diff --git a/.env.example b/.env.example
new file mode 100644
index 0000000000000000000000000000000000000000..92bc2f129507e868f77dd3975254b42003fe512a
--- /dev/null
+++ b/.env.example
@@ -0,0 +1,17 @@
+OPENAI_API_KEY=your-openai-api-key
+
+LLM_MODEL=your-LLM-model-Name
+## (in the format: provider/model-identifier)
+
+OPENAI_API_BASE=your-LLM-inference-provider-endpoint
+## (for locally hosted llm inference server like LMStudio or Jan.ai, follow ollama host adding /v1: http://localhost:1234/v1)
+
+OPENAI_API_EMBED_BASE=your-embedding-provider-endpoint
+## (for locally hosted, do not include /embedding)
+
+LLM_MODEL_EMBED=your-embedding-model
+##(in the format: provider/embedding-name)
+
+OLLAMA_HOST=http://localhost:11434
+## change port #
+OLLAMA_API_KEY= ##(include if required)
\ No newline at end of file
diff --git a/.gitignore copy b/.gitignore copy
new file mode 100644
index 0000000000000000000000000000000000000000..46d159a46c52961f6059a038a3edf1996744b5ce
--- /dev/null
+++ b/.gitignore copy
@@ -0,0 +1,30 @@
+# .gitignore et al
+#.gitignore
+.cursorindexingignore
+.env
+pyvenv.cfg
+
+Scripts/*
+share*
+Include/*
+lib/*
+
+# project
+MINIRAGsmy/*
+
+# SpecStory explanation file
+.specstory/*
+
+# working folder
+working_folder*/*
+copy/*
+dataset/*
+
+# logs
+logs/*
+troubleshooting.py
+
+# SpecStory explanation file
+.specstory/*
+# SpecStory explanation file
+.specstory/.what-is-this.md
diff --git a/MiniRAGsmy b/MiniRAGsmy
new file mode 160000
index 0000000000000000000000000000000000000000..0ffa447724123b273b1b4dea31b5f5f9ce4db073
--- /dev/null
+++ b/MiniRAGsmy
@@ -0,0 +1 @@
+Subproject commit 0ffa447724123b273b1b4dea31b5f5f9ce4db073
diff --git a/README.md b/README.md
new file mode 100644
index 0000000000000000000000000000000000000000..e55c77a812dbe1dcb74ef6b6066f2b7c408a94b4
--- /dev/null
+++ b/README.md
@@ -0,0 +1,114 @@
+---
+# metadata
+title: semmyKG - Knowledge Graph visualiser builder toolkit (from markdown)
+emoji: 🕸️
+colorFrom: yellow
+colorTo: purple
+sdk: gradio
+sdk_version: 5.44.1
+python_version: 3.12
+command: python app_gradio_lightrag.py
+app_file: app_gradio_lightrag.py
+hf_oauth: true
+oauth_scopes: [read-access]
+hf_oauth_scopes: [inference-api]
+license: mit
+pinned: true
+short_description: semmyKG - Knowledge Graph builder toolkit (from markdown): (Use ParserPDF for PDF, Word & HTML parser to markdown)
+#models: [meta-llama/Llama-4-Maverick-17B-128E-Instruct, openai/gpt-oss-120b, openai/gpt-oss-20b, ]
+models:
+ - meta-llama/Llama-4-Maverick-17B-128E-Instruct
+ - openai/gpt-oss-120b, openai/gpt-oss-20b
+tags: [knowledge graph, markdown, RAG, domain]
+#preload_from_hub: [https://huggingface.co/datalab-to/surya_layout, https://huggingface.co/datalab-to/surya_tablerec, huggingface.co/datalab-to/line_detector0, https://huggingface.co/tarun-menta/ocr_error_detection/blob/main/config.json]
+owner: research-semmyk
+#---
+#[Project]
+#---
+
+#short_description: PDF & HTML parser to markdown
+version: 0.1.0
+readme: README.md
+requires-python: ">=3.12"
+#dependencies: []
+#---
+---
+
+# LightRAG Gradio App
+
+A modern, modular Gradio app for knowledge graph-based Retrieval-Augmented Generation (RAG) using [LightRAG][1]. Supports OpenAI and Ollama LLM backends, markdown document ingestion, and interactive knowledge graph visualisation. Our ParserPDF ([GitHub]][3] | [HF Space][4]) pipeline generate markdown from documents (pdf, Word, html).
+
+## Features
+- LightRAG for Dual-level RAG and knowledge graph (KG)
+- Ingest markdown files from a folder (default: `dataset/data/docs`).
+- Query with OpenAI or Ollama backend (user-selectable)
+- Visualise KG interactively in-browser
+- Deployable to venv, Colab, or HuggingFace Spaces
+- Robust, pythonic, modular code (UK English)
+
+## Setup
+
+### 1. Clone and create venv
+```bash
+python -m venv .venv
+source .venv/bin/activate # or .venv\Scripts\activate on Windows
+pip install -r requirements.txt
+```
+
+### 2. Configure environment
+Copy `.env.example` to `.env` and fill in your keys:
+```markdown
+OPENAI_API_KEY=your-openai-api-key
+LLM_MODEL=your-LLM-model-Name
+ ##(in the format: provider/model-identifier)
+OPENAI_API_BASE=your-LLM-inference-provider-endpoint
+ ##(for locally hosted llm inference server like LMStudio or Jan.ai, follow ollama host adding /v1: http://localhost:1234/v1)
+OPENAI_API_EMBED_BASE=your-embedding-provider-endpoint
+ ##(for locally hosted, do not include /embedding)
+LLM_MODEL_EMBED=your-embedding-model ##(in the format: provider/embedding-name)
+OLLAMA_HOST=http://localhost:11434
+OLLAMA_API_KEY= ##(include if required)
+```
+If .env is not set, you can enter into the web UI directly.
+Ditto, override .env by inputting directly in web UI.
+
+### 3. Run the app
+```bash
+python app_gradio_lightrag.py
+```
+For 'faster' development 'debug'
+
+```python
+##SMY: assist: https://www.gradio.app/guides/developing-faster-with-reload-mode
+gradio app_gradio_lightrag.py --demo-name=gradio_ui
+```
+
+### 4. Colab/Spaces
+- For HuggingFace Spaces: ensure all dependencies are in `requirements.txt` and `.env` is set via the web UI or Space secret.
+- For Colab: install requirements and run the app cell.
+
+## Usage
+- Select your data folder (default: `dataset/data/docs`)
+- Choose LLM backend (OpenAI or Ollama)
+- Enter your query and select query mode
+- Click 'Index Documents' to build the KG
+- Click 'Query' to get answers
+- Click 'Show Knowledge Graph' to visualise the KG
+
+## Notes
+- Only markdown files are supported for ingestion (images in `/images` subfolder are ignored for now). NB: other formats will be enabled later: pdf, txt, html...
+- To generate markdown from documents (PDf, Word, html), use our ParserPDF tool [GitHub]][3] | [HF Space][4].
+- All user-facing text is in UK English
+- For advanced configuration, see LightRAG documentation
+
+## Roadmap (no defined timeline)
+- HuggingFace log in
+- [ParserPDF][3] integration
+
+## License
+[MIT][2]
+
+[1]: https://github.com/HKUDS/LightRAG "LightRAG GitHub"
+[2]: https://opensource.org/license/mit "MIT License"
+[3]: https://github.com/semmyk-research/parserPDF "ParserPDF (GitHub)"
+[4]: https://huggingface.co/spaces/semmyk/parserPDF "ParserPDF (HF Space)"
\ No newline at end of file
diff --git a/app_gradio_lightrag.py b/app_gradio_lightrag.py
new file mode 100644
index 0000000000000000000000000000000000000000..a6d291b7a1e818e00a1329cf92ec2a2ed7988b76
--- /dev/null
+++ b/app_gradio_lightrag.py
@@ -0,0 +1,691 @@
+import os
+import glob
+import gradio as gr
+from watchfiles import run_process ##gradio reload watch
+
+import pipmaster as pm
+if not pm.is_installed("pyvis"):
+ pm.install("pyvis")
+if not pm.is_installed("networkx"):
+ pm.install("networkx")
+import networkx as nx
+from pyvis.network import Network
+import random
+
+from lightrag import LightRAG, QueryParam
+from lightrag.llm.openai import openai_complete_if_cache, openai_complete, openai_embed
+from lightrag.llm.ollama import ollama_embed, ollama_model_complete
+from lightrag.utils import EmbeddingFunc, logger, set_verbose_debug ##SMY
+from lightrag.kg.shared_storage import initialize_pipeline_status ##SMY
+
+import numpy as np ##SMY
+
+import asyncio
+from functools import partial
+from typing import Tuple, Optional
+import logging, logging.config ##SMY lightrag_openai_compatible_demo.py
+import inspect ##SMY lightrag_openai_compatible_demo.py
+
+from dotenv import load_dotenv
+# Load environment variables
+load_dotenv()
+
+# Pythonic error handling decorator
+def handle_errors(func):
+ def wrapper(*args, **kwargs):
+ try:
+ return func(*args, **kwargs)
+ except Exception as e:
+ return gr.update(value=f"Error: {e}")
+ return wrapper
+
+@handle_errors
+def configure_logging():
+ """Configure logging for the application"""
+ ##SMY lightrag_openai_compatible_demo.py
+
+ # Reset any existing handlers to ensure clean configuration
+ for logger_name in ["uvicorn", "uvicorn.access", "uvicorn.error", "lightrag"]:
+ logger_instance = logging.getLogger(logger_name)
+ logger_instance.handlers = []
+ logger_instance.filters = []
+
+ # Get log directory path from environment variable or use current directory
+ log_dir = os.getenv("LOG_DIR", os.getcwd())
+ log_file_path = os.path.abspath(
+ os.path.join(log_dir, "lightrag_compatible_demo.log")
+ )
+
+ print(f"\nLightRAG compatible demo log file: {log_file_path}\n")
+ os.makedirs(os.path.dirname(log_dir), exist_ok=True)
+
+ # Get log file max size and backup count from environment variables
+ log_max_bytes = int(os.getenv("LOG_MAX_BYTES", 10485760)) # Default 10MB
+ log_backup_count = int(os.getenv("LOG_BACKUP_COUNT", 5)) # Default 5 backups
+
+ logging.config.dictConfig(
+ {
+ "version": 1,
+ "disable_existing_loggers": False,
+ "formatters": {
+ "default": {
+ "format": "%(levelname)s: %(message)s",
+ },
+ "detailed": {
+ "format": "%(asctime)s - %(name)s - %(levelname)s - %(message)s",
+ },
+ },
+ "handlers": {
+ "console": {
+ "formatter": "default",
+ "class": "logging.StreamHandler",
+ "stream": "ext://sys.stderr",
+ },
+ "file": {
+ "formatter": "detailed",
+ "class": "logging.handlers.RotatingFileHandler",
+ "filename": log_file_path,
+ "maxBytes": log_max_bytes,
+ "backupCount": log_backup_count,
+ "encoding": "utf-8",
+ },
+ },
+ "loggers": {
+ "lightrag": {
+ "handlers": ["console", "file"],
+ "level": "INFO",
+ "propagate": False,
+ },
+ },
+ }
+ )
+
+ # Set the logger level to INFO
+ logger.setLevel(logging.INFO)
+ # Enable verbose debug if needed
+ set_verbose_debug(os.getenv("VERBOSE_DEBUG", "false").lower() == "true")
+
+# Utility: Wrap async functions
+##SMY: temporary dropped for async def declaration
+def wrap_async(func):
+ """Wrap an async function to run synchronously using asyncio.run"""
+ async def _async_wrapper(*args, **kwargs):
+ result = await func(*args, **kwargs)
+ return result
+ return lambda *args, **kwargs: asyncio.run(_async_wrapper(*args, **kwargs))
+
+# Utility: Visualise .graphml as HTML using pyvis
+@handle_errors
+def visualise_graphml(graphml_path: str, working_dir: str) -> str:
+ """Convert GraphML file to interactive HTML visualisation"""
+ ## graphml_path: defaults to lightRAG's generated graph_chunk_entity_relation.graphml
+ ## working_dir: lightRAG's working directory set by user
+
+ ## Load the GraphML file
+ G = nx.read_graphml(graphml_path)
+
+ ## Create a Pyvis network
+ #net = Network(height="100vh", notebook=True)
+ net = Network(notebook=True, width="100%", height="600px") #, heading=f"Knowledge Graph Visualisation") #(noteboot=False)
+ ## Convert NetworkX graph to Pyvis network
+ net.from_nx(G)
+
+ # Add colors and title to nodes
+ for node in net.nodes:
+ node["color"] = "#{:06x}".format(random.randint(0, 0xFFFFFF))
+ if "description" in node:
+ node["title"] = node["description"]
+
+ # Add title to edges
+ for edge in net.edges:
+ if "description" in edge:
+ edge["title"] = edge["description"]
+
+ ## Set the 'physics' attribute to repulsion
+ net.repulsion(node_distance=120, spring_length=200)
+ net.show_buttons(filter_=['physics']) ##SMY: dynamically modify the network
+ #net.show_buttons()
+
+ ## graph path
+ kg_viz_html_file = "kg_viz.html"
+ html_path = os.path.join(working_dir, kg_viz_html_file)
+ #net.save_graph(html_path)
+ ## Save and display the generated KG network html
+ #net.show(html_path)
+ net.show(html_path, local=True, notebook=False)
+
+ ##SMY read and display generated KG html
+ #with open(html_path, "r", encoding="utf-8") as f:
+ # return f.read() ## html
+
+
+# Utility: Get all markdown files in a folder
+def get_markdown_files(folder: str) -> list[str]:
+ """Get sorted list of markdown files in folder"""
+ return sorted(glob.glob(os.path.join(folder, "*.md")))
+
+# LightRAG wrapper class
+class LightRAGApp:
+ """LightRAG application wrapper with async support"""
+
+ def __init__(self):
+ """Initialise LightRAG application state"""
+ self.rag: Optional[LightRAG] = None
+ self.working_dir: Optional[str] = None
+ self.llm_backend: Optional[str] = None
+ self.llm_model_name: Optional[str] = None
+ self.llm_model_embed: Optional[str] = None
+ self.llm_baseurl: Optional[str] = None
+ self.system_prompt: Optional[str] = None
+ self.status: str = ""
+ self._is_initialised: bool = False ## Add initialisation flag
+ self.cancel_event = asyncio.Event() ## Add cancel event: long-running tasks
+ self.delay_between_files: Optional[float]=60.0 ## lightRAG initialisation: Delay in seconds between files processing viz RateLimitError 429
+ self.llm_model_max_async: Optional[int] = 2, #4, ##SMY: https://github.com/HKUDS/LightRAG/issues/128
+ self.max_parallel_insert: Optional[int] = 1, ## No of parralel files to process in one batch: aasist: https://github.com/HKUDS/LightRAG/issues/1653#issuecomment-2940593112
+ self.timeout: Optional[float] = 1000, #AsyncOpenAI #Union[float, Timeout, None, NotGiven] = NOT_GIVEN,
+ self.max_retries: Optional[int] = 1 #AsyncOpenAI #DEFAULT_MAX_RETRIES,
+
+ def _system_prompt(self, custom_system_prompt: Optional[str]=None) -> str:
+ """Set a localised system prompt"""
+ ## SMY: TODO: Make modular
+ #self.system_prompt if custom_system_prompt else self.system_prompt=f"\n
+
+ if custom_system_prompt:
+ self.system_prompt = custom_system_prompt
+ else:
+ self.system_prompt = """
+ You are a domain expert on Cybersecurity, the South Africa landscape
+ and South African legislation.
+ 1. You only process text in English.
+ 2. When building knowledge graph, taxonomy and ontology,
+ person(s) can be natural or juristic person. For instance, Minister of Justice is juristic.
+ 3. Different natural and juristic person(s) are assigned to perform roles.
+ 4. In South Africa, there are different entities (organisations) defined in legislations, Acts, Bills and Policy.
+ For instance, you might Dept of Treasury at National (The National Treasury) and at Provincial levels (Provincial Treasuries) guided by the PFMA, while
+ Municipalities (local governments), guided by the MFMA, do not have Treasury department, but might have Budget & Treasury Office.
+ You have stand alone entities like the Office of the Public Protector, headed by the Public Protector. Ditto, Information Regulator headed by Chairperson of the Information Regulator.
+ You have others like the CCMA (Commission for Conciliation, Mediation and Adjudication)
+ 5. Legislations include Acts, Bill and in some instance, Regulations and Policy.
+ 6. Legislations often have section heads. The also have section detailing amendments and repeals (if any).
+ 7. Legislations will indicate the heading in the format Name Act No of YYYY. For instance 'Protection of Information Act No 84, 1982.
+ 8. Legislations will have a Gazette No and Assented date (when the President assent to the legislation) from when it becomes operative.
+ 9. Legislation might have paragraph number. Kindly disregard for content purposes but take cognisance for context.
+ 10. Do not create multiple nodes for legislations. For instance, maintain a single node for Protection of Information Act, Protection of Information Act, 1982, Protection of Information Act No 84, 1982.
+ However, have a separate node for Protection of Personal Information Act, 2013.
+ Also take note that 'Republic of South Africa' is an offical geo entity while 'South Africa' is a referred to place, although also a geo entity: Always watch the context and becareful of lumping them together.
+ """
+
+ return self.system_prompt
+
+ async def _embedding_func(self, texts: list[str], **kwargs,) -> np.ndarray:
+ #def _embedding_func(self, texts: list[str], **kwargs,) -> np.ndarray:
+ """Get embedding function based on backend"""
+ try:
+ if self.llm_backend == "OpenAI":
+ #'''
+
+ # Use wrap_async for proper async handling
+ #return wrap_async(openai_embed)(
+ return await openai_embed(
+ texts,
+ model=self.llm_model_embed,
+ api_key=self.llm_api_key_embed,
+ base_url=self.llm_baseurl_embed
+ #base_url=self.ollama_host
+ )
+ # Use wrap_async for proper async handling
+ #return wrap_async(ollama_embed)(
+ return await ollama_embed(
+ texts,
+ embed_model=self.llm_model_embed,
+ #host=self.openai_baseurl_embed
+ host=self.ollama_host,
+ api_key=self.llm_api_key_embed
+ )
+ except Exception as e:
+ self.status = f"{self.status} | _embedding_func error: {str(e)}"
+ raise # Re-raise to be caught by the setup method
+
+ async def _get_embedding_dim(self) -> int:
+ #def _get_embedding_dim(self) -> int:
+ """Dynamically determine embedding dimension or fallback to defaults"""
+ try:
+ test_text = ["This is a test sentence."]
+ embedding = await self._embedding_func(test_text)
+ ##SMY: getting asyncio error
+ #embedding = wrap_async(self._embedding_func)(test_text)
+ return embedding.shape[1]
+ except Exception as e:
+ self.status = f"_get_embedding_dim error: {str(e)}"
+ # Fallback to known dimensions
+ if "bge-m3" in self.llm_model_embed:
+ return 1024 # BAAI/bge-m3 embedding
+ if self.llm_backend == "OPENAI" and "gemini" in self.llm_model_name:
+ return 3072 # Gemini's gemini-embedding-exp-03-07 dimension
+ if self.llm_backend == "OpenAI":
+ return 1536 # OpenAI's text-embedding-3-small
+ return 4096 # Ollama's default
+
+ #def _llm_model_func(self, prompt, system_prompt=None, history_messages=[], keyword_extraction=False,
+ async def _llm_model_func(self, prompt, system_prompt=None, history_messages=[], keyword_extraction=False, **kwargs) -> str:
+ """Complete a prompt using OpenAI's API with or without caching support."""
+ try:
+ ## SMY: TODO: Revisit to make modular: tie-in with Gradio UI
+ if not system_prompt:
+ system_prompt = self._system_prompt()
+ except Exception as e:
+ self.status = f"_llm_model_func: Error while setting system_promt: {str(e)}"
+ raise
+ try:
+ #return openai_complete_if_cache(
+ return await openai_complete_if_cache(
+ model=self.llm_model_name,
+ prompt=prompt,
+ system_prompt=system_prompt,
+ history_messages=history_messages,
+ base_url=self.llm_baseurl,
+ api_key=self.llm_api_key,
+ #timeout=self.timeout, #: Union[float, Timeout, None, NotGiven] = NOT_GIVEN,
+ #max_retries=self.max_retries, #: int = DEFAULT_MAX_RETRIES,
+ **kwargs,
+ )
+ except Exception as e:
+ self.status = f"_llm_model_func: Error while initialising model: {str(e)}"
+ raise
+
+ async def _get_llm_functions(self) -> Tuple[callable, callable]:
+ #def _get_llm_functions(self) -> Tuple[callable, callable]:
+ """Get LLM and embedding functions based on backend"""
+ try:
+ # Get embedding dimension dynamically
+ try:
+ embedding_dimension = await self._get_embedding_dim()
+ self.status = f"Using embedding dimension: {embedding_dimension}"
+ except Exception as e:
+ # feedback dimensions error
+ self.status = f"_get_llm_function: embedding_dim error with fallback: {str(e)}"
+
+ # Create embedding function wrapper: # Wrap with EmbeddingFunc to provide required attributes
+ embed_func = EmbeddingFunc(
+ embedding_dim=embedding_dimension,
+ max_token_size=8192, #4096, #8192, # Conservative default | #ollama
+ func=self._embedding_func
+ )
+
+ # Get LLM function
+ #llm_func = await self._llm_model_func ##SMY: not used
+
+ # return LLM and embed functions
+ #return llm_func, embed_func
+ return await self._llm_model_func(), embed_func
+
+ except Exception as e:
+ self.status = f"{self.status} \n| _get_llm_functions error: {str(e)}"
+ raise # Re-raise to be caught by the setup method
+
+ '''
+ ##SMY: record only. for deletion
+ # Wrap with EmbeddingFunc to provide required attributes
+ embed_func = EmbeddingFunc(
+ #embedding_dim=1536, # OpenAI's text-embedding-3-small dimension
+ #max_token_size=8192, # OpenAI's max token size
+ embedding_dim=3072, # Gemini's gemini-embedding-exp-03-07 dimension
+ max_token_size=8000, # Gemini's embedding max token size = 20000
+ func=embedding_func
+ )
+ '''
+
+ def _ensure_working_dir(self) -> str:
+ """Ensure working directory exists and return status message"""
+ if not os.path.exists(self.working_dir):
+ os.makedirs(self.working_dir, exist_ok=True)
+ return f"Created working directory: {self.working_dir}"
+ return f"Working directory exists: {self.working_dir}"
+
+ ##SMY: //TODO: Gradio toggle button
+ def _clear_old_data_files(self):
+ """Clear old data files"""
+ files_to_delete = [
+ "graph_chunk_entity_relation.graphml",
+ "kv_store_doc_status.json",
+ "kv_store_full_docs.json",
+ "kv_store_text_chunks.json",
+ "vdb_chunks.json",
+ "vdb_entities.json",
+ "vdb_relationships.json",
+ ]
+
+ for file in files_to_delete:
+ file_path = os.path.join(self.working_dir, file)
+ if os.path.exists(file_path):
+ os.remove(file_path)
+ print(f"Deleting old file:: {file_path}")
+
+ async def _initialise_storages(self) -> str:
+ #def _initialise_storages(self) -> str:
+ """Initialise LightRAG storages and pipeline"""
+ try:
+ await self.rag.initialize_storages()
+ await initialize_pipeline_status()
+ return "Storages and pipeline initialised successfully"
+ except Exception as e:
+ return f"Storage initialisation failed: {str(e)}"
+
+ ##SMY:
+ async def _initialise_rag(self):
+ """Initialise lightRAG"""
+
+ ##debug
+ # ## getting embedidngs dynamically
+ #self.status = f"Getting embeddings dynamically"
+ print(f"Getting embeddings dynamically")
+ print(f"_embedding_func: llm_model_embed: {self.llm_model_embed}")
+ print(f"_embedding_func: llm_api_key_embed: {self.llm_api_key_embed}")
+ print(f"_embedding_func: llm_baseurl_embed: {self.llm_baseurl_embed}")
+ # Get embedding
+ embedding_dimension = await self._get_embedding_dim()
+ print(f"Detected embedding dimension: {embedding_dimension}")
+
+ try:
+ rag = LightRAG(
+ working_dir=self.working_dir,
+ llm_model_max_async=self.llm_model_max_async, #1, #4, ##SMY: https://github.com/HKUDS/LightRAG/issues/128
+ max_parallel_insert=self.max_parallel_insert, #1, ## No of parralel files to process in one batch: assist: https://github.com/HKUDS/LightRAG/issues/1653#issuecomment-2940593112
+ llm_model_func=self._llm_model_func,
+ embedding_func=EmbeddingFunc(
+ embedding_dim=embedding_dimension,
+ max_token_size=8192,
+ func=self._embedding_func,
+ ),
+ )
+
+ await rag.initialize_storages()
+ await initialize_pipeline_status()
+
+ self.status = f"Storages and pipeline initialised successfully" ##SMY: debug
+ return rag
+ except Exception as e:
+ return f"lightRAG initialisation failed: {str(e)}"
+
+ @handle_errors
+ #def setup(self, data_folder: str, working_dir: str, llm_backend: str,
+ async def setup(self, data_folder: str, working_dir: str, llm_backend: str,
+ openai_key: str, openai_baseurl: str, openai_baseurl_embed: str, llm_model_name: str,
+ llm_model_embed: str, ollama_host: str, embed_key: str) -> str:
+ """Set up LightRAG with specified configuration"""
+ # Configure environment
+ #os.environ["OPENAI_API_KEY"] = openai_key or os.getenv("OPENAI_API_KEY", "")
+ ##os.environ["OLLAMA_HOST"] = ollama_host or os.getenv("OLLAMA_HOST", "http://localhost:11434")
+ #os.environ["OLLAMA_API_BASE"] = os.getenv("OLLAMA_API_BASE") #, "http://localhost:1337/v1/chat/completions")
+ ##os.environ["OPENAI_API_BASE"] = openai_baseurl or os.getenv("OPENAI_API_BASE", "https://openrouter.ai/api/v1")
+ #os.environ["OPENAI_API_EMBED_BASE"] = openai_baseurl_embed or os.getenv("OPENAI_API_EMBED_BASE") #, "http://localhost:1234/v1/embeddings")
+
+ # Update instance state
+ self.data_folder = data_folder
+ self.working_dir = working_dir
+ self.llm_backend = llm_backend
+ self.llm_model_name = llm_model_name
+ self.llm_model_embed = llm_model_embed
+ self.llm_baseurl = openai_baseurl
+ self.llm_baseurl_embed = openai_baseurl_embed
+ self.llm_api_key = openai_key
+ self.ollama_host = ollama_host
+ self.llm_api_key_embed = embed_key
+
+ try:
+ ## ensure working folder exists and send status
+ try:
+ self.status = self._ensure_working_dir()
+ except Exception as e:
+ self.status = f"LightRAG initialisation.setup: working dir err | {str(e)}"
+
+ # Initialize lightRAG with storages
+ try:
+ self.rag = await self._initialise_rag()
+ self.status = f"{self.status}\n{self.rag}"
+
+ # set LightRAG class initialised flag
+ self._is_initialised = True
+ self.status = f"{self.status}\n Initialised LightRAG with {llm_backend} backend"
+ except Exception as e:
+ self.status = f"{self.status}\n LightRAG initialisation.setup and storage failed | {str(e)}"
+
+ except Exception as e:
+ self._is_initialised = False
+ self.status = (f"LightRAG initialisation failed: {str(e)}\n"
+ f"LightRAG with {working_dir} and {llm_backend} not initialised")
+
+ return self.status
+
+ ''' ##SMY: disable to follow lightRAG documentations
+ @handle_errors
+ #def setup(self, data_folder: str, working_dir: str, llm_backend: str,
+ async def setup(self, data_folder: str, working_dir: str, llm_backend: str,
+ openai_key: str, llm_baseurl: str, llm_model_name: str,
+ llm_model_embed: str) -> str:
+ """Set up LightRAG with specified configuration"""
+ '''
+
+ @handle_errors
+ async def index_documents(self, data_folder: str) -> Tuple[str, str]:
+ #def index_documents(self, data_folder: str) -> Tuple[str, str]:
+ """Index markdown documents with progress tracking"""
+ if not self._is_initialised or self.rag is None:
+ return "Please initialise LightRAG first using the 'Initialise App' button.", "Not started"
+
+ md_files = get_markdown_files(data_folder)
+ if not md_files:
+ return f"No markdown files found in {data_folder}:", "No files"
+
+ try:
+ total_files = len(md_files)
+ #self.status = f"Starting to index {total_files} files..."
+ status_msg = f"Starting to index {total_files} files"
+ progress_msg = f"Found {total_files} files to index"
+
+ self.reset_cancel() ## Add <-- Reset at the start of each operation. ##TODO: ditto for query
+ for idx, md_file in enumerate(md_files, 1):
+ ## cancel indexing
+ if self.cancel_event.is_set():
+ self.status = "Indexing cancelled by user."
+ return self.status, "Cancelled"
+ else:
+ #delay_between_files: float=60.0 ## Delay in seconds between files processing viz RateLimitError 429
+ try:
+ with open(md_file, "r", encoding="utf-8") as f:
+ text = f.read()
+ status_msg = f"Indexing file {idx}/{total_files}: {os.path.basename(md_file)}"
+ progress_msg = f"Processing {idx}/{total_files}: {os.path.basename(md_file)}"
+ # Use wrap_async for proper async handling
+ #wrap_async(self.rag.ainsert)(text, file_paths=md_file)
+ await self.rag.ainsert(text, file_paths=md_file) ##SMY:
+ await asyncio.sleep(self.delay_between_files) # Pause between file processing
+ except Exception as e:
+ #self.status = f"Error indexing {os.path.basename(md_file)}: {str(e)}"
+ status_msg = f"Error indexing {os.path.basename(md_file)}: {str(e)}"
+ progress_msg = f"Failed on {idx}/{total_files}: {os.path.basename(md_file)}"
+ continue
+ await asyncio.sleep(1) #(0) ## Add Yield to event loop
+
+ status_msg = f"{self.status}\n Successfully indexed {total_files} markdown files."
+ progress_msg = f"{self.status}\n Completed: {total_files} files indexed"
+ except Exception as e:
+ status_msg = f"{self.status}\n Indexing failed: {str(e)}"
+ progress_msg = "{self.status}\n Indexing failed"
+
+ return status_msg, progress_msg
+
+ @handle_errors
+ async def query(self, query_text: str, mode: str) -> str:
+ #def query(self, query_text: str, mode: str) -> str:
+ """Query LightRAG with specified mode"""
+ if not self._is_initialised or self.rag is None:
+ return (f"Please initialise LightRAG first using the 'Initialise App' button. \n"
+ f" and index with 'Index Documents' button")
+
+ param = QueryParam(mode=mode)
+ ## return lightRAG query answer
+ # Use wrap_async for proper async handling
+ #return await wrap_async(self.rag.aquery)(query_text, param=param)
+ return await self.rag.aquery(query_text, param=param) ##SMY:
+ #####Err
+ ##return lambda *args, **kwargs: asyncio.run(_async_wrapper(*args, **kwargs))
+ ##File "C:\Dat\dev\Python\Python312\Lib\asyncio\runners.py", line 190, in run
+ ##raise RuntimeError(
+ ##RuntimeError: asyncio.run() cannot be called from a running event loop
+
+ @handle_errors
+ def show_kg(self) -> str:
+ """Display knowledge graph visualisation"""
+ ## graphml_path: defaults to lightRAG's generated graph_chunk_entity_relation.graphml
+ ## working_dir: lightRAG's working directory set by user
+ graphml_path = os.path.join(self.working_dir, "graph_chunk_entity_relation.graphml")
+ if not os.path.exists(graphml_path):
+ return "Knowledge graph file not found. Please index documents first to generate Knowledge Graph."
+ #return visualise_graphml(graphml_path)
+ return visualise_graphml(graphml_path, self.working_dir)
+
+ def reset_cancel(self):
+ """Reset cancel event"""
+ self.cancel_event.clear()
+
+ def trigger_cancel(self):
+ """Set cancel event"""
+ self.cancel_event.set()
+
+# Instantiate app logic
+app_logic = LightRAGApp()
+
+# Gradio UI
+def gradio_ui():
+ with gr.Blocks(theme=gr.themes.Soft(), title="LightRAG Knowledge Graph App") as gradio_ui: #demo:
+ gr.Markdown("""
+ # LightRAG-based Knowledge Graph RAG
+ Upload your markdown docs, index and build a knowledge graph, and query with OpenAI or Ollama. Visualise the KG interactively.
+ """)
+ with gr.Row():
+ data_folder = gr.Textbox(value="dataset/data/docs", label="Data Folder (markdown only)")
+ working_dir = gr.Textbox(value="./working_folder", label="lightRAG working folder")
+ llm_backend = gr.Radio(["OpenAI", "Ollama"], value="OpenAI", label="LLM Backend: OpenAI or Local")
+ llm_model_name = gr.Textbox(value=os.getenv("LLM_MODEL", ""), label="LLM Model Name") #.split('/')[1], label="LLM Model Name")
+ with gr.Row():
+ openai_key = gr.Textbox(value=os.getenv("OPENAI_API_KEY", ""), label="OpenAI API Key", type="password")
+ openai_baseurl = gr.Textbox(value=os.getenv("OPENAI_API_BASE", ""), label="OpenAI baseurl")
+ ollama_host = gr.Textbox(value=os.getenv("OLLAMA_HOST", "http://localhost:11434"), label="Ollama Host")
+ #ollama_host = gr.Textbox(value=os.getenv("OPENAI_API_EMBED_BASE", ""), label="Ollama Host")
+ openai_baseurl_embed = gr.Textbox(value=os.getenv("OPENAI_API_EMBED_BASE", ""), label="OpenAI Embed baseurl")
+ llm_model_embed = gr.Textbox(value=os.getenv("LLM_MODEL_EMBED",""), label="Embedding Model") #.split('/')[1], label="Embedding Model")
+ openai_key_embed = gr.Textbox(value=os.getenv("OPENAI_API_KEY_EMBED", ""), label="OpenAI API Key Embed", type="password") #("OLLAMA_API_KEY", ""), label="OpenAI API Key Embed", type="password")
+ setup_btn = gr.Button("Initialise App")
+ status_box = gr.Textbox(label="Status / Progress", interactive=True) #interactive=False)
+ with gr.Row():
+ index_btn = gr.Button("Index Documents")
+ stop_btn = gr.Button("Stop", variant="stop") ## Add cancel event button
+ query_text = gr.Textbox(label="Your Query")
+ mode = gr.Dropdown(["naive", "local", "global", "hybrid", "mix"], value="hybrid", label="Query Mode")
+ query_btn = gr.Button("Query")
+ answer_box = gr.Markdown(label="Answer")
+ kg_btn = gr.Button("Visualise Knowledge Graph")
+ kg_html = gr.HTML(label="Knowledge Graph Visualisation")
+
+ # Add progress tracking
+ progress = gr.Textbox(label="Progress", interactive=False)
+
+ # Button logic with async handling
+ async def setup_wrapper(df, wd, llm, oai, base, base_embed, model, embed, host, embedkey):
+ return await app_logic.setup(df, wd, llm, oai, base, base_embed, model, embed, host, embedkey)
+
+ async def index_wrapper(df):
+ return await app_logic.index_documents(df)
+
+ async def query_wrapper(q, m):
+ return await app_logic.query(q, m)
+
+ def stop_wrapper(): ##SMY sync or async
+ """Cancel event wrapper"""
+ app_logic.trigger_cancel()
+ return "Cancellation requested. Awaiting current step to finish..."
+
+ # Button handlers
+ ''' previous implementation before async coroutine err
+ setup_btn.click(
+ lambda df, wd, llm, oai, base, model, embed: app_logic.setup(df, wd, llm, oai, base, model, embed),
+ [data_folder, working_dir, llm_backend, openai_key, openai_baseurl, llm_model_name, llm_model_embed],
+ #[data_folder, llm_backend, openai_key, ollama_host, llm_model_name],
+ status_box,
+ )
+ index_btn.click(
+ lambda df: app_logic.index_documents(df),
+ [data_folder],
+ [status_box, progress],
+ )
+ query_btn.click(
+ lambda q, m: app_logic.query(q, m),
+ [query_text, mode],
+ answer_box
+ )
+ kg_btn.click(
+ lambda: app_logic.show_kg(),
+ None,
+ kg_html,
+ )
+ '''
+ '''
+ ## setup() args:
+ async def setup(self, data_folder: str, working_dir: str, llm_backend: str,
+ openai_key: str, openai_baseurl: str, openai_baseurl_embed: str, llm_model_name: str,
+ llm_model_embed: str, ollama_host: str, embed_key: str) -> str:
+ '''
+ setup_btn.click(
+ fn=setup_wrapper,
+ inputs=[data_folder, working_dir, llm_backend, openai_key, openai_baseurl, openai_baseurl_embed, llm_model_name, llm_model_embed, ollama_host, openai_key_embed],
+ outputs=status_box,
+ show_progress=True
+ )
+ index_btn.click(
+ fn=index_wrapper,
+ inputs=[data_folder],
+ outputs=[status_box, progress],
+ show_progress=True
+ )
+ query_btn.click(
+ fn=query_wrapper,
+ inputs=[query_text, mode],
+ outputs=answer_box
+ )
+ kg_btn.click(
+ fn=app_logic.show_kg,
+ inputs=None,
+ outputs=kg_html,
+ show_progress=True
+ )
+ stop_btn.click(
+ fn=stop_wrapper,
+ inputs=[],
+ outputs=[status_box]
+ )
+ return gradio_ui
+
+if __name__ == "__main__":
+ #gradio_ui().launch()
+
+ ##SMY: assist: https://www.gradio.app/guides/developing-faster-with-reload-mode
+ ##SMY: NB: gradio app_gradio_lightrag.py --demo-name=gradio_ui
+ async def main():
+ try:
+ app_logic = LightRAGApp()
+ gradio_ui().launch()
+ except Exception as e:
+ print(f"An error occurred: {e}")
+ finally:
+ if app_logic.rag:
+ await app_logic.rag.finalize_storages()
+
+ ##SMY Configure logging before running the main function: See lightrag_openai_compatible_demo.py
+ configure_logging()
+
+ asyncio.run(main())
+
+ ##SMY: gradio reload-mode watch: https://github.com/huggingface/smolagents/issues/789
+ #run_process(".", target=gradio_ui)
\ No newline at end of file
diff --git a/dataset/data/docs/DPSA_MIOS Framework V6 0.pdf-79231b43-278b-48ef-bc26-8335ce9a2f1b.md b/dataset/data/docs/DPSA_MIOS Framework V6 0.pdf-79231b43-278b-48ef-bc26-8335ce9a2f1b.md
new file mode 100644
index 0000000000000000000000000000000000000000..36b30d5cb9b274490e71384ec509682796a621ea
--- /dev/null
+++ b/dataset/data/docs/DPSA_MIOS Framework V6 0.pdf-79231b43-278b-48ef-bc26-8335ce9a2f1b.md
@@ -0,0 +1,322 @@
+# MINIMUM INTEROPERABILITYSTANDARDS (MIOS) FRAMEWORKFor Government Information Systems
+
+Revision 6.00
+
+March 2017
+
+# APPROVAL
+
+I, the undersigned,
+
+In terms of the Public Service Act, 1994 (Proclamation 103 of 1994 ) sections 3(1)(f) and 3(1)(g) regarding electronic government norms and standards and the Public Service Regulations, 2016 Chapter 6, regulation 97, and the State Information Technology Agency Act, 1988 (Act 88 of 1998) sections 7(6)(a)(i) and 7(6)(b) and the State Information Agency General Regulations, 2005 ( R. 50 of 2005), Part 2, regulation 4.2 and 4.3 regarding interoperability standards and certification, hereby approve and issue the Minimum Interoperability Standard (MIOS) for Government Information Systems version 6.0 set by the State Information Technology Agency (Pty) Ltd (“SITA”) after consultation by SITA with departments and the Government Information Technology Officer Council (GITO Council) ;
+
+The MIOS v6.0 supersedes and replaces all previous versions thereof, and are effective and must be complied with in terms of Public Service Regulations Chapter 6, regulation 97 from the date of signature; and
+
+# MINISTER: PUBLIC SERVICE AND ADMINISTRATION
+
+Ms A.F. Muthambi
+
+# PUBLICATION ENQUIRIES
+
+The Minimum Interoperability Standards (MIOS) for Government Information Systems is developed by the State Information Technology Agency (SITA): Norms Standards and Quality Department in consultation with GITOC and SC-AGC participating members.
+
+Enquiries can be directed to:
+
+The Chief Executive Officer
+State Information Technology Agency SOC Ltd
+459 Tsitsa Street, Erasmuskloof
+PRETORIA, SOUTH AFRICA
+The Chairperson
+Government Information Technology Officers Council
+Department of Public Service and Administration
+Batho Pele House, 546 Edmond Street , Arcadia
+PRETORIA, SOUTH AFRICA
+
+This document is also available on the SITA website (http://www.sita.co.za)
+
+# COPYRIGHT, TRADEMARKS AND INTELLECTUAL PROPERTY
+
+Some of the standards, acronyms and terms that are referenced in this publication and the related addendums or catalogue are protected by copyright and/or intellectual property rights. The omission of the rightful copyright and/or intellectual property right owners’ information from this document is merely intended to simplify the structure of the document.
+
+This document, in part or in whole, may be freely used on condition that the source is quoted.
+
+# 1 OVERVIEW .
+
+1.1 INTRODUCTION.. 5
+1.2 MANDATE . 7
+1.3 PURPOSE AND BENEFITS . 8
+1.4 SCOPE.. . 8
+1.4.1 Where does MIOS fit into the bigger picture? 8
+1.4.2 What is included in MIOS?. 8
+1.4.3 What is excluded from MIOS? . 9
+1.5 APPLICABILITY AND COMPLIANCE . 9
+1.5.1 To whom does MIOS apply? . 9
+1.5.2 Exemption from applicability.. 11
+2 MANAGEMENT PROCESSES . .12
+2.1 PRINCIPLES . 12
+2.2 STANDARD SETTING.. . 12
+2.2.1 Standard Setting Responsibilities ..... . 12
+2.2.2 Standard setting process . . 14
+2.2.3 Standards Selection Principles.. . 16
+2.2.4 MIOS review frequency .... . 17
+2.3 STANDARDS CERTIFICATION... . 17
+2.3.1 Standards Certification Responsibilities . . 17
+3 MINIMUM INTEROPERABILITY STANDARDS (MIOS) ... ..19
+3.1 BACKGROUND . . 19
+3.2 VALIDITY OF THIS DOCUMENT . . 19
+
+ANNEX A : ABBREVIATIONS . 20
+
+# FIGURES
+
+Figure 1: Government ICT House of Value .. Figure 2: e-Government information exchange scenarios . 10 Figure 3: Standards selection and setting process . 14
+
+# 1.1 INTRODUCTION
+
+(1) The South African Government, as represented by its National, Provincial and Local spheres and associated agencies, is committed to the continuous improvement of public service delivery. Such commitment has become an underlying theme across all departments’ strategic and annual performance plans. Following on this commitment government Information and Communication Technology leaders have embarked on an e-Government programme in 2001, which aspires to achieve the effective, efficient and economic management and utilisation of Information and Information and Communication Technology Resources in government as illustrated in the Government Information and Communication Technology (ICT) House of Value).
+
+
+Figure 1: Government ICT House of Value
+
+(2) The Information and Communication Technology House of Value serves as a reference to measure the performance of e-Government projects and systems, which includes interoperability1. The strategic drive to advance the maturity on interoperability not only compels government Information and Communication Technology leaders to collaborate on e-Government initiatives by sharing scarce resources, but it also provides a way for information to be exchanged electronically across traditional government system boundaries in order to improve public service delivery.
+
+(3) The Information and Communication Technology House of value, comprises a roof, pillars and foundation, each representing the following:
+
+(a) The outcomes (roof) of the e-Government programme on public sector operations are to:
+
+(i) Lower cost of government service delivery operations, by reducing time, complexity, repetition and duplication of tasks.
+(ii) Increased productivity of government operations, by improving the quality and quantity of traditional public sector outputs or introduce new processes to produce outputs and render services that were previously impossible.
+(iii) Citizen Convenience when interacting with government, by offering equal access to government information systems and services, provides more and better information, improves information service quality and privacy, provides remedies for failures and offers best value for money2.
+
+(b) The value (pillars) that the e-Government programme contributes to the public sector ICT environment is:
+
+(i) Security, by ensuring that information systems and related technologies operate in a maintained security environment.
+(ii) Interoperability, by ensuring that information systems and Information and Communication Technology infrastructure of government can interconnect and exchange information.
+(iii) Reduced duplication, by eliminating unnecessary duplications, by promoting sharing and consolidation of Information systems and Information and Communication Technology infrastructure across government.
+(iv) Economies of scale, by leveraging collective purchasing power of government to lower unit prices from industry.
+(v) Digital inclusion, by promoting the South African ICT industry, with a particular emphasis on Broad Based Black Economic Empowerment (BBBEE), labour absorption, and stimulation of equitable economic growth and skills development of Information and Communication Technology in South Africa.
+
+(c) The capabilities (foundation) by which to achieve the outcomes and values of eGovernment are:
+
+(i) ICT planning, the capabilities that set direction and standards for Information and Communication Technology, Enterprise Architecture and to validate/certify conformance and performance thereto.
+(ii) ICT integration, the capabilities that provide and develop Information and Communication Technology Systems and Technology Infrastructure into integrated Information and Communication Technology solutions.
+(iii) ICT operations, the capabilities to ensure that Information and Communication Technology Systems and Technology Infrastructure are maintained in a reliable, available and secure environment.
+
+(4) The advancement of interoperability in Government is an ongoing process and should be managed as a long-term, dynamic and agile programme. It is therefore incumbent upon the members of the Government Information Technology Officers Council to promote the objectives of interoperability and to observe the principles and comply with the standards as set out in MIOS during the life-cycle management of IS/ICT in government. It is also essential that MIOS remains updated and that it aligns to stakeholder requirements, changes in legislative environment, so that government can embrace the potential of technological advancement in the market and address the archival issues inherent to the digital age.
+
+(5) The Minimum Interoperability Standards (MIOS) provides a set of mandatory standards that will ensure the achievement of the interoperability pillar in the ICT House of Value as illustrated in figure 1 above.
+
+(6) Previous versions of MIOS were structured in a way which did not allow for sufficient agility to adapt to changing technology fronts or progress. This had the result that these versions of MIOS were found to be irrelevant within a time period of 2 or 3 years, and hence not adding perceived value to Government at large. For the above reason, it was decided to take a different approach with MIOS V6 and on. (Details of these changes are covered in Sections 3.1 and 3.2 of this document)
+
+# 1.2 MANDATE
+
+(1) Interoperability between Information Systems and Information-and-Communication Technology (IS/ICT) in government is mandated in accordance with the following legislation:
+
+(a) Public Service Act, 1994 (Proclamation 103 of 1994) mandates the Minister of Public Service and Administration (“Minister”) to establish norms and standards for Information Management in the Public Service and e-Government respectively;
+
+(b) Public Service Regulations, 2016 –
+
+(i) Obligates heads of departments to comply with the MIOS.
+(ii) Mandates the Minister to issue the MIOS.
+
+(c) State Information Technology Agency (SITA) Act, 1998 (Act 88 of 1998) sections 7(6) (a) (i) and 7(6) (b) mandates SITA to set standards for interoperability between information systems in government, subject to approval by the Minister and to certify information technology goods and services for compliance against such approved standards.
+
+(d) State Information Technology Agency General Regulation (R.50 of 2005) sections 4.2 and 4.3 prescribe the processes to set interoperability standards and to certify compliance of information systems thereto.
+
+(e) Public Finance Management Act, 1999 (Act 1 of 1999) section 38(1)(b) and (e) holds an accounting officer responsible for the effective, efficient, economical and transparent use of the resources and to comply with audit commitments as required by legislation.
+
+(1) The purpose of the MIOS is to prescribe open system standards that will ensure minimum level of interoperability within and between IS/ICT systems that are utilised in government, industry, citizens and the international community in support of the e-Government objectives.
+
+(2) The benefits that MIOS provides to stakeholders are: (a) To government IS/ICT management communities, it provides a framework to ensure compliance with interoperability stipulations as set out in the SITA Act and Public Service Regulations respectively. It further underpins the collective value of IS/ICT as a strategic resource of government that must be valued, shared and used to improve public service delivery. (b) To enterprise architects, solution architects, designers and implementers, it provides a basis for designing, using and implementing open standards based solutions to improve interoperability and reduce duplication across government IS/ICT. (c) To acquirers, it provides the minimum mandatory technical specifications that must form part of all bid documents. (d) To the Certification Authority, it serves as a baseline by which to verify and certify conformance of IS/ICT goods and services for use in government. (e) To SITA, it provides the technical standards that are required to function as the Prime Systems Integrator (PSI) for Government. (f) To ICT goods and service providers, it substantiates government’s strategic intent towards the adoption of and migration to open standards and that only MIOS compliant products are considered for integration into the Government Information Infrastructure.
+
+# 1.4 SCOPE
+
+1.4.1 Where does MIOS fit into the bigger picture?
+
+The MIOS is an integral part of the Government’s envisaged IS/ICT Governance Framework. It is also strongly related to, although not part of, the government structured processes because the MIOS prescribes the architecture model and notation standards needed to achieve interoperability among Enterprise Architecture tools and repositories, and the government structured processes, in turn, prescribes the adherence to MIOS during the development of ICT Plans and Blueprints in government.
+
+# 1.4.2 What is included in MIOS?
+
+The Minimum Interoperability Standard (MIOS) contains the following:
+
+(a) The management processes and responsibilities for – (i) the setting and approval of interoperability standards, and (ii) the certification of IS/ICT products and services for compliance with such standards; and
+
+(b) The set of interoperability standards regarding –
+
+(i) Data format standards to enable exchange of data between government information systems (IS), and
+(ii) Technical standards to interconnect, interoperate, access and exchange data among components of government Information and Communication Technology (ICT) infrastructure.
+
+# 1.4.3 What is excluded from MIOS?
+
+The MIOS does not prescribe any standards relating to business processes of IS/ICT services, except for the processes to set the standard and to certify compliance with such standards. The IS/ICT business process and service standards, such as ICT Governance practice standards, Enterprise Architecture practice standards, Information System Security practice standards, Quality Management practice standards, System Development Life Cycle (SDLC) practice standard, Project Management practice standard and ICT Service Management standards form part of the prevailing and evolving Government IS/ICT Governance Framework as referenced in par (1.4.1) above.
+
+# 1.5 APPLICABILITY AND COMPLIANCE
+
+1.5.1 To whom does MIOS apply?
+
+The MIOS is normative (it is prescriptive and compliance is mandatory) to
+
+o Heads of National departments
+o Heads of Provincial departments
+o associated agencies/entities as listed in the Schedules to the Public Service Act
+
+The MIOS is informative (it is descriptive and compliance is not mandatory) to Heads of Local Government
+
+To what does MIOS apply?
+
+(1) According to the Public Service Regulations, Chapter 6, (Information Management and Electronic Government) regulation 97)–
+
+“ (3) Any new information and communication technology system developed or acquired or any upgrade of any existing information and communication system in the public service shall comply with the MIOS. (4) A head of department shall(a) include compliance with the MIOS in the project approval procedure; and (b) ensure compliance to the MIOS in the acquisition or use of information and communication technology.”
+
+(2) In context of e-Government, MIOS is applicable for compliance to all e-Government systems through their life-cycle of existence, where:
+
+(a) e-Government system means “any information system in the public service” and the interoperability of e-Government systems (as illustrated in Figure 2: e-Government information exchange scenarios), is described as – (i) Government to Government (G2G) information system – any government information system that interconnects and exchanges information with another government information system (including any two information systems within a department). (ii) Government to Business (G2B) information system – any government information system that interconnects and exchanges information with a commercial or non-governmental business entity; and (iii) Government to Citizen (G2C) system – any government information system that interconnects and exchanges information with a citizen or community.
+
+
+Figure 2: e-Government information exchange scenarios
+
+(b) The life-cycle stages and conditions when MIOS is applicable, are for –
+
+(i) A new Government system that is either under development or in acquisition;
+(ii) An Government system that is upgraded in functionality to enable new business processes or that is upgraded in terms of its technology infrastructure (i.e. same business processes and functionality, but new technology infrastructure)
+(iii) An existing (legacy) Government system in operation.
+(iv) All technology stacks currently in use in government are accommodated in this framework. However, all new technologies/software/systems under consideration from the time this framework is adopted must be able to incorporate these standards while ensuring interoperability with legacy systems to ensure investments are protected.
+
+# 1.5.2 Exemption from applicability
+
+(1) A department or agency may apply to the Minister for a deviation from complying with MIOS in terms of regulation 4 of the Public Service Regulations, 2016.
+
+(2) Consideration for exemption will only be given, for information systems that are –
+
+(a) Specific to the unique operational requirements of a Department or Agency, provided that such a system is not an e-Government system; or
+(b) Governed by strict international health or safety standards; or
+(c) Embedded systems or closed systems (such as electro-mechanical systems, closed surveillance systems and real-time monitoring systems) that does not interoperate or exchange data with another system.
+
+# 2.1 PRINCIPLES
+
+In addition to the legislation on IS/ICT in government, the following principles regarding MIOS serve as a basis for decision-making:
+
+(a) Approval of funding for the acquisition (including the development) of new or the modification of existing IS/ICT products or systems are dependent on the IS/ICT product or system being compliant with MIOS.
+(b) It is the responsibility of the accounting officer of a department or agency to ensure that IS/ICT projects and systems comply with MIOS and that such compliance is subject to be audited/verified by the Auditor-general.
+(c) When interconnectivity, data interoperability or information access is required between departments’ or agencies’ systems, the cost of rectifying a system that does not comply with MIOS rests with the owner of the non-compliant product or system.
+
+# 2.2 STANDARD SETTING
+
+# 2.2.1 Standard Setting Responsibilities
+
+(1) The responsibilities and process for setting interoperability standards are governed in terms of the following legislation –
+
+(a) Public Service Act states:
+
+“3. (1) The Minister [of Public Service and Administration] is responsible for establishing norms and standards relating to – … (f) Information management in the public service; (g) Electronic government;” (b) Public Service Regulations, Chapter 6, Regulation 97, states: “Minimum Interoperability Standards 97(1) The Minister shall issue Minimum Interoperability Standards (herein referred to as the “MIOS”) for the public service.
+
+(c) SITA Act, states: “7(6) The Agency – (a) Must set standards regarding – (i) The interoperability of information systems subject to the approval of the Minister; (b) Must certify every acquisition of any information technology goods or services by a department for compliance with those standards.”
+
+(d) SITA General Regulations, states:
+
+“4.2 SETTING OF STANDARDS
+
+4.2.1 Before setting or amending standards regarding the interoperability of information systems between departments … in terms of section 7(6)(a) of the Act, the Agency must -
+
+(a) Consult with departments and the GITO Council in order to assess the status of implemented systems and the proposed requirements;
+
+(b) Conduct an implementation impact analysis and develop a business case demonstrating the cost-effectiveness of such standards; and
+
+(c) Give due consideration to all representations received from departments and the GITO Council before submitting proposed standards, or an amendment thereof, to the Minister … for approval … .
+
+4.2.2 The Agency must set the standards, contemplated in section 7(6)(a) of the [SITA] Act, not later than a date determined by the Minister.”
+
+4.2.3 The standards set in terms of section 7(6)(a) of the [SITA] Act must be made available to all heads of departments and on the Agency's web site.”
+
+(2) Following above legislation, the stakeholders and their respective responsibilities regarding the setting of interoperability standards are –
+
+
No
Stakeholder
Role and Responsibilities
1
Minister of Public Service and Administration (MPSA)
The standards promulgation authority to - a) Approve and issue the MlOs for implementation.
2
State Information Technology Agency (SITA)
The standards setting authority to - a) Consult with and consider inputs from departments and GlTO Council and keep abreast of standards development in the ICT industry. b) Conduct implementation impact analysis of changes to MIOs. c) Select and set the standards in MlOS subject to approval. d) Manage the development, configuration and
+
+
No
Stakeholder
Role and Responsibilities
e) Submit MlOS to GITOC for recommendation to Minister.
3
GITO Council
The standards advisory authority to - a) Give input to SITA on MIOS. b) Recommend the MlOS to the Minister for approval.
+
+# 2.2.2 Standard setting process
+
+(1) The process to review and set interoperability standards is inclusive. Therefore, all stakeholders, including Government Departments and their agencies, industry and the users are all encouraged to participate in improving interoperability, and to provide support on the implementation of the MIOS.
+
+(2) The process to review and set interoperability standards for inclusion in MIOS is a consultative decision-making process that comprises a few steps involving a rule based filtration of interoperability standards as illustrated in Figure 3: Standards selection and setting process, and described as follows
+
+
+Figure 3: Standards selection and setting process
+
+(a) Step1: Compile a list of standards for consideration – referred to as the “White List”. The White List is an unbounded (unscreened) list of new or revised interoperability standards that are suggested by all stakeholders to be considered by the standards setting task team for inclusion into MIOS. This list is compiled by means of the following activities –
+
+(i) Watch or keep abreast of standards development in the ICT market that involves periodic research into national and international standards development organisations and exploring the developments of other governments’ e-Government and interoperability programmes.
+(ii) Consult with and solicit inputs from government stakeholders and interoperability champions.
+(iii) Annual re-assessment of the effectiveness and relevance of the interoperability standards that are contained in the existing MIOS to identify standards that are not contributing (anymore) to the advancement of interoperability in government.
+
+(b) Step 2: Filter the “White List” using the standards selection principles (as contained in section 2.2.3 below) and produce a list of candidate standards – referred to as the “Grey List”. The standards setting task team considers each standard in the White List and test it for conformance with the standard selection principles –
+
+(i) A conformant standard is placed in the “Grey List”, which will be considered, subject to a further evaluation, for inclusion into MIOS.
+(ii) A non-conformant standard is discarded, and will not be considered for further evaluation.
+
+(c) Step 3: Assess the value and risks of standards in the “Grey List” and produce a list of recommended standards that will be added to or supersede existing standards in the MIOS – referred to as the “Green List”. The standards setting task team considers each standard in the Grey List and perform a benefit-risk impact assessment –
+
+(i) A standard that passes the benefit-risk impact assessment is placed on the “Green List” and will be added to or supersede existing standards in the MIOS.
+(ii) A standard that fails the benefit-risk impact assessment will be discarded and flagged as deprecated. A deprecated standard does not contribute to the advancement of interoperability in government anymore or it will introduce an unacceptable high risk to the public service delivery.
+
+# 2.2.3 Standards Selection Principles
+
+There are number of definitions of open standards which emphasise different aspects of openness, including of the resulting specification, the openness of the drafting process, and the ownership of rights in the standard.
+
+The list below contains frequently cited indicators of the openness of a standard. For the purposes of the MIOS, a standard shall be considered open if it meets all of these criteria. There are standards which we are obliged to adopt for pragmatic reasons which do not necessarily fully conform to being open in all respects. In such cases, where an open standard does not yet exist, the degree of openness will be taken into account when selecting an appropriate standard:
+
+• It should be maintained by a non-commercial organization;
+• Participation in the ongoing development work is based on decision making processes that are open to all interested parties;
+• Open access: all may access committee documents, drafts and completed standards free of cost or for a negligible fee;
+• It must be possible for everyone to copy, distribute and use the standard free of cost; • The intellectual rights required to implement the standard (e.g. essential patent claims) are irrevocably available, without any royalties attached;
+• There are no reservations regarding reuse of the standard; and
+• There are multiple implementations of the standard.
+
+The following principles shall apply during the selection of interoperability standards for inclusion or amendment to the MIOS:
+
+(a) Interoperability: The standard is designed to advance interconnectedness and data exchange within and between systems.
+(b) Openness: the specifications for the standards is open, which is characterised by: (i) The standard should be maintained by a non-commercial organization. (ii) The standard development and decision-making processes are inclusive and open to all interested parties. (iii) The standards development outputs, including documents, drafts and completed standards, are accessible to anyone at no cost or at a negligible fee. (iv) The intellectual rights required to implement the standard (e.g. essential patent claims) are irrevocably available, without any royalties attached. (v) The standard must not favour or provide exclusive rights to a particular vendor or product brand.
+
+(c) Industry support: the standard is widely supported by the industry, and is likely to reduce the cost of and the risk inherent to systems.
+
+# 2.2.4 MIOS review frequency
+
+(1) The MIOS Framework should be reviewed once every two years or as the need arises, unless determined otherwise by the Minister. This review will be known as a major version update. (Note: The latest approved version of MIOS will remain in effect until it is superseded by an updated version).
+
+(2) The Catalogue of Standards to MIOS Version 6 must be reviewed at least once per annum to incorporate advancements and changes of IS/ICT in government and industry. This review will be known as the “MIOS Catalogue update”. Version control on the Catalogue will be designated by the addition of sequential numbers e.g. MIOS 6.01, 6.02, 6.03, etc. The number $"6"$ will link the addendum to the framework which carries the same number. When the MIOS framework gets updated, a new number range will commence i.e. 7.01, 7.02 etc.
+
+# 2.3 STANDARDS CERTIFICATION
+
+# 2.3.1 Standards Certification Responsibilities
+
+(1) Standards Certification is a process that verifies whether a system complies with the standards that are contained in MIOS. The responsibility to certify that e-Government systems comply with the MIOS are governed in terms of the following legislation:
+
+(a) Public Service Regulations, 2016 Chapter 6, regulation 97 states: “(4) A head of department shall (a) include compliance with the MIOS in the project approval procedure; and (b) ensure compliance to the MIOS in the acquisition of use of information and communication technology”
+
+(b) SITA Act, states: “7(6) The Agency … (b) must certify every acquisition of any information technology goods or services by a department for compliance with those standards.”
+
+(c) SITA General Regulations, states:
+
+“4.3 CERTIFICATION OF INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY GOODS AND SERVICES
+
+4.3.1 The Agency must, conduct standard certification in respect of all information technology goods or services, which were acquired by departments before the commencement of these Regulations. …
+
+4.3.3 The Agency must conduct standard certification of information technology goods or services –
+
+(a) acquired … by a department from the Agency; … and (b) procured … by a department through the Agency …”
+
+(2) From the above legislation, the stakeholders and their respective responsibilities regarding standards certification are as follows:
+
+
No
Stakeholder
Role and Responsibilities
1
Head of Department
The Accounting officer, who must ensure and account/report that all e-Government systems (assets) under his/her control comply with the MIOS.
2
SITA
The Certification Authority, who must certify that all e-Government systems - in acquisition and in operation - comply with MlOs.
3
Supplier / ICT Industry
Supplier, Provider and/or Integrator of e-Government systems, who must provide evidence that the e-Government system complies with MlOS in accordance to the MlOs Applicability Assessment provided by SlTA's Certification Authority.
+
+# 3 MINIMUM INTEROPERABILITY STANDARDS (MIOS)
+
+# 3.1 BACKGROUND
+
+(1) The approach to MIOS 6 entails a physical split of the MIOS Framework and Principles Document and that of the Catalogue which contains the actual list of categories and standards. The two documents are linked again through means of cross referencing. (2) This approach will shorten the approval of the selected standards to ensure that these stay up to date and relevant to changing ICT progress and landscape within organs of state.
+
+# 3.2 VALIDITY OF THIS DOCUMENT
+
+(1) This document is validated by means of the signature of the Minister and will remain valid until a new version is approved.
+
+
BBBEE
Broad Based Black Economic Empowerment
BPMN
Business Process Modelling Notation
EA
Enterprise Architecture
GCIO
Government Chief Information Officer
GITO
Government Information Technology Officer
GITOC
Government Information Technology Officers Council
GWEA
Government Wide Enterprise Architecture
ICT
Information and Communication Technology
ISO
International Organisation for Standardisation
MIOS
Minimum Interoperability Standards
SC-AGC
Standing Committee on Architecture, Governance and Compliance
SITA
State Information Technology Agency
OMG
Object Management Group
TOGAF
The Open Group Architecture Framework
UML
Unified Modelling Language
\ No newline at end of file
diff --git a/dataset/data/docs/DPSA_cgict_Determination and Directive on the im.md b/dataset/data/docs/DPSA_cgict_Determination and Directive on the im.md
new file mode 100644
index 0000000000000000000000000000000000000000..de28db9186ddfe3a8dedd4a6817eacf4422056da
--- /dev/null
+++ b/dataset/data/docs/DPSA_cgict_Determination and Directive on the im.md
@@ -0,0 +1,1183 @@
+# the dpsa
+
+Department: Public Service and Administration REPUBLICOFSOUTHAFRICA
+
+Private Bag X916, PRETORIA, 0001 Tel: (012) 336 1000,Fax: (012) 326 7802
+Private Bag X9148,CAPE TOWN,8000 Tel: (021) 467 5120, Fax:(021) 467 5484
+
+Enguiries : Makabongwe Siziba Tel No. .:(012) 336 1034/ 083 746 0048 Email : makabongwe.siziba@dpsa.gov.za
+
+# TO ALL HEADS OF NATIONAL AND PROVINCIAL DEPARTMENTS
+
+CIRCULARNO.21OF2022
+
+# DETERMINATION AND DIRECTIVE ON THE IMPLEMENTATION OFTHE PUBLIC SERVICE CORPORATE GOVERNANCE OFINFORMATION AND COMMUNICATION TECHNOLOGY POLICYFRAMEWORK
+
+1. The above matter herein refers.
+
+2. The Corporate Governance of Information and Communication Technology (lCT) Policy Framework was reviewed by the Department of Public Service and Administration in conjunction with the Govern ment Information Technology Officers Council (GlTOC).
+
+3. The Cabinet approved the revised Policy Framework on 9 March 2022. It applies to all national and provincial departments and national and provincial govern ment components.
+
+4. The Ministerfor Public Service and Administration issued the attached Determination and Directive (Annexure A) in terms of sections 3(1)(f) and (g) of the Public Service Act, 1994, to implement in your department.
+
+
+
+# TABLE OF CONTENTS
+
+DEFINITIONS 3
+
+1. INTRODUCTION .. 4
+2. PURPOSE 4
+3. AUTHORIZATION .. . 4
+4. SCOPE OF APPLICATION . . 5
+5. REGULATORY FRAMEWORK (PROVIDES THE CONTEXT WITHIN WHICH THE DIRECTIVE
+EXISTS) 5
+6. TRANSITIONAL ARRANGEMENTS ... 5
+7. NON-COMPLIANCE MANAGEMENT .. 5
+8. DATE OF IMPLEMENTATION 5
+9. CORPORATE GOVERNANCE OF ICT PRINCIPLES ... 5
+11. REFERENCES 15
+ANNEXURE A: PUBLIC SERVICE CORPORATE GOVERNANCE OF ICT POLICY FRAMEWORK
+VERSION 2 .. 15
+ANNEXURE B: PROJECT MANAGEMENT GUIDELINE . .. 15
+ANNEXURE C: BUSINESS CASE GUIDELINES AND TEMPLATE . . 15
+
+# DEFINITIONS
+
+
TERM
DEFINITION
AGSA
Auditor -- General South Africa
CORPORATE GOVERNANCE
King IV defines corporate governance as the exercise of ethical and effective leadership by the governing body towards the achievement of the following governance outcomes: Ethical culture; Good performance; Effective control; and
DEPARTMENT
Legitimacy. (IODSA, 2016: 11) National or provincial department, or a government component, the Office of a Premier, a Provincial department, or a provincial
DIGITALIZATION
government component. The use of digital technologies to change a business model and provide new revenue and value-producing opportunities; it is the
DPSA
process of moving to a digital business (Gartner, 2022) Department of Public Service and Administration
EXCO
Executive Committee - highest decision-making structure consisting of executive management in the department
GITO
Government Information Technology Officer as established through Cabinet Memorandum 38(a) of 2000
CGICTPF
Corporate governance of ICT Policy Framework
HEAD OFDEPARTMENT
The incumbent of a post mentioned in column 2 of Schedule 1, 2, or 3 of the Public Service Act includes any employee acting in such
ICT
post. Information and communication technology refers to all communication technologies.
IT
Information Technology
ITSM
A set of principles and practices for implementing, delivering, and managing IT services for end users in a way that meets the stated needs of end users and the stated goals of the business
KING IV
Report on Corporate Governance for South Africa, 2016
MIOS
Minimum Interoperability Standard
MPSA
Minister for the Public Service and Administration
MTEF
Medium-Term Expenditure Framework
PUBLIC SERVICE ACT
Public Service Act, 1994, as amended
+
+# 1. INTRODUCTION
+
+1.1. Information and Communication Technology (ICT) has evolved. It brings about new opportunities for the public service to expedite service delivery, reach citizens promptly, and promote two-way online communication between government and service beneficiaries.
+1.2. ICT allows senior management in the public service to make informed decisions based on easily accessible and reliable information.
+1.3. Adopting ICT prescripts, ICT plans, ICT-enabled projects, and institutional arrangements becomes a priority to derive the expected value from the ICT.
+1.4. Executive management is tasked with establishing corporate governance arrangements and incorporating ICT governance to oversee the performance of ICT. King IV defines corporate governance as the exercise of ethical and effective leadership by the governing body towards the achievements of the following governance outcomes:
+
+Ethical culture; Good performance; Effective control; and Legitimacy (IODSA, 2016).
+
+1.6. The DPSA introduced the Corporate Governance of ICT Policy Framework in 2013. Having implemented the Policy Framework from 2013, the DPSA identified enhancements to improve the institutionalization of corporate governance of ICT.
+
+1.7. The Cabinet approved the revised Public Service Corporate Governance of ICT Policy Framework on 9 March 2022, attached at Annexure A. This Policy Framework provides broad principles and practices for implementing corporate governance of ICT.
+
+# 2. PURPOSE
+
+This Determination and Directive aims to provide norms and standards to implement the revised Public Service Corporate Governance of ICT Policy Framework.
+
+# 3. AUTHORIZATION
+
+This Determination and Directive is issued in terms of section 3(1)(f) and (g) of the Public Service Act, 1994.
+
+This Determination and Directive applies to all departments and employees employed in terms of the Public Service Act, and the members of the services only as the Determination and Directive's provisions are not contrary to the laws governing their employment.
+
+# 5. REGULATORY FRAMEWORK (PROVIDES THE CONTEXT WITHIN WHICH THE DIRECTIVE EXISTS)
+
+5.1. Constitution of the Republic of South Africa, 1996;
+5.2. Minimum Information Security Standards (MISS);
+5.3. Minimum Interoperability Standards (MIOS);
+5.4. Promotion of Access to Information Act 2 of 2000 (PAIA);
+5.5. Public Service Act, 1994;
+5.6. Public Service Regulations of 2016;
+5.7. Public Finance Management Act, 1999 (Act No. 1 of 1999);
+5.8. Public Administration Management Act, 2014 (Act No. 11 of 2014);
+5.9. State Information Technology Act No. 88 0f 1998; and
+5.10. The Protection of Personal Information Act 4 of 2013(POPIA).
+
+# 6. TRANSITIONAL ARRANGEMENTS
+
+A Head of Department must ensure that all requirements of this Determination and Directive are achieved within 12 months of the approval of this determination and directive.
+
+# 7. NON-COMPLIANCE MANAGEMENT
+
+Failure to comply with this Determination and Directive must be dealt with in terms of sections 16A and 16B of the Public Service Act, 1994.
+
+# 8. DATE OF IMPLEMENTATION
+
+This Determination and Directive shall come into effect on the date of approval by the MPSA.
+
+# 9. CORPORATE GOVERNANCE OF ICT PRINCIPLES
+
+The implementation of the revised corporate governance of ICT policy framework by departments is underpinned by the following principles:
+
+# 9.1. PRINCIPLES
+
+
PRINCIPLE
OBJECTIVE
Principle 1: Strategic mandate Principle 2: Institutionalization of
ICT (current and future capabilities) should enable the department to achieve its strategic mandate and objectives.
corporate governance of ICT
Corporate governance of ICT should be institutionalized within the corporate governance regime of the department.
Principle 3: Value and benefits realization from ICT investment Principle 4: Manage ICT-related
All ICT investments should achieve the predetermined value and benefits. The lCT-related business risks, including security and
business risks Principle 5: Change
cybersecurity, should be managed (mitigated and audited regularly). Corporate governance of ICT should be implemented
management/departmental behaviour
through appropriate change management interventions.
Principle 6: Monitoring and evaluation
Monitor and evaluate the use and performance of ICT.
+
+# Table 1: Corporate governance of ICT principles
+
+9.1.1. The Head of Department must ensure that the corporate governance of ICT principles are upheld when developing and implementing all ICT policies, processes, and procedures.
+
+# 10. CORPORATE GOVERNANCE OF ICT MECHANISMS
+
+10.1.1.As the designated governance champion accountable for the corporate governance of ICT, the Head of Department must establish the corporate governance of ICT system and monitor its performance. A system is a set of structures, roles, and processes that enable the implementation of corporate governance of ICT, as depicted in the figure below:
+
+
+Figure 1: Corporate governance of the ICT system
+
+10.1.2. The Head of Department must ensure the development of the departmental corporate governance of ICT policy as an instrument to implement the Determination and Directive within the department. The Policy must describe the corporate governance of ICT system, which at a minimum, must include:
+
+(a) The policy objectives for the implementation of corporate governance of ICT;
+(b) Governance structures with clear roles and responsibilities, composition and reporting arrangements between structures (e.g., Executive committee (EXCO), ICT steering committee.);
+(c) The roles and responsibilities of the key role players (e.g., Head of Department, Head of ICT.);
+(d) Identification of all ICT policies that support the implementation of corporate governance of ICT (e.g., Information security policy, ICT enduser policy (acceptable use), IT service management policy.); and
+(e) Proposed measures to monitor and evaluate ICT performance as contemplated in paragraph 10.5.3.
+
+10.1.3. The Head of Department must ensure the designation of a suitable Head of ICT/GITO in the department. At a minimum, the Head of ICT must: (a) continuously seek new methods and approaches to digitalize the department's services;
+
+(b) develop and define an IT service management (ITSM) policy. This Policy must set out the implementation and management of quality ICT services that meet the business needs and will serve as the ICT functional commitment to the business;
+(c) develop an ICT plan aligned to the MTEF, to prioritize ICT initiatives supporting the departmental strategic plan;
+(d) develop an ICT operational plan to reflect how department intends to implement the strategic plan over the financial year;
+(e) manage the implementation of the ICT plan and the ICT operational plan;
+(f) oversee and direct the day-to-day activities of the departmental ICT function, ensuring that systems, services, and infrastructure work reliably and securely in line with the ITSM policy;
+(g) provide regular executive summary reports to the ICT steering committee on the ITSM policy, including but not limited to: Information security management (user access, etc); ICT availability management; ICT service continuity; Management of external service providers; Configuration management; ICT Projects status (including procurement and expenditure); and • Information Systems Audit improvement plans (both internal and external (AGSA) audits); and
+
+(h) ensure that duplication of ICT solutions and associated technology is eliminated.
+
+# 10.2. GOVERNANCE STRUCTURES
+
+10.2.1. The Head of Department must ensure that EXCO plays a broad governance role in overseeing ICT governance in the department.
+
+10.2.2. At a minimum, EXCO must:
+
+(a) recommend the approval of the ICT plan and relevant ICT policies for approval by the Head of Department;
+(b) provide support to the functioning of the ICT steering committee;
+(c) monitor and evaluate the performance of the ICT steering committee and processes; and
+(d) review and ratify quarterly ICT steering committee reports.
+
+0.2.3.The Head of Department must establish the ICT steering committee for the ICT governance structure responsible for evaluating the use of ICT to enable the department's business and oversee ICT service delivery, thereby ensuring continuous service delivery improvement. At a minimum, the ICT steering committee must:
+
+(a) provide business leadership towards the digitalization of the department, including ICT projects and services;
+(b) monitor the joint ICT planning and resourcing of the ICT programme across the department;
+(c) monitor the implementation of approved ICT plans, policies, and strategies;
+(d) monitor the mitigation of ICT-related business risks;
+(e) monitor the performance of the audit improvement plans for both internal and external audits;
+(f) track the benefits realized from ICT investments or projects;
+(g) regularly review the ICT reports indicated in paragraph 10.1.3 of the Determination and Directive; and
+(h) provide recommendations and regular reports to EXCO on pertinent ICT issues, including ICT plans.
+
+10.2.4. The members of the ICT steering committee are nominated and appointed by the Head of Department and must comprise: (a) representatives from each programme; (b) The Head of ICT must be a member of the committee; and (c) A member of the EXCO, other than the head of ICT, must chair the committee.
+
+10.2.5. t is not recommended for the branch head responsible for the ICT function to chair the ICT steering committee.
+
+# 10.3. ICT PLANNING
+
+10.3.1.The Head of Department must ensure the development and implementation of ICT plans over the long, medium, and short term for ICT to enable the business and create value for the department. At a minimum, the following ICT plans must be in place:
+
+(a) Departmental strategic plan – departments must indicate how ICT will be used to enable support or the achievement of the departmental targets and objectives as contemplated in regulation 25(e) of the Public Service Regulations, 2016. The strategic plan must now contain a section for digitalizing the prioritized strategic objectives. The section must contain the following:
+
+i. Related objectives;
+ii. A brief description of the digitalization project in support of the business objective;
+iii. Planned annual targets for the implementation of the initiative over 5 years.
+iv. The expected outcome or business value related to the project; and
+v. The department branch responsible for the project;
+
+(b) ICT plan (three-year plan) – departments must develop and maintain an ICT plan aligned to the department's strategic plan and medium-term expenditure framework. This plan must address the people, processes, and technology matters to achieve departmental objectives as per the objectives contained in the departmental strategic plan. At a minimum, the plan must
+
+i. Describe how the identified digitalization objectives in the strategic plan will be realized;
+ii. Where the strategic plan is silent on digitalization efforts, this plan must identify digitalization initiatives to support the business objectives;
+iii. Identify the expected outcome or business value related to the initiatives;
+iv. Indicate the annual targets that the initiatives should meet together with its estimated budget for each year;
+v. Indicate the budget estimates for each digitalization project over the MTEF period (3 years).
+
+vi. Determine ICT infrastructure enabling initiatives in support of the business modernization, including but not limited to:
+
+(a) ICT network modernization;
+(b) The use of cloud computing;
+(c) End-user device technology refresh (desktop PC, Laptop, printers, etc.); and
+(d) Backend technology refresh (application and databases).
+vii. Determine initiatives the department will undertake to reduce the duplication of ICT systems; and
+viii. Set out the human resource requirements for each identified initiative in the plan.
+
+(c) ICT operational plan (one-year plan) – departments must develop and maintain an ICT operational plan that reflects the current year's implementation of ICT initiatives and projects. The ICT operational plan must operationalize the ICT plan by providing:
+
+i. Annual targets in relation to the ICT plan (3-year) initiatives;
+ii. The breakdown of the quarterly targets;
+iii. The activities to achieve the targets;
+iv. Associated human resources;
+v. The costs associated with the ICT projects; and vi. Any other operational projects undertaken by the ICT function.
+
+# 10.4. ICT PROJECT MANAGEMENT
+
+10.4.1.The revised Corporate Governance of ICT Policy Framework (CGCITPF) requires departments to manage significant ICT investments or major ICT changes through a project management approach. The Head of Department must define significance based on size, complexity, and risks associated with the ICT investment (reflected in the departmental corporate governance of ICT policy);
+
+10.4.2.Where the department has an existing project management framework, the Head of Department must ensure that the ICT projects are managed according to that framework.
+
+10.4.3.An ICT project management framework must be adopted when the department does not have an approved project management framework. At a minimum, it must ensure that each project defines:
+
+(a) Project Governance (roles and responsibilities);
+(b) Project Conceptualisation;
+(c) Project Prioritization;
+(d) Project Initiation;
+(e) Project Planning;
+(f) Project Execution;
+(g) Project monitoring and control;
+(h) Quality Management; and (i) Risk Management.
+
+The detailed description of the above items is included in the Project Management guideline attached as Annexure B.
+
+10.4.4.Business-enabling ICT projects must be owned and sponsored by the appropriate business representative.
+
+10.4.5.Before an ICT investment exceeding R10 million is made, the Head of Department must ensure that there is an approved business case. At a minimum, the business case must contain:
+
+(a) Scope of the ICT initiative;
+(b) Financial metrics;
+(c) Human resources;
+(d) Timelines;
+(e) The link to the strategic objectives of the department (business drivers);
+(f) Value management indicators (departments must indicate how value will be determined);
+(g) The business risks associated with the ICT initiative;
+(h) Interoperability (seamless exchange of data and information access between the department's systems in line with MIOS;
+(i) Any conditions that have an impact on the proposed ICT initiative. E.g., skills shortages or SITA as the procurement agent for the public service
+(j) The economies of scale; and
+(k) Elimination of duplication.
+
+The detailed description of the above items is included in the Business Case guidelines and template attached as Annexure C.
+
+10.4.6.Where a department’s annual ICT expenditure does not exceed the R10 million threshold, the Head of Department must define an appropriate trigger for a business case. This must be reflected in the departmental corporate governance of ICT policy.
+10.4.7.Departments are however encouraged to develop a business case for all significant ICT expenditure items.
+10.4.8.The Head of Department must ensure that the value promised in the business case is realized before any ICT initiative can be considered complete.
+
+# 10.5. MONITORING AND EVALUATION
+
+10.5.1.The DPSA will measure the implementation of this Determination and Directive using a balanced scorecard approach with guiding criteria to assess a department’s compliance and performance of ICT.
+
+10.5.2.The DPSA will provide the departments with an assessment standard to measure (self-assessment) ICT compliance and performance.
+
+10.5.3.The Head of Department must ensure that the annual self-assessment is conducted in line with the DPSA guidelines that will be issued periodically. At a minimum, the self-assessment criteria include:
+
+# (a) Compliance with ICT prescripts
+
+i. Departmental corporate governance of ICT policy;
+ii. Information security policy;
+iii. ICT end-user policy (acceptable use);
+iv. IT service management policy;
+v. ICT project management framework; and vi. ICT service continuity plan.
+
+# (b) Financial performance
+
+i. ICT budget $\%$ ICT budget vs. total departmental budget);
+ii. ICT capital ( $\%$ transformational projects vs operational activities); and
+iii. ICT spend ( $\%$ planned vs actual).
+
+# (c) Annual customer satisfaction surveys
+
+i. Executive management satisfaction survey;
+ii. ICT projects (system owners & system users); and
+iii. ICT end-user satisfaction (incident management, call resolution, and quality).
+
+# (d) Value management
+
+i. Project plans and progress reports; and
+ii. Business cases (promise before investment, business case approval by the delegated authority, delivery on the approved business case checking and confirming delivery, and business owner sign-off and delivery acceptance).
+
+10.5.4.The DPSA will conduct an annual assessment using the criteria mentioned above through the assessment process indicated in the figure below:
+
+
+Figure 2: DPSA Corporate governance ICT assessment process
+
+# MR TW NXESI, MP ACTING MINISTER FOR THE PUBLIC SERVICE AND ADMINISTRATION DATE:
+
+# 11.REFERENCES
+
+(1) Department of Public Service and Administration. Cabinet Memorandum 38a of 2000. Pretoria: Department of Public Service and Administration.
+(2) IBM. (2020). IT Service Management (ITSM). IBM Cloud Education Retrieved from https://www.ibm.com/za-en/cloud/learn/it-service-management [Accessed 24 November 2021].
+(3) Institute of Directors in Southern Africa. (2016). King IV Report on Corporate Governance for South Africa 2016. Johannesburg: Institute of Directors in Southern Africa.
+(4) Gartner. (2022). Information Technology Gartner Glossary. Retrieved from https://www.gartner.com/en/information-technology/glossary/digitalization [Accessed 29 June 2022].
+
+# ANNEXURE A: PUBLIC SERVICE CORPORATE GOVERNANCE OF ICT POLICY FRAMEWORK VERSION 2
+
+ANNEXURE B: PROJECT MANAGEMENT GUIDELINE
+
+ANNEXURE C: BUSINESS CASE GUIDELINES AND TEMPLATE
+
+
+Fiqure 2: DPSA Corporate governance ICT assessment process
+
+# PUBLIC SERVICE CORPORATE
+
+# GOVERNANCE OF INFORMATION
+
+AND COMMUNICATION
+
+TECHNOLOGY
+
+POLICY FRAMEWORK
+
+Version 2
+
+# TABLE OF CONTENTS
+
+PREFACE
+
+EXECUTIVE SUMMARY
+
+LOSSARY OF TERMS AND DEFINITIONS .. . i
+1. PURPOSE .
+2. SCOPE
+3. REGULATORY FRAMEWORK .. 2
+4. APPLICABILITY .. 2
+5. BACKGROUND . 2
+6. INTRODUCTION . .3
+7. OBJECTIVES OF POLICY FRAMEWORK .. .3
+8. BENEFITS OF CORPORATE GOVERNANCE OF ICT . 4
+9. CORPORATE GOVERNANCE OF ICT IN THE PUBLIC SERVICE . .4
+9.1 Corporate governance… .4
+9.2 Corporate governance of ICT… .5
+10. LAYERED APPROACH TO CORPORATE GOVERNANCE OF ICT . .5
+1. ACCOUNTABILITY STRUCTURE FOR CORPORATE GOVERNANCE OF
+ICT . .6
+11.1 Governance structures… ..6
+11.1.1 EXCO .6
+11.1.2 ICT steering committee… 7
+11.2 Roles and Responsibilities… 8
+11.2.1 Head of Department . . 8
+11.2.2 Head of ICT . 8
+2. POLICY FRAMEWORK FOR CORPORATE GOVERNANCE OF ICT IN THE
+PUBLIC SERVICE . .9
+3. PRINCIPLES AND PRACTICES . . 10
+4. CORPORATE GOVERNANCE OF ICT SYSTEM . . 14
+5. IMPLEMENTATION OF A CORPORATE GOVERNANCE OF THE ICT
+SYSTEM . .. 15
+15.1 Business enabling policies, frameworks, and plans… ..16
+6. ICT ALIGNMENT PLANNING . .. 18
+7. MONITORING AND EVALUATION . . 19
+8. GOVERNMENT-WIDE ICT PROJECT GOVERNANCE MECHANISM ........19
+19. NON-COMPLIANCE . . 20
+20. CONCLUSION . 20
+21. REFERENCES 21
+
+# PREFACE
+
+The functions of the Minister of Public Service and Administration as enshrined in the Public Service Act, 1994 include the responsibility to develop the norms and standards for governance and management of electronic government in the public service. The Public Service Regulations, 2016 support the Act by directing the executive authority and head of a department to prepare a strategic plan and information and communication technology plan, respectively.
+
+These arrangements intend to strengthen information and communication technology (ICT) utilisation to support the achievement of the departmental targets and objectives by fostering the involvement of executive management in all important ICT decisions. This accountability enables the department to align the delivery of ICT services with the department’s strategic goals.
+
+The Public Service Corporate Governance of ICT Policy Framework version 2 (“Policy Framework”) seeks to provide the departments with direction to implement corporate governance of ICT within their sphere of accountability and responsibility. The leadership should provide the necessary business enabling policies, frameworks plans, structures, and other relevant resources.
+
+The Policy Framework supports the Medium Term Strategic Framework 2019 – 2024, Priority 1: Building a capable, ethical and developmental state through e-government to improve service delivery.
+
+Effective Corporate Governance of ICT is essential to ensure that ICT supports business goals, ensures benefit realization from ICT expenditure, and appropriately manages ICT-related business risks and resources.
+
+The existing Policy Framework that the Cabinet approved in 2012 focuses mainly on compliance with no performance considerations. This weakness was confirmed by the repeat audit findings of the Auditor-General of South Africa (AGSA) on IT governance weaknesses where IT projects do not meet the business expectations.
+
+The revised Policy Framework has been primarily developed to address performance shortcomings. It directs the strategic leadership of the department (executive management) to take responsibility for the governance of ICT equivalent to the other departments, including but not limited to finances and human resources.
+
+This Policy Framework aligns with the new developments that occur after the approval of the current Policy Framework, including but not limited to:
+
+Public Service Regulations, 2016; King IV code; and
+COBIT 2019.
+
+The implementation of this Policy Framework will be supported by implementation guidelines and templates issued by the Department of Public Service and Administration (DPSA).
+
+
The business of the department refers to the department's core activities and internal support activities
CGICTPF
Corporate Governance of ICT Policy Framework This term in this revised Policy Framework will also mean governance of ICT, IT governance, and Enterprise governance of Information & Technology. This approach recognizes that other global best- practice frameworks use these terms interchangeably.
Corporate
Public service-wide level: a group of related departments enabling the public service to achieve its strategic mandate. Departmental level: a group of related components enabling the department to achieve its strategic mandate. For this Policy Framework, corporate means the same
Corporate governance
as an enterprise. King IV defines corporate governance as the exercise of ethical and effective leadership by the governing body towards the achievement of the following governance outcomes: Ethical culture; Good performance; Effective control; and Legitimacy. (IODSA, 2016: 11)
Governance champion
The Head of Department is the corporate governance champion. The accountability cannot be delegated, but this function may be delegated to an executive or senior manager responsible for driving corporate governance within the department.
Corporate governance of ICT
The system by which the current and future use of ICT is directed and controlled.
+
+
Corporate governance of ICT involves evaluating and
directing ICT use to support the organisation and monitoring this use to achieve plans. It includes the strategy and policies for using ICT within an organisation. (ISO/IEC 38500:2015)
Department
Means a national department, a national government component, the Office of the Premier, a provincial department, or a provincial government component.
DPSA
Department of Public Service and Administration
ExCO
Executive Management Committee (consists of executive management members of the department)
GITO
Government Information Technology Officer (Cabinet Memorandum 38(a) of 2000)
Head of Department
It means the incumbent of a post mentioned in Column 2 of Schedule 1, 2, or 3 of the Public Service Act, 1994, and includes any employee acting in such position.
Head of ICT
Refers tothepersonheadingtheICT component/office and could be the GlTO depending on the naming convention used in the department
ICT ICT initiative
Information and communication technology Includes all ICT information systems and related
information technology used to enable business/services. An ICT initiative refers to using information and application systems and technology to achieve business objectives to enable service delivery. In terms of planning, this refers to related existing and planned initiatives. This generic term relates to: · Bespoke and off-the-shelf information and application systems; and Technology infrastructure to host and provide an electronic communication platform. The management of initiatives addresses all the
IEC Institutionalisation
elements of the full lifecycle of ICT. International Electrotechnical Commission Embed corporate governance of ICT as a custom or
ISO
norm within the department or culture International Organization for Standardization
ISO/IEC 38500:2015
An international standard for corporate governance of
IT published jointly by ISO and the IEC
IT
Information technology
IT Service Management
A set of policies and practices for implementing, delivering, and managing IT services for end-users in
+
+
TERM
DEFINITION
a way that meets the stated needs of end-users and the stated goals of the business (IBM, 2020)
Key driver
A key driver is an activity in the performance value chain of the department. Within the context of the implementation of the corporate governance of the ICT system, key drivers are those leading factors or processes that affect the downstream activities or conditions. It provides for metrics to monitor implementation progress and
King IV
Report on Corporate Governance for South Africa, 2016
MPSA
Minister of Public Service and Administration
MTEF
Medium-Term Expenditure Framework
PFMA
Public Finance Management Act, 1999 (Act No. 1 of 1999)
Policy Framework
This Public Service Corporate Governance of ICT Policy Framework (CGlCTPF)
Regime
A set of rules or a system or an ordered way of doing things that regulate the operation or way of doing things within the department
Responsible
Refers to the person who must ensure that activities are completed successfully
A diagram that identifies users' key roles and responsibilities against major tasks within a project (Software Advice, 2020)
Risk appetite
The amount of residual risk that the department is willing to accept (PSRMF 2010:15)
Risk management
A systematic and formalised process to identify, assess, manage and monitor risks (PSRMF 2010:16)
+
+# 1. PURPOSE
+
+The purpose of this Policy Framework is to institutionalise the corporate governance of ICT as an integral part of the corporate governance practices within departments in a uniform and coordinated manner.
+
+Corporate governance of ICT will create value for the department, e.g., improved service delivery, better use of limited resources, and improved performance and quality. It will also provide for performance measurement of ICT as a strategic enabler of the department business, thus driving their respective digital transformation strategies.
+
+The Policy Framework directs the strategic leadership of the department to take responsibility for the corporate governance of ICT and provide leadership for the use of ICT to support the achievement of the strategic objectives and goals of the department.
+
+# 2. SCOPE
+
+This Policy Framework for the corporate governance of ICT is applicable to all departments in the public service, as defined in section 197(1) of the Constitution of the Republic of South Africa, 1996, and section 7 of the Public Service Act, 1994 (Proclamation No. 103 of 1994), namely:
+
+National departments;
+Provincial departments;
+National government components; and Provincial government components.
+
+# 3. REGULATORY FRAMEWORK
+
+All the relevant acts and prescripts that regulate the strategic planning and corporate governance of the department are applicable to the ICT environment, such as:
+
+Constitution of the Republic of South Africa, 1996, section 197(1); Promotion of Access to Information Act, 2000 (Act No. 2 of 2000); Protection of Personal Information Act, 2013 (Act No. 4 of 2013). Public Administration Management Act, 2014 (Act No. 11 of 2014), section 14; Public Finance Management Act, 1999 (Act No. 1 of 1999); Public Service Act, 1994 (Proclamation No. 103 of 1994); Public Service Regulations, 2016; and • Any other legislation applicable to the department.
+
+# 4. APPLICABILITY
+
+As departments differ in purpose, function, complexity, and size (culture, goals, risks, compliance requirements, etc.), there is no one-size-fits-all solution. This Policy Framework recognises this diversity. It is thus not possible to produce a blueprint of an enabling environment applicable to all departments.
+
+This Policy Framework provides explanatory principles, practices, and the governance system to support and sustain effective departmental arrangements for using ICT in the public service.
+
+# 5. BACKGROUND
+
+In February 2013, the Minister of Public Service and Administration (MPSA), through Cabinet (Cabinet Memorandum No. 41 of 2012, dated 21 November 2012), issued the Public Service Corporate Governance of ICT Policy Framework and the related Corporate Governance of Information ICT Implementation Guideline and Corporate Governance of ICT Assessment Standard ("the Assessment Standard").
+
+Since 2013, the introduction of the Policy Framework has improved awareness in the public service of the need for improved governance of ICT, as shown in several periodic assessment findings from the Department of Planning, Monitoring and Evaluation's (DPME’s) Management Performance Assessment Tool (MPAT). This area's maturity levels (adoption and adaption) remain varied across the public service, as confirmed by the AGSA audit outcomes. For example, the recent 2020/21 financial year AGSA audit outcome still highlighted that $63\%$ of auditees had weak IT governance practices, demonstrating a lack of accountability and oversight by those charged with overseeing IT performance and risk management.
+
+Considering the above situation, combined with the compliance-focused approach of the 2012 approved Policy Framework, the need for a revised version became urgent and apparent.
+
+# 6. INTRODUCTION
+
+ICT has evolved and brings about new opportunities for the public service to expedite service delivery, reach citizens promptly, and promote two-way online communication between government and service beneficiaries. Furthermore, it provides public service senior management with the ability to make informed decisions based on easily accessible and reliable information.
+
+To derive the expected value from the ICT investments, departments should strengthen ICT prescripts, ICT plans, ICT-enabled projects, and institutional arrangements. Therefore, executive management needs to incorporate ICT governance into existing corporate governance arrangements to oversee the performance of ICT.
+
+The objectives of this Policy Framework are to instil:
+
+(a) Executive management involvement and leadership in the governance of ICT within departments to create value and improve performance;
+(b) Transparency, accountability, and efficiency in matters related to the management of ICT; and
+(c) Enhanced level of ICT compliance and performance at a departmental level and in the public service.
+
+# 8. BENEFITS OF CORPORATE GOVERNANCE OF ICT
+
+When the corporate governance of ICT is effectively implemented and maintained, the following benefits, among other things, are to be realised:
+
+(a) Deriving business value from ICT investment;
+(b) Using, which includes sharing of departmental resources (including but not limited to people, process, information and communication technology) when investing in, operating and using ICT;
+(c) Mitigating ICT-related business risks of investing, owning, operating, and using ICT within a secure environment;
+(d) Improving ICT's ability to learn and the agility to adapt to changing circumstances; and
+(e) Improving ICT monitoring, evaluation, auditing, and reporting.
+
+# 9. CORPORATE GOVERNANCE OF ICT IN THE PUBLIC SERVICE
+
+# 9.1 Corporate governance
+
+King IV defines corporate governance as the exercise of ethical and effective leadership by the governing body towards the achievements of the following governance outcomes:
+
+Ethical culture; Good performance; Effective control; and Legitimacy (IODSA, 2016).
+
+When applied in the public service, corporate governance encompasses the mechanisms by which departments and those in leadership are held to account, the risk is monitored and assessed, and performance is optimised.
+
+It provides an appropriate control environment that enables strategic leadership and management to discharge their responsibilities and oversee compliance with legislation and prescripts.
+
+# 9.2 Corporate governance of ICT
+
+Corporate Governance of ICT involves evaluating and directing ICT use to support the organisation and monitoring this use to achieve plans (ISO/IEC 38500:2015).
+
+Corporate governance of ICT is a subset of the department's corporate governance system (also called departmental arrangements) and consists of principles and practices within a system that enables strategic leadership to execute their oversight roles and responsibilities.
+
+King IV code, Principle 12 states: “The governing body should manage technology and information in a way that supports the organisation in setting and achieving its strategic objectives” (IoDSA, 2016).
+
+COBIT 2019 resonates with the King Code’s provisions. It highlights that the boards must exercise oversight to “enable both business and IT people to execute their responsibilities in support of business/IT alignment and the creation of business value from I&T-enabled business investments” (ISACA, 2018).
+
+Because information is a critical asset in any organisation, its management, including the associated technological channels, requires the attention of decision-makers to ensure that information assets are utilised for the intended purposes. Therefore, decision-makers need to have appropriate governance oversight over technology that produces information and information itself. In view of departments' dependency on ICT for their successful existence and that ICT must be governed from the highest level of authority, corporate governance of ICT must be an integral part of the corporate governance system of departments. This approach will enable strategic leadership to execute their accountability and strategic leadership roles and responsibilities.
+
+The corporate governance of ICT is implemented within the accountability structure of the department, as discussed in Section 11 of this Policy Framework.
+
+# 10. LAYERED APPROACH TO CORPORATE GOVERNANCE OF ICT
+
+Corporate governance of ICT encompasses two levels of decision-making, i.e., governance and management. There must be a clear distinction between these two layers, namely:
+
+Corporate governance of ICT: the Executive Management Committee (EXCO) is accountable for achieving the department’s mandate and strategic objectives through, among other things, the use of ICT. The accountability for corporate governance of ICT must be facilitated through clearly defined, implemented, and audited controls.
+
+Management of ICT: the responsibilities and activities of ICT management and corporate governance of ICT differ.
+
+ICT management entails a process whereby all operational activities concerning ICT resources are aligned to the department’s priorities and needs. It includes tangible resources like networking hardware, computers, and people and intangible resources like software and data. The central aim of ICT management is to generate value through technology.
+
+The ICT function is responsible for managing ICT processes that will ensure the effective and efficient execution and monitoring of ICT.
+
+# 11. ACCOUNTABILITY STRUCTURE FOR CORPORATE GOVERNANCE OF ICT
+
+Irrespective of the type of department, be it a national or provincial department, the corporate governance of ICT accountability structure provides for the roles and responsibilities of the different levels of corporate governance.
+
+# 11.1 Governance structures
+
+# 11.1.1 EXCO
+
+The structure that has the highest level of accountability for the governance and performance of a department must provide monitoring and oversight to ensure that the use of ICT supports the achievement of the department’s strategic objectives.
+
+This governance structure must ensure that corporate governance of ICT is included in the corporate governance regime of the department and that the necessary governance structures, policies, and processes are in place, monitored, and enforced.
+
+In addition to other EXCO roles and responsibilities, this structure Evaluate, Direct and Monitor the effectiveness of the departmental ICT governance system, including but not limited to:
+
+Approve CGICT Policy, ICT plan (MTEF), ICT operational plan, and other related plans and policies;
+Provide strategic direction to ICT by outlining the departmental strategic plan; Monitor that the ICT plan supports the department to deliver on its objectives per the strategic plan; Monitor and evaluate the performance of the ICT governance structures and processes; Approve portfolio of ICT projects and their related expenditure; and
+Oversee the implementation of the CGICT Policy Framework and associated policies and strategies.
+
+# 11.1.2 ICT steering committee
+
+Responsible for ensuring that departmental arrangements for the corporate governance of ICT are developed, implemented, managed, monitored, and evaluated. Furthermore, the ICT steering committee is responsible for creating an environment that improves the financial and performance management of ICT and managing ICT risks within the risk appetite of the department.
+
+The ICT steering committee is responsible for:
+
+Providing oversight on the management and use of ICT in the department;
+Providing strategic leadership towards the digitalization of the department, including ICT projects and services; Monitoring the joint ICT planning and resourcing of the ICT programme across the department; Monitoring the implementation of approved plans, policies, strategies; Monitoring that ICT related business risks are mitigated, benefits realization from the ICT investments (portfolio of ICT projects), and audit issues from assurance providers; and Providing recommendations and reporting to EXCO on pertinent ICT issues, including ICT strategies and plans.
+
+# The ICT steering committee must operate as a project steering committee where
+
+no separate committee exists.
+
+# 11.2 Roles and Responsibilities
+
+# 11.2.1 Head of Department
+
+Provides strategic leadership to ensure efficient and effective use of ICT within the department as contemplated in regulation 30 of the Public Service Regulations, 2016. The Head of Department is responsible for creating an environment that helps improve the department's financial and performance management. The Head of Department is the designated governance champion accountable for the corporate governance of ICT and is responsible for the establishment of corporate governance of the ICT system and monitoring of its performance. The corporate governance champion responsibility may be delegated to a person on a senior management level with the authority to establish and monitor the corporate governance of the ICT system across the different business units.
+
+However, accountability for the performance of the corporate governance of the ICT system shall remain with the governance champion.
+
+It is recommended that the responsibilities of the governance champion include the following:
+
+(a) Overseeing that the corporate governance of ICT system, as a subset of Corporate Governance, is developed, implemented, maintained, reported on, and change management effected; and
+(b) Being actively involved in the oversight of the formal corporate governance system of the department.
+
+The governance champion must be supported by a cross-functional team that must include business and ICT.
+
+# 11.2.2 Head of ICT
+
+Responsible for aligning the use of ICT, as a strategic resource, with the business requirements in fulfilling its strategic mandate within a secure information environment. Other responsibilities include:
+
+Overseeing and directing the day-to-day activities of the departmental ICT
+
+department, ensuring that systems, services, and infrastructure work reliably and securely, and
+Participation in developing the digital transformation strategy focusing on the department's optimization and transformation of ICT.
+
+The Head of ICT must manage the ICT function through a defined IT Service Management policy.
+
+The Head of ICT must attend EXCO meetings. In these meetings, the Head of ICT must identify and implement possible solutions for ICT use to achieve the department's objectives.
+
+Although this Policy Framework does not address the management of ICT aspects in detail, the Head of ICT will be responsible for providing a regular executive summary to the ICT steering committee and EXCO on the following key general IT controls:
+
+Information security management;
+User access management;
+ICT service continuity;
+Management of external service providers ( $3^{\mathsf{r d}}$ parties); and Configuration management (IT assets lifecycle management).
+
+In addition, the Head of ICT is responsible for reporting to EXCO on key ICT operational matters that potentially impact the achievement of departmental objectives through the implementation of ICT-enabled projects.
+
+# 12. POLICY FRAMEWORK FOR CORPORATE GOVERNANCE OF ICT IN THE PUBLIC SERVICE
+
+This Policy Framework provides for the following:
+
+1. Principles are rules (compulsory to comply with) that guide decision-making and behaviour. These principles establish the context for effective, efficient, and acceptable use of ICT. The principles guiding corporate governance of ICT in the public service are given in Section 13 of this Policy Framework.
+
+2. Practices are specific actions that prescribe how and by whom the principles will be implemented. The practices that are in support of the principles are given in Section 13 of this Policy Framework.
+
+3. A system is a set of means and mechanisms that enable the implementation of corporate governance of ICT. In this system, executive and strategic leadership are primary to sustained corporate governance of ICT. The system explains how the ICT effort of a department is governed through the governance tasks of evaluating, directing, and monitoring. The system to implement corporate governance of ICT is discussed in Section 14 of this Policy Framework.
+
+The principles and practices are implemented within an accountability structure in the department, as discussed in the following section.
+
+# 13. PRINCIPLES AND PRACTICES
+
+This Policy Framework is based on priorities stated in the National Development Plan 2030, the Public Service Act, 1994, the Public Service Regulations, 2016, and the Public Administration Management Act, 2014. It is underpinned by concepts, such as principles, practices, and a system, from the King IV Code of Governance for South Africa (2016) and the International Organization for Standardization's ISO/IEC 38500:2015.
+
+Table 1 below contains the principles that are compulsory to comply with and explains the practices that should be adapted and adopted to suit the unique context and ecosystem of the department.
+
+# Table 1: Corporate governance of ICT principles and practices
+
+
Principle 1: Strategic mandate ICT (current and future capabilities) must enable the department to achieve its strategic mandate and objectives.
Practices:
As contemplated in regulation 93 of the Public Service Regulations (PSR), 2016, the head of department shall ensure that the acquisition management, and use of
+
+information and communication technologies by the department enhances direct or indirect service delivery to the public, including but not limited to equal access by the public to services delivered by the department. The PSR further provides for the head of department to ensure that such acquisition, management, and use of information and communication technologies improve the department's productivity. In terms of governance of ICT, this shall include:
+
+1.1 Ensuring that corporate governance of ICT is included in the strategic leadership and oversight responsibility of the department to achieve the strategic objectives of the department;
+1.2 Providing strategic structural requirements of the ICT function to provide adequate capacity and capability for the use of ICT to enable business; and
+1.3 Ensuring that ICT planning methodology and instruments are aligned with the business requirements.
+
+# Principle 2: Institutionalisation of corporate governance of ICT
+
+Corporate governance of ICT must be institutionalised within the corporate governance regime of the department.
+
+# Practices:
+
+2.1 Ensuring that corporate governance of ICT is embedded in the corporate governance regime of the department; and
+2.2 Providing oversight to ensure that effective ICT prescripts, structures, strategic plans, and corporate governance of the ICT system (see Section 14) are institutionalised to evaluate, direct, and monitor ICT use.
+
+# Principle 3: Value and benefit realisation from ICT investment
+
+All ICT investments must achieve the predetermined value and benefits.
+
+# Practices:
+
+As contemplated in section 38(a)(iii)(b) of the Public Financial Management Act (PFMA), 1999, the accounting officer must ensure that the department has and maintains an appropriate procurement and provision system which is fair, equitable, transparent, competitive and cost-effective. The PFMA further provides for the accounting officer to ensure that the department has and maintains effective, efficient, economical, and transparent use of the department's resources. In terms of governance of ICT, this shall include:
+
+3.1 Ensuring that responsible ICT investment practices are in place to promote good governance and the creation of value and benefits;
+3.2 Determining upfront the expected benefits and value from an ICT investment;
+3.3 Oversee the value and benefits delivered through these major ICT investments and significant ICT operational expenditure;
+3.4 Concurrence of the Head of ICT in all ICT related decisions, including procurement; and
+3.5 Ensuring that an executive manager responsible for the ICT initiative/project signs off, confirming value realization as per the figure below.
+
+
+
+# Principle 4: Manage ICT-related business risks
+
+The ICT-related business risks, including security and cybersecurity, must be managed (mitigated and audited regularly).
+
+# Practices:
+
+As contemplated in section 38(a)(i) of the PFMA, the accounting officer must ensure that the department has and maintains effective, efficient, and transparent financial and risk management and internal control systems. In terms of governance of ICT, this shall include:
+
+
4.1 Ensuring that ICT related business risks (including cybersecurity) are addressed as part of the risk and audit regime of the department; and 4.2 Overseeing that financial and other risks of major ICT investments are managed.
Principle 5: Change management/departmental behaviour Corporate governance of ICT must be implemented through appropriate change management interventions.
Practices:
5.1 Setting the example to adopt and influence culture change within the department (lead by example); 5.2 Direct and oversee that culture change of departmental behaviour is effected through change management; and 5.3 Support and be early adopters of change initiatives.
+
+
Principle 6: Monitoring and evaluation (This principle cuts across all the other
Monitor and evaluate the use and performance of ICT. Practices:
+
+implemented, monitored, and evaluated to ensure the governance mechanisms remain functional and effective;
+6.2 Overseeing compliance with regulatory prescripts, policies, and standards that have an impact on the performance of ICT; and
+6.3 Overseeing performance against targets and objectives (benefits realisation, alignment with business goals, risk management, and resource optimisation).
+
+# 14. CORPORATE GOVERNANCE OF ICT SYSTEM
+
+This Policy Framework will be institutionalised through corporate governance of the ICT system, which explains the relationship between governance, strategic leadership, and management and their associated responsibilities.
+
+The corporate governance of the ICT system is the system by which the current and future use of ICT resources is directed and controlled to facilitate the achievement of the department’s strategic objectives. It refers to all the means and mechanisms that enable the department’s EXCO, Head of Department, and ICT steering committee to provide direction and oversight.
+
+The system mentions the corporate governance tasks of evaluating, directing, and monitoring used to apply the principles and practices, as explained in Section 13. The functioning of the corporate governance of the ICT system is depicted in Figure 1 below.
+
+
+Figure 1: Corporate governance of the ICT system
+
+(Adapted from ISO/IEC 38500: 2015(a))
+
+At the core of the corporate governance of the ICT system are leadership, structures, prescripts, and procedures to evaluate, direct and monitor the efficient and effective use of ICT to achieve the strategic mandate and objectives of the department, appropriate management of risks and responsible use of resources. It includes determining the alignment between business requirements and ICT plans;
+
+Through these governance tasks, stakeholder needs and options are evaluated to determine the departmental objectives. Direction is provided through prioritisation of proposals/options, and decision-making and monitoring are done by measuring performance and compliance against agreed-on direction and objectives;
+
+EXCO, which is accountable, provides the strategic direction of the department. The strategic direction and the external and internal context determine the strategic objectives. The management of business execution is done through the organisational structure and use of the relevant resources;
+
+The different accountability structures must monitor, evaluate and report on the execution of these initiatives to ensure that the desired outcomes are achieved within the prescriptive and a secure environment; and All the ICT-related initiatives, such as regulatory prescripts, standards, and transversal initiatives, which impact ICT performance, must be reviewed regularly.
+
+# 15. IMPLEMENTATION OF A CORPORATE GOVERNANCE OF THE ICT SYSTEM
+
+Corporate governance of the ICT environment is established by developing and implementing means and mechanisms such as strategies, structures, policies, frameworks, procedures, plans, controls, change management, and ethical culture. (A minimum enabling environment must be created through these means and mechanisms.) Departments must adopt the Policy Framework and adapt it to suit their unique context and ecosystem and explain how their system sustains the principles and practices.
+
+• The principles (rules) must specify the preferred behaviour that will guide decision-making.
+• The practices (actions) must explain how and by whom these principles will be implemented within the department.
+• The system (means and mechanisms) must enable the department’s EXCO, Head of Department, and ICT steering committee to provide direction and oversight
+
+The departmental corporate governance of ICT arrangements must show:
+
+(a) The scope and regulatory requirements applicable to corporate governance of ICT as applied to the specific department;
+(b) The departmental interpretation of how the corporate governance of ICT objectives will be applied;
+(c) How the ICT strategic objectives will be aligned with departmental strategic objectives, monitored, and reported on to the relevant stakeholders to create value through the use of ICT;
+(d) The departmental interpretation of how the principles and practices will be applied;
+(e) How the system of corporate governance of ICT will be implemented within the department; and
+(f) How the departmental corporate governance of ICT will be maintained.
+
+Departments must clearly indicate their related structures and procedures and the accountability and responsibilities that are allocated to each. This responsibility assignment can be reflected in a responsibility, accountability, consultation, and information (RACI) chart.
+
+Existing structures can be used to perform these functions.
+
+# 15.1 Business enabling policies, frameworks, and plans
+
+To enable the performance of ICT, specific business-related policies and/or frameworks are required, e.g.:
+
+(a) Departmental corporate governance of ICT policy – departments must develop departmental corporate governance of ICT policy in line with a DPSA policy template. This policy must provide explanatory principles, practices, and corporate governance of the ICT system to support and sustain effective departmental arrangements for ICT use within the department.
+
+(b) Information security policy – departments must develop an information security policy, which is an overarching policy, including cybersecurity, and related sub-policies such as:
+
+access management;
+incident management;
+problem management; and
+change management (including patch management).
+
+These ICT security prescripts must indicate how the department will manage the protection of electronic information, related systems, and infrastructure.
+
+ICT service continuity plan – departments must develop an ICT continuity plan aligned with and informed by the departmental business continuity plan, which is the responsibility of Enterprise Risk Management.
+
+(d) ICT project management framework – departments must adopt and develop a project management framework to manage ICT initiatives. ICT projects should be embedded in the departmental portfolio, programme, or project management structures to ensure ICT project oversight.
+
+At a minimum, the Framework must address the following deliverables:
+
+Project Governance (roles and responsibilities);
+Project Conceptualisation;
+Project Prioritization;
+Project Initiation;
+Project Planning;
+Project Execution;
+Project monitoring and control;
+Quality Management; and Risk Management.
+
+All investments for the business enabling ICT projects and ICT operational projects exceeding R10 million rands or projects cutting across government must have an approved business case.
+
+(e) ICT end-user policy (acceptable use) – departments must develop a policy to ensure proper use of departmental ICT assets. The policy must apply to any ICT asset the department has or may install in the future, including but not limited to email, Internet, mobile data cards, and desktop computing.
+
+(f) IT service management policy – departments must develop a policy defining the implementation and management of quality ICT services that meet the business needs. This policy must serve as the ICT function commitment to serve the business.
+
+At a minimum, the policy must address the IT Service Lifecycle Management, highlighting the following aspects:
+
+Service Level Management (service catalog, service requests, and turnaround times or service targets);
+Availability management (availability plan);
+Demand management (capacity versus demand);
+ICT financial management (costs, charges, and budget);
+Supplier Management (management of external service providers); and
+Configuration management (IT assets lifecycle management).
+
+# 16. ICT ALIGNMENT PLANNING
+
+Departments must use ICT as a strategic resource to create value by enabling its strategic mandate and objectives. To achieve this, departments should plan over the long, medium, and short term for ICT to enable the business and create value for the department.
+
+ICT planning must follow the relevant planning prescripts, methodology, and planning periods. This planning practice culminates in the following plans:
+
+(a) Departmental strategic plan – departments must indicate how ICT will be used to support the achievement of the departmental targets and objectives as contemplated in regulation 25 of the Public Service Regulations, 2016.
+
+(b) ICT plan (three-year plan) – departments must develop and maintain an ICT plan aligned to the medium-term expenditure framework for the department. This plan must address the people, processes, and technology matters to achieve departmental objectives as contemplated in regulations 25 and 38 of the Public Service Regulations, 2016.
+
+(c) ICT operational plan (one-year plan) – departments must develop and maintain an ICT operational plan that reflects the current year's implementation and monitoring of ICT initiatives and projects.
+
+# 17. MONITORING AND EVALUATION
+
+The implementation of the Policy Framework is measured through the Assessment Standard and/or other related standards.
+
+(a) The Assessment Standard will measure the compliance with the Policy Framework and the performance of the ICT function to enable the achievement of business objectives and value creation for the department. The Assessment Standard includes a balanced scorecard with guiding criteria to assess the compliance and performance of ICT.
+(b) This Assessment Standard will provide departments with self-assessment criteria to measure ICT compliance and performance.
+(c) The Assessment Standard will also be used by the Department of Public Service and Administration (DPSA) to measure performance and compliance with the corporate governance of ICT standards.
+
+# 18. GOVERNMENT-WIDE ICT PROJECT GOVERNANCE MECHANISM
+
+The AGSA data shows that the individual departmental intervention plans to address the recurring AGSA findings on Information Systems audits are not yielding the expected results. As a result, the government urgently requires a government-wide ICT project governance mechanism to provide quality assurance on significant ICT projects impacting several departments. This mechanism will ensure that no largescale project is managed on a standalone basis and provides oversight on significant investment projects. The details of this mechanism will be dealt with separately.
+
+# 19. NON-COMPLIANCE
+
+Failure to comply with this Policy Framework will be dealt with in line with the provisions of the Public Service Act, 1994, sections 16A and 16B.
+
+# 20. CONCLUSION
+
+Implementing this Policy Framework promotes efficient and effective ICT governance for the departments to achieve their strategic objectives through the governing tasks of evaluating, directing, and monitoring.
+
+Departments must apply corporate governance of ICT by adopting the principles and practices put forward in this Policy Framework (comply with) and adapting their governance system to align with their departmental context (explain) while keeping the intent of this Policy Framework intact.
+
+The Assessment Standard will be based on a balanced scorecard for implementing corporate governance of ICT for both compliance measurement and performance measurement levels.
+
+This Policy Framework must be institutionalised through corporate governance of the ICT system, which guides the relationship between governance and management and their associated responsibilities.
+
+This Policy Framework serves as the foundation for the corporate governance of ICT in the public service. Changes or enhancements to this policy will be dealt with through directives and determinations addressing specific subjects
+
+21. REFERENCES
+(1) Auditor-General of South Africa. (2019). 2018-19 PFMA Consolidated general report on national and provincial audit outcomes. Pretoria: Office of the AuditorGeneral of South Africa.
+(2) Department of Finance. (2010a). Public Sector Risk Management Framework. Published 1 April 2010. Pretoria: National Treasury.
+(3) Department of Public Service and Administration. (2000a). Cabinet Memorandum 38a of 2000. Pretoria: Department of Public Service and Administration.
+(4) Department of Public Service and Administration. (2006). Batho Pele Handbook. Pretoria: Department of Public Service and Administration.
+(5) Department of Public Service and Administration. (2012). Public Service Corporate Governance of Information and Communication Technology Policy Framework. Cabinet Memorandum 41 of 2012. Pretoria (Gauteng): Department of Public Service and Administration.
+(6) Department of Public Service and Administration. (2014a). Public Administration Management Act, 2014 (Act No. 11 of 2014). Cape Town: Government Printing Works.
+(7) IBM. (2020). IT Service Management (ITSM). IBM Cloud Education Retrieved from https://www.ibm.com/za-en/cloud/learn/it-service-management [Accessed 24 November 2021].
+(8) Information Regulator of South Africa (2000). Promotion of Access to Information Act, 2000 (Act No. 2 of 2000). https://www.justice.gov.za/inforeg/docs.html [Accessed 17 December 2020]
+(9) Information Regulator of South Africa (2013). Protection of Personal Information Act, 2013 (Act No. 4 of 2013). https://www.justice.gov.za/inforeg/docs.html [Accessed 17 December 2020]
+(10) Institute of Directors in Southern Africa. (2016). King IV Report on Corporate Governance for South Africa 2016. Johannesburg: Institute of Directors in Southern Africa.
+(11) International Organization for Standardization. (2014). ISO/IEC TR 38502 Information Technology - Corporate Governance of ICT - Framework and model. Geneva (Switzerland): ISO.
+(12) International Organization for Standardization. (2015a). ISO/IEC 38500 Information technology - Governance of IT for the organization. 2nd ed. Geneva (Switzerland).
+(13) International Organization for Standardization. (2015b). ISO/IEC TS 38501 Information technology - Governance of IT - Implementation Guide. 1st ed. Geneva: ISO.
+(14) International Standards Organization. (2014). ISO/IEC TR 38502 Information Technology - Corporate Governance of IT – Framework and model. 1st ed. Switzerland.
+(15) ISACA (2018). COBIT 2019 Implementation Guide – Implementing and Optimizing Information and Technology Governance Solution. Retrieved from https://www.isaca.org/COBIT/Pages/COBIT-2019-Implementation-Guide.aspx. [Accessed 19 April 2019].
+(16) Kaplan, R.S. and Norton, D.P. (1996). Linking the Balanced Scorecard to Strategy. California Management Review. Volume 39, No. 1. Available at http://www.strategyinstitute.co.za/PDF/bsc.pdf. [Accessed 19 March 2018].
+(17) National Treasury. (2010b). Framework for Strategic Plans and Annual Performance Plan. August 2010. Pretoria: National Treasury.
+(18) Software Advice. (2020). What Is a RACI Chart? Here’s Everything You Need To Know. Retrieved from https://www.softwareadvice.com/resources/what-is-a-racichart/. . [Accessed 24 November 2021].
+(19) The National Computing Centre. (2005). IT Governance Developing a successful governance strategy. A Best Practice guide for decision-makers in IT. www.ncc.co.uk.
+(20) The Presidency. (2005). Intergovernmental Relations Framework Act, 2005 (Act No. 13 of 2005). 15 August 2005. The Presidency. Cape Town: Government Printing Works.
+(21) The Presidency. (2007). Policy Framework for the Government-wide Monitoring and Evaluation System. November 2007. Pretoria: The Presidency.
+
+# ANNEXURE B
+
+# PROJECT MANAGEMENT GUIDELINE
+
+Version 2
+
+CONTENT
+
+1. INTRODUCTION
+2. PURPOSE
+3. ICT PORTFOLIO MANAGEMENT METHODOLOGY .. 3.1 ICT Portfolio Management .. 3.2 ICT Programme Management ..... 2 3.3 ICT Project Management ..... ... 2
+4. ICT PROJECT GOVERNANCE . 2 4.1 Business Owners..... .. 2 4.2 Project Sponsor... 3 4.3 Project Steering Committee .. 3 4.4 Project Management Team . 4 4.5 Project Manager(s) .. 4
+5. PROJECT PRIORITIZATION . 4
+6. PROJECT PLANNING 5
+7. PROJECT MANAGEMENT LIFECYCLE . 6 7.1 Project Initiation .. 6 7.2 Project Planning... . 6 7.3 Project Execution Management........ 6 7.4 Project Closure.........
+
+# 1. INTRODUCTION
+
+This Annexure provides more detail on the Corporate Governance of ICT (CGICT) on ICT portfolio, programme and project management methodology.
+
+The prioritization and planning of ICT projects are to execute ICT Medium-Term Expenditure as determined by the ICT plan (three-year plan), linked to the ICT annual operational planning (ICT operational plan).
+
+# 2. PURPOSE
+
+This Public Service Corporate Governance of ICT Project Management Guideline (herein called Project Management Guideline) guides departments in planning and executing their ICT projects.
+
+# 3. ICT PORTFOLIO MANAGEMENT METHODOLOGY
+
+ICT Portfolio management is defined as applying systematic management to ICT components' investments, projects and activities.
+
+The portfolio of ICT programmes and related projects are informed by the initiatives depicted in the ICT plan (three-year plan). From the ICT plan (three-year plan), ICT initiatives translate into projects implemented in the current year as part of the ICT operational plan. However, the portfolio and its related programmes and projects can be planned over a more extended period in the case of multi-year projects as informed by the ICT plan (three-year plan) roadmap.
+
+# 3.1 ICT Portfolio Management
+
+Portfolio Management is a collection of ICT projects or programs grouped to facilitate effective work management to meet strategic objectives. It should be embedded in the departmental Portfolio/Programme/Project management structures. It must include how the department will create the necessary capacity to manage ICT-related business programmes/projects/initiatives.
+
+A portfolio is a group of ICT projects under a coordinated management structure in the ICT context.
+
+Managing several projects in a portfolio is a mechanism to increase the effectiveness of the entire department. It provides a holistic view of all ICT projects. These projects are prioritized, and limited ICT resources are channelled to initiatives and projects that will provide maximum value to the department.
+
+There must be a continuous alignment of progress (projects and programmes) with the department's strategic direction. This alignment means that the department has to balance the relationships of a project to programme, project-to-project, programmeto-programme and projects/programmes to the business.
+
+# 3.2 ICT Programme Management
+
+Programme management is the process of managing a group of related ICT projects under a coordinated management structure to improve the department's performance.
+
+# 3.3 ICT Project Management
+
+ICT Projects should be managed in line with an established project management methodology.
+
+# 4. ICT PROJECT GOVERNANCE
+
+Each project will be governed in line with its requirements. The business owner will determine the governance mechanisms. It should address the following:
+
+Project governance structure:
+
+The following roles must be clearly defined:
+
+Business Owner; Project Sponsor;
+Project Steering Committee; Project Management Team
+Project Champion (business project manager); and
+Where applicable, ICT Project Manager.
+
+# 4.1 Business Owners
+
+The business owners function on an executive leadership level. They carry the authority to structure the business to execute its mandate. They are responsible for providing strategic direction to their responsibility area, directing work effort in line with the business strategy, delegating responsibility for execution of the mandate account for the business's performance, and resolving cross-functional area problems.
+
+They are responsible to:
+
+(a) Provide leadership for the ICT enablement of the business; (b) Consider all areas of the business and its implication in the formulation of the project;
+
+(c) Accept or approve the project plans; and (d) Monitor and provide oversight for the execution of the project.
+
+# 4.2 Project Sponsor
+
+The person who champions the cause throughout the project. It will generally be a senior member of staff within a relevant area of responsibility that will be affected by the project's outcome. They are involved from the start of the project, including defining the project in conjunction with the Project Manager(s). Once the project has been launched, they should ensure that it is actively reviewed to ensure the project's desired outcome and deviations are appropriately managed.
+
+The Project Sponsor is responsible to:
+
+(a) Act as a champion of the project;
+(b) Account for the delivery of planned benefits associated with the project;
+(c) Ensure resolution of issues escalated by the Project Manager or the Project steering committee;
+(d) Sponsor the communications programme; communicates the programme's goals to the department as a whole;
+(e) Make key departmental decisions for the project;
+(f) Assure availability of essential project resources;
+(g) Approve the budget and decides on tolerances;
+(h) Lead the Project steering committee; and
+(i) Be an ultimate authority and responsibility for the project.
+
+# 4.3 Project Steering Committee
+
+A project steering committee should be established and usually is composed of executive and senior management responsible for overseeing the project's progress and reacting to any strategic problems.
+
+The project steering committee will be responsible for the overall progress monitoring, high-level risk and high-level change management of the project, such as:
+
+(a) Setting the tone for cooperation between all relevant parties;
+(b) Representing stakeholders that do not directly sit on the steering committee;
+(c) Ensuring equality in decision-making;
+(d) Acting as the ultimate decision-maker in handling executive, legal, organizational, technical, cost, management, cultural and personnel issues;
+(e) Developing a project charter formalizing these roles and responsibilities;
+(f) Managing project scope;
+(g) Championing business process improvement; (h) Obtaining support and agreement from stakeholders; (i) Resolving obstacles; and
+(j) Communicating to the stakeholders.
+
+# 4.4 Project Management Team
+
+The project management team is responsible for the day-to-day running of the project. The frequency of project progress meetings will be determined according to the project circumstances.
+
+The frequency and type of project communication with the stakeholders will be determined according to the project's needs.
+
+# 4.5 Project Manager(s)
+
+In conjunction with the Project Sponsor, the Project Manager is responsible for developing a definition of the project. The Project Manager then ensures that the project is delivered on time, to budget and within the required quality standard (within agreed specifications).
+
+The Project Manager is responsible, among other things, for project planning, scope management, resources, budget, financial management, risk management, contingency planning, escalation of problems, identifying and tracking of milestones, project review, effective communication, stakeholder management and reporting on project status, key project decisions, team management, project delivery, testing, signoff and finally project closure.
+
+The Project Manager is also responsible for managing the work of consultants, allocating and efficiently utilizing resources and maintaining a cooperative, motivated and successful team.
+
+In the case of business enabling projects, it is recommended that both the business and the ICT function appoint project managers to the project. From the business perspective, this project manager will drive the business adoption of the project. From the ICT perspective, the project manager will drive the technology adoption of the project.
+
+# 5. PROJECT PRIORITIZATION
+
+During developing a portfolio of ICT projects, the prioritization of projects is informed by the initiatives approved in the ICT plan (three-year plan) reflecting budget priorities.
+
+However, as many departments have learned, the planned budget may not align with the actual budget. Therefore the portfolio of projects should be revised annually to consider budget reprioritization.
+
+This revision should be considered in the light of the following:
+
+Strategic Alignment: Initiative priorities are reflected in the approved ICT plan (three-year plan) aligned with the department's strategic plan.
+Value delivery: optimizing expenses, proving the value in line with the available budget derived from the project investment, and when the value will be achieved.
+• Risk management: Identification of the key project risks and related tolerances. Safeguarding ICT assets and providing for disaster recovery and continuity of operations.
+• Project selection management: Determine the impact of all the projects on each other. Identify under-performing projects and take necessary actions. If necessitated, terminate a project. Determine the department's capability and capacity to deliver and absorb all this change.
+
+# 6. PROJECT PLANNING
+
+The planning of ICT projects must be informed by the initiatives approved in the ICT plan (three-year plan).
+
+There must be an approved:
+
+(a) Business Case for each initiative, addressing issues such as the: scope, how it links to the strategic objectives of the department (business drivers), timelines, financial metrics, human resource requirements, benefits, value management practices (e.g. increased productivity, improved service delivery, investment management and cost-effectiveness).
+
+Other considerations are ICT security implications, risks and how the risks will be mitigated, interoperability, digital inclusion, the economy of scale and elimination of duplication.
+
+The Business Case serves as motivation for the project's approval, monitoring, and evaluation.
+
+# A guideline for the development of a Business Case is provided in Annexure C.
+
+(b) Project Plan for each initiative, organizing and managing resources so that these resources deliver all the work required to complete a project within defined scope, quality, time and cost constraints.
+
+The project plan should address the charter, scope and specifications, schedule, budgeting and cost management, quality criteria, human resource management, communications, risk, and procurement management.
+
+The success of ICT projects is linked to a proper project planning model throughout the project lifecycle. As a result, an example of key aspects to consider from project initiation to closure is explained below.
+
+# 7.1 Project Initiation
+
+The ICT plan (three-year plan) must direct the identification, planning and initiation of an ICT project and be motivated by an approved business case.
+
+# 7.2 Project Planning
+
+The project plan should reflect the following:
+
+(a) Project Charter, which formally authorizes the project and defines the proj resource structure, roles and responsibilities of the different stakeholders and ro players;
+(b) Scope of the project;
+(c) Start date of the project;
+Areas included in the scope of the project;
+(e) Areas specifically excluded from the scope of the project;
+(f) Critical success factors;
+(g) Assumptions on which the successful implementation of the project is based;
+(h) Objectives of the project;
+(i) Deliverables per objective;
+(j) Work breakdown structure per deliverable;
+(k) Milestones per work package or deliverable (depending on circumstances);
+(l) Timelines for milestones;
+(m) Conclusion date;
+(n) Allocation of responsibilities per human resource;
+(o) Constraints; and (p) Project risks.
+
+# 7.3 Project Execution Management
+
+The following structures manage the project execution:
+
+(a) The project steering committee is responsible for the following: (i) Planning and directing the implementation of the project; (ii) Oversee project progress and achievement of deliverables;
+
+(iii) High-level risk and change management; and (iv) Reporting of the progress of the project. ) The Project management team is responsible for the following: (i) Coordination of the implementation of the project; and (ii) Reporting to the project steering committee or ICT steering committee.
+
+# 7.4 Project Closure
+
+After the project, the project steering committee is responsible for the following:
+
+(a) Evaluate and report on the achievement of the objectives against the final Business Case;
+(b) Compile project close-out report; and
+(c) The business owner must sign off the project and confirm the realization of value and creation of benefits as defined in the Business Case.
+
+# ANNEXURE C
+
+# BUSINESS CASE GUIDELINES ANDTEMPLATE
+
+September 2022
+
+# Contents
+
+1. BACKGROUND 3
+2. INTRODUCTION .
+3. PURPOSE OF THE BUSINESS CASE
+4. EXAMPLE OF A BUSINESS CASE TEMPLATE 4
+4.1 Executive Summary ............ . 4
+4.2 Background ...... .... 4
+4.3 Strategic Alignment ... 4
+4.4 Promotes ICT plan (three-year plan) .. .. 4
+4.5 Business Case Criteria . .. 5
+4.6 Motivation ... . 5
+4.7 Situational Analysis . . 5
+4.7.1 Current Situation...... 5
+4.7.2 Future Situation ... 5
+4.7.3 Gap Analysis .. 6
+4.8 Alternatives Considered .. 6
+4.9 Resource requirement .. 6
+4.10 Critical Success Factors ....
+4.11 Stakeholders ........ 7
+4.12 Role Players ..... .. 7
+4.13 Business Benefits ... . 7
+4.13.1 Tangible Benefits .... . 7
+4.13.2 Intangible Benefits .. 7
+4.14 Risks . . 8
+4.15 Major Assumptions Made .. 8
+4.16 Decisions Required . 8
+5. CONCLUSION .. . 8
+6. APPENDICES . 8
+
+# 1. BACKGROUND
+
+The Corporate Governance of ICT (CGICT) Policy Framework requires that there must be an approved business case for projects exceeding R10 million rands or projects cutting across government. The business case's determinations will monitor and manage the benefits, value, opportunities, costs, and risks resulting from such expenditure throughout the investment/project lifecycle.
+
+This Public Service CGICT Business Case Guideline provides guidance for developing a business case as required in the Public Service Corporate Governance of ICT Policy Framework.
+
+# 2. INTRODUCTION
+
+A business case is an assessment of the viability of an initiative. It will describe the reasons for considering undertaking a programme or project based on how it links to the strategic objectives of the department (business drivers). It includes consideration for timelines, financial metrics, estimated project costs and savings costs, human resource requirements, expected business benefits, and value (e.g., increased productivity or improved service delivery).
+
+Other considerations are ICT security implications, risks and how the risks will be mitigated, interoperability, digital inclusion, the economy of scale, and elimination of duplication.
+
+The business case must provide the necessary criteria that will motivate the approval, monitoring, and evaluation of the ICT initiative.
+
+The business case must contain the focus areas applicable within the departmental circumstances. The minimum proposed focus areas should include details of the business owner (the initiative requestor), project sponsor, business drivers, stakeholders, role players, resource requirements, business benefits, and risk mitigation (including security).
+
+# 3. PURPOSE OF THE BUSINESS CASE
+
+The business case is used to obtain authorization to proceed with the project and serves as a vehicle to obtain funding and resources for the proposed ICT initiative.
+
+The document will be used and maintained throughout the programme or project lifecycle and reviewed by the relevant oversight authority at key decision points.
+
+This document also addresses business arguments, decision points, and major reasons for proceeding. Answering: What, Why, How Much and How Long and For Whom.
+
+# 4. EXAMPLE OF A BUSINESS CASE TEMPLATE
+
+Table 1 depicts details of the ICT initiative, such as the name of the ICT initiative, business unit, project manager, and project sponsor.
+
+Table 1: Details of the ICT initiative/project
+
+
+
ICT Initiative
:
Name (Programme/Project/Other)
Business Unit
:
Name of the business unit requesting the initiative
Name of the Business Owner
Business Owner
Contact Details
: Contact details of the Business Owner
Project Manager
: Project Manager
Name of the Project Sponsor
Project Sponsor
Contact Details
:
Contact details of the Project Sponsor
Version no:
Date:
E.g. Draft 1.1
dd/mm/yyyy
+
+# 4.1 Executive Summary
+
+Summarise the proposed ICT initiative. As the audience is executive management, the business case must be written in appropriate business language. Try to avoid the use of project or ICT terminology. Keep it brief.
+
+As the target audience might be very diverse, take cognizance of this diversity when constructing the business case. Your audience is very important.
+
+# 4.2 Background
+
+Provide short general background/history and a brief description of the current process and proposed business improvement.
+
+Describe the business environment and the primary drivers for the proposed change.
+
+# 4.3 Strategic Alignment
+
+Show how this ICT initiative is aligned with the department's strategic objectives.
+State what objectives the ICT initiative supports and how it supports those objectives.
+
+# 4.4 Promotes ICT plan (three-year plan)
+
+Show how this ICT initiative/project promotes the ICT plan (three-year plan).
+Indicate the required performance measures.
+
+# 4.5 Business Case Criteria
+
+The business case must indicate the set criteria for a business case to achieve the objectives, timelines, and elements. These criteria are as follows:
+
+Scope; Financial metrics; Human resources; Timelines; How it links to the strategic objectives of the department (business drivers); Value management practices (e.g., increased productivity, improved service delivery, investment management, and cost-effectiveness and benefits);
+Any ICT security implications, risks, and how the risks will be mitigated; Interoperability (seamless exchange of data and information access between the department's systems in line with Minimum Interoperability Standard (MIOS);
+Dependencies; Digital inclusion (provision of access to service beneficiaries located in areas where there is poor or no network coverage); The economies of scale; and Elimination of duplication.
+
+# 4.6 Motivation
+
+This section is the crux of the business case and should deal with motivations as to why the ICT initiative should be considered. Sufficient time for analysis should be directed at understanding and documenting the business challenge. Include any issues that have been identified as well as possible solutions for the problems.
+
+Describe how the business drivers support the strategic objectives of the department.
+Business drivers can be derived from the departmental Strategic Plan.
+
+A business driver is a business aspect that the solution is trying to address. E.g., the business unit or department may want to implement a system that will change some manual processes into automated ones. The business driver might be, e.g., improving the service delivery by being more efficient, improving productivity, faster processing time, or shorter queuing time.
+
+# 4.7 Situational Analysis
+
+# 4.7.1 Current Situation
+
+Describe the current situation and related issues.
+
+# 4.7.2 Future Situation
+
+Describe the proposed future requirement and any related issues that may occur.
+
+# 4.7.3 Gap Analysis
+
+Describe the gap between the current situation and future requirements – usually tabulated. See Table 2.
+
+Table 2: Situational Analysis
+
+
+
Current BASELINE
Future TO BE
Gap Analysis Impact of the gap and what has to be done to solve or close it.
1
2
3
4
+
+# 4.8 Alternatives Considered
+
+Thorough research for alternatives must be conducted. Identify and describe the alternative options considered to "close the gap" and address the criteria and critical success factors for implementing the proposed ICT initiative.
+
+Do not simply provide alternatives that will make a solution look good. Be as impartial as possible. Provide a minimum of three (3) viable, cost-effective options.
+
+Identify the alternative options. These proposed ICT initiatives must be benchmarked against the critical success factors and prioritized to determine which alternative will provide the best solution.
+
+# 4.9 Resource requirement
+
+The Human Resource requirement for each option also needs to be determined. Indicate what type of resources are required.
+
+Indicate the number of in-house and external resources and skills required for the ICT initiative.
+
+The required budget for each option also needs to be determined. See Appendix 1 of this document for an example of a business case budget.
+
+Table 3: Resource Requirement
+
+
+
Project
Budget 20_/_
Resources
+
+
Total
+
+# 4.10 Critical Success Factors
+
+Based on the alternatives, identify and describe the critical success factors of implementing the proposed ICT initiative. These factors are both for making the business a success and for the success of the implementation of the proposed ICT initiative.
+
+# 4.11 Stakeholders
+
+Identify all the stakeholders impacted and expected to benefit from the proposed ICT initiative. A stakeholder is an entity that will be affected by implementing the ICT initiative. They are groupings of people, e.g., business unit, business area, department, etc. It is suggested that a comprehensive analysis is done.
+
+# 4.12 Role Players
+
+Identify all key role players needed to ensure the proposed ICT initiative's successful development, implementation, and maintenance. The roles and responsibilities of the role players must be clearly defined.
+
+# 4.13 Business Benefits
+
+All ICT investments must achieve pre-determined value and benefits.
+
+Business enablement value criteria for each ICT initiative must be declared upfront to measure its success against pre-determined measurement criteria such as value measurement and technology life cycle.
+
+See Annexure A, the Public Service Corporate governance of ICT Planning Guideline, for measurement criteria examples.
+
+# 4.13.1 Tangible Benefits
+
+A list of the tangible benefits that will be achieved because of this choice, e.g., cost savings, less staff, etc., something that you will be able to see and measure clearly, must be measurable and quantifiable.
+
+# 4.13.2 Intangible Benefits
+
+A list of the intangible benefits that will be achieved because of this choice, e.g., ease of use, better quality, and those things that are difficult to measure.
+
+# 4.14 Risks
+
+The ICT-related business risks, including security and cybersecurity, must be mitigated for all ICT initiatives/projects. List any risks associated with the proposal, identify the risk, the probability, and impact, and illustrate how to mitigate the risk.
+
+See Appendix 2 of this document for an example of a Risk Log.
+
+# 4.15 Major Assumptions Made
+
+List all assumptions on which the success of the solution has been based. Should any of these assumptions change materially, they could jeopardize the solution.
+
+# 4.16 Decisions Required
+
+List any business decisions that will have to be made to pursue the chosen option.
+
+# 5. CONCLUSION
+
+The business case must promote accountability, transparency, and early warning signals for all proposed ICT initiatives. Developing a complete business case for each ICT initiative/project (considering the context and circumstances of each department) contributes toward investing in ICT initiatives/projects that provide measurable value to improve service delivery and increase productivity. Furthermore, it provides a common platform to make informed decisions based on factual variables.
+
+Therefore, investing time and effort in developing a business case alleviates unintended consequences of investing without sound justification. Suppose the business case is appropriately used as an ICT initiative monitoring and evaluation instrument, it will substantially reduce the risk of project failure.
+
+# 6. APPENDICES
+
+Appendix 1 - Business Case Budget Appendix 2 - Risk Log
+
+# Appendix 1 – Business Case Budget
+
+
Project
Quarter 1
Quarter 2
Quarter 3
Quarter 4
Total Year 1
Year 2 Year 3
Outside MTEF
Total
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9. TOTAL
+
+# Appendix 2 – Risk Log
+
+Risk Number A sequential number is allocated to the risk as it is identified
+Risk Title : Short title to identify the risk
+Category : Indicate the category of risk. For a comprehensive list of categories, refer to the Risk Management Strategy
+Probability : Graded from 1 to 3
+Impact Graded from 1 to 3
+Rating Multiply the Probability and Impact rating to give an overall rating for the risk and enable prioritization of risks
+Proximity Indicates if the risk affects the entire project or is relevant to a particular stage, characterized by date, e.g., Oct-Dec (this risk will most probably make an impact during October to December)
+Risk Description : Description of the cause and effect of an event
+Countermeasures : Describe the countermeasures to prevent, reduce, accept, transfer or put in place a contingency plan
+
+# Risk Quantification
+
+Risk needs to be quantified in two dimensions. The impact and probability of the risk occurring must be assessed. Rate each on a scale of 1 to 3.
+
+The larger the number, the larger the impact or probability.
+By using a matrix, a priority can be established.
+
+
+
+Note: If the probability is high and impact is low, it is a Medium risk. On the other hand, if the impact is high and the probability low, it is a High priority.
+
+
No
Risk Title
1
Risk Description
Category
Probability
Impact
Rating
Proximity
Counter Measures
1.1
1.2
1.3
\ No newline at end of file
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new file mode 100644
index 0000000000000000000000000000000000000000..434439102620f535d4e4aaeffd14d4f99ef75489
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@@ -0,0 +1,397 @@
+# MINIMUM INTEROPERABILITYSTANDARDS (MIOS)
+
+for Government Information Systems
+
+Revision 5.0
+
+November 2011
+
+# APPROVAL
+
+I, the undersigned –
+
+in terms of the Public Service Act (Act 38 of 1994 as amended by Act 30 of 2007) sections 3(1)(f) and 3(1)(g) regarding electronic government norms and standards and the Public Service Regulations 2001 (as amended 2001 to 2010) Chapter 5, Part I and Part III, and the State Information Technology Agency Act (Act 88 of 1998 as amended by Act 38 of 2002) sections 7(6)(a)(i) and 7(6)(b) regarding interoperability standards and certification; and
+
+after consultation with the Government Information Technology Officer’s Council (GITOC), hereby approves and issues the Minimum Interoperability Standard (MIOS) for Government Information Systems version 5.0; and
+
+that the MIOS v5.0 supersedes and replaces all previous versions thereof, and be effective and must be complied with in terms of Public Service Regulations Chapter 5, Part III as from the date of signature.
+
+Date
+
+# PUBLICATION ENQUIRIES
+
+The Minimum Interoperability Standards (MIOS) for Government Information Systems is developed by the State Information Technology Agency (SITA): Standards and Certification Unit in consultation with the Government Information Technology Officer Council (GITOC): Standing Committee on Architecture.
+
+Enquiries can be directed to:
+
+The Chief Executive Officer
+State Information Technology Agency (Pty) Ltd
+459 Tsitsa Street, Erasmuskloof
+PRETORIA, SOUTH AFRICA
+The Chairperson
+Government Information Technology Officer’s Council
+Department of Public Service and Administration
+Batho Pele House, 116 Proes Street
+PRETORIA, SOUTH AFRICA
+
+This document is also available on the SITA website (http://www.sita.co.za)
+
+# COPYRIGHT, TRADEMARKS AND INTELLECTUAL PROPERTY
+
+Some of the standards, acronyms and terms that are referenced in this publication are protected by copyright and/or intellectual property rights. The omission of the rightful copyright and/or intellectual property right owners’ information from this document is merely intended to simplify the structure of the document.
+
+This document, in part or in whole, may be freely used on condition that the source is quoted.
+
+1 OVERVIEW .. .6
+1.1 INTRODUCTION. 6
+1.2 MANDATE .. 8
+1.3 PURPOSE AND BENEFITS . . 8
+1.4 SCOPE.. .. 9
+1.4.1 Where does MIOS fit into the bigger picture? . .. 9
+1.4.2 What is included in MIOS?. . 9
+1.4.3 What is excluded from MIOS? . .. 10
+1.5 APPLICABILITY AND COMPLIANCE . .... 10
+1.5.1 To whom does MIOS apply? .. .... 10
+1.5.2 To what does MIOS apply? .. . 10
+1.5.3 Exemption from applicability.... .. 12
+2 MANAGEMENT PROCESSES .... ....13
+2.1 PRINCIPLES . . 13
+2.2 STANDARD SETTING... .... 13
+2.2.1 Standard Setting Responsibilities .. .. 13
+2.2.2 Standard setting process . . 15
+2.2.3 Standards Selection Principles... 17
+2.2.4 MIOS review frequency ..... ..... 17
+2.3 STANDARDS CERTIFICATION.. .... 18
+2.3.1 Standards Certification Responsibilities ........ .. 18
+2.3.2 Certification Process . ... 19
+3 MINIMUM INTEROPERABILITY STANDARDS (MIOS) .... .....21
+3.1 INTRODUCTION.. . 21
+3.2 STANDARDS DEVELOPMENT ORGANISATIONS .... ....... 21
+3.3 PUBLIC SECTOR AND COMMON DATA STANDARDS ... .... 23
+3.4 TECHNICAL INTEROPERABILITY STANDARDS. ... 27
+ANNEX A : ABBREVIATIONS . ..33
+ANNEX B : PARTICIPANTS . .34
+ANNEX C : DOCUMENT HISTORY . .....35
+
+# FIGURES
+
+Figure 1: Government ICT House of Value. . 6
+Figure 2: e-Government information exchange scenarios ... . 11
+Figure 2: Standards selection and setting process.. . 16
+Figure 3: MIOS Certification Process.. . 19
+Figure 5: GWEA: Technology Reference Model (TRM) . . 27
+
+# 1.1 INTRODUCTION
+
+(1) The South African Government, as represented by its National, Provincial and Local departments and associated agencies, is committed to the continuous improvement of public service delivery. Such commitment has become an underlying theme across all departments’ strategic and annual performance plans. Following on this commitment government ICT leaders have embarked on an e-Government programme in 2001, which aspires to achieve the effective, efficient and economic management and utilisation of Information and ICT Resources in government as illustrated in the Government ICT House of Value).
+
+
+Figure 1: Government ICT House of Value
+
+(2) The ICT House of Value serves as a reference to measure the performance of e-Government projects and systems, which includes interoperability1. The strategic drive to advance the maturity on interoperability not only compels government ICT leaders to collaborate on e-Government initiatives by sharing scarce resources, but it also provides a way for information to be exchanged electronically across traditional government system boundaries in order to improve public service delivery.
+
+(3) The ICT House of value, comprises a roof, pillars and foundation, each representing the following:
+
+(a) The outcomes (roof) of the e-Government programme on public sector operations are to:
+
+(i) Lower cost of government service delivery operations, by reducing time, complexity, repetition and duplication of tasks.
+(ii) Increased productivity of government operations, by improving the quality and quantity of traditional public sector outputs or introduce new processes to produce outputs and render services that were previously impossible.
+(iii) Citizen Convenience when interacting with government, by offering equal access to government information systems and services, provides more and better information, improves information service quality and privacy, provides remedies for failures and offers best value for money2.
+
+(b) The value (pillars) that the e-Government programme contributes to the public sector ICT environment is:
+
+(i) Security, by ensuring that information systems and related technologies operate in a maintained security environment.
+(ii) Interoperability, by ensuring that information systems and ICT infrastructure of government can interconnect and exchange information.
+(iii) Reduced duplication, by eliminating unnecessary duplications, by promoting sharing and consolidation of Information systems and ICT infrastructure across government.
+(iv) Economies of scale, by leveraging collective purchasing power of government to lower unit prices from industry.
+(v) Digital inclusion, by promoting the South African ICT industry, with a particular emphasis on Brٟoad Based Black Economic Empowerment (BBBEE), labour absorption, and stimulation of equitable economic growth and skills development of ICT in South Africa.
+
+(c) The capabilities (foundation) by which to achieve the outcomes and values of eGovernment are:
+
+(i) ICT planning, the capabilities that set direction and standards for ICT, Enterprise Architecture and to validate/certify conformance and performance thereto.
+(ii) ICT integration, the capabilities that provide and develop ICT Systems and Technology Infrastructure into integrated ICT solutions.
+(iii) ICT operations, the capabilities to ensure that ICT Systems and Technology Infrastructure are maintained in a reliable, available and secure environment.
+
+(4) The advancement of interoperability in Government is an ongoing process and should be managed as a long-term programme. It is therefore incumbent upon the members of the Government Information Technology Officers Council to promote the objectives of interoperability and to observe the principles and comply with the standards as set out in MIOS during the life-cycle management of IS/ICT in government. It is also essential that MIOS remains updated and that it aligns to stakeholder requirements, changes in legislative environment, so that government can embrace the potential of technological advancement in the market and address the archival issues inherent to the digital age.
+
+(5) The MIOS provides a set of mandatory standards that will ensure the achievement of the interoperability pillar in the ICT House of Value as illustrated in figure 1 above.
+
+# 1.2 MANDATE
+
+(1) Interoperability between Information Systems and Information-and-Communication Technology (IS/ICT) in government is mandated in accordance with the following legislation:
+
+(a) Public Service Act (Act 38 of 1994 as amended by Act 30 of 2007) mandates the Minister to establish norms and standards for Information Management in the Public Service and e-Government respectively;
+(b) Public Service Regulations 2001 (as amended 2001 to 2010) – (i) Obligates heads of departments to comply with the MIOS. (ii) Mandates the Minister to issue the MIOS. (iii) Mandates the GITO Council to review and recommend to the Minister any amendments to the MIOS.
+(c) State Information Technology Agency (SITA) Act (Act 88 of 1998 as amended by Act 38 of 2002) sections 7(6)(a)(i) and 7(6)(b) mandates SITA to set standards for interoperability between information systems in government and to certify information technology goods and services for compliance against such standards.
+(d) State Information Technology Agency General Regulation (R.50 of 2005) sections 4.2 and 4.3 prescribe the processes to set interoperability standards and to certify compliance of information systems thereto.
+(e) Public Finance Management Act (Act 1 of 1999 as amended by Act 29 of 1999) section 38(1)(b) and (d) holds an accounting officer responsible for the effective, efficient, economical and transparent use of the resources and to comply with audit commitments as required by legislation.
+
+# 1.3 PURPOSE AND BENEFITS
+
+(1) The purpose of the MIOS is to prescribe open system standards that will ensure minimum level of interoperability within and between IS/ICT systems that are utilised in government, industry, citizens and the international community in support of the e-Government objectives.
+
+(2) The benefits that MIOS provides to stakeholders are:
+
+(a) To government IS/ICT management communities, it provides a framework to ensure compliance with interoperability stipulations as set out in the SITA Act and Public Service Regulations respectively. It further underpins the collective value IS/ICT as a strategic resource of government that must be valued, shared and used to improve public service delivery.
+
+(b) To enterprise architects, solution architects, designers and implementers, it provides a basis for designing, using and implementing open standards based solutions to improve interoperability and reduce duplication across government IS/ICT.
+(c) To acquirers, it provides the minimum mandatory technical specifications that must form part of all bid documents.
+(d) To the Certification Authority, it serves as a baseline by which to verify and certify conformance of IS/ICT goods and services for use in government.
+(e) To SITA, it provides the technical standards that are required to function as the Prime Systems Integrator (PSI) for Government.
+(f) To ICT goods and service providers, it substantiates government’s strategic intent towards the adoption of and migration to open standards and that only MIOS compliant products be considered for integration into the Government Information Infrastructure.
+
+# 1.4 SCOPE
+
+1.4.1 Where does MIOS fit into the bigger picture?
+
+The MIOS is an integral part of the Government’s envisaged IS/ICT Governance Framework. It is also strongly related to, although not part of, the Government Wide Enterprise Architecture (GWEA) Framework (which sets the minimum standard for developing ICT Plans and Blueprints in government), because the MIOS prescribes the architecture model and notation standards needed to achieve interoperability among Enterprise Architecture tools and repositories, and the GWEA Framework, in turn, prescribes the adherence to MIOS during the development of ICT Plans and Blueprints in government.
+
+# 1.4.2 What is included in MIOS?
+
+The Minimum Interoperability Standard (MIOS) contains the following:
+
+(a) The management processes and responsibilities for – (i) the setting and approval of interoperability standards, and (ii) the certification of IS/ICT products and services for compliance with such standards; and
+(b) The set of interoperability standards regarding – (i) data format standards to enable exchange of data between government information systems (IS), and
+
+(ii) technical standards to interconnect, interoperate, access and exchange data among components of government Information and Communication Technology (ICT) infrastructure.
+
+# 1.4.3 What is excluded from MIOS?
+
+The MIOS does not prescribe any standards relating to business processes of IS/ICT services, except for the processes to set the standard and to certify compliance with such standards. The IS/ICT business process and service standards, such as ICT Governance practice standards, Enterprise Architecture practice standards, Information System Security practice standards, Quality Management practice standards, System Development Life Cycle (SDLC) practice standard, Project Management practice standard and ICT Service Management standards form part of the prevailing and evolving Government IS/ICT Governance Framework as referenced in par (1.4.1) above.
+
+# 1.5 APPLICABILITY AND COMPLIANCE
+
+# 1.5.1 To whom does MIOS apply?
+
+The MIOS is normative – it is prescriptive and compliance is mandatory – to heads of National and Provincial departments and associated agencies/entities as listed in the Schedules to the Public Service Act, and it is informative – it is descriptive and compliance is not mandatory – to heads of Local Government.
+
+# 1.5.2 To what does MIOS apply?
+
+(1) According to the Public Service Regulation, Chapter 5 (e-Government), Part III, C – “C.1 The following systems shall comply with the MIOS:
+
+(a) every part of any new information system developed or acquired for the public service or any upgrade of any existing information system in the public service; and
+(b) every legacy system that is part of electronic service delivery in the public service.
+
+C.2 A head of department shall include compliance with the MIOS in the project approval procedure for the department. The MIOS shall be used in the audit and review of every project of a department.”
+
+(2) In context of e-Government, MIOS is applicable for compliance to all e-Government systems through their life-cycle of existence, where:
+
+(a) e-Government system means “any information system in the public service” and the interoperability of e-Government systems (as illustrated in Figure 2: e-Government information exchange scenarios), is described as –
+
+(i) Government to Government (G2G) information system – any government information system that interconnects and exchanges information with another government information system (including any two information systems within a department).
+(ii) Government to Business (G2B) information system – any government information system that interconnects and exchanges information with a commercial or non-governmental business entity; and
+(iii) Government to Citizen (G2C) system – any government information system that interconnects and exchanges information with a citizen or community.
+
+
+Figure 2: e-Government information exchange scenarios
+
+(b) The life-cycle stages and conditions when MIOS is applicable, are for –
+
+(i) A new e-Government system that is either under development or in acquisition;
+(ii) An e-Government system that is upgraded in functionality to enable new business processes or that is upgraded in terms of its technology infrastructure (i.e. same business processes and functionality, but new technology infrastructure)
+(iii) An existing (legacy) e-Government system in operation.
+
+# 1.5.3 Exemption from applicability
+
+(1) A department or agency may apply to the Minister to be exempted from complying with MIOS.
+
+(2) The MIOS is recommended for, and will not be subjected to compliance certification, for information systems that are –
+
+(a) Specific to the unique operational requirements of a Department or Agency, provided that such a system is not an e-Government system; or
+(b) Governed by strict international health or safety standards; or
+(c) Embedded systems or closed systems (such as electro-mechanical systems, closed surveillance systems and real-time monitoring systems) that does not interoperate or exchange data with another system.
+
+# 2.1 PRINCIPLES
+
+In addition to the legislation on IS/ICT in government, the following principles regarding MIOS serve as a basis for decision-making:
+
+(a) Approval of funding for the acquisition (including the development) of new or the modification of existing IS/ICT products or systems are dependant on the IS/ICT product or system being compliant with MIOS.
+(b) In terms of the Public Finance Management Act (PFMA) it is the responsibility of the accounting officer of a department or agency to ensure that IS/ICT projects and system comply with MIOS and that such compliance is subject to be audited/verified by the Auditor-general.
+(c) When interconnectivity, data interoperability or information access is required between departments’ or agencies’ systems, the cost of rectifying a system that does not comply with MIOS rests with the owner of the non-compliant product or system.
+
+# 2.2 STANDARD SETTING
+
+# 2.2.1 Standard Setting Responsibilities
+
+(1) The responsibilities and process for setting interoperability standards are governed in terms of the following legislation –
+
+(a) Public Service Act states:
+
+“3. (1) The Minister [of Public Service and Administration] is responsible for
+establishing norms and standards relating to – … (f) information management in the public service; (g) electronic government;”
+
+(b) Public Service Regulations, Chapter 5, Part III, states:
+
+“B. MINIMUM INTEROPERABILITY STANDARDS
+
+B.1 The Minister shall, after consultation with the Government Information Technology Officer Council (herein referred to as the “GITO Council”), issue Minimum Interoperability Standards (herein referred to as the “MIOS”) ...
+
+D. REVIEW OF MIOS
+
+For the purpose of recommending to the Minister new standards or the amendment or repeal of existing standards, the GITO Council shall from time to time review the MIOS.”
+
+(c) SITA Act, states: “7(6) The Agency – (a) must set standards regarding – (i) the interoperability of information systems subject to the approval of the Minister; (b) must certify every acquisition of any information technology goods o services by a department for compliance with those standards.”
+
+(d) SITA General Regulations, states:
+
+“4.2 SETTING OF STANDARDS
+
+4.2.1 Before setting or amending standards regarding the interoperability of information systems between departments … in terms of section 7(6)(a) of the Act, the Agency must -
+
+(a) consult with departments and the GITO Council in order to assess the status of implemented systems and the proposed requirements;
+
+(b) conduct an implementation impact analysis and develop a business case demonstrating the cost-effectiveness of such standards; and
+
+(c) give due consideration to all representations received from departments and the GITO Council before submitting proposed standards, or an amendment thereof, to the Minister … for approval … .
+
+4.2.2 The Agency must set the standards, contemplated in section 7(6)(a) of the [SITA] Act, not later than a date determined by the Minister.”
+
+4.2.3 The standards set in terms of section 7(6)(a) of the [SITA] Act must be made available to all heads of departments and on the Agency's web site.”
+
+(2) Following above legislation, the stakeholders and their respective responsibilities regarding the setting of interoperability standards are –
+
+
No
Stakeholder
Role and Responsibilities
1
Minister of Public Service and Administration (MPSA)
The standards promulgation authority to - a) Approve and issue the MlOs for implementation.
2
State Information Technology Agency (SITA)
The standards setting authority to - a) Consult with and consider inputs from departments and GlTO Council and keep abreast of standards development in the ICT industry. b) Conduct implementation impact analysis of changes to MIOS. c) Select and set the standards in MIOS. d) Manage the development, configuration and dissemination of the MIOS. e) Submit MlOS to GITOC for recommendation to
+
+
No
Stakeholder
Role and Responsibilities
Minister.
3
GITO Council
The standards recommending authority to - a) Initiate the review of the MIOS. b) Give direction to the working group in 4 below and monitor amendments to MlOS.
4
GITO Council Standing Committee on Architecture (SCARC)
c) Recommend the MlOS to the Minister for approval. The standards working group, delegated by the GITO Council, to - a) Promote the advancement of interoperability. b) Collaborate, improve and resolve technical issues on MIOS improvement. c) Assess the risk and impact of changes to the MlOS on e-Government systems.
+
+# 2.2.2 Standard setting process
+
+(1) The task of advancing interoperability between information systems across the public sector is a complex and on-going process. The interoperability standards, as contained in MIOS, must support and enhance Government’s business processes, and also ensure that new technological advances and innovations are leveraged to their full advantage.
+
+(2) The process to review and set interoperability standards is inclusive. Therefore, all stakeholders, including Government Departments and their agencies, industry and the users are all encouraged to participate in improving interoperability, and to provide support on the implementation of the MIOS.
+
+(3) The process to review and set interoperability standards for inclusion in MIOS is a consultative decision-making process that comprises a few steps involving a rule based filtration of interoperability standards as illustrated in Figure 3: Standards selection and setting process, and described as follows –
+
+
+Figure 3: Standards selection and setting process
+
+(a) Step1: Compile a list of standards for consideration – referred to as the “White List”. The White List is an unbounded (unscreened) list of new or revised interoperability standards that are suggested by all stakeholders to be considered by the standards setting task team for inclusion into MIOS. This list is compiled by means of the following activities –
+
+(i) Watch or keep abreast of standards development in the ICT market that involves periodic research into national and international standards development organisations and exploring the developments of other governments’ e-Government and interoperability programmes.
+(ii) Consult with and solicit inputs from government stakeholders and interoperability champions.
+(iii) Assess the effectiveness and relevance of the interoperability standards that are contained in the existing MIOS to identify standards that are not contributing (anymore) to the advancement of interoperability in government.
+
+(b) Step 2: Filter the “White List” using the standards selection principles (as contained in section 2.2.3 below) and produce a list of candidate standards – referred to as the “Grey List”. The standards setting task team considers each standard in the White List and test it for conformance with the standard selection principles –
+
+(i) A conformant standard is placed in the “Grey List”, which will be considered, subject to a further evaluation, for inclusion into MIOS.
+(ii) A non-conformant standard is discarded, and will not be considered for further evaluation.
+
+(c) Step 3: Assess the value and risks of standards in the “Grey List” and produce a list of recommended standards that will be added to or supersede existing standards in the MIOS – referred to as the “Green List”. The standards setting task team considers each standard in the Grey List and perform a benefit-risk impact assessment – (i) A standard that passes the benefit-risk impact assessment is placed on the “Green List” and will be added to or supersede existing standards in the MIOS. (ii) A standard that fails the benefit-risk impact assessment will be discarded and flagged as deprecated. A deprecated standard does not contribute to the advancement of interoperability in government anymore or it will introduce an unacceptable high risk to the public service delivery.
+
+# 2.2.3 Standards Selection Principles
+
+The following principles shall apply during the selection of interoperability standards for inclusion or amendment to the MIOS:
+
+(a) Interoperability: The standard is designed to advance interconnectedness and data exchange within and between e-Government systems.
+(b) Openness: the specifications for the standards is open, which is characterised by: (i) The standard should be maintained by a non-commercial organization. (ii) The standard developmentٟand decision-making processes are inclusive and open to all interested parties. (iii) The standards development outputs, including documents, drafts and completed standards, are accessible to anyone at no cost or at a negligible fee. (iv) The intellectual rights required to implement the standard (e.g. essential patent claims) are irrevocably available, without any royalties attached. (v) The standard must not favour or provide exclusive rights to a particular vendor or product brand.
+
+(c) Industry support: the standard is widely supported by the industry, and is likely to reduce the cost of and the risk inherent to e-Government systems.
+
+# 2.2.4 MIOS review frequency
+
+(1) The MIOS should be reviewed and updated on a bi-annual basis (once every two years), unless determined otherwise by the Minister. This review will be known as a major version update. (Note: The latest approved version of MIOS will remain in effect until it is superseded)
+(2) Due to the rapid advancement of technology and associated proliferation of standards, it may be necessary to review parts of the MIOS from time to time to incorporate such advancements and changes of IS/ICT in government and industry. This review will be known as the minor version update.
+
+# 2.3 STANDARDS CERTIFICATION
+
+# 2.3.1 Standards Certification Responsibilities
+
+(1) Standards Certification is a process that verifies whether an e-Government system complies with the standards that are contained in MIOS. The responsibility to certify that e-Government systems comply with the MIOS are governed in terms of the following legislation:
+
+(a) Public Service Regulations, Chapter 5, Part III, C states: “C.2 A head of department shall include compliance with the MIOS in the project approval procedure for the department. The MIOS shall be used in the audit and review of every project of a department.”
+(b) SITA Act, states: “7(6) The Agency … (b) must certify every acquisition of any information technology goods or services by a department for compliance with those standards.”
+(c) SITA General Regulations, states: “4.3 CERTIFICATION OF INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY GOODS AND SERVICES 4.3.1 The Agency must, …, conduct standard certification in respect of all information technology goods or services, which were acquired by departments before the commencement of these Regulations. … 4.3.3 The Agency must conduct standard certification of information technology goods or services – (a) acquired … by a department from the Agency; … and (b) procured … by a department through the Agency …”
+
+(2) From the above legislation, the stakeholders and their respective responsibilities regarding standards certification are as follows:
+
+
No
Stakeholder
Role and Responsibilities
1
Head of Department
The Accounting officer, who must ensure and account/report that all e-Government systems (assets) under his/her control comply with the MIOS.
2
SITA
The Certification Authority, who must certify that all e-Government systems - in acquisition and in operation - comply with MlOS.
3
Supplier / ICT Industry
Supplier, Provider and/or Integrator of e-Government systems, who must provide evidence that the e-Government system comply with MIOS.
+
+# 2.3.2 Certification Process
+
+(1) All e-Government systems must comply with MIOS. The certification management process implements the necessary controls into the existing Supply Chain Management, Solution Development and Solution Integration processes in order to meet the legislative requirement on interoperability.
+
+(2) The certification controls are illustrated in Figure 4: MIOS Certification Process and is described in the following table: (Note: The illustration is not intended to describe the requirements management, supply chain, solution development or solution integration processes of government.)
+
+
+Figure 4: MIOS Certification Process
+
+
No
Step
Responsibility and Activities
1
Define Requirement
Government (customer) defines the requirement for the acquisition or renewal of an e-Government System, which include the functional and technical requirements; and submit same to SITA Certification.
2
Verify MlOS criteria is part of requirement
SITA Certification verifies that the requirement (i.e. technical specification) includes the relevant MlOs Conformance Criteria as part of the Mandatory Technical Specifications in the Bid Document. This will inform prospective bidders/suppliers that their product on offer will be subject to MIOs Certification.
+
+
No Step
Responsibility and Activities
Note: Any conflicting technical specification (between the customer specification and the MlOS criteria) will be resolved before the request for bid documentation is published to
3
Prepare Offer
prospective suppliers. The prospective suppliers of ICT products prepare their offers and are obliged to indicate conformance of their product(s)
4
Certify Offer as MIOS Conformant
to the MIOS criteria. SITA Certification evaluates and verifies that the specifications of the product as offered by suppliers are conformant to the MlOS criteria, and issue a “MiOs Offer
5
Approve Supply of Product(s)
Certificate of Conformance" based on the offer. The customer verifies that the offer(s) meets his/her requirements and that it conforms to MlOS, and approves that the supply of the product(s) may proceed.
6a
Supply Product(s)
The supplier supplies the product(s) and declares with evidence that the actual product(s) conform to MlOs criteria.
6b
Initiate Certification of Installed Product(s)
SITA Certification may also on behalf of a department initiate a process or project to certify that legacy (installed) e-Government systems conform to MIOS.
7
Certify product(s) as MIOS conformant
SITA Certification unit evaluates and tests the actual installed product(s) - new or legacy product(s)- based on hard evidence by the supplier or interoperability test results or both and issues a "MlOs Product Certificate of
8
Account for MIOS compliance
Conformance". (A Certificate is issued per product) The Customer reports to the designated executive authority and give account to the Auditor General that his/her department comply with MlOs as legislated.
+
+# 3 MINIMUM INTEROPERABILITY STANDARDS (MIOS)
+
+# 3.1 INTRODUCTION
+
+(1) This section of the MIOS defines the minimum set of open standards that are necessary to achieve the minimum level of interoperability across e-Government systems, and cites the standards development organisations from where these standards can be obtained.
+
+(2) The list of interoperability standards is divided into two sections: (a) Public Sector Records and Data Standards, which must be used to achieve interoperability (data exchange) among e-Government information systems (IS); and (b) Technical Interoperability Standards, which must be used to achieve the required level of interoperability (i.e. network connectivity, data exchange protocols and interfaces, and uniform data access and presentation) across government ICT infrastructure.
+
+The following convention is used in the respective standards tables:
+
+“Ref” $\mathbf{\tau}=\mathbf{\tau}$ Unique MIOS Reference Number of the standard.
+“Provider” means the Standards Development Organisation (SDO) who is either the owner or custodian of the interoperability standard as the case may be.
+Text in square brackets $[]$ denotes the Standard Reference Number as allocated by the SDO.
+Text in braces / curly brackets {} denotes a guideline or constraint on the implementation of the standard.
+
+# 3.2 STANDARDS DEVELOPMENT ORGANISATIONS
+
+The following Standards Development Organisations (SDOs) are cited in the MIOS. SDOs marked with an asterisk $(^{*})$ indicate that the standards are available from their respective web sites (Uniform Resource Locators (URL)).
+
+
SDO
Description
Uniform Resource Locator (URL)
ADL *
Advanced Distributed Learning
http://www.adlnet.gov
ANSI
American National Standards Institute
http://www.ansi.org
DHA DSD
Department of Home Affiars (South Africa) Department of Social Development (South Africa)
http://www.dha.gov.za
http://www.dsd.gov.za
+
+
SDO
Description
Uniform Resource Locator (URL)
ECMA
Ecma International - European association for standardizing information and communication systems (formerly known
http://www.ecma-international.org
ETSI
as "European Computer Manufacturers Association") European Telecommunications Standard
http://www.etsi.org
NIST
Institute National Institute of Standards and Technology [USA]: Federal Information
http://www.itl.nist.gov/fipspubs
IEEE
Processing Standards Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers
http://www.ieee.org
IETF *
Internet Engineering Task Force
http://www.ietf.org
IJS
Integrated Justice System
http://www.ijs.gov.za
ISO
International Organisation for Standardization
http://www.iso.org
ITU
International Telecommunication Union
http://www.itu.int
OAI *
Open Archives Initiative
http://www.openarchives.org
OASIS *
Organization for the Advancement of Structured Information Standards
http://www.oasis-open.org
OCLC
Online Computer Library Center
http://www.oclc.org
OGC *
Open Geospatial Consortium
http://www.opengeospatial.org
OMA
Open Mobile Alliance
http://www.openmobilealliance.org
OMG *
Object Management Group?
http://www.omg.org
PKWARE
PKWARE? Inc, open standard for compressed file format, ZIP)
http://www.pkware.com
SABS
South African Bureau of Standards (SDO for http://www.sabs.co.za South African National Standards (SANS))
SITA *
State Information Technology Agency
http://www.sita.co.za http://www.ifms.gov.za
W3C *
World Wide Web Consortium
http://www.w3c.org
WHO *
World Health Organisation
http://www.who.int
+
+# 3.3 PUBLIC SECTOR SPECIFIC AND COMMON DATA STANDARDS
+
+
Ref
Component
Interoperability Standard and Identifier
Provider
D-1
Governance and Administration data standards
D-1.1
Administration Records
Integrated Finance Management System (IFMS) Canonical Information Model (CIM): Financial Management, Supply Chain Management and Human Resource Management. {IFMS CIM is under development and is intended to supersede all existing Financial, Supply Chain and Human Resource data interchange standards for the Public Service; and it is not applicable to legacy
SITA (IFMS)
D-2
systems} Identification and Citizen Status data standards
DHA
D-2.1
Citizen Status Record
Citizen Status Record Definition (as per National Population Register (NPR)) {NPR contains information of South African citizens, permanent residents and refugees who is identified by a unique Identity (ID) Number, Birth, Death, Marriage status, emigration or immigration status, passports and identity documents information.}
D-2.2
Biometric Data Element Specification
[SANS 19785-1]: Information Technology - Common Biometric Exchange Formats Framework - Part 1: Data Element specification
SABS
D-2.3
Biometric Data Interchange
[SANS 19794]: Information Technology Biometric data interchange formats - Part 1: Framework, Part 2: Finger minutiae data, Part 3: Finger pattern spectral, Part 4: Finger image data, Part 5: Face image data,
SABS
D-3
and Part 7: Signature/sign behaviour. Health data standards
D-3.1
Disease codes
International Statistical Classification of Diseases and Related Health Problems, 10th Revision (ICD-10)
WHO
+
+
Ref
Component
Interoperability Standard and Identifier
Provider
D-3.2
Health lmage records
Digital lmaging and Communications in Medicine (DICOM), [ISO/IEC 12052]
ISO
D-4 D-4.1
Social data standards
Child Protection Records
Child Protection Register data schema (Part A and B: Core Data schema and Data schema to support Integrated Justice System (IJS)) Child In Need of Care and Protection data schema Child Adoption Data schema Child Abduction Data schema Child Trafficked Data schema
DSD
D-4.2
Non-Profit Organisation Records Child In Conflict With
Non-Profit Organisation Register Data schema
DSD
D-4.3
The Law Records
Child Youth Care Data schema Secure Care Detention Facility Management (IAS) Data schema Child Justice Forms: Data schema
DSD
D-5
Justice data standards
D-5.1
Criminal Justice records v1.3.0
South African Justice XML (SAJXML) Schema {The SAJxML schema is under development
IJS
D-6
and is subject to change.} Education and Learning data standards
D-6.1
Learner Unit Records
Learner Unit Record Information Tracking System (LURITS), Data Interchange
SITA
D-6.2
e-Learning/ Learning Management System
standard, Version 1.3, March 2010 Sharable Content Object Reference Model (SCORM ) v1.2, Oct 2001
ADL
D-7
Geographic and Location data standards
D-7.1
Cadastre and Addressing
Geographic Information - Address Standard, Part 1: Data format of addresses [SANS 1883-1]
SABS
D-7.2
Geospatial data
Geospatial Markup Language (GML) [ISO/IEC 19136:2007]
OGC and ISO
D-8
Common Data standards
D-8.1
Hypertext Markup Language
Hypertext Markup Language (HTML) v4.01
W3C
+
+
Ref
Component
Interoperability Standard and Identifier
Provider
eXtensible Hypertext Markup Language (XHTML) v1.0 (Second Edition) {Government information systems will be designed so that as much information as possible can be accessed and manipulated from common commercial browsers through utilisation of functionality that is freely supported and available within the browser community. Refer also to MIOS T-
D-8.2
Wireless Hypertext Markup Language
5.13 Web Content Accessibility Guideline} Wireless Application Protocol (WAP) v2.0
OMA
D-8.3
Extensible Markup Language Syntax
Extensible Markup Language (XML) Version 1.0 (Fifth Edition) {Avoid the use of any product specific XML extensions that are not being considered for open standardisation within the W3C.}
W3C
D-8.4
Extensible Markup Language Schema
XML Schema Part 1: Structures Second Edition; and XML Schema Part 2: Data types Second Edition; OR REgular LAnguage for XML Next
W3C OASIS/ISO
D-8.5
Character set
Generation (RelaxNG), [ISO/IEC 19757] Transformation Format - 8 bit UTF-8/ASCll Formatted Text [RFC 3629] UNICODE [ISO/IEC 10646-1:2000]
IETF ISO
D-8.6
e-Mail message format
Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions, MIME [RFC 2045, 2046, 2047, 2048 and 2077] Open Document Format (ODF) v1.0
IETF SABS
D-8.7
Office Document formats
[SANS 26300) Comma-Separated Values (CSV) [RFC4180] {for use in word-processing, spreadsheet, and presentation office suites}
IETF
D-8.8
Portable Document Format
Document management - Portable document format - Part 1: PDF 1.7 [SANS 32000-1]
SABS
+
+
Ref
Component
Interoperability Standard and Identifier
Provider
{for use in publishing and distributing read- only, preformatted forms and non-editable portable documents}
D-8.9
Graphical/still image file format
Joint Photographic Experts Group (JPEG) [ISO/IEC 10918-1:1994 Digital compression and coding of continuous- tone still images] Portable Network Graphics (PNG) [ISO/IEC 15948:2004] Tagged Image File Format (TlFF) v6 {TIFF should only be used for images that does not tolerate information loss}
ISO ISO Adobe
D-8.10
Multimedia audio/visual format
Moving Picture Experts Group 1 (MPEG-1), including MPEG-1 Audio Layer III (MP3), [ISO/IEC 11172] Moving Picture Expert Group 2 (MPEG-2), [SANS 13818] MPEG-4 Part 10, Advanced Video Coding
ISO SABS ISO
D-8.11
Compressed file format
/ H.264 (ISO/IEC 14496-10) Tape Archive (tar) [POSIX.1-2001] using GNU zip (gzip)[RFC1951 and RFC1952] or bzip2 ZIP [APPNOTE.TXT - .ZIP File Format Specification Version: 6.3.2 (2007)]
POSIX IETF PKWARE
+
+# 3.4 TECHNICAL INTEROPERABILITY STANDARDS
+
+(1) The Technical Interoperability Standards are grouped in accordance with the Government Wide Enterprise Architecture Framework: Technology Reference Model as illustrated in Figure 5: GWEA: Technology Reference Model (TRM)
+
+
+
+Figure 5: GWEA: Technology Reference Model (TRM)
+
+
+
Ref
Component
Interoperability Standard
SDO
T-1
Communications Infrastructure
T-1.1
LAN/WAN interworking
Internet Protocol (IP) Version 4[RFC 791]; and Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) [RFC 793, RFC 4614]; and User Datagram Protocol (UDP) [RFC 768]. {Government organisations are to interconnect using TCP/IP v4, and noting that RSA Government is
{The openURL is designed to enable the transfer of the metadata from the information service to a service component that can provide context- sensitive services for the transferred metadata}
{For use in general-purpose directory user access}
T-4.3
Internet domain naming
Domain Name System (DNS) [RFC 1032 to RFC1035 and related updates] {Projects are to follow the South African
IETF
T-4.4
Web service
Government Domain Naming policy. Domain Name Services (DNS) must be used for Internet and Intranet IP address name resolution.} Simple Object Access Protocol SOAP v1.2 (Second
W3C
T-4.5
access Web service
Edition) Universal Description, Discovery and Integration
OASIS
T-4.6
registry Web service
UDDI v3.0 Web Service Description Language (WSDL) v2.0
W3C
T-5
description Application Delivery Services and Information Access
T-5.1
Web transport Hypertext Transfer Protocol, HTTP v1.1 [RFC 2616]
IETF/W3C
T-5.2
Web forms
Xforms v1.1 (2009)
W3C
T-5.3
Browser scripting
JavaScript [ECMA 262]
ECMA
T-5.4
e-Mail transport
Simple Mail Transfer Protocol SMTP [RFC 2821,
IETF
T-5.5
e-Mail access
RFC 2822] 1 Internet Message Access Protocol v4 Rel 1, IMAP v4.1 [RFC 3501] or
IETF
T-5.6
Internet File transfer
Post Office Protocol version 3, POP3 [RFC 1939] ■ File Transfer Protocol (FTP), [RFC 959, RFC 1579, RFC 2428] Secure copy (SCP) [OpenBSD reference implementation]
IETF
T-5.7
XML Data
{Restart and recovery functionality of FTP are to be used when transferring very large files} Extensible Stylesheet Language (XSL) v1.1 W3C
T-5.8
transformation XML Data query
XML Path Language (XPath) v2.0
W3C
T-5.9
XML Signature
■ XML Signature Syntax and Processing (Second Edition)
W3C
XML Digital Signatures (XML-DSlG) in the 2006 XML Environment
T-5.10
Digital Object Identification
Syntax for the Digital Object ldentifier [ANSl z39.84]|ANSI {for use in digital rights management}
+
+
Ref
Component
Interoperability Standard
SDO
T-5.11
Web Content syndication
Resource Description Framework (RDF) Site Summary (RSS) Version 1.0, [RSS-DEV working Group, http://web.resource.org] Really Simple Syndication (RSS) Version 2.0, [RSS 2.0, Berkman Center at Harvard Law
T-5.12
Distributed 1 searching and Retrieval
School, http://cyber.law.harvard.edu/rss/] Information Retrieval: Application Service Definition and Protocol Specification, Z39.50 [ANSI/NISO Z39.50, ISO/IEC 23950:1998] Search Retrieval via URL (SRU) Version 1.2 [http://www.loc.gov/standards/sru/]
ANSI
T-5.13|Web Accessibility for the visual impaired
Web Content Accessibility Guidelines (WCAG) 2.0 (2008) {A guideline for development of government websites and/or web enabled applications to improve access for the visual impaired user
W3C
T-6
community} System Security
T-6.1
E-Mail Security
Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions (S/MIME) V3 [RFC 2630 to RFC 2633] {shall be used where appropriate for pan government messaging security unless security
IETF
T-6.2
IP Network security and Virtual Private
requirements dictate otherwisel. Security Architecture for the Internet Protocol (Internet Protocol Security (IPsec)), [RFC 4301]
IETF
T-6.3
Networking IP Network authentication and encapsulation
IP Authentication Header (AH) [RFC 4302], and 1IP Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP), [RFC 4303]
IETF
T-6.4
security Transport Layer security
Transport Layer Security (TLS) Protocol Version 1.2, [RFC 5246]
IETF
T-6.5
Encryption algorithms (block and stream
■Advanced Encryption Standard (AES), [SANS18033-3 Information technology - Security techniques - Encryption algorithms
SABS
ciphers)
Part 3: Block ciphers]; OR · TWOFISH,[FIPS PUB 197] {AES is the preferred cipher algorithm and it should
NIST
+
+
Ref
Component
Interoperability Standard
SDO
T-6.6
be used for both block and stream ciphers applications. TWOFiSH should only be used as an alternative where AES is not possible.}
Encryption algorithms (asymmetric ciphers)
■ RSA 2048bit (Rivest, Shamir and Adleman), [SANS 18033-2 Security techniques - Encryption algorithms Part 2: Asymmetric ciphers]; Or ■ ECC 256 bit (Elliptic Curve Cryptography), [SANS 15946 Security techniques - Cryptographic techniques based on elliptic curves]
SABS
T-6.7
Hashing
Secure Hash Algorithm II (SHA-ll) SHA-256, or SHA- 384 [SANS 18033 -3 or ISO/IEC 10118-3]
SABS
T-6.8
Message 1 Authentication
Message Authentication Code (MAC) with Block cipher [SANS 9797-1]; and/or Message Authentication Code (MAC) with Hash function [SANS 9797-2]
SABS
T-6.9
Digital Signatures
RSA-DSA (Rivest, Shamir and Adleman - Digital Signing Algorithm) [SANS 14888]; or EC-DSA (Elyptic Curve - Digital Signing Algorithm, [SANS 14888]
SABS
T-6.10
Key Management
Security Techniques - Key Management: Part 3 Mechanisms using asymmetric techniques [SANS 11770-3:2009]
SABS
T-6.11
Public Key Infrastructure certificates
Internet X.509 Public Key Infrastructure Certificate and Certificate Revocation List (CRL) Profile (X.509 v3), [RFC 5280]
ITU
T-6.12
XML Security mark-up Secure XML
Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) v2.0 OASIS XCBF 1.1 Specification.
OASIS OASIS
T-6.13
Encoding for exchanging biometric data
Secure XML encodings for the patron formats specified in CBEFF, the Common Biometric Exchange File Format [NISTIR 6529].
T-7 T-7.1
System Management Network Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) v3|IETF
Management [RFC 3411-RFC 3418] Protocol
T-8
System Engineering
T-8.1
Software
Unified Modelling Language (UML) v2.1.1
OMG
+
+
Ref
Component
Interoperability Standard
SDO
Engineering Modelling Language
T-8.2
Business Process Modelling Language
Business Process Model and Notation (BPMN) v1.1
OMG
T-8.3
Business Function Modelling Language
Integrated Definition Language for Function Modelling (IDEF-O)- Federal Information Processing Standard Publication 183, [FlPS PUB
NIST
T-8.4
Model exchange
183] XML Metadata Interchange (XMl) version 2.1
OMG
+
+BBBEE Broad Based Black Economic Empowerment
+BPMN Business Process Modelling Notation
+EA Enterprise Architecture
+GITO Government Information Technology Officer
+GITOC Government Information Technology Officers Council
+GWEA Government Wide Enterprise Architecture
+ICT Information and Communication Technology
+ISO International Organisation for Standardisation
+MIOS Minimum Interoperability Standards
+SCARC Standing Committee on Architecture
+SITA State Information Technology Agency
+OMG Object Management Group
+TOGAF® The Open Group Architecture Framework
+UML Unified Modelling Language
+
+MIOS was developed by SITA Standards-and-Certification unit in collaboration and consultation with GITOC and SCARC members.
+
+
No
Name & Designation
Representing Department / Agency
1.
Henton Katz (Deputy Director: DElS Management Division)
New document. Adopted from UK e-Gif and customised for Government of South Africa
MIOS v2.PDF
2.0
Nov 2001
GITOC MIOS Workshop
Inputs from GITOC
MIOS3 16 April 2002.doc
3.0
Apr 2002
SITA Strategic Services
Split MlOS into two Parts: Part 1 is Technical Policies and Standards Part 2 is Implementation Support
MIOS_30June_2007.odt
4.0
Jul 2007
DPSA
Included ISO26300 odf document standard. Minor maintenance revisions. Reformatted. [lnternal release, not promulgated]
MIOS_V4.1_FINAL.PDF
4.1
Sep 2007
GITOC & SITA MIOS workshop
Update in line with latest UK eGif standards.
MIOS v5.0.PDF
5.0
Nov 2011
SITA Standards & Certification
Complete revision of document layout. Include MioS management processes, new set of Public Sector data records interchange standards and revision to technical interoperability standards.
\ No newline at end of file
diff --git a/dataset/data/docs/Determination and Directive on Public Service ICT Service Continuity v13 (2) (1)..md b/dataset/data/docs/Determination and Directive on Public Service ICT Service Continuity v13 (2) (1)..md
new file mode 100644
index 0000000000000000000000000000000000000000..322380117fbb664c333aef9628421e485e4ece70
--- /dev/null
+++ b/dataset/data/docs/Determination and Directive on Public Service ICT Service Continuity v13 (2) (1)..md
@@ -0,0 +1,166 @@
+
+
+# DETERMINATION AND DIRECTIVE ON ICT SERVICE CONTINUITY IN THE PUBLIC SERVICE
+
+# TABLE OF CONTENTS
+
+1. INTRODUCTION 3
+2. PURPOSE 4
+3. AUTHORISATION 5
+4. SCOPE OF APPLICATION 5
+5. IMPLEMENTATION OF DETERMINATION AND DIRECTIVE 5
+NON-COMPLIANCE MANAGEMENT 5
+DATE OF IMPLEMENTATION 5
+8.1 Current Minimum ICT Requirements 5
+8.2 DURING THE ICT DISASTER 8
+8.3 AFTER THE ICT DISASTER 8
+
+# 1. INTRODUCTION
+
+1.1. The effect of the current pandemic has had unimaginable disruption on organizations and businesses globally.
+1.2. In addition to disruption, the pandemic also presented numerous lessons upon which all stakeholders, including the public service, can learn. For instance, arrangements for alternative workspaces in disruptions proved inadequate as all organizations were affected. This included organizations whose business is the provision of alternative workspaces during disruptions as such environments had to close as well.
+1.3. Organizations that were ill-prepared for the business disruption were impacted more adversely than those with concrete and implementable plans for continuity of their businesses during disruptions, even within a single sector.
+1.4. Business Continuity Management System (BCMS) emphasizes the importance of understanding the organization's needs and the necessity for establishing business continuity management policy and objectives, implementing and operating controls and measures for managing an organization's overall capability to manage disruptive incidents, monitoring and reviewing the performance and effectiveness of the BCMS, and continual improvement based on objective measurement (ISO 22301; 2012).
+
+1.5. A BCMS consists of the following components:
+
+a) Business Management Policy (inclusive of ICT Service Continuity Issues);
+b) people with defined responsibilities;
+c) management processes relating to 1) policy, 2) planning, 3) implementation and operation, 4) performance assessment, 5) management review; and 6) improvement;
+d) documentation providing auditable evidence; and
+e) any business continuity management processes relevant to the organizatio (ISO 22301; 2012).
+
+1.6. Business Continuity Management (BCM), as part of the BCMS, is an integral part of a holistic risk management process that safeguards the interests of an organization's key stakeholders, reputation, brand, and value-creating activities through:
+
+i. identifying potential threats that may cause adverse impacts on an organization's business operations and associated risks ii. providing a framework for building resilience for business operations;
+
+iii. providing capabilities, facilities, processes, action task lists, etc., for effective responses to disasters and failures (ISO 247620: 2008).
+
+1.7 Consequently, BCM is the entire organization's responsibility, which the enterprise risk management function must lead.
+
+1.8 When planning for business continuity, the alternative arrangements for information processing and communication facilities (ICT service continuity) are essential for ensuring information, communication technology, and service availability during a disaster and serve as part of the base for the disaster recovery of activities going forward. Such fall back arrangements may include third parties in reciprocal agreements or commercial subscription services.
+
+1.9 Despite the critical role played particularly by the information and communication technology (ICT) during the pandemic, the ability of this capability to maintain and salvage organizational operations during and after disruptions is proportional to the amount of planning that has been embarked upon preparation for such eventuality.
+
+1.10 Furthermore, ICT service continuity planning is squarely dependent on a functional BCMS of the organization. Departments must understand that any ICT service continuity arrangements in the absence of a fully functional BCMS might not yield the desired outcomes.
+
+1.11 Consequently, this determination and directive, therefore, assume that departments already have Business Continuity Plans (BCP) as per the provisions of the Corporate Governance of Information and Communication Technology Policy Framework (CGICTPF). The BCP must, amongst other things, identify and or cover minimum critical services that shall continue to be provided by a department even during a disaster. In line with this, the determination and directive focus on information and communication technology fallback arrangements for departments during a disaster.
+
+# 2. PURPOSE
+
+2.1. The purpose of this Determination and Directive is to provide clear guidance to departments for the development and implementation of ICT service continuity plans in support of the Department's Business Continuity objectives.
+2.2. The above is done to ensure the continued availability of ICT systems and services during the disruption and the ability to recover quickly upon being impacted by the disaster.
+
+# 3. AUTHORIZATION
+
+The Minister for Public Service and Administration (MPSA) issues this Determination and Directive in terms of section 3(2), read with sections 3(1)(f), and (g) of the Public Service Act, 1994.
+
+# 4. SCOPE OF APPLICATION
+
+This Determination and Directive applies to all national and provincial departments, government components, and employees employed in terms of the Public Service Act. This Determination and Directive shall only apply to members of the services, educators or members of the Intelligence Services only in as far as the provisions of this Determination and Directive are not contrary to the laws governing their employment.
+
+# 5. IMPLEMENTATION OF THE DETERMINATION AND DIRECTIVE
+
+5.1 The Head of Department must ensure that the current ICT Service Continuity Plan aligns with the contents of this Determination and Directive.
+
+# 6. NON-COMPLIANCE MANAGEMENT
+
+Failure to comply with this Determination and Directive will be dealt with in line with the provisions of section 16A of the Public Service Act.
+
+# 7. DATE OF IMPLEMENTATION
+
+This Determination and Directive shall come into effect on the date of signature by the MPSA.
+
+# 8.1CURRENT MINIMUM ICT REQUIREMENTS
+
+8.1.1 The Head of Department must establish an ICT Disaster Recovery Team for the department. The ICT Disaster Recovery Team led by the GITO will develop, document, and execute processes for a department's data recovery f of business continuity, and IT infrastructure in the event of a disaster/ ICT service / ICT system disruption.
+8.1.2 Guided by the risk appetite and tolerance of the department, the ICT Disaster Recovery Team must define and agree on what would constitute as an ICT disaster.
+8.1.3 The Head of Department, through the office of the GITO must identify all departmental Information Systems / ICT Services supporting both internal operations and service delivery to the public, customers, and stakeholders.
+8.1.4 The Head of Department must determine the impact of Business Impact Analysis (BIA) on the department and the public/customers/stakeholders should each of the identified information systems / ICT Services, referred to in paragraph 8.1.3, not be provided due to disruption/disaster.
+8.1.5 The Head of Department must determine the system availability/capacity requirements of the department informed by the BIA or their criticality.
+8.1.6 The Head of Department must ensure that redundancy/continuity arrangements are in place and informed by the department's system availability/capacity requirements.
+8.1.7 The Head of Department must ensure that the unavailability of critical information systems, as identified by the BIA process, is captured in the department's strategic and operational risk registers.
+8.1.8 The Head of Department must inform all relevant stakeholders when an ICT disaster is declared, including the GITO.
+8.1.9 The Head of Department must identify the minimum critical ICT services that must be provided by the department even during the disruption/disaster.
+8.1.10 The Head of Department must determine the duration within which critical ICT services Recovery Time Objectives (RTO) must be recovered should a disaster/disruption occur, this must be expressed in minutes, hours, or days.
+8.1.11 The Head of Department must determine the recovery point and the associated data/information that must be retrieved during the disaster. The Recovery Point Objectives (RPO) after the disaster/disruption must be expressed in minutes, hour and days in case of future disruptions.
+8.1.12 The Head of Department must ensure the existence and safekeeping of all relevant documentation that will support disaster recovery efforts by the department. Such documents must include but are not limited to the design and configuration of the system documents primarily for critical and other systems, systems recovery procedures, contact details of staff (including 3rd party contractors) to assist/conduct recovery, relevant 3rd party suppliers, etc.
+8.1.13 The Head of Department must provide an alternative ICT workspace/working environment for employees/recovery teams.
+8.1.14 The Head of Department must ensure that communication mechanisms of the department determine roles and responsibilities to be performed by various stakeholders once the disaster/disruption strikes.
+8.1.15 At a minimum, during the development of the ICT Service Continuity plan, the following
+
+must be addressed:
+
+# a) The overview of the department's ICT Infrastructure
+
+The GITO must establish an inventory of the status quo of the environmental ICT infrastructure. This inventory list must include:
+
+i Hardware
+ii Software (Including Applications)
+iii Network information assets (i.e., Servers, Switches, Firewalls, Routers, Virtual Machines)
+iv Network Diagram/Blueprint of the department
+
+# b) Backup Procedures
+
+The GITO must establish a process of creating and storing copies of data that can be used to protect the department against data loss.
+
+# c) Service and System Risk Ratings
+
+The GITO must ensure that all the information systems are rated in their criticality/importance (High, Medium, Low) informed by the BIA outcome.
+
+# d) The ICT Disaster Recovery Process
+
+The GITO must identify and prioritize their business functions, maintaining the ICT systems that support their operations. The recovery arrangements must also be established to preserve the continuity of ICT services.
+
+# e) Roles and Responsibilities
+
+The GITO must ensure that the roles and responsibilities related to the ICT services continuity plan are clearly defined and known to those responsible for implementing the disaster recovery activities.
+
+# f) Key Contacts
+
+The GITO must ensure that critical contacts are continuously updated and accessible when needed.
+
+# g) Testing and Maintenance of the ICT Service Continuity Plan
+
+The GITO must ensure that the ICT Service Continuity Plan is tested and maintained regularly for effectiveness.
+
+# h) Review Date of the ICT Service Continuity Plan
+
+The GITO must ensure that the ICT Service Continuity Plan is reviewed regularly and when required.
+
+# 8.2 DURING THE ICT DISASTER
+
+8.2.1 The ICT Disaster Recovery Team must invoke the disaster recovery activities, processes, and procedures as stipulated in the ICT Service Continuity Plan.
+8.2.2 The ICT Disaster Recovery Team must ensure that the respective role players are informed (including third parties and suppliers).
+8.2.3 The ICT Disaster Recovery Team must ensure that continuous touch point conversations are convened to ensure ongoing engagements during the disaster.
+
+# 8.3 AFTER THE ICT DISASTER
+
+8.3.1 At the end of the disaster, the Head of the Department must ensure that the ICT disaster recovery team conducts a post-implementation review.
+8.3.2 The Head of Department must ensure that the disaster has been declared over and normal operations are resumed.
+
+# APPROVED BY THE MINISTER FOR THE PUBLIC SERVICE AND ADMINISTRATION
+
+The GlTO must ensure that the ICT Service Continuity Plan is tested and maintained regularly for effectiveness.
+
+# h) Review Date of the ICT Service Continuity Plan
+
+The GlTO must ensure that the ICT Service Continuity Plan is reviewed regularly and when required.
+
+# 8.2 DURINGTHEICTDISASTER
+
+8.2.1 The ICT Disaster Recovery Team must invoke the disaster recovery activities, processes, and procedures as stipulated in the ICT Service Continuity Plan.
+8.2.2 The ICT Disaster Recovery Team must ensure that the respective role players are informed (including third parties and suppliers).
+8.2.3 The ICT Disaster Recovery Team must ensure that continuous touch point conversations are convened to ensure ongoing engagements during the disaster.
+
+# 8.3 AFTERTHEICTDISASTER
+
+8.3.1 At the end of the disaster,the Head of the Department must ensure that the ICT disaster recovery team conducts apost-implementationreview. The Head of Department must ensure that the disaster has been declared over and normal operations are resumed.
+
+# APPROVED BY THE MINISTER FOR THE PUBLIC SERVICE AND ADMINISTRATION
+
+
+
+MR T.W.'NXESI, MP
+ACTING MINISTER FOR THE PUBLIC SERVICE AND ADMINISTRATION
+DATE:29/11 /202乙
\ No newline at end of file
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+# DIRECTIVE ON PUBLIC SERVICE INFORMATION SECURITY
+
+# Preface
+
+The current digital era has seen the increased importance of data and information, thus giving it the status of being the economy's raw material. It has brought the importance of protecting data and information to ensure its confidentiality, integrity, and availability.
+
+The persistent cybersecurity incidents in the Public service reveal the level of vulnerability that the government departments are exposed to with limited ICT security skills to mitigate and combat the cyber-attacks as they emerge.
+
+In line with this, section $3(1)(\hat{I})$ of the Public Service Act, 1994 (Proclamation No. 103 of 1994) provides for the Minister of Public Service and Administration (MINiSTER) to establish norms and standards relating to information management in the public service.
+
+Furthermore, requlation 94 of the Public Service Regulations, 2016, specifically provides for the MiNiSTER to issue information security standards for the public service after consultation with relevant Ministers.
+
+This Directive is issued by the MiNiSTER in terms of section 41(3) of the Public Service Act to elucidate regulations 94, of the Public Service Regulations.
+
+
+
+MR T.W. NXESI. MP
+
+Table of Contents
+1. INTRODUCTION . 4
+2. PURPOSE 4
+3. AUTHORIZATION.. 4
+4. SCOPE OF APPLICATION . 4
+5. DEFINITIONS 5
+6. IMPLEMENTATION OF THE DIRECTIVE .. 8
+7. NON-COMPLIANCE AND REPORTING... . 8
+8. DATE OF IMPLEMENTATION .. . 8
+9. ROLES AND RESPONSIBILITIES 8
+10. MANAGEMENT OF ICT RELATED BUSINESS RISK .. 8
+11. SECURITY AWARENESS TRAINING . 8
+12. CLASSIFICATION .. . 9
+13. INFORMATION SYSTEM ACQUISITION, DEVELOPMENT, AND MAINTENANCE .. ...... 9
+14. INTELLECTUAL PROPERTY RIGHTS. 11
+15. PHYSICAL SECURITY MANAGEMENT .. . 11
+16. HR SECURITY . 12
+16.1 HR SECURITY OPERATIONS ... 12
+16.2 USER RESPONSIBILITIES 12
+17. COMMUNICATIONS AND OPERATIONS MANAGEMENT . 13
+17.2 SYSTEM OPERATIONS . 13
+17.3 CONTINUOUS VULNERABILITY MANAGEMENT 14
+17.4 PROTECTION AGAINST MALICIOUS AND MOBILE CODE . 15
+17.5 PROHIBITED SOFTWARE . 15
+17.6 NETWORK SECURITY 16
+17.7 PROTECTION OF INFORMATION SECURITY DEVICES . 17
+17.8 BACKUPS . . 17
+17.9 MEDIA HANDLING . 18
+17.10 DISPOSAL OF MEDIA 18
+17.11 REMOVAL OF CLASSIFIED DOCUMENTS FROM PREMISES . 18
+18. THIRD_PARTY ACCESS MANAGEMENT .. .. 19
+19. ACCOUNTS MANAGEMENT .. 19
+20. ACCESS CONTROL MANAGEMENT . . 20
+21. PASSWORD MANAGEMENT . . 20
+22. MOBILE AND REMOTE COMPUTING ... . 21
+23. USE OF ICT INFORMATION ASSETS . . 22
+24. OUTSOURCING REQUIREMENTS . 22
+25. CYBERSECURITY.. 23
+26. CLOUD SECURITY . 23
+27. ELECTRONIC SIGNATURES . 24
+28. AUDITING AND MONITORING 24
+29. ICT SERVICE CONTINUITY AND DISASTER RECOVERY .. . 24
+30. ICT SERVICE PROVIDER MANAGEMENT . 25
+
+# 1. INTRODUCTION
+
+The current digital era has seen the increased importance of data and information, thus giving it the status of being the economy's raw material. It has brought the importance of protecting data and information to ensure its confidentiality, integrity, and availability.
+
+In line with this, section $3(1)(t)$ of the Public Service Act, 1994 (Proclamation No. 103 of 1994) provides for the Minister for the Public Service and Administration (Minister) to establish norms and standards relating to information management in the public service.
+
+Furthermore, regulation 94 of the Public Service Regulations, 2016, specifically provides for the Minister to issue information security standards for the public service after consultation with relevant Ministers.
+
+# 2. PURPOSE
+
+To provide direction in the public service regarding establishing departmental information security governance, practices, and procedures to protect information and technology assets.
+
+# 3. AUTHORIZATION
+
+This Directive is issued by the Minister in terms of section 41(3) of the Public Service Act to elucidate regulations 94, of the Public Service Regulations.
+
+# 4. SCOPE OF APPLICATION
+
+This Directive applies to all national and provincial departments, government components, and employees employed in terms of the Public Service Act. This Directive shall only apply to members of the services, educators, or members of the Intelligence Services only in as far as the provisions of this Directive are not contrary to the laws governing their employment.
+
+# 5. DEFINITIONS
+
+In this Directive, any word or expression bears the meaning which was assigned in the Public Service Act and the Public Service Regulations, unless the context indicates otherwise
+
+‘Access Control’ means a fundamental component of data security that dictates who's allowed to access and use company information and resources;
+
+‘Access Control List (ACL)’ means a set of rules used to filter traffic ‘Author’ means any employee, or the person acting on his behalf, who prepares, generates, or initially classifies a document or has it classified;
+
+‘AGSA’ means the Auditor-General of South Africa;
+
+‘BCP’ means business continuity plan;
+
+‘CD-ROM’ means compact disc read-only memory;
+
+‘Certificate Authority’ means a certificate authority uses its private encryption key to sign and issue a digital certificate verifying the identity of the certified holder;
+
+‘Classified Information’ means sensitive information which, in the national interest, is held by, produced in, or under the control of the State or which concerns the State, and which must, because of its sensitive nature, be exempted from disclosure in terms of the Protection of Personal Information Act, 2013;
+
+‘Clearing’ means to clear information at a level of media sanitisation that would protect the confidentiality of information against a robust keyboard attack. Simple deletion of items would not suffice for clearing. Clearing must not allow information to be retrieved by data, disk, or file recovery utilities. It must be resistant to keystroke recovery attempts executed from standard input devices and data scavenging tools;
+
+‘Compromise’ means the unauthorised disclosure/exposure or loss of sensitive or classified information or exposure of sensitive operations, people, or places, whether by design or through negligence;
+
+‘Computer Security’ means– that condition created in a computer environment by the conscious provision and application of security measures. This includes information concerning the procedure for the procurement and protection of equipment;
+
+‘Dimiliterised Zone (DMZ)’ means a perimeter network that protects and adds an extra layer of security to an organization’s internal local-area network from untrusted traffic
+
+‘DISO’ means Department Information Security Officer;
+
+‘DPSA’ means the Department of Public Service and Administration;
+
+‘Encryption’ means a mathematically derived process involving data coding to achieve confidentiality, anonymity, time-stamping, and other security objectives;
+
+‘‘Firewall’ network security device for monitoring incoming and outgoing network traffic and allows or denies data packets based on a set of security rules. Its purpose is to establish a barrier between your internal network and incoming traffic from external sources (such as the internet) to block malicious traffic
+
+‘Gateway’ means a computer system used to link different networks;
+
+‘GITO’ means a Government Information Technology Officer;
+
+‘Guideline’ is a general rule, principle, or piece of advice;
+
+‘HR’ means human resources;
+
+‘ICT’ means all aspects of technology that are used to manage and support the efficient gathering, processing, storing, and dissemination of information;
+
+‘Incident’ means an adverse event in an information system and/or network or the threat of the occurrence of such an event;
+
+‘Information Assets’ means computers, communications facilities, networks, data, and encryption keys that may be stored, processed, retrieved, or transmitted by them.
+
+This includes programs, specifications, and procedures for their operation, use, and maintenance. All such assets are the property of the department and should be protected according to the policies;
+
+‘Information Security’ means the provision of organisational, technical, and social measures to safeguard information assets against unauthorised access, damage, and interference – both malicious and accidental;
+
+‘Information Security Event’ means an identified occurrence of a system, service, or network state indicating a breach of information security policy, failure of safeguards, or a previously unknown situation that may be security-relevant;
+
+‘Information Security Incident’ means a single or a series of unwanted or unexpected information security events that have a significant probability of compromising business operations and threatening information security.
+
+‘LAN’ means local area network;
+
+‘MISS’ means the Minimum Information Security Standard which is a national government policy document on information security standards that must be maintained by all departments;
+
+‘Minister’ means the Minister for the Public Service and Administration;
+
+‘System Owner’ means a person or organization having responsibility for the development, procurement, integration, modification, operation, maintenance, and/or final disposition of an information system.
+
+‘Network Access Control (NAC)’ means a solution for restricting unauthorized users and devices from gaining access to a corporate network
+
+‘Third-party code’ means software component is a reusable software component developed to be either freely distributed or sold by an entity other than the original vendor of the development platform
+
+‘Trusted entities’ means ICT service providers rendering a service to a government Department
+
+‘Virtual LAN’ means a logical group of nodes that appear to be on the same LAN irrespective of the configuration of the underlying physical network.
+
+# 6. IMPLEMENTATION OF THE DIRECTIVE
+
+The Head of Department must ensure that -
+
+a) The department has an Information Security Policy.
+b) The departmental Information Security Policy is aligned with the provisions set out in this Directive.
+
+# 7. NON-COMPLIANCE AND REPORTING
+
+Failure to comply with this Directive will be dealt with in line with the provisions of section 16A of the Public Service Act, 1994.
+
+# 8. DATE OF IMPLEMENTATION
+
+This directive becomes effective on the date signed by the MPSA.
+
+# 9. ROLES AND RESPONSIBILITIES
+
+a) The Head of Department must delegate an official to fulfill the functions of a Department Information Security Officer (DISO).
+b) The Department Information Security Officer (DISO) must be accountable to the GITO for matters of Information Security.
+c) The departmental ICT Steering Committee (established through the Corporate Governance of ICT Policy Framework- CGICTPF) must function as an information security forum.
+
+# 10. MANAGEMENT OF ICT RELATED BUSINESS RISK
+
+The Head of Department must ensure that ICT-related business risks are identified during their planning cycle and document such risks on a risk register.
+
+# 11. SECURITY AWARENESS TRAINING
+
+The Head of Department must ensure that -
+
+a) The DISO develops and implements a continuous information security awareness program to reduce cybersecurity risks from employees in the department.
+b) The information security awareness program must train employees to recognise & report cyberattacks (phishing, baiting, tailgating, etc) as well as train employees to properly handle (store, transfer, and destroy) sensitive data.
+c) The information security awareness program must include security awareness or skills training targetted for specific roles including system administrators, web application developers, and the helpdesk administrators
+d) An appropriate summary of the departmental information security policy is included in the HR policies that all employees sign before starting any work in a department.
+
+# 12. CLASSIFICATION
+
+The Head of Department must ensure that information is classified according to the uniform sensitivity classification scheme below:
+
+a) Public: this information has been explicitly approved by management for release to the public. Examples include reports, announcements, job openings, press releases, service brochures, and information published on the website.
+b) Confidential: this information is private or otherwise sensitive in nature and must be restricted to those with a legitimate business need for access. The unauthorised disclosure of this information could adversely impact the department or third parties. Examples include employee performance evaluations, transaction data, agreements, unpublished memorandums and/or submissions, passwords, internal audit reports, and all client information.
+c) Secret: this classification applies to the most sensitive business information which is intended strictly for use within a department and restricted to those with a legitimate business need for access. The unauthorised disclosure of this information could seriously and adversely impact the department or third parties.
+
+# 13. INFORMATION SYSTEM ACQUISITION, DEVELOPMENT, AND MAINTENANCE
+
+The Head of Department must ensure that - (a) System development or changes to existing systems follow a formal structured approach whereby information security is considered at all stages of the system development life cycle. These include conception and design, development, quality assurance, and implementation as a production system. All systems or application changes follow a formal change control procedure. All associated or supporting documentation must be appropriately updated in response to the changes made;
+
+(b) Any system development, including development through a third party, follows an approved system development methodology outlined in the relevant service level agreements and the methodology must include secure application design standards, secure coding practices, and security of third-party code
+(c) All aspects of how information security is considered and implemented for all new systems or changes to existing systems are recorded. In addition, system developments and changes to existing systems shall have accompanying up-todate documentation before going live. This must include appropriate sign-offs by the system owner, the GITO, and the Head of Department;
+(d) The use of production data for development testing is prohibited unless such use is approved by the data owner. The use of desensitized production data should never jeopardize the security or business-related privacy;
+(e) Business application systems only go into production after users and information operations staff have received appropriate documentation and training on the relevant application security-related controls and practices;
+
+(f) When ICT applications are developed:
+
+(i) the application is tested and scanned for vulnerabilities. Exploitable and other high-risk vulnerabilities must be remediated before the application is used (Line Management is responsible for ensuring that appropriate testing takes place); and
+(ii) the following documentation is available: a. technical program documentation; b. end-user documentation;
+
+(g) System requesters by default become system owners.
+
+(h) The functionality for checking the validity, accuracy, and completeness of data processed is incorporated into systems that are developed;
+
+(i) Data output from an application is validated to ensure that the processing of stored information is correct and appropriate to the circumstances.
+
+# 14. INTELLECTUAL PROPERTY RIGHTS
+
+The Head of the Department must ensure that - a) Any system (software, information, source code, system design documents) developed by and/or on behalf of the department shall remain the intellectual property of the government and may therefore not be copied, sold, leased, or removed without the express of written consent of the relevant executive authority
+
+# 15. PHYSICAL SECURITY MANAGEMENT
+
+The Head of Department must ensure that -
+
+a) Physical security measures for all departmental ICT assets (ie. lockable server rooms, switches, cabinets, and/or any other related physical assets that are restricted from public and unauthorised access) are put in place;
+b) There is sufficient protection against environmental threats and hazards such as fire, theft, tampering, water damage, and vandalism;
+c) Multifactor authentication with access logging is implemented in the data centers/server rooms’ entrances;
+d) There is adequate security at the entrance of the data center/server rooms and other facilities where ICT infrastructure is housed;
+e) A generator and uninterrupted power supply is available to power critical ICT systems and is tested quarterly and maintained;
+f) Confidentiality agreements and maintenance agreements are in place to ensure the security and confidentiality of the information stored on equipment that is subject to $3^{\mathsf{r d}}$ party and off-site access;
+g) Laptop users have security cables to attach the laptops securely to a desk or similar object, regardless of the location where the laptop is used;
+h) Users who are assigned devices, including portable computers of whatever nature, smartphones, tablets, and peripheral devices that contain government data or have been connected at any time to the government network, do not leave these devices unattended in motor vehicles or public places;
+i) FollowMe print must be used to protect the printing of confidential documents. Where FollowMe print cannot be implemented, then users must remove sensitive or restricted documents from printers immediately when printed.
+j) All users (employees, contractors, and incidental users) are prohibited from making any hardware changes to any shared server or network devices. If there is a business reason for making a hardware change, a change request must be submitted following the department's change management process;
+k) Non-standard hardware configurations and security configurations (i.e. firewall settings, virtual and physical server settings, router, and switches) are considered for recommendation by the department's GITO;
+l) Any loss or theft of information assets is treated as a security breach and reported immediately following the departmental loss procedure/protocol. Where necessary and applicable, a mobile device management tool must be implemented to assist with tracking and recovery of government laptops and notebooks.
+m) Information assets containing government information must be securely stored or retained with the owner while traveling;
+n) Process, procedures, or technical controls are in place to manage the risks associated with removable media (i.e. data leaks, data loss, data privacy, data sensitivity, malware infection, etc)
+
+# 16. HR SECURITY
+
+# 16.1 HR SECURITY OPERATIONS
+
+The Head of Department must ensure that -
+
+a) The security roles and responsibilities of employees, and third-party users are defined and documented in the Information Security Policy;
+b) Background verification checks or security vetting of contractors, and external party users are carried out under relevant laws, regulations, and ethics, and proportional to the business requirements, the classification of the information to be accessed, and the perceived risks;
+
+# 16.2 USER RESPONSIBILITIES
+
+The Head of Department must ensure that -
+
+a) All personnel is responsible for all activities performed with their user identities and special logon identities. As such, user identities and other logon identities may not be used by anyone other than the persons to whom they have been issued and users shall not perform any activity with identities belonging to other users.
+b) Passwords are never shared or revealed to anyone else and should never be known by anyone other than the authorised user.
+c) Users submit a request to the help desk to issue a new password if a password is forgotten, and users must prove their identity before the password is issued or reset
+d) Users report any misuse or unlawful use of user identities and passwords to the help desk,
+e) The unsuccessful login attempts are logged, and investigations should occur where unsuccessful login attempts are out of the normal range.
+
+# 17. COMMUNICATIONS AND OPERATIONS MANAGEMENT
+
+# 17.2 SYSTEM OPERATIONS
+
+The Head of Department must ensure that
+
+a) Controls for ICT operations are documented and must include employee duties and formal methods to implement changes to ICT systems;
+b) A formal change control procedure is documented and enforced to govern the application, computer installation, networks, and system development changes;
+c) The relevant system owner approves all business application changes with a financial impact. The GITO must recommend all infrastructure/architectural changes;
+d) ICT systems are accessed and authenticated through the Department’s network. The GITO must approve secure emergency remote access/alternative network connection methods;
+e) Emergency changes that bypass some of the elements of the established change control system require the authorisation of all affected business units/ branches and acknowledgment of the risks involved. These actions must be controlled, logged, restored, and kept to a minimum;
+f) Production systems are physically separated from test and development systems. Where this is not feasible, all reasonable efforts must be made, to ensure that
+
+production systems are protected from changes or outages in non-production environments;
+
+g) The development of new applications or system software is kept separate, both physically and logically, from the production environment. The employee responsible for the development should not normally have access to production systems. For occasional and essential support purposes, the development employee may be granted restricted access for a limited period (e.g., by issuing secure passwords via an emergency access process);
+
+h) All activities related to changes of systems and performed using supervisory access rights will only be performed once appropriate authorisation is received through the change control process, accompanied by change control documentation. The results of the change will be compared with the change request. This review must be signed-off or electronically verified by the appropriate manager;
+i) The segregation of duties matrix is developed and maintained by all business units in the department. It should contain all user roles and associated access, and any conflicts or roles with excessive access that can result in unauthorised or fraudulent transactions or activities should be reviewed, adjusted where possible, or monitored closely. The segregation of duties matrix should be reviewed by system owners periodically.
+j) Approval and confirmation of the new ICT system satisfy all necessary security requirements before that system is used in a department or government production environment.
+
+# 17.3 CONTINUOUS VULNERABILITY MANAGEMENT
+
+The Head of Department must ensure that -
+
+a) The network infrastructure is kept-up-date and is running the latest and stable software versions.
+b) Operating system updates and application updates are performed at least once a month or more regularly through a patch management process.
+c) Bi-annual vulnerability scans and vulnerability remediation are performed through a vulnerability management process.
+
+# 17.4 PROTECTION AGAINST MALICIOUS AND MOBILE CODE
+
+The Head of Departments must ensure that -
+
+a) All information devices connected to the government network has up-to-date antivirus and integrity-checking software installed.
+b) Employees do not knowingly distribute viruses or bypass any detection systems in place.
+c) Employees exercise caution when opening any email if the source of the email is unknown to the user.
+d) Employees receiving or downloading data media from any source within, the public service has the responsibility for ensuring that it is checked for viruses before use. Similarly, individuals intending to pass on data media within government or to external parties must ensure that it is first scanned for viruses.
+e) Employees are prevented from disabling or changing the configuration of the antivirus software installed on their personal computers.
+f) Autorun for removable media is disabled to control the installation and execution of malware
+g) Suspected malicious code attacks are reported immediately on identification by following the internal security incident management procedure.
+h) New software, portable media, and information in electronic format from external sources are scanned for malicious program code before being introduced into the department network.
+
+# 17.5 PROHIBITED SOFTWARE
+
+The Head of Department must ensure that - a) The employees are made aware that the use of the following software is prohibited on any computer departmental network unless specifically recommended by the GITO. i Bootleg software: illegal, pirated, or reproduced copies of software or data. ii Powerful system tools: programs that are designed to investigate and/or exploit a department's information security environment (including password
+
+crackers, scanners, network sniffing devices, network packet sniffing devices, and other hacking tools).
+iii Shareware/freeware: all software available from the Internet, where no licensing requirements are given.
+iv Personal/non-department software.
+v Inappropriate content: images and /or text involving race, nudity or sexual themes are not appropriate for the workplace
+
+b) A list of approved software is developed and maintained to identify and prevent the installation of malicious software.
+
+# 17.6 NETWORK SECURITY
+
+The Head of Department must ensure that -
+
+a) Responsibilities for network configuration and operational management are segregated from systems configuration and operational management.
+b) Establish and maintain the secure configuration of ICT assets (i.e. workstations devices, mobile devices, network devices, virtualization platforms, and servers) and software (operating systems and applications).
+c) Secure network architecture is established and maintained through segmentation and segregation. i.e. Virtual LANs, ACL, Firewalls, DMZ, NAC, Least privilege & Need-to-know principles, etc
+d) Information regarding Internal addresses, configurations, related system design for the department, government networks, and computer systems are restricted so that both systems and users outside the internal network cannot access this information without written approval from the Head of Department.
+e) The creation of a remote access facility never compromises the security of a department or government network or any existing department system or data.
+f) The layout of wiring and all network devices is documented.
+g) Firewall rules are reviewed regularly.
+h) Inactivity timeouts are implemented for remote access connections (i.e. idle sessions for applications, unattended workstations, etc) requiring users to reauthenticate following a timeout.
+i) All computers with wireless LAN devices use an approved department or government virtual private network (VPN) configured to drop all unauthenticated and unencrypted traffic. The Wireless LAN service set identifier (SSID) is configured so that it does not contain any identifying information about a department, such as a department name, division title, employee name, or product identifier.
+k) Government employees or other personnel are prohibited from establishing simultaneous connections to both external networks and government networks.
+l) All remote access usage and logs are monitored regularly (i.e.failed access attempts, user lockouts, and unusual remote access attempts).
+m) ICT service provider networks and government networks are segregated into logical and physical segments or network domains based on the value and classification of information or assets that need to be accessed.
+n) GITO authorises all connections to the Department network.
+
+# 17.7 PROTECTION OF INFORMATION SECURITY DEVICES
+
+The Head of Department must ensure that -
+
+a) Secure gateways, firewalls, and other protection devices are used to maintain the level of security when elements of different trust levels are brought together.
+b) Security systems operating within and across public and department networks are protected against internal and external intruders. The systems are to be installed in a physically secured and access-restricted area.
+c) Only trusted entities are allowed full access to the department network. All entry points to the department network must be reviewed and approved by the GITO.
+
+# 17.8 BACKUPS
+
+The Head of Department must ensure that -
+
+a) Backups are performed frequently, based on the sensitivity of the data
+b) Regardless of classification, the availability of all data is maintained through periodic backups and recovery mechanisms.
+c) Department backups are covered in the existing contract/arrangement of any service provider and the backups containing sensitive data are encrypted.
+d) The department's minimum and maximum retention periods of information are based on contractual, legislative, regulatory, or industry requirements. The information must be retained for as long as necessary, but for no longer than the data owner's requirements.
+e) All archival backup data stored off-site is reflected in an up-to-date directory that shows the most recent date when the information was modified and the nature of the information.
+f) All storage devices on which sensitive, valuable or critical information is stored for periods longer than six months must not be subject to rapid degradation. Such media must be tested at least annually to ensure that the information is still recoverable.
+
+# 17.9 MEDIA HANDLING
+
+The Head of Department must ensure that -
+
+a) Government information is always stored/saved on Departmental network servers.
+b) Removable computer media is protected against unauthorised access. Any loss or theft of removable computer media must be treated as a security breach and reported immediately.
+
+# 17.10 DISPOSAL OF MEDIA
+
+The Head of Department must ensure that -
+
+a) That destruction of storage devices is conducted only by trained and authorised personnel. Safety and special disposition must be identified and addressed before conducting any media destruction.
+b) The disposal of removable media is performed in such a manner that the data is not recoverable.
+
+# 17.11 REMOVAL OF CLASSIFIED DOCUMENTS FROM PREMISES
+
+The Head of Department must ensure that - a) A destruction/disposal certificate is supplied to the author.
+
+b) A business unit retention and disposal plans, and other legal and standard obligations are consulted to ensure the timely disposal of information that is no longer required by the government.
+c) Retention schedules are developed and implemented.
+d) Records are available to the entire department or only a designated part of the department, based on the user's access permissions.
+e) Records are retained for a period as determined by legislation or best practices.
+
+# 18. THIRD_PARTY ACCESS MANAGEMENT
+
+The Head of Department must ensure that -
+
+a) ICT human resources from external service providers are suitably vetted, or an oath of secrecy is signed following the institution's security requirements.
+b) External/third-party access to department information assets is only authorised in cases where there is a clearly defined business need. The access facility provided should limit the external/third party to the agreed method of access, the agreed access rights, and the agreed level of functionality.
+c) External ICT consultants, computer security response teams, contractors, or temporary staff who require access to the department network must seek authorization in line with the governance arrangements.
+d) As part of an outsourcing contract procedure, a risk assessment is carried out under the guidance of the DISO to determine the security implications and security control requirements.
+
+# 19. ACCOUNTS MANAGEMENT
+
+The Head of Department must ensure that -
+
+a) A user account registration process is established and maintained. The process must include the use of formal user registration forms (soft copy, hard copy, or online) to create accounts or grant access to the department network and computer systems. The form(s) must be signed off as an acknowledgment that they understand the conditions of the access granted to them.
+b) Users must use authorised user accounts (unique usernames and passwords) to access government computers, systems, emails, and internet facilities.
+
+# 20. ACCESS CONTROL MANAGEMENT
+
+The Head of Department must ensure that - a) Formal access granting, access review, and access revoking processes are established and maintained. These processes must be founded on role-based access control, the least privilege principle of security, and keeping $\&$ maintaining records of granted and revoked privileges or access. The above ensures that users have access only to -
+
+i. Their own files and data;
+ii. Publicly available files;
+iii. and/or files that they have been authorised to access.
+b) Systems requiring protection against unauthorised access have the allocation of privileges controlled through a formal authorisation process and a record of all privileges allocated must be maintained.
+c) Login privileges or access allocated to users on a need-to-use and event-by-event basis is authorised, i.e., the minimum access required to perform the role. Department's systems and technical support staff align to a clear separation of functions (such as system administrators vs regular users) to prevent unauthorised access and functions from being performed.
+e) Users' access rights are enforced by automated access control mechanisms (e.g., menus to control access to application functions; and read, write, delete and execute permissions/limitations) to ensure individual accountability.
+f) Privileged accounts must not be used for day-to-day use such as reading emails or accessing the internet.
+g) Privileged access rights, which allow users to override system controls, are regularly reviewed by the GITO and system owners including access rights review of service accounts. It is recommended that these reviews occur more frequently (every three months) than for other access rights.
+h) User access rights are reviewed and re-allocated when an employee moves from one business unit to another within a department.
+
+# 21. PASSWORD MANAGEMENT
+
+The Head of Department must ensure that -
+
+a) A formal password standard is established and maintained. The password standard must define the length of a password (not less than eight(8) characters), the composition (alphanumeric) and the frequency of change and reuse of passwords.
+b) Password authentication is used to prevent unauthorized access to transversal government ICT systems and department ICT systems.
+c) That a procedure for issuing user identities and new or changed passwords is established and implemented with sufficient controls to prevent social engineering attempts from succeeding. A user's identity must be confirmed before resetting a password, providing a temporary password, or issuing a new password.
+d) Initial passwords issued to new users or when a password is reset are temporary, forcing the user to change the password immediately when he/she logs in to the network with the new password.
+e) New or changed passwords are communicated to a user securely. The use of electronic mail messages should be avoided when communicating issued passwords.
+f) Passwords are changed immediately if there is an indication of system or password compromise.
+g) All stored passwords are encrypted.
+h) Default system administrator account passwords are changed immediately upon installation, default administrator accounts are renamed where applicable, and the system and guest accounts are disabled
+i) Multifactor authentication (MFA) is used on critical systems to enhance security measures by providing an additional layer of protection using a combination of authentication factors (OTP, Graphical passwords(CAPTCHAs), Biometrics ).
+
+# 22. MOBILE AND REMOTE COMPUTING
+
+The Head of Department must ensure that -
+
+a) Line management authorises the issuing of portable computers.
+b) A formal risk analysis process for applications to which remote access is granted to assess risks and identify controls needed to reduce risks to an acceptable level.
+c) A procedure for remote user access authorisation and management is established.
+d) A register of all staff members authorised to use remote access facilities is maintained by the DISO.
+e) The register of authorised remote access users and the access levels provided is reviewed regularly by system owners and the DISO to confirm that there is still a valid business requirement.
+f) Users are prohibited from altering or disabling any security features that have been enabled on wireless connections.
+
+# 23. USE OF ICT INFORMATION ASSETS
+
+The Head of Department must ensure that -
+
+a) The administrator and root-level system accounts are strictly controlled.
+b) Access to administrator and root level accounts is only granted by a DISO and delegation must be kept to an absolute minimum.
+c) Supervisory access rights are allocated on a business need basis and will be limited to the minimum services and functions necessary. Additional security measures must be implemented to ensure that they are used only for the intended purpose.
+d) The processes to control the allocation, revocation, and review of powerful access rights are in place. These processes will include authorisation of all access rights by the appropriate line management and mechanisms to ensure that access rights are adjusted appropriately should the person leave or change the job description.
+e) Critical logical access activities performed using powerful access rights generate audit trails and will be logged. All audit trails and logs must be reviewed monthly by the information owner and/or the GITO and stored for one year.
+f) Power users do not share usernames and they must be given their unique usernames; therefore, no system generic usernames will be used.
+g) A procedure allowing staff to obtain emergency access is in place and the assignment of this access will be reported and reviewed by the DISO. Emergency access must be revoked subsequently.
+
+# 24. OUTSOURCING REQUIREMENTS
+
+The Head of Department must ensure that -
+
+a) Outsourcing complies with Condition 7 of Chapter 3 of the Protection of Personal Information Act, 2013 (Act No. 4 of 2013).
+b) All consultants, temporary employees, and contractors must return all department and government property upon termination or expiration of their contract and all associated government network access (including remote access) rights should be simultaneously terminated.
+c) External parties only use the information assets entrusted to them for the purposes agreed to in their contract.
+d) The confidentiality and integrity of sensitive information will be protected when accessed through external party connections. A formal risk analysis must be conducted for each external party connection and appropriate controls must be implemented to reduce risks to an acceptable level.
+e) A regular review of all previously approved external party access is conducted by the GITO. Any changes to the conditions under which the external party access was previously granted will be reviewed by GITO.
+f) The external party users are restricted to the minimum services and functions necessary for the business process, as determined by the system owner.
+g) As a condition of gaining access to a department's computer network, every external party computer must be checked by to ensure that the computer's antivirus software is up to date.
+h) A register of authorised external party access users, as well as the access levels provided, is reviewed regularly (at least quarterly for ongoing contracts and ad hoc when access is set up) by the DISO to confirm that there is still a valid business requirement.
+
+# 25. CYBERSECURITY
+
+The Head of Department must ensure that -
+
+a) Penetration testing, vulnerability scans, and threat risk analysis are part of the departmental cybersecurity initiatives.
+
+# 26. CLOUD SECURITY
+
+The Head of Department must ensure that -
+
+a) Thorough due diligence of the service provider's integrity, legal agreements, physical location, and security must be conducted before deciding on a cloud service provider.
+
+# 27. ELECTRONIC SIGNATURES
+
+The Head of Department must ensure that -
+
+b) The use of the electronic signatures solution is approved. c) The level of electronic signature selected is appropriate when considering the risks associated with a particular document or approval process.
+
+# 28. AUDITING AND MONITORING
+
+The Head of Department must ensure that -
+
+a) Audit log management (collect, alert, logs review, and retain) occurs to detect malicious activities early. This includes the network traffic through both internal and external gateways, e.g., firewalls, email gateways, Intrusion Detections, and routers monitored for unusual activity (for example, abnormal combinations of connections, deliberate probing, or attacks, and unusually substantial amounts of data being transferred cross-border).
+b) Systems to which external parties have access (such as client systems, web servers, and dial-up support facilities) have all transactions and system configuration changes monitored in real-time, with alerts escalated to appropriate personnel where unauthorised transactions occur. Such access must be disconnected when not in use. Computer clocks are synchronized to ensure the accuracy of audit logs for investigations or as evidence in legal or disciplinary cases. Computers and communication devices that can operate as real-time clocks should be set to an agreed standard.
+
+# 29. ICT SERVICE CONTINUITY AND DISASTER RECOVERY
+
+The Head of Department must ensure that -
+
+a) There is an ICT service continuity plan that supports the business continuity of the department.
+b) The continuity plans must include the establishment and maintenance of adequate data recovery processes and data restore testing to prove data recoverability.
+
+# 30. ICT SERVICE PROVIDER MANAGEMENT
+
+The Head of Department must ensure that -
+
+a) There is a process to evaluate ICT service providers who have access to sensitive data or hold sensitive data or a have responsibility for ICT infrastructures to ensure the protection of the data and infrastructure.
+b) Security requirements are included in the contracts of the service provider (Data encryption, multifactor authentication)
+
+APPROVED BY THE MINISTER FOR THE PUBLIC SERVICE AND ADMINISTRATION
+
+
+
+MR T.W. NXESI, MP
+ACTING MINISTER FOR THE PUBLIC SERVICE AND ADMINISTRATION
+DATE: $c-11061>032$
\ No newline at end of file
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@@ -0,0 +1,417 @@
+
+
+GOVERNMENT SECURITYREGULATOR(GSR)
+
+MINIMUM PHYSICALSECURITY STANDARDS(MPSS)
+
+# FOREWORD:
+
+MINIMUM PHYSICAL SECURITY STANDARDS (MPSS) 2009
+
+Government ultimately is responsible for ensuring both the ‘freedom and security of the person as stated in Section 12 of the Constitution. In doing so, government must take cognisance of a variety of factors and ensure the existence of relevant legislation.The South African Police Service therefor is mandated by the Constitution and secure lives of SA citizens and property.
+
+In 2000 Cabinet further enhanced the role of SAPS and specifically/explicitly mandated us to regulate physical security in the government, parastatals as well as National Key Points. In response to this, the SAPS formed the Division: Protection and Security Services (PSS) to focus on all security and protection functions. PSS is now the cornerstone in coordinating and supports the implementation of physical security standard and administration of the National Key Points Act 103 of 1980. PSS is a catalyst to synchronize the provision of physical security, regulate security within Government sector and National Key Points and harness the multi disciplinary approach in order to align all physical security operations to the legislative framework.
+
+The South African Police Service has through a consultation process with the affected stakeholders, compiled: Minimum Physical Security Standards for implementation by all organs of state. The Minimum Physical Security Standards provide guidance on the required minimum levels of physical security. Also, provided herewith is annexures designed to provide guidelines on the different types of installations and security requirements.
+
+Whilst the minimum are not legally enforceable, they are necessary. Furthermore minimum standards are a starting point towards regulations which will be enforceable and binding. Minimum standards therefor are import in ensuring that institutions are able to properly gear themselves for compliance once the regulations have been promulgated.
+
+The Minimum Physical Security Standards are some cornerstones of our security, when implemented, they will represent a solid first line of defence. The attached annexures will be reviewed annually, it is expected that minor changes will be effected to ensure that they are in line with existing security developments.
+
+The Minimum Physical Security Standards will be reviewed every five years to ensure that they remain consistent with our security measures.
