The people of the State of California do enact as follows:

SECTION 1.
(a)  The Legislature finds and declares all of the following:
(1) Residential and commercial buildings and the systems and equipment within them were responsible for 69 percent of all electricity consumption in California in 2013, the equivalent output of 70 500-megawatt powerplants. Under the 2000–13 historical growth trends, this is projected to increase to the equivalent of 79 powerplants by 2030. The electric power sector is the second largest source of greenhouse gas emissions in California after transportation, comprising 21 percent of the state’s total emissions.
(2) Plug-in equipment is responsible for two-thirds of electricity consumption in residential buildings and a significant share of electricity consumption in office buildings. This electricity consumption is increasing rapidly, indicating that current plug-in equipment efficiency policy efforts are outpaced by the growth in the number of electronic devices and their electricity consumption, jeopardizing California’s ability to meet its energy and climate goals.
(3) Cost-effective technologies such as those used in mobile electronic devices already exist to significantly reduce the electricity consumption of plug-in equipment, but are not used in the majority of plug-in electronic devices.
(4) California has set ambitious goals for renewable energy and energy efficiency in the envelope, major systems, and lighting of buildings, but does not have quantified goals for a category that now represents two-thirds of the electricity consumption in the state’s residential buildings and a significant share of the electricity consumption in commercial buildings.
(5) Market barriers, such as a lack of consumer awareness and information on product lifetime energy costs, and split incentives between manufacturers who make product design decisions and consumers who pay the electricity bill, give efficiency programs and standards a critical role in realizing the economic potential for energy efficiency in plug-in equipment.
(6) Challenges with the evaluation and the attribution of program savings to utilities and program implementers, as well as the focus on short-term savings, are limiting the effective use of these programs to capture energy-saving opportunities that require upfront investment to yield large future savings through market transformation.
(7) The State Energy Resources Conservation and Development Commission and the Public Utilities Commission have set a goal to achieve zero net energy for all new residential buildings by 2020 and for all new, and a substantial proportion of existing, commercial buildings by 2030.
(8) The Legislature supports the zero net energy goals of the State Energy Resources Conservation and Development Commission and the Public Utilities Commission as a key strategy to decarbonize the California economy.
(9) Plug-in equipment electricity consumption may not be fully accounted for in zero net energy models, leading to buildings designed and certified as zero net energy not necessarily achieving zero net energy in real-world operation when occupants bring in typical plug-in equipment.
(b) It is the intent of the Legislature to ensure that, in support of the state’s climate and energy goals, plug-in equipment energy consumption is reduced where technologically feasible and cost effective.
SEC. 2.
Section 25327 is added to the Public Resources Code, to read:
25327.
(a) (1) For purposes of this subdivision “HVAC” means heating, ventilation, and air conditioning.
(2) For the purposes of this section, except as provided in paragraph (3), “plug-in equipment” means an electrical device that plugs into a power outlet, including, but not limited to, household appliances, electronic products, miscellaneous electrical loads, portable and other plug-in HVAC equipment, and commercial plug-in appliances.
(3) “Plug-in equipment” does not include the following:
(A) Non-plug-in HVAC, including split, packaged, or built-up HVAC equipment that is typically installed by an HVAC contractor.
(B) Lighting, whether built in or portable.
(C) Infrastructure loads wired directly to the building electrical system, such as ground-fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) breakers and outlets, wired smoke or carbon monoxide detectors, and lighting switches.
(D) Electric vehicles.
(4) For purposes of this subdivision, power outlets include line outlets, such as 110-volt alternating current (AC) and other emerging power delivery mechanisms, including Universal Serial Bus (USB), Power over Ethernet (PoE), and 24-volt direct current (VDC).
(b) The commission shall, in collaboration with the Public Utilities Commission, do all of the following:
(1) Conduct an analysis of plug-in equipment electricity consumption, including appliances, electronics, and miscellaneous electric loads, to assess current use and trends. The commission shall draw on existing data and already-funded studies where appropriate to limit costs and reduce the time required to complete the analysis. The analysis shall focus on the top 80 percent of plug-in equipment average annual electricity consumption.
(2) Before January 1, 2018, set statewide, long-term energy efficiency targets
for
to reduce
the
amount of
electricity consumed by plug-in equipment.
(3) Develop an implementation plan, in consultation with stakeholders, including equipment manufacturers and retailers, to achieve the targets
set forth in
established under
paragraph (2). The implementation plan shall meet all of the following requirements:
(A) Be comprised of a complementary portfolio of techniques, applications, and practices that may include, but need not be limited to: revising existing, and setting new, appliance efficiency standards; working with federal government agencies to revise existing, and implement new, federal standards; implementing incentive programs, appliance early replacement rebate programs that link purchase and disposal rebates, and upstream market transformation programs; expanding research and development; and public outreach and education efforts.
(B) Consider costs and ratepayer protections, consistent with Section 25000.1.
(C) Use an accurate cost-effectiveness methodology for assessing the long-term value of efficiency savings and ensure that benefits outweigh costs to ratepayers.
(4) Track the progress of the implementation plan in meeting the targets annually through the Electricity Supply Analysis Division of the commission and the Energy Division of the Public Utilities Commission.
(5) Revise the implementation plan and priorities in consultation with stakeholders.
(6) Update the implementation plan, as a part of the integrated energy policy report required pursuant to Section 25302, with a report on the progress toward meeting the targets through the tracking required pursuant to paragraph (4).
(c) The Public Utilities Commission shall, in collaboration with the commission, work with stakeholders, including equipment manufacturers, equipment retailers, and electric utilities, to address challenges that may limit or inhibit the achievement of the targets set forth in paragraph (2) of subdivision (b), including, but not limited to, the evaluation and attribution of energy savings and the enabling of market transformation programs.


The people of the State of California do enact as follows:

SECTION 1.
Section 4212 of the Public Resources Code is amended to read:
4212.
(a) (1) By
September 1, 2011,
July 1, 2016,
the board shall
adopt
amend the existing
emergency regulations to establish a fire prevention fee for the purposes of this chapter in an amount not to exceed
one hundred fifty dollars ($150)
one hundred fifty-two dollars and thirty-three cents ($152.33)
to be charged on each habitable structure on a parcel that is within a state responsibility area.
(2) The Legislature finds and declares that a fire prevention fee of not more than
one hundred fifty dollars ($150)
one hundred fifty-two dollars and thirty-three cents ($152.33)
is a reasonable amount for the necessary fire prevention activities of the state that benefit the owner of a habitable structure within a state responsibility area.
(b) On July 1,
2013,
2017,
and annually thereafter, the board may adjust the fire prevention
fees
fee
imposed pursuant to this chapter to reflect the percentage of change in the average annual value of the Implicit Price Deflator for State and Local Government Purchases of Goods and Services for the United States, as calculated by the United States Department of Commerce for the 12-month period in the third quarter of the prior calendar year, as reported by the Department of Finance.
(c) Emergency regulations
adopted
amended
pursuant to subdivision (a) shall be
adopted
amended
in accordance with the rulemaking provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code). The
adoption
amendment
of emergency regulations shall be deemed an emergency and necessary for the immediate preservation of the public peace, health, and safety, or general welfare.
SECTION 1.
SEC. 2.
Section 4213 of the Public Resources Code is amended to read:
4213.
(a) (1) The fire prevention fee imposed pursuant to Section 4212 shall be collected annually by the State Board of Equalization in accordance with the Fee Collection Procedures Law (Part 30 (commencing with Section 55001) of Division 2 of the Revenue and Taxation Code).
(2) Notwithstanding the appeal provisions in the Fee Collection Procedures Law, a determination by the department that a person is required to pay a fire prevention fee, or a determination by the department regarding the amount of that fee, is subject to review under Article 2 (commencing with Section 4220) and is not subject to a petition for redetermination by the State Board of Equalization.
(3) (A) Notwithstanding the refund provisions in the Fee Collection Procedures Law, the State Board of Equalization shall not accept any claim for refund that is based on the assertion that a determination by the department improperly or erroneously calculated the amount of the fire prevention fee, or incorrectly determined that the person is subject to that fee, unless that determination has been set aside by the department or a court reviewing the determination of the department.
(B) If the department or a reviewing court determines that a person is entitled to a refund of all or part of the fire prevention fee, the person shall make a claim to the State Board of Equalization pursuant to Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 55221) of Part 30 of Division 2 of the Revenue and Taxation Code.
(b) The annual fire prevention fee shall be due and payable 60 days from the date of assessment by the State Board of Equalization.
(c) On or before each January 1, the department shall annually transmit to the State Board of Equalization the appropriate name and address of each person who is liable for the fire prevention fee and the amount of the fee to be assessed, as authorized by this article, and at the same time the department shall provide to the State Board of Equalization a contact telephone number for the board to be printed on the bill to respond to questions about the fee.
(d) If in any given fiscal year there are sufficient amounts of money in the State Responsibility Area Fire Prevention Fund created pursuant to Section 4214 to finance the costs of the programs under subdivision (d) of Section 4214 for that fiscal year, the fee may not be collected that fiscal year.
SEC. 2.
SEC. 3.
Section 4220 of the Public Resources Code is amended to read:
4220.
A person from whom the fire prevention fee is determined to be due under this chapter may petition for a redetermination of whether this chapter applies to that person within 60 days after service upon him or her of a notice of the determination. If a petition for redetermination is not filed within the 60-day period, the amount determined to be due becomes final at the expiration of the 60-day period.
SEC. 3.
SEC. 4.
Section 4222 of the Public Resources Code is amended to read:
4222.
If a petition for redetermination of the application of this chapter is filed within the 60-day period, the department shall reconsider whether the fee is due and make a determination in writing. The department may eliminate the fee based on a determination that this chapter does not apply to the person who filed the petition.


