dataset string | id string | question string | choices list | rationale string | answer string | subject string |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
medmcqa | medmcqa_10835 | All of the following are complications in a pregnant woman with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) disease except ______ | [
"Preterm labour",
"Thrombophilia",
"Post term delivery",
"Eclampsia"
] | Post term delivery is not a complication in a pregnant patient with SLE. Complications in a pregnant patient with SLE include: Thrombophilia Pre term labour Hypeension, Eclampsia and Pre eclampsia Anemia Stroke Thrombocytopenia Renal failure Ref: Williams Obstetrics 25th edition Pgno: 1141 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_6914 | Prolapsed interveebral disc (PID) is most common at: September 2012 | [
"C2-C3",
"T10-T11",
"L2-L3",
"L4-L5"
] | Ans. D i.e. L4-L5 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_21430 | True about Bacteria is | [
"Mitochondria are always absent",
"Sterols are always present in cell wall",
"Divide by binary fission",
"Can be seen only under electron microscope"
] | Bacteria are prokaryotic organisms so they don't have mitochondria but instead they'll be having mesosomes. Ref: anantnarayan and panikers 10 th edition | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_47278 | All of the following are causes of death in burns patient except | [
"ARDS",
"Shock",
"Sepsis",
"Hyperkalemia"
] | Causes of death in burns Shock Sepsis ARDS Multiple organ failure | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_46097 | What is present in the pa of the bone which received radiotherapy- | [
"Response to radiotherapy is good",
"Fast healing",
"More destruction of bone",
"Tumour regression is not affected"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., More destruction of bone o Infection and radiation, both cause bone destruction and predispose to pathological fracture. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_1926 | Time period between primary case and secondary case is known as? | [
"Generation time",
"Serial interval",
"Secondary attack rate",
"Incubation period"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Serial interval. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_42001 | Sliding constituent of a large direct hernia is : | [
"Bladder",
"Sigmoid colon",
"Caecum",
"Appendix"
] | Sigmoid colon and Caecum slide into indirect sac not in direct sac. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_5584 | Which vitamin is most likely to be deficient in patients on treatment with isoniazid : | [
"Vitamin B1",
"Vitamin B2",
"Vitamin B6",
"Vitamin B12"
] | null | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_14034 | All of the following are found in the posterior triangle of the neck except one. Which one is the exception? | [
"External jugular vein.",
"Subclavian vein.",
"Hypoglossal nerve.",
"Phrenic nerve."
] | The hypoglossal (CN XII) nerve is not found in the posterior triangle; it is, however, present in the submandibular triangle.
Contents of the posterior triangle include the external jugular and subclavian vein and their tributaries, the subclavian artery and its branches, branches of the cervical plexus, CN XI, nerves to the upper limb and muscles of the triangle floor, the phrenic nerve, and the brachial plexus. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_42262 | Percentage of para-para isomer in DDT is ? | [
"20-30%",
"40-50%",
"60-70%",
"70-80%"
] | Ans. is 'd' i.e., 70-80% o DDT is an amorphous white powder. o Para-para isomer is the most active fraction ---> contains 70-80% of para-para isomers. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_8729 | Cidofovir is- | [
"Antiviral",
"Antifungal",
"Antihelmenthic",
"Antibacterial"
] | Ans. is 'a' AntiviralCidofoviro It is an antiviral drug.o It is a monophosphate nucleotide analog of cytidine which inhibits most DNA viruses including HSV, CMV, pox and adenoviruses.o It is used for the treatment of CMV retinitis. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_597 | Which is therapeutic indication of keratoplasty: | [
"Keratoconus",
"Perforated corneal ulcer",
"Myopia",
"hypermetropia"
] | Perforated corneal ulcer Indication of penetrating keratoplasty Therapeutic - replaces inflamed cornea and maintains structural integrity of the eye ball Perforated corneal ulcer Optical - improve vision, opacity, bullous keratopathy ,advanced keratoconus | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_44251 | In treatment of papillary carcinoma thyroid, radioiodine destroys the neoplastic cells predominantly by: | [
"X-rays",
"ri rays",
"7 rays",
"a paicles"
] | Ans. ri rays | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_48441 | Investigation of choice for vascular ring around airway: | [
"PET",
"CT",
"MRI",
"Catheter directed angiography"
] | Ans.CT | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_22518 | The facial space that is divided by styloid process into an anterior and posterior compartment is | [
"Pterygomandibular",
"Lateral pharyngeal",
"Retropharyngeal",
"Infratemporal"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_20401 | Occupational Lung Disease commonly seen in Textile Industry Workers is: | [
"Byssinosis",
"Bagassosis",
"Farmer's Lung",
"Asbestosis"
] | Answer is A (Byssinosis) Occupational Lung Disease in Textile Industry Workers (Cotton industry) Byssinosis is an asthma-like condition caused by inhalation of cotton fiber dust over prolonged period of time. Workers occupationally exposed to cotton dust (but also to flax, hemp or jute dust) in the production of yarns for textile and rope making are at risk of Byssinosis. Exposure occurs throughout the manufacturing process but is most pronounced in the poions of the factory involved with the treatment of cotton before spinning (blowing, mixing, carding or straightening) Byssinosis is more common during milling and processing of cotton than during spinning. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_47542 | GVHD - | [
"Associated with solid organ transplantation",
"Graft must contains immunocompitant T-cell",
"It is seen in immunosupressed persons",
"All"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Associated with solid organ transplantation; 'b' i.e., Graft must contains immunocompetant T-cell; 'c' i.e., It is seen in immunosupressed persons | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_34374 | A 2-month-old boy is evaluated for failure to thrive. As the pediatrician examined the child, she witnesses a seizure. Physical examination is remarkable for hepatomegaly, a finding later confirmed by CT scan, which also reveals renomegaly. Serum chemistries demonstrate severe hypoglycemia, hyperlipidemia, lactic acidosis, and ketosis. Which of the following diseases best accounts for this presentation? | [
"Gaucher's disease",
"McArdle's disease",
"Niemann-Pick disease",
"Von Gierke's disease"
] | Von Gierke's disease is a glycogen storage disease caused by a deficiency of glucose-6-phosphatase. It typically presents with neonatal hypoglycemia, hyperlipidemia, lactic acidosis, and ketosis. Failure to thrive is common in early life; convulsions may occur due to profound hypoglycemia. The glycogen accumulation in von Gierke's disease occurs primarily in the liver and kidneys, accounting for the enlargement of these organs. Gout may develop later because of the derangement of glucose metabolism. Even if you do not remember all of the details of the presentation of these genetic diseases, you should be able to narrow the choices: Gaucher's disease and Niemann-Pick disease are lipid storage diseases, and would not be expected to produce hypoglycemia. The other diseases are glycogen storage diseases, but McArdle's and Pompe's disease affect muscle rather than liver and would not be expected to produce profound hypoglycemia, since the liver is the major source for blood glucose. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_51891 | A 52-year-old man has suffered with chronic diarrhea for several years, but has refused to see a doctor. He finally comes because he is having trouble driving at night, because of difficulty seeing. Physical examination reveals a slender, pale, unwell-looking man. He has a microcytic anemia, slight elevation in the INR, low ionized calcium, and albumin levels. Which of the following is the most likely cause for his diarrhea? | [
"malabsorption",
"osmotic diarrhea",
"secretory diarrhea",
"inflammatory bowel disease"
] | His night blindness suggests vitamin A deficiency, which is more likely to occur with malabsorption. His anemia and general appearance are compatible with chronic inflammatory bowel disease as well, but the clinical and biochemical features of fat-soluble vitamin deficiency (in this case vitamin A, D, and K) suggest malabsorption. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_14477 | Culture medium used for streptococcus pneumoniae | [
"Human blood agar",
"Sheep blood agar",
"MacConkey's agar",
"Deoxycholate agar"
] | Sheep blood agar | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_2000 | A 25 years old female complains of recurrent rhinitis, nasal discharge and bilateral nasal blockage since one year. She has the history of asthma and allergy. On examination, multiple ethmoidal polyps are noted with mucosal thickening and impacted secretions in both the nasal cavities. A biopsy is taken and the material is cultured which shown the growth of many non pigmented septate hyphae with dichotomous branching typically at 45degrees. Which of the following is the most likely responsible organism | [
"Aspergillus fumigatus",
"Rhizopus",
"Mucor",
"Candida"
] | Aspergillus shows typical dichotomous branching at an angle of approximately 45degrees. Candida shows pseudohyphae. Rhizopus and mucor shows nonseptate hyphae. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Baveja; 4th edition | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_31365 | Drug of choice for fungal corneal ulcer: | [
"Nystatin",
"Caspofungin",
"Natamycin",
"Amphotericin"
] | Natamycin is a topical antifungal which is the drug of choice for fungal corneal ulcer.