+
+The Minimum Physical Security Standards are promulgated by the National Commissioner of the South Africa Police Service for implementation within the Government Sector, Parastatals and National Key Points. Security is an operational responsibility of every institution. Institutions must continuously conduct vulnerability and security risk assessment in order to mount equivalent protection and security. Furthermore, government departments as well as municipalities are also required to continue to take important steps that will identify risks and assure the protection of municipal buildings.
+
+I wish to thank all the stakeholders that provided inputs when the Minimum Physical Security Standards were compiled as well as the Government Sector Security Council who consolidated and ratified the final standard.
+
+I urge all organs of state all Security Managers to use these standards and also to participate in the processes set to review the Minimum Physical Security Standards.
+
+
+
+ACTING NATIONAL COMMISSIONER: SOUTH AFRICAN POLICE SERVICE DEPUTY NATIONAL COMMISSIONER
+
+# EDITORIAL:
+
+# PREFACE
+
+In 2000 Cabinet enhanced the role of SAPS and specifically/explicitly mandated Protection & Security Services to regulate physical security in the government, parastatals as well as National Key Points. It was our approach to first develop the Minimum Physical Security Standards to be promulgated by the National Commissioner of the South African Police for implementation within Government Sector, Parastatals and National Key Points.
+
+Government Security Regulator has through a consultation process with the affected stakeholders compiled Minimum Physical Security Standards to provide guidance on the required minimum levels of physical security. Also reference here is made to researched annexures designed to provide guidelines on the different types of installations and security requirements. The annexures will be reviewed annually and the Minimum Physical Security Standards every five years. The annexures will be available on request and any other information on the annexures can be directed to SAS@saps.org.za Tel: 012 400 6054 Fax 012 400 7053. As the chairperson of the Government Sector Security Council, I wish to extend our gratitude to the council for the work and assistance to ensure the final approval of the MPSS.
+
+In the course of 2003, the South African Cabinet approved the mandated functions and broad structure of the new Protection and Security Services Division of the SAPS. These functions led to the establishment of the Component: Government Security Regulator (GSR) component. The GSR functions will be to regulate the service of all existent and newly identified Strategic Installations and the administration of the National Key Points Act.
+
+The Government Security Regulator will perform these functions at national and provincial departments (excluding NIA, SASS and the SANDF), Public Entities, Parastatals and private entities which are classified as National Key Points.
+
+The Government Security Regulator (GSR) was mandated to compile and implement the Minimum Physical Security Standards (MPSS) as an official document on minimum physical security standards, which must be maintained at all departments / institutions.
+
+Any comments and/or recommendations in respect of this standard should be forwarded in writing to the Chairperson of the Government Sector Security Council (GSSC). All the representatives to the GSSC are responsible for ensuring that the document and feedback is received from all of their cluster members.
+
+# Regards
+
+# TABLE OF CONTENTS
+
+Chapter 9: Review and Update process Chapter 10: Monitoring Chapter 11: Enforcement
+
+hapter 1: Introduction hapter 2: Definitions and Abbreviations hapter 3: Functions, Roles and Responsibilities on application of security measures 3.1 The Role and Responsibilities of South African Police Service 3.2 The Role and Responsibilities of National Intelligence Agency 3.3 The Role and Responsibilities of Department of Public Works 3.4 The Role and Responsibilities of COMSEC 3.5 The Role and Responsibilities of Government Sector Security Council 3.6 The Role and Responsibilities of the Owner of a Department/Institution 3.7 The Role and Responsibilities of Security Manager 3.8 Functions of the Security Committee 3.9 Functions and Responsibilities of PSIRA
+Chapter 4: Minimum Physical Security Standards
+Chapter 5: Security Policy
+Chapter 6: Physical Security Training and Awareness
+Chapter 7: Physical Security Breaches
+Chapter 8: Contingency Planning
+
+# CHAPTER 1
+
+# INTRODUCTION
+
+# 1.1 STATEMENT OF PURPOSE
+
+The primary purpose of this directive is to provide guidance to the security managers of the departments and institutions with regards to the implementation and compliance in respect to minimum physical security standards required. The standards is designed to assist security managers in coordinating and managing compliance within the minimum physical security standards as required in internal physical security policy, procedures, overall efficiency and effectiveness of the physical security programme of the department or institution.
+
+# 1.2 SCOPE
+
+The MPSS is aimed for use at all Government Department, National Key Points and Strategic Installations. The guide will assist all security managers in reviewing their physical security related aspects on their respective departments or institutions. All organizational resources, i.e. people, assets and physical protection of information, are covered in this document.
+
+# 1.3 LEGISLATIVE REQUIREMENTS AND DIRECTIVES
+
+1.3.1 South African Police Services Act, 1995 (Act No 58 of 1995)
+1.3.2 National Key Point Act, 1980 (Act No 102 of 1980)
+1.3.3 Control of Access to Public Premises and Vehicle Act, 1985
+(Act No 53 of 1985)
+1.3.4 Protection of Information Act, 1982 (Act No 84 of 1982)
+1.3.5 Public Finance Management Act, 1999(Act No 1 of 1999
+1.3.6 Constitution of the Republic of South Africa, 1996 (Act No 108 of 1996)
+1.3.7 Public Service Act and Regulations 2001
+1.3.8 Criminal Procedure Act, 1977 (Act No 51 of 1977)
+1.3.9 Private Security Industry Regulation Act, 2001 (Act No 56 of 2001)
+1.3.10 Firearm Control Act, 2000 (Act No 60 of 2000)
+1.3.11 Occupational Health and Safety Act, 1993 (Act No 85 of 1993)
+1.3.12 Minimum Information Security Standards
+
+# CHAPTER 2
+
+# DEFINITIONS AND ABBREVIATIONS
+
+2.1 IN THIS DOCUMENT, UNLESS THE CONTEXT OTHERWISE INDICATES:
+2.1.1 Business Continuity Planning, includes the development of plans, measures, procedures and arrangements to ensure minimal or no interruption of the availability of critical services and assets.
+2.1.2 Classified information, means sensitive information which, in the national interest, is held by, produced or is under the control of the state, or which concerns the state and which must by reasons of its sensitive nature be exempt from disclosure and must enjoy protection against compromise.
+2.1.3 Criminal Record Check, means an investigation to determine the criminal record of an individual to determine his/her criminal record status.
+2.1.4 Compromise, means disclosing, destroying, removing, modifying or interrupting assets without the necessary authorization.
+2.1.5 Comsec, means the institution identified as Electronic Communication Security (Pty) Ltd established in terms of section 2 of the Electronic Communications Security Act, 2002 (Act No 68 of 2002).
+2.1.6 Defensive Counter Intelligence, means proactive measures conducted to neutralize the effectiveness of foreign intelligence operations to protect classified information and terrorism aimed at or against personnel, strategic installations and resources of the Republic of SA in accordance with the National Strategic Intelligence Act, 1994 (Act No 39 of 1994).
+
+2.1.7 Directives, means the Minimum Physical Security Standard (MPSS).
+
+2.1.8 Institution, means any organ of state as defined in section 239 of the Constitution, 1996 (Act No 108 of 1996), including, but not limited to, any public entity as defined in section 1 of the Public Finance Management Act, 1999 (Act No 1 of 1999).
+2.1.9 Strategic Installation, means any institution which has been declared by the minister.
+2.1.10 MISS, means the minimum information security standards as approved by cabinet on 4 December 1996.
+2.1.11 Owner, means the HOD/CEO of department/institution municipal manager.
+2.1.11 Physical Security, means the use of physical measures to prevent and delay unauthorized intrusion and to protect assets and personnel, detect any attempt or actual break in the physical security environment.
+2.1.12 Risk, means the likelihood of a threat materializing by exploitation of an event or incident to create vulnerability.
+
+2.1.13 Physical Security implies, but is not limited to:-
+
+1. Physical security measures for the protection of information
+2. Personnel security awareness of physical security matters
+3. Contingency planning
+4. Criminal Record check
+5. Dealing with security breaches relating to physical
+security matters
+6. Security investigations
+7. Auditing and compliance checks to ensure security standards.
+
+2.1.14 Physical Security Grading different levels of physical security measures of the structure.
+2.1.15 Security breach, means the negligent or intentional transgression or failure to comply with physical security measures.
+2.1.16 Security evaluation, means the process to determine the security threat analysis encompassing physical security appraisal, topographical analysis and security appreciation analysis.
+2.1.17 Security Policy, means a formal set of rules that governs the security of an institution’s premises, assets, technology and information assets.
+2.1.18 Threat, means any potential event or act, deliberate or accidental, that could cause injury to persons, compromise the physical security or could cause the loss of or damage to assets.
+2.1.19 Threat and Risk Assessment, means the process of doing a security threat analysis, encompassing physical security appraisal, topographical analysis and security appreciation analysis.
+2.2 ABBREVIATIONS
+2.2.1 CEO Chief Executive Officer
+2.2.2 COMSEC Communication Security/ Electronic Communication Security.
+2.2.3 GSR Government Security Regulator
+2.2.4 GSS Government Sector Security
+2.2.5 GSSC Government Sector Security Council
+2.2.6 HOD Head of Department
+2.2.7 MISS Minimum Information Security Standards
+2.2.8 MPSS Minimum Physical Security Standards
+2.2.9 NIA National Intelligence Agency
+
+# CHAPTER 3
+
+FUNCTIONS, ROLES AND RESPONSIBILITIES ON APPLICATION OF SECURITY MEASURES
+
+3.1 THE ROLE AND RESPONSIBILITIES OF SOUTH AFRICAN POLICE SERVICE
+
+2.2.10 NKP
+2.2.11 PSIRA
+2.2.12 SAPS
+2.2.13 SAS
+2.2.14 SASS
+2.2.15 SANDF
+
+National Key Points
+Private Security Industry Regulatory Authority
+South African Police Service
+Security Advisory Service of SAPS
+South African Secret Service
+South African National Defense Force
+
+3.1.1. The SAPS will issue Minimum Physical Security Standards to support institutions in the protection of their installations (including Parastatals, Public and Private Entities).
+
+3.1.2. SAPS is responsible for assisting institutions (including parastatals, public/private entities that fall under the National Key Points environment) in establishing effective physical security within their own environments and to monitor the physical security compliance/ adherence as stipulated in the Minimum Physical Security Standards. To achieve this the SAPS must do the following:
+
+3.1.2.1 Advise institutions with regard to the implementation of Minimum Physical Security Standards and any physical security related issues.
+
+3.1.2.2 Audit physical security through conducting evaluations and assessments as part of security appraisals, in order to:
+
+1. Determine the overall standard of physical security and security awareness as far as it relates to physical security.
+2. Determine whether the extent to which the aspects of the security policy of the institutions are consistent with the directive of the Minimum Physical Security Standards.
+3. Implementation of the security policy and its effectiveness.
+4. Support the establishment of a physical security emergency reaction capability.
+
+NB: Any intelligence and information security-related issues detected by SAPS (breaches of information security) must be referred to NIA (Advisory Section) for further handling.
+
+3.2 THE ROLE AND RESPONSIBILITIES OF NATIONAL INTELLIGENCE AGENCY
+3.2.1 The National Intelligence Agency is mandated by legislation to coordinate between itself, the South African Secret Services, the South African Police Services and the South African National Defense Force regarding the implementation of defensive counter - intelligence measures at institutions.
+3.2.2 The Agency is responsible for assisting and providing guidance to institutions within its legislative mandate to establish effective information security within their own environments and to monitor their adherence to Minimum Information Security Standards. In fulfilling this, the agency will:
+3.2.2.1 advise institutions on how to identify information that falls within the broader categories of classified information and, therefore, require special protection through classification.
+3.2.2.2 advise institutions on the implementation of and adherence to Minimum Information Security Standards.
+3.2.2.3 assist institutions in ensuring that their security policies include Minimum Information Security Standards.
+3.2.2.4 advise, co-ordinate, audit and exercise control with regard to information security in the public, parastatal and private environment in South Africa (with the exclusion of SAPS, SASS and SANDF responsibilities).
+NB: Any physical security-related issues (breaches, non-compliance) must be referred
+
+to the SAPS for further handling.
+
+3.3 THE ROLE AND RESPONSIBILITIES OF NATIONAL DEPARTMENT OF PUBLIC WORKS
+3.3.1 When providing facilities for institutions, the National Department of Public Works must:
+3.3.1.1 ensure that the requirements of physical security directives relating to contracting are complied with.
+3.3.1.2 ensure that reliability checks are completed by the relevant National Intelligence Structures of private institutions, companies and individuals who may require access to protected and classified information and assets.
+3.3.1.3 ensure that physical security measures as prescribed by SAPS Security Advisory Services for installations of the department/institution, as part of the contracting process, is adhered to.
+3.3.1.4 ensure that security assessments of facilities or drawings/architectural designs thereof are undertaken by the SAPS (SAS) and NIA before any agreement is entered into to procure the property for an institution and all recommendations of the SAPS (SAS) are implemented.
+3.3.1.5 involve the SAPS in all structural improvements done to maintain the minimum physical security levels of the institutions.
+3.4 THE ROLE OF COMSEC (Electronic Communications Security (Pty) Ltd)
+3.4.1 Electronic Communication Security must:
+3.4.1.1 advise and assist institutions on the implementation of the minimum standards relating to communication security contained in the Minimum Information Security Standards, and
+3.4.1.2 assess and report on the application of communication security technical devices in both the public and private sectors.
+3.5 THE ROLE AND RESPONSIBILITIES OF GOVERNMENT SECTOR SECURITY COUNCIL (GSSC)
+3.5.1 The Government Sector Security Council is a consultative structure for regulating physical security training and security provisioning in the Government Sector (including Public/Private Entities, Parastatals and NKPs).
+3.5.2 The functions of the GSSC are the following:
+3.5.2.1 Consolidate the implementation of Government Sector Security through co-ordinating functions and activities that relate to physical security.
+3.5.2.2 Enhance the monitoring and evaluation initiatives of physical security in the government.
+3.5.2.3 Facilitate thorough and effective physical security in government sector buildings and build co-operation between members of the public sector and private sector.
+3.5.2.4 Co-ordinate contingency planning exercises and create a platform for communicating the management of physical security incidents and breaches.
+3.5.2.5 Integrate and co-ordinate related functions, especially the inspections and audits of the different security agencies i.e. NIA, SAPS, PSIRA.
+3.5.2.6 The Council will also enhance understanding of the role of different security agencies such as PSIRA, NIA and SAPS. The GSSC will create an appropriate platform for the liaison of all security managers in the public sector and private sector. NB: Included in the membership of the GSSC are the representatives of the regulatory bodies i.e. National Nuclear Regulator, NERSA, Rail Safety Regulator, PSIRA, Armaments Co-operation of South African (Ltd), SASSETA and NIA.
+3.6 THE ROLE AND RESPONSIBILITIES OF THE OWNER OF DEPARTMENT OR INSTITUTION
+3.6.1 “The owner of department or institution in this regard refer to Head of Department, Chief Executive Officer and Municipality Manager”.
+3.6.1.1 The owner of the department/institution is accountable for the overall physical security under his/her control.
+3.6.1.2 The owner must oversee the development, implementation and maintenance of the security policy as per the needs of the department/ institution.
+3.6.1.3 The owner must ensure that a manager is appointed to manage all security functions and ensure implementation/adherence to Minimum Physical Security Standards.
+3.6.1.4 The owner must ensure that all institutions under him /her have been security evaluated/assessed by SAPS Security Advisory Services.
+3.6.1.5 The owner must ensure that employees and service providers (contractors/consultants) are subjected to reliability record checking process conducted by NIA.
+3.6.1.6 The owner must conduct training and awareness programmes with regard to adherence to the Minimum Physical Security Standards.
+
+3.6.1.7 The owner must ensure that the security section is exposed to appropriate security-related training to empower them in the performance of their functions.
+
+3.6.1.8 The owner must ensure that a Security Committee is established within his/her department/institution.
+
+3.6.1.9 The owner must see to it that a correct reporting structure is in place with regard to reporting of Security breaches.
+
+3.6.1.10 The owner must approve budget as advised by the Security Committee for the recommendations on the security assessment conducted by SAPS (SAS) in the department/institution.
+
+NB: With the assistance of the Security Committee, the owner of the department/ institution must ensure that there is a continuous monitoring of the compliance with this Minimum Physical Security Standards by instituting internal departmental policy or directives.
+
+3.7 RESPONSIBILITIES OF SECURITY MANAGER
+
+3.7.1 The Security Manager must:
+3.7.1.1 Manage all matters relating to the administration and organization of security at the department/institution.
+3.7.1.2 Draft security policy for approval by security committee and head of the institution.
+3.7.1.3 Manage the security component of the department/institution.
+3.7.1.4 Continually monitor all physical security related contracts at the department/institution to ensure compliance with the contract specifications.
+3.7.1.5 Ensure that security assessments/evaluations/threat and risk assessments of the installations are conducted by the SAPS at institutions.
+3.7.1.6 Enhance the awareness of the staff regarding physical security in the department/institution.
+3.7.1.7 Ensure that security audits are conducted every three years.
+3.7.1.8 Analyze the audit results, make recommendations to the head of the department/institution to improve physical security measures and prepare a report for the head of the department/institution for submission to the SAPS regarding the findings.
+3.7.1.9 Consult with the SAPS on any new developments or changes in the physical security environment.
+3.7.1.10 Ensure that applications for criminal record checks are correctly completed before submission to the SAPS.
+3.7.1.11 Act as chairperson of the security committee of the department/ institution.
+3.8. FUNCTIONS OF THE SECURITY COMMITTEE
+3.8.1 The Security Committee must do the following:
+3.8.1.1 Recommend the security policy of the department/institution after having taken the advice provided by SAPS and NIA into account.
+3.8.1.2 Make recommendations to the head of institution regarding the implementation and maintenance of security measures.
+3.8.1.3 Regularly review the security policy of the department/institution, its prioritization thereof as well as information and advice provided by the SAPS and NIA.
+3.8.1.4 Forward the draft policy and any review thereof to the SAPS and NIA for endorsement.
+3.8.1.5 After endorsement by SAPS and NIA, submit the policy or any review thereof to the head of the department/institution for approval.
+3.8.1.6 Ensure the communication of the approved policy to all staff members and relevant consultants and contractors.
+3.8.1.7 Make recommendations to the head of the department/institution regarding directives to be issued by the head of the department/ institution to ensure the implementation of the security policy and any review thereof.
+
+# 3.9. FUNCTIONS AND RESPONSIBILITIES OF PSIRA
+
+The Private Security Industry Regulatory Authority (PSIRA) was established in terms of section 2 of the Act. The primary objects of the Authority are to regulate the private security industry and to exercise effective control over the practice of the occupation of security service providers in the public and national interest of the private security industry itself. Other objects include, inter alia, the following:
+
+3.9.1 To promote a legitimate private security industry which acts in terms of the principles contained in the Constitution and other applicable laws.
+3.9.2 To ensure that all security service providers act in the public and national interest in the rendering of security services.
+3.9.3 To determine and enforce minimum standards of occupational conduct in respect of security service providers.
+3.9.4 To promote high standards in the training of security service providers and prospective security service providers.
+3.9.5 To promote the protection and enforcement of the rights of security officers and other employees in the private security industry.
+3.9.6 To ensure that compliance with existing legislation by security service providers is being promoted and controlled through a process of active monitoring and investigation of the affairs of security providers.
+
+# CHAPTER 4
+
+# MINIMUM PHYSICAL SECURITY STANDARDS
+
+# 4.1 STANDARD STATEMENT
+
+These are minimum physical security related standards that must be adhered to during implementation process. Those standards that may impact on information security have been addressed through the Minimum Information Security Standards. If any standard contained in the Minimum Physical Security Standards document is unclear with regard to the implementation, GSR can be contacted.
+
+4.2 PHYSICAL SECURITY
+
+4.2.1 Physical Security Measures:
+
+The HOD/CEO of a department/institution is responsible for the physical security of the facilities/assets of the institution and must ensure that:
+
+4.2.1.1 The budget of the department/institution provides for the costs of implementing proper physical security measures.
+
+4.2.1.2 The placement of personnel, assets and functions in existing and newly designed facilities is done in a manner that is conducive to the provision of effective and efficient physical security measures within the department/institution.
+
+4.2.1.3 The integration of physical security measures occurs in the early process of selecting, designing or modifying facilities of the institution. Such integration of security measures must entail:
+
+1. The selection, design and modification of facilities in order to facilitate physical security measures.
+2. The demarcation and control of areas at the facilities.
+3. The installation of the necessary physical security equipment based on the assessments by SAPS-SAS.
+4. The inclusion of the necessary security specifications for tender documentation process.
+
+4.2.1.4 The implementation of physical security measures to:
+
+1. Delay, detect or prevent unauthorized intrusion to a department/institution.
+2. Activate appropriate responses to such attempts or actual gaining of unauthorized intrusion.
+3. The implementation of physical security measures to safeguard employees contractors and visitors from harm.
+4. The secure storage, transportation and disposal of assets of the department/institution.
+5. The continuous review of physical security measures at facilities of the department/institution in order to reflect changes in the environment and take advantage of new costeffective technologies.
+
+# CHAPTER 5
+
+# SECURITY POLICY
+
+5.1 REQUIREMENTS FOR A SECURITY POLICY
+5.1.1 It must be a clearly defined document that encompasses the Minimum Physical Security Standards.
+5.1.2 It must cover all aspects of physical security and provide for different levels of physical security grading.
+5.1.3 It must set out the obligations of the different role players with regard to the implementation of the policy.
+5.1.4 The policy must clearly give a direct guide to all personnel and relevant contractors and consultants of the department/institution to adhere / comply with the Minimum Physical Security Standards.
+5.1.5 The policy must clearly specify that failure by an employee to comply with the policy and the Minimum Physical Security Standards constitutes serious misconduct and that disciplinary measures must be taken against such a person.
+5.1.6 Security Manager to develop operating standard to ensure that they achieve operational objectives.
+
+NB: These can be achieved through exposing employees, contractors and consultants to physical security awareness programmes, by assigning to specific officials the responsibility to develop, co-ordinate and manage physical security training and awareness programmes, including monitoring the compliance with the Minimum Physical Security Standards.
+
+# 5.2 REPORTING ON SECURITY POLICY
+
+5.2.1 The Security Manager of a department/institution must report to the HOD/CEO of a department/institution on a quarterly basis on the extent to which the policy has been implemented and its prescripts are being complied with and identify any difficulties experienced with the implementation of the policy and make recommendations to the HOD/CEO on how to address those difficulties.
+
+5.2.2 The HOD/CEO must take the necessary steps to address the difficulties identified in the report and must report to the SAPS, including his or her comments.
+
+# CHAPTER 6
+
+PHYSICAL SECURITY TRAINING AND AWARENESS
+
+6.1 DEVELOPMENT OF TRAINING AND AWARENESS PROGRAMMES
+
+6.1.1 The security manager of the department/institution is responsible for developing and implementing physical security training and awareness programmes for the department/institution in close cooperation with:
+
+6.1.1.1 The security committee and/or Joint Planning Committee of that department/institution.
+
+6.1.1.2 The training component of that department/institution.
+
+6.1.1.3 SAPS and NIA security related training and awareness programmes.
+
+6.2 IMPLEMENTATION OF SECURITY TRAINING AND AWARENESS PROGRAMS
+
+6.2.1 The Security Manager must:
+
+6.2.1.1 Arrange and conduct the physical security awareness programmes within the department/institution.
+
+6.2.1.2 Determine the needs for physical security training and awareness of personnel, contractors and consultants, make recommendations to the HOD/CEO of the department/institution in this regard and ensure that the training, as approved by the head of the department/institution, takes place.
+
+6.2.1.3 Regularly consult with SAPS (Government Security Regulator) to determine any new developments or changes in the physical security training and awareness fields.
+
+# CHAPTER 7
+
+# PHYSICAL SECURITY BREACHES
+
+# 7.1 SECURITY INCIDENTS/BREACHES REPORTING PROCESS
+
+7.1.1 The Security Manager must ensure that all physical security breaches, including the prevented incidents/breaches, are reported to the SAPS for investigation and further handling. Recommended reporting structures stand as follows:
+
+7.1.1.1 Crime related incidents must be reported to the nearest Police Station.
+
+7.1.1.2 Information security related incidents must be reported to NIA.
+
+NB: Reporting of physical security breaches as covered in all security dimensions must at all times be dealt with using the highest degree of confidentiality to protect the reporting individual from any injustice or harm.
+
+7.1.2 The Security Manager must ensure that all staff members are informed, by means of a physical security awareness program, about the procedure that must be followed in the event of the detection of a breach or suspected breach of physical security.
+
+7.2 PHYSICAL SECURITY INCIDENTS/BREACHES RESPONSE PROCESS
+
+Every breach of physical security must be inquired into in order to:
+
+.2.1.1 Conduct proper investigation process.
+
+7.2.1.2 Assess damage that was caused or could possibly have been caused.
+
+7.2.1.3 Make recommendations regarding steps to be taken to prevent the breach from re-occurring.
+
+7.2.2 All breaches or suspected breaches of security that constitute misconduct by an employee must be dealt with by the head of the department/institution through taking appropriate disciplinary measures against the employee concerned.
+
+7.2.3 All breaches of physical security that may possibly constitute a criminal offence must be referred to the nearest police station for investigation.
+
+# CHAPTER 8
+
+CONTINGENCY PLANNING
+
+CONTINGENCY PLANNING
+
+8.1.1 An HOD/CEO of a department/institution must have a contingency plan to provide for the continued availability of critical services and assets if a threat materializes and to provide for appropriate steps and procedures to respond to an emergency situation to ensure the safety of employees and visitors.
+8.1.2 The plan must:
+8.1.2.1 Set out measures to ensure the regular review and testing of the plan. Ensure that the emergency evacuation procedures are made available for all possible emergencies.
+8.1.2.3 Ensure that there is an appropriate number of trained members to assist with evacuation when an emergency occur.
+8.1.2.4 Ensure that equipment is available to assist with evacuation in an emergency.
+8.1.2.5 Ensure that awareness programmes include emergency evacuation.
+8.1.2.6 Ensure that emergency procedures are available in all passages, control rooms and at emergency escape routes.
+8.1.2.7 Ensure proper marking of emergency escape routes.
+8.1.2.8 Include floor plans of the department/institution.
+8.1.2.9 Ensure that assembly points are demarcated, accessible and well-known.
+8.1.2.10 Ensure that signals and signs are clearly defined and communicated.
+
+# CHAPTER 9
+
+# REVIEW AND UPDATE PROCESS
+
+9.1 REVIEW AND UPDATE
+9.1.1 The Minimum Physical Security Standards will be reviewed by the SAPS (Government Security Regulator) every five years.
+9.1.2 The annexure to MPSS will be reviewed annually to ensure that they are in line with the new technology.
+9.1.3 Communication will take place through the GSSC to all relevant role players.
+
+# CHAPTER 10
+
+# MONITORING
+
+# 10.1 MONITORING
+
+10.1.1 Audits and inspections will be conducted by the SAPS (Government Security Regulator) monitoring compliance with Minimum Physical Security Standards.
+10.1.2 Certain observations may have such a significant impact, that immediate corrective action required. In such cases the auditing shall monitor the condition until satisfactory corrective action had been taken.
+10.1.3 Follow-up inspections/audits is the process by which the auditor determines the adequacy, effectiveness and timeliness of actions taken by management on reported engagement observations and recommendations made.
+
+# CHAPTER 11
+
+# ENFORCEMENT
+
+Senior Management, Security Manager and all employees within the department/ institution are responsible for enforcing these Minimum Physical Security Standards.
+
+Non-compliance/infringement of these directives must be regarded as misconduct and must be dealt with in accordance with the disciplinary code of the relevant department/institution.
+
+Annexures will be provided separatly as it will be reviewed annually.
+
+Annexure a: Grading of National Key Points Annexure b: Grading of Buildings Annexure c: Grading of Residences Annexure d: Grading of Newly Built Residences
+
+
+
+
\ No newline at end of file
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+++ b/dataset/data/docs/Minimum Information Security Standards (MISS).pdf-9e5f96e5-5d6e-4a6a-9270-72eaa9809f3d.md
@@ -0,0 +1,1481 @@
+# MINIMUM
+
+# INFORMATION SECURITY
+
+STANDARDS
+
+# CABINET APPROVAL
+
+On 4 December 1996 Cabinet approved the Minimum Information Security Standards document as national information security policy
+
+# PREFACE
+
+The world and especially South Africa has changed dramatically during the last few years, with profound implications for our society, our government, the South African Police Service, the Defence and Intelligence Communities. Our understanding of the range of issues that impact on national security is evolving. Economic and environmental issues are of increasing concern and compete with traditional political and military issues for resources and attention.
+
+The Republic of South Africa has to serve and protect its own interests just like every other sovereign state in the modern world. The National Intelligence Agency (NIA) has a statutory responsibility to protect the interests of the State through counter-intelligence measures. (National Strategic Intelligence Act 39 of 1994) Counter-intelligence embodies two distinctive dimensions, namely security (the defensive) and counter espionage (the offensive dimension).
+
+With these imperatives in mind, NIA in conjunction with the other members of the intelligence community have focused their attention on the process used to formulate and implement information security policies on a national basis. The processes being used to formulate policies and deliver information security services must be sufficiently flexible to facilitate change.
+
+Our need for secrecy and therefore information security measures in a democratic and open society with transparency in its governmental administration according to the policy proposals regarding the intended Open Democracy Act have been taken into account.
+
+Our security standards and procedures must result in the fair and equitable treatment of those upon whom we rely to guard the nation's security. (Interim Constitution have been taken into account).
+
+Our security policies must realistically match the threats against the country and its people.
+
+Our security policies, practices, and procedures must provide the needed information security in a cost effictive way that will benefit the socio- economic development of the country.
+
+With these aspects in mind the Minimum Information Security Standard (MISS) was compiled as an official government policy document on information security, which must be maintained by all institutions who handle sensitive/ classified material of the Republic. This will ensure that the national interests are protected.
+
+Any comments or recommendations in respect of this policy must please be forwarded in writing to the Chairperson of the Functional Security Committee of NICOC.
+
+All amendments to this policy will be issued by the National Intelligence Agency being the department nationally responsible for counter-intelligence. Government departments, institutions, parastatals and private companies will be responsible for the distribution of such amendments within their own organisations.
+
+# T A B L E O F C O N T E N T S
+
+# CHAPTER PAGE
+
+1. INTRODUCTION 1
+
+2. DEFINITIONS 4
+
+3. PROVISION AND APPLICATION OF SECURIT MEASURES 15
+
+1. RESPONSIBILITIES OF THE HEAD OF AN INSTITUTION 152. RESPONSIBILITY OF THE HEAD OF THE SECURITYCOMPONENT 153. OPERATIONAL SECURITY PERSONNEL 17
+
+# 4. DOCUMENT SECURITY 18
+
+1. CLASSIFICATION AND RECLASSIFICATION OF DOCUMENTS 18
+2. ACCESS TO CLASSIFIED INFORMATION 20
+3. HANDLING OF CLASSIFIED DOCUMENTS 21
+4. TRANSMITTING DOCUMENTS BY MEANS OF FACSIMILE 23
+5. TRANSMITTING DOCUMENTS BY COMPUTER 24
+6. DISPATCHING CLASSIFIED DOCUMENTS BY
+COURIER 24
+7. DISPATCHING CLASSIFIED DOCUMENTS BY MAIL 25
+8. SEALING OF CLASSIFIED DOCUMENTS BEFORE
+DISPATCH 25
+9. BULK CONVEYANCE OF CLASSIFIED DOCUMENTS 27
+9.1 Note 27
+9.2 The bulk conveyance of classified
+documents by train 27
+9.3 Diplomatic bags 29
+10. STORAGE OF CLASSIFIED DOCUMENTS 32
+11. REGISTRIES AND FILES 35
+12. REMOVAL OF CLASSIFIED DOCUMENTS FROM
+PREMISES 38
+13. THE TYPING OF CLASSIFIED DOCUMENTS 38
+
+14. DESTRUCTION OF CLASSIFIED DOCUMENTS 38
+
+15. MAKING PHOTOCOPIES OF CLASSIFIED DOCUMENTS 39
+
+16. THE HANDLING OF RESTRICTED DOCUMENTS 40
+
+17. CONTINGENCY PLANNING 41
+
+# 5. PERSONNEL SECURITY: GUIDELINES WITH RESPECT TO 42 SECURITY VETTING
+
+1. INTRODUCTION 42
+2. VETTING CRITERIA 42
+3. SECURITY SCREENING IN RESPECT OF IMMIGRANTS AND PERSONS WITH MORE THAN ONE CITIZENSHIP 43
+4. SCREENING / VETTING OF PERSONS WHO HAVE LIVED/ WORKED ABROAD FOR LONG PERIODS 45
+5. SECURITY SCREENINGS: CONTRACTORS 46
+6. PROCEDURE FOR REQUESTING SECURITY SCREENINGS 47
+7. PERIOD OF VALIDITY OF SECURITY CLEARANCES 47
+8. TRANSFERABILITY OF CLEARANCES 47
+9. RESPONSIBILITIES OF THE SCREENING AUTHORITY 48
+10. RESPONSIBILITIES OF THE HEAD OF THE REQUESTING INSTITUTION 48
+11. OFFICERS TRAVELLING ABROAD 50
+12. PROTECTION OF EXECUTIVE OFFICIALS 50
+13. STATUTORY AND OTHER PROVISIONS FOR THE PROTECTION OF INFORMATION 50
+
+# 6. COMMUNICATION SECURITY 51
+
+7. COMPUTER SECURITY 5
+
+8. PHYSICAL SECURITY MEASURES 55
+
+1. ACCESS CONTROL 552. KEY CONTROL AND COMBINATION LOCKS 563. MAINTENANCE SERVICES, REPAIRS AND THE CLEANINGOF BUILDINGS/OFFICES 57
+
+# iii
+
+4. CONTINGENCY PLANNING 57
+
+9. BREACHES OF SECURITY 58
+
+APPENDICES
+
+A DIVISION OF RESPONSIBILITIES WITH RESPECT TO THE PRACTICE
+OF PROTECTIVE SECURITY IN THE RSA 59
+B DECLARATION OF SECRECY 61
+C REGISTER FOR THE REMOVAL OF CLASSIFIED MATERIAL 62
+D APPLICATION FORM (Z204) FOR SECURITY VETTING 63
+
+# CHAPTER 1
+
+# INTRODUCTION
+
+1. The need for secrecy and therefore security measures in a democratic and open society, with transparency in its governmental administration, is currently the subject of much debate, and will continue to be for a long time.
+
+2. However, the issue need not be controversial, since the intended Open Democracy Act (not yet promulgated at the time of going to press) itself will acknowledge the need for protection of sensitive information, and therefore, will provide for justified exemption from disclosure of such information.
+
+Although exemptions will have to be restricted to the minimum (according to the policy proposals regarding the intended Open Democracy Act), that category of information which will be exempted, as such needs protection. The mere fact that information is exempted from disclosure in terms of the Open Democracy Act, does not provide it with sufficient protection. Such information will always be much sought after by certain interest groups or even individuals, with sufficient access to espionage expertise, and highly sophisticated technological backing. The extent of espionage against the new South Africa should never be under estimated - it has actually escalated alarmingly during the past few years.
+
+4.
+
+Where information is exempted from disclosure, it implies that security measures will apply in full. This document is aimed at exactly that need: providing the necessary procedures and measures to protect such information. It is clear that security procedures do not concern all information and are therefore not contrary to transparency, but indeed necessary for responsible governance.
+
+5.
+
+The procedures and measures taken up in this volume are based on general security principles. It should, however, be remembered that in drawing up security directives it was not possible for the National Intelligence Agency (NIA) to take into account the particular circumstances and operations of each of the institutions where classified information is handled. Institutions should therefore compile their own rules of procedure to fit their own circumstances and operations. In the development of an own effective information security system, institutions should use this volume as a minimum standard on which to base it.
+
+6.
+
+As stated above, this document lays down a minimum standard for the handling of classified information in all institutions, so that various institutions may send classified information to one another in the knowledge that the risk of compromising such information has been eliminated.
+
+7.
+
+An effective security system, based on certain principles, is characterised by the following features:
+
+7.1
+
+Security prescriptions must be simple, comprehensible and capable of being carried out in practice.
+
+7.2
+
+Security prescriptions should not needlessly interfere with the actions of the individual. If this happens, the goodwill of the individual, which is essential for effective security, can be repressed. This can also lead to individuals treating security measures with disrespect.
+
+7.3
+
+In addition to what has been mentioned above, it is necessary to strive for a reconciliation between the requirements of sound administration with those of effective security.
+
+7.4
+
+It is necessary to constantly guard against both the overclassification and the underclassification of information. Misuse of classifications can result in the system being treated with contempt. The consequence will be carelessness with respect to the security system.
+
+8.
+
+The security advisers of the National Intelligence Agency (NIA) are, in accordance with the responsibilities assigned to them (see Annexure A), constantly available to assist institutions in drawing up their own procedural directions. The security advisers may be contacted at the following address:
+
+The Director-General
+National Intelligence Agency
+Private Bag X87
+Pretoria
+0001
+
+(Attention: Information Security)
+
+# Telephone number: (012) 317-5911
+
+Although every effort has been made to take into consideration different and new perspectives on security issues, this document is by no means final. To reach finality on all matters would have meant that authorising and distributing this document would have had to be postponed indefinitely, while it is being awaited urgently by all institutions. Matters that still need to be ironed out, e.g. criteria for the different security classifications, definitions of new terms and concepts related to the security field, etc, will receive attention after this volume has been issued and will be contained in a revised edition at a later stage.
+
+10.
+
+This document replaces the former Guidelines for the Protection of Classified Information (SP 2/8/1) of March 1988.
+
+# CHAPTER 2
+
+# DEFINITIONS
+
+1.
+
+# ACCESS CONTROL
+
+The process by which access to a particular area is controlled or restricted to authorised personnel only. This is synonymous with controlled access. See the Control of Access to Public Premises and Vehicles Act (Act 53 of 1985) as amended.
+
+# 2. AUTHOR
+
+The head of an institution, or the person acting on his behalf, who prepares, generates, or initially classifies a document or has it classified.
+
+3.
+
+# CLASSIFICATION
+
+3.1
+
+All official matters requiring the application of security measures (exempted from disclosure) must be classified "Restricted", "Confidential", "Secret" or "Top Secret".
+
+3.2
+
+Upgrading, downgrading and regrading of documents may take place and will involve changing the classification in accordance with the system prescribed (see Chapter 4, paragraph 1.4).
+
+3.3
+
+To avoid confusion, it is essential for all bodies/institutions to maintain uniformity with respect to the classification system, and to assign to documents the same rating in accordance with the degree of security warranted by the contents and nature of the documents. The security classifications as defined below should therefore be applied by all institutions. By "document" is meant those matters as set forth in the definitions section of the Protection of Information Act (Act 84 of 1982).
+
+3.4
+
+The classifications mentioned above are described below.
+
+Note: Security measures are not intended and should not be applied to cover up maladministration, corruption, criminal actions, etc, or to protect individuals/officials involved in such cases. The following descriptions should be understood accordingly:
+
+# 3.4.1 Restricted
+
+Definition: RESTRICTED is that classification allocated to all information that may be used by malicious/opposing/hostile elements to hamper activities or inconvenience an institution or an individual.
+
+Test: Intelligence/information must be classified as RESTRICTED when the compromise thereof could hamper or cause an inconvenience to the individual or institution.
+
+Explanation: RESTRICTED is used when the compromise of information can cause inconvenience to a person or institution, but cannot hold a threat of damage. However, compromise of such information can frustrate everyday activities.
+
+# 3.4.2 Confidential
+
+Definition: The classification CONFIDENTIAL should be limited to information that may be used by malicious/opposing/hostile elements to harm the objectives and functions of an individual and/or institution.
+
+Test: Intelligence/information must be classified CONFIDENTIAL when compromise thereof can lead to:
+
+the frustration of the effective functioning of information or operational systems; undue damage to the integrity and/or reputation of individuals; the disruption of ordered administration within an institution; and adverse effect on the non-operational relations between institutions.
+
+Explanation: CONFIDENTIAL is used when compromise of information results in:
+
+undue damage to the integrity of a person or institution, but not entailing a threat of serious damage. The compromise of such information, however, can frustrate everyday functions, lead to an inconvenience and bring about wasting of funds;
+
+the inhibition of systems, the periodical disruption of administration (eg logistical problems, delayed personnel administration, financial relapses, etc) that inconvenience the institution, but can be overcome; and
+
+the orderly, routine co-operation between institutions and/or individuals being harmed or delayed, but not bringing functions to a halt.
+
+# 3.4.3 Secret
+
+Definition: SECRET is the classification given to information that may be used by malicious/opposing/hostile elements to disrupt the objectives and functions of an institution and/or state.
+
+Test: Intelligence/information must be classified as SECRET when the compromise thereof:
+
+can disrupt the effective execution of information or operational planning and/or plans;
+can disrupt the effective functioning of an institution;
+can damage operational relations between institutions and diplomatic relations between states;
+can endanger a person's life.
+
+Explanation: SECRET is used when the compromise of information:
+
+can result in the disruption of the planning and fulfilling of tasks, ie the objectives of a state or institution in such a way that it cannot properly fulfil its normal functions; and can disrupt the operational co-operation between institutions in such a way that it threatens the functioning of one or more of these institutions.
+
+# 3.4.4 Top Secret
+
+Definition: TOP SECRET is the classification given to information that can be used by malicious/opposing/hostile elements to neutralise the objectives and functions of institutions and/or state.
+
+Test: Intelligence/information must be classified TOP SECRET when the compromise thereof:
+
+can disrupt the effective execution of information or operational planning and/or plans;
+can seriously damage operational relations between institutions;
+can lead to the discontinuation of diplomatic relations between states; and can result in the declaration of war.
+
+Explanation $\because$ TOP SECRET is used when the compromise of information results in :
+
+the functions of a state and/or institution being brought to a halt by disciplinary measures, sanctions, boycotts or mass action;
+the severing of relations between states; and
+a declaration of war.
+
+4.
+
+# CLASSIFIED INFORMATION
+
+Sensitive information which in the national interest, is held by, is produced in, or is under the control of the State, or which concerns the State and which must by reasons of its sensitive nature, be exempted from disclosure and must enjoy protection against compromise.
+
+5.
+
+# CLASSIFY/RECLASSIFY
+
+The grading/arrangement or regrading/re-arrangement of a document, in accordance with its sensitivity or in compliance with a security requirement.
+
+6.
+
+# COMMUNICATION SECURITY
+
+That condition created by the conscious provision and application of security measures for the protection of classified communication.
+
+# 7. COMPROMISE
+
+The unauthorised disclosure/exposure or loss of sensitive or classified information, or exposure of sensitive operations, people or places, whether by design or through negligence.
+
+8.
+
+# COMPUTER SECURITY
+
+That condition created in a computer environment by the conscious provision and application of security measures. This includes information concerning the procedure for the procurement and protection of equipment.
+
+Everything that could influence the following is considered to be relevant to computer security:
+
+The confidentiality of data (an individual may have access only to that data to which he/she is supposed to).
+The integrity of data (data must not be tampered with and nobody may pose as another - e.g. in the electronic mail environment, etc).
+The availability of systems.
+
+9.
+
+# CONTINGENCY PLANNING
+
+The prior planning of any action that has the purpose to prevent, and/or combat, or counteract the effect and results of an emergency situation where lives, property or information are threatened. This includes compiling, approving and distributing a formal, written plan, and the practise thereof, in order to identify and rectify gaps in the plan, and to familiarise personnel and co-ordinators with the plan.
+
+10.
+
+# CONTROLLING BODY
+
+The body which in terms of the rationalisation agreement, is responsible for controlling the security position within its sphere of responsibility.
+
+11.
+
+# COPYING / DUPLICATING / REPRODUCING
+
+The making of a copy of any document, whether by copying it out by hand, by photographic means or by any other means.
+
+# 12. DECLARATION OF SECRECY
+
+An undertaking given by a person who will have, has or has had access to classified information, that he/she will treat such information as secret
+(see Appendix B).
+
+# 13. DELEGATE
+
+A delegate is a person who is granted certain powers/authorities or functions in order to represent a higher authority in performing a specific task.
+
+# 14. DELEGATION
+
+Delegation is the transfer of authority, powers or functions from one person/institution to another.
+
+Delegation takes place in order to effect division of labour since it is physically impossible for a person/institution/body himself/herself to exercise all the powers/authorities assigned to him/her.
+
+Delegatus delegare non potest - A delegate cannot delegate.
+
+15.
+
+# DESTRUCTION OF CLASSIFIED MATERIAL
+
+The doing away with/expunging or destroying of classified documents.
+
+16.
+
+# DISPATCHING CLASSIFIED DOCUMENTS
+
+The transfer of classified documents, in any manner whatever or by any channel whatever, from one point to another.
+
+# 17. DOCUMENT SECURITY
+
+That condition which is created by the conscious provision and application of security measures in order to protect classified documents.
+
+# 18. DOCUMENT
+
+In terms of the Protection of Information Act (Act 84 of 1982) a document is:
+
+any note or writing, whether produced by hand or by printing, typewriting or any other similar process;
+any copy, plan, picture, sketch or photographic or other representation of any place or article;
+any disc, tape, card, perforated roll or other device in or on which sound or any signal has been recorded for reproduction.
+
+# 19. EMPLOYER INSTITUTION
+
+The institution, whether a public, parastatal or private undertaking (where applicable), that employs any worker, official or officer who actually has, or may probably have, access to classified matters.
+
+# 20. ESPIONAGE
+
+The methods by which states, organisations and individuals, attempt to obtain classified information to which they are not entitled.
+
+# 21. HEAD OF AN INSTITUTION
+
+The person who is serving as the head of an institution, whether defined by law or otherwise, including the official acting in his place.
+
+# 22. INFORMATION SECURITY
+
+That condition created by the conscious provision and application of a system of document, personnel, physical, computer and communication security measures to protect sensitive information.
+
+# 23. INSTITUTION
+
+Institution means any department of State, body or organisation that is subject to the Public Service Act or any other law or any private undertaking that handles information classifiable by virtue of national interest.
+
+# 24. NEED-TO-KNOW PRINCIPLE
+
+The furnishing of only that classified information or part thereof that will enable a person/s to carry out his/her task.
+
+25. PERSONNEL CONFIDENTIAL
+
+A handling instruction indicated on personnel documents. Although these documents are to be handled in the same way as "restricted" documents, this is not a security classification. Should information regarding a personnel member be more sensitive than justified by the terms "Personnel confidential" or "Restricted" it should be classified according to regulations.
+
+# 26. PERSONNEL SECURITY
+
+Personnel security is that condition created by the conscious provision and application of security measures in order to ensure that any person who gains access to classified information does have the necessary security clearance, and conducts him/herself in a manner not endangering him/her or the information to compromise. This could include mechanisms to effectively manage $/$ solve personnel grievances.
+
+27.
+
+# PHYSICAL SECURIT
+
+That condition which is created by the conscious provision and application of physical security measures for the protection of persons, property and information.
+
+28.
+
+# PROTECTION OF PERSONS
+
+The physical protection of identified important persons against violence and insults, as well as the protection of information in the possession of such persons against unauthorised exposure or disclosure to malicious/opposing/hostile elements or persons.
+
+29.
+
+# RECEIPT OF CLASSIFIED DOCUMENTS
+
+The receipt and documenting or taking on record of classified documents.
+
+30.
+
+# SCREENING/ VETTING INSTITUTIONS
+
+Screening institutions are those institutions (the SA Police Service, the National Intelligence Agency, South African Secret Service or the SA National Defence Force) that, in terms of the rationalisation agreement, are responsible for the security screening/vetting of persons within their jurisdictions.
+
+# 31. SECURITY
+
+That condition free of risk or danger to lives, property and information created by the conscious provision and application of protective security measures. Not to be confused with national security (i.e. peace, stability, development and progress), which is a far broader concept that encompasses not only absence of threats, risk or danger, but also the basic principles and core values associated with and essential to the quality of life, freedom, justice, prosperity and development. (Quoted from the White Paper on Intelligence.)
+
+# PROTECTIVE SECURITY
+
+Much narrower concept than National Security, although very much a part/element of the latter. This concept deals with the provisioning and maintaining of measures to protect lives, property and information and as such could include : vetting, security investigations, guarding, document, personnel, physical and IT security.
+
+32.
+
+# SECURITY AREA
+
+Any area to which the general public is not freely admitted and to which only authorised persons are admitted.
+
+# 33. SECURITY AUDIT
+
+That part of security control undertaken to:
+
+determine the general standard of information security and to make recommendations where shortcomings are identified;
+evaluate the effectiveness and application of security policy/ standards/ procedures and to make recommendations for improvement where necessary;
+provide expert advice with regard to security problems experienced; and
+encourage a high standard of security awareness.
+
+# 34. SECURITY CLEARANCE
+
+An official document indicating the degree of security competence of a person.
+
+# 35. SECURITY COMPETENCE
+
+This is a person's ability to act in such a manner that he does not cause classified information or material to fall into unauthorised hands, thereby harming or endangering the security or interests of the State. Security competence is normally measured against the following criteria: susceptibility to extortion or blackmail, amenability to bribes and susceptibility to being compromised due to compromising behaviour, and loyalty to the state / institution.
+
+36.
+
+# SECURITY LOCK
+
+A lock with at least six levers or five checks of which the tumblers are not springy (eg Chubb, Abloy and Real).
+
+# 37. SECURITY MEASURES
+
+All actions, measures and means employed to achieve and ensure a condition of security commensurate with the prevailing threat.
+
+38.
+
+# SECURITY SCREENING/VETTING
+
+The systematic process of investigation followed in determining a person's security competence.
+
+# 39. STORAGE
+
+The safekeeping of classified documents in appropriate (prescribed) lockable containers, strongrooms, record rooms and reinforced rooms.
+
+40.
+
+# TRANSMISSION SECURITY
+
+Transmission security is a part of communication security and entails the safeguarding and secure use of systems linked to one another for the sake of communication.
+
+# CHAPTER 3
+
+# THE PROVISION AND APPLICATION OF SECURITY MEASURES
+
+1.
+
+# RESPONSIBILITIES OF THE HEAD OF AN INSTITUTION
+
+1.1
+
+The head of every institution bears overall responsibility for the provision and maintenance of security in his/her institution, under all circumstances.
+
+1.2
+
+Apart from the ordinary or customary powers of delegation to senior officers or employees, it is necessary to prepare a clearly formulated policy signed by the head of the institution with regard to security in order to maintain information security and to ensure physical security. This security function must be delegated in writing to a fit and proper officer/employee and provision shall be made for the effective administration and practice of security.
+
+1.3
+
+The policy shall set forth in unambiguous terms the powers, responsibilities and duties of the security staff, and must require all personnel to submit to security measures. Security being an integral part of the management function, the composition of the security component must be such that the line of authority does not obstruct access to top management.
+
+2.
+
+# RESPONSIBILITIES OF THE HEAD OF THE SECURITY COMPONENT
+
+2.1
+
+The functional execution of security policy as the primary function of the chief security officer shall place emphasis on, inter alia, the following responsibilities:
+
+the recruitment and appointment of fit and proper persons as operational security officers;
+the training of and the exercise of control over the security personnel;
+the effective managing / administration of all spheres of security, which includes \* planning
+\* organising
+\* financing
+\* staffing guiding and directing
+\* controlling/checking.
+
+2.2
+
+The effective practice of security will include:
+
+raising security consciousness;
+drawing up rules of procedure;
+the updating of relevant knowledge through self-study, attending symposia, etc; training personnel to know, understand and apply security procedures and measures;
+constant liaison, co-operation and co-ordination with, and reporting to, the controlling institutions;
+reporting of all breaches or alleged breaches of security, or behaviour posing a security risk, to the appropriate institutions; and
+compliance with security directives, as issued by the controlling institution.
+
+2.3
+
+In order to ensure that information security is undertaken on a sound basis throughout, the head of the security component must have direct access to the head of the institution and/or a seat in management meetings in as far as functional matters and policy are concerned. Following on this, "Security" should be a fixed item on the agenda.
+
+The function of such personnel is to carry out policy and rules of procedure with regard to security, as laid down by the head of the institution (see Chapter 3, paragraph 1.2).
+
+# CHAPTER 4
+
+# DOCUMENT SECURITY
+
+These prescriptions apply to documents classified Confidential, Secret and Top Secret.
+
+1.
+
+# CLASSIFICATION AND RECLASSIFICATION OF DOCUMENTS
+
+1.1
+
+All bodies/institutions/organisations have at their disposal intelligence/information that is to some extent sensitive in nature and obviously requires security measures. The degree of sensitivity determines the level of protection, which implies that information must be graded or classified according to it. Every classification necessitates certain security measures with respect to the protection of sensitive information which will be known as classified information (refer to Chapter 2, paragraph 6).
+
+1.2
+
+The responsibility for the gradings and regradings of document classifications rests with the institution where the documents have their origin. This function rests with the author or head of the institution or his delegate(s).
+
+1.3
+
+The classifications assigned to documents shall be strictly observed and may not be changed without the consent of the head of the institution or his delegate.
+
+1.4 Where applicable, the author of a classified document shall indicate thereon whether it may be reclassified after a certain period or upon the occurrence of a particular event. This option is to be applied consistently upon the award of a classification higher than Restricted.
+
+1.4.1 Should the author of a document on which there is no embargo, reclassify such document, he must inform all addressees of the new classification.
+
+1.4.2 The receiver of a classified document who is of the opinion that the document concerned must be reclassified, must obtain oral or written authorisation from the author, the head of the institution or his delegate(s). Such authorisation must be indicated on the relevant document when it is reclassified.
+
+1.5 The classification of a document or file will be determined by the highest-graded information it contains. The same classification as that of the original must be assigned to extracts from classified documents, unless the author consents to a lower classification.
+
+.6 Every document must be classified on its own merit (in accordance with its own contents) and in accordance with the origin of its contents, and not in accordance with its connection with or reference to some other classified document; provided that where the mere existence of a document referred to is in itself information that calls for a higher security classification than the document containing the reference, the latter document must be classified accordingly.
+
+1.7
+
+The author of a document must guard against the underclassification, overclassification or unnecessary classification of documents. The head of an institution or his/her delegate must on a regular basis test classifications of documents generated in his/her institution against the criteria applicable to the relevant classification (see Chapter 2, paragraph 3).
+
+1.8
+
+When a document is classified, the classification assigned to it must be indicated clearly on the document in the following way:
+
+# 1.8.1 Documents and bound volumes
+
+The classification of loose and not permanently bound documents and bound volumes (books, publications, pamphlets) and other documents that are securely and permanently bound is typed/printed or stamped at the top and the bottom (preferably in the middle) of every page (including the cover).
+
+# 1.8.2 Copies, tracings, photographs, drawings, sketches, etc
+
+1.8.2.1 Security classifications shall be indicated on such documents by means of rubber stamps or other suitable means. The exact position of the mark may vary, depending on the nature of the document, so that essential details shall not be obscured by the stamp. An effort must, however, be made to mark the document as clearly as possible, so that the mark will immediately attract attention.
+
+1.8.2.2 Tracings or blueprints shall be marked in such a way that the security classification is visible on all copies. Where this is not possible, rubber stamps should be used to mark all the copies.
+
+.8.3 Rolled or folded documents. Apart from being marked as prescribed on the face, a document such as this shall also be marked in such a way that the security classification will be clearly visible when the document is folded or rolled up.
+
+8.4 Tape recordings and documents on which no marks can be made. Where, as in the case of tape recordings, certain photographs and negatives, it is physically impossible to place clear classification marks on a document itself; the document should be placed in a suitable box, envelope or other container and, if necessary, sealed. The nature and classification of the contents clearly marked on the outside of the container.
+
+.5 Files. A clear distinguishing mark, the significance of which is known to those who deal with the file concerned, should be placed on both the front and the back cover of Secret or Top Secret files.
+
+Note: For an explanation of the classifications, see Chapter 2, Definitions.
+
+2.
+
+# ACCESS TO CLASSIFIED INFORMATION
+
+The general rules and prescriptions as to who may have access to or inspect classified matters are as follows:
+
+2.1
+
+A person who has an appropriate security clearance or who is by way of exception authorised thereto by the head of the institution or his/her delegate (see Chapter 5, paragraphs 3.6, 10.2 and 10.3), with due regard being paid to the need-to-know principle.
+
+2.2
+
+Persons who must necessarily have access to that classified information in the execution of their duties (the need-to-know principle) - on condition that a suitable clearance has been issued or authorisation has been granted, as explained in Chapter 4, paragraph 2.1.
+
+2.3
+
+Persons such as stand-in typists/secretaries and personnel at smaller centres who in general do not have access to classified material and who do not have a relevant security clearance, but are expected to have access to this information on an ad-hoc basis owing to the circumstances, on condition that the prescribed oath/declaration of secrecy was taken.
+
+# HANDLING OF CLASSIFIED DOCUMENTS
+
+3.1
+
+All classified documents must be stored in accordance with instructions while not in use (see Chapter 4, paragraph 10).
+
+3.2
+
+All incoming classified documents, including official, classified post marked "Personal" must be received and noted in a register by persons with the appropriate clearance. The object of such registration is to enable total control over such documents. This provision does not apply to documents bearing a classification of Restricted.
+
+3.2.1 Officials who usually receive the incoming post of an institution (eg registration officers) must hand the unopened inner envelope of incoming classified correspondence to the appropriate official(s) who is/are authorised to open correspondence in a certain category. The latter is/are responsible for entering the correspondence concerned in the prescribed register.
+
+3.3 All classified documents that are dispatched, made available or distributed, must be subjected to record keeping in order to ensure control thereof. This provision does not apply to documents that are classified as Restricted.
+
+3.3.1 Measures must be taken to ensure that classified documents are not physically taken from one institution to another and/or informally handed to a member of another institution during a contact visit, in this way evading prescriptions for the registration of incoming and outgoing post.
+
+3.3.2 The various institutions may draw up standard registers in which the particulars of classified postal material are to be entered. Registers for the particulars of postal material classified as Secret and Top Secret are to be classified accordingly. The registers must include the following particulars:
+
+3.3.2.1 Particulars of incoming post: Serial number of the entry; Date of receipt; From whom received; Registered postal material and reference number; Classification (C/S/TS); Subject/heading; Disposal: File number, Recipient (signature); Further dispatch (serial number of the entry for outgoing mail in the register); Destruction (date and signature).
+
+3.3.2.2 Particulars of outgoing post: Serial number of the entry; Date of dispatch; Reference number and date of the document; Classification; Subject/heading; Dispatched/addressed to; Nature of dispatch (courier, by hand, registered post, facsimile, by computer); Registered number of postal material; Signature of the recipient (courier, registration, person dispatching); Receipt number; Date when receipt was obtained.
+
+3.4
+
+When Secret and Top Secret documents are distributed, dispatched or made available, they must be accompanied by a receipt voucher signed by the addressee, the receipt of which must again be controlled by the sender. The receipt voucher is classified only if the subject/heading of the document itself is classified, in which case the classification must agree with that of the document.
+
+3.5
+
+All Secret and Top Secret documents must be given copy numbers and an indication must be given of the number of copies produced, eg Copy 1 of 7 copies. The copy number should appear on the first page of each document, in the upper right-hand corner. (See paragraph 14 for the procedure to be followed when copies are made of classified documents.)
+
+3.6
+
+A serial number must be allocated to every document filed in a classified file as is indexed on a page attached to the inside of the file cover, together with the name/heading of the document concerned.
+
+# TRANSMITTING DOCUMENTS BY MEANS OF FACSIMILE
+
+4.1
+
+When classified documents are transmitted by means of facsimile, only facsimile machines equipped with encryption as prescribed by Communication Security Policy/Instructions must be used.
+
+4.2
+
+Classified reports may only be handled by a suitably cleared operator.
+
+4.3
+
+The Cryptographic equipment and facsimile machines must be kept in a room that is manned at all times while it is unlocked or in use by a suitably cleared, trained and appointed official, while care has to be taken that reports received through this apparatus are not accessible to unauthorised persons. The Cryptographic equipment must be handled in accordance with Communication Security Policy/Instructions.
+
+4.4
+
+A record must be kept of the transmission and receipt of classified documents.
+
+4.5
+
+After receiving a message, receipt must be acknowledged immediately. The recipient shall ensure receipt of all pages.
+
+4.6
+
+The recipient or the communication centre of the recipient, upon receiving the document, must ensure that it has been received clearly, accurately and in full. Thereafter, he/she shall immediately transmit an acknowledgement of receipt to the sender.
+
+4.7
+
+The recipient shall, on his/her copy, note the copy number as indicated on the distribution list.
+
+4.8 Effective control must be exercised over "open" facsimile machines to ensure that these are not used for the transmission of classified documents.
+
+# TRANSMITTING DOCUMENTS BY COMPUTER
+
+5.1
+
+Encryption as prescribed shall be applied with respect to the computerised transmission of classified documents.
+
+5.2
+
+A record shall be kept of the classified documents transmitted and received, provided that the recipient of documents must always acknowledge receipt of classified documents. It must also be remembered that all magnetic media must be regarded as documents and handled as such.
+
+5.3
+
+Such documents must be supplied with copy numbers (see Chapter 4, paragraph 3.5).
+
+6.
+
+# DISPATCHING CLASSIFIED DOCUMENTS BY COURIER
+
+6.1
+
+All classified documents (sealed according to prescription - see Chapter 4 paragraph 8) must be noted in a register indicating the title/description of the document and the date and time of dispatch, and must be handed over against the signature of the courier.
+
+6.2
+
+A courier must convey classified documents in a safe locked container. It is recommended that where possible, the container should have a combination lock.
+
+6.2.1
+
+Secret and top secret documents (and where necessary also sensitive confidential documents) should be delivered locally only by hand (ie by a courier. The following shall be adhered to:
+
+Couriers must have at least a Confidential security clearance).
+Where possible the courier must be accompanied by a second person.
+All classified material must be conveyed under safe conditions, that is preferably in an attache case with a code or combination lock (particularly if the courier is not accompanied by a second person).
+The courier must obtain an appropriate receipt for the material.
+On the return of the courier the receipts for classified deliveries must be checked by a responsible officer.
+
+# 6.2.2
+
+Control must be exercised over the time taken by the courier to deliver the documents. Upon receipt, the recipient of such documents must check that the documents have not been compromised.
+
+6.2.3
+
+Couriers must be able to identify themselves when fetching or dispatching post.
+
+6.2.4
+
+Cryptographic equipment must be handled according to Communication Security Policy/Instructions.
+
+7.
+
+# DISPATCHING CLASSIFIED DOCUMENTS BY MAIL
+
+7.1
+
+Classified documents in the Secret and Top Secret categories that cannot be dispatched by courier may, as an exception, be mailed on provision that it be sent by registered mail and then only with the express permission of the head of the institution or his delegate.
+
+8.
+
+# SEALING OF CLASSIFIED DOCUMENTS BEFORE DISPATCH
+
+8.1
+
+Classified documents that are dispatched (excluding by facsimile and computer) must be sealed and handled in the following way:
+
+8.1.1
+
+A receipt to be signed by the addressee and returned to the sender, must be attached to the document and placed in the inside envelope. This does not apply to "Restricted" documents.
+
+8.1.2 Classified documents must always be dispatched in a double envelope/cover, ie in an envelope placed within another (excluding "Restricted" documents). The following process shall be followed:
+
+The seams of the inside envelope must be properly sealed with paper seals, counter signed and with the name of the office of origin clearly stamped on them. If paper seals are used for this purpose, they must be attached with passport glue (seals that can be re-used are not suitable for this purpose).
+
+Thereafter wide translucent tape must be put on the seams, covering the seals and the stamps.
+
+The reference number of the document, name and address of the addressee and other special instructions for dealing with the document must appear clearly on the front of the inside envelope.
+
+The security classification of the document must be indicated clearly on the front and the back of the envelope by means of a rubber stamp.
+
+Alternative method for sealing postal material in bulk: The inside envelope can be sealed without seals, stamps, tape, reference number and classification by means of a mechanical process of vacuum packaging in plastic. Some of the requirements in this case are:
+
+A sticker on the envelope bearing the following particulars: reference number of the document, name, address and special handling instructions
+The plastic packaging must be of good quality (ie it may not tear).
+Changeable stamps of the relevant institution must be imprinted on the plastic packaging. For this purpose the ink must not be able to be removed from the plastic. Dispatch of such documents may only take place by courier. The delivery time must be controlled strictly and consistently.
+
+Remark: Before implementing this alternative, the National Intelligence Agency must be contacted in order that the relevant institution may be advised on the maintaining of security standards.
+
+8.1.2.2 The outer envelope should bear only the name and address of the addressee and the name and address of the sender. Under no circumstances should there be an indication of the nature or classification of the contents, since this could attract undesirable attention to the document.
+
+8.1.3 Persons who normally receive incoming post in an office (such as the registry officers) must make sure that they know who is authorised to open incoming classified correspondence in each particular category and must hand the inner envelope unopened to the authorised officer(s) concerned.
+
+9.
+
+# BULK CONVEYANCE OF CLASSIFIED DOCUMENTS
+
+9.1
+
+Note. When classified documents have to be conveyed in bulk by road, rail or air, the appropriate precautions must be taken for the protection thereof.
+
+9.2
+
+# The bulk conveyance of classified documents by train
+
+9.2.1
+
+The transportation of official documents to and from Cape Town at the beginning and end of the Parliamentary Session should comply with the following minimum requirements:
+
+9.2.1.1 Documents must be packed in steel trunks and the locks of the trunks must be of an acceptable quality. Departments/ministries must apply proper key control at all times, even when the locks are not in use.
+
+9.2.1.2 Each trunk/cabinet must be bound with at least two steel hoops (of the packing type) as an additional precaution to prevent the trunk/cabinet from being opened or opened accidentally during transport as a result of handling.
+
+9.2.1.3 Trunks must not be marked with a mark indicating whether the contents are classified or not; each should merely bear a number to facilitate record-keeping.
+
+# 9.2.1.4
+
+A list must be kept of the contents of each trunk/cabinet opposite the number allocated to the trunk/cabinet.
+
+9.2.1.5 Departments must co-ordinate the transportation arrangements for their trunks/cabinets of documents with their own ministries. Where more than one department is accommodated in the same building, there can be interdepartmental co-ordination with regard to transportation arrangements (also see Chapter 4, paragraph 9.2.1.12).
+
+9.2.1.6 Departments must make arrangements in good time with Spoornet for trailers/containers (ie a lockable trailer on its own wheels/a lockable container) in which to load the trunks/cabinets.
+
+9.2.1.7 After the trunks have been packed, locked and bound, the record of the numbers of the trunks and their contents, as well as the keys to the locks, must be given to responsible officer (eg the Parliamentary Officer), who will personally take the records and the keys with him to Cape Town or Pretoria as the case may be.
+
+9.2.1.8 The trunks/cabinets must then be carried out of the building and packed directly into the trailer/container, after which the trailer/container is sealed in the presence of the officer concerned. Care should be taken not to stack trunks/cabinets on the sidewalk to wait for the trailer/container.
+
+9.2.1.9 The responsible officer must further ensure that he is present when the trunks/cabinets arrive at their destination, so that the seals of the trailer/container can be broken in his presence and trunks/cabinets (still locked and bound) can be checked.
+
+9.2.1.10 When trunks/cabinets are not in use, proper control must be exercised over the locks and their keys. If possible they should be kept, sealed in envelopes, in a safe or strongroom.
+
+9.2.1.11 Where departments have the capacity of their own for the transportation of documents between Cape Town and Pretoria, the documents must still be packed as prescribed above and the same control measures with regard to trunks/cabinets must be instituted.
+
+9.2.1.12 Arrangements for the transportation of classified documents under accompaniment between Pretoria and Cape Town before and after the Parliamentary sessions can be coordinated with the National Intelligence Agency.
+
+# 9.3 Diplomatic bags
+
+.3.1 Classified and unclassified documents to be dispatched to RSA missions abroad or departmental representatives there must be sent to the Department of Foreign Affairs for dispatch, whether in diplomatic or airfreight bags. Unclassified documents are normally dispatched by freight bag, while Confidential, Secret and Top Secret material must be dispatched by diplomatic bag.
+
+.3.1.1 The diplomatic bag is classified as a Category A bag, and is therefore opened and handled differently from the freight bag for security reasons. Both types of bag are sent to missions abroad by scheduled flights (usually once a week but in some cases only every second week) and departments must therefore hand such postal items in to the relevant division of Foreign Affairs on or before the dispatch date, making use of a courier. A signature must be obtained acknowledging receipt of classified material.
+
+2 In view of the substantial difference between the airfreight rates for the different types of bag, classified and unclassified documents destined for RSA missions abroad must be carefully separated beforehand by authorised officers in the dispatch offices of departments and made up into two (2) separate envelopes or packages. More than one classified document may be placed in each envelope for each individual mission (except in the case of cryptographic material) and it is therefore not necessary for Secret and Top Secret documents to be sealed individually in double envelopes as indicated in Chapter 4, paragraph 9.3.1.4 below. Cryptographic material must still be dispatched in accordance with the Communication Security Policy/Instructions. Strict precautions must, however, be taken to ensure that classified documents under cover of an unclassified letter are not erroneously placed in the envelope intended for the freight bag.
+
+3 All confidential, secret and top secret documents for a particular mission must, as far as, possible be placed in a single envelope by authorised officers of departments. A schedule recording the titles, reference numbers and dates. of all the classified postal items for the mission concerned, must be made out in triplicate. The original plus one copy should be sealed in the envelope with the classified documents in the prescribed way. The third copy of the schedule is kept for record purposes, while the second copy, which is sealed into the envelope, is signed by the representative of the department concerned at the mission and returned to the department by the next returning freight bag as a receipt for the classified documents. In the case of non-sensitive documents, ie those that are sent by freight bag, a schedule is not required.
+
+.1.4 The envelope containing the classified material must be stamped clearly on the front and the back in the upper right-hand corner with the letters "DIP", (about 4cm x 4cm in size). The other envelope containing the non-classified items must be stamped "FV" in the same way and with the letters of the same size. For the rest only the name of the mission (eg: The SA Embassy, London; or, The Consulate-General, New York) the name of the addressee or the post occupied by him (eg: The Counsellor [Trade]), and the reference number, if any, should appear on the outside of the envelope. The envelope may also bear the address stamp of the sender department.
+
+9.3.1.5 No private or personal items such as gifts, or foodstuffs or bank notes may be dispatched in the diplomatic bags, whether to an officer at a mission abroad or in the RSA. The Vienna Convention also provides that only official material may be dispatched in the bags concerned. In order to ensure that this provision is complied with, the Department of
+
+Foreign Affairs may therefore, where it is considered necessary, examine the contents to ensure that the mentioned provisions are complied with.
+
+9.3.1.6 Diplomatic bags must be conveyed to and from airports by an authorised, security-cleared officer. Where circumstances require this, two officers should be detailed for the task. In the case of RSA missions abroad, one of these may be a locally recruited person. While the bags are in the vehicle it may not under normal circumstances (with due regard to the ordinary traffic regulations) stop along the way for any reason, nor may the bags be left unguarded in the vehicle.
+
+9.3.1.7 An officer travelling abroad must not take secret or top secret documents with him, unless it will be possible for the documents to remain continuously under his personal supervision, he has a courier's letter with him and he has the consent of the head of his department, who may delegate the giving of approval to the chief security officer or other senior officer(s). Officers requiring classified documents abroad should, when at all possible, arrange in advance for the documents to be dispatched by diplomatic bags as described above.
+
+# 9.3.1.8 Conveyance of diplomatic and freight bags to and from airports
+
+9.3.1.8.1 Unless approval has been obtained for a different procedure the bags concerned must be conveyed to and from airports by car by at least two persons from the mission. One of these persons must be a transferred officer at the mission while the second may be a locally recruited staff member. The services of the latter may only be used in a supporting capacity, eg to drive the car and carry the bags. Locally recruited members may not, however, be permitted to sign for the bags.
+
+9.3.1.8.2 While the bags are in the vehicle it may not under normal circumstances, with due regard to the ordinary traffic regulations, stop along the way for any reason, nor may the bags be left unguarded in the vehicle.
+
+9.3.1.8.3 The officer receiving the incoming bags at the airport must satisfy himself that the bags are correctly addressed, that the consignment is complete, that the seals are unbroken and that the bag has not been tampered with in some way or other. Any irregularities in this regard must be investigated immediately and reported to Head Office, Department of Foreign Affairs, by telex or facsimile for the attention of Diplomatic Bags.
+
+9.3.1.8.4 The diplomatic postal service to and from airports concerned remains the joint responsibility of attached divisions (departments) of a mission. Therefore the attached personnel components concerned should undertake trips to the airport on a rotation basis to deliver or fetch diplomatic bags.
+
+9.3.1.8.5 The head of the mission is responsible for, inter alia, the efficient functioning of the mission and therefore also for the handling of diplomatic bags. Accordingly it is his prerogative to make suitable arrangements, at his discretion and in consultation with heads of divisions, for the transportation of the diplomatic bags to and from airports.
+
+9.3.1.8.6 The following applies in terms of the procedures for week-end/after hours duty at a mission by officers of attached departments:
+
+Where only one officer of another department has been attached to a mission, diplomatic bag duty during normal office hours will be the exclusive responsibility of officers of the Department of Foreign Affairs, and week-end and after-hours duty (including diplomatic bag duty) will be the responsibility of officers of all attached departments.
+
+Where more than one officer of another department has been attached to a mission, officers of all departments will be responsible for week-end/after-hours duty as for diplomatic bag duty during and outside normal office hours.
+
+The Standing Committee (ie representatives of all departments at the mission) will be responsible for drawing up a duty roster which will be binding on all officers at the mission. Only the Standing Committee will have the power to make changes to such a duty roster.
+
+9.3.1.9 The Department of Foreign Affairs will from time to time extend/amend instructions regarding the handling of diplomatic bags.
+
+10.
+
+# STORAGE OF CLASSIFIED DOCUMENTS
+
+10.1 Classified documents that are not in immediate use must be locked away in a safe storage place (see par 10.4.2).
+
+10.2 The doors of all offices in which classified documents are kept must at least be fitted with security locks.
+
+10.2.1 There must be proper control over access to and effective control over movement within any building or part of a building in which classified information is handled. The identification of visitors, the issue of visitors' cards or temporary permits, the escorting of visitors, the provision of identity cards for officers/employees working in the building/offices and the use of related documents and registers for this purpose are prerequisites for effective control over access to and within a building or part of a building.
+
+10.2.2 Effective control must be instituted over access to security areas in a building such as cryptographic and computer centres, the registry (where secret and top secret documents and files are kept) and other areas identified as sensitive. An access register must be instituted and kept up to date for all persons/officers not normally working in these areas.
+
+10.3 Where necessary (depending on the sensitivity of the classified material kept or dealt with in a particular room or division) doors, windows, fanlights, passages, stairs, etc, giving access to the room or division should be equipped with locks, bolts, iron bars or metal blinds of adequate strength, as the case may be. In some cases it may be sufficient to equip one room in a building in this way to serve as registry or storeroom for classified material.
+
+10.4 Apart from taking the precautions mentioned above, all the doors of any room in which classified secret or top secret material is dealt with or handled must be fitted with security locks (see Chapter 2: Definitions) and must be locked when it is vacated, even for a short period, by the person(s) using the room.
+
+10.4.1 If the officer(s) leave the room for a longer period, eg during the lunch hour, all classified secret and top secret material must be locked away in a safe or metal cabinet which is of adequate strength and equipped with a security lock.
+
+10.4.2 When classified documents are not in use, it must be stored in the following way:
+
+Restricted: Normal filing cabinet.
+Confidential: Reinforced filing cabinet.
+Secret: Strongroom or reinforced filing cabinet.
+Top Secret: Strongroom, safe or walk-in safe.
+
+10.5
+
+The keys to any building, part of a building, room, strongroom, safe, cabinet or any other place where classified material is kept must be looked after with the utmost care and effective key control must be instituted. The keeping of the necessary key registers and the safe custody of duplicate keys and control over such keys must be strictly adhered to.
+
+10.6
+
+The keys to safes and strongrooms must be kept in safe custody in accordance with Chapter 23, paragraphs 23.3.6, 23.3.10, 23.3.12 and 23.3.14 of the Provisioning Administration Manual and other relevant directions.
+
+10.7
+
+If a strongroom or safe is fitted with a combination lock, the combination must, apart from being reset when it is purchased, be changed at least once every three months, or on the following occasions:
+
+When it is suspected that it has been compromised.
+On resumption of duty after a continuous period of absence, whether on vacation leave or for official reasons, if the combination had necessarily to be made known to some other person for use during the period concerned.
+When a new user takes over.
+
+10.7.1 Combinations may be compromised by:
+
+unauthorised persons noting the combination through observation when the lock is opened;
+failure to set the combination in accordance with the manufacturer's specifications; failure to change the combination after a reasonable period.
+
+10.7.2 Precautions must therefore be taken by the authorised user to ensure that no other unauthorised person is present when the new combination is set or the lock is opened. When a combination is reset, the following rules should be adhered to :
+
+The figures making up a specific combination should not be used more than once in succession, even if they are in a different order.
+
+Avoid the use of numbers with some personal significance, eg age, date of birth, telephone numbers, street addresses and numbers of safes, etc. Also avoid the figures zero (0), five (5), ten (10) and multiples of the last two. High and low numbers should preferably be used alternately. (eg 68-13-57-11)
+
+Only the user may set a combination lock.
+
+10.7.3
+
+Knowledge of a combination should be restricted to the minimum number of persons desirable on the grounds of operational requirements, eg in the case of a communal safe.
+
+10.7.4
+
+After the combination has been reset, the new combination must be handed to the Head of Security or other person designated for the purpose in a sealed envelope for safe custody, so that he can complete the combination lock register.
+
+10.8
+
+As far as safe and strongroom keys and the combinations of cryptographic centres are concerned, the requirements contained in the Communication Security Instructions must be complied with.
+
+10.9
+
+Access to any controlled building, part of a building or room where classified information is handled/stored outside normal office hours should be prohibited to all persons who do not work there. Repairs to and the cleaning of such premises must take place in the presence and under supervision of the persons who work there. Persons who have to gain access to a building after hours must be duly authorised accordingly by the Head of the Institution or his delegate. The Head of Security must take appropriate steps to arrange access and record keeping.
+
+# 11. REGISTRIES AND FILES
+
+# 11.1
+
+# Central Registries for Receiving of Incoming Mail and Dispatching of Outgoing Mail
+
+11.1.1
+
+An effective registry is the core of effective document control and of document security. One registry in an institution should be the central/main registry where all incoming mail must be received, opened and from where it must be distributed internally. This receiving and distributing must be recorded in the relevant registers (whether electronic or hard copy).
+
+11.1.1.1 Internal distribution should be reflected in registers for incoming and outgoing mail, that should be kept at all other registries or offices where internal mail are received. These registers should contain the following particulars:
+
+Particulars of incoming post: Serial number of the entry; Date of receipt; From whom received; Registered postal material and reference number; Classification (C/S/TS); Subject/heading; Disposal: File number, Recipient (signature); Further dispatch (serial number of the entry for outgoing mail in the register); Destruction (date and signature).
+
+Particulars of outgoing post: Serial number of the entry; Date of dispatch; Reference number and date of the document; Classification; Subject/heading; Dispatched/addressed to; Nature of dispatch (courier, by hand, registered post, facsimile, by computer); Registered number of postal material; Signature of the recipient (courier, registration, person dispatching); Receipt number; Date when receipt was obtained.
+
+11.1.1.2 Apart from being registered, a system of route cards, or similar, should be implemented to ensure that a document can be traced at any time.
+1.1.2 Outgoing mail should be forwarded to the central registry from where it will be dispatched. This forwarding and dispatching must be subject to the control measures as described in the MISS/elsewhere.
+
+# 11.2 Access to Registries
+
+Access to registries should be controlled. No unauthorized person (any person that has no direct line functional responsibility inside the registry) must be allowed inside.
+
+# 11.3. Management of Files
+
+# 11.3.1
+
+Files should be opened according to the actual need when the need arises, and not just because the filing system provides for the existence of such a file.
+
+11.3.2 The particulars appearing on the file should be at least: the name/topic of the file, the file number, the classification, and who are/is authorized to have access to that file.
+
+11.3.3 A register should be kept of all files opened/in existence. As and when a file is opened, the particulars must be entered in the register. This register must indicate the number of volumes in existence for any given file number.
+
+11.3.4
+
+A file must be classified according to the highest level of classification of the documents it contains.
+
+11.3.5
+
+The classification mark must be affixed on the file as described elsewhere/in the MISS.
+
+11.3.6
+
+Classified files must be stored in facilities as prescribed for classified documents.
+
+11.3.7 All documents filed in a file must be given a serial or index number, in the sequence as it is filed, but preferably in chronological order. An index page must be fixed in the file, on which should be recorded the index/serial numbers of the documents on that file, as well as the topic/heading of each document.
+
+11.3.8 A subfile must be opened for each file and kept inside the main file. It should have the same particulars as the main file. When the main file is drawn and taken out of the registry (which should not be common practice), an indication must be made on the subfile to whom the main file has been issued, and when. The subfile should remain in the registry and all documents that should be filed on the main file must be placed on this until the main file has been returned.
+
+11.3.9 No file must be allowed to remain outside the registry for more than one working day - all files must be returned to the registry before closure on the same working day. Exceptions can be allowed, provided that storage facilities in the relevant office are on standard (as prescribed) and that the return of the file is followed up on a daily basis by the head of the registry.
+
+11.3.10 Only authorized persons may be allowed access to classified files. Internal policy should dictate who may authorize such access, subject to the need-to-know principle.
+
+12.
+
+# REMOVAL OF CLASSIFIED DOCUMENTS FROM PREMISES
+
+12.1 The removal of classified documents from office buildings shall be prohibited as far as possible.
+
+Classified material (with the exception of "Restricted" documents) may not be taken home without the written approval of the Head of the Institution or his delegate; a list of the documents to be removed must be handed to the person in control of record keeping. (The form in Appendix C can be adjusted to suit this purpose.) Persons may take classified documents home only if they have proper lock-up facilities (see Chapter 4, paragraph 10.1), in other words, if a person has no such facilities, the documents may not be kept at such a person's home for the purpose of work after hours.
+
+2.3
+
+Classified documents taken out of a building with a view to utilisation at meetings or appointments must be removed in a lockable security attache case. Furthermore, all guidelines included in Chapter 4, paragraph 10 apply in this regard.
+
+13.
+
+# THE TYPING OF CLASSIFIED DOCUMENTS
+
+13.1
+
+Classified documents may be typed only by persons having the appropriate security clearance. Such typing must be done in a manner that will ensure that the information is not divulged to unauthorised persons.
+
+13.2
+
+Drafts of classified documents, typewriter ribbons, and copies and floppy disks must at all times be treated as classified documents.
+
+13.3
+
+In this regard also see the Manual for Computer Security.
+
+14.
+
+# DESTRUCTION OF CLASSIFIED DOCUMENTS
+
+14.1
+
+In terms of the Archives Act, 1962, all documents received or created in a government office during the conduct of affairs of such office are subject to the Act, except where they are excluded, due to their very nature or the prescriptions of some or other Act of Parliament. It should be a point of departure that all state documentation is subject to the Archives Act, unless justifiably excluded along the above-mentioned lines. It should be noted that no document is to be excluded merely because it is classified. Heads of Departments will have to decide, after consultation with their legal advisers as well as the Director: State Archives whether the document(s) concerned is/are of such a nature that there is a legitimate demand for secrecy that goes beyond the degree of safekeeping by the State Archives.
+
+14.2 Where destruction has been properly authorised, it should take place by burning or some other approved method, eg by means of a shredder (in the latter case - preferably a crosscut machine), in which case the strips may be no wider than $1,5\mathsf{m m}$ . The officer who has destroyed the documents must give a certificate of destruction of the documents concerned to the head of the institution or his delegate.
+
+14.2
+
+The process of destruction must be such that reconstitution of the documents destroyed is impossible.
+
+14.3
+
+If the necessary precautions are not instituted, access to waste-paper baskets is probably one of the easiest ways for unauthorised persons to obtain sensitive information. Special attention should therefore be given by all those concerned to the disposal of drafts, notes, used carbon paper, typewriter ribbons, etc, that may contain information. Such waste must be stored separately under lock and key and must be periodically collected by an officer(s) specially designated for this purpose and destroyed by means of burning or shredding.
+
+14.4
+
+In terms of the procedure for the destruction of classified documents from other departments/institutions, a destruction certificate must be supplied to the author.
+
+15.
+
+# MAKING PHOTOCOPIES OF CLASSIFIED DOCUMENTS
+
+5.1
+
+All mechanical/electronic reproduction appliances should be properly controlled to prevent the unauthorised or uncontrolled copying of classified documents. This apparatus must therefore either be centralised or distributed and be under the direct control of an authorised and aptly cleared officer.
+
+15.2 The relevant institution/body must keep a record of all the reproductions of classified documents at its disposal. The register must contain the following particulars: Date, Person requesting copies/reproduction, Classification, File reference, Heading/nature of documents, Purpose of the copies, Number of copies, Meter reading before and after copying.
+
+15.3 Oral or written authorisation for the copying of secret and/or top secret documents by the author, head of the institution or his delegate(s) is required for the copying of secret and/or top secret documents. Such authorisation must be indicated on the original document.
+
+5.4 Copies of all secret and top secret documents must receive a copy number and be registered in the same way as the original document. The number of copies of such documents must be restricted to a minimum, and copies of appendices and addenda must be numbered in accordance with the relevant classified document. All addressees/departments, individuals concerned and the corresponding copy numbers must be written in the file and record copy. Alternatively a distribution list can be attached to all copies of the relevant document concerned, indicating the addressees and the applicable copy number.
+
+15.5 No copies or duplicates may be made of the documents of The National Intelligence Coordinating Committee (NICOC). Only NICOC may make available additional copies on request.
+
+16.
+
+# THE HANDLING OF RESTRICTED DOCUMENTS
+
+16.1
+
+Documents classified as "Restricted" are deemed to be restricted to only the relevant institution.
+
+16.2 Precaution must therefore be taken to prevent unauthorised persons from gaining insight into Restricted documents.
+
+# CONTINGENCY PLANNING
+
+7.1 The contingency plan of an institution must provide for the destruction, storage and/or moving of classified/sensitive documents in the event of an emergency in order to prevent the risk of being compromised.
+
+# CHAPTER 5
+
+# PERSONNEL SECURITY:GUIDELINES WITH RESPECT TO SECURITY VETTING
+
+1.
+
+# INTRODUCTION
+
+1.1
+
+Security vetting is the systematic process of investigation followed in determining a person's security competence.
+
+1.2
+
+The degree of security clearance given to a person is determined by the content of and/or access to classified information entailed by the post already occupied/to be occupied by the person.
+
+1.3
+
+A clearance issued in respect of a person is merely an indication of how the person can be utilised, and does not confer any rights on such a person.
+
+1.4
+
+A declaration of secrecy should be made on an official form by an applicant to any government post, before he/she is appointed or during the appointing process.
+
+1.5
+
+Political appointees (Director Generals, Ambassadors, etc) will not be vetted, unless the President so requests or the relevant contract so provides. From the lowest level up to Deputy Director General all staff members and any other individuals who should have access to classified information, must be subjected to security vetting.
+
+1.6
+
+A security clearance gives access to classified information in accordance with the level of security clearance, subject to the need-to-know principle.
+
+# 2. VETTING CRITERIA
+
+2.1
+
+Vetting/screening criteria need to be adjusted continuously owing to the development in the political field and changes in the social and socio-economic fields. On a macro level, screening criteria must be adjusted to the norms and values of the community of which the person is a part. However, on the micro level, screening criteria must provide for the unique nature of individuals and organisations. The overall picture of an individual's security competence (which is the result of individual differences and the individual's unique way of handling situations) has to play a determining role in a vetting recommendation/decision.
+
+2.2
+
+Aspects such as gender, religion, race and political affiliation do not serve as criteria in the consideration of a security clearance, but actions and aspects adversely affecting the person's vulnerability to blackmail or bribery or subversion and his loyalty to the State or the institution do. This also includes compromising behaviour.
+
+3.
+
+# SECURITY SCREENING IN RESPECT OF IMMIGRANTS AND PERSONS WITH MORE THAN ONE CITIZENSHIP
+
+3.1
+
+Confidential Clearance. A confidential clearance may be considered in respect of an immigrant who has been resident in the RSA for ten consecutive years of which at least those five years preceding the clearance were spent as a South African citizen. He/she must provide sufficient proof that any former citizenship has been relinquished.
+
+3.2
+
+Secret Clearance. A secret clearance is only considered in respect of an immigrant who has been resident in the RSA for fifteen consecutive years of which at least those ten years preceding the clearance were spent as a South African citizen, also on the condition that the person has relinquished his/her former citizenship.
+
+3.3
+
+Top Secret Clearance. After an immigrant has been resident in the RSA for a period of twenty consecutive years (of which fifteen years were spent as a South African citizen), a top secret clearance may be considered, on the condition that such a person has relinquished his/her former citizenship. Every case will be dealt with on merit owing to the unique nature of each situation. This means that not all immigrants who comply with the requirements will automatically qualify for a top secret clearance.
+
+3.4
+
+Dual Citizenship. Each application for a security clearance in respect of persons with dual citizenship must be assessed on the merits of each individual case.
+
+3.5
+
+Persons without valid Identification Documents. No clearance can be issued in the following cases:
+
+3.5.1 Any person who is not in possession of a valid identification document or residence permit for the RSA.
+
+3.5.2 Naturalised RSA citizens who have not applied for a new identification document after naturalisation, since the document that was issued before naturalisation expires on naturalisation.
+
+Employing Immigrants who do not meet Clearance Requirements. If on account of his/her indispensable expertise, it is considered essential to employ an immigrant while he/she does not satisfy the clearance requirements as laid out above and he/she is to be utilised in a post, the work of which is classified, the vetting authority will be unable to make a positive recommendation with regard to the issue of a security clearance in respect of such a person, but can merely institute an investigation to determine whether such an immigrant is suitable from a security point of view for the post concerned. In such an event the head of the employing institution may authorise that the immigrant be used in the post (see Chapter 5, paragraph 10.2), on the condition that the employing institution must
+
+submit a certificate to the National Intelligence Agency and the responsible screening institution in which the absolute necessity of employing such immigrant is set forth and it is also declared that no RSA citizen with the same expertise is available or can be recruited in the RSA and, in cases where an immigrant from a state formerly seen as controversial has been employed, that an immigrant from a non-controversial country could not be obtained;
+
+provide the responsible screening institution with a description of and an indication of the sensitivity of the responsibilities attached to the post to be occupied by the immigrant;
+
+declare that it accepts full responsibility for compliance with the security requirements connected with the employment of such immigrant;
+
+ensure that no classified information or material that is not needed for the performance of his duties comes into the possession of the incumbent of the post; and
+
+reconsider the authorisation every year and relate in writing to both the National Intelligence Agency and the responsible screening authority any incident which could pose a threat to security or any incidence which may bring his/her security competence into question.
+
+# 3.6.1
+
+Take note: When the person concerned changes his/her posting, the authorisation is automatically terminated.
+
+3.7
+
+In respect of immigrants already employed in sensitive positions and in whose case the conditions laid out in Chapter 5, paragraph 3.6 above have not yet been complied with, the employing institution must immediately give effect to those conditions as set out in paragraph 3.6.
+
+4.
+
+# SCREENING / VETTING OF PERSONS WHO HAVE LIVED/WORKED ABROAD FOR LONG PERIODS
+
+4.1
+
+Where a security clearance is required for an RSA citizen who has resided/studied/worked abroad for a long period (excluding transferred public servants or students) and who applies to a government or semi-government institution or a national key point for employment, such a person is temporarily not eligible for any grade of security clearance. Applications for clearance can, however, be considered after a period, as set out hereunder, on condition that the applicant did not give up RSA citizenship or accepted dual citizenship during the period of absence:
+
+.1 A Confidential clearance after one year back in the RSA. Such a person can be appointed on condition that a re-application is submitted after one year. On appointment, the subject thus completes and submits all relevant forms for a security clearance. The requesting authority will then be informed as to whether or not there is any negative information on the subject. The subject is also to undertake, in writing, that he/she will resign should the issuing of a security clearance be refused after one year. If such an undertaking is not specifically included in the service contract, a written undertaking to this extent, under signature of the subject, must accompany the application for a security clearance.
+
+# 4.1.2
+
+A Secret clearance after three years back in the RSA.
+
+4.1.3
+
+A Top Secret clearance after five years back in the RSA.
+
+5.
+
+SECURITY SCREENINGS : CONTRACTORS SUPPLYING SERVICES TO GOVERNMENT DEPARTMENTS OR OTHER GOVERNMENT INSTITUTIONS
+
+5.1
+
+The onus is on the department/institution concerned in each case to indicate expressly in documents sent to the State Tender Board or private contractors whether there are security implications that should be taken into account in advance when they perform their duties for the department/institution involved. If there are such implications, reasons must be given for the inclusion of a clause in the tender document indicating the degree of clearance required, as well as a clause to ensure the maintenance of security during the performance of the contract. The clause could read as follows:
+
+"Acceptance of this tender is subject to the condition that both the contracting firm and its personnel providing the service must be cleared by the appropriate authorities to the level of CONFIDENTIAL/SECRET/TOP SECRET. Obtaining a positive recommendation is the responsibility of the contracting firm concerned. If the principal contractor appoints a subcontractor, the same provisions and measures will apply to the subcontractor.
+
+Acceptance of the tender is also subject to the condition that the contractor will implement all such security measures as the safe performance of the contract may require."
+
+5.2 The security responsibilities of the contractor will be determined by the department/institution concerned.
+
+6.
+
+# PROCEDURE FOR REQUESTING SECURITY SCREENINGS
+
+6.1
+
+Requests for security screening and re-screening must be submitted to the appropriate screening authority on the prescribed form (see Appendix D) accompanied by a set of clear fingerprints.
+
+6.2
+
+The requesting institution should provide the screening authority with a post description of the employee concerned and an indication of the access he/she has/will have and with all other facts that may influence the issue of a clearance.
+
+7.
+
+# PERIOD OF VALIDITY OF SECURITY CLEARANCES
+
+7.1
+
+The head of an institution or his/her delegate must ensure that an officer in respect of whom a security clearance of Secret or Top Secret has been issued, is rescreened every five (5) years and every ten years in respect of a Confidential clearance.
+
+Enquiries will be done with the supervisor every five (5) years with respect to the security competence of an official who has received a Confidential clearance.
+
+7.1.2 This arrangement does not preclude rescreening before a period of five years has lapsed in the case of occupational change or where something prejudicial has been established about an officer which may affect his or her security competence. Personnel in ultra sensitive posts should be cleared every three years.
+
+# TRANSFERABILITY OF CLEARANCES
+
+8.1
+
+A security clearance issued in respect of an officer while he/she is attached to a particular institution is not automatically transferable to another institution, for example when the officer is transferred. When an officer changes his employer, the responsibility for deciding whether an applicant's existing clearance will be accepted or whether the rescreening of such an officer will be requested in the prescribed way rests with the new employer.
+
+8.2
+
+However, for the purpose of meetings and other co-operative functions clearances are transferable. The employing institution is responsible for informing the chairman of such a meeting in writing as to the level and period of validity of the clearances of the representatives involved.
+
+9.
+
+# RESPONSIBILITIES OF THE SCREENING AUTHORITY
+
+9.1
+
+The screening authority will investigate and advise on the security competence of a person on the basis of prescribed guidelines.
+
+9.2
+
+After the investigation the screening authority will merely make a recommendation regarding the security competence of the person concerned to the head of the requesting institution, and this should in no way be seen as a final testimonial as far as the utilisation of the person is concerned.
+
+10.
+
+# RESPONSIBILITIES OF THE HEAD OF THE REQUESTING INSTITUTION
+
+10.1
+
+The head of an institution or his delegate must make a decision and issue a clearance after receiving the recommendation made by the screening institution, and in accordance with circumstances/information at his/her disposal.
+
+0.2 Notwithstanding a negative recommendation from the screening authority, for whatever reason, the head of the institution may still, after careful consideration and with full responsibility, use the person concerned in a post where he/she has access to classified matters if he/she is of the opinion that the use of the person is essential in the interest of the RSA or his/her institution, on the understanding that a person satisfying the clearance requirements is not available.
+
+0.3 When any person is utilised without a clearance, the responsible screening institution and the National Intelligence Agency must be furnished every year with a certificate regarding such person's security conduct (see Chapter 5, paragraph 3.6). Any conduct entailing a security risk must be reported immediately to the screening authority concerned (also see Chapter 9: Breaches of Security).
+
+10.4 Heads of institutions whose officers attend meetings where classified matters are discussed must inform the chairperson of such a meeting in writing of the level of security clearance of such officers. It is the responsibility of the chairperson to satisfy himself/herself regarding the security clearance of all those present at the meeting.
+
+Further, it is also the responsibility of the head of the institution or his/her delegate to
+
+ensure that there is continuous supervision of persons in respect of whom security clearances have been issued;
+present security awareness programmes for his/her employees and to warn staff members not to supply personal particulars of colleagues/officers to unauthorised persons;
+
+ensure that persons dealing with classified matters sign the prescribed declaration of secrecy (see Appendix B, a draft declaration that can be modified to suit the requirements in each particular case);
+
+pertinently bring to the attention of the officers working with classified matters any other legislation, regulation and/or orders that entail secrecy and/or the protection of activities, installations, etc, of any particular institution.
+
+to point out to employees dealing with classified matters when they resign or leave the service that they will continue to be the target of foreign intelligence services and that they remain subject to the declaration of secrecy.
+
+to ensure that all classified documents in the possession of the person concerned are returned when such person resigns or leaves the service; and to ensure that no information comes into the possession of an individual that is not essential for the performance of his or her duties.
+
+# 11. OFFICERS TRAVELLING ABROAD
+
+11.1 In the event where an official with a clearance travels abroad, the head of the institution employing the official or his/her delegate must keep a thorough record of such visits.
+
+1.2 When officials are travelling abroad they must be on their guard against any attempt by a foreign intelligence service to recruit them. If a person is approached, he or she must, immediately on returning, report the fact to the head of the institution or his/her delegate for transmission to the responsible screening authority and the National Intelligence Agency. While travelling, officials should maintain a low profile and be careful not to place themselves in compromising situations.
+
+# 12. PROTECTION OF EXECUTIVE OFFICIALS
+
+Since executive officials are constantly the target of enemies of the State, the necessary precautions should be taken to protect these officials against threats of blackmail or violence. Such threats should be reported to the NIA or the SAPS or the SANDF (MI), as the case may be. The necessary precautionary and protective measures must be undertaken by the various institutions to ensure the safety of the officials concerned. More particulars in this regard may be obtained from the National Intelligence Agency.
+
+13.
+
+# STATUTORY AND OTHER PROVISIONS FOR THE PROTECTION OF INFORMATION
+
+13.1
+
+The attention of all persons dealing with classified matters should be drawn specifically to the provisions of the Protection of Information Act (No 84 of 1982) as amended.
+
+13.2
+
+Any other legislation, regulations and/or directives relating to secrecy and/or the safeguarding of the activities, installations, etc of a particular institution must also be specifically brought to the attention of officers dealing with classified matters.
+
+# CHAPTER 6
+
+# COMMUNICATION SECURITY
+
+1.
+
+Policy/ standards in the computer/ communications security field will be more frequently updated (because of technological advances) than policy in the other security fields. As the computer/ communications security policy is currently being updated and integrated in order to reflect the amalgamation of the previous Computer Security Task Group and the Joint Communications Security Council, computer/ communications security policy will be separately promulgated. The computer and communications security policy is however regarded as part of the Minimum Information Security Standard.
+
+2.
+
+The authority to promulgate computer and communications policy is hereby delegated to the Chairman of the Functional Security Committee of the National Intelligence Coordinating Committee (NICOC) after :
+
+the Chairman has ensured that it is integrated and in line with policy regarding other security disciplines;
+legal principles were taken into account.
+
+3.
+
+Communication security may be described as a condition that is created by the deliberate application of measures to safeguard sensitive communication, whatever form it may take.
+
+4.
+
+Communication may be divided into two main categories:
+
+4.1 Communication taking place with the aid of communications equipment, telex equipment, computer equipment, radio and facsimile equipment and the telephone. The Communications Security Policy serves as the minimum communication security standard.
+
+4.2 Communication taking place without communications equipment, ie mainly personal communication.
+
+5. In terms of Communications Security Policy classified information may be transmitted only under the following conditions:
+
+5.1
+
+Via acceptable and approved apparatus.
+
+5.2
+
+The necessary encryption, as prescribed, must be present.
+
+6.
+
+Personal communication of a sensitive or classified nature must necessarily be subject to strict self discipline on the part of the communicator. In this regard the following guidelines apply:
+
+6.1 the need-to-know principle.
+
+6.2
+
+such conversation should take place in such a way that sensitive information/intelligence does not come into the possession of unauthorised persons or persons who happen to overhear;
+
+6.3 places such as offices, conference rooms etc, where sensitive or classified matters are discussed on a regular basis should be subject to
+
+proper and effective access control (eg outside maintenance personnel and cleaners);
+regular electronic surveillance counter measures (sweeping). (In this regard the National Intelligence Agency can be contacted in the case of government departments, parastatals and private institutions. The SASS, SANDF and the SAPS are responsible for electronic surveillance counter measures with regard to their own environments).
+
+7. The Chief Directorate Security of NIA or SACSA may be approached for further advice and guidance in respect of communication security needs.
+
+# CHAPTER 7
+
+# COMPUTER SECURITY
+
+1.
+
+Policy/ standards in the computer/ communications security field will be more frequently updated (because of technological advances) than policy in the other security fields. As the computer/ communications security policy is currently being updated and integrated in order to reflect the amalgamation of the previous Computer Security Task Group and the Joint Communications Security Council, computer/ communications security policy will be promulgated separate from this issue of the MISS. The computer and communications security policy will however regarded as part of the Minimum Information Security Standard (MISS).
+
+2.
+
+The authority to promulgate computer and communications policy is hereby delegated to the Chairman of the Functional Security Committee of the National Intelligence Coordinating Committee (NICOC) after :
+
+the Chairman has ensured that it is integrated and in line with policy regarding other security disciplines;
+legal principles were taken into account.
+
+3.
+
+In the light of the increasing dependence on and the proliferation of computers in the administration of the country in general, and also of the extent to which classified information is processed by means of computers, security has become essential in this area.
+
+4.
+
+All computer storage media (usually magnetic or optical), are documents in terms of the definition in the Protection of Information Act (Act 84 of 1982). These documents, when containing classified information, must be handled according to the document security standards as described in Chapter 4.
+
+5. It is the responsibility of the head of the institution or his delegate to ensure that all personnel concerned with computers receive the necessary security training. In addition, the security awareness of all personnel using computers must receive regular attention.
+
+6.
+
+Against this background the following measures must be implemented:
+
+essential backup of computer systems and data;
+physical security measures as prescribed;
+computer security responsibilities should be clearly established;
+the allocation and use of passwords as prescribed.
+
+7.
+
+Where use is made of computer communications and data is transmitted through an unprotected area, the transmission should be protected in accordance with Communication Security Policy/Instructions.
+
+8. All breaches of security in the computer environment must be reported as soon as possible in accordance with Chapter 9 of this document.
+
+9. In cases of uncertainty regarding the implementation or appropriateness of security measures in the computer environment, the Chief Directorate Security of the NIA should be consulted.
+
+# CHAPTER 8
+
+# PHYSICAL SECURITY MEASURES
+
+Remark: The SA Police Service acts as advisor in terms of physical security measures (see Appendix A).
+
+1.
+
+# ACCESS CONTROL
+
+1.1
+
+A system of security measures is essential to create an optimal information security environment. Such system naturally is as efficient as its weakest link/element. In this regard access control and movement control are the links or elements that are prerequisites for an effective security system.
+
+1.2 Access control is multidimensional. The different levels or degrees thereof must be developed and applied according to the degree of safeguarding required. Factors such as the sensitivity of information handled and the degree in which zoning (placement and isolation of certain regions) is/can be implemented play a role in determining these levels/degrees.
+
+1.2.1 The different levels/degrees of access control can vary from the mere locking of offices, with the accompanying access restriction (where effective key control will inevitably play a vital role) to large-scale access control to a building or part of a building where security officials identify, control and conditionally allow visitors access.
+
+1.3
+
+Heads of institutions are responsible for the enforcement of the provisions of the Control of Access to Public Premises and Vehicles Act (Act 53 of 1985) for the purpose of safeguarding buildings or premises occupied or used by or under the control of government departments.
+
+.1 Compliance with the provision of Section 2(2), under which the furnishing of information, the furnishing of identification, declarations concerning hazardous objects and the contents of any suitcase, briefcase, handbag, bag, etc, the subjection of persons or objects to electronic examination and the handing over of any object for examination or custody may be required as a prerequisite for effective access control. The searching of persons under Section 2(2)(g) may take place only if the Minister of Safety and Security or his/her delegate (the Commissioner of the SA Police Service) gives authority for this by notice in the Government Gazette.
+
+In cases where different government departments occupy or use or control different parts of the same building or where different government departments occupy or use or control different parts of the same building together with other institutions, consensus between the heads of departments and the heads of other institutions is a prerequisite for the uniform application of the provisions of the Control of Access to Public Premises and Vehicles Act. Where government departments or other institutions apply the provisions of the Act, notices should be displayed to inform members of the public who wish to gain access in a reasonable manner that the Act is being applied.
+
+1.5 Effective access control should be applied to areas where photocopiers, printers, facsimile machines, etc are used. These equipment should also be under constant supervision to ensure that no unauthorised transmission of classified documents take place, or unauthorised copies are made.
+
+2.
+
+# KEY CONTROL AND COMBINATION LOCKS
+
+2.1
+
+Effective key control, including control over duplicate keys, must be accompanied by the keeping of effective records in order to ensure that the keys to a building and safes or strongrooms or other safe storage places in which classified information is kept are dealt with in a safe manner. Where storage places are equipped with combination locks, the combinations must be used, kept and changed in accordance with the prescribed procedures (see Chapter 4, paragraphs 10.7 and 10.8).
+
+3.
+
+# MAINTENANCE SERVICES, REPAIRS AND THE CLEANING OF BUILDINGS/OFFICES
+
+3.1
+
+Occupiers of buildings/offices where classified or sensitive matters are dealt with must always be present when artisans, technicians or cleaners are performing their duties. Special care should be taken on such occasions to ensure that they do not gain access to classified matters.
+
+# 4. CONTINGENCY PLANNING
+
+4.1
+
+Institutions must make provisions for contingency planning (see Chapter 2 "Definitions") aimed at preventing and/or combating any disaster or emergency. The contingency plan must be geared for saving lives, safeguarding property and information and ensuring that activities can continue with as little disruption as possible.
+
+4.2
+
+These aims can be achieved only through well-organised action in which all the available means and manpower are used in a co-ordinated and effective way to put preventative and/or control measures into operation, and through regular practise of the contingency plan.
+
+# CHAPTER 9
+
+# BREACHES OF SECURITY
+
+1.
+
+Heads of security or those tasked with the security responsibility of an institution must report all instances of a breach of security, or failure to comply with security measures, or conduct constituting a security risk, as soon as possible to the Chief Directorate Security of the National Intelligence Agency, and where appropriate to the SAPS (Crime Prevention Unit) or the SANDF (MI) (see Appendix A). Where official encryption is concerned, a security breach must also be reported to the South African Communication Security Agency (SACSA).
+
+2. When a breach of security occurs, the existing channels must be used to report it. It is the responsibility of the head of the institution to ensure that all breaches of security are reported.
+
+3. Breaches of security must at all times be dealt with using the highest degree of confidentiality in order to protect the officer concerned and prevent him or her from being unnecessarily done an injustice to.
+
+# DIVISION OF RESPONSIBILITIES WITH RESPECT TO THE PRACTICE OF PROTECTIVE SECURITY IN THE RSA
+
+Note : This appendix serve only to reflect the situation regarding the division of responsibilities, as agreed upon and approved elsewhere and in other documentation. This appendix therefore has no legal standing and is subject to alteration whenever the original agreements are amended.
+
+# NATIONAL INTELLIGENCE AGENCY
+
+# SA SECRET SERVICE
+
+Responsible for its own physical and information security
+Advises, co-ordinates, audits and exercises control with regard to information security in the public, parastatal and private environment in South Africa (excluding SASS, SAPS and SANDF responsibilities).
+Advises, co-ordinates and exercises control with regard to physical security within NIA and as far as it relates to information security, also in the public, parastatal and private environment
+Carries out security screening of NIA personnel as well as screening investigations abroad if necessary
+Advises, co-ordinates and exercises control with regard to technological security abroad
+
+Responsible for its own physical and information security Advises, co-ordinates and exercises control with regard to physical, personnel and document security abroad (excluding SAPS and SANDF responsibilities)
+
+Advises and exercises control with regard to physical security at missions abroad
+
+Carries out security screening of SASS personnel as well as security interviews and screening investigations abroad at the request of NIA
+
+# SA POLICE SERVICE
+
+Responsible for its own physical and information security
+Advises, co-ordinates and controls physical security in South Africa, excluding the NIA, SASS and the SANDF, with the aim of preventing crime
+Security screenings in respect of the government and parastatal environment, excluding NIA, SASS and SANDF personnel
+VIP protection in South Africa.
+
+# SA NATIONAL DEFENCE FORCE
+
+Responsible for its own physical and information security and that of Armscor Carries out security screening of its own personnel and those of the Armscor family. Administers the National Key Points Act Facilitates the South African Communication Security Agency
+
+# OATH OF SECRECY
+
+# (full name)
+
+solemnly declare that
+
+1. I have taken note of the provisions of the Protection of Information Act (Act 84 of 1982) and in particular of the provisions of section 4 of the Act;
+
+2. I understand that I shall be guilty of an offence if I reveal any information which I have at my disposal by virtue of my office and concerning which I know or should reasonably know that the security or other interests of the Republic require that it be kept secret from any person other than a person
+
+to whom I may lawfully reveal it; or
+to whom it is my duty to reveal it in the interests of the Republic; or
+to whom I am authorised by the Head of the Department or by an officer authorised by him to reveal it;
+
+3. I understand that the said provisions and instructions shall apply not only during my term of office but also after the termination of my services with the Department; and
+
+4. I am fully aware of the serious consequences that may follow any breach or contravention of the said provisions and instructions.
+
+(Signature) (Place) (Date)
+
+WITNESSES 1.
+
+2.
+
+APPENDIX C
+
+# APPENDIX D
\ No newline at end of file
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+Please note that most Acts are published in English and another South African official language Currently we only have capacity to publish the English versions.
+This means that this document will only contain even numbered pages as the other language is printed on uneven numbered pages.
+
+# REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
+# GOVERNMENT GAZETTE
+[VoL.204] Cape Town, 16 June 1982 [No. 8248]
+
+
+# OFFICE OF THE PRIME MINISTER
+
+It is hereby notified that the State President has assented to the following Act which is hereby published for general information:-
+
+No. 84 of 1982: Protection of Information Act, 1982.
+# PROTECTION OF INFORMATION ACT, 1982
+ACT
+To provide for the protection from disclosure of certain information; and to provide for matters connected therewith.
+
+RE IT ENACTED by the State President and the House of Assembly of the Republic of South Africa, as follows:-
+
+[I] Definitions.
+
+1.
+(1) In this Act, unless the context otherwise indicates
+(i) “agent" means any person who is or has been or is reasonably suspected of being or having been directly or indirectly used by or in the name of or on behalf of any foreign State or any hostile organization for the purpose of committing in the Republic or elsewhere an act prejudicial to the security or interests of the Republic, or who has or is reasonably suspected of having committed or attempted to commit such an act in the Republic or elsewhere in the interests of any foreign State or any hostile organization;
+(ii) “armaments” means armaments as defined in section 1 of the Armaments Development and Production Act, 1968 (Act No.57 of 1968);
+(iii) “document" means
+(a)any note or writing, whether produced by hand or by printing, typewriting or any other similar process;
+(b) any copy, plan, picture, sketch or photographic or other representation of any place or article;
+(c) any disc, tape, card, perforated roll or other device in or on which sound or any signal has been recorded for reproduction;
+
+(iv) “foreign State” means any State other than the Republic;
+(v) “Government” includes the South African Transport Services, the Department of Posts and Telecommunications and any provincial administration;
+(vi) “hostile organization" means
+(a)any organization declared by or under any Act of Parliament to be an unlawful organization;
+(b) any association of persons or any movement or institution declared under section 14 to be a hostile organization;
+(vii) “military” includes army, air force and naval;
+(viii) “model" includes any design, pattern or specimen;
+(ix)“prohibited place” means
+(a) any work of defence belonging to or occupied or used by or on behalf of the Government, including—
+ (i) any arsenal, military establishment or station, factory, dockyard, camp, ship, vessel or aircraft;
+ (ii) any telegraph, telephone, radio or signal station or office; and
+ (iii)any place used for building repairing, making, keeping or obtaining armaments or any model or document relating thereto;
+(b) any place where armaments or any model or document relating thereto is being built, repaired, made, kept or obtained under contract with or on behalf of the Government or of the government of any foreign State;
+(c) any place or area declared under section 14 to be a prohibited place; (viii)
+
+(x) “security matter” includes any matter which is dealt with by the National Intelligence Service or which relates to the functions of that Service or to the relationship existing between any person and that Service.
+
+(2)In this Act, unless the context otherwise indicates
+(a) any reference to the disclosing or receiving of anything includes a reference to the disclosing or receiving of any part or the substance, effect or description thereof;
+(b) any reference to the obtaining or retaining of anything includes a reference to the obtaining or retaining of any part or the copying or causing to be copied of the whole or any part thereof, whether by photography or otherwise;
+(c) any reference to the disclosing of anything includes a reference to the transmission or transfer thereof; and
+(d)any reference to any offence or prosecution under any provision of this Act includes a reference to an offence or a prosecution under the provisions of section 18 of the Riotous Assemblies Act,1956(Act No.17 of 1956), read with the relevant provisions of this Act.
+
+[Prohibition of certain acts in relation o prohibited places]
+2. Any person who approaches, inspects, passes over, is in the neighbourhood of or enters any prohibited place for any purpose prejudicial to the security or interests of the Republic, shall be guilty of an offence and liable on conviction to imprisonment for a period not exceeding 20 years.
+
+[Prohibition of obtaining and disclosure of certain information]
+3. Any person who, for purposes of the disclosure thereof to any foreign State or to any agent, or to any employee or inhabitant of, or any organization, party, institution, body or movement in, any foreign State, or to any hostile organization or to any office-bearer, officer, member or active supporter of any hostile organization—
+(a) obtains or receives any secret official code or password or any document, model, article or information used, kept, made or obtained in any prohibited place; or
+(b) prepares, compiles, makes, obtains or receives any document, model, article or information relating to
+ (i) any prohibited place or anything in any prohibited place, or to armaments; or
+ (ii) the defence of the Republic, any military matter, any security matter or the prevention or combating of terrorism; or
+ (iii) any other matter or article, and which he knows or reasonably should know may directly or indirectly be of use to any foreign State or any hostile organization and which, for considerations of the security or the other interests of the Republic, should not be disclosed to any foreign State or to any hostile organization,
+shall be guilty of an offence and liable on conviction to the penalty prescribed in section 2.
+
+[Prohibition of disclosure of certain information.]
+4.(1) Any person who has in his possession or under his control or at his disposal
+(a) any secret official code or password; or
+(b)any document, model, article or information
+ (i)which he knows or reasonably should know is kept, used, made or obtained in a prohibited place or relates to a prohibited place, anything in a prohibited place, armaments, the defence of the Republic, a military matter, a security matter or the prevention or combating of terrorism;
+ (ii) which has been made, obtained or received in contravention of this Act;
+ (iii) which has been entrusted in confidence to him by any person holding office under the Government;
+ (iv) which he has obtained or to which he has, had access by virtue of his position as a person who holds or has held office under the Government, or as a person who holds or has held a contract made on behalf of the Government, or a contract the performance of which takes place entirely or partly in a prohibited place, or as a person who is or has been employed under a person who holds or has held such office or contract, and the secrecy of which document, model, article or information he knows or reasonably should know to be required by the security or the other interests of the Republic, or
+ (v)of which he obtained possession in any manner and which document, model, article or information he knows or reasonably should know has been obtained by any other person in any of the ways referred to in paragraph (iii) or (iv) and the unauthorized disclosure of such document, model, article or information by such other person he knows
+35 or reasonably should know will be an offence under this Act, and who
+(aa) discloses such code, password, document, model, article or information to any person other than a person to whom he is authorized to disclose it or to whom it may lawfully be disclosed or to whom, in the interests of the Republic, it is his duty to disclose it;
+(bb) publishes or uses such code, password, document, model, article or information in any manner or for any
+45 purpose which is prejudicial to the security or interests of the Republic;
+(cc) retains such code, password, document, model, article or information when he has no right to retain it or when it is contrary to his duty to retain it, or neglects or fails to comply with any directions issued by lawful authority with regard to the return or disposal thereof; or
+(dd) neglects or fails to take proper care of such code, password, document, model, article or information, or so to conduct himself as not to endanger the safety thereof,
+
+shall be guilty of an offence and liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding R10 000 or to imprisonment for a period not exceeding 10 years or to both such fine and such imprisonment, or, if it is proved that the publication or disclosure of such secret official code or password or of such document, model, article or information took place for the purpose of its being disclosed toa foreign State or to a hostile organization, to the penalty prescribed in section 2.
+
+(2) Any person who receives any secret official code or password or any document, model, article or information, knowing or having reasonable grounds to believe, at the time when he receives it, that such code, password, document, model, article or information is being disclosed to him in contravention of the provisions of this Act, shall, unless he proves that the disclosure thereof to him was against his wish, be guilty of an offence and 5 liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding R10 o00 or to imprisonment for a period not exceeding 10 years or to both such fine and such imprisonment.
+
+[Prohibition of certain acts prejudicial to security or interests of Republic.]
+5.
+(1) Any person who, for the purpose of gaining or assisting any other person to gain admission to any prohibited place, or for any other purpose prejudicial to the security or interests of the Republic
+(a) without lawful authority uses or wears any military, police or other official uniform of the Republic, or any uniform worn by a person employed at or in a prohibited place, or any uniform so closely resembling any of the said uniforms as to be calculated to deceive, or falsely represents himself to be a person who is or has been entitled to use or wear any such uniform;
+(b) orally or in writing in any declaration or application, or in any document signed by him or on his behalf, knowingly makes any false statement or omits any relevant fact;
+(c) forges, alters or tampers with any passport or any official pass, permit, certificate, licence or other similar document (hereinafter in this section referred to as an official document), or uses or has in his possession any forged, altered or irregular official document;
+(d) impersonates or falsely represents himself to be a person holding, or in the employment of a person holding, office under the Government, or to be or not to be a person to whom an official document or a secret official code or password has been duly issued or disclosed, or, with intent to obtain an official document or any secret official code or password, whether for himself or for any other person, knowingly makes any false statement; or
+(e) uses or has in his possession or under his control, without lawful authority, any official die, seal or stamp of the Republic or any die, seal or stamp so closely resembling any such official die, seal or stamp as to be calculated to deceive, or counterfeits any such official die, seal or stamp, or uses or has in his possession or under his control any such counterfeited die, seal or stamp,
+
+shall be guilty of an offence and liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding R5000 or to imprisonment for a period not exceeding five years or to both such fine and such imprisonment.
+
+(2) Any person who
+(a) retains for any purpose prejudicial to the security or interests of the Republic any official document, whether or not completed or issued for use, when he has no right to retain it or when it is contrary to his duty to retain it, or neglects or fails to comply with any directions issued by lawful authority with regard to the return or disposal thereof;
+(b) allows any other person to have possession of any official document issued for his use alone, or without lawful authority or excuse has in his possession any official document or secret official code or password issued for the use of some person other than himself, or, on obtaining possession of any official document, whether by finding or otherwise, neglects or fails to hand it over to the person or authority by whom or for whose use it was issued or to a member of the South African Police or the South African Railway Police Force; or
+(c) without lawful authority or excuse manufactures or sells, or has in his possession for sale, any die, seal or stamp referred to in paragraph (e) of subsection (1), shall be guilty of an offence and liable on conviction to the penalties prescribed in subsection (1).
+
+[Obstructing persons on guard at prohibited places. ]
+6. Any person who obstructs, knowingly misleads or otherwise interferes with any person engaged on guard, sentry, patrol or other similar duty in relation to any prohibited place shall be guilty of an offence and liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding R1000 or to imprisonment for a period not exceeding 12 months or to both such fine and such imprisonment.
+
+
+[Harbouring or concealing certain persons and failing to report information relating to agents.
+7. Any person who—
+(a) knowingly harbours or conceals any person whom he knows or has reason to believe to be a person who is about to commit or who has committed an offence under this Act, or knowingly permits any such persons to meet or assemble in any premises in his occupation or under his control;
+(b) having harboured or concealed any such person, or permitted such persons to meet or assemble in any premises in his occupation or under his control, wilfully omits or refuses to disclose to any member of the South African Police or the South African Railway Police Force any information it is in his power to give in relation to any such person; or
+(c) knowing that any agent or any person who has been or is in communication with an agent, whether in the Re
+30 public or elsewhere, is in the Republic, fails forthwith to report to any member of the South African Police or the South African Railway Police Force the presence of or any information it is in his power to give in relation to any such agent or person,
+
+shall be guilty of an offence and liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding R1000 or to imprisonment for a period not exceeding 12 months or to both such fine and such imprisonment.
+
+
+[Communication with agent proof of certain facts.]
+8.
+(1) If in any prosecution upon a charge under section 3, or upon a charge under section 4 (1) in connection with the publi40 cation or disclosure of a secret official code or password or a document, model, article or information as referred to in that section, it is proved that the accused
+(a) has been in communication, or has attempted to communicate, with an agent in the Republic or elsewhere; or
+(b) is an agent or is being or has been or is reasonably suspected of being or having been directly or indirectly used by a foreign or international body or institution, or has entered or is within the Republic in contravention of any law
+
+it shall, unless the contrary is proved, be presumed that the document, model, article or information referred to in section 3 has been prepared, compiled, made, obtained or received, or the secret official code or password or the model, article, document or information referred to in section 4 (1) has been published or disclosed, as the case may be, for purposes of the disclosure thereof to a foreign State or to a hostile organization.
+
+(2) For the purposes of subsection (1)-
+(a) a person shall, unless he proves the contrary, be pre60 sumed to have been in communication with an agent if
+(i) he has, in the Republic or elsewhere, visited the address of an agent or associated with an agent; or
+(ii) in the Republic or elsewhere, the name or address of or any other information regarding an agent has been found in his possession or under his control, or has been supplied by him to any other person or has been obtained by him from any other person;
+
+(b) any address, in the Republic or elsewhere, reasonably suspected to be an address used for the receipt of communications intended for an agent, or at which an agent resides, or to which he resorts for the purpose of giving or receiving communications, or at which he carries on any business, shall be deemed to be the address of an agent, and any person who addresses communications to such address shall be deemed to have been in communication with an agent.
+
+[Proof that certain information may directly or indirectly be of use to foreign State or hostile organization.]
+9.
+If in any prosecution against any person for an offence under section 3 it is proved that he is an agent or that he is or has been or is reasonably suspected of being or having been directly or indirectly used by or on behalf of any foreign or international body or institution or that he has entered or is within the Republic in contravention of any law and that he has prepared, compiled, made, obtained or received any document, model, article or information other than that referred to in section 3 (a), or any document, model, article or information relating to a place, article or matter other than that referred to in section 3 (b) (i) or (ii),
+
+it shall, unless the contrary is proved, be presumed that such document, model, article or information may directly or indirectly be of use to a foreign State or a hostile organization.
+
+[Proof of purpose prejudicial to security or interests of Republic. ]
+10.
+(1) In any prosecution under this Act upon a charge of committing an act for a purpose prejudicial to the security or interests of the Republic, it shall, if, from the circumstances of the case or the conduct of the accused, it appears that his purpose was a purpose prejudicial to the security or interests of the Republic, be presumed, unless the contrary is proved, that the purpose for which that act has been committed, is a purpose prejudicial to the security or interests of the Republic.
+
+(2) If in any prosecution under this Act upon a charge of publishing or disclosing any secret official code or password or any document, model, article or information for a purpose prejudicial to the security or interests of the Republic, it is proved that.
+it was published or disclosed by any person other than a person acting under lawful authority, or by an agent or by a person who is or has been or is reasonably suspected of being or having been directly or indirectly used by any foreign or international body or institution or who has entered or is within the Republic in contravention of any law,
+it shall, unless the contrary is proved, be presumed that the purpose for which it was published or disclosed is a purpose prejudicial to the security or interests of the Republic.
+
+
+[Extra-territorial application of Act, and jurisdiction. ]
+11.
+(1) Any act constituting an offence under this Act and
+50 which is committed outside the Republic by any South African citizen or any person domiciled in the Republic shall be deemed to have been committed also in the Republic.
+(2) Any offence under this Act shall, for the purposes of determining the jurisdiction of a court to try the offence, be deemed to have been committed at the place where it actually was committed and also at any place where the accused happens to be.
+
+
+[Authority of attorney-genera; required for institution of criminal proceedings.]
+12. No trial or preparatory examination in respect of any offence under this Act, except any contravention of section 6, shall be instituted without the written authority of the attorney-general having jurisdiction in the area concerned.
+
+[Criminal proceedings may take place behind closed doors.]
+13. Any court may, if it appears to that court to be necessary for considerations of the security or the other interests of the Republic, direct that any trial or preparatory examination in respect of an offence under this Act, shall take place behind closed doors or that the general public or any section thereof shall not be present thereat, and if the court issues any such direction, the court shall have the same powers as those conferred upon a court by section 154 (1) of the Criminal Procedure Act, 1977 (Act No. 51 of 1977),and the provisions of subsections (1),(4) L0 and (5) of the said section 154 shall apply *mutatis mutandis*.
+
+
+[Prohibited places and hostile organizations.]
+14. The State President may, for the purposes of this Act, by proclamation in the *Gazette* declare-—
+(a) any place or area to be a prohibited place if he is satisfied that information with respect to that place or area, or the loss, damage, disruption or immobilization thereof could be of use to a foreign State or a hostile organization; or
+(b) any association of persons, movement or institution outside the Republic to be a hostile organization if he is satisfied that that association of persons, movement or institution incites, instigates, commands, aids, advises, encourages or procures any person in the Republic or elsewhere to commit in the Republic an act of violence for any purpose prejudicial to the security or interests of the Republic,
+
+and may in like manner at any time repeal or amend any such proclamation.
+
+[Repeal of laws.]
+15. The laws specified in the Schedule are hereby repealed to 1 the extent set out in the third column of the Schedule.
+
+
+[Short title.]
+16. This Act shall be called the Protection of Information Act, 1982.
+
+
+# Schedule
+
+LAWS REPEALED
+
No. and year of law
Title
Extent of repeal
Act No. 16 of 1956...
Official Secrets Act, 1956
The whole.
Act No. 65 of 1956.
Official Secrets Amendment Act, 1956.
The whole.
Act No. 7 of 1958
Police Act, 1958
Section 27C.
Act No. 101 of 1969.
General Law Amendment Act, 1969
Sections 10, 11 and 12.
Act No. 102 of 1972.
General Law Amendment Act, 1972
Section 10.
\ No newline at end of file
diff --git a/dataset/data/docs/Signed - MIOS CATALOGUE OF STANDARDS.pdf-d1383b54-4c4e-4722-bd01-16a3b8e9899f.md b/dataset/data/docs/Signed - MIOS CATALOGUE OF STANDARDS.pdf-d1383b54-4c4e-4722-bd01-16a3b8e9899f.md
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--- /dev/null
+++ b/dataset/data/docs/Signed - MIOS CATALOGUE OF STANDARDS.pdf-d1383b54-4c4e-4722-bd01-16a3b8e9899f.md
@@ -0,0 +1,116 @@
+# Catalogue of Standards to the MINIMUM INTEROPERABILITY STANDARDS (MIOS) 6
+
+Catalogue 1 of 2017
+
+November 2017
+
+11
+1
+
+# APPROVAL
+
+I, the undersigned -
+
+In terms of the Public Service Act, 1994 (Proclamation 103 of 1994 ) sections 3(1)(f) and 3(1)(g) regarding electronic government norms and standards and the Public Service Regulations, 2016 Chapter 6, regulation 97, regarding interoperability standards, I hereby approve the Catalogue of Standards in support of the Minimum Interoperability Standard (MiOs) for Government Information Systems version 6. These standards have been developed by a Specialist Task Team, in consultation with the Government information and Technology Officers Council (GITOC).
+
+This Catalogue of Standards to MlOs will be reviewed and updated on an annual basis to keep it relevant and up to date.
+
+This Catalogue of Standards to MlOs Version 6.00 supersedes and replaces all previous versions thereof and must be complied with in terms of the relevant legislation.
+
+Take note that the Catalogue augments the MlOS Framework Document and as such this document must always be read in conjunction with the MiOs Framework.
+
+
+
+MS F. MUTHAMBI, MP MINISTER FOR THE PUBLIC SERVICE AND ADMINISTRATION DATE: $2018\cdot02\cdot06$
+
+# PUBLICATIONENQUIRIES
+
+The "Catalogue of Standards to the Minimum Interoperability Standards (MiOS)" for Government Information Systems is developed by the State Information Technology Agency (SITA): Norms Standards and Quality Department in consultation with the GITOC, SC-AGC and appointed MIOS Update Task Team.
+
+Enquiries can be directed to:
+
+Office of the Government Chief Information Office Department of Public Service and Administration Batho Pele House, 546 Edmond Street, Arcadia Pretoria, South Africa.
+
+This document will be made available on the DPSA websitewww.dpsa.gov.za
+
+This document is also available on the DPSA website (http://www.dpsa.gov.za)
+
+# COPYRIGHT, TRADEMARKS AND INTELLECTUAL PROPERTY
+
+Some ot the standards, acronyms and terms that are referenced in this publication and the related addenda or catalogue are protected by copyright and/or intellectual property rights. The omission of the rightful copyright and/or intellectual property right owners' information from this document is merely intended to simplify the structure of the document.
+
+I his document, in part or in whole, may be freely used on condition that the source is auoted.
+
+# CONTENTS
+
+. Overview ..... 5
+1.1 Standards Development Organisatons.. 5
+1.2 Catalogue of MlOs Standards. 7
+1.3 Hardware Infrastructure Considerations... 14
+Innex A: Abbreviations... \*\*\* 16
+
+# OVERVIEW
+
+1. This document, known as the "Catalogue of Standards to MlOs" is irrevocably linked to the prescripts, guidelines and principles of the latest approved “MiOs Framework".
+2. This section of the MlOS defines the minimum set of open standards that are necessary to achieve the minimum level of interoperability across e-Government systems, and cites the standards development organisations from where these standards can be obtained.
+
+3. The list of interoperability standards is divided into two sections:
+
+(a) Public Sector Records and Data Standards, which must be used to achieve interoperability (data exchange) among e-Government information systems (IS); and
+(b) Technical lnteroperability Standards, which must be used to achieve the required level of interoperability (i.e. network connectivity, data exchange protocols and interfaces, and uniform data access and presentation) across government ICT infrastructure.
+
+The following convention is used in the respective standards tables:
+
+P "Ref" $\mathbf{\sigma}=\mathbf{\sigma}$ Unique MiOs Reference Number of the standard. "Provider" means the Standards Development Organisation (SDO) who is either the owner or custodian of the interoperability standard as the case may be. Text in square brackets [] denotes the Standard Reference Number as allocated by the SdO. Text in braces / curly brackets [} denotes a guideline or constraint on the implementation of the standard.
+
+# 1.1 STANDARDS DEVELOPMENT ORGANISATIONS
+
+The following Standards Development Organisations (SDOs) are cited in the MiOS. SDOs marked with an asterisk $(^{*})$ indicate that the standards are available from their respective web sites (Uniform Resource Locators (URL)).
+
+
SDO
Description
Uniform Resource Locator (URL)
ADL*
Advanced Distributed Learning
http://www.adlnet.gov
ANSI
American National Standards Institute
http://www.ansi.org
ECMA
ECMA International- European association http://www.ecma-international.org for standardizing information and communication systems (formerly known as "European Computer Manufacturers Association")
ETSI
European Telecommunications Standard Institute
http://www.etsi.org
+
+
NIST
National Institute of Standards and Technology [USA]: Federal Information Processing Standards
http://www.itl.nist.gov/fipspubs
IEEE
Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers
http://www.ieee.org
IETF *
Internet Engineering Task Force
http://www.ietf.org
ISO
International Organisation for Standardization
http://www.iso.org
ITU
International Telecommunication Union
http://www.itu.int
OAI *
Open Archives Initiative
http://www.openarchives.org
:OASIS *
Organization for the Advancement of Structured Information Standards
http://www.oasis-open.org
OCLC
Online Computer Library Center
http://www.oclc.org
OGC *
Open Geospatial Consortium
http://www.opengeospatial.org
OMA
Open Mobile Alliance
http://www.openmobilealliance.org
OMG *
Object Management Group@
http://www.omg.org
PKWARE
PKWARE? Inc, open standard for compressed file format, ZIP)
http://www.pkware.com
SABS
South African Bureau of Standards (SDO forhttp://www.sabs.co.za South African National Standards (SANS))
W3C *
World Wide Web Consortium
http://www.w3c.org
WHO *
World Health Organisation
http://www.who.int
+
+# 1.2 CATALOGUE OF MIOS STANDARDS
+
+Please Note: All quoted RFC standards include their relevant updates.
+
+
Ref
Component
Interoperability Standards and Identifier
Provider
C01 Data Standards
C01.01
Disease Codes
10th Revision [ICD-10] International Statistical Classification of Diseases and Related Health Problems,
WHO
C01.02
Health Image Records
Digital Imaging and Communications in Medicine [ISO 12502]
ISO/IEC
C01.03
Management System e-Learning / Learning
(SCORM) v1.2, Oct 2001 Sharable Content Object Reference Model SCORM
C02
Interconnection Standards and Specifications
C02.01
Web Transport
Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP/1.1) [RFC 7230- RFC 7237] Upgrading to TLS Within HTTP/1.1 (HTTPS)IETF
ETF
C02.02
e-Mail Transport
[RFC2817] Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) [RFC 5321]
IETF
C02.03 Internet Message Format
Internet Message Format (IMF)[RFC 5322]
IETF
Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions (MIME) [RFC 2045 -RFC 2047, RFC 4289] The Model Primary Content for Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions
IETF IETF
C02.04
Mailbox Access
[RFC 2077] v4.1) [RFC 3501] Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP Post Office Protocol Version 3 (POP3)
IP Authentication Header [RFC 4302] Cryptographic Algorithm Implementation
IETF
Requirements and Usage Guidance for Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) and Authentication Header (AH) [RFC 7321]
IETF
IP Encapsulation Security
IP Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) [RFC 4303] Cryptographic Algorithm Implementation
IETF IETF
+
+
Requirements and Usage Guidance for Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) and Authentication Header (AH) [RFC 7321]
C10.04 C10.05
Transport Security Encryption Algorithms
The Transport Layer Security (TLS) Protocol IETF [Version 1.2 [RFC 5246] Advanced Encryption Standards (AES)
SABS
(Information Technology -- Security Techniques -- Encryption Algoriths Part 3: Block Ciphers) [SANS 18033-3] OR
Advance Encryption Standard [FIPS PUB 197]
FIPS
TWOFISH [RFC 4880] RSA 2048 bit (Rivest, Shamir and Adleman) ISO/IEC
IETF
(Security Techniques - Encryption Algorithms Part 2: Asymmetric Ciphers) [ISO 18033-2] OR ECC 256 bit (Elliptic Curve Cryptography) ISO/IEC
C10.06
Hashing
Techniques based on Elliptic Curves) [ISO 15946] Secure Hash Algorithm IIl (SHA-Il) SHA-256,
: SABS
C10.07
Digital Signatures
or SHA-384 [SANS 18033-3 or ISO 10118-3]ISO/IEC Digital Signatures with Appendix: Part 1: General [SANS 14888-1] RSA-DSA (Rivest, Shamir and Adleman -
SABS SABS
C10.08
Key Management
Digital Signing Algorithm) [SANS 14888-2] OR EC-DSA (Ellyptic Curve- Digital Signing Algorithm [SANS 14888-3]
SABS
C10.09
Message Authentication
Security Techniques - Key Management: Part 3: Mechanisms using asymmetric techniques [SANS 11770-3:2009]
SABS
Message Authentication Code (MAC) with Block Cipher [SANS 9797-1] AND/OR Message Authentication Code (MAC) withSABS Hash Function [SANS 9797-2]
SABS
+
+# 1.3 HARDWARE INFRASTRUCTURE CONSIDERATIONS
+
+In Terms of Hardware Infrastructure,for reference to the relevant standards/specifications (which undergo their own certification processes), please refer to the following:
+
+Personal Computing Devices
+http://www.sita.co.za/Prod%20Cert/1%20PCs&Periph/Detail%20Spec%20PCs&Periph.xlsx
+Peripherals
+http://www.sita.co.za/Prod%20Cert/1%20PCs&Periph/Detail%20Spec%20PCs&Periph.xlsx
+Servers and Storage
+http://www.sita.co.za/Prod%20Cert/2%20Srv&Stor/Detail%20Spec%20Servers%20&%20Storage.xl
+SX
+Audio visual
+http://www.sita.co.za/Prod%20Cert/3%20AVC/Detail%20Spec%20AVCT.xlsx
+Networking
+http://www.sita.co.za/Prod%20Cert/Networking/Detail%20Spec%20Networking.xlsx
+Infrastructure
+http://www.sita.co.za/Prod%20Cert/infra/Detail%20Spec%20lnfrastructure.xlsx
+
+# ANNEXA:ABBREVIATIONS
+
+
BBBEE
Broad Based Black Economic Empowerment
BPMN
Business Process Modelling Notation
EA
Enterprise Architecture
GITO
Government Information Technology Officer
GITOC
Government Information Technology Officers Council
GWEA
Government Wide Enterprise Architecture
ICT
Information and Communication Technology
ISO
International Organisation for Standardisation
MIOS
Minimum Interoperability Standards
SCARC
Standing Committee on Architecture
SITA
State Information Technology Agency
OMG
Object Management Group
TOGAF?
The Open Group Architecture Framework
UML
Unified Modelling Language
ADL
Advanced Distributed Learning
ANSI
American National Standards Institute
ECMA
European association for standardizing information and communication systems
ETSI
European Telecommunications Standard Institute
NIST
National Institute of Standards and Technology
IEEE
Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers
1ETF
Internet Engineering Task Force
ISO
International Organisation for Standardization
ITU
International Telecommunication Union
OAI
Open Archives lnitiative
OASIS
Organization for the Advancement of Structured Information Standards
OCLC
Online Computer Library Center
OGC
Open Geospatial Consortium
+
+
OMA
Open Mobile Alliance
OMG
Object Management Group?
PKWARE
PKWARE? Inc, open standard for compressed file format, ZIP)
SABS
South African Bureau of Standards
W3C
World Wide Web Consortium
WHO
World Health Organisation
\ No newline at end of file
diff --git a/dataset/data/docs/chibanda-and-kabanda_Towards an African cybersecurity community of practice.pdf-d4bd0d.md b/dataset/data/docs/chibanda-and-kabanda_Towards an African cybersecurity community of practice.pdf-d4bd0d.md
new file mode 100644
index 0000000000000000000000000000000000000000..2878beaab4f7c1ef652e4cc912923e1053d383c4
--- /dev/null
+++ b/dataset/data/docs/chibanda-and-kabanda_Towards an African cybersecurity community of practice.pdf-d4bd0d.md
@@ -0,0 +1,159 @@
+# Towards an African cybersecurity community of practice
+
+Rutendo Chibanda and Salah Kabanda Information Systems Department University of Cape Town, Cape Town chbrut002@myuct.ac.za, salah.kabanda@uct.ac.za
+
+# Abstract
+
+In recent years cybersecurity challenges and concerns have become a common theme for discussion by both the government and private sector. These challenges are partly brought on by the continued use of and dependence on information technology, such as the internet, wireless networks and the development and use of smart devices. Additionally, the Covid-19 pandemic has also led to the increase in internet use as it altered the way in which people live and work through forcing businesses and even schools to move to remote working. All these events have made cybersecurity challenges and concerns spiral and more so in Africa where cybercrime continues to rise and be a constant threat. This study proposes a cybersecurity community of practice as a strategy to address African contextual cybersecurity challenges. This qualitative enquiry, based on organizations on the African continent, identifies key characteristics and objectives of an African cybersecurity CoP. These findings provide practical implications for CoP African members and a steppingstone on what to consider prior to implementing an African CoP for addressing cybersecurity challenges and concerns.
+
+# Keywords
+
+Cybersecurity Challenges, Cyber threats, and Cybersecurity Community of Practice
+
+# 1. Introduction
+
+The number of internet users worldwide in 2019, was 3.97 billion up from 3.74 billion in the previous year (Johnson, 2021; Oforji et al., 2017). This increase in internet use could be due to, an ease of access to computers, modernisation of countries around the globe as well as, a rise in the utilisation of smartphones (Johnson, 2021). There are various benefits associated with the increased use of the internet such as, the ability to communicate over geographical locations especially in these difficult times of the Covid-19 pandemic, easier access to information and better storage of vast amounts of data through cloud computing (Schatz et al., 2010). Researchers have associated this increased internet use during the pandemic with lower depression level scores and thus, a better quality of life in middle aged and older people as communication may counter isolation or loneliness (Wallinheimo & Evans, 2021).
+
+However, the increased use of the internet has also led to an increase in cybersecurity challenges as there is the threat of attackers, intruders, spammers, and hackers within these environments (Namasudra et al., 2020). Cybersecurity refers to the protection of internet connected systems from cyberattacks (Srinivas et al., 2019). This increase in cybersecurity challenges is due to, cyber criminals having found an opportunity to compromise the databases and confidential data of both small and large enterprises in developing and developed countries (Tao et al., 2019). In recent years cybersecurity has risen due to the continued use and dependence on computer systems, the internet, wireless networks such as, WIFI or Bluetooth and the development and use of smart devices as a part of the Internet of Things (IoT) (Oforji et al., 2017). Africa has been recorded as one of the regions with the fastest growing cybercrime activities partly due to the vulnerability of the information systems in these contexts which gives rise to the increased number of threats (Kshetri, 2019). Prior studies have documented the challenges associated with cybersecurity in Africa and strategies for addressing them. Yet, cybersecurity concerns remain and are increasing day by day. The persistence and dangerous nature of this problem confirms that researchers and practitioners are yet to understand the cybersecurity landscape and its associated challenges in Africa. This study proposes a cybersecurity community of practice that seeks to address African contextual cybersecurity challenges. A CoP has the potential to create opportunities for leveraging knowledge from key stakeholders such as various government, industry, and academia experts (Wenger, 2011). This knowledge would contribute towards a better understanding of cybersecurity challenges. Thus, this study seeks to address the question: what should be the key characteristics, and objectives, of an African cybersecurity community of practice (CoP)?
+
+# 2. Related work on Cybersecurity and Community of Practice
+
+Cyber attackers have become more technologically advanced in imposing threats and intrusions to computer systems, networks, or mobile devices as the cyber space is a fast-evolving technological environment (Fischer, 2016). These attacks are voluminous, evolve constantly, have high speed, very sophisticated, and persistent which causes substantial challenges to the preventive security services (Thames & Schaefer, 2017). Some attacks experienced such as, Denial of Service attacks can slow or stop authorised users from gaining access to their systems. In some cases, attackers even take full control of the system leaving organisations crippled (Fischer, 2016). However, despite some organisations implementing cybersecurity strategies, incidents such as cyber-attacks still show a rising trend (Deloitte, 2021). For example, Kenya experienced a spike in cyber threats within the second quarter up until December 2020. A report by the Communications Authority of Kenya stated that cyber threats increased in cost from 35.1 million dollars in the previous quarter to 59.8 million dollars which is a $59.8~\%$ increase in cyber threats. (Telecompaper, 2021). Other cybersecurity challenges affecting African organisations include cyber-attacks such as, hacks (Sawyer & Hancock, 2018), breaches (Mitts & Talley, 2019), ransomware and phishing (Kaspersky, 2021). Nigeria had lost N127 billion annually to cyber-crime attacks (This Day, 2019); and in South Africa, cyber-attacks cost more than R2.2 billion annually. In 2018 there was approximately $75.3\%$ rise in cyber-attacks within the banking sector (The Banking Association South Africa, 2020). These cyber-attacks and threats have become more sophisticated and are thus, capable of causing greater damage as cyber attackers have become more focussed and experienced in issuing their attacks (Smith, 2021). For example, phishing attacks in South Africa have risen by $57\%$ from the time the Covid-19 pandemic began (Smith, 2021). This could be as a result of, more organisations working remotely but with little or no cybersecurity mechanisms in place to fight against such cyber-attacks.
+
+These cybersecurity challenges become more complicated to resolve as the cyber space is a dynamic fast evolving technological environment comprising of a myriad of challenges in the form of costs, SETA, ransomware threats (Mohurle & Patil, 2017), malware (Iliev et al., 2019), cultural and legal components (Fischer, 2016). One of the significant challenges in tackling cybersecurity has been the cost as far more specialised technology and strategies are used to defend modernised businesses more effectively (Milne, 2021). These strategies involve significantly large investments in human and financial resources which allow organisations to conform to the information security procedures (Tatar et al., 2014). Moreover, educating employees within organisations about cybersecurity strategies is also quite expensive as, the activities are hands-on, experiential and the learning follows a guided approach, making it quite labour and time intensive (McGettrick et al., 2014). Another challenge pertains to the security education and training (Razvan et al., 2018) and awareness, which are limited in most African organisations setting. Global Cyber Alliance report (2019) stated that the cost of cyber-crime in Africa increased from approximately half a billion dollars in 2015 to 3 billion dollars in 2019; making it paramount to enhance cybersecurity education and hygiene to mitigate threats in businesses. Yet, such awareness, training and education program as well as strategies for addressing cybersecurity challenges are costly for most developing countries, and Africa in particular. To address these challenges, this study proposes the adoption of an African cyber security Community of Practice (CoP) - a group of people that share passions and concerns for a common idea or something they engage in, and they learn to improve on it through further interactions (Wenger, 2011). A CoP is defined by three characteristics namely, practice (Wenger, 2011) which is the contribution, sharing and exchange of information between the members of a team. Secondly, community (Nobles & Burrell, 2018) which is described as the interactions between members for the purpose of knowledge management and finally, the domain (Wenger, 2011) which addresses the subject to be dealt with in interactions and helps with the integration of members. Some of the key features offered by a community of practice include knowledge preservation and reuse, knowledge transfer mechanism (Huang & Perng, 2017), clear focus (King, 2016), diversity (Pohjola et al., 2016), active learning (King, 2016), and participation commitment. In addition, performance improvements such as, increased core competencies, heightened innovation learning as well as, enhanced work efficiency, and amplified responsiveness can be gained by organisations which operate CoPs both internally and externally (Chu & Khosla, 2009).
+
+Prior studies have shown that a cybersecurity community of practice has been used in developed economies to leverage knowledge from government, industry, and academia experts (Nobles & Burrell, 2018). Pittman and Pike (2016) presented a study were a CoP was adopted in order to support peer learning centered on cybersecurity education amongst high school learners. They advocated for further studies in peer learning and CoP structures to support cybersecurity education. Chen et al. (2017) also discussed how a CoP was adopted by medical students to develop their levels of innovation, leadership skills, knowledge, and peer support. Some researchers have suggested there is some level of difficulty associated with choosing the most appropriate CoP type for a particular business or event as, their characteristics differ according to culture, type of business, structure, and scale of organisation (Hong, 2017). A CoP can be classified into categories, namely informal, sponsored, and strategic CoPs. In an informal CoP, members participate through free will and no one should be forced to engage or participate in various activities (Hong, 2017). Additionally, the members also engage based on a shared common interest but, formal CoPs usually have goals that are closely linked to the organisation’s objectives and its purpose. In terms of strategic CoP employees can only gain membership through applications and adherence to CoP rules (Hong, 2017). Although this classification provides a starting point of describing a CoP, this study seeks to identify the type and characteristics of an African cyber security Community of Practice (CoP). Given that contextual challenges in Africa differ from those of developed economies, and the fact that “Africa is a region with one of the highest rates of cybercrime and significant financial losses” (Bada et al., 2019) it becomes imperative to explore and describe a CoP that befits this context.
+
+Towards an African cybersecurity community of practice
+
+# 3. Methodology
+
+A qualitative enquiry approach to the study was adopted. To the best of the researcher’s knowledge, they have not found a paper in Africa that addresses the topic of a Cybersecurity Community of Practice, despite Africa being one of the leading regions in terms of Cybersecurity attacks (Bada et al., 2019). The study population comprised of large organisations that have the resources to have cybersecurity strategies in place on the African continent – bearing in mind that such strategies tend to be quite costly (Tatar et al., 2014). The study adopted a purposeful/selective sampling technique, commonly used by qualitative researchers to recruit participants who can provide in-depth information on the phenomenon under investigation (Palinkas et al., 2015). The researcher chose participants from Linked In, and some were selected from various guest lectures that came to speak to the Honours students. Additionally, others were selected through referrals, and some were within the academia industry. Thorough selection process was conducted and only participants that were aware of and experienced in cybersecurity were selected.
+
+Data was collected from seven organisations using qualitative semi-structured interviews. The development of the research instrument was guided by the research question. and cybersecurity and CoP key concepts from literature: Cybersecurity challenges, and the perceptions of a Community of Practice (CoP) for addressing cybersecurity challenges and concerns. The instrument was structured as follows, Section A: Demographic information of respondents and the goal of this section was determine, whether the respondents are an accurate representation of the research sample. Additionally, to elicit information based on organisation background in terms of its establishment, size (based on turnover levels- the higher the turnover the better as such organisations are more likely to afford cybersecurity strategies), industry, and sector classification. Section B was Cybersecurity Challenges because the key research objective was identifying the key characteristics and objectives of an African cybersecurity CoP. In order to do so it was essential for the researcher to ask questions related to the cybersecurity challenges that have been experienced in the organisations, and the corresponding cybersecurity strategies that were implemented to mitigate these challenges. Finally, Section C was Perceptions of a CoP and these aimed to identify whether the interviewees are aware of the existence of CoPs, and their benefits, challenges even the types of Cops as well as, their Critical success factors.
+
+Secondary data was also used to elicit information that could assist in improving the quality of this study. To accomplish this, the researcher attended 1 Organisational Cybersecurity Webinar which was centered on cyber threats and attacks in Sub-Saharan Africa (SSA) and cybersecurity vulnerabilities of people SSA.
+
+This research adopted thematic analysis to identify and analyse various patterns of themes within qualitative data. Firstly, the qualitative interviews were transcribed into text by manually listening to the audio recordings recorded through MS Teams and typing the transcribed data into Microsoft Word. After the data was transcribed, all the sensitive or confidential information provided by the interviewees were replaced with pseudonyms. For example, the interviewees’ personal details such as names and their company names were given unique IDs in order to adhere to the ethical considerations of the Ethics Committee. The files were also renamed according to the company pseudonyms and their corresponding participant’s ID, for example UNV03_L07 or IT01_L12. This process of transcription of the data was a good way for the researchers to start familiarising themselves with the data. Moreover, according to Bird (2005) transcription is a critical phase which must be done in an interpretive qualitative study. Following the transcription phase, the researcher actively read the transcribed data repeatedly to avoid missing out on any important themes or concepts alluded to in the responses given. Then, the code generation was initialized to identify various features that may be interesting in the data regarding cybersecurity community of practice. The codes generated were colour coded to represent what emerged as cybersecurity challenges, CoP perceptions or any links between the codes were shown as
+
+Towards an African cybersecurity community of practice relationships. After having the initial codes, NVivo 12 Pro was then used to assist with the pattern identification.
+
+# 4. Findings
+
+# 4.1Descriptive Findings
+
+The researcher interviewed 12 participants from 7 organisations situated in Africa. The participants where all based in the countries indicated on the demographic table.
+
+The findings showed that most of the respondents were male. There were various organisations that were interviewed which fall within the tertiary education sector. According to respondent UNV03 _L07 “the UNV03 the institution is very mindful of security and has cybersecurity strategies in place to combat cyber threats and attacks.” The other organisations that were interviewed where within the Transport and Logistics, Accounting, Information Technology, and Health sectors. For example, “Organization IT 01 was in the Information Technology space and had recently merged with several organisations from Kenya and South Africa. The company employs about 28000 people across 46 countries and makes use of cybersecurity strategies religiously to fight cyber - attacks.” (IT01_L12). Table 1 shows the respondent’s profile and experiences in different sectors. For example, respondent IT01_L12 was “previously a Cybersecurity Engineer and consultant; but currently working as a Practice Lead Manager for Security Services.”
+
+Table 1: Demographics of details of respondents
+
+
+
Organisation
Participant
Gender
Position
Years (#)
Industry/sector
Country
UNV01
UNV01_L01
Male
Senior Technical
6
Hitution Education
South Africa
UNV01_L02
Male
Professor
21
UNV01_L03
Male
Senior
3
UNV02
UNV02_L05
Male
Researcher Lecturer
13
UNV03
UNV03_L07
Male
Professor
20
ACC01
ACC01_L08
Male
Senior Manager
4
Advisory/Consulting
TL01
TL01_L09
Female
Chief Executive
3
Transport/Logistics
Zimbabwe
TL01_L10
Male
Officer (CEO) Junior Manager
3
Transport/Logistics
PM01
PM01_L11
Female
CEO/Founder
Pharmaceutical
IT01
IT01_L12
Male
3 10
Knya, South
TL01
TL01_L13
Male
Manager
5
Transport/Logistics
PM01
PM01_L14
Male
Manager
4
Pharmaceutical
Zimbabwe
UNV01#SD
Secondary Data
Information Technology
South Africa
+
+Participant UNV03_L07 holds a top management role and acts as a coordinator for a short program in Cybersecurity at the institution. Participant ACC01_L08 worked with cybersecurity strategies as a top management personnel. His role as a senior manager consultant involves advising clients on cybersecurity measures and perform audits on cybersecurity controls… and gauge the cybersecurity state to help the clients we are auditing to improve. Participants from countries such as, Zimbabwe had the least years of experience as compared to those from more developed African countries such as, South Africa where two of the interviewed respondents had more than 20 years of experience. For the more experienced respondents, the 20 years of working with cybersecurity strategies was attained in corporate and 5 years attained in academia as respondent UNV03_L07 explains: “I have worked with cybersecurity strategies - From an academic point of view, 5 years. From a corporate point of view 20 years.” Although the findings show that countries that are more developed tend to have more experienced employees; it should be borne in mind that the number of years one is in a particular position does not directly translate into the knowledge or level of experience in cybersecurity.
+
+# 4.2Empirical findings
+
+# 4.2.1 Cybersecurity Awareness, Training and education
+
+Cybersecurity awareness and education was consistently identified as a challenge and according to respondent ACC01_L08, the need for continuous improvement in strategies cannot be understated. The respondent explains that employees lack awareness and if they are aware, they fail to practice security measures and still fall victim to attacks such as phishing. The respondent posits that “the root cause can be traced back to a lack of understanding of cybersecurity by business leaders as a business risk. They would see Cybersecurity as just an IT risk without realising that it is something that could tear the business to pieces. They lack governance of cybersecurity. Due to the limited knowledge organisations have on cybersecurity, several cybersecurity practitioners engaged in training and education programs as a means of educating and helping clients to understand [cybersecurity challenges] so that they are able to make the best decisions when choosing how to secure their systems most effectively.” (IT01_L12). According to some respondents, for training to be effective and acted upon by all members of the organisation, the training was to start at management level. Respondent ACC01_L08 clarifies: “Yes, how seriously do organisations take security? It starts with leadership and governance”. In addition to training, there was a need for cyber security practitioners to be sensitive to the terminologies used during the training and education programs. For example, it was noted that “some of the terms used that are related to cybersecurity are not easily understandable to clients” (IT01_L12)
+
+The lack of awareness, training and education on cybersecurity according IT01_L12 was seen to negatively impact security monitoring processes despite having the tools to avoid security concerns because “when clients are unaware; they really don’t know what they don’t know, and they can still be hit by ransomware even when they have the tools to curb this from happening… we conduct training as a means of educating and helping clients to understand so that they are able to make the best decisions when choosing how to secure their systems most effectively.”(IT01_L12). A consistent note from respondents was that most organisation failed to implement comprehensive solutions or tools in place not because they do not have the tools or basic resources, but because cyber security practitioners in these organisations lack awareness and the education to know what solutions to implement. A further concern from most respondents was that “some clients implemented improper cybersecurity framework which does not match their organisation or is incompatible with the way in which the organisation is run due to lack of awareness and education, and this resulted in various security loopholes” (ACC01_L08). According to the findings in the secondary data collected from Organisational cybersecurity Webinars which were centred on cyber threats and attacks in Sub-Saharan Africa (SSA), this was problematic and called for: “The need to build in-house capacity, specifically technical and non-technical indigenous solutions tailored to address contextual challenges. We need solid awareness and training programmes, and this should be a shared responsibility” (UNV01_SD#1). Respondents saw a CoP not only as a potential strategy that would allow stakeholders to come together and engage in capacity building, sharing of knowledge and awareness creation of cybersecurity challenges in
+
+Africa; but also, as a starting point of addressing silo initiatives that fail to provide context specific solution tackling cybersecurity challenges to the continent (UNV01_SD#1).
+
+# 4.2.2 Shared Values, Knowledge sharing and trust amongst stakeholders
+
+Some respondents argued that it is important for stakeholders who intend to participate in the CoP to have a shared understanding of cybersecurity and shared values around it. Respondent UNV02_L05 remarked that “we must have shared values and understanding to help work together more effectively.” Respondent UNV03_L07 stated that “Having shared values or rather the same mind about cybersecurity helps in its successful implementation.” According to respondent UNV01_L02 “If a shared understanding exists it will increase the level of the knowledge shared. People can share knowledge that’s either tacit or explicit. So, a CoP can work if we are of the same mind. I would say it can work even more effectively in our African context due to the existence of ideologies like Ubuntu given that cybersecurity is now a social problem” (UNV01_L02). Shared values can be fostered when members have the same knowledge and understanding about cybersecurity. Knowledge sharing was highlighted as crucial aspect of a CoP in Africa due to the minimal cybersecurity awareness, education, and training. According to respondent IT01_L12 “One bank can be hacked in one way and 3 other banks will be hacked in the same way. But because they don’t share knowledge, they all suffer the same fate.” According to respondent UNV01_L01 “the more knowledge that is shared pertaining to cybersecurity the higher the level of cybersecurity education and awareness” (UNV01_L01). This perception was shared among all participants. The more cybersecurity challenges are treated as a shared responsibility in which cybersecurity knowledge is shared within and across organisations, the easier it would be to address the challenges. However, sharing of knowledge was hampered by a lack of trust Respondent IT01_L12points that: “It is important to note that this knowledge can only be shared most effectively when trust has been built and the individuals are committed to solving the challenges at hand whilst working as one team.” (IT01_L12). The lack of trust was seen to be triggered by the lack of successful prosecution of cybercriminal activities. Whilst cybersecurity education was important, there was also a need to strengthen how cybercrimes were addressed. According to respondent UNV03_L07: “people don’t understand cyber-crime; especially the cyber laws in the country; they have not actually seen a successfully prosecuted cyber-criminal in any one of the courts. People have lost confidence in the legal system as there are no concrete actions taken, which makes it feel pointless for some individuals to share their knowledge of cyber related crimes as there is no concrete regard that those who commit cyber-crimes will be ‘brought to book.” (UNV03_L07). IT01_L12 stated that: “In Africa we need to change our policies and governance, so that we can share information. For example: sharing information as countries and having regular meetings were we talk about EDR, and someone explains how that is helping them.” (IT01_L12) Respondent UNV01_L01 agreed and suggested that: “cybersecurity policies and legislation development should always be seen as an iterative process, the strategies are effective, but they can always be continuously improved.”
+
+# 4.2.3 Commitment, collaboration and Continuous learning
+
+The findings showed that it is important for all stakeholders participating in a CoP to be committed to the mission of addressing cybersecurity. This commitment was highly linked to how resources such as knowledge are shared in the CoP and how trusting individuals are (UNV01_L01). According to UNV02_L05 “the sharing of knowledge will allow members to be more committed to solving the problems at hand especially if they trust each other enough to share their intellectual property. Mutual trust and respect are important as it fosters commitment, and this commitment will have a positive influence on the way in which people work as a team.” Whilst commitment to the CoP cybersecurity agenda was perceived as important, there was also a perception that collaboration in African states was key to its success (PM01_L11). Respondents mentioned that “there is no perfect solution for
+
+cybersecurity (UNV01_L02) as the attacks come about in various forms.” The respondent noted that “organisations must develop a culture of continuously improving the strategies in place because strategies can never be 100% fool-proof. There must be a continuous effort, the organisation must work with other institutions to fight against cyber-attacks.” (UNV01_L02). Respondent ACC01_L08 noted his observation that “organisations do not have a broad range of cybersecurity strategies in place and when they do, there is a lack of consistency in applying cybersecurity controls which then affects incidence response planning and recovery.” Respondent IT01_L12 explained that these challenges can easily be addressed within a CoP “where a culture of continuously learn to improve the strategies and thus successfully combat cybersecurity concerns exists” (IT01_L12).
+
+# 4.2.4 Identify and understand the threat landscape
+
+Every participant provided the researcher with various cyberattacks experienced within their organisations. Respondent IT01_L12 explained that organisations are not only attacked from external sources, but insiders can attack their own to give cyber attackers access to insert malicious software in the system. “In some instances, employees were offered a lot of money to install malicious software on the company system. This is dangerous because some employees may be in tough positions and thus, engage in such actions.” (IT01_L12). Respondent ACC01_L08 further explained that insider attacks can also transpire through non-malicious threats. “There are also non-malicious cyber threats such as, attaching the wrong file and sending to the wrong recipient. These attacks are serious and, in most cases, would occur because the strategies in place can never be $100\%$ fool-proof. Measures can only be effective for now.” (ACC01_L08). Several respondents identified human behaviour as the main threat that exacerbated the challenges of cybersecurity. Respondent UNV01_L02 explained that some employees still refuse to adhere to cybersecurity good practices but prefer to share their passwords with their lovers or save them on unsecure websites which shows that cybersecurity can be identified as a social problem. He explains: “the solution to cyber-crime cannot be just infrastructure as it is more of a social problem (dealing with human beings). For example, have the people been brought up to speed on cyber related challenges - (that is questionable). We still have people that leave their passwords under the keyboard or save them on their browsers, give passwords to their lovers” (UNV01_L02). Other respondents identified cybersecurity as more than a technical or social problem but rather as a cultural problem and they advised that in order to solve this problem “punitive measures such as cybersecurity policies and governance must be put in place and anyone who violates the cybersecurity legislation in place must be apprehended.” (UNV03_L07). These findings were supported by the secondary data from the cybersecurity panel who not only called for the need to coordinate and collaborate to solve these cyber threats but proposed the need to comprehensively identify, document and understand the threat landscape – “we need to know what threats we are facing to solve the cybersecurity challenges” (UNV01_SD#1). To have a coordinated and shared understanding of the threat landscape, is perceived as key in the development and implementation of a CoP in Africa (ACC01_L08).
+
+# 4.2.5 Cost
+
+A continuous claim by respondents was that cybersecurity education was expensive and this negatively impacted training and awareness. Apart from the cost of education, implementing cybersecurity strategies was also perceived as expensive (TL01_L09). Respondent TL01_L10 felt that the costs associated with implementing cybersecurity solutions have affected their ability to effectively combine various strategies to manage cybersecurity challenges more robustly. He explains: “The strategies need to be continuously improved to ensure they can mitigate all the challenges being experienced. I would think combining the strategies we have with other strategies would be helpful. However, the issue of cost has crippled our capacity to do that.” (TL01_L10) “One potential avenue for addressing cost related to cybersecurity was through a CoP were people with knowledge on cybersecurity can share ideas and help educate other employees who may be unaware. You can start in-house then go outside. i.e.: set up short programs where professors and lecturers with sufficient knowledge teach others about cybersecurity” (UNV03_L07). Some respondents noted that cybersecurity frameworks were too expensive to implement and maintain in order to obtain defence mechanisms to fight against cyber-attacks and were also very time consuming to set up (ACC01_L08).
+
+# 5. Discussion of the findings
+
+The findings show that an African cybersecurity CoP is characterised by three main structures: the cybersecurity landscape, structures that create shared understanding of cybersecurity in Africa (Kshetri, 2019), and shared values and trust as presented in Figure 1. These structures are not static and each structure influences and is influenced by the other. Starting with the cybersecurity landscape, the findings showed that most respondents were males employed in top management positions of the organisations. Although these findings could be brought upon by sampling limitation, these findings still confirm and reiterate that gender gaps are still prevalent within the Information Technology sector and more specifically in the cybersecurity space (Kamberidou & Pascall, 2019). In the year 2019 women comprised of only $9\%$ of these professionals in Africa (Poster, 2018). Women underrepresentation in the information technology remains a persistent challenge despite the efforts to ensure equal opportunities in legislation and government policies (Reinking & Martin, 2018; Wang & Degol, 2017). One of the reasons for the gender gaps in Africa has been the belief that cybersecurity is a male-dominated and highly specialised field (Peacock & Irons, 2017) and therefore not a suitable fit for women. In addition to providing government intervention of having inclusive policies that target gender gaps, there remains a need for a conscious cultural and society shift in Africa to allow women to venture into male dominated fields and specialisation (Akinola, 2018).
+
+A cybersecurity CoP for Africa was well received by participants who perceived a CoP as a means of addressing the ongoing dynamic challenges of cybersecurity in Africa. They however identified pertinent attributes that the CoP needs to possess and engage in for it to adequately address African contextual cybersecurity challenges. Firstly, there was a need for individual states and private sectors to collectively embark on cybersecurity awareness, training and education programs that serve as a foundation for understanding what it is, what you don’t know and using what you already have, how can you address what you know (IT01_L12). These findings reiterate prior studies that lack of awareness of threats and risks within the cyber space is a challenge (Bada et al., 2019), which is compounded by the lack of cybersecurity education and training (Security Boulevard, 2021) brought upon by the inadequate infrastructure required to offer cybersecurity training programs in Africa (Barinov & Sharova, 2021; Goussard, 2021; Gregory & Sovacool, 2019) as well as the high levels of computer illiteracy and inadequate regulatory measures against cyber-attacks. Once the cybersecurity landscape has been explored and understood, for example foundation of awareness, training and education on cybersecurity have been implemented, this will serve as a steppingstone for African states to come together and collectively develop and form shared understanding of cybersecurity concerns and strategies that could lead to having shared view and values on how to address cybersecurity challenges. In Africa, prior studies have noted that when a community has shared values and a shared understanding of some phenomenon, those attributes help to uphold the Ubuntu principles of solidarity, cohesiveness, collectivism, and participatory leadership (Kamwangamalu, 1999; Mulaudzi et al., 2009). Practising and upholding these principles, allows members to learn (Barinov & Sharova, 2021; Goussard, 2021; Gregory & Sovacool, 2019). A cybersecurity CoP in Africa that demonstrated Ubuntu principles which encourages unity and working together to achieve one goal of “I am because we are” (Kamwangamalu, 1999; Mulaudzi et al., 2009) was perceived as an important step towards the agenda of addressing cybersecurity challenges in Africa. Knowledge sharing and building trust amongst stakeholders was regarded as one of the mechanisms of keeping to the principles of Ubuntu. With shared knowledge, comes shared understanding and in due course shared values (IT01_L12). With shared values, stakeholders can ultimately build trust, a key prerequisite for a successful CoP in Africa (Pohjola et al., 2016). It is therefore imperative that conducive structures for knowledge sharing are made to facilitate the process of trust building in a CoP within the context of Africa where challenges such as culture, and language make it difficult to arrive at a shared understanding (De Barros Jerônimo et al., 2018). Such structures should lead members of a CoP to become committed and allow them to easily collaborate when addressing cybersecurity concerns. A lack of commitment and collaboration could negatively impact knowledge shared, and consequently leading to lack of trust within the CoP (De Barros Jerônimo et al., 2018).
+
+
+Figure 1: A Cybersecurity CoP for Africa
+
+Findings in this study identified the need for members of a cybersecurity CoP to cultivate a culture of continuous learning and improvement of cybersecurity strategies, given the already existing limited awareness, education, and training programs around the phenomenon. These findings echo prior studies in the field of continuous learning (Shafqat & Masood, 2016; Teoh & Mahmood, 2017). The continuous improvement of cybersecurity strategies would require an ongoing process of identification and understanding of the cyber security threat landscape in Africa where the cyber threat landscape is continuously evolving (Fischer, 2016). There was a continuous call from participants that an African cybersecurity CoP should possess structures that allow cost effective implementation of the proposed strategies and solutions. The findings pointed to costs being high and reflect those of Milne (2021) who stated that organisations that implement cybersecurity strategies face the challenge of using exorbitant amounts of money as, far more specialized technology is used to defend modernized businesses more effectively. This challenge is more prominent in Africa where most organisations do not have sufficient resources to implement cybersecurity strategies (Dlamini & Mbambo, 2019; Leenen et al., 2020).
+
+Based on these findings, and the presentation by Hong (2017), this study advocates for a formal CoP that mirrors the characteristics of both a sponsored and strategic formal CoP. The objectives of the African cybersecurity CoP are to create awareness, education, and training on cybersecurity, establish a culture of continuous learning and develop structures of developing cost-effective solutions for cybersecurity. The CoP objectives further includes the identification and solving of cybersecurity concerns, establishment of collective shared values and the development of structures for knowledge sharing, trust building, commitment and collaboration. The development of the African cybersecurity CoP should be a strategic endeavor and includes members who have a shared goal of addressing cybersecurity challenges. Thus, CoP membership participation is by free will of those interested in addressing cybersecurity concerns; or invited by colleague/cybersecurity expert/practitioner. By doing so, the CoP is not limited to individuals who work or participate in the formal cybersecurity space alone but is open to other stakeholders who are affected by cybersecurity challenges. However, to ensure social inclusion and gender justice as an integral part of the CoP, membership should include targeted identification of individuals that meet transformative agenda of social inclusion, who share the common interest of addressing cybersecurity concerns. As Chiweshe (2019,1) reiterates that without “a concerted effort to undertake socially inclusive processes the Information technology revolution will in many ways fail women, especially in Africa”. These efforts should be accompanied by, among other solutions, policy frameworks for social inclusion programmes in cyber security education to train more young women in science, technology, engineering, and mathematics (Chiweshe, 2019). A CoP that follows a public–private partnership (PPP) model is advocated for in this study to ensure that stakeholders such as the government and the industry collaborate and prepare resilient cybersecurity strategies; bearing in mind of course, the critical success factors of implementing a PPP model in developing countries such as those in Africa (Pomerleau & Lowery, 2020). A PPP model would assist in reducing the exorbitant costs, resources and infrastructure challenges associated with cybersecurity in Africa (Barinov & Sharova, 2021; Goussard, 2021; Gregory & Sovacool, 2019; Milne, 2021) and challenges posed by cybersecurity management
+
+# 6. Conclusion
+
+Africa continuous to experience cyberattacks and is perceived by many as the haven for cyber criminals. Although several strategies are proposed in literature on how to address cybersecurity in Africa, the challenges associated with cyber related crimes remain. This study proposes a formal cybersecurity community of practice as a starting point for Africans to collectively address cyber related challenges. Following a qualitative enquiry approach across the continent with cybersecurity experts and practitioners, the study presents key characteristics and espoused objectives of an effective formal African cybersecurity CoP. Such descriptive findings contribute towards a better understanding on how to implement a formal cybersecurity CoP that seeks to address Africa’s cybersecurity challenges and concerns.
+
+# References
+
+Akinola, A. O. (2018). Women, Culture and Africa’s Land Reform Agenda. Frontiers in Psychology, 9(1), 1-3. https://doi.org/https://doi.org/10.3389/fpsyg.2018.02234
+Bada, M., von Solms, B., & Agrafiotis, I. (2019). Reviewing National Cybersecurity Awareness in Africa: An Empirical Study. Paper presented at the The Third International Conference on Cyber-Technologies and Cyber-Systems, CYBER 2018, 78-83. https://doi.org/10.17863/CAM.40856 https://www.repository.cam.ac.uk/handle/1810/293742
+Barinov, A. K., & Sharova, A. Y. (2021). Infrastructure development in Africa (East African Transport). Asia and Africa Today, (7), 38-46.
+Chiweshe, M. K. (2019). Fourth Industrial Revolution: What's in it for African Women? Africa Portal. https://www.africaportal.org/publications/fourth-industrial-revolution-whats-it-africanwomen/
+Chu, M., & Khosla, R. (2009). Index evaluations and business strategies on communities of practice. Expert Systems with Applications, 36(2), 1549-1558. https://doi.org/10.1016/j.eswa.2007.11.053
+De Barros Jerônimo, T., Coutinho de Melo, Fagner José, Tomaz de Aquino, J., Gonzaga de Albuquerque, André Philippi, & Dumke de Medeiros, D. (2018). Knowledge management alignment to the community of practice in a company of cutting and bending steel. Brazilian
+Towards an African cybersecurity community of practice R. Chibanda and S. Kabanda Journal of Operations & Production Management, 15(1), 1-11. https://doi.org/10.14488/BJOPM.2018.v15.n1.a1
+Deloitte. (2021). Impact of COVID-19 on Cybersecurity. Deloitte. https://www2.deloitte.com/ch/en/pages/risk/articles/impact-covid-cybersecurity.html
+Dlamini, S., & Mbambo, C. (2019). Understanding policing of cyber-crime in South Africa: The phenomena, challenges and effective responses. Cogent Social Sciences, 5(1), 1675404.
+Fischer, E. A. (2016). Cybersecurity Issues and Challenges: In Brief. Congressional Research Service, Senior Specialist in Science and Technology , 1-9.
+Goussard, H. (2021). Expert Eye: A new way to analyse African Infrastructure | Industry Insights. Africa Outlook Magazine. https://www.africaoutlookmag.com/industry-insights/article/1094- expert-eye-a-new-way-to-analyse-african-infrastructure
+Gregory, J., & Sovacool, B. K. (2019). The financial risks and barriers to electricity infrastructure in Kenya, Tanzania, and Mozambique: A critical and systematic review of the academic literature. Energy Policy, 125, 145-153.
+Hong, J. (2017). A method for identifying the critical success factors of CoP based on performance evaluation. Knowledge Management Research & Practice, 15(4), 572-593. https://doi.org/10.1057/s41275-017-0066-6
+Huang, H., & Perng, Y. (2017). Factors Influencing the Success of Communities of Practice in the Interior Decoration Industry. Paper presented at the Proceedings of the 2017 International Conference on Organizational Innovation,341-345. https://doi.org/10.2991/icoi-17.2017.59
+Iliev, A., Kyurkchiev, N., Rahnev, A., & Terzieva, T. (2019). Some models in the theory of computer viruses propagation. LAP LAMBERT Academic Publishing.
+Johnson, J. (2021). Global number of internet users 2005-2019. Statista. https://www.statista.com/statistics/273018/number-of-internet-users-worldwide/
+Kamberidou, I., & Pascall, N. (2019). The digital skills crisis: engendering technology–empowering women in cyberspace. European Journal of Social Sciences Studies, 4(6), 1-33.
+Kamwangamalu, N. M. (1999). Ubuntu in South Africa: A sociolinguistic perspective to a panAfrican concept. Critical Arts, 13(2), 24-41.
+Kaspersky. (2021). Over half of ransomware victims pay the ransom, but only a quarter see their full data returned. Kaspersky. https://www.kaspersky.com/about/press-releases/2021_over-half-ofransomware-victims-pay-the-ransom-but-only-a-quarter-see-their-full-data-returned
+King, M. (2016). 6 Key Features of a successful Community of Practice.37(6), 1-3.
+Kshetri, N. (2019). Cybercrime and Cybersecurity in Africa. Journal of Global Information Technology Management, 22(2), 77-81. https://doi.org/10.1080/1097198X.2019.1603527
+Leenen, L., van Vuuren, J. J., & van Vuuren, A. J. (2020). Cybersecurity and Cybercrime Combatting Culture for African Police Services. Paper presented at the IFIP International Conference on Human Choice and Computers, 248-261.
+McGettrick, A., Cassel, L., Dark, M., Hawthorne, E., & Impagliazzo, J. (2014). Toward curricular guidelines for cybersecurity. Paper presented at the 81-82. https://doi.org/https://doi.org/10.1145/2538862.2538990
+Milne, A. (2021). The rising cost of cyber security expertise. Field Effect. https://fieldeffect.com/blog/rising-cost-cyber-security-expertise/
+Mitts, J., & Talley, E. (2019). Informed trading and cybersecurity breaches. Harv.Bus.L.Rev., 9, 1.
+Mohurle, S., & Patil, M. (2017). A brief study of wannacry threat: Ransomware attack. International Journal of Advanced Research in Computer Science, 8(5), 1938-1940. https://doi.org/10.26483/ijarcs.v8i5.4021
+Towards an African cybersecurity community of practice
+Mulaudzi, F. M., Libster, M. M., & Phiri, S. (2009). Suggestions for Creating a Welcoming. International Journal for Human Caring, 13(2)
+Namasudra, S., Devi, D., Kadry, S., Sundarasekar, R., & Shanthini, A. (2020). Towards DNA based data security in the cloud computing environment. Computer Communications, 151, 539-547. https://doi.org/10.1016/j.comcom.2019.12.041
+Nobles, C., & Burrell, D. (2018). Using Cybersecurity Communities of Practice (CoP) to Support Small and Medium Businesses. Paper presented at the ICIE 2018 6th International Conference on Innovation and Entrepreneurship: ICIE 2018, 333. https://search.proquest.com/docview/2291516634
+Oforji, J. C., Udensi, E. J., & Ibegbu, K. C. (2017). Cybersecurity challenges in Nigeria: The way forward. SosPoly Journal of Science and Agriculture, 2, 1-5.
+Palinkas, L. A., Horwitz, S. M., Green, C. A., Wisdom, J. P., Duan, N., & Hoagwood, K. (2015). Purposeful sampling for qualitative data collection and analysis in mixed method implementation research. Administration and Policy in Mental Health, 42(5), 533-544. https://doi.org/10.1007/s10488-013-0528-y
+Peacock, D., & Irons, A. (2017). Gender inequality in cybersecurity: Exploring the gender gap in opportunities and progression. International Journal of Gender, Science and Technology, 9(1), 25-44.
+Pittman, J. M., & Pike, R. (2016). An Observational Study of Peer Learning for High School Students at a Cybersecurity Camp. Information Systems Education Journal, 14(3), 4. http://isedj.org/2016-14/n3/ISEDJv14n3p4.html
+Pohjola, I., Puusa, A., & Iskanius, P. (2016). Antecedents of Successful Collaboration in Community of Practice between Academia and Industry: A Case Study. Electronic Journal of Knowledge Management : EJKM, 14(3) https://search.proquest.com/docview/1816797111
+Pomerleau, P., & Lowery, D. L. (2020). Conclusions and Implications for Practice and Future Studies on Public–Private Partnerships In Countering Cyber Threats to Financial Institutions . Palgrave Macmillan.
+Poster, W. R. (2018). Cybersecurity needs women. Nature,555(7698), 577-
+580.https://doi.org/10.1038/d41586-018-03327-w
+Razvan, B., Dat, T., Cuong, P., Ken-ichi, C., Yasuo, T., & Yoichi, S. (2018). Integrated framework for hands-on cybersecurity training: CyTrONE. Computers & Security, 78, 43-59. http://hdl.handle.net/10119/16450
+Reinking, A., & Martin, B. (2018). The gender gap in STEM fields: Theories, movements, and ideas to engage girls in STEM. Journal of New Approaches in Educational Research, 7(2), 148-153. https://eric.ed.gov/?id=EJ1185331
+Sawyer, B. D., & Hancock, P. A. (2018). Hacking the human: the prevalence paradox in cybersecurity. Human Factors, 60(5), 597-609.
+Schatz, M. C., Salzberg, S. L., & Langmead, B. (2010). Cloud computing and the DNA data race. Nature Biotechnology; Nat Biotechnol, 28(7), 691-693. https://doi.org/10.1038/nbt0710-691
+Security Boulevard. (2021). Navigating Cybersecurity Gaps in Uncertain Times. Security Boulevard. https://securityboulevard.com/2021/04/navigating-cybersecurity-gaps-in-uncertain-times/
+Shafqat, N., & Masood, A. (2016). Comparative analysis of various national cyber security strategies. International Journal of Computer Science and Information Security, 14(1), 129.
+Smith, C. (2021, May 1,). Move aside malware, the rising threat is stalkerware. Fin24 https://www.news24.com/fin24/companies/ict/move-aside-malware-the-rising-threat-isstalkerware-20210501
+Srinivas, J., Das, A. K., & Kumar, N. (2019). Government regulations in cyber security: Framework, standards and recommendations. Future Generation Computer Systems, 92, 178-188. https://doi.org/10.1016/j.future.2018.09.063
+
+Tao, H., Bhuiyan, M. Z. A., Rahman, M. A., Wang, G., Wang, T., Ahmed, M. M., & Li, J. (2019). Economic perspective analysis of protecting big data security and privacy. Future Generation Computer Systems, 98, 660-671.
+Tatar, Ü, Çalik, O., Çelik, M., & Karabacak, B. (2014). A Comparative Analysis of the National Cyber Security Strategies of Leading Nations . International Conference on Cyber Warfare and Security. Academic Conferences International Limited, 34, 211. https://search.proquest.com/docview/1779459625
+Telecompaper. (2021). Kenya registers spike in cyber threats in Q2. Broadband. https://www.telecompaper.com/news/kenya-registers-spike-in-cyber-threats-in-q2--1378150
+Teoh, C. S., & Mahmood, A. K. (2017). National cyber security strategies for digital economy. Paper presented at the 2017 International Conference on Research and Innovation in Information Systems (ICRIIS), 1-6.
+Thames, L., & Schaefer, D. (2017). Cybersecurity for Industry 4.0 and Advanced Manufacturing Environments with Ensemble Intelligence. Cybersecurity for Industry 4.0. Analysis for Design and Manufacturing (pp. 243-265). Springer, Cham. https://doi.org/https://doi.org/10.1007/978- 3-319-50660-9_10
+The Banking Association South Africa. (2020, Jun 23,). Sabric Annual Crime Stats. Sabric https://www.banking.org.za/news/sabric-annual-crime-stats-2019/
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+Wallinheimo, A., & Evans, S. L. (2021). More Frequent Internet Use during the COVID-19 Pandemic Associates with Enhanced Quality of Life and Lower Depression Scores in MiddleAged and Older Adultshttps://doi.org/10.3390/healthcare9040393
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+Wenger, E. (2011). Community of Practice: A brief introduction. Scholars’ Bank, 1-7. http://hdl.handle.net/1794/11736
\ No newline at end of file
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+# the dpsa
+
+Department: Public Service and Administration REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
+
+Private Bag X916,PRETORIA, 0001 Tel: (012) 336 1000, Fax: (012) 326 7802
+Private Bag X9148, CAPE TOWN, 8000 Tel: (021) 467 5120, Fax:(021) 467 5484
+
+Enquiries : Ayanda Nkundla Tel No. : (012) 336 1250/061 442 0471 Email : ayanda.nkundla@dpsa.gov.za
+
+TO ALL HEADS OF NATIONAL AND PROVINCIAL DEPARTMENTS
+
+CIRCULARNO.01OF 2022
+
+PUBLIC SERVICE CLOUD COMPUTING DETERMINATION AND DIRECTIVEAWARENESS
+
+1. The Minister for Public Service and Administration has approved the Public Service Cloud Computing Determination and Directive (Attached) for implementation by the departments. The Determination and Directive is issued in terms of section 3(1) (f) (g)& (i) of Public Service Act, 1994.
+
+2. The purpose of the Determination and Directive is to provide clear guidance to Public Service departments on adopting and using Cloud Computing services and technologies.
+
+3. The prescripts set out in the Determination and Directive must be applied to all Cioud Services where Government data is either stored and or processed.
+
+# DETERMINATION AND DIRECTIVE ON THE USAGE OFCLOUD COMPUTING SERVICES IN THE PUBLIC SERVICE
+
+# TABLE OF CONTENTS
+
+DEFINITIONS . 3
+1. INTRODUCTION ... 5
+2. PURPOSE . 5
+3. AUTHORISATION . 5
+4. SCOPE OF APPLICATION .. 5
+5. REGULATORY FRAMEWORK ( PROVIDES THE CONTEXT WITHIN WHICH THE DETERMINATION
+AND DIRECTIVE EXISTS) . ... 6
+6. IMPLEMENTATION OF THE DETERMINATION AND DIRECTIVE ... .. 6
+7. NON-COMPLIANCE MANAGEMENT . .. 6
+8. DATE OF IMPLEMENTATION .. . 6
+9. PROVISIONS ON THE USAGE OF CLOUD COMPUTING SERVICES . 6
+9.1. WHAT IS CLOUD COMPUTING? 6
+9.2. GENERAL CLOUD CONSIDERATIONS . . 8
+9.3. BEFORE ACQUIRING AND IMPLEMENTING CLOUD SERVICES .. . 8
+9.4. DURING CLOUD SERVICE CONSUMPTION . 11
+9.5. CLOUD SERVICE TERMINATION . 11
+9.6. GENERAL . 11
+REFERENCES .. . 12
+APPENDIX A – CLOUD READINESS ASSESSMENT CHECKLIST. 14
+
+# DEFINITIONS
+
+
TERM
DEFINITION
ACT
Public Service Act, 1994
BIG DATA
Refers to data that is so large, fast or complex that it's difficult or impossible to process using traditional methods
BUSINESS CASE CLOUD WORKLOAD
A business case is a document where a proposed action is presented and coherently supported with detailed reasoning and expected net benefits for the business. Is a specific application, service, capability or a specific amount of work
CONFIDENTIAL
that can be run on a cloud resource. Virtual machines, databases, containers, Hadoop nodes and applications are al considered cloud workloads. Access to confidential data requires specific authorization and/or
DATA CSP
clearance. Types of confidential data might include Social Security numbers, cardholder data, M&A documents, and more. Usually, confidential data is protected by laws like HIPAA and the PCl DSS.
DATA
Cloud service provider: A third-party company offering a cloud-based platform, infrastructure, application, or storage services. Refers to a process of organising data by relevant categories so that it
CLASSIFICATION DATA MINING
may be used and protected more efficiently. Data mining is defined as a process used to extract usable data from a
DATA PROCESSING
larger set of any raw data. It implies analysing data patterns in large batches of data using one or more software. Data processing occurs when data is collected and translated into usable information. Usually performed by a data scientist or team of data scientists, it is important for data processing to be done correctly as not to
DATA RESIDENCY
negatively affect the end product, or data output. Refers to the physical or geographic location of an organization's data or information.
DATA SECURITY SOLUTIONS DATA
Work by providing visibility and security at the same time
SOVEREIGNTY
Describes the legal principle that information (generally in electronic form) is regulated or governed by the legal regime of the country in which that data resides.
DEPARTMENT
National department, a National government component, the Office of a Premier, a Provincial department or a provincial government component.
DETERMINATION AND DIRECTIVE
The Determination to provide clear guidance on the adoption and use of cloud computing in the public service and the Directive on numerous issues to be considered by departments before, during and after acquiring cloud-based computing services.
DPSA
Department of Public Service and Administration
eGSIM
eGovernment Service and Information Management
HEAD OF DEPARTMENT(HOD)
The incumbent of a post mentioned in column 2 of Schedule 1, 2 or 3 and it includes any employee acting in such post.
laaS
Infrastructure as a service: is a cloud computing offering in which a vendor provides users access to computing resources such as storage,
ICT
networking, and servers. Information and communication technology refers to all communication technologies.
+
+
IP Intellectual property refers to creations of the mind, such as inventions; literary and artistic works; designs; and symbols, names and images used
ISO
in commerce. International Organization for Standardization
IT
Information technology is the use of any computers, storage, networking and other physical devices, infrastructure and processes to create,
MISS
process, store, secure and exchange all forms of electronic data. Minimum Information Security Standards, data and information
MPSA
classification Minister for the Public Service and Administration
MSP
Managed service provider
NIST
The National Institute of Standards and Technology
OPENDATA
Means data that is made freely available to everyone for use, re-use and republishing as they wish, subject to ensuring the protection of privacy,
OPEN DATA PRINCIPLES
confidentiality and security in line with the Constitution. Government data shall be considered open if it is made public in a way that complies with the principles: Complete; Primary; Timely; Accessible;
PaaS
Machine processable; Non-discriminatory; Non-proprietary; License-free. Platform as a service is a service provider that offers access to a cloud- based environment in which users can build and deliver applications.
PERSONAL INFORMATION
Means information relating to an identifiable, living, natural person, and where it is applicable, an identifiable, existing juristic person.
PSR
The Public Service Regulations , 1996
PUBLIC DATA
This type of data is freely accessible to the public (i.e. all employees/company personnel). It can be freely used, reused, and redistributed without repercussions. An example might be first and last
RACI
names, job descriptions, or press releases. Responsible, accountable, consulted, informed
SaaS
Software as a service is a service provider that delivers software and applications through the internet.
SECRETDATA
The classification level applied to information the unauthorized disclosure of which reasonably could be expected to cause serious damage to national security that the original classification is able to identify or
SLA
describe. Service level agreement defines the level of service you expect from a vendor, laying out the metrics by which service is measured, as well as remedies or penalties should agree-on service levels not be achieved.
TCO
Total cost of ownership is the metric that organizations use to quantify and measure cloud adoption success.
+
+# 1. INTRODUCTION
+
+1.1. Rapid advancements in information and communication technology have made it difficult for Government departments to keep up and or sustain investment in this area. This has further ensured that the required and appropriate skills remain concentrated outside departments and or the public sector in general.
+
+1.2. Cloud computing services can provide government departments with access to ondemand ICT hardware and software resources over the Internet. These include ICT resources, such as computing power, data storage capacity, software services and operating system functionality. These resources run on computer servers, storage devices, and networking equipment located in physical data centers operated by a cloud service provider (CSP). The service provider is responsible for the security, maintenance, and backup of the hardware, software, and data stored in these facilities, freeing up the department to focus on its core service delivery functions.
+
+1.3. The economic efficiencies, privacy and information security concerns, environmental impact (carbon emissions) issues associated with technological practices as well as the general opportunities associated with technological developments particularly in the area of cloud computing services have further prompted the issuing of this determination and directive.
+
+# 2. PURPOSE
+
+2.1. The purpose of this Determination and Directive is to provide clear guidance on the adoption and use of cloud computing services in the public service.
+
+# 3. AUTHORISATION
+
+3.1. This Determination and Directive is issued by the MPSA in terms of section 3(1) (f) (g) & (i) of Public Service Act, 1994.
+
+# 4. SCOPE OF APPLICATION
+
+4.1. This Determination and Directive applies to all departments and its employees employed in terms of the Act and the members of the services only in so far as the provisions of the Determination and Directive are not contrary to the laws governing their employment.
+4.2. Furthermore, the prescripts set out in this determination and directive must be applied to all cloud services where Government data is either stored and or processed.
+
+# 5. REGULATORY FRAMEWORK ( PROVIDES THE CONTEXT WITHIN WHICH THE DETERMINATION AND DIRECTIVE EXISTS)
+
+5.1. Constitution of the Republic of South Africa, 1996.
+5.2. Public Service Act, 1994, Section 3(1) (f) (g) & (i).
+5.3. The Protection of Personal Information Act 4 of 2013(POPI), Section 72.
+5.4. Promotion of Access to Information Act 2 of 2000 (PAIA), Section 63-66.
+
+# 6. IMPLEMENTATION OF THE DETERMINATION AND DIRECTIVE
+
+6.1. The prescripts set out herein must be applied to every Cloud service where government data will either be stored and or processed before implementing the cloud service.
+6.2. Where a department had implemented a cloud solution before the approval date of this Directive, the Head of Department must ensure that a risk assessment is conducted and a risk assessment report is tabled at the departmental risk committee.
+6.3. The Head of Department must ensure that all requirements of this determination and directive are met within 6 months of the approval and publication of this determination and directive.
+
+# 7. NON-COMPLIANCE MANAGEMENT
+
+7.1. Failure to comply with this Determination and Directive will be dealt with in line with the provisions of the Public Service Act, 1994, section 16A and 16B.
+
+# 8. DATE OF IMPLEMENTATION
+
+8.1. This Determination and Directive shall come into effect on the date of signature by the MPSA.
+
+# 9. PROVISIONS ON THE USAGE OF CLOUD COMPUTING SERVICES
+
+There are numerous provisions to be considered by departments before, during, and after acquiring cloud-based computing services. The following points outline the provisions:
+
+# 9.1. WHAT IS CLOUD COMPUTING?
+
+Cloud computing is a model for enabling convenient, on-demand network access to a shared pool of configurable computing resources (e.g., networks, servers, storage, applications, and services) that can be rapidly provisioned and released with minimal
+
+management effort or service provider interaction. This cloud model promotes availability and is composed of three service models and four deployment models.
+
+
+Figure 1. Cloud Deployment Models adapted from NIST
+
+# Cloud Service Models
+
+Software as a Service (SaaS): The capability provided to a department is to use the provider’s applications running on a cloud infrastructure. The applications are accessible through a web browser (e.g. Gmail). The department does not manage or control the underlying cloud infrastructure including network, servers, operating systems, storage, or even individual application capabilities.
+
+Platform as a Service (PaaS): Departments develop applications using the Cloud Service provider’s hosted hardware and software platforms. The department does not manage or control the underlying cloud infrastructure including network, servers, operating systems, or storage, but has control over the deployed applications and possibly application hosting environment configurations.
+
+Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS): The capability provided to the department is to provision processing, storage, networks, and other fundamental computing resources where the department is able to deploy and run arbitrary software, which can include operating systems and applications. The department does not manage or control the underlying cloud infrastructure but has control over operating systems, storage, deployed applications, and possibly limited control of select networking components (e.g., host firewalls).
+
+# 9.2. GENERAL CLOUD CONSIDERATIONS
+
+9.2.1. The Head of Department must ensure that Cloud Services are the first option explored before any on-premise infrastructure investment is made. This option must be fit for purpose, and preference (not exclusive use) must be given to private government cloud where the capability exists.
+9.2.2. The Head of Department must ensure that the proposed cloud-based computing services and/or solutions are fit-for-purpose and appropriate for the delivery of the respective department processes. This must be applied to all cloud services, whether long-term or short-term, and care should be taken to only procure services when they are ready to be consumed to avoid fruitless and wasteful expenditure.
+9.2.3. The Head of Department must ensure that the proper procurement processes concerning the procurement of ICT goods and services/Cloud are followed.
+9.2.4. The Head of Department must ensure that scaling up of cloud services is based on operational requirements, rather than purchasing upfront and not utilizing until the operational need arises.
+
+# 9.3. BEFORE ACQUIRING AND IMPLEMENTING CLOUD SERVICES
+
+9.3.1. The Head of Department must ensure that all data is classified according to the classification system prescribed in the Minimum Information Security Standards (MISS).
+
+9.3.2. The Head of Department must, as far as practically possible, avoid moving data classified as “Secret" or “Top Secret”, to the Public, Hybrid or Community Clouds.
+
+9.3.3. The Head of Department must as far as practically possible, ensure that data that is intended for general public consumption, such as data hosted on Departmental public-facing websites, is moved to a Public Cloud.
+
+9.3.4. The Head of Department must ensure that data always resides within the borders of South Africa. Where such is not practically possible, the Head of Departments must ensure that provisions of section 72 of the POPI Act are complied with.
+
+
+
+9.3.5. The Head of Department is accountable for managing the risks to the Department even concerning services provided by service providers/contractors.
+
+9.3.6. The Head of Department must ensure that a comprehensive
+
+
+
+Risk assessment is undertaken for each cloud service that the Department intends to utilise. The details of the risk assessment must be captured in the relevant business case and presented to the Department Risk Committee.
+
+9.3.7. The Head of Department must ensure that a Cloud Readiness Assessment is conducted before the decision is made to move to cloud-based computing services. The Cloud Readiness Assessment Checklist (Appendix A) can be used to guide departments.
+
+9.3.8. The Head of Department must ensure that a Business Case is developed. The Business Case must include at a minimum:
+
+a) The scope of the Cloud Services required;
+b) The budget over the short, medium and long term;
+c) A calculation of the Total Cost of Ownership over the medium and long term;
+d) The Human resource skills required to support the cloud services environment;
+e) The infrastructure required to enable the proper operation of the cloud service (Broadband connectivity etc);
+f) The intended benefit to the department through the use of the cloud service.
+g) The detailed outcome of the Risk Assessment, a summary of the key risks, and the recommendations for mitigation.
+
+9.3.9. The Head of Department must ensure that the Business Case is approved before the Cloud Services are consumed, and reviewed at regular intervals.
+
+9.3.10. The Head of Department must ensure that a valid contract exists between the Department and the CSP before utilising a cloud service.
+
+
+
+9.3.11. At a minimum the contract must:
+
+a) Explicitly state that the department is the owner of all rights, title, and interest in the data and that all data will be maintained, backed up and secured until returned on termination of the agreement (unless other provisions are made for the migration, transfer or destruction of the data).
+b) State that data processing (mining) shall be carried out in a manner provided for by the POPI Act and shall be authorized by the Department.
+c) Identify the actual geographic locations where data storage and processing will occur.
+d) Confirm the jurisdiction which governs the operation of the contract.
+e) Confine data storage and processing to specified locations where the regulatory framework and technical infrastructure allow the department to maintain adequate control over the data.
+f) Make provisions for the safe return/transfer of data should the cloud service provider be the subject of a takeover.
+g) Specify what will happen to the data, applications, infrastructure, etc., (e.g. transfer to a new provider, returned to the department, permanently deleted) once the Contract ends.
+h) Define contract provisions relating to the migration of data on termination of the contract (i.e. CSP takes full responsibility for data migration and or who plays what role during data migration).
+
+9.3.12. The Head of Department may enter into a medium-term contract (that is, contract period of more than 3 years but less than 5 years) for cloud services. The Head of Department must ensure that such a medium-term contract makes provisions for early termination and must agree at the time of contracting on the method of calculation for damages, should damages be applicable. In the event that a Department has entered into a medium-term contract but wishes to terminate such a contract prior to its expiry date, the Head of Department must ensure that there are no damages for early termination payable by the Department or ensure that it is aware of any potential damages that may flow for early termination.
+
+# 9.4. DURING CLOUD SERVICE CONSUMPTION
+
+9.4.1. The Head of Department must ensure the security of the data in line with the existing departmental information security policy.
+9.4.2. The Head of Department must ensure that access rights to data stored or processed in the Cloud are regularly reviewed.
+9.4.3. Cloud Service Subscription levels can be scalable up or down according to demand, resulting in variable costs. The Head of Department must ensure that officials are not able to scale up cloud services without proper authorisation.
+9.4.4. The Head of Department must ensure that an inventory of Assets (Data or applications) is developed and maintained during the contract period.
+9.4.5. The Head of Department must ensure that the department’s Business Continuity plans are updated following the implementation of the cloud service and ensure that the department conducts regular business continuity testing.
+9.4.6. The Head of Department must ensure that mechanisms exist to backup departmental data. Backups of data must be regularly reviewed to ensure that the risk of data loss is minimised.
+
+# 9.5. CLOUD SERVICE TERMINATION
+
+9.5.1. At the termination of the agreement with a CSP, the Head of Department must ensure that all data and/or applications that belong to the Department are transferred to a new provider, returned to the department and/or permanently deleted.
+
+# 9.6. GENERAL
+
+9.6.1. Departments must submit copies of the following to the DPSA before acquiring and deploying cloud services :
+
+9.6.1.1. The approved Business Case aligned to the prescripts set out in 9.3.8 above.
+9.6.1.2. Evidence of having complied with the requirements set out in 9.3.6 above.
+
+# 9.6. GENERAL
+
+9.6.1. Departments must submit copies of the following to the DPSA before acquiring and deploying cloud services :
+
+9.6.1.1. The approved Business Case aligned to the prescripts set out in 9.3.8 above.
+
+9.6.1.2.Evidence of having complied with the requirements set out in 9.3.6 above.
+
+# APPROVED BY THE MINISTER FOR PUBLIC SERVICE AND ADMINISTRATION
+
+
+
+MS AYANDA DLODLO, MP
+MINISTER FOR THE PUBLIC SERVICE AND ADMINISTRATION
+DATE: $14101120222-$
+0. Cloud Computing Policy. Office of the Chief Information Officer, 31 October 2016. Available at: https://ocio.commerce.gov/page/cloud-computing-policy. Cloud Policy. Office of the Government Chief Information Officer (blog), 24 May 2016. Available at: https://gcio.wa.gov.au/2016/05/24/cloud-policy-2/.
+12. Cloud-Computing-Transforming-the-Government-of-Canada-for-the-DigitalEconomy.pdf. Available at: http://itac.ca/wp-content/uploads/2015/08/CloudComputing-Transforming-the-Government-of-Canada-for-the-Digital-Economy.pdf [Accessed 15 February 2018].
+13. LSSA – An introduction to cloud computing, v2 September 2014.pdf. Available at: http://www.lssa.org.za/upload/documents/LSSA%20Introduction%20to%20cloud%20 computing%20v2%20September%202014.pdf. Cloud Security Guidance IBM Recommendations for the Implementation of Cloud Security. Available at: http://www.redbooks.ibm.com/abstracts/redp4614.html?Open Are You Rather a SI, ISV, MSP, VAR or a Reseller? Available at: https://ormuco.com/blog/cloud-provider-rather-si-isv-msp-var-reseller. 6. Multi-cloud strategy: Pros, cons and tips. Available at: https://www.cio.com/article/3441856/multi-cloud-strategy-pros-cons-andtips.html#:\~:text=Multi%2Dcloud%20defined&text $\c=$ Gartner%20has%20a%20more%2 0formal,says%20Gartner%20analyst%20David%20Smith.
+17. How to Avoid Cloud Vendor Lock-in with Four Best Practices. Available at: precisely.com | 877 700 0970. Gartner, Inc. (2020). Decision Model to Optimize Risk, Value and Cost, ID: G00466040. Gartner, Inc.
+19. How TCO Benefits Make Cloud Computing a No-Brainer for Many SMBs and MidMarket Enterprises, https://knowledgehubmedia.com/tco-benefits-cloud-computingnobrainer-smbs-midmarket-enterprises/
+20. Section 72 (Transfers of personal information outside Republic) of the Protection of Personal Information Act, 2013 (Act No. 4 of 2013). https://popia.co.za/section-72- transfers-of-personal-information-outside-republic/ SaaS vs PaaS vs SaaS Enter the Ecommerce Vernacular: What You Need to Know, Examples & More, https://www.bigcommerce.com/blog/saas-vs-paas-vs-iaas/ Big Data, https://www.sas.com/en_za/insights/big-data/what-is-big-data.html 3. Open Government Data Principles, https://public.resource.org/8_principles.html
+24. 4 Ways to Classify Data , https://kirkpatrickprice.com/blog/classifying-data/
+25. Cloud Workloads, https://www.delltechnologies.com/en-us/learn/cloud/cloudworkloads.htm#:\~:text=A%20cloud%20workload%20is%20a,are%20all%20considere d%20cloud%20workloads.
+26. What is Intellectual Property?, https://www.wipo.int/about-ip/en/ What is data processing?; https://www.talend.com/resources/what-is-dataprocessing/ Data Mining, https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/definition/data-mining 9. What is a Business Case?, https://www.myaccountingcourse.com/accountingdictionary/business-case
+30. IMB Cloud Education , https://www.ibm.com/za-en/cloud/learn/iaas-paas-saas
+31. What is an SLA? Best practices for service-level agreements, https://www.cio.com/article/2438284/outsourcing-sla-definitions-and-solutions.html
+
+The total cost of ownership for Cloud, https://www.ibm.com/garage/method/practices/discover/total-cost-ownership-cloud/
+
+33. Information technology, https://www.google.com/search?q=what+is+information+technology+definition&sxsrf= ALeKk007SzYrqrtXb9rm4X_iM9yPpCcmhQ%3A1625202893420&ei=zaDeYOWRGe TC8gKE9YuADQ&oq=what+is+Information+technology+de&gs_lcp=Cgdnd3Mtd2l6E AEYATICCAAyAggAMgIIADICCAAyAggAMgIIADIGCAAQFhAeMgYIABAWEB4yBgg AEBYQHjIGCAAQFhAeOgcIABBHELADSgQIQRgAUMSCBljwiwZgg58GaAFwAngA gAHFBIgBrgySAQkyLTEuMS4xLjGYAQCgAQGqAQdnd3Mtd2l6yAEIwAEB&sclient= gws-wiz
+
+34. ICT Definition, https://techterms.com/definition/ict
+
+# APPENDIX A – CLOUD READINESS ASSESSMENT CHECKLIST
+
+Moving your IT systems to the Cloud offers many benefits including reduced costs, flexibility, increased efficiency, and in many cases, better performance and security. SaaS, PaaS, and IaaS all present several key differences in terms of security, performance, reliability, and management. This guide will help you assess your readiness to transition to cloud computing and identify any areas that need to be re-evaluated.
+
+After reading through these checklists and determining your department’s current cloud computing readiness, you’ll have the tools you need to start preparing for your transition.
+
+# 1. WILL MY DEPARTMENT BENEFIT FROM TRANSITIONING SERVICES TO THE CLOUD?
+
+Although most departments will benefit from transitioning some or all of their IT services into the Cloud, not all will. Start with these questions to help determine whether your department should transition to cloud computing.
+
+
What is your department's current IT infrastructure expenditure?
Is Cloud computing likely to reduce costs?
How much does usage fluctuate over time?
Would your department benefit from a more elastic solution?
Does your department need to add applications or functionality but cannot make a large capital expenditure for additional IT infrastructure?
+
+Table 1
+
+
+
Is your IT department able to effectively provide maintenance and security, and maximise efficiency for your IT infrastructure?
Will your department benefit strategically or financialy from a reduction in IT focus?
Does your department have a BCM (Business Continuity Management Planning (BCM)) in place?
Does your department need to secure sensitive data on proprietary servers?
Will the increased accessibility of the Cloud improve your company's performance?
+
+Use these questions to get a brief overview of your company’s current Cloud Computing readiness and to identify areas that need to be addressed.
+
+Table 2
+
+
+
What is the extent of your department's current IT usage?
How quickly would you like to transition to the Cloud?
Have you prepared a cost-benefit analysis?
Do you have a team capable of managing the transition?
Have you classified your data?
Are you prepared to transition data securely?
Do you plan to use laaS, PaaS, or SaaS? Will the increased accessibility of the Cloud improve your department's performance?
+
+Security is a key concern in using Cloud Computing technology. This checklist will help you identify key considerations for safely transitioning and securing data.
+
+# Outlining the security plan
+
+Table 3
+
+
+
Have you made an outline of your top security goals and concerns?
What types of assets will be managed by the system?
Have key assets been listed and rated based on their sensitivity?
How assets are currently managed and how will this change when transitioned to the Cloud?
Has the right cloud delivery model been assigned based on the assets' sensitivity?
Have the security controls been enumerated, verified, and evaluated?
Will all sensitive data stored in the Cloud be encrypted?
Are remote connections to the Cloud properly encrypted?
Have you evaluated the security risk of the server's physical location?
Are the servers housed in guarded and locked rooms?
Have all vulnerabilities been identified and addressed? Are staff properly trained on the new security protocols?
+
+# Complying with regulations
+
+
Have you reviewed your cloud service provider's security policies?
Do they comply with POPl Act, PAlA, ECT Act or other regulations your data may be subject to?
Have you drafted any contracts or agreements with your cloud service provider to bridge compliance gaps?
+
+Table 5
+
+# 2. PERSONNEL CONSIDERATIONS
+
+A department’s staff must be properly prepared for the cloud computing transition to ensure that it does not interfere negatively with day-to-day operations. Use these questions to make sure your team is ready.
+
+# Preparing your cloud adoption team
+
+
Who will be heading the effort to move systems to the Cloud?
Has a team been assembled to plan and execute cloud adoption?
Who are the key human resource assets for the plan?
Is management in full support of the adoption strategy?
Do you need to bring on additional staff or consultants to help adopt Cloud computing technology?
+
+Table 6
+
+# Training the staff
+
+Table 7
+
+
+
How will using cloud computing affect the everyday operations of the department?
Will staff need to learn new skills to function after the transition?
Has a training plan been drafted?
Is there a team in place to train staff on the new technology?
Are staff aware of any changes to security protocol that cloud adoption will bring?
+
+# Reconfiguring the ICT department
+
+
Do the current IT employees have the expertise to properly maintain the new systems?
Will this change necessitate hiring additional staff?
Will this change require that certain staff members be redeployed?
+
+Table 8
+
+# 3. LOCATION CONSIDERATIONS
+
+Moving to cloud computing means your servers will be physically located in another place.
+This can have ramifications for your IT infrastructure’s speed, security and reliability.
+
+
Where is the cloud service provider located?
Is the location near your user base (customers or staff)?
Will speed be adversely affected by the server's location?
Can you visit the data centre where your Cloud will be hosted?
+
+Table 9
+
+# 4. RELIABILITY
+
+Ensuring the reliability of your IT infrastructure is a critical step in transitioning to cloud computing. Make sure the Cloud will be as reliable as in-house IT infrastructure by going through the following checklist.
+
+# Assessing the cloud provider’s reliability
+
+Table 10
+
+
+
Does your cloud service provider have a reputation for reliability?
How long have they been operational?
What is their average uptime over the past three years?
Do they have a reliability guarantee?
Do they use reliability safeguards like backup power sources and redundant servers?
Will they promptly inform you of any planned or unplanned outages?
Is the cloud service provider regularly assessed by a third-party auditor?
Does the cloud provider offer comprehensive support?
Will your in-house IT team be responsible for support?
+
+# Making a continuity plan
+
+
Do you have a backup system if the Cloud goes down for any reason?
Is there a contingency plan to continue mission-critical functions if the Cloud cannot be accessed?
Will you store copies of your data in-house?
Is your data safe-harbored with a third party who can protect against data loss?
+
+Table 11
+
+# 5. PERFORMANCE CONSIDERATIONS
+
+One of the primary concerns when moving to the Cloud is how it will affect performance. In many cases speed can be improved when using cloud computing solutions. Answer the following questions to make sure your performance is not adversely affected by a transition to the Cloud.
+
+
Is the cloud provider's hardware sufficient to handle your workload?
Will you be using the public or private Cloud?
Will you be using dedicated hardware?
What steps will the cloud provider take to ensure consistent performance?
Does the cloud provider make any performance guarantees?
Will the cloud solution offer the same or better performance compared to an in-house solution?
+
+Table 12
+
+# 6. FINANCIAL CONSIDERATIONS
+
+Most departments can save considerably when moving systems and applications into the Cloud. Use this checklist to help you consider the total financial impact of the move.
+
+# Cloud provider fees
+
+
What are the initial set-up fees?
+
+
How complex is the pricing model? Is it transparent?
Can the provider increase fees at regular intervals?
+
+# Table 13
+
+# Migration costs
+
+
Will there be additional human resource costs associated with the transition?
Will there be additional hardware costs associated with the transition?
What will be the cost of an outage during migration?
Is your department moving to the Cloud to take advantage of reduced overhead?
How will the transition costs and provider fees be offset by potential savings?
How will moving to the Cloud affect your IT costs?
Have you drafted a cost-benefit analysis for the move?
How will your department finance the transition?
What to do with your IT hardware that has not reached end of life?
+
+Table 15
+
+# 7. LEGAL CONSIDERATIONS
+
+Although often overlooked, legal considerations are extremely important when moving to the Cloud. Use this checklist to make sure the transition is made legally.
+
+# Understanding the legal agreement with your cloud provider
+
+Table 16
+
+
+
Have you read the cloud provider's standard contract and or Service level agreement (SLA)?
How does the contract affect your data's property rights?
Do you have the full legal rights to the data you will be moving to the Cloud?
Is the cloud provider's privacy policy compatible with your department's?
Does the cloud provider have the right to access your data?
If hosted in another country, which law applies to you?
+
+# Complying with regulations
+
+
Is your data subject to any government regulations?
Does the cloud provider comply with those regulations?
Who is legally responsible for your data's security?
Are you able to audit your cloud provider's compliance with regulations?
+
+Table 17
+
+# Terminating the service
+
+
What are the terms of cancellation?
What will happen to your data after the service is terminated?
+
+Table 18
\ No newline at end of file
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+# Introduction and Contextual Background of Cybercrime as an Emerging Phenomenon in Africa
+
+Stanley Osezua Ehiane and Mosud Y. Olumoye
+
+# Introduction
+
+In many ways, information, and communication technologies (ICTs) have shrunk the world, but they have also exposed the world to influences that have never been as diverse and difficult (Seemma et al., 2018). Modern communication equipment, internet access, and robust computer systems for data processing were all made possible by the development of digital technology (Hunda et al., 2014). The vulnerability of these systems and the potential for abuse or criminal activities have increased due to the rapid proliferation of large-scale computer networks with the ability to access multiple systems over conventional telecommunication lines (Oghenevwogaga, 2017). Information technology, according to Dalal (2006), is a double-edged sword with both destructive and beneficial uses. Governments, organisations, and individuals now all rely heavily on the Internet. ICT and computer networks are used by many people, businesses, and governmental organisations to carry out simple and sophisticated tasks, such as social networking, research, and business and trade. But as more businesses, organisations, and people are duped by cybercriminals both domestically and abroad, cyberspace is growing more and more susceptible (Onuora et al., 2017). According to McCusker (2006), cybercrime has evolved into a significant component of the global danger to the environment and evokes urgent imagery of sinister and intricate online behaviour. Borders are irrelevant to cybercrime. Cybercrime concerns are getting worse as broadband internet access and mobile-related services become more widely available in African nations. Cybercrime is becoming a bigger issue as a result of the increased use of contemporary ICTs (Bande, 2018). According to a Norton (2012) analysis, the annual cost of cybercrime around the world is $\$110$ billion.
+
+According to Chinweze et al. (2019), the rate at which the African continent is embracing digital technology is encouraging the introduction of new attack methods and opportunities for cybercriminals. National, regional, and worldwide peace and security are already threatened by growing global cyber threats and cyberattacks (Chiluwa et al., 2022). Cyber dangers are global issues, necessitating the use of global frameworks as tools to advance stability and security in cyberspace. Few cybersecurity measures have been adopted at the continental level, although cybersecurity issues go beyond just national security (Al-Shalam, 2022). The use of computers for criminal purposes began at the end of the twentieth century and is continuing to grow in the twenty-first (Akuta et al., 2011). Without question, emerging economies are becoming the focus of cybercrime. Unsurprisingly, several African economies have developed into significant providers of cyber threats as well as their victims (Kshetri, 2019a). Even in technologically advanced nations like the United States, cybercrimes have advanced beyond traditional crimes and now pose a threat to all nations’ national security (Laura, 2005). When it comes to cybercrime activity growth, Africa has been one of the fastest-growing continents. Significant cyberattacks on the rest of the world originate from the continent as well (Kshetri, 2019a). Analysts have proposed a threshold level of $10\mathrm{-}15\%$ internet penetration as the source of substantial hacking operations when examining the trend of cybercrimes across nations (Kshetri, 2013). One of the areas with the greatest incidence of cybercrime and considerable monetary losses is Africa. Africa is a continent where cybercrime is thriving.
+
+According to Maitanmi et al. (2013), cybercrime is an international epidemic that is spreading rapidly throughout Africa. Cybercriminals have long viewed Africa as an ideal location for their illegal activities. As a result, Africa has developed into a “safe haven” for online scammers. Despite several efforts by the international community to combat cybercrime worldwide, these factors—technology, globalisation, and digital capitalism—seem to have a positive influence on the crime rate. Cybercrime keeps growing as technology and digital capitalism do (Green et al., 2020; Norris et al., 2019). For instance, to combat cybercrime, the United Nations (UN) Commission on Crime Prevention and Justice (CCPJ) has been strengthened with cyber professionals to support cyberrelated crimes in the global economy (Aribake & Aji, 2022; Jerome, 2019).
+
+Due to the large number of domains and poor network and information security, statistics from a variety of sources suggest that Africa is particularly vulnerable to cyber-related dangers (Symantec Corporation, 2014). According to Physorg (2022), cybercrime cost the continent of Africa’s GDP more than $10\%$ of its total GDP in 2021, or $\$4.12$ billion. Online scams are the most pervasive and urgent cyber threat, according to Institute for Security Studies (2022). In particular, credit card and banking fraud are seen as severe threats throughout Africa. It entails the theft of private information, including banking information, which is then utilised by a threat actor to make purchases, steal money, or resell items (Danquah & Longe, 2021). The sophistication of cyberattacks and the financial harm they cause have been growing at exponential rates for several years, and cybersecurity has now become a serious worry for everyone around the globe. Cybercrime has a significant impact that transcends national boundaries (Olalekan & Kamarudeen, 2021). A strong cybersecurity culture, effective response capabilities, and the adoption of appropriate and effective national policies are the only ways to fully address the threats that Africa is currently facing regarding Internet security measures to prevent and control technological and informational risks (Das & Nayak, 2013).
+
+In Africa, a new type of criminal behaviour has emerged as a result of the growth of the Internet and the development of new accessible technologies (Goodman & Brenner, 2022). It is alarming to see how quickly cybercrime is spreading throughout Africa. An upsurge in the fight against cybercrime in Africa has been brought on by the prevalence of this crime (Akuta et al., 2011). Cybercrime is steadily increasing in frequency in emerging nations. It’s crucial to keep in mind that what makes cybercrime intriguing is that it affects both Africa and other continents equally (Adewole et al., 2021). Without a doubt, every nation and region deals with cybercriminals and endures losses at the hands of their citizen cybercriminals. However, compared to any Western or Asian nation, Africa is more commonly referred to as a “continent of cybercriminals” in the public sphere (Das & Nayak, 2013). The various difficulties that the continent faces and the emotive nature of the kind of crimes committed there, however, have helped to give Africa the distinctive reputation of being a continent rife with corruption and criminals. This study divided cybercrimes into two categories: those that target networks or devices and those that include the use of gadgets as a tool for criminal activity. The latter, however, is the subject of this essay.
+
+# The Meaning and Nature of Cybercrime
+
+Cybercrime is still a highly undefined idea. There are numerous contradictory “facts” about the breadth of cybercrime as a result of the various “lenses” employed to observe it. The definition of cybercrime must be understood to recognise it as a developing global problem (Chiluwa et al., 2022). The word “cyber” comes from the word “cybernetic,” which is derived from the Greek word “cybernetics” (Ogunleye et al., 2022). A wide variety of online crimes, including fraud , blackmail, child pornography, digital forgery, cyber espionage, and cyber terrorism have all been referred to as cybercrime (Green et al., 2020). There are numerous attempts in the literature to categorise and define cybercrime. The term “cybercrime” is widely used by people in our modern world. With the development of information and communication technologies came the idea of cybercrime. People from all walks of life have benefited greatly from the Internet’s massive digitisation and unprecedented interconnection (Onuora et al., 2017). Cybercrime refers to any type of crime committed using a computer or the Internet (Ibikunle, 2022). According to Abdul-Rasheed Ishowo, Muhammed, and Abdullateef (2016), cybercrime is a relatively new phenomenon; crime itself is not. Numerous people have explored the subject of cybercrime from a variety of angles, the majority approaching it from a different angle than others. Cybercrimes have developed beyond traditional crimes and now pose a threat to the national security of all countries, even technologically developed countries (Makeri, 2017).
+
+In 2021, Manish Cybercrimes are thought of as any unethical, illegal, or unauthorised action of humans involving the usage of Computer Systems and Networks, as well as the automatic processing and transmission of data. According to the United Nations (2018), cybercrime is any illicit activity directed through electronic means that compromises the security of computer systems and the data they process. Cybercrime is characterised as crimes performed online using a computer as a tool or a specific target. A crime connected to computers, computer networks, and the internet is referred to as cybercrime. Although the term “cybercrime” is now widely used, scholars have long faced the severe issue that there is no one, accepted definition of this term (Williams & Levi, 2015). It is a word frequently used to refer to a variety of illegal acts that make use of ICTs (information and communication technologies). Other phrases that might be used interchangeably include “virtual crime,” “net crime,” “hi-tech crime,” and “computer crime” (Wall, 2004). Cybercrime is any criminal offence that includes the use of the Internet or another computer network. They are crimes committed against a person or group of people with the intent to harm the victim’s reputation abroad or to harm the victim’s physical or mental health using contemporary telecommunication networks directly or indirectly like the Internet and mobile phones (Akogwu, 2012). Similar to this, Quarshie and Martin-Odoom (2012) define cybercrimes as crimes carried out online that use a computer as a tool or a specific target. Depending on which of the two is the primary goal, cybercrimes can affect both the computer and the person operating it as victims. Consequently, the computer could be examined as either a target or a tool. Any illegal, unethical, or unauthorised behaviour in a system that transports data or processes information automatically is considered a cybercrime (Solak & Topaloglu, 2015: 591). When a digital tool or information system is used as a target or simply a mix of both, this is known as cybercrime. According to Sabilloni et al. (2016), the terms “cybercrime” and “e-crime,” as well as “high-technology crime,” “information age crime,” “cybernetic crime,” and “computer-related crime” can all be used interchangeably to refer to the same thing. The European Commission on Cyber Security Strategy (2013) refers to cybercrime as:
+
+a broad range of different criminal activities where computers and information systems are involved either as a primary tool or as a primary target. Cybercrime comprises traditional offences (such as fraud, forgery, and identity theft), content-related offences (such as online distribution of child pornography or incitement to racial hatred) and offences unique to computers and information systems (such as attacks against information systems, denial of service and malware).
+
+Criminal activities carried out online and through computers are referred to as cybercrime. According to Ibikunle and Eweniyi (2013), this might range from downloading illicit music files to stealing millions of dollars from online bank accounts. Cybercrime also encompasses non-financial offences like developing and disseminating viruses on other computers or publishing private company data online.
+
+According to Shinder (2002), cybercrime is any criminal act that includes the use of the Internet or another computer network. Cybercrimes are crimes committed against a person or a group of people with the intent to harm the victim’s reputation abroad or to directly or indirectly cause them physical or mental harm using contemporary telecommunications networks like the Internet and mobile phones (Okeshola $\&$ Adeta, 2013). Because everyone on the planet, whether in the public or private sector, is vulnerable to them since we are living in the information age, even though cybercrimes are a relatively new phenomenon, they have become the focus of global attention (Encyclopedia of Library and Information Science, 1977). In particular, cybercrimes first appeared with the development of the Internet, creating a favourable environment for crimes perpetrated by cybercriminals (Ajayi, 2016). Computers are either the target of cybercrime or are a tool used to commit the crime. A cybercriminal may disable a device or utilise it to get access to a user’s private information, sensitive corporate information, or government information. Selling or obtaining the aforementioned information online is a cybercrime. Aghatise (2014) describes cybercrime as a crime carried out online using a computer as either a tool or a specific target. The increasing reliance of society on computer systems and the development of its technological capabilities might be seen as a cause of cybercrime and technology abuse. According to Herselman and Warren (2013), cybercrime has no geographical borders and is not subject to import, customs, or foreign exchange restrictions, making it a target for anyone in the globe.
+
+Three broad categories can be used to categorise cybercrimes: those committed against people, those committed against property, and those committed against the government. Cybercrimes against people encompass a variety of offences including sending child pornography and harassing anyone using a computer or email. known today as cybercrimes. Cybercrimes against all types of property fall under the second category of cybercrimes. These offences include the dissemination of malicious programs and computer vandalism (the destruction of another person’s property). Government-related cybercrimes make up the third type of cybercrimes. One specific type of crime in this category is cyberterrorism. The expansion of the internet has demonstrated that both people and groups are using cyberspace as a means of terrorising a nation’s citizens as well as posing a threat to other nations. When a person “cracks” into a website run by the government or the military, this offence takes on terrorist characteristics (Ayofe & Irwin, 2010). According to Tade and Aliyu (2011), cybercrime is a highly networked crime. It entails “geographic coding” and the disclosure of government information to deceive online users. Because it permits the unrestrained expression of norms and values that encourage crime as opposed to the regulated norms and values of the physical realm, the Internet thus provides a platform for cybercriminals.
+
+# Phenomenon of Cybercrime
+
+The threat of cybercrime to national security, economic growth, citizenry quality of life, and the world as a whole is ever-evolving in cyberspace. Rapid internet adoption and the digitisation of commercial processes have given rise to a new generation of criminals. Globally, cybercrime has increased at an unprecedented rate in recent years. The fastest-growing type of international crime nowadays is cybercrime (Pedro, 2020). One of the biggest, most baffling, and possibly most complicated problems in the digital world is cybercrime (Okpa et al., 2020). The beginning of cybercrime can be attributed to a few unhappy workers who physically harmed the computers they used to retaliate against their supervisors. Cybercriminals started concentrating their efforts on the home user as the capacity to have personal computers at home grew more available and well-liked (Obiora et al., 2017). According to Guillaume and Fortinet (2009), the proliferation of personal computers and computer networks turned “computer crime” into actual cybercrime.
+
+In the year 1820, the first “cybercrime” was officially documented. That is not surprising considering that India, Japan, and China have all used abacuses, which are regarded to be the earliest type of computer, since 3500 BC. However it was Charles Babbage’s analytical engine that gave rise to the current era of computers (Khan, 2011). Cyberspace has proven robust to attacks, but the fundamental dynamic of the online world has always been that it is simpler to attack than to protect, according to the World Economic Forum’s Global Risks (2014) report. The rising level of internet insecurity is worrying to the point where online transactions are now questioned (Ayofe & Irwin, 2010). Cybercrime is getting worse and more common. Acts of cybercrime are widespread worldwide and motivated by money. Such computer-related fraud is widespread and accounts for about one-third of all crimes committed worldwide. One of the biggest legal grey areas today is cybercrime, which has spawned a variety of new crimes including identity theft, privacy invasion, sabotage, espionage, burglary, conspiracy, embezzlement, bribery, larceny, extortion, and even more brutal offences like attempted murder, kidnapping, and manslaughter (Laura, 2011). According to McConnel (2000), there are four key ways that cybercrimes differ from most terrestrial crimes: they are simple to learn, require low resources compared to the potential harm they might inflict, can be conducted in a jurisdiction without being physically there, and are frequently legal. As a result, cybercrime has grown to be one of the world’s and law enforcement organisations’ top security concerns. Cybercrime is defined as any criminal behaviour using the infrastructure of information technology, including unauthorised access, unauthorised interception, tampering with data or systems, tampering with identity, and electronic fraud. Cybercrime and traditional crime are not dissimilar from one another.
+
+# Cybercrime in Africa: Nature, Causes, and Implications
+
+Incidences of cybercrime are increasing rapidly on the African continent. This is possibly a result of the increase in internet users in Africa (Ndubueze, 2019). Between 2000 and 2016, the information and communications technology sector in Africa increased by $7.00\%$ , with internet penetration reaching around $28\%$ (Adanikin, 2018). Internet adoption increased from $5\%$ in 2007 to $28\%$ in 2015, closing the digital divide between Africa and the rest of the world. Within the next ten years, Africa should have access rates comparable to those of the developed world (Chinweze et al., 2019), assuming this growth pace is maintained.
+
+Utilising ICT, and particularly the Internet, has become a strategic issue. These innovations not only promote economic growth but also increase productivity, efficiency, and innovation throughout the continent and promote the free exchange of ideas and information.
+
+Regarding security risks, violation of intellectual property, and the protection of personal data, Africa is currently dealing with several internet-related issues. The majority of African governments lack the technological or financial resources to identify and monitor electronic exchanges deemed critical for national security (Chawe, 2021; Ogunleye et al., 2022). As a result, cybercriminals target people both inside and outside of their national borders. The internet’s quick development has also opened up new avenues for cybercrime, which is projected to cost African economies over one billion US dollars annually. As internet use spreads throughout all aspects of our socioeconomic life, including electronic banking, electronic commerce, electronic education, and electronic governance, new types of cybercrimes are emerging (Obiora et al., 2017). Since many computer systems are not adequately safeguarded, a lot of cybercrime originates from the African continent, where it is also easy for these threats to propagate. Considerable risk of online abuse exists in Africa. This is because law enforcement organisations do not have security awareness programs or specialised training.
+
+As cyberattacks have increased in frequency over the past 20 years, they have become a significant problem in Africa. Since many computer systems are not adequately safeguarded, a lot of cybercrime originates from the African continent, where it is also easy for these threats to propagate. According to Quarshie and Martin-Odoom (2012), this demonstrates how the continent is susceptible to a variety of online criminal activities, like financial fraud, drug and human trafficking, and terrorism. Nigeria, the top-ranked nation in the area, is frequently the target and the origin of malicious internet activities, which are spreading across the continent (Quarshie & Martin-Odoom, 2012). Africa is increasingly becoming a key source of cybercrimes. Without question, there is a lot of potential for internet abuse in Africa. This is because law enforcement organisations do not have security awareness programs or specialised training.
+
+Africans have given cybercrime their own names. For instance, it is referred to as “Sakawa” or “Yahoo yahoo” in Ghana (Coomsom, 2009), “Faymania” in Cameroon (Oumarou, 2007), and “yahoo boys” in Nigeria (Adeniran, 2008; Longe & Chiemeke, 2008; Tade & Aliyu, 2011). However, compared to any Western or Asian nation, Africa is more commonly referred to as a “continent of cybercriminals” in the public sphere (Das & Nayak, 2013). This is true for two reasons: first, African nations have recently suffered from poor governance, and second, victims of African fraudsters experience both financial and emotional losses (Ajah & Chukwuemeka, 2019). In Africa, there are primarily two categories of cybercriminals: “Yahoo boys” and “next-level cybercriminals.” Under the direction of ringleaders or masterminds, Yahoo guys excel at committing straightforward fraud (advance fee, stranded traveller, and romantic scams/fraud). Next-level cybercriminals, on the other hand, are more skilled and like carrying out “long cons” (such as tax scams/ fraud and business email compromise [BEC]) or crimes that need more time, resources, and effort. They employ software that facilitates crime, such as email automation and phishing tools, that is readily available from black markets, such as malware (keyloggers, remote access tools/Trojans [RATs], etc.) (TrendLabs, 2016).
+
+Scholars have focused on the socioeconomic impact of cybercrime and its rapid and persistent expansion. It is generally known that cybercrime has had a significant impact on the economies of many African nations (Ogunleye et al., 2022). Africa has experienced a sharp increase in cybercrime in recent years, making it one of the world’s most exposed areas to cyber threats. Because the continent lacks a strong cybersecurity architecture, cybercriminals are increasingly targeting African nations with highly sophisticated attacks (Fra˛ckiewicz, 2023). The second most frequently reported crime in Africa, after fraud, is cybercrime, according to a survey by the African Union. This demonstrates that Africa has had one of the greatest rates of growth for cybercrime (Norris et al., 2019). Additionally, substantial cyberattacks against the rest of the world originate from the continent.
+
+Cybercrimes impact all nations, but Africa is particularly at risk due to its underdeveloped networks and security. Over $90\%$ of firms on the continent are reportedly operating without the essential cybersecurity processes in place, according to Interpol’s Africa Cyberthreat Assessment Report. Cybercrime cost Africa’s GDP $\$4$ billion in 2021 or $10\%$ of its total GDP. According to Odueso (2022), cybercrime costs Africa $\$4$ billion every year. More specifically, Mitchell (2022) said that although the region’s insufficient efforts to combat cybercrime could hamper this rise, the continent’s e-economy is anticipated to reach $\$180$ billion annually by 2025. Africa is said to lose $\$4$ billion a year to cybercrime. According to estimates by Onuora et al. (2017), it costs the economies of South Africa $\$570$ million annually, Nigeria $\$500$ million, and Kenya $\$36$ million.
+
+Despite the ongoing problem of cybercrime, Kshetri (2019a) noted that many African economies view cybersecurity as a luxury rather than a need. Its significance in the continent is still not properly understood or acknowledged. According to reports, many businesses’ cybersecurity budgets are less than $1\%$ , and many of them have no budget at all (Ogunleye et al., 2022). Globally, billions of dollars are lost each year as a result of cybercrime, which also poses a threat to the security and economic well-being of a country. A company can also sustain losses as a result of computer crime when a hacker steals its private data and business plans (Anah et al., 2012). Similar to traditional crimes, cybercrimes include child exploitation, online gambling, online prostitution, and similar activities that erode society’s morality and increase the likelihood that societal norms and values may disintegrate (Folashade & Abimbola, 2013). According to Shehu (2014), from a societal standpoint, cybercrime activities including cyberstalking, harassment, blackmail, and cyberterrorism pose a threat to a person’s right to privacy and fundamental freedoms.
+
+# An Overview of Cybersecurity Strategy
+
+The ongoing use of the Internet by immoral cyberspace users to conduct crimes over the past 20 years has caused a growing sense of dread among the general public as well as conflicting feelings of admiration and fear. Recently, this phenomenon has grown increasingly complex and remarkable, necessitating a prompt response in the form of regulations that would safeguard cyberspace and its users (Makeri, 2017). Technical, organisational, policy, and legal considerations are all part of cybersecurity governance measures. The development of regulations that forbid any actions that compromise the confidentiality, integrity, and accessibility of data, systems, and vital information infrastructure is another aspect of promoting strong cybersecurity (Gumbi, 2018). To protect an organisation’s and a user’s assets from relevant security risks in the cyber environment, cybersecurity aims to ensure their attainment and maintenance. The set of regulations established for the protection of cyberspace is known as cybersecurity. However, as our reliance on the internet grows, there are new dangers.
