question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4 values | rationale stringlengths 0 22.5k ⌀ | split stringclasses 1 value | dataset stringclasses 6 values | subject stringclasses 1 value |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
True about Toxoplasma gondii is, it is carried by - | [
"Cats",
"Dogs",
"Rats",
"Cow"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Lateral ventricle is connected to the third ventricle by the? | [
"Foramen of Monro",
"Foramen of Magendie",
"Foramen of Luschka",
"Median foramen"
] | A | Ans. A. Foramen of monroThe lateral ventricles are the two largest cavities of the ventricular system of the human brain and contain cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Each cerebral hemisphere contains a lateral ventricle, known as the left or right ventricle, respectively.Each lateral ventricle resembles a C-shaped structure that begins at an inferior horn in the temporal lobe, travels through a body in the parietal lobe and frontal lobe, and ultimately terminates at the interventricular foramina of Monro where each lateral ventricle connects to the single, central third ventricle. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is an intermideiate level disinfectant - | [
"2% glutarldyhyde",
"Ethylene oxide",
"Hypoclorite",
"None"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Hypochlorite Categories of effective potencyo Sterilants are capable of completely eliminating or destroying in all forms of microbial life, including spores,o DisinfectantsDestroy some, but not necessarily all organisms. The category is further divided into subcategories:- i) High level disinfectants In their usual concentration and contact period, they destroy all microorganisms, with exception of high number of bacterial spores ( small number of spores can be destroyed). It is worth noting that at higher concentrations and prolonged contact period, high level disinfectant can act as steriliant. i.e. can kill high numbers of spores as well. Examples are :-2% gluteraldehyde, 8% formaldehyde, 6-10% hydrogen peroxide and ethylene oxide gas.ii) Intermediate level disinfectants :- Inactivate even resistant organisms such as mycobacterium tuberculosis as well as vegetative bacteria, most viruses and most fungi, but do not necessarily kill bacterial spores. Examples are :-0.5% iodine, 70-90% ethanol and isopropanol, chlorine compounds (hypochlorite), some phenolic compounds and iodophor based disinfectants.iii) Low level disinfectants kill most bacteria, some viruses and some fungi, but cannot be relied on to kill resistant microorganisms such as tubercular bacilli or bacterial spores. Examples are quarterly ammonium compounds, mercurials,some phenolic compounds and iodophores. Note:- the disinfectant levels of iodophors (iodines) and phenolic compounds may be classified as intermediate or low depending on the concentration employed.Levels of disinfectant ActivityLevel of activityBacteriaSporesFungiVirusesVegetativeTubercular Lipid medium sizeNonlipid & SmallHigh++++++Intermediate++-+++Low+--++- | train | med_mcqa | null |
During retinoscopy of a 30 year old male, which cycloplegic is used routinely- | [
"Atropine 1% ointment",
"Cyclopentolate 1% drop",
"Homatropine 2% drop",
"Atropine 10% drop"
] | B | Cyclopentolate is a sho acting cycloplegic. Its effect lasts for 6 to 18 hours. It is used as 1 percent eyedrops in patients between 8 and 20 years of age. One drop of cyclopentolate is instilled after every 10-15 minutes for 3 times (Havener's recommended dose) and the retinoscopy is performed 1 to 1/ 1/2 hours or 60 to 90 min. later, after estimating the residual accommodation which should not exceed one dioptre. Reference : A K KHURANA OPHTALMOLOGY,Edition 4,Page-550 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following "oncogenic viruses" is so far not shown to be (oncogenic) in man - | [
"Hepatitis B virus",
"Epstein - Barr virus",
"Herpes simplex Type 2",
"Adenovirus"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Adenovirus . Adenovirus type 12 and 18 produce sarcoma when inoculated into baby hamsters. . However there is no evidence at all relating adenoviruses to natural malignancy in human or animals. . All other viruses given in option are oncogenic in man. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ring of Soemmering is seen in – | [
"Galactosemia",
"Dislocation of lens",
"Acute congestive glaucoma",
"After cataract"
] | D | Ring of sommerring and Elsching's pearls are seen in after cataract. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Operation theatres are sterilized by - | [
"Carbolic acid spraying",
"Washing with soap and water",
"Formaldehyde",
"ETO gas"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true regarding Golgi apparatus, except | [
"Cis is receiving end",
"Trans is secretory end",
"Nonpolarized structure",
"Situated near nucleus"
] | C | Golgi apparatus is a polarized structure situated usually near the nucleus and has a receiving end (Cis/Convex) and a secretory end (trans/ Concave). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Investigation of choice to confirm sickle cell disease | [
"Tandem mass spechrometry",
"Gel Electrophoresis",
"High performance liquid chromatography",
"Naked eye single Tube Red Cell Osmotic Fragility test"
] | C | HPLC is the investigation of choice to confirm the diagnosis of sickle cell anemia. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hyperventilation in high altitude is due to | [
"Respiratory alkalosis",
"Respiratory acidosis",
"Hypercapnea",
"Decreased concentration of bicarbonate"
] | A | Hyperventilation in high altitude is due to respiratory alkalosis Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number:375,376,377 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are essential amino acid except | [
"Phenylalanine",
"Lysine",
"Leucine",
"Glycine"
] | D | The essential amino acids are Isoleucine, Leucine Threonine Lysine, Methionine, Phenylalanine, Tryptophan, and Valine.Ref: DM Vasudevan - Textbook of Biochemistry for Medical Students, 7th edition, page no: 27 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Placenta previa is characterized by all except: | [
"Painless bleeding",
"Causeless bleeding",
"Recurrent bleeding",
"Presents after first trimester"
] | D | Ans. is d, i.e. Present after first trimesterRef Dutta Obs. 7/e, a 243Antepartum hemorrhage is defined as bleeding from or into the genital tract after the period of viability and but before the birth of the baby (the first and second stage of labor included). Hence option d is incorrect. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following condition is associated with coagulative necrosis? | [
"Tuberculosis",
"Sarcoidosis",
"Cryptococcal infection",
"Gangrene"
] | A | Coagulation necrosis is seen in TB. Caseous necrosis is so called because of its cheesy white appearance. Microscopically, the necrotic focus appear as amorphous granular debris composed of fragmented, coagulated cells enclosed within an inflammatory border. Necrosis refers to a spectrum of morphologic changes that follow cell death in living tissue, largely resulting from progressive degradation action of enzymes on the lethally injured cells.Types of necrosis are:Coagulative necrosis : seen in myocardial infarctionLiquefactive necrosis: seen in focal bacterial or occasional fungal infectionsCaseous necrosis: seen in TBFat necrosis: seen in acute pancreatitis Ref: Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease, 6th Edition, Page 16-7 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Nicotinic acid acts by - | [
"Nicotinic acid acts by -",
"Inhibiting HMG-CoA synthatase",
"Inhibiting HMG CoA reductase",
"Decreasing absorption of cholesterol"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Inhibiting lipolysis o Niacin (Nicotinic acid) inhibits intracellular lipolysis by inhibiting hormone sensitive lipase --> intracellular FFA to liver --> triglyceride synthesis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about aetiopathogenesis of Alzheimers disease-a) Absence of tau proteinb) Involvement of Apolipoprotein Ec) Preseneline-1and 2 involved d) Mutation in chromosome 21e) Preseneline 2 is not involved | [
"abc",
"bcd",
"ac",
"bd"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mr Chaturvedi a 70-year-old man comes to casualty with urinary retention and back pain. Which investigation should be performed - | [
"Serum acid phosphatase",
"Serum Calcium",
"Serum alkaline phosphatase",
"Serum electrophoresis"
] | A | This pt. is suspected to have Ca Prostate as
Prostatic Ca is the most common malignant tumor in men over 65 yrs. of age.
Symptoms of Bladder outlet obstruction and back pains (due to bony metastasis in the pelvis & lumbar vertebra) indicate towards prostate Ca.
