dataset string | id string | question string | choices list | rationale string | answer string | subject string |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
medmcqa | medmcqa_3767 | At the end of repolarization, the nerve is hyperpolarized. How does the membrane potential return to RMP? | [
"Action of Na+/ K+ -pump",
"Inward leakage of Na+",
"Decrease in K+ efflux",
"None of the above mechanisms"
] | Simultaneously with the action of the pump, there is inward diffusion of Na+ through the leaky channels (not the voltage-gated channels that cause depolarization). This inward leakage of positive charges will take the membrane potential from - 90 mV to original RMP of - 70 mV. Both the pump and the inward leakage will balance out once the potential again reaches - 70 mV. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_35485 | All of the following vaccines can prevent pneumonia, except: | [
"Measles",
"Rubella",
"Pneumococcal",
"H. influenzae"
] | b. Rubella(Ref: Nelson 20/e p 1545)Pneumonia is the most common cause of death in measles. It may manifest as giant cell pneumonia caused directly by the viral infection or as superimposed bacterial infection. The most common bacterial pathogens are Streptococcus pneumoniae, Hemophilus influenzae, and Staphylococcus aureus. So, vaccination against Measles, Pneumococcus & H. influenzae would give some protection against pneumonia. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_49687 | Distal Acoustic shadow is seen in? | [
"Air",
"Calculi",
"Bone",
"All of the above"
] | All of the above REF: Ultrasound Teaching Manual by Matthias Hofer page - 15 In simple terms when sound waves strike an interface which reflects it back, it shows on USG as a hypoechoic or anechoic shadow beyond the structure. It is seen with gas and at interface like bone, calculi and stones. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_27242 | As deglutition involved voluntary and involuntary stages, so among the following, which structure limits the size of bolus swallowed: | [
"Soft palate",
"Posterior pharyngeal pillars",
"Upper esophageal sphincter",
"Larynx"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_49629 | One of the following is the t/t of choice for dermatitis herpetiformis – | [
"Corticosteroids",
"Dapson",
"Mtx",
"Retinoids"
] | Main treatment of dermatitis herpetiformis is gluten free diet and dapsone. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_41909 | Concept of super ego was given by: | [
"Eric fromm",
"Sigmund Freud",
"Eric Erikson",
"Carl Jung"
] | B. i.e. Sigmund freud | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_49603 | Eutectic lignocaine-prilocaine has the following unique propey? | [
"It causes motor blockade without sensory block",
"By surface application, it can anaesthetize unbroken skin",
"It is not absorbed after surface application",
"It has strong vasoconstrictor action"
] | Lignocaine or prilocaine cannot anaesthetize intact skin.The eutectic mixture is the combination of equal propoions of lignocaine and prilocaine at 25deg C.This mixture has a lower melting point than any of the two ingredients. It helps to make the preparation oily that can be applied on the intact skin.The eutectic mixture can be used to anaesthetize intact skin. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_20925 | The Prostatic urethra is characterized by all of the following features, except that it: | [
"Is the widest and most dilatable pa",
"Presents a concavity posteriorly",
"Lies closer to anterior surface of prostate",
"Receives Prostatic ductules along its posterior wall"
] | Prostatic urethra is the widest and most dilatable pa of the urethra and is concave anteriorly. Ref: Snell's Clinical Anatomy, 7th Edition, Page 382; Cunningham's Manual of Practical Anatomy, 15th Edition, Volume 2, Page 223 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_31245 | Which among the following is produced by a linear accelerator? | [
"X rays",
"Beta rays",
"Gamma rays",
"Neutrons"
] | Linear accelerator is source of powerful x-rays. The name linear accelerator comes from the fact that electrons are produced in the machine and accelerated in a straight line. They then smash into a metal target within the machine and, because the energies involved are so high, produce high energy x-rays. Cyclotron is used to produce Gamma rays. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_49217 | Hypehermia is caused by: | [
"Anticholinnergics",
"MAO inhibitors",
"Lithium",
"Chlorpromazine"
] | B i.e. MAO inhibitor | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_54585 | Which of the following genes is associated with Xp11 translocation carcinoma variant of renal cell carcinoma? | [
"VHL",
"TFE3",
"MET",
"TSC1"
] | Xp11 translocation Carcinoma: It is a rare genetically distinct subtype of renal cell carcinoma. More common in children. TFE3 gene located at Xp11.2 locus is involved The neoplastic cells consist of clear cytoplasm with a papillary architecture. VHL is associated with clear cell RCC. MET is associated with hereditary papillary RCC. TSC1 is associated with renal angiomyolipoma. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_669 | Urination in the human subject is decreased by | [
"Nicotinic agonists",
"AChase inhibitors",
"muscarinic agonists",
"muscarinic antagonists"
] | ANTICHOLINERGIC DRUGS (Muscarinic receptor antagonists, Atropinic, Parasympatholytic) Smooth muscles:- All visceral smooth muscles that receive parasympathetic motor innervation are relaxed by atropine (M3 blockade). Tone and amplitude of contractions of stomach and intestine are reduced; the passage of chyme is slowed--constipation may occur, spasm may be relieved. Atropine has relaxant action on ureter and Urinary bladder; urinary retention can occur in older males with prostatic hyperophy. However,this relaxant action can be beneficial for increasing bladder capacity and controlling detrusor hyperreflexia in neurogenic bladder/enuresis. Ref:- kd tripathi; pg num:-114,115 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_40463 | Mitral and periglomerular cells are seen in ? | [
"Medulla",
"Olfactory bulb",
"Primary visual coex",
"Geniculate body"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Olfactory bulbThe sensory receptors for olfaction (smell) are located in the olfactory mucous membrane. In human, the olfactory mucous membrane (olfactory neuroepithelium) located in the roof of the nasal cavity near the septum. Because of its location high in the nasal cavity, the olfactory mucosa is not directly exposed to the flow of inspired air entering the nose.The olfactory mucosa contains olfactory receptors. The olfactory receptors are unique in that the receptor cell itself is a neuron. The olfactory receptor cell has cilia projecting in the nasal mucosa which act as receptor for olfaction (These are dendrites of neuron/receptor cells). The axons of olfactory neuron (olfactory receptor cells) form olfactory nerve which passes through cribriform plate and terminates in the olfactory bulb. In olfactory bulb axons of olfactory nerve synapse with dendrides of mitral cells to form the olfactory glomeruli. Mitral cells are the principal output neurons of olfactory bulb and their axons form the olfactory tract.The olfactory bulb also contains periglomerular cells, which are inhibitory neurons and granule cells which have no synapse and make reciprocal synapses with mital and tufted cells.Like the taste fibers, olfactory tract also projects to the primitive pas of the brain as well as the neocoex. The projections to the primitive pas are principally to the pyriform area (olfactory coex), amygdala and entorhinal coex, which in turn projects to the hippocampus. The pathway to the neocoex involves a relay in the olfactory tubercle, and then in the thalamus, the output of which projects to the orbitofrontal coex. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_27174 | Thymectomy causes - | [
"Failure of rejection of transplanted organs",
"Myastheina gravis",
"Autoimmune disorders",
"None of the above"
] | • In adult life, thymectomy has no demonstrable effect on antibody response or upon homograft survival.
• However, it has been shown that thymectomy in adult mice, combined with total body irradiation, can result in homograft tolerance of a high degree.
