question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4 values | rationale stringlengths 0 22.5k ⌀ | split stringclasses 1 value | dataset stringclasses 6 values | subject stringclasses 1 value |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
Jumper's fracture is seen in - | [
"Calcaneum",
"Tibia",
"Pelvis",
"Neck femur"
] | C | Jumper's fractures of the sacrum are characterized by an H - or U - shaped fracture line in the upper sacrum, usually involving the S1-S2 region.
Typical, the anterior segment of the pelvic ring is not injured.
So, Jumper's fracture involve the posterior segment of pelvic ring. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which among the following acts as the intermediate host for T. Saginata? | [
"Man",
"Cow",
"Dog",
"Pig"
] | B | Man is the definitive host and cattle is the intermediate host for T. saginata. Humans are infected by eating raw or undercooked beef containing the larvae. In the small intestine the larvae grows into adult worms and is passed in the feces and are eaten by cattle. Cattle serves as intermediate host for T saginata. T.solium: Infection in humans occur when they ingest raw or undercooked pork containing the larvae called cysticerci. Man is the definitive host and pig is the intermediate host. Patients develop anorexia, diarrhea, when it affects the brain it causes headache, vomiting and seizures, in the eyes it appears as uveitis or retinitis. Ref: Levinson W. (2012). Chapter 54. Cestodes. In W. Levinson (Ed), Review of Medical Microbiology & Immunology, 12e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Chronic Carrier State is seen in - | [
"Measles",
"Influenza",
"HepatitisB",
"Pertussis"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., hepatitis B Incubatory carrierConvalescent carrierHealthy carrierChronic carriero Measleso Mumpso Polioo Pertusiso Influenzao Diphtheriao Hepatitis Bo Typhoid fevero Dysentery (bacillary and amebic)o Cholerao Diphtheriao Whooping cougho Poliomyelitiso Cholerao Meningoccal meningitiso Salmonellao Diphtheriao Typhoid fevero Hepatitis Bo Dysenteryo Cerebrospinal meningitiso Malariao Gonorrheao DiphtheriaNote: Typhoid, hepatitis B and dysentery may have both temporary as well as chronic carriers. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Bursa communicating with the shoulder joint space is | [
"Infraspinatous bursa",
"Subscapular bursa",
"Subcoracoid bursa",
"Subacromian bursa"
] | B | Infraspinatus bursa may communicate with the shoulder joint. Subacromial bursa separates the acromion process and the coracoacromial ligaments from supraspinatus tendon and permit smooth motion. B D Chaurasia 7th edition Page no: 148 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sterilization and disinfection of blood spills is done by: | [
"Formaldehyde",
"Sodium hypochlorite",
"Tincture iodin",
"Phenols"
] | B | ANSWER: (B) Sodium hypochloriteREF: Park 20th ed p. 118, Ananthnarayan 8th e p. 35Halogens (hypochlorides)Cheap, effective and act by release of free chlorine and effective against viruses.Chlorine-releasing agents are chemicals disinfectants which are effective against blood-borne viruses and are rapid in action.They are considered the disinfectant of choice in the event of a spillage of blood or body fluid.Rapidly inactivated by organic matter.Chlorine-releasing agents must never be mixed with acids or used on spills of urine as chlorine gas will be released.Dilutions should not be mixed with any other cleaning agents, or with hot water but only made up with cold or tepid waterCholrine concentrations:Strength Uses10,000 parts per million (ppm) Decontamination of spillages of blood and/or body fluids stained with blood1,000 parts per million (ppm) Disinfection of surfaces following contamination with other body fluids e.g commodes (to be used after cleaning) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Schuller's view and law's view is for | [
"Sphenoid sinus",
"Mastoid air cells",
"Foramen ovale and spinosum",
"Carotid canal"
] | B | Law's view It is lateral oblique view of mastoid. Patient lies in such a way that sagittal plane of the skull is parallel to the film and X-ray beam is projected 15deg cephalocaudal Structures seen are: 1. External auditory canal superimposed on internal auditory canal 2. Mastoid air cells 3. Tegmen 4. Lateral sinus plate 5. Temporo mandibular joint. (Key area of the mastoid, i.e. attic, aditus and antrum are not well seen) Schuller's view Similar to Law's view but cephalocaudal beam makes an angle of 30deg to the sagittal. Structures seen are: 1. External canal superimposed on internal canal 2. Mastoid air cells 3. Tegmen 4. Lateral sinus plate 5. Condyle of mandible 6. Sino-dural angle 7. Antrum and upper pa of attic (i.e. key area). (This view is taken to see the extent of pneumatisation, destruction of intercellular septa as in mastoiditis, location of sinus plate and tegmen, cholesteatoma and longitudinal fracture of 6, petrous pyramid) | train | med_mcqa | null |
A lady gets pregnant even if she was on contraceptive pills, she is suspected to consume | [
"Rifampicin",
"Ciprofloxacin",
"Streptomycin",
"None of the above"
] | A | This table summarises important points for neet
5. Essential medicines are the drugs that cater to priority health-cam needs of a population. Most of these are formulated as single compounds.
6. Important drugs causing hemolysis in a patient with G-6-PD deficiency are primaquine, sulfonamides, dapsone and methylene blue.
7. | train | med_mcqa | null |
An army recruit, smoker and 6 months into training started complaining of pain at posteromedial aspect of both legs. There was an acute point tenderness and the pain was aggravated on physical activity. The most likely diagnosis is - | [
"Bearger's disease",
"Gout",
"Lumbar canal stenosis",
"Stress fracture"
] | D | Information in this question are :-
Patient is an army recruit with 6 months training
Complaining of pain in lower limb
Pain aggravates with activity
Point tenderness
These suggest the diagnosis of fatigue (stress) fracture.
Stress fracture usually occur after a recent change in training regimen has taken place. Especially professional or recreational athletes and military recruits are subject to change in training intensity (increased), type of training or training circumstances (new shoes, other training surface etc) and thus at increased risk of developing a stress fracture. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Indication for surgery in benign prostatic hypertrophy are all except - | [
"Prostatism",
"Chronic retention",
"Hemorrhage",
"Enlarged prostate"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sudden, transient and painless loss of vision may be complained by the patients with all of the following diseases except: | [
"Carotid transient ischaemic attacks",
"Papilloedema",
"Papillitis",
"Migraine"
] | C | Ans. Papillitis | train | med_mcqa | null |
SARS most common in - | [
"Coal miners",
"School kids",
"Pregnancy",
"Health care workers"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Health care workers o Health care workers, especially those involved in procedures generating aerosols, accounted for 21 per cent of all cases.o Maximum vims excretion from the respiratory tract occurs on about day 10 of illness and then declines,o The efficiency of transmission appears to be greatest following exposure to severely ill patients or those experiencing rapid clinical deterioration, usually during the second week of illness,o When symptomatic cases were isolated within 5 days of the onset of illness, few cases of secondary transmission occured.o There w'as no evidence that patient transmits infection 10 days after fever has resolved,o Children are rarely affected by SARS.o To date, there have been two reported cases of transmission from children to adults and no report of transmission from child to child.o Three separate epidemiological investigations have not found any evidence of SARS transmission in schools,o Furthermore, no evidence of SARS has been found in infants of mothers wrho were infected during pregnancy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cholesterol present in LDL : | [
"Represents primarily cholesterol that is being removed from peripheral cells.",
"Binds to a receptor and diffuses across the cell membrance.",
"On accumulation in the cell inhibits replenishment of LDL receptors.",
"When enters a cell, suppresses activity of acyl-CoA: cholesterol acvtranferase ACAT."