Other topical antifungals : Nystatin, Clotrimazole, Tolnaftate, Ciclopirox | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_11014 | Gases dissolved in molten metals are liberated when cooled giving rise to: | [
"Suckback porosity",
"Gas inclusion porosity",
"Localized shrinkage porosity",
"Microporosity"
] | Both pinhole and gas inclusion porosities are related to the entrapment of gas during solidification. Both are characterized by a spherical contour but are decidedly different in size.
The gas inclusion porosities are usually much larger than pinhole porosity. Many metals dissolve or occlude gases while they are molten. For example, both copper and silver dissolve oxygen in large amounts in the liquid state. Molten platinum and palladium have a strong affinity for hydrogen as well as oxygen. On solidification, the absorbed gases are expelled and pinhole porosity results. The larger voids may also result from the same cause, but it is more logical to assume that such voids are caused by gas that is mechanically trapped by the molten metal in the mold or by gas that is incorporated during the casting procedure.
Reference: PHILLIPS’ SCIENCE OF DENTAL MATERIALS, 12th ed page no 226 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_23976 | Which of the following is true about Mantle dentin | [
"1st formed dentin just beneath DEJ",
"Calcified by matrix vesicles",
"Both",
"None"
] | null | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_39405 | The complications of irrigating fluid used in TURP are all except - | [
"Water intoxication",
"Hyperammonemia",
"Hyperthermia",
"Hyperglycemia"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Hyperthermia Feature of TURP Syndromeo Water intoxicationo Hyponatriemiao Hyperammonemia (if glycine is used)o Hyperglycemiao Hypothermiao DIC (late stages) | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_43349 | Which of the following statements is false regarding overdentures | [
"Biting force and neuromuscular control of patients is better than complete denture patients",
"Stability and retention are enhanced",
"Requires simple oral hygiene procedures",
"Gives immense psychological support to the patient"
] | Scrupulous hygiene accompanied by biannual professional monitoring is mandatory to ensure continued abutment health. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_12868 | Patient present with severe energy deficiency. Which of the following vitamin might be deficient in this patient? | [
"Pyridoxine",
"Riboflavin",
"Thiamin",
"Folic acid"
] | The oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate and a-ketoglutarate, which plays a key role in energy metabolism of most cells, is paicularly impoant in tissues of the nervous system. In thiamine deficiency, the activity of these two dehydrogenase-catalyzed reactions is decreased, resulting in a decreased production of ATP and, thus, impaired cellular function. 1. Beriberi: This is a severe thiamine-deficiency syndrome found in areas where polished rice is the major component of the diet. Signs of infantile beriberi include tachycardia, vomiting, convulsions, and, if not treated, death. The deficiency syndrome can have a rapid onset in nursing infants whose mothers are deficient in thiamine. Adult beriberi is characterized by dry skin, irritability, disordered thinking, and progressive paralysis. 2. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome:In the United States, thiamine deficiency, which is seen primarily in association with chronic alcoholism, is due to dietary insufficiency or impaired intestinal absorption of the vitamin. Some alcoholics develop Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome--a thiamine deficiency state characterized by apathy, loss of memory, ataxia, and a rhythmic to-and-fro motion of the eyeballs (nystagmus). The neurologic consequences of Wernicke&;s syndrome are treatable with thiamine supplementation. Reference: Lippincott edition 5, pg no. 379 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_28163 | Fetal cardiac activity is detected with Trans vaginal USG as early as? | [
"6 weeks",
"8 weeks",
"10 weeks.",
"12 weeks"
] | ANSWER: (A) 6weeksREF: USG in Obstetrics & Gynecology by Callen 4ch edition page 119-120Fetal cardiac activity is detected as early asWith Transvaginal USG6 weeks of gestational ageWith Transabdominal USG8 weeks of gestational age | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_40395 | True about the teratogenicity of a drug is all except: | [
"Characteristic set of malformations indicating selectivity for certain target organs is seen",
"Heparin is highly teratogenic drug",
"Related to the dose of the teratogenic drug",
"Affects specifically at a particular phase of development of the fetus"
] | Teratogenjcity is the development of characteristic set of malformations by the use of a drug during pregnancy. Different drugs have specificity for a particular phase of development of fetus. The risk of teratogenesis is dose dependent. Heparin cannot cross the placenta and is thus safe during pregnancy. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_36794 | Streptococcus all are true except : | [
"Streptodornase cleaves DNA",
"Streptolysin 0 is active in reduced state",
"Streptokinase is produced from serotype A,C,K",
"Pyrogenic toxin A is plasmid mediated"
] | Pyrogenic exotoxin Most strains of streptococcus pyogenes produce one or more toxins that are called pyrogenic exotoxins because of their ability to induce fever. Three types of streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins have been identified, i.e. A, B, and C. - "The genes of SPE "A" and SPE 'C' are transmitted between the strains of streptococcus by bacteriophagedeg and stable production depends on lysogenic conversion". - "The genes for SPE B are coded by chromosomesQ".(not plasmids) SPE A and SPE C' are also called erythrogenic toxins as they are responsible .for rash observed in patients with scarlatina. - They have superantigen activity which causes massive release of inflammatory gtokines from T lymphocytes causing fever, shock and tissue damage. Pyrogenic exotoxin A Gene transmitted by /3 phase Pyrogenic extoxin B Gene transmitted by chromosome Pyrogenic exotoxin C Gene transmitted by fi phase | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_22708 | A systematic observation and recording of activities of one or more individuals at random interval is done in - | [
"System analysis",
"Network analysis",
"Work sampling",
"Input-output analysis"
] | A network analysis is a graphical plan of all events and activities to be completed inorder to reach an end objective.It brings greater discipline in planning.Two common types of network techniques are PE CPM(refer pgno:872 park 23 rd edition) | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_13791 | Multiple painful ulcers with inguinal lymphadenopathy. Diagnosis is? | [
"Syphilis",
"Chancroid",
"LGV",