Serum acid phosphates is a tumor marker of prostate Ca.
But now serum acid phosphates assay has been superseded by PSA assay (Prostate specific antigen).
Prostate-specific antigen
It is a glycoprotein produced only in the prostatic cells (both benign & malignant). It facilitates liquefaction of semen.
It is neither sensitive nor specific for early prostate carcinoma (it is prostate specific and not prostate cancer specific), nevertheless it gives some help in making a diagnosis.
Normal serum level → less than 4 mg/ml
4 - 10 mg/ml → this range is common for both BHP and Ca.
More than 10 mg/ml → approx 75% will have cancer.
Since PSA is not specific for Ca, PSA Velocity & PSA density is used to detect Prostate cancer.
PSA velocity is the rate of change in PSA levels over time and is expressed most commonly as the PSA doubling time. For men with a PSA above 4, PSA velocity of more than .75 mg/ml year is suggestive of Ca. While for those with lower PSA levels, rates above 0.5 mg/ml, per year should be used to advise biopsy.
PSA density is calculated by dividing the serum PSA by the estimated prostate weight (measured by TRUS). It was developed to correct for the contribution of BPH to the total PSA level.
Values < 0.10 are consistent with BPH.
> 0.15 suggest cancer | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most effective method for motivating a couple for adopting family planning practices is - | [
"Printed material",
"Films and television",
"Group discussion",
"Inter-personal communication"
] | D | Traditional way of communication has been by word of mouth.The advent of written and printed matter are comparatively recent origin .Direct verbal communication by word of mouth may be loaded with hidden meanings (refer pgno:855 park 23 rd edition) | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 3-year-old girl has been a fussy eater since being weaned, particularly when fruit is part of her diet. She would get cranky, sweat, and display dizziness, and lethargy, after eating a meal with fruit. Her mother noticed this correlation, and as long as fruit was withdrawn from her diet, the child did not display such symptoms. The problems the girl exhibits when eating fruit is most likely due to which one of the following? | [
"Decreased levels of fructose in the blood",
"Elevated levels of glyceraldehyde in liver cells",
"High levels of sucrose in the stool",
"Elevated levels of fructose-1-phosphate in liver cells"
] | D | The patient has HFI, which is caused by a mutation in aldolase B. Sucrose would still be cleaved by sucrase; thus, it would not increase in the stool. Fructose would not be metabolized normally; therefore, it would be elevated in the blood and urine. Aldolase B would not cleave fructose-1-phosphate; thus, its levels would be elevated, and the product, glyceraldehyde, would not be produced. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Senile cardiac amyloid associated protein is | [
"Transthyretin",
"ANP",
"Beta 2 microglobulin",
"Gelsolin"
] | A | Transthyretin (TTR) is a normal serum protein that binds and transpos thyroxine and retinol. Several distinct mutant forms of TTR (and its fragments) are deposited in a group of genetically determined disorders referred to as familial amyloid polyneuropathies. Normal TTR is also deposited in the hea of aged individuals (senile systemic amyloidosis)Reference: Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease; 9th edition; Chapter 6; Diseases of the Immune System | train | med_mcqa | null |
The penaz technique | [
"Is invasive",
"Uses plethysmography",
"Does not require a pneumatic cuff",
"Is suitable in presence of peripheral vascular disease"
] | B | Penaz technique is a continuous non-invasive method of BP monitoring. Infra-red plethysmograph is mounted on the pneumatic cuff. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In Bier's block aesthetic agent given by which route? | [
"Intravenous",
"Peribulbar region",
"Retrobulbar area",
"Dermal"
] | A | (Refer: Morgan and Mikhail's Clinical Anaesthesiology, 5th edition, pg no.1000) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug of choice for neutropenia due to cancer chemotherapy is : | [
"Vitamin B–12",
"IL–11",
"Filgrastim",
"Erythropoietin"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which DNA polymerase is/are involved in repair of mammalian DNA | [
"α",
"β",
"γ",
"ε"
] | B | DNA β is involved in DNA repair in eukaryotes. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pembrolizumab is used for which condition | [
"Metastatic Melanoma",
"Basal cell carcinoma skin",
"Squamous cell carcinoma of skin",
"Pemphigus vulgaris"
] | A | PD-1 inhibitors (pembrolizumab, nivolumab) * Ipilimumab was the first checkpoint inhibitor to improve overall survival in randomized phase III trials of advanced melanoma; however, checkpoint inhibitors that target the Programmed cell death-1 (PD-1) receptor have quickly become the preferred approach to immunotherapy since they are more effective and have fewer side effects * PD-1 is an immune checkpoint receptor expressed by activated T cells # Normally functions as a "brake" on the immune response # PD-1 on activated T cells binds to its ligands PD1-L1 (B7-H1) and PD1-L2 (B7-DC), which are expressed on tumor cells - deactivation of T cells - loss of immune response against tumor * Nivolumab and pembrolizumab # Monoclonal antibodies that target PD-1 - prevent T cell deactivation - | immune-mediated tumoricidal activity # Both are FDA approved for advanced melanoma # Phase 3 RCTs in patients w/advanced melanoma have demonstrated | overall survival, | progression-free survival, and fewer side effects with either agent when compared to ipilimumab or conventional chemotherapy * Some patients have durable responses even after completion of treatment * Efficacy improved when used in combination with ipilimumab (main disadvantage = | immune mediated side effects) # Most common adverse events: fatigue, pruritus, and rash * Less common (far less common than w/ ipilimumab): pneumonitis, colitis, hepatitis, nephritis and renal dysfunction, and thyroid dysfunction. Ref:- Review of Dermatology by Alikhan; pg num:-41 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Wilson disease is due to accumulation of:September 2005 | [
"Copper",
"Iron",
"Zinc",
"Nickel"
] | A | Ans. A: CopperIn Wilson disease, main sites of copper accumulation are the liver and the brain, and consequently liver disease and neuropsychiatric symptoms are the main features that lead to diagnosis.Liver disease may present as tiredness, increased bleeding tendency or confusion (due to hepatic encephalopathy) and poal hypeension.On examination, signs of chronic liver disease such as spider naevi (small distended blood vessels, usually on the chest) may be observed. Chronic active hepatitis has caused cirrhosis of the liver in most patients by the time they develop symptoms.About 5% of all patients are diagnosed only when they develop fulminant acute liver failure, often in the context of a hemolytic anemia.About half the patients with Wilson's have neurological or psychiatric problems. Specific neurological symptoms then follow, often in the form of parkinsonism (increased rigidity and slowing of routine movements) with or without a typical hand tremor, masked facial expressions, slurred speech, ataxia (lack of coordination) or dystonia (twisting and repetitive movements of pa of the body).Various medical conditions have been linked with copper accumulation in Wilson's disease:Eyes: Kayser-Fleischer rings (KF rings) may be visible around the iris. They are due to copper deposition in Descemet's membrane of the cornea.They do not occur in all patients and may only be visible on slit lamp examination.Wilson's disease is also associated with sunflower cataracts, brown or green pigmentation of the anterior and posterior lens capsule.Kidneys: renal tubular acidosis, a disorder of bicarbonate handling by the PCT leads to nephrocalcinosis (calcium accumulation in the kidneys), weakening of the bone (due to calcium and phosphate loss) and occasionally aminoaciduria.Hea: cardiomyopathy and arrythmiasHormones: hypoparathyroidism, infeility and habitual aboion. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In a patient suspected to be suffering from vesicoureteric reflex, which one of the following radiological investigations may confirm the diagnosis? | [
"Intravenous urography",
"Micturating cystourethrography",
"Pelvic ultrasound",
"Antegrade pyelography"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is seen in CO poisoning? | [
"Oxygen curve shifts to left",