] | C | C i.e. On accumulation in the cell inhibits replenishment of LDL receptors. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A cell is placed in a medium containing radioactively labelled thymidine. After the cells undergo replication 3 times, what percentage of the cells will have both strands of DNA labelled? | [
"25%",
"50%",
"75%",
"100%"
] | C | Keep in mind that question asks about cells with label on both strands. Question is based on the Meselson & Stahl experiment. Due to semiconservative mode of replication, In each round of replication, one strand is old and one is synthesized new in newly replicated DNA (see fig below). Red strand represents the labeled strand. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not seen in blunt trauma to eye | [
"Retinal detachment",
"Double perforation in iris",
"Hyphaema",
"Iridiodialysis"
] | B | Retinal detachment, hyphaema and iridodialysis can occur in blunt ocular trauma. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Anemia is greater in which of the following gastric resection | [
"Billorth II",
"Billorth I",
"Both of the above are equal",
"Neither of the above"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Give the most probable diagnosis of a 1 yr. old child of normal intelligence with features of hypotonia. On examination there are tongue fasciculations and he keeps his body in a frog like position ? | [
"Guillian Barre Syndrome",
"Limb girdle atrophy",
"Down's syndrome",
"Spinal muscular atrophy"
] | D | Ans. is d i.e., i.e., Spinal muscular atrophy o Features of hypotonia and frog like position suggest the diagnosis of Floppy infant syndrome. Floppy infant syndrome o In FIS the baby is floppy i.e : He cannot hold his head up, there will be marked head lag as the baby is pulled up from supine to sitting posture. A normal infant, on ventral suspension (i.e. suppoing the infant with a hand under the chest) keeps his back straight and head slightly up, arms abducted and knees paly flexed. A floppy infant droops, over the hand like an inveed U. o Typical features Hypotonia and decreased muscular activity Frog like posture or other unusual position at rest Delay in motor milestones Causes of Floppy infant syndrome 1. Central nervous system Perinatal asphyxia, neonatal encephalopathy, kernicterus, cerebral palsy (atonic type), intracranial hemorrhage, chromosomal anomalies including Down syndrome and inborn errors of metabolism e.g., aminoacidurias, mucopolysaccharidosis, and cerebral lipidosis. 2. Spinal cord lesions Anterior horn cell disease: Werdnig Hoffman.spinal muscular atrophy, poliomyelitis 3. Peripheral nerves Acute polyneuropathy, familial dysautonomia, congenital sensory neuropathy 4. Myoneural function Neonatal myasthenia gravis, infantile botulism, following antibiotic therapy 5. Muscles Muscular dystrophies, congenital myotonic dystrophies, congenital myopathies (including central core disease and Nemaline myopathy), polymyositis, glycogen storage disease (Pompe's), and ahrogryposis multiplex congenita 6. Miscellaneous Protein energy malnutrition, rickets, Prader-Willi syndrome, malabsorption syndromes, Ehler-Danlos syndrome, cutis laxa, cretinism Coming back to question There are many causes of floppy infant syndrome. o Out of the four option given in the question three of these can cause FIS - o Downs syndrome G.B. syndrome Spinal muscular atrophy o Spinal muscular atrophy Features of normal intelligence and tongue fasciculations strongly suggest spinal muscular atrophy. o Down's syndrome Can be easily ruled out as intelligence is impaired in Down's syndrome. o GB. syndrome Can be ruled out as it presents as an acute case with a past history offever or viral infections. Majority of patients recover within few days to 2 weeks. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most potent stimulator of naive T cell is? | [
"Mature dendritic cell",
"Follicular dendritic cell",
"Macrophages",
"B cell"
] | A | There are 2 types of dendritic cells:Interdigitating dendritic cells and Follicular dendritic cells. Interdigitating dendritic cells - These are the most potent antigen presenting cells for T cells. These are present in the lymphoid tissues & non lymphoid organs. Immature dendritic cells present in the skin are called as Langerhans cells. They are non phagocytic & express high levels of MHC -II molecules & B7-1, B7-2. Follicular dendritic cells -Theses are present in germinal centers of lymphoid follicles. These can bind to antigen bound to antibody & present it to B cell. Ref: Robbins 8th Ed Pg 187. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient presents with Hb of 8 gm%, WBC count of 2000/mm3 and platlet count of 60000/mm3. What is your likely diagnosis ? | [
"Thalassemia",
"Sickle cell anemia",
"Aplastic anemia",
"Anemia of chronic disease"
] | C | Answer- C. Aplastic anemiaThe patient in question is having Pancytopenia (anemia, leukopenia and thrombocytopenia) - Feature of Aplastic anemia. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Posterior capsule opacities are treated by - | [
"Argon green laser",
"Lens explantation",
"Nd:YAG Laser",
"Diode laser"
] | C | Nd:YAG Laser is used for treatment of posterior capsular opacities commonly seen after cataract surgeries (after cataract). (Ref: Khurana 7th/e p. 483 & 4th/e p.202; Parson 22nd/e p.608 & 21st/e p.583) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following lesions is NOT an infection from human papilloma virus? | [
"Verruca vulgaris",
"Focal epithelial hyperplasia",
"Condyloma acuminatum",
"None of the above"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most important constituent in soda lime for reabsorption of CO2 in a closed circuit is – | [
"Sodium hydroxide",
"Barium hydroxide",
"Calcium hydroxide",
"Potassium hydroxide"
] | C | Sodalime contains Ca(OH)2 (94%), NaOH (5%), KOH (< 1%), Silica, indicator and moisture. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Umbilical cord has: | [
"1 vein and 2 aeries",
"2 vein and 2 aeries",
"1 vein and 1 aery",
"2 veins and 1 aery"
] | A | CONTENTS OF UMBILICAL CORD: - 2 Umbilical aeries - 1 Umbilical vein - Rudimentary allantois - Remnant of omphalomesenteric / vitellointestinal duct - Whaon's jelly | train | med_mcqa | null |
Consider the lateral wall of the nasal cavity, which statement describes it the best? | [
"It is formed principally by the Ethmoid bone.",
"The nasal bone forms the anterior pa of the lateral wall.",
"The Inferior Concha is pa of the Maxilla.",
"The Superior Concha is pa of the Maxilla."
] | B | - The nasal bones form pa of the anterosuperior pa of the lateral wall of the nose.- The majority of the Lateral wall of the nose is made up by the Maxilla. A large defect in the medial aspect of the maxilla is closed by pas of the Ethmoid, Palatine, Inferior Conchae and Sphenoid Bones. - The Inferior Concha (or Turbinate) is a bone in itself, it aiculates with the Maxilla and the Palatine Bone. - The Superior and Middle conchae (or Turbinates) are pa of the Lateral mass of the Ethmoid. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Leptocyte in blood smears seen in?- | [
"Sickle cell anemia",
"Thalassemia",
"Post splenectomy",
"Uremia"
] | B | Leptocytes (or target cells ) are typically seen in thalassemia . Ref : robbins 9/e pg 640 under morphology | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following vitamins act as coenzyme in decarboxylation reaction? | [
"Pyridoxine",
"Riboflavin",
"Biotin",
"Niacin"
] | A | Coenzyme for carboxylation reaction - Biotin
Coenzyme for decarboxylation reaction - Pyridoxine | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pulsus bigeminy is seen in? | [
"Digitalis",
"Beta Blockers",
"ACE inhibitors",
"Calcium channel blockers"
] | A | digoxin and digitalis causes pulses bigemini Pulsus bigeminus is a cardiovascular phenomenon characterized by groups of two heabeats close together followed by a longer pause. The second pulse is weaker than the first. Look for a pattern of what appears to be a relatively normal QRS complexes, each followed by a smaller, abnormal one . Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 456 | train | med_mcqa | null |
H-reflex is done in | [
"L 2 radiculopathy",
"L 3 radiculopaty",
"L 4 radiculopaty",
"S 1 radiculopty"
] | D | The H-reflex is a reflectory reaction of muscles after electrical stimulation of sensory fibers in their innervating nerves. The H-reflex test is performed using an electric stimulator, which gives usually a square-wave current of sho duration and small amplitude, and an EMG set, to record the muscle response. Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2567 | train | med_mcqa | null |
From which of the following routes, absorption of local anaesthetic is maximum ? | [
"Intercostal",
"Epidural",
"Brachial",
"Caudal"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
M.C.site of Atopic dermatitis – | [
"Scalp",
"Elbow",
"Antecubital fossa",
"Trunk"
] | C | Sites of itching patch in atopic dermatitis
Infant Face (especially cheeks), extensors of forearm & legs.