"Donovanosis"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e. Chancroid* Chancaroid characteristically present with multiple painful ulcers with no or soft induration with painful suppurative inguinal lymphadenopathy.* They have undermined, sloughed erythematous edges & bleed easily.Characteristics of various different types of genital ulcersi) Primary syphilis (hard chancre):- punched out, painless, non bleeding(avascular) ulcer with firm induration. Painless lymphadenopathy.ii) Donovanosis:- one or more, painless, bleeding (vascular) ulcers with induration. No lymphadenopathy (pseudobubos).iii) Chancroid (soft chancre):- multiple, painful, bleeding (vascular) ulcers with no or soft induration. Suppurative painful lymphadenopathy.iv) LGV: - single, painless, non bleeding ulcer. Painful lymphadenopathy.v) Herpes genitalis: - multiple painfiil/asymptomatic vesicles/ulcers. Painful lymphadenopathy (b/1). | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_21616 | Sign of activity in chronic iridocyclitis is: | [
"Aqueous cells",
"Aqueous flare",
"Pigmented KPs",
"All of the above"
] | Ans. Aqueous cells | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_3537 | Which one of the following is the major determinant of plasma osmolality - | [
"Serum sodium",
"Serum potassium",
"Blood glucose",
"Blood urea nitrogen"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Serum sodium o Plasma osmolality = 2 (sodium + potassium)+BUN2.8+Blood sugar18 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_53101 | Most common cause of Acute epiglottis is | [
"Respiratory Syncytial Virus",
"Parainfluenza virus",
"Hemophilius influenza A",
"Hemophilius influenza B"
] | Most common cause of Acute epiglottis is Hemophilius influenza B | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_18927 | Most common manifestation of increased intracranial pressure in a patient with head injury: UPSC 07 | [
"Change in the level of consciousness",
"Ipsilateral pupillary dilatation",
"Retching and vomiting",
"Bradycardia"
] | Ans. Change in the level of consciousness | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_17844 | All are true regarding early postcibal syndrome Except | [
"Distention of abdomen",
"Managed conservatively",
"Hypermotility of intestine is common",
"Surgery is usually indicated"
] | Most of the cases of post-cibal or dumping syndrome can be managed by dietary management or medications (anticholinergic agents, antidiarrhoeal, octreotide). Only a small percentage of patients need surgery. Ref : Schwaz 9/e p942 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_42290 | Commonest type of seizure in newborn – | [
"Clonic",
"Tonic",
"Subtle",
"Myoclonic"
] | Most common type of seizures is newborn are subtle seizures and they constitute 50% of all seizures.
They are called subtle seizures because the clinical manifestations are often mild and frequently missed.
Subtle seizures are usually mild paroxysmal alterations in motor behavior or autonomic function that are not clearly clonic, tonic or myoclonic.
Common examples of subtle seizures are -
ocular → Tonic horizontal deviation of eyes or sustained eye opening with ocular fixation or eyelid fluttering
Oral facial lingual movements → Chewing, tongue thrusting, lip smacking
Limb movements → Cycling, paddling, boxing jabs
Autonomic phenomenon → Tachycardia or bradycardia
Apnea → May be a rare manifestation of seizures | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_32275 | Sentinel node biopsy for Ca breast is for | [
"Early diagnosis of cancer",
"For staging the tumours",
"Frozen section",
"Occult disease detection"
] | *Sentinel lymph nodes: Lymph nodes where the lymphatics drain first from a primary tumorSentinel lymph node biopsy can be identified by radiotracer or colored dyes. If the sentinel node is negative for metastasis, it is unlikely that other more distant nodes will be involved and the patient can be spared the morbidity (like lymphedema) of complete axillary dissection.Ref: Robbins 8/e p1089 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_2692 | Specific term used for granulomatous inflammation of superior orbital fissure is | [
"Cavernous sinus thrombosis",
"Tolosa Hunt Syndrome",
"Pseudotumor",
"Grave's Ophthalmopathy"
] | Tolosa Hunt Syndrome Specific term used for granulomatous inflammation of superior orbital fissure Painful Ophthalmoplegia Present as either Superior Orbital fissure syndrome/ Orbital apex syndrome Superior Orbital Fissure Syndrome Retro orbital Pain Sensory disturbances in ophthalmic division of 5th nerve Ipsilateral ophthalmoplegia due to 3rd , 4th, 6th nerve Ptosis due to 3rd nerve palsy Orbital Apex Syndrome Symptom complex produced by involvement of structures passing through superior orbital fissure and optical canal The features are similar to Superior orbital fissure syndrome Features of optic nerve involvement like early visual loss and RAPD are also present | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_12942 | Steakhouse syndrome or intermittent food impaction is due to which of the following anomaly? | [
"Schatzki ring",
"Felin esophagus",
"Achalasia cardia",
"Esophageal carcinoma"
] | Esophageal rings : distal rings are usually associated with episodic solid food dysphagia and are called Schatzki rings. Patients typically present older than 40 years, consistent with an acquired rather than congenital origin. Schatzki ring causes intermittent food impaction, also known as steakhouse syndrome. Symptomatic rings are treated by dilatation. Reference: Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_31939 | The egg which of the following parasites consist of polar filaments arising from either end of the ambrophore? | [
"Taenia saginata",
"Taenia solium",
"Echinococcus granulosus",
"Hymenolepis nana"
] | Ans. is 'd' i.e., H. nana . Egg of H. nana - Spherical or oval - Two distinct membrane, (a) outer membrane (b) inner embryophore - Polar filaments emanating from little knobs at either end of embryophore. - Floats in saturated solution of common salt. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_37010 | In acoustic neuroma, cranial nerve to be involved earliest is | [
"5",
"7",
"9",
"10"
] | The earliest cranial nerve to be involved is V nerve causing reduced corneal sensitivity. Ref: Textbook of diseases of ENT, PL Dhingra, 7th edition, pg no. 125 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_16865 | The mechanism of action of Rivaroxaban, used in the treatment of heparin induced thrombocytopenia and thrombosis syndrome is: | [
"Direct factor Xa inhibitor",
"Activated factor VIIa",
"Vitamin K antagonist",
"None of the above"
] | Rivaroxaban is the first orally active Factor Xa inhibitor. Useful in Heparin induced thrombocytopenia and thrombosis syndrome. Ref: Harrisons principles of internal medicine, 18th edition, Page 2737 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_29164 | The coagulation profile in a 13 - year old girl with Menorrhagia having von Willebrands disease is - | [
"Isolated prolonged PTT with a normal PT",
"Isolated prolonged PT with a normal PTT",
"Prolongation of both PT and PTT",
"Prolongation of thrombin time"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_7209 | Gingivitis is initiated most frequently by: | [
"Pregnancy",
"Malocclusion",
"Vitamin deficiency",
"Local irritating factors"
] | null | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_15805 | Interstitial nephritis is seen in all except. | [
"Diuretics",
"Beta lactams",
"Allopurinol",
"Isoniazid"
