{"id": "converted_712", "sentence1": "Is PER3 required for CHK2 activation in human cells?", "sentence2": "Per3, a circadian gene, is required for Chk2 activation in human cells., Depletion of Per3 by siRNA almost completely abolished activation of checkpoint kinase 2 (Chk2) after inducing DNA damage in human cells., Per3 overexpression induced Chk2 activation in the absence of exogenous DNA damage,, Per3 overexpression also led to the inhibition of cell proliferation and apoptotic cell death., These combined results suggest that Per3 is a checkpoint protein that plays important roles in checkpoint activation, cell proliferation and apoptosis., Depletion of Per3 by siRNA almost completely abolished activation of checkpoint kinase 2 (Chk2) after inducing DNA damage in human cells, Per3 overexpression induced Chk2 activation in the absence of exogenous DNA damage, and this activation depended on ATM, In addition, Per3 physically interacted with ATM and Chk2[SEP]Relations: PER3 has relations: protein_protein with CHEK2, protein_protein with CHEK2, protein_protein with PER2, protein_protein with PER2, molfunc_protein with kinase binding, molfunc_protein with kinase binding, protein_protein with BTK, protein_protein with BTK, protein_protein with DHRS2, protein_protein with DHRS2. Definitions: checkpoint kinase 2 defined as following: Serine/threonine-protein kinase Chk2 (543 aa, ~61 kDa) is encoded by the human CHEK2 gene. This protein plays an essential role in the DNA damage checkpoint of the cell cycle.. Chk2 defined as following: Human CHEK2 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 22q12.1 and is approximately 57 kb in length. This allele, which encodes serine/threonine-protein kinase Chk2 protein, is involved in prevention of entry into mitosis and induction of G1 checkpoint arrest in response to DNA damage. Certain allelic variants of the CHEK2 gene that encode protein products with reduced or abolished activity are associated with Li-Fraumeni syndrome 2. Heritable alterations in this gene also confer susceptibility to breast, colorectal and prostate cancers.. CHK2 defined as following: Human CHEK2 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 22q12.1 and is approximately 57 kb in length. This allele, which encodes serine/threonine-protein kinase Chk2 protein, is involved in prevention of entry into mitosis and induction of G1 checkpoint arrest in response to DNA damage. Certain allelic variants of the CHEK2 gene that encode protein products with reduced or abolished activity are associated with Li-Fraumeni syndrome 2. Heritable alterations in this gene also confer susceptibility to breast, colorectal and prostate cancers..", "label": "yes"}
{"id": "converted_1013", "sentence1": "Is farnesoid X receptor (FXR) a nuclear receptor?", "sentence2": "Farnesoid X receptor (FXR) belongs to the ligand-activated nuclear receptor superfamily, and functions as a transcription factor regulating the transcription of numerous genes involved in bile acid homeostasis, lipoprotein and glucose metabolism, Farnesoid X receptor (FXR) is an ascending target for metabolic and inflammatory diseases. As a nuclear receptor, FXR exhibits many physiological effects in transcription control of several genes., FXR is a member of the nuclear receptor superfamily which is also highly expressed in the liver. , Farnesoid X receptor (FXR) is a bile acid nuclear receptor described through mouse knockout studies as a tumor suppressor for the development of colon adenocarcinomas, Farnesoid X receptor (FXR, Nr1h4) is a ligand-activated transcription factor belonging to the nuclear receptor superfamily., the nuclear receptor farnesoid X receptor , farnesoid X receptor (FXR), a nuclear receptor activated by bile acid ligands. , T-β-MCA is an farnesoid X receptor (FXR) nuclear receptor antagonist,, Farnesoid X receptor (FXR), a nuclear receptor (NR) and originally considered as a bile acid-activated transcriptional factor, , The nuclear receptor farnesoid X receptor (FXR) plays a major role in the enterohepatic cycling of bile acids, Liver X receptors, LXRs, are ligand-activated transcription factors that belong to the group H nuclear receptor (NR) superfamily. , The intracellular nuclear receptor farnesoid X receptor and the transmembrane G protein-coupled receptor TGR5 respond to bile acids by activating transcriptional networks and/or signalling cascades., ncluding those of nuclear receptors, primarily farnesoid X receptor (FXR), , ile acids and their cognate nuclear receptor, FXR,, Farnesoid X receptor (FXR, Nr1h4) and small heterodimer partner (SHP, Nr0b2) are nuclear receptors that are critical to liver homeostasis., he activation of the nuclear receptor farnesoid X receptor (FXRα), bile acid-activated nuclear receptor farnesoid X receptor (FXR), nuclear receptor signaling, notably by the farnesoid X receptor (FXR, FXR (farnesoid X receptor, NRIH4), a nuclear receptor, plays a major role in the control of cholesterol metabolism., The role of the nuclear receptor FXR is unclear., nuclear receptor FXR , a member of the nuclear receptor superfamily of ligand-activated transcription factors,, Farnesoid X receptor (FXR) is a nuclear receptor that functions as a bile acid sensor controlling bile acid homeostasis.[SEP]Relations: nuclear receptor activity has relations: molfunc_protein with RXRA, molfunc_protein with RXRA, molfunc_protein with RXRG, molfunc_protein with RXRG, molfunc_protein with RXRB, molfunc_protein with RXRB, molfunc_protein with NKX3-1, molfunc_protein with NKX3-1, molfunc_protein with ESR1, molfunc_protein with ESR1. Definitions: Farnesoid X receptor defined as following: This gene is involved in bile acid binding and metabolism.. Nr0b2 defined as following: Human NR0B2 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 1p36.1 and is approximately 2 kb in length. This allele, which encodes nuclear receptor 0B2 protein, is involved in transcriptional repression that is mediated by nuclear hormone receptor interactions. Mutations and dysfunction in the gene is associated with obesity.. FXR defined as following: Human NR1H4 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 12q23.1 and is approximately 91 kb in length. This allele, which encodes bile acid receptor protein, plays a role in both the metabolism of bile acids and ligand-dependent transcriptional regulation.. nuclear receptor defined as following: Proteins that regulate transcription via interaction with chromatin and basal transcription machinery at the promoter regions of genes. Nuclear receptors are ligand-dependent transcription factors including steroids, retinoids, vitamin D, unliganded thyroid hormone, and orphan receptors (unknown ligands). Coregulators (coactivators or corepressors) are important in mediating these interactions and thereby modulate positive or negative receptor activity.. transcription factor defined as following: Endogenous substances, usually proteins, which are effective in the initiation, stimulation, or termination of the genetic transcription process.. colon adenocarcinomas defined as following: An adenocarcinoma arising from the colon. It is more frequently seen in populations with a Western type diet and in patients with a history of chronic inflammatory bowel disease. Signs and symptoms include intestinal bleeding, anemia, and change in bowel habits. According to the degree of cellular differentiation, colonic adenocarcinomas are divided into well, moderately, and poorly differentiated. Histologic variants include mucinous adenocarcinoma, signet ring cell carcinoma, medullary carcinoma, serrated adenocarcinoma, cribriform comedo-type adenocarcinoma, and micropapillary adenocarcinoma.. Liver X receptors defined as following: Nuclear receptors that bind OXYSTEROLS and function as heterodimers with RETINOID X RECEPTORS. They have important functions in regulating cholesterol homeostasis, ENERGY METABOLISM; INFLAMMATION; and the immune response.. genes defined as following: A category of nucleic acid sequences that function as units of heredity and which code for the basic instructions for the development, reproduction, and maintenance of organisms.. farnesoid X receptor defined as following: This gene is involved in bile acid binding and metabolism..", "label": "yes"}
{"id": "converted_2975", "sentence1": "Is dupilumab effective for treatment of asthma?", "sentence2": "The appropriate use of these biologics, and of those in development (e.g., benralizumab and dupilumab), should be aided by further understanding of asthma phenotypes and endotypes, utilizing appropriate biomarkers., Simultaneous targeting of both IL-4 and IL-13 by blocking IL-4 receptor α using dupilumab has yielded more consistent results in reducing asthma exacerbations and improving lung function, especially in patients with increased blood eosinophils., In a pivotal, phase 2b study (NCT01854047), dupilumab reduced severe exacerbations, improved lung function and quality of life, and was generally well tolerated in patients with uncontrolled persistent asthma despite using medium-to-high-dose inhaled corticosteroids plus long-acting β2-agonists., CONCLUSIONS: Dupilumab 300 mg q2w significantly improved AR-associated nasal symptoms in patients with uncontrolled persistent asthma and comorbid PAR., Small molecules (e.g. ligustrazine and SP600125) and large molecule antibodies (e.g. lebrikizumab, benralizumab, dupilumab) are being considered as novel agents for the pharmacotherapy of asthma. , Dupilumab Efficacy and Safety in Moderate-to-Severe Uncontrolled Asthma., CONCLUSIONS: In this trial, patients who received dupilumab had significantly lower rates of severe asthma exacerbation than those who received placebo, as well as better lung function and asthma control. , Dupilumab for the treatment of asthma.Dupilumab (REGN668/SAR231893), produced by a collaboration between Regeneron and Sanofi, is a monoclonal antibody currently in phase III for moderate-to-severe asthma. , Dupilumab inhibits interleukin-4 (IL-4) and interleukin-13 (IL-13) signaling and was previously found to be effective in asthma., Dupilumab (REGN668/SAR231893), produced by a collaboration between Regeneron and Sanofi, is a monoclonal antibody currently in phase III for moderate-to-severe asthma., If confirmed, efficacy of dupilumab in both eosinophilic and non-eosinophilic severe asthma phenotype might represent an advantage over approved biologics for asthma, including omalizumab, mepolizumab, and reslizumab., In this review, we focused on IL-4 and IL-13, as these interleukins are considered to play a key role in the pathophysiology of asthma, and on dupilumab, an anti-IL-4 receptor human mAb, as a forthcoming treatment for uncontrolled severe asthma in the near future., Expert opinion: Supported by a strategic mechanism of action, as well as by convincing preliminary clinical results, dupilumab currently appears to be a very promising biological drug for the treatment of severe uncontrolled asthma., All drugs decreased asthma exacerbations but the results were only significant for reslizumab and dupilumab., Anti-IL-4 and IL-13 agents (dupilumab, lebrikizumab, and tralokinumab) which block different Th-2 inflammatory pathways and agents targeting the Th-17 inflammatory pathway in severe refractory asthma are under development., Dupilumab for the treatment of asthma., In addition, dupilumab is currently under phase III development across the world for the treatment of asthma and nasal polyposis as well as for atopic dermatitis in paediatric patients., BACKGROUND\nDupilumab (an anti-interleukin-4-receptor-α monoclonal antibody) blocks signalling of interleukin 4 and interleukin 13, type 2/Th2 cytokines implicated in numerous allergic diseases ranging from asthma to atopic dermatitis., Dupilumab: a novel treatment for asthma., Dupilumab for the treatment of asthma., The efficacy and safety profile of dupilumab in the treatment of allergic diseases has been tested for more than 10 years in a variety of large clinical trials in atopic dermatitis, asthma, chronic rhinosinusitis with nasal polyposis, and eosinophilic esophagitis., Areas covered: Pathophysiological role of IL-4 and IL-13 in asthma; mechanism of action of dupilumab; pharmacology of IL-4 receptor; phase I and phase II studies with dupilumab; regulatory affairs., Expert opinion: Patients with severe asthma who are not sufficiently controlled with standard-of-care represent the target asthma population for dupilumab., CONCLUSIONS In patients with glucocorticoid-dependent severe asthma, dupilumab treatment reduced oral glucocorticoid use while decreasing the rate of severe exacerbations and increasing the FEV1., CONCLUSIONS In patients with persistent, moderate-to-severe asthma and elevated eosinophil levels who used inhaled glucocorticoids and LABAs, dupilumab therapy, as compared with placebo, was associated with fewer asthma exacerbations when LABAs and inhaled glucocorticoids were withdrawn, with improved lung function and reduced levels of Th2-associated inflammatory markers., Expert opinion: Patients with severe asthma who are not sufficiently controlled with standard-of-care represent the target asthma population for dupilumab., Dupilumab inhibits interleukin-4 (IL-4) and interleukin-13 (IL-13) signaling and was previously found to be effective in asthma., Expert opinion: Supported by a strategic mechanism of action, as well as by convincing preliminary clinical results, dupilumab currently appears to be a very promising biological drug for the treatment of severe uncontrolled asthma., Dupilumab inhibits interleukin-4 (IL-4) and interleukin-13 (IL-13) signaling and was previously found to be effective in asthma., A recent trial showed that in patients with difficult-to-control asthma, dupilumab can markedly decrease asthma exacerbations and improve respiratory symptoms and lung function; these effects were paralleled by significant reductions in T-helper 2-associated inflammatory biomarkers.[SEP]Relations: Dupilumab has relations: drug_drug with Olaratumab, drug_drug with Olaratumab, drug_drug with Lucatumumab, drug_drug with Lucatumumab, drug_drug with Dusigitumab, drug_drug with Dusigitumab, drug_drug with Tremelimumab, drug_drug with Tremelimumab, drug_drug with Avelumab, drug_drug with Avelumab. Definitions: interleukin-13 defined as following: Interleukin-13 (146 aa, ~16 kDa) is encoded by the human IL13 gene. This protein plays a role in the negative regulation of cytokine production and the positive regulation of B-cell proliferation.. eosinophil defined as following: Granular leukocytes with a nucleus that usually has two lobes connected by a slender thread of chromatin, and cytoplasm containing coarse, round granules that are uniform in size and stainable by eosin.. mepolizumab defined as following: A humanized immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) monoclonal antibody directed against interleukin-5 (IL-5) with anti-asthmatic and potential immunosuppressive activity. Upon subcutaneous administration, mepolizumab selectively binds to IL-5, preventing it from associating with interleukin-5 receptor subunit alpha (IL5RA) on the surface of eosinophils and their progenitors. IL-5 plays a role in the regulation of eosinophil development from hematopoietic progenitors as well as eosinophil maturation, differentiation, mobilization, activation, and survival. IL-5 also play a role in the pathogenesis of some phenotypes of hypereosinophilic syndrome (HES).. lebrikizumab defined as following: A humanized monoclonal antibody against interleukin 13 (IL-13) with immunosuppressive and anti-asthmatic activities. Lebrikizumab binds to IL-13 and inhibits IL-13-mediated pathways. IL-13, a cytokine mainly secreted by type 2 helper T cells, plays a key role in the induction of allergic inflammation.. PAR defined as following: That proportion of disease in the whole population that can be ascribed to the risk factor of concern.. omalizumab defined as following: A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against the C-epsilon 3 domain of immunoglobulin E. Olizumab binds to this IgE domain, thereby preventing IgE from binding to its high-affinity mast-cell receptor. (NCI04). Small molecules defined as following: A molecule with a low molecular weight that is not determined by a genome sequence.. monoclonal antibody defined as following: A humanized monoclonal antibody directed against parathyroid hormone-related protein (PTH-rP). As a poly-hormone with diverse biological roles, PTH-rP is expressed by normal tissues, acting in local tissue environments in a variety of ways; it is commonly overexpressed by breast, prostate, and other cancers, acting systemically by promoting bone resorption, inhibiting calcium excretion from the kidney, inducing hypercalcemia, and possibly playing a role in the formation of bony metastases. By blocking the effects of PTH-rP on calcium metabolism, monoclonal antibody CAL may inhibit cancer-related hypercalcemia. (NCI04). interleukin 13 defined as following: The recombinant analogue of an endogenous cytokine interleukin 13 with potential antineoplastic activity. Produced by lymphocytes and exhibiting a variety of functions, interleukin-13 (therapeutic) inhibits DNA synthesis and regulates inflammatory and immune responses. In animal models, this agent has been shown to kill tumor cells both directly and indirectly by activating the host immune system at the tumor site. (NCI04). IL-4 receptor α defined as following: Receptors present on a wide variety of hematopoietic and non-hematopoietic cell types that are specific for INTERLEUKIN-4. They are involved in signaling a variety of immunological responses related to allergic INFLAMMATION including the differentiation of TH2 CELLS and the regulation of IMMUNOGLOBULIN E production. Two subtypes of receptors exist and are referred to as the TYPE I INTERLEUKIN-4 RECEPTOR and the TYPE II INTERLEUKIN-4 RECEPTOR. Each receptor subtype is defined by its unique subunit composition.. interleukin 4 defined as following: Interleukin-4 (153 aa, ~17 kDa) is encoded by the human IL4 gene. This protein is involved in the regulation of the expression of class II MHC molecules, Fc receptors and cell surface-bound immunoglobulins.. IL-4 defined as following: A recombinant therapeutic agent which is chemically identical to or similar to the endogenous cytokine interleukin-4 (IL-4). Produced primarily by activated T-cells, IL-4 binds to and activates its cell-surface receptor, stimulating the proliferation and differentiation of activated B-cells and enhancing their ability to present antigens to T-cells. As a potential immunotherapeutic agent, recombinant IL-4 also augments the effects of other cytokines on dendritic cells (DC), cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTL), and tumor-infiltrating lymphocytes (TIL). Check for \"https://www.cancer.gov/about-cancer/treatment/clinical-trials/intervention/C589\" active clinical trials using this agent. (\"http://ncit.nci.nih.gov/ncitbrowser/ConceptReport.jsp?dictionary=NCI%20Thesaurus&code=C589\" NCI Thesaurus). interleukins defined as following: Formulated therapeutic analogs of one of a number of endogenous cytokine interleukins. Produced by T cells, macrophages, and other cells, interleukins bind to a specific surface receptor on immunohematopoietic cells, thereby inducing a multitude of biologic effects including stimulation of growth, differentiation, and proliferation of lymphocytes and eosinophils; activation of lymphocytes and macrophages; enhancement of mast cell activity; activation of the acute phase response; and stimulation of hematopoiesis. Some interleukins may enhance the host's immune response to malignant cells by stimulating lymphokine-activated killer (LAK) cells and tumor-infiltrating lymphocytes (TIL), which are capable of lysing some tumor cells. (NCI04). asthma defined as following: A form of bronchial disorder with three distinct components: airway hyper-responsiveness (RESPIRATORY HYPERSENSITIVITY), airway INFLAMMATION, and intermittent AIRWAY OBSTRUCTION. It is characterized by spasmodic contraction of airway smooth muscle, WHEEZING, and dyspnea (DYSPNEA, PAROXYSMAL).. dupilumab defined as following: A recombinant human monoclonal immunoglobulin G4 (IgG4) antibody directed against the alpha chain of the interleukin-4 receptor (IL-4R alpha) with potential immunomodulatory activities. Upon injection, dupilumab selectively binds to the IL-4R alpha chain. This disrupts IL-4/IL-13 signaling and prevents the activation of downstream pathways that mediate type 2 inflammation and may potentially inhibit tumor cell proliferation, survival, and metastasis. IL-4 and IL-13 receptors are present on the surface of numerous cells involved in the pathophysiology of type-2 helper T-cell (Th2) allergic responses, including B-lymphocytes, eosinophils, dendritic cells (DCs), monocytes, macrophages, basophils, keratinocytes, bronchial epithelial cells, endothelial cells, fibroblasts, and airway smooth muscle cells. Additionally, both IL-4 and IL-13 receptors are overexpressed in a variety of cancers and IL-4 and IL-13 and may serve as biomarkers for cancer aggressiveness. IL-4 and IL-13 are thought to be key regulatory cytokines in the tumor microenvironment (TME) and may play a role in the activation of tumor-associated macrophages (TAMs) and myeloid-derived suppressor cells (MDSCs) that mediate tumor cell survival.. human defined as following: Members of the species Homo sapiens.. nasal polyposis defined as following: Focal accumulations of EDEMA fluid in the NASAL MUCOSA accompanied by HYPERPLASIA of the associated submucosal connective tissue. Polyps may be NEOPLASMS, foci of INFLAMMATION, degenerative lesions, or malformations.. benralizumab defined as following: An afucosylated, humanized monoclonal antibody against the alpha chain of the interleukin-5 receptor (IL-5Ra), with potential anti-asthmatic activity. Upon administration, benralizumab binds to IL-5Ra and elicits an antibody-directed cell cytotoxicity (ADCC) against IL-5Ra-expressing cells. This induces apoptosis in IL-5Ra-expressing cells and may reduce asthmatic episodes. IL-5Ra, expressed on both eosinophils and basophils, plays a key role in asthma.. atopic dermatitis defined as following: A chronic inflammatory genetically determined disease of the skin marked by increased ability to form reagin (IgE), with increased susceptibility to allergic rhinitis and asthma, and hereditary disposition to a lowered threshold for pruritus. It is manifested by lichenification, excoriation, and crusting, mainly on the flexural surfaces of the elbow and knee. In infants it is known as infantile eczema..", "label": "yes"}
{"id": "converted_3216", "sentence1": "Is collagen matrix of human articular cartilage changing with disease?", "sentence2": "The collagen matrix of human articular cartilage is an essentially permanent structure that has no significant turnover in adults, even with the occurrence of disease., the chondrocytes in ageing articular cartilage have limited capacity to turnover the interterritorial matrix., Type II collagen is a major component of articular cartilage and its breakdown is a key feature of osteoarthritis. [SEP]Relations: articular cartilage of joint has relations: anatomy_anatomy with hyaline cartilage tissue, anatomy_anatomy with hyaline cartilage tissue. negative rheumatoid factor polyarthritis has relations: disease_disease with arthritic joint disease, disease_disease with arthritic joint disease. collagen type II trimer has relations: cellcomp_protein with COL2A1, cellcomp_protein with COL2A1. chondrocyte hypertrophy has relations: bioprocess_bioprocess with growth plate cartilage chondrocyte growth, bioprocess_bioprocess with growth plate cartilage chondrocyte growth, bioprocess_protein with MEX3C, bioprocess_protein with MEX3C. Definitions: Type II collagen defined as following: A fibrillar collagen found predominantly in CARTILAGE and vitreous humor. It consists of three identical alpha1(II) chains.. chondrocytes defined as following: Polymorphic cells that form cartilage.. osteoarthritis defined as following: A progressive, degenerative joint disease, the most common form of arthritis, especially in older persons. The disease is thought to result not from the aging process but from biochemical changes and biomechanical stresses affecting articular cartilage. In the foreign literature it is often called osteoarthrosis deformans.. disease defined as following: A definite pathologic process with a characteristic set of signs and symptoms. It may affect the whole body or any of its parts, and its etiology, pathology, and prognosis may be known or unknown.. articular cartilage defined as following: A protective layer of firm, flexible cartilage over the articulating ends of bones. It provides a smooth surface for joint movement, protecting the ends of long bones from wear at points of contact.. collagen defined as following: A polypeptide substance comprising about one third of the total protein in mammalian organisms. It is the main constituent of SKIN; CONNECTIVE TISSUE; and the organic substance of bones (BONE AND BONES) and teeth (TOOTH)..", "label": "no"}
{"id": "converted_2271", "sentence1": "Is davunetide being considered for the treatment of progressive supranuclear palsy?", "sentence2": "Critical appraisal of the role of davunetide in the treatment of progressive supranuclear palsy., Davunetide's efficacy and tolerability are being tested in a placebo-controlled study in PSP patients, making it the most advanced drug candidate in this indication. This review examines the disease characteristics of PSP, the rationale for treating PSP with davunetide and assesses some of the challenges of clinical trials in this patient population.[SEP]Relations: progressive supranuclear palsy has relations: disease_phenotype_positive with Parkinsonism with favorable response to dopaminergic medication, disease_phenotype_positive with Parkinsonism with favorable response to dopaminergic medication, disease_disease with supranuclear oculomotor palsy, disease_disease with supranuclear oculomotor palsy, disease_disease with syndromic disease, disease_disease with syndromic disease, disease_phenotype_positive with Neuromuscular dysphagia, disease_phenotype_positive with Neuromuscular dysphagia, disease_phenotype_positive with Retrocollis, disease_phenotype_positive with Retrocollis. Definitions: PSP defined as following: A degenerative disease of the central nervous system characterized by balance difficulties; OCULAR MOTILITY DISORDERS (supranuclear ophthalmoplegia); DYSARTHRIA; swallowing difficulties; and axial DYSTONIA. Onset is usually in the fifth decade and disease progression occurs over several years. Pathologic findings include neurofibrillary degeneration and neuronal loss in the dorsal MESENCEPHALON; SUBTHALAMIC NUCLEUS; RED NUCLEUS; pallidum; dentate nucleus; and vestibular nuclei. (From Adams et al., Principles of Neurology, 6th ed, pp1076-7).", "label": "yes"}
{"id": "converted_980", "sentence1": "Is there a relationship between junctin and ryanodine receptors?", "sentence2": "Junctin, a 26 kDa intra-sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) protein, forms a quaternary complex with triadin, calsequestrin and the ryanodine receptor (RyR) at the junctional SR membrane. , Junctin ablation appears to affect how RyRs 'sense' SR Ca(2+) load, resulting in decreased diastolic SR Ca(2+) leak despite an elevated [Ca(2+)](SR). , Single channel recordings of RyRs from WT and JCN-KO cardiac SR indicate that the absence of junctin produces a dual effect on the normally linear response of RyRs to luminal [Ca(2+)]: at low luminal [Ca(2+)] (<1 mmol l(-1)), junctin-devoid RyR channels are less responsive to luminal [Ca(2+)]; conversely, high luminal [Ca(2+)] turns them hypersensitive to this form of channel modulation. Thus, junctin produces complex effects on Ca(2+) sparks, transients, and leak, but the luminal [Ca(2+)]-dependent dual response of junctin-devoid RyRs demonstrates that junctin normally acts as an activator of RyR channels at low luminal [Ca(2+)], and as an inhibitor at high luminal [Ca(2+)]., Normal Ca(2+) signalling in skeletal muscle depends on the membrane associated proteins triadin and junctin and their ability to mediate functional interactions between the Ca(2+) binding protein calsequestrin and the type 1 ryanodine receptor in the lumen of the sarcoplasmic reticulum., We show here that purified skeletal ryanodine receptors are similarly activated by purified triadin or purified junctin added to their luminal side, although a lack of competition indicated that the proteins act at independent sites. Surprisingly, triadin and junctin differed markedly in their ability to transmit information between skeletal calsequestrin and ryanodine receptors. Purified calsequestrin inhibited junctin/triadin-associated, or junctin-associated, ryanodine receptors and the calsequestrin re-associated channel complexes were further inhibited when luminal Ca(2+) fell from 1mM to, By fusing GCaMP6f to the N-terminus of triadin 1 or junctin, GCaMP6f-T/J was targeted to dyadic junctions, where it colocalized with t-tubules and RyRs after adenovirus-mediated gene transfer. , The junctional face of the jSR, facing the transverse tubules, is occupied by a molecular complex composed of the transmembrane Ca2+ release channels (ryanodine receptors); the luminal protein calsequestrin (CSQ); the 2 membrane proteins, junctin (Jct), and triadin (Tr), which mediate CSQ-ryanodine receptor interactions; and several other components., Calsequestrin, the main calcium buffer in the sarcoplasmic reticulum, provides a pool of calcium for release through the ryanodine receptor and acts as a luminal calcium sensor for the channel via its interactions with triadin and junctin. We examined the influence of phosphorylation of calsequestrin on its ability to store calcium, to polymerise and to regulate ryanodine receptors by binding to triadin and junctin. , Junctin is a 26 kDa membrane protein that binds to calsequestrin, triadin, and ryanodine receptors (RyRs) within the junctional sarcoplasmic reticulum of calcium release units. [SEP]Relations: ryanodine receptor complex has relations: cellcomp_protein with RYR1, cellcomp_protein with RYR1, cellcomp_protein with RYR1, cellcomp_protein with RYR1, cellcomp_protein with RYR1, cellcomp_protein with RYR1, cellcomp_protein with FKBP1A, cellcomp_protein with FKBP1A, cellcomp_protein with FKBP1A, cellcomp_protein with FKBP1A. Definitions: junctin defined as following: This gene is involved in calcium ion channel regulation and amino acid hydroxylation.. calcium defined as following: A dietary supplement containing the mineral calcium.. Junctin defined as following: This gene is involved in calcium ion channel regulation and amino acid hydroxylation.. RyR defined as following: A voltage-gated calcium-release channel complex of the sarcoplasmic or endoplasmic reticulum. It plays an important role in the excitation-contraction (E-C) coupling of muscle cells. RyR comprises a family of ryanodine receptors, widely expressed throughout the animal kingdom. [GOC:ame, PMID:22822064]. type 1 ryanodine receptor defined as following: Ryanodine receptor 1 (5038 aa, ~565 kDa) is encoded by the human RYR1 gene. This protein is involved in the transport of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum and neurons.. membrane proteins defined as following: Proteins which are found in membranes including cellular and intracellular membranes. They consist of two types, peripheral and integral proteins. They include most membrane-associated enzymes, antigenic proteins, transport proteins, and drug, hormone, and lectin receptors.. luminal defined as following: Relating to the lumen of a blood vessel or other tubular structure.. proteins defined as following: Linear POLYPEPTIDES that are synthesized on RIBOSOMES and may be further modified, crosslinked, cleaved, or assembled into complex proteins with several subunits. The specific sequence of AMINO ACIDS determines the shape the polypeptide will take, during PROTEIN FOLDING, and the function of the protein.. lumen defined as following: A SI derived unit of luminous flux. It is the amount of light that falls on a unit area at unit distance from a source of one candela.. sarcoplasmic reticulum defined as following: A network of tubules and sacs in the cytoplasm of SKELETAL MUSCLE FIBERS that assist with muscle contraction and relaxation by releasing and storing calcium ions.. ryanodine receptor defined as following: A tetrameric calcium release channel in the SARCOPLASMIC RETICULUM membrane of SMOOTH MUSCLE CELLS, acting oppositely to SARCOPLASMIC RETICULUM CALCIUM-TRANSPORTING ATPASES. It is important in skeletal and cardiac excitation-contraction coupling and studied by using RYANODINE. Abnormalities are implicated in CARDIAC ARRHYTHMIAS and MUSCULAR DISEASES.. WT defined as following: A designation used to describe a wild-type zebrafish line that is of unknown stock.. membrane defined as following: A device that is made from or resembles a thin flexible sheet of material..", "label": "yes"}
{"id": "converted_3566", "sentence1": "Has LB-100 been tested in clinical trials?", "sentence2": "To determine the MTD and to assess the safety, tolerability, and potential activity of LB-100, a first-in-class small-molecule inhibitor of protein phosphatase 2A (PP2A) in adult patients with progressive solid tumors., Safety, Tolerability, and Preliminary Activity of LB-100, an Inhibitor of Protein Phosphatase 2A, in Patients with Relapsed Solid Tumors: An Open-Label, Dose Escalation, First-in-Human, Phase I Trial.[SEP]Relations: protein phosphatase 2A binding has relations: molfunc_protein with IGBP1, molfunc_protein with IGBP1, molfunc_protein with STRN, molfunc_protein with STRN, molfunc_protein with SMG5, molfunc_protein with SMG5, molfunc_protein with ARPP19, molfunc_protein with ARPP19, molfunc_protein with STRN3, molfunc_protein with STRN3. Definitions: PP2A defined as following: PP2A core enzyme consists of a 36-kDa catalytic C subunit and a constant 65-kDa regulatory/structural A subunit that interact with either a B regulatory subunit or with cell signaling molecules, that likely modulate substrate selectivity, catalytic activity, and subcellular localization, yielding the trimeric holoenzyme. Combinations of different subunit isoforms can generate many forms of PP2A, which may differ in substrate specificity, subcellular localization, or tissue specific expression.. Relapsed defined as following: To regress after partial recovery from illness. LB-100 defined as following: A water soluble inhibitor of the protein phosphatase 2A (PP2A), with potential chemo- and radiotherapy enhancing activity. Upon injection, PP2A inhibitor LB-100 inhibits the removal of phosphate groups from proteins essential for cell cycle progression. When used with radio- or chemotherapy treatment, this agent prevents the activation of PP2A-mediated repair mechanisms and allows for malignant cells to progress through the cell cycle without having their damaged DNA repaired. This enhances the cytotoxic effect of the chemotherapeutic or radiotherapeutic agent and results in tumor cell apoptosis. PP2A, a serine/threonine phosphatase that plays a key role in the control of cell growth and DNA damage repair.. solid tumors defined as following: A benign or malignant neoplasm arising from tissues that do not include fluid areas. Representative examples include epithelial neoplasms (e.g. lung carcinoma, prostate carcinoma, breast carcinoma, colon carcinoma), and neoplasms arising from the soft tissues and bones (e.g. leiomyosarcoma, liposarcoma, chondrosarcoma, osteosarcoma). Neoplasms originating from the blood or bone marrow (leukemias and myeloproliferative disorders) are not considered solid tumors..", "label": "yes"}
{"id": "converted_2637", "sentence1": "Is there a disease or condition called Exploding Head Syndrome?", "sentence2": "This case report describes the first-ever diagnosis of exploding head syndrome in a patient with longstanding epilepsy and novel nocturnal events. , Exploding head syndrome (EHS) is characterized by loud noises or a sense of explosion in the head during sleep transitions., Exploding head syndrome is characterized by the perception of loud noises during sleep-wake or wake-sleep transitions. , Exploding head syndrome (EHS) is characterized by attacks of a sudden noise or explosive feeling experienced in the head occurring during the transition from wake to sleep or from sleep to wake., Exploding head syndrome is characterized by the perception of abrupt, loud noises when going to sleep or waking up., xploding head syndrome (EHS) is a rare parasomnia in which affected individuals awaken from sleep with the sensation of a loud bang. , Contrary to some earlier theorizing, exploding head syndrome was found to be a relatively common experience in younger individuals., Exploding head syndrome is characterized by the perception of loud noises during sleep-wake or wake-sleep transitions., Fifty patients suffering from the \"exploding head syndrome\" are described., In spite of the fact that its characteristic symptomatology was first described approximately 150 y ago, exploding head syndrome has received relatively little empirical and clinical attention., After first discussing the history, prevalence, and associated features, the available polysomnography data and five main etiological theories for exploding head syndrome are summarized., Exploding head syndrome: six new cases and review of the literature., Exploding Head Syndrome in the Epilepsy Monitoring Unit: Case Report and Literature Review., Exploding head syndrome: a case report., Exploding head syndrome is common in college students., Exploding head syndrome episodes were accompanied by clinically significant levels of fear, and a minority (2.80%) experienced it to such a degree that it was associated with clinically significant distress and/or impairment., Attention has recently been drawn to a condition termed the exploding head syndrome, which is characterized by unpleasant, even terrifying sensations of flashing lights and/or sounds during reported sleep., Exploding head syndrome is a rare phenomenon but can be a significant disruption to quality of life., The rare headache disorder hypnic headache and the exploding head syndrome are also discussed., This case report describes the first-ever diagnosis of exploding head syndrome in a patient with longstanding epilepsy and novel nocturnal events., BACKGROUND Exploding head syndrome (EHS) is characterized by attacks of a sudden noise or explosive feeling experienced in the head occurring during the transition from wake to sleep or from sleep to wake., INTRODUCTION Exploding head syndrome (EHS) is a rare parasomnia in which affected individuals awaken from sleep with the sensation of a loud bang., Contrary to some earlier theorizing, exploding head syndrome was found to be a relatively common experience in younger individuals., This hitherto unreported syndrome is characterised by a sense of an explosive noise in the head usually in the twilight stage of sleep., EHS is a well-defined disease entity with a benign nature., Exploding head syndrome: a case report., Clinical features of the exploding head syndrome., Exploding head syndrome is common in college students., The exploding head syndrome: polysomnographic recordings and therapeutic suggestions., This article reviews the features of an uncommon malady termed \"the exploding head syndrome.\" Sufferers describe terrorizing attacks of a painless explosion within their head, The case is reported of a 47-year old female suffering from the exploding head syndrome. This syndrome consists of a sudden awakening due to a loud noise shortly after falling asleep, sometimes accompanied by a flash of light.[SEP]Relations: epilepsy has relations: disease_disease with brain disease, disease_disease with brain disease, disease_disease with Angelman syndrome, disease_disease with Angelman syndrome, disease_disease with Klinefelter syndrome, disease_disease with Klinefelter syndrome, disease_disease with Coffin-Lowry syndrome, disease_disease with Coffin-Lowry syndrome, disease_disease with electroclinical syndrome, disease_disease with electroclinical syndrome. Definitions: parasomnia defined as following: Movements or behaviors associated with sleep, sleep stages, or partial arousals from sleep that may impair sleep maintenance. Parasomnias are generally divided into four groups: arousal disorders, sleep-wake transition disorders, parasomnias of REM sleep, and nonspecific parasomnias. (From Thorpy, Sleep Disorders Medicine, 1994, p191). headache disorder defined as following: Various conditions with the symptom of HEADACHE. Headache disorders are classified into major groups, such as PRIMARY HEADACHE DISORDERS (based on characteristics of their headache symptoms) and SECONDARY HEADACHE DISORDERS (based on their etiologies). (International Classification of Headache Disorders, 2nd ed. Cephalalgia 2004: suppl 1). head defined as following: A projection on the end of an object. epilepsy defined as following: A disorder characterized by recurrent episodes of paroxysmal brain dysfunction due to a sudden, disorderly, and excessive neuronal discharge. Epilepsy classification systems are generally based upon: (1) clinical features of the seizure episodes (e.g., motor seizure), (2) etiology (e.g., post-traumatic), (3) anatomic site of seizure origin (e.g., frontal lobe seizure), (4) tendency to spread to other structures in the brain, and (5) temporal patterns (e.g., nocturnal epilepsy). (From Adams et al., Principles of Neurology, 6th ed, p313). painless defined as following: Not causing physical or psychological misery, pain or distress..", "label": "yes"}
{"id": "converted_2184", "sentence1": "Is hydroxyurea usually used to treated infectious disease?", "sentence2": "Hydroxyurea represents the only available disease-modifying therapy for SCA, and has proven safety and efficacy in high-resource countries, In conclusion, the data here presented suggests that hydroxyurea may prevent priapism attacks in sickle cell disease, probably at higher doses than usually prescribed for painful crisis prevention.., Clinical follow-up of hydroxyurea-treated adults with sickle cell disease., t may also attenuate optimal response to hydroxyurea therapy, the only effective and practical treatment option for SCD in sub-Saharan Africa, Hydroxyurea is one of the most successfully used therapies for sickle cell disease, Clinical experience with hydroxyurea for patients with sickle cell disease (SCD) has been accumulating for the past 25 years. The bulk of the current evidence suggests that hydroxyurea is well-tolerated, safe, and efficacious for most patients with SCD[SEP]Relations: Hydroxyurea has relations: contraindication with anemia (disease), contraindication with anemia (disease), contraindication with kidney disease, contraindication with kidney disease, drug_drug with Hepatitis A Vaccine, drug_drug with Hepatitis A Vaccine, drug_effect with Fever, drug_effect with Fever, drug_drug with Antipyrine, drug_drug with Antipyrine. Definitions: hydroxyurea defined as following: An antineoplastic agent that inhibits DNA synthesis through the inhibition of ribonucleoside diphosphate reductase.. SCA defined as following: Cessation of heart beat or MYOCARDIAL CONTRACTION. If it is treated within a few minutes, heart arrest can be reversed in most cases to normal cardiac rhythm and effective circulation.. sickle cell disease defined as following: A disease characterized by chronic hemolytic anemia, episodic painful crises, and pathologic involvement of many organs. It is the clinical expression of homozygosity for hemoglobin S.. SCD defined as following: Schnyder corneal dystrophy (SCD) is a rare form of stromal corneal dystrophy (see this term) characterized by corneal clouding or crystals within the corneal stroma, and a progressive decrease in visual acuity.. infectious disease defined as following: An illness caused by an infectious agent or its toxins that occurs through the direct or indirect transmission of the infectious agent or its products from an infected individual or via an animal, vector or the inanimate environment to a susceptible animal or human host..", "label": "no"}
{"id": "converted_4119", "sentence1": "Can propofol cause green urine?", "sentence2": "Reasons for discontinuing propofol are signs of rhabdomyolysis (92.9%), green urine, elevated liver enzymes (71.4% each) and elevated triglycerides (57.1%)., Propofol-Induced Green Urine in a Patient with Refractory Status Epilepticus., We present the case of a 52-year-old man, who developed green urine following propofol coma therapy for status epilepticus., The green discoloration of urine is a rare and benign condition, which occurs when clearance of propofol exceeds the hepatic and extrahepatic elimination., Green discolouration of urine following propofol infusion in a dog., During mechanical ventilation, anaesthesia was maintained using a propofol target-controlled infusion system and, subsequently, the dog produced bright green urine in the urine collection system. Although previously documented in humans, this appears to be the first report of green urine in a dog following propofol use., Green urine is also caused by medications such as propofol and infections such as pseudomonas., Although it is assumed that the phenolic derivatives of propofol can cause green discoloration of the urine, the actual origin remains unknown., An uncommon adverse effect of propofol is green discoloration of the urine, which has been reported not only under general anesthesia but also with sedation., Antibiotics were avoided when propofol was recognized as a rare and benign potential cause of the green urine., Green Urine Due to Propofol: A Case Report with Review of Literature., Herein, we present a case of 62-year-old postoperative lady, noticed to be passing green coloured urine believed to be due to intravenous Propofol administration for induction of general anaesthesia., Green urine is rare indeed and it is a benign potential side effect of propofol; this phenomenon is related to the metabolism of propofol., Clinical significance of rare and benign side effects: propofol and green urine., Green urine in a patient who received a continuous infusion of propofol: A case report., This phenomenon is due to metabolism of propofol which may lead to a phenolic green chromophore which is conjugated in the liver and excreted in the urine., Green Urine Discoloration due to Propofol Infusion: A Case Report., An analysis of green discoloration of urine caused by propofol infusion., We experienced green urine from a long-term anesthetized patient who received a continuous infusion of propofol., We present a 19-year-old man who excreted green urine after propofol infusion., green colour of urine due to Propofol occurs when clearance of Propofol exceeds hepatic elimination, and extrahepatic elimination of Propofol occurs. Thi, Green urine from propofol infusion is a benign and rare side effect, Grass-green urine from propofol infusion, Propofol-Induced Green Urine in a Patient with Refractory Status Epilepticus, sedation. An uncommon adverse effect of propofol is green discoloration of the urine, which has been reported not only under general anesthesia but also with, erein, we present a case of 62-year-old postoperative lady, noticed to be passing green coloured urine believed to be due to intravenous Propofol administration for induction of general anaesthesia. T, en urine is rare indeed and it is a benign potential side effect of propofol; this phenomenon is related to the metabolism of propofol. W, Green urine is also caused by medications such as propofol and infections such as pseudomonas, Green Urine Due to Propofol: A Case Report with Review of Literature, LUSION: We experienced a case of a patient with green discoloration of the urine after general anesthesia using propofol. Al, After starting continuous infusion of propofol for postoperative sedation, his urine became dark green., We believe that the green discoloration of the urine was caused by propofol infusion and was related to impaired enterohepatic circulation and extrahepatic glucuronidation in the kidneys., WHAT IS KNOWN AND OBJECTIVE: Propofol, a commonly used sedative, has on rare occasions, been reported to discolour urine green, IS NEW AND CONCLUSION: Green discoloration of the urine from propofol infusion is dose dependent. It, We report on a patient who produced dark green discoloration of urine from prolonged propofol infusion, administered for intractable epilepsy, Dark green discoloration of the urine after prolonged propofol infusion: a case report., experienced a case of a patient with green discoloration of the urine after general anesthesia using propofol. A, On the third day of propofol infusion his urine was dark green., Green urine from propofol infusion is a benign and rare side effect., The green colour of urine due to Propofol occurs when clearance of Propofol exceeds hepatic elimination, and extrahepatic elimination of Propofol occurs., ur change is dose dependent. We report on a patient who produced dark green discoloration of urine from prolonged propofol infusion, administered for intractable epilepsy.CASE SUMMARY: The colour intensity of the patient's uri, Several substances in literature have been associated with green urine including propofol, biliverdin, metoclopramide, methylene blue, indigo blue, amitriptyline, methocarbamol, indomethacin, promethazine, cimetidine and food colourings. , We discuss a case of a benign cause of green discoloration of urine caused by propofol infusion, which reversed following its discontinuation., The patient's urine subsequently showed a green discoloration. Urine discoloration was completely reversible upon discontinuation of propofol., Two days after admittance, we observed a green discoloration of the urine. This is a rare and benign side effect of propofol., We describe a 58-year-old man who developed green urine after operation on a pressure ulcer. The discolouration disappeared gradually after two days. We think that the use of methylene blue dye during the revision of the wounds and the use of the sedative propofol could have caused it.[SEP]Relations: Propofol has relations: drug_effect with Vomiting, drug_effect with Vomiting, drug_drug with Urethane, drug_drug with Urethane, drug_effect with Urinary retention, drug_effect with Urinary retention, drug_effect with Cough, drug_effect with Cough, drug_drug with Urapidil, drug_drug with Urapidil. Definitions: indomethacin defined as following: A non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agent (NSAID) that inhibits CYCLOOXYGENASE, which is necessary for the formation of PROSTAGLANDINS and other AUTACOIDS. It also inhibits the motility of POLYMORPHONUCLEAR LEUKOCYTES.. discolouration defined as following: A change in color that deviates from the norm or outwith the bounds of what is considered normal.. Propofol defined as following: An intravenous anesthetic agent which has the advantage of a very rapid onset after infusion or bolus injection plus a very short recovery period of a couple of minutes. (From Smith and Reynard, Textbook of Pharmacology, 1992, 1st ed, p206). Propofol has been used as ANTICONVULSANTS and ANTIEMETICS.. triglycerides defined as following: An ester formed from GLYCEROL and three fatty acid groups.. benign defined as following: For neoplasms, a non-infiltrating and non-metastasizing neoplastic process that is characterized by the absence of morphologic features associated with malignancy (e.g., severe atypia, nuclear pleomorphism, tumor cell necrosis, and abnormal mitoses). For other conditions, a process that is mild in nature and not dangerous to health.. amitriptyline defined as following: Tricyclic antidepressant with anticholinergic and sedative properties. It appears to prevent the re-uptake of norepinephrine and serotonin at nerve terminals, thus potentiating the action of these neurotransmitters. Amitriptyline also appears to antagonize cholinergic and alpha-1 adrenergic responses to bioactive amines.. cimetidine defined as following: A histamine congener, it competitively inhibits HISTAMINE binding to HISTAMINE H2 RECEPTORS. Cimetidine has a range of pharmacological actions. It inhibits GASTRIC ACID secretion, as well as PEPSIN and GASTRIN output.. humans defined as following: Members of the species Homo sapiens.. hepatic defined as following: Pertaining to, affecting, or associated with the liver.. biliverdin defined as following: 1,3,6,7-Tetramethyl-4,5-dicarboxyethyl-2,8-divinylbilenone. Biosynthesized from hemoglobin as a precursor of bilirubin. Occurs in the bile of AMPHIBIANS and of birds, but not in normal human bile or serum.. status epilepticus defined as following: A prolonged seizure or seizures repeated frequently enough to prevent recovery between episodes occurring over a period of 20-30 minutes. The most common subtype is generalized tonic-clonic status epilepticus, a potentially fatal condition associated with neuronal injury and respiratory and metabolic dysfunction. Nonconvulsive forms include petit mal status and complex partial status, which may manifest as behavioral disturbances. Simple partial status epilepticus consists of persistent motor, sensory, or autonomic seizures that do not impair cognition (see also EPILEPSIA PARTIALIS CONTINUA). Subclinical status epilepticus generally refers to seizures occurring in an unresponsive or comatose individual in the absence of overt signs of seizure activity. (From N Engl J Med 1998 Apr 2;338(14):970-6; Neurologia 1997 Dec;12 Suppl 6:25-30). methylene blue defined as following: A compound consisting of dark green crystals or crystalline powder, having a bronze-like luster. Solutions in water or alcohol have a deep blue color. Methylene blue is used as a bacteriologic stain and as an indicator. It inhibits GUANYLATE CYCLASE, and has been used to treat cyanide poisoning and to lower levels of METHEMOGLOBIN.. metoclopramide defined as following: A dopamine D2 antagonist that is used as an antiemetic.. wounds defined as following: bodily injury caused by physical means, with disruption of the normal continuity of structures.. promethazine defined as following: A phenothiazine derivative with histamine H1-blocking, antimuscarinic, and sedative properties. It is used as an antiallergic, in pruritus, for motion sickness and sedation, and also in animals.. green urine defined as following: An abnormal green color of urine. [PMID:28413291]. dog defined as following: The domestic dog, Canis familiaris, comprising about 400 breeds, of the carnivore family CANIDAE. They are worldwide in distribution and live in association with people. (Walker's Mammals of the World, 5th ed, p1065). Al defined as following: A population of lymphocytes isolated from an individual, altered in vitro, and returned to the same individual for therapeutic purposes. (NCI04). substances defined as following: Any matter of defined composition that has discrete existence, whose origin may be biological, mineral or chemical.. propofol defined as following: An intravenous anesthetic agent which has the advantage of a very rapid onset after infusion or bolus injection plus a very short recovery period of a couple of minutes. (From Smith and Reynard, Textbook of Pharmacology, 1992, 1st ed, p206). Propofol has been used as ANTICONVULSANTS and ANTIEMETICS..", "label": "yes"}
{"id": "converted_3073", "sentence1": "Is the NLM medical text indexer (MTI) still useful and relevant?", "sentence2": "12 years on - Is the NLM medical text indexer still useful and relevant?, Facing a growing workload and dwindling resources, the US National Library of Medicine (NLM) created the Indexing Initiative project in 1996. This cross-library team's mission is to explore indexing methodologies for ensuring quality and currency of NLM document collections. The NLM Medical Text Indexer (MTI) is the main product of this project and has been providing automated indexing recommendations since 2002. After all of this time, the questions arise whether MTI is still useful and relevant.METHODS: To answer the question about MTI usefulness, we track a wide variety of statistics related to how frequently MEDLINE indexers refer to MTI recommendations, how well MTI performs against human indexing, and how often MTI is used. To answer the question of MTI relevancy compared to other available tools, we have participated in the 2013 and 2014 BioASQ Challenges. The BioASQ Challenges have provided us with an unbiased comparison between the MTI system and other systems performing the same task.RESULTS: Indexers have continually increased their use of MTI recommendations over the years from 15.75% of the articles they index in 2002 to 62.44% in 2014 showing that the indexers find MTI to be increasingly useful. The MTI performance statistics show significant improvement in Precision (+0.2992) and F1 (+0.1997) with modest gains in Recall (+0.0454) over the years. MTI consistency is comparable to the available indexer consistency studies. MTI performed well in both of the BioASQ Challenges ranking within the top tier teams.CONCLUSIONS: Based on our findings, yes, MTI is still relevant and useful, and needs to be improved and expanded. The BioASQ Challenge results have shown that we need to incorporate more machine learning into MTI while still retaining the indexing rules that have earned MTI the indexers' trust over the years. We also need to expand MTI through the use of full text, when and where it is available, to provide coverage of indexing terms that are typically only found in the full text. The role of MTI at NLM is also expanding into new areas, further reinforcing the idea that MTI is increasingly useful and relevant., The role of MTI at NLM is also expanding into new areas, further reinforcing the idea that MTI is increasingly useful and relevant., CONCLUSIONS\nBased on our findings, yes, MTI is still relevant and useful, and needs to be improved and expanded., 12 years on - Is the NLM medical text indexer still useful and relevant?Based on our findings, yes, MTI is still relevant and useful, and needs to be improved and expanded. , The role of MTI at NLM is also expanding into new areas, further reinforcing the idea that MTI is increasingly useful and relevant., After all of this time, the questions arise whether MTI is still useful and relevant.