Childhood & adult → Flexures (antecubital fossa, Popliteal fossa). | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are true in chest X ray PA view EXCEPT: | [
"Right ventricle forms the right heart border",
"Left ventricle forms the left heart border",
"Cardiothoracic ratio in adults is normally 50% or less than that",
"Right atrium forms the right heart border"
] | A | Ans. (a) Right ventricle forms the right heart borderRef: Essential radiology 2nd ed. 122* Right ventricle is not a border forming structure in PA view. However, it forms anterior border in lateral view of Chest X-Ray. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the most radiosensitive tumour? | [
"Ewing tumour",
"Hodgkin's disease",
"Carcinoma Cervix",
"Malignant fibrous histocytoma"
] | A | Ewings sarcoma is highly radiosensitive tumor. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Granulomatous inflammatory reaction is caused by all, except: | [
"M. tuberculosis",
"M. leprae",
"Yersinia pestis",
"Mycoplasma"
] | D | Granulomatous inflammation It is a distinctive pattern of chronic inflammatory reaction characterized by focal accumulations of activated macrophages, which often develop an epithelial-like (epithelioid) appearance. Tuberculosis is the prototype of the granulomatous diseases, Other granulomatous diseases:- Sarcoidosis Crohn's disease Cat-scratch disease Lymphogranuloma inguinale Leprosy Brucellosis Syphilis Yersinia has also been mentioned to be associated with granulomatous inflammation. So, the answer to exclusion is Mycoplasma. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 50-year-old male patient presented with weakness of B/L lower limbs which was symmetrical (distal weakness>> proximal muscle weakness) for 1 month. On examination, ceain skin and nail changes were noted. Patient also complained of myalgia and ahralgia. Lab findings, Raised creatinine kinase levels Raised ANA antibody titre Muscle biopsy was done from the quadriceps femoris muscle. CD4+ cells were found in the cellular infiltrate. IHC study of which protein is a very sensitive diagnostic test for the above condition: - | [
"Myxovirus resistance protein",
"Adenovirus resistance protein",
"Parvovirus resistance protein",
"Papovavirus resistance protein"
] | A | This is a case of Dermatomyositis. 1ST image shows Perifascicular myofibers (black arrows) bordering on disrupted perimysial connective tissue is atrophic and basophilic- classical of dermatomyositis 2ND image shows the examination findings: - O/E. Erythematous discoloration of eyelids with periorbital edema (Heliotrope rash) Erythematous rash over the extensor surfaces of joints, knuckles (Gottron sign), sun exposed areas of the anterior neck and the chest (Shawl sign) Nail bed telangiectasias Dermatomyositis Idiopathic inflammatory myopathy Presents with: - Proximal and symmetrical weakness Characteristic cutaneous changes Elevated creatine kinase levels Muscle biopsy shows perifascicular atrophy IHC for Myxovirus resistance protein A (MxA) is diagnostic | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are required for conversion of progesterone to estrogen except | [
"Lyase",
"11-hydroxylase",
"Reductase",
"Isomerase"
] | B | 11 - hydroxylase generates coisol from 11-deoxycoisol and coicosterone from 11-deoxycoicosterone.Ref: DM Vasudevan, 7th edition, page no: 665, fig 52.2 and 52.3 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are used for the treatment of Pulmonary hypeension except | [
"Endothelin receptor antagonist",
"Phosphodiesterase inhibitors",
"Calcium channel blockers",
"Beta blockers"
] | D | Refer kDT 6/e p 297 Vasodilators are used for the treatment of Pulmonary hypeension. Treatments include: endothelin receptor antagonists - such as bosentan, ambrisentan and macitentan phosphodiesterase 5 inhibitors - sildenafil and tadalafil prostaglandins - epoprostenol, iloprost and treprostinil soluble guanylate cyclase stimulators - such as riociguat calcium channel blockers - nifedipine, diltiazem, nicardipine and amlodipine | train | med_mcqa | null |
Emergency contraception prevents pregnancy by all of the following mechanisms, except : | [
"Delaying / inhibiting ovulation",
"inhibiting feilization",
"preventing implantation of the feilized egg",
"Interrupting an early pregnancy"
] | D | Postcoital Contraception (Interceptives): interferes with postovulatory events leading to pregnancy and is therefore known as interceptive. It is also known as 'emergency contraception' method used to prevent pregnancy after an unprotected intercourse. Emergency contraception is used following rape, unprotected intercourse or accidental rupture of a condom during coitus taking place around ovulation. It is used in misplaced IUCD and missed pill. These postcoital methods should be used mainly as 'back-up' methods The preparations available include: -Two tablets of relatively high doses of combined pill (Ovran/Eugynon 50), containing 100 mcg EE2 and 1 mg norethisterone, or 500 mcg LNG, taken within 72 h of intercourse followed by two tablets taken 12 h later (Yuzpe and Lancee, 1977). Failure rate--3.2 per 100 woman years. Mode of action: The hormones may delay ovulation if taken soon after intercourse, cause corpus luteolysis, and bring about cervical mucus changes and endometrial atrophy. -Levonorgestrel (LNG). Prostinar tablet contains 0.75 mg LNG. One tablet should be taken within 72 h of unprotected intercourse and another 12 h later. Alternately, two tablets can be taken as a single dose. The failure rate is 1.1%. The tablets can be offered up to 120 h but its efficacy decreases with the longer coital-drug interval. LNG prevents ovulation and causes desynchronization of endometrium through its receptors (luteal phase deficiency). The period may come earlier or delayed. Side effects are those of progestogens. The hormone is not teratogenic in case pregnancy does occur but risk of ectopic pregnancy remains.Advantages: It has no oestrogen and its associated side effects, It can be offered to hypeensive, cardiac and diabetic woman,It can be offered to a lactating woman,It can be given as late as 120 h after the unprotected intercourse,Single-dose therapy is an advantage.Contraindicated in liver disease, contains lactate, so allergy to galactose. The drug is also contraindicated in a woman with history of thrombophlebitis and migraine. -RU 486 (Mifepristone) : RU 486 is a steroid with an affinity for progesterone receptors. It does not prevent feilization but by blocking the action of progesterone on the endometrium, it causes sloughing and shedding of decidua and prevents implantation. It is not teratogenic. A single dose of 25-50 mg is effective in preventing pregnancy in 99.1% cases (failure rate 0.9%). It causes delayed menstruation. Ectopic pregnancy is not avoided. The drug is expensive as compared to LNG. -Ulipristal. Ulipristal is a synthetic progesterone hormone receptor modular, attaches to progesterone receptor and prevents/delays ovulation and suppresses endometrium, prevents implantation. A 30 mg tablet should be taken within 5 days. Two per cent pregnancy rate is repoed. Side effects are headache and mood changes. -Centchroman. Two tablets (60 mg) taken twice in 24 h within 24 h of intercourse can prevent implantation in 99% women. -GnRH Agonists. Daily administration of GnRH agonist (buserelin) prevents ovulation. The drug is on trial for its contraceptive effect. Very expensive--has to be given by subcutaneous injection. -Prostaglandin : Self-administered vaginal suppository containing prostaglandin following an unprotected intercourse, by viue of its luteolytic effect on the ovary and its increased motility effect on fallopian tubes and the uterus, prevents implantation and brings about menstruation. Its specific role as contraceptive is however yet to be established. -Copper T IUCD. Inseed within 5 days of intercourse can prevent implantation of a feilized ovum. Advantages of Copper T as emergency contraception are: It can be inseed as late as 5 days after the unprotected intercourse. It is cheap. Failure rate is 0.1%. It can remain as ongoing contraceptive method for 3-5 years. Reference : page 280 Shaw's Textbook of Gynaecology 16th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