The people of the State of California do enact as follows:

SECTION 1.
It is the intent of the Legislature to permit pawnbrokers to conduct business transactions by electronic means, except when establishing an original loan. It is further the intent of the Legislature to permit such transactions to be made in conformity with the Uniform Electronic Transactions Act, as set forth in Title 2.5 (commencing with Section 1633.1) of Part 2 of Division 3 of the Civil Code.
SEC. 2.
Section 21201 of the Financial Code is amended to read:
21201.
(a) Every loan made by a pawnbroker for which goods are received in pledge as security shall be evidenced by a written contract, a copy of which shall be furnished to the pledgor. The loan contract shall provide a loan period that is a minimum of four months, shall set forth the loan period and the date on which the loan is due and payable, and shall clearly inform the pledgor of his or her right to redeem the pledge during the loan period.
(b) Every loan contract shall contain the following notice, in at least 8-point boldface type and circumscribed by a box, immediately above the space for the pledgor’s signature:

“You may redeem the property you have pledged at any time until the close of business on ____ [fill in date no less than four months from date loan begins]. To redeem, you must pay the amount of the loan and the applicable charges which have accrued through the date on which you redeem.”

(c) Every pawnbroker shall retain in his or her possession every article pledged to him or her for the duration of the loan period. During such period the pledgor may redeem the articles upon payment of the amount of the loan and the applicable charges. If the pledgor and the pawnbroker agree in writing that the pawned property may be stored off premises, following the request for redemption of the loan, the pawnbroker shall return the pledged property to the pledgor the next calendar day when both the pawnbroker’s store and the storage facility are open, not to exceed two business days.
(d) If any pledged article is not redeemed during the loan period as provided herein, and the pledgor and pawnbroker do not mutually agree in writing to extend the loan period, the pawnbroker shall notify the pledgor within one month after expiration of the loan period. If the pawnbroker fails to notify the pledgor within one month after the expiration of the loan period, the pawnbroker shall not charge interest from the day after the expiration of the one-month period. The pawnbroker shall notify the pledgor at his or her last known mailing or electronic address of the termination of the loan period, by a means for which verification of mailing or, at the sole option of the pledgor, electronic transmission of the notification can be provided by the pawnbroker, and extending the right of redemption, during posted business hours, for a period of 10 days from date of mailing or electronic transmission of that notice. Electronic notice of the termination of the loan period shall be valid if the pledgor has previously responded to an electronic communication sent by the pawnbroker to the pledgor’s last known electronic address provided by the pledgor. Upon the initiation of each new or replacement loan, the pledgor shall affirm that the current electronic address on file with the pawnbroker is valid. The 10-day notice shall state, in substantially the same format as the following: “If the tenth day falls on a day when the pawnshop is closed, the time period is extended to the next day that the pawnshop is open.”
(e) The posted schedule of charges required pursuant to Section 21200.5 shall contain a notice informing the pledgor that if he or she desires, the pawnbroker shall send the notice of termination of the loan period by registered or certified mail with return receipt requested, upon prepayment of the mailing costs.
(f) If any pledged article is not redeemed within the 10-day notice period, the pawnbroker shall become vested with all right, title, and interest of the pledgor, or his or her assigns, to the pledged article, to hold and dispose of as his or her own property. Any other provision of law relating to the foreclosure and sale of pledges shall not be applicable to any pledge the title to which is transferred in accordance with this section. The pawnbroker shall not sell any article of pledged property until he or she has become vested with the title to that property pursuant to this section.
(g) The sale of pledged property is a misdemeanor pursuant to Section 21209.
SEC. 3.
Section 21201.5 of the Financial Code is amended to read:
21201.5.
(a) During the contractual loan period and any extension thereof, but prior to the start of the 10-day grace period provided in subdivision (d) of Section 21201, a pledgor may request, and a pawnbroker may consent to, a replacement loan to take effect upon the expiration of the loan period stated in the active loan contract delivered to the pledgor under Section 21201 or this section.
(b) Alternatively, a pledgor may request, and a pawnbroker may consent to, a replacement loan during the 10-day grace period provided in subdivision (d) of Section 21201. Any such replacement loan shall become effective on the date it is issued.
(c) All of the following shall apply to a replacement loan issued pursuant to this section:
(1) The loan shall be processed as, and deemed to be, a new loan subject to all other fees and charges permitted by this chapter.
(2) Before a replacement loan may be issued, the pledgor shall pay off all outstanding charges from the prior loan then due, including interest or any loan writing, storage, notification, or other fee authorized in this chapter, in cash or another form acceptable to the pawnbroker. The pledgor’s payment may be delivered to the pawnbroker by any method acceptable to the pawnbroker, including, but not limited to, United States mail, private mail, a personal representative, or electronic transfer. If insufficient payment is tendered by the pledgor or is not tendered in cash or a form acceptable to the pawnbroker, the pawnbroker shall, if commercially reasonable, return the payment in the same manner that the payment was delivered by the pledgor, or by another commercially reasonable manner, within five business days, and shall include a statement advising the pledgor the reason the payment was rejected. The pawnbroker is under no obligation to enter into a replacement loan if the amount is insufficient or the method of payment or form of tender is not cash or acceptable to the pawnbroker.
(3) The unpaid balance of the prior loan shall be debited to the replacement loan on which the same article or articles have been pledged. The replacement loan contract shall disclose the amount of the prior loan that is debited and shall otherwise be consistent with Section 21201.
(4) If the pledgor requests a replacement loan in person or electronically, the pledgor’s consent to the terms of the replacement loan shall be deemed given when he or she signs the written replacement loan contract in person or electronically in conformity with Section 21201.6.
(5) If the pledgor requests a replacement loan by mail or through a personal representative, the pledgor’s consent to the terms of the replacement loan shall be deemed given when all required charges from the prior loan then due are paid in a form acceptable to the pawnbroker. The principal amount of a replacement loan requested by mail or through a personal representative shall not exceed the principal amount of the prior loan.
(6) The terms of the replacement loan shall be consistent with this chapter on the date the replacement loan is issued.
(7) The replacement loan shall be evidenced by a written agreement or electronic record. The pawnbroker shall mail or otherwise transmit a copy of the written agreement or electronic record to the pledgor within five business days following receipt of payment by means for which verification of mailing or electronic transmittal can be provided by the pawnbroker.
SEC. 4.
Section 21201.6 is added to the Financial Code, to read:
21201.6.
The requirement for a written contract signed by the pledgor as set forth in Section 21201.5 may be met electronically if all of the following conditions are satisfied:
(a) The contract and transaction comply with the provisions of the Uniform Electronic Transactions Act, as set forth in Title 2.5 (commencing with Section 1633.1) of Part 2 of Division 3 of the Civil Code, as may be applicable at the time that the loan is entered into between the pawnbroker and the pledgor.
(b) Any written disclosures specified in this chapter to be set forth in a specified minimum type size are conspicuously presented to the pledgor prior to his or her execution of the electronic contract.
(c) The pawnbroker makes one of the following disclosures:
(1) If the principal loan amount is below two thousand five hundred dollars ($2,500), the pawnbroker discloses the maximum compensation due a pawnbroker as set forth in Section 21200.7 prior to the pledgor’s execution of the electronic contract.
(2) If the principal loan amount is two thousand five hundred dollars ($2,500) or more, the pawnbroker discloses the provisions of Sections 21051 and 22054 prior to the pledgor’s execution of the electronic contract.


The people of the State of California do enact as follows:

SECTION 1.
Section 2699.3 of the Labor Code is amended to read:
2699.3.
(a) A civil action by an aggrieved employee pursuant to subdivision (a) or (f) of Section 2699 alleging a violation of any provision listed in Section 2699.5 shall commence only after the following requirements have been met:
(1) (A) The aggrieved employee or representative shall give written notice by certified mail to the Labor and Workforce Development Agency and the employer of the specific provisions of this code alleged to have been violated, including the facts and theories to support the alleged violation.
(B) The employer may cure the alleged violation according to the procedures described in paragraph (2) of subdivision (c). If the alleged violation is not cured within the 33-day period prescribed in paragraph (2) of subdivision (c), in lieu of commencing a civil action, the employee or representative shall notify by certified mail the Labor and Workforce Development Agency and the employer of the failure to cure or, if the employee disputes that the alleged violation has been cured, the employee or representative shall provide notice pursuant to the procedures of subparagraph (A) of paragraph (3) of subdivision (c).
(2) (A) The agency shall notify the employer and the aggrieved employee or representative by certified mail that it does not intend to investigate the alleged violation within 30 calendar days of the postmark date of the notice received pursuant to subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1). Upon receipt of that notice or if no notice is provided within 33 calendar days of the postmark date of the notice given pursuant to subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1), the aggrieved employee may commence a civil action pursuant to Section 2699.
(B) If the agency intends to investigate the alleged violation, it shall notify the employer and the aggrieved employee or representative by certified mail of its decision within 33 calendar days of the postmark date of the notice received pursuant to subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1). Within 120 calendar days of that decision, the agency may investigate the alleged violation and issue any appropriate citation. If the agency determines that no citation will be issued, it shall notify the employer and aggrieved employee or representative of that decision within five business days thereof by certified mail. Upon receipt of that
notice
notice,
or if no citation is issued by the agency within that 158-day period prescribed by this subparagraph or if the agency fails to provide timely or any notification, the aggrieved employee may commence a civil action pursuant to Section 2699.
(C) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, a plaintiff may as a matter of right amend an existing complaint to add a cause of action arising under this part at any time within 60 days of the time periods specified in this part.
(b) A civil action by an aggrieved employee pursuant to subdivision (a) or (f) of Section 2699 alleging a violation of any provision of Division 5 (commencing with Section 6300) other than those listed in Section 2699.5 shall commence only after the following requirements have been met:
(1) (A) The aggrieved employee or representative shall give notice by certified mail to the Division of Occupational Safety and Health and the employer, with a copy to the Labor and Workforce Development Agency, of the specific provisions of Division 5 (commencing with Section 6300) alleged to have been violated, including the facts and theories to support the alleged violation.
(B) The employer may cure the alleged violation according to the procedures described in paragraph (2) of subdivision (c). If the alleged violation is not cured within the 33-day period prescribed in paragraph (2) of subdivision (c), in lieu of commencing a civil action, the employee or representative shall notify by certified mail the Division of Occupational Safety and Health and the employer, with a copy to the Labor and Workforce Development Agency, of the failure to cure or, if the employee disputes that the alleged violation has been cured, the employee or representative shall provide notice pursuant to the procedures of subparagraph (A) of paragraph (3) of subdivision (c).
(2) (A) The division shall inspect or investigate the alleged violation pursuant to the procedures specified in Division 5 (commencing with Section 6300).
(i) If the division issues a citation, the employee may not commence an action pursuant to Section 2699. The division shall notify the aggrieved employee or representative and employer in writing within 14 calendar days of certifying that the employer has corrected the violation.
(ii) If by the end of the period for inspection or investigation provided for in Section 6317, the division fails to issue a citation and the aggrieved employee disputes that decision, the employee may challenge that decision in the superior court. In such an action, the superior court shall follow precedents of the Occupational Safety and Health Appeals Board. If the court finds that the division should have issued a citation and orders the division to issue a citation, then the aggrieved employee may not commence a civil action pursuant to Section 2699.
(iii) A complaint in superior court alleging a violation of Division 5 (commencing with Section 6300) other than those listed in Section 2699.5 shall include therewith a copy of the notices provided to the division and employer pursuant to subparagraphs (A) and (B) of paragraph (1).
(iv) The superior court shall not dismiss the action for nonmaterial differences in facts or theories between those contained in the notices provided to the division and employer pursuant to subparagraphs (A) and (B) of paragraph (1) and the complaint filed with the court.
(B) If the division fails to inspect or investigate the alleged violation as provided by Section 6309, the aggrieved employee may commence a civil action pursuant to Section 2699.
(3) (A) Nothing in this subdivision shall be construed to alter the authority of the division to permit long-term abatement periods or to enter into memoranda of understanding or joint agreements with employers in the case of long-term abatement issues.
(B) Nothing in this subdivision shall be construed to authorize an employee to file a notice or to commence a civil action pursuant to Section 2699 during the period that an employer has voluntarily entered into consultation with the division to ameliorate a condition in that particular worksite.
(C) An employer who has been provided notice pursuant to this section may not then enter into consultation with the division in order to avoid an action under this section.
(4) The superior court shall review and approve any proposed settlement of alleged violations of the provisions of Division 5 (commencing with Section 6300) to ensure that the settlement provisions are at least as effective as the protections or remedies provided by state and federal law or regulation for the alleged violation. The provisions of the settlement relating to health and safety laws shall be submitted to the division at the same time that they are submitted to the court. This requirement shall be construed to authorize and permit the division to comment on those settlement provisions, and the court shall grant the division’s commentary the appropriate weight.
(c) A civil action by an aggrieved employee pursuant to subdivision (a) or (f) of Section 2699 alleging a violation of any provision other than those listed in Section 2699.5 or Division 5 (commencing with Section 6300) shall commence only after the following requirements have been met:
(1) The aggrieved employee or representative shall give written notice by certified mail to the Labor and Workforce Development Agency and the employer of the specific provisions of this code alleged to have been violated, including the facts and theories to support the alleged violation.
(2) (A) The employer may cure the alleged violation within 33 calendar days of the postmark date of the notice. The employer shall give written notice by certified mail within that period of time to the aggrieved employee or representative and the agency if the alleged violation is cured, including a description of actions taken, and no civil action pursuant to Section 2699 may commence. If the alleged violation is not cured within the 33-day period, the employee may commence a civil action pursuant to Section 2699.
(B) (i) Subject to the limitation in clause (ii), no employer may avail himself or herself of the notice and cure provisions of this subdivision more than three times in a 12-month period for the same violation or violations contained in the notice, regardless of the location of the worksite.
(ii) No employer may avail himself or herself of the notice and cure provisions of this subdivision with respect to alleged violations of paragraph (6) or (8) of subdivision (a) of Section 226 more than once in a 12-month period for the same violation or violations contained in the notice, regardless of the location of the worksite.
(3) (A) If the aggrieved employee disputes that the alleged violation has been cured, the aggrieved employee or representative shall provide written notice by certified mail, including specified grounds to support that dispute, to the employer and the agency.
(B) Within 17 calendar days of the postmark date of that notice, the agency shall review the actions taken by the employer to cure the alleged violation, and provide written notice of its decision by certified mail to the aggrieved employee or representative and the employer. The agency may grant the employer three additional business days to cure the alleged violation. If the agency determines that the alleged violation has not been cured or if the agency fails to provide timely or any notification, the employee may proceed with the civil action pursuant to Section 2699. If the agency determines that the alleged violation has been cured, but the employee still disagrees, the employee may appeal that determination to the superior court.
(d) The periods specified in this section are not counted as part of the time limited for the commencement of the civil action to recover penalties under this part.


The people of the State of California do enact as follows:

SECTION 1.
Section 54237 of the Government Code is amended to read:
54237.
(a) Notwithstanding Section 11011.1, an agency of the state disposing of surplus residential property shall do so in accordance with the following priorities and procedures:
(1) First, all single-family residences presently occupied by their former owners shall be offered to those former owners at the appraised fair market value.
(2) Second, all single-family residences shall be offered, pursuant to this article, to their present occupants who have occupied the property two years or more and who are persons and families of low or moderate income.
(3) Third, all single-family residences shall be offered, pursuant to this article, to their present occupants who have occupied the property five years or more and whose household income does not exceed 150 percent of the area median income.
(4) Fourth, a single-family residence shall not be offered, pursuant to this article, to present occupants who are not the former owners of the property if the present occupants have had an ownership interest in real property in the last three years.
(b) Single-family residences offered to their present occupants pursuant to paragraphs (2) and (3) of subdivision (a) shall be offered to those present occupants at an affordable price. The price shall not be less than the price paid by the agency for original acquisition, unless the acquisition price was greater than the current fair market value, and shall not be greater than fair market value. When a single-family residence is offered to present occupants at a price that is less than fair market value, the selling agency shall impose terms, conditions, and restrictions to ensure that the housing will remain available to persons and families of low or moderate income and households with incomes no greater than the incomes of the present occupants in proportion to the area median income. The Department of Housing and Community Development shall provide to the selling agency recommendations of standards and criteria for these prices, terms, conditions, and restrictions. The selling agency shall provide repairs required by lenders and government housing assistance programs, or, at the option of the agency, provide the present occupants with a replacement dwelling pursuant to Section 54237.5.
(c) If single-family residences are offered to their present occupants pursuant to paragraphs (2) and (3) of subdivision (a), the occupants shall certify their income and assets to the selling agency. When a single-family residence is offered to present occupants at a price that is less than fair market value, the selling agency may verify the certifications, in accordance with procedures utilized for verification of incomes of purchasers and occupants of housing financed by the California Housing Finance Agency and with regulations adopted for the verification of assets by the United States Department of Housing and Urban Development. The income and asset limitations and term of residency requirements of paragraphs (2) and (3) of subdivision (a) shall not apply to sales that are described as mitigation measures in an environmental study prepared pursuant to the Public Resources Code, if the study was initiated before this measure was enacted.
(d) All other surplus residential properties and all properties described in paragraphs (1), (2), and (3) of subdivision (a) that are not purchased by the former owners or the present occupants shall be then offered as follows:
(1) Except as required by paragraph (2), the property shall be offered to a housing-related private or public entity at a reasonable price, which is best suited to economically feasible use of the property as decent, safe, and sanitary housing at affordable rents and affordable prices for persons and families of low or moderate income, on the condition that the purchasing entity shall cause the property to be rehabilitated and used as follows:
(A) If the housing-related entity is a public entity, the entity shall dedicate profits realized from a subsequent sale, as specified in subdivision (b) of Section 54237.7, to the construction of affordable housing within Pasadena, South Pasadena, Alhambra, La Cañada Flintridge, and the 90032 postal ZIP Code.
(B) If the entity is a private housing-related entity or a housing-related public entity, the entity shall cause the property to be developed as limited equity cooperative housing with first right of occupancy to present occupants, except that where the development of cooperative or cooperatives is not feasible, the purchasing entity shall cause the property to be used for low and moderate income rental or owner-occupied housing, with first right of occupancy to the present tenants. The price of the property in no case shall be less than the price paid by the entity for original acquisition unless the acquisition price was greater than current fair market value and shall not be greater than fair market value. Subject to the foregoing, it shall be set at the level necessary to provide housing at affordable rents and affordable prices for present tenants and persons and families of low or moderate income. When residential property is offered at a price that is less than fair market value, the selling agency shall impose terms, conditions, and restrictions as will ensure that the housing will remain available to persons and families of low or moderate income. The Department of Housing and Community Development shall provide to the selling agency recommendations of standards and criteria for prices, terms, conditions, and restrictions.
(2) (A) If the property is a historic home, the property shall be offered first to a housing-related public entity subject to subparagraph (A) or (B) of paragraph (1) or to a nonprofit private entity dedicated to rehabilitating and maintaining the historic home for public and community access and use subject to subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1).
(B) For the purposes of this subdivision, “historic home” means single-family surplus residential property that is listed on, or for which an application has been filed for listing on, at least one of the following by January 1, 2015:
(i) The California Register of Historical Resources, as established pursuant to Article 2 (commencing with Section 5020) of Chapter 1 of Division 5 of the Public Resources Code.
(ii) The National Register of Historic Places, as established pursuant to Chapter 3021 of Title 54 of the United States Code.
(iii) The Ne="margin:0 0 1em 0" class="ActionLine">
SEC. 2.
Section 54237.7 of the Government Code is amended to read:
54237.7.
(a) Notwithstanding Section 183.1 of the Streets and Highways Code, the Department of Transportation shall deposit proceeds from the sale of surplus residential property from the department to a new owner pursuant to this article into the SR-710 Rehabilitation Account, which is hereby created. Notwithstanding Section 13340, funds in the account are hereby continuously appropriated to the department without regard to fiscal years for the purpose of providing repairs required pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 54237. The total funds maintained in the account shall not exceed five hundred thousand dollars ($500,000). Funds exceeding that amount, less any reimbursements due to the federal government, shall be transferred to the State Highway Account in the State Transportation Fund to be used for allocation by the California Transportation Commission (commission) exclusively to fund projects located in Pasadena, South Pasadena, Alhambra, La Cañada Flintridge, and the 90032 postal ZIP Code. Projects shall be selected and prioritized by the affected communities in consultation with the Los Angeles County Metropolitan Transportation Authority, pursuant to guidelines developed by the commission. The Los Angeles County Metropolitan Transportation Authority shall submit a proposed program of projects and the commission shall have final authority to approve the projects. Eligible projects may include, but are not limited to: sound walls; transit and rail capital improvements; bikeways; pedestrian improvements; signal synchronization; left turn signals; and major street resurfacing, rehabilitation, and reconstruction. The funds shall not be used to advance or construct any proposed North State Route 710 tunnel. Any funds remaining in the SR-710 Rehabilitation Account on the date that final payment due for the last of the properties repaired has been made, less any reimbursements due to the federal government, shall be transferred to the State Highway Account in the State Transportation Fund, to be used exclusively for the purposes described in this section.
(b) Notwithstanding any other law, the net proceeds from a subsequent market sale of surplus residential property sold pursuant to this article at an affordable or reasonable price, as specified in regulations adopted by the department, shall be deposited into the Affordable Housing Trust Account, which is hereby created within the Housing Finance Fund and, notwithstanding Section 13340, continuously appropriated to the California Housing Finance Agency to carry out any activity authorized by Part 3 (commencing with Section 50900) of Division 31 of the Health and Safety Code for the benefit of persons and families of low and moderate income residing exclusively in Pasadena, South Pasadena, Alhambra, La Cañada Flintridge, and the 90032 postal ZIP Code. The priority for the distribution of proceeds from subsequent sales shall be established pursuant to regulations adopted by the department.
SEC. 3.
The Legislature finds and declares that a special law is necessary and that a general law cannot be made applicable within the meaning of Section 16 of Article IV of the California Constitution because of the unique circumstances relating to affordable housing and surplus properties in the State Route 710 corridor.
SEC. 4.
This act is an urgency statute necessary for the immediate preservation of the public peace, health, or safety within the meaning of Article IV of the Constitution and shall go into immediate effect. The facts constituting the necessity are:
In order to implement the sale of historic properties in the State Route 710 corridor, it is necessary that this act take effect immediately.


The people of the State of California do enact as follows:

SECTION 1.
Section 8547.2 of the Government Code is amended to read:
8547.2.
For the purposes of this article, the following terms have the following meanings:
(a) “Employee” means an individual appointed by the Governor, or employed or holding office in a state agency as defined by Section 11000, including, for purposes of Sections 8547.3 to 8547.7, inclusive, an employee of the California State University, or an individual appointed by the Legislature to a state board or commission and who is not a Member or employee of the Legislature. In addition, “employee” means a person employed by the Supreme Court, a court of appeal, a superior court, or the Administrative Office of the Courts for the purposes of Sections 8547.3 to 8547.7, inclusive, and Section 8547.13, except for those provisions of Section 8547.4 concerning notice of adverse action and the State Personnel Board. “Employee” includes a former employee who met the criteria of this subdivision during his or her employment.
(b) “Illegal order” means a directive to violate or assist in violating a federal, state, or local law, rule, or regulation, or an order to work or cause others to work in conditions outside of their line of duty that would unreasonably threaten the health or safety of employees or the public.
(c) “Improper governmental activity” means an activity by a state agency or by an employee that is undertaken in the performance of the employee’s duties, undertaken inside a state office, or, if undertaken outside a state office by the employee, directly relates to state government, whether or not that activity is within the scope of his or her employment, and that (1) is in violation of any state or federal law or regulation, including, but not limited to, corruption, malfeasance, bribery, theft of government property, fraudulent claims, fraud, coercion, conversion, malicious prosecution, misuse of government property, or willful omission to perform duty, (2) is in violation of an Executive order of the Governor, a California Rule of Court, or any policy or procedure mandated by the State Administrative Manual or State Contracting Manual, or (3) is economically wasteful, involves gross misconduct, incompetency, or inefficiency. For purposes of Sections 8547.4, 8547.5, 8547.7, 8547.10, and 8547.11, “improper governmental activity” includes any activity by the University of California or by an employee, including an officer or faculty member, who otherwise meets the criteria of this subdivision. For purposes of Sections 8547.4, 8547.5, and 8547.13, “improper governmental activity” includes any activity by the Supreme Court, a court of appeal, a superior court, or the Administrative Office of the Courts, or by an employee thereof, who otherwise meets the criteria of this subdivision.
(d) “Person” means an individual, corporation, trust, association, a state or local government, or an agency or instrumentality of any of the foregoing.
(e) “Protected disclosure” means a good faith communication, including a communication based on, or when carrying out, job duties, that discloses or demonstrates an intention to disclose information that may evidence (1) an improper governmental activity, or (2) a condition that may significantly threaten the health or safety of employees or the public if the disclosure or intention to disclose was made for the purpose of remedying that condition. Protected disclosure specifically includes a good faith communication to the
California
State Auditor’s Office alleging an improper governmental activity and any evidence delivered to the
California
State Auditor’s Office in support of the allegation. “Protected disclosure” also includes, but is not limited to, a complaint made to the Commission on Judicial Performance.
(f) “State agency” is defined by Section 11000. “State agency” includes the University of California for purposes of Sections 8547.5 to 8547.7, inclusive,
and Section 8547.16,
and the California State University for purposes of Sections 8547.3 to 8547.7,
inclusive.
inclusive, and Section 8547.16.
Sections 8547.3 to 8547.7, inclusive, shall apply to the Supreme Court, the courts of appeal, the superior courts, and the Administrative Office of the Courts in the same manner as they apply to a state agency.
SECTION 1.
SEC. 2.
Section 8547.16 is added to the Government Code, to read:
8547.16.
Any
(a) A
state agency that utilizes a whistleblower investigation policy separate from this article shall publicly report, in the manner in which the State Auditor is authorized to publicly report pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 8547.7, any investigation of a whistleblower complaint that has substantiated improper governmental activities.
(b) This section shall not be deemed to require the disclosure of a public record that is otherwise not required to be disclosed pursuant to any other state law, including, but not limited to, the California Public Records Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 6250) of Division 7 of Title 1).


The people of the State of California do enact as follows:

SECTION 1.
Section 27491.41 of the Government Code is amended to read:
27491.41.
(a) For purposes of this section, “sudden infant death syndrome” means the sudden death of any infant that is unexpected by the history of the infant and where a thorough postmortem examination fails to demonstrate an adequate cause of death.
(b) The Legislature finds and declares that sudden infant death syndrome, also referred to as SIDS, is the leading cause of death for children under age one, striking one out of every 500 children. The Legislature finds and declares that sudden infant death syndrome is a serious problem within the State of California, and that the public interest is served by research and study of sudden infant death syndrome and its potential causes and indications.
(c) (1) To facilitate these purposes, the coroner shall, within 24 hours or as soon thereafter as feasible, perform an autopsy in any case where an infant has died suddenly and unexpectedly.
(2) However, if the attending physician desires to certify that the cause of death is sudden infant death syndrome, an autopsy may be performed at the discretion of the coroner. If the coroner performs an autopsy pursuant to this section, he or she shall also certify the cause of death.
(d) The autopsy shall be conducted pursuant to a standardized protocol developed by the State Department of Public Health. The protocol is exempt from the procedural requirements pertaining to the adoption of administrative rules and regulations pursuant to Article 5 (commencing with Section 11346) of Chapter 3.5 of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code.
(e) The protocol shall be followed by all coroners throughout the state when conducting the autopsies required by this section. The coroner shall state on the certificate of death that sudden infant death syndrome was the cause of death when the coroner’s findings are consistent with the definition of sudden infant death syndrome specified in the standardized autopsy protocol. The protocol may include requirements and standards for scene investigations, requirements for specific data, criteria for ascertaining cause of death based on the autopsy, and criteria for any specific tissue sampling, and any other requirements. The protocol may also require that specific tissue samples shall be provided to a central tissue repository designated by the State Department of Public Health.
(f) The State Department of Public Health shall establish procedures and protocols for access by researchers to any tissues, or other materials or data authorized by this section. Research may be conducted by any individual with a valid scientific interest and prior approval from the State Committee for the Protection of Human Subjects. The tissue samples, the materials, and all data shall be subject to the confidentiality requirements of Section 103850 of the Health and Safety Code.
(g) The coroner may take tissue samples for research purposes from infants who have died suddenly and unexpectedly without consent of the responsible adult if the tissue removal is not likely to result in any visible disfigurement.
(h) A coroner shall not be liable for damages in a civil action for any act or omission done in compliance with this section.
(i) Consent of any person is not required before undertaking the autopsy required by this section.
SEC. 1.5.
Section 27491.41 of the Government Code is amended to read:
27491.41.
(a) For purposes of this section, “sudden infant death syndrome” means the sudden death of any infant that is unexpected by the history of the infant and where a thorough postmortem examination fails to demonstrate an adequate cause of death.
(b) The Legislature finds and declares that sudden infant death syndrome, also referred to as SIDS, is the leading cause of death for children under age one, striking one out of every 500 children. The Legislature finds and declares that sudden infant death syndrome is a serious problem within the State of California, and that the public interest is served by research and study of sudden infant death syndrome and its potential causes and indications.
(c) (1) To facilitate these purposes, the coroner shall, within 24 hours or as soon thereafter as feasible, cause an autopsy to be performed in any case where an infant has died suddenly and unexpectedly.
(2) However, if the attending licensed physician and surgeon desires to certify that the cause of death is sudden infant death syndrome, an autopsy may be performed at the discretion of the coroner. If the coroner causes an autopsy to be performed pursuant to this section, he or she shall also certify the cause of death.
(d) The autopsy shall be conducted pursuant to a standardized protocol developed by the State Department of Public Health. The protocol is exempt from the procedural requirements pertaining to the adoption of administrative rules and regulations pursuant to Article 5 (commencing with Section 11346) of Chapter 3.5 of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code.
(e) The protocol shall be followed by all coroners throughout the state when conducting an evaluation as part of an autopsy required by this section. The coroner shall state on the certificate of death that sudden infant death syndrome was the cause of death when the coroner’s findings are consistent with the definition of sudden infant death syndrome specified in the standardized autopsy protocol. The protocol may include requirements and standards for scene investigations, requirements for specific data, criteria for ascertaining cause of death based on the autopsy, and criteria for any specific tissue sampling, and any other requirements. The protocol may also require that specific tissue samples shall be provided to a central tissue repository designated by the State Department of Public Health.
(f) The State Department of Public Health shall establish procedures and protocols for access by researchers to any tissues, or other materials or data authorized by this section. Research may be conducted by any individual with a valid scientific interest and prior approval from the State Committee for the Protection of Human Subjects. The tissue samples, the materials, and all data shall be subject to the confidentiality requirements of Section 103850 of the Health and Safety Code.
(g) The coroner may take tissue samples for research purposes from infants who have died suddenly and unexpectedly without consent of the responsible adult if the tissue removal is not likely to result in any visible disfigurement.
(h) A coroner or licensed physician and surgeon shall not be liable for damages in a civil action for any act or omission done in compliance with this section.
(i) Consent of any person is not required before undertaking the autopsy required by this section.
SEC. 2.
Section 27491.42 is added to the Government Code, to read:
27491.42.
(a) For purposes of this article, “sudden unexplained death in childhood” means the sudden death of a child one year of age or older but under 18 years of age that is unexplained by the history of the child and where a thorough postmortem examination fails to demonstrate an adequate cause of death.
(b) The coroner shall notify the parent or responsible adult of a child described in subdivision (a) about the importance of taking tissue samples.
(c) A coroner shall not be liable for damages in a civil action for any act or omission in compliance with this section.
SEC. 3.
Section 1.5 of this bill incorporates amendments to Section 27491.41 of the Government Code proposed by both this bill and Senate Bill 1189. It shall only become operative if (1) both bills are enacted and become effective on or before January 1, 2017, (2) each bill amends Section 27491.41 of the Government Code, and (3) this bill is enacted after Senate Bill 1189, in which case Section 1 of this bill shall not become operative.
SEC. 4.
If the Commission on State Mandates determines that this act contains costs mandated by the state, reimbursement to local agencies and school districts for those costs shall be made pursuant to Part 7 (commencing with Section 17500) of Division 4 of Title 2 of the Government Code.


The people of the State of California do enact as follows:

SECTION 1.
Section 48412 of the Education Code is amended to read:
48412.
(a) (1) A person 16 years of age or older, or who has been enrolled in the 10th grade for one academic year or longer, or who will complete one academic year of enrollment in the 10th grade at the end of the semester during which the next regular examination will be conducted, may have his or her proficiency in basic skills taught in public high schools verified according to criteria established by the State Department of Education.
(2) The state board shall award a “certificate of proficiency” to persons who demonstrate that proficiency. The certificate of proficiency shall be equivalent to a high school diploma, and the department shall keep a permanent record of the issuance of all certificates.
(b) (1) The department shall develop standards of competency in basic skills taught in public high schools and shall provide for the administration of examinations prepared by or with the approval of the department to verify competency. Regular examinations shall be held once in the fall semester and once in the spring semester of every academic year on a date, as determined by the department, that will enable notification of examinees and the schools they attend, if any, of the results thereof not later than two weeks prior to the date on which that semester ends in a majority of school districts that maintain high schools.
(2) In addition to regular examinations, the department may, at the discretion of the Superintendent, conduct examinations for all eligible persons once during each summer recess and may conduct examinations at any other time that the Superintendent deems necessary to accommodate eligible persons whose religious convictions or physical handicaps prevent their attending one of the regular examinations.
