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The adverse effect of clozapine -: (A) Hypertension, (B) Sialorrhea, (C) Extrapyramidal S/E, (D) Neuroleptic malignant syndrome | Answer is B. Side effects of clozapine
Agranulocytosis
Urinary incontinence
Unstable BP & Tachycardia
Hypersalivation (sialorrhoea)
Worsening of diabetes
Weight gain
Seizures
Sedation | |
Most common cause of death in criminal abortion is?: (A) Hemorrhage, (B) Sepsis, (C) Air embolism, (D) Perforation | Answer is B. ANSWER: (B) SepsisREF: Forensic Medicine and Toxicology By R.N.Karmakar page 230, Textbook of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology, Krishan Vij 5th ed fig 26.2The most common complication from illegal abortion is retained product of conception; the most frequent cause of death is infection and sepsis.NATURAL V... | |
Most potent statin -: (A) Simvastatin, (B) Pravastatin, (C) Rosuvastatin, (D) Simvastatin | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Rosuvastatin o Two most potent statins are Pitavastatin (most potent) and rosuvastatin most potent). | |
Contraception of choice for a post paum village woman with one child :: (A) Barrier, (B) Copper T, (C) Oral pills, (D) Spermicide | Answer is B. Copper T | |
All of the following antifungal drugs inhibit ergosterol biosynthesis EXCEPT :: (A) Ketoconazole, (B) Fluconazole, (C) Amphotericin B, (D) None of these | Answer is C. None | |
A 33-year-old male immigrant from Taiwan presents with increasing right upper quadrant (RUQ) pain. The pain is dull, and it does not radiate or change with eating. On examination the abdomen is soft, there is a mass in the RUQ, and no ascites is clinically detected. He has a prior history of hepatitis B. His laboratory... | Answer is B. (b) Source: (Devita, pp. 533-534) Only the chronic carrier state increases HCC risk, not previous infection. The majority, but not all, of HCC associated with HBV occurs in the setting of cirrhosis (60-90%). Because the latency period of HBV infection is 35 years, before HCC supervenes, early-life infectio... | |
Which of the following is not done before ABG?: (A) Allen test, (B) Heparin to rinse the syring, (C) Flexion of wrist, (D) Poking the aery at 45 degrees angle | Answer is C. Done Before ABG Allen test: integrity of palmer arch. Heparin: to rinse the syringe Poking the aery at 45-degree angle. Extend wrist joint: Radial Aery tent. | |
Focal lesion in liver is best detected by: (A) MRI, (B) CT, (C) USG, (D) PET | Answer is A. MRI in Liver lesions MRI had emerged as the best imaging test for liver lesion detection and characterization MRI provides high lesion-to-liver contrast and does not use radiation Liver-specific contrast media, such as mangofodipir trisodium (taken up by hepatocytes) and ferrumoxides (taken up by kupffer c... | |
Admixed high copper alloy powder contains: (A) 9-20% copper, (B) 13-20% copper, (C) 9-30% copper, (D) 13-30% copper | Answer is A. None | |
A patient presents with LMP 8 weeks ago. She has history of delayed cycles in the past. Which of the following is the most accurate way of dating the pregnancy?: (A) Determination of uterine size on pelvic examination, (B) Quantitative serum HCG level, (C) Crown-rump length on abdominal or vaginal ultrasound, (D) Deter... | Answer is C. CRL is the best USG parameter to determine gestational age in first trimester Crown rump length - it is the longest straight line measurement of the embryo from the other margin of cephalic pole to rump mid-sagittal plane with fetus in neutral , non fixed position - Best seen on TVS - Overall best USG para... | |
Pectinate line is an impoant landmark because?: (A) It marks a divide in nerve supply, (B) It marks the location of change in type of epithelium, (C) It represents a lymphatic and venous divide, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. All of the above | |
A lady used to repeatedly wash her hands due to the fear of acquiring AIDS is due to: (A) OCD, (B) Mania, (C) Depression, (D) Anxiety | Answer is A. (A) OCD # Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is a psychiatric anxiety disorder most commonly characterized by a subject's obsessive, distressing, intrusive thoughts and related compulsions (tasks or "rituals") which attempt to neutralize the obsessions.# Obsessions are defined by:> Recurrent and persisten... | |
A 5-year-old boy is brought to the emergency room with a fever of 103degF (38.7degC), chest pain, and productive cough. The patient has a history of recurrent pulmonary disease and respiratory distress. What microorganism recovered from the lungs of this child is virtually diagnostic of cystic fibrosis?: (A) Klebsiella... | Answer is D. Cystic fibrosis is the most common lethal autosomal recessive disorder in the white population. The disease is characterized by (1) chronic pulmonary disease, (2) deficient exocrine pancreatic function, and (3) other complications of inspissated mucus in a number of organs, including the small intestine, t... | |
Conduction velocity in AV node 8c SA node-: (A) 0.05 meter/sec, (B) 0.5 meter/sec, (C) 1 meter/sec, (D) 5 meter/sec | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., 0.05 meter/sec Cardiac tissueConduction velocity (meter/second)SA node0 [?] 05Inteatrial pathways1Atrial muscle0 [?] 30AV node0 [?] 05 (minimum)Bundle of His1Purkinje system4 (maximum)Ventricular muscle1 | |