About colostrum true statements are:a) Secreted after 10 days of childbirthb) Rich in immunoglobulinc) Contains more proteind) Contains less fate) Daily secretion is about 10 ml/day | [
"abc",
"acd",
"ac",
"bcd"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Renal failure (Uremia) is not associated with: | [
"Anaemia",
"Ca deficiency & bone disease",
"Hyperkalaemia",
"Hyperaldosteronism"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Osler's nodes are typically seen in which one of the following - | [
"Chronic candida endocarditis",
"Acute staphylococcal endocarditis",
"Pseudomonas endocarditis",
"Libman sack's endocarditis"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient is brought with 6 month history of odd behaviour. There is a history of a family member having disappeared some years back. He seems to be talking to himself and sometimes muttering to himself loudly. The likely diagnosis is - | [
"Schizophrenia",
"Conversion disorder",
"Major depression",
"Delusion"
] | A | This patient is having:-
Disorganized behavior & thinking (talking to himself)
Disorganized speech (muttering to himself loudly)
Symptoms for 6 months
Diagnostic criteria for schizophrenia:- 2 or more of the following features (each present for more than 1 month), causing social or occupational dysfunction for more than 6 months:-
1) Hallucinations; 2) Delusions; 3) Disorganized speech; 4) Disorganized or catatonic behavior; and 5) Negative symptoms. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Masturbation is also known as? | [
"Onanism",
"Satyriasis",
"Autierection",
"All of the above"
] | A | Ans. A. OnanismSynonyms of masturbation are : Beat offMastuprate Frigging (taboo , slang)Fap Skeet OnanismFrig Toss off AutoeroticismJack off Whack off Flying soloJerk off Self-abuse Beating the meatPlay pocket poolWanking (taboo , slang) | train | med_mcqa | null |
a child of age 10 yrs fell from wall with outstrecthed hand (right) , later e compalined of pain and restricted movement, the x ray shown below ,what is the management ? | [
"Open reduction and fixation",
"Plaster cast with forearm in pronation",
"Closed reduction with below - elbow cast",
"Above - elbow cast with forearm in supination"
] | D | SMITH&;S FRACTURE (Reverse of Colles&; Fracture) This uncommon fracture is seen in adults and in elderly people. Its impoance lies in differentiating it from the commoner Colles&; fracture which occurs at the same site. It differs from Colles&; fracture in that the distal fragment displaces ventrally and tilts ventrally. Treatment is by closed reduction and plaster cast immobilisation for 6 weeks. Complications are similar to those in Colles&; fracture. Ref: Maheshwari and Mhaskar 9th ed pg 114. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In beta oxidation of palmitic acid if final product is acetoacetate then net gain of ATP is: | [
"21",
"26",
"106",
"129"
] | B | Palmitic acid (16 carbons) For Palmitic acid complete oxidation, we require 7 beta oxidation cycles and 8 rounds of kreb cycle from 8 acetyl CoAs 1 beta oxidation cycle produce 4 ATP One kreb cycle from 1 Acetyl CoA produce 10 ATP after ETC. So Total ATP from complete oxidation of Palmitic Acid under normal conditions 7 x4 = 28 (beta oxidation) 8x10=80 (kreb cycle + ETC) Total 108 ATP 2 ATP require for fatty acid activation Net ATP =108-2 = 106 But the question asks about if all acetyl-CoA produced from beta oxidation is conveed to acetoacetate instead of undergoing TCA cycle then what will be ATP yield? If the final product is acetoacetate, then it will not be used in kreb cycle so 80 ATP from Kreb cycle will not be formed. Instead the acetaoacetate will form ketone bodies. Hence only beta oxidation ATP will produce 28 ATPs from 7 cycles. So net ATP will be = 28 - 2 = 26 ATP (2 ATP required for activation of fatty acid) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is true regarding Helmholtz theory of accomodation | [
"Ciliary muscles relax",
"Zonules contract",
"Posterior Movement of Ciliary Muscles",
"Decrease in equatorial diameter"
] | D | Accommodation: Mechanism by which eye changes its focal length by change in curvature of crystalline human lens According to Helmhotz theory during accommodation following changes takes place during accomodating for near vison Ciliary Muscles Contract(relaxation is all around 360o) Zonules Relax Anterior Movement of Ciliary Muscles Increase in thickness of lens Decrease in equatorial diameter Presbyopia results from the loss of lens elasticity with age. Note- sphincter pupillae are present all aorund the iris they increase / decrease the size of pupil ciliary muscles and zonules control the curvature of lens | train | med_mcqa | null |
Osborne waves in ECG are seen in - | [
"Hypothyroidism",
"Hypothermia",
"Hypocalcemia",
"Hypokalemia"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e.? Hypothermia o Osborne waves also called J waves are typically seen in Hypothermia.o J-wave is positive defection (> l mm) seen at the junction of QRS complex and ST segment and present in two consecutive beats.# The mean vector axis of the J-wave is oriented anteriorly, inferiorly and leftward across the left ventricle and septum.# J-waves are present in 80% of patients with temperature less than 35degC# The amplitude of J wave inversely related to the degree of hypothermia.Moderate hypothermia# (28X - 32X1) is associated with presence of j waves in inferior and lateral leads increase in PR and QT intevals.Severe hypothermia# Additional ECG changes in severe hypotherma > 28X may' include J waves in all leads absence of P waves and frequent ventricular arryhthmias.o J waves are not pathognomonic of hypothermia as they> are also seen in normothennic patients.# It is the most specific change seen in hypothermiaCauses of J waves in normothermic individualso Acute ischemic eventso Coccaine useo Haloperidol over useo left ventricular hypertrophyo Hypercalcemiao Brugada s syndromeo CMS injuryo After resuscitation of cardiac arrest. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The number of malaria cases reported during the last 10 years in a town is given below, 250, 320, 190, 300, 5000, 100, 260, 350, 320, and 160. The epidemiologist wants to fmd out the average number of malaria cases reported in that town during the last 10 years. The most appropriate measure of average for this data will be- | [
"Arithmetic mean",
"Mode",
"Median",
"Geometric mean"
] | C | Measures of central tendency (statistical average) are -
Mean (arithmetic mean)
Median
Mode
In the given set of values of incidence of malaria one value (i.e. 5000) is an extreme score .
This extreme score will highly effect the mean. Mean is very sensitive to extreme scores. Mean in this case would be = 960 which does not at all represent the average incidence of malaria in the area.
Median is insensitive to extreme scores in a distribution. The median would not be effected by the extreme value of 5000. Median in this case is 300 which is nearer to the truth and therefore is a better representative of the incidence of malaria in past 7 yrs.
Mode is also not affected by the extreme values in the observation but it is difficult to calculate therefore not used to express the averages.