METHODS: To answer the question about MTI usefulness, we track a wide variety of statistics related to how frequently MEDLINE indexers refer to MTI recommendations, how well MTI performs against human indexing, and how often MTI is used., The MTI performance statistics show significant improvement in Precision (+0.2992) and F
CONCLUSIONS: Based on our findings, yes, MTI is still relevant and useful, and needs to be improved and expanded., The role of MTI at NLM is also expanding into new areas, further reinforcing the idea that MTI is increasingly useful and relevant.
, After all of this time, the questions arise whether MTI is still useful and relevant., The role of MTI at NLM is also expanding into new areas, further reinforcing the idea that MTI is increasingly useful and relevant., Based on our findings, yes, MTI is still relevant and useful, and needs to be improved and expanded.[SEP]Relations: F11 has relations: anatomy_protein_absent with vastus lateralis, anatomy_protein_absent with vastus lateralis, drug_protein with Coagulation Factor IX (Recombinant), drug_protein with Coagulation Factor IX (Recombinant), anatomy_protein_absent with biceps brachii, anatomy_protein_absent with biceps brachii, anatomy_protein_present with lung, anatomy_protein_present with lung, drug_protein with Zinc sulfate, unspecified form, drug_protein with Zinc sulfate, unspecified form. Definitions: human defined as following: Members of the species Homo sapiens..", "label": "yes"}
{"id": "converted_618", "sentence1": "Does molindone affect body weight?", "sentence2": "Mean weight increased by 0.54 kg, and mean body mass index by 0.24 kg/m(2). , A large-scale trial comparing a first-generation antipsychotic (molindone) with newer agents did not find significant differences in treatment response, although the newer antipsychotics were associated with more severe weight gain. , No agent demonstrated superior efficacy, and all were associated with side effects, including weight gain. , The three treatment arms did not significantly differ in symptom decrease or time to discontinuation. Akathisia was more common with molindone and elevated prolactin concentrations more common with risperidone. Although weight gain and metabolic adverse events had occurred more often with olanzapine and risperidone during the acute trial, no significant between-drug differences emerged in most of these parameters during maintenance treatment. , Olanzapine and risperidone were associated with significantly greater weight gain. Olanzapine showed the greatest risk of weight gain and significant increases in fasting cholesterol, low density lipoprotein, insulin, and liver transaminase levels. Molindone led to more self-reports of akathisia. , Molindone is no more or less likely than typical drugs to cause movement disorders, but it does cause significantly more weight loss (2RCTs n=60 RR 2.78, CI 1.10 to 6.99, NNH 5 CI 2 to 77). , Molindone may be an effective antipsychotic but its adverse effect profile does not differ significantly from that of typical antipsychotics (apart from the event of weight loss). , Convergent evidence suggests a hierarchy in the magnitude of BWG that may be induced by diverse agents, being very high for clozapine and olanzapine; high for quetiapine, zotepin, chlorpromazine, and thioridazine; moderate for risperidone and sertindole; and low for ziprazidone, amisulpiride, haloperidol, fluphenazine, pimozide, and molindone. , Loxapine and molindone induce weight decreases, and these exceptions are difficult to explain., It is no more or less likely than typical drugs to cause movement disorders, but causes significantly more weight loss (RR 2.78, CI 1.10 to 6.99)., Molindone may be an effective antipsychotic; however, its adverse effect profile does not differ significantly from that of typical antipsychotics, apart from the event of weight loss. , Among conventional agents, mean weight change ranged from a reduction of 0.39 kg with molindone to an increase of 3.19 kg with thioridazine., Weight gain has been reported with nearly every antipsychotic drug on the market (molindone is an exception). , Although almost all antipsychotics induce bodyweight gain, molindone and loxapine appear to induce bodyweight loss. , Clozapine and low-potency phenothiazines are associated with the largest gains and molindone with weight loss, but the mechanism is not known. , On average, molindone patients lost 5 pounds over the 6 weeks of treatment, whereas thioridazine patients gained 6 pounds. , Clinically, molindone has a tendency to cause weight loss and may have less effect on seizure threshold than conventional antipsychotic agents, Monthly weights and neuroleptic dosages during the first three months of psychiatric hospitalization were compared between matched groups of patients receiving molindone, a combination of molindone and other neuroleptics, or other neuroleptic drugs. We found no significant differences in weight gain among the three groups. , The weight-reducing property of molindone, a recently introduced antipsychotic drug, was tested in 9 hospitalized chronic schizophrenic patients. There was an average weight loss of 7.6 kg after 3 months on molindone; most of the loss occurred during the first month.[SEP]Relations: Molindone has relations: drug_effect with Increased body weight, drug_effect with Increased body weight, drug_effect with Nausea, drug_effect with Nausea, drug_effect with Tremor, drug_effect with Tremor, drug_effect with Hyperkinetic movements, drug_effect with Hyperkinetic movements, drug_effect with Dyspnea, drug_effect with Dyspnea. Definitions: phenothiazines defined as following: The determination of the amount of phenothiazine present in a sample.. loxapine defined as following: An antipsychotic agent used in SCHIZOPHRENIA.. Olanzapine defined as following: A synthetic derivative of thienobenzodiazepine with antipsychotic, antinausea, and antiemetic activities. As a selective monoaminergic antagonist, olanzapine binds with high affinity binding to the following receptors: serotoninergic, dopaminergic, muscarinic M1-5, histamine H1, and alpha-1-adrenergic receptors; it binds weakly to gamma-aminobutyric acid type A, benzodiazepine, and beta-adrenergic receptors. The antinausea and antiemetic effects of this agent appear to be due to the blockade of 5-HT2 and 5-HT3 receptors for serotonin. Although its exact mechanism of action in schizophrenia is unknown, it has been proposed that olanzapine's antipsychotic activity is mediated through antagonism to dopamine D2 receptors with rapid ligand-receptor dissociation kinetics that help to minimize extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS). Olanzapine may also stimulate appetite.. thioridazine defined as following: A phenothiazine antipsychotic used in the management of PHYCOSES, including SCHIZOPHRENIA.. movement disorders defined as following: Syndromes which feature DYSKINESIAS as a cardinal manifestation of the disease process. Included in this category are degenerative, hereditary, post-infectious, medication-induced, post-inflammatory, and post-traumatic conditions.. risperidone defined as following: A selective blocker of DOPAMINE D2 RECEPTORS and SEROTONIN 5-HT2 RECEPTORS that acts as an atypical antipsychotic agent. It has been shown to improve both positive and negative symptoms in the treatment of SCHIZOPHRENIA.. insulin defined as following: A synthetic or animal-derived form of insulin used in the treatment of diabetes mellitus. Therapeutic insulin is formulated to be short-, intermediate- and long-acting in order to individualize an insulin regimen according to individual differences in glucose and insulin metabolism. Therapeutic insulin may be derived from porcine, bovine or recombinant sources. Endogenous human insulin, a pancreatic hormone composed of two polypeptide chains, is important for the normal metabolism of carbohydrates, proteins and fats and has anabolic effects on many types of tissues.. clozapine defined as following: A tricylic dibenzodiazepine, classified as an atypical antipsychotic agent. It binds several types of central nervous system receptors, and displays a unique pharmacological profile. Clozapine is a serotonin antagonist, with strong binding to 5-HT 2A/2C receptor subtype. It also displays strong affinity to several dopaminergic receptors, but shows only weak antagonism at the dopamine D2 receptor, a receptor commonly thought to modulate neuroleptic activity. Agranulocytosis is a major adverse effect associated with administration of this agent.. molindone defined as following: An indole derivative effective in schizophrenia and other psychoses and possibly useful in the treatment of the aggressive type of undersocialized conduct disorder. Molindone has much lower affinity for D2 receptors than most antipsychotic agents and has a relatively low affinity for D1 receptors. It has only low to moderate affinity for cholinergic and alpha-adrenergic receptors. Some electrophysiologic data from animals indicate that molindone has certain characteristics that resemble those of CLOZAPINE. (From AMA Drug Evaluations Annual, 1994, p283). akathisia defined as following: An uncomfortable feeling of inner restlessness and inability to stay still. It can be a side effect of psychotropic medications.. chlorpromazine defined as following: The prototypical phenothiazine antipsychotic drug. Like the other drugs in this class chlorpromazine's antipsychotic actions are thought to be due to long-term adaptation by the brain to blocking DOPAMINE RECEPTORS. Chlorpromazine has several other actions and therapeutic uses, including as an antiemetic and in the treatment of intractable hiccup.. fluphenazine defined as following: A phenothiazine used in the treatment of PSYCHOSES. Its properties and uses are generally similar to those of CHLORPROMAZINE.. Weight gain defined as following: A question about whether an individual is gaining or has gained weight.. low density lipoprotein defined as following: A class of lipoproteins of small size (18-25 nm) and light (1.019-1.063 g/ml) particles with a core composed mainly of CHOLESTEROL ESTERS and smaller amounts of TRIGLYCERIDES. The surface monolayer consists mostly of PHOSPHOLIPIDS, a single copy of APOLIPOPROTEIN B-100, and free cholesterol molecules. The main LDL function is to transport cholesterol and cholesterol esters to extrahepatic tissues.. quetiapine defined as following: A dibenzothiazepine derivative with antipsychotic property. Quetiapine fumarate antagonizes serotonin activity mediated by 5-HT 1A and 5-HT2 receptors. With a lower affinity, this agent also reversibly binds to dopamine D1 and D2 receptors in the mesolimbic and mesocortical areas of the brain leading to decreased psychotic effects, such as hallucinations and delusions. In addition, quetiapine also binds to other alpha-1, alpha-2 adrenergic and histamine H1 receptors.. ziprazidone defined as following: A benzothiazolylpiperazine derivative and an atypical antipsychotic agent with an antischizophrenic property. Ziprasidone functions as an antagonist at the dopamine D2 and serotonin 5-HT2A and 5-HT1D receptors, and as an agonist at the 5-HT1A receptor. Ziprasidone also inhibits the synaptic reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine. The mechanism of action by which ziprasidone exerts its antischizophrenic effect is unknown but is potentially mediated through a combination of dopamine D2 and serotonin 5-HT2 antagonism. This agent also has antagonistic activity against histamine H1 and alpha-1-adrenergic receptors.. haloperidol defined as following: The determination of the amount of haloperidol in a sample.. pimozide defined as following: A diphenylbutylpiperidine that is effective as an antipsychotic agent and as an alternative to HALOPERIDOL for the suppression of vocal and motor tics in patients with Tourette syndrome. Although the precise mechanism of action is unknown, blockade of postsynaptic dopamine receptors has been postulated. (From AMA Drug Evaluations Annual, 1994, p403). seizure defined as following: Clinical or subclinical disturbances of cortical function due to a sudden, abnormal, excessive, and disorganized discharge of brain cells. Clinical manifestations include abnormal motor, sensory and psychic phenomena. Recurrent seizures are usually referred to as EPILEPSY or \"seizure disorder.\". weight loss defined as following: The measured decrease in body weight over a specified period of time..", "label": "yes"}
{"id": "converted_3703", "sentence1": "Does radiotherapy for Hodgkin disease increases risk for lung cancer?", "sentence2": "Risks of lung, breast, and gastrointestinal (GI) cancers increase with higher radiation dose. , CONCLUSIONS: RT treatment, especially with doses higher than 42 Gy, and smoking increase the risk of SN after HL. In this series, LC patients with early stages had a shorter elapsed time from HL diagnosis and longer OS, therefore the role of LC screening in HL survivors should be prospectively evaluated and smoking cessation counseling ought to be a key aspect during follow-up., BACKGROUND: Long-term Hodgkin lymphoma (HL) survivors have an increased risk of late cardiac morbidity and secondary lung cancer after chemotherapy and mediastinal radiotherapy. , PURPOSE: Hodgkin lymphoma (HL) survivors have an increased risk of cardiovascular disease (CD), lung cancer, and breast cancer., Lung cancer (LC) represents the most common solid tumor in survivors of Hodgkin's disease (HD), and the assessment of the mutational status of oncogenic driver mutations in LC is now standard. , PURPOSE: Hodgkin lymphoma (HL) survivors face an increased risk of treatment-related lung cancer. , Increased risk of second lung cancer in Hodgkin's lymphoma survivors: a meta-analysis., BACKGROUND: Patients treated for Hodgkin's lymphoma (HL) have a higher risk of developing second lung cancer (SLC) compared with the general population. , The pooled relative risk (RR) of SLC was 4.62 (95 % confidence interval [CI], 3.18-6.70], I (2) = 98 %), with a median absolute excess rate of 10.4 per 10,000 person-years. , CONCLUSIONS: The current meta-analysis provided a detailed estimate of the risk of SLC among HL survivors. , CONCLUSIONS\n\nThe excess risk of lung cancer in Hodgkin's disease patients treated with radiotherapy is related to the radiation dose received by the affected area of the lung., BACKGROUND\n\nLung cancer is a frequent cause of death in patients cured of Hodgkin's disease, but the contributions of chemotherapy, radiotherapy, and smoking are not well described., CONCLUSIONS\n\nPast treatments with alkylating agents and radiation therapy for Hodgkin's disease were associated with an increased risk of lung cancer in a dose-dependent and additive fashion., BACKGROUND\n\nSeveral studies have shown that survivors of Hodgkin's disease have increased risk of lung cancer, but the factors responsible for this excess risk are not well known., PURPOSE\n\nThis study was undertaken to investigate the effects of radiation dose, chemotherapy, and smoking on the risk of lung cancer following treatment of Hodgkin's disease., Increased risk of lung cancer, non-Hodgkin's lymphoma, and leukemia following Hodgkin's disease., It is recognized that survivors of Hodgkin's disease are at a substantially increased risk of lung cancer., The risk of lung and breast cancer is significantly increased after therapy for Hodgkin 's disease ( HD) , but there are few data that describe the molecular profiles of these tumors . , Hodgkin lymphoma ( HL ) survivors have an increased risk of cardiovascular disease ( CD) , lung cancer , and breast cancer . , BACKGROUND\nLung cancer is a frequent cause of death in patients cured of Hodgkin's disease, but the contributions of chemotherapy, radiotherapy, and smoking are not well described., CONCLUSIONS\nPast treatments with alkylating agents and radiation therapy for Hodgkin's disease were associated with an increased risk of lung cancer in a dose-dependent and additive fashion., Lung cancer in Hodgkin's disease: association with previous radiotherapy., Twenty-eight (94%) of 30 patients developing metachronous lung cancer received supradiaphragmatic irradiation as primary therapy for HD., The risk ratio for the development of lung cancer among HD patients was 5.6 times that expected in the general population., Seven cases of lung cancer were observed in patients with Hodgkin's disease (HD) since 1970., BACKGROUND\nSeveral studies have shown that survivors of Hodgkin's disease have increased risk of lung cancer, but the factors responsible for this excess risk are not well known., The excess risk of lung cancer in Hodgkin's disease patients treated with radiotherapy is related to the radiation dose received by the affected area of the lung., Lung cancer is a frequent cause of death in patients cured of Hodgkin's disease, but the contributions of chemotherapy, radiotherapy, and smoking are not well described., Past treatments with alkylating agents and radiation therapy for Hodgkin's disease were associated with an increased risk of lung cancer in a dose-dependent and additive fashion., Several studies have shown that survivors of Hodgkin's disease have increased risk of lung cancer, but the factors responsible for this excess risk are not well known.[SEP]Relations: Non-Hodgkin lymphoma has relations: drug_effect with Bortezomib, drug_effect with Bortezomib, drug_effect with Bortezomib, drug_effect with Bortezomib, drug_effect with Fluoxetine, drug_effect with Fluoxetine, drug_effect with Fluoxetine, drug_effect with Fluoxetine, drug_effect with Raltegravir, drug_effect with Raltegravir. Definitions: HL defined as following: A malignant disease characterized by progressive enlargement of the lymph nodes, spleen, and general lymphoid tissue. In the classical variant, giant usually multinucleate Hodgkin's and REED-STERNBERG CELLS are present; in the nodular lymphocyte predominant variant, lymphocytic and histiocytic cells are seen.. alkylating agents defined as following: Highly reactive chemicals that introduce alkyl radicals into biologically active molecules and thereby prevent their proper functioning. Many are used as antineoplastic agents, but most are very toxic, with carcinogenic, mutagenic, teratogenic, and immunosuppressant actions. They have also been used as components in poison gases.. leukemia defined as following: A progressive, malignant disease of the blood-forming organs, characterized by distorted proliferation and development of leukocytes and their precursors in the blood and bone marrow. Leukemias were originally termed acute or chronic based on life expectancy but now are classified according to cellular maturity. Acute leukemias consist of predominately immature cells; chronic leukemias are composed of more mature cells. (From The Merck Manual, 2006). breast cancer defined as following: A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the breast. The vast majority of cases are carcinomas arising from the breast parenchyma or the nipple. Malignant breast neoplasms occur more frequently in females than in males.. Hodgkin's lymphoma defined as following: Any of a group of malignant tumors of lymphoid tissue that differ from HODGKIN DISEASE, being more heterogeneous with respect to malignant cell lineage, clinical course, prognosis, and therapy. The only common feature among these tumors is the absence of giant REED-STERNBERG CELLS, a characteristic of Hodgkin's disease.. tumors defined as following: New abnormal growth of tissue. Malignant neoplasms show a greater degree of anaplasia and have the properties of invasion and metastasis, compared to benign neoplasms.. SLC defined as following: This gene is involved in the regulation of leukocyte migration.. cardiovascular disease defined as following: Pathological conditions involving the CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM including the HEART; the BLOOD VESSELS; or the PERICARDIUM.. breast defined as following: In humans, one of the paired regions in the anterior portion of the THORAX. The breasts consist of the MAMMARY GLANDS, the SKIN, the MUSCLES, the ADIPOSE TISSUE, and the CONNECTIVE TISSUES.. solid tumor defined as following: A benign or malignant neoplasm arising from tissues that do not include fluid areas. Representative examples include epithelial neoplasms (e.g. lung carcinoma, prostate carcinoma, breast carcinoma, colon carcinoma), and neoplasms arising from the soft tissues and bones (e.g. leiomyosarcoma, liposarcoma, chondrosarcoma, osteosarcoma). Neoplasms originating from the blood or bone marrow (leukemias and myeloproliferative disorders) are not considered solid tumors.. Hodgkin disease defined as following: A malignant disease characterized by progressive enlargement of the lymph nodes, spleen, and general lymphoid tissue. In the classical variant, giant usually multinucleate Hodgkin's and REED-STERNBERG CELLS are present; in the nodular lymphocyte predominant variant, lymphocytic and histiocytic cells are seen..", "label": "yes"}
{"id": "converted_162", "sentence1": "Is there an increased risk for cancer in Dyskeratosis Congenita?", "sentence2": "People with DC are at increased risk for progressive bone marrow failure (BMF), myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) or acute myelogenous leukemia (AML), solid tumors (usually squamous cell carcinoma of the head/neck or anogenital cancer), and pulmonary fibrosis, Clinical progression of the disease can lead to aplastic anemia (86% of all patients) and to pulmonary or hepatic complications. These patients also have an increased risk of cancer., Fanconi anaemia (FA), dyskeratosis congenita (DC), Diamond-Blackfan anaemia (DBA), and Shwachman-Diamond syndrome (SDS) comprise major inherited bone marrow failure syndromes (IBMFS). Adverse events include severe bone marrow failure (BMF), myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS), acute myeloid leukaemia (AML), and solid tumours (ST), Patients with FA had earlier onset of cancers, need for stem cell transplant, and death; followed by DC; DBA and SDS were mildest. While FA and DC patients had markedly increased risks of cancer, AML and MDS, there were no cases of leukaemia in DBA or SDS patients, The findings demonstrate that both FA and DC are major cancer susceptibility syndromes, People with DC are at increased risk for progressive bone marrow failure (BMF), myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) or acute myelogenous leukemia (AML), solid tumors (usually squamous cell carcinoma of the head/neck or anogenital cancer), and pulmonary fibrosis, Patients with dyskeratosis congenita (DC) have an increased risk of cancer, but also exhibit heightened radiation sensitivity., Dyskeratosis congenita (DC) is characterized by the clinical triad of reticular skin pigmentation, oral leukoplakia, and nail dystrophy associated with bone marrow failure (BMF) and an high risk to develop cancer and pulmonary complications., CONCLUSION: Dyskeratosis congenita is a rare condition; however, it is vital to recognise the increased risk of upper aerodigestive tract cancers in these patients., Point mutations in the DKC1 gene that encodes dyskerin cause the rare inherited syndrome called X-linked dyskeratosis congenita, characterized by a failure of proliferating tissues and increased susceptibility to cancer., Dyskeratosis Congenita (DC) also known as Zinsser-Engman-Cole syndrome is a rare multi-system bone marrow failure syndrome characterised by mucocutaneous abnormalities and an increased predisposition to cancer\"., Dyskeratosis congenita is an inherited syndrome characterised by mucocutaneous features, bone marrow failure, an increased risk of malignancy and other somatic abnormalities., Dyskeratosis congenita is a rare condition; however, it is vital to recognise the increased risk of upper aerodigestive tract cancers in these patients., Epidermal atrophy, hair growth defects, bone marrow failure and increased risk of cancer are also common in DC patients., Telomere dysfunction and tumor suppression responses in dyskeratosis congenita: balancing cancer and tissue renewal impairment., Patients with dyskeratosis congenita (DC) have an increased risk of cancer, but also exhibit heightened radiation sensitivity, Dyskeratosis congenita is a rare condition; however, it is vital to recognise the increased risk of upper aerodigestive tract cancers in these patients, Dyskeratosis congenita is an inherited syndrome characterised by mucocutaneous features, bone marrow failure, an increased risk of malignancy and other somatic abnormalities, While FA and DC patients had markedly increased risks of cancer, AML and MDS, there were no cases of leukaemia in DBA or SDS patients, As in Fanconi anemia and dyskeratosis congenita, DBA is both an inherited bone marrow failure syndrome and a cancer predisposition syndrome; cancer risks appear lower in DBA than in Fanconi anemia or dyskeratosis congenita, Severe pancytopenia frequently causes early mortality of DC patients, who have an increased risk of developing oropharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma, Here different aspects of telomere biology, concerning adult stem cells senescence, tumor suppression and cancer are considered in the context of DC, resulting in two translational models: late onset of DC symptoms in telomere-related mutations carriers is a potential indicator of increased cancer risk and differences in tumor suppression capacities among the genetic subgroups are (at least partial) causes of different clinical manifestations of the disease, Point mutations in the DKC1 gene that encodes dyskerin cause the rare inherited syndrome called X-linked dyskeratosis congenita, characterized by a failure of proliferating tissues and increased susceptibility to cancer, Dyskeratosis congenita is a cancer-prone bone marrow failure syndrome caused by aberrations in telomere biology.[SEP]Relations: dyskeratosis congenita has relations: disease_protein with TERC, disease_protein with TERC, disease_protein with TERT, disease_protein with TERT. dyskeratosis congenita, X-linked has relations: disease_phenotype_positive with Carcinoma, disease_phenotype_positive with Carcinoma, disease_protein with TERT, disease_protein with TERT, disease_disease with X-linked disease, disease_disease with X-linked disease. Definitions: cancer defined as following: A malignant tumor at the original site of growth.. Telomere defined as following: A terminal section of a chromosome which has a specialized structure and which is involved in chromosomal replication and stability. Its length is believed to be a few hundred base pairs.. oropharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma defined as following: A squamous cell carcinoma arising from the oropharynx. It predominantly affects adults in their fifth and sixth decades of life and is associated with alcohol and tobacco use. Human papillomavirus is present in approximately half of the cases. It is characterized by a tendency to metastasize early to the lymph nodes. When the tumor is small, patients are often asymptomatic. Physical examination may reveal erythematous or white lesions or plaques. The majority of patients present with locally advanced disease. Signs and symptoms include mucosal ulceration, pain, bleeding, weight loss, neck swelling, and difficulty speaking, chewing, and swallowing. Patients may also present with swollen neck lymph nodes without any symptoms from the oropharyngeal tumor. The most significant prognostic factors are the size of the tumor and the lymph nodes status.. oral leukoplakia defined as following: A white patch seen on the oral mucosa. It is considered a premalignant condition and is often tobacco-induced. When evidence of Epstein-Barr virus is present, the condition is called hairy leukoplakia (LEUKOPLAKIA, HAIRY).. DBA defined as following: Congenital pure red cell aplasia caused by autosomal dominant mutation(s) in the RPS19 gene, encoding 40S ribosomal protein S19.. acute myelogenous leukemia defined as following: Clonal expansion of myeloid blasts in bone marrow, blood, and other tissue. Myeloid leukemias develop from changes in cells that normally produce NEUTROPHILS; BASOPHILS; EOSINOPHILS; and MONOCYTES.. cancers defined as following: A tumor composed of atypical neoplastic, often pleomorphic cells that invade other tissues. Malignant neoplasms often metastasize to distant anatomic sites and may recur after excision. The most common malignant neoplasms are carcinomas, Hodgkin and non-Hodgkin lymphomas, leukemias, melanomas, and sarcomas.. dyskerin defined as following: H/ACA ribonucleoprotein complex subunit 4 (514 aa, ~58 kDa) is encoded by the human DKC1 gene. This protein is involved in telomerase stabilization and maintenance and the processing of ribosomal RNA.. DKC1 gene defined as following: This gene is involved in both H/ACA small nucleolar RNA ribonucleoprotein assembly and telomerase stabilization and maintenance.. DC defined as following: A predominantly X-linked recessive syndrome characterized by a triad of reticular skin pigmentation, nail dystrophy and leukoplakia of mucous membranes. Oral and dental abnormalities may also be present. Complications are a predisposition to malignancy and bone marrow involvement with pancytopenia. (from Int J Paediatr Dent 2000 Dec;10(4):328-34) The X-linked form is also known as Zinsser-Cole-Engman syndrome and involves the gene which encodes a highly conserved protein called dyskerin.. IBMFS defined as following: A group of inherited genetic hematopoietic stem cell disorders characterized by bone marrow failure that involves one or more cell lines. Representative examples include Fanconi anemia, Diamond-Blackfan anemia, and Shwachman-Diamond syndrome.. pancytopenia defined as following: Deficiency of all three cell elements of the blood, erythrocytes, leukocytes and platelets.. leukaemia defined as following: A progressive, malignant disease of the blood-forming organs, characterized by distorted proliferation and development of leukocytes and their precursors in the blood and bone marrow. Leukemias were originally termed acute or chronic based on life expectancy but now are classified according to cellular maturity. Acute leukemias consist of predominately immature cells; chronic leukemias are composed of more mature cells. (From The Merck Manual, 2006). SDS defined as following: A patient reported questionnaire composed of rating scales developed to measure the degree of distress experienced by the patient for specific symptoms.. death defined as following: Irreversible cessation of all bodily functions, manifested by absence of spontaneous breathing and total loss of cardiovascular and cerebral functions.. Point mutations defined as following: A mutation caused by the substitution of one nucleotide for another. This results in the DNA molecule having a change in a single base pair.. nail dystrophy defined as following: Deformity or discoloration of a fingernail or toenail.. aplastic anemia defined as following: A form of anemia in which the bone marrow fails to produce adequate numbers of peripheral blood elements.. myelodysplastic syndrome defined as following: Clonal hematopoietic stem cell disorders characterized by dysplasia in one or more hematopoietic cell lineages. They predominantly affect patients over 60, are considered preleukemic conditions, and have high probability of transformation into ACUTE MYELOID LEUKEMIA.. Fanconi anemia defined as following: Fanconi anemia caused by mutations of the FANCA gene. FANCA gene mutations are the most common cause of Fanconi anemia. This gene provides instructions for making a protein that is involved in the Fanconi anemia (FA) pathway.. bone marrow failure defined as following: A reduced number of hematopoietic cells present in the bone marrow relative to marrow fat. [DDD:wouwehand, HPO:probinson]. Fanconi anaemia defined as following: Congenital disorder affecting all bone marrow elements, resulting in ANEMIA; LEUKOPENIA; and THROMBOPENIA, and associated with cardiac, renal, and limb malformations as well as dermal pigmentary changes. Spontaneous CHROMOSOME BREAKAGE is a feature of this disease along with predisposition to LEUKEMIA. There are at least 7 complementation groups in Fanconi anemia: FANCA, FANCB, FANCC, FANCD1, FANCD2, FANCE, FANCF, FANCG, and FANCL. (from Online Mendelian Inheritance in Man, http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/entrez/dispomim.cgi?id=227650, August 20, 2004). Diamond-Blackfan anaemia defined as following: A rare congenital hypoplastic anemia that usually presents early in infancy. The disease is characterized by a moderate to severe macrocytic anemia, occasional neutropenia or thrombocytosis, a normocellular bone marrow with erythroid hypoplasia, and an increased risk of developing leukemia. (Curr Opin Hematol 2000 Mar;7(2):85-94). solid tumors defined as following: A benign or malignant neoplasm arising from tissues that do not include fluid areas. Representative examples include epithelial neoplasms (e.g. lung carcinoma, prostate carcinoma, breast carcinoma, colon carcinoma), and neoplasms arising from the soft tissues and bones (e.g. leiomyosarcoma, liposarcoma, chondrosarcoma, osteosarcoma). Neoplasms originating from the blood or bone marrow (leukemias and myeloproliferative disorders) are not considered solid tumors.. X-linked dyskeratosis congenita defined as following: Dyskeratosis congenita inherited in an X-linked recessive pattern. It is caused by mutations in the DKC1 gene.. MDS defined as following: A rare syndrome caused by deletion of genetic material in the short arm of chromosome 17. It is characterized by an abnormally smooth brain with fewer folds and grooves. It results in intellectual disability, developmental delay, seizures, spasticity, hypotonia, and feeding difficulties. Affected individuals have distinctive facial features that include a prominent forehead, midface hypoplasia, small, upturned nose, low-set ears, small jaw, and thick upper lip.. squamous cell carcinoma defined as following: A squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) arising from the anal canal or the anal margin (perianal skin). Human papillomavirus is detected in the majority of cases. Homosexual HIV-positive men have an increased risk of developing anal squamous cell carcinoma in comparison to the general male population. Symptoms include anal pruritus, discomfort when sitting, pain, change in bowel habit, and bleeding. The prognosis is generally better for anal margin SCC than for anal canal SCC.. BMF defined as following: Bcl-2-modifying factor (184 aa, ~21 kDa) is encoded by the human BMF gene. This protein plays a role in the positive regulation of pro-apoptotic gene products.. Dyskeratosis Congenita defined as following: A predominantly X-linked recessive syndrome characterized by a triad of reticular skin pigmentation, nail dystrophy and leukoplakia of mucous membranes. Oral and dental abnormalities may also be present. Complications are a predisposition to malignancy and bone marrow involvement with pancytopenia. (from Int J Paediatr Dent 2000 Dec;10(4):328-34) The X-linked form is also known as Zinsser-Cole-Engman syndrome and involves the gene which encodes a highly conserved protein called dyskerin..", "label": "yes"}
{"id": "converted_3434", "sentence1": "Can CMB305 be used against sarcomas?", "sentence2": "CMB305 induces NY-ESO-1 specific T cell responses in both SS and MRC patients and these patients had excellent overall survival (OS) outcomes in the initial phase I study., Data suggesting this vaccine may improve OS for SS and MRCL patients is exciting but early, and on-going work is testing the impact of CMB305 on patient outcomes., The potential of the CMB305 vaccine regimen to target NY-ESO-1 and improve outcomes for synovial sarcoma and myxoid/round cell liposarcoma patients.[SEP]Relations: BCG vaccine has relations: drug_drug with Sarilumab, drug_drug with Sarilumab, drug_drug with Sirukumab, drug_drug with Sirukumab, drug_drug with Sorafenib, drug_drug with Sorafenib, drug_drug with Sarecycline, drug_drug with Sarecycline. breast synovial sarcoma has relations: disease_disease with breast sarcoma, disease_disease with breast sarcoma. Definitions: T cell defined as following: Lymphocytes responsible for cell-mediated immunity. Two types have been identified - cytotoxic (T-LYMPHOCYTES, CYTOTOXIC) and helper T-lymphocytes (T-LYMPHOCYTES, HELPER-INDUCER). They are formed when lymphocytes circulate through the THYMUS GLAND and differentiate to thymocytes. When exposed to an antigen, they divide rapidly and produce large numbers of new T cells sensitized to that antigen.. NY-ESO-1 defined as following: Human CTAG1A wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of Xq28 and is approximately 2 kb in length. This allele, which encodes cancer/testis antigen 1 protein, may play a role in both spermatogeneis and development of the testes. Aberrant expression of this gene is associated with incontinentia pigmenti.. synovial sarcoma defined as following: A malignant neoplasm arising from tenosynovial tissue of the joints and in synovial cells of tendons and bursae. The legs are the most common site, but the tumor can occur in the abdominal wall and other trunk muscles. There are two recognized types: the monophasic (characterized by sheaths of monotonous spindle cells) and the biphasic (characterized by slit-like spaces or clefts within the tumor, lined by cuboidal or tall columnar epithelial cells). These sarcomas occur most commonly in the second and fourth decades of life. (From Dorland, 27th ed; DeVita Jr et al., Cancer: Principles & Practice of Oncology, 3d ed, p1363). myxoid/round cell liposarcoma defined as following: A liposarcoma characterized by the presence of round non-lipogenic primitive mesenchymal cells and small signet ring lipoblasts within a myxoid stoma with a branching vascular pattern. This category includes hypercellular lesions with round cell morphology, formerly known as round cell liposarcoma.. MRC defined as following: A publicly funded organization that is part of United Kingdom Research and Innovation, and is dedicated to improving human health through world-class medical research.. SS defined as following:
Supernumerary mandibular right first primary molar
. sarcomas defined as following: A malignant neoplasm arising exclusively from the soft tissues..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_238", "sentence1": "Can valproic acid act as an activator of AMPK?", "sentence2": "Here we demonstrate that VPA is a novel activator of AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK), a key regulator of cellular metabolism, using primary mouse and human hepatocytes., These studies are the first to establish VPA and its metabolites as in vitro activators of AMPK.[SEP]Relations: Valproic acid has relations: drug_drug with Amprenavir, drug_drug with Amprenavir, drug_drug with Amphetamine, drug_drug with Amphetamine, drug_effect with Arthropathy, drug_effect with Arthropathy, drug_drug with Acetylsalicylic acid, drug_drug with Acetylsalicylic acid, drug_drug with Glutaric Acid, drug_drug with Glutaric Acid. Definitions: AMP-activated protein kinase defined as following: Intracellular signaling protein kinases that play a signaling role in the regulation of cellular energy metabolism. Their activity largely depends upon the concentration of cellular AMP which is increased under conditions of low energy or metabolic stress. AMP-activated protein kinases modify enzymes involved in LIPID METABOLISM, which in turn provide substrates needed to convert AMP into ATP.. VPA defined as following: A fatty acid with anticonvulsant and anti-manic properties that is used in the treatment of EPILEPSY and BIPOLAR DISORDER. The mechanisms of its therapeutic actions are not well understood. It may act by increasing GAMMA-AMINOBUTYRIC ACID levels in the brain or by altering the properties of VOLTAGE-GATED SODIUM CHANNELS.. metabolites defined as following: Any substance involved in metabolism, either as a product of metabolism or as necessary for metabolism.. valproic acid defined as following: A fatty acid with anticonvulsant and anti-manic properties that is used in the treatment of EPILEPSY and BIPOLAR DISORDER. The mechanisms of its therapeutic actions are not well understood. It may act by increasing GAMMA-AMINOBUTYRIC ACID levels in the brain or by altering the properties of VOLTAGE-GATED SODIUM CHANNELS.. AMPK defined as following: Catalysis of the reaction: [3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl-CoA reductase (NADPH)] + ATP = [3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl-CoA reductase (NADPH)] phosphate + ADP. [EC:2.7.11.31, MetaCyc:2.7.1.109-RXN].", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_93", "sentence1": "Have Quantitative Trait Loci affecting splicing (splicing QTLs) been linked to disease?", "sentence2": "The spontaneously hypertensive rat (SHR) is a widely used rodent model of hypertension and metabolic syndrome. Previously we identified thousands of cis-regulated expression quantitative trait loci (eQTLs) across multiple tissues using a panel of rat recombinant inbred (RI) strains derived from Brown Norway and SHR progenitors. These cis-eQTLs represent potential susceptibility loci underlying physiological and pathophysiological traits manifested in SHR. We have prioritized 60 cis-eQTLs and confirmed differential expression between the parental strains by quantitative PCR in 43 (72%) of the eQTL transcripts., These colocalizing correlated cis-eQTLs (c3-eQTLs) are highly attractive as primary susceptibility loci for the colocalizing pQTLs. Furthermore, sequence analysis of the c3-eQTL genes identified single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) that are predicted to affect transcription factor binding affinity, splicing and protein function. These SNPs, which potentially alter transcript abundance and stability, represent strong candidate factors underlying not just eQTL expression phenotypes, but also the correlated metabolic and physiological traits. In conclusion, by integration of genomic sequence, eQTL and QTT datasets we have identified several genes that are strong positional candidates for pathophysiological traits observed in the SHR strain., Identifying associations between genotypes and gene expression levels using microarrays has enabled systematic interrogation of regulatory variation underlying complex phenotypes. This approach has vast potential for functional characterization of disease states, but its prohibitive cost, given hundreds to thousands of individual samples from populations have to be genotyped and expression profiled, has limited its widespread application.RESULTS: Here we demonstrate that genomic regions with allele-specific expression (ASE) detected by sequencing cDNA are highly enriched for cis-acting expression quantitative trait loci (cis-eQTL) identified by profiling of 500 animals in parallel, with up to 90% agreement on the allele that is preferentially expressed. We also observed widespread noncoding and antisense ASE and identified several allele-specific alternative splicing variants.CONCLUSION: Monitoring ASE by sequencing cDNA from as little as one sample is a practical alternative to expression genetics for mapping cis-acting variation that regulates RNA transcription and processing., The six genes corresponded to rat and mouse quantitative trait loci (QTLs) that had shown associations with the common traits such as the well characterized MS and even tumor susceptibility. Our findings suggest that the six genes may play important roles in the pleiotropic effects on lipid metabolism and the MS, which increase the risk of Type 2 Diabetes and cardiovascular disease. The use of the multivariate phenotypes can be advantageous in identifying genetic risk factors, accounting for the pleiotropic effects when the multivariate phenotypes have a common etiological pathway., To elucidate mechanisms involved in multiple sclerosis (MS), we studied genetic regulation of experimental autoimmune encephalomyelitis (EAE) in rats, assuming a conservation of pathogenic pathways. In this study, we focused on Eae23, originally identified to regulate EAE in a (LEW.1AV1xPVG.1AV1)F2 cross. Our aim was to determine whether one or more genes within the 67 Mb region regulate EAE and to define candidate risk genes.METHODOLOGY/PRINCIPAL FINDINGS: We used high resolution quantitative trait loci (QTL) analysis in the 10th generation (G10) of an advanced intercross line (AIL) to resolve Eae23 into two QTLs that independently regulate EAE, namely Eae23a and Eae23b. [SEP]Relations: qualitative or quantitative defects of titin has relations: disease_disease with TTN-related myopathy, disease_disease with TTN-related myopathy, disease_disease with qualitative or quantitative protein defects in neuromuscular diseases, disease_disease with qualitative or quantitative protein defects in neuromuscular diseases, disease_disease with limb-girdle muscular dystrophy, disease_disease with limb-girdle muscular dystrophy, disease_disease with tibial muscular dystrophy, disease_disease with tibial muscular dystrophy. multiple sclerosis has relations: disease_disease with demyelinating disease, disease_disease with demyelinating disease. Definitions: allele defined as following: Variant forms of the same gene, occupying the same locus on homologous CHROMOSOMES, and governing the variants in production of the same gene product.. single nucleotide polymorphisms defined as following: A single nucleotide variation in a genetic sequence that occurs at appreciable frequency in the population.. hypertension defined as following: Persistently high systemic arterial BLOOD PRESSURE. Based on multiple readings (BLOOD PRESSURE DETERMINATION), hypertension is currently defined as when SYSTOLIC PRESSURE is consistently greater than 140 mm Hg or when DIASTOLIC PRESSURE is consistently 90 mm Hg or more.. rat defined as following: The common rat, Rattus norvegicus, often used as an experimental organism.. conservation defined as following: The maintenance of certain characteristics in an unchanged condition.. genotypes defined as following: The genetic constitution of the individual, comprising the ALLELES present at each GENETIC LOCUS.. transcripts defined as following: The initial RNA molecule produced by transcription.. cardiovascular disease defined as following: Pathological conditions involving the CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM including the HEART; the BLOOD VESSELS; or the PERICARDIUM.. tissues defined as following: Collections of differentiated CELLS, such as EPITHELIUM; CONNECTIVE TISSUE; MUSCLES; and NERVE TISSUE. Tissues are cooperatively arranged to form organs with specialized functions such as RESPIRATION; DIGESTION; REPRODUCTION; MOVEMENT; and others.. multiple sclerosis defined as following: An autoimmune disorder mainly affecting young adults and characterized by destruction of myelin in the central nervous system. Pathologic findings include multiple sharply demarcated areas of demyelination throughout the white matter of the central nervous system. Clinical manifestations include visual loss, extra-ocular movement disorders, paresthesias, loss of sensation, weakness, dysarthria, spasticity, ataxia, and bladder dysfunction. The usual pattern is one of recurrent attacks followed by partial recovery (see MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS, RELAPSING-REMITTING), but acute fulminating and chronic progressive forms (see MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS, CHRONIC PROGRESSIVE) also occur. (Adams et al., Principles of Neurology, 6th ed, p903). metabolic syndrome defined as following: A combination of medical conditions that when present, increase the risk of heart attack, stroke, and diabetes mellitus. It includes the following medical conditions: increased blood pressure, central obesity, dyslipidemia, impaired glucose tolerance, and insulin resistance.. quantitative trait loci defined as following: Genetic loci associated with a quantitative trait.. genes defined as following: A category of nucleic acid sequences that function as units of heredity and which code for the basic instructions for the development, reproduction, and maintenance of organisms.. disease defined as following: A definite pathologic process with a characteristic set of signs and symptoms. It may affect the whole body or any of its parts, and its etiology, pathology, and prognosis may be known or unknown..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_3162", "sentence1": "Is actin present in the nucleus?", "sentence2": "Moreover, inhibition of ATM kinase or deficiency in nuclear actin polymerization causes carcinogenic RET/PTC chromosome rearrangements after DSBs induction in human cells., Our findings establish that nuclear actin-based mobility shapes chromatin organization by generating repair domains that are essential for homology-directed repair in eukaryotic cells., The discovery of nuclear actin opened new perspective on the field, suggesting that the nuclear activities of actin reflect the functions of primordial actin-like proteins., The revitalization of research into nuclear actin occurred after it was found that cellular stresses induce the nuclear localization and alter the structure of actin. , While it is long known that actin is part of the nuclear proteome, its properties and functions as regulated, functional and dynamically assembled actin filaments are only recently emerging.[SEP]Definitions: eukaryotic cells defined as following: Cells of the higher organisms, containing a true nucleus bounded by a nuclear membrane.. actin filaments defined as following: The part of the cytoskeleton (the internal framework of a cell) composed of actin and associated proteins. Includes actin cytoskeleton-associated complexes. [GOC:jl, ISBN:0395825172, ISBN:0815316194]. actin defined as following: Filamentous proteins that are the main constituent of the thin filaments of muscle fibers. The filaments (known also as filamentous or F-actin) can be dissociated into their globular subunits; each subunit is composed of a single polypeptide 375 amino acids long. This is known as globular or G-actin. In conjunction with MYOSINS, actin is responsible for the contraction and relaxation of muscle.. nucleus defined as following: Within a eukaryotic cell, a membrane-limited body which contains chromosomes and one or more nucleoli (CELL NUCLEOLUS). The nuclear membrane consists of a double unit-type membrane which is perforated by a number of pores; the outermost membrane is continuous with the ENDOPLASMIC RETICULUM. A cell may contain more than one nucleus. (From Singleton & Sainsbury, Dictionary of Microbiology and Molecular Biology, 2d ed).", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_3583", "sentence1": "Has amantadine ER been approved by the FDA?", "sentence2": "ADS-5102 (amantadine) extended-release (ER) capsules (GOCOVRITM) is a recent US FDA-approved treatment for dyskinesia in PD patients. [SEP]Relations: Amantadine has relations: drug_drug with Ergometrine, drug_drug with Ergometrine, drug_drug with Ergotamine, drug_drug with Ergotamine, drug_drug with Ertapenem, drug_drug with Ertapenem, drug_drug with Eribulin, drug_drug with Eribulin, drug_drug with Erdafitinib, drug_drug with Erdafitinib. Definitions: amantadine defined as following: An antiviral that is used in the prophylactic or symptomatic treatment of influenza A. It is also used as an antiparkinsonian agent, to treat extrapyramidal reactions, and for postherpetic neuralgia. The mechanisms of its effects in movement disorders are not well understood but probably reflect an increase in synthesis and release of dopamine, with perhaps some inhibition of dopamine uptake.. PD defined as following: A score of 4 or 5 on a 5-point PET scale with an increase in intensity of uptake from baseline and/or new FDG-avid foci consistent with lymphoma at interim or end of treatment assessment.. dyskinesia defined as following: Abnormal involuntary movements which primarily affect the extremities, trunk, or jaw that occur as a manifestation of an underlying disease process. Conditions which feature recurrent or persistent episodes of dyskinesia as a primary manifestation of disease may be referred to as dyskinesia syndromes (see MOVEMENT DISORDERS). Dyskinesias are also a relatively common manifestation of BASAL GANGLIA DISEASES.. ER defined as following: A system of cisternae in the CYTOPLASM of many cells. In places the endoplasmic reticulum is continuous with the plasma membrane (CELL MEMBRANE) or outer membrane of the nuclear envelope. If the outer surfaces of the endoplasmic reticulum membranes are coated with ribosomes, the endoplasmic reticulum is said to be rough-surfaced (ENDOPLASMIC RETICULUM, ROUGH); otherwise it is said to be smooth-surfaced (ENDOPLASMIC RETICULUM, SMOOTH). (King & Stansfield, A Dictionary of Genetics, 4th ed).", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_4538", "sentence1": "Is lumbar puncture the first test that should be performed on a patient with increased intracranial pressure?", "sentence2": "As an emergency diagnostic procedure, spinal puncture is indicated when CNS infection is suspected or to establish the diagnosis of subarachnoid hemorrhage when results of cranial computed tomography are normal. The major contraindication is elevated intracranial pressure with evidence of a mass lesion., Brain shift is a contraindication to LP, whether CSF pressure is raised or not, and whether papilloedema is present or not. Subsequently, recommendations are offered for indications to perform CT before LP, grouped according to the safety and clinical utility of LP., Death following lumbar puncture (LP) is feared by physicians. Many opinions are found in literature on the question whether computed cranial tomography (CT) should be performed before LP, to prevent herniation., Headache, caused by cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) hypotension, is a frequent complication of lumbar puncture; hematic patch is a therapeutic option for severe cases. The most serious complication is cerebral herniation and, for its prevention, computed tomography (CT) or cerebral magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) must always be performed before lumbar puncture: a lesion with evident mass effect is a contraindication., Lumbar puncture (LP) is usually contra-indicated in situations where the ICP is suspected to be high., Low-dose cranial computed tomography (LD-CCT) based on iterative reconstruction has been shown to have sufficient image quality to assess cerebrospinal fluid spaces (CSF) and midline structures but not to exclude subtle parenchymal pathologies. Patients without focal neurological deficits often undergo CCT before lumbar puncture (LP) to exclude contraindications to LP including brain herniation or increased CSF pressure., Lumbar puncture is performed routinely for diagnostic and therapeutic purposes in idiopathic intracranial hypertension, despite lumbar puncture being classically contraindicated in the setting of raised intracranial pressure., Although generally considered innocuous, there may be considerable danger when lumbar puncture is performed in the presence of increased intracranial pressure, especially when a mass lesion is present., Lumbar puncture should be avoided if focal neurologic findings suggest concomitant mass lesion, as in brain abscess, and lumbar puncture should be approached with great caution if meningitis is accompanied by evidence of significant intracranial hypertension., There are few abnormal CT scans presenting a contraindication for lumbar puncture and the majority of these patients usually have clinical signs to suggest raised intracranial pressure.