"Hypoxic hypoxia",
"Cyanosis",
"Diffusion capacity of lung decreases"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
'Diving in' reflex that occurs as a result of perinatal asphyxia leads to vasoconstriction in all the following organs except: | [
"Hea",
"Bowel",
"Kidney",
"Skin"
] | A | Asphyxia causes redistribution of the blood flow. In various organs of the body, there is vasoconstriction eg- bowel, kidney, muscles and skin Blood supply to the more vital organs like the brain and hea -preserved. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Macrocytic anaemia is due to deficiency of: | [
"Vit B1",
"Vit B12",
"Vit B2",
"Vit B6"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
On autopsy, fine froth was found in the resp. tract, nose and mouth. Likely cause of death | [
"Drowning",
"Hanging",
"Strangulation",
"Tooth paste poisoning"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e. Drowning The fine froth at the mouth and nose is pathognomic of drowning. It is white or rarely blood stained, lather like, abundant and increases in amount with compressions of the chest; even if wiped away it gradually reappears, especially if pressure is applied to chest.The presence of weeds, mud, sand etc. in the tightly clenched hand, when present is also indicative of death from drowning as it indicates the victim s struggle for life.Froth at mouth and in respiratory tract is also found in certain poisonings as given below but in these cases the froth is neither so Fine nor so copious and persistent and none of the typical signs of drowning are present. eg. Opioids Cocaine BarbituratesOrganophosphorus compounds. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Simple bone cyst is most commonly seen in - | [
"Proximal humerus",
"Proximal tibia",
"Distal tibia",
"Distal humerus"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Proximal humerus Simple Bone Cyst* This lesion is also known as a solitary cyst or unicameral bone cyst.* It appears during childhood, typically in the metaphysis of one of the long bones and most commonly in the proximal humerus or femur.* It is not a tumor, it tends to heal spontaneously and it is seldom seen in adults. The condition is usually discovered after a pathological fracture or as an incidental finding on x-ray.* X-rays show a well-demarcated radiolucent area in the metaphysis, often extending up to the physeal plate; the cortex may be thinned and the bone expanded. Fallen fragment sign is seen if pathological fracture develops. After pathological fracture a cortical fragment is seen in the most dependent portion of cyst, like a fallen fragment. | train | med_mcqa | null |
During sample collection the intern spilled some blood on the floor. What is the next step to be done? | [
"Mop the floor",
"Call the hospital infection control team",
"Pour 1% sodium hypochlorite over it",
"Put some absorbable material over it"
] | D | Ans. D. Put some absorbable material over itBlood spillage may occur because a laboratory sample breaks in the phlebotomy area or during transportation, or because there is excessive bleeding during the procedure. In this situation, clean up the spillage and record the incident, using the following procedure given below.These are guidelines from WHO--Best practice (for blood spillage)* Wear a pair of nonsterile gloves.* Use tongs or a pan and brush to sweep up as much of the broken glass (or container) as possible. Do not pick up pieces with your hands.* Discard the broken glass in a sharps container. If this is not possible due to the size of the broken glass, wrap the glass or container in several layers of paper and discard it carefully in a separate container. Do not place it in the regular waste container.* Use disposable paper towels to absorb as much of the body fluids as possible.* Wipe the area with water and detergent until it is visibly clean.* Saturate the area again with sodium hypochlorite 0.5% (10,000 ppm available chlorine). This is a 1:10 dilution of 5.25% sodium hypochlorite bleach, which should be prepared daily.* Rinse off the tongs, brush, and pan under running water and place to dry.* Remove gloves and discard them.* Wash hands carefully with soap and water, and dry thoroughly with single-use towels.* Record the incident in the incident book if a specimen was lost, or persons were exposed to blood and body fluids.Local guidelines in different hospitals may vary, but gold standard will be-- WHOs best practice guidelines. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The marker for B lymphocyte is - | [
"CD 19",
"CD 68",
"CD 34",
"CD 4"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., CD 19 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most malignant form of NHL is - | [
"Diffuse large cell",
"Small cell lymphocytic lymphoma",
"Follicular cleavage",
"Large cell follicular"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about retinoblastoma are all except: | [
"AD",
"Most common intraocular tumor of childhood",
"Females are more affected than males",
"Bilateral involvement not rare"
] | C | Retinoblastoma: AD Most common intraocular tumor of childhood Males & females are equally affected Bilateral involvement not rare | train | med_mcqa | null |
Bone marrow depressive drugs in the treatment of AIDS patient are except | [
"Didanosine",
"Zalcitabine",
"Cotrimaxazole",
"Ganciclovir"
] | A | Drugs causing bone marrow suppression in patients with HIV infection Zidovudine Dapsone Trimethoprim Pyrimethamine. 5-flucytosine Gancyclovir Interferon alpha Foscarnet. Refer CMDT 2010/454 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Treatment of seminoma is: | [
"High orchidectomy with radiotherapy",
"Radiotherpy",
"Chemotherapy only",
"Trans scrotal resection of testis"
] | A | Ans: a (High orchidectomy with radiotherapy) Ref: Bailey & Love, 24thed,p. 1411Treatment of testicular neoplasm involves high orchidectomy for tissue diagnosis and further management depending on the nature of tumour and the extent of lymphatic spread. So the obvious answer is high orchidectomy with radiotherapyStageExtent of diseaseSeminomaNonseminomaIATestis only, no vascular/ lymphatic invasion (Tl)High orchidectomy with radiation therapyHigh orchidectomy RPLND or observationIBTestis only with vascular/ lymphatic invasion (T2) or extension through tunica albuginea(T2) or involvement of spermatic cord (T3) or scrotum (T4)High orchidectomy with radiation therapyHigh orchidectomy with RPLNDIIANodes < 2 cmHigh orchidectomy with radiation therapyHigh orchidectomy with RPLND or chemotherapy often followed by RPLNDIIBNodes 2 -5 cmHigh orchidectomy with radiation therapyHigh orchidectomy RPLND +/- adjuvant chemotherapy or chemotherapy followed by RPLNDIICNodes > 5 cmHigh orchidectomy ChemotherapyHigh orchidectomy, chemotherapy, often followed by RPLNDIIIDistant metastasisHigh orchidectomy ChemotherapyHigh orchidectomy, chemotherapy, often followed by surgery (biopsy or resection)Tumorus of testis* Seminoma (40%): B/w 35 and 45 yrs* Teratoma (32%): Younger age group peak incidence b/w 20 & 35 yrs* Combined seminoma & teratoma (14%)* Interstitial tumours (1.5%)* Lymphoma (7 %): Men over 60 yrs* Others (5.5%)Note:Transscrotal approach in neoplasm of testis is contraindicated because of early spread of malignancy to scrotal skin. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Brain pa resistant to hypoxia is | [
"Cerebral coex",
"Basal ganglia",
"Thalamus",
"Structures in brainstem"
] | D | The brainstem (or brain stem) is the posterior pa of the brain, adjoining and structurally continuous with the spinal cord. In the human brain, the brainstem includes the midbrain, the pons, and the medulla oblongata. Sometimes the diencephalon, the caudal pa of the forebrain, is included.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology 23rd edition Page no: 246 | train | med_mcqa | null |
An 8-month old child presented with itchy, exudative lesions on the face, palms and soles. The siblings also have similar complaints. The treatment of choice is such a patient is: | [
"Systemic ampicillin",
"Topical betamethasone",
"Systemic prednisolone",
"Topical permethrin"
] | D | D i.e. Topical permethrin | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 35-year-old female is under general anesthesia. Prior to laryngeal intubation the rima glottidis is opened by which pair of muscles? | [
"Posterior cricoarytenoids",
"Lateral cricoarytenoids",
"Thyroarytenoids",
"Transverse arytenoids"