In distribution with extreme values -
Most affected measure of central tendency → mean
Least affected measure of central tendency → mode
Most preferable measure of central tendency → median | train | med_mcqa | null |
Soft friable extradural hematoma with honeycomb appearance seen in autopsy in cases of death due to - | [
"Coagulopathy",
"Thermal injury",
"Post moem trauma",
"None of the above"
] | B | Reff: The synopsis of forensic medicine& Toxicology 28th edition pg: 167 Heat hematoma: Heat hematoma is soft, friable clot that is pink in colour and shows honeycomb appearance. It is 2-15 mm thick and contains 100-120 ml of blood. Characteristic feature of thermal injury. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Thumb print sign is seen in | [
"Ileal atresia",
"Meconium ileus",
"Crohn's disease",
"Ischemic colitis"
] | D | Thumb printing: Indentation in contrast or air-filled bowel lumen caused by sub mucosal infiltration and resembling a thumb printing; e.g. Ischemia Thumbprinting is a Radiographic sign of large bowelwall thickening, usually caused by edema, related to an infective or inflammatory process ('colitis'). The normal haustra become thickened at regular intervals appearing like 'thumb-prints' projecting into the aerated lumen. | train | med_mcqa | null |
ABG of a patient shows decreased pH, increased pCO2 and high bicarbonate. Diagnosis: | [
"Respiratory alkalosis, compensated",
"Respiratory acidosis, compensated",
"Respiratory acidosis not fully compensated",
"Metabolic alkalosis, uncompensated"
] | C | Increased pCO2 indicates generation of protons in the body leading to acidosis Since increase in CO2 occurs due to respiratory pathology patient has respiratory acidosis For compensation HCO3 increases and but still pH is not normalised that means compensation is paial. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Calcitonin causes hypocalcemia by: | [
"Inhibiting bone resorption",
"Promoting osteolysis",
"Decreasing renal tubular reabsorption of calcium",
"Decreasing absorption of phosphorus"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
False about the malignant ulcer of stomach is- | [
"The mucosa' folds do not reach the edge of the ulcer",
"Mucosal folds are thickened and fused",
"Ulcer crator is eccentric",
"Margins of the ulcer are overhanging"
] | A | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Margins of the ulcer is over hangingMargins of the ulcer is overhanging in benign ulcers, not in malignant ulcer of stomach.o In benign ulcer, surrounding gastric mucosal folds are converging towards the base of the ulcer with overhanging margins whereas in malignant ulcer, these folds are effaced around the ulcer and the margins are heaped up and eveed. Benign ulcerGenerally at lesser curvativeSmooth radiating folds with Hampton line & collarOverhanging margins showing regenerationMucosal rugae projects outwards from the margins of ulcerHuge basePreserved peristalsisHeals within 8-10 weeks Malignant ulcero At greater curvatureo Interupted nodular,clubbed folds with lasman Kirling complex (malignant ulcer with no mass) o Eccentric with heaped up and eveedmarginso Mucosal rugae stop far of the ulcero Necrotic base o No peristalsis o No healing | train | med_mcqa | null |
Breast feeding should be staed in normal delivery : | [
"Soon after delivery",
"After 2 hours",
"After 6 hours",
"After 4 hours"
] | A | Soon after delivery | train | med_mcqa | null |
Lead poisoning is characterized by | [
"Diarrhea",
"Sensory neuropathy",
"Lead lines on nails",
"Encephalopathy"
] | D | Plumbism Features ABCDEFGHI A - Anaemia B - Buonian line/Basophilic stippling, Bone lines C - Colic, Constipation (dry belly ache) D - Drop (wrist/Foot drop) - Lead palsy E - Encephalopathy F - Facial pallor (earliest sign) G - Gout (saturnine gout) H - Hypeension I - Impotence | train | med_mcqa | null |
A child was found to have allergy to cow milk which of the following is used for next management? | [
"Partial/ extensively hydrolysed diet",
"Soy based diet",
"Amino acid based formula",
"None of the above"
] | B | Management of cow milk protein allergy is always in order. If child is allergic to any item, next item is used in management.
Cow milk
↓
Soy based diet
↓
Partial/extensively hydrolysed diet
↓
Amino acid based formula | train | med_mcqa | null |
Iris bombe is seen in which disease? | [
"Uveitis",
"Conjunctivitis",
"Episcleritis",
"Trachoma"
] | A | ANSWER: (A) UveitisREF: Khurana 4th Ed Page 144IRIS SIGNS OF ANTERIOR UVEITIS:Loss of normal pattern, it occurs due to oedema and waterlogging of iris in active phase and due to atrophic changes in chronic phase. Iris atrophy is typically observed in Fuchs' heterochromic iridocyclitis.Changes in iris colour. Iris usually becomes muddy in colour during active phase and may show hyperpigmented and depigmented areas in healed stage.Iris nodules. These occur typically in granulomatous uveitis.Koeppe's nodules are situated at the pupillary border and may initiate posterior synechia.Busacca s nodules situated near the collarette are large but less common than the Koeppe's nodules.Neovascularistaion of irisPosterior synechiae. These are adhesions between the posterior surface of iris and anterior capsule of crystalline lens (or any other structure which may be artificial lens, after cataract, posterior capsule (left after extracapsular cataract extraction) or anterior hyaloid face. These are formed due to organisation of the fibrin-rich exudates. Morphologically, posterior synechiae may be segmental, annular or total.Segmental posterior synechiae refers to adhesions of iris to the lens at some points.Annular posterior synechiae (ring synechiae are 360deg adhesions of pupillary margin to anterior capsule of lens. These prevent the circulation of aqueous humour from posterior chamber to anterior chamber (seclusio pupillae). Thus, the aqueous collects behind the iris and pushes it anteriorly (leading to 'iris-bombe' formation). This is usually followed by a rise in intraocular pressure.Total posterior synechiae due to plastering of total posterior surface of iris with the anterior capsule of lens are rarely formed in acute plastic type of uveitis. These result in deepening of anterior chamber | train | med_mcqa | null |
HLA associated with Dermatitis herpetiformis is | [
"HLA A5",
"HLA B27",
"HLA B8",
"HLA A28"
] | C | Ref:- Sima Jain; pg num:- 25 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which organ does not utilise ketone bodies: | [
"Liver",
"Brain",
"Skeletal muscles",
"Cardiac muscles"
] | A | A i.e. Liver | train | med_mcqa | null |
A man is found to be always punctual and frugal. He is quite distressed about small detions and mistakes from others. He is noticed to keep things clean and organized manner. His relatives inform that he always has been like this and sometimes causing significant distress to people around him. This could be the presentation in which of the following clinical scenarios? | [
"Asperger's syndrome",
"Anxious avoidant personality disorder",
"Obsessive compulsive personality disorder",
"Tourette's disorder"
] | C | Obsessive compulsive personality disorder (OCPD) is not OCD. OCPD is also called as Anankastic personality disorder. It comes under cluster C of the DSM 5 criteria. Impoant features seen in OCPD: Stickler to rules and regulations Specific about minor details Preoccupied to cleanliness Prefer organized and planned schedule - uncomfoable with sudden changes Frugality Lack of flexibility | train | med_mcqa | null |
Radiorestistant tumor is- | [
"Ewings sarcoma",
"Retinoblastoma",
"Osteosarcoma",
"Neuroblastoma"
] | C | RADIORESISTANT RADIOSENSITIVE Osteosarcoma Wilms tumor Melanoma Ewing's sarcoma Hepatic carcinoma Lymphoma Pancreatic carcinoma Myeloma Seminoma / Dysgerminoma | train | med_mcqa | null |
In Toxoplasmosis, man is: | [
"Paratenic host",
"Intermediate host",
"Definitive host",
"Temporary host"
] | B | Ans: b (Intermediate host)Ref: C K Jayaram Panicker's Textbook of Medical Parasitology, 6th ed. Pg. 3, 99-100* Definitive host - the host in which adult stage lives or sexual mode of reproduction takes place.* Intermediate host -the species in which the larval stage of the parasite lives or the asexual multiplication takes place.* Paratenic host - a vertebrate host in which a parasite merely remains viable without development or multiplication* Man is the definitive host for most human parasitic infections (eg: filarial, round worm, hook worm ) and intermediate host in some cases (eg: malaria, hydatid disease, toxoplasmosis)* In toxoplasmosis, cats are the definitive host and man the intermediate host* Humans get toxoplasmosis by eating uncooked infected meat with tissue cysts, ingestion of mature oocysyts, and intrauterine infection or rarely by blood transfusion. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which foot bone does not have any muscle attachment? | [
"Talus",
"Calcaneum",
"Navicular",
"1st metatarsal"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Talus * Talus is the only bone in the foot having no muscle attachments. It has only ligamentous attachments. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The largest ovarian tumour is seen with? | [
"Pseudomucinous cystadenoma",
"Serous cystadenoma",
"Papillary cystadenoma",
"Dysgerminoma"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Pseudomucinous cystodenomao Mucinous tumor tend to produce larger cystic masses, and some have been recorded with weights of more than 25 kg. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Joints of hand are not affected in - | [
"AS",
"RA",
"OA",
"Psoriatic arthritis"
] | A | Ankylosing spondylitis does not affect hand and foot joint.