[SEP]Relations: pseudotumor cerebri has relations: disease_phenotype_positive with Increased intracranial pressure, disease_phenotype_positive with Increased intracranial pressure. intracranial hypertension has relations: contraindication with Brompheniramine, contraindication with Brompheniramine, contraindication with Phenylpropanolamine, contraindication with Phenylpropanolamine, contraindication with Trolnitrate, contraindication with Trolnitrate, contraindication with Butorphanol, contraindication with Butorphanol. Definitions: Headache defined as following: The symptom of PAIN in the cranial region. It may be an isolated benign occurrence or manifestation of a wide variety of HEADACHE DISORDERS.. subarachnoid hemorrhage defined as following: Bleeding into the intracranial or spinal SUBARACHNOID SPACE, most resulting from INTRACRANIAL ANEURYSM rupture. It can occur after traumatic injuries (SUBARACHNOID HEMORRHAGE, TRAUMATIC). Clinical features include HEADACHE; NAUSEA; VOMITING, nuchal rigidity, variable neurological deficits and reduced mental status.. hypotension defined as following: Abnormally low BLOOD PRESSURE that can result in inadequate blood flow to the brain and other vital organs. Common symptom is DIZZINESS but greater negative impacts on the body occur when there is prolonged depravation of oxygen and nutrients.. papilloedema defined as following: Swelling of the OPTIC DISK, usually in association with increased intracranial pressure, characterized by hyperemia, blurring of the disk margins, microhemorrhages, blind spot enlargement, and engorgement of retinal veins. Chronic papilledema may cause OPTIC ATROPHY and visual loss. (Miller et al., Clinical Neuro-Ophthalmology, 4th ed, p175). Death defined as following: Irreversible cessation of all bodily functions, manifested by absence of spontaneous breathing and total loss of cardiovascular and cerebral functions.. idiopathic intracranial hypertension defined as following: A condition marked by raised intracranial pressure and characterized clinically by HEADACHES; NAUSEA; PAPILLEDEMA, peripheral constriction of the visual fields, transient visual obscurations, and pulsatile TINNITUS. OBESITY is frequently associated with this condition, which primarily affects women between 20 and 44 years of age. Chronic PAPILLEDEMA may lead to optic nerve injury (see OPTIC NERVE DISEASES) and visual loss (see BLINDNESS).. herniation defined as following: Protrusion of tissue, structure, or part of an organ through the bone, muscular tissue, or the membrane by which it is normally contained. Hernia may involve tissues such as the ABDOMINAL WALL or the respiratory DIAPHRAGM. Hernias may be internal, external, congenital, or acquired.. meningitis defined as following: Inflammation of the coverings of the brain and/or spinal cord, which consist of the PIA MATER; ARACHNOID; and DURA MATER. Infections (viral, bacterial, and fungal) are the most common causes of this condition, but subarachnoid hemorrhage (HEMORRHAGES, SUBARACHNOID), chemical irritation (chemical MENINGITIS), granulomatous conditions, neoplastic conditions (CARCINOMATOUS MENINGITIS), and other inflammatory conditions may produce this syndrome. (From Joynt, Clinical Neurology, 1994, Ch24, p6). cerebrospinal fluid defined as following: A watery fluid that is continuously produced in the CHOROID PLEXUS and circulates around the surface of the BRAIN; SPINAL CORD; and in the CEREBRAL VENTRICLES.. CCT defined as following: The use of a computer to help an individual improve cognitive skills including focus, attention, memory, and information processing.. spinal puncture defined as following: Tapping fluid from the subarachnoid space in the lumbar region, usually between the third and fourth lumbar vertebrae.. neurological deficits defined as following: Loss of movement function.. CT defined as following: Tomography using x-ray transmission and a computer algorithm to reconstruct the image.. intracranial hypertension defined as following: Increased pressure within the cranial vault. This may result from several conditions, including HYDROCEPHALUS; BRAIN EDEMA; intracranial masses; severe systemic HYPERTENSION; PSEUDOTUMOR CEREBRI; and other disorders..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_4367", "sentence1": "Can bergapten cross the blood-brain barrier?", "sentence2": "Moreover, pharmacokinetic studies showed that bergapten has higher absolute bioavailability and can cross the blood-brain barrier and has a great potential for treating brain disease, but the mechanism needs further clarification to make greater use of its ability to treat brain diseases. [SEP]Relations: blood brain barrier has relations: anatomy_anatomy with glial blood brain barrier, anatomy_anatomy with glial blood brain barrier, anatomy_anatomy with cell layer, anatomy_anatomy with cell layer. brain disease has relations: contraindication with Cefepime, contraindication with Cefepime, contraindication with Cyclopentolate, contraindication with Cyclopentolate, contraindication with Edrophonium, contraindication with Edrophonium. Definitions: bergapten defined as following: A linear furanocoumarin that has phototoxic and anti-inflammatory properties, with effects similar to METHOXSALEN. It is used in PUVA THERAPY for the treatment of PSORIASIS.. brain disease defined as following: Pathologic conditions affecting the BRAIN, which is composed of the intracranial components of the CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM. This includes (but is not limited to) the CEREBRAL CORTEX; intracranial white matter; BASAL GANGLIA; THALAMUS; HYPOTHALAMUS; BRAIN STEM; and CEREBELLUM..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_1283", "sentence1": "Is factor XI deficient in Hemophilia C?", "sentence2": "Factor XI deficiency is a rare hematologic disorder. Hemophilia C (factor XI deficiency) affects both genders and it is usually asymptomatic,, Congenital factor XI deficiency (also known as the Rosenthal syndrome or hemophilia C), rare case of an acute cerebral aneurysm rupture in a patient with a known factor XI deficiency. Aneurysmal subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) accounts for a high mortality and morbidity rate. When SAH is associated with an inherited coagulation disorder such as hemophilia C, Factor XI deficiency (Hemophilia C), Factor XI deficiency, also called hemophilia C,[SEP]Relations: factor XI deficiency has relations: disease_disease with hemophilia, disease_disease with hemophilia, disease_disease with congenital factor XI deficiency, disease_disease with congenital factor XI deficiency. hematologic disease has relations: disease_disease with L-ferritin deficiency, disease_disease with L-ferritin deficiency, disease_disease with GATA1-Related X-Linked Cytopenia, disease_disease with GATA1-Related X-Linked Cytopenia, contraindication with Adomiparin, contraindication with Adomiparin. Definitions: SAH defined as following: A Turkic language spoken by the Yakut people in the Sakha Republic in the Russian Federation.. hemophilia C defined as following: A hereditary deficiency of blood coagulation factor XI (also known as plasma thromboplastin antecedent or PTA or antihemophilic factor C) resulting in a systemic blood-clotting defect called hemophilia C or Rosenthal's syndrome, that may resemble classical hemophilia.. hematologic disorder defined as following: Disorders of the blood and blood forming tissues.. Hemophilia C defined as following: A hereditary deficiency of blood coagulation factor XI (also known as plasma thromboplastin antecedent or PTA or antihemophilic factor C) resulting in a systemic blood-clotting defect called hemophilia C or Rosenthal's syndrome, that may resemble classical hemophilia..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_4677", "sentence1": "Is Ameloblastoma (AB) a benign tumor that never metastasizes?", "sentence2": "Ameloblastic carcinoma (AC) is defined as a rare primary epithelial odontogenic malignant neoplasm and the malignant counterpart of benign epithelial odontogenic tumor of ameloblastoma (AB) by the WHO classification, AC develops pulmonary metastasis in about one third of the patients and reveals a poor prognosis, Ameloblastomas are benign but locally invasive neoplasms which may grow to massive proportions and cause significant morbidity. Although some types of ameloblastoma can be treated predictably with aggressive surgical treatment, recurrent ameloblastoma and metastasising ameloblastoma are still difficult to treat., Ameloblastoma of the maxilla is a rare odontogenic tumor that rarely metastasizes., Ameloblastoma is an odontogenic tumor, usually benign, which rarely metastasizes to distant organs., Although ameloblastomas rarely metastasise, recurrences together with radical surgery often result in facial deformity and significant morbidity., The World Health Organization (WHO) has defined malignant ameloblastoma (MA) as a histologically benign-appearing ameloblastoma that has metastasized., Distant metastasis is a very rare condition and is designated as metastasizing (malignant) ameloblastoma despite its benign histological appearance., Ameloblastoma is a locally invasive, histologically nonmalignant tumor that may on very rare occasions give rise to metastases.[SEP]Relations: ameloblastoma has relations: disease_disease with musculoskeletal system benign neoplasm, disease_disease with musculoskeletal system benign neoplasm, disease_disease with musculoskeletal system benign neoplasm, disease_disease with musculoskeletal system benign neoplasm, disease_disease with benign epithelial neoplasm, disease_disease with benign epithelial neoplasm, disease_disease with benign epithelial neoplasm, disease_disease with benign epithelial neoplasm, disease_disease with bone ameloblastoma, disease_disease with bone ameloblastoma. Definitions: Ameloblastoma defined as following: An immature epithelial tumor of the JAW originating from the epithelial rests of Malassez or from other epithelial remnants of the ENAMEL from the developmental period. It is a slowly growing tumor, usually benign, but displays a marked propensity for invasive growth.. maxilla defined as following: One of a pair of irregularly shaped bones that form the upper jaw. A maxillary bone provides tooth sockets for the superior teeth, forms part of the ORBIT, and contains the MAXILLARY SINUS.. odontogenic tumor defined as following: Neoplasms produced from tooth-forming tissues.. Ameloblastic carcinoma defined as following: A rare, cytologically malignant ameloblastoma that may metastasize.. neoplasms defined as following: New abnormal growth of tissue. Malignant neoplasms show a greater degree of anaplasia and have the properties of invasion and metastasis, compared to benign neoplasms.. malignant ameloblastoma defined as following: A rare, well differentiated, cytologically benign ameloblastoma which paradoxically metastasizes.. benign tumor defined as following: A neoplasm which is characterized by the absence of morphologic features associated with malignancy (severe cytologic atypia, tumor cell necrosis, and high mitotic rate). Benign neoplasms remain confined to the original site of growth and do not metastasize to other anatomic sites..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_3812", "sentence1": "Can secondary glioblastoma be caused by brain irradiation?", "sentence2": "Prolonged survival in secondary glioblastoma following local injection of targeted alpha therapy with , [Radiation induced glioblastoma: a case report]., We report a surgical case of a 54-year-old woman with a radiation induced glioblastoma., Glioblastoma multiforme following cranial irradiation and chemotherapy for acute lymphocytic leukaemia., The occurrence of glioblastoma multiforme following radiation and chemotherapy in acute lymphocytic leukaemia (ALL) is rare., Glioblastoma multiforme following cranial irradiation and chemotherapy for acute lymphocytic leukaemia. R, exact cause for the development of glioblastoma multiforme following therapy for ALL is not clear. A gen, ndary malignant and benign brain tumors such as astrocytoma, meningioma and glioblastoma have been described in long-term survivors of conventional myeloablative alloBMT. Here w, The authors consider irradiation-induced glioblastomas secondary to primarily verified medulloblastomas in patients who had previously undergone craniospinal irradiation as a component of combined treatment after tumor resection., The authors analyzed patterns of occurrence of irradiation-induced glioblastomas depending on the molecular genetic group and clinical characteristics of patients after primary surgery., Secondary brain tumors rarely arise after cranial irradiation; among them, meningiomas and glioblastomas are the most common and secondary oligodendroglial tumors the most rare., Secondary glioblastoma multiforme (sGBM) can occur after a long latency period following radiation treatment of various diseases including brain tumors, leukemia, and more benign disorders like tinea capitis., Irradiation, however, acts as an oncogenic factor as a delayed effect and it is rare that glioblastoma multiforme develops during the remission period of ALL., A cerebellar glioblastoma was discovered in a 28 year old woman, 5 years after a focal 50 grays brain irradiation for meningioma of the clivus., Glioblastoma multiforme following cranial irradiation and chemotherapy for acute lymphocytic leukaemia. Report of 3 cases., Secondary tumors including glioblastomas are under special attention since their occurrence is associated with a fatal outcome., We describe a case of radiation-induced glioblastoma after radiotherapy for germinoma., [A Case of Radiation-induced Glioblastoma 29 Years after Treatments for Germinoma]., Paradoxically, radiation is also a risk factor for GBM development, raising the possibility that radiotherapy of brain tumors could promote tumor recurrence or trigger secondary gliomas., An SMN may have a benign course, as in meningioma, or be a dilemma for the patient, as in glioblastoma., During a median of 2 years of follow-up review after the diagnosis of a secondary tumour, 3 patients died related to the secondary tumours (2 sarcomas, 1 glioblastoma), one died of a recurrent primary glioma, while the remaining 7 have been alive for from 10 months to 12 years after being treated for the secondary tumours (median: 3 years). , In particular, children treated with X-irradiation for acute lymphoblastic leukemia show a significantly elevated risk of developing gliomas and primitive neuroectodermal tumor (PNET), often within 10 years after therapy. TP53 mutations are frequent in low-grade gliomas and secondary glioblastomas derived therefrom., Pathologic diagnoses were one glioblastoma, two cases of anaplastic astrocytoma, one medulloblastoma, one low-grade glioma, one high-grade glial tumor, and one atypical meningioma., A 22 year-old-man with acute lymphoblastic leukaemia had received prophylactic cranial irradiation and intrathecal chemotherapy. Eighteen years later a cerebellar glioblastoma multiforme was diagnosed. , She developed glioblastoma 5.7 years after the initial GK surgery.[SEP]Relations: adult glioblastoma has relations: disease_disease with glioblastoma (disease), disease_disease with glioblastoma (disease), disease_disease with glioblastoma (disease), disease_disease with glioblastoma (disease). Glioma has relations: phenotype_phenotype with Brainstem glioma, phenotype_phenotype with Brainstem glioma, disease_phenotype_positive with retinoblastoma, disease_phenotype_positive with retinoblastoma, disease_phenotype_positive with glioblastoma (disease), disease_phenotype_positive with glioblastoma (disease). Definitions: acute lymphocytic leukaemia defined as following: Leukemia with an acute onset, characterized by the presence of lymphoblasts in the bone marrow and the peripheral blood. It includes the acute B lymphoblastic leukemia and acute T lymphoblastic leukemia.. SMN defined as following: Small nuclear ribonucleoprotein-associated protein N (240 aa, ~25 kDa) is a nucleotide metabolism protein that is encoded by the human SNRPN gene and plays a role in mRNA splicing.. medulloblastoma defined as following: A malignant neoplasm that may be classified either as a glioma or as a primitive neuroectodermal tumor of childhood (see NEUROECTODERMAL TUMOR, PRIMITIVE). The tumor occurs most frequently in the first decade of life with the most typical location being the cerebellar vermis. Histologic features include a high degree of cellularity, frequent mitotic figures, and a tendency for the cells to organize into sheets or form rosettes. Medulloblastoma have a high propensity to spread throughout the craniospinal intradural axis. (From DeVita et al., Cancer: Principles and Practice of Oncology, 5th ed, pp2060-1). meningioma defined as following: A grade I, slowly growing meningioma. Only a minority of tumors recur following complete resection.. benign brain tumors defined as following: A primary, slow growing, noninvasive neoplasm of the brain. In children, astrocytomas of the cerebellum represent relatively common benign brain neoplasms. In adults meningiomas, neurilemomas and pituitary tumors comprise the majority of benign tumors.. leukemia defined as following: A progressive, malignant disease of the blood-forming organs, characterized by distorted proliferation and development of leukocytes and their precursors in the blood and bone marrow. Leukemias were originally termed acute or chronic based on life expectancy but now are classified according to cellular maturity. Acute leukemias consist of predominately immature cells; chronic leukemias are composed of more mature cells. (From The Merck Manual, 2006). acute lymphoblastic leukemia defined as following: A type of ALL characterized by elevated levels of B-cell lymphoblasts in the bone marrow and the blood. [NCIT:C8644]. meningiomas defined as following: A relatively common neoplasm of the CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM that arises from arachnoidal cells. The majority are well differentiated vascular tumors which grow slowly and have a low potential to be invasive, although malignant subtypes occur. Meningiomas have a predilection to arise from the parasagittal region, cerebral convexity, sphenoidal ridge, olfactory groove, and SPINAL CANAL. (From DeVita et al., Cancer: Principles and Practice of Oncology, 5th ed, pp2056-7). germinoma defined as following: A malignant neoplasm of the germinal tissue of the GONADS; MEDIASTINUM; or pineal region. Germinomas are uniform in appearance, consisting of large, round cells with vesicular nuclei and clear or finely granular eosinophilic-staining cytoplasm. (Stedman, 265th ed; from DeVita Jr et al., Cancer: Principles & Practice of Oncology, 3d ed, pp1642-3). sarcomas defined as following: A malignant neoplasm arising exclusively from the soft tissues.. Glioblastoma defined as following: The most malignant astrocytic tumor (WHO grade 4). It is composed of poorly differentiated neoplastic astrocytes and is characterized by the presence of cellular polymorphism, nuclear atypia, brisk mitotic activity, vascular thrombosis, microvascular proliferation, and necrosis. It typically affects adults and is preferentially located in the cerebral hemispheres. (Adapted from WHO). gliomas defined as following: Benign and malignant central nervous system neoplasms derived from glial cells (i.e., astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, and ependymocytes). Astrocytes may give rise to astrocytomas (ASTROCYTOMA) or glioblastoma multiforme (see GLIOBLASTOMA). Oligodendrocytes give rise to oligodendrogliomas (OLIGODENDROGLIOMA) and ependymocytes may undergo transformation to become EPENDYMOMA; CHOROID PLEXUS NEOPLASMS; or colloid cysts of the third ventricle. (From Escourolle et al., Manual of Basic Neuropathology, 2nd ed, p21). astrocytoma defined as following: Neoplasms of the brain and spinal cord derived from glial cells which vary from histologically benign forms to highly anaplastic and malignant tumors. Fibrillary astrocytomas are the most common type and may be classified in order of increasing malignancy (grades I through IV). In the first two decades of life, astrocytomas tend to originate in the cerebellar hemispheres; in adults, they most frequently arise in the cerebrum and frequently undergo malignant transformation. (From Devita et al., Cancer: Principles and Practice of Oncology, 5th ed, pp2013-7; Holland et al., Cancer Medicine, 3d ed, p1082). glioblastomas defined as following: A malignant form of astrocytoma histologically characterized by pleomorphism of cells, nuclear atypia, microhemorrhage, and necrosis. They may arise in any region of the central nervous system, with a predilection for the cerebral hemispheres, basal ganglia, and commissural pathways. Clinical presentation most frequently occurs in the fifth or sixth decade of life with focal neurologic signs or seizures.. brain tumors defined as following: Neoplasms of the intracranial components of the central nervous system, including the cerebral hemispheres, basal ganglia, hypothalamus, thalamus, brain stem, and cerebellum. Brain neoplasms are subdivided into primary (originating from brain tissue) and secondary (i.e., metastatic) forms. Primary neoplasms are subdivided into benign and malignant forms. In general, brain tumors may also be classified by age of onset, histologic type, or presenting location in the brain.. tinea capitis defined as following: Ringworm of the scalp and associated hair mainly caused by species of MICROSPORUM; TRICHOPHYTON; and EPIDERMOPHYTON, which may occasionally involve the eyebrows and eyelashes.. anaplastic astrocytoma defined as following: A central nervous system tumor with morphological features of anaplastic astrocytoma in which there is insufficient information on the IDH genes status.. GBM defined as following: A sheet of amorphous extracellular material upon which the basal surfaces of epithelial cells rest and is the covering surface of a glomerular capillary, interposed between the cellular elements and the underlying connective tissue.. PNET defined as following: A group of highly cellular primitive round cell neoplasms which occur extracranially in soft tissue and bone and are derived from embryonal neural crest cells. These tumors occur primarily in children and adolescents and share a number of characteristics with EWING SARCOMA.. primitive neuroectodermal tumor defined as following: A group of malignant tumors of the nervous system that feature primitive cells with elements of neuronal and/or glial differentiation. Use of this term is limited by some authors to central nervous system tumors and others include neoplasms of similar origin which arise extracranially (i.e., NEUROECTODERMAL TUMORS, PRIMITIVE, PERIPHERAL). This term is also occasionally used as a synonym for MEDULLOBLASTOMA. In general, these tumors arise in the first decade of life and tend to be highly malignant. (From DeVita et al., Cancer: Principles and Practice of Oncology, 5th ed, p2059). cranial irradiation defined as following: The exposure of the head to roentgen rays or other forms of radioactivity for therapeutic or preventive purposes.. glioblastoma defined as following: The most malignant astrocytic tumor (WHO grade 4). It is composed of poorly differentiated neoplastic astrocytes and is characterized by the presence of cellular polymorphism, nuclear atypia, brisk mitotic activity, vascular thrombosis, microvascular proliferation, and necrosis. It typically affects adults and is preferentially located in the cerebral hemispheres. (Adapted from WHO).", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_2938", "sentence1": "Does Groucho related gene 5 (GRG5) have a role only in late development?", "sentence2": "Groucho related gene 5 (GRG5) is a multifunctional protein that has been implicated in late embryonic and postnatal mouse development. Here, we describe a previously unknown role of GRG5 in early developmental stages by analyzing its function in stem cell fate decisions. By both loss and gain of function approaches we demonstrate that ablation of GRG5 deregulates the Embryonic Stem Cell (ESC) pluripotent state whereas its overexpression leads to enhanced self-renewal and acquisition of cancer cell-like properties. The malignant characteristics of teratomas generated by ESCs that overexpress GRG5 reveal its pro-oncogenic potential., Here, we describe a previously unknown role of GRG5 in early developmental stages by analyzing its function in stem cell fate decisions., Groucho related gene 5 (GRG5) is involved in embryonic and neural stem cell state decisions.Groucho related gene 5 (GRG5) is a multifunctional protein that has been implicated in late embryonic and postnatal mouse development. [SEP]Relations: embryo has relations: anatomy_protein_present with GRK5, anatomy_protein_present with GRK5, anatomy_protein_present with GRK6, anatomy_protein_present with GRK6. TLE5 has relations: protein_protein with GRB2, protein_protein with GRB2, protein_protein with GRAP2, protein_protein with GRAP2, protein_protein with GRN, protein_protein with GRN. Definitions: embryonic defined as following: The entities of developing ANIMALS in early stages.. cancer defined as following: A malignant tumor at the original site of growth.. Embryonic Stem Cell defined as following: Cells derived from the BLASTOCYST INNER CELL MASS which forms before implantation in the uterine wall. They retain the ability to divide, proliferate and provide progenitor cells that can differentiate into specialized cells.. teratomas defined as following: A true neoplasm composed of a number of different types of tissue, none of which is native to the area in which it occurs. It is composed of tissues that are derived from three germinal layers, the endoderm, mesoderm, and ectoderm. They are classified histologically as mature (benign) or immature (malignant). (From DeVita Jr et al., Cancer: Principles & Practice of Oncology, 3d ed, p1642). multifunctional protein defined as following: This gene is involved in fatty acid oxidation..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_3117", "sentence1": "Are there tools for visualizing and processing long-read sequencing data?", "sentence2": "NanoPack: visualizing and processing long-read sequencing data., Here we describe NanoPack, a set of tools developed for visualization and processing of long-read sequencing data from Oxford Nanopore Technologies and Pacific Biosciences.Availability and implementation: The NanoPack tools are written in Python3 and released under the GNU GPL3.0 License. The source code can be found at https://github.com/wdecoster/nanopack, together with links to separate scripts and their documentation. The scripts are compatible with Linux, Mac OS and the MS Windows 10 subsystem for Linux and are available as a graphical user interface, a web service at http://nanoplot.bioinf.be and command line tools., Summary\nHere we describe NanoPack, a set of tools developed for visualization and processing of long-read sequencing data from Oxford Nanopore Technologies and Pacific Biosciences., NanoPack: visualizing and processing long-read sequencing data.Supplementary data are available at Bioinformatics online., Summary: Here we describe NanoPack, a set of tools developed for visualization and processing of long-read sequencing data from Oxford Nanopore Technologies and Pacific Biosciences.Respond with exceptions, completions and modifications or revisions done before completion
. adrenergic defined as following: Drugs that act on adrenergic receptors or affect the life cycle of adrenergic transmitters. Included here are adrenergic agonists and antagonists and agents that affect the synthesis, storage, uptake, metabolism, or release of adrenergic transmitters.. sudden cardiac arrest defined as following: Sudden suspension of cardiac activity that is usually due to ARRHYTHMIA, in contrast to heart attack (MYOCARDIAL INFARCTION) which occurs due to blockage. The sudden suspension of cardiac activity generally requires RESUSCITATION.. gene mutation defined as following: A change in the nucleotide sequence of the TAF1 gene.. cardiac channelopathy defined as following: A disorder that affects the myocardial ion channels, altering the electrical properties of the heart and changing the ECG and/or predisposing the subject to pro-arrhythmic events.. channelopathies defined as following: A variety of neuromuscular conditions resulting from MUTATIONS in ION CHANNELS manifesting as episodes of EPILEPSY; HEADACHE DISORDERS; and DYSKINESIAS.. ventricular tachycardias defined as following: An abnormally rapid ventricular rhythm usually in excess of 150 beats per minute. It is generated within the ventricle below the BUNDLE OF HIS, either as autonomic impulse formation or reentrant impulse conduction. Depending on the etiology, onset of ventricular tachycardia can be paroxysmal (sudden) or nonparoxysmal, its wide QRS complexes can be uniform or polymorphic, and the ventricular beating may be independent of the atrial beating (AV dissociation).. channel defined as following: An independent acquisition scheme, i.e., a route or conduit through which flows data consisting of one particular measurement using one particular parameter.. LQTS defined as following: A rare group of genetic, cardiac rhythm diseases characterized by a prolongation of the QT interval at basal electrocardiography (ECG) and by a high risk of life-threatening arrhythmias.. Ventricular Tachycardia defined as following: An electrocardiographic finding of three or more consecutive complexes of ventricular organ with a rate greater than a certain threshold (100 or 120 beats per minute are commonly used). The QRS complexes are wide and have an abnormal morphology. (CDISC).", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_297", "sentence1": "Are cyclophilins proteins that bind to prolines?", "sentence2": "Cyclophilins are ubiquitously expressed proteins that bind to prolines and can catalyse cis/trans isomerization of proline residues., a characteristic of the cyclophilin family of proteins that bind prolines and often act as cis-trans peptidyl-prolyl isomerases. , The cyclophilins are widely expressed enzymes that catalyze the interconversion of the cis and trans peptide bonds of prolines. , an immunophilin on the isomerization of critical prolines that are found in the tCHT1 sequence.[SEP]Relations: Protein S human has relations: drug_protein with PROC, drug_protein with PROC, drug_drug with Proglumetacin, drug_drug with Proglumetacin, drug_drug with Procarbazine, drug_drug with Procarbazine, drug_drug with Doxycycline, drug_drug with Doxycycline, drug_drug with Progesterone, drug_drug with Progesterone. Definitions: proteins defined as following: Linear POLYPEPTIDES that are synthesized on RIBOSOMES and may be further modified, crosslinked, cleaved, or assembled into complex proteins with several subunits. The specific sequence of AMINO ACIDS determines the shape the polypeptide will take, during PROTEIN FOLDING, and the function of the protein.. immunophilin defined as following: An enzyme that catalyzes the isomerization of proline residues within proteins. EC 5.2.1.8.. Cyclophilins defined as following: A family of peptidyl-prolyl cis-trans isomerases that bind to CYCLOSPORINS and regulate the IMMUNE SYSTEM. EC 5.2.1.-. cis defined as following: Cytokine-inducible SH2-containing protein (258 aa, ~29 kDa) is encoded by the human CISH gene. This protein is involved in the modulation of signal transduction.. cyclophilins defined as following: A family of peptidyl-prolyl cis-trans isomerases that bind to CYCLOSPORINS and regulate the IMMUNE SYSTEM. EC 5.2.1.-.", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_2617", "sentence1": "Is there a link between nuclear position and DNA repair pathway choice?", "sentence2": "Nuclear position dictates DNA repair pathway choice., We demonstrate that DSBs induced at the nuclear membrane (but not at nuclear pores or nuclear interior) fail to rapidly activate the DNA damage response (DDR) and repair by homologous recombination (HR). Real-time and superresolution imaging reveal that DNA DSBs within lamina-associated domains do not migrate to more permissive environments for HR, like the nuclear pores or the nuclear interior, but instead are repaired in situ by alternative end-joining. Our results are consistent with a model in which nuclear position dictates the choice of DNA repair pathway, thus revealing a new level of regulation in DSB repair controlled by spatial organization of DNA within the nucleus., Our results are consistent with a model in which nuclear position dictates the choice of DNA repair pathway, thus revealing a new level of regulation in DSB repair controlled by spatial organization of DNA within the nucleus., Nuclear position dictates DNA repair pathway choice., Our results are consistent with a model in which nuclear position dictates the choice of DNA repair pathway, thus revealing a new level of regulation in DSB repair controlled by spatial organization of DNA within the nucleus.[SEP]Relations: nuclear envelope has relations: cellcomp_protein with DNASE1, cellcomp_protein with DNASE1, cellcomp_protein with NRM, cellcomp_protein with NRM, cellcomp_protein with LMNA, cellcomp_protein with LMNA, cellcomp_protein with RAN, cellcomp_protein with RAN, cellcomp_protein with DST, cellcomp_protein with DST. Definitions: nuclear pores defined as following: An opening through the NUCLEAR ENVELOPE formed by the nuclear pore complex which transports nuclear proteins or RNA into or out of the CELL NUCLEUS and which, under some conditions, acts as an ion channel.. nucleus defined as following: Within a eukaryotic cell, a membrane-limited body which contains chromosomes and one or more nucleoli (CELL NUCLEOLUS). The nuclear membrane consists of a double unit-type membrane which is perforated by a number of pores; the outermost membrane is continuous with the ENDOPLASMIC RETICULUM. A cell may contain more than one nucleus. (From Singleton & Sainsbury, Dictionary of Microbiology and Molecular Biology, 2d ed). nuclear membrane defined as following: The membrane system of the CELL NUCLEUS that surrounds the nucleoplasm. It consists of two concentric membranes separated by the perinuclear space. The structures of the envelope where it opens to the cytoplasm are called the nuclear pores (NUCLEAR PORE).. DNA defined as following: A deoxyribonucleotide polymer that is the primary genetic material of all cells. Eukaryotic and prokaryotic organisms normally contain DNA in a double-stranded state, yet several important biological processes transiently involve single-stranded regions. DNA, which consists of a polysugar-phosphate backbone possessing projections of purines (adenine and guanine) and pyrimidines (thymine and cytosine), forms a double helix that is held together by hydrogen bonds between these purines and pyrimidines (adenine to thymine and guanine to cytosine)..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_418", "sentence1": "Is there evidence that tomato juice lowers cholesterol levels?", "sentence2": "The hypocholesterolemic effect of tomato juice has been investigated in an intervention study with rats, along with the possible inhibition effect of bioactive tomato compounds binding to the HMGCR enzyme., The molecular modelling showed that components of tomato can bind to the active site of the enzyme and compete with the ligand HMGCoA. Lycopene, from tomato juice, accumulates in the liver and can inhibit the activity of the rate-limiting enzyme of cholesterol biosynthesis, HMGCR., Juice consumption significantly improved resistance of LDL+VLDL-C to Cu(2+)-mediated oxidation (P = 0.039), HDL-C (47.3 ± 15.8 to 51.7 ± 14.8 mg/dL, P<0.001), and the ratio of total-C/HDL-C (4.25 ± 1.59 to 3.63 ± 1.16, P<0.001) at 8 wk., RESULTS: Intervention with the enriched juice had no effect on the lipid profile, and serum levels of triglycerides and cholesterol (total, LDL, and HDL) remained unchanged. , Women consuming ≥10 compared with<1.5 servings/wk of tomato-based food products had significant but clinically modest improvements in total cholesterol (TC) (5.38 vs. 5.51 mmol/L; P = 0.029), the TC:HDL cholesterol ratio (4.08 vs. 4.22; P = 0.046), and hemoglobin A1c (5.02 vs. 5.13%; P<0.001) in multivariable models. Considering clinical cutpoints, women consuming ≥10 compared with<1.5 servings/wk were 31% (95% CI = 6%, 50%), 40% (95% CI = 13%, 59%), and 66% (95% CI = 20%, 86%) less likely to have elevated TC (≥6.21 mmol/L), LDL cholesterol (≥4.14 mmol/L), and hemoglobin A1c (≥6%), respectively. , In conclusion, women consuming ≥10 compared with<1.5 servings/wk of tomato-based food products had clinically modest but significant improvements in TC, the TC:HDL cholesterol ratio, and hemoglobin A1c but not other coronary biomarkers., Tomato juice decreases LDL cholesterol levels and increases LDL resistance to oxidation., Total cholesterol concentration was reduced by 5.9 (sd 10) % (P = 0.002) and LDL cholesterol concentration by 12.9 (sd 17.0) % (P = 0.0002) with the high tomato diet compared to the low tomato diet., In conclusion, a high dietary intake of tomato products had atheroprotective effects, it significantly reduced LDL cholesterol levels, and increased LDL resistance to oxidation in healthy normocholesterolaemic adults., Total, LDL and HDL cholesterol were significantly lower in the intervention group after the intake of tomato juice, Total cholesterol concentration was reduced by 5.9 (sd 10) % (P = 0.002) and LDL cholesterol concentration by 12.9 (sd 17.0) % (P = 0.0002) with the high tomato diet compared to the low tomato diet. [SEP]Relations: Cholesterol has relations: drug_drug with Folic acid, drug_drug with Folic acid, drug_drug with Riluzole, drug_drug with Riluzole, drug_drug with Testosterone cypionate, drug_drug with Testosterone cypionate, drug_drug with Topotecan, drug_drug with Topotecan, drug_drug with Rimegepant, drug_drug with Rimegepant. Definitions: HMGCR defined as following: 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl-coenzyme A reductase (888 aa, ~97 kDa) is encoded by the human HMGCR gene. This protein is involved in cholesterol synthesis.. triglycerides defined as following: An ester formed from GLYCEROL and three fatty acid groups.. LDL defined as following: A class of lipoproteins of small size (18-25 nm) and light (1.019-1.063 g/ml) particles with a core composed mainly of CHOLESTEROL ESTERS and smaller amounts of TRIGLYCERIDES. The surface monolayer consists mostly of PHOSPHOLIPIDS, a single copy of APOLIPOPROTEIN B-100, and free cholesterol molecules. The main LDL function is to transport cholesterol and cholesterol esters to extrahepatic tissues.. tomato defined as following: A plant species of the family SOLANACEAE, native of South America, widely cultivated for their edible, fleshy, usually red fruit.. rats defined as following: The common rat, Rattus norvegicus, often used as an experimental organism.. LDL cholesterol defined as following: Cholesterol which is contained in or bound to low density lipoproteins (LDL), including CHOLESTEROL ESTERS and free cholesterol.. HDL defined as following: A class of lipoproteins of small size (4-13 nm) and dense (greater than 1.063 g/ml) particles. HDL lipoproteins, synthesized in the liver without a lipid core, accumulate cholesterol esters from peripheral tissues and transport them to the liver for re-utilization or elimination from the body (the reverse cholesterol transport). Their major protein component is APOLIPOPROTEIN A-I. HDL also shuttle APOLIPOPROTEINS C and APOLIPOPROTEINS E to and from triglyceride-rich lipoproteins during their catabolism. HDL plasma level has been inversely correlated with the risk of cardiovascular diseases.. hemoglobin A1c defined as following: Products of non-enzymatic reactions between GLUCOSE and HEMOGLOBIN A, occurring as a minor fraction of the hemoglobin components of human erythrocytes. Hemoglobin A1c is hemoglobin A with glucose covalently bound to the terminal VALINE of the beta chain. Glycated hemoglobin A is used as an index of the average blood sugar level over a lifetime of erythrocytes.. cholesterol defined as following: The principal sterol of all higher animals, distributed in body tissues, especially the brain and spinal cord, and in animal fats and oils.. active site defined as following: The catalytic site of an enzyme, the part of an enzyme where the actual enzymatic function is performed.. HDL cholesterol defined as following: Cholesterol which is contained in or bound to high-density lipoproteins (HDL), including CHOLESTEROL ESTERS and free cholesterol.. TC defined as following: Human CD55 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 1q32 and is approximately 40 kb in length. This allele, which encodes complement decay-accelerating factor protein, is involved in the modulation of complement activity..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_1228", "sentence1": "Is Rheumatoid Arthritis related to myopathy?", "sentence2": "Prevalence of risk factors for statin-induced myopathy in rheumatoid arthritis patients, we describe a patient with rheumatoid arthritis and respiratory failure associated with proximal myopathy secondary to HCQ, Occurrence of chloroquine-induced myopathy after low-dose treatment of rheumatoid arthritis for seven years, a 75 year old female with rheumatoid arthritis treated with daily doses of 250 mg of chloroquine for four years. The patient visited because of several months history of predominantly proximal progressive tetraparesis with areflexia, Myopathy and neuropathy in rheumatoid arthritis, with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) have clinical or subclinical evidence of peripheral neuropathy or myopathy, The study reveals an increased prevalence of neurogenic but not myogenic changes in patients with RA compared with controls[SEP]Relations: Rheumatoid arthritis has relations: phenotype_phenotype with Arthritis, phenotype_phenotype with Arthritis, disease_phenotype_positive with rheumatoid arthritis, disease_phenotype_positive with rheumatoid arthritis, drug_effect with Acamprosate, drug_effect with Acamprosate, disease_phenotype_positive with dystonia, disease_phenotype_positive with dystonia, phenotype_phenotype with Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis, phenotype_phenotype with Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis. Definitions: peripheral neuropathy defined as following: Diseases of the peripheral nerves external to the brain and spinal cord, which includes diseases of the nerve roots, ganglia, plexi, autonomic nerves, sensory nerves, and motor nerves.. rheumatoid arthritis defined as following: A chronic systemic disease, primarily of the joints, marked by inflammatory changes in the synovial membranes and articular structures, widespread fibrinoid degeneration of the collagen fibers in mesenchymal tissues, and by atrophy and rarefaction of bony structures. Etiology is unknown, but autoimmune mechanisms have been implicated.. chloroquine defined as following: The prototypical antimalarial agent with a mechanism that is not well understood. It has also been used to treat rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, and in the systemic therapy of amebic liver abscesses.. myopathy defined as following: Acquired, familial, and congenital disorders of SKELETAL MUSCLE and SMOOTH MUSCLE.. low-dose defined as following: A reduced quantity of a therapeutic agent prescribed to be taken at one time or at stated intervals.. tetraparesis defined as following: Weakness of all four limbs. [HPO:probinson]. HCQ defined as following: A chemotherapeutic agent that acts against erythrocytic forms of malarial parasites. Hydroxychloroquine appears to concentrate in food vacuoles of affected protozoa. It inhibits plasmodial heme polymerase. (From Gilman et al., Goodman and Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 9th ed, p970). areflexia defined as following: A finding indicating the complete absence of neurological reflexes.. respiratory failure defined as following: The significant impairment of gas exchange within the lungs resulting in hypoxia, hypercarbia, or both, to the extent that organ tissue perfusion is severely compromised. Causes include chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, asthma, emphysema, acute respiratory distress syndrome, pneumonia, pulmonary edema, pneumothorax, and congestive heart failure. Treatment requires intubation and mechanical ventilation until the time the lungs recover sufficient function.. neuropathy defined as following: A disorder affecting the cranial nerves or the peripheral nervous system. It manifests with pain, tingling, numbness, and muscle weakness. It may be the result of physical injury, toxic substances, viral diseases, diabetes, renal failure, cancer, and drugs.. Rheumatoid Arthritis defined as following: A chronic systemic disease, primarily of the joints, marked by inflammatory changes in the synovial membranes and articular structures, widespread fibrinoid degeneration of the collagen fibers in mesenchymal tissues, and by atrophy and rarefaction of bony structures. Etiology is unknown, but autoimmune mechanisms have been implicated..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_1564", "sentence1": "Are adenylyl cyclases always transmembrane proteins?", "sentence2": "ransmembrane adenylyl cyclase, Transmembrane adenylyl cyclase (tmAC) and soluble AC (sAC) , Soluble adenylyl cyclase (sAC) is a recently recognized source of the signaling molecule cyclic AMP (cAMP) that is genetically and biochemically distinct from the classic G-protein-regulated transmembrane adenylyl cyclases (tmACs)., Soluble adenylyl cyclase , transmembrane adenylyl cyclases (tmACs), and soluble adenylyl cyclase (sAC). , Here, we showed that both transmembrane AC (tmAC) and soluble AC (sAC) are distinctly involved in the regulation of sperm motility in the ascidian Ciona intestinalis. , cAMP production in beta cells is mediated not simply by transmembrane adenylyl cyclases (TMACs), but also by sAC., In contrast to tmAC, sAC produces cAMP in various intracellular microdomains close to specific cAMP targets, e.g., in nucleus and mitochondria, soluble adenylyl cyclase (sAC, ADCY10), the ubiquitous, non-transmembrane adenylyl cyclase, was found to play a key role in neuronal survival and axon growth., Central role of soluble adenylyl cyclase[SEP]Relations: mitochondrion has relations: cellcomp_protein with ACADS, cellcomp_protein with ACADS, cellcomp_protein with ACSL1, cellcomp_protein with ACSL1, cellcomp_protein with ACADSB, cellcomp_protein with ACADSB, cellcomp_protein with CYRIB, cellcomp_protein with CYRIB, cellcomp_protein with ACACB, cellcomp_protein with ACACB. Definitions: sAC defined as following: A signaling process that delays the metaphase/anaphase transition until the spindle is correctly assembled and chromosomes are attached to the spindle. [GOC:mah]. nucleus defined as following: Within a eukaryotic cell, a membrane-limited body which contains chromosomes and one or more nucleoli (CELL NUCLEOLUS). The nuclear membrane consists of a double unit-type membrane which is perforated by a number of pores; the outermost membrane is continuous with the ENDOPLASMIC RETICULUM. A cell may contain more than one nucleus. (From Singleton & Sainsbury, Dictionary of Microbiology and Molecular Biology, 2d ed). mitochondria defined as following: Semiautonomous, self-reproducing organelles that occur in the cytoplasm of all cells of most, but not all, eukaryotes. Each mitochondrion is surrounded by a double limiting membrane. The inner membrane is highly invaginated, and its projections are called cristae. Mitochondria are the sites of the reactions of oxidative phosphorylation, which result in the formation of ATP. They contain distinctive RIBOSOMES, transfer RNAs (RNA, TRANSFER); AMINO ACYL T RNA SYNTHETASES; and elongation and termination factors. Mitochondria depend upon genes within the nucleus of the cells in which they reside for many essential messenger RNAs (RNA, MESSENGER). Mitochondria are believed to have arisen from aerobic bacteria that established a symbiotic relationship with primitive protoeukaryotes. (King & Stansfield, A Dictionary of Genetics, 4th ed). cAMP defined as following: A chemotherapy regimen consisting of cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin, methotrexate, and procarbazine that may be used in the treatment of non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC).. Ciona intestinalis defined as following: Vase or tube shaped TUNICATES with a cosmopolitan distribution.. adenylyl cyclases defined as following: Enzymes of the lyase class that catalyze the formation of CYCLIC AMP and pyrophosphate from ATP..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_2007", "sentence1": "Is the mouse Sry gene locus free of repetitive sequences?", "sentence2": "We demonstrate that the presence of long inverted repeats (IR) flanking the mouse Sry gene leads to the formation of the Sry circular transcript in cultured cells, Circularization requires the presence of both IR. As few as 400 complementary nt are necessary for this process, The presence of the IR does not significantly stimulate intermolecular annealing and trans-splicing in vivo, We have found that in an in vitro assay, the SRY protein binds to several sites of the Sry gene and especially to a (CA)25 sequence and to a (CAG)30 repeat, The Q-rich domain of the mouse sex determining gene, Sry, is encoded by an in-frame insertion of a repetitive sequence composed of mostly CAG repeats., Inverted repeat structure of the Sry locus in mice., We performed separate amplifications of DXZ4 repetitive satellite sequences on the X chromosome, and SRY gene - testis determined factor on the Y chromosome, using nested PCR, Detailed analysis of the Sry genomic locus reveals a further difference in that the mouse Sry open reading frame lies within 2.8 kilobases of unique sequence at the center of a large inverted repeat. , Detailed analysis of the Sry genomic locus reveals a further difference in that the mouse Sry open reading frame lies within 2.8 kilobases of unique sequence at the center of a large inverted repeat., The mouse genomic Sry locus is characterized by two arms of a large inverted repeat, flanking a unique region that, between an acceptor and a donor splice site, contains a single exon encoding the Sry protein., Recombination involving the repeat region may have led to an 11-kilobase deletion, precisely excising Sry in a line of XY female mice., Repetitive element analysis revealed numerous LINE-L1 elements at regions where conservation is lost among the Sry copies., Inverted repeat structure of the Sry locus in mice.[SEP]Relations: mRNA splice site selection has relations: bioprocess_protein with SRSF6, bioprocess_protein with SRSF6, bioprocess_protein with SRSF1, bioprocess_protein with SRSF1, bioprocess_protein with SRSF9, bioprocess_protein with SRSF9, bioprocess_protein with SRSF5, bioprocess_protein with SRSF5, bioprocess_protein with SRSF10, bioprocess_protein with SRSF10. Definitions: gene defined as following: A category of nucleic acid sequences that function as units of heredity and which code for the basic instructions for the development, reproduction, and maintenance of organisms.. Sry gene defined as following: The primary testis-determining gene in mammalians, located on the Y CHROMOSOME. It codes for a high mobility group box transcription factor (TRANSCRIPTION FACTORS) which initiates the development of the TESTES from the embryonic GONADS.. exon defined as following: The parts of a transcript of a split GENE remaining after the INTRONS are removed. They are spliced together to become a MESSENGER RNA or other functional RNA.. cultured cells defined as following: Cells propagated in vitro in special media conducive to their growth. Cultured cells are used to study developmental, morphologic, metabolic, physiologic, and genetic processes, among others.. repeat defined as following: Something occurring more than once.. conservation defined as following: The maintenance of certain characteristics in an unchanged condition.. Sry defined as following: Sex-determining region Y protein (204 aa, ~24 kDa) is encoded by the human SRY gene. This protein is involved in sex determination and transcriptional regulation.. IR defined as following: A lymphoma response that cannot be distinguished between flare/pseudo-progression and true progressive disease.. region defined as following: The continents and countries situated on those continents; the UNITED STATES and each of the constituent states arranged by region; CANADA and each of its provinces; AUSTRALIA and each of its states; the major bodies of water and major islands on both hemispheres; and selected major cities.. repetitive sequence defined as following: Nucleotide sequences present in multiple copies in the genome. There are several types of repeated sequences. Interspersed (or dispersed) DNA repeats (Interspersed Repetitive Sequences) are copies of transposable elements interspersed throughout the genome. Flanking (or terminal) repeats (Terminal Repeat Sequences) are sequences that are repeated on both ends of a sequence, for example, the long terminal repeats (LTRs) on retroviruses. Direct terminal repeats are in the same direction and inverted terminal repeats are opposite to each other in direction. Tandem repeats (Tandem Repeat Sequences) are repeated copies which lie adjacent to each other. These can also be direct or inverted. The ribosomal RNA and transfer RNA genes belong to the class of middle repetitive DNA.. Y chromosome defined as following: The male sex chromosome, being the differential sex chromosome carried by half the male gametes and none of the female gametes in humans and in some other male-heterogametic species in which the homologue of the X chromosome has been retained.. X chromosome defined as following: The female sex chromosome, being the differential sex chromosome carried by half the male gametes and all female gametes in human and other male-heterogametic species.. repetitive sequences defined as following: Nucleotide sequences present in multiple copies in the genome. There are several types of repeated sequences. Interspersed (or dispersed) DNA repeats (Interspersed Repetitive Sequences) are copies of transposable elements interspersed throughout the genome. Flanking (or terminal) repeats (Terminal Repeat Sequences) are sequences that are repeated on both ends of a sequence, for example, the long terminal repeats (LTRs) on retroviruses. Direct terminal repeats are in the same direction and inverted terminal repeats are opposite to each other in direction. Tandem repeats (Tandem Repeat Sequences) are repeated copies which lie adjacent to each other. These can also be direct or inverted. The ribosomal RNA and transfer RNA genes belong to the class of middle repetitive DNA..