question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4 values | rationale stringlengths 0 22.5k ⌀ | split stringclasses 1 value | dataset stringclasses 6 values | subject stringclasses 1 value |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
Hemorrhagic disease of the newborn is attributed to the deficiency of | [
"Vitamin K",
"Vitamin A",
"Vitamin E",
"Vitamin C"
] | A | • Vitamin K is produced by our gut flora. The gut of a New-born baby is sterile and hence no vitamin K is being produced.
Moreover vitamin k is negligible in breast milk. In lieu of these factors all babies are susceptible to development of Hemorrhagic disease of New-born.
• To prevent this from happening therefore, as standard operating procedure in all hospitals injection vitamin K 1 :
1 mg intramuscular is given to prevent hemorrhagic disease of new born referred to as H.D.N.
• In our country where a large number of children are born via home deliveries,
no vitamin K would be given to the child and therefore the child may be brought to the hospital on day 5 with umbilical stump bleeding.
• For management: the child should be given injection vitamin K lmg intravenously.
If bleeding is still present then FFP needs to be administered. Previous Year Questions on Topic: Bleeding Disorders in Children
• Type of vitamin K used for treatment of H.D.N= vitamin K1
• Umbilical stump bleeding in child on day 1 of life= factor 13 deficiency
• Umbilical stump bleeding in child on day 5 of life= H.D.N
• Male baby with excessive circumcision bleeding= hemophilia A
• Vaginal bleeding in a girl child on day 5 of life= No intervention required | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is found in coex of lymph node? | [
"Lymphocyte aggregates",
"Billroth cords",
"Macrophages",
"Connective tissue"
] | A | Within the coex there are several rounded areas that are called lymphatic follicles or lymphatic nodules.Each nodule has a paler staining germinal centre surrounded by a zone of densely packed lymphocytes Inderbir Singh&;s human Histology Seventh edition Pg 132 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is present in Paneth cells? | [
"Zinc",
"Copper",
"Molybdenum",
"Selenium"
] | A | Paneth cells, located in the basal poion of the intestinal crypts below the stem cells, are exocrine cells with large, eosinophilic secretory granules in their apical cytoplasm. The granules contain the bactericidal enzyme lysozyme, an arginine-rich protein, and zinc. Paneth cell granules undergo exocytosis to release lysozyme, phospholipase A2, and hydrophobic peptides called defensins, all of which bind and breakdown membranes of microorganisms and bacterial walls. Paneth cells have an impoant role in innate immunity and in regulating the microenvironment of the intestinal crypts. Ref: Mescher A.L. (2010). Chapter 15. Digestive Tract. In A.L. Mescher (Ed), Junqueira's Basic Histology: Text & Atlas, 12e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Evidence based treatment for Menorrhagia is all except : | [
"Oral Contraceptive Pills",
"Progesterone for three months cyclically",
"Tranexamic acid",
"Ethamsylate"
] | D | Conservative Management Combined Oral Contraceptive Pills Progestogens Danazol GnRH analogues NSAIDS Tranexemic acid Mirena IUCD Ethamsylate: Reduces Capillary Fragility and hence reduces menorrhagia by 50%; but not evidence based Reference: SHAW'S TEXTBOOK OF GYNECOLOGY; 15th edition; Pg no:304 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mechanism of action of Tolcapone is - | [
"Dopa decarboxylase inhibitor",
"COMT inhibitor",
"MAO - A inhibitor",
"MAO - B inhibitor"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., COMT inhibitor Note: Clorgyline is a MAO A inhibitor not MAO BDrugs for parkinsonism|||Increasing brain dopaminergic activityDecreasing brain cholinergic activity* Dopamine precursor - Levodopa* Periphera decarboxylase inhibitors - Carbidopa, Benserazide* Dopaminergic agonists - Bromocriptine, Ropinirole, Pramipexal, Rotigotine* MAO-B inhibitor - Selegiline* COMT inhibitor - Entacapone, Tolcapone* Dopamine facilitator - Amantidine* Central anticholinergic - Trihexyphenidyl (Benzhexol), Procyclidine, Biperiden.* Antihistaminic - Orphenadrine, promethazine. MAO inhibitors1. Nonselective - Tranylcypromine, phenelzine, isocarboxazid.2. Selective MAO-A - Moclobemide, clorgyline (used in depression)3. Selective MAO-B - Selegiline (used in parkinsonism). | train | med_mcqa | null |
"Reward pathway" is associated with | [
"Nucleus accumbens",
"Nucleus ambiguous",
"Dentate nucleus",
"Substantia nigra"
] | A | (A) Nucleus accumbens# NUCLEUS ACCUMBENS has a significant role in the cognitive processing of motivation, pleasure, and reward and reinforcement learning, and hence has significant role in addiction. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Nysten&;s rule is related to | [
"Order of appearance of post moem caloricity",
"Time since death",
"Order of appearance of decomposition",
"Order of appearance of rigor mois"
] | D | The Order of Appearance of Rigor All muscles of the body, both voluntary and involuntary are affected. It does not sta in all muscles simultaneously (Nysten&;s rule). It first appears in involuntary muscles; the myocardium becomes rigid in an hour. It begins in the eyelids, neck and lower jaw and passes upwards to the muscles of the face, and downwards to the muscles of the chest, upper limbs, abdomen and lower limbs and lastly in the fingers and toes. In individual limbs, it usually progresses from above downwards. Such a sequence is not constant, symmetrical or regular. In individual limbs, it disappears in the same order in which it has appeared. Shapiro (1950) suggests that rigor mois does not follow the anatomical sequence usually described. He suggests that as rigor mois is a physicochemical process, it is most likely to develop simultaneously in all the muscles, although the changes are more easily first detected in the smaller masses than in the larger. The proximo-distal progression is more apparent than real, for the sequence is determined by the bulk and kind of muscle involved. Ref:- k s narayan reddy; pg num:-161 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following are live attenuated vaccine, except- | [
"Oral poilio",
"Yellow fever",
"Measles",
"Influenza"
] | A | oral polio vaccines were first introduced by Sabin in 1957.it contains live attenuated strains of virus type 1,2, and 3.grown in primary monkey kidney or h7man diploid cell cultureref;parks tectbook,ed22,pg 187 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Planning and programming of movements is the function of which pa of cerebellum | [
"Vestibulocerebellum",
"Flocculonodular lobe",
"Spinocerebellum",
"Neocerebellum"
] | D | Planning and programming of movements is the function of neocerebellum. Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology, 23rd edition, Page no:254 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The animal used for monoclonal antibodies production is | [
"Mouse",
"Rabbit",
"Guinea pig",
"Monkey"
] | A | Monoclonal antibodies are produced from mouse or from human using hybridoma technology eg: reslizumab is a humanized monoclonal antibody Ref: Textbook of Microbiology Baveja 5th ed Pg 138 | train | med_mcqa | null |