+
+According to Oforji et al. (2017), cybersecurity is the defence of cyberspace and other related technologies, including records and electronic data as well as physical structures and security measures. Information security is a field in which cybersecurity is crucial (Kavitha & Preetha, 2019). Cybersecurity can serve as a safeguard against unauthorised monitoring of and intelligence collection from an information system. In the continual evolution of information technology and internet services, cybersecurity is crucial. Each country’s security and economic health depend on enhancing cybersecurity and safeguarding vital information infrastructure. Making cyberspace safe from threats, namely cyber threats, is the goal of cybersecurity. Because information security is at the core of the issue, cybersecurity is more than just information security or data security but is nonetheless intimately tied to those two subjects. All facets of information protection are referred to as information security (Olayemi, 2014). The preventive technique or practice known as cybersecurity is used to protect the integrity and dependability of networks, programs, and data from harm, intrusion, or unauthorised access. It entails safeguarding data and systems from common cyber threats such as cyberterrorism, cyberwarfare, and cyber espionage. The goals of cybersecurity, according to Makeri (2017), are as follows:
+
+. To help people reduce the vulnerability of their Information and Communication Technology systems and networks.
+. To help individuals and institutions develop and nurture a culture of cybersecurity.
+. To work collaboratively with public, private, and international entities to secure cyberspace.
+. To help understand the current trends in IT/cybercrime and develop effective solutions.
+Availability.
+. Integrity, which may include authenticity and non-repudiation, and
+. Confidentiality.
+
+Cybersecurity has grown to become a national issue as the risk it now requires to be taken more seriously (Ibikunle, 2013). Improving cybersecurity and guarding vital information infrastructures are essential to national security and economic well-being (Odinma, 2010). The challenges of cybersecurity in Africa include:
+
+Lesser security availability is adequate to avert and manage technological and informational threats.
+. Deficiency of technical know-how regarding cybersecurity and failure to watch or monitor and secure national networks, making Nigeria and several African countries susceptible to cyber espionage, and incidences of cyber terrorism.
+. Failure to develop and improve the required cybersecurity legal structure to battle cybercrime. Cybersecurity issues are more extensive in scope than national security concerns. However, few major significant cybersecurity measures in Africa have their implementation done. Cybersecurity is a serious concern that needs absolute tackling.
+. There is also a necessity to develop an information society that respects values, rights, and freedoms and assures the same access to information, even stirring up the establishment of genuine knowledge that can put up assurance and confidence in the use of ICTs in Africa.
+. Limited levels of consciousness of ICT-related security concerns by stakeholders, like ICT regulators, law enforcement agencies, the judiciary, information technology professionals and users (United Nations Economic Commission for Africa, 2014)
+
+It is essential that, among other current government priorities, the subject of cyber security receives the highest level of attention. Cybersecurity issues are currently undoubtedly garnering attention on a global scale. Given its importance, policymakers, governments, and other interested parties are compelled to carefully design guiding principles in the form of policies and strategies to be used in governing cybersecurity-related issues (Osho & Onoja, 2015).
+
+When considered on a worldwide scale, cybersecurity has recently progressively and certainly taken a more prominent position. This is due to its potentially positive effects if handled properly as well as potential negative effects if neglected on a national level. This has led to the elevation of cybersecurity-related issues to the status of crucial national concerns and top priorities in many different nations throughout the world. As seen in numerous nations on every continent, this has caused national cybersecurity initiatives to spring up all over the world. From the military and national defence viewpoint, Watanabe (2013) assessed France’s Cyber Security Strategy, taking into account its capabilities, obligations, and potential for improving national cybersecurity. He emphasized that the French government’s white paper on cybersecurity acts as a tool for adapting to recent changes in the strategic environment. S¸entürk et al. (2012), Nitta (2013), and Watanabe (2013) all acknowledged the crucial worldwide role the United States played in advancing cybersecurity. ¸Sentürk et al. (2012) stated in their examination of the Turkish cybersecurity strategy that the national cybersecurity strategy of the United States is considered as being the most investigated among others, showing the country’s lofty cybersecurity worldwide relevance. In her examination of the Japanese cybersecurity strategy, Nitta (2013) made an effort to identify several flaws and suggest remedies. She commended Japan for moving toward greater international cooperation while promoting national cybersecurity independence.
+
+The Cybersecurity Strategy in Canada approaches national security in cyberspace from the unique vantage point of safeguarding vital national infrastructure. This can be seen from the three key pillars of the policy, which are helping Canadians stay safe online, securing government networks, and collaborating to secure all crucial cyber systems outside the federal government. These were primarily designed to combat three types of threats, including state-sponsored military activity and cyber espionage, terrorist internet use, and cybercrime (Government of Canada, 2010). The National Cyber Security Strategy of France reflects the widespread use of contemporary cyber technology by its people. Therefore, it concentrated on becoming a global leader in cyber defence while also developing and safeguarding National Information Infrastructures and information relevant to sovereignty. Collectively, France approaches cybersecurity from a defensive stance in its strategy (French Network & Information Security Agency, 2011).
+
+In its Cyber Security Strategy from 2011, the UK put special emphasis on the huge social and economic value that can be derived from a safe, active, and resilient cyberspace. The basic values were intended to boost the economy and strengthen national security in the UK (Osho & Onoja, 2015). The Netherlands’ National Cyber Security Strategy intends to transform the country’s cybersecurity posture from awareness to capabilities. After gaining a better understanding of cyber threats, the Netherlands developed a strategy that aims to take a fresh approach to cybersecurity problems by stepping up efforts to counter them rather than raising awareness of their existence (National Coordinator for Security & Counterterrorism, 2014). The main goal of Japan’s National Cyber Security Strategy was to defend the country’s information system from widespread cyberattacks, which have grown more and more popular in recent years. To provide the best possible supply of security for national information systems, several well-developed action plans were recommended for implementation (Information Security Policy Council, 2010). Cybersecurity measures, such as the creation of technical defences or user education to shield them from being victims of cybercrime, can aid in lowering the risk of cybercrime. In the struggle against cybercrime, the creation and support of cybersecurity initiatives are essential.
+
+# Fighting Cybercrime in Africa: Issues, Challenges and Remedial Actions
+
+Although a crimeless society is a myth, crime is an omnipresent phenomenon, and it is an inseparable part of social existence. No one can deny that crime is a social phenomenon, it is omnipresent, and there is nothing new in crime as it is one of the characteristic features of all societies, be it developed or developing, and it is one of the basic instincts of all human behaviour. However, it should be borne in mind that the social concern for the high crime rate is not because of its nature, but due to the potential disturbance, it causes to society (Sumanjit & Tapaswini, 2013).
+
+Experts and politicians have grown more concerned in recent years about safeguarding ICT systems from cyberattacks, which are purposeful attempts by unauthorised individuals to gain access to ICT systems with the intent of committing theft, disruption, destruction, or other illegal acts. According to several analysts, during the coming years, cyberattacks will become more frequent and more severe (Rainie et al., 2014). Cybercrime is a serious issue that threatens both personal freedom and the integrity of the Internet, as well as the growth of technology (Olumoye, 2013). The entire society is impacted by cybercriminals’ wrongdoings, although they may believe their acts have no victims in the vicious circle. A comprehensive and coordinated strategy is needed to combat cybercrime, however, in Africa, poverty and underdevelopment are major causes for the growth of cybercrime in the region. There are significant obstacles to the fight against cybercrime. However, the majority of African nations face difficulties like (i) never-ending cyber wars (supremacy disputes) between law enforcement, intelligence, and security agencies; (ii) a lack of collaboration between the public and private sectors in the fight against cybercrime; and (iii) inadequacy in the policy option that addresses the issues of surveillance. However, the recommendations are crucial to reduce the frequency of cybercrimes in Africa. Although it cannot be completely stopped, cybercrime can be reduced. The government, businesses, and individuals working together might do a lot to bring it down to a manageable level. According to Hassan et al. (2012), the threat of cybercrime in Africa must be addressed by enacting the required legislation to enforce property rights. However, this will only be possible if property owners take reasonable precautions to secure their property in the first place. Africa is undoubtedly plagued by a variety of sociopolitical, economic, and insurgency-related issues as well as other crimes. This reduces their ability to address cybercrime effectively. However, African nations must take action to make sure that their criminal and procedural laws are sufficient to handle the problems created by cybercrimes.
+
+# Chapter Content
+
+The prevalence and the proliferation of cybercrime have received global attention (Lewis, 2018). This book focuses on the prevalence and the phenomenon of cybercrime in Africa. It adopts a multidisciplinary approach, written by scholars from different backgrounds and disciplines. The book comprises ten (10) chapters, focusing on different aspects of cybercrimes and the implication of the match towards the attainment of sustainable development in Africa.
+
+In the introduction to the book, Stanley Ehiane and Mosud Olumoye discuss the historical context of cybercrime as an emergent phenomenon in Africa. According to the author, a variety of internet criminal activities, such as financial fraud, drug trafficking, human trafficking, and terrorism, can target Africa as a continent. As a result, Africa is developing into a “safe haven” for online scammers. This indicates that more cybercrimes are being committed in Africa. Despite an upsurge in studies on cybercrime over the past ten years, the subject is still important and understudied, especially from a social science standpoint. Nevertheless, some African nations are trying to implement security measures that can assist in fighting this ailment. Even though these initiatives are ongoing, they have been largely ineffective at repealing cybercrime. This reveals that the way forward is for Africa to learn from the experiences of developed countries in fighting cybercrime.
+
+Chapter two written by Sphamandla Lindani Nkosi and Sogo Angel Olofinbiyi analyses the types of cybercrime that occur in South Africa with a focus on the economic impact of identity theft. The chapter investigates and estimates the damage that identity theft has done to South Africa’s economy as well as the suffering that victims—citizens and business sectors—have gone through because of the fraudulent acts related to identity theft. It outlines several socioeconomic issues, such as unemployment, that exacerbate identity theft. It contends that ongoing encryption of sensitive data is crucial and that periodic inspection and maintenance of cybersecurity measures stand as two essential preventative strategies.
+
+In Chapter 3, Vuyelwa Kemiso Maweni, Aden Dejene Tolla, and Sphamandla Lindani Nkosi concentrate on the nature of cybercrime in poor societies and describe how technology facilitates human trafficking. They contend that technology makes it simpler for traffickers to find, entice, control, and coerce their victims. The more sophisticated end of the trafficker spectrum uses technology and the Internet, both of which are tools for cybercrime. Through phones, emails, instant messaging, websites, phone applications, and other means of communication, the Internet gives traffickers access to a larger pool of possible victims. Since conventional physical and geographic barriers no longer exist, the Internet today easily connects a far bigger number of potential victims. The chapter explains the many strategies criminals employ to find their victims of sex trafficking online, with a focus on Ethiopia, Nigeria, and South Africa.
+
+In Chapter 4, Samuel Fikiri Cinini, Stanley Ehiane, Osaiyi Fadekemi Janet, and Irewunmi Banwo focus on new challenges in Africa and cybersecurity. The protection of personal data has grown increasingly important as digital technologies are used more frequently in industries like healthcare and education. Lack of capability is one of the main issues facing Africa in terms of cybersecurity. This pertains to both a shortage of qualified individuals and a lack of funding. Simply put, many African nations lack the infrastructure and knowledge needed to effectively combat cyber attacks. The chapter looked at the rise of cybersecurity in Africa and the many cyber threats that have emerged recently. It also provided an overview of the African Union Convention on Cybersecurity and Personal Data Protection and the difficulties the continental body has faced in tackling these issues. The chapter suggests that Africa must take full advantage of the digital revolution to empower its citizens and enhance transparency in government and the private sector. This will not happen until data is stored in safe and trusted systems that protect privacy and are difficult for criminals to breach.
+
+Anthony Minnaar in Chapter 5 paid to the threat from and risk from cybercrime has been increasing over time, both in terms of the number of reported cyberattacks and the level of complexity of those attacks. Every year, ransomware incidents and the additional expenditures associated with installing better protection measures result in considerable financial losses for enterprises, individuals, and the public sector. Cybercrime is appealing to criminals due to the potential and lucrative profits as well as the low risk of detection, physical detention (being a so-called “borderless” but still international crime), and the challenge of authorities bringing charges against “absent” and challenging to track and trace suspected culprits.
+
+Chapter 6, written by Sazelo Michael Mkhize focused on drug trafficking and the Internet. Over the past few decades, the war on drugs has been a major source of worry. The abuse and trafficking of narcotic and psychoactive substances have long been a problem, but it has become worse with the advent and diffusion of new technologies, particularly the Internet. Over the past ten years, the Internet’s explosive expansion has brought about unheard-of shifts in criminal activity, creating new chances and infrastructure for these kinds of crimes. The African continent has developed over the past ten years into a major route for drug exports, a source of illegally obtained natural resources, a starting place for human trafficking, and a route for migrant smuggling. Drugs are cleverly disguised to hide their origins and avoid scrutiny, making Africa one of the main transhipment routes for drug trafficking. The use of the Internet as a means of drug distribution creates both new investigation obstacles and opportunities for skilled investigators.
+
+Slindile Ngcece and Sazelo Michael Mkhize in chapter seven analyzed the role played by the South African Police Service in battling cybercrime. For police agencies, the threat of cybercrime is becoming more and more challenging. The development of advanced techniques to commit cybercrime has made it more difficult and time-consuming to implement and investigate. South Africa is among the top 10 nations on the list of cybercrime predators, however. Cybercrimes have been the subject of extensive research. However, there is still much to be learned about this subject, especially regarding how law enforcement agencies have handled the difficulties presented by online crimes and whether the South African legal system has been successful in reining in cybercriminals. The chapter identified a lack of cooperation among pertinent role-players to increase internal resources for cybercrime investigation, which led to capacity issues with handling the workload.
+
+Claudine Anita Hingston and Danita Hingston in Chapter 8 focus on the nature of human trafficking. They view human trafficking, which is one of the world’s fastest-growing illegal sectors, as being equivalent to slavery. Cyberspace enables traffickers to abuse more victims globally and carry out new trafficking operations while the traditional channels of human trafficking continue to exist. Human trafficking has evolved into one of the biggest global organised crimes as a result of the development of technology. Traffickers use social media to masquerade as victims, disseminate false information, disseminate intimate photos, or even continue to monitor a victim’s account activity after they have left the trafficker. The four steps of trafficking—recruitment, transportation, victim exploitation, and management of illicit profits—were highlighted in the chapter. Offenders exploit digital tools at each of these four stages of the trafficking cycle. It implies that because of how serious human trafficking is, how it violates human rights, and how badly it affects its victims, this topic must continuously be at the forefront of research.
+
+In chapter nine, Ndivhuwo Doctor Sundani focuses on the methods for preventing human trafficking on South African online platforms. The increased use of digital technologies in Africa is fostering the expansion of human trafficking operations there. It was found that the development of social media and the Internet have provided traffickers with more opportunities to seduce victims. The possibility of raising awareness of human trafficking is growing. The underlying economic, political, and cultural issues must be resolved for South Africa to succeed in its fight against human trafficking. Additionally, groups that serve as a conduit between key players, the government, and victims require more support.
+
+Shandu Smangele and Maluleke Witness in chapter ten highlighted in South Africa the perceptions and trends of electronic tax fraud filing. In the KwaZulu-Natal (KZN) Province of South Africa, the chapter analyzes current perspectives on investigations and prosecutions of electronicFiling (Tax) fraud. Tax fraud happens when taxpayers don’t pay their taxes on time or use shady tactics to get out of paying back taxes. Therefore, one of the things preventing South Africa from collecting taxes is tax fraud. To evade tax requirements, such as paying annual tax on any money generated, people who engage in lawful activities such as barter and financial transactions often conceal the real and taxable income they have made. This practice is known as the shadow economy. The chapter makes the case that taxes are an essential component in ensuring that South Africa’s economy remains strong for years to come. The authors advised the local SAPS DPCI to request an upgrade to the SARS e-Filing system so that it can better track applicants’ history and identify fraudulent information. Accountable investigators should carefully examine current trends to enhance their current investigation methods.
+
+# Concluding Remarks
+
+Africa is reportedly the continent where cybercrime is expanding the fastest. Internet users have increased because of the expansion of broadband services across the continent (Ojedokun, 2015). African countries are increasingly using the Internet to carry out sensitive business and retain vital information. Cybercriminals are targeting the continent as a result of the majority of African states’ shortcomings in bolstering cybersecurity and combating cybercrime. The problem of cybercrime and its detrimental effects on Africa are worrying and demoralising. To combat the threat and lessen its impact on the populace, the governments of Africa must adopt a proactive and laser-like focus. Africa needs to be developed into a society free from crime to serve as a productive foundation for economic breakthrough. Criminals who operate online will always stay current with technological developments. Indeed, technology contributes to cybercrime; we can either accept this or take significant action to address it. We must recognise that the difficulty of law enforcement organisations and individuals to bring criminal charges against online fraudsters feeds the cycle of online fraud (Boateng et al., 2019). Policymakers will need to put into place effective measures to prevent the surge of cyber threats if they want Africa to reach its full potential. Hitherto, Africa must start working together to combat cyber threats at the national and regional levels. Africa should create a body to keep track of and report international cybercrimes.
+
+To meet the upcoming difficulties of cybercrime, Africa needs strong information and computer technology institutions to train cybersecurity experts with significant skills in system administration, security audit, forensic investigation, information security, and software development. Pedro (2020) argues that to avoid and stop new criminality trends, we must constantly make modifications to the way we prevent and secure the cyberspace environment. These efforts have expanded well beyond the conventional boundaries of the Law Enforcement Agencies’ workplace. The issue of cybersecurity needs to be taken seriously since it is affecting how the world perceives the continent. The public, cybercafés, the government, security agencies, and internet users must all contribute to the development of a security-aware culture. It is unreasonable to expect states to adopt the entire agreement right away, so African states should concentrate on the convention’s sections about cybersecurity and cybercrime first. African nations must support capacity-building initiatives and sign on to international accords against cybercrime that extends beyond the continent. These steps will have the most immediate effect in curbing the growth of cybercrime in Africa and worldwide. African states that fail to adequately address the evolving cybercrime problem will jeopardise their economic growth and national security. Unless and until there is a broad global agreement on criminalising cybercrime and robust international cooperation to enforce those laws, cybercriminals operating in cybercrime safe havens will continue to target individuals, businesses, and governments with impunity.
+
+# References
+
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+# Implementation of a Cyber Security Policy in South Africa: Reflection on Progress and the Way Forward
+
+Marthie Grobler, Joey Jansen van Vuuren, and Louise Leenen
+
+Council for Scientific and Industrial Research, Pretoria, South Africa {mgrobler1,jjvvuuren,lleenen}@csir.co.za
+
+Abstract. Cyber security is an important aspect of National Security and the safekeeping of a Nation's constituency and resources. In South Africa, the focus on cyber security is especially prominent since many geographical regions are incorporated into the global village in an attempt to bridge the digital divide. This article reflects on current research done in South Africa with regard to a cyber security policy, and proposes the development of methodologies and frameworks that will enable the implementation of such a policy. The focus of this article is the use of an ontology-based methodology to identify and propose a formal, encoded description of the cyber security strategic environment. The aim of the ontology is to identify and represent the multi-layered organisation of players and their associated roles and responsibilities within the cyber security environment. This will contribute largely to the development, implementation and rollout of a national cyber security policy in South Africa.
+
+Keywords: cyber security, ontology, policy, security awareness.
+
+# 1 Introduction
+
+Information and its related infrastructures are fundamental to cyber security and the implementation of an associated cyber security policy. On the one hand, cyber security pertains to the maintenance of National Security and the interests of citizens; whilst, on the other hand, it can refer to politically motivated hacking to conduct sabotage and espionage against specific nation states. Therefore, the rationale behind national cyber security is to enable the safekeeping of a Nation's constituency and its associated organisational, human, financial, technological and informational resources. This is done to facilitate the achievement of its National objectives [9].
+
+In South Africa, cyber security has been identified as a critical component contributing towards National Security. More geographical regions of South Africa are becoming integrated into the global village, necessitating additional government initiatives aimed at bridging the digital divide and addressing cyber security. One of these initiatives is the development and implementation of a South African specific cyber security policy.
+
+Despite the African continent's recent explosive growth in information and communication technologies, Africa is generally considered as being spared the global high levels of cyber crimes. Although this is often attributed to its traditionally low
+
+Internet penetration levels with only 139 million Internet users out of a population of more than 2 billion people [16], Africans tend to increasingly fall prey to online predators [14]. In addition, many of the factors that traditionally make African countries more vulnerable (such as increasing bandwidth, use of wireless technologies and infrastructure, high levels of computer illiteracy, ineffective or insufficient legislation to deal with cyber attacks and threats) further expose these countries’ crucial infrastructures to cyber risks [12]; hence an effective cyber security policy is urgently needed in order to be able to respond to these risks. A national cyber security policy framework would “bolster and improve South Africa’s cyber security” [14].
+
+This article will look at the current and future research and development done towards the implementation of a cyber security policy in South Africa. It will present retrospective reflections, as well as proposed future work on selected methodologies and frameworks that will enable the implementation of such a policy. The innovative contribution of this research lies in the argument that an ontology can assist in defining a model that describes the relationships between different cyber security components. Section 2 summarises the development process of a cyber security policy for South Africa. Section 3 gives an overview of cyber security research in South Africa and discusses ways in which the research relates to the development of a cyber security policy. From these two sections it becomes clear that a descriptive model of the cyber security environment in South Africa is required. This leads to a proposal for the development of a cyber security ontology in Section 4. Future research is discussed in Section 5 and the article is concluded in Section 6.
+
+# 2 Background
+
+South Africa has a huge responsibility to promote cyber security awareness, since the State can be held responsible for wrongful acts committed inside a country, and is obliged to fulfil the interests of the entire international community. As a result, the national cyber security policy framework for South Africa is a long time coming, and initial workshops on the topic were held already in January 2009. Despite the time and effort put into the development of the policy framework, the process of implementation is still not complete.
+
+At the time of writing, the initial published draft version of the policy declared milestones for the imminent establishment of the security CSIRT (Computer Security Incident Response team) and the sector CSERT (Computer Security Emergency Response team) [8]. The decision was made in February 2012 that the Department of State Security should take over responsibility from the Department of Communications (DOC) for drawing the government's policy on cyber crime. In 2010, a similar decision was made to reassign the mandate from the Department of Science and Technology (DST) to the DOC [10].
+
+Given the current status of the policy framework in South Africa, it is agreed that there is not enough emphasis on the national cyber security policy, although reference is made to the policy as the overarching strategy that must guide cyber security. In response, this article proposes five elements as a foundation for the South African cyber security policy requirements: (i) political will; (ii) adapted organisational structures; (iii) identifying accurate proactive and reactive measures; (iv) reducing criminal opportunities; and (iv) education and awareness [9].
+
+It is recommended that these five elements should be present in developing a national strategy for an effective cyber security approach and culture. The next section addresses these elements in more detail, with a preliminary mapping of current South African cyber security research to determine the current state and progress of a cyber security policy implementation. These elements fit with the South African proposed multi-faceted approach to reduce cyber crime [7].
+
+# 3 Current State of Cyber Security Research in South Africa
+
+The dynamic and volatile nature of the Internet and the cyber domain in general make cyber security research within South Africa an important area to address. Since the cyber domain is inherently globalised, it cannot truly be considered in isolation or on a purely national basis [18]. As such, the South African Justice minister, Jeff Radebe, stated at a parliamentary briefing in February 2012 that finalising specific cyber crime plans would be a priority in 2012 [7]. In addition, the DOC stated that its “decision to boost cyber security comes in conjunction with the government’s plans to battle crime using technology-based solutions and partnerships” [14]. With this in mind, the five elements identified above as part of the successful development of a national cyber security strategy [9] are discussed next, in relation to current South African research.
+
+# 3.1 Political Will
+
+To ensure that the cyber security action plan receives government-wide attention, national leadership is imperative both at an individual and organisational level. Furthermore, national cyber security policies as well as national and international strategies should be in place to fight cyber crime. The draft cyber security policy presented by the DOC aims to ensure that organs of state as well as the private sector can cooperate to ensure the security of South Africa’s information networks [14].
+
+As mentioned in Section 2, the South African national strategy for cyber security is under development, albeit not yet implemented or enforceable. The draft policy does address some levels of compatibility with international efforts, as proposed by Ghernouti-Hélie [9]. For example, co-operation between police in the Southern African Development Community region and Interpol is a high priority in 2012 to fight cyber criminal syndicates [7].
+
+# 3.2 Adapted Organisational Structures
+
+It is recommended that adequate national organisational structures should exist to support the deployment of an effective cyber security solution for individuals, organisations and governmental agencies. These organisational structures should be adapted from other national models to take elements such as country-specific culture, economic context and ICT infrastructure development into account [9].
+
+In terms of cyber security, a national CSIRT could be the most appropriate organisational structure for linking communication networks and information systems with economic and social development. Earlier South African research has identified nine steps to ensure that the CSIRT meets the needs of such an organisational structure. The first and most crucial of these steps would be clarifying the mandate and policy related issues involved [10]. At the time of writing, a new move towards the development and establishment of one of the South African CSIRTs is underway by the DOC and joint partners. The necessity of national CSIRTs is underscored in the draft South African cyber security policy [8].
+
+# 3.3 Identifying Accurate Proactive and Reactive Measures
+
+Since everyday activities have an increasing digital component, it is becoming increasingly urgent to augment and automate cyber security in order to maximise outputs and minimise human error. Both South African individuals and groups are largely dependent on data. This dependence relates not only to physical data, but also to the relationship of this data to specific infrastructures. Accordingly, it is important that these actions can be both proactive and reactive in nature.
+
+Ghernouti-Hélie [9] proposed that cyber security actors can be classified into three roles: the protector; the protected; or the criminal. Once the South African cyber security policy is implemented, it is envisioned that the roles would be addressed appropriately, and South African citizens should have a better understanding of where they fit in terms of, for example, who will play the role of the protector, and what is the punishment for the criminals. Existing South African legislation already addresses criminal punishment for cyber security crimes; this includes: the Electronic Communications and Transactions Act $\Nu_{0}\ 25$ of 2002; the Regulation of Interception of Communications and Provision of Communication-related information Act No 70 of 2002; and the Protection of Personal Information Bill of 2010 [1].
+
+# 3.4 Reducing Criminal Opportunities
+
+Due to the international scope of the Internet and wide usage of technology, cyber security intersects largely with the application and implementation of international legislation. Regardless, the foundation for an adequate security strategy is twofold: raise the level of risks taken by the criminal, and raise the level of difficulties faced by the criminal. In all instances, legislative and regulatory measures should concomitantly raise the level of risk perceived by a criminal, and decrease the favourable context to perpetrate an illegal action [9]. Reducing opportunities for crime is one of the ultimate benefits of implementing a cyber security policy framework. As such, South Africa is one of the signatories of the Council of Europe's Convention on Cybercrime [5].
+
+# 3.5 Education and Awareness
+
+Organisational structures should encourage, lead or coordinate continuing education for professionals in the legal, economical and political fields. In addition, the realisation of a global cyber security awareness culture will contribute to achieving part of the goals of a national cyber security strategy [9]. In South Africa, there are several cyber security awareness programmes aimed at educating user groups in different geographical areas of the country [11], made necessary by the increasing rate of bandwidth consumption or utilisation in South Africa. Already in 2007/2008, South Africa’s overall online activity was estimated to be $67\%$ of overall online activity in Africa, whilst its population accounted for only $5\%$ of that of entire continent [19]. This emphasises the importance of proper cyber security awareness and formalised training in this domain.
+
+Research done in the South African provinces of Gauteng, Mpumalanga and Limpopo in general indicates good Internet behaviour on the part of South African citizens. Completed questionnaires were retrieved from different geographical areas and were grouped under urban areas, semi-rural areas and rural areas. The levels of cyber security awareness were calculated as $69\%$ for urban areas, $53\%$ for semi-rural areas, and $40\%$ for rural areas. A cumulative extrapolation of total awareness in South Africa based on the overall awareness of the sample group is estimated at $51\%$ [17]. This aspect still requires a lot of attention in South Africa.
+
+The next section introduces the use of an ontology to assist in the development and implementation of a South African cyber security policy.
+
+# 4 Using an Ontology to Implement Cyber Security
+
+The mapping of South African research and development activities on the five practical elements as proposed for international cyber security policy implementation (refer to Section 3) shows that some progress has been made. The discussions also highlighted the involvement of a number of entities and functions to ensure the successful implementation of a national cyber security policy. However, since the cyber security environment is not clearly bounded and defined, it is very difficult to put forward an easily understandable and implementable cyber security policy. As such, the authors propose to use an ontological model to formally define and describe the roles of players in this environment together with their functions and responsibilities, as well as the roles of the different stakeholders in the cyber security environment. It is important to realise that there are multiple levels of role players in the cyber security environment and that roles and responsibilities often overlap. It is precisely this layer of complexity that necessitates a structured, formal description of the environment before implementation of the policy can succeed.
+
+This ontology will provide a model of the shared environment (i.e. the cyber security domain), a common vocabulary and formal descriptions of the inter-relationships between the relevant entities and functions as identified in Section 3. Ontologies have been used previously to define policy frameworks and instantiate policies [6]. Although the use of an ontology as proposed here is different to that of Cuppens-Boulahia et al., it is clear that ontologies can be used to assist with the implementation of policy in various ways. Ontologies could therefore be a valuable contribution to the final implementation of a cyber security policy in South Africa.
+
+The methodology of using an ontological model will benefit the communication and sharing of information between role players during the implementation of the policy, the modelling of the implementation phases and functions, and for education and training.
+
+The next sub-section contains an overview of ontologies in general and the subsequent sub-section describes an initial high-level ontology for the cyber security strategic environment.
+
+# 4.1 What Is an Ontology?
+
+For the purpose of this paper, an ontology is a technology that provides a way to exchange semantic information between people and systems. It consists of an encoded, common domain vocabulary and a description of the meaning of terms in the vocabulary. Grüber [13] defines an ontology as “formal, explicit specification of a shared conceptualisation”. A formal ontology specifies a machine-readable domain model depicting entities and their inter-entity relationships. It generally consists of a descriptive part and reasoning technologies. The descriptive part of an ontology captures the domain from the domain experts’ point of view, expressing domain information in a way that can be processed by computers and be understood by humans. The use of reasoning technologies enables new information to be derived from the facts contained in an ontology.
+
+The information in an ontology is expressed in an ontology language (logic-based language), and then progressively refined. The construction and maintenance of ontologies greatly depend on the availability of ontology languages equipped with welldefined semantics and powerful reasoning tools. Fortunately, there already exists a class of logics, called description logics (DLs), that provides for both, and are therefore ideal candidates for ontology languages [2]. The Web Ontology Language (OWL) 2.0 was granted the status of a W3C recommendation in 2009, and is the official Semantic Web Ontology language. OWL was designed to provide a common way to process the content of Web information instead of displaying it. It is intended to be interpreted by computer applications and not to be read by people [22]. In this research, OWL was used to interpret the ontological model developed for the cyber security strategic domain.
+
+The use of ontologies is growing rapidly in a variety of application areas, and is the underlying technology driving the Semantic Web initiative [3]. Ontologies vary greatly in their content and intent [4], [25]: upper-level ontologies define general, descriptive terms that are domain independent; core ontologies contain only terms that are domain-neutral, that is, terms that apply to multiple sub-domains; and domain ontologies represent specific terms in a particular domain and are detailed.
+
+# 4.2 A Domain Ontology for the Cyber Security Environment
+
+There are many benefits to implementing ontologies. As such, the authors used an ontological model to identify and propose a formal, encoded description of the cyber security strategic environment. This will contribute largely to the development, implementation and roll out of a national cyber security policy in South Africa. Benefits include:
+
+• To enable the re-use of domain knowledge. There are many role players in South Africa that have performed research and development work on cyber security. Involving these role players as domain experts in the development of the ontology will maximise the utilisation of any existing domain knowledge.
+• To share a common understanding of domain concepts and information among the members of a community. Due to the dynamic and volatile nature of the cyber security domain, there are often multiple explanations or ambiguous understandings of domain specific concepts. An ontology will assist in standardising these concepts.
+• To facilitate information integration and interoperability between heterogeneous knowledge sources. As pointed out in Section 3, entities and functions involved in the cyber security domain range from local to international, humans to organisations, and policies to implementation tools. By using an ontology, it would be possible to ensure integration and interoperability between different components of the larger South African cyber domain.
+• To analyse domain knowledge. Existing domain knowledge, once identified and captured within an ontological model, can be used to finalise the South African cyber security policy, and implement its components to ensure the better protection of National Security and safekeeping [20].
+
+The main benefit of the high-level ontology envisaged here is that a formal, encoded description of the cyber security strategic environment will be created: that is, all the entities, their attributes and their inter-relationships will be defined and represented. There will be a single shareable model of the environment, agreed-upon by subject experts.
+
+This paper presents the upper-level entities of an initial ontology. Subject matter experts have identified these entities. The proposed cyber security strategy environment ontology is implemented in ‘Protégé’, a free, open-source platform that provides a suite of tools to construct domain models and knowledge-based applications with ontologies [23]. The main entities in the environment are the Human Domain, Information, Infrastructure and Tools. Figure 1 illustrates the main entities and their attributes and relationships.
+
+The Human Domain entity consists of either individuals or groups. A group can be public (e.g. a state department) or private (e.g. a company or a terrorist organisation).
+
+A group has the following attributes: size, goal, role, motivation, and it can be regarded as a target.
+
+A goal is an intended outcome whilst a motivation is related to an individual or a group's needs.
+
+An individual shares all of these attributes, but its size is exactly one.
+
+Humans use tools, measures, guidelines, policies, techniques, applications, etc. and infrastructure to protect or attack information security and to manipulate information.
+
+Infrastructure can consist of physical infrastructure, electronic infrastructure, or software. Infrastructure has a location as attribute.
+
+Information has a type and format as attributes. Information and Infrastructure have a security classification, and Information has Infrastructure (e.g. is stored somewhere).
+
+
+Fig. 1. Illustration of high-level cyber security strategy environment ontology
+
+Cyber security awareness and training are relevant in determining the type of information that must be represented in the ontology, and initial steps have been taken towards the establishment of a Cyber Security Hub in South Africa [19]. This Hub will be responsible for cyber security awareness on a national level. The main role players in terms of cyber security awareness in South Africa are the DOC, the Department of Basic Education, and the South African Police Service (SAPS). A second level of role players includes: Universities and Further Education Training colleges, including the Department of Higher Education and Training; research institutions under the auspices of the DST; non-governmental organisations (NGOs); private organisations; banking sector; mobile sector; MICT SETA (Information Systems, Electronics and Telecommunication Technologies Education and Training Authority); Department of Defence (DOD) and the State Security Agency (SSA); Internet Service Providers; and other government departments.
+
+Most stakeholders have more than one role in the implementation and the application of the policy. For example, DST, the Department of Higher Education and Training and the SSA are jointly responsible for general research on cyber security policy, whilst the SSA takes responsibility for implementing the cyber security policy [15]. Various centres and civil societies in general are responsible for reporting cyber incidents. When a cyber security incident has been reported or a specific instance of the policy has to be implemented, the relevant stakeholders have to be identified and contacted. The initial ontology can be used to support this task.
+
+Fig. 1 only shows the high-level categories of these entities. However, when analysed in more detail, there is a close correlation between the entities identified in Section 3 and the entities in the proposed ontology. For example, the DOC (refer to Section 3.1) can be classified as a public group with the role of leader that uses the cyber security policy as tool (reactive measures) which uses the physical infrastructure of the CSIRT. Citizens (refer to Section 3.3) can be classified as an individual with the role of protected, and an attribute of target. Cyber security awareness programmes (refer to Section 3.5) can be classified as defence tools (proactive measures) that use physical, software and electronic infrastructure in the location of Limpopo.
+
+# 5 Future Research
+
+The first task in creating the cyber security policy is to set up an implementation framework. The first step must comprise an analysis of the current situation in South Africa. The rationale for this analysis is to break down the implementation into manageable, understandable components, because the role players responsible for the implementation are not necessarily the people who formulated the policy. In addition, the output of the analysis will greatly determine the final organisational structure. It is also necessary to be able to determine the strategies that will achieve the identified objectives of the policy. A final organisational structure needs to be investigated and human, financial, technological and physical resources allocated. A change management plan and commitment plan need to be set up to ensure co-operation between the parties involved. The future research will include:
+
+Development of the implementation framework;
+Expansion of the analysis of the current structures and role players of cyber security in South Africa. Several other methodologies would be used including Morphological Analysis, a method for systematically structuring and analysing multi-dimensional, non-quantifiable problems [24]. The detailed domain ontologies will be built using all this information;
+Development of organisational structures necessary for implementation of the cyber security policy; Extension and implementation of the Cyber Security Awareness Toolkit (CyberSAT);
+• Development of change management and commitment plans.
+
+Hence, the use of an ontology is initially envisaged to define the role players and their functions. Later on the authors foresee other uses for an extended ontology. Since the cyber domain environment is vast, a core high-level ontology is proposed to be developed in conjunction with sub-domain ontologies. For example, a sub-domain ontology can be developed for predicting network attacks as a sub-component of the proposed cyber security policy implementation. All the sub-domain ontologies which have been developed can be merged once completed with existing techniques, to provide a combined ontological system that can be further extended.
+
+# 6 Conclusion
+
+This article describes the implementation of a cyber security policy in South Africa, summarises progress made so far of the research and development performed, and proposes the way forward. The authors discuss the requirements that will enable the implementation of the cyber security policy and reflect on research that is currently being done on the use of an ontology in this regard. The aim of the ontology is initially to provide a formal description of role players and their function in the cyber security environment.
+
+Although several research articles and projects have been undertaken during the last three years, only limited research has been done on the implementation of the cyber security policy in South Africa. The article by Phahlamohlaka [21] discussed the CyberSAT as an implementation strategy. This lack of research could be attributed to the delay in the promulgation of the cyber security policy in South Africa. Cyber security awareness is the only research aspect of the cyber security implementation that has been covered in some detail since 2009, with several players starting to implement some awareness training in South Africa.
+
+# References
+
+1. Acts: Acts Online (2012), http://www.acts.co.za/ (accessed March 28, 2012)
+2. Baader, F., Calvenese, D., McGuinness, D., Nardi, D., Patel-Schneider, P.: The Description Logic Handbook: Theory, Implementation, and Applications. Cambridge University Press, Cambridge (2003)
+3. Berners-Lee, T., Hendler, J., Lassila, O.: The Semantic Web. Scientific American 284(5), 33–43 (2001)
+4. Boury-Brisset, A.: Ontological Approach to Military Knowledge Modeling and Management. In: Symposium on Military Data and Information Fusion, Czech Republic, Prague (2003)
+5. Council of Europe: Convention on Cybercrime. CETS No.: 185 (2010), http://conventions.coe.int/Treaty/Commun/ChercheSig.asp?NT $\scriptstyle{\frac{\prime}{\sqrt{\frac{\displaystyle1}{\displaystyle\left.\left(\frac{\displaystyle1}{\displaystyle\left.\left.\left(\frac{\displaystyle\sqrt{\frac{\displaystyle\left.\sqrt{\frac{\left.\sqrt{\frac\sqrt{\pi}}{\displaystyle\left.\sqrt{\frac\sqrt{\frac\pi}{\left.\sqrt}{\frac\sqrt{\frac\sqrt{\pi}}{\left.\sqrt}{\frac\sqrt{\frac\sqrt}{\left.\sqrt}{\frac\sqrt{\sqrt}{\frac\sqrt}{\left.\sqrt}{\frac\sqrt{\sqrt}{\frac\sqrt}{\sqrt}{\frac\sqrt{\sqrt}{\frac\sqrt}{\sqrt}{\frac\sqrt{\sqrt}{\frac\sqrt}{\sqrt}{\frac\sqrt{}\sqrt}{\frac\sqrt{}\sqrt}{\frac\sqrt{}\sqrt}{\frac\sqrt{}\sqrt}{\frac\sqrt{}\sqrt}{\frac\sqrt{}\sqrt}{\frac\sqrt{}\sqrt}{\frac\sqrt{}\sqrt}{\frac\sqrt{}\sqrt}{\frac\sqrt{}\sqrt}{\frac\sqrt{}\sqrt}{\frac\sqrt{}\sqrt}{\frac\sqrt{}\sqrt}{\frac\sqrt{}\sqrt}{\frac\sqrt{}\sqrt}{\frac\sqrt{}\sqrt}{\frac\sqrt{}\sqrt}{\frac\sqrt{}\sqrt}{\frac\sqrt{}\sqrt}{\frac\sqrt{}\sqrt}{\frac\sqrt{}\sqrt}{\frac\sqrt{}\sqrt\frac{}\sqrt{}\sqrt\frac{}\sqrt\sqrt{}\frac{\sqrt}\sqrt{}\frac\sqrt{}\sqrt\frac{}\sqrt\sqrt{}\frac{\sqrt}\sqrt{}\frac\sqrt{}\sqrt\frac{}\sqrt\frac{}\sqrt\sqrt{}\frac\sqrt{}\sqrt\frac{}\sqrt\sqrt{}\frac\sqrt\sqrt{}\frac\sqrt{}\sqrt\frac{}\sqrt\frac\sqrt{}\sqrt\frac{}\sqrt\frac\sqrt{}\sqrt\frac\sqrt{}\frac\sqrt\sqrt{}\frac\sqrt\frac{}\sqrt\sqrt\ \ \ }\ \ \ \ }}}}}}\end$ $85\&C\mathrm{M}=8\&D\mathrm{F}=28/10/2010\&C\mathrm{L}=\mathrm{ENG}$ (accessed March 28, 2012)
+6. Cuppens-Boulahia, N., Cuppens, F., de Vergara, L., Vázquez, E., Guerra, J., Debar, H.: An Ontology-based Approach to React to Network Attacks. International Journal of Information and Computer Security 3(4), 280–305 (2009)
+7. Davis, G.: State Security in Charge of Cybercrime Plans (2012), http://www.iol.co.za/dailynews/news/state-security-incharge-of-cybercrime-plans-1.1238243 (accessed February 21, 2012)
+8. Department of Communications: National Cybersecurity Policy Framework for South Africa – Draft. Unpublished document (2011)
+9. Ghernouti-Hélie, S.: A National Strategy for an Effective Cybersecurity Approach and Culture. In: ARES 2010 International Conference on Availability, Reliability and Security, Krakow, pp. 370–373 (2010)
+10. Grobler, M., Bryk, H.: Common Challenges Faced During the Establishment of a CSIRT. Presented at the ISSA Conference 2010, Sandton, South Africa (2010)
+11. Grobler, M., Flowerday, S., Von Solms, R., Venter, H.: Cyber Awareness Initiatives in South Africa: A National Perspective. In: Proceedings of Southern African Cyber Security Awareness Workshop (SACSAW 2011), pp. 32–41 (2011)
+12. Grobler, M., Dlamini, Z.: Global Cyber Trends a South African Reality. In: Proceedings of IST-Africa Conference (IST-Africa 2012) (2012)
+13. Grüber, T.: A translation approach to portable ontology specifications. Knowledge Acquisition 5, 191–220 (1993)
+14. Guy: Cyber Security Policy Will Go Before Cabinet For Approval This Year (2011), http://www.defenceweb.co.za/index.php?option $\vartriangle{\v{x}}$ com_content&vie w=article&id=13783:cyber-security-policy-will-go-beforecabinet-for-approval-thisyear&catid $\scriptstyle1=48$ :Information $\frac{9}{10}20\frac{9}{10}20$ Communication%20Technologies& Itemid $\scriptstyle\mathtt{.=109}$ (accessed February 24, 2012)
+15. ICT Procurement: Cyber Security Mandate Transferred (2012), http://ictprocurement.com/security/cyber-security-mandatetransferred.html (Accessed May 3, 2012)
+16. Internetworldstats: Internet Usage Statistics for Africa (2012), http://www.internetworldstats.com/stats1.htm (accessed February 27, 2012)
+17. Jansen van Vuuren, J.C., Grobler, M.M., Zaaiman, J.: The Influence of Cyber Security Levels of South African Citizens on National Security. In: Proceedings of ICIW 2012, Seattle, USA, pp. 138–147 (2012)
+18. Kramer, F.D.: Cyberpower and National Security: Policy Recommendations for a Strategic Framework. In: Kramer, F.D., Star, S.H., Wentz, L.K. (eds.) Cyberpower and National Security, pp. 3–23. Centre for Technical and National Security Policy, Washington (2009)
+19. Moyo, A. , Kayle, A.: DOC Calls for Collaboration, Security Innovation (2012), http://www.itweb.co.za/index.php?option $\l=$ Com_content&view $\mathbf{\bar{\rho}}=\mathbf{\bar{\rho}}$ article&id=54874 (accessed August 8, 2012)
+20. Noy, N.F., McGuiness, D.L.: Ontology Development 101: A Guide to Creating Your First Ontology. Technical Report KSL-01-05. Stanford Knowledge Systems Laboratory (2001)
+21. Phahlamohlaka, L.J., Jansen van Vuuren, J.C., Radebe, J.: Cyber Security Awareness Toolkit for National Security: an Approach to South Africa’s Cyber Security Policy Implementation. In: Proceedings of the First IFIP TC9/ TC11 Southern African Cyber Security Awareness Workshop 2011 (SACSAW 2011), Gaborone, Botswana, pp. 1–14 (2011)
+22. OWL 2 Web Ontology Language (2012), http://www.w3.org/TR/owl-overview (accessed March 27, 2012)
+23. Protégé ontology editor (2012), http://protege.stanford.edu/ (accessed February 7, 2012)
+24. Ritchey, T.: Wicked Problems. Structuring Social Messes with Morphological Analysis. Adapted from a lecture given at the Royal Institute of Technology in Stockholm (2004), http://www.swemorph.com/downloads.html (2005)
+25. Smith, B., Miettinen, K., Mandrivk, W.: The Ontology of Command and Control. In: Proceedings of the 14th International Command and Control Research and Technology Symposium, Buffalo, National Centre for Ontological Research, New York (2009)
\ No newline at end of file
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+# CYBER LAW
+
+Cyber law is part of the overall legal system that deals with the Internet, cyberspace, and their respective legal issues. Cyberlaw covers a fairly broad area, encompassing several subtopics, including freedom of expression, Internet access to and usage, and online privacy. Generically, cyber law is called the Law of the Internet.
+
+Cyber laws prevent or reduce damage from cybercriminal activities by protecting information access, privacy, communications, intellectual property (IP) and freedom of speech related to the use of the Internet, websites, email, computers, cell phones, software and hardware, such as data storage devices. Due to the various jurisdictions that cyber activities traverses, enforcement is difficult.
+
+Cybercrime in South Africa has increased exponentially, and the Cybercrimes Act aims to keep people safe from criminals, terrorists, and other states. It also consolidates cybercrime laws and related regulations into the Cybercrimes Act. The law's primary goal is to improve data transmission over the internet whilst keeping it safe.
+
+NB: The South African Cybercrimes Act has severe consequences for non‐compliance.
+
+# Impact
+
+The Cybercrimes Act [the Act] impacts all organisations and all individuals. It now criminalises the perpetrators of cybercrimes and non‐compliance in specific instances [punitive]. It should be noted that as this is a cross‐border practice, South Africa has to comply with its international obligations. It impacts everyone who processes data or uses a computer, organisations and private individuals. Together with the Protection of Personal Information Act [POPiA] and the Electronic Communications Transaction Act [ECTA], this legislative regimen will impact the everyday lives of all South Africans. I
+
+The President signed the Bill into law on 26 May 2021. The proclamation date of certain sections of the Cybercrimes Act is 1 December 2021. The President may set different dates for different provisions of the Act.
+
+The Act ‐ Act No. 19 of 2020: Cybercrimes Act, 2020
+
+The main objectives of the Cybercrimes Act are to deal with offences relating to cybercrimes, powers of investigation, criminalisation of the distribution of data messages which are harmful, provide for interim protection orders, evidence gathering, regulate the jurisdiction of courts, the establishment of a specified point of contact and the reporting of obligations and penalties.
+
+The Cybercrimes Act criminalises various types of cybercrimes, including illegally accessing a computer system or intercepting data, cyber extortion, unlawfully acquiring a password, cyber fraud, and theft of incorporeal property. Any person who violates this Act could face a fine, imprisonment of up to 15 years or both. The broad scope of jurisdiction created by this Act means that the South African courts will have the power to try persons that are non‐SA citizens and persons that commit crimes in other countries, where this affects a person or business in South Africa. The South African Police Services (“SAPS”) have been given extensive search and seizure powers under the Cybercrimes Act, including searching and seizing information held within a private database or network without a search warrant. This could potentially give rise to many Constitutional rights being infringed, such as the right to privacy and freedom of expression. Jurisprudence will develop as SA courts deal with these matters over time.
+
+The act sets out the objectives of the legislation:
+
+to create offences which have a bearing on cybercrime;
+to criminalise the disclosure of data messages which are harmful and to provide for interim protection orders;
+to further regulate jurisdiction in respect of cybercrimes;
+to further regulate the powers to investigate cybercrimes;
+to further regulate aspects relating to mutual assistance in respect of the
+investigation of cybercrimes;
+to provide for the establishment of a designated Point of Contact; to further provide for the proof of specific facts by affidavit;
+to impose obligations to report cybercrimes;
+to provide for capacity building;
+to provide that the Executive may enter into agreements with foreign States to promote measures aimed at the detection, prevention, mitigation and investigation of cybercrimes;
+to delete and amend provisions of specific laws; and
+to provide for matters connected in addition to that.
+
+The Cybercrimes Act has imposed new responsibilities on institutions and businesses to comply with far more stringent security requirements in managing the data of citizens and employees, which will play a key role in protecting South Africa against cybercrimes.
+
+# Sections of the Act that are now in operation:
+
+Chapter 1: Sets out the definitions of the Act. Chapter 2: This chapter sets out all the new cybercrimes created by the Act. The section deals with obtaining orders to protect the complainant pending finalising criminal proceedings that are not yet in operation. NB: [excludes Part VI] Chapter 3: This section refers to the jurisdiction of the Act. A South African court will have the authority to try any offence created in the Act if the violation affects any person or business in South Africa or if the crime was committed outside of South Africa against any citizen or ordinarily resident in South Africa. Chapter 4: This chapter deals with the authorities powers to investigate, search, access or seize. The excluded sections deal with the preservation of data directions. NB: [excludes 38(1)(d), (e) and (f), 40(3) and (4), 41, 42, 43 and 44].
+
+Chapters 5: This section is not yet in operation. This relates to mutual assistance with foreign requests and establishing a designated Point of Contact within the South African Police Services [SAPS].
+
+Chapter 6: This section is not yet in operation and
+
+Chapter 7: This section sets out the process to prove facts by submission of an affidavit by a suitably qualified individual.
+
+Chapter 8: deals with reporting obligations and capacity building to investigate and prosecute cybercrimes. The reporting obligations for electronic communications service providers and financial institutions are not yet in operation. NB: [excludes section 54]
+
+Chapter 9: This section deals with the general provisions and sets out which other rules are repealed or amended by this Act. The Act replaces sections of the Electronic Communications and Transactions Act, 25 of 2002, dealing with unlawful accessing, interception or interference with data messages. Several proposed amendments related to prosecuting harmful disclosure of pornography (“revenge porn”) are not yet in operation. However, the offence of “revenge porn” is in process. NB: [excludes sections 11B, 11C, 11D, and 56A(3)(c), (d) and (e) of the Criminal Law (Sexual Offences and Related Matters) Amendment Act, 2007, from the Schedule of laws repealed or amended in terms of section 58].
+
+# Cybercrime and Cybersecurity
+
+Areas that are related to cyber law include cybercrime and cybersecurity. With proper cybersecurity, businesses and people can protect themselves from cybercrime. Cybersecurity looks to address weaknesses in computers and networks. The International Cybersecurity Standard is known as ISO 27001.
+
+Cybersecurity policy is focused on guiding anyone that might be vulnerable to cybercrime.
+This includes businesses, individuals, and even the government.
+
+Information and training are essential ways to improve cybersecurity.
+
+Cybercrimes are committed against society, including governments, businesses, and people.
+
+# UNODC excerpt:
+
+Cybercrime law identifies standards of acceptable behaviour for information and communication technology (ICT) users; establishes socio‐legal sanctions for cybercrime; protects ICT users, in general, and mitigates and/or prevents harm to people, data, systems, services, and infrastructure, in particular; protects human rights; enables the investigation and prosecution of crimes committed online (outside of traditional real‐world settings); and facilitates cooperation between countries on cybercrime matters.
+
+Cybercrime law provides rules of conduct and standards of behaviour for the use of the Internet, computers, and related digital technologies, and the actions of the public, government, and private organizations; rules of evidence and criminal procedure, and other criminal justice matters in cyberspace; and regulation to reduce risk and/or mitigate the harm done to individuals, organisations, and infrastructure should a cybercrime occur. Accordingly, cybercrime law includes substantive, procedural and preventive law.
+
+# Categories of Cyber Crime
+
+Generally, there are three major categories of cybercrimes, including:
+
+Crimes Against People. While these crimes occur online, they affect the lives of ordinary people. Some of these crimes include cyber harassment and stalking, distribution of child pornography, various types of spoofing, credit card fraud, human trafficking, identity theft, and online‐related defamation etc. Crimes Against Property. Some online crimes attack property, such as a computer or server. These crimes include hacking, virus transmission, cyber, computer vandalism, and copyright infringement [including IP] violations. In many instances, the attackers lock users out of their systems and release access once the ransom is paid [usually in crypto currency] – referred to as ‘ransomware.’ Crimes Against Government. When a cybercrime is committed against the government, it is considered an attack on that nation's sovereignty. Cybercrimes against the government include hacking, accessing confidential information, cyber warfare, cyber terrorism, and pirated software.
+
+# Cyber Law Trends
+
+Cyber law is increasing in importance every single year. This is because cybercrime is increasing. To fight these crimes, there have been recent trends in cyber law. These trends include the following:
+
+New and more stringent regulations.
+Reinforcing current laws.
+Increased awareness of privacy issues.
+Cloud computing.
+How virtual currency might be vulnerable to crime.
+Usage of data analytics.
+
+Creating awareness of these issues will be a primary focus of governments and cyber law agencies.
+
+Companies specialising in Cyber protection generally offer a holistic service, including specialist digital and internet tools [software including AI] and advisory services. Many institutions provide free online guidance, registering to receive newsletters with updates etc.
+
+NIST‐ National Institute of Standards and Technology ‐ https://www.nist.go
+
+CISA – Cybersecurity & Infrastructure Security Agency ‐ https://www.cisa.gov
+
+Register to receive newsletters with updates etc.
+
+Many ICT companies also have valuable website guidance [register for email advisories].
+
+# Cyber Law and Intellectual Property
+
+An essential part of cyber law is intellectual property. Intellectual property includes art, literature, music, and businesses. IP rights related to cyber law generally fall into the following categories:
+
+Copyright protects almost any piece of IP you can transmit over the internet. This includes books, music, movies, etc.
+
+Patents are generally used to protect an invention. These include software and online business processes, including systems, etc.
+
+Trademarks are used virtually as they are in the real world. Trademarks will be used for websites and special services provided online.
+
+Trade Secrets. Online businesses can use trade secret protections, although these can be reversed engineered in the modern online world.
+
+Domain Disputes are about who owns a web address.
+
+Contracts. Any person accessing a website generally has to agree to the terms of service. ‐ This is a contract.
+
+Privacy. Online services and any electronic storage of client information are subject to data privacy laws, POPiA. The storage or retention of client information is prohibited unless there is an ongoing business relationship with the client.
+
+# Cyber Security Strategies
+
+Besides understanding cyber law, organisations must build cybersecurity strategies. These, at a minimum, must cover the following areas:
+
+Ecosystem. A robust ecosystem helps prevent cybercrime. Your ecosystem includes three areas—automation, interoperability1, and authentication. A robust system can prevent cyberattacks like malware, attrition, hacking, insider attacks, and equipment theft.
+
+Framework. An assurance framework is a strategy for complying with security standards. This allows updates to infrastructure. It also allows governments and businesses to work together in what's known as "enabling and endorsing'.
+
+Open Standards. Open standards lead to improved security against cybercrime. They allow businesses and individuals to use proper protection easily. Open standards can also improve economic growth and new technology development.
+
+It is strengthening Regulation. This speaks directly to cyber law. Governments can work to improve this legal area.
+
+E‐Governance. E‐governance is the ability to provide services over the Internet. Developing this technology is an integral part of cyber law.
+
+Infrastructure. Protecting infrastructure is one of the most critical parts of cybersecurity.
+
+Refer to the LSSA website for guidance in this regard www.LSSA.org.za
+
+# Mitigating Risk
+
+Cyberlaw aims to reduce the risk, including the protection of network security.
+
+Cybersecurity should be treated as a business risk and mitigated [reduced]. The general rule is that ‘it is not if but will you be hacked.’
+
+This requires a business continuity plan [to recover fast], with cloud computing being the preferred choice.
+
+Cyber security practitioners have enhanced the simulation and scenario planning in risk mitigation.
+
+Breach and Attack Simulations (BAS) are growing in popularity as a way of testing cyber resilience. The technology is used to automatically spot weaknesses in an organisation’s cyber security, a little like automated, ongoing penetration testing.
+
+For risk mitigation strategies, resources including cyber guidance, visit the LSSA website: www.LSSA.org.za
+
+# Cyber Law Business Consideration
+
+A business's website is a significant asset. It is also highly vulnerable to cybercrime. Various agencies and organisations provide guidance; in many instances, these are ICT companies or State agencies.
+
+# Clients
+
+Protecting your client's personal information is essential to comply with cyber law and POPiA. This is true even if your business lacks a website or the client information is not digitally stored [hard copies].
+
+Regarding POPiA, your business's privacy and security policies must be available to your clients. This confirms your commitment to protecting their personal and financial information when they use your website.
+
+# Cyber Law Terms and Laws
+
+There are three main terms that people need to know related to cyber law.:
+
+1. Information Technology Law. These laws refer to digital information. It describes how this information is gathered, stored, and transmitted.‐ POPiA / ECTA
+2. Cyber Law/Internet Law. These laws cover the usage of the internet. ECTA & Cybercrimes Act
+3. Computer Law. This covers a sizeable legal area. It includes both the internet and laws related to computer IP. – ECTA
+4. Critical Infrastructure. The State's physical or virtual systems and assets are so vital that their incapacitation or destruction may debilitate a State’s security, economy, public health or safety, or the environment.
+5. Cyber Infrastructure. The communications, storage, and computing devices upon which information systems are built and operate.
+6. Cyber Operation. The employment of cyber capabilities to achieve objectives in or through cyberspace.
+7. Cyberspace. Physical and non‐physical components form the environment to store, modify, and exchange data using computer networks.
\ No newline at end of file
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+# Chapter 6 Cybersecurity in South Africa: Towards Best Practices
+
+Sagwadi Mabunda $\textcircled{1}$
+
+# 6.1 Introduction
+
+Cybersecurity in South Africa is a topic that has been on the agenda for a number of years. The government has expressed great concern over the proliferation of cybersecurity risks. It asserts that cybersecurity threats and the combatting thereof have a personal, national and international dimension.1
+
+South Africa is experiencing the manifestations of the “digital paradox”.2 This is an acknowledgement of the opportunities that technological advances present to the development of the country on the one hand and the threats that are posed by the cybercriminals on the other. Essential services such as water and electricity supply rely heavily on ICT, so too do businesses, organisations and citizens. While ICT applications such as e-government, e-commerce, e-health and e-education are considered enablers of development, they are also vulnerable to the threats that present with the promise of technology particularly, in the form of rampant cybercriminality.3 The digital paradox presents itself in the way that the potential of ICT for development is stifled or threatened by the proliferation of cybercrime and cybersecurity threats.4
+
+The South African government faces great challenges when it comes to regulating cybersecurity across the whole government structure i.e. at the national, regional and municipal levels. It is burdened with ensuring that there exists the same level of coordination for independent agencies such as regulators, businesses, civil society, households and individuals.5 While there are positive efforts being made, it is clear that much more needs to be done to improve; particularly when it comes to South Africa’s Cybersecurity legislative frameworks.
+
+The International Telecommunication Union (ITU) has developed the Global Cybersecurity Index (GCI) to measure the commitment of countries to cybersecurity at a global level. This index measures countries along five pillars – (i) legal measures, (ii) technical measures (iii) organisational measures (iv) capacity building and (v) cooperation. These pillars were adopted because cybersecurity has a broad field of application which cuts across various sectors and industries.6 According to the 2018 GCI report, South Africa was determined to be in the 56th place globally. To put that in perspective, when compared to the other BRICS countries it is in the fourth place before Brazil, which sits at 70th position globally, while Russia is 26th, followed by China at 27th and India at 47th. Regionally, South Africa is fourth behind Mauritius, Kenya and Rwanda which hold first, second and third place respectively; it is followed by Nigeria, Tanzania and Uganda which hold the fifth, sixth and seventh positions respectively.7
+
+When considering the South African cybersecurity landscape, the National Cybersecurity Policy Framework (NCPF) is the first port of call. The NCPF was developed in line with the Justice Crime Prevention and Security (JCPS) Delivery Agreement which is aimed at ensuring that “all people in South Africa are and feel safe”. Output 8, for example, seeks to foster integrated ICT systems that will combat cybercrime.8 National cybersecurity per the NCPF is a broad term that encompasses many aspects of electronic information, data, and media services which affect the economy, security and wellbeing of a country.9 Cybersecurity is defined as “the practice of making the networks that constitute cyberspace secure against intrusions, monitoring confidentiality, availability and integrity of information, detecting intrusions and incidents that occur, and responding to and recovering from them10”. Therefore, the NCPF has identified that the most important policy domains are those that (1) address the reduction of vulnerabilities of cyberspace, (2) prevent cyber threats and attacks in the first instance, and (3) where an attack does occur, ensure the swift recovery and functioning of critical information systems.11
+
+Cyber threats necessitate a cybersecurity culture which is driven mainly by the State to ensure that citizens are able to take full advantage of the information age whilst remaining conscious of the threats and vulnerabilities that exist in cyberspace. In other words, the risks associated with ICT must be counterbalanced with its role in the functioning of modern and open societies.12 As South Africa ventures into exploring the Fourth Industrial Revolution,13 an acute awareness of this balancing exercise is paramount. Achieving overall national cybersecurity is no small feat; the government must ensure that the policies and regulations adopted do not take a myopic view, rather they should address the challenges particular to South Africa while keeping in mind its international obligations. While the NCPF may not be able to address every aspect of cybersecurity, it does pronounce on the critical areas such as data protection and privacy, cybercrime, interception of communication, and cyberdefence.
+
+# 6.2 Data Protection
+
+South Africa holds the right to privacy in very high esteem owing to the gross violations witnessed during the Apartheid regime. There is both a common law right to privacy14 and a Constitutional right to privacy provided for in section 14.15
+
+Data protection is regulated by the Protection of Personal Information Act (POPIA) which was passed in 2013. POPIA, which is closely modelled after an early draft of the EU General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), seeks to regulate (amongst other things) the processing of personal data, setting obligations for the data processors and controllers and enabling data subjects to bring civil actions against entities (both public and private) who violate their individual rights.16 POPIA was the result of thorough research done by the South African Law Reform Commission (SALRC) which based the principles of the Act on the principles implemented by the Organisation of Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) and the European Union.17 It is also substantially similar to the United Kingdom’s Data Protection Act (DPA). Those that have studied both Acts have noted that one can anticipate the impact that POPI will have in South Africa by investigating the impact that the DPA has had in the UK.18
+
+Section 39 of POPIA establishes the Information Regulator as an independent juristic person for the purpose of enforcing POPIA. The appointment of members of the Information Regulator was approved by the National Assembly on 7 September 2016. Some of the responsibilities that it is tasked with are education, monitoring, compliance enforcement, complaint management, research and international cooperation. Since the Act was promulgated in 2013, its entering into force has been done over stages. In June 2020, yhe Presidency announced that a few further provisions will come into force from 1 July 2020. These sections (2 to 38, 55 to 109, 111 and 114(1), (2) and (3)) are essential to the functioning of the Act as they relate to conditions for the lawful processing of ordinary and special personal informationand; codes of conduct for the Information Regulator and the regulation of direct marketing by means of unsolicited electronic communication to name a few. Entities in the form of both private and public bodies have been given a 1 year grace period to ensure that they are compliant with the Act. POPIA will operate fully from 1 July 2021.19
+
+It has become well established that the exponential advancements in technology have increased the capabilities of companies and other organisations to gather, store, process and disseminate personal data as people inadvertently leave a digital footprint through their mobile phones and computers.20
+
+It is anticipated that once POPI comes into full effect, it will have a significant impact on the ways that companies gather, save, utilise and distribute personal information. A 2014 study done by IQ business in conjunction with the South African Institute of Chartered Accountants (SAICA) predicted that in addition to civil and criminal liability that can attach to non-compliant companies, the possible reputational damage that can occur could be severely detrimental to the company’s future.21
+
+Greenleaf argues that the key to effective data privacy law is in the adoption of a comprehensive set of data privacy principles which accord with international standards such as the OECD guidelines as well as having mandatory legal enforcement mechanisms in place.22 Furthermore, data privacy laws should cover most of the country’s private and public sectors in other words, they should not place their focus on a few subsectors such as “credit reporting” or “health23”.
+
+Greenleaf identifies ten principles which are at the core of data privacy and should be included in privacy legislation. These are: “(1) fair data collection, (2) data quality, (3) purpose specification, (4) purpose notification when data are collected, (5) limitation to specified data uses, (6) reasonable security safeguards, (7) openness, (8) access and correction of an individual’s data, (9) accountability of the responsible parties and (10) implementation or instruction of data export restrictions”.24
+
+POPI encompasses nine out of ten of these principles. Condition 1 deals with the principle of accountability of the data controller to implement and monitor adherence to the conditions of POPI. Condition 2 provides for the collection of private data which may only be done in a manner which is fair, lawful and within the knowledge and consent of the data subject. Condition 3 provides for the purpose specification which states that data must be collected for a specific use as well as requiring that the purpose be specified at the time of collection. Condition 3 also provides for the purpose and rights notification where the data subject must be notified that her data is being collected and what it will be used for. Condition 4 prohibits the excessive collection of personal data i.e. personal data may only be used or processed for the purpose that it was originally collected for. Condition 5 provides for the quality of data which must be accurate and relevant. Condition 7 provides for reasonable security safeguards which state that the necessary technical and procedural practices should be implemented so as to ensure the safety of personal data. Condition 8 provides the right of data subjects to know what information on them is stored and processed by the data controller. The data controller has the responsibility in that regard to affect any corrections the data subject may inform them of. Finally, chapter 9, section 72 provides for data export restrictions which states that cross-border data transfers may only be done to countries that have adequate data privacy legislation in place.25
+
+These principles, properly applied, inform the implementation of the Act and ensure that it will be an effective law. While comparisons can be made with the UK DPA, the similarities should not be overstated because ultimately, the unique South African context will determine how successful the quest for data privacy it.
+
+# 6.3 Consumer Protection
+
+The South African National Consumer Protection Act $(\mathrm{CPA})^{26}$ seeks “to promote a fair, accessible and sustainable marketplace for consumer products and services … [and] to prohibit certain unfair marketing and business practices”.27 The Act does not have specifically formulated provisions that directly address cybersecurity issues. This is a missed opportunity considering today’s increasingly digitized society.
+
+One of the areas that the CPA could provide guidance on is with regard to the ‘right to be forgotten’. On the back of the European Court of Justice judgment of Google Spain v AEPD and Mario Costeja González28 the question becomes whether customers of multinational corporations such as Google can enforce that right in South Africa. Without pronouncing on the desirability or practicality of the right to be forgotten, South Africa would be an interesting case study given its strong privacy, access to information, and consumer protection values.
+
+The right to be forgotten is typically spoken of in the context of the right to privacy.29 The South African Constitution recognises the right to privacy as a fundamental right enshrined in the Bill of Rights and so it is encapsulated in all other rights. This is contemplated by section 39(2) of the Constitution which provides that “[w]hen interpreting any legislation … every court, tribunal or forum must promote the spirit, purport and objects of the Bill of Rights.” This means that when interpreting the consumer rights provided for in the CPA, due regard must be given to the right to privacy.
+
+Currently, the CPA is limited as it only recognises the right to privacy when it comes to restrictions on unwanted direct marketing.30 It may be argued that when a consumer uses the services of a supplier, she should have the right to have her personal information erased from the supplier’s databases upon termination of their transactional relationship, subject, of course, to other legal obligations the supplier may have.31 Unfortunately, this proposition is currently only theoretical as it has not yet played out in the courts, but one can postulate that a court would be in favour of finding that a consumer does have a right to be forgotten, particularly given that the CPA recognise a consumer’s right to be heard and obtain redress.32
+
+# 6.4 Cybercrime
+
+It is important to stress that Africa was the last continent to embrace ICTs, and a decade ago only a handful of African countries had local Internet access.33 There has been since a significant growth in the adoption of ICTs across sub-Saharan Africa. However, this occurred in the context of inadequate telecommunication infrastructures.34
+
+The endless possibilities created by Internet connectivity for millions across the continent have created also unlimited capabilities for those tied to the criminal world. Those who wish to engage in criminal activities have taken full advantage of the internet’s power to commit a host of cybercrimes.35 However, expanding bandwidth and increases in the use of wireless technologies and infrastructures have been coupled with high levels of computer illiteracy and insufficient or ineffective regulatory measures, making African countries especially vulnerable to cybersecurity breaches.36
+
+South Africa is no stranger to cybercrime attacks and the NCPF reinforces the need to take progressive steps to combat it. It notes a need to promote, guide and coordinate activities that would be aimed at improving cybersecurity measures which include the fight against cybercrime. These measures include ensuring that the collection of intelligence is strengthened and the state’s capacity to investigate, prosecute and combat cybercrime (amongst other threats) is improved.37
+
+Parliament has been working on passing South African Cybercrimes legislation since 2015. The first attempt at a draft bill was unsuccessful as it appeared to have tried to do too much as it sought to regulate both cybercrime and cyberdefence issues. It was overly broad and practically unenforceable. The bill consequently saw two major revisions to become the Cybercrimes Bill that was recently passed in both the National Assembly and the National Council of Provinces. At the time of writing, it is awaiting the President’s signature for it to be passed into law.
+
+# 6.5 Interception of Communications
+
+Interception of communication is a core pillar of the preservation of national public order in South Africa and is regulated by the Regulation of Interception of Communication and Provision of Communication-Related Information Act (RICA). RICA was enacted in 2002 to address what was understood to be the nature of the telecommunications environment at that time. This environment has evolved significantly 17 years on.
+
+It is stated in the preamble that the purpose of the Act is to regulate the interception of certain communications and other communication-related information. It also seeks to regulate the processes of application for, issuing of and directions authorizing interception of communications. Furthermore, it establishes interception centres; the Office for Interception Centres and the Internet Service Providers Assistance Fund. Its goal is also to protect the privacy of communications subject to certain exceptions in the case of serious crimes or threats to national security.
+
+One of the features of RICA is that an electronic communication service provider who provides a mobile cellular electronic communications services is prohibited from activating a SIM card on its electronic communication system unless it has recorded and stored (at its own cost) the Mobile Subscriber Integrated Service digital Network Number (MSISDN-number) of the SIM card against the details of the customer along with their full name, identity number and at least one address.38 This information becomes essential when it comes to the need for security forces to intercept communication. A controversial issue which played out in Court, as explained in the following section.
+
+# 6.5.1 Amabhungane v Minister of State Security
+
+On the 16th of September 2019, the High Court of South Africa Gauteng Division, Pretoria delivered a judgment per Sutherland J in the case of Amabhungane and Others v The Minister of State Security and Others39 which declared parts of RICA unconstitutional. The declaration of invalidity was suspended for 2 years to allow the legislature to remedy the defects of the Act.
+
+The High Court found that there were several examples of abuse of RICA by the respondents which included undisputed first-hand experience of investigative journalist Sam Sole and Advocate Down, a State Prosecutor, of being spied upon. Furthermore, it stated that Mr. Sole has no right under RICA to demand disclosure because it forbids him from being informed. His efforts to obtain details about the spying were met with a contemptuous response and unsubstantiated allegations that no irregularities have occurred.40 Although the Respondents claimed that because RICA was undergoing some developmental changes, the challenge was abstract and not based on a set of fact, the Court found that the irregularities noted above alone were good enough reason to hear the matter.
+
+The controversy that shrouded RICA was centred around the question of what effect the authorisation of interceptions has on the rights conferred by the Constitution, namely the section 14 privacy rights, section 16(1) freedom of expression rights, section 34 access to court rights and section 35(5) fair trial rights.41 While it is common cause that RICA and bulk interceptions practice is an intrusion on privacy rights, the controversial issue was whether the infringement could be justified in terms of section 36 and section 39 of the Constitution.42
+
+Section 16(1) Freedom of expression Everyone has the right to freedom of expression, which includes(a) freedom of the press and other media; (b) freedom to receive or impart information or ideas; (c) freedom of artistic creativity; and, (d) academic freedom and freedom of scientific research.
+
+Section 34 Access to courts
+
+Everyone has the right to have any dispute that can be resolved by the application of law decided in a fair public hearing before a court or, where appropriate, another independent and impartial tribunal or forum.
+
+Section 35(5) Right to a fair trial
+
+Evidence obtained in a manner that violates any right in the Bill of Rights must be excluded if the admission of that evidence would render the trial unfair or otherwise be detrimental to the administration of justice.
+
+42 The Constitutional provisions are –
+
+Section 36. Limitation of rights
+
+1. The rights in the Bill of Rights may be limited only in terms of law of general application to the extent that the limitation is reasonable and justifiable in an open and democratic society based on human dignity, equality and freedom, taking into account all relevant factors, including –.
+
+(a) the nature of the right;
+(b) the importance of the purpose of the limitation;
+(c) the nature and extent of the limitation;
+(d) the relation between the limitation and its purpose; and, (e) less restrictive means to achieve the purpose.
+
+2. Except as provided in subsection (1) or in any other provision of the Constitution no law may limit any right entrenched in the Bill of Rights.
+
+Section 39 Interpretation of Bill of Rights 1. When interpreting the Bill of Rights, a court, tribunal or forum –-
+
+(a) must promote the values that underlie an open and democratic society based on human dignity, equality and freedom;
+(b) must consider international law; and,
+(c) may consider foreign law.
+
+2. When interpreting any legislation, and when developing the common law or customary law, every court, tribunal or forum must promote the spirit, purport and objects of the Bill of Rights. 3. The Bill of Rights does not deny the existence of any other rights or freedoms that are
+
+Two discrete issues were raised.
+
+1. The first was a challenge to the constitutionality of parts of RICA. The statute permits the interception of communications of any person by authorised state officials subject to the conditions prescribed in the Act.
+2. The second was whether there exists lawful authority for the admitted practice of the State in conducting ‘bulk interceptions’ of telecommunication traffic. The National Strategic Intelligence Act 30 of 1994 and the Intelligence Services Control Act 40 of 1990 were implicated in this issue.43 For the sake of brevity, this second issue will not be discussed here.
+
+The Court considered the first challenge with reference to the following considerations:
+
+(a) The Act does not afford a right of notice to a person who has been surveilled of such surveillance.
+
+The Court held that once it is assumed that secret surveillance is justifiable, the controversy presents when one considers the possibility of abuse by overzealous or corrupt officials. Without the right to notice, a subject of surveillance whose privacy has been wrongly violated has no recourse for relief in the courts. This means that her right to access to court as contemplated in section 34 of the Constitution would have been compromised, for without a right, there can be no remedy.44
+
+The challenge supposed that the purposes of RICA could be achieved without a total ban on post-surveillance disclosure whereas the Respondents stood firm on the need for a total ban. The High Court, after considering foreign legal precedence,45 embraced the right to post-surveillance notice as a facet of a democratic social order, subject to the safeguards against undoing the very objective of legitimate surveillance.46 It found that there is no reason in the South African condition to deny such a right.47
+
+The Court found that RICA, including sections 16(7), 17(6), 18(3)(a), 19(6), 20(6) and 22(7), is inconsistent with the Constitution and accordingly invalid to the extent that it fails to prescribe a procedure for notifying the subject of the interception. In an interim order, the Court read into sections 16(11) and (12) the right to notification.48
+
+(b) The model of safeguards in respect of the selection of the designated judges is deficient.
+
+Section 16 of RICA provides for the procedure that must be followed for application for, and issuing of, directions and entry warrants to a designated judge. Section 16(4)–(7) stipulates the duties of a designated judge.49
+
+The safeguard model was criticised by the applicants in two respects; the first was that the independence of the designated judge is compromised by the selection process and the de facto unlimited duration of appointment, and second, that the absence of an adversarial process may compromise the efficacy of the judicial role.50
+
+The Applicants sought an interim order which read into the definition of a designated judge that she should be appointed by the Judicial Services Commission for a non-renewable term of 2 years. The Court held that such an order would not be appropriate in the interim. It held that the Minister should continue to appoint the designated judge but that she or he should be nominated by the Chief Justice and the Minister should be obliged to accept the nomination. The appointment should be for a non-renewable term of 2 years.51
+
+The second part of the challenge was the absence of a prescribed procedure for the proper evaluation of the evidence placed before the designated judge in keeping with the adversarial tradition of the South African judicial system. This, it was argued, implicates the section 34 rights to a fair hearing and excludes audi alteram partem. The applicants argued for the introduction of a public advocate to play the role of devil’s advocate, something which is not a default position in South Africa. This would allow the designated judge to have the benefit of hearing the matter ventilated by two opposing parties so she can apply her mind to the final decision fully.52
+
+The Court found that RICA is inconsistent with the Constitution in as far as it fails to provide a system for appropriate safeguards to deal with ex parte orders. It held, however, that there are a number of considerations that must be factored in when determining what the appropriate safeguards should be, therefore, it elected to leave that to Parliament. The declaration of invalidity is suspended for 2 years.53 (c) The model of safeguards concerning custody and management of information gathered by surveillance is deficient.
+
+RICA provides for two types of interception of communication; the first is realtime interception, and the second, is trawling through past data. Telecommunications service providers are obliged to retain all data in terms of section 30(2) of RICA, between a minimum of three and a maximum of 5 years at their own discretion.
+
+The applicants argued that the minimum three-year period is too long for service providers to archive data because that period is not reasonably connected to a legitimate objective of RICA. Other jurisdictions prescribe, at most, a two-year period. Secondly, having accessed and stored these data in servers at Interception Centres, the regulations on how those data are used and managed, i.e. stored and transferred, are unsatisfactory.54
+
+The Court, while recognising other jurisdictions, held that there is no injustice done to the limitations enquiry by recognising that there may be disagreements what may be deemed as a reasonable period length. It held that while a period of 5 years may seem excessive when emphasis is given to comparative jurisdictions; it is not inconsistent with section 36 of the Constitution.55
+
+However, on the second issue, the Court held that RICA, especially section 35 and 37, are inconsistent with the Constitution and accordingly invalid for 2 years (to allow Parliament to cure the defect) to the extent that the statute itself fails to prescribe proper procedures to be followed when state officials are examining, copying, sharing, sorting through, using, destroying and/or storing the data obtained from interceptions. The model of safeguards in RICA are not effective in (i) preserving legal privilege in respect of lawyers and their clients and (ii) preserving the confidentiality of sources of investigative journalists.56
+
+It was uncontested that both lawyers and journalists have obligations to preserve confidential information. The issue, however, is whether their confidential exchanges, either in absolute or in relative terms, ought to be protected. It is also accepted that the right to privacy is not absolute, but the question remains whether interception impacts on their professional roles and the efficacy with which those roles are performed.57
+
+The Court distinguished between the role of a lawyer and that of a journalist and dealt with each discreetly. It held that the conditions and restrictions imposed by the Act are the appropriate mechanisms to manage intrusions on lawyers.58 With regard to journalists, the Court held that the absence of express provisions which instruct the designated judge to examine the justifications presented to her for spying on journalists is evidence of the failure of RICA to align with section 16 of the Constitution, which makes RICA unconstitutional.59
+
+Overall, this case highlights the difficulties that present with the interception of communications. The Courts have to balance competing interests carefully with a perfect understanding of the impact that each will have. This was a very complex case which the Court dealt with skilfully and tellingly illustrates the pivotal role that the Courts play, as there will always be tensions between the rights of citizens and the obligations of the State with regard to cybersecurity. All judgments which declare a piece of legislation in part or in whole to be unconstitutional need to be confirmed by the Constitutional Court. The matter was heard in February 2020 and at the time of writing, judgment was still reserved.
+
+# 6.6 Cyberdefence
+
+At the South African level, the Department of Defence and Military Veterans has been given the overall responsibility for coordination, accountability, and implementation of cyberdefence measures as an integral part of its National Defence mandate. The first draft of the Cybercrimes Bill [B-2015] was called the Cybercrimes and Cybersecurity Bill. Subsequent drafts of the Bill did away with the cybersecurity section of the Bill, electing to limit the scope of the Bill to Cybercrimes so as to not encumber it with too much. The drafters decided it would be better to enact a separate Cybersecurity Bill which would deal with issues pertaining to cyberdefence and cyberwarfare. This has not yet been done.
+
+As of 2016, a cyberwarfare strategy was said to be in the advanced stages of development, having been submitted to the Chief of the South African National Defence Force.60 It was earmarked for approval and partial implementation in the 2018/2019 fiscal year.61 The cyberdefence strategy seeks to ensure the military’s readiness to continue operating at an optimal level should it come under a cyberattack of any kind. It should also have the capability and capacity to not only launch conventional attacks, but also cyber-attacks.62
+
+The cybersecurity strategy must ensure national security and elevate efforts for protecting critical information infrastructure. These efforts must be on par with traditional defence interests.63 While the NCPF is the overarching cybersecurity strategy, and although this is not prescribed by the law, it may need to be updated as more research is conducted about South Africa’s vulnerabilities to cyberwarfare, for instance.
+
+Sutherland remarks that the Department of Defence offers very little indication of possible threats that may exist or where they would be likely to originate from.
+
+Therefore, it is arguable whether cyberwarfare is even a real threat to South Africa that would necessitate a cyberwarfare strategy or dedicated cyberdefence legislation. Nevertheless, it is conceivable that there may be some States which may wish to attack South Africa with the aim of destabilising its government, although this is somewhat unlikely.64 Even if a majority of the cyber-attacks that South Africa could experience might not emanate from hostile nations, a cyberdefence and cyberwarfare strategy is nevertheless essential should the need arise someday.
+
+# 6.7 Cybersecurity Best Practices
+
+The NCPF urges civil society, government and the private sector to play their part in fostering a cybersecurity culture inter alia, implementing cybersecurity awareness programmes; supporting outreach to civil society, children and individual users; updating and reviewing existing privacy regimes; and so forth.65
+
+The Cybersecurity $\mathrm{Hub^{66}}$ is a key feature of the NCPF. It has been created to conduct cybersecurity audits, assessments and readiness exercises. It is also responsible for providing best practices guidance on ICT security for Government, business and civil society, as well as initiate cybersecurity awareness campaigns.67 Additionally, it seeks to facilitate the creation of additional sector-specific Computer Security Incident Response Teams (CSIRTs) that will, in addition to conducting sector cybersecurity audits, assessments and readiness exercises, provide best practice guidance on ICT security.68
+
+In 2017, the Department of Telecommunications and Postal Services (DTPS), through the Cybersecurity Hub, engaged in a nationwide survey that sought to gather information about the cybersecurity readiness of South African organisations. It reported on the dearth of reliable data in South Africa from organisations both in the private and public sectors and found that where there is data available, much of it is anecdotal.69
+
+The aim of that survey was to gather information about the status of cybersecurity plans in organisations, identify cybersecurity vulnerabilities, determine the capability of organisations to respond to and recover from cybersecurity-related attacks and to survey the status of cybersecurity governance in organisations.70
+
+The report identified that the top three challenges that the organisations face were insufficient skills, lack of in-house skills and lack of awareness. It also identified that of the organisations surveyed, only $45\%$ belonged to CSIRT and only $22\%$ of them were obliged to report incidents. Furthermore, only $25\%$ of the surveyed respondents reported that they had threat intelligence capabilities, whereas, $20\%$ indicated that this was in development.71 The report did note, however, that there appears to be a decrease in the number of incidents that have been reported between 2016 and 2017 by $47\%$ . Furthermore, $29\%$ of the organisations indicated that they had fully functioning cybersecurity plans while $37\%$ of them indicated that they had discussed a cybersecurity plan which they would implement in the future.72
+
+A majority of the respondents interviewed in the cybersecurity readiness survey indicated that they align to international standards73 such as to the International Organisation for Standards (ISO) 27001 family of standards.74 A third aligned with the National Institute of Standards and Technology $(\mathrm{NIST})^{75}$ and SANS Institute standards.76
+
+It is worth mentioning that the banking industry in South Africa appears to be the one with more progressive regulations when it comes to cybersecurity.77 Data protection is of particular interest. The South African Reserve Bank’s Prudential Authority has issued a number of directives that outline the measures that banks need to adopt or implement so as to ensure compliance with domestic and international obligations.
+
+One of the directives issued by the Prudential Authority was the directive on cloud computing and offshoring of data78 which was issued in terms of section 6(6)
+
+of the Banks $\mathrm{Act}^{79}$ to all banks, controlling companies, branches of foreign institutions and auditors of banks or controlling companies (collectively referred to as banks).
+
+The aim of the directive is to clarify the South African Reserve Bank’s (SARB) policy and regulatory stance on cloud computing and offshoring of data. Banks are increasingly extending their use of cloud computing to more significant activities such as offshoring their data through an insourcing relationship with a parent company, for example.80 To this end, banks are expected to follow a risk-based approach when implementing cloud computing and/or offshoring of data. Banks are encouraged to consider of critical importance their risk, risk appetite, due diligence, compliance, ensuring the protection of confidentiality, integrity and availability of their systems. They must also have contingency plans and measures to ensure that intellectual property and contractual rights are not compromised.
+
+Some of the best practices identified by the DTPS in the cybersecurity readiness report include the following:
+
+# 6.7.1 Membership in a CSIRT
+
+Membership in a sector CSIRT is essential for developing a good cybersecurity culture within organisations. CSIRTs that are dedicated to a particular sector or industry can play an integral role in information gathering particular to that sector and coordinate response efforts. Cooperation between organisations, networking and sharing of incident information enhances organisations’ capabilities when it comes to correcting weaknesses.81
+
+Creating a CSIRT level obligation to reporting of cybersecurity incidents is essential. In many cases, many organisations shy away from reporting cybersecurity breaches because of a fear of losing public trust. This is unhelpful because it creates an environment where a threat is able to thrive from one organisation to the other, whereas, if it had been reported immediately, other organisations in the sector would have been warned and given an opportunity to proactively protect themselves.
+
+# 6.7.2 Cybersecurity Awareness Training
+
+There is immense value in creating a proactive cybersecurity culture as opposed to one that is constantly reactive. A constant challenge faced by South African industries is an overall lack of awareness about the kinds of threats that exist. When asked whether organisations provide cybersecurity awareness training, $57\%$ stated that they do, while $29\%$ were not certain.82
+
+It is common for the cybersecurity awareness responsibilities to be shouldered by the IT department for example, even though networks, systems and devices in organisations are typically interconnected resulting in the weaknesses in one department negatively affecting another.
+
+# 6.7.3 Upskilling of Staff
+
+Cybersecurity training must not end with awareness training. It is necessary for employees to be up-skilled consistently. In this regard, it might be necessary to either outsource training programmes or to enrol employees in organisation-funded cybersecurity awareness and capacity building courses, and certifications which will ensure that they are prepared and up to date with the latest trends in cybersecurity. The cybersecurity readiness survey revealed that $61\%$ of the organisations surveyed had in-house training whereas $8\%$ used external vendors and $4\%$ used affiliated organisations. $10\%$ provided no training at all.83
+
+Organisations must acknowledge the different skill levels that employees have and provide targeted training which meets their needs. In this perspective, $27\%$ of the organisations reported that they offered beginner training, $25\%$ offered hybrid training, $19\%$ offered intermediate training and only $5\%$ offered advanced training.84
+
+# 6.7.4 Identifying Threat Actors and Targets
+
+It is difficult to adopt a comprehensive cybersecurity policy without a clear picture of the kinds of threats and threat actors that exist. Given that many organisations may not have big enough budgets to dedicate to comprehensive cybersecurity policies, it is even more important to prioritise how funds are allocated. It would be counterproductive, for example, for an organisation to dedicate $60\%$ of its cybersecurity budget to creating a comprehensive strategy to defend against cyberwarfare and cyberterrorism when its greatest threat actors are its employees who may steal data for fraudulent purposes.
+
+For any organisation to have effective response mechanisms to cybersecurity, it must know the kinds of threats and threat actors that it must contend with. The cybersecurity readiness report revealed that the majority of threat actors in South
+
+African organisations are employees85 $(69\%)$ and criminals $(64\%)$ . Other cybersecurity threat actors were contractors $(41\%)$ , lone hackers $(40\%)$ and hacktivist groups $(39\%)$ .86
+
+It was clearly shown in the cybersecurity readiness report that employees pose a bigger threat to an organisation than external actors because they tend to be more difficult to detect and they are hard to defend against because they already have legitimate access to systems and networks.
+
+# 6.7.5 Incident Response
+
+Incident response is defined as “an organisation’s ability to deal with a situation in which company infrastructure and technology is being attacked and requires action to limit the damage, cost and effects of the incident”.87 A majority of the respondents $(64\%)$ indicated that their organisations were in a position to respond to threats whereas $23\%$ were uncertain of their capacity.88
+
+When implementing an incident response strategy, organisations must determine how quickly they can recover after a serious incident or disaster. They need to determine the amount of downtime they can ‘afford’, how quickly they can recover and how much money they can lose. Thereafter, they must take the necessary measures to offset those risks.
+
+# 6.7.6 Frequent Risk Assessments
+
+One of the best ways to ensure up-to-standard incident responses is to have frequent risk assessments. Risk assessment studies are useful to help an organisation identify whether the cybersecurity controls that it has implemented are appropriate to deal with certain cybersecurity risks.89
+
+The cybersecurity readiness report showed that just over one-third of organisations $(36\%)$ carry out annual risk assessments, whereas $20\%$ are doing a risk assessment more than once a year. It also showed that $14\%$ of the organisations were uncertain of when risk assessments are undertaken and $4\%$ of the organisations do not do formal risk assessments at all.90
+
+The frequency of the risk assessment will depend on the particular needs of the organisation. The frequency of the risk assessments will also be in line with the risk appetite that the organisation has. For example, financial institutions may need to conduct risk assessments more frequently than a research institute would. Membership to a sector CSIRT may also influence the frequency with which risk assessments are conducted as organisations may be subject to certain prescribed industry norms and standards.
+
+# 6.8 Conclusion
+
+What can be observed from this discussion is that in order for any cybersecurity strategy to be effective, it must be created with a holistic view in mind, it needs to be a deliberate and well-intentioned exercise regardless of whether it is on a national or organisational level. Both the government and individual organisations need to understand that effective cybersecurity strategies cannot and should not be implemented piecemeal. Those creating the strategies need to instil a culture of collective responsibility.
+
+Governments and organisations must be encouraged to think about cybersecurity in a way that transcends their individual needs. They must act with a global perspective that is cognisant of their international rights and obligations. This means that measures such as intelligence gathering and information sharing must be seen as a collective responsibility that is mutually beneficial. Citizens and customers may also be more inclined to trust them if they admit security breaches and share their experiences with others in an effort to foster greater resistance to cybersecurity threats.
+
+South Africa still has a long road ahead of it when it comes to comprehensive and effective cybersecurity measures, but it is on the right track. Although there is a great dearth of empirical research on its cybersecurity readiness, there is an awareness of the problem and a need to address it expeditiously. South Africa is known for having good legislation and policies on many issues, such as the Cybercrimes Bill and POPI, however, its greatest challenge is always implementation. It is up to the public and private sectors to work together to and take collective responsibility for fostering a constructive cybersecurity culture.
+
+Annex Country Report: South Africa 1. Data Protection
+
+Scope
+
+1. What national laws (or other type of normative acts) regulate the collection and use of personal data? The Electronic Communications and Transactions Act, 25 of 2002 (ECTA). The
+Protection of Personal Information Act 4 of 2013 (POPIA).
+
+2. Is the country a part of any international data protection agreement? No.
+
+# 3. What data is regulated?
+
+Section 4 of ECTA provides that it applies in respect of data relating to economic transactions which are defined as transactions of either a commercial or noncommercial nature, and includes the provision of information and e-government services. It also applies to data messages which are defined as data generated, sent, received or stored by electronic means.
+
+# POPI Act
+
+Chapter 2, Section 3 “Application and interpretation of Act” explains that the POPI Act applies to the processing of personal information.
+
+# 4. Are there any exemptions?
+
+ECTA does not apply to any data which falls outside the definition of electronic transactions and data messages.
+
+Chapter VIII of the Act provides for the protection of personal information which is limited to personal information which has been obtained through electronic transactions. Section 51(2) provides that a data controller may not electronically request, collect, process or store personal information on a data subject which is not necessary for the lawful purpose for which the personal information is required.
+
+# 5. To whom do the laws apply?
+
+This law was created for the public interest. The Act seeks to regulate electronic transactions between consumers, private and public bodies, institutions and citizens (Section 2(1)(g) of ECTA).
+
+It also seeks to promote SMMEs (Small, medium and Micro-sized Enterprises) within the electronic transactions environment. (Section 2(1)(p) of ECTA).
+
+# Chapter 2 section 3 of POPIA
+
+Applies to responsible party domiciled in South Africa and if not domiciled in South Africa, which makes use of automated or non-automated means in South Africa.
+
+# 6. Do the laws apply to foreign entities that do not have physical presence in the country?
+
+Not directly. According to the rules of jurisdiction of the courts, a foreign entity would only be held liable only as far as the effects of the conduct is felt in the Republic.
+
+However, any service provider must be accredited and authenticated if they offer products or services in a foreign jurisdiction by the Minister.
+
+# • Definitions
+
+# 7. How are personal data defined?
+
+“personal information” means information about an identifiable individual, including, but not limited to:
+
+(a) information relating to the race, gender, sex, pregnancy, marital status, national, ethnic or social origin, colour, sexual orientation, age, physical or mental health, well-being, disability, religion, conscience, belief, culture, language and birth of the individual;
+(b) information relating to the education or the medical, criminal or employment history of the individual or information relating to financial transactions in which the individual has been involved;
+(c) any identifying number, symbol, or other particular assigned to the individual;
+(d) the address, fingerprints or blood type of the individual;
+(e) the personal opinions, views or preferences of the individual, except where they are about another individual or about a proposal for a grant, an award or a prize to be made to another individual;
+(f) correspondence sent by the individual that is implicitly or explicitly of a private or confidential nature or further correspondence that would reveal the contents of the original correspondence;
+(g) the views or opinions of another individual about the individual;
+(h) the views or opinions of another individual about a proposal for a grant, an award or a prize to be made to the individual, but excluding the name of the other individual where it appears with the views or opinions of the other individual; and
+(i) the name of the individual where it appears with other personal information relating to the individual or where the disclosure of the name itself would reveal information about the individual, but excludes information about an individual who has been dead for more than 20 years;
+
+# POPIA
+
+Personal information means information relating to an identifiable, living, natural person, and where it is applicable, an identifiable, existing juristic person including, but not limited to:
+
+(a) information relating to the race, gender, sex, pregnancy, marital status, national, ethnic or social origin, sexual orientation, age, physical or mental health, well- being, disability, religion, conscience, belief, culture, language and birth of the person;
+(b) information relating to the education or the medical, financial, criminal or employment history of the person;
+(c) any identifying number, symbol, e-mail address, physical address, telephone number, location information, online identifier or other particular assignment to the person;
+(d) the biometric information of the person;
+(e) the personal opinions, views or preferences of the person
+(f) correspondence sent by the person that is implicitly or explicitly of a private or confidential nature of further correspondence that would reveal the contents of the original correspondence;
+(g) the views or opinions of another individual about the person; and
+(h) the name of the person if it appears with other personal information relating to the person or if the disclosure if the name itself would reveal information about the person.
+
+# 8. Are there special categories of personal data (e.g. sensitive data)?
+
+POPIA Part B: Processing of special personal information Section 26 of POPIA provides: A responsible party may, subject to section 27, not process personal information
+concerning:
+(a) the religious or philosophical beliefs, race or ethnic origin, trade union membership, political persuasion, health or sex life or biometric information of a data subject; or
+(b) the criminal behaviour of a data subject to the extent that such information relates to: (i) the alleged commission by a data subject of any offence; or (ii) any proceedings in respect of any offence allegedly committed by a data subject or the disposal of such proceedings.
+Section 28: Authorisation concerning data subject’s religious or philosophical beliefs
+Section 29: Authorisation concerning data subject’s race or ethnic origin
+Section 30: Authorisation concerning data subject’s trade union membership
+Section 31: Authorisation concerning data subject’s political persuasion
+Section 32: Authorisation concerning data subject’s health and sex life.
+Section 33: Authorisation concerning data subject’s criminal behaviour or biometric information.
+
+9. How is the data controller and the data processor/operator defined? ECTA Definition
+
+“data controller” means any person who electronically requests, collects, collates, processes or stores personal information from or in respect of a data subject;
+
+“data subject” means any natural person from or in respect of whom personal information has been requested, collected, collated, processed or stored, after the commencement of this Act;
+
+# POPIA Definitions
+
+Information officer of, or in relation to a:
+
+(a) public body means an information officer or deputy information as contemplated in terms of section 1 or 17; or (b) private body means the head of a private as contemplated in section 1
+
+Of the Protection of Access to Information Act.
+
+Operator means a person who processes personal information for a responsible party in terms of a contract or mandate, without coming under the direct authority of that party.
+
+# 10. What are the data protection principles and how are they defined?
+
+POPIA provides for eight conditions for lawful processing of personal information.
+
+Condition 1: Accountability
+
+Section 8: Responsible party to ensure conditions for lawful processing.
+
+The responsible party must ensure that the conditions set out in this chapter, and all the measures that give effect to such conditions, are complied with at the time of the determination of the purpose and means of the processing and during the processing itself.
+
+# Condition 2: Processing limitation
+
+Section 9: Lawfulness of processing.
+
+Personal information must be processed (a) lawfully and (b) in a reasonable manner that does not infringe the privacy of the data subject
+
+Section 10: Minimality
+
+Personal information may only be processed if, given the purpose for which it is processed, it is adequate, relevant and not excessive.
+
+Section 11: Consent, justification and objection Section 12: Collection directly from data subject
+
+Condition 3: Processing limitation
+
+Section 13: Collection for specific purpose Section 14: Retention and restriction of records
+
+Condition 4: Purpose specification
+
+Section 15: Further processing to be compatible with purpose of collection Condition 5: Information quality
+
+Section 16: Quality of information Condition 6: Openness
+
+Section 17: Documentation Section 18: Notification to data subject when collecting personal information
+
+Condition 7: Security safeguards
+
+Section 19: Security measures on integrity and confidentiality of personal information
+Section 20: Information processed by operator or person acting under authority
+Section 21: Security measures regarding information processed by operator
+Section 22: Notification of security compromises
+
+Condition 8: Data subject participation
+
+Section 23: Access to personal information Section 24: Correction of personal information Section 25: Manner of Access
+
+11. Does the law provide any specific definitions with regards to data protection in the digital sphere?
+
+Chapter VIII of ECTA
+
+Section 50(1) provides that these provisions only apply to personal information that has been obtained through electronic transactions.
+
+Rights
+
+12. Is the data protection law based on fundamental rights (defined in Constitutional law or International binding documents)?
+
+The ECTA does not specify any fundamental rights as a legal basis.
+
+POPIA it is based on the right to privacy enshrined in Section 14 of the Constitution of the Republic of South Africa, 1996.
+
+13. What are the rights of the data subjects according to the law?
+
+The rights of the data subject in POPIA are described in terms of the obligations of the data controller, therefore see below.
+
+Section 5: Rights of the data subject
+
+Chapter 8: Rights of Data subjects regarding Direct marketing by means of unsolicited electronic communications, directories and automated decision making
+
+Section 69 Direct Marketing by means of unsolicited electronic communication italicise this piece about chapter 8.
+Section 70 Directories
+Section 71 Automated Decision making
+
+14. What are the obligations of the controllers and processors/operators? Principles for electronically collecting personal information Section 51 of ECTA
+
+(1) A data controller must have the express written permission of the data subject for the collection, collation, processing or disclosure of any personal information on that data subject unless he or she is permitted or required to do so by law.
+(2) A data controller may not electronically request, collect, collate, process or store personal information on a data subject which is not necessary for the lawful purpose for which the personal information is required.
+(3) The data controller must disclose in writing to the data subject the specific purpose for which any personal information is being requested, collected, collated, processed or stored.
+(4) The data controller may not use the personal information for any other purpose than the disclosed purpose without the express written permission of the data subject, unless he or she is permitted or required to do so by law.
+(5) The data controller must, for as long as the personal information is used and for a period of at least one year thereafter, keep a record of the personal information and the specific purpose for which the personal information was collected.
+(6) A data controller may not disclose any of the personal information held by it to a third party, unless required or permitted by law or specifically authorised to do so in writing by the data subject.
+(7) The data controller must, for as long as the personal information is used and for a period of at least one year thereafter, keep a record of any third party to whom the personal information was disclosed and of the date on which and the purpose for which it was disclosed.
+(8) The data controller must delete or destroy all personal information which has become obsolete.
+(9) A party controlling personal information may use that personal information to compile profiles for statistical purposes and may freely trade with such profiles and statistical data, as long as the profiles or statistical data cannot be linked to any specific data subject by a third party.
+
+Chapter 3 (see above)
+
+# 15. Is notification to a national regulator or registration required before processing data?
+
+ECTA does not require prior notification or registration. According to Chapter 6, section 57 of POPI Act one must obtain prior authorisation. Section 55(1) of POPI Act also establishes duties and responsibilities for the Information Regulator.
+
+# 16. Does the law require privacy impact assessment to process any category of personal data?
+
+Not directly, however, section 40(1)(b)(vi) of POPIA provides that the duties, powers and functions of a Regulator include monitoring and enforcing compliance by conducting an assessment in respect of the the processing of personal information by that private or public body for the purpose of ascertaining whether or not the information is processed according to the conditions for the lawful processing of personal information.
+
+17. What conditions must be met to ensure that personal data are processed lawfully? See answer for question 10 above.
+
+18. What are the conditions for the expression of consent?
+
+Section 11 of POPI Act provides for the measures to be taken regarding consent, justification and objection to collection of personal data.
+
+Section 51(4) of ECTA: The express written permission of the data subject is required unless the data controller is required or permitted to handle the data subject’s data by law.
+
+(4) The data controller may not use the personal information for any other purpose than the disclosed purpose without the express written permission of the data subject, unless he or she is permitted or required to do so by law.
+
+19. If the law foresees special categories of data, what are the conditions to ensure the lawfulness of processing of such data?
+
+Sections 26–33 (Chapter 3, Part B) of POPI Act provide for the measures to be taken when processing special personal information.
+
+20. What are the security requirements for collecting and processing personal data?
+
+Condition 7 in sections 19–22 (Chapter 3) of POPI Act provides for the security safeguards for processing personal information which includes protecting the confidentiality and integrity of personal information.
+
+# ECTA Definitions
+
+(Chapter VIII) Section 51(5) The data controller must, for as long as the personal information is used and for a period of at least one year thereafter, keep a record of the personal information and the specific purpose for which the personal information was collected.
+
+(Chapter VIII) Section 51(8) The data controller must delete or destroy all personal information which has become obsolete.
+
+# 21. Is there a requirement to store certain types of personal data inside the jurisdiction?
+
+Chapter 9 of POPI provides for transfers of personal information outside of the Republic. It provides in section 72 that a responsible party may not transfer personal information about a data subject to a third party who is in a foreign country unless it meets certain requirements set out in the section.
+
+A responsible party may not transfer personal info outside South Africa to a foreign third party unless the third party is subject to law, corporate rules or binding agreements which afford the data subject protection:
+
+Data subject consents;
+Transfer is necessary for performance of a contract etc;
+
+• Transfer is for the benefit of the data subject.
+
+22. What are the requirements for transferring data outside the national jurisdiction? See answer to question 21.
+
+# 23. Are data transfer agreements foreseen by the law?
+
+Yes, Section 72: Binding corporate rules/binding agreements with an adequate level of protection.
+
+24. Does the relevant national regulator need to approve the data transfer agreements?
+
+Yes, section 57 of POPIA provides for circumstances where a responsible party would be required to obtain prior authorisation from the Regulator in terms of section 58.
+
+25. What are the sanctions and remedies foreseen by the law for not complying with the obligations?
+
+Chapter 11 of POPIA provides for offences, penalties and administrative fines as contained in sections 100-109.
+
+# • Actors
+
+26. What actors are responsible for the implementation of the data protection law?
+
+The ECTA envisions cyber inspectors however, they are not specifically created for issues relating to data protection.
+
+Section 39 of POPIA provides for the establishment of the Information Regulator
+
+27. What is the administrative structure of actors responsible for the implementation of the data protection law (e.g. independent authority, executive agency, judiciary)?
+
+The Minister of the Department of Telecommunications and Postal Services. Section 39 of POPIA
+
+The Information Regulator is an in independent juristic person subject only to the Constitution and to the law. The Information Regulator must be impartial and perform its functions and exercise its powers without fear, favour or prejudice.
+
+It must exercise and perform its functions in accordance with POPIA and the Promotion of Access to Information Act.
+
+It is accountable to the National Assembly.
+
+28. What are the powers of the actors responsible for the implementation of the data protection law?
+
+The Minister is responsible for overseeing all aspects of the ECT Act. His or her powers and duties are provided for in chapter II of ECTA.
+
+Section 5–9: The minister must develop and implement a national e-strategy. Section 40 of POPIA
+
+The powers, of POPIA provides for duties and functions of the Regulator in terms of this Act are:
+
+(a) To provide education...
+(b) to monitor and enforce compliance...
+(c) to consult with interested parties…
+(d) to handle complaints…
+(e) to conduct research and to report to Parliament…
+(f) to administrate codes of conduct
+(g) to facilitate cross-border cooperation in the enforcement of privacy laws by participate in any initiative that is aimed at such cooperation
+(h) to perform any general functions incidental or conducive to the preceding functions
+
+# 2. Consumer Protection
+
+• Scope
+
+29. What national laws (or other type of normative acts) regulate consumer protection? Electronic Communications and Transactions Act, 2002. National Consumer Protection Act, 68 of 2008.
+
+30. Is the country a party of any international consumer protection agreement? No.
+
+# 31. To whom do consumer protection laws apply?
+
+Chapter VII of the ECTA makes provision for consumer protection. Section 42 sets out the scope of of application. It applies mostly to suppliers of consumer goods and services as well as to the consumers.
+
+32. Do the laws apply to foreign entities that do not have physical presence in the country?
+
+Section 47 of the ECTA provides that “the protection provided to consumers in this Chapter, applies irrespective of the legal system applicable to the agreement in question.”
+
+Section 5(8) provides that the provisions in the CPA apply to a matter irrespective of whether the supplier resides or has principal office within or outside the Republic.
+
+• Definitions
+
+# 33. How is consumer protection defined?
+
+It is not defined in the ECTA.
+The term consumer protection is not defined.
+
+# 34. How are consumers defined?
+
+“consumer” means any natural person who enters or intends entering into an electronic transaction with a supplier as the end user of the goods or services offered by that supplier; “consumer”, in respect of any particular goods or services, means:
+
+(a) a person to whom those particular goods or services are marketed in the ordinary course of the supplier’s business;
+(b) a person who has entered into a transaction with a supplier in the ordinary course of the supplier’s business, unless the transaction is exempt from the application of this Act by section 5(2) or in terms of section 5(3);
+(c) if the context so requires or permits, a user of those particular goods or a recipient or beneficiary of those particular services, irrespective of whether that user, recipient or beneficiary was a party to a transaction concerning the supply of those particular goods or services; and
+(d) a franchisee in terms of a franchise agreement, to the extent applicable in terms of section 5(6)(b) to (e);
+
+# 35. How are providers and producers defined?
+
+“certification service provider” means a person providing an authentication product or service in the form of a digital certificate attached to, incorporated in or logically associated with a data message;
+
+“producer”, with respect to any particular goods, means a person who:
+
+(a) grows, nurtures, harvests, mines, generates, refines, creates, manufactures or otherwise produces the goods within the Republic, or causes any of those things to be done, with the intention of making them available for supply in the ordinary course of business; or
+(b) by applying a personal or business name, trademark, trade description or other visual representation on or in relation to the goods, has created or established a reasonable expectation that the person is a person contemplated in paragraph (a); “importer”, with respect to any particular goods, means a person who brings those goods, or causes them to be brought, from outside the Republic into the Republic, with the intention of making them available for supply in the ordinary course of business; “distributor”, in relation to any particular goods, means a person who, in the ordinary course of business— (a) is supplied with those goods by a producer, importer or other distributor; and (b) in turn, supplies those goods to either another distributor or to a retailer; There are no provisions specific to consumer protection in the definition. The CPA applies to all transactions therefore it would be understood that the rights enjoyed in the ‘terrestrial’ sphere would be enjoyed in the digital sphere.
+
+# 36. Does the law provide any specific definitions with regards to consumer protection in the digital sphere?
+
+The focus of the provision is to protect consumers in the case of electronic transactions regardless of whether the goods or services sold or bought online.
+
+There are no provisions specific to consumer protection in the definition. The CPA applies to all transactions therefore it would be understood that the rights enjoyed in the ‘terrestrial’ sphere would be enjoyed in the digital sphere.
+
+Rights
+
+37. Is the consumer protection law based on fundamental rights (defined in Constitutional law or International binding documents)?
+
+The ECTA has not specified any fundamental rights.
+
+The preamble of the CPA provides that it seeks to redress the injustices of Apartheid by developing and employing innovative means to:
+
+(a) fulfil the rights of historically disadvantaged people and to promote their full participation as consumers;
+(b) protect the interests of all consumers, ensure accessible, transparent and efficient redress for consumers who are subjected to abuse or exploitation in the marketplace; and
+(c) to give effect to internationally recognised customer rights;
+
+38. What are the rights of the consumer defined by the law with reference to digital good and services?
+
+The ECTA makes provisions for goods and services purchased through electronic transactions.
+
+Section 43(2)
+
+The consumer has the right to review the entire electronic transaction; to correct any mistakes; to withdraw from the transaction, before finally placing any order.
+
+Section 43(3)
+
+If the consumer does not provide the consumer with the information provided for in section 43(1) and the opportunity provided for in section 43(2), the consumer has the right to cancel the right to cancel the transaction within 14 days of receiving the good or services under the transaction.
+
+# Section 44(1)
+
+It provides that a consumer is entitled to a cooling off period which means that he or she has the right to cancel without reason and without penalty any transaction and any related credit agreement for the supply of goods or services within seven days of conclusion of the agreement.
+
+The consumer is also entitled to a full refund within 30 days of cancellation if the consumer made the payment before he or she could exercise the right of a cooling off period.
+
+However, these rights do not apply to electronic transactions specified in section 42.
+
+The CPA does not have specific provisions for digital goods and services therefore it is understood that all the rights that are afforded in the terrestrial sphere will be afforded to digital services.
+
+Chapter 2: Fundamental Consumer Rights
+
+Part A: Right of equality in consumer market Part B: Consumer’s right to privacy Part C: Consumer’s right to choose Part D: Right to disclosure and information Part E: Right to fair and responsible marketing
+
+Part F: Right to fair and honest dealing
+Part G: Right to fair, just and reasonable terms and conditions
+Part H: Right to fair value, good quality and safety
+Part I: Supplier’s accountability to consumers
+
+39. Is consumer protection law applicable to users of zero price service i.e. free of charges?
+
+ECTA does not provided for this.
+
+The CPA speaks of free goods and services only within the context of “promotional offers”
+
+“promotional offer” means an offer or promise, expressed in any manner, of any prize, reward, gift, free good or service, price reduction or concession, enhancement of quantity or quality of goods or services, irrespective of whether or not acceptance of the offer is conditional on the offeree entering into any other transaction.
+
+# • Obligations and Sanctions
+
+40. Does the law establish specific security requirements to provide digital services or goods?
+
+ECTA does not have specific security requirements but it does oblige the supplier to provide certain information provided for in section 43.
+
+The CPA does not have specific provisions for digital goods and services therefore it is understood that all the rights that are afforded in the terrestrial sphere will be afforded to digital services.
+
+41. What are the sanctions and remedies foreseen by the law for complying with the obligations? Penalties Section 111 provided for in terms of the CPA.
+
+(1) Any person convicted of an offence in terms of this Act is liable: (a) in the case of a contravention of section 107 (1), to a fine or to imprisonment
+for a period not exceeding 10 years, or to both a fine and imprisonment; or (b) in any other case, to a fine or to imprisonment for a period not exceeding 12
+months, or to both a fine and imprisonment.
+
+(2) Despite anything to the contrary contained in any other law, a Magistrate’s Court has jurisdiction to impose any penalty provided for in subsection (1).
+
+Administrative fines Section 112
+
+(1) The Tribunal may impose an administrative fine in respect of prohibited or required conduct.
+(2) An administrative fine imposed in terms of this Act may not exceed the greater of: (a) $10\%$ of the respondent’s annual turnover during the preceding financial year; or (b) R1 000 000.
+
+(3) When determining an appropriate administrative fine, the Tribunal must consider the following factors:
+
+(a) The nature, duration, gravity and extent of the contravention;
+(b) any loss or damage suffered as a result of the contravention;
+(c) the behaviour of the respondent;
+(d) the market circumstances in which the contravention took place;
+(e) the level of profit derived from the contravention;
+(f) the degree to which the respondent has co-operated with the Commission and the Tribunal; and
+(g) whether the respondent has previously been found in contravention of this Act.
+
+(4) For the purpose of this section, the annual turnover of a supplier at the time when an administrative fine is assessed, is the total income of that supplier during the immediately preceding year, as determined in the prescribed manner.
+
+(5) A fine payable in terms of this section must be paid into the National Revenue Fund referred to in section 213 of the Constitution.
+
+# • Actors
+
+42. What bodies are responsible for the implementation of the consumer protection law?
+
+ECTA does not provide for specific bodies but the CPA does.
+
+Chapter 5: National Consumer Protection Institutions
+Part B
+Establishment of National Consumer Commission
+Part C
+Functions of Commission
+
+43. Is there a specific consumer protection body? If so, what is its administrative structure? There is none under ECTA.
+
+Section 85: (1) The National Consumer Commission is hereby established as an organ of state within the public administration, but as an institution outside the public service.
+
+44. What are the powers of the bodies responsible for the implementation of the consumer protection law? None are specified. Chapter 5 Part C: Functions of Commission
+
+Section 92: General provisions concerning Commission functions;
+Section 93: Development of codes of practice relating to Act;
+Section 94: Promotion of legislative reform;
+Section 95: Promotion of consumer protection within organs of state;
+Section 96: Research and public information; Section 97: Relations with other regulatory authorities;
+Section 98: Advice and recommendations to Minister.
+
+3. Cybercrime • Scope
+
+45. What national laws (or other type of normative acts) regulate cybercrime?
+
+The Electronic Communication and Transaction Act, 25 of 2002 regulate a handful of cybercrimes. Cybercrimes Bill B6B-2017
+
+46. Is the country a part of any international cybercrime agreement? Signatory/observer to the Budapest convention
+
+# 47. What cybercrimes are regulated?
+
+ECTA provides for cybercrimes in sections 86, 87 and 88.
+
+Section 86: Unauthorised access to, interception of or interference with dat Section 87: Computer-related extortion, fraud and forgery Section 88: Attempt, and aiding and abetting
+
+The Cybercrimes Bill provides for cybercrime in sections 2 to 16
+
+Section 2: Unlawful access
+
+Section 3: Unlawful interception of data
+Section 4: Unlawful acts in respect of software or hardware tool
+Section 5: Unlawful interference with data or computer program
+Section 6: Unlawful interference with a computer data storage medium or computer system
+Section 7: Unlawful acquisition, possession, provision, receipt or use of password, access code or similar data or device
+Section 8: Cyber fraud
+Section 9: Cyber forgery and uttering
+Section 10: Cyber extortion
+Section 11: Aggravated offences
+Section 12: Theft of incorporeal property
+Section 13: Definitions
+Section 14: Data message which incites damage to property or violence
+Section 15: Data message which threatens persons with damage to property or violence
+Section 16: Distribution of data message of intimate image
+
+# 48. To whom do the laws apply?
+
+The provision refers to a person which is defined as including a public body.
+Any person who commits offences in chapter 2.
+
+49. Do the laws apply to foreign entities that do not have physical presence in the country?
+
+Yes, in accordance with ordinary criminal law and the principles of jurisdiction.
+
+• Definitions
+
+50. How is cybercrime generally defined by the national law?
+
+A single definition for cybercrime is not provided in either the Cybercrimes Bill nor the ECTA.
+
+51. What are the cybercrimes provided for by the law and how are they defined? ECTA defines
+
+Section 85: “access” includes the actions of a person who, after taking note of any data, becomes aware of the fact that he or she is not authorised to access that data and still continues to access that data.
+
+Section 86: Unauthorised access to, interception of or interference with data.
+
+86.
+
+(1) Subject to the Interception and Monitoring Prohibition Act, 1992 (Act No. 127 of 1992), a person who intentionally accesses or intercepts any data without authority or permission to do so, is guilty of an offence.
+(2) A person who intentionally and without authority to do so, interferes with data in a way which causes such data to be modified, destroyed or otherwise rendered ineffective, is guilty of an offence.
+(3) A person who unlawfully produces, sells, offers to sell, procures for use, designs, adapts for use, distributes or possesses any device, including a computer program or a component, which is designed primarily to overcome security measures for the protection of data, or performs any of those acts with regard to a password, access code or any other similar kind of data with the intent to unlawfully utilise such item to contravene this section, is guilty of an offence.
+(4) A person who utilises any device or computer program mentioned in subsection (3) in order to unlawfully overcome security measures designed to protect such data or access thereto, is guilty of an offence.
+(5) A person who commits any act described in this section with the intent to interfere with access to an information system so as to constitute a denial, including a partial denial, of service to legitimate users is guilty of an offence.
+
+Section 87: Computer-related extortion, fraud and forgery
+
+87.
+
+(1) A person who performs or threatens to perform any of the acts described in section 86, for the purpose of obtaining any unlawful proprietary advantage by undertaking to cease or desist from such action, or by undertaking to restore any damage caused as a result of those actions, is guilty of an offence.
+
+(2) A person who performs any of the acts described in section 86 for the purpose of obtaining any unlawful advantage by causing fake data to be produced with the intent that it be considered or acted upon as if it were authentic, is guilty of an offence.
+
+Section 88: Attempt, and aiding and abetting
+
+(1) A person who attempts to commit any of the offences referred to in sections 86 and 87 is guilty of an offence and is liable on conviction to the penalties set out in section 89 (1) or (2), as the case may be.
+(2) Any person who aids and abets someone to commit any of the offences referred to in sections 86 and 87 is guilty of an offence and is liable on conviction to the penalties set out in section 89 (1) or (2), as the case may be.
+
+NB These provisions are will be repealed by the Cybercrimes Bill if/when it comes into force.
+
+As provided for in chapter 2.
+
+52. How is a computer system defined?
+
+ECTA does not define it. The Cybercrimes Bill defines it in:
+Chapter 1, Section 1:
+“computer system” means:
+(a) one computer; or
+(b) two or more inter-connected or related computers, which allow these interconnected or related computers to: (i) exchange data or any other function with each other; or (ii) exchange data or any other function with another computer or a computer system;
+
+# 53. How are computer data defined?
+
+The definitions in the cybercrimes bill are: “data” means electronic representations of information in any form; “data message” means data generated, sent, received or stored by electronic means and includes-:
+
+(a) voice, where the voice is used in an automated transaction; and (b) a stored record; There is a definition of “computer data storage medium”
+
+Chapter 1, Section 1:
+
+“computer data storage medium” means any device or location from which data or a computer program is capable of being reproduced or on which data or a computer program is capable of being stored by a computer system, irrespective of whether the device is physically attached to or connected with the computer system;
+
+# 54. How are forensic data defined?
+
+ECTA does not define Forensic Data.
+It is not defined in the Cybercrimes Bill.
+
+# 55. How are service providers defined?
+
+ECTA does not define service provider.
+
+The Cybercrimes Bill only defines an electronic communication service provider.
+
+Electronic communications service provider means any person who provides an electronic communications service under and in accordance with an electronic communications service licence issued to such person under Chapter 3 of the Electronic Communications Act, 2005 (Act No. 36 of 2005), or who is deemed to be licensed or exempted from being licensed as such in terms of the Electronic Communications Act, 2005;
+
+# 56. Does the national law provide any other definitions instrumental to the application of cybercrime legislation?
+
+“information system” means a system for generating, sending, receiving, storing, displaying or otherwise processing data messages and includes the Internet;
+
+“Internet” means the interconnected system of networks that connects computers around the world using the TCP/IP and includes future versions thereof.
+
+“computer” means any electronic programmable device used, whether by itself or as part of a computer system or any other device or equipment, or any part thereof, to perform predetermined arithmetic, logical, routing, processing or storage operations in accordance with set instructions and includes any data, computer program or computer data storage medium that are related to, connected with or used with such a device;
+
+“computer data storage medium” means any device from which data or a computer program is capable of being reproduced or on which data or a computer program is capable of being stored, by a computer system, irrespective of whether the device is physically attached to or connected with a computer system;
+
+“computer program” means data representing instructions or statements that, when executed in a computer system, causes the computer system to perform a function;
+
+# “computer system” means:
+
+(a) one computer; or
+(b) two or more inter-connected or related computers, which allow these inter-connected or related computers to: (i) exchange data or any other function with each other; or (ii) exchange data or any other function with another computer or a computer system.
+
+# 57. Is there a way that cybercrimes can jeopardize the national security of a country?
+
+An early version of the Cybercrimes Bill (the cybercrimes and cybersecurity bill) had provisions dedicated to addressing the natioal cybersecurity risks of cybercrime. See section on cyberdefence below.
+
+Rights
+
+58. Is the cybercrime law based on fundamental rights (defined in Constitutional law or International binding documents)? ECTA does not specify one. The Cybercrimes Bill has not specified one nor is one immediately clear from the
+Constitution of the Republic of South Africa, 1996.
+
+# 59. What are the rights of the victim and the accused?
+
+ECTA Act does not specify them.
+
+The Cybercrime Bill provides for rights and protections as consistent with the criminal law of South Africa.
+
+# • Procedures
+
+60. Is there a specific procedure to identify, analyse, relate, categorize, assess and establish causes associated with forensic data regarding cybercrimes?
+
+The Cybercrimes Bill does not provide specific procedures for this however, it provides in section 55 that the cabinet minister responsible for policing must (a) establish and maintain sufficient human and operational capacity to detect, prevent and investigate cybercrimes; (b) ensure that members of the South African Police Service receive basic training in aspects relating to the detection, prevention and investigation of Cybercrimes.
+
+61. In case of transnational crimes, how is cooperation between the national law enforcement agency and the foreign agents regulated?
+
+ECTA does not provide for that but it refers to the general provisions for jurisdiction of the courts (Section 90).
+
+Chapter 6 of the Cybercrimes Bill provides for Mutual assistance.
+
+62. Are there any exceptions to the use of mutual legal assistance procedure to investigate the crime? ECTA does not provide for Mutual Legal Assistance.
+
+Chapter 5 of the Cybercrimes Bill provides for Mutual Assistance National Executive may enter into agreements
+
+57. (1) The National Executive may enter into any agreement with any foreign State regarding:
+
+(a) the provision of mutual assistance and cooperation relating to the investigation and prosecution of… [the offences provided for in the Cybercrimes Bill]
+
+This includes exceptions in accordance with the ordinary principles of mutual assistance.
+
+63. Does the national law require the use of measures to prevent cybercrimes? If so, what are they?
+
+Neither legislation provides for specific preventative measures that should be taken regarding cybercrime.
+
+• Obligations and Sanctions
+
+64. What obligations do law enforcement agencies have to protect the data of the suspect, the accused and the victim?
+
+Chapter 5 of the Cybercrimes Bill provides for the powers to investigate, search an access or seize. The duties and responsibilities of law enforcement are outlined in this chapter.
+
+# 65. What are the duties and obligations of the National Prosecuting Authorities in cases of cybercrime?
+
+The general rules pertaining to the National Prosecution Authority would apply. The prosecutor must carefully check the legality of the initiation of criminal cases and evaluate the submitted materials.
+
+Section 52 (5) The National Director of Public Prosecutions must make available members of the
+
+National Prosecuting Authority:
+
+(a) who have particular knowledge and skills in respect of any aspect dealt with in this Act; and
+(b) to whom a security clearance has been issued by the State Security Agency in terms of section 2A of the National Strategic Intelligence Act, 1994, to the satisfaction of the National Director of Public Prosecutions, to provide legal assistance to the designated Point of Contact as may be
+
+# National Director of Public Prosecutions must keep statistics of prosecutions
+
+56. (1) The National Director of Public Prosecutions must keep statistics of the number of prosecutions instituted in terms of Part I or Part II of Chapter 2, the outcome of such prosecution and any other information relating to such prosecutions, which is determined by the Cabinet member responsible for the administration of justice. (2) The statistics or information contemplated in subsection (1) must be included in the report of the National Director of Public Prosecutions referred to in section 22(4)(g) of the National Prosecuting Authority Act, 1998.
+
+# 66. Does the law impose any obligations on service providers in connection with cybercrime?
+
+# Chapter 9
+
+S54 Electronic communication service providers or financial institutions that become aware that their systems are involved in the commission of any offences in the Cybercrimes Bill are obligated to report offences no later than within 72 hours. They must also preserve evidence as far as possible.
+
+67. To which extent can a legal person be held liable for actions in connection with cybercrimes?
+
+ECTA applies to “a person” which is defined to include a public body. Presumably, the ordinary meaning of a person is understood to apply, which is both a natural and a juristic person.
+
+Person means a natural or juristic person, section 1. Penalties (section 14, 22) apply to persons.
+
+• Actors
+
+# 68. What bodies implement the cybercrime legislation?
+
+Section 80–84 The Cyber Inspector provided for in chapter XII of ECTA.
+
+s26 (1) The Cabinet member responsible for policing, in consultation with the National Commissioner, the National Head of the Directorate, the National Director of Public Prosecutions and the Cabinet member responsible for the administration of Justice.
+
+# 69. Is there a special public prosecutor office for cybercrime? If so, how is it organised?
+
+There is no special public prosecutor office. The Cabinet member responsible for policing is required to work closely the National Director of Public Prosecutions for all matters relating to public prosecutions of cybercrime. For example, see –
+
+70. Does the cybercrime legislation create any specific body?
+
+Chapter 10, Section 53
+Cyber response committee
+Chapter _ Section _ Designated Point of Contact
+
+4. Public Order
+
+• Definitions
+
+71. How are public order, threats to public order and the protection of public order defined?
+
+RICA concerns electronic communications surveillance. It does not refer to anything related to public order.
+
+72. Is the protection of public order grounded in constitutional norms?
+
+73. What kind of measures are foreseen limit constitutional and legal rights?
+
+Cybersecurity incident management system…social management systems [e.g. social unrest management/monitoring or surveillance]
+
+74. What measures are taken by the government to control mass gatherings of people?
+
+Regulation of Gatherings Act (note Section 12(1)(a) is declared unconstitutional/ invalid)
+
+Proposed: Regulation of Gatherings Act Amendment Bill (not related to cybersecurity)
+
+75. What public authorities are responsible for implementation of the surveillance techniques?
+
+76. What are the right and obligations of these public authorities?
+
+77. On what legal grounds non-governmental actors could perform mass surveillance?
+
+A telecommunication service provider must store communication-related information (30(1) RICA).
+
+78. Is the execution of the measures adopted in cases of instances delegated to private intermediaries or implemented by public bodies what are the responsibilities of those private bodies?
+
+# 5. Cyberdefence
+
+• Scope
+
+79. Is there a national cyberdefence strategy or is cyberdefence mentioned in the national defence strategy?
+
+The Cyberwarfare Strategy is still being developed. Once developed, it will be presented to the Justice, Crime Prevention and Security (JCPS) Cluster Ministers for approval. It is earmarked for approval and partial implementation in the 2018/2019 fiscal year.
+
+80. What is the legal status of the national defence or cyberdefence strategy? It is still being developed.
+
+81. What national laws or other normative acts regulate cyberdefence in the country? None.
+
+82. Is the country party of any international cooperation agreement in the sphere of cyberdefence ? No.
+
+83. Does the national cyberdefence strategy provide for retaliation?
+
+The Department of Defence Annual Performance Plan (2017) states that it is aligned with the national policy regarding South Africa’s posture and capabilities related to offensive information warfare actions.
+
+84. Is there any specific framework regulating critical infrastructure? The National Critical Infrastructure Bill.
+
+• Definitions
+
+85. How are national security and national defence defined? Not defined in the NCPF.
+
+86. How are cybersecurity and cyberdefence defined?
+
+“Cybersecurity” is the practice of making the networks that constitute cyberspace secure against intrusions, maintaining confidentiality, availability and integrity of information, detecting intrusions and incidents that do occur, and responding to and recovering from them.
+
+“Cyberdefence” is not defined.
+
+87. How are threats to national security and cyberthreats defined?
+
+There is no single definition.
+
+88. How is a cyberattack defined? NCPF does not include a definition of cyberattack.
+
+89. Does the national law provide any other definitions instrumental to the application of cyberdefence legislation? NCPF Definitions
+
+“Cyber warfare” means actions by a nation/state to penetrate another nation’s computers and networks for purposes of causing damage or disruption
+
+“Cyber espionage” means the act or practice of obtaining secrets without the permission of the holder of the information (personal, sensitive, proprietary or of classified nature), from individuals, competitors, rivals, groups, Governments and enemies for personal, economic, political or military advantage
+
+“Cyber terrorism” means use of Internet based attacks in terrorist activities by individuals and groups, including acts of deliberate large-scale disruptions of computer networks, especially computers attached to the Internet, by the means of tools such as computer viruses
+
+“Cyberspace” means a physical and non-physical terrain created by and/or composed of some or all of the following
+
+# National Framework
+
+90. Is cyberdefence grounded on the constitutional provisions and/or international law? It is not stated.
+
+91. Which specific national defence measures are related to cybersecurity? The Cybersecurity strategy is still being developed.
+
+92. Is there a national defence doctrine and does the law or strategy refer to it? National cyber security framework, introduction 1.1.
+
+93. What measures are mentioned in the national law and strategy in order to implement cyberdefence ?
+
+Cyber-warfare
+
+“In order to protect its interests in the event of a cyber-war, a cyber defence capacity has to be built. The NCPF thus promotes that a Cyber Defence Strategy, that is informed by the National Security Strategy of South Africa, be developed, guided by the JCPS Cybersecurity Response Committee.”
+
+It says nothing more on the issue of cyberdefence .
+
+94. How can Internet users’ online activities be limited for the reasons of protection of national security and cyberdefence ? The NCPF does not specify this.
+
+95. Does the national law or strategy foresee any special regime to be implemented in case of emergency in the context of cyberdefence ? The NCPF does not.
+
+# • Actors
+
+96. What actors are explicitly mentioned as playing a role regarding cyberdefence in the law or national cyber defence strategy or defence strategy?
+
+The Department of Defence and Military Veterans (DOD&MV) has overall responsibility for coordination, accountability and implementation of cyber defence measures in the Republic as an integral part of its National defence mandate. To this end, the Department will develop policies and strategies pursuant to its core mandate.
+
+# 97. Is there a specific cyber defence body?
+
+The NCPF envisions the implementation of the JCPS Cybersecurity Response Committee.
+
+# 98. What are the tasks of aforementioned actors?
+
+They will presumably be specified in the National Cybersecurity Strategy.
+
+# References
+
+Amabhungane Centre for Investigative Journalism NPC v Minister of Justice and Correctional Services (25978/2017) [2019] ZAGPPHC 384.
+Basson A (2015) “The Right to be forgotten: a South African perspective” Masters Dissertation, University of Pretoria.
+De Bruyn, M (2014) The Protection of Personal Information (POPI) Act - Impact on South Africa International Business & Economic Research Journal 13(6) 1315-1340.
+De Stadler, E. (2013) Intro to POPI (part 5): Rethinking privacy policies Juta’s Consumer Law Review (May/June) available at http://www.esselaar.co.za/legalarticles/intro-popi-part-5-rethinking-privacy-policies (accessed 15 September 2020)
+Department of Defence. (2015a). South African defence review. Pretoria. Available at . Accessed 30 September 2019.
+Department of Defence. (2015b). Department of Defence strategic plan for 2015 to 2020. Pretoria. Available at . Accessed 30 September 2019.
+Department of Telecommunications and Postal Services “Annual Performance Plan” (2019–2020) available at $ . Accessed 30 September 2019.
+Gillwald A (2019) “South Africa caught up in the global hype of the Fourth Industrial Revolution” Mail & Guardian available at . Accessed 15 October 2019.
+Global Cybersecurity Index (2019) 55. Available at . Accessed 30 September 2019.
+Government Gazette General Notices (December 2018) available at . Accessed 15 October 2019. Research handbook on governance of the Internet. Northampton, MA: Edward Elgar. p 221–259.
+Grobler M., van Vuuren J.J., Leenen L. (2012) Implementation of a Cyber Security Policy in South Africa: Reflection on Progress and the Way Forward. In: Hercheui M.D., Whitehouse D., McIver W., Phahlamohlaka J. (eds) ICT Critical Infrastructures and Society. HCC 2012. IFIP Advances in Information and Communication Technology, vol 386. Springer, Berlin, Heidelberg
+Hubbard J (2019) “SA business underplaying the danger of cybercrime?” Fin24 available at .
+O’Keefe v Argus Printing and Publishing (Pty) Ltd 1954 3 SA 247 (C). Second Line of Defence (2018) SANDF Way Ahead: Priorities and Challenges” . Accessed 13 June 2019.
+South Africa Government (2010) Justice Crime Prevention and Security (JCPS) delivery agreement . Accessed 14 June 2019.
+South African Banking Risk Information Centre (SABRIC) “Annual Crime Stats” (2018) available at $ . Accessed 15 October 2019.
+South African Constitution Act 108 of 1996.
+South African Cybercrimes Bill [B6B-2017] (2017).
+South African Reserve Bank Prudential Authority (2018a) ‘Cloud computing and offshoring of data’ directive D3/2018.
+South African Reserve Bank Prudential Authority (2018b) “Guidance Note on computing and offshoring of data.” (D3/2018) available at https://www.resbank.co.za/Publications/Detail-ItemView/Pages/Publications.aspx?sarbweb $\c=$ 3b6aa07d-92ab-441f-b7bfbb7dfb1bedb4&sarblist=2 1b5222e-7125-4e55-bb65-56fd3333371e&sarbitem $\scriptstyle1=8749$ accessed 15 October 2019
+South African State Security Agency “National Cybersecurity Policy Framework” (2012) Government Gazette No. 39475. Available at . Accessed 30 September 2019.
+Stander, A; Dunnet, A; Rizzo, J. “A Survey of Computer Crime in South Africa”, Proceedings of ISSA 2009 conference, pp. 217-226, (2009).
+Sutherland E (2017) Governance of cybersecurity – the case of South Africa. The African Journal of Information and Communication (AJI) 20 at 93.
+The Presidency (2018) “10th BRICS Summit: Johannesburg declaration” available at . Accessed 15 October 2019.
+The Presidency (2019) “President appoints commission on Fourth Industrial Revolution” available at http://www.thepresidency.gov.za/pressstatements/president-appoints-commission-fourthindustrial-revolution accessed 15 October 2019.
+Tubbs, B. (2014) How companies can gear up for POPI IT Web Financial available at http://www. itweb.co.za/?id=71803:How-companies-can-gear-up-for-POPI (accessed 15 September 2019).
\ No newline at end of file
diff --git a/dataset/data/docs/mahlatsi_A CRITICAL REVIEW OF THE IMPLEMENTATION OF .md b/dataset/data/docs/mahlatsi_A CRITICAL REVIEW OF THE IMPLEMENTATION OF .md
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+++ b/dataset/data/docs/mahlatsi_A CRITICAL REVIEW OF THE IMPLEMENTATION OF .md
@@ -0,0 +1,3468 @@
+# A CRITICAL REVIEW OF THE IMPLEMENTATION OF THE SECURITY THREAT ASSESSMENT BY A SELECTION OF GOVERNMENT DEPARTMENT IN GAUTENG
+
+by
+
+# LEHLOHONOLO WONDERBOY MAHLATSI
+
+submitted in accordance with the requirements for the degree of
+
+# DOCTOR OF LITERATURE AND PHILOSOPHY
+
+in the subject
+
+# CRIMINAL JUSTICE
+
+at the
+
+UNIVERSITY OF SOUTH AFRICA
+
+SUPERVISOR: DR B.K. LEKUBU
+
+November 2022
+
+# DECLARATION
+
+Name: Lehlohonolo Wonderboy Mahlatsi
+Student Number: 43312829
+Degree: Doctor of Literature and Philosophy in Criminal Justice A Critical Review of the Implementation of the Security Threat Assessment by a Selection of Government Departments in Gauteng.
+
+I declare that the above thesis is my own work, and that all the sources that I have used or quoted have been indicated and acknowledged by means of complete references.
+
+I further declare that I submitted the thesis to originality checking software and that it falls within the accepted requirements for originality.
+
+I further declare that I have not previously submitted this work, or part of it, for examination at Unisa for another qualification or at any other higher education institution.
+
+SIGNATURE
+
+# DEDICATION
+
+I dedicated my previous postgraduate research posthumously in memory of my late sister, Puleng Cynthia Mahlatsi, whom I adored profusely. Her death in 2016 left my mother with irreparable physical, emotional, and psychological scars. The current research study is then dedicated to my mother, Susan Pinky Mahlatsi, whose immeasurable sacrifices are visible in my children's eyes. My life and academic goals are poignantly focused on my completion of my doctoral studies for her to see me wearing the red academic gown as a reward for her endless sacrifice.
+
+# NDIYABULELA MAMA!!!
+
+# ACKNOWLEDGEMENTS
+
+Hake qale ka bohlale bo boholo, ke lebohe bophelo. Ke lebohe Modimo Ntate, Modimo Mora, le moya o halalelang. I thank God in the name of Jesus Christ, my Comforter, the Lion King of Juda; God Messiah to our parents, God Messiah to us, God Messiah to our children and their children in the future.
+Secondly, I would like to take this opportunity to express my heartfelt and profound gratitude to the following people:
+1. My father, Priest Mokete Joseph Mahlatsi. He was right that a man must establish his position in the house, church, community, work, and in the academic sphere. Vitória é certa (Victory is certain).
+2. To my brothers, Lebo and Sabata Mahlatsi, my sister ‘Mazzet’, my cousins, nephews, and nieces, for your infinite love and continuous encouragement. Aluta continua.
+3. My in-laws, Mr and Mrs Mokheseng, for remembering me in their prayers, and for their loyal support. Kea leboha.
+4. My supervisor, coach, and mentor, Dr Benni Khotso Lekubu for his commitment and excellent mentorship. He has selflessly inspired and empowered me, the son of a domestic worker and a taxi driver. Thank you, Sir, for your continuous guidance and support throughout my studies. #Blackexcellence.
+5. The editor, Dr Themba J. Mkhonto. I wish to express my sincere appreciation of his dedication and efforts. "A man who wants to lead the orchestra, must turn his back on the crowd" (Max Lucado).
+6. To all my research participants, I want to thank you with all my heart. I am because you are.
+7. To Ms Diana Rakoma, my friend and colleague for always being available to assist Ndo livhuwa Khaladzi.
+8. I was born and raised in love, and understand what it means to be loved and embraced by my parents and siblings. I never imagined that anyone else would love me as much as they did. Accordingly, I thank my wife and friend, Mrs. Maki Jerminah Mahlatsi, ‘naledi ya Tau’, for blessing me with two lovely daughters, Lerato and Leano Mahlatsi. Thank you for your patience and understanding during the most trying moments of my studies. May God remember you like Noah, protect you like David, resurrect you like Jesus, and let his will be your wheel always. Kea leboha Mabanyana.
+9. To my beautiful girls, Lerato and Leano, let the people see my work through you.
+
+Tau e fihlile.
+
+# ABSTRACT
+
+The imperative for protecting critical national infrastructure has engendered development of the Security Threat Assessment Framework that is implemented by the South African government under the guidance of the State Security Agency (SSA). The objective of the STRA Security Threat Assessment Framework is to detect any weaknesses in existing security measures, and to recommend strategies to evaluate ameliorative improvements in those identified weaknesses. The aim of the study is to critically review the implementation of the security threat assessment by a selection of government Department in Gauteng.
+
+The study has adopted a qualitative research design approach due to its constructivistinterpretivist inspiration and reliance on participant-centred mode of acquiring the study’s pertinent primary data through document analysis, semi-structured in-depth interviews with the primary participants, and observations with secondary participants. The study population comprised of security managers, vetting managers, cybercrime managers, information security managers, physical security managers, and professionals in the security environment. Additionally, the target population and sample size consisted of 47 participants from various spheres of the security sector locally. These participants were selected through the purposive and simple random sampling strategies respectively.
+
+Some of the study’s critical findings show that there was general awareness and knowledgeability concerning the appointment processes and roles of security managers and security committees. The role of technology was viewed as beneficial. As such, the security of sensitive information necessitated that personnel working in high-risk environments as well as personnel in charge of information technology systems should be subjected to security procedures. These procedures include declaration of secrecy, security profile checks of each user, limiting access to top secret to individuals nearing retirement or exiting the system; as well as backup of the sensitive information in case it may be tampered with.
+
+Key words: threat, risk, vulnerability, legal mandate, exploit, impact, information security, South African Government Departments, cybersecurity, counter-intelligence, classified information
+
+# ABBREVIATIONS
+
+AFATAP African Association of Threat Assessment Professionals
+AGSA Auditor-General of South Africa
+APIs Application Programming Interfaces
+BRICS Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa
+CAPPVA The Control of Access to Public Premises and Vehicles Act 53
+CCCS Canadian Centre for Cyber Security
+CCMA Commission for Conciliation, Mediation, and Arbitration
+CCTV Closed-circuit Television
+CERT Community Emergency Response Team
+CIAC Crime Information Analysis Centre
+CCF Crime Combating Forum
+CNS&AP Canadian National Strategy and Action Plan for Critical Infrastr
+CPS Cash Paymaster Services
+CSIRC Canadian Security Intelligence Review Committee
+CTA Crime Threat Assessment
+DAST Dynamic Application Security Testing
+DIRCO Department of International Relations and Cooperation
+DOJ & CD Department of Justice and Constitutional Development
+DPSA Department of Public Service and Administration
+DTI Department of Trade & Industry
+DWAF Department of Water Affairs and Forestry
+ETDP Education Training Development Practitioner
+ERM Enterprise Risk Management
+EU European Union
+FCA Firearms Control Act
+GSR Government Security Regulator
+IBM International Business Machines
+ICT Information Communication Technology
+ISO International Organization for Standardization
+ISS Islamic State
+MISS Minimum Information Security Standards
+MPSS Minimum Physical Security Standards
+NIA National Intelligence Agency
+NCTA National Cyber Danger Assessment
+NTAC National Threat Assessment Centre
+OECD Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development
+PAD Protected Disclosures Act
+PSIRA Private Security Industry Regulatory Act
+PSSD Protection and Security Services Division
+RSA Republic of South Africa
+SA South Africa
+SALRC South African Law Reform Commission
+SANDF South African National Defence Force
+SAPS South African Police Service
+SARB South African Reserve Bank
+SASSETA Safety and Security, Sector Education & Training Authority
+SITA State Information Technology Agency
+SAST Static Application Security Testing
+SOPs Standard Operating Procedures
+SSA State Security Agency
+STAF Security Threat Assessment Framework
+STRA Security Threat Risk Assessment
+STRAF Security Threat Risk Assessment Framework
+SSR Security Sector Reform
+STA Security Threat Assessment
+TSC Top Security Clearance
+TSCM Technical Surveillance Counter Measure
+TUT Tshwane University of Technology
+UK United Kingdom
+UNISA University of South Africa
+VBS Venda Building Society
+
+# Table of Contents
+
+CHAPTER 1
+GENERAL ORIENTATION .
+1.1 INTRODUCTION ..
+1.2 BACKGROUND OF THE STUDY .
+1.3 PROBLEM STATEMENT .. 6
+1.4 RATIONALE OF THE STUDY 8
+1.5 DELIMITATIONS/ DELINEATIONS OF THE STUDY .. 9
+1.6 AIM OF THE RESEARCH......
+1.7 RESEARCH OBJECTIVES .... . 10
+1.8 RESEARCH QUESTIONS .. 11
+1.9 PURPOSE OF THE RESEARCH ..... 11
+1.9.1 Exploration .... 12
+1.9.2 Description .. 12
+1.9.3 Evaluation of the Current Situation .... 13
+1.9.4 Developing Good Practice .. . 14
+1.9.5 Empowerment of those Being Researched . ..... 14
+1.10 DEFINITION OF KEY THEORETICAL CONCEPTS... 15
+1.10.1 Exploit.... 15
+1.10.2 Impact .. 15
+1.10.3 Information Security.... . 15
+1.10.4 Risk . 16
+1.10.5 Threat... . 16
+1.10.6 Threat Assessment .. 16
+1.10.7 Vulnerability ........ ..... 17
+1.11 RESEARCH METHODOLOGY.... .. 17
+1.11.1 Philosophical Worldview of the Study.. 17
+1.11.1.1 The Positivist Worldview... .. 17
+1.11.1.2 Anti-Positivist World View ... 18
+1.11.1.2.1 Constructionism and associated paradigmatic variants ......... ....... 18
+1.11.1.2.2 Interpretivism and associated variant paradigms ..... . 19
+1.11.1.3 Pragmatic World View...... . 19
+1.11.2 Research Approach and Design.. . 20
+1.11.2.1 Qualitative Research Approach ... 21
+1.12 DATA COLLECTION....... ..... 21
+1.12.1 Literature Review ... .. 22
+1.12.2 Documentary Review ... 23
+1.12.3 Interviews.... 24
+1.12.3.1 Semi-structured Interviews.. . 24
+1.12.4 Personal Experience . 26
+1.13 POPULATION AND SAMPLING ... .. 27
+1.13.1 Target Population.... . 27
+1.13.2 Sampling........ ..... ....... 28
+1.13.2.1 Sampling Strategies/ Methods ... . 30
+1.13.2.1.1 Purposive/ Judgmental sampling..... . 30
+1.13.2.1.2 Simple random sampling.... 31
+1.14 DATA ANALYSIS...... .. 32
+1.15 METHODS TO ENSURE TRUSTWORTHINESS OF THE STUDY. ...... 34
+1.15.1 Credibility .. . 34
+1.15.2 Transferability .. 35
+1.15.3 Dependability ........ ...... 35
+1.15.4 Confirmability .... . 36
+
+# vii
+
+# 1.16 ETHICAL CONSIDERATIONS. 36
+
+1.16.4 Autonomy.. 37
+1.16.5 Justice... . 37
+1.16.6 Privacy, Confidentiality and Anonymity.... . 38
+1.17 RESEARCH STRUCTURE. ... 38
+CHAPTER 2 . 40
+THREAT ASSESSMENT... 40
+2.1 INTRODUCTION . 40
+2.2 THE CONCEPT OF THREAT ASSESSMENT ... . 40
+2.3 TYPES OF THREATS ..... .. 47
+2.3.1 Insider Threat .. . 47
+2.3.1.1 Non-responders .. .. 50
+2.3.1.2 Inadvertent insiders.. 50
+2.3.1.3 Collusion from within.. 51
+2.3.1.4 Persistently malevolent insiders .... .. 51
+2.3.1.5 Disgruntled employees .. . 51
+2.3.1.6 A mole .... . 51
+2.3.2 External Threats ...... ..... 55
+2.4 CYBERSECURITY THREATS.. . 56
+2.4.1 Phishing .... . 57
+2.4.2 Malware .... ...... 57
+2.4.3 Ransomware... 57
+2.5 IMPACT OF CYBERSECURITY THREATS ON THE PUBLIC SECTOR .. .. 58
+2.6 CORE BUSINESS ANALYSIS AND IDENTIFICATION OF CRITICAL INFRASTRUCTURE . . 58
+2.7 THE SCOPE OF SECURITY THREAT ASSESSMENT (STA) FRAMEWORK.... .. 61
+2.8 ROLE OF DIRECTORATES IN GOVERNMENT DEPARTMENTS IN SUPPORTING SECURITY
+PROGRAMMES . .. 63
+2.9 LEGAL FRAMEWORK TO DEAL WITH SECURITY THREATS .... .. 65
+2.10 CURRENT LAYERS OF SECURITY MEASURES ...... ... 65
+2.10.1 The South African Police Service ... . 65
+2.10.2 Minimum Information Security Standards (MISS)...... .. 69
+2.10.3 Information Security Programme .. . 72
+2.10.4 Security Committee to Manage Security Threat Assessment .... 74
+2.11 INCLUSION OF MENTAL CARE PRACTITIONERS . .. 76
+2.12 SUMMARY .. . 79
+CHAPTER 3 80
+VULNERABILITY ASSESSMENT..... ...... 80
+3.1 INTRODUCTION .. . 80
+3.2 THE CONCEPT OF VULNERABILITY ASSESSMENT... . 80
+3.3 IMPORTANCE OF VULNERABILITY ASSESSMENTS.. ..... 86
+3.4 TYPES OF VULNERABILITY ASSESSMENTS .... ... 87
+3.4.1. Wireless Assessment ... .. 88
+3.4.2. Build Assessment.. 89
+3.4.3. Web Application Assessment .. .. 89
+3.4.4. Database Assessments .. . 90
+3.4.5. Host-based Assessment .. . 90
+3.4.6. Secure Configuration Assessment ... 90
+3.4.7 Mobile Application Assessment .... .. 91
+3.5 FORMULATE A VULNERABILITY ASSESSMENT TEAM ... .. 91
+3.6 VULNERABILITY ASSESSMENT: SECURITY SCANNING PROCESS.. ..... 92
+3.6.1 Vulnerability Identification (testing).. . 93
+3.6.2 Vulnerability Analysis .... . 93
+3.6.3 Risk Assessment ............ ...... 94
+3.6.4 Remediation .... . 95
+
+# viii
+
+# 3.7 VULNERABILITY RATING SCALE 96
+
+3.8 PROBABILITY.. .. 99
+3.9 IMPACT .... .. 100
+3.10 SECURITY BREACHES . 101
+3.11 SUMMARY ... ... 103
+CHAPTER 4 .. 104
+RISK ASSESSMENT AND MANAGEMENT.. 104
+4.1 INTRODUCTION . .. 104
+4.2 RISK ASSESSMENT CONCEPT . .. 104
+4.2.1 Identify Risks ... . 107
+4.2.2 Analyse Risks .... .... 107
+4.2.3 Evaluate Risks .. .. 109
+4.2.4 Treatment . . 109
+4.2.5 Technical Risk .. .. 110
+4.3 SOFTWARE DEVELOPMENT ..... ... 111
+4.4 FINANCIAL RISK..... . 113
+4.5 MANAGEMENT RISK 114
+4.5.1 Policies and Standard Operation Procedures .. .. 115
+4.5.2 Cybersecurity Strategy . .. 117
+4.5.3 Communication ... 121
+4.5.4 Reputational risk ... .. 123
+4.6 EXTERNAL RISK ... .. 124
+4.7 MITIGATION ... . 124
+4.8 MONITOR THE IMPLEMENTATION . ..... 125
+4.9 SUMMARY . .. 126
+CHAPTER 5 .. 128
+LEGAL MANDATE. 128
+5.1 INTRODUCTION ... .. 128
+5.2 THE CONSTITUTION OF THE REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA, 1996.... .. 128
+5.3 PROTECTION OF INFORMATION ACT, 1982 (ACT NO 84 OF 1982). 129
+5.3.1 Council of Review, South African Defense Force..... ... 129
+5.4 MINIMUM INFORMATION SECURITY STANDARD (MISS) 1998 ... .. 130
+5.5 PROTECTION OF PERSONAL INFORMATION (POPI) ACT.... . 131
+5.5.1 Google Spain SL, Google Inc. v. Agencia Espaola de Protección de Datos (AEP) . .. 132
+5.6 NATIONAL KEY POINTS ACT, 1980 (ACT 102 OF 1980) ... .. 132
+5.6.1 Right2Know Campaign and Others v. Minister of Police and Others .. .. 133
+5.7 CRIMINAL PROCEDURE ACT, (ACT 51 OF 1977) AS AMENDED .... .... 133
+5.7.1 BK and Others v. Minister of Police and Others .. .. 134
+5.8 CONTROL OF ACCESS TO PUBLIC PREMISES AND VEHICLE ACT 53 OF 1985 .. . 135
+5.9 LABOUR RELATION ACT 66 OF 1995 . 136
+5.9.1 Sedick and Others v. Krisray .... ... 136
+5.10 NATIONAL ARCHIVES ACT, 1996 (ACT 43 OF 1996) .... .. 137
+5.11 PRIVATE SECURITY INDUSTRY REGULATION ACT 103 OF 1996 ... 137
+5.11.1 Union of Refugee Women and Others v Directo..... ... 139
+5.12 PROMOTION OF ACCESS TO INFORMATION ACT, 2000 (ACT NO 2 OF 2000) .. .. 139
+5.13 OCCUPATIONAL HEALTH AND SAFETY ACT, 1993 (ACT 85 OF 1993)..... .. 140
+5.13.1 Joubert v. Buscor Proprietary Limited ... ...... 141
+5.14 ELECTRONIC COMMUNICATION AND TRANSACTION ACT 2002 (ACT 25 OF 2002) . .. 142
+5.15 STATE INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY AGENCY ACT, 1998 (ACT 88 OF 1998)... .. 142
+5.15.1 SAAB Grintek Defence v South African Police Service and others ... ..... 143
+5.15.2 SITA (Pty) Ltd v Premier, Eastern Cape Provincial Gov. and Others. .. 143
+5.16 THE PUBLIC SERVICE ACT, 103 OF 1994.. .. 143
+5.16.1 SA Public Servants Association obo Ubogu vs Head of the Department of Health . . 144
+5.17 THE EMPLOYMENT EQUITY ACT, 55 OF 1998 ... ... 144
+5.18.1 Masetlha v. President of the Republic of South Africa and Others 146
+5.19 FIREARM-ARM CONTROL ACT, 2002 (ACT 60 OF 2003) AND REGULATIONS. 147
+5.19.1 Justice Alliance of SA and Another v. National Min. of Safety and Security and Others.......148
+5.20 NON-PROLIFERATION OF WEAPONS OF MASS DESTRUCTION ACT, 1993 (ACT NO. 87 OF 1993)
+.. 148
+5.21 PROTECTION OF CONSTITUTION DEMOCRACY AGAINST TERRORISM AND RELATED ACTIVITIES
+ACT, 2004 (ACT 33 OF 2004) .... .. 149
+5.21.1 S v. Okah (CCT) 315/16; CCT. 151
+5.22 PUBLIC FINANCE MANAGEMENT ACT, 1999 (ACT 1 OF 1999) AND TREASURY REGULATIONS ... 151
+5.23 PROTECTED DISCLOSURES ACT, 2000 (ACT 26 OF 2000). 154
+5.23.1 Symmington v. South African Revenue Services 156
+5.24. GOVERNMENT IMMOVABLE ASSET MANAGEMENT ACT. 2007(ACT NO 19 OF 2007) . .. 156
+5.25 WHITE PAPER ON INTELLIGENCE (1995) . . 157
+5.26 CANADA THREAT ASSESSMENT . 158
+5.26.1 The National Security Act, 2017 accomplishes three important objectives 158
+5.26.1.1 Increasing Accountability and Transparency 158
+5.26.1.2 Fulfilling Commitments to Address Former C-51 158
+5.26.1.3 Strengthening Security and Safeguarding Rights 158
+5.26.2 The Security of Canada Information Sharing Act (SCISA) 159
+5.26.3 Canadian Cyber Security... ... 160
+5.27 SUMMARY . ..... 162
+CHAPTER 6 ... 164
+FINDINGS, RECOMMENDATIONS AND CONCLUSION .. ... 164
+6.1 INTRODUCTION .... 164
+6.2 DEMOGRAPHIC CHARACTERISTICS OF PARTICIPANTS.... .. 165
+6.3 CONTEXTUALISATION OF KEY FINDINGS .. . 166
+6.3.1 Risk Consequences ... . 167
+6.3.2 Digital Attacks and Information Theft .. . 168
+6.4 MAIN FINDIGS AND THEMATIC CATEGORISATION . 169
+6.4.1 Theme 1: The Scope of Government’s Security Threat Assessment (STA) Framework
+Guidelines... 169
+6.4.1.1 Role of Threat Assessment Framework Guidelines ... . 169
+6.4.2 Theme 2: The Role of Other Directorates in Implementing the Security Threat Assessment
+Framework .. . 172
+6.4.2.1 Ensuring Security Management . . 173
+6.4.3 Theme 3: The Role of Management in Supporting the Security Programmes . . 173
+6.4.3.1 Role of Management.... .. 174
+6.4.4 Theme 4: The Processes for Appointing the Security Manager and the Security Committee,
+and Their Respective Roles in Threat Assessment...... .. 175
+6.4.4.1 Processes of Appointing a Security Manager and the Security Committee .... . 175
+6.4.4.2 Roles of Security Manager and Security Committee... . 175
+6.4.4.3 Strategic Direction.. .. 175
+6.4.4.4 Security Component ... . 176
+6.4.4.5 Training ..... . 176
+6.4.5 Theme 5: The Departments’ Processes of Anticipating and Analysing the Probabilities of Loss
+and Damage to State Property .. 177
+6.4.6 Theme 6: Current Layers of Security Measures .. 178
+6.4.6.1 Classification of Information . 178
+6.4.6.1.1 Understanding the term “document” . . 179
+6.4.6.1.2 Considerations in the classification of documents .. .. 179
+6.4.7 Theme 7: Possible Solutions for Addressing Correct Implementation of Security Threat
+Assessment.. . 179
+6.4.7.1 Wellness Centre. .. 180
+6.4.7.2 Popularising the Minimum Information Security Standard Document (MISS) . 181
+6.4.7.3. Vetting...... . 182
+6.4.7.4 Securing Sensitive Information .. 184
+6.4.7.5 Awareness . . 186
+6.4.7.6. Development of a Security Policy... . 187
+6.4.7.7 Training and Development . 188
+6.4.7.8 Stakeholder Involvement .. ... 189
+6.4.7.9 The Key Role Players in the Public Service IT Risk/ Threat Environment .. ... 189
+.5 DISCUSSION OF SECURITY COMPONENT IN THE CONTEXT OF THE FINDINGS . 190
+6.5.1 Security Administration .. .. 190
+6.5.2 Physical Security .... . 191
+6.5.3 The Integration of Physical Security Measures.. .... 192
+6.5.4 The Implementation of Physical Security Measures.. ..... 192
+6.5.5 Information and Communication Technology (ICT) Security.... .. 192
+6.5.6 Internet Access.... . 194
+.6 DEVELOPING/ DESIGNING AN EFFECTIVE AND IMPLEMENTABLE SECURITY THREAT ASSESSMENT
+MODEL OR FRAMEWORK .. .. 194
+6.6.1 Approach to STAF...... ... 194
+6.6.2 Security Threat Assessment Approaches .. 195
+6.6.3 Proposed Threat and Risk Assessment Model... .. 196
+.7 RECOMMENDATIONS ... 198
+6.7.1 Recommendations Concerning the Scope of Government’s Security Threat Assessment (STA)
+Framework Guidelines.... . 199
+6.7.2 Recommendations Concerning the Role of Other Directorates when Implementing the STAF
+200
+6.4.2.2.1 Human resource security ... 201
+6.4.2.2.2 Communications and operations . ... 201
+6.4.2.2.3 ICT Risk management ... .. 202
+6.4.2.2.4 Asset management... . 204
+6.7.3 Recommendations Concerning the Role of Management in Supporting Security Programmes
+... 204
+6.7.4 Recommendations Concerning the Process of Appointing the Security Manager and the
+Security Committee, and their Respective Roles in Threat Assessment.. 205
+6.7.4.1 Head of Departments ... . 206
+6.7.4.2 Security Committee . . 206
+6.7.4.2.1 Responsibilities of the security committee . 206
+6.7.4.2.2 Head of security (security manager) ..... ... 207
+6.7.5 Recommendations Concerning Government Departments’ Processes of Anticipating and
+Analysing the Probabilities of Loss and Damage to State Property .. . 208
+6.7.5.1 Personnel Security Vetting..... .. 208
+6.7.5.2 Polygraph Examination .. 209
+6.7.5.3 Transferability of Security Clearances . .... 209
+6.7.5.4 Security Awareness and Training.... ... 210
+6.7.5.6 Security Incident/ Breaches Reporting Process... 210
+6.7.6 Recommendations Concerning Capacity and Adequacy of Current Layers of Security Measures
+to Prevent Threats Before They Occur .. . 211
+6.7.6.1 Implementable Security Policy Architecture .... 213
+6.7.6.2 Requirements for a Security Policy ... ..... 214
+.8 VALUE/ CONTRIBUTION OF THE STUDY .... .. 215
+.9 POSSIBLE LIMITATIONS OF THE STUDY... 216
+.10 CONCLUSION ................ . 216
+REFERENCES .. 218
+NNEXURE 1: UNISA ETHICS CLEARANCE CERTIFICATE . ... 233
+NNEXURE 2: SAPS APPROVAL LETTER .. 235
+NNEXURE 3: LETTER TO DEPARTMENT OF PUBLIC WORKS FOR PERMISSION TO CONDUCT THE
+STUDY... 238
+NNEXURE 4: DIRCO APPROVAL TO CONDUCT THE STUDY . . 239
+NNEXURE 5: SAPS APPROVAL TO CONDUCT THE STUDY . . 240
+NNEXURE 6: INTERVIEW GUIDE ................................... . 244
+
+# xi
+
+ANNEXURE 7: EDITOR’S CERTIFICATE. 246
+ANNEXURE 8: TURNITIN DIGITAL RECEIPT. 247
+ANNEXURE 9: TURNITIN SUMMARY REPORT . 248
+
+# List of Tables
+
+Table 1.1: Data collection methods, sources and procedures. 22
+Table 1.2: Target population and related sampling variables... ... 28
+Table 2.1: Human and non-human categories of potential risks. . 46
+Table 2.2: Examples of well-known insider breaches in the United States . . 53
+Table 2.3: Examples of insider threats... . 55
+Table 3.1 Vulnerability assessment report outline .... . 98
+Table 4.1: The functioning of the risk matrix... .. 108
+Table 6.1: Demographic details of participants ... . 165
+Table 6.2 Planning steps of STA... .. 197
+Table 6.3: The interaction among these concepts to convey the implementation of STA ... . 200
+Table 6.4: Description and examples of tactical measures.. 212
+
+# List of Figures
+
+Figure1.1: Target population and methods of sampling used in the study . 30
+Figure 2.1: The CERT insider threat incidents by owner and case types .. ... 54
+Figure 2.2: National structure of the SAPS .. 66
+Figure 6.1: Framework for proposed threat and risk assessment model . .. 196
+Figure 6.2: STA code of conduct.. 198
+
+# CHAPTER 1
+
+# GENERAL ORIENTATION
+
+# 1.1 INTRODUCTION
+
+The national priorities and interests of South Africa (SA) are within the custodial responsibility of national, provincial, and local government departments (Department of Public Service and Administration, 2016: 7). South Africa is an emerging democratic country working closer with countries that aspire to assume competitive economic and political status against other established economies globally. South Africa’s membership in the Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa (BRICS) organisation signifies an orientation towards political autonomy and economic competitiveness (Department of International Relations and Cooperation (DIRCO) (South Africa, 2021: 1). In addition to economic advantage, SA also acknowledges the strategic viability of such partnerships, despite the disparate national agendas or priorities among the BRICS Member States. In that regard, the DIRCO fulfils a leading role on behalf of the SA government and has the custodial care of responsibilities and all other relevant information pertaining to all facets of the country’s involvement in the BRICS multilateral structure (South Africa, 2021: 1).
+
+The Minimum Information Security Standard (MISS) emphasises the need for stringent security controls to protect the highly sensitive information that is vested in the custody of all government departments (SA, 1998: 1). Competing international developments necessitate that government departments should fulfil their respective mandates in order to mediate the plethora of local and international security threats (Ameer-Mia & Shacksnovis, 2019: 137). Moreover, the perpetual quest for global competitive advantage has heightened the need for countries to engage in complex cyber security arrangements for protecting their own territorial integrity and sovereignty (Broder & Tucker, 2012: 13).
+
+It is in this context that the government departments should necessarily maintain open global internet systems and programmes with sufficient capability to detect and deter cyber-attacks and related threats from other countries (Antinyan, Staron, Sandberg & Hansson, 2016: 1). Such systems and programmes are advantageous insofar as they provide government departments with the requisite response frameworks to prioritise and counter specific threats, as well as proactively determining the exposure levels of assets of the State (Sutherland, 2017: 20).
+
+The imperative for protecting critical national infrastructure has engendered development of the Security Threat Assessment Framework (STAF) which the South African Government can use under the guidance of the State Security Agency (SSA) (South Africa, 1994: 1). The STA’s objective is to detect any weaknesses in existing security measures, and to recommend strategies to evaluate ameliorative improvements in those identified weaknesses (Allen, 2016: 4). However, the high number of internal and external security breaches in South Africa is ample demonstration that the government departments are confronted with the mountainous challenge of dealing with threats and attacks that are rapidly becoming more sophisticated and have taken a major shift in digital infrastructure requirements (Ameer-Mia & Shacksnovis, 2019: 137). These ominous threats are organised from inside and outside the country, and they pose a danger to assets of the State and national security, the people and critical infrastructure; as well as essential information held by government departments (South Africa, 2001: 1; Sutherland, 2017: 20)
+
+Inadequacy of proper security structures and programmes is not uniquely South African, but common even among well-developed national economies across the globe (Council of Europe, 2001: 1). For example, in the United Kingdom (UK) alone, about 8,995 security breaches occurred in 17 of the largest government departments, yet they do not have standard operation procedures and frameworks component and methodology to report them (Palmer, 2016: 12). Maintaining a correct level of protecting critical national assets and infrastructure and deterrence against foreign and domestic threats requires commitment from each department, against whose objectives the risks are identified and measured (Allen, 2016: 58). Risk assessment should be incorporated as a major aspect of the STA report, particularly at those facilities where the likelihood of threat has not been identified already. This will have enormous financial implications to the department, as a result of which it is important to comprehend such implications before concluding the risk or threat assessment details in the security plan (Garcia, 2006: 12; Pinnock, 2020: 1).
+
+The above-cited passages in this introductory section have actually presaged and highlighted the study’s aim or purpose, which is: to critically review the implementation of the security threat assessment by a selection of government Department in Gauteng. Such investigation (exploration, description and analysis) will provide insight on the extent of these departments’ prioritisation of the counter-intelligence strategies and implementation of the STA. Such research-based investigation will further provide some degree of definitive conceptualisation of critical aspects, such as: personnel security, valued assets, and crucial information of the State; as well as the requisite balance between the value of the assets and the amount of money that needs to be spent on the layers of security measures (Patrick, van Niekerk & Fields, 2016: 68). Most importantly, this proposed study also seeks to determine the extent of clarity between categories of information regarded as crucial, and those (information categories) that are deemed to fulfil the requirements of classification (Adetiba, 2017: 220).
+
+# 1.2 BACKGROUND OF THE STUDY
+
+Security and management of risk comprises of two elements (Rishi, 2019: 1; Sutton, 2015: 14). Firstly, that there is a likelihood of a loss to assets or harm occurring. Secondly, that the asset value itself ought to be safeguarded. Therefore, South African government departments ought to effectively implement the STA counter-intelligence tool to assist them in defining the nature of the threat being encountered, establishing the type of compromise involved, and the probability of each compromise (South Africa, 2017: 1). In this regard, the STA serves the fundamental purpose of determining adequacy of security measures from the perspective of requirements, efficiency, and cost (Maillart, 2014: 7). In the case of South Africa, there is generally ineffective implementation of the STA and correct application of its recommendations (South Africa, 2016: 1).
+
+Saleh, Refai and Mashhour (2011: 87) argue that there are many benefits and shortcomings that are associated with assessment of threats and risks. In that regard, the STA should be of assistance in changing and improving the existing security controls, while also providing a comprehensive view and assessment of current security risks. According to Philpott (2013: 231), a threat assessment is a security appraisal of actions that can be harmful and negatively impact the core organisational business. Meanwhile, Black (2010: 471) alludes that a threat assessment is a framework-based mechanism mostly utilised by the government and commercial sectors, as well as most security industry experts, and operates according to the prescripts of the law. Threat assessment procedures could be in the form of definite and thoroughly composed records, or essentially, consciousness of the potential dangers from different circumstances. Security officers use the information from their records to ascertain the authenticity, correctness, and possible consequences of the risk or threat (African Union Convention, 2014: 1; Ramluckan, 2019: 348).
+
+Philpott (2013: 231) further identifies the main reasons that necessitate threat assessment as attributable to factors such as the historic information of departments, including activities that are criminally motivated and have a link to terrorists. The researcher agrees with Philpott (2013: 231), that the institutional memory of departments is a very important source for assessment of threat and management of risk. The Minimum Physical Security Standards (MPSS) provides guidelines on the physical security requirements and other methods of installations (South Africa, 2009). The MPSS shows further that the minimum standards are necessary, despite problems concerning their legal enforceability, and constitute a point of departure towards binding regulations (South Africa, 2009).
+
+The requirements and concomitant standards for threat and risk assessment basically seek to foster government departments’ understanding of what needs to be protected, nature and level of the threats and vulnerabilities in what is to be protected, any harmful implications, and what could be done to reduce or eliminate exposure to the loss or damages (Bayne, 2020: 9). According to Watts (2017: 19), a threat or risk portends loss, harm, or damage when a weakness or vulnerability is exploited. The potential for risk can be reduced by creating and implementing a threat and risk assessment as a risk management plan or strategy. The researcher agrees with Watts (2017: 19), that South African Government departments inevitably suffer financial loss and damage because of business disruption, reputational damage, loss of privacy; as well as legal implications due to loss of life when threats and risks are unknown.
+
+The risk or threat monitoring procedure depends on the consequences of the developed risk assessment models, in terms of which reports are delivered to show all cautions regarding every conceivable danger (Rishi, 2019: 1). Furthermore, the monitoring is persistently rehashed to safeguard the advancement of a viable security framework, and a suitable move is made to address the risks related to those threats, which should necessarily improve the security framework (Amundrud, Aven & FlageFirst, 2017: 7). Likewise, the risk assessment standards ought to be founded on the basis of the process of reporting (Saleh, 2011: 84). Ultimately, security managers will utilise a summarised report on the status and execution of the security in the department, after which the executives will review the security framework and strategies to reduce potential security vulnerabilities, and in this manner, improve the security framework (Saleh, 2011: 85).
+
+In 2003, the South African Cabinet approved the mandated functions and broad structure of the new Protection and Security Services Division (PSSD) of the South African Police Service (SAPS) (South Africa, 2017: 1). These functions have led to establishment of the Component: South African Government Security Regulator (GSR) within the State’s organisational architecture. Among some of its functions, the GSR is responsible for regulating the services of all existents and newly identified strategic installations and the administration of the National Key Points Act (No 102 of 1980) (South Africa, 1980: 1). The GSR is also responsible for all government entities, excluding the National Intelligence Agency (NIA), the South African Defence Force (SANDF) and the SAPS. The mandate of the GSR is to develop and implement the MPSS as an official document and to ensure that all government departments and institutions use it to comply and maintain their physical infrastructure. At the point when a threat assessment is concluded, such assessment may be imparted to the SAPS or the State Security Agency, depending on the nature and level of the threat (South Africa, 1980: 1).
+
+While the SAPS oversees services rendered to government departments to ensure implementation of effective physical security measures and screening adherence thereto, the SSA is similarly capable of rendering information security and counterintelligence services (South Africa, 1980: 2). According to the MISS (1998), the NIA cannot ‘outsource’ its own information and physical infrastructure security, and provides advisory, auditing, exercising and co-ordination of information security in the public, private, and parastatal South African sectors, not including the SAPS and the SANDF.
+
+On the other hand, the private sector security is mandated by the Private Security Industry Regulatory Act (PSIRA) (No. 56 of 2001), which was established in terms of Section 2 of the Act (South Africa, 2001). The objectives of the PSIRA include regulation of the private security sector and provision of effective control measures in their private and public sector practices. The PSIRA is considered relevant to this study insofar as it relates to its (PSIRA’s) role in providing security-related services to South African government departments, as well as the national interest (loyalties) of the private security industries in South Africa (South Africa, 2001: 1).
+
+The National Key Points Act 102 of 1980 was enacted for the protection of all national strategic areas of importance from being sabotaged (South Africa, 1980: 1). Moreover, a problem arose in South Africa in 2015 when some National Key Point breaches were undeclared until the Right2Know Campaign won its case at the Johannesburg High
+
+Court (Right2know, 2015: np). The SAPS was subsequently ordered by the court to disclose the list of protected areas within 30 days of its ruling. In this court case, the major issues were the validity or otherwise of the National Key Points Act 102 of 1980 (SA, 1980) and its connection to the apartheid government (Thoka, 2021: 3).
+
+# 1.3 PROBLEM STATEMENT
+
+The previous section introduced the overall parameters of the research topic and culminated in an indication of the overall intention of this study. In the current section (Section 1.3), two critical research variables are entailed, namely: the rationale of the research study, and the problem that the researcher has identified as justification for the proposed research to be conducted. The rationale and research problem are then viewed as foundational to locating the research setting at which the exploration will occur, as well as the pre-exploration (pre-investigation) situational analysis to adequately comprehend the ontological state of the problem and its effects, consequences, and implications if left unresolved (Denscombe, 2014: 51- 52; Thanh & Thanh, 2015: 25).
+
+The problem statement refers specifically to the articulation of the problem, or a description of a particular problematic situation or phenomenon (. Therefore, the problem with which the study is concerned is situated in the inadequate implementation of security threat or risk assessment framework measures by government departments. This problem is manifold and manifests itself in the weakening or already weakened capacity of government departments; information and communication technology (ICT) non-compliance and severity of security breaches; as well as poor monitoring and assessment of applicable policy frameworks (South Africa, 2017: 1). It is the inherent responsibility of government departments to develop implementable security threat programmes and policies to detect and avert all incidences linked to criminal and security breaches (Sutton, 2015: 11).
+
+All government departments have their respective visions, missions, strategic objectives and mandates, which collectively characterises the form and extent of vulnerability of their physical and non-physical assets (Odendal, 2021: 14; Surju, 2018: 46). These objectives incorporate definition of the threat, identifying the target, and facility classification. However, the researcher has observed that the application of the STA and standard of the departmental reports are inimical to the objectives of the protection system. Additionally, the South African State Capture Commission has exposed the glaring weaknesses that are apparent in virtually all government departments and organs of State (Cawthra, 2019: 224).
+
+Some of the machinations of hollowing-out and weakening the capacity of the affected departments included: extensive corruption at the Executive level throughout all organs of the State; factional politicisation of the intelligence, policing, and prosecution system/ apparatus; and vulnerability in governance due to re-purposing of departmental mandates (Cawthra, 2019: 225). Such a situation was fundamentally inimical to Security Sector Reform (SSR) and the State’s service delivery mandate to citizens (South Africa, 1994: 1). Also, such service delivery shortfalls rendered the State vulnerable to both internal and external security threats and attacks. External threats include organised crime syndicates, activists, and foreign intelligence agencies. Internal threats could originate from disgruntled employees, unintended disclosures, sabotage, and acts of espionage. These criminal incidences and threats are induced mostly by asset vulnerabilities and security weaknesses (Sharma, 2020: 1).
+
+Furthermore, some of these departments lack the strategies to protect the valued information and assets of government before they are rendered vulnerable and consequently compromise the preservation of integrity, availability, and confidentiality of information (Right2know, 2017: 1). Such departmental inefficiencies demonstrate a lack of institutional security policies, frameworks, standard operational procedures and different strategies and systems to secure their information. The 2013/2014 report of the Auditor General of South Africa (AGSA) made repetitive findings concerning ICT deficiencies within government departments (Nkwana & Govender, 2017: 18).
+
+In this regard, the report cited shortfalls and deficiencies such as: internal ICT policy non-compliance or poor implementation for protecting institutional information systems; deficient internal control frameworks by management; insufficient security frameworks and standard operating procedures (SOPs) for documenting or overseeing these occurrences (National Crime Registrar, 2020: 12). The AGSA revealed further in the self-same report that there were 9,000 breaches of security suffered across the entire spectrum of government departments in a single year, which was emblematic of the rampant prevalence of improper security procedures (Palmer, 2016: 14). From an implementation point of view, the implication is that the departments ought to ‘go back to basics’ and put the correct procedures in place.
+
+Over time, the researcher has also noted that the problem of departmental vulnerability to security breaches is largely a factor of non-implementation. For example, the State Security Agency has the Security Threat and Risk Assessment Framework, but government departments generally fail to implement the framework accordingly. The weakness in implementation may cause serious damages that might lead to significant financial losses, the confidentiality of sensitive information might be breached, it might create vulnerabilities in the critical assets of the departments and that may distract the core businesses of government (Govender, Sewpersa & Mahambane, 2015: 52). Some of the breaches entail technology equipment that have classified information, and that may damage the reputational image of departments, essential assets may become unavailable, privacy of personnel may be invaded, and service to the public cannot be delivered.
+
+It is worth noting that government departments in some instances neither have asset insurance, nor the luxury of liberal budgets which could be spent to replace items that are stolen or damaged (Govender et al., 2015: 18). Consequently, they are compelled to develop and review their departmental strategies in ways that focus on combating and preventing corruption. In addition to monetary and non-monetary losses to the respective departments, they may also incur reputational damages and weakening of essential sections within the departments, create dissatisfaction, labour action, legal action, lack of confidence and risk damage to the overall image and reputation of government (Govender et al., 2015: 52).
+
+Vulnerable departmental security programmes translate into cost-cutting by management and ineffective allocation of resources to the security divisions or sections of departments (Campbell-Young, 2016: 12). The STA should be implemented and then be monitored continuously for determining its effectiveness within the departments’ security strategies, and for the purpose of accurately calculating estimated residual threats and risks (Whitman & Mattord, 2015: 277).
+
+# 1.4 RATIONALE OF THE STUDY
+
+The rationale of the research per se refers to the motivation or justification of the research as explained by the underlying reasons for its undertaking (Denscombe, 2014: 52; Henning, Gravett & Van Rensburg, 2013: 27). Furthermore, the rationale of research is also determined by, and located within the problem being researched; as well as the specific questions posed by the researcher in relation to how the researcher generated enthusiasm for a specific topic, and why the research is being conducted (Babbie, 2017: 36; Maree, 2007: 28). These propositions for the study rationale are in the same mould with the view by Creswell (2013: 130), to whom the problem statement appears to be synonymous with the rationale for the study. Babbie and Mouton (2012:
+
+78) reflect that a clearly outlined research aim and well conducted research are observable in the research problem. According to Creswell (2014: 108), the problem statement is the main source of the study, which can facilitate exploration and provision of insight on the specific field that needs to be addressed and supported by credible evidence.
+
+# 1.5 DELIMITATIONS/ DELINEATIONS OF THE STUDY
+
+The delimitations/ delineations reflect the study’s extent of narrowed focus or scope in relation to specific research variables, such as participants, sites, or type of research design (Creswell, 2012: 29; Henning et al., 2013: 34). In this regard, Kumar (2019: 47) concurs, adding further that those delimitations are reflective of boundaries or delineations determined by the researcher to restrict or confine the scope or ‘reach’ of the study; that is, what is beyond the control of the researcher or outside of the area of his/ her interest. Kumar (2019: 47) describes the purpose of delimitations in research thus:
+
+• It guides the systematisation of the research path and related processes;
+• It enables a pre-determination of the financial and expenditure implications of the research; and
+• It lays out the study’s epistemological, theoretical and practice-related boundaries or focus.
+
+The present study is epistemologically confined to the concept of security threat assessment in government departments. Therefore, the research was only focused on exploring current efforts of government within the legislative, strategic and policy frameworks to assess the threats and risks that different national departments are facing. In this regard, provincial and local municipality level departments were not a primary focus due to the logistical and financial implications involved. Therefore, the researcher conducted the study only in Pretoria because it is geographically the place of residence of the researcher, which was cost-effective and saved time because all participants and national government departments are located in the capital city of the country (Pretoria). The researcher is aware that the incidents of theft, vandalism, sabotage, and cybercrime at National Key Points have increased in the past 10 years in strategic key points such as Parliament, Eskom, and Passenger Rail Agency of South Africa (PRASA) properties.
+
+The study is confined to only the qualitative research design approach and a restricted sample of security managers in selected government departments. Furthermore, the study excluded personnel employed in non-management levels at the selected government departments, and those occupying the same management level at stateowned enterprises, non-profit organisations, and private-sector organisations.
+
+# 1.6 AIM OF THE RESEARCH
+
+Denscombe (2014: 49) and Flick (2014: 28) mention that the aim of research refers to the general intention or goal of the researcher in undertaking a study, as well as the reasons allocated for such intentions. Furthermore, the aim of research derives from both the research topic and research problem, and also provides a broader framework for the methods of collecting and analysing the data relevant to the study (Daniel, 2012: 16). The aim of this study is: To critically review the implementation of the security threat assessment by a selection of government Department in Gauteng.
+
+It is on the basis of the above-stated aim that the researcher gained adequate knowledge and understanding concerning the existing counter-measures, their effectiveness, and reasons for their preference. The researcher’s ultimate intention is to formulate an effective threat and risk assessment model and strategy that will assist in identifying threats and enabling responsible officers to monitor implementation, compliance and reassess residual threats.
+
+# 1.7 RESEARCH OBJECTIVES
+
+Research objectives are derived from a particular research aim, and articulate the specific activities and processes undertaken to further dissemble or reduce the aim to its most irreducible components (Bak, 2013: 29; Crossman, 2019: 12). The research objectives are then articulated thus:
+
+• To explore and describe the scope of government’s Security Threat and Risk Assessment (STA) framework guidelines,
+• To explore and describe the role of other directorates when implementing the STA,
+• To explore and describe the role of management in supporting security programmes,
+• To explore and describe the process of appointing the Security Manager and the Security Committee, and their respective roles in threat assessment,
+• To explore and describe the government departments’ processes of anticipating and analysing the probabilities of loss and damage to State property,
+• To determine whether or not current layers of security measures are adequate and capable of preventing threats before they occur; and
+• To develop/ design an effective and implementable security threat assessment model or framework.
+
+# 1.8 RESEARCH QUESTIONS
+
+Maxwell (2013: 77) ascertains that research questions provide a precise picture of what is being studied, and warrants observation, measurement, and interrogation in order to illuminate broadly on the subject matter lodged or entailed in the research problem. The research questions also provide a focused direction on how the research objectives was approached for the overall study aim (Bak, 2013: 16). Each of the following research questions is linked sequentially to a corresponding research objective:
+
+• What is the scope of government’s Security Threat Assessment Framework (STAF) guidelines?
+• What is the role of other directorates when implementing the STAF?
+• What is the role of management in supporting the security programmes?
+• Which processes are followed in appointing the security managers and in the selection of security committee members, and what role do they play in threat assessment?
+• Which processes and procedures are in place in selected departments for anticipating and analysing probabilities of loss and damage to State property?
+• What are current layers of security measures?
+• Which possible solutions could be implemented to address the correct implementation of security threat assessment?
+
+# 1.9 PURPOSE OF THE RESEARCH
+
+It is the researcher’s view that, whereas the research aim is mostly researcherfocused, the research purpose could be viewed as fundamentally research-based. The researcher-based proposition entails that the researcher himself/ herself introduces his/ her predetermined intentions and ideas to resolve issues he/ she has observed in relation to a particular situation (state of affairs) or phenomenon. It is in this regard that Thomas (2013: 6-7) accentuates the circumstance of the researcher (i.e., researcherbased proposition) as carrying some potential influence on the reasons for the study being conducted.
+
+Therefore, the research-based proposition would entail that the already existing or prescribed research protocols become transcendental in directing or guiding the researcher’s intentions insofar as synchronising the research aim and questions on the one hand, and the data acquisition and analysis on the other. It is in the latter regard that researchers wholly agree with the assertion by Babbie (2017: 16) and Denscombe (2014: 27), that the fundamental purpose of research is to enhance understanding and knowledge of an investigated phenomenon by means of exploration, description, and analysis of the various facets of the very phenomenon’s manifestation.
+
+Furthermore, Corbin and Strauss (2015: 19) and Kumar (2019: 1) declare that research is conducted in a methodical and systematic manner with the purpose of discovering the underlying issues and matters to sustain professional growth and integrity. That is to say, research allows for the development of existing knowledge on sensible scientific findings (Merriam & Tisdell, 2016: 27). Given all of the above-stated views and versions of the research purpose, the proposed study adopts an integration of both the researcher- and research-focused perspectives in its construction of the purpose of this study. Accordingly, the research purpose in the context of this qualitative study is to explore, describe, evaluate (i.e., analyse), develop good practice, and to empower the researched by uncovering the underlying truth of the research problem. The various attributes of the purpose of this research are discussed overleaf.
+
+# 1.9.1 Exploration
+
+Exploration entails the protracted search for more information or details in response to the “what” question concerning the characteristics or attributes of a situation or phenomenon in which the researcher is interested (Badenhorst, 2014: 19; McDowell, 2013: 37). The researcher first conducted a detailed literature search to explore various perspectives regarding the phenomenon of threat or risk assessment in the security environments. Such exploration provided informed understanding and theoretic knowledge in relation to government departments or officials’ interpretation of policies and implementation of the STA in the interest of protecting the people (employees and citizens), and assets and information of the State (Smith & Brooks, 2013: 17). The research further explored various approaches for ensuring effective and efficient implementation of STA and define the role that Executive Management in the departments can play to support the Security Directorates.
+
+The researcher complemented the theoretical (literature-based) exploration with empirical (primary) data obtained from the sampled participants by means of the interview mode of enquiry (Troy, 2020: 27; Warren & Karner, 2015: 18). Cast in this mould, the exploratory aspect of the research purpose also conforms to the methodology of the study as shown collectively in its philosophical worldview (paradigm) and qualitative research design approach (see Section 1.10).
+
+# 1.9.2 Description
+
+In both its literal (denotative) and methodological contexts, description involves the provision of further details (explanation) concerning a situation or phenomenon (Thanh & Thanh, 2015: 26). According to Ritchie, Lewis, McNaughton and Ormston (2014: 55), the exploratory aspect of research precedes the descriptive aspect, but both aspects and processes should occur concurrently. As more information or details continue to be found through exploration, those details are explained in real-time to enhance their originality and undiluted authenticity. Therefore, whereas the exploratory aspect of the research purpose is concerned with the who, what and when questions, the descriptive domain then focuses mostly on the related why and how issues (Denscombe, 2014: 27).
+
+During the interview stages of the research process and finalisation of the findings, the researcher explained the responses of the participants and provide more details from literature that support or disagree with the obtained responses (Crossman, 2019: 1; Denscombe, 2014: 27). These responses should express the wide range of descriptions of the STA environment and the implementation thereof; as well as determining whether the existing security measures are effective to protect the departments’ critical infrastructure, and whether security managers are effectively implementing the counter-intelligence strategies to neutralise any potential or real threats.
+
+# 1.9.3 Evaluation of the Current Situation
+
+Evaluation entails a detailed scrutiny undertaken to facilitate the objective assessment and comparability of existing situations (Bordens & Abbott, 2014: 49; Denscombe, 2014: 27). The researcher reviewed and evaluated the existing security measures in the context of the departments’ current implementation of the STA. The focus of such review was on determining the extent of challenges faced, level of vulnerabilities, strengths and weaknesses, and any ameliorative initiatives that may be in existence.
+
+In the context of this study, the evaluation aspect is advantageous for its facilitation of comparing the current STAFs in various national, provincial, and local government departments with international best practices (South Africa, 1998: 12). Such a review trajectory further enabled the researcher’s detailed scrutiny of prevailing challenges faced by the organs of the State, and how other countries were able to resolve challenges of such verisimilitude (Antinyan et al., 2016: 1). The collective effect of the exploration, description and evaluation of the security threat assessment and existing studies on the STA environments will enhance the development of a framework for improving the security threat assessment environment in government departments. The latter is consistent with the last research objective in Section 1.6 of this research.
+
+# 1.9.4 Developing Good Practice
+
+Developing good practice is the forte of research, and underlines the extent of contribution, particularly to the individuals and departments that are directly involved or affected by the outcomes of the particular research (Bertram & Christiansen, 2014: 74). The aspect of “good practice” particularises the form and nature of benefit or contribution in terms of the security managers’ expected levels of understanding and knowledge pertinent to the field of security threat assessment and management for the better protection of State assets, people (staff and citizens), and information.
+
+The researcher’s foremost goal/ aim or concern is to resolve the problems outlined in the problem statement on the basis of credible and valid findings, conclusions and recommendations that will also contribute cogently to government departments to effectively and efficiently implement the STA. In that regard, the study reviewed the implementation of various international and local threat and risk assessment models to also identify any possible chasms in existing knowledge and experience.
+
+Given the above, the intention of the researcher is to apply new knowledge and develop good practices that will provide effective and implementable guidelines and procedures for the STA at all levels of government. In addition, the information collected from this study will contribute to understanding by the security personnel and senior management of their crucial role in supporting security policies and procedures.
+
+# 1.9.5 Empowerment of those Being Researched
+
+Empowerment of those being researched implies the extent to which the study makes a practical contribution to the participants’ improvement in the performance of their official duties in the realm of security risk or threat assessment. Generally, empowerment is about capacity, which is essentially developed or enhanced, amongst others, through knowledge, opportunities and skills (Adams, 2015: 21; Raacke & Raacke, 2012: 33).
+
+The findings, conclusions, and recommendations will enhance understanding by security personnel, senior managers, and security policymakers in government departments of implementation of the STA, as well as world best practices in the sphere of detection, identification, and deterrence of internal and external threat and risk assessment during the execution of operations. Such knowledge and understanding will further develop the capacity of the relevant role players on salient factors such as aggressors’ modus operandi and operational security (Pinnock, 2020: 12). Specific to this study, the role players, or those being researched and empowered refer to the executive/ senior management, security managers, counter-intelligence officers, and security officers.
+
+# 1.10 DEFINITION OF KEY THEORETICAL CONCEPTS
+
+Defining key theoretical concepts is helpful for accurate description and understanding of the study’s foundational terms in order to distinguish their literal (denotative), contextual, scientific, and practice-related meanings and implications (Anderson, 2010; Daniel, 2012: 77). The following alphabetically listed terms/ concepts are also thematically associated with the study’s core aspects as captured in the research topic.
+
+# 1.10.1 Exploit
+
+The term, ‘exploit’ generally implies making use of something for the purpose of gaining a benefit or an advantage (Taylor, 2008: 3). In this study, the security and threat assessment systems within government departments may be taken advantage of, by internal and/ or external threat agents aspiring to disrupt government services, destroy State assets or illegally gain access to secret or classified information to benefit themselves or their organisational principals (Whitman & Mattord, 2015, 12). Exposure or vulnerability of departments can also be exploited through documentary processes or digitally through the sophisticated software created by the aggressors.
+
+# 1.10.2 Impact
+
+Taylor et al. (2008: 3) describe ‘impact’ as an outcome or effect. In this study, impact denotes the effects, outcomes and implications of security incidences or breaches occurring due to non-implementation of, non-compliance to risk/ threat assessment frameworks provided for government departments in the STA.
+
+# 1.10.3 Information Security
+
+Govender (2018: 13) describes information security as any legal measures intended for protecting the integrity, safety, and confidentiality of information whose illegal availability could most likely harm the image and mandate of government departments. Taylor et al. (2008: 1) and Whitman and Mattord (2015: 10) also confirm that information security is intended to thwart the unauthorised disclosure or transmission of any protected information or assets stored or processed through the custody of the State through policy; education, training, and awareness; as well as technological means (Whitman & Mattord, 2015: 10).
+
+# 1.10.4 Risk
+
+Whitman and Mattord (2015: 13) define risk as the likelihood of harm, loss, or damage. In this study, the departments should reduce the likelihood of harm or loss in tandem with the amount and nature of damage that they can tolerate. Taylor (2008: 3) describes risk as the likelihood of the exploitation of vulnerability to a threat directed at a group or individual asset, and thereby causing harm to the departments.
+
+# 1.10.5 Threat
+
+Bayne (2020: 6) describes a threat as anything that can obstruct, destruct or interrupt a service or valued items. These threats can be separated into elements of people and non-living things. The process of analysing threats includes every element of risk that could possibly occur. Whitman and Mattord (2015: 13) allude that a threat is anything that signifies harm to assets and could be direct or indirect. The process of analysing threats could include a class of objects, people, and natural events. Whitman and Mattord (2015: 13) make an example of an information system that is not protected, and could be directly attacked by hackers, whereas an indirect threat example could relate to a severe storm that damages physical infrastructure and its contents. Govender (2018: 13) describes a threat to security as any individual or collective entities inspired to commit acts of crime, unlawful use of violence and intimidation, infiltrating or performing harmful acts that create a loss or damage to assets. In this study, threats relate to internally or externally induced circumstances intended to disrupt or cause damage to the normal functioning of the government department.
+
+# 1.10.6 Threat Assessment
+
+Black (2010: 471) describes threat assessment as a mechanism by security professionals, and law enforcement agencies to determine or measure the readiness of public and private institutions to proactively detect and deter possible risks. These threat assessment mechanisms are very distinct and may be in the form of complete written documents or digital or electronic systems and programmes that focus on averting threats before they occur. Allen (2016: 37) alludes to some important steps involved when conducting threat assessment. The first step is concerned with evaluating asset attraction and a wholesome risk assessment. The process is meant to provide value to the assets that are targeted and to discourage potential or actual aggressors. The assessment is conducted by the operators of that targeted assets. In this study, security officers could make use of these threat assessment procedures and processes when they perform their duties.
+
+# 1.10.7 Vulnerability
+
+Govender (2018: 13) describes vulnerability as any deficiency or weakness that exposes assets to exploitation by any aggressor. Meanwhile, Whitman and Mattord (2015: 13) describe vulnerability as a weakness or fault in security controls that could invite or attract attacks or damage to assets. An example of vulnerability could be a system port that is left unprotected, or a door that is not locked and attracts hackers to attack the computers of government departments.
+
+# 1.11 RESEARCH METHODOLOGY
+
+De Vaus (2013: 68) and Ravitch and Riggan (2012: 12) explain that research methodology is a foundational framework in terms of which the overall planning, design, and strategies pertinent to the research processes and procedures are managed. These processes integrate the research problem, aim, objectives, and questions on the one hand, as well as the collection, analysis and interpretation on the other. Such a continuum logically allocates a modicum of structure and coherence to the study and includes the philosophical worldview or paradigm of the study, the research approach, design and methods (Anderson, 2014: 52; Maxwell, 2013: 19).
+
+# 1.11.1 Philosophical Worldview of the Study
+
+A philosophical worldview or perspective premises mainly on a researcher’s belief and value system, assumptions, speculations, abstract ideas, and perceptions of reality, nature, and knowledge (Anderson, 2014: 52; Mouton, 2014: 29). There are basically three fundamental or seminal philosophical worldviews (paradigms or perspectives) from which other offshoots are cognate (Bless, Higson-Smith & Sithole, 2014: 15; Noble & Heale, 2019: 12). These are: positivism, anti-positivism, and pragmatism. Whereas the proposed study predominantly adopts the anti-positivist philosophical perspective, the positivist and pragmatic perspectives are briefly referred to, for context.
+
+# 1.11.1.1 The Positivist Worldview
+
+The positivist worldview upholds that knowledge and understanding of the environment, the human condition, science, truth and reality is only possible through the application of objectivity (Creswell, 2014: 6). Such a perspective assumes that the researcher is able to observe, know and interpret situations truthfully only through detachment or being neutral from the situation being observed, studied or resolved. As such, the perspectives of the participants or those being studied are viewed as fraught with subjective experiences that will ‘cloud’ or conflate their judgement.
+
+Therefore, statistically generated evidence (e.g., questionnaires) is viewed as the supreme form and source of truth and knowledge (Marshall & Rossman, 2016: 37; Raacke & Raacke, 2012: 29).
+
+For the purpose of this study, the positivist paradigm was not deemed relevant since the study is neither predominantly statistical nor quantitatively inclined, except for the relatively minor instance of quantification of the prospective participants’ demographic or bibliographic profiles.
+
+# 1.11.1.2 Anti-Positivist World View
+
+Anti-positivism entails a conglomerate of worldviews or philosophical perspectives that include constructionism, interpretivism, phenomenology, ethnography, and the ecological perspective (Mouton, 2014: 47; Welman, Kruger & Mitchell, 2012: 6). This motley of paradigms is cohesively linked or ‘united’ by the extent of their collective interstitiality in respect of “lived experience” as the foundational primary and most reliable and authentic account of the multiple realities of a phenomenon.
+
+1.11.1.2.1 Constructionism and associated paradigmatic variants The constructionist paradigm upholds that individual construct or develop experiences and information about themselves and their environment through social cooperation to which they are subjectively and emotionally or sentimentally attached (Tavakoli, 2012: 99). As such, the significant component of constructionism is its acknowledgment of socially developed or constructed realities and truths in specific settings and contexts, as opposed to the rigidity and objectivity of statistically inclined truth (Silverman, 2014: 26). The context- or setting-specific nature of constructionism immediately brings to fore, the effects and relevance of ecology (naturalistic environment or habitat) and ethnography (cultural factors) as influential factors in both the construction and development of truth-knowledge. Collectively, the constructivistecology-ethnography philosophical matrix/ milieu renders this philosophical paradigm relevant and applicable to this study.
+
+In this research, the fundamental goal is to understand the environment in which the participants work, as well as their views about the state of the STA in respect of its implementation capacity in the detection and deterrence of actual and possible threats against the assets and information in the custodial care and protection of the State. Through the interviews, the researcher envisaged the construction and development of the findings and new knowledge on account of the sampled participants’ experiences, perspectives, and perceptions concerning the (in)efficacy of threat or risk assessment in government departments as their primary ecological setting or habitat in which they have developed or even instituted certain organisational cultures as employees (David & Brydon-Miller, 2014: 26; SALII, 2018: 3).
+
+1.11.1.2.2 Interpretivism and associated variant paradigms
+In the qualitative research context, the interpretive worldview posits that relevant information sought for the purpose of addressing the research problem and its associated research questions is best obtainable from the world or lived experiences of the participants through their own words and discernment (Anderson, 2014: 55; Thanh & Thanh, 2015: 24). In this regard, the most distinguishable factor of the interpretivist perspective is that individuals and their translations, understanding, implications, and recognitions are viewed as the essential information sources (Mason, 2014: 56).
+
+Furthermore, the interpretivist tradition views the individual’s impression of reality and the world as constituted by a series of subjective human connections, implications of perceptions, meetings and words (Anderson, 2014: 55). In addition, interpretivist researchers search for strategies that enable them to adequately understand the connection between individuals and their condition, and the part in making the social texture of which they are part (Thanh & Thanh, 2015: 260).
+
+The interpretive perspective is linked to the phenomenological context in social research, based on the extent that the participants attach their own meanings to their own experiences in their own environment and in their own words. Accordingly, the interpretive paradigm and its associated phenomenological variant are deemed suitable for this research as they permit the researcher to view the world of government departments’ threat assessment capabilities through the discernments of the participants. The researcher then utilised the interview-based encounters with the participants to further develop better understanding of the meanings and reasons for their idiosyncratic interpretations of their world and its material circumstances and conditions.
+
+# 1.11.1.3 Pragmatic World View
+
+The term, ‘pragmatic’ is provenant from the Greek word 'prag-mein' and 'pragma', both of which mean ‘to do', and is also indistinguishable from 'practice' with the emphasis on what is/ has been done (results); in contrast with thought, intentions, or goals (Mouton, 2014: 8). According to Bless et al. (2015: 16), the logic about pragmatic reality of the world is not completely objective but is based on shared social information residing among communities. Denscombe (2014: 148) further clarifies that the pragmatic paradigm is viewed as a blended approach of strategies and techniques that recognises both subjective (qualitative) and objective (quantitative) methodologies. Accordingly, Denscombe (2014: 148) further intimates that pragmatism embraces the view that knowledge is not static and should be informed through practical or workable outcomes.
+
+Denscombe (2014: 148) and Patil (2019: 11) allude further that research-based enquiry should test what works, since there is no absolute, single, best logical strategy and approach that is inherently able or qualified to deliver information through its own methodologies alone. Knowledge is viewed as temporary, what is known as truth today may not be viewed as such later. Therefore, pragmatism embraces the integration of quantitative and qualitative research for assorted information and methods for addressing the exploration, description and analysis of phenomena without the rigidity and confinement of a single approach or strategy (Hammond & Wellington, 2013: 126; Rees, 2016: 109).
+
+The proposed study is predominantly reliant on participants’ construction and interpretation of their own multiple realities and experiences, which find maximum expression through the qualitative research approach (Mouton, 2014: 37). In that regard, the pragmatic world view and its emphasis on mixed-methods research is viewed as not ‘fit for purpose’ in this study
+
+# 1.11.2 Research Approach and Design
+
+De Vaus (2013: 9) and Mouton (2014: 37) submit that the research design is a framework of planned strategies that guide and direct approaches for ensuring that data collected provides clear answers to the researcher's questions in response to the research problem. Creswell (2014: 3) adds further that the research approach and design is mostly defined and chosen according to the collective influence of the researcher's own experience, nature of the research topic and research problem; as well as the study’s identified targeted audiences. Accordingly, the researchers’ choice and decisions on the research design and its approach should consider their philosophical world view and assumptions, in conjunction with the specific research methodologies or procedures that translate their philosophical world view and assumptions into actionable outcomes (Hammond & Wellington, 2013: 126; Rees, 2016: 109).
+
+Bless et al. (2013: 15) and De Vaus (2013: 9) confirm that qualitative, quantitative, and mixed-method approaches constitute three of the most commonly used research designs preferred by researchers. The choice of the current study’s research design and approach was influenced by the constructivist-interpretivist philosophical world view as stated in Sub-section 1.10.1.2 of this research study. Therefore, this research adopted a qualitative research approach using an exploratory and evaluation research design. For functional purposes, the researcher conducted interviews with security managers in the SA government departments. Notwithstanding its qualitative trajectory, both the quantitative and mixed-methods approaches are briefly highlighted below for the purpose of contextualisation.
+
+# 1.11.2.1 Qualitative Research Approach
+
+The qualitative research approach focuses principally on the prosaic representation of information and data derived from the lived experiences of the participants as the most important providers or sources of such information (Bordens & Abbott, 2014: 231). Furthermore, the qualitative research approach is amenable to the constructivistinterpretive philosophical paradigm and its complete reliance on participant-centred construction and interpretation of reality.
+
+As opposed to the inflexibility of quantitative approaches, the qualitative research approach is advantageous for its facilitation of onsite visits by the researcher in engagement with the participants (Bhat, 2020: 36). The proposed study adopted the qualitative research approach because of its allowance of the researcher to obtain information about threats and risks in government departments by interviewing relevant stake holders in those departments (Flick, 2014: 28; Yin, 2018: 8).
+
+Furthermore, the researcher opted for the qualitative research approach for the flexibility with which the aspects exploration, description, and analysis are enabled in respect of the views of the participants concerning the state of security and threat assessment in government departments. The qualitative research approach is deemed appropriate due to its grounding on empiricism, which adopts a flexible, open, and unstructured approach to scientific investigation aimed at exploring diversity of information sources and methods (Kumar, 2019: 14; Yin, 2018: 9).
+
+# 1.12 DATA COLLECTION
+
+Data collection is the basic material that provides the basis from which researchers work (Durrheim, 2016: 51). It is in this context that data collection refers to the systematic process by which relevant information is obtained from different sources for its ultimate conversion into meaningful data relevant to addressing the research problem and its associated research questions (Dudovskiy, 2018: 19; Gravetter & Forzano, 2010: 27). Table 1.1 overleaf is indicative of the different data collection methods and procedures.
+
+Table 1.1: Data collection methods, sources and procedures
+
+
+
Method
Sources
Procedure
Document review
Reports, newsletters, publications research issue
Read all materials, documents and descriptive statistics related to the core
Interviews Observations
Primary participants Audio recorded semi-structured interviews, Secondary participants
Transcribed interviews of participants'
Observation of
interviews Took notes and video-recorded the
Exit interviews
participants' interactions
observations by informed consent
+
+(Source: Researcher’s own compilation from various sources)
+
+In the context of this study, 4 (four) data collection methods were implemented, namely: literature review, documentary review, in-depth interviews, and personal experience of the researcher. Collectively, these methods reflect a triangulation of secondary and primary forms of data to be collected for the study (Warren & Karner, 2015: 17).
+
+# 1.12.1 Literature Review
+
+Wagner, Kawulich and Garner (2012: 271) report that a literature review is an analytical identification and interpretation of the consulted sources of information, received during the search for relevant materials addressing both the research topic and its related research problem. Corbin and Strauss (2015: 49) elaborate further that the review of literature should entail a systematic process in the search, identification, and processing of scholarship on the subject matter being researched. The review of literature is important in that it exposes the researcher to the most recent theoretical and methodological developments, current trends and practices, internationally and locally any shortcomings in the researched field; as well as lessons that could be learned to improve practice in the researched field (Walliman, 2015: 107).
+
+The researcher conducted the literature review by gathering, assessing, and analysing relevant publications that relate to the research topic, the research problem, and the research questions. The researcher synthesised and summarised the sources by providing an overview of the primary opinions of each source (Thomas, 2013: 36). In addition to paraphrasing other studies, the researcher analysed the reviewed information by interpreting and discussing the importance of the findings in relation to the literature. The researcher also evaluated existing studies on threat and risk assessment by mentioning the strength and weaknesses as obtained from these sources in order to obtain more understanding on the state of security in government departments.
+
+In his protracted literature review strategy, the researcher utilised the internet, Google Scholar, the University of South Africa (UNISA) library, relevant search engines and databases to access a range of sources such as dissertations, journals, theses, academic books, conference proceedings, and articles that relate to the research topic (Flick, 2014: 27). The researcher did not distance the study from other researchers but demonstrate further insight by comparing the findings of their studies. The researcher also collected information from international studies that address security threats and risks in both the public and private security environments. Prior to undertaking the study, the researcher read books in management security information, which are accessible to security managers and risk managers employed in government departments and entities.
+
+Furthermore, the researcher delineated the study according to key concepts such as risk assessment, threat assessment, and others mentioned in Section 1.5 of this research. Such an orientation allowed the researcher to formulate various contexts and thematically coherent headings in order to develop a coherent structure of the study (Welman et al., 2012: 16), including international models that enhanced the researcher’s intention to design the most suitable model for the South African context, which is consistent with the last research objective as articulated in Section 1.6.
+
+# 1.12.2 Documentary Review
+
+Documentary review entails the systematic search, identification and processing of written policy related texts and legal documents pertinent to the research topic (Dunn, 2013: 18; Tight, 2017: 44). Documentary sources are viewed as mainly non-academic in nature, but directly affects all levels of government, such as Section 209 of the Constitution of the Republic of South Africa (RSA), 1996, which provides for establishment and control of intelligence services in the Republic. The Constitution further makes provision for the limitations to individual rights under Section 36. The researcher investigated the Public Service Regulations, 2001 (Part VII, Section B (1)(F), which is a policy imperative for security checks and clearance or vetting of all employees only where the duties attached to their posts necessitate Such a course of action.
+
+By its nature, the STA is a counter-intelligence tool, and the researcher has the responsibility to look at the National Strategic Intelligence Act 39 of 1994 as amended by Act 67 of 2002. In an amendment to the regulation affected in 2002, an obligation is placed on every employee to comply with the Minimum Information Security Standard (1996), also known as the MISS Document. Because of the physical nature of STA, the researcher further reviewed the Minimum Physical Security Standards (MPSS) which was published by the Government Sector Security Council (GSSC) in 2009 regarding parastatal facilities, government buildings, and national key points (South Africa, 1980: 1). The GSSC is a multi-sectoral committee chaired by the Ministry of Police and includes the National Intelligence Agency and representatives from various regulatory agencies and industry associations.
+
+# 1.12.3 Interviews
+
+Interviews are basically the encapsulation of focused dialogues or conversations between the researcher and the participants on specific aspects of the research problem (Guest, Namey & Mitchell, 2013: 4). Interviews could be semi-structured, structured, or unstructured; physical or virtual; face-to-face, telephonic or by email; individual or in focus groups (Creswell, 2014: 191). Unlike the quantitative data collection instruments such as questionnaires and surveys, interviews are advantageous in that they permit the researcher to obtain first-hand information in realtime (Durrheim & Painter, 2016: 111).
+
+# 1.12.3.1 Semi-structured Interviews
+
+The researcher compiled semi-structure qualitative questionnaire which provided direction to the participants and allowed them to express their experience whiles responding to the questions being asked (Anderson & Poole, 2014: 219). Moreover, Haven and Van Grootel (2019: 232) allude that semi-structured interviews allow for the participants to develop ideas and communicate freely with the researcher concerning the specific questions asked by the researcher. The approach is more flexible in terms of order of questions and how the subject matter unfolds during the interviews. Adams (2015: 493) mentions that semi-structured interviews are sublimely suited for a number of valuable assignments, especially when a number of the openended questions require follow-up questions.
+
+Researchers should particularly consider utilising semi-structured interviews if they need to ask probing, open-ended questions on topics that the participants are not comfortable to answer in their peers’ presence (Flick, 2020: 82). The researcher should already have a topic for discussion during the planning and preparations for the interviews (Badenhorst, 2014: 43). Additionally, the researcher should have a choice of informants, authorisation, and the venue to conduct the interviews (Denscombe, 2011: 180-181).
+
+Part of the STA is physical, which necessitates that those participants should be observed at their place of work to check their attitudes towards security of the departments. This allowed them to talk openly about issues of security threat assessment in an environment where they are comfortable. The researcher gathered information by means of a set of questionnaire checklist serving as the preferred instrument in this regard. By its nature, the STA may address information that is regarded as sensitive. The face-to-face approach was appropriate, where participants may not want to talk about such issues in a group situation (Dudovskiy, 2018: 37; Noble & Heale, 2019: 39).
+
+In circumstance where a researcher is not able to conduct face-to-face interviews with the participants, telephone or internet-based interviews are deemed relevant. The researcher agrees with Anderson (2014: 219) that the current situation with the COVID-19 necessitates such interviews, with most professionals conducting their official meetings through platforms such as ZOOM, Microsoft-Teams, and Blue Jeans.
+
+Web or internet-based interviews are easy to conduct, and are not time-consuming, they are cheaper compared to travelling, and they allow the researcher to access participants asynchronously for anyone in the world who has access to these platforms or even a cell phone (Anderson, 2014: 219; Leedy & Ormrod, 2014: 197). Researchers worldwide are now using the participant observation method (ethnography) to obtain personal and environmentally induced experiences of the participants. The researcher is a custodian of STA and works with a group of security specialists and security managers on day-to-day basis, which is a participant observation advantage for the researcher becoming a member of the group being studied in order to collect data and comprehend the culture and behaviour of the participants in their organisational habitat (Merriam & Tisdell, 2016: 105; Nobel & Heale, 2019: 47). During the participant observation process, the researcher assumes the role of a subjective participant and objective observer who does not interfere with the research proceedings.
+
+On the other hand, in the event that COVID-19 restrictions became inhibitive to the participant observation method because of the number of participants conducting the STA, the researcher did not apply the mixed-methods approach in this study (Merriam & Tisdell, 2016: 105; Noble & Heale, 2019: 44). The latter approach is viewed as mitigating the weaknesses found in single-approach methods (McDowell, 2013: 5). This allowed the researcher to formulate a qualitative research questionnaire and email to the participants for their completion. However, the researcher acknowledges the possible shortcoming associated with sending the questions to the participants. For instance, in the event that the identified participants take long to respond, and some do not respond to the request at all after their initial consent to be involved in the study.
+
+# 1.12.4 Personal Experience
+
+Personal experience relates to the extent to which the researcher’s own professional background and career experience collectively contribute to his/her involvement in the study (Dunn, 2013: 35; Gravetter & Forzano, 2010: 48). The researcher is a Counterintelligence Officer with an extensive professional background of training in Criminal and Corporate Investigation. The researcher is also a qualified Technical Surveillance Counter Measure (TSCM) Operator and Security Adviser through the State Security Agency: Security Management and Advisor Course 1/2019.
+
+The researcher is also a member of African Association of Threat Assessment Professionals (AFATAP). The researcher joined the SAPS in 2002, and worked in various units within the organisation, including SAPS Training Academy, Crime Investigation, Crime Intelligence Unit, under Counterintelligence. The researcher is a Safety and Security, Sector Education & Training Authority (SASSETA) registered Assessor and Moderator, and he worked as Education Training Development Practitioner (ETDP) at SAPS Academy as an instructor from 2005 until 2009.
+
+In 2010, the researcher obtained his National Diploma in Police through Tshwane University of Technology (TUT) and majored in Investigation and Policing. In 2013, the researcher enrolled and passed his Baccalaureus Technologiae degree with the University of South Africa. In 2014, the researcher was given an opportunity to enhance his knowledge in the Public Service Act by the Department of International Relations and Cooperation, as a Vetting Field Investigator at the level of Assistant Director and gained sufficient experience working directly within the SSA and aiding the South African Missions abroad. Part of his duties included assisting Operational Security and Mission Security Sections and conducting threat risk assessment nationally. During this period (2014 to 2019), the researcher has worked with different partner departments and has realised that most departments do not have an approved security policy and do not effectively implement the STA.
+
+In 2019, the researcher graduated for his MTech degree in Forensic Investigations. In 2020, the researcher joined the City of Johannesburg Group Forensic and Investigation Services on the same level of Assistant Director, under the Minimum Information Security Standard Office. The researcher is currently responsible for providing security advice to the City of Johannesburg regarding protection of assets, people, and information in the custody of the city. In addition, the researcher conducts STA for City facilities, safety of councillors and their residences in consultation with the SAPS and SSA. On the whole, the researcher has realised that the issue of STA implementation is also existent in local government structures across the country.
+
+# 1.13 POPULATION AND SAMPLING
+
+A population in a research study relates to the larger group or wider pool from which the researcher’s predetermined sampling components are collected, and on whose basis the findings was be generalised (Asiaman, Mensah & Oteng-Abayie, 2017: 1612; Durrheim & Painter, 2016: 133). Bless et al. (2015: 162) elaborate further and specify that the ‘larger group’ or ‘wider pool’ actually refers to the entire set of units or items, people or things, processes, systems, events, or activities in which the researcher is interested, for the purpose of determining specific attributes or units of analysis. Moreover, the specific attributes are then referred to as representative characteristics which provided direction on the process of including or excluding participants for any involvement in the study (Bak, 2013: 33).
+
+Based on the above-cited propositions, the ‘pool’, population or larger group of this study consists of security managers; vetting managers; cybercrime managers; information security managers; physical security managers; and international practitioners or professionals in the security environment.
+
+# 1.13.1 Target Population
+
+Asiaman et al. (2017: 1612) and Daniel (2012: 57) state that the target population is the sub-group of participants possessing all, or most of the characteristics or qualities of significance that positively impact the goal of the research and assist in identification of the research problem’s main variables and its resolution. Furthermore, the target population serves as the representative sub-group on account of the homogeneity (as opposed to heterogeneity) of characteristics that are already possessed by the larger group. Daniel (2012: 57) and Ritchie et al. (2014: 47) illuminate further that the target population is distinguishable by the following six attributes, which should be taken into consideration as they are vital elements to selecting a sample:
+
+• Size of the population – an expansive population is helpful for common sense reason and to select sampling (permits in-depth investigation).
+• Population homogeneity – it enhances sample selection when the characteristic of the population is similar.
+• Population accessibility – when the researcher has easy access to the targeted population and there is an element of willingness, it benefits the research process and the study.
+• Population spatial distribution – the location of the participants is one of the most important things to consider before the sampling commences, because it has financial implications, and it is time consuming.
+• Population destructibility – expansive populace to permit guiding and deliver space for the most ideal chances for the researcher to conduct the sampling.
+• Population continuous production – in the production processes and manufacturing, a sampling method is appropriate.
+
+Based on the above-cited propositions by Daniel (2012: 57) and Ritchie et al. (2014: 47), Table 1.2 below provides a clearer context of the study’s target population or sample size.
+
+Table 1.2: Target population and related sampling variables
+
+
+
Target Population
Sample Size
Total
A: Security Managers
8
8
B: Vetting Managers
8
8
C: Cybercrime Managers
5
5
D: Information Security Managers
4
4
E: Physical Security Managers
5
5
Total
30
30
+
+It is evident that the target population $(N=30)$ ) is by far smaller in number compared to the study’s population across all government departments throughout the country’s nine provinces. However, small sample sizes are still helpful in situations where data saturation was the primary concern than the numerical involvement of prospective participants (Crouch & McKenzie, 2006: 18; Gravetter & Forzano, 2010: 46).
+
+# 1.13.2 Sampling
+
+Sampling is the deliberate or intentional selection of a smaller group of individuals, objects, or units to represent the larger pool or population from which they were selected (Anderson, 2014: 225). Meanwhile, Dudovskiy (2018: 28) adds further that sampling is a systematic process for selecting those population members who will eventually be included in the research study’s empirical processes. It is not always possible to directly involve many or large populations of interest to the study’s accomplishment of its overall goal or intentions (Warren & Karner, 2015: 64), which necessitates that appropriate sampling techniques or strategies should be devised for the singular purpose of obtaining suitable samples from the original or corresponding populations. Figure 1.1 (overleaf) is indicative of the sampled participants (target group) and sampling strategies used for their selection.
+
+
+Figure1.1: Target population and methods of sampling used in the study
+
+Whereas Table 1.2 highlights the different sub-groups or sample categories to be sampled, Figure 1.1 further indicates the different sampling methods that were utilised in the selection of the eventual target group.
+
+# 1.13.2.1 Sampling Strategies/ Methods
+
+Two sampling strategies or methods were used for selecting or sampling prospective participants in the study, namely: purposive/ judgemental sampling and simple random sampling. It is worth noting that the researcher was not personally involved in the selection of participants in order to eliminate any real or imagined considerations of bias, especially that the participants were known to him (Lanier & Briggs, 2014: 223; Thomas, 2013: 16).
+
+# 1.13.2.1.1 Purposive/ Judgmental sampling
+
+Purposive or judgemental sampling is an example of the non-probability type of sampling, in terms of which participants’ chances of selection to the study are uncertain or not probable (Lanier & Briggs, 2014: 223). Other examples of nonprobability sampling are convenience or availability sampling, quota sampling, cluster sampling, and snowball sampling (Walliman, 2015: 108). Purposive sampling is basically a sampling strategy in terms of which the researcher’s own judgment is the primary standard for choosing potential participants (Dudovskiy, 2018; 49). Judgemental sampling is viewed as suitable for qualitative research, since it also allows the researcher to identify and determine the well experienced participants with rich information (Hennink, Hutter & Bailey, 2020: 27).
+
+While exercising their own judgement, it is equally important that researchers should be optimally mindful of the potential for bias since they are familiar with what they require, and the participants may be known to them (Hennink et al., 2020: 27). In Section 1.12.4, the researcher has adequately demonstrated knowledge and experience in the investigated subject matter, as well as familiarity with all facets of the security threat assessment environment, including the most directly involved personnel in this regard. It is specifically against such background that the researcher ensured that he is not influenced by personal knowledge or professional relationships when selecting Security Managers who have completed the Basic Vetting Course, the State Security Agency’s Security Management and Adviser Course, and have National Qualification Framework (NQF) 6. These participants were also expected to be fluent in communication and willing to express themselves convincingly and clearly with regard to security assessment issues.
+
+Based on the above, and as indicated in Figure 1.1, the purposive sampling method was used for Sample A (the 8 (eight) security managers) and Sample E (the 5 (five) physical security managers).
+
+# 1.13.2.1.2 Simple random sampling
+
+Simple random sampling is an example of the probability type of sampling, according to which participants’ chances or opportunities for involvement in the study are probable or certain (guaranteed) (Kumar, 2019; 117; Walliman, 2015: 119). Probability sampling examples include stratified random sampling and multi-stage sampling. The simple random sampling strategy itself derives from the theory of randomisation and its emphasis on the irregularity of occurrence of patterns in any situation (Almalki, 2016: 288; Burrel, 2017: 12). Therefore, the idea of “probability” and “random-ness” are central to implementation of this sampling strategy.
+
+As shown in Figure 1.1, the simple random sampling technique was used for selecting participants in Sample B (the 8 (eight) vetting managers), Sample C (the 5 (five) cybercrime managers), and Sample D (the 4 (four) information security managers). Similar to the criteria applied for the selection of both Sample A and Sample E, the selection of participants in Sample B, C, and D was focusing on security managers who have completed the Basic Vetting Course, the SSA’s Security Management and Adviser Course, and have National Qualification Framework (NQF) 6. These participants are also expected to be fluent in communication and willing to express themselves convincingly and clearly with regard to security assessment issues.
+
+In essence, all participants were chosen because of their educational background and professional expertise that makes them the holders of the information required for the study. The participants’ experience is very valuable for in-depth understanding of how the government departments implement the STA and other methods they have for neutralising potential threats. In addition to their experience, their availability and freewill participation in an insightful manner. In contrast, probabilistic or random sampling is used to make certain the generalizability of findings by minimising the possibility for bias in choice and impact of recognised and unknown variables (Burrel, 2017: 13; Denscombe, 2014: 48).
+
+# 1.14 DATA ANALYSIS
+
+Bryman (2012: 566), Durrheim and Painter (2016: 48) refer to data analysis as the systematic post-data gathering sorting, organising, and reducing data to a meaningful and manageable size, as well as looking for ways to reconstruct such data in order to interpret it when answering the research questions. According to Wagner et al. (2012: 269), data analysis also occurs when previously published information is compared to current data on the same topic. The accumulated information should be complete, rich, and broken down for findings based on careful analysis.
+
+According to Bordens and Abbott (2014: 58) and Dudovskiy (2018: 47), qualitative data analysis could take any of the following five categories: content analysis, narrative analysis, discourse analysis framework analysis, and grounded theory analysis. Content analysis involves the processing of content information collected from an information source (Bordens & Abbott, 2014: 58). Narrative analysis involves the researcher’s reconstruction of stories presented by participants, considering the context of every case and the exceptional experiences of each participant. On the other hand, discourse analysis involves the processing conversations, while, framework analysis involves familiarisation, framework identification, mapping, coding, charting, and interpretation. Meanwhile, grounded theory evolves with the analysis of qualitative data in a single case and formulating a theory. Additional cases could be examined to determine any contributions to development of a theory (Dudovskiy, 2018: 47). The following three-step analytic trajectory was pursued, as proposed by Dudovskiy (2018: 18-19):
+
+Step 1: Code developing and application: Coding relates to the categorisation of data. A ‘code’ could be a phrase representing a main idea (theme) and are assigned significant titles. Non-quantifiable aspects such as behaviours, events, meanings, and activities can be coded in relation to the following three types:
+
+• open coding: the preliminary organisation of unprocessed data for making sense, such as the transcription of the raw interview-based information for initial categorisation;
+• axial coding: cross-referencing and linkage of categories of codes, such as synthesis and integration of recurrent themes emanating from various interview questions; and
+• selective coding: cohesive formulation of the narrative by connecting the categories, such as finalisation of data from individual themes to global themes.
+
+Step 2: Identifying themes, patterns, and relationships. As opposed to quantitative methods, there are no universally applicable relevant strategies to develop findings in qualitative records analysis. Analytical and fundamental questioning capabilities of the researcher establishes a massive position for information evaluation in qualitative studies.
+
+Therefore, qualitative studies are not generally amenable to repeatability of identical results (Crossman, 2019: 7). However, there are methods of interpretation that can be used for common patterns, themes, and relationships within the participant responses in relation to codes detailed in the preceding stage (Dudovskiy, 2018: 19). More specifically, the most commonly used and effective methods of qualitative data interpretation include the following:
+
+• Repeating words and phrases: involves the scanning of primary data for words and phrases that were frequently used by participants, including those considered emotional;
+• Comparing primary and secondary sources: the empirical findings are compared with the reviewed literature findings for discussion of differences observed,
+• Searching for missing information: those critical aspects not mentioned by participants should be discussed,
+• Cross-triangulation: comparing the primary research results to phenomena from various perspectives and explaining their differences and similarities.
+
+Step 3: Data summary: This closing stage is characterised by linking the findings of the research to the purpose and objectives of the self-same research study. The ‘authorial voice’ of the researcher should be prominent in articulating various points of views and contradictions from the findings.
+
+The researcher methodically searched and arranged the interview responses, observation notes, or other non-textual materials that were accumulated to increase understanding of the researched phenomenon (Bless et al., 2014: 46). The researcher relied on extensive interaction with the security managers and expect to find unexpected and unanticipated information, which is not viable in the quantitative method. This approach assisted in analysing the security manager’s perceptions on the implementation of the STA and their experiences in the field of counterintelligence and security services (Thoka, 2020: 27). The above-stated three-fold analytic trajectory assisted the researcher in discovering the perspectives and experiences of participants, as well as perceiving the constructions and meanings they apportion to difficulties associated with implementation of proper security measures in their departments.
+
+# 1.15 METHODS TO ENSURE TRUSTWORTHINESS OF THE STUDY
+
+Ary et. al. (2019: 442) proffer that trustworthiness is a demonstration of the precision, honesty, and validity of the findings. Trustworthiness is also described as the measure by which the study and its findings could be judged as having established trust and confidence within the research community (Creswell, 2014: 201). Basically, there are four qualitative measures in terms of which trustworthiness is established, namely: dependability, credibility, transferability, and confirmability (Walliman, 2015: 127). It is of further noting that these trustworthiness measures or criteria are most noticeable by any of the following 8 (eight) verification processes: triangulation, prolonged engagement, member checking, thick description (audit trailing), peer debriefing and clarification of biases (reflexivity/self-monitoring).
+
+# 1.15.1 Credibility
+
+According to Marshall and Rossman (2016: 47), credibility is reflective of legitimacy in qualitative research which indicates the extent of the study’s believability as reflected by the concurrence between the findings and the conclusions reached by the researcher. The researcher ensured credibility through prolonged engagements with the participants after the formal interview sessions in order to understand their attitudes, perceptions, and other factors that influence the meaning they attach to their world view (i.e., the environment of security threat assessment). The researcher allowed the participants to share their knowledge and experiences in this regard (Elo et al., 2014: 3).
+
+The researcher utilised triangulation to explore the evidence that would be collected from different sources in the field of security, and compare with literature sources (Asiaman et al., 2017: 1620). This entails drawing conclusions from multiple referents (Anderson & Poole, 2014: 36). It entails evidence from different sources, studies, and multiple perspectives from various researchers. The utilisation of triangulation allows researchers to distinguish between authentic and unverifiable information (Creswell, 2014: 201). This provided many perspectives about the topic, leading to acquisition of more realistic and denser information relating to the study findings.
+
+# 1.15.2 Transferability
+
+Babbie and Mouton (2011: 277) and Marshall and Rossman (2011: 252) define transferability as the extent to which the research process and its findings could be applied to other contexts or groups of participants. The researcher improved the study’s transferability by making use of dense description of the findings.
+
+It is rare for research studies to produce symmetrically identical results, despite the similarity of the problem/s (Alvy, 2016: 2). It is in that regard that the provision of thick or dense descriptions enable the readers to understand both the theoretical and empirical aspects of the study from its embryonic stages to its completion. Furthermore, such detailed descriptions (audit trails) are an enabling mechanism for future researchers to be familiar with all the steps in the research process for possible replication in the unique environment of their own research problems.
+
+# 1.15.3 Dependability
+
+Dependability depicts the consistency and stability of the results of the study over extended periods of time with different participants in contexts that are dissimilar to those under which the original study was conducted (Elo, Kaariainen, Kanste, Polkki, Utriainen, & Kyngas, 2014: 4). The researcher applied the dependability measure by means of the following:
+
+• outlining and reviewing the precise processes of information gathering, • asking similar questions for all the participants in the study, asking follow-up questions and providing clarity where questions are not clear, • building a good relationship with the participants; and consistent coding and categorisation of themes (Elo et al., 2014: 5).
+
+The researcher was reflexive throughout the research process and ensured that his own prejudices do not compromise the authentic views and perspectives of the participants (Adams, 2015: 24; Tavakoli, 2012: 29).
+
+# 1.15.4 Confirmability
+
+Confirmability is premised on the extent to which the findings of the study are affirmed or supported by others who were not directly involved in the study (Nayab, 2020: 19). It is on the basis of its confirmability that researchers and other practitioners in the same field of study could trust the findings as conforming to known research methodological protocols.
+
+The researcher referred from previous studies that covered the area of risk and threat assessment for comparison of research findings. The researcher accurately documented the collected information from participants for their confirmation (peer debriefing) of the researcher’s interpretation. This method (peer debriefing) assisted in ensuring the accuracy of the responses provided by the participants (Aven, 2010: 355).
+
+# 1.16 ETHICAL CONSIDERATIONS
+
+Bertram and Christiansen (2014: 65) illuminate that ethics are meant for the moral, professional, and legally censored conduct, or behaviour of the researcher. Such conduct is essential, especially when the study includes humans, who have to be treated with honesty, dignity and respect (Gravetter & Forzano, 2010: 72). It is in the nature of research for researchers to comply with all ethical requirements, which ensures that the study being conducted is legally recognised and professionally accepted by various bodies and institutions (Bless et al., 2015: 29; Flick, 2011: 216) The researcher observed the following ethical protocols.
+
+# 1.16.1 Institutional Review
+
+The researcher complied with all ethical clearance protocols of the university as stipulated (UNISA, 2020: 1). The study cannot be recognised unless ethical clearance has been granted. The Department of International Relations and Corporations was consulted for permission to involve its personnel in the research. The SAPS and the Department of Public Service and Administration were formally consulted for permission to involve their respective security personnel in the study, as well as in loco observation and/or of security arrangements in selected government departments in Gauteng Province.
+
+# 1.16.2 Non-maleficence
+
+Participants were not harmed in any way as a result of their involvement in this research project. The researcher ensured that the interviews are conducted in a safe location at the participants’ places of work since they were be held virtually. The researcher ensured that the participants are not harmed or intimidated by others who may disapprove of the current study (Bertram & Christiansen, 2014: 65).
+
+# 1.16.3 Beneficence
+
+The research should have the potential to benefit the well-being of others (Thomas, 2013: 17). In this regard, the researcher described the study's potential benefits, including those for participants and society as a whole. Upon completion, the researcher also offered to provide detailed information or a summary of the findings to the participants.
+
+# 1.16.4 Autonomy
+
+The participants should be free to participate voluntarily in the study (Warren & Karner, 2015: 27). Accordingly, the researcher did not compel the participants, nor make false promises or inducement to participate in the study. The researcher created a consent form that the participants signed to indicate that they were not compelled to participate in the study against their will, nor threatened with reprisals or penalties. These measures are also a recognition of the participants’ legal and human rights insofar as making independent decisions is concerned. Such recognition was ensured with the researcher’s announcement to the participant that they can withdraw from the study at any time. The researcher ensured that he exercises the principle of fidelity, in terms of which he faithfully keeps all these promises and agreements that he has made to the participants.
+
+# 1.16.5 Justice
+
+All interviewed participants were treated equally and indiscriminately regardless of their gender, disability, race, income level, or any other socio-economic consideration (Ritchie et al., 2014: 34). The researcher also informed the participants of their right to legal recourse in the event that they are of the view that the researcher has violated their human rights. Furthermore, the researcher disclosed the e-mail address of his academic supervisor for participants to report any unbecoming conduct on the part of the researcher, or further questions concerning the study,
+
+# 1.16.6 Privacy, Confidentiality and Anonymity
+
+The researcher ensured that the participants’ involvement in the study is not made public, considering the high sensitivity of government information entailed in the research topic. The identity of the participants is protected with no reference to their names and places of work. In addition, pseudonyms were used, with no specific response attributed to any specific participant (Raacke & Raacke, 2012: 16). Additionally, all the information pertaining to the study, including the audio recorded statements of the participants, was digitally stored in a USB and the researcher’s laptop which is protected by password only. Any unauthorised person is not afforded any form of access to such information, except the researcher’s academic supervisor. Finally, all the digital and hard copies of the study will be chemically destroyed after a period of five years (Mills, Grimaila, Peterson & Butts, 2011: 37).
+
+# 1.17 RESEARCH STRUCTURE
+
+This proposed research is organised into seven chapters as indicated below.
+
+# Chapter 1: General Orientation
+
+This chapter presents an introduction to the study in terms of the following key research variables: problem statement, the aim of the research and objectives, the value of the research, research demarcation, rationale of the study, as well as definition of the key theoretical concepts. This chapter further discusses the research design, research methods, sampling, population, data collection methods, data analysis, methods used to ensure trustworthiness, as well as the ethical considerations of the study.
+
+# Chapter 2: Literature Review
+
+This chapter encompass a wide range of actions to identify, intervene and prevention of violent attacks on personnel in the work environment. The chapter also identify the type of offenders in the work environment in respect of threat assessment. It focuses on type of threats, as well as the difficulties associated with implementation of such psychologically informed activity in the context of counterintelligence. The chapter further discusses the role of other directorates, current mechanism of protection, and inclusion of mental health practitioners. The chapter also outlines in detail the implementation of the STA, and the role players involved. The chapter also reviews the relevant literature on the key concepts in order to provide a context for the research questions and aim of the study.