] | Ans. (B) Beta lactams style="font-size: 1.04761904761905em; font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif">(Ref: )Drugs causing interstitial nephritis areAntibiotics: Cephalosporins, penicillins, ciprofloxacin, ethambutol, isoniazid, macrolides, rifampicin,Sulfonamides, tetracyclines and vancomycin.All NSAIDs.Diuretics: Thiazides, furosemide, triamterene.Others: Allopurinol, acyclovir, amlodipine, azathioprine, carbamazepine, captopril. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_22927 | 1730. A nine month old boy of Sindhl parents presented to you with complaints of progressive lethargy, Irritability & pallor since 6 months of age. Examination revealed severe pallor. Investigation showed Hb-3.8 mg%; MCV-58fl; MCH-19.4 pg/ cell. Blood film shows osmotic fragility Is normal (target cells and normoblasts). X-ray skull shows expansion of erythroid marrow. Which of the following Is the most likely diagnosis | [
"Iron deficiency anemia",
"Acute lymphoblastic anemia",
"Hemoglobin D disease",
"Hereditary spherocytosis"
] | <p>In iron deficiency anemia ,hemoglobin will be mild to moderate but occasionally it may be marked(less than 6g/dL). In peripheral smear,microcytic hypochromic red cells are seen;target cells ,polychromatic cells, normoblasts are seen.MCV will be less than 80fl & MCH less than 27pg. The marrow hypercellularity is increased due to marrow hyperplasia .</p><p>Reference :Harsh mohan textbook of pathology sixth edition pg no 299</p> | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_48099 | The right gastroepiploic aery is a branch of | [
"Right Hepatic aery",
"Gastroduodenal aery",
"Hepatic aery",
"Superior mesenteric aery"
] | Right gastroepiploic aery, a branch of gastroduodenal supplies the greater curvature of the stomach. Ref: BD Chaurasia; Volume 3; 6th edition; Page no: 252 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_41756 | Clinical feature of minimal change glomerulonephritis are all except - | [
"Hypeension",
"Edema",
"Non Selective proteinuria",
"Fever"
] | Minimal change disease -clinical features are Abrupt onset of edema Severe Hypoalbuminemia selective proteinuria -urine predominantly contains albumin with minimal amounts of higher molecular weight protiens. Less common clinical features include-hypeension ,microscopic hematuria ,atopic or allergic symptoms and decreased renal function. Ref:Harrison 20th edition pg no. 2142 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_34338 | Most reabsorption out of | [
"Glucose",
"Urea",
"Na+",
"HCO3"
] | Glucose is maximumly reabsorbed in normal condition.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology; 24th edition; page no; 682 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_12863 | Total etch technique is: | [
"Fourth generation",
"Fifth generation",
"Sixth generation",
"Seventh generation"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_11952 | Suprarenal gland develops from - | [
"Metanephros",
"Ureteric bud",
"Neural crest",
"Endodem"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Neural crest o Suprarenal (adrenal) gland consists two part :Superficial cortex : Derived from coelomic epithelium (mesodermal).Deepar medulla : Derived from neural crest (ectodermal). | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_50837 | Which is the MOST common biochemical abnormality seen in congenital pyloric stenosis? | [
"Hyperkalemic metabolic acidosis",
"Hypokalemic metabolic acidosis",
"Hyperkalemic metabolic alkalosis",
"Hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis"
] | Neonates with congenital pyloric stenosis develop projectile postprandial vomiting between 2 and 4 weeks of age but may sta as late as 12 weeks. Due to this vomiting they develop hypokalemic hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis. Congenital pyloric stenosis is more commonly found in males. Projectile vomiting occurring in neonate is nonbilious. On examination, the upper abdomen gets distended after feeding, and prominent gastric peristaltic waves can be seen from left to right. An oval mass in the shape of an olive can be palpated in the right upper abdomen, especially after vomiting. USG done in them shows a hypoechoic muscle ring greater than 4 mm thick with a hyperdense center and a pyloric channel length greater than 15 mm. Ref: CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Pediatrics, 21e chapter 21. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_4947 | False about brown pigment stones | [
"Associated with disorders of biliary motility and associated bacterial infection",
"More common in Caucasians",
"Soft and eahy in texture",
"High content of cholesterol and calcium palmitate"
] | Brown pigment stones are common in Asians not Caucasians Pigmentes stones Black stones Black stones are composed of insoluble bilirubin pigment polymer mixed with calcium phosphate and calcium bicarbonate Predisposing factors Hemolytic disorders (Heriditary spherocytosis, sickle cell anemia) Mechanical prosthetic hea valves Cirrhosis Gilbe's syndrome Cystic fibrosis Ileal disease or resection Brown stones Brown pigment stones contain calcium bilirubinate, calcium palmitate and calcium stearate as well as cholesterol Typically found in Asia Rare in GB Formed in bile duct Related to bile stasis and infection Gram negative bacteria (E.coli and Klebsiella) secretes beta-glucuronidase, which deconjugate soluble conjugated bilirubin Free unconjugated bilirubin precipitates and combines with calcium and bile to form brown pigment stones Stones form whenever static foreign bodies are present in the bile duct (stents or parasites such clonorchis sinensis and Ascaris lumbricoides) Ref: schwaz's principle of surgery 10th edition Pg no : 1491 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_47686 | Corpus luteum stas regressing after how many days of ovulation | [
"5 days",
"10 days",
"15 days",
"20 days"
] | A corpus luteum is a mass of cells that forms in an ovary and is responsible for the production of the hormone progesterone during early pregnancy. The role of the corpus luteum depends on whether or not feilization occurs Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number:637,638,639 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_4763 | The Most common presentation of multiple sclerosis | [
"Sensory loss",
"Vertigo",
"Pain",
"Epilepsy"
] | (A) Sensory loss # Initial symptoms of MSSYMPTOM%SYMPTOM OF CASES%* Sensory loss37* Lhermitte3* Optic neuritis36* Pain3* Weakness35* Dementia2* Paresthesias24* Visual loss2* Diplopia15* Facial palsy1* Ataxia11* Impotence1* Vertigo6* Myokymia1* Paroxysmal attacks4* Epilepsy1* Bladder4* Falling1 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_34218 | Endotoxin causes - | [
"Diarrhea",
"Muscle damage",
"Septic shock",
"None"
] | null | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_2963 | Eruption of Deciduous Mandibular Central incisor occur at | [
"8-9 months",
"6-7 months",
"19-20 months",
"15-16 months"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_43290 | A term born 6-month-old, lethargic blonde infant, presented with multiple episodes of vomiting, poor feeding, convulsions and severe psychomotor retardation. O/E: - Microcephaly with prominent maxillae and widely spaced teeth Blue iris Seborrheic or eczematoid rash Spasticity, hyperreflexia, and tremor Musty odour of urine MRI brain All of the following statements are true about the disease except: - | [
"May be caused due to the deficiency of cofactor tetrahydrobiopterin BH4",
"Tandem mass spectrometry is useful in the diagnosis.",
"The complications can't be prevented by restricting the use of the involved amino acid in diet.",
"Pegvaliase can be given in adults suffering from this."