MTP Act of 1971 provides for termination of pregnancy till how many weeks of pregnancy - | [
"12 weeks",
"16 weeks",
"20 weeks",
"24 weeks"
] | C | Ans. is 6c' i.e., 20 weeks o MTP can be done upto 20 wks.o "MTP act allows a RMP having experience in gynaecology and obstetrics to perform abortion where the length of pregnancy does not exceeds 12 wks and. However where the pregnancy exceeds 12 wks and in not more than 20 wks, the opinion of two RMP is necessary; to terminate the pregnancy | train | med_mcqa | null |
Fistula tests stimulates | [
"Lateral semicircular canal",
"Posterior semicircular canal",
"Round window",
"Anterior semicircular canal"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A adult male patient presented in the OPD with complaints of cough and fever for 3 months and haemoptysis off and on. His sputum was positive for AFB. On probing it was found that he had already received treatment with RHZE for 3 weeks from a nearby hospital and discontinued. How will you categorize and manage the patient? | [
"Category I, start 2 (RHZE)3",
"Category II, start 2 (RHZE)3",
"Category III, start 2 (RHZ)3",
"Category II, start 2 (RHZES)3"
] | A | New Case: A TB case who has never taken treatment or took it <4 weeks. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Phase 4 clinical trial also called as | [
"Therapeutic confirmation",
"Post marketing surveillance",
"Therapeutic exploration and dose ranging",
"Human pharmacology and safety"
] | B | Phase IV: Postmarketing surveillance/ studies After the drug has been marketed for general use, practicing physicians are identified through whom data are collected on a structured proforma about the efficacy, acceptability and adverse effects of the drug. Uncommon/idiosyncratic adverse effects, or those that occur only after long-term use and unsuspected drug interactions are detected at this stage. Ref:- kd tripathi; pg num:-80 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following dose not act on pancreas | [
"Secretin",
"CCK",
"Gastrin",
"GIP"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
In lymphoplasmacytoid lymphoma which of the following monoclonal immunoglobulin is seen? | [
"IgA",
"IgD",
"IgG",
"IgM"
] | D | Lymphoplasmacytoid lymphoma /Waldenstrom's Macroglobulinemia. The majority of patients in this disease have monoclonal IgM serum para-protein. In contrast to myeloma, the disease was associated with lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly,but the major clinical manifestation was the hyperviscosity syndrome. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is not true about beclomethasone ? | [
"Indicated for chronic use",
"Inhalational steroid",
"Effective in acute asthma",
"Predispose to fungal infections"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Retinoblastoma is associated with which chromosome? | [
"13",
"11",
"17",
"15"
] | A | (A) 13 # RETINOBLASTOMA is a proliferation of neural cells which have failed to evolve normally.> Tumour is confined to infants and very young children and is frequently congenital> Retinoblastoma is directly associated with a genetic abnormality--deletions or mutation of the ql4 band of chromosome 13> Growth consists chiefly of small round cells with large nuclei resembling the cells of the nuclear layers of the retina.> Child is usually brought to the surgeon on account of a peculiar yellow reflex from the pupil, sometimes called leucocoria or 'amaurotic cat's eye> Clinically a cauliflower-like mass arising from the retina is seen extending into the vitreous> Calcification occurs in 75% of cases and is almost pathognomonic of retinoblastoma> X-rays can demonstrate calcification within the tumour, but a computerized tomography scan is more sensitive, as it also delineates the tumour and extension, if any, more thoroughly.> Treatment of small tumours is by local modalities such as cryotherapy for anterior lesions, photocoagulation for posterior ones, brachytherapy with 60Co or 1251 can also be used.> Treatment options for large tumours are Enucleation of the eye, External beam radiation therapy.> External beam radiotherapy confines the radiation to the affected sectors of the posterior segment of the globe and thus avoids damage to the lens and surrounding retina.> Prognosis of retinoblastoma, if untreated, is always bad, and the patient invariably dies.> Prognosis is fair if extraocular extension is avoided. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which drug does not need dose adjustment in a patient with creatinine clearance of | [
"Ciprofloxacin",
"Sparfloxacin",
"Lomefloxacin",
"Trovafloxacin"
] | D | Dose adjustment is not required for Trovafloxacin, Moxifloxacin, Pefloxacin and Nalidixic acid for patient with decreased creatinine clearence. Trovafloxacin will cause liver damage and increase in liver enzymes. So it is contraindicated in patients with active liver disease. Ref: Sherwood L. Gorbach, John G. Balett, Neil R. Blacklo (2004), Chapter 26, "Quinolones", "Infectious Diesases", 3rd Edition, Lippincott Publications, USA, Page 253 ; Kalzung, 9th Edition, Page 779. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Actively bleeding peptic ulcer can be managed endoscopically by injection therapy using epinephrine. The concentration of epinephrine used in this contest is: | [
"1 in 1000",
"1 in 5000",
"1 in 10,000",
"1 in 30,000"
] | C | Injection therapy for bleeding peptic ulcer is performed with the use of a sclerotherapy needle to inject epinephrine. Epinephrine is diluted to a concentration of 1 : 10,000 or 1 : 20,000, submucosally into or around the bleeding site . The advantages are 1.Wide availability 2.Relatively low cost 3.Safety in patients with a coagulopathy. 4.Lower risk of perforation and thermal burn damage than the thermal techniques. The disadvantage Not as effective for definitive hemostasis as thermal coagulation, hemoclipping or combination therapy. Injection therapy also be performed with a sclerosant (ethanolamine or alcohol) Ref:Sleisenger and Fordtran's,E-9,P-291 | train | med_mcqa | null |
In Langerhans cell histiocytosis, the characteristic abnormality seen on microscopy is - | [
"Bibecks granules",
"Foamy macrophages",
"Giant cells",
"Plasma cells"
] | A | . Bibecks granules | train | med_mcqa | null |
Gilberts syndrome disease all are true, except - | [
"Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia",
"Fasting hypoglycaemia",
"Normal liver Histology",
"Liver enzymes normal"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Conjugated heperbilirubinemia HEREDITARY UNCONJUGATED HYPERBILIRUBINEMIAFeatureCrigler Najjar syndromeGilbert's syndrome Type IType II Total serum bilirubin, mol/L (mg/dl)310-755 (usually >345)100-430 (usually <345)Typically < 70 mol/L in the absence of fasting or hemolysisRoutine liver testNormalNormalNormalResponse to phenobarbitoneNoneDecrease bilirubin by >25%Decrease bilirubin to normalKernicterusUsualRareNoneHepatic histologyNormalNormalUsually normal increased lipofuscin pigment in someBile colorPale or colorlessPigmentedNormal dark colorBilirubin fractions> 90% uncojugated (57%) mono conjugateslargest fractionMainly diconjugates but monoconjugates also increaseBilirubin UDP - Glucuronosyl transferase activityTypically absenttraces in someMarkedly reduced0 to 10% of normalReduced, typically10-33% of normalInheritanceAutosomalrecessiveAutosomalrecessiveAutosomalrecessive | train | med_mcqa | null |