OA, RA and psoriatic arthritis affect hand joints. | train | med_mcqa | null |
White raised painless areas when on peeling exhibit
painful erythernatous areas in case of | [
"Oral thrush",
"Perrphigus vulagaris",
"Leukoplakia",
"Erythroplakia"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The main function of mitochondria is | [
"Protein synthesis",
"Oxidation",
"Electron transfer",
"Fat synthesis"
] | C | The ETC is localised in the mitochondria. The outer membrane of mitochondria is permeable to most of the small molecules. There is an intermediate space which presents no barrier to passage of intermediates. The inner membrane shows a highly selective permeability. It has transpo systems only for specific substances such as ATP, ADP, pyruvate, succinate, a-ketoglutarate, malate and citrate etc (Refer Fig. 10.1). The enzymes of the electron transpo chain are embedded in the inner membrane in association with the enzymes of oxidative phosphorylation. Extramitochondrial system: This is a radically different and highly active system responsible for de novo synthesis of palmitic acid from 2-carbon unit acetyl-CoA.Ref: MN Chatterjea Textbook of Medical Biochemistry, 8th edition, page no: 138 & 414 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Muscle of expiration is/are -a) Diaphragmb) Internal intercostalc) External intercostald) Rectus Abdominis | [
"ac",
"bd",
"cd",
"ab"
] | B | Muscles of expiration
- Quite breathing- Elastic recoil of lung and chest wall.
- Forced expiration-
o Internal intercostal
o Intercostalis intimi
o Transversus thoracis
o Serratus posterior inferior
o Subcostalis
o Latissimus dorsi
o Abdominal muscles
§ Rectus abdominis
§ Transversus abdominis
§ Internal oblique
§ External oblique | train | med_mcqa | null |
Zileuton is a | [
"5 lipooxygenase inhibitor",
"TXA2 inhibitor",
"Leukoteriene receptor antagonist",
"Prostaglandin synthesis inhibitor"
] | A | Zileuton is an orally active inhibitor of 5-lipoxygenase, and thus inhibits leukotrienes (LTB4, LTC4, LTD4, and LTE4) formation, used for the maintenance treatment of asthma. Ref: KD Tripathi 8th ed | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following statements is false regarding the drug resistance? | [
"In mutational drug resistance one drug resistance at a time is seen",
"Virulence is decreased in transferable resistance",
"Drug combinations can prevent Mutational drug resistance",
"High degree of resistance is seen in transferable drug resistance"
] | B | Mutational drug resistance Transferable drug resistance One drug resistance at a time Multiple drug resistance Low degree resistance High degree resistance Can be overcome by high drug dose High dose ineffective Drug combinations can prevent Combinations cannot prevent Resistance does not spread Spreads to same or different species Mutants may be defective Not defective Virulence may be low Virulence not decreased | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common abdominal mass in children: | [
"Hydronephrosis",
"Wilms' tumor",
"Neuroblastoma",
"Rhabdomyosarcoma"
] | C | c. Neuroblastoma(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2464-2466, Ghai 8/e 617-618)Neuroblastoma is the most common extracranial solid tumor in childrenLocalized Neuroblastoma can manifest as an asymptomatic mass or can cause symptoms because of the mass itself, including spinal cord compression, bowel obstruction & superior vena cava syndrome.Note: Both Neuroblastoma & Wilms' tumor can present as abdominal mass in children but Neuroblastoma is more common than Wilms' tumor, so it is the better answer to this question | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most common organism responsible for gas gangrene is | [
"Clostridium perfringens",
"Clostridium difficile",
"Clostridium tetani",
"Clostridium septicum"
] | A | C.perfringens is the predominant agent causing gas gangrene. It may occur as the sole causative agent but is more commonly seen in association with other clostridia as well as non-clostridial anaerobes. More commonly all clostridial infections do not result in gas gangrene. More commonly, they lead only to wound contamination or anaerobic cellulitis. It is the only when muscle tissue is invaded that gas gangrene results. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and paniker's; 10th edition; Page no: 259 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Regarding medical termination of pregnany, all of the following are true except-: September 2007 | [
"Professional secrecy has to be maintained",
"Woman has the right to abo his fetus without consent of husband",
"In an emergency,termination of pregnancy can be done by a single doctor",
"Termination of pregnancy up to 20 weeks can be done by medical practitioner without consulting specialist"
] | D | Ans. D: Termination of pregnancy up to 20 weeks can be done by medical practitioner without consulting specialist If the period of pregnancy is: Below 12 weeks, it can be terminated by on the opinion of a single doctor. If the period is between 12-20 weeks, two doctors must agree, though only one can do it once the opinion is formed In an emergency, even after 20 weeks a single doctor can perform it. Consent of the husband for MTP is not required | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following muscle lies between superficial and deep pas of submandibular salivary gland? | [
"Hyoglossus",
"Styloglossus",
"Mylohyoid",
"Geniohyoid"
] | C | Submandibular gland is a large salivary gland situated in the anterior pa of the digastric triangle. It is roughly J-shaped,being indented by the posterior border of the mylohyoid which divides into a larger pa superficial to the muscle,and a small pa lying deep to the muscle. Reference: B D Chaurasia's human anatomy; 5th edition, page.166. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Child-pugh score is used for | [
"Hepatic encephalopathy",
"Uremic encephalopathy",
"Chronic liver disease",
"Head injury"
] | C | . | train | med_mcqa | null |
If hypersensitivity develops in a glass ionomer filled tooth, indicated treatment: | [
"Extraction",
"Remove the restoration and place a sedative dressing",
"Remove the restoration perform pulpectomy",
"No treatment is necessary"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true statement about digitalis action EXCEPT: | [
"Increases cardiac contraction",
"Pumps sodium out of cell",
"Increases intracellular calcium",
"Causes bradycardia"
] | B | Ans. (b) Pumps sodium out of cell* Digitalis is one of the cardiac glycosides which increases myocardial contractility and output in a hypodynamic heart without a proportionate increase in oxygen consumption.* Compounds in cardiac glycosides group include: digoxin, digitoxin, strophanthin, ouabain etc.* MOA of Digitalis: binds to Na+K+ATPase of myocardial fibres and inhibits this enzyme. This leads to progressive accumulation of Na+ intracellularly which indirectly results in intracellular Calcium accumulation.* ACTION:# Digitalis increases the force of contraction and decreases the heart rate# It also decreases the AV conduction, hence contraindication in WPW syndrome.# Causes diuresis in CHF patients# Causes decrease in peripheral resistance in CHF patients (because of withdrawal of reflex sympathetic overactivity) | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 32 weeks premature infants, 900gm weight on the third days. The serum bilirubin is 13 mg%. The treatment of choice is - | [
"Exchange transfusion",
"Phototherapy",
"Wait and watch therapy",
"Pharmacologic therapy"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Exchange transfusion Total serum bilirubin (TSB) (mg/dL) Gestation & bih weight Healthy baby Sick baby Phototherapy Exchange transfusion Phototherapy Exchange transfusion Preterm babies 5-7 11-13 4-6 10-12 1001-1500g 7-10 13-15 6-8 11-13 1501-2000g 10-12 15-18 8-10 13-15 2001-2500g 12-15 18-20 10-12 15-18 Term babies >2500 g 15-18 20-25 12-15 18-20 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true about cerebellum except | [
"It has 3 layers, 4 nucleus & 5 cells",
"Climbing fibres are afferent inputs",
"Mossy fibres inhibit Purkinje cells",
"Climbing fibres excite Purkinje cells"
] | C | C i.e. Mossy fibres inhibit Purkinje cells | train | med_mcqa | null |
False about total body water (TBW) - | [
"ICF is 2/3rd of TBW",
"In newborn TBW is 60% of body weight",
"Premature newborns have more TBW",
"In adults, TBW is 60% of body weight"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., In newborn TBW is 60% of body weighto In a term newborn, TBW is 70-80% of body weight. It is more in premature newborn than in term newborn.o Other options are correct.Extracellular fluid (14 litres)o 20% of body weighto 33% of total body waterIntracellular fluid (ICF)Plasmao 3.5 litreso 5% of body weighto 8% of total body watero 25% of ECFo 28 litreso 40% of body weighto 67% of total body waterInterstitial fluido 10.5 litreso 15% of body weighto 25% of total body watero 75% of ECF Total body water (42 litres)o 60% of body weight | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is a derivative of the ectoderm of the trilaminar embryo? | [