] | A | The posterior cricoarytenoid muscles lie on the superoposterior aspect of the lamina of the cricoid cartilage. When these muscles contract, they cause lateral rotation (abduction) of the vocal processes of the arytenoid cartilages, thereby opening the space between the vocal folds, the rima glottidis. The lateral cricoarytenoid is involved with adducting the arytenoid cartilage and closing the rima glottidis. The thyroarytenoid muscles lie alongside either vocal ligament and are also involved in adducting the vocal folds. The transverse arytenoid muscle connects both arytenoid cartilages and also aids in closing the rima glottidis. Finally, the cricothyroid muscle is located on the anterior aspect of the cricoid cartilage and aids in elongation and tensing of the vocal folds. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following structure is crossed by root of mesentery? | [
"Horizontal pa of duodenum",
"Left gonadal vessels",
"Left ureter",
"Superior mesenteric aery"
] | A | "The root of the mesentery crosses (successively) the third pa of duodenum, abdominal aoa, IVC, right ureter, right psoas major, right genitofemoral nerve and right gonadal vessels.Mesentery is a peritoneal fold that suspend jejunum and ileum from the posterior abdominal wall. It has two layers and two borders. The posterior border is called root of mesentery. Root of mesentery is 15cm long and its line of attachment runs obliquely down ward and to the right from duodenojejunal flexure to the right iliac fossa. Ref: Human Anatomy: Volume II Abdomen and Lower Limb By A. Halim, Page 86 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Gluconeogensis affect A/E : | [
"Lactate",
"Glycerol",
"Alanine",
"Growth hormone"
] | D | D i.e. Growth hormone | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following organ is highly susceptible to radiation induced cancer? | [
"Bone marrow",
"Thyroid",
"Bone",
"Brain"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Immunosuppressant drug inhibiting the action of IL–2 without inhibiting its transcription is : | [
"Prednisolone",
"Cyclosporine",
"Tacrolimus",
"Sirolimus"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
1st product of tryptophan Catabolism - | [
"Kynurenine",
"Xantheurenic acid",
"Bradykinin",
"Melatonin"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Kynurenine Metabolism of tryptophano Tryptophan is an essential amino acidQ, containing indol ringQ. Tryptophan is oxidized to produce alanine (which is glucogenic) and acetyl-CoA (which is ketogenic). Therefore, tryptophan is both glucogenic and ketogenic. Tryptophan is precursor for the biosynthess of niacinQ (a vitaminQ), serotonin (a neurotransmitter) and melatoninQ (a hormone).o Tryptophan metabolism occurs by two pathways: (i) kinurenine pathwayQ and (ii) serotonine pathway.1) Kynurenine pathway :- Tryptophan is oxidized to kynurenine, which is then converted to either niacin (nicotinic acid) or acetyl-CoA. In the reaction alanine is also produced. o Deficiency of tryptophan can cause deficiency of niacin (if also deficient in diet). This can leads to Pallegra: dermatitis, diarrhea and dementia.o For every 60 mg of tryptophan, 1 mg. equivalent of niacin can be generatedQ.o In vitamin B6 deficiency the metabolism is shuted to xanthurenic acid. Therefore, xantheurenic acid excretion is increased in urine.2) Serotonin pathway:- Tryptophan is first oxidized to serotonine which is further converted to melatonin.o Serotonin secretion is increased in carcinoid syndrome which causes flushingQ. VasoconstrictionQ, diarrheaQ and bronchospasm (respiratory distress). | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient presents with erythematous scaly lesions on extensor aspect of elbows and knee. The clinical diagnosis is got by – | [
"Auspitz sign",
"KOH smear",
"Tzanck smear",
"Skin biopsy"
] | A | Erythematous scaly lesions on extensor aspect of elbow and knee favours the diagnosis of Psoriasis.
The clinical diagnosis of psoriasis can be made by demonstrating Auspitz sign.
It is a characteristic finding of psoriasis in which removal of scale leads to pinpoint bleeding. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Visual acuity is: March 2012 | [
"Refractive power of eye",
"Dividing denominator with distance at which the letters can be read on Snellen cha",
"Ability to increase converging power of eye",
"Ability to discriminate 2 points"
] | D | Ans: D i.e. Ability to discriminate 2 points Some common terms Refractory power/ optical power is the ability of eye to bend light as it passes through the eye The minimum angle of resolution (MAR) is arrived at by dividing the denominator by the distance at which the letters were read The necessary increase in convergence power of eye is (accomplished by augmenting the refractive power of the crystalline lens by increasing the curvature of its surface) by the phenomenon of accommodation. Visual acuity is a measure of the spatial resolution of the eye or, in other words, an estimation of its ability to discriminate between 2 points | train | med_mcqa | null |
Anti-tubercular drug not given in liver disease is ? | [
"Isoniazid",
"Ethambutol",
"Pyrazinamide",
"Rifampicin"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Pyrizinamide o Among the given options, only ethambutol is safe in liver disease. Other three drugs cause hepatotoxicity and should be avoided. o However, if the question is repeated as such, best answer is pyrazinamide because of following statement of Harrison-"In case of presence of hepatic risk factors or if during treatment hepatitis develops in a patient, one might rechallange the patient with rifampicin and isoniazid but pyrizinamide is never given". | train | med_mcqa | null |
Thinnest pa of scelra is: | [
"At the entrance of optic nerve",
"Site of entrance of ciliary nerves",
"Corneoscleral junction",
"At the inseion of recti muscles"
] | D | The sclera is much thicker behind than in front; the thickness of its posterior pa at the macula is 1 mm. The sclera thins to 0.3 mm just behind the recti muscle inseions (about 6 mm behind the corneoscleral junction) and this area is extremely vulnerable to traumatic rupture. In fact this is the most common site of a ruptured globe due to blunt trauma.At the equator the sclera measures 0.4-0.5 mm in thickness.It is thickest behind, near the entrance of the optic nerve. However it is weakest at the entrance of theoptic nerve. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The treatment of acute alcohol intoxication is based on which of the following. | [
"Severity of respiratory and CNS depression",
"Age and sex of the patient",
"Medical fitness of the patient",
"Amount of breath odour"
] | A | Ans. (a) Severity of respiratory and CNS depressionRef.: Harrison 19th ed. 12727Acute Alcohol intoxication: After a brief period excitation, there is a generalized central nervous system depression with alcohol use. With increasing intoxication, there is increased reaction time, slowed thinking, distractibility and poor motor control. Later, dysarthria, ataxia and incoordination can occur. There is progressive loss of self control with frank disinhibited behavior.The duration of intoxication depends on the amount and the rapidity of ingestion of alcohol. Usually the signs of intoxication are obvious with blood levels of 150-200 mg %. With blood alcohol levels of 300- 450 mg % increasing drowsiness followed by coma and respiratory depression develop. | train | med_mcqa | null |
which of the following drugs should be removed by dialysis? | [
"digoxin",
"salicylates",
"benzodiazepines",
"organophosphates"
] | B | Salicylates stay in blood whereas digoxin,diazepam and organophosphates are distributed widely | train | med_mcqa | null |
Call exner bodies" are seen in : | [
"Dysgerminoma",
"Theca cell tumour",
"Granulosa cell tumour",
"Polyembryoma"
] | C | Ans. is c i.e. Granulosa cell tumour Call exner bodies are small cyst like spaces found in cases of granulosa cell tumour. Feature Associated tumour Call exner bodies -Granulosa cell tumour Schiller duval bodies - Endodermal sinus tumor Reinke's crystal - Hilus cell tumour Psammoma bodies - Serous epithelial tumours Walthard cell nest - Brenner's tumour Signet ring cell - Krukenberg tumour | train | med_mcqa | null |
Winging of scapula is due to damage to the nerve supply of? | [
"Serratus anterior",
"Latissimus dorsi",
"Trapezius",
"Deltoid"
] | C | Trapezius Iatrogenic injury of the spinal accessory nerve (usually accidental damage during minor neck surgery) is the most common cause of accessory nerve palsy. Although rare, this kind of damage can cause extensive morbidity, including numbness, paralysis, pain, and winging of the scapula. In jugular foramen syndrome, caused by pathologies including nasopharyngeal carcinoma or a glomus tumor, lesions of the glossopharyngeal, vagus and accessory nerves coexist. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The perilymph, present in the scala vestibule and scala tympani, drains into the CSF through the | [