+
+# Chapter 3: Vulnerability Assessment
+
+The chapter discusses the concept of vulnerability assessment and the importance of thereof. The chapter further focuses on the system components responsible for each
+
+vulnerability as well as the root cause of the vulnerability. The chapter further outlines the vulnerability assessment report and the rating method.
+
+# Chapter 4: Security Risk Assessment
+
+This chapter focusses on security risk assessment as a combination of the likelihood of an event and its consequence. Risk assessment is limited to the meaning of workrelated risk to uncertainty of financial loss, and the differences between actual and expected results, or the likelihood that loss will happen. This chapter further focuses on security breaches and the vulnerabilities to the core business of the departments. The chapter discussed the lack of security measures and exploitable weaknesses.
+
+# Chapter 5: Legal Mandate
+
+This chapter proceeded with a discussion on the constitution, legislations, security policy development, procedures and proposed framework/practical guidelines. This chapter continues to discuss the international perspectives and experiences in terms of the use of implementation of STA and the difficulties thereof. This is followed by a discussion on the good practices in the field of counterintelligence and security studies.
+
+Chapter 6: Research Findings, Recommendations, and Conclusions This chapter presents the finalisation of the study with reference to the main findings, recommendations, and the researcher’s own concluding remarks.
+
+# CHAPTER 2
+
+# THREAT ASSESSMENT
+
+# 2.1 INTRODUCTION
+
+This chapter highlights threat assessment and distinguishes it from the associated task of risk assessment. The significant contribution of threat assessment is explained, as well as its potential in providing useful information relevant to identifying the weaknesses of the existing security measures in government departments. In this chapter, the researcher focuses also on insider and external threats, as well as the difficulties associated with implementing such psychologically informed activity in a counterintelligence context. In light of the identified security threats, the necessity and role of the STAF is reviewed.
+
+Other security threat mitigation strategies such as avoidance, reduction, transference, and acceptance are also explored. These strategies include the necessity of linking threat assessment with threat management, along with the benefits and drawbacks of some of the many different approaches that can serve as a foundation and provide direction for the threat assessment and management processes (Patel & Bharadwaj, 2020: 1). Such investment in time and other resources could only be legitimised when there is an ample demonstration of accrued benefits (Bickley, 2017, 28). Accordingly, this chapter concludes with some observations regarding the evaluation of threats and management activities within the departments. This is because providing harm prevention services and demonstration of benefits could become a mountainous undertaking.
+
+# 2.2 THE CONCEPT OF THREAT ASSESSMENT
+
+A "threat" is perceived as a downside risk with negative repercussions (Sotic, Mitrovic & Rajic, 2014: 45). Risk itself is defined as a two-fold notion in international risk regulations and guidelines (Sotic et al., 2014: 45). This covers the possibility of both upside and downside risks, which could have a good or negative impact on achieving goals (Sotic et al., 2014: 45). Meanwhile, the term "opportunity" refers to the opposite of a risk. In practice, many departments struggle with adopting STA, which involves finding opportunities in the risk process, according to Hillson (2013: 1). Security managers find it difficult to identify a realistic opportunity, are unable to analyse or prioritise such an opportunity and identify available reaction alternatives, or how to manage the opportunities and alternatives themselves (Hillson, 2013: 1). They appear to have experienced different threats-related problems. In this regard, the study opines that the managers could be able to bring their practice in line with theory only if they believe risk management could address both opportunities and threats.
+
+Government departments regard risk as a challenge, and are therefore unable to translate or convert it into an opportunity (Johansen & Rausand, 2014: 62). The COVID-19 pandemic presented a serious threat in the field of security, with the majority of security managers moving from contact security to digital security (Johansen & Rausand, 2014: 62). In addition, the most ominous threat to personnel security and the departments’ integrity was the cessation of the vetting process by managers, which was intended to reduce the acceptance of multiple documents from the applicants. The pandemic provided the Vetting Field Units with the opportunity to implement “e-vetting”, which allows the personnel to apply for vetting online. It is imperative to have competent security personnel to be able to identify threat sources (Mdluli, 2011: 7; Nkwana & Govender, 2017: 15).
+
+The STA necessitates an understanding of threat sources, threat action, and how those sources can be used to exploit a vulnerability in a government departments’ information asset (South Africa, 2016: 3). Although identifying threats in information systems is a critical stage in risk management, discussions concerning privacy and security have long been a major topic in the social sciences and in the public sphere (Onwubiko & Lenaghan, 2007: 4). There is a lack of a systematic investigation in identifying and categorising various sources of threats to information security and privacy (Bakhtiyari, Shahri & Ismail, 2012: 169). Based on the International Organization for Standardization (ISO/IEC27002), risk assessment is a critical strategy and identification of threats, and is one of the important stages in every Information Security framework. According to Govender (2012: 97), the discovered threats should be categorised according to their origin, motivation, and execution modus operandi. An analysis of the threat should also be carried out using the information provided.
+
+It is recommended that the threat assessment should be supplemented with the analyses of both occurrences and vulnerabilities. It is important to base the decision on which targets need to be addressed on the assessment of the threat (Bakhtiyari et al., 2012: 170). It is further recommended that the security strategy should be utilised in the creation of a collective plan for the purpose of acquiring security information on the targets that have been identified. This strategy ought to be developed and administered by the security manager.
+
+Mbowe, Zlotnikova, Msanjila and Oreku (2014: 166) acknowledge that it has been observed that the current threat assessment tools do not include information security policy for effective security management (i.e., confidentiality, integrity, and availability). This is because effective security management is dependent on the risk appetite and culture of the departments. The policy on information security is equally a tool that provides direction on how to manage and safeguard all departments' processes, including essential assets, infrastructure, and people working inside the departments. This guidance can be found in the form of an instrument called an information security policy. Critical assets, such as database servers, mails servers, web servers, and user smart devices, have been made more vulnerable to attack as a result of the absence of effective threat assessment frameworks in the local context (Mbowe et al., 2014: 167). This has led to an increase in both the risk of asset compromise and the probability that it will occur.
+
+The need for an automated policy on information security mapped with a tool to assess threats is highly recommended against these threats (Mbowe et al., 2014: 173). Notwithstanding the government department’s size, an information security policy is required to integrate the security issues, controls, and the organisational commitment to protection of high-value assets and the information stored therein. Furthermore, such integration would enable the organisation/ government department’s strategic benchmarking capacity at any time interval, such as during security evaluation processes. In that regard, any organisational stakeholder would be able to automatically verify and check compliance to these security controls without relying on security expertise.
+
+According to Deng (2015: 2), a threat is any act, event, entity, or phenomenon that is potentially harmful, and likely to cause a hazard or risk. Therefore, the term "threat assessment" refers to an evaluation of looming harm or danger posed by an individual, circumstance, group of individuals, or combination of circumstances. Allen (2016: 16) augments that a threat assessment/ evaluation encapsulates various activities intended to detect and analyse threat stimuli in situations where the threat has been detected. By its nature, the assessment/ evaluation of a threat or is foundational to regulatory decisions concerning the required or concomitant action proportional to the potential harm. According to Allen (2016: 16), threat assessment entails a comprehensive evaluation of asset attractiveness. It is then the mandate of the intelligence body to conduct threat assessments, which would consider the attractiveness of a target as well as terrorist capabilities and intent.
+
+It is the function or duty of the STA to identify security weaknesses and review all existing security precautions for determining their efficacy, functionality, and practical relevance to the general security architecture (Smith & Brooks, 2013: 14). Following completion of the assessment, appropriate recommendations are then proposed to rectify any shortcomings, mitigate security hazards, and protect departmental assets. Preferably, such recommendations will serve as an indicator for businesses in their development of security plans commensurate with their overall business strategy. Govender (2018: 105) emphasises that each department faces a distinct threat. Therefore, it is important to consider specific hazards in each situation when the relevant security threat information has been obtained. Accordingly, individual security managers should learn to assess threats.
+
+According to Vellani (2020: 34), accurate threat identification and confirmation is crucial for security decision makers, which enables them to prevent false-alarm reactions. However, no excellence in threat assessment can account for every potential eventuality. Criminals and terrorists and continuously invent new countermeasures. Cutting-edge counter-measures are becoming obsolete at an increasing pace in the contemporary technology-driven environment, and adversaries frequently follow suit (Vellani, 2020: 34). To keep abreast of the newest forms of threat intelligence, security decision makers are obliged to use the latest available technology-driven information sources in conjunction with the assessment report. When a possible form of danger is detected, management should support remedial action to either avoid or discourage the threat from occurring (Saleh et al., 2011: 18). Employees should be empowered to determine the goal and scope of the organisational risk assessment with the involvement of skilled professionals. Following the conclusion of the evaluation, management ought to then analyse the findings and act appropriately through the institutionalisation of a countermeasure strategy.
+
+The STA is a single component of a comprehensive approach according to which government departments, personnel, and clients are positively and fairly supported in a comfortable environment where access points are established and physically protected (SAPS, 2011). The threat assessment process attempts to assess the likelihood that a person will commit "targeted violence”. In addition, the STA’s departmental procedures are aimed at evaluating and improving existing security measures in support of the security plan (Garcia, 2006: 24). To monitor the implementation of STA principles and procedures, security management should consider utilisation of a continuous improvement model. The researcher noted that government departments fail to implement in this phase, compared to the private sector’s “value for money” approach. The government spends huge sums of money on improving security measures, but sparse monitoring of the implementation processes thereof.
+
+Threat assessment typically includes a threat prevalence rate and the likelihood of future threat occurrence. Available historical reports are often most viable resources for creating the prediction of a threat occurrence (Dyer & Bowmans, 2021: 17). In the event that such resources are not available, other alternative sources should be opted for. That will help in developing a plan for future incidents. When a systematic approach to risk identification is used, the task of risk analysis becomes more manageable, and implementation of countermeasures becomes less complicated (Dyer & Bowmans, 2021: 17). Govender (2018: 116) argues that the incidents that occur in the departments are the results of security breaches, security practitioners’ disciplinary breaches, and ineffective implementation of existing security policies and standard working procedures. The interpretation of threat is based on the incident, which may be defined as an adversary at the time of the occurrence, being the sum of intent and capability (Smith & Brooks, 2013: 12).
+
+In the context of protection, many departments use the terms, ‘threat’ and ‘risk assessment’ within the services they offer (Harbach, Hettig, Weber & Smith, 2014: 33). However, there is confusion about its conceptualisation and methods. On the other hand, some believe that the threat and risk assessment are tools that are tailored to address the existing security measures for a specific client or department (Harbach et al., 2014: 33). However, the STA is not tailor-made, but rather developed to identify the type of threat existing at that time; as well as the methodologies for mitigating and reducing the risk of a present threat and identifying its magnitude. The STA is vital to practices of decision-making regarding asset allocation for control of risks or threats, and also fundamentally important in the initial processes of providing protective services.
+
+It is the responsibility of security officials to understand the subtle distinction between a threat and a risk. Threats could originate from outside the departments or an aggressor who may cause harm to the system. Departments could receive threats linked to a break-in on the systems or hacks into the accounts of the department/s. The security system of the department is designed to prevent potential dangers from inflicting harm. According to Gritzalis, Iseppi, Mylonas and Stavrou (2020: 5), the STA is tasked with investigating threats to the departments’ systems and finding out which assaults are taking place in real-time or planned future attacks. The STA is able to collect information on attacks before they take place, which can help in identifying the scale of a threat, the level of danger it poses, and how it may affect the departments (Du Toit et al., 2002: 18). It is a more reactive approach to IT security, and it is a good option for organisations that need to know about real-time developments in their system, as well as approaches to address immediate concerns. This is an excellent alternative for enterprises to uncover digital dangers such as: programme vulnerabilities that may be used to inflict network attacks; the presence of malware or viruses; ongoing phishing campaigns that expose organisations to risks or breaches (Alshboul, 2010: 11). The inappropriate use of information can be uncovered through threat assessments, especially relevant to the financial and health sectors. Threat assessments are also helpful in detecting risks associated with employees, vendors, and individual customers (i.e., detecting anyone with malicious intent).
+
+According to Sahoo (2021: 7), certain forms of assaults may be more effective against particular departments than they are against others. Targets include financial institutions, app developers, retail and technology organisations, to name a few examples. Since it is the data that is most frequently targeted, sensitive data is of utmost importance to departments working in areas such as finance and healthcare. Assessments of the potential risks posed by digital threats can be combined with applications and tools designed to track behaviour and cater to the requirements of the industry in question.
+
+Sahoo (2021: 7) states that threat assessment is a sort of preventative activity that seeks to detect prospective violent actors before they act. This is done in an effort to prevent future acts of violence. Not only does this endeavour safeguard victims, but it also affords the opportunity to give assistance to a person who may in the future engage in violent behaviour Sahoo (2021: 7). In addition, a good danger assessment will minimise the harm to the departments' reputations and lessen the likelihood that they will be held liable for any miscalculations. Dhillon (2006) notes that threat assessment may be a newly established role in many departments or may have never been developed at all. Testing and exercise are required to validate policies and increase capability of staff members who are charged to carry out this vital role. This is necessary in order to develop security prevention capabilities.
+
+The STA is an all-encompassing plan that identifies possible dangers and devises ways to neutralise them (Bayne, 2021: 11). This method uses a cross-functional team to conduct the evaluation of behavioural risks, which allows for the consideration of a number of different perspectives. Internal policy is the driving force behind threat assessment and pushes the threat assessment team to be alerted of warning indications, which increases their capacity to connect the dots (Bayne, 2021: 17-18). According to Diphoko (2021: 1), a threat is any situation that is likely to result in the manipulation, destruction, or disruption of any service or valued asset. During the analysis, every potential risk was taken into consideration. These dangers may be demarcated into two distinct categories: human and nonhuman, as exemplified in Table 2.1 below.
+
+Table 2.1: Human and non-human categories of potential risks
+
+
+
Human
Non-Human
Hackers Theft (electronically and physically) Non-technical staf (financial/accounting) Accidental Inadequately trained IT staff Backup operators Technicians, Electricians
Floods Lightning strikes Plumbing Viruses Fire Electrical
+
+(Source: Researcher’s own compilation from various literature sources
+
+According to Govender (2018: 70), security control measures have to be put in place in a manner that is congruent with the security policies and plans developed by the various departments. In the latter regard, judgments were taken to prioritise certain dangers that had not been handled in the past, or may not have been recognised as such. Threats need to be examined in connection with the business environment and the impact they will have on the department in order to assess them properly (Govender, 2018: 70). Both vulnerabilities and threats are intimately related, and may be rated using the same grading system, which is based on desire and capacity. It is also possible, for instance, that internal non-technical staff members may have little incentive to engage in harmful behaviour, but because of the degree of access they have on specific systems, they then have a high level of capacity.
+
+On the other hand, a hacker would have a high level of motivation for hostile purpose in addition to the capability to cause damage or disrupt the business (Douglas, 2018: 1). Therefore, it is important to point out that motivation does not play any part in the prevalence of naturally occurring developments. A low grade could be allocated to a threat that has either very few capabilities or very little motivation. It is possible in that regard to award a high grade to threats that have both a high capacity and a strong motivation (Bayne, 2021: 18).
+
+Govender (2018: 70) indicates that the measures to control security risks should be directed by the departments’ security strategy in accordance with the departments’ strategic objectives. The security policies and standard working procedures should communicate to the personnel in the departments, and the importance of security compliance should be emphasised. Non-compliance by disgruntled employees should be identified through these controls, and insider threat should be countered.
+
+# 2.3 TYPES OF THREATS
+
+There are mainly two major types of threats faced by government departments (Dlomo, 2004: 17). These are insider threats and external threats. Both threats are closely related, thus difficult to isolate from each other.
+
+# 2.3.1 Insider Threat
+
+The most significant security dangers nowadays are not caused by malevolent outsiders or malware (Alshboul, 2010: 11). Rather, they are caused by trusted malicious or irresponsible insiders who have access to critical data and systems. Most recent trends and challenges faced by departments, IT and security professionals’ coping mechanisms against risky insiders, and preparations by departments to better protect their critical data and IT infrastructure have been noted to constitute critical concerns in a number of insider threat reports (Sharma, 2020: 7). For instance, the 2020 Insider Threat Report alludes that $68\%$ of government departments believe that they are moderately to extremely vulnerable to insider attacks, while $68\%$ of the departments believed that insider attacks were becoming more extant; and $53\%$ of these departments were of the view that detecting insider attacks has become significantly to somewhat more difficult since migrating to the cloud-based information systems. Meanwhile, $63\%$ of organisations viewed privileged IT users as posing the greatest form of insider security risk to organisations.
+
+Insider threats are potentially the most significant obstacle that information technology (IT) and security professionals should overcome. In the present investigation, the term "insider threat" refers to "...intentionally disruptive, unethical, or illegal behaviour enacted by individuals with substantial internal access to the organisation's information assets” (Mills et al., 2011: 12). This definition articulates the nature of insider threat behaviour, and covers both current and previous workers, as well as contractors and other dependable business partners. Theft of intellectual property and confidential information by employees is and will continue to be one of the primary causes of financial and other losses, such as harm to individual or organisational reputation (Basdeo, 2017: 363). The recent Wikileaks documents in which large amounts of sensitive material were leaked by a reliable insider and finally published on an open website, has resulted in analysing the security behaviour of end users. The March 2005 issue of Computers & Security has shamed the United States of America (USA) and other countries in terms of worst-case insider threat scenarios.
+
+Mills et al. (2011: 12) add that the ‘wicked’ problem of insider threat is multifaceted because of a variety of contributory elements that either worsens it or engenders new problems. It is sometimes impossible to differentiate between regular behaviour and the malicious actions of an insider, making it difficult to even identify assaults before the harm has been inflicted. Most insider assaults, on the other hand, are organised, and there is a window of opportunity within which individuals may act and either stop the attack entirely or, at the very least, reduce the amount of damage that it causes (Mbuvi, 2011; 12). On the other hand, the focus placed on lean management causes supervisors to have less time and miss possible warning signs.
+
+Insiders provide a substantial risk since they are familiar with the information and/or systems of their employers and have access to such systems and/or information (Mdluli, 2011: 33). They do this daily in a way that is completely legal and circumvents both physical and electronic security measures. A malevolent insider does not conform to any demographic profile. They could be male or female, married or single, young or elderly, and members of any number of different ethnic groups. Furthermore, a discovery has been made of several identifying characteristics of insiders and the crimes they commit, which may be exploited to build measures for mitigating their effects (Campbell-Young, 2016: 1).
+
+Garg (2020: 2) define an insider threat as any potential harm posed by any currently or previously authorised person/s with access to information networks, facilities, resources, or relevant people; and who intentionally or otherwise commits, acts against, or violates the law or policy and results in, or might result in, harm through degradation or loss of government or organisational information, capabilities, or resources; or detrimental acts, including physical injury to others. Grama (2011:14) further declares that an insider threat should not come as a surprise if the departments have not defined an insider danger. This is due to the fact that historically, only the external risks have been emphasized. Regrettably, very few departments possess a clear, internal working definition of their own. The South African government is prone to utilising contractors and bringing in outside talent to fill technical and scientific roles.
+
+An employee, contractor, or vendor who performs an act of malice, complacency, or ignorance utilising his or her trusted and validated access might be considered an insider in the organisation. The identification of a potential risk inside the department is the first step in the process of developing a programme, as well as its structure and scope. Gruyter (2021: 3) contends that negligence, lack of security awareness, and distraction constitute the most common causes of unintentional insider threats. On the other hand, malicious insider threat is caused by factors such as willingly, intentionally, and/or nefariously engaging in activity for financial or personal gain in this $\$200$ billion dollar brokering industry in which data symbolises power, money, and influence.
+
+According to Harbach et al. (2014: 11), a negative work event such as a termination, demotion, or disagreement with a supervisor, preceded a significant percentage of insider threat cases, and $59\%$ who leave departments voluntarily or involuntarily confirmed that they took sensitive information with them. Based on the researcher’s experience and observation, employees generate voluminous sensitive data in their official capacity on behalf of their departments, but when they discharge, there are no processes of declaration to ensure that no organisational or classified data are stolen. According to Harbach et al. (2014: 11), the typical enablers of insider IT sabotage are the technical users with privileged access, such as system administrators, programmers, and database administrators. The foremost motivation in these crimes is usually linked to retaliation for a negative workplace event. These crimes are frequently planned during the period of employment, but are carried out after termination of the employer-employee contractual association.
+
+In the last thirty years or so, the tactics of the insiders have evolved from stealing ordinary paper files to exfiltrating digital data (Hlongwane, 2013: 1). The researcher concurs with Hlongwane (2013: 1) that in era of globalisation and social media, employees exchange sensitive information on social platforms using technologydriven methods and approaches. The development of new security technologies is ongoing in order to counteract newly discovered security flaws and methods, but there is one type of attack that cannot be neutralized by merely putting in place more advanced tools and procedures. The most significant dangers to information security in the modern world are not the work of malevolent actors, sophisticated persistent threats, or malicious software, which originate from the individual. The researcher agrees with Antinyan et al. (2016) that working remotely is the most dominant trend in the contemporary era. More team members work from home, more devices are connected to their network, and new technologies and tools are being developed to assist at-home offices to functioning properly. Based on the latter, the researcher believes that this trend will continue into the foreseeable future.
+
+Thompson (2019: 17) argues that the threat posed by insiders is a security risk originating from the targeted departments, which does not presuppose that the actor is a current employee or officer of the departments. The insider could be a consultant, a former employee, a service provider, or a member of the board of directors. On the other hand, an insider threat could be internally orchestrated by negligent or malicious departmental insiders, current or former employees, service providers, stakeholders, or third-party vendors who have inside/ internal knowledge of sensitive data, cybersecurity practices, and computer systems (Business Insider SA, 2020). Sabotage of security measures, fraud, theft of intellectual property, confidential or commercially valuable information and trade secrets, or misconfiguration that results in data leaks may all be part of the threat. The next sub-section below discusses the different types of insider threats and their nature.
+
+# 2.3.1.1 Non-responders
+
+A small percentage of employees are not interested in attending security workshops and awareness programmes. Most of these employees are usually the people who compromise the security of departments (Thompson, 2019: 12). The employees who have a history of non-compliance or harming the security are likely to repeat the feat on the basis of consistent patterns.
+
+# 2.3.1.2 Inadvertent insiders
+
+Failure to comply with security measures is the most common form of insider threats, and has high financial implications to the departments (CERT, 2014). These are employees who are not willing to comply with standard operation procedures and the security policies of the departments but compromise the security due to isolated errors. The most common occurrences by the insider threat are employees who store the intellectual property on their personal devices.
+
+# 2.3.1.3 Collusion from within
+
+Insider collaboration with harmful external threat actors is an uncommon occurrence, and poses a substantial risk because of the increase in the number of times that hackers try to recruit employees through the dark web. According to research conducted by the Community Emergency Response Team (CERT, 2014), the trend by insiders and outsiders working together to commit security breaches was responsible for $16.75\%$ of all incidents caused by insiders.
+
+# 2.3.1.4 Persistently malevolent insiders
+
+This category of insider threat most frequently engages in data exfiltration or other forms of criminal activity, such as the installation of malware with the intention of obtaining monetary advantage (CERT, 2014). Research conducted by Gartner on the topic of criminal insider risks discovered that individuals looking to supplement their income constitute about 62 percent of insiders with malevolent intent.
+
+# 2.3.1.5 Disgruntled employees
+
+Employees who are dissatisfied with their jobs have the potential to steal intellectual property, disrupt security tools, and violate data security standards (Duff, 2010: 12). Such workers tend to exhibit predictable patterns of behaviour, which is possibly identifiable through behaviour analytics (Duff, 2010: 12). For instance, when they have been dismissed, give notice of employment termination, or dismissed before their information access is withdrawn, they can start looking at sensitive data sources.
+
+# 2.3.1.6 A mole
+
+A mole is an impostor who is an outsider, yet has managed to obtain access into the organisation (David & Brydon-Miller, 2014: 7). This refers to an individual from outside the company who masquerades as an employee or partner of the company. According to David and Brydon-Miller (2014: 8), insider threats typically manifest themselves in the following three-fold dimensions:
+
+• Malicious insiders are the most uncommon, but pose the greatest threat to the organisation because of their access to confidential information. It is extremely detrimental to have managers with privileged identities, and the most expensive security breaches are those that are caused by malevolent attacks.
+• Insiders who have been manipulated can be "tricked" into disclosing critical information or passwords by using social engineering techniques.
+• Unscrupulous employees could accidentally delete or change crucial data by pressing the wrong key on their keyboard.
+
+There is also the possibility that privileged or regular staff having access to sensitive information could be the source of an insider threat. Personnel frequently have unrestricted access to a range of crucial systems and are capable of carrying out nearly any task. People of all different sorts frequently have more entitlements than they need in their present key performance area, which results in an elevated risk that could have been completely avoided. (David & Brydon-Miller, 2014: 7-8). Some of these insider threats are not intentionally compromising the security of the departments, but they lack knowledge and unintentionally put the security at risk. Some of the employees start to panic now during the COVID-19, when they are working from home and computers anti-viruses need to be updated, and the storages are full. The personnel are using their personal computers and hard drives to back up the official data.
+
+The likelihood that an insider will utilise their official authority to access the information or an institutional memory to cause harm to that departments is referred to as an insider threat (Ramluckan, 2019: 1). Such harm could include malicious, unintended, or careless acts that endanger the departments' data, personnel, or facilities' integrity, confidentiality, and avail ability. This commonly used definition could be more appropriate and adaptable to the requirements of outside stakeholders and DHS customers. In the parlance of the Cyber and Infrastructure Security Agency (CISA), an insider could (intentionally or unintentionally) use his or her authorised access to induce harm to the Department of Defence’s mission, equipment, resources, facilities, personnel, and information networks, or systems. Such a threat has the potential to damage to the department as a result of the following behaviours exhibited by insiders: unauthorised information disclosure, workplace violence, terrorism, corruption, including participation in transnational organised crime, sabotage, intentional or unintentional loss or degradation of departmental resources or capabilities, and espionage (Ramluckan, 2019).
+
+Managing the human element is the most difficult aspect of managing insider threats (Defence Science and Technology Organisation, 2010: 12). Naturally, employees would like to earn the trust of their employers, and they become distracted when the departments employ new strict security measures that would prevent them from having access to information, they previously had access to. For IT administrators, having access to the departments' critical information is a form of status, and being prevented to access such information can be met with resistance. Many security breaches committed by insiders are unnoticed. As such, departments are concerned about the reputational image and would prefer to keep these breaches internally (Garaba, 2012: 33). However, numerous highly damaging insider breaches have been revealed. Table 2.2 below is an illustration of some of the well-known insider breaches in the United States.
+
+Table 2.2: Examples of well-known insider breaches in the United States
+
+
+
National Security Agency
San Francisco
Motorola
During the time that he was employed as a contractor for the National Security Agency (NSA) by Booz Allen Hamilton, Edward Snowden leaked highly sensitive documents to members of the media using software applications known as "Prism" and "Boundless Informant." The documents provided by Snowden disclosed specifics on the storing and processing of communications by the NSA, such as phone calls and emails.
An employee with a grudge against the city of San Francisco was responsible for locking the city out of its own FiberWAN network, which had sensitive data such as police records. Alarmingly, emails and payroll checks could not be issued because they were rendered inaccessible. In an effort that was ultimately fruitless, the city spent more than one million dollars trying to connect to the
Hanjuan Jin, a software engineer who worked for Motorola for nine years, was apprehended by officials from the United States Customs and Border Protection as he attempted to board a plane to Beijing with $30,000 in cash and over 1,o00 documents labelled "confidential and proprietary information." Together, these items represented between $10 and $15 million in trade secrets.
+
+Source: Miller & Maxim (2015: 6)
+
+Collaboration between malicious insiders can lead to a larger attack by accessing organisational assets (Alshboul, 2010: 2). In the realm of theory, several actors could conduct reconnaissance from within the "need-to-know" aspect of their job responsibilities to commit intellectual property theft or fraud. As a result, these malicious actors may be able to avoid detection, posing a real risk to the departments through collusion. Collusion relates to occurrences wherein insiders collaborate to attack a company or organisation, rather than utilising social engineering for the manipulation of other employees (Alshboul, 2010: 2).
+
+The insiders have their own method to communicate, known as a communication channel, which they use between one or more people involved in the incident while it is being planned or executed (Alshboul, 2010: 2). This communication takes place between those who are knowingly engaging in or participating in the insider incident: insiders, an insider and an outsider, or the insider and various third parties. Communication between parties does not have to include the transmission of sensitive information. The insider and co-conspirators could simply be plotting a hostile act. An exfiltration channel is not a communication channel for our purposes unless stolen data is sent between two people. For example, an insider stealing data by emailing it to themselves is not a communication--it is purely exfiltration. In contrast, an insider stealing data by sending it to someone else is a communication as well as an exfiltration (Blanchard et al., 2020).
+
+According to Broder and Tucker (2012), it is unsurprising that the most targeted departments were occupied by the most common asset owners across all insider threat case types, including fraud, IP theft, and sabotage. Therefore, the assets of the clients are not always targeted. It has been observed that there are few targeted assets belonging to employees, third parties, or others. Figure 2.1 below depicts the owners and types of assets targeted in insider threat incidents.
+
+
+Figure 2.1: The CERT insider threat incidents by owner and case types
+
+Fraud incidents, which account for many corpus incidents, were linked to most targeted assets owned mostly by organisations and by consumers to a lesser extent (Association of Certified Fraud Examiners. 2014).
+
+Chou (2013: 79) states that an insider threat could be posed by a single employee, contractor, or vendor who, because of their access to information, materials, people, or facilities, has the potential to harm a department’s due to ignorance, complacency, or malice.
+
+Table 2.3: Examples of insider threats
+
+
+
Data Exfiltration
Fraud
IT Sabotage
Workplace Violence
Espionage
Sensitive information developed or supported by the departments may be stolen by those looking to extract confidential data.
Insiders who have access to the departments' data may be able to facilitate financial fraud or collusion.
Insider actions, such as malicious sabotage of IT systems and data, can put critical infrastructure at risk.
Employees may face violence or the threat of violence from a colleague or someone who targets their departments.
The departments' role within the government raises the prospect of nation-state espionage.
+
+Source: Chou (2013)
+
+The insider threat originates from inside the departments, and different counterintelligence methods (e.g., vetting process) could be used effective for identifying the aggressors (Mdluli, 2011: 7). The researcher discussed the acts of corruption from employees and sabotage as common threats by the inside aggressors. Most of these employees have not gone through the vetting process and they are occupying critical position which give them access to sensitive information.
+
+# 2.3.2 External Threats
+
+According to current security thinking, external threats could be military, political, social, economic and environmental (Mohlabeng, 2020: 1). Obviously, the state, people, geographical areas, and the global community are now all referent objects of national security.
+
+To analyse the aforementioned, it is now exceedingly problematic to differentiate between internal and external security concerns. The reason for such difficulty is that, as a result of the influence of globalisation, domestic or internal hazards have become internationalised, while international or exterior threats become domesticated (Mohlabeng, 2020: 1). However, in recent years, the migration problem has proven to be a huge external danger to South African government departments and the country as a whole. Mohlabeng (2020: 1) claimed that the view of immigration as a danger to security has arisen alongside the significant growth in the number of immigrants globally. Undocumented immigrants present a threat to national security in South Africa (Mbuvi, 2011: 17).
+
+Furthermore, the Mozambican problem of an Islamic State (ISS) insurgency and attempts to capture a portion of the country's northern portions, offers a severe threat to South Africa, with government departments and State institutions being specific targets. It is the responsibility of government departments, in partnership with security organs, to be always alert to foreign dangers (Mohlabeng, 2020: 1).
+
+Illegal immigration has been related to additional dangers such as criminality, which jeopardizes the operations of the majority of government departments. Officially, there is a causal association between migration and crime, according to the Southern African Migration Project (2016: 1). Crime statistics for police operations often include arrests for "illegal aliens" alongside arrests for armed robbery, carjackings, and rape (Southern African Migration Project, 2016: 1). If these crimes are not thoroughly investigated, the government may fail to identify the scope of the problem and develop plans to combat it.
+
+# 2.4 CYBERSECURITY THREATS
+
+Nowadays, almost all businesses conduct their transactions online and share massive volumes of data over the internet. As cybersecurity risks continue to plague government organisations, there are major risk factors that should be carefully monitored (Bishop, 2003: 68). This is due to the persistence of cyber risks as an increasing number of organisations and individuals recognise the usefulness of the internet. As a result of this growing internet dependence, cybersecurity concerns such as identity theft (phishing), harmful programmes (malware), and data encryption (ransomware) have emerged (Douglas, 2018: 2). In its Financial Stability Report published on 28 November 2021, the South African Reserve Bank (SARB) highlighted cyber risk as one of the banking sector’s primary threats. The SARB further warned that cyber-attacks could directly affect financial institutions through financial losses, additional to the indirectly incurred costs such as reputational harm to the banking industry. It is worth stating that cybercrime cost is difficult to calculate due to South Africa’s lack of any regulatory mechanism requiring transparency (Isa, 2020).
+
+Hackers make use of a wide array of strategies due to the fact that they are constantly developing new strategies that are supported by innovative technology. According to Fruhlinger (2019: 7), phishing and malware attacks are common methods that hackers use to gain access to information without being required to send direct queries to the victim (Fruhlinger, 2019: 7). The lack of cybersecurity information on the part of consumers, hackers are successful in their attempts. This lack of understanding permits backdoor flaws that expose various enterprises (Fruhlinger, 2019: 3). Phishing, virus, and ransomware attacks continue to focus on public organisations since they are considered "soft targets" in the cyber world (Douglas, 2018: 1). Each of these threats will be examined in greater depth in the following paragraphs.
+
+# 2.4.1 Phishing
+
+Phishing is the use of a 'friendly' email message to deceive the receiver into disclosing more of the information than usual under normal circumstances, which benefits the hacker (Jagatic, Johnson, Jakobsson & Menczer, 2007: 95). Increasingly, phishing attacks are becoming more common in online cybercrime, with the goal of fraudulently gaining access to sensitive data. Attackers target government organisations because they lack effective security procedures and are considered easy targets (Hutton, 2017: 2). Emails encouraging victims to log on to phony websites and disclose private information tempt the victims of these assaults (Isnaini, & Solikhatin) (2020: 80). According to Lee (2014: 31), eliminating phishing websites timeously has proved a futile endeavour due to cross-border jurisdictions.
+
+Many phishing attempts employ the social engineering strategy since personal information is the most likely to provide the intended consequences (Sutherland, 2017: 85). According to Nkwana and Govender (2017: 14), most IT users rely on the internet to read emails and conduct transactions, putting them exposed to phishing attempts. According to a Hutton (2017: 1) survey, 82 percent of public sector employees open email attachments without first reading the email's text. Despite being informed about sophisticated phishing attempts as part of their security training, they continue to fall victim to them.
+
+# 2.4.2 Malware
+
+Hackers are also using different methods to create ‘malicious tools in order to exploit susceptible individuals (Patrick et al., 2016: 76). These dangerous weapons take the form of viruses or worms that include pre-programmed instructions (Patrick et al., 2016: 75). Because public sector personnel execute the majority of their everyday duties online, they may find up viewing sites that are packed with malicious tools, compromising the systems of public sector organisations (Douglas, 2018: 4). Many public-sector organisations are at a disadvantage in dealing with such cybersecurity concerns due to a lack of cybersecurity expertise (Patrick et al., 2016: 76).
+
+# 2.4.3 Ransomware
+
+In recent years, there has been a rise in malware assaults, including ransomware. Ransomware attacks compromise a user's system by exploiting insecure or unpatched systems. Following that, they encrypt all data, including the hard disk, and demand a ransom in exchange for the decryption key (Luo, 2017: 195). Ransomware continues to be a major worry for public sector organisations, as recent assaults in South African government departments demonstrate the need of patch management compliance and robust network security policies that ought to be in place and followed (Patrick et al., 2016: 76).
+
+# 2.5 IMPACT OF CYBERSECURITY THREATS ON THE PUBLIC SECTOR
+
+The information technology systems of the Department of Justice and Constitutional Development (DOJ & CD) were breached in September of 2021, which hampered the department's capacity to make payments for child support (Diphoko, 2021: 1). The gravity of cyberattacks is demonstrated by this incident and the impact it had on businesses that are part of the public sector. According to Patrick et al. (2016: 76), a lack of skills and knowledge about cybersecurity among IT users makes South African government departments more susceptible to cyberattacks than private sector organisations. Another factor that puts companies in the public sector at risk is the significant lack of skills, in addition to the amount of time that is necessary to build up a substantial pool of skilled employees (Masse, O’Neil & Rollins, 2007: 2). This accounts for time spent learning in academic settings as well as time spent obtaining professional experience (Nkwana & Govender, 2017: 14). It is possible that initiatives led by the government to build specialized centres of knowledge or training facilities for developing cybersecurity skills could contribute substantially to filling the skills gap in the government departments.
+
+# 2.6 CORE BUSINESS ANALYSIS AND IDENTIFICATION OF CRITICAL INFRASTRUCTURE
+
+Govender et al. (2015: 32) indicate that every business, no matter how large, small, or sole proprietorship, owns some property or assets. As a result, the departments face the risk of malicious property damage caused by housebreaking, theft, arson, or sabotage. The assets of the departments can be both tangible and intangible. A tangible asset is something that can be seen, such as a car, and an example of an intangible asset is an departments' good name, which cannot be seen with the naked eye. Govender et al. (2015: 32) adds that if a vehicle is stolen, the departments may be unable to deliver its products. Customers who are waiting for their goods to be delivered may become irritated and seek alternative suppliers. This loss is not visible and is sometimes referred to as an indirect loss (Nyanchama, 2005: 31). The assets listed above are vulnerable to both violent and nonviolent crime. These crime risks pose a serious threat to the departments' profitability. Departments that are unable to manage their crime risks are frequently forced to liquidate and close. It is only necessary to read the financial sections of the local newspapers to become aware of this (Govender et al., 2015: 32).
+
+According to Siboni (2011: 96), the STA approach makes it possible to evaluate several different aspects, such as the definition of defense-critical assets, management of communication, service continuity, technological management, reliance on external components, management of unforeseen incidents and accidents, the ability to assess the situation, and the identification and management of weak points. The review provides the decision makers with the information they need to establish a plan of action to increase the cyber resilience of the departments. Once this approach has been used to identify the departments that will be reviewed, the procedure is highly planned and well-ordered beyond that point. However, there is no foolproof way to determine which departments belong to which departments.
+
+In order for the departments of a country to protect the critical assets of the country, every component of the infrastructure ought to be involved in the definition and implementation of a risk management programme (John & White, 2014: 16). This programme should include vulnerability analysis, risk assessment, and hazard mitigation procedures. The authors use the term "risk" to refer to a mix of what may happen, the possibility of that happening, and the negative consequences if it did happen. In addition, a "threat" is any kind of harmful action taken against an existing infrastructure (John & White, 2014: 16). A system is said to have "vulnerabilities" when it is susceptible to failures, disasters, or assaults (Nyanchama, 2005: 36).
+
+The term "critical infrastructure" is used to refer to the significance of certain infrastructures (Onwubiko & Lenaghan, 2007: 11). Critical infrastructure is defined as the systems, facilities, assets, and networks providing critical national and economic security services for health, safety, and prosperity. The term "critical infrastructure" was coined by Onwubiko and Lenaghan (2007: 11), who define critical infrastructure as "large-scale socio-technical systems that offer services to society that are vital in the correct functioning of its institutions”. In its most basic sense, the term "critical" refers to important services that have the potential to undermine both the social and economic fabric of a nation in the event that they are interrupted (Thoka, 2021: 28).
+
+The objective of the Critical Infrastructure (CI) Protection programme is to strengthen the physical and cyber security of essential governmental resources, while simultaneously limiting the effects of catastrophic events such as natural disasters, accidents in the workplace, and terrorist attacks (South Africa. 1980). In the international arena, the Canadian National Strategy and Action Plan for Critical Infrastructure (CNS&AP) was published in 2009 as a framework for the government’s private sector’s critical infrastructure owners and operators to collaborate on the security and resilience of critical assets (Public Safety Canada, 2019). According to Jagatic et al. (2007: 94), the spectacular breakthroughs in digital electronics are making it possible for both scientific advancements and dysfunctional results. This is because of the dual-use potential of these technologies. On the one hand, developments in digital electronics have the potential to raise overall quality of life, usher in new scientific discoveries, and promote overall productivity. Additionally, such developments and discoveries in digital electronics could be weaponized and utilised for targeting individuals, nations, and infrastructure.
+
+Bayne and Friesen (2017: 5) highlight that "all hazards" idea would be utilised in the process of scenario development. It is possible to extrapolate the identification of threats and hazards, for instance, from one port of entry or key asset to additional ports of entry and risk settings. The threat scenarios would necessitate concentration on objectives and regions, and would include sufficient information to characterise the source, stakeholder, context, impact categories, time and space dependencies on essential infrastructure, as well as other critical decisions about information needs. The process of developing scenarios could be simplified by reducing the number of possible outcomes and preventing identical outcomes from occurring in different places.
+
+Critical assets are those that are required to serve the social and commercial needs of both the local and national economies (Azad, 2008: 4). Critical assets can be found at both the national and local levels. If these assets are lost, it will have a significant impact; yet the likelihood of their loss is not necessarily very high. These assets should be identified separately and evaluated in greater depth as part of the planning process for asset management. By identifying vital assets, the authorities are able to target and improve their investigative processes, maintenance plans, and funding plans more precisely. One example of such an asset is a structure that is both unique and significant, such as a crossing of an estuary. Access to assets controlled by third parties, such as substations, which are only accessible via a single-track road, yet access to these assets is essential, may also be taken into consideration (PIARC; 2016).
+
+After the STA team of the department has identified the vital assets, a decision should be made as to which assets are the most susceptible to attacks from violators and how security measures should be put into place and monitored (Singh, 2019: 8). Insider threats should be identified for each key asset, including those posed by privileged workers, service suppliers, and other stakeholders (Murphy & Randall, 2016: 27). The essential business operations of the departments, the staff and the clients, information, information technology assets, physical infrastructure, services, and intangible assets are all included in the definition of critical assets. It is important for the departments that have been designated as vital assets to work together in order to locate the employees who pose a high risk and make extensive use of these assets (Murphy & Randall, 2016: 27).
+
+# 2.7 THE SCOPE OF SECURITY THREAT ASSESSMENT (STA) FRAMEWORK.
+
+An essential component of any effective information security programme is the identification and analysis of potential vulnerabilities. Understanding risk in its most basic form is the first step in achieving security (Masse et al., 2007: 2). Nearly every information security strategy concentrates its efforts on locating and neutralizing dangers posed to government agencies and institutions. According to the Information Security, Threat Assessment is not a method that can be performed independently (Adetiba, 2017: 200). It is the initial step in the process that is collectively referred to as Risk Management. Information security is the primary emphasis of an Information Security Threat Assessment. However, risk management is a more comprehensive business approach that incorporates a wide variety of different types of risk assessments in addition to other components “such as analysis, mitigation, and so on” (Nkwana & Govender, 2017: 6).
+
+Within government agencies, the SRA should follow a methodology that is easily understood (Nkwana & Govender, 2017: 6). The template has to be modified in such a way as to perfectly cater to the requirements of the various government agencies. An Information Security Threat Assessment Model (ISTAM) places emphasis on the following aspects: the scope and kinds of threats, assessment, risk level, vulnerabilities, likelihood, control degree of effectiveness, suggestions, analysis, impact, and final report (Andales, 2022: 11). The technique was developed to assist government departments and settings in effectively reducing the risks to their information security. Within the context of this model, assets have to be acknowledged as a component of the information security programme (Andales, 2022: 11).
+
+According to Kuzminykh, Ghita, Sokolov and Bakhshi (2021: 605), assets and their values should be used in security threat assessment frameworks in order to assist evaluate the cost-benefit ratio between the value of the assets and the cost of prospective protection and controls.
+
+According to Gritzalis et al. (2018: 5) and Kuzminykh and Carlsson (2018: 53), the implementation of security measures have to be predicated on an analysis of the dangers associated with the processing of information, establishing and maintaining a business continuity plan (BCP), detecting and investigating security breaches as they occur, training employees on security systems and procedures, taking steps to control physical security, implementing controls on access to information, adopting an information security policy; as well as taking steps to control physical security .
+
+Isnaini and Solikhatin (2020: 77) identified physical information security evaluation as the suitable form of assessment for security information. Owing to its sole focus on physical and environmental controls, this form of evaluation could then be employed by government departments. Furthermore, this sort of evaluation may be completed fast and has the potential to uncover some high-risk items.
+
+Employee assessments are required to be carried out on every single government worker who has access to confidential information. According to Patrick et al. (2016: 70), the Material Security Officer is obligated to take conducive steps to ascertain the dependability of every employee of the department with access to classified material in order to do their duties. This is an acknowledgment that personnel in the departments will inevitably have access to sensitive material. Disclosure of this kind should be limited to those workers who are directly affected by it, according to the concept of "need to know," because releasing it to anybody else would be a violation of that principle. Patrick et al. (2016: 71) underline that dependability of personnel should be considered during risk assessment, and that when sensitive material is involved, government agencies should pick individuals who are honest.
+
+Sutherland (2017: 83) highlighted the need of security risk assessment as a crucial instrument for security, noting that implementing security solutions that rely on technology may be rather pricey. In order to secure information from unauthorised access, unintentional loss, or destruction, government departments should ensure that adequate security control mechanisms are institutionalised. These mechanisms should be tailored to the specifics of the data that needs to be safeguarded. Threats to a nation's cyber security constitute some of the most critical problems that many governments, including South Africa's, are currently facing (Patrick et al., 2016: 71).
+
+# 2.8 ROLE OF DIRECTORATES IN GOVERNMENT DEPARTMENTS INSUPPORTING SECURITY PROGRAMMES
+
+Government departments in South Africa have each developed their own internal security procedures (Nathan, 2009b: 100). These members of the security personnel are also registered with the PSIRA. Civilian powers were granted to them in accordance with Act 51 of the Criminal Procedure Act in 1977. There are some inhouse security professionals that are empowered to carry out their duties by national legislation that is connected to the individual government agency that they work for (South Africa, 1977). These professionals are engaged by specific government departments. They deal with information regarding events, risks, and vulnerabilities related to security on the proviso of the business case presented by the government department. The SAPS receives information on criminal acts so that they can investigate them. The information about the threat is received by the SAPS.
+
+To limit risks, government departments address vulnerabilities by using security risk control procedures. Incidents involving policy violations are investigated by human resources internal investigators (Gumedze, 2008: 109). Meanwhile, security information is mostly gathered through security assessments (Gumedze, 2008: 109). Third parties also provide voluntary information. For instance, the public is provided with toll-free phone lines in order to collect 'hot-line' information. In some cases, covert operations are carried out in collaboration with the SAPS, which manually records the information into specified registers (occurrence book, case registers).
+
+Security personnel in government agencies are primarily concerned with collecting data relevant to instances of policy violations, crimes, and other potential weaknesses (Mahlatsi, 2019: 06). They are better able to grasp the threats that the department faces because of the collection of information of this nature pertaining to security. The authorities are informed of all issues of criminality, and workplace investigators look into any policy violations that may have occurred. A significant amount of the information is lacking because most of the time, information is obtained belatedly or after the due date (Mahlatsi, 2019: 06).
+
+In many instances, management analyses the acquired data and makes a choice on security risk control methods (Mahlatsi, 2019: 06). Accordingly, analysts are seldom used by departments to review, compile, and analyse data. In certain cases, regular clerks are utilised as analysts to determine crime trends and patterns. They collect and analyse data using computer software. The programme generates criminal pattern analysis products. Vulnerabilities are prioritised based on the threat they pose. Management considers the potential and repercussions of the danger in their meetings (Mahlatsi, 2019: 06). Under typical conditions, no formal study of risks and vulnerabilities is performed.
+
+Security managers make security-related choices, depending on the information presented to them by other directorate in the departments (Nathan, 2009a: 27). Directorate Finance manages the day-to-day finances of the departments in accordance with the Public Finance Management Act (PFMA) and provides information to assist managers in making key strategic decisions (Moagi, 2009: 17). Their expertise can aid the Security Managers with information that has any irregularity or that contravene the PFMA and other prescripts on the part of the employees or third parties’ involvement that warrants possible disciplinary, civil, or criminal action. On the other hand, the Human Resources Directorate is central to every department for employing personnel, terminating, payroll, and managing the database of the departments’ employees (Nkwana & Govender, 2017: 14). The directorate should contribute to security programmes and aid in maintaining a secured environment. The information that is generated by this office is regarded as sensitive in nature, and includes the banking details of personnel, and their personal information. This renders the Human Resources Directorate a target for aggressors.
+
+Furthermore, another directorate that has drawn widespread attention for wrong reasons is the Supply Chain Management (Palmer, 2016: 17). The high level of corruption involving supply chain employees and manipulating of tender process in government departments has been a concern for years, and that has compromised the integrity of security (Palmer, 2016: 17). The information about employees that involved in corruption and theft is not provided to internal security directorate for investigation. For years, the SSA has prioritised the SCM with the vetting processes. Hlengwa (2019) concurs that for some time now, SCOPA has demanded the vetting of senior government officials and executives of State-Owned Entities involved in procurement spending in SCM totalling hundreds of billions per year.
+
+In the balance of probabilities, the information that can be gathered from all directorates in the departments, can aid security managers to ensure that the money spent on improving security measures is appropriate to what the departments seek to protect. Security control measures are performed in accordance with cost, provided the scenario justifies such costs (Palmer, 2016: 17). There was no evidence that a likelihood, effect, or cost-benefit analysis had been conducted in this respect. In many cases, there was a severe scarcity of workers, computers, and the necessary software to collect and analyse data. If further information is necessary, risk managers, security personnel, or investigators are utilised to gather it. All these should be conducted within the legal framework.
+
+# 2.9 LEGAL FRAMEWORK TO DEAL WITH SECURITY THREATS
+
+The SSA is primarily responsible for protecting South African government departments from both internal and foreign attacks (Africa, 2009: 62). The SSA's legal mandate provides certain obligations to the departments in terms of its intelligence and counterintelligence duty to preserve the country's national interests from both internal and foreign security threats (Africa, 2009: 62).
+
+The risk of potential security breaches, as well as their severity, would rise dramatically in the event of South Africa's vital national institutions becoming inadequately protected (Cilliers, 2021: 1). In Section 1 of the National Strategic Intelligence Act, No. 39 of 1994, "domestic intelligence" is described as intelligence accruing from any internal factor, activity, or development that is deleterious to the national security and stability of the Republic of South Africa and its inviolable constitutional order, including the well-being and safety of its citizens (South Africa, 1994).
+
+# 2.10 CURRENT LAYERS OF SECURITY MEASURES
+
+In order to mitigate security threats, the government departments employ various security measures (Nathan, 2009a: 27). These are discussed in the following sections.
+
+# 2.10.1 The South African Police Service
+
+The SAPS is legally mandated to provide security advisory services and functions in relation to the layered security system and structure (SAPS, 2011). Figure 2.2 overleaf indicates the location of the Component: Government Security Regulators (GSR) within the SAPS national structure.
+
+
+Figure 2.2: National structure of the SAPS Source: SAPS, 2011.
+
+The Cabinet decision of 2002 instructed that the GSR within the SAPS ought to regulate physical security in:
+
+Government departments;
+State-owned entities;
+National key points and strategic installations;
+Foreign missions in South Africa; and VIP residences.
+
+The GSR functions include:
+
+• Conducting physical security assessments;
+• Identifying physical security breaches;
+• Auditing existing physical security measures;
+• Assist in monitoring the standard of physical security in government departments, parastatals (state-owned entities) and the SAPS;
+• Assisting clients to conduct self-audits;
+• Compilation of physical security assessment reports; and
+• Conduct research regarding technology trends, capabilities and specifications of physical security related equipment.
+
+The methodology of the GSR is premised on assessing the physical site on the government departments’ buildings, conducting interviews with Security Managers and the management of the departments, as well as collecting data and conduct crime threat analysis (Palmer, 2016: 17; Philpott, 2013: 233).
+
+Legislative frameworks are developed in order to exercise control over the country's practice of gathering information on criminal activity (Solove & Schwartz, 2011: 13). There are Lieutenant-Generals who serve as Provincial Commissioners, MajorGenerals who serve as Cluster Commanders, Brigadiers and lower levels who operate at police stations, and a General who acts as the National Commissioner of the SAPS. The SAPS issues guidelines and guidance to its officers regarding the management of criminal intelligence and information. In terms of security information management, the SAPS checks information on criminal incidents, threats, and crime intelligence. They do not keep records of information on weaknesses in private security (Singh, 2019: 10).
+
+The SAPS Crime Information Officers (CIOs) record all crime incident information that is reported by victims and complainants at the police station level on an automated Crime Administration System (CAS). The data is inspected by the supervisors one last time before the data capturers enter it into the automated systems (Singh, 2019: 10). This information flow starts at the local police station, then the automated system to the provincial office, and finally arrives at the national office. The official policy paper for MISS states that the information is protected via classification (Tilley & Laycock, 2018: 228). The information is accessible to everyone who has a valid reason to have access to it. Access to the information will be denied by the CAS if the person does not have the appropriate authorization to view it (Adetiba, 2017: 202).
+
+At the level of police stations, the Business Intelligence System (BIS) is used by the Crime Information Analysis Centre (CIAC) to conduct an analysis of the crime data. Crime Information Officers (CIOs) are responsible for conducting field operations in order to acquire information regarding criminal activity through the use of interviews and visits to the scenes of crimes (Adetiba, 2017: 202). This additional knowledge on crime is typically used to address questions regarding the "what," "why," "where," "who," and "how" of criminal activity.
+
+The new information is then used to enhance available information on the BIS in order to generate crime information products that may be used in police stations (Alshboul, 2010: 24). These products are intended to be actionable, and include case docket analysis, criminal statistical analysis, linkage analysis, crime pattern analysis, regional crime analysis and profiling; all of which are produced by the Crime Information Analysis Centres (CIAC) (National Crime Registrar, 2020: 4). At the level of the police station, the preparation of a document called a Crime Threat Assessment (CTA) is facilitated by the integration of all of the information that is contained inside these actionable crime information products.
+
+At the cluster level, the CTA for this police station is connected with the CTAs for the other police stations in the cluster (National Crime Registrar, 2020: 4). Consequently, a Cluster CTA is produced. The data collected from the cluster stations is put through a process called linkage analysis. The result of the linking analysis is provided to Crime Intelligence Commanders at the Cluster level (National Crime Registrar, 2020: 4). The data is improved so that it may be used to offer intelligence on criminal activity. Criminal intelligence is deployed so that intelligence-led police work can be performed in the cluster in a manner that is effective, efficient, proactive, and reactive (National Crime Registrar, 2020: 4).
+
+At the provincial level, the information gathered from the clusters is merged into a CTA document to be used for intelligence-led operations (National Crime Registrar, 2020: 7). This intelligence is reinforced by security service providers hailing from both the public and private sectors of the economy. The provincial office keeps a well-organised "War Room" that is used to collect information from these and other participants in the fight against crime. Crime-related information is not shared with other parties unless specifically allowed to do so by the provincial commissioner (National Crime Registrar, 2020: 7).
+
+At the national level, the information provided by the Provincial CTA is analysed in order to combat organised crime through the use of novel tactics such as undercover and overt operations, physical and electronic surveillance measures, forensics, interviews, research, and audits (Knoesen, 2012: 33). Meetings of the Crime Combating Forum (CCF) are held every day at the station, provincially, and nationally with all stakeholders, including private security and other government departments. These meetings are intended to monitor and evaluate the application of information and intelligence through crime statistics, arrests, exhibit recoveries, and other similar means (Mabasa & Olutola, 2021: 5). All the information regarding potential dangers that was gathered from different external stakeholders, such as government departments and private security, was included into the CTA at various levels (National Crime Registrar, 2020: 7). The classification of information and how it should be handled are both governed by the guideline known as the Minimum Information Security Standards (MISS).
+
+# 2.10.2 Minimum Information Security Standards (MISS)
+
+The South African Government approved the "MISS" document as national information security policy on December 4, 1998. This document has to be followed by all government departments (Nkwana & Govender, 2017: 5). The goal of establishing this policy was to protect the country's national interests by measures of counter-intelligence. The "MISS" was created as an official government policy document on information security that all departments in the Republic of South Africa that handle sensitive or classified information should adhere to (South Africa, 1998).
+
+Lee (2014: 44) asserts that government departments should develop similar security documents such as the “MISS”, as a policy guideline. The publication thereof should be provided to departments to stipulate how the policy will be enrolled, and what procedures would be followed (Sutherland, 2017: 90). The handling and management of information that is regards as classified is established by the MISS document (1998), which provide an obligation to all government departments. The "MISS" Cabinet document (1998), state that security measures should be implemented in all government department due to sensitivity of data that is in their possession. Such information will be graded in an appropriate classification and protected according to the degree of sensitivity.
+
+As soon as the sensitive information that is under the jurisdiction of the departments is supplied with a special protection, such information will be regarded as classified information (Sutherland, 2017: 92). For instance, the lowest classification of information is “restricted", and refers to any information whose access is not authorised to any persons. This sort of information would be helpful for any kind of investigation in general. Meanwhile, information that is considered most sensitive is marked "Top Secret”, and is only accessible to employees and government departments with the necessary authority and approval on a “need to know” basis (Sutherland, 2017: 92). If disclosed to unauthorised individuals, this type of information would jeopardise the goals and operations of the particular department. In other words, this type of information has the potential to cause significant harm to government departments (Sutherland, 2017: 92). Control over the content of topsecret documents is maintained through a "Declaration of Secrecy" signature granting access to only government employees who can provide access to such information. According to the cabinet document "MISS" (1998), a Declaration of Secrecy, is an undertaking by a person who has, have had, or will have access to classified information that such information will be treated as secret (South Africa, 1998).
+
+When deciding on the classification of information, government agencies should take accounting procedures into consideration. Accounting practices entail a set of policies, processes and checks that are utilised by an accounting department in order to produce and maintain accurate records of departmental activities (Beresford, 2015: 231). Ideally, the practice of accounting should be extremely consistent since a huge number of company transactions need to be handled exactly the same manner in order to create consistently credible financial statements. This is why it is ideal for the accounting practice to be extremely consistent. When conducting an audit of a firm's financial accounts, auditors rely on accounting practices that are uniform throughout the organisation (Bragg, 2014: 1).
+
+In the event that accounting procedures are not taken into consideration during the information categorisation process, the deficiency may result in major vulnerabilities in the information security systems. Accounting procedures should be given great consideration by the government agencies because they constitute significant security controls (Surju, 2018: 17). As a consequence of this, careful thought ought to be given to the safeguarding of private financial information. Journals and ledgers are not the places where this type of information, along with purchases made with petty cash and things from supplies, should be freely documented (Nathan, 2009: 91). There should be accounting processes in place to manage sensitive projects in order to decrease the risk of the department budgets and their expenditures. These practices should guarantee that the sensitive information is not accessible to staff who are responsible with handling money.
+
+Access to classified information should be restricted, according to the cabinet document "MISS" (1998). Access to classified material is restricted to only those individuals who are in possession of the necessary security clearance or who have been given an exception by the head of the departments, with the need-to-know principle being strictly adhered to at all times. In order for an employee to maintain their status as having a valid security clearance, they are required to go through the security vetting procedure (Sutherland, 2017: 92). According to the findings of the literature analysis that was carried out in the various government departments, this procedure is not carried out in line with the papers referred to as "MISS." The process of screening, verifying qualifications, doing background checks, and conducting thorough vetting investigations is part of the severe protocols that have to be followed while conducting employee vetting. The candidate should fill out a comprehensive personal history statement as part of the application process, which should serve as the beginning of the screening process for potential employees (Nathan, 2009: 91). In order to avoid recruiting unethical individuals who may leak secret information that may obstruct or inconvenience the operations of government departments, this should be done prior to an application being appointed in such agencies (South Africa, 1998).
+
+Signing a Declaration of Secrecy either before, or while one is in the process of being appointed is another method according to the "MISS" cabinet document (1998) for the purpose of protecting sensitive or secret information (Surju, 2018: 17). The purpose of these announcements is to make a psychological impact on employees, reiterating the significance of maintaining the confidentiality of information that has been entrusted to them. It is possible to make the case that this procedure is not adhered to in its whole or is not followed each and every time by government entities. If an employee is found to have violated these declarations, they might be used as evidence in a judicial proceeding. These declarations are legal papers (South Africa, 1998).
+
+The "MISS” cabinet document (1998) stipulates that any information that is labelled as secret or top secret should be kept in a secure location, such as a safe or a metal cabinet that is both of sufficient strength and is fitted with a locking mechanism (Lohrmann, 2021). This requirement applies to any information that is classified as secret or top secret. It is recommended that classified documents be stored in accordance with the following recommendations when they are not being used:
+
+• restricted documents should be stored in the regular filing cabinet;
+• confidential documents should be stored in the reinforced filing cabinet;
+• secret documents have to be stored either in a strongroom or in a reinforced filing cabinet; and
+• top secret documents" should be stored either in a strongroom, safe, or walk-in safe.
+
+Lee (2014: 44) acknowledges that it is imperative to adhere to all of the required protocols in order to maintain the confidentiality of sensitive information. One example of this would be a standard that mandates the safety of all data processing facilities. In the absence of adequate storage facilities, sensitive government information will be put in jeopardy and will, sooner or later, become accessible to unauthorised parties (Sutherland, 2017: 92).
+
+# 2.10.3 Information Security Programme
+
+An information security programme refers to a comprehensive collection of technological, operational, administrative, and managerial procedures meant to secure the confidentiality, availability, and integrity of information in respect of business requirements and risk assessments (SAPS, 2011: 112).
+
+The execution of the ISP places a large amount of responsibility on the shoulders of the many government departments. This might be accomplished by incorporating information security into the planning and operations of the departments as well as making it a component of the governance of the departments. According to Brotby (2008: 12), the plan has to be put into action by way of an all-encompassing ISP that includes thoughtfully formulated legislation and standards. The components of an information security programme include education and training concerning information security, risk assessments and impact analysis, information classification, as well as developing and testing plans for continuing business operations in the event of a disaster or service interruption. These security aspects ought to be incorporated into the overall ISP.
+
+The administration of the information security programme within the department is tasked with ensuring that adequate resources are allotted in order to maintain the programme as a whole updated (Lohrmann, 2021: 23). In order for government agencies to successfully control information security, they need to design a sustainable framework that will drive the development and administration of an allencompassing information security programme. This framework should also be kept updated (Lohrmann, 2021: 23). This framework will serve as the basis for the establishment of a complete Information Security Programme that is both costeffective and accomplishes the goals set forth by various government agencies. This programme will be built on top of this framework. The primary goal of a security programme should be focused on ensuring the protection of government agencies' information assets to an extent that is proportionate to either the value of the assets or the likelihood that they will be compromised (Williams, 2017: 11). This should be accomplished by providing government agencies with the assurance that their information assets are protected.
+
+This judgment was accepted by Solove and Schwartz (2011: 69), who went on to suggest that government departments should engage Information Security Managers to be responsible for implementation of security programmes in order to protect sensitive information. In addition, those in charge of information security should ensure that employees receive the appropriate training on how confidential information should be stored in order to achieve the highest possible level of protection. They need to ensure that the "MISS" implementation is carried out throughout all government departments, and then evaluate how effective it is.
+
+A suitable information security programme should be intended to safeguard information against unauthorised access, alteration, disclosure, and destruction, in addition to accidental loss. This protection should also include the ability to recover lost information. Gutwirth, Leenes, De Hert and Poullet (2012: 220) all concur that government agencies ought to use audit trails in order to limit the accessing of sensitive information. Audit trails will make it possible to save records so that they can be used in investigations at a later time. In addition, government agencies should implement technology that enhances confidentiality and defends against invasions (Gutwirth et al., 2012: 221). Examples of such technologies are patching and encryption devices.
+
+Alhassan and Adjei-Quaye (2017: 105) recommend the below-cited security measures in respect of protecting security information being accessed, altered, or disclosed in an unauthorised manner:
+
+• To ensure that the departments lock files containing critical information in steel cabinets
+• To ensure that the departments keep the files with classified information in a secured location which can only accessed by authorised officials
+• To ensure that the departments protect the electronic data with unpredictable passwords To ensure that the departments restrict the premises containing personal information with cards method or passwords
+• To ensure that the installation of computer monitors (including laptops) in visitors' areas (such as waiting rooms and showrooms), is accompanied by measures to prevent personal information from being accidentally disclosed to people who are not employees
+• Developing an Information Management Policy that is distributed to all employees who handle personal information; and
+• Ensuring that all personnel are trained to handle confidential information, and they conversant with the security measures.
+
+Isnaini, Solikhatin and Bennett (2020: 80) emphasised on the relevance of the belowmentioned principles in relation to information security:
+
+• The information that is generated for the use of officials should not be compromised or given to unauthorised people.
+
+• Such information should be handled or accessed only by authorised individuals,
+• The amount of information that is gathered and kept should be kept to an absolute minimum if one wants to accomplish a particular goal
+• The security mechanism that a system should achieve should be communicated to and understood by the personnel and management, and it should encompass protections against the intentional abuse or exploitation of information; and finally
+• A system of monitoring should be put into place to assist in detecting any violations of the security system.
+
+Information security controls are categorised into three: operational, and technological controls (Kuzminykh et al. 2021: 605). Examples of technical controls include firewalls, as well as relevant software for virus protection, intrusion detection, and encryption. Protecting the organisation's information technology and the confidentiality of the data stored within these systems is the primary focus of these measures (Nkwana & Govender, 2017: 10).
+
+Examples of operational controls include backup systems, restrictions on physical access, and environmental hazards (Kuzminykh et al. 2021: 605). Examples of operational controls include enforcement mechanisms for addressing deficiencies and various threats. Meanwhile, the use of policies, personnel training and BCP are examples of management controls that concentrate on non-technical aspects of information security. Management controls also include BCP (Patrick et al., 2016: 74). Concerns about information security cannot be resolved by technology alone. This is because information security is a social and organisational issue in addition to a technological one. Consequently, information security directors have priorities and resources that are assigned to support the entire objective of the organisation (Tilley & Laycock, 2018: 230).
+
+Directors of information security should be alert to the types of sensitive information that need to be safeguarded, as well as the appropriate level of protection and the processes for securing such information (Patrick et al., 2016: 74). A security committee needs to be constituted, and the president of the institution should see to it that this happens so that proper consultation can take place with the heads of different business divisions.
+
+# 2.10.4 Security Committee to Manage Security Threat Assessment
+
+Most government departments have the security committees as part of compliance, but they do not function, neither do they take part in implementation of the STA (Watts, 2017: 12). A qualified security manager is at the helm of the SSA, and assisted by the security committee as required by the SSA (Watts, 2017: 12). The security committee comprises of the head of all sections or directorates in the departments. The inclusion of the section heads is to provide expertise and knowledge of their business units. When the STA Team has identified the critical assets and what need to be protected in every business unit, the process becomes clear, and the implementation become successful. Smith (2014: 17) agrees that the departments should form a threat assessment team comprise of specialists in every business unit. A threat assessment team includes members from various directorate within the departments, such as human resources, physical and information security, corporate management, or the legal section, as well as a stakeholder and a police officer from a local police station. Due to the risks and for support, a senior management or the accounting officers should also be involved.
+
+David and Brydon-Miller (2014: 31) indicate that a threat assessment team is a comprehensive group that is not only capable of recognizing the vulnerabilities in the architecture of the departments but also delivers excellent context regarding the links between those weaknesses and other sorts of resistance diversity. A viable threat assessment approach involves a thorough grasp of the business landscape, the capacity to recognise weaknesses, knowledge of present threats, and the creativity to forecast new threats. The formation of such a team calls for painstaking planning and a strategy that is methodical in nature.
+
+Blanchard et al. (2010) emphasise that the first consideration in building a threat assessment team involves the specification of each member’s duties. For instance, the breadth of the obligations within the purview of the group determines whether or not the team will need to undertake vulnerability assessments; or whether or not other sections of the departments that may currently supervise this activity may be leveraged instead. There should also be a determination of the extent of the reports and suggestions that should be received from the team (David & Brydon-Miller, 2014: 31). The team should conduct investigations, gather information, and also monitor the department’s progress insofar as implementing recommendations, or whether this task should be delegated to another group that is already in existence (Smith 2019: 188).
+
+When emotions are at a peak, it could be difficult to distinguish between gossip and fact. The investigation team has to identify the persons involved, the role of witnesses, as well as any background information of relevance that has been directly obtained from the source (Smith 2019: 188). The STA and management team should aim to enhance the departments’ protection proactively (Smith, 2019: 188).
+
+It is very important that the core business of the department is understood, that the critical assets are identified, that the scope of STA is clearly defined, and that the role and responsibilities of the team are understood (Sutherland, 2017: 101).. The researcher is of the opinion that when all the directorates are well represented by subject matter experts, the STA becomes easy to implement because they know which assets are critical, information is sensitive and which people are attached to those assets. After the team is put together, the researcher focused on inclusion of mental practitioners in the process of threat assessment (Sutherland, 2017: 101).
+
+# 2.11 INCLUSION OF MENTAL CARE PRACTITIONERS
+
+The use of STA has developed over the years and has received its cues from assessments of the potential for violent behaviour that are carried out by psychologists and other specialists in mental health (Cockerham, 2016: 17). Each day, in the public sector, the commercial sector, as well as in law enforcement organisations, there are specialists toiling away at the task of detecting and preventing these wanton deeds from ever happening in the first place. The professionals in charge of danger assessment and threat management are the ones responsible for these less reported, but no less serious interruptions (Singh, 2019: 8). The researcher contends that the practitioners in security and intelligence bodies do not work jointly with providers of mental health care and other security stakeholders who are already working collectively and systematically in assessing the risk of violence in the workplace accurately, and then take concomitant steps to mitigate such risk. According to Burgess (2018: 1), it is essential for professionals working in the fields of law enforcement, criminology, and mental health to understand how the STA can be utilised to create effective tools for the prevention of violence (Cockerham, 2016: 17).
+
+Mbowe et al. (2014: 166) use a broad definition of STA as a set of operational and investigative techniques utilised by law enforcement professionals to assess, identify, and manage the risks attendant to targeted violence and its likely perpetrators. Such a definition is cognate from Fein, Vossekuil, and Holden's (1995) definition of STA, which is posited as the process of acquiring information in order to comprehend the danger posed by the targeted individual or group (Mbowe et al., 2014: 166-167). The American Psychological Association outlines an approach to threat assessment that includes a wide variety of activities. These activities are intended to identify and intervene with potentially violent individuals, as well as to avoid instrumental violence like a shooting at a workplace. Its purpose is to prevent violent situations and to "help potential offenders in overcoming the underlying origins of their anger, hopelessness, and depression.", or "despair" (NASP, 2014). This strategy focuses on determining the threat that is posed by a certain person carrying out a particular attack. This individual could be an employee who has threatened other employees, or recently involved in altercations at work.
+
+The researcher is of the opinion that there is a significant disconnect between the security departments and the HR departments, and that HR is hiring people without properly vetting them. In many instances, a newly employed person rushes to sign up for a labour union to ensure that he/she has a voice in the workplace (Cockerham, 2016: 17). It is only the subsequent vetting process that will discover the particular employee’s past in the form of a history of violence, a personal grievance, a criminal record, substance abuse, or mental health issues. At that stage, it becomes difficult for the departments to terminate their employment without engaging the labour unions (Cockerham, 2016: 17).
+
+Many perpetrators of security threats are known to have one or the other of the abovestated social behavioural factors that necessitated vetting (Cockerham, 2016: 17). These social and behavioural aspects can act as warning signs to help identify those who are at risk of engaging in instrumental violence. The researcher agrees that some of the employees' aggressive behaviour has mental health undertones and that these employees are either victims of abuse or they themselves are abusers (Cockerham, 2016: 17). These aspects are not evaluated as part of the STA because the security manager never invites the department's employee mental care practitioners to participate in the event.
+
+In the United States, the National Terrorism Advisory Committee (2014), which focuses on schools, states that the approach to school-based threat assessment consists of the following steps:
+
+• establishing a limit for law enforcement intervention and an investigative-driven threat assessment process, or refer individuals based on a variety of factors such as motive, communications, weapons access, stressors, emotional and developmental issues; • assembling a multidisciplinary threat assessment team, and identify behaviours that necessitate intervention (for example, carrying a weapon or making threats);
+
+establishing and training on a central reporting system; and establishing a limit for law enforcement intervention (NTAC, 2018).
+
+The researcher is of the view that the strategy can also be extended to the facilities of government agencies, and that the police station where the departments are headquartered should take part in danger assessments to provide an overall picture of the threat level posed by criminals in the area.
+
+Individuals who are potentially dangerous can be located with the use of information and referrals (David & Brydon-Miller, 2014: 37). These individuals can also be evaluated for their likelihood to carry out an attack. As part of this method to threat assessment, a range of interventions are directed toward the individuals who are at risk of committing violent acts. In the event that an attack is about to take place, law enforcement officials may take more urgent measures to get control of the individual (David & Brydon-Miller, 2014: 37). Assessments of the potential for violence are largely clinical and legal in character. They consist of predicting the possibility that an individual will engage in violent behaviour in the future as well as locating risk factors and intervention measures. This approach is distinct from the threat assessment that was discussed earlier with regard to instrumental violence.
+
+The propensity for violence in general, rather than a specific attack against a specified target, is the focus of this method for determining the likelihood of an individual committing an act of violence (Nkuna, 2020: 22). This technique to risk assessment might not be something that the departments or their people carry out directly; rather, these assessments are typically carried out by doctors who have prior experience in the field. These violence threat risk assessments can be utilised in the decisionmaking process for the release of an individual from a penitentiary or psychiatric facility, as well as for civil commitment, criminal punishment, or categorisation after admission to a correctional or treatment facility (Nkuna, 2020: 22).
+
+As part of this assignment, a clinical expert may administer a series of tests in order to assess the individual's propensity to commit an act of violence (Rees, 2016: 14). These evaluations of the potential for violent behaviour may incorporate both actuarially based findings and the clinician's own professional opinion. Assessments based on actuarial theory make use of predictive algorithms to analyse many risk variables in order to arrive at a conclusion on the likelihood of violent behaviour. The professional judgment of seasoned assessors can also be utilised in the interpretation of these actuarial-based model (Rees, 2016: 14).
+
+According to Ali (2021: 2), mental illness was discovered in both female and male stalkers, and stalkers with mental diseases were more likely to engage in violent crimes. It was also found out that females will stalk acquaintances and participate in a variety of different stalking behaviours. The afore-cited authors further describe stalking as invasive conduct that is carried out on two or more times and that causes concern or terror in the targeted individual. According to the statistics, the majority of those who are stalked are male, whereas most of their victims are female. Although it has a substantial impact on victims, stalking committed by females has gotten less attention than stalking committed by males. The low rates of female-perpetrated stalking research, reporting, and understanding is attributed to the rigid societal beliefs that female-perpetrated crime is not deserving of being taken seriously or is somehow less intrusive (Ali, 2021: 4). The latter authors further confirm that victims usually encounter a lack of support, which is one of the primary reasons for unreported incidents of female-perpetrated violence.
+
+The researcher encourages the cross-discipline collaboration in the practice of threat assessment and threat management, as well as sharing of expertise between disciplines. The researcher upholds the view that the involvement of mental care practitioners will make a huge impact in preventing the workplace violence and sexual offences cases which are difficult to prove.
+
+# 2.12 SUMMARY
+
+The chapter reviewed current literature on security threats assessment by exploring the current internal and external threats that South Africa is facing presently. Firstly, the researcher contextualised and operationalised the term, ‘threat assessment’ for the purpose of this study. The researcher further explored the different types of threats, including cyber security threats, external threats that are linked to illegal immigration, and the threats to the country’s critical infrastructure. The STAF was explored as ideal for the development of effective strategies of mitigating security threats in government departments. In support of the framework, the role of the government directorates was reviewed, as well as the various layers of security measures to mitigate security threats. The next chapter presents and discusses vulnerability assessment in relation to its associated contextual factors or variables.
+
+# CHAPTER 3
+
+# VULNERABILITY ASSESSMENT
+
+# 3.1 INTRODUCTION
+
+The STA is helpful in the identification of vulnerabilities in the existing security measures, and in the core business of the departments. Vulnerabilities are weakness and chasms that exist within the security controls and that need to be mitigated to ensure that a department executes its primary mandate effectively. In this chapter, the researcher discusses the complexity of identifying flaws in the security programmes and weakness in structural, procedural and elements of human factor that compromise the assets of the departments. Furthermore, this chapter discusses the direct importance of vulnerability assessment, composition of teams, the implementation steps, report outline and rating methods. The chapter also encapsulates vulnerability assessment as a vital aspect of the risk assessment model in the prevention of increasingly complex and sophisticated attacks from aggressors.
+
+# 3.2 THE CONCEPT OF VULNERABILITY ASSESSMENT
+
+The term "vulnerability assessment" refers to the systematic process of locating, defining, categorising and ranking the severity of breaches in network infrastructures, applications, and computer systems. In addition, vulnerability assessments equip departments with the knowledge, awareness, and risk context they require to comprehend the dangers posed by their surroundings and formulate appropriate responses accordingly. The identification of potential dangers and the associated risks is the purpose of any vulnerability assessment procedure. They often involve the use of automated testing tools, such as network security scanners, the results of which are then reported in a vulnerability assessment report (Rosencrance, 2022: 14).
+
+Renfroe and Smith (2016: 20) mention that security risk threat assessment precedes the assessment of vulnerability. Such vulnerability evaluation is categorised into two distinct sections. Firstly, it involves an assessment of the potential loss that could arise from a successful attack at a particular place. In other words, the cost of a particular facility stopping to provide its services. This can be thought of as the amount of money that would be lost. Secondly, vulnerability assessment is based on the evaluation of a target’s vulnerability in the event of a planned assault. Vulnerability assessment is also construed as a categorisation of the strength levels that are already in place against any type of danger.
+
+According to Renfroe and Smith (2016: 13), a significant amount of disruption would be incurred in the event of a large airport deciding to halt operations for any amount of time due to its location in a congested metropolitan region, where there are no other airports nearby. If one compares the attractiveness of different airport operations, one could find that a large city airport is a more desirable goal than a small county airport. Furthermore, risk assessment focuses on potential dangers, the consequences of losing a facility, and assessments of one's susceptibility. In this regard, the risk assessment requires an analysis of the preventative measures that are already in place as well as those that will be required in the future. Based on the findings of this investigation, it appears that the present countermeasures might be updated or made more effective with modification.
+
+Meanwhile, a security vulnerability assessment relates to the process of identifying, characterising, and categorising security weaknesses and the possibility for criminal conduct in relation to a security system and/or programme. It conducts risk assessments, establishes the severity of the danger, and makes recommendations for solutions that have been proved effective in the industry. During the security vulnerability assessment, it is possible to determine high-priority weaknesses and their susceptibility to adversity and exploitation, as well as the consequences of such a breach on the security of departments. It is the duty of the departments to utilise the results of a security vulnerability assessment report in order to identify the asset protection measures necessary for decreasing or eliminating any risks posed to those assets (White, 2014: 167).
+
+White (2014: 167) further asserts that vulnerability analysis will be a component of a larger security risk assessment in many situations. Both vulnerability and security risk assessment often precipitate the efficacy of proposed remedial measures. In addition, the final report needs to provide the reader with an idea of the anticipated effects after the recommendations have been actioned.
+
+Garcia (2006: 02) suggests that it is essential to make a distinction between safety and security measures when considering vulnerability assessment. Safety measures relate to any actions taken with the intention of preventing or detecting an abnormal state that threatens the well-being of individuals, property, or business. This category of safety-related actions includes unplanned occurrences, such as accidents caused by human error or negligence, inattention, and poor training. On the other hand, security relates to precautions taken to protect people and property from the hostile actions of others. Civil unrest, sabotage, shoplifting, theft of essential goods or information, violence in the workplace, extortion, or other purposeful acts. Wallis (2022: 25) agrees with Garcia (2006: 02) that, it is inevitable for humans to make mistakes, and since defects are the result of software being authored by humans, it is inevitable that software will contain problems. There are many problems, and most are not harmful in any way. However, some problems tend to be vulnerabilities that can be exploited, which puts the system's usability and security at risk.
+
+The next step involves conducting a vulnerability assessment, which is an evaluation of the vulnerabilities that exist in information technology systems at a particular point in time. The purpose of this investigation is to discover faults in the system before hackers are able to exploit them. According to White (2014: xiii), the practice of identifying risks and vulnerabilities has significantly improved over the years, and it is now more widely recognised than it has ever been as a standard approach. Therefore, professionals in the field of security need to have a better understanding of how to evaluate security threats and document their findings in the context of perpetual change. Researching the topic and acquiring experience in a range of settings is frequently the most effective way to educate oneself on how to carry out activities of this nature.
+
+Allen (2016: 31) alludes that a security vulnerability analysis is the examination of the underlying factors of a security breach. Such analysis involves the physical, operational and technical controls to prevent, postpone, and minimise the impact of a vulnerability incident on the departments. The security vulnerability assessment provides higher management with proof that vulnerabilities exist and assists in the acquisition of funds for solutions. These enhancements could include a security programme implementation, the acquisition of new technology, the performance of modifications to lighting or other aspects of physical security, the provision of training, an increase in awareness, and so on. The assessment of vulnerability is an essential part of the risk assessment model, which includes an examination of numerous important location aspects.
+
+According to Rosencrance (2022: 14), much could be gained from conducting vulnerability assessments. regardless of the size of the personnel or department that is susceptible to the attacks by computer criminals. This is true for both the departments and their personnel. However, huge department and any other departments that have regularly been invaded by aggressors can also benefit from vulnerability analysis. Therefore, vulnerability analysis focuses on identifying weak spots in a system. It is essential for companies to locate and fix any security holes in their IT systems and applications before they are exploited by hackers. As such, security issues can make it easier for hackers to access IT systems and apps. When combined with a management programme, a comprehensive vulnerability assessment could be of assistance to the departments in strengthening the level of protection afforded to their respective systems.
+
+In cases of cybercrime, a passive vulnerability is a weakness or flaw whose exploiting effects are unobtrusive or invisible, but which can nonetheless contribute to overall cyber dangers (Mbanaso, 2021: 14). An active vulnerability is one in which the repercussions of its exploitation are clear, obtrusive, or conspicuous, with obvious contributing impacts to the totality of cyber threats. Active vulnerabilities have the potential to be exploited by hackers. Mbanaso (2021: 15) differentiates between two different forms of cyber vulnerability classification, namely: government function and organisational function. The government is responsible for a variety of tasks, including those of a legal, institutional, and technical nature. Examples of organisational functions include people, procedures, and technological advancements. According to Mbanaso (2021: 15), the legal, institutional, technical, people, and process functions are all examples of passive functions with consequences that are either unnoticeable or difficult to identify. Technology is an operational function that produces consequences that are intrusive, visible, or noticeable.
+
+In recent times, there has been a precipitous rise in the number of different vulnerability situations that can occur in automobiles. A level of complexity that has never been seen before has been brought about due to the expanding interconnection on varying architectural layers (for example, electrical control units, diagnosis, configurations and their changes, software components, telematics, and communication both inside and outside the car). It is just a matter of time before whosoever is seeking to take advantage of the resulting loopholes and vulnerabilities can identify them and use them to their advantage. Connecting a device to any given location on a bus system that is frequently used can create conditions that, in time, will lead to the system's failure to work properly. This theory has previously been tested and proven, and it applies to bus systems such as CAN and Ethernet. Accordingly, device connection to any point on one of these bus systems could be performed externally at any time (De Gruyter, 165: 2021).
+
+The security survey results are categorised and summarised in the vulnerability assessment portion of the security risk assessment report. Any potential attack vectors are also listed in this section. The weaknesses and shortcomings of the security programme should be sufficiently detailed in order to assist in selecting and implementing appropriate solutions (Vellani, 2020: 96). When analyzing a system's susceptibility to attack, it is important to consider not only the departments, but also the peculiarities of each individual. For instance, factors such as one's position, age, gender, race, nationality, and sexuality might all have an effect (Bickley, 2017: 29). Following the completion of a security assessment, the security managers will have complete control over the safety of the departments. Solutions will be presented that will assist in making the assets more resistant to criminal activity and in preventing criminal activity from ever occurring in the first place. All potential dangers and openings in the security of the departments will be unearthed and analysed (Mandell, 2013: 05).
+
+Despite the indispensability of a technology-driven security programme, it could still be rendered an ineffective control against some vulnerabilities (Allen, 2016: 72). In that regard, technology is an important part of every security programme, which necessitates the institutionalization of a comprehensive regime of security measures in the form of an all-encompassing approach that integrates physical, technical, and operational safeguards in its day-to-day business activities. It is difficult to underestimate the complexity of a security programme and attaining security cannot be accomplished by putting a single control in place. Rather, security should be achieved through a combination of controls. The concept that "one size fits all" will never be appropriate when it comes to the management of wide security vulnerabilities and the execution of a security programme since there is no such thing as "one size fits all." A corporation is exposed to a wide variety of different kinds of general threats, and security is simply one of them. Enterprise risk management, often known as ERM, is a process that involves assessing and ranking all of the potential threats to a business, with security being one of those threats.
+
+Allen (2016: 72) propounds that a security assessment or security vulnerability analysis constitutes a sub-component of enterprise risk management, and that this sub-component includes a security assessment or security vulnerability analysis. For instance, the vulnerability of assets, people, companies, brands, and reputations might all be seen as security risks from the perspective of enterprise risk management (ERM). An organisation would be subjected to a security vulnerability assessment in order to determine, verify, and rank the vulnerabilities that are capable of resulting in a security breach in order to enable an evaluation of this risk. This assessment would be performed in order to determine the likelihood of a security breach’s occurrence. This incident could appear insignificant, such as product loss; or it could be something very serious, such as a shooting that took place at one of the facilities.
+
+According to Allen (2016: 31), a security vulnerability analysis examines the underlying reasons of a security weakness or breach and implements physical, operational, and technical controls to prevent, postpone, and lessen the impact of an incident on the departments. The security vulnerability assessment provides higher management with proof that vulnerabilities exist and assists in the acquisition of funds for solutions. These enhancements could include the implementation of a security programme, the acquisition of new technology, the performance of modifications to lighting or other aspects of physical security, the provision of training, an increase in awareness, and so on. The assessment of vulnerability is an essential part of the model of risk assessment, which includes doing an examination of numerous important aspects pertaining to the location. The evaluation of man-made effects will centre on this aspect.
+
+The most effective security approach is one that generates the highest possible level of awareness of potential threats with the least amount of effort and expense. In general, the first benefit is that there will be an awareness of the vulnerabilities that these systems and components are susceptible to. Secondly, if the enterprise leadership or the plant owner or operator does not take action to mitigate and repair the vulnerabilities and hazards that were discovered in the security assessment, then the assessment is useless. As a consequence, the risk assessment is a group effort, with members of the assessment team highlighting vulnerabilities, determining the level of risk (critical, high, medium, or low), and recommending ways to mitigate the risks in order of priority, starting with the risk that poses the greatest threat to the organisation and working their way down to the risk that poses the least threat (Heyden, 2020: 100). When departments are put in a position where they are exposed to a high level of risk and vulnerabilities, they are likely to experience many security breaches. This helps them to realise the criticality of carrying out a vulnerability assessment.
+
+# 3.3 IMPORTANCE OF VULNERABILITY ASSESSMENTS
+
+White (2014: 168) argues that a security vulnerability assessment serves as a form of standard for all the various protection measures. When executed properly, the purpose of the risk assessment is to compile a list of all discoveries and executing a plan for mitigating, avoiding, and reducing the impact of the risk discovered. Policies, operational systems, and processes are the most common elements of an effective vulnerability assessment. If the departments have a security policy that restricted access to a particular area and demanded that all visitors be always escorted, the security professionals could choose to test this requirement to determine whether individuals could enter the area without being escorted. This would allow them to determine whether individuals could enter the area without being escorted. As such, they would be able to decide whether the policy was genuinely required. A great number of departments have recently arrived at the conclusion that, regardless of the existence of rules, operational protocols, and security systems, there is still some degree of vulnerabilities that may be exploited by malicious actors.
+
+According to Sahoo (2021: 23), vulnerability assessments ought to be mandatory for all departments, regardless of size, to guarantee the complete safety of their information technology infrastructure. These in-depth evaluations not only shield businesses from the dangers posed by malevolent cyberattacks, but they also contribute to the establishment of a credible stance in the eyes of customers and other stakeholders. According to Sahoo (2021: 23), the approach of vulnerability assessment utilised by the department is impacted by the department's one-of-a-kind environment, the one-of-a-kind threats it encounters, and the department's particular security requirements. The information that is obtained from a vulnerability assessment is invaluable, and this is true regardless of whether the department’s handling the vulnerability assessment do it with an internal security component or with the assistance of an expert external service provider. Because the primary objective of conducting the assessment is to lower the department's risk, the process has to be carried out on a consistent and timely basis. Additionally, it should consider any potential security threat before it manifests itself to guarantee that the departments' processes are carried out effectively.
+
+According to Jaafor and Birregah (2017: 108), a precise vulnerability assessment of a social engineering system attacks is advocated, as a component of a policy to prevent social engineering. The modelling of threats from social engineering assaults has received little attention, leaving security personnel to rely on models designed for other objectives, such as network vulnerability assessment. This occurs in spite of social engineering’s severe repercussions. Monitoring a variety of different blogs, forums, and social networks would make it possible to reveal valuable information regarding the channels that are preferred by social engineers, most vulnerable users to social engineering trends and attacks, and the most common approaches that are utilised by social engineers.
+
+The departments receive information about any holes in their environment's security that are discovered during a vulnerability assessment. In addition, it discusses evaluation of the risks that are connected to certain flaws. This method gives the departments a better awareness of their assets, security issues, and overall risk, which reduces the possibility that a cybercriminal will be able to break into their networks and surprise them (Rosencrance, 2022: 127). Wallis (2022) contends that there is a significant gap between presumption of a cyberattack vulnerability and precise knowledge of the vulnerability mode. This is due to the inability to thwart a cyberattack unless its precise level of vulnerability is known. The purpose of conducting a vulnerability assessment is to narrow this void. During a vulnerability assessment, some, or all the systems are investigated, and a thorough vulnerability report is generated as a result. After that, this report can be utilised to rectify the problems that were found to prevent any security breaches.
+
+Additionally, a growing number of departments are technology-dependent for their primary mandate, yet cyber threats such as ransomware can instantly bring an end to the fundamental company operations. Both the importance of cyber security and the demand for solutions that assure its resilience have increased as a result of the common realization that it is better to prevent problems than to treat them. For instance, an increasing number of service providers increasingly demand frequent vulnerability assessments, and proof of security testing can be helpful to the operations of the departments (Wallis, 2022: 13). Security managers should keep in mind that different departments have different missions and visions, and they should consider using a variety of vulnerability assessments to verify that the solution they choose addresses the actual issue.
+
+# 3.4 TYPES OF VULNERABILITY ASSESSMENTS
+
+According to Rosencrance (2022: 127), vulnerability assessments are useful for locating a variety of different sorts of system or network problems. This indicates that the process of assessing the system would involve the utilisation of a wide variety of scanners, tools, and procedures to discover threats, vulnerabilities, and hazards. Following are some of the vulnerability assessment scan types that can be performed:
+
+Potential breaches in network security can be identified using network-based scanning. This form of scan is able to identify vulnerable systems on wired as well as wireless networks;
+Vulnerabilities in servers, workstations, and other network hosts can be identified and located with the use of host-based scans. A scan of this kind will often investigate services and ports that can also be discovered using network-based scanning. However, it does enable more prominence of the configuration settings and patch history of all systems that have been scanned, including legacy systems;
+Vulnerabilities in the wireless network infrastructure are often the primary focus of examination during wireless network scans performed on an organisation's Wi-Fi networks. In addition to locating risky points of access, validating that a company's network has been established securely can be accomplished using a wireless network scan; and
+Application scans for known software vulnerabilities as well as inappropriate network or web application setups on websites. Database scans help detect vulnerable areas inside a database so that malicious attacks like SQL injection assaults can be avoided.
+
+Sahoo (2021: 24) observes the different types of vulnerability assessments to acquire better understanding of the tests performed and the scope covered as follows:
+
+# 3.4.1. Wireless Assessment
+
+When conducting wireless assessment, several architectural, environmental, and configuration variables with an immediate impact on the safety and functionality of the current wireless installation are evaluated. These variables include this entails analysing all of the wireless access points and mapping out their locations across the environment.
+
+To further enhance the systems and procedures, this would also include doing an assessment of the physical installations, such as the orientation and mounting of access points. If the departments decide to hire a service provider to carry out the vulnerability assessment, the provider will identify the wireless networks and evaluate the wireless security controls. These controls include access management, encryption, and authentication. When evaluating the efficacy of wireless encryption techniques, as well as the setup of wireless access points and wireless cards, Sahoo (2021: 23) includes this information in their analysis. These types of testing involve first attempting to find known as well as unknown vulnerabilities, and then recommending ways to protect against those vulnerabilities.
+
+# 3.4.2. Build Assessment
+
+Build assessment is the practice of examining different versions of a piece of software or programme for defects in either its performance or its level of security. These vulnerabilities in the application's security could, at some point in the future, cause performance issues. In addition, malicious software and hackers routinely search for exploitable security holes and loopholes in order to break into a system. Because of this, a build vulnerability assessment can support a consistent examination of the layouts of the applications and systems, as well as the design of the security systems and the technology that is currently utilised in the setup. This helps to prevent or control the accumulation of vulnerabilities that are caused by faults in either the system's performance or its security.
+
+# 3.4.3. Web Application Assessment
+
+Sahoo (2021: 22) alludes that this kind of evaluation can find vulnerabilities in the system by using automated front-end scans, by carrying out either dynamic or static code analysis, or both. It is an essential approach for web-based and cloud-based application development. The executing code of an application is the primary focus of Web Application Scanners, whilst the webserver and its operating systems are analysed by Network Vulnerability Scanners.
+
+In contrast with other vulnerability scans that utilise a database of identified vulnerabilities and misconfigurations, web application vulnerability scanners are specialized tools that search for well-known types of web flaws, such as cross-site scripting (XSS), SQL injection, command injection, and path traversal. Web application vulnerability scanners can be found online. Other vulnerability assessments make use of a database that contains information on known flaws and configuration errors. It is likely that they will identify vulnerabilities that have never been found before and that are specific to the application that is now being analysed. Those that do penetration testing frequently make use of this approach, which is also known as Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST).
+
+The source code of web applications is analysed while they are still in the development stage by use of a set of tools known as Static Application Security Testing (SAST). These are used in combination with SAST. As part of the procedure known as secure development lifecycles, this is carried out (SDLCs). Because of this, so-called interactive application security testing (IAST) tools—which are supplementary to static application security testing (SAST) and dynamic application security testing (DAST)— are frequently used to incorporate Web Application vulnerability testing into DevOps and QA processes. The IAST facilitates the identification of vulnerabilities and dangerous configurations that may exist in applications prior to their launch or use in production. This is helpful since vulnerabilities and unsafe configurations may exist in applications.
+
+# 3.4.4. Database Assessments
+
+The Database Security Assessment is the procedure of locating flaws or vulnerabilities in database management systems like Oracle, Microsoft SQL, MySQL, Postgres, and others (Sahoo, 2021: 21). The sensitivity of a database to a predefined collection of attack and vulnerability scenarios are the first risk element that has to be evaluated.
+
+Sahoo (2021: 22) adds that such vulnerability could be the result of an error of configuration, such as the absence of a database password policy; a misconfiguration of critical files, such as the configuration of the listener or audit trail; or a privilege management error, such as public access to a sensitive table. Alternatively, this vulnerability could be the result of a lack of a database password policy.
+
+# 3.4.5. Host-based Assessment
+
+Host-based vulnerability assessment is a process for providing detailed understanding of the possible internal and external risk exposure and business impact. It is an indepth evaluation of networks and systems to identify security weaknesses that should be addressed.
+
+The assessor then scans the system from the viewpoint of a user within the departments that may possibly access the network/system. As such, this assessment provides information on potential insider threats to networks and systems. The evaluation assists in identifying suspicious insider activities and detecting intruders who have already infiltrated the system. As a result, the host-based assessment augments an additional security layer in order to help prevent internal misuse or external intruders from compromising access to, and information security.
+
+# 3.4.6. Secure Configuration Assessment
+
+It is absolutely necessary to conduct a risk assessment on the systems and networks that are used by a department (Sahoo, 2021: 26). Accordingly, the Secure Configuration Assessment (SCA) is an examination procedure that helps in the discovery of vulnerabilities in the underlying infrastructure configuration. This covers the configurations of routers, switches, servers, mainframes; as well as the firewall and adequacy of the department's DLP security matrix.
+
+The assessment helps in the identification of the likely vulnerabilities and configuration issues in applications and systems that a hacker could exploit to obtain access. Consequently, the assessment provides insight into the existing security posture, in addition to providing a comprehensive analysis of access restrictions, applications, and applications running on vital systems, as well as identifying missing security patches.
+
+# 3.4.7 Mobile Application Assessment
+
+Mobile application evaluation refers to the process of analysing mobile software to determine whether or not it is safe to use and unaffected by any potential dangers. An analysis of the mobile applications and the application programming interfaces (APIs) is carried out by the specialists so that they can determine the level of protection that these programmes offer against both known and unknown dangers. This helps in finding vulnerabilities and applications’ possible exposure to risk, such as password storage, session management, and ‘middle-man’ attacks.
+
+Evaluating both dynamic and static mobile security testing methodologies is a part of the security assessment that is being carried out. It is an evaluation that involves a look at the protections against privacy breaches, as well as the application's behaviour and security measures. In its whole, the evaluation reduces risk exposure, boosts operational efficiency, implements actionable security measures, guarantees protection of applications from any likely dangers, and resolves statutory compliance requirements.
+
+# 3.5 FORMULATE A VULNERABILITY ASSESSMENT TEAM
+
+Vellati (2022: 83) illuminates that the team performing the vulnerability assessment concentrated on each individual’s element of the physical protection architecture in turn, beginning with the preventative measures. The most common types of measures of deterrence include lighting, signage, highly visible, uniformed security personnel, and other countermeasures such as natural barriers and fencing. These deterrence measures have the potential to intimidate potential attackers and tip the risk-reward balance in security’s favour. The detection procedures that are a part of the physical security system also need to be addressed. It is important to implement security detection systems not just within the building, but also around its perimeter to reduce the amount of time that passes between an incident being discovered and the security team taking action. These measures do not include only the installation of interior and exterior intrusion detection systems, but also the installation of each system's individual components, such as sensors, clear zones, and closed-circuit television systems. Vellati (2020: 83) states that during the security survey, the vulnerability assessment team should resolve the following issues:
+
+What is the major control process that has to be performed?
+What kind of checks are performed on the parcels before they are permitted inside
+the facility?
+Does the screening of individuals and parcels involve the use of X-ray equipment,
+magnetometers, or just eye inspection?
+What kinds of access control procedures do you have in place to make sure that
+only authorised employees may enter the building?
+Does the location have more than one point of entry?
+Are the exiting vehicles of sensitive regions subject to screening?
+Do the intrusion detection measures, such as sensors, around the perimeter of the
+building work as they should?
+Can the sensors' capacity to identify an entry be hindered by external conditions
+such as the topography and the weather?
+Have there been past efforts that were successful in compromising the facility's
+access control systems?
+Does the physical security system carry out assessments of alerts in the correct
+manner?
+Is there a minimal number of unnecessary alarms, including false alarms and
+nuisance alarms?
+Are there any spots along the perimeter where the cameras cannot detect an
+unlawful entry?
+When monitoring video surveillance systems, do security people or technological
+methods typically do the monitoring?
+Are the electronic security measures, such as intrusion detection systems, video
+surveillance, and other electronic security measures monitored locally or
+remotely?
+Do all the components that make up the video surveillance system (such as the
+video monitors, switching equipment, and transmission lines) work as they
+should?
+Does the lighting system work well in all respects?
+
+# 3.6 VULNERABILITY ASSESSMENT: SECURITY SCANNING PROCESS
+
+Willis (2022) proffers that vulnerability scanners are designed to identify previously discovered holes in a system's security and then offer instructions on resolving such issues. As a result of the frequency with which these vulnerabilities are published in public, a lot of information is currently available on software that is susceptible. Scanners that search for vulnerabilities in software and hardware in an organisation's infrastructure will utilise this information to locate susceptible hardware and software.
+
+At first, the scanner will send probes to computers to determine which versions of software are running, which ports are open, which services are active, and which configuration choices are available. Vellani (2020: 76) indicates that the approach used for vulnerability assessment can be like that used for threat assessment, depending on the type of assessment performed, whether quantitative or qualitative in nature, and the type of matrix that is available. Imperva (2021: 39) points that the security scanning process consists of four steps: testing, analysis, assessment, and remediation.
+
+# 3.6.1 Vulnerability Identification (testing)
+
+The purpose of this stage is to compile an exhaustive inventory of all an application's flaws and weaknesses. According to Vellani (2020: 77), the vulnerability assessment is not yet being applied as part of an overall risk assessment in the first stage, and as a result, assets have not yet been identified. If the vulnerability analysis is going to be part of the risk analysis, then the information about the assets being evaluated should be readily available to the team doing the analysis. Scanning apps, servers, and other systems with automated tools or manually testing and assessing them to assess their level of security is one of the tasks performed by security analysts. Analysts also depend on vulnerability databases, vendor vulnerability notifications, asset management systems, and threat intelligence feeds when trying to locate security issues (Imperva, 2021: 39). Willis (2022: 22) believes that security practitioners can execute a vulnerability assessment with the right tools by first determining what they want to scan, which is not always as simple as it seems. However, with the right tools, they can complete the assessment. A lack of visibility into a department's digital infrastructure and the devices that are linked to it is one of the most prevalent and widespread difficulties that departments confront in terms of cyber security. All branches and levels of government provide its employees with mobile devices, such as cell phones, laptops, and other electronic tools that are able to regularly detach and reconnect with the workplace, as well as with employee residences and other off-site places (Willis, 2022: 36). The COVID-19 pandemic made the work-from-home approach available, which resulted in a significant increase in the number of vulnerabilities existing on the technological front and hence required investigation.
+
+# 3.6.2 Vulnerability Analysis
+
+Finding out where the vulnerabilities came from and what caused them is the objective of this stage, which came after discovering the vulnerabilities. Determining the components of the system that are accountable for each vulnerability as well as the underlying cause of the vulnerability is a necessary step in the process. An obsolete version of an open-source library, for instance, might be the root cause of a vulnerability. This outlines a distinct plan of action for the improvement or correction of (Imperva, 2021: 38). However, threat assessment is already in progress, and a review of the report ought to unearth any weaknesses that bad actors have exploited in the past. Consider the scenario described by Vellani (2020: 77) in which security staff reacted to an alert system from the same camera on many times. The occurrence was recorded in the threat assessment report.
+
+The team that conducted the vulnerability assessment found out that the camera captures the facility's right rear perimeter fencing in its images. During the process, the group makes the startling discovery that the fence in that region is not only broken, but also of an older design than the fencing in the front of the facility (Vallani, 2020: 77). According to Mbanaso (2021: 39), vulnerability analysis in cyber security is the process of identifying and testing to determine current exposure, whether current security measures are sufficient in terms of confidentiality, integrity or availability, authenticity, non-repudiation, and trust. In other words, it is the process of determining whether current security measures are adequate. In addition, it shows whether the suggested safety controls would be sufficient.
+
+# 3.6.3 Risk Assessment
+
+Willis (2022: 23) opines that once the departments have evaluated the potential of harm, the next question is whether they can afford to do a vulnerability assessment on everything. They would do a vulnerability assessment on every system on a consistent basis if we lived in a perfect world. According to Vellani (2020: 77), this phase of the vulnerability assessment is meant to identify existing security measures for each asset and determine the effectiveness of each measure independently or in conjunction with others. Vellani argues that this phase of the assessment should be completed first. During their assessment of the facility, the team will locate and note on any site schematics or layouts any pre-existing security measures that are designed to close any known security holes. Depending on the facility and its security arrangements, the remedial measures may be evaluated in relation to established metrics and the department's standard operating procedures. When conducting a vulnerability assessment, one of the most common mistakes an assessment team might make is the assumption that existing countermeasures are adequate to combat the threat. The team will be able to establish whether the countermeasures are functioning as planned if they do performance testing. According to Imperva (2021: 30), the purpose of this phase is to rank the vulnerabilities in descending order of severity. It involves the security analysts vulnerability ranking or severity score in respect of the following factors:
+
+1. the systems affected,
+2. the information at risk,
+3. the business functions that could be jeopardized,
+4. ease of attack or compromise,
+5. severity of the attack; and
+6. potential damage caused by the vulnerability.
+
+# 3.6.4 Remediation
+
+Velleni (2020: 78) mentions that the team conducting the vulnerability assessment is required to produce a written report outlining the assessment and making recommendations for additional security measures or changes to the security programme to lower both the overall vulnerability and the vulnerability of specific assets. A fundamental cost-benefit analysis that outlines the potential for a lower degree of vulnerability to be attained because of applying the proposed security measures ought to also be included in the report. For critical facilities, the assessment team ought to take into consideration in their report the facility population, the structural integrity of the facilities, the land area of the facility, the distance to emergency services, redundant power supply, video surveillance systems, intrusion detection systems, barriers, outside lighting, and security guards. All these factors should be taken into consideration. Willis (2020: 25) agrees with Velleni (2020: 78) that an evaluation report is generated by the scanner once the vulnerability scan has been completed. When reading this report and developing remediation plans based on it, keep the following in mind:
+
+• Severity: A vulnerability scanner should classify potential vulnerabilities according to their severity. When planning remediation, prioritise the most serious vulnerabilities first, but avoid ignoring the rest indefinitely. It is not common for hackers to combine several minor flaws to create an exploit. A good vulnerability scanner will recommend when to fix each issue.
+• Vulnerability Exposure: As previously stated, not all vulnerabilities are on publicly accessible systems. Internet-facing systems are more likely to be exploited by any random attacker scanning the internet. Therefore, they should be addressed first. Furthermore, any employee laptops that have vulnerable software installed should be prioritised. Furthermore, any systems that host particularly sensitive data or could have a negative impact on that business might need to be prioritised over others.
+
+Imperva (2021: 30) argues that the goal of this step is to close security gaps. Security, operations teams, and development typically collaborate to determine the most effective path for remediation or mitigation of each vulnerability. Specific corrective actions may include:
+
+1. The implementation of new security procedures, measures, or tools;
+2. Bringing operational or configuration changes up to date;
+3. Creation and deployment of a vulnerability patch
+
+Vulnerability assessment cannot be a one-time event. To be effective, departments have to operationalise and repeat this process on a regular basis. It is also critical to promote collaboration among security, operations, and development teams, a practice known as DevSecOps.
+
+# 3.7 VULNERABILITY RATING SCALE
+
+Vellani (2020: 78) indicates that the target’s attractiveness and the level of protection provided assets is used to assign vulnerability ratings. A quantitative or qualitative rating scale can be used. The relative importance of qualitative ratings to the department's primary mandate is scaled. Quantitative costs are based on life cycle costs, which include the asset's actual value, replacement cost, operational costs, maintenance costs, and time lost while the asset is replaced or repaired. When employees lose their official vehicle, the department loses its current value, as well as the cost of purchasing a new vehicle and the cost of transportation between the vehicle's loss and replacement.
+
+# 3.7.1 Scale of Qualitative Vulnerability
+
+Vellani (2022: 78) presents the following is an example of a qualitative vulnerability rating scale for facilities:
+
+Very High: A facility that has a history of threats, inadequate security measures, and adversaries that can exploit security holes. In the event of an assault on a facility of this kind, there is a possibility that the structure will be damaged, activities will be slowed down or brought to a total halt, and assets held within the facility will be lost. High - A facility with tempting targets, no history of attacks, poor security measures, and opponents able to exploit security holes is considered to have a high risk. An assault on a facility of this kind may result in structural damage, limit activities to those that are necessary, and destroy assets that are housed within the facility.
+
+Moderate: A facility with tempting targets, no history of threats, effective security measures, and no adversaries capable of exploiting security weaknesses; this level of threat is considered moderate. An assault on this kind of facility might not have much of an effect on the way things normally work.
+
+Low: A facility that has no enticing targets, no history of threats, and effective security systems is considered to have a low danger level. Normal business will not be significantly disrupted in the event of an assault on this kind of facility.
+
+# 3.7.1.1 Recommendations
+
+Within the recommendations, part of the report on the vulnerability assessment are the proposed modifications to the security programme that were made by the assessment team. The deployment and redeployment of security personnel, the introduction of extra physical security measures, and the rewriting of security plans, rules, and procedures are all examples of potential alterations that might result from these changes. It is important that the suggestions be prioritised according to the vulnerability ratings assigned to each asset. This will enable security decision makers to modify appropriately that are suitable. In this portion of the report on the vulnerability assessment, a cost-benefit analysis and cost projections should also be included. Because budget requests need to be made, and expenses need to be justified, costbenefit evaluations are very necessary. It is also possible to provide recommendations in phases, with an analysis of potential dangers and weak spots inserted in the gaps (Vellati, 2022: 85).
+
+# 3.7.1.2 Appendices
+
+The security managers should ensure that the report is easy to read and understand because the management of department are not experts in security, and that includes putting on the appendices. Appendices to the vulnerability assessment report may include blueprints, facility and area photographs, site diagrams, and floor plans. Include a copy of the security survey checklist and any cost-benefit analysis documentation for the reader's convenience. Vellati (2022: 85) proposes that the following vulnerability assessment report as shown in Table 3.1.
+
+Table 3.1 Vulnerability assessment report outline
+
+
+
VULNERABILITY ASSESSMENT REPORT OUTLINE Table of Contents Executive Summary Vulnerability assessment dates Scope of assessment Team composition Facility characterisation Critical asset description Summary of threat assessment Vulnerability assessment objectives Summary of conclusions
Summary of recommendations Background Organisational mission Criticality of the facility Key staff Major functions Geographic location Overall physical characteristics and conditions Vulnerability Assessments 85 Significant features, including history Occupant information Community demographics Supply chain and transportation system Specific critical assets Security policies and procedures Regulatory and legal requirements Reviewed facility blueprints, site diagrams, and floor plans Identification of property boundaries Location of authorised access points Maps depicting facility ingress and egress paths Descriptions of physical structures Traffic patterns Neighbouring facilities Assessment overview & process Identification of critical functions Significant threats Available documentation
+
+Conclusions
+Recommendations
+Prioritised ranking of recommendations
+Cost-benefit analysis of recommended changes
+Appendices
+Facility and area photographs
+Blueprints
+Site diagrams
+Floor plans
+Security survey checklist
+Cost-benefit analysis documentation
+
+A vulnerability assessment identifies the weak areas in a facility in relation to a particular risk. These vulnerabilities guide the process of accumulating security knowledge (Garcia, 2006: 1). Officers receive information on the types of crimes that are being committed thanks to a document called a Crime Pattern Analysis. It provides officers with information on any known suspects, suspect vehicles, modus operandi, and other property loss, as well as the dates, times, and locations where these occurrences took place (Govender, 2018: 192).
+
+According to Govender (2018: 107), the most crucial aspect of a successful vulnerability assessment is accurately analysing the performance of the component that is being evaluated. This is accomplished by beginning with a performance value that has been tested for a specific component of a physical protection system such as a sensor, and then degrading the performance of the component based on the device’s installation, maintenance, testing, and integration into the overall system. This is done when taking a quantitative approach to solving the problem. For instance, if the sensor's performance value has already been tested, then the performance of the sensor will be worse after the testing. For qualitative analysis, the performance of each component is degraded in accordance with the same conditions. However, the device’s performance is assigned an effectiveness level, such as high, medium, or low, rather than a number. This is done so that the results can be interpreted more accurately.
+
+# 3.8 PROBABILITY
+
+After information on events, threats, and vulnerabilities has been collected and analysed, it is essential to assess the probability of loss using the information obtained (Govender, 2018: 107). When confronted with several issues, security managers are tasked with prioritising which of those concerns deserve immediate action. According to White (2014: 165), the purpose of the department's strategy to prevent crime, should be to minimise the chance of criminal activity to the lowest probability achievable. This aim may be achieved by the departments by taking a variety of actions, but the first step should be to identify the vulnerabilities and dangers that the departments are now facing. The following stage should be to investigate tried and tested preventative strategies, and the last step should be to put those preventative measures into action. Recognise that these measures will need to be updated over the course of time, and that the process should be assessed on an ongoing basis to ensure that it continues to be effective.
+
+In most situations, a vulnerability analysis is included as a component of a more comprehensive security risk assessment. Combined, the two will frequently anticipate the efficiency of any suggested remedial activities based on the vulnerabilities that have been found. In addition, the final report should provide some insight into the results that can be anticipated once the suggestions have been put into action. If security holes are found during the process of conducting a security risk assessment, a comprehensive action plan should be formulated, outlining the steps to be taken and the changes to be made recommendations. In addition, the anticipated outcomes of those recommendations should be identified and documented. Security managers will assess a threat to a vulnerability based on the probability that an event would take place, although this will depend on the categorisation of the vulnerability. There is a level rating system in place for every discovery (White, 2014: 167).
+
+# 3.9 IMPACT
+
+Williams (2013: 53) indicates that a business continuity management process should be implemented using a combination of preventive and recovery controls to minimise the impact on the departments and recover from the loss of information assets that may be the result of, for example, natural disasters, accidents, equipment failures, and deliberate actions to an acceptable level. This can be done to bring the situation back to an acceptable level. This process should identify critical business processes and integrate information security management requirements for business continuity with other continuity requirements for operations, resourcing, materials, transportation, and facilities. Additionally, this process should determine how to identify critical business processes.
+
+According to Govender (2018: 108), to classify information on security events, threats, and vulnerabilities into more specific subcategories, security managers utilise criticality principles. The meaning of the phrase has been determined to be the result of a loss in rand. An estimation of the impact of the danger was created based on the departments' prior information as well as the experiences of departments that are comparable to their own that have been in circumstances that are comparable. Impact is often measured using the rand as the standard unit of measurement. The expense of replacement, repair, missed productivity, lost business opportunity, clean-up, litigation, reputational harm, and diminishing consumer goodwill are all factors that the security manager needs to take into consideration. Even when it comes to the value of human life, a rand value is the standard to use. Govender (2018: 108) states the following factors also have an impact:
+
+a. Replacement cost (other indirect costs), The cost to replace such as indirect costs;
+b. Temporary replacement (employment costs);
+c. Interruption (not your usual business);
+d. Reduced money (withdrawing money from the investment);
+e. Changes in insurance rates (when the premiums go up); and f. Taking advantage of market depreciation (unable to deliver the product timeously).
+
+Govender (2018: 108) goes on to say that understanding the effect is an incredibly crucial notion for security managers. If the potential loss of money is larger than the cost of providing security, the management of the department, who often think in terms of cost analysis, will not be interested in spending money on security if the cost of providing protection is higher. Impact is a subjective measurement, much like likelihood, although it can be positioned anywhere along a continuum. Utilising the rankings that were generated for probability and impact, as well as developing a matrix system for various security risks, it is possible to quantify security risks to some extent and figure out which risks require immediate attention. This can be accomplished by creating a matrix for the various security risks. A probability and effect alphanumerical value may be provided to each security risk by using the matrix. If a decision has to be taken, the impact should be prioritised over the likelihood (Fisher, Halibozek & Green, 2008: 157-159).
+
+# 3.10 SECURITY BREACHES
+
+The proliferation of malware programmes and illegal access to the data that is housed in vital assets has made it extremely challenging to resolve the security breaches that have occurred involving sensitive information. Due to the fact that the risk appetite of each department is unique, it is imperative that the threat analysis tools be connected with the information security policy of the business in order to provide security controls at the departmental level. On the other hand, it has been observed that the current tools for threat assessment processes have not incorporated information security policy for effective security management (that is, confidentiality, integrity, and availability), which is based on the organisation's risk appetite and culture (Mbowe, Zlotnikova, Msanjila, & Oreku, 2014: 01). Mandell (2013: 15) argues that the Security Assessment will address the risk of a security breach in addition to preventing criminals from entering the building (Mandell 2013: 15). If the security of the departments is compromised, the security component setup will be in place to guarantee that a sufficient amount of evidence is acquired to assist in the investigation that will follow. According to Mahlatsi (2019: 06), in this day and age of information security breaches, the department needs highly developed strategic thinking on how to confront criminals who are highly talented and imaginative.
+
+Grama (2011: 10) contends that the number of vulnerabilities is growing, and that there are problems in the way that the implementation of internal information security is carried out. The security flaw gives attackers the ability to identify workers and hack into their personal as well as professional accounts, which poses a threat to the security of the state. The Department of Digital, Culture, Media, and Sport (2019: 03) notes that in their research, the findings reveal that the consequences of breaches in cyber security might be substantial. Nevertheless, their qualitative findings show that, outside of the survey, the indirect, long-term, and intangible consequences of breaches, such as lost productivity or reputational harm, are typically disregarded. This indicates that departments, when they assess their approaches to cyber security, there is a possibility that they may underestimate the real cost and severity of breaches in cyber security. (Grama (2011: 10; Nkwana (2015: 4) makes a veiled reference to the fact that the level of security breaches and the publication of unauthorised information is exceptionally high, despite the departments' best attempts to manage confidentiality and integrity.
+
+The MISS document (1998) indicates that heads of security or those tasked with an institution's security responsibility are required to report all instances of a breach of security, failure to comply with security measures, or conduct constituting a security risk as soon as possible to the NIA's Chief Directorate Security, and, where appropriate, to the SAPS (Crime Prevention Unit) or the SANDF. These reports should be made to the National Intelligence Agency's Chief Directorate Security (MI). In the event that there has been a breach of security involving government encryption, the South African Communication Security Agency (SACSA) should also be notified. The MISS paper from 1998 adds that whenever there is a breach in security, it is required to be reported using the procedures that are already in place. The head of the departments are the one who is accountable for seeing to it that all breaches in security are disclosed. Breach of security should always be handled with the utmost confidentially to protect the officer who was involved and to prevent the officer from being treated unjustly (South Africa, 1998).
+
+# 3.11 SUMMARY
+
+The chapter discussed vulnerability assessment in terms of threat assessment and cost effectiveness if implemented by service providers. It also considers how the outcome may influence which asset protection measures can be implemented or changed to reduce or eliminate any associated risks. The chapter discussed assessing the target's attractiveness in the event of an intentional attack, as well as the level of existing defences against various threats. Different types of vulnerability assessment were discussed to gain understanding of the tests performed and the scope of implementation was covered.
+
+The following chapter focuses on risk assessment using the knowledge gained from vulnerability assessment. The risk assessment results will provide the STA project team with a risk profile of the departments. The risk profile reflects the departments' exposure to the measured risks and serves as the foundation for the next step in the process.
+
+# CHAPTER 4
+
+# RISK ASSESSMENT AND MANAGEMENT
+
+# 4.1 INTRODUCTION
+
+According to the ISO 27001/2, risk assessment is the “systematic consideration of the business harm likely to result from a security failure and the realistic likelihood of such a failure occurring in the light of prevailing threats and vulnerabilities, and the controls currently implemented” (ISO, 2000). Security practitioners and managers look at security risk wholistically, so they perform risk management, risk identification, or risk assessment. However, risk presents itself in many different ways, so it is critical to take a broad view of risk to ensure that no critical categories are overlooked. As a result, various risk categories have been defined or listed as a kind of prompt or reminder to risk owners that there is financial, reputational, environmental, safety, strategic, project, and operational risk. For clarity, the researcher has categorised these risk types according to the study's underlying logic and framework.
+
+The researcher is of the view that the same is true for risk categories, also known as layers or levels in a hierarchical system. When it comes to risk types, many security managers have different priorities, and they prioritise them based on their department's objectives. While considering major sources of risk, the study identified four major types of risks, which are technical risk, which varies depending on the type of government department. Then there is the financial risk, which varies depending on the business unit in charge of procurement. Then there's management risk, which includes internal departmental risks like how business units are structured, how management makes decisions, how they prioritise, and how management communicates policies and strategies to employees. Furthermore, management risk includes how resources are allocated. External risk is another major category that includes things that are outside of departments but have a direct impact on government's core business, such as regulatory authorities, laws, and politics.
+
+The chapter commences with the concept of risk assessment and grouped the four categories as big headings in this chapter, which include Technical, Financial, Management, and External risks. This study further included the examination of vulnerability assessment.
+
+# 4.2 RISK ASSESSMENT CONCEPT
+
+Meloy and Hoffmann (2014: 08) point out that risk assessment is the outcome of a threat assessment, but the irony is that if it is conducted effectively, risk management is frequently modified according to the changing dynamics of the threat assessment, and the threat assessor is unable to know whether the subject would have become violent or not without intervention. The risk management component of risk analysis expands on the work of risk assessment by answering the questions: does anything need to be done about the risk? What can be done to remedy the situation? More importantly, what should be done about it? The STA distinguishes risk assessment and risk management as distinct and qualitatively distinct activities. While risk assessment is concerned with objective evidence to the greatest extent possible, risk management necessitates prudential judgments about which risks require management, the selection and application of treatment measures, and whether the dealings should be permitted. As a result, if there is uncertainty about risks during the investigation stage, the management measures chosen may be influenced (Commonwealth of Australia, 2005: iv).
+
+Bickley (2017: 28) argues that the process of risk assessment starts with the identification of the numerous security risks that are present within a specific setting, as well as the ways in which the personnel, assets, programmes being executed, or departments may be exposed. After that, it analyses them with regard to likelihood and impact in order to ascertain the extent of the risk that is involved. Finally, it identifies and assesses the potential risk-management solutions that may be put into action in the organisation. According to Allen (2016: 56), a successful risk assessment or identification has to take place with the least amount of stress or interruption to the main operations of the departments involved. In order to effectively analyse or identify risks, there should also be monitoring and responsibility. In addition to this, a commitment should be made to ensure that the proper degree of protection and deterrent is in place for that firm. The objectives of the departments need to be specified before risks can be recognised and evaluated in respect to those objectives. In addition, each level of the department is responsible for defining its own goals.
+
+Bickley (2017: 29) adds that once mitigating measures have been discovered, it is expected that some residual risk will remain. This residual risk should be compared to the risk threshold established by the department in order to assess whether or not the programme may continue. It is possible for a department to be found in violation of its duty of care if a risk assessment is carried out and measures are identified, but these measures are not put into practice. Documentation of the process of evaluating the potential threats to security is required, and this documentation should include both critical findings and suggested risk management strategies. The researcher disagrees with Bickley's (2017: 29) assertion that the final phase in the risk process is to identify and assess the many different risk-management methods that may be put into action. The researcher believes that the monitoring of such implementations and verifying compliance is the final phase in the process of security risk assessment. This step is also an ongoing process. The efficiency of several security systems is rarely monitored, even though numerous departments advocate for costly and intrusive enhancements in security.
+
+When confronted with a particular danger, the management team in charge of security has a wide variety of risk reduction methods at their disposal. When weighing the various possibilities, one has to give significant weight to the question of which assets require protection in order to maximise cost efficiency. The ability to prioritise riskreduction operations and respond to changing and emerging threats is afforded to security management by means of a thorough assessment of the potential security risks. Risk mitigation is a method for reducing the amount of hazard posed by an opponent. This can be accomplished by removing or intercepting the adversary before they launch an assault, limiting possibilities through increased security, or mitigating the repercussions of an attack that does succeed. Reducing threats, blocking opportunities, and lessening the impact of any adverse events are the three components of the optimal risk-mitigation approach, which unquestionably includes all three of them (Vellani, 2020: 19).
+
+According to the researcher, determining which assets require protection should not be the responsibility of security management, but of a security committee comprised of representatives from all business units in the departments. The researcher maintains that effective information risk management extends beyond situational measures and that protecting departmental information is the responsibility of all employees who generate data in an official capacity or on behalf of the departments. On the other hand, the researcher agrees that security managers are the primary participants and driving forces behind information security performance. As a result, questions such as how to approach security decision-making, organise leadership, and integrate security into day-to-day business operations are actively being researched. The process of security risk assessment includes risk identification, risk analysis, risk evaluation, and risk treatment:
+
+# 4.2.1 Identify Risks
+
+During the risk identification process, the departments need to pinpoint the sources of risk, the regions of effect, the occurrences, and the reasons of those events, as well as the potential repercussions of those risks (Gruyter, 2021: 225). It is necessary to consider both the potential consequences of the identified hazards and their frequency of occurrence. Every business ought to establish a strategy that outlines potential dangers and specifies how each one will be addressed on an individual basis. In order for the departments to be effective if and when an event takes place, they need to maintain consistency while also changing preparations as required. In order for the project to be successful, the action plans need to be evaluated, and all of the project's stakeholders need to have a clear understanding of what is expected of them. As a direct consequence of this, the exposure to risk needs to be decreased (Allen, 2016: 59).
+
+As requirements, the framework has to adhere to an agile mindset, be capable of diagnosing root cause (i.e., causal analysis), forecasting business impact, be adaptable to metrics programmes, and encourage cross-project reuse of risk knowledge. Such a solution should aid in the identification of risks based on historical data and the development of action plans to mitigate them (Gruyter, 2021: 102).
+
+# 4.2.2 Analyse Risks
+
+The process of analysing risks requires first gaining a grasp of the risks themselves. The results of a risk analysis are integrated into both the risk evaluation and the judgments on whether risks is be managed, as well as the risk treatment techniques and methods that are most suitable (Gruyter, 2021: 226). According to Allen (2016: 25), one of the key goals of security risk analysis is to give a more objective basis for the process that is being analysed. Every division ought to give some thought to the sorts of risk assessments that are pertinent to the goals that they have set. The management team's decision on the scope of the risk assessment is driven by their goals and objectives. It is possible for it to be limited and particular to a certain sector as well as danger (for example., financial, energy, transportation).
+
+On the other hand, Gruyter (2021: 11) notes that risk analysis is often focused on finding things that may go wrong in the design and its development, which would result in a failure of the system. This is done in the context of an evaluation. The findings are distilled and reported in terms that top management and security managers can understand. This allows the findings to be fed into the risk management process, and managers can decide on risk action requests for treatments that can either mitigate risks or remove them entirely. If managerial choices are not essential, parties involved in the evaluation might come to an agreement on quick corrective steps.
+
+According to Aven (2015: 3), the reliability requirement in this context refers to the extent to which the risk assessment produces the same results when the analysis is repeated, and the validity requirement refers to the extent to which the risk assessment describes the specific concepts that are being described. Both requirements are necessary for the risk assessment to be considered valid. Depending on how these criteria are used, the findings of risk assessments can be assigned varied degrees of "justification." Andales (2022) proposes a risk matrix that may be used as a tool for risk assessment together with other approaches and instruments. There is a wide variety of software and approaches that may be easily included into the operation of a company's process. The four risk assessment tools that are utilised the most frequently are the risk matrix, the decision tree, the failure modes and effects analysis, and the bowtie model. Some further approaches to risk assessment include the whatif analysis, the failure tree analysis, and the hazard operability analysis. The following presents how the risk matrix works:
+
+Table 4.1: The functioning of the risk matrix
+
+
+
Likelihood
Very
Likely
Unlikely
Highly Unlikely
Consequences
Fatality
High
High
High
Medium
Major Injuries
High
High
Medium
Medium
Minor Injuries
High
Medium
Medium
Low
Negligible Injuries
Medium
Medium
Low
Low
+
+Source: Researcher’s own illustration
+
+During a risk assessment, a risk matrix is frequently used to measure the level of risk by considering the consequence/severity and likelihood of injury to a worker after being exposed to a hazard. The two measures can then be used to help determine the hazard's overall risk rating. When using a risk matrix, two key questions to ask are:
+
+1. Consequences: How bad would the most severe harm be if exposed to the hazard?
+
+2. Likelihood: How likely is the department to be aggressed if exposed to the hazard?
+
+According to Andales (2022), the first question to ask when evaluating the consequences of a danger is, "If a worker is exposed to this hazard, how severe would the most likely serious injury be?" This is the question that should be asked when analysing the consequences of a hazard. For the sake of this consideration, it was believed that a risk and an injury are inescapable, and the only concern is with the degree to which the harm will affect the individual. In addition, while determining the probability, the question that ought to be asked is: If the danger happens, what is the risk that the worker would be injured?
+
+It is important to differentiate between this and the probability that the risk will materialise. It is common to categorise the likelihood of a hazard causing worker injury as follows:
+
+Very likely – exposed to hazard continuously.
+Likely – exposed to hazard occasionally.
+Unlikely – could happen but only rarely.
+Highly unlikely – could happen, but probably never will.
+
+# 4.2.3 Evaluate Risks
+
+The results of the risk analysis are used as the basis for the risk evaluation's aim, which is to aid in making judgments about which risks require treatment and the priority order of treatment implementation (Gruyter, 2021: 226). Allen (2016: 28) alludes that people who oversee producing vulnerability assessments need to be taught to examine the impact of loss to analyse not just what happened but also how the danger impacts the departments. It is always vital to evaluate the impact of loss to the recognised vulnerability while doing an assessment of the potential hazards that might affect the departments. Allen (2016: 28) states that the following stage, which is to assess what countermeasures may be done to lessen or eliminate the possible danger based on the results of the risk analysis, is the next step in the process. Because each expense is scrutinized on a yearly basis, it is necessary to consider the cost of putting remedies into action. After then, the countermeasures need to be assessed to determine whether all the possible countermeasures have been put into action. The total risk reduction of the departments is influenced in some way by each of these criteria.
+
+# 4.2.4 Treatment
+
+The process of selecting one or more alternatives for altering risks and then putting those options into action is known as risk treatment. After being put into place, therapies either offer or alter the controls (Gruyter, 2021: 226). If the risks are dealt with in a piecemeal fashion, there is potential for friction and inefficiency. For example, this is normal practice in departments that deal with security and fire. Doors should be left unlocked if they are required for fire safety, but they should be secured if they are required for security. If one examines these dangers through the prism of overall operational risk management, one will be able to rank them in order of severity and deal with them as necessary. An overarching perspective can also help identify chances to treat numerous threats at the same time (Allen, 2016: 18).
+
+Almost all the government departments are confronted with security risk, and they need to determine the exposure of such risk, and what are the consequences if such risk is not managed. The traditional definition of risk as "the likelihood and magnitude of an adverse event" appears incompatible with technical risk assessment.
+
+# 4.2.5 Technical Risk
+
+The magnitude of the difference between the actual and optimal design of product artifacts and processes, combined with uncertainty, is defined as technical risk. The definition provided here corresponds to practitioners' perspectives on technical risk. It allows for risk quantification and identifying potential product improvement areas (Antinyan, Staron, Sandberg & Hansson, 2014: 01). If technical risks are identified prior to operational phase planning, they can be defined as year zero (0) risks in a business model's levelized cost if they have an impact since the start of an operation, according to Moser, Del Buono, Jahn, Herz, Richter and De Brabandere (2017: 01). Only risks from year zero (0) are considered in this section. It is critical to understand how each of these risks' variability and associated uncertainty are calculated, as well as how the values are distributed in terms of probability. These variables are critical in determining the likelihood of exceeding and how it is influenced.
+
+According to Hansson and Aven (2014: 17), technical risk refers to the potential impact of changes on a project, system, or entire infrastructure if an implementation does not go as planned. Failure to identify and manage these threats leads to decreased departmental performance, security breaches, system failures, increased maintenance time, and significant technical debt. To ensure early detection of these problems, it is critical to have a reliable analysis solution for technical risk management. This reduces the amount of effort required to address unexpected infrastructure or system problems and prevents problems from arising unexpectedly (Hansson & Aven, 2014: 7).
+
+Defence Science and Technology Organisation (DSTO) (2010: 01) states that the capabilities over existing systems can be improved using development technologies, this can further delay and cut costs. The developments of the Collins submarine indicate that an improved process of procurement and management of such developed systems, was recommended by the Department of Defence when they reviewed their objectives, including the technical risks that are inherited. DSTO (2010: 01) further indicated that the Defence Procurement Review 2003 (also known as the Kinnaird Review) recommended that the two-pass system for new acquisitions should be strengthened to include a "comprehensive analysis of technology, cost, and schedule risks." The Review also stated that the 'Government should be assured that adequate scrutiny is conducted by DSTO on technology feasibility, maturity, and overall technical risk.' As a result, the Chief Defence Scientist (CDS) was tasked with providing independent advice to the government on all acquisition decisions.
+
+According to Antinyan, Staron, Sandberg, and Hansson (2014: 01), the challenges of technical risk assessment are difficult to address, but success can have a significant impact on software organisations. The main reason for this is the nature of an adverse event's outcome, which is more continuous than discrete. The study looks into various aspects of technical risks and provides a definition to help with risk assessment and management in software development.
+
+# 4.3 SOFTWARE DEVELOPMENT
+
+According to Giuffrida, Bardin, and Blanc (2018: 93), existing software defences, are ineffective. Given the difficulties in deploying hardware solutions, it is critical to develop effective software-based defences to protect mobile users from row hammer attacks. The authors conducted an in-depth investigation of the existing proposals, which can be broken down into two categories: those that aim to prevent attackers from triggering bit flips, and those that aim to make it impossible for a bit flip to render physical memory into an exploitable state. According to Giuffrida et al. (2018: 93), there are limitations in both directions. These limitations can be in terms of practicality, such as the fact that they require specific features of hardware, or they can be in terms of effectiveness, such as the fact that they still allow for row-hammer exploitation. Both limitations are problematic. They illustrate this inefficiency by introducing innovative assaults that exceed all defence mechanisms that have been devised and put into practice.
+
+The resistance of programmes to malicious attacks that take advantage of flaws is one of the primary concerns of software security. On the other side, the requirements for security functions, such as authentication, may be stated as functional requirements. Increased connection and progress made toward the Internet of Things have both contributed to the development of new threats. In addition to flaws that have been found in traditional computer systems (such as the Heartbleed bug), flaws have also been found in devices and applications that are not often thought of as being particularly security sensitive. Some examples of these include vehicles and medical devices. In addition to this, the danger is no longer confined to major companies; small and medium-sized businesses are increasingly becoming the focus of cyberattacks (Assal & Chiasson, 2018: 281).
+
+According to Gruyter (2021: 199), cloud computing companies who use a SaaS model are required to create, install, configure, and maintain the full infrastructure, platform, and applications stack to offer their clients with the specified service levels. Customers that use SaaS cloud services can access apps directly from a range of client devices by utilising interfaces such as web browsers (for example, Gmail and Yahoo! Mail) and an Internet connection to communicate with the cloud. One alternative moniker for the SaaS concept is the term "on-demand software services." Customers gain an advantage from using SaaS since they are only required to pay one set of expenses for license, installation, and maintenance. Customers using SaaS cloud services lose the capacity to exert control over the underlying cloud infrastructure, the platform, and even individual apps, which have restricted administrative access (Kavis, 2014).
+
+Gruyter believes that cloud suppliers are accountable for the security of utilising a cloud, including the infrastructure, operating systems, and applications, as businesses move away from using in-house data centres and toward using cloud computing. Gruyter's argument can be found in Gruyter 2021:199. The degree to which consumers are responsible for maintaining a secure environment differs according to the cloud service models that are utilised by those customers. For instance, in an IaaS model, cloud suppliers oversee managing the infrastructure of cloud computing, which includes things like physical facilities, data centres, and network interfaces. PaaS models provide cloud suppliers additional obligations, such as managing operating systems and middleware, in addition to their existing ones. Customers using cloud services are still responsible for their own data safety and security, regardless of the models of cloud service used. In addition to this, it is always the customer's responsibility to ensure that the security needs are in accordance with the norms or standards of the industry (Chou, 2013). There is a high possibility of security breaches, which will result in monetary loss for the department if the security criteria are not completed in line with the department's security policy. If this is not the case, there is a high likelihood of security breaches.
+
+# 4.4 FINANCIAL RISK
+
+Monzon (2021) alluded that the International Business Machines (IBM) Security released the findings of a recent study, which found that data breaches now cost South African businesses $\$3$ million (R46 million) on average – the highest cost in the report's 6-year history. The average financial damages arising from a data breach increased by $10\%$ year over year, reaching $\$4.24$ million in 2021. Based on an in-depth analysis of real-world data breaches experienced by South African departments, the study concludes that security incidents became more costly and difficult to contain because of drastic operational shifts during the pandemic, with costs rising $15\%$ for South Africans compared to the previous year.
+
+Lohrmann (2021) indicates according to that the IBM and the Ponemon Institute report (2021), the average cost of a data breach among surveyed companies reached $\$4.24$ million per incident in 2021, the highest in 17 years. Here are some more compelling statistics:
+
+The impact of remote work: The pandemic presented a unique challenge for both private and government department which resulted into a rapid shift to work remotely, and the outcome become more expensive due to data breaches. When the operations became remotely, breaches cost over than a million dollar on average than those in this group who did not have this factor $\$4.96$ vs. $\$3.89$ million);
+Costs arising from health-care breaches increased radically: Institutions that made important changes in their operations due to the pandemic, such as hospitals and health care centres, to a huge increase in loss of information costs year over year. The departments that suffered most in breaches are health care centres, with a $\$2$ million increase over the previous year, costing $\$9.23$ million per incident; Compromised credentials resulted in compromised data: The study found that stolen user credentials were the most common root cause of breaches;
+Most breaches derived from loss of user credentials, in addition, the personal data of the customers were exposed and information such as names, emails, and passwords were stolen. The breaches reported by the study accounted to 44 percent of all breaches; and
+The three factors of mitigations that were recommended for reduction of cost of security breaches included security analytics, adoption of Al, and encryption. Companies saved between $\$1.25$ million and $\$1.49$ million when compared to those who did not use these tools at all. For cloud-based data breaches studied, departments that used a hybrid cloud approach had lower data breach costs $(\$3.61$ million) than those that used a primarily public cloud approach $\$4.8$ million) or a primarily private cloud approach ( $\$4.55$ million).
+
+Allen (2016: 31) asserts that when it comes to upgrading products and putting in place new programmes, cost is always an essential factor to consider. One example of this is the installation of security systems. One example of this is the necessary number of security guards for the departments. The annual expense of maintaining the status quo regarding these workers will very probably go up. There are times when it is necessary to consider reducing the number of employees and replacing them with a more cost-effective option. In a similar vein, evaluation of the equipment should consider both the cost and its dependability. It is possible that modern security systems are more or less expensive than previous ones, but the most important thing is to prioritise reliability, adequate employee and asset safety, and effective risk management.
+
+# 4.5 MANAGEMENT RISK
+
+Gruyter (2021:181) makes a passing mention to the fact that risk management is an ongoing effort. The use of risk-based security helps to strike a balance between the expanding number of security risks and the ever-increasing complexity of the life cycle. In contrast to many other initiatives that came before it, research and various practice projects have shown that designing for security is beneficial but not adequate on its own. For security to be successful, it is necessary to cover all stages of the life cycle. It is essential to include security early in the design process in order to gain an understanding of the dangers and hazards posed by embedded functionalities.
+
+According to the ISC (2016: 53), a holistic strategy to distributing resources is the best way to safeguard a facility, its assets, and its people while yet maintaining an acceptable level of risk. The decisions that are made on risk management are based on risk assessments, risk mitigation, and risk acceptance, if required. An expanded definition of risk management is the act of recognizing, analysing, and communicating risk to accept, avoid, transfer, or control it to an acceptable level at an acceptable cost. This definition is based on the idea that risk may be managed in several ways. According to the ISC (2016: 53), the primary objective of risk management is to limit or eliminate risk by means of mitigation measures (preventing the risk or reducing the risk's negative impact). However, risk management also includes the concepts of risk acceptance and/or transfer depending on the circumstances. The ideas behind risk management acknowledge that while risk cannot always be avoided, it can always be mitigated.
+
+There are a number of challenges that have to be overcome in order to effectively manage risks, some of which are listed below according to Williams (2017: 2):
+
+• A lack of integration, in which risk management is utilised as an add-on rather than integrated with other management processes, or if there is a "silo" approach rather than a strategy approach at the departmental level, both of these issues
+• An absence of a systematic approach, which frequently results from the flawed belief that risk management is automatically ingrained in day-to-day decisions, as well as an absence of clear reporting to senior management and the audit committee, which typically accompanies this deficiency, are two of the most common causes of this weakness.
+• An abdication of responsibility brought on by individuals' lack of interest in or awareness of risk, which can be brought on by poorly written job descriptions and a weak or absent risk management process; and
+• A lack of risk connectivity between the top and bottom levels of the department;
+
+In South Africa, most senior position in the departments is politized and people without academic qualifications are appointed on senior positions. The above-mentioned management risk mentioned by Williams (2017: 2) outlines how the security of the departments can be compromised due to lack of good management who cannot develop good policies and Standard Operation Procedures (SOP).
+
+# 4.5.1 Policies and Standard Operation Procedures
+
+Risk is often quantified in terms of likelihood and consequence, according to the Australian Fisheries Management Authority (2019: 04). Risk is defined as the influence of uncertainty on an aim. Effective risk management requires the methodical implementation of management policies, practices, and procedures to the activities of consulting, establishing the context, communicating, as well as identifying, monitoring, analysing, treating, evaluating, and reviewing risk. These activities include communicating, consulting, and establishing the context; establishing the context; and identifying, analysing, evaluating, treating, monitoring, and reviewing risk. It is broken down into four primary steps, which are risk context, risk assessment, risk treatment, and risk monitoring. Consultation is carried out during each stage. The purpose of the process of risk assessment is to offer insight into the potential sources of risk and the potential repercussions, as well as to act in the event that unfavourable outcomes or hazards occur.
+
+Williams (2013: ix) alludes to the fact that the purpose of developing comprehensive security policies is to that satisfies the needs of the departments, using compliance standards as a guide to ensure that our security policy satisfies the requirements of the various standards. In this regard, the following statements are designed to elicit comments from management in order to construct an information security policy document that integrates the various needs of the various standards. The researcher contends that it is very difficult to design a cyber security strategy that would be proactive and will be embraced by management in the public sector, particularly in the government. It is difficult for the management in the departments to differentiate between cyber security and digital forensic investigation, which has a direct influence on the process of establishing cyber security as a function. Sets of security policies should cover many of the same concerns; however, the level of control, the severity of the penalty, and the degree of supervision in these policies should be adjusted to the department's threat environment, the industry, and the business culture (Landoll, 2016: 6).
+
+Bayuk, Healey, Rohmeyer, Sachs, Schmidt and Weiss (2012: 3) assert that cyber security policy addresses the conflict between demand for cyber functionality and security requirements. The term "policy" is used to describe a variety of cyber security situations. It has been applied to laws and regulations governing information distribution, private enterprise goals for information security, computer operations methods for controlling technology, and configuration variables in electronic devices. In general, "cyber security policy" refers to directives intended to maintain cyber security.
+
+Allen (2016: 31) mentions that any security programme should have policies and procedures in place that are cost-effective. To ensure that financial goals are met, every effort should be expended to review available resources. Manpower, hardware, and technology are examples of resources. Each has to be evaluated in terms of what is best and most cost-effective for the department. In addition, Allen (2016: 33) points at one approach that can determine whether a security survey is required as to focus on available security services for the particular needs of the departments. The security survey can aid the departments in determining the effectiveness of their security plan, and whether it is sufficient to meet the needs of the departments. The security plans are not meant to meet the needs of the departments wholistically, but to focus on the specific needs. Therefore, establishment of security policies and procedures will aid in determining policy contradiction or formulates policies that would complement one another, and whether there is need to for consolidation. These policies have to be renewed every year to ensure its effectiveness and appropriateness for current challenges such as cybersecurity strategy.
+
+# 4.5.2 Cybersecurity Strategy
+
+Masombuka, Grobler and Duvenage (2021: 285) state that the South African government's pursuit of widespread internet access, its growing use and reliance on digital services, and the emergence of new technologies has given rise to new cyberthreat threats and risks. This is because the government is pursuing widespread internet access at a time when new technologies are emerging. A coordinated effort involving all levels of government is required for there to be any hope of developing a successful cybersecurity strategy to address these threats. On the other hand, taking a disproportional approach to cyber security seems to be necessary in light of the fact that the government is structured on three levels: national, provincial, and local.
+
+According to Masombuka et al. (2021: 285), it is essential that cybersecurity on the provincial and local levels be prioritised, resourced, and tailored to their respective functions. However, this should not be done at the expense of underestimating the significance of cybersecurity on the national level. The circumstances in which the activities of national, provincial, and municipal governments are carried out are different from those of the national government, despite the fact that there are certain commonalities across these domains. As a direct consequence of this, the one-sizefits-all strategy to cybersecurity adopted by the national government is neither properly inclusive nor truly downward scalable. The continued growth of cyberspace and the challenges that it poses requires a contemporaneous and continuous adaptation in the methods that are used to construct resilient cybersecurity at all levels of government. This is required because cyberspace is always changing and posing new threats. In the event that this does not occur, local government in particular will continue to be an alluring target and a weak point in the cybersecurity defences of the government.
+
+Gercke (2014: 12) indicates that the departments utilise a wide array of cutting-edge technologies and methods to protect essential corporate assets. Trust, on the other hand, is the single most crucial component of any cybersecurity programme. It acts as the basis for all the decisions that senior management makes about tools, talent, and procedures. On the other hand, according to their views, there is a widespread lack of trust in the cybersecurity initiatives of many departments because of conflicting goals. However, the chief security officer and his team prioritise security on a daily basis since even the most ordinary internet transactions provide weaknesses that may be exploited. Senior business executives and the board may only address cybersecurity after an attack happens.
+
+This lack of trust, according to Choi et al. (2017: 9), is what causes common misconceptions about cybersecurity, such as the types of threats that are the most relevant, the amount of money that is required to protect critical information, and even which data sets are the most susceptible to being compromised. When beliefs are accepted as truth, the level of trust between parties continues to erode, and cybersecurity initiatives are unable to reach their full potential. If, for example, the number of data breaches that have occurred has been low, business leaders may be tempted to reduce the amount of money allocated to cybersecurity until the chief information officer (CIO) or other cybersecurity leaders demonstrate the need for additional investment in controls. This could potentially leave them open to an attack. In contrast, if threats are frequently documented, business leaders may make rash decisions to overspend on new technologies without realizing that there are other, nontechnical solutions to keep data and other corporate assets safe. These decisions may be made without realizing that there are other, nontechnical solutions to keep data and other corporate assets safe.
+
+According to Goldstein, Hogan-Burney and Manky (2020: 6), an estimated 4.66 billion people worldwide use the internet nowadays, a figure that has tripled in the last 12 years as connectivity has become more widely available and will continue to rise. The reliance on computers and technology has altered the way we conduct business, communicate, and socialize, and technology is now an essential component of all aspects of life. Humans are becoming increasingly reliant on the internet, but our efforts to protect people, data, devices, and the internet's infrastructure from cybercriminals have fallen short of the threat they pose. Cyber criminals steal an estimated $\$600$ billion per year from governments, businesses, and individuals, with the total loss of company revenues expected to reach $\$5.2$ trillion over the next five years, from 2019 to 2023. Cybercrime, in fact, is one of the most disruptive and economically damaging criminal activities. Not only does it cause significant financial damage and pose a serious threat to society and the global economy, but it also has indirect consequences by undermining public trust in digital transformation and overall trust in technology.
+
+Hansson and Aven (2014: 18) state that the idea that some assets are especially vital to a company's existence has to be at the core of an effective cyber-security plan in order for it to be successful. Because in our increasingly digitalized world, safeguarding everything in the same manner is no longer a viable choice. On the other hand, trust is very essential to the operation of the digital business model. If there is not enough security at the client interface, the risk might become existential. Over the past five years, the number of both small and big system breaches, as well as the sophistication and complexity of the assaults, have more than doubled. Even though they are aware that their defences will not be able to keep up with future attacks, most large departments continue to address the problem as a technological and control issue. This is even though they are aware of the seriousness of the situation. In addition, these defences are typically conceived with the intention of safeguarding the outskirts of corporate activities and are implemented in a manner that is inconsistent throughout the various divisions of the company. The researcher agrees with the authors that the next wave of innovation in customer applications, business processes, technology structures, and cybersecurity defences should be founded on a business and technical strategy that places a priority on the protection of critical information assets. This technique is known as "digital resilience," and is a cross-functional strategy that identifies and analyses all risks, establishes enterprise-wide goals, and determines how to fulfil those goals in the most effective manner (Hansson & Aven, 2014: 18).
+
+Management formerly had the ability to engage lengthy and in-depth conversations about technological strategy without ever bringing up the subject of security (Gercke, 2014: 12). Even if cybercriminals are becoming more clever and able to adapt to various defences, departments in recent times have enormous assets and value that are manifested in digital form, and they are strongly tied to global technological networks. Most government agencies, committees, and top executives are aware of the grave dangers that cyberattacks represent to the operations at the centre of government. What they do not know is how to establish a plan that will help them comprehend and deal with dangers in all of their guises, both in the present and in the future. This is something about which they are concerned. In addition, they require such a plan daily.
+
+On the other hand, the experience gained while working to defend some of the largest and most technologically advanced corporations in the world has revealed three overarching requirements that can aid departments in updating their efforts regarding cyber security. They give an exhaustive series of articles inside this compendium that detail how departments may make these demands a reality and assist their leaders in getting a better night's sleep as a result. Based on his years of experience working in the field, the researcher agrees that an effective cybersecurity strategy offers differentiated protection for the organisation's most valuable assets through the implementation of a collection of security measures that are arranged in tiers (Garg, 2020: 9).
+
+In recent times, the principal targets of cyberattacks were governmental organisations and financial institutions (Garg, 2020: 9). The danger is now on a worldwide scale as a result of every organisation linking an increasing number of their activities to the internet. Think about the destruction that was brought about by these three recent incidents. Between the years 2011 and 2014, the cyberespionage organisation known as ‘Dragonfly’ targeted energy businesses located in the United States of America, Europe, and Canada. In the month of May 2017, the WannaCry ransomware seized public and commercial companies in the fields of telecommunications, healthcare, and logistics hostage. During the same year, the ransomware attacked several large organisations in Europe that were in a variety of different industries. Meltdown and Spectre were discovered to be two of the most dangerous cyberthreats ever in 2018, indicating that vulnerabilities are present not just in software but also in hardware. Meltdown and Spectre were discovered in 2018.
+
+Bailey, Kolo, Rajagopalan and Ware (2018: 34) point that one of the most significant unresolved issues in cybersecurity is insider threat via the departments' own employees, as well as contractors and vendors. According to a recent study, it is present in $50\%$ of reported breaches, the departments are aware of the issue, but they sparsely devote the resources or executive attention required to solve it. Most prevention programmes fall short, either by focusing solely on monitoring behaviour or by failing to take cultural and privacy norms into account. The researcher concurs with Bailey, Kolo, Rajagopalan and Ware (2018: 34), that there is no sense of accountability and the departments aware of perpetrators, but no one is getting charged or arrested for security breach. Bailey at al state that some of the world's leading companies are now experimenting with a micro segmentation approach to target potential problems more precisely. Others are implementing extensive cultural change and predictive analytics. These new approaches can produce more accurate results than traditional monitoring and can also assist businesses in navigating the tricky business of protecting assets while also respecting employees' rights.
+
+Bailey et al. (2018: 34) further state that the departments sometimes struggle to define the term "insider threat." This term is used to refer to the cyber-risk posed to departments as a result of the rather than other types of behaviour of its employees’ harassment, workplace violence, and other insider threats are examples of insider threats. or wrongdoing Contractors and subcontractors are used for this purpose. Many vendors are also considered employees. The largest cases in recent memory have relied on third parties. parties at their heart Inside threats are created by two types of employees: those who are negligent and those who have malicious intent. departments can easily understand negligent or co-opted insiders; through poor training, low morale, or pure carelessness, normally reliable employees can expose the company to external risks. Departments, on the other hand, frequently misunderstand malicious insiders in two ways.
+
+Goldstein, Hogan-Burney and Manky (2020: 3) state that governments have traditionally been in charge of combating crime. However, the unique realm of cyberspace has demonstrated that governments do not and will not have all of the capabilities required to combat the cybercrime threat on their own. Indeed, many of the required capabilities are found in the private sector, so private companies have to be included in the solution. Enabling stronger operational collaboration between the private and public sectors on a global scale, as well as combining their resources and capabilities, are thus critical elements in mitigating the risk posed by cybercrime. There are numerous significant collaborative initiatives, but they are fragmented and insufficient for current needs. As a result, there has been a change in basic assumptions in how these challenges should be addressed collectively through security structured communication.
+
+# 4.5.3 Communication
+
+Communication and consultation occur at all risk management process levels between those in charge of risk management implementation and those with own vested interests. This provides insight into how decisions are made and why certain treatments are required. Instead of a one-way flow of information from decisionmakers to stakeholders, the emphasis should be on consultation (AFMA, 2019: 05). Unlike in the militant approach of command and control that is used in the SANDF and SAPS, modern managers understands that field workers are in the position to know the threat picture that the departments are facing, and the best way is to consult with them before they implement security measures. Most departments employ specialists on the level entry, and they expect them advice management on improvement of security features. All this requires precise communication between the management, sub-ordinates, and the stakeholders.
+
+Harbach et al. (2014: 33) state that communicating the risk associated with specific actions has long been a concern in human-computer interactions. A substantial amount of previous research has focused on how to effectively communicate security risks in general, such as those caused by insecure SSL connections or phishing. Many IT security systems employ a decision dialogue to inform the user about potential risks or privacy implications. Recent research, however, has repeatedly demonstrated that such dialogues are frequently ineffective and quickly ignored, or provide information that is difficult for the user to understand. in comparison, Rader, Wash and Brooks (2012) indicate that informal stories have an impact on security behaviour and thinking as they are passed down from one user to the next. These stories provide concrete examples of good and bad things that have happened to people that a user can relate to. Previously, Blackwell, Church and Green (2008), proposed that abstract information in software creates a schism between system designers and users.
+
+Hull (2018: 637) indicates that preventing employees from engaging in inappropriate behaviour is critical for departments, because it can be very costly in terms of regulatory fines, legal costs, and reputation. Some innovations enable businesses to track their employees' conversations across multiple communication platforms. For example, Digital Reasoning, a Nashville-based company with offices in London, New York, and Washington, has developed surveillance software that is used by some of the world's largest banks and asset management firms (Council of Europe, 2001: 2). It can listen in on English conversations (handling six different dialects). Hull (2018: 637) adds that it can monitor employee behaviour by analysing millions of e-mails, chat logs, and phone conversations to detect suspicious or unusual activity using machine learning. If machine learning detects an employee whose behaviour deviates significantly from the norm, further investigation may be necessary. In an asset management firm, the behaviour could be indicative of insider trading, which, if allowed to continue, could result in a large fine. In a financial institution, it could be indicative of rogue trading or a failure to treat subordinates with respect.
+
+Ebert (2021: 164) state that information security is the sum of all characteristics of an information system or product that contribute to ensuring that information processing, storage, and communication protects integrity, availability, and trust. Information security implies that the product will not do anything with the processed or managed data that is not explicitly stated in its specifications. Williams (2013: 32) argues that the sensitivity and criticality of information vary. Some items may necessitate additional safeguards or special handling. To define an appropriate set of protection levels and communicate the need for special handling measures, an information classification scheme should be used. If sensitive or classified information from the department falls into the hands of unauthorised people, aggressors, or the media, it has the potential to ruin the department's reputation.
+
+# 4.5.4 Reputational risk
+
+Reputational risk is defined as risk arising from negative customer perceptions on the part of counterparties, customers, investors, shareholders, market analyst, debtholders, other relevant parties, or regulators that could negatively affect a department's ability to maintain existing or establish new business relationships and continue access to sources of funding (BIS, 2009: 19). If communication and disclosure effectiveness play an important role in the process, the usefulness of environmental management and reporting as a hedging instrument for reputational risk is addressed through various levels of information transparency. When considering a voluntary reporting scenario, it shows that environmentally conscious departments can reduce the cost of environmental management as a reputational risk strategy while also reducing the potential loss of reputational value from reputational threats and increasing the potential revenue from reputational opportunities.
+
+Hull (2018: 587) indicates that the risk of loss arising from insufficient or failed internal processes, people, and systems, or external events. Model risk and legal risk are included in operational risk, but risk arising from strategic decisions and reputational risk are not. The researcher argues that the departments should include the reputational risk in their risk model. This procedure entails conducting a thorough preemployment screening to avoid hiring people with a bad reputation. With some of the experienced people who were involved in corruption scandals such as the "State Capture Commission" and the “Venda Building Society/ VBS bank scandal" now applying for senior positions in the departments, this can give the departments a bad reputation. Nobanee, Alhajjar, Abushairah and Al Harbi (2021: 2) indicate that the most valuable commodity in modern business is reputation, and this is the same in government department. The department with a good reputation creates market satisfaction, employs, and retains high skilled professionals. It further establishes a long-term relationship with stakeholders and investors.
+
+Lemke and Petersen (2013: 413) argue that professionals in the supply chain context manage a variety of risks that have the potential to disrupt supplies. Surprisingly, one type of risk is frequently ignored: reputational risk. It is critical to recognise the risk potential that has an impact on the departments’ reputation. Managers will also need an appropriate tool set to control it. Management builds a good reputation when they do a good job, and this has a positive impact on the departments and their stakeholders. This enhances the department's image, attracts more resources, and improves performance. As a result, there is no single correlation between corporate social performance and corporate financial performance. The activities that generate social performance have no direct impact on the department's financial performance, but they do have an impact on intangible assets. The departments should adjust their risk management methods and different response will be required for external risk.
+
+# 4.6 EXTERNAL RISK
+
+Hull (2018: 517) states that there is a different between internal and external risks. Internal risks are those that are under the company's control. The company decides who to hire, the computer systems to develop, the controls to put in place, and so on. Some people consider operational risks to include all internal risks. Operational risk then encompasses more than just the risk associated with operations. It includes risks associated with insufficient controls, such as the rogue trader risk and the risks associated with other types of employee fraud. Hull (2018: 517) adds that it includes the effect of external events such as natural disasters (for example, a fire or an earthquake that disrupts the operations of the departments), political and regulatory risk (for example, being barred from operating in a foreign country by the government of that country), security breaches, and so on.
+
+Meloy and Hoffmann (2014: 74) state that the department should have laws that used to keep aggressors away from potential victims during high-risk periods of vulnerability, confine them for treatment, impose external behavioural control, and establish structure after release. The researcher believes that because the STA is proactive, it can be effective in identifying dangerous behaviour among employees; however, vulnerability assessment should be included as part of the process.
+
+# 4.7 MITIGATION
+
+The risks, vulnerabilities, consequences, and mitigation measures will vary and should be considered from an in-out perspective. At the intersection, there is an opportunity to mitigate risk and prevent threat from becoming reality. Law enforcement agencies can be human or nonhuman in the pragmatic of resilient countermeasures derived from analytic tools, risk management processes, technological, or other human instruments originating from internal or external sources. As a base, the conceptual framework could be reordered to be sources, mediums, perpetrators, intent, enforcers, and consequences (Thompson, 2019: 4).
+
+Gruyter (2021: xii) indicates that Mitigation principles and practices that are specific to each situation make this a complex topic with numerous implications. The emphasis is not always on avoiding and reducing risks, but on knowing when and how to embrace risk to increase the probabilities of project and the success of the department. Allen (2016: 61) argues that the mitigation strategies are based on the asset's value in relation to the threat, vulnerability, or both. Risk is also determined by the probability of an event occurring. On each level, the risk assessment compares the threat and asset value to the identified vulnerabilities. Furthermore, Allen (2016: 61) states that for the departments to evaluate mitigation measures, the security managers should calculate the risk based on how the mitigation measures are used and whether they affect the value of vulnerability assets. Each mitigation measure should be weighed against the risk. The final phase is to determine which mitigation measures will be provide the departments with the greatest reduction at the lowest possible cost, by performing a cost benefits analysis.
+
+According to Mbanaso (2021: 43), cybersecurity risk mitigation refers to activities such as policies, processes, and technical controls embedded in cybersecurity governance by the departments to help prevent security incidents and data breaches while also limiting the extent of damage when security attacks do occur. Thompson (2019: 31) admits that Mitigation is difficult; even money cannot be a quick fix; a deeper level of transformation may be required. Computers and systems should not be managed like property because layering new technology on top of old technology frequently means that security cannot be achieved because standard configurations should be modified to adapt to the new technology (Rogers, 2008: 14). When this change is made, both remote and in-person monitoring of intrusions becomes extremely difficult. More investment is required to keep standard configurations up to date with the most recent software, as well as extremely frequent scanning and full vulnerability patching.
+
+# 4.8 MONITOR THE IMPLEMENTATION
+
+Gruyter (2021: 67) posits that the implementation phase refers to putting the chosen course of action into action and monitoring its outcomes. Finally, the learning phase denotes a post-mortem examination of the implemented decision, its expected and actual outcomes. Gruyter (2021: 67) mentions that the relevant risk monitoring and evaluation activity, as well as the use of descriptive analytics tools, have been nonexistent. Given that the main purpose of risk monitoring and evaluation is to track software project health status via risk tracking to timely identify critical deviations from projected plans and apply the appropriate corrective actions, this identified situation opens significant research opportunities. Dashboards and visualization techniques provided by descriptive Analytics tools naturally support this tracking and monitoring activity. Allen (2016: 57) concurs with Gruyter (2021: 67) that the departments should put in place the necessary tools to detect and address potential risks before they occur. A controlled environment makes it easier to identify potential risks. However, for departments to be effective, risk exposures have to be continuously monitored.
+
+Allen (2016: 85) states that when the physical threat monitoring system is applied, the departments should deploy sensors in sensitive areas and along likely attack channels, collect all available information that can assist in identifying the specific problem, and create a system that can aggregate this information and distil it into important details that should be acted upon. Ongoing monitoring is a critical component of model validation. This includes the testing and documentation of all model changes. In the event that the model user and model developer are the same person (as is sometimes the case) the model user may be tempted to modify the code to ensure the performance of the model is improved (Hull, 2018: 571). Policy should be rooted in some meaningful doctrine purpose, have a nexus to a law or regulation, or be tied in with or be about the Accounting Officer's vision, accountability to stakeholders, or the department's primary mandate; all should be directly linked in with the it's values and be strategically conveyed. it should be remembered that if the departments have employed credible people through the proper human resources' procedures, policy should be easier to follow; however, monitoring should never be omitted (Thompson, 2019: 64). If the vulnerabilities are not mitigated or monitored effectively, the departments would experience the security breaches.
+
+# 4.9 SUMMARY
+
+The chapter defined risk assessment as concept and further categorised the types of risk as heading to structure the chapter. The chapter discussed the technical, financial, management, and external risks. The chapter discussed security breaches as well as the installation of security components to aid in the subsequent investigation. The principles and practices of mitigation strategy were discussed. The chapter further discussed in the balance of probabilities; the cost effectiveness is an important factor in determining which assets require protection, and as a comprehensive security risk assessment that enables security management to prioritise risk-reduction activities and conform to varying and emerging threats.
+
+The chapter also discussed various risks, vulnerabilities, consequences, and mitigation measures that should be considered from an in-out perspective. It further identified opportunities that can be used to mitigate risk and prevent threats from becoming reality.
+
+The next chapter focuses on the legal mandate and policy documents that support the implementation of security programmes in government departments. The chapter further addresses the decided cased on selected legislations.
+
+# CHAPTER 5
+
+# LEGAL MANDATE
+
+# 5.1 INTRODUCTION
+
+The security component in all government departments should develop and implement security programmes that support the primary mandate of these departments and ensure that policy documents relate to their mission and vision (Williams, 2017: 12). Moreover, the formulation of security policies should be in line with the legislations and national policy document, namely, the Minimum Information Security Standard. This chapter commences with the highest law in the land, the Constitution of the Republic of South Africa, 1996, and integrates related case law in discussing the legislations. Furthermore, the chapter focuses on supplementary legislations and policy documents that support the implementation of security threat assessment. The chapter further addresses the Canadian laws on security privacy and challenges that they face on cyber security.
+
+# 5.2 THE CONSTITUTION OF THE REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA, 1996
+
+In order to execute the functions of national security, the Constitution of the Republic of South Africa, 1996 enacted the National Strategic Intelligence Act No. 39 of 1994. This piece of national legislation authorises certain government agencies to maintain an intelligence collection capability. According to De Kock (2011), the SAPS has a criminal intelligence unit that is responsible for gathering intelligence for the purpose of policing. The SANDF is in charge of Defence Intelligence, and the SSA is responsible for gathering intelligence for all other government ministries. According to Govender (2018: 107), the legislation does not include provisions for private security. The researcher is of the view that this particular piece of legislation is quite effective, in contrast to the three intelligence bodies, which are not. The function of these intelligence agencies is to identify potential dangers before they materialise, but they were unable to do so in the case of the looting in KwaZulu-Natal that occurred in 2021. In addition, the fire that broke out on South Africa's Constitutional Hill brought the nation's security establishment into disrepute, and left questions concerning the capabilities of intelligence agencies in South Africa.
+
+On the other hand, employees frequently complain about how the security and intelligence violates their privacy. Chapter 2 of the Constitution of the Republic of South Africa (1996), also known as the Bill of Rights, states that the people shall be treated with democratic values such as human dignity, equality, and freedom. On the other hand, employees frequently complain about how the security and intelligence violates their privacy. The rights outlined in the Bill of Rights are ones that the state is obligated to respect, defend, promote, and fulfil. However, the Bill goes on to state that the rights are subject to the limits that are mentioned in Section 36 or anywhere else in the Bill. These limitations can be found anywhere in the Bill. Employees have a constitutional right to work in conditions that are safe for them, where their lives and personal information are protected, and where they are able to carry out their jobs without fear of reprisal. When they are on the premises of the departments, security managers should be aware that employees and visitors have the right to have their inherent dignity respected and that they have the right to be safeguarded from harm.
+
+# 5.3 PROTECTION OF INFORMATION ACT, 1982 (ACT NO 84 OF 1982)
+
+The revelation of information that should be protected is prohibited by Section 4 of the Protection of Information Act 84 of 1982; however, this provision is in conflict with the constitutional provisions that relate to presumptions. The Act does not include any provisions for the establishment of standards for the presentation of government information in legal proceedings. In addition, it does not include any relevant offences or minimum sentences for those who commit crimes (South Africa, 1980).
+
+# 5.3.1 Council of Review, South African Defense Force
+
+In the matter between the Council of Review, South African Defense Force (first appellant), Brigadier A. K. de Jager in his capacity as the confirming authority in respect of the court martial of respondents, held at Cape Town in January 1988 (second appellant), Colonel M. Dempers (third appellant), and Heinrich Johannes Monnig (fourth appellant), Case No. 610/89 was heard in the Appellate Division of the Supreme Court of South Africa (first respondent). Pieter Reinhard Pluddeman (second respondent) William Desmond Desmond Thompson (third respondent) Coram: Corbett CJ, Van Heerden, F H Grosskopf, Nienaber, JJA et Preiss AJA The date of the hearing was November 15th, 1991, and the date of the ruling was May 15th, 1992 (Southern African Legal Information Institute (SAFLII, 1992).
+
+It is a criminal offense, in accordance with Section 4(1)(b) of the Protection of Information Act 84 of 1982, to divulge to an unauthorised person particular kind of documents or information that pertain to topics pertaining to the military and that are of a secret or confidential character (South Africa, 2013). And the Riotous Assemblies Act 17 of 1956 makes it an offense for any person to plot with any other person to facilitate or procure the commission of, or to commit, an offense that is either statutory or common law in nature. This provision may be found in Section 18(2) of the act. On February 4, 1988, an ordinary court martial found the three respondents guilty of violating section 4(1)(b) of Act 84 of 1982 when read in conjunction with section 18(2) of Act 17 of 1956. Each respondent was given a sentence of 18 months in detention as a result of their convictions. At the time, the respondents were performing their national service in the Citizen Force in accordance with the Defence Act 44 of 1957 ("the Act"). Additionally, the third respondent, who at the time held the rank of corporal, was demoted to the lowest position possible, which is the third rank.
+
+# 5.4 MINIMUM INFORMATION SECURITY STANDARD (MISS) 1998
+
+A Cabinet paper on the topic of national information security policy was authorised in 1998 and was referred to as the MISS document. The duties and obligations of the individuals in charge of the organisation are laid forth in Chapter 3 of the text. The classification and declassification system are discussed in Chapter 4, which is relevant to the topic of information security. The MISS (1998) guidelines detail the requirements that ought to be satisfied for applicants to be vetted before their appointment in a sensitive position or in an environment involving crime intelligence (CI). These requirements should be met before an applicant can be considered for a position in either of these settings. Current military personnel, individuals seeking promotions in sensitive situations, and contractors are all required to comply with these regulations (South Africa, 1998: 1). As a consequence of this, it is absolutely necessary for people who work for the government and anyone who want to conduct business with the government to become familiar with the requirements that are specified in the document (Nkuna, 2020: 23).
+
+The topic of personnel security is discussed in Chapter 5 of the MISS paper (1988), which also establishes guidelines for vetting investigations across all government departments (Nkwana, 2017:26). The vetting criteria, the vetting of people who have lived and worked overseas for an extended period of time, the vetting of contractors who intend to conduct business with the State, the procedure for requesting a vetting investigation, the transferability of a security clearance, the responsibilities of the employees who are traveling, and the period of time that a security clearance is valid all apply to the government departments. According to Mahlatsi (2019: 24), the security clearance acts as a guide for the department in terms of the quantity of information that an employee is permitted to access; nonetheless, the need-to-know principle governs this aspect of the situation. In addition to this, it details the processes that should be carried out in order to ensure that the screening of the suitability of security professionals and the validity of security clearances are carried out correctly (South Africa, 1998).
+
+# 5.5 PROTECTION OF PERSONAL INFORMATION (POPI) ACT
+
+The POPI Act was developed in response to a detailed investigation of worldwide privacy laws conducted by the South African Law Reform Commission (SALRC), which based the act's principles primarily on those implemented by the Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) and the European Union (EU) (South Africa, 2013: 11). SALRC advised that, similar to the strategy taken by the EU, a body be formed to enforce, monitor, and promote conformity to the implemented data protection laws. As a result, the POPI Act requires the government to designate an Information Regulator to guarantee the application and promotion of the rights it protects (South Africa, 2013: 17).
+
+Personal data and information are defined under the POPI Act as any information that allows a user of the information to identify the data subject, who might be a natural or legal person (South Africa, 2013:14). It covers race, marital status, health, gender, sex, pregnancy, ethnic origin, religion, disability, belief, and so on (South Africa, 2013:14), as well as any identifying number or symbol, such as an e-mail address, physical address, phone number, or online identity. According to Greenleaf (2013:236), the legal definition of personal data limits the applicability of data privacy legislation in two ways. Firstly, they do not include data that does not identify a person yet enables for personalised contact with that individual. Examples include the use of software to enable behavioural marketing, in which firms utilise software to create personal profiles that do not include names or internet identifiers but allow for the collection of a considerable quantity of information about individuals (Schwartz & Solove, 2011:1818). "Online identifiers" are included in the definition of "personal information" under Section 1 of the POPI Act.
+
+The second limitation is premised on the exclusion of data kept in a non-transitory form, such as some types of closed-circuit television (CCTV) recordings (Greenleaf, 2013: 236). The ICO publishes a CCTV code of practise (ICO, 2008), which contains guidelines on how and where recorded material should be stored responsibly. The POPI Act does not directly address this matter (South Africa, 2013:14), but the future Information Regulator will be able to advise South African firms on the best business practises to follow when dealing with this sort of content.
+
+The POPI Act has been used in various court decisions, such as in the case of the Black Sash Trust versus Minister of Social Development (Business Insider SA, 2020: 1). This decision principally concerns SASSA's capacity to pay grant recipients across the country in a legal way. SASSA previously outsourced the monthly social grant payments procedure to Cash Paymaster Services (CPS) as part of a prior arrangement In the public interest, Black Sash petitioned the Constitutional Court, asking the Court to declare that any contract between SASSA and CPS should specify that the personal information of grant recipients becomes SASSA's property.
+
+The Regulator objected to Black Sash's proposal, claiming that there was no legal basis to deprive social grant recipients of ownership of their personal information and vest it in SASSA (Southern African Legal Information Institute, 2018: 1). As a result, the court ruled that recipients of social grants control their personal information. The South African Social Security Agency (SASSA) shall only utilise personal information to conduct monthly social grant payments to its recipients, according to the Court. The Court ruled that the contract between SASSA and the CPS should include protections to protect the personal information of grant beneficiaries.
+
+Another similar case involves My Vote Counts, a non-profit organisation that requested an order to gather information about the private funding of political parties and independent candidates (Southern African Legal Information Institute, 2018: 1). The High Court ruled that PAIA does not apply to political parties, independent candidates, or all private fundraising data. The High Court determined that PAIA's failure to give access to information on private funding violates Article 32, 7(2), and 19 of the Constitution when read together. This instance is consistent with security threat assessment in that political parties are critical political entities that should be monitored on a regular basis to avoid insider and outer dangers to the country.
+
+# 5.5.1 Google Spain SL, Google Inc. v. Agencia Espaola de Protección de Datos (AEP)
+
+In a case involving Google Spain SL, Google Inc. v. Agencia Espaola de Protección de Datos $(A E P)$ Mario Costeja González (case no C-131/12, 13-5-2014). This decision was handed down in a matter between Google Spain SL, Google Inc. The verdict concerned the collection and use of private information or data by Google, which operates a search engine on the internet. Coincidentally, the ruling was handed down at the same time that South Africa's Protection of Personal Information Act 4 of 2013 (POPI) was being officially enacted into law there (SAFLII, 2014).
+
+# 5.6 NATIONAL KEY POINTS ACT, 1980 (ACT 102 OF 1980)
+
+The National Key Points Act (NLPA), inherited from the Apartheid regime, was enacted in response to a series of sabotage activities against what was deemed to be important infrastructure, and was intended to impose legal consequence on anybody who 'threatened' a national key point (Hlongwane, 2013:1). Crucially, it provided security managers broad authority to designate any location as a national vital point, putting it under the control of enhanced security and secrecy. According to a survey commissioned by the non-governmental organisation Right2Know (R2K), the number of national key points has expanded by more than $50\%$ in the previous five years, from 118 in 2007 to over 182 in 2021 (R2K, 2017).
+
+This law has been criticised for allowing the state to abuse it. This legislation, according to Hlongwane (2013:1), has been utilised to shield otherwise dubious official behaviour from public scrutiny. Simply put, if a facility was designated as a national vital site, the government could conceal it behind a wall of red tape and classifications. The primary goal of the National Key Points Act 102 of 1980 (SA, 1980) was to assess and identify the risks, threats, and vulnerabilities of national key points in the Republic of South Africa. South Africa positions itself as an investor-friendly destination by considering the importance of key infrastructure such as telecommunications, energy production, and banking, because the infrastructure protection policy helps to de-risk the costs associated with doing business in the country (Oforis, Hindle & Hugo, 1996).
+
+# 5.6.1 Right2Know Campaign and Others v. Minister of Police and Others
+
+In the matter of Right2Know Campaign and Others v. Minister of Police and Others (2013/32512) [2014] ZAGPJHC 343; [2015] 1 All SA 367 (GJ) on the 3rd of December 2014, indicate that the case was about whether or not the people of South Africa ought to know what places and areas are considered national key points, as contemplated by the National Key Points Act 102 of 1980. The case was about whether or not the people of South Africa ought to (NKP Act). According to subsection 11(3) of the Promotion of Access to Information Act 2 of 2000 (PAIA), a "requester" of information does not need to provide a justification for requesting information that is kept by the state as long as the request is made in line with the formal request processes. In the event that the information is not provided, the denial of the request must be justified using one or more of the grounds outlined in Chapter 4 of the PAIA.
+
+# 5.7 CRIMINAL PROCEDURE ACT, (ACT 51 OF 1977) AS AMENDED
+
+Criminal procedure begins long before a person who has committed an offense is brought to trial in a court of law (South Africa, 1977: 1). In fact, criminal procedure can be invoked even before an offense has been committed. Certain provisions of the Criminal Procedure Act, in particular, Sections 20 and 25, empower police officers to do certain things to prevent the commission of an offense.
+
+Reading the relevant legislative provisions granting people the authority to conduct searches, seize items, and arrest people, one cannot help but notice the repeated mention of reasonableness. Section 20 states that certain articles may be seized if they are "reasonably believed to be" articles of a particular nature. Section 23 states that those who arrest another and are not peace officers are only authorised to seize articles and not to search for them (South Africa, 1977: 1). This implies that a security officer who is not also a peace officer and who is not authorised to conduct a search by another law may not search an arrestee but may seize an article if it falls within the scope of section 20. The arrestee may, of course, freely consent to such a search, in which case the security officer may carry it out. Section 24 states that a person in charge of or occupying land or premises may conduct searches and seize articles if certain conditions are met. Sections 40-43 authorise certain people to arrest people who are "reasonably suspected" of committing certain crimes.
+
+Security officers who provide services at another location, for example, may only do so if they use the powers granted by the Criminal Procedure Act and may not exceed those limits (South Africa, 1977: 1). Any contract that purports to authorise a security officer to take actions that are illegal under the law, such as shooting anyone who attempts to enter the premises, will be deemed invalid.
+
+Section 49(2) of the Criminal Procedure Act authorises the use of blameless killing to accomplish the arrest of those who are reasonably suspected of committing certain crimes. When interpreted in the context of a security threat assessment, the legislation allows an arresting officer to shoot to kill a suspected criminal who constitutes a threat to the government or any of its departments. In recent years, there has been an upsurge in critical infrastructure theft and vandalism, such as copper wires. Odendal (2021: 1) found that cable theft and vandalism cost the country an estimated R187 billion, with critical institutions like as Telkom, Eskom, the South African Passenger Rail Agency, and Transnet losing R7 billion every year. Given this context, law enforcement officers have used section (49) when dealing with suspected criminals on vital infrastructure.
+
+Legal scholars have questioned the legality of Section 49(2). Burchell (2006:200), for example, argues that this provision has been used to justify killing in a variety of circumstances, adding that it violates the right to life, freedom, and security, as well as protection from cruel, inhuman, or degrading treatment or punishment and the right to a fair trial, which includes the right to be presumed innocent (Botha & Visser, 2012:2).
+
+# 5.7.1 BK and Others v. Minister of Police and Others
+
+In the case of BK and Others v. Minister of Police and Others (22575/2018) [2019] ZAWCHC 91; 2020 (1) SACR 56 (WCC), the applicants seek an order against The Minister of Police as the first respondent, The Directorate for Priority Crime Investigation as the second respondent, and Mr. Mziyanda Mti as the third respondent, setting aside a search warrant issued by a member of the second respondent and ordering them to return to them all items that Everyone who responded has a negative opinion about the application. The first argument that the respondents make is that because they arrested the first applicant under the circumstances that they did, they were within their rights under Section 20 and, more importantly, Section 23(1)(a) of the Criminal Procedure Act 51 of 1977 to carry out a search and seizure operation at the applicants' residence. This is the respondents' primary contention. When a person is arrested, some items may be seized at their discretion according to the guidelines outlined in Section 23. In any event, the case against the respondents continues, and the search and seizure operation were only carried out after a search warrant was obtained earlier in the evening of the applicants' arrest. This was done at the applicants' and their attorneys' insistence, and it was the only time it was carried out (SAFLII, 2019).
+
+# 5.8 CONTROL OF ACCESS TO PUBLIC PREMISES AND VEHICLE ACT 53 OF 1985
+
+The Control of Access to Public Premises and Vehicles Act 53 of 1985 (CAPPVA) was passed in order to protect certain public buildings and cars, as well as the persons who were present in or around those public buildings and vehicles (South Africa, 1985). According to the CAPPVA, the owner of any public premises or any public vehicle, who also happens to be the head of the department of state, division, office, or other body, which occupies or uses those premises or that vehicle or is in charge thereof, depending on the circumstances, has the authority to direct that those premises or that vehicle may only be entered or entered upon in accordance with the provisions that have been laid down (South Africa, 2009: 6).
+
+In addition, the Act confers upon the owner the authority to take whatever precautions he or she may deem appropriate for the purpose of ensuring the safety of the place or vehicle in question, as well as the people who are present in either of those locations or vehicles, and the contents of either of those locations or vehicles. Without the approval of an authorised officer, no one is allowed to enter any public building or any public vehicle that displays a sign indicating that entrance to that place or vehicle is controlled. This notice should be visible at all times (South Africa, 2009: 6). There are many instances where the law is applied to manage risks to national infrastructure as well as safely of people. For instance, Gautrain, premises and vehicles under the control of its operating company have been declared as premises and vehicles for the purpose of the Control of Access to Public Premises and Vehicles Act (1985). Using this law, Gautrain officials are allowed to reach passengers, ask for proof of payment, proof of identity, use electronic tools to search for dangerous weapons and substances and declare any vehicle, container or bag and display them. All these acts help to prevent crimes such as terrorism, use of dangerous weapons in public and robberies, among other serious crimes which pose a threat to humans and critical infrastructure.
+
+# 5.9 LABOUR RELATION ACT 66 OF 1995
+
+Under Section 66 of the Labour Relations Act, which was passed in 1995, an employer is allowed to fire an employee for misconduct that is both significant and of such a seriousness that it makes it unbearable to continue the employment relationship (South Africa, 1995). The inappropriate behaviour of the employee will be the root cause, and "the job relationship will deteriorate to an unacceptable state" will be the outcome. In the context of this research, it is possible for an employee to be terminated on the grounds that their acts pose a significant risk to the government agency in question as well as to other institutions and individuals (Duff, 2010: 2).
+
+The Act specifies the reasons on which an employer may dismiss an employee, and those grounds are as follows: the conduct of the employee; the capacity of the employee; and the operational requirements of the employer's business. Inappropriate behaviours are those that involve a breach of good faith. In addition, the Act includes a set of principles that can be used to evaluate whether or not dismissals for misconduct are equitable. This indicates that the employee has the opportunity to seek redress in the event that they believe their dismissal was unjustified. An illustration of this can be found in the case of Fredericks v. Jo Barkett Fashions [2011] JOL 27923 Commission for Conciliation, Mediation, and Arbitration (CCMA), in which the employee was fired after the employer learned that the employee had been making negative remarks about the employer on Facebook. In a case where there was no preexisting policy governing employee conduct, the court convened to decide whether or not the employee should have been fired. On the basis of this legal loophole, it is essential to analyse whether or not the laws that are now in place are effective in managing risks that are internal to the government and come from its personnel (Duff, 2010: 2).
+
+# 5.9.1 Sedick and Others v. Krisray
+
+In the cases of Sedick and Others v. Krisray (Pty) Ltd (2011) 8 BALR 879 (CCMA) and Fredericks v. Jo Barkett Fashions [2011] JOL 27923 (CCMA), the Commission for Conciliation, Mediation, and Arbitration (CCMA) ruled that the employees were terminated fairly as a result of derogatory Facebook status updates. Because the employees had not configured their Facebook privacy settings to restrict who could view their updates, anyone, including those they were not "friends" with on the platform, could view their status changes. In accordance with the CCMA's interpretation of Section 70 of Act 70 of 2002, "Regulation of Interception of Communications and Provision of Communication-related Information," employers had the legal authority to read employees' private online posts. (RICA). The panel concluded that the employer had the legal right to see the wall posts made by the employees since those employees had "open" Facebook pages, which did not infringe the employees' right to privacy.
+
+# 5.10 NATIONAL ARCHIVES ACT, 1996 (ACT 43 OF 1996)
+
+In South Africa, the National Archives and Records Services of South Africa Act (Act No. 43 of 1996, as amended), which became operational in 1997, represents a significant turning point for archives and the archival profession. The Act was first passed in 1996. (Netshakhuma, 2019: 5). It does so by bringing the management and administration of public archives into conformity with the constitution of the nation, which was first implemented in April of 1994. According to Garaba (2012: 33), despite the fact that the Act shares many similarities with earlier archive legislation, there are also a number of significant distinctions between the two pieces of legislation. These are highlighted in the provisions for the management of the National Archives, outreach activities, access to archival holdings, the management of current public records, the collection and management of non-public records, and the establishment of provincial archives services. In addition, there are also provisions for the establishment of provincial archives services (South Africa, 1994). The construction of archives buildings not only fulfils the function of providing a location to store the historical record, but also serves as a tangible representation of the significance of a nation's cultural legacy (). When it comes to the protection of archive materials, the structure serves as the initial line of defence. The facilities that house archives are required to be secure enough to prevent theft, detect and put out fires, and protect documents from damage caused by earthquakes and floods.
+
+# 5.11 PRIVATE SECURITY INDUSTRY REGULATION ACT 103 OF 1996
+
+Because of a variety of factors, it has become clearer that the existing regulatory system in South Africa requires an examination, as well as changes and transformations (South Africa, 2001). The end of apartheid brought about significant shifts in both the political climate and the physical makeup of the country. Because the existing legislation for the PSI was written before the Constitution of 1996 was enacted for the Republic of South Africa, it was not entirely consistent with all the values and principles outlined in the new Constitution. This was due to the fact that the new Constitution was adopted in 1996. Because of these shifts, there is now a pressing need to ensure that newly enacted laws are in line with those that already exist and are applicable to all facets of the security business (Gumedze, 2008: 110).
+
+The Private Security Business Regulation Act came into effect in 2001 and was the last piece of legislation that was necessary to regulate the private security industry in South Africa. This Act was presented to the President for his signature on January 15th, 2002, and it went into effect two months later February 14th, 2002. This new Act filled in some of the flaws that were found in the previous legislation while also repealing the Security Officers Act, 1987 (also known as Act 92 of 1987) and any later revisions to it. This act passed in 2001 broadened the scope of the legislation by expanding and defining the term "security service providers" to include both private security officers and commercial enterprises. In addition to this, the Act provided for the establishment of a new regulating organisation that would be known as the Private Security Industry Regulatory Authority (PSIRA).
+
+According to Section 3 of the PSIRA Act 56 of 2001, the primary goal of the Authority is to regulate the PSI and to ensure that the practices of security service providers are in accordance with public and national interests in addition to the interests of the private security industry. This objective was stated in the PSIRA Act 56 of 2001. The pursuit of "profit maximization" is the primary motivation for many private security businesses in South Africa, and this can be to the cost of the interests of their customers. A circumstance of this nature gives rise to the requirement for efficient protective regulations (Gumedze, 2008: 11). As Berg and Gabi (2011:3) pointed out, many private security organisations work to take advantage of market opportunities, boost their turnover, and raise the amount of money returned to their shareholders. To ensure that citizens of South Africa have a sense of safety, security, and protection against unscrupulous and exploitative operators, therefore, it is vital to have adequate regulation of the PSI in that country. A further requirement of the regulation is that private security businesses should transform themselves into reliable and reputable organisations that operate within the bounds of the law (Gumedze, 2008: 11).
+
+In South Africa, various government departments have established their own internal security infrastructure (Govender, 2018: 137). The PSIRA has also registered these members of the security staff. Civilian powers were granted to them in accordance with Act 51 of the Criminal Procedure Act in 1977. Some internal security personnel are given the authority to carry out their duties by national legislation that is pertinent to the individual government department where they are working. These officers are employed by specific government departments. They address information on security incidents, threats, and vulnerabilities depending on the business case presented by the government department.
+
+The SAPS receives information concerning criminal incidents for the purpose of conducting investigations (Govender, 2018: 137). The people of South Africa should be given top priority under the Act, and they should be given the ability to act against and prevent crime. In the same manner that a foreign person who has been in the country for fewer than fifteen years is not eligible for a Top Security Clearance (TSC), the government should not permit a foreign national to perform private security services. This is because, on both a micro and a macro level, people in South Africa are loyal to their government.
+
+# 5.11.1 Union of Refugee Women and Others v Directo
+
+Union of Refugee Women and Others v Director, Private Security Industry Regulatory Authority and Others (CCT 39/06) [2006] ZACC 23; 2007 (4) BCLR 339 (CC); 2007 (4) SA 395 (CC) was a case that was heard on December 12, 2006. This application seeks to establish the rights of refugees to find employment in the private security industry in South Africa. This industry is governed by the Private Security Industry Regulation Act 56 of 2001, sometimes known as the "Security Act." This matter was brought before the Court in the form of an application for leave to appeal against the judgement made by Bosielo J. in the Pretoria High Court. The High Court of South Africa reached the conclusion that section 23(1)(a) does, in fact, provide South African citizens and permanent residents with preferential treatment. However, the court emphasized that this clause cannot be interpreted in isolation. As a consequence of this, it concluded that the provision of section 23(1)(a) was sufficiently mitigated by section 23(6) to be in accordance with the constitution (SAFLII, 2006).
+
+The High Court stated the following in its analysis of the rationale behind section 23(1)(a): "It is understandable, in my opinion, that due to the high level of trust required by private security officers, there should be some strict criteria as to who can qualify for such positions in order to exclude undesirable persons." Although the court expressed sympathy for the plight of refugees, especially given their vulnerable position in society, the High Court held that the public's safety and security, as well as the protection of vulnerable individuals, were more important
+
+# 5.12 PROMOTION OF ACCESS TO INFORMATION ACT, 2000 (ACT NO 2 OF 2000)
+
+The objective of the Act is stated in both the Preamble and section 9 of the PAIA, and there is some degree of overlap between the two provisions (Khumalo, Bhebhe & Mosweu, 2016: 16). In general, the purpose of the Act is to make it possible for an individual to obtain access to information in order to make it easier for that individual to safeguard and exercise his or her rights, as well as to promote the ideal of openness and accountability in public and private organisations (van Heerden, Govindjee & Holness, 2014: 27). The Act proposes to accomplish this by establishing methods or mechanisms that would enable an individual to acquire access to such information as "quickly, affordably, and effortlessly as practically possible." This access would be made possible by the Act (van Heerden et al., 2014: 27).
+
+According to Khumalo et al. (2016: 17), the right of access to information should be understood as the right to have the systems in place so that one can acquire access to the information that he or she requires. They offer the internet as an example: having the right to access information would not necessarily provide one with the vast amount of material that is available on the world wide web; rather, it would ensure that the public has access to the internet in an appropriate manner (Khumalo et al., 2016: 17). When viewed in this light, the legislation governing freedom of information should be regarded as a tool that one can employ in order to acquire access to information, thereby enforcing the constitutional right to access information.
+
+According to the law, every citizen has the right to protect the country from any potential risk, and as a result, they have the ability to make a request to gain access to information in order to uphold the constitutional obligation to ensure that those serving in public offices do not pose a threat to the country (Khumalo et al., 2016: 16). This right is understood within the context of security threat and risk assessment. It is possible, thanks to the provisions of PAIA, to obtain information not only from private individuals but also from official agencies. However, as a consequence of the provisions of the constitutional requirement, a requester is expected to be able to provide a justification for why the information is sought from a private individual (South African Human Rights Commission, 2016: 2).
+
+Both "over-restrictive" and "under-inclusive" are two of the criticisms that have been levelled at the PAIA (van Heerden et al., 2014: 27). The Act is excessively restrictive due to the fact that, whereas the Constitution guarantees the right to access "any information held by the state," PAIA narrows the scope of this right to include only "a record held by a public body." This is in contrast to the Constitution, which guarantees access to "any information held by the state."
+
+# 5.13 OCCUPATIONAL HEALTH AND SAFETY ACT, 1993 (ACT 85 OF 1993)
+
+The Occupational Health and Safety Act no. 85 of 1993 includes its own definition, which can be found inside the act itself. The Occupational Health and Safety Act No.85 of 1993 is the most comprehensive piece of legislation in South Africa dealing to occupational health and safety (South Africa, 1993). The Occupational Health and Safety Act no. 85 of 1993 aims to establish the legislation required to ensure that all individuals have the opportunity to maintain their health and safety while working in an environment that is conducive to that goal (Ali, 2021:2).
+
+One of the most essential sections of the Act is number 8, which deals with the responsibilities of employers. If this section is successfully applied, it will ensure that the departments have dealt with and handled the majority of the Act's requirements (Tshoose, 2011: 166). It is the duty of an employer to ensure that their employees are able to perform their jobs in a setting that does not compromise their health or safety in any way. Employers are also encouraged by Section 8 to review work locations, conduct risk assessments, and conduct routine health and safety inspections of their facilities.
+
+In the event that an employee sustains an injury or develops an illness, the employer is required to inform the DoL. In the event that any high-risk risks materialize, such as a chemical leak, the employer is required to notify this information as well (Tshoose, 2011: 166). The DoL will investigate the events or dangers and make certain that all employers and employees have done their utmost to comply with the Occupational Health and Safety Act and to try to stop the occurrence from happening again. In the event that carelessness was present, either the employer or the employee could be held criminally responsible for their actions or lack of actions (Ali, 2021: 3). The Act is connected to the current subject of the study in the sense that dangers to employees can constitute a major risk to the institution as a whole as well as to the nation as a whole.
+
+# 5.13.1 Joubert v. Buscor Proprietary Limited
+
+Joubert v. Buscor Proprietary Limited (2013/13116) [2016] ZAGPPHC 1024 was heard on the 9th of December 2016, in the Pretoria branch of the South African North Gauteng High Court. In his decision, the then Acting Judge of the High Court, Siwendu AJ, stated that he had relied on pre-existing principles and must revisit section 9 (1) of the act, which states that "Every employer shall conduct his undertaking in such a manner as to ensure, as far as is reasonably practicable, that persons other than those in his employment who may be directly affected by his activities are not thereby exposed to hazards to their health or safety" (own employees). Regulation 5 (1) states that there shall be no failure (SAFLII, 2016).
+
+To arrive at the conclusion that the old common law test for negligence is met, it is necessary to compare and contrast the elements with the principles. Throughout the course of time, these were refined and reformulated on several occasions. Both Ngubane v. South African Transport Services and Kruger v. Coetzee are now pending before the court. This evaluation serves as an objective test that can be applied in both civil and criminal proceedings. A method of assessing responsibility that is based on a breach of a reasonable person's standard of care has developed over the course of case law, and this is the factor that unites all of these cases. The judgment in the matter of Herschel v. Mrupe places an emphasis on the fact that the test is not arbitrary and is instead based on the facts of the particular case. As I have mentioned before, the Occupational Health and Safety Act of 1993 (Act 85 of 1993) imposes a responsibility and a standard of care on an employer, which results in the company being held to a strict liability standard. The criteria for determining whether or not the employer's measures are reasonable are well-established.
+
+# 5.14 ELECTRONIC COMMUNICATION AND TRANSACTION ACT 2002 (ACT 25 OF 2002)
+
+Security and privacy are major concerns in Internet banking and other Internet-related transactions. To address these issues, the South African government enacted Act No. 25 of 2002 on Electronic Communications and Transactions (ECT) (Dyer & Bowmans, 2021:3). In South Africa, the Act governs all electronic communication transactions. Businesses implement the Act by, for example, establishing a privacy policy statement on their websites that, in compliance with the ECT Act, specifies how the organisation would use any personally identifiable information submitted by the customer (Dyer & Bowmans, 2021: 3).
+
+Banks and other companies implement the ECT Act by posting a privacy policy statement on their website (Kabanda, Brown, Nyamakura & Keshav, 2010: 3). A statement like this one outlines how the site will utilise personally identifiable information received through fields and forms during web-based transactions.
+
+A privacy policy statement is regarded as an essential tool for banks to use in demonstrating their trustworthiness to their clients. As a result, banks should have a privacy policy statement that complies with the ECT Act in order to demonstrate their trustworthiness (Kabanda et al., 2010: 4). The Act's primary purpose is to safeguard banks and consumers from the growing hazards of digital fraud. Due to the victimisation of government agencies through digital fraud, the law enacts safeguards to monitor electronic transactions and raise red lights when appropriate.
+
+# 5.15 STATE INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY AGENCY ACT, 1998 (ACT 88 OF 1998)
+
+According to Section 2 of the State Information Technology Agency Act (SITA), it is a legal entity formed by the Act. The Act is administered by the DPSA, and the Act is the custodian of SITA. Section 21 of the Act establishes a framework for monitoring information systems in government agencies. Section 6 of the Operate further states that "in relation to these services, it should act as the agent of the South African Government" (Department of Water Affairs and Forestry [DWAF], 2021: 1).
+
+It should be mentioned that the purpose of the Act is to centralise the availability and administration of data to the SITA. However, it is worth noting that Section 7 of the Act, which deals with the Agency's powers and activities, does not contain the Agency's ability to dispose, exchange, or disseminate information. The present study's focus is on how SITA, as a trusted government agency, maintains sensitive government information and records in light of risk and threat management methods.
+
+The central aspect of this realisation is that, at this point, SITA's mandate focuses upon information storage and technical progress of information systems for the benefit of participating departments. What is unclear is the decision of disposal, exchange, or sale of information relating to the participating department as it is commonly understood. This is where possible dangers in government information management may be found.
+
+# 5.15.1 SAAB Grintek Defence v South African Police Service and others
+
+In the case of SAAB Grintek Defence v South African Police Service and others (2016) 3 All SA 669 (SCA), it was decided that the SITA Act does not give SITA the authority to award tenders or conclude contracts on behalf of departments. Instead, the SITA Act requires SITA to facilitate the acquisition of technology services by government departments.
+
+# 5.15.2 SITA (Pty) Ltd v Premier, Eastern Cape Provincial Gov. and Others
+
+State Information Technology Agency (Pty) Ltd v Premier, Eastern Cape Provincial Government and Others (250/2018) [2018] ZAECBHC 12 was a case that was heard on October 23, 2018. According to the Judgement, the State Information Technology Agency (Pty) Ltd ("SITA") was attempting to get an order reviewing and setting aside a contract for the rollout of broadband services that was awarded by the Eastern Cape Provincial Government on 11 October 2017 to Liquid Telecommunications South Africa (Pty) Ltd. (SAFLII, 2016).
+
+According to the judgment, it is a matter of common cause that the contract was not awarded to Liquid Telecoms through a competitive bidding system; rather, it was awarded to them through Treasury Regulation 16A6.6, which permits an accounting officer of a department to participate in a contract concluded by another organ of state through a fair, transparent, and competitive bidding process. This regulation was used to award the contract. The only requirement is to receive permission from the appropriate state organ as well as the department providing the service.
+
+# 5.16 THE PUBLIC SERVICE ACT, 103 OF 1994
+
+Section 3 (4) of the Public Service Act, 103 of 1994, specifies security guidelines to which officials and staff have to adhere. According to Section 17 (2) (h) of the Public Service Act of 1994, an employee may be fired if their continued employment poses a security risk to the state. Section 20 of the Public Service Act of 1994 addresses specific sorts of misbehaviour that, in certain situations, may result in security screening. Some employees are covered by this Act, and it is critical that all members and prospective employees follow this provision of the Public Service Act, 103 of 1994. The involvement of the finance and human resources heads of business in the security committee and implementation of STA, will ensure that there no employees that are earning multiple salaries.
+
+# 5.16.1 SA Public Servants Association obo Ubogu vs Head of the Department of Health
+
+In the case of SA Public Servants Association obo Ubogu vs Head of the Department of Health, Gauteng and Others, Head of the Department of Health, Gauteng, and Another vs Public Servants Association obo Ubogu (CCT6/17, CCT14/17), [2017] ZACC 45; 2018 (2) BCLR 184 (CC); (2018) 39 ILJ 337 (CC); [2018] 2 BLLR 107 (CC); 2018 (2) SA (7 December 2017). The constitutionality of a statutory provision is at issue in this case. That provision permits the state, in its capacity as an employer, to recover monies that were improperly paid to its employees by deducting those sums directly from their salaries or wages, even in the absence of any agreement between the parties or due process. Issues pertaining to self-help, which is an element of the rule of law, procedural fairness, and the idea of set-off in common law are brought to the forefront as a result of this. The primary questions that need to be answered are whether the order of constitutional invalidity issued by the Labour Court falls within the ambit of section 167(5) of the Constitution and therefore needs to be confirmed by this Court, or whether or not it is an interpretative order that does not need to be confirmed. In the event that the ruling is a declaratory order of constitutional invalidity, and it is upheld, what type of remedy is considered appropriate? Should the appeal of the respondents be granted if it turns out that the declaration of invalidity was incorrect (SAFLII, 2017).
+
+The Labour Court ruled that Section 38(2)(b)(i) of the Public Service Act (Act) was unconstitutional, but it used an interpretative remedial mechanism to resolve the flaw in the provision. This section gives the state the authority, as an employer, to recover monies wrongfully paid to its employees directly from their salaries or wages, without the need for due process or agreement.
+
+# 5.17 THE EMPLOYMENT EQUITY ACT, 55 OF 1998
+
+The Employment Equity Act, 55 of 1998, emphasises that a person may not be unfairly discriminated against in any employment policy or practise, either directly or indirectly. The vetting inquiry should be undertaken in a fair and objective manner. A vetting institution, for example, cannot discriminate against an employee based on their religious beliefs, sexual orientation, or other grounds without following due procedure, as provided in the Labour Relations Act, 66 of 1995.
+
+# 5.17.1 Harksen v. Lane NO and Others
+
+In the case of Harksen v. Lane NO and Others (CCT9/97) [1997] ZACC 12; 1997 (11) BCLR 1489; 1998 (1) SA 300, which was heard by the Constitutional Court on October 7, 1997, and which is applicable under section 9(3) of the Constitution, but which states that there is no Court in Minister of Finance and Another v. Van Heerden, the Constitutional Court ruled that there is no Court. The primary concern of this inquiry is to determine whether or not the action done may be considered a lawful affirmative action measure in accordance with the parameters outlined in Section 9(2) of the Constitution. If this is the case, then any discrimination that would take place would not be unjust (SAFLII, 1997).
+
+# 5.18. INTELLIGENCE SERVICE OVERSIGHT ACT, 1994 (ACT 40 OF 1994)
+
+Intelligence oversight is also concerned with the questions that intelligence agencies ask and pursue. This is to examine if the intelligence community is carrying out its mandate and responding to policymakers' demands (South Africa, 1994). It is also to determine whether the intelligence community is aggressive and thorough in its analysis, as well as whether it has the necessary operational capabilities (gathering and covert operations) and resources. Policymakers cannot rely just on intelligence personnel to provide answers to the issues they raise.
+
+Section 3 of the Intelligence Services Oversight Act of 1994 established the JSCI as a parliamentary oversight mechanism and outlines its legislative mandate as follows:
+
+To collect audit and other reports from the Auditor-General and to review financial figures provided by the intelligence services;
+To acquire from the Evaluation Committee a report on the evaluation that was carried out on the intelligence services, along with any comments or recommendations that may accompany the report;
+To acquire from the designated Judge a report pertaining to the functions conducted in accordance with the Regulation of Interception of Communications and Provisions of Communication-Related Information Act of 2002, including statistics of interception requests made by the intelligence services; and
+To review the report and certificates that were given to it by the IGI and to provide recommendations based on those reviews.
+
+According to NA Rule 137(2) and NCOP Rule 102(2), "each committee does its business on behalf of the House and should thus report to the House on the topic presented to it for consideration." "The South African JSCI is comparable in function to the Canadian Security Intelligence Review Committee (CSIRC)," Hannah et al (2005:23) write. Furthermore, Section 4(1) of the Intelligence Services Oversight Act of 1994 "authorises the JSCI to have access to intelligence, information, and documents in the Intelligence Service's custody or control." Parliament uses these mechanisms as crucial oversight tools to check the operation of the intelligence agencies. According to Section 5(1) of the Oversight Act, "the JSCI should exercise its activities in a way compatible with the safeguarding of national security, therefore the necessity to adequately oversee the screening of committee members."
+
+Dlomo (2004), on the other hand, stated that owing to resource restrictions and strong demand for vetting, it is not always possible to vet all JSCI members. In addition, Section 3(a)(ii) of the Intelligence Services Oversight Act of 1994 "authorises the JSCI to receive the Review Committee's report on the evaluation of the secret services accounts and spending of the SSA." According to the JSCI's Annual Report (2009/10), "the committee has a Memorandum of Understanding with the Auditor-General, who also trains its members." Dlomo's (2004:75) discovery that "there is a significant degree of absenteeism in the attendance of JSCI sessions by committee members" was cause for alarm.
+
+This is mostly owing to the committee's allocation of senior party members, who frequently have other party commitments to fulfil. Gusy believes that "the parliamentary oversight institutions are not only blind guardians, but they are guardians without a sword" (Dietrich, 2015: 135). This is mostly due to a dearth of intelligence-related competence among members of parliament.
+
+# 5.18.1 Masetlha v. President of the Republic of South Africa and Others
+
+In the matter of Masetlha v. President of the Republic of South Africa and Others (Independent (CCT38/07) [2008] ZACC 6; 2008 (5) SA 31 (CC); 2008 (8) BCLR 771 (CC), Masetlha v. Minister for Intelligence Services (Freedom of Expression Institute as Amicus Curiae), Independent Newspapers (Pty) Ltd. v. Minister for Intelligence Services (Freedom of Expression Institute as Amicus Cur (22 May 2008). The document that has been requested is associated with the case known as Masetlha v. President of the Republic of South Africa (the underlying matter), which was brought before this Court and decided upon by it. It is possible that a rundown of what happened in the Masetlha case might be helpful. Until the President suspended him in 2006 and eventually fired him from his position as Director-General of the National Intelligence Agency, Mr. Masetlha served in that capacity (SAFLII, 2008).
+
+The stipulations of Section 209(1) of the Constitution, as well as the terms of the Intelligence Services Act 65 of 2002 and the Intelligence Services Oversight Act 40 of 1994, were followed in order to establish the National Intelligence Agency (NIA). Mr. Masetlha was required to submit two applications to the High Court in Pretoria (the High Court). In the first application, he contested his suspension, arguing that it had been carried out in an improper and illegal manner. In the second case, he sought to review and overturn the decision of the President to terminate his appointment. In November 2006, the applications for suspension and termination were merged into a single case before Du Plessis J, who heard both cases simultaneously. Both applications ended up being rejected.
+
+5.19 FIREARM-ARM CONTROL ACT, 2002 (ACT 60 OF 2003) AND REGULATIONS.
+
+South Africa also has a history of granting guns licences without "due scrutiny." The Arms and Ammunition Act, which was more of a choose, pay, and get a licence system, governed firearms. In 1996, the Minister of Safety and Security, Sydney Mufamadi, created a special task team to study firearms law, CFCR administration, and the policy on licence issuance. As a result of the task team's recommendations, the Minister of Safety and Security formed a committee to draft new firearms Act to better regulate firearms. The FCA was then designed to replace the out-of-date and heavily amended Arms and Ammunition Act of 1969 (Matzopoulos, Simonetti, Prinsloo, Neethling, Groenewald, Dempers, Martin, Rowhani-Rahbar, Myers, & Thompson, 2018: 197).
+
+South Africa's parliament approved the Firearms Control Act (FCA) in 2000 to better equip police and courts to deal with firearm-related violence. The FCA was introduced in stages and was completely operational on July 1, 2004. The FCA's mission includes, among other things, the following:
+
+improve the constitutionally guaranteed rights to life and physical integrity; to prevent criminality involving the use of weapons, restrict the growth of unlawfully owned firearms by providing for the removal of firearms from society and enhancing control over legally acquired firearms;
+allow the state to remove unlawfully possessed weapons from society, control the supply, possession, safe storage, transfer, and use of firearms, and detect and punish careless or criminal firearm usage;
+create a comprehensive and effective firearms control and management system; and
+ensuring effective monitoring and enforcement of gun control legislation
+
+The FCA added an extra control or monitoring step to weapon applicants in the form of a competence certificate. The competence certificate is required for all persons who handle weapons by virtue of ownership or in the execution of their tasks, such as security officers and those working for gun shops, even if they do not own firearms. This monitoring component was missing in the Arms and Ammunition Act of 1969, which resulted in several irresponsible firearm occurrences at organisations such as security firms (Matzopoulos et al., 2018: 197).
+
+The parts of the FCA that follow outline the prerequisites for obtaining a competence certificate: Section 6 (2) of the FCA states that no licence may be provided to someone who does not have the requisite competency certificate. Section 9 (2) of the FCA states that a competence certificate may only be provided to a person who is 21 years of age or older, in good mental health, and not prone to violence.
+
+# 5.19.1 Justice Alliance of SA and Another v. National Min. of Safety and Security and Others
+
+It was stated in the case of Justice Alliance of SA and Another v. National Minister of Safety and Security and Others (646/2011) [2012] ZASCA 190 (30 November 2012) that "The Firearms Control Act 60 of 2000 (the new Act), which came into force on 1 July 2004, repealed and replaced the Arms and Ammunitions Act 75 0f 1969." This was stated in the case (the old Act). It governs the possession of weapons in the same way as its predecessor did. In doing so, it recognizes, as stated in its preamble, the store that our Constitution places on the right of every person to life and security, as well as its logical corollary that the increased availability of firearms and the abuse of firearms has contributed significantly to the high levels of crime in our society. In addition, it recognizes that the right of every person to life and security is a right that is guaranteed by our Constitution. The new Act's goals are to "avoid the proliferation of unlawfully possessed firearms and to improve the control of firearms that are legally possessed"(SAFLII, 2012).
+
+It was also decided that "the new Act limits the number of licenses that may be issued to any person in respect of specific types of firearms (sections 13-15) and prohibits the issuance of a license to any person who does not possess a relevant competency certificate (section 6(2))”. During those five years, licensees could apply to have their licenses renewed in accordance with the new Act. During those five years, licensees could apply to have their licenses renewed in accordance with the new Act Following the submission of such an application, the license would remain active up until the point at which the application was either accepted or rejected. If an application for the renewal of a license was turned down or if the license was in some other way revoked, the firearm had to be disposed of within sixty days.
+
+# 5.20 NON-PROLIFERATION OF WEAPONS OF MASS DESTRUCTION ACT, 1993 (ACT NO. 87 OF 1993)
+
+South Africa has always been an outspoken critic of the continued production of weapons of mass destruction, which it views as a threat to international stability and peace. The Non-Proliferation of Weapons of Mass Destruction Act of 1993 is a major piece of legislation that serves as the basis for this. The Non-Proliferation Council was founded by the Act and is funded and supported by the DTI (South Africa, 1993).
+
+The Act provides rules for the registration of commodities, the listing of regulated products, restrictions, the maintenance of confidentiality, annual reporting, offenses and penalties, treaties, conventions, and regimes. The definition of what constitutes a 'controlled good' differs from nation to nation, with each country's legislation being responsible for deciding whether products fall into this category. Parliament gets briefed on the status of the yearly report on an annual basis. The Minister of Trade and Industry is responsible for drafting both official government notices and regulations. In 2010, new laws were passed that imposed restrictions on the registration of chemical products and commodities.
+
+Representatives from the Department of International Relations and Cooperation (DIRCO), the Department of Defence (DoD), the South African Nuclear Energy Corporation (SANEC), the Department of Trade and Industry (DTI), representatives from various industries, the Department of Energy (DEA), and the State Security Agency (SSA) are all present on the Council (Van Wyk, 2021: 14). A Chairperson, a Vice-Chairperson, and a Secretariat composed of members from these regions work together to run the Council.
+
+# 5.21 PROTECTION OF CONSTITUTION DEMOCRACY AGAINST TERRORISM AND RELATED ACTIVITIES ACT, 2004 (ACT 33 OF 2004)
+
+After receiving a request from the Minister of Safety and Security in 1999, the SAPS carried out research on terrorism and internal security. Based on the findings of this research, the SAPS drafted an Anti-Terrorism Bill, which was then presented to the project committee on security legislation of the South African Law Commission (SALC). This was done in response to an increase in violent crime in the Western Cape (Henning, 2014: 53). It was immediately followed by the first full drawing of the Anti-Terrorism Bill, which was offered for public assessment by the SALC in October 2000. This draught was used as the foundation for Discussion Paper 92, Project 105, which was published in June 2000.
+
+Following the September 11, 2001 terrorist attacks in New York City, the United Nations Security Council (UNSC) passed Resolution 1373, which mandated that all UN member states implement anti-terrorism measures. It was determined that the laws that were already in place in South Africa did not meet all the international requirements relating to the prevention and combating of terrorist and related activities.
+
+In May 20, 2005, former President Thabo Mbeki signed into law the Protection of Constitutional Democracy Against Terrorism and Related Activities Act, 2004, which had previously been introduced in 2004. Act No. 33 of the Year 2004 The Act brings the United Nations Conventions and Protocols Against Terrorism (UNCPAT) and the Convention of the African Union on the Prevention and Combating of Terrorism (CAUPCT) into full compliance with the Republic of South Africa (Thomashausen, 2007: 22). It provides a wide crime of terrorism as well as offences relating to terrorist activities such as recruiting, help in performing terrorist attacks, and facilitation of terrorist acts. In addition to this, it allows for the specific crimes that are mandated to be criminalised by relevant international instruments to be legislated by individual states. These crimes include terrorist bombings, the financing of terrorism, the hijacking of aircraft, fixed platforms, and ships, the taking of hostages, and crimes that involve protected persons, including diplomatic personnel. As a result, the Act permits the Republic's law enforcement authorities to cope effectively with both foreign and local terrorist operations (Simelane, 2007).
+
+The Act also includes provisions for investigative powers that are comparable to those used in the fight against organised crime, as well as powers of cordoning off, search and seizure, and the surrender of suspects to other States with jurisdiction in circumstances in which a person is not tried inside the Republic. The political exemption for terrorist offenses in terms of extradition is removed as a result of this change. The Act makes it illegal to spread hoaxes such as the ones involving anthrax, which were prevalent all over the world, including South Africa, in the years following the terrorist attacks on the United States of America that took place on September 11, 2001 (Azhar, 2010: 510). According to the Act, an offense includes making a threat, attempting to commit an infraction, conspiring to do so, or inciting another individual to commit an infraction.
+
+The present anti-terrorism policy in South Africa has been operationalized in the form of an anti-terrorism operational model. This model is built on coordination and collaboration between the following entities: intelligence, operations, investigations, protection, and communication. This is achieved through the efforts of the SAPS, the SANDF, the NISS, and any other government institution that is required to be engaged. The mission of gathering intelligence on a strategic, coordinated, and tactical level falls under the purview of the intelligence community. Operations guided by intelligence are carried out with the goals of stabilising a focal region, engaging in tactical intervention in the management of urban terrorism and crowds, and achieving successful control of high-risk activities. Investigations are conducted with the express purpose of achieving fruitful prosecutions as the ultimate outcome (Azhar, 2010: 510).
+
+# 5.21.1 S v. Okah (CCT) 315/16; CCT
+
+In the issue of S v. Okah (CCT 315/16; CCT 193/17) [2018] ZACC 3; 2018 (4) BCLR 456 (CC); 2018 (1) SACR 492 (CC), on February 23, 2018. [2018] ZACC 3; 2018 (4) BCLR 456 (CC); 2018 (1) SACR 492 (CC). Under the Protection of Constitutional Democracy against Terrorist and Related Activities Act, Mr. Henry Emomotimi Okah, who is a citizen of Nigeria and a permanent resident of South Africa, was charged with 13 charges related to terrorism. Each count carries a maximum sentence of 10 years in prison. Six charges were brought about as a result of two car bombs that went off in quick succession in Warri, Nigeria, on March 15, 2010. Six months later, on October 1, 2010, in Abuja, Nigeria, there was another double car bombing. These six new counts are tied to that event. The explosions in Warri resulted in the death of one person, and the attacks in Abuja resulted in the death of at least eight individuals. Both attacks caused a significant number of casualties and property loss (SAFLII, 2018).
+
+The State was able to prove at the High Court of South Africa, Gauteng Local Division in Johannesburg that Mr. Okah was the mastermind of both bombings and the financier of both of them. The High Court found him guilty on all thirteen charges against him. However, because he was in South Africa when he planned and carried out the bombings in Abuja and was in Nigeria at the time of the bombings in Warri, the Supreme Court of Appeal partially overruled the High Court and acquitted Mr. Okah on four of the Warri charges on the grounds that the Act established only limited jurisdiction over acts that were committed outside of South Africa. This was the basis for their decision. The end result of this was that the sentence of 24 years of imprisonment that the High Court had imposed was reduced to a sentence of 20 years by the Supreme Court of Appeal.
+
+# 5.22 PUBLIC FINANCE MANAGEMENT ACT, 1999 (ACT 1 OF 1999) AND TREASURY REGULATIONS
+
+One of the most significant pieces of legislation that the democratically elected government of South Africa has passed into law is the Public Finance Management Act (PFMA), 1999 (Act No.1 of 1999, as amended by Act 29 of 1999). It is reasonable to anticipate that a modern Security Manager will have a comprehensive comprehension of the PFMA. This Act encourages the aims of effective financial management in order to maximise the delivery of services by making the most efficient use of the resources that are available (Moagi, 2009: 16). According to Nkoana and Bokoda (2009), the PFMA was first put into effect in April of the year 2000 and was subjected to a series of adjustments reflecting major policy and legislative developments up until the end of the year 2010.
+
+The Exchequer Act (No. 66 of 1975), which had previously been responsible for controlling public financial management in South Africa, was made null and void by the PFMA, which is the most significant law that should be followed in order to direct and beautify the halls of public institutions, as stated by Du Toit et al. (2002: 124). Every accounting officer should first and foremost consult this Act as their primary source of reference. All public authorities should be aware with the Public Finance Management Act in order to guarantee that their acts are within the Act's legislative boundaries. The first democratic administration in South Africa was responsible for passing the PFMA, which was adopted in 1999 as Act No. 1 of 1999 and was later amended by Act No. 29 of 1999.
+
+The Act lends support to the objective of solid financial management, which seeks to maximise service delivery by making the most of the limited resources available to the state in the most effective and efficient way possible. The primary purposes of the Act are to modernize the system of financial management used by the public sector, to give public-sector managers more authority to manage while at the same time increasing their level of accountability, to guarantee that timely access to quality information is always available, and to eliminate waste and corruption in the use of public resources (Moagi, 2009: 1).
+
+The management of public money is carried out in line with a set of principles that have been unanimously adopted as the standard operating procedure across all government departments. These principles are outlined in important documents such as the King Committee's Report on Corporate Governance and the Constitution of the Republic of South Africa, which was passed in 1996. These documents were instrumental in laying the groundwork for the passage of the PFMA. Compliance with the PFMA in public institutions would contribute to good corporate governance standards, as stated in the King Report, which was published in November 1994 and modified in March 2002. (Maude, 2007: 306).
+
+In order to ensure the delivery of high-quality services, it is imperative that all authorities within the departments adhere to the PFMA. They are required to follow the appropriate processes in order to acquire cash for their departments so that they can carry out the purpose for which they were established. Managers who have a solid grasp of the steps involved in making financial decisions are in a stronger position to handle any financial issues that may arise, and as a consequence, have a greater chance of securing the resources necessary to accomplish whatever goals they have set for themselves (Gitman, 2003:8-9).
+
+According to Moagi (2009: 20), public managers are held accountable and responsible for their operations, and they are obligated to make use of government assets in order to provide goods and services to the general public (people). Similar to how money in its monetary form is handled and accounted for, any asset that falls under the purview of public financial management should be safeguarded, put to use in a manner that is both economically and operationally sound, and should also be adequately documented and audited. The PFMA lays a stronger emphasis, as stated by Abedian (2004:18), on accountability for results (outputs and outcomes). The purpose of the PFMA, in its broadest sense, is to improve the effectiveness of government spending operations, an objective that is sometimes referred to as the value-for-money concept.
+
+Compliance with the PFMA has proven to be highly challenging for the majority of departments (Maude, 2007: 309). Compliance with the PFMA is challenging, since it considers both underspending and overspending to be instances of financial misconduct. However, due to the fact that government agencies have not utilised these monies to their full potential, a sizeable amount of money is sent back to the National Treasury. The provision of services is negatively impacted as a result of this situation. Kanyane (2004: 47) claims that the majority of government institutions go over their allotted budgets each and every fiscal year because each ministry spends more than it is allowed to. Despite this, the directors-general are still unable to satisfactorily explain this in detail before the Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts. Compliance continues to be a challenge on both the national and provincial levels, despite the fact that the PFMA places an emphasis on economical, effective, and efficient financial management. It has been established that a number of government agencies are lacking in performance efficiency, which has negatively impacted their attempts to supply services to the public. These departments are working hard to comply with the PFMA.
+
+According to Maude (2007: 310), line managers and cost centre managers in government departments often come from a variety of backgrounds and have a variety of educational degrees in non-financial sectors. Interpreting and carrying out various financial procedures can be challenging for these managers. The majority of managers have no formal training in financial management. Van Wyk's (2004: 414) investigation discovered the following elements, among others:
+
+• a lack of personnel that is experienced, knowledgeable, competent, and qualified;
+• accounting and information systems that are not up to date;
+• a lack of comprehension on the Public Financial Management Act, which was passed as Act No. 1 of 1999; and
+• inadequate control mechanisms, lack of understanding of accrual accounting, and generally recognised accounting principles. Financial management is the transition from financial control and administration to financial management • Financial management is the transition from financial control and administration to financial management (GRAP).
+
+According to Moagi (2009: 20), Accounting Officers bear enormous obligations under the Public Financial Management Act 1 of 1999 (as modified). The Act delegates four key responsibilities: operating basic financial management systems, including internal controls, in departments and any entities they control; ensuring that government institutions do not overspend their budgets; reporting on a monthly and annual basis, including the submission of annual financial statements two months after the end of a fiscal year; and publishing annual reports in a prescribed format, which introduces performance reporting.
+
+# 5.23 PROTECTED DISCLOSURES ACT, 2000 (ACT 26 OF 2000)
+
+In a recent report, Transparency International (2010:4) emphasized how important it is to shield employees who blow the whistle from any kind of internal reprisal. Gibbs (2020: 592) asserts that "South Africa has a robust regulatory framework that encompasses several areas of whistleblowing," and that this is seen as an essential approach in the fight against corruption. The South African Constitution Act of 1996 provides additional protection for people who blow the whistle. In light of this objective, Callard and Dehn (2004: 149) pointed out that the South African Constitution (1996) was written with the intention of "creating the foundations for a democratic state in which administration is centred on the will of the people and every individual is equally granted legal protection”.
+
+Alshoubaki and Harris (2022: 4) brought attention to the fact that whistle-blowers are considered to be a vital component of corporate governance, which ultimately results in greater monitoring and control of improper managerial behaviour. It is now generally agreed that insider information from whistle-blowers are the most common and normal means of finding fraud and other forms of misconduct. Act 26 of 2000, often known as the Whistle-Act, blower's is another name for the Protected Disclosures Act, which was passed in 2000. In order to "protect workers from reprisal that might occur when they provide information regarding suspected misbehaviour," the Protected Disclosures Act was enacted. In addition to this, it was put into place to assist in the creation of a secure working environment in which employees are allowed to communicate information in a responsible manner, so supporting good governance and openness. As part of their efforts to combat corruption, whistle-blowers have the ability to utilise the legislative process.
+
+The framework of whistleblowing law in South Africa was formed by the Constitution of South Africa (1996), the Companies Act of 2008 (Act 71 of 2008), and the Labour Relations Act of 1996. The Protected Disclosures Act (PAD) was passed in 2000 and is a part of this structure (Act 66 of 1995). (Botha & Heerden, 2014: 339). According to the preamble, the objective of the Protected Disclosures Act (2000) is "to aid establish a culture that will allow the reporting of unlawful action that persons notice in their departments." The Whistle-blower Protection Act of 2000 acknowledges the possibility that those who blow the whistle could suffer adverse consequences. As a result, in order to combat corruption, the Protected Disclosures Act (2000) safeguards whistle-blowers from any occupational ramifications, allowing them to expose any misbehaviour without fear of retaliation. This was done in an effort to combat corruption.
+
+The Protected Disclosures Act of 2000 protects employees from the following negative consequences:
+
+• Dismissal, suspension, demotion, intimidation, or harassment;
+• Being exposed to disciplinary action;
+• Being transferred against his/her will;
+• Refusal of a transfer or promotion;
+• Refusal of a term or condition of employment or retirement that has been changed or is being maintained changed to his/her detriment;
+• Refusal of a reference or receiving an adverse reference;
+• Denial of appointment to any employment, profession, or office;
+• Threats of any of the aforementioned actions; and being adversely affected in any other way in relation to his/her employment, profession, or office, including employment opportunities and job security" (Republic of South Africa, 2000).
+
+Essentially, the Protected Disclosures Act (2000) establishes a clear and simple framework to encourage responsible whistleblowing by assuring employees that remaining silent is not the only safe option; providing strong protection for employees who raise concerns internally; reinforcing and protecting the right to report concerns to public protection agencies; and, finally, protecting more general disclosures provided that there is a valid reason for going wider and that the parity is met (Republic of South Africa, 2000).
+
+Individuals who have been victimised in violation of the Act, whether or not they have been dismissed, can submit a matter to the CCMA, and then to the Labour Court. Employees who are fired for making a protected disclosure may seek payment, up to a maximum of two years' salary, or reinstatement. Employees who are not fired but are harmed in any manner as a result of making a protected disclosure may seek repayment or seek any other suitable direction from the court (Promoting Whistleblowing Act) (No. 26 of 2000).
+
+# 5.23.1 Symmington v. South African Revenue Services
+
+In the case of Symmington v. South African Revenue Services (60723/2017) [2017] ZAGPPHC 1181. The hearing was brought to my attention on September 15th, 2017, and the disciplinary investigation was scheduled to take place on September 18th and 19th. Nevertheless, the Respondent made it clear during the hearing that it would not proceed with any hearing before I had rendered my judgment. According to the allegations made by the Applicant in the Founding Affidavit, the Applicant made a number of disclosures that meet the criteria for "protected disclosures" as specified in sections 1, 5, and 9 of the Protected Disclosures Act. He said that as a direct result of making those disclosures, he was now facing a disciplinary hearing as well as the possibility of being fired from his position with SARS. He further stated that the revelations were in connection with occurrences that took place on October 18th, 2016. In order to provide context for this accusation, he felt it was important to provide a narrative of "the wider circumstances" that led up to the incident that occurred on October 18, 2016 (SAFLII, 2017).
+
+The majority of those events did not involve him directly; rather, he asserted that the events of 18 October 2016 should be understood in the larger context of the problems associated with state capture and the attempts to remove Mr. Pravin Gordhan from his position as a former Minister of Finance. After that, he began to detail the sequence of events that led to the dismissal of Minister Nene and Minister Gordhan from their respective positions in the government. In that particular setting, his contribution consisted of the drafting, in March 2009, of a memorandum in which he expressed an opinion that the proposed retirement of Mr. Ivan Pillay, a former Deputy Commissioner of SARS, was lawful and in compliance with applicable laws and regulations. In that document, he also expressed an opinion that the proposed retirement.
+
+# 5.24. GOVERNMENT IMMOVABLE ASSET MANAGEMENT ACT. 2007(ACT NO 19 OF 2007)
+
+GIAMA was established to ensure and achieve coordination between immovable asset usage and service delivery objectives by providing uniformity in the management of immovable assets held or used by a national or provincial government. It also includes rules and minimum acceptable criteria for the administration of public immovable assets (Phathela & Cloete, 2017: 3). GIAMA seeks to improve service delivery by assuring accountability and efficiency throughout the property lifespan, while also conserving the environment and cultural and historic assets (Government Immovable Asset Management Act, No. 19 of 2007, 2007: Chap 1).
+
+GIAMA emphasises the need of each organ of state developing an immovable asset management plan as part of the government's strategic planning and budgeting procedures. The immovable asset management plan should include all assets that a state organ utilises or intends to use. Custodians has to also collaborate with user departments to develop asset management plans that involve effective communication, service level agreements, performance standards, and cost management (Phathela & Cloete, 2017: 3).
+
+# 5.25 WHITE PAPER ON INTELLIGENCE (1995)
+
+The White Paper on Intelligence (1994) provided some clarity on how the new intelligence regime would be restructured in the aftermath of apartheid. It also stated that the previous minority government's intelligence dispensation's national security focus was flawed because it represented an undemocratic society (South Africa, 1994). Paper 6 also included provisions for a "new national security philosophy" and reflected theoretical foundations for what the word "national security" should mean.
+
+The conventional, almost entirely military strategic vision of national security was seen too limited and insufficient, and a more comprehensive view of national security, one that should represent an approach that includes risks to political, economic, and environmental aspects, was studied. Aspects such as long-term economic development, social justice, and a collaborative approach to conflict resolution were proposed (South Africa, 1994).
+
+The White Paper on Defence (1996) expressed similar ideas, describing national security as a broader all-encompassing notion that concentrated intently on individual security and no longer on one security controlled by military and police measures. These articles established the underlying concepts that govern national security as outlined in the South African Constitution.
+
+These guiding principles should be read against the backdrop of the Freedom Charter (1955), which strives to remedy historical injustices and is enshrined in the Preamble, Founding Provisions, and Bill of Rights of the Republic of South Africa's Constitution (1996). These concepts pervade the South African Constitution and may be found in the majority of its chapters. With these foundational papers and legal framework in place, a solid foundation for a new intelligence regime in South Africa was built. The intelligence environment appeared to be working successfully within its mandate and in accordance with the Constitution until 2005, when it was uncovered that some wrongdoing happened beyond the scope of the intelligence apparatus, which was subsequently to be disclosed as Project Avani (Nathan, 2009: 26; Cepik & Ambros, 2014: 542).
+
+# 5.26 CANADA THREAT ASSESSMENT
+
+# 5.26.1 The National Security Act, 2017 accomplishes three important objectives:
+
+According to Public Safety Canada (2019), the National Security Act, 2017 (hence referred to simply as the National Security Act) was granted royal assent on June 21, 2019. This bill brings Canada's security and intelligence legislation up to date and strengthens them by giving Canadian agencies the clear constitutional and legal framework they need to execute their duties effectively while preserving the rights and freedoms of Canadian citizens. The Act accomplishes three important goals:
+
+# 5.26.1.1 Increasing Accountability and Transparency
+
+The outcomes of the public consultation on national security revealed that the general public has a need for improved accountability and transparency on matters pertaining to national security. As will become clear in the next paragraphs, the National Security Act of 2017 responds to this requirement in a number of different ways.
+
+# 5.26.1.2 Fulfilling Commitments to Address Former C-51
+
+During the course of the consultation, the people of Canada made it quite clear that they anticipate having their rights and freedoms safeguarded in addition to their safety. The steps that are mentioned in this section indicate how the old Bill C-51's concerns are addressed by the National Security Act of 2017, which is currently in effect.
+
+# 5.26.1.3 Strengthening Security and Safeguarding Rights
+
+The legislative landscape and the political context in which it functions need to adapt in tandem with the ever-changing threat environment. The provisions that are mentioned in this part indicate how the National Security Act of 2017 strengthens Canada's capability to respond to new threats while simultaneously preserving the rights and freedoms of Canadian citizens.
+
+# 5.26.2 The Security of Canada Information Sharing Act (SCISA)
+
+National Security Green Paper (2016: 12) reports that the Security of Canada Information Sharing Act (SCISA) was created by Bill C-51 (the Anti-terrorism Act, 2015), which established additional authority for national security information sharing. It gives all federal government institutions new, explicit authority to disclose information related to "activity that undermines Canada's security" to certain designated federal institutions with national security responsibilities. This excludes activities such as protest, advocacy, dissent, and artistic expression. The SCISA prohibits the disclosure of information about these activities.
+
+National Security Green Paper (2016: 11) indicates that for the past 30 years, the Canadian system has worked as follows:
+
+• CSIS gathers information on suspected threats to Canada's and Canadians' security, both at home and abroad,
+• CSIS advises other government agencies – such as law enforcement – on the threats, and
+These other agencies act on the information.
+
+National Security Green Paper (2016: 11) further reports that CSIS was given a new mandate to take direct action to reduce threats to Canada's security when Bill C-51 (the Anti-terrorism Act, 2015) was passed. This is referred to as "threat reduction" or "disruption." These threats are defined in the CSIS Act and have not changed in 30 years. To be clear, CSIS does not have the authority to arrest people. However, it now has the authority to take prompt action to mitigate a threat, such as disrupting financial transactions or interfering with terrorist communications.
+
+The CSIS should have reasonable grounds to suspect that an activity is a threat to investigate. CSIS has a higher threshold for threat reduction measures – it should have reasonable grounds to believe that an activity is a threat. All threat reduction measures should be reasonable and proportional to the circumstances, and they have to be subject to explicit constraints. For each threat reduction measure, CSIS should conduct a risk assessment and consult with law enforcement and other agencies, as directed by the Minister of Public Safety and Emergency Preparedness (National Security Green Paper, 2016: 11). Depending on the actions it intends to take, the law requires CSIS to obtain a warrant before proceeding, especially if the measures could jeopardize Canadians' rights as enshrined in the Charter.
+
+# 5.26.3 Canadian Cyber Security
+
+The National Cyber Danger Assessment (NCTA) forecasted in 2018 that cybercrime will continue to be the most prevalent threat faced by Canadian enterprises of all sizes. This is according to the Canadian Centre for Cyber Security (CCCS) (2020:3). However, other types of cyber threats, such as cyber espionage, have the potential to have a more significant effect. Information can be held for ransom by cyber threat actors, or they can sell it or exploit it to obtain an unfair edge in competitive situations. Attacks using ransomware and targeting industrial processes have become increasingly common over the past few years. These attacks have significant repercussions, including a negative impact on reputation, a reduction in productivity, potential legal repercussions, increased costs for recovery, and damage to infrastructure and operations. They are of the opinion that ransomware attacks aimed against Canada will probably keep focusing on major businesses and the companies that supply essential infrastructure over the course of the next two years.
+
+Shariff and Bisson (2021) concur with CCCS (2020:3) in their assessment that the number, sophistication, and cost of the cybersecurity threats that face Canadian enterprises are continuing to expand. According to a recent article published by Canadian Security, the results of a survey conducted by 2020 with 251 Canadian CIOs, CTOs, and CISOs found that the number of digital attacks had increased over the course of the previous year for all of the survey participants with the exception of one percent. However, 86 percent of the executives claimed that the digital assaults their firms were experiencing had gotten more sophisticated over the course of the same period of time, and all of the respondents said that their company had been the victim of a security breach over that same span of time. During the same time period, Yahoo Finance Canada published an article stating that the average cost of a data breach in Canada had increased by $6.7\%$ since 2019 to reach $\$6.35$ million, making it even more difficult for Canadian organisations to recover from the security incidents that they had suffered.