• This finding suggests that the thymus gland may resume its perceptor function in adult life under circumstances in which there is temporary suppression of the lymphopoietic system. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_19059 | Involvement of sweat gland, dermal appendages, and hair follicles with epitheloid granuloma are typical features of which of the following? | [
"Lichen Scrofulosum",
"Miliary TB",
"Papulonecrotic type",
"Lupus vulgaris"
] | A i.e. Lichen scrofulosorum Tuberculids is hypersensitivity reaction to mycobacterium tuberculosis, where the evidence of etiology is not definite but show tubercular granuloma on histology & a positive response to antitubercular treatment. - Lichen scrofulosorum & papulonecrotic tuberculide are two definite (true) tuberculidesQ. Papulonecrotic variety is most common and clinically present with chronic, recurrent, symmetrical, necrotizing eruption of papules arising in crops and primarily involving arms & legs. A hallmark is that lesion heals with varioliform scarring. Lichen scrofulosorum is an uncommon asymptomatic lichenoid eruption of minute (0.5-3mm) papules occurring in children and adolescents with strongly positive tuberculin reaction. It mainly involves perifolicular distribution on abdomen, chest, back & proximal limbsQ. A hallmark is that superficial epitheloid dermal granulomas surround hair follicles and sweat ducts and may occupy several dermal papillaeQ. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_30790 | Which one of the following anaesthetic agents does not trigger malignant hypehermia ? | [
"Halothane",
"Isotlurane",
"Suxamethonium",
"Thiopentone"
] | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Thiopentone Drugs causing Malignant hypehermia Succinylcholine Enflurane Methoxyflurane Phenothiazines Halothane Sevoflurane MAO inhibitors Lignocaine Isoflurane Destlurane TCA o Succinylcholine is the most common cause of MH. o Amongst anaesthetics, halothane is most common cause. o Combination of Sch and Halothane has a much higher incidence. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_7056 | The monoclonal antibody useful in the treatment of PNH is: | [
"Rituximab",
"Eculizumab",
"Infliximab",
"Adalimumab"
] | By blocking the complement cascade downstream of C5, eculizumab abolishes complement-dependent intravascular hemolysis in all PNH patients, and significantly improves their quality of life. Reference: Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Page 884 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_36974 | An infarct is most frequently is characterized by what type of necrosis? | [
"Fatty",
"Caseous",
"Gangrenous",
"Coagulative"
] | null | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_362 | In Japanese Encephalitis pigs acts as: | [
"Amplifier",
"Definitive host",
"intermediate host",
"Any of the above"
] | (A)' Amplifier # In Japanese encephalitis, pig acts an amplifier, it doesn't manifest the disease.> Herons acts as reservoir hosts.> Human infection is a tangential 'dead end' event> Vertebrate hosts may include cattle and buffalo besides pig. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_37716 | Finding the most cost effcetive way doing a project - | [
"Network analysis",
"System analysis",
"Cost analysis",
"Field analaysis"
] | The purpose of system analysis is to help the decision maker to choose an appropriate course action by investigating his problem,searching out objectives,finding out alternative solution,evaluation of the alternatives in terms of cost effectiveness,re-examination of the objectives if necessary and finding the most cost effective alternative (refer pgno:872 park 23 rd edition) | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_17245 | Which of the following drugs inhibits the release of acetylcholine from cholinergic nerves in the submucosa and myenteric complex | [
"Pectin",
"Docusate",
"Loperamide",
"Cholestyramine"
] | Loperamide:- It is an opiate analogue with major peripheral u opioid and additional weak anti-cholinergic propey. As a constipating agent it is much more potent than codeine. Because of poor water solubility--little is absorbed from the intestines. Entry into brain is negligible--CNS effects are rare and occur only with high doses; no abuse liability. The duration of action is longer (12 hr). Ref:- kd tripathi; pg num:-686 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_26110 | Acrodermatitis enteropathica is seen with deficiency of: | [
"Zinc",
"Iron",
"Copper",
"Vitamin A"
] | a. Zinc(Ref: Nelson's 20/cp 344-345, Ghai B/e p 121-122)Deficiency of zinc leads to acrodermatitis enteropathica, in which rashes shown on skin, especially around the orifices. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_39459 | Which is NOT a product of Pentose phos-phate pathway : | [
"Glyceraldehyde 3-PO4",
"NADPH",
"Sedoheptulose PO4",
"CO2"
] | D i.e. CO2 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_21664 | Hunan hand occurs due to: NEET 14 | [
"Abrus prectorius",
"Capsicum",
"Dhatura",
"Strychnine"
] | Ans. Capsicum | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_35914 | The average leeway space available in each half of mandible is | [
"3.8 mm",
"1.7 mm",
"2.4 mm",
"0.9 mm"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_31305 | Which of following is not seen in nephritic syndrome: | [
"Edema",
"Hematuria",
"Hypertension",
"Hypocholesterolemia"
] | d. Hypocholesterolemia(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2521-2528, Ghai 8/e p 477-482)Features of nephritic syndrome are: Hematuria and RBC casts, Nephritic range Proteinuria (<3.5g/day), hence edema is present, Hypertension, Uremia and Oliguria. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_5961 | All are true about emphysema except: | [
"Cyanosis",
"Barrel-shaped chest",
"Associated with smoking",
"Type 1 respiratory failure"
] | OPTION A) CLINICAL FEATURE OF EMPHYSEMA SYMPTOMS; The three most common symptoms in COPD are cough, sputum production, and exeional dyspnea. Activities involving significant arm work, paicularly at or above shoulder level, are paicularly difficult for many patients with COPD . the principal feature is worsening dyspnea on exeion with increasing intrusion on the ability to perform vocational or avocational activities. In the most advanced stages- patients are breathless doing simple activities of daily living. CLINICAL FEATURE OF COPD - EMPHYSEMA The classic presentation of emphysema with no "bronchitic" component. Patients barrel-chested and dyspneic, with prolonged expiration, sitting forward in a hunched-over position. In these patients, air space enlargement is severe and diffusing capacity is low. Dyspnea and hyperventilation are prominent, so that until very late in the disease, gas exchange is adequate and blood gas values are relatively normal. Because of prominent dyspnea and adequate oxygenation of hemoglobin, these patients sometimes are sometimes called "pink puffers." CHRONIC BRONCHITIS -emphysema with pronounced chronic bronchitis and a history of recurrent infections. Dyspnea usually is less prominent, and in the absence of increased respiratory drive the patient retains carbon dioxide, becoming hypoxic and often cyanotic .such patients tend to be obese--hence the designation "blue bloaters." OPTION 2) ON PHYSICAL EXAMINATION Early stages of COPD, patients usually have an entirely normal physical examination. More severe disease, the physical examination - prolonged expiratory phase and may include expiratory wheezing. Signs of hyperinflation 1) barrel chest and enlarged lung volumes with poor diaphragmatic excursion as assessed by percussion. 2)Patients with severe airflow obstruction -use of accessory muscles of respiration, sitting in the characteristic "tripod" position to facilitate the actions of the sternocleidomastoid, scalene, and intercostal muscles. 3 CYANOSIS if emphysema with chronic bronchitis Patients may develop cyanosis, visible in the lips and nail beds. 4) SIGN OF ADVANCED COPD cachexia ,significant weight loss, bitemporal wasting, anddiffuse loss of subcutaneous adipose tissue. Clubbing of the digits is not a sign of COPD. The development of lung cancer is the most likely explanation for newly developed clubbing. OPTION C) RISK FACTORS CIGARETTE SMOKING AIRWAY RESPONSIVENESS AND COPD RESPIRATORY INFECTIONS OCCUPATIONAL EXPOSURE. D)COMPLICATION OF COPD- progressive disease is marked by the development of pulmonary hypeension, sometimes leading to cardiac failure, recurrent infections; and ultimately respiratory failure. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_21715 | One of the following is a contraindication for surgical intervention in varicose veins? | [
"Symptoms refractory to conservative therapy",
"Bleeding from a varix",