Which of the following cells do Natural killer cells attack?: (A) Cells which express MHC 1, (B) Cells which are not able to express MHC 1, (C) MHC cells which express MHC 2, (D) Cells which are not able to express MHC | Answer is B. . Cells which are not able to express MHC 1 | |
Continues scrutiny of factors that affect the occurence of a disease is -: (A) Epidemiology, (B) Monitoring, (C) Surveillance, (D) Screening | Answer is C. Surveillance has been defined as the continuous scrutiny of all aspects of occurrence and the spread of diseases that are peinent to effective control. Surveillance goes beyond the passive repoing of cases Ref: 25th edition, Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, Page no. 138 | |
Most common site of tear in Mallory-weiss syndrome is in: (A) Upper esophagus, (B) Mid operation, (C) Lower esophagus, (D) Cardia stomach | Answer is D. MALLORY WEISS syndrome is seen in adults with severe prolonged vomiting, causing a longitudinal tear in the mucosa of the stomach at and just below the cardia leading to severe hematemesis.violent vomiting may be due to a migraine or veigo or following a bout of alcohol.common in 1 o' clock position.invest... | |
A patient presented with 2 months history of increased ICP, with massive parietal edema, CT/MRI shows single and were circumscribed region lesion: (A) Granuloma, (B) Metastases, (C) Glioblastoma, (D) All of the above | Answer is A. (A) Granuloma > Granuloma usually presents with increased ICP, with massive parietal edema. CT/MRI shows single circumscribed region lesion. Gliomas include astrocytomas, oligodendrogliomas and mixed tumours. Common sites include the cerebellum, optic nerve and chiasma, hypothalamus and brainstem. Diffuse ... | |
Incineration is done for waste category ?: (A) Category 7, (B) Category 9, (C) Category 6, (D) Category 5 | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Category 6 | |
Pathognomic factors involved in foot ulcers in DM include all, Except:: (A) Trophic ulcers, (B) Neuropathy, (C) Microangiopathic changes in blood vessels, (D) Macroangiopathy | Answer is C. Answer is C (Microangiopathic changes in blood vessels): Macroangiopathic changes in blood vessels in the form of peripheral aerial disease contribute to the generation of foot ulcers and non microangiopathic changes. Pathogenic Factors in generation of foot ulcers in DM Neuropathy (Peripheral Sensory neur... | |
Finding on histopathological examination in liver in case of malaria is :: (A) Microabscess formation, (B) Kupffer's cell hyperplasia with macrophage infiltration around periportal area laden with pigments., (C) Non caseating granuloma, (D) Non specific finding of neutrophilic infiltratio | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e. Kupffer's cell hyperplasia with macrophage infiltration around periportal area laden with pigments * In severe infections with plasmodium falciparum, the vital organs are packed with erythrocytes containing mature form of the parasite.* There is abundant intra and extraerythrocytic pigment... | |
Which of the following is true about sickle cell red blood cells?: (A) Stability, (B) Altered function, (C) Decreased oxygen carrying capacity, (D) Protective against adult malaria | Answer is D. HbA/S heterozygotes (sickle cell trait) have a sixfold reduction in the risk of dying from severe falciparum malaria. This decrease in risk appears to be related to impaired parasite growth at low oxygen tensions and reduced parasitized red cell cytoadherence. Parasite multiplication in HbA/E heterozygotes... | |
Drug of choice for pneumocystis carinii ?: (A) Cotrimoxazole, (B) Erythromycin, (C) Penicillin, (D) Metronidazole | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Cotrimoxazole | |
A 26-year-old man is admitted through the casualty of the hospital for a heroin overdose. His hea rate is 45 beats/min, and his blood pressure is 75/40 mm Hg. Which of the following best depicts the results from an aerial blood sample?: (A) pH 7.22, PaCO2 (mm Hg) 66, HCO3- (mEq/L) 26, (B) pH 7.34, PaCO2 (mm Hg) 29, HCO... | Answer is A. This man has a respiratory acidosis. Overdose with drugs that suppress ventilation (e.g., heroin, morphine, barbiturates, methaqualone, and "sleeping pills") often causes hypercapnia. In patients with an intact renal response, the respiratory acidosis causes a compensatory rise in plasma HCO3-, which lesse... | |
Most common bone fracture in body is:: (A) Radius, (B) Clavicle, (C) Femur, (D) Vertebra | Answer is B. Ans: b (Clavicle)Ref: Maheshwari Ortho, 3rd ed, p. 73 | |
Drug treatment for laryngeal stenosis is: (A) Adriamycin, (B) Mitomycin C, (C) Cyclophosphamide, (D) Doxorubicin | Answer is B. Mitomycin-C is an antineoplastic antibiotic that acts as an alkylating agent by inhibiting DNA and protein synthesis. ... Topical application of mitomycin-C (0.4 mg/mL) was used as an adjuvant treatment in the endoscopic laser management of laryngeal and tracheal stenosis Ref: Internet sources | |