"Bone",
"Germ cells",
"Muscle",
"Spinal cord"
] | D | The neural plate, a thickened area of ectoderm, gives rise to the nervous system. The first step is the development of a groove in the neural plate. On either side of this groove are the raised neural folds. These neural folds then begin to fuse in the midline at approximately the midpoint of the neural plate. Fusion proceeds in a rostral and caudal direction; once completed, there still remains an open area of the "tube" at both the rostral and caudal ends. These openings are referred to as the rostral and the caudal neuropore. The rostral neuropore closes around day 26 and the caudal neuropore closes on approximately day 28. With the closure of the caudal neuropore, closure of the neural tube is completed. It has been convincingly shown that folic acid plays an impoant role in the closure of the neural tube. By giving women of childbearing age folic acid supplements, the rate of neural tube defects can be reduced dramatically. Yet, based on the embryology of the neural tube (with closure of the tube roughly by day 28), it is obvious that in order for folic acid supplementation to work, it should be staed pregestationally. Unfounately, most women do not seek prenatal care until after the neural tube has undergone its period of closure. Bone, muscle, and spleen are all derivatives of the mesoderm. This mesoderm is formed at the end of the second week post-feilization, when some cells of the primitive streak migrate laterally between the endodermal and the ectodermal layer. Germ cells are derived from the endodermal layer of the trilaminar embryo. They migrate as primordial sex cells from the endoderm of the yolk sac to the urogenital ridge. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Diuretics of choice for acute pulmonary edema ? | [
"Loop diuretics",
"Thiazides",
"Spironolactone",
"Mannitol"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Loop diuretics | train | med_mcqa | null |
Collagen protein axial periodicity is - | [
"67nm",
"l07nm",
"207nm",
"307nm"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., 67 nm.The fibrillogenesis involves the lateral association of collagen triple helices, the structural unit of collagen, to form long, smooth fibrils with a characteristic 67-nm axial structural feature known as the D-periodicity or axial periodicity. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following substance causes retrograde contraction during gut peristalsis? | [
"NO",
"Vasoactive Intestinal peptide",
"Substance P",
"None of the above"
] | C | Retrograde contraction by
Anterograde relaxation by
Acetycholine
Substance P
Serotonin
NO
Vasoactive Intestinal Peptide | train | med_mcqa | null |
Uterine aery is a branch of: | [
"Abdominal aoa",
"External iliac aery",
"Femoral aery",
"Internal iliac aery"
] | D | Internal iliac aery | train | med_mcqa | null |
All except one causes lymphoedema | [
"Syphilis",
"Tuberculosis",
"Lymphogranuloma venerum",
"Filariasis"
] | C | Lymphogranuloma venerum is a sexually transmitted disease, which does not cause Lymphoedema. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All the following forces are involved in antigen antibody reaction except: | [
"Vander waals forces",
"Electrostatic bond",
"Hydrogen bond",
"Covalent bond"
] | D | Ans. (d)Combination between antigen and antibody is firm but reversible and is effected by weak intermolecular forces such as Vander waals forces, ionic bonds and hydrogen bonding, not by the firmer Covalent bonds.The firmness of the union is influenced by affinity and avidity. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is NOT effective in controlling the hot flushes of menopause in a woman? | [
"Hormone replacement therapy",
"Tibolone",
"Raloxifene",
"Isoflavones"
] | C | Ans is 'c' i.e., RaloxifeneHot Flushes : They are the 'hallmark' of menopause. Hot flushes are described as recurrent transient period of flushing, sweating and a sensation of heat often accompanied by palpitations. feelings of anxiety. and sometimes followed by chills.The entire episode lasts no more than 1-3 minutes and recurs 5-10 times / day (can occur upto 30 times a day). Sho term estrogen therapy results in resolution of hot flushes.Hormone therapyEstrogen therapy (most effective)Combined estrogen and progestin therapyProgestin therapy (to be given in those women in whom estrogen is contraindicated)TiboloneNon hormonal prescription medicines :Not FDA approvedClonidineSelective serotonin reuptake inhibitor : paroxetine, fluoxetineSerotonin and nor epinephrine reuptake inhibitor : venlafaxineDopamine antagonist : VeraliprideGabapentinBellergal (combination of ergotamines, phenobarbital and belladona, approved for the treatment of migrain).)MeazapineTrazodoneNon prescription medicines :Isoflavones (100 mg/day)Soy products (60 g/d)Vitamin E (800 IU/day)Life style changes :Reducing body temperatureMaintaining a healthy weightSmoking cessationPaced respiration | train | med_mcqa | null |
Massive splenomegaly is defined if greater than: | [
"500 gram",
"1 Kg",
"1.5 Kg",
"2 Kg"
] | B | Massive splenomegaly similarly lacks a consensus definition but has been described variably as spleens >1 kg in mass or >22 cm in length Ref: Schwaz's principle of surgery 9th edition, chapter 34. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In adults , blood culture ratio of blood to reagent is - | [
"1:05",
"1:20",
"1:10",
"0.111111111"
] | C | Blood Culture - For Adults ,the blood is inoculated into the bottle containing blood culture medium in a blood to broth ratio of 1:10 In case of children, where the amount of blood drawn is little , a ratio of 1:5 may be achieved. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about clostridium tetani -a) It is gram +veb) Drum stick appearancec) Grows in aerobic environmentd) It is gram -ve | [
"ac",
"ab",
"ad",
"bc"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
First pyrimidine nucleotide to be synthesized is : | [
"TMP",
"OMP",
"IMP",
"UMP"
] | B | First pyrimidine nucleotide to be synthesized OMP (Orotidine Mono Phosphate). First purine nucleotide to be synthesized IMP (Inosine Mono Phosphate). Fig- Simplified Pyrimidine biosynthesis pathway Note: Chemically Orotidine monophosphate is also a pyrimidine nucleotide though it is not present in DNA or RNA. The question just asked you about "pyrimidine nucleotide" and not "pyrimidine nucleotide present in DNA or RNA". That why the answer is OMP not UMP. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Risk factors for developing Surgical Site Infections (SSIs) include all EXCEPT (* NIMHANS Pattern March-2017 Post-MS MCh Neurosurgery; DNB CET Pattern - 2009 June) | [
"General anesthesia",
"Prolonged duration of procedure",
"Malnutrition",
"Bacterial contamination"
] | A | (A) General anaesthesiaRISK FACTORS OF SSISPatient-related risk factorsProcedure-related risk factors* Age* Operative wound class* Diabetes mellitus/Perioperative Hyperglycemia* Patient Skin Preparation in the Operating room* Obesity* Preoperative shaving* Tobacco use* Perioperative hypoxia* Malnutrition* Type of surgery* Preoperative nares colonization with Staph, aureus* The duration of surgery* Pre-existing Remote body site infection* Surgical technique* Compromised Immune System* A postoperative hematoma* The presence of Cirrhosis or any other Debilitating disease* Surgical drains* Perioperative transfusions* Suboptima timing of antibiotic prophylaxis* Prolonged preoperative hospital stay* Traffic in the operating room> A number of risk factors are known to increase the risk for SSIs, including obesity, advanced age, diabetes mellitus, malnutrition, prolonged preoperative stay, infection at a remote site, duration of surgery, surgery technique, presence of drains, inappropriate use of antimicrobial prophylaxis, perioperative temperature, and poor postoperative glycemic control.> Many of these are beyond practitioner control, but optimizing perioperative conditions can certainly help decrease infection risk.> Significant improvement has been observed in compliance with performance measures known to decrease postoperative morbidity and mortality. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In children best remodelling is seen in fracture with - | [
"Angulation in diaphysis",
"Angulation in metaphysis",
"Rotation in diaphysis",
"Rotation in metaphysis"
] | B | Metaphyseal fractures has more remodelling capacity than diaphyseal fractures.