"Venous stasis ulcer",
"Deep venous thrombosis"
] | Ans: D (Deep venous thrombosis) Ref : Scibiston Text Book of Surgery, 19th edition. 2012. Page 1811Explanation:Deep venous thrombosis (DVT) should be ruled out before intervention in varicose veins.Indications for intervention in varicose veins:CosmesisSymptoms refractory to conservative therapyBleeding from a varixSuperficial thrombophlebitisLipodermatosclerosisVenous stasis ulcerIndications for IVC filter:Recurrent thromboembolism despite adequate anticoagulationChronic pulmonary embolism and resultant pulmonary hypertensionDeep venous thrombosis in a patient with contraindications to anticoaguiationPropagating iliofemoral venous thrombus in anticoagulationComplications of anticoagulationIndications for retrievable IVC filter:Prophylactic placement in a high-risk trauma patientShort-term contraindication to anticoagulationProtection during venous thrombolytic therapyExtensive ilio-caval thrombosisAnticoagulation for DVT:Treatment of DVT utilises heparin to maintain the aPTT at 60 to 80 seconds, followed by- warfarin to obtain an international normalized ratio (INR) of 2.5to 3.0. If unfractionated heparin is used, use a nomogram-based dosing therapyRecurrent venous thromboembolism increases if time to therapeutic anticoagulation is prolonged. Hence it is important to reach therapeutic levels within 24 hoursAn initial bolus of 80 U/kg or 5000 units IV bolus is administeredMaintenance 18 U/kg/hrThe rate is dependent on a target PTT corresponding to anti-factor.Xa level of 0.3 to 0.7 unifmL.PTT is to be checked 6 hours after change in heparin dosingWarfarin is started on the same day.There is no recommended duration of anticoagulant therapyMinimum treatment time: 3 months in most cases (Recurrence rate is the same with 3 versus 6 months of warfarin)Known hypercoagulable state or venous thrombosis: Lifetime anticoagulation if not contraindicatedThe accepted INR range is 2.0 to 3.0 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_49378 | Oculomotor nerve palsy show all of the following except - | [
"Ptosis",
"Inability of lateral gaze",
"Paralysis of accommodation",
"Upward gaze not possible"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Inability of lateral gaze Features of 3rd (occulomotor) nerve palsy* Paralysis of superior rectus, inferior rectus, medial rectus and inferior oblique. Eye is down and out due to unopposed action of superior oblique and lateral rectus. Medial 8c upward gaze is not possible.* Paralysis of sphinctor pupillae - Loss of ipsilateral direct and consensual pupillary light reflex and there is mydriasis.* Paralysis of ciliary muscle - Paralysis of accommodation.* Two extraocular muscles are sparedi) Superior oblique :- Intorsion, abduction and depression remain active.ii) Lateral rectus :- Abduction remains active. So eye is deviated lateraly.* Paralysis of levator palpabrae superioris -> Ptosis. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_1257 | All of the following are true regarding Kaposi sarcoma except: | [
"Predominant in male",
"Multicentric origin",
"Chemotherapy is treatment of choice",
"Occurs in AIDS patients only"
] | Kaposi's sarcoma is a malignant, proliferative tumour of vascular endothelial cells, now most commonly associated with immune compromise after transplantation or HIV infection . There appears to be a causal link with infection by human herpes virus 8. Kaposi's sarcoma usually stas as a red brown, indurated, plaque-like, skin lesion that becomes nodular and then ulcerates. KAPOSI SARCOMA Kaposi's sarcoma appears as rubbery bluish nodules that occur primarily on the extremitiesQbut may appear anywhere on the skin and visceraQ. Classically, KS is seen in people of Eastern Europe or sub-Saharan AfricaQ. AIDS RELATED KAPOSI SARCOMA AIDS-related KS occurs primarily in male homosexuals and not in IV drug abusers or hemophiliacsQ Lesions spread rapidly to the nodes and GI and respiratory tract often are involvedQ. Development of AIDS-related KS is associated with concurrent infection with a herpes-like virus (HHV-8) PATHOLOGY Usually multifocalQrather than metastatic. Histologically, the lesions are composed of capillaries lined by atypical endothelial cellsQ. Early lesions may resemble hemangiomas, while older lesions contain more spindle cells and resemble sarcomas. Lesions are locally aggressive but undergo periods of remissionQ. TREATMENT Treatment for all types of KS consists of radiationQto the lesions. Combination chemotherapy is effective in controlling the disease, although most patients develop an oppounistic infection during or sholy after treatmentQ. Surgical treatment is reserved for lesions that interfere with vital functions:, such as Bowel obstruction and Airway compromiseQ Most common malignancy in HIV positive individuals: NHL > Kaposi sarcomaQ | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_28571 | Commonest intracranial complication of CSOM is: | [
"Sub-periosteal abscess",
"Mastoiditis",
"Brain abscess",
"Meningitis"
] | (d) Meningitis(Ref. Cummings, 6th ed., 2157)The most common intracranial complication of chronic suppurative Otitis media is meningitis followed by brain abscess (temporal lobe abscess).Mastoiditis is the most common extracranial complication.Subperiosteal or postauricular abscess is the most common abscess following mastoiditis. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_42521 | Wernicke's encephalopathy is due to deficiency of - | [
"Folic acid",
"Thiamine",
"Ascorbic acid",
"Pyridoxine"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Thiamine Wernike's encephalopathyo This is caused by thiamine deficiency.o There are acute degenerative changes in thalamus, hypothalamus and mammillary bodies,o Signs are: confusion, ocular paresis and nystagmus, staggering gait and peripheral neuropathy. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_5852 | In fracture shaft of femur, which nail is commonly used for ORIF? | [
"Kuntscber nail",
"Austin Moore pin",
"K- wire",
"Smith-Peterson nail"
] | Ans: A (Kuntscher nail) Ref : " Wheeless' Textbook of Orthopaedics - Intramedullary Nailing of Femoral Shaft Fractures Duke Orthopaedics. & Watson-Jones Fractures and Joint Injuries, 7th editionExplanation:Kiintscher nail is an internal fixation device used to maintain the position of the fracture fragments during healing.The nail is rigid, having an open slot along its length and has a cloverleaf shape in cross- section.It was used in the fixation of diaphyseal fractures in long bones like femur and humerus.It has been more or less supplanted by the locked intramedullary nails which are the standard today.Austin Moore pins are fixation pins used to fix fractures of the neck of femur.It is a smooth pin which has two nuts at its end to prevent migration into the joint.K-wires or Kirschner wires are sterilized, sharpened, smooth stainless steel pins. Introduced in 1909 by Martin Kirschner. the wires are now widely used in orthopaedics and other types of medical and veterinary surgery .They come in different sizes and are used to hold bone fragments together (pin fixation) or to provide an anchor for skeletal traction.The pins are often driven into the bone through the skin (percutaneous pin fixation) using a power or hand drill.Smith-Petersen Nail is a tri flanged nail for internal fixation of a fracture of the neck of the femur or in trochanteric fracture in combination with a plate.It is rarely used at present. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_38573 | Inherited cancer syndrome include all except? | [
"Retinoblastom",
"Neurofibroma",
"Xeroderma pigmentosa",
"Familial polyposis coli"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Neurofibroma Neurofibromatosis (multiple neurofibroma) is inherited cancer syndrome, not isolated neurofibroma. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_54439 | The differential diagnosis of retinoblastoma would include all except. | [
"Persistent hyperplastic primary vitreous",
"Coat's disease.",
"Retinal astrocytoma",
"Retinal detachment"
] | D i.e. Retinal Detachment Retinal detachment would never be included in differential diagnosis of retinoblastomaQ as their age of presentation is quiet different. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_24812 | A nerve injured in radical neck dissection leads to loss of sensation in medial side of the arm, nerve injured is:- | [
"Long thoracic nerve",
"Thoracodorsal nerve",
"Dorsal scapular nerve",
"Medial cutaneous nerve of arm"
] | Nerve injured in radical neck dissection leads to loss of sensation in medial side of the arm, nerve injured is medial cutaneous nerve of arm. The medial cutaneous nerve of arm supplies the skin of the medial aspect of the arm. It is the smallest branch of the brachial plexus, and arises from the medial cord and contains fibres from the eighth cervical and first thoracic ventral rami. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_1728 | All of the following are anti-craving agents for alcohol withdrawal Except | [