A 40 year old presenting with dizziness on standing with systolic reduction of BP of 50mm Hg; appropriate treatment: (A) Graded compression stockings, (B) Salbutamol, (C) Fludrocoisone, (D) b-blockers | Answer is A. Graduated compression stockings (GCS) help prevent the formation of blood clots in the legs by applying varying amounts of pressure to different pas of the leg. Thigh or waist-high stockings help reduce pooling of blood in the legs and help prevent lightheadedness or falling when you stand up (ohostatic hy... | |
WHO global programme for oral health targets for 2000 irtclude;: (A) <2 DMFT at 12 years, (B) <3 DMFT at 12 years, (C) <4 DMFT at 12 years, (D) <5 DMFT at 12 years | Answer is B. None | |
A child aged 24 months was brought to the Primary Health Centre with complaints of cough and fever for the past 2 days. On examination, the child weighed 11kg, respiratory rate was 38 per minute, chest indrawing was present. The most appropriate line of management for this patient is ?: (A) Classify as pneumonia and re... | Answer is C. Ans. is `c' i.e., Classify as severe pneumonia, sta antibiotics and refer urgently | |
A 40-year-old female have a right hypochondriac pain. USG is taken. What is the inference?: (A) Gall stone, (B) Cholecystitis, (C) Porcelain gall bladder, (D) Cholangiocarcinoma | Answer is A. USG shows highly reflective echogenic focus within the gallbladder lumen, with prominent posterior acoustic shadowing, characteristic of Cholelithiasis. If there is associated cholecystitis, gallbladder wall thickening along with the pericholecytic fluid. Murphy&;s sign might be elicited with probe over ga... | |
Dentogingival unit comprises of: (A) Gingival fibres, (B) Gingival fibres and junctional epithelium, (C) P.D. fibres and ligament, (D) None of the above | Answer is B. None | |
All of the following are known predisposing factors for Alzheimer's disease except :: (A) Down-syndrome, (B) Low education level, (C) Smoking, (D) Female sex | Answer is C. Answer is C (Smoking):Smoking has not been mentioned as a risk factor, for Alzheimer's disease. | |
Action of alpha subunit of G-protein is:: (A) Binding of agonist, (B) Conversion of GDP to GTP, (C) Breakdown of GTP to GDP, (D) Internalization of receptors | Answer is C. Ans. (C) Breakdown of GTP to GDP(Ref: KDT 8th/e p54)Alpha subunit of G protein contains GTPase activity and thus dissociates GTP to form GDP. This result in re-uniting a subunit with b and g subunit | |
A 50 year old with history of jaundice in the past has presented with right upper quadrant abdominal pain. Examination and investigations reveal chronic calculous cholecystitis. The liver functions tests are within normal limits and on ultrasound examination, the common bile ducts is not dilated. Which of the following... | Answer is A. In the given question there was an episode of jaundice, but LFT is normal and CBD is not dilated. The best option is laparoscopic cholecystectomy only Management of CBD stones associated with GB stones * Pre-operatively detected stones:- * Unsuspected stones found at the time of cholecystectomy:- Experienc... | |
Which muscle paralysis can cause ‘Winging of scapula’?: (A) Serratus anterior, (B) Supraspinatus, (C) Teres minor, (D) Deltoid | Answer is A. LONG THORACIC NERVE
■ Arises from ventral rami of C5, C6, and C7.
■ Descends behind the brachial plexus on the lateral surface of the serratus anterior, to which it supplies.
■ The serratus anterior muscle can be examined by asking patient to push against a wall with both hands. Winging of scapula will be ... | |
True about proximal fragment In supratrochantric fracture is: (A) Flexion, (B) Abduction, (C) External rotation, (D) All of the the above | Answer is D. The peritrochanteric fracture is one of the most serious causes of mortality and morbidity in the elderly.
Subtrochanteric fractures account for approximately 10-30% of all peritrochanteric fractures, and they affect persons of all ages.
1,2 The subtrochanteric region of the femur is generally recognized t... | |
The BEST method for teaching mothers about using ORS is:: (A) Group discussion, (B) Demonstration, (C) Lecture, (D) Flannel graph | Answer is B. A demonstration is a carefully prepared presentation to show how to perform a skill or procedure. Here a procedure is carried out step by step before an audience. Demonstration is found to have high education value in programmes like teaching a mother the use of oral rehydration therapy at home. Ref: Park ... | |
A female wanted to have an emergency contraception after an unprotected intercourse. Which of these is NOT useful as an emergency contraceptive?: (A) LNG IUD, (B) Oral Mifepristone, (C) Oral Levonorgestrel, (D) Cu-containing IUD | Answer is A. Post coital or emergency contraceptives are, Ethinyl oestradiol Conjugated estrogen Ethinyl oestradiol + Norgestrel Levonorgestrel Mifepristone Copper IUDs Ref: Textbook of Obstetrics by D.C. Dutta, 6th edition, Page 550. | |
A characteristic feature of Still's disease -: (A) Prominent kidney involvement, (B) Rashes, (C) Positive Rheumatoid factor, (D) Neutropenia | Answer is B. Stills disease is a variant of rheumatoid commonly occurring in adults in 20's and 30's.
Patients characteristics clinical features are:
High spiking fever often up to 40°C.
