grays as treatment of a benign disease (especially tinea capitis), as well as after irradiation at higher doses of a few tens of grays for the treatment of cancer (in particular cerebral irradiation in acute lymphoblastic leukaemia).[SEP]Relations: skin meningioma has relations: disease_disease with malignant tumor of meninges, disease_disease with malignant tumor of meninges, disease_disease with malignant dermis tumor, disease_disease with malignant dermis tumor, disease_disease with skin cancer, disease_disease with skin cancer. Brain neoplasm has relations: drug_effect with Nitisinone, drug_effect with Nitisinone, drug_effect with Sibutramine, drug_effect with Sibutramine. Definitions: intracranial meningiomas defined as following: A meningioma that arises within the cranial cavity.. acute lymphoblastic leukemia defined as following: A type of ALL characterized by elevated levels of B-cell lymphoblasts in the bone marrow and the blood. [NCIT:C8644]. meningiomas defined as following: A relatively common neoplasm of the CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM that arises from arachnoidal cells. The majority are well differentiated vascular tumors which grow slowly and have a low potential to be invasive, although malignant subtypes occur. Meningiomas have a predilection to arise from the parasagittal region, cerebral convexity, sphenoidal ridge, olfactory groove, and SPINAL CANAL. (From DeVita et al., Cancer: Principles and Practice of Oncology, 5th ed, pp2056-7). brain tumor defined as following: Neoplasms of the intracranial components of the central nervous system, including the cerebral hemispheres, basal ganglia, hypothalamus, thalamus, brain stem, and cerebellum. Brain neoplasms are subdivided into primary (originating from brain tissue) and secondary (i.e., metastatic) forms. Primary neoplasms are subdivided into benign and malignant forms. In general, brain tumors may also be classified by age of onset, histologic type, or presenting location in the brain.. leukemia defined as following: A progressive, malignant disease of the blood-forming organs, characterized by distorted proliferation and development of leukocytes and their precursors in the blood and bone marrow. Leukemias were originally termed acute or chronic based on life expectancy but now are classified according to cellular maturity. Acute leukemias consist of predominately immature cells; chronic leukemias are composed of more mature cells. (From The Merck Manual, 2006). benign meningiomas defined as following: A grade I, slowly growing meningioma. Only a minority of tumors recur following complete resection.. ALL defined as following: Leukemia with an acute onset, characterized by the presence of lymphoblasts in the bone marrow and the peripheral blood. It includes the acute B lymphoblastic leukemia and acute T lymphoblastic leukemia.. tumors defined as following: New abnormal growth of tissue. Malignant neoplasms show a greater degree of anaplasia and have the properties of invasion and metastasis, compared to benign neoplasms.. rats defined as following: The common rat, Rattus norvegicus, often used as an experimental organism.. scalp defined as following: The outer covering of the calvaria. It is composed of several layers: SKIN; subcutaneous connective tissue; the occipitofrontal muscle which includes the tendinous galea aponeurotica; loose connective tissue; and the pericranium (the PERIOSTEUM of the SKULL).. tinea capitis defined as following: Ringworm of the scalp and associated hair mainly caused by species of MICROSPORUM; TRICHOPHYTON; and EPIDERMOPHYTON, which may occasionally involve the eyebrows and eyelashes.. pituitary chromophobe adenomas defined as following: A benign tumor of the anterior pituitary in which the cells do not stain with acidic or basic dyes.. low-dose defined as following: A reduced quantity of a therapeutic agent prescribed to be taken at one time or at stated intervals.. malignant brain tumors defined as following: A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm affecting the brain.. epithelial defined as following: A term that refers to the cells that make up the epithelial tissues. They are found in the skin, and in the parenchyma, surface and lumen of internal organs.. cutaneous infections defined as following: Infections of the skin that happen multiple times. [HPO:curators]. cranial irradiation defined as following: The exposure of the head to roentgen rays or other forms of radioactivity for therapeutic or preventive purposes..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_3111", "sentence1": "Does Axitinib prolong survival of Pancreatic Cancer patients?", "sentence2": "CONCLUSIONS: Axitinib/gemcitabine, while tolerated, did not provide survival benefit over gemcitabine alone in patients with advanced pancreatic cancer from Japan or other regions., RESULTS: Among Japanese patients, median overall survival was not estimable (95% confidence interval, 7.4 months-not estimable) with axitinib/gemcitabine (n = 58) and 9.9 months (95% confidence interval, 7.4-10.5) with placebo/gemcitabine (n = 56) (hazard ratio 1.093 [95% confidence interval, 0.525-2.274]). Median survival follow-up (range) was 5.1 months (0.02-12.3) with axitinib/gemcitabine vs. 5.4 months (1.8-10.5) with placebo/gemcitabine. Similarly, no difference was detected in overall survival between axitinib/gemcitabine and placebo/gemcitabine in patients from North America or the European Union. , At an interim analysis in January, 2009, the independent data monitoring committee concluded that the futility boundary had been crossed. Median overall survival was 8·5 months (95% CI 6·9-9·5) for gemcitabine plus axitinib (n=314, data missing for two patients) and 8·3 months (6·9-10·3) for gemcitabine plus placebo (n=316; hazard ratio 1·014, 95% CI 0·786-1·309; one-sided p=0·5436). , INTERPRETATION: The addition of axitinib to gemcitabine does not improve overall survival in advanced pancreatic cancer. , INTERPRETATION\nThe addition of axitinib to gemcitabine does not improve overall survival in advanced pancreatic cancer., However, as with other tyrosine kinase inhibitors of the same class, axitinib does not prolong overall survival; therefore, selection of second-line tyrosine kinase inhibitor therapy, including axitinib, must be carefully considered to maximize outcomes for each patient., CONCLUSIONS\nAxitinib/gemcitabine, while tolerated, did not provide survival benefit over gemcitabine alone in patients with advanced pancreatic cancer from Japan or other regions., Similarly, no difference was detected in overall survival between axitinib/gemcitabine and placebo/gemcitabine in patients from North America or the European Union., Axitinib/gemcitabine, while tolerated, did not provide survival benefit over gemcitabine alone in patients with advanced pancreatic cancer from Japan or other regions., The addition of axitinib to gemcitabine does not improve overall survival in advanced pancreatic cancer.[SEP]Relations: Axitinib has relations: drug_drug with Panobinostat, drug_drug with Panobinostat, drug_drug with Proguanil, drug_drug with Proguanil, drug_drug with Afelimomab, drug_drug with Afelimomab, drug_drug with Entrectinib, drug_drug with Entrectinib, drug_drug with Dolutegravir, drug_drug with Dolutegravir. Definitions: axitinib defined as following: An orally bioavailable tyrosine kinase inhibitor. Axitinib inhibits the proangiogenic cytokines vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) and platelet-derived growth factor receptor (PDGF), thereby exerting an anti-angiogenic effect.. tyrosine kinase defined as following: Protein kinases that catalyze the PHOSPHORYLATION of TYROSINE residues in proteins with ATP or other nucleotides as phosphate donors.. gemcitabine defined as following: A broad-spectrum antimetabolite and deoxycytidine analogue with antineoplastic activity. Upon administration, gemcitabine is converted into the active metabolites difluorodeoxycytidine diphosphate (dFdCDP) and difluorodeoxycytidine triphosphate (dFdCTP) by deoxycytidine kinase. dFdCTP competes with deoxycytidine triphosphate (dCTP) and is incorporated into DNA. This locks DNA polymerase thereby resulting in \"masked termination\" during DNA replication. On the other hand, dFdCDP inhibits ribonucleotide reductase, thereby decreasing the deoxynucleotide pool available for DNA synthesis. The reduction in the intracellular concentration of dCTP potentiates the incorporation of dFdCTP into DNA.. pancreatic cancer defined as following: A primary or metastatic malignant tumor involving the pancreas. Representative examples include carcinoma and lymphoma.. Axitinib defined as following: An orally bioavailable tyrosine kinase inhibitor. Axitinib inhibits the proangiogenic cytokines vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) and platelet-derived growth factor receptor (PDGF), thereby exerting an anti-angiogenic effect.. Pancreatic Cancer defined as following: A primary or metastatic malignant tumor involving the pancreas. Representative examples include carcinoma and lymphoma..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_4037", "sentence1": "Is Tocilizumab (Actemra) used to block/antagonize the IL-6 receptor?", "sentence2": "Preliminary clinical results have indicated that antagonism of the IL-6 receptor (IL-6R), including with the FDA-approved humanized monoclonal antibody tocilizumab, can improve the outcomes of patients with severe or critical COVID-19 while maintaining a good safety profile., Tocilizumab, an anti-IL-6 receptor antibody, and corticosteroids were initially used to treat the increase in acute inflammatory proteins and the anasarca, resulting in decreased cytokine levels. , Tocilizumab, a monoclonal antibody against the IL-6 receptor, was initiated at a dose of 8 mg/kg every 4 weeks., we randomly assigned patients with type 2 diabetes or obesity to intravenous tocilizumab (an IL-6 receptor antagonist) , Clinical studies are investigating whether tocilizumab (anti-IL-6 receptor) can help preserve beta cell function in patients recently diagnosed with T1D, Tocilizumab (RoActemra or Actemra) is a recombinant humanized monoclonal antibody that acts as an interleukin (IL)-6 receptor antagonist., To increase the number of cycles of antigen binding and lysosomal degradation, we engineered tocilizumab (Actemra), an antibody against the IL-6 receptor (IL-6R), to rapidly dissociate from IL-6R within the acidic environment of the endosome (pH 6.0) while maintaining its binding affinity to IL-6R in plasma (pH 7.4)., Tocilizumab (Actemra; Genentech, Inc) is the first biologic therapy targeting the cytokine interleukin 6 (IL-6)., over, our findings showed that combination of tocilizumab (Actemra; Roche), an anti-IL-6R monoclonal antibody, with carboplatin synergistically inhibited growth and proliferation of the EOC cells and the most direct axis for IL-6 gene expression was NF-κB pathway.CONC, Roche is co-developing tocilizumab (Actemra, RoActemra), a humanized anti-interleukin-6 receptor (IL-6R) monoclonal antibody, with Chugai Pharmaceutical., Tocilizumab (TCZ) is a compound that inhibits the IL-6 receptor., Tocilizumab (TCZ), is a recombinant humanized anti-interleukin-6 receptor (IL-6R) monoclonal antibody which has a main use in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis, systemic juvenile idiopathic arthritis (sJIA) and polyarticular juvenile idiopathic arthritis (pJIA)., the US Food and Drug Administration accepted a complete-response submission for the use of Actemra (tocilizumab), the first humanized IL-6 receptor-inhibiting monoclonal antibody, for the treatment of RA. Although thi, increase the number of cycles of antigen binding and lysosomal degradation, we engineered tocilizumab (Actemra), an antibody against the IL-6 receptor (IL-6R), to rapidly dissociate from IL-6R within the acidic environment of the endosome (pH 6.0) while maintaining its binding affinity to IL-6R in plasma (pH 7.4). Studies usin, present study, we have shown that the humanized anti-IL-6 receptor tocilizumab (Actemra) is also a potent inhibitor of IL-8 in TNBC cells. Similar ef, Roche is co-developing tocilizumab (Actemra, RoActemra), a humanized anti-interleukin-6 receptor (IL-6R) monoclonal antibody, with Chugai Pharmaceutical. Tocili, tory gene activation is inhibited in vitro by tocilizumab, a humanized antibody to IL6 receptor (IL6R). Tocilizumab, These lines of evidence indicate that tocilizumab is able to bind to both sIL-6R and mIL-6R and to inhibit IL-6 binding to its receptors, leading to the blockade of the IL-6 signaling through both sIL-6R and mIL-6R, but not block the signaling of other IL-6 family cytokines., Tocilizumab inhibits signal transduction mediated by both mIL-6R and sIL-6R, but not by the receptors of other members of IL-6 cytokine family., In addition, tocilizumab had the ability to bind to human IL-6R expressing COS-7 cells and to suppress the growth of the IL-6-dependent myeloma cell line, KPMM2., To characterize the biological activity of tocilizumab, a humanized anti-human interleukin-6 receptor (IL-6R) monoclonal antibody, we examined its binding activity to both soluble IL-6R (sIL-6R) and membrane bound IL-6R (mIL-6R) and its neutralizing activity to other IL-6 family cytokines., Tocilizumab inhibited the proliferation of BaF/IL-6R induced by IL-6, but did not inhibit the proliferation of BaF/IL-11R, BaF/OSMR, BaF/LIFR and BaF/CNTFR cells induced by their corresponding cytokines., Moreover, tocilizumab suppressed the IL-6/sIL-6R complex-induced proliferation of human gp130-transfected cell, BAF-h130., In addition, tocilizumab had the ability to dissociate IL-6 and sIL-6R from their preformed complex., ELISA assay demonstrated that tocilizumab bound to sIL-6R and inhibited IL-6 binding to sIL-6R in a dose-dependent manner., Tocilizumab recognizes both the membrane-bound and the soluble form IL-6R and specifically blocks IL-6 actions., Humanized antihuman IL-6 receptor antibody, tocilizumab., Tocilizumab is a humanized antihuman IL-6 receptor antibody designed using genetic engineering technology., Tocilizumab is expected to ameliorate the autoimmune inflammatory diseases with IL-6 overproduction and has been clinically developed as a therapeutic agent for RA, systemic-onset and articular types of JIA, Crohn's disease, etc., Tocilizumab/Actemra is an anti-IL-6R antibody, which can competitively block IL-6 binding to the IL-6R., Tocilizumab (TCZ; RoActemra® or Actemra®) is a recombinant humanized monoclonal antibody that acts as an interleukin 6 (IL-6) receptor antagonist., In 2009 the US Food and Drug Administration accepted a complete-response submission for the use of Actemra (tocilizumab), the first humanized IL-6 receptor-inhibiting monoclonal antibody, for the treatment of RA., Tocilizumab binds to the interleukin-6 receptor (IL-6R) and thereby blocks signaling of the pro-inflammatory cytokine IL-6., Tocilizumab (RoActemra(®); Actemra(®)) is a recombinant humanized monoclonal antibody that acts as an interleukin-6 receptor antagonist.[SEP]Relations: Tocilizumab has relations: drug_protein with IL6R, drug_protein with IL6R, drug_drug with Elagolix, drug_drug with Elagolix, drug_drug with Acteoside, drug_drug with Acteoside, drug_drug with Metronidazole, drug_drug with Metronidazole, drug_drug with Atezolizumab, drug_drug with Atezolizumab. Definitions: IL-6 defined as following: A recombinant therapeutic agent which is chemically identical to or similar to the endogenous cytokine interleukin-6 (IL-6) with antiapoptotic, proinflammatory, antiinflammatory, proproliferative and proangiogenic activities. IL-6 binds to its receptor (IL-6R), activating a receptor-CD130 receptor complex; the CD130 portion of the complex is a signal transduction protein that activates JAK kinases and Ras-mediated signaling pathways, which in turn activate downstream signaling pathways, resulting in the activation of various transcription factors (STAT, ELK-1, NF-IL-6, etc.) and gene transcription. The physiological effects of IL-6 are complex and varied and include hematopoietic, pyrogenic and thermogenic, proinflammatory, antiinflammatory, proproliferative (anti-apoptotic), and angiogenic effects.. cytokine defined as following: Non-antibody proteins secreted by inflammatory leukocytes and some non-leukocytic cells, that act as intercellular mediators. They differ from classical hormones in that they are produced by a number of tissue or cell types rather than by specialized glands. They generally act locally in a paracrine or autocrine rather than endocrine manner.. carboplatin defined as following: An organoplatinum compound that possesses antineoplastic activity.. anasarca defined as following: A condition that is characterized by the presence of generalized edema. Causes include congestive heart failure, liver failure, renal failure, and severe malnutrition.. RA defined as following: A chronic systemic disease, primarily of the joints, marked by inflammatory changes in the synovial membranes and articular structures, widespread fibrinoid degeneration of the collagen fibers in mesenchymal tissues, and by atrophy and rarefaction of bony structures. Etiology is unknown, but autoimmune mechanisms have been implicated.. Tocilizumab defined as following: A recombinant, humanized IgG1 monoclonal antibody directed against the interleukin-6 receptor (IL-6R) with immunosuppressant activity. Tocilizumab targets and binds to both the soluble form of IL-6R (sIL-6R) and the membrane-bound form (mIL-6R), thereby blocking the binding of IL-6 to its receptor. This prevents IL-6-mediated signaling. IL-6, a pro-inflammatory cytokine that plays an important role in the regulation of the immune response, is overproduced in autoimmune disorders, certain types of cancers and possibly various other inflammatory conditions.. antibody defined as following: A protein complex that in its canonical form is composed of two identical immunoglobulin heavy chains and two identical immunoglobulin light chains, held together by disulfide bonds and sometimes complexed with additional proteins. An immunoglobulin complex may be embedded in the plasma membrane or present in the extracellular space, in mucosal areas or other tissues, or circulating in the blood or lymph. [GOC:add, GOC:jl, ISBN:0781765196]. IL-8 defined as following: Binding to an interleukin-8 receptor. [GOC:go_curators]. interleukin-6 receptor defined as following: Cell surface receptors that are specific for INTERLEUKIN-6. They are present on T-LYMPHOCYTES, mitogen-activated B-LYMPHOCYTES, and peripheral MONOCYTES. The receptors are heterodimers of the INTERLEUKIN-6 RECEPTOR ALPHA SUBUNIT and the CYTOKINE RECEPTOR GP130.. interleukin 6 defined as following: A cytokine that stimulates the growth and differentiation of B-LYMPHOCYTES and is also a growth factor for HYBRIDOMAS and plasmacytomas. It is produced by many different cells including T-LYMPHOCYTES; MONOCYTES; and FIBROBLASTS.. sIL-6R defined as following: Soluble interleukin-6 receptor subunit alpha is encoded by the human IL6R gene. This protein, which is produced by metalloproteinase-mediated cleavage of the membrane-bound form, is involved in the modulation of interleukin-6-mediated signaling by CD4-positive T-lymphocytes.. monoclonal antibody defined as following: A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against parathyroid hormone-related protein (PTH-rP). As a poly-hormone with diverse biological roles, PTH-rP is expressed by normal tissues, acting in local tissue environments in a variety of ways; it is commonly overexpressed by breast, prostate, and other cancers, acting systemically by promoting bone resorption, inhibiting calcium excretion from the kidney, inducing hypercalcemia, and possibly playing a role in the formation of bony metastases. By blocking the effects of PTH-rP on calcium metabolism, monoclonal antibody CAL may inhibit cancer-related hypercalcemia. (NCI04). IL6R defined as following: Interleukin-6 receptor subunit alpha (468 aa, ~52 kDa) is encoded by the human IL6R gene. This protein plays a role in regulation of the immune response, interleukin-6-mediated signaling, and hematopoiesis.. T1D defined as following: A chronic condition characterized by minimal or absent production of insulin by the pancreas.. endosome defined as following: Cytoplasmic vesicles formed when COATED VESICLES shed their CLATHRIN coat. Endosomes internalize macromolecules bound by receptors on the cell surface.. IL-6R defined as following: Combining with interleukin-6 and transmitting the signal from one side of the membrane to the other to initiate a change in cell activity. [GOC:jl, GOC:signaling]. human defined as following: Members of the species Homo sapiens.. cells defined as following: The fundamental, structural, and functional units or subunits of living organisms. They are composed of CYTOPLASM containing various ORGANELLES and a CELL MEMBRANE boundary..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_502", "sentence1": "Is Mycobacterium avium less susceptible to antibiotics than Mycobacterium tuberculosis?", "sentence2": "The prevalence of MAC lung infection in two inner city hospitals was four times higher than that of TB., Most patients with combined infection were clinically consistent with MTB and responded to anti MTB treatment alone., The triplex PCR developed by us could be used to detect and differentiate M. tuberculosis, M. avium and other mycobacteria in a single reaction tube., Twelve (15%) of the 80 blood cultures were positive for mycobacteria, with Mycobacterium avium being identified in 7 (8.8%) samples and M. tuberculosis in 5 (6.2%). , The antimycobacterial activities of RS-112997, RS-124922 and RS-118641, three capuramycin analogues that inhibit phospho-N-acetylmuramyl-pentapeptide translocase, were tested against clinical isolates of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Mycobacterium avium and Mycobacterium intracellulare, The MIC50/90 (mg/L) results for RS-118641 were: M. tuberculosis, 1/2; multidrug-resistant (MDR) M. tuberculosis, 0.5/2; M. avium, 4/8; and M. intracellulare, 0.06/0.5, These results suggest that capuramycin analogues exhibit strong antimycobacterial potential and should be considered for further evaluation in the treatment of M. tuberculosis and M. avium-M. intracellulare complex infections in humans., Mycobacterium avium causes disseminated infection in patients with acquired immune deficiency syndrome., Overall incidences of Mycobacterium tuberculosis (TB) and Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) were 0.8 and 1.4 cases/100 person-years of follow-up (PYF), decreasing from 1.8 (TB) and 3.5 cases/100 PYF (MAC) before September 1995 to 0.3 and 0.2 cases/100 PYF after March 1997., Because M tuberculosis disease is preventable and curable and yet communicable, physicians should maintain a high degree of suspicion for tuberculosis in HIV-infected adults. In comparison, the goal of treating M avium complex in patients with advanced HIV disease is to reduce constitutional symptoms and improve survival., MAC pulmonary disease should be considered in the differential diagnosis of SPNs, even when encountered in geographic regions with a high prevalence of pulmonary tuberculosis., From April 2001 to February 2002, 80 blood samples from patients who were suspected to have disseminated mycobacterial infection, presenting fever and (preferably) a CD4 T cell count<100.0 cell/mL were investigated, IL-10 underlies distinct susceptibility of BALB/c and C57BL/6 mice to Mycobacterium avium infection and influences efficacy of antibiotic therapy., Clinical utility of rifabutin 1 (RBT), a potent antibiotic used in multidrug regimens for tuberculosis (TB) as well as for infections caused by Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC), has been hampered due to dose-limiting toxicity. , Effective therapeutic regimens exist that are limited by the emergence of drug resistance and the inability of antibiotics to kill dormant organisms. , Clinical utility of rifabutin 1 (RBT), a potent antibiotic used in multidrug regimens for tuberculosis (TB) as well as for infections caused by Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC), has been hampered due to dose-limiting toxicity., a potent antibiotic used in multidrug regimens for tuberculosis (TB) as well as for infections caused by Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC),, Clinical utility of rifabutin 1 (RBT), a potent antibiotic used in multidrug regimens for tuberculosis (TB) as well as for infections caused by Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC), has been hampered due to dose-limiting toxicity., tuberculosis appear to have different genetic mechanisms for resisting the effects of these antibiotics, with pks12 playing a relatively more significant role in MAC.[SEP]Relations: tuberculosis has relations: disease_disease with mycobacterial infectious disease, disease_disease with mycobacterial infectious disease, disease_disease with tuberculosis, avian, disease_disease with tuberculosis, avian. mycobacterium avium complex disease has relations: disease_disease with mycobacterial infectious disease, disease_disease with mycobacterial infectious disease, disease_disease with primary bacterial infectious disease, disease_disease with primary bacterial infectious disease. Recurrent mycobacterium avium complex infections has relations: disease_phenotype_positive with monocytopenia with susceptibility to infections, disease_phenotype_positive with monocytopenia with susceptibility to infections. Definitions: Mycobacterium avium complex defined as following: A nontuberculous infection when occurring in humans. It is characterized by pulmonary disease, lymphadenitis in children, and systemic disease in AIDS patients. Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare infection of birds and swine results in tuberculosis.. infection defined as following: An illness caused by an infectious agent or its toxins that occurs through the direct or indirect transmission of the infectious agent or its products from an infected individual or via an animal, vector or the inanimate environment to a susceptible animal or human host.. humans defined as following: Members of the species Homo sapiens.. Mycobacterium intracellulare defined as following: species found in lung lesions and secretions of humans; may cause bone and tendon-sheath lesions in rabbits; some strains are pathogenic for mice; linked to opportunistic infections in humans; not easily distinguished from Mycobacterium avium and therefore is included in the Mycobacterium avium Complex.. rifabutin 1 defined as following: A broad-spectrum antibiotic that is being used as prophylaxis against disseminated Mycobacterium avium complex infection in HIV-positive patients.. mycobacterial infection defined as following: Infections with bacteria of the genus MYCOBACTERIUM.. MTB defined as following: A species of gram-positive, aerobic bacteria that produces TUBERCULOSIS in humans, other primates, CATTLE; DOGS; and some other animals which have contact with humans. Growth tends to be in serpentine, cordlike masses in which the bacilli show a parallel orientation.. pulmonary tuberculosis defined as following: MYCOBACTERIUM infections of the lung.. toxicity defined as following: The finding of bodily harm due to the poisonous effects of something.. IL-10 defined as following: Binding to interleukin-10. [GOC:jl]. Mycobacterium avium defined as following: A bacterium causing tuberculosis in domestic fowl and other birds. In pigs, it may cause localized and sometimes disseminated disease. The organism occurs occasionally in sheep and cattle. It should be distinguished from the M. avium complex, which infects primarily humans.. HIV disease defined as following: Includes the spectrum of human immunodeficiency virus infections that range from asymptomatic seropositivity, thru AIDS-related complex (ARC), to acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS).. TB defined as following: Any of the infectious diseases of man and other animals caused by species of MYCOBACTERIUM TUBERCULOSIS.. antibiotic defined as following: Substances naturally produced by microorganisms or their derivatives that selectively target microorganisms not humans. Antibiotics kill or inhibit the growth of microorganisms by targeting components of the microbial cell absent from human cells, including bacterial cell walls, cell membrane, and 30S or 50S ribosomal subunits. These substances are used in the treatment of bacterial and other microbial infections.. mycobacteria defined as following: A genus of gram-positive, aerobic bacteria. Most species are free-living in soil and water, but the major habitat for some is the diseased tissue of warm-blooded hosts..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_2512", "sentence1": "Is celiac disease caused by gliadin-induced transglutaminase-2 (TG2)-dependent events ?", "sentence2": "Celiac disease (CD) is a frequent inflammatory intestinal disease, with a genetic background, caused by gliadin-containing food. , Celiac disease (CD) is an autoimmune enteropathy initiated and sustained by the ingestion of gluten in genetically susceptible individuals. It is caused by a dysregulated immune response toward both dietary antigens, the gluten proteins of wheat, rye, and barley, and autoantigens, the enzyme tissue transglutaminase (TG2), Celiac disease (CD) is an autoimmune gastrointestinal disorder characterized by the presence of anti-transglutaminase 2 (TG2) and anti-gliadin antibodies, Transglutaminase 2 (TG2) catalyzes cross-linking or deamidation of glutamine residues in peptides and proteins. The in vivo deamidation of gliadin peptides plays an important role in the immunopathogenesis of celiac disease (CD)., Tissue transglutaminase (TG2) modifies proteins and peptides by transamidation or deamidation of specific glutamine residues. TG2 also has a central role in the pathogenesis of celiac disease. The enzyme is both the target of disease-specific autoantibodies and generates deamidated gliadin peptides recognized by intestinal T cells from patients.[SEP]Relations: celiac disease has relations: disease_protein with TGM2, disease_protein with TGM2, disease_protein with SOAT2, disease_protein with SOAT2, disease_protein with UGT1A4, disease_protein with UGT1A4, disease_protein with MAGI2, disease_protein with MAGI2, disease_protein with TFF1, disease_protein with TFF1. Definitions: proteins defined as following: Linear POLYPEPTIDES that are synthesized on RIBOSOMES and may be further modified, crosslinked, cleaved, or assembled into complex proteins with several subunits. The specific sequence of AMINO ACIDS determines the shape the polypeptide will take, during PROTEIN FOLDING, and the function of the protein.. TG2 defined as following: Protein-glutamine gamma-glutamyltransferase 2 (687 aa, ~77 kDa) is encoded by the human TGM2 gene. This protein plays a role in both the induction of apoptosis and the formation of covalent bonds between peptide-bound glutamine and various primary amines.. peptides defined as following: Members of the class of compounds composed of AMINO ACIDS joined together by peptide bonds between adjacent amino acids into linear, branched or cyclical structures. OLIGOPEPTIDES are composed of approximately 2-12 amino acids. Polypeptides are composed of approximately 13 or more amino acids. PROTEINS are considered to be larger versions of peptides that can form into complex structures such as ENZYMES and RECEPTORS.. Transglutaminase 2 defined as following: Calcium-dependent acyltransferase that catalyzes cross-linking of proteins at a GLUTAMINE in one chain with primary amine such as in LYSINE in another chain. In addition it can also accept monoamine substrates to catalyze post-translational modifications (e.g., protein serotonylation).. autoantigens defined as following: Endogenous tissue constituents with the ability to interact with AUTOANTIBODIES and cause an immune response.. rye defined as following: A hardy EDIBLE GRAIN crop, rye, grown in northern climates. It is the most frequent host to ergot (CLAVICEPS), the toxic fungus. Its hybrid with TRITICUM is TRITICALE, another CEREAL crop.. Celiac disease defined as following: A malabsorption syndrome that is precipitated by the ingestion of foods containing GLUTEN, such as wheat, rye, and barley. It is characterized by INFLAMMATION of the SMALL INTESTINE, loss of MICROVILLI structure, failed INTESTINAL ABSORPTION, and MALNUTRITION.. gluten proteins defined as following: Prolamins in the endosperm of SEEDS from the Triticeae tribe which includes species of WHEAT; BARLEY; and RYE.. autoimmune enteropathy defined as following: A rare autoimmune disorder that usually affects children. It is associated with the presence of circulating autoantibodies that act against the gut epithelial cells. It is characterized by diarrhea and weight loss due to malabsorption.. celiac disease defined as following: A malabsorption syndrome that is precipitated by the ingestion of foods containing GLUTEN, such as wheat, rye, and barley. It is characterized by INFLAMMATION of the SMALL INTESTINE, loss of MICROVILLI structure, failed INTESTINAL ABSORPTION, and MALNUTRITION.. transglutaminase-2 defined as following: Protein-glutamine gamma-glutamyltransferase 2 (687 aa, ~77 kDa) is encoded by the human TGM2 gene. This protein plays a role in both the induction of apoptosis and the formation of covalent bonds between peptide-bound glutamine and various primary amines..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_3255", "sentence1": "Can Daptacel be used instead of IPOL?", "sentence2": "Our goal was to compare the safety and immunogenicity of a combination vaccine (DTaP(5)-IPV-Hib; Pentacel) with that of its separately administered, US-licensed equivalent vaccines (diphtheria, tetanus, 5-component acellular pertussis vaccine [DTaP(5); Daptacel], inactivated poliovirus vaccine [IPV; IPOL], and Haemophilus influenzae type b [Hib] vaccine [ActHIB]), when administered to infants and toddlers concomitantly with other routinely recommended vaccines and to assess antibody persistence from the fourth dose in toddlers to the fifth (preschool) DTaP(5) dose., DTaP(5)-IPV-Hib is a suitable replacement for separately administered DTaP, IPV, and Hib vaccines., In this randomized, multicenter study, 1939 healthy infants were immunized at 2, 4, and 6 months of age with 1 of 3 lots of DTaP(5) coadministered with IPV and Hib vaccines or 1 lot of DTaP(5)-IPV-Hib combination vaccine., DTaP(5)-IPV-Hib elicited similar or fewer solicited injection-site and systemic reactions as compared with the separate administration of US-licensed DTaP(5), IPV, and Hib vaccines. [SEP]Relations: Corynebacterium diphtheriae toxoid antigen (formaldehyde inactivated) has relations: drug_drug with Certolizumab pegol, drug_drug with Certolizumab pegol, drug_drug with Dactinomycin, drug_drug with Dactinomycin, drug_drug with Dacarbazine, drug_drug with Dacarbazine, drug_drug with Clobetasol, drug_drug with Clobetasol. Clostridium tetani toxoid antigen (formaldehyde inactivated) has relations: drug_drug with Dactinomycin, drug_drug with Dactinomycin. Definitions: antibody defined as following: A protein complex that in its canonical form is composed of two identical immunoglobulin heavy chains and two identical immunoglobulin light chains, held together by disulfide bonds and sometimes complexed with additional proteins. An immunoglobulin complex may be embedded in the plasma membrane or present in the extracellular space, in mucosal areas or other tissues, or circulating in the blood or lymph. [GOC:add, GOC:jl, ISBN:0781765196]. DTaP(5)-IPV-Hib defined as following: A vaccine consisting of detoxified diphtheria toxoid (D), detoxified tetanus toxoid (T), acellular pertussis (aP) antigens, inactivated poliovirus (IPV) types 1, 2 and 3, and Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) capsular polysaccharide (polyribosylribitol phosphate; PRP) covalently bound to tetanus protein, suspended in water for injection and with active immunizing activity against diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, poliomyelitis and H. influenzae type b. The five purified pertussis antigens in this vaccine are pertussis toxin (PT), filamentous hemagglutinin (FHA), pertactin (PRN) and fimbriae types 2 and 3 (FIM). Upon intramuscular injection of the diphtheria-tetanus-acellular pertussis-inactivated poliomyelitis-Haemophilus influenzae type b vaccine (DTaP-IPV-Hib), this vaccine activates the immune system to develop antibodies against diphtheria toxin, tetanus toxin, B. pertussis antigens, polioviruses and Hib, thereby providing active immunization against these diseases. The diphtheria and tetanus toxoids and pertussis antigens (inactivated PT, FHA, PRN and FIM) are adsorbed separately onto aluminum phosphate and then combined with IPV and PRP.. diphtheria defined as following: A localized infection of mucous membranes or skin caused by toxigenic strains of CORYNEBACTERIUM DIPHTHERIAE. It is characterized by the presence of a pseudomembrane at the site of infection. DIPHTHERIA TOXIN, produced by C. diphtheriae, can cause myocarditis, polyneuritis, and other systemic toxic effects.. vaccines defined as following: Suspensions of killed or attenuated microorganisms (bacteria, viruses, fungi, protozoa), antigenic proteins, synthetic constructs, or other bio-molecular derivatives, administered for the prevention, amelioration, or treatment of infectious and other diseases.. tetanus defined as following: A preparation of formaldehyde-deactivated toxin isolated from the bacterium Clostridium tetani. Tetanus toxoid is used for booster injection and can stimulate the production of antitoxin antibodies. This agent may be used as an adjuvant in cancer vaccines..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_4203", "sentence1": "Does AZD3759 cross the blood brain barrier?", "sentence2": "AZD3759, an EGFR tyrosine kinase inhibitors (TKIs) with excellent blood-brain barrier (BBB) penetration,, AZD3759, a BBB-penetrating EGFR inhibitor for the treatment of EGFR mutant NSCLC with CNS metastases, We report the discovery and early clinical development of AZD3759, a selective EGFR inhibitor that can fully penetrate the blood-brain barrier (BBB),, AZD3759 is a novel EGFR tyrosine kinase inhibitor with high capability to penetrate the blood-brain barrier. , We report the discovery and early clinical development of AZD3759, a selective EGFR inhibitor that can fully penetrate the blood-brain barrier (BBB), with equal free concentrations in the blood, cerebrospinal fluid, and brain tissue., Another promising class of EGFR TKI such as AZD3759 has been designed to penetrate blood brain barrier to treat brain metastases and leptomeningeal disease and has showed promising responses in patients with brain metastases., AZD3759 is a novel EGFR tyrosine kinase inhibitor with high capability to penetrate the blood-brain barrier., In our study, we demonstrated that AZD3759, an EGFR tyrosine kinase inhibitors (TKIs) with excellent blood-brain barrier (BBB) penetration, combined with radiation enhanced the antitumor efficacy in BM model from EGFR mutant (EGFRm) NSCLC., sing class of EGFR TKI such as AZD3759 has been designed to penetrate blood brain barrier to treat brain metastases and leptomeningeal disease and has showed promising responses in patients with brain metastases. Acquired re, discovery and early clinical development of AZD3759, a selective EGFR inhibitor that can fully penetrate the blood-brain barrier (BBB), with equal free concentrations in the blood, cerebrospinal fluid, and brain tissue. Treatment with A, AZD3759, a BBB-penetrating EGFR inhibitor for the treatment of EGFR mutant NSCLC with CNS metastases., our study, we demonstrated that AZD3759, an EGFR tyrosine kinase inhibitors (TKIs) with excellent blood-brain barrier (BBB) penetration, combined with radiation enhanced the antitumor efficacy in BM model from EGFR mutant (EGFRm) NSCLC. Besides, t, in patients with BM and LM treated with AZD3759 confirms its BBB-penetrant properties and antitumor activities. Our data demonstrate , ood penetration of the blood-brain barrier by AZD3759, and its promising clinical activity, support further assessment of this compound in studies.FUNDI, The next generation EGFR TKIs osimertinib and AZD3759 have improved BBB penetration and the BLOOM study of osimertinib and AZD3759 has reported highly promising intracranial efficacy and may herald a new frontier to treat this therapeutically challenging subset of advanced EGFR mutant patients., The results showed the BBB penetration of AZD3759 was decreased within 24 hr after radiation, however, the free concentration of AZD3759 in brain kept at a high level in the context of radiation., We also detected the BBB penetration of AZD3759 when combined with cranial radiation., good penetration of the blood-brain barrier by AZD3759, and its promising clinical activity, support further assessment of this compound in studies.FUND, n pretreated with a tyrosine kinase inhibitor. The good penetration of the blood-brain barrier by AZD3759, and its promising clinical activity, support further asse, An early clinical study in patients with BM and LM treated with AZD3759 confirms its BBB-penetrant properties and antitumor activities.[SEP]Relations: blood brain barrier has relations: anatomy_anatomy with glial blood brain barrier, anatomy_anatomy with glial blood brain barrier, anatomy_anatomy with cell layer, anatomy_anatomy with cell layer. central nervous system has relations: anatomy_protein_present with AZIN1, anatomy_protein_present with AZIN1, anatomy_protein_present with ZNF609, anatomy_protein_present with ZNF609, anatomy_protein_present with TBC1D9, anatomy_protein_present with TBC1D9. Definitions: AZD3759 defined as following: An orally available inhibitor of the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR), with potential antineoplastic activity. Upon oral administration, AZD3759 binds to and inhibits the activity of EGFR as well as certain mutant forms of EGFR. This prevents EGFR-mediated signaling, and may lead to both induction of cell death and inhibition of tumor growth in EGFR-overexpressing cells. EGFR, a receptor tyrosine kinase mutated in many tumor cell types, plays a key role in tumor cell proliferation and tumor vascularization. Check for \"https://www.cancer.gov/about-cancer/treatment/clinical-trials/intervention/C118289\" active clinical trials using this agent. (\"http://ncit.nci.nih.gov/ncitbrowser/ConceptReport.jsp?dictionary=NCI%20Thesaurus&code=C118289\" NCI Thesaurus). BM defined as following: The normal process of elimination of fecal material from the RECTUM.. EGFR tyrosine kinase inhibitors defined as following: Any tyrosine kinase inhibitor that targets the activity of the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) tyrosine kinase. Inhibition of epidermal growth factor receptor tyrosine kinase may inhibit the growth of epidermal-lineage tumor cells, especially those that overexpress epidermal growth factor receptor.. mutant defined as following: An altered form of an individual, organism, population, or genetic character that differs from the corresponding wild type due to one or more alterations (mutations).. NSCLC defined as following: A heterogeneous aggregate of at least three distinct histological types of lung cancer, including SQUAMOUS CELL CARCINOMA; ADENOCARCINOMA; and LARGE CELL CARCINOMA. They are dealt with collectively because of their shared treatment strategy.. cerebrospinal fluid defined as following: A watery fluid that is continuously produced in the CHOROID PLEXUS and circulates around the surface of the BRAIN; SPINAL CORD; and in the CEREBRAL VENTRICLES.. CNS defined as following: The main information-processing organs of the nervous system, consisting of the brain, spinal cord, and meninges.. tyrosine kinase inhibitor defined as following: Protein kinase inhibitors that inhibit TYROSINE PROTEIN KINASES..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_827", "sentence1": "Are histone deacetylase (HDAC) inhibitors good candidates to control metastasis of solid tumors?", "sentence2": "JNJ-26481585 also fully inhibited the growth of C170HM2 colorectal liver metastases, whereas again 5-fluorouracil/Leucovorin showed modest activity., Although not meeting the RECIST response criteria for adequate single-agent activity, the observed tolerable toxicities and the potential for clinical benefit in terms of stable disease suggest that further assessment of vorinostat as a part of combination therapy with either chemotherapeutic or targeted agents in metastatic breast might be undertaken., Treatments of different structural classes of HDACi simultaneously induced cell death and promoted cell migration and metastasis in multiple cancer cell types. Suppression of HDACi-induced PKCs leads to development of low toxic and long-term therapeutic strategies to potentially treat cancer as a chronic disease., mRNA expression analysis of lung tumor bearing mice suggested that the enhanced chemopreventive activity of the combination is related to atorvastatin modulation of DNA repair, SAHA modulation of angiogenesis, and both drugs modulating invasion and metastasis pathways., Histone deacetylase (HDAC) inhibitors induced morphologic differentiation, cell-cycle exit, and a shift to a differentiated, melanocytic gene expression profile in cultured UM cells. VPA inhibited the growth of UM tumors in vivo., When both drugs were used in concert additive effects were observed on the migratory and invasive behavior but not on tumor-endothelium and tumor-matrix interaction. Separate mTOR or HDAC inhibition slows processes related to tumor metastasis. The RAD001-VPA combination showed advantage over VPA monotreatment with particular respect to migration and invasion., In conclusion, sequential treatments of mice with MS-275 followed by TRAIL may target multiple pathways to reverse EMT and inhibit tumor progression, angiogenesis, and metastasis and represent a novel therapeutic approach to treat cancer., In vivo, AA98 synergized with vorinostat to inhibit tumor growth and metastasis., We report the first preclinical data for the prevention of brain metastasis of triple-negative breast cancer. Vorinostat is brain permeable and can prevent the formation of brain metastases by 62%. Its mechanism of action involves the induction of DNA double-strand breaks, suggesting rational combinations with DNA active drugs or radiation., Combining vorinostat with radiation may be a potential treatment option for patients with breast cancer who develop brain metastases., Although single-agent PCI-24781 had modest effects on STS growth and metastasis, marked inhibition was observed when combined with chemotherapy., In a 4T1 metastatic breast carcinoma model, AN-7 inhibited the formation of lung lesions by 76% and AN-9 by 47%, further demonstrating the greater efficacy of AN-7 compared to AN-9 (P<0.02). Both AN-7 and AN-9 exhibited antimetastatic and antiangiogenic activities by reducing vascularization, bFGF expression and HIF-1alpha., Since prolonged oral administration with 50 mg/kg or a single oral dose of 1.2 g/kg AN-7 did not cause adverse effects and the former exhibited significant anticancer activity, AN-7 is likely to display a high therapeutic index and may be beneficial for prostate cancer patients., We show that apicidin significantly inhibits H-ras-induced invasive phenotype of MCF10A human breast epithelial cells in parallel with a specific downregulation of matrix metalloproteinase (MMP)-2, but not MMP-9. We also show that apicidin induces a morphological reversal and growth inhibition of H-ras MCF10A cells similar to that induced by other HDAC inhibitors., We also found that NaB induced three genes, which are known metastatic suppressors, and downregulated 11 genes, which have been shown to promote metastasis.[SEP]Relations: Valproic acid has relations: drug_protein with HDAC9, drug_protein with HDAC9, drug_protein with HDAC2, drug_protein with HDAC2. Vorinostat has relations: drug_protein with HDAC3, drug_protein with HDAC3, drug_protein with HDAC1, drug_protein with HDAC1, drug_protein with HDAC6, drug_protein with HDAC6. Definitions: cancer defined as following: A malignant tumor at the original site of growth.. prostate cancer defined as following: A primary or metastatic malignant tumor involving the prostate gland. The vast majority are carcinomas.. vorinostat defined as following: A synthetic hydroxamic acid derivative with antineoplastic activity. Vorinostat, a second generation polar-planar compound, binds to the catalytic domain of the histone deacetylases (HDACs). This allows the hydroxamic moiety to chelate zinc ion located in the catalytic pockets of HDAC, thereby inhibiting deacetylation and leading to an accumulation of both hyperacetylated histones and transcription factors. Hyperacetylation of histone proteins results in the upregulation of the cyclin-dependant kinase p21, followed by G1 arrest. Hyperacetylation of non-histone proteins such as tumor suppressor p53, alpha tubulin, and heat-shock protein 90 produces additional anti-proliferative effects. This agent also induces apoptosis and sensitizes tumor cells to cell death processes. Vorinostat crosses the blood-brain barrier.. lung tumor defined as following: Tumors or cancer of the LUNG.. MMP-9 defined as following: An endopeptidase that is structurally similar to MATRIX METALLOPROTEINASE 2. It degrades GELATIN types I and V; COLLAGEN TYPE IV; and COLLAGEN TYPE V.. toxicities defined as following: The finding of bodily harm due to the poisonous effects of something.. triple-negative breast cancer defined as following: An invasive breast carcinoma which is negative for expression of estrogen receptor (ER), progesterone receptor (PR), and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2).. VPA defined as following: A fatty acid with anticonvulsant and anti-manic properties that is used in the treatment of EPILEPSY and BIPOLAR DISORDER. The mechanisms of its therapeutic actions are not well understood. It may act by increasing GAMMA-AMINOBUTYRIC ACID levels in the brain or by altering the properties of VOLTAGE-GATED SODIUM CHANNELS.. HIF-1alpha defined as following: Hypoxia-inducible factor 1-alpha (826 aa, ~93 kDa) is encoded by the human HIF1A gene. This protein plays a role in transcriptional regulation in response to hypoxia.. mTOR defined as following: Serine/threonine-protein kinase mTOR (2549 aa, ~289 kDa) is encoded by the human MTOR gene. This protein is involved in protein phosphorylation, signaling and cell growth.. TRAIL defined as following: Human TNFSF10 wild-type allele is located within 3q26 and is approximately 18 kb in length. This allele, which encodes tumor necrosis factor ligand superfamily member 10 protein, is involved in the induction and modulation of apoptosis.. STS defined as following: An anionic surface-active agent used for its wetting properties in industry and used in medicine as an irritant and sclerosing agent for hemorrhoids and varicose veins.. RECIST defined as following: Standard parameters to be used when documenting response of solid tumors to treatment; a set of published rules that define when cancer patients improve (\"respond\"), stay the same (\"stable\"), or worsen (\"progression\") during treatments. (from www.recist.com). H-ras defined as following: Human HRAS wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 11p15.5 and is approximately 3 kb in length. This allele, which encodes GTPase HRas protein, is involved in cellular mitogenesis. Mutations of HRAS are implicated in Costello syndrome, bladder cancer and oral squamous cell carcinoma.. chronic disease defined as following: Diseases which have one or more of the following characteristics: they are permanent, leave residual disability, are caused by nonreversible pathological alteration, require special training of the patient for rehabilitation, or may be expected to require a long period of supervision, observation, or care (Dictionary of Health Services Management, 2d ed). For epidemiological studies chronic disease often includes HEART DISEASES; STROKE; CANCER; and diabetes (DIABETES MELLITUS, TYPE 2).. breast cancer defined as following: A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the breast. The vast majority of cases are carcinomas arising from the breast parenchyma or the nipple. Malignant breast neoplasms occur more frequently in females than in males.. atorvastatin defined as following: A synthetic lipid-lowering agent. Atorvastatin competitively inhibits hepatic hydroxymethyl-glutaryl coenzyme A (HMG-CoA) reductase, the enzyme which catalyzes the conversion of HMG-CoA to mevalonate, a key step in cholesterol synthesis. Atorvastatin also increases the number of LDL receptors on hepatic cell surfaces to enhance uptake and catabolism of LDL and reduces LDL production and the number of LDL particles. This agent lowers plasma cholesterol and lipoprotein levels and modulates immune responses by suppressing MHC II (major histocompatibility complex II) on interferon gamma-stimulated, antigen-presenting cells such as human vascular endothelial cells. (NCI04). genes defined as following: A category of nucleic acid sequences that function as units of heredity and which code for the basic instructions for the development, reproduction, and maintenance of organisms.. HDAC defined as following: Human HDAC9 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 7p21.1 and is approximately 910 kb in length. This allele, which encodes histone deacetylase 9 protein, is involved in the modification of histones.. solid tumors defined as following: A benign or malignant neoplasm arising from tissues that do not include fluid areas. Representative examples include epithelial neoplasms (e.g. lung carcinoma, prostate carcinoma, breast carcinoma, colon carcinoma), and neoplasms arising from the soft tissues and bones (e.g. leiomyosarcoma, liposarcoma, chondrosarcoma, osteosarcoma). Neoplasms originating from the blood or bone marrow (leukemias and myeloproliferative disorders) are not considered solid tumors..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_3545", "sentence1": "Does the BRAFV600E mutation have an effect on clinical response to radioiodine therapy?", "sentence2": "Preclinical studies showed that BRAF mutation significantly reduced radioiodine uptake and decreased the sensitivity to radioactive iodine (RAI) therapy., The status of BRAF mutation may not affect the clinical response to RAI therapy for patients with PTMC with intermediate-risk to high-risk features. More trials examining the role of BRAF mutation in guiding postoperative RAI therapy are needed., our results suggest that the combination of BRAFV600E+ve mutation and MIBI-ve scintigraphy may be considered a negative prognostic clue, which predicts the absence of radioiodine uptake at pT-WBS in DTC patients with incomplete bio-chemical response to first RAIT, The results indicate that BRAF(V600E) mutation is correlated with a lower expression of NIS in PTCs without HT, suggesting the radioiodine-refractory effects during RIA therapy in these patients.[SEP]Relations: SLC5A5 has relations: drug_protein with Iodine, drug_protein with Iodine, disease_protein with hereditary site-specific ovarian cancer syndrome, disease_protein with hereditary site-specific ovarian cancer syndrome, bioprocess_protein with cellular response to cAMP, bioprocess_protein with cellular response to cAMP, disease_protein with hereditary breast ovarian cancer syndrome, disease_protein with hereditary breast ovarian cancer syndrome, disease_protein with familial ovarian cancer, disease_protein with familial ovarian cancer. Definitions: NIS defined as following: This gene is involved in iodide transport.. RAI defined as following: Human PPP1R13L wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 19q13.32 and is approximately 27 kb in length. This allele, which encodes RelA-associated inhibitor protein, plays a role in the modulation of both apoptosis and transcription.. HT defined as following: An autoimmune disorder caused by the production of autoantibodies against thyroid tissue. There is progressive destruction of the thyroid follicles leading to hypothyroidism.. BRAF defined as following: Serine/threonine-protein kinase B-raf (766 aa, ~84 kDa) is encoded by the human BRAF gene. This protein plays a role in protein phosphorylation, mitogenesis and neuronal signal transduction.. mutation defined as following: Any transmissible change in the genetic material of an organism, which can result from radiation, viral infection, transposition, treatment with mutagenic chemicals and errors during DNA replication or meiosis. The effects of mutation range from single base changes to loss or gain of complete chromosomes. As many of the simpler alterations to DNA may be repaired, such changes are only heritable once the change is fixed in the DNA by the process of replication. Mutations may be associated with genetic diversity or with pathologies including cancer..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_1082", "sentence1": "Are there any Decision support systems for chronic pain management ?", "sentence2": "a project to operationalize the 2003 VA/DOD Clinical Practice Guideline for Opioid Therapy for Chronic Non-Cancer Pain into a computerized decision support system (DSS), We based the DSS on the existing ATHENA-DSS, Use of this iterative process led to development of a multifunctional DSS, interactive decision dashboard format, We created a computerized, interactive clinical decision dashboard , Interactive decision dashboards can be adapted for clinical use and have the potential to foster informed decision making., Clinical decision support systems are promising tools for improving behavioral medicine care for chronic pain., Improving Patient Safety Using ATHENA-Decision Support System Technology: , ATHENA-DSS is an automated decision support system developed in a collaboration between Stanford University and the U.S. Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) to increase guideline-adherent prescribing and to change physician behavior., The use of a computer-based decision support system facilitates primary care physicians' management of chronic pain., The use of a CBDS system may improve the ability of PCPs to manage chronic pain and may also facilitate screening of consults to optimize specialist utilization.[SEP]Relations: Chronic pain has relations: phenotype_phenotype with Pain, phenotype_phenotype with Pain, disease_phenotype_positive with glycogen storage disease, disease_phenotype_positive with glycogen storage disease, disease_phenotype_positive with Sjogren syndrome, disease_phenotype_positive with Sjogren syndrome, disease_phenotype_positive with Machado-Joseph disease, disease_phenotype_positive with Machado-Joseph disease, disease_phenotype_positive with Loeys-Dietz syndrome, disease_phenotype_positive with Loeys-Dietz syndrome. Definitions: chronic pain defined as following: Aching sensation that persists for more than a few months. It may or may not be associated with trauma or disease, and may persist after the initial injury has healed. Its localization, character, and timing are more vague than with acute pain..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_1580", "sentence1": "Do Conserved noncoding elements act as enhancers?", "sentence2": "The aCNEs are rich in tissue-specific enhancers, Transgenic zebrafish assay of some human CNE enhancers that have been lost in teleosts, Conserved noncoding elements (CNEs) in vertebrate genomes often act as developmental enhancers,, In all four cases where the zebra fish and human CNE display a similar expression pattern in zebra fish, the human CNE also displays a similar expression pattern in mouse. This suggests that the endogenous enhancer activity of ∼30% of human CNEs can be determined from experiments in zebra fish, If these ancient CNEs are indeed enhancers directing tissue-specific expression of Hox genes, divergence of their sequences in vertebrate lineages might have led to altered expression patterns and presumably the functions of their associated Hox genes., Comparisons of noncoding sequences of the elephant shark and human Hox clusters have identified a large number of conserved noncoding elements (CNEs), which represent putative cis-regulatory elements that may be involved in the regulation of Hox genes., Animal genomes possess highly conserved cis-regulatory sequences that are often found near genes that regulate transcription and development., We test 42 of our PCNEs in transgenic zebrafish assays--including examples from vertebrates and amphioxus--and find that the majority are functional enhancers., The genomes of vertebrates, flies, and nematodes contain highly conserved noncoding elements (CNEs). CNEs cluster around genes that regulate development, and where tested, they can act as transcriptional enhancers., , we identified 17 highly conserved noncoding elements, 9 of which revealed specific acetylation marks in chromatin-immunoprecipitation and microarray (ChIP-chip) assays performed across 250 kb of the Lmo2 locus in 11 cell types covering different stages of hematopoietic differentiation. All candidate regulatory regions were tested in transgenic mice. An extended LMO2 proximal promoter fragment displayed strong endothelial activity, while the distal promoter showed weak forebrain activity. Eight of the 15 distal candidate elements functioned as enhancers,, Pan-vertebrate developmental cis-regulatory elements are discernible as highly conserved noncoding elements (HCNEs) and are often dispersed over large areas around the pleiotropic genes whose expression they control., HCNEs of both human and zebrafish function as specific developmental enhancers in zebrafish., several transcriptional enhancers are conserved between amphioxus and vertebrates--a very wide phylogenetic distance., We recently described GRBs in vertebrates, where most HCNEs function as enhancers, Besides developmental regulators that are likely targets of HCNE enhancers, We identify and characterize highly conserved noncoding elements flanking the TNF gene, which undergo activation-dependent intrachromosomal interactions. These elements, hypersensitive site (HSS)-9 and HSS+3 (9 kb upstream and 3 kb downstream of the TNF gene, respectively), contain DNase I hypersensitive sites in naive, T helper 1, and T helper 2 primary T cells. Both HSS-9 and HSS+3 inducibly associate with acetylated histones, indicative of chromatin remodeling, bind the transcription factor nuclear factor of activated T cells (NFAT)p in vitro and in vivo, and function as enhancers, We used the sequence signatures identified by this approach to successfully assign tissue-specific predictions to approximately 328,000 human-mouse conserved noncoding elements in the human genome. By overlapping these genome-wide predictions with a data set of enhancers validated in vivo, in transgenic mice, we were able to confirm our results with a 28% sensitivity and 50% precision., Fish-mammal genomic comparisons have proved powerful in identifying conserved noncoding elements likely to be cis-regulatory in nature, and the majority of those tested in vivo have been shown to act as tissue-specific enhancers associated with genes involved in transcriptional regulation of development., uncovered two anciently conserved noncoding sequences (CNS) upstream of COUP-TFII (CNS-62kb and CNS-66kb). Testing these two elements using reporter constructs in liver cells (HepG2) revealed that CNS-66kb, but not CNS-62kb, yielded robust in vitro enhancer activity.[SEP]Relations: Protein S human has relations: drug_drug with Nonacog beta pegol, drug_drug with Nonacog beta pegol, drug_drug with Resveratrol, drug_drug with Resveratrol, drug_drug with Antihemophilic factor, human recombinant, drug_drug with Antihemophilic factor, human recombinant, drug_drug with Antihemophilic Factor (Recombinant), PEGylated, drug_drug with Antihemophilic Factor (Recombinant), PEGylated. central nervous system has relations: anatomy_protein_present with NONO, anatomy_protein_present with NONO. Definitions: sequences defined as following: The sequence of nucleotide residues along a DNA chain.. T cells defined as following: A subset of therapeutic autologous T-lymphocytes that express a T-cell receptor (TCR) composed of one gamma chain and one delta chain, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the therapeutic gamma delta T-lymphocytes, these cells secrete interferon-gamma (IFN-g), and exert direct killing of tumor cells. In addition, these cells activate the immune system to exert a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells. Gamma delta T-lymphocytes play a key role in the activation of the immune system and do not require major histocompatibility complex (MHC)-mediated antigen presentation to exert their cytotoxic effect.. liver cells defined as following: The main structural component of the LIVER. They are specialized EPITHELIAL CELLS that are organized into interconnected plates called lobules.. zebrafish defined as following: An exotic species of the family CYPRINIDAE, originally from Asia, that has been introduced in North America. Zebrafish is a model organism for drug assay and cancer research.. regulatory regions defined as following: Nucleic acid sequences involved in regulating the expression of genes.. vertebrate defined as following: Animals having a vertebral column, members of the phylum Chordata, subphylum Craniata comprising mammals, birds, reptiles, amphibians, and fishes.. DNase I defined as following: Catalysis of the endonucleolytic cleavage of DNA to 5'-phosphodinucleotide and 5'-phosphooligonucleotide end products. [EC:3.1.21.1]. histones defined as following: Small chromosomal proteins (approx 12-20 kD) possessing an open, unfolded structure and attached to the DNA in cell nuclei by ionic linkages. Classification into the various types (designated histone I, histone II, etc.) is based on the relative amounts of arginine and lysine in each.. aCNEs defined as following: A chronic neuropathic pain syndrome of the abdominal wall caused by entrapment of anterior cutaneous branches of 7 to 12th intercostal nerves along the lateral border of the anterior rectus abdominis fascia.. TNF gene defined as following: This gene is involved in apoptosis, cell growth and cell proliferation. It also plays a role in immune and inflammatory responses.. elements defined as following: Substances that comprise all matter. Each element is made up of atoms that are identical in number of electrons and protons and in nuclear charge but may differ in mass or number of neutrons.. Lmo2 defined as following: Human LMO2 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 11p13 and is approximately 34 kb in length. This allele, which encodes rhombotin-2 protein, is involved in red blood cell development through the modulation of transcription by RNA polymerase II.. COUP-TFII defined as following: COUP transcription factor 2 (414 aa, ~46 kDa) is encoded by the human NR2F2 gene. This protein is involved in the mediation of transcription.. genes defined as following: A category of nucleic acid sequences that function as units of heredity and which code for the basic instructions for the development, reproduction, and maintenance of organisms.. flies defined as following: An order of the class Insecta. Wings, when present, number two and distinguish Diptera from other so-called flies, while the halteres, or reduced hindwings, separate Diptera from other insects with one pair of wings. The order includes the families Calliphoridae, Oestridae, Phoridae, SARCOPHAGIDAE, Scatophagidae, Sciaridae, SIMULIIDAE, Tabanidae, Therevidae, Trypetidae, CERATOPOGONIDAE; CHIRONOMIDAE; CULICIDAE; DROSOPHILIDAE; GLOSSINIDAE; MUSCIDAE; TEPHRITIDAE; and PSYCHODIDAE. The larval form of Diptera species are called maggots (see LARVA).. CNS defined as following: The main information-processing organs of the nervous system, consisting of the brain, spinal cord, and meninges.. transgenic mice defined as following: Laboratory mice that have been produced from a genetically manipulated EGG or EMBRYO, MAMMALIAN.. pleiotropic genes defined as following: A single gene that influences several distinct and seemly unrelated phenotypic outcomes.. Hox genes defined as following: Genes that encode highly conserved TRANSCRIPTION FACTORS that control positional identity of cells (BODY PATTERNING) and MORPHOGENESIS throughout development. Their sequences contain a 180 nucleotide sequence designated the homeobox, so called because mutations of these genes often results in homeotic transformations, in which one body structure replaces another. The proteins encoded by homeobox genes are called HOMEODOMAIN PROTEINS.. human defined as following: Members of the species Homo sapiens.. genomes defined as following: The genetic complement of an organism, including all of its GENES, as represented in its DNA, or in some cases, its RNA.. enhancer defined as following: A 50-150bp DNA sequence that increases the rate of transcription of coding sequences. It may be located at various distances and in either orientation upstream from, downstream from or within a structural gene. When bound by a specific transcription factor it increases the levels of expression of the gene, but is not sufficient alone to cause expression. Distinguished from a promoter, that is alone sufficient to cause expression of the gene when bound.. nematodes defined as following: class of unsegmented helminths with fundamental bilateral symmetry and secondary triradiate symmetry of the oral and esophageal structures; many species are parasites..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_225", "sentence1": "Is it safe to take isotretinoin during pregnancy?", "sentence2": "Isotretinoin is a remarkably effective drug for severe, recalcitrant acne vulgaris., a number of important adverse effects were reported, even the most recent pregnancy prevention program (iPledge) is no more successful than prior programs; there will likely always be a small number of female patients becoming pregnant while receiving isotretinoin for acne vulgaris., Isotretinoin has revolutionized the management of acne vulgaris., The adverse effect(s) that led to patients stopping isotretinoin were cheilitis (22 patients), mood change (13), tiredness (12), eczema (6) and pregnancy (2)., Downregulation of FGFR2b-signaling by isotretinoin explains its therapeutic effect in acne. Downregulation of FGFR2b-signaling during the first trimester of pregnancy disturbs branched morphogenesis and explains retinoid embryotoxicity., The isotretinoin, a 13-cis-retinoic acid, has revolutionized the management of severe treatment-resistant acne and it has been widely used for a range of dermatological conditions, in 90% of the time in young women between 13 and 45 years of age. This agent has severe teratogenic effects, as serious craniofacial, cardiovascular, thymic and central nervous system malformations., malformations is 3-5%, but it increases to almost 30% in women exposed to isotretinoin during the first trimester of pregnancy. Generally, patients in treatment with isotretinoin avoid eventual pregnancy during assumption and, after its stopping, fertility and foetal development are normal once circulating isotretinoin levels return to normal., After 3 months of pharmacological wash out, patient become pregnant and manifested this severe malformation. Woman interrupted gestation, by labour induction., Clindamycin phosphate 1.2% together with tretinoin 0.025% as a gel (CTG) is a topical formulation of a fixed and stable combination approved by the FDA for the treatment of acne vulgaris in patients 12 years of age or older., Safety of CTG use in pregnancy has not been established., To estimate the population-based incidence rates of pregnancy, spontaneous and elective abortions, and birth defects associated with isotretinoin use, and to determine predictors of pregnancy while on isotretinoin, Pregnancies, spontaneous and elective abortions, and birth defects were identified using procedure codes and medical diagnoses., 90 women who became pregnant while on the drug, 76 terminated the pregnancy (84%), three had a spontaneous abortion (3%), two had trauma during delivery resulting in neonatal deaths (2%) and nine had a live birth (10%). Among the live births, only one had a congenital anomaly of the face and neck (11%)., elective abortion rates were also much higher in our study., Topical antibiotics, isotretinoin or systemic antibiotics are usually used for acne therapy. However, isotretinoin cannot be used during pregnancy because it can cause significant birth defects while systemic antibiotics can have adverse side effects such as gastrointestinal irritation, photosensitivity and tetracycline sensitivity., Isotretinoin has been used to treat acne since 1982. Its current indications in the package insert are limited and many physicians still feel uncomfortable prescribing it because of its side effects., Aside from its teratogenic effect, isotretinoin is a safe and excellent drug for acne therapy. I, a pregnancy test in females., Vitamin A and its derivatives, retinoic acid, tretinoin and isotretinoin, are currently used in dermatological treatments. The administration of high doses of this vitamin provokes congenital malformations in mice: cleft palate, maxillary and mandibular hypoplasia and total or partial fusion of the maxillary incisors., Twelve 60-day-old female Mus musculus were divided into two groups on the 7th day of pregnancy: treated group--1 mg isotretinoin per kg body weight, dissolved in vegetable oil, was administered from the 7th to the 13th day of pregnancy; control group--vegetable oil in equivalent volume was administered orally for the same period. On the 16th day of pregnancy, the females were sacrificed, the fetuses were removed and their heads amputated., The results showed that both groups had closed palates with no reminiscence of epithelial cells; however, the first molar germs of the isotretinoin-treated animals showed delayed development compared to the control animals., Isotretinoin (13-cis-RA) is teratogenic in all species examined; based on administered dose, humans appear most sensitive, followed by (in order or decreasing sensitivity) monkey, rabbit, hamster, mouse, and rat., Based on embryonic delivered dose, we suggest that 13-cis-RA is an equipotent teratogen in hamster and rabbit., its safety in humans is occasionally questioned because oral ingestion of retinoids at therapeutic levels is known to entail teratogenic risks., topical tretinoin is not a potential human developmental toxicant., Teratogenicity of vitamin A was firstly detected in experimental animals in 1953. Nearly 30 years later, teratogenicity of vitamin A analogue-isotretinoin was reported in humans. Isotretinoin induces serious birth defects of craniofacial and central nervous system, cardiovascular system and thymic malformations--in about 25% of babies exposed during the first trimester of their prenatal development., high vitamin A intake in pregnant woman: Women who use daily vitamin A supplements during early pregnancy have approximately a two-fold increased risk of giving birth to a malformed baby., Vitamin A started to affect development between doses 0.3-0.3 microm [corrected] per embryo. Malformations of head, extremities and heart were detected similarly like in laboratory mammals and in man, the minimal embryotoxic doses of vitamin A in mammals were estimated to be between 0.1-1 mg/kg of maternal weight, Human epidemiological studies have proved teratogenicity of vitamin A after daily doses 25,000 i.u.-8.3 mg (0.13 mg/kg)- and reduction of its maximum intake has been recommended to 10,000 i.u. per day (0.05 mg/kg). The results about teratogenicity of vitamin A achieved in the chick embryo are in agreement with such a recommendation. Intake of vitamin A in the food is sufficient for pregnant woman in common Czech population. Therefore, an artificial supplementation of vitamin A brings risk of overdosage. If supplementation by vitamin A is unavoidable during pregnancy, B-carotene should be preferred., a teratogenic dosing regimen with 13-cis-RA [Hummler et al. (1994) Teratology 50:184-193]., plasma AUC values of all-trans-RA were 2- to 7-fold higher after all-trans-RA administration (present study) than after dosing with the teratogenic dose of 13-cis-RA. These results strengthen our recent suggestion that the teratogenic effects induced in cynomolgus monkeys by 13-cis-RA treatment cannot solely result from the action of all-trans-RA, but may involve 13-cis-RA and 13-cis-4-oxo-RA, which could act directly or function as transport vehicle., VITA, among others, is involved in the process of morphogenesis. In contrast, synthetic derivatives of VITA, specifically Tigasone (etretinate, TIG) and Roaccutane (isotretinoin, ROA), are regarded as major teratogens., A biphasic maximal inhibition was present at 1 microM concentrations when the retinoids VITA, TIG and ROA were added for 16 h (52, 58 and 57%, respectively; P < 0.01 by one-way analysis of variance). In contrast, the addition of the three retinoids at 1 microM concentrations for 16 h had no significant effect on HCG secretion by placental explants of 11-13 weeks gestational age., Inhibition of HCG secretion by retinoids may contribute either directly or indirectly to their teratogenicity., Isotretinoin is a potent retinoic acid used in the treatment of skin disorders. Though very effective, it is teratogenic if administered during pregnancy, and its teratogenic effect may be related to the normal activity of retinoids as signalling molecules in the embryo., defects that includes heart defects, by inhibiting the migration of neural crest cells., Proliferation in heart tissue of whole embryo cultures was inhibited in medium with 10(-6) M isotretinoin to 62% of the control level in myocardium., The results suggest multiple effects of retinoids on growth, morphogenesis, and differentiation of early cardiac tissue, and are discussed in relation to the potential role of retinoids in early embryogenesis., Oral administration of 400 mg/kg of 13-cis retinoic acid to 9 day pregnant mice gives rise to important maxillofacial malformations. The first manifestation of teratogenic effect is an increase of density of cell death arising in the dorsal part of the first two branchial arches at day 9.5. These two arches become hypoplastic at days 10 and 11, and the preskeletal anlagen appear too late in comparison to control embryos. Meckel's cartilage is too curvilinear and medially situated. Pre-ossicular and pre-mandibular blastemata develop with spatial distortions which are well analyzable at days 16 and 17, Isotretinoin (13-cis-retinoic acid, Accutane) increases the risk of major congenital malformations in infants exposed to isotretinoin during pregnancy. However, there have been no epidemiologic reports to date on the effect of a subsequent pregnancy after discontinuation of isotretinoin., analysis of pregnancy case reports from patients in whom conception occurred after isotretinoin treatment had been discontinued, spontaneous and missed abortions from all pregnancies was 9.1% (eight patients), and the incidence rate of congenital malformation among the live births was 5.0% (four patients)., were not significantly different from the rates reported for women of reproductive age in the general population. In addition, the malformations reported were not characteristic of retinoic acid-induced congenital anomalies., Keratolenticular dysgenesis (Peters' anomaly) was induced in mice by exposure to the human teratogens, ethanol or 13-cis retinoic acid (isotretinoin, Accutane). Acute teratogen exposure on the seventh day of gestation (corresponding to the third week of human gestation) resulted in an eye malformation incidence of 46% to 100% in day 14 fetuses, This secondary effect on neural crest derivatives is exhibited in the adult animals as corneal opacities associated with defects in Descemet's membrane and endothelium, and anterior polar cataracts., 13-cis-retinoic acid (13-cis-RA, or isotretinoin) is responsible for various craniofacial malformations in the rodent and human embryo., In whole embryo culture, 13-cis-RA caused significant overall embryonic growth retardation, especially in the primary and secondary palatal processes., subsequent cell growth was decreased at concentrations of 13-cis-RA greater than 1 X 10(-5) M. After a 40-hr treatment period, labeling indices in retinoid-treated cells were significantly lower than control values (25% compared with 40%). Retinoic acid also caused a significant, concentration-dependent decrease in 3H-thymidine incorporation. The inhibitory effect of 13-cis-RA on proliferation of oral-nasal mesenchymal cells appears to be related to the production of craniofacial malformations., Reports of adverse human pregnancy outcomes including cleft palate have increased as the clinical use of isotretinoin (13-cis-retinoic acid) and other retinoic acid (RA) derivatives have increased, but the mechanisms by which their effects are exerted are not understood., In shelves exposed to EGF and trans-RA early in their development, DNA synthesis appears to terminate prematurely as compared to shelves cultured in control media, and this effect is accompanied by excessive mesenchymal extracellular space expansion. Exposure of shelves to EGF alone is sufficient to block degeneration and induce hyperplasia of the medial epithelial cells but does not induce other ultrastructural changes seen with both EGF and RA. The observed alterations in medial cell morphology could interfere with adhesion of the palatal shelves and may play a role in retinoid-induced cleft palate in the human embryo., Recent clinical observations strongly suggest that isotretinoin [13-cis-retinoic acid (cis RA)] is a human teratogen causing primarily heart and craniofacial malformations including ear and palatal defects., Our results demonstrate that labeled cis RA enters the tissues of the embryo both in vivo and in vitro. Cis RA inhibited proliferation of the frontonasal mesenchyme cells in primary culture with 31% inhibition occurring at 2 X 10(-5) M cis RA., Retinoic acid, an analogue of vitamin A, is known to be teratogenic in laboratory animals and has recently been implicated in a few clinical case reports. To study the human teratogenicity of this agent, we investigated 154 human pregnancies with fetal exposure to isotretinoin, a retinoid prescribed for severe recalcitrant cystic acne. The outcomes were 95 elective abortions, 26 infants without major malformations, 12 spontaneous abortions, and 21 malformed infants. A subset of 36 of the 154 pregnancies was observed prospectively., Exposure to isotretinoin was associated with an unusually high relative risk for a group of selected major malformations (relative risk = 25.6; 95 per cent confidence interval, 11.4 to 57.5)., It is possible that a major mechanism of isotretinoin teratogenesis is a deleterious effect on cephalic neural-crest cell activity that results in the observed craniofacial, cardiac, and thymic malformations.[SEP]Relations: Isotretinoin has relations: contraindication with heart disease, contraindication with heart disease, contraindication with hepatitis, contraindication with hepatitis, contraindication with anxiety disorder, contraindication with anxiety disorder, contraindication with kidney disease, contraindication with kidney disease, contraindication with liver disease, contraindication with liver disease. Definitions: epithelial cells defined as following: Cells that line the inner and outer surfaces of the body by forming cellular layers (EPITHELIUM) or masses. Epithelial cells lining the SKIN; the MOUTH; the NOSE; and the ANAL CANAL derive from ectoderm; those lining the RESPIRATORY SYSTEM and the DIGESTIVE SYSTEM derive from endoderm; others (CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM and LYMPHATIC SYSTEM) derive from mesoderm. Epithelial cells can be classified mainly by cell shape and function into squamous, glandular and transitional epithelial cells.. etretinate defined as following: An oral retinoid used in the treatment of keratotic genodermatosis, lichen planus, and psoriasis. Beneficial effects have also been claimed in the prophylaxis of epithelial neoplasia. The compound may be teratogenic.. RA defined as following: A chronic systemic disease, primarily of the joints, marked by inflammatory changes in the synovial membranes and articular structures, widespread fibrinoid degeneration of the collagen fibers in mesenchymal tissues, and by atrophy and rarefaction of bony structures. Etiology is unknown, but autoimmune mechanisms have been implicated.. isotretinoin defined as following: A topical dermatologic agent that is used in the treatment of ACNE VULGARIS and several other skin diseases. The drug has teratogenic and other adverse effects.. cardiovascular defined as following: The HEART and the BLOOD VESSELS by which BLOOD is pumped and circulated through the body.. Retinoic acid defined as following: An important regulator of GENE EXPRESSION during growth and development, and in NEOPLASMS. Tretinoin, also known as retinoic acid and derived from maternal VITAMIN A, is essential for normal GROWTH; and EMBRYONIC DEVELOPMENT. An excess of tretinoin can be teratogenic. It is used in the treatment of PSORIASIS; ACNE VULGARIS; and several other SKIN DISEASES. It has also been approved for use in promyelocytic leukemia (LEUKEMIA, PROMYELOCYTIC, ACUTE).. malformation defined as following: Malformations of organs or body parts during development in utero.. Peters' anomaly defined as following: A form of anterior segment dysgenesis in which abnormal cleavage of the anterior chamber occurs. Peters anomaly is characterized by central, paracentral, or complete corneal opacity. [HPO:probinson]. retinoids defined as following: A group of tetraterpenes, with four terpene units joined head-to-tail. Biologically active members of this class are used clinically in the treatment of severe cystic ACNE; PSORIASIS; and other disorders of keratinization.. ethanol defined as following: A clear, colorless liquid rapidly absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract and distributed throughout the body. It has bactericidal activity and is used often as a topical disinfectant. It is widely used as a solvent and preservative in pharmaceutical preparations as well as serving as the primary ingredient in ALCOHOLIC BEVERAGES.. myocardium defined as following: The muscle tissue of the HEART. It is composed of striated, involuntary muscle cells (MYOCYTES, CARDIAC) connected to form the contractile pump to generate blood flow.. endothelium defined as following: A layer of epithelium that lines the heart, blood vessels (ENDOTHELIUM, VASCULAR), lymph vessels (ENDOTHELIUM, LYMPHATIC), and the serous cavities of the body.. skin disorders defined as following: Diseases involving the DERMIS or EPIDERMIS.. HCG defined as following: A sialoglycoprotein hormone secreted by the placenta and maintains the corpus luteum at the beginning of the gestation period.. palatal defined as following: The structure that forms the roof of the mouth. It consists of the anterior hard palate (PALATE, HARD) and the posterior soft palate (PALATE, SOFT).. Clindamycin phosphate defined as following: The phosphate salt form of clindamycin, a semi-synthetic, chlorinated broad spectrum antibiotic produced by chemical modification of lincomycin. Clindamycin phosphate is used in topical preparations.. trauma defined as following: Nurses in this specialty provide emergency care to patients of all ages. These nurses work to maintain vital signs and prevent complications and death. drug defined as following: Any natural, endogenously-derived, synthetic or semi-synthetic compound with pharmacologic activity. A pharmacologic substance has one or more specific mechanism of action(s) through which it exerts one or more effect(s) on the human or animal body. They can be used to potentially prevent, diagnose, treat or relieve symptoms of a disease. Formulation specific agents and some combination agents are also classified as pharmacologic substances.. tiredness defined as following: The state of weariness following a period of exertion, mental or physical, characterized by a decreased capacity for work and reduced efficiency to respond to stimuli.. dorsal defined as following: Pertaining to the back or upper surface of the body; opposite of ventral.. corneal defined as following: The transparent anterior portion of the fibrous coat of the eye consisting of five layers: stratified squamous CORNEAL EPITHELIUM; BOWMAN MEMBRANE; CORNEAL STROMA; DESCEMET MEMBRANE; and mesenchymal CORNEAL ENDOTHELIUM. It serves as the first refracting medium of the eye. It is structurally continuous with the SCLERA, avascular, receiving its nourishment by permeation through spaces between the lamellae, and is innervated by the ophthalmic division of the TRIGEMINAL NERVE via the ciliary nerves and those of the surrounding conjunctiva which together form plexuses. (Cline et al., Dictionary of Visual Science, 4th ed). rat defined as following: The common rat, Rattus norvegicus, often used as an experimental organism.. photosensitivity defined as following: Increased sensitivity of the skin to light exposure.. acne vulgaris defined as following: A chronic disorder of the pilosebaceous apparatus associated with an increase in sebum secretion. It is characterized by open comedones (blackheads), closed comedones (whiteheads), and pustular nodules. The cause is unknown, but heredity and age are predisposing factors.. thymic defined as following: A single, unpaired primary lymphoid organ situated in the MEDIASTINUM, extending superiorly into the neck to the lower edge of the THYROID GLAND and inferiorly to the fourth costal cartilage. It is necessary for normal development of immunologic function early in life. By puberty, it begins to involute and much of the tissue is replaced by fat.. deaths defined as following: Irreversible cessation of all bodily functions, manifested by absence of spontaneous breathing and total loss of cardiovascular and cerebral functions.. monkey defined as following: Any haplorhine primate not belonging to the family Tarsiidae, Hylobatidae, Pongidae, or Hominidae; this does not correspond to any taxon. This group is divided into Old World monkeys (Cercopithecidae) and New World monkeys (Callitrichidae and Cebidae). Many types are used as an experimental model for human disease and drug testing.. Cis defined as following: Cytokine-inducible SH2-containing protein (258 aa, ~29 kDa) is encoded by the human CISH gene. This protein is involved in the modulation of signal transduction.. rodent defined as following: A mammalian order which consists of 29 families and many genera.. Mus musculus defined as following: The common mouse species, Mus musculus.. head defined as following: A projection on the end of an object. neural crest cells defined as following: Neuroectodermal cells of the neural crest. They differentiate into various cell types during EMBRYOGENESIS including craniofacial MESENCHYME; ENDOCRINE CELLS; MELANOCYTES and PERIPHERAL NERVOUS SYSTEM.. EGF defined as following: A 6-kDa polypeptide growth factor initially discovered in mouse submaxillary glands. Human epidermal growth factor was originally isolated from urine based on its ability to inhibit gastric secretion and called urogastrone. Epidermal growth factor exerts a wide variety of biological effects including the promotion of proliferation and differentiation of mesenchymal and EPITHELIAL CELLS. It is synthesized as a transmembrane protein which can be cleaved to release a soluble active form.. eczema defined as following: A pruritic papulovesicular dermatitis occurring as a reaction to many endogenous and exogenous agents (Dorland, 27th ed).. labour defined as following: Uterine contractions resulting in cervical change (dilation and/or effacement). (reVITALize). cystic acne defined as following: A severe type of acne characterized by the formation of cysts enclosing a mixture of keratin and sebum. [PMID:9212761]. mammals defined as following: Warm-blooded vertebrate animals belonging to the class Mammalia, including all that possess hair and suckle their young.. vegetable oil defined as following: oils derived from plants or plant products.. humans defined as following: Members of the species Homo sapiens.. embryo defined as following: An organism in its initial stage of development following fertilization. The human embryonic period lasts approximately eight weeks, during which time organogenesis takes place.. tissues defined as following: Collections of differentiated CELLS, such as EPITHELIUM; CONNECTIVE TISSUE; MUSCLES; and NERVE TISSUE. Tissues are cooperatively arranged to form organs with specialized functions such as RESPIRATION; DIGESTION; REPRODUCTION; MOVEMENT; and others.. craniofacial defined as following: refers to the bones of the skull and face.. cartilage defined as following: A non-vascular form of connective tissue composed of CHONDROCYTES embedded in a matrix that includes CHONDROITIN SULFATE and various types of FIBRILLAR COLLAGEN. There are three major types: HYALINE CARTILAGE; FIBROCARTILAGE; and ELASTIC CARTILAGE.. heart defects defined as following: Developmental abnormalities involving structures of the heart. These defects are present at birth but may be discovered later in life..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_4038", "sentence1": "Is the process of DNA loop-extrusion independent of ATP?", "sentence2": "The DNA-organizing mechanism of condensin depends on the energy of ATP hydrolysis but how this activity specifically promotes proper compaction and segregation of chromosomes during mitosis remains poorly understood., We suggest that loading and translocation are mediated by conformational changes in cohesin's hinge driven by cycles of ATP hydrolysis., Using ultra-deep Hi-C, we show that loop domains form by a process that requires cohesin ATPases., Strikingly, without ATP, we observe the emergence of hundreds of CTCF-independent loops that link regulatory DNA. , Each TAD emerges from multiple loops dynamically formed through extrusion, contrary to typical illustrations of single static loops. , However, the model requires a motor to generate the loops, and although cohesin is a strong candidate for the extruding factor, a suitable motor protein (or a motor activity in cohesin itself) has yet to be found. Here we explore a new hypothesis: that there is no motor, and thermal motion within the nucleus drives extrusion., We observed that a single condensin complex is able to extrude tens of kilobase pairs of DNA at a force-dependent speed of up to 1500 base pairs per second, using the energy of adenosine triphosphate hydrolysis, Our model explains what can be the driving force of chromatin loop extrusion and how it can be ensured that loops grow quickly and in a good direction. In addition, the supercoiling-driven loop extrusion mechanism is consistent with earlier explanations proposing why TADs flanked by convergent CTCF binding sites form more stable chromatin loops than TADs flanked by divergent CTCF binding sites., Oligomerization and ATP stimulate condensin-mediated DNA compaction., Strikingly, without ATP, we observe the emergence of hundreds of CTCF-independent loops that link regulatory DNA., DNA compaction by cohesin requires adenosine triphosphate (ATP) hydrolysis and is force sensitive., The identification and quantification of further initiation steps--ATP binding and extrusion of an initial DNA loop--allowed us to deduce a complete kinetic reinitiation scheme., In support of this model, single-molecule imaging experiments indicate that Saccharomyces cerevisiae condensin complexes can extrude DNA loops in an ATP-hydrolysis-dependent manner in vitro., These structures depend on cohesin, a ring-shaped DNA-entrapping adenosine triphosphatase (ATPase) complex that has been proposed to form loops by extrusion., Loop formation and maintenance depend on cohesin's ATPase activity and on NIPBL-MAU2, but not on topological entrapment of DNA by cohesin.[SEP]Relations: Adenosine phosphate has relations: drug_protein with PRKAG2, drug_protein with PRKAG2, drug_protein with PRKAG2, drug_protein with PRKAG2, drug_protein with PRKAG3, drug_protein with PRKAG3, drug_protein with PRKAG3, drug_protein with PRKAG3, drug_protein with PRKAG1, drug_protein with PRKAG1. Definitions: ATPase defined as following: A group of enzymes which catalyze the hydrolysis of ATP. The hydrolysis reaction is usually coupled with another function such as transporting Ca(2+) across a membrane. These enzymes may be dependent on Ca(2+), Mg(2+), anions, H+, or DNA.. CTCF defined as following: CCN family member 2 (349 aa, ~38kDa) is encoded by the human CCN2 gene. This protein plays a role in the promotion of proliferation and differentiation of chondrocytes and also mediates heparin- and divalent cation-dependent cell adhesion in many different cell types.. adenosine triphosphate defined as following: An adenine nucleotide containing three phosphate groups esterified to the sugar moiety. In addition to its crucial roles in metabolism adenosine triphosphate is a neurotransmitter.. hydrolysis defined as following: The process of cleaving a chemical compound by the addition of a molecule of water.. DNA loop defined as following: A higher order chromatin structure above the level of the chromatin fiber. The organization of chromatin into loops permits the partitioning of chromatin into topologically independent domains, and is thought to facilitate its compartmentation into functionally independent regions.. DNA defined as following: A deoxyribonucleotide polymer that is the primary genetic material of all cells. Eukaryotic and prokaryotic organisms normally contain DNA in a double-stranded state, yet several important biological processes transiently involve single-stranded regions. DNA, which consists of a polysugar-phosphate backbone possessing projections of purines (adenine and guanine) and pyrimidines (thymine and cytosine), forms a double helix that is held together by hydrogen bonds between these purines and pyrimidines (adenine to thymine and guanine to cytosine).. binding sites defined as following: The parts of a macromolecule that directly participate in its specific combination with another molecule.. TADs defined as following: Tietz syndrome is a genetic hypopigmentation and deafness syndrome characterized by congenital profound bilateral sensorineural hearing loss and generalized albino-like hypopigmentation of skin, eyes and hair.. ATP defined as following: An adenine nucleotide containing three phosphate groups esterified to the sugar moiety. In addition to its crucial roles in metabolism adenosine triphosphate is a neurotransmitter..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_459", "sentence1": "Have mutations in the GARS gene been identified to cause Charcot-Marie-Tooth Disease Type 2D (CMT2D)?", "sentence2": "Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease type 2D is a hereditary axonal and glycyl-tRNA synthetase (GARS)-associated neuropathy that is caused by a mutation in GARS. , Mutations in the GARS gene cause Charcot-Marie-Tooth 2D and distal spinal muscular atrophy type V - allelic disorders characterized by predominantly distal upper extremity weakness and atrophy, typically beginning during the second decade of life. , Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease type 2D (CMT2D) is a dominantly inherited peripheral neuropathy caused by missense mutations in the glycyl-tRNA synthetase gene (GARS)., The 13 genes known to be associated with the CMT2 subtypes are KIF1B (CMT2A1), MFN2 (CMT2A2), RAB7A (formerly RAB7) (CMT2B), LMNA (CMT2B1), MED25 (CMT2B2), TRPV4 (CMTC), GARS (CMT2D), NEFL (CMT2E/1F), HSPB1 (CMT2F), MPZ (CMT2I/J), GDAP1 (CMT2H/K), HSPB8 (CMT2L), and AARS (CMT2N). , The diagnosis of GARS-associated axonal neuropathy is based on clinical findings, electromyography (EMG), and molecular genetic testing of GARS, encoding glycyl-tRNA synthetase., Sporadic juvenile muscular atrophy of the distal upper extremity or Hirayama's disease (HD) and autosomal dominant motor distal neuronopathy/axonopathy (CMT2D/dSMA-V), produced by glycyl-tRNA synthetase (GARS) gene mutations, share some clinical features including: young age of onset, predilection for the distal upper extremity, asymmetry, sparing of proximal muscles and unusual cold sensitivity. , Distal hereditary motor neuropathy type V (dHMN-V) and Charcot-Marie-Tooth syndrome (CMT) type 2 presenting with predominant hand involvement, also known as CMT2D and Silver syndrome (SS) are rare phenotypically overlapping diseases which can be caused by mutations in the Berardinelli-Seip Congenital Lipodystrophy 2 (BSCL2) and in the glycyl-tRNA synthetase encoding (GARS) genes. , We previously implicated mutations in the gene encoding glycyl-tRNA synthetase (GARS) as the cause of CMT2D and dSMA-V., Of the many inherited Charcot-Marie-Tooth peripheral neuropathies, type 2D (CMT2D) is caused by dominant point mutations in the gene GARS, encoding glycyl tRNA synthetase (GlyRS). , Missense mutations in the glycyl-tRNA synthetase (GARS) gene have been recently reported in families with either dHMN-V, CMT2D, or both., Based on the presence or absence of sensory changes, the disease phenotype was initially defined as distal spinal muscular atrophy type V (dSMA-V) in three families, Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease type 2D (CMT2D) in a single family, and as either dSMA-V or CMT2D in patients of another large family. Linkage to chromosome 7p15 and the presence of disease-associated heterozygous GARS mutations have been identified in patients from each of the five studied families. [SEP]Relations: Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease has relations: disease_protein with GARS1, disease_protein with GARS1, disease_protein with GARS1, disease_protein with GARS1, disease_protein with GARS1, disease_protein with GARS1, disease_protein with GARS1, disease_protein with GARS1, disease_protein with MTMR2, disease_protein with MTMR2. Definitions: muscular atrophy defined as following: Derangement in size and number of muscle fibers occurring with aging, reduction in blood supply, or following immobilization, prolonged weightlessness, malnutrition, and particularly in denervation.. glycyl tRNA synthetase defined as following: An enzyme that activates glycine with its specific transfer RNA. EC 6.1.1.14.. gene mutations defined as following: The result of any gain, loss or alteration of the sequences comprising a gene, including all sequences transcribed into RNA.. CMT2B2 defined as following: An axonal Charcot-Marie-Tooth peripheral sensorimotor polyneuropathy that has been described in a large consanguineous Costa Rican family of Spanish ancestry. Onset occurs in adulthood (between 26 and 42 years of age) with symmetric moderate to severe weakness of the distal muscles, predominantly affecting the lower extremities. Marked sensory deficits were also reported. Transmitted in an autosomal recessive manner and the disease-causing gene was mapped to chromosome 19q13.3 (MED25).. glycyl-tRNA synthetase defined as following: Human GARS1 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 7p14.3 and is approximately 39 kb in length. This allele, which encodes glycine-tRNA ligase protein, is involved in the synthesis of glycyl-tRNA. Mutation of the gene is associated with type 2D Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease and distal hereditary motor neuropathy, type Va.. NEFL defined as following: Neurofilament light polypeptide (543 aa, ~62 kDa) is encoded by the human NEFL gene. This protein is involved in the modulation of neuronal structure.. RAB7 defined as following: Human RAB7A wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 3q21 and is approximately 89 kb in length. This allele, which encodes ras-related protein Rab-7a, plays a role in the localization and function of both endosomes and lysosomes. Mutation of the gene is associated with Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease 2B.. CMT2D defined as following: Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. It is caused by mutations in the GARS gene. It results in axonal peripheral neuropathy.. KIF1B defined as following: Kinesin-like protein KIF1B (1816 aa, ~204 kDa) is encoded by the human KIF1B gene. This protein plays a role in intercellular transport of organelles and vesicles.. SS defined as following:

Supernumerary mandibular right first primary molar

. neuropathy defined as following: A disorder affecting the cranial nerves or the peripheral nervous system. It manifests with pain, tingling, numbness, and muscle weakness. It may be the result of physical injury, toxic substances, viral diseases, diabetes, renal failure, cancer, and drugs.. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease defined as following: A hereditary motor and sensory neuropathy transmitted most often as an autosomal dominant trait and characterized by progressive distal wasting and loss of reflexes in the muscles of the legs (and occasionally involving the arms). Onset is usually in the second to fourth decade of life. This condition has been divided into two subtypes, hereditary motor and sensory neuropathy (HMSN) types I and II. HMSN I is associated with abnormal nerve conduction velocities and nerve hypertrophy, features not seen in HMSN II. (Adams et al., Principles of Neurology, 6th ed, p1343). TRPV4 defined as following: Transient receptor potential cation channel subfamily V member 4 (871 aa, ~98 kDa) is encoded by the human TRPV4 gene. This protein plays a role in the modulation of calcium transport.. CMTC defined as following: A congenital vascular malformation that presents as localized or generalized erythematous-telangiectatic lesions with a reticular pattern; the lesions are almost always present at birth or develop in the first days of life. Cutis marmorata telangiectatica congenita (CMTC) appears as marble-like pattern (mottling) on the surface of the skin. In contrast to cutis marmorata, the marbling is more severe and always visible. [PMID:22483320, PMID:25864701]. CMT2F defined as following: A form of axonal Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease, a peripheral sensorimotor neuropathy with symmetric weakness primarily occurring in the lower limbs and reaching the arms only after 5 to 10 years, occasional and predominantly distal sensory loss and reduced tendon reflexes. Presents with gait anomaly between the first and sixth decade and early onset is generally associated to a more severe phenotype that may include foot drop.. Berardinelli-Seip Congenital Lipodystrophy 2 defined as following: It is caused by mutation of gene encoding seipin (BSCL2).. MFN2 defined as following: Mitofusin-2 (757 aa, ~86 kDa) is encoded by the human MFN2 gene. This protein is involved in both mitochondrial fusion and GTP hydrolysis.. CMT2B1 defined as following: An axonal Charcot-Marie-Tooth peripheral sensorimotor polyneuropathy. It has been described exclusively in families originating from North-Western Africa. Onset occurs in the second decade of life. The disease course and severity are variable, even between affected members of the same family. In general, the disease manifests as distal muscle weakness and atrophy that progress gradually to the proximal muscles. Caused by a p.R644C missense mutation in the lamin A/C protein (encoded by the LMNA gene, 1q22). Transmitted in an autosomal recessive manner.. dHMN-V defined as following: A rare autosomal dominant distal hereditary motor neuropathy disease characterized by muscle weakness and wasting predominantly affecting the hands, in particular the thenar and first dorsal interosseus muscles, and/or marked foot deformity and gait disturbance. Sensation is normal, although reduced response to vibration has been described. The disease is slowly progressive with an age of onset within the first few decades of life.. genes defined as following: A category of nucleic acid sequences that function as units of heredity and which code for the basic instructions for the development, reproduction, and maintenance of organisms.. point mutations defined as following: A mutation caused by the substitution of one nucleotide for another. This results in the DNA molecule having a change in a single base pair.. autosomal defined as following: Any chromosome other than a sex chromosome. [GOC:mah]. RAB7A defined as following: This gene is involved in the trafficking of endosomes and lysosomes.. LMNA defined as following: Prelamin-A/C (664 aa, ~74 kDa) is encoded by the human LMNA gene. This protein is involved in the framework required for the nuclear envelope and in chromatin interactions.. HSPB1 defined as following: Heat shock protein beta-1 (205 aa, ~23 kDa) is encoded by the human HSPB1 gene. This protein is involved in protein denaturation and the cellular response to oxidative stress.. CMT2L defined as following: A form of axonal Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease, a peripheral sensorimotor neuropathy. In the single family reported to date, onset is between 15 and 33 years. Patients present with a symmetric distal weakness of legs and occasionally of the hands, absent or reduced tendon reflexes, distal legs sensory loss and frequently a pes cavus. Progression is slow.. mutation defined as following: Any transmissible change in the genetic material of an organism, which can result from radiation, viral infection, transposition, treatment with mutagenic chemicals and errors during DNA replication or meiosis. The effects of mutation range from single base changes to loss or gain of complete chromosomes. As many of the simpler alterations to DNA may be repaired, such changes are only heritable once the change is fixed in the DNA by the process of replication. Mutations may be associated with genetic diversity or with pathologies including cancer.. Silver syndrome defined as following: A complex hereditary spastic paraplegia with characteristics of progressive spastic paraplegia, upper and lower limb muscle atrophy, hyperreflexia, extensor plantar responses, pes cavus and occasionally impaired vibration sense.. HSPB8 defined as following: Heat shock protein beta-8 (196 aa, ~22 kDa) is encoded by the human HSPB8 gene. This protein plays a role in the regulation of autophagy and as a protein chaperone.. atrophy defined as following: Decrease in the size of a cell, tissue, organ, or multiple organs, associated with a variety of pathological conditions such as abnormal cellular changes, ischemia, malnutrition, or hormonal changes.. HD defined as following: A malignant disease characterized by progressive enlargement of the lymph nodes, spleen, and general lymphoid tissue. In the classical variant, giant usually multinucleate Hodgkin's and REED-STERNBERG CELLS are present; in the nodular lymphocyte predominant variant, lymphocytic and histiocytic cells are seen.. CMT2A1 defined as following: An autosomal dominant sub-type of Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease caused by mutation(s) in the KIF1B gene, encoding kinesin-like protein KIF1B.. mutations defined as following: The result of any gain, loss or alteration of the sequences comprising a gene, including all sequences transcribed into RNA.. Charcot-Marie-Tooth Disease Type 2D defined as following: Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. It is caused by mutations in the GARS gene. It results in axonal peripheral neuropathy..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_1695", "sentence1": "Is calcium overload involved in the development of diabetic cardiomyopathy?", "sentence2": "High-glucose treatment resulted in increased intracellular calcium ([Ca2+]i) which was mobilized to the mitochondria. Concomitant intra-mitochondrial calcium ([Ca2+]m) increase resulted in enhanced reactive oxygen and nitrogen species generation. These events led to mitochondrial dysfunction and apoptosis., The novel findings of the study reveal that high glucose induces apoptosis by both mitochondria-dependent and independent pathways via concomitant rise in intracellular calcium., Diabetes-induced myocardial dysfunction has been attributed, in part, to calcium overload within individual myocytes., It seems that intracellular calcium overload is intimately involved in the development of diabetic cardiomyopathy;, BACKGROUND: It has been suggested that intracellular Ca2+ overload in cardiac myocytes leads to the development of diabetic cardiomyopathy., The results from the alloxan-rat model of diabetes support the view that membrane abnormalities with respect to Ca2+ handling may lead to the occurrence of intracellular Ca2+ overload and the development of diabetic cardiomyopathy., It seems that intracellular calcium overload is intimately involved in the development of diabetic cardiomyopathy; however, a concentrated research effort is required to understand the primary biochemical lesion in the pathogenesis of cardiac dysfunction in diabetes., It has been suggested that the occurrence of an intracellular Ca2+ overload may result in the development of diabetic cardiomyopathy, which is associated with depletion of high-energy phosphate stores and a derangement of ultrastructure and cardiac dysfunction.[SEP]Relations: cardiomyopathy diabetes deafness has relations: disease_disease with syndromic disease, disease_disease with syndromic disease. Abnormality of mitochondrial metabolism has relations: disease_phenotype_positive with reticular dysgenesis, disease_phenotype_positive with reticular dysgenesis, disease_phenotype_positive with atherosclerosis-deafness-diabetes-epilepsy-nephropathy syndrome, disease_phenotype_positive with atherosclerosis-deafness-diabetes-epilepsy-nephropathy syndrome. Type I diabetes mellitus has relations: disease_phenotype_positive with sclerosing cholangitis, disease_phenotype_positive with sclerosing cholangitis, disease_phenotype_positive with multicentric osteolysis-nodulosis-arthropathy spectrum, disease_phenotype_positive with multicentric osteolysis-nodulosis-arthropathy spectrum. Definitions: calcium defined as following: A dietary supplement containing the mineral calcium.. cardiac myocytes defined as following: Striated muscle cells found in the heart. They are derived from cardiac myoblasts (MYOBLASTS, CARDIAC).. mitochondria defined as following: Semiautonomous, self-reproducing organelles that occur in the cytoplasm of all cells of most, but not all, eukaryotes. Each mitochondrion is surrounded by a double limiting membrane. The inner membrane is highly invaginated, and its projections are called cristae. Mitochondria are the sites of the reactions of oxidative phosphorylation, which result in the formation of ATP. They contain distinctive RIBOSOMES, transfer RNAs (RNA, TRANSFER); AMINO ACYL T RNA SYNTHETASES; and elongation and termination factors. Mitochondria depend upon genes within the nucleus of the cells in which they reside for many essential messenger RNAs (RNA, MESSENGER). Mitochondria are believed to have arisen from aerobic bacteria that established a symbiotic relationship with primitive protoeukaryotes. (King & Stansfield, A Dictionary of Genetics, 4th ed). myocytes defined as following: Mature contractile cells, commonly known as myocytes, that form one of three kinds of muscle. The three types of muscle cells are skeletal (MUSCLE FIBERS, SKELETAL), cardiac (MYOCYTES, CARDIAC), and smooth (MYOCYTES, SMOOTH MUSCLE). They are derived from embryonic (precursor) muscle cells called MYOBLASTS.. diabetic cardiomyopathy defined as following: Diabetes complications in which VENTRICULAR REMODELING in the absence of CORONARY ATHEROSCLEROSIS and hypertension results in cardiac dysfunctions, typically LEFT VENTRICULAR DYSFUNCTION. The changes also result in myocardial hypertrophy, myocardial necrosis and fibrosis, and collagen deposition due to impaired glucose tolerance.. diabetes defined as following: A heterogeneous group of disorders characterized by HYPERGLYCEMIA and GLUCOSE INTOLERANCE.. mitochondrial dysfunction defined as following: A functional anomaly of mitochondria. [ORCID:0000-0001-5208-3432].", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_3260", "sentence1": "Can leuprorelin acetate be used as androgen deprivation therapy?", "sentence2": "We investigated the health-related quality of life (HRQoL) of long-term prostate cancer patients who received leuprorelin acetate in microcapsules (LAM) for androgen-deprivation therapy (ADT)., Long-term ADT with LAM is a well-accepted, tolerated, effective, and low-burden treatment option for patients with advanced, hormone-sensitive PCa.[SEP]Relations: lymphangioleiomyomatosis has relations: disease_phenotype_positive with Cognitive impairment, disease_phenotype_positive with Cognitive impairment, disease_phenotype_positive with Ascites, disease_phenotype_positive with Ascites, disease_phenotype_positive with Restrictive ventilatory defect, disease_phenotype_positive with Restrictive ventilatory defect, disease_phenotype_positive with Macule, disease_phenotype_positive with Macule, disease_phenotype_positive with Seizure, disease_phenotype_positive with Seizure. Definitions: LAM defined as following: A multifocal neoplasm with perivascular epithelioid cell differentiation affecting almost exclusively females of child-bearing age. It is characterized by the presence of smooth muscle and epithelioid cells and by the proliferation of lymphatic vessels. Sites of involvement include the lungs, mediastinum, and the retroperitoneum. It usually presents with chylous pleural effusion or ascites.. prostate cancer defined as following: A primary or metastatic malignant tumor involving the prostate gland. The vast majority are carcinomas.. microcapsules defined as following: microscopic spheres of organic polymer or other material, usually used for slow release drug delivery or to protect orally administered agents from destruction in digestive tract; do not confuse with BACTERIAL CAPSULE.. ADT defined as following: A protein complex that possesses glutamyl-tRNA(Gln) amidotransferase activity, and therefore creates Gln-tRNA by amidating Glu-tRNA; usually composed of 3 subunits: A, B, and C. Note that the C subunit may not be required in all organisms. [GOC:mlg]. PCa defined as following: Relief of PAIN, without loss of CONSCIOUSNESS, through ANALGESIC AGENTS administered by the patients. It has been used successfully to control POSTOPERATIVE PAIN, during OBSTETRIC LABOR, after BURNS, and in TERMINAL CARE. The choice of agent, dose, and lockout interval greatly influence effectiveness. The potential for overdose can be minimized by combining small bolus doses with a mandatory interval between successive doses (lockout interval)..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_3938", "sentence1": "Is carpal tunnel syndrome a type of nerve entrapment?", "sentence2": " Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) is a common entrapment neuropathy, often requiring carpal tunnel release (CTR) surgery., Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) is an entrapment neuropathy accounting for up to 90% of nerve compression syndromes, Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) is the most frequent entrapment neuropathy in humans. , Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) is the most common focal entrapment mononeuropathy, comprising medium nerve chronic inflammation and fibrosis., Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) is the most common nerve entrapment neuropathy which is the result of the compression of the median nerve in the wrist. , Dear sir, one of the most common entrapment neuropathy syndromes in clinical practice is \"Entrapment of median nerve in carpal tunnel\" also called \"Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS)\" (Aydin et al., 2007; Huisstede et al., 2010)., BACKGROUND: Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) is the most common type of peripheral nerve entrapment and is a significant cause of morbidity., BACKGROUND: Carpal tunnel syndrome and ulnar nerve entrapment at the elbow are the most common entrapment neuropathies seen in adults., Entrapment neuropathies are of various types, but the most common type is carpal tunnel syndrome., Carpal Tunnel Syndrome and Other Entrapment Neuropathies., Unlike Guyon's canal syndrome, carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) is the most common nerve entrapment of the upper extremity., chronic renal failure tend to develop peripheral nerve entrapment and carpal tunnel syndrome is the best-known peripheral entrapment neuropathy among them. Contrary to ca, Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) is a common form of peripheral nerve entrapment, which is observed due to compression of the median nerve at the level of the carpal tunnel in the wrist. Bifi, INTRODUCTION: Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) is considered a simple entrapment of the median nerve at the carp, Compressive neuropathy of the median nerve at the level of the carpal tunnel, known as carpal tunnel syndrome, is the most common entrapment neuropathy, affecting about 0.1-1% of the general population. Magne, BACKGROUND: Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) is entrapment of median nerve in carpal tunnel of th, Dear sir, one of the most common entrapment neuropathy syndromes in clinical practice is \"Entrapment of median nerve in carpal tunnel\" also called \"Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS)\" (Aydin et al., 2007; Huisstede et al., 2010). This syndr, OBJECTIVE: Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) is a common median nerve entrapment neuropathy characterized by pain, paresthesias, diminished peripheral nerve conduction velocity (NCV) and maladaptive functional brain neuroplastici, Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS), caused by entrapment of the median nerve in the carpal tunnel, impairs hand function including dexterous manipulation. The , This review focuses on three of the most common entrapment neuropathies in the upper limbs: carpal tunnel syndrome (median nerve entrapment at the wrist), cubital tunnel syndrome (ulnar nerve entrapment at the elbow), and radial tunnel syndrome (posterior interosseous nerve entrapment)., Electrodiagnostic (EDX) testing is usually an essential part of the evaluation of entrapment neuropathies, and examinations for the most common entrapment neuropathies, carpal tunnel syndrome and ulnar neuropathy at the elbow, constitute a significant part of the daily work in EDX laboratories., This study reviews the existing, more or less, detailed EDX criteria or practice parameters that are suggested by consensus groups in peer-reviewed journals for the most common entrapment neuropathies: carpal tunnel syndrome, ulnar neuropathy at the elbow, common peroneal (fibular) neuropathy at the fibular head, and tibial neuropathy at the tarsal tunnel., This report demonstrates that the Semmes-Weinstein monofilament test and nerve conduction studies can identify entrapment of the palmar cutaneous branch of the median nerve concomitant with carpal tunnel syndrome., Entrapment neuropathy of the palmar cutaneous branch of the median nerve concomitant with carpal tunnel syndrome: a case report., A case of the entrapment neuropathy of the palmar cutaneous branch of the median nerve, concomitant with carpal tunnel syndrome is presented., The entrapment syndromes discussed are suprascapular nerve entrapment, carpal tunnel syndrome, cubital tunnel syndrome, meralgia paraesthetica, thoracic outlet syndrome and anterior interosseous nerve syndrome., Carpal tunnel syndrome is a neuropathy resulting from compression of the median nerve as it passes through a narrow tunnel in the wrist on its way to the hand., More typically, carpal tunnel syndrome is the most common peripheral entrapment neuropathy encountered in industry., Carpal tunnel syndrome is the most frequently encountered peripheral nerve entrapment., Carpal tunnel syndrome, an entrapment neuropathy of the median nerve, is rarely seen in childhood., Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) is the most common type of peripheral nerve entrapment and is a significant cause of morbidity., Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) is a nerve entrapment disorder, involving the median nerve when it passes the carpal tunnel at the wrist., The carpal tunnel syndrome is the most frequent entrapment syndrome of peripheral nerves., BACKGROUND: Compression of the median nerve at the wrist, or carpal tunnel syndrome, is the most commonly recognized nerve entrapme, Carpal tunnel syndrome is the most common of the median nerve entrapments., BACKGROUND: Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) is by far the most common entrapment neuropathy (, Introduction: Carpal tunnel syndrome, entrapment of median nerve at the wrist, is one of the most commonly encountered peripheral neuropathies in the up, Carpal tunnel syndrome, a median nerve entrapment neuropathy, is characterized by sensorimotor deficits., Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) is a common form of peripheral nerve entrapment, which is observed due to compression of the median nerve at the level of the carpal tunnel in the wrist., [Carpal tunnel syndrome and other nerve entrapment syndromes].[SEP]Relations: carpal tunnel syndrome has relations: disease_disease with nerve compression syndrome, disease_disease with nerve compression syndrome, disease_disease with nerve compression syndrome, disease_disease with nerve compression syndrome, disease_disease with genetic peripheral neuropathy, disease_disease with genetic peripheral neuropathy, disease_disease with genetic peripheral neuropathy, disease_disease with genetic peripheral neuropathy, disease_phenotype_positive with Constrictive median neuropathy, disease_phenotype_positive with Constrictive median neuropathy. Definitions: fibrosis defined as following: Any pathological condition where fibrous connective tissue invades any organ, usually as a consequence of inflammation or other injury.. cubital tunnel syndrome defined as following: Compression of the ULNAR NERVE in the cubital tunnel, which is formed by the two heads of the flexor carpi ulnaris muscle, humeral-ulnar aponeurosis, and medial ligaments of the elbow. This condition may follow trauma or occur in association with processes which produce nerve enlargement or narrowing of the canal. Manifestations include elbow pain and PARESTHESIA radiating distally, weakness of ulnar innervated intrinsic hand muscles, and loss of sensation over the hypothenar region, fifth finger, and ulnar aspect of the ring finger. (Joynt, Clinical Neurology, 1995, Ch51, p43). Neuropathies defined as following: A disorder affecting the cranial nerves or the peripheral nervous system. It manifests with pain, tingling, numbness, and muscle weakness. It may be the result of physical injury, toxic substances, viral diseases, diabetes, renal failure, cancer, and drugs.. CTS defined as following: Entrapment of the MEDIAN NERVE in the carpal tunnel, which is formed by the flexor retinaculum and the CARPAL BONES. This syndrome may be associated with repetitive occupational trauma (CUMULATIVE TRAUMA DISORDERS); wrist injuries; AMYLOID NEUROPATHIES; rheumatoid arthritis (see ARTHRITIS, RHEUMATOID); ACROMEGALY; PREGNANCY; and other conditions. Symptoms include burning pain and paresthesias involving the ventral surface of the hand and fingers which may radiate proximally. Impairment of sensation in the distribution of the median nerve and thenar muscle atrophy may occur. (Joynt, Clinical Neurology, 1995, Ch51, p45). humans defined as following: Members of the species Homo sapiens.. thoracic outlet syndrome defined as following: A neurovascular syndrome associated with compression of the BRACHIAL PLEXUS; SUBCLAVIAN ARTERY; and SUBCLAVIAN VEIN at the superior thoracic outlet. This may result from a variety of anomalies such as a CERVICAL RIB, anomalous fascial bands, and abnormalities of the origin or insertion of the anterior or medial scalene muscles. Clinical features may include pain in the shoulder and neck region which radiates into the arm, PARESIS or PARALYSIS of brachial plexus innervated muscles, PARESTHESIA, loss of sensation, reduction of arterial pulses in the affected extremity, ISCHEMIA, and EDEMA. (Adams et al., Principles of Neurology, 6th ed, pp214-5).. chronic renal failure defined as following: The end-stage of CHRONIC RENAL INSUFFICIENCY. It is characterized by the severe irreversible kidney damage (as measured by the level of PROTEINURIA) and the reduction in GLOMERULAR FILTRATION RATE to less than 15 ml per min (Kidney Foundation: Kidney Disease Outcome Quality Initiative, 2002). These patients generally require HEMODIALYSIS or KIDNEY TRANSPLANTATION.. tibial neuropathy defined as following: Disease of the TIBIAL NERVE (also referred to as the posterior tibial nerve). The most commonly associated condition is the TARSAL TUNNEL SYNDROME. However, LEG INJURIES; ISCHEMIA; and inflammatory conditions (e.g., COLLAGEN DISEASES) may also affect the nerve. Clinical features include PARALYSIS of plantar flexion, ankle inversion and toe flexion as well as loss of sensation over the sole of the foot. (From Joynt, Clinical Neurology, 1995, Ch51, p32). fibular defined as following: The bone of the lower leg lateral to and smaller than the tibia. In proportion to its length, it is the most slender of the long bones.. elbow defined as following: A hinge joint connecting the FOREARM to the ARM.. ulnar neuropathy defined as following: Disease involving the ULNAR NERVE from its origin in the BRACHIAL PLEXUS to its termination in the hand. Clinical manifestations may include PARESIS or PARALYSIS of wrist flexion, finger flexion, thumb adduction, finger abduction, and finger adduction. Sensation over the medial palm, fifth finger, and ulnar aspect of the ring finger may also be impaired. Common sites of injury include the AXILLA, cubital tunnel at the ELBOW, and Guyon's canal at the wrist. (From Joynt, Clinical Neurology, 1995, Ch51 pp43-5). nerve defined as following: Part of the peripheral nervous system composed of bundles of nerve fibers running to various organs and tissues of the body using chemical and electrical signals to transmit sensory and motor information from one body part to another.. fibular head defined as following: The highest portion of the fibula that articulates with the patella.. paresthesias defined as following: Subjective cutaneous sensations (e.g., cold, warmth, tingling, pressure, etc.) that are experienced spontaneously in the absence of stimulation..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_512", "sentence1": "Is vemurafenib effective for hairy-cell leukemia?", "sentence2": "CONCLUSIONS: A short oral course of vemurafenib was highly effective in patients with relapsed or refractory hairy-cell leukemia., Our results strongly support and inform the clinical use of BRAF and MEK inhibitors in HCL., The therapeutic approach of vemurafenib in treatment-refractory hairy cell leukemia is promising and offers an additional treatment option. , Successful re-treatment of a relapsed V600E mutated HCL patient with low-dose vemurafenib., Recent identification of the recurrent V600E BRAF mutation in a majority of HCL patients has led some teams to evaluate the clinical potential of vemurafenib, a BRAF V600 specific inhibitor in a limited number of refractory HCL patients. Recently, we published the case of an HCL patient successfully treated with a low dose of vemurafenib., We present here the successful retreatment of this patient with a second line of vemurafenib. Our data suggest for the first time that vemurafenib at the dose of 240 mg once a day could be sufficient to maintain a complete hematological remission after an initial induction treatment with low-dose vemurafenib (2 × 240 mg) daily without inducing major toxicity., The discovery of the BRAF mutation has created a therapeutic target exploited by oral inhibitors like vemurafenib and dabrafenib., [Successful use of vemurafenib in a patient with resistant hairy cell leukemia]., The frequent persistence of phosphorylated ERK-positive leukemic cells in bone marrow at the end of treatment suggests bypass reactivation of MEK and ERK as a resistance mechanism.CONCLUSIONS: A short oral course of vemurafenib was highly effective in patients with relapsed or refractory hairy-cell leukemia. , A short oral course of vemurafenib was highly effective in patients with relapsed or refractory hairy-cell leukemia., A short oral course of vemurafenib was highly effective in patients with relapsed or refractory hairy-cell leukemia., The therapeutic approach of vemurafenib in treatment-refractory hairy cell leukemia is promising and offers an additional treatment option.[SEP]Relations: Vemurafenib has relations: drug_drug with Afelimomab, drug_drug with Afelimomab, drug_drug with Afatinib, drug_drug with Afatinib, drug_drug with Vardenafil, drug_drug with Vardenafil, drug_drug with Ethanol, drug_drug with Ethanol, drug_drug with Ribociclib, drug_drug with Ribociclib. Definitions: MEK defined as following: A dual-specific protein kinase family whose members are components in protein kinase cascades activated by diverse stimuli. These MAPK kinases phosphorylate MITOGEN-ACTIVATED PROTEIN KINASES and are themselves phosphorylated by MAP KINASE KINASE KINASES. JNK kinases (also known as SAPK kinases) are a subfamily.. vemurafenib defined as following: An orally bioavailable, ATP-competitive, small-molecule inhibitor of BRAF(V600E) kinase with potential antineoplastic activity. Vemurafenib selectively binds to the ATP-binding site of BRAF(V600E) kinase and inhibits its activity, which may result in an inhibition of an over-activated MAPK signaling pathway downstream in BRAF(V600E) kinase-expressing tumor cells and a reduction in tumor cell proliferation. Approximately 90% of BRAF gene mutations involve a valine-to-glutamic acid mutation at residue 600 (V600E); the oncogene protein product, BRAF(V600E) kinase, exhibits a markedly elevated activity that over-activates the MAPK signaling pathway. The BRAF(V600E) gene mutation has been found to occur in approximately 60% of melanomas, and in about 8% of all solid tumors, including melanoma, colorectal, thyroid and other cancers.. toxicity defined as following: The finding of bodily harm due to the poisonous effects of something.. ERK defined as following: A superfamily of PROTEIN SERINE-THREONINE KINASES that are activated by diverse stimuli via protein kinase cascades. They are the final components of the cascades, activated by phosphorylation by MITOGEN-ACTIVATED PROTEIN KINASE KINASES, which in turn are activated by mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase kinases (MAP KINASE KINASE KINASES).. mutation defined as following: Any transmissible change in the genetic material of an organism, which can result from radiation, viral infection, transposition, treatment with mutagenic chemicals and errors during DNA replication or meiosis. The effects of mutation range from single base changes to loss or gain of complete chromosomes. As many of the simpler alterations to DNA may be repaired, such changes are only heritable once the change is fixed in the DNA by the process of replication. Mutations may be associated with genetic diversity or with pathologies including cancer.. HCL defined as following: A neoplastic disease of the lymphoreticular cells which is considered to be a rare type of chronic leukemia; it is characterized by an insidious onset, splenomegaly, anemia, granulocytopenia, thrombocytopenia, little or no lymphadenopathy, and the presence of \"hairy\" or \"flagellated\" cells in the blood and bone marrow.. dabrafenib defined as following: An orally bioavailable inhibitor of B-raf (BRAF) protein with potential antineoplastic activity. Dabrafenib selectively binds to and inhibits the activity of B-raf, which may inhibit the proliferation of tumor cells which contain a mutated BRAF gene. B-raf belongs to the raf/mil family of serine/threonine protein kinases and plays a role in regulating the MAP kinase/ERKs signaling pathway, which may be constitutively activated due to BRAF gene mutations.. BRAF defined as following: Serine/threonine-protein kinase B-raf (766 aa, ~84 kDa) is encoded by the human BRAF gene. This protein plays a role in protein phosphorylation, mitogenesis and neuronal signal transduction.. hairy-cell leukemia defined as following: A neoplastic disease of the lymphoreticular cells which is considered to be a rare type of chronic leukemia; it is characterized by an insidious onset, splenomegaly, anemia, granulocytopenia, thrombocytopenia, little or no lymphadenopathy, and the presence of \"hairy\" or \"flagellated\" cells in the blood and bone marrow..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_3899", "sentence1": "Is erabutoxin b usually found in plants?", "sentence2": "The variants are the curaremimetic toxin alpha from Naja nigricollis and erabutoxin a or b from Laticauda semifasciata, The three-dimensional structure of erabutoxin b, a short-chain neurotoxic peptide purified from the venom of the sea snake Laticauda semifasciata, , THe characteristic feature of the crystal structure of erabutoxin b, a short neurotoxin from Laticauda semifasciata, and alpha-cobratoxin, a long neurotoxin from Naja naja siamensis, is the presence of a triple-stranded antiparallel pleated beta-sheet structure formed by the central and the third peptide loops., Here we examine the actions of six snake neurotoxins (alpha-cobratoxin from Naja naja siamensis, erabutoxin-a and b from Laticauda semifasciata; CM12 from N. haje annulifera, toxin III 4 from Notechis scutatus and a long toxin from N. haje) on nicotinic acetylcholine receptors in the cercal afferent, giant interneuron 2 synapse of the cockroach, Periplaneta americana., The method was applied to a study of erabutoxin b molecule, a neurotoxic protein from a sea snake, to analyze the microenvironments of its single tryptophan and tyrosine residues., The area of greatest similarity centered on residue position 25 of erabutoxin b, a locale that is conserved throughout the snake alpha-neurotoxins and their homologues., A systematic computer search of the three-dimensional structure of erabutoxin b (an alpha-neurotoxin from the false sea snake Laticauda semifasciata) was performed to identify the locality that most closely matched the amino acid compositions of the smaller alpha-conotoxins (from the marine snails Conus magus and Conus geographus)., Erabutoxin b is one of a family of snake venom neurotoxins, all low-molecular-weight proteins, which block neuromuscular transmission at the postsynaptic membrane., Erabutoxins a and b are neurotoxins isolated from venom of a sea snake Laticauda semifasciata (erabu-umihebi)., The three-dimensional structure of erabutoxin b, a neurotoxin in the venom of the sea snake Laticauda semifasciata, has been determined from a 2.75 A resolution electron density map., Erabutoxin c, a minor neurotoxic component of the venom of a sea snake Laticauda semifasciata, was isolated in pure form by repeated column chromatography on CM-cellulose columns., The study has established complete structural identity of the two sea-snake venom toxins, erabutoxin b and neurotoxin b, isolated from Laticauda semifasciata snakes taken in different Pacific Ocean waters., Studies on sea-snake venoms. Crystallization of erabutoxins a and b from Laticauda semifasciata venom.[SEP]Relations: postsynaptic membrane has relations: cellcomp_protein with GABRG2, cellcomp_protein with GABRG2, cellcomp_protein with GABRB3, cellcomp_protein with GABRB3, cellcomp_protein with TMUB1, cellcomp_protein with TMUB1, cellcomp_protein with GABRB1, cellcomp_protein with GABRB1, cellcomp_protein with SRGAP2, cellcomp_protein with SRGAP2. Definitions: postsynaptic membrane defined as following: A specialized area of membrane facing the presynaptic membrane on the tip of the nerve ending and separated from it by a minute cleft (the synaptic cleft). Neurotransmitters cross the synaptic cleft and transmit the signal to the postsynaptic membrane. [ISBN:0198506732]. neurotoxin defined as following: Toxic substances from microorganisms, plants or animals that interfere with the functions of the nervous system. Most venoms contain neurotoxic substances. Myotoxins are included in this concept.. erabutoxins defined as following: Toxins isolated from the venom of Laticauda semifasciata, a sea snake (Hydrophid); immunogenic, basic polypeptides of 62 amino acids, folded by four disulfide bonds, block neuromuscular end-plates irreversibly, thus causing paralysis and severe muscle damage; they are similar to Elapid neurotoxins.. sea snake defined as following: A subfamily of marine elapid snakes comprising about 50 species with flattened oar-like tails used as sculls. They are found mostly in the coastal waters of south Asia and Australia. The largest reach a length of almost 9 feet but most species are only about a third as long. They are all venomous. (Goin, Goin, and Zug, Introduction to Herpetology, 3d ed, pp331-3; Moore: Poisonous Snakes of the World, 1980, p159). nicotinic acetylcholine receptors defined as following: One of the two major classes of cholinergic receptors. Nicotinic receptors were originally distinguished by their preference for NICOTINE over MUSCARINE. They are generally divided into muscle-type and neuronal-type (previously ganglionic) based on pharmacology, and subunit composition of the receptors.. venom defined as following: A toxin used by animals and injected into their victims by a bite or sting. variants defined as following: An alteration or difference from a norm or standard.. plants defined as following: Multicellular, eukaryotic life forms of kingdom Plantae. Plants acquired chloroplasts by direct endosymbiosis of CYANOBACTERIA. They are characterized by a mainly photosynthetic mode of nutrition; essentially unlimited growth at localized regions of cell divisions (MERISTEMS); cellulose within cells providing rigidity; the absence of organs of locomotion; absence of nervous and sensory systems; and an alternation of haploid and diploid generations. It is a non-taxonomical term most often referring to LAND PLANTS. In broad sense it includes RHODOPHYTA and GLAUCOPHYTA along with VIRIDIPLANTAE..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_1865", "sentence1": "Is adalimumab effective for hidradenitis suppurativa?", "sentence2": "If patient is not improved, then Adalimumab 160 mg at week 0, 80 mg at week 2; then 40 mg subcutaneously weekly should be administered (LOE Ib, SOR A). If improvement occurs then therapy should be maintained as long as HS lesions are present., Reduction in pain scores and improvement in depressive symptoms in patients with hidradenitis suppurativa treated with adalimumab in a phase 2, randomized, placebo-controlled trial., Adalimumab treatment for 16 weeks improved HS lesions significantly versus placebo (NCT00918255)., CONCLUSION: Patients with moderate to severe HS had a high degree of pain and depressive symptoms at baseline. Adalimumabtherapy was associated with decreased pain and depressive symptoms compared to baseline., Spotlight on adalimumab in the treatment of active moderate-to-severe hidradenitis suppurativa., Adalimumab, a recombinant, fully humanized, anti-tumor necrosis factor alpha (anti-TNF-α) monoclonal antibody, is the only officially approved treatment for the management of moderate-to-severe HS. Case reports, concerning 42 patients who received adalimumab for severe HS (with the standard dose regimen for psoriasis), reported a cumulative response rate of 58% (≥50% in 23 patients) with a relapse rate of 71% (10 out of 14 patients). The most recent and most well-powered phase III, randomized placebo-controlled trials for the evaluation of the efficacy and safety of adalimumab in treatment of moderate-to-severe HS (PIONEER studies I and II) showed that the Hidradenitis Suppurativa Clinical Response (HiSCR) rate at week 12 was significantly higher for patients randomized to adalimumab compared to placebo., In conclusion, adalimumab, to date, holds the most robust data regarding treatment efficacy in HS. , Adalimumab (Humira) for the Treatment of Hidradenitis Suppurativa., Adalimumab (Humira®) is a novel therapy approved by the US Food and Drug Administration, Health Canada, and the European Commission for the treatment of hidradenitis suppurativa (HS)., Taken together, these data conclude that treatment of HS with adalimumab is a safe and effective therapy resulting in a significant decrease in abscess and inflammatory nodule counts within the first 12 weeks of treatment., Effective long-term control of refractory hidradenitis suppurativa with adalimumab after failure of conventional therapy., Hidradenitis suppurativa managed with adalimumab., Treatment of severe recalcitrant hidradenitis suppurativa with adalimumab., Long-term successful adalimumab therapy in severe hidradenitis suppurativa., Comparing treatment outcome of infliximab and adalimumab in patients with severe hidradenitis suppurativa., HiSCR (Hidradenitis Suppurativa Clinical Response): a novel clinical endpoint to evaluate therapeutic outcomes in patients with hidradenitis suppurativa from the placebo-controlled portion of a phase 2 adalimumab study, Adalimumab in treatment-resistant hidradenitis suppurativa following recurrence after extensive affected area excision: a review of biologics therapy, Adalimumab (antitumour necrosis factor-α) treatment of hidradenitis suppurativa ameliorates skin inflammation: an in situ and ex vivo study, Treatment of severe recalcitrant hidradenitis suppurativa with adalimumab, In a phase 2 trial, adalimumab, an antibody against tumor necrosis factor α, showed efficacy against hidradenitis suppurativa.PIONEER I and II were similarly designed, phase 3 multicenter trials of adalimumab for hidradenitis suppurativa, with two double-blind, placebo-controlled periods., Here we report a case of a patient with severe recalcitrant hidradenitis suppurativa successfully treated with adalimumab., Recent reports have demonstrated that adalimumab, a tumor necrosis factor (TNF) antagonist, may be effective in the treatment of patients with HS who have failed conventional therapy., Conclusion Adalimumab appears to be an effective and safe treatment for refractory HS., Effective long-term control of refractory hidradenitis suppurativa with adalimumab after failure of conventional therapy., Hidradenitis suppurativa managed with adalimumab., Treatment of severe recalcitrant hidradenitis suppurativa with adalimumab., Two Phase 3 Trials of Adalimumab for Hidradenitis Suppurativa., Adalimumab treatment for hidradenitis suppurativa associated with Crohn's disease., Long-term successful adalimumab therapy in severe hidradenitis suppurativa., Conclusion Adalimumab appears to be an effective and safe treatment for refractory HS.., Comparing treatment outcome of infliximab and adalimumab in patients with severe hidradenitis suppurativa., Here we report a case of a patient with severe recalcitrant hidradenitis suppurativa successfully treated with adalimumab.., Adalimumab is suitable for the long-term treatment of hidradenitis suppurativa and presents a further conservative treatment approach.., HiSCR (Hidradenitis Suppurativa Clinical Response): a novel clinical endpoint to evaluate therapeutic outcomes in patients with hidradenitis suppurativa from the placebo-controlled portion of a phase 2 adalimumab study., Spotlight on adalimumab in the treatment of active moderate-to-severe hidradenitis suppurativa.[SEP]Relations: hidradenitis suppurativa has relations: disease_disease with hidradenitis, disease_disease with hidradenitis. Adalimumab has relations: drug_drug with Amatuximab, drug_drug with Amatuximab, drug_drug with Isatuximab, drug_drug with Isatuximab, drug_drug with Margetuximab, drug_drug with Margetuximab, drug_drug with Antipyrine, drug_drug with Antipyrine. Definitions: lesions defined as following: A localized pathological or traumatic structural change, damage, deformity, or discontinuity of tissue, organ, or body part.. psoriasis defined as following: A common genetically determined, chronic, inflammatory skin disease characterized by rounded erythematous, dry, scaling patches. The lesions have a predilection for nails, scalp, genitalia, extensor surfaces, and the lumbosacral region. Accelerated epidermopoiesis is considered to be the fundamental pathologic feature in psoriasis.. Adalimumab defined as following: A recombinant, human IgG1 monoclonal antibody directed against tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha), with immunomodulating activity. Upon administration, adalimumab binds to TNF-alpha, thereby preventing its binding to the p55 and p75 TNF cell surface receptors and inhibiting TNF-mediated immune responses. TNF-alpha, a pro-inflammatory cytokine, is upregulated in various autoimmune diseases.. TNF defined as following: A recombinant therapeutic agent which is chemically identical to or similar to one of a number of endogenous tumor necrosis factor (TNF) proteins. TNF family cytokines bind to and activate specific cell-surface receptors, thereby mediating inflammatory processes, cell proliferation, immunity, angiogenesis, and tumor cell cytotoxicity. One primary antitumor effect of TNFs involves stimulation of T cell-mediated antitumor cytotoxicity.. tumor necrosis factor defined as following: Serum glycoprotein produced by activated MACROPHAGES and other mammalian MONONUCLEAR LEUKOCYTES. It has necrotizing activity against tumor cell lines and increases ability to reject tumor transplants. Also known as TNF-alpha, it is only 30% homologous to TNF-beta (LYMPHOTOXIN), but they share TNF RECEPTORS.. infliximab defined as following: A chimeric monoclonal antibody to TNF-ALPHA that is used in the treatment of RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS; ANKYLOSING SPONDYLITIS; PSORIATIC ARTHRITIS and CROHN'S DISEASE.. Hidradenitis Suppurativa defined as following: A chronic suppurative and cicatricial disease of the apocrine glands occurring chiefly in the axillae in women and in the groin and anal regions in men. It is characterized by poral occlusion with secondary bacterial infection, evolving into abscesses which eventually rupture. As the disease becomes chronic, ulcers appear, sinus tracts enlarge, fistulas develop, and fibrosis and scarring become evident.. antibody defined as following: A protein complex that in its canonical form is composed of two identical immunoglobulin heavy chains and two identical immunoglobulin light chains, held together by disulfide bonds and sometimes complexed with additional proteins. An immunoglobulin complex may be embedded in the plasma membrane or present in the extracellular space, in mucosal areas or other tissues, or circulating in the blood or lymph. [GOC:add, GOC:jl, ISBN:0781765196]. hidradenitis suppurativa defined as following: A chronic suppurative and cicatricial disease of the apocrine glands occurring chiefly in the axillae in women and in the groin and anal regions in men. It is characterized by poral occlusion with secondary bacterial infection, evolving into abscesses which eventually rupture. As the disease becomes chronic, ulcers appear, sinus tracts enlarge, fistulas develop, and fibrosis and scarring become evident..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_124", "sentence1": "Is DITPA a thyroid hormone analog utilized in experimental and clinical studies", "sentence2": "DITPA normalized the elevated serum T(3) and TSH when the dose reached 1 mg/kg · d and T(4) and rT(3) increased to the lower normal range., The identification of 3,5-diiodothyropropionic acid (DITPA) that binds to both α- and β-type TRs with relatively low affinity was unique in that this analog improves left ventricular function in heart failure as well as lowers cholesterol., Treatment with DITPA attenuates the acute inflammatory response and reduces myocardial infarct size., Thus DITPA administration impairs baseline cardiac parameters in mice and can be fatal during in vivo acute myocardial I/R., DITPA improved some hemodynamic and metabolic parameters, but there was no evidence for symptomatic benefit in congestive heart failure, The results suggested that DITPA can promote a healthy vasculature independently from its thyroid-related metabolic effects. , Moreover, DITPA and T(4) were efficacious in preventing effects of hypothyroidism on cardiac function and BVD, Both T4 and DITPA had beneficial effects on chamber remodeling, which was most likely due to beneficial changes in cell shape and improved vascular supply., The thyroid analog DITPA enhances endothelial nitric oxide and beta-adrenergic-mediated vasorelaxation by increasing nitric oxide in the vasculature.[SEP]Relations: 3,5-diiodothyropropionic acid has relations: drug_drug with Ethionamide, drug_drug with Ethionamide, drug_drug with Motesanib, drug_drug with Motesanib, drug_drug with Ritonavir, drug_drug with Ritonavir, drug_drug with Escitalopram, drug_drug with Escitalopram, drug_drug with Flumatinib, drug_drug with Flumatinib. Definitions: nitric oxide defined as following: A free radical gas produced endogenously by a variety of mammalian cells, synthesized from ARGININE by NITRIC OXIDE SYNTHASE. Nitric oxide is one of the ENDOTHELIUM-DEPENDENT RELAXING FACTORS released by the vascular endothelium and mediates VASODILATION. It also inhibits platelet aggregation, induces disaggregation of aggregated platelets, and inhibits platelet adhesion to the vascular endothelium. Nitric oxide activates cytosolic GUANYLATE CYCLASE and thus elevates intracellular levels of CYCLIC GMP.. vasculature defined as following: Organ region cluster which consists of regions of arterial, venous and lymphatic trees and the capillary beds that connect them. Examples: Vasculature of head, vasculature of brain.. heart failure defined as following: Heart failure accompanied by EDEMA, such as swelling of the legs and ankles and congestion in the lungs.. hypothyroidism defined as following: A syndrome that results from abnormally low secretion of THYROID HORMONES from the THYROID GLAND, leading to a decrease in BASAL METABOLIC RATE. In its most severe form, there is accumulation of MUCOPOLYSACCHARIDES in the SKIN and EDEMA, known as MYXEDEMA. It may be primary or secondary due to other pituitary disease, or hypothalamic dysfunction.. TRs defined as following: Catalysis of the reaction: ATP + L-threonine + tRNA(Thr) = AMP + diphosphate + L-threonyl-tRNA(Thr). [EC:6.1.1.3]. thyroid hormone defined as following: Natural hormones secreted by the THYROID GLAND, such as THYROXINE, and their synthetic analogs..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_4131", "sentence1": "Can Panitumumab cause trichomegaly?", "sentence2": "Xerosis was present in two cases, and paronychia, pyogenic granuloma, trichomegaly, and madarosis were observed in one patient each. , Eyelash trichomegaly is an uncommon drug-associated sequelae experienced during treatment with epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) inhibitors. Elongation of the eyelashes induced by these agents has predominantly been observed in oncology patients with either colorectal or lung cancer. It is most frequently associated with cetuximab and erlotinib; however, it has also been described in individuals treated with gefitinib or panitumumab. , Trichomegaly of the eyelashes during therapy with epidermal growth factor receptor inhibitors: report of 3 cases., Trichomegaly of the eyelashes is a rare adverse effect of EGFR inhibitor therapy and is characterized by a paradoxical overgrowth of eyelashes.[SEP]Relations: Panitumumab has relations: drug_drug with Tregalizumab, drug_drug with Tregalizumab, drug_drug with Pertuzumab, drug_drug with Pertuzumab, drug_drug with Sonepcizumab, drug_drug with Sonepcizumab, drug_drug with Concizumab, drug_drug with Concizumab, drug_drug with Eculizumab, drug_drug with Eculizumab. Definitions: gefitinib defined as following: A selective tyrosine kinase inhibitor for the EPIDERMAL GROWTH FACTOR RECEPTOR (EGFR) that is used for the treatment of locally advanced or metastatic NON-SMALL CELL LUNG CANCER.. erlotinib defined as following: A quinazoline derivative with antineoplastic properties. Competing with adenosine triphosphate, erlotinib reversibly binds to the intracellular catalytic domain of epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) tyrosine kinase, thereby reversibly inhibiting EGFR phosphorylation and blocking the signal transduction events and tumorigenic effects associated with EGFR activation.. eyelashes defined as following: The hairs which project from the edges of the EYELIDS.. panitumumab defined as following: A human IgG2kappa monoclonal antibody specific for the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR). Monoclonal antibody E7.6.3 binds to the EGFR, blocking the binding of epidermal growth factor and transforming growth factor alpha to EGFR-expressing cancer cells and ultimately inhibiting EGFR-dependent cell activation and proliferation. (NCI). cetuximab defined as following: A chimeric monoclonal antibody that functions as an ANTINEOPLASTIC AGENT through its binding to the EPIDERMAL GROWTH FACTOR RECEPTOR, where it prevents the binding and signaling action of cell growth and survival factors.. epidermal growth factor receptor inhibitors defined as following: Any tyrosine kinase inhibitor that targets the activity of the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) tyrosine kinase. Inhibition of epidermal growth factor receptor tyrosine kinase may inhibit the growth of epidermal-lineage tumor cells, especially those that overexpress epidermal growth factor receptor..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_1899", "sentence1": "Have the promoter regions of the genes implicated in Rett Syndrome been characterized with CAGE?", "sentence2": "CAGE-defined promoter regions of the genes implicated in Rett Syndrome., Mutations in three functionally diverse genes cause Rett Syndrome. Although the functions of Forkhead box G1 (FOXG1), Methyl CpG binding protein 2 (MECP2) and Cyclin-dependent kinase-like 5 (CDKL5) have been studied individually, not much is known about their relation to each other with respect to expression levels and regulatory regions. Here we analyzed data from hundreds of mouse and human samples included in the FANTOM5 project, to identify transcript initiation sites, expression levels, expression correlations and regulatory regions of the three genes.RESULTS: Our investigations reveal the predominantly used transcription start sites (TSSs) for each gene including novel transcription start sites for FOXG1. We show that FOXG1 expression is poorly correlated with the expression of MECP2 and CDKL5. We identify promoter shapes for each TSS, the predicted location of enhancers for each gene and the common transcription factors likely to regulate the three genes. Our data imply Polycomb Repressive Complex 2 (PRC2) mediated silencing of Foxg1 in cerebellum.CONCLUSIONS: Our analyses provide a comprehensive picture of the regulatory regions of the three genes involved in Rett Syndrome., CAGE-defined promoter regions of the genes implicated in Rett Syndrome, CAGE-defined promoter regions of the genes implicated in Rett Syndrome.