Angular deformity (especially in the plane of motion of a joint) has better remodeling capacity than rotational deformity. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In the perspective of the busy life schedule in the modem society, the accepted minimum period of sexual cohabitation resulting in no offspring for a couple to be declared infertile is: | [
"One year",
"One and a half-year",
"Two years",
"Three year"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., One year If a couple fails to achieve pregnancy after one year of "unprotected' and regular intercourse, it is an indication to investigate the couple | train | med_mcqa | null |
Thromboxane A2 synthetase inhibition is by - | [
"Aspirin",
"Prednisolone",
"Dazoxiben",
"Naproxen"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Dazoxiben o All the given drugs can inhibit Thromboxane A synthesis but only Dazoxiben can inhibit Thromboxane A 2synthetase. Note : According to KDT, aspirin also inhibits TX-synthatase also, but no other book (Goodman & Gilman, Katzung, Laurence, Satoskar) has mentioned this. Also know : Daltroban and sultroban are TXA2 receptor antagonists. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Vaginal sphincter is formed by all except | [
"Internal urethral sphincter",
"External urethral sphincter",
"Pubovaginalis",
"Bulbospongiosus"
] | A | Lower genital tract contraction can be carried out by external urethral sphinter, pubo-vaginalis and bulbospongiosus. Females doesnot have internal urethral sphincter.It is anatomical bladder neck sphincter present in males. <img src=" /> Ref - BDC 6e vol2 pg379 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not a pa of duties of anganwadi worker: March 2010 | [
"Immunization",
"Health check-ups",
"Conducting deliveries",
"Supplementary nutrition"
] | C | Ans. C: Conducting deliveries Anganwadi means couyard. Under the Integrated Child Development Scheme, one anganwadi worker is allotted to a population of 1000. Anganwadi worker is trained in various aspects of health, nutrition and child development. The duties of anganwadi worker are: Regular health check-up including maintenance of growth cha Immunization. Health education. Non-formal pre-school education. Supplementary nutrition Referral services. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Administration of disulfiram in an alcoholic can cause all these side effects except: (E. REPEAT 2010) | [
"Flushing",
"Headache",
"Hypertension",
"Nausea"
] | C | Ref: The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics by Goodman and Gillman, 12th edition. Page 644 and KD Tripathis Essentials of Pharmacology, 6th edition. Page 3H6Explanation:DISULFIRAMDisulfiram irreversibly inhibits aldehyde dehydrogenase. This action is also brought about by its metabolites such as dieth y 1th iomethyl car ba mate.Patients taking disulfiram must avoid alcohol including disguised forms such as fermented sugar, cough syrups, after shave lotions.The daily dose of disulfiram is best taken in the morning since the urge to abstain from alcohol is maximum at that moment.Disulfiram can cause acneiform eruptions, restlessness, headache.Adverse Effects in Alcoholicso Flushing.o Burning sensationo Throbbing headacheo Perspirationo Uneasinesso Tightness in chesto Dizzinesso Vomitingo Visual disturbanceso Mental confusiono Postural faintingo Circulatory collapse.Drugs Causing 'Disulfiram like reaction' in AlcoholicsCefoperazone.Moxalactam.Cefamandole.Metronidazole.Satranidazole.Procarbazine.Chlorpropamide. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Lesion of which tract leads to voluntary skilled movements? | [
"Corticospinal tract",
"Rubrospinal tract",
"Tectospinal tract",
"Lateral spinothalamic pathway"
] | A | Ans. A. Corticospinal tract* The corticospinal tract (along with the corticobulbar tract) is the primary pathway that carries the motor commands that underlie voluntary movement.* The lateral corticospinal tract is responsible for the control of the distal musculature and the anterior corticospinal tract is responsible for the control of the proximal musculature.* A particularly important function of the lateral corticospinal tract is the fine control of the digits of the hand.* The corticospinal tract is the only descending pathway in which some axons make synaptic contacts directly onto alpha motor neurons.* This direct cortical innervation presumably is necessary to allow the powerful processing networks of the cortex to control the activity of the spinal circuits that direct the exquisite movements of the fingers and hands. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pavlov's experiment is an example of - | [
"Operant conditioning",
"Classical conditioning",
"Learned helplessness",
"Modeling"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Classical conditioning Classical conditioningo In classical conditioning, the conditioned stimulus (which usually does not produce the response), when paired with unconditioned stimulus (stimulus which usually produces a response), directly produces a response.o The typical example of classical conditioning is pavlov's experiment. Normally food produces salivation in dog, Therefore salivation in response to food is called unconditioned response and the stimulus, i.e., food is called unconditioned stimulus. Under normal circumstances, a dog does not salivate at the sound of a bell. However, if the sound of bell is paired consistently with presentation of food, the dog begans to salivate to the sound of bell even if the food is not presented. This learned response, i.e., salivation to a sound of bell without food, is called conditioned response and the stimulus (sound of a bell) is called conditioned stimulus.o There is a reverse side to classical conditioning, called counter conditioning. This amounts to reducing the intensity of conditioned response (e.g., anxiety) by establishing an incompatible response (e.g., relaxation) to a conditioned stimulus (i.e., snake). So anxiety symptoms can be reduced when the stimuli to anxiety are presented in graded order and systemically paired with a relaxation response. This process of reciprocal inhibition is called systemic desensitization.o Other behavioral therapies based on classical conditioning principle (counter conditioning) are exposure with response prevention and aversion therapy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Localised Langerhans cells histiocytosis affecting head and neck is | [
"Letterer-Siwe disease",
"Pulmonary Langerhans cell histiocytosis",
"Hand-Schuller-Christian disease",
"Eosinophilic granuloma"
] | D | d. Eosinophilic granuloma(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2484-2489, Ghai 8/e p 620-623)Eosinophilic granuloma: Bone lesions, with no visceral involvement; Localised; affects head and neck | train | med_mcqa | null |
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