Sore throat
Evanescent salmon coloured non pruritic rash, seen on chest & abdomen
Lymphadenopathy
Pericardial effusion
Wrist joint ... | |
Which of the following is false regarding endemic bladder stones?: (A) Always associated with recurrence, (B) High incidence in cereal based diet, (C) Peak incidence in 3 years old children in India, (D) Most common type is ammonium urate or calcium oxalate | Answer is A. PRIMARY BLADDER CALCULI (ENDEMIC BLADDER CALCULI) Mainly seen in underdeveloped countries (Noh Africa, Thailand, Myanmar, Indonesia), in pediatric age group. Most common in children <10 Years, with a peak incidence at 2 to 4 years of age. Related to chronic dehydration and low protein, low phosphate, exclu... | |
Which of the following is present normally in the urine of a pregnant women in the third trimester and lactation?: (A) Glucose, (B) Lactose, (C) Galactose, (D) Fructose | Answer is A. Glucosuria during pregnancy is not necessarily abnormal. The appreciable increase in glomerular filtration, together with impaired tubular reabsorptive capacity for filtered glucose, accounts in most cases for glucosuria. Though glucosuria is common during pregnancy, the possibility of diabetes mellitus sh... | |
All are major symptoms of sinusitis except ?: (A) Nasal bluckage, (B) Facial congeion, (C) Nasal congestion, (D) Halitosis | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Halitosis The clinical symptoms of acute sinusitis have been classified into major and minor Major Facial pain or pressure Purulent nasal discharge Fever Nasal congestion Nasal obstruction Hyposmia or Anosmia Facial congestion or fullness Minor Headache Cough Fatigue Halitosis Dental pain... | |
Which of the following is the most widespread method of genetic transfer among bacteria?: (A) Transformation, (B) Transduction, (C) Lysogenic conversion, (D) Conjugation | Answer is D. Option a, b, c, d * There are three mechanisms of horizontal gene transfer in bacteria:- 1.Transformation 2. Transduction 3. Conjugation (Most common mechanism), It was discovered first by Lederberg and Tatum. * Conjugation plays an impoant role in the transfer of plasmids coding for antibacterial drug res... | |
Which of the following is not an inflammatory mediator: (A) Tumor necrosis factor, (B) Myeloperoxidase, (C) Interferons, (D) Interleukins | Answer is B. steps: (1) migration and proliferation of fibroblasts into the site of injury and (2) deposition of ECM proteins produced by these cells. The recruitment and activation of fibroblasts to syn- thesize connective tissue proteins are driven by many growth factors, including PDGF, FGF-2 (described earlier), an... | |
A drug given for metoclopramide induced dystonic reaction is :: (A) Pheniramine, (B) Promethazine, (C) Chlorpromazine, (D) Prochlorperazine | Answer is B. "Acute muscle dystonia caused by antiemetic-antipsychotic drugs is promptly relieved by parenteral promethazine or hydroxyzine." This is based on the central anticholinergic action of the drugs.
Promethazine is a first-generation anti-histaminic which has a maximum penetration of blood-brain barrier and ma... | |
Compared with cow's milk, mother's milk has more?: (A) Lactose, (B) Vitamin D, (C) Proteins, (D) Fat | Answer is A. Mother's milk has more lactose as compared to cow's milk. | |
When pulp cannot be extirpated in narrow canals, which of the following can be used: (A) Obtundant, (B) Astringent, (C) Haemostatic, (D) Mummifying agent | Answer is D. None | |
A man presented with persistent ear pain and discharge, retro-orbital pain and modified radical mastoidectomy was done to him. Patient comes back with persistent discharge, what is your diagnosis?: (A) Diffuse serous labyrinthitis, (B) Purulent labyrinthitis, (C) Petrositis, (D) Latent mastoiditis | Answer is C. In a patient with CSOM, persistent ear discharge with or without deep seated pain in spite of an adequate coical or modified mastoidectomy points towards petrositis. Spread of infection from middle ear and mastoid to the petrous pa of temporal bone is petrositis it can also involve adjacent 5th cranial ner... | |
Child presents with linear verrucous plaques on the trunk with vacuolisation of keratinocytes in S.Spinosum and S.Granulosum. Diagnosis is ?: (A) Incontinenta pigmenti, (B) Delayed hypersensitivity reaction, (C) Verrucous epidermal nevus, (D) Linear darriers disease | Answer is C. Verrucuous epidermal nevus Linear verrucuous lesions, with characteristic histopathological feature of granular degeneration of the epidermis ours the diagnosis of verrucous epidermal nevus. Epidermal nevus Epidermal nevi are hamaomas that are characterized by hyperplasia of the epidermis and adnexal struc... | |
A swelling behind the ear suggest fracture of:: (A) Zygomatic complex, (B) Temporal bone, (C) Orbital floor fracture, (D) Condylar fracture | Answer is D. None | |
Best test to detect pneumoperitoneum is:: (A) Chest X-ray, (B) X-ray abdomen in supine position, (C) X-ray abdomen in supine position, (D) X-ray abdomen in lateral decubitus | Answer is D. X-ray abdomen in lateral decubitus | |
In the intraepthielial region of the mucosa of intestine the predominant cell population is that of: (A) B cell, (B) T cell, (C) Plasma cells, (D) Basopils | Answer is B. IEL are6 a distinctive population of T cells dispersed among the luminal epithelial cells. paicularly in the small intestine there is a predominantly of CD8+T cells | |