A female at 37 weeks of gestation has mild labour pains for 10 hours and cervix is pessistently 1 cm dilated but non effaced. What will be the next appropriate management? | [
"Sedation and wait",
"Augmentation with oxytocin",
"Cesarean section",
"Amniotomy"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following structures is not present in lesser omentum | [
"Poal vein",
"Hepatic aery",
"Bile duct",
"Inferior vena cava"
] | D | The lesser omentum is the double layer of peritoneum that extends from the liver to the lessercurvature of the stomach and the first pa of the duodenum. Ref - BDC 6e vol2 pg234 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sodium-potassium pump is a type of ? | [
"Passive transpo",
"Primary active transpo",
"Secondary active transpo",
"Counter transpo"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Primary active transpo | train | med_mcqa | null |
Subpoena is also called: MAHE 06 | [
"Summons",
"Panchnama",
"Requisition",
"Inquest papers"
] | A | Ans. Summons | train | med_mcqa | null |
Earliest congenital malformation that may be detected on USG is | [
"Down's syndrome",
"Hydrocephalous",
"Anencephaly",
"Sacral Agenesis"
] | C | C i.e. Anencephaly Neural tube defects (NTDs) i.e. anencephaly, meningomyelocele, encephalocele and spina bifidaQ can be caused by antifolate & antiepileptic drugs, maternal diabetes, lower maternal folate status, reduced activity of 5, 10, methylene - THE reductase (MTHFR) enzyme (d/t C677 T-polymorphism in MTHFR gene) and possibly by mutation of other enzymes eg. methionine synthase and serine-glycine hydroxymethylase. Folate supplementation at the time of conception and in first 12 weeks of pregnancy reduce 70% incidence of NTDs (and also hare lip and cleft palate). - Neural tube defects are best detected by amniocentesisQ. Earliest detectable congenital anomaly on USG is anencephalyQ. It can be diagnosed as early as at 10 weeksQ. It is best diagnosed (100% accuracy) at 12 week.Q - Karyotypic analysis (for chromosomal abnormalities), biochemical & molecular analysis of DNA obtained from cells can be done in either chronic villi of 1,, trimester or amniotic fluid of 2nd fetus. Test Done at Comment Amniocentesis 14-16 weeksQ - M.C. used procedure; M.C. reason to perform this is advanced maternal age (removal of small (early 2nd (>35 yrs), the best known correlate of trisomy amount of amniotic trimester) - Other reasons are ? fluid) 1. Abnormal (maternal serum) triple marker assayQ (HCGQ, a-FetoproteinQ and unconjugated estriolQ in maternalQ serum) and inhibin also (in quad marker assay) predict risk of trisomy 21 or 18 2. Mid trimester USG abnormalitiesQ - estimated risk of chromosomal abnormality is dependent on USG finding & is maximum in cystic hygromaQ >Omphalocele > congenital hea ds > nonspecific > choroid plexus cyst 3. More recently, 1, trimester screening involving measurement of nuchal translucency (on USG) and levels of PAAP-A and HCG are used to identify women at increased risk. Early Amniocentesis 12-14 weeks Has greater risk of spontaneous aboion or fetal injury but provides results at an earlier stage of pregnancy Chrionic Villus Earlier (8-12 - 2nd m.c. procedure. It allows for an earlier detectionQ of abnormalities & a safer Sampleing (CVS) wks)Q pregnancy termination (d/t early diagnosis), if desired (Transcervical/ preferably 10-12 - Spontaneous aboions are more common in comparison to amniocentesis but is abdominal biopsy of wks. overall a safe procedure (spontaneous aboions fetal trophoblastic - Risk of limb defectsQ increases if CVS is doneweeks.So it is applicable tissue/chorion) during very narrow window of time Percutaneous 2nd -- 3.1 trimester - Done under USG control. Usually performed when USG abnormalities are Umbilical Blood of pregnancy detected late in 2,,d trimester. Sampling (PUBS) (> 18 wks) - Also done to clarify cytogenetic results of amniocentesis as detection of (fetal blood for lvmphocvtic culture) mosaicism. Pre implantation Before implant- To detect single gene disorder such as -Mn : "SC ST" molecular diagnostic ation invitro S - Sickle Cell Anemia testing (eg- PCR) feilizationQ at C - Cystic fibrosis 8-10 cell stage ST - Sachs-Tay disease (Tay-Sachs ds) * Endometrial biopsy is done at Premenstrual periodQ to avoid risk of endometriosis. Chordocentesis is done at 18 wee Q. Amniocentesis is not useful in cleft lip detection. Golden Amniotic fluid is diagnostic of Rh incompatibilityQ. Saffron coloured meconium is seen in post maturityQ. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Frequency of sterilization services at different health facilities at "Fixed day static services (FDS)" is given below. Find out the wrong one: | [
"District hospital - daily",
"Sub-district hospital - weekly",
"CHC/ Block PHC - fonightly",
"24*7 PHC/ PHC - monthly"
] | A | In District hospital sterilization is done weekly. Govt. of India is promoting FDS approach in sterilization services within public health system with the aim of increasing access to sterilization services. Ref: Park's textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 21st edition, page-475 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 4 month pregnant lady on treatment with valproate regularly asked for your advice regarding taking the drug during pregnancy. What is the best course of action | [
"Immediately tape off valproate and sta lamotrigine",
"Change to carbamazepine",
"Continue valproate and monitor blood levels",
"Slowly tape dose of valproate"
] | B | K.D Tripathy essentials of medical pharmacology 7th edition . *Valproate used during pregnancy produced spina bifida and other neural tube defects in off spring:should be avoided *Incidence of minor foetal malformation repoed with carbamazepine * | train | med_mcqa | null |
Irido- Corneal Endothelial syndrome is characterized by | [
"Opacity of the cornea with edema of the stroma",
"Deposition of abnormal collagen in descemet's membrane",
"Deposition of glycosaminoglycans in the descemet's membrane",
"Diffuse bilateral senile iris degeneration"
] | B | B i.e. Deposition of abnormal collagen in the Descemet's membrane In iridocorneal endothelial syndrome descemet's membrane may show increased thickness because of presence of abnormal posterior collagenous layerQ. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pneumocystis carini pneumonia is diagnosed by | [
"Interstitial penumonia",
"Eosinophils in septa",
"Alveolar type I cell damaged with eosinophils",
"All of the above"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 28-year-old male was injured in a motorcycle accident in which he was not wearing a helmet. On admission to the emergency room he was in severe respiratory distress and hypotensive (blood pressure 80/40 mm. Hg), and appeared cyanotic. He was bleeding profusely from the nose and had an obviously open femur fracture with exposed bone. Breath sounds were decreased on the right side of the chest. The initial management priority should be: | [
"Control of hemorrhage with anterior and posterior nasal packing.",
"Tube thoracostomy in the right hemithorax.",
"Endotracheal intubation with inline cervical traction.",
"Obtain intravenous access and begin emergency type O blood transfusions."