] | This is a case of Phenylketonuria. Autosomal recessive Deficiency of Phenylalanine hydroxylase May also be due to deficiency of cofactor tetrahydrobiopterin BH4 Leads to hyperphenylalaninemia - Impairs brain development Normal at bih Becomes symptomatic later on in life Present with seizures, hypopigmentation of skin and hair, mental retardation. Complications can be avoided by restricting phenylalanine intake in diet. Diagnosed by: - Guthrie test Tandem mass spectrometry- measure amino acid Immunoassays MRI image shows affected periventricular/ parieto-occipital white matter (due to hypomyelination). Pegvaliase can be given in adults. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_28360 | Which of the following strategy has been recommended to reduce the heredity risk for ovarian cancer in women with BRCA -1 and BRCA-2 mutations : | [
"Use of oral contraceptive pills",
"Screening with transvaginal ultrasound",
"Sreening with CA -125",
"Prophylactic oophorectomy"
] | - women with strong family history of BRCA 1 and BRCA 2 mutations have high chance of developing ovarian cancer. - they are advised to undergo genetic testing for mutations of these genes. - in such women who are positive for such genes and have completed their family is advised to have prophylactic bilateral salpingo oophorectomy after 35 and before 40. Reference: Textbook of gynaecology Sheila balakrishnan, 2nd edition, pg no:276 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_47603 | Failure of migration of neural crest cells is seen in? | [
"Albinism",
"Congenital megacolon",
"Odontomes",
"Adrenal tumour"
] | B i.e. Congenital Megacolon | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_22420 | Adult human who are awake with mind wanderingand the eyes closed. Most likely EEG pattern is | [
"Alpha - rhythm",
"Beta rhythm",
"Theta rhythm",
"Delta waves"
] | (Alpha - rhythm) (194 - 95- Ganong22nd) (836. K.S (233- Ganong 23rd)* Alpha rhythm - awake, at rest mind wandering and the eye closed, 8-12 Hz frequency, 50-100 mv amplitude* Beta rhythm - 18-30Hz, lower amplitude* Gamma - oscillations - at 30- 80 Hz* Theta rhythm - larger amplitude , regular 4-7 Hz waves* Delta waves - become more prominent with low frequency and high amplitudeCharacteristicREM- sleepNon-REM sleep* Rapid eye movements, Dreams muscle twitchingPresentAbsent* Heart rate, BP. Respiration Body temperatureFluctuatingStable* NeurotransmitterNoradrenalineSerotonin | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_36800 | In acute congestive glaucoma, best prophylaxis for the other eye is: | [
"Laser Iridotomy",
"Topical steroids",
"Trabeculectomy",
"Surgical peripheral Iridectomy"
] | Ans. (a) Laser Iridotomy\Ref.: A.K. Khurana 6th ed. 1247-48* Please refer to above explanation* Treatment of choice for primary angle closure glaucoma (fellow eye, latent stage, subacute or intermittent stage , chronic stage) is laser iridotomy* Peripheral surgical iridectomy can also be used.* In acute congestive stage of PACG drug of choice is Pilocarpine, till the time laser iridotomy can be performed. Treatment of choice for fellow eye | | |Primary open angle glaucoma Primary angle closure glaucoma | | Laser trabeculoplasty Nd YAG Laser Iridotomy | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_4072 | All the following metabolic may cause recurrent abdominal pain, except | [
"Acute intermittent prophyria",
"Addison's disease",
"Hypercalcemia",
"Hyperkalemia"
] | Acute intermittent porphyria, which causes abdominal pain and neurologic symptoms, is the most common acute porphyria. ... Symptoms may include vomiting, abdominal or back pain, weakness in arms or legs, and mental symptoms. Laboratory tests are done on urine samples taken during the attack. Addison's disease, the deficiency of aldosterone leads to hyponatremia, dehydration, and hyperkalemia. ... Addison's disease presents with gastrointestinal complaints in form of diarrhea in 20% of cases. Adrenal insufficiency usually presents as acute abdominal pain especially during adrenal crisis Hypercalcemia can cause stomach upset, nausea, vomiting and constipation. Bones and muscles. In most cases, the excess calcium in your blood was leached from your bones, which weakens them. This can cause bone pain, muscle weakness and depression Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 719 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_26265 | Subendothelial deposits in glomerulus are characteristically seen in: | [
"Lupus nephritis",
"IgA nephropathy",
"post infectious nephritis",
"Goodpasture disease"
] | Ans: A (Lupus nephritis) Ref: Robbins and Cotran, 'Pathologic Basis of Disease 8th Edition, Elsevier, 2011, Pg 918Explanation:Subepithelial DepositsPost infectious Glomerulonephritis (Lumpy bumpy deposits)Membranous GlomerulopathySubendothelial DepositsMembranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (MPGN) type 1Lupus nephritisPost infectious glomerulonephritis (Rarely) | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_4963 | Ophthalmic change initially seen in DM: | [
"Microaneurysm",
"Hard exudates",
"Cotton wool exudates",
"Neovoscularization"
] | A i.e. Microaneurysm | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_27610 | Smita is a case of infertility. What is the right time in her menstrual cycle to do endometrial biopsy: | [
"12 -14 days",
"17 -19 days",
"20 - 22 days",
"3 - 5 days"
] | Endometrial biopsy should be taken in premenstrual phase 1 – 2 days before the onset of menstruation
Endometrial Biopsy
• OPD procedure for hormonal evaluation in case of infertility / DUB/TB.
• Usually performed in pre–menstrual phase from the lateral wall of vagina.
• Interpretation:
Presence of secretory endometrium → Progesterone phase (cycles has been ovulatory)
Presence of proliferative endometrium → Estrogen phase (cycles has been anovulatory)
• Luteal phase defect can also be diagnosed by endometrial biopsy (which shows a lag of 2 – 3 days between calendar and histological dating of specimen. Note: For the diagnosis of luteal phase defect endometrial biopsy is done between day 24-26 of the menstrual cycle or 2 to 4 days before anticipated menstruation.
• Endometrial biopsy is contraindicated in suspected malignancy/sepsis.