+
+Information held by Canadian enterprises, such as intellectual property and consumer and client data, is also put at risk by those posing a cyber threat to the country. Theft of this information can have immediate as well as long-term repercussions for the victims' finances, including implications on the victims' worldwide competitiveness and reputational harm. During the COVID-19 pandemic, state-sponsored cyber threat actors targeted Canadian intellectual property related to COVID-19 combat, and we believe that this will continue to support their own domestic public health responses or profit from illegal reproduction by their own firms. In addition, we believe that this will have a negative impact on Canada's international reputation (CCCS, 2020:5).
+
+Cyber threat actors also take advantage of trusted business relationships that exist between Canadian organisations, target both online and in-person payment systems, exploit supply chain vulnerabilities, and take advantage of the privileged access managed service providers have to their customers' networks. These actions may be used to commit fraud against corporations, initiate assaults using ransomware, steal confidential information as well as data pertaining to clients and customers, and so on. A growing range of cyber risks are posed to vital infrastructure providers in Canada, including small and medium-sized enterprises, governments, universities, and other educational institutions. These organisations have control over a wide variety of assets that are of interest to actors that pose a cyber threat. These assets include data about customers, partners, and suppliers; financial information and payment systems; data regarding intellectual property; and data regarding industrial plants and machinery. As a general rule, the bigger an organisation's number of assets that are linked to the Internet, the greater the level of cyber risk it faces (CCCS, 2020: 21).
+
+In the year 2020, the CCCS (Cyber Centre) published its report on the National Cyber Threat Assessment. This public study, which is based on sources that are classified as well as those that are not classified, examines current trends in the environment of cyber threats, the chance that these cyber threats will materialize, and how Canadians might be affected. The second version of their unclassified assessment makes the following observations: the number of cyber threat actors is growing, and they are becoming more sophisticated; cybercrime will almost certainly continue to be the type of cyber threat that is most likely to affect Canadians; ransomware attacks will almost certainly continue to target large enterprises and critical infrastructure providers; and cybercrime will almost certainly continue to be the type of cyber threat that is most likely to affect Canadians. According to the findings of the Centre's investigation, there is an extremely high probability that state-sponsored actors will keep making attempts to steal intellectual property and proprietary information from Canada, particularly material linked to COVID-19.
+
+In addition, the analysis reveals that the actors are very likely striving to acquire cyber capabilities to disrupt the infrastructure of Canada, such as the delivery of energy, in order to achieve their objectives. On the other hand, they concluded that it is highly improbable that state-sponsored actors would purposefully impair Canadian essential infrastructure in the event that there were no international wars. These findings shed light on the severity of the threat that digital attackers pose to Canadian businesses and the customers those businesses service. This is something that has been brought to the attention of the Canadian Centre for Cyber Security, which is why they have developed the National Cyber Threat Assessment for 2020. This study, which is based on the unified approach to cybersecurity adopted by the Cyber Centre, gives Canadian policymakers, corporate leaders, and ordinary citizens the knowledge they require to defend themselves against the cyber dangers outlined in the previous section (Shariff & Bisson, 2021).
+
+According to Bayne and Friesen (2017: 2), prior to this declaration and the consolidation of activities into a single harmonized Canadian Safety and Security Programme (CSSP), risk assessments were primarily based on ad hoc processes that were used by partner departments. This declaration and the consolidation of activities into a single harmonized Canadian Safety and Security Programme took place in 2017. These evaluations were made more difficult, and continue to be made more difficult, by certain mandates, regulations, and laws. Risk assessment responsibilities have been decentralized to individual partners or programme elements that were designed to respond to security threats, with terrorism being the most serious of these. With a few notable exceptions, where CSSP has played a lead role in facilitating multiparty threat assessments, these responsibilities have been assigned to CSSP. The inclusion of new areas of responsibility, such as emergency management, vital infrastructure protection, cyber security, and border protection (EM).
+
+It has been noticed that South Africa and Canada have a lot in common when it comes to the safeguarding of their essential infrastructure against external influences. Cybercrime, cable thefts, and attacks on economic cities' power substations are all believed to have been committed by individuals who were not originally from South Africa. Both Canada and South Africa continue to have difficulty in implementing threat assessments that would allow for effective responses to acts of cybercrime.
+
+# 5.27 SUMMARY
+
+The chapter was dedicated to presentation and discussion of key legislations which form the conceptual pillars for the STRA in South African government departments. The reviewed pieces of legislations safeguard government departments from threats emerge from the social, political, financial, and technological environment. In this chapter, the researcher discussed the Constitutional mandate in ensuring that the security programmes are implemented in consideration of the democratic values of equality, human dignity, and freedom. In addition, it encouraged that the security practices should respect, protect, promote, and fulfil the rights in the Bill of Rights. However, the Bill further state that the rights are subject to the limitations contained or referred to in section of the Constitution, or elsewhere in the Bill.
+
+The chapter included legislations that were inherited from the apartheid dispensation and have not yet been replaced to meet the Constitutional requirements. The researcher included case studies in selected legislation to emphasis their impact on protection of government departments’ assets, information, and the people. Furthermore, the researcher discussed the Canadian legislation and challenges of cyber security in Canadian government for international comparability purposes.
+
+In the following chapter, the researcher presents and discusses the research findings, recommendations, and conclusion.
+
+# CHAPTER 6
+
+# FINDINGS, RECOMMENDATIONS AND CONCLUSION
+
+# 6.1 INTRODUCTION
+
+The current chapter largely presents the findings, recommendations and conclusion accruing from the study. The findings themselves are necessarily a product of the thematically analysed data, which is consistent with analytic approaches that are usually implemented in qualitative research studies (Aurini, Heath & Howells, 2016: 12). The demographic characteristics or profiles of the participants are presented first for purposes of contextualisation, followed by the findings and recommendations.
+
+The findings themselves are presented in accordance with each research question, in terms of which sub-themes were subsequently developed. It is important to note that every research question has its own findings which emanate logically from the aim of this study as articulated in Section 1.6, which is: To critically review the implementation of the security threat assessment by a selection of government Department in Gauteng.
+
+From the viewpoint of the researcher, the afore-mentioned research aim or purpose statement of the study addresses various issues and aspects related to security threat assessment, and necessitated the identification of the relevant theories of security threat, risk, and vulnerabilities. In general, theories are useful for analysing, applying and determining the causes of ineffective implementation of security threat assessment and its impact on government departments (Trochimm, 2020 cited in Troy, 2020: 14). In that regard, it was imperative to consider reviewing the current mechanisms of protection in South African legislative, national policy, and regulatory framework to determine their efficacy; formulating and designing a more effective best practices in comparable jurisdictions and the researcher's experiences.
+
+The recommendations in this chapter are intended to address the shortfalls and challenges in the South African Government departments in relation to implementation of the security threat assessment as explored in the literature and qualitative research, and eventually improve the field of security in government. Furthermore, this chapter covers the limitations and contributions of the study, as well as the proposals for future research.
+
+# 6.2 DEMOGRAPHIC CHARACTERISTICS OF PARTICIPANTS
+
+Table 6.1 below is a representation of the study participants’ demographic characteristics.
+
+Table 6.1: Demographic details of participants
+
+
+
Participant Code
Gender
Specialisation
Title/Rank
Participant 1
Male
Digital forensics and cybercrimes
Investigator Cybercrime
Participant 2
Male
Physical security and Vetting
Security Manager
Participant 3
Female
Physical security
Security Manager
Participant 4
Male
Physical security
Security Manager
Participant 5
Female
Information security
Assistant director
Participant 6
Female
Information security
Assistant Director
Participant 7
Female
Vetting specialist
Assistant Director
Participant 8
Female
Information security
Assistant Director
Participant 9
Female
Information security
Assistant Director
Participant 10
Male
Vetting investigation
Assistant Director
Participant 11
Male
Security Manager
Assistant Manager
Participant 12
Male
Security risk managements
Assistant Director
Participant 13
Female
Cyber security
Assistant Director
Participant 14
Male
Cybersecurity
Assistant Director
Participant 15
Female
cybersecurity
Assistant Director
Participant 16
Male
Security, specialisation Protection
Security Manager
Participant 17
Female
Services Vetting
Security Manager
Participant 18
Male
Vetting Investigator
Sergeant
Participant 19
Male
Assistant Director
Forensic Investigation
Participant 20
Female
Vetting specialist
and Auditing Vetting investigator
Participant 21
Male
Physical security
Assistant Director
Participant 22
Female
Vetting specialist
Manager
Participant 23
Female
Vetting specialist
Assistant Director
Participant 24
Male
Vetting specialist
Assistant Director
Participant 25
Male
Physical security
Assistant Director
Participant 26
Male
Physical Security
Assistant Director
Participant 27
Male
Digital forensics and cybercrimes
Investigator Cybercrime
Participant 28
Male
Physical security and Vetting
Security Manager
Participant 29
Female
Physical security
Security Manager
Participant 30
Male
Security Management
Security Manager
+
+Source: Researcher’s own compilation
+
+The researcher managed to draw data for each research question from participants until saturation was reached at the $30^{\mathrm{th}}$ participant. Extrapolated from Table 6.1 is that the majority of participants $(n{=}17,57\%$ were male, whereas females constituted a minority $(n{=}13,43\%)$ ). Also evident is that all the participants $(\mathsf{n}{=}30,100\%)$ were from the security sector, and occupied various security-related positions in their employment. Therefore, their involvement in the study lends credence to the researcher’s judgement in their selection (Aurini et al., 216: 13; Efron & Ravid, 2019: 27).
+
+# 6.3 CONTEXTUALISATION OF KEY FINDINGS
+
+From the researcher’s perspective, the contextualisation of the key findings logically distinguishes the findings themselves on the one hand, as well as the perennial intersection of the secondary and primary data throughout the chapters of the entire study. In that regard, the findings themselves are presented as the cumulative outcome of both the literature-based perspectives and participant-specific contributions that have emerged in varying degrees and contexts throughout this research process (Kumar, 2019: 118; Majid, 2018: 22).
+
+Accordingly, Chapter 1 contextualised the study by demarcating and outlining the research problem, research objectives, limitations and research questions as well as research design and methodology. provides an overview of the entire study. However, this chapter indicates that some of the machinations of hollowing-out and weakening the capacity of the affected departments included (Surju, 2018: 12-13):
+
+extensive corruption at the Executive level throughout all organs of the State; • factional politicisation of the intelligence, policing, and prosecution system; and • vulnerability in governance due to re-purposing of departmental mandates.
+
+In Chapter 2, the researcher discussed various points regarding the concepts of risk and threat. In addition, the term "opportunity" is defined as an upside risk that results in positive effects, whilst the term "threat" describes an upside risk that results in negative repercussions. Furthermore, many departments have difficulty adopting STA, which requires them to look for opportunities within the risk process. The researcher noted in Chapter 2 that opportunities have a greater potential to have an effect on the level of threat than any other component. However, those in charge of maintaining security might exert a significant amount of control over opportunities by closely monitoring the vulnerabilities of assets (Thoka, 2020: 14).
+
+The degree to which certain assets require protection from threats would vary depending on the nature of a department's primary business and the significance of the business to South Africa's national interest and national security. As such, these consequences are essential for the department's evaluation of potential threats and risks with a comprehensive understanding of the department's primary core business, and proceed to identify the most essential vital assets that will need to be protected. Critical assets are the departments’ essential business operations, staff and clients, information technology assets, physical infrastructure, services, as well as intangible assets (Katsikas, 2013: 23). These directorates are identified as critical assets and should collaborate to identify the personnel who are high-risk and mostly using these assets.
+
+Chapter 3 presented and discussed threat assessment in the context of the underlying causes of a security vulnerability and the development of controls (physical, technical, and operational) to prevent, postpone, and reduce the negative effects of an incident on the departments. In Chapter 3, vulnerability relates to a breach that can be detected in the current security mechanisms (Watts, S. 2017). The security vulnerability assessment does not only provide senior management with evidence that vulnerabilities do exist but also contributes to the process of acquiring cash for potential solutions.
+
+Since risk is often difficult for security practitioners to describe, the researcher explains it in Chapter 4 by mentioning that security risk is a key concern, and its explanation should utilise language that conveys uncertainty, such as might or might not, could or could not. As a consequence of this, the terminology should make it easier for security managers to describe the risk to security. The fact that it can only take place in the presence of the security threat, gives rise to the term dependency or contingent language. However, risk originates from someplace, that there are different courses of risk, and that management commonly confuses the course of risk with the real risk (Dalziel, 2015: 18). This is yet another important point that should be kept in mind. Therefore, one method for locating the security risk is to have a structured description that lays out the cause, the danger, and then the consequence; this is something that can be accomplished by making efficient use of the STA.
+
+In Chapter 5, the researcher discusses the South African legislations and national policies that support the government security programmes. The chapter further discussed the Canadian Threat Assessment perspective and the challenges on cyber and digital crimes for international comparability purposes.
+
+In Chapter 6, the findings and their context are presented and discussed in respect of the research questions as articulated in Section 1.8 of Chapter 1. The following subsections are a synoptic encapsulation of the overall findings of the study.
+
+# 6.3.1 Risk Consequences
+
+Assessment of threats and risks in the criminal justice system has a long and chequered history, dating back to the early 1900s when correctional officers relied on their own professional judgments to determine, whether an individual was likely to comply with the parole’s conditions (SAPS, 2011). Actuarial calculations are employed to categorise persons and adapt the reaction of the legal system in order to maximise the likelihood of desired results, hence the evaluations in the modern era are both more exhaustive and methodical in their approach. This transition from making informed "guesses" to evidence-based assessments occurred over the course of several generations of STA development, which are detailed in Chapters 2 and 4. Security professionals and policymakers be better able to contextualize the value and utility of current STA tools in increasing the consistency and efficacy of counterintelligence operations, if and only if they had a better understanding of the historical backdrop (Williams, 2017).
+
+Cyber threat actors are able to hold information for ransom, sell it, or exploit it to obtain an unfair competitive advantage, according to research that was conducted. This poses a risk that might have serious implications. Attacks using ransomware and targeting industrial processes have become increasingly common over the past few years (Accenture, 2019). These attacks have significant repercussions, including a negative impact on reputation, a reduction in productivity, potential legal repercussions, increased costs for recovery, and damage to infrastructure and operations.
+
+# 6.3.2 Digital Attacks and Information Theft
+
+It has been discovered that in the absence of international hostilities, it is improbable that State-sponsored actors will purposefully impair Canadian vital infrastructure. This finding was revealed on the basis that it was unlikely for international hostilities to occur. These findings shed light on the severity of the threat that digital attackers pose to Canadian businesses and the customers serviced by those businesses service (Bayne, 2020: 38).
+
+It has been discovered that cyber threat actors also imperil the information of firms, such as intellectual property and customer and client data (Accenture, 2019). Theft of this information could have major impact as well as long-term repercussions for the victims' finances, including implications on the victims' worldwide competitiveness and reputational harm (Hayes & Drury, 2019: 14). It has been discovered that organisations control a wide variety of assets that are of interest to cyber threat actors. These assets include intellectual property, financial information and payment systems, personal data of customers, partners and suppliers; as well as information about particular industries and machinery (Bayne & Friesen, 2017: 17).
+
+# 6.4 MAIN FINDIGS AND THEMATIC CATEGORISATION
+
+While they endorse the efficacy of the methodological processes applied in the study, the main findings are also indicative of the relevance and congruence of the research problem, aim and questions in relation to the research topic (Majid, 2018: 37; Ruel, Wagner & Gillespie, 2016: 17). It is particularly in the latter context that thematic data analysis was also applied according to the sequence and logic of the following research questions as articulated in Section 1.8 of Chapter 1. In addition to providing a framework for the dissemination of the findings (Ruel et al., 2016: 17), these research questions also facilitated the process of unbundling or dissecting the fundamental issues, concepts and knowledge pertinent to security threat assessment, theories of security threat, risk, and vulnerabilities, its causes and effects, and its impact on government departments; as well as factors that will have a direct influence on formulating and designing effective and efficient STA model.
+
+# 6.4.1 Theme 1: The Scope of Government’s Security Threat Assessment (STA) Framework Guidelines
+
+The findings in the above regard are in congruence with the following requestion of the study, namely: Research Question 1: What is the scope of government’s Security Threat Assessment (STA) framework guidelines?
+
+The study sought to understand the participants’ awareness of the STAF and its scope. The majority of participants demonstrated awareness of the framework, resulting in the emergence of the following key themes:
+
+# 6.4.1.1 Role of Threat Assessment Framework Guidelines
+
+The majority of the participants acknowledged that South Africa faces several threats including corruption, policy misrepresentation by senior executive in relation to asset classes if people, leak sensitive information, recruitment by human resource management in relation to asset class of core business process and intrusion of operations of intelligence in relation to asset class of people. In order to address these threats, most participants felt that the STA was necessary to mitigate these threat challenges. The following statements are from the majority of participants regarding the role of the threat assessment framework guideline:
+
+Participant 1: A threat assessment is a procedure that is fact-based and systematic, with the goal of identifying, investigating, evaluating, and managing potentially dangerous or violent situations. One of the most important objectives is to differentiate between a person who makes a threat and one who poses a threat. The purpose of the threat assessment is to locate weak spots within the asset class, the information, and the employees.
+
+Participant 2: The Threat Risk Assessment Is carried out in line with the South African Police Service mandate. The division provides a wide range of services, such as lodging and property management, with the objectives of enhancing the built environment and attaining the objectives of poverty reduction. The Chief Directorate Security Services is concerned about the safety of personnel, as well as the security of valuable property and private information. This concern extends to the protection of staff. The Chief Directorate Security Services is obligated to make every effort to achieve compliance with the Minimum Information Security Standards (MISS), intelligence, physical security, and any other applicable legislation. This is something that the Chief Directorate Security Services is required to do.
+
+Participant 3: The Chief Directorate of Security Services is susceptible to security risks and threats as a result of the nature of its mandate. These risks and threats can either put the Chief Directorate of Security Services' ability to effectively function at risk or cause disruptions in the performance of its primary business function. The STA is seen as a tool that can assist the department in evaluating the gaps regarding the current security measures, and this is something that the department views as being a potential use for the instrument. The effectiveness of the government's efforts to protect human lives, information, and property can be improved as a result of this factor. In an effort to provide assistance, Security Management Services and Key Account Management (Prestige) have been brought on board. The department's primary business statements are going to be assessed, and the results, together with the TRA's mitigation strategies, are going to be provided to the SSA Security Advisor who was assigned to the department.
+
+Participant 4: After the stage of threat assessment has been finished, the structure of the plan to defend the core business of the department can be formed so that it can be put into effect. The plan should include a variety of milestones to help the department transition from the disruption position it is now into normal operations as quickly and efficiently as possible.
+
+Participant 5: The goal of carrying out the threat risk assessment is to evaluate the dangers that are connected to the security measures that have been put into place in the department, as well as to identify the weaknesses that have an effect on the security measures that are currently in place.
+
+Participant 7: Assessments of security threats and risks are carried out by both the SAPS and the SSA for the goal of providing advice services about risk reduction. This contributes to the department's efforts to downplay the severity of the threat. The conclusion of the evaluation has a direct bearing on the implementation of the Security Policy, which is a component of the overarching strategy for the department. The department does not currently have an authorised security police force, although there is a policy that is still in the design stage.
+
+Participant 14: Understanding the fundamental aspects of the department's primary function is essential to developing an effective threat assessment and security strategy. While it is crucial to have a general grasp of potential dangers and loopholes, it is even more vital to be familiar with those that could affect a particular division. In order to design department-specific security policies and procedures, security assessment strategists need to determine how much effort, time, and money will be required.
+
+Participants 15, 23 and 29 concur that: Everyone who works for the Department, including temporary workers and contractors, as well as anybody who visits the Department. In addition to that, this is going to cover the following: protective security, security administration, security organisation, physical security, information security, personnel security, information and communications technology security, and BCP.
+
+The strategy should also be applicable to all of the Department's different types of facilities. Participant 29 also mentioned that the scope of this exercise encompasses the entire department at the head office level, and that it will be distributed to regional offices in instances where risks that are comparable are found.
+
+Participants 10 and 11 agree that: An application's critical security controls can be identified, evaluated, and put into place with the help of a security threat assessment. In addition to this, it places an emphasis on the prevention of application security flaws and vulnerabilities. An enterprise has the ability to observe the application portfolio in its entirety from the point of view of an attacker when they do a risk assessment.
+
+Participant 12: The first step in the security threat assessment strategy is to determine the value of the department's assets. Next, we look at the threats that might prevent the department from fulfilling its service delivery mandate if such assets as buildings, machinery, electronic equipment, and personnel can be stolen, vandalized, or harmed. Finally, we assess the seriousness or likelihood of such threats materializing based on the efficiency of the department's existing security measures. After going through a consultation process, this data is then used to inform the department's security policy.
+
+Participant 13: The Concept of STA Security Strategy provides a definition of information assurance and security initiatives, as well as a priority ranking for these initiatives, which the department is required to initiate in order to increase the safety of information and related technologies. After that, the department's objective and vision should be supported by the security policy, which should also include information that makes it obvious what needs to be secured.
+
+Participant 27 shared Participant 16’s similar views as well as Participant 29: To perform this threat assessment task, it is necessary to assess the security risks associated with a particular site. It covers a wide range of risks, such as: natural threats (including tornadoes, hurricanes, floods, earthquakes), criminal threats (such as theft from a location, violence against employees), terrorist threats (such as active shooters, vehicles, and person-borne improvised explosive devices), as well as potential accidents.
+
+Participant 30: Security Threat Assessment is a sub-category of Security Risk Assessment. The latter briefly entails:
+
+Asset Identification & Categorisation – (High valued / critical assets, e.g., value of substation versus value of vehicle). This further entail Consequences/ Impact Assessment in respect of Legal, Financial, Reputation, Stakeholder & Customers, and other factors Threat Assessment - (identify and assess adversaries - insider versus outsider threats and their intents, capability & history of manifestation)
+Vulnerability Assessment – identification and characterization of adequacy of existing security controls, their degree of effectiveness to reduce vulnerabilities and / or to mitigate damage to assets in the event of attack by a threat agent.
+Risk Assessment _ often represented by Probability X Impact, estimate the degree of impact relative to each asset, estimate likelihood of attack by threat agent, estimate likelihood that a specific vulnerability will be exploited.
+Security Countermeasures Assessment – This is the last stage which prioritises security measures to be implemented, bearing their return on investment, trade-offs, and their value to achieve the Delay, Deny, Deflect, Devalue, Detect, Respond & Contain security principles.
+
+In the context of security policy development, the above process becomes an input, and provides a broad policy statement on the security philosophy the organisation will adopt to manage security risks. In the context of security strategy, the security risk assessment process provides an input in respect of the risks the organisation is facing, and the necessary strategy and plans required to manage same (Surju, 2018: 47).
+
+Based on the responses from participants regarding the role of STA, the researcher noted that most of the participants were aware of the STA and its role and the objective thereof. One of the key ideas raised by participants was that the STA should eventually be leading to policy formulation, which at the present moment, is not there. In summary, the participants identified the following as the role of STA:
+
+To assess the effectiveness of existing security measures;
+• To identify, inquire, assess, and manage potentially dangerous or violent situations; To identify weaknesses in the current mechanism of protection;
+To mitigate threats against the departments;
+To support the development of security policy should then support the mission and vision of the department;
+• To determine the value of assets in possession of the department; and
+• To direct the policy document on how these properties should be protected.
+
+Based on the views expressed by participants, the STA is an important framework as a directive to identify security concerns, the value of state assets, and ways to reduce potential dangers. It is noteworthy that the absence of a security policy completely nullifies the STA’s prospects (Kabanda et al., 2017: 7). All participants concurred that STA is about protecting the assets, information, and the people.
+
+# 6.4.2 Theme 2: The Role of Other Directorates in Implementing the Security Threat Assessment Framework
+
+The findings in the above regard cohere with the following requestion of the study, namely: Research Question 2: What is the role of other Directorates when implementing the Security Threat Assessment Framework?
+
+Regarding the role of other (non-security related) directorates in implementing STA, the participants identified different roles that the directorate is involved in. Most of the participants indicated that the directorates give direction and oversight to implementation of STA. The participants indicated that the directorate have the following roles:
+
+# 6.4.2.1 Ensuring Security Management
+
+The Department has identified an inadequate compliance with the National Policies such as the MISS document (1998). The inclusion of other directorates provides expertise in identifying critical assets and knowledge of who is authorised to gain access to sensitive information. To mitigate these security threats, the participants indicated the following with regards to the role of the directorate:
+
+Participant 2: It is the responsibility of all personnel to protect the information and the assets of the department. However, the overall security risk management is a primary responsibility of the Directorate Security under the security manager on the level of Director. The component should have a vetting field unit, cybersecurity, information security, and physical security that has memorandum of understanding with the SSA, and in line with the DPSA.
+
+Participant 4: The development of security policy requires the participation of all directorates. The first important milestone is the process is developing a security policy that is going to support the primary mandate of the department. That means the critical assets that contribute to the success of the core business of the department must be clearly identified.
+
+Participant 13: The context of STA is to protect the primary mandate of the department and directorate security plays the supporting role. There are other departments that makes the department what it is, and the Security Manager should must be able to consult with all heads of directorates to implement a successful STA.
+
+Participant 20: The sensitivity of information that is generated by other directorate on official capacity, and the consequence of landing such information in hands of aggressors is known by people who generates it, not directorate security.
+
+Participant 27: Non-compliance by some directorates with the vetting and screening of companies poses a potential threat to some of the projects undertaken by the department as some companies have proven to be incapable of delivering on the projects, after the vetting process has been ignored.
+
+# 6.4.3 Theme 3: The Role of Management in Supporting the Security Programmes
+
+The findings in the above regard relate to the following requestion of the study, namely:
+
+Research Question 3: What is the role of management in supporting the security programmes?
+
+The study sought to understand the participants’ views concerning management’s role in respect of supporting security programmes of the STAF and its scope. The majority of participants demonstrated awareness of the framework, resulting in the emergence of the following key themes:
+
+The participants expressed the following perceptions regarding the role of management:
+
+Participant 1: A Security Management System may be considered as that part of the overall management system, based mainly on the quality management system, provides the structure to enable identification of potential threats to the department and which establishes, implements, operates, monitors, reviews and maintains all.
+
+Participant 2: The head of the departments must delegate their duties to the head of all business units in a form of security committee, to ensure that they provide guidance to the security component in order to align the security policy with the overall strategic pillars of the departments. The security policy should communicate directly with what the departments seek to achieve in their business plan.
+
+Participant 5: The security manager responsible for protecting the assets, information, and the people on behalf of the Accounting Officer should consult with all the heads of business units and the stakeholders in order to clear define the core business of the department and identify the critical assets of the department.
+
+Participant 7: Security structure is established to protect the assets of the department, the personnel and client, and the information of the department. Therefore, the structure should be led by a qualified and experienced manager on a level of Director in possession of NQF Level 8. The operational scope of the component should be directed by the primary mandate of the department. The component should cover physical protection, security personnel, information technology, and information security, and all these unit should be led by a Deputy Directors in possession on an NGF level 7.
+
+Participant 11: The security manager who will oversee the structure must be chosen by the department. The senior management is responsible for ensuring that STA strategies are in place as well as supporting the security programme. Management is responsible for ensuring that STA recommendations are carried out efficiently and on schedule.
+
+Participant 13: The HOD delegates the duties of developing the security policy to the security manager, who then includes all stakeholders to participate in the drafting of the policy. The policy should a piece of laws that indicates how it is going to support the core business of the departments, whilst maintaining the security principles of prioritizing the safety and protection of employees and visitors, critical infrastructure of the department, and the classified information produced on official capacity.
+
+Participant 16: The misrepresentation in policy development and corruption by Senior Executives of the departments, has been damaging to the departments’ reputation and has created obstacles to local and foreign direct investment, flows to the stock market, global competitiveness, economic growth and has ultimately distorted the development of South Africans. It has a direct impact on public money that is allocated for government services and projects.
+
+# 6.4.3.1 Role of Management
+
+Based on the views expressed by participants, the main function of management is overseeing the development of security policy, security committee and appointment of security manager. However, Participant 16 highlighted the concern of corruption and management’s inability to direct policies. Just as directorates, management plays a crucial role in supporting security programmes. Most of the participants were aware of the role of management and some of the roles that were identified by most of the participants include: management of the overall security management system; delegating duties; protecting assets; sensitive information; and people ensuring that
+
+STA strategies are in place and implemented. This perspective is in agreement with the observations made by Bickley (2017) in this regard.
+
+6.4.4 Theme 4: The Processes for Appointing the Security Manager and the Security Committee, and Their Respective Roles in Threat Assessment The findings in the above regard are congruent with the following requestion of the study, namely: Research Question 4: Which are the processes for appointing the Security Manager and the Security Committee, and what are their respective roles in threat assessment?
+
+The participants provided the following perspectives relating to the process of appointing a security manager and the security committee, as well as their respective roles in threat assessment:
+
+Participant 5: The MISS document provides guidance on how to protect the departments and the responsibilities of the Head of the department. Security structures should consult with the SSA to assist structuring the security component. The security component is led by a director, who is the security manager and the automatically the chairperson of the security committee.
+
+6.4.4.1 Processes of Appointing a Security Manager and the Security Committee The majority of participants indicated that they had knowledge of the process of appointing a security manager and the security committee. The participants indicated that the appointment should be informed by the size of the department and the protection needed by the department. Notably, the identified threats guide the strategic objectives of the committee (Black, 2010).
+
+# 6.4.4.2 Roles of Security Manager and Security Committee
+
+Apart from identifying the appointment processes, participants were asked to provide their views relating to the roles of security manager and security committees. Most of the participants demonstrated awareness of the functions of these two portfolios. This finding coheres with the same observations by Brotby (2008) and Dalziel (2015). Three key thematic issues were identified by participants in terms of the role of security manager and security committee namely, the strategic direction, security component, training, and development.
+
+# 6.4.4.3 Strategic Direction
+
+Relating to strategic direction, the participants commented thus:
+
+Participant 2: The role of committee is to provide a strategic direction and ensure that the implementation of the threat assessment is conducted yearly and when threat is identified.
+
+Participant 14: It is the responsibility of the Security Committee to provide direction on when and how the STA can be implement and who should be included in the team to ensure that the assessment cover all the departments’ business unit and the core business of the departments.
+
+Participant 15: The responsibility of the security committee includes but not limited to the oversight of: Security arrangements for events both in and out of the building, any other areas that relate to the security of the building, review of activity logs of security personnel on a weekly basis.
+
+Participant 30: A security committee is an important governance structure that provides assurance to Executive Committee and/ or Board that risk and threats facing the organisation are proactively properly managed. Broadly, the purpose of a security committee is to provide a company-wide governance structure and oversight over security management by ensuring that security risks are properly identified, and appropriate security measures are implemented to mitigate security vulnerabilities, risks and threats to acceptable risk levels.
+
+# 6.4.4.4 Security Component
+
+Participant 6: Security component shall be responsible for the safeguarding of personnel, assets, and information by executing access control Twenty-four (24) hours per day, in terms of the Control of Access to Public Premises and Vehicle Act, 1985 and National Key Point Act 102 of 1982. Contract security personnel may be appointed on contract after the invitation of quotation or tender were approved by Bid Adjudication Committee to assist departmental security personnel in performing specific duties as prescribed by the Security Manager. Strict control measures must be in place to control and monitor all contracted security personnel.
+
+Participant 13: Security component is managed by the Security Manager on a level of Director and supported by the Deputy Directors for Vetting, Physical Security, IT Security and Mission Security. The component’s responsibility is to manage the total Security function in the country and abroad, ensure safety and security for all department’s facilities, implementation of Security and Risk Management, implementation of vetting, screening and compliance with prescripts, monitoring the implementation of Occupational Health and Safety and ensure implementation of security measures in consultation with the SSA and SAPS.
+
+Participant 30: The strategy ought to come before the structure. The plan ought to be informed by the macroenvironment (a PESTEL or SWOT analysis), internal organisational capabilities, and the security risk assessment procedure described earlier in this paragraph. The majority of departments make the error of believing that all firms adhere to a universally established security structure. The structure of something cannot be managed in any way. Instead, management should be focused on the strategy, which is supposed to be managed because strategies are what provide value for the department and help in achieving strategic goals and objectives. Therefore, structure is what drives strategic decision-making.
+
+# 6.4.4.5 Training
+
+Participant 13: The security manager should have responsibility for on-going maintenance of security procedures and training and can help devise and implement your training regimen. The security manager, with the support of the security committee, should ensure that the employees receive the appropriate training on how confidential information should be stored in order to achieve the highest possible level of protection. They need to ensure that the MISS implementation is carried out throughout all government departments, and then evaluate how effective it is.
+
+From the perspectives presented by participants, the study stabled that participants understand the roles of the security manager and security committee. In addition, by giving the manager and committee leadership roles, they are better positioned to oversee deficits in security and recommend policy and identify training needs, in agreement with perspectives posited by Surju (2018: 38).
+
+# 6.4.5 Theme 5: The Departments’ Processes of Anticipating and Analysing the Probabilities of Loss and Damage to State Property
+
+The findings in the above regard are congruent with the following requestion of the study, namely: Research Question 5: Which are the Departments’ processes of anticipating and analysing the probabilities of loss and damage to State property?
+
+Most of the participants did not fully articulate the processes involved in anticipating and analysing possibilities of loss and damage to state property. This may indicate lack of awareness with requisite security documents such as a MISS. Therefore, the participants identified the security component as a key role player in ensuring that threats are identified, and measures to counter these threats are taken. The participants commented thus:
+
+Participant 1: The basic risk control strategies are defence and prevent the exploitation of the vulnerability. This is accomplished by countering threats, removing vulnerabilities in assets, limiting access to assets, and adding protective safeguards. This approach is also referred to as avoidance. There are four main risk management strategies, or risk treatment options: Risk acceptance, Risk transference, Risk avoidance and Risk reduction.
+
+Participant 18: The security committee should play an oversight role to ensure that security policies, procedures, strategies, and measures are implemented to protect the assets of the departments or institutions against potential threats and risk. To monitor and evaluate the effectiveness of the security measures in place. Ensure that continuous security assessment is conducted as the crime is not static.
+
+Participant 30: The department conducts security surveys or vulnerability assessments, during which they detect adequacies or vulnerabilities in the existing security measures, and then they recommend a variety of security solutions such as access controls, CCTV cameras, protocols, and so on. This procedure is deficient due to the fact that it does not identify, evaluate, or prioritise assets. Furthermore, it does not investigate threats and threat agents' intentions, capabilities, or history of events.
+
+In many cases, security is handled independently from the department rather than as a key enabler of overall strategy. As a direct consequence of this, the vast majority of security functions and departments are unable to successfully establish themselves at the core of their respective businesses. As such, the majority of security strategies are still focused on the conventional approach. These measures are regarded more as cost centres than value increases (Fay & Patterson, 2018).
+
+# 6.4.6 Theme 6: Current Layers of Security Measures
+
+The findings in the above regard are congruent with the following requestion of the study, namely: Research Question 6: What are current layers of security measures?
+
+Few participants responded directly to this aspect, which may indicate lack of awareness about the layers of security measures that are deployed by the department.
+
+What most participants mentioned was the MISS and vetting processes. Following are the responses from the participants:
+
+Participant 1: Minimum Information Security Standard (MISS) was compiled as an official government security policy document, which must be maintained by all departments to physically protect the assets, information and the people. The document further provides guidance on how to handle sensitive/ classified material produced by the department on behalf of the government. This is meant to ensure that the national interests are protected.
+
+Participant 2: The Department through the assistance of the State Security Agency (SSA) has identified unauthorised disclosure of information as a key threat to the department’s ongoing projects especially in the prestige. The department has implemented the national vetting strategy to ensure that all new employees that enters the government departments go through the Personnel Suitability Checks. The department further ensure that all the personnel and clients are obliged to adhere to the MISS document.
+
+Participant 7: The Minimum Information Security Standard (MISS) and the National Vetting Strategy should be applied to ensure that all management and specialists in critical positions are vetted. This would ensure the credibility of people who are entrusted with classified information.
+
+Participant 20: A high-level document for proposing security structure related to threat risk assessment should be compiled. It should contain the plan as to why the organisation should invest in security threat risk assessment unit and it should provide a direction that is aligned to the business vision, mission and objectives.
+
+Based on the participants’ views above, the conclusion would be that the MISS document is not fully understood by all personnel, but the participants are aware of the role of the document. Fay and Patterson (2018) concur that government employees are cognisant of security protocols, but ignore them at times.
+
+# 6.4.6.1 Classification of Information
+
+The security policy should clearly define the powers, responsibilities, and duties of security personnel, and all personnel are expected to adhere to the security measures (Gumedze, 2008: 18). Security is an essential component of management, and the
+
+security component's composition should be such that the line of authority does not obstruct access to top management.
+
+# 6.4.6.1.1 Understanding the term “document”
+
+In terms of the Protection of Information Act (Act 84 of 1982) a document is:
+
+• any handwritten or printed note, plan, picture, sketch, photographic or other representation of any place or article; and
+• any disc, tape, card, perforated roll, or other device in or on which sound or any signal has been recorded for production.
+
+6.4.6.1.2 Considerations in the classification of documents
+
+The following considerations are applied in the classification of documents.
+
+Restricted documents are those that are classified on the basis that they contain information that could be used to embarrass an individual or institution by aggressors. Compromisation of such information could cause embarrassment to the integrity or reputation of an individual or departments (Mahlatsi, 2019: 14).
+
+Confidential documents are those that are classified on the basis that they contain information that could be used by aggressor elements to harm the objective purposes or functions of a department (Renfroe & Smith, 2016: n.d.). When such information is compromised, it could lead to the following consequences:
+
+• the disruption of ordered administration within the departments, and adverse effect on the non-operational relations between the departments;
+• the embarrassment or damage to the integrity or reputation of an individual;
+• the ineffective functioning of an information or operational system; and
+• the frustration of the effective functioning of either system.
+
+Secret documents are those that are classified on the basis that they contain information that could be used by aggressor elements to disrupt the objective and functions of the departments (Renfroe & Smith, 2016: n.d.).
+
+# 6.4.7 Theme 7: Possible Solutions for Addressing Correct Implementation of Security Threat Assessment
+
+The findings in the above regard are congruent with the following requestion of the study, namely: Research Question 7: Which possible solutions could be implemented to address the correct implementation of security threat assessment?
+
+The participants made various suggestions based on how security threat assessment could be effectively implemented. Several strategies were suggested and are presented below.
+
+Participant 5: The department should ideally consolidate previously identified and executed projects, provide scope and definition for each of the identified efforts, detail the general risks addressed by the initiative, and provide a foundation that can later be refined by senior management. Furthermore, the security strategy planning process must identify any significant dependencies associated with the initiative in order to support higher-level evaluation of initiatives that can be undertaken when necessary. The security policy should then support the mission and vision of the department with a clear information of what need to be protected.
+
+Participant 10: Security threat assessment strategy entails determining the value of assets in possession of the department, then also looking at the threats that might negatively affect the department from realizing its service delivery mandate if such assets including buildings, machinery, electronics and personnel can be stolen, vandalized or harmed, then we also look at the seriousness or likelihood of such threats materializing based of the effectiveness if current security measures. This then informs the security policy of the department after consultation process.
+
+Participant 14: STA is the professional use of a systems approach, comprising accurate diagnosis, an aligned protection strategy based on sound theory and security principles (inference), and a mitigation system (treatment) that fulfils operational requirements accordant with legislation, standards, and engineering practice to manage the protection of assets, information, and personnel from damage, loss, or unauthorised access against internal and external threats.
+
+Participant 30: STA is defined as one critical function within department. Secondly, security strategies should be based on comprehensive assessment of the department’s goals, strategic objectives and the security risks emerging therefrom. Finally, the security function should regularly conduct security risk assessment, and the reports should input into the broad security strategy of the department. Security risk or threat assessment reports computed as standalone activities and failing to demonstrate value to the department hardly receive support and financial investment from management
+
+# 6.4.7.1 Wellness Centre
+
+Employee wellness is a critical factor, especially in the government security sector (Duff, 2010: 3). To that effect, most of the participants shared the view that wellness practitioners help to detect mental health challenges that employees might be confronted with and help them before the condition pose a threat to the department (Cockerham, 2016: 17). The participants shared the following sentiments in relation to the inclusion of mental health practitioners in the implementation of threat assessment:
+
+Participant 1: It is the Employee Wellness Centre that should detect signs of employee depression and threats pose by how they handle their stress. the EWC also work in the secret setup that allows them to know the information that the management and security does not know.
+
+Participant 2: Mental health practitioners work with personal things and should not be involved in security practices to determine information value, identify and prioritise assets, identify threats, identify vulnerabilities, calculate the likelihood and impact of various scenarios per year basis and employ the threat and risk assessment strategy.
+
+Participant 9: Threat assessment should not be analysed only in context of security and intelligence, but also in a mental wellness of the employees. The employee wellness centre should be part of threat assessment team lead by the Security Manager.
+
+Participant 7: Through the vetting policy, security component should ensure that the employee wellness is included as part of the recommendations when the vetting unit identifies issues that relate to mental illness or act of endangers behaviour. The security clearance applicant should be referred to the mental care for support.
+
+Participant 4: The EWC can assist when threats emanate from domestic violence, mental health issues, as a support directorate, not really involved in the implementation of threat assessment.
+
+Participant 10: A person before assuming responsibility in a security graded area should be accessed by professionals to determine their emotional and mental health.
+
+Participant 13: In my view, the greatest threat to cybersecurity is not technology, but rather the human mind. Ransomware, viruses, and other malicious tactics used by cybercriminals frequently rely on a victim clicking a link or attachment in an email, using an easy-to-guess password, or unwittingly disclosing personal information. The wellness centre to close a gap on human behaviour and provide security with information.
+
+Participant 17: Part of experience includes vetting and compliance, and Employee Wellness Centre (EWC) plays a very vital role in assisting the process with applicant with metal problems. Outcome of vetting sometimes suggest that an applicant is not mental stable and requires assistance, and vetting will make referrals.
+
+The relevance and importance of wellness came as a result of the observation that some employees may have mental health challenges, thus compromising threat to information and infrastructure under their control. The above responses indicate that the participants unanimously shared the view that mental health issues are a challenge at the workplace nowadays. As such, a wellness centre is helpful in resolving employee issues that could pose a security threat as a result of mental health concerns (Cockerham, 2016: 17). Additionally, departments could be vulnerable to internal threats by employees if they are not constantly checked for behaviour-related inconsistencies (Blanchard et al., 2010: 16).
+
+6.4.7.2 Popularising the Minimum Information Security Standard Document (MISS) From the interviews with participants, there was a concern regarding the awareness and implementation of the minimum information security standard document. Most of the participants felt that individuals who are in possession of sensitive information often mishandle it, resulting in private information breaches and related security threats. Regarding the popularisation of the MISS document, the participants commented thus:
+
+Participant 2: After the consideration of the probability of unauthorised access to information, in the form of prestige projects information, occurring given the media attention in this area and having considered the severe impact this will have in the entire prestige environment due to the lack of counter-intelligence training and awareness by the officials (project managers) in this area, the SSA has come to a conclusion that the department faces a major risk in this regard. Popularizing the MISS should be done through a policy development and monthly awareness programmes.
+
+Participant 9: The department’s intranet should be used to popularise the MISS document. Security should approach every business unit on awareness programmes and customise every presentation according to a targeted unit.
+
+Participant 14: The MISS document should be the bible of every department to ensure that the employee understand the role of the HODs on security, the importance of protecting information and adhering to the vetting processes.
+
+Participant 20: Security managers can play a crucial role in popularizing the Minimum Information Security Standard (MISS) documents. They can have road shows with different units, and they can invite an individual who knows and understands the contents of MISS. This can also be put in departments’ intranet for easy access.
+
+Participant 30: The MISS document should not be promoted because it is not a legislation, therefore it is not binding. The most critical gap in the MISS is the Personnel Security chapter 5 which outline the security vetting and screening process. The criteria outlined is outdated and require drastic review. It is very difficult for an ordinary employee including management to voluntarily buy into the process of vetting due to the lack of clarity of what it means to have a security clearance. Presently, the criteria is access to classified information. The latter is equally problematic because employees can hardly appreciate what classification of information mean in simple day-to-day terms.
+
+Based on the above views from participants the cases of security lapses are rampant in government departments. Most of these security threats are caused by lack of understanding for awareness about handling sensitive information, as confirmed by Blanchard et al. (2010: 16). The origin of the lack of awareness is the recruitment process. Participant 30 opines that the MISS document should be set aside, and the government should implement a legislation that is binding. Participant 30 further identified a gap in Chapter 5 of the MISS document.
+
+# 6.4.7.3. Vetting
+
+Most of the participants indicated security lapses as a major cause of security threats that the department faces. To that end, the participants indicated that vetting should be a priority in order to ensure that personnel who handle sensitive information are fit to do so. In the past, there have been cases of intrusion of intelligence in relation to the asset class of individuals (Hull, 2018). It is difficult to prevent every intrusion, but all should be detected to minimise impact to the department. The participants indicated that the department should facilitate the identification and development of vetting strategies and procedures in government departments. The participants commented thus:
+
+Participant 3: The Department has identified and considered the probabilities of fraud and corruption on tender, procurement, and leakage of sensitive classified prestige documents to the media, civil society groups, and political parties on departmental business processes. It was found, among other things, that the officials of the Departmental are colluding with services providers to defraud the department. All employees who are working with classified and sensitive information must be vetted, and that includes all management in the department because they are involved in corruption.
+
+Participant 4: All employees working with classified information must be vetted.
+
+Participant 18: There has been a problem of interference of labour unions when comes to vetting of employees. The vetting process has been misinterpreted and associated with invading of personnel’s privacy, and therefore labelled “witch-hunting”.
+
+Participant 5: The department is currently subjecting the Contractors/consultants to the same vetting procedures as any employee of the department.
+
+Participant 11: The vetting process should be able to aid the HR management processes at the departments, with favouritism and nepotism and abuse of authority in areas of recruitment, training, promotion and transfer identified as major risk areas. This is rendered possible by unchecked discretionary power, lack of integrity, accountability, checks and balances and transparency in the overall administration of HR services.
+
+The biggest concern that was raised by participants in relation to the need for vetting was the prevalence of corruption by government officials or individuals working on government projects. The study identified most threats that occurred in the department due to corruption activities by the Senior Executive, HR Officials, and all official who were able to access sensitive information. The corrupt decisions that are undertaken by the Senior Executives pose a threat to the core business of the department. As a result, policy documents cannot be approved, assets are unavailable, service cannot be delivered, and that has a negative consequence on personal impact of key employees (Imperva, 2021). The assessment further indicates that employees have low expectations on Senior Executives in terms of their relations and job satisfaction, as well as their knowledge of codes of conduct, anti-corruption policies and reporting mechanisms. This has a financial implication, and the department is at risk to suffer a financial loss, and legal liabilities (DPSA, 2016).
+
+The findings further indicated that it is imperative for government departments to ensure that quarterly reports are provided. In these reports, they are expected to provide the following:
+
+• The total number of officials that are vetted or not vetted in departments;
+
+• The challenge here is always to tally between SSA vetting status and that of departments. The figures always do not tally/correspond;
+• Obvious reason is that SSA has some challenges of their own in as far as capacity is concerned; and
+• SSA has a huge backlog of vetting results that are outstanding countrywide.
+
+The data reveals further that the department is responsible for identification and facilitation of vetting strategies and procedures. The participants admitted that the SSA is currently faced with a historical backlog of security vetting requests or applications from national, provincial and local government. In addition, one of the biggest problems which causes backlog is that departments have a tendency of vetting everyone/ all officials instead of focussing on certain categories first (Bickley, 2017: 30). Therefore, the participants were of the view that Security Managers should rather vet the majority of officials on Confidential Clearance level, which does not require much effort but only documents.
+
+# 6.4.7.4 Securing Sensitive Information
+
+The rapid increase in technology is beneficial but also comes with challenges related to the security of sensitive information. This was the overwhelming sentiment expressed by the participants. They indicated that the personnel working in high-risk environments as well as the ones in charge of information technology systems should be subjected to security procedures. These include: the use of Declaration of secrecy form; security profile of each user; limit access to top secrets to individuals who are towards retirement or exiting the system; and backup of the sensitive information in case it may be tempered with. The participants said the following:
+
+Participant 5: All information technology system users/contractors/consultants shall sign the Declaration of Secrecy and an Operator Undertaking Form. Copies thereof are placed on the user’s personnel file. A security profile to control access to the institution’s information technology systems is compiled for every system user/contractor/consultant. Key personnel/users in high-risk environment shall, when they state their intention to resign, be transferred to a lower risk environment. They shall not have access to sensitive and classified (SECRET or TOP SECRET) information for at least the last 30 days. Backup actions shall be in place in this regard and an audit trail shall be instituted on their actions.
+
+Participant 9: All security breaches are reported using appropriate channels. All physical security breaches are reported to SAPS, and all information security breaches are reported to SSA. All this should be reported via the Security Managers. An approved security policy is implemented and well communicated through all business units. All candidates are prescreened
+
+Participant 14: A complete backup- backing up your entire hard drive. The advantage of this strategy is its completeness; you will get a snapshot of all your hard disk's contents.
+
+Participant 15: Once the primary and secondary use cases for threat intelligence have been identified, the department should target accomplishable adversaries. This provides additional information about the adversaries' TTPs. Gathering knowledge of specific attacks and adversaries in the organisation's environment assists security teams in refining and improving protection mechanisms with threat intelligence.
+
+Participant 10: The department should identify areas of sensitivity and before a person occupies the position in those areas, they should have a positive security clearance of a top secret.
+
+Participant 13: Surveillance of the network's perimeter creates multi-layered boundary defences by deploying firewalls and proxies between the untrusted external network and the trusted internal network. Safeguard the internal network Protect internal IP addresses by preventing direct connections to external services.
+
+Participant 14: It is almost impossible to over-emphasize the need for a good backup strategy. System backups not only protect the department in the event of hardware failure or accidental deletions, but they also protect staff against unauthorised or accidental changes made to file contents. If an error is ever made (and we all know that they are), having the option of accessing an unaltered backup can be very appealing. But reaching into those archives is a viable strategy only when backup files have been made properly- a backup of a file that contains the errors and/or viruses you are trying to eliminate usually isn't very helpful.
+
+From the views expressed by participants above regarding handling of sensitive data in the digital age, the study established that cybersecurity threats are some of the biggest challenges facing the department and most of the perpetrators are the individuals trusted with handling of the information and digital infrastructure. Apart from cybersecurity measures, the participants also indicated that the sensitive information should be secured using physical security mechanisms, in agreement with (Mdluli, 2011). These included deploying security personnel and fencing. The participants echoed the following sentiments:
+
+Participant 12: Most government departments and parastatals use physical security measures such as deploying security guards to provide guarding, access control as well as patrolling duties in all premises. This is complemented by security aids such as CCTV cameras, Bio-metric systems, turnstiles, X Ray parcel scanners, metal detectors, etc.
+
+Participant 21: As a security objective, detection is not restricted to physical security measures like perimeter fence and alarms but applies to all the security programmes. The departments should apply a comprehensive security risk management process by introducing new physical security measures like CCTV cameras, bio-matric access control system, electric fence, and alarm systems.
+
+The study established that the department should put in place measures for the security of sensitive information using technology tools for the security of information stored in digital technologies, vetting personnel working with the technologies and providing physical security, as supported by Bickley (2017: 30).
+
+# 6.4.7.5 Awareness
+
+As indicated earlier, participants were of the view that some of the personnel do not know the importance of the sensitive information they handle. In addition, the personnel who were recruited through corrupt means may be poorly trained or lack skills to handle sensitive information. Therefore, according to the majority of participants, it is imperative to introduce awareness programmes for the personnel with a focus on these security issues (Bickley, 2017: 30). The participants echoed the following sentiments:
+
+Participant 1: Lack of awareness training that leads to officials susceptible to bribery has been noted by the SSA as a notable vulnerability that will prove to be a moderate hindrance at this stage but has a potential to escalate if unattended. My actionable strategy would invest in on-going training of security officials and ensuring that the cybersecurity personnel are updated with the ever-changing trends in information technology space.
+
+Participant 3: Put the MISS awareness programmes in every security directorate’s key performance area, and that includes vetting unit, physical security, and information technology security.
+
+Participant 4: Security awareness programmes must be intensified and conducted regularly especially amongst senior personnel. The Security Manager assisted by the Security Committee must take the lead in the actual development, drafting and implementation of the plan (which will include marketing of the plan by means of the security awareness programme of the institution).
+
+Participant 5: Information technology security awareness shall be provided to sensitise all employees in the Department. The awareness will be conducted by ICT Manager with the assistance of the Security Manager.An Institution’s security awareness programme needs a successful launch for maximum impact. An awareness programme checklist can help ensure that the critical elements listed below are not overlooked: Awareness programme focus that security, at its core, is a people problem.
+
+Participant 7: The security component should conduct awareness programmes on MISS as if it is an additional tool, but it should be included in their performance score card as a Key Performance Area. The MISS should be the bible of the department to ensure that the information, people, and the assets are protected by the personnel.
+
+Participant 11: Having a policy is not sufficient; the hardest part is making sure it is put into practice. Employees should be aware of their responsibility in preventing security lapses and be aware of what to do in the event of one.
+
+Participant 12: Awareness workshops can be an effective tool to indicate the importance of protecting information in government institutions through vetting and screening of personnel, safe storage of information, practicing office security, proper key control, so that people can know that they not being targeted for wrong reasons. It is a proper platform where they can then easily ask any question such as privacy issues etc.
+
+Participant 13: I think awareness programmes and use of pamphlets. However, the security division expect the personnel to study the policy on their own personal capacity. Security department rarely conduct awareness programmes.
+
+Participant 23: The first thing that comes to mind is awareness programmes. However, there are many things that the department can educate the personnel about the MISS, and that includes using of posters, department communications, and pamphlets. The department does not educate the personnel.
+
+The data shows that the majority of participants felt that awareness programmes were vital to ensure that all personnel become aware how to manage security infrastructure and information as well as the implication of security breaches. From the views presented, the study established that the security components do not prioritise the security awareness programmes. Therefore, the employees are not aware of what they should comply to.
+
+# 6.4.7.6. Development of a Security Policy
+
+From the interview data, there was a general consensus among the participants that apart from the STA, the department did not have a security policy in place. As a result, there was no clear roadmap or guidelines on the processes and procedures to address each security threat. Commenting on the need for a security policy, the participants stated thus:
+
+Participant 3: The critical assets should be identified and prioritised according to classes. The classes are measured with the value that these assets classes contribute to the core business of the department. Policy document is developed to support the primary mandate of the department.
+
+Participant 5: The implemented security policy and plan. Senior level management support and buy-in.
+
+Participant 9: It is the duty of the recruitment office to select the security manager that understands what the department seek to achieve. The vision and mission the department should be corner stone of every policy development. It is through threat assessment where the manager identifies the critical assets of the department and its vulnerabilities. The policy should be developed to improve the existing security measures and procedures. Security policy is a strategic plan to ensure that the core business of the department is not disrupted, and the critical assets are well protected.
+
+Participant 10: The department security risk management policy should be in line with the state security agency policy. Positions within the departments should be graded according to access to classification of information as stated in the Miss documents.
+
+Participant 11: Develop no-cell phones policy during sensitive meetings.
+
+Participant 12: The programme directors who are part of the security committee identifies identify threats at their various units while members of SAPS and SSA plays an advisory role on the formulation of security policies. The security committee further makes recommendations to the HOD regarding the implementation and maintenance of security measures.
+
+Participant 30: The process is to outline a broad policy statement that capture the broad goals and objectives of the organisation. The security risk assessment outlined above together with the business plan/ strategy of the organisation are valuable inputs in the formulation of a security policy that aligns to the core business.
+
+The above excerpts indicate that the department needs a security policy that deals with current security threats. The participants indicated that the Security directorate and the security committee should lead the process of coming up with the security policy that addresses each and every security threat. Brotby (2008: 27) reports that non-adherence to policy prescripts was a likely factor for poor service delivery and failure to reach departmental strategic objectives.
+
+# 6.4.7.7 Training and Development
+
+Security managers are responsible for conducting training needs assessment in order to identify the kind of security training that personnel should have (Brotby, 2008: 27). Most of the participants indicated that training and development is necessary as some members lacked the skills and knowledge to handle security information and tools. The participants indicated that the training may target security awareness, security when handling digital technologies and safety procedures for infrastructure. The participants echoed the following views:
+
+Participant 4: Training, test and exercise serve several purposes. They allow the security management team to use and assess plans and procedures to determine whether they are actually feasible and will work under actual conditions, assess and measure the degree to which personnel understand their emergency response function and duties, identify areas for improvement, enhance coordination, communication and proficiency among response staff and the ability of management and staff to respond to emergencies. Experienced gained and errors committed during exercises can provide valuable insights and lessons learned that can be included in the planning process.
+
+Participant 5 added: Training shall be provided to enable employees to apply information technology security effectively and efficiently. Security consciousness shall continually be promoted amongst personnel and shall be followed up by means of formal training programmes where required.
+
+Participant 6: Training and education to ensure reasonable levels of security awareness and preparedness within the business.
+
+The responses from participants indicated that training and development are necessary for the continued acquisition of knowledge of personnel. It is even kore important in an evolving techno, logically driven world. To that end, it is crucial for departmental employees to be aware of the security changes in order to safeguard the department against emerging threats (Maude, 2007). Some of the training involved fire drills. Normally, fire drill should be carried out every six months. However, in small buildings with few occupants and simple evaluation arrangements, annual fire drills might be acceptable, if justified by a fire risk assessment and provided the requirements of any fire certificate are satisfied.
+
+# 6.4.7.8 Stakeholder Involvement
+
+Evidently, most participants cited the vulnerability of departments to security threats. As such, there was an urgent need to introduce a security policy and security measures (Kabanda et al., 2010: 4). However, participants indicated that all these changes needed stakeholder involvement for them to be successful. The participants expressed that stakeholder for each security areas need to be consulted and participate in the policy development process. Following are the responses from participants:
+
+Participant 9: The Security Manager should involve all stakeholders from the beginning of the assessment. The core business of the department should be clearly defined, and the threat and risk picture should be clearly analysed. All business units should be involved to ensure that there is a budget to fund recommended security measures.
+
+Participant 10: The SSA and SAPS are the main stakeholders to the department and should be consulted when developing the security policy and formulating the security committee.
+
+Participant 11: Security Threat Assessment is a mandate of SAPS, and they are responsible for all physical security assessment and security breaches. The SSA is responsible security breaches relating to information and electronic communication issues.
+
+Participant 12: Coming up with a security policy can be achieved by identifying and engaging with internal and external stakeholders. The relationship between the department and stakeholders should be maintained and monitored throughout the year.
+
+Participant 25: The security managers should communicate the MISS documents to all stakeholders, employees, and service providers. All middle managers in the security component should have key performance indicators in their key performance area.
+
+The findings of the study point at stakeholder involvement as an important step towards the development of security policy and security strategies that are meant to mitigate the various security threats that have been discussed in this chapter.
+
+6.4.7.9 The Key Role Players in the Public Service IT Risk/ Threat Environment The following entities are the key role players in the public service IT risk environment.
+
+a) The Department of Public Service and Administration (DPSA), whose mission it is to "ensure the effective use of information technology in government," "facilitate the use of information technology for modernizing government," and "establish e
+
+government practices within an acceptable information security environment," is responsible for ensuring that information technology is used effectively in the government;
+b) The Auditor General of South Africa (AG) audits Public Service IT risks related to Public Financial Management Act (PFMA) requirements;
+c) The SSA is the leading authority on matters pertaining to state security, including Public Service IT risks. The SSA is also responsible for the system known as the Government Electronic Communications Security Computer Security Incident Response Team (ECS-CSIRT), which reports on critical security incidents pertaining to national security;
+d) In its capacity as an excellence centre for the Public Service, the State IT Agency (SITA) has been charged with the responsibility of providing both a help desk service and information technology services that conform to the necessary safety standards. On the SITA helpdesk system (call log system), issues of the following sorts were reported: hosting services, managed apps, managed desktops, and network services; and
+e) The Department of Telecommunications and Postal Services (DTPS) is responsible for formulating, coordinating, and providing policy direction on issues relating to information and communications technology (ICT). Additionally, DTPS will be responsible for the activities of the Cyber Security Hub and its objectives that are derived from the National Cybersecurity Policy Framework.
+
+# 6.5 DISCUSSION OF SECURITY COMPONENT IN THE CONTEXT OF THE FINDINGS
+
+The essentialisation of the security component emanates from the following important variables: security administration, physical security, the integration of physical security measures, information and communication technology (ICT) security, and internet access.
+
+# 6.5.1 Security Administration
+
+The functions of security administration include: General security administration (departmental directives and procedures, training, and awareness, security risk management, security audits, sharing of information and assets) (Cawthra, 2019: 223- 224). Other functions include: setting access limitations, administering the screening of security screening, implementing physical security, ensuring protection of employees and information, ensuring ICT security, increasing and ensuring security in emergency and reducing threat situations, facilitating the BCP, ensuring contract security; as well as preventing security es by submitting reports and intensively investigating possible threats (Cawthra, 2019: 223-224).
+
+# 6.5.2 Physical Security
+
+The term "physical security" refers to, but is not limited to the following:
+
+• Physical security measures for the protection of information;
+Personnel security awareness of physical security matters;
+Contingency planning;
+Criminal Record check;
+Dealing with security breaches relating to physical security matters;
+Security investigations;
+• Auditing and compliance checks to ensure security standards.
+
+In the context of this study, physical security refers to the arrangement and construction of the departments' facilities, as well as the implementation of various physical security measures, which are intended to both delay and prevent unwanted access to the departmental assets (Govender, 2018: 39). It involves the activation of appropriate responses upon the detection of real or attempted illegal access as well as the procedures necessary to detect such access. In addition, the provision of safeguards to protect personnel from bodily injury is included under the umbrella of physical security.
+
+To guarantee the safety of the entire department, and its employees, assets, and information, it is necessary to design, put into action, and continue to maintain physical security measures (Mohlabeng, 2020: 3). The Head of Security’s proposed TRA should serve as the basis for these security measures. The departments are responsible for ensuring that the process of planning, choosing, developing, and changing their facilities includes complete integration of physical security measures as early as possible. To that effect, the departments are required to undertake or perform the following tasks:
+
+• Selection, designing, and modification of facilities to facilitate the effective control of access thereto;
+• Demarcating restricted access areas and have the necessary entry barriers such as security systems, and effective control access of equipment;
+• Inclusion of the necessary security specifications in planning, requesting of proposal and tender documents, and incorporating the related cost into funding requirements to implement the above; and
+• Departments’ responsibility to ensure the installation of necessary physical security measures in ensuring the secured storage, transmission, and disposal of classified and protected information in all of its forms.
+
+All employees are always required to comply with access control procedures of departments. This includes producing ID cards upon entering any sites of departments, as well as the display thereof whilst on the premises and the escorting of official visitors.
+
+# 6.5.3 The Integration of Physical Security Measures
+
+The integration of physical security measures occurs in the early process of selecting, designing, or modifying facilities of the institution (Mohlabeng, 2020: 3). Such integration of security measures should entail:
+
+• The selection, design, and modification of facilities in order to facilitate physical security measures;
+• The demarcation and control of areas at the facilities;
+• The installation of the necessary physical security equipment based on the assessments by SAPS-SAS; and
+The inclusion of the necessary security specifications for tender documentation process and the 23 Minimum Physical Security Standards (MPSS).
+
+# 6.5.4 The Implementation of Physical Security Measures
+
+The implementation of physical security measures is intended to fulfill the following:
+
+• Activate appropriate reactions to such attempts or actual gaining of unlawful entry;
+• Delay, detect, or prevent unauthorised infiltration into a department or institution;
+• Delay, detect, or prevent unauthorised intrusion into a department or institution;
+• The deployment of physical security measures to protect employees, visitors, and contractors from potential danger;
+• The safe keeping, transit, and eventual disposal of the department's or institution's assets; and
+The ongoing examination of the department's or institution's physical security measures at all of its sites, in order to account for shifts in the external environment and make the most of innovative, cost-efficient technological advancements.
+
+The afore-cited physical security measures cohere with the propositions by authors such as Chou (2013: 16), Garcia (2006: 14), Isnaini and Solikhatin (2020: 80, and John and White (2014: 12).
+
+# 6.5.5 Information and Communication Technology (ICT) Security
+
+It is required that a secure network be established for the departments in order to guarantee the protection of information systems against threats that are continuously evolving, and that may have an effect on the systems' ability to maintain their confidentiality, integrity, availability, and value in accordance with their intended use (Chou, 2013: 17). Baseline security controls and any extra measures that are found via the security TRA should be implemented by the departments in order to prevent the compromise of information technology systems.
+
+These controls, as well as the duties and obligations regarding security that are held by all people, should be properly defined, recorded, and communicated to each and every individual working for the department (Chou, 2013: 17). In ensuring that policies are followed, the requirements for the Chief Technology Officer of each department to adhere to:
+
+• Certification of all information technology (IT) systems and securing them after procurement;
+• Accreditation of information technology (IT) systems prior to operation;
+• To conduct periodic security evaluations of systems, which includes assessments of configuration changes to carry out on a routine basis;
+• Periodic requesting of assistance, reviewing, and audits from the SSA in order to get an opinion on whether or not policies are being followed; and
+• Ensuring that minimum security standards are in place.
+
+Based on the above, it is then required that server rooms and any other relevant security zones that house IT equipment should be protected with suitable physical security measures, and that rigorous access control should be implemented and monitored (Chou, 2013: 17).
+
+To avoid illegal use of the departments' network resources, access to such resources should be rigorously regulated and monitored. Unless otherwise specifically allowed access to all departmental computing and information systems and their peripherals ought to be strictly controlled (Fruhlinger, 2019: n.d). System hardware, operating and application software, as well as the network and communication systems of departments shall be configured and safeguarded against both physical attack and unauthorised network intrusion. This applies to both the network and communication systems as well as the network and application software. Every worker is required to utilise the information technology systems provided by the departments in an appropriate way and only for work-related reasons. Regarding this topic, each worker is required to always comply with the IT Security Directives.
+
+Passwords are not to be disclosed to any other person, under any circumstances, for any purpose. Therefore, when choosing, using, and managing passwords as a mechanism to limit access to systems, there should be stringent adherence to best practice requirements, which are embodied in the IT Security Directives (Grama, 2011: 44). It is required that each department construct an information technology continuity plan as part of its overall BCP and recovery efforts. This will ensure that essential services are always available to users.
+
+# 6.5.6 Internet Access
+
+Internet access is the responsibility of the Chief Technology Officer of each department, who is also tasked with ensuring that the network of the departments is protected from malicious external intrusion by installing a configured firewall that as a bare minimum measure (Rishi, 2019: n.d.). The management team in charge of HR has to make certain that all employees who have access to the internet (including email) are made aware of, and agree to abide by a reasonable code of behaviour regarding their use of the internet. It is also the core duty of the Chief Technology Officer of the Departments to control user access to the internet, as well as ensuring that users are informed of the dangers and safeguards in order to limit the risk of information security breaches and incidents (Rishi, 2019: n.d.). Due to the inherent hazards that email poses to information security, incoming email should be handled with the utmost care. Accordingly, it is forbidden to open e-mails that involve file attachments, unless those files have first been screened for any potential computer viruses or other forms of dangerous programming (Saleh, 2021: 85).
+
+# 6.6 DEVELOPING/ DESIGNING AN EFFECTIVE AND IMPLEMENTABLE SECURITY THREAT ASSESSMENT MODEL OR FRAMEWORK
+
+The development of an effective and implementable STA framework or model is in congruity with the final research objective as stated in Section 1.7 of this study, namely: To develop/ design an effective and implementable security threat assessment model or framework.
+
+The above-stated objective is in correspondence with the final research question as stated in Section 1.8 of this study, namely: Which possible solutions could be implemented to address the correct implementation of security threat assessment?
+
+Based on both the secondary data and primary data acquired in the study, it is recommended that the SSA should have a single STA methodology for government departments with different approaches based on the core business, but which align to the intended objectives and approaches.
+
+# 6.6.1 Approach to STAF
+
+The STAF approach should adhere to the following as proposed by Mills et al. (2011: 19) and Monzon (2021: 1).
+
+• Adaptability: The new approach needs to be adaptable enough to manage all types of assets, including physical and information technology assets, as well as big and small assets, at a degree of detail that is appropriate to fulfil business objectives. It should enable several degrees of granularity with a roll-up capability, ranging from finely detailed or closely focused assessments to more general overviews, depending on the risk environment and the goal of the assessment;
+
+• Modularity: The new technique has to facilitate modular analysis and have proper links between aspects that are connected to one another. This will enable the breakdown of bigger, more complicated STAs into smaller, more manageable components; Ease of Application: In order for programme and project managers, as well as security practitioners, to easily put this approach into practice, the underlying logic of the methodology should be intuitively pleasing and clearly expressed. To make the harmonized methodology more user-friendly, the key ideas and procedures of the methodology need to be comprehensively presented using a wide variety of charts, diagrams, examples, tables, and templates;
+• Consistency: The new methodology ought to develop a consistent language with clear definitions for all elements of risk management in order to achieve better uniformity across STAs done by diverse agencies. This will allow for greater consistency in the results of the STAs. Comparative analysis and repeatable results are essential for informed risk communications, enhanced interoperability, and costeffective security solutions. Solid risk variables measurements, especially asset valuations, threats, and vulnerabilities, are necessary for both of these;
+• The technique should be relevant to both physical and information technology assets, in addition to employee protection and service delivery; and
+• Automation: The STA Methodology is a manual tool, but it was built with automation in mind to assist simplify and support the STA process. This was done in order to meet the requirements of the Social Security Administration.
+
+# 6.6.2 Security Threat Assessment Approaches
+
+The security practitioners should understand the primary mandate of the departments and prioritisation of asset protection (Mills et al., 2011: 19; Monzon, 2021: 1). . The implementation of STA should be able to define the departments’ threat picture and the vulnerabilities that should be addressed. It should be clear if the departments intend to:
+
+1. Develop a strategy to secure facilities and critical infrastructure against acts of terrorism, insider threats, or natural catastrophes, and then implement that strategy;
+2. Teach the security personnel how to recognise potentially dangerous persons, such as active shooters or terrorists, and provide them guidance on how to respond to them;
+3. Identify, assess, and intervene with a person who may commit targeted or instrumental violence; or assess the overall likelihood that a specific individual for violent behaviour;
+4. Protect the computer networks, systems, and servers from attacks by malicious actors;
+5. Identify, assess, and intervene with a person who may commit targeted or instrumental violence; and
+6. Assess the overall likelihood that a specific individual for violent behaviour.
+
+This post is not meant to be a comprehensive review of each method. Rather, it is meant to define and help in identifying the need to implement the STA and what resources would be needed.
+
+# 6.6.3 Proposed Threat and Risk Assessment Model
+
+The micro-level institutional approach and framework for a threat and risk assessment model is illustrated in Figure 6.1 below.
+
+
+Figure 6.1: Framework for proposed threat and risk assessment model Source: Researcher’s own proposal/ initiative
+
+In more detail, the SSA’s approach to conducting STA entails the following:
+
+• The core business process of the departments should be analysed and it existent should be careful explained and what does it do. It ought to be determined why is described as a national asset, and why it is seeking be protected. The process should include interpretation of the departments’ security policies and standards against the security vulnerabilities that has be identified.
+• The threats against the departments should be analysed.
+• Risks associated with each specific threat should be identified.
+• The risk has to be assessed to determine the likelihood of threats happen, and their impact to the department and the government.
+• According to SSA, the risk mitigation measures should formulate.
+
+The STA is conducted by means of the following phases indicated in Table 6.4 below:
+
+Table 6.2 Planning steps of STA
+
+
+
Planning
Planning and define the project - what will be assessed? Where will the assessment be conducted? What resources are needed?
Step 1
Analyse the departments' core business and identify its key assets and relevant business processes to be protected.
Step 2
Identify and analyse all potential threats to the departments and define the specific risks that each of these threats could pose.
Step 3
Analyse the weaknesses and safeguards and identify exploitable vulnerabilities.
Step 4
Assess the identified risks, and compile a risk profile of the departments
Step 5
Recommend risk mitigation Strategies
Step 6
Monitor implementation and track compliance, and reassess residual risk
+
+Source: Researcher’s compilation from various sources
+
+The STA should be conducted at different stages of the departments' security programme development. Moreover, the STA ought to be reviewed as the development of progresses. The STA should also be reviewed on a regular basis and whenever circumstances change that could affect the risk level (Mbowe et al., 2014: 170; Saleh et al., 2011: 18). As a result, the STA should not be completed once and then forgotten. Figure 6.2 overleaf is a depiction of the STA’s code of conduct.
+
+
+Figure 6.2: STA code of conduct Source: Researcher’s compilation
+
+When the core business of the departments is clearly defined and the critical assets are identified, it is the responsibility of the HOD to appoint a security manager, who would compose the STA Team.
+
+# 6.7 RECOMMENDATIONS
+
+According to Tight (2017: 40) and Yin (2018: 109), recommendations are predominantly referred to as the researcher’s own ideas intended for application to the study on account its findings. In essence, recommendations are a set or range of propositions by the researcher, and are intended for improvement in the various areas of research in which possible deficiencies were highlighted in the findings (Tight, 2017: 40; Yin, 2018: 109). Consistent with both the research aim, objectives and questions as articulated in Section 1.6 to Sections 1.8 respectively, the recommendations in this section fundamentally relate to:
+
+• the scope of government’s security threat assessment framework (STAF) guidelines;
+• the role of other directorates when implementing the STAF;
+• the role of management in supporting the security programmes;
+• the processes for appointing the security manager and the security committee, and their respective roles in threat assessment;
+• the departments’ processes of anticipating and analysing the probabilities of loss and damage to State property;
+• current layers of security measures; and
+• possible solutions to be implemented in addressing the correct implementation of security threat assessment.
+
+# 6.7.1 Recommendations Concerning the Scope of Government’s Security Threat Assessment (STA) Framework Guidelines
+
+The purpose of the assessment is frequently misunderstood at the outset of the project, which results in the failure of many STAs (Mbowe et al., 2014: 174). This always leads to lost work and avoidable delays, which is the reason for the need to specify the goal of the assessment, the amount of information that is required, and the constraints of the exercise right from the beginning. In general, the most successful STAs are those that are as concise as feasible while yet satisfying the requirement for making informed decisions. It is desirable to carry out multiple, smaller, more modular evaluations rather than one huge project in order to attain this goal, especially when dealing with larger projects or assets that are complicated. Naturally, changes can be made to accommodate the ever-evolving circumstances and the projects can be rescoped when there is need, such as when the threats and vulnerabilities that were previously identified are discovered (Mbowe et al., 2014: 174).
+
+The objective of conducting a STA is to:
+
+▪ Analyse the core business of the departments and identify its critical assets;
+▪ Identify how threat agents can compromise these critical and sensitive assets;
+▪ Assess the level of risk that the threat agents pose to the critical and sensitive assets; Recommend risk mitigation Strategies; and
+▪ Monitor implementation, track compliance and reassess residual risk.
+
+The SSA uses the term “critical assets”, which has also been used by the researcher to incorporate all the following classes: Core business processes; people; information; ICT assets; physical infrastructure; services; and intangible assets. This is also a definition adopted by Allen (2016: 18) and Kuzminykh et al. (2021: 605).
+
+Table 6.3 below illustrates the interaction among these concepts to convey the implementation of STA.
+
+Table 6.3: The interaction among these concepts to convey the implementation of STA
+
+
+
Example: Asset
Example Risk
Example: Threat
Core business process
Loss of public confidence Damage to the national interest
Organised crime Corruption
Inability to perform
Terrorism Damage to buildings
Personnel
Loss of life
Labour grievance
Damage to reputation
Social instability
Loss of knowledge
Terrorism
Loss of skills
Espionage
Loss of loyalty
Physical Infrastructure
Damage to key equipment Damage to buildings
Social instability Terrorism
ICT
· Loss of records
Cyber attack
Loss of data integrity
Organised crime Espionage
Unauthorised access
Documents
Unauthorised access
Organised crime
+
+Source: Researcher’s own illustration
+
+# 6.7.2 Recommendations Concerning the Role of Other Directorates when Implementing the STAF
+
+Essentially, the role and responsibilities of national government departments entail the following:
+
+• Ensure that the requirements of physical security directives relating to contracting are fulfilled with when the National Department of is responsible for providing facilities for institutions. These directives are related to physical security; • Make sure that the necessary National Intelligence Structures of private organisations, corporations, and individuals who could need access to protected and classified information and assets carry out dependability checks on each other before allowing them access to the information or assets in question; • As part of the contracting procedure, make sure that the department or institution adheres to the physical security measures that have been specified by the SAPS Security Advisory Services for the installations of the department or institution; • Ensure that security assessments of facilities or drawings/architectural designs thereof are carried out by the SAPS and SSA prior to any agreement being entered into to procure the property for an institution, and that all recommendations made by the SAPS are implemented. This should take place before any agreement is entered into to procure the property for an institution; and • Include the SAPS in any and all structural modifications undertaken to ensure that the required degree of basic physical security is maintained at the departments.
+
+Based on the findings regarding Research Question 2, the contextualisation of the role of other directorates when implementing the STAF is premised on the following variables: human resources security; communications and operations; ICT risk assessment; and asset management.
+
+# 6.4.2.2.1 Human resource security
+
+Human resource security aims at ensuring that all employees and applicants to the departments are appropriately security vetted and meet all the requirements to handle information and technology security, and they acquire knowledge on how to implement their responsibilities relating to security (Singh, 2019: 2013). To reduce security risks, they should keep in mind relevant prescripts such as laws, regulations, and policies, business requirements, information classification to be accessed, and perceived risks, including those posed by technology, throughout the entire employment/ contracting cycle, from recruitment to termination of employment.
+
+Their security-related role and responsibilities should be clearly stated in their employment contract. Whilst employed, it is the responsibility of security management to ensure that all guidelines related to security are adhered to. The security clearance process can be time-consuming, and while employees are performing their duties, management should ensure that they sign a declaration of secrecy as an agreement to ensure that official information is not disclosed to unauthorised people (Smith, 2019: 188).
+
+Before employment, throughout employment, and after employment has ended, management and personnel are each subject to a unique set of security obligations and liabilities (Campbell-Young, 2016: 12). Prior to hiring, the focus is placed on gaining a knowledge of the tasks and responsibilities that will be required of the individual, screening prospects, and establishing agreements. In addition, policies should specify management duties, education and training requirements, and formal mechanisms to deal with potentially dangerous security circumstances that may arise while an employee is on the job (Campbell-Young, 2016: 12). It is important to set regulations in order to facilitate a seamless transition in the event that an employee's or contractor's employment or contract is terminated or otherwise altered.
+
+# 6.4.2.2.2 Communications and operations
+
+The purpose of communications and operations management security is to protect data within networks and guarantee the correct and safe operation of information processing facilities that support communications and operations (Kuzminykh &
+
+Carlsson, 2018: 52). Therefore, it is necessary to plan and manage day-to-day operations in order to guarantee the availability of resources and the capacity of those resources to perform services. It is possible for a variety of services to be provided, by third parties, computer networks, and any and all services that share information (Kuzminykh & Carlsson, 2018: 52).
+
+It is necessary to identify the specifications for regulating and monitoring the operations involved in the supply of services, and it is also necessary to manage changes as the operations develop. Changes that are made to departments, business processes, information processing facilities, or information storage and retrieval systems that might compromise information security should be controlled (Government of Canada, 2016). It is imperative that the integrity of operational systems be protected at all costs, and that technical vulnerabilities be circumvented. Controls for operations consist of defined procedures, assigned duties for staff, and formalized means for putting into action modifications to the facility. This covers processes for the protection of data, the generation of backup copies, and the administration of the media on which those copies are stored (Lohrmann, 2021: 16).
+
+The installation of software by users ought to be controlled. The management and control of networks ought to be carried out by means of service agreements, regardless of whether or not network services are carried out internally or contracted out. This is done to ensure the security of electronic data (Lohrmann, 2021: 16). It is imperative that the confidentiality of all information transfers, whether they take place internally or externally, be preserved across all channels of communication, and that this information be safeguarded in line with the expected degree of safety.
+
+# 6.4.2.2.3 ICT Risk management
+
+The STA is used to determine how well the department's data are protected. In order to protect all of the many kinds of information that are housed or used by the departments, it is necessary to implement risk management procedures (Mandell, 2013: 17). These procedures ought to take into account the dangers posed by technical, human, and physical hazards.
+
+The departments ought to have a methodology and process in place for ICT risk management in order to implement management policies, procedures, practices, communication, consultation, establishing the context, identifying the risk owner(s) who are accountable and have the authority to manage the risk, developing risk criteria, identifying, analysing, evaluating, treating, monitoring, and reviewing risk in order to determine whether the risk and/or its magnitude is acceptable (Mandell, 2013: 17).
+
+The departments ought to make certain that the information and communications technology risks are managed within the context of the internal risk management practice in accordance with the risk management prescripts, and that the information and communications technology security function is audited as a component of the audit plan for the departments (Allen, 2016: 24).
+
+During risk assessments for ICT security, the risks should be identified, quantified, and prioritised based on risk acceptance criteria and department-specific goals. The results should be used to define the appropriate management action and priorities for managing information security risks and putting in place controls that have been selected to reduce these risks (Amundrud et al., 2017: 4). It is advised that the department use the following methods and processes in order to institutionalise adequate information and communication technology security risk management:
+
+a) Management system, and then allocate roles, duties, and accountability;
+b) Install the necessary information and communication technology security risk;
+c) Construct an exhaustive ICT security risk management methodology;
+d) Put into action an ICT security risk management programme based on corporate goals and objectives;
+e) Put into action the risk assessment procedure;
+f) Conduct comprehensive risk assessments to identify, analyse, and evaluate related risks e) Choose proportionate ICT security controls as needed to reduce risk to an acceptable level;
+g) Create risk criteria against which the significance of risk is assessed;
+h) Choose proportionate ICT security controls as needed to reduce risk to an acceptable level g) Choose proportionate ICT security controls as needed to reduce risk to an acceptable level;
+i) The risks should be analysed by comparing the findings of risk analysis with risk criteria in order to establish if the risk and/or the level of the risk are acceptable or bearable; risks should be continually monitored, and remedial action should be done, as necessary;
+j) Institutions should develop and maintain ICT risk registers (Strategic and operational ICT risk register); and
+k) ICT risks should be included in the institution's risk registers and monitored as the rest of the institution's risks. Risk avoidance is different from risk management.
+
+The strategy that is used need to have justification in addition to being open to scrutiny. The concepts of risk management should be incorporated into day-to-day operations, and security concerns should be assessed and reassessed on a regular basis (Watts,
+
+2017: 13). The tactics used by institutions have to be malleable and, in a position to react quickly to fast-moving or unexpected occurrences.
+
+# 6.4.2.2.4 Asset management
+
+Information and the many technologies used to store and retrieve it are vital government resources. Asset management should identify the parameters for the appropriate use of information, technological, and infrastructure assets, as well as the protection of such parameters (Watts, 2017: 13). In order to keep the security intact, roles and responsibilities need to be delegated, relevant asset management processes and systems need to be developed and kept up to date, asset inventories need to be developed and kept up to date, and acceptable and unacceptable uses of assets need to be defined (Rosencrance. 2022: n.d.).
+
+It is necessary to determine who the authorised owners of assets are. The owners of information and technological assets are responsible for ensuring their safety (Rosencrance. 2022: n.d.). The information owners are tasked with determining the assets that need to be safeguarded, classifying the various security levels of the various assets, defining the sufficient protection that is necessary at each level, and determining how the protection will be maintained.
+
+# 6.7.3 Recommendations Concerning the Role of Management in Supporting Security Programmes
+
+The lack of management support in providing resources and capacity to effectively implement the STA shows that the national security is not a priority. According to Govender (2018: 12), for security managers to gain approval and support from the senior management, they should first understand the core business of the departments, be able to define the role of security clearly, and know when the departments are facing threats and risks. Senior management is very influential and an important component for a successful implementation of security programme (Whitman & Mattord, 2015: 34).
+
+The management of the departments, employees and partner departments form part of stakeholders, and have potential to have negative impact to the departments, but they can also have a positive impact in mitigating the risk and threats. Their inputs to risk management are vital and they ought to be completely included in the process (Watt, 2017: 6). Campbell-Young (2016: 20) concurs with Watt (2017: 6) that the management need to be aware that if a major security incident happens, and it is published in the media, the management of the department will still the headlines.
+
+Campbell-Young (2016: 20) adds that the management, in particular the Corporate Finance Officer, are now participating in addressing security and governance issues, instead on putting the whole responsibility of the experts.
+
+As their first major responsibility, the TRA team should produce a detailed work plan in order to guarantee a coordinated effort that satisfies the operational demands of programme managers and departmental executives (Sahoo, 2021: 27). This strategy ought to be approved by the risk acceptance authority, which will finally go through the suggestions and decide whether or not to accept or reject the anticipated residual risk reported in the TRA report (Sahoo, 2021: 27). The precise amount of detail will differ depending on the breadth and scale of the evaluation; nonetheless, the plan should at a bare minimum include the following information:
+
+The mission, purpose, scope, and terms of reference that have been created for the TRA:
+
+• The core team and any other resources that are available to them, together with brief terms of reference for each; and
+• Project inputs that are pertinent, including but not limited to past TRA data, privacy impact assessments (PIAs), business impact analyses (BIAs), design paperwork, facility floor plans, and so on.
+
+# 6.7.4 Recommendations Concerning the Process of Appointing the Security Manager and the Security Committee, and their Respective Roles in Threat Assessment
+
+It is the responsibility of the head of the departments to establish a security committee and appoint qualified security manager in an appropriate level, to oversee the implementation of STA (Sotic et al., 2014: 48). The security manager shall automatically become chairperson of the security committee. The security committee should at least have one representative from each chief directorate HOD, as well as one from each of the following components: Member of the Ministerial Office, HOD Office, HRM, Assets Management or Records Management, Risk, and ICT (DPSA, 2016: 11).
+
+Furthermore, members and their proxies shall be appointed by virtue of their employment and ranks by the departments as well as their ranks and not as individuals (DPSA, 2016: 11). External members shall be considered as well, provided that they are in possession of a valid security clearance. In the absence of a proper clearance, certificate declaration of secrecy needs to be signed prior to commencement of the meeting.
+
+# 6.7.4.1 Head of Departments
+
+The HOD bears the overall responsibility for implementing and enforcing the security programme of the departments, and has delegated the function of security to the Head of Security (DPSA, 2016: 11; Sotic et al., 2014: 48). Towards the execution of this responsibility, the Head of Public Safety shall:
+
+• Create the position of Head of Security and select a security official who is welltrained, knowledgeable, and competent in order to guarantee that all security duties are carried out in accordance with the Minimum Physical Security Standards;
+• Create a security committee for the institution, make sure that all senior staff members participate in it, and approve a budget based on the committee's recommendations for the suggestions on the security assessment that was carried out by the SAPS (SAS) in the department/institution;
+• Participation of management members from all the core business functions of the departments in the activities of the committee;
+• Approval of this policy and all of its associated Security Directives, as well as compliance with these policies by all personnel and entities to which it is applicable;
+• Be responsible for overseeing the formulation, execution, and upkeep of the security policy in accordance with the requirements of the department or institution; and
+• Ensure that the SAPS Security Advisory Services have performed security evaluations and assessments on all of the departments that fall within his or her purview.
+
+# 6.7.4.2 Security Committee
+
+Participation in the activities of the Security Committee by the designated representatives of business units shall be required of them in order for them to be considered valid. The Security Committee is comprised of senior managers of the department who are responsible for representing all of the primary business units (Sutton, 2015). Assist the Head of Security in the execution of all security related responsibilities within the departments, including completing tasks such as drafting/reviewing of the Security Policy and plan, conducting of a security Threat and Risk Assessment, conducting security audits, drafting a BCP, and assisting with security awareness and training. The Security Committee of the departments shall be responsible for, among others, the following: Assist the Head of Security in the execution of all security related responsibilities.
+
+# 6.7.4.2.1 Responsibilities of the security committee
+
+a) Assist SM in developing the department's security policy after consulting with the SSA and the SAPS and considering their advice;
+b) Assist in ongoing assessments of the institution's security threats, risks, and vulnerabilities;
+c) Analyse all information obtained to determine the threats and vulnerabilities of information and assets requiring the protection;
+d) Evaluate the probability of such threats materializing and vulnerability being exploited and the probable impact or severity thereof;
+e) Make recommendations to the HOD regarding the implementation and maintenance of defensive counter-intelligence measures above baseline levels that will reduce risk to an acceptable level;
+f) Regularly review the department's security policy, considering the risks identified by the committee, its prioritization thereof, as well as information and advice provided by the SSA and the SAPS;
+g) Ensure that the approved policy is communicated to all staff members, relevant consultants, contractors, and other stakeholders; and
+h) Make recommendations to the HOD on directives to be issued by him/her to ensure the implementation of the security policy and any review thereof.
+
+# 6.7.4.2.2 Head of security (security manager)
+
+Establishing and directing a security programme that assures the coordination of all policy functions and the implementation of policy requirements will be delegated to the Security Manager (Head of Security) by the HOD, who will transfer the role of security to the Security Manager (Fay & Patterson, 2018: 4). Due to the importance of this role, a Head of Security should be appointed. This Head of Security will have sufficient experience and training in the field of security and will be strategically positioned within the departments in order to provide senior management with institution-wide strategic advice and guidance (Fay & Patterson, 2018: 4). It is the responsibility of the Security Manager to make certain that the Head of Security is provided with an efficient support structure (security component) so that they can carry out their tasks.
+
+The individuals who will be employed in the support structure of the Head of Security should be security professionals who have obtained sufficient experience and training in the field of security in order to properly perform the duties associated with their particular jobs (Cawthra, 2019: 223). The head of the security component should have direct access to the head of the institution and/ or a seat in management meetings addressing functional matters and policy in order to guarantee that information security is carried out on a sound basis throughout the whole organisation. In the wake of it, "Security" should be elevated to the status of a standing item on the agenda.
+
+The Head of Security of each department is responsible for the implementation of the whole security function and programme inside departments (Dhillon, 2006: Fay & Patterson, 2018: 3-4). This obligation falls under the purview of the Head of Security of each department (coordination, planning, implementation, and control). In order to fulfil his/ her duties, the Head of Security is responsible for, amongst other functions:
+
+• Serving as the chairperson or co-chairperson of the security committee alongside the individual who is nominated by the office of the Head of Public Safety;
+• Working in concert with the security committee, draft the internal Security Policy as well as the Security Plan for the departments, which should include the thorough and precise Security Directives;
+• Regularly reviewing the Security Policy and the Security Plan;
+• Carrying out an analysis of the potential dangers posed by each department's operations with the help of the security committee;
+• Conducting internal compliance audits and inspections at the departments at regular intervals;
+Liaising with SSA, SAPS, PSIRA, and other law enforcement agencies;
+• Advising management on the security implications of management decisions;
+• Putting in place a security awareness programme; •Implementing a security awareness programme; and Advising management on the security implications of management decisions.
+
+# 6.7.5 Recommendations Concerning Government Departments’ Processes of Anticipating and Analysing the Probabilities of Loss and Damage to State Property
+
+Loss and damage are significant on a number of different levels. First, the methods of assessing loss and damage to state property offer a way to determine the extent of the devastation caused by a disaster to a natural environment or to the facilities of a department that could be affected by the event (Yamagata-Lynch, 2010: 12). In light of this, anticipating and analysing the probabilities of loss and damage to property should strive to achieve a conclusion that is more differentiated, complete, and centred on the needs of personnel and clients rather than only a basic stocktaking of impacts. Therefore, evaluations of loss and damage appropriately reflect a post-disaster reality. This gives impacted populations acknowledgement of their plight and provides a solid basis for strategies to prevent, mitigate, and address loss and damage in the future. Additionally, by doing so, it offers important input for adaptation efforts to be made to more sophisticated criminals.
+
+# 6.7.5.1 Personnel Security Vetting
+
+To obtain a security clearance at the appropriate level, all department employees, contractors, and consultants who are required to have access to classified information and critical assets to perform their duties or functions are required to go through a vetting investigation that is carried out by the SSA (Rishi, 2019: n.d.). If they pass this investigation, they will be granted a security clearance. The level of security clearance that will be granted to a person is based on the nature of the classified information that person will be required to access because of the post that he/she currently holds or will hold in the future in accordance with their respective responsibilities and accountability (Renfroe & Smith, 2016: n.d.).
+
+Access to classified material that is governed by the “need-to-know” principle is made possible by having a security clearance. As part of the comprehensive process of screening for security risks, each person who is granted a security clearance should first sign a declaration affirming their commitment to maintaining confidentiality. This will continue to be true even after the individual in question has completed the duties associated with Departments (Smith & Brooks, 2013: 26). For a period of 10 years, a security clearance will be valid for the confidential level, and for a period of five years, it will be valid for the secret and top-secret levels. This does not prohibit the possibility of re-screening on a more frequent basis, as defined by the Heads of Departments, on the basis of information that has a detrimental influence on an individual's security competence. It is immediately required that security clearances be revoked for any and all employees whose employment with departments has come to an end.
+
+# 6.7.5.2 Polygraph Examination
+
+A polygraph examination is carried out on each potential candidate in order to supplement security screening (Bishop, 2003, 68). With the employee's prior approval in writing, a polygraph test will be administered to every worker who is required to undergo the Top-Secret security clearance process. The applicant is not viewed as suspicious or at risk in any way, shape, or form because of their participation in the polygraph screening process; rather, its sole purpose is to evaluate the accuracy of the information obtained throughout the security screening investigation. In the event that any unfavourable information regarding the applicant is obtained during the security vetting investigation (at any level), the applicant will be given the opportunity to demonstrate his or her honesty and/or innocence by participating in a polygraph examination (Fay & Patterson, 2018: 17). This opportunity will be provided in the event that any unfavourable information is obtained. The applicant's refusal to undergo the examination does not necessarily mean that a security clearance will not be given. However, it does increase the likelihood of this outcome.
+
+# 6.7.5.3 Transferability of Security Clearances
+
+It is not acceptable for a security clearance that has been granted to an official by one of the other government institutions to be automatically transferred to another department (Defence Science and Technology Organisation. 2010). The HOD is the
+
+person responsible for deciding whether or not the official should undergo further screening.
+
+# 6.7.5.4 Security Awareness and Training
+
+For the purpose of successfully ensuring that all people and service providers of departments continue to be security conscious, the Head of Security should establish and implement a security training and awareness programme as proposed by the DPSA (2016: 13). Every worker is required to go through the mandatory security awareness and training programmes, after which they should sign a document stating that they have read, comprehended, and agree to abide by the rules outlined in the programmes. The programme educates employees, relevant contractors and consultants about the security policy and security measures of departments as well as the need to protect sensitive information against disclosure, loss, or destruction.
+
+Additionally, the programme provides training in regard to specific security responsibilities. In order to improve the training and awareness programme, regular security awareness presentations, briefings, and workshops will be held, and posters and pamphlets will be disseminated on a regular basis (DPSA, 2016: 13). All workers who have been recognised and advised that they are expected to attend the events are required to attend the programmes that have been outlined above. In order to monitor how successfully the security training and awareness programme is being implemented, the Head of Security along with other members of the security component are required to undertake routine surveys and walkthrough inspections.
+
+# 6.7.5.6 Security Incident/ Breaches Reporting Process
+
+When an employee of the departments becomes aware of an incident that might constitute a security breach or an unauthorised disclosure of information (whether accidentally or intentionally), they are obligated to report it to the Head of Security of the departments by making use of the formal reporting procedure that is prescribed in the security breach directives of the departments. This has to be undertaken in order for the incident to be properly investigated (Moagi, 2009).
+
+Every instance of a security breach, whether confirmed or suspected, is to be reported by the Security Manager to the relevant authority (as specified in the Security Breach Directives of the departments), so that an investigation can be conducted (Monzon, 2021). It is the responsibility of the Head of Security of each department to ensure that the processes for reporting breaches in security are communicated to all of the workers. To handle any and all security breaches or suspected breaches that are reported, the Head of Security is obligated to design and put into action a response process for security breaches across all of the departments.
+
+The individual in charge of security is responsible for seeing to it that the individual in charge of public safety is informed of any events of this kind as quickly as feasible. The SSA and the SAPS are tasked with conducting investigations into any suspected breaches of security and providing feedback along with recommendations to the relevant departments (Pinnock, 2020). As a result of investigations into security breaches or alleged security breaches, the HOD has the authority to suspend access rights to classified information, assets, and/or premises until the administration, disciplinary, and/or criminal proceedings have been completed. When deciding whether or not to restore, limit, or revoke an individual's security access privileges, or whether or not to revoke or alter the individual's security clearance, the HOD may take into consideration the results of these investigations, disciplinary action, or criminal prosecutions. In addition, the HOD may decide whether or not to alter the individual's security clearance.
+
+# 6.7.6 Recommendations Concerning Capacity and Adequacy of Current Layers of Security Measures to Prevent Threats Before They Occur
+
+Based on both the secondary data and primary data accrued in the study, the prevalence of a viable security policy in departments is viewed as a conducive proposition for enhancing strategies and mechanisms to prevent threats before they occur. In that regard. Table 6.4 overleaf expounds on the tactical measures for such prevention and strengthening of the capacity of departments.
+
+Table 6.4: Description and examples of tactical measures
+
+
+
Strategy Confront
Descriptiohand examplesoftacticalmeasures The decision-makers concludes that the risk should be addressed because of
Reduce
the seriousness of its anticipated impact, the high possibility of its occurrence, and the timeliness of its occurrence. A decision to go with this alternative requires not only the availability of sufficient resources to support any countermeasures, but also the political will to implement drastic countermeasures, as well as a strong belief that the anticipated positive long-term results would eventually outweigh inevitable negative ramifications in the interim period. Common strategies that should be taken into consideration include legal prosecutions, the introduction of new legislation, the issuing of ban orders to departments, the arrest of prominent leaders, confrontations of a military nature, public exposure of foreign agents, and other similar strategies. The policymakers conclude that the risk, even if it is considered to be serious,
Contain
the unacceptable cost of potential negative ramifications; or the absence of the political will to introduce drastic countermeasures. Instead, the focus is being placed on playing down the seriousness of the risk (e.g., from high to low risk). The deployment of security forces, the conduct of strategic political intervention, the conduct of talks, and the upgrading of the physical security of sensitive locations are all examples of typical ME techniques that should be considered. This is at best an interim plan, and its goal is to mitigate the negative impacts
Avoid
encompassing can be chosen and implemented. It would often be used as an emergency measure in situations in which unexpected risks unexpectedly appear without any warning, and it would typically comprise a mixture of confrontational and reduction approaches, all of which would be carried out under the guidance of contingency planning. The decision-maker in charge of policy concludes that the danger is extremely unlikely to materialize in the short to medium term, but that it is unavoidable in the longer term.
Carry
Options that involve confrontation or a downgrade in status are not considered to be viable. As a result, the decision-maker concludes that the only way to steer clear of the risk in its entirety is to make changes to a previously held future vision that are both strategic and preventative in nature. The decision-maker is fully aware of the repercussions of the risk, but he or
she nevertheless concludes that it is worthwhile to take the risk and that the risk associated with the risk's continuous presence is offset by the prospect of a bigger opportunity being taken advantage of. A common illustration of this would be the situation in which operations of foreign intelligence are discovered but are permitted to continue since it is believed that they could lead to the discovery of a larger network.
+
+Source: Researcher’s compilation from various sources
+
+# 6.7.6.1 Implementable Security Policy Architecture
+
+A Security policy is a general declaration of intent that gives direction on what position security plays inside the department (Turianskyi, 2018: 14). Security policy can be classified as a combination of system-specific, issue-specific, and organisational policy, and should be used to:
+
+Identify the departments’ most valued assets; Departments’ vision in relate to security; Summarise the roles of personnel within the department; Describe the role of directorate security within the department; Outline the departments’ contingency plan; and • Outline the departments’ legalities in relate to standard operation procedure.
+
+The Security Manager is responsible for coordination and execution of the STA to clearly define the departments’ threat picture and understand the weaknesses in the existing security measures. When threat and risk sources are clearly defined, the critical assets withing the core business of the department can be clearly identified (Vellani, 2020). The Security Manager should use the intelligence gathered to contribute to the development and communicating of the draft document to the Security Committee. The draft documents for consideration by the Security Committee will be submitted in the normal course at least four working days prior to the meeting date. This will enable the members to study the documentation and allow adequate opportunity for both formal and informal discussions.
+
+Each member should be allowed to play a full and constructive role in the affairs of the Security committee and shall be furnished with all relevant information/details before making any decision. Members shall conduct themselves in a befitting manner and show respect to one another. Decisions taken by the Committee are binding and can only be changed by the HOD.
+
+• Which are the departments’ processes of anticipating and analysing the probabilities of loss and damage to State property?
+• What are current layers of security measures?
+• What solutions should be implemented to address the correct implementation of security threat assessment?
+
+The security policy covers the following seven elements of the security programme of the department:
+
+Security organisation;
+Security administration;
+Information security;
+
+• Physical security; Personnel security; ICT security; and BCP.
+
+The security policy should include protection of the following:
+
+• Confidentiality: Ensuring that information and systems are accessible only to authorised users;
+• Integrity: Safeguarding the accuracy and completeness of information processing methods; and
+• Availability: Ensuring that authorised users have access to information and systems when required
+
+# 6.7.6.2 Requirements for a Security Policy
+
+The proposed security policy should entail the following:
+
+• It should be a clearly defined document that encompasses the Minimum Physical Security Standards;
+• It should cover all aspects of physical security and provide for different levels of physical security grading;
+• It should set out the obligations of the different role players about the implementation of the policy;
+• The policy should clearly give a direct guide to all personnel and relevant contractors and consultants of the department/institution to adhere / comply with the Minimum Physical Security Standards;
+• The policy should clearly specify that failure by an employee to comply with the policy and the Minimum Physical Security Standards constitutes serious misconduct and those disciplinary measures should be taken against such a person; and
+• Security Manager should develop operating standards to ensure that they achieve operational objectives.
+
+In order to successfully execute the STA, security managers need to place a key emphasis not only on the core and legislative responsibilities of the department, but also on the efficiency of the physical security measures currently in place and information security (Troy, 2020: 17). If the legislative mission of the department is understood and well-known, the security component of the department will be able to detect potential security risks that may affect the department. After a threat or risk has been discovered, a risk mitigation strategy can be effectively put into place to eliminate or avoid the threat or risk, as well as any potential hazards that have been identified.
+
+The creation of security rules and procedures occurs once the STA has been effectively implemented (Vellani, 2020). Before the HOD gives his or her blessing, check to see that the backing of the security policy comes from the labour unions. The security policy and procedures should cover not only the physical security measures but also the information security measures, the information technology security measures, the communication security measures, the personnel security vetting measures, and the personnel suitability checks (screening) measures.
+
+After consulting with all of the stakeholders and the security committee, the security manager should make sure that the policy is written in accordance with the guidelines provided by the MISS document, and that it refers to other policies, procedures, and plans that are related to the primary mandate of the department (South Africa, 2017). This should be done after ensuring that the policy is written in accordance with the guidelines provided by National Legislation. Following the completion of all of the consultations, the draft policy will be sent to the SSA for their consideration and approval. After the SSA has provided its approval of the draft policy, it should then sent to the head of the department for final approval (South Africa, 2017). After receiving approval from the HOD, the policy will then be disseminated to all of the departments’ business units, as well as contractors and other stakeholders, through awareness programmes, an intranet internal website, and by making it accessible to all workers. Subsequently, the security policy would then be put into effect.
+
+# 6.8 VALUE/ CONTRIBUTION OF THE STUDY
+
+The results of the research will contribute towards bridging the gap between welldeveloped security frameworks on the one hand, and a lack of implementation in South African government departments, on the other (Wagner et al., 2012; Yin, 2018: 11-12). The findings have revealed the nature and scope of issues encountered by security personnel responsible for implementing the security threat assessment and other risk control procedures. The research shows that departments that adhere to the methods outlined in this thesis, performed effective security threat assessment and saw considerable reductions in vulnerabilities. In that regard, this study and its results contribute to new knowledge and builds excellent practices to give effective and implementable guidelines and procedures for the STA at all levels of government. Furthermore, the information gathered from this study will help security professionals and senior management understand their critical role in supporting security policies and procedures.
+
+The research emphasises the need of understanding the departments' core business in order to identify critical asserts that seek to be protected. This will add value to security management and security committees, including the development of policies and standard operating procedures are developed, as well as appointment of skilled security managers. The findings reveal further that executive management should be actively involved in assessing emerging threats and providing effective security risk control procedures in order to improve current protection mechanism and charting new avenues for research.
+
+It is envisaged that the study will contribute meaningfully to learners who are studying towards security-related qualifications, as well as to the academic community once the research has been disseminated through the University of South Africa’s internet library system.
+
+# 6.9 POSSIBLE LIMITATIONS OF THE STUDY
+
+Although generalisability is not necessarily the particular focus of qualitative studies (Anderson & Poole, 2014: 13; Gupta & Awasthy, 2015: 28), the current study’s findings could possibly be limited by the non-involvement of more security stakeholders in other national governmental departments. However, there were key government departments in Gauteng Province that were reluctant to participate in the research, which impacted on the possible generalisability of the findings and therefore reflect a limitation of the research.
+
+# 6.10 CONCLUSION
+
+Threat assessment represents one part of a comprehensive approach to prevention and securing the safety of government departments, to positively assist the personnel and clients, where a good platform is created to report matters concerning security of the people, assets, and information. Because it is in South Africa's national interest to protect its departments, the SSA is legally mandated to gather, collate, and analyse intelligence, as well as provide advice and vetting services, to protect these departments from threats to national security. Terrorism, espionage, the proliferation of weapons of mass destruction, organised crime, and social instability are examples of such threats, as they are threats arising from inherent vulnerabilities within these departments. vulnerabilities in their physical security arrangements, personnel security, information technology security, or the integrity of their business processes.
+
+Government departments retain independent responsibility for managing security and non-security related business threats and vulnerabilities. If these vulnerabilities and threats are likely to have an impact on the national interest, and thus on national security, they fall under the SSA's offensive and defensive mandate. All these departments have their specific valuable assets that should be safeguarded for national security reasons. These areas are commonly referred to as the department's key assets, and they include its personnel, information, IT, and communication systems, as well as the department's reputation and ability to perform those critical business functions for South Africa's national interest and national security.
+
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+South Africa. 1985. Control of Access to Public Premises and Vehicles Act 53 of 1985 (CAPPVA). Pretoria: South African Government.
+South Africa. 1993. Occupational Health and Safety Act (Act No. 85 of 1993). Pretoria: Government Printers.
+
+South Africa. 1994. National Strategic Intelligence Act (Act No. 39 of 1994). Government Gazette 161228. Pretoria: Government Printers.
+
+South Africa. 1995. Labour Relations Act. Pretoria: Government Printers.
+South Africa. 1996. The Constitution of the Republic of South Africa, 1996. Pretoria: Government Printer. 71
+South Africa. 1998. Minimum Information Security Standards. Pretoria: Government Printer.
+South Africa. 2001. Private Security Industry Regulatory Act (PSIRA) (No. 56 of 2001). Pretoria: South African Government.
+South Africa. 2013. Protection of Personal Information Act. (Act No. 2013). Pretoria: Government Printer.
+South Africa. 2015. BRICS (Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa). Retrieved from: https://www.gov.za (Accessed 19 April 2021).
+South Africa. 2016. Government Gazette 40487 of 9 December 2016. ‘Cybercrimes and Cybersecurity Bill’ Republic of South Africa.
+South Africa. 2017. Cybercrimes and Cybersecurity Bill: Republic of South Africa 2017: General Notice 871 in Government Gazette 40487 of 9 December 2016.
+Southern African Migration Project. 2016. Criminal tendencies: Immigrants and illegality in South Africa. Migration Policy Brief No. 10. Retrieved from: https://samponline.org/wp-content/uploads/2016/10/brief10.pdf (Accessed: 20 February 2020).
+Southern African Legal Information Institute. 2018. My Vote Counts NPC v Minister of Justice and Correctional Services and Another. 2018 (5) SA 380 (CC). Retrieved from: http://www.saflii.org/za/cases/ZACC/2018/17.html (Accessed: 20 February 2020).
+Surju, J. 2018. ‘A case study exploring how middle managers implement deliberate strategy in a government department’. Unpublished Master’s Dissertation. Pretoria: UNISA.
+Sutherland, E. 2017. Governance of cybersecurity – the case of South Africa. The African Journal of Information and Communication (AJIC), 20: 83-112.
+Sutton, F.S. 2015. Process risk and reliability management: operational integrity management. $2^{n d}$ ed. London: Gulf Professional Publishing.
+Tavakoli, H. 2012. A dictionary of research methodology and statistics in applied linguistics. Iran: Rahnama press.
+Taylor, L. & Shepherd, M. 2008. In FISMA Certification and accreditation handbook. Amsterdam: Syngress.
+Thanh, N.C. & Thanh, T.T.L. 2015. The interconnection between interpretivist paradigms and qualitative methods in education. American Journal of Educational Science, 1(2): 24-27.
+
+Thoka, E.M. 2020. ‘An evaluation of security of security threats and vulnerabilities to a national key point: Case study of Medupi power station’. Unpublished Thesis Pretoria: UNISA.
+
+Thomas, G. 2013. How to do your research project: A guide for students in education and applied social sciences. $2^{\mathsf{n d}}$ edition. London: Sage.
+Thomashausen, A. 2007. ‘Knowing the role of international law and the United Nations’ instruments in combating and prosecuting terrorism’. Pretoria: IQPCC Conference.
+Thompson, E.E. 2019. The insider threat assessment and mitigation of risks. New York: CRC Press.
+Tight, M. 2017. Understanding case study research: Small-scale research with meaning. London: Sage.
+Tilley, N. & Laycock, G. 2018. Developing a knowledge base for crime prevention: Lessons learned from the British experience. Crime Prevention and Community Safety, 20(4): 228-242.
+Trochimm, W.M.K. 2020. Changes and additions. In Troy, C. 2020. A quick guide to descriptive research. London: Research Prospect.
+Troy, C. 2020. A quick guide to descriptive research. London: Research Prospect.
+Turianskyi, Y. 2018. Balancing cyber security and internet freedom in Africa. Africa Portal Journal, (31): 14-24.
+UNISA. 2020. University of South Africa COVID-19 position statement on research ethics. Pretoria: UNISA.
+Vellani, K.H. 2020. Strategic security management a risk assessment: Guide for decision makers. $2^{\mathsf{n d}}$ ed. New York: CRC Press.
+Wagner, C., Kawulich, B. & Garner, M. 2012. Doing social research: Global context. United Kingdom: McGraw-Hill Education.
+Walliman, N. 2015. Research methods. the basics. Abingdon: Routledge Publisher.
+Warren, C.A.B. & Karner, T.X. 2015. Discovering qualitative methods. Ethnography, Interviews, documents and images. Guilford Press: New York.
+Watts, S. 2017. IT security vulnerability vs threat vs risk: What’s the difference? Phoenix: University of Phoenix.
+Welman, C., Kruger, F. & Mitchell, B. 2012. Research methodology. $3^{r d}$ ed. Cape Town: Oxford University press.
+Whitman, M.E & Mattord, H.J. 2015. Principles of information security. ${5^{t h}}$ ed. Georgia: Kennesaw State University.
+Williams, J. 2017. Rigorous risk management a must-have for public sector organisations. Retrieved from: Rigorous risk management a must-have for public sector organisations | ACCA Global (Accessed on 02 April 2022)
+Word, S. 2019. Assets definition: Are your assets current, fixed or intangible & what are they worth? California: SAGE.
+Yamagata-Lynch, L.C. 2010. Activity systems analysis methods: Understanding complex learning environments. New York: Springer Publications.
+Yin, R.K. 2018. Case study research and applications: Designs and methods. 6th edition. LA: Sage.
+
+# UNISA university of south africa
+
+# UNISA2022ETHICSREVIEWCOMMITTEE
+
+Date: 09 July 2022
+
+Researcher: Mr Lehlohonolo Wonderboy Mahlatsi
+
+Supervisor: Dr Bernard Khotso Lekubu
+
+# A CRITICAL REVIEW OF THE IMPLEMENTATION OF THE SECURITY THREAT ASSESSMENTBYA SELECTION OF GOVERNMENTDEPARTMENTIN GAUTENG
+
+Qualification: PhD (Criminal Justice)
+
+Thank you for the application for research ethics clearance by the Unisa 2022 Ethics Review Committee for the above-mentioned research. Ethics approval is granted for 3 years.
+
+The low-risk application was reviewed by the CLAw Ethics Review Committee on in
+compliance with the Unisa Policy on Research Ethics and the Standard Operating Procedure
+on Research Ethics Risk Assessment.
+The proposed research may now commence with the provisions that: 1. The researcher will ensure that the research project adheres to the relevant guidelines set out in the Unisa Covid-19 position statement on research ethics attached. 2. The researcher(s) will ensure that the research project adheres to the values and principles expressed in the UNIsA Policy on Research Ethics. 3. Any adverse circumstance arising in the undertaking of the research project that is relevant to the ethicality of the study should be communicated in writing to the CLAW Committee. 4. The researcher(s) will conduct the study according to the methods and procedures set out in the approved application.
+
+5. Any changes that can affect the study-related risks for the research participants, particularly in terms of assurances made with regards to the protection of participants' privacy and the confidentiality of the data, should be reported to the Committee in writing, accompanied by a progress report. 6. The researcher will ensure that the research project adheres to any applicable national legislation, professional codes of conduct, institutional guidelines and scientific standards relevant to the specific field of study. Adherence to the following South African legislation is important, if applicable: Protection of Personal Information Act, no 4 of 2013; Children's act no 38 of 20o5 and the National Health Act, no 61 of 2003. 7. Only de-identified research data may be used for secondary research purposes in future on condition that the research objectives are similar to those of the original research. Secondary use of identifiable human research data requires additional ethics clearance. 8. No field work activities may continue after the expiry date 2025:07:09. Submission of a completed research ethics progress report will constitute an application for renewal of Ethics Research Committee approval. Note: The reference number TS67-2o22 should be clearly indicated on allforms of communication with the intended research participants, as well as with the Committee.
+
+Yours sincerely,
+
+
+
+
+
+Prof L Fitz Chair of CLAW ERC E-mail: fitzlq@unisa.ac.za Tel: (012) 433-9504
+
+Prof OJ Kole
+Acting Executive Dean: CLAW
+E-mail: koleoj@unisa.ac.za
+Tel: (012) 429-8305
+
+
+The Divisional Commissioner CRIMEINTELLIGENCE
+
+PERMISSION TO CONDUCT RESEARCH IN THE SOUTH AFRICAN POLICE SERVICE:UNIVERSITY OF SOUTH AFRICA:DOCTORATE DEGREE:A CRITICAL REVIEW OF THE IMPLEMENTATION OF THE SECURITY THREAT ASSESSMENT BYA SELECTION OF GOVERNMENT DEPARTMENTS IN GAUTENG: RESEARCHER:LWMAHLATSI
+
+# PERMISSION TO CONDUCT RESEARCH IN THE SOUTH AFRICAN POLICE SERVICE:UNIVERSITY OF SOUTH AFRICA:DOCTORATE DEGREE:A CRITICAL REVIEW OF THE IMPLEMENTATION OF THE SECURITY THREAT ASSESSMENT BYA SELECTION OF GOVERNMENT DEPARTMENTS IN GAUTENG: RESEARCHER:LWMAHLATSI
+
+The researcher, LW Mahlatsi, intends to collect data by approaching approximately ten (10) participants at Security Standards, Crime Intelligence, Counter intelligence in Gauteng Office in Johannesburg and the study will also include Crime Intelligence Vetting Units in the SAPS Head Office Pretoria in line with the proposed topic/title. This office hereby requests your support on the condition that your office agrees with our recommendations and confirm the proposed official research is viable. Additionally, your office has the authority to set terms and conditions for the researcher to comply with set standards to be foilowed during the research study process and does not harm the SAPS' image. Kindly find the relevant documents of the requested application topic/titled “ A critical review of the implementation of the Security Threat Assessment by a selection of Government Departments in Gauteng” for your consideration: Annexure A: Application to conduct research; Annexure B: Signed undertaking; Annexure C: Research proposal; and Annexure D: Research approval from University of South Africa. The researcher will conduct the research at his/her own expenses. The researcher will conduct the research without the disruption of the duties of the participating members of the Service. In addition, the researcher must communicate and make prior arrangements with the respective commanders of the participating members of the study. 8.2 The researcher, LW Mahlatsi, shouid bear in mind that participation in the interviews must be voluntary. Information will at all times be treated as strictly confidential. The researcher, LW Mahlatsi, will provide an electronic copy of the final report to the Service. The researcher, LW Mahlatsi, will ensure that the research report complies with all conditions for the approval of research.
+
+# PERMISSION TO CONDUCT RESEARCH IN THE SOUTH AFRICAN POLICE SERVICE: UNIVERSITY OF SOUTH AFRICA:DOCTORATE DEGREE:A CRITICAL REVIEW OF THE IMPLEMENTATION OF THE SECURITY THREAT ASSESSMENT BY A SELECTION OF GOVERNMENT DEPARTMENTS IN GAUTENG: RESEARCHER:LWMAHLATSI
+
+10.Should your office be in agreement with this research request and to facilitate smooth coordination between your ofice and the researcher, the following information is kindly requested to be forwarded to our office within 18 days after receipt of this letter.
+
+· Signed Certificate/Letter: Confirm the proposed research request is viable; · Contact person: Rank, Initials and Surname; and I Contact details: Telephone number and email address.
+
+Your cooperation will be highly appreciated.
+
+Date:
+
+# ANNEXURE 3: LETTER TO DEPARTMENT OF PUBLIC WORKS FOR PERMISSION TO CONDUCT THE STUDY
+
+Private Bag X65, PRETORIA, 0001 Int Code: +27 12 Tel: 406 1300 Fax: 321 3898 E-mail: Solly.Mwanza@dpw.gov.za website: www.publicworks.gov.za
+
+Attention: Mr Mahlatsi 570 Louis Trichardt Street Wonderboom South 0084
+
+Dear Mr. L Mahlatsi
+
+# REQUESTFORPERMISSIONTO CONDUCTA RESEARCHWITHIN DPWI ON “A CRITICALREVIEW OF THE IMPLEMENTATION OF THE SECURITY THREAT ASSESSMENT BY A SELECTION OF GOVERNMENTDEPARTMENTSIN GAUTENG”:MRLMAHLATSI
+
+1.Your request dated 01/o8/2022 pertaining to the above mentioned matter is hereby acknowledged.
+
+2. The Department has decided to grant you permission to conduct a research study within DPWl on the topic “A Critical review of the implementation of the Security Threat Assessment by a selection of Govemment Departments in Gauteng".
+
+3.You are hereby requested to submit the outcome of your approved research to the Department, through the Director: Human Resources Development for future references and service delivery improvement strategies to be sourced from your findings and recommendations.
+
+4. The Department wisheszyou everything of the best in your academic and career developments.
+
+
+
+# ANNEXURE 4: DIRCO APPROVAL TO CONDUCT THE STUDY
+
+
+
+#
+
+Department: Intemational Relations and Cooperation REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
+
+Private Bag X152, PRETORIA, 0001 + OR Tambo Bld, 460 Soutpansberg Road, Rietondale, PRETORIA, 0084 Tel: +27 (0) 12 351 1000 \* www.dirco.gov.za
+
+Mr Lehlohonolo Wonderboy Mahlatsi
+Philosophiae Doctor/Doctor of Philosophy [PhD]: Criminal Justice at the University of South Africa (UNISA)
+LehlohonoloMa@joburg.org.za
+GAUTENG
+Republic of South Africa
+
+Dear Mr Mahlatsi,
+
+Research study: A critical review of the implementation of the Security Threat Assessment by a selection of Government Departments in Gauteng.
+
+The Acting Director-General of the Department of International Relations and Cooperation (DIRCO), approved your request to utilise DlRCO whilst conducting research for the fulfilment of the PhD Degree from the University of South Africa.
+
+
+
+tsaBedteeaazzbeee sreeUb
+
+
+ANNEXURE 5: SAPS APPROVAL TO CONDUCT THE STUDY
+UNIVERSITY OF SOUTHAFRICA
+
+RE:PERMISSION TO CONDUCT RESEARCH IN THE SOUTH AFRICAN POLICE SERVICE: UNIVERSITY OF SOUTH AFRICA:DOCTORATEDEGREE:A CRITICAL REVIEW OFTHE IMPLEMENTATION OF THE SECURITY THREAT ASSESSMENT BY A SELECTION OF GOVERNMENTDEPARTMENTSIN GAUTENG: RESEARCHER:LWMAHLATSI
+
+1. The above subject matter refers.
+2. You are hereby granted approval for your research study on the above-mentioned topic in terms of National lnstruction 4 of 2022.
+3. Further arrangements regarding the research study may be made with the following
+
+The Divisional Commissioner; Crime Intelligence ·Contact Person: Major General Lushaba ·Contact Details: (012)3601408
+
+4. Kindly adhere to paragraph 8 of our attached letter signed on 2022-08-18 with the same abovementioned reference number.
+
+THE HEAD: RESEARCH
+SOUTHAFRICANPOLICESERVICE
+PRETORIA
+0001
+
+Privaatsak/Private Bag X94
+
+
+
Reference:
3/34/2
Enquiries:
Lt Col (Dr) Smit
Telephone:
AC Thenga (012)393 4333
0827788629
Email
ThengaS@saps.gov.za
+
+The Divisional Commissioner CRIMEINTELLIGENCE
+
+PERMISSION TO CONDUCT RESEARCH IN THE SOUTH AFRICAN POLICE SERVICE:UNIVERSITY OF SOUTH AFRICA:DOCTORATE DEGREE:A CRITICAL REVIEW OF THE IMPLEMENTATION OF THE SECURITY THREAT ASSESSMENT BY A SELECTION OF GOVERNMENT DEPARTMENTS IN GAUTENG: RESEARCHER:LWMAHLATSI
+
+# PERMISSION TO CONDUCT RESEARCH IN THE SOUTH AFRICAN POLICE SERVICE:UNIVERSITY OF SOUTH AFRICA:DOCTORATE DEGREE:A CRITICAL REVIEW OF THE IMPLEMENTATION OFTHE SECURITY THREAT ASSESSMENT BYA SELECTION OF GOVERNMENT DEPARTMENTS IN GAUTENG: RESEARCHER: LWMAHLATSI
+
+The researcher, LW Mahiatsi, intends to collect data by approaching approximately ten (10) participants at Security Standards, Crime Intelligence, Counter intelligence in Gauteng Office in Johannesburg and the study will also include Crime Intelligence Vetting Units in the SAPS Head Office Pretoria in line with the proposed topic/title. This office hereby requests your support on the condition that your office agrees with our recommendations and confirm the proposed official research is viable. Additionally, your office has the authority to set terms and conditions for the researcher to comply with set standards to be followed during the research study process and does not harm the SAPS' image. Kindly find the relevant documents of the requested application topic/titled “ A critical review of the implementation of the Security Threat Assessment by a selection of Government Departments in Gauteng" for your consideration: Annexure A: Application to conduct research; Annexure B: Signed undertaking; Annexure C: Research proposal; and Annexure D: Research approval from University of South Africa. The researcher will conduct the research at his/her own expenses. The researcher wili conduct the research without the disruption of the duties of the participating members of the Service. In addition, the researcher must communicate and make prior arrangements with the respective commanders of the participating members of the study. 8.2 The researcher, LW Mahlatsi, should bear in mind that participation in the interviews must be voluntary. Information will at all times be treated as strictly confidential. The researcher, LW Mahlatsi, will provide an electronic copy of the final report to the Service. The researcher, LW Mahlatsi, will ensure that the research report complies with all conditions for the approval of research.
+
+# PERMISSION TO CONDUCT RESEARCH IN THE SOUTH AFRICAN POLICE SERVICE:UNIVERSITY OF SOUTH AFRICA:DOCTORATE DEGREE:A CRITICAL REVIEW OF THEIMPLEMENTATION OF THE SECURITY THREAT ASSESSMENT BY A SELECTION OF GOVERNMENT DEPARTMENTS IN GAUTENG: RESEARCHER:LWMAHLATSI
+
+10.Should your office be in agreement with this research request and to facilitate smooth coordination between your office and the researcher, the following information is kindly requested to be forwarded to our office within 18 days after receipt of this letter.
+
+■ Signed Certificate/Letter: Confirm the proposed research request is viable; • Contact person: Rank, Initials and Surname; and Contact details: Telephone number and email address.
+
+Your cooperation will be highly appreciated.
+
+Date:
+
+# ANNEXURE 6: INTERVIEW GUIDE
+
+Intanow Goda Acrteal ravaw ol tho lmplemantsdon of tho sacu dbr threat aaae smant by s salacton ot govammant deparmant:inGautang
+
+# Part A: Blographlc Data
+
+1. What Is your ser?
+
+2. What ls your salutaton. lbe or tant?
+
+3. 513e you poe 3on aea0i6padal5aion
+
+4. What15your highe tarao snlequahn aion:
+
+5. Where do you wok, itany: dale, Le. Hnlsby ot Youth (not phy steal add e aj?
+
+6. For how long hane you been employed?
+
+# 7. indtae you agecaeg oy
+
+Part B: Sacurtty Threst Rlak Aoaassmant
+
+
+
21-30
31-40
41-50
51-60
61-70
+
+8. In your opinion, what does the conr apt oisasuily tneat as se aament shatsg n a Gntad ot saouy and pd a daebpned, enale?
+9. How ehoudihed paiment setanishi manag2thasEsuty snesuetamponen shai Woud be responsbe tor one allseaunbydsk mand gament nuncions winn tha depa iments, In your ophlon?
+10. In your eape tence, how do you deuelop a seoudiy polcy Hhich ls h-ine wih the core busnes s of the depariment?
+11. tn your opnion, whst ole should the seou ity commitee play in management
+olthrasls and nst assessmen?
+12. In you nau, wnst siaisges,li an ,ae applad by the oepaimants toosad, combst, and prevent systemlc threat and nsk In the deparmenis?
+13. In your wew, What role can the mantal cae pracilonens $\vdots$ enpbnae waness tabe day In the Implemenlaton of thneat a sessment?
+1. n sour waw Hsllods canbau sdio popuats:the Mnmumlmomsion sis:unly Siandand dooumen:
+15. 1 10u 4a2 t0 13smm8d - w8t a:b08b: s86133 46ud 500 13 0mm3d3d i4 puposes of enhandng the Implameniaton oi se uiy theat aais sment In the 9oua mment oaoa inent?
+
+# ANNEXURE 7: EDITOR’S CERTIFICATE
+
+# PROOF OFEDITING
+
+I, the undersigned, hereby confirm the academic and language editing, technical compliance, text redaction, and methodological compatibility in respect of the research manuscript of Mr Lehlohonolo Wonderboy Mahlatsi (Student Number: 43312829), submitted to me in accordance with the requirements for the Doctor of Literature and Philosophy (D Phil et Lit) in Criminal Justice degree registered with the University of South Africa (UNiSA), and entitled:
+
+# A critical review of the implementation of the security threat assessment by a selection of government departments in Gauteng
+
+As an independent academic editor, I attest that allpossible means have been expended to ensure the final draft of Mr L.W. Mahlatsis thesis manuscript coheres with acceptable research methodology practices and language control standards expected of postgraduate research studies at his academic level.
+
+In compliance with expected ethical requirements in research, Ihave further undertaken to keep all aspects of Mr L.W. Mahlatsi's study confidential, and as his own individual initiative.
+
+Sincerely.
+
+T.J. Mkhonto
+BA Ed: North-West University, Mafikeng (1985)
+MEd: School Administration; University of Massachusetts-at-Boston, USA, Harbor Campus (1987)
+DTech: Higher Education Curiculum Policy Reform, Design and Management; University of Johannesburg (2008)
+
+All enquiries:
+
+
+
+# ANNEXURE 8: TURNITIN DIGITAL RECEIPT
+
+# turnitin
+
+# Digital Receipt
+
+This receipt acknowledges that Turnitin received your paper. Below you will find the receipt
+
+
+
+# ANNEXURE 9: TURNITIN SUMMARY REPORT
+
+
ORIGINALITY REPORT
22% 20%
6% PUBLICATIONS
9% STUDENT PAPERS
SIMILARITY INDEX INTERNET SOURCES
PRIMARY SOURCES uir.unisa.ac.za
1
Internet Source
2
www.safli.org
3
hdl.handle.net
4 Internet Source
docplayer.net 1%
5 silo.pubce
1%
6 Internet Source
dspace.nwu.ac.za 1% 1%
7
Submitted to University of South Africa
8 Internet Source
zwefinder.net 1%
+
+www.lda.gov.za
\ No newline at end of file
diff --git a/dataset/data/docs/republic-of-south-africa_2013_Protection of Personal Information Act, 2013.pdf-68ed7a0b.md b/dataset/data/docs/republic-of-south-africa_2013_Protection of Personal Information Act, 2013.pdf-68ed7a0b.md
new file mode 100644
index 0000000000000000000000000000000000000000..3a8ee2d458b2a2cde02b811e2eeebce5a01a5fcb
--- /dev/null
+++ b/dataset/data/docs/republic-of-south-africa_2013_Protection of Personal Information Act, 2013.pdf-68ed7a0b.md
@@ -0,0 +1,2061 @@
+Please note that most Acts are published in English and another South African official language. Currently we only have capacity to publish the English versions. This means that this document will only contain even numbered pages as the other language is printed on uneven numbered pages.
+
+# Government Gazette
+
+26 November 2013
+
+# GENERAL EXPLANATORY NOTE:
+
+] Words in bold type in square brackets indicate omissions from existing enactments. Words underlined with a solid line indicate insertions in existing enactments.
+
+(English text signed by the President) (Assented to 19 November 2013)
+
+# ACT
+
+To promote the protection of personal information processed by public and private bodies; to introduce certain conditions so as to establish minimum requirements for the processing of personal information; to provide for the establishment of an Information Regulator to exercise certain powers and to perform certain duties and functions in terms of this Act and the Promotion of Access to Information Act, 2000; to provide for the issuing of codes of conduct; to provide for the rights of persons regarding unsolicited electronic communications and automated decision making; to regulate the flow of personal information across the borders of the Republic; and to provide for matters connected therewith.
+
+# PREAMBLE
+
+# RECOGNISING THAT—
+
+● section 14 of the Constitution of the Republic of South Africa, 1996, provides that everyone has the right to privacy;
+● the right to privacy includes a right to protection against the unlawful collection, retention, dissemination and use of personal information;
+● the State must respect, protect, promote and fulfil the rights in the Bill of Rights;
+
+# AND BEARING IN MIND THAT—
+
+● consonant with the constitutional values of democracy and openness, the need for economic and social progress, within the framework of the information society, requires the removal of unnecessary impediments to the free flow of information, including personal information;
+
+# AND IN ORDER TO—
+
+● regulate, in harmony with international standards, the processing of personal information by public and private bodies in a manner that gives effect to the right to privacy subject to justifiable limitations that are aimed at protecting other rights and important interests,
+
+ARLIAMENT of the Republic of South Africa therefore enacts, as follows:—
+
+# CONTENTS OF ACT
+
+# CHAPTER 1
+
+# DEFINITIONS AND PURPOSE
+
+5
+
+1. Definitions
+2. Purpose of Act
+
+# CHAPTER 2
+
+# APPLICATION PROVISIONS
+
+10
+
+3. Application and interpretation of Act
+4. Lawful processing of personal information
+5. Rights of data subjects
+6. Exclusions
+7. Exclusion for journalistic, literary or artistic purposes
+
+# CHAPTER 3
+
+15
+
+# CONDITIONS FOR LAWFUL PROCESSING OF PERSONAL INFORMATION
+
+Part A
+
+Processing of personal information in general
+
+Condition 1
+
+# Accountability
+
+20
+
+8. Responsible party to ensure conditions for lawful processing
+
+# Condition 2
+
+# Processing limitation
+
+9. Lawfulness of processing
+10. Minimality
+11. Consent, justification and objection
+12. Collection directly from data subject
+
+25
+
+# Condition 3
+
+# Purpose specification
+
+13. Collection for specific purpose 30
+14. Retention and restriction of records
+
+# Condition 4
+
+# Further processing limitation
+
+15. Further processing to be compatible with purpose of collection
+
+# Condition 5
+
+35
+
+Information quality
+
+16. Quality of information
+
+6
+
+# Condition 6
+
+# Openness
+
+17. Documentation
+18. Notification to data subject when collecting personal information
+
+# Condition 7
+
+5
+
+# Security safeguards
+
+19. Security measures on integrity and confidentiality of personal information
+20. Information processed by operator or person acting under authority
+21. Security measures regarding information processed by operator
+22. Notification of security compromises
+
+10
+
+# Condition 8
+
+# Data subject participation
+
+23. Access to personal information
+24. Correction of personal information
+25. Manner of access
+
+15
+
+# Part B
+
+# Processing of special personal information
+
+26. Prohibition on processing of special personal information
+27. General authorisation concerning special personal information
+28. Authorisation concerning data subject’s religious or philosophical beliefs 20
+29. Authorisation concerning data subject’s race or ethnic origin
+30. Authorisation concerning data subject’s trade union membership
+31. Authorisation concerning data subject’s political persuasion
+32. Authorisation concerning data subject’s health or sex life
+33. Authorisation concerning data subject’s criminal behaviour or biometric 25
+information
+
+# Part C
+
+# Processing of personal information of children
+
+34. Prohibition on processing personal information of children
+35. General authorisation concerning personal information of children
+
+30
+
+# CHAPTER 4
+
+# EXEMPTION FROM CONDITIONS FOR PROCESSING OF PERSONAL INFORMATION
+
+36. General
+37. Regulator may exempt processing of personal information
+38. Exemption in respect of certain functions
+
+35
+
+# CHAPTER 5
+
+# SUPERVISION
+
+Part A
+
+# Information Regulator
+
+40
+
+39. Establishment of Information Regulator
+40. Powers, duties and functions of Regulator
+
+8
+
+41. Appointment, term of office and removal of members of Regulator
+42. Vacancies
+43. Powers, duties and functions of Chairperson and other members
+44. Regulator to have regard to certain matters
+45. Conflict of interest 5
+46. Remuneration, allowances, benefits and privileges of members
+47. Staff
+48. Powers, duties and functions of chief executive officer
+49. Committees of Regulator
+50. Establishment of Enforcement Committee 10
+51. Meetings of Regulator
+52. Funds
+53. Protection of Regulator
+54. Duty of confidentiality
+
+Part B 15
+
+# Information Officer
+
+55. Duties and responsibilities of Information Officer
+56. Designation and delegation of deputy information officers
+
+# CHAPTER 6
+
+# PRIOR AUTHORISATION
+
+20
+
+# Prior Authorisation
+
+57. Processing subject to prior authorisation
+58. Responsible party to notify Regulator if processing is subject to prior authorisation
+59. Failure to notify processing subject to prior authorisation 25
+
+# CHAPTER 7
+
+# CODES OF CONDUCT
+
+60. Issuing of codes of conduct
+61. Process for issuing codes of conduct
+62. Notification, availability and commencement of code of conduct 30
+63. Procedure for dealing with complaints
+64. Amendment and revocation of codes of conduct
+65. Guidelines about codes of conduct
+66. Register of approved codes of conduct
+67. Review of operation of approved code of conduct 35
+68. Effect of failure to comply with code of conduct
+
+# CHAPTER 8
+
+# RIGHTS OF DATA SUBJECTS REGARDING DIRECT MARKETINGBY MEANS OF UNSOLICITED ELECTRONIC COMMUNICATIONS,DIRECTORIES AND AUTOMATED DECISION MAKING
+
+69. Direct marketing by means of unsolicited electronic communications
+70. Directories
+71. Automated decision making
+
+10
+
+# CHAPTER 9
+
+# TRANSBORDER INFORMATION FLOWS
+
+72. Transfers of personal information outside Republic
+
+CHAPTER 10
+
+# ENFORCEMENT 5
+
+73. Interference with protection of personal information of data subject
+74. Complaints
+75. Mode of complaints to Regulator
+76. Action on receipt of complaint
+77. Regulator may decide to take no action on complaint 10
+78. Referral of complaint to regulatory body
+79. Pre-investigation proceedings of Regulator
+80. Settlement of complaints
+81. Investigation proceedings of Regulator
+82. Issue of warrants 15
+83. Requirements for issuing of warrant
+84. Execution of warrants
+85. Matters exempt from search and seizure
+86. Communication between legal adviser and client exempt
+87. Objection to search and seizure 20
+88. Return of warrants
+89. Assessment
+90. Information notice
+91. Parties to be informed of result of assessment
+92. Matters referred to Enforcement Committee 25
+93. Functions of Enforcement Committee
+94. Parties to be informed of developments during and result of investigation
+95. Enforcement notice
+96. Cancellation of enforcement notice
+97. Right of appeal 30
+98. Consideration of appeal
+99. Civil remedies
+
+# CHAPTER 11
+
+# OFFENCES, PENALTIES AND ADMINISTRATIVE FINES
+
+100. Obstruction of Regulator 35
+101. Breach of confidentiality
+102. Obstruction of execution of warrant
+103. Failure to comply with enforcement or information notices
+104. Offences by witnesses
+105. Unlawful acts by responsible party in connection with account number 40
+106. Unlawful acts by third parties in connection with account number
+107. Penalties
+108. Magistrate’s Court jurisdiction to impose penalties
+109. Administrative fines
+
+CHAPTER 12 45
+
+# GENERAL PROVISIONS
+
+110. Amendment of laws
+111. Fees
+112. Regulations
+113. Procedure for making regulations
+114. Transitional arrangements
+115. Short title and commencement
+
+12
+
+# SCHEDULE
+
+Laws amended by section 110
+
+# CHAPTER 1
+
+# DEFINITIONS AND PURPOSE
+
+# Definitions
+
+1. In this Act, unless the context indicates otherwise— ‘‘biometrics’’ means a technique of personal identification that is based on physical, physiological or behavioural characterisation including blood typing, fingerprinting, DNA analysis, retinal scanning and voice recognition;
+
+‘‘child’’ means a natural person under the age of 18 years who is not legally competent, without the assistance of a competent person, to take any action or decision in respect of any matter concerning him- or herself;
+
+‘‘code of conduct’’ means a code of conduct issued in terms of Chapter 7;
+
+‘‘competent person’’ means any person who is legally competent to consent to any action or decision being taken in respect of any matter concerning a child; 1 ‘‘consent’’ means any voluntary, specific and informed expression of will in terms of which permission is given for the processing of personal information;
+
+‘‘Constitution’’ means the Constitution of the Republic of South Africa, 1996;
+‘‘data subject’’ means the person to whom personal information relates;
+
+‘‘de-identify’’, in relation to personal information of a data subject, means to delete 20 any information that—
+
+(a) identifies the data subject;
+(b) can be used or manipulated by a reasonably foreseeable method to identify the data subject; or can be linked by a reasonably foreseeable method to other information that 25 identifies the data subject,
+
+and ‘‘de-identified’’ has a corresponding meaning;
+
+‘‘direct marketing’’ means to approach a data subject, either in person or by mail or electronic communication, for the direct or indirect purpose of—
+
+(a) promoting or offering to supply, in the ordinary course of business, any goods 30 or services to the data subject; or (b) requesting the data subject to make a donation of any kind for any reason;
+
+‘‘electronic communication’’ means any text, voice, sound or image message sent over an electronic communications network which is stored in the network or in the recipient’s terminal equipment until it is collected by the recipient;
+
+‘‘enforcement notice’’ means a notice issued in terms of section 95;
+
+‘‘filing system’’ means any structured set of personal information, whether centralised, decentralised or dispersed on a functional or geographical basis, which is accessible according to specific criteria;
+
+‘‘information matching programme’’ means the comparison, whether manually 40 or by means of any electronic or other device, of any document that contains personal information about ten or more data subjects with one or more documents that contain personal information of ten or more data subjects, for the purpose of producing or verifying information that may be used for the purpose of taking any action in regard to an identifiable data subject; 45 ‘‘information officer’’ of, or in relation to, a—
+
+(a) public body means an information officer or deputy information officer as contemplated in terms of section 1 or 17; or
+(b) private body means the head of a private body as contemplated in section 1, of the Promotion of Access to Information Act;
+‘‘Minister’’ means the Cabinet member responsible for the administration of justice;
+‘‘operator’’ means a person who processes personal information for a responsible party in terms of a contract or mandate, without coming under the direct authority of that party;
+
+‘‘person’’ means a natural person or a juristic person;
+
+‘‘personal information’’ means information relating to an identifiable, living, natural person, and where it is applicable, an identifiable, existing juristic person, including, but not limited to—
+
+(a) information relating to the race, gender, sex, pregnancy, marital status, national, ethnic or social origin, colour, sexual orientation, age, physical or 5 mental health, well-being, disability, religion, conscience, belief, culture, language and birth of the person;
+(b) information relating to the education or the medical, financial, criminal or employment history of the person;
+(c) any identifying number, symbol, e-mail address, physical address, telephone 10 number, location information, online identifier or other particular assignment to the person;
+(d) the biometric information of the person;
+(e) the personal opinions, views or preferences of the person;
+$(f)$ correspondence sent by the person that is implicitly or explicitly of a private 15 or confidential nature or further correspondence that would reveal the contents of the original correspondence;
+(g) the views or opinions of another individual about the person; and
+$(h)$ the name of the person if it appears with other personal information relating to the person or if the disclosure of the name itself would reveal information 20 about the person;
+
+‘‘prescribed’’ means prescribed by regulation or by a code of conduct; ‘‘private body’’ means—
+
+(a) a natural person who carries or has carried on any trade, business or profession, but only in such capacity; 25
+(b) a partnership which carries or has carried on any trade, business or profession; or
+(c) any former or existing juristic person, but excludes a public body;
+
+‘‘processing’’ means any operation or activity or any set of operations, whether or not by automatic means, concerning personal information, including—
+
+(a) the collection, receipt, recording, organisation, collation, storage, updating or modification, retrieval, alteration, consultation or use;
+(b) dissemination by means of transmission, distribution or making available in any other form; or
+(c) merging, linking, as well as restriction, degradation, erasure or destruction of 35 information;
+
+‘‘professional legal adviser’’ means any legally qualified person, whether in private practice or not, who lawfully provides a client, at his or her or its request, with independent, confidential legal advice;
+
+‘‘Promotion of Access to Information Act’’ means the Promotion of Access to 40 Information Act, 2000 (Act No. 2 of 2000);
+
+‘‘public body’’ means—
+
+any department of state or administration in the national or provincial sphere of government or any municipality in the local sphere of government; or (b) any other functionary or institution when— 45 (i) exercising a power or performing a duty in terms of the Constitution or a provincial constitution; or (ii) exercising a public power or performing a public function in terms of any legislation;
+
+‘‘public record’’ means a record that is accessible in the public domain and which 50 is in the possession of or under the control of a public body, whether or not it was created by that public body;
+
+‘‘record’’ means any recorded information— (a) regardless of form or medium, including any of the following:
+
+(i) Writing on any material;
+(ii) information produced, recorded or stored by means of any tape-recorder, computer equipment, whether hardware or software or both, or other device, and any material subsequently derived from information so produced, recorded or stored;
+(iii) label, marking or other writing that identifies or describes any thing of 60 which it forms part, or to which it is attached by any means;
+(iv) book, map, plan, graph or drawing;
+
+(v) photograph, film, negative, tape or other device in which one or more visual images are embodied so as to be capable, with or without the aid of some other equipment, of being reproduced;
+
+(b) in the possession or under the control of a responsible party (c) whether or not it was created by a responsible party; and (d) regardless of when it came into existence;
+
+‘‘Regulator’’ means the Information Regulator established in terms of section 39; ‘‘re-identify’’, in relation to personal information of a data subject, means to resurrect any information that has been de-identified, that—
+
+(a) identifies the data subject;
+(b) can be used or manipulated by a reasonably foreseeable method to identify the data subject; or
+(c) can be linked by a reasonably foreseeable method to other information that identifies the data subject,
+
+and ‘‘re-identified’’ has a corresponding meaning;
+
+15
+
+‘‘Republic’’ means the Republic of South Africa;
+
+‘‘responsible party’’ means a public or private body or any other person which, alone or in conjunction with others, determines the purpose of and means for processing personal information;
+
+‘‘restriction’’ means to withhold from circulation, use or publication any personal 20 information that forms part of a filing system, but not to delete or destroy such information;
+
+‘‘special personal information’’ means personal information as referred to in section 26;
+
+‘‘this Act’’ includes any regulation or code of conduct made under this Act; and 25 ‘‘unique identifier’’ means any identifier that is assigned to a data subject and is used by a responsible party for the purposes of the operations of that responsible party and that uniquely identifies that data subject in relation to that responsible party.
+
+# Purpose of Act
+
+2. The purpose of this Act is to—
+
+(a) give effect to the constitutional right to privacy, by safeguarding personal information when processed by a responsible party, subject to justifiable limitations that are aimed at— (i) balancing the right to privacy against other rights, particularly the right 35 of access to information; and (ii) protecting important interests, including the free flow of information within the Republic and across international borders;
+(b) regulate the manner in which personal information may be processed, by establishing conditions, in harmony with international standards, that 40 prescribe the minimum threshold requirements for the lawful processing of personal information; provide persons with rights and remedies to protect their personal information from processing that is not in accordance with this Act; and establish voluntary and compulsory measures, including the establishment of 45 an Information Regulator, to ensure respect for and to promote, enforce and fulfil the rights protected by this Act.
+
+# CHAPTER 2
+
+# APPLICATION PROVISIONS
+
+# Application and interpretation of Act
+
+3. (1) This Act applies to the processing of personal information— (a) entered in a record by or for a responsible party by making use of automated or non-automated means: Provided that when the recorded personal information is processed by non-automated means, it forms part of a filing system or is intended to form part thereof; and
+
+(b) where the responsible party is—
+
+(i) domiciled in the Republic; or
+(ii) not domiciled in the Republic, but makes use of automated or non-automated means in the Republic, unless those means are used only to forward personal information through the Republic.
+
+(2) (a) This Act applies, subject to paragraph (b), to the exclusion of any provision of 1 any other legislation that regulates the processing of personal information and that is materially inconsistent with an object, or a specific provision, of this Act.
+
+$(b)$ If any other legislation provides for conditions for the lawful processing of personal information that are more extensive than those set out in Chapter 3, the extensive conditions prevail.
+
+(3) This Act must be interpreted in a manner that—
+
+(a) gives effect to the purpose of the Act set out in section 2; and
+(b) does not prevent any public or private body from exercising or performing its powers, duties and functions in terms of the law as far as such powers, duties and functions relate to the processing of personal information and such processing is in accordance with this Act or any other legislation, as referred to in subsection (2), that regulates the processing of personal information.
+
+(4) ‘‘Automated means’’, for the purposes of this section, means any equipment capable of operating automatically in response to instructions given for the purpose of processing information.
+
+# Lawful processing of personal information
+
+4. (1) The conditions for the lawful processing of personal information by or for a responsible party are the following:
+
+(a) ‘‘Accountability’’, as referred to in section 8;
+(b) ‘‘Processing limitation’’, as referred to in sections 9 to 12;
+(c) ‘‘Purpose specification’’, as referred to in sections 13 and 14;
+(d) ‘‘Further processing limitation’’, as referred to in section 15;
+(e) ‘‘Information quality’’, as referred to in section 16;
+(f) ‘‘Openness’’, as referred to in sections 17 and 18;
+(g) ‘‘Security safeguards’’, as referred to in sections 19 to 22; and (h) ‘‘Data subject participation’’, as referred to in sections 23 to 25.
+
+30
+
+(2) The conditions, as referred to in subsection (1), are not applicable to th processing of personal information to the extent that such processing is—
+
+35
+
+(a) excluded, in terms of section 6 or 7, from the operation of this Act; or (b) exempted in terms of section 37 or 38, from one or more of the conditions 40 concerned in relation to such processing.
+
+(3) The processing of the special personal information of a data subject is prohibited in terms of section 26, unless the—
+
+(a) provisions of sections 27 to 33 are applicable; or (b) Regulator has granted an authorisation in terms of section 27(2), 45
+in which case, subject to section 37 or 38, the conditions for the lawful processing of
+personal information as referred to in Chapter 3 must be complied with. (4) The processing of the personal information of a child is prohibited in terms of
+section 34, unless the— (a) provisions of section 35(1) are applicable; or 50 (b) Regulator has granted an authorisation in terms of section 35(2),
+in which case, subject to section 37, the conditions for the lawful processing of personal
+information as referred to in Chapter 3 must be complied with. (5) The processing of the special personal information of a child is prohibited in terms
+of sections 26 and 34 unless the provisions of sections 27 and 35 are applicable in which 55
+
+case, subject to section 37, the conditions for the lawful processing of personal information as referred to in Chapter 3 must be complied with.
+
+(6) The conditions for the lawful processing of personal information by or for a responsible party for the purpose of direct marketing by any means are reflected in Chapter 3, read with section 69 insofar as that section relates to direct marketing by means of unsolicited electronic communications.
+
+(7) Sections 60 to 68 provide for the development, in appropriate circumstances, of codes of conduct for purposes of clarifying how the conditions referred to in subsection (1), subject to any exemptions which may have been granted in terms of section 37, are to be applied, or are to be complied with within a particular sector.
+
+# Rights of data subjects
+
+5. A data subject has the right to have his, her or its personal information processed in accordance with the conditions for the lawful processing of personal information as referred to in Chapter 3, including the right—
+
+(a) to be notified that—
+
+(i) personal information about him, her or it is being collected as provided for in terms of section 18; or
+(ii) his, her or its personal information has been accessed or acquired by an unauthorised person as provided for in terms of section 22;
+(b) to establish whether a responsible party holds personal information of that 20 data subject and to request access to his, her or its personal information as provided for in terms of section 23;
+(c) to request, where necessary, the correction, destruction or deletion of his, her or its personal information as provided for in terms of section 24;
+(d) to object, on reasonable grounds relating to his, her or its particular situation 25 to the processing of his, her or its personal information as provided for in terms of section $11(3)(a)$ ;
+(e) to object to the processing of his, her or its personal information— at any time for purposes of direct marketing in terms of section $11(3)(b)$ ; or 30 (ii) in terms of section $69(3)(c)$ ;
+$(f)$ not to have his, her or its personal information processed for purposes of direct marketing by means of unsolicited electronic communications except as referred to in section 69(1);
+(g) not to be subject, under certain circumstances, to a decision which is based 35 solely on the basis of the automated processing of his, her or its personal information intended to provide a profile of such person as provided for in terms of section 71; to submit a complaint to the Regulator regarding the alleged interference with the protection of the personal information of any data subject or to submit a 40 complaint to the Regulator in respect of a determination of an adjudicator as provided for in terms of section 74; and
+(i) to institute civil proceedings regarding the alleged interference with the protection of his, her or its personal information as provided for in section 99.
+
+# Exclusions
+
+6. (1) This Act does not apply to the processing of personal information— (a) in the course of a purely personal or household activity; $(b)$ that has been de-identified to the extent that it cannot be re-identified again; (c) by or on behalf of a public body— (i) which involves national security, including activities that are aimed at 50 assisting in the identification of the financing of terrorist and related activities, defence or public safety; or
+
+(ii) the purpose of which is the prevention, detection, including assistance in the identification of the proceeds of unlawful activities and the combating of money laundering activities, investigation or proof of offences, the prosecution of offenders or the execution of sentences or security measures,
+
+to the extent that adequate safeguards have been established in legislation for the protection of such personal information;
+(d) by the Cabinet and its committees or the Executive Council of a province; or
+(e) relating to the judicial functions of a court referred to in section 166 of the Constitution.
+
+(2) ‘‘Terrorist and related activities’’, for purposes of subsection $(1)(c)$ , means those activities referred to in section 4 of the Protection of Constitutional Democracy against Terrorist and Related Activities Act, 2004 (Act No. 33 of 2004).
+
+# Exclusion for journalistic, literary or artistic purposes
+
+7. (1) This Act does not apply to the processing of personal information solely for the 15 purpose of journalistic, literary or artistic expression to the extent that such an exclusion is necessary to reconcile, as a matter of public interest, the right to privacy with the right to freedom of expression.
+
+(2) Where a responsible party who processes personal information for exclusively journalistic purposes is, by virtue of office, employment or profession, subject to a code 20 of ethics that provides adequate safeguards for the protection of personal information, such code will apply to the processing concerned to the exclusion of this Act and any alleged interference with the protection of the personal information of a data subject that may arise as a result of such processing must be adjudicated as provided for in terms of that code. 25
+
+(3) In the event that a dispute may arise in respect of whether adequate safeguards have been provided for in a code as required in terms of subsection (2) or not, regard may be had to—
+
+(a) the special importance of the public interest in freedom of expression;
+(b) domestic and international standards balancing the— 30 (i) public interest in allowing for the free flow of information to the public through the media in recognition of the right of the public to be informed; and (ii) public interest in safeguarding the protection of personal information of data subjects; 35
+(c) the need to secure the integrity of personal information; domestic and international standards of professional integrity for journalists; and
+(e) the nature and ambit of self-regulatory forms of supervision provided by the profession. 40
+
+# CHAPTER 3
+
+# CONDITIONS FOR LAWFUL PROCESSING OF PERSONAL INFORMATION
+
+Part A
+
+Processing of personal information in general
+
+Condition 1
+
+Accountability
+
+# Responsible party to ensure conditions for lawful processing
+
+8. The responsible party must ensure that the conditions set out in this Chapter, and all the measures that give effect to such conditions, are complied with at the time of the
+
+determination of the purpose and means of the processing and during the processing itself.
+
+# Condition 2
+
+# Processing limitation
+
+# Lawfulness of processing
+
+9. Personal information must be processed—
+
+(a) lawfully; and (b) in a reasonable manner that does not infringe the privacy of the data subject.
+
+# Minimality
+
+10. Personal information may only be processed if, given the purpose for which it is 10 processed, it is adequate, relevant and not excessive.
+
+# Consent, justification and objection
+
+11. (1) Personal information may only be processed if—
+
+(a) the data subject or a competent person where the data subject is a child consents to the processing; 15
+(b) processing is necessary to carry out actions for the conclusion or performance of a contract to which the data subject is party;
+(c) processing complies with an obligation imposed by law on the responsible party;
+(d) processing protects a legitimate interest of the data subject; 20
+(e) processing is necessary for the proper performance of a public law duty by a public body; or
+$(f)$ processing is necessary for pursuing the legitimate interests of the responsible party or of a third party to whom the information is supplied.
+
+(2) (a) The responsible party bears the burden of proof for the data subject’s or 25 competent person’s consent as referred to in subsection $(1)(a)$ .
+
+$(b)$ The data subject or competent person may withdraw his, her or its consent, as referred to in subsection $(1)(a)$ , at any time: Provided that the lawfulness of the processing of personal information before such withdrawal or the processing of personal information in terms of subsection $(1)(b)$ to $(f)$ will not be affected.
+
+30
+
+(3) A data subject may object, at any time, to the processing of personal information— (a) in terms of subsection $(1)(d)$ to $(f)$ , in the prescribed manner, on reasonable grounds relating to his, her or its particular situation, unless legislation provides for such processing; or (b) for purposes of direct marketing other than direct marketing by means of 35 unsolicited electronic communications as referred to in section 69.
+
+(4) If a data subject has objected to the processing of personal information in terms of subsection (3), the responsible party may no longer process the personal information.
+
+# Collection directly from data subject
+
+12. (1) Personal information must be collected directly from the data subject, except 40 as otherwise provided for in subsection (2).
+
+(2) It is not necessary to comply with subsection (1) if—
+
+(a) the information is contained in or derived from a public record or has deliberately been made public by the data subject;
+(b) the data subject or a competent person where the data subject is a child has 45 consented to the collection of the information from another source;
+
+(c) collection of the information from another source would not prejudice a legitimate interest of the data subject;
+
+(d) collection of the information from another source is necessary—
+
+(i) to avoid prejudice to the maintenance of the law by any public body, including the prevention, detection, investigation, prosecution and punishment of offences;
+(ii) to comply with an obligation imposed by law or to enforce legislation concerning the collection of revenue as defined in section 1 of the South African Revenue Service Act, 1997 (Act No. 34 of 1997);
+(iii) for the conduct of proceedings in any court or tribunal that have 10 commenced or are reasonably contemplated;
+(iv) in the interests of national security; or
+(v) to maintain the legitimate interests of the responsible party or of a third party to whom the information is supplied;
+
+(e) compliance would prejudice a lawful purpose of the collection; or $(f)$ compliance is not reasonably practicable in the circumstances of the particular case.
+
+# Condition 3
+
+# Purpose specification
+
+# Collection for specific purpose
+
+13. (1) Personal information must be collected for a specific, explicitly defined and lawful purpose related to a function or activity of the responsible party.
+
+(2) Steps must be taken in accordance with section 18(1) to ensure that the data subject is aware of the purpose of the collection of the information unless the provisions of section 18(4) are applicable.
+
+# Retention and restriction of records
+
+14. (1) Subject to subsections (2) and (3), records of personal information must not be retained any longer than is necessary for achieving the purpose for which the information was collected or subsequently processed, unless—
+
+(a) retention of the record is required or authorised by law;
+(b) the responsible party reasonably requires the record for lawful purposes related to its functions or activities;
+(c) retention of the record is required by a contract between the parties thereto; or
+(d) the data subject or a competent person where the data subject is a child has consented to the retention of the record.
+
+(2) Records of personal information may be retained for periods in excess of those contemplated in subsection (1) for historical, statistical or research purposes if the responsible party has established appropriate safeguards against the records being used for any other purposes.
+
+(3) A responsible party that has used a record of personal information of a data subject 40 to make a decision about the data subject, must—
+
+(a) retain the record for such period as may be required or prescribed by law or a code of conduct; or
+(b) if there is no law or code of conduct prescribing a retention period, retain the record for a period which will afford the data subject a reasonable opportunity, 45 taking all considerations relating to the use of the personal information into account, to request access to the record.
+
+(4) A responsible party must destroy or delete a record of personal information or de-identify it as soon as reasonably practicable after the responsible party is no longer authorised to retain the record in terms of subsection (1) or (2).
+
+(5) The destruction or deletion of a record of personal information in terms of subsection (4) must be done in a manner that prevents its reconstruction in an intelligible form.
+
+(6) The responsible party must restrict processing of personal information if—
+
+(a) its accuracy is contested by the data subject, for a period enabling the 5 responsible party to verify the accuracy of the information;
+(b) the responsible party no longer needs the personal information for achieving the purpose for which the information was collected or subsequently processed, but it has to be maintained for purposes of proof;
+(c) the processing is unlawful and the data subject opposes its destruction or 10 deletion and requests the restriction of its use instead; or
+(d) the data subject requests to transmit the personal data into another automated processing system.
+
+(7) Personal information referred to in subsection (6) may, with the exception of storage, only be processed for purposes of proof, or with the data subject’s consent, or 15 with the consent of a competent person in respect of a child, or for the protection of the rights of another natural or legal person or if such processing is in the public interest.
+
+(8) Where processing of personal information is restricted pursuant to subsection (6), the responsible party must inform the data subject before lifting the restriction on processing.
+
+# Condition 4
+
+# Further processing limitation
+
+# Further processing to be compatible with purpose of collection
+
+15. (1) Further processing of personal information must be in accordance or compatible with the purpose for which it was collected in terms of section 13. 2
+
+(2) To assess whether further processing is compatible with the purpose of collection, the responsible party must take account of—
+
+(a) the relationship between the purpose of the intended further processing and the purpose for which the information has been collected; (b) the nature of the information concerned; (c) the consequences of the intended further processing for the data subject; (d) the manner in which the information has been collected; and (e) any contractual rights and obligations between the parties.
+
+(3) The further processing of personal information is not incompatible with the purpose of collection if— 3
+
+(a) the data subject or a competent person where the data subject is a child has consented to the further processing of the information;
+(b) the information is available in or derived from a public record or has deliberately been made public by the data subject;
+
+(c) further processing is necessary—
+
+40
+
+(i) to avoid prejudice to the maintenance of the law by any public body including the prevention, detection, investigation, prosecution and punishment of offences;
+(ii) to comply with an obligation imposed by law or to enforce legislation concerning the collection of revenue as defined in section 1 of the South 45 African Revenue Service Act, 1997 (Act No. 34 of 1997);
+(iii) for the conduct of proceedings in any court or tribunal that have commenced or are reasonably contemplated; or
+(iv) in the interests of national security;
+
+(d) the further processing of the information is necessary to prevent or mitigate a 50 serious and imminent threat to— (i) public health or public safety; or (ii) the life or health of the data subject or another individual;
+
+(e) the information is used for historical, statistical or research purposes and the responsible party ensures that the further processing is carried out solely for such purposes and will not be published in an identifiable form; or
+$(f)$ the further processing of the information is in accordance with an exemption granted under section 37.
+
+# Condition 5
+
+# Information quality
+
+# Quality of information
+
+16. (1) A responsible party must take reasonably practicable steps to ensure that the personal information is complete, accurate, not misleading and updated where 10 necessary. (2) In taking the steps referred to in subsection (1), the responsible party must have regard to the purpose for which personal information is collected or further processed.
+
+# Condition 6
+
+# Openness
+
+# Documentation
+
+17. A responsible party must maintain the documentation of all processing operations under its responsibility as referred to in section 14 or 51 of the Promotion of Access to Information Act.
+
+# Notification to data subject when collecting personal information
+
+18. (1) If personal information is collected, the responsible party must take reasonably practicable steps to ensure that the data subject is aware of—
+
+(a) the information being collected and where the information is not collected from the data subject, the source from which it is collected;
+(b) the name and address of the responsible party; 25
+(c) the purpose for which the information is being collected;
+(d) whether or not the supply of the information by that data subject is voluntary or mandatory;
+(e) the consequences of failure to provide the information;
+$(f)$ any particular law authorising or requiring the collection of the information; 30
+(g) the fact that, where applicable, the responsible party intends to transfer the information to a third country or international organisation and the level of protection afforded to the information by that third country or international organisation;
+(h) any further information such as the— 35 (i) recipient or category of recipients of the information; (ii) nature or category of the information; (iii) existence of the right of access to and the right to rectify the information collected; (iv) existence of the right to object to the processing of personal information 40 as referred to in section 11(3); and (v) right to lodge a complaint to the Information Regulator and the contact details of the Information Regulator,
+
+which is necessary, having regard to the specific circumstances in which the information is or is not to be processed, to enable processing in respect of the 45 data subject to be reasonable.
+
+(2) The steps referred to in subsection (1) must be taken— (a) if the personal information is collected directly from the data subject, before the information is collected, unless the data subject is already aware of the information referred to in that subsection; or
+
+(b) in any other case, before the information is collected or as soon as reasonably practicable after it has been collected.
+
+(3) A responsible party that has previously taken the steps referred to in subsection (1) complies with subsection (1) in relation to the subsequent collection from the data subject of the same information or information of the same kind if the purpose of collection of the information remains the same.
+
+(4) It is not necessary for a responsible party to comply with subsection (1) if— (a) the data subject or a competent person where the data subject is a child has provided consent for the non-compliance; (b) non-compliance would not prejudice the legitimate interests of the data 10 subject as set out in terms of this Act; (c) non-compliance is necessary— (i) to avoid prejudice to the maintenance of the law by any public body, including the prevention, detection, investigation, prosecution and punishment of offences; 15 (ii) to comply with an obligation imposed by law or to enforce legislation concerning the collection of revenue as defined in section 1 of the South African Revenue Service Act, 1997 (Act No. 34 of 1997); (iii) for the conduct of proceedings in any court or tribunal that have been commenced or are reasonably contemplated; or 20 (iv) in the interests of national security; compliance would prejudice a lawful purpose of the collection; (e) compliance is not reasonably practicable in the circumstances of the particular case; or $(f)$ the information will— 25 (i) not be used in a form in which the data subject may be identified; or (ii) be used for historical, statistical or research purposes.
+
+# Condition 7
+
+# Security Safeguards
+
+# Security measures on integrity and confidentiality of personal information
+
+19. (1) A responsible party must secure the integrity and confidentiality of personal information in its possession or under its control by taking appropriate, reasonable technical and organisational measures to prevent—
+
+(a) loss of, damage to or unauthorised destruction of personal information; and $(b)$ unlawful access to or processing of personal information. 35 (2) In order to give effect to subsection (1), the responsible party must take reasonable measures to— (a) identify all reasonably foreseeable internal and external risks to personal information in its possession or under its control; (b) establish and maintain appropriate safeguards against the risks identified; 40 (c) regularly verify that the safeguards are effectively implemented; and (d) ensure that the safeguards are continually updated in response to new risks or deficiencies in previously implemented safeguards.
+
+(3) The responsible party must have due regard to generally accepted information security practices and procedures which may apply to it generally or be required in terms 45 of specific industry or professional rules and regulations.
+
+# formation processed by operator or person acting under authori
+
+20. An operator or anyone processing personal information on behalf of a responsible party or an operator, must—
+
+(a) process such information only with the knowledge or authorisation of the responsible party; and
+(b) treat personal information which comes to their knowledge as confidential and must not disclose it,
+
+unless required by law or in the course of the proper performance of their duties.
+
+# Security measures regarding information processed by operator
+
+21. (1) A responsible party must, in terms of a written contract between the 10 responsible party and the operator, ensure that the operator which processes personal information for the responsible party establishes and maintains the security measures referred to in section 19.
+
+(2) The operator must notify the responsible party immediately where there are reasonable grounds to believe that the personal information of a data subject has been 15 accessed or acquired by any unauthorised person.
+
+# Notification of security compromises
+
+22. (1) Where there are reasonable grounds to believe that the personal information of a data subject has been accessed or acquired by any unauthorised person, the responsible party must notify—
+
+(a) the Regulator; and
+(b) subject to subsection (3), the data subject, unless the identity of such data subject cannot be established.
+
+(2) The notification referred to in subsection (1) must be made as soon as reasonably possible after the discovery of the compromise, taking into account the legitimate needs 25 of law enforcement or any measures reasonably necessary to determine the scope of the compromise and to restore the integrity of the responsible party’s information system.
+
+(3) The responsible party may only delay notification of the data subject if a public body responsible for the prevention, detection or investigation of offences or the Regulator determines that notification will impede a criminal investigation by the public 30 body concerned.
+
+(4) The notification to a data subject referred to in subsection (1) must be in writing and communicated to the data subject in at least one of the following ways:
+
+35
+
+(a) Mailed to the data subject’s last known physical or postal address;
+(b) sent by e-mail to the data subject’s last known e-mail address;
+(c) placed in a prominent position on the website of the responsible party;
+(d) published in the news media; or (e) as may be directed by the Regulator.
+
+(5) The notification referred to in subsection (1) must provide sufficient information to allow the data subject to take protective measures against the potential consequences 40 of the compromise, including—
+
+(a) a description of the possible consequences of the security compromise;
+(b) a description of the measures that the responsible party intends to take or has taken to address the security compromise;
+(c) a recommendation with regard to the measures to be taken by the data subject 45 to mitigate the possible adverse effects of the security compromise; and
+(d) if known to the responsible party, the identity of the unauthorised person who may have accessed or acquired the personal information.
+
+(6) The Regulator may direct a responsible party to publicise, in any manner specified, the fact of any compromise to the integrity or confidentiality of personal 50 information, if the Regulator has reasonable grounds to believe that such publicity would protect a data subject who may be affected by the compromise.
+
+# Condition 8
+
+# Data subject participation
+
+# Access to personal information
+
+23. (1) A data subject, having provided adequate proof of identity, has the right to— (a) request a responsible party to confirm, free of charge, whether or not the responsible party holds personal information about the data subject; and (b) request from a responsible party the record or a description of the personal information about the data subject held by the responsible party, including information about the identity of all third parties, or categories of third parties, who have, or have had, access to the information— (i) within a reasonable time; (ii) at a prescribed fee, if any; (iii) in a reasonable manner and format; and (iv) in a form that is generally understandable.
+
+15
+
+(2) If, in response to a request in terms of subsection (1), personal information is communicated to a data subject, the data subject must be advised of the right in terms of section 24 to request the correction of information.
+
+(3) If a data subject is required by a responsible party to pay a fee for services 20 provided to the data subject in terms of subsection $(1)(b)$ to enable the responsible party to respond to a request, the responsible party—
+
+(a) must give the applicant a written estimate of the fee before providing the services; and (b) may require the applicant to pay a deposit for all or part of the fee. 25 (4) (a) A responsible party may or must refuse, as the case may be, to disclose any information requested in terms of subsection (1) to which the grounds for refusal of access to records set out in the applicable sections of Chapter 4 of Part 2 and Chapter 4 of Part 3 of the Promotion of Access to Information Act apply. $(b)$ The provisions of sections 30 and 61 of the Promotion of Access to Information 30 Act are applicable in respect of access to health or other records. (5) If a request for access to personal information is made to a responsible party and part of that information may or must be refused in terms of subsection $(4)(a)$ , every other part must be disclosed.
+
+# Correction of personal information
+
+24. (1) A data subject may, in the prescribed manner, request a responsible party to— (a) correct or delete personal information about the data subject in its possession or under its control that is inaccurate, irrelevant, excessive, out of date, incomplete, misleading or obtained unlawfully; or (b) destroy or delete a record of personal information about the data subject that 4 the responsible party is no longer authorised to retain in terms of section 14.
+
+(2) On receipt of a request in terms of subsection (1) a responsible party must, as soon as reasonably practicable—
+
+(a) correct the information;
+(b) destroy or delete the information;
+(c) provide the data subject, to his or her satisfaction, with credible evidence in support of the information; or
+
+(d) where agreement cannot be reached between the responsible party and the data subject, and if the data subject so requests, take such steps as are reasonable in the circumstances, to attach to the information in such a manner that it will always be read with the information, an indication that a correction of the information has been requested but has not been made.
+
+(3) If the responsible party has taken steps under subsection (2) that result in a change to the information and the changed information has an impact on decisions that have been or will be taken in respect of the data subject in question, the responsible party must, if reasonably practicable, inform each person or body or responsible party to whom the personal information has been disclosed of those steps.
+
+(4) The responsible party must notify a data subject, who has made a request in terms of subsection (1), of the action taken as a result of the request.
+
+# Manner of access
+
+25. The provisions of sections 18 and 53 of the Promotion of Access to Information Act apply to requests made in terms of section 23 of this Act.
+
+# Part B
+
+# Processing of special personal information
+
+# Prohibition on processing of special personal information
+
+26. A responsible party may, subject to section 27, not process personal information concerning— 20
+
+(a) the religious or philosophical beliefs, race or ethnic origin, trade union membership, political persuasion, health or sex life or biometric information of a data subject; or
+(b) the criminal behaviour of a data subject to the extent that such information relates to— 25 (i) the alleged commission by a data subject of any offence; or (ii) any proceedings in respect of any offence allegedly committed by a data subject or the disposal of such proceedings.
+
+# General authorisation concerning special personal information
+
+27. (1) The prohibition on processing personal information, as referred to in section 30 26, does not apply if the—
+
+(a) processing is carried out with the consent of a data subject referred to in section 26;
+(b) processing is necessary for the establishment, exercise or defence of a right or obligation in law; 35
+(c) processing is necessary to comply with an obligation of international public law;
+(d) processing is for historical, statistical or research purposes to the extent that— (i) the purpose serves a public interest and the processing is necessary for the purpose concerned; or 40 (ii) it appears to be impossible or would involve a disproportionate effort to ask for consent, and sufficient guarantees are provided for to ensure that the processing does not adversely affect the individual privacy of the data subject to a disproportionate extent; 45
+(e) information has deliberately been made public by the data subject; or
+$(f)$ provisions of sections 28 to 33 are, as the case may be, complied with.
+
+(2) The Regulator may, subject to subsection (3), upon application by a responsible party and by notice in the Gazette, authorise a responsible party to process special personal information if such processing is in the public interest and appropriate safeguards have been put in place to protect the personal information of the data subject.
+
+(3) The Regulator may impose reasonable conditions in respect of any authorisation granted under subsection (2).
+
+# Authorisation concerning data subject’s religious or philosophical beliefs
+
+28. (1) The prohibition on processing personal information concerning a data subject’s religious or philosophical beliefs, as referred to in section 26, does not apply if the processing is carried out by—
+
+(a) spiritual or religious organisations, or independent sections of those organisations if— (i) the information concerns data subjects belonging to those organisations; or (ii) it is necessary to achieve their aims and principles;
+(b) institutions founded on religious or philosophical principles with respect to their members or employees or other persons belonging to the institution, if it 15 is necessary to achieve their aims and principles; or
+(c) other institutions: Provided that the processing is necessary to protect the spiritual welfare of the data subjects, unless they have indicated that they object to the processing.
+
+(2) In the cases referred to in subsection $(1)(a)$ , the prohibition does not apply to 2 processing of personal information concerning the religion or philosophy of life of family members of the data subjects, if—
+
+(a) the association concerned maintains regular contact with those family members in connection with its aims; and (b) the family members have not objected in writing to the processing.
+
+(3) In the cases referred to in subsections (1) and (2), personal information concerning a data subject’s religious or philosophical beliefs may not be supplied to third parties without the consent of the data subject.
+
+# Authorisation concerning data subject’s race or ethnic origin
+
+29. The prohibition on processing personal information concerning a data subject’s 30 race or ethnic origin, as referred to in section 26, does not apply if the processing is carried out to—
+
+(a) identify data subjects and only when this is essential for that purpose; and (b) comply with laws and other measures designed to protect or advance persons, or categories of persons, disadvantaged by unfair discrimination.
+
+# Authorisation concerning data subject’s trade union membership
+
+30. (1) The prohibition on processing personal information concerning a data subject’s trade union membership, as referred to in section 26, does not apply to the processing by the trade union to which the data subject belongs or the trade union federation to which that trade union belongs, if such processing is necessary to achieve 4 the aims of the trade union or trade union federation.
+
+(2) In the cases referred to under subsection (1), no personal information may be supplied to third parties without the consent of the data subject.
+
+# Authorisation concerning data subject’s political persuasion
+
+31. (1) The prohibition on processing personal information concerning a data 45 subject’s political persuasion, as referred to in section 26, does not apply to processing by or for an institution, founded on political principles, of the personal information of—
+
+(a) its members or employees or other persons belonging to the institution, if such processing is necessary to achieve the aims or principles of the institution; or (b) a data subject if such processing is necessary for the purposes of—
+
+42
+
+(i) forming a political party;
+(ii) participating in the activities of, or engaging in the recruitment of members for or canvassing supporters or voters for, a political party with the view to— (aa) an election of the National Assembly or the provincial legislature as regulated in terms of the Electoral Act, 1998 (Act No. 73 of 1998); (bb) municipal elections as regulated in terms of the Local Government: Municipal Electoral Act, 2000 (Act No. 27 of 2000); or (cc) a referendum as regulated in terms of the Referendums Act, 1983 (Act No. 108 of 1983); or
+
+(iii) campaigning for a political party or cause.
+
+(2) In the cases referred to under subsection (1), no personal information may be supplied to third parties without the consent of the data subject.
+
+# Authorisation concerning data subject’s health or sex life
+
+32. (1) The prohibition on processing personal information concerning a data 15 subject’s health or sex life, as referred to in section 26, does not apply to the processing by—
+
+(a) medical professionals, healthcare institutions or facilities or social services, if such processing is necessary for the proper treatment and care of the data subject, or for the administration of the institution or professional practice 20 concerned;
+(b) insurance companies, medical schemes, medical scheme administrators and managed healthcare organisations, if such processing is necessary for— (i) assessing the risk to be insured by the insurance company or covered by the medical scheme and the data subject has not objected to the 25 processing; (ii) the performance of an insurance or medical scheme agreement; or the enforcement of any contractual rights and obligations;
+(c) schools, if such processing is necessary to provide special support for pupils or making special arrangements in connection with their health or sex life; 30
+(d) any public or private body managing the care of a child if such processing is necessary for the performance of their lawful duties;
+(e) any public body, if such processing is necessary in connection with the implementation of prison sentences or detention measures; or
+$(f)$ administrative bodies, pension funds, employers or institutions working for 35 them, if such processing is necessary for— (i) the implementation of the provisions of laws, pension regulations or collective agreements which create rights dependent on the health or sex life of the data subject; or (ii) the reintegration of or support for workers or persons entitled to benefit 40 in connection with sickness or work incapacity.
+
+(2) In the cases referred to under subsection (1), the information may only be processed by responsible parties subject to an obligation of confidentiality by virtue of office, employment, profession or legal provision, or established by a written agreement between the responsible party and the data subject.
+
+(3) A responsible party that is permitted to process information concerning a data subject’s health or sex life in terms of this section and is not subject to an obligation of confidentiality by virtue of office, profession or legal provision, must treat the information as confidential, unless the responsible party is required by law or in connection with their duties to communicate the information to other parties who are authorised to process such information in accordance with subsection (1).
+
+(4) The prohibition on processing any of the categories of personal information referred to in section 26, does not apply if it is necessary to supplement the processing of personal information concerning a data subject’s health, as referred to under subsection $(1)(a)$ , with a view to the proper treatment or care of the data subject.
+
+(5) Personal information concerning inherited characteristics may not be processed in respect of a data subject from whom the information concerned has been obtained, unless—
+
+$(a)$ a serious medical interest prevails; or $(b)$ the processing is necessary for historical, statistical or research activity. (6) More detailed rules may be prescribed concerning the application of subsection $(1)(b)$ and $(f)$ .
+
+# Authorisation concerning data subject’s criminal behaviour or biometric informa- 10 tion
+
+33. (1) The prohibition on processing personal information concerning a data subject’s criminal behaviour or biometric information, as referred to in section 26, does not apply if the processing is carried out by bodies charged by law with applying criminal law or by responsible parties who have obtained that information in accordance 15 with the law. (2) The processing of information concerning personnel in the service of the responsible party must take place in accordance with the rules established in compliance with labour legislation. (3) The prohibition on processing any of the categories of personal information 2 referred to in section 26 does not apply if such processing is necessary to supplement the processing of information on criminal behaviour or biometric information permitted by this section.
+
+# Part C
+
+# Processing of personal information of children
+
+# Prohibition on processing personal information of children
+
+34. A responsible party may, subject to section 35, not process personal information concerning a child.
+
+# General authorisation concerning personal information of children
+
+35. (1) The prohibition on processing personal information of children, as referred to 30 in section 34, does not apply if the processing is—
+
+(a) carried out with the prior consent of a competent person;
+(b) necessary for the establishment, exercise or defence of a right or obligation in law;
+(c) necessary to comply with an obligation of international public law; 35
+(d) for historical, statistical or research purposes to the extent that— (i) the purpose serves a public interest and the processing is necessary for the purpose concerned; or (ii) it appears to be impossible or would involve a disproportionate effort to ask for consent, 40 and sufficient guarantees are provided for to ensure that the processing does not adversely affect the individual privacy of the child to a disproportionate extent; or
+(e) of personal information which has deliberately been made public by the child with the consent of a competent person. 45
+
+(2) The Regulator may, notwithstanding the prohibition referred to in section 34, but subject to subsection (3), upon application by a responsible party and by notice in the Gazette, authorise a responsible party to process the personal information of children if the processing is in the public interest and appropriate safeguards have been put in place to protect the personal information of the child.
+
+(3) The Regulator may impose reasonable conditions in respect of any authorisation granted under subsection (2), including conditions with regard to how a responsible party must—
+
+(a) upon request of a competent person provide a reasonable means for that person to—
+
+(i) review the personal information processed; and (ii) refuse to permit its further processing;
+
+(b) provide notice—
+
+(i) regarding the nature of the personal information of children that is processed; (ii) how such information is processed; and (iii) regarding any further processing practices;
+
+(c) refrain from any action that is intended to encourage or persuade a child to 10 disclose more personal information about him- or herself than is reasonably necessary given the purpose for which it is intended; and
+(d) establish and maintain reasonable procedures to protect the integrity and confidentiality of the personal information collected from children.
+
+# CHAPTER 4
+
+# EXEMPTION FROM CONDITIONS FOR PROCESSING OF PERSONAL INFORMATION
+
+# General
+
+36. Processing of personal information is not in breach of a condition for the processing of such information if the—
+
+(a) Regulator grants an exemption in terms of section 37; or (b) processing is in accordance with section 38.
+
+# Regulator may exempt processing of personal information
+
+37. (1) The Regulator may, by notice in the Gazette, grant an exemption to a responsible party to process personal information, even if that processing is in breach of 25 a condition for the processing of such information, or any measure that gives effect to such condition, if the Regulator is satisfied that, in the circumstances of the case—
+
+(a) the public interest in the processing outweighs, to a substantial degree, any interference with the privacy of the data subject that could result from such processing; or
+(b) the processing involves a clear benefit to the data subject or a third party that outweighs, to a substantial degree, any interference with the privacy of the data subject or third party that could result from such processing.
+
+(2) The public interest referred to in subsection (1) includes—
+
+35
+
+(a) the interests of national security;
+(b) the prevention, detection and prosecution of offences;
+(c) important economic and financial interests of a public body;
+(d) fostering compliance with legal provisions established in the interests referred to under paragraphs $(b)$ and $(c)$ ;
+(e) historical, statistical or research activity; or
+$(f)$ the special importance of the interest in freedom of expression.
+
+40
+
+(3) The Regulator may impose reasonable conditions in respect of any exemption granted under subsection (1).
+
+# Exemption in respect of certain functions
+
+38. (1) Personal information processed for the purpose of discharging a relevant 45 function is exempt from sections 11(3) and (4), 12, 15 and 18 in any case to the extent to which the application of those provisions to the personal information would be likely to prejudice the proper discharge of that function.
+
+(2) ‘‘Relevant function’’ for purposes of subsection (1), means any function— (a) of a public body; or
+
+(b) conferred on any person in terms of the law, which is performed with the view to protecting members of the public against—
+
+(i) financial loss due to dishonesty, malpractice or other seriously improper conduct by, or the unfitness or incompetence of, persons concerned in the provision of banking, insurance, investment or other financial services or in the management of bodies corporate; or
+(ii) dishonesty, malpractice or other seriously improper conduct by, or the unfitness or incompetence of, persons authorised to carry on any profession or other activity.
+
+# CHAPTER 5
+
+# SUPERVISION
+
+# Part A
+
+# Information Regulator
+
+# Establishment of Information Regulator
+
+39. There is hereby established a juristic person to be known as the Information 15 Regulator, which—
+
+(a) has jurisdiction throughout the Republic;
+(b) is independent and is subject only to the Constitution and to the law and must be impartial and perform its functions and exercise its powers without fear, favour or prejudice; 20
+(c) must exercise its powers and perform its functions in accordance with this Act and the Promotion of Access to Information Act; and
+(d) is accountable to the National Assembly.
+
+# Powers, duties and functions of Regulator
+
+40. (1) The powers, duties and functions of the Regulator in terms of this Act are— 25 (a) to provide education by—
+
+(i) promoting an understanding and acceptance of the conditions for the lawful processing of personal information and of the objects of those conditions;
+(ii) undertaking educational programmes, for the purpose of promoting the 30 protection of personal information, on the Regulator’s own behalf or in co-operation with other persons or authorities acting on behalf of the Regulator;
+(iii) making public statements in relation to any matter affecting the protection of the personal information of a data subject or of any class of 35 data subjects;
+(iv) giving advice to data subjects in the exercise of their rights; and
+(v) providing advice, upon request or on its own initiative, to a Minister or a public or private body on their obligations under the provisions, and generally on any matter relevant to the operation, of this Act; 40
+
+(b) to monitor and enforce compliance by—
+
+(i) public and private bodies with the provisions of this Act;
+(ii) undertaking research into, and monitoring developments in, information processing and computer technology to ensure that any adverse effects of such developments on the protection of the personal information of data subjects are minimised, and reporting to the Minister the results of such research and monitoring;
+(iii) examining any proposed legislation, including subordinate legislation, or proposed policy of the Government that the Regulator considers may
+
+affect the protection of the personal information of data subjects, and
+
+reporting to the Minister the results of that examination; (iv) reporting upon request or on its own accord, to Parliament from time to time on any policy matter affecting the protection of the personal information of a data subject, including the need for, or desirability of, taking legislative, administrative, or other action to give protection or better protection to the personal information of a data subject; submitting a report to Parliament, within five months of the end of its financial year, on all its activities in terms of this Act during that financial year; (vi) conducting an assessment, on its own initiative or when requested to do so, of a public or private body, in respect of the processing of personal information by that body for the purpose of ascertaining whether or not the information is processed according to the conditions for the lawful processing of personal information;
+(vii) monitoring the use of unique identifiers of data subjects, and reporting to Parliament from time to time on the results of that monitoring, including any recommendation relating to the need of, or desirability of taking, legislative, administrative, or other action to give protection, or better protection, to the personal information of a data subject;
+(viii) maintaining, publishing and making available and providing copies of such registers as are prescribed in this Act; and (ix) examining any proposed legislation that makes provision for the— (aa) collection of personal information by any public or private body; or (bb) disclosure of personal information by one public or private body to any other public or private body, or both, to have particular regard, in the course of that examination, to the matters set out in section 44(2), in any case where the Regulator considers that the information might be used for the purposes of an information matching programme, and reporting to the Minister and Parliament the results of that examination;
+
+(c) to consult with interested parties by—
+
+(i) receiving and inviting representations from members of the public on 35 any matter affecting the personal information of a data subject;
+(ii) co-operating on a national and international basis with other persons and bodies concerned with the protection of personal information; and
+(iii) acting as mediator between opposing parties on any matter that concerns the need for, or the desirability of, action by a responsible party in the 40 interests of the protection of the personal information of a data subject;
+
+(d) to handle complaints by—
+
+(i) receiving and investigating complaints about alleged violations of the protection of personal information of data subjects and reporting to complainants in respect of such complaints; 45
+(ii) gathering such information as in the Regulator’s opinion will assist the Regulator in discharging the duties and carrying out the Regulator’s functions under this Act;
+(iii) attempting to resolve complaints by means of dispute resolution mechanisms such as mediation and conciliation; and 50
+(iv) serving any notices in terms of this Act and further promoting the resolution of disputes in accordance with the prescripts of this Act;
+
+(e) to conduct research and to report to Parliament—
+
+(i) from time to time on the desirability of the acceptance, by South Africa, of any international instrument relating to the protection of the personal information of a data subject; and
+(ii) on any other matter, including necessary legislative amendments, relating to protection of personal information that, in the Regulator’s opinion, should be drawn to Parliament’s attention;
+
+(f) in respect of codes of conduct to—
+
+(i) issue, from time to time, codes of conduct, amend codes and to revoke codes of conduct;
+(ii) make guidelines to assist bodies to develop codes of conduct or to apply codes of conduct; and
+(iii) consider afresh, upon application, determinations by adjudicators under approved codes of conduct;
+
+(g) to facilitate cross-border cooperation in the enforcement of privacy laws by 15 participating in any initiative that is aimed at such cooperation; and (h) in general to—
+
+(i) do anything incidental or conducive to the performance of any of the preceding functions;
+(ii) exercise and perform such other functions, powers, and duties as are 20 conferred or imposed on the Regulator by or under this Act or any other legislation;
+(iii) require the responsible party to disclose to any person affected by a compromise to the integrity or confidentiality of personal information, such compromise in accordance with section 22; and 25
+(iv) exercise the powers conferred upon the Regulator by this Act in matters relating to the access of information as provided by the Promotion of Access to Information Act.
+
+(2) The Regulator may, from time to time, in the public interest or in the legitimate interests of any person or body of persons, publish reports relating generally to the 30 exercise of the Regulator’s functions under this Act or to any case or cases investigated by the Regulator, whether or not the matters to be dealt with in any such report have been the subject of a report to the Minister.
+
+(3) The provisions of sections 3 and 4 of the Commissions Act, 1947 (Act No. 8 of 1947), will apply, with the necessary changes, to the Regulator. (4) The powers and duties of the Regulator in terms of the Promotion of Access to Information Act are set out in Parts 4 and 5 of that Act.
+
+# Appointment, term of office and removal of members of Regulator
+
+41. (1) (a) The Regulator consists of the following members:
+
+(i) A Chairperson; and 40 (ii) four other persons, as ordinary members of the Regulator. (b) Members of the Regulator must be appropriately qualified, fit and proper persons— (i) at least one of whom must be appointed on account of experience as a practising advocate or attorney or a professor of law at a university; and 45 (ii) the remainder of whom must be appointed on account of any other qualifications, expertise and experience relating to the objects of the Regulator.
+
+(c) The Chairperson of the Regulator must be appointed in a full-time capacity and may, subject to subsection (4), not perform or undertake to perform any other 50 remunerative work during the period in which he or she holds office as Chairperson.
+
+(d) The ordinary members of the Regulator must be appointed as follows: (i) Two ordinary members in a full-time capacity; and (ii) two ordinary members in a full-time or part-time capacity. (e) The members referred to in paragraph (d) who are appointed in a full-time 55 capacity, may, subject to subsection (4), not perform or undertake to perform any other remunerative work during the period in which they hold office.
+
+(f) The Chairperson must direct the work of the Regulator and the staff of the Regulator.
+
+(g) A person may not be appointed as a member of the Regulator if he or she—
+
+(i) is not a citizen of the Republic; (ii) is a public servant;
+(iii) is a member of Parliament, any provincial legislature or any municipal council;
+(iv) is an office-bearer or employee of any political party; (v) is an unrehabilitated insolvent;
+(vi) has been declared by a court to be mentally ill or unfit; or
+(vii) has at any time been convicted, whether in the Republic or elsewhere, of any offence involving dishonesty.
+
+(2) (a) The Chairperson and the members of the Regulator referred to in subsection (1)(a) must be appointed by the President on the recommendation of the National Assembly, which recommendation must also indicate which ordinary members must be 15 appointed in a full-time or part-time capacity.
+
+(b) The National Assembly must recommend persons— nominated by a committee of the Assembly composed of members of parties represented in the Assembly; and (ii) approved by the Assembly by a resolution adopted with a supporting vote of 20 a majority of the members of the Assembly.
+
+(3) The members of the Regulator will be appointed for a period of not more than five years and will, at the expiration of such period, be eligible for reappointment.
+
+(4) The Chairperson of the Regulator or a member who has been appointed in a full-time capacity may, notwithstanding the provisions of subsection $(1)(c)$ or $(e)$ , only 25 perform or undertake to perform any other remunerative work during the period that he or she holds office as Chairperson or member with the prior written consent of the Minister.
+
+(5) A person appointed as a member of the Regulator may, upon written notice to the President, resign from office.
+
+30
+
+(6) (a) A member may be removed from office only on— (i) the ground of misconduct, incapacity or incompetence; (ii) a finding to that effect by a committee of the National Assembly; and (iii) the adoption by the National Assembly of a resolution calling for that person’s removal from office.
+
+(b) A resolution of the National Assembly concerning the removal from office of a member of the Regulator must be adopted with a supporting vote of a majority of the members of the Assembly.
+
+(c) The President—
+
+(i) may suspend a member from office at any time after the start of the 40 proceedings of a committee of the National Assembly for the removal of that member; and
+(ii) must remove a member from office upon adoption by the Assembly of the resolution calling for that member’s removal.
+
+# Vacancies
+
+42. (1) A vacancy in the Regulator occurs if a member—
+
+becomes subject to a disqualification referred to in section $41(1)(g)$ ; (b) tenders his or her resignation as contemplated in section 41(5) and the resignation takes effect; (c) is removed from office in terms of section 41(6); (d) dies; or (e) becomes permanently incapable of doing his or her work. (2) (a) Where a vacancy has arisen as contemplated in subsection (1), the procedure contemplated in section 41(2) applies. $(b)$ Any member appointed under this subsection holds office for the rest of the period 55 of the predecessor’s term of office, unless the President, upon recommendation by the National Assembly, appoints that member for a longer period which may not exceed five years.
+
+# Powers, duties and functions of Chairperson and other members
+
+43. (1) The Chairperson—
+
+(a) must exercise the powers and perform the duties and functions conferred on or assigned to him or her by the Regulator in terms of this Act and the Promotion of Access to Information Act; and
+(b) is, for the purposes of exercising the powers and performing the duties and functions conferred on or assigned to him or her by the Regulator in terms of this Act and the Promotion of Access to Information Act, accountable to the Regulator.
+
+(2) (a) The members referred to in section 41(1)(d)(i) must exercise their powers and 10 perform their duties and functions as follows: (i) One member in terms of this Act; and (ii) one member in terms of the Promotion of Access to Information Act. $(b)$ The members referred to in section $41(1)(d)$ (ii) must exercise their powers and perform their duties and functions either in terms of this Act or the Promotion of Access 15 to Information Act, or both. (c) The members, referred to in paragraphs (a) and $(b)$ , are, for the purposes of exercising their powers and performing their duties and functions, accountable to the Chairperson.
+
+# Regulator to have regard to certain matters
+
+44. (1) In the performance of its functions, and the exercise of its powers, under this Act the Regulator must—
+
+(a) have due regard to the conditions for the lawful processing of personal information as referred to in Chapter 3;
+(b) have due regard for the protection of all human rights and social interests that 25 compete with privacy, including the general desirability of a free flow of information and the recognition of the legitimate interests of public and private bodies in achieving their objectives in an efficient way;
+(c) take account of international obligations accepted by South Africa; and
+(d) consider any developing general international guidelines relevant to the better 30 protection of individual privacy.
+
+(2) In performing its functions in terms of section $40(1)(b)(\mathrm{ix})(b b)$ with regard to information matching programmes, the Regulator must have particular regard to whether or not the—
+
+(a) objective of the programme relates to a matter of significant public 35 importance;
+(b) use of the programme to achieve that objective will result in monetary savings that are both significant and quantifiable or in other comparable benefits to society;
+(c) use of an alternative means of achieving that objective would give either of the 40 results referred to in paragraph $(b)$ ;
+(d) public interest in allowing the programme to proceed outweighs the public interest in adhering to the conditions for the lawful processing of personal information that the programme would otherwise contravene; and
+(e) programme involves information matching on a scale that is excessive, having 45 regard to— (i) the number of responsible parties or operators that will be involved in the programme; and (ii) the amount of detail about a data subject that will be matched under the programme. 50
+
+(3) In determining whether the processing of personal information for exclusively journalistic purposes by a responsible party who is, by virtue of office, employment or profession, not subject to a code of ethics as referred to in section 7(1), constitutes an interference with the protection of the personal information of the data subject in terms of section 73, the Regulator must have particular regard to the factors referred to in 55 section $7(3)(a)$ to $(d)$ .
+
+# Conflict of interest
+
+45. (1) If any member of the Regulator or any person appointed by the Regulator in terms of this Act has a material interest in any matter which could conflict with the proper performance of his or her duties in terms of this Act or the Promotion of Access to Information Act, he or she must disclose that interest, as prescribed, as soon as practicable after the relevant facts came to his or her knowledge.
+
+(2) (a) If a member of the Regulator or person referred to in subsection (1)— (i) is present at a meeting of the Regulator or committee referred to in section 49 or 50 at which a matter contemplated in that subsection is to be considered, the member or person concerned must disclose the nature of his or her interest to the meeting before the matter is considered; or (ii) fails to make a disclosure as required by this subsection and is present at a meeting of the Regulator or committee, as the case may be, or in any other manner participates in the proceedings, such proceedings in relation to the relevant matter must, as soon as the non-disclosure is discovered, be reviewed and be varied or set aside by the Regulator or the committee, as the case may be, without the participation of the member or person concerned.
+
+$(b)$ A member of the Regulator or person referred to in subsection (1) who is obliged to make a disclosure in terms of this subsection may not be present during any deliberation, or take part in any decision, in relation to the matter in question.
+
+(c) Any disclosure made in terms of this subsection must be noted in the minutes of the relevant meeting of the Regulator or committee.
+
+(3) A member of the Regulator or person referred to in subsection (1) who has disclosed a conflict of interest in terms of subsection (1)—
+
+(a) may perform all duties relating to the matter in question if a decision has been 2 taken that the interest is trivial or irrelevant; or
+(b) must be relieved of all duties relating to the matter in question and such duties must be performed by another member of the Regulator or by another person referred to in subsection (1), as the case may be, who has no such conflict of interest.
+
+# Remuneration, allowances, benefits and privileges of members
+
+46. (1) A member of the Regulator or a person referred to in section $49(1)(b)$ or $50(1)(b)$ who is not subject to the provisions of the Public Service Act, 1994 (Proclamation No. 103 of 1994), or who is not a judge of the High Court of South Africa or a magistrate will be entitled to such remuneration, allowances, including allowances 35 for reimbursement of travelling and subsistence expenses incurred by him or her in the performance of his or her functions under this Act and the Promotion of Access to Information Act, benefits and privileges as the Minister in consultation with the Minister of Finance may determine.
+
+(2) The remuneration, allowances, benefits or privileges of different members of the 40 Regulator may differ according to the different—
+
+(a) positions held by them in the Regulator; or
+(b) functions performed, whether in a part-time or full-time capacity, by them from time to time.
+
+# Staff
+
+47. (1) The Regulator must establish its own administration to assist it in the performance of its functions and to this end the Regulator must appoint, or secure the secondment in terms of subsection (6) of—
+
+(a) a suitably qualified and experienced person as chief executive officer of the Regulator for the purpose of assisting the Regulator, subject to the Regulator’s 5 direction and supervision, in the performance of all financial and administrative functions in terms of this Act and the Promotion of Access to Information Act, work arising from the administration of this Act and the Promotion of
+
+60
+
+Access to Information Act and to exercise any power delegated by the Regulator to him or her; and (b) such other member of staff as the Regulator may deem necessary to assist the Regulator and the chief executive officer, as the case may be, with all such work as may arise through the performance of its functions.
+
+(2) (a) The chief executive officer may appoint a senior member of staff as acting chief executive officer to perform the functions of the chief executive officer in his or her absence. (b) A member of the Regulator may not be appointed as acting chief executive officer. (c) In the event that a vacancy occurs in the office of the chief executive officer the 1 Regulator must appoint an acting chief executive officer. (3) The Regulator must, in the appointment of the staff of the Regulator— (a) provide for the advancement of persons disadvantaged by unfair discrimination, with the aim that its staff, when viewed collectively, represents a broad cross-section of the population of the Republic; and (b) subject to paragraph (a), apply equal opportunity employment practices. (4) The Regulator may pay to the persons in its employ such remuneration and allowances and provide them with such pension and other employment benefits as are consistent with that paid in the public sector. (5) In exercising its powers in terms of subsections (1) and (4), the Regulator must 20 consult with the Minister of Finance. (6) The Regulator may, in the performance of the functions contemplated in subsection (1), at its request, be assisted by officials in the Public Service seconded to the service of the Regulator in terms of any law regulating such secondment: Provided that the secondment of an official to the service of the Regulator may not exceed 12 months and that the initial period of secondment may only be extended once for a subsequent period not exceeding 12 months. (7) The Regulator may, in consultation with the Minister of Finance, on a temporary basis or for a particular matter which is being investigated by it, employ any person with special knowledge of any matter relating to the work of the Regulator, or obtain the 30 co-operation of any body, to advise or assist the Regulator in the performance of its functions under this Act and the Promotion of Access to Information Act, and fix the remuneration, including reimbursement for travelling, subsistence and other expenses, of such person or body.
+
+# Powers, duties and functions of chief executive officer
+
+48. The chief executive officer—
+
+(a) is the head of administration and the accounting officer, as referred to in section 52(3), of the Regulator;
+(b) may appoint a senior member of staff as acting chief executive officer as referred to in section 47(2); 40
+(c) is responsible for the— (i) management of the affairs and operations of the Regulator; (ii) formation and development of an efficient administration; (iii) organisation and management of, and administrative control over, all the members of staff appointed in terms of section $47(1)(b)$ and all the 45 persons seconded in terms of section 47(6); (iv) maintenance of discipline in respect of the members of staff; and (v) execution of the decisions of the Regulator, and is for those purposes accountable to the Regulator and must report thereon to the Regulator as often as may be required by the Regulator; and 50 must exercise the powers and perform the duties and functions which the
+
+Regulator may from time to time confer upon or assign to him or her in order to achieve the objects of the Regulator, and is for those purposes accountable to the Regulator.
+
+# Committees of Regulator
+
+49. (1) The Regulator may, if it considers it necessary for the proper performance of its functions establish one or more committees, which must consist of—
+
+(a) such members of the Regulator as the Regulator may designate; or $(b)$ such members of the Regulator as the Regulator may designate and other persons appointed by the Regulator, as referred to in section 47(7), for the period determined by the Regulator. (2) The Regulator may at any time extend the period of an appointment referred to in subsection $(1)(b)$ or, if in its opinion good reasons exist therefor, revoke any such appointment. (3) The Regulator must designate the chairperson and, if the Regulator deems it necessary, the vice-chairperson of a committee established under subsection (1). (4) (a) A committee referred to in subsection (1) must, subject to the directions of the 15 Regulator, perform those functions of the Regulator assigned to it by the Regulator. $(b)$ Any function so performed by a committee referred to in subsection (1) will be deemed to have been performed by the Regulator. (5) The Regulator may at any time dissolve any committee established by the Regulator. 20 (6) The provisions of sections 40(4) and 51 will apply, with the necessary changes, to a committee of the Regulator.
+
+# Establishment of Enforcement Committee
+
+50. (1) The Regulator must establish an Enforcement Committee which must consist of—
+
+(a) at least one member of the Regulator; and (b) such other persons appointed by the Regulator, as referred to in section 47(7), for the period determined by the Regulator.
+
+(2) The Regulator must—
+
+(a) in consultation with the Chief Justice and Minister, appoint a— (i) judge of the High Court of South Africa, whether in active service or not; or (ii) magistrate with at least 10 years’ appropriate experience, whether in active service or not; or
+
+(b) appoint an advocate or attorney with at least 10 years’ appropriate experience, 35 as Chairperson of the Enforcement Committee.
+
+(3) The Chairperson of the Enforcement Committee must manage the work of and preside at hearings of the Enforcement Committee.
+
+(4) (a) A member referred to in subsection $(1)(a)$ may not participate in any proceedings of the Regulator in terms of which a decision is taken with regard to a 40 recommendation by the Enforcement Committee as referred to in section 93.
+
+(b) A person referred to in subsection $(1)(b)$ must be a fit and proper person and must comply with the criteria, referred to in section $41(1)(g)$ , for appointment as a member of the Regulator.
+
+# Meetings of Regulator
+
+51. (1) Meetings of the Regulator must be held at the times and places determined by the Chairperson of the Regulator. (2) Three members of the Regulator constitute a quorum for a meeting. (3) (a) The Chairperson may regulate the proceedings at meetings as he or she may think fit and must keep minutes of the proceedings. 50 $(b)$ If the Chairperson is absent from a meeting the members present shall elect one of their number to preside at that meeting.
+
+(4) (a) Subject to subsection (2), a decision of the Regulator is taken by resolution agreed to by the majority of members at any meeting of the Regulator.
+
+$(b)$ In the event of an equality of votes regarding any matter the Chairperson has a casting vote in addition to his or her deliberative vote.
+
+# Funds
+
+52. (1) Funds of the Regulator consist of— (a) such sums of money that Parliament appropriates annually, for the use of the Regulator as may be necessary for the proper exercise, performance and discharge, by the Regulator, of its powers, duties and functions under this Act and the Promotion of Access to Information Act; and (b) fees as may be prescribed in terms of section 111(1). (2) The financial year of the Regulator is the period from 1 April in any year to 31
+March in the following year, except that the first financial year of the Regulator begins
+on the date that this Chapter comes into operation, and ends on 31 March next following
+that date. 15 (3) The chief executive officer of the Regulator is for purposes of the Public Finance
+Management Act, 1999 (Act No. 1 of 1999), the accounting officer and must execute his
+or her duties in accordance with that Act. (4) Within six months after the end of each financial year, the Regulator must prepare
+financial statements in accordance with established accounting practice, principles and 2
+procedures, comprising— (a) a statement reflecting, with suitable and sufficient particulars, the income and expenditure of the Regulator during the preceding financial year; and (b) a balance sheet showing the state of its assets, liabilities and financial position as at the end of that financial year. (5) The Auditor-General must audit the Regulator’s financial records each year.
+
+# Protection of Regulator
+
+53. Any person acting on behalf or under the direction of the Regulator, is not civilly or criminally liable for anything done in good faith in the exercise or performance or purported exercise or performance of any power, duty or function of the Regulator in 30 terms of this Act or the Promotion of Access to Information Act.
+
+# Duty of confidentiality
+
+54. A person acting on behalf or under the direction of the Regulator, must, both during or after his or her term of office or employment, treat as confidential the personal information which comes to his or her knowledge in the course of the performance of his 35 or her official duties, except if the communication of such information is required by law or in the proper performance of his or her duties.
+
+# Part B
+
+# Information Officer
+
+# Duties and responsibilities of Information Officer
+
+55. (1) An information officer’s responsibilities include—
+
+(a) the encouragement of compliance, by the body, with the conditions for the lawful processing of personal information;
+(b) dealing with requests made to the body pursuant to this Act;
+(c) working with the Regulator in relation to investigations conducted pursuant to 45 Chapter 6 in relation to the body;
+(d) otherwise ensuring compliance by the body with the provisions of this Act; and
+(e) as may be prescribed.
+
+(2) Officers must take up their duties in terms of this Act only after the responsible party has registered them with the Regulator.
+
+# Designation and delegation of deputy information officers
+
+56. Each public and private body must make provision, in the manner prescribed in section 17 of the Promotion of Access to Information Act, with the necessary changes, for the designation of—
+
+(a) such a number of persons, if any, as deputy information officers as is necessary to perform the duties and responsibilities as set out in section 55(1) of this Act; and
+(b) any power or duty conferred or imposed on an information officer by this Act to a deputy information officer of that public or private body.
+
+# CHAPTER 6
+
+# PRIOR AUTHORISATION
+
+# Prior authorisation
+
+# Processing subject to prior authorisation
+
+57. (1) The responsible party must obtain prior authorisation from the Regulator, in terms of section 58, prior to any processing if that responsible party plans to—
+
+20
+
+(a) process any unique identifiers of data subjects—
+
+(i) for a purpose other than the one for which the identifier was specifically intended at collection; and
+(ii) with the aim of linking the information together with information processed by other responsible parties;
+(b) process information on criminal behaviour or on unlawful or objectionable conduct on behalf of third parties;
+(c) process information for the purposes of credit reporting; or
+(d) transfer special personal information, as referred to in section 26, or the personal information of children as referred to in section 34, to a third party in a foreign country that does not provide an adequate level of protection for the processing of personal information as referred to in section 72.
+
+(2) The provisions of subsection (1) may be applied by the Regulator to other types of information processing by law or regulation if such processing carries a particular risk for the legitimate interests of the data subject. (3) This section and section 58 are not applicable if a code of conduct has been issued and has come into force in terms of Chapter 7 in a specific sector or sectors of society. (4) A responsible party must obtain prior authorisation as referred to in subsection (1) only once and not each time that personal information is received or processed, except where the processing departs from that which has been authorised in accordance with 4 the provisions of subsection (1).
+
+# Responsible party to notify Regulator if processing is subject to prior authorisation
+
+58. (1) Information processing as contemplated in section 57(1) must be notified as such by the responsible party to the Regulator.
+
+(2) Responsible parties may not carry out information processing that has been 45 notified to the Regulator in terms of subsection (1) until the Regulator has completed its investigation or until they have received notice that a more detailed investigation will not be conducted.
+
+(3) In the case of the notification of information processing to which section 57(1) is applicable, the Regulator must inform the responsible party in writing within four weeks of the notification as to whether or not it will conduct a more detailed investigation.
+
+(4) In the event that the Regulator decides to conduct a more detailed investigation, it must indicate the period within which it plans to conduct this investigation, which period must not exceed 13 weeks.
+
+(5) On conclusion of the more detailed investigation referred to in subsection (4) the Regulator must issue a statement concerning the lawfulness of the information processing.
+
+(6) A statement by the Regulator in terms of subsection (5), to the extent that the information processing is not lawful, is deemed to be an enforcement notice served in terms of section 95 of this Act.
+
+(7) A responsible party that has suspended its processing as required by subsection (2), and which has not received the Regulator’s decision within the time limits specified in subsections (3) and (4), may presume a decision in its favour and continue with its 15 processing.
+
+# Failure to notify processing subject to prior authorisation
+
+59. If section 58(1) or (2) is contravened, the responsible party is guilty of an offence and liable to a penalty as set out in section 107.
+
+# CHAPTER 7
+
+# CODES OF CONDUCT
+
+# Issuing of codes of conduct
+
+60. (1) The Regulator may from time to time issue codes of conduct.
+
+(2) A code of conduct must—
+
+(a) incorporate all the conditions for the lawful processing of personal informa- 25 tion or set out obligations that provide a functional equivalent of all the obligations set out in those conditions; and
+(b) prescribe how the conditions for the lawful processing of personal information are to be applied, or are to be complied with, given the particular features of the sector or sectors of society in which the relevant responsible parties are 30 operating.
+
+(3) A code of conduct may apply in relation to any one or more of the following: (a) Any specified information or class of information; (b) any specified body or class of bodies; (c) any specified activity or class of activities; or 35 (d) any specified industry, profession, or vocation or class of industries, professions, or vocations.
+
+(4) A code of conduct must also— (a) specify appropriate measures—
+
+(i) for information matching programmes if such programmes are used 40 within a specific sector; or
+(ii) for protecting the legitimate interests of data subjects insofar as automated decision making, as referred to in section 71, is concerned;
+
+(b) provide for the review of the code by the Regulator; and (c) provide for the expiry of the code.
+
+# Process for issuing codes of conduct
+
+61. (1) The Regulator may issue a code of conduct under section 60— (a) on the Regulator’s own initiative, but after consultation with affected stakeholders or a body representing such stakeholders; or
+
+(b) on the application, in the prescribed form, by a body which is, in the opinion of the Regulator, sufficiently representative of any class of bodies, or of any industry, profession, or vocation as defined in the code in respect of such class of bodies or of any such industry, profession or vocation.
+
+(2) The Regulator must give notice in the Gazette that the issuing of a code of conduct is being considered, which notice must contain a statement that—
+
+(a) the details of the code of conduct being considered, including a draft of the proposed code, may be obtained from the Regulator; and
+(b) submissions on the proposed code may be made in writing to the Regulator within such period as is specified in the notice.
+
+(3) The Regulator may not issue a code of conduct unless it has considered the submissions made to the Regulator in terms of subsection $(2)(b)$ , if any, and is satisfied that all persons affected by the proposed code have had a reasonable opportunity to be heard.
+
+(4) The decision as to whether an application for the issuing of a code has been 15 successful must be made within a reasonable period which must not exceed 13 weeks.
+
+# Notification, availability and commencement of code of conduct
+
+62. (1) If a code of conduct is issued under section 60 the Regulator must ensure that—
+
+(a) there is published in the Gazette, as soon as reasonably practicable after the 20 code is issued, a notice indicating— (i) that the code has been issued; and (ii) where copies of the code are available for inspection free of charge and for purchase; and
+
+) as long as the code remains in force, copies of it are available—
+
+(i) on the Regulator’s website;
+(ii) for inspection by members of the public free of charge at the Regulator’s offices; and
+(iii) for purchase or copying by members of the public at a reasonable price at the Regulator’s offices.
+
+(2) A code of conduct issued under section 60 comes into force on the 28th day after the date of its notification in the Gazette or on such later date as may be specified in the code and is binding on every class or classes of body, industry, profession or vocation referred to therein.
+
+# Procedure for dealing with complaints
+
+63. (1) A code of conduct may prescribe procedures for making and dealing with complaints alleging a breach of the code, but no such provision may limit or restrict any provision of Chapter 10.
+
+(2) If the code sets out procedures for making and dealing with complaints, the Regulator must be satisfied that—
+
+(a) the procedures meet the— (i) prescribed standards; and (ii) guidelines issued by the Regulator in terms of section 65, relating to the making of and dealing with complaints;
+(b) the code provides for the appointment of an independent adjudicator to whom 45 complaints may be made;
+(c) the code provides that, in exercising his or her powers and performing his or her functions, under the code, an adjudicator for the code must have due regard to the matters listed in section 44;
+(d) the code requires the adjudicator to prepare and submit a report, in a form 50 satisfactory to the Regulator, to the Regulator within five months of the end of a financial year of the Regulator on the operation of the code during that financial year; and
+(e) the code requires the report prepared for each year to specify the number and nature of complaints made to an adjudicator under the code during the 55 relevant financial year.
+
+(3) A responsible party or data subject who is aggrieved by a determination, including any declaration, order or direction that is included in the determination, made by an adjudicator after having investigated a complaint relating to the protection of personal information under an approved code of conduct, may submit a complaint in terms of section 74(2) with the Regulator against the determination upon payment of a prescribed fee.
+
+(4) The adjudicator’s determination continues to have effect unless and until the Regulator makes a determination under Chapter 10 relating to the complaint or unless the Regulator determines otherwise.
+
+# Amendment and revocation of codes of conduct
+
+64. (1) The Regulator may amend or revoke a code of conduct issued under section 60. (2) The provisions of sections 60 to 63 apply in respect of any amendment or revocation of a code of conduct.
+
+# Guidelines about codes of conduct
+
+65. (1) The Regulator may provide written guidelines—
+
+(a) to assist bodies to develop codes of conduct or to apply approved codes of conduct;
+(b) relating to making and dealing with complaints under approved codes of conduct; and
+(c) about matters the Regulator may consider in deciding whether to approve a code of conduct or a variation or revocation of an approved code of conduct.
+
+(2) The Regulator must have regard to the guidelines as set out in section $7(3)(a)$ to (d) when considering the approval of a code of conduct for the processing of personal information for exclusively journalistic purposes where the responsible party is not 25 subject to a code of ethics as referred to in section 7(1).
+
+(3) Before providing guidelines for the purposes of subsection $(1)(b)$ , the Regulator must give everyone the Regulator considers has a real and substantial legitimate interest in the matters covered by the proposed guidelines an opportunity to comment on them.
+
+(4) The Regulator must publish guidelines provided under subsection (1) in the 30 Gazette.
+
+# Register of approved codes of conduct
+
+66. (1) The Regulator must keep a register of approved codes of conduct.
+
+(2) The Regulator may decide the form of the register and how it is to be kept.
+
+(3) The Regulator must make the register available to the public in the way that the 35 Regulator determines.
+
+4) The Regulator may charge reasonable fees for— (a) making the register available to the public; or (b) providing copies of, or extracts from, the register.
+
+# Review of operation of approved code of conduct
+
+67. (1) The Regulator may, on its own initiative, review the operation of an approved code of conduct.
+
+(2) The Regulator may do one or more of the following for the purposes of the review:
+
+45
+
+Consider the process under the code for making and dealing with complaints;
+(b) inspect the records of an adjudicator for the code;
+(c) consider the outcome of complaints dealt with under the code;
+(d) interview an adjudicator for the code; and
+(e) appoint experts to review those provisions of the code that the Regulator believes require expert evaluation.
+
+(3) The review may inform a decision by the Regulator under section 64 to revoke the approved code of conduct with immediate effect or at a future date to be determined by the Regulator.
+
+# Effect of failure to comply with code of conduct
+
+68. If a code issued under section 60 is in force, failure to comply with the code is 5 deemed to be a breach of the conditions for the lawful processing of personal information referred to in Chapter 3 and is dealt with in terms of Chapter 10.
+
+# CHAPTER 8
+
+# RIGHTS OF DATA SUBJECTS REGARDING DIRECT MARKETINGBY MEANS OF UNSOLICITED ELECTRONIC COMMUNICATIONS,DIRECTORIES AND AUTOMATED DECISION MAKING
+
+Direct marketing by means of unsolicited electronic communications
+
+69. (1) The processing of personal information of a data subject for the purpose of direct marketing by means of any form of electronic communication, including automatic calling machines, facsimile machines, SMSs or e-mail is prohibited unless the 15 data subject—
+
+(a) has given his, her or its consent to the processing; or (b) is, subject to subsection (3), a customer of the responsible party. (2) (a) A responsible party may approach a data subject— (i) whose consent is required in terms of subsection $(1)(a)$ ; and (ii) who has not previously withheld such consent,
+
+nly once in order to request the consent of that data subject.
+
+$(b)$ The data subject’s consent must be requested in the prescribed manner and form. (3) A responsible party may only process the personal information of a data subject who is a customer of the responsible party in terms of subsection $(1)(b).$ —
+
+25
+
+(a) if the responsible party has obtained the contact details of the data subject in the context of the sale of a product or service;
+(b) for the purpose of direct marketing of the responsible party’s own similar products or services; and
+(c) if the data subject has been given a reasonable opportunity to object, free of 30 charge and in a manner free of unnecessary formality, to such use of his, her or its electronic details— (i) at the time when the information was collected; and (ii) on the occasion of each communication with the data subject for the purpose of marketing if the data subject has not initially refused such use. 35
+
+(4) Any communication for the purpose of direct marketing must contain—
+
+(a) details of the identity of the sender or the person on whose behalf the communication has been sent; and
+(b) an address or other contact details to which the recipient may send a request that such communications cease.
+
+(5) ‘‘Automatic calling machine’’, for purposes of subsection (1), means a machine that is able to do automated calls without human intervention.
+
+# Directories
+
+70. (1) A data subject who is a subscriber to a printed or electronic directory of subscribers available to the public or obtainable through directory enquiry services, in 45 which his, her or its personal information is included, must be informed, free of charge and before the information is included in the directory—
+
+(a) about the purpose of the directory; and (b) about any further uses to which the directory may possibly be put, based on search functions embedded in electronic versions of the directory.
+
+(2) A data subject must be given a reasonable opportunity to object, free of charge and in a manner free of unnecessary formality, to such use of his, her or its personal information or to request verification, confirmation or withdrawal of such information if the data subject has not initially refused such use.
+
+(3) Subsections (1) and (2) do not apply to editions of directories that were produced in printed or off-line electronic form prior to the commencement of this section.
+
+(4) If the personal information of data subjects who are subscribers to fixed or mobile public voice telephony services have been included in a public subscriber directory in conformity with the conditions for the lawful processing of personal information prior to the commencement of this section, the personal information of such subscribers may remain included in this public directory in its printed or electronic versions, after having received the information required by subsection (1).
+
+(5) ‘‘Subscriber’’, for purposes of this section, means any person who is party to a 15 contract with the provider of publicly available electronic communications services for the supply of such services.
+
+# Automated decision making
+
+71. (1) Subject to subsection (2), a data subject may not be subject to a decision which results in legal consequences for him, her or it, or which affects him, her or it to a 20 substantial degree, which is based solely on the basis of the automated processing of personal information intended to provide a profile of such person including his or her performance at work, or his, her or its credit worthiness, reliability, location, health, personal preferences or conduct.
+
+(2) The provisions of subsection (1) do not apply if the decision— (a) has been taken in connection with the conclusion or execution of a contract, and— (i) the request of the data subject in terms of the contract has been met; or (ii) appropriate measures have been taken to protect the data subject’s legitimate interests; or
+
+(b) is governed by a law or code of conduct in which appropriate measures are specified for protecting the legitimate interests of data subjects.
+
+(3) The appropriate measures, referred to in subsection (2)(a)(ii), must—
+
+(a) provide an opportunity for a data subject to make representations about a decision referred to in subsection (1); and
+(b) require a responsible party to provide a data subject with sufficient information about the underlying logic of the automated processing of the information relating to him or her to enable him or her to make representations in terms of paragraph (a).
+
+# CHAPTER 9
+
+# TRANSBORDER INFORMATION FLOWS
+
+# Transfers of personal information outside Republic
+
+72. (1) A responsible party in the Republic may not transfer personal information about a data subject to a third party who is in a foreign country unless—
+
+(a) the third party who is the recipient of the information is subject to a law, 45 binding corporate rules or binding agreement which provide an adequate level of protection that— (i) effectively upholds principles for reasonable processing of the information that are substantially similar to the conditions for the lawful processing of personal information relating to a data subject who is a 50 natural person and, where applicable, a juristic person; and
+
+(ii) includes provisions, that are substantially similar to this section, relating to the further transfer of personal information from the recipient to third parties who are in a foreign country;
+
+(b) the data subject consents to the transfer;
+
+(c) the transfer is necessary for the performance of a contract between the data subject and the responsible party, or for the implementation of pre-contractual measures taken in response to the data subject’s request; the transfer is necessary for the conclusion or performance of a contract concluded in the interest of the data subject between the responsible party and a third party; or
+(e) the transfer is for the benefit of the data subject, and— (i) it is not reasonably practicable to obtain the consent of the data subject to that transfer; and (ii) if it were reasonably practicable to obtain such consent, the data subject would be likely to give it. 1
+
+(2) For the purpose of this section—
+
+(a) ‘‘binding corporate rules’’ means personal information processing policies, within a group of undertakings, which are adhered to by a responsible party or operator within that group of undertakings when transferring personal information to a responsible party or operator within that same group of undertakings in a foreign country; and
+
+(b) ‘‘group of undertakings’’ means a controlling undertaking and its controlled undertakings.
+
+# CHAPTER 10
+
+# ENFORCEMENT
+
+# Interference with protection of personal information of data subject
+
+73. For the purposes of this Chapter, interference with the protection of the personal information of a data subject consists, in relation to that data subject, of—
+
+(a) any breach of the conditions for the lawful processing of personal information as referred to in Chapter 3; (b) non-compliance with section 22, 54, 69, 70, 71 or 72; or (c) a breach of the provisions of a code of conduct issued in terms of section 60.
+
+30
+
+# Complaints
+
+74. (1) Any person may submit a complaint to the Regulator in the prescribed manner and form alleging interference with the protection of the personal information of a data 35 subject.
+
+(2) A responsible party or data subject may, in terms of section 63(3), submit a complaint to the Regulator in the prescribed manner and form if he, she or it is aggrieved by the determination of an adjudicator.
+
+# Mode of complaints to Regulator
+
+75. (1) A complaint to the Regulator must be made in writing.
+
+(2) The Regulator must give such reasonable assistance as is necessary in the circumstances to enable a person, who wishes to make a complaint to the Regulator, to put the complaint in writing.
+
+# Action on receipt of complaint
+
+76. (1) On receiving a complaint in terms of section 74, the Regulator may— (a) conduct a pre-investigation as referred to in section 79;
+
+(b) act, at any time during the investigation and where appropriate, as conciliator in relation to any interference with the protection of the personal information of a data subject in the prescribed manner;
+(c) decide, in accordance with section 77, to take no action on the complaint or, as the case may be, require no further action in respect of the complaint;
+$(d)$ conduct a full investigation of the complaint;
+$(e)$ refer the complaint, in terms of section 92, to the Enforcement Committee; or
+$(f)$ take such further action as is contemplated by this Chapter.
+
+(2) The Regulator must, as soon as is reasonably practicable, advise the complainant and the responsible party to whom the complaint relates of the course of action that the 1 Regulator proposes to adopt under subsection (1).
+
+(3) The Regulator may, on its own initiative, commence an investigation into the interference with the protection of the personal information of a data subject as referred to in section 73.
+
+# Regulator may decide to take no action on complaint
+
+77. (1) The Regulator, after investigating a complaint received in terms of section 73, may decide to take no action or, as the case may be, require no further action in respect of the complaint if, in the Regulator’s opinion—
+
+(a) the length of time that has elapsed between the date when the subject matter of the complaint arose and the date when the complaint was made is such that 20 an investigation of the complaint is no longer practicable or desirable;
+(b) the subject matter of the complaint is trivial;
+(c) the complaint is frivolous or vexatious or is not made in good faith;
+(d) the complainant does not desire that action be taken or, as the case may be, continued; 25
+(e) the complainant does not have a sufficient personal interest in the subject matter of the complaint; or
+$(f)$ in cases where the complaint relates to a matter in respect of which a code of conduct is in force and the code of conduct makes provision for a complaints procedure, the complainant has failed to pursue, or to pursue fully, an avenue 30 of redress available under that complaints procedure that it would be reasonable for the complainant to pursue.
+
+(2) Notwithstanding anything in subsection (1), the Regulator may in its discretion decide not to take any further action on a complaint if, in the course of the investigation of the complaint, it appears to the Regulator that, having regard to all the circumstances 35 of the case, any further action is unnecessary or inappropriate.
+
+(3) In any case where the Regulator decides to take no action, or no further action, on a complaint, the Regulator must inform the complainant of that decision and the reasons for it.
+
+# Referral of complaint to regulatory body
+
+78. (1) If, on receiving a complaint in terms of section 74, the Regulator considers that the complaint relates, in whole or in part, to a matter that is more properly within the jurisdiction of another regulatory body established in terms of any law, the Regulator must forthwith determine whether the complaint should be dealt with, in whole or in part, under this Act after consultation with the body concerned.
+
+(2) If the Regulator determines that the complaint should be dealt with by another body, the Regulator must forthwith refer the complaint to that body to be dealt with accordingly and must notify the complainant of the referral.
+
+# Pre-investigation proceedings of Regulator
+
+79. Before proceeding to investigate any matter in terms of this Chapter, the 50 Regulator must, in the prescribed manner, inform—
+
+(a) the complainant, the data subject to whom the investigation relates (if not the complainant) and any person alleged to be aggrieved (if not the complainant), of the Regulator’s intention to conduct the investigation; and
+
+) the responsible party to whom the investigation relates of the—
+
+(i) details of the complaint or, as the case may be, the subject matter of the 5 investigation; and
+(ii) right of that responsible party to submit to the Regulator, within a reasonable period, a written response in relation to the complaint or, as the case may be, the subject-matter of the investigation.
+
+# Settlement of complaints
+
+80. If it appears from a complaint, or any written response made in relation to a complaint under section 79(b)(ii), that it may be possible to secure—
+
+(a) a settlement between any of the parties concerned; and
+$(b)$ if appropriate, a satisfactory assurance against the repetition of any action that is the subject matter of the complaint or the doing of further actions of a 15 similar kind by the person concerned,
+
+the Regulator may, without investigating the complaint or, as the case may be, investigating the complaint further, in the prescribed manner, use its best endeavours to secure such a settlement and assurance.
+
+# Investigation proceedings of Regulator
+
+81. For the purposes of the investigation of a complaint the Regulator may—
+
+(a) summon and enforce the appearance of persons before the Regulator and compel them to give oral or written evidence on oath and to produce any records and things that the Regulator considers necessary to investigate the complaint, in the same manner and to the same extent as the High Court; 25
+(b) administer oaths;
+(c) receive and accept any evidence and other information, whether on oath, by affidavit or otherwise, that the Regulator sees fit, whether or not it is or would be admissible in a court of law;
+(d) at any reasonable time, subject to section 81, enter and search any premises 30 occupied by a responsible party;
+(e) conduct a private interview with any person in any premises entered under section 84 subject to section 82; and
+(f) otherwise carry out in those premises any inquiries that the Regulator sees fit in terms of section 82. 35
+
+# Issue of warrants
+
+82. (1) A judge of the High Court, a regional magistrate or a magistrate, if satisfied by information on oath supplied by the Regulator that there are reasonable grounds for suspecting that—
+
+a responsible party is interfering with the protection of the personal 40 information of a data subject; or (b) an offence under this Act has been or is being committed,
+and that evidence of the contravention or of the commission of the offence is to be found
+on any premises specified in the information, that are within the jurisdiction of that judge
+or magistrate, may, subject to subsection (2), grant a warrant to enter and search such 45
+premises. (2) A warrant issued under subsection (1) authorises any of the Regulator’s members
+or staff members, subject to section 84, at any time within seven days of the date of the
+warrant to enter the premises as identified in the warrant, to search them, to inspect,
+examine, operate and test any equipment found there which is used or intended to be 50
+
+used for the processing of personal information and to inspect and seize any record, other material or equipment found there which may be such evidence as is mentioned in that subsection.
+
+# Requirements for issuing of warrant
+
+83. (1) A judge or magistrate must not issue a warrant under section 82 unless satisfied 5 that—
+
+(a) the Regulator has given seven days’ notice in writing to the occupier of the premises in question demanding access to the premises;
+(b) either— (i) access was demanded at a reasonable hour and was unreasonably 10 refused; or (ii) although entry to the premises was granted, the occupier unreasonably refused to comply with a request by any of the Regulator’s members or staff to permit the members or the members of staff to do any of the things referred to in section 82(2); and 15
+
+(c) that the occupier, has, after the refusal, been notified by the Regulator of the application for the warrant and has had an opportunity of being heard on the question whether the warrant should be issued.
+
+(2) Subsection (1) does not apply if the judge or magistrate is satisfied that the case is one of urgency or that compliance with that subsection would defeat the object of the 20 entry.
+
+(3) A judge or magistrate who issues a warrant under section 82 must also issue two copies of it and certify them clearly as copies.
+
+# Execution of warrants
+
+84. (1) A police officer who is assisting a person authorised to conduct an entry and 25 search in terms of a warrant issued under section 82 may overcome resistance to the entry and search by using such force as is reasonably necessary. (2) A warrant issued under this section must be executed at a reasonable hour unless it appears to the person executing it that there are reasonable grounds for suspecting that the evidence in question would not be found if it were so executed. 30 (3) If the person who occupies the premises in respect of which a warrant is issued under section 82 is present when the warrant is executed, he or she must be shown the warrant and supplied with a copy of it, and if that person is not present a copy of the warrant must be left in a prominent place on the premises. (4) A person seizing anything in pursuance of a warrant under section 82 must give a 35 receipt to the occupier or leave the receipt on the premises. (5) Anything so seized may be retained for as long as is necessary in all circumstances but the person in occupation of the premises in question must be given a copy of any documentation that is seized if he or she so requests and the person executing the warrant considers that it can be done without undue delay. 40 (6) A person authorised to conduct an entry and search in terms of section 82 must be accompanied and assisted by a police officer. (7) A person who enters and searches any premises under this section must conduct the entry and search with strict regard for decency and order, and with regard to each person’s right to dignity, freedom, security and privacy. 45 (8) A person who enters and searches premises under this section must before questioning any person— (a) advise that person of the right to be assisted at the time by an advocate or attorney; and (b) allow that person to exercise that right. (9) No self-incriminating answer given or statement made to a person who conducts a search in terms of a warrant issued under section 82 is admissible as evidence against the person who gave the answer or made the statement in criminal proceedings, except in criminal proceedings for perjury or in which that person is tried for an offence
+
+contemplated in section 102 and then only to the extent that the answer or statement is relevant to prove the offence charged.
+
+# Matters exempt from search and seizure
+
+85. If the Regulator has granted an exemption in terms of section 37, the information that is processed in terms of that exemption is not subject to search and seizure empowered by a warrant issued under section 82.
+
+# Communication between legal adviser and client exempt
+
+86. (1) Subject to the provisions of this section, the powers of search and seizure conferred by a warrant issued under section 82 must not be exercised in respect of—
+
+(a) any communication between a professional legal adviser and his or her client 10 in connection with the giving of legal advice to the client with respect to his or her obligations, liabilities or rights; or
+(b) any communication between a professional legal adviser and his or her client, or between such an adviser or his or her client and any other person, made in connection with or in contemplation of proceedings under or arising out of 15 this Act, including proceedings before a court, and for the purposes of such proceedings.
+
+(2) Subsection (1) applies also to—
+
+(a) any copy or other record of any such communication as is mentioned therein; and
+(b) any document or article enclosed with or referred to in any such communication if made in connection with the giving of any advice or, as the case may be, in connection with or in contemplation of and for the purposes of such proceedings as are mentioned therein.
+
+# Objection to search and seizure
+
+87. If the person in occupation of any premises in respect of which a warrant is issued under this Act objects to the inspection or seizure under the warrant of any material on the ground that it—
+
+(a) contains privileged information and refuses the inspection or removal of such article or document, the person executing the warrant or search must, if he or 30 she is of the opinion that the article or document contains information that has a bearing on the investigation and that such information is necessary for the investigation, request the Registrar of the High Court which has jurisdiction or his or her delegate, to attach and remove that article or document for safe custody until a court of law has made a ruling on the question whether the 35 information concerned is privileged or not; or
+(b) consists partly of matters in respect of which those powers are not exercised, he or she must, if the person executing the warrant so requests, furnish that person with a copy of so much of the material as is not exempt from those powers.
+
+# Return of warrants
+
+88. A warrant issued under section 82 must be returned to the court from which it was issued—
+
+(a) after being executed; or $(b)$ if not executed within the time authorised for its execution, and the person who has executed the warrant must make an endorsement on it stating what powers have been exercised by him or her under the warrant.
+
+88
+
+# Assessment
+
+89. (1) The Regulator, on its own initiative, or at the request by or on behalf of the responsible party, data subject or any other person must make an assessment in the prescribed manner of whether an instance of processing of personal information complies with the provisions of this Act.
+
+(2) The Regulator must make the assessment if it appears to be appropriate, unless, where the assessment is made on request, the Regulator has not been supplied with such information as it may reasonably require in order to—
+
+(a) satisfy itself as to the identity of the person making the request; and (b) enable it to identify the action in question.
+
+(3) The matters to which the Regulator may have regard in determining whether it is appropriate to make an assessment include—
+
+(a) the extent to which the request appears to it to raise a matter of substance; $(b)$ any undue delay in making the request; and (c) whether or not the person making the request is entitled to make an application 15 in terms of section 23 or 24 in respect of the personal information in question.