"Aqueduct of cochlea",
"Aqueduct of vestibule",
"Ductus reunions",
"Cochlear duct"
] | A | The perilymphatic chamber of the vestibular system has a wide connection to scala vestibuli, which in turn connects to scala tympani by an opening called the helicotrema at the apex of the cochlea. Scala tympani is then connected to the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) of the subarachnoid space by the cochlear aqueduct. ref - BD chaurasia 6e vol3 pg | train | med_mcqa | null |
Length of tibia is ? | [
"10% of height",
"20% of height",
"30% of height",
"40% of height"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 20% of height Stature is determined in dismembered body (skeletal remains) by : Length from the tip of middle finger to the tip of opposite middle finger when arms are fully extended. Twice the length of one arm + 30 cm (of two clavicles) + 4 cm (for the sternum). Humerus length is 1/5th of height. The length from the veex to the symphysis pubis is half of the total length. The length from the sternal notch to Symphysis pubis x 3-3. The length of forearm measured from tip of middle finger is =5/19 of total length. The height of head measured by the veical distance from the top of the head (veex) to the tip of chin = 1/8 of the total length. The length of veebral column = 34/100 of total length. To the length of entire skeleton, add 2.5 to 4 cm for thickness of the soft pas. As a general rule humerus is 20%, tibia is 22%, femur is 27% and spine is 35% of individual height. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is inactivated in the lung? | [
"Angiotensin I",
"Angiotensis II",
"Bradykinin",
"Serotonin"
] | C | Vasoactive substances on their passage through the lungs are completely or paially inactivated. Bradykinin is a potent vasodilator that is not synthesized in the lung, but is largely inactivated in the pulmonary endothelium following degradation by angiotensin conveing enzyme. About 80% of bradykinin is inactivated in the lung. The lung is also the major site of inactivation of serotonin but this is by uptake and storage process not by enzymatic degradation. Angiotensin I is conveed to angiotensin II by angiotensin conveing enzyme (ACE). There is no effect on angiotensin II and vasopressin. Ref: Respiratory physiology, By John B West, 9th Edition, Page 52. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not true of non depolarizing skeletal muscle relaxants? | [
"Causes histamine release",
"Hypothermia prolongs their effect",
"Fasciculations of muscle",
"Ganglion blockade"
] | C | Fasciculations are shown by depolarizing muscle relaxants. These agents do not cause hypothermia but their effect may be prolonged in hypothermia. KD Tripathi 8th ed. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The type of estrogen found in highest concentration in adult female is- | [
"Estrone",
"Estriol",
"Estradiol",
"None"
] | C | Ans (c) Estradiol(Ref: Ganong, 25th ed/p.406)Naturally occurring estrogens are,Estradiol (E2 ) - predominant estrogen during reproductive yearsEstrone (E1) - predominant estrogen in menopausal womenEstriol (E3) - predominant estrogen in pregnant women | train | med_mcqa | null |
Delayed tuberculin test response is due to: September 2004 | [
"B lymphocytes",
"T lymphocytes",
"Monocytes",
"Histiocytes"
] | B | Ans. B i.e. T lymphocytes | train | med_mcqa | null |
Regarding vaginal candidiasis which one of the following is false: | [
"Cottage cheese like secretions are seen",
"Intense pruritus",
"Most common in non-pregnant women",
"Buds and hyphae seen in KOH preparation"
] | C | Ans. C. Most common in non-pregnant womenCandidiasis is caused by Candida albinism which thrives in an acidic medium with an abundant supply of carbohydrates. It is found commonly in pregnancy, and in patients on oral contraceptives, antibiotics and. corticosteroids. It is also seen in patients with diabetes. It causes a profuse discharge and intense pruritus with soreness of vagina and dysuria. Vagina and vulva are edematous and excoriated and the white patches of cheesy material on the vagina and vulva can be easily identified. A 10%KOH smear shows the buds and hyphae of the Candida organism. Nystatin or ketoconazole vaginal tablets used for one week are curative when used along with a cream of the same medication for External use. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Retinal cells which secrete acytyl choline | [
"Bipolar cells",
"Ganglion cells",
"H cells",
"Amacrine cells"
] | D | Important facts about signal transduction in Retina
The responses of the rods, cones and horizontal cells are hyperpolarizing.
Bipolar cells may show either hyperpolarization or depolarizationQ .
All these cells develop only graded local potentials, i.e., nonpropagated, decremental, does not follow all or none law. These cells do not develop action potential.
The only cell which develops propagated action potential is ganglion cellsQ and the response is always depolarizing. Otherwise, they remains in inactive state,
Amacrine cells produce depolarizing potential and spikes,
Rods and cones release glutamateQ at their synapses with the bipolar cells.
Amacrine cells0 secrete at least eight types of transmitter substances, including GABA, glycine, dopamine, acetylcholineQ and indolamine, all of which normally function as inhibitory neurotransmitters,
The transmitters of the bipolar cells0 and horizontal cells are unclear. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient of more than 70 years, presented with generalized lymphadenopathy. WBC count was 20,000/ mm3 and blood film showed >70% mature looking lymphocytes. Next investigation that should be done | [
"LN biopsy",
"Peripheral Immunophenotyping",
"Bone marrow aspiration",
"Peripheral blood cytogenetics"
] | B | Ans. b. Peripheral Immunophenotyping A patient of more than 70 years, presented with generalized lymphadenopathy. WBC count was 20,000/mm3 and blood film showed >70% mature looking lymphocytes. This clinical situation is suggestive of CLL Harrison says "Differential diagnosis of typical B cell CLL is extensive. Immunophenotyping will eliminate the other T-cell disorders and can often help so other B-cell malignancies." | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pterygium of nail is characteristically seen in - | [
"Lichen planus",
"Psoriasis",
"Tinea unguium",
"Alopecia areata"
] | A | pterygium unguis is a wing like adhesion between the proximal nail fold and nail bed. Psoriasis-nail pitting. Page no.243. Reference Harrison20th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Neonatal lines are seen in | [
"Enamel of deciduous incisors",
"Enamel of permanent incisors",
"Enamel of premolars",
"Dentin of all teeth, as if is formed first"
] | A | Because of undisturbed and even development of the enamel prior to birth, perikymata are absent in the occlusal. enamel of deciduous teeth, whereas they are present in the postnatal cervical parts. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Initial screening test for the auditory function in neonates | [
"Auditory Brainstem Response (ABR)",
"Otoacoustic Emissions (OAE)",
"Free Field Audiometry",
"Visual reinforcement audiometry"
] | B | Ans. b. Otoacoustic Emissions The screening investigation of high-risk neonates in ICU for suspected hearing loss is otoacoustic emissions. Uses of OAE Screening test of hearing in neonatesQ Help to differentiate between cochlear and retrocochlear lesionsQ Used to diagnose retrocochlear pathologies especially auditory neuropathyQ | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are histological features of Hashimoto thyroiditis, except: | [
"Lymphocytic infiltrate with germinal center formation",
"Follicular destruction and atrophy",
"Huhle cell metaplasia",
"Orphan Annie eye nuclei"
] | D | All of the above histological features are of Hashimoto thyroiditis except Orphan Annie eye nuclei - It is seen in papillary carcinoma of thyroid. Hashimoto thyroiditis: Autoimmune disease that is caused by immune response to thyroid autoantigens. Painless enlargement of the thyroid often in middle age women M/C cause of hypothyroidism in iodine sufficient areas Increased risk for the development of B-cell malignancy - marginal zone lymphomas. Infiltrates of lymphocytes with germinal center formation, follicular damage present. Thyroid follicles are atrophic and are lined in many areas by Huhle cells (pink granular eosinophilic cytoplasm, oncocytic metaplasia). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hypernatremia causes all EXCEPT? | [