• 1st sign of ovulation on endometrial biopsy is parabasal vacuolation | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_28249 | Which of the following are Not seen in Kwashiorkor ? | [
"Apathy",
"Flaky paint dermatosis",
"Baggy paint appearance",
"Increased transaminase"
] | .Kwashiorkor is a form of acute malnutrition that most commonly occurs in children. This condition is extremely serious and results from such severe protein deficiencies that a child experiences edema or swelling. Other terms for kwashiorkor include: protein pitting Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition Nutrition Chapter | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_3328 | Which one of the following drugs is antipseudomonal penicillin? | [
"Cephalexin",
"Cloxacillin",
"Piperacillin",
"Dicloxacillin"
] | null | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_53502 | Dendritic ulcer is produced by | [
"Pneumococcus",
"Herpes zoster virus",
"Gonococcus",
"Herpes simplex virus"
] | Epithelial Herpes simplex Virus keratitis - Symptoms Redness Pain Photophobia Tearing Decreased vision Signs Three distinct patterns of epithelial keratitis seen are : punctate Epithelial keratitis dendritic ulcer geographical ulcer Ref;A.K.Khurana; 6th edition; Page no:108 REF IMG | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_29800 | In case of IVC obstruction the collaterals which open up are all except | [
"Superior epigastric & inferior epigastric vein",
"Azygos & ascending lumbar vein",
"Superficial epigastric & iliolumbar vein",
"Lateral thoracic veins & preveebral vein"
] | Superficial epigastric pain drains into great saphenous vein.Iliolumbar vein drains into internal iliac vein,so these two do not form collateral between SVC & IVC as both of them will be ultimately drained into IVC.All other choices form collaterals between SVC & IVC. Ref: Chapter 8. The Chest: Chest Wall, Pulmonary, and Cardiovascular Systems; The Breasts. In LeBlond R.F., Brown D.D., DeGowin R.L. (Eds),DeGowin's Diagnostic Examination, 9e. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_40466 | Hatters shake are seen in poisoning with? | [
"Mercury",
"Lead",
"Arsenic",
"Copper"
] | Chronic poisoning * Also called as hydrargyrism, mercurialism * Excessive salivation (Ptyalism, Sialorrhea) * Metallic taste * Anorexia * Insomnia * Headache * Gingivitis * Halitosis * Blue line on gums * Lassitude * Visual blurring * Concentric constriction of visual field (tunnel vision) * Mercuria lentis - opacities of the anterior capsule of the lens of eye due to deposition of mercury * Ataxia - reeling gait * Tremors - classical manifestation of chronic mercury poisoning and is referred as "Danbury tremor". The tremors are coarse, intentional type, interspersed with jerky movements, initially involving hands. Later it involves lip, tongue, arms and legs. The advanced condition of tremors is called as "Hatter's shakes" (because the condition was first described among felt hat workers). In Hatter's shakes, the tremor becomes so severe that daily activities of person are grossly impaired such as shaving, writing, holding cup etc. As the disease progresses, the most severe form of tremor are called as "Concussio mercurialis" which means no activity is possible * Mercurial erethism - a classical manifestation of chronic mercury poisoning characterized by cluster of psychiatric symptoms including disturbance inpersonality, abnormal shyness, timidity, loss of self confidence, insomnia, excitability, progressing later into delirium with hallucinations (Mad as hatter). * Colitis * Melanosis coli * Mercury dermatitis - from mercuric sulphide (cinnabar) as red areas of tattoo has been repoed. * Dementia * Renal failure * Acrodynia (Pink disease):-Seen mostly in children and caused by chronic mercury exposure. It causes anorexia, insomnia, profuse sweating, skin rash, redness, vesication and desquamation (peeling) of palm, finger, sole and photophobia.The hands and feet becomes - puffy, pinkish, painful, paraesthetic, perspiring and peeling (remember 6 P's) * Shedding of teeth and ulceration of gums. REF;THE SYNOPSIS OF FORENSIC MEDICINE:KS NARAYANA REDDY;28th EDITION;PAGE NO 307 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_35468 | What is electrical storm? | [
"> 3 episodes of ventricular tachycardia within 24 hours",
"> 3 episodes of atrial tachycardia within 24 hours",
"Electromechanical dissociation",
"Electrical alternans"
] | Electrical storm: Condition in which patient develops recurrent V. tachycardia. Cut off >3 episodes of V.T within 24 hrs. Option C: Electromechanical Dissociation: Terminology used to describe rupture hea which causes pulseless BP|| Option D: Electrical alternans- Variations in QRS amplitude in conditions - C. tamponade | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_5738 | In rabies, Negri bodies can be detected in: March 2013 | [
"Cornea",
"Saliva",
"Skin",
"Neuron"
] | Ans. D i.e. Neuron The most characteristic pathologic finding of rabies in the CNS is the formation of cytoplasmic inclusions called 'negri bodies' within neurons. Negri bodies are distributed throughout the brain, paicularly in Ammon's horn, the cerebral coex, the brainstem, the hypothalamus, the Purkinje cells of the cerebellum, and the dorsal spinal ganglia. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_7068 | Ovulation is seen after how many hours of the 'Peak' of the 'Up stroke' in this diagram here : | [
"0-6 hours",
"10-12 hours",
"12-24 hours",
"24-36 hours"
] | From the onset of the LH surge, it takes 34-36 hours and from the peak it takes 10-12 hours to ovulate. The midcycle LH surge is responsible for a dramatic increase in local concentrations of prostaglandins and proteolytic enzymes in the follicle. These substances progressively weaken the follicular wall and ultimately allow a perforation to form. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_35633 | Dissociative anaesthesia is seen on administration of : | [
"Ether",
"Halothane",
"Enflurane",
"Ketamine"
] | null | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_49392 | Helium is used along with oxygen instead of plain oxygen because | [
"It increases the absorption of oxygen",
"It decreases turbulence",
"It decreases the dead space",
"For analgesia"
] | Helium is used because it decreases the turbulence. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_17723 | Forage determination of 21-year-old female, a site for X-ray done - | [
"Elbow and shoulder",
"Wrist",
"Hip and knee",
"Ischial tuberosity and clavicle"
] | The following data is used for radiologically age determination | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_18354 | Dennie Morgan fold is seen in | [
"Ear",
"Eye lid",
"Mouth",
"Pharynx"
] | Dennie's line (Denny morgan fold) is an extra fold of skin beneath lower eyelid. It is characteristic of atopic dermatitis. It can simply be an ethnic/genetic trait,but was found in one study to occur in 25% of patients with atopic dermatitis.The presence of Dennie-Morgan folds can be used as a diagnostic marker for allergy with a sensitivity of 78% and specificity of 76% according to one study Such folds are also common among ceain ethnic groups such as Blacks,Tatars, Slavs, Balts, and Finno-Ugric peoples and are not known to be associated with any medical condition in these *The pathophysiology of this sign is not clear. One proposed mechanism is that continuous spasm of the superior tarsal muscle and skin edema could be due to hypoxia from poor circulation. A Dennie-Morgan fold should not be confused with an "allergic shiner", a purple-gray discolouration beneath the lower eyelid. This is related to the accumulation of blood and other fluid in the infraorbital groove resulting from nasal congestion. Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 1233 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_21267 | Features seen in hemolytic anemia are all except: | [
"Tear drop and Burr cells",
"Haptoglobin",
"Reticulocytosis",
"Hemoglobinuria"