] | C | Airway remains the first priority in the management of any patient with multiple injuries. Control of the airway in a patient with head, face, and neck injury can be extremely challenging. In the patient presented, the best option given for control of the airway is endotracheal intubation with in-line cervical traction. This requires at least two persons, one to maintain the head in the neutral position and one to inse the endotracheal tube under direct vision. An alternative in this case would be emergency cricothyroidotomy, tracheostomy, or needle-jet insufflation. Nasotracheal intubation is not an option in the presence of a mid-face fracture and a nasal hemorrhage. Clearly, attention must also be directed at assuring adequacy of ventilation (potential right pneumothorax), assessing and treating obvious hemorrhage, determining if there is occult intra-abdominal or thoracic hemorrhage, and determining the patient's neurologic status. While management of these other issues can occur simultaneously, they do not take priority over securing an adequate airway. In this patient the airway is so tenuous that time should not be spent obtaining a cross-table cervical spine film and chest film prior to definitive control of the airway. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cauliflower ear is | [
"Keloid",
"Perichondritis in Boxers",
"Squamous cell carcinoma",
"Anaplastic cell carcinoma"
] | B | It is due to collection of blood between the auricular cailage and its perichondrium. If haematoma gets infected, severe perichondritis may set in. Often it is the result of blunt trauma seen in boxers, wrestlers and rugby players. Extravasated blood may clot and then organize, resulting in 'Cauliflower ear'. (Reference: Diseased of Ear, Nose and Throat, PL Dhingra,7th edition, pg no.52) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Chemoreceptor reflex of blood pressure regulation is stimulated by all except | [
"Hypoxia",
"Acidosis",
"Decreased BP",
"Hypercapnia"
] | C | Stimulus for chemoreceptor reflex ⇒
Hypoxia
Hypercapnia
Acidosis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Non modifiable risk factor for hypertension- | [
"Gender",
"Obesity",
"Salt intake",
"Cultural characteristic acquired over time"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Gender Risk factors for hypertensionNon modifiable Modifiableo Ageo Overweighto Gendero High sodium intakeo Genetic factorso Low potassium intakeo Raceo Alcohol consumptiono Reduced physical activity | train | med_mcqa | null |
Inflammatory Carcinoma of breast is classified under - | [
"T4b",
"T4c",
"T4d",
"T3"
] | C | Answer- C. T4d Inflammatory breast carcinoma is one of the most malignant form of breast cancer. It has been specifically assigned a special T code, T4d (which falls under stage IIIb disease). | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following statements about Leukotriene modifiers in the management of bronchial asthma are true except : | [
"May be used for acute asthma",
"May be used for exercise induced asthma",
"Zileuton is Leukotriene modifier",
"May uncover Churg Strauss syndrome"
] | A | Answer is A (May be used for cute asthma): Leukotriene modifiers have no r le in aboing an attack of bronchial Asthma. Leukotriene Modifiers: These are new group of agents uaed for asthma and act by modifying the role of leukotrienes which are critical in the pathway of generating features of asthma. Action Leukotrienes are responsible for many of the critical elements of asthma Leukotriene modifiers act by two mechanisms to disable the deleterious effects of leukotrenes Reduce synthesis of all Leukotrienes by inhibiting enzyme involved in their formation i.e. 5 \\Lipooxygenase Zileuton Competitive blockage of principal leukotriene (LTD 4) Montelukast or Zafirulukast Uses Used as alternative to low dose inhaled coicosteroids in patients with mild persistent asthma reduces asthma morbidity diminishes nocturnal symptom Used for protection against exercise induced Asthma. Side effects: Leukotriene blockers have been associated with Churg-Strauss Syndrome e | train | med_mcqa | null |
In case of Ludwig's angina, if 2nd premolar and 1st molars are involved, then the first involved space is: | [
"Submaxillary space",
"Sublingual space",
"Submental space",
"Parotid space"
] | B | When an infection perforates bone to establish drainage, it seeks the path of least resistance. Since the outer cortical plate of the mandible is thick in the molar region, the lingual plate is the one most frequently perforated. According to the studies of Tschiassny, initial infection of the submandibular space, particularly in cases of the second and third molars, is due to the fact that the apices of these teeth are situated below the mylohyoid ridge in 65% of cases. He also noted that because the apices of the roots of the first molar are above this ridge in about 60% of the cases, infection of the sublingual space is most common in cases of infection of this tooth.
Ref: Shafer's textbook of oral pathology 7th edition page 510 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following would be the best morphological feature to distinguish ulcerative colitis from Crohn's disease - | [
"Diffuse distributions of pseudopolyps",
"Mucosal edema",
"Crypt abscesses",
"Lymphoid aggregates in the mucosa"
] | A | Pseudopolyps (inflammatory polyps) can be seen in both Crohn's disease and ulcerative colitis
In ulcerative colitis, the distribution of these pseudopolyps can be diffuse but in Crohn's disease, the distribution cannot be diffuse because a classic feature of crohn's disease is the sharp demarcation of diseased bowel segments from the adjacent uninvolved bowel. When multiple bowel segments are involved the intervening bowel is essentially normal (skip lesions).
Mucosal edema
- The hallmark of both ulcerative colitis and crohn's disease is mucosal inflammation and chronic mucosal damage. So mucosal edema is a feature of both of these diseases.
- The important point is that while in Ulcerative colitis these processes are limited to mucosa or submucosal, in crohn's disease these processes extend beyond the mucosa and submucosa and involves the entire wall.
Crypt abscesses -
- Crypt abscesses are produced due to infiltration of the neutrophil into crypt lumen.
- These crypt abscesses are not specific for ulcerative colitis and may be observed in crohn's disease or any active inflammatory colitis.
Lymphoid aggregates in mucosa
The characteristic mucosal feature of idiopathic inflammatory bowel disease on histology includes —
i. Distortion of crypt architecture
ii.Destruction and loss of crypt
iii.A marked increase in lymphocytes and plasma cells in lamina propria.
iv. These features are specific to inflammatory bowel disease and help to differentiate idiopathic inflammatory bowel disease from acute infectious colitis and other chronic colitis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Disease under WHO surveillance | [
"Hepatitis",
"Tetanus",
"Rabies",
"Mumps"
] | C | Diseases under WHO surveillance
Polio
Rabies
Relapsing fever
Influenza
Salmonella
Malaria
Louse born typhus | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common type of hyppospadias is? | [
"Glandular",
"Penile",
"Scrotal",
"Perineal"
] | A | Ans. (a) GlandularRef. Bailey & Love 24th edp 1389 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Surgery for breast carcinoma true is - | [
"Mastectomy superior to breast conservative surgeiy",
"Pagets disease of breast treated by wide excision",
"It needs RT after Surgery in all Stages",