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_1294", "sentence1": "Are optogenetics tools used in the study and treatment of epilepsy?", "sentence2": "The emerging revolutionary technique of optogenetics enables manipulation of the activity of specific neuronal populations in vivo with exquisite spatiotemporal resolution using light. We used optogenetic approaches to test the role of hippocampal excitatory neurons in the lithium-pilocarpine model of acute elicited seizures in awake behaving rats., This chapter focuses on the development of optogenetics and on-demand technologies for the study of epilepsy and the control of seizures., We then turn to the use of optogenetics, including on-demand optogenetics in the study of epilepsies, which highlights the powerful potential of optogenetics for epilepsy research., Optogenetic techniques provide powerful tools for bidirectional control of neuronal activity and investigating alterations occurring in excitability disorders, such as epilepsy., Therefore, one could optogenetically activate specific or a mixed population of interneurons and dissect their selective or concerted inhibitory action on principal cells. We chose to explore a conceptually novel strategy involving simultaneous activation of mixed populations of interneurons by optogenetics and study their impact on ongoing epileptiform activity in mouse acute hippocampal slices., Our data suggest that global optogenetic activation of mixed interneuron populations is a more effective approach for development of novel therapeutic strategies for epilepsy, but the initial action potential generation in principal neurons needs to be taken in consideration., Recently, a number of experiments have explored the treatments for epilepsy with optogenetic control of neurons. Here, we discuss the possibility that an optogenetic approach could be used to control the release of gliotransmitters and improve astrocyte function such as glutamate and K(+) uptake, and thereby offer a potential strategy to investigate and treat astrocyte-related epilepsy., Optogenetic and designer receptor technologies provide unprecedented and much needed specificity, allowing for spatial, temporal and cell type-selective modulation of neuronal circuits. Using such tools, it is now possible to begin to address some of the fundamental unanswered questions in epilepsy, to dissect epileptic neuronal circuits and to develop new intervention strategies. , We then turn to the use of optogenetics, including on-demand optogenetics in the study of epilepsies, which highlights the powerful potential of optogenetics for epilepsy research., Moreover, optogenetics may be considered for developing potential treatment strategies for brain diseases, particularly for excitability disorders such as epilepsy., This chapter focuses on the development of optogenetics and on-demand technologies for the study of epilepsy and the control of seizures., How might novel technologies such as optogenetics lead to better treatments in epilepsy?, WONOEP appraisal: optogenetic tools to suppress seizures and explore the mechanisms of epileptogenesis., Finally, optogenetic tools allow rapid and reversible suppression of epileptic electroencephalography (EEG) activity upon photoactivation., Our data suggest that epileptiform activity in the hippocampus caused by impaired inhibition may be controlled by optogenetic silencing of principal neurons and potentially can be developed as an alternative treatment for epilepsy., Seizure suppression by high frequency optogenetic stimulation using in vitro and in vivo animal models of epilepsy., Optogenetic techniques provide powerful tools for bidirectional control of neuronal activity and investigating alterations occurring in excitability disorders, such as epilepsy. , We first discuss the benefits and caveats to using optogenetic approaches and recent advances in optogenetics related tools. We then turn to the use of optogenetics, including on-demand optogenetics in the study of epilepsies, which highlights the powerful potential of optogenetics for epilepsy research.[SEP]Relations: epilepsy has relations: contraindication with Edetic acid, contraindication with Edetic acid, contraindication with Olanzapine, contraindication with Olanzapine, contraindication with Ergometrine, contraindication with Ergometrine, contraindication with Atomoxetine, contraindication with Atomoxetine, contraindication with Physostigmine, contraindication with Physostigmine. Definitions: interneurons defined as following: Most generally any NEURONS which are not motor or sensory. Interneurons may also refer to neurons whose AXONS remain within a particular brain region in contrast to projection neurons, which have axons projecting to other brain regions.. seizures defined as following: Clinical or subclinical disturbances of cortical function due to a sudden, abnormal, excessive, and disorganized discharge of brain cells. Clinical manifestations include abnormal motor, sensory and psychic phenomena. Recurrent seizures are usually referred to as EPILEPSY or \"seizure disorder.\". neurons defined as following: The basic cellular units of nervous tissue. Each neuron consists of a body, an axon, and dendrites. Their purpose is to receive, conduct, and transmit impulses in the NERVOUS SYSTEM.. rats defined as following: The common rat, Rattus norvegicus, often used as an experimental organism.. epilepsies defined as following: A disorder characterized by recurrent episodes of paroxysmal brain dysfunction due to a sudden, disorderly, and excessive neuronal discharge. Epilepsy classification systems are generally based upon: (1) clinical features of the seizure episodes (e.g., motor seizure), (2) etiology (e.g., post-traumatic), (3) anatomic site of seizure origin (e.g., frontal lobe seizure), (4) tendency to spread to other structures in the brain, and (5) temporal patterns (e.g., nocturnal epilepsy). (From Adams et al., Principles of Neurology, 6th ed, p313). Optogenetic defined as following: The combination of genetic and optical methods in controlling specific events with temporal precision in targeted cells of a functioning intact biological system.. epilepsy defined as following: A disorder characterized by recurrent episodes of paroxysmal brain dysfunction due to a sudden, disorderly, and excessive neuronal discharge. Epilepsy classification systems are generally based upon: (1) clinical features of the seizure episodes (e.g., motor seizure), (2) etiology (e.g., post-traumatic), (3) anatomic site of seizure origin (e.g., frontal lobe seizure), (4) tendency to spread to other structures in the brain, and (5) temporal patterns (e.g., nocturnal epilepsy). (From Adams et al., Principles of Neurology, 6th ed, p313).", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_4178", "sentence1": "Do bacteria release extracellular vesicles?", "sentence2": "Bacterial extracellular vesicles (EVs) are bilayered lipid membrane structures, bearing integral proteins and able to carry diverse cargo outside the cell to distant sites., Knowledge of the structure, molecular cargo and function of bacterial extracellular vesicles (BEVs) is primarily obtained from bacteria cultured in laboratory conditions. , bacteria derived-extracellular vesicles[SEP]Relations: membrane lipid metabolic process has relations: bioprocess_protein with AGMO, bioprocess_protein with AGMO, bioprocess_bioprocess with sphingolipid metabolic process, bioprocess_bioprocess with sphingolipid metabolic process, bioprocess_protein with B4GALT4, bioprocess_protein with B4GALT4, bioprocess_bioprocess with glycolipid metabolic process, bioprocess_bioprocess with glycolipid metabolic process. Bacteremia has relations: disease_phenotype_positive with staphylococcal pneumonia, disease_phenotype_positive with staphylococcal pneumonia. Definitions: EVs defined as following: The NCI EVS is set of services and resources that address NCI's needs for controlled vocabulary. The EVS Project is a collaborative effort of the Center for Bioinformatics and the NCI Office of Communications. The NCI Thesaurus, which is a biomedical thesaurus created specifically to meet the needs of the NCI, is produced by the NCI EVS project. The NCI Thesaurus is provided under an open content license. The EVS Project also produces the NCI Metathesaurus, which is based on NLM's Unified Medical Language System Metathesaurus supplemented with additional cancer-centric vocabulary. In addition the EVS Project provides NCI with licenses for MedDRA, SNOMED, ICD-O-3, and other proprietary vocabularies.. bacterial extracellular vesicles defined as following: Small membrane vesicle (< 1 um) that buds off a prokaryotic cell plasma membrane, able to carry proteins, phospholipids, lipopolysaccharides, nucleic acids, viruses, and more. Important in intercellular communication and pathogenesis; can exist within host cells. [GOC:aa, PMID:25704309]. lipid membrane defined as following: Lipids, predominantly phospholipids, cholesterol and small amounts of glycolipids found in membranes including cellular and intracellular membranes. These lipids may be arranged in bilayers in the membranes with integral proteins between the layers and peripheral proteins attached to the outside. Membrane lipids are required for active transport, several enzymatic activities and membrane formation.. bacteria defined as following: One of the three domains of life (the others being Eukarya and ARCHAEA), also called Eubacteria. They are unicellular prokaryotic microorganisms which generally possess rigid cell walls, multiply by cell division, and exhibit three principal forms: round or coccal, rodlike or bacillary, and spiral or spirochetal. Bacteria can be classified by their response to OXYGEN: aerobic, anaerobic, or facultatively anaerobic; by the mode by which they obtain their energy: chemotrophy (via chemical reaction) or PHOTOTROPHY (via light reaction); for chemotrophs by their source of chemical energy: CHEMOLITHOTROPHY (from inorganic compounds) or chemoorganotrophy (from organic compounds); and by their source for CARBON; NITROGEN; etc.; HETEROTROPHY (from organic sources) or AUTOTROPHY (from CARBON DIOXIDE). They can also be classified by whether or not they stain (based on the structure of their CELL WALLS) with CRYSTAL VIOLET dye: gram-negative or gram-positive.. extracellular vesicles defined as following: Any vesicle that is part of the extracellular region. [GO_REF:0000064, GOC:pm, GOC:TermGenie, PMID:24769233].", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_878", "sentence1": "Is dichlorphenamide effective for periodic paralysis?", "sentence2": "BACKGROUND AND PURPOSE: Acetazolamide and dichlorphenamide are carbonic anhydrase (CA) inhibitors effective in the clinical condition of hypokalemic periodic paralysis (hypoPP)., In one study dichlorphenamide (DCP) vs placebo was tested in two groups of participants: 42 with hypokalemic periodic paralysis (HypoPP) and 31 with hyperkalemic periodic paralysis (HyperPP), based on clinical criteria. Thirty-four of 42 participants with hypokalemic periodic paralysis completed both treatment phases. For the 34 participants having attack rate data for both treatment phases, the mean improvement in attack rate (P = 0.02) and severity-weighted attack rate (P = 0.01) on DCP relative to placebo were statistically significant. , AUTHORS' CONCLUSIONS: The largest included study that met our inclusion criteria suggested that DCP was effective in the prevention of episodic weakness in both hypokalemic and hyperkalemic periodic paralyses., For periodic paralysis, dichlorphenamide--a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor--has been shown in a controlled trial to prevent attacks for many patients with both hypokalemic and hypokalemic periodic paralysis. , Chronically, acetazolamide, dichlorphenamide, or potassium-sparing diuretics decrease attack frequency and severity but are of little value acutely. , In the HypoPP trial, there were 13 subjects who exhibited a preference (in terms of the end point) for either DCP or placebo, and 11 of these preferred DCP. In the PSPP trial, DCP significantly reduced attack rates relative to placebo. DCP also significantly reduced attack rates relative to placebo in the HypoPP subjects. We conclude that DCP is effective in the prevention of episodic weakness in both HypoPP and PSPP., Diclofenamid has now already been administered for 2 years. It is well tolerated and has suppressed further attacks., Three patients with Hypokalemic Periodic Paralysis (HOPP)-associated progressive interattack muscle weakness, who became unresponsive or worsened by acetazolamide, responded favorably to dichlorophenamide, a more potent carbonic anhydrase inhibitor. Dichlorophenamide in single-blind placebo-controlled trials, considerably improved functional strength in two of the patients and had a moderate but definite effect in the third., Dichlorophenamide should be considered as an alternate to acetazolamide in the treatment of patients with HOPP-associated interattack muscle weakness who have become unresponsive or worsened by acetazolamide., Acetazolamide and dichlorphenamide are carbonic anhydrase (CA) inhibitors effective in the clinical condition of hypokalemic periodic paralysis (hypoPP)., For periodic paralysis, dichlorphenamide--a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor--has been shown in a controlled trial to prevent attacks for many patients with both hypokalemic and hypokalemic periodic paralysis., BACKGROUND AND PURPOSE: Acetazolamide and dichlorphenamide are carbonic anhydrase (CA) inhibitors effective in the clinical condition of hypokalemic periodic paralysis (hypoPP). Whether these drugs prevent vacuolar myopathy, which is a pathogenic factor in hypoPP, is unknown. , Acetazolamide and dichlorphenamide are carbonic anhydrase (CA) inhibitors effective in the clinical condition of hypokalemic periodic paralysis (hypoPP)., For periodic paralysis, dichlorphenamide--a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor--has been shown in a controlled trial to prevent attacks for many patients with both hypokalemic and hypokalemic periodic paralysis. A second trial, comparing dichlorphenamide with acetazolamide versus placebo, is currently in progress., Despite our better understanding of the pathogenesis of these disorders, current treatments are largely empirical and the evidence in favor of specific therapy largely anecdotal. For periodic paralysis, dichlorphenamide--a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor--has been shown in a controlled trial to prevent attacks for many patients with both hypokalemic and hypokalemic periodic paralysis.[SEP]Relations: hypokalemic periodic paralysis has relations: contraindication with Desflurane, contraindication with Desflurane. hyperkalemic periodic paralysis has relations: contraindication with Phenylephrine, contraindication with Phenylephrine, contraindication with Ammonium chloride, contraindication with Ammonium chloride, contraindication with Sodium citrate, contraindication with Sodium citrate, contraindication with Calcium chloride, contraindication with Calcium chloride. Definitions: Acetazolamide defined as following: One of the CARBONIC ANHYDRASE INHIBITORS that is sometimes effective against absence seizures. It is sometimes useful also as an adjunct in the treatment of tonic-clonic, myoclonic, and atonic seizures, particularly in women whose seizures occur or are exacerbated at specific times in the menstrual cycle. However, its usefulness is transient often because of rapid development of tolerance. Its antiepileptic effect may be due to its inhibitory effect on brain carbonic anhydrase, which leads to an increased transneuronal chloride gradient, increased chloride current, and increased inhibition. (From Smith and Reynard, Textbook of Pharmacology, 1991, p337). HypoPP defined as following: An autosomal dominant familial disorder characterized by recurrent episodes of skeletal muscle weakness associated with falls in serum potassium levels. The condition usually presents in the first or second decade of life with attacks of trunk and leg paresis during sleep or shortly after awakening. Symptoms may persist for hours to days and generally are precipitated by exercise or a meal high in carbohydrates. (Adams et al., Principles of Neurology, 6th ed, p1483). Dichlorophenamide defined as following: A carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that is used in the treatment of glaucoma.. HyperPP defined as following: An autosomal dominant familial disorder which presents in infancy or childhood and is characterized by episodes of weakness associated with hyperkalemia. During attacks, muscles of the lower extremities are initially affected, followed by the lower trunk and arms. Episodes last from 15-60 minutes and typically occur after a period of rest following exercise. A defect in skeletal muscle sodium channels has been identified as the cause of this condition. Normokalemic periodic paralysis is a closely related disorder marked by a lack of alterations in potassium levels during attacks of weakness. (Adams et al., Principles of Neurology, 6th ed, p1481). carbonic anhydrase defined as following: A family of zinc-containing enzymes that catalyze the reversible hydration of carbon dioxide. They play an important role in the transport of CARBON DIOXIDE from the tissues to the LUNG. EC 4.2.1.1.. Periodic defined as following: Applies to a sign, symptom, or other manifestation that recurs with a fixed time interval, i.e., the symptom-free periods are always of the same length. []. DCP defined as following: Des-gamma carboxyprothrombin (622 aa, ~70 kDa) is encoded by the human F2 gene. This protein is involved in blood coagulation. This form of prothrombin is not efficiently converted to the active enzyme thrombin because it lacks gamma-carboxyglutamyl residues. These modified glutamyl residues are absent because of either vitamin K deficiency or inhibition of vitamin K activity that, in turn, inhibits the enzyme that carboxylates these residues, vitamin K-dependent gamma-carboxylase.. paralysis defined as following: A general term most often used to describe severe or complete loss of muscle strength due to motor system disease from the level of the cerebral cortex to the muscle fiber. This term may also occasionally refer to a loss of sensory function. (From Adams et al., Principles of Neurology, 6th ed, p45). dichlorphenamide defined as following: A carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that is used in the treatment of glaucoma..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_4433", "sentence1": "Should perampanel be used for amyotrophic lateral sclerosis?", "sentence2": "RESULTS: Six participants were enrolled. All had adverse events, mostly behavioral. Two completed the trial and the other four withdrew due to adverse events. All participants reported resolution of these events after discontinuation of the drug. The trial was halted due to the large number of adverse events.DISCUSSION: The use of perampanel in this study of ALS was limited by its poor tolerability, CONCLUSIONS: Perampanel was associated with a significant decline in ALSFRS-R score and was linked to worsening of the bulbar subscore in the 8 mg group., DISCUSSION: The use of perampanel in this study of ALS was limited by its poor tolerabilit[SEP]Relations: Perampanel has relations: drug_drug with Diphemanil, drug_drug with Diphemanil, drug_drug with Propranolol, drug_drug with Propranolol, drug_drug with Eplerenone, drug_drug with Eplerenone, drug_drug with Cyclopropane, drug_drug with Cyclopropane, drug_drug with Propentofylline, drug_drug with Propentofylline. Definitions: Perampanel defined as following: An orally active, non-competitive, and selective alpha-amino-3-hydroxy-5-methyl-4-isoxazolepropionic acid (AMPA) glutamate receptor antagonist, with anti-epileptic activity. Although the mechanism of action through which perampanel exerts its antiepileptic effect has not been fully elucidated, this agent antagonizes the AMPA subtype of the excitatory glutamate receptor found on postsynaptic neurons in the central nervous system (CNS). This antagonistic action prevents AMPA receptor activation by glutamate and results in the inhibition of neuronal excitation, repetitive neuronal firing, and the stabilization of hyper-excited neural membranes. Glutamate, the primary excitatory neurotransmitter in the CNS, plays an important role in various neurological disorders caused by neuronal hyperexcitation.. ALS defined as following: A degenerative disorder affecting upper MOTOR NEURONS in the brain and lower motor neurons in the brain stem and SPINAL CORD. Disease onset is usually after the age of 50 and the process is usually fatal within 3 to 6 years. Clinical manifestations include progressive weakness, atrophy, FASCICULATION, hyperreflexia, DYSARTHRIA, dysphagia, and eventual paralysis of respiratory function. Pathologic features include the replacement of motor neurons with fibrous ASTROCYTES and atrophy of anterior SPINAL NERVE ROOTS and corticospinal tracts. (From Adams et al., Principles of Neurology, 6th ed, pp1089-94). perampanel defined as following: An orally active, non-competitive, and selective alpha-amino-3-hydroxy-5-methyl-4-isoxazolepropionic acid (AMPA) glutamate receptor antagonist, with anti-epileptic activity. Although the mechanism of action through which perampanel exerts its antiepileptic effect has not been fully elucidated, this agent antagonizes the AMPA subtype of the excitatory glutamate receptor found on postsynaptic neurons in the central nervous system (CNS). This antagonistic action prevents AMPA receptor activation by glutamate and results in the inhibition of neuronal excitation, repetitive neuronal firing, and the stabilization of hyper-excited neural membranes. Glutamate, the primary excitatory neurotransmitter in the CNS, plays an important role in various neurological disorders caused by neuronal hyperexcitation.. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis defined as following: An inherited form of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, usually inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern, caused by mutation(s) in the SOD1 gene, encoding superoxide dismutase..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_2429", "sentence1": "Is Apremilast effective for Behcet’s syndrome?", "sentence2": "Apremilast is an immunomodulatory agent that works through phosphodiesterase 4 inhibition. A randomized controlled trial has shown that it is effective for the management of oral and genital ulcers and is generally well tolerated., AREAS COVERED: This review provides a digest of all current experience and evidence about pharmacological agents recently described as having a role in the treatment of BS, including interleukin (IL)-1 inhibitors, tocilizumab, rituximab, alemtuzumab, ustekinumab, interferon-alpha-2a, and apremilast., CONCLUSIONS: Apremilast was effective in treating oral ulcers, which are the cardinal manifestation of Behçet's syndrome., Apremilast, an inhibitor of phosphodiesterase-4, was effective in a phase 2, double blind, placebo-controlled study., Apremilast (Otezla(®)), an oral small molecule inhibitor of type-4 cyclic nucleotide phosphodiesterase (PDE-4), is under development with Celgene Corporation for the treatment of psoriatic arthritis, psoriasis, ankylosing spondylitis, Behçet's syndrome, atopic dermatitis, and rheumatoid arthritis., There were two serious adverse events in patients receiving apremilast.Include only the concept itself in the domain or value set. Do not include descendents of the concept.
. gamma-H2AX defined as following: A post-translationally modified form of variant histone H2AX where the serine residue at position 139 and/or the tyrosine residue at 142 is phosphorylated. Phosphorylation of serine-139 may be a marker for DNA damage. While phosphorylation or dephosphorylation of tyrosine-142 appears to affect the recruitment of pro-apoptotic factors or DNA repair proteins, respectively.. tumors defined as following: New abnormal growth of tissue. Malignant neoplasms show a greater degree of anaplasia and have the properties of invasion and metastasis, compared to benign neoplasms.. chemicals defined as following: A substance with a defined atomic or molecular structure that results from, or takes part in, reactions involving changes in its structure, composition, or properties.. plants defined as following: Multicellular, eukaryotic life forms of kingdom Plantae. Plants acquired chloroplasts by direct endosymbiosis of CYANOBACTERIA. They are characterized by a mainly photosynthetic mode of nutrition; essentially unlimited growth at localized regions of cell divisions (MERISTEMS); cellulose within cells providing rigidity; the absence of organs of locomotion; absence of nervous and sensory systems; and an alternation of haploid and diploid generations. It is a non-taxonomical term most often referring to LAND PLANTS. In broad sense it includes RHODOPHYTA and GLAUCOPHYTA along with VIRIDIPLANTAE.. human defined as following: Members of the species Homo sapiens.. somatic cells defined as following: Nucleated cell which has one or more diploid sets (46 pairs) of chromosomes.. cells defined as following: The fundamental, structural, and functional units or subunits of living organisms. They are composed of CYTOPLASM containing various ORGANELLES and a CELL MEMBRANE boundary.. mutations defined as following: The result of any gain, loss or alteration of the sequences comprising a gene, including all sequences transcribed into RNA..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_3366", "sentence1": "Should Pentoxifylline be used for treatment of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis?", "sentence2": ".RESULTS: At the end of the study, after 547 days of follow-up, 103 patients (51.7%) in the pentoxifylline group and 120 (59.7%) in the placebo group were alive (unadjusted risk 1.28, p = 0.107; adjusted risk 1.43, p = 0.02). In contrast, analysis of secondary outcome functional variables did not show the same negative effect of the drug. , CONCLUSIONS: Pentoxifylline is not beneficial in ALS and should be avoided in patients treated with riluzole. , RESULTS: At the end of the study, after 547 days of follow-up, 103 patients (51.7%) in the pentoxifylline group and 120 (59.7%) in the placebo group were alive (unadjusted risk 1.28, p = 0.107; adjusted risk 1.43, p = 0.02).[SEP]Relations: Pentoxifylline has relations: drug_drug with Canrenoic acid, drug_drug with Canrenoic acid, drug_drug with Phylloquinone, drug_drug with Phylloquinone, drug_drug with Penbutolol, drug_drug with Penbutolol, drug_drug with Ampicillin, drug_drug with Ampicillin, drug_drug with Eplerenone, drug_drug with Eplerenone. Definitions: ALS defined as following: A degenerative disorder affecting upper MOTOR NEURONS in the brain and lower motor neurons in the brain stem and SPINAL CORD. Disease onset is usually after the age of 50 and the process is usually fatal within 3 to 6 years. Clinical manifestations include progressive weakness, atrophy, FASCICULATION, hyperreflexia, DYSARTHRIA, dysphagia, and eventual paralysis of respiratory function. Pathologic features include the replacement of motor neurons with fibrous ASTROCYTES and atrophy of anterior SPINAL NERVE ROOTS and corticospinal tracts. (From Adams et al., Principles of Neurology, 6th ed, pp1089-94). Pentoxifylline defined as following: A METHYLXANTHINE derivative that inhibits phosphodiesterase and affects blood rheology. It improves blood flow by increasing erythrocyte and leukocyte flexibility. It also inhibits platelet aggregation. Pentoxifylline modulates immunologic activity by stimulating cytokine production.. riluzole defined as following: A glutamate antagonist (RECEPTORS, GLUTAMATE) used as an anticonvulsant (ANTICONVULSANTS) and to prolong the survival of patients with AMYOTROPHIC LATERAL SCLEROSIS.. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis defined as following: An inherited form of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, usually inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern, caused by mutation(s) in the SOD1 gene, encoding superoxide dismutase..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_181", "sentence1": "Is the abnormal dosage of ultraconserved elements disfavored in cancer cells?", "sentence2": "Abnormal dosage of ultraconserved elements is highly disfavored in healthy cells but not cancer cells., We begin by showing that depletion for UCEs characterizes the most recent large-scale human CNV datasets and then find that even newly formed de novo CNVs, which have passed through meiosis at most once, are significantly depleted for UCEs. In striking contrast, CNVs arising specifically in cancer cells are, as a rule, not depleted for UCEs and can even become significantly enriched. This observation raises the possibility that CNVs that arise somatically and are relatively newly formed are less likely to have established a CNV profile that is depleted for UCEs. Alternatively, lack of depletion for UCEs from cancer CNVs may reflect the diseased state. In support of this latter explanation, somatic CNVs that are not associated with disease are depleted for UCEs. Finally, we show that it is possible to observe the CNVs of induced pluripotent stem (iPS) cells become depleted of UCEs over time, suggesting that depletion may be established through selection against UCE-disrupting CNVs without the requirement for meiotic divisions., Alternatively, lack of depletion for UCEs from cancer CNVs may reflect the diseased state.[SEP]Relations: malignant giant cell tumor has relations: disease_disease with cancer, disease_disease with cancer, disease_disease with giant cell tumor, disease_disease with giant cell tumor, disease_disease with giant cell tumor of soft tissue, disease_disease with giant cell tumor of soft tissue, disease_disease with malignancy in giant cell tumor of bone, disease_disease with malignancy in giant cell tumor of bone, disease_disease with malignant giant cell tumor of soft parts, disease_disease with malignant giant cell tumor of soft parts. Definitions: cancer defined as following: A malignant tumor at the original site of growth.. cancer cells defined as following: Cells of, or derived from, a malignant tumor.. human defined as following: Members of the species Homo sapiens.. disease defined as following: A definite pathologic process with a characteristic set of signs and symptoms. It may affect the whole body or any of its parts, and its etiology, pathology, and prognosis may be known or unknown..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_3143", "sentence1": "Velocardial facial syndrome, otherwise known as Di George syndrome is caused by a deletion in chromosome 21, yes or no?", "sentence2": "The deletion of chromosome 22q11.2 is involved in the majority of DiGeorge or velo-cardiofacial syndrome., deletions of chromosome 7q11.23 (Williams syndrome), 15q11-q13 (Angelman syndrome, Prader-Willi syndrome) and 22q11 (Di George syndrome), Submicroscopic deletions of chromosome 22q11 have been reported in a multiple anomaly syndrome variously labelled as velocardiofacial syndrome, conotruncal anomaly face syndrome, and Di George syndrome, The 22q11.2 deletion syndrome (di George syndrome) is one of the most prevalent genetic disorders., UNLABELLED\nMost of the children with Di George syndrome and 60% of patients with velocardiofacial syndrome exhibit a microdeletion within chromosome 22q11., Submicroscopic deletions of chromosome 22q11 have been reported in a multiple anomaly syndrome variously labelled as velocardiofacial syndrome, conotruncal anomaly face syndrome, and Di George syndrome., 22q11.2DS has several presentations including Di George's syndrome, velo-cardio-facial syndrome or Shprintzen's syndrome and it is the most frequent microdeletion syndrome in the general population (prevalence estimated at 1/4000 births, de novo: 90%)., Di George syndrome due to mutation on 22q or 10q) and can also result from microdeletion or point mutation (in the Shprintzen syndrome 70% represent microdeletion and 30% point mutation at 22q11, in Rubinstein-Taybi syndrome 10% cases result from microdeletions and 90% from point mutations); 7) Population incidence of microdeletions is high (1:4000 to 1:30,000) because their etiologic mechanism is related to the common unequal crossing over; 8) Imprinting plays a role in some cases, e.g., [Microdeletion of the chromosome 22q11 in children: apropos of a series of 49 patients].Supernumerary mandibular right first primary molar
. neuropathy defined as following: A disorder affecting the cranial nerves or the peripheral nervous system. It manifests with pain, tingling, numbness, and muscle weakness. It may be the result of physical injury, toxic substances, viral diseases, diabetes, renal failure, cancer, and drugs.. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease defined as following: A hereditary motor and sensory neuropathy transmitted most often as an autosomal dominant trait and characterized by progressive distal wasting and loss of reflexes in the muscles of the legs (and occasionally involving the arms). Onset is usually in the second to fourth decade of life. This condition has been divided into two subtypes, hereditary motor and sensory neuropathy (HMSN) types I and II. HMSN I is associated with abnormal nerve conduction velocities and nerve hypertrophy, features not seen in HMSN II. (Adams et al., Principles of Neurology, 6th ed, p1343). TRPV4 defined as following: Transient receptor potential cation channel subfamily V member 4 (871 aa, ~98 kDa) is encoded by the human TRPV4 gene. This protein plays a role in the modulation of calcium transport.. CMTC defined as following: A congenital vascular malformation that presents as localized or generalized erythematous-telangiectatic lesions with a reticular pattern; the lesions are almost always present at birth or develop in the first days of life. Cutis marmorata telangiectatica congenita (CMTC) appears as marble-like pattern (mottling) on the surface of the skin. In contrast to cutis marmorata, the marbling is more severe and always visible. [PMID:22483320, PMID:25864701]. CMT2F defined as following: A form of axonal Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease, a peripheral sensorimotor neuropathy with symmetric weakness primarily occurring in the lower limbs and reaching the arms only after 5 to 10 years, occasional and predominantly distal sensory loss and reduced tendon reflexes. Presents with gait anomaly between the first and sixth decade and early onset is generally associated to a more severe phenotype that may include foot drop.. Berardinelli-Seip Congenital Lipodystrophy 2 defined as following: It is caused by mutation of gene encoding seipin (BSCL2).. MFN2 defined as following: Mitofusin-2 (757 aa, ~86 kDa) is encoded by the human MFN2 gene. This protein is involved in both mitochondrial fusion and GTP hydrolysis.. CMT2B1 defined as following: An axonal Charcot-Marie-Tooth peripheral sensorimotor polyneuropathy. It has been described exclusively in families originating from North-Western Africa. Onset occurs in the second decade of life. The disease course and severity are variable, even between affected members of the same family. In general, the disease manifests as distal muscle weakness and atrophy that progress gradually to the proximal muscles. Caused by a p.R644C missense mutation in the lamin A/C protein (encoded by the LMNA gene, 1q22). Transmitted in an autosomal recessive manner.. dHMN-V defined as following: A rare autosomal dominant distal hereditary motor neuropathy disease characterized by muscle weakness and wasting predominantly affecting the hands, in particular the thenar and first dorsal interosseus muscles, and/or marked foot deformity and gait disturbance. Sensation is normal, although reduced response to vibration has been described. The disease is slowly progressive with an age of onset within the first few decades of life.. genes defined as following: A category of nucleic acid sequences that function as units of heredity and which code for the basic instructions for the development, reproduction, and maintenance of organisms.. point mutations defined as following: A mutation caused by the substitution of one nucleotide for another. This results in the DNA molecule having a change in a single base pair.. autosomal defined as following: Any chromosome other than a sex chromosome. [GOC:mah]. RAB7A defined as following: This gene is involved in the trafficking of endosomes and lysosomes.. LMNA defined as following: Prelamin-A/C (664 aa, ~74 kDa) is encoded by the human LMNA gene. This protein is involved in the framework required for the nuclear envelope and in chromatin interactions.. HSPB1 defined as following: Heat shock protein beta-1 (205 aa, ~23 kDa) is encoded by the human HSPB1 gene. This protein is involved in protein denaturation and the cellular response to oxidative stress.. CMT2L defined as following: A form of axonal Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease, a peripheral sensorimotor neuropathy. In the single family reported to date, onset is between 15 and 33 years. Patients present with a symmetric distal weakness of legs and occasionally of the hands, absent or reduced tendon reflexes, distal legs sensory loss and frequently a pes cavus. Progression is slow.. mutation defined as following: Any transmissible change in the genetic material of an organism, which can result from radiation, viral infection, transposition, treatment with mutagenic chemicals and errors during DNA replication or meiosis. The effects of mutation range from single base changes to loss or gain of complete chromosomes. As many of the simpler alterations to DNA may be repaired, such changes are only heritable once the change is fixed in the DNA by the process of replication. Mutations may be associated with genetic diversity or with pathologies including cancer.. Silver syndrome defined as following: A complex hereditary spastic paraplegia with characteristics of progressive spastic paraplegia, upper and lower limb muscle atrophy, hyperreflexia, extensor plantar responses, pes cavus and occasionally impaired vibration sense.. HSPB8 defined as following: Heat shock protein beta-8 (196 aa, ~22 kDa) is encoded by the human HSPB8 gene. This protein plays a role in the regulation of autophagy and as a protein chaperone.. atrophy defined as following: Decrease in the size of a cell, tissue, organ, or multiple organs, associated with a variety of pathological conditions such as abnormal cellular changes, ischemia, malnutrition, or hormonal changes.. HD defined as following: A malignant disease characterized by progressive enlargement of the lymph nodes, spleen, and general lymphoid tissue. In the classical variant, giant usually multinucleate Hodgkin's and REED-STERNBERG CELLS are present; in the nodular lymphocyte predominant variant, lymphocytic and histiocytic cells are seen.. CMT2A1 defined as following: An autosomal dominant sub-type of Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease caused by mutation(s) in the KIF1B gene, encoding kinesin-like protein KIF1B.. mutations defined as following: The result of any gain, loss or alteration of the sequences comprising a gene, including all sequences transcribed into RNA.. Charcot-Marie-Tooth Disease Type 2D defined as following: Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. It is caused by mutations in the GARS gene. It results in axonal peripheral neuropathy..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_1695", "sentence1": "Is calcium overload involved in the development of diabetic cardiomyopathy?", "sentence2": "High-glucose treatment resulted in increased intracellular calcium ([Ca2+]i) which was mobilized to the mitochondria. Concomitant intra-mitochondrial calcium ([Ca2+]m) increase resulted in enhanced reactive oxygen and nitrogen species generation. These events led to mitochondrial dysfunction and apoptosis., The novel findings of the study reveal that high glucose induces apoptosis by both mitochondria-dependent and independent pathways via concomitant rise in intracellular calcium., Diabetes-induced myocardial dysfunction has been attributed, in part, to calcium overload within individual myocytes., It seems that intracellular calcium overload is intimately involved in the development of diabetic cardiomyopathy;, BACKGROUND: It has been suggested that intracellular Ca2+ overload in cardiac myocytes leads to the development of diabetic cardiomyopathy., The results from the alloxan-rat model of diabetes support the view that membrane abnormalities with respect to Ca2+ handling may lead to the occurrence of intracellular Ca2+ overload and the development of diabetic cardiomyopathy., It seems that intracellular calcium overload is intimately involved in the development of diabetic cardiomyopathy; however, a concentrated research effort is required to understand the primary biochemical lesion in the pathogenesis of cardiac dysfunction in diabetes., It has been suggested that the occurrence of an intracellular Ca2+ overload may result in the development of diabetic cardiomyopathy, which is associated with depletion of high-energy phosphate stores and a derangement of ultrastructure and cardiac dysfunction.[SEP]Relations: cardiomyopathy diabetes deafness has relations: disease_disease with syndromic disease, disease_disease with syndromic disease. Abnormality of mitochondrial metabolism has relations: disease_phenotype_positive with reticular dysgenesis, disease_phenotype_positive with reticular dysgenesis, disease_phenotype_positive with atherosclerosis-deafness-diabetes-epilepsy-nephropathy syndrome, disease_phenotype_positive with atherosclerosis-deafness-diabetes-epilepsy-nephropathy syndrome. Type I diabetes mellitus has relations: disease_phenotype_positive with sclerosing cholangitis, disease_phenotype_positive with sclerosing cholangitis, disease_phenotype_positive with multicentric osteolysis-nodulosis-arthropathy spectrum, disease_phenotype_positive with multicentric osteolysis-nodulosis-arthropathy spectrum. Definitions: calcium defined as following: A dietary supplement containing the mineral calcium.. cardiac myocytes defined as following: Striated muscle cells found in the heart. They are derived from cardiac myoblasts (MYOBLASTS, CARDIAC).. mitochondria defined as following: Semiautonomous, self-reproducing organelles that occur in the cytoplasm of all cells of most, but not all, eukaryotes. Each mitochondrion is surrounded by a double limiting membrane. The inner membrane is highly invaginated, and its projections are called cristae. Mitochondria are the sites of the reactions of oxidative phosphorylation, which result in the formation of ATP. They contain distinctive RIBOSOMES, transfer RNAs (RNA, TRANSFER); AMINO ACYL T RNA SYNTHETASES; and elongation and termination factors. Mitochondria depend upon genes within the nucleus of the cells in which they reside for many essential messenger RNAs (RNA, MESSENGER). Mitochondria are believed to have arisen from aerobic bacteria that established a symbiotic relationship with primitive protoeukaryotes. (King & Stansfield, A Dictionary of Genetics, 4th ed). myocytes defined as following: Mature contractile cells, commonly known as myocytes, that form one of three kinds of muscle. The three types of muscle cells are skeletal (MUSCLE FIBERS, SKELETAL), cardiac (MYOCYTES, CARDIAC), and smooth (MYOCYTES, SMOOTH MUSCLE). They are derived from embryonic (precursor) muscle cells called MYOBLASTS.. diabetic cardiomyopathy defined as following: Diabetes complications in which VENTRICULAR REMODELING in the absence of CORONARY ATHEROSCLEROSIS and hypertension results in cardiac dysfunctions, typically LEFT VENTRICULAR DYSFUNCTION. The changes also result in myocardial hypertrophy, myocardial necrosis and fibrosis, and collagen deposition due to impaired glucose tolerance.. diabetes defined as following: A heterogeneous group of disorders characterized by HYPERGLYCEMIA and GLUCOSE INTOLERANCE.. mitochondrial dysfunction defined as following: A functional anomaly of mitochondria. [ORCID:0000-0001-5208-3432].", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_3260", "sentence1": "Can leuprorelin acetate be used as androgen deprivation therapy?", "sentence2": "We investigated the health-related quality of life (HRQoL) of long-term prostate cancer patients who received leuprorelin acetate in microcapsules (LAM) for androgen-deprivation therapy (ADT)., Long-term ADT with LAM is a well-accepted, tolerated, effective, and low-burden treatment option for patients with advanced, hormone-sensitive PCa.[SEP]Relations: lymphangioleiomyomatosis has relations: disease_phenotype_positive with Cognitive impairment, disease_phenotype_positive with Cognitive impairment, disease_phenotype_positive with Ascites, disease_phenotype_positive with Ascites, disease_phenotype_positive with Restrictive ventilatory defect, disease_phenotype_positive with Restrictive ventilatory defect, disease_phenotype_positive with Macule, disease_phenotype_positive with Macule, disease_phenotype_positive with Seizure, disease_phenotype_positive with Seizure. Definitions: LAM defined as following: A multifocal neoplasm with perivascular epithelioid cell differentiation affecting almost exclusively females of child-bearing age. It is characterized by the presence of smooth muscle and epithelioid cells and by the proliferation of lymphatic vessels. Sites of involvement include the lungs, mediastinum, and the retroperitoneum. It usually presents with chylous pleural effusion or ascites.. prostate cancer defined as following: A primary or metastatic malignant tumor involving the prostate gland. The vast majority are carcinomas.. microcapsules defined as following: microscopic spheres of organic polymer or other material, usually used for slow release drug delivery or to protect orally administered agents from destruction in digestive tract; do not confuse with BACTERIAL CAPSULE.. ADT defined as following: A protein complex that possesses glutamyl-tRNA(Gln) amidotransferase activity, and therefore creates Gln-tRNA by amidating Glu-tRNA; usually composed of 3 subunits: A, B, and C. Note that the C subunit may not be required in all organisms. [GOC:mlg]. PCa defined as following: Relief of PAIN, without loss of CONSCIOUSNESS, through ANALGESIC AGENTS administered by the patients. It has been used successfully to control POSTOPERATIVE PAIN, during OBSTETRIC LABOR, after BURNS, and in TERMINAL CARE. The choice of agent, dose, and lockout interval greatly influence effectiveness. The potential for overdose can be minimized by combining small bolus doses with a mandatory interval between successive doses (lockout interval)..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_3938", "sentence1": "Is carpal tunnel syndrome a type of nerve entrapment?", "sentence2": " Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) is a common entrapment neuropathy, often requiring carpal tunnel release (CTR) surgery., Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) is an entrapment neuropathy accounting for up to 90% of nerve compression syndromes, Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) is the most frequent entrapment neuropathy in humans. , Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) is the most common focal entrapment mononeuropathy, comprising medium nerve chronic inflammation and fibrosis., Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) is the most common nerve entrapment neuropathy which is the result of the compression of the median nerve in the wrist. , Dear sir, one of the most common entrapment neuropathy syndromes in clinical practice is \"Entrapment of median nerve in carpal tunnel\" also called \"Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS)\" (Aydin et al., 2007; Huisstede et al., 2010)., BACKGROUND: Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) is the most common type of peripheral nerve entrapment and is a significant cause of morbidity., BACKGROUND: Carpal tunnel syndrome and ulnar nerve entrapment at the elbow are the most common entrapment neuropathies seen in adults., Entrapment neuropathies are of various types, but the most common type is carpal tunnel syndrome., Carpal Tunnel Syndrome and Other Entrapment Neuropathies., Unlike Guyon's canal syndrome, carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) is the most common nerve entrapment of the upper extremity., chronic renal failure tend to develop peripheral nerve entrapment and carpal tunnel syndrome is the best-known peripheral entrapment neuropathy among them. Contrary to ca, Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) is a common form of peripheral nerve entrapment, which is observed due to compression of the median nerve at the level of the carpal tunnel in the wrist. Bifi, INTRODUCTION: Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) is considered a simple entrapment of the median nerve at the carp, Compressive neuropathy of the median nerve at the level of the carpal tunnel, known as carpal tunnel syndrome, is the most common entrapment neuropathy, affecting about 0.1-1% of the general population. Magne, BACKGROUND: Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) is entrapment of median nerve in carpal tunnel of th, Dear sir, one of the most common entrapment neuropathy syndromes in clinical practice is \"Entrapment of median nerve in carpal tunnel\" also called \"Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS)\" (Aydin et al., 2007; Huisstede et al., 2010). This syndr, OBJECTIVE: Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) is a common median nerve entrapment neuropathy characterized by pain, paresthesias, diminished peripheral nerve conduction velocity (NCV) and maladaptive functional brain neuroplastici, Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS), caused by entrapment of the median nerve in the carpal tunnel, impairs hand function including dexterous manipulation. The , This review focuses on three of the most common entrapment neuropathies in the upper limbs: carpal tunnel syndrome (median nerve entrapment at the wrist), cubital tunnel syndrome (ulnar nerve entrapment at the elbow), and radial tunnel syndrome (posterior interosseous nerve entrapment)., Electrodiagnostic (EDX) testing is usually an essential part of the evaluation of entrapment neuropathies, and examinations for the most common entrapment neuropathies, carpal tunnel syndrome and ulnar neuropathy at the elbow, constitute a significant part of the daily work in EDX laboratories., This study reviews the existing, more or less, detailed EDX criteria or practice parameters that are suggested by consensus groups in peer-reviewed journals for the most common entrapment neuropathies: carpal tunnel syndrome, ulnar neuropathy at the elbow, common peroneal (fibular) neuropathy at the fibular head, and tibial neuropathy at the tarsal tunnel., This report demonstrates that the Semmes-Weinstein monofilament test and nerve conduction studies can identify entrapment of the palmar cutaneous branch of the median nerve concomitant with carpal tunnel syndrome., Entrapment neuropathy of the palmar cutaneous branch of the median nerve concomitant with carpal tunnel syndrome: a case report., A case of the entrapment neuropathy of the palmar cutaneous branch of the median nerve, concomitant with carpal tunnel syndrome is presented., The entrapment syndromes discussed are suprascapular nerve entrapment, carpal tunnel syndrome, cubital tunnel syndrome, meralgia paraesthetica, thoracic outlet syndrome and anterior interosseous nerve syndrome., Carpal tunnel syndrome is a neuropathy resulting from compression of the median nerve as it passes through a narrow tunnel in the wrist on its way to the hand., More typically, carpal tunnel syndrome is the most common peripheral entrapment neuropathy encountered in industry., Carpal tunnel syndrome is the most frequently encountered peripheral nerve entrapment., Carpal tunnel syndrome, an entrapment neuropathy of the median nerve, is rarely seen in childhood., Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) is the most common type of peripheral nerve entrapment and is a significant cause of morbidity., Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) is a nerve entrapment disorder, involving the median nerve when it passes the carpal tunnel at the wrist., The carpal tunnel syndrome is the most frequent entrapment syndrome of peripheral nerves., BACKGROUND: Compression of the median nerve at the wrist, or carpal tunnel syndrome, is the most commonly recognized nerve entrapme, Carpal tunnel syndrome is the most common of the median nerve entrapments., BACKGROUND: Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) is by far the most common entrapment neuropathy (, Introduction: Carpal tunnel syndrome, entrapment of median nerve at the wrist, is one of the most commonly encountered peripheral neuropathies in the up, Carpal tunnel syndrome, a median nerve entrapment neuropathy, is characterized by sensorimotor deficits., Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) is a common form of peripheral nerve entrapment, which is observed due to compression of the median nerve at the level of the carpal tunnel in the wrist., [Carpal tunnel syndrome and other nerve entrapment syndromes].