Terry Thomas sign is seen in: (A) Keinbock's disease, (B) Carpal dislocation, (C) Calcaneal disorder, (D) Hip trauma | Answer is B. scapholunate dislocation : * Most common ligamentous instability of the wrist * Patients may have high degree of pain despite apparently normal radiographs * Physicians should suspect this injury if patient has wrist effusion and pain seemingly out of propoion to the injury * If improperly diagnosed can le... | |
The basic reason for "reperfusion injury" to the myocardium is:: (A) Generation of free radicals, (B) Extension of the ischemic zone, (C) Increased ICF, (D) Increased ECF | Answer is C. After MI, there is failure of Na+-K+ pump resulting in NCX failure Thus intracellular Ca+2 increases Now when perfusion is established (nutrients are available), because of increased ICF Ca+2, cardiac fibers contract very strongly Already muscle fibers are fragile due to M.I, now this contraction results i... | |
The maxillary teeth which have single antagonist are:: (A) Lateral incisors, (B) Permanent canines, (C) Permanent central incisors, (D) Third molars | Answer is D. None | |
A 5-year-old girl is brought to the physician after her parents noticed red blood in her stool. Physical examination reveals mucocutaneous pigmentation. Small bowel radiography discloses multiple, small- to medium-sized polyps that are diagnosed pathologically as hamartomas. Which of the following is the most likely di... | Answer is C. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is an autosomal dominant, hereditary disorder characterized by intestinal hamartomatous polyps and mucocutaneous melanin pigmentation, which is particularly evident on the face, buccal mucosa, hands, feet, and perianal and genital regions. The polyps seen in Peutz-Jeghers syndrome ar... | |
First indices to change in iron deficiency anemia is -: (A) S. Iron, (B) Total iron binding capacity, (C) S. Ferritin, (D) S. Haemoglobin concentration | Answer is C. The single most sensitive tool for evaluating the iron status is by measurement of serum ferritin. Hemoglobin concentration is relatively insensitive. REF. PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICAL 21ST EDITION. PAGE NO - 623 | |
Which of the following is associated with the disease pathology seen in this child?: (A) Leg length discrepancy, (B) Airway involvement, (C) Glaucoma, (D) Growth hormone deficiency | Answer is C. Child with right sided po-wine stain- seen in sturge weber syndrome. Features of sturge weber syndrome: S- Seizure T- Trigeminal distribution of po wine stain U- Unilateral weakness R- Retardation( mental retardation) G-Glaucoma E- Buphthalamos here, glaucoma is associated with surface ocular vascular malf... | |
Self etching primers: (A) Simultaneously etch and prime dentin and enamel, (B) Etches enamel only, (C) Only bonds to enamel, (D) Only removes smear layer | Answer is A. None | |
Patient came with hydrops and scarring of cornea. What would be the treatment modality you would opt for him:: (A) Penetrating Keratoplasty, (B) Endothelial lamellar Keratoplasty, (C) Deep anterior lamellar keratoplasty, (D) Collagen cross linking | Answer is A. Penetrating keratoplasty has to be done in cases of deep corneal scar or hydrops. SURGICAL MODALITIES FOR KERATOCONUS Keratoplasty for Keratoconus DALK (deep anterior Lamellar keratoplasty): when > 1/2 of stroma is involved. ALTK (Anterior lamellar therapeutic keratoplasty) : When less than 1/2 of stroma i... | |
Incubation period of Mumps -: (A) 4-5 days, (B) 7-15 days, (C) 12-24 days, (D) 50 days | Answer is C. Incubation period of mumps varies from 2 to 4 weks, usually 14- 18 days Reference : Park&;s Textbook of preventive and social medicine, 24th edition.Pg no.162 | |
Drainage of venous blood from testes following division of testicular vein for treatment of varicocele is by: March 2009: (A) Cremasteric vein, (B) Dorsal vein of penis, (C) Internal pudendal vein, (D) Pampiniform plexus | Answer is A. Ans. A: Cremasteric veinVaricocelectomy, the surgical correction of a varicocele, is performed on an outpatient basis.The three most common approaches are inguinal (groin), retroperitoneal (abdominal), and infrainguinal/subinguinal (below the groin).Possible complications of this procedure include hematoma... | |
In Moore's classification of omphalocole (examphalos), type I umbilical defect is less than ________ cm.: (A) 0.5, (B) 2.5, (C) 3.5, (D) 4.5 | Answer is B. Moore suggested a classification of omphalocele into types 1, 2 and 3 with the diameters of < 2.5 cm, 2.5 to 5 cm and > 5 cm respectively. | |
A patient with fibrous dysplasia can be treated by: (A) Surgical excision, (B) Removal of adjacent teeth, (C) Irradiation of the Lesion, (D) Conservative surgery | Answer is D. None | |
Lyme disease is transmitted by -: (A) Rat flea, (B) Tick, (C) Mite, (D) None | Answer is B. Hard ticks transmit the following disease Tick typhus Viral encephalitis Viral fever Viral hemorrhagic fever Tularemia KFD Tick paralysis Human babesiosis Soft tick transmits Q fever Relapsing fever KFD(outside India) Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 25th edition, Page No. 840 | |
A 35-year-old woman, on hemodialysis for chronic renal disease, complains of pain in the hands. On examination, the joints are normal with no inflammation or tenderness on palpation. Lab values reveal a low calcium, high phosphate, and high PTH level. What is the most likely diagnosis? (See Figure below.): (A) sclerode... | Answer is C. The diagnosis is secondary hyperparathyroidism as a consequence of the chronic renal disease. Calcium deposits are seen in the periarticular areas of the fourth and fifth metacarpophalangeal, third proximal interphalangeal, and fourth distal interphalangeal joints. There is slight soft tissue swelling, esp... | |