(c) (1) The department may charge a fee for each examination application in an amount sufficient to recover the costs of administering the requirements of this section. However, the fee shall not exceed an amount equal to the cost of test renewal and administration per examination application. All fees levied and collected pursuant to this section shall be deposited in the State Treasury for remittance to the current support appropriation of the department as reimbursement for costs of administering this section. Any reimbursements collected in excess of actual costs of administration of this section shall be transferred to the unappropriated surplus of the General Fund by order of the Director of Finance.
(2) The department shall not charge the fee to an examinee who meets all of the following criteria:
(A) The examinee qualifies as a homeless child or youth, as defined in paragraph (2) of Section 725 of the federal McKinney-Vento Homeless Assistance Act (42 U.S.C. Sec. 11434a(2)).
(B) The examinee has not attained 25 years of age as of the date of the scheduled examination.
(C) The examinee can verify his or her status as a homeless child or youth. A homeless services provider that has knowledge of the examinee’s housing status may verify the examinee’s status for purposes of this subparagraph.
(3) For purposes of this subdivision, a “homeless services provider” includes either of the following:
(A) A homeless services provider listed in paragraph (3) of subdivision (d) of Section 103577 of the Health and Safety Code.
(B) Any other person or entity that is qualified to verify an individual’s housing status, as determined by the department.
(4) The loss of fees pursuant to paragraph (2), if any, shall be deemed to be a cost of administering this section for purposes of paragraph (1).
(d) (1) The state board shall adopt rules and regulations as are necessary for implementation of this section.
(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (1), the state board shall adopt emergency regulations, as necessary, to implement the provisions of subdivision (c), as amended by the act that added this paragraph. The adoption of these regulations shall be deemed to be an emergency and necessary for the immediate preservation of the public peace, health, and safety, or general welfare.
(e) The department shall periodically review the effectiveness of the examinations administered pursuant to this section. The costs of this review may be recovered through the fees levied pursuant to subdivision (c).
(f) (1) On or before December 1, 2018, the Superintendent shall submit a report to the appropriate policy and fiscal committees of the Legislature that includes, but is not limited to, all of the following:
(A) The number of homeless youth that took a high school proficiency test in each of the 2016, 2017, and 2018 calendar years.
(B) The impact of the opportunity to take a high school proficiency test at no cost on the number and percentage of homeless youth taking a high school proficiency test.
(C) The estimated number of homeless youth who may take a high school proficiency test in future years.
(D) Recommendations for a permanent funding source to cover the cost of the waived fees.
(E) The annual and projected administrative cost to the department.
(F) The annual and projected reimbursement to contractors pursuant to this section.
(2) The requirement for submitting a report imposed under paragraph (1) is inoperative on January 1, 2020, pursuant to Section 10231.5 of the Government Code.
(g) Additional state funds shall not be appropriated for purposes of implementing paragraph (2) of subdivision (c).
SEC. 2.
Section 51421 of the Education Code is amended to read:
51421.
(a) The Superintendent may charge a one-time only fee, established by the state board, to be submitted by an examinee when registering for the test sufficient in an amount not greater than the amount required to pay the cost of administering this article, including costs related to subdivision (b), and for the cost of providing services related to the completion of the general educational development test. The amount of each fee may not exceed twenty dollars ($20) per person.
(b) The examinee shall be responsible for submitting to the Superintendent both of the following requests:
(1) A request for a duplicate copy of the high school equivalency certificate.
(2) A request to forward a report of the results of a general educational development test to a postsecondary educational institution.
SEC. 3.
Section 51421.5 is added to the Education Code, to read:
51421.5.
(a) If, for purposes of this article, a contractor or testing center charges an examinee its own separate fee, the contractor or testing center shall not charge that fee to an examinee who meets all of the following criteria:
(1) The examinee qualifies as a homeless child or youth, as defined in paragraph (2) of Section 725 of the federal McKinney-Vento Homeless Assistance Act (42 U.S.C. Sec. 11434a(2)).
(2) The examinee has not attained 25 years of age as of the date of the scheduled examination.
(3) The examinee can verify his or her status as a homeless child or youth. A homeless services provider that has knowledge of the examinee’s housing status may verify the examinee’s status for purposes of this paragraph.
(b) For purposes of this section, a “homeless services provider” includes either of the following:
(1) A homeless services provider listed in paragraph (3) of subdivision (d) of Section 103577 of the Health and Safety Code.
(2) Any other person or entity that is qualified to verify an individual’s housing status, as determined by the department.
(c) Additional state funds shall not be appropriated for purposes of implementing this section.
(d) Notwithstanding subdivision (c), the Superintendent may use surplus funds in the Special Deposit Fund Account, established pursuant to Section 51427, to reimburse contractors for the loss of fees, if any, pursuant to this section. A contract executed by the department for the provision of examinations pursuant to Section 51421 or this section shall require that any contracting party accept all examinees, including those entitled to a fee waiver pursuant to this section. For purposes of this subdivision, “surplus funds” are funds remaining after the costs permitted by subdivision (a) of Section 51421 are paid.
(e) On or before December 1, 2018, the Superintendent shall submit a report to the appropriate policy and fiscal committees of the Legislature that includes, but is not limited to, all of the following:
(A) The number of homeless youth that took a high school equivalency test in each of the 2016, 2017, and 2018 calendar years.
(B) The impact of the opportunity to take a high school equivalency test at no cost on the number and percentage of homeless youth taking a high school equivalency test.
(C) The estimated number of homeless youth who may take a high school equivalency test in future years.
(D) Recommendations for a permanent funding source to cover the cost of the waived fees.
(E) The annual and projected administrative cost to the department.
(F) The annual and projected reimbursement to the contractor pursuant to this section.
(f) The Superintendent shall adopt emergency regulations, as necessary, to implement this section. The adoption of these regulations shall be deemed to be an emergency and necessary for the immediate preservation of the public peace, health, and safety, or general welfare.
(g) The department shall include a provision in all memorandums of understanding with contractors for purposes of providing a high school equivalency test, that if the surplus funds in the Special Deposit Fund Account are depleted, the ongoing costs of a fee waiver for an examinee deemed eligible for a waiver pursuant to this section shall be absorbed by the contractor.
(h) This section shall become inoperative on July 1, 2019, and, as of January 1, 2020, is repealed, unless a later enacted statute, that becomes operative on or before January 1, 2020, deletes or extends the dates on which it becomes inoperative and is repealed.
SEC. 4.
Section 51421.5 is added to the Education Code, to read:
51421.5.
(a) If, for purposes of this article, a contractor or testing center charges an examinee its own separate fee, the contractor or testing center shall not charge that fee to an examinee who meets all of the following criteria:
(1) The examinee qualifies as a homeless child or youth, as defined in paragraph (2) of Section 725 of the federal McKinney-Vento Homeless Assistance Act (42 U.S.C. Sec. 11434a(2)).
(2) The examinee has not attained 25 years of age as of the date of the scheduled examination.
(3) The examinee can verify his or her status as a homeless child or youth. A homeless services provider that has knowledge of the examinee’s housing status may verify the examinee’s status for purposes of this paragraph.
(b) For purposes of this section, a “homeless services provider” includes either of the following:
(1) A homeless services provider listed in paragraph (3) of subdivision (d) of Section 103577 of the Health and Safety Code.
(2) Any other person or entity that is qualified to verify an individual’s housing status, as determined by the department.
(c) Additional state funds shall not be appropriated for purposes of implementing this section.
(d) The Superintendent shall adopt emergency regulations, as necessary, to implement this section. The adoption of these regulations shall be deemed to be an emergency and necessary for the immediate preservation of the public peace, health, and safety, or general welfare.
(e) The department shall include a provision in all memorandums of understanding with contractors for purposes of providing a high school equivalency test, that if the surplus funds in the Special Deposit Fund Account are depleted, the ongoing costs of a fee waiver for an examinee deemed eligible for a waiver pursuant to this section shall be absorbed by the contractor.
(f) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2019.