[SEP]Relations: carpal tunnel syndrome has relations: disease_disease with nerve compression syndrome, disease_disease with nerve compression syndrome, disease_disease with nerve compression syndrome, disease_disease with nerve compression syndrome, disease_disease with genetic peripheral neuropathy, disease_disease with genetic peripheral neuropathy, disease_disease with genetic peripheral neuropathy, disease_disease with genetic peripheral neuropathy, disease_phenotype_positive with Constrictive median neuropathy, disease_phenotype_positive with Constrictive median neuropathy. Definitions: fibrosis defined as following: Any pathological condition where fibrous connective tissue invades any organ, usually as a consequence of inflammation or other injury.. cubital tunnel syndrome defined as following: Compression of the ULNAR NERVE in the cubital tunnel, which is formed by the two heads of the flexor carpi ulnaris muscle, humeral-ulnar aponeurosis, and medial ligaments of the elbow. This condition may follow trauma or occur in association with processes which produce nerve enlargement or narrowing of the canal. Manifestations include elbow pain and PARESTHESIA radiating distally, weakness of ulnar innervated intrinsic hand muscles, and loss of sensation over the hypothenar region, fifth finger, and ulnar aspect of the ring finger. (Joynt, Clinical Neurology, 1995, Ch51, p43). Neuropathies defined as following: A disorder affecting the cranial nerves or the peripheral nervous system. It manifests with pain, tingling, numbness, and muscle weakness. It may be the result of physical injury, toxic substances, viral diseases, diabetes, renal failure, cancer, and drugs.. CTS defined as following: Entrapment of the MEDIAN NERVE in the carpal tunnel, which is formed by the flexor retinaculum and the CARPAL BONES. This syndrome may be associated with repetitive occupational trauma (CUMULATIVE TRAUMA DISORDERS); wrist injuries; AMYLOID NEUROPATHIES; rheumatoid arthritis (see ARTHRITIS, RHEUMATOID); ACROMEGALY; PREGNANCY; and other conditions. Symptoms include burning pain and paresthesias involving the ventral surface of the hand and fingers which may radiate proximally. Impairment of sensation in the distribution of the median nerve and thenar muscle atrophy may occur. (Joynt, Clinical Neurology, 1995, Ch51, p45). humans defined as following: Members of the species Homo sapiens.. thoracic outlet syndrome defined as following: A neurovascular syndrome associated with compression of the BRACHIAL PLEXUS; SUBCLAVIAN ARTERY; and SUBCLAVIAN VEIN at the superior thoracic outlet. This may result from a variety of anomalies such as a CERVICAL RIB, anomalous fascial bands, and abnormalities of the origin or insertion of the anterior or medial scalene muscles. Clinical features may include pain in the shoulder and neck region which radiates into the arm, PARESIS or PARALYSIS of brachial plexus innervated muscles, PARESTHESIA, loss of sensation, reduction of arterial pulses in the affected extremity, ISCHEMIA, and EDEMA. (Adams et al., Principles of Neurology, 6th ed, pp214-5).. chronic renal failure defined as following: The end-stage of CHRONIC RENAL INSUFFICIENCY. It is characterized by the severe irreversible kidney damage (as measured by the level of PROTEINURIA) and the reduction in GLOMERULAR FILTRATION RATE to less than 15 ml per min (Kidney Foundation: Kidney Disease Outcome Quality Initiative, 2002). These patients generally require HEMODIALYSIS or KIDNEY TRANSPLANTATION.. tibial neuropathy defined as following: Disease of the TIBIAL NERVE (also referred to as the posterior tibial nerve). The most commonly associated condition is the TARSAL TUNNEL SYNDROME. However, LEG INJURIES; ISCHEMIA; and inflammatory conditions (e.g., COLLAGEN DISEASES) may also affect the nerve. Clinical features include PARALYSIS of plantar flexion, ankle inversion and toe flexion as well as loss of sensation over the sole of the foot. (From Joynt, Clinical Neurology, 1995, Ch51, p32). fibular defined as following: The bone of the lower leg lateral to and smaller than the tibia. In proportion to its length, it is the most slender of the long bones.. elbow defined as following: A hinge joint connecting the FOREARM to the ARM.. ulnar neuropathy defined as following: Disease involving the ULNAR NERVE from its origin in the BRACHIAL PLEXUS to its termination in the hand. Clinical manifestations may include PARESIS or PARALYSIS of wrist flexion, finger flexion, thumb adduction, finger abduction, and finger adduction. Sensation over the medial palm, fifth finger, and ulnar aspect of the ring finger may also be impaired. Common sites of injury include the AXILLA, cubital tunnel at the ELBOW, and Guyon's canal at the wrist. (From Joynt, Clinical Neurology, 1995, Ch51 pp43-5). nerve defined as following: Part of the peripheral nervous system composed of bundles of nerve fibers running to various organs and tissues of the body using chemical and electrical signals to transmit sensory and motor information from one body part to another.. fibular head defined as following: The highest portion of the fibula that articulates with the patella.. paresthesias defined as following: Subjective cutaneous sensations (e.g., cold, warmth, tingling, pressure, etc.) that are experienced spontaneously in the absence of stimulation..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_512", "sentence1": "Is vemurafenib effective for hairy-cell leukemia?", "sentence2": "CONCLUSIONS: A short oral course of vemurafenib was highly effective in patients with relapsed or refractory hairy-cell leukemia., Our results strongly support and inform the clinical use of BRAF and MEK inhibitors in HCL., The therapeutic approach of vemurafenib in treatment-refractory hairy cell leukemia is promising and offers an additional treatment option. , Successful re-treatment of a relapsed V600E mutated HCL patient with low-dose vemurafenib., Recent identification of the recurrent V600E BRAF mutation in a majority of HCL patients has led some teams to evaluate the clinical potential of vemurafenib, a BRAF V600 specific inhibitor in a limited number of refractory HCL patients. Recently, we published the case of an HCL patient successfully treated with a low dose of vemurafenib., We present here the successful retreatment of this patient with a second line of vemurafenib. Our data suggest for the first time that vemurafenib at the dose of 240 mg once a day could be sufficient to maintain a complete hematological remission after an initial induction treatment with low-dose vemurafenib (2 × 240 mg) daily without inducing major toxicity., The discovery of the BRAF mutation has created a therapeutic target exploited by oral inhibitors like vemurafenib and dabrafenib., [Successful use of vemurafenib in a patient with resistant hairy cell leukemia]., The frequent persistence of phosphorylated ERK-positive leukemic cells in bone marrow at the end of treatment suggests bypass reactivation of MEK and ERK as a resistance mechanism.CONCLUSIONS: A short oral course of vemurafenib was highly effective in patients with relapsed or refractory hairy-cell leukemia. , A short oral course of vemurafenib was highly effective in patients with relapsed or refractory hairy-cell leukemia., A short oral course of vemurafenib was highly effective in patients with relapsed or refractory hairy-cell leukemia., The therapeutic approach of vemurafenib in treatment-refractory hairy cell leukemia is promising and offers an additional treatment option.[SEP]Relations: Vemurafenib has relations: drug_drug with Afelimomab, drug_drug with Afelimomab, drug_drug with Afatinib, drug_drug with Afatinib, drug_drug with Vardenafil, drug_drug with Vardenafil, drug_drug with Ethanol, drug_drug with Ethanol, drug_drug with Ribociclib, drug_drug with Ribociclib. Definitions: MEK defined as following: A dual-specific protein kinase family whose members are components in protein kinase cascades activated by diverse stimuli. These MAPK kinases phosphorylate MITOGEN-ACTIVATED PROTEIN KINASES and are themselves phosphorylated by MAP KINASE KINASE KINASES. JNK kinases (also known as SAPK kinases) are a subfamily.. vemurafenib defined as following: An orally bioavailable, ATP-competitive, small-molecule inhibitor of BRAF(V600E) kinase with potential antineoplastic activity. Vemurafenib selectively binds to the ATP-binding site of BRAF(V600E) kinase and inhibits its activity, which may result in an inhibition of an over-activated MAPK signaling pathway downstream in BRAF(V600E) kinase-expressing tumor cells and a reduction in tumor cell proliferation. Approximately 90% of BRAF gene mutations involve a valine-to-glutamic acid mutation at residue 600 (V600E); the oncogene protein product, BRAF(V600E) kinase, exhibits a markedly elevated activity that over-activates the MAPK signaling pathway. The BRAF(V600E) gene mutation has been found to occur in approximately 60% of melanomas, and in about 8% of all solid tumors, including melanoma, colorectal, thyroid and other cancers.. toxicity defined as following: The finding of bodily harm due to the poisonous effects of something.. ERK defined as following: A superfamily of PROTEIN SERINE-THREONINE KINASES that are activated by diverse stimuli via protein kinase cascades. They are the final components of the cascades, activated by phosphorylation by MITOGEN-ACTIVATED PROTEIN KINASE KINASES, which in turn are activated by mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase kinases (MAP KINASE KINASE KINASES).. mutation defined as following: Any transmissible change in the genetic material of an organism, which can result from radiation, viral infection, transposition, treatment with mutagenic chemicals and errors during DNA replication or meiosis. The effects of mutation range from single base changes to loss or gain of complete chromosomes. As many of the simpler alterations to DNA may be repaired, such changes are only heritable once the change is fixed in the DNA by the process of replication. Mutations may be associated with genetic diversity or with pathologies including cancer.. HCL defined as following: A neoplastic disease of the lymphoreticular cells which is considered to be a rare type of chronic leukemia; it is characterized by an insidious onset, splenomegaly, anemia, granulocytopenia, thrombocytopenia, little or no lymphadenopathy, and the presence of \"hairy\" or \"flagellated\" cells in the blood and bone marrow.. dabrafenib defined as following: An orally bioavailable inhibitor of B-raf (BRAF) protein with potential antineoplastic activity. Dabrafenib selectively binds to and inhibits the activity of B-raf, which may inhibit the proliferation of tumor cells which contain a mutated BRAF gene. B-raf belongs to the raf/mil family of serine/threonine protein kinases and plays a role in regulating the MAP kinase/ERKs signaling pathway, which may be constitutively activated due to BRAF gene mutations.. BRAF defined as following: Serine/threonine-protein kinase B-raf (766 aa, ~84 kDa) is encoded by the human BRAF gene. This protein plays a role in protein phosphorylation, mitogenesis and neuronal signal transduction.. hairy-cell leukemia defined as following: A neoplastic disease of the lymphoreticular cells which is considered to be a rare type of chronic leukemia; it is characterized by an insidious onset, splenomegaly, anemia, granulocytopenia, thrombocytopenia, little or no lymphadenopathy, and the presence of \"hairy\" or \"flagellated\" cells in the blood and bone marrow..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_3899", "sentence1": "Is erabutoxin b usually found in plants?", "sentence2": "The variants are the curaremimetic toxin alpha from Naja nigricollis and erabutoxin a or b from Laticauda semifasciata, The three-dimensional structure of erabutoxin b, a short-chain neurotoxic peptide purified from the venom of the sea snake Laticauda semifasciata, , THe characteristic feature of the crystal structure of erabutoxin b, a short neurotoxin from Laticauda semifasciata, and alpha-cobratoxin, a long neurotoxin from Naja naja siamensis, is the presence of a triple-stranded antiparallel pleated beta-sheet structure formed by the central and the third peptide loops., Here we examine the actions of six snake neurotoxins (alpha-cobratoxin from Naja naja siamensis, erabutoxin-a and b from Laticauda semifasciata; CM12 from N. haje annulifera, toxin III 4 from Notechis scutatus and a long toxin from N. haje) on nicotinic acetylcholine receptors in the cercal afferent, giant interneuron 2 synapse of the cockroach, Periplaneta americana., The method was applied to a study of erabutoxin b molecule, a neurotoxic protein from a sea snake, to analyze the microenvironments of its single tryptophan and tyrosine residues., The area of greatest similarity centered on residue position 25 of erabutoxin b, a locale that is conserved throughout the snake alpha-neurotoxins and their homologues., A systematic computer search of the three-dimensional structure of erabutoxin b (an alpha-neurotoxin from the false sea snake Laticauda semifasciata) was performed to identify the locality that most closely matched the amino acid compositions of the smaller alpha-conotoxins (from the marine snails Conus magus and Conus geographus)., Erabutoxin b is one of a family of snake venom neurotoxins, all low-molecular-weight proteins, which block neuromuscular transmission at the postsynaptic membrane., Erabutoxins a and b are neurotoxins isolated from venom of a sea snake Laticauda semifasciata (erabu-umihebi)., The three-dimensional structure of erabutoxin b, a neurotoxin in the venom of the sea snake Laticauda semifasciata, has been determined from a 2.75 A resolution electron density map., Erabutoxin c, a minor neurotoxic component of the venom of a sea snake Laticauda semifasciata, was isolated in pure form by repeated column chromatography on CM-cellulose columns., The study has established complete structural identity of the two sea-snake venom toxins, erabutoxin b and neurotoxin b, isolated from Laticauda semifasciata snakes taken in different Pacific Ocean waters., Studies on sea-snake venoms. Crystallization of erabutoxins a and b from Laticauda semifasciata venom.[SEP]Relations: postsynaptic membrane has relations: cellcomp_protein with GABRG2, cellcomp_protein with GABRG2, cellcomp_protein with GABRB3, cellcomp_protein with GABRB3, cellcomp_protein with TMUB1, cellcomp_protein with TMUB1, cellcomp_protein with GABRB1, cellcomp_protein with GABRB1, cellcomp_protein with SRGAP2, cellcomp_protein with SRGAP2. Definitions: postsynaptic membrane defined as following: A specialized area of membrane facing the presynaptic membrane on the tip of the nerve ending and separated from it by a minute cleft (the synaptic cleft). Neurotransmitters cross the synaptic cleft and transmit the signal to the postsynaptic membrane. [ISBN:0198506732]. neurotoxin defined as following: Toxic substances from microorganisms, plants or animals that interfere with the functions of the nervous system. Most venoms contain neurotoxic substances. Myotoxins are included in this concept.. erabutoxins defined as following: Toxins isolated from the venom of Laticauda semifasciata, a sea snake (Hydrophid); immunogenic, basic polypeptides of 62 amino acids, folded by four disulfide bonds, block neuromuscular end-plates irreversibly, thus causing paralysis and severe muscle damage; they are similar to Elapid neurotoxins.. sea snake defined as following: A subfamily of marine elapid snakes comprising about 50 species with flattened oar-like tails used as sculls. They are found mostly in the coastal waters of south Asia and Australia. The largest reach a length of almost 9 feet but most species are only about a third as long. They are all venomous. (Goin, Goin, and Zug, Introduction to Herpetology, 3d ed, pp331-3; Moore: Poisonous Snakes of the World, 1980, p159). nicotinic acetylcholine receptors defined as following: One of the two major classes of cholinergic receptors. Nicotinic receptors were originally distinguished by their preference for NICOTINE over MUSCARINE. They are generally divided into muscle-type and neuronal-type (previously ganglionic) based on pharmacology, and subunit composition of the receptors.. venom defined as following: A toxin used by animals and injected into their victims by a bite or sting. variants defined as following: An alteration or difference from a norm or standard.. plants defined as following: Multicellular, eukaryotic life forms of kingdom Plantae. Plants acquired chloroplasts by direct endosymbiosis of CYANOBACTERIA. They are characterized by a mainly photosynthetic mode of nutrition; essentially unlimited growth at localized regions of cell divisions (MERISTEMS); cellulose within cells providing rigidity; the absence of organs of locomotion; absence of nervous and sensory systems; and an alternation of haploid and diploid generations. It is a non-taxonomical term most often referring to LAND PLANTS. In broad sense it includes RHODOPHYTA and GLAUCOPHYTA along with VIRIDIPLANTAE..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_1865", "sentence1": "Is adalimumab effective for hidradenitis suppurativa?", "sentence2": "If patient is not improved, then Adalimumab 160 mg at week 0, 80 mg at week 2; then 40 mg subcutaneously weekly should be administered (LOE Ib, SOR A). If improvement occurs then therapy should be maintained as long as HS lesions are present., Reduction in pain scores and improvement in depressive symptoms in patients with hidradenitis suppurativa treated with adalimumab in a phase 2, randomized, placebo-controlled trial., Adalimumab treatment for 16 weeks improved HS lesions significantly versus placebo (NCT00918255)., CONCLUSION: Patients with moderate to severe HS had a high degree of pain and depressive symptoms at baseline. Adalimumabtherapy was associated with decreased pain and depressive symptoms compared to baseline., Spotlight on adalimumab in the treatment of active moderate-to-severe hidradenitis suppurativa., Adalimumab, a recombinant, fully humanized, anti-tumor necrosis factor alpha (anti-TNF-α) monoclonal antibody, is the only officially approved treatment for the management of moderate-to-severe HS. Case reports, concerning 42 patients who received adalimumab for severe HS (with the standard dose regimen for psoriasis), reported a cumulative response rate of 58% (≥50% in 23 patients) with a relapse rate of 71% (10 out of 14 patients). The most recent and most well-powered phase III, randomized placebo-controlled trials for the evaluation of the efficacy and safety of adalimumab in treatment of moderate-to-severe HS (PIONEER studies I and II) showed that the Hidradenitis Suppurativa Clinical Response (HiSCR) rate at week 12 was significantly higher for patients randomized to adalimumab compared to placebo., In conclusion, adalimumab, to date, holds the most robust data regarding treatment efficacy in HS. , Adalimumab (Humira) for the Treatment of Hidradenitis Suppurativa., Adalimumab (Humira®) is a novel therapy approved by the US Food and Drug Administration, Health Canada, and the European Commission for the treatment of hidradenitis suppurativa (HS)., Taken together, these data conclude that treatment of HS with adalimumab is a safe and effective therapy resulting in a significant decrease in abscess and inflammatory nodule counts within the first 12 weeks of treatment., Effective long-term control of refractory hidradenitis suppurativa with adalimumab after failure of conventional therapy., Hidradenitis suppurativa managed with adalimumab., Treatment of severe recalcitrant hidradenitis suppurativa with adalimumab., Long-term successful adalimumab therapy in severe hidradenitis suppurativa., Comparing treatment outcome of infliximab and adalimumab in patients with severe hidradenitis suppurativa., HiSCR (Hidradenitis Suppurativa Clinical Response): a novel clinical endpoint to evaluate therapeutic outcomes in patients with hidradenitis suppurativa from the placebo-controlled portion of a phase 2 adalimumab study, Adalimumab in treatment-resistant hidradenitis suppurativa following recurrence after extensive affected area excision: a review of biologics therapy, Adalimumab (antitumour necrosis factor-α) treatment of hidradenitis suppurativa ameliorates skin inflammation: an in situ and ex vivo study, Treatment of severe recalcitrant hidradenitis suppurativa with adalimumab, In a phase 2 trial, adalimumab, an antibody against tumor necrosis factor α, showed efficacy against hidradenitis suppurativa.PIONEER I and II were similarly designed, phase 3 multicenter trials of adalimumab for hidradenitis suppurativa, with two double-blind, placebo-controlled periods., Here we report a case of a patient with severe recalcitrant hidradenitis suppurativa successfully treated with adalimumab., Recent reports have demonstrated that adalimumab, a tumor necrosis factor (TNF) antagonist, may be effective in the treatment of patients with HS who have failed conventional therapy., Conclusion Adalimumab appears to be an effective and safe treatment for refractory HS., Effective long-term control of refractory hidradenitis suppurativa with adalimumab after failure of conventional therapy., Hidradenitis suppurativa managed with adalimumab., Treatment of severe recalcitrant hidradenitis suppurativa with adalimumab., Two Phase 3 Trials of Adalimumab for Hidradenitis Suppurativa., Adalimumab treatment for hidradenitis suppurativa associated with Crohn's disease., Long-term successful adalimumab therapy in severe hidradenitis suppurativa., Conclusion Adalimumab appears to be an effective and safe treatment for refractory HS.., Comparing treatment outcome of infliximab and adalimumab in patients with severe hidradenitis suppurativa., Here we report a case of a patient with severe recalcitrant hidradenitis suppurativa successfully treated with adalimumab.., Adalimumab is suitable for the long-term treatment of hidradenitis suppurativa and presents a further conservative treatment approach.., HiSCR (Hidradenitis Suppurativa Clinical Response): a novel clinical endpoint to evaluate therapeutic outcomes in patients with hidradenitis suppurativa from the placebo-controlled portion of a phase 2 adalimumab study., Spotlight on adalimumab in the treatment of active moderate-to-severe hidradenitis suppurativa.[SEP]Relations: hidradenitis suppurativa has relations: disease_disease with hidradenitis, disease_disease with hidradenitis. Adalimumab has relations: drug_drug with Amatuximab, drug_drug with Amatuximab, drug_drug with Isatuximab, drug_drug with Isatuximab, drug_drug with Margetuximab, drug_drug with Margetuximab, drug_drug with Antipyrine, drug_drug with Antipyrine. Definitions: lesions defined as following: A localized pathological or traumatic structural change, damage, deformity, or discontinuity of tissue, organ, or body part.. psoriasis defined as following: A common genetically determined, chronic, inflammatory skin disease characterized by rounded erythematous, dry, scaling patches. The lesions have a predilection for nails, scalp, genitalia, extensor surfaces, and the lumbosacral region. Accelerated epidermopoiesis is considered to be the fundamental pathologic feature in psoriasis.. Adalimumab defined as following: A recombinant, human IgG1 monoclonal antibody directed against tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha), with immunomodulating activity. Upon administration, adalimumab binds to TNF-alpha, thereby preventing its binding to the p55 and p75 TNF cell surface receptors and inhibiting TNF-mediated immune responses. TNF-alpha, a pro-inflammatory cytokine, is upregulated in various autoimmune diseases.. TNF defined as following: A recombinant therapeutic agent which is chemically identical to or similar to one of a number of endogenous tumor necrosis factor (TNF) proteins. TNF family cytokines bind to and activate specific cell-surface receptors, thereby mediating inflammatory processes, cell proliferation, immunity, angiogenesis, and tumor cell cytotoxicity. One primary antitumor effect of TNFs involves stimulation of T cell-mediated antitumor cytotoxicity.. tumor necrosis factor defined as following: Serum glycoprotein produced by activated MACROPHAGES and other mammalian MONONUCLEAR LEUKOCYTES. It has necrotizing activity against tumor cell lines and increases ability to reject tumor transplants. Also known as TNF-alpha, it is only 30% homologous to TNF-beta (LYMPHOTOXIN), but they share TNF RECEPTORS.. infliximab defined as following: A chimeric monoclonal antibody to TNF-ALPHA that is used in the treatment of RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS; ANKYLOSING SPONDYLITIS; PSORIATIC ARTHRITIS and CROHN'S DISEASE.. Hidradenitis Suppurativa defined as following: A chronic suppurative and cicatricial disease of the apocrine glands occurring chiefly in the axillae in women and in the groin and anal regions in men. It is characterized by poral occlusion with secondary bacterial infection, evolving into abscesses which eventually rupture. As the disease becomes chronic, ulcers appear, sinus tracts enlarge, fistulas develop, and fibrosis and scarring become evident.. antibody defined as following: A protein complex that in its canonical form is composed of two identical immunoglobulin heavy chains and two identical immunoglobulin light chains, held together by disulfide bonds and sometimes complexed with additional proteins. An immunoglobulin complex may be embedded in the plasma membrane or present in the extracellular space, in mucosal areas or other tissues, or circulating in the blood or lymph. [GOC:add, GOC:jl, ISBN:0781765196]. hidradenitis suppurativa defined as following: A chronic suppurative and cicatricial disease of the apocrine glands occurring chiefly in the axillae in women and in the groin and anal regions in men. It is characterized by poral occlusion with secondary bacterial infection, evolving into abscesses which eventually rupture. As the disease becomes chronic, ulcers appear, sinus tracts enlarge, fistulas develop, and fibrosis and scarring become evident..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_124", "sentence1": "Is DITPA a thyroid hormone analog utilized in experimental and clinical studies", "sentence2": "DITPA normalized the elevated serum T(3) and TSH when the dose reached 1 mg/kg · d and T(4) and rT(3) increased to the lower normal range., The identification of 3,5-diiodothyropropionic acid (DITPA) that binds to both α- and β-type TRs with relatively low affinity was unique in that this analog improves left ventricular function in heart failure as well as lowers cholesterol., Treatment with DITPA attenuates the acute inflammatory response and reduces myocardial infarct size., Thus DITPA administration impairs baseline cardiac parameters in mice and can be fatal during in vivo acute myocardial I/R., DITPA improved some hemodynamic and metabolic parameters, but there was no evidence for symptomatic benefit in congestive heart failure, The results suggested that DITPA can promote a healthy vasculature independently from its thyroid-related metabolic effects. , Moreover, DITPA and T(4) were efficacious in preventing effects of hypothyroidism on cardiac function and BVD, Both T4 and DITPA had beneficial effects on chamber remodeling, which was most likely due to beneficial changes in cell shape and improved vascular supply., The thyroid analog DITPA enhances endothelial nitric oxide and beta-adrenergic-mediated vasorelaxation by increasing nitric oxide in the vasculature.[SEP]Relations: 3,5-diiodothyropropionic acid has relations: drug_drug with Ethionamide, drug_drug with Ethionamide, drug_drug with Motesanib, drug_drug with Motesanib, drug_drug with Ritonavir, drug_drug with Ritonavir, drug_drug with Escitalopram, drug_drug with Escitalopram, drug_drug with Flumatinib, drug_drug with Flumatinib. Definitions: nitric oxide defined as following: A free radical gas produced endogenously by a variety of mammalian cells, synthesized from ARGININE by NITRIC OXIDE SYNTHASE. Nitric oxide is one of the ENDOTHELIUM-DEPENDENT RELAXING FACTORS released by the vascular endothelium and mediates VASODILATION. It also inhibits platelet aggregation, induces disaggregation of aggregated platelets, and inhibits platelet adhesion to the vascular endothelium. Nitric oxide activates cytosolic GUANYLATE CYCLASE and thus elevates intracellular levels of CYCLIC GMP.. vasculature defined as following: Organ region cluster which consists of regions of arterial, venous and lymphatic trees and the capillary beds that connect them. Examples: Vasculature of head, vasculature of brain.. heart failure defined as following: Heart failure accompanied by EDEMA, such as swelling of the legs and ankles and congestion in the lungs.. hypothyroidism defined as following: A syndrome that results from abnormally low secretion of THYROID HORMONES from the THYROID GLAND, leading to a decrease in BASAL METABOLIC RATE. In its most severe form, there is accumulation of MUCOPOLYSACCHARIDES in the SKIN and EDEMA, known as MYXEDEMA. It may be primary or secondary due to other pituitary disease, or hypothalamic dysfunction.. TRs defined as following: Catalysis of the reaction: ATP + L-threonine + tRNA(Thr) = AMP + diphosphate + L-threonyl-tRNA(Thr). [EC:6.1.1.3]. thyroid hormone defined as following: Natural hormones secreted by the THYROID GLAND, such as THYROXINE, and their synthetic analogs..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_4131", "sentence1": "Can Panitumumab cause trichomegaly?", "sentence2": "Xerosis was present in two cases, and paronychia, pyogenic granuloma, trichomegaly, and madarosis were observed in one patient each. , Eyelash trichomegaly is an uncommon drug-associated sequelae experienced during treatment with epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) inhibitors. Elongation of the eyelashes induced by these agents has predominantly been observed in oncology patients with either colorectal or lung cancer. It is most frequently associated with cetuximab and erlotinib; however, it has also been described in individuals treated with gefitinib or panitumumab. , Trichomegaly of the eyelashes during therapy with epidermal growth factor receptor inhibitors: report of 3 cases., Trichomegaly of the eyelashes is a rare adverse effect of EGFR inhibitor therapy and is characterized by a paradoxical overgrowth of eyelashes.[SEP]Relations: Panitumumab has relations: drug_drug with Tregalizumab, drug_drug with Tregalizumab, drug_drug with Pertuzumab, drug_drug with Pertuzumab, drug_drug with Sonepcizumab, drug_drug with Sonepcizumab, drug_drug with Concizumab, drug_drug with Concizumab, drug_drug with Eculizumab, drug_drug with Eculizumab. Definitions: gefitinib defined as following: A selective tyrosine kinase inhibitor for the EPIDERMAL GROWTH FACTOR RECEPTOR (EGFR) that is used for the treatment of locally advanced or metastatic NON-SMALL CELL LUNG CANCER.. erlotinib defined as following: A quinazoline derivative with antineoplastic properties. Competing with adenosine triphosphate, erlotinib reversibly binds to the intracellular catalytic domain of epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) tyrosine kinase, thereby reversibly inhibiting EGFR phosphorylation and blocking the signal transduction events and tumorigenic effects associated with EGFR activation.. eyelashes defined as following: The hairs which project from the edges of the EYELIDS.. panitumumab defined as following: A human IgG2kappa monoclonal antibody specific for the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR). Monoclonal antibody E7.6.3 binds to the EGFR, blocking the binding of epidermal growth factor and transforming growth factor alpha to EGFR-expressing cancer cells and ultimately inhibiting EGFR-dependent cell activation and proliferation. (NCI). cetuximab defined as following: A chimeric monoclonal antibody that functions as an ANTINEOPLASTIC AGENT through its binding to the EPIDERMAL GROWTH FACTOR RECEPTOR, where it prevents the binding and signaling action of cell growth and survival factors.. epidermal growth factor receptor inhibitors defined as following: Any tyrosine kinase inhibitor that targets the activity of the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) tyrosine kinase. Inhibition of epidermal growth factor receptor tyrosine kinase may inhibit the growth of epidermal-lineage tumor cells, especially those that overexpress epidermal growth factor receptor..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_1899", "sentence1": "Have the promoter regions of the genes implicated in Rett Syndrome been characterized with CAGE?", "sentence2": "CAGE-defined promoter regions of the genes implicated in Rett Syndrome., Mutations in three functionally diverse genes cause Rett Syndrome. Although the functions of Forkhead box G1 (FOXG1), Methyl CpG binding protein 2 (MECP2) and Cyclin-dependent kinase-like 5 (CDKL5) have been studied individually, not much is known about their relation to each other with respect to expression levels and regulatory regions. Here we analyzed data from hundreds of mouse and human samples included in the FANTOM5 project, to identify transcript initiation sites, expression levels, expression correlations and regulatory regions of the three genes.RESULTS: Our investigations reveal the predominantly used transcription start sites (TSSs) for each gene including novel transcription start sites for FOXG1. We show that FOXG1 expression is poorly correlated with the expression of MECP2 and CDKL5. We identify promoter shapes for each TSS, the predicted location of enhancers for each gene and the common transcription factors likely to regulate the three genes. Our data imply Polycomb Repressive Complex 2 (PRC2) mediated silencing of Foxg1 in cerebellum.CONCLUSIONS: Our analyses provide a comprehensive picture of the regulatory regions of the three genes involved in Rett Syndrome., CAGE-defined promoter regions of the genes implicated in Rett Syndrome, CAGE-defined promoter regions of the genes implicated in Rett Syndrome.[SEP]Relations: Rett syndrome has relations: disease_protein with NTNG1, disease_protein with NTNG1, disease_phenotype_positive with Increased serum leptin, disease_phenotype_positive with Increased serum leptin, disease_disease with X-linked complex neurodevelopmental disorder, disease_disease with X-linked complex neurodevelopmental disorder, disease_protein with MECP2, disease_protein with MECP2, disease_phenotype_positive with Increased serum pyruvate, disease_phenotype_positive with Increased serum pyruvate. Definitions: gene defined as following: A category of nucleic acid sequences that function as units of heredity and which code for the basic instructions for the development, reproduction, and maintenance of organisms.. Polycomb Repressive Complex 2 defined as following: A multisubunit polycomb protein complex that catalyzes the METHYLATION of chromosomal HISTONE H3. It works in conjunction with POLYCOMB REPRESSIVE COMPLEX 1 to effect EPIGENETIC REPRESSION.. Forkhead box G1 defined as following: This gene is involved in transcriptional repression and may play a role in the development of the brain and telencephalon.. Rett Syndrome defined as following: This gene plays a role in both the recognition of DNA methylation and the regulation of transcription.. CDKL5 defined as following: This gene plays a role in protein metabolism.. regulatory regions defined as following: Nucleic acid sequences involved in regulating the expression of genes.. MECP2 defined as following: Methyl-CpG-binding protein 2 (486 aa, ~52 kDa) is encoded by the human MECP2 gene. This protein plays a role in the repression of transcription through binding methylated DNA.. Methyl CpG binding protein 2 defined as following: A DNA-binding protein that interacts with methylated CPG ISLANDS. It plays a role in repressing GENETIC TRANSCRIPTION and is frequently mutated in RETT SYNDROME.. human defined as following: Members of the species Homo sapiens.. transcription start sites defined as following: The first nucleotide of a transcribed DNA sequence where RNA polymerase (DNA-DIRECTED RNA POLYMERASE) begins synthesizing the RNA transcript.. cerebellum defined as following: The part of brain that lies behind the BRAIN STEM in the posterior base of skull (CRANIAL FOSSA, POSTERIOR). It is also known as the \"little brain\" with convolutions similar to those of CEREBRAL CORTEX, inner white matter, and deep cerebellar nuclei. Its function is to coordinate voluntary movements, maintain balance, and learn motor skills.. Mutations defined as following: The result of any gain, loss or alteration of the sequences comprising a gene, including all sequences transcribed into RNA.. promoter regions defined as following: DNA sequences which are recognized (directly or indirectly) and bound by a DNA-dependent RNA polymerase during the initiation of transcription. Highly conserved sequences within the promoter include the Pribnow box in bacteria and the TATA BOX in eukaryotes.. genes defined as following: A category of nucleic acid sequences that function as units of heredity and which code for the basic instructions for the development, reproduction, and maintenance of organisms..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_150", "sentence1": "Is PTEN involved in follicular thyroid carcinoma?", "sentence2": "Two of the 259 patients (0.8%), with both follicular thyroid carcinoma and macrocephaly, were found to carry a germline mutation in the PTEN gene. The PTEN mutation frequency in unselected cases of follicular thyroid carcinoma was 4.8%, The frequency of germline pathogenic PTEN mutations in an unselected series of patients with DTC is relatively low, but it is enriched by considering follicular histology and macrocephaly, Similarly, there is increasing evidence demonstrating that mutations leading to activation of the phosphatidylinositol 3- kinase (PI3K)/AKT effectors -PTEN and PI3KCa- are essential for the pathogenesis of follicular thyroid carcinoma (FTC), A single male with follicular thyroid carcinoma from one of these 64 (2%) CS-like families harboured a germline point mutation, c.209T-->C, Similarly, there is increasing evidence demonstrating that mutations leading to activation of the phosphatidylinositol 3- kinase (PI3K)/AKT effectors -PTEN and PI3KCa- are essential for the pathogenesis of follicular thyroid carcinoma (FTC)., The transcriptional silencing of PTEN was significantly associated with the anaplastic subtype, suggesting that PTEN is involved in the carcinogenesis of highly malignant or late-stage thyroid cancers, whereas this particular mechanism appears to be of minor importance in differentiated follicular thyroid tumors., These results show a high frequency of PTEN promoter hypermethylation, especially in follicular tumors, suggesting its possible role in thyroid tumorigenesis, Our findings suggest that the PTEN tumor suppressor gene is occasionally inactivated in sporadic follicular thyroid tumors, Germline mutations in the tumor suppressor gene PTEN, which encodes a dual-specificity phosphatase, have been found in up to 80% of patients with Cowden syndrome suggesting a role of PTEN in the pathogenesis of follicular thyroid tumors, The most common neoplasms in Cowden disease patients arise in the breast, skin, and thyroid (follicular subtype), The transcriptional silencing of PTEN was significantly associated with the anaplastic subtype, suggesting that PTEN is involved in the carcinogenesis of highly malignant or late-stage thyroid cancers, whereas this particular mechanism appears to be of minor importance in differentiated follicular thyroid tumors[SEP]Relations: PTEN has relations: disease_protein with thyroid gland carcinoma, disease_protein with thyroid gland carcinoma, disease_protein with thyroid cancer, disease_protein with thyroid cancer, anatomy_protein_present with thyroid gland, anatomy_protein_present with thyroid gland, disease_protein with carcinoma, disease_protein with carcinoma, disease_protein with prostate carcinoma, disease_protein with prostate carcinoma. Definitions: dual-specificity phosphatase defined as following: A sub-class of protein tyrosine phosphatases that contain an additional phosphatase activity which cleaves phosphate ester bonds on SERINE or THREONINE residues that are located on the same protein.. PTEN defined as following: Phosphatidylinositol 3,4,5-trisphosphate 3-phosphatase and dual-specificity protein phosphatase PTEN (403 aa, ~47 kDa) is encoded by the human PTEN gene. This protein plays a role in signaling and as both a dual-specificity phosphoprotein phosphatase and a lipid phosphatase.. FTC defined as following: A synthetic fluoro derivative of thiacytidine with potent antiviral activity. Emtricitabine is phosphorylated to form emtricitabine 5'-triphosphate within the cell. This metabolite inhibits the activity of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) reverse transcriptase both by competing with the natural substrate deoxycytidine 5'-triphosphate and by incorporation into viral DNA causing a termination of DNA chain elongation (due to the lack of the essential 3'-OH group).. tumors defined as following: New abnormal growth of tissue. Malignant neoplasms show a greater degree of anaplasia and have the properties of invasion and metastasis, compared to benign neoplasms.. follicular thyroid carcinoma defined as following: An adenocarcinoma of the thyroid gland, in which the cells are arranged in the form of follicles. (From Dorland, 27th ed). breast defined as following: In humans, one of the paired regions in the anterior portion of the THORAX. The breasts consist of the MAMMARY GLANDS, the SKIN, the MUSCLES, the ADIPOSE TISSUE, and the CONNECTIVE TISSUES.. thyroid cancers defined as following: A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm affecting the thyroid gland.. DTC defined as following: A chelating agent that has been used to mobilize toxic metals from the tissues of humans and experimental animals. It is the main metabolite of DISULFIRAM.. PTEN gene defined as following: This gene plays a role in signal transduction and apoptosis. It is also involved in the regulation of cell cycle progression.. macrocephaly defined as following: A congenital abnormality in which the occipitofrontal circumference is greater than two standard deviations above the mean for a given age. It is associated with HYDROCEPHALUS; SUBDURAL EFFUSION; ARACHNOID CYSTS; or is part of a genetic condition (e.g., ALEXANDER DISEASE; SOTOS SYNDROME).. Cowden disease defined as following: A hereditary disease characterized by multiple ectodermal, mesodermal, and endodermal nevoid and neoplastic anomalies. Facial trichilemmomas and papillomatous papules of the oral mucosa are the most characteristic lesions. Individuals with this syndrome have a high risk of BREAST CANCER; THYROID CANCER; and ENDOMETRIAL CANCER. This syndrome is associated with mutations in the gene for PTEN PHOSPHATASE.. mutations defined as following: The result of any gain, loss or alteration of the sequences comprising a gene, including all sequences transcribed into RNA..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_1878", "sentence1": "Is there alternative polyadenylation during zebrafish development?", "sentence2": "Extensive alternative polyadenylation during zebrafish development., At 2 h post-fertilization, thousands of unique poly(A) sites appear at locations lacking a typical polyadenylation signal, which suggests a wave of widespread cytoplasmic polyadenylation of mRNA degradation intermediates. Our insights into the identities, formation, and evolution of zebrafish 3' UTRs provide a resource for studying gene regulation during vertebrate development., Extensive alternative polyadenylation during zebrafish development.[SEP]Relations: vertebra has relations: anatomy_anatomy with non-transverse process-bearing vertebra, anatomy_anatomy with non-transverse process-bearing vertebra, anatomy_anatomy with transverse process-bearing vertebra, anatomy_anatomy with transverse process-bearing vertebra, anatomy_anatomy with predorsal vertebra, anatomy_anatomy with predorsal vertebra, anatomy_anatomy with vertebral element, anatomy_anatomy with vertebral element, anatomy_anatomy with vertebral bone 2, anatomy_anatomy with vertebral bone 2. Definitions: zebrafish defined as following: An exotic species of the family CYPRINIDAE, originally from Asia, that has been introduced in North America. Zebrafish is a model organism for drug assay and cancer research.. vertebrate defined as following: Animals having a vertebral column, members of the phylum Chordata, subphylum Craniata comprising mammals, birds, reptiles, amphibians, and fishes..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_3960", "sentence1": "Is avelumab effective for urothelial carcinoma?", "sentence2": "ince then, additional checkpoint inhibitors, including avelumab, durvalumab, and nivolumab, have gained approval. , Avelumab, an anti-programmed death-ligand 1 monoclonal antibody approved for the treatment of metastatic Merkel cell carcinoma and platinum-treated urothelial carcinoma, was initially approved with a 10 mg/kg weight-based dose. , Five new PD-1/PD-L1 checkpoint inhibitors have been approved for the treatment of metastatic urothelial carcinoma (UC): pembrolizumab, atezolizumab, durvalumab, nivolumab, and avelumab. , We reviewed the literature for prospective studies evaluating PD-1/PD-L1 inhibitors in refractory urothelial carcinoma patients, which formed the basis for US Food and Drug Administration approval of 5 different antagonistic antibodies targeting PD-1 or PD-L1 (atezolizumab, durvalumab, avelumab, nivolumab, and pembrolizumab)., Nowadays, five immune checkpoint inhibitors blocking PD-1 (pembrolizumab, nivolumab) or PD-L1 (atezolizumab, durvalumab, and avelumab) have been approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration (US FDA) for the first- or second-line use in urothelial carcinoma, based on durable response and manageable safety profiles observed in relevant clinical trials. , RETATION: Avelumab showed antitumour activity in the treatment of patients with platinum-refractory metastatic urothelial carcinoma; a manageable safety profile was reported in all avelumab-treated patients. These, data provide the rationale for therapeutic use of avelumab in metastatic urothelial carcinoma and it has received accelerated US FDA approval in this setting on this basis.FUNDIN, BACKGROUND: Anti-programmed cell death ligand 1 (PD-L1)/programmed cell death 1 antibodies have shown clinical activity in platinum-treated metastatic urothelial carcinoma, resulting in regulatory approval of several agents, including avelumab (anti-PD-L1)., Avelumab as second-line therapy for metastatic, platinum-treated urothelial carcinoma in the phase Ib JAVELIN Solid Tumor study: 2-year updated efficacy and safety analysis., BACKGROUND: Avelumab has recently been approved by the Food and Drug Administration for the therapy of Merkel cell carcinoma and urothelial carcinoma., SIONS: Maintenance avelumab plus best supportive care significantly prolonged overall survival, as compared with best supportive care alone, among patients with urothelial cancer who had disease that had not progressed with first-line chemotherapy. (Fund, By the emergence of modern immunotherapies with active agents like PD-1 (nivolumab, pembrolizumab) and PD-L1 immune checkpoint blockers (atezolizumab, avelumab, durvalumab), new therapeutic options have become available for the treatment of patients with locally advanced and metastatic urothelial carcinoma., Avelumab, an anti-programmed death-ligand 1 monoclonal antibody approved for the treatment of metastatic Merkel cell carcinoma and platinum-treated urothelial carcinoma, was initially approved with a 10 mg/kg weight-based dose., By the emergence of modern immunotherapies with active agents like PD-1 (nivolumab, pembrolizumab) and PD-L1 immune checkpoint blockers (atezolizumab, avelumab, durvalumab), new therapeutic options have become available for the treatment of patients with locally advanced and metastatic urothelial carcinoma. Accor, ACQUISITION: Five antibodies including pembrolizumab (PD-L1 antibody), atezolizumab (PD-1 antibody), nivolumab (PD-1 antibody), avelumab and durvalumab (PD-L1 antibodies) have been approved in the treatment of advanced urothelial carcinoma in first- and second-line treatment setting., INTERPRETATION: Avelumab showed antitumour activity in the treatment of patients with platinum-refractory metastatic urothelial carcinoma; a manageable safety profile was reported in all avelumab-treated patients., Conclusion Avelumab was well tolerated and associated with durable responses and prolonged survival in patients with refractory metastatic UC., Avelumab: A Novel Anti-PD-L1 Agent in the Treatment of Merkel Cell Carcinoma and Urothelial Cell Carcinoma., In early 2017, avelumab (BAVENCIO®), a PD-L1-blocking monoclonal antibody agent, was approved for the treatment of metastatic MCC and UC., Expert opinion: Avelumab has shown clinical efficacy for metastatic and advanced UC in phase I studies after the failure of platinum-based therapy with a well-tolerated safety profile., Avelumab has been approved by the U.S. FDA for the treatment of metastatic Merkel cell carcinoma and metastatic urothelial carcinoma that has progressed during or following treatment with a platinum-based regimen.[SEP]Relations: Nivolumab has relations: drug_drug with Avelumab, drug_drug with Avelumab, drug_drug with Urelumab, drug_drug with Urelumab, drug_drug with Cemiplimab, drug_drug with Cemiplimab. urothelial carcinoma has relations: disease_disease with urothelial neoplasm, disease_disease with urothelial neoplasm, disease_protein with HRAS, disease_protein with HRAS. Definitions: PD-1 defined as following: Human PDCD1 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 2q37.3 and is approximately 9 kb in length. This allele, which encodes programmed cell death protein 1, plays a role in the modulation of both apoptosis and cellular immunity. Mutation of the gene is associated with systemic lupus erythematosus type 2.. PD-L1 defined as following: Human CD274 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 9p24 and is approximately 20 kb in length. This allele, which encodes programmed cell death 1 ligand 1 protein, plays a role in the regulation of T cell stimulation and proliferation.. Merkel cell carcinoma defined as following: A carcinoma arising from MERKEL CELLS located in the basal layer of the epidermis and occurring most commonly as a primary neuroendocrine carcinoma of the skin. Merkel cells are tactile cells of neuroectodermal origin and histologically show neurosecretory granules. The skin of the head and neck are a common site of Merkel cell carcinoma, occurring generally in elderly patients. (Holland et al., Cancer Medicine, 3d ed, p1245). UC defined as following: Inflammation of the COLON that is predominantly confined to the MUCOSA. Its major symptoms include DIARRHEA, rectal BLEEDING, the passage of MUCUS, and ABDOMINAL PAIN.. nivolumab defined as following: A fully human immunoglobulin (Ig) G4 monoclonal antibody directed against the negative immunoregulatory human cell surface receptor programmed death-1 (PD-1, PCD-1) with immune checkpoint inhibitory and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration, nivolumab binds to and blocks the activation of PD-1, an immunoglobulin superfamily (IgSF) transmembrane protein, by its ligands programmed cell death ligand 1 (PD-L1), which is overexpressed on certain cancer cells, and programmed cell death ligand 2 (PD-L2), which is primarily expressed on antigen-presenting cells (APCs). This results in the activation of T-cells and cell-mediated immune responses against tumor cells. Activated PD-1 negatively regulates T-cell activation and plays a key role in tumor evasion from host immunity.. antibody defined as following: A protein complex that in its canonical form is composed of two identical immunoglobulin heavy chains and two identical immunoglobulin light chains, held together by disulfide bonds and sometimes complexed with additional proteins. An immunoglobulin complex may be embedded in the plasma membrane or present in the extracellular space, in mucosal areas or other tissues, or circulating in the blood or lymph. [GOC:add, GOC:jl, ISBN:0781765196]. urothelial carcinoma defined as following: A malignant neoplasm derived from TRANSITIONAL EPITHELIAL CELLS, occurring chiefly in the URINARY BLADDER; URETERS; or RENAL PELVIS.. disease defined as following: A definite pathologic process with a characteristic set of signs and symptoms. It may affect the whole body or any of its parts, and its etiology, pathology, and prognosis may be known or unknown.. metastatic urothelial carcinoma defined as following: A carcinoma that arises from the urothelium and has spread from its original site of growth to another anatomic site..