Hyaline in islets of Langerhans resemble -: (A) Mucin, (B) Amyloid, (C) Glycolipid, (D) Phospholipid | Answer is B. None | |
Emphysema aquosum is associated with?: (A) Dry drowning, (B) Wet drowning, (C) Immersion syndrome, (D) Secondary drowning | Answer is B. Emphysema aquosum is a sign of wet drowning. Drowning fluid actually penetrates alveolar walls to enter the tissues and the blood vessels. This has been described as emphysema aquosum. Cause of death in wet drowning: Disruption of pulmonary surfactant Dry drowning: Water does not enter the lungs, but death... | |
Fosphenytoin different from phenytoin in which of the following-: (A) Can be used in absence seizures, (B) Can be mixed with saline, (C) Can be given orally, (D) It is the drug of choice for myoclonic seizures | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Can be mixed with saline o While phenytoin cannot be injected in a drip of glucose solution, fosphenytoin can be injected with saline and glucose. | |
Macrocytic anemia is seen in all EXCEPT -: (A) Vitamin B12 deficiency, (B) Hemolytic anemia, (C) Post hemorrhagic anemia, (D) Anemia of chronic disease | Answer is C. Robbins basic pathology 8th edition, page no 423, Answer is option3, post hemorrhagic anemia Post Hemorrhagic anemia is normocytic and normochromic. With chronic blood loss, iron stores are gradually depleted. Iron is essential for hemoglobin synthesis and effective eeythropoiesis, and it's deficiency thus... | |
Chyluria is due to-: (A) Carcinoma, (B) Tuberculosis, (C) Filaria, (D) Malaria | Answer is C. The most common presentations of the lymphatic filariases are asymptomatic (or subclinical) microfilaremia, hydrocele , acute adenolymphangitis (ADL), and chronic lymphatic disease. If there is obstruction of the retroperitoneal lymphatics, increased renal lymphatic pressure leads to rupture of the renal l... | |
Which of the following is true about pathophysiology of skeletal fluorosis?: (A) Fluorine increases PTH levels by direct action, (B) Fluoroappatite crystals are resistant to osteoclasts, (C) Fluorine decreases vitamin D levels, (D) Fluorine erodes bone, thereby decreasing bone density | Answer is B. Fluorosis: Excessive deposition of fluorine occurs in bone and soft tissues. Fluorine stimulates osteoblastic activityand fluoroappatite crystals are laid down in bone which are resistant to osteoclastic resorption. This leads to calcium retention, impaired mineralization and secondary hyperparathyroidism.... | |
Patient is on Autocoids for 1 year now complains of severe pain Epigastrium relieved by antacid drugs. He complaints of Right Iliac fossa pain and loss of liver dullness. Diagnosis is:: (A) Perforation of duodenum, (B) Diverticulitis, (C) Gastroenteritis, (D) Enteric perforation | Answer is A. Ans. (a) Perforation of duodenum* This is a clear-cut case of drug induced ulcer and perforation - Duodenal ulcer perforation* Features are diffuse abdominal pain with right iliac fossa pain due to tracking of pus in right colic gutter - Valentino Syndrome* Obliteration of liver dullness* Board like rigidi... | |
Upon contact between the sperm head and the zona pellucida, penetration of the sperm into the egg is allowed because of: (A) The acrosome reaction, (B) The zona reaction, (C) The perivitelline space, (D) Pronuclei formation | Answer is A. . | |
A person switches from high fat diet to low fat diet with compensatory increase in carbohydrates to maintain the same calories. Which of the following fat component will be increased ?: (A) Chylomicron, (B) VLDL, (C) IDL, (D) HDL | Answer is B. As excess of carbohydrates are conveed to fat in the body (liver) which eventually gets packed into VLDL so, VLDL represents the amount of fat production in the body, or in other words, it also represent excess dietary carbohydrate intake. While Chylomicrons represents the externally taken fats. Function L... | |
G-cells are present mostly in- G-cells are present mostly in-: (A) Fundus, (B) Cardia, (C) Pyloric antrum, (D) Body | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Pyloric antrum | |
Which type of cells are prominently infiltrated in Rheumatoid arthritis?: (A) B cells, (B) T-cells, (C) NK-cells, (D) Both B & T Cells | Answer is B. (B) T-cells[?]Role of T cells in RAoProminent T-cell infiltrate in RA synoviumoGenetic similarities between RA patients-Specific human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-DR genes - HLA DR4, DR14 and DR1oShared Epitope: The third hypervariable region of DR b chains, especially amino acids 70 through 74.oCD4+ T helper ... | |
Most common cause of isolated splenic metastasis is:: (A) Carcinoma pancreas, (B) Carcinoma stomach, (C) Carcinoma ovary, (D) Carcinoma cervix | Answer is C. Causes of isolated splenic metastasis: Carcinoma Ovary (27%) > Colorectal carcinoma (26%) > Uterine cancer (17%) MC primary for metastasis of spleen: Malignant melanoma (30-50%) > Ca Breast (21%) > Ca lung (18%) | |
Cellular oxidation is inhibited by :: (A) Cyanide, (B) Carbon dioxide, (C) Chocolate, (D) Carbonated beverages | Answer is A. A i.e. Cyanide | |
Which of the following includes the contents of the orbit: (A) Orbital and bulbar fascia, (B) Abducent nerve, (C) Superior Ophthalmic Veins, (D) All of the Above | Answer is D. Content of Orbit:
Eyeball - Eyeball occupies anterior 1/3rd of orbit.