The people of the State of California do enact as follows:

SECTION 1.
Part 20 (commencing with Section 870) is added to Division 2 of the Probate Code, to read:
PART 20. Revised Uniform Fiduciary Access to Digital Assets Act
870.
This part shall be known, and may be cited, as the Revised Uniform Fiduciary Access to Digital Assets Act.
871.
As used in this part, the following terms shall have the following meanings:
(a) “Account” means an arrangement under a terms-of-service agreement in which the custodian carries, maintains, processes, receives, or stores a digital asset of the user or provides goods or services to the user.
(b) “Carries” means engages in the transmission of electronic communications.
(c) “Catalogue of electronic communications” means information that identifies each person with which a user has had an electronic communication, the time and date of the communication, and the electronic address of the person.
(d) “Content of an electronic communication” means information concerning the substance or meaning of the communication, which meets all of the following requirements:
(1) Has been sent or received by a user.
(2) Is in electronic storage by a custodian providing an electronic communication service to the public or is carried or maintained by a custodian providing a remote-computing service to the public.
(3) Is not readily accessible to the public.
(e) “Court” means the superior court presiding over the judicial proceedings which have been initiated under this code to administer the estate of the deceased user, or, if none, the superior court sitting in the exercise of jurisdiction under this code in the county of the user’s domicile, and the court, as defined in this section, shall have exclusive jurisdiction over proceedings brought under this part.
(f) “Custodian” means a person that carries, maintains, processes, receives, or stores a digital asset of a user.
(g) “Designated recipient” means a person chosen by a user using an online tool to administer digital assets of the user.
(h) “Digital asset” means an electronic record in which an individual has a right or interest. The term “digital asset” does not include an underlying asset or liability, unless the asset or liability is itself an electronic record.
(i) “Electronic” means relating to technology having electrical, digital, magnetic, wireless, optical, electromagnetic, or similar capabilities.
(j) “Electronic communication” has the same meaning as the definition in Section 2510(12) of Title 18 of the United States Code.
(k) “Electronic communication service” means a custodian that provides to a user the ability to send or receive an electronic communication.
(l) “Fiduciary” means an original, additional, or successor personal representative or trustee.
(m) “Information” means data, text, images, videos, sounds, codes, computer programs, software, databases, or other items with like characteristics.
(n) “Online tool” means an electronic service provided by a custodian that allows the user, in an agreement distinct from the terms-of-service agreement between the custodian and user, to provide directions for disclosure or nondisclosure of digital assets to a third person.
(o) “Person” means an individual, estate, business or nonprofit entity, public corporation, government or governmental subdivision, agency, or instrumentality, or other legal entity.
(p) “Personal representative” means an executor, administrator, special administrator, or person that performs substantially the same function under any other law.
(q) “Power of attorney” means a record that grants an agent authority to act in the place of the principal.
(r) “Record” means information that is inscribed on a tangible medium or that is stored in an electronic or other medium and is retrievable in a perceivable form.
(s) “Remote-computing service” means a custodian that provides to a user computer processing services or the storage of digital assets by means of an electronic communications system, as defined in Section 2510(14) of Title 18 of the United States Code.
(t) “Terms-of-service agreement” means an agreement that controls the relationship between a user and a custodian.
(u) “Trustee” means a fiduciary with legal title to property under an agreement or declaration that creates a beneficial interest in another. The term includes a successor trustee.
(v) “User” means a person that has an account with a custodian.
(w) “Will” includes a codicil, a testamentary instrument that only appoints an executor, or an instrument that revokes or revises a testamentary instrument.
872.
(a) This part shall apply to any of the following:
(1) A fiduciary acting under a will executed before, on, or after January 1, 2017.
(2) A personal representative acting for a decedent who died before, on, or after January 1, 2017.
(3) A trustee acting under a trust created before, on, or after January 1, 2017.
(4) A custodian of digital assets for a user if the user resides in this state or resided in this state at the time of the user’s death.
(b) This part shall not apply to a digital asset of an employer used by an employee in the ordinary course of the employer’s business.
873.
(a) A user may use an online tool to direct the custodian to disclose to a designated recipient or not disclose some or all of the user’s digital assets, including the content of electronic communications. If the online tool allows the user to modify or delete a direction at all times, a direction regarding disclosure using an online tool overrides a contrary direction by the user in a will, trust, power of attorney, or other record.
(b) If a user has not used an online tool to give direction under subdivision (a) or if a custodian has not provided an online tool, a user may allow or prohibit in a will, trust, power of attorney, or other record the disclosure to a fiduciary of some or all of the user’s digital assets, including the contents of electronic communications sent or received by the user.
(c) A user’s direction under subdivision (a) or (b) overrides a contrary provision in a terms-of-service agreement.
874.
(a) This part does not change or impair a right of a custodian or a user under a terms-of-service agreement to access and use digital assets of a user.
(b) This part does not give a fiduciary or designated recipient any new or expanded rights other than those held by the user for whom, or for whose estate or trust, the fiduciary or designated recipient acts or represents.
(c) A fiduciary’s or designated recipient’s access to digital assets may be modified or eliminated by a user, by federal law, or by a terms-of-service agreement when the user has not provided any direction that is recognized in Section 873.
875.
(a) When disclosing the digital assets of a user under this part, the custodian may, in its sole discretion, do any of the following:
(1) Grant the fiduciary or designated recipient full access to the user’s account.
(2) Grant the fiduciary or designated recipient partial access to the user’s account sufficient to perform the tasks with which the fiduciary or designated recipient is charged.
(3) Provide the fiduciary or designated recipient with a copy in a record of any digital asset that, on the date the custodian received the request for disclosure, the user could have accessed if the user were alive and had full capacity and access to the account.
(b) A custodian may assess a reasonable administrative charge for the cost of disclosing digital assets under this part.
(c) A custodian need not disclose under this part a digital asset deleted by a user.
(d) If a user directs or a fiduciary or designated recipient requests a custodian to disclose under this part some, but not all, of the user’s digital assets, the custodian need not disclose the assets if segregation of the assets would impose an undue burden on the custodian. If the custodian believes the direction or request imposes an undue burden, the custodian, fiduciary, or designated recipient may petition the court for an order to do any of the following:
(1) Disclose a subset limited by date of the user’s digital assets.
(2) Disclose all of the user’s digital assets to the fiduciary or designated recipient.
(3) Disclose none of the user’s digital assets.
(4) Disclose all of the user’s digital assets to the court for review in camera.
876.
If a deceased user consented to or a court directs disclosure of the content of electronic communications of the user, the custodian shall disclose to the personal representative of the estate of the user the content of an electronic communication sent or received by the user if the personal representative gives to the custodian all of the following:
(a) A written request for disclosure in physical or electronic form.
(b) A certified copy of the death certificate of the user.
(c) A certified copy of the letter of appointment of the representative, a small-estate affidavit under Section 13101, or court order.
(d) Unless the user provided direction using an online tool, a copy of the user’s will, trust, power of attorney, or other record evidencing the user’s consent to disclosure of the content of electronic communications.
(e) If requested by the custodian, any of the following:
(1) A number, username, address, or other unique subscriber or account identifier assigned by the custodian to identify the user’s account.
(2) Evidence linking the account to the user.
(3) An order of the court finding any of the following:
(A) That the user had a specific account with the custodian, identifiable by the information specified in paragraph (1).
(B) That disclosure of the content of the user’s electronic communications would not violate Chapter 121 (commencing with Section 2701) of Part 1 of Title 18 of, and Section 222 of Title 47 of, the United States Code, or other applicable law.
(C) Unless the user provided direction using an online tool, that the user consented to disclosure of the content of electronic communications.
(D) That disclosure of the content of electronic communications of a user is reasonably necessary for estate administration.
877.
Unless the user prohibited disclosure of digital assets or the court directs otherwise, a custodian shall disclose to the personal representative of the estate of a deceased user a catalogue of electronic communications sent or received by the user and digital assets, other than the content of electronic communications, of the user, if the personal representative gives to the custodian all of the following:
(a) A written request for disclosure in physical or electronic form.
(b) A certified copy of the death certificate of the user.
(c) A certified copy of the letter of appointment of the representative, a small-estate affidavit under Section 13101, or court order.
(d) If requested by the custodian, any of the following:
(1) A number, username, address, or other unique subscriber or account identifier assigned by the custodian to identify the user’s account.
(2) Evidence linking the account to the user.
(3) An affidavit stating that disclosure of the user’s digital assets is reasonably necessary for estate administration.
(4) An order of the court finding either of the following:
(A) That the user had a specific account with the custodian, identifiable by the information specified in paragraph (1).
(B) That disclosure of the user’s digital assets is reasonably necessary for estate administration.
878.
Unless otherwise ordered by the court, directed by the user, or provided in a trust, a custodian shall disclose to a trustee that is not an original user of an account the content of an electronic communication sent or received by an original or successor user and carried, maintained, processed, received, or stored by the custodian in the account of the trust if the trustee gives to the custodian all of the following:
(a) A written request for disclosure in physical or electronic form.
(b) A certified copy of the death certificate of the settlor.
(c) A certified copy of the trust instrument, or a certification of trust under Section 18100.5, evidencing the settlor’s consent to disclosure of the content of electronic communications to the trustee.
(d) A certification by the trustee, under penalty of perjury, that the trust exists and that the trustee is a currently acting trustee of the trust.
(e) If requested by the custodian, any of the following:
(1) A number, username, address, or other unique subscriber or account identifier assigned by the custodian to identify the trust’s account.
(2) Evidence linking the account to the trust.
879.
Unless otherwise ordered by the court, directed by the user, or provided in a trust, a custodian shall disclose, to a trustee that is not an original user of an account, the catalogue of electronic communications sent or received by an original or successor user and stored, carried, or maintained by the custodian in an account of the trust and any digital assets, other than the content of electronic communications, in which the trust has a right or interest if the settlor of the trust is deceased and the trustee gives the custodian all of the following:
(a) A written request for disclosure in physical or electronic form.
(b) A certified copy of the death certificate of the settlor.
(c) A certified copy of the trust instrument or a certification of trust under Section 18100.5.
(d) A certification by the trustee, under penalty of perjury, that the trust exists and that the trustee is a currently acting trustee of the trust.
(e) If requested by the custodian, any of the following:
(1) A number, username, address, or other unique subscriber or account identifier assigned by the custodian to identify the trust’s account.
(2) Evidence linking the account to the trust.
880.
(a) The legal duties imposed on a fiduciary charged with managing tangible property apply to the management of digital assets, including all of the following:
(1) The duty of care.
(2) The duty of loyalty.
(3) The duty of confidentiality.
(b) All of the following shall apply to a fiduciary’s or designated recipient’s authority with respect to a digital asset of a user:
(1) Except as otherwise provided in Section 873, a fiduciary’s or designated recipient’s authority is subject to the applicable terms-of-service agreement.
(2) A fiduciary’s or designated recipient’s authority is subject to other applicable law, including copyright law.
(3) In the case of a fiduciary, a fiduciary’s authority is limited by the scope of the fiduciary’s duties.
(4) A fiduciary’s or designated recipient’s authority may not be used to impersonate the user.
(c) A fiduciary with authority over the property of a decedent or settlor has the right of access to any digital asset in which the decedent or settlor had a right or interest and that is not held by a custodian or subject to a terms-of-service agreement. Nothing in this subdivision requires a custodian to share passwords or decrypt protected devices.
(d) A fiduciary acting within the scope of the fiduciary’s duties is an authorized user of the property of the decedent or settlor for the purpose of applicable computer-fraud and unauthorized-computer-access laws.
(e) The following shall apply to a fiduciary with authority over the tangible, personal property of a decedent or settlor:
(1) The fiduciary has the right to access the property and any digital asset stored in it. Nothing in this subdivision requires a custodian to share passwords or decrypt protected devices.
(2) The fiduciary is an authorized user for purposes of any applicable computer-fraud and unauthorized-computer-access laws.
(f) A custodian may disclose information in an account to a fiduciary of the decedent or settlor when the information is required to terminate an account used to access digital assets licensed to the user.
(g) A fiduciary of a decedent or settlor may request a custodian to terminate the user’s account. A request for termination shall be in writing, in either physical or electronic form, and accompanied by all of the following:
(1) If the user is deceased, a certified copy of the death certificate of the user.
(2) A certified copy of the letter of appointment of the representative, a small-estate affidavit under Section 13101, a court order, a certified copy of the trust instrument, or a certification of the trust under Section 18100.5 giving the fiduciary authority over the account.
(3) If requested by the custodian, any of the following:
(A) A number, username, address, or other unique subscriber or account identifier assigned by the custodian to identify the user’s account.
(B) Evidence linking the account to the user.
(C) A finding by the court that the user had a specific account with the custodian, identifiable by the information specified in subparagraph (A).
881.
(a) Not later than 60 days after receipt of the information required under Sections 876 to 879, inclusive, a custodian shall comply with a request under this part from a fiduciary or designated recipient to disclose digital assets or terminate an account. If the custodian fails to comply with a request, the fiduciary or designated recipient may apply to the court for an order directing compliance.
(b) An order under subdivision (a) directing compliance shall contain a finding that compliance is not in violation of Section 2702 of Title 18 of the United States Code.
(c) A custodian may notify a user that a request for disclosure of digital assets or to terminate an account was made pursuant to this part.
(d) A custodian may deny a request under this part from a fiduciary or designated recipient for disclosure of digital assets or to terminate an account if the custodian is aware of any lawful access to the account following the date of death of the user.
(e) This part does not limit a custodian’s ability to obtain or to require a fiduciary or designated recipient requesting disclosure or account termination under this part to obtain a court order that makes all of the following findings:
(1) The account belongs to the decedent, principal, or trustee.
(2) There is sufficient consent from the decedent, principal, or settlor to support the requested disclosure.
(3) Any specific factual finding required by any other applicable law in effect at that time, including, but not limited to, a finding that disclosure is not in violation of Section 2702 of Title 18 of the United States Code.
(f) A custodian and its officers, employees, and agents are immune from liability for an act or omission done in good faith in compliance with this part.
882.
This part modifies, limits, or supersedes the federal Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (15 U.S.C. Sec. 7001 et seq.), but does not modify, limit, or supersede Section 101(c) of that act (15 U.S.C. Sec. 7001(c)) or authorize electronic delivery of any of the notices described in Section 103(b) of that act (15 U.S.C. Sec. 7003(b)).
883.
Disclosure of the contents of the deceased user’s or settlor’s account to a fiduciary of the deceased user or settlor is subject to the same license, restrictions, terms of service, and legal obligations, including copyright law, that applied to the deceased user or settlor.
884.
If any provision of this part or its application to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of this part that can be given effect without the invalid provision or application, and, to this end, the provisions of this part are severable.