"Fluoxetine",
"Nitrafezole",
"Naltrexone",
"Acamprosate"
] | Nitrafezole. Disulfiram, Metronidazole and Nitrafezole are deterrents. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_1610 | A 33-year-old man has never been vaccinated for hepatitis B. Serologic tests reveal negative hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) and positive antibody to surface antigen. Which of the following conditions does this serologic pattern best fit with? | [
"previous hepatitis B infection",
"chronic active hepatitis",
"acute hepatitis B infection",
"poor prognosis"
] | The antibody can be demonstrated in 80-90% of patients, usually late in convalescence, and indicates relative or absolute immunity. In contrast, HBsAg occurs very early and disappears in < 6 months. Persistence of HBsAg indicates chronic infection. The pattern in this patient is also seen postvaccination, and perhaps as a consequence of remote infection. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_29317 | HLA antigens observed on ocular dendritic cells are: | [
"Class I",
"Class II",
"Class I and II",
"None"
] | Ans. c. Class I and II I and 11 HLA antigens are observed on ocular dendritic cells. "Class I antigens exists on stromal keratocytes. Class II antigens have recently been found in the corneal stroma on dendritic cells. Although previously not thought to exist on the corneal endothelium, more sensitive methods have identified class I antigens here."- Robbins 8/e p192 HLA antigens in Ocular Structures HLA antigens have been described in all layers of the cornea. Q Both class I and II antigens are found in the corneal epitheliumQ Most of the class II antigens being found on Langerhans cells, which are located more in the corneal periphery Class I antigens exists on stromal keratocytesdeg.Class II antigens have not been identified on normal endothelium but have been detected on the endothelium of rejected corneas. Class II antigens have recently been found in the corneal stroma on dendritic cells. Although previously not thought to exist on the corneal endothelium, more sensitive methods have identified class I antigens hereQ orneal endothelial and stromal cells can be induced to express HLA-DR antigens. A and B blood group antigens have also been identified in the cornea | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_42009 | A resident physician is performing a pelvic examination on a young woman. The fingers of one of her hands is in the patient's vagina and is palpating the cervix. The other hand is pressing on the abdomen. With the palm of this hand, the physician feels a bony structure in the lower midline. This structure is most likely the ? | [
"Coccyx",
"Ilium",
"Ischium",
"Pubis"
] | The resident is feeling the two pubic bones, which are joined at the midline by the symphysis pubis. Experienced obstetrician/gynecologists can often perceive the softening of the symphysis pubis that occurs during late pregnancy as a "springiness" of the pubic bones during palpation.The coccyx is the caudal terminus of the veebral column, generally formed by the fusion of four rudimentary veebral bodies. It is also called the tailbone.The ischium is the poion of the pelvis on which a person sits.The ilium is one of the two "wings" that form the lateral sides of the pelvic cavity and suppo the abdominal contents. Ref: Moon D.A., Foreman K.B., Albeine K.H. (2011). Chapter 6. Overview of the Abdomen, Pelvis, and Perineum. In D.A. Moon, K.B. Foreman, K.H. Albeine (Eds), The Big Picture: Gross Anatomy. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_348 | 39-year-old obese patient present with features of UTI and RBS-200 mg/dl, urine shows pus cells, true about therapy is -a) Glipizide is D.O.C.b) Insulin can be givenc) Ciprofloxacind) Test for micro albumin to be bonee) Metformin can be given | [
"bce",
"bc",
"acd",
"ace"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_8028 | Secondary immune response is mediated by - | [
"IgF",
"IgM",
"IgG",
"IgA"
] | Ans. is C i.e., IgG immune responseo The antibody response to an initial antigenic stimulus differes qualitatively and quantitatively from the response to subsequent stimuli with same antigen,o Former is called primary response and the latter secondary response.Primary' responsePrimary immne response refers to the first encounter of immune system with an antigen.The antibody that is elided first is entirely of the IgM type. IgM antibody titre rises to a peak level and then declines almost as fast as it developed.In a few days IgG appears. IgG titre rises gradually and then declines gradually.ci An important outcome of primary antigenic challenge is the production of memory cells( primed cells).Secondary responseA secondary response refers to a re-encounter of the same antigen against which memory cells ( T and B cells) have developed during primary exposure.a As primed cells are already present antibody response is very fast with no lag phase as compared to primary response which has slow response with lag phase ( as there are no primed cells in primary response)There is brief produdion of IgM, but the major antibody is IgG, w hich is prodced in larger amount and for longer duration. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_15031 | Mean exposure of radiation from OPG is: | [
"300 mR",
"90 mR",
"0.03 mR",
"30 mR"
] | Mean exposure of skin from IOPA is 800 mR.
Gonadal exposure is 1/10,000 of skin exposure i.e., 0.03 mR.
Mean exposure of radiation from OPG is 90 mR. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_52104 | Which of the following drug can be used topically in eye: September 2007 | [
"Erythromycin",
"Ganciclovir",
"Clindamycin",
"Tetracyclines"
] | Ans. D: Tetracyclines Tetracyclines are broad spectrum antibiotics with considerable bacteriostatic action against both gram-positive and gram-negative organisms as well as some fungi, rickettsiae and the chlamydiae. They are essentially used in the form of drops or ointment for superficial ocular infections such as trachoma. They get deposited in bones and teeth and hence not to be used in children and pregnant/lactating women. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_40983 | A 2 month old infant presented with hepatic crisis, peripheral neuropathy & fanconi like syndrome. Lab investigations showed elevated transaminase, low coagulation factors and elevated succinyl acetone in serum & urine. The most likely diagnosis : | [
"Phenyl ketonuria",
"Homocystinuria",
"Tyrosinemia",
"Hawkinsinuria"
] | Tyrosine is derived from ingested proteins or is synthesized endogenously from phenylalanine. It is used for protein synthesis and is a precursor of dopamine, norepinephrine, epinephrine, melanin, and thyroxine. Tyrosinemia type I or Hereditary tyrosinemia or Hepatorenal tyrosinemia Caused by a deficiency of the enzyme fumarylacetoacetate hydrolase. Hepatic disease, peripheral neuropathy and renal involvement are hallmark of disease. The presence of elevated levels of succinylacetone in serum and urine is diagnostic | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_30214 | All are seen in multiple myeloma EXCEPT: | [
"Visual disturbance",
"Bleeding tendency",
"Proteinuria",
"Dystrophic calcification"
] | Dystrophic calcification REF: Harrison's 17th ed p. 702 CLINICAL FEATURES OF MULTIPLE MYELOMA: Increase in number of osteoclasts due to proliferation of plasma cells * * * * * Lytic lesions Bone pains Pathological fractures Cord compression Hypercalcemia leading to metastatic calcification and osteoporosis Suppression of hematopoietic cells * Normochromic normocytic anemia Increase abnormal immunoglobulin * Precipitation in kidney causing kidney damage, hence jones proteinuria, leading to renal failure. * Amyloidosis may occur Ineffective defense against infections * Recurrent infections Interference with clotting factors , amyloid damage of endothelium * Bleeding tendency Hyperviscosity * Neurological manifestations * Veigo , tinnitus * Headache * Visual disturbance | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_14358 | In a new born, vagina is lined by - epithelium : | [
"Squamous",
"Transitional",
"Columnar",
"Stratified"
] | Transitional | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_33272 | In Bartters syndrome there is defect in | [
"DCT",
"Thick ascending limb of LOH",
"PCT",
"Descending limb of LOH"
] | Ref. Guyton. 13th edition. Page. 1103
Na+--K+--2Cl- transporter
This is an electro neutral transport resulting in the reabsorption of about 25% of the filtered sodium, chloride, and potassium.