"Usually bilateral"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Pagets disease of breast treated by wide excisiono Paget's disease of nipple is a chronic eczematous eruption of nipple which may progress to an ulcerated weeping lesion. It is almost always associated with an underlying ductal carcinoma (may be in situ Ca or invasive),o The underlying lesion may be palpable or not.o A complete mammographic workup and biopsy of the nipple and underlying mass if present is done,o Pathognomonic histological feature is presence of Paget's cells in the epithelium. A skin specimen containing cells confirms the diagnosis and can be obtained by nipple scrape cytology or biopsy.o Paget's disease may be confused w'ith superficial spreading melanoma. Differentiation from pagetoid intraepithelial melanoma is based on the presence of S-100 antigen immunostaining in melanoma and carcinoembryonic antigen immunostaining in Paget's disease.Treatment of Paget's disease includes :Mastectomy + axillary staging (axillary dissection or sentinel node biopsy)Wide excision of the nipple and areola to achieve clear margins + radiation + axillary staging, orLumpectomy + radiation therapy + axillary lymph node procedureo Paget's disease of nipplePaget's disease of the breast is a superficial manifestation of an underlying breast carcinoma.The underlying breast carcinoma is intraductal carcinoma.It presents clinically as a chronic eczematous eruption of nipple, which may be subtle but may progress to an ulcerated, weeping lesion.Paget's disease usually is associated w'ith extensive DC1S and may be associated with an invasive cancer. The carcinoma may or may not be palpable.A complete mammographic w'orkup and biopsy of the nipple and underlying mass if present is done.Pathognomonic histological feature is presence of Paget's cells in the epithelium. Paget's cells are large pale vacuolated cells. A skin specimen containing cells confirms the diagnosis and can be obtained by nipple scrape cytology or biopsy."There is no survival advantage for mastectomy over breast preservation ". Sabiston 18,h/e p. 874 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are reasons for reducing drug dosage in elderly, EXCEPT: | [
"They are lean and have low body mass",
"Have reduced renal function with age",
"Have increased baroceptor sensitivity",
"Have reduced hepatic metabolism"
] | C | Baroreceptor sensitivity decreases with aging. This decline in baroreceptor sensitivity alters the central nervous system control of sympathetic nervous outflow. Due to this insensitive baroreceptor, large change in blood pressure is needed to activate the baroreceptor and produce an appropriate compensatory response. So for bringing out a desired effect, the drug dosage should be increased in elderly. Ref: Essentials of Medical Pharmacology By KD Tripathi, 5th Edition, Page 53-4; Geriatric Medicine: An Evidence-Based Approach By Christine K. Cassel, 4th Edition, Page 546. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Monosymptomatic hypochondriasis means | [
"paranoid type delusional disorder",
"Declerambault syndrome",
"somatic type delusional disorder",
"othello syndrome"
] | C | * Somatic o ALSO KNOWN AS * Monosymptomatic hypochondriacal psychosis * Delusional parasitosis * Olfactory reference syndrome o DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS * HYPOCHONDRIASIS====NOT REASSURED as in hypochondriasis Ref.Kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry,11 th edition, pg no.333 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hair on end appearance is seen in X-ray skull in - | [
"Thalassemia",
"Hydrocephalus",
"Chronic malaria",
"All"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Thalassemia Bone Changes in Thalassemia 1. Bones become thin and pathological fracture may occur. 2. Massive expansion of the marrow of face and skull produces characteristics facies. 3. Severe maxillary hyperplasia and malocclusion. 4. Prominant widening of diploic spaces with "hair on end appearance" caused by veical trabeculae. 5. Crew-cut appearance ---> striking expansion of hematopoietically active marrow that erodes existing coical bone and induces new bone formation giving rise to crew cut appearance. Causes of "Hair on end appearance" --> Sickle cell anemia, Hereditary spherocytosis, G-6-PD deficiency | train | med_mcqa | null |
A two month baby presents with epiphora and regurgitation. The most likely diagnosis is: | [
"Mucopurulent conjunctivitis",
"Buphthalmos",
"Congenital dacryocystitis",
"Encysted mucocele"
] | C | Congenital dacyrocystitis is mainly due to membranous occlusion at the lower end near the valve of Hasner. Clinical features include Epiphora, positive regurgitation test and swelling of the sac. Ref: A.K KHURANA (2005), Chapter 15, "Disease of The Lacrimal Apparatus", In the book, "Opthalmology", 3rd Edition, Newdelhi, Page 342 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient develops red eye, 2 two days after an episode of malaria Probable cause is - | [
"Conjunctivitis",
"Anterior uvelitis",
"Viral keratitis",
"Endophthalmitis"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about competitive inhibition of enzyme | [
"| Km",
"| Km",
"| Vmax",
"No change in Km and Vmax"
] | A | It is obvious that in the case of competitive inhibition, the Km is increased in presence of competitive inhibitor. Thus competitive inhibitor apparently increases the Km. In other words, the affinity of the enzyme towards the substrate is apparently decreased in presence of the inhibitor.In competitive inhibition, the inhibitor will be a structural analog of the substrate. There will be similarity in three-dimensional structure between substrate (S) and inhibitor (I). For example, the succinate dehydrogenase reaction is inhibited by malonate (Fig. 5.19). v. Competitive inhibition is usually reversible. Or, excess substrate abolishes the inhibition. In the previous example of 100 moles of E and 100 moles of I, if 900 moles of S are added, only 1/10th of enzyme molecules are attached to the inhibitor and 90% are working with substrate. Thus 50% inhibition in the first example is now decreased to 10% inhibition But Vmax is not changed. Clinical significanceof such inhibitionRef: DM Vasudevan, Page no: 52 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A farmer rearing sheep, presented with complaints of fever and weakness for the last one month. There is generalised lymphadenopathy. There was also associated hepatomegaly. Biopsy of liver showed non-caseating granuloma. There are most likely due to infection with: | [
"Yersinia pestis",
"Brucella canis",
"Francisella tularensis",
"Brucella melitensis"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Brucella melitensis(Ref: Harrison, 19th/e, p. 1066 and Ananthanarayan, 9th/e, p. 339)Most common focal feature of brucellosis is musculoskeletal pain.Classic triad of fever - Profuse night sweating, arthralgia/arthritis and Hepatosplenomegaly are present in most patients.History of contact with animal followed by fever, lymphadenopathy and formation of non-caseating granuloma are features of brucellosis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Synaptic potential can be recorded by: | [
"Patch clamp technique",
"Voltage clamp technique",
"Microelectrode",
"EEG"
] | C | Synaptic potential is recorded with inserting one microelectrode inside cell and one electrode outside the cell. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Senear usher syndrome is associated with | [
"Pemphigus vulgaris",
"Pemphigus foliaceous",
"Pemphigus erythematous",
"Paraneoplastic pemphigus"
] | C | Senear usher syndrome is associated with pemphigus erythematous Pemphigus erythematosus is a localized variant of PF, originally described by Senear and Usher. Patients have immunological features of both lupus erythematosus and pemphigus, with granular IgG and C3 at the basement membrane zone, intercellular IgG and C3 in the epidermis and circulating antinuclear antibodies. Progression to systemic lupus erythematosus is rare. Pemphigus erythematosus may be associated with myasthenia gravis or thymoma. Erythematous scaly lesions over the nose and cheeks in a butterfly distribution simulate cutaneous lupus erythematosus or seborrheic dermatitis. Sunlight may exacerbate the disease. Lesions on the trunk, either localized or generalized, are similar to those in PF Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 1267 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following hormones is known to play a role in development of ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome? | [
"Leutenizing hormone",
"HCG",
"FSH",
"Progesterone"
] | B | Human chorionic gonadotropin is responsible for development of ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is not a feature of cerebral malaria ? | [
"Focal neurologic deficit",
"Retinal haemorrhages",
"Extensor plantar reflex",
"Absent abdominal relfex"
] | A | Answer- A. Focal neurologic deficitFocal reurological signs are unusual. Deep tendon reflexes are normal, increased or decreased.Corneal reflex is preserved, except in deep coma. Abdominal reflexes are invariably absent. Cremesteric reflex is often preserved.Extensor plantar response occurs in half of the patients. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following indicates activity of ant uveitis: | [
"Cells in anterior chamber",
"Circumcorneal congestion",
"Keratic precipitate",
"Corneal edema"