[SEP]Relations: Rett syndrome has relations: disease_protein with NTNG1, disease_protein with NTNG1, disease_phenotype_positive with Increased serum leptin, disease_phenotype_positive with Increased serum leptin, disease_disease with X-linked complex neurodevelopmental disorder, disease_disease with X-linked complex neurodevelopmental disorder, disease_protein with MECP2, disease_protein with MECP2, disease_phenotype_positive with Increased serum pyruvate, disease_phenotype_positive with Increased serum pyruvate. Definitions: gene defined as following: A category of nucleic acid sequences that function as units of heredity and which code for the basic instructions for the development, reproduction, and maintenance of organisms.. Polycomb Repressive Complex 2 defined as following: A multisubunit polycomb protein complex that catalyzes the METHYLATION of chromosomal HISTONE H3. It works in conjunction with POLYCOMB REPRESSIVE COMPLEX 1 to effect EPIGENETIC REPRESSION.. Forkhead box G1 defined as following: This gene is involved in transcriptional repression and may play a role in the development of the brain and telencephalon.. Rett Syndrome defined as following: This gene plays a role in both the recognition of DNA methylation and the regulation of transcription.. CDKL5 defined as following: This gene plays a role in protein metabolism.. regulatory regions defined as following: Nucleic acid sequences involved in regulating the expression of genes.. MECP2 defined as following: Methyl-CpG-binding protein 2 (486 aa, ~52 kDa) is encoded by the human MECP2 gene. This protein plays a role in the repression of transcription through binding methylated DNA.. Methyl CpG binding protein 2 defined as following: A DNA-binding protein that interacts with methylated CPG ISLANDS. It plays a role in repressing GENETIC TRANSCRIPTION and is frequently mutated in RETT SYNDROME.. human defined as following: Members of the species Homo sapiens.. transcription start sites defined as following: The first nucleotide of a transcribed DNA sequence where RNA polymerase (DNA-DIRECTED RNA POLYMERASE) begins synthesizing the RNA transcript.. cerebellum defined as following: The part of brain that lies behind the BRAIN STEM in the posterior base of skull (CRANIAL FOSSA, POSTERIOR). It is also known as the \"little brain\" with convolutions similar to those of CEREBRAL CORTEX, inner white matter, and deep cerebellar nuclei. Its function is to coordinate voluntary movements, maintain balance, and learn motor skills.. Mutations defined as following: The result of any gain, loss or alteration of the sequences comprising a gene, including all sequences transcribed into RNA.. promoter regions defined as following: DNA sequences which are recognized (directly or indirectly) and bound by a DNA-dependent RNA polymerase during the initiation of transcription. Highly conserved sequences within the promoter include the Pribnow box in bacteria and the TATA BOX in eukaryotes.. genes defined as following: A category of nucleic acid sequences that function as units of heredity and which code for the basic instructions for the development, reproduction, and maintenance of organisms..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_150", "sentence1": "Is PTEN involved in follicular thyroid carcinoma?", "sentence2": "Two of the 259 patients (0.8%), with both follicular thyroid carcinoma and macrocephaly, were found to carry a germline mutation in the PTEN gene. The PTEN mutation frequency in unselected cases of follicular thyroid carcinoma was 4.8%, The frequency of germline pathogenic PTEN mutations in an unselected series of patients with DTC is relatively low, but it is enriched by considering follicular histology and macrocephaly, Similarly, there is increasing evidence demonstrating that mutations leading to activation of the phosphatidylinositol 3- kinase (PI3K)/AKT effectors -PTEN and PI3KCa- are essential for the pathogenesis of follicular thyroid carcinoma (FTC), A single male with follicular thyroid carcinoma from one of these 64 (2%) CS-like families harboured a germline point mutation, c.209T-->C, Similarly, there is increasing evidence demonstrating that mutations leading to activation of the phosphatidylinositol 3- kinase (PI3K)/AKT effectors -PTEN and PI3KCa- are essential for the pathogenesis of follicular thyroid carcinoma (FTC)., The transcriptional silencing of PTEN was significantly associated with the anaplastic subtype, suggesting that PTEN is involved in the carcinogenesis of highly malignant or late-stage thyroid cancers, whereas this particular mechanism appears to be of minor importance in differentiated follicular thyroid tumors., These results show a high frequency of PTEN promoter hypermethylation, especially in follicular tumors, suggesting its possible role in thyroid tumorigenesis, Our findings suggest that the PTEN tumor suppressor gene is occasionally inactivated in sporadic follicular thyroid tumors, Germline mutations in the tumor suppressor gene PTEN, which encodes a dual-specificity phosphatase, have been found in up to 80% of patients with Cowden syndrome suggesting a role of PTEN in the pathogenesis of follicular thyroid tumors, The most common neoplasms in Cowden disease patients arise in the breast, skin, and thyroid (follicular subtype), The transcriptional silencing of PTEN was significantly associated with the anaplastic subtype, suggesting that PTEN is involved in the carcinogenesis of highly malignant or late-stage thyroid cancers, whereas this particular mechanism appears to be of minor importance in differentiated follicular thyroid tumors[SEP]Relations: PTEN has relations: disease_protein with thyroid gland carcinoma, disease_protein with thyroid gland carcinoma, disease_protein with thyroid cancer, disease_protein with thyroid cancer, anatomy_protein_present with thyroid gland, anatomy_protein_present with thyroid gland, disease_protein with carcinoma, disease_protein with carcinoma, disease_protein with prostate carcinoma, disease_protein with prostate carcinoma. Definitions: dual-specificity phosphatase defined as following: A sub-class of protein tyrosine phosphatases that contain an additional phosphatase activity which cleaves phosphate ester bonds on SERINE or THREONINE residues that are located on the same protein.. PTEN defined as following: Phosphatidylinositol 3,4,5-trisphosphate 3-phosphatase and dual-specificity protein phosphatase PTEN (403 aa, ~47 kDa) is encoded by the human PTEN gene. This protein plays a role in signaling and as both a dual-specificity phosphoprotein phosphatase and a lipid phosphatase.. FTC defined as following: A synthetic fluoro derivative of thiacytidine with potent antiviral activity. Emtricitabine is phosphorylated to form emtricitabine 5'-triphosphate within the cell. This metabolite inhibits the activity of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) reverse transcriptase both by competing with the natural substrate deoxycytidine 5'-triphosphate and by incorporation into viral DNA causing a termination of DNA chain elongation (due to the lack of the essential 3'-OH group).. tumors defined as following: New abnormal growth of tissue. Malignant neoplasms show a greater degree of anaplasia and have the properties of invasion and metastasis, compared to benign neoplasms.. follicular thyroid carcinoma defined as following: An adenocarcinoma of the thyroid gland, in which the cells are arranged in the form of follicles. (From Dorland, 27th ed). breast defined as following: In humans, one of the paired regions in the anterior portion of the THORAX. The breasts consist of the MAMMARY GLANDS, the SKIN, the MUSCLES, the ADIPOSE TISSUE, and the CONNECTIVE TISSUES.. thyroid cancers defined as following: A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm affecting the thyroid gland.. DTC defined as following: A chelating agent that has been used to mobilize toxic metals from the tissues of humans and experimental animals. It is the main metabolite of DISULFIRAM.. PTEN gene defined as following: This gene plays a role in signal transduction and apoptosis. It is also involved in the regulation of cell cycle progression.. macrocephaly defined as following: A congenital abnormality in which the occipitofrontal circumference is greater than two standard deviations above the mean for a given age. It is associated with HYDROCEPHALUS; SUBDURAL EFFUSION; ARACHNOID CYSTS; or is part of a genetic condition (e.g., ALEXANDER DISEASE; SOTOS SYNDROME).. Cowden disease defined as following: A hereditary disease characterized by multiple ectodermal, mesodermal, and endodermal nevoid and neoplastic anomalies. Facial trichilemmomas and papillomatous papules of the oral mucosa are the most characteristic lesions. Individuals with this syndrome have a high risk of BREAST CANCER; THYROID CANCER; and ENDOMETRIAL CANCER. This syndrome is associated with mutations in the gene for PTEN PHOSPHATASE.. mutations defined as following: The result of any gain, loss or alteration of the sequences comprising a gene, including all sequences transcribed into RNA..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_1878", "sentence1": "Is there alternative polyadenylation during zebrafish development?", "sentence2": "Extensive alternative polyadenylation during zebrafish development., At 2 h post-fertilization, thousands of unique poly(A) sites appear at locations lacking a typical polyadenylation signal, which suggests a wave of widespread cytoplasmic polyadenylation of mRNA degradation intermediates. Our insights into the identities, formation, and evolution of zebrafish 3' UTRs provide a resource for studying gene regulation during vertebrate development., Extensive alternative polyadenylation during zebrafish development.[SEP]Relations: vertebra has relations: anatomy_anatomy with non-transverse process-bearing vertebra, anatomy_anatomy with non-transverse process-bearing vertebra, anatomy_anatomy with transverse process-bearing vertebra, anatomy_anatomy with transverse process-bearing vertebra, anatomy_anatomy with predorsal vertebra, anatomy_anatomy with predorsal vertebra, anatomy_anatomy with vertebral element, anatomy_anatomy with vertebral element, anatomy_anatomy with vertebral bone 2, anatomy_anatomy with vertebral bone 2. Definitions: zebrafish defined as following: An exotic species of the family CYPRINIDAE, originally from Asia, that has been introduced in North America. Zebrafish is a model organism for drug assay and cancer research.. vertebrate defined as following: Animals having a vertebral column, members of the phylum Chordata, subphylum Craniata comprising mammals, birds, reptiles, amphibians, and fishes..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_3960", "sentence1": "Is avelumab effective for urothelial carcinoma?", "sentence2": "ince then, additional checkpoint inhibitors, including avelumab, durvalumab, and nivolumab, have gained approval. , Avelumab, an anti-programmed death-ligand 1 monoclonal antibody approved for the treatment of metastatic Merkel cell carcinoma and platinum-treated urothelial carcinoma, was initially approved with a 10 mg/kg weight-based dose. , Five new PD-1/PD-L1 checkpoint inhibitors have been approved for the treatment of metastatic urothelial carcinoma (UC): pembrolizumab, atezolizumab, durvalumab, nivolumab, and avelumab. , We reviewed the literature for prospective studies evaluating PD-1/PD-L1 inhibitors in refractory urothelial carcinoma patients, which formed the basis for US Food and Drug Administration approval of 5 different antagonistic antibodies targeting PD-1 or PD-L1 (atezolizumab, durvalumab, avelumab, nivolumab, and pembrolizumab)., Nowadays, five immune checkpoint inhibitors blocking PD-1 (pembrolizumab, nivolumab) or PD-L1 (atezolizumab, durvalumab, and avelumab) have been approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration (US FDA) for the first- or second-line use in urothelial carcinoma, based on durable response and manageable safety profiles observed in relevant clinical trials. , RETATION: Avelumab showed antitumour activity in the treatment of patients with platinum-refractory metastatic urothelial carcinoma; a manageable safety profile was reported in all avelumab-treated patients. These, data provide the rationale for therapeutic use of avelumab in metastatic urothelial carcinoma and it has received accelerated US FDA approval in this setting on this basis.FUNDIN, BACKGROUND: Anti-programmed cell death ligand 1 (PD-L1)/programmed cell death 1 antibodies have shown clinical activity in platinum-treated metastatic urothelial carcinoma, resulting in regulatory approval of several agents, including avelumab (anti-PD-L1)., Avelumab as second-line therapy for metastatic, platinum-treated urothelial carcinoma in the phase Ib JAVELIN Solid Tumor study: 2-year updated efficacy and safety analysis., BACKGROUND: Avelumab has recently been approved by the Food and Drug Administration for the therapy of Merkel cell carcinoma and urothelial carcinoma., SIONS: Maintenance avelumab plus best supportive care significantly prolonged overall survival, as compared with best supportive care alone, among patients with urothelial cancer who had disease that had not progressed with first-line chemotherapy. (Fund, By the emergence of modern immunotherapies with active agents like PD-1 (nivolumab, pembrolizumab) and PD-L1 immune checkpoint blockers (atezolizumab, avelumab, durvalumab), new therapeutic options have become available for the treatment of patients with locally advanced and metastatic urothelial carcinoma., Avelumab, an anti-programmed death-ligand 1 monoclonal antibody approved for the treatment of metastatic Merkel cell carcinoma and platinum-treated urothelial carcinoma, was initially approved with a 10 mg/kg weight-based dose., By the emergence of modern immunotherapies with active agents like PD-1 (nivolumab, pembrolizumab) and PD-L1 immune checkpoint blockers (atezolizumab, avelumab, durvalumab), new therapeutic options have become available for the treatment of patients with locally advanced and metastatic urothelial carcinoma. Accor, ACQUISITION: Five antibodies including pembrolizumab (PD-L1 antibody), atezolizumab (PD-1 antibody), nivolumab (PD-1 antibody), avelumab and durvalumab (PD-L1 antibodies) have been approved in the treatment of advanced urothelial carcinoma in first- and second-line treatment setting., INTERPRETATION: Avelumab showed antitumour activity in the treatment of patients with platinum-refractory metastatic urothelial carcinoma; a manageable safety profile was reported in all avelumab-treated patients., Conclusion Avelumab was well tolerated and associated with durable responses and prolonged survival in patients with refractory metastatic UC., Avelumab: A Novel Anti-PD-L1 Agent in the Treatment of Merkel Cell Carcinoma and Urothelial Cell Carcinoma., In early 2017, avelumab (BAVENCIO®), a PD-L1-blocking monoclonal antibody agent, was approved for the treatment of metastatic MCC and UC., Expert opinion: Avelumab has shown clinical efficacy for metastatic and advanced UC in phase I studies after the failure of platinum-based therapy with a well-tolerated safety profile., Avelumab has been approved by the U.S. FDA for the treatment of metastatic Merkel cell carcinoma and metastatic urothelial carcinoma that has progressed during or following treatment with a platinum-based regimen.[SEP]Relations: Nivolumab has relations: drug_drug with Avelumab, drug_drug with Avelumab, drug_drug with Urelumab, drug_drug with Urelumab, drug_drug with Cemiplimab, drug_drug with Cemiplimab. urothelial carcinoma has relations: disease_disease with urothelial neoplasm, disease_disease with urothelial neoplasm, disease_protein with HRAS, disease_protein with HRAS. Definitions: PD-1 defined as following: Human PDCD1 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 2q37.3 and is approximately 9 kb in length. This allele, which encodes programmed cell death protein 1, plays a role in the modulation of both apoptosis and cellular immunity. Mutation of the gene is associated with systemic lupus erythematosus type 2.. PD-L1 defined as following: Human CD274 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 9p24 and is approximately 20 kb in length. This allele, which encodes programmed cell death 1 ligand 1 protein, plays a role in the regulation of T cell stimulation and proliferation.. Merkel cell carcinoma defined as following: A carcinoma arising from MERKEL CELLS located in the basal layer of the epidermis and occurring most commonly as a primary neuroendocrine carcinoma of the skin. Merkel cells are tactile cells of neuroectodermal origin and histologically show neurosecretory granules. The skin of the head and neck are a common site of Merkel cell carcinoma, occurring generally in elderly patients. (Holland et al., Cancer Medicine, 3d ed, p1245). UC defined as following: Inflammation of the COLON that is predominantly confined to the MUCOSA. Its major symptoms include DIARRHEA, rectal BLEEDING, the passage of MUCUS, and ABDOMINAL PAIN.. nivolumab defined as following: A fully human immunoglobulin (Ig) G4 monoclonal antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell surface receptor programmed death-1 (PD-1, PCD-1) with immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, nivolumab binds to and blocks the activation of PD-1, an immunoglobulin superfamily (IgSF) transmembrane protein, by its ligands programmed cell death ligand 1 (PD-L1), which is overexpressed on certain cancer cells, and programmed cell death ligand 2 (PD-L2), which is primarily expressed on antigen-presenting cells (APCs). This results in the activation of T-cells and cell-mediated immune responses against tumor cells. Activated PD-1 negatively regulates T-cell activation and plays a key role in tumor evasion from host immunity.. antibody defined as following: A protein complex that in its canonical form is composed of two identical immunoglobulin heavy chains and two identical immunoglobulin light chains, held together by disulfide bonds and sometimes complexed with additional proteins. An immunoglobulin complex may be embedded in the plasma membrane or present in the extracellular space, in mucosal areas or other tissues, or circulating in the blood or lymph. [GOC:add, GOC:jl, ISBN:0781765196]. urothelial carcinoma defined as following: A malignant neoplasm derived from TRANSITIONAL EPITHELIAL CELLS, occurring chiefly in the URINARY BLADDER; URETERS; or RENAL PELVIS.. disease defined as following: A definite pathologic process with a characteristic set of signs and symptoms. It may affect the whole body or any of its parts, and its etiology, pathology, and prognosis may be known or unknown.. metastatic urothelial carcinoma defined as following: A carcinoma that arises from the urothelium and has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_51", "sentence1": "Is peripheral neuroepithelioma related to Ewing sarcoma?", "sentence2": "The term \"small round-cell tumor\" describes a group of highly aggressive malignant tumors composed of relatively small and monotonous undifferentiated cells with high nuclear to cytoplasmic ratios. This group includes Ewing's sarcoma (ES), peripheral neuroepithelioma (aka, primitive neuroectodermal tumor or extraskeletal ES), peripheral neuroblastoma (\"classic-type\"), rhabdomyosarcoma, desmoplastic small round-cell tumor, lymphoma, leukemia, small-cell osteosarcoma, small-cell carcinoma (either undifferentiated or neuroendocrine), olfactory neuroblastoma, cutaneous neuroendocrine carcinoma (aka, Merkel-cell carcinoma), small-cell melanoma, and mesenchymal chondrosarcoma. Their clinical presentations often overlap, thus making a definitive diagnosis problematic in some cases, AIMS: To retrospectively study the DNA content in a series of childhood Ewing Family Tumors (EFT), and to investigate its prognostic value. METHODS: The study was performed on a series of 27 EFTs (osseous Ewing's sarcoma, 18 cases; extraosseous Ewing's sarcoma, 2; peripheral neuroepithelioma, 4; Askin Rosai tumors, 3, To improve the prognosis of patients with poor-risk peripheral primitive neuroectodermal tumors (pPNETs; including peripheral neuroepithelioma and Ewing's sarcoma), Large group of small-round-cell tumours of soft tissues and bone represents a complex diagnostic problem for the pathologists. Neuronal nature of many tumours from this group is proven by means of new methods--immunophenotypic analysis, tissue culture, cytogenetics. Peripheral neuroepithelioma, Ewing tumour, primitive neuroectodermal tumour (PNET), Askin tumour belong to these neoplasms, Comparison of Ewing's sarcoma of bone and peripheral neuroepithelioma. An immunocytochemical and ultrastructural analysis of two primitive neuroectodermal neoplasms, Ewing's sarcoma of bone (ESB) and peripheral neuroepithelioma (PN) are frequently considered to be different tumors. Some researchers have suggested that PN is morphologically a neuroectodermal Ewing's sarcoma. We sought to determine the extent of neuroectodermal features in conventional ESB on direct patient material (25 cases) and to compare these tumors with a similar group of readily diagnosed PNs (10 cases), Neuroectodermal antigens (neuron-specific enolase, Leu-7 [HNK-1], neurofilament 200 kd, and S100) were found in nine of 10 cases of PN and in 17 of 25 cases of ESB, These data support the concept that ESB and PN are both peripheral primitive neuroectodermal neoplasms, differing only in extent of neuroectodermal phenotype and morphological differentiation, Besides these antigenic features, Ewing sarcoma cells are characterized by a specific t(11;22)(q24;q12) translocation also observed in neuroepithelioma, a neuroectodermal tumor, suggesting a possible evolutionary related origin., Ewings sarcoma (ES) and peripheral neuroepithelioma (PN) are closely related tumors, and it can be difficult to distinguish them from other small-round-cell tumors (SRCTs)., The presence of this translocation in Ewing sarcoma and peripheral primitive neuroectodermal tumor has been taken as evidence that these two tumors are related., Besides these antigenic features, Ewing sarcoma cells are characterized by a specific t(11;22)(q24;q12) translocation also observed in neuroepithelioma, a neuroectodermal tumor, suggesting a possible evolutionary related origin., Indistinguishable patterns of protooncogene expression in two distinct but closely related tumors: Ewing's sarcoma and neuroepithelioma., Ewing's sarcoma (ES) and peripheral neuroepithelioma (PN) are related tumors, possibly of neural crest origin, which are cytogenetically characterized by the specific translocation t(11;22)(q24;q12)., Ewing's sarcoma/peripheral primitive neuroectodermal tumors (ES/pPNET) are a group of small round cell sarcomas that show varying degrees of neuroectodermal differentiation characterized by translocation involving the EWS gene, Ewing's sarcoma (ES) and peripheral neuroepithelioma (PN) are closely related tumors, and it can be difficult to distinguish them from other small-round-cell tumors (SRCTs), Ewing's sarcoma (ES) and peripheral neuroepithelioma (PN) are related tumors, possibly of neural crest origin, which are cytogenetically characterized by the specific translocation t(11;22)(q24;q12), This genetical similarity further supports a nosological concept according to which Askin's tumour, Ewing's sarcoma and peripheral neuroepithelioma represent phenotypic variations of the same tumour, namely the peripheral primitive neuroectodermal tumour., Besides these antigenic features, Ewing sarcoma cells are characterized by a specific t(11;22)(q24;q12) translocation also observed in neuroepithelioma, a neuroectodermal tumor, suggesting a possible evolutionary related origin[SEP]Relations: Ewing sarcoma/peripheral primitive neuroectodermal tumor has relations: disease_disease with Ewing sarcoma, disease_disease with Ewing sarcoma, disease_disease with extraskeletal Ewing sarcoma/peripheral primitive neuroectodermal tumor, disease_disease with extraskeletal Ewing sarcoma/peripheral primitive neuroectodermal tumor, disease_disease with peripheral primitive neuroectodermal tumor, disease_disease with peripheral primitive neuroectodermal tumor, disease_disease with Ewing sarcoma/peripheral primitive neuroectodermal tumor of bone, disease_disease with Ewing sarcoma/peripheral primitive neuroectodermal tumor of bone. Ewing sarcoma has relations: disease_disease with Ewing sarcoma/peripheral primitive neuroectodermal tumor, disease_disease with Ewing sarcoma/peripheral primitive neuroectodermal tumor. Definitions: Askin tumour defined as following: A primitive neuroectodermal tumor (small round blue cell tumor) of the thorax which can involve the periosteum, thoracic wall and/or pleura though it spares the lung parenchyma.. neuroectodermal tumour defined as following: Malignant neoplasms arising in the neuroectoderm, the portion of the ectoderm of the early embryo that gives rise to the central and peripheral nervous systems, including some glial cells.. peripheral neuroepithelioma defined as following: A small round cell tumor with neural differentiation arising from the bone. It may be associated with pain.. ESB defined as following: A family of enzymes that hydrolyze carboxylic esters.. DNA defined as following: A deoxyribonucleotide polymer that is the primary genetic material of all cells. Eukaryotic and prokaryotic organisms normally contain DNA in a double-stranded state, yet several important biological processes transiently involve single-stranded regions. DNA, which consists of a polysugar-phosphate backbone possessing projections of purines (adenine and guanine) and pyrimidines (thymine and cytosine), forms a double helix that is held together by hydrogen bonds between these purines and pyrimidines (adenine to thymine and guanine to cytosine).. lymphoma defined as following: A general term for various neoplastic diseases of the lymphoid tissue.. tumour defined as following: New abnormal growth of tissue. Malignant neoplasms show a greater degree of anaplasia and have the properties of invasion and metastasis, compared to benign neoplasms.. neurofilament defined as following: Neurofilament medium polypeptide (916 aa, ~102 kDa) is encoded by the human NEFM gene. This protein is involved in the regulation of neuronal process structure.. Ewing sarcoma defined as following: A small round cell tumor that lacks morphologic, immunohistochemical, and electron microscopic evidence of neuroectodermal differentiation. It represents one of the two ends of the spectrum called Ewing sarcoma/peripheral neuroectodermal tumor. It affects mostly males under age 20, and it can occur in soft tissue or bone. Pain and the presence of a mass are the most common clinical symptoms.. neuroepithelioma defined as following: A group of malignant tumors of the nervous system that feature primitive cells with elements of neuronal and/or glial differentiation. Use of this term is limited by some authors to central nervous system tumors and others include neoplasms of similar origin which arise extracranially (i.e., NEUROECTODERMAL TUMORS, PRIMITIVE, PERIPHERAL). This term is also occasionally used as a synonym for MEDULLOBLASTOMA. In general, these tumors arise in the first decade of life and tend to be highly malignant. (From DeVita et al., Cancer: Principles and Practice of Oncology, 5th ed, p2059). desmoplastic small round-cell tumor defined as following: A rare, aggressive soft tissue sarcoma that primarily affects adolescents and young adults. It is most commonly found in the abdomen.. soft tissues defined as following: A general term comprising tissue that is not hardened or calcified; including muscle, fat, blood vessels, nerves, tendons, ligaments and fascia.. peripheral neuroblastoma defined as following: A neuroblastoma arising from the peripheral nervous system.. rhabdomyosarcoma defined as following: A malignant mesenchymal tumor with skeletal muscle differentiation affecting the anus.. Ewing's sarcoma defined as following: A small round cell bone tumor that lacks morphologic, immunohistochemical, and electron microscopic evidence of neuroectodermal differentiation. It represents one of the two ends of the spectrum called Ewing sarcoma/peripheral neuroectodermal tumor. It often affects the diaphysis or metaphyseal-diaphyseal portion of long bones. Clinical findings include pain and a mass in the involved area. Fever, anemia, leukocytosis, and an increased sedimentation rate are often seen. X-ray examination reveals osteolytic lesions. The prognosis depends on the stage, anatomic location, and size of the tumor.. mesenchymal chondrosarcoma defined as following: A rare aggressive variant of chondrosarcoma, characterized by a biphasic histologic pattern of small compact cells intermixed with islands of cartilaginous matrix. Mesenchymal chondrosarcomas have a predilection for flat bones; long tubular bones are rarely affected. They tend to occur in the younger age group and are highly metastatic. (DeVita Jr et al., Cancer: Principles & Practice of Oncology, 3d ed, p1456). leukemia defined as following: A progressive, malignant disease of the blood-forming organs, characterized by distorted proliferation and development of leukocytes and their precursors in the blood and bone marrow. Leukemias were originally termed acute or chronic based on life expectancy but now are classified according to cellular maturity. Acute leukemias consist of predominately immature cells; chronic leukemias are composed of more mature cells. (From The Merck Manual, 2006). HNK-1 defined as following: A carbohydrate molecule that contains a sulfoglucuronyl residue and found predominantly on the surface of natural killer cells. It is involved in the modulation of cell-cell and cell-matrix interactions.. PNET defined as following: A group of highly cellular primitive round cell neoplasms which occur extracranially in soft tissue and bone and are derived from embryonal neural crest cells. These tumors occur primarily in children and adolescents and share a number of characteristics with EWING SARCOMA.. PNs defined as following: A minimally invasive form of electroanalgesia often used in neuropathic pain. For best effect, the stimulation is applied proximally to the site of the nerve lesion. (from White, Li, and Chiu). PN defined as following: The nervous system outside of the brain and spinal cord. The peripheral nervous system has autonomic and somatic divisions. The autonomic nervous system includes the enteric, parasympathetic, and sympathetic subdivisions. The somatic nervous system includes the cranial and spinal nerves and their ganglia and the peripheral sensory receptors.. neuroendocrine defined as following: A system of NEURONS that has the specialized function to produce and secrete HORMONES, and that constitutes, in whole or in part, an ENDOCRINE SYSTEM or organ.. peripheral defined as following: On or near an edge or constituting an outer boundary; the outer area.. cutaneous neuroendocrine carcinoma defined as following: A carcinoma arising from MERKEL CELLS located in the basal layer of the epidermis and occurring most commonly as a primary neuroendocrine carcinoma of the skin. Merkel cells are tactile cells of neuroectodermal origin and histologically show neurosecretory granules. The skin of the head and neck are a common site of Merkel cell carcinoma, occurring generally in elderly patients. (Holland et al., Cancer Medicine, 3d ed, p1245). S100 defined as following: Human S100A1 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 1q21 and is approximately 4 kb in length. This allele, which encodes protein S100-A1, is involved in the binding of zinc and calcium.. EWS gene defined as following: This gene may play a role in post-transcriptional regulation; however the function remains to be elucidated. Mutations in the gene result in Ewing sarcoma and other tumors..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_4434", "sentence1": "Is Satb1 a transcription factor?", "sentence2": "Special AT-rich sequence binding protein-1 (SATB1) is localized to the nucleus and remodels chromatin structure in T cells, chromatin organizers SATB2 and SATB1 , transcription factor complexes. These MYB complexes assemble aberrantly with LYL1, E2A, C/EBP family members, LMO2, and SATB1. , Staining for the transcription factors Foxp2, Satb1 and Satb2 labeled most ganglion cells in the avian ganglion cell layer.[SEP]Relations: Tat protein binding has relations: molfunc_protein with DNAJA1, molfunc_protein with DNAJA1, molfunc_protein with DNAJA1, molfunc_protein with DNAJA1, molfunc_protein with GABARAPL1, molfunc_protein with GABARAPL1, molfunc_protein with GABARAPL1, molfunc_protein with GABARAPL1. Protein S human has relations: drug_drug with Factor XIII (human), drug_drug with Factor XIII (human). Definitions: Satb1 defined as following: DNA-Binding Protein SATB1 (763 aa, ~86 kDa) is encoded by the human SATB1 gene. This protein binds DNA and may be involved in the regulation of transcription.. ganglion cells defined as following: A type of interneuron that conveys information to the brain.. LMO2 defined as following: Human LMO2 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 11p13 and is approximately 34 kb in length. This allele, which encodes rhombotin-2 protein, is involved in red blood cell development through the modulation of transcription by RNA polymerase II.. nucleus defined as following: The region of an atom that contains the protons and neutrons.. T cells defined as following: A subset of therapeutic autologous T-lymphocytes that express a T-cell receptor (TCR) composed of one gamma chain and one delta chain, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the therapeutic gamma delta T-lymphocytes, these cells secrete interferon-gamma (IFN-g), and exert direct killing of tumor cells. In addition, these cells activate the immune system to exert a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells. Gamma delta T-lymphocytes play a key role in the activation of the immune system and do not require major histocompatibility complex (MHC)-mediated antigen presentation to exert their cytotoxic effect.. LYL1 defined as following: Protein lyl-1 (280 aa, ~30 kDa) is encoded by the human LYL1 gene. This protein is involved in blood vessel maturation and transcriptional regulation.. Satb2 defined as following: DNA-binding protein SATB2 (733 aa, ~83 kDa) is encoded by the human SATB2 gene. This protein is involved in both DNA binding and transcriptional regulation.. chromatin defined as following: The ordered and organized complex of DNA, protein, and sometimes RNA, that forms the chromosome. [GOC:elh, PMID:20404130]. Foxp2 defined as following: This gene is involved in brain development.. E2A defined as following: Human TCF3 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 19p13.3 and is approximately 43 kb in length. This allele, which encodes transcription factor E2-alpha protein, plays a role in the mediation of embryological cell fate. Chromosomal aberrations involving the gene are associated with forms of pre-B-cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia.. transcription factor defined as following: Endogenous substances, usually proteins, which are effective in the initiation, stimulation, or termination of the genetic transcription process..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_3068", "sentence1": "Has the protein SIRT2 been associated to cervical cancer?", "sentence2": " A progressive increase in the expression of both SIRT2 and SIRT7 was noted during cancer progression in the following order: normal < preneoplasia < cancer., We demonstrate that treatment of cervical cancer cells with a RhoGDIα-derived K52-trifluoroacetylated, substrate-derived peptidic sirtuin inhibitor severely impairs cell proliferation. [SEP]Relations: PPP1R1A has relations: disease_protein with liver cancer, disease_protein with liver cancer, protein_protein with ACTA2, protein_protein with ACTA2, protein_protein with ZPBP2, protein_protein with ZPBP2, anatomy_protein_present with spinal cord, anatomy_protein_present with spinal cord. NAD-dependent protein deacetylase activity has relations: molfunc_protein with SIRT2, molfunc_protein with SIRT2. Definitions: SIRT7 defined as following: NAD-dependent protein deacetylase sirtuin-7 (400 aa, ~45 kDa) is encoded by the human SIRT7 gene. This protein plays a role in protein deacetylation.. SIRT2 defined as following: A sirtuin family member found primarily in the CYTOPLASM. It is a multifunctional enzyme that contains a NAD-dependent deacetylase activity that is specific for HISTONES and a mono-ADP-ribosyltransferase activity.. cervical cancer defined as following: A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the cervix..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_2140", "sentence1": "Is it feasible to obtain DNA read lengths that exceed 30 Kb?", "sentence2": "Single-molecule, real-time sequencing (SMRT) developed by Pacific BioSciences produces longer reads than secondary generation sequencing technologies such as Illumina. The long read length enables PacBio sequencing to close gaps in genome assembly, reveal structural variations, and identify gene isoforms with higher accuracy in transcriptomic sequencing., Third-generation sequencing, with read lengths>10 kb, will improve the assembly of complex genomes, but these techniques require high-molecular-weight genomic DNA (gDNA), and gDNA extraction protocols used for obtaining smaller fragments for short-read sequencing are not suitable for this purpose., The emergence and development of so called third generation sequencing platforms such as PacBio has permitted exceptionally long reads (over 20 kb) to be generated.[SEP]Definitions: genomic DNA defined as following: The DNA that is part of the normal chromosomal complement of an organism.. fragments defined as following: A physical quality in which the entity or structure is broken into pieces.. SMRT defined as following: Human NCOR2 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 12q24 and is approximately 194 kb in length. This allele, which encodes nuclear receptor corepressor 2 protein, plays a role in both chromatin structural alteration and transcriptional regulation.. genome assembly defined as following: An annotated assembly of genome sequences created by the assimilation of data pieces from numerous sources.. DNA defined as following: A deoxyribonucleotide polymer that is the primary genetic material of all cells. Eukaryotic and prokaryotic organisms normally contain DNA in a double-stranded state, yet several important biological processes transiently involve single-stranded regions. DNA, which consists of a polysugar-phosphate backbone possessing projections of purines (adenine and guanine) and pyrimidines (thymine and cytosine), forms a double helix that is held together by hydrogen bonds between these purines and pyrimidines (adenine to thymine and guanine to cytosine)..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_2871", "sentence1": "Are de novo mutations in regulatory elements responsible for neurodevelopmental disorders?", "sentence2": "The role of de novo mutations in regulatory elements affecting genes associated with developmental disorders, or other genes, has been essentially unexplored. We identified de novo mutations in three classes of putative regulatory elements in almost 8,000 patients with developmental disorders. Here we show that de novo mutations in highly evolutionarily conserved fetal brain-active elements are significantly and specifically enriched in neurodevelopmental disorders. We identified a significant twofold enrichment of recurrently mutated elements. We estimate that, genome-wide, 1-3% of patients without a diagnostic coding variant carry pathogenic de novo mutations in fetal brain-active regulatory elements and that only 0.15% of all possible mutations within highly conserved fetal brain-active elements cause neurodevelopmental disorders with a dominant mechanism., We estimate that, genome-wide, 1-3% of patients without a diagnostic coding variant carry pathogenic de novo mutations in fetal brain-active regulatory elements and that only 0.15% of all possible mutations within highly conserved fetal brain-active elements cause neurodevelopmental disorders with a dominant mechanism., Here we show that de novo mutations in highly evolutionarily conserved fetal brain-active elements are significantly and specifically enriched in neurodevelopmental disorders., We estimate that, genome-wide, 1-3% of patients without a diagnostic coding variant carry pathogenic de novo mutations in fetal brain-active regulatory elements and that only 0.15% of all possible mutations within highly conserved fetal brain-active elements cause neurodevelopmental disorders with a dominant mechanism. , Here we show that de novo mutations in highly evolutionarily conserved fetal brain-active elements are significantly and specifically enriched in neurodevelopmental disorders. , De novo mutations in regulatory elements in neurodevelopmental disorders.We previously estimated that 42% of patients with severe developmental disorders carry pathogenic de novo mutations in coding sequences. [SEP]Relations: complex neurodevelopmental disorder has relations: disease_disease with developmental and epileptic encephalopathy, disease_disease with developmental and epileptic encephalopathy, disease_disease with nervous system disorder, disease_disease with nervous system disorder, disease_disease with pervasive developmental disorder, disease_disease with pervasive developmental disorder, disease_disease with Prader-Willi syndrome, disease_disease with Prader-Willi syndrome. developmental disability has relations: disease_protein with NTRK2, disease_protein with NTRK2. Definitions: developmental disorders defined as following: Disorders in which there is a delay in development based on that expected for a given age level or stage of development. These impairments or disabilities originate before age 18, may be expected to continue indefinitely, and constitute a substantial impairment. Biological and nonbiological factors are involved in these disorders. (From American Psychiatric Glossary, 6th ed). fetal defined as following: Care provided the pregnant woman in order to prevent complications, and decrease the incidence of maternal and prenatal mortality.. genes defined as following: A category of nucleic acid sequences that function as units of heredity and which code for the basic instructions for the development, reproduction, and maintenance of organisms.. pathogenic defined as following: A genetic variant that is known to directly contribute to the development of disease.. mutations defined as following: The result of any gain, loss or alteration of the sequences comprising a gene, including all sequences transcribed into RNA.. neurodevelopmental disorders defined as following: A childhood disorder that has a neurological basis and manifests as a developmental disability..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_159", "sentence1": "Is glycyl-tRNA synthetase gene involved in the development of Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease?", "sentence2": "Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease type 2D (CMT2D) is an autosomal-dominant axonal peripheral neuropathy characterized by impaired motor and sensory function in the distal extremities. Mutations in the glycyl-tRNA synthetase (GARS) gene cause CMT2D, Dominant mutations in GARS cause rare forms of Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease and distal spinal muscular atrophy, Using exome sequencing she was found to harbor compound heterozygous mutations within the glycyl-tRNA synthetase (GARS) gene, mutations of human GlyRS (hGlyRS) were also found to be associated with Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease, Dominant mutations in GARS, encoding the essential enzyme glycyl-tRNA synthetase (GlyRS), result in a form of Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease, type 2D (CMT2D), predominantly characterized by lower motor nerve degeneration, A novel mutation in glycyl-tRNA synthetase caused Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease type 2D with facial and respiratory muscle involvement, Here we describe a 45-year-old woman with a long course of motor-dominant neuropathy. Distal weakness appeared in childhood and became worse with age. After a diagnosis of CMT type 2, the symptoms progressed, and in her fourth decade, facial and respiratory muscle weakness appeared, ultimately requiring non-invasive mechanical ventilation. There was no family history of CMT. Comprehensive analysis of known CMT-related genes revealed a novel heterozygous c.815T>A, p.L218Q mutation in glycyl-tRNA synthetase (GARS), a causative gene for both CMT type 2D (CMT2D) and distal spinal muscular atrophy type V (dSMA-V), Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease type 2D (CMT2D) is a dominantly inherited peripheral neuropathy caused by missense mutations in the glycyl-tRNA synthetase gene (GARS)., Long-range structural effects of a Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease-causing mutation in human glycyl-tRNA synthetase., Glycyl tRNA synthetase mutations in Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease type 2D and distal spinal muscular atrophy type V., [A novel mutation in glycyl-tRNA synthetase caused Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease type 2D with facial and respiratory muscle involvement]., Glycyl-tRNA synthetase (GARS), which encodes the enzyme responsible for charging tRNA(Gly) with glycine in both the cytoplasm and mitochondria, is implicated to Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease 2D (CMT2D) and distal hereditary motor neuropathy type V (dHMN-V)., These additional functions may explain why dominant mutations in glycyl-tRNA synthetase (GlyRS) and tyrosyl-tRNA synthetase cause Charcot-Marie-Tooth (CMT) disease, the most common heritable disease of the peripheral nervous system., Here, we report the identification of four disease-associated missense mutations in the glycyl tRNA synthetase gene in families with CMT2D and dSMA-V., Mutations in the glycyl-tRNA synthetase (GARS) gene cause CMT2D., Of the many inherited Charcot-Marie-Tooth peripheral neuropathies, type 2D (CMT2D) is caused by dominant point mutations in the gene GARS, encoding glycyl tRNA synthetase (GlyRS)., Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease type 2D (CMT2D) is a dominantly inherited peripheral neuropathy caused by missense mutations in the glycyl-tRNA synthetase gene (GARS), Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease type 2D is a hereditary axonal and glycyl-tRNA synthetase (GARS)-associated neuropathy that is caused by a mutation in GARS, Long-range structural effects of a Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease-causing mutation in human glycyl-tRNA synthetase, These additional functions may explain why dominant mutations in glycyl-tRNA synthetase (GlyRS) and tyrosyl-tRNA synthetase cause Charcot-Marie-Tooth (CMT) disease, the most common heritable disease of the peripheral nervous system, A novel mutation in glycyl-tRNA synthetase caused Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease type 2D with facial and respiratory muscle involvement., Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease type 2D (CMT2D) is a dominantly inherited peripheral neuropathy caused by missense mutations in the glycyl-tRNA synthetase gene (GARS). , Mutations in the glycyl-tRNA synthetase (GARS) gene cause CMT2D. , An ENU-induced mutation in mouse glycyl-tRNA synthetase (GARS) causes peripheral sensory and motor phenotypes creating a model of Charcot-Marie-Tooth type 2D peripheral neuropathy., We previously implicated mutations in the gene encoding glycyl-tRNA synthetase (GARS) as the cause of CMT2D and dSMA-V. , An active dominant mutation of glycyl-tRNA synthetase causes neuropathy in a Charcot-Marie-Tooth 2D mouse model., Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease type 2D is a hereditary axonal and glycyl-tRNA synthetase (GARS)-associated neuropathy that is caused by a mutation in GARS. , Dominant mutations in GARS, encoding the essential enzyme glycyl-tRNA synthetase (GlyRS), result in a form of Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease, type 2D (CMT2D), predominantly characterized by lower motor nerve degeneration. , Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease type 2D (CMT2D) is a dominantly inherited peripheral neuropathy caused by missense mutations in the glycyl-tRNA synthetase gene (GARS). In addition to GARS, mutations in three other tRNA synthetase genes cause similar neuropathies, although the underlying mechanisms are not fully understood., These additional functions may explain why dominant mutations in glycyl-tRNA synthetase (GlyRS) and tyrosyl-tRNA synthetase cause Charcot-Marie-Tooth (CMT) disease,, Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease type 2D (CMT2D) is an autosomal-dominant axonal peripheral neuropathy characterized by impaired motor and sensory function in the distal extremities. Mutations in the glycyl-tRNA synthetase (GARS) gene cause CMT2D., Of the many inherited Charcot-Marie-Tooth peripheral neuropathies, type 2D (CMT2D) is caused by dominant point mutations in the gene GARS, encoding glycyl tRNA synthetase (GlyRS)., Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease type 2D (CMT2D) is a dominantly inherited peripheral neuropathy caused by missense mutations in the glycyl-tRNA synthetase gene (GARS)., Long-range structural effects of a Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease-causing mutation in human glycyl-tRNA synthetase., Glycyl tRNA synthetase mutations in Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease type 2D and distal spinal muscular atrophy type V., These additional functions may explain why dominant mutations in glycyl-tRNA synthetase (GlyRS) and tyrosyl-tRNA synthetase cause Charcot-Marie-Tooth (CMT) disease, the most common heritable disease of the peripheral nervous system., A novel mutation in glycyl-tRNA synthetase caused Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease type 2D with facial and respiratory muscle involvement., An active dominant mutation of glycyl-tRNA synthetase causes neuropathy in a Charcot-Marie-Tooth 2D mouse model., Glycyl-tRNA synthetase (GARS), which encodes the enzyme responsible for charging tRNA(Gly) with glycine in both the cytoplasm and mitochondria, is implicated to Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease 2D (CMT2D) and distal hereditary motor neuropathy type V (dHMN-V).[SEP]Relations: Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease has relations: disease_protein with GDAP1, disease_protein with GDAP1, disease_protein with GDAP1, disease_protein with GDAP1, disease_protein with LMNA, disease_protein with LMNA, disease_protein with LMNA, disease_protein with LMNA, disease_protein with PNPLA6, disease_protein with PNPLA6. Definitions: glycyl tRNA synthetase defined as following: An enzyme that activates glycine with its specific transfer RNA. EC 6.1.1.14.. mitochondria defined as following: Semiautonomous, self-reproducing organelles that occur in the cytoplasm of all cells of most, but not all, eukaryotes. Each mitochondrion is surrounded by a double limiting membrane. The inner membrane is highly invaginated, and its projections are called cristae. Mitochondria are the sites of the reactions of oxidative phosphorylation, which result in the formation of ATP. They contain distinctive RIBOSOMES, transfer RNAs (RNA, TRANSFER); AMINO ACYL T RNA SYNTHETASES; and elongation and termination factors. Mitochondria depend upon genes within the nucleus of the cells in which they reside for many essential messenger RNAs (RNA, MESSENGER). Mitochondria are believed to have arisen from aerobic bacteria that established a symbiotic relationship with primitive protoeukaryotes. (King & Stansfield, A Dictionary of Genetics, 4th ed). Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease type 2D defined as following: Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. It is caused by mutations in the GARS gene. It results in axonal peripheral neuropathy.. Mutations defined as following: The result of any gain, loss or alteration of the sequences comprising a gene, including all sequences transcribed into RNA.. neuropathy defined as following: A disorder affecting the cranial nerves or the peripheral nervous system. It manifests with pain, tingling, numbness, and muscle weakness. It may be the result of physical injury, toxic substances, viral diseases, diabetes, renal failure, cancer, and drugs.. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease defined as following: A hereditary motor and sensory neuropathy transmitted most often as an autosomal dominant trait and characterized by progressive distal wasting and loss of reflexes in the muscles of the legs (and occasionally involving the arms). Onset is usually in the second to fourth decade of life. This condition has been divided into two subtypes, hereditary motor and sensory neuropathy (HMSN) types I and II. HMSN I is associated with abnormal nerve conduction velocities and nerve hypertrophy, features not seen in HMSN II. (Adams et al., Principles of Neurology, 6th ed, p1343). distal hereditary motor neuropathy type V defined as following: A rare autosomal dominant distal hereditary motor neuropathy disease characterized by muscle weakness and wasting predominantly affecting the hands, in particular the thenar and first dorsal interosseus muscles, and/or marked foot deformity and gait disturbance. Sensation is normal, although reduced response to vibration has been described. The disease is slowly progressive with an age of onset within the first few decades of life.. cytoplasm defined as following: The part of a cell that contains the CYTOSOL and small structures excluding the CELL NUCLEUS; MITOCHONDRIA; and large VACUOLES. (Glick, Glossary of Biochemistry and Molecular Biology, 1990). CMT defined as following: brand name of choline magnesium trisalicylate. genes defined as following: A category of nucleic acid sequences that function as units of heredity and which code for the basic instructions for the development, reproduction, and maintenance of organisms.. point mutations defined as following: A mutation caused by the substitution of one nucleotide for another. This results in the DNA molecule having a change in a single base pair.. mutation defined as following: Any transmissible change in the genetic material of an organism, which can result from radiation, viral infection, transposition, treatment with mutagenic chemicals and errors during DNA replication or meiosis. The effects of mutation range from single base changes to loss or gain of complete chromosomes. As many of the simpler alterations to DNA may be repaired, such changes are only heritable once the change is fixed in the DNA by the process of replication. Mutations may be associated with genetic diversity or with pathologies including cancer.. glycyl-tRNA synthetase gene defined as following: Human GARS1 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 7p14.3 and is approximately 39 kb in length. This allele, which encodes glycine-tRNA ligase protein, is involved in the synthesis of glycyl-tRNA. Mutation of the gene is associated with type 2D Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease and distal hereditary motor neuropathy, type Va..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_4001", "sentence1": "Should nerinetide be used for treatment of ischaemic stroke?", "sentence2": "337 (61·4%) of 549 patients with nerinetide and 329 (59·2%) of 556 with placebo achieved an mRS score of 0-2 at 90 days (adjusted risk ratio 1·04, 95% CI 0·96-1·14; p=0·35). Secondary outcomes were similar between groups., INTERPRETATION: Nerinetide did not improve the proportion of patients achieving good clinical outcomes after endovascular thrombectomy compared with patients receiving placebo.[SEP]Definitions: ischaemic stroke defined as following: An acute episode of focal cerebral, spinal, or retinal dysfunction caused by infarction of brain tissue..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_4100", "sentence1": "Are synonymous sites in primates and rodents functionally constrained?", "sentence2": "To resolve this contradiction between expectations and observations, we used processed pseudogenes as a model for strict neutral evolution, and estimated selective constraint on synonymous sites using the rate of substitution at pseudosynonymous and pseudononsynonymous sites in pseudogenes as the neutral expectation. After controlling for the effects of GC content, our results were similar to those from previous studies, i.e., synonymous sites in primates exhibited evidence for higher selective constraint that those in rodents. Specifically, our results indicated that in primates up to 24% of synonymous sites could be under purifying selection, while in rodents synonymous sites evolved neutrally. [SEP]Definitions: rodents defined as following: A mammalian order which consists of 29 families and many genera.. pseudogenes defined as following: Genes bearing close resemblance to known genes at different loci, but rendered non-functional by additions or deletions in structure that prevent normal transcription or translation. When lacking introns and containing a poly-A segment near the downstream end (as a result of reverse copying from processed nuclear RNA into double-stranded DNA), they are called processed genes.. substitution defined as following:

Definition: Indicates that the subject Act has undergone or should undergo substitution of a type indicated by Act.code.

Rationale: Used to specify \"allowed\" substitution when creating orders, \"actual\" susbstitution when sending events, as well as the reason for the substitution and who was responsible for it.

. primates defined as following: An order of mammals consisting of more than 300 species that include LEMURS; LORISIDAE; TARSIERS; MONKEYS; and HOMINIDS. They are characterized by a relatively large brain when compared with other terrestrial mammals, forward-facing eyes, the presence of a CALCARINE SULCUS, and specialized MECHANORECEPTORS in the hands and feet which allow the perception of light touch..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_2433", "sentence1": "Does Enzastaurin improve survival of glioblastoma patients?", "sentence2": "RESULTS: fourteen randomized clinical trials were identified (7 with bevacizumab, 2 cilengitide, 1 enzastaurin, 1 dasatinib, 1 vandetanib, 1 temsirolimus, 1 cediranib) including 4330 patients. Antiangiogenic drugs showed no improvement in overall survival with a pooled HR of 1.00, a trend for an inferior outcome, in terms of overall survival, was observed in the group of patients receiving antiangiogenic drug alone compared to cytotoxic drug alone (HR=1.24, p=0.056). , Enzastaurin (LY317615) in combination with bevacizumab for recurrent malignant gliomas is well-tolerated, with response and progression-free survival similar to bevacizumab monotherapy., So far, inhibition of angiogenesis by compounds such as bevacizumab, cediranib, enzastaurin or cilengitide as well as alternative dosing schedules of temozolomide did not prolong survival, neither at primary diagnosis nor at recurrent disease., Despite promising phase II clinical trial results and patient benefit in terms of clinical improvement and longer progression-free survival, an overall survival benefit has not been demonstrated in four randomized phase III trials of bevacizumab or cilengitide in newly diagnosed glioblastoma or cediranib or enzastaurin in recurrent glioblastoma., EXPERT OPINION: Enzastaurin and cediranib failed in randomized Phase III trials in recurrent glioblastoma, aflibercept in Phase II. , Enzastaurin was well tolerated and had a better hematologic toxicity profile but did not have superior efficacy compared with lomustine in patients with recurrent glioblastoma., Grade 3 to 4 hematologic toxicities were significantly higher with lomustine (46 events) than with enzastaurin (one event; P < or = .001).
CONCLUSION: Enzastaurin was well tolerated and had a better hematologic toxicity profile but did not have superior efficacy compared with lomustine in patients with recurrent glioblastoma.
, Enzastaurin was well tolerated and had a better hematologic toxicity profile but did not have superior efficacy compared with lomustine in patients with recurrent glioblastoma., Enzastaurin has anti-glioma activity in patients with recurrent high-grade glioma, but does not appear to have enough single-agent activity to be useful as monotherapy., Enzastaurin (LY317615) in combination with bevacizumab for recurrent malignant gliomas is well-tolerated, with response and progression-free survival similar to bevacizumab monotherapy., CONCLUSION Enzastaurin was well tolerated and had a better hematologic toxicity profile but did not have superior efficacy compared with lomustine in patients with recurrent glioblastoma., glioblastomas are highly vascularized tumors and various antiangiogenic drugs have been investigated in clinical trials showing unclear results we performed a systematic review and a meta analysis to clarify and evaluate their effectiveness in glioblastoma patients we searched relevant published and unpublished randomized clinical trials analyzing antiangiogenic drugs versus chemotherapy in glioblastoma patients from january 2006 to january 2016 in medline web of science asco esmo and sno databases fourteen randomized clinical trials were identified 7 with bevacizumab 2 cilengitide 1 enzastaurin 1 dasatinib 1 vandetanib 1 temsirolimus 1 cediranib including 4330 patients antiangiogenic drugs showed no improvement in overall survival with a pooled hr of 1 00 a trend for an inferior outcome in terms of overall survival was observed in the group of patients receiving antiangiogenic drug alone compared to cytotoxic drug alone hr 1 24 p 0 056 bevacizumab did not improve overall survival twelve trials 4113 patients were analyzed for progression free survival among antiangiogenic drugs only bevacizumab demonstrated an improvement of progression free survival hr 0 63 p 0 001 both alone hr 0 60 p 0 003 or in combination to chemotherapy hr 0 63 p 0 001 both as first line treatment hr 0 70 p 0 001 or in recurrent disease hr 0 52 p 0 001 antiangiogenic drugs did not improve overall survival in glioblastoma patients either as first or second line treatment and either as single agent or in combination with chemotherapy among antiangiogenic drugs only bevacizumab improved progression free survival regardless of treatment line both as single agent or in combination with chemotherapy., glioblastoma is characterized by high expression levels of proangiogenic cytokines and microvascular proliferation highlighting the potential value of treatments targeting angiogenesis antiangiogenic treatment likely achieves a beneficial impact through multiple mechanisms of action ultimately however alternative proangiogenic signal transduction pathways are activated leading to the development of resistance even in tumors that initially respond the identification of biomarkers or imaging parameters to predict response and to herald resistance is of high priority despite promising phase ii clinical trial results and patient benefit in terms of clinical improvement and longer progression free survival an overall survival benefit has not been demonstrated in four randomized phase iii trials of bevacizumab or cilengitide in newly diagnosed glioblastoma or cediranib or enzastaurin in recurrent glioblastoma however future studies are warranted predictive markers may allow appropriate patient enrichment combination with chemotherapy may ultimately prove successful in improving overall survival and novel agents targeting multiple proangiogenic pathways may prove effective., this phase iii open label study compared the efficacy and safety of enzastaurin versus lomustine in patients with recurrent glioblastoma who grade 4 patients were randomly assigned 2 1 to receive 6 week cycles of enzastaurin 500 mg d 1 125 mg loading dose day 1 or lomustine 100 to 130 mg m 2 day 1 assuming a 45 improvement in progression free survival pfs 397 patients were required to provide 80 power to achieve statistical significance at a one sided level of 025 enrollment was terminated at 266 patients enzastaurin n 174 lomustine n 92 after a planned interim analysis for futility patient characteristics were balanced between arms median pfs 1 5 v 1 6 months hazard ratio hr 1 28 95 ci 0 97 to 1 70 overall survival 6 6 v 7 1 months hr 1 20 95 ci 0 88 to 1 65 and 6 month pfs rate p 13 did not differ significantly between enzastaurin and lomustine respectively stable disease occurred in 38 5 and 35 9 of patients and objective response occurred in 2 9 and 4 3 of patients respectively time to deterioration of physical and functional well being and symptoms did not differ between arms hr 1 12 p 54 four patients discontinued enzastaurin because of drug related serious adverse events aes eleven patients treated with enzastaurin died on study four because of aes one was drug related all four deaths that occurred in patients receiving lomustine were disease related grade 3 to 4 hematologic toxicities were significantly higher with lomustine 46 events than with enzastaurin one event p or 001 enzastaurin was well tolerated and had a better hematologic toxicity profile but did not have superior efficacy compared with lomustine in patients with recurrent glioblastoma., this study s primary objective was evaluation of the progression free survival rate at 6 months pfs 6 in patients with newly diagnosed glioblastoma without o 6 methylguanine dna methyltransferase mgmt promoter hypermethylation postsurgically treated with enzastaurin before and concomitantly with radiation therapy followed by enzastaurin maintenance therapy pfs 6 of at least 55 was set to be relevant compared with the data of the eortc 26981 22981 ncic ce 3 trial adult patients with a life expectancy of at least 12 weeks who were newly diagnosed with a histologically proven supratentorial glioblastoma without mgmt promoter hypermethylation were eligible patients were treated with enzastaurin prior to concomitantly with and after standard partial brain radiotherapy here we report on a multicenter open label uncontrolled phase ii study of patients with newly diagnosed glioblastoma without mgmt promoter hypermethylation treated with enzastaurin and radiation therapy within 4 study periods pfs 6 was 53 6 95 confidence interval ci 39 8 65 6 the median overall survival was 15 0 months 95 ci 11 9 17 9 for all patients 3 9 months 95 ci 0 8 9 0 for patients with biopsy 15 4 months 95 ci 10 1 17 9 for patients with partial resection and 18 9 months 95 ci 13 9 28 5 for patients with complete resection the safety profile in this study was as expected from previous trials and the therapy was well tolerated pfs 6 missed the primary planned outcome of 55 the secondary exploratory analysis according to resection status of the different subgroups of patients with biopsies partial resection and complete resection demonstrates the strong prognostic influence of resection on overall survival., we evaluated the efficacy of combination enzastaurin ly317615 and bevacizumab for recurrent malignant gliomas and explored serologic correlates we enrolled 81 patients with glioblastomas gbm n 40 and anaplastic gliomas ag n 41 patients received enzastaurin as a loading dose of 1125 mg followed by 500 or 875 mg daily for patients on non enzyme inducing or enzyme inducing antiepileptics respectively patients received bevacizumab 10 mg kg intravenously biweekly clinical evaluations were repeated every 4 weeks magnetic resonance imaging was obtained at baseline and every 8 weeks from treatment onset phosphorylated glycogen synthase kinase gsk 3 levels from peripheral blood mononuclear cells pbmcs were checked with each mri median overall survival was 7 5 and 12 4 months for glioblastomas and anaplastic glioma cohorts with median progression free survivals of 2 0 and 4 4 months respectively of gbm patients 3 40 7 5 were not evaluable while 8 37 22 had partial or complete response and 20 37 54 had stable disease for 2 months of the 39 evaluable ag patients 18 46 had an objective response and 16 41 had stable disease for 2 months the most common grade 3 toxicities were lymphopenia 15 hypophosphatemia 8 8 and thrombotic events 7 5 two 2 5 gbm patients died suddenly another death 1 3 occurred from intractable seizures phosphorylated gsk 3 levels from pbmcs did not correlate with treatment response a minimally important improvement in health related quality of life was self reported in 7 9 24 29 2 37 5 early response based on levin criteria was significantly associated with significantly longer progression free survival for glioblastomas enzastaurin ly317615 in combination with bevacizumab for recurrent malignant gliomas is well tolerated with response and progression free survival similar to bevacizumab monotherapy.[SEP]Relations: Enzastaurin has relations: drug_protein with CHEK2, drug_protein with CHEK2, drug_protein with AURKB, drug_protein with AURKB, drug_protein with AURKA, drug_protein with AURKA, drug_protein with CHEK1, drug_protein with CHEK1, drug_protein with AKT1, drug_protein with AKT1. Definitions: peripheral blood mononuclear cells defined as following: A peripheral blood cell with a single nucleus. This category includes lymphocytes and monocytes.. hematologic defined as following: Pertaining to or related to the blood and blood-forming organs.. lymphopenia defined as following: An abnormally small number of lymphocytes in the circulating blood.. lomustine defined as following: An alkylating agent of value against both hematologic malignancies and solid tumors.. temsirolimus defined as following: An ester analog of rapamycin. Temsirolimus binds to and inhibits the mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR), resulting in decreased expression of mRNAs necessary for cell cycle progression and arresting cells in the G1 phase of the cell cycle. mTOR is a serine/threonine kinase which plays a role in the PI3K/AKT pathway that is upregulated in some tumors.. cilengitide defined as following: A cyclic Arg-Gly-Asp peptide with potential antineoplastic activity. Cilengitide binds to and inhibits the activities of the alpha(v)beta(3) and alpha(v)beta(5) integrins, thereby inhibiting endothelial cell-cell interactions, endothelial cell-matrix interactions, and angiogenesis. (NCI04). toxicities defined as following: The finding of bodily harm due to the poisonous effects of something.. disease defined as following: A definite pathologic process with a characteristic set of signs and symptoms. It may affect the whole body or any of its parts, and its etiology, pathology, and prognosis may be known or unknown.. drug defined as following: Any natural, endogenously-derived, synthetic or semi-synthetic compound with pharmacologic activity. A pharmacologic substance has one or more specific mechanism of action(s) through which it exerts one or more effect(s) on the human or animal body. They can be used to potentially prevent, diagnose, treat or relieve symptoms of a disease. Formulation specific agents and some combination agents are also classified as pharmacologic substances.. vandetanib defined as following: An orally bioavailable 4-anilinoquinazoline. Vandetanib selectively inhibits the tyrosine kinase activity of vascular endothelial growth factor receptor 2 (VEGFR2), thereby blocking VEGF-stimulated endothelial cell proliferation and migration and reducing tumor vessel permeability. This agent also blocks the tyrosine kinase activity of epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR), a receptor tyrosine kinase that mediates tumor cell proliferation and migration and angiogenesis.. hypophosphatemia defined as following: A condition of an abnormally low level of PHOSPHATES in the blood.. glioblastomas defined as following: A malignant form of astrocytoma histologically characterized by pleomorphism of cells, nuclear atypia, microhemorrhage, and necrosis. They may arise in any region of the central nervous system, with a predilection for the cerebral hemispheres, basal ganglia, and commissural pathways. Clinical presentation most frequently occurs in the fifth or sixth decade of life with focal neurologic signs or seizures.. temozolomide defined as following: A dacarbazine derivative that is used as an alkylating antineoplastic agent for the treatment of MALIGNANT GLIOMA and MALIGNANT MELANOMA.. glioblastoma defined as following: The most malignant astrocytic tumor (WHO grade 4). It is composed of poorly differentiated neoplastic astrocytes and is characterized by the presence of cellular polymorphism, nuclear atypia, brisk mitotic activity, vascular thrombosis, microvascular proliferation, and necrosis. It typically affects adults and is preferentially located in the cerebral hemispheres. (Adapted from WHO). dasatinib defined as following: An orally bioavailable synthetic small molecule-inhibitor of SRC-family protein-tyrosine kinases. Dasatinib binds to and inhibits the growth-promoting activities of these kinases. Apparently because of its less stringent binding affinity for the BCR-ABL kinase, dasatinib has been shown to overcome the resistance to imatinib of chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) cells harboring BCR-ABL kinase domain point mutations. SRC-family protein-tyrosine kinases interact with a variety of cell-surface receptors and participate in intracellular signal transduction pathways; tumorigenic forms can occur through altered regulation or expression of the endogenous protein and by way of virally-encoded kinase genes.. death defined as following: Irreversible cessation of all bodily functions, manifested by absence of spontaneous breathing and total loss of cardiovascular and cerebral functions.. tumors defined as following: New abnormal growth of tissue. Malignant neoplasms show a greater degree of anaplasia and have the properties of invasion and metastasis, compared to benign neoplasms.. bevacizumab defined as following: An anti-VEGF humanized murine monoclonal antibody. It inhibits VEGF RECEPTORS and helps to prevent PATHOLOGIC ANGIOGENESIS.. seizures defined as following: Clinical or subclinical disturbances of cortical function due to a sudden, abnormal, excessive, and disorganized discharge of brain cells. Clinical manifestations include abnormal motor, sensory and psychic phenomena. Recurrent seizures are usually referred to as EPILEPSY or \"seizure disorder.\".", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_347", "sentence1": "Could the Menzerath-Altmann law be proved mathematically trivial in genomes?", "sentence2": "Here we review the statistical foundations of that test and consider three non-parametric tests based upon different correlation metrics and one parametric test to evaluate if Z ∼ 1/X in genomes. The most powerful test is a new non-parametric one based upon the correlation ratio, which is able to reject Z ∼ 1/X in nine out of 11 taxonomic groups and detect a borderline group. Rather than a fact, Z ∼ 1/X is a baseline that real genomes do not meet. The view of Menzerath-Altmann law as inevitable is seriously flawed., The view of Menzerath-Altmann law as inevitable is seriously flawed., The view of Menzerath-Altmann law as inevitable is seriously flawed., The view of Menzerath-Altmann law as inevitable is seriously flawed.[SEP]Relations: Increased upper to lower segment ratio has relations: disease_phenotype_positive with Turner syndrome due to structural X chromosome anomalies, disease_phenotype_positive with Turner syndrome due to structural X chromosome anomalies, disease_phenotype_positive with Aarskog-Scott syndrome, X-linked, disease_phenotype_positive with Aarskog-Scott syndrome, X-linked, disease_phenotype_positive with Turner syndrome, disease_phenotype_positive with Turner syndrome, disease_phenotype_positive with mosaic monosomy X, disease_phenotype_positive with mosaic monosomy X, disease_phenotype_positive with monosomy X, disease_phenotype_positive with monosomy X. Definitions: genomes defined as following: The genetic complement of an organism, including all of its GENES, as represented in its DNA, or in some cases, its RNA..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_2347", "sentence1": "Do bacteria from the genus Morexella cause respiratory infections?", "sentence2": "gainst pathogens associated with respiratory tract ailments [Staphylococcus aureus (ATCC 25923), Klebsiella pneumoniae (ATCC 13883) and Morexella cattarhalis (ATCC 14468)] , The efficacy and safety of oral ofloxacin, 400 mg once daily, for the treatment of patients with lower respiratory tract infections were studied. The most common species recovered from the sputum specimens of these patients were Haemophilus influenzae, followed by Streptococcus pneumoniae (S. pneumoniae), Staphylococcus aureus (S. aureus), Gram positive cocci unidentified, Pseudomonas aeruginosa (P. aeruginosa), Morexella catarrhalis,, the efficacy and safety of oral ofloxacin 400 mg once daily for the treatment of patients with lower respiratory tract infections were studied the most common species recovered from the sputum specimens of these patients were haemophilus influenzae followed by streptococcus pneumoniae s pneumoniae staphylococcus aureus s aureus gram positive cocci unidentified pseudomonas aeruginosa p aeruginosa morexella catarrhalis streptococcus epidermidis and another haemophilus species in this order all these bacteria were susceptible to ofloxacin except for one strain of methicillin resistant s aureus a satisfactory clinical outcome was achieved in 34 of 40 patients 85 it is concluded that ofloxacin 400 mg once daily is useful for patients with respiratory tract infections.[SEP]Relations: Respiratory tract infection has relations: phenotype_phenotype with Pneumonia, phenotype_phenotype with Pneumonia, phenotype_phenotype with Acute infectious pneumonia, phenotype_phenotype with Acute infectious pneumonia, drug_effect with Deferasirox, drug_effect with Deferasirox, phenotype_phenotype with Recurrent respiratory infections, phenotype_phenotype with Recurrent respiratory infections. Ofloxacin has relations: drug_effect with Respiratory tract infection, drug_effect with Respiratory tract infection. Definitions: ofloxacin defined as following: A synthetic fluoroquinolone antibacterial agent that inhibits the supercoiling activity of bacterial DNA GYRASE, halting DNA REPLICATION.. methicillin defined as following: One of the PENICILLINS which is resistant to PENICILLINASE but susceptible to a penicillin-binding protein. It is inactivated by gastric acid so administered by injection.. respiratory tract infections defined as following: Invasion of the host RESPIRATORY SYSTEM by microorganisms, usually leading to pathological processes or diseases.. Streptococcus pneumoniae defined as following: A gram-positive organism found in the upper respiratory tract, inflammatory exudates, and various body fluids of normal and/or diseased humans and, rarely, domestic animals.. S. aureus defined as following: Potentially pathogenic bacteria found in nasal membranes, skin, hair follicles, and perineum of warm-blooded animals. They may cause a wide range of infections and intoxications.. bacteria defined as following: One of the three domains of life (the others being Eukarya and ARCHAEA), also called Eubacteria. They are unicellular prokaryotic microorganisms which generally possess rigid cell walls, multiply by cell division, and exhibit three principal forms: round or coccal, rodlike or bacillary, and spiral or spirochetal. Bacteria can be classified by their response to OXYGEN: aerobic, anaerobic, or facultatively anaerobic; by the mode by which they obtain their energy: chemotrophy (via chemical reaction) or PHOTOTROPHY (via light reaction); for chemotrophs by their source of chemical energy: CHEMOLITHOTROPHY (from inorganic compounds) or chemoorganotrophy (from organic compounds); and by their source for CARBON; NITROGEN; etc.; HETEROTROPHY (from organic sources) or AUTOTROPHY (from CARBON DIOXIDE). They can also be classified by whether or not they stain (based on the structure of their CELL WALLS) with CRYSTAL VIOLET dye: gram-negative or gram-positive.. respiratory infections defined as following: Invasion of the host RESPIRATORY SYSTEM by microorganisms, usually leading to pathological processes or diseases..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_2455", "sentence1": "Is LDB1-mediated enhancer looping dependent on cohesin?", "sentence2": "LDB1-mediated enhancer looping can be established independent of mediator and cohesin., Moreover, ENCODE data and our chromatin immunoprecipitation results indicate that cohesin is almost completely absent from validated and predicted LDB1-regulated erythroid enhancer-gene pairs. Thus, lineage specific factors largely mediate enhancer-promoter looping in erythroid cells independent of mediator and cohesin., Moreover, ENCODE data and our chromatin immunoprecipitation results indicate that cohesin is almost completely absent from validated and predicted LDB1-regulated erythroid enhancer-gene pairs., Moreover, ENCODE data and our chromatin immunoprecipitation results indicate that cohesin is almost completely absent from validated and predicted LDB1-regulated erythroid enhancer-gene pairs., LDB1-mediated enhancer looping can be established independent of mediator and cohesin.[SEP]Definitions: ENCODE defined as following: To assign a code to represent data.. erythroid cells defined as following: The series of cells in the red blood cell lineage at various stages of differentiation..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_4691", "sentence1": "Is HYDIN (Hydrocephalus-inducing protein homolog) an axonemal protein?", "sentence2": "Hydin was recently identified as an axonemal protein; however, its function is as yet unknown., precise axonemal location of hydin, a protein that, when mutated, causes hydrocephalus, and defined a unique role for hydin in ciliary motility.[SEP]Relations: Hydrocephalus has relations: disease_phenotype_positive with isotretinoin-like syndrome, disease_phenotype_positive with isotretinoin-like syndrome, disease_phenotype_positive with methylmalonic aciduria/acidemia and homocystinuria, disease_phenotype_positive with methylmalonic aciduria/acidemia and homocystinuria, disease_phenotype_positive with methylmalonic acidemia with homocystinuria, disease_phenotype_positive with methylmalonic acidemia with homocystinuria, disease_phenotype_positive with Noonan syndrome-like disorder with loose anagen hair, disease_phenotype_positive with Noonan syndrome-like disorder with loose anagen hair, drug_effect with Glatiramer, drug_effect with Glatiramer. Definitions: protein defined as following: Protein; provides access to the encoding gene via its GenBank Accession, the taxon in which this instance of the protein occurs, and references to homologous proteins in other species.. hydrocephalus defined as following: Excessive accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid within the cranium which may be associated with dilation of cerebral ventricles, INTRACRANIAL HYPERTENSION; HEADACHE; lethargy; URINARY INCONTINENCE; and ATAXIA..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_4488", "sentence1": "Is Algenpantucel-L effective for pancreatic cancer?", "sentence2": " Median (IQR) overall survival was 14.9 (12.2-17.8) months in the standard group (N=158) and 14.3 (12.6-16.3) months in the experimental group (N = 145) (hazard ratio [HR] 1.02, 95% CI 0.66-1.58; P = 0.98). Median progression-free survival was 13.4 months in the standard group and 12.4 months in the experimental group (HR 1.33, 95% CI 0.72-1.78; P = 0.59). Grade 3 or higher adverse events occurred in 105 of 140 patients (75%) in the standard group and in 115 of 142 patients (81%) in the experimental group (P > 0.05).CONCLUSIONS: Algenpantucel-L immunotherapy did not improve survival in patients with borderline resectable or locally advanced unresectable PDAC receiving SOC neoadjuvant chemotherapy and chemoradiation., CONCLUSIONS: The addition of algenpantucel-L to standard adjuvant therapy for resected pancreatic cancer may improve survival. A multi-institutional, phase 3 study is ongoing, CONCLUSIONS: The addition of algenpantucel-L to standard adjuvant therapy for resected pancreatic cancer may improve surviva, CONCLUSIONS: Algenpantucel-L immunotherapy did not improve survival in patients with borderline resectable or locally advanced unresectable PDAC receiving SOC neoadjuvant chemotherapy and chemoradiatio[SEP]Relations: malignant exocrine pancreas neoplasm has relations: disease_disease with pancreatoblastoma, disease_disease with pancreatoblastoma, disease_disease with exocrine pancreatic carcinoma, disease_disease with exocrine pancreatic carcinoma, disease_disease with pancreatic exocrine neoplasm, disease_disease with pancreatic exocrine neoplasm, disease_disease with pancreatic intraductal papillary-mucinous neoplasm, disease_disease with pancreatic intraductal papillary-mucinous neoplasm, disease_disease with malignant pancreatic neoplasm, disease_disease with malignant pancreatic neoplasm. Definitions: pancreatic cancer defined as following: A primary or metastatic malignant tumor involving the pancreas. Representative examples include carcinoma and lymphoma.. HR defined as following: The rapid, localized death of plant cells in response to invasion by a pathogen. [ISBN:0582227089]. PDAC defined as following: A rare clinical entity including as main characteristics anophthalmia or severe microphthalmia, and pulmonary hypoplasia or aplasia. Only five cases have been reported so far, two of who were siblings. In the three nonfamilial cases, unilateral pulmonary agenesis and microphthalmia were associated with diaphragmatic hernia and pulmonary vessel agenesis. It has been suggested that two different entities can be distinguished: on one hand, the association of anophthalmia-pulmonary hypoplasia with/without anomalies of the face, heart, spleen and uterus, which may be due to a putative autosomal recessive gene with pleiotropic effects; on the other hand, a sporadic association including pulmonary hypoplasia, anophthalmia, unilateral diaphragmatic defect and agenesis of the pulmonary trunk, which may represent the expression of a developmental field defect. There is evidence that syndromic microphthalmia- is caused by homozygous or compound heterozygous mutation in the STRA6 gene on chromosome 15q24..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_2315", "sentence1": "Is propranolol used for treatment of infantile hemangioma?", "sentence2": "Low-dose propranolol for infantile hemangioma of the head and neck: Analysis of 23 consecutive patients., BACKGROUND: More and more infantile hemangiomas (IH) are being treated with propranolol, but the effectiveness, dosage, and treatment course are still in dispute., CONCLUSIONS: Low-dose propranolol appears to be effective and safe for IH, especially for those patients previously treated with corticosteroid and who had no response or severe side-effects., Cardiovascular Profile of Propranolol after Multiple Dosing in Infantile Hemangioma., Propranolol is becoming the treatment of choice for complicated infantile hemangioma., In conclusion, propranolol 2 mg/kg of body weight daily causes a statistically though not clinically relevant decrease in blood pressure and heart rate in cardially healthy infants affected by infantile hemangioma. , Importance: Propranolol hydrochloride has become the primary medical treatment for problematic infantile hemangioma; however, the expression of propranolol's target receptors during growth, involution, and treatment of hemangioma remains unclear., BACKGROUND: Infantile hemangiomas (IHs) are the most common benign vascular tumors of childhood. Propranolol is an effective drug in treating IH. , Ultrasonography as an objective tool for assessment of infantile hemangioma treatment with propranolol., CONCLUSION: Ultrasonographic measurements contribute to demonstrate tumor regression and IH response to propranolol., Propranolol treatment was recently reported to be successful for the management of severe infantile hemangioma., We conclude that the initial use of propranolol as the sole treatment for infantile airway hemangioma is promising., Propranolol has been proposed for the treatment of infantile hemangiomas., Propranolol therapy is changing the treatment paradigm for infantile hemangioma., Propranolol has been successfully used recently in a limited number of children with Infantile hemangioma., Propranolol has been proposed for the treatment of infantile hemangiomas., CONCLUSIONS This is the first report of successful therapy of an intracranial infantile hemangioma with propranolol., PURPOSE The successful use of nadolol as an alternative to propranolol therapy in three cases of infantile hemangioma is reported., Propranolol has been used successfully in a limited number of children with infantile hemangiomas., CONCLUSIONS High-dose Propranolol is very effective in the treatment of infantile hemangioma with minor side effects and short disease period., Propranolol is novel and safe medication for treatment of infantile hemangioma., Propranolol is the only Food and Drug Administration approved therapy for treatment of patients with this vascular anomaly and should be considered first-line therapy for genital infantile hemangiomas., CONCLUSION Propranolol may be a promising therapeutic modality for infantile hemangioma., Propranolol, which is often used to treat cutaneous infantile hemangiomas, is not currently standard treatment for intracranial infantile hemangiomas., Preliminary results of propranolol treatment for patients with infantile hemangioma., Propranolol therapy is changing the treatment paradigm for infantile hemangioma., Propranolol should be considered as a first-line treatment of infantile hemangiomas.., Propranolol, a non-selective beta-blocker, has recently been introduced as a treatment for infantile hemangiomas.[SEP]Relations: Propranolol has relations: contraindication with muscular disease, contraindication with muscular disease, contraindication with bronchial disease, contraindication with bronchial disease, drug_drug with Propiomazine, drug_drug with Propiomazine, contraindication with neonatal jaundice, contraindication with neonatal jaundice, contraindication with myopathy, contraindication with myopathy. Definitions: drug defined as following: Any natural, endogenously-derived, synthetic or semi-synthetic compound with pharmacologic activity. A pharmacologic substance has one or more specific mechanism of action(s) through which it exerts one or more effect(s) on the human or animal body. They can be used to potentially prevent, diagnose, treat or relieve symptoms of a disease. Formulation specific agents and some combination agents are also classified as pharmacologic substances.. corticosteroid defined as following: HORMONES produced by the ADRENAL CORTEX, including both steroid and peptide hormones. The major hormones produced are HYDROCORTISONE and ALDOSTERONE.. nadolol defined as following: A non-selective beta-adrenergic antagonist with a long half-life, used in cardiovascular disease to treat arrhythmias, angina pectoris, and hypertension. Nadolol is also used for MIGRAINE DISORDERS and for tremor.. Infantile hemangiomas defined as following: A dull red, firm, dome-shaped hemangioma, sharply demarcated from surrounding skin, usually located on the head and neck, which grows rapidly and generally undergoes regression and involution without scarring. It is caused by proliferation of immature capillary vessels in active stroma, and is usually present at birth or occurs within the first two or three months of life. (Dorland, 27th ed). IH defined as following: Isolated hemihyperplasia is a rare overgrowth syndrome characterized by an asymmetric regional body overgrowth, involving at least one limb, and associated with an increased risk of developing embryonal tumors, principally nephroblastoma (see this term) and hepoblastoma.. IHs defined as following: Syndrome with characteristics of congenital ichthyosis and hypotrichosis. It has been described in three members of a consanguineous Arab Israeli family. The syndrome is transmitted as an autosomal recessive trait and is caused by a missense mutation in the ST14 gene, encoding the recently identified protease, matriptase on chromosome 11q24. Analysis of skin samples from the patients suggests that this enzyme plays a role in epidermal desquamation.. infantile hemangioma defined as following: A dull red, firm, dome-shaped hemangioma, sharply demarcated from surrounding skin, usually located on the head and neck, which grows rapidly and generally undergoes regression and involution without scarring. It is caused by proliferation of immature capillary vessels in active stroma, and is usually present at birth or occurs within the first two or three months of life. (Dorland, 27th ed). hydrochloride defined as following: A salt that is comprised of a hydrogen and chloride ion that can be linked to a base form of a drug making it water-soluble. (NCI). intracranial defined as following: Administration of a drug within the skull.. hemangioma defined as following: A vascular anomaly due to proliferation of BLOOD VESSELS that forms a tumor-like mass. The common types involve CAPILLARIES and VEINS. It can occur anywhere in the body but is most frequently noticed in the SKIN and SUBCUTANEOUS TISSUE. (from Stedman, 27th ed, 2000). Low-dose defined as following: A reduced quantity of a therapeutic agent prescribed to be taken at one time or at stated intervals.. propranolol defined as following: A widely used non-cardioselective beta-adrenergic antagonist. Propranolol has been used for MYOCARDIAL INFARCTION; ARRHYTHMIA; ANGINA PECTORIS; HYPERTENSION; HYPERTHYROIDISM; MIGRAINE; PHEOCHROMOCYTOMA; and ANXIETY but adverse effects instigate replacement by newer drugs.. beta-blocker defined as following: Drugs that bind to but do not activate beta-adrenergic receptors thereby blocking the actions of beta-adrenergic agonists. Adrenergic beta-antagonists are used for treatment of hypertension, cardiac arrhythmias, angina pectoris, glaucoma, migraine headaches, and anxiety..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_642", "sentence1": "Are Alu elements transcribed?", "sentence2": "Alu RNAs in the human transcriptome, Alu elements can be transcribed in two different ways, by two independent polymerases, 'Free Alu RNAs' are transcribed by Pol III from their own promoter, 'embedded Alu RNAs' are transcribed by Pol II as part of protein- and non-protein-coding RNAs, Recent studies have demonstrated that both free and embedded Alu RNAs play a major role in post transcriptional regulation of gene expression, Alu RNAs transcribed from these elements are present at low levels at normal cell growth but various stress conditions increase their abundance, Alu RNAs are known to bind the cognate proteins SRP9/14, Increased level of polymerase III transcribed Alu RNA in hepatocellular carcinoma tissue, we used primer extension analysis to determine the level of polymerase III directed Alu RNA and found an increased expression of Alu RNA in hepatocellular carcinoma, Widespread RNA editing of embedded alu elements in the human transcriptome, Transcribed Alu sequences can alter splicing patterns by generating new exons, In the vast majority of edited RNAs, A-to-I substitutions are clustered within transcribed sense or antisense Alu sequences, Alu-associated RNA editing may be a mechanism for marking nonstandard transcripts, not destined for translation, the case of transcribed Alus, Differential levels of Alu RNA during different conditions of stress also await clear functional understanding, Alu expression in human cell lines and their retrotranspositional potential, Alu expression likely varies by cell type, growth conditions and transformation state, The vast majority of Alu loci potentially transcribed by RNA pol III lack important sequence features for retrotransposition and the majority of potentially active Alu loci in the genome (scored high ERP) belong to young Alu subfamilies, We suggest that the genomic sequences upstream from most Alu elements and 7SL pseudogenes do not contain this element, and consequently that only a small subset of such sequences can be transcribed in vivo., These similarities suggest that some Alu family sequences are mobile genetic elements that can transpose to new chromosomal loci using as an intermediate a cDNA copy of an RNA transcribed from the Alu family element by RNA polymerase III., Primate and rodent genomes are populated with hundreds of thousands copies of Alu and B1 elements dispersed by retroposition, i.e., by genomic reintegration of their reverse transcribed RNAs., Members of this family are readily transcribed in vitro by RNA polymerase III, but RNA corresponding to only a small sub-set of Alu elements has been found in vivo., Alu interspersed repetitive elements possess internal RNA polymerase III promoters which are strongly transcribed in vitro, yet these elements are nearly silent in somatic cells., The amplification of genomic Alu elements by retroposition, i.e. by reintegration of reverse-transcribed RNA, suggests that Alu RNA plays an important role in this process., We report enzymatic studies of the secondary structure of Alu RNAs transcribed in vitro from two recently retroposed Alu elements., The results of this study indicate that Alu and 7SL RNA gene sequences interact with cellular factors that are important for HeLa cell proliferation and suggest that these pol III-transcribed elements may be involved in the regulation of cellular growth., Then we used primer extension analysis to determine the level of polymerase III directed Alu RNA and found an increased expression of Alu RNA in hepatocellular carcinoma, Alu interspersed repetitive elements possess internal RNA polymerase III promoters which are strongly transcribed in vitro, yet these elements are nearly silent in somatic cells, 'Free Alu RNAs' are transcribed by Pol III from their own promoter, while 'embedded Alu RNAs' are transcribed by Pol II as part of protein- and non-protein-coding RNAs, We report enzymatic studies of the secondary structure of Alu RNAs transcribed in vitro from two recently retroposed Alu elements, Transcribed Alu sequences can alter splicing patterns by generating new exons, but other impacts of intragenic Alu elements on their host RNA are largely unexplored, Both 7SL genes and Alu elements are transcribed by RNA polymerase III, and we show here that the internal 7SL promoter lies within the Alu-like part of the 7SL gene, Each group revealed a divergent pattern of transcribed Alu elements[SEP]Relations: DNA secondary structure binding has relations: molfunc_protein with RAD51AP1, molfunc_protein with RAD51AP1, molfunc_protein with CLSPN, molfunc_protein with CLSPN. promoter clearance from RNA polymerase I promoter has relations: bioprocess_bioprocess with promoter clearance during DNA-templated transcription, bioprocess_bioprocess with promoter clearance during DNA-templated transcription. RNA polymerase III complex has relations: cellcomp_protein with POLR2L, cellcomp_protein with POLR2L, cellcomp_protein with POLR3G, cellcomp_protein with POLR3G. Definitions: sequences defined as following: The sequence of nucleotide residues along a DNA chain.. pseudogenes defined as following: Genes bearing close resemblance to known genes at different loci, but rendered non-functional by additions or deletions in structure that prevent normal transcription or translation. When lacking introns and containing a poly-A segment near the downstream end (as a result of reverse copying from processed nuclear RNA into double-stranded DNA), they are called processed genes.. Pol II defined as following: A DNA-dependent RNA polymerase present in bacterial, plant, and animal cells. It functions in the nucleoplasmic structure and transcribes DNA into RNA. It has different requirements for cations and salt than RNA polymerase I and is strongly inhibited by alpha-amanitin. EC 2.7.7.6.. Alu elements defined as following: The Alu sequence family (named for the restriction endonuclease cleavage enzyme Alu I) is the most highly repeated interspersed repeat element in humans (over a million copies). It is derived from the 7SL RNA component of the SIGNAL RECOGNITION PARTICLE and contains an RNA polymerase III promoter. Transposition of this element into coding and regulatory regions of genes is responsible for many heritable diseases.. genomic defined as following: The genetic complement of an organism, including all of its GENES, as represented in its DNA, or in some cases, its RNA.. ERP defined as following: Fiberoptic endoscopy designed for duodenal observation and cannulation of VATER'S AMPULLA, in order to visualize the pancreatic and biliary duct system by retrograde injection of contrast media. Endoscopic (Vater) papillotomy (SPHINCTEROTOMY, ENDOSCOPIC) may be performed during this procedure.. RNAs defined as following: A polynucleotide consisting essentially of chains with a repeating backbone of phosphate and ribose units to which nitrogenous bases are attached. RNA is unique among biological macromolecules in that it can encode genetic information, serve as an abundant structural component of cells, and also possesses catalytic activity. (Rieger et al., Glossary of Genetics: Classical and Molecular, 5th ed). elements defined as following: Substances that comprise all matter. Each element is made up of atoms that are identical in number of electrons and protons and in nuclear charge but may differ in mass or number of neutrons.. hepatocellular carcinoma defined as following: A primary malignant neoplasm of epithelial liver cells. It ranges from a well-differentiated tumor with EPITHELIAL CELLS indistinguishable from normal HEPATOCYTES to a poorly differentiated neoplasm. The cells may be uniform or markedly pleomorphic, or form GIANT CELLS. Several classification schemes have been suggested.. RNA editing defined as following: A process that changes the nucleotide sequence of mRNA from that of the DNA template encoding it. Some major classes of RNA editing are as follows: 1, the conversion of cytosine to uracil in mRNA; 2, the addition of variable number of guanines at pre-determined sites; and 3, the addition and deletion of uracils, templated by guide-RNAs (RNA, GUIDE, KINETOPLASTIDA).. promoter defined as following: A DNA sequence at which RNA polymerase binds and initiates transcription.. exons defined as following: The parts of a transcript of a split GENE remaining after the INTRONS are removed. They are spliced together to become a MESSENGER RNA or other functional RNA.. RNA polymerase III defined as following: A DNA-dependent RNA polymerase present in bacterial, plant, and animal cells. It functions in the nucleoplasmic structure where it transcribes DNA into RNA. It has specific requirements for cations and salt and has shown an intermediate sensitivity to alpha-amanitin in comparison to RNA polymerase I and II.. cDNA defined as following: Single-stranded complementary DNA synthesized from an RNA template by the action of RNA-dependent DNA polymerase. cDNA (i.e., complementary DNA, not circular DNA, not C-DNA) is used in a variety of molecular cloning experiments as well as serving as a specific hybridization probe.. primer defined as following: Short DNA oligonucleotide chains used to prime DNA (and in some cases RNA) synthesis.. human defined as following: Members of the species Homo sapiens.. genome defined as following: Anatomical set of genes in all the chromosomes.. somatic cells defined as following: Nucleated cell which has one or more diploid sets (46 pairs) of chromosomes.. secondary structure defined as following: The level of protein structure in which regular hydrogen-bond interactions within contiguous stretches of polypeptide chain give rise to ALPHA-HELICES; BETA-STRANDS (which align to form BETA-SHEETS), or other types of coils. This is the first folding level of protein conformation..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_1242", "sentence1": "Is nimodipine recommended for prevention of vasospasm in aneurysmal subarachnoid hemorrhage patients?", "sentence2": "This article discusses some of these unresolved issues, including the use of medications such as nimodipine, antifibrinolytics, statins, and magnesium; coiling or clipping for aneurysm securement; and the prevention and treatment of potential complications., The results of this study were as follows: nimodipine demonstrated benefit following aneurysmal SAH; other calcium channel blockers, including nicardipine, do not provide unequivocal benefit; triple-H therapy, fasudil, transluminal balloon angioplasty, thrombolytics, endothelin receptor antagonists, magnesium, statins, and miscellaneous therapies such as free radical scavengers and antifibrinolytics require additional study., The present results suggest that fasudil is equally or more effective than nimodipine for the prevention of cerebral vasospasm and subsequent ischemic injury in patients undergoing surgery for SAH., Three studies (2 meta-analyses and 1 randomized controlled trial) demonstrated that nimodipine use confers benefits (reduced morbidity and mortality) for patients with aneurysmatic subarachnoid hemorrhage., Nimodipine is the only preventative treatment that can be recommended., Nimodipine (Nimotop), HMG Co-A reductase inhibitor (statins) and enoxaparin (Lovenox) were the only drugs with level-1 evidence available for the treatment of vasospasm from aneurysmal subarachnoid hemorrhage as defined by the US Preventative Services Task Force., The calcium antagonist nimodipine has been shown to reduce the incidence of ischemic complications following aneurysmal subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH)., There was no significant difference in the incidence of DINDs (28 vs 30% in the peroral and intravenous groups, respectively) or middle cerebral artery blood flow velocities (> 120 cm/second, 50 vs 45%, respectively)., Clinical outcome according to the Glasgow Outcome Scale was the same in both groups, and there was no difference in the number of patients with new infarctions on MR imaging., The results suggest that there is no clinically relevant difference in efficacy between peroral and intravenous administration of nimodipine in preventing DINDs or cerebral vasospasm following SAH., the risk of delayed cerebral ischemia is reduced with nimodipine and avoiding hypovolemia, A recommendations (standard) for the prophylaxis and treatment of cerebral vasospasm with oral Nimodipine in good grade patients., Of the 75 patients initially considered for active treatment, 83% underwent surgery within 48 hours of rupture, all received nimodipine, 16% received tissue plasminogen activator to lyse subarachnoid or intraventricular clots, 40% underwent hypertensive treatment, and 7% underwent transluminal balloon angioplasty for vasospasm., All patients with aneurysmal SAH should be treated with the calcium antagonist nimodipine, and in certain circumstances patients should receive anticonvulsants., The following review gives an account of pathophysiological mechanisms; the importance of treatment with calcium antagonists, hypervolaemic haemodilution, and induced arterial hypertension is discussed in light of the current literature., Seven placebo-controlled clinical studies have shown that nimodipine improves the outcome of patients with severe neurological damage due to cerebral vasospasm., In a series of 100 individuals with a ruptured supratentorial aneurysm, who were subjected to aneurysm operation in the acute stage and who subsequently received intravenous treatment with the calcium channel blocker nimodipine, the occurrence of DID with FND was reduced to 5%., There are many possible successful treatment options for preventing vasospasm, delayed ischemic neurologic deficits, and poor neurologic outcome following aneurysmal subarachnoid hemorrhage; however, further multicenter RCTs need to be performed to determine if there is a significant benefit from their use. Nimodipine is the only treatment that provided a significant benefit across multiple studies., Absence of symptomatic vasospasm, occurrence of low density areas associated with vasospasm on CT, and occurrence of adverse events were similar between the two groups. The clinical outcomes were more favorable in the fasudil group than in the nimodipine group (p = 0.040). The proportion of patients with good clinical outcome was 74.5% (41/55) in the fasudil group and 61.7% (37/60) in the nimodipine group., Cerebral vasospasm is the classic cause of delayed neurological deterioration leading to cerebral ischemia and infarction, and thus, poor outcome and occasionally death, after aneurysmal subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH). Advances in diagnosis and treatment, principally nimodipine, intensive care management, hemodynamic manipulations, and endovascular neuroradiology procedures, have improved the prospects for these patients, but outcomes remain disappointing., Cerebral vasospasm is the classic cause of delayed neurological deterioration after aneurysmal subarachnoid hemorrhage, leading to cerebral ischemia and infarction, and thus to poor outcome and occasionally death. Advances in diagnosis and treatment-principally the use of nimodipine, intensive care management, hemodynamic manipulations and endovascular neuroradiology procedures-have improved the prospects for these patients, but outcomes remain disappointing., Cerebral vasospasm and delayed cerebral ischemia remain common complications of aneurysmal subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH), and yet therapies for cerebral vasospasm are limited. Despite a large number of clinical trials, only calcium antagonists have strong evidence supporting their effectiveness., The only proven therapy for vasospasm is nimodipine., nimodipine is indicated after SAH and tirilazad is not effective., Fasudil hydrochloride and nimodipine both showed inhibitory effects on cerebral vasospasm. The incidence of symptomatic vasospasm was five of 33 patients in the fasudil group and nine of 32 patients in the nimodipine group. Good recovery evaluated by the Glasgow Outcome Scale was achieved by 23 of 33 patients in the fasudil group and 19 of 34 patients in the nimodipine group. Both drugs significantly improved consciousness levels and neurological deficits such as aphasia. However, fasudil hydrochloride improved motor disturbance more than nimodipine.[SEP]Relations: Nimodipine has relations: drug_effect with Gastrointestinal hemorrhage, drug_effect with Gastrointestinal hemorrhage, drug_drug with Nitroprusside, drug_drug with Nitroprusside, drug_effect with Erythema, drug_effect with Erythema, drug_drug with Nitroaspirin, drug_drug with Nitroaspirin, drug_drug with Chlorpropamide, drug_drug with Chlorpropamide. Definitions: Lovenox defined as following: brand name of enoxaparin. hydrochloride defined as following: A salt that is comprised of a hydrogen and chloride ion that can be linked to a base form of a drug making it water-soluble. (NCI). hypovolemia defined as following: An abnormally low volume of blood circulating through the body. It may result in hypovolemic shock (see SHOCK).. Nimodipine defined as following: A calcium channel blockader with preferential cerebrovascular activity. It has marked cerebrovascular dilating effects and lowers blood pressure.. nicardipine defined as following: A potent calcium channel blockader with marked vasodilator action. It has antihypertensive properties and is effective in the treatment of angina and coronary spasms without showing cardiodepressant effects. It has also been used in the treatment of asthma and enhances the action of specific antineoplastic agents.. enoxaparin defined as following: Low-molecular-weight fragment of heparin, having a 4-enopyranosuronate sodium structure at the non-reducing end of the chain. It is prepared by depolymerization of the benzylic ester of porcine mucosal heparin. Therapeutically, it is used as an antithrombotic agent. (From Merck Index, 11th ed). endothelin receptor antagonists defined as following: Compounds and drugs that bind to and inhibit or block the activation of ENDOTHELIN B RECEPTORS.. aneurysm defined as following: Pathological outpouching or sac-like dilatation in the wall of any blood vessel (ARTERIES or VEINS) or the heart (HEART ANEURYSM). It indicates a thin and weakened area in the wall which may later rupture. Aneurysms are classified by location, etiology, or other characteristics.. SAH defined as following: A Turkic language spoken by the Yakut people in the Sakha Republic in the Russian Federation.. infarctions defined as following: Formation of an infarct, which is NECROSIS in tissue due to local ISCHEMIA resulting from obstruction of BLOOD CIRCULATION, most commonly by a THROMBUS or EMBOLUS.. statins defined as following: Compounds that inhibit HYDROXYMETHYLGLUTARYL COA REDUCTASES. They have been shown to directly lower CHOLESTEROL synthesis.. vasospasm defined as following: spasm of the blood vessels resulting in decrease in their caliber.. cerebral ischemia defined as following: The formation of an area of NECROSIS in the CEREBRUM caused by an insufficiency of arterial or venous blood flow. Infarcts of the cerebrum are generally classified by hemisphere (i.e., left vs. right), lobe (e.g., frontal lobe infarction), arterial distribution (e.g., INFARCTION, ANTERIOR CEREBRAL ARTERY), and etiology (e.g., embolic infarction).. neurological damage defined as following: Traumatic injuries to the brain, cranial nerves, spinal cord, autonomic nervous system, or neuromuscular system, including iatrogenic injuries induced by surgical procedures.. aphasia defined as following: A cognitive disorder marked by an impaired ability to comprehend or express language in its written or spoken form. This condition is caused by diseases which affect the language areas of the dominant hemisphere. Clinical features are used to classify the various subtypes of this condition. General categories include receptive, expressive, and mixed forms of aphasia.. neurological deficits defined as following: Loss of movement function.. rupture defined as following: Forcible or traumatic tear or break of an organ or other soft part of the body.. free radical scavengers defined as following: Substances that eliminate free radicals. Among other effects, they protect PANCREATIC ISLETS against damage by CYTOKINES and prevent myocardial and pulmonary REPERFUSION INJURY.. nimodipine defined as following: A calcium channel blockader with preferential cerebrovascular activity. It has marked cerebrovascular dilating effects and lowers blood pressure..