The luminal membrane contains a K+ channel (Figure VIII-4-4), allowing diffusion of this ion back into lumen (recall that the concentration of K+ inside cells is very high compared to the extracellular concentration).
This back diffusion of K+ into the lumen creates a positive luminal potential, which in turn, promotes calcium and magnesium reabsorption (about 25% of FL) via a paracellular pathway (primarily). This positive luminal potential also causes sodium reabsorption via a paracellular pathway.
Bartter’s syndrome
It is a genetic mutation resulting in diminished function of the Na+--K+--2Cl- transporter in Ascending loop of Henle
This leads to a low volume state, which causes an increase in renin and aldosterone (know as a secondary hyperaldosteronism).
Patients exhibit hypokalemia, alkalosis, and elevated urine calcium. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_27124 | All of the following drugs act on nucleic acids except | [
"Fluroquinolones",
"Linezolide",
"Rifampicin",
"Nalidixic acid"
] | Ref KDT 7th /689 Linezolide act by inhibiting cell wall synthesis whereas quinolone inhibit DNA gyrase and Rifampicin inhibit RNA polymerase | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_27457 | Definitive sign of phase I of anaesthesia is – | [
"Fixation of eyeball",
"Pupillary dilatation",
"Blurring of vision",
"Intercostal paralysis"
] | Plane 1 (Phase 1) of stage III ends when eye balls become fixed. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_44637 | Nikolsky sign is seen in - | [
"Pemphigus vulgaris",
"Herpes zoster",
"Herpes simlex",
"All"
] | D. i.e. All | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_8874 | Hecht's pneumonia is a complication of | [
"Measles",
"Mumps",
"AIDS",
"Mycoplasma"
] | Hecht's pneumonia is a giant cell pneumonia in immunodeficient people,rare complication of measles. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_14305 | Which of the following drugs is used to prevent HIV transmission from an HIV positive pregnant mother to child? | [
"Lamivudine",
"Stavudine",
"Nevirapine",
"Didanosine"
] | HIV may be transmitted from the mother to the child either through the placenta, or during delivery, or by breastfeeding. The highest risk (>2/3rd) of transmission is during the bih process. All HIV positive women should be put on the standard 3 drug A and this should be continued through delivery and into the post-natal period, and helps in preventing veical transmission of HIV to the neonate. Tenofovir 300 mg + Lamivudine 300 mg + Eirenz 600 mg (as FDC tablet) once daily.In addition the neonate should be given syrup nevirapine for 6 weeks. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_22185 | Least penetrating power - | [
"X-ray",
"Beta-rays",
"Alpha particle",
"y-rays"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Alpha particle Penetration power : Gamma rays> X rays > Beta particle > Alpha particle (or helium ion)Ionizing & damaging power : is reserve Alpha particle (or helium ion) > Beta particle > X ray> Gamma rayImportant facts about ionizing radiationso Alpha particles (Helium nuclei) have highest ionizing power because they have a large charge, o Alpha particles have the highest damaging power as they are relatively slow and heavy,o Gamma rays have highest penetrating power because they are high energy photons.o X-rays have 2nd highest (slightly less than g-rays) penetrating power,o Gamma rays have minimum ionizing power,o Gamma rays have least damaging power.o Order of penetrating power - Gamma rays > X-rays > b-particles > a-particles.o Order of ionizing & damaging power - a-particles > b-particles > X-rays > Gamma rays. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_19244 | Fertilization takes place in w hich part of fallopian tube- | [
"Interstitial part",
"Ampulla",
"Isthmus",
"Fimbria"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Ampulla o The beneficial effects of stay in the female genital tract are collectively called capacitation, from the isthmus, capacitated sperms move rapidly to the ampullas, where fertilization takes place. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_28466 | Investigation of choice for choledochal cyst is | [
"Graham chole's test",
"MRCP",
"ERCP",
"USG"
] | The investigation of choice for Choledochal cyst is MRCP-to see the status of pancreatic & biliary system and pancreaticobiliary maljunction. Reference:SRB's manual of surgery,5th edition,page no:638. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_10970 | Best investigation for temporal bone fracture is: | [
"CT",
"MRI",
"X-RAY",
"Ultrasound"
] | Ans. CT | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_24087 | All of the following neurotransmitters are suspected of being involved in the pathophysiology of schizophrenia except -a) Prostaglandins E b) Norepinephrinec) Ascorbic acidd) 5-HT | [
"a",
"ac",
"ad",
"b"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_7353 | Which of the following organ manifests liquefactive necrosis? | [
"Hea",
"Brain",
"Lungs",
"Spleen"
] | Liquefactive necrosis occurs in situations in which enzymatic breakdown is more prominent than protein denaturation or in organs that lack a substantial protein-rich matrix (e.g., lipid-rich organs such as the brain). Coagulative necrosis is the type of necrosis in which protein denaturation is more prominent than enzymatic breakdown. It may occur in any organ. Ref: Wyatt C., Butterwoh IV J.F., Moos P.J., Mackey D.C., Brown T.G. (2008). Chapter 1. Cellular Pathology. In C. Wyatt, J.F. Butterwoh IV, P.J. Moos, D.C. Mackey, T.G. Brown (Eds), Pathology: The Big Picture. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_47784 | Synaptic transmission between pain fibers from the skin and spinal cord neurons is mediated by: | [
"Acetylcholine",
"Substance P",
"Endorphins",
"Somatostatin"
] | Substance P is found in neurons within the hypothalamus and spinal cord. It is released from small A delta and C fibers that relay information from nociceptors to neurons within the substantia gelatinosa of the spinal cord. Endorphins and other opioid neurotransmitters may paially inhibit the perception of pain by presynaptically inhibiting the release of substance P from nociceptor afferent fibers. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_42494 | Highest incidence of acute appendicitis occurs in | [
"1st decade",
"2nd decade",
"5th decade",
"6th decade"
] | (B) 2nd decade # Peak incidence of acute appendicitis is in the 2nd & 3rd decades of life.> It is relatively rare at the extreams of age.> Apendicular perforation is more common in infancy & in the elderly, during which periods mortality rates are highest. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_54819 | The term schizophrenia means | [
"Free mind",
"Euphoric mind",
"Split mind",
"Confused mind"
] | the term SCHOZPHRENIA means SPLIT MIND this was given by Eugene Bleuler it means that there is a split in the components of the mind the split is between the thoughts, cognition and behavior. Reference: Kaplon and sadock, 11 th edition, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no. 301 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_52377 | Dentition is considered delayed in cases except | [
"rickets",
"hypothyroidism",
"malnutrition",
"congenital syphilis"
] | In ill-nourished children, and especially in rickets, and in hypothyroidism dentition may be delayed, while in syphilis, teeth may be premature or even present at bih. Developmentally, permanent teeth are divided into two sets : Superadded permanent teeth are those which do not have deciduous predecessors.All the permanent molars are superadded permanent teeth. Successional permanent teeth are those which erupt in place of deciduous teeth.Successional teeth are ten in each jaw. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_25957 | Imbe-Fick law is associate with ? | [
"Schiotz tonometry",
"Applanation tonometry",
"Pachymetry",
"Keratometry"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Applanation tonometry Applanation tonometry The concept of applanation tonometry was introduced by Goldmann is 1954. It is based on Imbe- Fick lawwhich states that the pressure inside a sphere (P) is equal to the force (W) required to flatten its surface divided by the area of flattening (A); i.e., P = W/A. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_34384 | In a case of Dysgerminoma of ovary one of the following tumor markers is likely to be raised. | [
"Serum HCG.",
"Serum alphafetoprotein.",
"Serum lactic dehydrogenase.",
"Serum inhibin."