] | A | Ans. Cells in anterior chamber | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are associated with Corrigan's pulse except? | [
"Duroziez sign",
"Early diastolic murmur",
"Decreased LV end-diastolic pressure",
"Pulsus bisferiens"
] | C | Corrigan pulse is seen in Aoic Regurgitation. Aoic regurgitation -Early diastolic murmur Severe Aoic regurgitation -Mid diastolic murmur. Due to rapid run off from the aoa back into left ventricle the LV pressure keeps on rising-Increased LV end diastolic Pressure. Pulsus bisferiens: HOCM Aoic regurgitation Aoic stenosis with aoic regurgitation | train | med_mcqa | null |
Commonest cause for hyperparathyroidism is ? | [
"Single adenoma",
"Multiple adenomas",
"Single gland hyperplasia",
"Multiple gland Hyperplasia"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Single adenoma | train | med_mcqa | null |
Water content of breast milk is? | [
"48%",
"68%",
"88%",
"98%"
] | C | Breast milk has a high water content of 88%. Exclusively breast fed baby does not require additional water in the first 6 months of life | train | med_mcqa | null |
which chemical mediator is an arachidonic acid metabolite produced by COX pathway | [
"LXA4",
"LXB4",
"SHETE",
"PGH2"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common organism cultured in CSOM is ? | [
"Staphylococcus aureus",
"Staphylococcus epidermidis",
"Streptococcus pneumonia",
"Pseudomonas aeruginosa"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Pseudomonas aeruginosa Microbiology of CSOM Pus culture in both types of aerobic and anaerobic CSOM may show multiple organisms. Most commonly isolated organisms are gram negative bacilli, i.e., Pseudomonas, proteus, E.coli. These organisms are not commonly found in the respiratory tract, while commonly found in the skin of external ear. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Components of TOF are all except | [
"VSD",
"Subpulmonary stenosis",
"Right ventricular hyperophy",
"PDA"
] | D | Tetralogy of Fallot is the most common cause of cyanotic congenital hea disease and accounts for about 5% of all congenital cardiac malformations . The fourcardinal features are (1) VSD; (2)right ventricular outflow tract obstruction (subpulmonic stenosis); (3) overriding of the VSD by the aoa; and (4) right ventricular hyperophy . All of the features of tetralogy of Fallot result from anterosuperior displacement of the infundibular septum leading to abnormal septation between the pulmonary trunk and the aoic root. (Robbins Basic pathology,9th edition.pg no.404) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Treatment of thyroglossal cyst | [
"Sistrunk Operation",
"Cyst operation",
"Antibiotics",
"All the above"
] | A | Ans. (a) Sistrunk operation* Sistrunk operation: Excision of cyst and also full tract up to the foramen caecum is done along with removal of central part of the hyoid bone, as the tract passes through it.* Sistrunk operation is also named for Filarial leg surgery | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is not a minor diagnostic criteria for multiple myeloma? | [
"Lytic bone lesions",
"Plasmacytosis greater than 20%",
"Plasmacytoma on biopsy",
"Monoclonal globulin spike on serum melectrophoresis of >2.5 G/DL for IgG,>1.5 G/DL for IGA)"
] | C | . Plasmacytoma on biopsy | train | med_mcqa | null |
Migratory thrombophlebitis is seen in - | [
"Dissaminated cancer",
"Rheumatic heart disease",
"Libman - sacks endocarditis",
"All of the above"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 30-year-old woman with family history of hearing loss from her mother's side developed hearing problem during pregnancy. Hearing loss is bilateral, slowly progressive, with bilateral tinnitus that bothers her at night. Pure tone audiometry shows conductive hearing loss with an apparent bone conduction hearing loss at 2000 Hz. What is the most likely diagnosis? | [
"Otosclerosis",
"Acoustic neuroma",
"Otitis media with effusion",
"Sigmoid sinus thrombosis"
] | A | Otosclerosis mostly involves females, has a positive family history and causes slow progressive bilateral hearing loss. Audiogram is characterized by Carhart's notch--a dip in bone conduction at 2000 Hz.Carhart's notch is loss of bone conduction in audiogram. It is a feature of otosclerosis. Loss is5 dB in 500 Hz10 dB in 1000 Hz15 dB in 2000 Hz5 dB in 4000 HzCarhart's notch. Note dip at 2 kHz in bone conduction | train | med_mcqa | null |
Healthy thinking includes all of the following except: | [
"Continuity",
"Constancy",
"Organization",
"Clarity"
] | D | Healthy thinking has three characteristics (1) Continuity (2) Organization and (3) Constancy. According to Ku Schneider, there are three features of healthy thinking: *Constancy: Constancy of a thought means that a thought persists, until it is replaced by another thought * Organisation:Organisation means that there is a connection between various components of a single thought and between the consecutive thoughts * Continuity: Continuity of the thought refers to the fact that the thoughts are arranged in a proper order and in a continuum | train | med_mcqa | null |
The ribozyme was the first recognized "molecular machine." Which of the following is TRUE? | [
"Peptidyl transferases activity",
"Cut DNA at specific site",
"Paicipate in DNA synthesis",
"GTPase"
] | A | Ribozymes are RNA molecules with catalytic activity. These generally involve transesterification reactions, and most are concerned with RNA metabolism (splicing and endoribonuclease). Recently, a rRNA component has been implicated in hydrolyzing an aminoacyl ester and thus to play a central role in peptide bond function (peptidyl transferases activity). Ref: Weil P. (2011). Chapter 36. RNA Synthesis, Processing, & Modification. In D.A. Bender, K.M. Botham, P.A. Weil, P.J. Kennelly, R.K. Murray, V.W. Rodwell (Eds), Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 29e | train | med_mcqa | null |
Gut Associated Lymphoid Tissue (GALT) is primarily located in which layer of small intestine? | [
"Lamina Propria",
"Submucosa",
"Muscularis",
"Serosa"
] | A | GALT is composed of aggregated tissue in the form of peyer's patches and lymphnode follicles, and non-aggregated cells in Lamina propria and intraepitheial regions of small intestine. Ref: The Immunomodulatory Effects of Dietary Fibers and Prebiotics in The Gastrointestinal Tract By Teresa M. Paeschke, William R. Aimutis, Chapter 3; Nondigestible Carbohydrates and Digestive Health, Page 1974 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The external carotid artery divides at the level of: | [
"Angle of mandible",
"Neck of mandible",
"Oblique line of thyroid cartilage",
"Lower border of cricoid cartilage"
] | B | External carotid: It is the one of the terminal branches of common carotid artery and lies anterior to internal carotid artery. External carotid artery starts at the level of upper border of thyroid cartilage, runs upwards and laterally to terminate behind the neck of mandible by dividing into larger maxillary and smaller superficial temporal branches. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Tumor lysis syndrome is associated with all of the following laboratory features except - | [
"Hyperkalemia",
"Hypercalcemia",
"Hyperuricemia",
"Hyperphosphatemia"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Maternal mortality rate is a | [
"Rate",
"Ratio",
"Proportion",
"None of the above"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 17-year-old boy presents with chronic low back pain and stiffness for the past 8 months. He denies any GIT or genital infections. His temp is 98.6 F. Lab investigation shows normal ESR and negative RA factor. X-ray films of the veebral column show flattening of the lumbar curve and subchondral bone erosion involving the sacroiliac joints. Most likely diagnosis? | [
"Ankylosing spondylitis",
"Degenerative join disease",
"Reiter syndrome",
"Seronegative rheumatoid ahritis"
] | A | Diagnosis is ANKYLOSING SPONDYLITIS : The patient&;s young age, occurrence of pain at night, negativity of rheumatoid factor, and especially, bilateral involvement of sacroiliac joints are consistent with ankylosing spondylitis. This is one of the seronegative spondyloahropathies, characterized by onset before 40 years of age, absence of circulating autoantibodies, frequent association with HLA-B27 histocompatibility antigen, and common involvement of the spinal column. Ankylosing spondylitis should be suspected in any young person complaining of chronic lower back pain and confirmed by radiographs or CT scans of sacroiliac joints. The disease usually progresses to involve the whole veebral column, producing ankylosis and respiratory failure secondary to restrictive lung disease. Uveitis and aoic insufficiency are additional manifestations. Degenerative joint disease would be Exceptional at such a young age, unless predisposing conditions were present. Degenerative joint disease is not associated with systemic signs and symptoms. Radiographs of affected joints show narrowed interaicular spaces, osteophytes, and increased density of subchondral bone. Sacroiliac joints are not involved. Ref: Maheshwari 9TH ED pg 290. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is level III lymph nodes? | [