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_51", "sentence1": "Is peripheral neuroepithelioma related to Ewing sarcoma?", "sentence2": "The term \"small round-cell tumor\" describes a group of highly aggressive malignant tumors composed of relatively small and monotonous undifferentiated cells with high nuclear to cytoplasmic ratios. This group includes Ewing's sarcoma (ES), peripheral neuroepithelioma (aka, primitive neuroectodermal tumor or extraskeletal ES), peripheral neuroblastoma (\"classic-type\"), rhabdomyosarcoma, desmoplastic small round-cell tumor, lymphoma, leukemia, small-cell osteosarcoma, small-cell carcinoma (either undifferentiated or neuroendocrine), olfactory neuroblastoma, cutaneous neuroendocrine carcinoma (aka, Merkel-cell carcinoma), small-cell melanoma, and mesenchymal chondrosarcoma. Their clinical presentations often overlap, thus making a definitive diagnosis problematic in some cases, AIMS: To retrospectively study the DNA content in a series of childhood Ewing Family Tumors (EFT), and to investigate its prognostic value. METHODS: The study was performed on a series of 27 EFTs (osseous Ewing's sarcoma, 18 cases; extraosseous Ewing's sarcoma, 2; peripheral neuroepithelioma, 4; Askin Rosai tumors, 3, To improve the prognosis of patients with poor-risk peripheral primitive neuroectodermal tumors (pPNETs; including peripheral neuroepithelioma and Ewing's sarcoma), Large group of small-round-cell tumours of soft tissues and bone represents a complex diagnostic problem for the pathologists. Neuronal nature of many tumours from this group is proven by means of new methods--immunophenotypic analysis, tissue culture, cytogenetics. Peripheral neuroepithelioma, Ewing tumour, primitive neuroectodermal tumour (PNET), Askin tumour belong to these neoplasms, Comparison of Ewing's sarcoma of bone and peripheral neuroepithelioma. An immunocytochemical and ultrastructural analysis of two primitive neuroectodermal neoplasms, Ewing's sarcoma of bone (ESB) and peripheral neuroepithelioma (PN) are frequently considered to be different tumors. Some researchers have suggested that PN is morphologically a neuroectodermal Ewing's sarcoma. We sought to determine the extent of neuroectodermal features in conventional ESB on direct patient material (25 cases) and to compare these tumors with a similar group of readily diagnosed PNs (10 cases), Neuroectodermal antigens (neuron-specific enolase, Leu-7 [HNK-1], neurofilament 200 kd, and S100) were found in nine of 10 cases of PN and in 17 of 25 cases of ESB, These data support the concept that ESB and PN are both peripheral primitive neuroectodermal neoplasms, differing only in extent of neuroectodermal phenotype and morphological differentiation, Besides these antigenic features, Ewing sarcoma cells are characterized by a specific t(11;22)(q24;q12) translocation also observed in neuroepithelioma, a neuroectodermal tumor, suggesting a possible evolutionary related origin., Ewings sarcoma (ES) and peripheral neuroepithelioma (PN) are closely related tumors, and it can be difficult to distinguish them from other small-round-cell tumors (SRCTs)., The presence of this translocation in Ewing sarcoma and peripheral primitive neuroectodermal tumor has been taken as evidence that these two tumors are related., Besides these antigenic features, Ewing sarcoma cells are characterized by a specific t(11;22)(q24;q12) translocation also observed in neuroepithelioma, a neuroectodermal tumor, suggesting a possible evolutionary related origin., Indistinguishable patterns of protooncogene expression in two distinct but closely related tumors: Ewing's sarcoma and neuroepithelioma., Ewing's sarcoma (ES) and peripheral neuroepithelioma (PN) are related tumors, possibly of neural crest origin, which are cytogenetically characterized by the specific translocation t(11;22)(q24;q12)., Ewing's sarcoma/peripheral primitive neuroectodermal tumors (ES/pPNET) are a group of small round cell sarcomas that show varying degrees of neuroectodermal differentiation characterized by translocation involving the EWS gene, Ewing's sarcoma (ES) and peripheral neuroepithelioma (PN) are closely related tumors, and it can be difficult to distinguish them from other small-round-cell tumors (SRCTs), Ewing's sarcoma (ES) and peripheral neuroepithelioma (PN) are related tumors, possibly of neural crest origin, which are cytogenetically characterized by the specific translocation t(11;22)(q24;q12), This genetical similarity further supports a nosological concept according to which Askin's tumour, Ewing's sarcoma and peripheral neuroepithelioma represent phenotypic variations of the same tumour, namely the peripheral primitive neuroectodermal tumour., Besides these antigenic features, Ewing sarcoma cells are characterized by a specific t(11;22)(q24;q12) translocation also observed in neuroepithelioma, a neuroectodermal tumor, suggesting a possible evolutionary related origin[SEP]Relations: Ewing sarcoma/peripheral primitive neuroectodermal tumor has relations: disease_disease with Ewing sarcoma, disease_disease with Ewing sarcoma, disease_disease with extraskeletal Ewing sarcoma/peripheral primitive neuroectodermal tumor, disease_disease with extraskeletal Ewing sarcoma/peripheral primitive neuroectodermal tumor, disease_disease with peripheral primitive neuroectodermal tumor, disease_disease with peripheral primitive neuroectodermal tumor, disease_disease with Ewing sarcoma/peripheral primitive neuroectodermal tumor of bone, disease_disease with Ewing sarcoma/peripheral primitive neuroectodermal tumor of bone. Ewing sarcoma has relations: disease_disease with Ewing sarcoma/peripheral primitive neuroectodermal tumor, disease_disease with Ewing sarcoma/peripheral primitive neuroectodermal tumor. Definitions: Askin tumour defined as following: A primitive neuroectodermal tumor (small round blue cell tumor) of the thorax which can involve the periosteum, thoracic wall and/or pleura though it spares the lung parenchyma.. neuroectodermal tumour defined as following: Malignant neoplasms arising in the neuroectoderm, the portion of the ectoderm of the early embryo that gives rise to the central and peripheral nervous systems, including some glial cells.. peripheral neuroepithelioma defined as following: A small round cell tumor with neural differentiation arising from the bone. It may be associated with pain.. ESB defined as following: A family of enzymes that hydrolyze carboxylic esters.. DNA defined as following: A deoxyribonucleotide polymer that is the primary genetic material of all cells. Eukaryotic and prokaryotic organisms normally contain DNA in a double-stranded state, yet several important biological processes transiently involve single-stranded regions. DNA, which consists of a polysugar-phosphate backbone possessing projections of purines (adenine and guanine) and pyrimidines (thymine and cytosine), forms a double helix that is held together by hydrogen bonds between these purines and pyrimidines (adenine to thymine and guanine to cytosine).. lymphoma defined as following: A general term for various neoplastic diseases of the lymphoid tissue.. tumour defined as following: New abnormal growth of tissue. Malignant neoplasms show a greater degree of anaplasia and have the properties of invasion and metastasis, compared to benign neoplasms.. neurofilament defined as following: Neurofilament medium polypeptide (916 aa, ~102 kDa) is encoded by the human NEFM gene. This protein is involved in the regulation of neuronal process structure.. Ewing sarcoma defined as following: A small round cell tumor that lacks morphologic, immunohistochemical, and electron microscopic evidence of neuroectodermal differentiation. It represents one of the two ends of the spectrum called Ewing sarcoma/peripheral neuroectodermal tumor. It affects mostly males under age 20, and it can occur in soft tissue or bone. Pain and the presence of a mass are the most common clinical symptoms.. neuroepithelioma defined as following: A group of malignant tumors of the nervous system that feature primitive cells with elements of neuronal and/or glial differentiation. Use of this term is limited by some authors to central nervous system tumors and others include neoplasms of similar origin which arise extracranially (i.e., NEUROECTODERMAL TUMORS, PRIMITIVE, PERIPHERAL). This term is also occasionally used as a synonym for MEDULLOBLASTOMA. In general, these tumors arise in the first decade of life and tend to be highly malignant. (From DeVita et al., Cancer: Principles and Practice of Oncology, 5th ed, p2059). desmoplastic small round-cell tumor defined as following: A rare, aggressive soft tissue sarcoma that primarily affects adolescents and young adults. It is most commonly found in the abdomen.. soft tissues defined as following: A general term comprising tissue that is not hardened or calcified; including muscle, fat, blood vessels, nerves, tendons, ligaments and fascia.. peripheral neuroblastoma defined as following: A neuroblastoma arising from the peripheral nervous system.. rhabdomyosarcoma defined as following: A malignant mesenchymal tumor with skeletal muscle differentiation affecting the anus.. Ewing's sarcoma defined as following: A small round cell bone tumor that lacks morphologic, immunohistochemical, and electron microscopic evidence of neuroectodermal differentiation. It represents one of the two ends of the spectrum called Ewing sarcoma/peripheral neuroectodermal tumor. It often affects the diaphysis or metaphyseal-diaphyseal portion of long bones. Clinical findings include pain and a mass in the involved area. Fever, anemia, leukocytosis, and an increased sedimentation rate are often seen. X-ray examination reveals osteolytic lesions. The prognosis depends on the stage, anatomic location, and size of the tumor.. mesenchymal chondrosarcoma defined as following: A rare aggressive variant of chondrosarcoma, characterized by a biphasic histologic pattern of small compact cells intermixed with islands of cartilaginous matrix. Mesenchymal chondrosarcomas have a predilection for flat bones; long tubular bones are rarely affected. They tend to occur in the younger age group and are highly metastatic. (DeVita Jr et al., Cancer: Principles & Practice of Oncology, 3d ed, p1456). leukemia defined as following: A progressive, malignant disease of the blood-forming organs, characterized by distorted proliferation and development of leukocytes and their precursors in the blood and bone marrow. Leukemias were originally termed acute or chronic based on life expectancy but now are classified according to cellular maturity. Acute leukemias consist of predominately immature cells; chronic leukemias are composed of more mature cells. (From The Merck Manual, 2006). HNK-1 defined as following: A carbohydrate molecule that contains a sulfoglucuronyl residue and found predominantly on the surface of natural killer cells. It is involved in the modulation of cell-cell and cell-matrix interactions.. PNET defined as following: A group of highly cellular primitive round cell neoplasms which occur extracranially in soft tissue and bone and are derived from embryonal neural crest cells. These tumors occur primarily in children and adolescents and share a number of characteristics with EWING SARCOMA.. PNs defined as following: A minimally invasive form of electroanalgesia often used in neuropathic pain. For best effect, the stimulation is applied proximally to the site of the nerve lesion. (from White, Li, and Chiu). PN defined as following: The nervous system outside of the brain and spinal cord. The peripheral nervous system has autonomic and somatic divisions. The autonomic nervous system includes the enteric, parasympathetic, and sympathetic subdivisions. The somatic nervous system includes the cranial and spinal nerves and their ganglia and the peripheral sensory receptors.. neuroendocrine defined as following: A system of NEURONS that has the specialized function to produce and secrete HORMONES, and that constitutes, in whole or in part, an ENDOCRINE SYSTEM or organ.. peripheral defined as following: On or near an edge or constituting an outer boundary; the outer area.. cutaneous neuroendocrine carcinoma defined as following: A carcinoma arising from MERKEL CELLS located in the basal layer of the epidermis and occurring most commonly as a primary neuroendocrine carcinoma of the skin. Merkel cells are tactile cells of neuroectodermal origin and histologically show neurosecretory granules. The skin of the head and neck are a common site of Merkel cell carcinoma, occurring generally in elderly patients. (Holland et al., Cancer Medicine, 3d ed, p1245). S100 defined as following: Human S100A1 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 1q21 and is approximately 4 kb in length. This allele, which encodes protein S100-A1, is involved in the binding of zinc and calcium.. EWS gene defined as following: This gene may play a role in post-transcriptional regulation; however the function remains to be elucidated. Mutations in the gene result in Ewing sarcoma and other tumors..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_4434", "sentence1": "Is Satb1 a transcription factor?", "sentence2": "Special AT-rich sequence binding protein-1 (SATB1) is localized to the nucleus and remodels chromatin structure in T cells, chromatin organizers SATB2 and SATB1 , transcription factor complexes. These MYB complexes assemble aberrantly with LYL1, E2A, C/EBP family members, LMO2, and SATB1. , Staining for the transcription factors Foxp2, Satb1 and Satb2 labeled most ganglion cells in the avian ganglion cell layer.[SEP]Relations: Tat protein binding has relations: molfunc_protein with DNAJA1, molfunc_protein with DNAJA1, molfunc_protein with DNAJA1, molfunc_protein with DNAJA1, molfunc_protein with GABARAPL1, molfunc_protein with GABARAPL1, molfunc_protein with GABARAPL1, molfunc_protein with GABARAPL1. Protein S human has relations: drug_drug with Factor XIII (human), drug_drug with Factor XIII (human). Definitions: Satb1 defined as following: DNA-Binding Protein SATB1 (763 aa, ~86 kDa) is encoded by the human SATB1 gene. This protein binds DNA and may be involved in the regulation of transcription.. ganglion cells defined as following: A type of interneuron that conveys information to the brain.. LMO2 defined as following: Human LMO2 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 11p13 and is approximately 34 kb in length. This allele, which encodes rhombotin-2 protein, is involved in red blood cell development through the modulation of transcription by RNA polymerase II.. nucleus defined as following: The region of an atom that contains the protons and neutrons.. T cells defined as following: A subset of therapeutic autologous T-lymphocytes that express a T-cell receptor (TCR) composed of one gamma chain and one delta chain, with potential immunomodulating and antineoplastic activities. Upon administration of the therapeutic gamma delta T-lymphocytes, these cells secrete interferon-gamma (IFN-g), and exert direct killing of tumor cells. In addition, these cells activate the immune system to exert a cytotoxic T-lymphocyte (CTL) response against tumor cells. Gamma delta T-lymphocytes play a key role in the activation of the immune system and do not require major histocompatibility complex (MHC)-mediated antigen presentation to exert their cytotoxic effect.. LYL1 defined as following: Protein lyl-1 (280 aa, ~30 kDa) is encoded by the human LYL1 gene. This protein is involved in blood vessel maturation and transcriptional regulation.. Satb2 defined as following: DNA-binding protein SATB2 (733 aa, ~83 kDa) is encoded by the human SATB2 gene. This protein is involved in both DNA binding and transcriptional regulation.. chromatin defined as following: The ordered and organized complex of DNA, protein, and sometimes RNA, that forms the chromosome. [GOC:elh, PMID:20404130]. Foxp2 defined as following: This gene is involved in brain development.. E2A defined as following: Human TCF3 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 19p13.3 and is approximately 43 kb in length. This allele, which encodes transcription factor E2-alpha protein, plays a role in the mediation of embryological cell fate. Chromosomal aberrations involving the gene are associated with forms of pre-B-cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia.. transcription factor defined as following: Endogenous substances, usually proteins, which are effective in the initiation, stimulation, or termination of the genetic transcription process..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_3068", "sentence1": "Has the protein SIRT2 been associated to cervical cancer?", "sentence2": " A progressive increase in the expression of both SIRT2 and SIRT7 was noted during cancer progression in the following order: normal < preneoplasia < cancer., We demonstrate that treatment of cervical cancer cells with a RhoGDIα-derived K52-trifluoroacetylated, substrate-derived peptidic sirtuin inhibitor severely impairs cell proliferation. [SEP]Relations: PPP1R1A has relations: disease_protein with liver cancer, disease_protein with liver cancer, protein_protein with ACTA2, protein_protein with ACTA2, protein_protein with ZPBP2, protein_protein with ZPBP2, anatomy_protein_present with spinal cord, anatomy_protein_present with spinal cord. NAD-dependent protein deacetylase activity has relations: molfunc_protein with SIRT2, molfunc_protein with SIRT2. Definitions: SIRT7 defined as following: NAD-dependent protein deacetylase sirtuin-7 (400 aa, ~45 kDa) is encoded by the human SIRT7 gene. This protein plays a role in protein deacetylation.. SIRT2 defined as following: A sirtuin family member found primarily in the CYTOPLASM. It is a multifunctional enzyme that contains a NAD-dependent deacetylase activity that is specific for HISTONES and a mono-ADP-ribosyltransferase activity.. cervical cancer defined as following: A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the cervix..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_2140", "sentence1": "Is it feasible to obtain DNA read lengths that exceed 30 Kb?", "sentence2": "Single-molecule, real-time sequencing (SMRT) developed by Pacific BioSciences produces longer reads than secondary generation sequencing technologies such as Illumina. The long read length enables PacBio sequencing to close gaps in genome assembly, reveal structural variations, and identify gene isoforms with higher accuracy in transcriptomic sequencing., Third-generation sequencing, with read lengths>10 kb, will improve the assembly of complex genomes, but these techniques require high-molecular-weight genomic DNA (gDNA), and gDNA extraction protocols used for obtaining smaller fragments for short-read sequencing are not suitable for this purpose., The emergence and development of so called third generation sequencing platforms such as PacBio has permitted exceptionally long reads (over 20 kb) to be generated.[SEP]Definitions: genomic DNA defined as following: The DNA that is part of the normal chromosomal complement of an organism.. fragments defined as following: A physical quality in which the entity or structure is broken into pieces.. SMRT defined as following: Human NCOR2 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 12q24 and is approximately 194 kb in length. This allele, which encodes nuclear receptor corepressor 2 protein, plays a role in both chromatin structural alteration and transcriptional regulation.. genome assembly defined as following: An annotated assembly of genome sequences created by the assimilation of data pieces from numerous sources.. DNA defined as following: A deoxyribonucleotide polymer that is the primary genetic material of all cells. Eukaryotic and prokaryotic organisms normally contain DNA in a double-stranded state, yet several important biological processes transiently involve single-stranded regions. DNA, which consists of a polysugar-phosphate backbone possessing projections of purines (adenine and guanine) and pyrimidines (thymine and cytosine), forms a double helix that is held together by hydrogen bonds between these purines and pyrimidines (adenine to thymine and guanine to cytosine)..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_2871", "sentence1": "Are de novo mutations in regulatory elements responsible for neurodevelopmental disorders?", "sentence2": "The role of de novo mutations in regulatory elements affecting genes associated with developmental disorders, or other genes, has been essentially unexplored. We identified de novo mutations in three classes of putative regulatory elements in almost 8,000 patients with developmental disorders. Here we show that de novo mutations in highly evolutionarily conserved fetal brain-active elements are significantly and specifically enriched in neurodevelopmental disorders. We identified a significant twofold enrichment of recurrently mutated elements. We estimate that, genome-wide, 1-3% of patients without a diagnostic coding variant carry pathogenic de novo mutations in fetal brain-active regulatory elements and that only 0.15% of all possible mutations within highly conserved fetal brain-active elements cause neurodevelopmental disorders with a dominant mechanism., We estimate that, genome-wide, 1-3% of patients without a diagnostic coding variant carry pathogenic de novo mutations in fetal brain-active regulatory elements and that only 0.15% of all possible mutations within highly conserved fetal brain-active elements cause neurodevelopmental disorders with a dominant mechanism., Here we show that de novo mutations in highly evolutionarily conserved fetal brain-active elements are significantly and specifically enriched in neurodevelopmental disorders., We estimate that, genome-wide, 1-3% of patients without a diagnostic coding variant carry pathogenic de novo mutations in fetal brain-active regulatory elements and that only 0.15% of all possible mutations within highly conserved fetal brain-active elements cause neurodevelopmental disorders with a dominant mechanism. , Here we show that de novo mutations in highly evolutionarily conserved fetal brain-active elements are significantly and specifically enriched in neurodevelopmental disorders. , De novo mutations in regulatory elements in neurodevelopmental disorders.We previously estimated that 42% of patients with severe developmental disorders carry pathogenic de novo mutations in coding sequences. [SEP]Relations: complex neurodevelopmental disorder has relations: disease_disease with developmental and epileptic encephalopathy, disease_disease with developmental and epileptic encephalopathy, disease_disease with nervous system disorder, disease_disease with nervous system disorder, disease_disease with pervasive developmental disorder, disease_disease with pervasive developmental disorder, disease_disease with Prader-Willi syndrome, disease_disease with Prader-Willi syndrome. developmental disability has relations: disease_protein with NTRK2, disease_protein with NTRK2. Definitions: developmental disorders defined as following: Disorders in which there is a delay in development based on that expected for a given age level or stage of development. These impairments or disabilities originate before age 18, may be expected to continue indefinitely, and constitute a substantial impairment. Biological and nonbiological factors are involved in these disorders. (From American Psychiatric Glossary, 6th ed). fetal defined as following: Care provided the pregnant woman in order to prevent complications, and decrease the incidence of maternal and prenatal mortality.. genes defined as following: A category of nucleic acid sequences that function as units of heredity and which code for the basic instructions for the development, reproduction, and maintenance of organisms.. pathogenic defined as following: A genetic variant that is known to directly contribute to the development of disease.. mutations defined as following: The result of any gain, loss or alteration of the sequences comprising a gene, including all sequences transcribed into RNA.. neurodevelopmental disorders defined as following: A childhood disorder that has a neurological basis and manifests as a developmental disability..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_159", "sentence1": "Is glycyl-tRNA synthetase gene involved in the development of Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease?", "sentence2": "Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease type 2D (CMT2D) is an autosomal-dominant axonal peripheral neuropathy characterized by impaired motor and sensory function in the distal extremities. Mutations in the glycyl-tRNA synthetase (GARS) gene cause CMT2D, Dominant mutations in GARS cause rare forms of Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease and distal spinal muscular atrophy, Using exome sequencing she was found to harbor compound heterozygous mutations within the glycyl-tRNA synthetase (GARS) gene, mutations of human GlyRS (hGlyRS) were also found to be associated with Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease, Dominant mutations in GARS, encoding the essential enzyme glycyl-tRNA synthetase (GlyRS), result in a form of Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease, type 2D (CMT2D), predominantly characterized by lower motor nerve degeneration, A novel mutation in glycyl-tRNA synthetase caused Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease type 2D with facial and respiratory muscle involvement, Here we describe a 45-year-old woman with a long course of motor-dominant neuropathy. Distal weakness appeared in childhood and became worse with age. After a diagnosis of CMT type 2, the symptoms progressed, and in her fourth decade, facial and respiratory muscle weakness appeared, ultimately requiring non-invasive mechanical ventilation. There was no family history of CMT. Comprehensive analysis of known CMT-related genes revealed a novel heterozygous c.815T>A, p.L218Q mutation in glycyl-tRNA synthetase (GARS), a causative gene for both CMT type 2D (CMT2D) and distal spinal muscular atrophy type V (dSMA-V), Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease type 2D (CMT2D) is a dominantly inherited peripheral neuropathy caused by missense mutations in the glycyl-tRNA synthetase gene (GARS)., Long-range structural effects of a Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease-causing mutation in human glycyl-tRNA synthetase., Glycyl tRNA synthetase mutations in Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease type 2D and distal spinal muscular atrophy type V., [A novel mutation in glycyl-tRNA synthetase caused Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease type 2D with facial and respiratory muscle involvement]., Glycyl-tRNA synthetase (GARS), which encodes the enzyme responsible for charging tRNA(Gly) with glycine in both the cytoplasm and mitochondria, is implicated to Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease 2D (CMT2D) and distal hereditary motor neuropathy type V (dHMN-V)., These additional functions may explain why dominant mutations in glycyl-tRNA synthetase (GlyRS) and tyrosyl-tRNA synthetase cause Charcot-Marie-Tooth (CMT) disease, the most common heritable disease of the peripheral nervous system., Here, we report the identification of four disease-associated missense mutations in the glycyl tRNA synthetase gene in families with CMT2D and dSMA-V., Mutations in the glycyl-tRNA synthetase (GARS) gene cause CMT2D., Of the many inherited Charcot-Marie-Tooth peripheral neuropathies, type 2D (CMT2D) is caused by dominant point mutations in the gene GARS, encoding glycyl tRNA synthetase (GlyRS)., Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease type 2D (CMT2D) is a dominantly inherited peripheral neuropathy caused by missense mutations in the glycyl-tRNA synthetase gene (GARS), Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease type 2D is a hereditary axonal and glycyl-tRNA synthetase (GARS)-associated neuropathy that is caused by a mutation in GARS, Long-range structural effects of a Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease-causing mutation in human glycyl-tRNA synthetase, These additional functions may explain why dominant mutations in glycyl-tRNA synthetase (GlyRS) and tyrosyl-tRNA synthetase cause Charcot-Marie-Tooth (CMT) disease, the most common heritable disease of the peripheral nervous system, A novel mutation in glycyl-tRNA synthetase caused Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease type 2D with facial and respiratory muscle involvement., Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease type 2D (CMT2D) is a dominantly inherited peripheral neuropathy caused by missense mutations in the glycyl-tRNA synthetase gene (GARS). , Mutations in the glycyl-tRNA synthetase (GARS) gene cause CMT2D. , An ENU-induced mutation in mouse glycyl-tRNA synthetase (GARS) causes peripheral sensory and motor phenotypes creating a model of Charcot-Marie-Tooth type 2D peripheral neuropathy., We previously implicated mutations in the gene encoding glycyl-tRNA synthetase (GARS) as the cause of CMT2D and dSMA-V. , An active dominant mutation of glycyl-tRNA synthetase causes neuropathy in a Charcot-Marie-Tooth 2D mouse model., Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease type 2D is a hereditary axonal and glycyl-tRNA synthetase (GARS)-associated neuropathy that is caused by a mutation in GARS. , Dominant mutations in GARS, encoding the essential enzyme glycyl-tRNA synthetase (GlyRS), result in a form of Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease, type 2D (CMT2D), predominantly characterized by lower motor nerve degeneration. , Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease type 2D (CMT2D) is a dominantly inherited peripheral neuropathy caused by missense mutations in the glycyl-tRNA synthetase gene (GARS). In addition to GARS, mutations in three other tRNA synthetase genes cause similar neuropathies, although the underlying mechanisms are not fully understood., These additional functions may explain why dominant mutations in glycyl-tRNA synthetase (GlyRS) and tyrosyl-tRNA synthetase cause Charcot-Marie-Tooth (CMT) disease,, Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease type 2D (CMT2D) is an autosomal-dominant axonal peripheral neuropathy characterized by impaired motor and sensory function in the distal extremities. Mutations in the glycyl-tRNA synthetase (GARS) gene cause CMT2D., Of the many inherited Charcot-Marie-Tooth peripheral neuropathies, type 2D (CMT2D) is caused by dominant point mutations in the gene GARS, encoding glycyl tRNA synthetase (GlyRS)., Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease type 2D (CMT2D) is a dominantly inherited peripheral neuropathy caused by missense mutations in the glycyl-tRNA synthetase gene (GARS)., Long-range structural effects of a Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease-causing mutation in human glycyl-tRNA synthetase., Glycyl tRNA synthetase mutations in Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease type 2D and distal spinal muscular atrophy type V., These additional functions may explain why dominant mutations in glycyl-tRNA synthetase (GlyRS) and tyrosyl-tRNA synthetase cause Charcot-Marie-Tooth (CMT) disease, the most common heritable disease of the peripheral nervous system., A novel mutation in glycyl-tRNA synthetase caused Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease type 2D with facial and respiratory muscle involvement., An active dominant mutation of glycyl-tRNA synthetase causes neuropathy in a Charcot-Marie-Tooth 2D mouse model., Glycyl-tRNA synthetase (GARS), which encodes the enzyme responsible for charging tRNA(Gly) with glycine in both the cytoplasm and mitochondria, is implicated to Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease 2D (CMT2D) and distal hereditary motor neuropathy type V (dHMN-V).[SEP]Relations: Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease has relations: disease_protein with GDAP1, disease_protein with GDAP1, disease_protein with GDAP1, disease_protein with GDAP1, disease_protein with LMNA, disease_protein with LMNA, disease_protein with LMNA, disease_protein with LMNA, disease_protein with PNPLA6, disease_protein with PNPLA6. Definitions: glycyl tRNA synthetase defined as following: An enzyme that activates glycine with its specific transfer RNA. EC 6.1.1.14.. mitochondria defined as following: Semiautonomous, self-reproducing organelles that occur in the cytoplasm of all cells of most, but not all, eukaryotes. Each mitochondrion is surrounded by a double limiting membrane. The inner membrane is highly invaginated, and its projections are called cristae. Mitochondria are the sites of the reactions of oxidative phosphorylation, which result in the formation of ATP. They contain distinctive RIBOSOMES, transfer RNAs (RNA, TRANSFER); AMINO ACYL T RNA SYNTHETASES; and elongation and termination factors. Mitochondria depend upon genes within the nucleus of the cells in which they reside for many essential messenger RNAs (RNA, MESSENGER). Mitochondria are believed to have arisen from aerobic bacteria that established a symbiotic relationship with primitive protoeukaryotes. (King & Stansfield, A Dictionary of Genetics, 4th ed). Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease type 2D defined as following: Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. It is caused by mutations in the GARS gene. It results in axonal peripheral neuropathy.. Mutations defined as following: The result of any gain, loss or alteration of the sequences comprising a gene, including all sequences transcribed into RNA.. neuropathy defined as following: A disorder affecting the cranial nerves or the peripheral nervous system. It manifests with pain, tingling, numbness, and muscle weakness. It may be the result of physical injury, toxic substances, viral diseases, diabetes, renal failure, cancer, and drugs.. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease defined as following: A hereditary motor and sensory neuropathy transmitted most often as an autosomal dominant trait and characterized by progressive distal wasting and loss of reflexes in the muscles of the legs (and occasionally involving the arms). Onset is usually in the second to fourth decade of life. This condition has been divided into two subtypes, hereditary motor and sensory neuropathy (HMSN) types I and II. HMSN I is associated with abnormal nerve conduction velocities and nerve hypertrophy, features not seen in HMSN II. (Adams et al., Principles of Neurology, 6th ed, p1343). distal hereditary motor neuropathy type V defined as following: A rare autosomal dominant distal hereditary motor neuropathy disease characterized by muscle weakness and wasting predominantly affecting the hands, in particular the thenar and first dorsal interosseus muscles, and/or marked foot deformity and gait disturbance. Sensation is normal, although reduced response to vibration has been described. The disease is slowly progressive with an age of onset within the first few decades of life.. cytoplasm defined as following: The part of a cell that contains the CYTOSOL and small structures excluding the CELL NUCLEUS; MITOCHONDRIA; and large VACUOLES. (Glick, Glossary of Biochemistry and Molecular Biology, 1990). CMT defined as following: brand name of choline magnesium trisalicylate. genes defined as following: A category of nucleic acid sequences that function as units of heredity and which code for the basic instructions for the development, reproduction, and maintenance of organisms.. point mutations defined as following: A mutation caused by the substitution of one nucleotide for another. This results in the DNA molecule having a change in a single base pair.. mutation defined as following: Any transmissible change in the genetic material of an organism, which can result from radiation, viral infection, transposition, treatment with mutagenic chemicals and errors during DNA replication or meiosis. The effects of mutation range from single base changes to loss or gain of complete chromosomes. As many of the simpler alterations to DNA may be repaired, such changes are only heritable once the change is fixed in the DNA by the process of replication. Mutations may be associated with genetic diversity or with pathologies including cancer.. glycyl-tRNA synthetase gene defined as following: Human GARS1 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 7p14.3 and is approximately 39 kb in length. This allele, which encodes glycine-tRNA ligase protein, is involved in the synthesis of glycyl-tRNA. Mutation of the gene is associated with type 2D Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease and distal hereditary motor neuropathy, type Va..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_4001", "sentence1": "Should nerinetide be used for treatment of ischaemic stroke?", "sentence2": "337 (61·4%) of 549 patients with nerinetide and 329 (59·2%) of 556 with placebo achieved an mRS score of 0-2 at 90 days (adjusted risk ratio 1·04, 95% CI 0·96-1·14; p=0·35). Secondary outcomes were similar between groups., INTERPRETATION: Nerinetide did not improve the proportion of patients achieving good clinical outcomes after endovascular thrombectomy compared with patients receiving placebo.[SEP]Definitions: ischaemic stroke defined as following: An acute episode of focal cerebral, spinal, or retinal dysfunction caused by infarction of brain tissue..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_4100", "sentence1": "Are synonymous sites in primates and rodents functionally constrained?", "sentence2": "To resolve this contradiction between expectations and observations, we used processed pseudogenes as a model for strict neutral evolution, and estimated selective constraint on synonymous sites using the rate of substitution at pseudosynonymous and pseudononsynonymous sites in pseudogenes as the neutral expectation. After controlling for the effects of GC content, our results were similar to those from previous studies, i.e., synonymous sites in primates exhibited evidence for higher selective constraint that those in rodents. Specifically, our results indicated that in primates up to 24% of synonymous sites could be under purifying selection, while in rodents synonymous sites evolved neutrally. [SEP]Definitions: rodents defined as following: A mammalian order which consists of 29 families and many genera.. pseudogenes defined as following: Genes bearing close resemblance to known genes at different loci, but rendered non-functional by additions or deletions in structure that prevent normal transcription or translation. When lacking introns and containing a poly-A segment near the downstream end (as a result of reverse copying from processed nuclear RNA into double-stranded DNA), they are called processed genes.. substitution defined as following:Definition: Indicates that the subject Act has undergone or should undergo substitution of a type indicated by Act.code.
Rationale: Used to specify \"allowed\" substitution when creating orders, \"actual\" susbstitution when sending events, as well as the reason for the substitution and who was responsible for it.
. primates defined as following: An order of mammals consisting of more than 300 species that include LEMURS; LORISIDAE; TARSIERS; MONKEYS; and HOMINIDS. They are characterized by a relatively large brain when compared with other terrestrial mammals, forward-facing eyes, the presence of a CALCARINE SULCUS, and specialized MECHANORECEPTORS in the hands and feet which allow the perception of light touch..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_2433", "sentence1": "Does Enzastaurin improve survival of glioblastoma patients?", "sentence2": "RESULTS: fourteen randomized clinical trials were identified (7 with bevacizumab, 2 cilengitide, 1 enzastaurin, 1 dasatinib, 1 vandetanib, 1 temsirolimus, 1 cediranib) including 4330 patients. Antiangiogenic drugs showed no improvement in overall survival with a pooled HR of 1.00, a trend for an inferior outcome, in terms of overall survival, was observed in the group of patients receiving antiangiogenic drug alone compared to cytotoxic drug alone (HR=1.24, p=0.056). , Enzastaurin (LY317615) in combination with bevacizumab for recurrent malignant gliomas is well-tolerated, with response and progression-free survival similar to bevacizumab monotherapy., So far, inhibition of angiogenesis by compounds such as bevacizumab, cediranib, enzastaurin or cilengitide as well as alternative dosing schedules of temozolomide did not prolong survival, neither at primary diagnosis nor at recurrent disease., Despite promising phase II clinical trial results and patient benefit in terms of clinical improvement and longer progression-free survival, an overall survival benefit has not been demonstrated in four randomized phase III trials of bevacizumab or cilengitide in newly diagnosed glioblastoma or cediranib or enzastaurin in recurrent glioblastoma., EXPERT OPINION: Enzastaurin and cediranib failed in randomized Phase III trials in recurrent glioblastoma, aflibercept in Phase II. , Enzastaurin was well tolerated and had a better hematologic toxicity profile but did not have superior efficacy compared with lomustine in patients with recurrent glioblastoma., Grade 3 to 4 hematologic toxicities were significantly higher with lomustine (46 events) than with enzastaurin (one event; P < or = .001).Respond with exceptions, completions and modifications or revisions done before completion
. organisms defined as following: A living entity.. nucleus defined as following: Within a eukaryotic cell, a membrane-limited body which contains chromosomes and one or more nucleoli (CELL NUCLEOLUS). The nuclear membrane consists of a double unit-type membrane which is perforated by a number of pores; the outermost membrane is continuous with the ENDOPLASMIC RETICULUM. A cell may contain more than one nucleus. (From Singleton & Sainsbury, Dictionary of Microbiology and Molecular Biology, 2d ed). dimer defined as following: compound formed by the union of two radicals or two molecules of a simpler compound; a polymer formed from two molecules of a monomer.. coding region defined as following: A sequence of successive nucleotide triplets that are read as CODONS specifying AMINO ACIDS and begin with an INITIATOR CODON and end with a stop codon (CODON, TERMINATOR)..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_1871", "sentence1": "Can NEECHAM Confusion Scale be used for evaluation of postoperative delirium?", "sentence2": "Sampling was achieved in a nonrandomized targeted manner and delirium was assessed using NeeCham questionnaire. , Delirium in older patients: a diagnostic study of NEECHAM Confusion Scale in surgical intensive care unit., AIMS AND OBJECTIVES: To estimate the diagnostic value and determine the feasibility of the NEECHAM Confusion Scale on critically ill older patients., CONCLUSIONS: Findings from this study confirm the good diagnostic value and ease of application of the NEECHAM scale with nonventilated intensive care patients.RELEVANCE TO CLINICAL PRACTICE: The NEECHAM scale can be used to detect delirium during the routine nursing assessment of nonintubated older patients as it requires minimal demand and stress on the patient as well as on the bedside nurse., The NEECHAM Confusion Scale and the validated chart review instrument were used for diagnosis of delirium. , Among the various screening instruments, NEECHAM confusion scale and delirium observation scale appear to be most suitable screening instrument for patients' in general medical and surgical wards, depending on the type of rater (physician or nurse). , Use of NEECHAM scaling enabled medical staff to identify cases of possible confusion early, indicating that the NEECHAM confusion scale should be useful for the detection of postoperative delirium and confusion in the surgical ward., Early detection of postoperative delirium and confusion in a surgical ward using the NEECHAM confusion scale., In this study, we investigated whether the early detection of postoperative delirium in elderly patients is possible using a simple, useful behavior-assessing scale, the NEECHAM Confusion Scale, and a method for comprehensively evaluating elderly persons' stress related to surgery, E-PASS., Assessment of the risk of postoperative delirium in elderly patients using E-PASS and the NEECHAM Confusion Scale., The aim of this study was to determine which of the two delirium observation screening scales, the NEECHAM Confusion Scale or the Delirium Observation Screening (DOS) scale, has the best discriminative capacity for diagnosing delirium and which is more practical for daily use by nurses., For delirium diagnosis and severity assessment, we used the NEECHAM Confusion Scale., Use of NEECHAM scaling enabled medical staff to identify cases of possible confusion early, indicating that the NEECHAM confusion scale should be useful for the detection of postoperative delirium and confusion in the surgical ward., The NEECHAM Confusion Scale was performed upon admission and prior to discharge.RESULTS: The incidence of DSM-IV related delirium was 24%., A comparison of the CAM-ICU and the NEECHAM Confusion Scale in intensive care delirium assessment: an observational study in non-intubated patients., Predictive value and validation of the NEECHAM Confusion Scale using DSM-IV criteria for delirium as gold standard., Early detection of postoperative delirium and confusion in a surgical ward using the NEECHAM confusion scale, The aim of this study was to determine which of the two delirium observation screening scales, the NEECHAM Confusion Scale or the Delirium Observation Screening (DOS) scale, has the best discriminative capacity for diagnosing delirium and which is more practical for daily use by nurses.The project was conducted on four wards of a university hospital; 87 patients were included, In addition, we scored the participants on the NEECHAM Scale and evaluated their postoperative delirium and postoperative arrhythmia.On the nights of Days 4 and 5, the amount of activity of the exposure group was significantly lower and The sympathetic nervous index was significantly lower on the night of Day 5, In this study, we investigated whether the early detection of postoperative delirium in elderly patients is possible using a simple, useful behavior-assessing scale, the NEECHAM Confusion Scale, and a method for comprehensively evaluating elderly persons' stress related to surgery, E-PASS. , The cut-off value of the NEECHAM score was established as 20 points, and patients showing values less than this after surgery were regarded as having postoperative delirium. , Identification of delirium was based on evaluation of the level of consciousness with the NEECHAM Confusion Scale and/or a chart-based instrument for delirium., For delirium diagnosis and severity assessment, we used the NEECHAM Confusion Scale., In this study, we investigated whether the early detection of postoperative delirium in elderly patients is possible using a simple, useful behavior-assessing scale, the NEECHAM Confusion Scale, and a method for comprehensively evaluating elderly persons' stress related to surgery, E-PASS.The subjects were 160 patients aged more than 75 years who underwent surgery., In this study a nursing screening instrument, the NEECHAM confusion scale, was studied for early recognition of delirium ICU patients., The psychometric characteristics and the ease of use of the NEECHAM confusion scale enables ICU nurses to early recognize delirium., The trends of the NEECHAM scores in the 3 groups were compared, and the relationship between the NEECHAM scores and suspected clinical risk factors for delirium was investigated., In groups showing an MMSE score of less than 25 or a preoperative NEECHAM score of less than 27, the incidence of postoperative delirium was 76%.CONCLUSION: The results suggest that E-PASS and the NEECHAM score facilitate assessment of the risk of postoperative delirium in elderly patients, contributing to early prevention/treatment., In this study, we investigated whether the early detection of postoperative delirium in elderly patients is possible using a simple, useful behavior-assessing scale, the NEECHAM Confusion Scale, and a method for comprehensively evaluating elderly persons' stress related to surgery, E-PASS., Use of NEECHAM scaling enabled medical staff to identify cases of possible confusion early, indicating that the NEECHAM confusion scale should be useful for the detection of postoperative delirium and confusion in the surgical ward.., Early detection of postoperative delirium and confusion in a surgical ward using the NEECHAM confusion scale., Assessment of the risk of postoperative delirium in elderly patients using E-PASS and the NEECHAM Confusion Scale., For delirium diagnosis and severity assessment, we used the NEECHAM Confusion Scale., The Neecham Confusion Scale and the Delirium Observation Screening Scale: capacity to discriminate and ease of use in clinical practice., The aim of this study was to determine which of the two delirium observation screening scales, the NEECHAM Confusion Scale or the Delirium Observation Screening (DOS) scale, has the best discriminative capacity for diagnosing delirium and which is more practical for daily use by nurses.[SEP]Relations: delirium has relations: contraindication with Trolnitrate, contraindication with Trolnitrate, disease_disease with cognitive disorder, disease_disease with cognitive disorder, disease_disease with subacute delirium, disease_disease with subacute delirium, contraindication with Tacrolimus, contraindication with Tacrolimus, contraindication with Olanzapine, contraindication with Olanzapine. Definitions: delirium defined as following: A disorder characterized by CONFUSION; inattentiveness; disorientation; ILLUSIONS; HALLUCINATIONS; agitation; and in some instances autonomic nervous system overactivity. It may result from toxic/metabolic conditions or structural brain lesions. (From Adams et al., Principles of Neurology, 6th ed, pp411-2). postoperative delirium defined as following: A form of DELIRIUM which occurs after GENERAL ANESTHESIA.. critically ill defined as following: A disease or state in which death is possible or imminent..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_2096", "sentence1": "Is Cryptococcus neoformans a frequent cause of isolated skin infections in immunocompromised individuals", "sentence2": " Cryptococcus is an opportunistic yeast with a worldwide distribution that primarily causes significant infections in immunocompromised individuals, generally by affecting the respiratory tract. But primary cutaneous cryptococcosis (PCC) without systemic infection is rare. , Cryptococcus is a ubiquitous fungus and is known for causing meningitis and cutaneous infections in immunocompromised individuals., Cryptococcus neoformans is an encapsulated yeast that can cause primary pulmonary infections or disseminate and cause infections of the central nervous system, meninges, skin, and bone in the immunocompromised host., The authors report a male patient, a seller with no detected immunosuppression, with an extensive ulcerated skin lesion localized on the left forearm, caused by Cryptococcus neoformans var.[SEP]Relations: Recurrent skin infections has relations: phenotype_phenotype with Recurrent bacterial skin infections, phenotype_phenotype with Recurrent bacterial skin infections, phenotype_phenotype with Recurrent viral skin infections, phenotype_phenotype with Recurrent viral skin infections, phenotype_phenotype with Recurrent cutaneous fungal infections, phenotype_phenotype with Recurrent cutaneous fungal infections, disease_phenotype_positive with immunodeficiency, disease_phenotype_positive with immunodeficiency, disease_phenotype_positive with acquired ichthyosis, disease_phenotype_positive with acquired ichthyosis. Definitions: yeast defined as following: A species of the genus SACCHAROMYCES, family Saccharomycetaceae, order Saccharomycetales, known as \"baker's\" or \"brewer's\" yeast. The dried form is used as a dietary supplement.. Cryptococcus neoformans defined as following: An acute or chronic, localized or disseminated infection by Cryptococcus neoformans. Sites of involvement include the lungs, central nervous system and meninges, skin, and visceral organs.--2004. systemic infection defined as following: Systemic inflammatory response syndrome with a proven or suspected infectious etiology. When sepsis is associated with organ dysfunction distant from the site of infection, it is called severe sepsis. When sepsis is accompanied by HYPOTENSION despite adequate fluid infusion, it is called SEPTIC SHOCK.. meningitis defined as following: Inflammation of the coverings of the brain and/or spinal cord, which consist of the PIA MATER; ARACHNOID; and DURA MATER. Infections (viral, bacterial, and fungal) are the most common causes of this condition, but subarachnoid hemorrhage (HEMORRHAGES, SUBARACHNOID), chemical irritation (chemical MENINGITIS), granulomatous conditions, neoplastic conditions (CARCINOMATOUS MENINGITIS), and other inflammatory conditions may produce this syndrome. (From Joynt, Clinical Neurology, 1994, Ch24, p6). meninges defined as following: The three membranes that cover the BRAIN and the SPINAL CORD. They are the dura mater, the arachnoid, and the pia mater.. cutaneous infections defined as following: Infections of the skin that happen multiple times. [HPO:curators]. skin infections defined as following: Skin diseases caused by bacteria, fungi, parasites, or viruses..