+
+(4) If the Regulator has received a request under this section it must notify the equester—
+
+(a) whether it has made an assessment as a result of the request; and
+$(b)$ to the extent that it considers appropriate, having regard in particular to any 20 exemption which has been granted by the Regulator in terms of section 37 from section 23 or 24 applying in relation to the personal information concerned, of any view formed or action taken as a result of the request.
+
+# Information notice
+
+90. (1) If the Regulator—
+
+(a) has received a request under section 89 in respect of any processing of personal information; or
+(b) reasonably requires any information for the purpose of determining whether the responsible party has interfered or is interfering with the personal information of a data subject,
+
+the Regulator may serve the responsible party with an information notice requiring the responsible party to furnish the Regulator, within a specified period, in a form specified in the notice, with a report indicating that the processing is taking place in compliance with the provisions of the Act, or with such information relating to the request or to compliance with the Act as is so specified.
+
+35
+
+(2) An information notice must contain particulars of the right of appeal conferred by section 97, and—
+
+(a) in a case falling within subsection $(1)(a)$ , a statement that the Regulator has received a request under section 89 in relation to the specified processing; or
+(b) in a case falling within subsection $(1)(b)$ , a statement that the Regulator 40 regards the specified information as relevant for the purpose of determining whether the responsible party has complied, or is complying, with the conditions for the lawful processing of personal information and the reasons for regarding it as relevant for that purpose.
+
+(3) Subject to subsection (5), the period specified in an information notice must not 45 expire before the end of the period within which an appeal can be brought against the notice and, if such an appeal is brought, the information need not be furnished pending the determination or withdrawal of the appeal.
+
+(4) If the Regulator considers that the information is required as a matter of urgency, it may include in the notice a statement to that effect and a statement of its reasons for 50 reaching that conclusion, and in that event subsection (3) does not apply.
+
+(5) A notice in terms of subsection (4) may not require the information to be furnished before the end of a period of three days beginning with the day on which the notice is served.
+
+(6) An information notice may not require a responsible party to furnish the Regulator with any communication between a—
+
+(a) professional legal adviser and his or her client in connection with the giving of legal advice on the client’s obligations, liabilities or rights under this Act; or
+(b) professional legal adviser and his or her client, or between such an adviser or his or her client and any other person, made in connection with or in contemplation of proceedings under or arising out of this Act (including proceedings before a court) and for the purposes of such proceedings.
+
+(7) In subsection (6) references to the client of a professional legal adviser include any person representing such a client.
+
+(8) An information notice may not require a responsible party to furnish the Regulator with information that would, by revealing evidence of the commission of any offence 1 other than an offence under this Act, expose the responsible party to criminal proceedings.
+
+(9) The Regulator may cancel an information notice by written notice to the responsible party on whom it was served.
+
+# Parties to be informed of result of assessment
+
+91. (1) After completing the assessment referred to in section 89 the Regulator— (a) must report to the responsible party the results of the assessment and any recommendations that the Regulator considers appropriate; and (b) may, in appropriate cases, require the responsible party, within a specified time, to inform the Regulator of any action taken or proposed to be taken to 2 implement the recommendations contained in the report or reasons why no such action has been or is proposed to be taken.
+
+(2) The Regulator may make public any information relating to the personal information management practices of a responsible party that has been the subject of an assessment under this section if the Regulator considers it in the public interest to do so.
+
+(3) A report made by the Regulator under subsection (1) is deemed to be the equivalent of an enforcement notice in terms of section 95.
+
+# Matters referred to Enforcement Committee
+
+92. (1) After completing the investigation of a complaint or other matter in terms of this Act, the Regulator may refer such complaint or other matter to the Enforcement 35 Committee for consideration, a finding in respect of the complaint or other matter and a recommendation in respect of the proposed action to be taken by the Regulator as referred to in section 93.
+
+(2) The Regulator may prescribe the procedure to be followed by the Enforcement Committee, including—
+
+(a) the manner in which the responsible party and data subject may make submissions to the Enforcement Committee;
+(b) the opportunity afforded to the parties who make submissions to the Enforcement Committee to make use of legal or other representation;
+(c) the period within which the Enforcement Committee must make a finding and 45 submit its recommendation to the Regulator in respect of the complaint or other matter; and
+(d) the manner in which the Enforcement Committee may finalise urgent matters.
+
+# Functions of Enforcement Committee
+
+93. The Enforcement Committee—
+
+(a) must consider all matters referred to it by the Regulator in terms of section 92 or the Promotion of Access to Information Act and make a finding in respect thereof; and
+(b) may make any recommendation to the Regulator necessary or incidental to any action that should be taken against— (i) a responsible party in terms of this Act; or (ii) an information officer or head of a private body, as the case may be, in terms of the Promotion of Access to Information Act.
+
+# Parties to be informed of developments during and result of investigation
+
+94. If an investigation is made following a complaint, and—
+
+(a) the Regulator believes that no interference with the protection of the personal information of a data subject has taken place and therefore does not serve an enforcement notice; 15
+(b) the Regulator has referred the complaint to the Enforcement Committee for consideration in terms of section 92;
+(c) an enforcement notice is served in terms of section 95;
+$(d)$ a served enforcement notice is cancelled in terms of section 96;
+(e) an appeal is lodged against the enforcement notice for cancellation or 20 variation of the notice in terms of section 97; or
+$(f)$ an appeal against an enforcement notice is allowed, the notice is substituted or the appeal is dismissed in terms of section 98,
+
+the Regulator must inform the complainant and the responsible party, as soon as reasonably practicable, in the manner prescribed of any development mentioned in 25 paragraphs $(a)$ to $(f)$ and the result of the investigation.
+
+# Enforcement notice
+
+95. (1) If the Regulator, after having considered the recommendation of the Enforcement Committee in terms of section 93, is satisfied that a responsible party has interfered or is interfering with the protection of the personal information of a data 30 subject as referred to in section 73, the Regulator may serve the responsible party with an enforcement notice requiring the responsible party to do either or both of the following:
+
+(a) To take specified steps within a period specified in the notice, or to refrain from taking such steps; or 35 (b) to stop processing personal information specified in the notice, or to stop processing personal information for a purpose or in a manner specified in the notice within a period specified in the notice. (2) An enforcement notice must contain— (a) a statement indicating the nature of the interference with the protection of the 40 personal information of the data subject and the reasons for reaching that conclusion; and (b) particulars of the rights of appeal conferred by section 97. (3) Subject to subsection (4), an enforcement notice may not require any of the provisions of the notice to be complied with before the end of the period within which 45 an appeal may be brought against the notice and, if such an appeal is brought, the notice need not be complied with pending the determination or withdrawal of the appeal. (4) If the Regulator considers that an enforcement notice should be complied with as a matter of urgency it may include in the notice a statement to that effect and a statement of its reasons for reaching that conclusion, and in that event subsection (3) does not 50 apply. (5) A notice in terms of subsection (4) may not require any of the provisions of the notice to be complied with before the end of a period of three days beginning with the day on which the notice is served.
+
+# Cancellation of enforcement notice
+
+96. (1) A responsible party on whom an enforcement notice has been served may, at any time after the expiry of the period during which an appeal may be brought against that notice, apply in writing to the Regulator for the cancellation or variation of that notice on the ground that, by reason of a change of circumstances, all or any of the provisions of that notice need not be complied with in order to ensure compliance with the conditions for the lawful processing of personal information.
+
+(2) If the Regulator considers that all or any of the provisions of an enforcement notice need not be complied with in order to ensure compliance with a condition for the lawful processing of personal information or conditions to which it relates, it may cancel 10 or vary the notice by written notice to the responsible party on whom it was served.
+
+# Right of appeal
+
+97. (1) A responsible party on whom an information or enforcement notice has been served may, within 30 days of receiving the notice, appeal to the High Court having jurisdiction for the setting aside or variation of the notice.
+
+(2) A complainant, who has been informed of the result of the investigation in terms of section 77(3) or 96, may, within 180 days of receiving the result, appeal to the High Court having jurisdiction against the result.
+
+# Consideration of appeal
+
+98. (1) If in an appeal under section 97 the court considers—
+
+(a) that the notice or decision against which the appeal is brought is not in accordance with the law; or
+(b) that the notice or decision involved an exercise of discretion by the Regulator that ought to have been exercised differently,
+
+the court must allow the appeal and may set aside the notice or substitute such other 25 notice or decision as should have been served or made by the Regulator.
+
+(2) In such an appeal, the court may review any determination of fact on which the notice in question was based.
+
+# Civil remedies
+
+99. (1) A data subject or, at the request of the data subject, the Regulator, may institute 30 a civil action for damages in a court having jurisdiction against a responsible party for breach of any provision of this Act as referred to in section 73, whether or not there is intent or negligence on the part of the responsible party.
+
+(2) In the event of a breach the responsible party may raise any of the following defences against an action for damages: 35
+
+(a) Vis major;
+(b) consent of the plaintiff;
+(c) fault on the part of the plaintiff;
+(d) compliance was not reasonably practicable in the circumstances of the particular case; or 40 (e) the Regulator has granted an exemption in terms of section 37.
+
+(3) A court hearing proceedings in terms of subsection (1) may award an amount that is just and equitable, including—
+
+(a) payment of damages as compensation for patrimonial and non-patrimonial loss suffered by a data subject as a result of breach of the provisions of this 45 Act;
+(b) aggravated damages, in a sum determined in the discretion of the Court;
+(c) interest; and
+
+96
+
+(d) costs of suit on such scale as may be determined by the Court.
+
+(4) Any amount awarded to the Regulator in terms of subsection (3) must be dealt with in the following manner:
+
+(a) The full amount must be deposited into a specifically designated trust account established by the Regulator with an appropriate financial institution;
+(b) as a first charge against the amount, the Regulator may recover all reasonable expenses incurred in bringing proceedings at the request of a data subject in terms of subsection (1) and in administering the distributions made to the data subject in terms of subsection (5); and
+(c) the balance, if any (in this section referred to as the ‘‘distributable balance’’), 1 must be distributed by the Regulator to the data subject at whose request the proceedings were brought.
+
+(5) Any amount not distributed within three years from the date of the first distribution of payments in terms of subsection (4), accrue to the Regulator in the Regulator’s official capacity. 15 (6) The distributable balance must be distributed on a pro rata basis to the data subject referred to in subsection (1). (7) A Court issuing any order under this section must order it to be published in the Gazette and by such other appropriate public media announcement as the Court considers appropriate. 20 (8) Any civil action instituted under this section may be withdrawn, abandoned or compromised, but any agreement or compromise must be made an order of Court. (9) If a civil action has not been instituted, any agreement or settlement, if any, may, on application to the Court by the Regulator after due notice to the other party, be made an order of Court and must be published in the Gazette and by such other public media 25 announcement as the Court considers appropriate.
+
+# CHAPTER 11
+
+# OFFENCES, PENALTIES AND ADMINISTRATIVE FINES
+
+# Obstruction of Regulator
+
+100. Any person who hinders, obstructs or unlawfully influences the Regulator or any 30 person acting on behalf of or under the direction of the Regulator in the performance of the Regulator’s duties and functions under this Act, is guilty of an offence.
+
+# Breach of confidentiality
+
+101. Any person who contravenes the provisions of section 54, is guilty of an offence.
+
+# Obstruction of execution of warrant
+
+102. Any person who—
+
+intentionally obstructs a person in the execution of a warrant issued under section 82; or (b) fails without reasonable excuse to give any person executing such a warrant such assistance as he or she may reasonably require for the execution of the 40 warrant,
+
+is guilty of an offence.
+
+# Failure to comply with enforcement or information notices
+
+103. (1) A responsible party which fails to comply with an enforcement notice served in terms of section 95, is guilty of an offence.
+
+(2) A responsible party which, in purported compliance with an information notice served in terms of section 90—
+
+(a) makes a statement knowing it to be false; or
+
+(b) recklessly makes a statement which is false, in a material respect, is guilty of an offence.
+
+# Offences by witnesses
+
+104. (1) Any person summoned in terms of section 81 to attend and give evidence or to produce any book, document or object before the Regulator who, without sufficient 5 cause fails—
+
+(a) to attend at the time and place specified in the summons;
+(b) to remain in attendance until conclusion of the proceedings or until he or she is excused by the Chairperson of the Regulator from further attendance;
+(c) having attended, refuses to be sworn or to make an affirmation as witness after 10 he or she has been required by the Chairperson of the Regulator to do so;
+(d) having been sworn or having made an affirmation, to answer fully and satisfactorily any question lawfully put to him or her; or
+(e) to produce any book, document or object in his or her possession or custody or under his or her control, which he or she has been summoned to produce, 15
+
+is guilty of an offence.
+
+(2) Any person who after having been sworn or having made an affirmation, gives false evidence before the Regulator on any matter, knowing such evidence to be false or not knowing or believing it to be true, is guilty of an offence.
+
+# Unlawful acts by responsible party in connection with account number
+
+105. (1) A responsible party who contravenes the provisions of section 8 insofar as those provisions relate to the processing of an account number of a data subject is, subject to subsections (2) and (3), guilty of an offence.
+
+(2) The contravention referred to in subsection (1) must— (a) be of a serious or persistent nature; and $(b)$ likely cause substantial damage or distress to the data subject.
+
+25
+
+(3) The responsible party must—
+
+(a) have known or ought to have known that— (i) there was a risk that the contravention would occur; or (ii) such contravention would likely cause substantial damage or distress to 30 the data subject; and
+
+(b) have failed to take reasonable steps to prevent the contravention.
+
+(4) Whenever a responsible party is charged with an offence under subsection (1), it is a valid defence to such a charge to contend that he or she has taken all reasonable steps to comply with the provisions of section 8.
+
+35
+
+(5) ‘‘Account number’’, for purposes of this section and section 106, means any unique identifier that has been assigned—
+
+(a) to one data subject only; or (b) jointly to more than one data subject,
+
+by a financial or other institution which enables the data subject, referred to in paragraph 40 (a), to access his, her or its own funds or to access credit facilities or which enables a data subject, referred to in paragraph $(b)$ , to access joint funds or to access joint credit facilities.
+
+# Unlawful acts by third parties in connection with account number
+
+106. (1) A person who knowingly or recklessly, without the consent of the responsible 45 party— (a) obtains or discloses an account number of a data subject; or $(b)$ procures the disclosure of an account number of a data subject to another person,
+
+is, subject to subsection (2), guilty of an offence.
+
+100
+
+(2) Whenever a person is charged with an offence under subsection (1), it is a valid defence to such a charge to contend that—
+
+(a) the obtaining, disclosure or procuring of the account number was— (i) necessary for the purpose of the prevention, detection, investigation or proof of an offence; or (ii) required or authorised in terms of the law or in terms of a court order;
+(b) he or she acted in the reasonable belief that he or she was legally entitled to obtain or disclose the account number or, as the case may be, to procure the disclosure of the account number to the other person;
+(c) he or she acted in the reasonable belief that he or she would have had the 10 consent of the responsible party if the responsible party had known of the obtaining, disclosing or procuring and the circumstances of it; or
+(d) in the particular circumstances the obtaining, disclosing or procuring was in the public interest.
+
+(3) A person who sells an account number which he or she has obtained in 15 contravention of subsection (1), is guilty of an offence.
+
+(4) A person who offers to sell the account number of a data subject which that person— (a) has obtained; or (b) subsequently obtained, n contravention of subsection (1), is guilty of an offence.
+
+(5) For the purposes of subsection (4), an advertisement indicating that an account number of a data subject is or may be for sale is an offer to sell the information.
+
+# Penalties
+
+107. Any person convicted of an offence in terms of this Act, is liable, in the case of 25 a contravention of—
+
+(a) section 100, 103(1), 104(2), 105(1), 106(1), (3) or (4) to a fine or to imprisonment for a period not exceeding 10 years, or to both a fine and such imprisonment; or
+(b) section 59, 101, 102, 103(2) or 104(1), to a fine or to imprisonment for a 30 period not exceeding 12 months, or to both a fine and such imprisonment.
+
+# Magistrate’s Court jurisdiction to impose penalties
+
+108. Despite anything to the contrary contained in any other law, a Magistrate’s Court has jurisdiction to impose any penalty provided for in section 107.
+
+# Administrative fines
+
+109. (1) If a responsible party is alleged to have committed an offence in terms of this Act, the Regulator may cause to be delivered by hand to that person (hereinafter referred to as the infringer) an infringement notice which must contain the particulars contemplated in subsection (2).
+
+(2) A notice referred to in subsection (1) must—
+
+(a) specify the name and address of the infringer;
+(b) specify the particulars of the alleged offence;
+(c) specify the amount of the administrative fine payable, which amount may, subject to subsection (10), not exceed R10 million;
+(d) inform the infringer that, not later than 30 days after the date of service of the 45 infringement notice, the infringer may— (i) pay the administrative fine; make arrangements with the Regulator to pay the administrative fine in instalments; or (iii) elect to be tried in court on a charge of having committed the alleged 50 offence referred to in terms of this Act; and
+
+102
+
+(e) state that a failure to comply with the requirements of the notice within the time permitted, will result in the administrative fine becoming recoverable as contemplated in subsection (5).
+
+(3) When determining an appropriate fine, the Regulator must consider the following factors:
+
+(a) The nature of the personal information involved;
+(b) the duration and extent of the contravention;
+(c) the number of data subjects affected or potentially affected by the contravention;
+(d) whether or not the contravention raises an issue of public importance;
+(e) the likelihood of substantial damage or distress, including injury to feelings or anxiety suffered by data subjects;
+$(f)$ whether the responsible party or a third party could have prevented the contravention from occurring;
+(g) any failure to carry out a risk assessment or a failure to operate good policies, procedures and practices to protect personal information; and
+(h) whether the responsible party has previously committed an offence in terms of this Act.
+
+(4) If an infringer elects to be tried in court on a charge of having committed the alleged offence in terms of this Act, the Regulator must hand the matter over to the South 20 African Police Service and inform the infringer accordingly.
+
+(5) If an infringer fails to comply with the requirements of a notice, the Regulator may file with the clerk or registrar of any competent court a statement certified by it as correct, setting forth the amount of the administrative fine payable by the infringer, and such statement thereupon has all the effects of a civil judgment lawfully given in that 25 court in favour of the Regulator for a liquid debt in the amount specified in the statement. (6) The Regulator may not impose an administrative fine contemplated in this section if the responsible party concerned has been charged with an offence in terms of this Act in respect of the same set of facts. (7) No prosecution may be instituted against a responsible party if the responsible 30 party concerned has paid an administrative fine in terms of this section in respect of the same set of facts. (8) An administrative fine imposed in terms of this section does not constitute a previous conviction as contemplated in Chapter 27 of the Criminal Procedure Act, 1977 (Act No. 51 of 1977). 35 (9) A fine payable in terms of this section must be paid into the National Revenue Fund referred to in section 213 of the Constitution. (10) The Minister may, from time to time and after consultation with the Regulator, by notice in the Gazette, adjust the amount referred to in subsection $(2)(c)$ in accordance with the average of the consumer price index, as published from time to time in the 40 Gazette, for the immediately preceding period of 12 months multiplied by the number of years that the amount referred to in subsection (2)(c) has remained the same.
+
+# CHAPTER 12
+
+# GENERAL PROVISIONS
+
+# Amendment of laws
+
+110.The laws mentioned in the Schedule are amended to the extent indicated in the third column of the Schedule.
+
+# Fees
+
+111. (1) The Minister may, subject to section 113 and after consultation with the Regulator, prescribe fees to be paid by data subjects— (a) to responsible parties as referred to in section 23(1)(b)(ii); and $(b)$ to the Regulator as referred to in section 63(3).
+
+(2) Different fees may be prescribed in respect of different categories of responsible parties and data subjects referred to in subsection (1)(a) and (b), respectively.
+
+# Regulations
+
+112. (1) The Minister may, subject to section 113, make regulations relating to— (a) the establishment of the Regulator; and (b) fees referred to in section 111(1). ) The Regulator may, subject to section 113, make regulations relating to— (a) the manner in terms of which a data subject may object to the processing of personal information as referred to in section 11(3); (b) the manner in which a data subject may submit a request to a responsible party 10 as referred to in section 24(1); (c) the processing of health information by certain responsible parties as referred to in section 32(6); (d) the responsibilities of information officers as referred to in section $55(1)(e)$ ; (e) the form in terms of which an application for a code of conduct must be 15 submitted to the Regulator as referred to in section $61(1)(b)$ ; (f) the manner and form within which the data subject’s consent must be requested as referred to in section 69(2) (g) the manner and form in terms of which a complaint must be submitted in terms of section 74; 20 (h) the Regulator acting as conciliator in relation to any interference with the protection of personal information as referred to in section $76(1)(b)$ ; (i) the notification of the parties concerned of an investigation to be conducted as referred to in section 79; $(j)$ the settlement of complaints as referred to in section 80; 25 $(k)$ the manner in which an assessment of the processing of personal information will be made as referred to in section 89(1); $(l)$ the manner in terms of which the parties concerned must be informed of the developments during and result of an investigation as referred to in section 94; and 30 (m) matters incidental to the imposition of administrative fines as referred to in section 109.
+
+# Procedure for making regulations
+
+113. (1) The Minister, before making or amending any regulations referred to in section 112(1), must publish a notice in the Gazette— 35
+
+(a) setting out that draft regulations have been developed;
+$(b)$ specifying where a copy of the draft regulations may be obtained; and
+(c) inviting written comments to be submitted on the proposed regulations within a specified period.
+
+(2) After complying with subsection (1) and after consultation with the Regulator in 40 respect of the draft regulations referred to in section 112, the Minister may—
+
+(a) amend the draft regulations; and $(b)$ subject to subsection (5), publish the regulations in final form in the Gazette.
+
+(3) The Regulator, before making or amending any regulations referred to in section 112(2), must publish a notice in the Gazette— 45
+
+(a) setting out that draft regulations have been developed;
+(b) specifying where a copy of the draft regulations may be obtained; and
+(c) inviting written comments to be submitted on the proposed regulations within a specified period.
+
+(4) After complying with subsection (3), the Regulator may— (a) amend the draft regulations; and
+
+106
+
+(b) subject to subsection (5), publish the regulations in final form in the Gazette. (5) (a) The Minister or the Regulator, as the case may be, must, within 30 days before publication of the regulations in the Gazette, as referred to in subsection (2)(b) or $(4)(b)$ , table them in Parliament.
+
+(b) Subsection (1) or (3) does not apply in respect of any amendment of the 5 regulations as a result of the process referred to in paragraph (a).
+
+# Transitional arrangements
+
+114. (1) All processing of personal information must within one year after the commencement of this section be made to conform to this Act. (2) The period of one year referred to in subsection (1) may be extended by the Minister, on request or of his or her own accord and after consultation with the Regulator, by notice in the Gazette in respect of different class or classes of information and bodies by an additional period which period may not exceed three years. (3) Section 58(2) does not apply to processing referred to in section 57, which is taking place on the date of commencement of this Act, until the Regulator determines 15 otherwise by notice in Gazette. (4) The South African Human Rights Commission must, in consultation with the Information Regulator, finalise or conclude its functions referred to in sections 83 and 84 of the Promotion of Access to Information Act, as soon as reasonably possible after the amendment of those sections in terms of this Act.
+
+# Short title and commencement
+
+115. (1) This Act is called the Protection of Personal Information Act, 2013, and
+commences on a date determined by the President by proclamation in the Gazette. (2) Different dates of commencement may be determined in respect of different
+provisions of this Act or in respect of different class or classes of information and bodies. 25
+
+108
+
+# SCHEDULE
+
+# LAWS AMENDED BY SECTION 110
+
+
No. and year of law Act 23 of 1994
Short title Public Protector Act,
Extent of repeal or amendment
1994
1. The amendment of section 6 by the- (a) substitution for paragraph (b) of subsection (4) of the following paragraph: “(b) to endeavour, in his or her sole discretion, to resolve any dispute or rectify any act or omission by- (i) mediation, conciliation or negotiation; (ii) advising, where necessary, any complainant regarding appropriate remedies; or (ii) any other means that may be ex- pedient in the circumstances; and"; (b) substitution for paragraph (c) of subsection (4) of the following paragraph: “(c) at a time prior to, during or after an investigation- (i) if he or she is of the opinion that the facts disclose the commission of an offence by any person, to bring the matter to the notice of the relevant authority; and charged with prosecutions; or (ii) if he or she deems it advisable, to refer any matter which has a bearing on an investigation, to the appropriate public body or authority; and affected by it or to make an appropriate recommendation regarding the redress of the prejudice resulting therefrom or make any other appropriate recommendation he or she deems expedient to the affected public body or authority[; and]."; and (c) deletion of paragraph (d) of subsection (4).
Act 2 of 2000
Promotion of Access to Information Act, 2000
1. The amendment of section 1 by the- (a) insertion, after the definition of “application" of the following definition: “biometrics' means a technique of personal identification that is based on physical, physiological or behavioural characterisation including blood typing, fingerprinting, DNA analysis, retinal scanning and voice recogni- tion;”;
+
+110
+
+
+
No. and year of law
Short title
Extent of repeal or amendment
(b) omission of the definition of “Human Rights Commission"; (c) substitution for the definition of “personal information" of the following definition: “‘personal information' means information relating to an identifiable natural person, including, but not limited to- (a) information relating to the race, gender, sex, pregnancy, marital status, national, ethnic or social origin, colour, sexual orientation, age, physical or mental health, well-being, disability, religion, conscience, belief, culture, language and birth of the person; (b) information relating to the education or the medical, financial, criminal or employment history of the person; (c) any identifying number, symbol, email address, physical address, telephone number, location information, online identifier or other particular assigned to the person; (d) the biometric information of the person; (e) the personal opinions, views or preferences of the person; (f) correspondence sent by the person that is implicitly or explicitly of a private or confidential nature or further correspondence that would reveal the contents of the original correspondence; (g)the views or opinions of another individual about the person; and (h) the name of the person if it appears with other personal information relating to the person or if the disclosure of the name itself would reveal information about the person, but excludes information about an individual who has been dead for
+
+112
+
+
+
No. and year of law
Short title
Extent of repeal or amendment
2.The amendment of section 10 by the substitution of the following section: “10.(1) The [Human Rights Commission] Information Regulator must[, within three years after the commencement of this section, compile in each official language a] update and make available the existing guide that has been compiled by the South African Human Rights Commission containing such information, in an easily comprehen- sible form and manner, as may reasonably be required by a person who wishes to exercise any right contemplated in this Act and the Protection of Personal Information Act, 2013. (2) The guide must, without limiting the generality of subsection (1), include a description of- (a) the objects of this Act and the Protection of Personal Information Act, 2013; [(b) the postal and street address phone and fax number and, if available, electronic mail address of- (i) the information officer of every public body; and (ii) every deputy information officer of every public body designated in terms of section 17(1); (c) such particulars of every private body as are practicable; (d)](b) the manner and form of a request for- (i) access to a record of a public body contemplated in section 11; and (ii) access to a record of a private body contemplated in section 50; [(e)](c)the assistance available from the information officer of a public body in terms of this Act and the Protection of Personal Informa- tion Act, 2013; [(f)](d) the assistance available from the [Human Rights Commission] Information Regulator in terms of this Act and the Protection of Personal Information Act, 2013; [(g)](e] all remedies in law available regarding an act or failure to act in respect of a right or duty conferred or imposed by this Act and the Protection of Personal Information Act, 2013, including the manner of lodging- (i) an internal appeal; [and] (ii) a complaint to the Information Regulator; and
+
+114
+
+
+
No. and year of law
Short title
Extent of repeal or amendment
(iii) an application with a court against a decision by the information officer of a public body, a decision on internal appeal, a decision by the Information Regulator or a decision of the head of a private body; [(h)](f) the provisions of sections 14 and 51 requiring a public body and private body, respectively, to compile a manual, and how to obtain access to a manual; [(i)](g) the provisions of sections 15 and 52 providing for the voluntary disclosure of categories of records by a public body and private body, respectively; [()](h) the notices issued in terms of sections 22 and 54 regarding fees to be paid in relation to requests for access; and [(k)](i) the regulations made in terms of section 92. (3) The [Human Rights Commission] Information Regulator must, if necessary, update and publish the guide at intervals of not more than two years. (4) The guide must be made available as prescribed.". 3. The amendment of section 11 by the substitution for subsection (2) of the following subsection: “(2) A request contemplated in subsection (1) [includes] excludes a request for access to a record containing personal information about the requester.". 4. The amendment of section 14 by the- (a) substitution for subsection (1) for the following subsection: “(1) [Within six months after the commencement of this section or the coming into existence of a public body, the] The information officer of [the] a public body [concerned] must [compile] in at least three official languages make available, as referred to in subsection (3), a manual containing- (a)in general i a description of its structure and functions; [(b)](ii) the postal and street address, phone and fax number and, if available, electronic mail address of the information officer of the body and of every deputy information
+
+116
+
+
No. and year of law
Short title
Extent of repeal or amendment
(ii) a description of all remedies available in respect of an act or a failure to act by the body;
and (iv) such other information as may be prescribed; (b)insofar as this Act is concerned- (i) a description of the guide referred to in section 10, if available, and how to obtain access to it;
[(d)](ii) sufficient detail to facilitate a request for access to a record of the body, a description of the subjects on which the body holds records and the categories of records held on each subject;
[(e)](ii) the latest notice, in terms of section 15(2), if any, regarding the categories of records of the body which are available without a person having to request access in terms of this Act;
[(f)](iv) a description of the services
available to members of the public from the body and how to gain access to those services; and [(g)](v) a description of any arrangement or provision for a person (other than a public body referred to in paragraph (a) or (b)(i) of the definition of "public body" in section 1) by consultation, making representations or otherwise, to participate in or influence- [(i)](aa) the formulation of policy; or [(ii)](bb) the exercise of powers or perfor- mance of duties, by the body; (c) insofar as the Protection of Personal Information Act, 2013, is concerned- (i) the purpose of the processing; (ii) a description of the categories of data subjects and of the
+
+118
+
+
+
No. and year of law
Short title
Extent of repeal or amendment
available- following words: of—”;
(iii) the recipients or categories of recipients to whom the personal information may be supplied; (iv) planned transborder flows of personal information; and (v)a general description allowing a preliminary assessment of the suitability of the information security measures to be implemented by the responsible party to ensure the confidential- ity, integrity and availability of the information which is to be processed. [(h) a description of all remedies available in respect of an act or a failure to act by the body; and. (i) such other information as may be prescribed.]"; and (b) by the substitution for subsection (3) of the following subsection: “(3) [Each manual must be made available as prescribed] The manual referred to in subsection (1), or the updated version thereof as referred to in subsection (2) must be made (a) on the web site, if any, of the public body; (b) at the head office of the public body for public inspection during normal business hours; (c) to any person upon request and upon the payment of a reasonable amount; and (d) to the Information Regulator upon request.". 5.The amendment of section 15 by the (a) substitution for the words preceding paragraph (a) of subsection (1) of the “(1) The information officer of a public body, referred to in paragraph (a) or (b)(i) of the definition of ‘public body' in section 1, must[, on a periodic basis not less frequently than once a year, submit to the Minister] make available in the prescribed manner a description (b) deletion of subsection (2); and (c)substitution of subsection (3) of the following subsection: “(3) The only fee payable (if any) for access to a record [included in a notice in terms of subsection (2)] referred to in subsection (1) is a prescribed fee for reproduction.".
+
+120
+
+
+
No. and year of law
Short title
Extent of repeal or amendment
6. The amendment of section 21 by the substitution of paragraphs (a) and (b) of the following paragraphs: “(a) the periods for lodging an internal appeal, a complaint to the Information Regulator, an application with a court or an appeal against a decision of that court have expired; or (b) that internal appeal, complaint to the Information Regulator, application or appeal against a decision of that court or other legal proceedings in connection with the request has been finally determined,". 7. The amendment of section 22 by the substitution for- (a) subsection (1) of the following subsection: “(1) The information officer of a public body to whom a request for access is made, must by notice require the requester[, other than a personal requester,] to pay the prescribed request fee (if any), before further processing the request."; (b) subsection (2) of the following subsection: “(2) If— (a) the search for a record of a public body in respect of which a request for access by a requester[, other than a personal requester,] has been made; and (b) the preparation of the record for
+
+122
+
+
No. and year of law
Short title
Extent of repeal or amendment
application, as the case may be.".
(b) that the requester may lodge an internal appeal, a complaint to the Information Regulator or an application with a court, as the case may be, against the tender or payment of the request fee in terms of subsection (1), or the tender or payment of a deposit in terms of subsection (2), as the case may be; and (c) the procedure (including the period) for lodging the internal appeal, complaint to the Information Regulator or application, as the case may.". 8. The amendment of section 25 by the- (a) substitution for paragraph (c) of subsection (2) of the following paragraph: “(c) that the requester may lodge an internal appeal, a complaint to the Information Regulator or an application with a court, as the case may be, against the access fee to be paid or the form of access granted, and the procedure (including the period) for lodging the internal appeal, complaint to the Information Regulator or application, as the case may be."; and (b) substitution for paragraph (c) of subsection (3) of the following paragraph: “(c) state that the requester may lodge an internal appeal, complaint to the Information Regulator or an application with a court, as the case may be, against the refusal of the request, and the procedure (including the period) for lodging the internal appeal, complaint to the Information Regulator or application, as the case may be.". 9. The amendment of section 26 by the substitution for paragraph (c) of subsection (3) of the following paragraph: “(c) that the requester may lodge an internal appeal, complaint to the Information Regulator or an application with a court, as the case may be, against the extension, and the procedure (including the period) for lodging the internal appeal, complaint to the Information Regulator or
+
+124
+
+
+
No. and year of law
Short title
Extent of repeal or amendment
10. The amendment of section 29 by the substitution of subsection (9) for the following subsection: “(9) If an internal appeal, complaint to the Information Regulator or an application to a court, as the case may be, is lodged against the granting of a request for access to a record, access to the record may be given only when the decision to grant the request is finally confirmed." 11. The amendment of section 49 by the- (a) substitution of paragraphs (b) and (c) of subsection (3)for the following paragraphs: “(b) that the third party may lodge an internal appeal, complaint to the Information Regulator or an application, as the case may be, against the decision within 30 days after notice is given, and the procedure for lodging the internal appeal, complaint to the Information Regulator or application, as the case may be; and (c) that the requester will be given access to the record after the expiry of the applicable period contemplated in paragraph (b), unless such internal appeal, complaint to the Information Regulator or application with a court is lodged within that period."; and (b) substitution of subsection (4) of the following subsection: “(4) If the information officer of a public body decides in terms of subsection (1) to grant the request for access concerned, he or she must give the requester access to the record concerned after the expiry of 30 days after notice is given in terms of subsection (1)(b), unless an internal appeal, complaint to the Information Regulator or an application with a court, as the case may be,is lodged against the decision within that period.". 12. The amendment of section 51 by- (a) by the substitution of subsection (1)for the following subsection: “(1) [Within six months after the commencement of this section or the coming into existence of the private body concerned, thel The head of a private body must [compile] make a manual available in terms of subsection (3) containing- (a) in general- (i) the postal and street address, phone and fax number and, if available, electronic mail address of the head of the body; and (ii) such other information as may be prescribed;
+
+126
+
+
No. and year of law
Short title
Extent of repeal or amendment
[(b)] (i) a description of the guide referred to in section 10, if available, and how to obtain access to it; of section 52(2), if any, regarding the categories of record of the body which are available without a person having to request access in terms of this Act; [(d)](ii) a description of the records
[(c)] (ii) the latest notice in terms
of the body which are available in accordance (c) insofar as the Protection of Personal InformationAct,2013,is concerned- (i) the purpose of the processing;
with any other legislation; and [(e)](iv) sufficient detail to facilitate a request for access to a record of the body, a description of the subjects on which the body holds records and the categories of records held on each subject; [and]
(ii) a description of the categories of
data subjects and of the information or categories of information relating thereto; (iii) the recipients or categories of recipients to whom the personal information may be supplied; (iv)planned transborder flows of personal information; and (v)a general description allowing a preliminary assessment of the suitability of the information security measures to be implemented by the responsible party to ensure the confidential- ity, integrity and availability of the information which is to be processed.". [(f) in general such other information as may be prescribed.]"; and (b) by the substitution for subsection (3) of the following subsection: “(3) [Each manual must be made available as prescribed] The manual referred to in subsection (1), or the updated version thereof as referred to in subsection (2) must be made available-
+
+128
+
+
+
No. and year of law Short title Extent of repeal or amendment (a) on the web site, if any, of the private body;
(b) at the principal place of business of the private body for public inspection during normal business hours; (c) to any person upon request and upon the payment of a reasonable amount; and (d) to the Information Regulator upon request." 13. The amendment of section 52 by the- (a) substitution for the words preceding paragraph (a) of subsection (1) of the following words: “(1) The head of a private body may, on a voluntary [and periodic] basis, [submit to the Minister] make available in the prescribed manner a description of—” (b) deletion of subsection (2); and (c) substitution of subsection (3) of the following subsection: “(3) The only fee (if any) for access to a record [included in a notice in terms of subsection (2)] referred to in subsection (1) is a prescribed fee for reproduction.". 14. The amendment of section 54 by the substitution for- (a) subsection (1) of the following subsection: “(1) The head of a private body to whom a request for access is made must by notice require the requester[, other than a personal requester,] to pay the prescribed request fee (if any), before further processing the request."; (b) subsection (2) of the following subsection: “(2) If- (a) the search for a record of a private body in respect of which a request for access by a requester [, other than a personal
+
+130
+
+
+
No. and year of law
Short title
150 Extent of repeal or amendment (c) paragraphs (b) and (c) of subsection (3)
of the following paragraphs: “(b) that the requester may lodge a complaint to the Information Regulator or an application with a court against the tender or payment of the request fee in terms of subsection (1), or the tender or payment of a deposit in terms of subsection (2), as the case may be; and (c) the procedure (including the period) for lodging the complaint to the Information Regulator or the application.". 15. The amendment of section 56 by the- (a) substitution for paragraph (c) of subsection (2)of thefollowing paragraph between: “(c) that the requester may lodge a complaint to the Information Regulator or an application with a court against the access fee to be paid or the form of access granted, and the procedure, including the period allowed, for lodging a complaint to the Information Regulator or the application."; and (b) substitution for paragraph (c) of subsection (3)of the following paragraph: “(c) state that the requester may lodge a complaint to the Information Regulator an application with a court against the refusal of the request, and the procedure (including the period)for lodging a complaint to the Information Regulator or the application.". 16.The amendment of section 57 by the substitution for paragraph (c) of subsection (3) of the following paragraph: “(c) that the requester may lodge a complaint to the Information Regulator or an application with a court against the extension, and the procedure (including the period) for lodging the application.". 17. The amendment of section 73 by the- (a) substitution for paragraphs (b) and (c) of subsection (3)of the following paragraphs: “(b) that the third party may lodge a complaint to the Information Regulator or an application with a court against the decision of the head within 30 days after notice is given, and the procedure for lodging the complaint to the
+
+132
+
+
No. and year of law
Short title
Extent of repeal or amendment
(c) that the requester will be given access to the record after the expiry of the applicable period contemplated in paragraph (b), unless a complaint to the Information Regulator or an application with a court is lodged within that period."; and (b) substitution of subsection (4) of the following subsection: “(4) If the head of the private body decides in terms of subsection (1) to grant the request for access concerned, he or she must give the requester access to the record concerned after the expiry of 30 days after notice is given in terms of subsection (1)(b), unless a complaint to the Information Regulator or an application with a court is lodged against the decision within that period.". 18. The amendment of Chapter 1 of Part 4 by the insertion after section 77 of the following sections: “CHAPTER 1A COMPLAINTS TO REGULATOR Complaints 77A.(1)A requester or third party referred to in section 74 may only submit a complaint to the Information Regulator in terms of this section after that requester or third party has exhausted the internal appeal procedure against a decision of the information officer of a public body provided for in section 74. (2)Arequester (a) that has been unsuccessful in an internal appeal to the relevant authority of a public body; (b) aggrieved by a decision of the relevant authority of a public body to disallow the late lodging of an internal appeal in terms of section 75(2); (c) aggrieved by a decision of the information officer of a public body referred to in paragraph (b) of the definition of 'public body' in section 1- (i) to refuse a request for access; or (ii) taken in terms of section 22, 26(1) or 29(3); or (d) aggrieved by a decision of the head of a private body- (i) to refuse a request for access; or (ii) taken in terms of section 54, 57(1) or 60, may within 180 days of the decision, submit a complaint, alleging that the decision was not in compliance with this
+
+134
+
+
No. and year of law Short title
Extent of repeal or amendment (3)A third party- (a) that has been unsuccessful in an internal appeal to the relevant authority of a public body; (b) aggrieved by a decision of the information officer of a public body referred to in paragraph (b) of the definition of ‘public body' in section 1 to grant a request for access; or (c) aggrieved by a decision of the head of a private body in relation to a request for access to a record of that body, may within 180 days of the decision, submit a complaint, alleging that the decision was not in compliance with this Act, to the Information Regulator in the prescribed manner and form for appropriate relief. Modes of complaints to Regulator 77B.(1) A complaint to the Information Regulator must be made in writing. (2) The Information Regulator must give such reasonable assistance as is necessary in the circumstances to enable a person, who wishes to make a complaint to the Information Regulator, to put the complaint in writing. Action on receipt of complaint 77C.(1) The Information Regulator, after receipt of a complaint made in terms of section 77A,must— (a) investigate the complaint in the prescribed manner; (b) refer the complaint to the Enforcement Committee established in terms of section 5O of the Protection of Personal Information Act, 2013; or (c) decide, in accordance with section 77D, to take no action on the complaint or, as the case may be, require no further action in respect of the complaint. (2) During the investigation the Information Regulator may- (a) act, where appropriate, as conciliator in
+
+136
+
+
No. and year of law
Short title
Extent of repeal or amendment
Regulator may decide to take no action on complaint
77D. (1) The Information Regulator, after investigating a complaint received in terms of section 77A, may decide to take no action or, as the case may be, require no further action in respect of the complaint if,
in the Information Regulator's opinion-
(a) the complaint has not been submitted within the period referred to in section 77A(2) and there are no reasonable
grounds to condone the late submission;
(b) the complaint is frivolous or vexatious
or is not made in good faith; or
(c)it appears to the Information Regulator
that, having regard to all the circum-
unnecessary or inappropriate.
stances of the case, any further action is
(2) In any case where the Information
Regulator decides to take no action, or no
further action, on a complaint, the
Information Regulator must inform the
for it.
complainant of that decision and the reasons
Pre-investigation proceedings of Regulator
77E. Before proceeding to investigate any
matter in terms of this Chapter, the
Information Regulator must, in the
prescribed manner, inform-
(a) the complainant of the Information
Regulator's intention to conduct the
investigation; and
(b) the information officer of the public
body or the head of the private body, as
the case may be, to whom the complaint relates of the-
(i) details of the complaint; and
(ii) right of the information officer or
the head to submit to the Informa-
tion Regulator, within a reasonable
period, a written response in relation to the complaint.
Settlement of complaints
77F. If it appears from a complaint, or
any written response made in relation to a
complaint under section 77E(b)(ii), that it
may be possible to secure a settlement
between the parties concerned, the
Information Regulator may, without
investigating the complaint or, as the case
may be, investigating the complaint further,
in the prescribed manner, use its best
endeavours to secure such a settlement.
+
+138
+
+
No. and year of law
Short title
Extent of repeal or amendment
Investigation proceedings of Regulator
77G.(1) For the purposes of the
investigation of a complaint the Information
Regulator has powers similar to those of the
High Court in terms of section 80 relating to the disclosure of records to it and
non-disclosure of records by it.
(2) Section 81 of the Protection of
Personal Information Act, 2013, applies to
the investigation of complaints in terms of this Chapter.
Assessment
77H. (1) The Information Regulator, on its own initiative, or at the request by or on
behalf of an information officer or head of a
private body or any other person may make an assessment in the manner prescribed of
whether a public or private body generally
complies with the provisions of this Act
insofar as its policies and implementation procedures are concerned.
(2) The Information Regulator must make
the assessment if it appears to be appropri- ate, unless, where the assessment is made on
request, the Information Regulator has not
been supplied with such information as it
may reasonably require in order to- (a) satisfy itself as to the identity of the
person making the request; and (b) enable it to identify the private or public
body concerned.
(3) The matters to which the Information
Regulator may have regard in determining
whether it is appropriate to make an
assessment include-
(a) the extent to which the request appears
to it to raise a matter of substance;
(b) determining that the request is not
frivolous or vexatious; and
(c) whether or not the person making the
request is entitled to make an application
in terms of this Act in respect of the
information in question.
(4) If the Information Regulator has
received a request under this section it must
notify the person referred to in subsection
(1)-
(a) whether it has made an assessment as a
result of the request; and
+
+140
+
+
No. and year of law
Short title
Extent of repeal or amendment
Information Notice 771.(1) For the purposes of the investigation of a complaint the Information Regulator may serve the information officer or head of a private body with an information notice requiring said party to furnish the Information Regulator, within a specified period, in a form specified in the notice, with the information specified in the notice.
+
+142
+
+
No. and year of law
Short title
Extent of repeal or amendment
procedure against a decision of the information officer of a public body provided for in section 74] in the following circumstances: (a) After that requester or third party has (b) after that requester or third party has (a) that has been unsuccessful in an internal (b) aggrieved by a decision of the relevant
Non-compliance with Enforcement Notice 77K. An information officer of a public body or head of a private body who refuses
to comply with an enforcement notice referred to insection 77J, is guilty of an
offence and liable upon conviction to fine or to imprisonment for a period not exceeding three years or to both such a fine and such
imprisonment.". 19.The amendment of section 78 by the substitution for the following section:
“Applications regarding decisions of information officers or relevant authori- ties of public bodies or heads of private bodies or Regulator 78.(1) A requester or third party [referred to in section 74] may only apply to a court for appropriate relief in terms of section 82 [after that requester or third party has exhausted the internal appeal
+
+144
+
+
No. and year of law
Short title
Extent of repeal or amendment
(3) A third party- (a) that has been unsuccessful in an internal appeal to the relevant authority of a public body; (b) aggrieved by a decision of the information officer of a public body referred to in paragraph (b) of the definition of ‘public body' in section 1 to grant a request for access; [or] (c) aggrieved by a decision of the head of a private body in relation to a request for access to a record of that body[]; or (d) that is aggrieved by any decision of the Information Regulator, may, by way of an application, within [30] 180 days apply to a court for appropriate relief in terms of section 82. (4) An information officer or relevant authority of a public body or the head of a private body, as the case may be, aggrieved by a decision of the Information Regulator in terms of section 77E(2)(b) or (c) may, by way of an application, within 180 days apply to a court for appropriate relief in terms of section 82." 20. The amendment of the heading of Part
+
+146
+
+
+
No. and year of law Act 25 of 2002
Short title
Extent of repeal or amendment
Electronic Communi- cations and Transactions Act, 2002
1.The amendment of section 1 by the substitution for the definition of “personal information" of the following definition: ‘personal information' means information relating to an identifiable natural person, including, but not limited to- (a) information relating to the race, gender, sex, pregnancy, marital status, national, ethnic or social origin, colour, sexual orientation, age, physical or mental health, well-being, disability, religion, conscience, belief, culture, language and birth of the person; (b) information relating to the education or the medical, financial, criminal or employment history of the person; (c) any identifying number, symbol, email address, physical address, telephone number, location information, online identifier or other particular assigned to the person; (d) the biometric information of the person; (e) the personal opinions, views or preferences of the person; (f) correspondence sent by the person that is implicitly or explicitly of a private or confidential nature or further correspondence that would reveal the contents of the original correspon- dence; (g)the views or opinions of another individual about the person; and
“‘prohibited conduct' means any act or omission in contravention of the Act, other than an act or omission as contemplated in section 55(2)(b) or that constitutes an offence under this Act, by- (a) an unregistered person who is required to be registered to engage in such an act; or
+
+148
+
+
+
No. and year of law
Short title
Extent of repeal or amendment
2.The amendment of section 55 by the substitution for subsection (2) of the following subsection: “(2)(a) Before issuing a notice in terms of subsection (1)(a) to a regulated financial institution, the National Credit Regulator must consult with the regulatory authority that issued a licence to that regulated financial institution. (b) Sections 68, 70(1), (2)(b) to (g) and (i), (3) and (4) and 72(1),(3) and (5) will be subject to the compliance procedures set out in Chapters 10 and 11 of the Protection of Personal Information Act, 2013.”. 3. The amendment of section 68 by the deletion of subsection (2). 4. The amendment of section 136 by the substitution for subsection (1) of the following subsection: “(1) Any person may, subject to section 55(2)(b), submit a complaint concerning an alleged contravention of this Act to the National Credit Regulator in the prescribed manner and form."
\ No newline at end of file
diff --git a/dataset/data/docs/republic-of-south-africa_Cybercrimes Act of South Africa_Act16-2020_commence.md b/dataset/data/docs/republic-of-south-africa_Cybercrimes Act of South Africa_Act16-2020_commence.md
new file mode 100644
index 0000000000000000000000000000000000000000..e5760e6189e89287ad077b333ba632c19d8d819d
--- /dev/null
+++ b/dataset/data/docs/republic-of-south-africa_Cybercrimes Act of South Africa_Act16-2020_commence.md
@@ -0,0 +1,3522 @@
+
+
+# Government Gazette REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
+
+Vol. 672
+
+Cape Town Kaapstad
+
+1 June 2021
+
+No. 44651
+
+# The Presidency
+
+# Die Presidensie
+
+# No. 324
+
+1 June 2021
+
+No. 324
+
+1 Junie 2021
+
+It is hereby notified that the President has assented to the following Act, which is hereby published for general information:—
+
+Hierby word bekend gemaak dat die President sy goedkeuring geheg het aan die onderstaande Wet wat hierby ter algemene inligting gepubliseer word:—
+
+Act No. 19 of 2020: Cybercrimes Act, 2020
+
+Wet No. 19 van 2020: Wet op Kubermisdade, 2020
+
+
+
+2
+
+# GENERAL EXPLANATORY NOTE:
+
+] Words in bold type in square brackets indicate omissions from existing enactments. Words underlined with a solid line indicate insertions in existing enactments.
+
+(English text signed by the President) (Assented to 26 May 2021)
+
+# ACT
+
+To create offences which have a bearing on cybercrime; to criminalise the disclosure of data messages which are harmful and to provide for interim protection orders; to further regulate jurisdiction in respect of cybercrimes; to further regulate the powers to investigate cybercrimes; to further regulate aspects relating to mutual assistance in respect of the investigation of cybercrimes; to provide for the establishment of a designated Point of Contact; to further provide for the proof of certain facts by affidavit; to impose obligations to report cybercrimes; to provide for capacity building; to provide that the Executive may enter into agreements with foreign States to promote measures aimed at the detection, prevention, mitigation and investigation of cybercrimes; to delete and amend provisions of certain laws; and to provide for matters connected therewith.
+
+# ARRANGEMENT OF SECTIONS
+
+Sections
+
+# CHAPTER 1
+
+5
+
+# DEFINITIONS AND INTERPRETATION
+
+1. Definitions and interpretation
+
+# CHAPTER 2
+
+# CYBERCRIMES, MALICIOUS COMMUNICATIONS, SENTENCING AND ORDERS TO PROTECT COMPLAINANTS FROM HARMFUL EFFECT 10 OF MALICIOUS COMMUNICATIONS
+
+PART I: CYBERCRIMES
+
+2. Unlawful access
+3. Unlawful interception of data
+4. Unlawful acts in respect of software or hardware tool
+5. Unlawful interference with data or computer program
+
+3
+
+# ALGEMENE VERDUIDELIKENDE NOTA:
+
+] Woorde in vet druk tussen vierkantige hake dui skrappings uit bestaande verordeninge aan. Woorde met volstreep daaronder, dui invoegings in bestaande verordeninge aan.
+
+(Engelse teks deur die President geteken) (Goedgekeur op 26 Mei 2021)
+
+# WET
+
+Ten einde misdrywe te skep wat op kubermisdaad betrekking het; om die openbaarmaking van skadelike databoodskappe te kriminaliseer en om vir tussentydse beskermingsbevele voorsiening te maak; om jurisdiksie ten opsigte van kubermisdade verder te reël; om die bevoegdhede om kubermisdade te ondersoek, verder te reël; om aspekte aangaande onderlinge bystand ten opsigte van die ondersoek van kubermisdaad verder te reël; om voorsiening te maak vir die instelling van ’n aangewese Kontakpunt; om verder voorsiening te maak vir die bewys van sekere feite deur beëdigde verklaring; om verpligtinge op te $\mathbf{l\hat{e}_{\theta}}\mathbf{om}$ kubermisdade aan te meld; om voorsiening te maak vir kapasiteitsbou; om te bepaal dat die Uitvoerende Gesag ooreenkomste met vreemde State kan aangaan om maatreëls te bevorder wat op die bespeuring, voorkoming, mitigering en ondersoek van kubermisdade gemik is; om bepalings van sekere wette te skrap en te wysig; en om voorsiening te maak vir aangeleenthede wat daarmee in verband staan.
+
+# INDELING VAN ARTIKELS
+
+Artikels
+
+# HOOFSTUK 1
+
+# WOORDOMSKRYWING EN UITLEG
+
+1. Woordomskrywing en uitleg
+
+# HOOFSTUK 2
+
+# KUBERMISDADE, KWAADWILLIGE KOMMUNIKASIES,VONNISOPLEGGING EN BEVELE TER BESKERMING VAN KLAERS TEENSKADELIKE UITWERKING VAN KWAADWILLIGE KOMMUNIKASIES
+
+DEEL I: KUBERMISDADE
+
+10
+
+2. Wederregtelike toegang
+3. Wederregtelike onderskepping van data
+4. Wederregtelike handelinge ten opsigte van sagteware- of hardewarenutsmiddel
+5. Wederregtelike inmenging met data of rekenaarprogram
+
+This gazette is also available free online at www.gpwonline.co.za
+
+4
+
+6. Unlawful interference with a computer data storage medium or computer system
+7. Unlawful acquisition, possession, provision, receipt or use of password, access code or similar data or device
+8. Cyber fraud
+9. Cyber forgery and uttering
+10. Cyber extortion
+11. Aggravated offences
+12. Theft of incorporeal property
+
+# PART II: MALICIOUS COMMUNICATIONS
+
+13. Definitions
+14. Data message which incites damage to property or violence
+15. Data message which threatens persons with damage to property or violence
+16. Disclosure of data message of intimate image
+
+# PART III: ATTEMPTING, CONSPIRING, AIDING, ABETTING, INDUCING, 15 INCITING, INSTIGATING, INSTRUCTING, COMMANDING OR PROCURING TO COMMIT OFFENCE
+
+17. Attempting, conspiring, aiding, abetting, inducing, inciting, instigating, instructing, commanding or procuring to commit offence
+
+# PART IV: COMPETENT VERDICTS
+
+20
+
+18. Competent verdicts
+
+PART V: SENTENCING
+
+19. Sentencing
+
+# PART VI: ORDERS TO PROTECT COMPLAINANTS FROM HARMFUL EFFECT OF MALICIOUS COMMUNICATIONS
+
+25
+
+20. Order to protect complainant pending finalisation of criminal proceedings
+21. Electronic communications service provider to furnish particulars to court
+22. Orders on finalisation of criminal proceedings
+23. Penalties
+
+# CHAPTER 3
+
+30
+
+# JURISDICTION
+
+24. Jurisdiction
+
+# CHAPTER 4
+
+# POWERS TO INVESTIGATE, SEARCH, ACCESS OR SEIZE
+
+25. Definitions 35
+26. Standard Operating Procedures
+27. Application of Criminal Procedure Act, 1977
+28. Search for, access to, or seizure of certain articles
+29. Article to be searched for, accessed or seized under search warrant
+30. Oral application for search warrant or amendment of warrant 40
+31. Search for, access to, or seizure of article without search warrant with consent
+of person who has lawful authority to consent
+
+Wet op Kubermisdade, 2020
+
+5
+
+6. Wederregtelike inmenging met ’n rekenaardatabergingsmedium of rekenaarstelsel
+7. Wederregtelike verkryging, besit, voorsiening, ontvangs of gebruik van wagwoord, toegangskode of soortgelyke data of toestel
+8. Kuberbedrog
+9. Kubervervalsing en- uitgifte
+10. Kuberafpersing
+11. Verswarende misdrywe
+12. Diefstal van onliggaamlike eiendom
+
+# DEEL II: KWAADWILLIGE KOMMUNIKASIES
+
+13. Woordomskrywing
+14. Databoodskap wat beskadiging van eiendom of geweld aanhits
+15. Databoodskap wat persone met beskadiging van eiendom of geweld dreig
+16. Openbaarmaking van databoodskap van intieme beeld
+
+# DEEL III: POGING, SAMESWERING, HULPVERLENING, AANSTIGTING, 15 UITLOKKING, AANHITSING, AANMOEDIGING, AANRAAIING, BEVEL, RAADGEWING OF VERKRYGING OM MISDRYF TE PLEEG
+
+17. Poging, sameswering, hulpverlening, aanstigting, uitlokking, aanhitsing, aanmoediging, aanraaiing, bevel, raadgewing of verkryging om misdryf te pleeg 20
+
+# DEEL IV: GEOORLOOFDE UITSPRAKE
+
+18. Geoorloofde uitsprake
+
+DEEL V: VONNISOPLEGGING
+
+19. Vonnisoplegging
+
+# DEEL VI: BEVELE TER BESKERMING VAN KLAERS TEEN SKADELIKE 25 UITWERKING VAN KWAADWILLIGE KOMMUNIKASIES
+
+20. Bevel ter beskerming van klaer hangende afhandeling van strafregtelike verrigtinge Elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer moet besonderhede aan hof verskaf 30
+22. Bevele by afhandeling van strafregtelike verrigtinge
+23. Strawwe
+
+# HOOFSTUK 3
+
+# JURISDIKSIE
+
+24. Jurisdiksie
+
+35
+
+# HOOFSTUK 4
+
+# BEVOEGDHEDE VAN ONDERSOEK, DEURSOEKING, TOEGANG OFBESLAGLEGGING
+
+25. Woordomskrywing
+26. Standaardbedryfsprosedures 40
+27. Toepassing van bepalings van Strafproseswet, 1977
+28. Deursoeking vir, toegang tot, of beslaglegging op, sekere items Deursoeking vir, toegang tot of beslaglegging op item kragtens deursoekingslasbrief
+30. Mondelinge aansoek om deursoekingslasbrief of wysiging van lasbrief 45
+31. Deursoeking vir, toegang tot, of beslaglegging op item sonder deursoekingslasbrief met toestemming van persoon met wettige magtiging om toe te stem
+
+6
+
+32. Search for, access to, or seizure of article involved in the commission of an offence without search warrant
+33. Search for, access to, or seizure of article on arrest of person
+34. Assisting police official or investigator
+35. Obstructing or hindering police official or investigator and authority to 5 overcome resistance
+36. Powers conferred upon police official or investigator to be conducted in decent and orderly manner with due regard to rights of other persons
+37. Wrongful search, access or seizure and restriction on use of instrument, device, password or decryption key or information to gain access 10
+38. False information under oath or by way of affirmation
+39. Prohibition on disclosure of information
+40. Interception of indirect communication and obtaining of real-time communication-related information
+41. Expedited preservation of data direction 15
+42. Preservation of evidence direction
+43. Oral application for preservation of evidence direction
+44. Disclosure of data direction and search for, access to, and seizure of articles subject to preservation
+45. Obtaining and using publicly available data or receiving data from person who 20 is in possession of data
+
+# CHAPTER 5
+
+# MUTUAL ASSISTANCE
+
+46. Application of provisions of Chapter
+47. Spontaneous information 25
+48. Foreign requests for assistance and cooperation
+49. Complying with order of designated judge
+50. Informing foreign State of outcome of request for mutual assistance and
+expedited disclosure of traffic data
+51. Issuing of direction requesting mutual assistance from foreign State 30
+
+# CHAPTER 6
+
+# DESIGNATED POINT OF CONTACT
+
+52. Establishment and functions of designated Point of Contact
+
+# CHAPTER 7
+
+# EVIDENCE
+
+35
+
+53. Proof of certain facts by affidavit
+
+# CHAPTER 8
+
+# REPORTING OBLIGATIONS AND CAPACITY BUILDING
+
+54. Obligations of electronic communications service providers and financial institutions 40 55. Capacity to detect, prevent and investigate cybercrimes 56. National Director of Public Prosecutions must keep statistics of prosecutions
+
+Wet op Kubermisdade, 2020
+
+# 7
+
+32. Deursoeking vir, toegang tot, of beslaglegging op item betrokke in pleging van misdryf, sonder deursoekingslasbrief
+33. Deursoeking vir, toegang tot of beslaglegging op item by inhegtenisneming van persoon
+34. Bystand aan polisiebeampte of ondersoeker 5
+35. Dwarsboming of belemmering van polisiebeampte of ondersoeker en magtiging om teenstand te oorkom
+36. Bevoegdhede aan polisiebeampte of ondersoeker opgedra moet op behoorlike en ordelike wyse uitgevoer word met behoorlike inagneming van regte van ander persone 10
+37. Wederregtelike deursoeking, toegang of beslaglegging en beperking op gebruik van instrument, toestel, wagwoord of dekripteringsleutel of inligting om toegang te kry
+38. Vals inligting onder eed of deur plegtige verklaring
+39. Verbod op openbaarmaking van inligting 15
+40. Onderskepping van onregstreekse kommunikasie en verkryging van intydse kommunikasie-verwante inligting
+41. Lasgewing vir bespoedigde bewaring van data
+42. Lasgewing vir bewaring van getuienis
+43. Mondelinge aansoek om lasgewing vir bewaring van getuienis 20
+44. Lasgewing vir openbaarmaking van data en deursoeking vir, toegang tot en beslaglegging op items onderworpe aan bewaring
+45. Verkryging en gebruik van openbaar beskikbare data of ontvangs van data van persoon wat in besit is van data
+
+# HOOFSTUK 5
+
+25
+
+# ONDERLINGE BYSTAND
+
+46. Toepassing van bepalings van Hoofstuk
+47. Spontane inligting
+48. Buitelandse versoeke om bystand en samewerking
+49. Voldoening aan bevel van aangewese regter 30
+50. Verwittiging van vreemde Staat van uitslag van versoek om onderlinge bystand
+en bespoedigde openbaarmaking van verkeersdata
+51. Uitreiking van lasgewing om onderlinge bystand van vreemde Staat te versoek
+
+# HOOFSTUK 6
+
+# AANGEWESE KONTAKPUNT
+
+35
+
+52. Instelling en werksaamhede van aangewese Kontakpunt
+
+# HOOFSTUK 7
+
+# GETUIENIS
+
+53. Bewys van sekere feite deur beëdigde verklaring
+
+# HOOFSTUK 8
+
+40
+
+# RAPPORTERINGSVERPLIGTINGE EN KAPASITEITSBOU
+
+54. Verpligtinge van elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffers en finansiële instellings
+55. Kapasiteit om kubermisdade te bespeur, te voorkom en te ondersoek
+56. Nasionale Direkteur van Openbare Vervolgings moet statistieke van 45 vervolgings hou
+
+8
+
+# CHAPTER 9
+
+# GENERAL PROVISIONS
+
+57. National Executive may enter into agreements
+58. Repeal or amendment of laws
+59. Regulations
+60. Short title and commencement
+
+5
+
+# Schedule
+
+# CHAPTER 1
+
+# DEFINITIONS AND INTERPRETATION
+
+# Definitions and interpretation
+
+10
+
+1. (1) In this Act, unless the context indicates otherwise— ‘‘article’’ means any— (a) data; (b) computer program; (c) computer data storage medium; or (d) computer system, which—
+
+#
+
+(i) is concerned with, connected with or is, on reasonable grounds, believed to be concerned with or connected with the commission or suspected commission; 20
+(ii) may afford evidence of the commission or suspected commission; or
+(iii) is intended to be used or is, on reasonable grounds believed to be intended to be used in the commission or intended commission, of— (aa) an offence in terms of Part I and Part II of Chapter 2; 25 $(b b)$ any other offence in terms of the law of the Republic; or (cc) an offence in a foreign State that is substantially similar to an offence contemplated in Part I or Part II of Chapter 2 or another offence recognised in the Republic;
+
+‘‘computer’’ means any electronic programmable device used, whether by itself or as 30 part of a computer system or any other device or equipment, or any part thereof, to perform predetermined arithmetic, logical, routing, processing or storage operations in accordance with set instructions and includes any data, computer program or computer data storage medium that are related to, connected with or used with such a device; ‘‘computer data storage medium’’ means any device from which data or a computer 3 program is capable of being reproduced or on which data or a computer program is capable of being stored, by a computer system, irrespective of whether the device is physically attached to or connected with a computer system;
+
+‘‘computer program’’ means data representing instructions or statements that, when executed in a computer system, causes the computer system to perform a function; 40
+
+‘‘computer system’’ means—
+
+(a) one computer; or
+(b) two or more inter-connected or related computers, which allow these inter-connected or related computers to— (i) exchange data or any other function with each other; or 4 (ii) exchange data or any other function with another computer or a computer system;
+
+onstitution’’ means the Constitution of the Republic of South Africa, 1996;
+
+‘‘Criminal Procedure Act, 1977’’ means the Criminal Procedure Act, 1977 (Act No. 51 of 1977);
+
+‘‘Customs and Excise Act, 1964’’ means the Customs and Excise Act, 1964 (Act No.
+91 of 1964);
+
+‘‘Customs Control Act, 2014’’ means the Customs Control Act, 2014 (Act No. 31 of 2014);
+
+‘‘data’’ means electronic representations of information in any form;
+
+Wet op Kubermisdade, 2020
+
+9
+
+# HOOFSTUK 9
+
+# ALGEMENE BEPALINGS
+
+57. Nasionale Uitvoerende Gesag kan ooreenkomste aangaan
+58. Herroeping of wysiging van wette
+59. Regulasies
+60. Kort titel en inwerkingtreding
+
+5
+
+# Bylae
+
+# HOOFSTUK 1
+
+# WOORDOMSKRYWING EN UITLEG
+
+# Woordomskrywing en uitleg
+
+10
+
+1. (1) In hierdie Wet, tensy die samehang anders aandui, beteken— ‘‘aangewese Kontakpunt’’ die kantoor ingevolge artikel 52 ingestel of aangewys; ‘‘aangewese regter’’ ’n aangewese regter soos omskryf in artikel 1 van die Wet op die Reëling van Onderskepping van Kommunikasies en Verstrekking van Kommunikasieverwante Inligting, 2002;
+
+‘‘data’’ elektroniese voorstellings van inligting in enige formaat;
+
+‘‘databoodskap’’ data gegenereer, gestuur, ontvang of geberg by wyse van elektroniese middele, waar enige uitset van die data in ’n verstaanbare vorm is;
+
+‘‘Doeane- en Aksynswet, 1964’’ die Doeane- en Aksynswet, 1964 (Wet No. 91 van 1964);
+
+‘‘elektroniese kommunikasiediens’’ enige diens wat in geheel of hoofsaaklik bestaan uit die oordrag, op enige wyse, van elektroniese kommunikasies oor ’n elektroniese kommunikasienetwerk, met uitsondering van uitsaaidienste soos omskryf in artikel 1 van die Wet op Elektroniese Kommunikasie, 2005;
+
+# ‘‘elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer’’—
+
+(a) enige persoon wat ’n elektroniese kommunikasiediens verskaf aan die publiek, dele van die publiek, die Staat, of die intekenaars tot sodanige diens, kragtens en ooreenkomstig ’n elektroniese kommunikasiedienslisensie aan daardie persoon uitgereik ingevolge die Wet op Elektroniese Kommunikasie, 2005, of wat geag word gelisensieer of vrygestel van lisensiëring as sodanig te 30 wees ingevolge daardie Wet; en
+(b) ’n persoon wat wettige magtiging het om die bedryf of gebruik van ’n private elektroniese kommunikasienetwerk te beheer wat hoofsaaklik gebruik word vir voorsiening van elektroniese kommunikasiedienste vir die eienaar se eie gebruik en wat van lisensiëring vrygestel is ingevolge die Wet op Elektroniese 35 Kommunikasie, 2005;
+
+25
+
+‘‘elektroniese kommunikasienetwerk’’ ’n elektroniese kommunikasienetwerk soos omskryf in artikel 1 van die Wet op Elektroniese Kommunikasie, 2005, en sluit ’n rekenaarstelsel in;
+
+‘‘finansiële instelling’’ ’n ‘‘financial institution’’ soos omskryf in artikel 1 van die 40 ‘‘Financial Sector Regulation Act’’, 2017 (Wet No. 9 van 2017);
+
+‘‘Grondwet’’ die Grondwet van die Republiek van Suid-Afrika, 1996;
+‘‘item’’ enige— (a) data; (b) rekenaarprogram; (c) rekenaardatabergingsmedium; of (d) rekenaarstelsel, wat— (i) betrokke is by, in verband staan met of, op redelike gronde, geag word betrokke te wees by of in verband te staan met die pleging of vermeende 50 pleging; (ii) tot bewys kan strek van die pleging of vermeende pleging; of (iii) wat bestem is om gebruik te word, of op redelike gronde vermeen word bestem te wees by, die pleging of voorgenome pleging van— (aa) ’n misdryf ingevolge Deel I en Deel II van Hoofstuk 2;
+
+‘‘data message’’ means data generated, sent, received or stored by electronic means, where any output of the data is in an intelligible form;
+
+‘‘designated judge’’ means a designated judge as defined in section 1 of the Regulation of Interception of Communications and Provision of Communication-related Information Act, 2002;
+
+‘‘designated Point of Contact’’ means the office established or designated in terms of section 52;
+
+‘‘Electronic Communications Act, 2005’’ means the Electronic Communications Act, 2005 (Act No. 36 of 2005);
+
+‘‘electronic communications network’’ means an electronic communications network 10 as defined in section 1 of the Electronic Communications Act, 2005, and includes a computer system;
+
+‘‘electronic communications service’’ means any service which consists wholly or mainly of the conveyance by any means of electronic communications over an electronic communications network, but excludes broadcasting services as defined in 15 section 1 of the Electronic Communications Act, 2005;
+
+# ‘‘electronic communications service provider’’ means—
+
+(a) any person who provides an electronic communications service to the public, sections of the public, the State, or the subscribers to such service, under and in accordance with an electronic communications service licence issued to 20 that person in terms of the Electronic Communications Act, 2005, or who is deemed to be licenced or exempted from being licenced as such in terms of that Act; and
+(b) a person who has lawful authority to control the operation or use of a private electronic communications network used primarily for providing electronic 25 communications services for the owner’s own use and which is exempted from being licensed in terms of the Electronic Communications Act, 2005;
+
+‘‘financial institution’’ means a financial institution as defined in section 1 of the Financial Sector Regulation Act, 2017 (Act No. 9 of 2017);
+
+‘foreign State’’ means any State other than the Republic;
+
+‘‘Intelligence Services Oversight Act, 1994’’ means the Intelligence Services Oversight Act, 1994 (Act No. 40 of 1994);
+
+‘International Co-operation in Criminal Matters Act, 1996’’ means the International Co-operation in Criminal Matters Act, 1996 (Act No. 75 of 1996);
+
+30
+
+‘‘Justices of the Peace and Commissioners of Oaths Act, 1963’’ means the Justices of 35 the Peace and Commissioners of Oaths Act, 1963 (Act No. 16 of 1963);
+
+‘‘magistrate’’ includes a regional court magistrate;
+‘‘Magistrates’ Courts Act, 1944’’ means the Magistrates’ Courts Act, 1944 (Act No. 32 of 1944);
+
+‘‘National Commissioner’’ means the National Commissioner of the South African 40 Police Service, appointed by the President under section 207(1) of the Constitution;
+
+‘‘National Director of Public Prosecutions’’ means the person contemplated in section 179(1)(a) of the Constitution and appointed in terms of section 10 of the National Prosecuting Authority Act, 1998;
+
+‘‘National Head of the Directorate’’ means a person appointed in terms of section 45 17CA(1) of the South African Police Service Act, 1995;
+
+‘‘National Prosecuting Authority Act, 1998’’ means the National Prosecuting Authority Act, 1998 (Act No. 32 of 1998);
+
+‘‘National Strategic Intelligence Act, 1994’’ means the National Strategic Intelligence Act, 1994 (Act No. 39 of 1994); 5 ‘‘output of a computer program’’ means any— (a) data or output of the data; $(b)$ computer program; or (c) instructions,
+
+generated by a computer program;
+‘‘output of data’’ means by having data displayed or in any other manner;
+‘‘person’’ means a natural or a juristic person;
+
+‘‘police official’’ means a member of the South African Police Service as defined in section 1 of the South African Police Service Act, 1995;
+
+‘‘Prevention of Organised Crime Act, 1998’’ means the Prevention of Organised 60 Crime Act, 1998 (Act No. 121 of 1998);
+
+‘‘Protection from Harassment Act, 2011’’ means the Protection from Harassment Act, 2011 (Act No. 17 of 2011);
+
+55
+
+11
+
+(bb) enige ander misdryf ingevolge die reg van die Republiek; of
+(cc) ’n misdryf in ’n vreemde Staat wat wesenlik soortgelyk is aan ’n misdryf in Deel I of Deel II van Hoofstuk 2 beoog of ’n ander misdryf in die Republiek erken;
+
+‘‘landdros’’ ook ’n streekhoflanddros;
+
+‘‘Nasionale Direkteur van Openbare Vervolging’’ die persoon in artikel $179(1)(a)$ van die Grondwet beoog en aangestel ingevolge artikel 10 van die Wet op die Nasionale Vervolgingsgesag, 1998;
+
+‘‘Nasionale Hoof van die Direktoraat’’ ’n persoon ingevolge artikel 17CA(1) van die Wet op die Suid-Afrikaanse Polisiediens, 1995, aangestel;
+
+‘‘Nasionale Kommissaris’’ die Nasionale Kommissaris van die Suid-Afrikaanse Polisiediens, deur die President aangestel kragtens artikel 207(1) van die Grondwet;
+
+‘‘openbaar beskikbare data’’ data wat toeganklik is in die publieke domein sonder beperking;
+
+15
+
+‘‘persoon’’ ’n natuurlike of regspersoon;
+‘‘polisiebeampte’’ ’n lid van die Suid-Afrikaanse Polisiediens soos omskryf in artikel 1 van die Wet op die Suid-Afrikaanse Polisiediens, 1995;
+
+‘‘rekenaar’’ enige elektroniese, programmeerbare toestel gebruik, hetsy alleen of as deel van ’n rekenaarstelsel of enige ander toestel of toerusting of enige deel daarvan, om voorafbepaalde rekenkundige, logiese, roeterings-, verwerkings- of bergingsoperasies 20 ooreenkomstig vasgestelde instruksies te verrig, en sluit in enige data, rekenaarprogram of rekenaardatabergingsmedium wat verband hou met, gekoppel is aan of gebruik word met sodanige toestel;
+
+‘‘rekenaardatabergingsmedium’’ enige toestel waarvandaan data of ’n rekenaarprogram gereproduseer kan word of waarop data of ’n rekenaarprogram geberg 25 kan word, deur ’n rekenaarstelsel ongeag of die toestel fisies verbonde is aan of gekoppel is met ’n rekenaarstelsel;
+
+‘‘rekenaarprogram’’ data wat instruksies of stellings verteenwoordig wat, wanneer dit in ’n rekenaarstelsel uitgevoer word, die rekenaarstelsel ’n funksie laat verrig;
+
+# ‘‘rekenaarstelsel’’—
+
+30
+
+(a) een rekenaar; of
+(b) twee of meer rekenaars wat onderling gekoppel of verbandhoudend is, wat hierdie rekenaars wat onderling gekoppel is of verbandhoudend is, toelaat om— (i) data of enige ander funksie met mekaar uit te ruil; of (ii) data of enige ander funksie met ’n ander rekenaar of ’n rekenaarstelsel uit te ruil;
+
+‘‘spesifiek aangewese polisiebeampte’’ ’n polisiebeampte met die rang van kaptein of hoër bedoel in artikel 33 van die Wet op die Suid-Afrikaanse Polisiediens, 1995, wat skriftelik deur onderskeidelik die Nasionale Kommissaris en die Nasionale Hoof van die Direktoraat aangewys is om—
+
+(a) mondeling aansoek te doen om ’n deursoekingslasbrief of ’n wysiging van ’n lasbrief in artikel 30 bedoel;
+(b) lasgewings vir bespoedigde bewaring van data in artikel 41 bedoel, uit te reik; of 45
+(c) ’n lasgewing van die aangewese regter in artikel 48(10) beoog, te beteken of tenuitvoer te lê;
+
+trafproseswet, 1977’’ die Strafproseswet, 1977 (Wet No. 51 van 1977);
+
+‘‘Suid-Afrikaanse Reserwebank’’ die Suid-Afrikaanse Reserwebank, bedoel in artikel 223 van die Grondwet, gelees met die Wet op die Suid-Afrikaanse Reserwebank, 1989; 50 ‘‘uitset van data’’ deur data te vertoon of op enige ander wyse te hê;
+
+# ‘uitset van ’n rekenaarprogram’’ enige—
+
+(a) data of uitset van die data; (b) rekenaarprogram; of (c) instruksies,
+
+deur ’n rekenaarprogram gegenereer;
+
+‘‘verantwoordelike party’’ ’n verantwoordelike party soos omskryf in artikel 1 van die Wet op die Beskerming van Persoonlike Inligting, 2013;
+
+‘‘verkeersdata’’ data aangaande ’n kommunikasie wat die kommunikasie se oorsprong, bestemming, roete, formaat, tyd, datum, grootte, duur of tipe van die onderliggende 60 diens aandui;
+
+‘‘vreemde Staat’’ enige Staat anders as die Republiek;
+
+‘‘Protection of Personal Information Act, 2013’’ means the Protection of Personal Information Act, 2013 (Act No. 4 of 2013);
+
+‘‘publicly available data’’ means data which is accessible in the public domain without restriction;
+
+‘‘Regulation of Interception of Communications and Provision of Communication- 5 related Information Act, $2002^{\circ}$ means the Regulation of Interception of Communications and Provision of Communication-related Information Act, 2002 (Act No. 70 of 2002);
+
+‘‘responsible party’’ means a responsible party as defined in section 1 of the Protection of Personal Information Act, 2013; 10 ‘‘South African Police Service Act, 1995’’ means the South African Police Service Act, 1995 (Act No. 68 of 1995);
+
+‘‘South African Reserve Bank’’ means the South African Reserve Bank, referred to in section 223 of the Constitution, read with the South African Reserve Bank Act, 1989;
+
+‘‘South African Reserve Bank Act, 1989’’ means the South African Reserve Bank Act, 15 1989 (Act No. 90 of 1989);
+
+‘‘specifically designated police official’’ means a police official of the rank of captain or above referred to in section 33 of the South African Police Service Act, 1995, who has been designated in writing by the National Commissioner and the National Head of the Directorate, respectively, to—
+
+(a) make oral applications for a search warrant or an amendment of a warrant contemplated in section 30;
+(b) issue expedited preservation of data directions contemplated in section 41; or
+(c) serve or execute an order of the designated judge as contemplated in section 48(10);
+
+‘‘Superior Courts Act, 2013’’ means the Superior Courts Act, 2013 (Act No. 10 of 2013);
+
+‘‘Tax Administration Act, 2011’’ means the Tax Administration Act, 2011 (Act No. 28 of 2011); and
+
+‘‘traffic data’’ means data relating to a communication indicating the communication’s 30 origin, destination, route, format, time, date, size, duration or type, of the underlying service.
+
+(2) For the purposes of section 2, 3(2) or (3), or 7(1) or (2) of this Act, any failure by a responsible party to comply with—
+
+(a) the conditions for lawful processing of personal information referred to in 35 Chapter 3;
+(b) section 72; or
+(c) the provisions of a code of conduct issued in terms of section 60,
+
+of the Protection of Personal Information Act, 2013, must be dealt with in terms of Chapter 10 of that Act. 40
+
+# CHAPTER 2
+
+# CYBERCRIMES, MALICIOUS COMMUNICATIONS, SENTENCING AND ORDERS TO PROTECT COMPLAINANTS FROM HARMFUL EFFECT OF MALICIOUS COMMUNICATIONS
+
+PART I: CYBERCRIMES
+
+# Unlawful access
+
+2. (1) Any person who unlawfully and intentionally performs an act in respect of— (a) a computer system; or (b) a computer data storage medium, which places the person who performed the act or any other person in a position to 50 commit an offence contemplated in subsection (2), section 3(1), 5(1) or 6(1), is guilty of an offence. (2) (a) Any person who unlawfully and intentionally accesses a computer system or a computer data storage medium, is guilty of an offence.
+
+13
+
+‘‘Wet op Belastingadministrasie, 2011’’ die Wet op Belastingadministrasie, 2011 (Wet No. 28 van 2011);
+‘‘Wet op Beskerming teen Teistering, 2011’’ die Wet op Beskerming teen Teistering, 2011 (Wet No. 17 van 2011);
+‘‘Wet op Beskerming van Persoonlike Inligting, 2013’’ die Wet op Beskerming van 5 Persoonlike Inligting, 2013 (Wet No. 4 van 2013);
+‘‘Wet op die Nasionale Vervolgingsgesag, 1998’’ die Wet op die Nasionale Vervolgingsgesag, 1998 (Wet No. 32 van 1998);
+‘‘Wet op die Reëling van Onderskepping van Kommunikasies en Verstrekking van Kommunikasie-verwante Inligting, $2002^{,9}$ die Wet op die Reëling van Onderskepping 10 van Kommunikasies en Verstrekking van Kommunikasie-verwante Inligting, 2002 (Wet No. 70 van 2002);
+‘‘Wet op die Suid-Afrikaanse Polisiediens, 1995’’ die Wet op die Suid-Afrikaanse Polisiediens, 1995 (Wet No. 68 van 1995);
+‘‘Wet op die Suid-Afrikaanse Reserwebank, 1989’’ die Wet op die Suid-Afrikaanse 15 Reserwebank, 1989 (Wet No. 90 van 1989);
+‘‘Wet op die Voorkoming van Georganiseerde Misdaad, 1998’’ die Wet op die Voorkoming van Georganiseerde Misdaad, 1998 (Wet No. 121 van 1998);
+‘‘Wet op Doeanebeheer, 2014’’ die Wet op Doeanebeheer, 2014 (Wet No. 31 van 2014); ‘‘Wet op Elektroniese Kommunikasie, 2005’’ die Wet op Elektroniese 20 Kommunikasie, 2005 (Wet No. 36 van 2005);
+‘‘Wet op Hoër Howe, 2013’’ die Wet op Hoër Howe, 2013 (Wet No. 10 van 2013); ‘‘Wet op Internasionale Samewerking in Strafregtelike Aangeleenthede, 1996’’ die Wet op Internasionale Samewerking in Strafregtelike Aangeleenthede, 1996 (Wet No. 75 van 1996); 25 ‘‘Wet op Landdroshowe, 1944’’ die Wet op Landdroshowe, 1944 (Wet No. 32 van 1944);
+‘‘Wet op Nasionale Strategiese Intelligensie, 1994’’ die Wet op Nasionale Strategiese Intelligensie, 1994 (Wet No. 39 van 1994);
+‘‘Wet op Toesig oor Intelligensiedienste, 1994’’ die Wet op Toesig oor 30 Intelligensiedienste, 1996 (Wet No. 40 van 1994); en
+‘‘Wet op Vrederegters en Kommissarisse van Ede, 1963’’ die Wet op Vrederegters en Kommissarisse van Ede, 1963 (Wet No. 16 van 1963).
+(2) By die toepassing van artikel 2, 3(2) of (3), of 7(1) of (2) van hierdie Wet, moet, enige versuim deur ’n verantwoordelike party om te voldoen aan— 35 (a) die voorwaardes vir regmatige prosessering van persoonlike inligting in Hoofstuk 3 bedoel;
+(b) artikel 72; of
+(c) die bepalings van ’n gedragskode uitgereik ingevolge artikel 60,
+
+van die Wet op Beskerming van Persoonlike Inligting, 2013, ingevolge Hoofstuk 10 van 40 daardie Wet hanteer word.
+
+# HOOFSTUK 2
+
+# KUBERMISDADE, KWAADWILLIGE KOMMUNIKASIES,VONNISOPLEGGING EN BEVELE TER BESKERMING VAN KLAERS TEENSKADELIKE UITWERKING VAN KWAADWILLIGE 45KOMMUNIKASIES
+
+DEEL I: KUBERMISDADE
+
+# Wederregtelike toegang
+
+2. (1) Enige persoon wat wederregtelik en opsetlik ’n handeling verrig ten opsigte van— 50 (a) ’n rekenaarstelsel; of (b) ’n rekenaardatabergingsmedium, wat die persoon wat die handeling verrig het of enige ander persoon in ’n posisie stel om ’n misdryf beoog in subartikel (2), artikel 3(1), 5(1) of 6(1) te pleeg, is skuldig aan ’n misdryf. 55 (2) (a) Enige persoon wat wederregtelik en opsetlik toegang tot ’n rekenaarstelsel of ’n rekenaardatabergingmedium verkry, is skuldig aan ’n misdryf.
+
+14
+
+(b) For purposes of paragraph (a)—
+
+(i) a person accesses a computer data storage medium, if the person— (aa) uses data or a computer program stored on a computer data storage medium; or (bb) stores data or a computer program on a computer data storage 5 medium; and
+
+(ii) a person accesses a computer system, if the person—
+
+(aa) uses data or a computer program held in a computer system;
+(bb) stores data or a computer program on a computer data storage medium forming part of the computer system; or 10
+(cc) instructs, communicates with, or otherwise uses, the computer system.
+
+(c) For purposes of paragraph (b)— (i) a person uses a computer program, if the person—
+
+(aa) copies or moves the computer program to a different location in the 15 computer system or computer data storage medium in which it is held or to any other computer data storage medium;
+(bb) causes a computer program to perform any function; or
+(cc) obtains the output of a computer program; and
+
+(ii) a person uses data, if the person—
+
+20
+
+(aa) copies or moves the data to a different location in the computer system or computer data storage medium in which it is held or to any other computer data storage medium; or
+$(b b)$ obtains the output of data.
+
+# Unlawful interception of data
+
+3. (1) Any person who unlawfully and intentionally intercepts data, including electromagnetic emissions from a computer system carrying such data, within or which is transmitted to or from a computer system, is guilty of an offence.
+
+(2) Any person who unlawfully and intentionally possesses data or the output of data, with the knowledge that such data was intercepted unlawfully as contemplated in 30 subsection (1), is guilty of an offence.
+
+(3) Any person who is found in possession of data or the output of data, in regard to which there is a reasonable suspicion that such data was intercepted unlawfully as contemplated in subsection (1) and who is unable to give a satisfactory exculpatory account of such possession, is guilty of an offence.
+
+(4) For purposes of this section ‘‘interception of data’’ means the acquisition, viewing, capturing or copying of data of a non-public nature through the use of a hardware or software tool contemplated in section 4(2) or any other means, so as to make some or all of the data available to a person, other than the lawful owner or holder of the data, the sender or the recipient or the intended recipient of that data, and includes 40 the—
+
+35
+
+(a) examination or inspection of the contents of the data; and (b) diversion of the data or any part thereof from its intended destination to any other destination.
+
+# Unlawful acts in respect of software or hardware tool
+
+45
+
+4. (1) Any person who unlawfully and intentionally— (a) uses; or $(b)$ possesses,
+
+any software or hardware tool for purposes of contravening the provisions of section 2(1) or (2), 3(1), 5(1), 6(1) or $7(1)(a)$ or $(d)$ , is guilty of an offence. 50
+
+(2) For purposes of this section ‘‘software or hardware tool’’ means any electronic, mechanical or other instrument, device, equipment, apparatus or a substantial component thereof or a computer program, which is designed or adapted primarily for the purpose to—
+
+(a) access as contemplated in section 2(1) or (2);
+(b) intercept data as contemplated in section 3(1);
+
+15
+
+(b) By die toepassing van paragraaf (a)— (i) verkry ’n persoon toegang tot ’n rekenaardatabergingsmedium, indien die persoon—
+
+(aa) data of ’n rekenaarprogram wat op ’n rekenaardatabergingsmedium geberg is, gebruik; of
+(bb) data of ’n rekenaarprogram berg op ’n rekenaardatabergingsmedium; en
+
+(ii) verkry’n persoon toegang tot ’n rekenaarstelsel indien die persoon—
+
+(aa) data of ’n rekenaarprogram wat in ’n rekenaarstelsel gehou word, gebruik;
+(bb) data of ’n rekenaarprogram op ’n rekenaardatabergingsmedium wat deel van die rekenaarstelsel uitmaak, berg; of
+(cc) die rekenaarstelsel opdragte gee, daarmee kommunikeer of dit andersins gebruik.
+
+(c) By die toepassing van paragraaf (b)—
+
+15
+
+(i) gebruik ’n persoon ’n rekenaarprogram, indien die persoon— (aa) die rekenaarprogram kopieer of verskuif na ’n ander ligging in die rekenaarstelsel of rekenaardatabergingsmedium waarin dit gehou word of na enige ander rekenaardatabergingsmedium; (bb) ’n rekenaarprogram enige funksie laat verrig; of (cc) die uitset van ’n rekenaarprogram verkry; en
+
+(ii) gebruik ’n persoon data, indien die persoon—
+
+20
+
+(aa) die data kopieer of verskuif na ’n ander ligging in die rekenaarstelsel of rekenaardatabergingsmedium waarin dit gehou word of na enige ander rekenaardatabergingsmedium; of
+
+(bb) die uitset van data verkry.
+
+# Wederregtelike onderskepping van data
+
+3. (1) Enige persoon wat wederregtelik en opsetlik data onderskep, met inbegrip van elektromagnetiese emissies van ’n rekenaarstelsel wat daardie data dra, binne-in of wat oorgesend word na of van ’n rekenaarstelsel, is skuldig aan ’n misdryf.
+
+(2) Enige persoon wat wederregtelik en opsetlik data, of die uitset van data besit, met die wete dat daardie data wederregtelik onderskep is soos in subartikel (1) beoog, is skuldig aan ’n misdryf.
+
+(3) Enige persoon wat in besit van data of die uitset van data gevind word, ten opsigte waarvan daar ’n redelike vermoede is dat daardie data wederregtelik onderskep is soos 35 in subartikel (1) beoog en wat nie bevredigend verontskuldigend rekenskap kan gee van daardie besit nie, is skuldig aan ’n misdryf.
+
+(4) By die toepassing van hierdie artikel, beteken ‘‘onderskepping van data’’ die verkryging, besigtiging, vaslegging of kopiëring van data van ’n nie-publieke aard deur die gebruik van ’n hardeware- of sagtewarenutsmiddel in artikel 4(2) beoog of enige 40 ander wyse, ten einde sommige van of al die data beskikbaar te stel aan ’n persoon, anders as die wettige eienaar of houer van die data, die sender of die ontvanger of die bedoelde ontvanger van daardie data, en sluit in die—
+
+(a) ondersoeking of inspeksie van die inhoud van die data; en
+(b) verleiding van die data of enige deel daarvan van die bedoelde bestemming na 45 enige ander bestemming.
+
+# Wederregtelike handelinge ten opsigte van sagteware- of hardewarenutsmiddel
+
+4. (1) Enige persoon wat wederregtelik en opsetlik enige sagteware- of hardewarenutsmiddel—
+
+(a) gebruik; of (b) besit,
+
+met die doel om die bepalings van artikel 2(1) of (2), 3(1), 5(1), 6(1) of $7(1)(a)$ of (d) te oortree, is skuldig aan ’n misdryf.
+
+(2) By die toepassing van hierdie artikel, beteken ‘‘sagteware- of hardewarenutsmiddel’’ enige elektroniese, meganiese of ander instrument, toestel, 55 toerusting, apparaat of ’n wesenlike komponent daarvan of ’n rekenaarprogram, wat hoofsaaklik ontwerp of aangepas is vir die doeleindes van—
+
+(a) toegang soos in artikel 2(1) of (2) beoog;
+(b) onderskepping van data soos in artikel 3(1) beoog;
+
+16
+
+(c) interfere with data or a computer program as contemplated in section 5(1);
+(d) interfere with a computer data storage medium or a computer system as contemplated in section 6(1); or
+(e) acquire, make available or use a password, access code or similar data or device as defined in section 7(3).
+
+# Unlawful interference with data or computer program
+
+5. (1) Any person who unlawfully and intentionally interferes with— (a) data; or (b) a computer program, is guilty of an offence.
+
+(2) For purposes of this section ‘‘interfere with data or a computer program’’ means to permanently or temporarily—
+
+10
+
+(a) delete data or a computer program;
+(b) alter data or a computer program;
+(c) render vulnerable, damage or deteriorate data or a computer program; 15 (d) render data or a computer program meaningless, useless or ineffective;
+(e) obstruct, interrupt or interfere with the lawful use of, data or a computer program; or
+$(f)$ deny access to data or a computer program,
+
+held in a computer data storage medium or a computer system.
+
+20
+
+# Unlawful interference with computer data storage medium or computer system
+
+6. (1) Any person who unlawfully and intentionally interferes with a computer data storage medium or a computer system, is guilty of an offence.
+
+(2) For purposes of this section ‘‘interfere with a computer data storage medium or a computer system’’ means to permanently or temporarily—
+
+25
+
+(a) alter any resource; or
+(b) interrupt or impair— (i) the functioning; (ii) the confidentiality; (iii) the integrity; or (iv) the availability,
+
+of a computer data storage medium or a computer system.
+
+30
+
+Unlawful acquisition, possession, provision, receipt or use of password, access code or similar data or device
+
+35
+
+7. (1) Any person who unlawfully and intentionally— (a) acquires; $(b)$ possesses; (c) provides to another person; or (d) uses,
+
+a password, an access code or similar data or device for purposes of contravening the 40 provisions of section 2(1) or (2), 3(1), 5(1), 6(1), 8 or 9(1), is guilty of an offence.
+
+(2) Any person who is found in possession of a password, an access code or similar data or device in regard to which there is a reasonable suspicion that such password, access code or similar data or device—
+
+(a) was acquired;
+$(b)$ is possessed;
+(c) is to be provided to another person; or (d) was used or may be used,
+
+for purposes of contravening the provisions of section 2(1) or (2), 3(1), 5(1), 6(1), 8 or 9(1), and who is unable to give a satisfactory exculpatory account of such possession, is 50 guilty of an offence.
+
+17
+
+(c) inmenging met data of ’n rekenaarprogram soos in artikel 5(1) beoog;
+(d) inmenging met ’n rekenaardatabergingsmedium of ’n rekenaarstelsel soos in artikel 6(1) beoog; of
+(e) verkryging, beskikbaarstelling of gebruikmaking van ’n wagwoord, toegangskode of soortgelyke data of toestel soos in artikel 7(3) omskryf.
+
+# Wederregtelike inmenging met data of rekenaarprogram
+
+5. (1) Enige persoon wat wederregtelik en opsetlik inmeng met— (a) data; of (b) ’n rekenaarprogram,
+
+is skuldig aan ’n misdryf.
+
+(2) By die toepassing van hierdie artikel beteken ‘‘inmenging met data of $\mathbf{\beta}_{\mathbf{n}}$ rekenaarprogram’’ om permanent of tydelik—
+
+(a) data of ’n rekenaarprogram uit te wis;
+(b) data of ’n rekenaarprogram te verander;
+(c) data of ’n rekenaarprogram kwesbaar te maak, te beskadig of te laat 15 agteruitgaan;
+(d) data of ’n rekenaarprogram betekenisloos, nutteloos of ondoeltreffend te maak;
+(e) die wettige gebruik van data of ’n rekenaarprogram te belemmer, te onderbreek of daarmee in te meng; of 20
+$(f)$ toegang tot data of ’n rekenaarprogram te weier,
+
+wat in ’n rekenaardatabergingsmedium of ’n rekenaarstelsel gehou word.
+
+# Wederregtelike inmenging met rekenaardatabergingsmedium of rekenaarstelsel
+
+6. (1) Enige persoon wat wederregtelik en opsetlik met ’n rekenaardatabergingsmedium of ’n rekenaarstelsel inmeng, is skuldig aan ’n misdryf. 25 (2) By die toepassing van hierdie artikel beteken ‘‘inmenging met ’n ekenaardatabergingsmedium of ’n rekenaarstelsel’’ om permanent of tydelik—
+
+30
+
+(a) enige bron te verander; of
+(b) die— (i) werking; (ii) vertroulikheid; (iii) integriteit; of (iv) beskikbaarheid, te onderbreek of te belemmer,
+
+van ’n rekenaardatabergingsmedium of ’n rekenaarstelsel.
+
+# Wederregtelike verkryging, besit, voorsiening, ontvangs of gebruik van wagwoord, toegangskode of soortgelyke data of toestel
+
+7. (1) Enige persoon wat wederregtelik en opsetlik ’n wagwoord, ’n toegangskode of oortgelyke data of toestel—
+
+(a) verkry;
+(b) besit;
+(c) aan iemand anders voorsien; of (d) gebruik,
+
+40
+
+met die doel om die bepalings van artikel 2(1) of (2), 3(1), 5(1), 6(1), 8 of 9(1) te oortree, is skuldig aan ’n misdryf. 45
+
+(2) Enige persoon wat in besit van ’n wagwoord, ’n toegangskode of soortgelyke data of toestel gevind word, ten opsigte waarvan ’n redelike verdenking bestaan dat sodanige wagwoord, toegangskode of soortgelyke data of toestel—
+
+(a) verkry is;
+$(b)$ besit word;
+(c) aan iemand anders voorsien gaan word; of (d) gebruik is of gebruik kan word,
+
+met die doel om die bepalings van artikel 2(1) of (2), 3(1), 5(1), 6(1), 8 of 9(1) te oortree en wat nie ’n bevredigende, verontskuldigende verduideliking vir sodanige besit kan gee nie, is skuldig aan ’n misdryf.
+
+18
+
+(3) For purposes of this section ‘‘password, access code or similar data or device’’ includes—
+
+(a) a secret code or pin;
+(b) an image;
+(c) a security token;
+(d) an access card;
+(e) any device;
+$(f)$ biometric data; or
+(g) a word or a string of characters or numbers,
+
+used for financial transactions or user-authentication in order to access or use data, a 10 computer program, a computer data storage medium or a computer system.
+
+# Cyber fraud
+
+8. Any person who unlawfully and with the intention to defraud makes a misrepresentation—
+
+(a) by means of data or a computer program; or
+$(b)$ through any interference with data or a computer program as contemplated in section ${5(2)(a),(b)}$ or (e) or interference with a computer data storage medium or a computer system as contemplated in section 6(2)(a),
+
+which causes actual or potential prejudice to another person, is guilty of the offence of cyber fraud. 20
+
+# Cyber forgery and uttering
+
+9. (1) Any person who unlawfully and with the intention to defraud makes— (a) false data; or $(b)$ a false computer program, to the actual or potential prejudice of another person, is guilty of the offence of cyber 25 forgery. (2) Any person who unlawfully and with the intention to defraud, passes off— (a) false data; or (b) a false computer program, to the actual or potential prejudice of another person, is guilty of the offence of cyber 30 uttering.
+
+# Cyber extortion
+
+10. Any person who unlawfully and intentionally commits or threatens to commit any offence contemplated in section 3(1), 5(1), 6(1) or $7(1)(a)$ or $(d)$ , for the purpose of— (a) obtaining any advantage from another person; or 35 $(b)$ compelling another person to perform or to abstain from performing any act, guilty of the offence of cyber extortion.
+
+# Aggravated offences
+
+11. (1) (a) Any person who commits an offence referred to in— (i) section 3(1), 5(1) or 6(1), in respect of; or 40 (ii) section 7(1), in so far as the passwords, access codes or similar data and devices relate to,
+a restricted computer system, and who knows or ought reasonably to have known or
+suspected that it is a restricted computer system, is guilty of an aggravated offence. (b) For purposes of paragraph (a), a ‘‘restricted computer system’’ means any data, 45
+computer program, computer data storage medium or computer system— (i) under the control of, or exclusively used by— (aa) a financial institution; or (bb) an organ of state as set out in section 239 of the Constitution, including a court; and 50 (ii) which is protected by security measures against unauthorised access or use.
+
+19
+
+(3) By die toepassing van hierdie artikel beteken ‘‘wagwoord, toegangskode of soortgelyke data of toestel’’ ook—
+
+(a) ’n geheime kode of pin;
+(b) ’n beeld;
+(c) ’n sekuriteitsbewys;
+(d) ’n toegangskaart;
+(e) enige toestel;
+(f) biometriese data; of
+(g) ’n woord of ’n string karakters of nommers,
+
+gebruik vir finansiële transaksies of gebruikeroutentisering ten einde data, ’n 10 rekenaarprogram, ’n rekenaardatabergingsmedium of $\mathbf{\chi}_{\mathrm{n}}^{\prime}$ rekenaarstelsel te gebruik.
+
+# Kuberbedrog
+
+8. Enige persoon wat wederregtelik en met die opset om te bedrieg, ’n
+wanvoorstelling maak— (a) deur middel van data of ’n rekenaarprogram; of 15 (b) deur enige inmenging met data of ’n rekenaarprogram soos beoog in artikel 5(2)(a), (b) of (e) of inmenging met ’n rekenaardatabergingsmedium of $\mathbf{\chi}_{\mathrm{n}}^{\prime}$ rekenaarstelsel soos beoog in artikel $6(2)(a)$ ,
+wat werklike of potensiële benadeling vir iemand anders veroorsaak, is skuldig aan die
+misdryf van kuberbedrog. 20
+
+# Kubervervalsing en -uitgifte
+
+9. (1) Enige persoon wat wederregtelik en met die opset om te bedrieg— (a) vals data; of (b) ’n vals rekenaarprogram, maak tot die werklike of potensiële benadeling van ’n ander persoon, is skuldig aan die 25 misdryf van kubervervalsing. (2) Enige persoon wat wederregtelik en met die opset om te bedrieg— (a) vals data; of (b) ’n vals rekenaarprogram, uitgee, tot die werklike of potensiële benadeling van ’n ander persoon, is skuldig aan die 30 misdryf van kuberuitgifte.
+
+# Kuberafpersing
+
+10. Enige persoon wat wederregtelik en opsetlik ’n misdryf beoog in artikel 3(1), 5(1), 6(1) of $7(1)(a)$ of (d) pleeg of dreig om sodanige misdryf te pleeg, met die doel om— 35
+
+(a) enige voordeel van iemand anders te verkry; of $(b)$ iemand anders te dwing om enige handeling te verrig of nie te verrig nie, skuldig aan die misdryf van kuberafpersing.
+
+# Verswarende misdrywe
+
+11. (1) (a) Enige persoon wat ’n misdryf pleeg bedoel in— 40 (i) artikel 3(1), 5(1) of 6(1), ten opsigte van; of (ii) artikel 7(1), vir sover die wagwoorde, toegangskodes of soortgelyke data en toestelle verband hou met,
+’n beperkte rekenaarstelsel en wat weet of redelikerwys moes geweet het of vermoed het
+dat dit ’n beperkte rekenaarstelsel is, is skuldig aan ’n verswarende misdryf. 45 (b) By die toepassing van paragraaf (a), beteken ’n ‘‘beperkte rekenaarstelsel
+enige data, rekenaarprogram, rekenaardatabergingsmedium of rekenaarstelsel— (i) onder die beheer van, of uitsluitlik gebruik deur— (aa) ’n finansiële instelling; of (bb) ’n staatsorgaan soos uiteengesit in artikel 239 van die Grondwet, met 50 inbegrip van ’n hof; en (ii) wat deur sekuriteitsmaatreëls teen ongemagtigde toegang of gebruik beskerm word.
+
+20
+
+(2) Any person who commits an offence referred to in section 5(1), 6(1) or 10, and who knows or ought reasonably to have known or suspected that the offence in question will—
+
+(a) endanger the life or cause serious bodily injury to, or the death of, any person, or any number or group of persons;
+(b) cause serious risk to the health or safety of the public or any segment of the public; or
+(c) create a serious public emergency situation,
+
+is guilty of an aggravated offence.
+
+(3) The Director of Public Prosecutions having jurisdiction must authorise in writing 10 a prosecution in terms of subsection (1) or (2).
+
+# Theft of incorporeal property
+
+12. The common law offence of theft must be interpreted so as not to exclude the theft of incorporeal property.
+
+# PART II: MALICIOUS COMMUNICATIONS
+
+# Definitions
+
+13. In Part II, unless the context indicates otherwise— ‘‘damage to property’’ means damage to any corporeal or incorporeal property; ‘‘disclose’’ in respect of a data message referred to in sections 14, 15 and 16, means to—
+
+(a) send the data message to a person who is the intended recipient of the 20 electronic communication or any other person;
+(b) store the data message on an electronic communications network, where the data message can be viewed, copied or downloaded; or
+(c) send or otherwise make available to a person, a link to the data message that has been stored on an electronic communication network, where the data 25 message can be viewed, copied or downloaded;
+
+‘‘group of persons’’ means characteristics that identify an individual as a member of a group, which characteristics include without limitation, race, gender, sex, pregnancy, marital status, ethnic or social origin, colour, sexual orientation, age, disability, religion, conscience, belief, culture, language, birth or nationality;
+
+30
+
+‘‘related person’’ means any member of the family or household of a person or any other person in a close relationship with that person; and
+‘‘violence’’ means bodily harm.
+
+# Data message which incites damage to property or violence
+
+14. Any person who discloses, by means of an electronic communications service, a 35
+data message to a person, group of persons or the general public with the intention to
+incite— (a) the causing of any damage to property belonging to; or (b) violence against,
+a person or a group of persons, is guilty of an offence. 40
+
+# Data message which threatens persons with damage to property or violence
+
+15. A person commits an offence if they, by means of an electronic communications service, unlawfully and intentionally discloses a data message, which—
+
+(a) threatens a person with—
+
+(i) damage to property belonging to that person or a related person; or 45 (ii) violence against that person or a related person; or (b) threatens a group of persons or any person forming part of, or associated with, that group of persons with— (i) damage to property belonging to that group of persons or any person forming part of, or associated with, that group of persons; or 50
+
+(2) Enige persoon wat ’n misdryf bedoel in artikel 5(1), 6(1) of 10 pleeg en wat weet of redelikerwys moes geweet het of vermoed het dat die betrokke misdryf—
+
+(a) die lewe in gevaar sal stel of ernstige ligaamlike beserings aan, of die dood veroorsaak van, enige persoon, of enige aantal of groep persone;
+(b) ’n ernstige risiko vir die gesondheid of veiligheid van die publiek of enige 5 segment van die publiek sal veroorsaak; of
+(c) ’n ernstige openbare noodsituasie skep,
+
+is skuldig aan ’n verswarende misdryf.
+
+(3) ’n Vervolging ingevolge subartikel (1) of (2) moet skriftelik deur die Direkteur van Openbare Vervolgings met regsbevoegdheid gemagtig word. 10
+
+# Diefstal van onliggaamlike eiendom
+
+12. Die gemeneregmisdryf van diefstal moet uitgelê word sodat dit nie die diefstal van onliggaamlike eiendom uitsluit nie.
+
+# DEEL II: KWAADWILLIGE KOMMUNIKASIES
+
+# Woordomskrywing
+
+13. In Deel II, tensy dit uit die samehang anders blyk, beteken—
+
+‘‘beskadiging van eiendom’’ skade aan enige liggaamlike of onliggaamlike eiendom;
+‘‘geweld’’ liggaamlike leed;
+
+‘‘groep persone’’ eienskappe wat ’n individu identifiseer as ’n lid van ’n groep, welke eienskappe sonder beperking, ras, geslagtelikheid, geslag, swangerskap, huwelikstatus, 20 etniese of sosiale herkoms, kleur, seksuele georiënteerdheid, ouderdom, gestremdheid, godsdiens, gewete, oortuiging, kultuur, taal, geboorte of nasionaliteit, insluit;
+
+‘‘openbaar maak’’ ten opsigte van ’n databoodskap in artikels 14, 15 en 16 bedoel, om—
+
+(a) die databoodskap aan ’n persoon wat die bedoelde ontvanger van die 25 elektroniese kommunikasie is of enige ander persoon te stuur;
+(b) die databoodskap op ’n elektroniese kommunikasienetwerk te berg, waar die databoodskap besigtig, gekopieer of afgelaai kan word; of
+(c) ’n skakel na die databoodskap wat op ’n elektroniese kommunikasienetwerk geberg is aan ’n persoon te stuur of andersins beskikbaar te stel, waar die 30 databoodskap besigtig, gekopieer of afgelaai kan word; en
+
+‘‘verwante persoon’’ enige lid van die gesin of huishouding van ’n persoon of enige ander persoon in ’n noue verhouding met daardie persoon.
+
+# Databoodskap wat beskadiging van eiendom of geweld aanhits
+
+14. Enige persoon wat ’n databoodskap openbaar maak deur middel van ’n 35 elektroniese kommunikasiediens, aan ’n persoon, groep persone of die algemene publiek met die bedoeling om—
+
+(a) beskadiging van enige eiendom wat behoort aan; of (b) geweld teen, ’n persoon of ’n groep persone aan te hits, is skuldig aan ’n misdryf.
+
+# Databoodskap wat persone met beskadiging van eiendom of geweld dreig
+
+15. ’n Persoon pleeg ’n misdryf as hulle, by wyse van ’n elektroniese kommunikasiediens, wederregtelik en opsetlik ’n databoodskap openbaar maak wat—
+
+(a) ’n persoon dreig met—
+
+(i) beskadiging van eiendom wat behoort aan daardie persoon of ’n 45 verwante persoon; of (ii) geweld teen daardie persoon of ’n verwante persoon; of (b) ’n groep persone of enige persoon wat deel van daardie groep persone is, of geassosieer is met daardie groep persone, dreig met— (i) beskadiging van eiendom wat behoort aan daardie groep persone of 50 enige persoon wat deel uitmaak van, of geassosieer is met, daardie groep persone; of
+
+22
+
+(ii) violence against the group of persons or any person forming part of, or associated with, that group of persons,
+
+and a reasonable person in possession of the same information, with due regard to all the circumstances, would perceive the data message, either by itself or in conjunction with any other data message or information, as a threat of damage to property or violence to a person or category of persons contemplated in paragraph (a) or $(b)$ , respectively.
+
+# Disclosure of data message of intimate image
+
+16. (1) Any person (‘‘A’’) who unlawfully and intentionally discloses, by means of an electronic communications service, a data message of an intimate image of a person $(^{66}\mathbf{B}^{99})$ , without the consent of B, is guilty of an offence.
+
+10
+
+(2) For purposes of subsection (1)— (a) ‘‘B’’ means—
+
+(i) the person who can be identified as being displayed in the data message;
+(ii) any person who is described as being displayed in the data message, irrespective of the fact that the person cannot be identified as being 15 displayed in the data message; or
+(iii) any person who can be identified from other information as being displayed in the data message; and
+
+(b) ‘‘intimate image’’ means a depiction of a person— (i) real or simulated, and made by any means in which— 20 (aa) B is nude, or the genital organs or anal region of B is displayed, or if B is a female person, transgender person or intersex person, their breasts, are displayed; or $(b b)$ the covered genital or anal region of B, or if B is a female person, transgender person or intersex person, their covered breasts, are 25 displayed; and
+
+(ii) in respect of which B so displayed retains a reasonable expectation of privacy at the time that the data message was made in a manner that— (aa) violates or offends the sexual integrity or dignity of B; or $(b b)$ amounts to sexual exploitation.
+
+30
+
+# PART III: ATTEMPTING, CONSPIRING, AIDING, ABETTING, INDUCING, INCITING, INSTIGATING, INSTRUCTING, COMMANDING OR PROCURING TO COMMIT OFFENCE
+
+Attempting, conspiring, aiding, abetting, inducing, inciting, instigating, instructing, commanding or procuring to commit offence
+
+17. Any person who unlawfully and intentionally—
+
+(a) attempts;
+(b) conspires with any other person; or
+(c) aids, abets, induces, incites, instigates, instructs, commands or procures another person,
+
+to commit an offence in terms of Part I or Part II of this Chapter, is guilty of an offence and is liable on conviction to the punishment to which a person convicted of actually committing that offence would be liable.
+
+# PART IV: COMPETENT VERDICTS
+
+# Competent verdicts
+
+18. (1) If the evidence in criminal proceedings does not prove the commission of the offence charged but proves a contravention of section 17—
+
+(a) in respect of the offence charged; or
+(b) in respect of any other offence of which an accused may be convicted on the offence charged,
+
+the accused may be found guilty of the offence so proved.
+
+23
+
+(ii) geweld teen die groep persone of enige persoon wat deel is van, of geassosieer is met, daardie groep persone,
+
+en ’n redelike persoon in besit van dieselfde inligting en met inagneming van al die omstandighede, die databoodskap, hetsy alleen of saam met enige ander databoodskap of informasie, sal beskou as ’n dreigement van beskadiging van eiendom of geweld 5 teenoor ’n persoon of kategorie persone in onderskeidelik paragraaf (a) of $(b)$ beoog.
+
+# Openbaarmaking van databoodskap van intieme beeld
+
+16. (1) Enige persoon (‘‘A’’) wat wederregtelik en opsetlik ’n databoodskap van ’n intieme beeld van ’n persoon $(^{66}\mathbf{B}^{99})$ openbaar maak deur middel van ’n elektroniese kommunikasiediens, sonder die toestemming van B, is skuldig aan ’n misdryf.
+
+(2) By die toepassing van subartikel (1) beteken —
+
+(i) die persoon wat identifiseer kan word as die persoon wat in die databoodskap vertoon word;
+(ii) enige persoon wat beskryf word as vertoon te wees in die databoodskap, 15 ongeag dat die persoon nie geïdentifiseer kan word as die persoon wat in die databoodskap vertoon word nie; of
+(iii) enige persoon wat uit ander inligting geïdentifiseer kan word as die persoon wat in die databoodskap vertoon word; en
+
+(b) ‘‘intieme beeld’’ ’n uitbeelding van ’n persoon—
+
+20
+
+(i) werklik of gesimuleer en op enige wyse gemaak waarin— (aa) B kaal is, of die geslagsorgane of anale area van B vertoon word, of indien B ’n vroulike persoon, transgenderpersoon of intersekspersoon is, hul borste, vertoon word; of (bb) die bedekte geslagsorgane of anale area van B, of indien B ’n 25 vroulike persoon, transgenderpersoon of intersekspersoon is, hul bedekte borste, vertoon word; en
+(ii) ten opsigte waarvan B aldus vertoon ’n redelike verwagting van privaatheid gehad het toe die databoodskap gemaak is op ’n wyse wat— (aa) die seksuele integriteit of waardigheid van B skend of krenk; of 30 (bb) op seksuele uitbuiting neerkom.
+
+# DEEL III: POGING, SAMESWERING, HULPVERLENING, AANSTIGTING, UITLOKKING, AANHITSING, AANMOEDIGING, AANRAAIING, BEVEL, RAADGEWING OF VERKRYGING OM MISDRYF TE PLEEG
+
+Poging, sameswering, hulpverlening, aanstigting, uitlokking, aanhitsing, 35 aanmoediging, aanraaiing, bevel, raadgewing of verkryging om misdryf te pleeg
+
+17. Enige persoon wat wederregtelik en opsetlik—
+
+(a) poog;
+(b) met ’n ander persoon saamsweer; of
+(c) ’n ander persoon help, aanstig, uitlok, aanhits, aanraai, beveel of verkry, 40 om ’n misdryf ingevolge Deel I of Deel II van hierdie Hoofstuk te pleeg, is skuldig aan ’n misdryf en is by skuldigbevinding strafbaar met die straf waarvoor ’n persoon wat aan die werklike pleging van daardie misdryf skuldig bevind is, onderhewig sal wees.
+
+# DEEL IV: GEOORLOOFDE UITSPRAKE
+
+# Geoorloofde uitsprake
+
+18. (1) Indien getuienis in strafregtelike verrigtinge nie die pleging van die ten laste gelegde misdryf bewys nie, maar ’n oortreding van artikel 17 bewys—
+
+(a) ten opsigte van die ten laste gelegde misdryf; of
+(b) ten opsigte van enige ander misdryf waaraan ’n beskuldigde op die ten laste 50 gelegde misdryf skuldig bevind kan word,
+
+kan die beskuldigde aan die aldus bewese misdryf skuldig bevind word.
+
+(2) If the evidence on a charge of a contravention of section 3(1), does not prove the offence or a contravention of section 17 in respect of that offence, but proves a contravention of—
+
+(a) section 2(1) or (2);
+$(b)$ section 3(2) or (3); or
+(c) section 4(1), in so far as it relates to the use or possession of a software or hardware tool, for purposes of contravening section 3(1),
+
+the accused may be found guilty of the offence so proved.
+
+(3) If the evidence on a charge of a contravention of section 5(1), does not prove the offence or a contravention of section 17 in respect of that offence, but proves—
+
+(a) a contravention of section 2(1) or (2);
+(b) a contravention of section 4(1), in so far as it relates to the use or possession of a software or hardware tool, for purposes of contravening section 5(1); or
+(c) the offence of malicious injury to property,
+
+the accused may be found guilty of the offence so proved.
+
+15
+
+(4) If the evidence on a charge of a contravention of section 6(1), does not prove the offence or a contravention of section 17 in respect of that offence, but proves—
+
+(a) a contravention of section 2(1) or (2);
+(b) a contravention of section 4(1), in so far as it relates to the use or possession of a software or hardware tool, for purposes of contravening section 6(1); or 20
+(c) the offence of malicious injury to property,
+
+the accused may be found guilty of the offence so proved.
+
+(5) (a) If the evidence on a charge of a contravention of section $7(1)(a)$ or $(d)$ does not prove the offence or a contravention of section 17 in respect of that offence, but proves a contravention of—
+
+(i) section 2(1) or (2);
+(ii) section $7(1)(b)$ or (c) or (2); or
+(iii) section 4(1), in so far as it relates to the use or possession of a software or hardware tool, to acquire or use a password, access code or similar data or device, 3
+
+the accused may be found guilty of the offence so proved.
+
+(b) If the evidence on a charge of a contravention of section $7(1)(b)$ or (c) does not prove the offence or a contravention of section 17 in respect of that offence, but proves a contravention of section 7(2), the accused may be found guilty of an offence so proved.
+
+(6) If the evidence on a charge of a contravention of section 8, does not prove the 35 offence or a contravention of section 17 in respect of the offence, but proves—
+
+(a) a contravention of section 2(1) or (2);
+(b) a contravention of section 4(1), in so far as it relates to the use or possession of a software or hardware tool, for the purposes of— (i) interfering with data or a computer program as contemplated in section 40 5(1); or (ii) interfering with a computer data storage medium or a computer system as contemplated in section 6(1);
+(c) a contravention of section 7(1) or (2), in so far as the password, access code or similar data or device was acquired, possessed, provided to another person or 45 used for purposes of contravening the provisions of section 8;
+(d) a contravention of section 9(1) or (2);
+(e) the common law offence of fraud or attempt to commit that offence;
+$(f)$ the common law offence of forgery or uttering or attempt to commit that offence; or 50
+(g) the common law offence of theft or attempt to commit that offence,
+
+the accused may be found guilty of the offence so proved.
+
+(7) (a) If the evidence on a charge of a contravention of section 9(1), does not prove the offence or a contravention of section 17 in respect of the offence, but proves—
+
+(i) the common law offence of forgery; (ii) a contravention of section 9(2); or
+
+25
+
+(2) Indien die getuienis op ’n aanklag van ’n oortreding van artikel 3(1), nie die misdryf of ’n oortreding van artikel 17 ten opsigte van daardie misdryf bewys nie, maar ’n oortreding van—
+
+(a) artikel 2(1) of (2);
+$(b)$ artikel 3(2) of (3); of
+(c) artikel 4(1), vir sover dit verband hou met die gebruik of besit van ’n sagteware- of hardewarenutsmiddel, vir doeleindes van oortreding van artikel 3(1),
+
+ewys, kan die beskuldigde aan die aldus bewese misdryf skuldig bevind word.
+
+(3) Indien die getuienis op ’n aanklag van ’n oortreding van artikel 5(1), nie die 10 misdryf of ’n oortreding van artikel 17 ten opsigte van daardie misdryf bewys nie, maar—
+
+(a) ’n oortreding van artikel 2(1) of (2);
+(b) ’n oortreding van artikel 4(1), vir sover dit verband hou met die gebruik of besit van ’n sagteware- of hardewarenutsmiddel vir doeleindes van oortreding 15 van artikel 5(1); of
+(c) die misdryf van opsetlike saakbeskadiging,
+
+bewys, kan die beskuldigde aan die aldus bewese misdryf skuldig bevind word.
+
+(4) Indien die getuienis op ’n aanklag van ’n oortreding van artikel 6(1), nie die misdryf of ’n oortreding van artikel 17 ten opsigte van daardie misdryf bewys nie, 20 maar—
+
+(a) ’n oortreding van artikel 2(1) of (2);
+(b) ’n oortreding van artikel 4(1), vir sover dit verband hou met die gebruik of besit van ’n sagteware- of hardewarenutsmiddel vir die doeleindes van ’n oortreding van artikel 6(1); of
+(c) die misdryf van opsetlike saakbeskadiging,
+
+bewys, kan die beskuldigde aan die aldus bewese misdryf skuldig bevind word.
+
+(5) (a) Indien die getuienis op ’n aanklag van ’n oortreding van artikel $7(1)(a)$ of $(d)$ nie die misdryf of ’n oortreding van artikel 17 ten opsigte van daardie misdryf bewys nie, maar ’n oortreding van—
+
+(i) artikel 2(1) of (2);
+(ii) artikel $7(1)(b)$ of (c) of (2); of
+(iii) artikel 4(1), vir sover dit verband hou met die gebruik of besit van ’n sagtewareof hardewarenutsmiddel om ’n wagwoord, toegangskode of soortgelyke data of toestel te verkry of te gebruik, 3
+
+wys, kan die beskuldigde aan die aldus bewese misdryf skuldig bevind word.
+
+(b) Indien die getuienis op ’n aanklag van ’n oortreding van artikel $7(1)(b)$ of (c) nie die misdryf of ’n oortreding van artikel 17 ten opsigte van daardie misdryf bewys nie, maar ’n oortreding van artikel 7(2) bewys, kan die skuldige aan die aldus bewese misdryf skuldig bevind word.
+
+(6) Indien die getuienis op ’n aanklag van ’n oortreding van artikel 8, nie die misdryf of ’n oortreding van artikel 17 ten opsigte van daardie misdryf bewys nie, maar—
+
+(a) ’n oortreding van artikel 2(1) of (2);
+(b) ’n oortreding van artikel 4(1), vir sover dit verband hou met die gebruik of besit van ’n sagteware- of hardewarenutsmiddel vir die doeleindes van— 45 (i) inmenging met data of ’n rekenaarprogram soos in artikel 5(1) beoog; of (ii) inmenging met ’n rekenaardatabergingsmedium of ’n rekenaarstelsel soos in artikel 6(1) bedoel;
+(c) ’n oortreding van artikel 7(1) of (2) vir sover die wagwoord, toegangskode of soortgelyke data of toestelle verkry, besit, aan iemand anders voorsien of 50 gebruik is vir die doeleindes van oortreding van die bepalings van artikel 8;
+(d) ’n oortreding van artikel 9(1) of (2);
+(e) die gemeneregmisdryf van bedrog of poging om daardie misdryf te pleeg;
+$(f)$ die gemeneregmisdryf van vervalsing of uitgifte of poging om daardie misdryf te pleeg; of 55
+(g) die gemeneregmisdryf van diefstal of poging om daardie misdryf te pleeg,
+
+ewys, kan die beskuldigde aan die aldus bewese misdryf skuldig bevind word.
+
+(7) (a) Indien die getuienis op ’n aanklag van ’n oortreding van artikel 9(1), nie die misdryf of ’n oortreding van artikel 17 ten opsigte van daardie misdryf, bewys nie, maar—
+
+(i) die gemeneregmisdryf van vervalsing; (ii) ’n oortreding van artikel 9(2); of
+
+26
+
+(iii) the common law offence of uttering, the accused may be found guilty of the offence so proved.
+
+(b) If the evidence on a charge of a contravention of section 9(2), does not prove the offence, but proves the common law offence of uttering, the accused may be found guilty of the offence so proved.
+
+(8) If an accused is charged with a contravention of section 11(1), and the evidence on the charge does not prove a contravention of section 11(1) or a contravention of section 17 in respect of that offence, but proves a contravention of—
+
+(a) section 2(1) or (2); (b) section 3(1) or any competent verdict provided for in subsection (2); (c) section 5(1) or any competent verdict provided for in subsection (3); (d) section 6(1) or any competent verdict provided for in subsection (4); or (e) section 7(1) or any competent verdict provided for in subsection (5),
+
+the accused may be found guilty of the offence so proved.
+
+(9) If an accused is charged with a contravention of section 11(2), and the evidence on 15 the charge does not prove the offence or a contravention of section 17 in respect of the offence, but proves a contravention of—
+
+(a) section 2(1) or (2); $(b)$ section 5(1) or any competent verdict provided for in subsection (3); or (c) section 6(1) or any competent verdict provided for in subsection (4), the accused may be found guilty of the offence so proved.
+
+(10) If the evidence on a charge for any offence referred to in the preceding subsections does not prove the commission of the offence so charged or any competent verdict in respect of the offence, but proves the commission of an offence which by reason of the essential elements of that offence is included in the offence so charged, the 25 accused may be found guilty of the offence so proved. (11) If an accused is charged with a contravention of section 14, 15 or 16, and the evidence on the charge does not prove the offence in question or a contravention of section 17 in respect of the offence, but proves the commission of an offence which by reason of the essential elements of that offence is included in the offence so charged, the 30 accused may be found guilty of the offence so proved.
+
+# PART V: SENTENCING
+
+# Sentencing
+
+19. (1) Any person who contravenes the provisions of section 2(1) or (2), 3(3) or 7(2)
+is liable on conviction to a fine or to imprisonment for a period not exceeding five years 35
+or to both a fine and such imprisonment. (2) Any person who contravenes the provisions of section 3(1) or (2), 4(1), 5(1), 6(1)
+or 7(1) is liable on conviction to a fine or to imprisonment for a period not exceeding 10
+years or to both a fine and such imprisonment. (3) Any person who contravenes the provisions of section 11(1) is liable on conviction 40
+to a fine or to imprisonment for a period not exceeding 15 years or to both a fine and such
+imprisonment. (4) A court which convicts a person of an offence in terms of section 8, 9(1) or (2), 10
+or 11(2) may, where a penalty is not prescribed in respect of that offence by any other
+law, impose a sentence, as provided for in section 276 of the Criminal Procedure Act, 45
+1977, which that court considers appropriate and which is within that court’s penal
+jurisdiction. (5) A court which imposes any sentence in terms of this section, or where a person is
+convicted of the offence of theft that was committed or facilitated by electronic means,
+must, without excluding other relevant factors, consider as aggravating factors— 50 (a) the fact that the offence was committed by electronic means; (b) the extent of the prejudice and loss suffered by the complainant or any other person as a result of the commission of such an offence;
+
+27
+
+(iii) die gemeneregmisdryf van uitgifte, ewys, kan die beskuldigde aan die aldus bewese misdryf skuldig bevind word.
+
+(b) Indien die getuienis op ’n aanklag van ’n oortreding van artikel 9(2), nie die misdryf bewys nie, maar die gemeneregmisdryf van uitgifte, kan die beskuldigde aan die aldus bewese misdryf skuldig bevind word.
+
+(8) Indien ’n beskuldigde van ’n oortreding van artikel 11(1) aangekla word, en die getuienis op die aanklag nie ’n oortreding van artikel 11(1) of ’n oortreding van artikel 17 ten opsigte van daardie misdryf bewys nie, maar ’n oortreding van—
+
+(a) artikel 2(1) of (2);
+(b) artikel 3(1) of enige bevoegde uitspraak waarvoor subartikel (2) voorsiening 10 maak;
+(c) artikel 5(1) of enige bevoegde uitspraak waarvoor subartikel (3) voorsiening maak;
+(d) artikel 6(1) of enige bevoegde uitspraak waarvoor subartikel (4) voorsiening maak; of 15
+(e) artikel 7(1) of enige bevoegde uitspraak waarvoor subartikel (5) voorsiening maak,
+
+bewys, kan die beskuldigde aan die aldus bewese misdryf skuldig bevind word.
+
+(9) Indien ’n beskuldigde van ’n oortreding van artikel 11(2) aangekla word, en die getuienis op die aanklag nie die misdryf of ’n oortreding van artikel 17 ten opsigte van 20 die misdryf bewys nie, maar ’n oortreding van—
+
+(a) artikel 2(1) of (2);
+(b) artikel 5(1) of enige bevoegde uitspraak waarvoor subartikel (3) voorsiening maak; of
+(c) artikel 6(1) of enige bevoegde uitspraak waarvoor subartikel (4) voorsiening 25 maak,
+
+wys, kan die beskuldigde aan die aldus bewese misdryf skuldig bevind word.
+
+(10) Indien die getuienis op ’n aanklag vir enige misdryf in die voormelde subartikels nie die pleging van die aldus ten laste gelegde misdryf of enige geoorloofde uitspraak ten opsigte van die misdryf nie bewys nie, maar die pleging van ’n misdryf bewys wat 30 weens die wesenlike elemente van daardie misdryf in die aldus ten laste gelegde misdryf inbegrepe is, kan die beskuldigde aan die aldus bewese misdryf skuldig bevind word. (11) Indien ’n beskuldigde van ’n oortreding van artikel 14, 15 of 16 aangekla word, en die getuienis oor die aanklag nie die betrokke misdryf of ’n oortreding van artikel 17 ten opsigte van die misdryf bewys nie, maar die pleging van ’n misdryf bewys wat uit 35 hoofde van die wesenlike elemente van daardie misdryf in die aldus ten laste gelegde misdryf inbegrepe is, kan die beskuldigde aan die aldus bewese misdryf skuldig bevind word.
+
+# DEEL V: VONNISOPLEGGING
+
+# Vonnisoplegging
+
+19. (1) Enige persoon wat die bepalings van artikel 2(1) of (2), 3(3) of 7(2) oortree,
+is by skuldigbevinding strafbaar met ’n boete of met gevangenisstraf vir ’n tydperk van
+hoogstens vyf jaar of met beide ’n boete en sodanige gevangenisstraf. (2) Enige persoon wat die bepalings van artikel 3(1) of (2), 4(1), 5(1), 6(1) of 7(1)
+oortree, is by skuldigbevinding strafbaar met ’n boete of met gevangenisstraf vir ’n 45
+tydperk van hoogstens 10 jaar of met beide ’n boete en sodanige gevangenisstraf. (3) Enige persoon wat die bepalings van artikel 11(1) oortree, is by skuldigbevinding
+strafbaar met ’n boete of met gevangenisstraf vir ’n tydperk van hoogstens 15 jaar of met
+beide ’n boete en sodanige gevangenisstraf. (4) ’n Hof wat ’n persoon aan ’n misdryf ingevolge artikel 8, 9(1) of (2), 10 of 11(2) 50
+skuldig bevind, kan, waar ’n straf ten opsigte van daardie misdryf nie deur enige ander
+wetsbepaling voorgeskryf word nie, ’n vonnis oplê soos in artikel 276 van die
+Strafproseswet, 1977, bepaal, wat daardie hof gepas ag en wat binne daardie hof se
+strafjurisdiksie is. (5) ’n Hof wat enige vonnis ingevolge hierdie artikel oplê, of waar ’n persoon aan die 55
+misdryf van diefstal wat gepleeg of gefasiliteer is deur elektroniese middele, skuldig
+bevind is, moet, sonder om enige ander tersaaklike faktore uit te sluit— (a) die feit dat die misdryf met elektroniese middele gepleeg is; (b) die mate van die benadeling en verlies deur die klaer of enige ander persoon gely as gevolg van die pleging van so ’n misdryf; 60
+
+(c) the extent to which the person gained financially, or received any favour, benefit, reward, compensation or any other advantage from the commission of the offence; or
+
+(d) the fact that the offence was committed in concert with one or more persons.
+
+(6) (a) If a person is convicted of any offence provided for in section 2(1) or (2), 3(1), 5(1), 6(1), 7(1), 8, 9(1) or (2), 10 or 11(1) or (2), a court imposing any sentence in terms of those sections must, unless substantial and compelling circumstances justify the imposition of another sentence, impose a period of direct imprisonment, with or without a fine, if the offence was committed—
+
+(i) by the person; or 10 (ii) with the collusion or assistance of another person, who as part of their duties, functions or lawful authority were in charge of, in control of, or had access to data, a computer program, a computer data storage medium or a computer system belonging to another person in respect of which the offence in question was committed. 15 (b) A sentence imposed in terms of paragraph (a) may not be suspended as contemplated in section 297(4) of the Criminal Procedure Act, 1977. (7) Any person who contravenes the provisions of section 14, 15 or 16 is liable on conviction to a fine or to imprisonment for a period not exceeding three years or to both a fine and such imprisonment.
+
+# PART VI: ORDERS TO PROTECT COMPLAINANTS FROM THE HARMFUL EFFECT OF MALICIOUS COMMUNICATIONS
+
+# Order to protect complainant pending finalisation of criminal proceedings
+
+20. (1) A complainant (hereinafter referred to as the applicant) who lays a charge with the South African Police Service that an offence contemplated in section 14, 15 or 16 has 25 allegedly been committed against them, may on an ex parte basis in the prescribed form and manner, apply to a magistrate’s court for a protection order pending the finalisation of the criminal proceedings to—
+
+(a) prohibit any person to disclose or further disclose the data message which relates to the charge; or 3
+(b) order an electronic communications service provider whose electronic communications service is used to host or disclose the data message which relates to the charge, to remove or disable access to the data message.
+
+(2) The court must as soon as is reasonably possible consider an application submitted to it in terms of subsection (1) and may, for that purpose, consider any additional 35 evidence it deems fit, including oral evidence or evidence by affidavit, which must form part of the record of the proceedings.
+
+(3) If the court is satisfied that there—
+
+(a) is prima facie evidence that an offence referred to in section 14, 15 or 16, has allegedly been committed against the applicant; and 40
+(b) are reasonable grounds to believe that a person referred to in subsection (1)(a) disclosed the data message in question; or
+(c) are reasonable grounds to believe that the electronic communications service of the electronic communications service provider referred to in subsection $(1)(b)$ , is used to host or was or is used to disclose the data message in 45 question,
+
+the court may, subject to such conditions as the court may deem fit, issue the order referred to in subsection (1), in the prescribed form.
+
+(4) The order, referred to in subsection (3), must be served on the person referred to in subsection $(1)(a)$ or electronic communications service provider referred to in 50 subsection $(1)(b)$ , in the prescribed manner: Provided, that if the court is satisfied that the order cannot be served in the prescribed manner, the court may make an order allowing service to be effected in the form or manner specified in that order.
+
+(5) An order referred to in subsection (3) is of force and effect from the time it is issued by the court and the existence thereof has been brought to the attention of the 55 person referred to in subsection $(1)(a)$ or electronic communications service provider referred to in subsection $(1)(b)$ .
+
+(c) die mate waartoe die persoon finansieel voordeel getrek het of enige guns voordeel, beloning, vergoeding of enige ander voordeel uit die pleging van die misdryf gekry het; of (d) die feit dat die misdryf in samewerking met een of meer persone gepleeg is, erswarende omstandighede in ag neem.
+
+(6) (a) Indien ’n persoon aan enige misdryf in artikel 2(1) of (2), 3(1), 5(1), 6(1), 7(1), 8, 9(1) of (2), 10 of 11(1) of (2) skuldig bevind is, moet ’n hof wat enige vonnis ingevolge daardie artikels oplê, tensy wesenlike en dwingende omstandighede die oplegging van ’n ander vonnis regverdig, ’n tydperk van direkte gevangenisstraf, met of sonder ’n boete, oplê waar die misdryf—
+
+(i) deur die persoon; of (ii) met die samespanning of bystand van ’n ander persoon, gepleeg is, wat as deel van hul pligte, werksaamhede of wettige magtiging verantwoordelik was vir, in beheer was van, of toegang gehad het tot data, ’n rekenaarprogram, ’n rekenaardatabergingsmedium of ’n rekenaarstelsel behorende aan 15 ’n ander persoon ten opsigte waarvan die betrokke misdryf gepleeg was. (b) ’n Vonnis opgelê ingevolge paragraaf (a), mag nie opgeskort word soos in artikel 297(4) van die Strafproseswet, 1977, beoog nie. (7) Enige persoon wat die bepalings van artikel 14, 15 of 16 oortree is by skuldigbevinding strafbaar met ’n boete of met gevangenisstraf vir ’n tydperk van 20 hoogstens drie jaar of met beide ’n boete en sodanige gevangenisstraf.
+
+# DEEL VI: BEVELE TER BESKERMING VAN KLAERS TEEN DIE SKADELIKE UITWERKING VAN KWAADWILLIGE KOMMUNIKASIES
+
+Bevel ter beskerming van klaer hangende afhandeling van strafregtelike verrigtinge
+
+20. (1) ’n Klaer (hierna die applikant genoem) wat ’n klag by die Suid-Afrikaanse Polisiediens indien dat ’n misdryf in artikel 14, 15 of 16 beoog na bewering teen hulle gepleeg is, kan op ’n ex parte-grondslag op die voorgeskrewe vorm of wyse, by ’n landdroshof aansoek doen om ’n beskermingsbevel hangende die afhandeling van die strafregtelike verrigtinge om—
+
+(a) enige persoon te belet om die databoodskap wat met die klag verband hou, openbaar te maak of verder openbaar te maak; of
+(b) ’n elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer wie se elektroniese kommunikasiediens gebruik word om die databoodskap wat met die klag verband hou, te huisves of openbaar te maak, te beveel om die betrokke databoodskap te verwyder of toegang daartoe te deaktiveer.
+
+(2) Die hof moet ’n aansoek ingevolge subartikel (1) aan die hof voorgelê, so gou as redelik moontlik oorweeg en kan vir daardie doel enige bykomende getuienis wat die hof gepas ag, oorweeg, met inbegrip van mondelinge getuienis of getuienis by wyse van beëdigde verklaring, wat deel van die oorkonde van die verrigtinge moet uitmaak.
+
+(3) Indien die hof oortuig is dat daar—
+
+(a) prima facie-getuienis is dat ’n misdryf bedoel in artikel 14, 15 of 16 na bewering teen die applikant gepleeg is; en
+(b) redelike gronde is om te glo dat ’n persoon in subaritkel (1)(a) bedoel die betrokke databoodskap openbaar gemaak het; of
+(c) redelike gronde is om te glo dat die elektroniese kommunikasiediens van die elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer in subartikel $(1)(b)$ bedoel, gebruik word om daardie databoodskap te huisves of gebruik was of word om daardie boodskap openbaar te maak,
+
+kan die hof, onderworpe aan sodanige voorwaardes wat die hof gepas ag, die bevel 50 bedoel in subartikel (1) in die voorgeskrewe vorm uitreik.
+
+(4) Die bevel in subartikel (3) bedoel, moet aan die persoon in subartikel $(1)(a)$ of elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer in subartikel (1)(b) bedoel, op die voorgeskrewe wyse beteken word: Met dien verstande dat, indien die hof oortuig is dat die bevel nie op die voorgeskrewe wyse beteken kan word nie, die hof ’n bevel kan gee wat betekening in die vorm of op die wyse in daardie bevel gespesifiseer, toelaat.
+
+(5) ’n Bevel in subartikel (3) bedoel, is van krag vanaf die oomblik dat dit deur die hof uitgereik word en die bestaan daarvan onder die aandag van die persoon in subartikel $(1){\dot{(a)}}$ of elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer in subartikel ${\bar{(1)}}(b)$ bedoel, gebring is.
+
+(6) A person referred to in subsection $(1)(a)$ , other than the person who is accused of having committed the offence in question, or an electronic communications service provider referred to in subsection $(1)(b)$ , may, within 14 days after the order has been served on them in terms of subsection (4) or within such further period as the court may allow, upon notice to the magistrate’s court concerned, in the prescribed form and manner, apply to the court for the setting aside or amendment of the order referred to in subsection (3).
+
+(7) (a) The court must as soon as reasonably possible consider an application
+submitted to it in terms of subsection (6) and may, for that purpose, consider such
+additional evidence as it deems fit, including oral evidence or evidence by affidavit, 10
+which must form part of the record of the proceedings. (b) The court may, if good cause is shown for the variation or setting aside of the
+protection order, issue an order to this effect. (8) The court may, for purposes of subsections (2) and (7), in the prescribed form and
+manner cause to be subpoenaed any person as a witness at those proceedings or to 15
+provide any book, document or object, if the evidence of that person or book, document
+or object appears to the court essential to the just decision of the case. (9) Any person referred to in subsection (1)(a) or an electronic communications
+service provider, referred to in subsection $(1)(b)$ , that fails to comply with an order
+referred to in subsection (3) or any variations thereof, is guilty of an offence. 20 (10) Any person who is subpoenaed in terms of subsection (8) to attend proceedings
+
+and who fails to— (a) attend or to remain in attendance; (b) appear at the place and on the date and at the time to which the proceedings in question may be adjourned; 25 (c) remain in attendance at those proceedings as so adjourned; or (d) produce any book, document or object specified in the subpoena,
+
+is guilty of an offence.
+
+(11) The provisions in respect of appeal and review as provided for in the Magistrates’ Courts Act, 1944, and the Superior Courts Act, 2013, apply to proceedings in terms of 30 this section.
+
+(12) For purposes of this section and sections 21 and 22 ‘‘to host a data message’’ means to store the data message on an electronic communications network that is used to provide an electronic communications service, where it can be viewed, copied or downloaded.
+
+# Electronic communications service provider to furnish particulars to court
+
+21. (1) If an application for a protection order is made in terms of section 20(1) and the court is satisfied in terms of section 20(3) that a protection order must be issued and the particulars of the person referred to in section $20(1)(a)$ , who discloses the data message, or the electronic communications service provider referred to in section 40 $20(1)(b)$ , whose service is used to host or was or is used to disclose the data message, is not known, the court may—
+
+(a) adjourn the proceedings to any time and date on the terms and conditions which the court deems appropriate; and
+(b) issue a direction in the prescribed form, directing an electronic communica- 45 tions service provider, that is believed to be able to furnish such particulars, to furnish the court in the prescribed manner by means of an affidavit in the prescribed form with— (i) the electronic communications identity number from where the data message originated; 50 (ii) the name, surname, identity number and address of the person to whom the electronic communications identity number has been assigned; (iii) any information which indicates that the data message was or was not sent from the electronic communications identity number of the person to the electronic communications identity number of the applicant; 55 (iv) any information that is available to an electronic communications service provider that may be of assistance to the court to identify the person
+
+(6) ’n Persoon in subartikel $(1)(a)$ bedoel, anders as die persoon wat van die pleging van die betrokke misdryf beskuldig word, of ’n elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer in subartikel $(1)(b)$ bedoel, kan, binne 14 dae nadat die bevel ingevolge subartikel (4) aan hulle beteken is, of binne sodanige verdere tydperk soos die hof mag toelaat, by kennisgewing aan die betrokke landdroshof, op die voorgeskrewe vorm en wyse, by die hof aansoek doen om die tersydestelling of wysiging van die bevel in subartikel (3) bedoel.
+
+(7) (a) Die hof moet ’n aansoek ingevolge subartikel (6) aan die hof voorgelê, so gou as redelik moontlik oorweeg en kan vir daardie doel sodanige bykomende getuienis wat die hof gepas ag, oorweeg, met inbegrip van mondelinge getuienis of getuienis by wyse 10 van beëdigde verklaring, wat deel van die oorkonde van die verrigtinge moet uitmaak.
+
+(b) Die hof kan, by die aanvoer van goeie gronde vir die wysiging of tersydestelling van die beskermingsbevel, ’n bevel te dien effekte uitreik.
+
+(8) Die hof kan, by die toepassing van subartikels (2) en (7), op die voorgeskrewe vorm en wyse enige persoon laat dagvaar as ’n getuie by daardie verrigtinge of om enige 15 boek, dokument of voorwerp voor te lê, indien die getuienis van daardie persoon of boek, dokument of voorwerp vir die hof noodsaaklik blyk te wees vir die regverdige beslissing van die saak.
+
+(9) Enige persoon in subartikel $(1)(a)$ bedoel of ’n elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer in subartikel $(1)(b)$ bedoel, wat versuim om aan ’n bevel in subartikel (3) 20 bedoel of enige wysigings daarvan te voldoen, is skuldig aan ’n misdryf.
+
+(10) Enige persoon wat ingevolge subartikel (8) gedagvaar is om verrigtinge by te woon en wat versuim om—
+
+(a) dit by te woon of teenwoordig te bly;
+(b) te verskyn by die plek en op die datum en die tyd waarheen die betrokke 25 verrigtinge verdaag mag word;
+(c) teenwoordig te bly by daardie verrigtinge aldus verdaag; of
+(d) enige boek, dokument of voorwerp in die dagvaarding gespesifiseer, voor te lê,
+
+is skuldig aan ’n misdryf.
+
+(11) Die bepalings ten opsigte van appèl en hersiening soos in die Wet op Landdroshowe, 1944, en die Wet op Hoër Howe, 2013, bepaal, is van toepassing op verrigtinge ingevolge hierdie artikel.
+
+(12) By die toepassing van hierdie artikel en artikels 21 en 22 beteken ‘‘om ’n databoodskap te huisves’’ om die databoodskap op ’n elektroniese kommunikasie- 35 netwerk te berg wat gebruik word om ’n elektroniese kommunikasiediens te verskaf, waar dit besigtig, gekopieer of afgelaai kan word.
+
+# lektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer moet besonderhede aan hof verskaf
+
+21. (1) Indien daar ingevolge artikel 20(1) om ’n beskermingsbevel aansoek gedoen word en die hof ingevolge artikel 20(3) oortuig is dat ’n beskermingsbevel uitgereik 40 moet word en die besonderhede van die persoon in artikel $20(1)(a)$ bedoel, wat die betrokke databoodskap openbaar maak of die elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer, in artikel $20(1)(b)$ bedoel, wie se diens gebruik word om die databoodskap te huisves of gebruik was of word om die databoodskap openbaar te maak, is nie bekend nie, kan die hof— 45 (a) die verrigtinge verdaag tot enige tyd en datum op die bepalings en voorwaardes wat die hof doenlik ag; en ’n lasgewing in die voorgeskrewe vorm uitreik, wat ’n elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer wat geglo word in staat te wees om daardie besonderhede te verskaf, gelas om die hof op die voorgeskrewe wyse deur 50 middel van ’n beëdigde verklaring in die voorgeskrewe vorm te voorsien van— (i) die elektroniese kommunikasie-identiteitsnommer van waar die databoodskap afkomstig was; (ii) die naam, van, identiteitsnommer en adres van die persoon aan wie die 55 elektroniese kommunikasie-identiteitsnommer toegeken is; (iii) enige inligting wat aandui dat die databoodskap vanaf die elektroniese kommunikasie-identiteitsnommer van die persoon na die elektroniese kommunikasie-identiteitsnommer van die applikant gestuur is al dan nie; enige inligting wat beskikbaar is aan ’n elektroniese kommunikasie- 60 diensverskaffer wat die hof behulpsaam kan wees om die persoon bedoel
+
+referred to in section $20(1)(a)$ or the electronic communications service provider referred to in section $20(1)(b)$ , which provides a service to that person;
+
+(v) any information that is available to an electronic communications service provider which—
+
+(aa) confirms whether or not its electronic communications service is used to host or was or is used to disclose the data message in question; or
+(bb) may be of assistance to the court to identify the electronic communications service provider whose service is used to host or 10 was or is used to disclose the data message in questions; or
+
+(vi) an assessment whether or not the electronic communications service provider is in a position to— (aa) remove the data message or a link to such data message; or $(b b)$ disable access to the data message or a link to such data message.
+
+(2) If the court issues a direction in terms of subsection $(1)(b)$ , the court must direct that the direction be served on the electronic communications service provider in the prescribed manner: Provided, that if the court is satisfied that the direction cannot be served in the prescribed manner, the court may make an order allowing service to be effected in the form or manner specified in that order. 2
+
+(3) (a) The information referred to in subsection (1)(b) must be provided to the court within five ordinary court days from the time that the direction is served on an electronic communications service provider.
+
+(b) An electronic communications service provider on which a direction is served, may in the prescribed manner by means of an affidavit in the prescribed form apply to 25 the court for—
+
+(i) an extension of the period of five ordinary court days referred to in paragraph (a) for a further period of five ordinary court days on the grounds that the information cannot be provided timeously; or
+(ii) the cancellation of the direction on the grounds that— 30 (aa) it does not provide an electronic communications service to the applicant or the person referred to in section $20(1)(a)$ ; (bb) the requested information is not available in the records of the electronic communications service provider; or (cc) its service is not used to host or was or is not used to disclose the data 35 message in question.
+
+(4) After receipt of an application in terms of subsection $(3)(b)$ , the court—
+
+(a) must consider the application;
+(b) may, in the prescribed manner, request such additional evidence by way of an affidavit from the electronic communications service provider as it deems fit; 40
+(c) must give a decision in respect thereof; and
+(d) must inform the electronic communications service provider in the prescribed form and manner of the outcome of the application.
+
+(5) (a) The court may, on receipt of an affidavit from an electronic communications service provider which contains the information referred to in subsection (1)(b), 45 consider the issuing of a protection order in terms of section 20(3) against the person or electronic communications service provider on the date to which the proceedings have been adjourned.
+
+(b) Any information furnished to the court in terms of subsection $(1)(b)$ forms part of the evidence that a court may consider in terms of section 20(3).
+
+(6) The Cabinet member responsible for the administration of justice may, by notice in the Gazette, prescribe reasonable tariffs of compensation payable to electronic communications service providers for providing the information referred to in subsection $(1)(b)$ .
+
+(7) Any electronic communications service provider or employee of an electronic 55 communications service provider who—
+
+(a) fails to furnish the required information within five ordinary court days from the time that the direction is served on such electronic communications in artikel $20(1)(a)$ of die elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer bedoel in artikel $20(1)(b)$ , wat ’n diens aan daardie persoon verskaf, te identifiseer;
+
+(v) enige inligting wat aan ’n elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer beskikbaar is wat—
+
+(aa) bevestig of hul elektroniese kommunikasiediens gebruik word om die betrokke databoodskap te huisves of gebruik was of word om dit openbaar te maak al dan nie; of
+(bb) die hof behulpsaam kan wees om die elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer te identifiseer wie se diens gebruik word om die 10 betrokke databoodskap te huisves of gebruik was of word om dit openbaar te maak; of
+
+(vi) ’n assessering of die elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer in ’n posisie is, al dan nie, om— (aa) die databoodskap of ’n skakel na daardie databoodskap te 15 verwyder; of $(b b)$ toegang tot die databoodskap of ’n skakel tot daardie databoodskap te deaktiveer.
+
+(2) Indien die hof ’n lasgewing ingevolge subartikel $(1)(b)$ uitreik, moet die hof gelas dat die lasgewing op die voorgeskrewe wyse aan die elektroniese kommunikasiediens- 20 verskaffer beteken word: Met dien verstande dat indien die hof oortuig is dat die lasgewing nie op die voorgeskrewe wyse beteken kan word nie, die hof ’n bevel kan gee wat betekening in die vorm of op die wyse in daardie bevel gespesifiseer, toelaat.
+
+(3) (a) Die inligting in subartikel $(1)(b)$ bedoel, moet binne vyf gewone hofdae vanaf die tyd waarop die lasgewing aan ’n elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer beteken 25 is, aan die hof verskaf word.
+
+(b) ’n Elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer aan wie ’n lasgewing beteken is, kan op die voorgeskrewe wyse en deur middel van ’n beëdigde verklaring in die voorgeskrewe vorm by die hof aansoek doen om—
+
+(i) ’n verlenging van die tydperk van vyf gewone hofdae in paragraaf (a) bedoel vir 30 ’n verdere tydperk van vyf gewone hofdae op grond daarvan dat die inligting nie tydig voorsien kan word nie; of
+(ii) die kansellasie van die lasgewing op gronde daarvan dat— (aa) hulle nie ’n elektroniese kommunikasiediens aan die applikant of die persoon bedoel in artikel 20(1)(a), lewer nie; 35 $(b b)$ die inligting wat aangevra is, nie in die rekords van die elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer beskikbaar is nie; of (cc) hul diens nie gebruik word om die betrokke databoodskap te huisves nie of gebruik was of word om dit openbaar te maak nie.
+
+(4) Ná ontvangs van ’n aansoek ingevolge subartikel (3)(b)—
+
+40
+
+(a) moet die hof die aansoek oorweeg;
+
+(b) kan die hof, op die voorgeskrewe wyse, sodanige bykomende getuienis versoek by wyse van ’n beëdigde verklaring van die elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer soos wat die hof goeddink;
+(c) moet die hof daaroor beslis; en
+(d) moet die hof die elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer op die voorgeskrewe vorm en wyse van die uitslag van die aansoek verwittig.
+
+45
+
+(5) (a) Die hof kan, by ontvangs van ’n beëdigde verklaring van ’n elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer wat die inligting bedoel in subartikel $(1)(b)$ , bevat, die uitreiking van ’n beskermingsbevel ingevolge artikel 20(3) teen die persoon of elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer oorweeg op die datum waartoe die verrigtinge verdaag is.
+
+(b) Enige inligting wat ingevolge subartikel $(1)(b)$ aan die hof verskaf is, maak deel uit van die getuienis wat ’n hof ingevolge artikel 20(3) kan oorweeg.
+
+(6) Die Kabinetslid verantwoordelik vir die regspleging kan, by kennisgewing in die 55 Staatskoerant, redelike tariewe voorskryf vir vergoeding betaalbaar aan elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffers vir die verskaffing van die inligting in subartikel $(1)(b)$ bedoel.
+
+(7) Enige elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of werknemer van ’n elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer wat— 60 (a) versuim om die vereiste inligting binne vyf gewone hofdae vandat die lasgewing aan sodanige elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer beteken
+
+service provider to a court in terms of subsection $(3)(a)$ or such extended period allowed by the court in terms of subsection $(3)(b)$ ; or (b) makes a false statement in an affidavit referred to in subsection $(1)(b)$ or $(3)(b)$ in a material respect,
+
+is guilty of an offence.
+
+(8) For purposes of this section ‘‘electronic communications identity number’’ means a technical identification label which represents the origin or destination of electronic communications traffic.
+
+# Orders on finalisation of criminal proceedings
+
+22. (1) Whenever a person is—
+
+10
+
+(a) convicted of an offence in terms of section 14, 15 or 16; or (b) acquitted of an offence in terms of section 14, 15 or 16,
+
+but evidence proves that the person engaged in, or attempted to engage in, harassment as contemplated in the Protection from Harassment Act, 2011, the trial court may, after holding an enquiry, issue a protection order contemplated in section 9(4) of the Protec- 15 tion from Harassment Act, 2011, against the person, whereafter the provision of that Act must apply with the necessary changes as required by the context.
+
+(2) The trial court which convicts a person of an offence contemplated in section 14, 15 or 16, must order—
+
+(a) that person to refrain from further making available, disclosing or distributing 20 the data message contemplated in section 14, 15 or 16, which relates to the charge on which that person is convicted;
+(b) that person or any other person to destroy the data message in question, any copy of the data message or any output of the data message and to submit an affidavit in the prescribed form to the prosecutor identified in the order that the 25 data message has been so destroyed; or
+(c) an electronic communications service provider to remove or disable access to the data message in question.
+
+(3) The order referred to in subsection $(2)(b)$ , in so far as it relates to a person other than the person who has been convicted of the offence, and subsection (2)(c), must be in 30 the prescribed form and must be served on the person or electronic communications service provider in the prescribed manner: Provided, that if the trial court is satisfied that the order cannot be served in the prescribed form and manner, the court may make an order allowing service to be effected in the form or manner specified in that order.
+
+(4) Any person contemplated in subsection (2)(a) or $(b)$ or electronic communications 3 service provider contemplated in subsection (2)(c), that fails to comply with an order referred to in subsection (2), is guilty of an offence.
+
+(5) An electronic communications service provider that is ordered to remove or disable access to the data message may, within 14 days after the order has been served on it in terms of subsection (3), upon notice to the trial court concerned, in the prescribed 40 form and manner, apply to the court for the setting aside or amendment of the order referred to in subsection (2)(c).
+
+(6) (a) The trial court must as soon as is reasonably possible consider an application submitted to it in terms of subsection (5) and may for that purpose, consider such additional evidence as it deems fit, including oral evidence or evidence by affidavit, 45 which must form part of the record of the proceedings.
+
+(b) The trial court may, if good cause has been shown for the variation or setting aside of the order, issue an order to this effect.
+
+(7) The court may, for purposes of subsection $(6)(a)$ , in the prescribed form and manner cause to be subpoenaed any person as a witness at those proceedings or to 50 provide any book, document or object, if the evidence of that person or book, document or object appears to the court essential to the just decision of the case.
+
+(8) Any person who is subpoenaed in terms of subsection (7) to attend proceedings and who fails to—
+
+(a) attend or to remain in attendance;
+
+is, aan ’n hof te verskaf ingevolge subartikel $(3)(a)$ of sodanige verlengde tydperk wat ingevolge subartikel $(3)(b)$ deur die hof toegelaat word; of (b) ’n vals verklaring in ’n wesenlike opsig in ’n beëdigde verklaring in subartikel $(1)(b)$ of (3)(b) bedoel, maak,
+
+is skuldig aan ’n misdryf.
+
+(8) By die toepassing van hierdie artikel, beteken ‘‘elektroniese kommunikasieidentiteitsnommer’’ ’n tegniese identifikasie-etiket wat die oorsprong of bestemming van elektroniese kommunikasieverkeer verteenwoordig.
+
+# Bevele by afhandeling van strafregtelike verrigtinge
+
+22. (1) Wanneer ’n persoon—
+
+10
+
+(a) aan ’n misdryf ingevolge artikel 14, 15 of 16 skuldig bevind word; of (b) van ’n misdryf ingevolge artikel 14, 15 of 16 vrygespreek word,
+
+maar getuienis bewys dat die persoon aan teistering meegedoen het of gepoog het om aan teistering mee te doen, soos beoog in die Wet op Beskerming teen Teistering, 2011, kan die verhoorhof, na afloop van ’n ondersoek, ’n beskermingsbevel soos beoog in 15 artikel 9(4) van die Wet op Beskerming teen Teistering, 2011, teen die persoon uitreik, waarna die bepaling van daardie Wet, met die nodige veranderinge soos deur die samehang vereis, van toepassing sal wees.
+
+(2) Die verhoorhof wat ’n persoon skuldig bevind aan ’n misdryf in artikel 14, 15 of 16 beoog, moet—
+
+(a) daardie persoon beveel om te weerhou van die verdere beskikbaarstelling, openbaarmaking of verspreiding van die databoodskap beoog in artikel 14, 15 of 16, wat verband hou met die aanklag waaraan daardie persoon skuldig bevind is;
+(b) daardie persoon of enige ander persoon beveel om die betrokke databoodskap 25 of enige kopie van die databoodskap of enige uitset van die databoodskap te vernietig en ’n beëdigde verklaring in die voorgeskrewe vorm aan die aanklaer in die bevel geïdentifiseer, voor te lê dat die databoodskap aldus vernietig is; of
+(c) ’n elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer beveel om die betrokke 30 databoodskap te verwyder of toegang daartoe te deaktiveer.
+
+(3) Die bevel in subartikel (2)(b) bedoel, vir sover dit verband hou met ’n persoon, anders as die persoon wat aan die misdryf skuldig bevind is, en subartikel (2)(c), moet in die voorgeskrewe vorm wees en moet op die voorgeskrewe wyse aan die persoon of elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer beteken word: Met dien verstande dat, 35 indien die verhoorhof oortuig is dat die bevel nie op die voorgeskrewe vorm en wyse beteken kan word nie, die hof ’n bevel kan gee wat betekening in die vorm of op die wyse in daardie bevel gespesifiseer, toelaat.
+
+(4) Enige persoon beoog in subartikel (2)(a) of (b) of elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer beoog in subartikel (2)(c), wat versuim om aan ’n bevel in subartikel (2) 40 bedoel, te voldoen, is skuldig aan ’n misdryf.
+
+(5) ’n Elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer wat beveel word om die databoodskap te verwyder of toegang daartoe te deaktiveer, kan, binne 14 dae nadat die bevel ingevolge subartikel (3) aan hulle beteken is, by kennisgewing aan die betrokke verhoorhof, op die voorgeskrewe vorm en wyse, by die hof aansoek doen om die 4 tersydestelling of wysiging van die bevel in subartikel (2)(c) bedoel.
+
+(6) (a) Die verhoorhof moet so gou as redelikerwys moontlik ’n aansoek daaraan voorgelê ingevolge subartikel (5), oorweeg en kan vir daardie doel bykomende getuienis oorweeg wat die hof gepas ag, met inbegrip van mondelinge getuienis of getuienis by wyse van beëdigde verklaring, wat deel van die oorkonde moet uitmaak.
+
+(b) Die verhoorhof kan, by die aanvoer van goeie gronde vir die wysiging of tersydestelling van die bevel, ’n bevel te dien effekte uitreik.
+
+(7) Die hof kan, vir doeleindes van subartikel $(6)(a)$ , op die voorgeskrewe vorm en wyse, enige persoon laat dagvaar as ’n getuie by daardie verrigtinge of om enige boek, dokument of voorwerp voor te lê, indien die getuienis van daardie persoon of boek, 55 dokument of voorwerp vir die hof noodsaaklik blyk te wees vir die regverdige beslissing van die saak.
+
+(8) Enige persoon wat ingevolge subartikel (7) gedagvaar word om verrigtinge by te woon en wat versuim om—
+
+(a) dit by te woon of teenwoordig te bly;
+
+36
+
+(b) appear at the place and on the date and at the time to which the proceedings in question may be adjourned; (c) remain in attendance at those proceedings as so adjourned; or (d) produce any book, document or object specified in the subpoena, is guilty of an offence.
+
+(9) For purposes of this section ‘‘trial court’’ means—
+
+(a) a magistrate’s court established under section 2(1)(f)(i) of the Magistrates’ Courts Act, 1944;
+(b) a court for a regional division established under section 2(1)(g)(i) of the Magistrates’ Courts Act, 1944; or 1
+(c) a High Court referred to in section 6(1) of the Superior Courts Act, 2013.
+
+(10) Whenever a person is convicted of an offence in terms of section 14, 15 or 16, the trial court must issue an order that the person must reimburse all expenses reasonably incurred by—
+
+(a) a complainant as a result of any direction issued in terms of section $21(1)(b)$ ; 1 or
+(b) an electronic communications service provider to remove or disable access to the data message in question,
+
+whereupon the provisions of section 300 of the Criminal Procedure Act, 1977, shall apply with the necessary changes required by the context, to such order. 20
+
+# Penalties
+
+23. Any person or electronic communications service provider that is convicted of an offence referred in section 20(9) or (10), 21(7) or 22(4) or (8), is liable on conviction to a fine or to imprisonment for a period not exceeding two years or to both a fine and such imprisonment.
+
+# CHAPTER 3
+
+# JURISDICTION
+
+# Jurisdiction
+
+24. (1) A court in the Republic has jurisdiction to try any offence referred to in Part I or Part II of Chapter 2, if— 30 (a) the accused was arrested in the territory of the Republic, on board a vessel, a ship, an off-shore installation or fixed platform, or an aircraft registered or required to be registered in the Republic;
+
+(b) the person to be charged is—
+
+(i) a citizen of the Republic or ordinary resident in the Republic; 3 (ii) a company, incorporated or registered as such under any law, in the Republic; or (iii) any body of persons, corporate or unincorporated, in the Republic;
+
+(c) the offence was committed—
+
+40
+
+(i) in the territory of the Republic; or
+(ii) on board a vessel, a ship, an off-shore installation, or a fixed platform, or an aircraft registered or required to be registered in the Republic at the time that the offence was committed;
+
+(d) any act in preparation of the offence or any action necessary to commit the offence or any part of the offence took place—
+
+(i) in the territory of the Republic; or
+(ii) on board a vessel, a ship, an off-shore installation or fixed platform, or an aircraft registered or required to be registered in the Republic at the time when the act, action or part of the offence took place;
+
+(e) the offence affects any person, a restricted computer system contemplated in 50 section $11(1)(b)$ , a public body or any business, in the Republic; $(f)$ the offence was committed outside of the Republic against—
+
+(i) any person who is a citizen of the Republic or ordinarily resident in the Republic;
+
+# 37
+
+(b) te verskyn by die plek en op die datum en tyd waarheen die betrokke verrigtinge verdaag kan word;
+(c) teenwoordig te bly by daardie verrigtinge aldus verdaag; of
+(d) enige boek, dokument of voorwerp in die dagvaarding gespesifiseer, voor te lê,
+
+is skuldig aan ’n misdryf.
+
+(9) By die toepassing van hierdie artikel beteken ‘‘verhoorhof’’—
+
+(a) ’n landdroshof ingestel kragtens artikel 2(1)(f)(i) van die Wet op Landdroshowe, 1944;
+(b) ’n hof vir ’n streeksafdeling ingestel kragtens artikel 2(1)(g)(i) van die Wet op 10 Landdroshowe, 1944; of
+(c) ’n Hooggeregshof bedoel in artikel 6(1) van die Wet op Hoër Howe, 2013.
+
+(10) Wanneer iemand aan ’n misdryf ingevolge artikel 14, 15 of 16 skuldig bevind word, moet die verhoorhof ’n bevel gee dat die persoon alle koste moet vergoed wat redelikerwys aangegaan is deur—
+
+15
+
+(a) ’n klaer na aanleiding van enige lasgewing ingevolge artikel $21(1)(b)$ uitgereik; of
+(b) ’n elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer om die betrokke databoodskap te verwyder of toegang tot die betrokke databoodskap te deaktiveer,
+
+waarop die bepalings van artikel 300 van die Strafproseswet, 1977, met die nodige 20 veranderinge deur die samehang vereis, daardie bevel van toepassing sal wees.
+
+# Strawwe
+
+23. Enige persoon of elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer wat aan ’n misdryf in artikel 20(9) of (10), 21(7) of 22(4) of (8) skuldig bevind word, is by skuldigbevinding strafbaar met ’n boete of met gevangenisstraf vir ’n tydperk van 25 hoogstens twee jaar of met ’n boete sowel as sodanige gevangenisstraf.
+
+# HOOFSTUK 3
+
+# JURISDIKSIE
+
+# Jurisdiksie
+
+24. (1) ’n Hof in die Republiek het jurisdiksie om enige misdryf in Deel I of Deel II 30 van Hoofstuk 2 te bereg, indien—
+
+(a) die beskuldigde gearresteer is binne die grondgebied van die Republiek, aan boord van ’n vaartuig, ’n skip, ’n aflandige installasie of vasstaande platform, of ’n lugvaartuig geregistreer of vereis om geregistreer te wees in die Republiek;
+
+(b) die persoon wat aangekla staan te word ’n—
+
+(i) burger van die Republiek is of gewoonlik in die Republiek woonagtig is; (ii) ’n maatskappy, as sodanig ingelyf of geregistreer kragtens enige wet, in die Republiek is; of (iii) enige liggaam van persone, ingelyf of oningelyf, in die Republiek is;
+
+40 ) die misdryf gepleeg is—
+
+(i) in die grondgebied van die Republiek; of
+(ii) aan boord van ’n vaartuig, ’n skip, ’n aflandige installasie of vaste platform, of ’n lugvaartuig geregistreer of vereis om geregistreer te wees in die Republiek toe die misdryf gepleeg is;
+
+(d) enige handeling ter voorbereiding van die misdryf of enige optrede nodig om die misdryf of enige deel van die misdryf te pleeg, plaasgevind het—
+
+(i) in die grondgebied van die Republiek; of
+(ii) aan boord van ’n vaartuig, ’n skip, ’n aflandige installasie of vaste platform, of ’n lugvaartuig geregistreer of vereis om geregistreer te wees 50 in die Republiek toe die handeling optrede, of deel van die misdryf plaasgevind het;
+
+(e) die misdryf enige persoon, ’n beperkte rekenaarstelsel beoog in artikel $11(1)(b)$ , ’n openbare liggaam of enige besigheid in die Republiek raak;
+
+$(f)$ die misdryf buite die Republiek gepleeg is teen— (i) enige persoon wat $\mathbf{\chi}_{\mathrm{n}}^{\prime}$ burger van die Republiek is of gewoonlik in die Republiek woonagtig is;
+
+38
+
+(ii) a restricted computer system contemplated in section $11(1)(b)$ ;
+(iii) a company, incorporated or registered as such under any law, in the Republic;
+(iv) any body of persons, corporate or unincorporated, in the Republic; or
+(v) a government facility of the Republic, including an embassy or other 5 diplomatic or consular premises, or any other property of the Republic; or
+the evidence reveals any other basis recognised by law in terms of which the
+court may assert jurisdiction to try the offence.
+
+(2) Any act alleged to constitute an offence referred to in Part I or Part II of 10 Chapter 2 and which is committed outside the Republic by a person other than a person contemplated in subsection (1), must, regardless of whether or not the act constitutes an offence at the place of its commission, be deemed to have been committed in the Republic if—
+
+15
+
+(a) that person is extradited to the Republic; or
+$(b)$ that person— (i) is found to be in the Republic; and (ii) is for one or other reason not extradited by the Republic or if there is no application to extradite the person.
+
+(3) Where a person is charged with attempting, conspiring, aiding, abetting, inducing, 20 inciting, instigating, instructing, commanding or procuring to commit an offence or as an accessory after the offence, the offence is deemed to have been committed not only at the place where the act was committed, but also at every place where the person so acted.
+
+(4) (a) A prosecution of an offence referred to in Part I or Part II of Chapter 2, which 25 was committed outside the Republic—
+
+(i) may only be instituted against a person with the written permission of the National Director of Public Prosecutions; and
+(ii) must commence before a court designated by the National Director of Public Prosecutions.
+
+(b) The accused must be served with a copy of the written permission and designation and the original thereof must be handed in at the court in which the proceedings are to commence.
+
+(5) The National Commissioner and the National Head of the Directorate, in consultation with the National Director of Public Prosecutions, must issue directives, 35 with which all police officials must comply in the execution of their functions in terms of this Act, regarding the investigation of offences that were committed outside the Republic.
+
+# CHAPTER 4
+
+# POWERS TO INVESTIGATE, SEARCH, ACCESS OR SEIZE
+
+# Definitions
+
+25. In this Chapter, unless the context indicates otherwise— ‘‘access’’ includes without limitation to make use of—
+
+(a) a computer data storage medium, or a computer system, or their accessories and components or any part thereof or any ancillary device or component 45 thereto; and
+(b) data or a computer program held in a computer data storage medium or a computer system,
+
+o the extent necessary to search for and seize an article;
+
+‘‘investigator’’ means any fit and proper person, who is not a member of the South 50 African Police Service and who is—
+
+(a) identified and authorised in terms of a search warrant as contemplated in section 29(3); or (b) requested by a police official in terms of section 31(2), 32(3) or 33(4),
+
+to, subject to the direction and control of a police official, assist the police official with 55
+the search for, access or seizure of an article; and
+‘‘seize’’ includes to—
+
+39
+
+(ii) ’n beperkte rekenaarstelsel in artikel $11(1)(b)$ beoog;
+(iii) ’n maatskappy, as sodanig ingelyf of geregistreer kragtens enige wet, in die Republiek;
+(iv) enige liggaam persone, ingelyf of oningelyf, in die Republiek; of
+(v) ’n regeringsfasiliteit van die Republiek, met inbegrip van ’n ambassade 5 of ander diplomatieke of konsulêre perseel, of enige ander perseel van die Republiek; of
+
+(g) die getuienis enige ander grondslag deur die reg erken, openbaar, ingevolge waarvan die hof jurisdiksie kan vestig om die misdryf te verhoor.
+
+(2) Enige handeling wat na bewering ’n misdryf ingevolge Deel I of Deel II van 10 Hoofstuk 2 daarstel en wat buite die Republiek gepleeg is deur ’n persoon, behalwe ’n persoon in subartikel (1) beoog, moet, ongeag of die handeling by die plek waar dit gepleeg is ’n misdryf daarstel, al dan nie, geag word in die Republiek gepleeg te wees indien—
+
+15
+
+(a) daardie persoon aan die Republiek uitgelewer word; of
+(b) daardie persoon— (i) in die Republiek gevind word; en (ii) om een of ander rede nie deur die Republiek uitgelewer word nie of indien daar geen aansoek is om die persoon uit te lewer nie.
+
+(3) Waar ’n persoon aangekla word van poging, sameswering, hulpverlening, 20 aanstigting, uitlokking, aanhitsing, aanmoediging, aanraaiing, bevel, raadgewing of verkryging om ’n misdryf te pleeg of as ’n begunstiger by daardie misdryf, word die misdryf geag gepleeg te wees nie slegs by die plek waar die handeling gepleeg is nie, maar ook by elke plek waar die persoon as sodanig opgetree het.
+
+(4) (a) ’n Vervolging van ’n misdryf bedoel in Deel I of Deel II van Hoofstuk 2, wat 25 buite die Republiek gepleeg is—
+
+(i) kan slegs teen ’n persoon ingestel word met die skriftelike toestemming van die Nasionale Direkteur van Openbare Vervolging; en
+(ii) moet ’n aanvang neem voor ’n hof deur die Nasionale Direkteur vir Openbare Vervolging aangewys.
+
+(b) ’n Afskrif van die skriftelike toestemming en aanwysing moet aan die beskuldigde beteken word en die oorspronklike daarvan moet by die hof waar die verrigtinge ’n aanvang neem, ingedien word.
+
+(5) Die Nasionale Kommissaris en die Nasionale Hoof van die Direktoraat, in oorleg met die Nasionale Direkteur van Openbare Vervolging, moet voorskrifte uitreik, 35 waaraan alle polisiebeamptes in die uitvoering van hul werksaamhede ingevolge hierdie Wet rakende die ondersoek van misdrywe wat buite die Republiek gepleeg is, moet voldoen.
+
+# HOOFSTUK 4
+
+# BEVOEGDHEDE VAN ONDERSOEK, DEURSOEKING, TOEGANG OF 40BESLAGLEGGING
+
+# Woordomskrywing
+
+25. In hierdie Hoofstuk, tensy uit die samehang anders blyk, beteken— ‘‘beslag lê’’ ook om—
+
+(a) ’n rekenaardatabergingsmedium of enige deel van ’n rekenaarstelsel te 45 verwyder;
+(b) data, ’n rekenaarprogram, ’n rekenaardatabergingsmedium of enige deel van ’n rekenaarstelsel ontoeganklik te maak ten einde getuienis te bewaar;
+(c) ’n kopie van data of ’n rekenaarprogram te maak en te behou; of
+(d) ’n drukstuk van die uitset van data of ’n rekenaarprogram te maak en te hou; 50
+
+‘‘ondersoeker’’ enige gepaste en geskikte persoon, wat nie ’n lid van die SuidAfrikaanse Polisiediens is nie, en wat—
+
+(a) ingevolge ’n deursoekingslasbrief in artikel 29(3) beoog, geïdentifiseer en gemagtig is; of (b) ingevolge artikel 31(2), 32(3) of 33(4) deur ’n polisiebeampte versoek is, om, onderworpe aan die leiding en beheer van ’n polisiebeampte, die polisiebeampte by te staan met die deursoeking vir, toegang tot en beslaglegging op ’n item; en ‘‘toegang’’ ook om sonder beperking gebruik te maak van—
+
+40
+
+(a) remove a computer data storage medium or any part of a computer system; (b) render inaccessible, data, a computer program, a computer data storage medium or any part of a computer system in order to preserve evidence; (c) make and retain a copy of data or a computer program; or (d) make and retain a printout of the output of data or a computer program.
+
+# Standard Operating Procedures
+
+26. (1) The Cabinet member responsible for policing, in consultation with the National Commissioner, the National Head of the Directorate, the National Director of Public Prosecutions and the Cabinet member responsible for the administration of justice must, after following a process of public consultation, within 12 months of the 10 commencement of this Chapter, issue Standard Operating Procedures which must be observed by—
+
+(a) the South African Police Service; or (b) any other person or agency who or which is authorised in terms of the provisions of any other law to investigate any offence in terms of any law, 15 in the investigation of any offence or suspected offence in terms of Part I or Part II of Chapter 2 or any other offence or suspected offence which may be committed by means of, or facilitated through the use of, an article.
+
+(2) The Standard Operating Procedures referred to in subsection (1) and any amendment thereto must be published in the Gazette.
+
+20
+
+# Application of Criminal Procedure Act, 1977
+
+27. The Criminal Procedure Act, 1977, applies in addition to the provisions of this Chapter in so far that it is not inconsistent with the provisions of this Chapter.
+
+# Search for, access to, or seizure of certain articles
+
+28. A police official may, in accordance with the provisions of this Chapter, search for, 25 access or seize any article, within the Republic.
+
+# Article to be searched for, accessed or seized under search warrant
+
+29. (1) Subject to the provisions of sections 31, 32, 33 and 40(1) and (2) of this Act, section 4(3) of the Customs and Excise Act, 1964, sections $69(2)(b)$ and 71 of the Tax Administration Act, 2011, and section 21(e) and $(f)$ of the Customs Control Act, 2014, 30 an article can only be searched for, accessed or seized by virtue of a search warrant issued—
+
+(a) by a magistrate or judge of the High Court, on written application by a police official, if it appears to the magistrate or judge, from information on oath or by way of affirmation, as set out in the application, that there are reasonable 35 grounds for believing that an article— (i) is within their area of jurisdiction; or (ii) is being used or is involved or has been used or was involved in the commission of an offence— (aa) within their area of jurisdiction; or 40 (bb) within the Republic, if it is unsure within which area of jurisdiction the article is being used or is involved or has been used or was involved in the commission of an offence; or
+
+(b) by a magistrate or judge of the High Court presiding at criminal proceedings, if it appears to such magistrate or judge that an article is required in evidence 45 at such proceedings.
+
+(2) A search warrant issued under subsection (1) must require a police official identified in the warrant to search for, access or seize the article in question and, to that end, must authorise the police official to—
+
+(a) search any person identified in the warrant;
+
+41
+
+(a) ’n rekenaardatabergingsmedium, of ’n rekenaarstelsel, of die toebehore en komponente of enige deel daarvan of enige bykomstige toestel of komponent daartoe; en
+(b) data of ’n rekenaarprogram gehou in ’n rekenaardatabergingsmedium of ’n rekenaarstelsel,
+
+vir sover dit nodig is om te deursoek vir en beslag te lê op ’n item.
+
+# Standaardbedryfsprosedures
+
+26. (1) Die Kabinetslid verantwoordelik vir polisiëring, in oorleg met die Nasionale Kommissaris, die Nasionale Hoof van die Direktoraat, die Nasionale Direkteur van Openbare Vervolging en die Kabinetslid verantwoordelik vir die regspleging moet, na 10 afloop van ’n proses van openbare oorlegpleging, binne 12 maande vanaf die inwerkingtreding van hierdie Hoofstuk, Standaardbedryfsprosedures uitreik wat nagekom moet word deur—
+
+(a) die Suid-Afrikaanse Polisiediens; of $(b)$ enige ander persoon of agentskap wat ingevolge die bepalings van enige ander 15 wet gemagtig is om enige misdryf ingevolge enige wet te ondersoek, in die ondersoek van enige misdryf of vermeende misdryf ingevolge Deel I of Deel II van Hoofstuk 2 of enige ander misdryf of vermeende misdryf wat gepleeg is by wyse van, of gefasiliteer is deur die gebruik van, ’n item. (2) Die Standaardbedryfsprosedures in subartikel (1) bedoel en enige wysiging 20 daartoe moet in die Staatskoerant gepubliseer word.
+
+# Toepassing van bepalings van Strafproseswet, 1977
+
+27. Die Strafproseswet, 1977, is van toepassing addisioneel tot die bepalings van hierdie Hoofstuk, vir sover dit nie onbestaanbaar is met die bepalings van hierdie Hoofstuk nie.
+
+# Deursoeking vir, toegang tot, of beslaglegging op sekere items
+
+28. ’n Polisiebeampte kan, ooreenkomstig die bepalings van hierdie Hoofstuk, deursoek vir, toegang kry tot en beslag lê op enige item, binne die Republiek.
+
+# Deursoeking vir, toegang tot en beslaglegging op item kragtens deursoekingslasbrief
+
+29. (1) Behoudens die bepalings van artikels 31, 32, 33 en 40(1) en (2) van hierdie Wet, artikel 4(3) van die Doeane- en Aksynswet, 1964, artikels 69(2)(b) en 71 van die Wet op Belastingadministrasie, 2011, en artikel 21(e) en $(f)$ van die Wet op Doeanebeheer, 2014, kan deursoeking vir, toegang kry tot, of beslaglegging op, ’n item slegs plaasvind uit hoofde van ’n deursoekingsslasbrief uitgereik—
+
+35
+
+40
+
+(a) deur ’n landdros of regter van die Hooggeregshof, by skriftelike aansoek deur ’n polisiebeampte, indien dit vir die landdros of regter uit inligting onder eed of by wyse van plegtige verklaring, soos in die aansoek uiteengesit, blyk dat daar redelike gronde is om te glo dat ’n item— (i) binne hul regsgebied is; of (ii) gebruik word of betrokke is of gebruik is of betrokke was in die pleging van ’n misdryf— (aa) binne hul regsgebied; of (bb) binne die Republiek, indien dit onseker is binne watter regsgebied die item gebruik word of betrokke is of gebruik is of betrokke was 4 in die pleging van ’n misdryf; of
+
+(b) deur ’n landdros of regter van die Hooggeregshof wat by strafregtelike verrigtinge voorsit, indien dit vir daardie landdros of regter blyk dat ’n item as getuienis by bedoelde verrigtinge benodig word.
+
+(2) ’n Deursoekingslasbrief ingevolge subartikel (1) uitgereik, moet ’n 50 polisiebeampte in die lasbrief geïdentifiseer gelas om te deursoek vir, toegang te kry tot of beslag te lê op die betrokke item en, vir daardie doel, moet dit die polisiebeampte magtig om—
+
+(a) enige persoon in die lasbrief geïdentifiseer, te deursoek;
+
+(b) enter and search any container, premises, vehicle, facility, ship or aircraft identified in the warrant; (c) search any person who is believed, on reasonable grounds, to be able to furnish any information of material importance concerning the matter under investigation and who is found near such container, on or at such premises, 5 vehicle, facility, ship or aircraft; (d) search any person who is believed, on reasonable grounds, to be able to furnish any information of material importance concerning the matter under investigation and who— (i) is nearby; (ii) uses; or (iii) is in possession or in direct control of, any data, computer program, computer data storage medium or computer system identified in the warrant to the extent set out in the warrant; search for any article identified in the warrant to the extent set out in the 15 warrant; $(f)$ access an article identified in the warrant to the extent set out in the warrant; seize an article identified in the warrant to the extent set out in the warrant; or (h) use or obtain and use any instrument, device, equipment, password, decryption key, data, computer program, computer data storage medium or 20 computer system or other information that is believed, on reasonable grounds, to be necessary to search for, access or seize an article identified in the warrant to the extent set out in the warrant. (3) A search warrant issued under subsection (1) may require an investigator or other person identified in the warrant to assist the police official identified in the warrant, with 25 the search for, access or seizure of the article in question, to the extent set out in the warrant. (4) (a) A search warrant may be executed at any time, unless the person issuing the warrant in writing specifies otherwise. (b) A search warrant may be issued on any day and is of force until it is executed or 30 is cancelled by the person who issued it or, if such person is not available, by a person with like authority. (5) A police official who executes a warrant under this section must hand to any person whose rights in respect of any search, or article accessed or seized under the warrant have been affected, a copy of the warrant and the written application of the 35 police official contemplated in subsection $(1)(a)$ . (6) The provisions of subsections (1) to (5) apply with the changes required by the context to an amendment of a warrant issued in terms of subsection (1).
+
+# Oral application for search warrant or amendment of warrant
+
+30. (1) An application referred to in section $29(1)(a)$ , or an application for the 40 amendment of a warrant issued in terms of section $29(1)(a)$ , may be made orally by a specifically designated police official, if it is not reasonably practicable, having regard to the urgency of the case or the existence of exceptional circumstances, to make a written application.
+
+(2) An oral application referred to in subsection (1) must—
+
+(a) indicate the particulars of the urgency of the case or the other exceptional circumstances which, in the opinion of the police official, justify the making of an oral application; and
+(b) comply with any supplementary directives relating to oral applications which may be issued by the Chief Justice in terms of section 8(3) of the Superior 5 Courts Act, 2013.
+
+(3) A magistrate or judge of the High Court may, upon an oral application made to them in terms of subsection (1) and subject to subsection (4), issue a warrant or amend a warrant as contemplated in section $29(1)(a)$ .
+
+(b) enige houer, perseel, voertuig, fasiliteit, skip of lugvaartuig in die lasbrief geïdentifiseer, te betree en te deursoek;
+(c) enige persoon te deursoek wat, op redelike gronde, geglo word in staat is om enige inligting van wesenlike belang aangaande die aangeleentheid wat ondersoek word, te voorsien en wat naby sodanige houer, op of by sodanige 5 perseel, voertuig, fasiliteit, skip of lugvaartuig gevind word;
+(d) enige persoon te deursoek wat, op redelike gronde, geglo word in staat is om enige inligting van wesenlike belang te voorsien aangaande die aangeleentheid wat ondersoek word en wat— (i) in die nabyheid is; (ii) gebruik maak; of (iii) in besit of in direkte beheer is, van enige data, rekenaarprogram, rekenaardatabergingsmedium of rekenaarstelsel in die lasbrief geïdentifiseer, tot die mate in die lasbrief uiteengesit;
+(e) te deursoek vir enige item in die lasbrief geïdentifiseer tot die mate in die 15 lasbrief uiteengesit;
+$(f)$ toegang te kry tot enige item in die lasbrief geïdentifiseer tot die mate in die lasbrief uiteengesit; beslag te lê op ’n item in die lasbrief geïdentifiseer tot die mate in die lasbrief uiteengesit; of 20
+(h) enige instrument, toestel, toerusting, wagwoord, dekripteringsleutel, data, rekenaarprogram, rekenaardatabergingsmedium of rekenaarstelsel of ander inligting gebruik of verkry en gebruik wat, op redelike gronde, vermoed word nodig is om te deursoek vir, toegang te kry tot of beslag te lê op ’n item in die lasbrief geïdentifiseer tot die mate in die lasbrief uiteengesit. 25
+
+(3) ’n Deursoekingslasbrief kragtens subartikel (1) uitgereik, kan vereis dat ’n ondersoeker of ander persoon in die lasbrief geïdentifiseer, die polisiebeampte in die lasbrief geïdentifiseer, bystaan in die deursoeking vir, toegang kry tot of beslaglegging op die betrokke item, tot die mate in die lasbrief uiteengesit.
+
+(4) (a) ’n Deursoekingslasbrief kan te eniger tyd uitgevoer word, tensy die persoon 30 wat die lasbrief uitreik skriftelik anders spesifiseer.
+
+(b) ’n Deursoekingslasbrief kan op enige dag uitgereik word en is van krag totdat dit uitgevoer is of deur die persoon wat dit uitgereik het, of indien daardie persoon nie beskikbaar is nie, deur ’n persoon met soortgelyke gesag, gekanselleer word.
+
+(5) ’n Polisiebeampte wat ’n lasbrief kragtens hierdie artikel uitvoer, moet ’n afskrif 35 van die lasbrief en die skriftelike aansoek van die polisiebeampte beoog in subartikel $(1)(a)$ , oorhandig aan enige persoon wie se regte geraak is ten opsigte van enige deursoeking, of item waartoe toegang gekry is of waarop beslag gelê is kragtens die lasbrief.
+
+(6) Die bepalings van subartikels (1) tot (5) is van toepassing met die veranderinge 40 deur die samehang vereis op ’n wysiging van ’n lasbrief ingevolge subartikel (1) uitgereik.
+
+# Mondelinge aansoek om deursoekingslasbrief of wysiging van lasbrief
+
+30. (1) ’n Aansoek in artikel $29(1)(a)$ bedoel, of ’n aansoek om die wysiging van ’n lasbrief ingevolge artikel 29(1)(a) uitgereik, kan mondeling deur ’n spesifiek aangewese 45 polisiebeampte gedoen word, indien dit nie redelikerwys prakties is, met inagneming van die dringendheid van die saak of die bestaan van buitengewone omstandighede, om ’n skriftelike aansoek te bring nie.
+
+(2) ’n Mondelinge aansoek in subartikel (1) bedoel, moet—
+
+(a) die besonderhede van die dringendheid van die saak of die ander 50 buitengewone omstandighede aandui wat, na mening van die polisiebeampte, die doen van ’n mondelinge aansoek regverdig; en
+(b) voldoen aan enige aanvullende voorskrifte aangaande mondelinge aansoeke wat ingevolge artikel 8(3) van die Wet op Hoër Howe, 2013, deur die Hoofregter uitgereik kan word.
+
+(3) ’n Landdros of regter van die Hooggeregshof kan, by die bring van ’n mondelinge aansoek ingevolge subartikel (1) en behoudens subartikel (4), ’n lasbrief beoog in artikel $29(1)(a)$ uitreik of wysig.
+
+44
+
+(4) A warrant or any amendment to a warrant may only be issued under subsection (3)—
+
+(a) if the magistrate or judge of the High Court concerned is satisfied, on the facts alleged in the oral application concerned, that—
+
+there are reasonable grounds to believe that a warrant or any amendment 5 to a warrant applied for could be issued; (ii) a warrant or an amendment to a warrant is necessary immediately in order to search for, access or seize an article— (aa) within their area of jurisdiction; or (bb) within the Republic, if it is unsure within which area of jurisdiction 10 the article is being used or is involved or has been used or was involved in the commission of an offence; and
+
+(iii) it is not reasonably practicable, having regard to the urgency of the case or the existence of exceptional circumstances, to make a written application for the issuing of a warrant or to amend a warrant; and
+
+(b) on condition that the police official concerned must submit a written application to the magistrate or judge of the High Court concerned within 48 hours after the issuing of the warrant or amended warrant under subsection (3).
+
+(5) A warrant or any amendment to a warrant issued under subsection (3) must— 20 (a) be in writing; (b) be transmitted electronically to the police official or be provided to the specifically designated police official; and (c) contain a summary of the facts which were considered and the grounds upon which the warrant was issued. 25
+
+(6) A magistrate or judge of the High Court who has issued a warrant or amended a warrant under subsection (3) or, if unavailable, any other magistrate or judge of the High Court must, upon receipt of a written application in terms of subsection $(4)(b)$ , reconsider that application whereupon they may confirm, amend or cancel that warrant.
+
+(7) A magistrate or judge of the High Court contemplated in subsection (6), who 30 amends or cancels the warrant, must make an order they deem fit on how any article which is affected by their decision is to be dealt with.
+
+# Search for, access to, or seizure of article without search warrant with consent of person who has lawful authority to consent
+
+31. (1) Any police official may, without a search warrant, execute the powers referred 35 to in section 29(2), subject to any other law, if the person who has the lawful authority to consent to the search for, access to, or seizure of the article in question, consents, in writing, to such search, access or seizure.
+
+(2) A police official acting in terms of subsection (1), may, subject to the lawful consent, in writing, of the person who has the lawful authority to consent, in writing 40 authorise an investigator to assist them with the search for, access to, or seizure of the article in question.
+
+# Search for, access to, or seizure of article involved in the commission of an offence without search warrant
+
+32. (1) A police official may without a search warrant referred to in section $29(1)(a)$ 45 search any person, container, premises, vehicle, facility, ship or aircraft for the purposes of performing the powers referred to in paragraphs $(a)$ and $(b)$ of the definition of ‘‘seize’’ in respect of a computer data storage medium or any part of a computer system referred to in paragraph (c) or $(d)$ of the definition of ‘‘article’’, if the police official on reasonable grounds believes—
+
+(a) that a search warrant will be issued to them under section $29(1)(a)$ if they apply for such warrant; and
+(b) that the delay in obtaining such warrant would defeat the object of the search and seizure.
+
+45
+
+(4) ’n Lasbrief of enige wysiging aan ’n lasbrief kan slegs kragtens subartikel (3) uitgereik word—
+
+(a) indien die landdros of regter van die betrokke Hooggeregshof, op grond van die feite in die betrokke mondelinge aansoek aangevoer, oortuig is dat—
+
+daar redelike gronde is om te glo dat ’n lasbrief of enige wysiging van ’n 5 lasbrief waarom aansoek gedoen is, uitgereik kan word;
+(ii) ’n lasbrief of ’n wysiging van ’n lasbrief onmiddellik noodsaaklik is ten einde te deursoek vir, toegang te kry tot of beslag te lê op ’n item— (aa) binne hul regsgebied; of (bb) binne die Republiek, indien hulle onseker is binne watter 10 regsgebied die item gebruik word of betrokke is in die pleging van ’n misdryf; en
+(iii) dit nie redelik moontlik is, met inagneming van die dringendheid van die saak of die bestaan van buitengewone omstandighede, om ’n skriftelike aansoek te bring vir die uitreiking van ’n lasbrief of om ’n lasbrief te 15 wysig nie; en
+
+(b) op voorwaarde dat die betrokke polisiebeampte ’n skriftelike aansoek aan die betrokke landdros of regter van die Hooggeregshof binne 48 uur ná die uitreiking van die lasbrief of gewysigde lasbrief kragtens subartikel (3), moet voorlê.
+
+(5) ’n Lasbrief of enige wysiging van ’n lasbrief kragtens subartikel (3) uitgereik, moet—
+
+(a) skriftelik wees;
+(b) elektronies aan die polisiebeampte gestuur word of aan die spesifiek aangewese polisiebeampte voorsien word; en
+(c) ’n opsomming bevat van die feite wat oorweeg is en die gronde waarop die lasbrief uitgereik is.
+
+(6) ’n Landdros of regter van die Hooggeregshof wat ’n lasbrief uitgereik het of ’n lasbrief gewysig het kragtens subartikel (3) of, indien hulle nie beskikbaar is nie, enige ander landdros of regter van die Hooggeregshof, moet by ontvangs van ’n skriftelike aansoek ingevolge subartikel $(4)(b)$ , daardie aansoek heroorweeg, waarna hulle daardie lasbrief kan bevestig, wysig of kanselleer.
+
+(7) ’n Landdros of regter van die Hooggeregshof in subartikel (6) beoog, wat die lasbrief wysig of kanselleer, moet ’n bevel gee wat hulle gepas ag, oor hoe enige item wat deur hul beslissing geraak word, hanteer moet word.
+
+# Deursoeking vir, toegang tot, of beslaglegging op item sonder deursoekingslasbrief met toestemming van persoon met wettige magtiging om toe te stem
+
+31. (1) Enige polisiebeampte kan, sonder ’n deursoekingslasbrief, die bevoegdhede bedoel in artikel 29(2) uitoefen, behoudens enige ander wetsbepaling, indien die persoon wat wettige magtiging het om toe te stem tot die deursoeking vir, toegang tot of 40 beslaglegging op die betrokke item, skriftelik toestem tot sodanige deursoeking, toegang of beslaglegging.
+
+(2) ’n Polisiebeampte wat ingevolge subartikel (1) optree kan, behoudens die regmatige skriftelike toestemming van die persoon wat wettige magtiging het om toestemming te verleen, ’n ondersoeker skriftelik magtig om hulle by te staan met die 45 deursoeking vir, toegang tot of beslaglegging op die betrokke item.
+
+# Deursoeking vir, toegang tot of beslaglegging op item betrokke in pleging van misdryf sonder deursoekingslasbrief
+
+32. (1) ’n Polisiebeampte kan sonder ’n deursoekingslasbrief in artikel $29(1)(a)$ bedoel, enige persoon, houer, perseel, voertuig, fasiliteit, skip of lugvaartuig deursoek 50 met die doel om die bevoegdhede in paragrawe (a) en $(b)$ van die omskrywing van ‘‘beslag lê’’ uit te oefen ten opsigte van ’n rekenaardatabergingsmedium of enige deel van ’n rekenaarstelsel bedoel in paragraaf (c) of $(d)$ van die omskrywing van ‘‘item’’, indien die polisiebeampte op redelike gronde glo—
+
+(a) dat ’n deursoekingslasbrief kragtens artikel $29(1)(a)$ aan hulle uitgereik sal 5 word indien hulle om daardie lasbrief aansoek doen; en
+(b) dat die vertraging in die verkryging van sodanige lasbrief die oogmerk van die deursoeking en beslaglegging sal verydel.
+
+(2) A police official may only access or perform the powers referred to in paragraphs (c) or $(d)$ of the definition of ‘‘seize’’, in respect of the computer data storage medium or a computer system referred to in subsection (1), in accordance with a search warrant issued in terms of section $29(1)(a)$ : Provided that a police official may, if they on reasonable grounds believe—
+
+(a) that a search warrant will be issued to them under section $29(1)(a)$ if they apply for such warrant; and
+(b) it is not reasonably practicable, having regard to the urgency of the case or the existence of exceptional circumstances, to make a written or oral application for a search warrant,
+
+access and perform the powers referred to in paragraph $(c)$ or $(d)$ of the definition of ‘‘seize’’ without a search warrant.
+
+(3) An investigator authorised in writing by a police official may assist the police official to seize an article as contemplated subsections (1) and (2) and to access the article as contemplated in subsection (2).
+
+# Search for, access to, or seizure of article on arrest of person
+
+33. (1) A police official may without a warrant, as contemplated in section 40 of the Criminal Procedure Act, 1977, arrest any person—
+
+(a) who commits any offence in terms of Part I or Part II of Chapter 2 in their presence; 2
+(b) whom they reasonably suspect of having committed any offence in terms of Part I and part II of Chapter 2; or who is concerned with or against whom a reasonable complaint has been made or credible information has been received or a reasonable suspicion exists that they have been concerned with an offence— (i) similar to those contemplated in Part I or Part II of Chapter 2; or (ii) substantially similar to an offence recognised in the Republic, which may be committed by means of, or facilitated through the use of, an article, in a foreign State, and for which they are, under any law relating to extradition
+
+or fugitive offenders, liable to be arrested or detained in custody in the 30 Republic.
+
+(2) On the arrest of a person contemplated in subsection (1) or in terms of section 40 or 43 of the Criminal Procedure Act, 1977, a police official may search for and perform the powers referred to in paragraphs (a) and $(b)$ of the definition of ‘‘seize’’ in respect of a computer data storage medium or any part of a computer system referred to in paragraph (c) or $(d)$ of the definition of ‘‘article’’, which is found in the possession of or in the custody or under the control of the person.
+
+(3) A police official may only access or perform the powers referred to in paragraph (c) or (d) of the definition of ‘‘seize’’, in respect of a computer data storage medium or a computer system referred to in subsection (2), in accordance with a search warrant 40 issued in terms of section $29(1)(a)$ : Provided that a police official may, if they on reasonable grounds believe—
+
+(a) that a search warrant will be issued to them under section $29(1)(a)$ , if they apply for such warrant; and
+(b) it is not reasonably practicable, having regard to the urgency of the case or the 45 existence of exceptional circumstances, to make a written or oral application for a search warrant,
+
+access and perform the powers referred to in paragraph (c) and $(d)$ of the definition of ‘‘seize’’ without a search warrant.
+
+(4) An investigator authorised in writing by a police official may assist the police 50 official to seize an article as contemplated subsections (2) and (3) and to access the article as contemplated in subsection (3).
+
+# Assisting police official or investigator
+
+34. (1) An electronic communications service provider, financial institution or person, other than the person who is suspected of having committed the offence which is being 55 investigated, who is in control of any container, premises, vehicle, facility, ship, aircraft,
+
+(2) ’n Polisiebeampte kan slegs toegang kry of die bevoegdhede in paragrawe (c) of (d) van die omskrywing van ‘‘beslag $\mathbf{l}\hat{\mathbf{e}}^{,,,}$ uitoefen, ten opsigte van die rekenaardatabergingsmedium of rekenaarstelsel in subartikel (1) bedoel, ooreenkomstig ’n deursoekingslasbrief ingevolge artikel $29(1)(a)$ uitgereik: Met dien verstande dat ’n polisiebeampte kan, as hulle op redelike gronde glo—
+
+(a) dat ’n deursoekingslasbrief kragtens artikel $29(1)(a)$ aan hulle uitgereik sal word as hulle om so ’n lasbrief aansoek doen; en
+(b) dat dit nie redelikerwys moontlik is, met inagneming van die dringendheid van die saak of die bestaan van buitengewone omstandighede, om ’n skriftelike of mondelinge aansoek om ’n lasbrief te doen nie,
+
+toegang kan kry en die bevoegdhede bedoel in paragraaf (c) of (d) van die omskrywing van ‘‘beslag $\mathbf{l}\hat{\mathbf{e}}^{,,,}$ kan uitoefen, sonder ’n deursoekingslasbrief.
+
+(3) ’n Ondersoeker wat skriftelik daartoe gemagtig is deur ’n polisiebeampte, kan die polisiebeampte bystaan in die beslaglegging op ’n item soos in subartikels (1) en (2) beoog en om toegang te kry tot die item soos in subartikel (2) beoog.
+
+# Deursoeking vir, toegang tot of beslaglegging op item by inhegtenisneming van persoon
+
+33. (1) ’n Polisiebeampte kan sonder ’n lasbrief, soos beoog in artikel 40 van die Strafproseswet, 1977, enigiemand in hegtenis neem—
+
+(a) wat enige misdryf ingevolge Deel I of Deel II van Hoofstuk 2 in hul 20 teenwoordigheid pleeg;
+(b) wat hul redelikerwys daarvan verdink dat hulle ’n misdryf ingevolge Deel I en Deel II van Hoofstuk 2 gepleeg het; of
+(c) wat betrokke is by of teen wie ’n redelike klagte gebring is of geloofwaardige inligting ontvang is of ’n redelike verdenking bestaan dat hulle betrokke was 25 by ’n misdryf— (i) soortgelyk aan die misdrywe in Deel I of Deel II van Hoofstuk 2 beoog; of (ii) wesenlik soortgelyk aan ’n misdryf in die Republiek erken, wat gepleeg kan word by wyse van, of gefasiliteer kan word deur die gebruik van, ’n 30 item, in ’n vreemde Staat, en waarvoor hulle, kragtens enige wetsbepaling in verband met uitlewering van voortvlugtige oortreders, in die Republiek gearresteer of in bewaring aangehou kan word.
+
+(2) By die inhegtenisneming van $\mathbf{\chi}_{\mathrm{n}}^{\prime}$ persoon in subartikel (1) beoog of ingevolge 35 artikel 40 of 43 van die Strafproseswet, 1977, kan ’n polisiebeampte deursoek vir en die bevoegdhede bedoel in paragrawe (a) en (b) van die omskrywing van ‘‘beslag lê’’ uitoefen ten opsigte van ’n rekenaardatabergingsmedium of enige deel van ’n rekenaarstelsel in paragraaf (c) of (d) van die omskrywing van ‘‘item’’ bedoel, wat in die besit van of in die bewaring of onder beheer van die persoon gevind word. 40
+
+(3) ’n Polisiebeampte kan slegs toegang kry of die bevoegdhede bedoel in paragraaf (c) of (d) van die omskrywing van ‘‘beslag lê’’ uitoefen, ten opsigte van ’n rekenaardatabergingsmedium of ’n rekenaarstelsel in subartikel (2) bedoel, ooreenkomstig ’n deursoekingslasbrief uitgereik ingevolge artikel $29(1)(a)$ : Met dien verstande dat ’n polisiebeampte, as hulle op redelike gronde glo—
+
+(a) dat ’n deursoekingslasbrief kragtens artikel $29(1)(a)$ aan hulle uitgereik sal word, as hulle om daardie lasbrief aansoek doen; en
+(b) dit nie redelikerwys moontlik is, met inagneming van die dringendheid van die saak of die bestaan van buitengewone omstandighede, om ’n skriftelike of mondelinge aansoek om ’n deursoekingslasbrief te doen nie,
+
+toegang kan kry en die bevoegdhede in paragrawe (c) en (d) van die omskrywing van ‘‘beslag lê’’ kan uitoefen sonder ’n deursoekingslasbrief.
+
+(4) ’n Ondersoeker wat skriftelik daartoe gemagtig is deur ’n polisiebeampte, kan die polisiebeampte bystaan in die beslaglegging op ’n item soos beoog in subartikels (2) en (3) en om toegang te kry tot die item soos in subartikel (3) beoog.
+
+# Bystand aan polisiebeampte of ondersoeker
+
+34. (1) ’n Elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer, finansiële instelling of persoon, anders as die persoon wat verdink word van die pleging van die misdryf wat ondersoek word, wat in beheer is van enige houer, perseel, voertuig, fasiliteit, skip, lugvaartuig, data, computer program, computer data storage medium or computer system that is subject to a search authorised in terms of section 29(1) must, if required, provide—
+
+(a) technical assistance; and (b) such other assistance as may be reasonably necessary, to a police official or investigator in order to search for, access or seize an article. (2) An electronic communications service provider, financial institution or person who fails to comply with the provisions of subsection (1), is guilty of an offence and is liable on conviction to a fine or imprisonment for a period not exceeding two years or to both a fine and such imprisonment.
+
+# Obstructing or hindering police official or investigator and authority to overcome 10 resistance
+
+35. (1) Any person who unlawfully and intentionally obstructs or hinders a police official or an investigator in the exercise of their powers or the performance of their duties or functions in terms of this Chapter or who refuses or fails to comply with a search warrant issued in terms of section 29(1), is guilty of an offence and is liable on 15 conviction to a fine or imprisonment for a period not exceeding two years or to both a fine and such imprisonment.
+
+(2) (a) A police official who may lawfully execute any power conferred upon them in terms of section 29(2), may use such force as may be— (i) reasonably necessary; and (ii) proportional to all the circumstances, relating to the execution of such powers.
+
+20
+
+(b) No police official may enter upon or search any premises, vehicle, facility, ship or aircraft unless they have audibly demanded admission to the premises, vehicle, facility, ship or aircraft and have notified the purpose of their entry.
+
+25
+
+(c) The provisions of paragraph (b) do not apply where the police official is, on reasonable grounds, of the opinion that an article which is the subject of the search may be destroyed, disposed of or tampered with if the provisions of paragraph $(b)$ are complied with.
+
+# Powers conferred upon police official or investigator to be conducted in decent and 30 orderly manner with due regard to rights of other persons
+
+36. (1) The powers conferred upon a police official or an investigator in terms of section 29(2), 31, 32 or 33, must be conducted—
+
+(a) with strict regard to decency and order; and
+(b) with due regard to the rights, responsibilities and legitimate interests of other 35 persons in proportion to the severity of the offence.
+
+(2) If a female needs to be searched physically in terms of section 29(2)(a), (c) or (d), 32 or 33, such search must be carried out by a police official who is also a female: Provided that if no female police official is available, the search must be carried out by any female designated for that purpose by a police official.
+
+# Wrongful search, access or seizure and restriction on use of instrument, device, password or decryption key or information to gain access
+
+37. (1) A police official or an investigator who unlawfully and intentionally— (a) acts contrary to the authority of—
+
+(i) a search warrant issued under section 29(1); or (ii) consent granted in terms of section 31(1); or (b) without being authorised thereto under this Chapter or the provision of any other law which affords similar powers to a police official or an investigator— (i) searches for, accesses or seizes data, a computer program, a computer data storage medium or any part of a computer system; or
+
+data, rekenaarprogram, rekenaardatabergingsmedium of rekenaarstelsel wat aan ’n deursoeking ingevolge artikel 29(1) gemagtig, onderwerp word, moet, indien dit vereis word—
+
+(a) tegniese bystand; en (b) sodanige ander bystand as wat redelikerwys nodig mag wees, aan ’n polisiebeampte of ondersoeker verleen ten einde te deursoek vir, toegang te kry tot of beslag te lê op ’n item. (2) ’n Elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer, finansiële instelling of persoon wat versuim om aan die bepalings van subartikel (1) te voldoen, is skuldig aan ’n misdryf en is by skuldigbevinding strafbaar met ’n boete of gevangenisstraf vir $\mathbf{\chi}_{\mathrm{n}}^{\prime}$ tydperk van 10 hoogstens twee jaar of met beide ’n boete en sodanige gevangenisstraf.
+
+# Dwarsboming of belemmering van polisiebeampte of ondersoeker en magtiging om weerstand te oorkom
+
+35. (1) Enige persoon wat wederregtelik en opsetlik ’n polisiebeampte of ’n ondersoeker dwarsboom of belemmer in die uitoefening van hul bevoegdhede of die 15 verrigting van hul pligte of werksaamhede ingevolge hierdie Hoofstuk of wat weier of versuim om te voldoen aan ’n deursoekingslasbrief uitgereik ingevolge artikel 29(1), is skuldig aan ’n misdryf en is by skuldigbevinding strafbaar met ’n boete of gevangenisstraf vir ’n tydperk van hoogstens twee jaar of met beide ’n boete en daardie gevangenisstraf. 20
+
+(2) (a) ’n Polisiebeampte wat wettig enige bevoegdheid ingevolge artikel 29(2) aan hulle opgedra, uitvoer, kan sodanige geweld gebruik wat—
+
+(i) redelikerwys nodig; en (ii) in verhouding tot al die omstandighede, is, in verband met die uitvoering van daardie bevoegdhede.
+
+(b) Geen polisiebeampte mag enige perseel, voertuig, fasiliteit, skip of lugvaartuig betree of deursoek nie tensy hul hoorbaar toelating tot die perseel, voertuig, fasiliteit, skip of lugvaartuig geëis het en die doel van hul betreding bekend gemaak het.
+
+(c) Die bepalings van paragraaf $(b)$ is nie van toepassing nie waar die polisiebeampte, op redelike gronde, van oordeel is dat ’n item ten opsigte waarvan die deursoeking 30 geskied, vernietig, weggedoen of mee gepeuter kan word indien die bepalings van paragraaf (b) nagekom word.
+
+# Bevoegdhede aan polisiebeampte of ondersoeker opgedra moet op welvoeglike en ordelike wyse uitgevoer word met behoorlike inagneming van regte van ander persone
+
+36. (1) Die bevoegdhede aan ’n polisiebeampte of ’n ondersoeker opgedra ingevolge artikel 29(2), 31, 32 of 33, moet uitgevoer word—
+
+(a) met streng behoud van welvoeglikheid en orde; en (b) met behoorlike inagneming van die regte, verantwoordelikhede en regmatige belange van ander persone in verhouding tot die erns van die misdryf.
+
+(2) Indien ’n vrou ingevolge artikel 29(2)(a), (c) of (d), 32 of 33, fisiek deursoek moet word, moet daardie deursoeking deur ’n polisiebeampte wat ook ’n vrou is, gedoen word: Met dien verstande dat indien geen vroulike polisiebeampte beskikbaar is nie, die deursoeking deur enige vrou vir daardie doel deur ’n polisiebeampte aangewys, gedoen moet word.
+
+# Wederregtelike deursoeking, toegang of beslaglegging en beperking op gebruik van instrument, toestel, wagwoord of dekripteringsleutel of inligting om toegang te kry
+
+37. (1) ’n Polisiebeampte of ’n ondersoeker wat wederregtelik en opsetlik— (a) strydig optree met die magtiging van— (i) ’n deursoekingslasbrief kragtens artikel 29(1) uitgereik; of (ii) toestemming ingevolge artikel 31(1) gegee; of (b) sonder om gemagtig te wees kragtens hierdie Hoofstuk of die bepaling van enige ander wet wat soortgelyke bevoegdhede aan ’n polisiebeampte of ’n ondersoeker verleen— (i) deursoek vir, toegang kry tot of beslag lê op data, ’n rekenaarprogram, ’n rekenaardatabergingsmedium of enige deel van van ’n rekenaarstelsel; of
+
+50
+
+(ii) obtains or uses any instrument, device, password, decryption key or other information that is necessary to access data, a computer program, a computer data storage medium or any part of a computer system,
+
+is guilty of an offence.
+
+(2) (a) A police official or an investigator who obtains or uses any instrument, device, equipment, password, decryption key, data or other information contemplated in section 29(2)(h)—
+
+(i) must use the instrument, device, equipment, password, decryption key, data or information only in respect of and to the extent specified in the warrant to gain access to or use data, a computer program, a computer data storage medium or 10 any part of a computer system in the manner and for the purposes specified in the search warrant concerned; and
+
+(ii) must destroy all passwords, decryption keys, data or other information if— (aa) it is not required by a person who may lawfully possess the passwords, decryption keys, data or other information; 15 (bb) it will not be required for purposes of any criminal proceedings or civil proceedings contemplated in Chapter 5 or 6 of the Prevention of Organised Crime Act, 1998, or for purposes of evidence or for purposes of an order of court; or (cc) no criminal proceedings or civil proceedings as contemplated in Chapter 5 20 or 6 of the Prevention of Organised Crime Act, 1998, are to be instituted in connection with such information.
+
+(b) A police official or an investigator who unlawfully and intentionally—
+
+(i) uses any instrument, device, equipment, password, decryption key, data or information outside the authorisation of a warrant as contemplated in para- 25 graph (a)(i); or
+(ii) fails to destroy all passwords, decryption keys, data or other information as contemplated in paragraph (a)(ii),
+
+is guilty of an offence.
+
+(3) A police official or an investigator who contravenes or fails to comply with 30 subsection (1) or (2), is liable on conviction to a fine or imprisonment for a period not exceeding 2 years or to both a fine and such imprisonment. (4) Where a police official or an investigator is convicted of an offence referred to in subsection (1) or (2), the court convicting such a person may, upon application of any person who has suffered damage or upon the application of the prosecutor acting on the 35 instructions of that person, award compensation in respect of such damage, whereupon the provisions of section 300 of the Criminal Procedure Act, 1977, shall apply with the necessary changes required by the context to such award.
+
+# False information under oath or by way of affirmation
+
+38. (1) Any person who unlawfully or intentionally gives false information under oath 40 or by way of affirmation knowing it to be false or not knowing it to be true, with the result that—
+
+(a) a search warrant is issued;
+(b) a search contemplated in section 31 took place on the basis of such information; 45
+(c) a person, container, premises, vehicle, facility, ship or aircraft is searched or a computer data storage medium or any part of a computer system is seized or accessed in terms of section 32;
+(d) an expedited preservation of data direction contemplated in section 41 is issued; 50
+(e) a preservation of evidence direction contemplated in section 42 is issued; or
+$(f)$ a disclosure of data direction contemplated in section 44 is issued,
+
+is guilty of an offence and is liable on conviction to a fine or to imprisonment for a period not exceeding two years or to both such fine and imprisonment.
+
+51
+
+(ii) enige instrument, toestel, wagwoord, dekripteringsleutel of ander inligting wat nodig is om toegang te kry tot data, ’n rekenaarprogram, ’n rekenaardatabergingsmedium of enige deel van ’n rekenaarstelsel, te bekom of gebruik,
+
+is skuldig aan ’n misdryf.
+
+(2) (a) ’n Polisiebeampte of ’n ondersoeker wat enige instrument, toestel, toerusting, wagwoord, dekripteringsleutel, data of ander inligting beoog in artikel $29(2)(h)$ verkry of gebruik—
+
+(i) moet die instrument, toestel, toerusting, wagwoord, dekripteringsleutel, data of inligting slegs ten opsigte van en tot die mate gespesifiseer in die 10 deursoekingslasbrief gebruik om toegang te kry tot, of om data, ’n rekenaarprogram, ’n rekenaardatabergingsmedium of enige deel van ’n rekenaarstelsel te gebruik op die wyse en vir die doeleindes in die betrokke deursoekingslasbrief gespesifiseer; en
+
+(ii) moet alle wagwoorde, dekripteringsleutels, data of ander inligting vernietig 15 indien—
+
+(aa) dit nie deur ’n persoon benodig word wat die wagwoorde, dekoderingsleutels, data of inligting wettig mag besit nie;
+(bb) dit nie vir die doeleindes van enige strafregtelike verrigtinge of siviele verrigtinge beoog in Hoofstuk 5 of 6 van die Wet op Voorkoming van 20 Georganiseerde Misdaad, 1998, of vir die doeleindes van getuienis of vir doeleindes van ’n hofbevel, benodig sal word nie; of
+(cc) geen strafregtelike verrigtinge of siviele verrigtinge soos beoog in Hoofstuk 5 of 6 van die Wet op Voorkoming van Georganiseerde Misdaad, 1998, in verband met daardie inligting ingestel staan te word 25 nie.
+
+(b) ’n Polisiebeampte of ondersoeker wat wederregtelik en opsetlik—
+
+(i) enige instrument, toestel, toerusting, wagwoord, dekripteringsleutel, data of inligting gebruik buite die magtiging van ’n lasbrief soos in paragraaf (a)(i) beoog; of
+(ii) versuim om alle wagwoorde, dekripteringsleutels, data of ander inligting soos beoog in paragraaf (a)(ii) te vernietig,
+
+is skuldig aan ’n misdryf.
+
+(3) ’n Polisiebeampte of ’n ondersoeker wat subartikel (1) of (2) oortree of versuim om daaraan te voldoen, is by skuldigbevinding strafbaar met ’n boete of gevangenisstraf 35 vir ’n tydperk van hoogstens twee jaar of met beide ’n boete en sodanige gevangenisstraf.
+
+(4) Waar ’n polisiebeampte of ’n ondersoeker skuldig bevind word aan ’n misdryf in subartikel (1) of (2) bedoel, kan die hof wat daardie persoon skuldig bevind, op aansoek van enige persoon wat skade gely het of op die aansoek van die aanklaer wat in opdrag 40 van daardie persoon optree, vergoeding ten opsigte van daardie skade toeken, waarop die bepalings van artikel 300 van die Strafproseswet, 1977, met die nodige veranderinge deur die samehang vereis, op daardie toekenning van toepassing is.
+
+# Vals inligting onder eed of deur plegtige verklaring
+
+38. (1) Enige persoon wat wederregtelik en opsetlik vals inligting onder eed of deur 45 plegtige verklaring gee, wetende dat dit vals is of nie wetende dat dit waar is nie, met die gevolg dat—
+
+(a) ’n deursoekingslasbrief uitgereik word;
+(b) ’n deursoeking in artikel 31 beoog op grond van daardie inligting plaasgevind het; 50
+(c) ’n persoon, houer, perseel, voertuig, fasiliteit, skip of lugvaartuig deursoek of ’n rekenaardatabergingsmedium of enige deel van ’n rekenaarstelsel ingevolge artikel 32 op beslag gelê word of toegang gekry word daartoe;
+(d) ’n lasgewing vir bespoedigde bewaring van data ingevolge artikel 41 uitgereik word; 55
+(e) ’n lasgewing vir bewaring van getuienis beoog in artikel 42 uitgereik word; of
+$(f)$ ’n lasgewing vir openbaarmaking van data beoog in artikel 44 uitgereik word,
+
+is skuldig aan ’n misdryf en is by skuldigbevinding strafbaar met ’n boete of met gevangenisstraf vir ’n tydperk van hoogstens twee jaar of met beide ’n boete en daardie gevangenisstraf.
+
+(2) Where a person is convicted of an offence referred to in subsection (1), the court convicting such a person may, upon application of any person who has suffered damage or upon the application of the prosecutor acting on the instructions of that person, award compensation in respect of such damage, whereupon the provisions of section 300 of the Criminal Procedure Act, 1977, shall apply with the necessary changes required by the context to such award.
+
+# Prohibition on disclosure of information
+
+39. (1) No person, investigator, police official, electronic communications service provider, financial institution or an employee of an electronic communications service provider or financial institution may, subject to subsection (2), disclose any information 10 which they have obtained in the exercise of their powers or the performance of their duties in terms of Chapter 4 or 5 of this Act, except—
+
+(a) to any other person who of necessity requires it for the performance of their functions in terms of this Act;
+(b) if they are a person who of necessity supplies such information in the 15 performance of their duties or functions in terms of this Act;
+(c) if it is information which is required in terms of any law or as evidence in any court of law;
+(d) if it constitutes information-sharing between electronic communications service providers, financial institutions, the South African Police Service, 20 competent authorities or any other person or entity which is aimed at preventing, detecting, investigating or mitigating cybercrime: Provided that such information-sharing may not prejudice any criminal investigation or criminal proceedings; or
+(e) to any competent authority in a foreign State which requires it for the 25 prevention, detection, or mitigation of cybercrime, or the institution of criminal proceedings or an investigation with a view to institute criminal proceedings.
+
+(2) The prohibition on disclosure of information contemplated in subsection (1) does not apply where the disclosure—
+
+(a) is authorised in terms of this Act or any other Act of Parliament; or (b) reveals a criminal activity.
+
+(3) A person, investigator, police official, electronic communications service provider, financial institution or an employee of an electronic communications service provider or financial institution who unlawfully and intentionally contravenes the provisions of 35 subsection (1) is guilty of an offence and is liable on conviction to a fine or imprisonment for a period not exceeding three years or to both a fine and such imprisonment.
+
+# Interception of indirect communication and obtaining of real-time communication-related information
+
+40. (1) The interception of an indirect communication as defined in section 1 of the 40 Regulation of Interception of Communications and Provision of Communicationrelated Information Act, 2002, must take place in terms of a direction issued in terms of section 16(4) or 18(3) of that Act and must, subject to subsection (4), be dealt with further in the manner provided for in that Act.
+
+(2) The obtaining of real-time communication-related information as defined in 45 section 1 of the Regulation of Interception of Communications and Provision of Communication-related Information Act, 2002, on an ongoing basis, as it becomes available, must take place in terms of a direction issued in terms of section 17(3) or 18(3) of that Act, and must, subject to subsection (4), be dealt with further in the manner provided for in that Act.
+
+(3) An electronic communications service provider who is— (a) in terms of section $30(1)(b)$ of the Regulation of Interception of Communications and Provision of Communication-related Information Act, 2002, required to provide an electronic communications service which has the capability to store communication-related information; and
+
+(2) Waar ’n persoon aan ’n misdryf bedoel in subartikel (1) skuldig bevind word, kan die hof wat daardie persoon skuldig bevind, op aansoek van enige persoon wat skade gely het of op die aansoek van die aanklaer wat in opdrag van daardie persoon optree, vergoeding ten opsigte van daardie skade toeken, waarop die bepalings van artikel 300 van die Strafproseswet, 1977, met die nodige veranderinge deur die samehang vereis, op daardie toekenning van toepassing is.
+
+# Verbod op openbaarmaking van inligting
+
+39. (1) Geen persoon, ondersoeker, polisiebeampte, elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer, finansiële instelling of ’n werknemer van ’n elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of finansiële instelling mag, behoudens subartikel (2), 10 enige inligting wat hulle in die uitoefening van hul bevoegdhede of die verrigting van hul pligte ingevolge Hoofstuk 4 of 5 van hierdie Wet verkry het openbaar maak nie, behalwe—
+
+(a) aan enige ander persoon wat dit uit noodsaak vereis vir die verrigting van hul werksaamhede ingevolge hierdie Wet; 15
+(b) indien hul ’n persoon is wat daardie inligting uit noodsaak verskaf in die verrigting van hul pligte en werksaamhede ingevolge hierdie Wet;
+(c) indien dit inligting is wat ingevolge enige wet as getuienis in enige geregshof benodig word;
+(d) indien dit inligtingdeling tussen elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffers, 20 finansiële instellings, die Suid-Afrikaanse Polisiediens, bevoegde owerhede of enige ander persoon of entiteit daarstel wat op die voorkoming, bespeuring, ondersoek of mitigasie van kubermisdaad gemik is: Met dien verstande dat sodanige inligtingdeling geen strafregtelike ondersoek of strafregtelike verrigtinge mag benadeel nie; of 25
+(e) aan enige bevoegde owerheid in ’n vreemde Staat wat dit benodig vir die voorkoming, bespeuring of mitigasie van kubermisdaad, of die instelling van strafregtelike verrigtinge of ’n ondersoek met die oog op die instelling van strafregtelike verrigtinge.
+
+(2) Die verbod op openbaarmaking van inligting in subartikel (1) beoog, is nie van 30 oepassing nie waar die openbaarmaking—
+
+(a) ingevolge hierdie Wet of enige ander Parlementswet gemagtig is; of (b) ’n kriminele aktiwiteit onthul. (3) ’n Persoon, ondersoeker, polisiebeampte, elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer, finansiële instelling of ’n werknemer van ’n elektroniese kommuni- 35 kasiediensverskaffer of finansiële instelling wat wederregtelik en opsetlik die bepalings van subartikel (1) oortree, is skuldig aan ’n misdryf en is by skuldigbevinding strafbaar met ’n boete of gevangenisstraf vir ’n tydperk van hoogstens drie jaar of met beide ’n boete en daardie gevangenisstraf.
+
+# Onderskepping van onregstreekse kommunikasie en verkryging van intydse 40 kommunikasie-verwante inligting
+
+40. (1) Die onderskepping van ’n onregstreekse kommunikasie soos omskryf in artikel 1 van die Wet op die Reëling van Onderskepping van Kommunikasies en Verstrekking van Kommunikasie-verwante Inligting, 2002, moet plaasvind ingevolge ’n lasgewing uitgereik ingevolge artikel 16(4) of 18(3) van daardie Wet en moet, 45 behoudens subartikel (4), verder hanteer word op die wyse waarvoor daardie Wet voorsiening maak.
+
+(2) Die verkryging van intydse kommunikasie-verwante inligting soos omskryf in artikel 1 van die Wet op die Reëling van Onderskepping van Kommunikasies en Verstrekking van Kommunikasie-verwante Inligting, 2002, op ’n deurlopende 50 grondslag, soos dit beskikbaar word, moet plaasvind ingevolge ’n lasgewing uitgereik ingevolge artikel 17(3) of 18(3) van daardie Wet, en moet, behoudens subartikel (4), verder hanteer word op die wyse waarvoor daardie Wet voorsiening maak.
+
+(3) ’n Elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer wat— (a) ingevolge artikel $30(1)(b)$ van die Wet op die Reëling van Onderskepping van 55 Kommunikasies en Verstrekking van Kommunikasie-verwante Inligting, 2002, ’n elektroniese kommunikasiediens moet voorsien wat die vermoë het om kommunikasie-verwante inligting te bewaar; en
+
+(b) not required to store communication-related information in terms of a directive issued in terms of section 30(2) of that Act, must, in addition to any other obligation imposed by any law, comply with—
+
+(i) a real-time communication-related direction contemplated in subsection (2), in terms of which the electronic communications service provider is directed to 5 provide real-time communication-related information in respect of a customer, on an ongoing basis, as it becomes available;
+(ii) an expedited preservation of data direction contemplated in section 41, in terms of which the electronic communications service provider is directed to preserve real-time communication-related information in respect of a customer; 10
+(iii) a preservation of evidence direction contemplated in section 42, in terms of which the electronic communications service provider is directed to preserve real-time communication-related information in respect of a customer;
+(iv) a disclosure of data direction contemplated in section 44, in terms of which the electronic communications service provider is directed to provide real-time 15 communication-related information in respect of a customer that was preserved or otherwise stored by the electronic communications service provider; or
+(v) any order of the designated judge in terms of section 48(6), in terms of which the electronic communications service provider is ordered to— (aa) obtain and preserve any real-time communication-related information; 20 or (bb) obtain and furnish traffic data.
+
+(4) Any indirect communication which is to be intercepted or any real-time communication-related information or traffic data which is to be obtained, at the request of an authority, court or tribunal exercising jurisdiction in a foreign State must further be 25 dealt with in the manner provided for in an order referred to in section 48(6), which is issued by the designated judge.
+
+# Expedited preservation of data direction
+
+41. (1) A specifically designated police official may— (a) if they believe on reasonable grounds that any person, an electronic 30 communications service provider referred to in section 40(3), or a financial institution is— (i) in possession of; (ii) to receive; or (iii) in control of, 35 data as contemplated in paragraph (a) of the definition of ‘‘article’’; and (b) with due regard to the rights, responsibilities and legitimate interests of other persons in proportion to the severity of the offence in question, issue an expedited preservation of data direction to such a person, electronic ommunications service provider or financial institution. 40 (2) Subsection (1) also applies to— (a) archived communication-related information which an electronic communications service provider is no longer required to store due to the fact that the period contemplated in section 30(2)(a)(iii) of the Regulation of Interception of Communications and Provision of Communication-related Information 45 Act, 2002, is due to come to an end; or (b) any other data which— (i) must be stored for a certain period in terms of any other law and that period is due to come to an end; or (ii) is stored by an electronic communications service provider which is not 50 real-time communication-related information or archived communication-related information as contemplated in section 1, read with section
+30(2) and any directive issued in terms of that section, of the Regulation of Interception of Communications and Provision of Communicationrelated Information Act, 2002.
+
+(3) An expedited preservation of data direction must be in the prescribed form and must be served on the person, electronic communications service provider or financial institution affected thereby, in the prescribed manner by a police official.
+
+(b) nie vereis word om kommunikasie-verwante inligting, ingevolge ’n voorskrif ingevolge artikel 30(2) van daardie Wet uitgereik, te bewaar nie,
+
+moet, benewens enige ander verpligting deur enige wetsbepaling opgelê, voldoen aan—
+
+(i) ’n intydse kommunikasie-verwante lasgewing in subartikel (2) beoog ingevolge waarvan die elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer gelas word om intydse 5 kommunikasie-verwante inligting te voorsien ten opsigte van ’n kliënt, op ’n deurlopende grondslag, soos dit beskikbaar word;
+(ii) ’n lasgewing vir bespoedigde bewaring van data beoog in artikel 41, ingevolge waarvan die elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer gelas word om intydse kommunikasie-verwante inligting ten opsigte van ’n kliënt te bewaar; 10
+(iii) ’n lasgewing vir bewaring van getuienis in artikel 42 beoog, ingevolge waarvan die elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer gelas word om intydse kommunikasie-verwante inligting ten opsigte van ’n kliënt te bewaar;
+(iv) ’n lasgewing vir openbaarmaking van data in artikel 44 beoog, ingevolge waarvan die elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer gelas word om intydse 15 kommunikasie-verwante inligting ten opsigte van ’n kliënt wat deur die elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer bewaar of andersins geberg is, te voorsien; of
+(v) enige bevel deur die aangewese regter ingevolge artikel 48(6), ingevolge waarvan die elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer beveel word om— 20 (aa) enige intydse kommunikasie-verwante inligting te verkry en te bewaar; of (bb) verkeersdata te verkry en te verskaf.
+
+(4) Enige onregstreekse kommunikasie wat onderskep moet word of enige intydse kommunikasie-verwante inligting of verkeersdata wat bekom moet word, op versoek 25 van ’n owerheid, hof of tribunaal met jurisdiksie in ’n vreemde Staat, moet verder mee gehandel word op die wyse waarvoor in ’n bevel bedoel in artikel 48(6), deur die aangewese regter uitgereik, voorsiening gemaak word.
+
+# Lasgewing vir bespoedigde bewaring van data
+
+41. (1) ’n Spesifiek aangewese polisiebeampte kan—
+
+(a) as hul op redelike gronde glo dat enige persoon, ’n elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer in artikel 40(3) bedoel, of ’n finansiële instelling— (i) in besit is van data; (ii) data gaan ontvang; of 35 (iii) in beheer is van data, soos beoog in paragraaf (a) van die omskrywing van ‘‘item’’; en
+(b) met behoorlike inagneming van die regte, verantwoordelikhede en regmatige belange van ander persone in verhouding tot die erns van die betrokke misdryf, 40
+
+’n lasgewing vir bespoedigde bewaring van data aan daardie persoon, elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of finansiële instelling uitreik.
+
+(2) Subartikel (1) is ook van toepassing op—
+
+(a) argief-bewaarde kommunikasie-verwante inligting wat ’n elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer nie langer hoef te bewaar nie omdat die tydperk 45 beoog in artikel 30(2)(a)(iii) van die Wet op die Reëling van Onderskepping van Kommunikasies en Verstrekking van Kommunikasie-verwante Inligting, 2002, gaan verstryk; of
+(b) enige ander data— (i) wat vir ’n sekere tyd geberg moet word ingevolge enige ander 50 wetsbepaling en daardie tydperk gaan verstryk; of (ii) wat deur ’n elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer geberg word wat nie vir intydse kommunikasie-verwante inligting of argief-bewaarde kommunikasie-verwante inligting is soos beoog in artikel 1, gelees met artikel 30(2) en enige voorskrif uitgereik ingevolge daardie artikel, van 55 die Wet op die Reëling van Onderskepping van Kommunikasies en Verstrekking van Kommunikasie-verwante Inligting, 2002, nie.
+
+(3) ’n Lasgewing vir bespoedigde bewaring van data moet in die voorgeskrewe vorm wees en moet op die voorgeskrewe wyse deur ’n polisiebeampte aan die persoon, elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of finansiële instelling daardeur geraak, 60 beteken word.
+
+(4) An expedited preservation of data direction must direct the person, electronic communications service provider or financial institution affected thereby, from the time of service of the direction, and for a period of 21 days—
+
+(a) to preserve the current status of; (b) not to deal in any manner with; or (c) to deal in a certain manner with,
+
+the data referred to in the direction in order to preserve the availability and integrity of the data.
+
+(5) No data may be disclosed to a police official on the strength of an expedited preservation of data direction, unless it is authorised in terms of section 44.
+
+(6) The 21 day period referred to in subsection (4), may only be extended by way of a preservation of evidence direction contemplated in section 42, once, for an additional period which may not exceed 90 days.
+
+(7) A person, electronic communications service provider or financial institution to whom an expedited preservation of data direction, referred to in subsection (1), is 15 addressed may, in writing in the prescribed form and manner, apply to a magistrate in whose area of jurisdiction the person, electronic communications service provider or financial institution is situated, for an amendment or the cancellation of the direction concerned on the ground that they cannot timeously or in a reasonable fashion, comply with the direction. 20
+
+(8) The magistrate to whom an application is made in terms of subsection (7) must, as soon as possible after receipt thereof—
+
+(a) consider the application and may for this purpose, order oral or written evidence to be adduced regarding any fact alleged in the application;
+(b) give a decision in respect of the application; and
+(c) inform the applicant and specifically designated police official referred to in subsection (1) of the outcome of the application.