"Central",
"Apical",
"Interpectoral",
"Anterior"
] | B | Apical also known as subclavicular is level III lymph node. | train | med_mcqa | null |
If mean is less than the median, than the data is said to be | [
"Positively skewed",
"Negatively skewed",
"Equitable distribution",
"Normal distribution"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e. Negatively skewed Relationship among the three measures of central tendency (ie mean, median and mode) in a skewed curve is an oft repeated question.Lets first see what skewed distribution curve is.* An asymmetrical distribution curve can be of two types:Positive skewed distribution curveNegative skewed distribution curvePositive (or right) and negative (or left) skewed curves are recognized by the location of the tail of the curve (not by the location of the hump - a common error)Positive or Right skewed distribution curve * there curves have a relatively large number of low scores and a small no of very high scores the mean lies towards the extreme right of the curve Negative or left skewed distribution curve.there curves have a large number of high scores and a relatively small number of low scores the mean lies towards the extreme left of the curve.Now lets see the measures of central tendency.Modeis the most frequently occurring valueit lies at the peak of the hump.Meanis the arithmetic averageit is greatly influenced by the relatively small number of very high or very low scoresit liestowards the extreme right in a right (Positive) distribution curve andtowards the extreme left in a left (negative) distribution curve.Medianis the middle valueit lies b/w the mean and mode dividing the curve into two equal halves.Relationship b/w the measures of central tendency* In a symmetrical curveMean = Median = Mode* In a Positive (Right) skewed curveMean > Median > Mode* In a Negative (left) skewed curveMean < Median < Mode | train | med_mcqa | null |
Early neonatal period is - | [
"1 day",
"7 days",
"28 days",
"14 days"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 7 days | train | med_mcqa | null |
Water brash is a classic symptom of | [
"Dyspepsia",
"Indigestion",
"GERD",
"Duodenal ulcer"
] | C | Water brash is excessive salivation resulting from a vagal reflex triggered by acidification of the esophageal mucosa. This is not a common symptom. Afflicted individuals will describe the unpleasant sensation of the mouth rapidly filling with salty thin fluid, often in the setting of concomitant heaburn.When classic symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux are present, such as water brash and substernal heaburn, presumptive diagnosis andempirical treatment is often sufficient.Ref: Harrison; 19th edition; Page no: 1901 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the trophoblast does not invade spiral arterioles:- | [
"Extravillous",
"Endovascular",
"Tertiary villus",
"Interstitial"
] | D | Ans. (d) InterstitialRef: Williams Obstetrics 25th Ed; Page No-88* After implantation; trophoblast giving rise to villous and extra villous trophoblasts.* Extra villous trophoblasts contact with various maternal cell types because it migrate into the decidua and myometrium and also penetrate maternal vasculature.* Extra villous trophoblasts are found outside the villus and it is further subdivided into endovascular and interstitial trophoblasts. * Interstitial trophoblasts invade the decidua and surround spiral arteries.* Endovascular trophoblasts invade and transform spiral arteries during pregnancy to create low-resistance blood flow that is characteristic of the placenta. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Joule burns is seen in - | [
"Electrocution",
"Thermal Injury",
"Radiation injury",
"Lightning"
] | A | THE ELECTRIC MARK OR JOULE BURN: It is specific and diagnostic of contact with electricity and is found at the point of entry of the current. It is endogenous thermal burn due to the heat generated in the body from electricity. These marks are round or oval, shallow craters one to the and three cm. high around pa or the whole of their circumference. The crater floor is lined by pale flattened skin. Ref: K.S.Narayan Reddy's Synopsis of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology, 29th edition, Chapter 11, page-167. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Transplantation between genetically different members of the same species is termed as | [
"Autograft",
"Isograft",
"Allograft",
"Xenograft"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The first book on child dentistry was published by | [
"G W Wright",
"Joseph Hurlock",
"Granuldy",
"Robert Buna"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Prions are | [
"Made up of bacterial and viral particles",
"Immunogenic",
"infectious",
"RNA particles"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true for oxytocin EXCEPT: March 2013 | [
"Polypeptide",
"Secreted by anterior pituitary",
"Causes ejection of milk",
"Secreted in both sexes"
] | B | Ans. B i.e. Secreted by anterior pituitaryOxytocin is secreted mainly by Supraoptic and paraventricular nucleus of hypothalamus and is transpoed from hypothalamus to posterior pituitary. When suitable stimuli reach the posterior pituitary from hypothalamus, oxytocin is released into blood. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In a patient with ischaemic stroke, intravenous recombinant tissue plasminogenactivator has mainly been found to be useful during the initial - | [
"3 hours",
"6 hours",
"12 hours",
"24 hours"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A case of spontaneous pneumothorax comes to you what will be earliest t/t of choice : | [
"IPPV",
"Needle aspiration",
"ICD",
"Wait and watch"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' ie Needle aspiration Pneumothorax : is the presence of gas in the pleural space.Types:Spontaneous pneumothorax - is one that occurs without antecedent trauma to the thoraxPrimary spontaneous - Occurs in the absence of an underlying lung disease (usually d/t apical plural blebs).Secondary spontaneous - d/t an underlying lung disease.Traumatic pneumothorax - results from penetrating or non penetrating injuries to the chest.Tension pneumothorax - Any pneumothorax in which the pressure in the pleural space is positive throughout the respiratory cycle.In this pt. its not specified the type of spontaneous pneumothorax, still lets see the t/tTreatmentPrimary spontaneous pneumothorax -Initial recommended treatment is simple aspirationIf the lung does not expand with aspiration, or if the pt. has a recurrent pneumothorax, thoracoscopy with stapling of blebs and pleural abrasion is indicated (100% success rate)Secondary Spontaneous pneumothoraxSec. spon. pneumothorax can occur in any lung ds but are commonly seen in COPD.Nearly all pts are t/t with tube thoracostomy and the instillation of a sclerosing agent such as doxycycline or talc.Pts. with persistent air leak, an unexpanded lung after 3 days of tube thoracostomy, or a recurrent pneumothorax should be subjected to thoracoscopy with bleb resection and pleural abrasion.Traumatic pneumothoraxTraumatic pneumothorax should be t/t with tube thoracostomy unless they are very small. If a hemopneumothorax is present, one chest tube should be placed in the superior part of the hemithorax to evacuate the air, and another should be placed in the inferior part of the hemithorax to remove the blood.Tension pneumothoraxIt is an emergency situation.A large bore needle is inserted into the pleural space through the Second anterior intercostal space. The needle should be left in place until a thoracostomy tube is inserted.I assume that the pt. has primary spontaneous pneumothorax as there is no past history of any disease (as it is not mentioned in the question). | train | med_mcqa | null |
The impression with the least dimensional change upon disinfection is | [
"Addition poly silicone",