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_1274", "sentence1": "Is Fanconi anemia presented as a genetically and clinically heterogeneous disease entity?", "sentence2": "Fanconi anaemia (FA) is a rare, autosomal recessive, genetically complex, DNA repair deficiency syndrome in man. Patients with FA exhibit a heterogeneous spectrum of clinical features. The most significant and consistent phenotypic characteristics are stem cell loss, causing progressive bone marrow failure and sterility, diverse developmental abnormalities and a profound predisposition to neoplasia. To date, 15 genes have been identified, biallelic disruption of any one of which results in this clinically defined syndrome, Fanconi anemia (FA) is a clinically and genetically heterogeneous disorder, Significant phenotypic differences were found. FA-G patients had more severe cytopenia and a higher incidence of leukemia. Somatic abnormalities were less prevalent in FA-C, but more common in the rare groups FA-D, FA-E, and FA-F. In FA-A, patients homozygous for null mutations had an earlier onset of anemia and a higher incidence of leukemia than those with mutations producing an altered protein, Fanconi anemia (FA), an autosomal recessive disorder characterized by a progressive pancytopenia associated with congenital anomalies and high predisposition to malignancies, is a genetically and clinically heterogeneous disease. At least eight complementation groups (FA-A to FA-H) have been identified, Fanconi anemia (FA), an autosomal recessive disorder characterized by a progressive pancytopenia associated with congenital anomalies and high predisposition to malignancies, is a genetically and clinically heterogeneous disease. At least eight complementation groups (FA-A to FA-H) have been identified with their relative prevalence varying among the ethnical backgrounds, Fanconi anemia is a rare autosomal recessive disorder characterized clinically by congenital abnormalities, progressive bone marrow failure, and a predisposition to malignancy. FA cells are sensitive to DNA cross-linking agents. Complementation analysis of FA cells using somatic cell fusion has facilitated the identification of eight complementation groups, suggesting that FA is a genetically heterogeneous disorder. Six genes (FANCA, FANCC, FANCD2, FANCE, FANGF, FANCG) have been cloned so far, Fanconi anemia (FA), an autosomal recessive disorder characterized by a progressive pancytopenia associated with congenital anomalies and high predisposition to malignancies, is a genetically and clinically heterogeneous disease., Fanconi anemia (FA), an autosomal recessive disorder characterized by a progressive pancytopenia associated with congenital anomalies and high predisposition to malignancies, is a genetically and clinically heterogeneous disease., Among patients with bone marrow failure (BMF) syndrome, some are happened to have underlying Fanconi anemia (FA), a genetically heterogeneous disease, which is characterized by progressive pancytopenia and cancer susceptibility., Fanconi anemia (FA) is a genetically and phenotypically heterogeneous inherited disease., Fanconi anemia is a genetically heterogeneous recessive disease characterized mainly by bone marrow failure and cancer predisposition., INTRODUCTION: Fanconi anemia (FA) is a genetically and phenotypically heterogeneous inherited disease., Fanconi anemia (FA) is a genetically heterogeneous, autosomal recessive disorder characterized by pediatric bone marrow failure and congenital anomalies., Fanconi anemia (FA) is a heterogeneous disease associated with a bone marrow failure, cancer predisposition and hypersensitivity to DNA crosslinking agents., Fanconi anemia is a genetically heterogeneous chromosomal instability syndrome, characterized by multiple congenital anomalies, progressive bone marrow failure, and a predisposition to malignancy., Fanconi anemia (FA) is a heterogeneous disease characterized by spontaneous chromosomal breaks and abnormal DNA repair., Fanconi anemia (FA) is a genetically heterogeneous disease with at least eight genes on the basis of complementation groups (FAA to FAH)., Fanconi anemia (FA) is a clinically and genetically heterogeneous disorder., Fanconi anaemia (FA) is a genetically heterogeneous disease with at least eight complementation groups (A-H)., FA is a genetically heterogeneous disease with at least seven genes so far identified., Fanconi anemia (FA) is an autosomal recessive rare disease characterized by progressive pancytopenia, congenital malformations and predisposition to acute myeloid leukemia., Fanconi anemia is genetically heterogeneous, with at least eight complementation groups of FA (FAA to FAD2)., Fanconi anemia (FA), an autosomal recessive disorder characterized by a progressive pancytopenia associated with congenital anomalies and high predisposition to malignancies, is a genetically and clinically heterogeneous disease, Fanconi anemia (FA), an autosomal recessive disorder characterized by a progressive pancytopenia associated with congenital anomalies and high predisposition to malignancies, is a genetically and clinically heterogeneous disease, The disease is clinically heterogeneous; eight different complementation groups (FA A-H) and, thus, genetic loci have been discovered, The hereditary genetic disorder Fanconi anemia (FA) belongs to the heterogeneous group of diseases associated with defective DNA damage repair, The clinical manifestations of FA are heterogeneous, but one common outcome in the majority of patients is the development of life-threatening hematologic disease, Fanconi anemia is a genetically heterogeneous chromosomal breakage disorder exhibiting a high degree of clinical variability, Fanconi anemia (FA) is a genetically heterogeneous chromosomal instability syndrome associated with multiple congenital abnormalities, aplastic anemia, and cancer, Fanconi anemia (FA) is a genetically heterogeneous autosomal recessive syndrome associated with chromosomal instability, hypersensitivity to DNA cross-linking agents, and predisposition to malignancy, Fanconi anemia (FA) is a rare autosomal recessive disease characterized by progressive pancytopenia, congenital malformations, and predisposition to acute myeloid leukemia, Fanconi anemia (FA) is a heterogeneous disease characterized by spontaneous chromosomal breaks and abnormal DNA repair, Fanconi anemia (FA) is a genetically and phenotypically heterogeneous recessive disorder characterized by diverse congenital malformations, progressive pancytopenia and predisposition to both hematologic malignancies and solid tumors, Fanconi anemia is a genetically heterogeneous chromosomal instability syndrome, characterized by multiple congenital anomalies, progressive bone marrow failure, and a predisposition to malignancy[SEP]Relations: Fanconi anemia has relations: disease_disease with congenital anemia, disease_disease with congenital anemia, disease_disease with genetic skin disease, disease_disease with genetic skin disease. Fanconi anemia complementation group has relations: disease_disease with Fanconi anemia, disease_disease with Fanconi anemia, disease_disease with Fanconi anemia, disease_disease with Fanconi anemia, disease_disease with Fanconi anemia, disease_disease with Fanconi anemia. Definitions: FANCA defined as following: Fanconi anemia caused by mutations of the FANCA gene. FANCA gene mutations are the most common cause of Fanconi anemia. This gene provides instructions for making a protein that is involved in the Fanconi anemia (FA) pathway.. autosomal recessive disorder defined as following: An inherited disorder manifested only when two copies of a mutated gene are present.. cancer defined as following: A malignant tumor at the original site of growth.. acute myeloid leukemia defined as following: Clonal expansion of myeloid blasts in bone marrow, blood, and other tissue. Myeloid leukemias develop from changes in cells that normally produce NEUTROPHILS; BASOPHILS; EOSINOPHILS; and MONOCYTES.. FANCC defined as following: Fanconi anemia caused by mutations of the FANCC gene. This gene provides instructions for making a protein that delays the onset of apoptosis and promotes homologous recombination repair of damaged DNA.. FAH defined as following: Human FANCA wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 16q24.3 and is approximately 79 kb in length. This allele, which encodes Fanconi anemia group A protein, may play a role in the regulation of both DNA repair and the cell cycle. Mutation of the gene is associated with Fanconi anemia.. FANCD2 defined as following: Fanconi anemia caused by mutations of the FANCD2 gene. This gene is involved in the repair of DNA double-strand breaks, both by homologous recombination and single-strand annealing.. leukemia defined as following: A progressive, malignant disease of the blood-forming organs, characterized by distorted proliferation and development of leukocytes and their precursors in the blood and bone marrow. Leukemias were originally termed acute or chronic based on life expectancy but now are classified according to cellular maturity. Acute leukemias consist of predominately immature cells; chronic leukemias are composed of more mature cells. (From The Merck Manual, 2006). hematologic malignancies defined as following: Neoplasms located in the blood and blood-forming tissue (the bone marrow and lymphatic tissue). The commonest forms are the various types of LEUKEMIA, of LYMPHOMA, and of the progressive, life-threatening forms of the MYELODYSPLASTIC SYNDROMES.. hypersensitivity defined as following: Heightened emotional reactivity to environmental stimuli, including emotions of others. [PMID:23250816]. disease defined as following: A definite pathologic process with a characteristic set of signs and symptoms. It may affect the whole body or any of its parts, and its etiology, pathology, and prognosis may be known or unknown.. congenital malformations defined as following: Malformations of organs or body parts during development in utero.. pancytopenia defined as following: Deficiency of all three cell elements of the blood, erythrocytes, leukocytes and platelets.. genetic loci defined as following: Specific regions that are mapped within a GENOME. Genetic loci are usually identified with a shorthand notation that indicates the chromosome number and the position of a specific band along the P or Q arm of the chromosome where they are found. For example the locus 6p21 is found within band 21 of the P-arm of CHROMOSOME 6. Many well known genetic loci are also known by common names that are associated with a genetic function or HEREDITARY DISEASE.. FANCG defined as following: Fanconi anemia caused by mutations of the FANCG gene.. FANCE defined as following: Fanconi anemia caused by mutations of the FANCE gene. This is a protein coding gene. It is required for the nuclear accumulation of FANCC and provides a critical bridge between the FA complex and FANCD2.. malignancies defined as following: A tumor composed of atypical neoplastic, often pleomorphic cells that invade other tissues. Malignant neoplasms often metastasize to distant anatomic sites and may recur after excision. The most common malignant neoplasms are carcinomas, Hodgkin and non-Hodgkin lymphomas, leukemias, melanomas, and sarcomas.. genes defined as following: A category of nucleic acid sequences that function as units of heredity and which code for the basic instructions for the development, reproduction, and maintenance of organisms.. autosomal recessive defined as following: A mode of inheritance that is observed for traits related to a gene encoded on one of the autosomes (i.e., the human chromosomes 1-22) in which a trait manifests in individuals with two pathogenic alleles, either homozygotes (two copies of the same mutant allele) or compound heterozygotes (whereby each copy of a gene has a distinct mutant allele). [HPO:probinson]. aplastic anemia defined as following: A form of anemia in which the bone marrow fails to produce adequate numbers of peripheral blood elements.. mutations defined as following: The result of any gain, loss or alteration of the sequences comprising a gene, including all sequences transcribed into RNA.. hematologic disease defined as following: Disorders of the blood and blood forming tissues.. bone marrow failure defined as following: A reduced number of hematopoietic cells present in the bone marrow relative to marrow fat. [DDD:wouwehand, HPO:probinson]. Fanconi anaemia defined as following: Congenital disorder affecting all bone marrow elements, resulting in ANEMIA; LEUKOPENIA; and THROMBOPENIA, and associated with cardiac, renal, and limb malformations as well as dermal pigmentary changes. Spontaneous CHROMOSOME BREAKAGE is a feature of this disease along with predisposition to LEUKEMIA. There are at least 7 complementation groups in Fanconi anemia: FANCA, FANCB, FANCC, FANCD1, FANCD2, FANCE, FANCF, FANCG, and FANCL. (from Online Mendelian Inheritance in Man, http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/entrez/dispomim.cgi?id=227650, August 20, 2004). solid tumors defined as following: A benign or malignant neoplasm arising from tissues that do not include fluid areas. Representative examples include epithelial neoplasms (e.g. lung carcinoma, prostate carcinoma, breast carcinoma, colon carcinoma), and neoplasms arising from the soft tissues and bones (e.g. leiomyosarcoma, liposarcoma, chondrosarcoma, osteosarcoma). Neoplasms originating from the blood or bone marrow (leukemias and myeloproliferative disorders) are not considered solid tumors.. cytopenia defined as following: A laboratory test result indicating an abnormally low quantity of circulating blood cells.. neoplasia defined as following: New abnormal growth of tissue. Malignant neoplasms show a greater degree of anaplasia and have the properties of invasion and metastasis, compared to benign neoplasms..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_1057", "sentence1": "Are there clinical trials on stem cells in multiple sclerosis", "sentence2": "Cells are generally given intravenously. Multiple sclerosis, rheumatoid arthritis and lupus have been successfully treated in human clinical trials, Human multipotent mesenchymal stem cell (MSC) therapies are currently being tested in clinical trials for Crohn's disease, multiple sclerosis, graft-versus-host disease, type 1 diabetes, bone fractures, cartilage damage, and cardiac diseases., Based on these results, several small pilot clinical trials in subjects with advanced MS have demonstrated that MSC administration is safe and provided an early signal of clinical effectiveness. The current aim of clinicians and scientists interested in the development of MSC-based strategies for the treatment of MS is to have the ultimate demonstration in large clinical trials that MSC can inhibit CNS inflammation and foster tissue repair, Mesenchymal stem cells (MSC) promote functional recovery in experimental models of central nervous system (CNS) pathology and are currently being tested in clinical trials for stroke, multiple sclerosis and CNS injury., Autologous bone marrow stromal cells (BMSCs) offer significant practical advantages for potential clinical applications in multiple sclerosis (MS). Based on recent experimental data, a number of clinical trials have been designed for the intravenous (IV) and/or intrathecal (ITH) administration of BMSCs in MS patients., Fingolimod is a S1P receptor modulator in MS clinical trials due to systemic anti-inflammatory properties, yet may impact cells within the CNS by crossing the blood-brain barrier., Their development in vitro and their use in vivo in animal models of degenerative neurological disease and recent first efforts in human clinical trials were the topics of a recent international meeting sponsored by the Multiple Sclerosis International Federation and the National Multiple Sclerosis Society on \"Stem Cells & MS: Prospects and Strategies\", Here we discuss key observations and questions emerging from clinical trials of hematopoietic stem cell transplantation for MS, Another possibility to achieve remyelination is the transplantation of myelinating cells into the central nervous system. Proof of principle and demonstration of the functionality were shown in numerous experiments, and a first clinical trial in patients with MS has started, This first trial will show if cell transplantation is a feasible concept in MS and whether the transplanted cells will survive and form new myelin.[SEP]Relations: multiple sclerosis has relations: disease_disease with brain disease, disease_disease with brain disease, disease_disease with multiple sclerosis, susceptibility to, disease_disease with multiple sclerosis, susceptibility to, disease_protein with IL12A, disease_protein with IL12A, disease_protein with SELE, disease_protein with SELE, disease_protein with IL1RN, disease_protein with IL1RN. Definitions: rheumatoid arthritis defined as following: A chronic systemic disease, primarily of the joints, marked by inflammatory changes in the synovial membranes and articular structures, widespread fibrinoid degeneration of the collagen fibers in mesenchymal tissues, and by atrophy and rarefaction of bony structures. Etiology is unknown, but autoimmune mechanisms have been implicated.. inflammation defined as following: A pathological process characterized by injury or destruction of tissues caused by a variety of cytologic and chemical reactions. It is usually manifested by typical signs of pain, heat, redness, swelling, and loss of function.. human defined as following: Members of the species Homo sapiens.. graft-versus-host disease defined as following: The clinical entity characterized by anorexia, diarrhea, loss of hair, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, growth retardation, and eventual death brought about by the GRAFT VS HOST REACTION.. MSC defined as following: A naturally occurring organoselenium compound found in many plants, including garlic, onions, and broccoli, with potential antioxidant and chemopreventive activities. Se-Methyl-seleno-L-cysteine (MSC) is an amino acid analogue of cysteine in which a methylselenium moiety replaces the sulphur atom of cysteine. This agent acts as an antioxidant when incorporated into glutathione peroxidase and has been shown to exhibit potent chemopreventive activity in animal models.. multiple sclerosis defined as following: An autoimmune disorder mainly affecting young adults and characterized by destruction of myelin in the central nervous system. Pathologic findings include multiple sharply demarcated areas of demyelination throughout the white matter of the central nervous system. Clinical manifestations include visual loss, extra-ocular movement disorders, paresthesias, loss of sensation, weakness, dysarthria, spasticity, ataxia, and bladder dysfunction. The usual pattern is one of recurrent attacks followed by partial recovery (see MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS, RELAPSING-REMITTING), but acute fulminating and chronic progressive forms (see MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS, CHRONIC PROGRESSIVE) also occur. (Adams et al., Principles of Neurology, 6th ed, p903). Mesenchymal stem cells defined as following: An undifferentiated stromal cell with the ability to develop into the cells that form distinct mesenchymal tissues; such as bone, muscle, connective tissue, blood vessels, and lymphatic tissue.. Fingolimod defined as following: An orally available derivate of myriocin and sphingosine-1-phosphate receptor 1 (S1PR1, S1P1) modulator, with potential anti-inflammatory and immunomodulating activities. Upon oral administration, fingolimod, as a structural analogue of sphingosine, selectively targets and binds to S1PR1 on lymphocytes and causes transient receptor activation followed by S1PR1 internalization and degradation. This results in the sequestration of lymphocytes in lymph nodes. By preventing egress of lymphocytes. fingolimod reduces both the amount of circulating peripheral lymphocytes and the infiltration of lymphocytes into target tissues. This prevents a lymphocyte-mediated immune response and may reduce inflammation. S1PR1, a G-protein coupled receptor, plays a key role in lymphocyte migration from lymphoid tissues. Fingolimod also shifts macrophages to an anti-inflammatory M2 phenotype, and modulates their proliferation, morphology, and cytokine release via inhibition of the transient receptor potential cation channel, subfamily M, member 7 (TRPM7).. cells defined as following: The fundamental, structural, and functional units or subunits of living organisms. They are composed of CYTOPLASM containing various ORGANELLES and a CELL MEMBRANE boundary.. stroke defined as following: A group of pathological conditions characterized by sudden, non-convulsive loss of neurological function due to BRAIN ISCHEMIA or INTRACRANIAL HEMORRHAGES. Stroke is classified by the type of tissue NECROSIS, such as the anatomic location, vasculature involved, etiology, age of the affected individual, and hemorrhagic vs. non-hemorrhagic nature. (From Adams et al., Principles of Neurology, 6th ed, pp777-810). myelin defined as following: The lipid-rich sheath surrounding AXONS in both the CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEMS and PERIPHERAL NERVOUS SYSTEM. The myelin sheath is an electrical insulator and allows faster and more energetically efficient conduction of impulses. The sheath is formed by the cell membranes of glial cells (SCHWANN CELLS in the peripheral and OLIGODENDROGLIA in the central nervous system). Deterioration of the sheath in DEMYELINATING DISEASES is a serious clinical problem.. CNS defined as following: The main information-processing organs of the nervous system, consisting of the brain, spinal cord, and meninges.. lupus defined as following: chronic form of cutaneous lupus erythematosus in which the skin lesions mimic those of the systemic form but in which systemic signs are rare; characterized by the presence of discoid skin plaques showing varying degrees of edema, erythema, scaliness, follicular plugging, and skin atrophy; lesions are surrounded by an elevated erythematous border; the condition typically involves the face and scalp, but widespread dissemination may occur.. cardiac diseases defined as following: Pathological conditions involving the HEART including its structural and functional abnormalities.. stem cells defined as following: Relatively undifferentiated cells that retain the ability to divide and proliferate throughout postnatal life to provide progenitor cells that can differentiate into specialized cells..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_1800", "sentence1": "Does Vitamin D induce autophagy?", "sentence2": " 1,25(OH)2D treatment was accompanied by autophagy activation , Autophagy signaling pathway was regulated by vitamin D3, vitamin D induces autophagy, Vitamin D shows promise for the prevention and amelioration of pathologic responses in IBD, an effect that is mediated, at least in part, by the induction and modulation of autophagy.[SEP]Relations: Ergocalciferol has relations: drug_drug with Vitamin D, drug_drug with Vitamin D, contraindication with familial isolated deficiency of vitamin E, contraindication with familial isolated deficiency of vitamin E, drug_protein with VDR, drug_protein with VDR. Cholecalciferol has relations: drug_drug with Vitamin D, drug_drug with Vitamin D, contraindication with familial isolated deficiency of vitamin E, contraindication with familial isolated deficiency of vitamin E. Definitions: vitamin D defined as following: Vitamin D2, a fat-soluble vitamin important for many biochemical processes including the absorption and metabolism of calcium and phosphorus. In vivo, ergocalciferol is formed after sun (ultraviolet) irradiation of plant-derived ergosterol, another form of vitamin D. Ergocalciferol is the form of vitamin D usually found in vitamin supplements. (NCI04). vitamin D3 defined as following: Derivative of 7-dehydroxycholesterol formed by ULTRAVIOLET RAYS breaking of the C9-C10 bond. It differs from ERGOCALCIFEROL in having a single bond between C22 and C23 and lacking a methyl group at C24.. IBD defined as following: Gastrointestinal symptoms characterized by chronic abdominal pain and altered bowel habits in the absence of any organic cause.. Vitamin D defined as following: Vitamin D2, a fat-soluble vitamin important for many biochemical processes including the absorption and metabolism of calcium and phosphorus. In vivo, ergocalciferol is formed after sun (ultraviolet) irradiation of plant-derived ergosterol, another form of vitamin D. Ergocalciferol is the form of vitamin D usually found in vitamin supplements. (NCI04).", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_1505", "sentence1": "Is it possible to visualize subtahalamic nucleus by using transcranial ultrasound?", "sentence2": "After measuring thermal effects of TCS and imaging artefact sizes of DBS lead using a skull phantom, we prospectively enrolled 34 patients with DBS of globus pallidus internus, ventro-intermediate thalamic or subthalamic nucleus. TCS had no influence on lead temperature, electrical parameters of DBS device or clinical state of patients. TCS measures of lead coordinates agreed with MRI measures in anterior-posterior and medial-lateral axis. Lead dislocation requiring reinsertion was reliably detected., TCS may therefore become a first-choice modality to monitor lead location., Two pilot studies have demonstrated that the intraoperative visualization with TCS and the TCS-assisted insertion of deep-brain stimulation (DBS) electrodes into the subthalamic nucleus and the globus pallidus interna are feasible and safe provided there is exact knowledge on the extent of electrode TCS imaging artifacts. , Peroperative transcranial sonography for electrode placement into the targeted subthalamic nucleus of patients with Parkinson disease: technical note, The correct anatomic position of the electrode tip could be indirectly assessed thanks to the topographic relationship of the STN with the hyperechogenic substantia nigra and the nucleus ruber., CONCLUSIONS: Transcranial sonography is easily feasible during stereotactic surgery. In combination with the clinical effects of electrostimulation on the symptoms of Parkinson's disease and with stereotactic x-ray images, it enables the assessment and the documentation of the correct position of implanted STN electrodes in real time., After measuring thermal effects of TCS and imaging artefact sizes of DBS lead using a skull phantom, we prospectively enrolled 34 patients with DBS of globus pallidus internus, ventro-intermediate thalamic or subthalamic nucleus, Two pilot studies have demonstrated that the intraoperative visualization with TCS and the TCS-assisted insertion of deep-brain stimulation (DBS) electrodes into the subthalamic nucleus and the globus pallidus interna are feasible and safe provided there is exact knowledge on the extent of electrode TCS imaging artifacts[SEP]Relations: subthalamic nucleus has relations: anatomy_anatomy with nucleus of ventral thalamus, anatomy_anatomy with nucleus of ventral thalamus. medial globus pallidus has relations: anatomy_protein_present with MTPAP, anatomy_protein_present with MTPAP, anatomy_protein_present with PCNP, anatomy_protein_present with PCNP, anatomy_protein_present with CRTAP, anatomy_protein_present with CRTAP, anatomy_protein_present with RNMT, anatomy_protein_present with RNMT. Definitions: TCS defined as following: A hereditary disorder occurring in two forms: the complete form (Franceschetti's syndrome) is characterized by antimongoloid slant of the palpebral fissures, COLOBOMA of the lower lid, MICROGNATHIA and hypoplasia of the ZYGOMATIC ARCHES, and CONGENITAL MICROTIA. It is transmitted as an autosomal trait. The incomplete form (Treacher Collins syndrome) is characterized by the same anomalies in less pronounced degree. It occurs sporadically, but an autosomal dominant mode of transmission is suspected. (Dorland, 27th ed). STN defined as following: Human EEF1A2 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 20q13.3 and is approximately 11 kb in length. This allele, which encodes elongation factor 1-alpha 2 protein, is involved in the promotion of protein elongation. The gene is expressed aberrantly at elevated levels in many ovarian cancers.. position defined as following: A reference to the alignment of an object, a particular situation or view of a situation, or the location of an object.. insertion defined as following: Something inserted or to be inserted.. Parkinson's disease defined as following: A progressive, degenerative neurologic disease characterized by a TREMOR that is maximal at rest, retropulsion (i.e. a tendency to fall backwards), rigidity, stooped posture, slowness of voluntary movements, and a masklike facial expression. Pathologic features include loss of melanin containing neurons in the substantia nigra and other pigmented nuclei of the brainstem. LEWY BODIES are present in the substantia nigra and locus coeruleus but may also be found in a related condition (LEWY BODY DISEASE, DIFFUSE) characterized by dementia in combination with varying degrees of parkinsonism. (Adams et al., Principles of Neurology, 6th ed, p1059, pp1067-75). subthalamic nucleus defined as following: Lens-shaped structure on the inner aspect of the INTERNAL CAPSULE. The SUBTHALAMIC NUCLEUS and pathways traversing this region are concerned with the integration of somatic motor function.. globus defined as following: A feeling of a lump in the throat that occurs between meals in the absence of other gastrointestinal and motility disorders (e.g., DYSPHAGIA; GASTROESOPHAGEAL REFLUX)..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_1778", "sentence1": "Is NADPH oxidase 5 expressed in rodents?", "sentence2": "Because the Nox5 gene is absent in rodents, we generated transgenic mice expressing human Nox5 in a podocyte-specific manner (Nox5(pod+)). , The NADPH oxidase 5 (NOX5) gene is present in humans but not rodents. , The data document that the NOX5 gene was expressed in cells of lagomorphs unlike rodents, making the rabbit an interesting model to study NOX5 functions., Nox5 was lost in rodents, and Nox3, which functions in the inner ear in gravity perception, emerged the most recently, corresponding to full-time adaptation of vertebrates to land. , NOX expression patterns in animals are complex and ancestral NOXes, NOX5-like isoforms and DUOXes are generally found. But there are exceptions; for example rodents lack NOX5 and Caenorhabditis elegans expresses only DUOXes., The NADPH oxidase 5 (NOX5) gene is present in humans but not rodents., The NADPH oxidase 5 (NOX5) gene is present in humans but not rodents, NADPH oxidases are the major sources of reactive oxygen species in cardiovascular, neural, and kidney cells. The NADPH oxidase 5 (NOX5) gene is present in humans but not rodents., But there are exceptions; for example rodents lack NOX5 and Caenorhabditis elegans expresses only DUOXes., Because the Nox5 gene is absent in rodents, we generated transgenic mice expressing human Nox5 in a podocyte-specific manner (Nox5(pod+))., The data document that the NOX5 gene was expressed in cells of lagomorphs unlike rodents, making the rabbit an interesting model to study NOX5 functions., The most recently identified member of the Nox family, Nox5, has for the most part been overlooked in renal disease, partly owing to its absence from the rodent genome.[SEP]Relations: NADPH oxidase complex has relations: cellcomp_protein with NOX4, cellcomp_protein with NOX4, cellcomp_protein with NOX3, cellcomp_protein with NOX3, cellcomp_protein with NOXA1, cellcomp_protein with NOXA1, cellcomp_protein with NOX1, cellcomp_protein with NOX1, cellcomp_protein with CYBA, cellcomp_protein with CYBA. Definitions: NADPH oxidases defined as following: A family of membrane-associated flavoprotein NADPH-dependent oxidoreductases that catalyze the univalent reduction of OXYGEN to create SUPEROXIDES. Structurally, they are characterized by six N-terminal transmembrane ALPHA-HELICES, a FLAVIN-ADENINE DINUCLEOTIDE (FAD)-binding region, and a C-terminal NADPH-binding region. They are expressed primarily by EPITHELIAL CELLS in gut, kidney, colon, and smooth muscle tissues, as well as GRANULOCYTES and function to transfer electrons across membranes to molecular oxygen. Defects in the production of superoxide ions by some NADPH oxidases result in GRANULOMATOUS DISEASE, CHRONIC.. rodents defined as following: A mammalian order which consists of 29 families and many genera.. reactive oxygen species defined as following: Molecules or ions formed by the incomplete one-electron reduction of oxygen. These reactive oxygen intermediates include SINGLET OXYGEN; SUPEROXIDES; PEROXIDES; HYDROXYL RADICAL; and HYPOCHLOROUS ACID. They contribute to the microbicidal activity of PHAGOCYTES, regulation of SIGNAL TRANSDUCTION and GENE EXPRESSION, and the oxidative damage to NUCLEIC ACIDS; PROTEINS; and LIPIDS.. humans defined as following: Members of the species Homo sapiens.. kidney cells defined as following: any of the cells comprising the kidney, functioning in filtering the blood.. renal disease defined as following: Pathological processes of the KIDNEY or its component tissues.. lagomorphs defined as following: An order of small mammals comprising two families, Ochotonidae (pikas) and Leporidae (RABBITS and HARES). Head and body length ranges from about 125 mm to 750 mm. Hares and rabbits have a short tail, and the pikas lack a tail. Rabbits are born furless and with both eyes and ears closed. HARES are born fully haired with eyes and ears open. All are vegetarians. (From Nowak, Walker's Mammals of the World, 5th ed, p539-41). neural defined as following: Of or relating to neurons or the nervous system.. cells defined as following: The fundamental, structural, and functional units or subunits of living organisms. They are composed of CYTOPLASM containing various ORGANELLES and a CELL MEMBRANE boundary.. Caenorhabditis elegans defined as following: A species of nematode that is widely used in biological, biochemical, and genetic studies.. transgenic mice defined as following: Laboratory mice that have been produced from a genetically manipulated EGG or EMBRYO, MAMMALIAN.. vertebrates defined as following: Animals having a vertebral column, members of the phylum Chordata, subphylum Craniata comprising mammals, birds, reptiles, amphibians, and fishes..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_3931", "sentence1": "Is cadherin a plasma membrane marker?", "sentence2": "the plasma membrane-bound E-cadherin protein, VE-cadherin protein levels were also increased in the plasma membrane fraction. , recycling of VE-cadherin to the plasma membrane,, E-cadherin, a central component of the adherens junction (AJ), is a single-pass transmembrane protein [SEP]Relations: plasma membrane has relations: cellcomp_protein with CADM3, cellcomp_protein with CADM3, cellcomp_protein with CADM2, cellcomp_protein with CADM2, cellcomp_protein with CADM1, cellcomp_protein with CADM1, cellcomp_protein with FURIN, cellcomp_protein with FURIN, cellcomp_protein with ACIN1, cellcomp_protein with ACIN1. Definitions: plasma membrane defined as following: The lipid- and protein-containing, selectively permeable membrane that surrounds the cytoplasm in prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.. adherens junction defined as following: A cell-cell adherens junction which forms a continuous belt near the apex of epithelial cells. [ISBN:0815316208]. cadherin defined as following: This gene plays a role in cell-cell adhesion and loss of function contributes to the progression of many carcinomas..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_1544", "sentence1": "Could Hyperthermic intraperitoneal chemotherapy (HIPEC) be effective for the treatment of recurrent ovarian cancer?", "sentence2": "The use of HIPEC after aggressive cytoreductive surgery in patients with ovarian cancer with peritoneal dissemination can be performed with acceptable postoperative morbidity rates. Knowledge of the factors associated with the onset of these postoperative adverse events allows better management of the same and offers the patient a safe procedure, These results showed that the association of HIPEC with a complete cytoreduction for recurrent ovarian cancer presents acceptable morbidity and survival, There is level-one evidence suggesting the benefit of postoperative adjuvant intraperitoneal chemotherapy for patients with advanced ovarian cancer after cytoreductive surgery, albeit catheter-related complications resulted after treatment discontinuation. Studies report the use of HIPEC predominantly in the setting of recurrent disease and have demonstrated encouraging results, which merits further investigation in future clinical trials, The combination of SCR and HIPEC seems to improve survival rate in patients suffering from platinum-sensitive EOC recurrence with respect to no-HIPEC treatments. This result further supports the need of a randomized trial, Cautious extrapolation of data from standard normothermic, nonintraoperative, intraperitoneal chemotherapy and data from Phase II and nonrandomized comparative studies suggest that HIPEC delivered at the time of surgery for ovarian cancer has definite potential, The available evidence suggests that a potential survival benefit of adding HIPEC may be largest in the settings of secondary CRS for stage III ovarian cancer and salvage CRS for recurrent ovarian cancer, two time-points representing failure of initial standard therapy. There is much less evidence for a potential benefit of HIPEC for less advanced stages (I-II) and for earlier time-points in the treatment of ovarian cancer (upfront, interval and consolidation), Survival benefit of adding Hyperthermic IntraPEritoneal Chemotherapy (HIPEC) at the different time-points of treatment of ovarian cancer, Patients suffering from peritoneal recurrence of ovarian cancer should be considered for radical reoperation with HIPEC in a center with expertise in multimodal therapeutic options. Organ-preserving cytoreductive surgery allows complete cytoreduction with the goal of decreasing morbidity, In recurrent platinum-sensitive ovarian cancer patients, the use of CRS plus HIPEC represents a safe treatment, able to significantly influence the survival rates compared to chemotherapy alone or surgery plus standard chemotherapy, The results of our study indicate the feasibility and the potential benefit of a protocol including systemic chemotherapy, surgical cytoreduction and HIPEC in patients with peritoneal carcinomatosis from ovarian cancer. A phase III trial to compare this approach with conventional treatment is needed, In selected patients with heavily pretreated recurrent ovarian cancer, cytoreduction combined with HIPEC may provide a meaningful OS with acceptable morbidity. Optimal results are achieved in patients with a macroscopically complete resection and biologically favorable disease, HIPEC is a complement to radical surgery/ peritonectomy, which has been shown to be a surgical procedure with high tolerability, low morbimortality, enhanced survival and prolonged disease-free interval in patients with peritoneal carcinomatosis for recurrent ovarian cancer, Despite the heterogeneity of the studies reviewed, current evidence suggest that complete CRS and HIPEC may be a feasible option with potential benefits that are comparable with the current standard of care. A randomized trial is required to establish the role of HIPEC in ovarian cancer, in the majority of patients with primary and recurrent advanced ovarian cancer, cytoreductive surgery combined with HIPEC can lead to a substantial increase in subsequent rates of disease-free and overall survival, Peritonectomy procedures combined with HIPEC offer promising long-term survival in patients with diffuse peritoneal ovarian carcinomatosis. They achieve high adequate primary and secondary surgical cytoreduction rates with acceptable morbidity and mortality, Cytoreduction surgery with hyperthermic intraperitoneal chemotherapy in recurrent ovarian cancer improves progression-free survival, especially in BRCA-positive patients- a case-control study., Survival benefit of adding Hyperthermic IntraPEritoneal Chemotherapy (HIPEC) at the different time-points of treatment of ovarian cancer: review of evidence., Some encouraging results have been reported by the treatment of peritoneal carcinomatosis (PC) from ovarian cancer by complete surgical cytoreduction, peritonectomy and hyperthermic intraperitoneal chemotherapy (HIPEC)., Although standard treatment for advanced epithelial ovarian cancer (EOC) consists of surgical debulking and intravenous platinum- and taxane-based chemotherapy, favorable oncological outcomes have been recently reported with the use of cytoreductive surgery (CRS) and hyperthermic intraperitoneal chemotherapy (HIPEC)., Trabectedin, Hyperthermic intraperitoneal chemotherapy (HIPEC) and chemo-immunotherapy may be become a promising therapy for the treatment of ovarian cancer., Hyperthermic intraperitoneal chemotherapy (HIPEC) represents a new treatment strategy aimed to improve outcome of patients with advanced ovarian cancer., Favorable oncological outcomes have been reported in several trials with the introduction of Cytoreductive Surgery (CRS) and Hyperthermic Intraperitoneal Chemotherapy (HIPEC) in the treatment of Advanced Epithelial Ovarian Cancer (EOC)., Based on theoretical and experimental basis, HIPEC should stand as an effective treatment for ovarian cancer., Some encouraging results have been reported by the treatment of peritoneal carcinomatosis (PC) from ovarian cancer by complete surgical cytoreduction, peritonectomy and hyperthermic intraperitoneal chemotherapy (HIPEC), Based on theoretical and experimental basis, HIPEC should stand as an effective treatment for ovarian cancer, Hyperthermic intraperitoneal chemotherapy (HIPEC) represents a new treatment strategy aimed to improve outcome of patients with advanced ovarian cancer, [Importance of hyperthermic intraperitoneal chemotherapy (HIPEC) in ovarian cancer].[SEP]Relations: ovarian epithelial tumor has relations: disease_disease with ovarian squamous cell neoplasm, disease_disease with ovarian squamous cell neoplasm, disease_disease with ovarian neoplasm, disease_disease with ovarian neoplasm, disease_disease with ovarian serous tumor, disease_disease with ovarian serous tumor, disease_disease with epithelial neoplasm, disease_disease with epithelial neoplasm, disease_disease with ovarian seromucinous tumor, disease_disease with ovarian seromucinous tumor. Definitions: Trabectedin defined as following: A tetrahydroisoquinoline alkaloid isolated from the marine tunicate Ecteinascidia turbinata with potential antineoplastic activity. Binding to the minor groove of DNA, trabectedin interferes with the transcription-coupled nucleotide excision repair machinery to induce lethal DNA strand breaks and blocks the cell cycle in the G2 phase.. HIPEC defined as following: A procedure performed in combination with abdominal surgery for cancer that has spread to the abdomen. It involves the infusion of a heated chemotherapy solution that circulates into the abdominal cavity.. ovarian cancer defined as following: A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the ovary. Most primary malignant ovarian neoplasms are either carcinomas (serous, mucinous, or endometrioid adenocarcinomas) or malignant germ cell tumors. Metastatic malignant neoplasms to the ovary include carcinomas, lymphomas, and melanomas.. CRS defined as following: Transplacental infection of the fetus with rubella usually in the first trimester of pregnancy, as a consequence of maternal infection, resulting in various developmental abnormalities in the newborn infant. They include cardiac and ocular lesions, deafness, microcephaly, mental retardation, and generalized growth retardation. (From Dorland, 27th ed). SCR defined as following: The confirmed disappearance of all signs of cancer, and absence of molecular or cytogenetic marker of disease, in response to treatment with additional biochemical, immunological and histopathological analyses to verify the CR.. platinum-sensitive ovarian cancer defined as following: Ovarian carcinoma that has a documented response to platinum-based chemotherapy.. PC defined as following: A group of inherited ectodermal dysplasias whose most prominent clinical feature is hypertrophic nail dystrophy resulting in PACHYONYCHIA. Several specific subtypes of pachyonychia congenita have been associated with mutations in genes that encode KERATINS..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_2843", "sentence1": "Is ADP-ribosylation a PTM?", "sentence2": "ADP-ribosylation is a PTM, in which ADP-ribosyltransferases use nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD+) to modify target proteins with ADP-ribose, Poly-ADP-ribosylation (PARylation) is a protein posttranslational modification (PTM) that is critically involved in many biological processes that are linked to cell stress responses., ADP-ribosylation is a post-translational modification (PTM) implicated in several crucial cellular processes, ranging from regulation of DNA repair and chromatin structure to cell metabolism and stress responses.[SEP]Relations: DNA ADP-ribosylation has relations: bioprocess_protein with PARP2, bioprocess_protein with PARP2, bioprocess_protein with PARP1, bioprocess_protein with PARP1, bioprocess_protein with PARP3, bioprocess_protein with PARP3, bioprocess_bioprocess with DNA modification, bioprocess_bioprocess with DNA modification. regulation of protein ADP-ribosylation has relations: bioprocess_protein with ADNP, bioprocess_protein with ADNP. Definitions: ADP-ribosyltransferases defined as following: This gene is involved in cellular repair and apoptosis.. nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide defined as following: A coenzyme composed of ribosylnicotinamide 5'-diphosphate coupled to adenosine 5'-phosphate by pyrophosphate linkage. It is found widely in nature and is involved in numerous enzymatic reactions in which it serves as an electron carrier by being alternately oxidized (NAD+) and reduced (NADH). (Dorland, 27th ed). ADP-ribose defined as following: An ester formed between the aldehydic carbon of RIBOSE and the terminal phosphate of ADENOSINE DIPHOSPHATE. It is produced by the hydrolysis of nicotinamide-adenine dinucleotide (NAD) by a variety of enzymes, some of which transfer an ADP-ribosyl group to target proteins.. protein posttranslational modification defined as following: Any of various enzymatically catalyzed post-translational modifications of PEPTIDES or PROTEINS in the cell of origin. These modifications include carboxylation; HYDROXYLATION; ACETYLATION; PHOSPHORYLATION; METHYLATION; GLYCOSYLATION; ubiquitination; oxidation; proteolysis; and crosslinking and result in changes in molecular weight and electrophoretic motility.. Poly-ADP-ribosylation defined as following: The transfer of multiple ADP-ribose molecules to amino acids within target proteins.. ADP-ribosylation defined as following: The transfer of ADP-ribose to amino acids within proteins or to the amino group at N2 of a 2'-deoxyguanosine residue in double-stranded DNA..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_2215", "sentence1": "Does the histone chaperone ASF1 interact with histones H1/H2?", "sentence2": "The C terminus of the histone chaperone Asf1 cross-links to histone H3 in yeast and promotes interaction with histones H3 and H4., The central histone H3/H4 chaperone Asf1 comprises a highly conserved globular core and a divergent C-terminal tail. , The histone H3-H4 chaperone Asf1 is involved in chromatin assembly (or disassembly), histone exchange, regulation of transcription, and chromatin silencing in several organisms. , An ASF1-EGFP fusion protein localizes to the nucleus. By tandem-affinity purification/mass spectrometry as well as yeast two-hybrid analysis, we identified histones H3 and H4 as ASF1 interaction partners. , This inhibition requires Asf1 binding to H3-H4 and Rtt109 KAT activity, but not tail acetylation of H3-H4 or K56 acetylation of H3. , Asf1 is a conserved histone H3/H4 chaperone that can assemble and disassemble nucleosomes and promote histone acetylation. , Here we characterize further interactions between budding yeast (Saccharomyces cerevisiae) Asf1 and Set2 using assays of intragenic transcription, H3/H4 posttranslational modification, coding region cross-linking of Asf1 and Set2, and cooccurrence of Asf1 and Set2 in protein complexes. , Consistent with this possibility, we show that Asf1 stimulates Set2 occupancy of the coding region of a highly transcribed gene by a mechanism that depends on Asf1 binding to H3/H4. , Drosophila histones H3 and H4 can also be produced as a soluble (H3H4)(2) heterotetrameric complex if they are co-expressed with the histone chaperone Asf1., Structure and function of the histone chaperone CIA/ASF1 complexed with histones H3 and H4., Newly synthesized histones H3-H4 first bind histone chaperone Asf1 and are then transferred to other chaperones for nucleosome assembly, The C terminus of the histone chaperone Asf1 cross-links to histone H3 in yeast and promotes interaction with histones H3 and H4, Histone chaperone Asf1 is required for histone H3 lysine 56 acetylation, a modification associated with S phase in mitosis and meiosis, Antisilencing function 1 (ASF1) is a major histone H3-H4 chaperone that deposits histones H3 and H4 onto DNA, Rtt109, a recently discovered histone acetyltransferase (HAT) from Saccharomyces cerevisiae, functions with the histone chaperone Asf1 to acetylate lysine K56 on histone H3 (H3K56), a modification associated with newly synthesized histones, In this issue of Cell, English et al. present the first crystal structure of a histone chaperone (Asf1) bound to histones (the H3/H4 heterodimer), By tandem-affinity purification/mass spectrometry as well as yeast two-hybrid analysis, we identified histones H3 and H4 as ASF1 interaction partners., Anti-silencing function 1 (Asf1) is a highly conserved chaperone of histones H3/H4 that assembles or disassembles chromatin during transcription, replication, and repair., Analysis of a panel of Asf1 mutations that modulate the ability of Asf1 to bind to histones H3/H4 demonstrates that the histone binding activity of Asf1 is required for the acetylation of Lys-9 and Lys-56 on newly synthesized H3., Thus Rad53 competes with histones H3-H4 and cochaperones HirA/CAF-I for binding to Asf1., Structure and function of the histone chaperone CIA/ASF1 complexed with histones H3 and H4., Currently, the best-characterized chaperone-histone interaction is that between the ubiquitous chaperone Asf1 and a dimer of H3 and H4.[SEP]Relations: histone H3 acetylation has relations: bioprocess_protein with LEF1, bioprocess_protein with LEF1, bioprocess_protein with TAF5, bioprocess_protein with TAF5, bioprocess_protein with TAF12, bioprocess_protein with TAF12, bioprocess_protein with TAF10, bioprocess_protein with TAF10, bioprocess_protein with IRF4, bioprocess_protein with IRF4. Definitions: chromatin assembly defined as following: The assembly of DNA, histone proteins, other associated proteins, and sometimes RNA, into chromatin structure, beginning with the formation of the basic unit, the nucleosome, followed by organization of the nucleosomes into higher order structures, ultimately giving rise to a complex organization of specific domains within the nucleus. [PMID:20404130]. yeast defined as following: A species of the genus SACCHAROMYCES, family Saccharomycetaceae, order Saccharomycetales, known as \"baker's\" or \"brewer's\" yeast. The dried form is used as a dietary supplement.. DNA defined as following: A deoxyribonucleotide polymer that is the primary genetic material of all cells. Eukaryotic and prokaryotic organisms normally contain DNA in a double-stranded state, yet several important biological processes transiently involve single-stranded regions. DNA, which consists of a polysugar-phosphate backbone possessing projections of purines (adenine and guanine) and pyrimidines (thymine and cytosine), forms a double helix that is held together by hydrogen bonds between these purines and pyrimidines (adenine to thymine and guanine to cytosine).. histones defined as following: Small chromosomal proteins (approx 12-20 kD) possessing an open, unfolded structure and attached to the DNA in cell nuclei by ionic linkages. Classification into the various types (designated histone I, histone II, etc.) is based on the relative amounts of arginine and lysine in each.. HAT defined as following: Class of enzymes that catalyze the acetylation of specific lysine residues of histones, proteins that organize eukaryotic DNA into chromatin. Among the proteins that exhibit histone acetyltransferase activity are various transcription factor coactivators. E.C. 2.3.1.48.. H4 defined as following: This gene plays a role in mitogenesis and differentiation.. Set2 defined as following: Human SETD2 is located in the vicinity of 3p21.31 and is approximately 108 kb in length. This allele, which encodes histone-lysine N-methyltransferase SETD2 protein, may play a role in transcriptional activation and epigenetic modification of chromatin.. histone H3 defined as following: Histone H3 is a core subunit of the eukaryotic nucleosome complex. Histones are basic nuclear proteins responsible for the nucleosome structure of chromatin. Repeating nucleosome units contain two molecules each of Histones H2A, H2B, H3, and H4 that form an octamer complex around which approximately 146 base pairs of DNA is wrapped. Linker Histone H1 interacts with DNA between nucleosome units in mediating chromatin compaction into higher order structures. (NCI). chromatin defined as following: The ordered and organized complex of DNA, protein, and sometimes RNA, that forms the chromosome. [GOC:elh, PMID:20404130]. nucleosome assembly defined as following: The aggregation, arrangement and bonding together of a nucleosome, the beadlike structural units of eukaryotic chromatin composed of histones and DNA. [GOC:mah]. modification defined as following:

Respond with exceptions, completions and modifications or revisions done before completion

. organisms defined as following: A living entity.. nucleus defined as following: Within a eukaryotic cell, a membrane-limited body which contains chromosomes and one or more nucleoli (CELL NUCLEOLUS). The nuclear membrane consists of a double unit-type membrane which is perforated by a number of pores; the outermost membrane is continuous with the ENDOPLASMIC RETICULUM. A cell may contain more than one nucleus. (From Singleton & Sainsbury, Dictionary of Microbiology and Molecular Biology, 2d ed). dimer defined as following: compound formed by the union of two radicals or two molecules of a simpler compound; a polymer formed from two molecules of a monomer.. coding region defined as following: A sequence of successive nucleotide triplets that are read as CODONS specifying AMINO ACIDS and begin with an INITIATOR CODON and end with a stop codon (CODON, TERMINATOR)..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_1871", "sentence1": "Can NEECHAM Confusion Scale be used for evaluation of postoperative delirium?", "sentence2": "Sampling was achieved in a nonrandomized targeted manner and delirium was assessed using NeeCham questionnaire. , Delirium in older patients: a diagnostic study of NEECHAM Confusion Scale in surgical intensive care unit., AIMS AND OBJECTIVES: To estimate the diagnostic value and determine the feasibility of the NEECHAM Confusion Scale on critically ill older patients., CONCLUSIONS: Findings from this study confirm the good diagnostic value and ease of application of the NEECHAM scale with nonventilated intensive care patients.RELEVANCE TO CLINICAL PRACTICE: The NEECHAM scale can be used to detect delirium during the routine nursing assessment of nonintubated older patients as it requires minimal demand and stress on the patient as well as on the bedside nurse., The NEECHAM Confusion Scale and the validated chart review instrument were used for diagnosis of delirium. , Among the various screening instruments, NEECHAM confusion scale and delirium observation scale appear to be most suitable screening instrument for patients' in general medical and surgical wards, depending on the type of rater (physician or nurse). , Use of NEECHAM scaling enabled medical staff to identify cases of possible confusion early, indicating that the NEECHAM confusion scale should be useful for the detection of postoperative delirium and confusion in the surgical ward., Early detection of postoperative delirium and confusion in a surgical ward using the NEECHAM confusion scale., In this study, we investigated whether the early detection of postoperative delirium in elderly patients is possible using a simple, useful behavior-assessing scale, the NEECHAM Confusion Scale, and a method for comprehensively evaluating elderly persons' stress related to surgery, E-PASS., Assessment of the risk of postoperative delirium in elderly patients using E-PASS and the NEECHAM Confusion Scale., The aim of this study was to determine which of the two delirium observation screening scales, the NEECHAM Confusion Scale or the Delirium Observation Screening (DOS) scale, has the best discriminative capacity for diagnosing delirium and which is more practical for daily use by nurses., For delirium diagnosis and severity assessment, we used the NEECHAM Confusion Scale., Use of NEECHAM scaling enabled medical staff to identify cases of possible confusion early, indicating that the NEECHAM confusion scale should be useful for the detection of postoperative delirium and confusion in the surgical ward., The NEECHAM Confusion Scale was performed upon admission and prior to discharge.RESULTS: The incidence of DSM-IV related delirium was 24%., A comparison of the CAM-ICU and the NEECHAM Confusion Scale in intensive care delirium assessment: an observational study in non-intubated patients., Predictive value and validation of the NEECHAM Confusion Scale using DSM-IV criteria for delirium as gold standard., Early detection of postoperative delirium and confusion in a surgical ward using the NEECHAM confusion scale, The aim of this study was to determine which of the two delirium observation screening scales, the NEECHAM Confusion Scale or the Delirium Observation Screening (DOS) scale, has the best discriminative capacity for diagnosing delirium and which is more practical for daily use by nurses.The project was conducted on four wards of a university hospital; 87 patients were included, In addition, we scored the participants on the NEECHAM Scale and evaluated their postoperative delirium and postoperative arrhythmia.On the nights of Days 4 and 5, the amount of activity of the exposure group was significantly lower and The sympathetic nervous index was significantly lower on the night of Day 5, In this study, we investigated whether the early detection of postoperative delirium in elderly patients is possible using a simple, useful behavior-assessing scale, the NEECHAM Confusion Scale, and a method for comprehensively evaluating elderly persons' stress related to surgery, E-PASS. , The cut-off value of the NEECHAM score was established as 20 points, and patients showing values less than this after surgery were regarded as having postoperative delirium. , Identification of delirium was based on evaluation of the level of consciousness with the NEECHAM Confusion Scale and/or a chart-based instrument for delirium., For delirium diagnosis and severity assessment, we used the NEECHAM Confusion Scale., In this study, we investigated whether the early detection of postoperative delirium in elderly patients is possible using a simple, useful behavior-assessing scale, the NEECHAM Confusion Scale, and a method for comprehensively evaluating elderly persons' stress related to surgery, E-PASS.The subjects were 160 patients aged more than 75 years who underwent surgery., In this study a nursing screening instrument, the NEECHAM confusion scale, was studied for early recognition of delirium ICU patients., The psychometric characteristics and the ease of use of the NEECHAM confusion scale enables ICU nurses to early recognize delirium., The trends of the NEECHAM scores in the 3 groups were compared, and the relationship between the NEECHAM scores and suspected clinical risk factors for delirium was investigated., In groups showing an MMSE score of less than 25 or a preoperative NEECHAM score of less than 27, the incidence of postoperative delirium was 76%.CONCLUSION: The results suggest that E-PASS and the NEECHAM score facilitate assessment of the risk of postoperative delirium in elderly patients, contributing to early prevention/treatment., In this study, we investigated whether the early detection of postoperative delirium in elderly patients is possible using a simple, useful behavior-assessing scale, the NEECHAM Confusion Scale, and a method for comprehensively evaluating elderly persons' stress related to surgery, E-PASS., Use of NEECHAM scaling enabled medical staff to identify cases of possible confusion early, indicating that the NEECHAM confusion scale should be useful for the detection of postoperative delirium and confusion in the surgical ward.., Early detection of postoperative delirium and confusion in a surgical ward using the NEECHAM confusion scale., Assessment of the risk of postoperative delirium in elderly patients using E-PASS and the NEECHAM Confusion Scale., For delirium diagnosis and severity assessment, we used the NEECHAM Confusion Scale., The Neecham Confusion Scale and the Delirium Observation Screening Scale: capacity to discriminate and ease of use in clinical practice., The aim of this study was to determine which of the two delirium observation screening scales, the NEECHAM Confusion Scale or the Delirium Observation Screening (DOS) scale, has the best discriminative capacity for diagnosing delirium and which is more practical for daily use by nurses.[SEP]Relations: delirium has relations: contraindication with Trolnitrate, contraindication with Trolnitrate, disease_disease with cognitive disorder, disease_disease with cognitive disorder, disease_disease with subacute delirium, disease_disease with subacute delirium, contraindication with Tacrolimus, contraindication with Tacrolimus, contraindication with Olanzapine, contraindication with Olanzapine. Definitions: delirium defined as following: A disorder characterized by CONFUSION; inattentiveness; disorientation; ILLUSIONS; HALLUCINATIONS; agitation; and in some instances autonomic nervous system overactivity. It may result from toxic/metabolic conditions or structural brain lesions. (From Adams et al., Principles of Neurology, 6th ed, pp411-2). postoperative delirium defined as following: A form of DELIRIUM which occurs after GENERAL ANESTHESIA.. critically ill defined as following: A disease or state in which death is possible or imminent..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_2096", "sentence1": "Is Cryptococcus neoformans a frequent cause of isolated skin infections in immunocompromised individuals", "sentence2": " Cryptococcus is an opportunistic yeast with a worldwide distribution that primarily causes significant infections in immunocompromised individuals, generally by affecting the respiratory tract. But primary cutaneous cryptococcosis (PCC) without systemic infection is rare. , Cryptococcus is a ubiquitous fungus and is known for causing meningitis and cutaneous infections in immunocompromised individuals., Cryptococcus neoformans is an encapsulated yeast that can cause primary pulmonary infections or disseminate and cause infections of the central nervous system, meninges, skin, and bone in the immunocompromised host., The authors report a male patient, a seller with no detected immunosuppression, with an extensive ulcerated skin lesion localized on the left forearm, caused by Cryptococcus neoformans var.[SEP]Relations: Recurrent skin infections has relations: phenotype_phenotype with Recurrent bacterial skin infections, phenotype_phenotype with Recurrent bacterial skin infections, phenotype_phenotype with Recurrent viral skin infections, phenotype_phenotype with Recurrent viral skin infections, phenotype_phenotype with Recurrent cutaneous fungal infections, phenotype_phenotype with Recurrent cutaneous fungal infections, disease_phenotype_positive with immunodeficiency, disease_phenotype_positive with immunodeficiency, disease_phenotype_positive with acquired ichthyosis, disease_phenotype_positive with acquired ichthyosis. Definitions: yeast defined as following: A species of the genus SACCHAROMYCES, family Saccharomycetaceae, order Saccharomycetales, known as \"baker's\" or \"brewer's\" yeast. The dried form is used as a dietary supplement.. Cryptococcus neoformans defined as following: An acute or chronic, localized or disseminated infection by Cryptococcus neoformans. Sites of involvement include the lungs, central nervous system and meninges, skin, and visceral organs.--2004. systemic infection defined as following: Systemic inflammatory response syndrome with a proven or suspected infectious etiology. When sepsis is associated with organ dysfunction distant from the site of infection, it is called severe sepsis. When sepsis is accompanied by HYPOTENSION despite adequate fluid infusion, it is called SEPTIC SHOCK.. meningitis defined as following: Inflammation of the coverings of the brain and/or spinal cord, which consist of the PIA MATER; ARACHNOID; and DURA MATER. Infections (viral, bacterial, and fungal) are the most common causes of this condition, but subarachnoid hemorrhage (HEMORRHAGES, SUBARACHNOID), chemical irritation (chemical MENINGITIS), granulomatous conditions, neoplastic conditions (CARCINOMATOUS MENINGITIS), and other inflammatory conditions may produce this syndrome. (From Joynt, Clinical Neurology, 1994, Ch24, p6). meninges defined as following: The three membranes that cover the BRAIN and the SPINAL CORD. They are the dura mater, the arachnoid, and the pia mater.. cutaneous infections defined as following: Infections of the skin that happen multiple times. [HPO:curators]. skin infections defined as following: Skin diseases caused by bacteria, fungi, parasites, or viruses..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_1408", "sentence1": "Could Catecholaminergic Polymorphic Ventricular Tachycardia (CPVT) cause sudden cardiac death?", "sentence2": "Here we refine our approach, and apply it to novel variants found in 2266 patients across two large cohorts with inherited sudden death syndromes, namely catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (CPVT) or Brugada syndrome (BrS)., Calsequestrin-associated catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (CPVT2) can cause sudden death in young individuals in response to stress. , Catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (CPVT) is an inherited arrhythmogenic cardiac disorder characterized by life-threatening arrhythmias induced by physical or emotional stress, in the absence structural heart abnormalities. The arrhythmias may cause syncope or degenerate into cardiac arrest and sudden death which usually occurs during childhood, In many cases the cause of death can be elucidated by medico-legal autopsy, however, a significant number of these cases remain unexplained despite a detailed postmortem investigation and are labeled as sudden unexplained death (SUD). Post-mortem genetic testing, so called molecular autopsy, revealed that primary arrhythmogenic disorders including long QT syndrome and catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (CPVT) may account for a certain number of these cases., We report a family with repeat events of sudden cardiac death and recurrent ventricular fibrillation in a teenage girl, where autopsy data and clinical investigations were inconclusive. The diagnosis of catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (CPVT) was established only following finding a gene mutation in the cardiac ryano, Catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (CPVT) is a devastating inherited disorder characterized by episodic syncope and/or sudden cardiac arrest during exercise or acute emotion in individuals without structural cardiac abnormalities. Although rare, CPVT is suspected to cause a substantial part of sudden cardiac deaths in young individuals. , In conclusion, patients with CASQ2-associated CPVT should be recommended to receive ICDs to prevent sudden death when medical therapy is not effective., Cardiac channelopathies associated with structurally normal hearts such as long QT syndrome (LQTS), catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (CPVT), and Brugada syndrome (BrS) yield no evidence to be found at autopsy, leaving coroners, medical examiners, and forensic pathologists only to speculate that a lethal arrhythmia might lie at the heart of a sudden unexplained death (SUD)., Catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (CPVT) is a rare adrenergically mediated arrhythmogenic disorder classically induced by exercise or emotional stress and found in structurally normal hearts. It is an important cause of cardiac syncope and sudden death in childhood., We also compare CPVT to other notable cardiomyopathic and channelopathic causes of sudden death in youth including hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia, long QT syndrome, short QT syndrome, and Brugada syndrome., Catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (CPVT) is an inherited arrhythmogenic disease that can cause sudden cardiac death due to ventricular fibrillation (VF)., Catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (CPVT) is an arrhythmogenic disease that manifests as syncope or sudden death during high adrenergic tone in the absence of structural heart defects., Catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (CPVT) is a cardiac channelopathy characterized by altered intracellular calcium handling resulting in ventricular arrhythmias and high risk of cardiac sudden death in young cases with normal structural hearts, Early detection of CPVT is crucial because opportune medical intervention prevents sudden cardiac death. , If untreated, CPVT is highly lethal, as approximately 30% of affected individuals experience at least one cardiac arrest and up to 80% one or more syncopal spells. Sudden death may be the first manifestation of the disease. , Hereditary non-structural diseases such as catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (CPVT), long QT, and the Brugada syndrome as well as structural disease such as hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) and arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy (ARVC) cause a significant percentage of sudden cardiac deaths in the young, Patients with CPVT present with exercise-induced syncope and sudden cardiac death but normal resting electrocardiograms., Although structural cardiovascular abnormalities explain most cases of sudden cardiac death in young people, the cause of death remains unexplained after autopsy in 10% to 30% of cases. Potentially lethal ion channel disorders (channelopathies) such as the long QT syndromes (LQTS), catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (CPVT), and the Brugada syndrome (BrS) may account for at least one-third of these unexplained cases. , Based on these data, we propose that CPVT is a combined neurocardiac disorder in which leaky RyR2 channels in the brain cause epilepsy, and the same leaky channels in the heart cause exercise-induced sudden cardiac death., The inherited arrhythmogenic diseases associated with the transmembranous ionic channels, anchoring proteins or intracellular calcium regulating proteins are thought to be responsible for sudden cardiac death in infants, children, and young adults who have structurally normal hearts. Recent genetic analyses have identified congenital diseases such as the long-QT syndrome (LQTS), the Jervell and Lange-Nielsen syndrome (JLNS), the Brugada syndrome (BrS), the short-QT syndrome (SQTS), the arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy type 2 (ARVC2), and the catecholamine-induced polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (CPVT) /familial polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (FPVT). , At least some cases of sudden, unexplained death in young individuals may be ascribed to CPVT[SEP]Relations: catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia has relations: disease_phenotype_positive with Sudden cardiac death, disease_phenotype_positive with Sudden cardiac death, disease_phenotype_positive with Sudden death, disease_phenotype_positive with Sudden death, disease_phenotype_positive with Cardiac arrest, disease_phenotype_positive with Cardiac arrest. Sudden cardiac death has relations: disease_phenotype_positive with catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia, disease_phenotype_positive with catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia. Sudden death has relations: disease_phenotype_positive with catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia, disease_phenotype_positive with catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia. Definitions: BrS defined as following: A scale developed by Smith, et al, designed to assess an individual's ability to recover from stressful circumstances.. cardiac abnormalities defined as following: Developmental abnormalities involving structures of the heart. These defects are present at birth but may be discovered later in life.. CPVT2 defined as following: An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the CASQ2 gene, encoding calsequestrin-2. It is characterized by a relative resting bradycardia and a slight prolongation of the QTc interval. Polymorphic ventricular tachycardia may be induced with exercise stress testing or isoproterenol infusion.. arrhythmia defined as following: Any disturbances of the normal rhythmic beating of the heart or MYOCARDIAL CONTRACTION. Cardiac arrhythmias can be classified by the abnormalities in HEART RATE, disorders of electrical impulse generation, or impulse conduction.. epilepsy defined as following: A disorder characterized by recurrent episodes of paroxysmal brain dysfunction due to a sudden, disorderly, and excessive neuronal discharge. Epilepsy classification systems are generally based upon: (1) clinical features of the seizure episodes (e.g., motor seizure), (2) etiology (e.g., post-traumatic), (3) anatomic site of seizure origin (e.g., frontal lobe seizure), (4) tendency to spread to other structures in the brain, and (5) temporal patterns (e.g., nocturnal epilepsy). (From Adams et al., Principles of Neurology, 6th ed, p313). ICDs defined as following: Implantable devices which continuously monitor the electrical activity of the heart and automatically detect and terminate ventricular tachycardia (TACHYCARDIA, VENTRICULAR) and VENTRICULAR FIBRILLATION. They consist of an impulse generator, batteries, and electrodes.. ventricular arrhythmias defined as following: A disorder characterized by an electrocardiographic finding of an atypical cardiac rhythm resulting from a pathologic process in the cardiac ventricles.. sudden death defined as following: The abrupt cessation of all vital bodily functions, manifested by the permanent loss of total cerebral, respiratory, and cardiovascular functions.. cardiac arrest defined as following: Cessation of heart beat or MYOCARDIAL CONTRACTION. If it is treated within a few minutes, heart arrest can be reversed in most cases to normal cardiac rhythm and effective circulation.. proteins defined as following: Linear POLYPEPTIDES that are synthesized on RIBOSOMES and may be further modified, crosslinked, cleaved, or assembled into complex proteins with several subunits. The specific sequence of AMINO ACIDS determines the shape the polypeptide will take, during PROTEIN FOLDING, and the function of the protein.. HCM defined as following: A form of CARDIAC MUSCLE disease, characterized by left and/or right ventricular hypertrophy (HYPERTROPHY, LEFT VENTRICULAR; HYPERTROPHY, RIGHT VENTRICULAR), frequent asymmetrical involvement of the HEART SEPTUM, and normal or reduced left ventricular volume. Risk factors include HYPERTENSION; AORTIC STENOSIS; and gene MUTATION; (FAMILIAL HYPERTROPHIC CARDIOMYOPATHY).. sudden cardiac death defined as following: Unexpected rapid natural death due to cardiovascular collapse within one hour of initial symptoms. It is usually caused by the worsening of existing heart diseases. The sudden onset of symptoms, such as CHEST PAIN and CARDIAC ARRHYTHMIAS, particularly VENTRICULAR TACHYCARDIA, can lead to the loss of consciousness and cardiac arrest followed by biological death. (from Braunwald's Heart Disease: A Textbook of Cardiovascular Medicine, 7th ed., 2005). polymorphic defined as following: The quality or state of being able to assume different forms.. SQTS defined as following: Ventricular tachyarrhythmias occurring in association with short QT syndrome.. congenital diseases defined as following: existing at, and usually before, birth; referring to conditions that are present at birth, regardless of their causation; inborn metabolism disorders are generally not treed here.. arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy defined as following: A congenital cardiomyopathy that is characterized by infiltration of adipose and fibrous tissue into the RIGHT VENTRICLE wall and loss of myocardial cells. Primary injuries usually are at the free wall of right ventricular and right atria resulting in ventricular and supraventricular arrhythmias.. cardiovascular abnormalities defined as following: Congenital, inherited, or acquired anomalies of the CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM, including the HEART and BLOOD VESSELS.. calcium defined as following: A dietary supplement containing the mineral calcium.. long QT syndrome defined as following: A condition that is characterized by episodes of fainting (SYNCOPE) and varying degree of ventricular arrhythmia as indicated by the prolonged QT interval. The inherited forms are caused by mutation of genes encoding cardiac ion channel proteins. The two major forms are ROMANO-WARD SYNDROME and JERVELL-LANGE NIELSEN SYNDROME.. ventricular tachycardia defined as following: An electrocardiographic finding of three or more consecutive complexes of ventricular organ with a rate greater than a certain threshold (100 or 120 beats per minute are commonly used). The QRS complexes are wide and have an abnormal morphology. (CDISC). ventricular fibrillation defined as following: An electrocardiographic finding of a rapid grossly irregular ventricular rhythm with marked variability in QRS cycle length, morphology, and amplitude. The rate is typically greater than 300 bpm. (CDISC). Brugada syndrome defined as following: An autosomal dominant defect of cardiac conduction that is characterized by an abnormal ST-segment in leads V1-V3 on the ELECTROCARDIOGRAM resembling a right BUNDLE-BRANCH BLOCK; high risk of VENTRICULAR TACHYCARDIA; or VENTRICULAR FIBRILLATION; SYNCOPAL EPISODE; and possible sudden death. This syndrome is linked to mutations of gene encoding the cardiac SODIUM CHANNEL alpha subunit.. sudden cardiac arrest defined as following: Sudden suspension of cardiac activity that is usually due to ARRHYTHMIA, in contrast to heart attack (MYOCARDIAL INFARCTION) which occurs due to blockage. The sudden suspension of cardiac activity generally requires RESUSCITATION.. variants defined as following: An alteration or difference from a norm or standard.. gene mutation defined as following: A change in the nucleotide sequence of the TAF1 gene.. cardiac channelopathy defined as following: A disorder that affects the myocardial ion channels, altering the electrical properties of the heart and changing the ECG and/or predisposing the subject to pro-arrhythmic events.. channelopathies defined as following: A variety of neuromuscular conditions resulting from MUTATIONS in ION CHANNELS manifesting as episodes of EPILEPSY; HEADACHE DISORDERS; and DYSKINESIAS.. LQTS defined as following: A rare group of genetic, cardiac rhythm diseases characterized by a prolongation of the QT interval at basal electrocardiography (ECG) and by a high risk of life-threatening arrhythmias.. CPVT defined as following: An electrocardiographic finding of ventricular tachycardia that is associated with syncope and/or cardiac arrest triggered by emotion or exercise in patients whose baseline ECG is normal. (ACC). Lange-Nielsen syndrome defined as following: A form of long QT syndrome that is associated with congenital deafness. It is characterized by abnormal cardioelectrophysiology involving the VOLTAGE-GATED POTASSIUM CHANNEL. It results from mutation of KCNQ1 gene (Subtype 1 or JLN1) or the KCNE1 gene (Subtype 2 or JLN2).. Ventricular Tachycardia defined as following: An electrocardiographic finding of three or more consecutive complexes of ventricular organ with a rate greater than a certain threshold (100 or 120 beats per minute are commonly used). The QRS complexes are wide and have an abnormal morphology. (CDISC).", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_509", "sentence1": "Is phospholamban a regulatory/inhibitory protein of the Ca ATPase SERCA?", "sentence2": "The membrane protein complex between the sarcoplasmic reticulum Ca(2+)-ATPase (SERCA) and phospholamban (PLN) controls Ca(2+) transport in cardiomyocytes, thereby modulating cardiac contractility. β-Adrenergic-stimulated phosphorylation of PLN at Ser-16 enhances SERCA activity via an unknown mechanism., Phospholamban (PLN) is a type II membrane protein that inhibits the sarcoplasmic reticulum Ca(2+)-ATPase (SERCA), thereby regulating calcium homeostasis in cardiac muscle. In membranes, PLN forms pentamers that have been proposed to function either as a storage for active monomers or as ion channels., Regulation of the SERCA calcium pump by phospholamban (PLB) is largely due to interactions between their respective transmembrane domains. In spite of numerous mutagenesis and kinetic studies, we still do not have a clear mechanistic picture of how PLB influences the calcium transport cycle of SERCA., Calcium transport across the membrane of the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) plays an important role in the regulation of heart muscle contraction and relaxation. The sarco(endo)plasmic reticulum Ca(2+) ATPase (SERCA) 2a is responsible for Ca(2+) up-take by this organelle and is inhibited in a reversible manner by phospholamban, another SR membrane protein. Thus, alleviation of phospholamban-mediated inhibition of SERCA2a is a potential therapeutic option for heart failure and cardiomyopathy., Phospholamban has been suggested to be a key regulator of cardiac sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) Ca cycling and contractility and a potential therapeutic target in restoring the depressed Ca cycling in failing hearts., In larger mammals, a higher fraction of SERCA2a pumps are regulated by phospholamban, and this may influence therapeutic strategies to enhance cardiac contractility and functional cardiac reserve., Phospholamban (PLB) inhibits the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) Ca(2+)-ATPase (SERCA), and this inhibition is relieved by Ca(2+) calmodulin-dependent protein kinase II (CaM kinase II) phosphorylation, These findings suggest that PLB is an important modulator of gastric antrum smooth muscle contractility by modulation of SR Ca(2+) release and CaM kinase II activity., The function of the SERCA pump is modulated by the endogenous molecules phospholamban (PLB) and sarcolipin (SLN), expressed in cardiac and skeletal muscles. The mechanism of action of PLB on SERCA is well characterized, whereas that of SLN is only beginning to be understood. , Phospholamban (PLB) is an inhibitor of the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) Ca2+-ATPase (SERCA)., These results show that alteration of the PLB:SERCA ratio can significantly modulate smooth muscle [Ca2+]i., Phospholamban expressed in cardiac muscle and sarcolipin expressed in skeletal muscle regulate SERCA activity., Phospholamban (PLB) is a 24- to 27-kDa phosphoprotein that modulates activity of the sarco(endo)plasmic reticulum Ca2+ ATPase (SERCA). Expression of PLB is reportedly limited to cardiac, slow-twitch skeletal and smooth muscle in which PLB is an important regulator of [Ca2+]i and contractility in these muscles., Regulation of the sarco(endo)plasmic reticulum Ca2+-ATPase (SERCA 2a) depends on the phosphorylation state of phospholamban (PLB). When PLB is phosphorylated, its inhibitory effect towards SERCA 2a is relieved, leading to an enhanced myocardial performance. , Ca(2+) reuptake occurs via sarcoendoplasmic reticulum Ca(2+) ATPase (SERCA) and is regulated by the inhibitory protein phospholamban (PLB) in many cell types., Phospholamban (PLN) is a small integral membrane protein, which binds and inhibits in a yet unknown fashion the Ca(2+)-ATPase (SERCA) in the sarcoplasmic reticulum., Phospholamban (PLN) is the endogenous inhibitor of the sarco(endo)plasmic reticulum Ca(2+)-ATPase (SERCA), the integral membrane enzyme responsible for 70�% of the removal of Ca(2+) from the cytosol, inducing cardiac muscle relaxation in humans., Phospholamban (PLB) is an integral membrane protein regulating Ca(2+) transport through inhibitory interaction with sarco(endo)plasmic reticulum calcium ATPase (SERCA)., Phosphorylation by protein kinase A and dephosphorylation by protein phosphatase 1 modulate the inhibitory activity of phospholamban (PLN), the endogenous regulator of the sarco(endo)plasmic reticulum calcium Ca(2+) ATPase (SERCA)., Phosphorylation by protein kinase A and dephosphorylation by protein phosphatase 1 modulate the inhibitory activity of phospholamban (PLN), the endogenous regulator of the sarco(endo)plasmic reticulum calcium Ca(2+) ATPase (SERCA), We used EPR spectroscopy to probe directly the interaction between phospholamban (PLB) and its regulatory target, the sarcoplasmic reticulum Ca-ATPase (SERCA)[SEP]Relations: phosphoprotein phosphatase activity has relations: molfunc_protein with PPP2CA, molfunc_protein with PPP2CA, molfunc_protein with PPP1CA, molfunc_protein with PPP1CA, molfunc_protein with PTEN, molfunc_protein with PTEN, molfunc_protein with PPP5C, molfunc_protein with PPP5C. membrane has relations: cellcomp_protein with CACNB3, cellcomp_protein with CACNB3. Definitions: Phospholamban defined as following: free sarcoplasmic reticulum polymeric proteolipid which modulates sarcoplasmic reticulum function; phosphorylated by cAMP-dependent, calcium-calmodulin-dependent, and calcium-phospholipid-dependent protein kinases.. organelle defined as following: Cell part which consists of macromolecules aggregated into discrete structures in the protoplasm. (Digital Anatomist Foundational Model). cardiomyocytes defined as following: Striated muscle cells found in the heart. They are derived from cardiac myoblasts (MYOBLASTS, CARDIAC).. mutagenesis defined as following: Production of genetic alterations by any technique, including chemicals, radiation, recombination, or other molecular biology methods.. CaM kinase II defined as following: A multifunctional calcium-calmodulin-dependent protein kinase subtype that occurs as an oligomeric protein comprised of twelve subunits. It differs from other enzyme subtypes in that it lacks a phosphorylatable activation domain that can respond to CALCIUM-CALMODULIN-DEPENDENT PROTEIN KINASE KINASE.. heart failure defined as following: Heart failure accompanied by EDEMA, such as swelling of the legs and ankles and congestion in the lungs.. skeletal muscles defined as following: A subtype of striated muscle, attached by TENDONS to the SKELETON. Skeletal muscles are innervated and their movement can be consciously controlled. They are also called voluntary muscles.. cardiomyopathy defined as following: A group of diseases in which the dominant feature is the involvement of the CARDIAC MUSCLE itself. Cardiomyopathies are classified according to their predominant pathophysiological features (DILATED CARDIOMYOPATHY; HYPERTROPHIC CARDIOMYOPATHY; RESTRICTIVE CARDIOMYOPATHY) or their etiological/pathological factors (CARDIOMYOPATHY, ALCOHOLIC; ENDOCARDIAL FIBROELASTOSIS).. protein kinase A defined as following: A group of enzymes that are dependent on CYCLIC AMP and catalyze the phosphorylation of SERINE or THREONINE residues on proteins. Included under this category are two cyclic-AMP-dependent protein kinase subtypes, each of which is defined by its subunit composition.. smooth muscle defined as following: Unstriated and unstriped muscle, one of the muscles of the internal organs, blood vessels, hair follicles, etc. Contractile elements are elongated, usually spindle-shaped cells with centrally located nuclei. Smooth muscle fibers are bound together into sheets or bundles by reticular fibers and frequently elastic nets are also abundant. (From Stedman, 25th ed). sarcoplasmic reticulum defined as following: A network of tubules and sacs in the cytoplasm of SKELETAL MUSCLE FIBERS that assist with muscle contraction and relaxation by releasing and storing calcium ions.. membrane protein defined as following: Proteins which are found in membranes including cellular and intracellular membranes. They consist of two types, peripheral and integral proteins. They include most membrane-associated enzymes, antigenic proteins, transport proteins, and drug, hormone, and lectin receptors.. membranes defined as following: Thin layers of tissue which cover parts of the body, separate adjacent cavities, or connect adjacent structures.. muscles defined as following: Contractile tissue that produces movement in animals.. SR defined as following: Human SNCG wild-type allele is located within10q23.2-q23.3 and is approximately 13 kb in length. This allele, which encodes gamma-synuclein protein, plays a role in the modulation of axonal architecture and neurofilament integrity. This gene is highly expessed in advanced breast carcinomas, suggesting a correlation between SNCG overexpression and breast tumor development.. sarcoplasmic reticulum Ca(2+)-ATPase defined as following: Calcium-transporting ATPases that catalyze the active transport of CALCIUM into the SARCOPLASMIC RETICULUM vesicles from the CYTOPLASM. They are primarily found in MUSCLE CELLS and play a role in the relaxation of MUSCLES.. protein phosphatase 1 defined as following: A group of enzymes removing the SERINE- or THREONINE-bound phosphate groups from a wide range of phosphoproteins, including a number of enzymes which have been phosphorylated under the action of a kinase. (Enzyme Nomenclature, 1992). heart muscle defined as following: The muscle tissue of the HEART. It is composed of striated, involuntary muscle cells (MYOCYTES, CARDIAC) connected to form the contractile pump to generate blood flow.. cytosol defined as following: Intracellular fluid from the cytoplasm after removal of ORGANELLES and other insoluble cytoplasmic components.. integral membrane protein defined as following: The component of the endoplasmic reticulum membrane consisting of the gene products and protein complexes having at least some part of their peptide sequence embedded in the hydrophobic region of the membrane. [GOC:dos, GOC:mah]. mammals defined as following: Warm-blooded vertebrate animals belonging to the class Mammalia, including all that possess hair and suckle their young.. humans defined as following: Members of the species Homo sapiens.. membrane defined as following: A device that is made from or resembles a thin flexible sheet of material.. integral membrane defined as following: The component of a membrane consisting of the gene products and protein complexes having at least some part of their peptide sequence embedded in the hydrophobic region of the membrane. [GOC:dos, GOC:go_curators].", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_3362", "sentence1": "Is CTCF bound at nucleosome free regions?", "sentence2": "Nucleosome depletion at 5'-HS4 was dependent on interaction of the insulator protein CCCTC-binding factor (CTCF) and was required for enhancer blocking. , Here, we show that promoter classes are significantly differentiated by nucleosome organization and chromatin structure. Dispersed promoters display higher associations with well-positioned nucleosomes downstream of the TSS and a more clearly defined nucleosome free region upstream, while focused promoters have a less organized nucleosome structure, yet higher presence of RNA polymerase II., hese differences extend to histone variants (H2A.Z) and marks (H3K4 methylation), as well as insulator binding (such as CTCF), independent of the expression levels of affected genes., nucleosome occupancy at nucleosome-free regions (NFRs), many of which are located at sites occupied by the multivalent factors Ctcf and cohesin. , This general architectural change correlates with enhanced binding of CTCF and cohesins and more pronounced insulation of contacts across chromatin boundaries in lineage-committed cells. , robust inter-nucleosomal interactions exist around transcription start site (TSS), transcription termination sites (TTS) or around CTCF binding sites[SEP]Relations: nucleosome has relations: cellcomp_protein with IRF4, cellcomp_protein with IRF4, cellcomp_protein with CENPA, cellcomp_protein with CENPA, cellcomp_protein with H3C15, cellcomp_protein with H3C15, cellcomp_protein with H3C14, cellcomp_protein with H3C14, cellcomp_protein with H4C15, cellcomp_protein with H4C15. Definitions: H2A.Z defined as following: Human H2AZ1 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 4q24 and is approximately 2 kb in length. This allele, which encodes histone H2A.Z protein, plays a role in chromatin packaging.. nucleosomes defined as following: The repeating structural units of chromatin, each consisting of approximately 200 base pairs of DNA wound around a protein core. This core is composed of the histones H2A, H2B, H3, and H4.. TSS defined as following: A rare acute life-threatening systemic bacterial noncontagious illness caused by any of several related staphylococcal exotoxins. It is characterized by high fever, hypotension, rash, multi-organ dysfunction, and cutaneous desquamation during the early convalescent period. The toxins affect the host immune system, causing an exuberant and pathological host inflammatory response. Laboratory findings include leukocytosis, elevated prothrombin time, hypoalbuminemia, hypocalcemia, and pyuria.. CTCF defined as following: CCN family member 2 (349 aa, ~38kDa) is encoded by the human CCN2 gene. This protein plays a role in the promotion of proliferation and differentiation of chondrocytes and also mediates heparin- and divalent cation-dependent cell adhesion in many different cell types.. RNA polymerase II defined as following: A DNA-dependent RNA polymerase present in bacterial, plant, and animal cells. It functions in the nucleoplasmic structure and transcribes DNA into RNA. It has different requirements for cations and salt than RNA polymerase I and is strongly inhibited by alpha-amanitin. EC 2.7.7.6.. sites defined as following: A position in relation to its surroundings.. transcription start site defined as following: The first nucleotide of a transcribed DNA sequence where RNA polymerase (DNA-DIRECTED RNA POLYMERASE) begins synthesizing the RNA transcript.. promoters defined as following: A DNA sequence at which RNA polymerase binds and initiates transcription.. H3K4 defined as following: The lysine residue found at amino acid position 4 in the histone H3 protein. Methylation of this residue may be a marker for transcriptionally active genes.. enhancer defined as following: A 50-150bp DNA sequence that increases the rate of transcription of coding sequences. It may be located at various distances and in either orientation upstream from, downstream from or within a structural gene. When bound by a specific transcription factor it increases the levels of expression of the gene, but is not sufficient alone to cause expression. Distinguished from a promoter, that is alone sufficient to cause expression of the gene when bound.. binding sites defined as following: The parts of a macromolecule that directly participate in its specific combination with another molecule.. Nucleosome defined as following: A complex comprised of DNA wound around a multisubunit core and associated proteins, which forms the primary packing unit of DNA into higher order structures. [GOC:elh]. genes defined as following: A category of nucleic acid sequences that function as units of heredity and which code for the basic instructions for the development, reproduction, and maintenance of organisms..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_2476", "sentence1": "Can canagliflozin cause euglycemic diabetic ketoacidosis?", "sentence2": "CASE REPORT: We present a case of a 57-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus taking a combination of canagliflozin and metformin who presented with progressive altered mental status over the previous 2 days. Her work-up demonstrated a metabolic acidosis with an anion gap of 38 and a venous serum pH of 7.08. The serum glucose was 168 mg/dL. The urinalysis showed glucose>500 mg/dL and ketones of 80 mg/dL. Further evaluation demonstrated an elevated serum osmolality of 319 mOsm/kg and an acetone concentration of 93 mg/dL. She was treated with intravenous insulin and fluids, and the metabolic abnormalities and her altered mental status resolved within 36 h. This was the first episode of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) for this patient. WHY SHOULD AN EMERGENCY PHYSICIAN BE AWARE OF THIS?: Diabetic patients on SGLT2 inhibitor medications are at risk for ketoacidosis. Due to the renal glucose-wasting properties of these drugs, they may present with ketoacidosis with only mild elevations in serum glucose, potentially complicating the diagnosis. , Euglycemic Diabetic Ketoacidosis with Persistent Diuresis Treated with Canagliflozin., We herein report the case of a 27-year-old Asian woman with type 2 diabetes who was treated with a sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitor (canagliflozin) who developed euglycemic diabetic ketoacidosis and persistent diuresis in the absence of hyperglycemia., Canagliflozin raised the risk of amputations and the rate of fractures in the CANVAS trial, although more data are necessary before drawing definite conclusions. The risk of euglycemic diabetic ketoacidosis seems to be minimal when the drugs are prescribed properly., Severe Ketoacidosis Associated with Canagliflozin (Invokana): A Safety Concern., However, some serious side effects, including severe anion gap metabolic acidosis and euglycemic diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), have been reported. , At present, the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has only approved three medications (canagliflozin, dapagliflozin and empagliflozin) in this drug class for the management of Type 2 diabetes. In May 2015, the FDA issued a warning of ketoacidosis with use of this drug class., We present a case of euglycemic diabetic ketoacidosis secondary to canagliflozin in a type 2 diabetic patient., Nonconvulsive Status Epilepticus in Elderly Patients Receiving SSRIs; Euglycemic Diabetic Ketoacidosis Associated with Canagliflozin Use in a Type 1 Diabetic Patient; Duloxetine-Induced Galactorrhea; Canagliflozin-Associated Severe Hypercalcemia and Hypernatremia; Vemurafenib-Induced Fanconi Syndrome., Euglycemic Diabetic Ketoacidosis in a 27 year-old female patient with type-1-Diabetes treated with sodium-glucose cotransporter-2 (SGLT2) inhibitor Canagliflozin., We are reporting a timely case of atypical euglycemic diabetic ketoacidosis in a type 1 diabetic patient treated with sodium-glucose cotransporter-2 (SGLT-2) inhibitor canagliflozin., Euglycemic ketoacidosis did not recur in our patient after discontinuing canagliflozin. , Euglycemic Diabetic Ketoacidosis With Prolonged Glucosuria Associated With the Sodium-Glucose Cotransporter-2 Canagliflozin., In this article, we present a case of a 50-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes who developed euglycemic DKA after initiating therapy with canagliflozin. , SGLT2 inhibitors such as canagliflozin may predispose patients not only to diabetic ketoacidosis but also to prolonged glucosuria., We present a case of euglycemic diabetic ketoacidosis secondary to canagliflozin in a type 2 diabetic patient.
, We present a case of euglycemic diabetic ketoacidosis secondary to canagliflozin in a type 2 diabetic patient., CONCLUSION Treatment with canagliflozin was associated with development of euglycemic ketoacidosis., Euglycemic Diabetic Ketoacidosis with Persistent Diuresis Treated with Canagliflozin., We present a case of euglycemic diabetic ketoacidosis secondary to canagliflozin in a type 2 diabetic patient.., Euglycemic Diabetic Ketoacidosis With Prolonged Glucosuria Associated With the Sodium-Glucose Cotransporter-2 Canagliflozin., Euglycemic Diabetic Ketoacidosis in a 27 year-old female patient with type-1-Diabetes treated with sodium-glucose cotransporter-2 (SGLT2) inhibitor Canagliflozin.[SEP]Relations: Canagliflozin has relations: drug_drug with Carbetocin, drug_drug with Carbetocin, drug_drug with Ketobemidone, drug_drug with Ketobemidone. diabetic ketoacidosis has relations: contraindication with Norfloxacin, contraindication with Norfloxacin, contraindication with Inositol, contraindication with Inositol, contraindication with Inositol nicotinate, contraindication with Inositol nicotinate. Definitions: renal defined as following: Body organ that filters blood for the secretion of URINE and that regulates ion concentrations.. SSRIs defined as following: Any agent that increases the extracellular level of the neurotransmitter serotonin (5-HT) by inhibiting its reuptake into the presynaptic cell. Increased level in the synaptic cleft prolongs the action of 5-HT on the postsynaptic receptor. This type of agent is typically used as an antidepressant and in the treatment of anxiety disorders and some personality disorders. They are also typically effective and used in treating some cases of insomnia.. metformin defined as following: A biguanide hypoglycemic agent used in the treatment of non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus not responding to dietary modification. Metformin improves glycemic control by improving insulin sensitivity and decreasing intestinal absorption of glucose. (From Martindale, The Extra Pharmacopoeia, 30th ed, p289). DKA defined as following: A life-threatening complication of diabetes mellitus, primarily of TYPE 1 DIABETES MELLITUS with severe INSULIN deficiency and extreme HYPERGLYCEMIA. It is characterized by KETOSIS; DEHYDRATION; and depressed consciousness leading to COMA.. ketones defined as following: Organic compounds containing a carbonyl group =C=O bonded to two hydrocarbon groups.. Canagliflozin defined as following: A C-glucoside with a thiophene ring that is an orally available inhibitor of sodium-glucose transporter 2 (SGLT2) with antihyperglycemic activity. Canagliflozin is also able to reduce body weight and has a low risk for hypoglycemia.. ketoacidosis defined as following: Acidosis resulting from accumulation of ketone bodies. [HPO:probinson]. sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 defined as following: The founding member of the sodium glucose transport proteins. It is predominately expressed in the INTESTINAL MUCOSA of the SMALL INTESTINE.. acetone defined as following: A colorless liquid used as a solvent and an antiseptic. It is one of the ketone bodies produced during ketoacidosis.. empagliflozin defined as following: An orally available competitive inhibitor of sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 (SGLT2; SLC5A2) with antihyperglycemic activity. Upon oral administration, empagliflozin selectively and potently inhibits SGLT2 in the kidneys, thereby suppressing the reabsorption of glucose in the proximal tubule. Inhibition of SGLT2 increases urinary glucose excretion by the kidneys, resulting in a reduction of plasma glucose levels in an insulin-independent manner. Inhibition of SGLT2 in the kidneys also suppresses the renal reabsorption of 1,5-anhydroglucitol (1,5AG). This lowers serum 1,5AG and neutrophil 1,5-anhydroglucitol-6-phosphate (1,5AG6P) levels, which may improve neutropenia and neutrophil dysfunction in patients with glycogen storage disease type Ib (GSD Ib). SGLT2, a transport protein exclusively expressed in the proximal renal tubules, mediates approximately 90% of renal glucose reabsorption from tubular fluid.. dapagliflozin defined as following: A selective sodium-glucose co-transporter subtype 2 (SGLT2) inhibitor with antihyperglycemic activity. Dapagliflozin selectively and potently inhibits SGLT2 compared to SGLT1, which is the cotransporter of glucose in the gut.. Hypernatremia defined as following: Higher than normal levels of sodium in the circulating blood.. SGLT2 defined as following: Human SLC5A2 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 16p11.2 and is approximately 8 kb in length. This allele, which encodes sodium/glucose cotransporter 2 protein, plays a role in sodium-dependent glucose transport. Mutation of the gene is associated with renal glucosuria.. glucosuria defined as following: The appearance of an abnormally large amount of GLUCOSE in the urine, such as more than 500 mg/day in adults. It can be due to HYPERGLYCEMIA or genetic defects in renal reabsorption (RENAL GLYCOSURIA).. woman defined as following: An adult, female human.. Type 2 diabetes defined as following: A type of diabetes mellitus that is characterized by insulin resistance or desensitization and increased blood glucose levels. This is a chronic disease that can develop gradually over the life of a patient and can be linked to both environmental factors and heredity.. Hypercalcemia defined as following: Abnormally high level of calcium in the blood.. amputations defined as following: The surgical removal of part of, or all of, a limb or other appendage or outgrowth of the body.. metabolic acidosis defined as following: Increased acidity in the blood secondary to acid base imbalance. Causes include diabetes, kidney failure and shock.. fractures defined as following: A traumatic injury to the bone in which the continuity of the bone is broken..