"Seizure",
"Pseudo- Paralysis",
"Brain hemorrhage",
"Cerebral edema"
] | B | Sudden shrinkage of brain cells in acute hypernatremia may lead to parenchymal or subarachnoid hemorrhages Brain cells accommodate to a chronic | in ECF osmolality (>48h) by activating membrane transpoers- influx and intracellular accumulation of organic osmolytes- increase in ICF water and normalization of brain parenchymal volume. Cellular response to chronic hypernatremia predisposes these patients to the development of cerebral edema and seizures during overly rapid hydration | train | med_mcqa | null |
Function of UGA codon - | [
"Initiates transcription",
"Translates",
"Terminates protein synthesis",
"None"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Terminates protein synthesis o Termination (stop/nonsense) codons signal to terminate the translation. These are 3 stop codons UAA, UGA and UAGo Initiation codon - AUGo Stop codons (termination codons or nonsense codons) - UAA, UGA, UA G | train | med_mcqa | null |
Deficiency of following elements is seen with hyperalimentation except | [
"Calcium",
"Phosphates",
"Zinc",
"none"
] | D | Ans. is 'None' | train | med_mcqa | null |
Dumping syndrome is characterized by all of the following except: March 2005 | [
"Colic",
"Tremors and giddiness",
"Hyperglycemia",
"Epigastric fullness"
] | C | Ans. C: Hyperglycemia Dumping syndrome is a relatively rare disorder in which the stomach contents are delivered too quickly to the small intestine. It occurs as a physiological reaction to the consumption of too much simple or refined sugar in some persons, when simple sugar exits the stomach too rapidly it attracts fluid into the upper intestine, and the blood volume decreases as it attempts to absorb the sugar. Dumping syndrome is one of the unwanted post operative sequelae to paial gastrectomy. This symptom complex is believed to be due to rapid emptying of the gastric contents into the upper small intestine and also an increased transit rate through the small bowel itself right through the colon. As a consequence of this dumping a large volume of hyperosmotic fluid enters the small intestine. In an attempt to bring the osmotic tension to the physiological range, large amount of fluid cross the intestinal mucosa. As a result the plasma volume is reduced, which in turn exes a vasomotor effect. The vasomotor symptoms comprise general weakness, pallor, sweating, palpitation and light headedness. Another set of symptoms of gastrointestinal disturbance such as epigastric discomfo, nausea, vomiting and possibly an episode of diarrhea is observed. The biochemical changes that occur in dumping syndrome are hyperinsulinaemia followed by hypoglycaemia due to rapid transpo and absorption of food from small intestine after a meal. Since the conversion of glucose to glycogen and its storage consumes potassium, its level in blood decreases in dumping syndrome and hence hypokalaemia may be seen too. These symptoms classically occur some 5-30 minutes after eating and are more marked if the meal is large paicularly if it contains a substantial amount of carbohydrate and liquid. The choices for managing dumping syndrome include dietary changes, medications and surgery. Although dumping syndrome classically develops after gall bladder surgery, it may also occur after other abdominal operations, such as duodenal ulcer surgery or surgery for severe reflux. Sometimes it may be seen in people born with unusually small stomach and very rarely in those with stomach abnormalities. | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is seen on x-ray with posterior elbow dislocation - | [
"Coronoid process posterior to humerus",
"Coronoid process anterior to humerus",
"Coronoid process below humerus",
"None"
] | A | In posterior elbow dislocation, coronoid process of ulna is posterior to the condyles of humerus. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Schizophrenia with late onset and good prognosis | [
"Simple SZP",
"Hebephrenic",
"Catatonic SZP",
"Paranoid SZP"
] | C | C i.e. Catatonic SZP | train | med_mcqa | null |
Kimmelstiel -Wilson lesions in kidney consists of- | [
"Splitting of glomerular basement membrane",
"Nodular sclerosis of the glomeruli",
"Hyaline sclerosis",
"Hyperplastic arteriosclerosis"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common immunoglobulin secreted by mother in milk and colostrum is : | [
"IgA",
"IgG",
"IgE",
"IgD"
] | A | Ans. is a i.e. IgA Composition of Breast Milk : Carbohydrate - Lactose is present in high concentration in breast milk. Protein content is low, as the baby cannot metabolise a high protein diet. The proteins are mainly lactalbumin and lactoglobulin, which are easily digestible. It is also rich in the aminoacids taurine and cysteine, which are necessary for neurotransmission and neuromodulation. Fats - Breast milk is rich in polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFA) needed for myelination. Water and electrolytes - The water content is 86 - 87%. Immunological superiority - Breast milk contains immunoglobulins, especially IgA and IgM, iysozyme, lactoferrin (which protects against enterobacteria), bifidus factor (to protect against E.coli), PABA (which protects from malaria). "Breast milk has a high concentration of secretory IgA, 1gM". 'Colostrum -Contains antibody (1gA) produce locally". Therefore, IgA is the option of choice. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the most common cause of premature death in schizophrenia: | [
"Homicide",
"Suicide",
"Toxicity of antipsychotic drug",
"Hospital acquired infection"
] | B | B i.e. Suicide - Suicide is the most common cause of premature death in schizophreniaQ- Schizophrenic patients are no more likely to commit homicide than is a member of general population, however, it may be for unpredictable or-bizarre reasons based on hallucinations or delusion.Sucide In Schizophrenia- Suicide is the single leading cause of premature death among people with schizophreniaQ- 20-50% patients make an attempt, with 10-13% long term rates of suicide. It is -20 folds higher than the suicide rate of general population.- Often suicide in schizophrenia seems to occur out of the blue without prior warnings or expression of verbal intent. >2/3 patients had seen an apperently unsuspected clinician within 72 hours. Clozapine may have paicular efficacy in reducing suicidal ideation in schizophrenia patients with prior hospitalizations for suicidality. Adjunctive antidepressants may be effective in alleting comorbid major depression in schizophrenia.Risk Factors- Most impoant factor is the presence of major depressive episode- Patients with the best prognosis (few negative symptoms, preservation of capacity to experience affects, better abstract thinking) can paradoxically also be at highest risk for suicide.- Profile of patient at greatest risk is young man who once had high expectations, declined from a higher level of functioning, realizes that his dreams are not likely to come true has lost faith in the effectiveness of treatment. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is not included in the Treatment of femoral aery aneurysm | [
"Ultrasound guided compression of the neck of aneurysm",
"Thrombin injection",
"Bypass graft repair",
"CT scan"
] | D | . Ans: (d) Duplex color ultrasound is inv of choice to confirm diagnosis of peripheral aneurysms. Pseudo aneurysm of femoral aery due to aerial punctures successfully treated using US guided compression of neck of aneurysm with/ without thrombosis by thrombin injection. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Chronic adrenal insufficiency is characterized by all of the following except- | [
"Excess pigmentation",
"Asthenia",
"Weight gain",
"Hypoglycemic episodes"
] | C | In contrast in Adrenal insufficiency weight loss occurs Ref - Davidson's medicine 23e p672 , ( Harrison 17 pg 2263) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Rate limiting step in cholesterol synthesis is | [
"HMG CoA synthetase",
"HMG CoA reductase",
"Thiokinase",
"Mevalonate kinase"