] | Answer is A (Tear drop cells are Burr cells) Tear drop cells and Burr cells are not characteristic of hemolytic anemias. Decreased levels of haptagobin, Reticulocytosis and haemoglobinuria are characteristic features of hemolytic anemia. Burr cells and Tear Drop cells- 'Pathology of Bone marrow and Blood cells (2004)' Burr Cells may be seen in cases of microangiopathic hemolytic anemia but the presence of burr cells alone is not characteristic of a hemolytic anemias. Burr cells (Echnocyte) Burr cells are an acquired RBC membrane abnormality with sho evenly spaced spicules. They may be seen in Renal failure (Uremia) - Characteristic feature Liver disease Burns Pyruvate kinase deficiency Gastric ulcers Cancer Microangiopathic Hemolytic Anemias Tear drop cells are drop shaped cells characteristic of marrow fibrosis. They are not a characteristic feature of hemolytic anemias. Tear Drop cells (Dacrocytes) Tear Drop cells are drop/ tear shaped RBC's characteristically seen in conditions associated with marrow fibrosis or extramedullary hemotopaesis They may be seen in Myelofibrosis Myelodysplastic syndrome Sideroblastic anemia Metastatic marrow infiltration These may also be seen in thalassemia, pernicious anemia and iron deficiency anemia Note Fragmented Erythrocytes seen in microangiopathic hemolytic anemia Helmet cellse Burr cells SchistocytesQ Taken from Heptinstall's pathology of the kidney 6th/703. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_416 | Single unit smooth muscles are seen in | [
"Iris",
"Ductus deferens",
"Ureter",
"Trachea"
] | null | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_31368 | Which type of trophoblstic disease has worst prognosis? | [
"Post partum",
"After spontaneous abortion",
"After ectopic pregnancy",
"Hydatid mole"
] | ANSWER: (A) Post partumREF: COGDT 10th edp. 892WHO Scoring System based on prognostic factors ScorePrognostic Factors0124Age (years)<39>39 Antecedent PregnancyHydatidiform MoleAbortionTerm--interval*44-67-1212hCG (IU/1)<103103-104104-105>105ABO groups female x male--O x AAx OBAB--Largest tumour including uterine tumours--3-5 Cm>5 Cm--Site of metastases--Spleen, KidneyGIT, LiverBrainNumber of metastases identified--1-44-8>8Prior Chemo-therapy----Single DrugTwo or more | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_50846 | The following statements about thyroglossal cyst are true, except | [
"Frequent cause of anterior midline neck masses in the first decade of life",
"The cyst is located within 2 cm of the midline",
"Incision and drainage is the treatment of choice",
"The swelling moves upwards on protrusion of tongue"
] | Thyroglossal cysts are the most common cause of midline neck masses. Can occur anywhere along the path of the thyroglossal duct, from the base of the tongue to the suprasternal notch (in the midline) Treatment must include excision of the whole thyroglossal tract, which involves removal of the body of the hyoid bone and the suprahyoid tract through the tongue base to the vallecula at the site of the primitive foramen caecum, (not incision and drainage) This operation is known as Sistrunk's operation and prevents recurrence Source : Bailet and Love Pg: 702 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_39584 | A 17 year old primigravida asks you what to expect during her pregnancy. You tell her that normally during pregnancy: | [
"Blood volume increases",
"Hematocrit Increases",
"Respiratory Title Volume Decreases",
"Pulmonary functional residual capacity increases"
] | During pregnancy many physiological changes take place in a mother's body. Maternal blood volume increases up to 40% due to elevated testosterone and estrogen levels. Bone marrow production of erythrocytes also increases, but does not keep up with the plasma volume expansion, resulting in a decrease in hematocrit (physiological anemia of pregnancy). Respiratory minute volume increases by about 50% because of the increased basal metabolic rate and oxygen consumption. This increase is largely due to an increase in tidal volume without increase in respiratory rate. Residual volume and expiratory reserve volume decreases. Gastrointestinal tone and motility decrease because of the inhibitory effect of progesterone on these smooth muscles. Ref: Alford C., Nurudeen S. (2013). Chapter 4. Physiology of Reproduction in Women. In A.H. DeCherney, L. Nathan, N. Laufer, A.S. Roman (Eds), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Obstetrics & Gynecology, 11e. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_32437 | Primary atypical pneumonia is caused by all of the following organisms, EXCEPT: | [
"Coxiella burnetii",
"Influenza",
"Measles",
"Mumps virus"
] | Primary atypical pneumonia is not a known complication of mumps. Clinical manifestations of mumps includes parotitis, epididymoorchitis, aseptic meningitis and mumps pancreatitis. Myocarditis and endocardial fibroelastosis are rare and self-limited severe complications. Other unusual complications include thyroiditis, nephritis, ahritis, hepatic disease, keratouveitis, and thrombocytopenic purpura. Features of atypical pneumonias includes: Exhibition of a non lobar, patchy, ill defined infiltrate on chest X ray Failure to show a causative organism on gram stain or culture of sputum as routinely performed. Bacterial causes of atypical pneumonia includes Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Chlamydia pneumoniae, Legionella pneumophila, Coxiella burnetii and Chlamydophila psittaci. Viral causes of atypical pneumonia includes Influenzae virus, respiratory syncytial virus and adenovirus. Ref: Rubin S., Carbone K.M. (2012). Chapter 194. Mumps. In D.L. Longo, A.S. Fauci, D.L. Kasper, S.L. Hauser, J.L. Jameson, J. Loscalzo (Eds), Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18e. Guide to Infectious Diseases by Body System By Jeffrey C. Pommerville page 11. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_39694 | Proteins provide _______ Kcal energy per gram | [
"2",
"4",
"6",
"9"
] | Carbohydrates provide 4 kcal of energy per gram. Proteins provide 4 kcal energy per gram. Fats provide 9 kcal of energy per gram. Reference: Paediatrics; O.P Ghai; 8th edition; Page no: 88,89 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_29043 | Blood gas measurements of a patient shows the following values pH 7.2, pCO2 80 mm Hg, p02 46 mm Hg. Which of the following could be the most probable diagnosis: | [
"Acute asthma",
"Acute exacerbation of COPD",
"ARDS",
"Severe pneumonia"
] | Answer is B (Acute exacerbation of COPD): The patient in question is presenting with type II Respiratory failure (Decreased PaO2 and increased PaCO2) which indicates an obstructive lung disease. Amongst the options provided Asthma and COPD, both are examples of obstructive lung diseases. Obstructive lung disease with elevated PCO2 is more characteristic and common in acute exacerbations of COPD than in Acute Asthma and hence acute exacerbation of COPD is the single best answer of choice. Acute Asthma and COPD are both examples of Obstructive lung diseases. Both conditions may present with the above picture but an elevated PCO2 is more characteristic of COPD than asthma | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_33515 | Giant cells seen | [
"Osteoclastoma",
"Chondroblastoma",
"Chordoma",
"Osteitis fibrosa cystisca"
] | Giant cell tumors of bone also known as osteoclastomas are relatively common bone tumors, usually benign which are arising from metaphsis and typically extending into epiphysis of the long bones. Young adults of ages 20-40 are more prone to these conditions. In a x ray we can find soap bubble appearance . >aicles > REF OF IMG: | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_43978 | Mammography can be best used in? | [
"Early breast carcinoma",
"Mastitis",
"Fibroadenoma",
"Phylloides tumor"
] | Ans. a (Early breast carcinoma). (Grainger, Diagnostic Radiology, 4th/pg.2245)Indications for mammography# Screening asymptomatic women aged 50 years and over# Screening asymptomatic women aged 35 years and over who have a high risk of developing breast cancer:- women who have one or more first degree relatives who have been diagnosed with premenopausal breast cancer- women with histologic risk factors found at previous surgery, e.g. atypical ductal hyperplasia# Investigation of symptomatic women aged 35 years and over with a breast lump or other clinical evidence of breast cancer# Surveillance of the breast following local excision of breast carcinoma# Evaluation of a breast lump in women following augmentation mammoplasty# Investigation of a suspicious breast lump in a man.# Before breast surgery, as it may avert an unnecessary biopsy demonstrating that the palpable mass has a character istically benign appearance.# Follow up of breast cancer patients.# Work up a patient with metastases from an unknown primary.# Mammographic screening is best screening method for carcinoma breast.- MRI is emerging as perhaps the most promising imaging investigation for breast cancer detection to date.# Positron emission tomography (PET) may not yet be sensitive enough for small occult lesions mammographically detected by screening.Mammographic features of breast cancer: (AIIMS NOV 2003)# The most common mammographic appearance of invasive carcinoma is a "spiculated" mass.# "Microcalcifications" may be seen in 30% cases of invasive carcinoma & 95% of cases of DCIS (granular & casting).# Its "sunburst" appearance readily distinguishes it from benign breast masses.