] | Placental alkaline phosphatase (PLAP) and lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) are produced by up to 95% of dysgerminomas, and serial measurements of LDH may be useful for monitoring the disease. A karyotype should be obtained preoperatively for all premenarcheal girls, paicularly those with dysgerminomas, because of the propensity of these tumors to arise in dysgenetic gonads | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_15260 | Drug of choice in PSVT is- | [
"Amaidarone",
"Lingnocaine",
"Quinidine",
"Adenosine"
] | adenosine is the drug of choice in PSVT .verapamil is the next drug of choice Adenosine blocks AV node there by blocking reentry pathway Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 1445 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_51120 | The most common site of intestinal obstruction in gallstone ileus is: | [
"Duodenum",
"Jejunum",
"Ileum",
"Sigmoid colon"
] | Gallstone ileus refers to mechanical intestinal obstruction resulting from the passage of a large gallstone into the bowel lumen. The stone enters the duodenum through a cholecystoenteric fistula. The site of obstruction by the impacted Gall stones is usually the terminal end of the ileum provided that the more proximal small bowel is of normal caliber. This pa of the intestine is the narrowest pa of the intestine. Diagnosis clue to diagnosis is obtained by presence of air in the biliary tract along with signs of small intestinal obstructions on plain x-ray. Ref : Schwaz 7/e p1451 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_2014 | In paogram, first time of the initial markings are made in: | [
"Left side of the action line",
"On the action line",
"On the ale line",
"Right side of the ale line"
] | Paograph In paogram, first time of the initial markings are marked on the ale line. The subsequent plotting is done from this point. Till the graph stays on the left if the ale line, the progress can be considered satisfactory. If the graph moves towards the right of the ale line, caution is required and when the graph crosses to the right of action line, it warrants intervention. NOTE: There are new recommendations regarding the dilatation at which sta of active labour should be plotted on the paograph, which is now said to be 6 cm. However due to lack of consensus, it is still in consideration and till any confirmed guideline on this is available to us we shall go by the old norm of 4 cm. till | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_35433 | Adequate treatment for multibacillary leprosy is for - | [
"2 years",
"5 years",
"10 years",
"7 years"
] | Multibacillary leprosy duration is MB blister packs for 12months,within 18 months. REF. PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE 21ST EDITION. PAGE NO - 297 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_29475 | Fracture shaft femur in adults usually unites by | [
"1 month",
"3-4 months",
"6-7 months",
"1 year"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_51052 | Sequence of lochia during puerperium is: March 2012 | [
"Serosa --> alba --> rubra",
"Rubra --> alba --> serosa",
"Rubra --> serosa --> alba",
"Alba --> serosa --> rubra"
] | Ans: C i.e. Rubra --> serosa --> alba Lochia is the vaginal discharge for the first fonight during puerperium. Depending upon the variation of the colour of the discharge, is named as: (1) Lochia rubra (red) 1-4 days. (2) Lochia serosa (yellowish/ pink) 5-9 days. (3) Lochia alba (white) 10-15 days. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_36314 | X - ray given below suggests | [
"Normal x-ray",
"Miliary TB",
"Hydropneumothorax",
"Interstitial lung disease"
] | Millet shaped opacitres seen s/o miliary tb. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_33237 | A thirty year old male presents to the emergency department with symptoms of epigastric pain radiating to back. He gives a history of epigastric pain that wakes him up at nights and is relieved by consuming food. His past history reveals past 2 episodes of perforated duodenal ulcers which were treated with omental patch surgeries. Pain before and after the surgery has been controlled with proton pump inhibitors and analgesics. The likely diagnosis on the occassion is | [
"Gastric ulcer",
"Atrophic gastritis",
"Duodenal ulcer",
"Chronic pancreatitis"
] | null | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_37096 | Molecular studies on an abdominal lymph node containing lymphoma demonstrate t (2;8)(p12; q24) translocation. This is most compatible with which of the following diseases? | [
"Burkitt's lymphoma",
"Mantle cell lymphoma",
"Multiple myeloma",
"Small cell lymphoma"
] | Burkitt's lymphoma is actually associated with three translocations. The common variant t(8; 14)(q24;q32), involving the oncogene myc on chromosome 8, and the heavy immunoglobulin chain on chromosome 14. The other two variants are: t(8;22)(q24;q11), involving myc and the lambda light chain immunoglobulin site, and t(2;8)(p12;q24), involving the kappa light chain and myc. Mantle cell lymphoma, multiple myeloma and small (not cleaved) cell lymphoma are associated with the t(11;14)(q13;q32) translocation involving bcl -1 and the heavy chain site. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_607 | Boundary of pelvic inlet includes all except | [
"Pectinate lines",
"Sacral promontory",
"Pubic symphysis",
"Pelvic brim"
] | Pelvic Inlet (It is also known as Superior Apeure of Pelvis) - It is an oblique plane,making an angle of 50 to 60 degrees with the horizontal bounderies - It is bounded posteriorly - By the sacral promontory, Anteriorly - By the upper margin of the pubic symphysis, and on each side or laterally - By the linea terminalis. The linea terminalis includes the anterior margin of the ala of the sacrum, the arcuate line or lower pa of the medial border of the ilium, the pectineal line of the pubis or pecten pubis, and the pubic crest. Posteriorly, the inlet is indented by the sacral promontory, more so in the male than in the female Ref : B D Chaurasia's Human Anatomy , seventh edition, volume 2 , pg. no. 399 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_4080 | Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura involves all except? | [
"Microangiopathy",
"Neural dysfunction",
"High complement level",
"Intravascular hemolysis"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., High complement level * Platelet associated IgG and complement levels are usually normal in TTP.Thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura (TTP) / Moschcowitz disease* TTP is included among group of diseases called thrombotic microangiopathies. Small vessels like terminal arterioles and capillaries are involved.* Patients with TTP are deficient in an enzyme called ADAMTSB.13 also known as vWF metalloprotease leading to platelet macroaggregate formation throughout the microcirculation.Clinical features* TTP is characterized by a pentad of1. Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia2. Thrombocytopenia3. Neurological symptoms (platelet thrombin in cerebral vessels)4. Renal dysfunction5. Fever* There is intravascular hemolysis.* BT is raised with normal PT and aPTT. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_43759 | A 57-year-old woman has had pain on urination for 5 months and yesterday noted blood on her underwear. On examination, there is a tender red 1-cm nodule on the posterior lip of the external urethra. It is excised. What pathologic finding is most likely to be present on the microscopic examination of her lesion? | [
"Granulation tissue",
"Multinucleated cells",
"Plasma cell infiltrates",
"Rhabdomyosarcoma"
] | She has a urethral caruncle, which is most common in postmenopausal women as a result of urethral prolapse with atrophy from decreased estrogen. Topical estrogen creams and anti-inflammatory agents may shrink the lesion. It is not an infectious process, so multinucleated cells (herpes simplex virus) or plasma cell infiltrates (syphilis) are unlikely. It is not malignant or premalignant. Lichen sclerosus occurs at this age, but not produce a mass lesion. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_23520 | What is the normal orientation of humeral head - | [