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_1408", "sentence1": "Could Catecholaminergic Polymorphic Ventricular Tachycardia (CPVT) cause sudden cardiac death?", "sentence2": "Here we refine our approach, and apply it to novel variants found in 2266 patients across two large cohorts with inherited sudden death syndromes, namely catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (CPVT) or Brugada syndrome (BrS)., Calsequestrin-associated catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (CPVT2) can cause sudden death in young individuals in response to stress. , Catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (CPVT) is an inherited arrhythmogenic cardiac disorder characterized by life-threatening arrhythmias induced by physical or emotional stress, in the absence structural heart abnormalities. The arrhythmias may cause syncope or degenerate into cardiac arrest and sudden death which usually occurs during childhood, In many cases the cause of death can be elucidated by medico-legal autopsy, however, a significant number of these cases remain unexplained despite a detailed postmortem investigation and are labeled as sudden unexplained death (SUD). Post-mortem genetic testing, so called molecular autopsy, revealed that primary arrhythmogenic disorders including long QT syndrome and catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (CPVT) may account for a certain number of these cases., We report a family with repeat events of sudden cardiac death and recurrent ventricular fibrillation in a teenage girl, where autopsy data and clinical investigations were inconclusive. The diagnosis of catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (CPVT) was established only following finding a gene mutation in the cardiac ryano, Catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (CPVT) is a devastating inherited disorder characterized by episodic syncope and/or sudden cardiac arrest during exercise or acute emotion in individuals without structural cardiac abnormalities. Although rare, CPVT is suspected to cause a substantial part of sudden cardiac deaths in young individuals. , In conclusion, patients with CASQ2-associated CPVT should be recommended to receive ICDs to prevent sudden death when medical therapy is not effective., Cardiac channelopathies associated with structurally normal hearts such as long QT syndrome (LQTS), catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (CPVT), and Brugada syndrome (BrS) yield no evidence to be found at autopsy, leaving coroners, medical examiners, and forensic pathologists only to speculate that a lethal arrhythmia might lie at the heart of a sudden unexplained death (SUD)., Catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (CPVT) is a rare adrenergically mediated arrhythmogenic disorder classically induced by exercise or emotional stress and found in structurally normal hearts. It is an important cause of cardiac syncope and sudden death in childhood., We also compare CPVT to other notable cardiomyopathic and channelopathic causes of sudden death in youth including hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia, long QT syndrome, short QT syndrome, and Brugada syndrome., Catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (CPVT) is an inherited arrhythmogenic disease that can cause sudden cardiac death due to ventricular fibrillation (VF)., Catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (CPVT) is an arrhythmogenic disease that manifests as syncope or sudden death during high adrenergic tone in the absence of structural heart defects., Catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (CPVT) is a cardiac channelopathy characterized by altered intracellular calcium handling resulting in ventricular arrhythmias and high risk of cardiac sudden death in young cases with normal structural hearts, Early detection of CPVT is crucial because opportune medical intervention prevents sudden cardiac death. , If untreated, CPVT is highly lethal, as approximately 30% of affected individuals experience at least one cardiac arrest and up to 80% one or more syncopal spells. Sudden death may be the first manifestation of the disease. , Hereditary non-structural diseases such as catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (CPVT), long QT, and the Brugada syndrome as well as structural disease such as hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) and arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy (ARVC) cause a significant percentage of sudden cardiac deaths in the young, Patients with CPVT present with exercise-induced syncope and sudden cardiac death but normal resting electrocardiograms., Although structural cardiovascular abnormalities explain most cases of sudden cardiac death in young people, the cause of death remains unexplained after autopsy in 10% to 30% of cases. Potentially lethal ion channel disorders (channelopathies) such as the long QT syndromes (LQTS), catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (CPVT), and the Brugada syndrome (BrS) may account for at least one-third of these unexplained cases. , Based on these data, we propose that CPVT is a combined neurocardiac disorder in which leaky RyR2 channels in the brain cause epilepsy, and the same leaky channels in the heart cause exercise-induced sudden cardiac death., The inherited arrhythmogenic diseases associated with the transmembranous ionic channels, anchoring proteins or intracellular calcium regulating proteins are thought to be responsible for sudden cardiac death in infants, children, and young adults who have structurally normal hearts. Recent genetic analyses have identified congenital diseases such as the long-QT syndrome (LQTS), the Jervell and Lange-Nielsen syndrome (JLNS), the Brugada syndrome (BrS), the short-QT syndrome (SQTS), the arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy type 2 (ARVC2), and the catecholamine-induced polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (CPVT) /familial polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (FPVT). , At least some cases of sudden, unexplained death in young individuals may be ascribed to CPVT[SEP]Relations: catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia has relations: disease_phenotype_positive with Sudden cardiac death, disease_phenotype_positive with Sudden cardiac death, disease_phenotype_positive with Sudden death, disease_phenotype_positive with Sudden death, disease_phenotype_positive with Cardiac arrest, disease_phenotype_positive with Cardiac arrest. Sudden cardiac death has relations: disease_phenotype_positive with catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia, disease_phenotype_positive with catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia. Sudden death has relations: disease_phenotype_positive with catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia, disease_phenotype_positive with catecholaminergic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia. Definitions: BrS defined as following: A scale developed by Smith, et al, designed to assess an individual's ability to recover from stressful circumstances.. cardiac abnormalities defined as following: Developmental abnormalities involving structures of the heart. These defects are present at birth but may be discovered later in life.. CPVT2 defined as following: An autosomal recessive condition caused by mutation(s) in the CASQ2 gene, encoding calsequestrin-2. It is characterized by a relative resting bradycardia and a slight prolongation of the QTc interval. Polymorphic ventricular tachycardia may be induced with exercise stress testing or isoproterenol infusion.. arrhythmia defined as following: Any disturbances of the normal rhythmic beating of the heart or MYOCARDIAL CONTRACTION. Cardiac arrhythmias can be classified by the abnormalities in HEART RATE, disorders of electrical impulse generation, or impulse conduction.. epilepsy defined as following: A disorder characterized by recurrent episodes of paroxysmal brain dysfunction due to a sudden, disorderly, and excessive neuronal discharge. Epilepsy classification systems are generally based upon: (1) clinical features of the seizure episodes (e.g., motor seizure), (2) etiology (e.g., post-traumatic), (3) anatomic site of seizure origin (e.g., frontal lobe seizure), (4) tendency to spread to other structures in the brain, and (5) temporal patterns (e.g., nocturnal epilepsy). (From Adams et al., Principles of Neurology, 6th ed, p313). ICDs defined as following: Implantable devices which continuously monitor the electrical activity of the heart and automatically detect and terminate ventricular tachycardia (TACHYCARDIA, VENTRICULAR) and VENTRICULAR FIBRILLATION. They consist of an impulse generator, batteries, and electrodes.. ventricular arrhythmias defined as following: A disorder characterized by an electrocardiographic finding of an atypical cardiac rhythm resulting from a pathologic process in the cardiac ventricles.. sudden death defined as following: The abrupt cessation of all vital bodily functions, manifested by the permanent loss of total cerebral, respiratory, and cardiovascular functions.. cardiac arrest defined as following: Cessation of heart beat or MYOCARDIAL CONTRACTION. If it is treated within a few minutes, heart arrest can be reversed in most cases to normal cardiac rhythm and effective circulation.. proteins defined as following: Linear POLYPEPTIDES that are synthesized on RIBOSOMES and may be further modified, crosslinked, cleaved, or assembled into complex proteins with several subunits. The specific sequence of AMINO ACIDS determines the shape the polypeptide will take, during PROTEIN FOLDING, and the function of the protein.. HCM defined as following: A form of CARDIAC MUSCLE disease, characterized by left and/or right ventricular hypertrophy (HYPERTROPHY, LEFT VENTRICULAR; HYPERTROPHY, RIGHT VENTRICULAR), frequent asymmetrical involvement of the HEART SEPTUM, and normal or reduced left ventricular volume. Risk factors include HYPERTENSION; AORTIC STENOSIS; and gene MUTATION; (FAMILIAL HYPERTROPHIC CARDIOMYOPATHY).. sudden cardiac death defined as following: Unexpected rapid natural death due to cardiovascular collapse within one hour of initial symptoms. It is usually caused by the worsening of existing heart diseases. The sudden onset of symptoms, such as CHEST PAIN and CARDIAC ARRHYTHMIAS, particularly VENTRICULAR TACHYCARDIA, can lead to the loss of consciousness and cardiac arrest followed by biological death. (from Braunwald's Heart Disease: A Textbook of Cardiovascular Medicine, 7th ed., 2005). polymorphic defined as following: The quality or state of being able to assume different forms.. SQTS defined as following: Ventricular tachyarrhythmias occurring in association with short QT syndrome.. congenital diseases defined as following: existing at, and usually before, birth; referring to conditions that are present at birth, regardless of their causation; inborn metabolism disorders are generally not treed here.. arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy defined as following: A congenital cardiomyopathy that is characterized by infiltration of adipose and fibrous tissue into the RIGHT VENTRICLE wall and loss of myocardial cells. Primary injuries usually are at the free wall of right ventricular and right atria resulting in ventricular and supraventricular arrhythmias.. cardiovascular abnormalities defined as following: Congenital, inherited, or acquired anomalies of the CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM, including the HEART and BLOOD VESSELS.. calcium defined as following: A dietary supplement containing the mineral calcium.. long QT syndrome defined as following: A condition that is characterized by episodes of fainting (SYNCOPE) and varying degree of ventricular arrhythmia as indicated by the prolonged QT interval. The inherited forms are caused by mutation of genes encoding cardiac ion channel proteins. The two major forms are ROMANO-WARD SYNDROME and JERVELL-LANGE NIELSEN SYNDROME.. ventricular tachycardia defined as following: An electrocardiographic finding of three or more consecutive complexes of ventricular organ with a rate greater than a certain threshold (100 or 120 beats per minute are commonly used). The QRS complexes are wide and have an abnormal morphology. (CDISC). ventricular fibrillation defined as following: An electrocardiographic finding of a rapid grossly irregular ventricular rhythm with marked variability in QRS cycle length, morphology, and amplitude. The rate is typically greater than 300 bpm. (CDISC). Brugada syndrome defined as following: An autosomal dominant defect of cardiac conduction that is characterized by an abnormal ST-segment in leads V1-V3 on the ELECTROCARDIOGRAM resembling a right BUNDLE-BRANCH BLOCK; high risk of VENTRICULAR TACHYCARDIA; or VENTRICULAR FIBRILLATION; SYNCOPAL EPISODE; and possible sudden death. This syndrome is linked to mutations of gene encoding the cardiac SODIUM CHANNEL alpha subunit.. sudden cardiac arrest defined as following: Sudden suspension of cardiac activity that is usually due to ARRHYTHMIA, in contrast to heart attack (MYOCARDIAL INFARCTION) which occurs due to blockage. The sudden suspension of cardiac activity generally requires RESUSCITATION.. variants defined as following: An alteration or difference from a norm or standard.. gene mutation defined as following: A change in the nucleotide sequence of the TAF1 gene.. cardiac channelopathy defined as following: A disorder that affects the myocardial ion channels, altering the electrical properties of the heart and changing the ECG and/or predisposing the subject to pro-arrhythmic events.. channelopathies defined as following: A variety of neuromuscular conditions resulting from MUTATIONS in ION CHANNELS manifesting as episodes of EPILEPSY; HEADACHE DISORDERS; and DYSKINESIAS.. LQTS defined as following: A rare group of genetic, cardiac rhythm diseases characterized by a prolongation of the QT interval at basal electrocardiography (ECG) and by a high risk of life-threatening arrhythmias.. CPVT defined as following: An electrocardiographic finding of ventricular tachycardia that is associated with syncope and/or cardiac arrest triggered by emotion or exercise in patients whose baseline ECG is normal. (ACC). Lange-Nielsen syndrome defined as following: A form of long QT syndrome that is associated with congenital deafness. It is characterized by abnormal cardioelectrophysiology involving the VOLTAGE-GATED POTASSIUM CHANNEL. It results from mutation of KCNQ1 gene (Subtype 1 or JLN1) or the KCNE1 gene (Subtype 2 or JLN2).. Ventricular Tachycardia defined as following: An electrocardiographic finding of three or more consecutive complexes of ventricular organ with a rate greater than a certain threshold (100 or 120 beats per minute are commonly used). The QRS complexes are wide and have an abnormal morphology. (CDISC).", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_509", "sentence1": "Is phospholamban a regulatory/inhibitory protein of the Ca ATPase SERCA?", "sentence2": "The membrane protein complex between the sarcoplasmic reticulum Ca(2+)-ATPase (SERCA) and phospholamban (PLN) controls Ca(2+) transport in cardiomyocytes, thereby modulating cardiac contractility. β-Adrenergic-stimulated phosphorylation of PLN at Ser-16 enhances SERCA activity via an unknown mechanism., Phospholamban (PLN) is a type II membrane protein that inhibits the sarcoplasmic reticulum Ca(2+)-ATPase (SERCA), thereby regulating calcium homeostasis in cardiac muscle. In membranes, PLN forms pentamers that have been proposed to function either as a storage for active monomers or as ion channels., Regulation of the SERCA calcium pump by phospholamban (PLB) is largely due to interactions between their respective transmembrane domains. In spite of numerous mutagenesis and kinetic studies, we still do not have a clear mechanistic picture of how PLB influences the calcium transport cycle of SERCA., Calcium transport across the membrane of the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) plays an important role in the regulation of heart muscle contraction and relaxation. The sarco(endo)plasmic reticulum Ca(2+) ATPase (SERCA) 2a is responsible for Ca(2+) up-take by this organelle and is inhibited in a reversible manner by phospholamban, another SR membrane protein. Thus, alleviation of phospholamban-mediated inhibition of SERCA2a is a potential therapeutic option for heart failure and cardiomyopathy., Phospholamban has been suggested to be a key regulator of cardiac sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) Ca cycling and contractility and a potential therapeutic target in restoring the depressed Ca cycling in failing hearts., In larger mammals, a higher fraction of SERCA2a pumps are regulated by phospholamban, and this may influence therapeutic strategies to enhance cardiac contractility and functional cardiac reserve., Phospholamban (PLB) inhibits the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) Ca(2+)-ATPase (SERCA), and this inhibition is relieved by Ca(2+) calmodulin-dependent protein kinase II (CaM kinase II) phosphorylation, These findings suggest that PLB is an important modulator of gastric antrum smooth muscle contractility by modulation of SR Ca(2+) release and CaM kinase II activity., The function of the SERCA pump is modulated by the endogenous molecules phospholamban (PLB) and sarcolipin (SLN), expressed in cardiac and skeletal muscles. The mechanism of action of PLB on SERCA is well characterized, whereas that of SLN is only beginning to be understood. , Phospholamban (PLB) is an inhibitor of the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) Ca2+-ATPase (SERCA)., These results show that alteration of the PLB:SERCA ratio can significantly modulate smooth muscle [Ca2+]i., Phospholamban expressed in cardiac muscle and sarcolipin expressed in skeletal muscle regulate SERCA activity., Phospholamban (PLB) is a 24- to 27-kDa phosphoprotein that modulates activity of the sarco(endo)plasmic reticulum Ca2+ ATPase (SERCA). Expression of PLB is reportedly limited to cardiac, slow-twitch skeletal and smooth muscle in which PLB is an important regulator of [Ca2+]i and contractility in these muscles., Regulation of the sarco(endo)plasmic reticulum Ca2+-ATPase (SERCA 2a) depends on the phosphorylation state of phospholamban (PLB). When PLB is phosphorylated, its inhibitory effect towards SERCA 2a is relieved, leading to an enhanced myocardial performance. , Ca(2+) reuptake occurs via sarcoendoplasmic reticulum Ca(2+) ATPase (SERCA) and is regulated by the inhibitory protein phospholamban (PLB) in many cell types., Phospholamban (PLN) is a small integral membrane protein, which binds and inhibits in a yet unknown fashion the Ca(2+)-ATPase (SERCA) in the sarcoplasmic reticulum., Phospholamban (PLN) is the endogenous inhibitor of the sarco(endo)plasmic reticulum Ca(2+)-ATPase (SERCA), the integral membrane enzyme responsible for 70�% of the removal of Ca(2+) from the cytosol, inducing cardiac muscle relaxation in humans., Phospholamban (PLB) is an integral membrane protein regulating Ca(2+) transport through inhibitory interaction with sarco(endo)plasmic reticulum calcium ATPase (SERCA)., Phosphorylation by protein kinase A and dephosphorylation by protein phosphatase 1 modulate the inhibitory activity of phospholamban (PLN), the endogenous regulator of the sarco(endo)plasmic reticulum calcium Ca(2+) ATPase (SERCA)., Phosphorylation by protein kinase A and dephosphorylation by protein phosphatase 1 modulate the inhibitory activity of phospholamban (PLN), the endogenous regulator of the sarco(endo)plasmic reticulum calcium Ca(2+) ATPase (SERCA), We used EPR spectroscopy to probe directly the interaction between phospholamban (PLB) and its regulatory target, the sarcoplasmic reticulum Ca-ATPase (SERCA)[SEP]Relations: phosphoprotein phosphatase activity has relations: molfunc_protein with PPP2CA, molfunc_protein with PPP2CA, molfunc_protein with PPP1CA, molfunc_protein with PPP1CA, molfunc_protein with PTEN, molfunc_protein with PTEN, molfunc_protein with PPP5C, molfunc_protein with PPP5C. membrane has relations: cellcomp_protein with CACNB3, cellcomp_protein with CACNB3. Definitions: Phospholamban defined as following: free sarcoplasmic reticulum polymeric proteolipid which modulates sarcoplasmic reticulum function; phosphorylated by cAMP-dependent, calcium-calmodulin-dependent, and calcium-phospholipid-dependent protein kinases.. organelle defined as following: Cell part which consists of macromolecules aggregated into discrete structures in the protoplasm. (Digital Anatomist Foundational Model). cardiomyocytes defined as following: Striated muscle cells found in the heart. They are derived from cardiac myoblasts (MYOBLASTS, CARDIAC).. mutagenesis defined as following: Production of genetic alterations by any technique, including chemicals, radiation, recombination, or other molecular biology methods.. CaM kinase II defined as following: A multifunctional calcium-calmodulin-dependent protein kinase subtype that occurs as an oligomeric protein comprised of twelve subunits. It differs from other enzyme subtypes in that it lacks a phosphorylatable activation domain that can respond to CALCIUM-CALMODULIN-DEPENDENT PROTEIN KINASE KINASE.. heart failure defined as following: Heart failure accompanied by EDEMA, such as swelling of the legs and ankles and congestion in the lungs.. skeletal muscles defined as following: A subtype of striated muscle, attached by TENDONS to the SKELETON. Skeletal muscles are innervated and their movement can be consciously controlled. They are also called voluntary muscles.. cardiomyopathy defined as following: A group of diseases in which the dominant feature is the involvement of the CARDIAC MUSCLE itself. Cardiomyopathies are classified according to their predominant pathophysiological features (DILATED CARDIOMYOPATHY; HYPERTROPHIC CARDIOMYOPATHY; RESTRICTIVE CARDIOMYOPATHY) or their etiological/pathological factors (CARDIOMYOPATHY, ALCOHOLIC; ENDOCARDIAL FIBROELASTOSIS).. protein kinase A defined as following: A group of enzymes that are dependent on CYCLIC AMP and catalyze the phosphorylation of SERINE or THREONINE residues on proteins. Included under this category are two cyclic-AMP-dependent protein kinase subtypes, each of which is defined by its subunit composition.. smooth muscle defined as following: Unstriated and unstriped muscle, one of the muscles of the internal organs, blood vessels, hair follicles, etc. Contractile elements are elongated, usually spindle-shaped cells with centrally located nuclei. Smooth muscle fibers are bound together into sheets or bundles by reticular fibers and frequently elastic nets are also abundant. (From Stedman, 25th ed). sarcoplasmic reticulum defined as following: A network of tubules and sacs in the cytoplasm of SKELETAL MUSCLE FIBERS that assist with muscle contraction and relaxation by releasing and storing calcium ions.. membrane protein defined as following: Proteins which are found in membranes including cellular and intracellular membranes. They consist of two types, peripheral and integral proteins. They include most membrane-associated enzymes, antigenic proteins, transport proteins, and drug, hormone, and lectin receptors.. membranes defined as following: Thin layers of tissue which cover parts of the body, separate adjacent cavities, or connect adjacent structures.. muscles defined as following: Contractile tissue that produces movement in animals.. SR defined as following: Human SNCG wild-type allele is located within10q23.2-q23.3 and is approximately 13 kb in length. This allele, which encodes gamma-synuclein protein, plays a role in the modulation of axonal architecture and neurofilament integrity. This gene is highly expessed in advanced breast carcinomas, suggesting a correlation between SNCG overexpression and breast tumor development.. sarcoplasmic reticulum Ca(2+)-ATPase defined as following: Calcium-transporting ATPases that catalyze the active transport of CALCIUM into the SARCOPLASMIC RETICULUM vesicles from the CYTOPLASM. They are primarily found in MUSCLE CELLS and play a role in the relaxation of MUSCLES.. protein phosphatase 1 defined as following: A group of enzymes removing the SERINE- or THREONINE-bound phosphate groups from a wide range of phosphoproteins, including a number of enzymes which have been phosphorylated under the action of a kinase. (Enzyme Nomenclature, 1992). heart muscle defined as following: The muscle tissue of the HEART. It is composed of striated, involuntary muscle cells (MYOCYTES, CARDIAC) connected to form the contractile pump to generate blood flow.. cytosol defined as following: Intracellular fluid from the cytoplasm after removal of ORGANELLES and other insoluble cytoplasmic components.. integral membrane protein defined as following: The component of the endoplasmic reticulum membrane consisting of the gene products and protein complexes having at least some part of their peptide sequence embedded in the hydrophobic region of the membrane. [GOC:dos, GOC:mah]. mammals defined as following: Warm-blooded vertebrate animals belonging to the class Mammalia, including all that possess hair and suckle their young.. humans defined as following: Members of the species Homo sapiens.. membrane defined as following: A device that is made from or resembles a thin flexible sheet of material.. integral membrane defined as following: The component of a membrane consisting of the gene products and protein complexes having at least some part of their peptide sequence embedded in the hydrophobic region of the membrane. [GOC:dos, GOC:go_curators].", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_3362", "sentence1": "Is CTCF bound at nucleosome free regions?", "sentence2": "Nucleosome depletion at 5'-HS4 was dependent on interaction of the insulator protein CCCTC-binding factor (CTCF) and was required for enhancer blocking. , Here, we show that promoter classes are significantly differentiated by nucleosome organization and chromatin structure. Dispersed promoters display higher associations with well-positioned nucleosomes downstream of the TSS and a more clearly defined nucleosome free region upstream, while focused promoters have a less organized nucleosome structure, yet higher presence of RNA polymerase II., hese differences extend to histone variants (H2A.Z) and marks (H3K4 methylation), as well as insulator binding (such as CTCF), independent of the expression levels of affected genes., nucleosome occupancy at nucleosome-free regions (NFRs), many of which are located at sites occupied by the multivalent factors Ctcf and cohesin. , This general architectural change correlates with enhanced binding of CTCF and cohesins and more pronounced insulation of contacts across chromatin boundaries in lineage-committed cells. , robust inter-nucleosomal interactions exist around transcription start site (TSS), transcription termination sites (TTS) or around CTCF binding sites[SEP]Relations: nucleosome has relations: cellcomp_protein with IRF4, cellcomp_protein with IRF4, cellcomp_protein with CENPA, cellcomp_protein with CENPA, cellcomp_protein with H3C15, cellcomp_protein with H3C15, cellcomp_protein with H3C14, cellcomp_protein with H3C14, cellcomp_protein with H4C15, cellcomp_protein with H4C15. Definitions: H2A.Z defined as following: Human H2AZ1 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 4q24 and is approximately 2 kb in length. This allele, which encodes histone H2A.Z protein, plays a role in chromatin packaging.. nucleosomes defined as following: The repeating structural units of chromatin, each consisting of approximately 200 base pairs of DNA wound around a protein core. This core is composed of the histones H2A, H2B, H3, and H4.. TSS defined as following: A rare acute life-threatening systemic bacterial noncontagious illness caused by any of several related staphylococcal exotoxins. It is characterized by high fever, hypotension, rash, multi-organ dysfunction, and cutaneous desquamation during the early convalescent period. The toxins affect the host immune system, causing an exuberant and pathological host inflammatory response. Laboratory findings include leukocytosis, elevated prothrombin time, hypoalbuminemia, hypocalcemia, and pyuria.. CTCF defined as following: CCN family member 2 (349 aa, ~38kDa) is encoded by the human CCN2 gene. This protein plays a role in the promotion of proliferation and differentiation of chondrocytes and also mediates heparin- and divalent cation-dependent cell adhesion in many different cell types.. RNA polymerase II defined as following: A DNA-dependent RNA polymerase present in bacterial, plant, and animal cells. It functions in the nucleoplasmic structure and transcribes DNA into RNA. It has different requirements for cations and salt than RNA polymerase I and is strongly inhibited by alpha-amanitin. EC 2.7.7.6.. sites defined as following: A position in relation to its surroundings.. transcription start site defined as following: The first nucleotide of a transcribed DNA sequence where RNA polymerase (DNA-DIRECTED RNA POLYMERASE) begins synthesizing the RNA transcript.. promoters defined as following: A DNA sequence at which RNA polymerase binds and initiates transcription.. H3K4 defined as following: The lysine residue found at amino acid position 4 in the histone H3 protein. Methylation of this residue may be a marker for transcriptionally active genes.. enhancer defined as following: A 50-150bp DNA sequence that increases the rate of transcription of coding sequences. It may be located at various distances and in either orientation upstream from, downstream from or within a structural gene. When bound by a specific transcription factor it increases the levels of expression of the gene, but is not sufficient alone to cause expression. Distinguished from a promoter, that is alone sufficient to cause expression of the gene when bound.. binding sites defined as following: The parts of a macromolecule that directly participate in its specific combination with another molecule.. Nucleosome defined as following: A complex comprised of DNA wound around a multisubunit core and associated proteins, which forms the primary packing unit of DNA into higher order structures. [GOC:elh]. genes defined as following: A category of nucleic acid sequences that function as units of heredity and which code for the basic instructions for the development, reproduction, and maintenance of organisms..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_2476", "sentence1": "Can canagliflozin cause euglycemic diabetic ketoacidosis?", "sentence2": "CASE REPORT: We present a case of a 57-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus taking a combination of canagliflozin and metformin who presented with progressive altered mental status over the previous 2 days. Her work-up demonstrated a metabolic acidosis with an anion gap of 38 and a venous serum pH of 7.08. The serum glucose was 168 mg/dL. The urinalysis showed glucose>500 mg/dL and ketones of 80 mg/dL. Further evaluation demonstrated an elevated serum osmolality of 319 mOsm/kg and an acetone concentration of 93 mg/dL. She was treated with intravenous insulin and fluids, and the metabolic abnormalities and her altered mental status resolved within 36 h. This was the first episode of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) for this patient. WHY SHOULD AN EMERGENCY PHYSICIAN BE AWARE OF THIS?: Diabetic patients on SGLT2 inhibitor medications are at risk for ketoacidosis. Due to the renal glucose-wasting properties of these drugs, they may present with ketoacidosis with only mild elevations in serum glucose, potentially complicating the diagnosis. , Euglycemic Diabetic Ketoacidosis with Persistent Diuresis Treated with Canagliflozin., We herein report the case of a 27-year-old Asian woman with type 2 diabetes who was treated with a sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitor (canagliflozin) who developed euglycemic diabetic ketoacidosis and persistent diuresis in the absence of hyperglycemia., Canagliflozin raised the risk of amputations and the rate of fractures in the CANVAS trial, although more data are necessary before drawing definite conclusions. The risk of euglycemic diabetic ketoacidosis seems to be minimal when the drugs are prescribed properly., Severe Ketoacidosis Associated with Canagliflozin (Invokana): A Safety Concern., However, some serious side effects, including severe anion gap metabolic acidosis and euglycemic diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), have been reported. , At present, the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has only approved three medications (canagliflozin, dapagliflozin and empagliflozin) in this drug class for the management of Type 2 diabetes. In May 2015, the FDA issued a warning of ketoacidosis with use of this drug class., We present a case of euglycemic diabetic ketoacidosis secondary to canagliflozin in a type 2 diabetic patient., Nonconvulsive Status Epilepticus in Elderly Patients Receiving SSRIs; Euglycemic Diabetic Ketoacidosis Associated with Canagliflozin Use in a Type 1 Diabetic Patient; Duloxetine-Induced Galactorrhea; Canagliflozin-Associated Severe Hypercalcemia and Hypernatremia; Vemurafenib-Induced Fanconi Syndrome., Euglycemic Diabetic Ketoacidosis in a 27 year-old female patient with type-1-Diabetes treated with sodium-glucose cotransporter-2 (SGLT2) inhibitor Canagliflozin., We are reporting a timely case of atypical euglycemic diabetic ketoacidosis in a type 1 diabetic patient treated with sodium-glucose cotransporter-2 (SGLT-2) inhibitor canagliflozin., Euglycemic ketoacidosis did not recur in our patient after discontinuing canagliflozin. , Euglycemic Diabetic Ketoacidosis With Prolonged Glucosuria Associated With the Sodium-Glucose Cotransporter-2 Canagliflozin., In this article, we present a case of a 50-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes who developed euglycemic DKA after initiating therapy with canagliflozin. , SGLT2 inhibitors such as canagliflozin may predispose patients not only to diabetic ketoacidosis but also to prolonged glucosuria., We present a case of euglycemic diabetic ketoacidosis secondary to canagliflozin in a type 2 diabetic patient.rotavirus vaccine, tetravalent, live, oral
. acid defined as following: Chemical compounds which yield hydrogen ions or protons when dissolved in water, whose hydrogen can be replaced by metals or basic radicals, or which react with bases to form salts and water (neutralization). An extension of the term includes substances dissolved in media other than water. (Grant & Hackh's Chemical Dictionary, 5th ed). dehydration defined as following: The condition that results from excessive loss of water from a living organism.. infection defined as following: An illness caused by an infectious agent or its toxins that occurs through the direct or indirect transmission of the infectious agent or its products from an infected individual or via an animal, vector or the inanimate environment to a susceptible animal or human host.. gastroenteritis defined as following: INFLAMMATION of any segment of the GASTROINTESTINAL TRACT from ESOPHAGUS to RECTUM. Causes of gastroenteritis are many including genetic, infection, HYPERSENSITIVITY, drug effects, and CANCER.. human defined as following: Members of the species Homo sapiens.. rotavirus gastroenteritis defined as following: Enteritis attributed to the rotavirus.. rotavirus disease defined as following: Infection with any of the rotaviruses. Specific infections include human infantile diarrhea, neonatal calf diarrhea, and epidemic diarrhea of infant mice.. oral poliovirus vaccine defined as following: A live vaccine containing attenuated poliovirus, types I, II, and III, grown in monkey kidney cell tissue culture, used for routine immunization of children against polio. This vaccine induces long-lasting intestinal and humoral immunity. Killed vaccine induces only humoral immunity. Oral poliovirus vaccine should not be administered to immunocompromised individuals or their household contacts. (Dorland, 28th ed). diarrhoea defined as following: An increased liquidity or decreased consistency of FECES, such as running stool. Fecal consistency is related to the ratio of water-holding capacity of insoluble solids to total water, rather than the amount of water present. Diarrhea is not hyperdefecation or increased fecal weight.. intussusception defined as following: A form of intestinal obstruction caused by the PROLAPSE of a part of the intestine into the adjoining intestinal lumen. There are four types: colic, involving segments of the LARGE INTESTINE; enteric, involving only the SMALL INTESTINE; ileocecal, in which the ILEOCECAL VALVE prolapses into the CECUM, drawing the ILEUM along with it; and ileocolic, in which the ileum prolapses through the ileocecal valve into the COLON.. product defined as following:Participant material that is brought forth (produced) in the act (e.g., specimen in a specimen collection, access or drainage in a placement service, medication package in a dispense service). It does not matter whether the material produced had existence prior to the service, or whether it is created in the service (e.g., in supply services the product is taken from a stock).
. RIT defined as following: Human RIT1 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 1q22 and is approximately 14 kb in length. This allele, which encodes GTP-binding protein Rit1, is involved in signaling pathway regulation. Mutation of the gene is associated with Noonan syndrome type 8.. GSK defined as following: Catalysis of the reaction: ATP + tau-protein = ADP + O-phospho-tau-protein. [EC:2.7.11.26, MetaCyc:TAU-PROTEIN-KINASE-RXN].", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_993", "sentence1": "Are there clinical trials using stem cells for the treatment of cardiac disease?", "sentence2": "Therapy with mesenchymal stem cells is one of the promising tools to improve outcomes after myocardial infarction. Adipose-derived stem cells (ASCs) are an ideal source of mesenchymal stem cells due to their abundance and ease of preparation., Furthermore, several ongoing clinical trials using ASCs are producing promising results for heart diseases., Among the cell types under investigation, adult mesenchymal stem cells are widely studied, and in early stage, clinical studies show promise for repair and regeneration of cardiac tissues., Accumulating data from preclinical and early phase clinical trials document their safety when delivered as either autologous or allogeneic forms in a range of cardiovascular diseases, but also importantly define parameters of clinical efficacy that justify further investigation in larger clinical trials. , several ongoing clinical trials using ASCs are producing promising results for heart diseases. , Clinical application of adult stem cells for therapy for cardiac disease., Stem cell-based therapies have the potential to fundamentally transform the treatment of ischemic cardiac injury and heart failure by achieving what would have been unthinkable only a few years ago-the Holy Grail of myocardial regeneration. Recent therapeutic approaches involve bone marrow (BM)-derived mononuclear cells and their subsets such as mesenchymal stem/stromal cells (MSCs), endothelial progenitor cells as well as adipose tissue-derived MSCs, cardiac tissue-derived stem cells, and cell combinations. Clinical trials employing these cells have demonstrated that cellular therapy is feasible and safe., Accumulating data from preclinical and early phase clinical trials document their safety when delivered as either autologous or allogeneic forms in a range of cardiovascular diseases, but also importantly define parameters of clinical efficacy that justify further investigation in larger clinical trials., se of stem and precursor cells as a therapeutic agent for chronically injured organs. Among the cell types under investigation, adult mesenchymal stem cells are widely studied, and in early stage, clinical studies show promise for repair and regeneration of cardiac tissues. , Over the past 2 decades, there have been numerous stem cell studies focused on cardiac diseases, ranging from proof-of-concept to phase 2 trials. , Small uncontrolled clinical trials have demonstrated cardiac stem cells as a treatment option for cardiomyopathy., Stem cell populations are rapidly increasing, and we are still in the search of optimal cell types to use in clinical trials as bone marrow stem cells did not show significant improvement in cardiac function following transplantation., Several clinical trials using adult stem cell have shown improvements in cardiac function, however, the mechanism of their action is unclear and widespread tissue regeneration is not evident., As we await results from larger and more prolonged clinical trials, the science of stem cell therapy in cardiac disease keeps progressing., Stem cell therapy for treatment of cardiac disease has shown therapeutic potential., It should be noted that stem cell therapy is not limited to the treatment of ischemic cardiac disease., Over the past 2 decades, there have been numerous stem cell studies focused on cardiac diseases, ranging from proof-of-concept to phase 2 trials., This series of papers focuses on the legacy of these studies and the outlook for future treatment of cardiac diseases with stem cell therapies., Cell transplantation to repair or regenerate injured myocardium is a new frontier in the treatment of cardiovascular disease. , Current therapies only delay progression of the cardiac disease or replace the diseased heart with cardiac transplantation. Stem cells represent a recently discovered novel approach to the treatment of cardiac failure that may facilitate the replacement of diseased cardiac tissue and subsequently lead to improved cardiac function and cardiac regeneration., Over the past 2 decades, there have been numerous stem cell studies focused on cardiac diseases, ranging from proof-of-concept to phase 2 trials. This series of papers focuses on the legacy of these studies and the outlook for future treatment of cardiac diseases with stem cell therapies., Stem cell therapy for treatment of cardiac disease has shown therapeutic potential., Over the past 2 decades, there have been numerous stem cell studies focused on cardiac diseases, ranging from proof-of-concept to phase 2 trials. This series of papers focuses on the legacy of these studies and the outlook for future treatment of cardiac diseases with stem cell therapies., It should be noted that stem cell therapy is not limited to the treatment of ischemic cardiac disease. Non-ischemic cardiomyopathy, peripheral vascular disease, and aging may be treated by stem cells., Recent clinical trials have achieved favorable initial endpoints with improvements in cardiac function and clinical symptoms following cellular therapy., we consider how cardiac stem cell biology has led us into clinical trials, and we suggest that achieving true cardiac regeneration in patients may ultimately require resolution of critical controversies in experimental cardiac regeneration., Cell-based therapies and tissue engineering provide new promising platforms to develop upcoming therapeutic options. Initial clinical trials were able to generate promising results. A variety of different stem cell types have been used for the clinical application. , Insights gained from clinical trials of adult stem cells, together with fundamental scientific advances in cardiac stem cell and regenerative biology, are beginning to yield potential new targets and strategies for regenerative therapies. , Early animal trials have demonstrated the ability to improve cardiac function by transfer of HSCs into the myocardium, and early human studies have demonstrated the feasibility and safety of this approach.[SEP]Relations: cardiac germ cell tumor has relations: disease_disease with heart neoplasm, disease_disease with heart neoplasm, disease_disease with malignant cardiac germ cell tumor, disease_disease with malignant cardiac germ cell tumor, disease_disease with extragonadal germ cell tumor, disease_disease with extragonadal germ cell tumor. heart disease has relations: disease_disease with cardiac ventricle disease, disease_disease with cardiac ventricle disease. cardiovascular disease has relations: disease_disease with heart disease, disease_disease with heart disease. Definitions: HSCs defined as following: Progenitor cells from which all blood cells derived. They are found primarily in the bone marrow and also in small numbers in the peripheral blood.. stem cells defined as following: Relatively undifferentiated cells that retain the ability to divide and proliferate throughout postnatal life to provide progenitor cells that can differentiate into specialized cells.. endothelial progenitor cells defined as following: Cells derived from BONE MARROW that circulate in the adult bloodstream and possess the potential to proliferate and differentiate into mature ENDOTHELIAL CELLS.. heart failure defined as following: Heart failure accompanied by EDEMA, such as swelling of the legs and ankles and congestion in the lungs.. cardiac diseases defined as following: Pathological conditions involving the HEART including its structural and functional abnormalities.. cardiomyopathy defined as following: A group of diseases in which the dominant feature is the involvement of the CARDIAC MUSCLE itself. Cardiomyopathies are classified according to their predominant pathophysiological features (DILATED CARDIOMYOPATHY; HYPERTROPHIC CARDIOMYOPATHY; RESTRICTIVE CARDIOMYOPATHY) or their etiological/pathological factors (CARDIOMYOPATHY, ALCOHOLIC; ENDOCARDIAL FIBROELASTOSIS).. bone marrow stem cells defined as following: A hematopoietic stem cell found in the bone marrow.. cardiovascular disease defined as following: Pathological conditions involving the CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM including the HEART; the BLOOD VESSELS; or the PERICARDIUM.. mesenchymal stem cells defined as following: An undifferentiated stromal cell with the ability to develop into the cells that form distinct mesenchymal tissues; such as bone, muscle, connective tissue, blood vessels, and lymphatic tissue.. adult stem cells defined as following: Mostly multipotent undifferentiated stem cells found in a specific tissue admixed with differentiated cells.. cardiac stem cell defined as following: Multipotent progenitor cells that are found in the fetal and adult heart that provide the myocardium with limited regenerating capability.. MSCs defined as following: Enables the transmembrane transfer of an ion by a channel that opens in response to a mechanical stress and when a cyclic nucleotide has been bound by the channel complex or one of its constituent parts. [GOC:jl, PMID:22206667]. stem defined as following: A type of TRANSMISSION ELECTRON MICROSCOPY in which the object is examined directly by an extremely narrow electron beam scanning the specimen point-by-point and using the reactions of the electrons that are transmitted through the specimen to create the image. It should not be confused with SCANNING ELECTRON MICROSCOPY.. organs defined as following: A unique macroscopic (gross) anatomic structure that performs specific functions. It is composed of various tissues. An organ is part of an anatomic system or a body region. Representative examples include the heart, lung, liver, spleen, and uterus.. human defined as following: Members of the species Homo sapiens.. cells defined as following: The fundamental, structural, and functional units or subunits of living organisms. They are composed of CYTOPLASM containing various ORGANELLES and a CELL MEMBRANE boundary.. peripheral vascular disease defined as following: Pathological processes involving any one of the BLOOD VESSELS in the vasculature outside the HEART.. myocardium defined as following: The muscle tissue of the HEART. It is composed of striated, involuntary muscle cells (MYOCYTES, CARDIAC) connected to form the contractile pump to generate blood flow.. cardiac disease defined as following: Pathological conditions involving the HEART including its structural and functional abnormalities..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_2060", "sentence1": "Do brown fat cells produce heat?", "sentence2": "WAT and BAT are both involved in energy balance. WAT is mainly involved in the storage and mobilization of energy in the form of triglycerides, whereas BAT specializes in dissipating energy as heat during cold- or diet-induced thermogenesis., Because brown adipose tissue (BAT) dissipates energy in the form of heat, increasing energy expenditure by augmenting BAT-mediated thermogenesis may represent an approach to counter obesity and its complications., Classic brown fat and inducible beige fat both dissipate chemical energy in the form of heat through the actions of mitochondrial uncoupling protein 1. This nonshivering thermogenesis is crucial for mammals as a defense against cold and obesity/diabetes., Mitochondrial uncoupling protein 1 in brown fat cells produces heat by dissipating the energy generated by fatty acid and glucose oxidation., Brown fat biology and thermogenesis., Brown fat (brown adipose tissue, BAT) primary function is to produce heat. , Brown fat cells were classified into 6 types: Type 1 cells are fat-depleted cells filled with granular cytoplasm and are believed to be produced after oxidation of fat for heat production., Calorimetric measurements from cell suspensions showed that ATP increased basal heat production of isolated brown fat cells by approximately 40% but had no effect on the greater than fivefold increase in heat production seen with maximal adrenergic stimulation., Classic brown fat and inducible beige fat both dissipate chemical energy in the form of heat through the actions of mitochondrial uncoupling protein 1., Brown adipocytes oxidize fatty acids to produce heat in response to cold or to excessive energy intake; stimulation of brown fat development and function may thus counteract obesity., The occurrence of Types 1 and/or 6 cells that has been revealed in 65 out of the total 180 samples (36%), suggests that the oxidation of fat for the thermogenesis proceeds in the brown fat tissue and that brown fat cells partially undergo fat depletion., Brown fat cells were classified into 6 types: Type 1 cells are fat-depleted cells filled with granular cytoplasm and are believed to be produced after oxidation of fat for heat production., In response to cold, both classical brown fat and the newly identified \"beige\" or \"brite\" cells are activated by β-adrenergic signaling and catabolize stored lipids and carbohydrates to produce heat via UCP1, The ability of brown adipocytes (fat cells) to dissipate energy as heat shows great promise for the treatment of obesity and other metabolic disorders, Inappropriate heat dissipation ignites brown fat thermogenesis in mice with a mutant thyroid hormone receptor α1, Brown fat and vascular heat dissipation: The new cautionary tail, Brown adipose produces heat as a defense against hypothermia and obesity, and the appearance of brown-like adipocytes within white adipose tissue depots is associated with improved metabolic phenotypes. , In the same manner, marked ability to produce a considerable amount of heat was evidenced in brown fat tissue of children and teenagers. , Brown fat cells were classified into 6 types: Type 1 cells are fat-depleted cells filled with granular cytoplasm and are believed to be produced after oxidation of fat for heat production. , It is inferred that brown-adipose-tissue heat production is reduced during (and probably also some time after) anesthesia. , Parallel measurements of heat production and thermogenin content in brown fat cells during cold acclimation of rats., The classical white adipose tissue builds up energy in the form of triglycerides and is useful for preventing fatigue during periods of low caloric intake and the brown adipose tissue instead of inducing fat accumulation can produce energy as heat., In response to cold, both classical brown fat and the newly identified \"beige\" or \"brite\" cells are activated by β-adrenergic signaling and catabolize stored lipids and carbohydrates to produce heat via UCP1., White adipose tissue stores energy reserves as fat, whereas the metabolic function of brown adipose tissue is lipid oxidation to produce heat., The main function of brown adipose tissue (BAT) is to produce heat in response to cold., Brown adipocytes oxidize fatty acids to produce heat in response to cold or caloric overfeeding., Brown fat (brown adipose tissue, BAT) primary function is to produce heat., Adipose tissue plays an active role in energy balance because it is not only a lipid storing and mobilizing tissue but consists of functionally specialized tissues able to produce heat (in brown adipose tissue) and to produce or release a vast number of so called adipokines or adipocytokines., Brown adipose tissue (BAT), a specialized fat that dissipates energy to produce heat, plays an important role in the regulation of energy balance., Brown adipose cells are specialized to dissipate chemical energy in the form of heat, as a physiological defence against cold and obesity., In the present study, the thermogenesis of human brown fat tissue was suggested chiefly with regard to the occurrence of Types 1 and/or 6 cells., In the same manner, marked ability to produce a considerable amount of heat was evidenced in brown fat tissue of children and teenagers., Adult humans have heat-producing and energy-consuming brown adipose tissue in the clavicular region of the neck., Brown and beige adipocytes expend chemical energy to produce heat and are therefore important in regulating body temperature and body weight., In human perirenal brown fat tissue, darkly stained fat-depleted cells (D) occupy, with other cell types (CR, CR'), an important part in the reversible heat production cycle of the brown fat tissue., Brown fat is a specialized fat depot that can increase energy expenditure and produce heat.[SEP]Relations: brown adipose tissue has relations: anatomy_anatomy with adipose tissue, anatomy_anatomy with adipose tissue. adipose tissue has relations: anatomy_anatomy with brown adipose tissue, anatomy_anatomy with brown adipose tissue, anatomy_protein_present with HEATR6, anatomy_protein_present with HEATR6, anatomy_protein_present with HEATR3, anatomy_protein_present with HEATR3, anatomy_protein_present with HEATR5A, anatomy_protein_present with HEATR5A. Definitions: lipids defined as following: A generic term for fats and lipoids, the alcohol-ether-soluble constituents of protoplasm, which are insoluble in water. They comprise the fats, fatty oils, essential oils, waxes, phospholipids, glycolipids, sulfolipids, aminolipids, chromolipids (lipochromes), and fatty acids. (Grant & Hackh's Chemical Dictionary, 5th ed). Type 1 cells defined as following: used for classifying cell types, discovery of new cell types, or when type of cell is unknown; when comparing types of cells use CELL POPULATION STUDY.. CR defined as following: A quantitative measurement of the amount of creatinine present in a sample.. Mitochondrial uncoupling protein 1 defined as following: A mitochondrial uncoupling protein that is expressed in BROWN ADIPOSE TISSUE. It is critical for NONSHIVERING THERMOGENESIS to prevent heat loss in NEONATES.. brown adipocytes defined as following: Fat cells with dark coloration due to the densely packed MITOCHONDRIA. They contain numerous small lipid droplets or vacuoles. Their stored lipids can be converted directly to energy as heat by the mitochondria.. UCP1 defined as following: This gene plays a role in proton transport.. fatty acid defined as following: Organic, monobasic acids derived from hydrocarbons by the equivalent of oxidation of a methyl group to an alcohol, aldehyde, and then acid. Fatty acids are saturated and unsaturated (FATTY ACIDS, UNSATURATED). (Grant & Hackh's Chemical Dictionary, 5th ed). brown adipose tissue defined as following: A thermogenic form of adipose tissue composed of BROWN ADIPOCYTES. It is found in newborns of many species including humans, and in hibernating mammals. Brown fat is richly vascularized, innervated, and densely packed with MITOCHONDRIA which can generate heat directly from the stored lipids.. BAT defined as following: An evidence-based treatment designed to modify behavior by increasing positive events and reinforcers, as well as decreasing negative events and consequences. It is frequently used for treating depression and anxiety.. neck defined as following: Part of the dendritic spine that connects the dendritic shaft to the head of the dendritic spine. [GOC:nln]. fatigue defined as following: The state of weariness following a period of exertion, mental or physical, characterized by a decreased capacity for work and reduced efficiency to respond to stimuli.. ATP defined as following: An adenine nucleotide containing three phosphate groups esterified to the sugar moiety. In addition to its crucial roles in metabolism adenosine triphosphate is a neurotransmitter.. Adipose tissue defined as following: Specialized connective tissue composed of fat cells (ADIPOCYTES). It is the site of stored FATS, usually in the form of TRIGLYCERIDES. In mammals, there are two types of adipose tissue, the WHITE FAT and the BROWN FAT. Their relative distributions vary in different species with most adipose tissue being white.. triglycerides defined as following: An ester formed from GLYCEROL and three fatty acid groups.. beige adipocytes defined as following: Brown fat-like cells that develop in the WHITE FAT from non-MYOGENIC REGULATORY FACTOR 5 expressing CELL LINEAGE.. metabolic disorders defined as following: Generic term for diseases caused by an abnormal metabolic process. It can be congenital due to inherited enzyme abnormality (METABOLISM, INBORN ERRORS) or acquired due to disease of an endocrine organ or failure of a metabolically important organ such as the liver. (Stedman, 26th ed). rats defined as following: The common rat, Rattus norvegicus, often used as an experimental organism.. adipokines defined as following: Polypeptides produced by the ADIPOCYTES. They include LEPTIN; ADIPONECTIN; RESISTIN; and many cytokines of the immune system, such as TUMOR NECROSIS FACTOR-ALPHA; INTERLEUKIN-6; and COMPLEMENT FACTOR D (also known as ADIPSIN). They have potent autocrine, paracrine, and endocrine functions.. fat cells defined as following: Cells in the body that store FATS, usually in the form of TRIGLYCERIDES. WHITE ADIPOCYTES are the predominant type and found mostly in the abdominal cavity and subcutaneous tissue. BROWN ADIPOCYTES are thermogenic cells that can be found in newborns of some species and hibernating mammals.. mammals defined as following: Warm-blooded vertebrate animals belonging to the class Mammalia, including all that possess hair and suckle their young.. humans defined as following: Members of the species Homo sapiens.. tissues defined as following: Collections of differentiated CELLS, such as EPITHELIUM; CONNECTIVE TISSUE; MUSCLES; and NERVE TISSUE. Tissues are cooperatively arranged to form organs with specialized functions such as RESPIRATION; DIGESTION; REPRODUCTION; MOVEMENT; and others.. cells defined as following: The fundamental, structural, and functional units or subunits of living organisms. They are composed of CYTOPLASM containing various ORGANELLES and a CELL MEMBRANE boundary.. hypothermia defined as following:Cold weather can affect your body in different ways. You can get frostbite, which is an injury to the body that is caused by freezing. Your body can also lose heat faster than you can produce it. That can cause hypothermia, or abnormally low body temperature. It can make you sleepy, confused, and clumsy. Because it happens gradually and affects your thinking, you may not realize you need help. That makes it especially dangerous. A body temperature below 95 °F (35 °C) is a medical emergency and can lead to death if not treated promptly.