] | B | Control of Cholesterol BiosynthesisSREBP Pathway The steps in the biosynthesis of cholesterol to HMG-CoA are reversible. The formation of mevalonate, however, in the next step is irreversible and is the committed step. Regulation of cholesterol biosynthesis is exeed near the beginning of the pathway at the HMG-CoA reductase step, the rate limiting step. The reduced synthesis of cholesterol in starving animals is accompanied by a decrease in the activity of the enzyme. However, it is only hepatic synthesis that is inhibted by dietary cholesterol. "HMG-CoA reductase" in liver is inhibited by mevalonate, the immediate product of the pathway and by cholesterol, the main product.SREBP: Cholesterol and metabolites repress transcription of the "HMG-CoA reductase" activation of a "sterol regulatory element-binding protein" (SREBP) transcription factor. SREBPs are a family of proteins that regulate the transcription of a range of genes involved in the cellular uptake and metabolism of cholesterol and other lipids.A second control point appears to be at the cyclisation of squalene and conversion to lanosterol, but details of the regulation at this step is not clear.Effect of starving/fasting: Fasting and/starvation also inhibit the enzyme and activate "HMG-CoA lyase" to form ketone bodies.Effect of feeding cholesterol: Feeding cholesterol reduces the hepatic biosynthesis of cholesterol by reducing the activity of "HMG-CoA reductase". Intestinal cholesterol biosynthesis does not respond to the feeding of high cholesterol diets.Role of hormonesInsulin: Increases HMG-CoA reductase activity. The hormone is required for the diurnal rhythm (diurnal variation) that occurs in cholesterol biosynthesis, a phenomenon probably related to feeding cycles and the need for bile acid synthesis.Glucagon and/glucocoicoids Decreases the activity of HMG-CoA reductase and reduce the cholesterol biosynthesis.Thyroid hormones: Stimulates HMG-CoA reductase activity.Role of cyclic AMP: HMG-CoA reductase may exist in active/inactive forms, which is reversibly modified by phosphorylation/and dephosphorylation mechanisms, which may be mediated by c-AMP dependent protein kinases. Cyclic AMP inhibits cholesterol biosynthesis by conveing "HMG-CoA reductase" to inactive form.Ref: M.N. Chatterjea - Textbook of Biochemistry, 8th edition, page no: 434 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Bisphosphonates are used in all of the following conditions except - | [
"Post-menopausal osteoporosis",
"Steroid induced osteoporosis",
"Hypervitaminosis D",
"Malignancy associated hypercalcemia"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Hypervitaminosis D Uses of Bisphosphonates Osteoporosis (Postmenopausal, idiopathic and steroid induced). Paget's disease Hypercalcemia of malignancy Osteolytic bone metastasis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hypokalemia ECG changes - | [
"Tall T wave",
"Short QRS interval",
"Depressed ST segment",
"Absent P wave"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Depressed ST segment E.C.G. manifestations of electrolyte disordersHyperkalemiao A tall peaked and symmetrical T-waves is the first change seen on ECG in patients with hyperkalemia,o RR interval lengthens and QRS duration increases.o Flattening or disappearance of P wave.o ST elevation.o Widening of the ORS complexes due to a severe conduction delay and may become 'sine wave.The progresion and the severity ofthe E.C.G change do not correlate well with the serum potassium concentration.Hypokalemiao Similar to hyperkalemia, hypokalemia produce changes on the E.C.G which are not necessary related to serum potassium level.Depression of the ST segmentDecrease in amplitude ofT waves (inversion of the T waves)Increase in amplitude ofU wavesU and T wave merge in some cases to fortn a T-U wave which may be misdiagnosed as prolonged QTinterval.P wave can become larger and wider and PR interval prolong slightly.QRS duration may increase when hypokalemia becomes more severe.Hypocalcemiao Prolongation of the Q T intervalDue to prolongation of the phase 2 of the ventricular action potential and lengthening of the ST segment while the T wave (which correlate with time for repolarisation remains unaltered).Hypercalcemiao Shortening of the QT interval(Primarily due to a decrease in phase 2 of the ventricular action potential and resultant decrease in ST segment duration).Hypothermiao Causes slow impulse conduction through all cardial tissues resulting inProlongation of all the ECG intervalsRRPRQRSQTo There is also elevation of the J point " (Only if the ST segment is unaltered producing characteristics T or osborne wave). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Male gynaecomastia is seen with: | [
"Clomiphene",
"Testosterone",
"Spironolactone",
"Tamoxifen"
] | C | Gynecomastia occurs in a number of male patients treated with Spironolactone, Anti-androgens , Anabolic steroids and androgens, diazepam, cimetidine Tamoxifen is a SERM Clomiphene citrate is an antiestrogen. Testostetone is a natural androgen. (Ref.Essentials of medical pharmacology TD Tripathi 7th edition page no.524) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Maximum content of triglycerides are found in | [
"HDL",
"LDL",
"Chylomicrons",
"VLDL"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e. Chylomicrons Maximum content of TG's is seen in - Chylomicrons*Maximum content of exogenous TG's is seen in -Chylomicrons*Maximum content of endogenous TG's is seen in -VLDL*Maximum cholesterol is seen in - LDL* | train | med_mcqa | null |
Unpaired laryngeal cailage ? | [
"Arytenoid",
"Corniculate",
"Cuneiform",
"Epiglottis"
] | D | The skeletal suppos of larynx is provided by Six cailages, 3 out of which are paired (so there are total 9 cailages). i) Unpaired :- Thyroid, cricoid, epiglottis. ii) Paired :- Arytenoid, Corniculate, cuneiform. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pterygium of nail is seen in ? | [
"Lichen planus",
"Psoriasis",
"tinea ungium",
"Alopecia areta"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Lichen planus Dorsal pterygium Winged appearance of nail due to a central fibrotic band divides a nail proximally in two. Fibrotic band obstructs normal nail growth. eg :- lichen planus Ventral pterygium or pterygium inversum unguis Occurs on the distal undersurface of the nail, with forward extension of the nail bed epithelium dislocating the hyponychium and obscuring the distal groove.eg:- trauma, systemic sclerosis, Raynaud's phenomenon, lupus erythematosus, familial and infective. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 12-year-old girl undergoes bone marrow transplant as pa of therapy for ALL. She subsequently presents with pulmonary complaints and neurologic findings. Lung biopsy reveals a granulomatous vasculitis with associated atypical lymphocytes. Clonality studies reveal a monoclonal B cell population with associated polyclonal T cells. What infectious agent is related to this diagnosis? | [
"CMV",
"EBV",
"HPV",
"HHV-8"
] | B | The clinical and histologic findings are consistent with lymphomatoid granulomatosis, an EBV associated B cell neoplasm which is most commonly seen in pulmonary and CNS vessels in the setting of immunosuppression. Abundant reactive T cells are also seen, which led to early confusion about whether this entity primarily represented a B cell or T cell process. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pandemic are caused by -a) Hepatitis Bb) Influenza-Ac) Influenza-Bd) Influenza-Ce) Cholera | [
"bd",
"be",
"bcd",
"da"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is not a fungus - | [
"Rhinosporidiosis",
"Sporotrichosis",
"Torulosis",
"Candidiasis"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A periodontal pocket of 6 mm deep lying coronal to the
junctional epithelium is: | [
"Infrabony pocket",
"Periodontal pocket",
"True pocket",
"Pseudopocket"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 45-year-old man presents with exertional dyspnea and pitting pedal edema. His neck veins are dilated. A diagnosis of superior vena cava (SVC) syndrome is made. What will you do next? | [
"Do total blood count and peripheral smear",
"Do a CT chest",
"Start cyclophosphamide",
"Start radiotherapy"
] | B | ANS. BThis shows an approach to a case of SVC syndrome which clearly says that first step is CT chest with contrast. This helps us to arrive at a cause for SVC syndrome and treat accordingly.Various causes of SVC syndrome are: | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sacrotuberous and sacrospinous ligaments attach sacrum to | [
"Ilium",
"Ischium",
"Pubis",
"Lumbar veebrae"