+
+25
+
+(9) A person, electronic communications service provider or financial institution eferred to in subsection (1) who—
+
+(a) fails to comply with an expedited preservation of data direction or contravenes 30 the provisions of subsection (5); or (b) makes a false statement in an application referred to in subsection (7),
+
+is guilty of an offence and is liable on conviction to a fine or imprisonment for a period not exceeding two years or to both a fine and such imprisonment.
+
+# Preservation of evidence direction
+
+42. (1) A magistrate or judge of the High Court, may—
+
+(a) upon written application by a police official;
+(b) if it appears to the magistrate or judge upon consideration of the information provided under oath or by way of affirmation, as set out in the application, that there are reasonable grounds to believe that any person, electronic communi- 40 cations service provider or financial institution— (i) may receive; (ii) is in possession of; or (iii) is in control of, an article; and 45
+(c) with due regard to the rights, responsibilities and legitimate interests of other persons in proportion to the severity of the offence in question,
+
+issue a preservation of evidence direction.
+
+(2) A preservation of evidence direction must be in the prescribed form and must be served on the person, electronic communications service provider or financial institution 50 affected thereby, in the prescribed manner by a police official.
+
+(3) The preservation of evidence direction must direct the person, electronic communications service provider or financial institution, from the time of service of the direction, and for the time period specified in the direction, which may not exceed 90 days—
+
+(a) to preserve the current status of; $(b)$ not to deal in any manner with; or $(c)$ to deal in a certain manner with, an article in order to preserve the availability or integrity of the article.
+
+(4) ’n Lasgewing vir bespoedigde bewaring van data moet die persoon, elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of finansiële instelling daardeur geraak, gelas om van die tyd van betekening van die lasgewing en vir ’n tydperk van 21 dae—
+
+(a) die huidige status te bewaar van; (b) geensins op enige wyse te handel met; of (c) op ’n sekere wyse te handel met,
+
+die data in die lasgewing vermeld, ten einde die beskikbaarheid en integriteit van die data te bewaar.
+
+(5) Geen data mag op grond van ’n lasgewing vir bespoedigde bewaring van data aan ’n polisiebeampte openbaar gemaak word nie, tensy dit ingevolge artikel 44 gemagtig 10 word.
+
+(6) Die tydperk van 21 dae in subartikel (4) bedoel, kan slegs eenmalig verleng word by wyse van’n lasgewing vir bewaring van getuienis in artikel 42 beoog, vir ’n bykomende tydperk wat nie 90 dae mag oorskry nie.
+
+(7) ’n Persoon, elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of finansiële instelling aan 15 wie ’n lasgewing vir bespoedigde bewaring van data, in subartikel (1) bedoel, gerig is, kan skriftelik op die voorgeskrewe vorm en wyse, by ’n landdros in wie se regsgebied die persoon, elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of finansiële instelling geleë is, aansoek doen om ’n wysiging of die kansellasie van die betrokke lasgewing op grond daarvan dat hulle nie tydig of op ’n redelike wyse aan die lasgewing kan voldoen nie. 20
+
+(8) Die landdros by wie ’n aansoek ingevolge subartikel (7) gedoen word, moet, so gou moontlik ná ontvangs daarvan—
+
+(a) die aansoek oorweeg en kan vir hierdie doel gelas dat mondelinge of skriftelike getuienis aangevoer word aangaande enige feit in die aansoek beweer; 25
+(b) ’n beslissing ten opsigte van die aansoek gee; en
+(c) die applikant en spesifiek aangewese polisiebeampte bedoel in subartikel (1) verwittig van die uitslag van die aansoek.
+
+(9) ’n Persoon, elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of finansiële instelling in ubartikel (1) bedoel wat—
+
+(a) versuim om aan ’n lasgewing vir bespoedigde bewaring van data te voldoen of die bepalings van subartikel (5) oortree; of (b) ’n vals verklaring maak in ’n aansoek in subartikel (7) bedoel,
+
+is skuldig aan ’n misdryf en is by skuldigbevinding strafbaar met ’n boete of met gevangenisstraf vir ’n tydperk van hoogstens twee jaar of met beide ’n boete en sodanige 35 gevangenisstraf.
+
+# Lasgewing vir bewaring van getuienis
+
+42. (1) ’n Landdros of regter van die Hooggeregshof kan—
+
+(a) by skriftelike aansoek deur ’n polisiebeampte;
+(b) indien dit vir die landdros of regter, by oorweging van die inligting onder eed 40 of by wyse van plegtige verklaring verstrek, soos in die aansoek uiteengesit, blyk dat daar redelike gronde is om te glo dat enige persoon, elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of finansiële instelling— (i) ’n item mag ontvang; (ii) in besit is van ’n item; of 45 (iii) in beheer is van ’n item; en
+(c) met behoorlike inagneming van die regte, verantwoordelikhede en regmatige belange van ander persone in verhouding tot die erns van die betrokke misdryf,
+
+’n lasgewing vir bewaring van getuienis uitreik.
+
+(2) ’n Lasgewing vir bewaring van getuienis moet in die voorgeskrewe vorm wees en moet op die voorgeskrewe wyse deur ’n polisiebeampte aan die persoon, elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of finansiële instelling daardeur geraak, beteken word.
+
+(3) Die lasgewing vir bewaring van getuienis moet die persoon, elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of finansiële instelling gelas om, van die tyd van 55 betekening van die lasgewing en vir die tydperk in die lasgewing gespesifiseer, wat nie 90 dae mag oorskry nie—
+
+(a) die huidige status te bewaar van; $(b)$ nie op enige wyse te handel met; of (c) op ’n sekere wyse te handel met,
+
+’n item, ten einde die beskikbaarheid of integriteit van die item te bewaar.
+
+50
+
+(4) Any person, electronic communications service provider or financial institution who fails to comply with a preservation of evidence direction is guilty of an offence and is liable on conviction to a fine or to imprisonment for a period not exceeding three years or to both a fine and such imprisonment.
+
+(5) A person, electronic communications service provider or financial institution to 5 whom a preservation of evidence direction referred to in subsection (1) is addressed may, in writing in the prescribed form and manner, apply to a magistrate or judge of the High Court in whose area of jurisdiction the person, electronic communications service provider or financial institution is situated for an amendment or the cancellation of the direction concerned on the ground that they cannot timeously or in a reasonable fashion, 10 comply with the direction.
+
+(6) The magistrate or judge of the High Court to whom an application is made in terms of subsection (5) must, as soon as possible after receipt thereof—
+
+(a) consider the application and may, for this purpose, order oral or written evidence to be adduced regarding any fact alleged in the application; 15 (b) give a decision in respect of the application; and (c) inform the applicant and police official of the outcome of the application.
+
+# Oral application for preservation of evidence direction
+
+43. (1) A police official may orally make an application referred to in section 42(1), if they are of the opinion that it is not reasonably practicable, having regard to the urgency 20 of the case or the existence of exceptional circumstances, to make a written application.
+
+(2) An oral application referred to in subsection (1) must—
+
+(a) indicate the particulars of the urgency of the case or the other exceptional circumstances which, in the opinion of the police official, justify the making of an oral application; and
+(b) comply with any supplementary directives relating to oral applications which may be issued by the Chief Justice in terms of section 8(3) of the Superior Courts Act, 2013.
+
+(3) A magistrate or judge of the High Court may, upon receipt of an oral application made to them in terms of subsection (1), issue the preservation of evidence direction 30 applied for.
+
+(4) A preservation of evidence direction may only be issued under subsection (3)— (a) if the magistrate or judge of the High Court concerned is satisfied, on the facts alleged in the oral application concerned, that— (i) there are reasonable grounds to believe that a preservation of evidence 35 direction applied for could be issued; (ii) a preservation of evidence direction is necessary immediately in order to ensure the availability or integrity, of the article; and (iii) it is not reasonably practicable, having regard to the urgency of the case or the existence of exceptional circumstances, to make a written applica- 40 tion for the issuing of the preservation of evidence direction applied for; and (b) on condition that the police official concerned must submit a written application to the magistrate or judge of the High Court concerned within 48 hours after the issuing of the preservation of evidence direction under 45 subsection (3).
+
+(5) A preservation of evidence direction issued under subsection (3) must be in writing and must be transmitted electronically to the police official or be provided to a specifically designated police official.
+
+(6) A magistrate or judge of the High Court who issued a direction under subsection 50 (3) or, if they are not available, any other magistrate or judge of the High Court must, upon receipt of a written application in terms of subsection $(4)(b)$ , reconsider that application whereupon they may confirm, amend or cancel that preservation of evidence direction.
+
+(4) Enige persoon, elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of finansiële instelling wat versuim om te voldoen aan ’n lasgewing vir bewaring van getuienis, is skuldig aan ’n misdryf en is by skuldigbevinding strafbaar met ’n boete of met gevangenisstraf vir ’n tydperk van hoogstens drie jaar of met beide ’n boete en sodanige gevangenisstraf.
+
+(5) ’n Persoon, elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of finansiële instelling aan 5 wie ’n lasgewing vir bewaring van getuienis bedoel in subartikel (1) gerig is, kan skriftelik op die voorgeskrewe vorm en wyse, by ’n landdros of regter van die Hooggeregshof in wie se regsgebied die persoon, elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of finansiële instelling geleë is, aansoek doen om ’n wysiging of die kansellasie van die betrokke lasgewing op grond daarvan dat hulle nie tydig of op ’n 10 redelike wyse aan die lasgewing kan voldoen nie.
+
+(6) Die landdros of regter van die Hooggeregshof by wie ’n aansoek ingevolge subartikel (5) gedoen word, moet, so gou moontlik ná ontvangs daarvan—
+
+(a) die aansoek oorweeg en kan vir hierdie doel gelas dat mondelinge of skriftelike getuienis aangevoer word aangaande enige feit in die aansoek 15 beweer;
+(b) ’n beslissing ten opsigte van die aansoek gee; en
+(c) die applikant en polisiebeampte verwittig van die uitslag van die aansoek.
+
+# Mondelinge aansoek om lasgewing vir bewaring van getuienis
+
+43. (1) ’n Polisiebeampte kan ’n aansoek in artikel 42(1) bedoel, mondeling doen, 20 indien hulle van mening is dat dit nie redelikerwys moontlik is, met inagneming van die dringendheid van die saak of die bestaan van buitengewone omstandighede, om ’n skriftelike aansoek te doen nie.
+
+(2) ’n Mondelinge aansoek bedoel in subartikel (1) moet—
+
+(a) die besonderhede van die dringendheid van die saak of die ander 25 buitengewone omstandighede aandui wat, na mening van die polisiebeampte, die doen van ’n mondelinge aansoek regverdig; en
+(b) voldoen aan enige aanvullende voorskrifte rakende mondelinge aansoeke wat ingevolge artikel 8(3) van die Wet op Hoër Howe, 2013 deur die Hoofregter uitgereik kan word. 30
+
+(3) ’n Landdros of regter van die Hooggeregshof kan, by die ontvangs van ’n mondelinge aansoek aan hulle ingevolge subartikel (1) gedoen, die lasgewing vir bewaring van getuienis waarvoor aansoek gedoen word, uitreik.
+
+(4) ’n Lasgewing vir die bewaring van getuienis kan slegs kragtens subartikel (3) uitgereik word— 35
+
+(a) indien die betrokke landdros of regter van die Hooggeregshof oortuig is, op grond van die feite in die betrokke mondelinge aansoek aangevoer, dat— (i) daar redelike gronde is om te glo dat ’n lasgewing vir die bewaring van getuienis waarom aansoek gedoen is, uitgereik kan word; (ii) ’n lasgewing vir die bewaring van getuienis onmiddellik nodig is ten 40 einde die beskikbaarheid of die integriteit van die item te verseker; en (iii) dit nie redelikerwys moontlik is nie, met inagneming van die dringendheid van die saak of die bestaan van buitengewone omstandighede, om ’n skriftelike aansoek om die uitreiking van die lasgewing vir die bewaring van getuienis waarvoor aansoek gedoen 45 word, te doen nie; en
+
+(b) op voorwaarde dat die betrokke polisiebeampte ’n skriftelike aansoek aan die betrokke landdros of regter van die Hooggeregshof binne 48 uur ná uitreiking van die lasgewing vir die bewaring van getuienis kragtens subartikel (3), moet voorlê.
+
+(5) ’n Lasgewing vir die bewaring van getuienis kragtens subartikel (3) uitgereik, moet skriftelik wees en moet elektronies versend word aan die polisiebeampte of vir ’n spesifiek aangewese polisiebeampte gegee word.
+
+(6) ’n Landdros of regter van die Hooggeregshof wat ’n lasgewing kragtens subartikel (3) uitgereik het of, indien hulle nie beskikbaar is nie, enige ander landdros of regter van 55 die Hooggeregshof, moet by ontvangs van ’n skriftelike aansoek ingevolge subartikel $(4)(b)$ , daardie aansoek heroorweeg waarna hulle daardie lasgewing vir die bewaring van getuienis kan bevestig, wysig of kanselleer.
+
+# Disclosure of data direction and search for, access to, and seizure of articles subje o preservation
+
+44. (1) (a) A police official may, where it is expedient, other than by way of a search and seizure in terms of a warrant contemplated in section 29(1), to obtain—
+
+(i) data which is subject to preservation in terms of an expedited preservation of 5 data direction or a preservation of evidence direction; or
+(ii) data as contemplated in paragraph (a) of the definition of ‘‘article’’, which is— (aa) held in a computer system or computer storage medium; or (bb) available to a computer system,
+
+apply to a magistrate or judge of the High Court for the issuing of a disclosure of data 10 direction.
+
+(b) An application referred to in paragraph (a)(i) must— (i) indicate the identity of the police official who applies for the disclosure of data direction;
+(ii) identify the person, electronic communications service provider or financial 15 institution to whom the disclosure of data direction must be addressed;
+(iii) be accompanied by a copy of the expedited preservation of data direction or preservation of evidence direction or any amendment thereof;
+(iv) contain a description of the data which must be provided and the format in which it must be provided; 20
+(v) specify the grounds for believing that the data is an article as contemplated in paragraph (a) of the definition of ‘‘article’’; and
+(vi) comply with any supplementary directives relating to applications for the disclosure of data, which may be issued by the Chief Justice in terms of section 8(3) of the Superior Courts Act, 2013. 25 (c) An application referred to in paragraph (a)(ii) must— (i) indicate the identity of the policy official who applies for the disclosure of data direction;
+(ii) identify the person, electronic communications service provider or financial institution to whom the disclosure of data direction must be addressed; 30
+(iii) contain a description of the data which must be provided and the format in which it must be provided;
+(iv) specify the grounds for believing that the data is an article as contemplated in paragraph (a) of the definition of ‘‘article’’;
+(v) specify the grounds for believing that the data, in question, is held in a computer 35 system or computer data storage medium or is available to a computer system that is under the control of the person, electronic communications service provider or financial institution, referred to in subparagraph (ii), within the area of jurisdiction of the court; and
+(vi) comply with any supplementary directives relating to applications for the 40 disclosure of data, which may be issued by the Chief Justice in terms of section 8(3) of the Superior Courts Act, 2013.
+
+(2) A magistrate or judge of the High Court may, subject to the provisions of section 4(2) of the Customs and Excise Act, 1964, sections $69(2)(b)$ and 71 of the Tax Administration Act, 2011, and section $21(e)$ and $(f)$ of the Customs Control Act, 2014, 45 on the written application by a police official referred to in subsection (1), if it appears to the magistrate or judge from information on oath or by way of affirmation, as set out in the application that—
+
+(a) there are reasonable grounds for believing that—
+
+(i) data which is subject to preservation in terms of an expedited 50 preservation of data direction or a preservation of evidence direction, is an article as contemplated in paragraph (a) of the definition of ‘‘article’’; or
+(ii) data, which is an article as contemplated in paragraph (a) of the definition of ‘‘article’’, is— 55 (aa) held in a computer system or computer data storage medium; or
+
+# Lasgewing vir openbaarmaking van data en deursoeking vir, toegang tot en beslaglegging op items onderworpe aan bewaring
+
+44. (1) (a) ’n Polisiebeampte kan, waar dit geleë is, anders as by wyse van ’n deursoeking en beslaglegging ingevolge ’n lasbrief in artikel 29(1) beoog, om—
+
+(i) data te bekom wat onderworpe is aan bewaring ingevolge ’n lasgewing vir 5 bespoedigde bewaring van data of ’n lasgewing vir die bewaring van getuienis; of
+(ii) data soos beoog in paragraaf (a) van die omskrywing van ‘‘item’’ te bekom, wat— (aa) in ’n rekenaarstelsel of rekenaardatabergingsmedium gehou word; of 10 (bb) aan ’n rekenaarstelsel beskikbaar is,
+
+by ’n landdros of regter van die Hooggeregshof aansoek doen om die uitreiking van ’n lasgewing vir die openbaarmaking van data.
+
+(b) ’n Aansoek in paragraaf (a)(i) bedoel, moet—
+
+(i) die identiteit verstrek van die polisiebeampte wat om die lasgewing vir 15 openbaarmaking van data aansoek doen;
+(ii) die persoon, elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of finansiële instelling identifiseer aan wie die lasgewing vir openbaarmaking van data, gerig moet word;
+(iii) van ’n afskrif van die lasgewing vir bespoedigde bewaring van data of ’n 20 lasgewing vir die bewaring van getuienis of enige wysiging daarvan vergesel gaan;
+(iv) ’n beskrywing van die data bevat wat voorsien moet word en die formaat waarin dit voorsien moet word;
+(v) die gronde spesifiseer waarom geglo word dat die data ’n item is soos beoog in 25 paragraaf (a) van die omskrywing van ‘‘item’’; en
+(vi) voldoen aan enige aanvullende voorskrifte wat verband hou met aansoeke om openbaarmaking van data, wat deur die Hoofregter uitgereik kan word ingevolge artikel 8(3) van die Wet op Hoër Howe, 2013.
+(c) ’n Aansoek bedoel in paragraaf (a)(ii), moet— 30
+(i) die identiteit verstrek van die polisiebeampte wat om die lasgewing vir openbaarmaking van data aansoek doen;
+(ii) die persoon, elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of finansiële instelling identifiseer aan wie die lasgewing vir openbaarmaking van data gerig moet word; 35
+(iii) ’n beskrywing bevat van die data wat voorsien moet word en die formaat waarin dit voorsien moet word;
+(iv) die gronde spesifiseer waarom geglo word dat die data ’n item is soos beoog in paragraaf (a) van die omskrywing van ‘‘item’’;
+(v) die gronde spesifiseer waarom geglo word dat die betrokke data gehou word in 40 ’n rekenaarstelsel of rekenaardatabergingsmedium of aan ’n rekenaarstelsel beskikbaar is wat onder beheer is van die persoon, elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of finansiële instelling in subparagraaf (ii) bedoel, binne die regsgebied van die hof; en
+(vi) voldoen aan enige aanvullende voorskrifte rakende aansoeke om die 45 openbaarmaking van data, wat ingevolge artikel 8(3) van die Wet op Hoër Howe, 2013, deur die Hoofregter uitgereik kan word.
+
+(2) ’n Landdros of regter van die Hooggeregshof kan, behoudens die bepalings van artikel 4(2) van die Doeane- en Aksynswet, 1964, artikels 69(2)(b) en 71 van die Wet op Belastingadministrasie, 2011, en artikel 21(e) en $(f)$ van die Wet op Doeanebeheer, 2014, 50 op skriftelike aansoek deur ’n polisiebeampte in subartikel (1) bedoel, indien dit vir die landdros of regter uit inligting onder eed of by wyse van plegtige verklaring, soos in die aansoek uiteengesit, blyk—
+
+(a) dat daar redelike gronde is om te glo dat—
+
+(i) data wat onderhewig is aan bewaring ingevolge ’n lasgewing vir 55 bespoedigde bewaring van data of ’n lasgewing vir die bewaring van getuienis, ’n item is soos beoog in paragraaf (a) van die omskrywing van ‘‘item’’; of
+(ii) data, wat ’n item is soos beoog in paragraaf (a) van die omskrywing van ‘‘item’’— 60 (aa) gehou word in ’n rekenaarstelsel of rekenaardatabergingsmedium; of
+
+62
+
+(bb) available to a computer system, within their area of jurisdiction; and
+
+(b) it will be in the interests of justice if a disclosure of data direction is issued, issue the disclosure of data direction applied for.
+
+(3) A disclosure of data direction must be in the prescribed form and must be served 5 on the person, electronic communications service provider or financial institution affected thereby, in the prescribed manner by a police official.
+
+(4) The disclosure of data direction—
+
+(a) must direct the person, electronic communications service provider or financial institution to provide the data identified in the direction to the extent 10 set out in the direction to an identified police official;
+(b) must specify the format in which the data identified in paragraph (a) must be provided;
+(c) must set out the period within which the data identified in paragraph (a) must be provided; and 15
+(d) may specify conditions or restrictions relating to the provision of data authorised therein.
+
+(5) A person, electronic communications service provider or financial institution on whom a disclosure of data direction referred to in subsection (3) is served may, in writing in the prescribed form and manner, apply to the magistrate or judge for an 20 amendment or the cancellation of the direction concerned on the ground that they cannot timeously or in a reasonable fashion comply with the direction.
+
+(6) The magistrate or judge to whom an application is made in terms of subsection (5) must, as soon as possible after receipt thereof—
+
+(a) consider the application and may, for this purpose, order oral or written 25 evidence to be adduced regarding any fact alleged in the application;
+(b) give a decision in respect of the application; and
+(c) if the application is successful, inform the police official and the applicant of the outcome of the application.
+(7) Any data made available in terms of a disclosure of data direction, must be— 30
+(a) provided to the police official identified in the direction; and (b) accompanied by an affidavit in the prescribed form by the person or authorised representative of an electronic communications service provider or financial institution, verifying the authenticity, integrity and reliability of the data that is furnished. 35
+
+(8) A person, electronic communications service provider or a financial institution who— (a) fails to comply with a disclosure of data direction; $(b)$ makes a false statement in an application referred to in subsection (5); or (c) fails to comply with subsection (7), 40 is guilty of an offence and is liable on conviction to a fine or imprisonment for a period not exceeding two years or to both a fine and such imprisonment. (9) (a) Any article subject to a preservation of evidence direction that is not ‘‘data’’ must be seized in terms of a warrant referred to in section 29(1). (b) A police official may, at any time, apply for a search warrant in terms of section 45 29(1) to search for, access or seize an article (which includes ‘‘data’’) that is or was subject to an expedited preservation of data direction or a preservation of evidence direction.
+
+# Obtaining and using publicly available data or receiving data from person who is in possession of data
+
+45. A police official may, without being specifically authorised thereto in terms of this Chapter, for the purposes of investigating any offence or suspected offence in terms of Part I or Part II of Chapter 2 or any other offence or suspected offence in terms of the laws of the Republic, which may be committed by means of, or facilitated through the use of, an article—
+
+(a) receive, obtain or use publicly available data regardless of where the data is located geographically; or
+
+Wet op Kubermisdade, 2020
+
+63
+
+$(b b)$ aan ’n rekenaarstelsel beskikbaar is, binne hul regsgebied; en
+
+(b) dit in die belang van geregtigheid sal wees indien ’n lasgewing vir openbaarmaking van data uitgereik word,
+
+e lasgewing vir openbaarmaking van data waarom aansoek gedoen is, uitreik.
+
+(3) ’n Lasgewing vir openbaarmaking van data moet in die voorgeskrewe vorm wees en moet op die voorgeskrewe wyse deur ’n polisiebeampte aan die persoon, elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of finansiële instelling daardeur geraak, beteken word.
+
+(4) Die lasgewing vir openbaarmaking van data—
+
+(a) moet die persoon, elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of finansiële 10 instelling gelas om die data in die lasgewing geïdentifiseer, tot die mate in die lasgewing uiteengesit, aan ’n geïdentifiseerde polisiebeampte te voorsien;
+(b) moet die formaat spesifiseer waarin die data in paragraaf (a) geïdentifiseer, voorsien moet word;
+(c) moet die tydperk uiteensit waarbinne die data in paragraaf (a) geïdentifiseer, 15 voorsien moet word; en
+(d) kan voorwaardes of beperkings in verband met die voorsiening van data daarin gemagtig, spesifiseer.
+
+(5) ’n Persoon, elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of finansiële instelling aan wie ’n lasgewing vir openbaarmaking van data in subartikel (3) bedoel, beteken word, 20 kan, skriftelik op die voorgeskrewe vorm en wyse, by die landdros of regter aansoek doen om ’n wysiging of die kansellasie van die betrokke lasgewing op grond daarvan dat hulle nie tydig of op ’n redelike wyse aan die lasgewing kan voldoen nie.
+
+(6) Die landdros of regter by wie die aansoek ingevolge subartikel (5) gebring word, moet so gou moontlik ná ontvangs daarvan—
+
+25
+
+(a) die aansoek oorweeg en kan, vir hierdie doel, beveel dat mondelinge of skriftelike getuienis aangebied word aangaande enige feit in die aansoek beweer;
+(b) ’n beslissing gee ten opsigte van die aansoek; en
+(c) indien die aansoek suksesvol is, die polisiebeampte en die applikant verwittig 30 van die uitslag van die aansoek.
+
+(7) Enige data wat ingevolge ’n lasgewing vir openbaarmaking van data beskikbaar gemaak moet word—
+
+(a) aan die polisiebeampte in die lasgewing geïdentifiseer, voorsien word; en
+(b) vergesel gaan van ’n beëdigde verklaring in die voorgeskrewe vorm deur die 35 persoon of gemagtigde verteenwoordiger van ’n elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of finansiële instelling, wat die egtheid, integriteit en betroubaarheid van die data, wat voorsien word, bevestig.
+
+(8) ’n Persoon, elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of ’n finansiële instelling wat— 40 (a) versuim om aan ’n lasgewing vir openbaarmaking van data te voldoen; (b) ’n vals verklaring aflê in ’n aansoek in subartikel (5) bedoel; of (c) versuim om aan subartikel (7) te voldoen,
+
+is skuldig aan ’n misdryf en is by skuldigbevinding strafbaar met ’n boete of gevangenisstraf vir ’n tydperk van hoogstens twee jaar of tot beide ’n boete en sodanige 45 gevangenisstraf.
+
+(9) (a) Enige item wat onderhewig is aan ’n lasgewing vir die bewaring van getuienis, wat nie ‘‘data’’ is nie, moet op beslag gelê word ingevolge ’n lasbrief in artikel 29(1) bedoel.
+
+(b) ’n Polisiebeampte kan, te eniger tyd, aansoek doen om ’n deursoekingslasbrief 50 ingevolge artikel 29(1) om te deursoek vir, toegang te kry tot of beslag te lê op ’n item (wat ‘‘data’’ insluit) wat aan ’n lasgewing vir bespoedigde bewaring van data of ’n lasgewing vir die bewaring van getuienis onderhewig is of was.
+
+# Verkryging en gebruik van openbaar beskikbare data of ontvangs van data van persoon wat in besit is van data
+
+45. ’n Polisiebeampte kan, sonder om uitdruklik ingevolge hierdie Hoofstuk daartoe gemagtig te wees, vir die ondersoek van enige misdryf of vermeende misdryf ingevolge Deel I of Deel II van Hoofstuk 2 of enige ander misdryf of vermeende misdryf ingevolge die wette van die Republiek, wat gepleeg kan word by wyse van, of gefasiliteer kan word deur die gebruik van, ’n item—
+
+(a) openbaar beskikbare data ontvang, verkry of gebruik ongeag waar die data geografies geleë is; of
+
+64
+
+(b) receive and use non-publicly available data, regardless of where the data is located geographically, if a person who is in control of, or possesses the data, voluntarily and on such conditions regarding confidentiality and limitation of use which they deem necessary, discloses the data to a police official.
+
+# CHAPTER 5
+
+# MUTUAL ASSISTANCE
+
+# Application of provisions of Chapter
+
+46. The provisions of sections 48 to 51 apply in addition to Chapter 2 of the International Co-operation in Criminal Matters Act, 1996, and relate, unless specified otherwise, to the preservation of an article or other evidence in electronic format 10 regarding the commission or suspected commission of—
+
+(a) an offence in terms of Part I or Part II of Chapter 2;
+(b) any other offence in terms of the laws of the Republic, which may be committed by means of, or facilitated through the use of, an article; or
+(c) an offence— 15 (i) similar to those contemplated in Part I or Part II of Chapter 2; or (ii) substantially similar to an offence recognised in the Republic, which may be committed by means of, or facilitated through the use of, an article,
+
+pending a request in terms of section 2 or 7 of the International Co-operation in Criminal 20 Matters Act, 1996.
+
+# Spontaneous information
+
+47. (1) The National Commissioner or the National Head of the Directorate, may, on such conditions regarding confidentiality and limitation of use as they may determine, furnish any information obtained during any investigation, to a law enforcement agency 25 of a foreign State when the National Commissioner or the National Head of the Directorate is of the opinion that the disclosure of such information may—
+
+(a) assist the foreign State in the initiation or carrying out of investigations; or (b) lead to further cooperation with a foreign State to carry out an investigation,
+regarding the commission or suspected commission of— 30 (i) an offence contemplated in Part I or Part II of Chapter 2, in the Republic; (ii) any other offence in terms of the laws of the Republic, which may be committed by means of, or facilitated through the use of, an article; or
+(iii) an offence— (aa) similar to those contemplated in Part I or Part II of Chapter 2; or 35 (bb) substantially similar to an offence recognised in the Republic, which may be committed by means of, or facilitated through the use of, an article, in that foreign State.
+
+(2) The South African Police Service may receive any information from a foreign State, subject to such conditions regarding confidentiality and limitation of use as may 40 be agreed upon, which may—
+
+(a) assist the South African Police Service in the initiation or carrying out of investigations; or (b) lead to further cooperation with a foreign State to carry out an investigation, garding the commission or suspected commission of—
+
+(i) an offence contemplated in Part I or Part II of Chapter 2, in the Republic; (ii) any other offence in terms of the laws of the Republic, which may be committed by means of, or facilitated through the use of, an article; or
+
+(b) nie-openbaar-beskikbare data ontvang en gebruik, ongeag waar die data geografies geleë is, indien ’n persoon wat in beheer is van, of in besit is van die data, vrywillig en op sodanige voorwaardes aangaande vertroulikheid en beperking van gebruik wat hulle nodig ag, die data aan ’n polisiebeampte openbaar maak.
+
+# HOOFSTUK 5
+
+# ONDERLINGE BYSTAND
+
+# Toepassing van bepalings van Hoofstuk
+
+46. Die bepalings van artikels 48 tot 51 is van toepassing adissioneel tot Hoofstuk 2 van die Wet op Internasionale Samewerking in Strafregtelike Aangeleenthede, 1996, en 10 het betrekking, tensy anders gespesifiseer, op die bewaring van ’n item of ander getuienis in elektroniese formaat aangaande die pleging of vermeende pleging van—
+
+(a) ’n misdryf ingevolge Deel I of Deel II van Hoofstuk 2;
+(b) enige ander misdryf ingevolge die wette van die Republiek, wat gepleeg kan word by wyse van, of gefasiliteer kan word deur die gebruik van, ’n item; of 15
+(c) ’n misdryf— (i) soortgelyk aan dié in Deel I of Deel II van Hoofstuk 2 beoog; of (ii) wesenlik soortgelyk aan ’n misdryf erken in die Republiek, wat gepleeg kan word by wyse van, of gefasiliteer kan word deur die gebruik van, ’n item, 20
+
+hangende ’n versoek ingevolge artikel 2 of 7 van die Wet op Internasionale Samewerking in Strafregtelike Aangeleenthede, 1996.
+
+# Spontane inligting
+
+47. (1) Die Nasionale Kommissaris of die Nasionale Hoof van die Direktoraat kan, op 25 sodanige voorwaardes aangaande vertroulikheid en beperking van gebruik wat hulle mag bepaal, enige inligting tydens enige ondersoek verkry, verskaf aan ’n wetstoepassingsagentskap in ’n vreemde Staat wanneer die Nasionale Kommissaris of die Nasionale Hoof van die Direktoraat van mening is dat die openbaarmaking van daardie inligting— 30
+
+(a) die vreemde Staat behulpsaam mag wees in die inisiëring of uitvoering van ondersoeke; of (b) kan lei tot verdere samewerking met ’n vreemde Staat om ’n ondersoek uit te voer,
+aangaande die pleging of vermeende pleging van— (i) ’n misdryf in Deel I of Deel II van Hoofstuk 2 beoog, in die Republiek;
+(ii) enige ander misdryf ingevolge die wette van die Republiek wat gepleeg kan word by wyse van, of gefasiliteer kan word deur die gebruik van, ’n item; of
+(iii) ’n misdryf— (aa) soortgelyk aan dié in Deel I of Deel II van Hoofstuk 2 beoog; of 40 (bb) wesenlik soortgelyk aan ’n misdryf in die Republiek erken wat gepleeg kan word by wyse van, of gefasiliteer kan word deur die gebruik van, ’n item, in daardie vreemde Staat.
+
+(2) Die Suid-Afrikaanse Polisiediens kan enige inligting van ’n vreemde Staat 45 ontvang, behoudens voorwaardes rakende vertroulikheid en beperking van gebruik waarop ooreengekom mag word, wat—
+
+(a) die Suid-Afrikaanse Polisiediens behulpsaam mag wees in die inisiëring of uitvoering van ondersoeke; of
+(b) kan lei tot verdere samewerking met ’n vreemde Staat om ’n ondersoek uit te 50 voer,
+
+aangaande die pleging of vermeende pleging van— (i) ’n misdryf in Deel I of Deel II van Hoofstuk 2 beoog, in die Republiek; of (ii) enige ander misdryf ingevolge die wette van die Republiek, wat gepleeg kan word by wyse van, of gefasiliteer kan word deur die gebruik van, ’n item; of 55
+
+66
+
+(iii) an offence— (aa) similar to those contemplated in Part I or Part II of Chapter 2; or (bb) substantially similar to an offence recognised in the Republic, which may be committed by means of, or facilitated through the use of, an article, in that foreign State.
+
+# Foreign requests for assistance and cooperation
+
+48. (1) A request by an authority, court or tribunal exercising jurisdiction in a foreign State for the—
+
+(a) preservation of data or other article;
+(b) seizure of data or other article;
+(c) expedited disclosure of traffic data;
+(d) obtaining of real-time communication-related information or archived communication-related information; or
+(e) interception of indirect communications,
+
+10
+
+ust, subject to subsection (9), be submitted to the designated Point of Contact.
+
+15
+
+(2) The designated Point of Contact must submit the request to the National Director of Public Prosecutions for consideration.
+
+(3) (a) Upon receipt of a request referred to in subsection (2), the National Director of Public Prosecutions must satisfy himself or herself that—
+
+(i) proceedings have been instituted in a court or tribunal exercising jurisdiction in 20 the requesting foreign State; or
+(ii) there are reasonable grounds for believing that an offence has been committed in the requesting foreign State or that it is necessary to determine whether an offence has been so committed and that an investigation in respect thereof is being conducted in the requesting foreign State; and 25
+
+(iii) the offence in question is—
+
+(aa) similar to those contemplated in Part I or Part II of Chapter 2; or (bb) substantially similar to an offence recognised in the Republic, which may be committed by means of, or facilitated through the use of, an article; and (iv) the foreign State intends to submit a request in terms of section 7 of the 3 International Co-operation in Criminal Matters Act, 1996, for obtaining the data, information, a communication or an article in the Republic for use in such proceedings or investigation in the foreign State.
+
+(b) For purposes of paragraph (a), the National Director of Public Prosecutions may rely on a certificate purported to be issued by a competent authority in the foreign State 35 concerned, stating the facts contemplated in subsection $(3)(a)$ .
+
+(4) (a) The National Director of Public Prosecutions must submit the request for assistance, together with their recommendations, to the Cabinet member responsible for the administration of justice, for the Cabinet member’s approval.
+
+(b) Upon being notified of the Cabinet member’s approval the National Director of 40 Public Prosecutions must forward the request contemplated in subsection (1) to the designated judge for consideration.
+
+(5) Where the request relates to the expedited disclosure of traffic data, subsections (3)(a)(iv) and (4) do not apply, and the National Director of Public Prosecutions must submit the request for assistance, together with their recommendations, to the designated 45 judge.
+
+(6) Subject to subsections (7) and (8), the designated judge may on receipt of a request referred to in subsection (4) or (5), issue any order they deem appropriate to ensure that the requested—
+
+(a) data or other article is preserved in accordance with section 42; 50
+(b) data or other article is seized on an expedited basis in accordance with section 29 and preserved;
+(c) traffic data is disclosed on an expedited basis in terms of a disclosure of data direction in accordance with section 44;
+(d) real-time communication-related information or archived communication 55 related information, is obtained and preserved; or
+
+(e) indirect communications are intercepted and preserved,
+
+as is specified in the request.
+
+67
+
+(iii) ’n misdryf—
+
+(aa) soortgelyk aan dié in Deel I of Deel II van Hoofstuk 2 beoog; of
+(bb) wesenlik soortgelyk aan ’n misdryf in die Republiek erken, wat gepleeg kan word by wyse van, of gefasiliteer kan word deur die gebruik van, ’n item,
+in daardie vreemde Staat.
+
+# Buitelandse versoeke om bystand en samewerking
+
+48. (1) ’n Versoek deur ’n owerheid, hof of tribunaal wat regsbevoegdheid in ’n vreemde Staat uitoefen om die—
+
+(a) bewaring van data of ander item;
+(b) beslaglegging op data of ander item;
+(c) bespoedigde openbaarmaking van verkeersdata;
+(d) verkryging van intydse kommunikasie-verwante inligting of argief-bewaarde kommunikasie-verwante inligting; of
+(e) onderskepping van onregstreekse kommunikasie,
+
+10
+
+15
+
+et, behoudens subartikel (9), aan die aangewese Kontakpunt voorsien word.
+
+(2) Die aangewese Kontakpunt moet die versoek aan die Nasionale Direkteur vir Openbare Vervolgings voorlê vir oorweging.
+
+(3) (a) By ontvangs van ’n versoek in subartikel (2) bedoel, moet die Nasionale Direkteur vir Openbare Vervolgings hulself tevrede stel— 20
+
+(i) dat verrigtinge ingestel is in ’n hof of tribunaal wat regsbevoegdheid in die versoekende vreemde Staat uitoefen; of
+(ii) dat daar redelike gronde is om te vermoed dat ’n misdryf in die versoekende vreemde Staat gepleeg is of dat dit nodig is om vas te stel of ’n misdryf aldus gepleeg is en dat ’n ondersoek ten opsigte daarvan in die versoekende vreemde 25 Staat onderneem word; en
+
+(iii) dat die betrokke misdryf—
+
+(aa) soortgelyk is aan dié in Deel I of Deel II van Hoofstuk 2 beoog; of
+(bb) wesenlik soortgelyk is aan ’n misdryf in die Republiek erken, wat gepleeg kan word by wyse van, of gefasiliteer kan word deur die gebruik 30 van, ’n item; en
+
+dat die vreemde Staat voornemens is om ’n versoek te rig ingevolge artikel 7 van die Wet op Internasionale Samewerking in Strafregtelike Aangeleenthede, 1996, vir die verkryging van die data, inligting, ’n kommunikasie of ’n item in die Republiek vir gebruik in daardie verrigtinge of ondersoek in die vreemde Staat.
+
+(b) By die toepassing van paragraaf (a), kan die Nasionale Direkteur van Openbare Vervolgings steun op ’n sertifikaat wat heet om uitgereik te wees deur ’n bevoegde owerheid in die betrokke vreemde Staat, waarin die feite in subartikel (3)(a) beoog, vermeld word.
+
+(4) (a) Die Nasionale Direkteur van Openbare Vervolgings moet die versoek om 40 bystand, tesame met hul aanbevelings, aan die Kabinetslid verantwoordelik vir die regspleging voorlê vir die Kabinetslid se goedkeuring.
+
+(b) By verwittiging van die Kabinetslid se goedkeuring, moet die Nasionale Direkteur van Openbare Vervolgings die versoek in subartikel (1) beoog, na die aangewese regter stuur vir oorweging.
+
+(5) Waar die versoek verband hou met die bespoedigde openbaarmaking van verkeersdata, is subartikels (3)(a)(iv) en (4) nie van toepassing nie, en die Nasionale Direkteur van Openbare Vervolgings moet die versoek om bystand, saam met hul aanbevelings, aan die aangewese regter voorlê.
+
+(6) Behoudens subartikels (7) en (8), kan die aangewese regter by ontvangs van ’n 50 versoek in subartikel (4) of (5) beoog, enige bevel uitreik wat hulle gepas ag om te verseker dat die aangevraagde—
+
+(a) data of ander item ooreenkomstig artikel 42 bewaar word;
+(b) data of ander item op beslag gelê word op ’n bespoedigde grondslag ooreenkomstig artikel 29 en bewaar word; 5
+(c) verkeersdata op ’n bespoedigde grondslag openbaar gemaak word ingevolge ’n lasgewing vir openbaarmaking van data ooreenkomstig artikel 44;
+(d) intydse kommunikasie-verwante inligting of argief-bewaarde kommunikasieverwante inligting, verkry en bewaar word; of
+(e) onregstreekse kommunikasie onderskep en bewaar word,
+
+soos in die versoek gespesifiseer.
+
+(7) The designated judge may only issue an order contemplated in subsection (6), if— (a) on the facts alleged in the request, there are reasonable grounds to believe that—
+
+(i) an offence substantially similar to the offences contemplated in Part I or Part II of Chapter 2 has been, is being, or will probably be committed; or any other offence substantially similar to an offence recognised in the Republic, has been, is being, or will probably be committed by means of, or facilitated through the use of, an article; and (iii) for purposes of the investigation it is necessary, in the interests of justice, to give an order contemplated in subsection (6);
+
+(b) the request clearly identifies—
+
+(i) the person, electronic communications service provider or financial institution— (aa) who or which will receive, is in possession of, or is in control of, the data or other article that must be preserved; or 1 (bb) from whose facilities the data, real-time communication-related information, archived communication-related information, indirect communications or traffic data must be obtained or intercepted;
+
+(ii) the data or other article which must be preserved;
+
+(iii) the data or other article which must be seized on an expedited basis and 20 be preserved;
+(iv) the traffic data which must be disclosed on an expedited basis;
+(v) the real-time communication-related information or archived communication-related information, which is to be obtained; or
+(vi) the indirect communications, which are to be intercepted; 25
+
+(c) the request is, where applicable, in accordance with—
+
+(i) any treaty, convention or other agreement to which that foreign State and the Republic are parties or which can be used as a basis for mutual assistance; or
+(ii) any agreement with any foreign State entered into in terms of section 57; 30 and
+
+(d) the order contemplated in subsection (6) is in accordance with any applicable law of the Republic.
+
+(8) The designated judge may, where a request relates to the expedited disclosure of raffic data—
+
+(a) specify conditions or restrictions relating to the disclosure of traffic data as they deem appropriate; or
+(b) refuse to issue an order referred to in subsection (6)(c), if the disclosure of the traffic data may prejudice the sovereignty, security, public safety or other essential interests of the Republic.
+
+(9) (a) In the case of urgency, a request by any authority, court or tribunal exercising jurisdiction in a foreign State referred to in subsection (1), may be submitted directly to the designated judge.
+
+(b) Upon receipt of a request in terms of paragraph (a), the designated judge may issue any order referred to in subsection (6).
+
+(10) (a) A specifically designated police official must serve or execute an order ontemplated in subsection (6).
+
+(b) The specifically designated police official referred to in paragraph (a), must inform—
+
+(i) the designated judge; and (ii) the National Director of Public Prosecutions, in writing, of the fact that an order has been served or executed.
+
+(11) The National Director of Public Prosecutions must, in writing, inform the applicable authority in a foreign State of the fact that an order was issued and executed or not issued.
+
+# Complying with order of designated judge
+
+49. (1) A person, electronic communications service provider or financial institution must comply with an order of the designated judge issued in terms of section 48(6).
+
+(2) A person, electronic communications service provider or financial institution to whom an order referred to in section 48(6) is addressed may, in writing, apply to the 60
+
+69
+
+(7) Die aangewese regter kan slegs ’n bevel in subartikel (6) beoog gee, indien— (a) daar, op die feite in die versoek beweer, redelike gronde is om te glo dat— (i) ’n misdryf, wesenlik soortgelyk aan die misdrywe in Deel I of Deel II van Hoofstuk 2 beoog gepleeg is, gepleeg word of waarskynlik gepleeg sal word; of (ii) enige ander misdryf wesenlik soortgelyk aan ’n misdryf in die Republiek erken, is, word of waarskynlik gepleeg sal word by wyse van, of gefasiliteer deur die gebruik van, ’n item; en (iii) vir die doeleindes van die ondersoek, dit nodig is, in die belang van geregtigheid, om ’n bevel beoog in subartikel (6) te gee;
+
+(b) die versoek identifiseer duidelik— (i) die persoon, elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of finansiële instelling— (aa) wat die data of ander item wat bewaar moet word, sal ontvang, in besit is daarvan, of in beheer is daarvan; of (bb) vanaf wie se fasiliteite die data, intydse kommunikasie-verwante inligting, argief-bewaarde kommunikasie-verwante inligting, onregstreekse kommunikasie of verkeersdata verkry of onderskep moet word;
+
+(ii) die data of ander item wat bewaar moet word; 20
+(iii) die data of ander item waarop beslag gelê moet word op ’n bespoedigde grondslag en wat bewaar moet word;
+(iv) die verkeersdata wat op ’n bespoedigde grondslag openbaargemaak moet word; die intydse kommunikasie-verwante inligting of argief-bewaarde 25 kommunikasie-verwante inligting, wat verkry moet word; of
+(vi) die onregstreekse kommunikasie wat onderskep moet word
+
+c) die versoek, waar van toepassing, in ooreenstemming is met—
+
+(i) enige verdrag, konvensie of ander ooreenkoms waartoe daardie vreemde Staat en die Republiek partye is of wat as grondslag vir onderlinge 30 bystand gebruik kan word; of
+(ii) enige ooreenkoms met enige vreemde Staat aangegaan ingevolge artikel 57; en
+
+(d) die bevel in subartikel (6) beoog in ooreenstemming is met enige toepaslike reg van die Republiek.
+
+(8) Die aangewese regter kan, waar ’n versoek verband hou met die bespoedigde penbaarmaking van verkeersdata—
+
+(a) voorwaardes of beperkings in verband met die openbaarmaking van verkeersdata spesifiseer soos hul gepas ag; of
+(b) weier om ’n bevel bedoel in subartikel (6)(c) te gee, indien die open- 40 baarmaking van die verkeersdata die soewereiniteit, sekuriteit, openbare veiligheid of ander noodsaaklike belange van die Republiek kan benadeel.
+
+(9) (a) In die geval van dringendheid, kan ’n versoek deur enige owerheid, hof of tribunaal wat regsbevoegdheid in ’n vreemde Staat bedoel in subartikel (1) uitoefen, regstreeks aan die aangewese regter voorgelê word.
+
+(b) By ontvangs van ’n versoek ingevolge paragraaf (a), kan die aangewese regter enige bevel bedoel in subartikel (6) gee.
+
+(10) (a) ’n Spesifiek aangewese polisiebeampte moet ’n bevel in subartikel (6) beoog, beteken of uitvoer.
+
+(b) Die spesifiek aangewese polisiebeampte bedoel in paragraaf (a), moet— (i) die aangewese regter; en (ii) die Nasionale Direkteur van Openbare Vervolgings, kriftelik inlig van die feit dat ’n bevel beteken of uitgevoer is.
+
+(11) Die Nasionale Direkteur van Openbare Vervolgings moet die toepaslike owerheid in ’n vreemde Staat skriftelik inlig van die feit dat ’n bevel gegee en uitgevoer 55 is of nie gegee is nie.
+
+# Voldoening aan bevel van aangewese regter
+
+49. (1) ’n Persoon, elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of finansiële instelling moet aan ’n bevel van die aangewese regter wat ingevolge artikel 48(6) uitgevaardig is, voldoen.
+
+(2) ’n Persoon, elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of finansiële instelling aan wie ’n bevel bedoel in artikel 48(6) gerig is, kan skriftelik by die aangewese regter designated judge for an amendment or the cancellation of the order concerned on the ground that they cannot timeously or in a reasonable fashion, comply with the order.
+
+(3) The designated judge to whom an application is made in terms of subsection (2) must, as soon as possible after receipt thereof—
+
+(a) consider the application and may, for this purpose, order oral or written 5 evidence to be adduced regarding any fact alleged in the application;
+(b) give a decision in respect of the application; and
+(c) if the application is successful, inform the National Director of Public Prosecutions of the outcome of the application. (4) A person, electronic communications service provider or financial institution 10
+who— (a) fails to comply with an order referred to in section 48(6); or (b) makes a false statement in an application referred to in subsection (2),
+is guilty of an offence and is liable on conviction to a fine or imprisonment for a period
+not exceeding two years or to both a fine and such imprisonment. 15
+
+# Informing foreign State of outcome of request for mutual assistance and expedited disclosure of traffic data
+
+50. (1) The National Director of Public Prosecutions must inform— (a) the designated judge; and (b) the applicable authority in a foreign State, of the outcome of the request for assistance and cooperation.
+
+(2) Any traffic data made available in terms of an order referred to in section $48(6)(c)$ , must be—
+
+(a) provided to the designated Point of Contact, in the prescribed manner, for submission to the applicable authority in a foreign State; and 25
+(b) accompanied by— (i) a copy of the order referred to in section 48(6); and (ii) an affidavit in the prescribed form by the person or authorised representative of an electronic communications service provider or financial institution, verifying the authenticity, integrity and reliability of 30 the information that is furnished.
+
+(3) The traffic data together with the copy of the order and affidavit referred to in subsection (2), must be provided to the applicable authority in a foreign State which requested the assistance in terms of section 48(1).
+
+(4) A person, electronic communications service provider or financial institution 35 who—
+
+(a) fails to comply with subsection (2) or any regulations contemplated in section 59(1)(a)(xxii); or (b) makes a false statement in an affidavit referred to in subsection (2)(b)(ii), is guilty of an offence and is liable on conviction to a fine or imprisonment for a period 40 not exceeding two years or to both a fine and such imprisonment.
+
+# Issuing of direction requesting assistance from foreign State
+
+51. (1) If it appears to a magistrate from information on oath or by way of affirmation that there are reasonable grounds for believing that—
+
+(a) an offence contemplated in Part I or Part II of Chapter 2; or $(b)$ any other offence in terms of the laws of the Republic, which may be committed by means of, or facilitated through the use of, an article, has been committed or that it is necessary to determine whether the offence has been so ommitted and that it is necessary—
+
+(i) pending the issuing of a letter of request in terms of section 2(2) of the 50 International Co-operation in Criminal Matters Act, 1996, to— (aa) preserve data or other articles; (bb) seize data or other articles on an expedited basis;
+
+aansoek doen om ’n wysiging of die kansellasie van die betrokke bevel op grond daarvan dat hulle nie tydig of op ’n redelike wyse aan die bevel kan voldoen nie. (3) Die aangewese regter by wie ’n aansoek ingevolge subartikel (2) gedoen is, moet, so gou moontlik ná ontvangs daarvan—
+
+(a) die aansoek oorweeg en kan, vir hierdie doel, beveel dat mondelinge of 5 skriftelike getuienis aangebied word aangaande enige feit in die aansoek beweer; (b) ’n beslissing gee ten opsigte van die aansoek; en (c) indien die aansoek suksesvol is, die Nasionale Direkteur van Openbare Vervolgings verwittig van die uitslag van die aansoek. 10 (4) ’n Persoon, elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of finansiële instelling wat— (a) versuim om aan ’n bevel bedoel in artikel 48(6) te voldoen; of (b) ’n vals verklaring maak in ’n aansoek in subartikel (2) bedoel, s skuldig aan ’n misdryf en is by skuldigbevinding strafbaar met ’n boete of 15 gevangenisstraf vir ’n tydperk van hoogstens twee jaar of met beide ’n boete en sodanige gevangenisstraf.
+
+# Verwittiging van vreemde Staat van uitslag van versoek om onderlinge bystand en bespoedigde openbaarmaking van verkeersdata
+
+50. (1) Die Nasionale Direkteur van Openbare Vervolgings moet— (a) die aangewese regter; en (b) die toepaslike owerheid in ’n vreemde Staat, inlig van die uitkoms van die versoek om bystand en samewerking.
+
+(2) Enige verkeersdata wat ingevolge ’n bevel bedoel in artikel 48(6)(c) beskikbaar gestel word, moet— 2
+
+(a) op die voorgeskrewe wyse aan die aangewese Kontakpunt verskaf word vir voorlegging aan die toepaslike owerheid in ’n vreemde Staat; en
+(b) vergesel gaan van— (i) ’n afskrif van die bevel in artikel 48(6) bedoel; en (ii) ’n beëdigde verklaring in die voorgeskrewe vorm deur die persoon of 30 gemagtigde verteenwoordiger van ’n elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of finansiële instelling, wat die egtheid, integriteit en betroubaarheid van die inligting wat voorsien word, bevestig.
+
+(3) Die verkeersdata, tesame met die afskrif van die bevel en beëdigde verklaring in subartikel (2) bedoel, moet aan die toepaslike owerheid wat regsbevoegdheid uitoefen in 35 ’n vreemde Staat wat die bystand ingevolge artikel 48(1) aangevra het, voorsien word.
+
+(4) ’n Persoon, elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of finansiële instelling wat— versuim om aan subartikel (2) of enige regulasies beoog in artikel 59(1)(a)(xxii) te voldoen; of 40 (b) ’n vals verklaring maak in ’n beëdigde verklaring in subartikel (2)(b)(ii) bedoel,
+
+is skuldig aan ’n misdryf en is by skuldigbevinding strafbaar met ’n boete of gevangenisstraf vir ’n tydperk van hoogstens twee jaar of met beide ’n boete en sodanige gevangenisstraf.
+
+# Uitreiking van lasgewing om onderlinge bystand van vreemde Staat te versoek
+
+51. (1) Indien dit vir ’n landdros uit inligting onder eed of by wyse van plegtige verklaring blyk dat daar redelike gronde is om te vermoed dat—
+
+(a) ’n misdryf beoog in Deel I of Deel II van Hoofstuk 2; of (b) enige ander misdryf ingevolge die wette van die Republiek, wat gepleeg kan 50 word by wyse van, of gefasiliteer kan word deur die gebruik van, ’n item, gepleeg is of dat dit nodig is om vas te stel of die misdryf aldus gepleeg is en dat dit nodig is—
+
+(i) hangende die uitreiking van ’n versoekbrief ingevolge artikel 2(2) van die Wet op Internasionale Samewerking in Strafregtelike Aangeleenthede, 1996, om— 55 (aa) data of ander items te bewaar; (bb) op ’n bespoedigde grondslag op data of ander items beslag te lê;
+
+(cc) obtain real-time communication-related information or archived communication-related information; or
+(dd) intercept indirect communications; or
+
+(ii) to obtain traffic data,
+
+within the area of jurisdiction of a foreign State, the magistrate may issue a direction in 5 the prescribed form in which assistance from that foreign State is sought as is stated in the direction.
+
+2) A direction contemplated in subsection (1) must specify that—
+
+(a) there are reasonable grounds for believing that an offence contemplated in subsection $(1)(a)$ or $(b)$ has been committed in the Republic or that it is 10 necessary to determine whether such an offence has been committed;
+$(b)$ an investigation in respect thereof is being conducted; and
+$(c)$ for purposes of the investigation it is necessary, in the interests of justice, that— (i) data or other articles specified in the direction, be preserved; 15 (ii) data or any other article specified in the direction is to be seized on an expedited basis and be preserved; (iii) traffic data specified in the direction, be disclosed on an expedited basis; (iv) real-time communication-related information or archived communication-related information specified in the direction, be obtained and be 20 preserved; or (v) indirect communications, specified in the direction, be intercepted and be preserved,
+
+within the area of jurisdiction of a foreign State.
+
+(3) The direction must be sent to the National Director of Public Prosecutions for 25 transmission to— (a) the appropriate authority in the foreign State; or $(b)$ a designated point of contact in the foreign State, which is requested to provide assistance and cooperation.
+
+# CHAPTER 6
+
+# DESIGNATED POINT OF CONTACT
+
+# Establishment and functions of designated Point of Contact
+
+52. (1) The National Commissioner must—
+
+(a) establish or designate an office within existing structures of the South African Police Service to be known as the designated Point of Contact for the 35 Republic; and
+(b) equip, operate and maintain the designated Point of Contact.
+
+(2) The National Commissioner exercises final responsibility over the administration and functioning of the designated Point of Contact.
+
+(3) (a) The designated Point of Contact must ensure the provision of immediate 40 assistance for the purpose of proceedings or investigations regarding the commission or intended commission of—
+
+(i) an offence under Part I or Part II of Chapter 2;
+(ii) any other offence in terms of the laws of the Republic, which may be committed by means of, or facilitated through the use of, an article; or 45
+(iii) an offence— (aa) similar to those contemplated in Part I or Part II of Chapter 2; or (bb) substantially similar to an offence recognised in the Republic, which may be committed by means of, or facilitated through the use of, an article, in a foreign State. 50
+
+(b) The assistance contemplated in subsection (3)(a), includes—
+
+(i) the provision of technical advice and assistance;
+(ii) the facilitation or provision of assistance regarding anything which is authorised under Chapters 4 and 5;
+(iii) the provision of legal assistance;
+(iv) the identification and location of an article;
+
+73
+
+(cc) intydse kommunikasie-verwante inligting of argief-bewaarde kommunikasie-verwante inligting te verkry; of
+
+(dd) onregstreekse kommunikasies te onderskep; of (ii) om verkeersdata te verkry,
+
+binne die regsgebied van ’n vreemde Staat, kan die landdros ’n lasgewing in die 5 voorgeskrewe vorm uitreik waarin bystand van daardie vreemde Staat versoek word soos in die lasgewing uiteengesit word.
+
+(2) ’n Lasgewing in subartikel (1) bedoel, moet spesifiseer dat—
+
+(a) daar redelike gronde is om te glo dat ’n misdryf in subartikel (1)(a) of $(b)$ in die Republiek gepleeg is of dat dit nodig is om vas te stel of so ’n misdryf 10 gepleeg is;
+(b) ’n ondersoek ten opsigte daarvan onderneem word; en
+(c) dit vir die doeleindes van die ondersoek, in die belang van geregtigheid, nodig is dat— (i) data of ander items in die lasgewing gespesifiseer, bewaar word; 15 (ii) data of enige ander item in die lasgewing gespesifiseer, op ’n bespoedigde grondslag op beslag gelê en bewaar moet word; (iii) verkeersdata, in die lasgewing gespesifiseer, op ’n bespoedigde grondslag openbaargemaak moet word; (iv) intydse kommunikasie-verwante inligting of argief-bewaarde 20 kommunikasie-verwante inligting in die lasgewing gespesifiseer, verkry en bewaar moet word; of (v) onregstreekse kommunikasie in die lasgewing gespesifiseer, onderskep en bewaar moet word,
+
+binne die regsgebied van ’n vreemde Staat.
+
+(3) Die lasgewing moet aan die Nasionale Direkteur van Openbare Vervolgings gestuur word vir oorsending aan—
+
+(a) die gepaste owerheid in die vreemde Staat; of (b) ’n aangewese Kontakpunt in die vreemde Staat, waarvan bystand en samewerking versoek word.
+
+# HOOFSTUK 6
+
+# AANGEWESE KONTAKPUNT
+
+# Instelling en werksaamhede van aangewese Kontakpunt
+
+52. (1) Die Nasionale Kommissaris moet— (a) ’n kantoor instel of aanwys binne die bestaande strukture van die Suid- 35 Afrikaanse Polisiediens, wat as die aangewese Kontakpunt vir die Republiek bekend sal staan; en
+
+(b) die aangewese Kontakpunt toerus, bedryf en in stand hou.
+
+(2) Die Nasionale Kommissaris oefen finale verantwoordelikheid oor die dministrasie en funksionering van die aangewese Kontakpunt uit. 40
+
+(3) (a) Die aangewese Kontakpunt moet die voorsiening van onmiddellike bystand verseker vir die doeleindes van verrigtinge of ondersoeke rakende die pleging of voorgenome pleging van—
+
+(i) ’n misdryf kragtens Deel I of Deel II van Hoofstuk 2;
+(ii) enige ander misdryf ingevolge die wette van die Republiek, wat gepleeg kan 45 word by wyse van, of gefasiliteer kan word deur die gebruik van,’n item; of
+(iii) ’n misdryf— (aa) soortgelyk aan dié in Deel I of Deel II van Hoofstuk 2 beoog; of (bb) wesenlik soortgelyk aan ’n misdryf in die Republiek erken, wat gepleeg kan word by wyse van, of gefasiliteer kan word deur die gebruik van, ’n 50 item, in ’n vreemde Staat.
+
+(b) Die bystand beoog in subartikel (3)(a) sluit in—
+
+(i) die voorsiening van tegniese advies en bystand;
+(ii) die fasilitering of voorsiening van bystand aangaande enigiets wat kragtens 55 Hoofstukke 4 en 5 gemagtig is;
+(iii) die voorsiening van regsbystand;
+(iv) die identifikasie en opsporing van ’n item;
+(v) the identification and location of a suspect; and
+(vi) cooperation with appropriate authorities of a foreign State.
+(4) The Cabinet member responsible for policing may make regulations to further— (a) regulate any aspect provided for in subsection (3); (b) impose additional duties on the designated Point of Contact; and 5 (c) regulate any aspect which is necessary or expedient for the proper implementation of this section.
+
+(5) The National Director of Public Prosecutions must make available members of the National Prosecuting Authority—
+
+(a) who have particular knowledge and skills in respect of any aspect dealt with 10 in this Act; and
+(b) to whom a security clearance has been issued by the State Security Agency in terms of section 2A of the National Strategic Intelligence Act, 1994, to the satisfaction of the National Director of Public Prosecutions,
+
+to provide legal assistance to the designated Point of Contact as may be necessary or 15 expedient for the effective operation of the designated Point of Contact.
+
+(6) (a) The Cabinet member responsible for policing must, at the end of each financial year, submit a report to the Chairperson of the Joint Standing Committee on Intelligence established by section 2 of the Intelligence Services Oversight Act, 1994, on the functions and activities of the designated Point of Contact.
+
+20
+
+$(b)$ The report contemplated in paragraph (a) must include—
+(i) the number of matters in which assistance was provided in terms of subsection $(3)(a)$ ; and
+(ii) the number of matters in which assistance was received from a foreign State.
+
+# CHAPTER 7
+
+# EVIDENCE
+
+# Proof of certain facts by affidavit
+
+53. (1) Whenever any fact established by any examination or process requiring any skill in—
+
+30
+
+(a) the interpretation of data;
+(b) the design or functioning of data, a computer program, a computer data storage medium or a computer system;
+(c) computer science;
+(d) electronic communications networks and technology;
+(e) software engineering; or
+$(f)$ computer programming,
+
+35
+
+is or may become relevant to an issue at criminal proceedings or civil proceedings as contemplated in Chapter 5 or 6 of the Prevention of Organised Crime Act, 1998, a document purporting to be an affidavit or a solemn or attested declaration made by a person who, in that document, states that they—
+
+40
+
+(i) (aa) fall within a category of persons within the Republic; or $(b b)$ are in the service of a body in the Republic or a foreign State, designated by the Cabinet member responsible for the administration of justice, by notice in the Gazette;
+(ii) possess relevant qualifications, expertise and experience which makes them 45 competent to make the affidavit; and
+(iii) have established such fact by means of an examination or process that is documented in the document,
+
+is, upon its mere production at such proceedings, prima facie proof of such fact.
+
+(2) Any person who makes an affidavit or a solemn or attested declaration under 50 subsection (1) and who in such affidavit or solemn or attested declaration wilfully states anything which is false, is guilty of an offence and is liable on conviction to a fine or imprisonment for a period not exceeding two years or to both a fine and such imprisonment.
+
+(v) die identifikasie en opsporing van ’n verdagte; en (vi) samewerking met toepaslike owerhede van ’n vreemde Staat. (4) Die Kabinetslid verantwoordelik vir polisiëring kan regulasies uitvaardig om verder— (a) enige aspek waarvoor in subartikel (3) voorsiening gemaak word, te reël; 5 (b) bykomende pligte aan die aangewese Kontakpunt op te lê; en (c) enige aspek wat noodsaaklik of raadsaam is vir die behoorlike implementering van hierdie artikel, te reël.
+
+(5) Die Nasionale Direkteur van Openbare Vervolgings moet lede van die Nasionale Vervolgingsgesag beskikbaar stel— 10
+
+(a) wat bepaalde kennis en vaardighede het ten opsigte van enige aspek wat in hierdie Wet hanteer word; en
+(b) aan wie ’n sekerheidsklaring deur die Staatsveiligheidsagentskap ingevolge artikel 2A van die Wet op Nasionale Strategiese Intelligensie, 1994, uitgereik is, tot die tevredenheid van die Nasionale Direkteur van Openbare 15 Vervolgings,
+
+om regshulp aan die aangewese Kontakpunt te voorsien soos noodsaaklik of raadsaam mag wees vir die doeltreffende bedryf van die aangewese Kontakpunt.
+
+(6) (a) Die Kabinetslid verantwoordelik vir polisiëring moet, aan die einde van elke boekjaar, ’n verslag aan die Voorsitter van die Gesamentlike Staande Komitee oor 20 Intelligensie ingestel by artikel 2 van die Wet op Toesig oor Intelligensiedienste, 1994, voorlê oor die werksaamhede en aktiwiteite van die aangewese Kontakpunt.
+
+(b) Die verslag in paragraaf (a) beoog, moet insluit— (i) die getal aangeleenthede waar bystand ingevolge subartikel (3)(a) aan ’n vreemde Staat voorsien is; en 25 (ii) die getal aangeleenthede waar bystand van ’n vreemde Staat ontvang is.
+
+# HOOFSTUK 7
+
+# GETUIENIS
+
+# Bewys van sekere feite deur beëdigde verklaring
+
+53. (1) Wanneer enige feit vasgestel deur enige ondersoek of proses wat enige 30 vaardigheid vereis in—
+
+(a) die vertolking van data;
+(b) die ontwerp of funksionering van data, ’n rekenaarprogram, ’n rekenaardatabergingsmedium of ’n rekenaarstelsel;
+(c) rekenaarwetenskap;
+$(d)$ elektroniese kommunikasienetwerke en tegnologie;
+(e) sagteware-ingenieurswese; of
+$(f)$ rekenaarprogrammering,
+
+35
+
+tersaaklik is of kan word tot $\mathbf{\chi}_{\mathrm{n}}^{\prime}$ aangeleentheid by strafregtelike verrigtinge of siviele verrigtinge soos in Hoofstuk 5 of 6 van die Wet op Voorkoming van Georganiseerde 40 Misdaad, 1998, beoog, is ’n dokument wat voorgee om ’n beëdigde verklaring of plegtige of geattesteerde verklaring te wees soos afgelê deur ’n persoon wat, in daardie dokument, stel dat hulle—
+
+(i) (aa) in ’n kategorie van persone in die Republiek val; of (bb) in die diens staan van ’n liggaam in die Republiek of ’n vreemde Staat, 45 deur die Kabinetslid verantwoordelik vir die regspleging by kennisgewing in die Staatskoerant aangewys;
+(ii) tersaaklike kwalifikasies, kundigheid en ervaring het wat hulle bevoeg maak om die beëdigde verklaring af te lê; en
+(iii) daardie feit met behulp van ’n ondersoek of proses wat in die dokument 50 gedokumenteer is, vasgestel het,
+
+is by die blote voorlegging daarvan by sodanige verrigtinge, prima facie bewys van sodanige feit.
+
+(2) Enige persoon wat kragtens subartikel (1) ’n beëdigde verklaring of plegtige of geattesteerde verklaring aflê en wat in sodanige beëdigde verklaring of plegtige of 55 geattesteerde verklaring opsetlik enigiets stel wat vals is, is skuldig aan ’n misdryf en is by skuldigbevinding strafbaar met ’n boete of gevangenisstraf vir ’n tydperk van hoogstens twee jaar of met beide ’n boete en sodanige gevangenisstraf.
+
+(3) The court before which an affidavit or solemn or attested declaration is produced as prima facie proof of the relevant contents thereof may, in its discretion, cause the person who made the affidavit or solemn or attested declaration to be subpoenaed to give oral evidence in the proceedings in question or may cause written interrogatories to be submitted to such person for reply and such interrogatories and any reply thereto purporting to be a reply from such person are likewise admissible in evidence at such proceedings.
+
+(4) No provision of this section affects any other law under which any certificate or other document is admissible in evidence and the provisions of this section are deemed to be additional to and not in substitution of any such law.
+
+(5) (a) For the purposes of subsection (1), a document purporting to be an affidavit or a solemn or attested declaration made by a person who in that affidavit alleges that they are in the service of a body in the Republic or a foreign State designated by the Cabinet member responsible for the administration of justice, by notice in the Gazette, has no effect unless it is—
+
+15
+
+(i) obtained in terms of an order of a competent court or on the authority of a government institution of the foreign State concerned, as the case may be; and
+(ii) authenticated— (aa) in the manner prescribed in the rules of court for the authentication of documents executed outside the Republic; or (bb) by a person and in the manner contemplated in section 7 or 8 of the Justices of the Peace and Commissioners of Oaths Act, 1963.
+
+(b) The admissibility and evidentiary value of an affidavit contemplated in paragraph (a) are not affected by the fact that the form of the oath, confirmation or attestation thereof differs from the form of the oath, confirmation or attestation prescribed in the 25 Republic.
+
+(c) A court before which an affidavit or a solemn or attested declaration contemplated in paragraph (a) is placed may, in order to clarify any obscurities in the said affidavit, order that a supplementary affidavit or a solemn or attested declaration be submitted or that oral evidence be heard: Provided that oral evidence may only be heard if the court 30 is of the opinion that it is in the interests of the administration of justice and that a party to the proceedings would be prejudiced materially if oral evidence is not heard.
+
+# CHAPTER 8
+
+# REPORTING OBLIGATIONS AND CAPACITY BUILDING
+
+# Obligations of electronic communications service providers and financial institu- 35 tions
+
+54. (1) An electronic communications service provider or financial institution that is aware or becomes aware that its electronic communications service or electronic communications network is involved in the commission of any category or class of offences provided for in Part I of Chapter 2 and which is determined in terms of 40 subsection (2), must—
+
+(a) without undue delay and, where feasible, not later than 72 hours after having become aware of the offence, report the offence in the prescribed form and manner to the South African Police Service; and
+(b) preserve any information which may be of assistance to the South African 45 Police Service in investigating the offence.
+
+(2) The Cabinet member responsible for policing, in consultation with the Cabinet member responsible for the administration of justice, must by notice in the Gazette, prescribe—
+
+(a) the category or class of offences which must be reported to the South African 50 Police Service in terms of subsection (1); and
+(b) the form and manner in which an electronic communications service provider or financial institution must report offences to the South African Police Service.
+
+(3) Die hof voor wie ’n beëdigde verklaring of plegtige of geattesteerde verklaring voorgelê word as prima facie-bewys van die tersaaklike inhoud daarvan kan, na goeddunke, die persoon wat die beëdigde verklaring of plegtige of geattesteerde verklaring afgelê het, laat dagvaar om mondelinge getuienis in die betrokke verrigtinge af te lê of kan skriftelike vraagpunte vir beantwoording aan sodanige persoon laat voorlê en sodanige vraagpunte en enige antwoord daarop wat voorgee om ’n antwoord van sodanige persoon te wees, is insgelyks as getuienis by sodanige verrigtinge toelaatbaar. (4) Geen bepaling van hierdie artikel maak inbreuk op enige ander wetsbepaling waarkragtens enige sertifikaat of ander dokument as getuienis toelaatbaar is nie, en die bepalings van hierdie artikel word geag so ’n wetsbepaling aan te vul en nie te vervang nie.
+
+(5) (a) By die toepassing van subartikel (1), is ’n dokument wat voorgee om ’n beëdigde verklaring of plegtige of geattesteerde verklaring afgelê deur ’n persoon wat in daardie beëdigde verklaring of plegtige of geattesteerde verklaring beweer dat hulle in die diens staan van ’n liggaam in die Republiek of ’n vreemde Staat aangewys deur die Kabinetslid verantwoordelik vir die regspleging by kennisgewing in die Staatskoerant, van nul en gener waarde tensy dit—
+
+(i) ingevolge ’n bevel van ’n bevoegde hof of op gesag van ’n regeringsinstelling van die betrokke vreemde Staat, na gelang van die geval, verkry is; en
+(ii) gewaarmerk is— (aa) op die wyse voorgeskryf in die hofreëls vir die waarmerking van dokumente wat buite die Republiek verly is; of (bb) deur ’n persoon, en op die wyse beoog in artikel 7 of 8 van die Wet op Vrederegters en Kommissarisse van Ede, 1963.
+
+(b) Die toelaatbaarheid en bewyswaarde van ’n beëdigde verklaring in paragraaf (a) 25 bedoel, word nie geraak deur die feit dat die vorm van die eed, bevestiging of attestasie daarvan verskil van die vorm van die eed, bevestiging of attestasie wat in die Republiek voorgeskryf word nie.
+
+(c) ’n Hof voor wie’n beëdigde verklaring of ’n plegtige of geattesteerde verklaring in paragraaf (a) beoog, voorgelê word, kan ten einde enige onduidelikhede in die bedoelde 30 beëdigde verklaring op te klaar, beveel dat ’n aanvullende beëdigde verklaring of plegtige of geattesteerde verklaring voorgelê word of dat mondelinge getuienis aangehoor word: Met dien verstande dat mondelinge getuienis slegs aangehoor kan word indien die hof van oordeel is dat dit in die belang van die regspleging is en dat ’n party tot die verrigtinge wesenlik benadeel sal word indien mondelinge getuienis nie 35 aangehoor word nie.
+
+# HOOFSTUK 8
+
+# RAPPORTERINGSVERPLIGTINGE EN KAPASITEITSBOU
+
+Verpligtinge van elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffers en finansiële instellings
+
+54. (1) ’n Elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of finansiële instelling wat bewus is van of bewus word daarvan dat sy elektroniese kommunikasiediens of elektroniese kommunikasienetwerk betrokke is by die pleging van enige kategorie of klas misdrywe waarvoor in Deel I van Hoofstuk 2 voorsiening gemaak en wat ingevolge subartikel (2) bepaal word, moet—
+
+(a) sonder onnodige vertraging en, waar moontlik, nie later nie as 72 uur ná bewuswording van die misdryf, die misdryf op die voorgeskrewe vorm en wyse by die Suid-Afrikaanse Polisiediens aanmeld; en
+(b) enige inligting bewaar wat die Suid-Afrikaanse Polisiediens in die ondersoek van die misdryf behulpsaam kan wees.
+
+(2) Die Kabinetslid verantwoordelik vir polisiëring, in oorleg met die Kabinetslid verantwoordelik vir die regspleging, moet—
+
+(a) die kategorie of klas van misdrywe wat ingevolge subartikel (1) by die Suid-Afrikaanse Polisiediens aangemeld moet word; en
+(b) die vorm en wyse waarop ’n elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of 55 finansiële instelling misdrywe by die Suid-Afrikaanse Polisiediens moet aanmeld,
+
+by kennisgewing in die Staatskoerant voorskryf.
+
+(3) An electronic communications service provider or financial institution that fails to comply with subsection (1), is guilty of an offence and is liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $\mathtt{R50000}$ .
+
+(4) Subject to any other law or obligation, the provisions of subsection (1) must not be interpreted as to impose obligations on an electronic service provider or financial institution to—
+
+(a) monitor the data which the electronic communications service provider or financial institution transmits or stores; or (b) actively seek facts or circumstances indicating any unlawful activity.
+
+(5) This section does not apply to a financial sector regulator or a function performed 10 by the South African Reserve Bank in terms of section 10 of the South African Reserve Bank Act, 1989.
+
+# Capacity to detect, prevent and investigate cybercrimes
+
+55. (1) The Cabinet member responsible for policing must—
+
+(a) establish and maintain sufficient human and operational capacity to detect, 15 prevent and investigate cybercrimes;
+(b) ensure that members of the South African Police Service receive basic training in aspects relating to the detection, prevention and investigation of cybercrimes; and
+(c) in co-operation with any institution of higher learning, in the Republic or 20 elsewhere, develop and implement accredited training programmes for members of the South African Police Service primarily involved with the detection, prevention and investigation of cybercrimes.
+
+(2) The Cabinet member responsible for policing may make regulations to further regulate any aspect referred to in subsection (1).
+
+(3) The Cabinet member responsible for policing must, at the end of each financial year, submit a report to Parliament regarding—
+
+(a) progress made with the implementation of this section;
+(b) the number of— (i) offences provided for in Part I or Part II of Chapter 2, which were 30 reported to the South African Police Service; (ii) cases which were, in terms of subparagraph (i), reported to the South African Police Service which resulted in criminal prosecutions; and (iii) cases where no criminal prosecutions were instituted after a period of 18 months after a case was, in terms of subparagraph (i), reported to the 35 South African Police Service; and
+
+(c) the number of members of the South African Police Service who received training as contemplated in subsection (1)(b) and (c).
+
+# National Director of Public Prosecutions must keep statistics of prosecutions
+
+56. (1) The National Director of Public Prosecutions must keep statistics of the number of prosecutions instituted for offences in terms of Part I or Part II of Chapter 2, the outcome of such prosecutions and any other information relating to such prosecutions, which is determined by the Cabinet member responsible for the administration of justice.
+
+(2) The statistics or information contemplated in subsection (1) must be included in the report of the National Director of Public Prosecutions referred to in section 22(4)(g) of the National Prosecuting Authority Act, 1998.
+
+(3) ’n Elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of finansiële instelling wat versuim om aan subartikel (1) te voldoen, is skuldig aan ’n misdryf en is by skuldigbevinding strafbaar met ’n boete van hoogstens $\mathord{\mathrm{R50000}}$ .
+
+(4) Behoudens enige ander wetsbepaling of verpligting, moet die bepalings van subartikel (1) nie sodanig uitgelê word nie dat dit verpligtinge aan ’n elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of finansiële instelling sou oplê om—
+
+(a) die data wat die elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of finansiële instelling oorsend of berg te monitor; of
+(b) aktief feite of omstandighede te soek wat aanduidend is van enige onwettige aktiwiteit.
+
+(5) Hierdie Hoofstuk is nie op ’n finansiële sektor reguleerder of ’n werksaamheid verrig deur die Suid-Afrikaanse Reserwebank ingevolge artikel 10 van die Wet op die Suid-Afrikaanse Reserwebank, 1989, van toepassing nie.
+
+# Kapasiteit om kubermisdade te bespeur, te voorkom en te ondersoek
+
+55. (1) Die Kabinetslid verantwoordelik vir polisiëring moet—
+
+15
+
+(a) genoegsame menslike hulpbron- en operasionele kapasiteit vestig en in stand hou om kubermisdade te bespeur, te voorkom en te ondersoek;
+(b) verseker dat lede van die Suid-Afrikaanse Polisiediens basiese opleiding ontvang in aspekte wat verband hou met die bespeuring, voorkoming en ondersoek van kubermisdade; en 20
+(c) in samewerking met enige inrigting vir hoër onderwys, in die Republiek of elders, geakkrediteerde opleidingsprogramme ontwikkel en instel vir lede van die Suid-Afrikaanse Polisiediens wat hoofsaaklik gemoeid is met die bespeuring, voorkoming en ondersoek van kubermisdade.
+
+(2) Die Kabinetslid verantwoordelik vir polisiëring kan regulasies uitvaardig om 25 enige aspek in subartikel (1) bedoel, verder te reël.
+
+(3) Die Kabinetslid verantwoordelik vir polisiëring moet, aan die einde van elke boekjaar, ’n verslag aan die Parlement voorlê aangaande—
+
+(a) vordering met die implementering van hierdie artikel;
+(b) die getal— 30 (i) misdrywe waarvoor in Deel I of Deel II van Hoofstuk 2 voorsiening gemaak word, wat by die Suid-Afrikaanse Polisiediens aangemeld is; (ii) sake wat, ingevolge subparagraaf (i), by die Suid-Afrikaanse Polisiediens aangemeld is, wat tot strafregtelike verrigtinge gelei het; en (iii) sake waar geen strafregtelike vervolgings ingestel is nie ná ’n tydperk 35 van 18 maande nadat ’n saak ingevolge subparagraaf (i) by die Suid-Afrikaanse Polisiediens aangemeld is; en
+
+(c) die getal lede van die Suid-Afrikaanse Polisiediens wat opleiding soos beoog in subartikel $(1)(b)$ en (c), ontvang het.
+
+# Nasionale Direkteur van Openbare Vervolgings moet statistieke van vervolgings 40 hou
+
+56. (1) Die Nasionale Direkteur van Openbare Vervolgings moet statistieke hou van die getal vervolgings ingestel vir misdrywe ingevolge Deel I of Deel II van Hoofstuk 2, die uitslag van daardie vervolgings en enige ander inligting aangaande daardie vervolgings, wat deur die Kabinetslid verantwoordelik vir die regspleging bepaal word. 45 (2) Die statistieke of inligting in subartikel (1) beoog, moet in die verslag van die Nasionale Direkteur van Openbare Vervolgings bedoel in artikel $22(4)(g)$ van die Wet op die Nasionale Vervolgingsgesag, 1998, ingesluit word.
+
+80
+
+# CHAPTER 9
+
+# GENERAL PROVISIONS
+
+# National Executive may enter into agreements
+
+57. (1) The National Executive may enter into any agreement with any foreign State regarding—
+
+(a) the provision of mutual assistance and cooperation relating to the investigation and prosecution of—
+
+(i) an offence under Part I or Part II of Chapter 2;
+(ii) any other offence in terms of the laws of the Republic, which may be committed by means of, or facilitated through the use of, an article; or 10
+(iii) an offence— (aa) similar to those contemplated in Part I or Part II of Chapter 2; or (bb) substantially similar to an offence recognised in the Republic, which may be committed by means of, or facilitated through the use of, an article, 15 in that foreign State;
+
+(b) the implementation of cybercrime response activities;
+(c) training, research, information and technology-sharing and the exchange of information on the detection, prevention, mitigation and investigation of cybercrimes; 20
+(d) the establishment or designation of points of contact to facilitate the provision of mutual assistance and cooperation as contemplated in paragraph (a);
+(e) the implementation of emergency cross-border response mechanisms to mitigate the effect of cybercrimes; and
+$(f)$ the reciprocal implementation of measures to curb cybercrime. 25
+
+(2) A member of the National Executive must, as soon as practicable after Parliament has agreed to the ratification of, accession to, amendment of, or revocation of, an agreement referred to in subsection (1), give notice thereof in the Gazette.
+
+# Repeal or amendment of laws
+
+58. The laws mentioned in the Schedule are hereby repealed or amended to the extent 30 reflected in the third column of the Schedule.
+
+# Regulations
+
+59. (1) The Cabinet member responsible for the administration of justice— (a) must make regulations to prescribe the— (i) form and manner of the application as contemplated in section 20(1); 35 (ii) form of the order as contemplated in section 20(3); (iii) manner of serving the order as contemplated in section 20(4); (iv) form and manner of the application as contemplated in section 20(6); (v) form and manner in which the court may subpoena a person as contemplated in section 20(8); 40 (vi) form of the direction and affidavit and manner to furnish information to a court as contemplated in section $21(1)(b)$ ; (vii) manner of serving a direction as contemplated in section 21(2); (viii) manner and the form of the affidavit to apply for an extension of the time period or cancellation of the direction as contemplated in section 45 $21(3)(b)$ ; (ix) manner for requesting additional information as contemplated in section $21(4)(b)$ ; (x) form and manner of informing an electronic communications service provider of the outcome of application as contemplated in section 50 $21(4)(d)$ ; (xi) tariffs of compensation payable to an electronic communications service provider as contemplated in section 21(6); (xii) form of the order and manner of service of the order as contemplated in section 22(3);
+
+# HOOFSTUK 9
+
+# ALGEMENE BEPALINGS
+
+# Nasionale Uitvoerende Gesag kan ooreenkomste aangaan
+
+57. (1) Die Nasionale Uitvoerende Gesag kan enige ooreenkoms met enige vreemde Staat aangaan oor—
+
+(a) die voorsiening van onderlinge bystand en samewerking aangaande die ondersoek en vervolging van— (i) ’n misdryf kragtens Deel I of Deel II van Hoofstuk 2; (ii) enige ander misdryf ingevolge die reg van die Republiek wat gepleeg kan word by wyse van, of gefasiliteer kan word deur die gebruik van, ’n item; 10 of (iii) ’n misdryf— (aa) soortgelyk aan dié in Deel I of Deel II van Hoofstuk 2 beoog; of (bb) wesenlik soortgelyk aan ’n misdryf in die Republiek erken wat gepleeg kan word by wyse van, of gefasiliteer kan word deur die 15 gebruik van, ’n item, in daardie vreemde Staat;
+
+) die instelling van kubermisdaadreaksie-aktiwiteite;
+
+(c) opleidings-, navorsings-, inligtings- en tegnologiedeling en die uitruil van inligting oor die bespeuring, voorkoming, mitigasie en ondersoek van 20 kubermisdade;
+(d) die instelling of aanwysing van kontakpunte om die voorsiening van onderlinge bystand en samewerking soos in paragraaf (a) beoog, te fasiliteer;
+(e) die inwerkingstelling van oorgrensnoodreaksiemeganismes om die uitwerking van kubermisdade te mitigeer; en 25
+$(f)$ die wedersydse inwerkingstelling van maatreëls om kubermisdaad te bekamp.
+
+(2) ’n Lid van die Nasionale Uitvoerende Gesag moet, so gou prakties moontlik nadat die Parlement ingestem het tot die bekragtiging van, toetreding tot, wysiging van of herroeping van ’n ooreenkoms in subartikel (1) bedoel, kennis daarvan in die Staatskoerant gee.
+
+# Herroeping of wysiging van wette
+
+58. Die wette in die Bylae genoem word hierby herroep of gewysig tot die mate in die derde kolom van die Bylae aangedui.
+
+# Regulasies
+
+59. (1) Die Kabinetslid verantwoordelik vir die regspleging— (a) moet regulasies uitvaardig om die—
+
+(i) vorm en wyse van die aansoek soos in artikel 20(1) beoog; (ii) vorm van die bevel soos in artikel 20(3) beoog;
+(iii) wyse van betekening van die bevel soos in artikel 20(4) beoog;
+(iv) vorm en wyse van die aansoek soos in artikel 20(6) beoog; 40 (v) vorm en wyse waarop die hof ’n persoon kan dagvaar soos in artikel 20(8) beoog;
+(vi) vorm van die lasgewing en beëdigde verklaring en wyse waarop inligting aan die hof voorsien moet word soos in artikel $21(1)(b)$ beoog;
+(vii) wyse van betekening van ’n lasgewing soos in artikel 21(2) beoog; 45
+(viii) wyse en die vorm van die beëdigde verklaring om aansoek te doen om ’n verlenging van die tydperk of kansellasie van die lasgewing soos in artikel $21(3)(b)$ beoog;
+(ix) wyse vir aanvra van bykomende inligting soos in artikel 21(4)(b) beoog; (x) vorm en wyse waarop ’n elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer van 50 die uitslag van die aansoek ingelig moet word soos in artikel 21(4)(d) beoog;
+(xi) tariewe van vergoeding betaalbaar aan ’n elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer soos in artikel 21(6) beoog;
+(xii) vorm van die bevel en wyse van betekening van die bevel soos in artikel 55 22(3) beoog;
+
+82
+
+(xiii) form and manner of the application as contemplated in section 22(5);
+(xiv) form and manner in which the court may subpoena a person as contemplated in section 22(7); (xv) the form of the expedited preservation of data direction and manner of service as contemplated in section 41(3); 5
+(xvi) form and manner for the making of an application as contemplated in section 41(7);
+(xvii) form of the preservation of evidence direction and manner of service as contemplated in section 42(2);
+(xviii) form and manner of an application to set aside a preservation of evidence 10 direction as contemplated in section 42(5);
+(xix) form of the disclosure of data direction and manner of service as contemplated in section 44(3); (xx) form and manner of an application for the amendment or setting aside of a disclosure of data direction as contemplated in section 44(5); 15
+(xxi) form of the affidavit as contemplated in section $44(7)(b)$ ;
+(xxii) manner in which traffic data must be provided to the designated Point of Contact as contemplated in section 50(2);
+(xxiii) form of the affidavit as contemplated in section 50(2)(b)(ii); and
+(xxiv) form of the direction as contemplated in section 51(1); and 20
+
+(b) may make regulations which are not inconsistent with this Act or any other law to prescribe any matter which in terms of this Act may be prescribed or which may be necessary or expedient to prescribe in order to achieve or promote the objects of this Act.
+
+(2) (a) The Cabinet member responsible for policing must make regulations in terms of section 54(2), prescribing the—
+
+(i) category or class of offences which must be reported to the South African Police Service in terms of section $54(2)(a)$ ; and
+(ii) form and manner in which an electronic communications service provider or financial institution must report offences to the South African Police Service as contemplated in section $54(2)(b)$ .
+
+(b) The Cabinet member responsible for policing may make regulations to further egulate aspects contemplated in section 52(4) and 55(2).
+
+# Short title and commencement
+
+60. (1) This Act is called the Cybercrimes Act, 2020, and comes into operation on a date fixed by the President by proclamation in the Gazette. (2) Different dates may be fixed under subsection (1) in respect of different provisions of this Act.
+
+83
+
+(xiii) vorm en wyse van die aansoek soos in artikel 22(5) beoog; (xiv) vorm en wyse waarop die hof ’n persoon kan dagvaar soos in artikel 22(7) beoog; (xv) vorm van die lasgewing vir bespoedigde bewaring van data en wyse van betekening soos in artikel 41(3) beoog; 5 (xvi) vorm en wyse waarop ’n aansoek soos beoog in artikel 41(7) gedoen moet word; (xvii) vorm van die lasgewing vir bewaring van getuienis en wyse van betekening soos in artikel 42(2) beoog; (xviii) vorm en wyse waarop ’n aansoek om tersydestelling van ’n lasgewing vir 10 bewaring van getuienis gedoen moet word, soos in artikel 42(5) beoog; (xix) vorm van die lasgewing vir openbaarmaking van data en wyse van betekening soos in artikel 44(3) beoog; (xx) vorm en wyse waarop ’n aansoek om die wysiging of tersydestelling van ’n lasgewing vir die openbaarmaking van data gedoen moet word soos in 15 artikel 44(5) beoog; (xxi) vorm van die beëdigde verklaring soos in artikel 44(7)(b) beoog; (xxii) wyse waarop verkeersdata aan die aangewese Kontakpunt verskaf moet word soos in artikel 50(2) beoog; (xxiii) vorm van die beëdigde verklaring soos in artikel 50(2)(b)(ii) beoog; en 20 (xxiv) vorm van die lasgewing soos in artikel 51(1) beoog, voor te skryf; en
+
+(b) kan regulasies uitvaardig wat nie met hierdie Wet of enige ander wetsbepaling onbestaanbaar is nie, om enige aangeleentheid voor te skryf wat ingevolge hierdie Wet voorgeskryf kan word of wat nodig of dienstig kan wees om voor 25 te skryf ten einde die oogmerke van hierdie Wet te bereik of te bevorder.
+
+(2) (a) Die Kabinetslid verantwoordelik vir polisiëring moet regulasies ingevolge artikel 54(2) uitvaardig, wat die—
+
+(i) kategorie of klas van misdrywe wat by die Suid-Afrikaanse Polisiediens aangemeld moet word ingevolge artikel $54(2)(a)$ ; en 30
+(ii) vorm en wyse waarop ’n elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of finansiële instelling misdrywe by die Suid-Afrikaanse Polisiediens moet aanmeld soos in artikel $54(2)(b)$ beoog,
+
+voorskryf.
+
+(b) Die Kabinetslid verantwoordelik vir polisiëring kan regulasies uitvaardig om 35 aspekte in artikel 52(4) en 55(2) beoog, verder te reël.
+
+# Kort titel en inwerkingtreding
+
+60. (1) Hierdie Wet heet die Wet op Kubermisdade, 2020, en tree in werking op ’n datum deur die President by proklamasie in die Staatskoerant vasgestel. (2) Verskillende datums kan kragtens subartikel (1) ten opsigte van verskillende 40 bepalings van hierdie Wet vasgestel word.
+
+84
+
+# Schedule
+
+(Section 58) LAWS REPEALED OR AMENDED
+
+
Number and year of law Act No. 51 of 1977 Act,1977
Short title Criminal Procedure 5: “A contravention of section 8, 9 or 10 of the Cybercrimes Act, 2020- (b)
Extent of repeal or amendment The addition of the following items to Schedule
(ii)
(a)involving amounts of more than R500 000,00; involving amounts of more than R100 000,00, if it is proven that the offence was committed- (i)by a person, group of persons, syndicate or any enterprise act- ing in the execution or further- ance of a common purpose or conspiracy; or by a person or with the collusion or assistance of another person, who as part of his or her duties, functions or lawful authority was in charge of, in control of, or had access to data, a computer program, a computer data stor- age medium or a computer sys- tem of another person in respect of which the offence in question was committed; or (c)if it is proven that the offence was committed by any law enforcement officer- (i)involving amounts of more than R10 000; or (ii) as a member of a group of persons, syndicate or any enter- prise acting in the execution or furtherance of a common pur- pose or conspiracy; or (iii)with the collusion or assistance of another person, who as part of his or her duties, functions or lawful authority was in charge of, in control of, or had access to
Act No. 68 of
offence in question was com- mitted. A contravention of section 11(2) of the Cybercrimes Act, 2020." South African Police|The deletion of section 71. Service Act, 1995
+
+Wet op Kubermisdade, 2020
+
+85
+
+# Bylae
+
+(Artikel 58) WETTE HERROEP OF GEWYSIG
+
+
Nommer en jaar van wet Wet No.51 van 1977 1977
Kort titel Strafproseswet,
Omvang van herroeping of wysiging
Die volgende items word by Bylae 5 gevoeg: n Oortreding van artikel 8, 9 of 10 van die Wet op Kubermisdade, 2020- (a)waarby bedrae van R500 000,00 betrokkeis (b) waarby bedrae van R100 000,00 betrokke is, indien bewys word dat die misdryf gepleeg is- (i)deur 'n persoon, groep persone, sindikaat of enige onderneming handelende in die uitvoering of bevordering van 'n gemeenskap- like doel of sameswering; of (ii)_deur ‘n persoon of met die sameswering of bystand van iemand anders, wat as deel van sy of haar pligte, werksaamhede of wettige magtiging, toesig gehad het oor, in beheer was van, of toegang gehad het tot data, ‘'n rekenaarprogram, rekenaardatabergingsmedium of 'n rekenaarstelsel van 'n ander persoon ten opsigte waarvan die betrokke misdryf gepleeg is; of (c)indien bewys word dat die misdryf deur enige wetstoepassingsbeampte gepleeg is- (i)_waarby bedrae van R10 000 betrokke is; of (ii)as 'n lid van 'n groep persone, sindikaat of enige onderneming handelende in die uitvoering of ter bevordering van 'n gemeen-
skaplike doel of sameswering; of (iii) met die sameswering of bystand van iemand anders,wat as deel van sy of haar pligte, werksaam- hede of wettige magtiging toesig gehad het oor, in beheer was van, of toegang gehad het tot data,'n rekenaarprogram, 'n rekenaardatabergingsmedium of 'n rekenaarstelsel van iemand anders ten opsigte waarvan die betrokke misdryf gepleeg is.
van 1995
'n Oortreding van artikel 11(2) van die Wet op Kubermisdade, 2020." Artikel 71 word geskrap. Artikel 24B word geskrap.
Wet No.68 Wet No.65 van 1996
Wet op Suid- Afrikaanse Polisiediens, 1995 Wet op Films en Publikasies, 1996
+
+Act No. 19 of 2020
+86
+
+
+
Number and year of law Act No.105 Criminal Law of 1997 Amendment Act, 1997
Short title
Extent of repeal or amendment
Schedule 2:
The addition of the following item to Part II of “A contravention of section 8, 9 or 10 of the Cybercrimes Act, 2020- (a)involving amounts of more than R500 000,00; (b)involving amounts of more than R100 000,00, if it is proven that the offence was committed- (i) by a person, group of persons, syndicate or any enterprise act- ing in the execution or further- ance of a common purpose or conspiracy; or (ii)_by a person or with the collusion or assistance of another person, who as part of his or her duties, functions or lawful authority was in charge of, in control of, or had access to data, a computer program, a computer data stor- age medium or a computer sys- tem of another person in respect of which the offence in question was committed; or (c)if it is proven that the offence was committed by any law enforcement officer- (i)involving amounts of more than R10 000; or (ii) as a member of a group of
persons, syndicate or any enter- prise acting in the execution or furtherance of a common pur- pose or conspiracy; or (iii)_with the collusion or assistance of another person, who as part of his or her duties, functions or lawful authority was in charge of, in control of, or had access to data, a computer_program,a computer data storage medium or a computer system of another person in respect of which the
Act No. 32 of 1998
National Prosecut- ing Authority Act,
offence in question was com- mitted." The deletion of sections 40A and 41(4).
Act No. 111 of1998 Act No. 38 of
Correctional Ser- vices Act,1998 Financial Intelli- gence Centre Act,
The deletion of section 128. The deletion of sections 65, 66 and 67.
+
+Wet op Kubermisdade, 2020
+
+Wet No. 19 van 2020
+87
+
+
+
Nommer en jaar van wet Wet No.105
Kort titel
Omvang van herroeping of wysiging
van 1997 van 2001 Intelligensiesentrum, 2001
Strafregwysigings- wet,1997
gevoeg: is- tenopsigte (c)indien bewys word dat die misdryf gepleeg is- (i)_waarby bedrae van of
“n Oortreding vanartikel 8, 9of 10 van die Wet op Kubermisdade, 2020- (a)waarby bedrae van meer as R500 000,00 betrokke is; (b)waarby bedrae van meer as R100 000,00 betrokke is, indien bewys word dat die misdryf gepleeg (i)deur 'n persoon, groep persone, sindikaat of enige onderneming handelende in die uitvoering of bevordering_van'n gemeen- skaplike doel of sameswering; of (ii) deur 'n persoon of met die
sameswering of bystand van iemand anders, wat as deel van sy of haar pligte, werksaamhede of wettige magtiging toesig gehad het oor, in beheer was van of toegang gehad het tot data, 'n rekenaarprogram, 'n rekenaar- databergingmedium of 'n reke- naarstelsel van iemand anders waarvan die betrokke misdryf gepleeg is; of deur enige wetstoepassingsbeampte R10 000,00 betrokke is; of (ii)as 'n lid van 'n groep persone, sindikaat of enige onderneming handelende in die uitvoering of ter bevordering van 'n gemeen- skaplike doel of sameswering; (iii)met die sameswering of bystand van iemand anders, wat as deel van sy of haar pligte, werksaam- hede of wettige magtiging toesig gehad het oor, in beheer was van of toegang gehad het tot data, 'n die meer as
Wet No.32 van 1998
Wet op die Nasionale Vervolgingsgesag,
rekenaarprogram, ‘n rekenaar- databergingsmedium of n reke- naarstelsel van iemand anders tenopsigte waarvan betrokke misdryf gepleeg is.". Artikels 40A en 41(4) word geskrap. Artikel 128 word geskrap.
Wet No. 111 van 1998 Wet No.38 Wet op Finansiele
1998 Wet op Korrektiewe Dienste,1998
+
+Act No. 19 of 2020
+88
+
+
+
Number and year of law
Short title
Extent of repeal or amendment
Act No. 25 of 2002
Electronic Commu- nications and Trans- actions Act, 2002
(a) The deletion of sections 85, 86, 87 and 88. (b) The substitution for section 89 of the following section: “Penalties 89. [(1)] A person convicted of an offence referred to in sections 37(3), 40(2), 58(2),80(5)[,] or 82(2) [0r 86(1), (2) or (3)] is liable to a fine or imprisonment for a period not exceeding 12 months. [(2) A person convicted of an offence referred to in section 86(4) or (5) or section 87 is liable to a fine or imprison-
Act No. 70 of 2002
Regulation of Inter- (a) ception of Commu- nications and Provi- sion of Communication related Information Act, 2002
ment for a period not exceeding five years.]". The amendment of section 1 by the substi- tution for paragraph (a) of the definition of “serious offence” of the following para- graph: “(a) offence mentioned in [the] Schedule 1; or". (b) The amendment of section 4 by the addi- tion of the following subsection: “(3) Notwithstanding subsection (2), a law enforcement officer or a person who is authorised in terms of the Criminal Proce- dure Act, 1977, the Cybercrimes Act, 2020, or any other law to engage or to apprehend a suspect or to enter premises in respect of the commission or suspected commission of any offence, may during the apprehension of the suspect or during the time that he or she is lawfully on the premises, record what he or she observes or hears if- (a)the recording relates directly to the purpose for which the suspect was apprehended or the law enforcement officer or_person entered the pre- mises; and (b) the law enforcement officer or person has- (i)identified himself or herself as such; and (ii) verbally informed any_person concerned that his or her direct communications are to be re- corded, before such recording is made." (c) The substitution for subsection (4) of section 17 of the following subsection: “(4) A real-time communication-related direction may only be issued if it appears
+
+Wet op Kubermisdade, 2020
+
+89
+Wet No. 19 van 2020
+
+
+
Nommer en jaar van wet
Kort titel
Omvang van herroeping of wysiging
Wet No.25 van 2002
Wet op Elektroniese Kommunikasies en Transaksies, 2002
(a) Artikels 85, 86, 87 en 88 word geskrap. (b) Artikel 89 word deur die volgende artikel vervang: “Strawwe 89. [(1)] 'n Persoon wat skuldig bevind is aan 'n misdryf bedoel in artikels 37(3), 40(2),58(2), 80(5)[,l of 82(2) [of 86(1), (2) of (3)] is strafbaar met 'n boete of gevangenisstraf vir 'n tydperk wat nie 12 maande oorskry nie. [(2)'n Persoon wat skuldig bevind is aan 'n misdryf bedoel in artikel 86(4) of
Wet No. 70 van 2002
Wet op die Reeling van Onderskepping van Kommunikasies en Verstrekking van Kommunikasie- verwante Inligting, 2002
(5) of artikel 87 is strafbaar met 'n boete of gevangenisstraf vir 'n tydperk wat nie vyf jaar oorskry nie.]" (a) Artikel 1 word gewysig deur paragraaf (a) van die omskrywingvan“ernstige misdryf" deur die volgende paragraaf te vervang: “(a) misdryf vermeld in [die] Bylae 1; of". (b) Artikel 4 word gewysig deur die volgende subartikel by te voeg: “(3)Ondanks subartikel (2), kan 'n wetstoepassingsbeampte of n persoon wat ingevolge die Strafproseswet, 1977, die Wet op Kubermisdade, 2020, of enige ander wetsbepaling, gemagtig is om ‘n verdagte te betrek of in hegtenis te neem of om ‘n perseel te betree ten opsigte van die pleging of vermeende pleging van enige misdryf, tydens die inhegtenisname van die verdagte of terwyl hy of sy wettig op die perseel is, opneem wat hy of sy waarneem of hoor indien- (a) die opname direk in verband staan met die doel waarvoor die verdagte in hegtenis geneem is of die wets- toepassingsbeampte of persoon die perseel betree het; en (b)die wetstoepassingsbeampte of persoon- (i) hom- of haarself as sodanig geidentifiseer het; en
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+Act No. 19 of 2020
+90
+
+
+
Number and year of law
Short title
Extent of repeal or amendment
(d) The substitution for subsection (4) of
being or will probably be committed; (b) the gathering of information concern- ing an actual threat to the public health or safety, national security or compelling national economic inter- ests of the Republic is necessary; (c) the gathering of information concern- ing a potential threat to the public health or safety or national security of
the Republic is necessary; (d) the making of a request for the provision, or the provision to the competent authorities of a country or territory outside the Republic, of any
assistance in connection with, or in the form of, the interception of com- munications relating to organised crime, an offence mentioned in Schedule II or any offence relating to terrorism or the gathering of informa- tion relating to organised crime or terrorism, is in- (i) accordance with an international mutual assistance agreement; or
(ii) the interests of the Republic's international relations or obliga-
tions; or (e) the gathering of information concern- ing an offence mentioned in Schedule II, or property which is or could probably be an instrumentality of a serious offence, or is or could prob- ably be the proceeds of unlawful activities, is necessary, and that the provision of real-time commu- nication-related information is necessary
+
+Wet op Kubermisdade, 2020
+
+Wet No. 19 van 2020
+91
+
+
+
Nommer en jaar van wet
Kort titel
Omvang van herroeping of wysiging
(a)"n ernstige misdryf of 'n misdryf in Bylae II genoem, gepleeg is of word of waarskynlik gepleeg sal word;
of
(b) die insameling van inligting aan- gaande 'n werklike bedreiging van die openbare gesondheid veiligheid, nasionale sekuriteit of dwingende nasionale ekonomiese
belang van die Republiek nodig is; (c) die insameling van inligting aan- gaande ‘'n potensiele bedreiging van die openbare gesondheid
veiligheid of nasionale sekuriteit van die Republiek nodig is; (d) die rig van 'n versoek vir die voorsiening, of die voorsiening aan die bevoegde owerhede van 'n land of gebied buite die Republiek, van enige hulp in verband met, of in die vorm van, die onderskepping van kommunikasies met betrekking tot
georganiseerde misdaad, 'n misdryf in Bylae II genoem of enige misdryf met betrekking tot terrorisme of die insameling van inligting met be- trekking tot georganiseerde misdaad of terrorisme- (i) ooreenkomstig 'n internasionale (ii) in belang van die internasionale (e)die aangaande ‘n misdryf in Bylae II genoem, of eiendom wat 'n middel is of waarskynlik kan wees by'n ernstige misdryf of die opbrengs is of waarskynlik kan wees van onwettige aktiwiteite nodig is, en dat die verstrekking van intydse kommunikasie-verwante inligting nodig is vir die doeleindes van die ondersoek van so 'n misdryf of die insameling van sodanige inligting." (d) Subartikel (4) van artikel 19 word deur die volgende subartikel vervang: “(4)'n Argief-bewaarde kommuni- kasie-verwante lasgewing kan slegs uitgereik word indien dit vir die betrokke regter van die Hoe Hof, streekhoflanddros of landdros voorkom, op die feite in die betrokke aansoek beweer, dat daar redelike gronde is om te glo dat-
+
+Act No. 19 of 2020
+92
+
+
+
Number and year of law
Short title
Extent of repeal or amendment
(b) the gathering of information concern- ing an actual threat to the public health or safety, national security or compelling national economic inter- ests of the Republic is necessary; (c) the gathering of information concern- ing a potential threat to the public health or safety or national security of the Republic is necessary; (d) the making of a request for the provision, or the provision to the competent authorities of a country or territory outside the Republic, of any assistance in connection with,or in the form of, the interception of com- munications relating to organised crime, an_offence_mentionedin Schedule II or any offence relating to terrorism or the gathering of informa- tion relating to organised crime or terrorism, is in- (i) accordance with an international mutual assistance agreement; or (ii) the interests of the Republic's international relations or obliga- tions; or (e) the gathering of information concern- ing an offence mentioned in Schedule I or property which is or could probably be an instrumentality of a serious offence, or is or could prob- ably be the proceeds of unlawful activities, is necessary, and that the provision of archived commu- nication-related information is necessary for purposes of investigating such offence or gathering such information." (e)The renaming of the Schedule to the Act as "Schedule I” and the addition of the following items: “15 Any offence contemplated in section 17,18,19A or 20 of the Criminal Law (Sexual Offences and Related Matters)Amendment Act, 2007 (Act No. 32 of 2007). 16 Any offence contemplated in- (a)section 8, 9(1) or (2) or 10, which involves an amount of R200 000, 00 or more; or (b)section 11(1) or (2) or 17 (in so far as the section relates to the offences referred to in section 11(1) or (2)), of the Cybercrimes Act, 2020.”.
+
+Wet op Kubermisdade, 2020
+
+93
+Wet No. 19 van 2020
+
+
+
Nommer en jaar van wet
Kort titel
Omvang van herroeping of wysiging
(b) die insameling van aangaande‘n werklike bedreiging van die openbare gesondheid of veiligheid, nasionale sekuriteit of dwingende nasionale ekonomiese belang van die Republiek nodig is; (c) dieinsameling van aangaande ‘n potensiele bedreiging van die openbare gesondheid of veiligheid of nasionale sekuriteit van die Republiek nodig is; (d) die rig van 'n versoek vir die voorsiening, of die voorsiening aan die bevoegde owerhede van 'n land of gebied buite die Republiek, van enige hulp in verband met, of in die vorm van, die onderskepping van kommunikasies met betrekking tot georganiseerde misdaad, 'n misdryf in Bylae II genoem of enige misdryf met betrekking tot terrorisme of die insameling van inligting met be- trekking tot georganiseerde misdaad of terrorisme- (i) ooreenkomstig ‘n internasionale onderlinge hulpooreenkoms is; of (ii) in belang van die internasionale betrekkinge of verpligtinge van die Republiek is; of (e) die insameling van inligting aan- gaande 'n misdryf in Bylae II genoem, of eiendom wat ‘n middel is of waarskynlik kan wees by‘n ernstige misdryf of die opbrengs is of waarskynlik kan wees van onwettige aktiwiteite nodig is, en dat die verstrekking van argief- bewaarde kommunikasie-verwante inlig- ting nodig is vir die doeleindes om so “n misdryf te ondersoek of sodanige inligting in te samel.". (e) Die herbenoeming van die Bylae tot die Wet as “Bylae I" en die byvoeging van die volgende items: “15Enige misdryf in artikels 17, 18, 19A of 20 van die Wysigingswet op die Strafreg(Seksuele Misdrywe en Verwante_Aangeleenthede),2007 (Wet No. 32 van 2007), beoog. 16 Enige misdryf beoog in- (a)artikel 8, 9(1) of (2) of 10 waarby 'n R200 000,00 of meer betrokke is; of (b) artikel 11(1) of (2) of 17 (vir sover die artikel in verband staan met die misdrywe bedoel in artikel 11(1) of (2), van die Wet op Kubermisdade, 2020.".
+
+94
+
+Act No. 19 of 2020
+
+
+
Number and year of law
Short title
Extent of repeal or amendment
Criminal Law
(f) 1 2
The addition of the following Schedule after Schedule I: “Schedule II Any offence referred to in- (a)section 3(1), 5,6,7(1),8,9(1) or (2), or 10; or (b) section 17 (in so far as the section relates to the offences referred to in paragraph (a)), of the Cybercrimes Act, 2020, which involves an amount of R50 000, 00 or more. Any offence which is substantially similar to an offence referred to in item 1 which is or was committed in a foreign State, which involves an
Act No.32 of 2007
(Sexual Offences and Related Mat- ters)Amendment Act,2007
amount of R50 000, 00 or more.". (a) The Index to the Criminal Law (Sexual Offences and Related Matters) Amend- 11A Harmful disclosure of pornography
ment Act, 2007, is hereby amended- (i) by the insertion of the following Part and items after item 11: “Part 3A Persons 18 years or older: Harmful disclosure of pornography and orders to protect complainant against harmful effects of disclosure of pornography
+
+Wet op Kubermisdade, 2020
+
+95
+
+Wet No. 19 van 2020
+
+
+
Nommer en jaar van wet
Kort titel
Omvang van herroeping of wysiging
Wet No.32 van 2007
Wysigingswet op
(f) Die volgende Bylae word na Bylae I bygevoeg: “Bylae II Enige misdryf bedoel in- (a)artikels3(1),5,6,7(1),8,9(1) of (2), of 10; of (b)artikel17 (vir sover die artikelin verband staan met die misdrywe in paragraaf (a) bedoel), van die Wet op Kubermisdade, 2020, waarby 'n bedrag van R50 000,00 of meer betrokke is. 2 Enige misdryf wat wesenlik soort- gelyk is aan 'n misdryf in item 1 bedoel wat in 'n vreemde Staat gepleeg word of was, waarby‘n bedrag van R50 000,00 of meer betrokke is.".
die Strafreg (Seksuele Misdrywe en Verwante Aangeleenthede), 2007
(a) Die Inhoudsopgawe tot die Wysigingswet op die Strafreg (Seksuele Misdrywe en Verwante Aangeleenthede), 2007, word hierby gewysig- (i) deur die volgende Deel en items na item 11 in te voeg: “Deel 3A "Persone 18 jaar of ouer: Skadelike openbaarmaking van pornografie en bevele omklaer teen dieskadelike uitwerking van openbaarmaking van pornografie te beskerm 11A Skadelike openbaarmaking van pornografie 11B Bevele om klaer teen skadelike openbaarmaking van porno- grafie te beskerm hangende afhandeling van strafregtelike verrigtinge 11C Elektroniese kommunikasie- diensverskaffer moet besonder- hede aan hof verskaf 11D Bevele by afhandeling van strafregtelike verrigtinge”; (ii) deur die opskrif tot Deel 2 van Hoofstuk 3 deur die volgende opskrif te vervang: “Seksuele uitbuiting en seksuele aanvoring van kinders, blootstelling of vertoon van of veroorsaking van blootstelling of vertoon van kinder- pornografie of pornografie aan kinders,kinderpornografie en gebruikmaking van kinders vir
+
+96
+
+Act No. 19 of 2020
+
+
+
Number and year of law
Short title
Extent of repeal or amendment
(iii) the insertion after item 19 of the following item: “19A. Offences relating to child por- nography". (b) The amendment of section (i) by the insertion, after the definition of “Director of Public Prosecutions”,of the following definitions: “‘disclose' and ‘disclosure', in rela- tion to the harmful disclosure of pornography contemplated in section 11A, includes- (a) to send the pornography to a person who is the intended re- cipient of the electronic commu- nication or any other person; (b) to store the pornography on an electronic communications net- work, where the pornography can be viewed, copied or down- loaded; or (c)to send or otherwise make avail- able to a person, a link to the pornography that has been stored on an electronic commu- nication network, where the por- nography can be viewed, copied or downloaded; ‘Electronic Communications Act' means the Electronic Communica- tions Act, 2005 (Act No. 36 of 2005); 'electronic communications iden- tity number' means a technical iden- tification label which represents the origin or destination of electronic communications traffic; ‘electronic communications net- work' means an ‘electronic commu- nications network' as defined in section 1 of the Electronic Communi- cations Act, 2005, and includes a computer system; ‘electronic communications ser- vice' means any service which con- sists wholly or mainly of the convey- ance by any means of electronic communications over an electronic communications_ network, but ex- cludes broadcasting services as de- fined in section 1 of the Electronic Communications Act, 2005; *electronic communications service provider'means-
+
+Wet op Kubermisdade, 2020
+
+Wet No. 19 van 2020
+97
+
+
+
Nommer en jaar van wet
Kort titel
Omvang van herroeping of wysiging
(iii) deur die volgende item na item 19 in te voeg: “19A. Misdrywe in verband met kinderpornografie". (b) Artikel 1 word gewysig- (i) deur die volgende omskrywings na die omskrywing van“Direkteur van Openbare Vervolgings" in te voeg: “"elektroniese kommunikasie- diens' enige diens wat in die geheel of hoofsaaklik bestaan uit oordrag, op enige wyse, van elek- troniese kommunikasiesoor elektroniese kommunikasienetwerk, met uitsondering van uitsaaidienste soos omskryf in artikel 1 van die Wet op Elektroniese Kommunikasie, 2005; ‘elektroniese kommunikasiediens- verskaffer'- (a) enige persoon wat ‘n elektro- niese kommunikasiediens ver- skaf aan die publiek, dele van die publiek, die Staat, of die intekenaars tot sodanige diens, kragtens en ooreenkomstig 'n elektroniese kommunikasie- dienslisensie aan persoon uitgereik ingevolge die Wet op Elektroniese Kommuni- kasie, 2005, of wat geag word gelisensieer of vrygestel van lisensiering as sodanig te wees ingevolgedaardie Wet; en (b)‘n_persoon wat magtiging het om die bedryf of gebruik van ‘n private elek- troniese kommunikasie- diensnetwerk te beheerwat hoofsaaklik gebruik word vir voorsiening van elektroniese kommunikasiedienste vir die eienaar se eie gebruik en wat van lisensiering vrygestel is ingevolge die Wet op Elektro- niese Kommunikasie, 2005; *elektroniese kommunikasie-iden- titeitsnommer’ ‘n tegniese identi- fikasie-etiket wat die oorsprong of bestemming van elektroniese kommunikasieverkeer woordig; ‘elektroniese kommunikasie- netwerk"'n ‘elektroniese kommuni- kasienetwerk' soos omskryf in artikel 1 van die Wet op Elektroniese Kommunikasie, 2005, en sluit ‘n rekenaarstelsel in;""
+
+Act No. 19 of 2020
+98
+
+
+
Number and year of law
Short title
Extent of repeal or amendment
(a)_any person who provides an electronic communications ser- vice to the public, sections of the public, the State, or the subscrib- ers to such service, under and in accordance with an electronic communications service licence issued to that person in terms of the Electronic Communications Act, 2005, or who is deemed to be licensed or exempted from being licensed as such in terms of that Act; and (b) a person who has lawful author- ity to control the operation or use of a private electronic com- munications network used pri- marily for providing electronic communications services for the owner's own use and which is exempted frombeing licensedin terms of the Electronic Commu- nications Act, 2005;"; and (ii) by the insertion, after the definition of “genital organs” of the following definitions: "*host' means to store information on an electronic communications net- work that is used to provide an electronic communications service, where it can be viewed,copied or downloaded; ‘live performance involving child pornography' means an event where
+
+Wet op Kubermisdade, 2020
+
+Wet No. 19 van 2020
+99
+
+
+
Nommer en jaar van wet
Kort titel
Omvang van herroeping of wysiging
(ii)) deur die volgende omskrywing na die omskrywing van “hof vir seksuele misdrywe" in te voeg: ‘huisves'ominligting op 'n elektroniese kommunikasienetwerk te berg wat gebruik word om ‘n elektroniese kommunikasiediens te verskaf, waar dit besigtig, gekopieer of afgelaai kan word;"; (iii) deur die volgende omskrywing na die omskrywing van “Nasionale Direkteur van Openbare Vervolg- ings" in te voeg: ‘openbaar maak' en ‘open- baarmaking', in verband met die skadelike openbaarmaking van pornografie in artikel 11A beoog, ook om- (a) die pornografie aan 'n persoon wat die bedoelde ontvanger van die elektroniese kommunikasie is of enige ander persoon te stuur; (b) die pornografie op ‘'n elek- troniese kommunikasienetwerk te berg, waar die _pornografie besigtig, gekopieer of afgelaai kan word; of (c)‘n skakel na die pornografie wat op 'n elektroniese kommuni- kasiediensnetwerk geberg is, aan‘n _persoon te stuur of andersins beskikbaar testel waar die pornografie besigtig, gekopieer of afgelaai kan word;"; (iv) deur die volgende omskrywing na die omskrywing van“pornografie” in te “‘regstreekse uitvoering wat kinderpornografie behels' 'n geleentheid waar 'n kind gebruik word om kinderpornografie te skep, te maak of te vervaardig;"; en (v) deur die volgende omskrywing na die omskrywing van“’sorggewer” in te voeg: voeg:
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+Act No. 19 of 2020
+100
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+
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Number and year of law
Short title
Extent of repeal or amendment
(c)The following Part and sections are hereby inserted in Chapter 2 after section 11: “Part3A Persons18years or older:Harmful disclosure ofpornography and ordersto protectcomplainant against harmful effects of disclosure of pornography Harmful disclosure of pornography 11A.(1)A person (°A')who unlawfully and intentionally discloses or causes the disclosure of pornography in which a person (°B') appears or is described and such disclosure- (a)_takes place without the consent of B; and (b) causes any harm, including mental, psychological,physical,social or economic harm, to B or any member of the family of B or any other person in a close relationship to B, is guilty of the offence of harmful disclo- sure of pornography. (2)A person (°A') who unlawfully and intentionally threatens to disclose or threatens to cause the disclosure of por- nography referred to in subsection (1) and such threat causes, or such disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause, any harm referred to in subsection (1)(b), is guilty of the offence of threatening to disclose pornography that will cause harm. (3)A person (°A')who unlawfully and intentionally threatens disclose or threatens to cause the disclosure of por- nography referred to in subsection (1), for the purposes of obtaining any advantage from B or any member of the family of B or any other person in a close relationship to B,is guilty of the offence of harmful disclosure of pornography related extor- tion. Orders to protect complainant against harmful disclosure of pornography pending finalisation of criminal pro-
+
+Wet op Kubermisdade, 2020
+
+Wet No. 19 van 2020
+101
+
+
+
Nommer en jaar van wet
Kort titel
Omvang van herroeping of wysiging
(c) Die volgende Deel en artikels word hierby na artikel 11 in Hoofstuk 2 ingevoeg: “Deel 3A Persone 18 jaar of ouer: Skadelike openbaarmaking van pornografieen beveleomklaer teenskadelike uitwerking van openbaarmakingvan pornografie te beskerm Skadelike openbaarmaking van pornografie 11A.(1)Iemand (A')wat weder- regtelik en opsetlik pornografie waarin 'n persoon (B') verskyn of beskryf word, openbaar maak of veroorsaak dat dit openbaar gemaak word,en sodanige openbaarmaking- (a)_vind plaas sonder B se toestemming; en (b) veroorsaak enige leed, met inbegrip van geestelike, psigologiese, fisieke, maatskaplike of ekonomiese leed, aan B of enige lid van B se familie of enige ander_persoon in 'n noue verwantskap met B, is skuldig aan die misdryf van skadelike openbaarmaking van pornografie. (2)Iemand ('A') wat wederregtelik en opsetlik dreig om pornografie soos bedoel in subartikel (1) openbaar te maak of dreig om die openbaarmaking daarvan _te veroorsaak, en sodanige dreigement enige leed, of sodanige openbaarmaking redelikerwys verwag kan word om enige leed, bedoel in subartikel (1)(b)te veroorsaak, is skuldig aan die misdryf van dreigement om pornografie openbaar te maak wat leed sal veroorsaak. (3)Iemand (°A')wat wederregtelik en opsetlik dreig om pornografie in subartikel (1) bedoel openbaar te maak of dreig om die openbaarmaking daarvan te ver- oorsaak ten einde enige voordeel van B of enige familielid van B of enige ander persoon in 'n noue verwantskap met B, te verkry, is skuldig aan die misdryf van skadelike openbaarmaking van porno- grafie verwante afpersing. Bevele ter beskerming van klaer teen skadelike openbaarmaking van porno- grafie beskerm hangende afhandeling van strafregtelike verrigtinge
+
+Act No. 19 of 2020
+102
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+
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Number and year of law
Short title
Extent of repeal or amendment
11B.(1) A complainant (hereinafter referred to as the applicant) who lays a charge with the South African Police Service that an offence contemplated in section 11A(1), (2) or (3) has allegedly been committed against him or her, may on an ex parte basis in the prescribed form and manner, apply to a magistrate's court for a _protection order pending the finalisation of the criminal proceedings to- (a)_prohibit person to disclose,or cause the disclosure or threaten the applicant with the disclosure or caus- ing the disclosure of pornography which relates to the charge; or (b) order an electronic communications service provider whose electronic communications service is used to host or disclose the_pornography which relates to the charge, to remove or disable access to such pornogra- phy. (2)The court must as soon as is reason- ably possible consider an application sub- mitted to it in terms of subsection (1) and may, for that purpose consider any addi- tional evidence it deems fit, including oral evidence or evidence by affidavit, which must form part of the record of the proceedings. (3)If the court is satisfied that there- (a)is prima facie evidence that an of- fence referred to in section 11A(1), (2) or (3), has allegedly been commit- ted against the applicant; and (b) are reasonable grounds to believe that a person referred to in subsection (1)(a), disclosed or caused the disclo- sure or threatened the applicant with the disclosure or causing the disclo- sure of such pornography; or (c)are reasonable grounds to believe that the electronic communications ser- vice of the electronic communica- tions service provider referred to in subsection (1)(b), is used to host or disclose such pornography, the court may, subject to such conditions as the court may deem fit, issue the order any
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+Wet op Kubermisdade, 2020
+
+Wet No. 19 van 2020
+103
+
+
+
Nommer en jaar van wet
Kort titel
Omvang van herroeping of wysiging
11B.(1) 'n Klaer (hierna die applikant genoem) wat 'n klag by die Afrikaanse Polisiediens indien dat misdryf inartikelA(1),(2)of(3)bg na bewering teen hom of haar gepleeg is, kan op 'n ex parte-grondslag op die voorgeskrewe vorm en wyse, landdroshof aansoek doen om beskermingsbevel hangende die handeling van die strafregtelike verrigtinge om- (a)enige persoon te belet om pornografie wat met die klag verband hou, openbaar te maak, of veroorsaak dat dit openbaar gemaak word of die applikant te dreig met die open- baarmaking of veroorsaking van die openbaarmaaking daarvan; of (b) 'n elektroniese kommunikasiediens- verskaffer wiese elektroniese kommunikasiediens gebruik word om die pornografie te huisves of openbaar te maak wat met die klag verband hou, te beveel om daardie pornografie te verwyder of toegang daartoe te deaktiveer. (2) Die hof moet 'n aansoek ingevolge subartikel (1) aan die hof voorgele, so gou as redelik moontlik oorweeg en kan, vir daardie doel, enige bykomende getuienis wat die hof gepas ag, oorweeg, met inbegrip van mondelinge getuienis of getuienis by wyse van beedigde ver- klaring,wat deel van die oorkonde van die verrigtinge moet uitmaak. (3) Indien die hof oortuig is dat daar- (a)_prima facie getuienisis dat"n misdryf in artikel 11A(1), (2) of (3) bedoel, na bewering teen applikant gepleeg is; en (b) redelike gronde is om te glo dat 'n persoon in subartikel (1)(a) bedoel, daardie pornografie openbaar gemaak het of openbaarmaking veroorsaak het of die applikant gedreig het met die openbaarmaking veroorsaaking van die openbaar- making van die pornografie; of (c)redelike gronde is om te glo dat die elektroniese kommunikasiediens van die elektroniese kommunikasiediens- verskaffer in subartikel (1)(b) bedoel, gebruik word om daardie pornografie te huisves of openbaar te maak, kan die hof, onderworpe aan sodanige voorwaardes wat die hof gepas ag, die bevel bedoel in subartikel(1) in die
+
+Act No. 19 of 2020
+104
+
+
+
Number and year of law
Short title
Extent of repeal or amendment
(4) The order, referred to in subsection (3), must be served on the person referred to in subsection (1)(a) or electronic com- munications service provider referred to in subsection (1)(b),in the prescribed man ner: Provided, that if the court is satisfied that the order cannot be served in the prescribed manner, the court may make an order allowing service to be effected in the formo1 pecified in thatorder. (5)An order referred to in subsection (3) is of force ife ctfromthe timeit1S issued by the court and the existence thereof has been brought to the attention of the person referred to in subsection (1)(a) or electronic communications service pro- vider referred to in subsection (1)(b). (6) A person referred to in subsection (1)(a), other than the person who is ac- cused of having committed the offence in question, or an electronic communications service rovider, referred to in subsection (1)(b) may,within 14 days after the order has been served on him, her or it in terms of subsection (4)or within such further period as the court may allow, upon notice to the magistrate's court concerned, in the prescribed form and manner, apply to the court for the setting aside or amendment of the order referred to in subsection (3). (7)(a) The court must as soon as is reasonably possible consider an applica- tion submitted to it in terms of subsection 6)and that purpose, consider such additional evidence as it deems fit, including oral evidence or evidence by affidavit, which must form part of the record of the proceedings. (b) The court may if good cause has been shown for the variation or setting aside of the protection order, issue an order to this effect. (8)The court nay for purposes of subsections (2) and (7), in the prescribed form and manner cause to be subpoenaed any person as a witness at those proceed- ings or to provide any book, document or object, if the evidence of that person or book, document or object appears to the court essential to the just decision of the
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Nommer en jaar van wet
Kort titel
Omvang van herroeping of wysiging
(4)Die bevel in subartikel (3) bedoel, moet aan die persoon in subartikel (1)(a) of elektroniese kommunikasiediens- verskaffer in subartikel (1)(b) bedoel, op die voorgeskrewe wyse beteken word: Met dien verstande dat indien die hof oortuig is dat die bevel nie op die voorgeskrewe wyse beteken kan word nie, die hof bevel kan gee wat betekening in die vorm ofop diewyse in daardie bevel gespesifiseer, toelaat. (5)'n Bevel in subartikel (3) bedoel, is van krag vanaf die oomblik wat dit deur die hof uitgereik word en die bestaan daarvan onder die aandag van die persoon bedoel in subartikel (1)(a) of elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer bedoel in subartikel (1)(b), gebring is. (6) Iemand in subartikel (1)(a) bedoel, anders as die persoon wat van die pleging van die betrokke misdryf beskuldig word, of 'n elektroniese kommunikasiediens- verskaffer in subartikel (1)(b) bedoel kan, binne 14 dae nadat die bevel ingevolge subartikel (4) aan hom of haar beteken is, of binne sodanige verdere tydperk wat die hof mag toelaat, by kennisgewing aan die betrokke landdroshof, opdievoor- geskrewe vorm en wyse, by die hof aansoek doen om die tersydestelling of wysiging van die bevel in subartikel (3) bedoel. (7)(a) Die hof moet aansoek ingevolge subartikel (6) aan die hof voorgele, SO gou as redelik moontlik oorweeg en kan vir daardiedoel sodanige bykomende getuienis soos die hof gepas ag, oorweeg, met inbegrip van mondelinge getuienis of getuienis by wyse van beedigde verklaring, wat deel van die oorkonde van die verrigtinge moet uit- maak. (b) Die hof kan, by die aanvoer van goeie gronde vir die wysiging of tersydestelling van die beskermingsbevel, 'n bevel te dien effekte uitreik. (8) Die hof kan, vir doeleindes van subartikels (2) en (7), op die voorgeskrewe vorm en wyse enige persoon laat dagvaar as 'n getuie by daardie verrigtinge of om enige boek, dokument of voorwerp voor te le, indien die getuienis van daardie persoon of boek, dokument of voorwerp 'n
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(9)A person referred to in subsection (1)(a) or electronic communications ser- vice_provider referred to in subsection (1)(b), that fails to comply with an order referred to in subsection (3) or any varia- tion thereof, is guilty of an offence. (10)Any person who is subpoenaed in terms of subsection (8) to attend proceed- ings and who fails to- (a)attend or to remain in attendance; (b)appear at the place and on the date and at the time to which the proceed- ings in question may be adjourned; (C) remain in attendance at those pro- ceedings as so adjourned; or (d)_produce any book, document or ob- ject specified in the subpoena, is guilty of an offence. (11) The provisions in respect of appeal and review as provided for in the Magis- trates' Courts Act, 1944, and the Superior Courts Act, 2013, apply to proceedings in terms of this section. (12) Sections 8 and 9(3) of the Protec- tion from Harassment Act, 2011 (Act No. 17 of 2011), apply with the necessary changes required by the context to pro- ceedings contemplated in subsections (2) and (7). Electronic communications service pro- vider to furnish particulars to court 11C.(1) If an application for a protec- tion order is made in terms of section 11B(1) and the court is satisfied in terms of section 11B(3) that a protection order must be issued and the particulars of the person referred to in section 11B(1)(a), or the electronic communications service_ pro- vider referred to in section 11B(1)(b), whose service is used to host or disclose such pornography, is not known, the court may- (a)adjourn the proceedings to any time and date on the terms and conditions which the court deems appropriate; and
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Nommer en jaar van wet
Kort titel
Omvang van herroeping of wysiging
(9) Iemand in subartikel (1)(a) bedoel, of‘n elektroniese kommunikasiediens- verskaffer in subartikel (1)(b) bedoel, wat versuim om aan 'n bevel in subartikel (3) bedoel of enige wysiging daarvan, te voldoen, is skuldig aan 'n misdryf. (10)Enige persoon wat ingevolge subartikel (8) gedagvaar is om verrigtinge by te woon en wat versuim om- (a)dit by te woon of teenwoordig te bly; (b)te verskyn by die plek en op die datum en die tyd waarheen die betrokke verrigtinge verdaag mag word; (C) teenwoordig tebly by daardie verrigtinge aldus verdaag; of (d)enige boek, dokument of voorwerp in die dagvaarding gespesifiseer voor te 1e, is skuldig aan 'n misdryf. (11) Die bepalings ten opsigte van appel en hersiening soos in die Wet op Landdroshowe, 1944, en die Wet op Hoer Howe, 2013, voor voorsiening gemaak, is van toepassing op verrigtinge ingevolge hierdie artikel. (12) Artikels 8 en 9(3)van die Wet op Beskerming teen Teistering, 2011 (Wet No. 17 van 2011), is van toepassing met die nodige veranderinge deur die samehang vereis op verrigtinge in subartikels (2) en (7) beoog. Elektroniese kommunikasiediens- verskaffer moet besonderhede aan hof verskaf 11C.(1) Indien daar ingevolge artikel 11B(1) om ‘n beskermingsbevel aansoek gedoen word en die hof is ingevolge artikel 11B(3) oortuig dat 'n be- skermingsbevel uitgereik moet word en die besonderhede van die persoon in artikel 11B(1)(a) bedoel, of die elek- troniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer in artikel 11B(1)(b) bedoel, wie se diens gebruik is om daardie pornografie te huisves of openbaar te maak, is nie bekend nie, kan die hof- (a)die verrigtinge verdaag tot enige tyd en datumopdie bepalingsen voorwaardes wat die hof doenlik ag;
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+Wet op Kubermisdade, 2020
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Nommer en Kort titel jaar van wet
Omvang van herroeping of wysiging (b)'n lasgewing in die voorgeskrewe vorm uitreik, wat ‘n elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer,wat geglo_word in_staat te weesom daardie besonderhede te verskaf, gelas om die hof op die voorgeskrewe wyse deur middel van ‘n beedigde verklaring in die voorgeskrewe vorm te voorsien van- (i) die elektroniese kommunikasie- identiteitsnommer van waar daardie pornografie afkomstig was: die naam, van, identiteits- nommer en adres van die persoon aan wie die elektroniese kommunikasie- identiteitsnommer toegeken is; (ii) enige inligting wat aandui dat daardie pornografie vanaf die elektroniese kommunikasie- identiteitsnommer van die persoon na die elektroniese kommunikasie- identiteitsnommer van die applikant gestuur is al dan nie; (iv) enige inligting wat beskikbaar is aan'n elektroniese kommu- nikasiediensverskaffer wat die hof behulpsaam kan wees om die_persoon_bedoel in artikel
(ii) (v) wat-
11B(1)(a) of die elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer bedoel in artikel 11B(1)(b), wat 'n diens aan daardie persoon verskaf,teidentifiseer; enige inligting wat aan 'n elektroniese kommunikasie- diensverskaffer beskikbaar is (aa) bevestig of hul elektroniese kommunikasiediens gebruik word om daardie pornografie te huisves of gebruik was of word om daardie pornografie open- baar te maak al dan nie; of (bb) die hof behulpsaam kan wees om die elektroniese kommunikasiediensver- skaffer te identifiseer wie se diens gebruik word om die betrokke pornografie te huisves of gebruik was of word om dit openbaar te maak; of
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(b) An electronic communications ser- vice provider on which a direction is served, may in the prescribed manner by means of an affidavit in the prescribed form apply to the court for- (i) an extension of the period of five ordinary_court days referred to in paragraph (a) for a further period of five ordinary court days on the grounds that the information cannot be provided timeously; or (ii)the cancellation of the direction on the grounds that- (aa) it does not provide an electronic communications service to the applicant or the person referred
Extent of repeal or amendment (vi) an assessment whether or not the electronic communications ser- vice provider is in a position to- (aa) remove such pornography or a link to such pornogra- phy; or (bb) disable access to such por- nography or a link to such pornography. (2) If the court issues a direction in terms of subsection (1)(b) the court must direct that the direction be served on the electronic communications service pro- vider in the prescribed manner: Provided, that if the court is satisfied that the direction cannot be served in the pre- scribed manner, the court may make an order allowing service to be effected in the form or manner specified in that order. (3)(a) The information referred to in subsection (1)(b) must be provided to the court within five ordinary court days from the time that the direction is served on an electronic communications service pro- vider.
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Omvang van herroeping of wysiging (vi) 'n assessering of die elektro- niese kommunikasiediensver- skaffer in ‘n posisie is, al dan nie,om- (aa) daardie pornografie of 'n skakel na daardie por- nografie te verwyder; of (bb) toegang pornografie of 'n skakel na daardie pornografie deaktiveer. (2)Indien die hof ingevolge subartikel (1)(b) uitreik, moet die hof gelas dat die lasgewing op die voorgeskrewe wyse aan die elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer word: Met dien verstande, dat indien die hof oortuig is dat die lasgewing nie op die voorgeskrewe wyse beteken kan word nie, die hof 'n bevel kan gee wat betekening in die vorm of op die wyse in daardie bevel gespesifiseer, toelaat. (3) (a) Die inligting in subartikel (1)(b) bedoel, moet binne vyf gewone hofdae vanaf die dag waarop die lasgewing aan 'n elektroniese kommunikasiediensver- skaffer beteken is, aan die hof verskaf word. (b)'n Elektroniese kommunikasiediens- verskaffer aan wie 'n lasgewing beteken is, kan op die voorgeskrewe wyse en deur middel van ‘n beedigde verklaring in die voorgeskrewe vorm by die hof aansoek doen om- (i)'n verlenging van die tydperk van vyf gewone hofdae in paragraaf (a) bedoel vir 'n verdere tydperk van vyf gewone hofdae op grond daarvan dat die inligting nie tydig voorsien kan word nie; of (ii)die kansellasie van die lasgewing op grond daarvan dat—
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(b) may, in the prescribed manner, re- quest such additional evidence by way of affidavit from the electronic
communications service provider as it deems fit;:
(c)must give_ a decision in respect thereof; and (d)must inform the electronic communi-
cations service provider in the pre- scribed form and manner of the out- come of the application. (5) (a) The court may, on receipt of an
affidavit from an electronic communica- tions service provider which contains the information
referred to in subsection
(1)(b), consider the issuing of a protection
order in terms of section 11B(3) against the person or electronic communications
service provider on the date to which the proceedings have been adjourned. (b) Any information furnished to the court in terms of subsection (1)(b) forms
part of the evidence that a court may consider in terms of section 11B(3).
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Omvang van herroeping of wysiging
(b) kan die hof, op die voorgeskrewe wyse, sodanige bykomende getuienis versoek bywyse vanbeedigde verklaringvan die elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffersoos wat die hof goeddink; (C) moet die hof daaroor beslis; en (d)moet die hof dieelektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer op die voorgeskrewe vorm en wyse van die uitslag van die aansoek verwittig. (5) (a) Die hof kan, by ontvangs van 'n beedigde verklaring van 'n elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer inligting bedoel in subartikel (1)(b) bevat, die uitreiking van ‘n beskermingsbevel ingevolge artikel 11B(3) teen die persoon of elektroniese kommunikasiediens- verskaffer oorweegop diedatum waarheen die verrigtinge verdaag is. (b) Enige inligting wat ingevolge subartikel (1)(b) aan die hof verskaf is, maak deel uit van die getuienis wat 'n hof ingevolge artikel 1B(3)kan oorweeg. (6) Die Kabinetslid verantwoordelik vir die regspleging kan, by kennisgewing in die Staatskoerant,redelike tariewevoor- skryf vir vergoeding betaalbaar elektroniese kommunikasiediensver- skaffers vir die verskaffing inligting in subartikel (1)(b) bedoel. (7)Enige elektroniese kommunikasie- diensverskaffer of werknemer van‘n elektroniese kommunikasiediens- verskafferwat- (a)versuim om die vereiste inligting binne vyf gewone hofdae vanaf die dag waarop die lasgewing aan daardie elektroniese kommunikasie- diensverskaffer beteken is, aan 'n hof te verskaf ingevolge subartikel (3)(a) of sodanige verlengde tydperk wat ingevolge subartikel (3)(b) deur die hof toegelaat word; of (b) 'n vals verklaring in ‘n wesenlike opsig in 'n beedigde verklaring bedoel in subartikel (1)(b) of (3)(b) maak, is skuldig aan 'n misdryf. Bevele by afhandelingvan regtelike verrigtinge 11D.(1) Die verhoorhof, wat 'n persoon
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(a)that person to destroy the pornogra- phy and to submit an affidavit in the prescribed form to the_prosecutor identified in the order, that the por- nography has been so destroyed; or (b) an electronic communications service provider whose service is used to host or disclose such pornography to re- move or disable access to such por- nography. (2) The order referred to in subsection (1)(b), must be in the prescribed form and must be served on the electronic commu- nications service provider in the pre- scribed manner: Provided, that if the trial court is satisfied that the order cannot be
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Omvang van herroeping of wysiging
beveel die
(a)daardie persoon om pornografie te vernietig en om 'n verklaring
beedigde in die voorgeskrewe vorm aan die aanklaer in die bevel geidentifiseer, voor te le, dat die pornografie aldus vernietig is;
of (b)"n elektroniese kommunikasiediens- verskaffer wie se diens gebruik word om daardie pornografie te huisves of openbaar te maak, beveel om daardie pornografie te verwyder of toegang daartoe te deaktiveer.
elektroniese kommunikasiediensver-
moet in die voorgeskrewe vorm wees en
(2)Die bevel in subartikel (1)(b) bedoel, moet op die voorgeskrewe wyse aan die
skaffer beteken word: Met dien verstande dat, indien die verhoorhof oortuig is dat
die bevel nie op die voorgeskrewe wyse
beteken kan word nie, die hof 'n bevel kan
gee wat betekening in die vorm of op die
wyse in daardie bevel gespesifiseer,
toelaat.
(3)Enige persoon of elektroniese
kommunikasiediensverskafer_ wat_ ver-
suim om aan 'n bevel in subartikel (1)
bedoel te voldoen, is skuldig aan‘n
misdryf.
(4)'n Elektroniese kommunikasiediens-
verskaffer kan, binne 14 dae na die bevel
bedoel in subartikel (1)(b), ingevolge
subartikel (2) daaraan beteken is, by kennisgewing
aan die betrokke ver- hoorhof, op die voorgeskrewe vorm en wyse, by die verhoorhof aansoek doen om
die tersydestelling of wysiging van die bevel.
redelikerwys
(5) (a) Die verhoorhof moet so gou as
moontlik 'n aansoek
ingevolge subartikel (4) daaraan voorgele,
oorweeg en kan vir daardie doel sodanige
bykomende getuienis oorweeg wat die hof
gepas ag, met inbegrip van mondelinge
getuienis of getuienis by wyse van
beedigde verklaring, wat deel van die
oorkonde moet uitmaak.
(b) Die hof kan, by die aanvoer van
dien effekte uitreik.
grondevir die wysiging of tersydestelling van die bevel, 'n bevel te goeie
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(6) The trial court may, for purposes of subsections (5)(a), in the prescribed form and manner cause to be subpoenaed any person as a witness at those proceedings or to provide any book, document or object, if the evidence of that person or book, document or object appears to the court essential to the just decision of the case. (7)Any person who is subpoenaed in terms of subsection (6) to attend proceed- ings and who fails to- (a)attend or to remain in attendance; (b) appear at the place and on the date and at the time to which the proceed- ings in question may be adjourned; (c) remain in attendance at those pro- ceedings as so adjourned; or (d) produce any book, document or ob- ject specified in the subpoena, is guilty of an offence. (8) For purposes of this section “trial court”means- (a)a magistrate's court established under section 2(1)(f(i) of the Magistrates' Courts Act, 1944; (b)_a court for a regional division estab- lished under section 2(1)(g)(i) of the Magistrates' Courts Act, 1944; or (c)a High Court referred to in section 6(1) of the Superior Courts Act, 2013. (9) Whenever a person is convicted of an offence referred to in section 11A(1), (2) or (3), the trial court must issue an order that the person so convicted must reimburse all expenses reasonably in- curred by- (a)a complainant_ as a result_ of any direction issued in terms of section 11C(1)(b); or (b) an electronic communications service provider to remove or disable access to such pornography, whereupon the provisions of section 300 of the Criminal Procedure Act, 1977, shall apply with the necessary changes required by the context, to such order." (d) Chapter 3 is hereby amended- (i) by the substitution for the heading to Part 2 of Chapter 3 of the following heading:
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Omvang van herroeping of wysiging
(6)Die verhoorhof kan, by die toepassing van subartikel (5)(a), enige persoon op die voorgeskrewe vorm en wyse laat dagvaar as getuie by daardie verrigtinge of om enige boek, dokument of voorwerp voor te lé, indien die getuienis van daardie persoon of boek, dokument of voorwerp vir die hof noodsaaklik blyk te wees vir die regverdige beslissing van die saak. (7) Enige _persoon wat ingevolge subartikel (6) gedagvaar is om verrigtinge by te woon en wat versuim om- (a) dit by te woon of teenwoordig te bly; (b) te verskyn by die plek en op die datumwaarheendiebetrokke verrigtinge verdaag kan word; (c) teenwoordig te bly by daardie ver- rigtinge aldus verdaag; of (d) enige boek, dokument of voorwerp in die dagvaarding gespesifiseer, voor te 1e, is skuldig aan 'n misdryf. (8) By die toepassing van hierdie artikels, beteken‘verhoorhof'- (a)n landdroshof ingestelkragtens artikel 2(1)(f)(i) van die Wet op Landdroshowe, 1944; (b)'n hof vir 'n streeksafdeling ingestel kragtens artikel 2(1)(g)(i) van die Wet op Landdroshowe, 1944; of (c) 'n Hooggeregshof bedoel in artikel 6(1) van die Wet op Hoer Howe, 2013. (9) Wanneer 'n persoon ook al aan 'n misdryf in artikel 11A(1), (2) of (3) skuldig bevind word, moet die verhoorhof 'n bevel gee dat die persoon wat aldus skuldig bevind is, alle koste moet vergoed wat redelikerwys aangegaan is deur- (a)'n klaer na aanleiding van enige lasgewing ingevolge artikel 11C(1)(b) uitgereik; of (b)'n elektroniese kommunikasiediens- verskaffer om daardie pornografie te verwyder of toegang daartoe te deaktiveer, waarop die bepalings van artikel 300 van die Strafproseswet, 1977, met die nodige veranderinge deur die samehang vereis, by daardie bevel van toepassing sal wees." (d) Hoofstuk 3 word hierby gewysig- (i)deur die opskrif by Deel 2 Hoofstuk 3 deur die volgende opskrif te vervang: van
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"Sexual exploitation and sexual grooming of children, exposure or display of or causing exposure or display of child pornography or por- nography to children, offences relat- ing to child pornography and using children for pornographic purposes or benefiting from child pornogra- phy"; (ii) by the addition to section 17 of the following subsection: “(7) Any person who unlawfully and intentionally in any manner ad- vocates, advertises, encourages_or promotes the sexual exploitation of a child, is guilty of an offence."; (iii) by the insertion of the following section after section 19: "Offences relating to child pornog- raphy 19A.(1) Any person who unlaw- fully and intentionally creates, makes or produces child pornography in any manner, other than by using a child for child pornography as contem- plated in section 20(1), is guilty of an offence. (2)Any_ person who unlawfully and intentionally, in any manner assists in, or facilitates the creation, making or production of child por- nography, is guilty of an offence. (3) Any person who unlawfully and intentionally possesses child por- nography, is guilty of an offence. (4) Any person who unlawfully and intentionally, in any manner (a)distributes; (b)makes available; (c) transmits; (d)offers for sale; (e)sells; (f)offers to procure; (g)procures; (h)accesses; (i)downloads; or (j)views, child pornography, is guilty of an offence. (5)Any _person who unlawfully and intentionally, in any manner assists in, or facilitates the-
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Kort titel
Omvang van herroeping of wysiging
"Seksuele uitbuiting en seksuele aanvoring van kinders, blootstelling of vertoon van of veroorsaking van blootstelling of vertoon kinderpornografie of pornografie aan kinders,misdrywe in verband met kinderpornografie en gebruik- making van kinders vir porno- grafiese doeleindes of voordeel- trekking uit kinderpornografie"; (ii) deur die volgende subartikel by artikel 17 te voeg: “(7) Enige persoon wat weder- regtelik en opsetlik op enige wyse die seksuele uitbuiting van'n kind verkondig, adverteer, aanmoedig of bevorder, is skuldig aan 'n misdryf."; (iii) deur die volgende artikel na artikel 19 van die Wet in te voeg: “Misdrywe in verband met kinder- pornografie 19A.(1)Iemand wat wederregtelik en opsetlik kinderpornografie skep, maak of vervaardig, op enige wyse, anders as om ‘n kind vir kinder- pornografie te gebruik soos in artikel 20(1) beoog, is skuldig aann misdryf. (2) Iemand wat wederregtelik en opsetlik, op enige wyse behulpsaam is met die skepping, maakof vervaardiging van kinderpornografie of dit fasiliteer, is skuldig aan ‘n misdryf. (3) Iemand wat wederregtelik en opsetlik kinderpornografie besit, is skuldig aan 'n misdryf. (4) Iemand wat wederregtelik en opsetlik, op enige wyse (a)kinderpornografie versprei; (b)_kinderpornografie beskikbaar stel; (c) kinderpornografie oorsend; (d) kinderpornografie te koop aan- bied; (e) kinderpornografie verkoop; (f) aanbied om kinderpornografie te verkry; (g) kinderpornografie verkry; (h)toegang kry tot pornografie; (i) kinderpornografie aflaai; of (j)kinderpornografie besigtig, is skuldig aan 'n misdryf. (5) Iemand wat wederregtelik en opsetlik op enige wyse met die-
(b)making available; transmission; offering for sale; selling; offering to procure; procuring; accessing; downloading; or viewing, of child pornography, is guilty of an (6) Any person who unlawfully and intentionally processes or facili- tates a financial transaction, knowing that such transaction will facilitate a contravention of subsections (1)to (5), is guilty of an offence."; and (iv)by the addition to section 20 of the following subsections: “(3)Any person who unlawfully and intentionally- (c)_participates in, a live performance involving child pornography, is guilty of the offence of attending, viewing or participating in, a performance involving child (4) Any person(“A") who unlaw- fully and intentionally recruits a child complainant (“B"), with or without the consent of B, whether for finan- cial or other reward, favour or com- pensation to B or a third person ("C") or not, for purposes of- (a)creating, making or producing of child pornography, is guilty of the offence of recruiting a child for child pornography; or (b)_participating in a live perfor- mance involving child pornog- raphy, as contemplated in sub- section (3), is_guilty _of the offence of recruiting a child for participating in a live perfor-
+
+Wet op Kubermisdade, 2020
+
+Wet No. 19 van 2020
+121
+
+
+
Nommer en jaar van wet
Kort titel
Omvang van herroeping of wysiging
(c) (e) aan
(a)_verspreiding van kinderporno- grafie; (b) beskikbaarstelling van kinder- pornografie; oorsending van kinderporno- grafie; (d)te koop aanbieding van kinder- pornografie; verkoop van kinderpornografie; (f)aanbieding_ om kinderporno- grafie te verkry; (g)_verkryging van kinderporno- grafie; (h) _verkryging van toegang tot kinderpornografie; (i)aflaai van kinderpornografie; of (j)besigtiging van kinder- pornografie, bystand verleen of dit fasiliteer, is skuldig aan 'n misdryf. (6)Iemand wat wederregtelik en opsetlik 'n finansiele transaksie verwerk of fasiliteer, wetende dat daardie transaksie 'n oortreding van subartikels (1) tot (5) sal fasiliteer, is skuldig aan 'n misdryf."; en (iv) artikel 20 word gewysig, deur die volgende subartikels by te voeg: “(3) Iemand wat wederregtelik en opsetlik 'n regstreekse uitvoering wat kinderpornografie behels— (a)bywoon; (b)besigtig; of (c)daaraan deelneem, is skuldig aan die misdryf van bywoning, besigtiging of deelname 'nvertoning wat kinder- pornografie behels. (4) Iemand (‘A') wat wederregtelik en opsetlik ‘n klaer of klaagster wat 'n kind is (B'), met of sonder die toestemming van B, werf, hetsy vir finansiele of ander beloning, guns of vergoeding aan B of 'n derde persoon (‘C') al dan nie, ten einde- (a)kinderpornografie te skep, te maak of te vervaardig, is skuldig aan die misdryf van werwing van 'n kind vir kinderporno- grafie; of (b) deel te neem aan 'n regstreekse uitvoering wat kinderporno- grafie behels, soos in subartikel (3)beoog, is skuldig aan die misdryf van werwing van'n kind vir deelname aan'n regstreekseuitvoeringwat
+
+Act No. 19 of 2020
+122
+
+
+
Number and year of law
Short title
Extent of repeal or amendment
(e)
Section 54 of the Act is amended by the addition of the following subsections: “(3) Any person who, having know- ledge of the commission of any offence referred to in section 19A, or having reason to suspect that such an offence has been or is being or will probablybe committed and unlawfully and intention- ally fails to- (a) report such knowledge or suspicion as_ soon_ as possible to the South African Police Service; or (b) furnish, at the request of the South African Police Service, all particulars of such knowledge or suspicion, is guilty of an offence. (4)An electronic communications ser- vice_provider that is aware or becomes aware that its electronic communications service or electronic communications net- work is used or involved in the commis- sion of any offence provided for in section 19A, must- (a)immediately report the offence to the South African Police Service; (b) preserve any information which may be of assistance to the South African Police Service in investigating the
+
+Wet op Kubermisdade, 2020
+
+Wet No. 19 van 2020
+123
+
+
+
Nommer en jaar van wet
Kort titel
Omvang van herroeping of wysiging
(e)Artikel 54 van die Wet word gewysig deur die volgende subartikels by te voeg: “(3) Iemand wat, met kennis van die pleging van enige misdryf in artikel 19A bedoel, of wat rede het om te vermoed dat so 'n misdryf gepleeg is of gepleeg word of waarskynlik gepleeg sal word en wederregtelik en opsetlik versuim om- (a) daardie kennis of vermoede so gou moontlik by die Suid-Afrikaanse Polisiediens aan te meld; of (b) op versoek van die Suid-Afrikaanse Polisiediens, alle besonderhede van daardie kennis of vermoede, te verskaf, is skuldig aan 'n misdryf. (4)'n Elektroniese kommunikasiediens- verskaffer watbewus is of bewusword dat hul elektroniese kommunikasiediens of elektroniese_kommunikasienetwerk ge- bruik word of betrek is by die pleging van enige misdryf in artikel 19A bedoel, moet- (a) die misdryf onmiddellik by die Suid- Afrikaanse Polisiediens aanmeld; (b)enige inligting bewaar wat die Suid- Afrikaanse Polisiediens behulpsaam kan wees in die ondersoek van die misdryf; en (c)alle redelike stappe neem om toegang deur enige persoon tot die kinderpornografie te voorkom." (f) Artikel 56A word gewysig deur die volgende subartikels by te voeg: “(3) (a) Iemand wat die bepalings van artikel 11A(1) of (2) oortree, is strafbaar by skuldigbevinding met 'n boete of met gevangenisstraf vir 'ntydperkvan hoogstens 5 jaar of met beide daardie boete en gevangenisstraf. (b) Iemand wat die bepalings van artikel 11A(3) oortree, is strafbaar by skuldigbevinding met 'n boete of met gevangenisstraf vir 'n tydperk van hoogstens 10 jaar of met beide daardie boete en gevangenisstraf. (c) Iemand of 'n elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer wat aan 'n misdryf bedoel in subartikel 11B(9) of (10) skuldig bevind word, is strafbaar by skuldigbevinding met 'n boete of met gevangenisstraf vir 'n tydperkvan hoogstens 2 jaar of met beide daardie
+
+Act No. 19 of 2020
+124
+
+
+
Number and year of law
Short title
Extent of repeal or amendment
(d) Any person or electronic communi- cations service provider that is convicted of an offence referred to in section 11C(7), is liable, on conviction to a fine or to imprisonment for a period not exceeding two years or to both such fine and impri- sonment. (e) Any electronic communications ser- vice provider or person that is convicted of an offence referred to in section 11D(3) or (7), is liable on conviction to a fine or to imprisonment for a period not exceeding 2 years or to both such fine and imprison- ment. (4) Any person who contravenes the provisions of section 19A(3), (4)(f), (g), (h), (i) or (j), or (5)(f),(g), (h), (i) or (j) is liable- (a)in the case of a first conviction, to a fine or to imprisonment for a period not exceeding five years or to both such fine and imprisonment; (b) in the case of a second conviction, to a fine or to imprisonment for a period not exceeding 10 years or to both such fine and imprisonment; or (c)in the case of a third and subsequent conviction, to a fine or to imprison- ment for a period not exceeding 15 years or to both such fine and impri- sonment. (5)Any person who contravenes the provisions of section 17(7), 19A(1), (2), (4)(a),(b),(c),(d), or (e),(5)(a),(b),(c), (d) or (e) or 20(3) or (4), is liable- (a)in the case of a first conviction, to a fine or to imprisonment for a period not exceeding 10 years or to both such fine and imprisonment; or (b) in the case of a second and subse- quent conviction, to a fine or to imprisonment for a period not ex- ceeding 15years or to both such fine and imprisonment. (6)Any person who contravenes the provisions of section 19A(6), is liable- (a)in the case of a first conviction, to a fine of R1 000 000 or to imprison- ment for a period not exceeding 5
+
+Wet op Kubermisdade, 2020
+
+Wet No. 19 van 2020
+125
+
+
+
Nommer en jaar van wet
Kort titel
Omvang van herroeping of wysiging (d) Iemand of 'n elektroniese
(c)
kommunikasiediensverskaffer wat aan 'n misdryf bedoel in artikel 11C(7) skuldig bevind word, is strafbaar by skuldigbevinding met 'n boete of met gevangenisstraf vir 'n tydperk van hoogstens 2 jaar of met beide daardie boete en gevangenisstraf. (e)‘n Elektroniese kommunikasie- diensverskaffer of persoon wat aan ‘n misdryf bedoel in artikel 11D(3) of (7) skuldig bevind word, isstrafbaarby skuldigbevinding met 'n boete of met gevangenisstraf vir 'n tydperk van hoogstens 2 jaar of met beide daardie boete en gevangenisstraf. (4) Iemand wat die bepalings van artikel 19A(3),(4)(f), (g), (h),(i) of (j), of (5)(f), (g),(h), (i) of (j) oortree, is strafbaar- (a)indiegeval van 'neerste skuldigbevinding, met ‘n boete of met gevangenisstraf vir 'n tydperk van hoogstens 5 jaar of met beide sodanige boete en gevangenisstraf; (b)indie geval van 'n tweede skuldigbevinding, met 'n boete of met gevangenisstraf vir ‘n tydperk van hoogstens 10 jaar of met beide daardie boete en gevangenisstraf; of in die geval van 'n derde en daaropvolgende skuldigbevinding, met 'n boete of met gevangenisstraf vir 'n tydperk van hoogstens 15 jaar of met beide daardie boete en gevangenisstraf. (5)Iemand wat die bepalings van artikel 17(7), 19A(1), (2), (4)(a), (b), (c) (d) of (e),(5)(a),(b),(c),(d) of (e) of 20(3) of (4) oortree, is strafbaar- (a)in die geval van 'n eerste skuldigbevinding, met 'n boete of met gevangenisstraf vir 'n tydperk van hoogstens 10 jaar of met beide daardie boete en gevangenisstraf; of (b)in die geval van'n tweede en daaropvolgendeskuldigbevinding, met 'n boete of met gevangenisstraf vir 'n tydperk van hoogstens 15 jaar of met beide daardie boete en gevangenisstraf. (6)Iemand wat die bepalings van artikel 19A(6) oortree, is strafbaar- (a) in die geval van n eerste skuldigbevinding,met 'n boete van R1 000 000 of met gevangenisstraf vir 'n tydperk van hoogstens 5 jaar of metbeidedaardie boete en
+
+Act No. 19 of 2020
+126
+
+
+
Number and year of law
Short title
Extent of repeal or amendment
Act No. 75 of 2008
(b)in the case of a second or subsequent conviction, to a fine of R2 000 000 or to imprisonment for a period not exceeding 10 years or to both such fine and imprisonment. (7)Any person who contravenes the provisions of section 54(3), is liable,on conviction to a fine or to imprisonment for a period not exceeding 5 years or to both such fine and imprisonment. (8) Any electronic communications ser- vice provider who contravenes the provi- sions of section 54(4), is liable, on convic- tion to a fine not exceeding R1 000 000 or to imprisonment for a period not exceed- ing 5 years or to both such fine and imprisonment."
Child Justice Act, 2008
(a) The addition of the following item to Schedule 2: “26. Any offence contemplated in- (a)section 2, 3 or 4 of the Cybercrimes Act,2020; (b) section 5,6, 7 or 11(1) of the Cybercrimes Act, 2020, where the damage caused does not exceed an amount of R5000; (c) section 14, 15 or 16 of the Cyber- crimes Act, 2020; or (d)section 8, 9 or 10 of the Cybercrimes Act, 2020, where the amount in- volved does not exceed R1500. 27. An offence contemplated in section 11A(1) and (2) of Criminal Law (Sexual Offences and Related Matters) Amend- ment Act, 2007." (b) The addition of the following item to Schedule 3: “23. Any offence contemplated in- (a)section 5,6, 7 or 11(1)of the Cybercrimes Act, 2020,where the damage caused exceeds an amount of R5000; (b) section 8, 9 or 10 of the Cybercrimes Act, 2020, where the amount in- volved exceeds R1500; or (c)section 11(2) of the Cybercrimes Act, 2020. 24. An offence contemplated in section 11A(3) of Criminal Law (Sexual Offences
+
+Wet op Kubermisdade, 2020
+
+Wet No. 19 van 2020
+127
+
+
+
Nommer en jaar van wet
Kort titel
Omvang van herroeping of wysiging
Molao 75 wa 2008
(b) in die geval van 'n tweede en daaropvolgende skuldigbevinding, met 'n boete van R2 000 000 of met gevangenisstraf vir 'n tydperk van hoogstens 10 jaar of met beide daardie boete en gevangenisstraf. (7)Iemand wat die bepalings van artikel 54(3) oortree, is strafbaar by skuldig- bevinding met n boete of met gevangenisstraf vir 'n tydperkvan hoogstens vyf jaar of met beide daardie boete en gevangenisstraf. (8)'n Elektroniese kommunikasiediens- verskaffer wat die bepalings van artikel 54(4)oortree, is strafbaar by skuldig- bevinding met 'n boete van hoogstens R1 000 000 of met gevangenisstraf vir 'n
Molao wa Bosiamisi wa Ngwana,
tydperk van hoogstens vyf jaar of met beide daardie boete en gevangenisstraf." (a) Go tsenngwa ga ntlha e e latelang mo eejuleng 2: "26. Tlolomolao nngwe le nngwe e e umakilweng mo- (a)karolong2, kgotsa 4 ya Cybercrimes Act, 2020; (b) dikarolong 5, 6, 7 kgotsa 11(1) tsa Cybercrimes Act, 2020, fa tshenyegelo e e dirilweng e le kwa tlase ga bokana ka R5000; (c) karolo 14, 15 kgotsa 16 ya Cybercrimes Act, 2020; kgotsa (d) karolo 8, 9 kgotsa 10 ya Cybercrimes Act, 2020, fa tlhotlhwa e e amegang e le kwa tlase ga R1500. 27. Tlolomolao nngwe le nngwe e e umakilweng mo karolong 11A (1) le (2) ya Criminal Law (Sexual Offences and Re- lated Matters)Amendment Act,2007.". (b) Go tsenngwa ga ntlha e e latelang mo eejuleng 3: "23. Tlolomolao nngwe le nngwe e e umakilweng mo- (a)karolong 5, 6, 7 kgotsa 11(1) ya Cybercrimes Act, 2020, fa tshenyegelo e e dirilweng e le kwa godimo ga bokana ka R5000; (b) karolo 8, 9 kgotsa 10 ya Cybercrimes Act, 2020, fa tlhotlhwae e amegang e le kwa godimo ga R1500; kgotsa 3
\ No newline at end of file
diff --git a/dataset/data/docs/sibe_2022_Forbes_Africas-Chaotic-Legal-And-Regulatory-Cyberse.md b/dataset/data/docs/sibe_2022_Forbes_Africas-Chaotic-Legal-And-Regulatory-Cyberse.md
new file mode 100644
index 0000000000000000000000000000000000000000..556f7bf4ff27f733227fd3a95b9a40a3cbdaf91d
--- /dev/null
+++ b/dataset/data/docs/sibe_2022_Forbes_Africas-Chaotic-Legal-And-Regulatory-Cyberse.md
@@ -0,0 +1,53 @@
+INNOVATION
+
+# Africa's Chaotic Legal And Regulatory Cybersecurity Landscape Requires Harmonization
+
+
+
+By Robinson Sibe, Forbes Councils Member. for Forbes Technology Council, COUNCIL POST | Membership (fee-based)
+
+Aug 02, 2022, 10:00am EDT
+
+Dr. R.T. Sibe is the CEO/Lead Forensic Examiner of Digital Footprints Nig. Limited. He is a member of the Forbes Technology Council.
+
+
+
+GETTY
+
+There are more than 600 million total internet users in Africa. This is more than the total number of internet users in North America, South America and the Middle East. The last two decades have witnessed increased technology adoption in Africa. While this has obviously increased the efficiency of Africa's workforce, it has also come with associated risks—one of which is the risk of cyberattacks. Although this risk is global and not exclusive to Africa, Africa's preparation and response have not been coordinated as one would wish for.
+
+According to a recent Interpol report (download required), about $90\%$ of African businesses are operating without the necessary cybersecurity protocols and, therefore, are exposed to cyberattacks. The report also noted that there were more than 700 million threat detections in Africa within a one-year period. French newspaper Le Monde (via the Council on Foreign Relations) previously reported that the servers of the Chinese-built Africa Union headquarters in Ethiopia were bugged and that data had been routinely transmitted at night through a backdoor between 2012 and 2017. While China has denied this allegation, this is a classic example of how the continent is exposed—even at such high-level institutions.
+
+# Scramble For Response
+
+Over the years, there have been efforts from different African countries to address the cybersecurity challenge. While most jurisdictions have taken steps, many others have been lagging. For instance, some countries have enacted laws and regulations around the cybersecurity space. In Nigeria, the parliament enacted the Cybercrime Act 2015. The National Information Technology Development Agency (NITDA) also rolled out the Nigerian Data Protection Regulation (NDPR) in 2019.
+
+In South Africa, President Cyril Ramaphosa signed the Cybercrimes and Cybersecurity Act in 2021. This law mandates electronic communication service providers and financial institutions to act when their systems suffer a cybersecurity attack or breach. South Africa had previously signed the Protection of Personal Information Act No. 4 of 2013 Act into law.
+
+Ghana passed its Cybersecurity Act 2020 to coordinate the nation's response to the prevention and management of cyberattacks and breaches. Ghana previously signed into law the Data Protection Act, 2012 to protect the privacy and personal data of individuals. Egyptian President Abdel Fattah al-Sisi ratified the nation's "Anti-Cyber and Information Technology Crimes" law in 2018, and Egypt promulgated its Data Protection Law, which also reflects some aspects of the EU's GDPR.
+
+# Regional And Continental Response
+
+At the regional level, there have been some efforts as well. For instance, the Economic Community of West African States (ECOWAS) adopted the ECOWAS Regional Cybersecurity and Cybercrime Strategy at the 2020 Second Ordinary Session. ECOWAS had previously adopted the Supplementary Act on Personal Data Protection in 2010.
+
+At the continental level, the African Union (AU) adopted the Convention on Cyber Security and Personal Data Protection—also known as the Malabo Convention—in 2014. This was followed by the release of the Personal Data Protection Guidelines for Africa—a collaborative measure between the Internet Society and the AU—in 2018. According to the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD), out of the 54 countries in Africa, only 33 $(61\%)$ have a data protection law in place.
+
+# Africa's Challenging Landscape And The Need For Harmonization
+
+Despite the commendation of AU's efforts in this regard, the Malabo Convention has had a hard start. For instance, as of 2021, only eight out of 55 AU members (Angola, Ghana,
+
+Guinea, Mauritius, Mozambique, Namibia, Rwanda and Senegal) had ratified the convention, which needs to be ratified by at least 15 countries. Interestingly, the countries that had not ratified the convention include continental giants such as Nigeria, South Africa and Kenya. Therefore, this Malabo Convention remains largely a document with little action.
+
+Clearly, while Africa may not be in short supply of laws, the implementation has been largely abysmal. Beyond this, the myriad of national and regional laws on the same issue may be confusing—particularly as the continent seeks to dismantle trade barriers through the Africa Continental Free Trade Area (AfCFTA). For AfCFTA to be successful, the continent needs continental risk management—a key aspect of which is tackling the emerging cybersecurity risks. The pockets of discordant laws across the continent leave the landscape chaotic.
+
+# Conclusion
+
+African enterprises continue to make exploits despite the chaotic cybersecurity landscape. The last few years have seen the emergence of seven unicorns, and all are relying on technology to do business. Africa's growing financial institutions continue to leverage technology to serve the continent and beyond. These enterprises are facing the continent's challenging and rapidly evolving cybersecurity landscape. Billions of dollars are lost annually across the continent from cybercrime and cybersecurity breaches.
+
+Therefore, it is imperative for the continent to put forward a united front in the cybercrime war, cybersecurity and data protection regulation. African nations need to ratify the Malabo protocol and continue to fine-tune the laws and regulations reflective of the evolving threat landscape. How Africa manages cybersecurity risk will determine the growth trajectory in the next decade.
+
+Forbes Technology Council is an invitation-only community for world-class CIOs, CTOs and technology executives. Do I qualify?
+
+Follow me on LinkedIn. Check out my website.
+
+
\ No newline at end of file
diff --git a/dataset/data/docs/south-africa-government_2015_National Cybersecurity Policy Framework.pdf-dde97d67-d3fd-41b3-b.md b/dataset/data/docs/south-africa-government_2015_National Cybersecurity Policy Framework.pdf-dde97d67-d3fd-41b3-b.md
new file mode 100644
index 0000000000000000000000000000000000000000..023c88f6119a5d562928272edc347b3bffb01b1b
--- /dev/null
+++ b/dataset/data/docs/south-africa-government_2015_National Cybersecurity Policy Framework.pdf-dde97d67-d3fd-41b3-b.md
@@ -0,0 +1,524 @@
+# STATESECURITYAGENCY
+
+NO.609
+
+04DECEMBER2015
+
+# THE NATIONAL CYBERSECURITY POLICY FRAMEWORK (NCPF)
+
+
+
+
+
+NATIONALCYBERSECURITYPOLICYFRAMEWORKFORSOUTHAFRICA
+
+# Table of Contents
+
+ABBREVIATIONS P EXECUTIVE SUMMARY 5 DEFINITIONS 8
+
+1. Introduction 10
+2. The South African Context .12
+3. Purpose of the NCPF .14
+4. Key Objectives of the NCPF. .15
+5. Capacity to Respond to Cybersecurity lmperatives .15
+6. Cybersecurity Hub and Additional CSiRTs. .18
+7. Verification of Information Security Products and Systems .19
+8. NCII Protection.. .20
+9. Cryptography .21
+10. Online E-ldentity Management in Cyberspace. .21
+11. Promote and Strengthen Local and International Cooperation.. .23
+12. Capacity Development, Research and Development .24
+13. Cyber-warfare. .24
+14. Promotion of a Cybersecurity Culture. .25
+15. Technical and Operational Standards Compliance. .25
+16. The Role and Responsibility of the State .26
+17. The role and Responsibility of the Private Sector .. .29
+18. The Role and Responsibility of Civil Society .29
+19. Conclusion. 30
+
+# ABBREVIATIONS
+
+CII Critical Information Infrastructure
+CRC Cybersecurity Response Committee
+CSIR Council for the Scientific and Industrial Research
+CSIRT Computer Security Incident Response Team
+DOJ&CD Department of Justice and Constitutional Development
+DOD&MV Department of Defence and Military Veterans
+DST Department of Science and Technology
+DTPS Department of Telecommunications and Postal Services
+ECS Electronic Communications Security
+ECT Electronic Communications and Transactions
+FIRST Forum for Incident Response and Security Teams
+GCA Global Cybersecurity Agenda
+GRC Governance, Risk Management and Compliance
+HLEG High-Level Experts Group
+ICT Information and Communications Technology
+ICASA Independent Communications Authority of South Africa
+IPR Intellectual Property Rights
+ISP Internet Service Provider
+ITU International Telecommunication Union
+JCPS Justice, Crime Prevention and Security (Cluster)
+MOU Memorandum of Understanding
+NCAC National Cybersecurity Advisory Council
+NCII National Critical Information Infrastructure
+NCPF National Cybersecurity Policy Framework
+NPA National Prosecuting Agency
+PKI Public Key Infrastructure
+SAPS South African Police Service
+SIEM Security Information and Event Management
+SITA State Information Technology Agency
+SOE State Owned Entity
+SSA State Security Agency
+UNODC United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime
+WSIS World Summit on the Information Society
+
+# EXECUTIVESUMMARY
+
+1. Information and Communications Technologies (lCTs) are indispensable in modern society.The interconnectivity of computer networks contributes significantly to economic growth, education, citizens' participation in social media and many others.
+2. This new electronic environment is commonly known as cyberspace. The dependence of the daily functioning of society on information communication technology solutions has led to a concomitant need for the development of adequate security measures. This is because the danger that Cybersecurity threats pose, is real.
+3.The numerous cyber-attacks launched in recent years against advanced information societies aimed at undermining the functioning of public and private sector information systems have placed the abuse of cyberspace high on the list of international and also local security threats. Given the seriousness of cyber threats and of the interests at stake, it is therefore imperative that the comprehensive use of information communication technology solutions be supported by a high level of security measures and be embedded in a broad and sophisticated Cybersecurity culture. For this reason, the cyber threats need to be addressed at both the global and national levels.
+4. National Cybersecurity is a broad term encompassing the many aspects of electronic information, data and media services that affect a country's security, economy and welbeing. Ensuring the security of a country's cyberspace therefore comprises a range of activities at different levels.
+5.World-wide Cybersecurity strategies are being developed and are aimed at setting policy goals, measures and institutional responsibilities in a succinct manner. Generally, the primary concern is to ensure the confidentiality, integrity and availability (C-I-A) of computer data and systems and to protect against or prevent intentional and non-intentional incidents and attacks. Priority is also given to critical information infrastructure protection (CIIP).
+6. These strategies normally also contain measures against or reference to cybercrime. Measures against cybercrime provide a criminal justice response to C-l-A attacks against computers and thus complement technical and procedural Cybersecurity responses. However, cybercrime comprises also offences committed by means of computer data and systems, ranging from the sexual exploitation of children to fraud, hate speech, intellectual property rights (IPR) infringements and many other offences. Furthermore, any crime may involve electronic evidence in one way or the other. While this may not be labelled “cybercrime", a cybercrime strategy would nevertheless need to ensure that the forensic capabilities be created that are necessary to analyse electronic
+
+# NATIONAL CYBERSECURITYPOLICYFRAMEWORKFORSOUTHAFRICA
+
+evidence in relation to any crime, or that all law enforcement officers, prosecutors and judges are provided at least with basic skills in this respect.[1]
+
+7.This South African National Cybersecurity PolicyFramework is aligned to these goals and is necessitated to ensure a focussed and an all-embracing safety and security response in respect of the Cybersecurity environment and establishes and addresses the following:
+
+a) The development and implementation of a Government led, coherent and integrated Cybersecurity approach to address Cybersecurity threats;
+b) Establishing a dedicated policy, strategy and decision making body to be known as the JCPS Cybersecurity Response Committee,to identify and prioritise areas of intervention and focussed attention regarding Cybersecurity related threats. The Cybersecurity Response Committee will be chaired by the State Security Agency (SSA) and will be supported operationally by a Cybersecurity Centresituated at the SSA
+c) The capability to effectively coordinate departmental resources in the achievement of common Cybersecurity safety and security objectives (including the planning, response coordination and monitoring and evaluation);
+d) Fighting cybercrime effectively through the promotion of coordinated approaches and planning and the creation of required staffing and infrastructure;
+e) Coordination of the promotion of Cybersecurity measures by all role players (State, public, private sector, and civil society and special interest groups) in relation to Cybersecurity threats, through interaction with and in conjunction with the Cybersecurity Hub (to be established within the Department of Telecommunications and Postal Services);
+f) Strengthening of intelligence collection, investigation, prosecution and judicial processes, in respect of preventing and addressing cybercrime, cyber terrorism and cyber warfare;
+g) Ensuring of the protection of national critical information infrastructure;
+
+# NATIONAL CYBERSECURITYPOLICYFRAMEWORKFORSOUTHAFRICA
+
+h) The promotion of a Cybersecurity culture and compliance with minimum security standards;
+i) The establishment of public-private partnerships for national and action plans in line with the NCPF; and
+j) Ensuring a comprehensive legal framework governing cyberspace.
+
+8. The National Cybersecurity Policy Framework (NCPF) is aligned with and dealt within the JCPS Cluster's mandate and obligations under Outcome $_{3:}$ All people are and feel safe in South Africa. In this regard, Output 8 of Outcome 3 requires the development and implementation of a Cybersecurity policy and the development of capacity to combat and investigate cybercrime that seeks to promote thefollowing
+
+a) Measures to address national security threats in terms of cyberspace;
+b) Measures to promote the combating of cybercrime;
+c) Measures to build confidence and trust in the secure use of ICT; and
+d) The development, review and update of existing substantive and procedural laws to ensure alignment.
+
+9.The NCPF is intended to provide a holistic approach pertaining to the promotion of Cybersecurity measures by all role players and will be supported by a National Cybersecurity Implementation Plan which will be developed by the JCPS Cluster in consultation with relevant stakeholders, identifying roles and responsibilities, timeframes, specific performance indicators, and monitoring and evaluation mechanisms. The development and large-scale implementation of a system of security measures as implemented elsewhere in the world will form part of the National Cybersecurity Implementation Plan.
+
+# NATIONALCYBERSECURITYPOLICYFRAMEWORKFORSOUTHAFRICA
+
+# DEFINITIONS
+
+# In the context of this policy,
+
+"National Critical Information Infrastructure" means all ICT systems, data systems, data bases,networks (including people, buildings,facilities and processes), that are fundamental to the effective operation of the Republic1;
+
+"Computer Security Incident Response Team (CsiRT)" is a team of dedicated information security specialists that prepares for and responds to Cybersecurity breaches (Cybersecurity incidents);
+
+"Cybersecurity" is the practice of making the networks that constitute cyberspace secure against intrusions,maintaining confidentiality, availability and integrity of information, detecting intrusions and incidents that do occur, and responding to and recovering from them.
+
+"Cybersecurity Hub" means a CSiRT established to pool public and private sector threat information for the purposes of processing and disseminating such information to relevant stakeholders including the Cybersecurity centre.
+
+"Cyberspace" means a physical and non-physical terrain created by and/or composed of some or all of the following:
+
+computers, computer systems, networks and their computer programs, computer data, content data, traffic data, and users;
+
+"Cyber warfare" means actions by a nation/state to penetrate another nation's computers and networks for purposes of causing damage or disruption²;
+
+"Cyber espionage" means the act or practice of obtaining secrets without the permission of the holder of the information (personal, sensitive, proprietary or of classified nature),from individuals, competitors, rivals, groups, Governments and enemies for personal, economic, political or military advantage3;
+
+# NATIONALCYBERSECURITYPOLICYFRAMEWORKFORSOUTHAFRICA
+
+"Cyber terrorism" means use of Internet based attacks in terrorist activities by individuals and groups, including acts of deliberate large scale disruptions of computer networks, especially computers attached to the Internet, by the means of tools such as computer viruses4;
+
+"Cybercrime" means illegal acts, the commission of which involves the use of information and communication technologies;
+
+"ICT"(Information and Communication Technologies) mean any communications device or application including radio, television, cellular phones, satellite systems, computers, network hardware and software and other services such as videoconferencing :
+
+"Information society” means people-centred, inclusive and development-oriented information, where everyone can create, access, utilise and share information and knowledge, enabling individuals, communities and people to achieve their full potential in promoting their sustainable development and improving the quality of their life.
+
+"JCPS CRC" means Justice, Crime Prevention and Security Cluster's Cybersecurity Response Committee.
+
+"Malware” means malicious software, and is programming (code, scripts, active content, and other software) designed to disrupt or deny operation, gather information that leads to loss of privacy or exploitation, gain unauthorized access to system resources, and other abusive behaviour. The expression is a general term used by computer professionals to mean a variety of forms of hostile, intrusive, or dangerous software or program code. Malware's most common pathway from criminals to users is through the Internet: primarily by e-mail and the World Wide Web.(Symantec published a report in 2oo8 indicating that "the release rate of malicious code and other unwanted programs may be exceeding that of legitimate software applications.“According to F-Secure,"As much malware [was] produced in 20o7 as in the previous 20 years altogether." $^5)$
+
+"Organisation and user's assets” include connected computing devices, personnel, infrastructure,applications, services, telecommunication systems, and a totality of transmitted and/or stored information in the cyber environment.
+
+"Organ of State" means an Organ of the State as defined in section 239 of the Constitution.
+
+"Phishing" indicates, as an example, the fraudulent way of attempting to acquire sensitive information such as usernames, passwords and credit card details by someone masquerading as a trustworthy entity in an electronic communication,to lure the unsuspecting public.These modus
+
+# NATIONAL CYBERSECURITY POLICY FRAMEWORK FOR SOUTH AFRICA
+
+operandi are constantly evolving and is included here as typical examples of Cybersecurity / cybercrime threats that many people will encounter when using computers and information communication technology. Phishing is typically carried out by e-mail or instant messaging and it often directs users to enterdetails at a fakewebsitewhose look andfeelare almost identical to the legitimate one.
+
+# 1. Introduction
+
+1.1 A number of strategic interventions and tactical interventions have been successfully implemented over the past few years and other interventions are in the process of being implemented within the Justice, Crime Prevention and Security (JCPS) Cluster in the fight against crime with the objective of making South Africa Safe. As part of Government's Outcome based priorities, the JCPS Cluster signed on 24 October 2010, the JCPS Delivery Agreement, relating to Outcome 3: “All People in South Africa Are and Feel Safe". This Outcome focuses on certain areas and activities, clustered around specific Outputs,where interventions will make a substantial and a positive impact on the safety of the people of South Africa. One such area relates to Output 8: which requires the development and implementation of a Cybersecurity Policy and the development of capacity to combat and investigate cybercrime. In line herewith, this document therefore sets out a National Cybersecurity Policy Framework (NCPF) for South Africa.
+
+1.2 It is generally accepted that Information and Communications Technologies (ICTs) have become indispensable in modern society. The increased interconnectivity of computer networks and the expansion of broadband including mobility are contributing significantly to economic growth, digital integration, education, electronic governance, citizens' participation in governance and many others. This new electronic environment is commonly known as cyberspace. It has created a “global village” with instantaneous communication possible between persons on the opposite sides of the world. The NCPF Policy Framework therefore recognises that Cybersecurity threats and the combating thereof have a personal, national and international context.
+
+1.3Cyberspace comes with new types of challenges to the governments of the world and it therefore introduces a further dimension to National Security. It is a borderless platform that enables more sophisticated threats such as cybercrime, cyber terrorism, cyber war and cyber espionage. The numerous cyber-attacks launched in recent years against advanced information societies aimed at undermining the functioning of public and private sector information systems have placed the abuse of cyberspace high on the list of security threats. The acknowledgment that such attacks pose a threat to international security reached new heights in 2007 owing to the first-ever co-ordinated cyber-attack against an entire country and also because of large-scale cyber-attacks against information systems in many other countries as well. The co-ordinated cyber-attacks against government agencies, banks,
+
+# NATIONALCYBERSECURITY POLICYFRAMEWORKFOR SOUTHAFRICA
+
+media and telecommunications companies in Estonia demonstrated the vulnerability of a society's information infrastructure as an aspect of national security that needs attention in all countries. There are views that Internet is becoming more and more militarized.The problem is very specific to malware being distributed through terror groups.
+
+1.4The recurrence and growing incidence of cyber-attacks indicate the start of a new era in which the security of cyberspace requires a global dimension and the protection of National Critical Information Infrastructure must be elevated, in terms of national security, on par with traditional defence interests.
+
+1.5National Cybersecurity is a broad term encompassing many aspects of electronic information, data, and media services that affect a country's security, economy and welbeing. Ensuring the security of a country's cyberspace thus comprises of a range of activities at different levels.Towards this end, the most important policy domains include reducing the vulnerability of cyberspace, preventing cyber threats and attacks in the first instance and,in the event of an attack, ensuring a swift recovery of the functioning of critical information systems.
+
+1.6 Thus, a Cybersecurity strategy must appraise the vulnerability of a country's critical information infrastructure, devise a system of preventative measures against cyber-attacks, and decide upon the alocation of tasks relating to Cybersecurity management at the national level. Moreover, it is also important to improve the legal framework against cyber-attacks, to enhance international and institutional co-operation, and to raise public awareness and develop training and research programmes on Cybersecurity.
+
+1.7 The above threats necessitate a comprehensive and all-encompassing approach in dealing with cyber threats.In short, a Cybersecurity culture, driven in main by the State, is critical to ensure that citizens take advantage of the information age, whilst remaining conscious of the threats and vulnerabilities of cyberspace. The NCPF recognises the need to balance, on the one hand, the risks associated with the use of information systems and, on the other hand, the indispensability of extensive and free use of information technology to the functioning of open and modern societies. The growing threats to Cybersecurity should not hinder the crucial role of information and communications technology in stimulating the growth of economies and societies.
+
+1.8In response to the above challenges, Governments worldwide have established policies and structures that govern interaction and collaboration between Government, private sector, academia and civil society in an effort to prevent, react to, combat and mitigate Cybersecurity vulnerabilities and attacks.
+
+1.9 The NCPF recognises that the State is charged with implementing a Government led, coherent and integrated Cybersecurity approach which, amongst others,will:
+
+# NATIONAL CYBERSECURITY POLICYFRAMEWORK FOR SOUTHAFRICA
+
+a) Promote a Cybersecurity culture and demand compliance with minimum security standards;
+b) Strengthen intelligence collection, investigation, prosecution and judicial processes, in respect of preventing and addressing cybercrime,cyber terrorism and cyber warfare and other cyber ills;
+c) Establish public-private partnerships for national and international action plans;
+d) Ensure the protection of National Critical Information Infrastructure; and
+e) Promote and ensure a comprehensive legal framework governing cyberspace.
+
+1.10 This framework is intended to implement an allencompassing approach pertaining to allthe role players (State, public, private sector, civil society and special interest groups) in relation to Cybersecurity. This framework will be supported by a National Cybersecurity Implementation Plan which will be developed by the SSA in consultation with relevant stakeholders, identifying roles and responsibilities, timeframes, specific performance indicators, and monitoring and evaluation mechanisms.
+
+# 2. The South African Context
+
+2.1 South Africa like many other countries has become dependent on the Internet to govern, to conduct business and for other social purposes. The Internet has become indispensable to many South Africans and will continue to be, as more people access the information highway. Taking into consideration the increase in national and international bandwidth in South Africa, cybercrimes and threats are and will continue to increase. These cybercrimes and threats have the potential to impact on our national security and economy.
+
+2.2 Currently there are various pieces of legislation, some with overlapping mandates administered by different Government Departments and whose implementation is not coordinated. Furthermore, the legislation when viewed collectively does not adequately address South Africa's Cybersecurity challenges.
+
+2.3 The absence of an aligned legal and regulatory framework, and the challenge of uncoordinated Cybersecurity eforts is not unique to South Africa, other jurisdictions arefaced with the same challenges.
+
+2.4Statistics in 2011 indicate that South Africa was in the top three countries that are targeted for phishing purposes, the other countries are the USA and the UK. In addition to phishing, other e-Crime incidents in the RSA have increased to the value of millions of rands. The banking sector is especially vulnerable to cybercrime. In light of the above and many more unreported incidents, there is a need to combat cybercrime.
+
+2.5 The borderless nature of cybercrimes introduces a further dimension to National Security. Numerous cyber-attacks have been launched against a number of countries,such as the attack on Estonia in 2007, which crippled the country's electronic systems. South Africa is not immune to such atacks. The protection of South Africa's critical information infrastructure and the coordination thereof is therefore essential. South Africa needs to develop mechanisms that will ensure proactive and coordinated national response to cyber threats and incidents including combating cybercrime. The Government's leadership role in this regard is important, whilst acknowledging that Cybersecurity is everyone's responsibility, public sector, private sector and civil society.
+
+2.6 The role of the ICTs in social and economic development of a country has been widely acknowledged; however the full potential of ICTs cannot be realized unless there is confidence and trust in the secure use of ICTs. Government should take responsibility to ensure that theprivate sector and civil society are not only aware of the dangers of operating in cyberspace but also take necessary measures not to become victims of cybercrime. It is thus prudent to develop within South Africa a culture of Cybersecurity that will address the needs of the public sector, private sector and civil society.
+
+2.7 Opportunities of ICT and the challenges of Cybersecurity are fuelled by advances in technology. Consequently, there is a need to develop the requisite skills to exploit the opportunities of an information economy and meet the dynamic challenges of Cybersecurity. South Africa will always lag behind or be vulnerableunless we develop requisite skills. There is a need to create an enabling environment for Cybersecurity training, education,research and development and skills development programmes in South Africa.
+
+2.8 South Africa is a consumer of ICTs and depends on overseas manufactured technologies to secure its cyberspace.The downside of this, is that our critical information infrastructure will continue to have some degree of vulnerability. Thus it is important to develop indigenous Cybersecurity technologies. Unless we develop Research and Development capabilities to address this, we will continue to rely of foreign technologies for this purpose. The absence of stringent compliance monitoring to ensure that technologies used comply to international and national Cybersecurity standards.
+
+2.9 South Africa will in the promotion and development of Cybersecurity measures in relation to this NCPF bear in mind the international instruments and measures that may be relevant such
+
+# NATIONAL CYBERSECURITYPOLICYFRAMEWORKFORSOUTHAFRICA
+
+as the work of the various agencies of the United Nations.° In 2011, the International Telecommunications Union (ITU) and the UN Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) signed a memorandum of understanding (MOU) to help secure cyberspace for consumers, businesses, and children and to mitigate the risks posed by cybercrime. The MOU will enable the parties to avail the necessary expertise and resources to establish legal measures and legislativeframeworks atnational level,forthebenefit of allinterestedcountries.This initiative is a major milestone in implementing a co-ordinated global approach to an increasingly serious global problem.'
+
+# 3. Purpose of the NCPF
+
+3.1The purpose of the NCPF is to create a secure, dependable,reliable and trustworthy cyber environment that facilitates the protection of critical information infrastructure whilst strengthening shared human values and understanding of Cybersecurity in support of national security imperatives and the economy. This will enable the development of an information society which takes into account the fundamental rights of every South African citizen to privacy, security, dignity, access to information, the right to communication and freedom of expression.
+
+3.2 The NCPF seeks to ensure that Government, business and civil society are able to enjoy the full benefits of a safe and secure cyberspace. To this end, the public sector, private sector and civil society willneed to work together tounderstand and address the risks,reduce the benefits to criminals and seize opportunities in cyberspace to enhance South Africa's overall security and safety including its economic well-being.
+
+3.3 This NCPF therefore provides for:
+
+a) Measures to address national security in terms of cyberspace; b) Measures to combat cyber warfare, cybercrime and other cyber ills; c) The development, review and updating existing substantive and procedural laws to ensure alignment; and d) Measures to build confidence and trust in the secure use of ICT.
+
+# NATIONAL CYBERSECURITY POLICYFRAMEWORKFORSOUTHAFRICA
+
+# 4. Key Objectives of the NCPF
+
+4.1The NCPF articulates the overall aim and objectives of the South African Government and sets out strategic priorities that will be pursued to achieve these objectives. In order to achieve the strategic visionset out in thispolicy, it is expected that this National Cybersecurity Policy Framework will:
+
+4.1.1 Centralise coordination of Cybersecurity activities,by facilitating the establishment of relevant structures, policy frameworks and strategies in support of Cybersecurity in order to combat cybercrime, address national security imperatives and to enhance the information society and knowledge based economy;
+4.1.2 Foster cooperation and coordination between Government, the private sector and civil society by stimulating and fostering a strong interplay between policy, legislation, societal acceptance and technology;
+4.1.3 Promote international cooperation;
+4.1.4 Develop requisite skills, research and development capacity;
+4.1.5 Promote a culture of Cybersecurity; and
+4.1.6 Promote compliance with appropriate technical and operational Cybersecurity standards.
+
+# 5. Capacity to Respond to Cybersecurity lmperatives
+
+5.1The Justice Crime Prevention and Security Cluster (JCPS),working in consultation with other Government Clusters , will oversee the implementation of this policy framework, with the aim to ensure centralized coordination of Cybersecurity issues.
+
+5.2Adedicated JCPSCybersecurity Response Committee will be established within the JCPS Cluster to coordinate Cybersecurity activities, drive the implementation of the NCPF and manage the implementation of Output 8. The Cybersecurity Response Committee will be chaired by the State Security Agency (SSA) and it will be supported operationally by a CybersecurityCentresituated at the SSA.All relevant JCPS departments willberepresented on the Cybersecurity Response Committee.
+
+5.3 The role of the JCPS Cybersecurity Response Committee will, amongst others, be to:
+
+# NATIONALCYBERSECURITYPOLICYFRAMEWORKFORSOUTHAFRICA
+
+5.3.2 Coordinate Cybersecurity activities and be a central point of contact on all Cybersecurity matters pertinent to national security (national defence, national intelligence and cybercrime);
+
+.3 Identify and prioritise areas of intervention and promote focussed attention and guidance where required regarding Cybersecurity related threats and incidents;
+
+5.3.4 Promote, guide and coordinate activities aimed at improving Cybersecurity measures by all role players, which would include amongst others, the strengthening of intelligence collection and improved State capacity to investigate, prosecute and combat:
+
+a) Cybercrime,
+b) Cyber terrorism,
+c) Cyber espionange,
+d) Cyber warfare and
+e) Any other cyber related threats;
+
+5.3.5 Oversee and guide the functioning of the Cybersecurity Centre, Cybersecurity Hub, RSA Government Electronic Communications Security Computer Security Incident Response Team (ECS -CSiRT) and any other CSiRT established in SA.
+
+5.3.6 Promote and provide guidance to the process of the development and implementation of:
+
+a) The protection of national critical information infrastructure Plan;
+b) Situational analysis and awareness campaign concerning the risk environment of South African cyberspace;
+c) Cybersecurity culture and compliance with minimum security standards;
+d) Public-private partnerships for national and action plans in line with the NCPF;
+e) Compliance with appropriate technical and operational Cybersecurity standards;
+f) Cybersecurity training, education, research and development and skills development programmes;
+g) International cooperation;
+h) Facilitation of interaction, both nationally and internationally, including through international memberships to organisations such as the Forum for Incident Response and Security Teams (FiRST); and develop policy guidelines to inform such interaction;
+
+# NATIONALCYBERSECURITYPOLICYFRAMEWORKFORSOUTHAFRICA
+
+i) Establishment of sector, regional and continental CSiRTs; and j) Comprehensive legal framework governing cyberspace.
+
+5.4 The role of the Cybersecurity Centre will be to:
+5.4.1 Facilitate the operational coordination of Cybersecurity incident response activities regarding national intelligence, national defence and cybercrime;
+5.4.2 Develop measures to deal with Cybersecurity matters impacting on national security;
+5.4.3 Facilitate the analysis of Cybersecurity incidents, trends, vulnerabilities, information sharing, technology exchange on national security and threats to improve technical response coordination;
+5.4.4 Provide guidance to and facilitate the identification, protection and securing of National Critical Information Infrastructure (NCIl);
+5.4.5 Ensure regular assessment and testing of National Critical Information Infrastructures, including vulnerability assessments, threat and risk assessment and penetration testing;
+5.4.6 Provide coordination and guidance regarding Corporate Security and Policy Development; Governance, Risk Management, and Compliance (GRC); ldentity and Security Management; Security Information and Event Management (SiEM), and Digital Forensics as it pertains to Cybersecurity matters within Organs of State;
+5.4.7 Develop response protocols to guide coordinated responses to Cybersecurity incidents and interaction with the various stakeholders;
+5.4.8 Ensure the conducting of Cybersecurity audits, assessments and readiness exercises and provide advice on the development of national response plans;
+5.4.9 Provide the Secretariat services required in relation to the JCPS Cybersecurity Committee, and
+5.4.10 Perform any other function consistent with the strategic and policy objectives set out herein.
+
+# 6. Cybersecurity Hub and Additional CSlRTs
+
+6.1 Notwithstanding the envisaged JCPS Cybersecurity Response Committee, the Cybersecurity Centre and the existing ECS-CSiRT, there is also a need to ensure appropriate consultation between the JCPS cluster departments, the private sector and civil society regarding Cybersecurity matters.
+6.2 To deal with the above stated, this policy recognises that the crucial need for the facilitation of interaction between the key role players in the public sector, private sector and the broader civil society. The NCPF therefore promotes the coordination and consultation between the JCPS cluster departments, the private sector and civil society regarding Cybersecurity matters through the establishment of a Cybersecurity Hub within the Department of Telecommunications and Postal Services (DOC). The Cybersecurity Hub will be operated within the DOC in accordance with national security guidelines and standards issued by the JCPS Cybersecurity Response Committee.
+6.3 To enhance interaction, consultations and to promote a coordinated aproach regarding engagements with the private sector and civil society, Cybersecurity Hub will amongst others, have the responsibility to:
+6.3.1 Coordinate general Cybersecurity activities, in consultation with JCPS CRC as well as including identifying stakeholders and developing public-private relationships and collaborating with any sector CSiRTs that may be established;
+6.3.2 Disseminate relevant information to othersector CSiRTs, vendors, technology experts on Cybersecurity developments;
+6.3.3 Provide best practice guidance on ICT security for Government, business and civil society;
+6.3.4 Initiate Cybersecurity awareness campaigns;
+6.3.5 Promote compliance with standards, procedures and policy developed by the JCPS Cybersecurity Response Committee regarding Cybersecurity matters with a bearing on national security.
+6.3.6 Encourage and facilitate the development of appropriate additional sector CSiRTs. The sector CSIRTs will:
+6.3.6.1 Be a point of contact for that specific sector on Cybersecurity matters;
+6.3.6.2 Coordinate Cybersecurity incident response activities within that sector;
+
+NATIONALCYBERSECURITYPOLICYFRAMEWORKFORSOUTHAFRICA
+
+
+
6.3.6.3
Facilitate information and technology sharing within the sector;
6.3.6.4
Facilitate information sharing and technology exchange with other sector CSIRTs;
6.3.6.5
Establish national security standards and best practices for the sector in consultation with the Cybersecurity Centre and the JCPS Cybersecurity Response Committee which are consistent with guidelines, standards and best practices
6.3.6.6
Develop agreed upon measures;
6.3.6.7
Conduct Cybersecurity audits, assessments and readiness exercises for the sector; and
6.3.6.8
Provide sector entities with best practice guidance on ICT security.
+
+# 7. Verification of Information Security Products and Systems
+
+7.1 South Africa needs to independently assess and certify products and systems that are used to process or store information that can have an impact on national security. The NCPF therefore promotes the facilitation by the JCPS Cybersecurity Response Committee and the National Cybersecurity Hub of the development of a National Information Security Verification Framework that will enable the achievement of this objective by executing the following:
+
+a) Facilitating effective partnerships between the Republic of South Africa and countries with established capacity to perform information security assessments and certifications.
+b) Facilitating effective partnerships between the Government of South Africa, the private sector, academic and research institutions to ensure that there is always capacity to perform information security assessments and certifications within the borders of the Republic.
+c) Developing National regulations for verification of products and systems with applications in Information Security.
+d) Facilitating effective partnerships among government institutions, e.g. those tasked with technical assessments, and those whose responsibility is licensing, and those
+
+# NATIONAL CYBERSECURITYPOLICY FRAMEWORKFOR SOUTH AFRICA
+
+who monitor, (e.g. the Auditor General), to ensure that solutions are implemented in accordance with certification conditions and legislation.
+
+e) Establishing a body that will centrally coordinate the required national verification functions.
+
+# 8. NCll Protection
+
+8.1 The NCPF recognises the need to provide a mechanism to ensure that South Africa's critical information infrastructure is protected and secured against cyber related crimes. It is also noted that a more secured critical information infrastructure will help to achieve the continued provision of essential services and support national security, economic prosperity and social well-being of the Republic. The policy framework recognises that a significant proportion of SA's national critical information infrastructure (NCll) is privately owned or operated on a commercial basis.
+
+8.2 The NCPF therefore seeks to ensure that appropriate steps are taken to ascertain that all National Critical Information Infrastructure (NCll) are identified and properly protected from a variety of threats. For continued availability of the critical information infrastructure, the NCPF thus promotes the development of a National Critical Information Infrastructure (NCIl) Strategy that will address the identification and protection of NCll by:
+
+a) Developing National Critical Information Infrastructure regulations, relating,inter alia, to:
+
+i. Information Classification and Information Security Policy and Procedures;
+ii. Third Party Access to NCII;
+1i1. Access to and authentication on NCll;
+iv. Storage and archiving of critical databases;
+V. Incident management and business continuity; and vi. Physical and technical protection of all NCll.
+
+b) Facilitate an effective business - government partnership relating to the implementation of the Cll Protection Plan. To this end, the private sector, State Owned Enterprises (SOE's), and other government agencies and institutions such as the State Information Technology Agency (SiTA) will play a critical role in ensuring the implementation of NCIl protection plan.
+
+# 9. Cryptography
+
+9.1 There are an ever-increasing numbers of cryptographic devices, crypto graphic software and users requiring secure communications and the geographic spread of locations of these devices. The NCPF therefore provides for the regulation of cryptography given the critical role it plays in ensuring improved secure communications.
+
+9.2 The NCPF notes that various attempts at regulating cryptography were initiated as a way of developing a coherent and integrated approach to this matter. These strategies are found in various laws such as:
+
+a) National Convention Arms Control Act (Act 41 of 2002)
+b) Electronic Communications and Transactions Act (Act 25 of 2002)
+c) Electronic Communications Security (Pty) Ltd Act (Act 68 of 2002)
+d) Regulation of Interception of Communications and Provision of Communications Related Information Act (Act 70 of 2002)
+e) State Information Technology Agency Act (Act 88 of 1998)
+f) Conventional Arms Control Regulations (R7969 of 2004)
+g) Cryptographic regulations (R8418 of 2006)
+
+9.3Taking into consideration the above-mentioned legislation,the NCPF recognises that there is a need to:
+
+a) Review the existing legislation and regulations thereof; and b) Develop an integrated regulatory framework for Cryptography for the country.
+
+# 10.Online E-ldentity Management in Cyberspace
+
+10.1 It is noted that the Electronic Communications and Transactions Act, 20o2 (Act 25 of 2002) (ECT Act) provides for the establishment of the South African Accreditation Authority to facilitate the accreditation and regulation of authentication services and products. It further provides for advanced electronic signatures and facilitates the recognition of electronic documents as legal and binding.
+
+10.2 The NCPF notes that the South African Post Offce (which in terms of the ECT Act, 2002 is a preferred service provider for advanced electronic signatures) has developed a Public Key Infrastructure (PKl) to support advanced electronic signatures (e-identity) and the Department of Public Service and Administration pursuant to its mandate in E--Government willdevelop a
+
+# NATIONALCYBERSECURITYPOLICYFRAMEWORKFORSOUTHAFRICA
+
+PKI Strategy. The Department of Telecommunications and Postal Services (DOC), pursuant to its mandate established the South African Accreditation Authority to accredit and regulate authentication services and products.
+
+10.3The issue of identity management in cyberspace is central to building confidence and trust in the secure use of ICTs. The NCPF seeks to address the fragmented approach by promoting the development of an integrated National E-identity and PKl strategy. Such a strategy and implementation thereof will be critical inproviding inter alia e-government services as well as to ensure security, confidentiality and integrity. Uptake and usage of e-identity in e government services will stimulate other sectors as well.
+
+10.4 The NCPF acknowledges that transmission of information over the Internet for trading and communication purposes presents new and sophisticated threats for both the senders and recipients of information. Therefore to ensure online transaction security, the NCPF provides for the development of a holistic National E-ldentity and PKl Strategy. The strategy will, amongst others, assist to address:
+
+a) Authentication and securing of the identities of the parties to an e-transaction;
+b) Confidentiality, ensuring information is kept private;
+c) Integrity issues, by ensuring the information or process has not been modified or corrupted;
+d) Non-repudiation issues, by ensuring that neither party can refute that the transaction occurred (i.e. the trans action is binding); and
+e) The structure and regulatory framework for E-ldentity and a Public Key Infrastructure.
+
+10.5 The NCPF also requires that the development of a holistic National E-ldentity and PKI Strategy should be aligned to the broader objectives set out herein and in particular the roles and the responsibilities of the critical stakeholders in the implementation of the NCPF.
+
+# 11. Promote and Strengthen Local and International Cooperation
+
+11.1 In terms of this policy framework, the Cybersecurity Hub will foster cooperation and coordination between the public sector, private sector and civil society.
+
+# 11.2 Local cooperation
+
+11.2.1 The NCPF promotes the Public-Private-Civil sector collaboration and the use of industry perspectives, equities and knowledge to enhance Cybersecurity. The Public-PrivateCivil sector partnership is based on the understanding that Cybersecurity is everyone's responsibility and there is a need to leverage on joint knowledge and perspectives, to combat cybercrime.
+
+11.2.2 The NCPF thus promotes the establishment of collaboration with local stakeholders, with a focus on the following aspects:
+
+(a) Inclusion of the industry and creating an enabling environment for a successful partnership;
+(b) Encouraging private sector groups to address common security interests and collaborate with government including encouraging cooperation among groups from interdependent industries;
+(c) Bringing private sector and government together in trusted forums; and
+(d) Creating a common understanding of the threats and vulnerabilities that the country faces and the responses required.
+
+# 11.3 International Cooperation
+
+11.3.1 Internet as a form of media can in essence not be regulated in total by an authority or government. Given the borderless nature of the Internet and the challenges it poses in terms of jurisdiction, it is important that countries learn and collaborate with each other in order to combat cybercrimes.
+
+11.3.2 Therefore, international collaboration is critical in securing cyberspaces nationally and globally. Recognising the need for global collaboration on matters regarding Cybersecurity, South Africa is required to collaborate with relevant and appropriate international organisations and governments, in line with the Constitution, national security imperatives, foreign policy and existing international agreements. To this end, South Africa will:
+
+# NATIONAL CYBERSECURITYPOLICYFRAMEWORKFORSOUTHAFRICA
+
+(a) Participate in regional, African Union and international fora on matters pertinent to Cybersecurity in order to advance South Africa's views in the definition and elaboration of the global Cybersecurity agenda in combating cybercrime and building confidence and trust in the secure use of ICTs.
+(b) Forge bilateral and multilateral partnerships in our national interest through various instruments inter alia Memorandum of Understanding, Convention, Treaty, etc.
+(c) Afiliate to relevant international organisations in order to promote a coordinated global response to threats and vulnerabilities and to keep abreast of developments in the Cybersecurity front.
+
+# 12. Capacity Development, Research and Development
+
+12.1 The dynamic nature of Cybersecurity challenges necessitates the continuous development of capabilities and requisite skills.
+
+# 12.2 The NCPF therefore promotes:
+
+a) Development of capacity building strategies to address South Africa's, specific skills requirements to meet the ever increasing challenges of addressing Cybersecurity threats;
+b) Development of recruitment and retention strategies aimed at ensuring a sufficient level of technical expertise is developed and maintained within the Republic; and
+c) Development of a Cybersecurity research and development agenda and enhancement of Cybersecurity research within South African Universities, industry and the Department of Science and Technology.
+d) Enterprise development so as to grow the information security sector in terms of skills and growing enterprises that produce technology that protect cyberspace.
+
+# 13.Cyber-warfare
+
+13.1 In order to protect its interests in the event of a cyber-war, a cyber defence capacity has to be built. The NCPF thus promotes that a Cyber Defence Strategy, that is informed by the National Security Strategy of South Africa, be developed, guided by the JCPS Cybersecurity Response Committee.
+
+# 14. Promotion of a Cybersecurity Culture
+
+14.1 T0 effectively deal with Cybersecurity, it is prudent that civil society, government and the private sector play their part in ensuring South Africa has a culture of Cybersecurity. Critical to this is the development of a culture of Cybersecurity, in whichrole players understand the risks of surfing in cyberspace. To facilitate the building of a Cybersecurity culture, the NCPF provides for inter alia:
+
+14.1.1 Implementing Cybersecurity awareness programs for private sector, public sector and
+civil society users;
+14.1.2 Encouraging business to develop a positive culture for Cybersecurity;
+14.1.3 Supporting outreach to civil society, children and individual users;
+14.1.4 Promoting a comprehensive national awareness program and guidelines;
+14.1.5 Reviewing and updating existing privacy regime;
+14.1.6 Develop awareness of cyber risks and available solutions;
+14.1.7 Continuously review cyber applications and the impact from a Cybersecurity
+perspective.
+14.1.8 Compliment the culture of Cybersecurity with online support mechanisms.
+
+# 15. Technical and Operational Standards Compliance
+
+15.1 The NCPF also promotes:
+
+a) The recognition of and compliance with appropriate international and local technical andoperational Cybersecurity standards. The Ministerof Communications shall enforce compliance with such standards where appropriate and in consultation with the National Cybersecurity Advisory Council;
+b) The continuous monitoring, review and assessment of regulatory frameworks that support Cybersecurity ; and
+
+# NATIONALCYBERSECURITYPOLICYFRAMEWORKFORSOUTHAFRICA
+
+c) The development and/or adoption of standards by the South African Bureau of Standards in consultation with relevant Government Departments, ICASA and industry. This will ensure a safe and secure cyberspace environment that will enable the growth of e-commerce and an inclusive information society.
+
+# 16.The Role and Responsibility of the State
+
+This policy recognizes that there are a number of Organs of State that play a critical role in the implementation of Cybersecurity measures. For effective implementation of this policy framework, the role of some of the main relevant Organs of State are set out below. Inclusive of the various roles and responsibilities set out, all other governmental priorities such as the protection of vulnerable groups,promotion of job creation and general protection of Constitutional values and principles are endorsed and should be promoted in the development of implementation plans and activities. Liaison with other clusters such as the economic cluster will be essential in the development of the various implementation plans guided by the NCPF.
+
+16.1 The Department of Justice and Constitutional Development (DOJ&CD) and the National Prosecuting Authority (NPA) have an overall responsibility for facilitating cybercrime prosecution and court processes in accordance with the applicable laws.
+
+a) The NCPF also requires the DOJ&CD to develop an implementation plan for the review and alignment of all Cybersecurity laws with the policy objectives and mandates of the State institutions as set out herein. In this regard, the DOJ&CD will be required to lead a process, in consultation with other JCPS Cluster Departments, for the review and alignment of Cybersecurity laws and will be required to submit progress reports to the JCPS Cluster Cybersecurity implementation team on a continuous basis in accordance with the approved JCPS implementation plan.
+
+b) The process for the review of the Cybersecurity laws seeks to ensure that all relevant laws are aligned to this policy framework, and create a coherent and integrated cybercrime legal framework and prosecution approach in the Republic. This would require initiation of processes to effect necessary amendments to relevant legislation in order to make cybercrime or related crimes punishable in law.
+
+# NATIONAL CYBERSECURITY POLICY FRAMEWORKFOR SOUTH AFRICA
+
+16.2The Ministry of State Security and the State Security Agency (SSA) has overall responsibility and accountability for coordination, development and implementation of Cybersecurity measures in the Republic as an integral part of its National Security mandate.
+
+16.2.1 The Ministry of State Security and SSA shall, amongst others, be required to perform the following key roles and responsibilities in relation to cybersecutity in the Republic:
+
+(a) Ensure that the JCPS cluster is properly capacitated and is able to perform its function as set out in this Policy framework including ensuring that the JCPS cluster has the the necessary capacity to monitor, promote and guide the implementation of the NCPF.
+
+(b) Ensure, in consultation with the relevant stakeholders, the establishment of the Cybersecurity Response Committee, Cybersecurity Centre and proper function of the existing RSA Government CSiRT in line with the approved JCPS implementation plan.
+
+(c) Initiate and lead a process within the JCPS cluster for the development and approval of guidelines and National security norms for the establsihment of varioussector CSiRTs asprovidedfor inthepolicyframework.
+
+(d) Have an overall responsibility for the development and formulation of National Cybersecurity in Republic and in consultation with stakeholders. This includes reviewing and amending existing Cybersecurity policies as well as prescribing regulations on information and communications technology security for the Republic in order to advance the National Security interests of the Republic
+
+(e) Provide information assurance and secure information and communications technology infrastructure of National importance in support of national security; This should include the development of State capacity to provide threat monitoring, alerting, co-ordination and response for information communications technology related incidents pertaining to National Critical Information Infrastructure of the State;
+
+(f) Prescribe a regulatory frameworkfor the control by the State of the provision and application of cryptographic solutions, development of National strategy and regulations for the protection of National Critical Information Infrastructure, and prescribe information communications technology security technical standards to which the electronic communications security products and services of organs of State must comply;
+
+# NATIONAL CYBERSECURITY POLICY FRAMEWORKFOR SOUTH AFRICA
+
+16.2.2 The implementation of these responsibilities by SSA shall include aspects of developing and implementing regulations, collecting intelligence both locally and internationally, conducting necessary Cybersecurity investigations and reporting on South Africa's Cybersecurity situation.
+
+16.3 The Department of Police and the SAPS shall, in terms of the NCPF, be responsible for the prevention, investigation and combating of cybercrime in the Republic, which includes development of cybercrime policies and strategies, and providing for specialized investigative capacity and interaction with national and international stakeholders. Development of the anticybercrime policy and implementation plans should include operational priorities pertaining to:
+
+(a) The fight against child sexual/physical abuse material on the Internet;
+(b) Actions to counter massive attacks against information systems such as“denial-ofservice attacks (such as those affecting the banking sector);
+(c) Actions combating identity fraud;
+(d) The development of cross-border law enforcement cooperation;
+(e) Public-private cooperation to fight cybercrime (in particular between law enforcement authorities and private companies); and
+(f) Promote enhanced international cooperation to fight cybercrime by taking part in various international initiatives such the UN High Level Expert Group on Cybersecurity and the International Telecommunication Union.
+
+16.4 The Department of Telecommunications and Postal Services (DTPS) has the responsibility for:
+
+(a) Developing and implementing policies, regulations and industry standards regarding ICT aspects in general and to assist in the provision of strategic direction and coordination on local and international Cybersecurity matters pursuant to building an information economy and building confidence and trust in the secure use of ICTs. This includes building trust and confidence in the secure use of ICTs and to advise the Minister of Telecommunications and Postal Services on policy and technical issues and other matters pertinent to Cybersecurity;
+
+# NATIONALCYBERSECURITYPOLICYFRAMEWORKFORSOUTHAFRICA
+
+Establishing the National Cybersecurity Advisory Council (NCAC) to advise the Minister of Telecommunications and Postal Services on policy and technical issues, and other matters pertinent to Cybersecurity pursuant to building confidence and trust in the secure use of ICTs; (c) Establishing the Cybersecurity Hub and to facilitate the establishment of any other sector CSIRTs.
+
+16.5 The Department of Defence and Military Veterans (DOD&MV) has overall responsibility for coordination, accountability and implementation of cyber defence measures in the Republic as an integral part of its National defence mandate. To this end, the Department will develop policies and strategies pursuant to its core mandate.
+
+16.6 The Department of Science and Technology (DsT) has the responsibility for the development, coordination and implementation of national capacity development program. Furthermore, the Department shall be responsible for developing and facilitating the implementation of a national Cybersecurity research and development agenda for South Africa.
+
+16.7 All other Organs of State are required to align their ICT policies and practices with this NCPF in so far as it relates to Cybersecurity.
+
+# 17.The role and Responsibility of the Private Sector
+
+17.1 The private sector is responsible for implementing information security measures at least equivalent to those that are implemented by Government. The NCPF therefore promotes cooperation between the information security bodies that predominantly represent the private sector with equivalent bodies in Government. The Department of Telecommunications and Postal Services (DTPS) and the National Cybersecurity Hub will help facilitate such cooperation.
+
+# 18. The Role and Responsibility of Civil Society
+
+18.1 Each person has a responsibility to ensure that his or her computer, mobile phone or any ICT infrastructure at his or her disposal that links to the cyberspace has updated malware protection. Each person also has a responsibility to report information security incidents to the police or the most accessible CSiRT. DTPS will help facilitate campaigns to raise awareness in this regard.
+
+# NATIONAL CYBERSECURITY POLICYFRAMEWORKFORSOUTHAFRICA
+
+# 19. Conclusion
+
+19.1 It is envisaged that the NCPF will achieve the following benefits:
+
+a) A safer and more secure cyberspace that underpins national security priorities;
+b) The establishment of institutional structures to support a coordinated approach to addressing Cybersecurity;
+c) The identification and protection of national critical information infrastructure;
+d) A secure e-environment that stimulates economic growth and competitiveness of South Africa;
+e) Promotion of a national research and development agenda relating to Cybersecurity;
+f) The effective prevention, combating and prosecution of cybercrime; and
+g) The enhanced management of Cybersecurity.
\ No newline at end of file
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+# MINIMUMINTEROPERABILITYSTANDARDS(MIOS)FRAMEWORK
+
+For Government Information Systems
+
+Revision 6.0
+
+November 2017
+
+The Minimum information Interoperability Standards (MiOS) sets out Government's technical principles and standards for achieving interoperability and information systems coherence across the public sector. The MiOS defines the essential prerequisite for joined-up and web enabled Government. Combined with Information and Communication Technology security, it is an essential component of electronic government.
+
+Adherence to the MiOs is mandatory as set out in the Public Service Regulations, Chapter 6, 97 (1) The Minister shall issue Minimum Interoperability Standards, (herein referred as the “MiOs") for the public service. (2) The MiOs shall include provision for standards and specifications for - (a) interconnectivity; (b) data integration; and (c) information access. (3)
+
+Any new information and communication technology system developed or acquired or any upgrade of any existing information and communication technology systems in the public service shall comply with the MlOs. (4) A Head of Department shall - (a) include compliance with the MlOS in the project approval procedure; and (b) ensure compliance to the MlOs in the acquisition or use of information and communication technologv.
+
+The objective of achieving interoperability must be managed as an ongoing initiative. In this regard, the Government Information Technology Officers within government departments are crucial and instrumental in carrying these objectives forward and through to implementation.
+
+I, Faith Muthambi, Minister for Public Service and Administration, hereby wish to proclaim that the Minimum Interoperability Standards (MIOS) Version 6.0, November 2017 is the Standard for Information and Communication Technology for the South African Government, as set out in theChapter 6 of the Public Seryice Regulations (PSR), as amended in 2016.
+
+
+
+MS A.F. MUTHAMBI, MP MINISTERFORTHEPUBLIC SERVICE ANDADMINISTRATION DATE:201802·06
+
+# PUBLICATION ENQUIRIES
+
+The Minimum Interoperability Standards (MlOS) for Government Information Systems has been developed by a Specialist Task Team set up by the Government Information Technology Officers Council (GlTOC) and the Offce of the Government Chief Information Office (OGClO) at the Department of Public Service and Administration (DPSA).
+
+Enquiries can be directed to:
+
+Office of the Government Chief Information Office Department of Public Service and Administration Batho Pele House, 546 Edmond Street, Arcadia Pretoria, South Africa.
+
+This document will be made available on the DPSA website www.dpsa.gov.za
+
+# COPYRIGHT, TRADEMARKS AND INTELLECTUAL PROPERTY
+
+Some of the standards, acronyms and terms that are referenced in this publication and the related addendums or catalogue are protected by copyright and/or intelectual property rights. The omission of the rightful copyright and/or intellectual property right owners' information from this document is merely intended to simplify the structure of the document.
+
+This document, in part or in whole, may be freely used on condition that the source is quoted.
+
+1 INTRODUCTION
+2. MANDATE
+/ 3. PURPOSE AND BENEFITS. / 4. SCOPE.. 8 5. COMPLIANCE.. .9 6. PRINCIPLES UNDERPINNING MIOS 10 APPENDIX A- ABBREVIATIONS. .12 APPENDIX B - DOCUMENT HISTORY .. 13
+
+# FIGURES
+
+Figure 1: Government ICT House of Value . 5
+Figure 2: e-Government information exchange scenarios . 10
+
+# INTRODUCTION
+
+1.1The Minimum Interoperability Standard (MiOS) willbe for use by National, Provincial departments and for those government components set out in the Schedule 3, Part A, of the Public Service Act as updated on the $7^{\mathrm{th}}$ October 2015.
+
+1.2These institutions are committed to the continuous improvement of public service delivery. Such commitment has become an underlying theme across all departments' strategic and annual performance plans.
+
+1.3As these Standards impact on the interoperability of e-government systems, we need to outline the definition of Electronic government as set out in the Public Service Act, 1994 - 1 (Proclamation 103 published in GG 15791 of 3 June 1994)-
+
+'Electronic government' means the use of information and communication technologies in the public service to improve its internal functioning and to render services to the public.
+
+1.4 To ensure that the commitment to the improvement of public service delivery, Cabinet embarked on an e-Government programme in 2oo1 by endorsing the policy document: "Electronic Government: The Digital Future - A public service IT Policy Framework.
+
+1.5 This policy aspired to achieve the effective, efficient and economic management and utilisation of Information and Information and Communication Technology Resources in government as illustrated in the Government Information and Communication Technology (ICT) House of Values).
+
+
+Figure 1: Government ICT House of Value
+
+The Information and Communication Technology House of Values serves as a reference to measure the performance of e-Government projects and systems, which includes interoperability1. The strategic drive to advance the maturity on interoperability not only compels government Information and Communication Technology leaders to collaborate on e-Government initiatives by sharing scarce resources, but it also provides a way for information to be exchanged electronically across traditional government system boundaries in order to improve public service delivery.
+
+The Information and Communication Technology House of value, comprises a roof, pillars and foundation, each representing the following:
+
+1.6 The outcomes (roof) of the e-Government programme on public sector operations are to:
+
+(i) Lower cost of government service delivery operations, by reducing time, complexity, repetition and duplication of tasks.
+(ii) Increased productivity of government operations, by improving the quality and quantity of traditional public sector outputs or introduce new processes to produce outputs and render services that were previously impossible.
+(iii) Citizen Convenience when interacting with government, by offering equal access to government information systems and services, provides more and better information, improves information service quality and privacy, provides remedies for failures and offers best value for money?.
+
+(b) The value (pillars) that the e-Government programme contributes to the public sector iCT environment is:
+
+(i) Security, by ensuring that information systems and related technologies operate in a maintained security environment.
+(ii) Interoperability, by ensuring that information systems and Information and Communication Technology infrastructure of government can interconnect and exchange information.
+(iii) Reduced duplication, by eliminating unnecessary duplications, by promoting sharing and consolidation of Information systems and Information and Communication Technology infrastructure across government.
+(iv) Economies of scale, by leveraging collective purchasing power of government to lower unit prices from industry.
+(v) Digital inclusion, by promoting the South African ICT industry, with a particular emphasis on Broad Based Black Economic Empowerment (BBBEE), labour absorption, and stimulation of equitable economic growth and skills development of Information and Communication Technology in South Africa.
+
+(c) )The capabilities (foundation) by which to achieve the outcomes and values of eGovernment are:
+
+(i) ICT planning, the capabilities that set direction and standards for Information and Communication Technology, Enterprise Architecture and to validate/certify conformance and performance thereto.
+
+(i) ICT integration, the capabilities that provide and develop Information and Communication Technology Systems and Technology Infrastructure into integrated Information and Communication Technology solutions.
+(iii) ICT operations, the capabilities to ensure that Information and Communication Technology Systems and Technology Infrastructure are maintained in a reliable, available and secure environment.
+
+(4) The advancement of interoperability in Government is an ongoing process and should be managed as a long-term, dynamic and agile programme. It is therefore incumbent upon the Government Information Technology Officers as heads of Information and Communication technology within each department, under the umbrella of the Government Information Technology Officers Council (GlToC) to promote the objectives of interoperability and to observe the principles and comply with the standards as set out in MlOs during the life-cycle management of iS/iCT in government. It is also essential that MiOS remains updated and that it aligns to stakeholder requirements, changes in legislative environment, so that government can embrace the potential of technological advancement in the market and address the archival issues inherent to the digital age.
+
+The Minimum Interoperability Standards (MiOS) provides a set of mandatory standards that will ensure the achievement of the interoperability pillar in the ICT House of Value as illustrated in figure 1 above.
+
+# 2.MANDATE
+
+(1) Interoperability between Information Systems and Information-and-Communication Technology (IS/iCT) in government is mandated in accordance with the following legislation:
+
+(a) Public Service Act, 1994 (Proclamation 103 of 1994) mandates the Minister of Public Service and Administration ("Minister") to establish norms and standards for Information Management in the Public Service and e-Government respectively;
+(b) Public Service Regulations as amended in 2016 - (1) Obligates heads of departments to comply with the MIOS. (ii) Mandates the Minister for Public Service and Administration to issue the MIOS.
+(c) Public Finance Management Act, 1999 (Act 1 of 1999) section 38(1) (b) and (e) holds an accounting officer responsible for the effective, efficient, economical and transparent use of the resources and to comply with audit commitments as required by legislation.
+
+# 3.PURPOSE AND BENEFITS
+
+(1)The purpose of the MiOs is to prescribe open system standards that will ensure minimum level of interoperability within and between IS/lCT systems that are utilised in government, industry, citizens and the international community in support of e-Government objectives.
+
+(2) The benefits that MiOS provides to stakeholders are:
+
+(a) To government IS/iCT management communities, it provides a framework to ensure compliance with interoperability stipulations as set out in the SITA Act and Public Service Regulations respectively. It further underpins the collective value of IS/ICT as a strategic resource of government that must be valued, shared and used to improve public service delivery.
+(b) To enterprise architects, solution architects, designers and implementers, it provides a basis for designing, using and implementing open standards based solutions to improve interoperability and reduce duplication across government IS/ICT.
+(c) To acquirers, it provides the minimum mandatory technical specifications that must form part of all bid documents.
+(d) To the Certification Authority, it serves as a baseline by which to verify and certify conformance of IS/icT goods and services for use in government.
+(e) To ICT goods and service providers, it substantiates government's strategic intent towards the adoption of and migration to open standards and that only MIOS compliant products are considered for integration into the Government Information Infrastructure.
+
+# 4.SCOPE
+
+4.1 What is included in the MIOS?
+
+The Minimum Interoperability Standard (MlOS) contains the following:
+
+a) The management processes and responsibilities for - i) the setting and approval of interoperability standards, and ii) the certification of IS/iCT products and services for compliance with such standards; and
+b) The set of interoperability standards regardingi) Data format standards to enable exchange of data between government information systems (IS), and ii) Technical standards to interconnect, interoperate, access and exchange data among components of government Information and Communication Technology (lCT) infrastructure.
+
+4.2 What is excluded in the MIOS?
+
+(a) The MlOS does not prescribe any standards relating to business processes of Information Systems and Information Communication Technology Services (1S/iCT) services, except for the processes to set the standard and to certify compliance with such standards.
+
+(b) The IS/lCT business process and service standards, such as ICT Governance practice standards, Enterprise Architecture practice standards, lnformation System Security practice standards, Quality Management practice standards, System Development Life Cycle (SDLC) practice standard, Project Management practice standard and ICT Service Management standards form part of the prevailing and evolving Government IS/iCT Governance Framework.
+
+# 5.COMPLIANCE
+
+5.1 To whom does the MiOs apply?
+
+1. The MlOS is normative (it is prescriptive and compliance is mandatory) to
+
+a) Heads of National departments
+b) Heads of Provincial departments
+c) associated agencies/entities as listed in the Schedules to the Public Service Act
+
+2.The MlOS is informative, it is descriptive and compliance but is not yet mandatory to the Heads of Local Government.
+
+5.2 How is Mlos applicable?
+
+1. According to the Public Service Regulations, 2016, Chapter 6 Information Management and Electronic Government, Regulation 97:
+
+(2) “The MiOs shall include provision for standards and specifications for - a)
+Interconnectivity; b) Data integration; and c) Information access.
+(3) Any new information and communication technology system developed or acquired or
+any upgrade of any existing information and communication technology system in the public
+service shall comply with the MIOS.
+(4) A Head of Department (HOD) shall - (a) Include compliance with the MlOS in the project approval procedure; and (b) Ensure compliance to the MlOs in the acquisition or use of information and communication technology."
+
+2. In the context of electronic government, the MiOs is applicable to all e-government systems throughout their life-cycle.
+
+a. e-Government system means “any information system in the public service" and the interoperability of e-Government systems (as illustrated in Figure 2: e-Government information exchange scenarios), is described as - i. Government to Government (G2G) information system - any government information system that interconnects and exchanges information with another government information system (including any two information systems within a department). ii. Government to Business (G2B) information system - any government information system that interconnects and exchanges information with a commercial or non-governmental business entity; and ii. Government to Citizen (G2C) system - any government information system that interconnects and exchanges information with a citizen or community.
+
+
+Figure 2: e-Government information exchange scenarios
+
+b. The life-cycle stages and conditions when MlOs is applicable, are for -
+
+i. A new Government system that is either under development or in acquisition;
+ii. An Government system that is upgraded in functionality to enable new business processes or that is upgraded in terms of its technology infrastructure (i.e. same business processes and functionality, but new technology infrastructure)
+ili. An existing (legacy) Government system in operation.
+iv. All technology stacks currently in use in government are accommodated in this framework. However, all new technologies/software/systems under consideration from the time this framework is adopted must be able to incorporate these standards while ensuring interoperability with legacy systems to ensure investments are protected.
+
+# 6.PRINCIPLES UNDERPINNING MIOS
+
+There are number of definitions of open standards which emphasise different aspects of openness, including of the resulting specification, the openness of the drafting process, and the ownership of rights in the standard.
+
+The following principles shall apply during the selection of interoperability standards for inclusion or amendment to the MIOS:
+
+(a) Interoperability: The standard is designed to advance interconnectedness and data exchange within and between systems. (b) Openness: the specifications for the standards is open, which is characterised by:
+
+(1) The standard should be maintained by a non-commercial organization.
+(11) The standard development and decision-making processes are inclusive and open to all interested parties.
+(ii) The standards development outputs, including documents, drafts and completed standards, are accessible to anyone at no cost or at a negligible fee.
+(iv) The intellectual rights required to implement the standard (e.g. essential patent claims) are irrevocably available, without any royalties attached.
+(v) The standard must not favour or provide exclusive rights to a particular vendor or product brand.
+
+(c) Industry support: the standard is widely supported by the industry, and is likely to reduce the cost of and the risk inherent to systems.
+
+# APPENDIXA-ABBREVIATIONS
+
+BBBEE Broad Based Black Economic Empowerment
+BPMN Business Process Modelling Notation
+EA Enterprise Architecture
+GCIO Government Chief Information Officer
+GITO Government Information Technology Officer
+GITOC Government Information Technology Officers Council
+GWEA Government Wide Enterprise Architecture
+ICT Information and Communication Technology
+IS Information Systems
+ISO International Organisation for Standardisation
+MIOS Minimum Interoperability Standards
+SC-AGC Standing Committee on Architecture, Governance and Compliance
+SITA State Information Technology Agency
+OMG Object Management Group
+TOGAF The Open Group Architecture Framework
+UML Unified Modelling Language
+
+In reverse order
+
+
+
Document Name
Revision Authority
Update
Revision Date
MIOS V 6.0
OGCIO/GITOC/SITA
Policy Framework MPSA foreword Catalogue of Standards V1
and and
Nov 2017
MIOS V5.0
OGCIO/GITOC/SITA
Policy Framework Standards Not submitted to MPSA in Nov 2011
and
Nov 2011 Nov 2016
MIOS V4.1
OGCIO/GITOC/SITA
Minister's foreword and Open Standards Revision
Sept 2007
MIOS V 4.0
OGCIO/GITOC/SITA
Further revision
August 2007
MIOSV 4
OGCIO/GITOC/SITA
Included ISO 26300 Open Document Standard format (ODF). Minor maintenance revisions. Reformatted.
July 2007
MIOS V 3
OGCIO(DPSA) /GITOC/SITA
Split MlOS into 2 parts: Part 1 is Technical Policies and Standards Part 2 is
April 2002
MIOS V2
OGCIO (DPSA)/ GITOC/SITA
Implementation Support. Workshopwith inputs from GITOC
Nov 2001
MIOS V1
SITA Services Certification Unit
Customisation of MiOs for SA Government (from UK government)
Sept.2001
e-GIF
Adopted from UK GOV
July 2001
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+Please note that most Acts are published in English and another South African official language Currently we only have capacity to publish the English versions.
+This means that this document will only contain even numbered pages as the other language is printed on uneven numbered pages.
+
+# REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
+# GOVERNMENT GAZETTE
+[VoL.204] Cape Town, 16 June 1982 [No. 8248]
+
+
+# OFFICE OF THE PRIME MINISTER
+
+It is hereby notified that the State President has assented to the following Act which is hereby published for general information:-
+
+No. 84 of 1982: Protection of Information Act, 1982.
+# PROTECTION OF INFORMATION ACT, 1982
+ACT
+To provide for the protection from disclosure of certain information; and to provide for matters connected therewith.
+
+RE IT ENACTED by the State President and the House of Assembly of the Republic of South Africa, as follows:-
+
+[I] Definitions.
+
+1.