Fascia - Orbital and bulbar fascia.
Muscles - Extraocular and intraocular muscles.
Vessels - Ophthalmic artery, superior and inferior ophthalmic veins and lymphatics.
Nerves - Optic, oculomotor, trochlear and abducent, branches of ophth... | |
Pulse pressure in severe aoic regurgitation is equal to-: (A) 30-45mmHg, (B) 45-60mmHg, (C) 60-75 mmHg, (D) 75-90 mm Hg | Answer is D. Therefore, a defining characteristic of aoic regurgitation is an increase in aoic pulse pressure (systolic minus diastolic pressure). ... Early in the course of regurgitant aoic valve disease, there is a large increase in left ventricular end-diastolic pressure and left atrial pressure.pulse pressure usual... | |
Transplacental exchanges that take place are essential to the well being of the fetus. Which of those listed below is NOT a method?: (A) Simple diffusion, (B) Active transpo, (C) Endocytosis, (D) Exocytosis | Answer is D. Placental exchanges that take place occur according to different mechanisms. Simple diffusion is the movement of molecules of gas and water from a high concentration to a low concentration. Iodine readily crosses the placental barrier. Active transpo is another method. This method transpos specific molecul... | |
Superficial inguinal lymph nodes drain from all of the following except:: (A) Urethra, (B) Anal canal below the pectinate line, (C) Glans penis, (D) Perineum | Answer is C. Superficial Inguinal Lymph NodesThe horizontal groupThe medial members of the group receive superficial lymph vessels from the anterior abdominal wall below the level of the umbilicus and from the perineum. The lymph vessels from the urethra, the external genitalia of both sexes (but not the testes), and t... | |
Which of the following anticancer drug can cause flagellated dermatitis?: (A) Cisplatin, (B) L-asparginase, (C) Doxorubicin, (D) Bleomycin | Answer is D. FLAGELLATED DERMATITIS: It is characterised by pruritic, erythematous, linear streaks that resemble whiplash marks, hence the name flagellated. Bleomycin is metabolized by an enzyme hydrolase. This enzyme is deficient in skin and lungs. Therefore, the major adverse effects of bleomycin is related to skin (... | |
Hypoplastic defects in permanent central and lateral incisors are likely to result due to severe illness or other factors during:: (A) First nine months of life, (B) First two years of life, (C) First month of life, (D) Two or three years of life | Answer is A. None | |
The commonest cranial nerve involved in acoustic neuroma is:: (A) IX, (B) VI, (C) VIII, (D) X | Answer is C. As the eighth nerve schwannoma grows, it extends into the posterior fossa to occupy the angle between the cerebellum and pons (cerebellopontine angle). In this lateral position, it is so situated as to compress the seventh, fifth, and less often the ninth and tenth cranial nerves, which are implicated in v... | |
The first case introduced into the population group to be studied is called:: (A) Index case, (B) Primary case, (C) Initial case, (D) Reference case | Answer is B. Ans: b (Primary case) Ref: Park, 19th ed, p. 90The term primary case refers to the first case of a communicable disease introduced into the population unit being studied.The term index case refers to the first case to come to the attention of the investigator; it is not always the primary case. Secondary c... | |
Long thyroid stimulating agent is: (A) Antibody to thyroid globulin, (B) Antibody to thyroid cell receptors, (C) Antibody to thyroxine, (D) Antibody to thyroid cells | Answer is B. Answer is option 2, antibody to thyroid receptors. Thyrotropin receptor (TSHR) antibodies that stimulate the thyroid (TSAb) cause Graves' hypehyroidism and TSHR antibodies which block thyrotropin action (TBAb) are occasionally responsible for hypothyroidism. Unusual patients switch from TSAb to TBAb (or vi... | |
Pungent volatile anesthetic agents are:: (A) Halthane, (B) Isoflurane, (C) Sevoflurane, (D) Desflurane | Answer is B. B i.e. Isoflurane | |
What are the minimum and maximum possible values of Glasgow Coma Score?: (A) Minimum = 3, Maximum = 15, (B) Minimum = 0, Maximum = 13, (C) Minimum = 0, Maximum = 15, (D) Minimum = 3, Maximum = 18 | Answer is A. Ans. a. Minimum = 3. Maximum = 15 (Ref: Harrison 19/e p1730, 18/e p3381-3382; Sabiston 19/e p1894; Schwartz 9/e p1522; Bailey 26/e p312. 25/e p301. 302)In Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS). maximum score is 15 and minimum score is 3.Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)Eye OpeningVerbal responseBest Motor responseSpontaneous4Or... | |