] | B | The sacrotuberous ligament is a strong broad band of fibrous tissue. It has broad upper end and narrow lower lateral end.Upper end is attached from above downward to posterior superior iliac spine, posterior inferior iliac spine, lower pa of posterior surface and lateral border of sacrum and adjoining pa of coccyx. The lower end is attached to medial margin of ischial tuberosity. Some of the fibres from lower end continue on to the ramus of ischium as the falciform process.The sacrospinous ligament is a triangular sheet of fibrous tissue with its apex attached laterally to the ischial spine and base medially to the side of sacrum and coccyx.The sacrospinous and sacrotuberous ligaments conve the greater and lesser sciatic notches of the hip bone into greater and lesser sciatic foramina-the two impoant exits from the pelvis.Reference: Textbook of anatomy, Abdomen and Lower limb, Vishram Singh, 2nd edition, page no.204 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Depressive delusions that the world and everything related to it cease to exist is called:COMEDK 07; NIMHANS 11 | [
"Persecutory delusion",
"Delusion of infidelity",
"Nihilistic delusion",
"Delusion of reference"
] | C | Ans. Nihilistic delusion | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is an occupational disease of dentist? | [
"Syphilis",
"HIV",
"HBV",
"All the above"
] | D | These include exposure to infections (including human immunodeficiency virus and viral hepatitis); percutaneous exposure incidents, dental materials, radiation, and noise; musculoskeletal disorders; psychological problems and dermatitis; respiratory disorders; and eye insults. | train | med_mcqa | null |
According to international standards, still birth is defined as weight of fetus over? | [
"500 gm",
"850 gm",
"1000 gm",
"2000 gm"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Serum alkaline phosphatase levels increases in: | [
"Hypothyroidism",
"Carcinoma of prostate",
"Hyperparathyroidism",
"Myocardial infarction"
] | C | Ans. C. HyperparathyroidismSerum alkaline phosphatase is increased in hyperparathyroidism, rickets, obstructive jaundice and Paget's disease. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Chemotherapy is useful in all, except - | [
"Ewing's sarcoma",
"Germ cell tumor",
"Secondaries",
"Carcinoma cervix"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
OAE arise from? | [
"Oval window",
"Round window",
"Inner hair cell",
"Outer hair cell"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Outer hair cell Otoacoustic emissions (OAEs) These are low intensity sounds produced by outer hair cells of a normal cochlea and can be elicited by a very sensitive microphone placed in the external ear canal and analyzed by a computer. Sound produced by outer hair cells travels in a reverse direction : Outer hair cells basilar membrane - Perilymph Oval window Ossicles - Tympanic membrane Ear canal. OAEs are present when outer hair cells are healthy and are absent when they are damaged and thus help to test the function of cochlea. Types of OAEs OAEs are two types : - Spontaneous OAEs : - They are present in healthy normal hearing persons where hearing loss does not exceed 30 dB. They may be absent in 50% of normal persons. Evoked OAEs : - There are produced by sound stimulus and they are subdivided into two types depending on the sound stimulus used to elicit them :- Transient evoked OAEs (TEOAEs) :- Evoked by click. Distoion product OAEs (DPOAEs) :- Two tones are simultaneously presented to the cochlea to produce distoion products. OAEs are absent in 50% of normal individuals, lesions of cochlea, middle ear disorders (as sound travelling in reverse direction cannot be picked up) and when hearing loss exceeds 30 dB. Uses of otoacoustic emissions OAEs are used as a screening test of hearing in neonate and to test hearing in uncooperative or mentally challenged individuals after sedation. Sedation does not interfere with OAEs. They help to distinguish cochlear from retrocochlear hearing loss. OAEs are absent in cochlear lesions, e.g. ototoxic sensorineural hearing loss. They detect ototoxic effects earlier than pure-tone audiometry. OAEs are also useful to diagnose retrocochlear pathology, especially auditory neuropathy. Auditory neuropathy is a neurologic disorder of CN VIII. Audiometric tests, e.g. SNHL for pure tones, impaired speech discrimination score, absent or abnormal auditory brainstem response, show a retrocochlear type of lesion but OAEs are normal. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Approximate dose of drug in a 3 years old child would be:- | [
"Same as an adult dose",
"Half of an adult dose",
"One-third of an adult dose",
"One-fouh of an adult dose"
] | C | Approximate percentage of dose in children as compared to adult are Age % of adult dose 1 year 25 3 years 33 5 years 40 7 years 50 9 years 60 12 years 75 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following, among axillary lymph nodes, is a terminal group | [
"Pectoral",
"Central",
"Lateral",
"Apical"
] | D | MAMMARY GLAND:- Modified sweat gland in superficial fascia of pectoral region. Rudimentary in males. Located in superficial fascia. Extend: veically- 2nd to 6th rib Horizontally- lateral border of sternum to mid axillary line. LYMPHATIC DRAINAGE:- Lymph nodes:- 1. Axillary-anterior, posterior, central and lateral. 2. Internal mammary. 3. Supraclavicular. 4. Posterior intercostal 5. Cephalic. Lymphatics draining the breast:- 1. Superficial- drain skin of the breast except that of nipple and areola. 2. Deep-drain parenchyma of the breast , and skin of nipple and areola. 3. A plexus of lymph ceasefires deep to areola is called subareolar plexus of sappy.The subareolar plexus and most of the lymph from the breast drains into anterior group of axillary lymph nodes. Lymphatic drainage:- 1. Lateral quadrant of breast-drains into anterior axillary/ pectoral group of lymph nodes. 2. Medial quadrant- drains into Internal mammary 3. Lower and medial quadrant- communicates with subdiaphragmatic and subperitoneal lymph plexus. 4. Deep surface of breast-apical group . 5. A few lymph vessels from the breast follow the posterior intercostal aeries and drain into posterior intercostal nodes. About 75% -axillary 20%-internal mammary 5%-posterior intercostal lymph nodes. Among the axillary lymph nodes, most of lymph goes into anterior axillary and remaining into posterior and apical. The lymph from anterior and posterior groups first goes into central and lateral groups and then through them into supraclavicular nodes.Apical group of lymph nodes are terminal. Some lymph vessels from the inferomedial quadrant of breast communicates with the subperitoneal lymph plexus and carry cancer cells to it. From here cancer cells migrate transcoelomically and deposit over ovary- krukenberg&;s tumor. {Reference:vishram singh page no.48} | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is Felon - | [
"Infection of nail fold",
"Infection of ulnar bursa",
"Infection of pulp space",
"Infection of DIP joint"
] | C | PULP INFECTION (FELON) The distal finger pad is essentially a closed fascial compament filled with compact fat and subdivided by radiating fibrous septa. A rise in pressure within the pulp space causes intense pain and, if unrelieved, may threaten the terminal branches of the digital aery which supply most of the terminal phalanx. Pulp-space infection is usually caused by a prick injury; blackthorn injuries are paicularly likely to become infected. The most common organism is Staphylococcus aureus. The patient complains of throbbing pain in the finger-tip, which becomes tensely swollen, red and acutely tender. Reference- Apley&;s system of ohopaedics 9th edn -pg 432 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the types of asbestos is LEAST associated with mesothelioma ? | [
"Chrysotile",
"Crocidolite",
"Amosite",
"Tremolite"
] | A | Ref:Textbook of pathology (Harsh mohan) 6th edition,page no.492 There are two major geometric forms of asbestos: Serpentine consisting of curly and flexible fibres. It includes the most common chemical form chrysotile (white asbestos) comprising more than 90% of commercially used asbestos.chrysolite is LEAST associated with mesothelioma Amphibole consists of straight, stiff and rigid fibres. It includes the less common chemical forms crocidolite (blue asbestos), amosite (brown asbestos), tremolite, anthophyllite and actinolyte. However, the group of amphibole, though less common, is more impoant since it is associated with induction of malignant pleural tumours, paicularly in association with crocidolite. However, in view of long term harmful effects of asbestos exposure, it has been mostly replaced with synthetic mineral fibres such as fiberglass in developed countries since 1975 but it continues to be used in developing countries of the world. | train | med_mcqa | null |
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