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_1941", "sentence1": "Is NSD-1015 an inhibitor of Aromatic L-Amino Acid Decarboxylase?", "sentence2": "When pretreated with a central AADC inhibitor (NSD-1015), further application of l-dopa failed to increase the motoneuron activity although the expression of DA in the AADC cells was not completely inhibited. , Inhibition of Ddc by AADC inhibitor NSD-1015 or anti-sense morpholino oligonucleotides (MO) reduced brain volume and body length. , We evaluated this in vivo by reverse dialysis of the aromatic-l-amino-acid decarboxylase (EC 4.1.1.28) inhibitor NSD-1015 (20μM) and selected concentrations of l- or d-tyrosine. , Neurochemical study of effects of the new anxiolytic drugs afobazol and ladasten on the synthesis and metabolism of monoamines and their metabolites in the brain structures of Wistar rat on the model of monoamine synthesis blockade induced by aromatic amino acid decarboxylase inhibitor NSD-1015, To establish the neurotransmitter role(s) of L-3,4-dihydroxyphenylalanine (DOPA) in its own right, we attempted to clarify whether i.p. injection of a DOPA antagonist, DOPA cyclohexyl ester (CHE), would antagonize the behavioral responses of conscious rats to DOPA in the presence of 3-hydroxybenzylhydrazine (NSD-1015) (100 mg/kg i.p.), a central aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase (AADC) inhibitor., TH and TPH activities were determined in tissue extracts by measuring the accumulation of L-Dopa and 5-HTP respectively, following the administration of the aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase inhibitor, NSD-1015. , Results of a neurochemical study of the effects of the new anxiolytic drugs afobazole and ladasten on the synthesis and metabolism of monoamines and their metabolites determined by HPLC on the model of monoamine synthesis blockade induced by NSD-1015 (aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase) in the brain structures of Wistar rats are reported. , . When pretreated with a central AADC inhibitor (NSD-1015), NSD 1015 (general AADC inhibitor), monoamine synthesis blockade induced by NSD-1015 (aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase) , the aromatic-l-amino-acid decarboxylase (EC 4.1.1.28) inhibitor NSD-1015, An accumulation of L-dihydroxyphenylalanine (DOPA) in the median eminence of female rats treated with 3-hydroxybenzylhydrazine (NSD 1015), and inhibitor of aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase (DOPA decarboxylase) activity, was associated with a decreased concentration of dopamine in the median eminence and pronounced reduction in the release of dopamine into hypophysial portal blood., 6S-BH4 increased extracellular DOPA levels in the presence of NSD 1015, an inhibitor of aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase (an index of in vivo tyrosine hydroxylase activity), to an extent similar to the increase induced by 6R-BH4., 5-HT synthesis was estimated by measuring the accumulation of the 5-HT precursor, 5-hydroxytryptophan (5-HTP), in the neurointermediate lobe of male Long-Evans rats following the administration of NSD 1015, an inhibitor of aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase., Monoamine synthesis was studied in different parts of the brain by measuring the accumulated dopa and 5-hydroxytryptophan (5-HTP), 30 min after NSD 1015 (3-hydroxybenzylhydrazine HCl, 100 mg/kg) an inhibitor of aromatic L-amino-acid decarboxylase, given i.p., HPLC coupled with electrochemical detection was used to make concurrent measurements of the rate of accumulation of 5-hydroxytryptophan and 3,4-dihydroxyphenylalanine in selected brain regions (striatum, nucleus accumbens, septum, medial periventricular hypothalamus) and thoracic spinal cords of rats treated with NSD 1015, an inhibitor of aromatic-L-amino-acid decarboxylase., The activity of 5-hydroxytryptaminergic neurons has been estimated from measurements of: concentrations of 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid; the ratio of the concentrations of 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid to 5-hydroxytryptamine; the rate of accumulation of 5-hydroxytryptophan following the administration of an aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase inhibitor (e.g., NSD 1015); the rate of accumulation of 5-hydroxytryptamine, and the rate of decline of 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid following the administration of a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (e.g., pargyline)., The accumulation of dopa (3,4-dihydroxyphenylalanine) after administration of NSD 1015 to inhibit aromatic l-amino acid decarboxylase was determined as an index of NE synthesis., The central aromatic amino acid DOPA decarboxylase inhibitor, NSD-1015, does not inhibit L-DOPA-induced circling in unilateral 6-OHDA-lesioned-rats., The centrally acting aromatic amino acid dopa decarboxylase (AADC) inhibitor, 3-hydroxybenzyl hydrazine (NSD-1015), is widely used to study the neurotransmitter-like actions of L-DOPA., The aromatic amino acid decarboxylase inhibitor, NSD-1015, increases release of dopamine: response characteristics., The aromatic amino acid decarboxylase inhibitor NSD 1015 markedly increased the dopa concentration., Using a microdialysis technique, the rat striatum was perfused with NSD-1015, an inhibitor of aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase, and the amount of L-3,4-dihydroxyphenylalanine (L-DOPA) and 5-hydroxytryptophan (5-HTP) accumulating in dialysate was measured as an index of in vivo activities of tyrosine hydroxylase and tryptophan hydroxylase., Also, we studied the effect of MnCl2 on extracellular levels of l-Dopa in the presence of aromatic amino acid decarboxylase (AADC) inhibitor 3-hydroxybencilhydracine-HCl (NSD 1015)., The role of L-DOPA itself was investigated by administering several doses of an aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase inhibitor, NSD 1015, prior to 100 mg/kg L-DOPA to 5-day-old rats., An accumulation of L-dihydroxyphenylalanine (DOPA) in the median eminence of female rats treated with 3-hydroxybenzylhydrazine (NSD 1015), and inhibitor of aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase (DOPA decarboxylase) activity, was associated with a decreased concentration of dopamine in the median eminence and pronounced reduction in the release of dopamine into hypophysial portal blood. , [Neurochemical study of effects of the new anxiolytic drugs afobazol and ladasten on the synthesis and metabolism of monoamines and their metabolites in the brain structures of Wistar rat on the model of monoamine synthesis blockade induced by aromatic amino acid decarboxylase inhibitor NSD-1015]., DOPA was measured in the anterior pituitary and hypothalamic-hypophysial portal blood after treatment with NSD-1015, a DOPA decarboxylase inhibitor. , Central action of an inhibitor of brain dopa-decarboxylase, NSD-1015, on cyanamide-induced alcohol drinking in rats., The role of L-DOPA itself was investigated by administering several doses of an aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase inhibitor, NSD 1015, prior to 100 mg/kg L-DOPA to 5-day-old rats. , The centrally acting aromatic amino acid dopa decarboxylase (AADC) inhibitor, 3-hydroxybenzyl hydrazine (NSD-1015), is widely used to study the neurotransmitter-like actions of L-DOPA. , Furthermore, the ethanol-induced enhancement of 3,4-dihydroxyphenylalanine accumulation in the mesolimbic dopamine terminal area after NSD 1015 (an inhibitor of l-aromatic amino acid decarboxylase) was completely antagonized by mecamylamine in doses (3.0 and 6.0 mg/kg) that exerted no effects per se., The acetylcholinesterase inhibitor physostigmine (0.5 mg/kg s.c.) enhanced L-dihydroxyphenylalanine (DOPA) and 3,4-dihydroxyphenylacetic acid (DOPAC) levels in both the corpus striatum and limbic areas (nucleus accumbens) after inhibition of aromatic amino acid decarboxylase with NSD-1015, indicating an enhanced synthesis of dopamine in these brain regions., Estradiol benzoate-treated rats had significantly lower anterior pituitary DOPA accumulation after intraperitoneal administration of 3,4-hydroxybenzyl-hydrazine dihydrochloride (NSD-1015), an irreversible inhibitor of L-aromatic amino acid decarboxylase whereas methylene blue did not affect anterior pituitary DOPA accumulation when compared to controls., The accumulation of dihydroxyphenylalanine (DOPA) following administration of the L-aromatic amino acid decarboxylase inhibitor, NSD 1015, was used to estimate DA synthesis., Inhibition of PE synthesis by i.p. injection of the aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase inhibitor, NSD 1015, produced a reversal of the effects of MDL 72,145 and Ro 19-6327., After 42 hr of abstinence, rats were challenged with either cocaine (15 mg/kg, ip) or saline, followed by the aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase inhibitor 3-hydroxybenzylhydrazine (NSD-1015; 100 mg/kg, ip)., Following motor activity observations, the cerebral aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase inhibitor NSD-1015 (100 mg kg-1 intraperitoneally) was administered and 30 min. later the animals were decapitated for subsequent analysis of the accumulated forebrain DOPA and 5-HTP levels, as an estimate of the rate of monoamine synthesis., The utility of this technique was demonstrated by comparing the effects on the scans of halothane and pentobarbital anesthesia and by the administration of NSD 1015, a peripheral and central inhibitor of L-aromatic amino-acid decarboxylase, between back-to-back scans., Addition of the aromatic amino acid decarboxylase inhibitor, 3-hydroxybenzylhydrazine (NSD 1015), prevented the formation of N-acetylcompounds from L-[3H]tyrosine, without resulting in an accumulation of label in L-DOPA., The effects of the peripheral aromatic amino acid decarboxylase (AADC) inhibitors, carbidopa and benserazide, and the central AADC inhibitor, 3-hydroxybenzylhydrazine (NSD-1015) on peripheral and brain monoamine oxidase (MAO) A and B activity were investigated in the rat., Although the putative role of NSD-1015 is as an aromatic amino acid decarboxylase inhibitor, the present results demonstrate that, either as a result of this function and/or in addition to this role, NSD-1015 is a potent activator of the release of dopamine., The aromatic amino acid decarboxylase inhibitor, NSD-1015, increases release of dopamine: response characteristics., The central aromatic amino acid DOPA decarboxylase inhibitor, NSD-1015, does not inhibit L-DOPA-induced circling in unilateral 6-OHDA-lesioned-rats., The L-aromatic amino acid decarboxylase inhibitor, NSD-1015 (3-hydroxybenzylhydrazine dihydrochloride) was then given ICV twice daily in a volume of 5.0 microliters in the following doses: 0.005, 0.01, 0.1 and 1.0 micrograms., Although the putative role of NSD-1015 is as an aromatic amino acid decarboxylase inhibitor, the present results demonstrate that, either as a result of this function and/or in addition to this role, NSD-1015 is a potent activator of the release of dopamine..[SEP]Relations: aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase deficiency has relations: disease_protein with DDC, disease_protein with DDC, disease_disease with neurometabolic disease, disease_disease with neurometabolic disease, disease_phenotype_positive with Nasal obstruction, disease_phenotype_positive with Nasal obstruction, disease_phenotype_positive with Gastroesophageal reflux, disease_phenotype_positive with Gastroesophageal reflux. aromatic-L-amino-acid decarboxylase activity has relations: molfunc_protein with DDC, molfunc_protein with DDC. Definitions: saline defined as following: A crystalloid solution that contains 9.0g of SODIUM CHLORIDE per liter of water. It has a variety of uses, including: as a CONTACT LENS SOLUTION, in OPHTHALMIC SOLUTIONS and NASAL LAVAGE, in wound irrigation, and for FLUID THERAPY.. l-dopa defined as following: The naturally occurring form of DIHYDROXYPHENYLALANINE and the immediate precursor of DOPAMINE. Unlike dopamine itself, it can be taken orally and crosses the blood-brain barrier. It is rapidly taken up by dopaminergic neurons and converted to DOPAMINE. It is used for the treatment of PARKINSONIAN DISORDERS and is usually given with agents that inhibit its conversion to dopamine outside of the central nervous system.. DOPA defined as following: A beta-hydroxylated derivative of phenylalanine. The D-form of dihydroxyphenylalanine has less physiologic activity than the L-form and is commonly used experimentally to determine whether the pharmacological effects of LEVODOPA are stereospecific.. tryptophan hydroxylase defined as following: An enzyme that catalyzes the hydroxylation of TRYPTOPHAN to 5-HYDROXYTRYPTOPHAN in the presence of NADPH and molecular oxygen. It is important in the biosynthesis of SEROTONIN.. pargyline defined as following: A monoamine oxidase inhibitor with antihypertensive properties.. 5-HTP defined as following: A racemic mixture of 5-hydroxytryptophan (5-HTP), a precursor to the neurotransmitter serotonin with anti-depressant, analgesic and appetite-suppressant activities. DL-5-HTP is decarboxylated to serotonin by aromatic-L-amino-acid decarboxylase, and results in increased serotonin levels within the brain. Mediated through serotonin receptors, elevated levels of serotonin causes increased serotonin neurotransmissions, hence leading to release of depression, pain and appetite.. TPH defined as following: Human TPH1 wild-type allele is located within 11p15.3-p14 and is approximately 25 kb in length. This allele, which encodes tryptophan 5-hydroxylase 1 protein, is involved in tryptophan metabolism.. AADC defined as following: Human DDC wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 7p12.2 and is approximately 107 kb in length. This allele, which encodes aromatic-L-amino-acid decarboxylase protein, is involved in monoamine neurotransmitter synthesis. Mutation of the gene is associated with aromatic L-amino-acid decarboxylase deficiency (AADCD).. aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase defined as following: Aromatic-L-amino-acid decarboxylase (480 aa, ~54 kDa) is encoded by the human DDC gene. This protein plays a role in the conversion of amino acids to monoamine neurotransmitters.. acetylcholinesterase inhibitor defined as following: Any substance that inhibits acetylcholinesterase (AchE), an enzyme that breaks down acetylcholine (Ach) in the synaptic cleft. Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase results in an increase in the level and duration of action of acetylcholine.. tyrosine hydroxylase defined as following: An enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of L-tyrosine, tetrahydrobiopterin, and oxygen to 3,4-dihydroxy-L-phenylalanine, dihydrobiopterin, and water. EC 1.14.16.2.. 3,4-dihydroxyphenylacetic acid defined as following: A deaminated metabolite of LEVODOPA.. cocaine defined as following: An alkaloid ester extracted from the leaves of plants including coca. It is a local anesthetic and vasoconstrictor and is clinically used for that purpose, particularly in the eye, ear, nose, and throat. It also has powerful central nervous system effects similar to the amphetamines and is a drug of abuse. Cocaine, like amphetamines, acts by multiple mechanisms on brain catecholaminergic neurons; the mechanism of its reinforcing effects is thought to involve inhibition of dopamine uptake.. neurotransmitter defined as following: Endogenous signaling molecules secreted by neurons that alter the behavior of neurons or effector cells. Neurotransmitter is used here in its most general sense, including not only messengers that act directly to regulate ion channels, but also those that act through second messenger systems, and those that act at a distance from their site of release. Included are neuromodulators, neuroregulators, neuromediators, neurohormones, and neurohumors, whether or not acting at synapses.. TH defined as following: Tyrosine 3-monooxygenase (528 aa, ~59 kDa) is encoded by the human TH gene. This protein plays a role in the synthesis of dopamine from L-tyrosine.. dopamine defined as following: One of the catecholamine NEUROTRANSMITTERS in the brain. It is derived from TYROSINE and is the precursor to NOREPINEPHRINE and EPINEPHRINE. Dopamine is a major transmitter in the extrapyramidal system of the brain, and important in regulating movement. A family of receptors (RECEPTORS, DOPAMINE) mediate its action.. rat defined as following: The common rat, Rattus norvegicus, often used as an experimental organism.. MnCl2 defined as following: The dichloride salt of manganese, an essential trace element and a cofactor for many enzymes involved in a variety of biological activities in cells, with potential immunomodulating activity. Upon administration, manganese may act as an adjuvant and induce both humoral and cellular immune responses.. DOPA decarboxylase defined as following: One of the AROMATIC-L-AMINO-ACID DECARBOXYLASES, this enzyme is responsible for the conversion of DOPA to DOPAMINE. It is of clinical importance in the treatment of Parkinson's disease.. carbidopa defined as following: An inhibitor of DOPA DECARBOXYLASE that prevents conversion of LEVODOPA to dopamine. It is used in PARKINSON DISEASE to reduce peripheral adverse effects of LEVODOPA. It has no anti-parkinson activity by itself.. aromatic amino acid decarboxylase defined as following: An enzyme group with broad specificity. The enzymes decarboxylate a range of aromatic amino acids including dihydroxyphenylalanine (DOPA DECARBOXYLASE); TRYPTOPHAN; and HYDROXYTRYPTOPHAN.. 5-hydroxytryptamine defined as following: A biochemical messenger and regulator, synthesized from the essential amino acid L-TRYPTOPHAN. In humans it is found primarily in the central nervous system, gastrointestinal tract, and blood platelets. Serotonin mediates several important physiological functions including neurotransmission, gastrointestinal motility, hemostasis, and cardiovascular integrity. Multiple receptor families (RECEPTORS, SEROTONIN) explain the broad physiological actions and distribution of this biochemical mediator.. methylene blue defined as following: A compound consisting of dark green crystals or crystalline powder, having a bronze-like luster. Solutions in water or alcohol have a deep blue color. Methylene blue is used as a bacteriologic stain and as an indicator. It inhibits GUANYLATE CYCLASE, and has been used to treat cyanide poisoning and to lower levels of METHEMOGLOBIN.. 5-hydroxytryptophan defined as following: The immediate precursor in the biosynthesis of SEROTONIN from tryptophan. It is used as an antiepileptic and antidepressant.. extracellular defined as following: The space external to the outermost structure of a cell. For cells without external protective or external encapsulating structures this refers to space outside of the plasma membrane. This term covers the host cell environment outside an intracellular parasite. [GOC:go_curators]. benserazide defined as following: An inhibitor of DOPA DECARBOXYLASE that does not enter the central nervous system. It is often given with LEVODOPA in the treatment of parkinsonism to prevent the conversion of levodopa to dopamine in the periphery, thereby increasing the amount that reaches the central nervous system and reducing the required dose. It has no antiparkinson actions when given alone.. PE defined as following: Derivatives of phosphatidic acids in which the phosphoric acid is bound in ester linkage to an ethanolamine moiety. Complete hydrolysis yields 1 mole of glycerol, phosphoric acid and ethanolamine and 2 moles of fatty acids.. mecamylamine defined as following: A nicotinic antagonist that is well absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract and crosses the blood-brain barrier. Mecamylamine has been used as a ganglionic blocker in treating hypertension, but, like most ganglionic blockers, is more often used now as a research tool.. aromatic amino acid decarboxylase inhibitor defined as following: Compounds and drugs that block or inhibit the enzymatic action of AROMATIC AMINO ACID DECARBOXYLASES. Pharmaceutical agents in this category are used in conjunction with LEVODOPA in order to slow its metabolism.. halothane defined as following: A nonflammable, halogenated, hydrocarbon anesthetic that provides relatively rapid induction with little or no excitement. Analgesia may not be adequate. NITROUS OXIDE is often given concomitantly. Because halothane may not produce sufficient muscle relaxation, supplemental neuromuscular blocking agents may be required. (From AMA Drug Evaluations Annual, 1994, p178). monoamine oxidase inhibitor defined as following: A chemically heterogeneous group of drugs that have in common the ability to block oxidative deamination of naturally occurring monoamines. (From Gilman, et al., Goodman and Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 8th ed, p414). CHE defined as following: A Northeast Caucasian language spoken mostly in the Chechen Republic.. physostigmine defined as following: A cholinesterase inhibitor that is rapidly absorbed through membranes. It can be applied topically to the conjunctiva. It also can cross the blood-brain barrier and is used when central nervous system effects are desired, as in the treatment of severe anticholinergic toxicity.. peripheral defined as following: On or near an edge or constituting an outer boundary; the outer area.. metabolites defined as following: Any substance involved in metabolism, either as a product of metabolism or as necessary for metabolism.. Aromatic L-Amino Acid Decarboxylase defined as following: This gene plays a role in the synthesis of monoamine neurotransmitters..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_3321", "sentence1": "Is there a vaccine for rotavirus?", "sentence2": "Safety and Immunogenicity of Pentavalent Rotavirus Vaccine (RV5), This study compares the safety and immunogenicity of pentavalent rotavirus vaccine (RV5), Effectiveness of rotavirus pentavalent vaccine, rotavirus pentavalent vaccine (RotaTeq®) as a sole vaccine, We describe rotavirus vaccine coverage and missed opportunities for rotavirus vaccination., CONCLUSIONS\n\nAddressing missed opportunities for rotavirus vaccination is essential to achieving the 80% rotavirus vaccine coverage target outlined by Healthy People 2020., Complete rotavirus vaccine coverage could be improved to 81% if all missed opportunities within the ACIP-recommended schedule were addressed., RESULTS\n\nThe national coverage for rotavirus vaccine achieved a year after the introduction was 89% for one dose and 82% for two doses, respectively., CONCLUSIONS\n\nNorway achieved a high national coverage and excellent adherence with the strict age limits for rotavirus vaccine administration during the first year of introduction, indicating robustness of the national immunisation programme., Upper age limit recommendations for rotavirus vaccine administration contributed to suboptimal vaccination coverage., Catching-up with pentavalent vaccine: Exploring reasons behind lower rotavirus vaccine coverage in El Salvador., US Rotavirus Vaccine Efficacy Group., We describe rotavirus vaccine coverage and missed opportunities for rotavirus vaccination., Rotavirus vaccines: a story of success., Clinical and immunological studies of rotavirus vaccines., Impact of rotavirus vaccine on rotavirus diarrhoea in countries of East and Southern Africa., Rotavirus diarrheal episodes were identified by ELISA., The decrease in rotavirus positivity was inversely related to increase in rotavirus vaccine coverage showing impact of rotavirus vaccines., We described trends in rotavirus positivity among tested stool samples before and after rotavirus vaccine introduction., The RIT 4237 bovine rotavirus vaccine has served as a useful model for rotavirus vaccination, but the vaccine will not be further developed or tested., Only the RRV vaccine induced a low level of protection against rotavirus diarrhea mainly of serotype G1 specificity., It is recommended that new rotavirus vaccine candidates be developed at cheaper price to speed up the introduction of rotavirus immunization in the developing world in general., Review of rotavirus vaccine trials in Finland., Risk of intussusception after monovalent rotavirus vaccination., Rotavirus vaccines are underused compared with other routine vaccines., With rotavirus vaccines now available globally , it will be useful to assemble the available evidence on the epidemiology and burden of rotavirus gastroenteritis in India , in order to weigh the urgency of introducing a vaccine to help control rotavirus disease, Is there evidence that rotavirus vaccines are effective in preventing acute gastroenteritis complications such as dehydration and hospitalization, With the introduction of new rotavirus vaccines in sight , rotavirus gastroenteritis may be regarded as the single most frequent vaccine-preventable disease among children in the EU, With the recent introduction of the two rotavirus vaccines , RotaTeq and Rotarix , in many countries , it appears that the total number of hospitalizations due to rotavirus infections is being reduced , at least in developed countries that implemented a universal immunization program, Change in rotavirus epidemiology in northeast Florida after the introduction of rotavirus vaccine, With the recent postlicensure identification of an increased risk of intussusception with rotavirus vaccine , the 14 Latin American countries currently using rotavirus vaccine must now weigh the health benefits versus risks to assess whether to continue vaccination, Impact of rotavirus vaccines on rotavirus disease, With safe and efficacious rotavirus vaccines now on the verge of widespread adoption , researchers can be vital advocates for their uptake into routine immunization programs, Rotavirus vaccine RIX4414 (Rotarix™): a pharmacoeconomic review of its use in the prevention of rotavirus gastroenteritis in developed countries., In addition, various naturalistic studies have demonstrated 'real-world' effectiveness after the introduction of widespread rotavirus vaccination programmes in the community setting., The monovalent rotavirus vaccine RIX4414 (Rotarix™) is administered as a two-dose oral series in infants and has demonstrated protective efficacy against RVGE in clinical trials conducted in developed countries., Numerous cost-effectiveness analyses have been conducted in developed countries in which a universal rotavirus vaccination programme using RIX4414 was compared with no universal rotavirus vaccination programme., It is also difficult to draw conclusions regarding the cost effectiveness of rotavirus vaccine RIX4414 relative to that of the pentavalent rotavirus vaccine, which is administered as a three-dose oral series., Although indirect comparisons in cost-effectiveness analyses indicate that RIX4414 provided more favourable incremental cost-effectiveness ratios when each vaccine was compared with no universal rotavirus vaccination programme, results were generally sensitive to vaccine costs., A rotavirus vaccine for prophylaxis of infants against rotavirus gastroenteritis., A live attenuated monovalent rotavirus vaccine (Rotarix) containing human rotavirus strain RIX4414 of G1P1A P[8] specificity is being developed to meet the global need., Rotarix significantly reduced rotavirus gastroenteritis episodes and rotavirus-related hospitalizations in vaccinated infants compared with placebo recipients (P < 0.05)., We describe the intussusception epidemiology prior to rotavirus vaccine, temporal association of intussusception cases to administration of rotavirus vaccine, and estimate the additional number of intussusception cases that may be associated with rotavirus vaccine., Epidemiology of intussusception before and after rotavirus vaccine introduction in Fiji., In 2012, Fiji introduced rotavirus vaccine (Rotarix, GSK) into the national immunisation schedule., Four trials of RIT 4237 bovine rotavirus vaccine, one trial of group A RRV-1 rhesus rotavirus vaccine, and one trial of rhesus-human reassortant rotavirus vaccines D x RRV and DS1 x RRV were carried out between 1983-1989., Problems associated with the use of any oral rotavirus vaccine include acid lability of the vaccine virus, which requires buffering, and a slight but significant interference of oral poliovirus vaccine with the uptake of rotavirus vaccine., In the near future, oral heterologous rotavirus vaccines may be available for prevention of severe rotavirus gastroenteritis., There was no apparent difference between bovine and rhesus-based rotavirus vaccines in the protective efficacy against severe rotavirus gastroenteritis., Efficacy studies of this vaccine in 6-12 month-old children gave results characteristic of the performance of oral rotavirus vaccines in general: 58% protective efficacy against any rotavirus gastroenteritis and 82% against \"clinically significant\" gastroenteritis., Live oral rotavirus vaccine strain RIT 4237, derived from group A bovine rotavirus NCDV, was given to human volunteers in Tampere, Finland in 1982., Targeted efforts to evaluate indirect effects of rotavirus vaccine in low income countries are required to understand the total impact of rotavirus vaccine on the global burden of rotavirus disease., Widespread introduction of rotavirus vaccines has led to major reductions in the burden of rotavirus gastroenteritis worldwide., While rotavirus vaccine indirect effects have been demonstrated in high and middle income countries, there are very little data from low income countries where force of infection, population structures and vaccine schedules differ., Measuring indirect effects of rotavirus vaccine in low income countries., Intussusception among recipients of rotavirus vaccine: reports to the vaccine adverse event reporting system., Rotavirus vaccine was licensed on August 31, 1998, and subsequently recommended for routine use among infants., To describe the cases of intussusception among rotavirus vaccine recipients reported to the Vaccine Adverse Event Reporting System from October 1998 through December 1999., Infants vaccinated with rotavirus vaccine in the United States., There were 98 confirmed cases of intussusception after vaccination with rotavirus vaccine reported to the Vaccine Adverse Event Reporting System; 60 of these developed intussusception within 1 week after vaccination., Using a passive surveillance system for vaccine adverse events, we observed at least a fourfold increase over the expected number of intussusception cases occurring within 1 week of receipt of rotavirus vaccine., Other studies were initiated to further define the relationship between rotavirus vaccine and intussusception., In light of these and other data, the rotavirus vaccine manufacturer voluntarily removed its product from the market, and the recommendation for routine use of rotavirus vaccine among US infants has been withdrawn., To review the biology, immunology, and virology of rotavirus infections and describe the efforts towards the construction of vaccines using human and animal rotaviruses., In August 1998 the Food and Drug Administration in the United States approved the licensure of a rotavirus vaccine.[SEP]Relations: Rotavirus vaccine has relations: drug_drug with Sirolimus, drug_drug with Sirolimus, drug_drug with Sirolimus, drug_drug with Sirolimus, drug_drug with Mitomycin, drug_drug with Mitomycin, drug_drug with Mitomycin, drug_drug with Mitomycin, drug_drug with Flunisolide, drug_drug with Flunisolide. Definitions: rotavirus vaccines defined as following: Vaccines or candidate vaccines used to prevent infection with ROTAVIRUS.. rotavirus defined as following:

rotavirus vaccine, tetravalent, live, oral

. acid defined as following: Chemical compounds which yield hydrogen ions or protons when dissolved in water, whose hydrogen can be replaced by metals or basic radicals, or which react with bases to form salts and water (neutralization). An extension of the term includes substances dissolved in media other than water. (Grant & Hackh's Chemical Dictionary, 5th ed). dehydration defined as following: The condition that results from excessive loss of water from a living organism.. infection defined as following: An illness caused by an infectious agent or its toxins that occurs through the direct or indirect transmission of the infectious agent or its products from an infected individual or via an animal, vector or the inanimate environment to a susceptible animal or human host.. gastroenteritis defined as following: INFLAMMATION of any segment of the GASTROINTESTINAL TRACT from ESOPHAGUS to RECTUM. Causes of gastroenteritis are many including genetic, infection, HYPERSENSITIVITY, drug effects, and CANCER.. human defined as following: Members of the species Homo sapiens.. rotavirus gastroenteritis defined as following: Enteritis attributed to the rotavirus.. rotavirus disease defined as following: Infection with any of the rotaviruses. Specific infections include human infantile diarrhea, neonatal calf diarrhea, and epidemic diarrhea of infant mice.. oral poliovirus vaccine defined as following: A live vaccine containing attenuated poliovirus, types I, II, and III, grown in monkey kidney cell tissue culture, used for routine immunization of children against polio. This vaccine induces long-lasting intestinal and humoral immunity. Killed vaccine induces only humoral immunity. Oral poliovirus vaccine should not be administered to immunocompromised individuals or their household contacts. (Dorland, 28th ed). diarrhoea defined as following: An increased liquidity or decreased consistency of FECES, such as running stool. Fecal consistency is related to the ratio of water-holding capacity of insoluble solids to total water, rather than the amount of water present. Diarrhea is not hyperdefecation or increased fecal weight.. intussusception defined as following: A form of intestinal obstruction caused by the PROLAPSE of a part of the intestine into the adjoining intestinal lumen. There are four types: colic, involving segments of the LARGE INTESTINE; enteric, involving only the SMALL INTESTINE; ileocecal, in which the ILEOCECAL VALVE prolapses into the CECUM, drawing the ILEUM along with it; and ileocolic, in which the ileum prolapses through the ileocecal valve into the COLON.. product defined as following:

Participant material that is brought forth (produced) in the act (e.g., specimen in a specimen collection, access or drainage in a placement service, medication package in a dispense service). It does not matter whether the material produced had existence prior to the service, or whether it is created in the service (e.g., in supply services the product is taken from a stock).

. RIT defined as following: Human RIT1 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 1q22 and is approximately 14 kb in length. This allele, which encodes GTP-binding protein Rit1, is involved in signaling pathway regulation. Mutation of the gene is associated with Noonan syndrome type 8.. GSK defined as following: Catalysis of the reaction: ATP + tau-protein = ADP + O-phospho-tau-protein. [EC:2.7.11.26, MetaCyc:TAU-PROTEIN-KINASE-RXN].", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_993", "sentence1": "Are there clinical trials using stem cells for the treatment of cardiac disease?", "sentence2": "Therapy with mesenchymal stem cells is one of the promising tools to improve outcomes after myocardial infarction. Adipose-derived stem cells (ASCs) are an ideal source of mesenchymal stem cells due to their abundance and ease of preparation., Furthermore, several ongoing clinical trials using ASCs are producing promising results for heart diseases., Among the cell types under investigation, adult mesenchymal stem cells are widely studied, and in early stage, clinical studies show promise for repair and regeneration of cardiac tissues., Accumulating data from preclinical and early phase clinical trials document their safety when delivered as either autologous or allogeneic forms in a range of cardiovascular diseases, but also importantly define parameters of clinical efficacy that justify further investigation in larger clinical trials. , several ongoing clinical trials using ASCs are producing promising results for heart diseases. , Clinical application of adult stem cells for therapy for cardiac disease., Stem cell-based therapies have the potential to fundamentally transform the treatment of ischemic cardiac injury and heart failure by achieving what would have been unthinkable only a few years ago-the Holy Grail of myocardial regeneration. Recent therapeutic approaches involve bone marrow (BM)-derived mononuclear cells and their subsets such as mesenchymal stem/stromal cells (MSCs), endothelial progenitor cells as well as adipose tissue-derived MSCs, cardiac tissue-derived stem cells, and cell combinations. Clinical trials employing these cells have demonstrated that cellular therapy is feasible and safe., Accumulating data from preclinical and early phase clinical trials document their safety when delivered as either autologous or allogeneic forms in a range of cardiovascular diseases, but also importantly define parameters of clinical efficacy that justify further investigation in larger clinical trials., se of stem and precursor cells as a therapeutic agent for chronically injured organs. Among the cell types under investigation, adult mesenchymal stem cells are widely studied, and in early stage, clinical studies show promise for repair and regeneration of cardiac tissues. , Over the past 2 decades, there have been numerous stem cell studies focused on cardiac diseases, ranging from proof-of-concept to phase 2 trials. , Small uncontrolled clinical trials have demonstrated cardiac stem cells as a treatment option for cardiomyopathy., Stem cell populations are rapidly increasing, and we are still in the search of optimal cell types to use in clinical trials as bone marrow stem cells did not show significant improvement in cardiac function following transplantation., Several clinical trials using adult stem cell have shown improvements in cardiac function, however, the mechanism of their action is unclear and widespread tissue regeneration is not evident., As we await results from larger and more prolonged clinical trials, the science of stem cell therapy in cardiac disease keeps progressing., Stem cell therapy for treatment of cardiac disease has shown therapeutic potential., It should be noted that stem cell therapy is not limited to the treatment of ischemic cardiac disease., Over the past 2 decades, there have been numerous stem cell studies focused on cardiac diseases, ranging from proof-of-concept to phase 2 trials., This series of papers focuses on the legacy of these studies and the outlook for future treatment of cardiac diseases with stem cell therapies., Cell transplantation to repair or regenerate injured myocardium is a new frontier in the treatment of cardiovascular disease. , Current therapies only delay progression of the cardiac disease or replace the diseased heart with cardiac transplantation. Stem cells represent a recently discovered novel approach to the treatment of cardiac failure that may facilitate the replacement of diseased cardiac tissue and subsequently lead to improved cardiac function and cardiac regeneration., Over the past 2 decades, there have been numerous stem cell studies focused on cardiac diseases, ranging from proof-of-concept to phase 2 trials. This series of papers focuses on the legacy of these studies and the outlook for future treatment of cardiac diseases with stem cell therapies., Stem cell therapy for treatment of cardiac disease has shown therapeutic potential., Over the past 2 decades, there have been numerous stem cell studies focused on cardiac diseases, ranging from proof-of-concept to phase 2 trials. This series of papers focuses on the legacy of these studies and the outlook for future treatment of cardiac diseases with stem cell therapies., It should be noted that stem cell therapy is not limited to the treatment of ischemic cardiac disease. Non-ischemic cardiomyopathy, peripheral vascular disease, and aging may be treated by stem cells., Recent clinical trials have achieved favorable initial endpoints with improvements in cardiac function and clinical symptoms following cellular therapy., we consider how cardiac stem cell biology has led us into clinical trials, and we suggest that achieving true cardiac regeneration in patients may ultimately require resolution of critical controversies in experimental cardiac regeneration., Cell-based therapies and tissue engineering provide new promising platforms to develop upcoming therapeutic options. Initial clinical trials were able to generate promising results. A variety of different stem cell types have been used for the clinical application. , Insights gained from clinical trials of adult stem cells, together with fundamental scientific advances in cardiac stem cell and regenerative biology, are beginning to yield potential new targets and strategies for regenerative therapies. , Early animal trials have demonstrated the ability to improve cardiac function by transfer of HSCs into the myocardium, and early human studies have demonstrated the feasibility and safety of this approach.[SEP]Relations: cardiac germ cell tumor has relations: disease_disease with heart neoplasm, disease_disease with heart neoplasm, disease_disease with malignant cardiac germ cell tumor, disease_disease with malignant cardiac germ cell tumor, disease_disease with extragonadal germ cell tumor, disease_disease with extragonadal germ cell tumor. heart disease has relations: disease_disease with cardiac ventricle disease, disease_disease with cardiac ventricle disease. cardiovascular disease has relations: disease_disease with heart disease, disease_disease with heart disease. Definitions: HSCs defined as following: Progenitor cells from which all blood cells derived. They are found primarily in the bone marrow and also in small numbers in the peripheral blood.. stem cells defined as following: Relatively undifferentiated cells that retain the ability to divide and proliferate throughout postnatal life to provide progenitor cells that can differentiate into specialized cells.. endothelial progenitor cells defined as following: Cells derived from BONE MARROW that circulate in the adult bloodstream and possess the potential to proliferate and differentiate into mature ENDOTHELIAL CELLS.. heart failure defined as following: Heart failure accompanied by EDEMA, such as swelling of the legs and ankles and congestion in the lungs.. cardiac diseases defined as following: Pathological conditions involving the HEART including its structural and functional abnormalities.. cardiomyopathy defined as following: A group of diseases in which the dominant feature is the involvement of the CARDIAC MUSCLE itself. Cardiomyopathies are classified according to their predominant pathophysiological features (DILATED CARDIOMYOPATHY; HYPERTROPHIC CARDIOMYOPATHY; RESTRICTIVE CARDIOMYOPATHY) or their etiological/pathological factors (CARDIOMYOPATHY, ALCOHOLIC; ENDOCARDIAL FIBROELASTOSIS).. bone marrow stem cells defined as following: A hematopoietic stem cell found in the bone marrow.. cardiovascular disease defined as following: Pathological conditions involving the CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM including the HEART; the BLOOD VESSELS; or the PERICARDIUM.. mesenchymal stem cells defined as following: An undifferentiated stromal cell with the ability to develop into the cells that form distinct mesenchymal tissues; such as bone, muscle, connective tissue, blood vessels, and lymphatic tissue.. adult stem cells defined as following: Mostly multipotent undifferentiated stem cells found in a specific tissue admixed with differentiated cells.. cardiac stem cell defined as following: Multipotent progenitor cells that are found in the fetal and adult heart that provide the myocardium with limited regenerating capability.. MSCs defined as following: Enables the transmembrane transfer of an ion by a channel that opens in response to a mechanical stress and when a cyclic nucleotide has been bound by the channel complex or one of its constituent parts. [GOC:jl, PMID:22206667]. stem defined as following: A type of TRANSMISSION ELECTRON MICROSCOPY in which the object is examined directly by an extremely narrow electron beam scanning the specimen point-by-point and using the reactions of the electrons that are transmitted through the specimen to create the image. It should not be confused with SCANNING ELECTRON MICROSCOPY.. organs defined as following: A unique macroscopic (gross) anatomic structure that performs specific functions. It is composed of various tissues. An organ is part of an anatomic system or a body region. Representative examples include the heart, lung, liver, spleen, and uterus.. human defined as following: Members of the species Homo sapiens.. cells defined as following: The fundamental, structural, and functional units or subunits of living organisms. They are composed of CYTOPLASM containing various ORGANELLES and a CELL MEMBRANE boundary.. peripheral vascular disease defined as following: Pathological processes involving any one of the BLOOD VESSELS in the vasculature outside the HEART.. myocardium defined as following: The muscle tissue of the HEART. It is composed of striated, involuntary muscle cells (MYOCYTES, CARDIAC) connected to form the contractile pump to generate blood flow.. cardiac disease defined as following: Pathological conditions involving the HEART including its structural and functional abnormalities..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_2060", "sentence1": "Do brown fat cells produce heat?", "sentence2": "WAT and BAT are both involved in energy balance. WAT is mainly involved in the storage and mobilization of energy in the form of triglycerides, whereas BAT specializes in dissipating energy as heat during cold- or diet-induced thermogenesis., Because brown adipose tissue (BAT) dissipates energy in the form of heat, increasing energy expenditure by augmenting BAT-mediated thermogenesis may represent an approach to counter obesity and its complications., Classic brown fat and inducible beige fat both dissipate chemical energy in the form of heat through the actions of mitochondrial uncoupling protein 1. This nonshivering thermogenesis is crucial for mammals as a defense against cold and obesity/diabetes., Mitochondrial uncoupling protein 1 in brown fat cells produces heat by dissipating the energy generated by fatty acid and glucose oxidation., Brown fat biology and thermogenesis., Brown fat (brown adipose tissue, BAT) primary function is to produce heat. , Brown fat cells were classified into 6 types: Type 1 cells are fat-depleted cells filled with granular cytoplasm and are believed to be produced after oxidation of fat for heat production., Calorimetric measurements from cell suspensions showed that ATP increased basal heat production of isolated brown fat cells by approximately 40% but had no effect on the greater than fivefold increase in heat production seen with maximal adrenergic stimulation., Classic brown fat and inducible beige fat both dissipate chemical energy in the form of heat through the actions of mitochondrial uncoupling protein 1., Brown adipocytes oxidize fatty acids to produce heat in response to cold or to excessive energy intake; stimulation of brown fat development and function may thus counteract obesity., The occurrence of Types 1 and/or 6 cells that has been revealed in 65 out of the total 180 samples (36%), suggests that the oxidation of fat for the thermogenesis proceeds in the brown fat tissue and that brown fat cells partially undergo fat depletion., Brown fat cells were classified into 6 types: Type 1 cells are fat-depleted cells filled with granular cytoplasm and are believed to be produced after oxidation of fat for heat production., In response to cold, both classical brown fat and the newly identified \"beige\" or \"brite\" cells are activated by β-adrenergic signaling and catabolize stored lipids and carbohydrates to produce heat via UCP1, The ability of brown adipocytes (fat cells) to dissipate energy as heat shows great promise for the treatment of obesity and other metabolic disorders, Inappropriate heat dissipation ignites brown fat thermogenesis in mice with a mutant thyroid hormone receptor α1, Brown fat and vascular heat dissipation: The new cautionary tail, Brown adipose produces heat as a defense against hypothermia and obesity, and the appearance of brown-like adipocytes within white adipose tissue depots is associated with improved metabolic phenotypes. , In the same manner, marked ability to produce a considerable amount of heat was evidenced in brown fat tissue of children and teenagers. , Brown fat cells were classified into 6 types: Type 1 cells are fat-depleted cells filled with granular cytoplasm and are believed to be produced after oxidation of fat for heat production. , It is inferred that brown-adipose-tissue heat production is reduced during (and probably also some time after) anesthesia. , Parallel measurements of heat production and thermogenin content in brown fat cells during cold acclimation of rats., The classical white adipose tissue builds up energy in the form of triglycerides and is useful for preventing fatigue during periods of low caloric intake and the brown adipose tissue instead of inducing fat accumulation can produce energy as heat., In response to cold, both classical brown fat and the newly identified \"beige\" or \"brite\" cells are activated by β-adrenergic signaling and catabolize stored lipids and carbohydrates to produce heat via UCP1., White adipose tissue stores energy reserves as fat, whereas the metabolic function of brown adipose tissue is lipid oxidation to produce heat., The main function of brown adipose tissue (BAT) is to produce heat in response to cold., Brown adipocytes oxidize fatty acids to produce heat in response to cold or caloric overfeeding., Brown fat (brown adipose tissue, BAT) primary function is to produce heat., Adipose tissue plays an active role in energy balance because it is not only a lipid storing and mobilizing tissue but consists of functionally specialized tissues able to produce heat (in brown adipose tissue) and to produce or release a vast number of so called adipokines or adipocytokines., Brown adipose tissue (BAT), a specialized fat that dissipates energy to produce heat, plays an important role in the regulation of energy balance., Brown adipose cells are specialized to dissipate chemical energy in the form of heat, as a physiological defence against cold and obesity., In the present study, the thermogenesis of human brown fat tissue was suggested chiefly with regard to the occurrence of Types 1 and/or 6 cells., In the same manner, marked ability to produce a considerable amount of heat was evidenced in brown fat tissue of children and teenagers., Adult humans have heat-producing and energy-consuming brown adipose tissue in the clavicular region of the neck., Brown and beige adipocytes expend chemical energy to produce heat and are therefore important in regulating body temperature and body weight., In human perirenal brown fat tissue, darkly stained fat-depleted cells (D) occupy, with other cell types (CR, CR'), an important part in the reversible heat production cycle of the brown fat tissue., Brown fat is a specialized fat depot that can increase energy expenditure and produce heat.[SEP]Relations: brown adipose tissue has relations: anatomy_anatomy with adipose tissue, anatomy_anatomy with adipose tissue. adipose tissue has relations: anatomy_anatomy with brown adipose tissue, anatomy_anatomy with brown adipose tissue, anatomy_protein_present with HEATR6, anatomy_protein_present with HEATR6, anatomy_protein_present with HEATR3, anatomy_protein_present with HEATR3, anatomy_protein_present with HEATR5A, anatomy_protein_present with HEATR5A. Definitions: lipids defined as following: A generic term for fats and lipoids, the alcohol-ether-soluble constituents of protoplasm, which are insoluble in water. They comprise the fats, fatty oils, essential oils, waxes, phospholipids, glycolipids, sulfolipids, aminolipids, chromolipids (lipochromes), and fatty acids. (Grant & Hackh's Chemical Dictionary, 5th ed). Type 1 cells defined as following: used for classifying cell types, discovery of new cell types, or when type of cell is unknown; when comparing types of cells use CELL POPULATION STUDY.. CR defined as following: A quantitative measurement of the amount of creatinine present in a sample.. Mitochondrial uncoupling protein 1 defined as following: A mitochondrial uncoupling protein that is expressed in BROWN ADIPOSE TISSUE. It is critical for NONSHIVERING THERMOGENESIS to prevent heat loss in NEONATES.. brown adipocytes defined as following: Fat cells with dark coloration due to the densely packed MITOCHONDRIA. They contain numerous small lipid droplets or vacuoles. Their stored lipids can be converted directly to energy as heat by the mitochondria.. UCP1 defined as following: This gene plays a role in proton transport.. fatty acid defined as following: Organic, monobasic acids derived from hydrocarbons by the equivalent of oxidation of a methyl group to an alcohol, aldehyde, and then acid. Fatty acids are saturated and unsaturated (FATTY ACIDS, UNSATURATED). (Grant & Hackh's Chemical Dictionary, 5th ed). brown adipose tissue defined as following: A thermogenic form of adipose tissue composed of BROWN ADIPOCYTES. It is found in newborns of many species including humans, and in hibernating mammals. Brown fat is richly vascularized, innervated, and densely packed with MITOCHONDRIA which can generate heat directly from the stored lipids.. BAT defined as following: An evidence-based treatment designed to modify behavior by increasing positive events and reinforcers, as well as decreasing negative events and consequences. It is frequently used for treating depression and anxiety.. neck defined as following: Part of the dendritic spine that connects the dendritic shaft to the head of the dendritic spine. [GOC:nln]. fatigue defined as following: The state of weariness following a period of exertion, mental or physical, characterized by a decreased capacity for work and reduced efficiency to respond to stimuli.. ATP defined as following: An adenine nucleotide containing three phosphate groups esterified to the sugar moiety. In addition to its crucial roles in metabolism adenosine triphosphate is a neurotransmitter.. Adipose tissue defined as following: Specialized connective tissue composed of fat cells (ADIPOCYTES). It is the site of stored FATS, usually in the form of TRIGLYCERIDES. In mammals, there are two types of adipose tissue, the WHITE FAT and the BROWN FAT. Their relative distributions vary in different species with most adipose tissue being white.. triglycerides defined as following: An ester formed from GLYCEROL and three fatty acid groups.. beige adipocytes defined as following: Brown fat-like cells that develop in the WHITE FAT from non-MYOGENIC REGULATORY FACTOR 5 expressing CELL LINEAGE.. metabolic disorders defined as following: Generic term for diseases caused by an abnormal metabolic process. It can be congenital due to inherited enzyme abnormality (METABOLISM, INBORN ERRORS) or acquired due to disease of an endocrine organ or failure of a metabolically important organ such as the liver. (Stedman, 26th ed). rats defined as following: The common rat, Rattus norvegicus, often used as an experimental organism.. adipokines defined as following: Polypeptides produced by the ADIPOCYTES. They include LEPTIN; ADIPONECTIN; RESISTIN; and many cytokines of the immune system, such as TUMOR NECROSIS FACTOR-ALPHA; INTERLEUKIN-6; and COMPLEMENT FACTOR D (also known as ADIPSIN). They have potent autocrine, paracrine, and endocrine functions.. fat cells defined as following: Cells in the body that store FATS, usually in the form of TRIGLYCERIDES. WHITE ADIPOCYTES are the predominant type and found mostly in the abdominal cavity and subcutaneous tissue. BROWN ADIPOCYTES are thermogenic cells that can be found in newborns of some species and hibernating mammals.. mammals defined as following: Warm-blooded vertebrate animals belonging to the class Mammalia, including all that possess hair and suckle their young.. humans defined as following: Members of the species Homo sapiens.. tissues defined as following: Collections of differentiated CELLS, such as EPITHELIUM; CONNECTIVE TISSUE; MUSCLES; and NERVE TISSUE. Tissues are cooperatively arranged to form organs with specialized functions such as RESPIRATION; DIGESTION; REPRODUCTION; MOVEMENT; and others.. cells defined as following: The fundamental, structural, and functional units or subunits of living organisms. They are composed of CYTOPLASM containing various ORGANELLES and a CELL MEMBRANE boundary.. hypothermia defined as following:

Cold weather can affect your body in different ways. You can get frostbite, which is an injury to the body that is caused by freezing. Your body can also lose heat faster than you can produce it. That can cause hypothermia, or abnormally low body temperature. It can make you sleepy, confused, and clumsy. Because it happens gradually and affects your thinking, you may not realize you need help. That makes it especially dangerous. A body temperature below 95 °F (35 °C) is a medical emergency and can lead to death if not treated promptly.