"Retroversion of 80 degrees",
"Retroversion of 30 degrees",
"Anteversion of 15 degrees",
"Anteversion of 50 degrees"
] | Answer- B. Retroversion of 30 degreesNormal humeral retroversion is 25-35 degrees.Normal femoral anteversion is 8-15 degrees | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_29133 | A patient following use of contact lens, developed corneal ulcers and symptoms of conjunctivitis. Saline mount preparation of corneal scrapping shows polygonal cyst. What should be the probable diagnosis? | [
"Acanthamoeba",
"Naegleria",
"Entamoeba",
"Giardia"
] | 1. Acanthamoeba keratitis is associated with corneal injuries complicated by exposure to water or soil and with the wearing of contact lenses. 2. Acanthamoeba keratitis: Risk factors: Extended wear of lens Breaches in hygiene and disinfection procedures Swimming with contact lenses in place Use of homemade saline solutions contaminated with Acanthamoeba. 3. Wet mount examination: CSF or corneal scrapping is done to demonstrate both cysts and trophozoites. Trophozoite: One form, no flagellated form Thorn like pseudopodium (acanthopodia) 15-25 mm size. Giardia and Enthamaeba cause gastroenteritis Nigleria cause fulminant meningitis. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_51740 | A farmer presents with multiple discharging sinuses in the leg not responding to antibiotics. Most likely diagnosis is : | [
"Madurella",
"Actino-mycetoma",
"Nocardia",
"Sporothrix"
] | Ans. is 'a' madurella This is a case of Mycetoma (or Madura foot)Mycetoma is of 2 typesAbout the t/t, Harrison states * "Actinomycetoma may respond to prolonged combination chemotherapy e.g with streptomycin and either dapsone or trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole "About t/t of eumycetoma it adds "eumycetoma rarely responds to chemotherapy in some cases caused by Madurella mycetoma have appeared to respond to ketoconazole or itraconazole "Thus RememberAlso, RememberThe granules from the draining sinuses are microcolonies of the organism*.The color of the granule may provide information about the agent eg-White to yellow -Actinomycotic mycetoma* Dark red to black granules-Madurella mycetomatis* | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_35130 | Cytokine causing fever | [
"IL-6",
"IFN-y",
"IL-18",
"IL-4"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., IL-6 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_20360 | All are contents of broad ligament, EXCEPT: | [
"Ovary",
"Ovarian ligament",
"Round ligament",
"Fallopian tube"
] | A. i.e. OvaryBroad ligament contains suspensory ligament of ovary but not ovaryQ | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_47886 | In a community of 3000 people, 80 % are Hindus 10 % Muslims, 5 % Sikh, 4 % Christians and 1 % Jahn To select a sample of 300 people to analyses food habits, ideal sample would be - | [
"Simple random",
"Stratified random",
"Systematic random",
"Inverse sampling"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_50422 | The function of which of the following is increased by an elevated parathyroid hormone concentration: | [
"Osteoclasts",
"Hepatic formation of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol",
"Phosphate reabsorptive pathways in the renal tubules",
"Action of osteoblasts only"
] | PTH increases phosphate excretion in the urine and thereby depresses plasma phosphate levels. This phosphaturic action is due to a decrease in reabsorption of phosphate effects on NaPi-IIa in the proximal tubules PTH acts directly on bone to increase bone resorption and mobilize Ca2+. PTH also increases the formation of 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol, and this increases Ca2+ absorption from the intestine. On a longer time scale, PTH stimulates both osteoblasts and osteoclasts. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_54265 | Zero order kinetics is independent of: | [
"Plasma concentration",
"Clearance",
"Volume of distribution",
"Half life"
] | Plasma concentration REF: Katzung's pharmacology 10th edition page 38 See APPENDIX-33 for 'Chemical kinetics of drugs" Drugs may follow zero order, first order or second order kinetics. It depends on following formula: Rate of elimination a degr`l" Thus for zero order kinetics, rate of elimination is independent of plasma concentration. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_38802 | The most common site of origin for venous thrombi leading to pulmonary embolism is | [
"Ascending aorta",
"Portal vein",
"Deep leg veins",
"Right atrium"
] | null | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_41393 | Which of the following is not complication of total parenteral nutrition? | [
"Hyperammonemia",
"Neutrophil dysfunction",
"Hyperphosphatemia",
"Hypercholesterolemia"
] | Total parental nutrition leads to hypophosphatemia not hyperphosphatemia. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_13896 | Trans-placental spread is least associated with | [
"HBV",
"Rubella",
"HSV",
"HIV"
] | HSV is usually transmitted during delivery through an infected maternal genital tract. Transplacental transmission of virus and hospital-acquired spread from one neonate to another by hospital personnel or family may account for some cases. Ref ganong's review of medical physiology 25e 976 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_14894 | Felbamate is used in ? | [
"Epilepsy",
"Anxiety",
"Social phobia",
"Depression"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Epilepsy Felbamate It blocks NMDA receptor and also potentiates GABAA receptor responce. It is used in paial seizures and seizures that occur in Lennox - Gastaut syndrome. Aplastic anemia and severe hepatitis can occur. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_5445 | Pneumococcus can be differentiated from streptococcus by - | [
"Type of hemolysis",
"Gram staining",
"Growth characteristics",
"Bile solubility"
] | null | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_8437 | SSPE is not diagnosed by | [
"EEG",
"Antibodies to measles in CSF",
"Antibodies to measles in blood",
"Antigen in brain biopsy"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Tuberculosis Bronchiectasis Sicca or Dry Bronchiectasis is typically associated with Tuberculosis. Tuberculosis is associted with a type of dry bronchiectasis called Bronchiectasis Sicca, which is predominantly seen in upper lobes. Dry Bronchiectasis (Bronchiectasis Sicca) is typically characterized by absence of copious amount of sputum which is usually a hall mark of bronchiectasis. Dry cough associated with hemoptysis is the typical presentation | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_34859 | Wettability is increased by | [
"Increasing surface energy",
"Decreasing surface energy",
"It is directly proportional to contact angle",
"Adhesive forces are more important than cohesive"
] | null | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_14500 | The most potent Narcotic Analgesic is | [
"Morphine",
"Buprenorphine",
"Codeine",
"Pentazocine"
] | (B) Buprenorphine | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_36360 | Hearing loss at 65dB, what will be the grade of the deafness? | [
"Mild",
"Moderate",
"Moderately severe",
"Severe"
] | The degree of hearing loss is classified by Goodman`s classificationNormal10-15Minimal16-25Mild26-40Moderate41-55Moderately severe56-70Severe71-90Profound> 90Ref: Hazarika; 3rd ed; Pg 72 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_51648 | Cyanide poisoning causes: AFMC 10 | [
"Histotoxic anoxia",
"Anoxic anoxia",
"Anemic anoxia",
"Stagnant anoxia"
] | Ans. Histotoxic anoxia | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_6389 | Fibrinoid necrosis can be seen in: | [
"Abscess cavity.",
"Pancreas.",
"Heart.",
"Peptic ulcer."