# Often the tumor mass itself may not be visible, so that the only evidence of carcinoma is the presence of abnormal trabecular markings i.e. "distorted architecture".# Individual straight dense spicules with central solid mass which has little change in different views known as "white star" stellate or speculated breast lesion favours malignancy.# On mammography, this typically appears as linear, fragmented, branching, irregular and 'casting type' calcifications.Mammographic features of benign breast lesion:# Well defined nodules < 1 cm are of low risk for cancer.# 'Halo' sign of apparent lucency due to optical illusion of mach effect + true radiolucent halo is almost always benign.# Fat containing lesions (e.g. galactocele, hamartoma, traumatic cyst) are never malignant.# Granular calcification (amorphous, dot like/elongated, fragmented grouped very closely to each other) & casting calcification (fragmented cast of calcification within ducts) favour malignancy.# Clinical examination, Mammography, biopsy/cytology = TRIPLE ASSESSMENT for carcinoma breast.# The mammographic appearance of the breast depends on the relative amounts of fat and glandular tissue which are present. The young womanys breast contains a large proportion of glandular tissue which appears as soft-tissue density on the mammogram; in older women, when involution of the glandular tissue has occurred, most of the breast tissue appears of fatty density. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_6529 | Corneal epithelium is embryologically derived from: | [
"Neural crest",
"Ectoderm",
"Mesoderm",
"Endoderm"
] | Ectoderm | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_5714 | A 7-year-old boy with a high fever is brought to the pediatrician. During physical examination the patient complains of pain in his ear. His throat appears red and inflamed, confirming the diagnosis of pharyngitis. Which of the following structures provided a pathway for the infection to spread to the tympanic cavity (middle ear)? | [
"Choanae",
"Internal acoustic meatus",
"External acoustic meatus",
"Pharyngotympanic tube"
] | The pharyngotympanic (eustachian) tube connects the middle ear and the nasopharynx and is the conduit for spreading infections. The choanae are the openings between the nasal cavity and the nasopharynx, but they are not involved in spreading infection. The internal and external auditory meatuses are not directly associated with the middle ear but are associated with the inner and outer ear, respectively. The pharyngeal recess is a slit-like opening located behind the entrance to the auditory tube in the nasopharynx. Adenoids, enlarged masses of lymphoid tissue, can develop there. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_19473 | In which of the following cardiac structure is middle cardiac vein located? | [
"Anterior AV groove",
"Posterior AV groove",
"Anterior interventricular sulcus",
"Posterior interventricular sulcus"
] | Posterior interventricular vein or middle cardiac vein runs in the posterior interventricular sulcus and may drain into the right atrium or into the coronary sinus. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_51187 | Renal aery stenosis is not associated with: March 2009 | [
"Marfan's syndrome",
"atherosclerosis",
"polyaeritis nodosa",
"takayasu aeritis"
] | Ans. A: Marfan's syndrome The most common cause of renal aery stenosis is an atheromatous plaque. Marfan Syndrome: Marfan syndrome (MFS) is a spectrum of disorders caused by a heritable genetic defect of connective tissue that has an autosomal dominant mode of transmission. The defect itself has been isolated to the FBN1 gene on chromosome 15, which codes for the connective tissue protein fibrillin. Abnormalities in this protein cause a myriad of distinct clinical problems, of which the musculoskeletal, cardiac, and ocular system problems predominate. The skeleton of patients with MFS typically displays multiple deformities including arachnodactyly (ie, abnormally long and thin digits), dolichostenomelia (ie, long limbs relative to trunk length), pectus deformities (ie, pectus excavatum and pectus carinatum), and thoracolumbar scoliosis. Finally, blindness may result from unrecognized and untreated glaucoma, retinal detachment, and cataracts. In the cardiovascular system, aoic dilatation, aoic regurgitation, and aneurysms are the most worrisome clinical findings. Mitral valve prolapse that requires valve replacement can occur as well. Ocular findings include myopia, cataracts, retinal detachment, and superior dislocation of the lens. Takayasu aeritis is also known as pulseless disease because of frequent occlusion of aeries arising from the aoa.It may also occlude renal aeries. Polyaeritis nodosa is a multisystem necizing vasculitis of small and medium sized muscular aeries in which involvement of the renal and visceral aeries is characteristic.There is fibrinoid necrosis with compromise of the lumen. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_24193 | Which of the following is a component of rapid sequence induction of anaesthesia? | [
"Mandatory pre-oxygenation",
"Sellick's maneuver is not required",
"Suxamethonium is contraindicated",
"Patient is mechanically ventilated before endotracheal intubation"
] | Rapid sequence induction(RSI) is a technique of choice in the establishment of a secure airway in the emergency depament. The process is broken into six phases which is to be carried out in order. They are pre oxygenation, preparation, pre medication, paralysis and sedation, passage of tube and post intubation care. Pre oxygenation is a vital pa of RSI. As it allows the development of an oxygen reserve within the alveoli of the lungs and also within the circulation and tissues by displacing nitrogen with oxygen. Pre oxygenation is done by breathing 100% oxygen a tight fitting mask for 3 minutes. Ref: Oxford Desk Reference - Major Trauma By Jason Smith, Page 50 ; Miller's Anesthesia, 7th Edition, Chapter 73 - Anesthesia and Prehospital Emergency and Trauma Care | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_2885 | Regarding Ganser's syndrome true is | [
"Repeated lying",
"Approximate answers",
"Unconscious episodes",
"Malingering"
] | B i.e. Approximate answers | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_37648 | The fusion of two bony structures with a ligament is known as | [
"Synostosis",
"Synchondrosis",
"Diarthrosis",
"Syndesmosis"
] | null | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_20494 | Nerve of 6`b arch is ? | [
"Trigeminal",
"Facial",
"Trigeminal",
"Vagus"
] | Ans. is 'd' i.e., VagusPharyngeal archNerve (Mandibular) arch Trigeminal nerve (V2 and V3) 2nd (hyoid) archFacial nerve (VII) 3rd arch Glossopharyngeal nerve (IX) 4th archVagus nerve (X) through superior laryngeal nerve 6'h archVagus nerve (X) through recurrent laryngeal nerve | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_12473 | The exact part of the antigen that reacts with the immune system is called as: | [
"Clone",
"Epitope",
"Idiotope",
"Effector"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Epitope(Ref: Ananthanarayan, 9th/e, p. 88 and 7th/e, p. 81; Harrison, 18th/e, p. 2673 and 17th/e, p. 2036)* The part of the antibody or T cell receptor that interact with the epitope. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_2464 | Small cystic lesions in the lenticular nucleus, thalamus, and internal capsule are most closely associated with | [
"Hypeension",
"Embolism",
"A demyelinating disease",
"A genetic disease"
] | Small cystic lesions in the lenticular nucleus, thalamus, and internal capsule are most closely associated with lacunar infarctions, which are most commonly secondary to hypeension. They account for 20% of all strokes. The small aerioles supplying these areas are branches of the middle cerebral aery. They exhibit aeriolar sclerosis, which thrombose and cause microinfarctions (liquefactive necrosis) that leave cystic spaces ranging in size from 1 to 15 mm. Multiple lesions are commonly observed. They account for a number of syndromes including (1) a pure motor hemiparesis if the posterior limb of the internal capsule is infarcted and (2) a pure sensory stroke if the infarct is in the ventrolateral thalamus. In some cases, these infarcts are associated with diabetes mellitus, which also produces small vessel disease.Embolism usually produces hemorrhagic infarctions in the distribution of the middle cerebral aery. They generally occur at the periphery of the cerebral coex.The plaques of a demyelinating disease are softened rather than cystic areas in the brain.Genetic diseases are an uncommon cause of cystic lesions in the brain.Cystic astrocytomas may occur in the cerebellum. | A | null |
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