The people of the State of California do enact as follows:

SECTION 1.
Section 102025 of the Public Utilities Code is amended to read:
102025.
“Member entity” means a city or county that is within the boundaries of the district as defined in Section 102052.5.
SEC. 2.
Section 102052.5 of the Public Utilities Code is repealed.
SEC. 3.
Section 102052.5 is added to the Public Utilities Code, to read:
102052.5.
(a) The boundaries of the district shall include (1) the City of Sacramento and the City of Rancho Cordova; (2) the unincorporated territory of the County of Sacramento that is within the urban service area, as determined by the Board of Supervisors, and not otherwise divided from the rest of the unincorporated territory that is within the urban service area by an incorporated city not previously described in this subdivision; (3) a city or county listed in Section 102051 that has annexed to the district pursuant to the process specified in Section 102055; and (4) a city incorporated on or after January 1, 2016, which city consists entirely of territory that was included in the district prior to the city’s incorporation.
(b) (1) The boundaries of the district shall not be affected by the incorporation of any territory wholly or partly within the boundaries of the district or by reason of annexation to or detachment from any city or territory wholly or partly within the boundaries of the district, except as provided in this section.
(2) Where territory outside the district is annexed to any city included in the district, that territory shall, upon the completion of the annexation proceeding, be deemed incorporated into and annexed to the district.
(3) Where territory is incorporated as a new city, on or after January 1, 2016, and is partly within and partly outside the district, the entire territory shall, upon completion of the incorporation proceeding, be deemed incorporated into and annexed to the district.
(4) Where territory that is within the boundaries of the district is annexed to any city that is not a member entity, that territory shall remain part of the district unless, at the time of annexation, (A) no transit service is operated by the district within the annexed territory or within one-half mile of any outside boundary of the annexed territory and (B) no transit service is planned by the district, as evidenced by the district’s adopted short-range transit plan, for the annexed territory or within one-half mile of any outside boundary of the annexed territory within five years of the annexation, in which case that territory may be detached from the district if the Sacramento County Local Agency Formation Commission determines, during the annexation proceedings, that the area would be better served by the annexing city than the district. The detachment may be accomplished without proceeding with the detachment process in Section 102056.
(c) Whenever territory is deemed incorporated into and annexed to the district pursuant to this section, that territory shall be subject to taxation, in accordance with the assessable valuation of the property in that territory for general district purposes and for payment of any indebtedness previously or thereafter incurred by the district.
SEC. 4.
Section 102053 of the Public Utilities Code is amended to read:
102053.
The district may operate and exercise the powers under this part within any city, provided that the district shall have no power to levy an ad valorem property tax within the boundaries of any city that is not within the boundaries of the district as defined in Section 102052.5.
SEC. 5.
Section 102054 of the Public Utilities Code is amended to read:
102054.
The district may operate and exercise the powers under this part within all or a part of the unincorporated area of any county, provided that the district shall have no power to levy an ad valorem property tax within the unincorporated area that is not within the boundaries of the district as defined in Section 102052.5.
SEC. 6.
Section 102055 of the Public Utilities Code is repealed.
SEC. 7.
Section 102055 is added to the Public Utilities Code, to read:
102055.
(a) Any city or county listed in Section 102051 may be annexed to the district in the manner provided in this section.
(b) The legislative body of the city or county proposed to be annexed shall agree in writing with the board of directors upon the terms and conditions of annexation, which agreement, among other things, may provide for the levy and collection of special taxes within the city or unincorporated area of the county in addition to the taxes otherwise provided for in this part; the fixing of rates, rentals, and charges differing from those fixed or existing elsewhere within the district; the incurring or assumption of indebtedness; the making of a payment or payments; or the transfer of property, real and personal, and other assets to the district by the city or county.
SEC. 8.
Section 102056 is added to the Public Utilities Code, to read:
102056.
(a) Territory within the district may be detached from the district by a supermajority vote of the board of directors, which shall be at least 80 percent of the nonweighted vote of the existing board, and by a majority vote of the governing body of the territory proposed to be detached, provided that the detached territory shall not be relieved from liability for taxation for the payment of any bonded indebtedness existing at the time of detachment, and provided that all other pending legal and financial obligations have been resolved by mutual agreement.
(b) The detachment of territory from the district shall become effective upon giving of the notice required in Section 57204 of the Government Code.
(c) Notice of the detachment of territory from the district shall be given to each assessor whose roll is used for a tax levy made pursuant to this part and to the State Board of Equalization pursuant to Chapter 8 (commencing with Section 54900) of Part 1 of Division 2 of Title 5 of the Government Code.


The people of the State of California do enact as follows:

SECTION 1.
Section 8880.5 of the Government Code is amended to read:
8880.5.
Allocations for education:
The California State Lottery Education Fund is created within the State Treasury, and is continuously appropriated for carrying out the purposes of this chapter. The Controller shall draw warrants on this fund and distribute them quarterly in the following manner, provided that the payments specified in subdivisions (a) to (g), inclusive, shall be equal per capita amounts.
(a) (1) Payments shall be made directly to public school districts, including county superintendents of schools, serving kindergarten and grades 1 to 12, inclusive, or any part thereof, on the basis of an equal amount for each unit of average daily attendance, as defined by law and adjusted pursuant to subdivision (l).
(2) For purposes of this paragraph, in each of the 2008–09, 2009–10, 2010–11, 2011–12, 2012–13, 2013–14, and 2014–15 fiscal years, the number of units of average daily attendance in each of those fiscal years for programs for public school districts, including county superintendents of schools, serving kindergarten and grades 1 to 12, inclusive, shall include the same amount of average daily attendance for classes for adults and regional occupational centers and programs used in the calculation made pursuant to this subdivision for the 2007–08 fiscal year.
(b) Payments shall also be made directly to public school districts serving community colleges, on the basis of an equal amount for each unit of average daily attendance, as defined by law.
(c) Payments shall also be made directly to the Board of Trustees of the California State University on the basis of an amount for each unit of equivalent full-time enrollment. Funds received by the trustees shall be deposited in and expended from the California State University Trust Fund or, at the discretion of the trustees, deposited in local trust accounts in accordance with subdivision (j) of Section 89721 of the Education Code.
(d) Payments shall also be made directly to the Regents of the University of California on the basis of an amount for each unit of equivalent full-time enrollment.
(e) Payments shall also be made directly to the Board of Directors of the Hastings College of the Law on the basis of an amount for each unit of equivalent full-time enrollment.
(f) Payments shall also be made directly to the Department of the Youth Authority for educational programs serving kindergarten and grades 1 to 12, inclusive, or any part thereof, on the basis of an equal amount for each unit of average daily attendance, as defined by law.
(g) Payments shall also be made directly to the two California Schools for the Deaf, the California School for the Blind, and the three Diagnostic Schools for Neurologically Handicapped Children, on the basis of an amount for each unit of equivalent full-time enrollment.
(h) Payments shall also be made directly to the State Department of Developmental Services and the State Department of State Hospitals for clients with developmental or mental disabilities who are enrolled in state hospital education programs, including developmental centers, on the basis of an equal amount for each unit of average daily attendance, as defined by law.
(i) No Budget Act or other statutory provision shall direct that payments for public education made pursuant to this chapter be used for purposes and programs, including workload adjustments and maintenance of the level of service, authorized by Chapters 498, 565, and 1302 of the Statutes of 1983, Chapter 97 or 258 of the Statutes of 1984, or Chapter 1 of the Statutes of the 1983–84 Second Extraordinary Session.
(j) School districts and other agencies receiving funds distributed pursuant to this chapter may at their option utilize funds allocated by this chapter to provide additional funds for those purposes and programs prescribed by subdivision (i) for the purpose of enrichment or expansion.
(k) As a condition of receiving any moneys pursuant to subdivision (a) or (b), each school district and county superintendent of schools shall establish a separate account for the receipt and expenditure of those moneys, which account shall be clearly identified as a lottery education account.
(l) Commencing with the 1998–99 fiscal year, and each year thereafter, for purposes of subdivision (a), average daily attendance shall be increased by the statewide average rate of excused absences for the 1996–97 fiscal year as determined pursuant to the provisions of Chapter 855 of the Statutes of 1997. The statewide average excused absence rate, and the corresponding adjustment factor required for the operation of this subdivision, shall be certified to the Controller by the Superintendent of Public Instruction.
(m) It is the intent of this chapter that all funds allocated from the California State Lottery Education Fund shall be used exclusively for the education of pupils and students and no funds shall be spent for acquisition of real property, construction of facilities, financing of research, or any other noninstructional purpose.
SEC. 2.
The Legislature finds and declares both of the following:
(a) This act furthers the purpose of the California State Lottery Act of 1984, enacted by Proposition 37 at the November 6, 1984, general election by eliminating inefficient administrative procedures that the Board of Trustees of the California State University and the Controller utilize on a quarterly basis.
(b) This act shall not be interpreted to expand the lawful uses of funds allocated from the California State Lottery Education Fund to the Board of Trustees of the California State University.