Anyone who spends much time outdoors in cold weather can get hypothermia. You can also get it from being cold and wet, or under cold water for too long. Babies and old people are especially at risk. Babies can get it from sleeping in a cold room.

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention

. mitochondrial defined as following: The distribution of mitochondria, including the mitochondrial genome, into daughter cells after mitosis or meiosis, mediated by interactions between mitochondria and the cytoskeleton. [GOC:mcc, PMID:10873824, PMID:11389764]. brown fat cells defined as following: Fat cells with dark coloration due to the densely packed MITOCHONDRIA. They contain numerous small lipid droplets or vacuoles. Their stored lipids can be converted directly to energy as heat by the mitochondria..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_994", "sentence1": "Is DNA methylation an epigenetic modification of chromatin related to gene expression?", "sentence2": "DNA methylation is a chemical modification of DNA involved in the regulation of gene expression by controlling the access to the DNA sequence. , Epigenetic marks such as DNA methylation play important biological roles in gene expression regulation and cellular differentiation during development., DNA methylation patterns are characterized by highly conserved developmental programs, but allow for divergent gene expression resulting from stochastic epigenetic drift or divergent environments., DNA methylation plays a critical role in the regulation of gene expression. , Epigenetic changes such as DNA methylation and histone methylation and acetylation alter gene expression at the level of transcription by upregulating, downregulating, or silencing genes completely., Dysregulation of epigenetic events can be pathological, leading to cardiovascular disease, neurological disorders, metabolic disorders, and cancer development., DNA methylation is a pervasive epigenetic DNA modification that strongly affects chromatin regulation and gene expression., Epigenetic control, which includes DNA methylation and histone modifications, leads to chromatin remodeling and regulated gene expression., Epigenetic modifications on the DNA sequence (DNA methylation) or on chromatin-associated proteins (i.e., histones) comprise the \"cellular epigenome\"; together these modifications play an important role in the regulation of gene expression., Epigenetics is a process involved in gene regulation, mediated via DNA methylation, histone modification, chromatin remodeling, and functional noncoding RNAs, which influences the accessibility of the underlying DNA to transcriptional regulatory factors that activate or repress expression., Significant progress has been made in the basic understanding of how various epigenetic changes such as DNA methylation, histone modification, miRNA expression, and higher order chromatin structure affect gene expression.[SEP]Relations: histone modification has relations: bioprocess_bioprocess with histone methylation, bioprocess_bioprocess with histone methylation, bioprocess_bioprocess with covalent chromatin modification, bioprocess_bioprocess with covalent chromatin modification, bioprocess_bioprocess with histone demethylation, bioprocess_bioprocess with histone demethylation, bioprocess_bioprocess with histone biotinylation, bioprocess_bioprocess with histone biotinylation, bioprocess_protein with PARP2, bioprocess_protein with PARP2. Definitions: histone modification defined as following: The covalent alteration of one or more amino acid residues within a histone protein. [GOC:krc]. histones defined as following: Small chromosomal proteins (approx 12-20 kD) possessing an open, unfolded structure and attached to the DNA in cell nuclei by ionic linkages. Classification into the various types (designated histone I, histone II, etc.) is based on the relative amounts of arginine and lysine in each.. DNA sequence defined as following: The sequence of nucleotide residues along a DNA chain.. metabolic disorders defined as following: Generic term for diseases caused by an abnormal metabolic process. It can be congenital due to inherited enzyme abnormality (METABOLISM, INBORN ERRORS) or acquired due to disease of an endocrine organ or failure of a metabolically important organ such as the liver. (Stedman, 26th ed). cardiovascular disease defined as following: Pathological conditions involving the CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM including the HEART; the BLOOD VESSELS; or the PERICARDIUM.. DNA defined as following: A deoxyribonucleotide polymer that is the primary genetic material of all cells. Eukaryotic and prokaryotic organisms normally contain DNA in a double-stranded state, yet several important biological processes transiently involve single-stranded regions. DNA, which consists of a polysugar-phosphate backbone possessing projections of purines (adenine and guanine) and pyrimidines (thymine and cytosine), forms a double helix that is held together by hydrogen bonds between these purines and pyrimidines (adenine to thymine and guanine to cytosine).. neurological disorders defined as following: Diseases of the central and peripheral nervous system. This includes disorders of the brain, spinal cord, cranial nerves, peripheral nerves, nerve roots, autonomic nervous system, neuromuscular junction, and muscle.. chemical modification defined as following: A molecule that binds to a macromolecule and can change the structural properties of that macromolecule.. genes defined as following: A category of nucleic acid sequences that function as units of heredity and which code for the basic instructions for the development, reproduction, and maintenance of organisms.. chromatin defined as following: The material of CHROMOSOMES. It is a complex of DNA; HISTONES; and nonhistone proteins (CHROMOSOMAL PROTEINS, NON-HISTONE) found within the nucleus of a cell..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_319", "sentence1": "Is microRNA(miRNA) 29 involved in post-ischemic cardiac remodeling?", "sentence2": "Myocardial ischaemia/reperfusion (I/R)-induced remodelling generally includes cell death (necrosis and apoptosis), myocyte hypertrophy, angiogenesis, cardiac fibrosis, and myocardial dysfunction. I, In addition, miR-21, -24, -133, -210, -494, and -499 appear to protect myocytes against I/R-induced apoptosis, whereas miR-1, -29, -199a, and -320 promote apoptosis, Myocardial fibrosis can be regulated by the miR-29 family, Studies using various in vivo, ex vivo, and in vitro models have suggested the possible involvement of miR-1, miR-21, miR-29, miR-92a, miR-133, miR-199a, and miR-320 in ischemia-reperfusion injury and/or remodeling after myocardial infarction., Among the MI-regulated miRNAs are members of the miR-29 family, which are down-regulated in the region of the heart adjacent to the infarct. The miR-29 family targets a cadre of mRNAs that encode proteins involved in fibrosis, including multiple collagens, fibrillins, and elastin. Thus, down-regulation of miR-29 would be predicted to derepress the expression of these mRNAs and enhance the fibrotic response. Indeed, down-regulation of miR-29 with anti-miRs in vitro and in vivo induces the expression of collagens, whereas over-expression of miR-29 in fibroblasts reduces collagen expression. We conclude that miR-29 acts as a regulator of cardiac fibrosis and represents a potential therapeutic target for tissue fibrosis in general.[SEP]Relations: ischemia reperfusion injury has relations: disease_protein with MIR148B, disease_protein with MIR148B, disease_protein with EFNA5, disease_protein with EFNA5. myocardial infarction has relations: disease_protein with MIR145, disease_protein with MIR145, disease_protein with MIR145, disease_protein with MIR145, disease_protein with MIR761, disease_protein with MIR761. Definitions: fibrosis defined as following: Any pathological condition where fibrous connective tissue invades any organ, usually as a consequence of inflammation or other injury.. collagens defined as following: A polypeptide substance comprising about one third of the total protein in mammalian organisms. It is the main constituent of SKIN; CONNECTIVE TISSUE; and the organic substance of bones (BONE AND BONES) and teeth (TOOTH).. fibrillins defined as following: A family of extracellular matrix glycoproteins that is structurally similar to LATENT TGF-BETA BINDING PROTEINS, but contain additional TGF-beta binding domains, in addition to unique domains at their N and C-terminals. Fibrillins assemble into 10-12 nm MICROFIBRILS that function in a variety of cell interactions with the EXTRACELLULAR MATRIX and developmental processes such as ELASTIC TISSUE maintenance and assembly, and the targeting of growth factors to the extracellular matrix.. miR-21 defined as following: This gene is involved in the regulation of gene expression and plays an oncogenic role in hepatocellular, breast, esophageal, gastric, pancreatic, prostatic and squamous cell carcinomas, glioblastoma and glioma.. ischemia-reperfusion injury defined as following: Adverse functional, metabolic, or structural changes in tissues that result from the restoration of blood flow to the tissue (REPERFUSION) following ISCHEMIA.. myocytes defined as following: Mature contractile cells, commonly known as myocytes, that form one of three kinds of muscle. The three types of muscle cells are skeletal (MUSCLE FIBERS, SKELETAL), cardiac (MYOCYTES, CARDIAC), and smooth (MYOCYTES, SMOOTH MUSCLE). They are derived from embryonic (precursor) muscle cells called MYOBLASTS.. necrosis defined as following: A finding indicating the presence of cellular necrosis in a tissue specimen.. elastin defined as following: Elastin (786 aa, ~68 kDa) is encoded by the human ELN gene. This protein is involved in the elasticity of the extracellular matrix.. anti-miRs defined as following: Chemically-engineered oligonucleotides used to selectively inhibit expression of target genes through sequence-specific binding of corresponding microRNA (miRNA) sites.. miRNAs defined as following: Small double-stranded, non-protein coding RNAs, 21-25 nucleotides in length generated from single-stranded microRNA gene transcripts by the same RIBONUCLEASE III, Dicer, that produces small interfering RNAs (RNA, SMALL INTERFERING). They become part of the RNA-INDUCED SILENCING COMPLEX and repress the translation (TRANSLATION, GENETIC) of target RNA by binding to homologous 3'UTR region as an imperfect match. The small temporal RNAs (stRNAs), let-7 and lin-4, from C. elegans, are the first 2 miRNAs discovered, and are from a class of miRNAs involved in developmental timing.. infarct defined as following: Formation of an infarct, which is NECROSIS in tissue due to local ISCHEMIA resulting from obstruction of BLOOD CIRCULATION, most commonly by a THROMBUS or EMBOLUS.. Myocardial fibrosis defined as following: The accumulation of fibrotic tissue in the myocardium. This may result from chronic hypertension, myocardial infarction or cardiomyopathy and eventually lead to heart failure..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_1768", "sentence1": "Is there a role of regorafenib for sarcoma treatment?", "sentence2": "Regorafenib has been approved for third-line therapy., Study protocol of REGOSARC trial: activity and safety of regorafenib in advanced soft tissue sarcoma: a multinational, randomized, placebo-controlled, phase II trial., DISCUSSION: The design of this trial allows an assessment of regorafenib activity over placebo in four sarcoma strata and might provide evidence for launching a phase III trial., This case provides rationale for adding a Ewing sarcoma arm to SARC024, a phase II study of regorafenib, another multi-targeted kinase inhibitor, in patients with liposarcoma, osteosarcoma and Ewing and Ewing-like sarcomas (NCT02048371)., Thus, the Phase III studies with pazopanib, regorafenib, muramyl tripeptide (MTP) and ridaforolimus are extensively discussed as well as the biological rationale for the use of these compounds., Currently, regorafenib is examined in several clinical trials (mostly phase II) in different tumor entities, including renal cell carcinoma (RCC), hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC), and soft tissue sarcoma (STS)., Analysis of primary human sarcoma samples revealed direct cytotoxicity following exposure to sorafenib and regorafenib with a corresponding increase in ALDHbright cells (P<0.05)., Parametric and non-parametric statistical analyses were performed as appropriate.RESULTS: After functionally validating the CSC phenotype of ALDHbright sarcoma cells, we observed that sorafenib and regorafenib were cytotoxic to sarcoma cell lines (P<0.05), with a corresponding 1.4 - 2.8 fold increase in ALDHbright cells from baseline (P<0.05)., We evaluated survival and CSC phenotype in mice harboring sarcoma metastases after TKI therapy. We exposed dissociated primary sarcoma tumors to sorafenib, regorafenib, and pazopanib, and we used tissue microarray (TMA) and primary sarcoma samples to evaluate the frequency and intensity of CSC markers after neoadjuvant therapy with sorafenib and pazopanib. Parametric and non-parametric statistical analyses were performed as appropriate.RESULTS: After functionally validating the CSC phenotype of ALDHbright sarcoma cells, we observed that sorafenib and regorafenib were cytotoxic to sarcoma cell lines (P<0.05), with a corresponding 1.4 - 2.8 fold increase in ALDHbright cells from baseline (P<0.05)., We exposed dissociated primary sarcoma tumors to sorafenib, regorafenib, and pazopanib, and we used tissue microarray (TMA) and primary sarcoma samples to evaluate the frequency and intensity of CSC markers after neoadjuvant therapy with sorafenib and pazopanib. Parametric and non-parametric statistical analyses were performed as appropriate.RESULTS: After functionally validating the CSC phenotype of ALDHbright sarcoma cells, we observed that sorafenib and regorafenib were cytotoxic to sarcoma cell lines (P<0.05), with a corresponding 1.4 - 2.8 fold increase in ALDHbright cells from baseline (P<0.05)., We exposed dissociated primary sarcoma tumors to sorafenib, regorafenib, and pazopanib, and we used tissue microarray (TMA) and primary sarcoma samples to evaluate the frequency and intensity of CSC markers after neoadjuvant therapy with sorafenib and pazopanib. Parametric and non-parametric statistical analyses were performed as appropriate.RESULTS: After functionally validating the CSC phenotype of ALDHbright sarcoma cells, we observed that sorafenib and regorafenib were cytotoxic to sarcoma cell lines (P<0.05), with a corresponding 1.4 - 2.8 fold increase in ALDHbright cells from baseline (P<0.05). In contrast, we observed negligible effects on viability and CSC sub-populations with pazopanib., After functionally validating the CSC phenotype of ALDHbright sarcoma cells, we observed that sorafenib and regorafenib were cytotoxic to sarcoma cell lines (P < 0.05), with a corresponding 1.4 - 2.8 fold increase in ALDHbright cells from baseline (P < 0.05).[SEP]Relations: Regorafenib has relations: drug_drug with Sarilumab, drug_drug with Sarilumab, drug_drug with Sarecycline, drug_drug with Sarecycline, drug_drug with Afelimomab, drug_drug with Afelimomab, drug_drug with Lapatinib, drug_drug with Lapatinib, drug_drug with Sulfasalazine, drug_drug with Sulfasalazine. Definitions: RCC defined as following: A malignant epithelial neoplasm of the kidney characterized by the presence of lipid-containing clear cells within a vascular network. The tumor may metastasize to unusual sites and late metastasis is common.. pazopanib defined as following: A small molecule inhibitor of multiple protein tyrosine kinases with potential antineoplastic activity. Pazopanib selectively inhibits vascular endothelial growth factor receptors (VEGFR)-1, -2 and -3, c-kit and platelet derived growth factor receptor (PDGF-R), which may result in inhibition of angiogenesis in tumors in which these receptors are upregulated.. ridaforolimus defined as following: A small molecule and non-prodrug analogue of the lipophilic macrolide antibiotic rapamycin with potential antitumor activity. Ridaforolimus binds to and inhibits the mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR), which may result in cell cycle arrest and, consequently, the inhibition of tumor cell growth and proliferation. Upregulated in some tumors, mTOR is a serine/threonine kinase involved in regulating cellular proliferation, motility, and survival that is located downstream of the PI3K/Akt signaling pathway.. hepatocellular carcinoma defined as following: A primary malignant neoplasm of epithelial liver cells. It ranges from a well-differentiated tumor with EPITHELIAL CELLS indistinguishable from normal HEPATOCYTES to a poorly differentiated neoplasm. The cells may be uniform or markedly pleomorphic, or form GIANT CELLS. Several classification schemes have been suggested.. Regorafenib defined as following: The anhydrous form of regorafenib, an orally bioavailable small molecule with potential antiangiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Regorafenib binds to and inhibits vascular endothelial growth factor receptors (VEGFRs) 2 and 3, and Ret, Kit, PDGFR and Raf kinases, which may result in the inhibition of tumor angiogenesis and tumor cell proliferation. VEGFRs are receptor tyrosine kinases that play important roles in tumor angiogenesis; the receptor tyrosine kinases RET, KIT, and PDGFR, and the serine/threonine-specific Raf kinase are involved in tumor cell signaling.. osteosarcoma defined as following: A usually aggressive malignant bone-forming mesenchymal neoplasm arising from the bone. It may arise de novo or from a pre-existing lesion of the bone. Pain and a palpable mass are the most frequent clinical sign and symptom. It may spread to other anatomic sites, particularly the lungs.. sarcoma defined as following: A malignant neoplasm arising exclusively from the soft tissues.. STS defined as following: An anionic surface-active agent used for its wetting properties in industry and used in medicine as an irritant and sclerosing agent for hemorrhoids and varicose veins.. TMA defined as following: A microvascular coagulopathy that may result from systemic vascular endothelial injury triggering the development of a procoagulant state, activation of the complement cascade, and microthrombi formation. Signs may include hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, hypertension and renal dysfunction.. liposarcoma defined as following: A malignant tumor derived from primitive or embryonal lipoblastic cells. It may be composed of well-differentiated fat cells or may be dedifferentiated: myxoid (LIPOSARCOMA, MYXOID), round-celled, or pleomorphic, usually in association with a rich network of capillaries. Recurrences are common and dedifferentiated liposarcomas metastasize to the lungs or serosal surfaces. (From Dorland, 27th ed; Stedman, 25th ed). soft tissue sarcoma defined as following: A malignant neoplasm arising from muscle tissue, adipose tissue, blood vessels, fibrous tissue, or other supportive tissues excluding the bones.. sorafenib defined as following: A synthetic compound targeting growth signaling and angiogenesis. Sorafenib blocks the enzyme RAF kinase, a critical component of the RAF/MEK/ERK signaling pathway that controls cell division and proliferation; in addition, sorafenib inhibits the VEGFR-2/PDGFR-beta signaling cascade, thereby blocking tumor angiogenesis.. regorafenib defined as following: The anhydrous form of regorafenib, an orally bioavailable small molecule with potential antiangiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Regorafenib binds to and inhibits vascular endothelial growth factor receptors (VEGFRs) 2 and 3, and Ret, Kit, PDGFR and Raf kinases, which may result in the inhibition of tumor angiogenesis and tumor cell proliferation. VEGFRs are receptor tyrosine kinases that play important roles in tumor angiogenesis; the receptor tyrosine kinases RET, KIT, and PDGFR, and the serine/threonine-specific Raf kinase are involved in tumor cell signaling..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_3590", "sentence1": "Does association with the nuclear pore promote gene silencing?", "sentence2": "Here, we show that the nucleoporin Nup358 plays an important role in this process. Nup358 localizes to the nuclear pore complex and to the cytoplasmic annulate lamellae (AL), and these structures dynamically associate with two mRNP granules: processing bodies (P bodies) and stress granules (SGs). , MicroRNA (miRNA)-guided mRNA repression, mediated by the miRNA-induced silencing complex (miRISC), is an important component of post-transcriptional gene silencing., To assess Tpr's role as an architectural element of the NPC, we have studied the sequential disassembly and reassembly of NPCs in mitotic cells, paralleled by studies of cells depleted of Tpr as a result of posttranscriptional tpr gene silencing by RNA interference (RNAi)., The results raise the possibility that NPC-localized protein desumoylation may be a key regulatory event preventing inappropriate pre-mRNA export., Silencing nuclear pore protein Tpr elicits a senescent-like phenotype in cancer cells.[SEP]Relations: nuclear pore has relations: cellcomp_protein with RAN, cellcomp_protein with RAN, cellcomp_protein with IPO5, cellcomp_protein with IPO5, cellcomp_protein with GLE1, cellcomp_protein with GLE1, cellcomp_protein with IPO7, cellcomp_protein with IPO7, cellcomp_protein with RGPD5, cellcomp_protein with RGPD5. Definitions: NPC defined as following: A carcinoma that originates in the EPITHELIUM of the NASOPHARYNX and includes four subtypes: keratinizing squamous cell, non-keratinizing, basaloid squamous cell, and PAPILLARY ADENOCARCINOMA. It is most prevalent in Southeast Asian populations and is associated with EPSTEIN-BARR VIRUS INFECTIONS. Somatic mutations associated with this cancer have been identified in NPCR, BAP1, UBAP1, ERBB2, ERBB3, MLL2, PIK3CA, KRAS, NRAS, and ARID1A genes.. Nup358 defined as following: Human RANBP2 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 2q12.3 and is approximately 66 kb in length. This allele, which encodes E3 SUMO-protein ligase RanBP2 protein, plays a role in both nuclear transport and protein SUMOylation. Mutation of the gene is associated with acute infection-induced encephalopathy 3. A chromosomal translocation t(2;2)(p23;q13) involving this gene and the ALK gene is associated with both inflammatory myofibroblastic tumor and, more rarely, myeloproliferative disorders.. pre-mRNA defined as following: A primary RNA transcript synthesized from a DNA template in eukaryotic nuclei which is post-transcriptionally modified and spliced to produce a mature mRNA.. cancer cells defined as following: Cells of, or derived from, a malignant tumor.. SGs defined as following: A rare, autosomal dominant inherited syndrome often caused by mutations in the SKI gene. It is characterized by premature fusion of skull bones and distinctive facial features, including a long, narrow head, hypertelorism, exophthalmos, downslanting palpebral fissures, a high, narrow palate, micrognathia, and low-set ears. The bodies of affected individuals resemble those of people with Marfan syndrome.. Tpr defined as following: Nucleoprotein TPR (2363 aa, ~267 kDa) is encoded by the human TPR gene. This protein plays a role in both mitotic spindle assembly and nuclear membrane transport.. cells defined as following: The fundamental, structural, and functional units or subunits of living organisms. They are composed of CYTOPLASM containing various ORGANELLES and a CELL MEMBRANE boundary.. nuclear pore complex defined as following: An opening through the NUCLEAR ENVELOPE formed by the nuclear pore complex which transports nuclear proteins or RNA into or out of the CELL NUCLEUS and which, under some conditions, acts as an ion channel.. stress granules defined as following: A dense aggregation in the cytosol composed of proteins and RNAs that appear when the cell is under stress. [GOC:ans, PMID:17284590, PMID:17601829, PMID:17967451, PMID:20368989]. nuclear pore defined as following: An opening through the NUCLEAR ENVELOPE formed by the nuclear pore complex which transports nuclear proteins or RNA into or out of the CELL NUCLEUS and which, under some conditions, acts as an ion channel..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_1466", "sentence1": "Is the HRC Ser96Ala variant associated with sudden cardiac death in patients with dilated cardiomyopathy?", "sentence2": "The Ser96Ala genetic variant of HRC is associated with life-threatening ventricular arrhythmias in idiopathic DCM and may serve as an independent predictor of susceptibility to arrhythmogenesis in the setting of DCM., The Ser96Ala (S96A) mutation within the histidine rich Ca(2+) binding protein (HRC) has recently been linked to cardiac arrhythmias in idiopathic dilated cardiomyopathy patients, potentially attributable to an increase in spontaneous Ca(2+) release events., A human genetic variant (Ser96Ala) in the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) histidine-rich Ca(2+)-binding (HRC) protein has been linked to ventricular arrhythmia and sudden death in dilated cardiomyopathy., The histidine-rich calcium binding protein (HRC) Ser96Ala polymorphism was shown to correlate with ventricular arrhythmias and sudden death only in dilated cardiomyopathy patients but not in healthy human carriers., HRC has been linked with familiar cardiac conduction disease and an HRC polymorphism was shown to associate with malignant ventricular arrhythmias in the background of idiopathic dilated cardiomyopathy., A human genetic variant (Ser96Ala) in the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) histidine-rich Ca(2+)-binding (HRC) protein has been linked to ventricular arrhythmia and sudden death in dilated cardiomyopathy, The Ser96Ala genetic variant of HRC is associated with life-threatening ventricular arrhythmias in idiopathic DCM and may serve as an independent predictor of susceptibility to arrhythmogenesis in the setting of DCM., The histidine-rich calcium binding protein (HRC) Ser96Ala polymorphism was shown to correlate with ventricular arrhythmias and sudden death only in dilated cardiomyopathy patients but not in healthy human carriers, The Ser96Ala variant in histidine-rich calcium-binding protein is associated with life-threatening ventricular arrhythmias in idiopathic dilated cardiomyopathy., These findings indicate that the HRC Ser96Ala variant increases the propensity of arrhythmogenic Ca(2+) waves in the stressed failing heart, suggesting a link between this genetic variant and life-threatening ventricular arrhythmias in human carriers.[SEP]Relations: dilated cardiomyopathy has relations: disease_phenotype_positive with Sudden cardiac death, disease_phenotype_positive with Sudden cardiac death, disease_phenotype_positive with Sudden death, disease_phenotype_positive with Sudden death, disease_protein with SLC22A5, disease_protein with SLC22A5, disease_protein with ABCC9, disease_protein with ABCC9. Sudden death has relations: disease_phenotype_positive with dilated cardiomyopathy, disease_phenotype_positive with dilated cardiomyopathy. Definitions: ventricular arrhythmia defined as following: An electrocardiographic finding of an atypical cardiac rhythm resulting from a pathologic process in the cardiac ventricles.. variant defined as following: An alteration or difference from a norm or standard.. human defined as following: Members of the species Homo sapiens.. sarcoplasmic reticulum defined as following: A network of tubules and sacs in the cytoplasm of SKELETAL MUSCLE FIBERS that assist with muscle contraction and relaxation by releasing and storing calcium ions.. dilated cardiomyopathy defined as following: Cardiomyopathy which is characterized by dilation and contractile dysfunction of the left and right ventricles. It may be idiopathic, or it may result from a myocardial infarction, myocardial infection, or alcohol abuse. It is a cause of congestive heart failure.. polymorphism defined as following: The regular and simultaneous occurrence in a single interbreeding population of two or more discontinuous genotypes. The concept includes differences in genotypes ranging in size from a single nucleotide site (POLYMORPHISM, SINGLE NUCLEOTIDE) to large nucleotide sequences visible at a chromosomal level.. ventricular arrhythmias defined as following: A disorder characterized by an electrocardiographic finding of an atypical cardiac rhythm resulting from a pathologic process in the cardiac ventricles.. cardiac arrhythmias defined as following: Any disturbances of the normal rhythmic beating of the heart or MYOCARDIAL CONTRACTION. Cardiac arrhythmias can be classified by the abnormalities in HEART RATE, disorders of electrical impulse generation, or impulse conduction.. sudden death defined as following: The abrupt cessation of all vital bodily functions, manifested by the permanent loss of total cerebral, respiratory, and cardiovascular functions.. DCM defined as following: A chlorinated methotrexate derivative. Dichloromethotrexate inhibits the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase, thereby preventing the synthesis of purine nucleotides and thymidylates and inhibiting DNA and RNA synthesis. This agent is metabolized and excreted by the liver. (NCI04). sudden cardiac death defined as following: Unexpected rapid natural death due to cardiovascular collapse within one hour of initial symptoms. It is usually caused by the worsening of existing heart diseases. The sudden onset of symptoms, such as CHEST PAIN and CARDIAC ARRHYTHMIAS, particularly VENTRICULAR TACHYCARDIA, can lead to the loss of consciousness and cardiac arrest followed by biological death. (from Braunwald's Heart Disease: A Textbook of Cardiovascular Medicine, 7th ed., 2005).", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_1846", "sentence1": "Can Diabetes be caused by a defect in a potassium chanel?", "sentence2": "Mutations in KATP channel genes can result in hypo- or hypersecretion of insulin, as in neonatal diabetes mellitus and congenital hyperinsulinism, respectively., To date, all patients affected by neonatal diabetes due to a mutation in the pore-forming subunit of the channel (Kir6.2, KCNJ11) are heterozygous for the mutation. , e report the first clinical case of neonatal diabetes caused by a homozygous KCNJ11 mutation, Diffuse congenital hyperinsulinism in infancy (CHI-D) arises from mutations inactivating the KATP channel;, We report a case of a 6-week-old infant with diabetes mellitus based on a genetic defect in the sulfonylurea receptor 1 (SUR1), an ATP-sensitive potassium (KATP) channel protein., In diabetes, vascular KATP channel function is impaired.[SEP]Relations: Type I diabetes mellitus has relations: disease_phenotype_positive with transketolase deficiency, disease_phenotype_positive with transketolase deficiency, disease_phenotype_positive with vasculitis due to ADA2 deficiency, disease_phenotype_positive with vasculitis due to ADA2 deficiency, disease_phenotype_positive with immunodeficiency due to CD25 deficiency, disease_phenotype_positive with immunodeficiency due to CD25 deficiency, disease_phenotype_positive with methanol poisoning, disease_phenotype_positive with methanol poisoning. KCNJ11 has relations: pathway_protein with Defective ABCC8 can cause hypo- and hyper-glycemias, pathway_protein with Defective ABCC8 can cause hypo- and hyper-glycemias. Definitions: congenital hyperinsulinism defined as following: A familial, nontransient HYPOGLYCEMIA with defects in negative feedback of GLUCOSE-regulated INSULIN release. Clinical phenotypes include HYPOGLYCEMIA; HYPERINSULINEMIA; SEIZURES; COMA; and often large BIRTH WEIGHT. Several sub-types exist with the most common, type 1, associated with mutations on an ATP-BINDING CASSETTE TRANSPORTERS (subfamily C, member 8).. insulin defined as following: A synthetic or animal-derived form of insulin used in the treatment of diabetes mellitus. Therapeutic insulin is formulated to be short-, intermediate- and long-acting in order to individualize an insulin regimen according to individual differences in glucose and insulin metabolism. Therapeutic insulin may be derived from porcine, bovine or recombinant sources. Endogenous human insulin, a pancreatic hormone composed of two polypeptide chains, is important for the normal metabolism of carbohydrates, proteins and fats and has anabolic effects on many types of tissues.. mutation defined as following: Any transmissible change in the genetic material of an organism, which can result from radiation, viral infection, transposition, treatment with mutagenic chemicals and errors during DNA replication or meiosis. The effects of mutation range from single base changes to loss or gain of complete chromosomes. As many of the simpler alterations to DNA may be repaired, such changes are only heritable once the change is fixed in the DNA by the process of replication. Mutations may be associated with genetic diversity or with pathologies including cancer.. diabetes defined as following: A heterogeneous group of disorders characterized by HYPERGLYCEMIA and GLUCOSE INTOLERANCE.. sulfonylurea receptor 1 defined as following: ATP-BINDING CASSETTE PROTEINS that are highly conserved and widely expressed in nature. They form an integral part of the ATP-sensitive potassium channel complex which has two intracellular nucleotide folds that bind to sulfonylureas and their analogs.. KATP channel defined as following: Heteromultimers of Kir6 channels (the pore portion) and sulfonylurea receptor (the regulatory portion) which affect function of the HEART; PANCREATIC BETA CELLS; and KIDNEY COLLECTING DUCTS. KATP channel blockers include GLIBENCLAMIDE and mitiglinide whereas openers include CROMAKALIM and minoxidil sulfate.. Mutations defined as following: The result of any gain, loss or alteration of the sequences comprising a gene, including all sequences transcribed into RNA.. Diabetes defined as following: A heterogeneous group of disorders characterized by HYPERGLYCEMIA and GLUCOSE INTOLERANCE..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_809", "sentence1": "Are conserved noncoding elements associated with developmental genes?", "sentence2": "Some characteristics of CNEs include their high frequency in mammalian genomes, their potential regulatory role in gene expression, and their enrichment in gene deserts nearby master developmental genes, we review recent findings that disruptions of CNEs, within or at long distance from the coding sequences of key genes involved in NCC development, result in neurocristopathies via the alteration of tissue- or stage-specific long-distance regulation of gene expression, Genomic regulatory blocks are chromosomal regions spanned by long clusters of highly conserved noncoding elements devoted to long-range regulation of developmental genes, Analysis of CNEs, at least some of which are candidate regulatory elements, suggests that ancestral CNEs partitioned between gene duplicates. These results help explain the evolutionary pathways by which the developmentally important family of FgfD molecules arose and the deduced principles that guided FgfD evolution are likely applicable to the evolution of developmental regulation in many vertebrate multigene families, Pan-vertebrate developmental cis-regulatory elements are discernible as highly conserved noncoding elements (HCNEs) and are often dispersed over large areas around the pleiotropic genes whose expression they control. On the loci of two developmental transcription factor genes, SOX3 and PAX6, we demonstrate that HCNEs conserved between human and zebrafish can be systematically and reliably tested for their regulatory function in multiple stable transgenes in zebrafish, and their genomic reach estimated with confidence using synteny conservation and HCNE density along these loci. HCNEs of both human and zebrafish function as specific developmental enhancers in zebrafish, We show that human HCNEs result in expression patterns in zebrafish equivalent to those in mouse, establishing zebrafish as a suitable model for large-scale testing of human developmental enhancers, HCNEs from the same area often drive overlapping patterns, suggesting that multiple regulatory inputs are required to achieve robust and precise complex expression patterns exhibited by developmental genes, Organization of conserved elements near key developmental regulators in vertebrate genomes, Further positional analysis of these conserved noncoding elements (CNEs) in the genome demonstrates that they cluster around genes involved in developmental regulation, Ancora: a web resource for exploring highly conserved noncoding elements and their association with developmental regulatory genes, Metazoan genomes contain arrays of highly conserved noncoding elements (HCNEs) that span developmental regulatory genes and define regulatory domains, The most highly conserved noncoding elements (HCNEs) in mammalian genomes cluster within regions enriched for genes encoding developmentally important transcription factors (TFs). This suggests that HCNE-rich regions may contain key regulatory controls involved in development, We found the largest mammal-teleost conserved chromosomal segments to be spanned by highly conserved noncoding elements (HCNEs), their developmental regulatory target genes, and phylogenetically and functionally unrelated \"bystander\" genes., Ancora: a web resource for exploring highly conserved noncoding elements and their association with developmental regulatory genes., Pan-vertebrate developmental cis-regulatory elements are discernible as highly conserved noncoding elements (HCNEs) and are often dispersed over large areas around the pleiotropic genes whose expression they control., Metazoan genomes contain arrays of highly conserved noncoding elements (HCNEs) that span developmental regulatory genes and define regulatory domains., Further positional analysis of these conserved noncoding elements (CNEs) in the genome demonstrates that they cluster around genes involved in developmental regulation., The most highly conserved noncoding elements (HCNEs) in mammalian genomes cluster within regions enriched for genes encoding developmentally important transcription factors (TFs)., Disruption of long-distance highly conserved noncoding elements in neurocristopathies., Fish-mammal genomic comparisons have proved powerful in identifying conserved noncoding elements likely to be cis-regulatory in nature, and the majority of those tested in vivo have been shown to act as tissue-specific enhancers associated with genes involved in transcriptional regulation of development., Despite this, attempts at unearthing genome-wide regulatory elements conserved throughout the vertebrate lineage using BLAST-like approaches have thus far detected noncoding conservation in only a few hundred genes, mostly associated with regulation of transcription and development., Further positional analysis of these conserved noncoding elements (CNEs) in the genome demonstrates that they cluster around genes involved in developmental regulation., We found the largest mammal-teleost conserved chromosomal segments to be spanned by highly conserved noncoding elements (HCNEs), their developmental regulatory target genes, and phylogenetically and functionally unrelated \"bystander\" genes., Organization of conserved elements near key developmental regulators in vertebrate genomes., Pan-vertebrate developmental cis-regulatory elements are discernible as highly conserved noncoding elements (HCNEs) and are often dispersed over large areas around the pleiotropic genes whose expression they control[SEP]Relations: transcription factor binding has relations: molfunc_protein with PARK7, molfunc_protein with PARK7, molfunc_protein with ARNT, molfunc_protein with ARNT, molfunc_protein with HOXA7, molfunc_protein with HOXA7, molfunc_protein with CEBPG, molfunc_protein with CEBPG. SLC12A3 has relations: anatomy_protein_absent with decidua, anatomy_protein_absent with decidua. Definitions: gene defined as following: A category of nucleic acid sequences that function as units of heredity and which code for the basic instructions for the development, reproduction, and maintenance of organisms.. PAX6 defined as following: This gene plays a role in transcriptional regulation.. genome defined as following: Anatomical set of genes in all the chromosomes.. pleiotropic genes defined as following: A single gene that influences several distinct and seemly unrelated phenotypic outcomes.. conservation defined as following: The maintenance of certain characteristics in an unchanged condition.. SOX3 defined as following: This gene is involved in neuronal differentiation.. human defined as following: Members of the species Homo sapiens.. zebrafish defined as following: An exotic species of the family CYPRINIDAE, originally from Asia, that has been introduced in North America. Zebrafish is a model organism for drug assay and cancer research.. transgenes defined as following: Genes that are introduced into an organism using GENE TRANSFER TECHNIQUES.. transcription factors defined as following: Endogenous substances, usually proteins, which are effective in the initiation, stimulation, or termination of the genetic transcription process.. developmental genes defined as following: Genes that determine the fate of a cell or CELLS in a region of the embryo during EMBRYONIC DEVELOPMENT.. vertebrate defined as following: Animals having a vertebral column, members of the phylum Chordata, subphylum Craniata comprising mammals, birds, reptiles, amphibians, and fishes..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_2349", "sentence1": "Do chromatin features predict genes associated with eQTLs?", "sentence2": "Using the random forest classifier, we found that genomic proximity plus five TF and chromatin features are able to predict>90% of target genes within 1 megabase of eQTLs, Using the random forest classifier, we found that genomic proximity plus five TF and chromatin features are able to predict >90% of target genes within 1 megabase of eQTLs., Cell type-specific gene expression in humans involves complex interactions between regulatory factors and DNA at enhancers and promoters. Mapping studies for expression quantitative trait loci (eQTLs), transcription factors (TFs) and chromatin markers have become widely used tools for identifying gene regulatory elements, but prediction of target genes remains a major challenge. Here, we integrate genome-wide data on TF-binding sites, chromatin markers and functional annotations to predict genes associated with human eQTLs. Using the random forest classifier, we found that genomic proximity plus five TF and chromatin features are able to predict >90% of target genes within 1 megabase of eQTLs. Despite being regularly used to map target genes, proximity is not a good indicator of eQTL targets for genes 150 kilobases away, but insulators, TF co-occurrence, open chromatin and functional similarities between TFs and genes are better indicators. Using all six features in the classifier achieved an area under the specificity and sensitivity curve of 0.91, much better compared with at most 0.75 for using any single feature. We hope this study will not only provide validation of eQTL-mapping studies, but also provide insight into the molecular mechanisms explaining how genetic variation can influence gene expression.[SEP]Relations: transcription factor binding has relations: molfunc_protein with C1QBP, molfunc_protein with C1QBP, molfunc_protein with METTL23, molfunc_protein with METTL23, molfunc_protein with ETS1, molfunc_protein with ETS1, molfunc_protein with CENPF, molfunc_protein with CENPF, molfunc_protein with AHR, molfunc_protein with AHR. Definitions: humans defined as following: Members of the species Homo sapiens.. TF defined as following: A person who was assigned to the male gender at birth based on physical characteristics but who self-identifies psychologically and emotionally as female.. DNA defined as following: A deoxyribonucleotide polymer that is the primary genetic material of all cells. Eukaryotic and prokaryotic organisms normally contain DNA in a double-stranded state, yet several important biological processes transiently involve single-stranded regions. DNA, which consists of a polysugar-phosphate backbone possessing projections of purines (adenine and guanine) and pyrimidines (thymine and cytosine), forms a double helix that is held together by hydrogen bonds between these purines and pyrimidines (adenine to thymine and guanine to cytosine).. promoters defined as following: A DNA sequence at which RNA polymerase binds and initiates transcription.. transcription factors defined as following: Endogenous substances, usually proteins, which are effective in the initiation, stimulation, or termination of the genetic transcription process.. genes defined as following: A category of nucleic acid sequences that function as units of heredity and which code for the basic instructions for the development, reproduction, and maintenance of organisms.. chromatin defined as following: The material of CHROMOSOMES. It is a complex of DNA; HISTONES; and nonhistone proteins (CHROMOSOMAL PROTEINS, NON-HISTONE) found within the nucleus of a cell..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_4300", "sentence1": "Is istiratumab effective for pancreatic cancer?", "sentence2": "CONCLUSIONS: Istiratumab failed to improve the efficacy of SOC chemotherapy in this patient setting. [SEP]Definitions: pancreatic cancer defined as following: A primary or metastatic malignant tumor involving the pancreas. Representative examples include carcinoma and lymphoma..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_4145", "sentence1": "Is atenolol metabolized by CYP2D6?", "sentence2": "The study analysed the prescribing and dispensing of CYP2D6 drugs (metoprolol, donepezil, galantamine, codeine, tamoxifen) together with CYP2D6-blocking SSRIs (paroxetine/fluoxetine) or SSRIs without significant CYP2D6 inhibition (citalopram/escitalopram/sertraline), and the related prescribing of CYP2D6-independent comparator drugs (atenolol, rivastigmine, propoxyphene, anastrozole).[SEP]Relations: Atenolol has relations: drug_protein with CYP2D6, drug_protein with CYP2D6, drug_drug with NN344, drug_drug with NN344, drug_protein with ADRB2, drug_protein with ADRB2, drug_drug with Isocarboxazid, drug_drug with Isocarboxazid, drug_protein with ABCB11, drug_protein with ABCB11. Definitions: propoxyphene defined as following: The d-isomer of synthetic diphenyl propionate derivative propoxyphene, with narcotic analgesic effect. This agent mimics the effects of the endogenous opiate dextropropoxyphene, by binding to mu receptors located throughout the central nervous system. The binding results in GTP to GDP exchanges on the mu-G-protein complex, by which effector adenylate cyclase is inactivated thereby decreasing intracellular cAMP. This, in turn, inhibits the release of various nociceptive neurotransmitters, such as substance P, gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA), dopamine, acetylcholine, noradrenaline, vasopressin, and somatostatin. In addition, dextropropoxyphene closes N-type voltage-gated calcium channels and opens calcium-dependent inwardly rectifying potassium channels. This results in hyperpolarization, thereby reducing neuronal excitability, which further decreases the perception of pain.. SSRIs defined as following: Any agent that increases the extracellular level of the neurotransmitter serotonin (5-HT) by inhibiting its reuptake into the presynaptic cell. Increased level in the synaptic cleft prolongs the action of 5-HT on the postsynaptic receptor. This type of agent is typically used as an antidepressant and in the treatment of anxiety disorders and some personality disorders. They are also typically effective and used in treating some cases of insomnia.. donepezil defined as following: The hydrochloride salt of a piperidine derivative with neurocognitive-enhancing activity. Donepezil reversibly inhibits acetylcholinesterase, thereby blocking the hydrolysis of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine and, consequently, increasing its activity. This agent may improve neurocognitive function in Alzheimer's disease, reduce sedation associated with opioid treatment of cancer pain, and improve neurocognitive function in patients who have received radiation therapy for primary brain tumors or brain metastases.. galantamine defined as following: A benzazepine derived from norbelladine. It is found in GALANTHUS and other AMARYLLIDACEAE. It is a cholinesterase inhibitor that has been used to reverse the muscular effects of GALLAMINE TRIETHIODIDE and TUBOCURARINE and has been studied as a treatment for ALZHEIMER DISEASE and other central nervous system disorders.. codeine defined as following: An opioid analgesic related to MORPHINE but with less potent analgesic properties and mild sedative effects. It also acts centrally to suppress cough.. tamoxifen defined as following: One of the SELECTIVE ESTROGEN RECEPTOR MODULATORS with tissue-specific activities. Tamoxifen acts as an anti-estrogen (inhibiting agent) in the mammary tissue, but as an estrogen (stimulating agent) in cholesterol metabolism, bone density, and cell proliferation in the ENDOMETRIUM.. rivastigmine defined as following: A carbamate-derived reversible CHOLINESTERASE INHIBITOR that is selective for the CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM and is used for the treatment of DEMENTIA in ALZHEIMER DISEASE and PARKINSON DISEASE.. metoprolol defined as following: A selective adrenergic beta-1 blocking agent that is commonly used to treat ANGINA PECTORIS; HYPERTENSION; and CARDIAC ARRHYTHMIAS.. atenolol defined as following: A cardioselective beta-1 adrenergic blocker possessing properties and potency similar to PROPRANOLOL, but without a negative inotropic effect.. CYP2D6 defined as following: Cytochrome P450 2D6 (497 aa, ~56 kDa) is encoded by the human CYP2D6 gene. This protein plays a role in flavoprotein metabolism..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_3587", "sentence1": "Does Estrogen lead to forkhead FoxA1 activation?", "sentence2": "We showed that CTCF acts upstream of the \"pioneer\" factor FOXA1 in determining the genomic response to estrogen. , Almost all ER-chromatin interactions and gene expression changes depended on the presence of FOXA1 and FOXA1 influenced genome-wide chromatin accessibility, FOXA1 is a key determinant of estrogen receptor function and endocrine response., As such, FOXA1 is a major determinant of estrogen-ER activity and endocrine response in breast cancer cells., Location analysis of estrogen receptor alpha target promoters reveals that FOXA1 defines a domain of the estrogen response., Furthermore, knockdown of FoxA1 expression blocks the association of ER with chromatin and estrogen-induced gene expression demonstrating the necessity of FoxA1 in mediating an estrogen response in breast cancer cells., FoxA1 determines estrogen receptor action in breast cancer progression, Given previous findings from cell lines, FoxA1 appears to play a critical role in this reprogramming of ER binding., FOXA1 expression can independently predict chemosensitivity of ER-positive breast cancer patients., FOXA1 expression could be a prognostic marker in ER-positive breast cancer., The pioneer transcription factor FoxA1 plays an important role in estrogen signaling by opening closed chromatin and promoting recruitment of the estrogen receptor to its target regions in DNA, The phosphomimetic FoxA1 promoted the activation of estrogen signaling, whereas the nonphosphorylatable FoxA1 suppressed its activation.[SEP]Relations: estrogen receptor activity has relations: molfunc_protein with GPER1, molfunc_protein with GPER1, molfunc_protein with GPER1, molfunc_protein with GPER1, molfunc_protein with ESR1, molfunc_protein with ESR1, molfunc_protein with ESR1, molfunc_protein with ESR1, molfunc_protein with ESR2, molfunc_protein with ESR2. Definitions: estrogen receptor alpha defined as following: One of the ESTROGEN RECEPTORS that has marked affinity for ESTRADIOL. Its expression and function differs from, and in some ways opposes, ESTROGEN RECEPTOR BETA.. CTCF defined as following: CCN family member 2 (349 aa, ~38kDa) is encoded by the human CCN2 gene. This protein plays a role in the promotion of proliferation and differentiation of chondrocytes and also mediates heparin- and divalent cation-dependent cell adhesion in many different cell types.. FoxA1 defined as following: This gene plays a role in the modulation of gene expression.. estrogen receptor defined as following: Cytoplasmic proteins that bind estrogens and migrate to the nucleus where they regulate DNA transcription. Evaluation of the state of estrogen receptors in breast cancer patients has become clinically important.. breast cancer defined as following: A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the breast. The vast majority of cases are carcinomas arising from the breast parenchyma or the nipple. Malignant breast neoplasms occur more frequently in females than in males.. ER defined as following: A system of cisternae in the CYTOPLASM of many cells. In places the endoplasmic reticulum is continuous with the plasma membrane (CELL MEMBRANE) or outer membrane of the nuclear envelope. If the outer surfaces of the endoplasmic reticulum membranes are coated with ribosomes, the endoplasmic reticulum is said to be rough-surfaced (ENDOPLASMIC RETICULUM, ROUGH); otherwise it is said to be smooth-surfaced (ENDOPLASMIC RETICULUM, SMOOTH). (King & Stansfield, A Dictionary of Genetics, 4th ed). domain defined as following: A taxonomic category above that of Kingdom.. DNA defined as following: A deoxyribonucleotide polymer that is the primary genetic material of all cells. Eukaryotic and prokaryotic organisms normally contain DNA in a double-stranded state, yet several important biological processes transiently involve single-stranded regions. DNA, which consists of a polysugar-phosphate backbone possessing projections of purines (adenine and guanine) and pyrimidines (thymine and cytosine), forms a double helix that is held together by hydrogen bonds between these purines and pyrimidines (adenine to thymine and guanine to cytosine).. cell lines defined as following: Established cell cultures that have the potential to propagate indefinitely.. FOXA1 defined as following: This gene plays a role in the modulation of gene expression.. chromatin defined as following: The ordered and organized complex of DNA, protein, and sometimes RNA, that forms the chromosome. [GOC:elh, PMID:20404130]. Estrogen defined as following: Compounds that interact with ESTROGEN RECEPTORS in target tissues to bring about the effects similar to those of ESTRADIOL. Estrogens stimulate the female reproductive organs, and the development of secondary female SEX CHARACTERISTICS. Estrogenic chemicals include natural, synthetic, steroidal, or non-steroidal compounds..", "label": "yes"}