Iron is absorbed in: March 2012: (A) Stomach, (B) Duodenum, (C) Ileum, (D) Duodenum + Jejunum | Answer is B. Ans: B i.e. DuodenumSite of absorptionStomach is the site of absorption of water and alcoholDuodenum is the site of absorption of iron and calciumIleum is the site of absorption of vitamin B12 and bile salt | |
Falanga is -: (A) Suspension by wrist, (B) Beating of feet, (C) Placing electric wires in vagina, (D) Clamping of thighs between bamboos | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Beating of feet * Beating may be of following types -i) Falanga (Falolka/Baatinada) : Beating of soles of feet with blunt object.ii) Telefono : Simultaneous beating of both ears with palms.iii) Quirofana : Beating on abdomen while upper half of body lying unsupported on table. | |
The most ideal explanation for recurrence of odontogenic keratocyst is: (A) Increased mitotic activity of the epithelial lining, (B) Friability of the epithelial lining, (C) Presence of satellite cysts or daughter cysts, (D) Continued proliferation of rests of dental lamina | Answer is C. None | |
Cognitive model of depression is given by ?: (A) Ellis, (B) Beck, (C) Godfrey, (D) Meicheinbanon | Answer is B. Beck Cognitive therapy is a psychotherapy developed by American pyschiatrist Aaron T. Beck. Cognitive therapy is one of the therapeutic approaches within the larger group of cognitive behavioural therapies. Cognitive therapy seeks to help the client overcome difficulties by identifying and changing dysfunc... | |
A 22 years old man presents with a solitary 2 cm space occupying lesion of mixed echogenecity in the right lobe of the liver on USG. The rest of the liver is normal. Which of the following test should be done next?: (A) Ultrasound guided biopsy of the lesion, (B) Hepatic scintigraphy, (C) Hepatic angiography, (D) Contr... | Answer is B. MRI as the diagnostic test of choice for hepatic hemangioma at most centers. Nuclear medicine studies may be used to confirm the diagnosis when a probable hemangioma is detected on ultra-sonography. Nuclear medicine studies may also help to clarify the nature of a lesion when the diagnosis is equivocal on ... | |
Dye used for myelography: (A) Conray 320, (B) Myodil, (C) Dianosil, (D) Iopaoic acid | Answer is B. contrast agents used for myelography are : Iohexol Iopamidol Metrizamide Myodil | |
Which is NOT pyrogenic Interleukin: (A) IL-1, (B) TNF-a, (C) IL-4, (D) IL-6 | Answer is C. (C) IL-4 # Pyrogenic cytokines: Known pyrogenic cytokines include IL-1, IL-6, TNF, ciliary neurotropic factor (CNTF), and interferon (INF)a. Others probably exist; although IL-18 - a membrane of the IL-1 family - does not appear to be pyrogenic cytokine. Each cytokine is encoded by a separate gene, and eac... | |
A 45-year old male presented with severe respiratory distress. O/E he had pedal edema, bilateral crepitation on auscultation. He was admitted to emergency department and expired 2 days of admission. Lung biopsy done suggested the following. What is your diagnosis?: (A) CMV pneumonitis, (B) Small cell Ca lung, (C) Tuber... | Answer is D. Ans. (d) Heart failure cellsThe lung biopsy shows intra-alveolar transudate granular pale pink material along with alveolar micro-hemorrhages & hemosiderin-laden macrophages ("heart failure" cells) seen in left-sided congestive heart failure. | |
Murder is.............. offence.: (A) Cognizable, non-compoundable and non-bailable, (B) Cognizable, compoundable and bailable, (C) Non-cognizable, non-compoundable and non-bailable, (D) Non-cognizable, compoundable and bailable | Answer is A. Ans: (a) Cognizable, non-compoundable and non-bailableRef: The First Schedule, Classification of Offences, Indian Penal CodeCognizable offencesCognizable offences are more serious crimes wherein police can arrest the suspect without any warrant.Ex. rape, murder, ragging, dowry death etc.Compoundable offenc... | |
In stage III ovarian cancer patient with upper abdominal disease < 5cm, management of choice is: (A) Debulking surgery, (B) Mantle cell irradiation, (C) Abdomino-pelvic radiotherapy, (D) Neo-adjuvant chemotherapy | Answer is A. Management of Advanced stage diseaseIncludes stage III and IVDebulking surgery versus neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by Postoperative chemotherapyPrimary cytoreduction surgery is the preferred in1. Retroperitoneal only disease preoperatively 2. Patients with stage IIIC or IV disease with good performanc... |
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