] | null | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_30520 | A pediatric hea surgeon has just divided the sternum in a child to repair a cardiac malformation. A lobulated gland-like structure is seen immediately obscuring the hea. This is most likely which of the following | [
"Thymus",
"Lung",
"Thyroid gland",
"Lymph nodes"
] | The anterior mediastinum lies immediately posterior to the sternum and contains the thymus in children. The mediastinum is the central poion of the thoracic cavity, and it lies between the two pulmonary cavities. It is bounded laterally by the mediastinal pleura. It contains all the thoracic viscera except the two lungs. Superior and inferior divisions are described, with the latter fuher divided into anterior, middle, and posterior divisions. The superior mediastinum extends from the superior thoracic apeure bounded by the superior border of the manubrium, first rib, and T1 veebral body. The inferior boundary is a horizontal line from the sternal angle posterior to the interveebral disc between T4 and T5. The superior mediastinum contains the following structures, from anterior to posterior: adipose tissue with remnants of the thymus gland, right and left brachiocephalic vein, SVC, aoa with its brachiocephalic trunk, left common carotid and left subclan aerial branches,trachea,esophagus,and thoracic duct. Related to these structures are the phrenic, vagus, left recurrent laryngeal and cardiac nerves, and anterior mediastinal lymph node group. The inferior mediastinum is bounded anteriorly by the sternum,posteriorly by veebral bodies T5 through T12, and the diaphragm inferiorly. The anterior mediastinum poion lies between the sternum and the pericardial sac and contains small branches of the internal thoracic aery and a few nodes of the parasternal lymph node group. The thymus gland is present during childhood. The middle mediastinum contains the pericardial sac with the hea, terminations of the SVC, inferior vena cava (IVC), and pulmonary veins, the ascending aoa, the pulmonary trunk and its bifurcations into the right and left pulmonary aeries, lung roots, phrenic nerve, and bronchial lymph nodes. The posterior mediastinum lies between the pericardial sac and veebral bodies T5 through T12. It contains the esophagus, descending thoracic aoa and right intercostals and esophageal aeries, azygous venous system, thoracic duct, vagus and splanchnic nerves, and posterior mediastinal lymph nodes. The body's main lymphatic vessel, the thoracic duct, originates in the abdomen at the level of L1 as a highly variable dilation called the cisterna chili. It enters the posterior mediastinum through the aoic hiatus and lies on the right anterior surface of the thoracic veebral bodies, posterior to the esophagus between the azygous venous system and the thoracic aoa. By the level of the sternal angle, the duct completes a shift to the left side, traverses the superior mediastinum, and terminates by emptying into the venous system near the junction of the left internal jugular and subclan veins. The thoracic duct receives lymph drainage from the lower limbs, abdomen and left hemithorax, upper limb, and head and neck. A small right lymphatic duct receives lymph drainage from the right hemithorax, upper limb, and head and neck. The thoracic and right lymphatic ducts are described as receiving lymph from jugular, subclan, and broncho mediastinal trunks, although these trunks may variably unite or empty into veins independently. Ref:- BD Chaurasia | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_39845 | The loading dose of Aminophylline is- | [
"50-75 mg/kg",
"0.5-1.0 mg/kg",
"2.0-3.5 mg/kg",
"5-6 mg/kg"
] | Ans. is 'd' i.e. 5-6 mg/kg o Aminophylline is a preparation of theophylline, where theophylline is complexed with EDTA. o The i.v. injection must be slow (loading dose of 5 mg/kg over 20 min followed by an infusion of 9 mg/kg/h, adjusted according to subsequent plasma theophylline concentrations). | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_12104 | Sexual assault of child, hymen is not ruptured due to- | [
"Deep seated",
"Underdeveloped",
"Too toughto rupture",
"Distensible"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e.. Deep seated o In children hymen is placed high up in the vagina so never ruptures in sexual intercourse.Verginityo A virgin (virgo Intacta) is a female who has not experienced sexual intercourse,o Defloration means loss of virginity.o Marriage is a contract between man and woman, which implies physical union by coitus,o Divorce means dissolution of previously valid marriage.o Hymen : the hymen is fold of mucous membrane about 1 mm thick, situated at the vaginal outlet. The average abult hymen consists of folds of membrane having annular or crescentic shape, the broadest part lying posteriorly.Types of hymen:Semilunar or crescentic : opening is placed anteriorly.Annular : opening is oval and situated near the center of the membrane.Infantile: a small linear opening in the middle.Cribriform : several openings.Vertical: opening is vertical.Septate : two lateral opening occur, side by side.Imperforate : no opening.Causes of rupture of hymen :An accident, for example, a fall on the projecting substance or by slipping on the furniture or fence or while playing on a see-saw; hymen does not rupture by riding jumping, dancing, etc.Masturbation : with a large foreign body.Sanitary tampons.Surgical operation and gynecological examinaton.Aptae viris : foreign body, for example, Sola pith introduced into vagina for rendering very young girls fit for sexual intercourse.Ulceration from diphtheria, fungus, or other disease.Scratching due to irritation of the part from lack of cleanliness.o Fimbriated hymen shows multiple notches that may be mistaken for artificial tears.o Natural notches are usually symmetrical, occur anteriorly, do not extend to the vaginal wall and are covered with mucous membrane.o Tom hymen (sexual intercourse of by foreign body): bleeds on touch tender, asymmetrical, notches occur posteriorly and extend to the vaginal wall.Natural notchTear in hymenFimbriated type of hymen has multiple nothches (mistaken for tear of hymen)Occurs due to sexual intercourse, foreign body, during accidental injury by an objectNon-tenderTender to touchSymmetricalAsymmetricalAnteriorly placedPosteriorly or anywhereDo not extend to the vaginal wallExtend upto the vaginal wallo In infants a small swab can be passed through the hymenal orifice into the vagina.o At the age of 10 years the tip of the small finger enters the vagina. In children hymen is placed high up in the vagina so never ruptures in sexual intercourse.o At the age of puberty (15-18 years) one finger can usually be passed into the vagina.o In prostitutes, if the hymen is present (elastic type ) and other sign of virginity are absent, called false virgin. In vaginal orifice more than two fingers can be passed.o After rupture of hymen, it never heals and the remnants are known as Carunculae hyemalis or myrtiformes--small, round, fleshy projection or tags round the hymenal ring.o Normally, hymen ruptures at 5 or 7 o'clock position, that is posterolateral position.TraitTrue virginFalse virginHymenSigns of virginityVaginal orificePresentPresentOne finger can be passedPresent but elastic typeAbsent2 or more two fingers can be passedThe Priciple signs of virginity are as follows :An intact hymen.A normal condition of the fourehette and posterior commissure.A narrow vagina with rugose walls.Labia majora is adjacent to each other, fully developed and completely close the vaginal orifice.Labia minora is in contact and is covered by labia majora.o Fourehette : the lower portions of labia minora fuse in midline and form the fourehette.o Anterior and posterior commissure : they are the elongated folds of two labia majora of skin projecting downwards and backwards from the mons veneris.o They meet in front in the anterior commissure and in the back at the posterior commissure.o Fossa navicularis is the depression between fourehette and the vaginal orifice.o Vaginal passage is 7.5 cm long, shorter on its anterior wrall (6 cm) and longer on the posterior wrall (9 cm), normally slit-shaped.o In mullipura, width of upper end is 3 to 4 cm.o In mutipara, width of upper end is 6 to 7 cm.o Breasts : in a virgin, the breasts are firm, elastic, and hemispherical with a small undeveloped nipple surrounded by an areola.o Breast in defloration : large and flabby by frequent handling and sexual intercourse, with enlarged nipples. Milk may be found in the breast.TraitVirginityDeflorationHymenIntact, rigid, inelastic, edges distinct and regular, narrow opening allowing only one small finger to passTom or intact, if intact it is loose, elastic opening allows passage of > two fingers.Labia majoraAdjacent to each other, fully developed, close the vaginal orificeNot apposed to each other, not prominent, and at the lower and vaginal orifice may be seen.Labia minoraThey are in contact and are covered by labia majoraAre not in contact are exposed and separated from labia majora.FourchetteIntactUsually tomFossa navicularisIntactDisappearsVaginaIs narrow, rugae are more folded vault is more conicalRugae less obvious, vagina grows in length | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_13454 | Sympathetic opthalmia is: | [
"U/L suppurative uveitis",
"B/L suppurative uveitis",
"U/L non- suppurative uveitis",
"B/L non- suppurative uveitis"
] | D i.e. B/L non-suppurative uveitis | D | null |
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