"Agar-agar",
"Polysulphide",
"Polyether"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The average leeway space available in each half of mandible is | [
"3.8 mm",
"1.7 mm",
"2.4 mm",
"0.9 mm"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are seen in active chronic hepatitis B except: | [
"IgM against core antigen",
"Total core antibody",
"HbeAg",
"HbsAg"
] | A | Answer is A (IgM against core antigen): IgM antibody against core antigen is a diagnostic of an acute infection with hepatitis B virus. IgM antibodies against core antigen are characteristically absent in patients with chronic: hepatitis B. (Absent in both forms of chronic hepatitis, namely, chronic active hepatitis and chronic persistent hepatitis) Chronic Hepatitis Chronic Persistent Hepatitis (Low infectivity; HBeAg-ve chronic Hepatitis) HBsAg +ve HBeAg -ve IgM HBc -ye HBV DNA +ve Chronic Active Hepatitis High infectivity; HBeAg+ve chronic Hepatits HBsAg +ve HBeAg +ve IgM Anti HBc IgG Anti HBc -ve +ve HBV DNA +ve | train | med_mcqa | null |
Fit and healthy young female for lap. gyne operation, which of the following doesn&;t require continuous monitoring | [
"ECG",
"Saturation probe",
"Disconnect alarm",
"Oxygen analyzer"
] | A | Must be monitored continuously 1. Ventilation : continuously by direct and indirect means : capnography 2. Oxygenation : oximeter 3. Intermittent non-invasive blood pressure monitor 4. Oxygen analyiser with audible alarm to warm of low oxygen concentrations 5. Breathing system disconnection or ventilator failure alarm 6. Volatile anaesthetic agent concentration monitor if using volatile Must be available 1. Electrocardiogram 2. Continuous intra-aerial blood pressure monitor 3. Temperature probe 4. NMB monitoring 5. BIS 6. CVP 7. spirometry 8. TOE | train | med_mcqa | null |
Trends can be represented by - | [
"Line diagram",
"Bar diagram",
"Scatter diagram",
"None"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Line diagramLine diagram 1 Line chart/Line graph)o It is used to show the trend of events with passage of time and shows how the frequency of a particular event or variable vary over time. DataMethodFrequency of occurrence (comparisons of magnitude)Bar ChartPie chartTrends over timeLine graphDistribution (not related to time)Histogram,Frequency polygonAssociation (Looking for correlation between two variables)Scatter diagram | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 50-Year-old diabetic patient presented with orbital pain, swelling and chemosis along with fever. Patient also gave history of orbital cellulitis 1 week back. O/E: - 3rd, 4th and 6th cranial nerves neuropathy Trigeminal neuropathy affecting V1 and V2 divisions The neuropathy was observed initially on left side but later right side was also affected. CT venogram of the patient Which of the following is not a tributary of the involved structure: - | [
"Superior ophthalmic vein",
"Superficial middle cerebral vein",
"Central vein of retina",
"Basilar plexus"
] | D | This is a case of cavernous sinus thrombosis post orbital cellulitis meaning the septic thrombi came the superior ophthalmic vein. It is a life-threatening condition. Presents as orbital/facial pain Orbital swelling and chemosis is seen. 3rd, 4th, 5th and 6th cranial nerves are affected Occurs secondary to infection from orbital cellulitis and sinusitis CT venogram shows distended cavernous sinus with a non-fat density filling defect-likely thrombus. Pathways of spread of infection to cavernous sinus. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Clostridia is? | [
"Gram positive aerobe",
"Gram positive obligate anaerobe",
"Gram negative rods",
"Gram negative bacillus"
] | B | Gram positive obligate anaerobe REF: Jawetz's microbiology 24th edition chapter 12 "The clostridia are large anaerobic, gram-positive, motile rods" | train | med_mcqa | null |
With normal cardiac function, a10 mm Hg change in which of the following pressure would have a greatest effect on cardiac output | [
"Pressure in carotid aery",
"Pressure in the pulmonary aery",
"aoic pressure",
"Right atrial pressure"
] | D | As change in the aerial BP effects venous return that effects cardiac output Ref: textbook of physiology Volume 1 AK Jain 7th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Aim of mastoid surgery in CSOM which should receive first priority is: | [
"Making the ear dry",
"Improvement in hearing",
"Preservation of hearing",
"Rendering the ear safe"
] | D | CSOM is notorious for intracranial complications. The first priority in mastoid surgery is given to free drainage of pus to render the ear safe. Second priority is given to preserve or reconstruct hearing mechanism. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Patient suffering form Eagle's syndrome complains of | [
"burning sensations in mouth",
"excessive salivation.",
"Glossodynia",
"Dysphagia"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient complained to his dentist about a draining lesion in his mouth. A Gram's stain of the pus showed a few Gram-positive cocci, leukocytes, and many branched Gram-positive rods. The most likely cause of the disease is | [
"Actinomyces israelii",
"Actinomyces viscosus",
"C. diphtheriae",
"Propionibacterium acnes"
] | A | The patient presented with typical symptoms of actinomycosis. Actinomyces israelii is normal flora in the mouth. However, it causes a chronic draining infection, often around the maxilla or the mandible, with osteomyelitic changes. Treatment is high-dose penicillin for 4 to 6 weeks. The diagnosis of actinomycosis is often complicated by the failure of A. israelii to grow from the clinical specimen. It is an obligate anaerobe. Fluorescent antibody (FA) reagents are available for direct staining of A. israelii. A rapid diagnosis can be made from the pus. FA conjugates are also available for A. viscosus and A. odontolyticus, anaerobic actinomycetes that are rarely involved in actinomycotic abscesses. | train | med_mcqa | null |
LH : FSH ratio in women with polycystic ovarian disease is | [
"1:02",
"2:01",
"1:01",
"3:01"
] | B | Altered GnRH pulsatility leads to preferential production of LH compared to FSH. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Miyagawa corpuscles are characteristic of ? | [
"Psittacosis",
"Malaria",
"Rabies",
"Lymphogranuloma venerum"
] | D | Ans. is. d. i.e., Lymphogranuloma venerum Inclusion body of C.trachomatis causing conjuctivitis - Halberstaedter prowazek (H.P.) body.Inclusion body of C. trachomatis causing L.G.V. -s Miyagawa's granulocorpuscles.In psittacosis -s Levinthal - toles - lillie bodies. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The first step in surveying the cast for RPD is: | [
"Establishment of guiding plane",
"Establishment of undercuts for retention",
"Establishment of tooth contour for esthetics",
"Establishment of interferences for major connector"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
As per RNTCP Cat-1, should receive- | [
"4 drugs for 2 months and two drugs for 4 months",
"3 drugs for two months and 2 drugs for four months",
"Includes Retreatment cases",
"Rx is given daily"
] | A | Category 1 TB treatment is, HRZE thrice weekly for two months (intensive phase) and HR thrice weekly for four months (continuation phase). Ref: PARK&;S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE 23rd edition , Page :188 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Carhart's notch seen at: | [
"0.5 KHz",
"1 KHz",
"2 KHz",
"4 KHz"
] | C | Ans: c (2 KHz) Ref: Dhingra, 3rd ed, p. 115 & p. 87Dip in bone conduction in otosclerosis & maximum occurs at 2000 Hz called Carhart notchDip Disappears after successful stapedectomy2 KHz dip - Otosclerosis4 KHz dip - Noise induced hearing loss8 KHz dip - Senile otosclerosis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one of the following inherited disorders produce thrombosis | [
"Factor v leden mutation",
"Antithrombin deficiency",
"Homocysteinemia",
"Protein s deficiency p"
] | C | ref Robbins 7/e p 131, 8/e p122 , Harrison 18/e p462,9/e p123 Homocysteine (Hcy) is a sulfhydryl amino acid derived from the metabolic conversion of methionine, which is dependent on vitamins (folic acid, B12 and B6) as cofactors or cosubstrates. Severe hyperhomocysteinemia (homocystinuria), due to inherited metabolic defects of Hcy metabolism, is associated with very high risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE); treatment with vitamins is associated with dramatic decrease of VTE risk | train | med_mcqa | null |
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