Anyone who spends much time outdoors in cold weather can get hypothermia. You can also get it from being cold and wet, or under cold water for too long. Babies and old people are especially at risk. Babies can get it from sleeping in a cold room.
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
. mitochondrial defined as following: The distribution of mitochondria, including the mitochondrial genome, into daughter cells after mitosis or meiosis, mediated by interactions between mitochondria and the cytoskeleton. [GOC:mcc, PMID:10873824, PMID:11389764]. brown fat cells defined as following: Fat cells with dark coloration due to the densely packed MITOCHONDRIA. They contain numerous small lipid droplets or vacuoles. Their stored lipids can be converted directly to energy as heat by the mitochondria..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_994", "sentence1": "Is DNA methylation an epigenetic modification of chromatin related to gene expression?", "sentence2": "DNA methylation is a chemical modification of DNA involved in the regulation of gene expression by controlling the access to the DNA sequence. , Epigenetic marks such as DNA methylation play important biological roles in gene expression regulation and cellular differentiation during development., DNA methylation patterns are characterized by highly conserved developmental programs, but allow for divergent gene expression resulting from stochastic epigenetic drift or divergent environments., DNA methylation plays a critical role in the regulation of gene expression. , Epigenetic changes such as DNA methylation and histone methylation and acetylation alter gene expression at the level of transcription by upregulating, downregulating, or silencing genes completely., Dysregulation of epigenetic events can be pathological, leading to cardiovascular disease, neurological disorders, metabolic disorders, and cancer development., DNA methylation is a pervasive epigenetic DNA modification that strongly affects chromatin regulation and gene expression., Epigenetic control, which includes DNA methylation and histone modifications, leads to chromatin remodeling and regulated gene expression., Epigenetic modifications on the DNA sequence (DNA methylation) or on chromatin-associated proteins (i.e., histones) comprise the \"cellular epigenome\"; together these modifications play an important role in the regulation of gene expression., Epigenetics is a process involved in gene regulation, mediated via DNA methylation, histone modification, chromatin remodeling, and functional noncoding RNAs, which influences the accessibility of the underlying DNA to transcriptional regulatory factors that activate or repress expression., Significant progress has been made in the basic understanding of how various epigenetic changes such as DNA methylation, histone modification, miRNA expression, and higher order chromatin structure affect gene expression.[SEP]Relations: histone modification has relations: bioprocess_bioprocess with histone methylation, bioprocess_bioprocess with histone methylation, bioprocess_bioprocess with covalent chromatin modification, bioprocess_bioprocess with covalent chromatin modification, bioprocess_bioprocess with histone demethylation, bioprocess_bioprocess with histone demethylation, bioprocess_bioprocess with histone biotinylation, bioprocess_bioprocess with histone biotinylation, bioprocess_protein with PARP2, bioprocess_protein with PARP2. Definitions: histone modification defined as following: The covalent alteration of one or more amino acid residues within a histone protein. [GOC:krc]. histones defined as following: Small chromosomal proteins (approx 12-20 kD) possessing an open, unfolded structure and attached to the DNA in cell nuclei by ionic linkages. Classification into the various types (designated histone I, histone II, etc.) is based on the relative amounts of arginine and lysine in each.. DNA sequence defined as following: The sequence of nucleotide residues along a DNA chain.. metabolic disorders defined as following: Generic term for diseases caused by an abnormal metabolic process. It can be congenital due to inherited enzyme abnormality (METABOLISM, INBORN ERRORS) or acquired due to disease of an endocrine organ or failure of a metabolically important organ such as the liver. (Stedman, 26th ed). cardiovascular disease defined as following: Pathological conditions involving the CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM including the HEART; the BLOOD VESSELS; or the PERICARDIUM.. DNA defined as following: A deoxyribonucleotide polymer that is the primary genetic material of all cells. Eukaryotic and prokaryotic organisms normally contain DNA in a double-stranded state, yet several important biological processes transiently involve single-stranded regions. DNA, which consists of a polysugar-phosphate backbone possessing projections of purines (adenine and guanine) and pyrimidines (thymine and cytosine), forms a double helix that is held together by hydrogen bonds between these purines and pyrimidines (adenine to thymine and guanine to cytosine).. neurological disorders defined as following: Diseases of the central and peripheral nervous system. This includes disorders of the brain, spinal cord, cranial nerves, peripheral nerves, nerve roots, autonomic nervous system, neuromuscular junction, and muscle.. chemical modification defined as following: A molecule that binds to a macromolecule and can change the structural properties of that macromolecule.. genes defined as following: A category of nucleic acid sequences that function as units of heredity and which code for the basic instructions for the development, reproduction, and maintenance of organisms.. chromatin defined as following: The material of CHROMOSOMES. It is a complex of DNA; HISTONES; and nonhistone proteins (CHROMOSOMAL PROTEINS, NON-HISTONE) found within the nucleus of a cell..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_319", "sentence1": "Is microRNA(miRNA) 29 involved in post-ischemic cardiac remodeling?", "sentence2": "Myocardial ischaemia/reperfusion (I/R)-induced remodelling generally includes cell death (necrosis and apoptosis), myocyte hypertrophy, angiogenesis, cardiac fibrosis, and myocardial dysfunction. I, In addition, miR-21, -24, -133, -210, -494, and -499 appear to protect myocytes against I/R-induced apoptosis, whereas miR-1, -29, -199a, and -320 promote apoptosis, Myocardial fibrosis can be regulated by the miR-29 family, Studies using various in vivo, ex vivo, and in vitro models have suggested the possible involvement of miR-1, miR-21, miR-29, miR-92a, miR-133, miR-199a, and miR-320 in ischemia-reperfusion injury and/or remodeling after myocardial infarction., Among the MI-regulated miRNAs are members of the miR-29 family, which are down-regulated in the region of the heart adjacent to the infarct. The miR-29 family targets a cadre of mRNAs that encode proteins involved in fibrosis, including multiple collagens, fibrillins, and elastin. Thus, down-regulation of miR-29 would be predicted to derepress the expression of these mRNAs and enhance the fibrotic response. Indeed, down-regulation of miR-29 with anti-miRs in vitro and in vivo induces the expression of collagens, whereas over-expression of miR-29 in fibroblasts reduces collagen expression. We conclude that miR-29 acts as a regulator of cardiac fibrosis and represents a potential therapeutic target for tissue fibrosis in general.[SEP]Relations: ischemia reperfusion injury has relations: disease_protein with MIR148B, disease_protein with MIR148B, disease_protein with EFNA5, disease_protein with EFNA5. myocardial infarction has relations: disease_protein with MIR145, disease_protein with MIR145, disease_protein with MIR145, disease_protein with MIR145, disease_protein with MIR761, disease_protein with MIR761. Definitions: fibrosis defined as following: Any pathological condition where fibrous connective tissue invades any organ, usually as a consequence of inflammation or other injury.. collagens defined as following: A polypeptide substance comprising about one third of the total protein in mammalian organisms. It is the main constituent of SKIN; CONNECTIVE TISSUE; and the organic substance of bones (BONE AND BONES) and teeth (TOOTH).. fibrillins defined as following: A family of extracellular matrix glycoproteins that is structurally similar to LATENT TGF-BETA BINDING PROTEINS, but contain additional TGF-beta binding domains, in addition to unique domains at their N and C-terminals. Fibrillins assemble into 10-12 nm MICROFIBRILS that function in a variety of cell interactions with the EXTRACELLULAR MATRIX and developmental processes such as ELASTIC TISSUE maintenance and assembly, and the targeting of growth factors to the extracellular matrix.. miR-21 defined as following: This gene is involved in the regulation of gene expression and plays an oncogenic role in hepatocellular, breast, esophageal, gastric, pancreatic, prostatic and squamous cell carcinomas, glioblastoma and glioma.. ischemia-reperfusion injury defined as following: Adverse functional, metabolic, or structural changes in tissues that result from the restoration of blood flow to the tissue (REPERFUSION) following ISCHEMIA.. myocytes defined as following: Mature contractile cells, commonly known as myocytes, that form one of three kinds of muscle. The three types of muscle cells are skeletal (MUSCLE FIBERS, SKELETAL), cardiac (MYOCYTES, CARDIAC), and smooth (MYOCYTES, SMOOTH MUSCLE). They are derived from embryonic (precursor) muscle cells called MYOBLASTS.. necrosis defined as following: A finding indicating the presence of cellular necrosis in a tissue specimen.. elastin defined as following: Elastin (786 aa, ~68 kDa) is encoded by the human ELN gene. This protein is involved in the elasticity of the extracellular matrix.. anti-miRs defined as following: Chemically-engineered oligonucleotides used to selectively inhibit expression of target genes through sequence-specific binding of corresponding microRNA (miRNA) sites.. miRNAs defined as following: Small double-stranded, non-protein coding RNAs, 21-25 nucleotides in length generated from single-stranded microRNA gene transcripts by the same RIBONUCLEASE III, Dicer, that produces small interfering RNAs (RNA, SMALL INTERFERING). They become part of the RNA-INDUCED SILENCING COMPLEX and repress the translation (TRANSLATION, GENETIC) of target RNA by binding to homologous 3'UTR region as an imperfect match. The small temporal RNAs (stRNAs), let-7 and lin-4, from C. elegans, are the first 2 miRNAs discovered, and are from a class of miRNAs involved in developmental timing.. infarct defined as following: Formation of an infarct, which is NECROSIS in tissue due to local ISCHEMIA resulting from obstruction of BLOOD CIRCULATION, most commonly by a THROMBUS or EMBOLUS.. Myocardial fibrosis defined as following: The accumulation of fibrotic tissue in the myocardium. This may result from chronic hypertension, myocardial infarction or cardiomyopathy and eventually lead to heart failure..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_1768", "sentence1": "Is there a role of regorafenib for sarcoma treatment?", "sentence2": "Regorafenib has been approved for third-line therapy., Study protocol of REGOSARC trial: activity and safety of regorafenib in advanced soft tissue sarcoma: a multinational, randomized, placebo-controlled, phase II trial., DISCUSSION: The design of this trial allows an assessment of regorafenib activity over placebo in four sarcoma strata and might provide evidence for launching a phase III trial., This case provides rationale for adding a Ewing sarcoma arm to SARC024, a phase II study of regorafenib, another multi-targeted kinase inhibitor, in patients with liposarcoma, osteosarcoma and Ewing and Ewing-like sarcomas (NCT02048371)., Thus, the Phase III studies with pazopanib, regorafenib, muramyl tripeptide (MTP) and ridaforolimus are extensively discussed as well as the biological rationale for the use of these compounds., Currently, regorafenib is examined in several clinical trials (mostly phase II) in different tumor entities, including renal cell carcinoma (RCC), hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC), and soft tissue sarcoma (STS)., Analysis of primary human sarcoma samples revealed direct cytotoxicity following exposure to sorafenib and regorafenib with a corresponding increase in ALDHbright cells (P<0.05)., Parametric and non-parametric statistical analyses were performed as appropriate.RESULTS: After functionally validating the CSC phenotype of ALDHbright sarcoma cells, we observed that sorafenib and regorafenib were cytotoxic to sarcoma cell lines (P<0.05), with a corresponding 1.4 - 2.8 fold increase in ALDHbright cells from baseline (P<0.05)., We evaluated survival and CSC phenotype in mice harboring sarcoma metastases after TKI therapy. We exposed dissociated primary sarcoma tumors to sorafenib, regorafenib, and pazopanib, and we used tissue microarray (TMA) and primary sarcoma samples to evaluate the frequency and intensity of CSC markers after neoadjuvant therapy with sorafenib and pazopanib. Parametric and non-parametric statistical analyses were performed as appropriate.RESULTS: After functionally validating the CSC phenotype of ALDHbright sarcoma cells, we observed that sorafenib and regorafenib were cytotoxic to sarcoma cell lines (P<0.05), with a corresponding 1.4 - 2.8 fold increase in ALDHbright cells from baseline (P<0.05)., We exposed dissociated primary sarcoma tumors to sorafenib, regorafenib, and pazopanib, and we used tissue microarray (TMA) and primary sarcoma samples to evaluate the frequency and intensity of CSC markers after neoadjuvant therapy with sorafenib and pazopanib. Parametric and non-parametric statistical analyses were performed as appropriate.RESULTS: After functionally validating the CSC phenotype of ALDHbright sarcoma cells, we observed that sorafenib and regorafenib were cytotoxic to sarcoma cell lines (P<0.05), with a corresponding 1.4 - 2.8 fold increase in ALDHbright cells from baseline (P<0.05)., We exposed dissociated primary sarcoma tumors to sorafenib, regorafenib, and pazopanib, and we used tissue microarray (TMA) and primary sarcoma samples to evaluate the frequency and intensity of CSC markers after neoadjuvant therapy with sorafenib and pazopanib. Parametric and non-parametric statistical analyses were performed as appropriate.RESULTS: After functionally validating the CSC phenotype of ALDHbright sarcoma cells, we observed that sorafenib and regorafenib were cytotoxic to sarcoma cell lines (P<0.05), with a corresponding 1.4 - 2.8 fold increase in ALDHbright cells from baseline (P<0.05). In contrast, we observed negligible effects on viability and CSC sub-populations with pazopanib., After functionally validating the CSC phenotype of ALDHbright sarcoma cells, we observed that sorafenib and regorafenib were cytotoxic to sarcoma cell lines (P < 0.05), with a corresponding 1.4 - 2.8 fold increase in ALDHbright cells from baseline (P < 0.05).[SEP]Relations: Regorafenib has relations: drug_drug with Sarilumab, drug_drug with Sarilumab, drug_drug with Sarecycline, drug_drug with Sarecycline, drug_drug with Afelimomab, drug_drug with Afelimomab, drug_drug with Lapatinib, drug_drug with Lapatinib, drug_drug with Sulfasalazine, drug_drug with Sulfasalazine. Definitions: RCC defined as following: A malignant epithelial neoplasm of the kidney characterized by the presence of lipid-containing clear cells within a vascular network. The tumor may metastasize to unusual sites and late metastasis is common.. pazopanib defined as following: A small molecule inhibitor of multiple protein tyrosine kinases with potential antineoplastic activity. Pazopanib selectively inhibits vascular endothelial growth factor receptors (VEGFR)-1, -2 and -3, c-kit and platelet derived growth factor receptor (PDGF-R), which may result in inhibition of angiogenesis in tumors in which these receptors are upregulated.. ridaforolimus defined as following: A small molecule and non-prodrug analogue of the lipophilic macrolide antibiotic rapamycin with potential antitumor activity. Ridaforolimus binds to and inhibits the mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR), which may result in cell cycle arrest and, consequently, the inhibition of tumor cell growth and proliferation. Upregulated in some tumors, mTOR is a serine/threonine kinase involved in regulating cellular proliferation, motility, and survival that is located downstream of the PI3K/Akt signaling pathway.. hepatocellular carcinoma defined as following: A primary malignant neoplasm of epithelial liver cells. It ranges from a well-differentiated tumor with EPITHELIAL CELLS indistinguishable from normal HEPATOCYTES to a poorly differentiated neoplasm. The cells may be uniform or markedly pleomorphic, or form GIANT CELLS. Several classification schemes have been suggested.. Regorafenib defined as following: The anhydrous form of regorafenib, an orally bioavailable small molecule with potential antiangiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Regorafenib binds to and inhibits vascular endothelial growth factor receptors (VEGFRs) 2 and 3, and Ret, Kit, PDGFR and Raf kinases, which may result in the inhibition of tumor angiogenesis and tumor cell proliferation. VEGFRs are receptor tyrosine kinases that play important roles in tumor angiogenesis; the receptor tyrosine kinases RET, KIT, and PDGFR, and the serine/threonine-specific Raf kinase are involved in tumor cell signaling.. osteosarcoma defined as following: A usually aggressive malignant bone-forming mesenchymal neoplasm arising from the bone. It may arise de novo or from a pre-existing lesion of the bone. Pain and a palpable mass are the most frequent clinical sign and symptom. It may spread to other anatomic sites, particularly the lungs.. sarcoma defined as following: A malignant neoplasm arising exclusively from the soft tissues.. STS defined as following: An anionic surface-active agent used for its wetting properties in industry and used in medicine as an irritant and sclerosing agent for hemorrhoids and varicose veins.. TMA defined as following: A microvascular coagulopathy that may result from systemic vascular endothelial injury triggering the development of a procoagulant state, activation of the complement cascade, and microthrombi formation. Signs may include hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, hypertension and renal dysfunction.. liposarcoma defined as following: A malignant tumor derived from primitive or embryonal lipoblastic cells. It may be composed of well-differentiated fat cells or may be dedifferentiated: myxoid (LIPOSARCOMA, MYXOID), round-celled, or pleomorphic, usually in association with a rich network of capillaries. Recurrences are common and dedifferentiated liposarcomas metastasize to the lungs or serosal surfaces. (From Dorland, 27th ed; Stedman, 25th ed). soft tissue sarcoma defined as following: A malignant neoplasm arising from muscle tissue, adipose tissue, blood vessels, fibrous tissue, or other supportive tissues excluding the bones.. sorafenib defined as following: A synthetic compound targeting growth signaling and angiogenesis. Sorafenib blocks the enzyme RAF kinase, a critical component of the RAF/MEK/ERK signaling pathway that controls cell division and proliferation; in addition, sorafenib inhibits the VEGFR-2/PDGFR-beta signaling cascade, thereby blocking tumor angiogenesis.. regorafenib defined as following: The anhydrous form of regorafenib, an orally bioavailable small molecule with potential antiangiogenic and antineoplastic activities. Regorafenib binds to and inhibits vascular endothelial growth factor receptors (VEGFRs) 2 and 3, and Ret, Kit, PDGFR and Raf kinases, which may result in the inhibition of tumor angiogenesis and tumor cell proliferation. VEGFRs are receptor tyrosine kinases that play important roles in tumor angiogenesis; the receptor tyrosine kinases RET, KIT, and PDGFR, and the serine/threonine-specific Raf kinase are involved in tumor cell signaling..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_3590", "sentence1": "Does association with the nuclear pore promote gene silencing?", "sentence2": "Here, we show that the nucleoporin Nup358 plays an important role in this process. Nup358 localizes to the nuclear pore complex and to the cytoplasmic annulate lamellae (AL), and these structures dynamically associate with two mRNP granules: processing bodies (P bodies) and stress granules (SGs). , MicroRNA (miRNA)-guided mRNA repression, mediated by the miRNA-induced silencing complex (miRISC), is an important component of post-transcriptional gene silencing., To assess Tpr's role as an architectural element of the NPC, we have studied the sequential disassembly and reassembly of NPCs in mitotic cells, paralleled by studies of cells depleted of Tpr as a result of posttranscriptional tpr gene silencing by RNA interference (RNAi)., The results raise the possibility that NPC-localized protein desumoylation may be a key regulatory event preventing inappropriate pre-mRNA export., Silencing nuclear pore protein Tpr elicits a senescent-like phenotype in cancer cells.[SEP]Relations: nuclear pore has relations: cellcomp_protein with RAN, cellcomp_protein with RAN, cellcomp_protein with IPO5, cellcomp_protein with IPO5, cellcomp_protein with GLE1, cellcomp_protein with GLE1, cellcomp_protein with IPO7, cellcomp_protein with IPO7, cellcomp_protein with RGPD5, cellcomp_protein with RGPD5. Definitions: NPC defined as following: A carcinoma that originates in the EPITHELIUM of the NASOPHARYNX and includes four subtypes: keratinizing squamous cell, non-keratinizing, basaloid squamous cell, and PAPILLARY ADENOCARCINOMA. It is most prevalent in Southeast Asian populations and is associated with EPSTEIN-BARR VIRUS INFECTIONS. Somatic mutations associated with this cancer have been identified in NPCR, BAP1, UBAP1, ERBB2, ERBB3, MLL2, PIK3CA, KRAS, NRAS, and ARID1A genes.. Nup358 defined as following: Human RANBP2 wild-type allele is located in the vicinity of 2q12.3 and is approximately 66 kb in length. This allele, which encodes E3 SUMO-protein ligase RanBP2 protein, plays a role in both nuclear transport and protein SUMOylation. Mutation of the gene is associated with acute infection-induced encephalopathy 3. A chromosomal translocation t(2;2)(p23;q13) involving this gene and the ALK gene is associated with both inflammatory myofibroblastic tumor and, more rarely, myeloproliferative disorders.. pre-mRNA defined as following: A primary RNA transcript synthesized from a DNA template in eukaryotic nuclei which is post-transcriptionally modified and spliced to produce a mature mRNA.. cancer cells defined as following: Cells of, or derived from, a malignant tumor.. SGs defined as following: A rare, autosomal dominant inherited syndrome often caused by mutations in the SKI gene. It is characterized by premature fusion of skull bones and distinctive facial features, including a long, narrow head, hypertelorism, exophthalmos, downslanting palpebral fissures, a high, narrow palate, micrognathia, and low-set ears. The bodies of affected individuals resemble those of people with Marfan syndrome.. Tpr defined as following: Nucleoprotein TPR (2363 aa, ~267 kDa) is encoded by the human TPR gene. This protein plays a role in both mitotic spindle assembly and nuclear membrane transport.. cells defined as following: The fundamental, structural, and functional units or subunits of living organisms. They are composed of CYTOPLASM containing various ORGANELLES and a CELL MEMBRANE boundary.. nuclear pore complex defined as following: An opening through the NUCLEAR ENVELOPE formed by the nuclear pore complex which transports nuclear proteins or RNA into or out of the CELL NUCLEUS and which, under some conditions, acts as an ion channel.. stress granules defined as following: A dense aggregation in the cytosol composed of proteins and RNAs that appear when the cell is under stress. [GOC:ans, PMID:17284590, PMID:17601829, PMID:17967451, PMID:20368989]. nuclear pore defined as following: An opening through the NUCLEAR ENVELOPE formed by the nuclear pore complex which transports nuclear proteins or RNA into or out of the CELL NUCLEUS and which, under some conditions, acts as an ion channel..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_1466", "sentence1": "Is the HRC Ser96Ala variant associated with sudden cardiac death in patients with dilated cardiomyopathy?", "sentence2": "The Ser96Ala genetic variant of HRC is associated with life-threatening ventricular arrhythmias in idiopathic DCM and may serve as an independent predictor of susceptibility to arrhythmogenesis in the setting of DCM., The Ser96Ala (S96A) mutation within the histidine rich Ca(2+) binding protein (HRC) has recently been linked to cardiac arrhythmias in idiopathic dilated cardiomyopathy patients, potentially attributable to an increase in spontaneous Ca(2+) release events., A human genetic variant (Ser96Ala) in the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) histidine-rich Ca(2+)-binding (HRC) protein has been linked to ventricular arrhythmia and sudden death in dilated cardiomyopathy., The histidine-rich calcium binding protein (HRC) Ser96Ala polymorphism was shown to correlate with ventricular arrhythmias and sudden death only in dilated cardiomyopathy patients but not in healthy human carriers., HRC has been linked with familiar cardiac conduction disease and an HRC polymorphism was shown to associate with malignant ventricular arrhythmias in the background of idiopathic dilated cardiomyopathy., A human genetic variant (Ser96Ala) in the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) histidine-rich Ca(2+)-binding (HRC) protein has been linked to ventricular arrhythmia and sudden death in dilated cardiomyopathy, The Ser96Ala genetic variant of HRC is associated with life-threatening ventricular arrhythmias in idiopathic DCM and may serve as an independent predictor of susceptibility to arrhythmogenesis in the setting of DCM., The histidine-rich calcium binding protein (HRC) Ser96Ala polymorphism was shown to correlate with ventricular arrhythmias and sudden death only in dilated cardiomyopathy patients but not in healthy human carriers, The Ser96Ala variant in histidine-rich calcium-binding protein is associated with life-threatening ventricular arrhythmias in idiopathic dilated cardiomyopathy., These findings indicate that the HRC Ser96Ala variant increases the propensity of arrhythmogenic Ca(2+) waves in the stressed failing heart, suggesting a link between this genetic variant and life-threatening ventricular arrhythmias in human carriers.[SEP]Relations: dilated cardiomyopathy has relations: disease_phenotype_positive with Sudden cardiac death, disease_phenotype_positive with Sudden cardiac death, disease_phenotype_positive with Sudden death, disease_phenotype_positive with Sudden death, disease_protein with SLC22A5, disease_protein with SLC22A5, disease_protein with ABCC9, disease_protein with ABCC9. Sudden death has relations: disease_phenotype_positive with dilated cardiomyopathy, disease_phenotype_positive with dilated cardiomyopathy. Definitions: ventricular arrhythmia defined as following: An electrocardiographic finding of an atypical cardiac rhythm resulting from a pathologic process in the cardiac ventricles.. variant defined as following: An alteration or difference from a norm or standard.. human defined as following: Members of the species Homo sapiens.. sarcoplasmic reticulum defined as following: A network of tubules and sacs in the cytoplasm of SKELETAL MUSCLE FIBERS that assist with muscle contraction and relaxation by releasing and storing calcium ions.. dilated cardiomyopathy defined as following: Cardiomyopathy which is characterized by dilation and contractile dysfunction of the left and right ventricles. It may be idiopathic, or it may result from a myocardial infarction, myocardial infection, or alcohol abuse. It is a cause of congestive heart failure.. polymorphism defined as following: The regular and simultaneous occurrence in a single interbreeding population of two or more discontinuous genotypes. The concept includes differences in genotypes ranging in size from a single nucleotide site (POLYMORPHISM, SINGLE NUCLEOTIDE) to large nucleotide sequences visible at a chromosomal level.. ventricular arrhythmias defined as following: A disorder characterized by an electrocardiographic finding of an atypical cardiac rhythm resulting from a pathologic process in the cardiac ventricles.. cardiac arrhythmias defined as following: Any disturbances of the normal rhythmic beating of the heart or MYOCARDIAL CONTRACTION. Cardiac arrhythmias can be classified by the abnormalities in HEART RATE, disorders of electrical impulse generation, or impulse conduction.. sudden death defined as following: The abrupt cessation of all vital bodily functions, manifested by the permanent loss of total cerebral, respiratory, and cardiovascular functions.. DCM defined as following: A chlorinated methotrexate derivative. Dichloromethotrexate inhibits the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase, thereby preventing the synthesis of purine nucleotides and thymidylates and inhibiting DNA and RNA synthesis. This agent is metabolized and excreted by the liver. (NCI04). sudden cardiac death defined as following: Unexpected rapid natural death due to cardiovascular collapse within one hour of initial symptoms. It is usually caused by the worsening of existing heart diseases. The sudden onset of symptoms, such as CHEST PAIN and CARDIAC ARRHYTHMIAS, particularly VENTRICULAR TACHYCARDIA, can lead to the loss of consciousness and cardiac arrest followed by biological death. (from Braunwald's Heart Disease: A Textbook of Cardiovascular Medicine, 7th ed., 2005).", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_1846", "sentence1": "Can Diabetes be caused by a defect in a potassium chanel?", "sentence2": "Mutations in KATP channel genes can result in hypo- or hypersecretion of insulin, as in neonatal diabetes mellitus and congenital hyperinsulinism, respectively., To date, all patients affected by neonatal diabetes due to a mutation in the pore-forming subunit of the channel (Kir6.2, KCNJ11) are heterozygous for the mutation. , e report the first clinical case of neonatal diabetes caused by a homozygous KCNJ11 mutation, Diffuse congenital hyperinsulinism in infancy (CHI-D) arises from mutations inactivating the KATP channel;, We report a case of a 6-week-old infant with diabetes mellitus based on a genetic defect in the sulfonylurea receptor 1 (SUR1), an ATP-sensitive potassium (KATP) channel protein., In diabetes, vascular KATP channel function is impaired.[SEP]Relations: Type I diabetes mellitus has relations: disease_phenotype_positive with transketolase deficiency, disease_phenotype_positive with transketolase deficiency, disease_phenotype_positive with vasculitis due to ADA2 deficiency, disease_phenotype_positive with vasculitis due to ADA2 deficiency, disease_phenotype_positive with immunodeficiency due to CD25 deficiency, disease_phenotype_positive with immunodeficiency due to CD25 deficiency, disease_phenotype_positive with methanol poisoning, disease_phenotype_positive with methanol poisoning. KCNJ11 has relations: pathway_protein with Defective ABCC8 can cause hypo- and hyper-glycemias, pathway_protein with Defective ABCC8 can cause hypo- and hyper-glycemias. Definitions: congenital hyperinsulinism defined as following: A familial, nontransient HYPOGLYCEMIA with defects in negative feedback of GLUCOSE-regulated INSULIN release. Clinical phenotypes include HYPOGLYCEMIA; HYPERINSULINEMIA; SEIZURES; COMA; and often large BIRTH WEIGHT. Several sub-types exist with the most common, type 1, associated with mutations on an ATP-BINDING CASSETTE TRANSPORTERS (subfamily C, member 8).. insulin defined as following: A synthetic or animal-derived form of insulin used in the treatment of diabetes mellitus. Therapeutic insulin is formulated to be short-, intermediate- and long-acting in order to individualize an insulin regimen according to individual differences in glucose and insulin metabolism. Therapeutic insulin may be derived from porcine, bovine or recombinant sources. Endogenous human insulin, a pancreatic hormone composed of two polypeptide chains, is important for the normal metabolism of carbohydrates, proteins and fats and has anabolic effects on many types of tissues.. mutation defined as following: Any transmissible change in the genetic material of an organism, which can result from radiation, viral infection, transposition, treatment with mutagenic chemicals and errors during DNA replication or meiosis. The effects of mutation range from single base changes to loss or gain of complete chromosomes. As many of the simpler alterations to DNA may be repaired, such changes are only heritable once the change is fixed in the DNA by the process of replication. Mutations may be associated with genetic diversity or with pathologies including cancer.. diabetes defined as following: A heterogeneous group of disorders characterized by HYPERGLYCEMIA and GLUCOSE INTOLERANCE.. sulfonylurea receptor 1 defined as following: ATP-BINDING CASSETTE PROTEINS that are highly conserved and widely expressed in nature. They form an integral part of the ATP-sensitive potassium channel complex which has two intracellular nucleotide folds that bind to sulfonylureas and their analogs.. KATP channel defined as following: Heteromultimers of Kir6 channels (the pore portion) and sulfonylurea receptor (the regulatory portion) which affect function of the HEART; PANCREATIC BETA CELLS; and KIDNEY COLLECTING DUCTS. KATP channel blockers include GLIBENCLAMIDE and mitiglinide whereas openers include CROMAKALIM and minoxidil sulfate.. Mutations defined as following: The result of any gain, loss or alteration of the sequences comprising a gene, including all sequences transcribed into RNA.. Diabetes defined as following: A heterogeneous group of disorders characterized by HYPERGLYCEMIA and GLUCOSE INTOLERANCE..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_809", "sentence1": "Are conserved noncoding elements associated with developmental genes?", "sentence2": "Some characteristics of CNEs include their high frequency in mammalian genomes, their potential regulatory role in gene expression, and their enrichment in gene deserts nearby master developmental genes, we review recent findings that disruptions of CNEs, within or at long distance from the coding sequences of key genes involved in NCC development, result in neurocristopathies via the alteration of tissue- or stage-specific long-distance regulation of gene expression, Genomic regulatory blocks are chromosomal regions spanned by long clusters of highly conserved noncoding elements devoted to long-range regulation of developmental genes, Analysis of CNEs, at least some of which are candidate regulatory elements, suggests that ancestral CNEs partitioned between gene duplicates. These results help explain the evolutionary pathways by which the developmentally important family of FgfD molecules arose and the deduced principles that guided FgfD evolution are likely applicable to the evolution of developmental regulation in many vertebrate multigene families, Pan-vertebrate developmental cis-regulatory elements are discernible as highly conserved noncoding elements (HCNEs) and are often dispersed over large areas around the pleiotropic genes whose expression they control. On the loci of two developmental transcription factor genes, SOX3 and PAX6, we demonstrate that HCNEs conserved between human and zebrafish can be systematically and reliably tested for their regulatory function in multiple stable transgenes in zebrafish, and their genomic reach estimated with confidence using synteny conservation and HCNE density along these loci. HCNEs of both human and zebrafish function as specific developmental enhancers in zebrafish, We show that human HCNEs result in expression patterns in zebrafish equivalent to those in mouse, establishing zebrafish as a suitable model for large-scale testing of human developmental enhancers, HCNEs from the same area often drive overlapping patterns, suggesting that multiple regulatory inputs are required to achieve robust and precise complex expression patterns exhibited by developmental genes, Organization of conserved elements near key developmental regulators in vertebrate genomes, Further positional analysis of these conserved noncoding elements (CNEs) in the genome demonstrates that they cluster around genes involved in developmental regulation, Ancora: a web resource for exploring highly conserved noncoding elements and their association with developmental regulatory genes, Metazoan genomes contain arrays of highly conserved noncoding elements (HCNEs) that span developmental regulatory genes and define regulatory domains, The most highly conserved noncoding elements (HCNEs) in mammalian genomes cluster within regions enriched for genes encoding developmentally important transcription factors (TFs). This suggests that HCNE-rich regions may contain key regulatory controls involved in development, We found the largest mammal-teleost conserved chromosomal segments to be spanned by highly conserved noncoding elements (HCNEs), their developmental regulatory target genes, and phylogenetically and functionally unrelated \"bystander\" genes., Ancora: a web resource for exploring highly conserved noncoding elements and their association with developmental regulatory genes., Pan-vertebrate developmental cis-regulatory elements are discernible as highly conserved noncoding elements (HCNEs) and are often dispersed over large areas around the pleiotropic genes whose expression they control., Metazoan genomes contain arrays of highly conserved noncoding elements (HCNEs) that span developmental regulatory genes and define regulatory domains., Further positional analysis of these conserved noncoding elements (CNEs) in the genome demonstrates that they cluster around genes involved in developmental regulation., The most highly conserved noncoding elements (HCNEs) in mammalian genomes cluster within regions enriched for genes encoding developmentally important transcription factors (TFs)., Disruption of long-distance highly conserved noncoding elements in neurocristopathies., Fish-mammal genomic comparisons have proved powerful in identifying conserved noncoding elements likely to be cis-regulatory in nature, and the majority of those tested in vivo have been shown to act as tissue-specific enhancers associated with genes involved in transcriptional regulation of development., Despite this, attempts at unearthing genome-wide regulatory elements conserved throughout the vertebrate lineage using BLAST-like approaches have thus far detected noncoding conservation in only a few hundred genes, mostly associated with regulation of transcription and development., Further positional analysis of these conserved noncoding elements (CNEs) in the genome demonstrates that they cluster around genes involved in developmental regulation., We found the largest mammal-teleost conserved chromosomal segments to be spanned by highly conserved noncoding elements (HCNEs), their developmental regulatory target genes, and phylogenetically and functionally unrelated \"bystander\" genes., Organization of conserved elements near key developmental regulators in vertebrate genomes., Pan-vertebrate developmental cis-regulatory elements are discernible as highly conserved noncoding elements (HCNEs) and are often dispersed over large areas around the pleiotropic genes whose expression they control[SEP]Relations: transcription factor binding has relations: molfunc_protein with PARK7, molfunc_protein with PARK7, molfunc_protein with ARNT, molfunc_protein with ARNT, molfunc_protein with HOXA7, molfunc_protein with HOXA7, molfunc_protein with CEBPG, molfunc_protein with CEBPG. SLC12A3 has relations: anatomy_protein_absent with decidua, anatomy_protein_absent with decidua. Definitions: gene defined as following: A category of nucleic acid sequences that function as units of heredity and which code for the basic instructions for the development, reproduction, and maintenance of organisms.. PAX6 defined as following: This gene plays a role in transcriptional regulation.. genome defined as following: Anatomical set of genes in all the chromosomes.. pleiotropic genes defined as following: A single gene that influences several distinct and seemly unrelated phenotypic outcomes.. conservation defined as following: The maintenance of certain characteristics in an unchanged condition.. SOX3 defined as following: This gene is involved in neuronal differentiation.. human defined as following: Members of the species Homo sapiens.. zebrafish defined as following: An exotic species of the family CYPRINIDAE, originally from Asia, that has been introduced in North America. Zebrafish is a model organism for drug assay and cancer research.. transgenes defined as following: Genes that are introduced into an organism using GENE TRANSFER TECHNIQUES.. transcription factors defined as following: Endogenous substances, usually proteins, which are effective in the initiation, stimulation, or termination of the genetic transcription process.. developmental genes defined as following: Genes that determine the fate of a cell or CELLS in a region of the embryo during EMBRYONIC DEVELOPMENT.. vertebrate defined as following: Animals having a vertebral column, members of the phylum Chordata, subphylum Craniata comprising mammals, birds, reptiles, amphibians, and fishes..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_2349", "sentence1": "Do chromatin features predict genes associated with eQTLs?", "sentence2": "Using the random forest classifier, we found that genomic proximity plus five TF and chromatin features are able to predict>90% of target genes within 1 megabase of eQTLs, Using the random forest classifier, we found that genomic proximity plus five TF and chromatin features are able to predict >90% of target genes within 1 megabase of eQTLs., Cell type-specific gene expression in humans involves complex interactions between regulatory factors and DNA at enhancers and promoters. Mapping studies for expression quantitative trait loci (eQTLs), transcription factors (TFs) and chromatin markers have become widely used tools for identifying gene regulatory elements, but prediction of target genes remains a major challenge. Here, we integrate genome-wide data on TF-binding sites, chromatin markers and functional annotations to predict genes associated with human eQTLs. Using the random forest classifier, we found that genomic proximity plus five TF and chromatin features are able to predict >90% of target genes within 1 megabase of eQTLs. Despite being regularly used to map target genes, proximity is not a good indicator of eQTL targets for genes 150 kilobases away, but insulators, TF co-occurrence, open chromatin and functional similarities between TFs and genes are better indicators. Using all six features in the classifier achieved an area under the specificity and sensitivity curve of 0.91, much better compared with at most 0.75 for using any single feature. We hope this study will not only provide validation of eQTL-mapping studies, but also provide insight into the molecular mechanisms explaining how genetic variation can influence gene expression.[SEP]Relations: transcription factor binding has relations: molfunc_protein with C1QBP, molfunc_protein with C1QBP, molfunc_protein with METTL23, molfunc_protein with METTL23, molfunc_protein with ETS1, molfunc_protein with ETS1, molfunc_protein with CENPF, molfunc_protein with CENPF, molfunc_protein with AHR, molfunc_protein with AHR. Definitions: humans defined as following: Members of the species Homo sapiens.. TF defined as following: A person who was assigned to the male gender at birth based on physical characteristics but who self-identifies psychologically and emotionally as female.. DNA defined as following: A deoxyribonucleotide polymer that is the primary genetic material of all cells. Eukaryotic and prokaryotic organisms normally contain DNA in a double-stranded state, yet several important biological processes transiently involve single-stranded regions. DNA, which consists of a polysugar-phosphate backbone possessing projections of purines (adenine and guanine) and pyrimidines (thymine and cytosine), forms a double helix that is held together by hydrogen bonds between these purines and pyrimidines (adenine to thymine and guanine to cytosine).. promoters defined as following: A DNA sequence at which RNA polymerase binds and initiates transcription.. transcription factors defined as following: Endogenous substances, usually proteins, which are effective in the initiation, stimulation, or termination of the genetic transcription process.. genes defined as following: A category of nucleic acid sequences that function as units of heredity and which code for the basic instructions for the development, reproduction, and maintenance of organisms.. chromatin defined as following: The material of CHROMOSOMES. It is a complex of DNA; HISTONES; and nonhistone proteins (CHROMOSOMAL PROTEINS, NON-HISTONE) found within the nucleus of a cell..", "label": "yes"} {"id": "converted_4300", "sentence1": "Is istiratumab effective for pancreatic cancer?", "sentence2": "CONCLUSIONS: Istiratumab failed to improve the efficacy of SOC chemotherapy in this patient setting. [SEP]Definitions: pancreatic cancer defined as following: A primary or metastatic malignant tumor involving the pancreas. Representative examples include carcinoma and lymphoma..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_4145", "sentence1": "Is atenolol metabolized by CYP2D6?", "sentence2": "The study analysed the prescribing and dispensing of CYP2D6 drugs (metoprolol, donepezil, galantamine, codeine, tamoxifen) together with CYP2D6-blocking SSRIs (paroxetine/fluoxetine) or SSRIs without significant CYP2D6 inhibition (citalopram/escitalopram/sertraline), and the related prescribing of CYP2D6-independent comparator drugs (atenolol, rivastigmine, propoxyphene, anastrozole).[SEP]Relations: Atenolol has relations: drug_protein with CYP2D6, drug_protein with CYP2D6, drug_drug with NN344, drug_drug with NN344, drug_protein with ADRB2, drug_protein with ADRB2, drug_drug with Isocarboxazid, drug_drug with Isocarboxazid, drug_protein with ABCB11, drug_protein with ABCB11. Definitions: propoxyphene defined as following: The d-isomer of synthetic diphenyl propionate derivative propoxyphene, with narcotic analgesic effect. This agent mimics the effects of the endogenous opiate dextropropoxyphene, by binding to mu receptors located throughout the central nervous system. The binding results in GTP to GDP exchanges on the mu-G-protein complex, by which effector adenylate cyclase is inactivated thereby decreasing intracellular cAMP. This, in turn, inhibits the release of various nociceptive neurotransmitters, such as substance P, gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA), dopamine, acetylcholine, noradrenaline, vasopressin, and somatostatin. In addition, dextropropoxyphene closes N-type voltage-gated calcium channels and opens calcium-dependent inwardly rectifying potassium channels. This results in hyperpolarization, thereby reducing neuronal excitability, which further decreases the perception of pain.. SSRIs defined as following: Any agent that increases the extracellular level of the neurotransmitter serotonin (5-HT) by inhibiting its reuptake into the presynaptic cell. Increased level in the synaptic cleft prolongs the action of 5-HT on the postsynaptic receptor. This type of agent is typically used as an antidepressant and in the treatment of anxiety disorders and some personality disorders. They are also typically effective and used in treating some cases of insomnia.. donepezil defined as following: The hydrochloride salt of a piperidine derivative with neurocognitive-enhancing activity. Donepezil reversibly inhibits acetylcholinesterase, thereby blocking the hydrolysis of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine and, consequently, increasing its activity. This agent may improve neurocognitive function in Alzheimer's disease, reduce sedation associated with opioid treatment of cancer pain, and improve neurocognitive function in patients who have received radiation therapy for primary brain tumors or brain metastases.. galantamine defined as following: A benzazepine derived from norbelladine. It is found in GALANTHUS and other AMARYLLIDACEAE. It is a cholinesterase inhibitor that has been used to reverse the muscular effects of GALLAMINE TRIETHIODIDE and TUBOCURARINE and has been studied as a treatment for ALZHEIMER DISEASE and other central nervous system disorders.. codeine defined as following: An opioid analgesic related to MORPHINE but with less potent analgesic properties and mild sedative effects. It also acts centrally to suppress cough.. tamoxifen defined as following: One of the SELECTIVE ESTROGEN RECEPTOR MODULATORS with tissue-specific activities. Tamoxifen acts as an anti-estrogen (inhibiting agent) in the mammary tissue, but as an estrogen (stimulating agent) in cholesterol metabolism, bone density, and cell proliferation in the ENDOMETRIUM.. rivastigmine defined as following: A carbamate-derived reversible CHOLINESTERASE INHIBITOR that is selective for the CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM and is used for the treatment of DEMENTIA in ALZHEIMER DISEASE and PARKINSON DISEASE.. metoprolol defined as following: A selective adrenergic beta-1 blocking agent that is commonly used to treat ANGINA PECTORIS; HYPERTENSION; and CARDIAC ARRHYTHMIAS.. atenolol defined as following: A cardioselective beta-1 adrenergic blocker possessing properties and potency similar to PROPRANOLOL, but without a negative inotropic effect.. CYP2D6 defined as following: Cytochrome P450 2D6 (497 aa, ~56 kDa) is encoded by the human CYP2D6 gene. This protein plays a role in flavoprotein metabolism..", "label": "no"} {"id": "converted_3587", "sentence1": "Does Estrogen lead to forkhead FoxA1 activation?", "sentence2": "We showed that CTCF acts upstream of the \"pioneer\" factor FOXA1 in determining the genomic response to estrogen. , Almost all ER-chromatin interactions and gene expression changes depended on the presence of FOXA1 and FOXA1 influenced genome-wide chromatin accessibility, FOXA1 is a key determinant of estrogen receptor function and endocrine response., As such, FOXA1 is a major determinant of estrogen-ER activity and endocrine response in breast cancer cells., Location analysis of estrogen receptor alpha target promoters reveals that FOXA1 defines a domain of the estrogen response., Furthermore, knockdown of FoxA1 expression blocks the association of ER with chromatin and estrogen-induced gene expression demonstrating the necessity of FoxA1 in mediating an estrogen response in breast cancer cells., FoxA1 determines estrogen receptor action in breast cancer progression, Given previous findings from cell lines, FoxA1 appears to play a critical role in this reprogramming of ER binding., FOXA1 expression can independently predict chemosensitivity of ER-positive breast cancer patients., FOXA1 expression could be a prognostic marker in ER-positive breast cancer., The pioneer transcription factor FoxA1 plays an important role in estrogen signaling by opening closed chromatin and promoting recruitment of the estrogen receptor to its target regions in DNA, The phosphomimetic FoxA1 promoted the activation of estrogen signaling, whereas the nonphosphorylatable FoxA1 suppressed its activation.[SEP]Relations: estrogen receptor activity has relations: molfunc_protein with GPER1, molfunc_protein with GPER1, molfunc_protein with GPER1, molfunc_protein with GPER1, molfunc_protein with ESR1, molfunc_protein with ESR1, molfunc_protein with ESR1, molfunc_protein with ESR1, molfunc_protein with ESR2, molfunc_protein with ESR2. Definitions: estrogen receptor alpha defined as following: One of the ESTROGEN RECEPTORS that has marked affinity for ESTRADIOL. Its expression and function differs from, and in some ways opposes, ESTROGEN RECEPTOR BETA.. CTCF defined as following: CCN family member 2 (349 aa, ~38kDa) is encoded by the human CCN2 gene. This protein plays a role in the promotion of proliferation and differentiation of chondrocytes and also mediates heparin- and divalent cation-dependent cell adhesion in many different cell types.. FoxA1 defined as following: This gene plays a role in the modulation of gene expression.. estrogen receptor defined as following: Cytoplasmic proteins that bind estrogens and migrate to the nucleus where they regulate DNA transcription. Evaluation of the state of estrogen receptors in breast cancer patients has become clinically important.. breast cancer defined as following: A primary or metastatic malignant neoplasm involving the breast. The vast majority of cases are carcinomas arising from the breast parenchyma or the nipple. Malignant breast neoplasms occur more frequently in females than in males.. ER defined as following: A system of cisternae in the CYTOPLASM of many cells. In places the endoplasmic reticulum is continuous with the plasma membrane (CELL MEMBRANE) or outer membrane of the nuclear envelope. If the outer surfaces of the endoplasmic reticulum membranes are coated with ribosomes, the endoplasmic reticulum is said to be rough-surfaced (ENDOPLASMIC RETICULUM, ROUGH); otherwise it is said to be smooth-surfaced (ENDOPLASMIC RETICULUM, SMOOTH). (King & Stansfield, A Dictionary of Genetics, 4th ed). domain defined as following: A taxonomic category above that of Kingdom.. DNA defined as following: A deoxyribonucleotide polymer that is the primary genetic material of all cells. Eukaryotic and prokaryotic organisms normally contain DNA in a double-stranded state, yet several important biological processes transiently involve single-stranded regions. DNA, which consists of a polysugar-phosphate backbone possessing projections of purines (adenine and guanine) and pyrimidines (thymine and cytosine), forms a double helix that is held together by hydrogen bonds between these purines and pyrimidines (adenine to thymine and guanine to cytosine).. cell lines defined as following: Established cell cultures that have the potential to propagate indefinitely.. FOXA1 defined as following: This gene plays a role in the modulation of gene expression.. chromatin defined as following: The ordered and organized complex of DNA, protein, and sometimes RNA, that forms the chromosome. [GOC:elh, PMID:20404130]. Estrogen defined as following: Compounds that interact with ESTROGEN RECEPTORS in target tissues to bring about the effects similar to those of ESTRADIOL. Estrogens stimulate the female reproductive organs, and the development of secondary female SEX CHARACTERISTICS. Estrogenic chemicals include natural, synthetic, steroidal, or non-steroidal compounds..", "label": "yes"}