+(1) In this Act, unless the context otherwise indicates
+(i) “agent" means any person who is or has been or is reasonably suspected of being or having been directly or indirectly used by or in the name of or on behalf of any foreign State or any hostile organization for the purpose of committing in the Republic or elsewhere an act prejudicial to the security or interests of the Republic, or who has or is reasonably suspected of having committed or attempted to commit such an act in the Republic or elsewhere in the interests of any foreign State or any hostile organization;
+(ii) “armaments” means armaments as defined in section 1 of the Armaments Development and Production Act, 1968 (Act No.57 of 1968);
+(iii) “document" means
+(a)any note or writing, whether produced by hand or by printing, typewriting or any other similar process;
+(b) any copy, plan, picture, sketch or photographic or other representation of any place or article;
+(c) any disc, tape, card, perforated roll or other device in or on which sound or any signal has been recorded for reproduction;
+
+(iv) “foreign State” means any State other than the Republic;
+(v) “Government” includes the South African Transport Services, the Department of Posts and Telecommunications and any provincial administration;
+(vi) “hostile organization" means
+(a)any organization declared by or under any Act of Parliament to be an unlawful organization;
+(b) any association of persons or any movement or institution declared under section 14 to be a hostile organization;
+(vii) “military” includes army, air force and naval;
+(viii) “model" includes any design, pattern or specimen;
+(ix)“prohibited place” means
+(a) any work of defence belonging to or occupied or used by or on behalf of the Government, including—
+ (i) any arsenal, military establishment or station, factory, dockyard, camp, ship, vessel or aircraft;
+ (ii) any telegraph, telephone, radio or signal station or office; and
+ (iii)any place used for building repairing, making, keeping or obtaining armaments or any model or document relating thereto;
+(b) any place where armaments or any model or document relating thereto is being built, repaired, made, kept or obtained under contract with or on behalf of the Government or of the government of any foreign State;
+(c) any place or area declared under section 14 to be a prohibited place; (viii)
+
+(x) “security matter” includes any matter which is dealt with by the National Intelligence Service or which relates to the functions of that Service or to the relationship existing between any person and that Service.
+
+(2)In this Act, unless the context otherwise indicates
+(a) any reference to the disclosing or receiving of anything includes a reference to the disclosing or receiving of any part or the substance, effect or description thereof;
+(b) any reference to the obtaining or retaining of anything includes a reference to the obtaining or retaining of any part or the copying or causing to be copied of the whole or any part thereof, whether by photography or otherwise;
+(c) any reference to the disclosing of anything includes a reference to the transmission or transfer thereof; and
+(d)any reference to any offence or prosecution under any provision of this Act includes a reference to an offence or a prosecution under the provisions of section 18 of the Riotous Assemblies Act,1956(Act No.17 of 1956), read with the relevant provisions of this Act.
+
+[Prohibition of certain acts in relation o prohibited places]
+2. Any person who approaches, inspects, passes over, is in the neighbourhood of or enters any prohibited place for any purpose prejudicial to the security or interests of the Republic, shall be guilty of an offence and liable on conviction to imprisonment for a period not exceeding 20 years.
+
+[Prohibition of obtaining and disclosure of certain information]
+3. Any person who, for purposes of the disclosure thereof to any foreign State or to any agent, or to any employee or inhabitant of, or any organization, party, institution, body or movement in, any foreign State, or to any hostile organization or to any office-bearer, officer, member or active supporter of any hostile organization—
+(a) obtains or receives any secret official code or password or any document, model, article or information used, kept, made or obtained in any prohibited place; or
+(b) prepares, compiles, makes, obtains or receives any document, model, article or information relating to
+ (i) any prohibited place or anything in any prohibited place, or to armaments; or
+ (ii) the defence of the Republic, any military matter, any security matter or the prevention or combating of terrorism; or
+ (iii) any other matter or article, and which he knows or reasonably should know may directly or indirectly be of use to any foreign State or any hostile organization and which, for considerations of the security or the other interests of the Republic, should not be disclosed to any foreign State or to any hostile organization,
+shall be guilty of an offence and liable on conviction to the penalty prescribed in section 2.
+
+[Prohibition of disclosure of certain information.]
+4.(1) Any person who has in his possession or under his control or at his disposal
+(a) any secret official code or password; or
+(b)any document, model, article or information
+ (i)which he knows or reasonably should know is kept, used, made or obtained in a prohibited place or relates to a prohibited place, anything in a prohibited place, armaments, the defence of the Republic, a military matter, a security matter or the prevention or combating of terrorism;
+ (ii) which has been made, obtained or received in contravention of this Act;
+ (iii) which has been entrusted in confidence to him by any person holding office under the Government;
+ (iv) which he has obtained or to which he has, had access by virtue of his position as a person who holds or has held office under the Government, or as a person who holds or has held a contract made on behalf of the Government, or a contract the performance of which takes place entirely or partly in a prohibited place, or as a person who is or has been employed under a person who holds or has held such office or contract, and the secrecy of which document, model, article or information he knows or reasonably should know to be required by the security or the other interests of the Republic, or
+ (v)of which he obtained possession in any manner and which document, model, article or information he knows or reasonably should know has been obtained by any other person in any of the ways referred to in paragraph (iii) or (iv) and the unauthorized disclosure of such document, model, article or information by such other person he knows
+35 or reasonably should know will be an offence under this Act, and who
+(aa) discloses such code, password, document, model, article or information to any person other than a person to whom he is authorized to disclose it or to whom it may lawfully be disclosed or to whom, in the interests of the Republic, it is his duty to disclose it;
+(bb) publishes or uses such code, password, document, model, article or information in any manner or for any
+45 purpose which is prejudicial to the security or interests of the Republic;
+(cc) retains such code, password, document, model, article or information when he has no right to retain it or when it is contrary to his duty to retain it, or neglects or fails to comply with any directions issued by lawful authority with regard to the return or disposal thereof; or
+(dd) neglects or fails to take proper care of such code, password, document, model, article or information, or so to conduct himself as not to endanger the safety thereof,
+
+shall be guilty of an offence and liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding R10 000 or to imprisonment for a period not exceeding 10 years or to both such fine and such imprisonment, or, if it is proved that the publication or disclosure of such secret official code or password or of such document, model, article or information took place for the purpose of its being disclosed toa foreign State or to a hostile organization, to the penalty prescribed in section 2.
+
+(2) Any person who receives any secret official code or password or any document, model, article or information, knowing or having reasonable grounds to believe, at the time when he receives it, that such code, password, document, model, article or information is being disclosed to him in contravention of the provisions of this Act, shall, unless he proves that the disclosure thereof to him was against his wish, be guilty of an offence and 5 liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding R10 o00 or to imprisonment for a period not exceeding 10 years or to both such fine and such imprisonment.
+
+[Prohibition of certain acts prejudicial to security or interests of Republic.]
+5.
+(1) Any person who, for the purpose of gaining or assisting any other person to gain admission to any prohibited place, or for any other purpose prejudicial to the security or interests of the Republic
+(a) without lawful authority uses or wears any military, police or other official uniform of the Republic, or any uniform worn by a person employed at or in a prohibited place, or any uniform so closely resembling any of the said uniforms as to be calculated to deceive, or falsely represents himself to be a person who is or has been entitled to use or wear any such uniform;
+(b) orally or in writing in any declaration or application, or in any document signed by him or on his behalf, knowingly makes any false statement or omits any relevant fact;
+(c) forges, alters or tampers with any passport or any official pass, permit, certificate, licence or other similar document (hereinafter in this section referred to as an official document), or uses or has in his possession any forged, altered or irregular official document;
+(d) impersonates or falsely represents himself to be a person holding, or in the employment of a person holding, office under the Government, or to be or not to be a person to whom an official document or a secret official code or password has been duly issued or disclosed, or, with intent to obtain an official document or any secret official code or password, whether for himself or for any other person, knowingly makes any false statement; or
+(e) uses or has in his possession or under his control, without lawful authority, any official die, seal or stamp of the Republic or any die, seal or stamp so closely resembling any such official die, seal or stamp as to be calculated to deceive, or counterfeits any such official die, seal or stamp, or uses or has in his possession or under his control any such counterfeited die, seal or stamp,
+
+shall be guilty of an offence and liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding R5000 or to imprisonment for a period not exceeding five years or to both such fine and such imprisonment.
+
+(2) Any person who
+(a) retains for any purpose prejudicial to the security or interests of the Republic any official document, whether or not completed or issued for use, when he has no right to retain it or when it is contrary to his duty to retain it, or neglects or fails to comply with any directions issued by lawful authority with regard to the return or disposal thereof;
+(b) allows any other person to have possession of any official document issued for his use alone, or without lawful authority or excuse has in his possession any official document or secret official code or password issued for the use of some person other than himself, or, on obtaining possession of any official document, whether by finding or otherwise, neglects or fails to hand it over to the person or authority by whom or for whose use it was issued or to a member of the South African Police or the South African Railway Police Force; or
+(c) without lawful authority or excuse manufactures or sells, or has in his possession for sale, any die, seal or stamp referred to in paragraph (e) of subsection (1), shall be guilty of an offence and liable on conviction to the penalties prescribed in subsection (1).
+
+[Obstructing persons on guard at prohibited places. ]
+6. Any person who obstructs, knowingly misleads or otherwise interferes with any person engaged on guard, sentry, patrol or other similar duty in relation to any prohibited place shall be guilty of an offence and liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding R1000 or to imprisonment for a period not exceeding 12 months or to both such fine and such imprisonment.
+
+
+[Harbouring or concealing certain persons and failing to report information relating to agents.
+7. Any person who—
+(a) knowingly harbours or conceals any person whom he knows or has reason to believe to be a person who is about to commit or who has committed an offence under this Act, or knowingly permits any such persons to meet or assemble in any premises in his occupation or under his control;
+(b) having harboured or concealed any such person, or permitted such persons to meet or assemble in any premises in his occupation or under his control, wilfully omits or refuses to disclose to any member of the South African Police or the South African Railway Police Force any information it is in his power to give in relation to any such person; or
+(c) knowing that any agent or any person who has been or is in communication with an agent, whether in the Re
+30 public or elsewhere, is in the Republic, fails forthwith to report to any member of the South African Police or the South African Railway Police Force the presence of or any information it is in his power to give in relation to any such agent or person,
+
+shall be guilty of an offence and liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding R1000 or to imprisonment for a period not exceeding 12 months or to both such fine and such imprisonment.
+
+
+[Communication with agent proof of certain facts.]
+8.
+(1) If in any prosecution upon a charge under section 3, or upon a charge under section 4 (1) in connection with the publi40 cation or disclosure of a secret official code or password or a document, model, article or information as referred to in that section, it is proved that the accused
+(a) has been in communication, or has attempted to communicate, with an agent in the Republic or elsewhere; or
+(b) is an agent or is being or has been or is reasonably suspected of being or having been directly or indirectly used by a foreign or international body or institution, or has entered or is within the Republic in contravention of any law
+
+it shall, unless the contrary is proved, be presumed that the document, model, article or information referred to in section 3 has been prepared, compiled, made, obtained or received, or the secret official code or password or the model, article, document or information referred to in section 4 (1) has been published or disclosed, as the case may be, for purposes of the disclosure thereof to a foreign State or to a hostile organization.
+
+(2) For the purposes of subsection (1)-
+(a) a person shall, unless he proves the contrary, be pre60 sumed to have been in communication with an agent if
+(i) he has, in the Republic or elsewhere, visited the address of an agent or associated with an agent; or
+(ii) in the Republic or elsewhere, the name or address of or any other information regarding an agent has been found in his possession or under his control, or has been supplied by him to any other person or has been obtained by him from any other person;
+
+(b) any address, in the Republic or elsewhere, reasonably suspected to be an address used for the receipt of communications intended for an agent, or at which an agent resides, or to which he resorts for the purpose of giving or receiving communications, or at which he carries on any business, shall be deemed to be the address of an agent, and any person who addresses communications to such address shall be deemed to have been in communication with an agent.
+
+[Proof that certain information may directly or indirectly be of use to foreign State or hostile organization.]
+9.
+If in any prosecution against any person for an offence under section 3 it is proved that he is an agent or that he is or has been or is reasonably suspected of being or having been directly or indirectly used by or on behalf of any foreign or international body or institution or that he has entered or is within the Republic in contravention of any law and that he has prepared, compiled, made, obtained or received any document, model, article or information other than that referred to in section 3 (a), or any document, model, article or information relating to a place, article or matter other than that referred to in section 3 (b) (i) or (ii),
+
+it shall, unless the contrary is proved, be presumed that such document, model, article or information may directly or indirectly be of use to a foreign State or a hostile organization.
+
+[Proof of purpose prejudicial to security or interests of Republic. ]
+10.
+(1) In any prosecution under this Act upon a charge of committing an act for a purpose prejudicial to the security or interests of the Republic, it shall, if, from the circumstances of the case or the conduct of the accused, it appears that his purpose was a purpose prejudicial to the security or interests of the Republic, be presumed, unless the contrary is proved, that the purpose for which that act has been committed, is a purpose prejudicial to the security or interests of the Republic.
+
+(2) If in any prosecution under this Act upon a charge of publishing or disclosing any secret official code or password or any document, model, article or information for a purpose prejudicial to the security or interests of the Republic, it is proved that.
+it was published or disclosed by any person other than a person acting under lawful authority, or by an agent or by a person who is or has been or is reasonably suspected of being or having been directly or indirectly used by any foreign or international body or institution or who has entered or is within the Republic in contravention of any law,
+it shall, unless the contrary is proved, be presumed that the purpose for which it was published or disclosed is a purpose prejudicial to the security or interests of the Republic.
+
+
+[Extra-territorial application of Act, and jurisdiction. ]
+11.
+(1) Any act constituting an offence under this Act and
+50 which is committed outside the Republic by any South African citizen or any person domiciled in the Republic shall be deemed to have been committed also in the Republic.
+(2) Any offence under this Act shall, for the purposes of determining the jurisdiction of a court to try the offence, be deemed to have been committed at the place where it actually was committed and also at any place where the accused happens to be.
+
+
+[Authority of attorney-genera; required for institution of criminal proceedings.]
+12. No trial or preparatory examination in respect of any offence under this Act, except any contravention of section 6, shall be instituted without the written authority of the attorney-general having jurisdiction in the area concerned.
+
+[Criminal proceedings may take place behind closed doors.]
+13. Any court may, if it appears to that court to be necessary for considerations of the security or the other interests of the Republic, direct that any trial or preparatory examination in respect of an offence under this Act, shall take place behind closed doors or that the general public or any section thereof shall not be present thereat, and if the court issues any such direction, the court shall have the same powers as those conferred upon a court by section 154 (1) of the Criminal Procedure Act, 1977 (Act No. 51 of 1977),and the provisions of subsections (1),(4) L0 and (5) of the said section 154 shall apply *mutatis mutandis*.
+
+
+[Prohibited places and hostile organizations.]
+14. The State President may, for the purposes of this Act, by proclamation in the *Gazette* declare-—
+(a) any place or area to be a prohibited place if he is satisfied that information with respect to that place or area, or the loss, damage, disruption or immobilization thereof could be of use to a foreign State or a hostile organization; or
+(b) any association of persons, movement or institution outside the Republic to be a hostile organization if he is satisfied that that association of persons, movement or institution incites, instigates, commands, aids, advises, encourages or procures any person in the Republic or elsewhere to commit in the Republic an act of violence for any purpose prejudicial to the security or interests of the Republic,
+
+and may in like manner at any time repeal or amend any such proclamation.
+
+[Repeal of laws.]
+15. The laws specified in the Schedule are hereby repealed to 1 the extent set out in the third column of the Schedule.
+
+
+[Short title.]
+16. This Act shall be called the Protection of Information Act, 1982.
+
+
+# Schedule
+
+LAWS REPEALED
+
No. and year of law
Title
Extent of repeal
Act No. 16 of 1956...
Official Secrets Act, 1956
The whole.
Act No. 65 of 1956.
Official Secrets Amendment Act, 1956.
The whole.
Act No. 7 of 1958
Police Act, 1958
Section 27C.
Act No. 101 of 1969.
General Law Amendment Act, 1969
Sections 10, 11 and 12.
Act No. 102 of 1972.
General Law Amendment Act, 1972
Section 10.
\ No newline at end of file
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+Please note that most Acts are published in English and another South African official language. Currently we only have capacity to publish the English versions. This means that this document will only contain even numbered pages as the other language is printed on uneven numbered pages.
+
+# Government Gazette
+
+26 November 2013
+
+# GENERAL EXPLANATORY NOTE:
+
+] Words in bold type in square brackets indicate omissions from existing enactments. Words underlined with a solid line indicate insertions in existing enactments.
+
+(English text signed by the President) (Assented to 19 November 2013)
+
+# ACT
+
+To promote the protection of personal information processed by public and private bodies; to introduce certain conditions so as to establish minimum requirements for the processing of personal information; to provide for the establishment of an Information Regulator to exercise certain powers and to perform certain duties and functions in terms of this Act and the Promotion of Access to Information Act, 2000; to provide for the issuing of codes of conduct; to provide for the rights of persons regarding unsolicited electronic communications and automated decision making; to regulate the flow of personal information across the borders of the Republic; and to provide for matters connected therewith.
+
+# PREAMBLE
+
+# RECOGNISING THAT—
+
+● section 14 of the Constitution of the Republic of South Africa, 1996, provides that everyone has the right to privacy;
+● the right to privacy includes a right to protection against the unlawful collection, retention, dissemination and use of personal information;
+● the State must respect, protect, promote and fulfil the rights in the Bill of Rights;
+
+# AND BEARING IN MIND THAT—
+
+● consonant with the constitutional values of democracy and openness, the need for economic and social progress, within the framework of the information society, requires the removal of unnecessary impediments to the free flow of information, including personal information;
+
+# AND IN ORDER TO—
+
+● regulate, in harmony with international standards, the processing of personal information by public and private bodies in a manner that gives effect to the right to privacy subject to justifiable limitations that are aimed at protecting other rights and important interests,
+
+ARLIAMENT of the Republic of South Africa therefore enacts, as follows:—
+
+# CONTENTS OF ACT
+
+# CHAPTER 1
+
+# DEFINITIONS AND PURPOSE
+
+5
+
+1. Definitions
+2. Purpose of Act
+
+# CHAPTER 2
+
+# APPLICATION PROVISIONS
+
+10
+
+3. Application and interpretation of Act
+4. Lawful processing of personal information
+5. Rights of data subjects
+6. Exclusions
+7. Exclusion for journalistic, literary or artistic purposes
+
+# CHAPTER 3
+
+15
+
+# CONDITIONS FOR LAWFUL PROCESSING OF PERSONAL INFORMATION
+
+Part A
+
+Processing of personal information in general
+
+Condition 1
+
+# Accountability
+
+20
+
+8. Responsible party to ensure conditions for lawful processing
+
+# Condition 2
+
+# Processing limitation
+
+9. Lawfulness of processing
+10. Minimality
+11. Consent, justification and objection
+12. Collection directly from data subject
+
+25
+
+# Condition 3
+
+# Purpose specification
+
+13. Collection for specific purpose 30
+14. Retention and restriction of records
+
+# Condition 4
+
+# Further processing limitation
+
+15. Further processing to be compatible with purpose of collection
+
+# Condition 5
+
+35
+
+Information quality
+
+16. Quality of information
+
+6
+
+# Condition 6
+
+# Openness
+
+17. Documentation
+18. Notification to data subject when collecting personal information
+
+# Condition 7
+
+5
+
+# Security safeguards
+
+19. Security measures on integrity and confidentiality of personal information
+20. Information processed by operator or person acting under authority
+21. Security measures regarding information processed by operator
+22. Notification of security compromises
+
+10
+
+# Condition 8
+
+# Data subject participation
+
+23. Access to personal information
+24. Correction of personal information
+25. Manner of access
+
+15
+
+# Part B
+
+# Processing of special personal information
+
+26. Prohibition on processing of special personal information
+27. General authorisation concerning special personal information
+28. Authorisation concerning data subject’s religious or philosophical beliefs 20
+29. Authorisation concerning data subject’s race or ethnic origin
+30. Authorisation concerning data subject’s trade union membership
+31. Authorisation concerning data subject’s political persuasion
+32. Authorisation concerning data subject’s health or sex life
+33. Authorisation concerning data subject’s criminal behaviour or biometric 25
+information
+
+# Part C
+
+# Processing of personal information of children
+
+34. Prohibition on processing personal information of children
+35. General authorisation concerning personal information of children
+
+30
+
+# CHAPTER 4
+
+# EXEMPTION FROM CONDITIONS FOR PROCESSING OF PERSONAL INFORMATION
+
+36. General
+37. Regulator may exempt processing of personal information
+38. Exemption in respect of certain functions
+
+35
+
+# CHAPTER 5
+
+# SUPERVISION
+
+Part A
+
+# Information Regulator
+
+40
+
+39. Establishment of Information Regulator
+40. Powers, duties and functions of Regulator
+
+8
+
+41. Appointment, term of office and removal of members of Regulator
+42. Vacancies
+43. Powers, duties and functions of Chairperson and other members
+44. Regulator to have regard to certain matters
+45. Conflict of interest 5
+46. Remuneration, allowances, benefits and privileges of members
+47. Staff
+48. Powers, duties and functions of chief executive officer
+49. Committees of Regulator
+50. Establishment of Enforcement Committee 10
+51. Meetings of Regulator
+52. Funds
+53. Protection of Regulator
+54. Duty of confidentiality
+
+Part B 15
+
+# Information Officer
+
+55. Duties and responsibilities of Information Officer
+56. Designation and delegation of deputy information officers
+
+# CHAPTER 6
+
+# PRIOR AUTHORISATION
+
+20
+
+# Prior Authorisation
+
+57. Processing subject to prior authorisation
+58. Responsible party to notify Regulator if processing is subject to prior authorisation
+59. Failure to notify processing subject to prior authorisation 25
+
+# CHAPTER 7
+
+# CODES OF CONDUCT
+
+60. Issuing of codes of conduct
+61. Process for issuing codes of conduct
+62. Notification, availability and commencement of code of conduct 30
+63. Procedure for dealing with complaints
+64. Amendment and revocation of codes of conduct
+65. Guidelines about codes of conduct
+66. Register of approved codes of conduct
+67. Review of operation of approved code of conduct 35
+68. Effect of failure to comply with code of conduct
+
+# CHAPTER 8
+
+# RIGHTS OF DATA SUBJECTS REGARDING DIRECT MARKETINGBY MEANS OF UNSOLICITED ELECTRONIC COMMUNICATIONS,DIRECTORIES AND AUTOMATED DECISION MAKING
+
+69. Direct marketing by means of unsolicited electronic communications
+70. Directories
+71. Automated decision making
+
+10
+
+# CHAPTER 9
+
+# TRANSBORDER INFORMATION FLOWS
+
+72. Transfers of personal information outside Republic
+
+CHAPTER 10
+
+# ENFORCEMENT 5
+
+73. Interference with protection of personal information of data subject
+74. Complaints
+75. Mode of complaints to Regulator
+76. Action on receipt of complaint
+77. Regulator may decide to take no action on complaint 10
+78. Referral of complaint to regulatory body
+79. Pre-investigation proceedings of Regulator
+80. Settlement of complaints
+81. Investigation proceedings of Regulator
+82. Issue of warrants 15
+83. Requirements for issuing of warrant
+84. Execution of warrants
+85. Matters exempt from search and seizure
+86. Communication between legal adviser and client exempt
+87. Objection to search and seizure 20
+88. Return of warrants
+89. Assessment
+90. Information notice
+91. Parties to be informed of result of assessment
+92. Matters referred to Enforcement Committee 25
+93. Functions of Enforcement Committee
+94. Parties to be informed of developments during and result of investigation
+95. Enforcement notice
+96. Cancellation of enforcement notice
+97. Right of appeal 30
+98. Consideration of appeal
+99. Civil remedies
+
+# CHAPTER 11
+
+# OFFENCES, PENALTIES AND ADMINISTRATIVE FINES
+
+100. Obstruction of Regulator 35
+101. Breach of confidentiality
+102. Obstruction of execution of warrant
+103. Failure to comply with enforcement or information notices
+104. Offences by witnesses
+105. Unlawful acts by responsible party in connection with account number 40
+106. Unlawful acts by third parties in connection with account number
+107. Penalties
+108. Magistrate’s Court jurisdiction to impose penalties
+109. Administrative fines
+
+CHAPTER 12 45
+
+# GENERAL PROVISIONS
+
+110. Amendment of laws
+111. Fees
+112. Regulations
+113. Procedure for making regulations
+114. Transitional arrangements
+115. Short title and commencement
+
+12
+
+# SCHEDULE
+
+Laws amended by section 110
+
+# CHAPTER 1
+
+# DEFINITIONS AND PURPOSE
+
+# Definitions
+
+1. In this Act, unless the context indicates otherwise— ‘‘biometrics’’ means a technique of personal identification that is based on physical, physiological or behavioural characterisation including blood typing, fingerprinting, DNA analysis, retinal scanning and voice recognition;
+
+‘‘child’’ means a natural person under the age of 18 years who is not legally competent, without the assistance of a competent person, to take any action or decision in respect of any matter concerning him- or herself;
+
+‘‘code of conduct’’ means a code of conduct issued in terms of Chapter 7;
+
+‘‘competent person’’ means any person who is legally competent to consent to any action or decision being taken in respect of any matter concerning a child; 1 ‘‘consent’’ means any voluntary, specific and informed expression of will in terms of which permission is given for the processing of personal information;
+
+‘‘Constitution’’ means the Constitution of the Republic of South Africa, 1996;
+‘‘data subject’’ means the person to whom personal information relates;
+
+‘‘de-identify’’, in relation to personal information of a data subject, means to delete 20 any information that—
+
+(a) identifies the data subject;
+(b) can be used or manipulated by a reasonably foreseeable method to identify the data subject; or can be linked by a reasonably foreseeable method to other information that 25 identifies the data subject,
+
+and ‘‘de-identified’’ has a corresponding meaning;
+
+‘‘direct marketing’’ means to approach a data subject, either in person or by mail or electronic communication, for the direct or indirect purpose of—
+
+(a) promoting or offering to supply, in the ordinary course of business, any goods 30 or services to the data subject; or (b) requesting the data subject to make a donation of any kind for any reason;
+
+‘‘electronic communication’’ means any text, voice, sound or image message sent over an electronic communications network which is stored in the network or in the recipient’s terminal equipment until it is collected by the recipient;
+
+‘‘enforcement notice’’ means a notice issued in terms of section 95;
+
+‘‘filing system’’ means any structured set of personal information, whether centralised, decentralised or dispersed on a functional or geographical basis, which is accessible according to specific criteria;
+
+‘‘information matching programme’’ means the comparison, whether manually 40 or by means of any electronic or other device, of any document that contains personal information about ten or more data subjects with one or more documents that contain personal information of ten or more data subjects, for the purpose of producing or verifying information that may be used for the purpose of taking any action in regard to an identifiable data subject; 45 ‘‘information officer’’ of, or in relation to, a—
+
+(a) public body means an information officer or deputy information officer as contemplated in terms of section 1 or 17; or
+(b) private body means the head of a private body as contemplated in section 1, of the Promotion of Access to Information Act;
+‘‘Minister’’ means the Cabinet member responsible for the administration of justice;
+‘‘operator’’ means a person who processes personal information for a responsible party in terms of a contract or mandate, without coming under the direct authority of that party;
+
+‘‘person’’ means a natural person or a juristic person;
+
+‘‘personal information’’ means information relating to an identifiable, living, natural person, and where it is applicable, an identifiable, existing juristic person, including, but not limited to—
+
+(a) information relating to the race, gender, sex, pregnancy, marital status, national, ethnic or social origin, colour, sexual orientation, age, physical or 5 mental health, well-being, disability, religion, conscience, belief, culture, language and birth of the person;
+(b) information relating to the education or the medical, financial, criminal or employment history of the person;
+(c) any identifying number, symbol, e-mail address, physical address, telephone 10 number, location information, online identifier or other particular assignment to the person;
+(d) the biometric information of the person;
+(e) the personal opinions, views or preferences of the person;
+$(f)$ correspondence sent by the person that is implicitly or explicitly of a private 15 or confidential nature or further correspondence that would reveal the contents of the original correspondence;
+(g) the views or opinions of another individual about the person; and
+$(h)$ the name of the person if it appears with other personal information relating to the person or if the disclosure of the name itself would reveal information 20 about the person;
+
+‘‘prescribed’’ means prescribed by regulation or by a code of conduct; ‘‘private body’’ means—
+
+(a) a natural person who carries or has carried on any trade, business or profession, but only in such capacity; 25
+(b) a partnership which carries or has carried on any trade, business or profession; or
+(c) any former or existing juristic person, but excludes a public body;
+
+‘‘processing’’ means any operation or activity or any set of operations, whether or not by automatic means, concerning personal information, including—
+
+(a) the collection, receipt, recording, organisation, collation, storage, updating or modification, retrieval, alteration, consultation or use;
+(b) dissemination by means of transmission, distribution or making available in any other form; or
+(c) merging, linking, as well as restriction, degradation, erasure or destruction of 35 information;
+
+‘‘professional legal adviser’’ means any legally qualified person, whether in private practice or not, who lawfully provides a client, at his or her or its request, with independent, confidential legal advice;
+
+‘‘Promotion of Access to Information Act’’ means the Promotion of Access to 40 Information Act, 2000 (Act No. 2 of 2000);
+
+‘‘public body’’ means—
+
+any department of state or administration in the national or provincial sphere of government or any municipality in the local sphere of government; or (b) any other functionary or institution when— 45 (i) exercising a power or performing a duty in terms of the Constitution or a provincial constitution; or (ii) exercising a public power or performing a public function in terms of any legislation;
+
+‘‘public record’’ means a record that is accessible in the public domain and which 50 is in the possession of or under the control of a public body, whether or not it was created by that public body;
+
+‘‘record’’ means any recorded information— (a) regardless of form or medium, including any of the following:
+
+(i) Writing on any material;
+(ii) information produced, recorded or stored by means of any tape-recorder, computer equipment, whether hardware or software or both, or other device, and any material subsequently derived from information so produced, recorded or stored;
+(iii) label, marking or other writing that identifies or describes any thing of 60 which it forms part, or to which it is attached by any means;
+(iv) book, map, plan, graph or drawing;
+
+(v) photograph, film, negative, tape or other device in which one or more visual images are embodied so as to be capable, with or without the aid of some other equipment, of being reproduced;
+
+(b) in the possession or under the control of a responsible party (c) whether or not it was created by a responsible party; and (d) regardless of when it came into existence;
+
+‘‘Regulator’’ means the Information Regulator established in terms of section 39; ‘‘re-identify’’, in relation to personal information of a data subject, means to resurrect any information that has been de-identified, that—
+
+(a) identifies the data subject;
+(b) can be used or manipulated by a reasonably foreseeable method to identify the data subject; or
+(c) can be linked by a reasonably foreseeable method to other information that identifies the data subject,
+
+and ‘‘re-identified’’ has a corresponding meaning;
+
+15
+
+‘‘Republic’’ means the Republic of South Africa;
+
+‘‘responsible party’’ means a public or private body or any other person which, alone or in conjunction with others, determines the purpose of and means for processing personal information;
+
+‘‘restriction’’ means to withhold from circulation, use or publication any personal 20 information that forms part of a filing system, but not to delete or destroy such information;
+
+‘‘special personal information’’ means personal information as referred to in section 26;
+
+‘‘this Act’’ includes any regulation or code of conduct made under this Act; and 25 ‘‘unique identifier’’ means any identifier that is assigned to a data subject and is used by a responsible party for the purposes of the operations of that responsible party and that uniquely identifies that data subject in relation to that responsible party.
+
+# Purpose of Act
+
+2. The purpose of this Act is to—
+
+(a) give effect to the constitutional right to privacy, by safeguarding personal information when processed by a responsible party, subject to justifiable limitations that are aimed at— (i) balancing the right to privacy against other rights, particularly the right 35 of access to information; and (ii) protecting important interests, including the free flow of information within the Republic and across international borders;
+(b) regulate the manner in which personal information may be processed, by establishing conditions, in harmony with international standards, that 40 prescribe the minimum threshold requirements for the lawful processing of personal information; provide persons with rights and remedies to protect their personal information from processing that is not in accordance with this Act; and establish voluntary and compulsory measures, including the establishment of 45 an Information Regulator, to ensure respect for and to promote, enforce and fulfil the rights protected by this Act.
+
+# CHAPTER 2
+
+# APPLICATION PROVISIONS
+
+# Application and interpretation of Act
+
+3. (1) This Act applies to the processing of personal information— (a) entered in a record by or for a responsible party by making use of automated or non-automated means: Provided that when the recorded personal information is processed by non-automated means, it forms part of a filing system or is intended to form part thereof; and
+
+(b) where the responsible party is—
+
+(i) domiciled in the Republic; or
+(ii) not domiciled in the Republic, but makes use of automated or non-automated means in the Republic, unless those means are used only to forward personal information through the Republic.
+
+(2) (a) This Act applies, subject to paragraph (b), to the exclusion of any provision of 1 any other legislation that regulates the processing of personal information and that is materially inconsistent with an object, or a specific provision, of this Act.
+
+$(b)$ If any other legislation provides for conditions for the lawful processing of personal information that are more extensive than those set out in Chapter 3, the extensive conditions prevail.
+
+(3) This Act must be interpreted in a manner that—
+
+(a) gives effect to the purpose of the Act set out in section 2; and
+(b) does not prevent any public or private body from exercising or performing its powers, duties and functions in terms of the law as far as such powers, duties and functions relate to the processing of personal information and such processing is in accordance with this Act or any other legislation, as referred to in subsection (2), that regulates the processing of personal information.
+
+(4) ‘‘Automated means’’, for the purposes of this section, means any equipment capable of operating automatically in response to instructions given for the purpose of processing information.
+
+# Lawful processing of personal information
+
+4. (1) The conditions for the lawful processing of personal information by or for a responsible party are the following:
+
+(a) ‘‘Accountability’’, as referred to in section 8;
+(b) ‘‘Processing limitation’’, as referred to in sections 9 to 12;
+(c) ‘‘Purpose specification’’, as referred to in sections 13 and 14;
+(d) ‘‘Further processing limitation’’, as referred to in section 15;
+(e) ‘‘Information quality’’, as referred to in section 16;
+(f) ‘‘Openness’’, as referred to in sections 17 and 18;
+(g) ‘‘Security safeguards’’, as referred to in sections 19 to 22; and (h) ‘‘Data subject participation’’, as referred to in sections 23 to 25.
+
+30
+
+(2) The conditions, as referred to in subsection (1), are not applicable to th processing of personal information to the extent that such processing is—
+
+35
+
+(a) excluded, in terms of section 6 or 7, from the operation of this Act; or (b) exempted in terms of section 37 or 38, from one or more of the conditions 40 concerned in relation to such processing.
+
+(3) The processing of the special personal information of a data subject is prohibited in terms of section 26, unless the—
+
+(a) provisions of sections 27 to 33 are applicable; or (b) Regulator has granted an authorisation in terms of section 27(2), 45
+in which case, subject to section 37 or 38, the conditions for the lawful processing of
+personal information as referred to in Chapter 3 must be complied with. (4) The processing of the personal information of a child is prohibited in terms of
+section 34, unless the— (a) provisions of section 35(1) are applicable; or 50 (b) Regulator has granted an authorisation in terms of section 35(2),
+in which case, subject to section 37, the conditions for the lawful processing of personal
+information as referred to in Chapter 3 must be complied with. (5) The processing of the special personal information of a child is prohibited in terms
+of sections 26 and 34 unless the provisions of sections 27 and 35 are applicable in which 55
+
+case, subject to section 37, the conditions for the lawful processing of personal information as referred to in Chapter 3 must be complied with.
+
+(6) The conditions for the lawful processing of personal information by or for a responsible party for the purpose of direct marketing by any means are reflected in Chapter 3, read with section 69 insofar as that section relates to direct marketing by means of unsolicited electronic communications.
+
+(7) Sections 60 to 68 provide for the development, in appropriate circumstances, of codes of conduct for purposes of clarifying how the conditions referred to in subsection (1), subject to any exemptions which may have been granted in terms of section 37, are to be applied, or are to be complied with within a particular sector.
+
+# Rights of data subjects
+
+5. A data subject has the right to have his, her or its personal information processed in accordance with the conditions for the lawful processing of personal information as referred to in Chapter 3, including the right—
+
+(a) to be notified that—
+
+(i) personal information about him, her or it is being collected as provided for in terms of section 18; or
+(ii) his, her or its personal information has been accessed or acquired by an unauthorised person as provided for in terms of section 22;
+(b) to establish whether a responsible party holds personal information of that 20 data subject and to request access to his, her or its personal information as provided for in terms of section 23;
+(c) to request, where necessary, the correction, destruction or deletion of his, her or its personal information as provided for in terms of section 24;
+(d) to object, on reasonable grounds relating to his, her or its particular situation 25 to the processing of his, her or its personal information as provided for in terms of section $11(3)(a)$ ;
+(e) to object to the processing of his, her or its personal information— at any time for purposes of direct marketing in terms of section $11(3)(b)$ ; or 30 (ii) in terms of section $69(3)(c)$ ;
+$(f)$ not to have his, her or its personal information processed for purposes of direct marketing by means of unsolicited electronic communications except as referred to in section 69(1);
+(g) not to be subject, under certain circumstances, to a decision which is based 35 solely on the basis of the automated processing of his, her or its personal information intended to provide a profile of such person as provided for in terms of section 71; to submit a complaint to the Regulator regarding the alleged interference with the protection of the personal information of any data subject or to submit a 40 complaint to the Regulator in respect of a determination of an adjudicator as provided for in terms of section 74; and
+(i) to institute civil proceedings regarding the alleged interference with the protection of his, her or its personal information as provided for in section 99.
+
+# Exclusions
+
+6. (1) This Act does not apply to the processing of personal information— (a) in the course of a purely personal or household activity; $(b)$ that has been de-identified to the extent that it cannot be re-identified again; (c) by or on behalf of a public body— (i) which involves national security, including activities that are aimed at 50 assisting in the identification of the financing of terrorist and related activities, defence or public safety; or
+
+(ii) the purpose of which is the prevention, detection, including assistance in the identification of the proceeds of unlawful activities and the combating of money laundering activities, investigation or proof of offences, the prosecution of offenders or the execution of sentences or security measures,
+
+to the extent that adequate safeguards have been established in legislation for the protection of such personal information;
+(d) by the Cabinet and its committees or the Executive Council of a province; or
+(e) relating to the judicial functions of a court referred to in section 166 of the Constitution.
+
+(2) ‘‘Terrorist and related activities’’, for purposes of subsection $(1)(c)$ , means those activities referred to in section 4 of the Protection of Constitutional Democracy against Terrorist and Related Activities Act, 2004 (Act No. 33 of 2004).
+
+# Exclusion for journalistic, literary or artistic purposes
+
+7. (1) This Act does not apply to the processing of personal information solely for the 15 purpose of journalistic, literary or artistic expression to the extent that such an exclusion is necessary to reconcile, as a matter of public interest, the right to privacy with the right to freedom of expression.
+
+(2) Where a responsible party who processes personal information for exclusively journalistic purposes is, by virtue of office, employment or profession, subject to a code 20 of ethics that provides adequate safeguards for the protection of personal information, such code will apply to the processing concerned to the exclusion of this Act and any alleged interference with the protection of the personal information of a data subject that may arise as a result of such processing must be adjudicated as provided for in terms of that code. 25
+
+(3) In the event that a dispute may arise in respect of whether adequate safeguards have been provided for in a code as required in terms of subsection (2) or not, regard may be had to—
+
+(a) the special importance of the public interest in freedom of expression;
+(b) domestic and international standards balancing the— 30 (i) public interest in allowing for the free flow of information to the public through the media in recognition of the right of the public to be informed; and (ii) public interest in safeguarding the protection of personal information of data subjects; 35
+(c) the need to secure the integrity of personal information; domestic and international standards of professional integrity for journalists; and
+(e) the nature and ambit of self-regulatory forms of supervision provided by the profession. 40
+
+# CHAPTER 3
+
+# CONDITIONS FOR LAWFUL PROCESSING OF PERSONAL INFORMATION
+
+Part A
+
+Processing of personal information in general
+
+Condition 1
+
+Accountability
+
+# Responsible party to ensure conditions for lawful processing
+
+8. The responsible party must ensure that the conditions set out in this Chapter, and all the measures that give effect to such conditions, are complied with at the time of the
+
+determination of the purpose and means of the processing and during the processing itself.
+
+# Condition 2
+
+# Processing limitation
+
+# Lawfulness of processing
+
+9. Personal information must be processed—
+
+(a) lawfully; and (b) in a reasonable manner that does not infringe the privacy of the data subject.
+
+# Minimality
+
+10. Personal information may only be processed if, given the purpose for which it is 10 processed, it is adequate, relevant and not excessive.
+
+# Consent, justification and objection
+
+11. (1) Personal information may only be processed if—
+
+(a) the data subject or a competent person where the data subject is a child consents to the processing; 15
+(b) processing is necessary to carry out actions for the conclusion or performance of a contract to which the data subject is party;
+(c) processing complies with an obligation imposed by law on the responsible party;
+(d) processing protects a legitimate interest of the data subject; 20
+(e) processing is necessary for the proper performance of a public law duty by a public body; or
+$(f)$ processing is necessary for pursuing the legitimate interests of the responsible party or of a third party to whom the information is supplied.
+
+(2) (a) The responsible party bears the burden of proof for the data subject’s or 25 competent person’s consent as referred to in subsection $(1)(a)$ .
+
+$(b)$ The data subject or competent person may withdraw his, her or its consent, as referred to in subsection $(1)(a)$ , at any time: Provided that the lawfulness of the processing of personal information before such withdrawal or the processing of personal information in terms of subsection $(1)(b)$ to $(f)$ will not be affected.
+
+30
+
+(3) A data subject may object, at any time, to the processing of personal information— (a) in terms of subsection $(1)(d)$ to $(f)$ , in the prescribed manner, on reasonable grounds relating to his, her or its particular situation, unless legislation provides for such processing; or (b) for purposes of direct marketing other than direct marketing by means of 35 unsolicited electronic communications as referred to in section 69.
+
+(4) If a data subject has objected to the processing of personal information in terms of subsection (3), the responsible party may no longer process the personal information.
+
+# Collection directly from data subject
+
+12. (1) Personal information must be collected directly from the data subject, except 40 as otherwise provided for in subsection (2).
+
+(2) It is not necessary to comply with subsection (1) if—
+
+(a) the information is contained in or derived from a public record or has deliberately been made public by the data subject;
+(b) the data subject or a competent person where the data subject is a child has 45 consented to the collection of the information from another source;
+
+(c) collection of the information from another source would not prejudice a legitimate interest of the data subject;
+
+(d) collection of the information from another source is necessary—
+
+(i) to avoid prejudice to the maintenance of the law by any public body, including the prevention, detection, investigation, prosecution and punishment of offences;
+(ii) to comply with an obligation imposed by law or to enforce legislation concerning the collection of revenue as defined in section 1 of the South African Revenue Service Act, 1997 (Act No. 34 of 1997);
+(iii) for the conduct of proceedings in any court or tribunal that have 10 commenced or are reasonably contemplated;
+(iv) in the interests of national security; or
+(v) to maintain the legitimate interests of the responsible party or of a third party to whom the information is supplied;
+
+(e) compliance would prejudice a lawful purpose of the collection; or $(f)$ compliance is not reasonably practicable in the circumstances of the particular case.
+
+# Condition 3
+
+# Purpose specification
+
+# Collection for specific purpose
+
+13. (1) Personal information must be collected for a specific, explicitly defined and lawful purpose related to a function or activity of the responsible party.
+
+(2) Steps must be taken in accordance with section 18(1) to ensure that the data subject is aware of the purpose of the collection of the information unless the provisions of section 18(4) are applicable.
+
+# Retention and restriction of records
+
+14. (1) Subject to subsections (2) and (3), records of personal information must not be retained any longer than is necessary for achieving the purpose for which the information was collected or subsequently processed, unless—
+
+(a) retention of the record is required or authorised by law;
+(b) the responsible party reasonably requires the record for lawful purposes related to its functions or activities;
+(c) retention of the record is required by a contract between the parties thereto; or
+(d) the data subject or a competent person where the data subject is a child has consented to the retention of the record.
+
+(2) Records of personal information may be retained for periods in excess of those contemplated in subsection (1) for historical, statistical or research purposes if the responsible party has established appropriate safeguards against the records being used for any other purposes.
+
+(3) A responsible party that has used a record of personal information of a data subject 40 to make a decision about the data subject, must—
+
+(a) retain the record for such period as may be required or prescribed by law or a code of conduct; or
+(b) if there is no law or code of conduct prescribing a retention period, retain the record for a period which will afford the data subject a reasonable opportunity, 45 taking all considerations relating to the use of the personal information into account, to request access to the record.
+
+(4) A responsible party must destroy or delete a record of personal information or de-identify it as soon as reasonably practicable after the responsible party is no longer authorised to retain the record in terms of subsection (1) or (2).
+
+(5) The destruction or deletion of a record of personal information in terms of subsection (4) must be done in a manner that prevents its reconstruction in an intelligible form.
+
+(6) The responsible party must restrict processing of personal information if—
+
+(a) its accuracy is contested by the data subject, for a period enabling the 5 responsible party to verify the accuracy of the information;
+(b) the responsible party no longer needs the personal information for achieving the purpose for which the information was collected or subsequently processed, but it has to be maintained for purposes of proof;
+(c) the processing is unlawful and the data subject opposes its destruction or 10 deletion and requests the restriction of its use instead; or
+(d) the data subject requests to transmit the personal data into another automated processing system.
+
+(7) Personal information referred to in subsection (6) may, with the exception of storage, only be processed for purposes of proof, or with the data subject’s consent, or 15 with the consent of a competent person in respect of a child, or for the protection of the rights of another natural or legal person or if such processing is in the public interest.
+
+(8) Where processing of personal information is restricted pursuant to subsection (6), the responsible party must inform the data subject before lifting the restriction on processing.
+
+# Condition 4
+
+# Further processing limitation
+
+# Further processing to be compatible with purpose of collection
+
+15. (1) Further processing of personal information must be in accordance or compatible with the purpose for which it was collected in terms of section 13. 2
+
+(2) To assess whether further processing is compatible with the purpose of collection, the responsible party must take account of—
+
+(a) the relationship between the purpose of the intended further processing and the purpose for which the information has been collected; (b) the nature of the information concerned; (c) the consequences of the intended further processing for the data subject; (d) the manner in which the information has been collected; and (e) any contractual rights and obligations between the parties.
+
+(3) The further processing of personal information is not incompatible with the purpose of collection if— 3
+
+(a) the data subject or a competent person where the data subject is a child has consented to the further processing of the information;
+(b) the information is available in or derived from a public record or has deliberately been made public by the data subject;
+
+(c) further processing is necessary—
+
+40
+
+(i) to avoid prejudice to the maintenance of the law by any public body including the prevention, detection, investigation, prosecution and punishment of offences;
+(ii) to comply with an obligation imposed by law or to enforce legislation concerning the collection of revenue as defined in section 1 of the South 45 African Revenue Service Act, 1997 (Act No. 34 of 1997);
+(iii) for the conduct of proceedings in any court or tribunal that have commenced or are reasonably contemplated; or
+(iv) in the interests of national security;
+
+(d) the further processing of the information is necessary to prevent or mitigate a 50 serious and imminent threat to— (i) public health or public safety; or (ii) the life or health of the data subject or another individual;
+
+(e) the information is used for historical, statistical or research purposes and the responsible party ensures that the further processing is carried out solely for such purposes and will not be published in an identifiable form; or
+$(f)$ the further processing of the information is in accordance with an exemption granted under section 37.
+
+# Condition 5
+
+# Information quality
+
+# Quality of information
+
+16. (1) A responsible party must take reasonably practicable steps to ensure that the personal information is complete, accurate, not misleading and updated where 10 necessary. (2) In taking the steps referred to in subsection (1), the responsible party must have regard to the purpose for which personal information is collected or further processed.
+
+# Condition 6
+
+# Openness
+
+# Documentation
+
+17. A responsible party must maintain the documentation of all processing operations under its responsibility as referred to in section 14 or 51 of the Promotion of Access to Information Act.
+
+# Notification to data subject when collecting personal information
+
+18. (1) If personal information is collected, the responsible party must take reasonably practicable steps to ensure that the data subject is aware of—
+
+(a) the information being collected and where the information is not collected from the data subject, the source from which it is collected;
+(b) the name and address of the responsible party; 25
+(c) the purpose for which the information is being collected;
+(d) whether or not the supply of the information by that data subject is voluntary or mandatory;
+(e) the consequences of failure to provide the information;
+$(f)$ any particular law authorising or requiring the collection of the information; 30
+(g) the fact that, where applicable, the responsible party intends to transfer the information to a third country or international organisation and the level of protection afforded to the information by that third country or international organisation;
+(h) any further information such as the— 35 (i) recipient or category of recipients of the information; (ii) nature or category of the information; (iii) existence of the right of access to and the right to rectify the information collected; (iv) existence of the right to object to the processing of personal information 40 as referred to in section 11(3); and (v) right to lodge a complaint to the Information Regulator and the contact details of the Information Regulator,
+
+which is necessary, having regard to the specific circumstances in which the information is or is not to be processed, to enable processing in respect of the 45 data subject to be reasonable.
+
+(2) The steps referred to in subsection (1) must be taken— (a) if the personal information is collected directly from the data subject, before the information is collected, unless the data subject is already aware of the information referred to in that subsection; or
+
+(b) in any other case, before the information is collected or as soon as reasonably practicable after it has been collected.
+
+(3) A responsible party that has previously taken the steps referred to in subsection (1) complies with subsection (1) in relation to the subsequent collection from the data subject of the same information or information of the same kind if the purpose of collection of the information remains the same.
+
+(4) It is not necessary for a responsible party to comply with subsection (1) if— (a) the data subject or a competent person where the data subject is a child has provided consent for the non-compliance; (b) non-compliance would not prejudice the legitimate interests of the data 10 subject as set out in terms of this Act; (c) non-compliance is necessary— (i) to avoid prejudice to the maintenance of the law by any public body, including the prevention, detection, investigation, prosecution and punishment of offences; 15 (ii) to comply with an obligation imposed by law or to enforce legislation concerning the collection of revenue as defined in section 1 of the South African Revenue Service Act, 1997 (Act No. 34 of 1997); (iii) for the conduct of proceedings in any court or tribunal that have been commenced or are reasonably contemplated; or 20 (iv) in the interests of national security; compliance would prejudice a lawful purpose of the collection; (e) compliance is not reasonably practicable in the circumstances of the particular case; or $(f)$ the information will— 25 (i) not be used in a form in which the data subject may be identified; or (ii) be used for historical, statistical or research purposes.
+
+# Condition 7
+
+# Security Safeguards
+
+# Security measures on integrity and confidentiality of personal information
+
+19. (1) A responsible party must secure the integrity and confidentiality of personal information in its possession or under its control by taking appropriate, reasonable technical and organisational measures to prevent—
+
+(a) loss of, damage to or unauthorised destruction of personal information; and $(b)$ unlawful access to or processing of personal information. 35 (2) In order to give effect to subsection (1), the responsible party must take reasonable measures to— (a) identify all reasonably foreseeable internal and external risks to personal information in its possession or under its control; (b) establish and maintain appropriate safeguards against the risks identified; 40 (c) regularly verify that the safeguards are effectively implemented; and (d) ensure that the safeguards are continually updated in response to new risks or deficiencies in previously implemented safeguards.
+
+(3) The responsible party must have due regard to generally accepted information security practices and procedures which may apply to it generally or be required in terms 45 of specific industry or professional rules and regulations.
+
+# formation processed by operator or person acting under authori
+
+20. An operator or anyone processing personal information on behalf of a responsible party or an operator, must—
+
+(a) process such information only with the knowledge or authorisation of the responsible party; and
+(b) treat personal information which comes to their knowledge as confidential and must not disclose it,
+
+unless required by law or in the course of the proper performance of their duties.
+
+# Security measures regarding information processed by operator
+
+21. (1) A responsible party must, in terms of a written contract between the 10 responsible party and the operator, ensure that the operator which processes personal information for the responsible party establishes and maintains the security measures referred to in section 19.
+
+(2) The operator must notify the responsible party immediately where there are reasonable grounds to believe that the personal information of a data subject has been 15 accessed or acquired by any unauthorised person.
+
+# Notification of security compromises
+
+22. (1) Where there are reasonable grounds to believe that the personal information of a data subject has been accessed or acquired by any unauthorised person, the responsible party must notify—
+
+(a) the Regulator; and
+(b) subject to subsection (3), the data subject, unless the identity of such data subject cannot be established.
+
+(2) The notification referred to in subsection (1) must be made as soon as reasonably possible after the discovery of the compromise, taking into account the legitimate needs 25 of law enforcement or any measures reasonably necessary to determine the scope of the compromise and to restore the integrity of the responsible party’s information system.
+
+(3) The responsible party may only delay notification of the data subject if a public body responsible for the prevention, detection or investigation of offences or the Regulator determines that notification will impede a criminal investigation by the public 30 body concerned.
+
+(4) The notification to a data subject referred to in subsection (1) must be in writing and communicated to the data subject in at least one of the following ways:
+
+35
+
+(a) Mailed to the data subject’s last known physical or postal address;
+(b) sent by e-mail to the data subject’s last known e-mail address;
+(c) placed in a prominent position on the website of the responsible party;
+(d) published in the news media; or (e) as may be directed by the Regulator.
+
+(5) The notification referred to in subsection (1) must provide sufficient information to allow the data subject to take protective measures against the potential consequences 40 of the compromise, including—
+
+(a) a description of the possible consequences of the security compromise;
+(b) a description of the measures that the responsible party intends to take or has taken to address the security compromise;
+(c) a recommendation with regard to the measures to be taken by the data subject 45 to mitigate the possible adverse effects of the security compromise; and
+(d) if known to the responsible party, the identity of the unauthorised person who may have accessed or acquired the personal information.
+
+(6) The Regulator may direct a responsible party to publicise, in any manner specified, the fact of any compromise to the integrity or confidentiality of personal 50 information, if the Regulator has reasonable grounds to believe that such publicity would protect a data subject who may be affected by the compromise.
+
+# Condition 8
+
+# Data subject participation
+
+# Access to personal information
+
+23. (1) A data subject, having provided adequate proof of identity, has the right to— (a) request a responsible party to confirm, free of charge, whether or not the responsible party holds personal information about the data subject; and (b) request from a responsible party the record or a description of the personal information about the data subject held by the responsible party, including information about the identity of all third parties, or categories of third parties, who have, or have had, access to the information— (i) within a reasonable time; (ii) at a prescribed fee, if any; (iii) in a reasonable manner and format; and (iv) in a form that is generally understandable.
+
+15
+
+(2) If, in response to a request in terms of subsection (1), personal information is communicated to a data subject, the data subject must be advised of the right in terms of section 24 to request the correction of information.
+
+(3) If a data subject is required by a responsible party to pay a fee for services 20 provided to the data subject in terms of subsection $(1)(b)$ to enable the responsible party to respond to a request, the responsible party—
+
+(a) must give the applicant a written estimate of the fee before providing the services; and (b) may require the applicant to pay a deposit for all or part of the fee. 25 (4) (a) A responsible party may or must refuse, as the case may be, to disclose any information requested in terms of subsection (1) to which the grounds for refusal of access to records set out in the applicable sections of Chapter 4 of Part 2 and Chapter 4 of Part 3 of the Promotion of Access to Information Act apply. $(b)$ The provisions of sections 30 and 61 of the Promotion of Access to Information 30 Act are applicable in respect of access to health or other records. (5) If a request for access to personal information is made to a responsible party and part of that information may or must be refused in terms of subsection $(4)(a)$ , every other part must be disclosed.
+
+# Correction of personal information
+
+24. (1) A data subject may, in the prescribed manner, request a responsible party to— (a) correct or delete personal information about the data subject in its possession or under its control that is inaccurate, irrelevant, excessive, out of date, incomplete, misleading or obtained unlawfully; or (b) destroy or delete a record of personal information about the data subject that 4 the responsible party is no longer authorised to retain in terms of section 14.
+
+(2) On receipt of a request in terms of subsection (1) a responsible party must, as soon as reasonably practicable—
+
+(a) correct the information;
+(b) destroy or delete the information;
+(c) provide the data subject, to his or her satisfaction, with credible evidence in support of the information; or
+
+(d) where agreement cannot be reached between the responsible party and the data subject, and if the data subject so requests, take such steps as are reasonable in the circumstances, to attach to the information in such a manner that it will always be read with the information, an indication that a correction of the information has been requested but has not been made.
+
+(3) If the responsible party has taken steps under subsection (2) that result in a change to the information and the changed information has an impact on decisions that have been or will be taken in respect of the data subject in question, the responsible party must, if reasonably practicable, inform each person or body or responsible party to whom the personal information has been disclosed of those steps.
+
+(4) The responsible party must notify a data subject, who has made a request in terms of subsection (1), of the action taken as a result of the request.
+
+# Manner of access
+
+25. The provisions of sections 18 and 53 of the Promotion of Access to Information Act apply to requests made in terms of section 23 of this Act.
+
+# Part B
+
+# Processing of special personal information
+
+# Prohibition on processing of special personal information
+
+26. A responsible party may, subject to section 27, not process personal information concerning— 20
+
+(a) the religious or philosophical beliefs, race or ethnic origin, trade union membership, political persuasion, health or sex life or biometric information of a data subject; or
+(b) the criminal behaviour of a data subject to the extent that such information relates to— 25 (i) the alleged commission by a data subject of any offence; or (ii) any proceedings in respect of any offence allegedly committed by a data subject or the disposal of such proceedings.
+
+# General authorisation concerning special personal information
+
+27. (1) The prohibition on processing personal information, as referred to in section 30 26, does not apply if the—
+
+(a) processing is carried out with the consent of a data subject referred to in section 26;
+(b) processing is necessary for the establishment, exercise or defence of a right or obligation in law; 35
+(c) processing is necessary to comply with an obligation of international public law;
+(d) processing is for historical, statistical or research purposes to the extent that— (i) the purpose serves a public interest and the processing is necessary for the purpose concerned; or 40 (ii) it appears to be impossible or would involve a disproportionate effort to ask for consent, and sufficient guarantees are provided for to ensure that the processing does not adversely affect the individual privacy of the data subject to a disproportionate extent; 45
+(e) information has deliberately been made public by the data subject; or
+$(f)$ provisions of sections 28 to 33 are, as the case may be, complied with.
+
+(2) The Regulator may, subject to subsection (3), upon application by a responsible party and by notice in the Gazette, authorise a responsible party to process special personal information if such processing is in the public interest and appropriate safeguards have been put in place to protect the personal information of the data subject.
+
+(3) The Regulator may impose reasonable conditions in respect of any authorisation granted under subsection (2).
+
+# Authorisation concerning data subject’s religious or philosophical beliefs
+
+28. (1) The prohibition on processing personal information concerning a data subject’s religious or philosophical beliefs, as referred to in section 26, does not apply if the processing is carried out by—
+
+(a) spiritual or religious organisations, or independent sections of those organisations if— (i) the information concerns data subjects belonging to those organisations; or (ii) it is necessary to achieve their aims and principles;
+(b) institutions founded on religious or philosophical principles with respect to their members or employees or other persons belonging to the institution, if it 15 is necessary to achieve their aims and principles; or
+(c) other institutions: Provided that the processing is necessary to protect the spiritual welfare of the data subjects, unless they have indicated that they object to the processing.
+
+(2) In the cases referred to in subsection $(1)(a)$ , the prohibition does not apply to 2 processing of personal information concerning the religion or philosophy of life of family members of the data subjects, if—
+
+(a) the association concerned maintains regular contact with those family members in connection with its aims; and (b) the family members have not objected in writing to the processing.
+
+(3) In the cases referred to in subsections (1) and (2), personal information concerning a data subject’s religious or philosophical beliefs may not be supplied to third parties without the consent of the data subject.
+
+# Authorisation concerning data subject’s race or ethnic origin
+
+29. The prohibition on processing personal information concerning a data subject’s 30 race or ethnic origin, as referred to in section 26, does not apply if the processing is carried out to—
+
+(a) identify data subjects and only when this is essential for that purpose; and (b) comply with laws and other measures designed to protect or advance persons, or categories of persons, disadvantaged by unfair discrimination.
+
+# Authorisation concerning data subject’s trade union membership
+
+30. (1) The prohibition on processing personal information concerning a data subject’s trade union membership, as referred to in section 26, does not apply to the processing by the trade union to which the data subject belongs or the trade union federation to which that trade union belongs, if such processing is necessary to achieve 4 the aims of the trade union or trade union federation.
+
+(2) In the cases referred to under subsection (1), no personal information may be supplied to third parties without the consent of the data subject.
+
+# Authorisation concerning data subject’s political persuasion
+
+31. (1) The prohibition on processing personal information concerning a data 45 subject’s political persuasion, as referred to in section 26, does not apply to processing by or for an institution, founded on political principles, of the personal information of—
+
+(a) its members or employees or other persons belonging to the institution, if such processing is necessary to achieve the aims or principles of the institution; or (b) a data subject if such processing is necessary for the purposes of—
+
+42
+
+(i) forming a political party;
+(ii) participating in the activities of, or engaging in the recruitment of members for or canvassing supporters or voters for, a political party with the view to— (aa) an election of the National Assembly or the provincial legislature as regulated in terms of the Electoral Act, 1998 (Act No. 73 of 1998); (bb) municipal elections as regulated in terms of the Local Government: Municipal Electoral Act, 2000 (Act No. 27 of 2000); or (cc) a referendum as regulated in terms of the Referendums Act, 1983 (Act No. 108 of 1983); or
+
+(iii) campaigning for a political party or cause.
+
+(2) In the cases referred to under subsection (1), no personal information may be supplied to third parties without the consent of the data subject.
+
+# Authorisation concerning data subject’s health or sex life
+
+32. (1) The prohibition on processing personal information concerning a data 15 subject’s health or sex life, as referred to in section 26, does not apply to the processing by—
+
+(a) medical professionals, healthcare institutions or facilities or social services, if such processing is necessary for the proper treatment and care of the data subject, or for the administration of the institution or professional practice 20 concerned;
+(b) insurance companies, medical schemes, medical scheme administrators and managed healthcare organisations, if such processing is necessary for— (i) assessing the risk to be insured by the insurance company or covered by the medical scheme and the data subject has not objected to the 25 processing; (ii) the performance of an insurance or medical scheme agreement; or the enforcement of any contractual rights and obligations;
+(c) schools, if such processing is necessary to provide special support for pupils or making special arrangements in connection with their health or sex life; 30
+(d) any public or private body managing the care of a child if such processing is necessary for the performance of their lawful duties;
+(e) any public body, if such processing is necessary in connection with the implementation of prison sentences or detention measures; or
+$(f)$ administrative bodies, pension funds, employers or institutions working for 35 them, if such processing is necessary for— (i) the implementation of the provisions of laws, pension regulations or collective agreements which create rights dependent on the health or sex life of the data subject; or (ii) the reintegration of or support for workers or persons entitled to benefit 40 in connection with sickness or work incapacity.
+
+(2) In the cases referred to under subsection (1), the information may only be processed by responsible parties subject to an obligation of confidentiality by virtue of office, employment, profession or legal provision, or established by a written agreement between the responsible party and the data subject.
+
+(3) A responsible party that is permitted to process information concerning a data subject’s health or sex life in terms of this section and is not subject to an obligation of confidentiality by virtue of office, profession or legal provision, must treat the information as confidential, unless the responsible party is required by law or in connection with their duties to communicate the information to other parties who are authorised to process such information in accordance with subsection (1).
+
+(4) The prohibition on processing any of the categories of personal information referred to in section 26, does not apply if it is necessary to supplement the processing of personal information concerning a data subject’s health, as referred to under subsection $(1)(a)$ , with a view to the proper treatment or care of the data subject.
+
+(5) Personal information concerning inherited characteristics may not be processed in respect of a data subject from whom the information concerned has been obtained, unless—
+
+$(a)$ a serious medical interest prevails; or $(b)$ the processing is necessary for historical, statistical or research activity. (6) More detailed rules may be prescribed concerning the application of subsection $(1)(b)$ and $(f)$ .
+
+# Authorisation concerning data subject’s criminal behaviour or biometric informa- 10 tion
+
+33. (1) The prohibition on processing personal information concerning a data subject’s criminal behaviour or biometric information, as referred to in section 26, does not apply if the processing is carried out by bodies charged by law with applying criminal law or by responsible parties who have obtained that information in accordance 15 with the law. (2) The processing of information concerning personnel in the service of the responsible party must take place in accordance with the rules established in compliance with labour legislation. (3) The prohibition on processing any of the categories of personal information 2 referred to in section 26 does not apply if such processing is necessary to supplement the processing of information on criminal behaviour or biometric information permitted by this section.
+
+# Part C
+
+# Processing of personal information of children
+
+# Prohibition on processing personal information of children
+
+34. A responsible party may, subject to section 35, not process personal information concerning a child.
+
+# General authorisation concerning personal information of children
+
+35. (1) The prohibition on processing personal information of children, as referred to 30 in section 34, does not apply if the processing is—
+
+(a) carried out with the prior consent of a competent person;
+(b) necessary for the establishment, exercise or defence of a right or obligation in law;
+(c) necessary to comply with an obligation of international public law; 35
+(d) for historical, statistical or research purposes to the extent that— (i) the purpose serves a public interest and the processing is necessary for the purpose concerned; or (ii) it appears to be impossible or would involve a disproportionate effort to ask for consent, 40 and sufficient guarantees are provided for to ensure that the processing does not adversely affect the individual privacy of the child to a disproportionate extent; or
+(e) of personal information which has deliberately been made public by the child with the consent of a competent person. 45
+
+(2) The Regulator may, notwithstanding the prohibition referred to in section 34, but subject to subsection (3), upon application by a responsible party and by notice in the Gazette, authorise a responsible party to process the personal information of children if the processing is in the public interest and appropriate safeguards have been put in place to protect the personal information of the child.
+
+(3) The Regulator may impose reasonable conditions in respect of any authorisation granted under subsection (2), including conditions with regard to how a responsible party must—
+
+(a) upon request of a competent person provide a reasonable means for that person to—
+
+(i) review the personal information processed; and (ii) refuse to permit its further processing;
+
+(b) provide notice—
+
+(i) regarding the nature of the personal information of children that is processed; (ii) how such information is processed; and (iii) regarding any further processing practices;
+
+(c) refrain from any action that is intended to encourage or persuade a child to 10 disclose more personal information about him- or herself than is reasonably necessary given the purpose for which it is intended; and
+(d) establish and maintain reasonable procedures to protect the integrity and confidentiality of the personal information collected from children.
+
+# CHAPTER 4
+
+# EXEMPTION FROM CONDITIONS FOR PROCESSING OF PERSONAL INFORMATION
+
+# General
+
+36. Processing of personal information is not in breach of a condition for the processing of such information if the—
+
+(a) Regulator grants an exemption in terms of section 37; or (b) processing is in accordance with section 38.
+
+# Regulator may exempt processing of personal information
+
+37. (1) The Regulator may, by notice in the Gazette, grant an exemption to a responsible party to process personal information, even if that processing is in breach of 25 a condition for the processing of such information, or any measure that gives effect to such condition, if the Regulator is satisfied that, in the circumstances of the case—
+
+(a) the public interest in the processing outweighs, to a substantial degree, any interference with the privacy of the data subject that could result from such processing; or
+(b) the processing involves a clear benefit to the data subject or a third party that outweighs, to a substantial degree, any interference with the privacy of the data subject or third party that could result from such processing.
+
+(2) The public interest referred to in subsection (1) includes—
+
+35
+
+(a) the interests of national security;
+(b) the prevention, detection and prosecution of offences;
+(c) important economic and financial interests of a public body;
+(d) fostering compliance with legal provisions established in the interests referred to under paragraphs $(b)$ and $(c)$ ;
+(e) historical, statistical or research activity; or
+$(f)$ the special importance of the interest in freedom of expression.
+
+40
+
+(3) The Regulator may impose reasonable conditions in respect of any exemption granted under subsection (1).
+
+# Exemption in respect of certain functions
+
+38. (1) Personal information processed for the purpose of discharging a relevant 45 function is exempt from sections 11(3) and (4), 12, 15 and 18 in any case to the extent to which the application of those provisions to the personal information would be likely to prejudice the proper discharge of that function.
+
+(2) ‘‘Relevant function’’ for purposes of subsection (1), means any function— (a) of a public body; or
+
+(b) conferred on any person in terms of the law, which is performed with the view to protecting members of the public against—
+
+(i) financial loss due to dishonesty, malpractice or other seriously improper conduct by, or the unfitness or incompetence of, persons concerned in the provision of banking, insurance, investment or other financial services or in the management of bodies corporate; or
+(ii) dishonesty, malpractice or other seriously improper conduct by, or the unfitness or incompetence of, persons authorised to carry on any profession or other activity.
+
+# CHAPTER 5
+
+# SUPERVISION
+
+# Part A
+
+# Information Regulator
+
+# Establishment of Information Regulator
+
+39. There is hereby established a juristic person to be known as the Information 15 Regulator, which—
+
+(a) has jurisdiction throughout the Republic;
+(b) is independent and is subject only to the Constitution and to the law and must be impartial and perform its functions and exercise its powers without fear, favour or prejudice; 20
+(c) must exercise its powers and perform its functions in accordance with this Act and the Promotion of Access to Information Act; and
+(d) is accountable to the National Assembly.
+
+# Powers, duties and functions of Regulator
+
+40. (1) The powers, duties and functions of the Regulator in terms of this Act are— 25 (a) to provide education by—
+
+(i) promoting an understanding and acceptance of the conditions for the lawful processing of personal information and of the objects of those conditions;
+(ii) undertaking educational programmes, for the purpose of promoting the 30 protection of personal information, on the Regulator’s own behalf or in co-operation with other persons or authorities acting on behalf of the Regulator;
+(iii) making public statements in relation to any matter affecting the protection of the personal information of a data subject or of any class of 35 data subjects;
+(iv) giving advice to data subjects in the exercise of their rights; and
+(v) providing advice, upon request or on its own initiative, to a Minister or a public or private body on their obligations under the provisions, and generally on any matter relevant to the operation, of this Act; 40
+
+(b) to monitor and enforce compliance by—
+
+(i) public and private bodies with the provisions of this Act;
+(ii) undertaking research into, and monitoring developments in, information processing and computer technology to ensure that any adverse effects of such developments on the protection of the personal information of data subjects are minimised, and reporting to the Minister the results of such research and monitoring;
+(iii) examining any proposed legislation, including subordinate legislation, or proposed policy of the Government that the Regulator considers may
+
+affect the protection of the personal information of data subjects, and
+
+reporting to the Minister the results of that examination; (iv) reporting upon request or on its own accord, to Parliament from time to time on any policy matter affecting the protection of the personal information of a data subject, including the need for, or desirability of, taking legislative, administrative, or other action to give protection or better protection to the personal information of a data subject; submitting a report to Parliament, within five months of the end of its financial year, on all its activities in terms of this Act during that financial year; (vi) conducting an assessment, on its own initiative or when requested to do so, of a public or private body, in respect of the processing of personal information by that body for the purpose of ascertaining whether or not the information is processed according to the conditions for the lawful processing of personal information;
+(vii) monitoring the use of unique identifiers of data subjects, and reporting to Parliament from time to time on the results of that monitoring, including any recommendation relating to the need of, or desirability of taking, legislative, administrative, or other action to give protection, or better protection, to the personal information of a data subject;
+(viii) maintaining, publishing and making available and providing copies of such registers as are prescribed in this Act; and (ix) examining any proposed legislation that makes provision for the— (aa) collection of personal information by any public or private body; or (bb) disclosure of personal information by one public or private body to any other public or private body, or both, to have particular regard, in the course of that examination, to the matters set out in section 44(2), in any case where the Regulator considers that the information might be used for the purposes of an information matching programme, and reporting to the Minister and Parliament the results of that examination;
+
+(c) to consult with interested parties by—
+
+(i) receiving and inviting representations from members of the public on 35 any matter affecting the personal information of a data subject;
+(ii) co-operating on a national and international basis with other persons and bodies concerned with the protection of personal information; and
+(iii) acting as mediator between opposing parties on any matter that concerns the need for, or the desirability of, action by a responsible party in the 40 interests of the protection of the personal information of a data subject;
+
+(d) to handle complaints by—
+
+(i) receiving and investigating complaints about alleged violations of the protection of personal information of data subjects and reporting to complainants in respect of such complaints; 45
+(ii) gathering such information as in the Regulator’s opinion will assist the Regulator in discharging the duties and carrying out the Regulator’s functions under this Act;
+(iii) attempting to resolve complaints by means of dispute resolution mechanisms such as mediation and conciliation; and 50
+(iv) serving any notices in terms of this Act and further promoting the resolution of disputes in accordance with the prescripts of this Act;
+
+(e) to conduct research and to report to Parliament—
+
+(i) from time to time on the desirability of the acceptance, by South Africa, of any international instrument relating to the protection of the personal information of a data subject; and
+(ii) on any other matter, including necessary legislative amendments, relating to protection of personal information that, in the Regulator’s opinion, should be drawn to Parliament’s attention;
+
+(f) in respect of codes of conduct to—
+
+(i) issue, from time to time, codes of conduct, amend codes and to revoke codes of conduct;
+(ii) make guidelines to assist bodies to develop codes of conduct or to apply codes of conduct; and
+(iii) consider afresh, upon application, determinations by adjudicators under approved codes of conduct;
+
+(g) to facilitate cross-border cooperation in the enforcement of privacy laws by 15 participating in any initiative that is aimed at such cooperation; and (h) in general to—
+
+(i) do anything incidental or conducive to the performance of any of the preceding functions;
+(ii) exercise and perform such other functions, powers, and duties as are 20 conferred or imposed on the Regulator by or under this Act or any other legislation;
+(iii) require the responsible party to disclose to any person affected by a compromise to the integrity or confidentiality of personal information, such compromise in accordance with section 22; and 25
+(iv) exercise the powers conferred upon the Regulator by this Act in matters relating to the access of information as provided by the Promotion of Access to Information Act.
+
+(2) The Regulator may, from time to time, in the public interest or in the legitimate interests of any person or body of persons, publish reports relating generally to the 30 exercise of the Regulator’s functions under this Act or to any case or cases investigated by the Regulator, whether or not the matters to be dealt with in any such report have been the subject of a report to the Minister.
+
+(3) The provisions of sections 3 and 4 of the Commissions Act, 1947 (Act No. 8 of 1947), will apply, with the necessary changes, to the Regulator. (4) The powers and duties of the Regulator in terms of the Promotion of Access to Information Act are set out in Parts 4 and 5 of that Act.
+
+# Appointment, term of office and removal of members of Regulator
+
+41. (1) (a) The Regulator consists of the following members:
+
+(i) A Chairperson; and 40 (ii) four other persons, as ordinary members of the Regulator. (b) Members of the Regulator must be appropriately qualified, fit and proper persons— (i) at least one of whom must be appointed on account of experience as a practising advocate or attorney or a professor of law at a university; and 45 (ii) the remainder of whom must be appointed on account of any other qualifications, expertise and experience relating to the objects of the Regulator.
+
+(c) The Chairperson of the Regulator must be appointed in a full-time capacity and may, subject to subsection (4), not perform or undertake to perform any other 50 remunerative work during the period in which he or she holds office as Chairperson.
+
+(d) The ordinary members of the Regulator must be appointed as follows: (i) Two ordinary members in a full-time capacity; and (ii) two ordinary members in a full-time or part-time capacity. (e) The members referred to in paragraph (d) who are appointed in a full-time 55 capacity, may, subject to subsection (4), not perform or undertake to perform any other remunerative work during the period in which they hold office.
+
+(f) The Chairperson must direct the work of the Regulator and the staff of the Regulator.
+
+(g) A person may not be appointed as a member of the Regulator if he or she—
+
+(i) is not a citizen of the Republic; (ii) is a public servant;
+(iii) is a member of Parliament, any provincial legislature or any municipal council;
+(iv) is an office-bearer or employee of any political party; (v) is an unrehabilitated insolvent;
+(vi) has been declared by a court to be mentally ill or unfit; or
+(vii) has at any time been convicted, whether in the Republic or elsewhere, of any offence involving dishonesty.
+
+(2) (a) The Chairperson and the members of the Regulator referred to in subsection (1)(a) must be appointed by the President on the recommendation of the National Assembly, which recommendation must also indicate which ordinary members must be 15 appointed in a full-time or part-time capacity.
+
+(b) The National Assembly must recommend persons— nominated by a committee of the Assembly composed of members of parties represented in the Assembly; and (ii) approved by the Assembly by a resolution adopted with a supporting vote of 20 a majority of the members of the Assembly.
+
+(3) The members of the Regulator will be appointed for a period of not more than five years and will, at the expiration of such period, be eligible for reappointment.
+
+(4) The Chairperson of the Regulator or a member who has been appointed in a full-time capacity may, notwithstanding the provisions of subsection $(1)(c)$ or $(e)$ , only 25 perform or undertake to perform any other remunerative work during the period that he or she holds office as Chairperson or member with the prior written consent of the Minister.
+
+(5) A person appointed as a member of the Regulator may, upon written notice to the President, resign from office.
+
+30
+
+(6) (a) A member may be removed from office only on— (i) the ground of misconduct, incapacity or incompetence; (ii) a finding to that effect by a committee of the National Assembly; and (iii) the adoption by the National Assembly of a resolution calling for that person’s removal from office.
+
+(b) A resolution of the National Assembly concerning the removal from office of a member of the Regulator must be adopted with a supporting vote of a majority of the members of the Assembly.
+
+(c) The President—
+
+(i) may suspend a member from office at any time after the start of the 40 proceedings of a committee of the National Assembly for the removal of that member; and
+(ii) must remove a member from office upon adoption by the Assembly of the resolution calling for that member’s removal.
+
+# Vacancies
+
+42. (1) A vacancy in the Regulator occurs if a member—
+
+becomes subject to a disqualification referred to in section $41(1)(g)$ ; (b) tenders his or her resignation as contemplated in section 41(5) and the resignation takes effect; (c) is removed from office in terms of section 41(6); (d) dies; or (e) becomes permanently incapable of doing his or her work. (2) (a) Where a vacancy has arisen as contemplated in subsection (1), the procedure contemplated in section 41(2) applies. $(b)$ Any member appointed under this subsection holds office for the rest of the period 55 of the predecessor’s term of office, unless the President, upon recommendation by the National Assembly, appoints that member for a longer period which may not exceed five years.
+
+# Powers, duties and functions of Chairperson and other members
+
+43. (1) The Chairperson—
+
+(a) must exercise the powers and perform the duties and functions conferred on or assigned to him or her by the Regulator in terms of this Act and the Promotion of Access to Information Act; and
+(b) is, for the purposes of exercising the powers and performing the duties and functions conferred on or assigned to him or her by the Regulator in terms of this Act and the Promotion of Access to Information Act, accountable to the Regulator.
+
+(2) (a) The members referred to in section 41(1)(d)(i) must exercise their powers and 10 perform their duties and functions as follows: (i) One member in terms of this Act; and (ii) one member in terms of the Promotion of Access to Information Act. $(b)$ The members referred to in section $41(1)(d)$ (ii) must exercise their powers and perform their duties and functions either in terms of this Act or the Promotion of Access 15 to Information Act, or both. (c) The members, referred to in paragraphs (a) and $(b)$ , are, for the purposes of exercising their powers and performing their duties and functions, accountable to the Chairperson.
+
+# Regulator to have regard to certain matters
+
+44. (1) In the performance of its functions, and the exercise of its powers, under this Act the Regulator must—
+
+(a) have due regard to the conditions for the lawful processing of personal information as referred to in Chapter 3;
+(b) have due regard for the protection of all human rights and social interests that 25 compete with privacy, including the general desirability of a free flow of information and the recognition of the legitimate interests of public and private bodies in achieving their objectives in an efficient way;
+(c) take account of international obligations accepted by South Africa; and
+(d) consider any developing general international guidelines relevant to the better 30 protection of individual privacy.
+
+(2) In performing its functions in terms of section $40(1)(b)(\mathrm{ix})(b b)$ with regard to information matching programmes, the Regulator must have particular regard to whether or not the—
+
+(a) objective of the programme relates to a matter of significant public 35 importance;
+(b) use of the programme to achieve that objective will result in monetary savings that are both significant and quantifiable or in other comparable benefits to society;
+(c) use of an alternative means of achieving that objective would give either of the 40 results referred to in paragraph $(b)$ ;
+(d) public interest in allowing the programme to proceed outweighs the public interest in adhering to the conditions for the lawful processing of personal information that the programme would otherwise contravene; and
+(e) programme involves information matching on a scale that is excessive, having 45 regard to— (i) the number of responsible parties or operators that will be involved in the programme; and (ii) the amount of detail about a data subject that will be matched under the programme. 50
+
+(3) In determining whether the processing of personal information for exclusively journalistic purposes by a responsible party who is, by virtue of office, employment or profession, not subject to a code of ethics as referred to in section 7(1), constitutes an interference with the protection of the personal information of the data subject in terms of section 73, the Regulator must have particular regard to the factors referred to in 55 section $7(3)(a)$ to $(d)$ .
+
+# Conflict of interest
+
+45. (1) If any member of the Regulator or any person appointed by the Regulator in terms of this Act has a material interest in any matter which could conflict with the proper performance of his or her duties in terms of this Act or the Promotion of Access to Information Act, he or she must disclose that interest, as prescribed, as soon as practicable after the relevant facts came to his or her knowledge.
+
+(2) (a) If a member of the Regulator or person referred to in subsection (1)— (i) is present at a meeting of the Regulator or committee referred to in section 49 or 50 at which a matter contemplated in that subsection is to be considered, the member or person concerned must disclose the nature of his or her interest to the meeting before the matter is considered; or (ii) fails to make a disclosure as required by this subsection and is present at a meeting of the Regulator or committee, as the case may be, or in any other manner participates in the proceedings, such proceedings in relation to the relevant matter must, as soon as the non-disclosure is discovered, be reviewed and be varied or set aside by the Regulator or the committee, as the case may be, without the participation of the member or person concerned.
+
+$(b)$ A member of the Regulator or person referred to in subsection (1) who is obliged to make a disclosure in terms of this subsection may not be present during any deliberation, or take part in any decision, in relation to the matter in question.
+
+(c) Any disclosure made in terms of this subsection must be noted in the minutes of the relevant meeting of the Regulator or committee.
+
+(3) A member of the Regulator or person referred to in subsection (1) who has disclosed a conflict of interest in terms of subsection (1)—
+
+(a) may perform all duties relating to the matter in question if a decision has been 2 taken that the interest is trivial or irrelevant; or
+(b) must be relieved of all duties relating to the matter in question and such duties must be performed by another member of the Regulator or by another person referred to in subsection (1), as the case may be, who has no such conflict of interest.
+
+# Remuneration, allowances, benefits and privileges of members
+
+46. (1) A member of the Regulator or a person referred to in section $49(1)(b)$ or $50(1)(b)$ who is not subject to the provisions of the Public Service Act, 1994 (Proclamation No. 103 of 1994), or who is not a judge of the High Court of South Africa or a magistrate will be entitled to such remuneration, allowances, including allowances 35 for reimbursement of travelling and subsistence expenses incurred by him or her in the performance of his or her functions under this Act and the Promotion of Access to Information Act, benefits and privileges as the Minister in consultation with the Minister of Finance may determine.
+
+(2) The remuneration, allowances, benefits or privileges of different members of the 40 Regulator may differ according to the different—
+
+(a) positions held by them in the Regulator; or
+(b) functions performed, whether in a part-time or full-time capacity, by them from time to time.
+
+# Staff
+
+47. (1) The Regulator must establish its own administration to assist it in the performance of its functions and to this end the Regulator must appoint, or secure the secondment in terms of subsection (6) of—
+
+(a) a suitably qualified and experienced person as chief executive officer of the Regulator for the purpose of assisting the Regulator, subject to the Regulator’s 5 direction and supervision, in the performance of all financial and administrative functions in terms of this Act and the Promotion of Access to Information Act, work arising from the administration of this Act and the Promotion of
+
+60
+
+Access to Information Act and to exercise any power delegated by the Regulator to him or her; and (b) such other member of staff as the Regulator may deem necessary to assist the Regulator and the chief executive officer, as the case may be, with all such work as may arise through the performance of its functions.
+
+(2) (a) The chief executive officer may appoint a senior member of staff as acting chief executive officer to perform the functions of the chief executive officer in his or her absence. (b) A member of the Regulator may not be appointed as acting chief executive officer. (c) In the event that a vacancy occurs in the office of the chief executive officer the 1 Regulator must appoint an acting chief executive officer. (3) The Regulator must, in the appointment of the staff of the Regulator— (a) provide for the advancement of persons disadvantaged by unfair discrimination, with the aim that its staff, when viewed collectively, represents a broad cross-section of the population of the Republic; and (b) subject to paragraph (a), apply equal opportunity employment practices. (4) The Regulator may pay to the persons in its employ such remuneration and allowances and provide them with such pension and other employment benefits as are consistent with that paid in the public sector. (5) In exercising its powers in terms of subsections (1) and (4), the Regulator must 20 consult with the Minister of Finance. (6) The Regulator may, in the performance of the functions contemplated in subsection (1), at its request, be assisted by officials in the Public Service seconded to the service of the Regulator in terms of any law regulating such secondment: Provided that the secondment of an official to the service of the Regulator may not exceed 12 months and that the initial period of secondment may only be extended once for a subsequent period not exceeding 12 months. (7) The Regulator may, in consultation with the Minister of Finance, on a temporary basis or for a particular matter which is being investigated by it, employ any person with special knowledge of any matter relating to the work of the Regulator, or obtain the 30 co-operation of any body, to advise or assist the Regulator in the performance of its functions under this Act and the Promotion of Access to Information Act, and fix the remuneration, including reimbursement for travelling, subsistence and other expenses, of such person or body.
+
+# Powers, duties and functions of chief executive officer
+
+48. The chief executive officer—
+
+(a) is the head of administration and the accounting officer, as referred to in section 52(3), of the Regulator;
+(b) may appoint a senior member of staff as acting chief executive officer as referred to in section 47(2); 40
+(c) is responsible for the— (i) management of the affairs and operations of the Regulator; (ii) formation and development of an efficient administration; (iii) organisation and management of, and administrative control over, all the members of staff appointed in terms of section $47(1)(b)$ and all the 45 persons seconded in terms of section 47(6); (iv) maintenance of discipline in respect of the members of staff; and (v) execution of the decisions of the Regulator, and is for those purposes accountable to the Regulator and must report thereon to the Regulator as often as may be required by the Regulator; and 50 must exercise the powers and perform the duties and functions which the
+
+Regulator may from time to time confer upon or assign to him or her in order to achieve the objects of the Regulator, and is for those purposes accountable to the Regulator.
+
+# Committees of Regulator
+
+49. (1) The Regulator may, if it considers it necessary for the proper performance of its functions establish one or more committees, which must consist of—
+
+(a) such members of the Regulator as the Regulator may designate; or $(b)$ such members of the Regulator as the Regulator may designate and other persons appointed by the Regulator, as referred to in section 47(7), for the period determined by the Regulator. (2) The Regulator may at any time extend the period of an appointment referred to in subsection $(1)(b)$ or, if in its opinion good reasons exist therefor, revoke any such appointment. (3) The Regulator must designate the chairperson and, if the Regulator deems it necessary, the vice-chairperson of a committee established under subsection (1). (4) (a) A committee referred to in subsection (1) must, subject to the directions of the 15 Regulator, perform those functions of the Regulator assigned to it by the Regulator. $(b)$ Any function so performed by a committee referred to in subsection (1) will be deemed to have been performed by the Regulator. (5) The Regulator may at any time dissolve any committee established by the Regulator. 20 (6) The provisions of sections 40(4) and 51 will apply, with the necessary changes, to a committee of the Regulator.
+
+# Establishment of Enforcement Committee
+
+50. (1) The Regulator must establish an Enforcement Committee which must consist of—
+
+(a) at least one member of the Regulator; and (b) such other persons appointed by the Regulator, as referred to in section 47(7), for the period determined by the Regulator.
+
+(2) The Regulator must—
+
+(a) in consultation with the Chief Justice and Minister, appoint a— (i) judge of the High Court of South Africa, whether in active service or not; or (ii) magistrate with at least 10 years’ appropriate experience, whether in active service or not; or
+
+(b) appoint an advocate or attorney with at least 10 years’ appropriate experience, 35 as Chairperson of the Enforcement Committee.
+
+(3) The Chairperson of the Enforcement Committee must manage the work of and preside at hearings of the Enforcement Committee.
+
+(4) (a) A member referred to in subsection $(1)(a)$ may not participate in any proceedings of the Regulator in terms of which a decision is taken with regard to a 40 recommendation by the Enforcement Committee as referred to in section 93.
+
+(b) A person referred to in subsection $(1)(b)$ must be a fit and proper person and must comply with the criteria, referred to in section $41(1)(g)$ , for appointment as a member of the Regulator.
+
+# Meetings of Regulator
+
+51. (1) Meetings of the Regulator must be held at the times and places determined by the Chairperson of the Regulator. (2) Three members of the Regulator constitute a quorum for a meeting. (3) (a) The Chairperson may regulate the proceedings at meetings as he or she may think fit and must keep minutes of the proceedings. 50 $(b)$ If the Chairperson is absent from a meeting the members present shall elect one of their number to preside at that meeting.
+
+(4) (a) Subject to subsection (2), a decision of the Regulator is taken by resolution agreed to by the majority of members at any meeting of the Regulator.
+
+$(b)$ In the event of an equality of votes regarding any matter the Chairperson has a casting vote in addition to his or her deliberative vote.
+
+# Funds
+
+52. (1) Funds of the Regulator consist of— (a) such sums of money that Parliament appropriates annually, for the use of the Regulator as may be necessary for the proper exercise, performance and discharge, by the Regulator, of its powers, duties and functions under this Act and the Promotion of Access to Information Act; and (b) fees as may be prescribed in terms of section 111(1). (2) The financial year of the Regulator is the period from 1 April in any year to 31
+March in the following year, except that the first financial year of the Regulator begins
+on the date that this Chapter comes into operation, and ends on 31 March next following
+that date. 15 (3) The chief executive officer of the Regulator is for purposes of the Public Finance
+Management Act, 1999 (Act No. 1 of 1999), the accounting officer and must execute his
+or her duties in accordance with that Act. (4) Within six months after the end of each financial year, the Regulator must prepare
+financial statements in accordance with established accounting practice, principles and 2
+procedures, comprising— (a) a statement reflecting, with suitable and sufficient particulars, the income and expenditure of the Regulator during the preceding financial year; and (b) a balance sheet showing the state of its assets, liabilities and financial position as at the end of that financial year. (5) The Auditor-General must audit the Regulator’s financial records each year.
+
+# Protection of Regulator
+
+53. Any person acting on behalf or under the direction of the Regulator, is not civilly or criminally liable for anything done in good faith in the exercise or performance or purported exercise or performance of any power, duty or function of the Regulator in 30 terms of this Act or the Promotion of Access to Information Act.
+
+# Duty of confidentiality
+
+54. A person acting on behalf or under the direction of the Regulator, must, both during or after his or her term of office or employment, treat as confidential the personal information which comes to his or her knowledge in the course of the performance of his 35 or her official duties, except if the communication of such information is required by law or in the proper performance of his or her duties.
+
+# Part B
+
+# Information Officer
+
+# Duties and responsibilities of Information Officer
+
+55. (1) An information officer’s responsibilities include—
+
+(a) the encouragement of compliance, by the body, with the conditions for the lawful processing of personal information;
+(b) dealing with requests made to the body pursuant to this Act;
+(c) working with the Regulator in relation to investigations conducted pursuant to 45 Chapter 6 in relation to the body;
+(d) otherwise ensuring compliance by the body with the provisions of this Act; and
+(e) as may be prescribed.
+
+(2) Officers must take up their duties in terms of this Act only after the responsible party has registered them with the Regulator.
+
+# Designation and delegation of deputy information officers
+
+56. Each public and private body must make provision, in the manner prescribed in section 17 of the Promotion of Access to Information Act, with the necessary changes, for the designation of—
+
+(a) such a number of persons, if any, as deputy information officers as is necessary to perform the duties and responsibilities as set out in section 55(1) of this Act; and
+(b) any power or duty conferred or imposed on an information officer by this Act to a deputy information officer of that public or private body.
+
+# CHAPTER 6
+
+# PRIOR AUTHORISATION
+
+# Prior authorisation
+
+# Processing subject to prior authorisation
+
+57. (1) The responsible party must obtain prior authorisation from the Regulator, in terms of section 58, prior to any processing if that responsible party plans to—
+
+20
+
+(a) process any unique identifiers of data subjects—
+
+(i) for a purpose other than the one for which the identifier was specifically intended at collection; and
+(ii) with the aim of linking the information together with information processed by other responsible parties;
+(b) process information on criminal behaviour or on unlawful or objectionable conduct on behalf of third parties;
+(c) process information for the purposes of credit reporting; or
+(d) transfer special personal information, as referred to in section 26, or the personal information of children as referred to in section 34, to a third party in a foreign country that does not provide an adequate level of protection for the processing of personal information as referred to in section 72.
+
+(2) The provisions of subsection (1) may be applied by the Regulator to other types of information processing by law or regulation if such processing carries a particular risk for the legitimate interests of the data subject. (3) This section and section 58 are not applicable if a code of conduct has been issued and has come into force in terms of Chapter 7 in a specific sector or sectors of society. (4) A responsible party must obtain prior authorisation as referred to in subsection (1) only once and not each time that personal information is received or processed, except where the processing departs from that which has been authorised in accordance with 4 the provisions of subsection (1).
+
+# Responsible party to notify Regulator if processing is subject to prior authorisation
+
+58. (1) Information processing as contemplated in section 57(1) must be notified as such by the responsible party to the Regulator.
+
+(2) Responsible parties may not carry out information processing that has been 45 notified to the Regulator in terms of subsection (1) until the Regulator has completed its investigation or until they have received notice that a more detailed investigation will not be conducted.
+
+(3) In the case of the notification of information processing to which section 57(1) is applicable, the Regulator must inform the responsible party in writing within four weeks of the notification as to whether or not it will conduct a more detailed investigation.
+
+(4) In the event that the Regulator decides to conduct a more detailed investigation, it must indicate the period within which it plans to conduct this investigation, which period must not exceed 13 weeks.
+
+(5) On conclusion of the more detailed investigation referred to in subsection (4) the Regulator must issue a statement concerning the lawfulness of the information processing.
+
+(6) A statement by the Regulator in terms of subsection (5), to the extent that the information processing is not lawful, is deemed to be an enforcement notice served in terms of section 95 of this Act.
+
+(7) A responsible party that has suspended its processing as required by subsection (2), and which has not received the Regulator’s decision within the time limits specified in subsections (3) and (4), may presume a decision in its favour and continue with its 15 processing.
+
+# Failure to notify processing subject to prior authorisation
+
+59. If section 58(1) or (2) is contravened, the responsible party is guilty of an offence and liable to a penalty as set out in section 107.
+
+# CHAPTER 7
+
+# CODES OF CONDUCT
+
+# Issuing of codes of conduct
+
+60. (1) The Regulator may from time to time issue codes of conduct.
+
+(2) A code of conduct must—
+
+(a) incorporate all the conditions for the lawful processing of personal informa- 25 tion or set out obligations that provide a functional equivalent of all the obligations set out in those conditions; and
+(b) prescribe how the conditions for the lawful processing of personal information are to be applied, or are to be complied with, given the particular features of the sector or sectors of society in which the relevant responsible parties are 30 operating.
+
+(3) A code of conduct may apply in relation to any one or more of the following: (a) Any specified information or class of information; (b) any specified body or class of bodies; (c) any specified activity or class of activities; or 35 (d) any specified industry, profession, or vocation or class of industries, professions, or vocations.
+
+(4) A code of conduct must also— (a) specify appropriate measures—
+
+(i) for information matching programmes if such programmes are used 40 within a specific sector; or
+(ii) for protecting the legitimate interests of data subjects insofar as automated decision making, as referred to in section 71, is concerned;
+
+(b) provide for the review of the code by the Regulator; and (c) provide for the expiry of the code.
+
+# Process for issuing codes of conduct
+
+61. (1) The Regulator may issue a code of conduct under section 60— (a) on the Regulator’s own initiative, but after consultation with affected stakeholders or a body representing such stakeholders; or
+
+(b) on the application, in the prescribed form, by a body which is, in the opinion of the Regulator, sufficiently representative of any class of bodies, or of any industry, profession, or vocation as defined in the code in respect of such class of bodies or of any such industry, profession or vocation.
+
+(2) The Regulator must give notice in the Gazette that the issuing of a code of conduct is being considered, which notice must contain a statement that—
+
+(a) the details of the code of conduct being considered, including a draft of the proposed code, may be obtained from the Regulator; and
+(b) submissions on the proposed code may be made in writing to the Regulator within such period as is specified in the notice.
+
+(3) The Regulator may not issue a code of conduct unless it has considered the submissions made to the Regulator in terms of subsection $(2)(b)$ , if any, and is satisfied that all persons affected by the proposed code have had a reasonable opportunity to be heard.
+
+(4) The decision as to whether an application for the issuing of a code has been 15 successful must be made within a reasonable period which must not exceed 13 weeks.
+
+# Notification, availability and commencement of code of conduct
+
+62. (1) If a code of conduct is issued under section 60 the Regulator must ensure that—
+
+(a) there is published in the Gazette, as soon as reasonably practicable after the 20 code is issued, a notice indicating— (i) that the code has been issued; and (ii) where copies of the code are available for inspection free of charge and for purchase; and
+
+) as long as the code remains in force, copies of it are available—
+
+(i) on the Regulator’s website;
+(ii) for inspection by members of the public free of charge at the Regulator’s offices; and
+(iii) for purchase or copying by members of the public at a reasonable price at the Regulator’s offices.
+
+(2) A code of conduct issued under section 60 comes into force on the 28th day after the date of its notification in the Gazette or on such later date as may be specified in the code and is binding on every class or classes of body, industry, profession or vocation referred to therein.
+
+# Procedure for dealing with complaints
+
+63. (1) A code of conduct may prescribe procedures for making and dealing with complaints alleging a breach of the code, but no such provision may limit or restrict any provision of Chapter 10.
+
+(2) If the code sets out procedures for making and dealing with complaints, the Regulator must be satisfied that—
+
+(a) the procedures meet the— (i) prescribed standards; and (ii) guidelines issued by the Regulator in terms of section 65, relating to the making of and dealing with complaints;
+(b) the code provides for the appointment of an independent adjudicator to whom 45 complaints may be made;
+(c) the code provides that, in exercising his or her powers and performing his or her functions, under the code, an adjudicator for the code must have due regard to the matters listed in section 44;
+(d) the code requires the adjudicator to prepare and submit a report, in a form 50 satisfactory to the Regulator, to the Regulator within five months of the end of a financial year of the Regulator on the operation of the code during that financial year; and
+(e) the code requires the report prepared for each year to specify the number and nature of complaints made to an adjudicator under the code during the 55 relevant financial year.
+
+(3) A responsible party or data subject who is aggrieved by a determination, including any declaration, order or direction that is included in the determination, made by an adjudicator after having investigated a complaint relating to the protection of personal information under an approved code of conduct, may submit a complaint in terms of section 74(2) with the Regulator against the determination upon payment of a prescribed fee.
+
+(4) The adjudicator’s determination continues to have effect unless and until the Regulator makes a determination under Chapter 10 relating to the complaint or unless the Regulator determines otherwise.
+
+# Amendment and revocation of codes of conduct
+
+64. (1) The Regulator may amend or revoke a code of conduct issued under section 60. (2) The provisions of sections 60 to 63 apply in respect of any amendment or revocation of a code of conduct.
+
+# Guidelines about codes of conduct
+
+65. (1) The Regulator may provide written guidelines—
+
+(a) to assist bodies to develop codes of conduct or to apply approved codes of conduct;
+(b) relating to making and dealing with complaints under approved codes of conduct; and
+(c) about matters the Regulator may consider in deciding whether to approve a code of conduct or a variation or revocation of an approved code of conduct.
+
+(2) The Regulator must have regard to the guidelines as set out in section $7(3)(a)$ to (d) when considering the approval of a code of conduct for the processing of personal information for exclusively journalistic purposes where the responsible party is not 25 subject to a code of ethics as referred to in section 7(1).
+
+(3) Before providing guidelines for the purposes of subsection $(1)(b)$ , the Regulator must give everyone the Regulator considers has a real and substantial legitimate interest in the matters covered by the proposed guidelines an opportunity to comment on them.
+
+(4) The Regulator must publish guidelines provided under subsection (1) in the 30 Gazette.
+
+# Register of approved codes of conduct
+
+66. (1) The Regulator must keep a register of approved codes of conduct.
+
+(2) The Regulator may decide the form of the register and how it is to be kept.
+
+(3) The Regulator must make the register available to the public in the way that the 35 Regulator determines.
+
+4) The Regulator may charge reasonable fees for— (a) making the register available to the public; or (b) providing copies of, or extracts from, the register.
+
+# Review of operation of approved code of conduct
+
+67. (1) The Regulator may, on its own initiative, review the operation of an approved code of conduct.
+
+(2) The Regulator may do one or more of the following for the purposes of the review:
+
+45
+
+Consider the process under the code for making and dealing with complaints;
+(b) inspect the records of an adjudicator for the code;
+(c) consider the outcome of complaints dealt with under the code;
+(d) interview an adjudicator for the code; and
+(e) appoint experts to review those provisions of the code that the Regulator believes require expert evaluation.
+
+(3) The review may inform a decision by the Regulator under section 64 to revoke the approved code of conduct with immediate effect or at a future date to be determined by the Regulator.
+
+# Effect of failure to comply with code of conduct
+
+68. If a code issued under section 60 is in force, failure to comply with the code is 5 deemed to be a breach of the conditions for the lawful processing of personal information referred to in Chapter 3 and is dealt with in terms of Chapter 10.
+
+# CHAPTER 8
+
+# RIGHTS OF DATA SUBJECTS REGARDING DIRECT MARKETINGBY MEANS OF UNSOLICITED ELECTRONIC COMMUNICATIONS,DIRECTORIES AND AUTOMATED DECISION MAKING
+
+Direct marketing by means of unsolicited electronic communications
+
+69. (1) The processing of personal information of a data subject for the purpose of direct marketing by means of any form of electronic communication, including automatic calling machines, facsimile machines, SMSs or e-mail is prohibited unless the 15 data subject—
+
+(a) has given his, her or its consent to the processing; or (b) is, subject to subsection (3), a customer of the responsible party. (2) (a) A responsible party may approach a data subject— (i) whose consent is required in terms of subsection $(1)(a)$ ; and (ii) who has not previously withheld such consent,
+
+nly once in order to request the consent of that data subject.
+
+$(b)$ The data subject’s consent must be requested in the prescribed manner and form. (3) A responsible party may only process the personal information of a data subject who is a customer of the responsible party in terms of subsection $(1)(b).$ —
+
+25
+
+(a) if the responsible party has obtained the contact details of the data subject in the context of the sale of a product or service;
+(b) for the purpose of direct marketing of the responsible party’s own similar products or services; and
+(c) if the data subject has been given a reasonable opportunity to object, free of 30 charge and in a manner free of unnecessary formality, to such use of his, her or its electronic details— (i) at the time when the information was collected; and (ii) on the occasion of each communication with the data subject for the purpose of marketing if the data subject has not initially refused such use. 35
+
+(4) Any communication for the purpose of direct marketing must contain—
+
+(a) details of the identity of the sender or the person on whose behalf the communication has been sent; and
+(b) an address or other contact details to which the recipient may send a request that such communications cease.
+
+(5) ‘‘Automatic calling machine’’, for purposes of subsection (1), means a machine that is able to do automated calls without human intervention.
+
+# Directories
+
+70. (1) A data subject who is a subscriber to a printed or electronic directory of subscribers available to the public or obtainable through directory enquiry services, in 45 which his, her or its personal information is included, must be informed, free of charge and before the information is included in the directory—
+
+(a) about the purpose of the directory; and (b) about any further uses to which the directory may possibly be put, based on search functions embedded in electronic versions of the directory.
+
+(2) A data subject must be given a reasonable opportunity to object, free of charge and in a manner free of unnecessary formality, to such use of his, her or its personal information or to request verification, confirmation or withdrawal of such information if the data subject has not initially refused such use.
+
+(3) Subsections (1) and (2) do not apply to editions of directories that were produced in printed or off-line electronic form prior to the commencement of this section.
+
+(4) If the personal information of data subjects who are subscribers to fixed or mobile public voice telephony services have been included in a public subscriber directory in conformity with the conditions for the lawful processing of personal information prior to the commencement of this section, the personal information of such subscribers may remain included in this public directory in its printed or electronic versions, after having received the information required by subsection (1).
+
+(5) ‘‘Subscriber’’, for purposes of this section, means any person who is party to a 15 contract with the provider of publicly available electronic communications services for the supply of such services.
+
+# Automated decision making
+
+71. (1) Subject to subsection (2), a data subject may not be subject to a decision which results in legal consequences for him, her or it, or which affects him, her or it to a 20 substantial degree, which is based solely on the basis of the automated processing of personal information intended to provide a profile of such person including his or her performance at work, or his, her or its credit worthiness, reliability, location, health, personal preferences or conduct.
+
+(2) The provisions of subsection (1) do not apply if the decision— (a) has been taken in connection with the conclusion or execution of a contract, and— (i) the request of the data subject in terms of the contract has been met; or (ii) appropriate measures have been taken to protect the data subject’s legitimate interests; or
+
+(b) is governed by a law or code of conduct in which appropriate measures are specified for protecting the legitimate interests of data subjects.
+
+(3) The appropriate measures, referred to in subsection (2)(a)(ii), must—
+
+(a) provide an opportunity for a data subject to make representations about a decision referred to in subsection (1); and
+(b) require a responsible party to provide a data subject with sufficient information about the underlying logic of the automated processing of the information relating to him or her to enable him or her to make representations in terms of paragraph (a).
+
+# CHAPTER 9
+
+# TRANSBORDER INFORMATION FLOWS
+
+# Transfers of personal information outside Republic
+
+72. (1) A responsible party in the Republic may not transfer personal information about a data subject to a third party who is in a foreign country unless—
+
+(a) the third party who is the recipient of the information is subject to a law, 45 binding corporate rules or binding agreement which provide an adequate level of protection that— (i) effectively upholds principles for reasonable processing of the information that are substantially similar to the conditions for the lawful processing of personal information relating to a data subject who is a 50 natural person and, where applicable, a juristic person; and
+
+(ii) includes provisions, that are substantially similar to this section, relating to the further transfer of personal information from the recipient to third parties who are in a foreign country;
+
+(b) the data subject consents to the transfer;
+
+(c) the transfer is necessary for the performance of a contract between the data subject and the responsible party, or for the implementation of pre-contractual measures taken in response to the data subject’s request; the transfer is necessary for the conclusion or performance of a contract concluded in the interest of the data subject between the responsible party and a third party; or
+(e) the transfer is for the benefit of the data subject, and— (i) it is not reasonably practicable to obtain the consent of the data subject to that transfer; and (ii) if it were reasonably practicable to obtain such consent, the data subject would be likely to give it. 1
+
+(2) For the purpose of this section—
+
+(a) ‘‘binding corporate rules’’ means personal information processing policies, within a group of undertakings, which are adhered to by a responsible party or operator within that group of undertakings when transferring personal information to a responsible party or operator within that same group of undertakings in a foreign country; and
+
+(b) ‘‘group of undertakings’’ means a controlling undertaking and its controlled undertakings.
+
+# CHAPTER 10
+
+# ENFORCEMENT
+
+# Interference with protection of personal information of data subject
+
+73. For the purposes of this Chapter, interference with the protection of the personal information of a data subject consists, in relation to that data subject, of—
+
+(a) any breach of the conditions for the lawful processing of personal information as referred to in Chapter 3; (b) non-compliance with section 22, 54, 69, 70, 71 or 72; or (c) a breach of the provisions of a code of conduct issued in terms of section 60.
+
+30
+
+# Complaints
+
+74. (1) Any person may submit a complaint to the Regulator in the prescribed manner and form alleging interference with the protection of the personal information of a data 35 subject.
+
+(2) A responsible party or data subject may, in terms of section 63(3), submit a complaint to the Regulator in the prescribed manner and form if he, she or it is aggrieved by the determination of an adjudicator.
+
+# Mode of complaints to Regulator
+
+75. (1) A complaint to the Regulator must be made in writing.
+
+(2) The Regulator must give such reasonable assistance as is necessary in the circumstances to enable a person, who wishes to make a complaint to the Regulator, to put the complaint in writing.
+
+# Action on receipt of complaint
+
+76. (1) On receiving a complaint in terms of section 74, the Regulator may— (a) conduct a pre-investigation as referred to in section 79;
+
+(b) act, at any time during the investigation and where appropriate, as conciliator in relation to any interference with the protection of the personal information of a data subject in the prescribed manner;
+(c) decide, in accordance with section 77, to take no action on the complaint or, as the case may be, require no further action in respect of the complaint;
+$(d)$ conduct a full investigation of the complaint;
+$(e)$ refer the complaint, in terms of section 92, to the Enforcement Committee; or
+$(f)$ take such further action as is contemplated by this Chapter.
+
+(2) The Regulator must, as soon as is reasonably practicable, advise the complainant and the responsible party to whom the complaint relates of the course of action that the 1 Regulator proposes to adopt under subsection (1).
+
+(3) The Regulator may, on its own initiative, commence an investigation into the interference with the protection of the personal information of a data subject as referred to in section 73.
+
+# Regulator may decide to take no action on complaint
+
+77. (1) The Regulator, after investigating a complaint received in terms of section 73, may decide to take no action or, as the case may be, require no further action in respect of the complaint if, in the Regulator’s opinion—
+
+(a) the length of time that has elapsed between the date when the subject matter of the complaint arose and the date when the complaint was made is such that 20 an investigation of the complaint is no longer practicable or desirable;
+(b) the subject matter of the complaint is trivial;
+(c) the complaint is frivolous or vexatious or is not made in good faith;
+(d) the complainant does not desire that action be taken or, as the case may be, continued; 25
+(e) the complainant does not have a sufficient personal interest in the subject matter of the complaint; or
+$(f)$ in cases where the complaint relates to a matter in respect of which a code of conduct is in force and the code of conduct makes provision for a complaints procedure, the complainant has failed to pursue, or to pursue fully, an avenue 30 of redress available under that complaints procedure that it would be reasonable for the complainant to pursue.
+
+(2) Notwithstanding anything in subsection (1), the Regulator may in its discretion decide not to take any further action on a complaint if, in the course of the investigation of the complaint, it appears to the Regulator that, having regard to all the circumstances 35 of the case, any further action is unnecessary or inappropriate.
+
+(3) In any case where the Regulator decides to take no action, or no further action, on a complaint, the Regulator must inform the complainant of that decision and the reasons for it.
+
+# Referral of complaint to regulatory body
+
+78. (1) If, on receiving a complaint in terms of section 74, the Regulator considers that the complaint relates, in whole or in part, to a matter that is more properly within the jurisdiction of another regulatory body established in terms of any law, the Regulator must forthwith determine whether the complaint should be dealt with, in whole or in part, under this Act after consultation with the body concerned.
+
+(2) If the Regulator determines that the complaint should be dealt with by another body, the Regulator must forthwith refer the complaint to that body to be dealt with accordingly and must notify the complainant of the referral.
+
+# Pre-investigation proceedings of Regulator
+
+79. Before proceeding to investigate any matter in terms of this Chapter, the 50 Regulator must, in the prescribed manner, inform—
+
+(a) the complainant, the data subject to whom the investigation relates (if not the complainant) and any person alleged to be aggrieved (if not the complainant), of the Regulator’s intention to conduct the investigation; and
+
+) the responsible party to whom the investigation relates of the—
+
+(i) details of the complaint or, as the case may be, the subject matter of the 5 investigation; and
+(ii) right of that responsible party to submit to the Regulator, within a reasonable period, a written response in relation to the complaint or, as the case may be, the subject-matter of the investigation.
+
+# Settlement of complaints
+
+80. If it appears from a complaint, or any written response made in relation to a complaint under section 79(b)(ii), that it may be possible to secure—
+
+(a) a settlement between any of the parties concerned; and
+$(b)$ if appropriate, a satisfactory assurance against the repetition of any action that is the subject matter of the complaint or the doing of further actions of a 15 similar kind by the person concerned,
+
+the Regulator may, without investigating the complaint or, as the case may be, investigating the complaint further, in the prescribed manner, use its best endeavours to secure such a settlement and assurance.
+
+# Investigation proceedings of Regulator
+
+81. For the purposes of the investigation of a complaint the Regulator may—
+
+(a) summon and enforce the appearance of persons before the Regulator and compel them to give oral or written evidence on oath and to produce any records and things that the Regulator considers necessary to investigate the complaint, in the same manner and to the same extent as the High Court; 25
+(b) administer oaths;
+(c) receive and accept any evidence and other information, whether on oath, by affidavit or otherwise, that the Regulator sees fit, whether or not it is or would be admissible in a court of law;
+(d) at any reasonable time, subject to section 81, enter and search any premises 30 occupied by a responsible party;
+(e) conduct a private interview with any person in any premises entered under section 84 subject to section 82; and
+(f) otherwise carry out in those premises any inquiries that the Regulator sees fit in terms of section 82. 35
+
+# Issue of warrants
+
+82. (1) A judge of the High Court, a regional magistrate or a magistrate, if satisfied by information on oath supplied by the Regulator that there are reasonable grounds for suspecting that—
+
+a responsible party is interfering with the protection of the personal 40 information of a data subject; or (b) an offence under this Act has been or is being committed,
+and that evidence of the contravention or of the commission of the offence is to be found
+on any premises specified in the information, that are within the jurisdiction of that judge
+or magistrate, may, subject to subsection (2), grant a warrant to enter and search such 45
+premises. (2) A warrant issued under subsection (1) authorises any of the Regulator’s members
+or staff members, subject to section 84, at any time within seven days of the date of the
+warrant to enter the premises as identified in the warrant, to search them, to inspect,
+examine, operate and test any equipment found there which is used or intended to be 50
+
+used for the processing of personal information and to inspect and seize any record, other material or equipment found there which may be such evidence as is mentioned in that subsection.
+
+# Requirements for issuing of warrant
+
+83. (1) A judge or magistrate must not issue a warrant under section 82 unless satisfied 5 that—
+
+(a) the Regulator has given seven days’ notice in writing to the occupier of the premises in question demanding access to the premises;
+(b) either— (i) access was demanded at a reasonable hour and was unreasonably 10 refused; or (ii) although entry to the premises was granted, the occupier unreasonably refused to comply with a request by any of the Regulator’s members or staff to permit the members or the members of staff to do any of the things referred to in section 82(2); and 15
+
+(c) that the occupier, has, after the refusal, been notified by the Regulator of the application for the warrant and has had an opportunity of being heard on the question whether the warrant should be issued.
+
+(2) Subsection (1) does not apply if the judge or magistrate is satisfied that the case is one of urgency or that compliance with that subsection would defeat the object of the 20 entry.
+
+(3) A judge or magistrate who issues a warrant under section 82 must also issue two copies of it and certify them clearly as copies.
+
+# Execution of warrants
+
+84. (1) A police officer who is assisting a person authorised to conduct an entry and 25 search in terms of a warrant issued under section 82 may overcome resistance to the entry and search by using such force as is reasonably necessary. (2) A warrant issued under this section must be executed at a reasonable hour unless it appears to the person executing it that there are reasonable grounds for suspecting that the evidence in question would not be found if it were so executed. 30 (3) If the person who occupies the premises in respect of which a warrant is issued under section 82 is present when the warrant is executed, he or she must be shown the warrant and supplied with a copy of it, and if that person is not present a copy of the warrant must be left in a prominent place on the premises. (4) A person seizing anything in pursuance of a warrant under section 82 must give a 35 receipt to the occupier or leave the receipt on the premises. (5) Anything so seized may be retained for as long as is necessary in all circumstances but the person in occupation of the premises in question must be given a copy of any documentation that is seized if he or she so requests and the person executing the warrant considers that it can be done without undue delay. 40 (6) A person authorised to conduct an entry and search in terms of section 82 must be accompanied and assisted by a police officer. (7) A person who enters and searches any premises under this section must conduct the entry and search with strict regard for decency and order, and with regard to each person’s right to dignity, freedom, security and privacy. 45 (8) A person who enters and searches premises under this section must before questioning any person— (a) advise that person of the right to be assisted at the time by an advocate or attorney; and (b) allow that person to exercise that right. (9) No self-incriminating answer given or statement made to a person who conducts a search in terms of a warrant issued under section 82 is admissible as evidence against the person who gave the answer or made the statement in criminal proceedings, except in criminal proceedings for perjury or in which that person is tried for an offence
+
+contemplated in section 102 and then only to the extent that the answer or statement is relevant to prove the offence charged.
+
+# Matters exempt from search and seizure
+
+85. If the Regulator has granted an exemption in terms of section 37, the information that is processed in terms of that exemption is not subject to search and seizure empowered by a warrant issued under section 82.
+
+# Communication between legal adviser and client exempt
+
+86. (1) Subject to the provisions of this section, the powers of search and seizure conferred by a warrant issued under section 82 must not be exercised in respect of—
+
+(a) any communication between a professional legal adviser and his or her client 10 in connection with the giving of legal advice to the client with respect to his or her obligations, liabilities or rights; or
+(b) any communication between a professional legal adviser and his or her client, or between such an adviser or his or her client and any other person, made in connection with or in contemplation of proceedings under or arising out of 15 this Act, including proceedings before a court, and for the purposes of such proceedings.
+
+(2) Subsection (1) applies also to—
+
+(a) any copy or other record of any such communication as is mentioned therein; and
+(b) any document or article enclosed with or referred to in any such communication if made in connection with the giving of any advice or, as the case may be, in connection with or in contemplation of and for the purposes of such proceedings as are mentioned therein.
+
+# Objection to search and seizure
+
+87. If the person in occupation of any premises in respect of which a warrant is issued under this Act objects to the inspection or seizure under the warrant of any material on the ground that it—
+
+(a) contains privileged information and refuses the inspection or removal of such article or document, the person executing the warrant or search must, if he or 30 she is of the opinion that the article or document contains information that has a bearing on the investigation and that such information is necessary for the investigation, request the Registrar of the High Court which has jurisdiction or his or her delegate, to attach and remove that article or document for safe custody until a court of law has made a ruling on the question whether the 35 information concerned is privileged or not; or
+(b) consists partly of matters in respect of which those powers are not exercised, he or she must, if the person executing the warrant so requests, furnish that person with a copy of so much of the material as is not exempt from those powers.
+
+# Return of warrants
+
+88. A warrant issued under section 82 must be returned to the court from which it was issued—
+
+(a) after being executed; or $(b)$ if not executed within the time authorised for its execution, and the person who has executed the warrant must make an endorsement on it stating what powers have been exercised by him or her under the warrant.
+
+88
+
+# Assessment
+
+89. (1) The Regulator, on its own initiative, or at the request by or on behalf of the responsible party, data subject or any other person must make an assessment in the prescribed manner of whether an instance of processing of personal information complies with the provisions of this Act.
+
+(2) The Regulator must make the assessment if it appears to be appropriate, unless, where the assessment is made on request, the Regulator has not been supplied with such information as it may reasonably require in order to—
+
+(a) satisfy itself as to the identity of the person making the request; and (b) enable it to identify the action in question.
+
+(3) The matters to which the Regulator may have regard in determining whether it is appropriate to make an assessment include—
+
+(a) the extent to which the request appears to it to raise a matter of substance; $(b)$ any undue delay in making the request; and (c) whether or not the person making the request is entitled to make an application 15 in terms of section 23 or 24 in respect of the personal information in question.
+
+(4) If the Regulator has received a request under this section it must notify the equester—
+
+(a) whether it has made an assessment as a result of the request; and
+$(b)$ to the extent that it considers appropriate, having regard in particular to any 20 exemption which has been granted by the Regulator in terms of section 37 from section 23 or 24 applying in relation to the personal information concerned, of any view formed or action taken as a result of the request.
+
+# Information notice
+
+90. (1) If the Regulator—
+
+(a) has received a request under section 89 in respect of any processing of personal information; or
+(b) reasonably requires any information for the purpose of determining whether the responsible party has interfered or is interfering with the personal information of a data subject,
+
+the Regulator may serve the responsible party with an information notice requiring the responsible party to furnish the Regulator, within a specified period, in a form specified in the notice, with a report indicating that the processing is taking place in compliance with the provisions of the Act, or with such information relating to the request or to compliance with the Act as is so specified.
+
+35
+
+(2) An information notice must contain particulars of the right of appeal conferred by section 97, and—
+
+(a) in a case falling within subsection $(1)(a)$ , a statement that the Regulator has received a request under section 89 in relation to the specified processing; or
+(b) in a case falling within subsection $(1)(b)$ , a statement that the Regulator 40 regards the specified information as relevant for the purpose of determining whether the responsible party has complied, or is complying, with the conditions for the lawful processing of personal information and the reasons for regarding it as relevant for that purpose.
+
+(3) Subject to subsection (5), the period specified in an information notice must not 45 expire before the end of the period within which an appeal can be brought against the notice and, if such an appeal is brought, the information need not be furnished pending the determination or withdrawal of the appeal.
+
+(4) If the Regulator considers that the information is required as a matter of urgency, it may include in the notice a statement to that effect and a statement of its reasons for 50 reaching that conclusion, and in that event subsection (3) does not apply.
+
+(5) A notice in terms of subsection (4) may not require the information to be furnished before the end of a period of three days beginning with the day on which the notice is served.
+
+(6) An information notice may not require a responsible party to furnish the Regulator with any communication between a—
+
+(a) professional legal adviser and his or her client in connection with the giving of legal advice on the client’s obligations, liabilities or rights under this Act; or
+(b) professional legal adviser and his or her client, or between such an adviser or his or her client and any other person, made in connection with or in contemplation of proceedings under or arising out of this Act (including proceedings before a court) and for the purposes of such proceedings.
+
+(7) In subsection (6) references to the client of a professional legal adviser include any person representing such a client.
+
+(8) An information notice may not require a responsible party to furnish the Regulator with information that would, by revealing evidence of the commission of any offence 1 other than an offence under this Act, expose the responsible party to criminal proceedings.
+
+(9) The Regulator may cancel an information notice by written notice to the responsible party on whom it was served.
+
+# Parties to be informed of result of assessment
+
+91. (1) After completing the assessment referred to in section 89 the Regulator— (a) must report to the responsible party the results of the assessment and any recommendations that the Regulator considers appropriate; and (b) may, in appropriate cases, require the responsible party, within a specified time, to inform the Regulator of any action taken or proposed to be taken to 2 implement the recommendations contained in the report or reasons why no such action has been or is proposed to be taken.
+
+(2) The Regulator may make public any information relating to the personal information management practices of a responsible party that has been the subject of an assessment under this section if the Regulator considers it in the public interest to do so.
+
+(3) A report made by the Regulator under subsection (1) is deemed to be the equivalent of an enforcement notice in terms of section 95.
+
+# Matters referred to Enforcement Committee
+
+92. (1) After completing the investigation of a complaint or other matter in terms of this Act, the Regulator may refer such complaint or other matter to the Enforcement 35 Committee for consideration, a finding in respect of the complaint or other matter and a recommendation in respect of the proposed action to be taken by the Regulator as referred to in section 93.
+
+(2) The Regulator may prescribe the procedure to be followed by the Enforcement Committee, including—
+
+(a) the manner in which the responsible party and data subject may make submissions to the Enforcement Committee;
+(b) the opportunity afforded to the parties who make submissions to the Enforcement Committee to make use of legal or other representation;
+(c) the period within which the Enforcement Committee must make a finding and 45 submit its recommendation to the Regulator in respect of the complaint or other matter; and
+(d) the manner in which the Enforcement Committee may finalise urgent matters.
+
+# Functions of Enforcement Committee
+
+93. The Enforcement Committee—
+
+(a) must consider all matters referred to it by the Regulator in terms of section 92 or the Promotion of Access to Information Act and make a finding in respect thereof; and
+(b) may make any recommendation to the Regulator necessary or incidental to any action that should be taken against— (i) a responsible party in terms of this Act; or (ii) an information officer or head of a private body, as the case may be, in terms of the Promotion of Access to Information Act.
+
+# Parties to be informed of developments during and result of investigation
+
+94. If an investigation is made following a complaint, and—
+
+(a) the Regulator believes that no interference with the protection of the personal information of a data subject has taken place and therefore does not serve an enforcement notice; 15
+(b) the Regulator has referred the complaint to the Enforcement Committee for consideration in terms of section 92;
+(c) an enforcement notice is served in terms of section 95;
+$(d)$ a served enforcement notice is cancelled in terms of section 96;
+(e) an appeal is lodged against the enforcement notice for cancellation or 20 variation of the notice in terms of section 97; or
+$(f)$ an appeal against an enforcement notice is allowed, the notice is substituted or the appeal is dismissed in terms of section 98,
+
+the Regulator must inform the complainant and the responsible party, as soon as reasonably practicable, in the manner prescribed of any development mentioned in 25 paragraphs $(a)$ to $(f)$ and the result of the investigation.
+
+# Enforcement notice
+
+95. (1) If the Regulator, after having considered the recommendation of the Enforcement Committee in terms of section 93, is satisfied that a responsible party has interfered or is interfering with the protection of the personal information of a data 30 subject as referred to in section 73, the Regulator may serve the responsible party with an enforcement notice requiring the responsible party to do either or both of the following:
+
+(a) To take specified steps within a period specified in the notice, or to refrain from taking such steps; or 35 (b) to stop processing personal information specified in the notice, or to stop processing personal information for a purpose or in a manner specified in the notice within a period specified in the notice. (2) An enforcement notice must contain— (a) a statement indicating the nature of the interference with the protection of the 40 personal information of the data subject and the reasons for reaching that conclusion; and (b) particulars of the rights of appeal conferred by section 97. (3) Subject to subsection (4), an enforcement notice may not require any of the provisions of the notice to be complied with before the end of the period within which 45 an appeal may be brought against the notice and, if such an appeal is brought, the notice need not be complied with pending the determination or withdrawal of the appeal. (4) If the Regulator considers that an enforcement notice should be complied with as a matter of urgency it may include in the notice a statement to that effect and a statement of its reasons for reaching that conclusion, and in that event subsection (3) does not 50 apply. (5) A notice in terms of subsection (4) may not require any of the provisions of the notice to be complied with before the end of a period of three days beginning with the day on which the notice is served.
+
+# Cancellation of enforcement notice
+
+96. (1) A responsible party on whom an enforcement notice has been served may, at any time after the expiry of the period during which an appeal may be brought against that notice, apply in writing to the Regulator for the cancellation or variation of that notice on the ground that, by reason of a change of circumstances, all or any of the provisions of that notice need not be complied with in order to ensure compliance with the conditions for the lawful processing of personal information.
+
+(2) If the Regulator considers that all or any of the provisions of an enforcement notice need not be complied with in order to ensure compliance with a condition for the lawful processing of personal information or conditions to which it relates, it may cancel 10 or vary the notice by written notice to the responsible party on whom it was served.
+
+# Right of appeal
+
+97. (1) A responsible party on whom an information or enforcement notice has been served may, within 30 days of receiving the notice, appeal to the High Court having jurisdiction for the setting aside or variation of the notice.
+
+(2) A complainant, who has been informed of the result of the investigation in terms of section 77(3) or 96, may, within 180 days of receiving the result, appeal to the High Court having jurisdiction against the result.
+
+# Consideration of appeal
+
+98. (1) If in an appeal under section 97 the court considers—
+
+(a) that the notice or decision against which the appeal is brought is not in accordance with the law; or
+(b) that the notice or decision involved an exercise of discretion by the Regulator that ought to have been exercised differently,
+
+the court must allow the appeal and may set aside the notice or substitute such other 25 notice or decision as should have been served or made by the Regulator.
+
+(2) In such an appeal, the court may review any determination of fact on which the notice in question was based.
+
+# Civil remedies
+
+99. (1) A data subject or, at the request of the data subject, the Regulator, may institute 30 a civil action for damages in a court having jurisdiction against a responsible party for breach of any provision of this Act as referred to in section 73, whether or not there is intent or negligence on the part of the responsible party.
+
+(2) In the event of a breach the responsible party may raise any of the following defences against an action for damages: 35
+
+(a) Vis major;
+(b) consent of the plaintiff;
+(c) fault on the part of the plaintiff;
+(d) compliance was not reasonably practicable in the circumstances of the particular case; or 40 (e) the Regulator has granted an exemption in terms of section 37.
+
+(3) A court hearing proceedings in terms of subsection (1) may award an amount that is just and equitable, including—
+
+(a) payment of damages as compensation for patrimonial and non-patrimonial loss suffered by a data subject as a result of breach of the provisions of this 45 Act;
+(b) aggravated damages, in a sum determined in the discretion of the Court;
+(c) interest; and
+
+96
+
+(d) costs of suit on such scale as may be determined by the Court.
+
+(4) Any amount awarded to the Regulator in terms of subsection (3) must be dealt with in the following manner:
+
+(a) The full amount must be deposited into a specifically designated trust account established by the Regulator with an appropriate financial institution;
+(b) as a first charge against the amount, the Regulator may recover all reasonable expenses incurred in bringing proceedings at the request of a data subject in terms of subsection (1) and in administering the distributions made to the data subject in terms of subsection (5); and
+(c) the balance, if any (in this section referred to as the ‘‘distributable balance’’), 1 must be distributed by the Regulator to the data subject at whose request the proceedings were brought.
+
+(5) Any amount not distributed within three years from the date of the first distribution of payments in terms of subsection (4), accrue to the Regulator in the Regulator’s official capacity. 15 (6) The distributable balance must be distributed on a pro rata basis to the data subject referred to in subsection (1). (7) A Court issuing any order under this section must order it to be published in the Gazette and by such other appropriate public media announcement as the Court considers appropriate. 20 (8) Any civil action instituted under this section may be withdrawn, abandoned or compromised, but any agreement or compromise must be made an order of Court. (9) If a civil action has not been instituted, any agreement or settlement, if any, may, on application to the Court by the Regulator after due notice to the other party, be made an order of Court and must be published in the Gazette and by such other public media 25 announcement as the Court considers appropriate.
+
+# CHAPTER 11
+
+# OFFENCES, PENALTIES AND ADMINISTRATIVE FINES
+
+# Obstruction of Regulator
+
+100. Any person who hinders, obstructs or unlawfully influences the Regulator or any 30 person acting on behalf of or under the direction of the Regulator in the performance of the Regulator’s duties and functions under this Act, is guilty of an offence.
+
+# Breach of confidentiality
+
+101. Any person who contravenes the provisions of section 54, is guilty of an offence.
+
+# Obstruction of execution of warrant
+
+102. Any person who—
+
+intentionally obstructs a person in the execution of a warrant issued under section 82; or (b) fails without reasonable excuse to give any person executing such a warrant such assistance as he or she may reasonably require for the execution of the 40 warrant,
+
+is guilty of an offence.
+
+# Failure to comply with enforcement or information notices
+
+103. (1) A responsible party which fails to comply with an enforcement notice served in terms of section 95, is guilty of an offence.
+
+(2) A responsible party which, in purported compliance with an information notice served in terms of section 90—
+
+(a) makes a statement knowing it to be false; or
+
+(b) recklessly makes a statement which is false, in a material respect, is guilty of an offence.
+
+# Offences by witnesses
+
+104. (1) Any person summoned in terms of section 81 to attend and give evidence or to produce any book, document or object before the Regulator who, without sufficient 5 cause fails—
+
+(a) to attend at the time and place specified in the summons;
+(b) to remain in attendance until conclusion of the proceedings or until he or she is excused by the Chairperson of the Regulator from further attendance;
+(c) having attended, refuses to be sworn or to make an affirmation as witness after 10 he or she has been required by the Chairperson of the Regulator to do so;
+(d) having been sworn or having made an affirmation, to answer fully and satisfactorily any question lawfully put to him or her; or
+(e) to produce any book, document or object in his or her possession or custody or under his or her control, which he or she has been summoned to produce, 15
+
+is guilty of an offence.
+
+(2) Any person who after having been sworn or having made an affirmation, gives false evidence before the Regulator on any matter, knowing such evidence to be false or not knowing or believing it to be true, is guilty of an offence.
+
+# Unlawful acts by responsible party in connection with account number
+
+105. (1) A responsible party who contravenes the provisions of section 8 insofar as those provisions relate to the processing of an account number of a data subject is, subject to subsections (2) and (3), guilty of an offence.
+
+(2) The contravention referred to in subsection (1) must— (a) be of a serious or persistent nature; and $(b)$ likely cause substantial damage or distress to the data subject.
+
+25
+
+(3) The responsible party must—
+
+(a) have known or ought to have known that— (i) there was a risk that the contravention would occur; or (ii) such contravention would likely cause substantial damage or distress to 30 the data subject; and
+
+(b) have failed to take reasonable steps to prevent the contravention.
+
+(4) Whenever a responsible party is charged with an offence under subsection (1), it is a valid defence to such a charge to contend that he or she has taken all reasonable steps to comply with the provisions of section 8.
+
+35
+
+(5) ‘‘Account number’’, for purposes of this section and section 106, means any unique identifier that has been assigned—
+
+(a) to one data subject only; or (b) jointly to more than one data subject,
+
+by a financial or other institution which enables the data subject, referred to in paragraph 40 (a), to access his, her or its own funds or to access credit facilities or which enables a data subject, referred to in paragraph $(b)$ , to access joint funds or to access joint credit facilities.
+
+# Unlawful acts by third parties in connection with account number
+
+106. (1) A person who knowingly or recklessly, without the consent of the responsible 45 party— (a) obtains or discloses an account number of a data subject; or $(b)$ procures the disclosure of an account number of a data subject to another person,
+
+is, subject to subsection (2), guilty of an offence.
+
+100
+
+(2) Whenever a person is charged with an offence under subsection (1), it is a valid defence to such a charge to contend that—
+
+(a) the obtaining, disclosure or procuring of the account number was— (i) necessary for the purpose of the prevention, detection, investigation or proof of an offence; or (ii) required or authorised in terms of the law or in terms of a court order;
+(b) he or she acted in the reasonable belief that he or she was legally entitled to obtain or disclose the account number or, as the case may be, to procure the disclosure of the account number to the other person;
+(c) he or she acted in the reasonable belief that he or she would have had the 10 consent of the responsible party if the responsible party had known of the obtaining, disclosing or procuring and the circumstances of it; or
+(d) in the particular circumstances the obtaining, disclosing or procuring was in the public interest.
+
+(3) A person who sells an account number which he or she has obtained in 15 contravention of subsection (1), is guilty of an offence.
+
+(4) A person who offers to sell the account number of a data subject which that person— (a) has obtained; or (b) subsequently obtained, n contravention of subsection (1), is guilty of an offence.
+
+(5) For the purposes of subsection (4), an advertisement indicating that an account number of a data subject is or may be for sale is an offer to sell the information.
+
+# Penalties
+
+107. Any person convicted of an offence in terms of this Act, is liable, in the case of 25 a contravention of—
+
+(a) section 100, 103(1), 104(2), 105(1), 106(1), (3) or (4) to a fine or to imprisonment for a period not exceeding 10 years, or to both a fine and such imprisonment; or
+(b) section 59, 101, 102, 103(2) or 104(1), to a fine or to imprisonment for a 30 period not exceeding 12 months, or to both a fine and such imprisonment.
+
+# Magistrate’s Court jurisdiction to impose penalties
+
+108. Despite anything to the contrary contained in any other law, a Magistrate’s Court has jurisdiction to impose any penalty provided for in section 107.
+
+# Administrative fines
+
+109. (1) If a responsible party is alleged to have committed an offence in terms of this Act, the Regulator may cause to be delivered by hand to that person (hereinafter referred to as the infringer) an infringement notice which must contain the particulars contemplated in subsection (2).
+
+(2) A notice referred to in subsection (1) must—
+
+(a) specify the name and address of the infringer;
+(b) specify the particulars of the alleged offence;
+(c) specify the amount of the administrative fine payable, which amount may, subject to subsection (10), not exceed R10 million;
+(d) inform the infringer that, not later than 30 days after the date of service of the 45 infringement notice, the infringer may— (i) pay the administrative fine; make arrangements with the Regulator to pay the administrative fine in instalments; or (iii) elect to be tried in court on a charge of having committed the alleged 50 offence referred to in terms of this Act; and
+
+102
+
+(e) state that a failure to comply with the requirements of the notice within the time permitted, will result in the administrative fine becoming recoverable as contemplated in subsection (5).
+
+(3) When determining an appropriate fine, the Regulator must consider the following factors:
+
+(a) The nature of the personal information involved;
+(b) the duration and extent of the contravention;
+(c) the number of data subjects affected or potentially affected by the contravention;
+(d) whether or not the contravention raises an issue of public importance;
+(e) the likelihood of substantial damage or distress, including injury to feelings or anxiety suffered by data subjects;
+$(f)$ whether the responsible party or a third party could have prevented the contravention from occurring;
+(g) any failure to carry out a risk assessment or a failure to operate good policies, procedures and practices to protect personal information; and
+(h) whether the responsible party has previously committed an offence in terms of this Act.
+
+(4) If an infringer elects to be tried in court on a charge of having committed the alleged offence in terms of this Act, the Regulator must hand the matter over to the South 20 African Police Service and inform the infringer accordingly.
+
+(5) If an infringer fails to comply with the requirements of a notice, the Regulator may file with the clerk or registrar of any competent court a statement certified by it as correct, setting forth the amount of the administrative fine payable by the infringer, and such statement thereupon has all the effects of a civil judgment lawfully given in that 25 court in favour of the Regulator for a liquid debt in the amount specified in the statement. (6) The Regulator may not impose an administrative fine contemplated in this section if the responsible party concerned has been charged with an offence in terms of this Act in respect of the same set of facts. (7) No prosecution may be instituted against a responsible party if the responsible 30 party concerned has paid an administrative fine in terms of this section in respect of the same set of facts. (8) An administrative fine imposed in terms of this section does not constitute a previous conviction as contemplated in Chapter 27 of the Criminal Procedure Act, 1977 (Act No. 51 of 1977). 35 (9) A fine payable in terms of this section must be paid into the National Revenue Fund referred to in section 213 of the Constitution. (10) The Minister may, from time to time and after consultation with the Regulator, by notice in the Gazette, adjust the amount referred to in subsection $(2)(c)$ in accordance with the average of the consumer price index, as published from time to time in the 40 Gazette, for the immediately preceding period of 12 months multiplied by the number of years that the amount referred to in subsection (2)(c) has remained the same.
+
+# CHAPTER 12
+
+# GENERAL PROVISIONS
+
+# Amendment of laws
+
+110.The laws mentioned in the Schedule are amended to the extent indicated in the third column of the Schedule.
+
+# Fees
+
+111. (1) The Minister may, subject to section 113 and after consultation with the Regulator, prescribe fees to be paid by data subjects— (a) to responsible parties as referred to in section 23(1)(b)(ii); and $(b)$ to the Regulator as referred to in section 63(3).
+
+(2) Different fees may be prescribed in respect of different categories of responsible parties and data subjects referred to in subsection (1)(a) and (b), respectively.
+
+# Regulations
+
+112. (1) The Minister may, subject to section 113, make regulations relating to— (a) the establishment of the Regulator; and (b) fees referred to in section 111(1). ) The Regulator may, subject to section 113, make regulations relating to— (a) the manner in terms of which a data subject may object to the processing of personal information as referred to in section 11(3); (b) the manner in which a data subject may submit a request to a responsible party 10 as referred to in section 24(1); (c) the processing of health information by certain responsible parties as referred to in section 32(6); (d) the responsibilities of information officers as referred to in section $55(1)(e)$ ; (e) the form in terms of which an application for a code of conduct must be 15 submitted to the Regulator as referred to in section $61(1)(b)$ ; (f) the manner and form within which the data subject’s consent must be requested as referred to in section 69(2) (g) the manner and form in terms of which a complaint must be submitted in terms of section 74; 20 (h) the Regulator acting as conciliator in relation to any interference with the protection of personal information as referred to in section $76(1)(b)$ ; (i) the notification of the parties concerned of an investigation to be conducted as referred to in section 79; $(j)$ the settlement of complaints as referred to in section 80; 25 $(k)$ the manner in which an assessment of the processing of personal information will be made as referred to in section 89(1); $(l)$ the manner in terms of which the parties concerned must be informed of the developments during and result of an investigation as referred to in section 94; and 30 (m) matters incidental to the imposition of administrative fines as referred to in section 109.
+
+# Procedure for making regulations
+
+113. (1) The Minister, before making or amending any regulations referred to in section 112(1), must publish a notice in the Gazette— 35
+
+(a) setting out that draft regulations have been developed;
+$(b)$ specifying where a copy of the draft regulations may be obtained; and
+(c) inviting written comments to be submitted on the proposed regulations within a specified period.
+
+(2) After complying with subsection (1) and after consultation with the Regulator in 40 respect of the draft regulations referred to in section 112, the Minister may—
+
+(a) amend the draft regulations; and $(b)$ subject to subsection (5), publish the regulations in final form in the Gazette.
+
+(3) The Regulator, before making or amending any regulations referred to in section 112(2), must publish a notice in the Gazette— 45
+
+(a) setting out that draft regulations have been developed;
+(b) specifying where a copy of the draft regulations may be obtained; and
+(c) inviting written comments to be submitted on the proposed regulations within a specified period.
+
+(4) After complying with subsection (3), the Regulator may— (a) amend the draft regulations; and
+
+106
+
+(b) subject to subsection (5), publish the regulations in final form in the Gazette. (5) (a) The Minister or the Regulator, as the case may be, must, within 30 days before publication of the regulations in the Gazette, as referred to in subsection (2)(b) or $(4)(b)$ , table them in Parliament.
+
+(b) Subsection (1) or (3) does not apply in respect of any amendment of the 5 regulations as a result of the process referred to in paragraph (a).
+
+# Transitional arrangements
+
+114. (1) All processing of personal information must within one year after the commencement of this section be made to conform to this Act. (2) The period of one year referred to in subsection (1) may be extended by the Minister, on request or of his or her own accord and after consultation with the Regulator, by notice in the Gazette in respect of different class or classes of information and bodies by an additional period which period may not exceed three years. (3) Section 58(2) does not apply to processing referred to in section 57, which is taking place on the date of commencement of this Act, until the Regulator determines 15 otherwise by notice in Gazette. (4) The South African Human Rights Commission must, in consultation with the Information Regulator, finalise or conclude its functions referred to in sections 83 and 84 of the Promotion of Access to Information Act, as soon as reasonably possible after the amendment of those sections in terms of this Act.
+
+# Short title and commencement
+
+115. (1) This Act is called the Protection of Personal Information Act, 2013, and
+commences on a date determined by the President by proclamation in the Gazette. (2) Different dates of commencement may be determined in respect of different
+provisions of this Act or in respect of different class or classes of information and bodies. 25
+
+108
+
+# SCHEDULE
+
+# LAWS AMENDED BY SECTION 110
+
+
No. and year of law Act 23 of 1994
Short title Public Protector Act,
Extent of repeal or amendment
1994
1. The amendment of section 6 by the- (a) substitution for paragraph (b) of subsection (4) of the following paragraph: “(b) to endeavour, in his or her sole discretion, to resolve any dispute or rectify any act or omission by- (i) mediation, conciliation or negotiation; (ii) advising, where necessary, any complainant regarding appropriate remedies; or (ii) any other means that may be ex- pedient in the circumstances; and"; (b) substitution for paragraph (c) of subsection (4) of the following paragraph: “(c) at a time prior to, during or after an investigation- (i) if he or she is of the opinion that the facts disclose the commission of an offence by any person, to bring the matter to the notice of the relevant authority; and charged with prosecutions; or (ii) if he or she deems it advisable, to refer any matter which has a bearing on an investigation, to the appropriate public body or authority; and affected by it or to make an appropriate recommendation regarding the redress of the prejudice resulting therefrom or make any other appropriate recommendation he or she deems expedient to the affected public body or authority[; and]."; and (c) deletion of paragraph (d) of subsection (4).
Act 2 of 2000
Promotion of Access to Information Act, 2000
1. The amendment of section 1 by the- (a) insertion, after the definition of “application" of the following definition: “biometrics' means a technique of personal identification that is based on physical, physiological or behavioural characterisation including blood typing, fingerprinting, DNA analysis, retinal scanning and voice recogni- tion;”;
+
+110
+
+
+
No. and year of law
Short title
Extent of repeal or amendment
(b) omission of the definition of “Human Rights Commission"; (c) substitution for the definition of “personal information" of the following definition: “‘personal information' means information relating to an identifiable natural person, including, but not limited to- (a) information relating to the race, gender, sex, pregnancy, marital status, national, ethnic or social origin, colour, sexual orientation, age, physical or mental health, well-being, disability, religion, conscience, belief, culture, language and birth of the person; (b) information relating to the education or the medical, financial, criminal or employment history of the person; (c) any identifying number, symbol, email address, physical address, telephone number, location information, online identifier or other particular assigned to the person; (d) the biometric information of the person; (e) the personal opinions, views or preferences of the person; (f) correspondence sent by the person that is implicitly or explicitly of a private or confidential nature or further correspondence that would reveal the contents of the original correspondence; (g)the views or opinions of another individual about the person; and (h) the name of the person if it appears with other personal information relating to the person or if the disclosure of the name itself would reveal information about the person, but excludes information about an individual who has been dead for
+
+112
+
+
+
No. and year of law
Short title
Extent of repeal or amendment
2.The amendment of section 10 by the substitution of the following section: “10.(1) The [Human Rights Commission] Information Regulator must[, within three years after the commencement of this section, compile in each official language a] update and make available the existing guide that has been compiled by the South African Human Rights Commission containing such information, in an easily comprehen- sible form and manner, as may reasonably be required by a person who wishes to exercise any right contemplated in this Act and the Protection of Personal Information Act, 2013. (2) The guide must, without limiting the generality of subsection (1), include a description of- (a) the objects of this Act and the Protection of Personal Information Act, 2013; [(b) the postal and street address phone and fax number and, if available, electronic mail address of- (i) the information officer of every public body; and (ii) every deputy information officer of every public body designated in terms of section 17(1); (c) such particulars of every private body as are practicable; (d)](b) the manner and form of a request for- (i) access to a record of a public body contemplated in section 11; and (ii) access to a record of a private body contemplated in section 50; [(e)](c)the assistance available from the information officer of a public body in terms of this Act and the Protection of Personal Informa- tion Act, 2013; [(f)](d) the assistance available from the [Human Rights Commission] Information Regulator in terms of this Act and the Protection of Personal Information Act, 2013; [(g)](e] all remedies in law available regarding an act or failure to act in respect of a right or duty conferred or imposed by this Act and the Protection of Personal Information Act, 2013, including the manner of lodging- (i) an internal appeal; [and] (ii) a complaint to the Information Regulator; and
+
+114
+
+
+
No. and year of law
Short title
Extent of repeal or amendment
(iii) an application with a court against a decision by the information officer of a public body, a decision on internal appeal, a decision by the Information Regulator or a decision of the head of a private body; [(h)](f) the provisions of sections 14 and 51 requiring a public body and private body, respectively, to compile a manual, and how to obtain access to a manual; [(i)](g) the provisions of sections 15 and 52 providing for the voluntary disclosure of categories of records by a public body and private body, respectively; [()](h) the notices issued in terms of sections 22 and 54 regarding fees to be paid in relation to requests for access; and [(k)](i) the regulations made in terms of section 92. (3) The [Human Rights Commission] Information Regulator must, if necessary, update and publish the guide at intervals of not more than two years. (4) The guide must be made available as prescribed.". 3. The amendment of section 11 by the substitution for subsection (2) of the following subsection: “(2) A request contemplated in subsection (1) [includes] excludes a request for access to a record containing personal information about the requester.". 4. The amendment of section 14 by the- (a) substitution for subsection (1) for the following subsection: “(1) [Within six months after the commencement of this section or the coming into existence of a public body, the] The information officer of [the] a public body [concerned] must [compile] in at least three official languages make available, as referred to in subsection (3), a manual containing- (a)in general i a description of its structure and functions; [(b)](ii) the postal and street address, phone and fax number and, if available, electronic mail address of the information officer of the body and of every deputy information
+
+116
+
+
No. and year of law
Short title
Extent of repeal or amendment
(ii) a description of all remedies available in respect of an act or a failure to act by the body;
and (iv) such other information as may be prescribed; (b)insofar as this Act is concerned- (i) a description of the guide referred to in section 10, if available, and how to obtain access to it;
[(d)](ii) sufficient detail to facilitate a request for access to a record of the body, a description of the subjects on which the body holds records and the categories of records held on each subject;
[(e)](ii) the latest notice, in terms of section 15(2), if any, regarding the categories of records of the body which are available without a person having to request access in terms of this Act;
[(f)](iv) a description of the services
available to members of the public from the body and how to gain access to those services; and [(g)](v) a description of any arrangement or provision for a person (other than a public body referred to in paragraph (a) or (b)(i) of the definition of "public body" in section 1) by consultation, making representations or otherwise, to participate in or influence- [(i)](aa) the formulation of policy; or [(ii)](bb) the exercise of powers or perfor- mance of duties, by the body; (c) insofar as the Protection of Personal Information Act, 2013, is concerned- (i) the purpose of the processing; (ii) a description of the categories of data subjects and of the
+
+118
+
+
+
No. and year of law
Short title
Extent of repeal or amendment
available- following words: of—”;
(iii) the recipients or categories of recipients to whom the personal information may be supplied; (iv) planned transborder flows of personal information; and (v)a general description allowing a preliminary assessment of the suitability of the information security measures to be implemented by the responsible party to ensure the confidential- ity, integrity and availability of the information which is to be processed. [(h) a description of all remedies available in respect of an act or a failure to act by the body; and. (i) such other information as may be prescribed.]"; and (b) by the substitution for subsection (3) of the following subsection: “(3) [Each manual must be made available as prescribed] The manual referred to in subsection (1), or the updated version thereof as referred to in subsection (2) must be made (a) on the web site, if any, of the public body; (b) at the head office of the public body for public inspection during normal business hours; (c) to any person upon request and upon the payment of a reasonable amount; and (d) to the Information Regulator upon request.". 5.The amendment of section 15 by the (a) substitution for the words preceding paragraph (a) of subsection (1) of the “(1) The information officer of a public body, referred to in paragraph (a) or (b)(i) of the definition of ‘public body' in section 1, must[, on a periodic basis not less frequently than once a year, submit to the Minister] make available in the prescribed manner a description (b) deletion of subsection (2); and (c)substitution of subsection (3) of the following subsection: “(3) The only fee payable (if any) for access to a record [included in a notice in terms of subsection (2)] referred to in subsection (1) is a prescribed fee for reproduction.".
+
+120
+
+
+
No. and year of law
Short title
Extent of repeal or amendment
6. The amendment of section 21 by the substitution of paragraphs (a) and (b) of the following paragraphs: “(a) the periods for lodging an internal appeal, a complaint to the Information Regulator, an application with a court or an appeal against a decision of that court have expired; or (b) that internal appeal, complaint to the Information Regulator, application or appeal against a decision of that court or other legal proceedings in connection with the request has been finally determined,". 7. The amendment of section 22 by the substitution for- (a) subsection (1) of the following subsection: “(1) The information officer of a public body to whom a request for access is made, must by notice require the requester[, other than a personal requester,] to pay the prescribed request fee (if any), before further processing the request."; (b) subsection (2) of the following subsection: “(2) If— (a) the search for a record of a public body in respect of which a request for access by a requester[, other than a personal requester,] has been made; and (b) the preparation of the record for
+
+122
+
+
No. and year of law
Short title
Extent of repeal or amendment
application, as the case may be.".
(b) that the requester may lodge an internal appeal, a complaint to the Information Regulator or an application with a court, as the case may be, against the tender or payment of the request fee in terms of subsection (1), or the tender or payment of a deposit in terms of subsection (2), as the case may be; and (c) the procedure (including the period) for lodging the internal appeal, complaint to the Information Regulator or application, as the case may.". 8. The amendment of section 25 by the- (a) substitution for paragraph (c) of subsection (2) of the following paragraph: “(c) that the requester may lodge an internal appeal, a complaint to the Information Regulator or an application with a court, as the case may be, against the access fee to be paid or the form of access granted, and the procedure (including the period) for lodging the internal appeal, complaint to the Information Regulator or application, as the case may be."; and (b) substitution for paragraph (c) of subsection (3) of the following paragraph: “(c) state that the requester may lodge an internal appeal, complaint to the Information Regulator or an application with a court, as the case may be, against the refusal of the request, and the procedure (including the period) for lodging the internal appeal, complaint to the Information Regulator or application, as the case may be.". 9. The amendment of section 26 by the substitution for paragraph (c) of subsection (3) of the following paragraph: “(c) that the requester may lodge an internal appeal, complaint to the Information Regulator or an application with a court, as the case may be, against the extension, and the procedure (including the period) for lodging the internal appeal, complaint to the Information Regulator or
+
+124
+
+
+
No. and year of law
Short title
Extent of repeal or amendment
10. The amendment of section 29 by the substitution of subsection (9) for the following subsection: “(9) If an internal appeal, complaint to the Information Regulator or an application to a court, as the case may be, is lodged against the granting of a request for access to a record, access to the record may be given only when the decision to grant the request is finally confirmed." 11. The amendment of section 49 by the- (a) substitution of paragraphs (b) and (c) of subsection (3)for the following paragraphs: “(b) that the third party may lodge an internal appeal, complaint to the Information Regulator or an application, as the case may be, against the decision within 30 days after notice is given, and the procedure for lodging the internal appeal, complaint to the Information Regulator or application, as the case may be; and (c) that the requester will be given access to the record after the expiry of the applicable period contemplated in paragraph (b), unless such internal appeal, complaint to the Information Regulator or application with a court is lodged within that period."; and (b) substitution of subsection (4) of the following subsection: “(4) If the information officer of a public body decides in terms of subsection (1) to grant the request for access concerned, he or she must give the requester access to the record concerned after the expiry of 30 days after notice is given in terms of subsection (1)(b), unless an internal appeal, complaint to the Information Regulator or an application with a court, as the case may be,is lodged against the decision within that period.". 12. The amendment of section 51 by- (a) by the substitution of subsection (1)for the following subsection: “(1) [Within six months after the commencement of this section or the coming into existence of the private body concerned, thel The head of a private body must [compile] make a manual available in terms of subsection (3) containing- (a) in general- (i) the postal and street address, phone and fax number and, if available, electronic mail address of the head of the body; and (ii) such other information as may be prescribed;
+
+126
+
+
No. and year of law
Short title
Extent of repeal or amendment
[(b)] (i) a description of the guide referred to in section 10, if available, and how to obtain access to it; of section 52(2), if any, regarding the categories of record of the body which are available without a person having to request access in terms of this Act; [(d)](ii) a description of the records
[(c)] (ii) the latest notice in terms
of the body which are available in accordance (c) insofar as the Protection of Personal InformationAct,2013,is concerned- (i) the purpose of the processing;
with any other legislation; and [(e)](iv) sufficient detail to facilitate a request for access to a record of the body, a description of the subjects on which the body holds records and the categories of records held on each subject; [and]
(ii) a description of the categories of
data subjects and of the information or categories of information relating thereto; (iii) the recipients or categories of recipients to whom the personal information may be supplied; (iv)planned transborder flows of personal information; and (v)a general description allowing a preliminary assessment of the suitability of the information security measures to be implemented by the responsible party to ensure the confidential- ity, integrity and availability of the information which is to be processed.". [(f) in general such other information as may be prescribed.]"; and (b) by the substitution for subsection (3) of the following subsection: “(3) [Each manual must be made available as prescribed] The manual referred to in subsection (1), or the updated version thereof as referred to in subsection (2) must be made available-
+
+128
+
+
+
No. and year of law Short title Extent of repeal or amendment (a) on the web site, if any, of the private body;
(b) at the principal place of business of the private body for public inspection during normal business hours; (c) to any person upon request and upon the payment of a reasonable amount; and (d) to the Information Regulator upon request." 13. The amendment of section 52 by the- (a) substitution for the words preceding paragraph (a) of subsection (1) of the following words: “(1) The head of a private body may, on a voluntary [and periodic] basis, [submit to the Minister] make available in the prescribed manner a description of—” (b) deletion of subsection (2); and (c) substitution of subsection (3) of the following subsection: “(3) The only fee (if any) for access to a record [included in a notice in terms of subsection (2)] referred to in subsection (1) is a prescribed fee for reproduction.". 14. The amendment of section 54 by the substitution for- (a) subsection (1) of the following subsection: “(1) The head of a private body to whom a request for access is made must by notice require the requester[, other than a personal requester,] to pay the prescribed request fee (if any), before further processing the request."; (b) subsection (2) of the following subsection: “(2) If- (a) the search for a record of a private body in respect of which a request for access by a requester [, other than a personal
+
+130
+
+
+
No. and year of law
Short title
150 Extent of repeal or amendment (c) paragraphs (b) and (c) of subsection (3)
of the following paragraphs: “(b) that the requester may lodge a complaint to the Information Regulator or an application with a court against the tender or payment of the request fee in terms of subsection (1), or the tender or payment of a deposit in terms of subsection (2), as the case may be; and (c) the procedure (including the period) for lodging the complaint to the Information Regulator or the application.". 15. The amendment of section 56 by the- (a) substitution for paragraph (c) of subsection (2)of thefollowing paragraph between: “(c) that the requester may lodge a complaint to the Information Regulator or an application with a court against the access fee to be paid or the form of access granted, and the procedure, including the period allowed, for lodging a complaint to the Information Regulator or the application."; and (b) substitution for paragraph (c) of subsection (3)of the following paragraph: “(c) state that the requester may lodge a complaint to the Information Regulator an application with a court against the refusal of the request, and the procedure (including the period)for lodging a complaint to the Information Regulator or the application.". 16.The amendment of section 57 by the substitution for paragraph (c) of subsection (3) of the following paragraph: “(c) that the requester may lodge a complaint to the Information Regulator or an application with a court against the extension, and the procedure (including the period) for lodging the application.". 17. The amendment of section 73 by the- (a) substitution for paragraphs (b) and (c) of subsection (3)of the following paragraphs: “(b) that the third party may lodge a complaint to the Information Regulator or an application with a court against the decision of the head within 30 days after notice is given, and the procedure for lodging the complaint to the
+
+132
+
+
No. and year of law
Short title
Extent of repeal or amendment
(c) that the requester will be given access to the record after the expiry of the applicable period contemplated in paragraph (b), unless a complaint to the Information Regulator or an application with a court is lodged within that period."; and (b) substitution of subsection (4) of the following subsection: “(4) If the head of the private body decides in terms of subsection (1) to grant the request for access concerned, he or she must give the requester access to the record concerned after the expiry of 30 days after notice is given in terms of subsection (1)(b), unless a complaint to the Information Regulator or an application with a court is lodged against the decision within that period.". 18. The amendment of Chapter 1 of Part 4 by the insertion after section 77 of the following sections: “CHAPTER 1A COMPLAINTS TO REGULATOR Complaints 77A.(1)A requester or third party referred to in section 74 may only submit a complaint to the Information Regulator in terms of this section after that requester or third party has exhausted the internal appeal procedure against a decision of the information officer of a public body provided for in section 74. (2)Arequester (a) that has been unsuccessful in an internal appeal to the relevant authority of a public body; (b) aggrieved by a decision of the relevant authority of a public body to disallow the late lodging of an internal appeal in terms of section 75(2); (c) aggrieved by a decision of the information officer of a public body referred to in paragraph (b) of the definition of 'public body' in section 1- (i) to refuse a request for access; or (ii) taken in terms of section 22, 26(1) or 29(3); or (d) aggrieved by a decision of the head of a private body- (i) to refuse a request for access; or (ii) taken in terms of section 54, 57(1) or 60, may within 180 days of the decision, submit a complaint, alleging that the decision was not in compliance with this
+
+134
+
+
No. and year of law Short title
Extent of repeal or amendment (3)A third party- (a) that has been unsuccessful in an internal appeal to the relevant authority of a public body; (b) aggrieved by a decision of the information officer of a public body referred to in paragraph (b) of the definition of ‘public body' in section 1 to grant a request for access; or (c) aggrieved by a decision of the head of a private body in relation to a request for access to a record of that body, may within 180 days of the decision, submit a complaint, alleging that the decision was not in compliance with this Act, to the Information Regulator in the prescribed manner and form for appropriate relief. Modes of complaints to Regulator 77B.(1) A complaint to the Information Regulator must be made in writing. (2) The Information Regulator must give such reasonable assistance as is necessary in the circumstances to enable a person, who wishes to make a complaint to the Information Regulator, to put the complaint in writing. Action on receipt of complaint 77C.(1) The Information Regulator, after receipt of a complaint made in terms of section 77A,must— (a) investigate the complaint in the prescribed manner; (b) refer the complaint to the Enforcement Committee established in terms of section 5O of the Protection of Personal Information Act, 2013; or (c) decide, in accordance with section 77D, to take no action on the complaint or, as the case may be, require no further action in respect of the complaint. (2) During the investigation the Information Regulator may- (a) act, where appropriate, as conciliator in
+
+136
+
+
No. and year of law
Short title
Extent of repeal or amendment
Regulator may decide to take no action on complaint
77D. (1) The Information Regulator, after investigating a complaint received in terms of section 77A, may decide to take no action or, as the case may be, require no further action in respect of the complaint if,
in the Information Regulator's opinion-
(a) the complaint has not been submitted within the period referred to in section 77A(2) and there are no reasonable
grounds to condone the late submission;
(b) the complaint is frivolous or vexatious
or is not made in good faith; or
(c)it appears to the Information Regulator
that, having regard to all the circum-
unnecessary or inappropriate.
stances of the case, any further action is
(2) In any case where the Information
Regulator decides to take no action, or no
further action, on a complaint, the
Information Regulator must inform the
for it.
complainant of that decision and the reasons
Pre-investigation proceedings of Regulator
77E. Before proceeding to investigate any
matter in terms of this Chapter, the
Information Regulator must, in the
prescribed manner, inform-
(a) the complainant of the Information
Regulator's intention to conduct the
investigation; and
(b) the information officer of the public
body or the head of the private body, as
the case may be, to whom the complaint relates of the-
(i) details of the complaint; and
(ii) right of the information officer or
the head to submit to the Informa-
tion Regulator, within a reasonable
period, a written response in relation to the complaint.
Settlement of complaints
77F. If it appears from a complaint, or
any written response made in relation to a
complaint under section 77E(b)(ii), that it
may be possible to secure a settlement
between the parties concerned, the
Information Regulator may, without
investigating the complaint or, as the case
may be, investigating the complaint further,
in the prescribed manner, use its best
endeavours to secure such a settlement.
+
+138
+
+
No. and year of law
Short title
Extent of repeal or amendment
Investigation proceedings of Regulator
77G.(1) For the purposes of the
investigation of a complaint the Information
Regulator has powers similar to those of the
High Court in terms of section 80 relating to the disclosure of records to it and
non-disclosure of records by it.
(2) Section 81 of the Protection of
Personal Information Act, 2013, applies to
the investigation of complaints in terms of this Chapter.
Assessment
77H. (1) The Information Regulator, on its own initiative, or at the request by or on
behalf of an information officer or head of a
private body or any other person may make an assessment in the manner prescribed of
whether a public or private body generally
complies with the provisions of this Act
insofar as its policies and implementation procedures are concerned.
(2) The Information Regulator must make
the assessment if it appears to be appropri- ate, unless, where the assessment is made on
request, the Information Regulator has not
been supplied with such information as it
may reasonably require in order to- (a) satisfy itself as to the identity of the
person making the request; and (b) enable it to identify the private or public
body concerned.
(3) The matters to which the Information
Regulator may have regard in determining
whether it is appropriate to make an
assessment include-
(a) the extent to which the request appears
to it to raise a matter of substance;
(b) determining that the request is not
frivolous or vexatious; and
(c) whether or not the person making the
request is entitled to make an application
in terms of this Act in respect of the
information in question.
(4) If the Information Regulator has
received a request under this section it must
notify the person referred to in subsection
(1)-
(a) whether it has made an assessment as a
result of the request; and
+
+140
+
+
No. and year of law
Short title
Extent of repeal or amendment
Information Notice 771.(1) For the purposes of the investigation of a complaint the Information Regulator may serve the information officer or head of a private body with an information notice requiring said party to furnish the Information Regulator, within a specified period, in a form specified in the notice, with the information specified in the notice.
+
+142
+
+
No. and year of law
Short title
Extent of repeal or amendment
procedure against a decision of the information officer of a public body provided for in section 74] in the following circumstances: (a) After that requester or third party has (b) after that requester or third party has (a) that has been unsuccessful in an internal (b) aggrieved by a decision of the relevant
Non-compliance with Enforcement Notice 77K. An information officer of a public body or head of a private body who refuses
to comply with an enforcement notice referred to insection 77J, is guilty of an
offence and liable upon conviction to fine or to imprisonment for a period not exceeding three years or to both such a fine and such
imprisonment.". 19.The amendment of section 78 by the substitution for the following section:
“Applications regarding decisions of information officers or relevant authori- ties of public bodies or heads of private bodies or Regulator 78.(1) A requester or third party [referred to in section 74] may only apply to a court for appropriate relief in terms of section 82 [after that requester or third party has exhausted the internal appeal
+
+144
+
+
No. and year of law
Short title
Extent of repeal or amendment
(3) A third party- (a) that has been unsuccessful in an internal appeal to the relevant authority of a public body; (b) aggrieved by a decision of the information officer of a public body referred to in paragraph (b) of the definition of ‘public body' in section 1 to grant a request for access; [or] (c) aggrieved by a decision of the head of a private body in relation to a request for access to a record of that body[]; or (d) that is aggrieved by any decision of the Information Regulator, may, by way of an application, within [30] 180 days apply to a court for appropriate relief in terms of section 82. (4) An information officer or relevant authority of a public body or the head of a private body, as the case may be, aggrieved by a decision of the Information Regulator in terms of section 77E(2)(b) or (c) may, by way of an application, within 180 days apply to a court for appropriate relief in terms of section 82." 20. The amendment of the heading of Part
+
+146
+
+
+
No. and year of law Act 25 of 2002
Short title
Extent of repeal or amendment
Electronic Communi- cations and Transactions Act, 2002
1.The amendment of section 1 by the substitution for the definition of “personal information" of the following definition: ‘personal information' means information relating to an identifiable natural person, including, but not limited to- (a) information relating to the race, gender, sex, pregnancy, marital status, national, ethnic or social origin, colour, sexual orientation, age, physical or mental health, well-being, disability, religion, conscience, belief, culture, language and birth of the person; (b) information relating to the education or the medical, financial, criminal or employment history of the person; (c) any identifying number, symbol, email address, physical address, telephone number, location information, online identifier or other particular assigned to the person; (d) the biometric information of the person; (e) the personal opinions, views or preferences of the person; (f) correspondence sent by the person that is implicitly or explicitly of a private or confidential nature or further correspondence that would reveal the contents of the original correspon- dence; (g)the views or opinions of another individual about the person; and
“‘prohibited conduct' means any act or omission in contravention of the Act, other than an act or omission as contemplated in section 55(2)(b) or that constitutes an offence under this Act, by- (a) an unregistered person who is required to be registered to engage in such an act; or
+
+148
+
+
+
No. and year of law
Short title
Extent of repeal or amendment
2.The amendment of section 55 by the substitution for subsection (2) of the following subsection: “(2)(a) Before issuing a notice in terms of subsection (1)(a) to a regulated financial institution, the National Credit Regulator must consult with the regulatory authority that issued a licence to that regulated financial institution. (b) Sections 68, 70(1), (2)(b) to (g) and (i), (3) and (4) and 72(1),(3) and (5) will be subject to the compliance procedures set out in Chapters 10 and 11 of the Protection of Personal Information Act, 2013.”. 3. The amendment of section 68 by the deletion of subsection (2). 4. The amendment of section 136 by the substitution for subsection (1) of the following subsection: “(1) Any person may, subject to section 55(2)(b), submit a complaint concerning an alleged contravention of this Act to the National Credit Regulator in the prescribed manner and form."
\ No newline at end of file
diff --git a/dataset/data/docs2/republic-of-south-africa_Cybercrimes Act of South Africa_Act16-2020_commence.md b/dataset/data/docs2/republic-of-south-africa_Cybercrimes Act of South Africa_Act16-2020_commence.md
new file mode 100644
index 0000000000000000000000000000000000000000..e5760e6189e89287ad077b333ba632c19d8d819d
--- /dev/null
+++ b/dataset/data/docs2/republic-of-south-africa_Cybercrimes Act of South Africa_Act16-2020_commence.md
@@ -0,0 +1,3522 @@
+
+
+# Government Gazette REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
+
+Vol. 672
+
+Cape Town Kaapstad
+
+1 June 2021
+
+No. 44651
+
+# The Presidency
+
+# Die Presidensie
+
+# No. 324
+
+1 June 2021
+
+No. 324
+
+1 Junie 2021
+
+It is hereby notified that the President has assented to the following Act, which is hereby published for general information:—
+
+Hierby word bekend gemaak dat die President sy goedkeuring geheg het aan die onderstaande Wet wat hierby ter algemene inligting gepubliseer word:—
+
+Act No. 19 of 2020: Cybercrimes Act, 2020
+
+Wet No. 19 van 2020: Wet op Kubermisdade, 2020
+
+
+
+2
+
+# GENERAL EXPLANATORY NOTE:
+
+] Words in bold type in square brackets indicate omissions from existing enactments. Words underlined with a solid line indicate insertions in existing enactments.
+
+(English text signed by the President) (Assented to 26 May 2021)
+
+# ACT
+
+To create offences which have a bearing on cybercrime; to criminalise the disclosure of data messages which are harmful and to provide for interim protection orders; to further regulate jurisdiction in respect of cybercrimes; to further regulate the powers to investigate cybercrimes; to further regulate aspects relating to mutual assistance in respect of the investigation of cybercrimes; to provide for the establishment of a designated Point of Contact; to further provide for the proof of certain facts by affidavit; to impose obligations to report cybercrimes; to provide for capacity building; to provide that the Executive may enter into agreements with foreign States to promote measures aimed at the detection, prevention, mitigation and investigation of cybercrimes; to delete and amend provisions of certain laws; and to provide for matters connected therewith.
+
+# ARRANGEMENT OF SECTIONS
+
+Sections
+
+# CHAPTER 1
+
+5
+
+# DEFINITIONS AND INTERPRETATION
+
+1. Definitions and interpretation
+
+# CHAPTER 2
+
+# CYBERCRIMES, MALICIOUS COMMUNICATIONS, SENTENCING AND ORDERS TO PROTECT COMPLAINANTS FROM HARMFUL EFFECT 10 OF MALICIOUS COMMUNICATIONS
+
+PART I: CYBERCRIMES
+
+2. Unlawful access
+3. Unlawful interception of data
+4. Unlawful acts in respect of software or hardware tool
+5. Unlawful interference with data or computer program
+
+3
+
+# ALGEMENE VERDUIDELIKENDE NOTA:
+
+] Woorde in vet druk tussen vierkantige hake dui skrappings uit bestaande verordeninge aan. Woorde met volstreep daaronder, dui invoegings in bestaande verordeninge aan.
+
+(Engelse teks deur die President geteken) (Goedgekeur op 26 Mei 2021)
+
+# WET
+
+Ten einde misdrywe te skep wat op kubermisdaad betrekking het; om die openbaarmaking van skadelike databoodskappe te kriminaliseer en om vir tussentydse beskermingsbevele voorsiening te maak; om jurisdiksie ten opsigte van kubermisdade verder te reël; om die bevoegdhede om kubermisdade te ondersoek, verder te reël; om aspekte aangaande onderlinge bystand ten opsigte van die ondersoek van kubermisdaad verder te reël; om voorsiening te maak vir die instelling van ’n aangewese Kontakpunt; om verder voorsiening te maak vir die bewys van sekere feite deur beëdigde verklaring; om verpligtinge op te $\mathbf{l\hat{e}_{\theta}}\mathbf{om}$ kubermisdade aan te meld; om voorsiening te maak vir kapasiteitsbou; om te bepaal dat die Uitvoerende Gesag ooreenkomste met vreemde State kan aangaan om maatreëls te bevorder wat op die bespeuring, voorkoming, mitigering en ondersoek van kubermisdade gemik is; om bepalings van sekere wette te skrap en te wysig; en om voorsiening te maak vir aangeleenthede wat daarmee in verband staan.
+
+# INDELING VAN ARTIKELS
+
+Artikels
+
+# HOOFSTUK 1
+
+# WOORDOMSKRYWING EN UITLEG
+
+1. Woordomskrywing en uitleg
+
+# HOOFSTUK 2
+
+# KUBERMISDADE, KWAADWILLIGE KOMMUNIKASIES,VONNISOPLEGGING EN BEVELE TER BESKERMING VAN KLAERS TEENSKADELIKE UITWERKING VAN KWAADWILLIGE KOMMUNIKASIES
+
+DEEL I: KUBERMISDADE
+
+10
+
+2. Wederregtelike toegang
+3. Wederregtelike onderskepping van data
+4. Wederregtelike handelinge ten opsigte van sagteware- of hardewarenutsmiddel
+5. Wederregtelike inmenging met data of rekenaarprogram
+
+This gazette is also available free online at www.gpwonline.co.za
+
+4
+
+6. Unlawful interference with a computer data storage medium or computer system
+7. Unlawful acquisition, possession, provision, receipt or use of password, access code or similar data or device
+8. Cyber fraud
+9. Cyber forgery and uttering
+10. Cyber extortion
+11. Aggravated offences
+12. Theft of incorporeal property
+
+# PART II: MALICIOUS COMMUNICATIONS
+
+13. Definitions
+14. Data message which incites damage to property or violence
+15. Data message which threatens persons with damage to property or violence
+16. Disclosure of data message of intimate image
+
+# PART III: ATTEMPTING, CONSPIRING, AIDING, ABETTING, INDUCING, 15 INCITING, INSTIGATING, INSTRUCTING, COMMANDING OR PROCURING TO COMMIT OFFENCE
+
+17. Attempting, conspiring, aiding, abetting, inducing, inciting, instigating, instructing, commanding or procuring to commit offence
+
+# PART IV: COMPETENT VERDICTS
+
+20
+
+18. Competent verdicts
+
+PART V: SENTENCING
+
+19. Sentencing
+
+# PART VI: ORDERS TO PROTECT COMPLAINANTS FROM HARMFUL EFFECT OF MALICIOUS COMMUNICATIONS
+
+25
+
+20. Order to protect complainant pending finalisation of criminal proceedings
+21. Electronic communications service provider to furnish particulars to court
+22. Orders on finalisation of criminal proceedings
+23. Penalties
+
+# CHAPTER 3
+
+30
+
+# JURISDICTION
+
+24. Jurisdiction
+
+# CHAPTER 4
+
+# POWERS TO INVESTIGATE, SEARCH, ACCESS OR SEIZE
+
+25. Definitions 35
+26. Standard Operating Procedures
+27. Application of Criminal Procedure Act, 1977
+28. Search for, access to, or seizure of certain articles
+29. Article to be searched for, accessed or seized under search warrant
+30. Oral application for search warrant or amendment of warrant 40
+31. Search for, access to, or seizure of article without search warrant with consent
+of person who has lawful authority to consent
+
+Wet op Kubermisdade, 2020
+
+5
+
+6. Wederregtelike inmenging met ’n rekenaardatabergingsmedium of rekenaarstelsel
+7. Wederregtelike verkryging, besit, voorsiening, ontvangs of gebruik van wagwoord, toegangskode of soortgelyke data of toestel
+8. Kuberbedrog
+9. Kubervervalsing en- uitgifte
+10. Kuberafpersing
+11. Verswarende misdrywe
+12. Diefstal van onliggaamlike eiendom
+
+# DEEL II: KWAADWILLIGE KOMMUNIKASIES
+
+13. Woordomskrywing
+14. Databoodskap wat beskadiging van eiendom of geweld aanhits
+15. Databoodskap wat persone met beskadiging van eiendom of geweld dreig
+16. Openbaarmaking van databoodskap van intieme beeld
+
+# DEEL III: POGING, SAMESWERING, HULPVERLENING, AANSTIGTING, 15 UITLOKKING, AANHITSING, AANMOEDIGING, AANRAAIING, BEVEL, RAADGEWING OF VERKRYGING OM MISDRYF TE PLEEG
+
+17. Poging, sameswering, hulpverlening, aanstigting, uitlokking, aanhitsing, aanmoediging, aanraaiing, bevel, raadgewing of verkryging om misdryf te pleeg 20
+
+# DEEL IV: GEOORLOOFDE UITSPRAKE
+
+18. Geoorloofde uitsprake
+
+DEEL V: VONNISOPLEGGING
+
+19. Vonnisoplegging
+
+# DEEL VI: BEVELE TER BESKERMING VAN KLAERS TEEN SKADELIKE 25 UITWERKING VAN KWAADWILLIGE KOMMUNIKASIES
+
+20. Bevel ter beskerming van klaer hangende afhandeling van strafregtelike verrigtinge Elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer moet besonderhede aan hof verskaf 30
+22. Bevele by afhandeling van strafregtelike verrigtinge
+23. Strawwe
+
+# HOOFSTUK 3
+
+# JURISDIKSIE
+
+24. Jurisdiksie
+
+35
+
+# HOOFSTUK 4
+
+# BEVOEGDHEDE VAN ONDERSOEK, DEURSOEKING, TOEGANG OFBESLAGLEGGING
+
+25. Woordomskrywing
+26. Standaardbedryfsprosedures 40
+27. Toepassing van bepalings van Strafproseswet, 1977
+28. Deursoeking vir, toegang tot, of beslaglegging op, sekere items Deursoeking vir, toegang tot of beslaglegging op item kragtens deursoekingslasbrief
+30. Mondelinge aansoek om deursoekingslasbrief of wysiging van lasbrief 45
+31. Deursoeking vir, toegang tot, of beslaglegging op item sonder deursoekingslasbrief met toestemming van persoon met wettige magtiging om toe te stem
+
+6
+
+32. Search for, access to, or seizure of article involved in the commission of an offence without search warrant
+33. Search for, access to, or seizure of article on arrest of person
+34. Assisting police official or investigator
+35. Obstructing or hindering police official or investigator and authority to 5 overcome resistance
+36. Powers conferred upon police official or investigator to be conducted in decent and orderly manner with due regard to rights of other persons
+37. Wrongful search, access or seizure and restriction on use of instrument, device, password or decryption key or information to gain access 10
+38. False information under oath or by way of affirmation
+39. Prohibition on disclosure of information
+40. Interception of indirect communication and obtaining of real-time communication-related information
+41. Expedited preservation of data direction 15
+42. Preservation of evidence direction
+43. Oral application for preservation of evidence direction
+44. Disclosure of data direction and search for, access to, and seizure of articles subject to preservation
+45. Obtaining and using publicly available data or receiving data from person who 20 is in possession of data
+
+# CHAPTER 5
+
+# MUTUAL ASSISTANCE
+
+46. Application of provisions of Chapter
+47. Spontaneous information 25
+48. Foreign requests for assistance and cooperation
+49. Complying with order of designated judge
+50. Informing foreign State of outcome of request for mutual assistance and
+expedited disclosure of traffic data
+51. Issuing of direction requesting mutual assistance from foreign State 30
+
+# CHAPTER 6
+
+# DESIGNATED POINT OF CONTACT
+
+52. Establishment and functions of designated Point of Contact
+
+# CHAPTER 7
+
+# EVIDENCE
+
+35
+
+53. Proof of certain facts by affidavit
+
+# CHAPTER 8
+
+# REPORTING OBLIGATIONS AND CAPACITY BUILDING
+
+54. Obligations of electronic communications service providers and financial institutions 40 55. Capacity to detect, prevent and investigate cybercrimes 56. National Director of Public Prosecutions must keep statistics of prosecutions
+
+Wet op Kubermisdade, 2020
+
+# 7
+
+32. Deursoeking vir, toegang tot, of beslaglegging op item betrokke in pleging van misdryf, sonder deursoekingslasbrief
+33. Deursoeking vir, toegang tot of beslaglegging op item by inhegtenisneming van persoon
+34. Bystand aan polisiebeampte of ondersoeker 5
+35. Dwarsboming of belemmering van polisiebeampte of ondersoeker en magtiging om teenstand te oorkom
+36. Bevoegdhede aan polisiebeampte of ondersoeker opgedra moet op behoorlike en ordelike wyse uitgevoer word met behoorlike inagneming van regte van ander persone 10
+37. Wederregtelike deursoeking, toegang of beslaglegging en beperking op gebruik van instrument, toestel, wagwoord of dekripteringsleutel of inligting om toegang te kry
+38. Vals inligting onder eed of deur plegtige verklaring
+39. Verbod op openbaarmaking van inligting 15
+40. Onderskepping van onregstreekse kommunikasie en verkryging van intydse kommunikasie-verwante inligting
+41. Lasgewing vir bespoedigde bewaring van data
+42. Lasgewing vir bewaring van getuienis
+43. Mondelinge aansoek om lasgewing vir bewaring van getuienis 20
+44. Lasgewing vir openbaarmaking van data en deursoeking vir, toegang tot en beslaglegging op items onderworpe aan bewaring
+45. Verkryging en gebruik van openbaar beskikbare data of ontvangs van data van persoon wat in besit is van data
+
+# HOOFSTUK 5
+
+25
+
+# ONDERLINGE BYSTAND
+
+46. Toepassing van bepalings van Hoofstuk
+47. Spontane inligting
+48. Buitelandse versoeke om bystand en samewerking
+49. Voldoening aan bevel van aangewese regter 30
+50. Verwittiging van vreemde Staat van uitslag van versoek om onderlinge bystand
+en bespoedigde openbaarmaking van verkeersdata
+51. Uitreiking van lasgewing om onderlinge bystand van vreemde Staat te versoek
+
+# HOOFSTUK 6
+
+# AANGEWESE KONTAKPUNT
+
+35
+
+52. Instelling en werksaamhede van aangewese Kontakpunt
+
+# HOOFSTUK 7
+
+# GETUIENIS
+
+53. Bewys van sekere feite deur beëdigde verklaring
+
+# HOOFSTUK 8
+
+40
+
+# RAPPORTERINGSVERPLIGTINGE EN KAPASITEITSBOU
+
+54. Verpligtinge van elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffers en finansiële instellings
+55. Kapasiteit om kubermisdade te bespeur, te voorkom en te ondersoek
+56. Nasionale Direkteur van Openbare Vervolgings moet statistieke van 45 vervolgings hou
+
+8
+
+# CHAPTER 9
+
+# GENERAL PROVISIONS
+
+57. National Executive may enter into agreements
+58. Repeal or amendment of laws
+59. Regulations
+60. Short title and commencement
+
+5
+
+# Schedule
+
+# CHAPTER 1
+
+# DEFINITIONS AND INTERPRETATION
+
+# Definitions and interpretation
+
+10
+
+1. (1) In this Act, unless the context indicates otherwise— ‘‘article’’ means any— (a) data; (b) computer program; (c) computer data storage medium; or (d) computer system, which—
+
+#
+
+(i) is concerned with, connected with or is, on reasonable grounds, believed to be concerned with or connected with the commission or suspected commission; 20
+(ii) may afford evidence of the commission or suspected commission; or
+(iii) is intended to be used or is, on reasonable grounds believed to be intended to be used in the commission or intended commission, of— (aa) an offence in terms of Part I and Part II of Chapter 2; 25 $(b b)$ any other offence in terms of the law of the Republic; or (cc) an offence in a foreign State that is substantially similar to an offence contemplated in Part I or Part II of Chapter 2 or another offence recognised in the Republic;
+
+‘‘computer’’ means any electronic programmable device used, whether by itself or as 30 part of a computer system or any other device or equipment, or any part thereof, to perform predetermined arithmetic, logical, routing, processing or storage operations in accordance with set instructions and includes any data, computer program or computer data storage medium that are related to, connected with or used with such a device; ‘‘computer data storage medium’’ means any device from which data or a computer 3 program is capable of being reproduced or on which data or a computer program is capable of being stored, by a computer system, irrespective of whether the device is physically attached to or connected with a computer system;
+
+‘‘computer program’’ means data representing instructions or statements that, when executed in a computer system, causes the computer system to perform a function; 40
+
+‘‘computer system’’ means—
+
+(a) one computer; or
+(b) two or more inter-connected or related computers, which allow these inter-connected or related computers to— (i) exchange data or any other function with each other; or 4 (ii) exchange data or any other function with another computer or a computer system;
+
+onstitution’’ means the Constitution of the Republic of South Africa, 1996;
+
+‘‘Criminal Procedure Act, 1977’’ means the Criminal Procedure Act, 1977 (Act No. 51 of 1977);
+
+‘‘Customs and Excise Act, 1964’’ means the Customs and Excise Act, 1964 (Act No.
+91 of 1964);
+
+‘‘Customs Control Act, 2014’’ means the Customs Control Act, 2014 (Act No. 31 of 2014);
+
+‘‘data’’ means electronic representations of information in any form;
+
+Wet op Kubermisdade, 2020
+
+9
+
+# HOOFSTUK 9
+
+# ALGEMENE BEPALINGS
+
+57. Nasionale Uitvoerende Gesag kan ooreenkomste aangaan
+58. Herroeping of wysiging van wette
+59. Regulasies
+60. Kort titel en inwerkingtreding
+
+5
+
+# Bylae
+
+# HOOFSTUK 1
+
+# WOORDOMSKRYWING EN UITLEG
+
+# Woordomskrywing en uitleg
+
+10
+
+1. (1) In hierdie Wet, tensy die samehang anders aandui, beteken— ‘‘aangewese Kontakpunt’’ die kantoor ingevolge artikel 52 ingestel of aangewys; ‘‘aangewese regter’’ ’n aangewese regter soos omskryf in artikel 1 van die Wet op die Reëling van Onderskepping van Kommunikasies en Verstrekking van Kommunikasieverwante Inligting, 2002;
+
+‘‘data’’ elektroniese voorstellings van inligting in enige formaat;
+
+‘‘databoodskap’’ data gegenereer, gestuur, ontvang of geberg by wyse van elektroniese middele, waar enige uitset van die data in ’n verstaanbare vorm is;
+
+‘‘Doeane- en Aksynswet, 1964’’ die Doeane- en Aksynswet, 1964 (Wet No. 91 van 1964);
+
+‘‘elektroniese kommunikasiediens’’ enige diens wat in geheel of hoofsaaklik bestaan uit die oordrag, op enige wyse, van elektroniese kommunikasies oor ’n elektroniese kommunikasienetwerk, met uitsondering van uitsaaidienste soos omskryf in artikel 1 van die Wet op Elektroniese Kommunikasie, 2005;
+
+# ‘‘elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer’’—
+
+(a) enige persoon wat ’n elektroniese kommunikasiediens verskaf aan die publiek, dele van die publiek, die Staat, of die intekenaars tot sodanige diens, kragtens en ooreenkomstig ’n elektroniese kommunikasiedienslisensie aan daardie persoon uitgereik ingevolge die Wet op Elektroniese Kommunikasie, 2005, of wat geag word gelisensieer of vrygestel van lisensiëring as sodanig te 30 wees ingevolge daardie Wet; en
+(b) ’n persoon wat wettige magtiging het om die bedryf of gebruik van ’n private elektroniese kommunikasienetwerk te beheer wat hoofsaaklik gebruik word vir voorsiening van elektroniese kommunikasiedienste vir die eienaar se eie gebruik en wat van lisensiëring vrygestel is ingevolge die Wet op Elektroniese 35 Kommunikasie, 2005;
+
+25
+
+‘‘elektroniese kommunikasienetwerk’’ ’n elektroniese kommunikasienetwerk soos omskryf in artikel 1 van die Wet op Elektroniese Kommunikasie, 2005, en sluit ’n rekenaarstelsel in;
+
+‘‘finansiële instelling’’ ’n ‘‘financial institution’’ soos omskryf in artikel 1 van die 40 ‘‘Financial Sector Regulation Act’’, 2017 (Wet No. 9 van 2017);
+
+‘‘Grondwet’’ die Grondwet van die Republiek van Suid-Afrika, 1996;
+‘‘item’’ enige— (a) data; (b) rekenaarprogram; (c) rekenaardatabergingsmedium; of (d) rekenaarstelsel, wat— (i) betrokke is by, in verband staan met of, op redelike gronde, geag word betrokke te wees by of in verband te staan met die pleging of vermeende 50 pleging; (ii) tot bewys kan strek van die pleging of vermeende pleging; of (iii) wat bestem is om gebruik te word, of op redelike gronde vermeen word bestem te wees by, die pleging of voorgenome pleging van— (aa) ’n misdryf ingevolge Deel I en Deel II van Hoofstuk 2;
+
+‘‘data message’’ means data generated, sent, received or stored by electronic means, where any output of the data is in an intelligible form;
+
+‘‘designated judge’’ means a designated judge as defined in section 1 of the Regulation of Interception of Communications and Provision of Communication-related Information Act, 2002;
+
+‘‘designated Point of Contact’’ means the office established or designated in terms of section 52;
+
+‘‘Electronic Communications Act, 2005’’ means the Electronic Communications Act, 2005 (Act No. 36 of 2005);
+
+‘‘electronic communications network’’ means an electronic communications network 10 as defined in section 1 of the Electronic Communications Act, 2005, and includes a computer system;
+
+‘‘electronic communications service’’ means any service which consists wholly or mainly of the conveyance by any means of electronic communications over an electronic communications network, but excludes broadcasting services as defined in 15 section 1 of the Electronic Communications Act, 2005;
+
+# ‘‘electronic communications service provider’’ means—
+
+(a) any person who provides an electronic communications service to the public, sections of the public, the State, or the subscribers to such service, under and in accordance with an electronic communications service licence issued to 20 that person in terms of the Electronic Communications Act, 2005, or who is deemed to be licenced or exempted from being licenced as such in terms of that Act; and
+(b) a person who has lawful authority to control the operation or use of a private electronic communications network used primarily for providing electronic 25 communications services for the owner’s own use and which is exempted from being licensed in terms of the Electronic Communications Act, 2005;
+
+‘‘financial institution’’ means a financial institution as defined in section 1 of the Financial Sector Regulation Act, 2017 (Act No. 9 of 2017);
+
+‘foreign State’’ means any State other than the Republic;
+
+‘‘Intelligence Services Oversight Act, 1994’’ means the Intelligence Services Oversight Act, 1994 (Act No. 40 of 1994);
+
+‘International Co-operation in Criminal Matters Act, 1996’’ means the International Co-operation in Criminal Matters Act, 1996 (Act No. 75 of 1996);
+
+30
+
+‘‘Justices of the Peace and Commissioners of Oaths Act, 1963’’ means the Justices of 35 the Peace and Commissioners of Oaths Act, 1963 (Act No. 16 of 1963);
+
+‘‘magistrate’’ includes a regional court magistrate;
+‘‘Magistrates’ Courts Act, 1944’’ means the Magistrates’ Courts Act, 1944 (Act No. 32 of 1944);
+
+‘‘National Commissioner’’ means the National Commissioner of the South African 40 Police Service, appointed by the President under section 207(1) of the Constitution;
+
+‘‘National Director of Public Prosecutions’’ means the person contemplated in section 179(1)(a) of the Constitution and appointed in terms of section 10 of the National Prosecuting Authority Act, 1998;
+
+‘‘National Head of the Directorate’’ means a person appointed in terms of section 45 17CA(1) of the South African Police Service Act, 1995;
+
+‘‘National Prosecuting Authority Act, 1998’’ means the National Prosecuting Authority Act, 1998 (Act No. 32 of 1998);
+
+‘‘National Strategic Intelligence Act, 1994’’ means the National Strategic Intelligence Act, 1994 (Act No. 39 of 1994); 5 ‘‘output of a computer program’’ means any— (a) data or output of the data; $(b)$ computer program; or (c) instructions,
+
+generated by a computer program;
+‘‘output of data’’ means by having data displayed or in any other manner;
+‘‘person’’ means a natural or a juristic person;
+
+‘‘police official’’ means a member of the South African Police Service as defined in section 1 of the South African Police Service Act, 1995;
+
+‘‘Prevention of Organised Crime Act, 1998’’ means the Prevention of Organised 60 Crime Act, 1998 (Act No. 121 of 1998);
+
+‘‘Protection from Harassment Act, 2011’’ means the Protection from Harassment Act, 2011 (Act No. 17 of 2011);
+
+55
+
+11
+
+(bb) enige ander misdryf ingevolge die reg van die Republiek; of
+(cc) ’n misdryf in ’n vreemde Staat wat wesenlik soortgelyk is aan ’n misdryf in Deel I of Deel II van Hoofstuk 2 beoog of ’n ander misdryf in die Republiek erken;
+
+‘‘landdros’’ ook ’n streekhoflanddros;
+
+‘‘Nasionale Direkteur van Openbare Vervolging’’ die persoon in artikel $179(1)(a)$ van die Grondwet beoog en aangestel ingevolge artikel 10 van die Wet op die Nasionale Vervolgingsgesag, 1998;
+
+‘‘Nasionale Hoof van die Direktoraat’’ ’n persoon ingevolge artikel 17CA(1) van die Wet op die Suid-Afrikaanse Polisiediens, 1995, aangestel;
+
+‘‘Nasionale Kommissaris’’ die Nasionale Kommissaris van die Suid-Afrikaanse Polisiediens, deur die President aangestel kragtens artikel 207(1) van die Grondwet;
+
+‘‘openbaar beskikbare data’’ data wat toeganklik is in die publieke domein sonder beperking;
+
+15
+
+‘‘persoon’’ ’n natuurlike of regspersoon;
+‘‘polisiebeampte’’ ’n lid van die Suid-Afrikaanse Polisiediens soos omskryf in artikel 1 van die Wet op die Suid-Afrikaanse Polisiediens, 1995;
+
+‘‘rekenaar’’ enige elektroniese, programmeerbare toestel gebruik, hetsy alleen of as deel van ’n rekenaarstelsel of enige ander toestel of toerusting of enige deel daarvan, om voorafbepaalde rekenkundige, logiese, roeterings-, verwerkings- of bergingsoperasies 20 ooreenkomstig vasgestelde instruksies te verrig, en sluit in enige data, rekenaarprogram of rekenaardatabergingsmedium wat verband hou met, gekoppel is aan of gebruik word met sodanige toestel;
+
+‘‘rekenaardatabergingsmedium’’ enige toestel waarvandaan data of ’n rekenaarprogram gereproduseer kan word of waarop data of ’n rekenaarprogram geberg 25 kan word, deur ’n rekenaarstelsel ongeag of die toestel fisies verbonde is aan of gekoppel is met ’n rekenaarstelsel;
+
+‘‘rekenaarprogram’’ data wat instruksies of stellings verteenwoordig wat, wanneer dit in ’n rekenaarstelsel uitgevoer word, die rekenaarstelsel ’n funksie laat verrig;
+
+# ‘‘rekenaarstelsel’’—
+
+30
+
+(a) een rekenaar; of
+(b) twee of meer rekenaars wat onderling gekoppel of verbandhoudend is, wat hierdie rekenaars wat onderling gekoppel is of verbandhoudend is, toelaat om— (i) data of enige ander funksie met mekaar uit te ruil; of (ii) data of enige ander funksie met ’n ander rekenaar of ’n rekenaarstelsel uit te ruil;
+
+‘‘spesifiek aangewese polisiebeampte’’ ’n polisiebeampte met die rang van kaptein of hoër bedoel in artikel 33 van die Wet op die Suid-Afrikaanse Polisiediens, 1995, wat skriftelik deur onderskeidelik die Nasionale Kommissaris en die Nasionale Hoof van die Direktoraat aangewys is om—
+
+(a) mondeling aansoek te doen om ’n deursoekingslasbrief of ’n wysiging van ’n lasbrief in artikel 30 bedoel;
+(b) lasgewings vir bespoedigde bewaring van data in artikel 41 bedoel, uit te reik; of 45
+(c) ’n lasgewing van die aangewese regter in artikel 48(10) beoog, te beteken of tenuitvoer te lê;
+
+trafproseswet, 1977’’ die Strafproseswet, 1977 (Wet No. 51 van 1977);
+
+‘‘Suid-Afrikaanse Reserwebank’’ die Suid-Afrikaanse Reserwebank, bedoel in artikel 223 van die Grondwet, gelees met die Wet op die Suid-Afrikaanse Reserwebank, 1989; 50 ‘‘uitset van data’’ deur data te vertoon of op enige ander wyse te hê;
+
+# ‘uitset van ’n rekenaarprogram’’ enige—
+
+(a) data of uitset van die data; (b) rekenaarprogram; of (c) instruksies,
+
+deur ’n rekenaarprogram gegenereer;
+
+‘‘verantwoordelike party’’ ’n verantwoordelike party soos omskryf in artikel 1 van die Wet op die Beskerming van Persoonlike Inligting, 2013;
+
+‘‘verkeersdata’’ data aangaande ’n kommunikasie wat die kommunikasie se oorsprong, bestemming, roete, formaat, tyd, datum, grootte, duur of tipe van die onderliggende 60 diens aandui;
+
+‘‘vreemde Staat’’ enige Staat anders as die Republiek;
+
+‘‘Protection of Personal Information Act, 2013’’ means the Protection of Personal Information Act, 2013 (Act No. 4 of 2013);
+
+‘‘publicly available data’’ means data which is accessible in the public domain without restriction;
+
+‘‘Regulation of Interception of Communications and Provision of Communication- 5 related Information Act, $2002^{\circ}$ means the Regulation of Interception of Communications and Provision of Communication-related Information Act, 2002 (Act No. 70 of 2002);
+
+‘‘responsible party’’ means a responsible party as defined in section 1 of the Protection of Personal Information Act, 2013; 10 ‘‘South African Police Service Act, 1995’’ means the South African Police Service Act, 1995 (Act No. 68 of 1995);
+
+‘‘South African Reserve Bank’’ means the South African Reserve Bank, referred to in section 223 of the Constitution, read with the South African Reserve Bank Act, 1989;
+
+‘‘South African Reserve Bank Act, 1989’’ means the South African Reserve Bank Act, 15 1989 (Act No. 90 of 1989);
+
+‘‘specifically designated police official’’ means a police official of the rank of captain or above referred to in section 33 of the South African Police Service Act, 1995, who has been designated in writing by the National Commissioner and the National Head of the Directorate, respectively, to—
+
+(a) make oral applications for a search warrant or an amendment of a warrant contemplated in section 30;
+(b) issue expedited preservation of data directions contemplated in section 41; or
+(c) serve or execute an order of the designated judge as contemplated in section 48(10);
+
+‘‘Superior Courts Act, 2013’’ means the Superior Courts Act, 2013 (Act No. 10 of 2013);
+
+‘‘Tax Administration Act, 2011’’ means the Tax Administration Act, 2011 (Act No. 28 of 2011); and
+
+‘‘traffic data’’ means data relating to a communication indicating the communication’s 30 origin, destination, route, format, time, date, size, duration or type, of the underlying service.
+
+(2) For the purposes of section 2, 3(2) or (3), or 7(1) or (2) of this Act, any failure by a responsible party to comply with—
+
+(a) the conditions for lawful processing of personal information referred to in 35 Chapter 3;
+(b) section 72; or
+(c) the provisions of a code of conduct issued in terms of section 60,
+
+of the Protection of Personal Information Act, 2013, must be dealt with in terms of Chapter 10 of that Act. 40
+
+# CHAPTER 2
+
+# CYBERCRIMES, MALICIOUS COMMUNICATIONS, SENTENCING AND ORDERS TO PROTECT COMPLAINANTS FROM HARMFUL EFFECT OF MALICIOUS COMMUNICATIONS
+
+PART I: CYBERCRIMES
+
+# Unlawful access
+
+2. (1) Any person who unlawfully and intentionally performs an act in respect of— (a) a computer system; or (b) a computer data storage medium, which places the person who performed the act or any other person in a position to 50 commit an offence contemplated in subsection (2), section 3(1), 5(1) or 6(1), is guilty of an offence. (2) (a) Any person who unlawfully and intentionally accesses a computer system or a computer data storage medium, is guilty of an offence.
+
+13
+
+‘‘Wet op Belastingadministrasie, 2011’’ die Wet op Belastingadministrasie, 2011 (Wet No. 28 van 2011);
+‘‘Wet op Beskerming teen Teistering, 2011’’ die Wet op Beskerming teen Teistering, 2011 (Wet No. 17 van 2011);
+‘‘Wet op Beskerming van Persoonlike Inligting, 2013’’ die Wet op Beskerming van 5 Persoonlike Inligting, 2013 (Wet No. 4 van 2013);
+‘‘Wet op die Nasionale Vervolgingsgesag, 1998’’ die Wet op die Nasionale Vervolgingsgesag, 1998 (Wet No. 32 van 1998);
+‘‘Wet op die Reëling van Onderskepping van Kommunikasies en Verstrekking van Kommunikasie-verwante Inligting, $2002^{,9}$ die Wet op die Reëling van Onderskepping 10 van Kommunikasies en Verstrekking van Kommunikasie-verwante Inligting, 2002 (Wet No. 70 van 2002);
+‘‘Wet op die Suid-Afrikaanse Polisiediens, 1995’’ die Wet op die Suid-Afrikaanse Polisiediens, 1995 (Wet No. 68 van 1995);
+‘‘Wet op die Suid-Afrikaanse Reserwebank, 1989’’ die Wet op die Suid-Afrikaanse 15 Reserwebank, 1989 (Wet No. 90 van 1989);
+‘‘Wet op die Voorkoming van Georganiseerde Misdaad, 1998’’ die Wet op die Voorkoming van Georganiseerde Misdaad, 1998 (Wet No. 121 van 1998);
+‘‘Wet op Doeanebeheer, 2014’’ die Wet op Doeanebeheer, 2014 (Wet No. 31 van 2014); ‘‘Wet op Elektroniese Kommunikasie, 2005’’ die Wet op Elektroniese 20 Kommunikasie, 2005 (Wet No. 36 van 2005);
+‘‘Wet op Hoër Howe, 2013’’ die Wet op Hoër Howe, 2013 (Wet No. 10 van 2013); ‘‘Wet op Internasionale Samewerking in Strafregtelike Aangeleenthede, 1996’’ die Wet op Internasionale Samewerking in Strafregtelike Aangeleenthede, 1996 (Wet No. 75 van 1996); 25 ‘‘Wet op Landdroshowe, 1944’’ die Wet op Landdroshowe, 1944 (Wet No. 32 van 1944);
+‘‘Wet op Nasionale Strategiese Intelligensie, 1994’’ die Wet op Nasionale Strategiese Intelligensie, 1994 (Wet No. 39 van 1994);
+‘‘Wet op Toesig oor Intelligensiedienste, 1994’’ die Wet op Toesig oor 30 Intelligensiedienste, 1996 (Wet No. 40 van 1994); en
+‘‘Wet op Vrederegters en Kommissarisse van Ede, 1963’’ die Wet op Vrederegters en Kommissarisse van Ede, 1963 (Wet No. 16 van 1963).
+(2) By die toepassing van artikel 2, 3(2) of (3), of 7(1) of (2) van hierdie Wet, moet, enige versuim deur ’n verantwoordelike party om te voldoen aan— 35 (a) die voorwaardes vir regmatige prosessering van persoonlike inligting in Hoofstuk 3 bedoel;
+(b) artikel 72; of
+(c) die bepalings van ’n gedragskode uitgereik ingevolge artikel 60,
+
+van die Wet op Beskerming van Persoonlike Inligting, 2013, ingevolge Hoofstuk 10 van 40 daardie Wet hanteer word.
+
+# HOOFSTUK 2
+
+# KUBERMISDADE, KWAADWILLIGE KOMMUNIKASIES,VONNISOPLEGGING EN BEVELE TER BESKERMING VAN KLAERS TEENSKADELIKE UITWERKING VAN KWAADWILLIGE 45KOMMUNIKASIES
+
+DEEL I: KUBERMISDADE
+
+# Wederregtelike toegang
+
+2. (1) Enige persoon wat wederregtelik en opsetlik ’n handeling verrig ten opsigte van— 50 (a) ’n rekenaarstelsel; of (b) ’n rekenaardatabergingsmedium, wat die persoon wat die handeling verrig het of enige ander persoon in ’n posisie stel om ’n misdryf beoog in subartikel (2), artikel 3(1), 5(1) of 6(1) te pleeg, is skuldig aan ’n misdryf. 55 (2) (a) Enige persoon wat wederregtelik en opsetlik toegang tot ’n rekenaarstelsel of ’n rekenaardatabergingmedium verkry, is skuldig aan ’n misdryf.
+
+14
+
+(b) For purposes of paragraph (a)—
+
+(i) a person accesses a computer data storage medium, if the person— (aa) uses data or a computer program stored on a computer data storage medium; or (bb) stores data or a computer program on a computer data storage 5 medium; and
+
+(ii) a person accesses a computer system, if the person—
+
+(aa) uses data or a computer program held in a computer system;
+(bb) stores data or a computer program on a computer data storage medium forming part of the computer system; or 10
+(cc) instructs, communicates with, or otherwise uses, the computer system.
+
+(c) For purposes of paragraph (b)— (i) a person uses a computer program, if the person—
+
+(aa) copies or moves the computer program to a different location in the 15 computer system or computer data storage medium in which it is held or to any other computer data storage medium;
+(bb) causes a computer program to perform any function; or
+(cc) obtains the output of a computer program; and
+
+(ii) a person uses data, if the person—
+
+20
+
+(aa) copies or moves the data to a different location in the computer system or computer data storage medium in which it is held or to any other computer data storage medium; or
+$(b b)$ obtains the output of data.
+
+# Unlawful interception of data
+
+3. (1) Any person who unlawfully and intentionally intercepts data, including electromagnetic emissions from a computer system carrying such data, within or which is transmitted to or from a computer system, is guilty of an offence.
+
+(2) Any person who unlawfully and intentionally possesses data or the output of data, with the knowledge that such data was intercepted unlawfully as contemplated in 30 subsection (1), is guilty of an offence.
+
+(3) Any person who is found in possession of data or the output of data, in regard to which there is a reasonable suspicion that such data was intercepted unlawfully as contemplated in subsection (1) and who is unable to give a satisfactory exculpatory account of such possession, is guilty of an offence.
+
+(4) For purposes of this section ‘‘interception of data’’ means the acquisition, viewing, capturing or copying of data of a non-public nature through the use of a hardware or software tool contemplated in section 4(2) or any other means, so as to make some or all of the data available to a person, other than the lawful owner or holder of the data, the sender or the recipient or the intended recipient of that data, and includes 40 the—
+
+35
+
+(a) examination or inspection of the contents of the data; and (b) diversion of the data or any part thereof from its intended destination to any other destination.
+
+# Unlawful acts in respect of software or hardware tool
+
+45
+
+4. (1) Any person who unlawfully and intentionally— (a) uses; or $(b)$ possesses,
+
+any software or hardware tool for purposes of contravening the provisions of section 2(1) or (2), 3(1), 5(1), 6(1) or $7(1)(a)$ or $(d)$ , is guilty of an offence. 50
+
+(2) For purposes of this section ‘‘software or hardware tool’’ means any electronic, mechanical or other instrument, device, equipment, apparatus or a substantial component thereof or a computer program, which is designed or adapted primarily for the purpose to—
+
+(a) access as contemplated in section 2(1) or (2);
+(b) intercept data as contemplated in section 3(1);
+
+15
+
+(b) By die toepassing van paragraaf (a)— (i) verkry ’n persoon toegang tot ’n rekenaardatabergingsmedium, indien die persoon—
+
+(aa) data of ’n rekenaarprogram wat op ’n rekenaardatabergingsmedium geberg is, gebruik; of
+(bb) data of ’n rekenaarprogram berg op ’n rekenaardatabergingsmedium; en
+
+(ii) verkry’n persoon toegang tot ’n rekenaarstelsel indien die persoon—
+
+(aa) data of ’n rekenaarprogram wat in ’n rekenaarstelsel gehou word, gebruik;
+(bb) data of ’n rekenaarprogram op ’n rekenaardatabergingsmedium wat deel van die rekenaarstelsel uitmaak, berg; of
+(cc) die rekenaarstelsel opdragte gee, daarmee kommunikeer of dit andersins gebruik.
+
+(c) By die toepassing van paragraaf (b)—
+
+15
+
+(i) gebruik ’n persoon ’n rekenaarprogram, indien die persoon— (aa) die rekenaarprogram kopieer of verskuif na ’n ander ligging in die rekenaarstelsel of rekenaardatabergingsmedium waarin dit gehou word of na enige ander rekenaardatabergingsmedium; (bb) ’n rekenaarprogram enige funksie laat verrig; of (cc) die uitset van ’n rekenaarprogram verkry; en
+
+(ii) gebruik ’n persoon data, indien die persoon—
+
+20
+
+(aa) die data kopieer of verskuif na ’n ander ligging in die rekenaarstelsel of rekenaardatabergingsmedium waarin dit gehou word of na enige ander rekenaardatabergingsmedium; of
+
+(bb) die uitset van data verkry.
+
+# Wederregtelike onderskepping van data
+
+3. (1) Enige persoon wat wederregtelik en opsetlik data onderskep, met inbegrip van elektromagnetiese emissies van ’n rekenaarstelsel wat daardie data dra, binne-in of wat oorgesend word na of van ’n rekenaarstelsel, is skuldig aan ’n misdryf.
+
+(2) Enige persoon wat wederregtelik en opsetlik data, of die uitset van data besit, met die wete dat daardie data wederregtelik onderskep is soos in subartikel (1) beoog, is skuldig aan ’n misdryf.
+
+(3) Enige persoon wat in besit van data of die uitset van data gevind word, ten opsigte waarvan daar ’n redelike vermoede is dat daardie data wederregtelik onderskep is soos 35 in subartikel (1) beoog en wat nie bevredigend verontskuldigend rekenskap kan gee van daardie besit nie, is skuldig aan ’n misdryf.
+
+(4) By die toepassing van hierdie artikel, beteken ‘‘onderskepping van data’’ die verkryging, besigtiging, vaslegging of kopiëring van data van ’n nie-publieke aard deur die gebruik van ’n hardeware- of sagtewarenutsmiddel in artikel 4(2) beoog of enige 40 ander wyse, ten einde sommige van of al die data beskikbaar te stel aan ’n persoon, anders as die wettige eienaar of houer van die data, die sender of die ontvanger of die bedoelde ontvanger van daardie data, en sluit in die—
+
+(a) ondersoeking of inspeksie van die inhoud van die data; en
+(b) verleiding van die data of enige deel daarvan van die bedoelde bestemming na 45 enige ander bestemming.
+
+# Wederregtelike handelinge ten opsigte van sagteware- of hardewarenutsmiddel
+
+4. (1) Enige persoon wat wederregtelik en opsetlik enige sagteware- of hardewarenutsmiddel—
+
+(a) gebruik; of (b) besit,
+
+met die doel om die bepalings van artikel 2(1) of (2), 3(1), 5(1), 6(1) of $7(1)(a)$ of (d) te oortree, is skuldig aan ’n misdryf.
+
+(2) By die toepassing van hierdie artikel, beteken ‘‘sagteware- of hardewarenutsmiddel’’ enige elektroniese, meganiese of ander instrument, toestel, 55 toerusting, apparaat of ’n wesenlike komponent daarvan of ’n rekenaarprogram, wat hoofsaaklik ontwerp of aangepas is vir die doeleindes van—
+
+(a) toegang soos in artikel 2(1) of (2) beoog;
+(b) onderskepping van data soos in artikel 3(1) beoog;
+
+16
+
+(c) interfere with data or a computer program as contemplated in section 5(1);
+(d) interfere with a computer data storage medium or a computer system as contemplated in section 6(1); or
+(e) acquire, make available or use a password, access code or similar data or device as defined in section 7(3).
+
+# Unlawful interference with data or computer program
+
+5. (1) Any person who unlawfully and intentionally interferes with— (a) data; or (b) a computer program, is guilty of an offence.
+
+(2) For purposes of this section ‘‘interfere with data or a computer program’’ means to permanently or temporarily—
+
+10
+
+(a) delete data or a computer program;
+(b) alter data or a computer program;
+(c) render vulnerable, damage or deteriorate data or a computer program; 15 (d) render data or a computer program meaningless, useless or ineffective;
+(e) obstruct, interrupt or interfere with the lawful use of, data or a computer program; or
+$(f)$ deny access to data or a computer program,
+
+held in a computer data storage medium or a computer system.
+
+20
+
+# Unlawful interference with computer data storage medium or computer system
+
+6. (1) Any person who unlawfully and intentionally interferes with a computer data storage medium or a computer system, is guilty of an offence.
+
+(2) For purposes of this section ‘‘interfere with a computer data storage medium or a computer system’’ means to permanently or temporarily—
+
+25
+
+(a) alter any resource; or
+(b) interrupt or impair— (i) the functioning; (ii) the confidentiality; (iii) the integrity; or (iv) the availability,
+
+of a computer data storage medium or a computer system.
+
+30
+
+Unlawful acquisition, possession, provision, receipt or use of password, access code or similar data or device
+
+35
+
+7. (1) Any person who unlawfully and intentionally— (a) acquires; $(b)$ possesses; (c) provides to another person; or (d) uses,
+
+a password, an access code or similar data or device for purposes of contravening the 40 provisions of section 2(1) or (2), 3(1), 5(1), 6(1), 8 or 9(1), is guilty of an offence.
+
+(2) Any person who is found in possession of a password, an access code or similar data or device in regard to which there is a reasonable suspicion that such password, access code or similar data or device—
+
+(a) was acquired;
+$(b)$ is possessed;
+(c) is to be provided to another person; or (d) was used or may be used,
+
+for purposes of contravening the provisions of section 2(1) or (2), 3(1), 5(1), 6(1), 8 or 9(1), and who is unable to give a satisfactory exculpatory account of such possession, is 50 guilty of an offence.
+
+17
+
+(c) inmenging met data of ’n rekenaarprogram soos in artikel 5(1) beoog;
+(d) inmenging met ’n rekenaardatabergingsmedium of ’n rekenaarstelsel soos in artikel 6(1) beoog; of
+(e) verkryging, beskikbaarstelling of gebruikmaking van ’n wagwoord, toegangskode of soortgelyke data of toestel soos in artikel 7(3) omskryf.
+
+# Wederregtelike inmenging met data of rekenaarprogram
+
+5. (1) Enige persoon wat wederregtelik en opsetlik inmeng met— (a) data; of (b) ’n rekenaarprogram,
+
+is skuldig aan ’n misdryf.
+
+(2) By die toepassing van hierdie artikel beteken ‘‘inmenging met data of $\mathbf{\beta}_{\mathbf{n}}$ rekenaarprogram’’ om permanent of tydelik—
+
+(a) data of ’n rekenaarprogram uit te wis;
+(b) data of ’n rekenaarprogram te verander;
+(c) data of ’n rekenaarprogram kwesbaar te maak, te beskadig of te laat 15 agteruitgaan;
+(d) data of ’n rekenaarprogram betekenisloos, nutteloos of ondoeltreffend te maak;
+(e) die wettige gebruik van data of ’n rekenaarprogram te belemmer, te onderbreek of daarmee in te meng; of 20
+$(f)$ toegang tot data of ’n rekenaarprogram te weier,
+
+wat in ’n rekenaardatabergingsmedium of ’n rekenaarstelsel gehou word.
+
+# Wederregtelike inmenging met rekenaardatabergingsmedium of rekenaarstelsel
+
+6. (1) Enige persoon wat wederregtelik en opsetlik met ’n rekenaardatabergingsmedium of ’n rekenaarstelsel inmeng, is skuldig aan ’n misdryf. 25 (2) By die toepassing van hierdie artikel beteken ‘‘inmenging met ’n ekenaardatabergingsmedium of ’n rekenaarstelsel’’ om permanent of tydelik—
+
+30
+
+(a) enige bron te verander; of
+(b) die— (i) werking; (ii) vertroulikheid; (iii) integriteit; of (iv) beskikbaarheid, te onderbreek of te belemmer,
+
+van ’n rekenaardatabergingsmedium of ’n rekenaarstelsel.
+
+# Wederregtelike verkryging, besit, voorsiening, ontvangs of gebruik van wagwoord, toegangskode of soortgelyke data of toestel
+
+7. (1) Enige persoon wat wederregtelik en opsetlik ’n wagwoord, ’n toegangskode of oortgelyke data of toestel—
+
+(a) verkry;
+(b) besit;
+(c) aan iemand anders voorsien; of (d) gebruik,
+
+40
+
+met die doel om die bepalings van artikel 2(1) of (2), 3(1), 5(1), 6(1), 8 of 9(1) te oortree, is skuldig aan ’n misdryf. 45
+
+(2) Enige persoon wat in besit van ’n wagwoord, ’n toegangskode of soortgelyke data of toestel gevind word, ten opsigte waarvan ’n redelike verdenking bestaan dat sodanige wagwoord, toegangskode of soortgelyke data of toestel—
+
+(a) verkry is;
+$(b)$ besit word;
+(c) aan iemand anders voorsien gaan word; of (d) gebruik is of gebruik kan word,
+
+met die doel om die bepalings van artikel 2(1) of (2), 3(1), 5(1), 6(1), 8 of 9(1) te oortree en wat nie ’n bevredigende, verontskuldigende verduideliking vir sodanige besit kan gee nie, is skuldig aan ’n misdryf.
+
+18
+
+(3) For purposes of this section ‘‘password, access code or similar data or device’’ includes—
+
+(a) a secret code or pin;
+(b) an image;
+(c) a security token;
+(d) an access card;
+(e) any device;
+$(f)$ biometric data; or
+(g) a word or a string of characters or numbers,
+
+used for financial transactions or user-authentication in order to access or use data, a 10 computer program, a computer data storage medium or a computer system.
+
+# Cyber fraud
+
+8. Any person who unlawfully and with the intention to defraud makes a misrepresentation—
+
+(a) by means of data or a computer program; or
+$(b)$ through any interference with data or a computer program as contemplated in section ${5(2)(a),(b)}$ or (e) or interference with a computer data storage medium or a computer system as contemplated in section 6(2)(a),
+
+which causes actual or potential prejudice to another person, is guilty of the offence of cyber fraud. 20
+
+# Cyber forgery and uttering
+
+9. (1) Any person who unlawfully and with the intention to defraud makes— (a) false data; or $(b)$ a false computer program, to the actual or potential prejudice of another person, is guilty of the offence of cyber 25 forgery. (2) Any person who unlawfully and with the intention to defraud, passes off— (a) false data; or (b) a false computer program, to the actual or potential prejudice of another person, is guilty of the offence of cyber 30 uttering.
+
+# Cyber extortion
+
+10. Any person who unlawfully and intentionally commits or threatens to commit any offence contemplated in section 3(1), 5(1), 6(1) or $7(1)(a)$ or $(d)$ , for the purpose of— (a) obtaining any advantage from another person; or 35 $(b)$ compelling another person to perform or to abstain from performing any act, guilty of the offence of cyber extortion.
+
+# Aggravated offences
+
+11. (1) (a) Any person who commits an offence referred to in— (i) section 3(1), 5(1) or 6(1), in respect of; or 40 (ii) section 7(1), in so far as the passwords, access codes or similar data and devices relate to,
+a restricted computer system, and who knows or ought reasonably to have known or
+suspected that it is a restricted computer system, is guilty of an aggravated offence. (b) For purposes of paragraph (a), a ‘‘restricted computer system’’ means any data, 45
+computer program, computer data storage medium or computer system— (i) under the control of, or exclusively used by— (aa) a financial institution; or (bb) an organ of state as set out in section 239 of the Constitution, including a court; and 50 (ii) which is protected by security measures against unauthorised access or use.
+
+19
+
+(3) By die toepassing van hierdie artikel beteken ‘‘wagwoord, toegangskode of soortgelyke data of toestel’’ ook—
+
+(a) ’n geheime kode of pin;
+(b) ’n beeld;
+(c) ’n sekuriteitsbewys;
+(d) ’n toegangskaart;
+(e) enige toestel;
+(f) biometriese data; of
+(g) ’n woord of ’n string karakters of nommers,
+
+gebruik vir finansiële transaksies of gebruikeroutentisering ten einde data, ’n 10 rekenaarprogram, ’n rekenaardatabergingsmedium of $\mathbf{\chi}_{\mathrm{n}}^{\prime}$ rekenaarstelsel te gebruik.
+
+# Kuberbedrog
+
+8. Enige persoon wat wederregtelik en met die opset om te bedrieg, ’n
+wanvoorstelling maak— (a) deur middel van data of ’n rekenaarprogram; of 15 (b) deur enige inmenging met data of ’n rekenaarprogram soos beoog in artikel 5(2)(a), (b) of (e) of inmenging met ’n rekenaardatabergingsmedium of $\mathbf{\chi}_{\mathrm{n}}^{\prime}$ rekenaarstelsel soos beoog in artikel $6(2)(a)$ ,
+wat werklike of potensiële benadeling vir iemand anders veroorsaak, is skuldig aan die
+misdryf van kuberbedrog. 20
+
+# Kubervervalsing en -uitgifte
+
+9. (1) Enige persoon wat wederregtelik en met die opset om te bedrieg— (a) vals data; of (b) ’n vals rekenaarprogram, maak tot die werklike of potensiële benadeling van ’n ander persoon, is skuldig aan die 25 misdryf van kubervervalsing. (2) Enige persoon wat wederregtelik en met die opset om te bedrieg— (a) vals data; of (b) ’n vals rekenaarprogram, uitgee, tot die werklike of potensiële benadeling van ’n ander persoon, is skuldig aan die 30 misdryf van kuberuitgifte.
+
+# Kuberafpersing
+
+10. Enige persoon wat wederregtelik en opsetlik ’n misdryf beoog in artikel 3(1), 5(1), 6(1) of $7(1)(a)$ of (d) pleeg of dreig om sodanige misdryf te pleeg, met die doel om— 35
+
+(a) enige voordeel van iemand anders te verkry; of $(b)$ iemand anders te dwing om enige handeling te verrig of nie te verrig nie, skuldig aan die misdryf van kuberafpersing.
+
+# Verswarende misdrywe
+
+11. (1) (a) Enige persoon wat ’n misdryf pleeg bedoel in— 40 (i) artikel 3(1), 5(1) of 6(1), ten opsigte van; of (ii) artikel 7(1), vir sover die wagwoorde, toegangskodes of soortgelyke data en toestelle verband hou met,
+’n beperkte rekenaarstelsel en wat weet of redelikerwys moes geweet het of vermoed het
+dat dit ’n beperkte rekenaarstelsel is, is skuldig aan ’n verswarende misdryf. 45 (b) By die toepassing van paragraaf (a), beteken ’n ‘‘beperkte rekenaarstelsel
+enige data, rekenaarprogram, rekenaardatabergingsmedium of rekenaarstelsel— (i) onder die beheer van, of uitsluitlik gebruik deur— (aa) ’n finansiële instelling; of (bb) ’n staatsorgaan soos uiteengesit in artikel 239 van die Grondwet, met 50 inbegrip van ’n hof; en (ii) wat deur sekuriteitsmaatreëls teen ongemagtigde toegang of gebruik beskerm word.
+
+20
+
+(2) Any person who commits an offence referred to in section 5(1), 6(1) or 10, and who knows or ought reasonably to have known or suspected that the offence in question will—
+
+(a) endanger the life or cause serious bodily injury to, or the death of, any person, or any number or group of persons;
+(b) cause serious risk to the health or safety of the public or any segment of the public; or
+(c) create a serious public emergency situation,
+
+is guilty of an aggravated offence.
+
+(3) The Director of Public Prosecutions having jurisdiction must authorise in writing 10 a prosecution in terms of subsection (1) or (2).
+
+# Theft of incorporeal property
+
+12. The common law offence of theft must be interpreted so as not to exclude the theft of incorporeal property.
+
+# PART II: MALICIOUS COMMUNICATIONS
+
+# Definitions
+
+13. In Part II, unless the context indicates otherwise— ‘‘damage to property’’ means damage to any corporeal or incorporeal property; ‘‘disclose’’ in respect of a data message referred to in sections 14, 15 and 16, means to—
+
+(a) send the data message to a person who is the intended recipient of the 20 electronic communication or any other person;
+(b) store the data message on an electronic communications network, where the data message can be viewed, copied or downloaded; or
+(c) send or otherwise make available to a person, a link to the data message that has been stored on an electronic communication network, where the data 25 message can be viewed, copied or downloaded;
+
+‘‘group of persons’’ means characteristics that identify an individual as a member of a group, which characteristics include without limitation, race, gender, sex, pregnancy, marital status, ethnic or social origin, colour, sexual orientation, age, disability, religion, conscience, belief, culture, language, birth or nationality;
+
+30
+
+‘‘related person’’ means any member of the family or household of a person or any other person in a close relationship with that person; and
+‘‘violence’’ means bodily harm.
+
+# Data message which incites damage to property or violence
+
+14. Any person who discloses, by means of an electronic communications service, a 35
+data message to a person, group of persons or the general public with the intention to
+incite— (a) the causing of any damage to property belonging to; or (b) violence against,
+a person or a group of persons, is guilty of an offence. 40
+
+# Data message which threatens persons with damage to property or violence
+
+15. A person commits an offence if they, by means of an electronic communications service, unlawfully and intentionally discloses a data message, which—
+
+(a) threatens a person with—
+
+(i) damage to property belonging to that person or a related person; or 45 (ii) violence against that person or a related person; or (b) threatens a group of persons or any person forming part of, or associated with, that group of persons with— (i) damage to property belonging to that group of persons or any person forming part of, or associated with, that group of persons; or 50
+
+(2) Enige persoon wat ’n misdryf bedoel in artikel 5(1), 6(1) of 10 pleeg en wat weet of redelikerwys moes geweet het of vermoed het dat die betrokke misdryf—
+
+(a) die lewe in gevaar sal stel of ernstige ligaamlike beserings aan, of die dood veroorsaak van, enige persoon, of enige aantal of groep persone;
+(b) ’n ernstige risiko vir die gesondheid of veiligheid van die publiek of enige 5 segment van die publiek sal veroorsaak; of
+(c) ’n ernstige openbare noodsituasie skep,
+
+is skuldig aan ’n verswarende misdryf.
+
+(3) ’n Vervolging ingevolge subartikel (1) of (2) moet skriftelik deur die Direkteur van Openbare Vervolgings met regsbevoegdheid gemagtig word. 10
+
+# Diefstal van onliggaamlike eiendom
+
+12. Die gemeneregmisdryf van diefstal moet uitgelê word sodat dit nie die diefstal van onliggaamlike eiendom uitsluit nie.
+
+# DEEL II: KWAADWILLIGE KOMMUNIKASIES
+
+# Woordomskrywing
+
+13. In Deel II, tensy dit uit die samehang anders blyk, beteken—
+
+‘‘beskadiging van eiendom’’ skade aan enige liggaamlike of onliggaamlike eiendom;
+‘‘geweld’’ liggaamlike leed;
+
+‘‘groep persone’’ eienskappe wat ’n individu identifiseer as ’n lid van ’n groep, welke eienskappe sonder beperking, ras, geslagtelikheid, geslag, swangerskap, huwelikstatus, 20 etniese of sosiale herkoms, kleur, seksuele georiënteerdheid, ouderdom, gestremdheid, godsdiens, gewete, oortuiging, kultuur, taal, geboorte of nasionaliteit, insluit;
+
+‘‘openbaar maak’’ ten opsigte van ’n databoodskap in artikels 14, 15 en 16 bedoel, om—
+
+(a) die databoodskap aan ’n persoon wat die bedoelde ontvanger van die 25 elektroniese kommunikasie is of enige ander persoon te stuur;
+(b) die databoodskap op ’n elektroniese kommunikasienetwerk te berg, waar die databoodskap besigtig, gekopieer of afgelaai kan word; of
+(c) ’n skakel na die databoodskap wat op ’n elektroniese kommunikasienetwerk geberg is aan ’n persoon te stuur of andersins beskikbaar te stel, waar die 30 databoodskap besigtig, gekopieer of afgelaai kan word; en
+
+‘‘verwante persoon’’ enige lid van die gesin of huishouding van ’n persoon of enige ander persoon in ’n noue verhouding met daardie persoon.
+
+# Databoodskap wat beskadiging van eiendom of geweld aanhits
+
+14. Enige persoon wat ’n databoodskap openbaar maak deur middel van ’n 35 elektroniese kommunikasiediens, aan ’n persoon, groep persone of die algemene publiek met die bedoeling om—
+
+(a) beskadiging van enige eiendom wat behoort aan; of (b) geweld teen, ’n persoon of ’n groep persone aan te hits, is skuldig aan ’n misdryf.
+
+# Databoodskap wat persone met beskadiging van eiendom of geweld dreig
+
+15. ’n Persoon pleeg ’n misdryf as hulle, by wyse van ’n elektroniese kommunikasiediens, wederregtelik en opsetlik ’n databoodskap openbaar maak wat—
+
+(a) ’n persoon dreig met—
+
+(i) beskadiging van eiendom wat behoort aan daardie persoon of ’n 45 verwante persoon; of (ii) geweld teen daardie persoon of ’n verwante persoon; of (b) ’n groep persone of enige persoon wat deel van daardie groep persone is, of geassosieer is met daardie groep persone, dreig met— (i) beskadiging van eiendom wat behoort aan daardie groep persone of 50 enige persoon wat deel uitmaak van, of geassosieer is met, daardie groep persone; of
+
+22
+
+(ii) violence against the group of persons or any person forming part of, or associated with, that group of persons,
+
+and a reasonable person in possession of the same information, with due regard to all the circumstances, would perceive the data message, either by itself or in conjunction with any other data message or information, as a threat of damage to property or violence to a person or category of persons contemplated in paragraph (a) or $(b)$ , respectively.
+
+# Disclosure of data message of intimate image
+
+16. (1) Any person (‘‘A’’) who unlawfully and intentionally discloses, by means of an electronic communications service, a data message of an intimate image of a person $(^{66}\mathbf{B}^{99})$ , without the consent of B, is guilty of an offence.
+
+10
+
+(2) For purposes of subsection (1)— (a) ‘‘B’’ means—
+
+(i) the person who can be identified as being displayed in the data message;
+(ii) any person who is described as being displayed in the data message, irrespective of the fact that the person cannot be identified as being 15 displayed in the data message; or
+(iii) any person who can be identified from other information as being displayed in the data message; and
+
+(b) ‘‘intimate image’’ means a depiction of a person— (i) real or simulated, and made by any means in which— 20 (aa) B is nude, or the genital organs or anal region of B is displayed, or if B is a female person, transgender person or intersex person, their breasts, are displayed; or $(b b)$ the covered genital or anal region of B, or if B is a female person, transgender person or intersex person, their covered breasts, are 25 displayed; and
+
+(ii) in respect of which B so displayed retains a reasonable expectation of privacy at the time that the data message was made in a manner that— (aa) violates or offends the sexual integrity or dignity of B; or $(b b)$ amounts to sexual exploitation.
+
+30
+
+# PART III: ATTEMPTING, CONSPIRING, AIDING, ABETTING, INDUCING, INCITING, INSTIGATING, INSTRUCTING, COMMANDING OR PROCURING TO COMMIT OFFENCE
+
+Attempting, conspiring, aiding, abetting, inducing, inciting, instigating, instructing, commanding or procuring to commit offence
+
+17. Any person who unlawfully and intentionally—
+
+(a) attempts;
+(b) conspires with any other person; or
+(c) aids, abets, induces, incites, instigates, instructs, commands or procures another person,
+
+to commit an offence in terms of Part I or Part II of this Chapter, is guilty of an offence and is liable on conviction to the punishment to which a person convicted of actually committing that offence would be liable.
+
+# PART IV: COMPETENT VERDICTS
+
+# Competent verdicts
+
+18. (1) If the evidence in criminal proceedings does not prove the commission of the offence charged but proves a contravention of section 17—
+
+(a) in respect of the offence charged; or
+(b) in respect of any other offence of which an accused may be convicted on the offence charged,
+
+the accused may be found guilty of the offence so proved.
+
+23
+
+(ii) geweld teen die groep persone of enige persoon wat deel is van, of geassosieer is met, daardie groep persone,
+
+en ’n redelike persoon in besit van dieselfde inligting en met inagneming van al die omstandighede, die databoodskap, hetsy alleen of saam met enige ander databoodskap of informasie, sal beskou as ’n dreigement van beskadiging van eiendom of geweld 5 teenoor ’n persoon of kategorie persone in onderskeidelik paragraaf (a) of $(b)$ beoog.
+
+# Openbaarmaking van databoodskap van intieme beeld
+
+16. (1) Enige persoon (‘‘A’’) wat wederregtelik en opsetlik ’n databoodskap van ’n intieme beeld van ’n persoon $(^{66}\mathbf{B}^{99})$ openbaar maak deur middel van ’n elektroniese kommunikasiediens, sonder die toestemming van B, is skuldig aan ’n misdryf.
+
+(2) By die toepassing van subartikel (1) beteken —
+
+(i) die persoon wat identifiseer kan word as die persoon wat in die databoodskap vertoon word;
+(ii) enige persoon wat beskryf word as vertoon te wees in die databoodskap, 15 ongeag dat die persoon nie geïdentifiseer kan word as die persoon wat in die databoodskap vertoon word nie; of
+(iii) enige persoon wat uit ander inligting geïdentifiseer kan word as die persoon wat in die databoodskap vertoon word; en
+
+(b) ‘‘intieme beeld’’ ’n uitbeelding van ’n persoon—
+
+20
+
+(i) werklik of gesimuleer en op enige wyse gemaak waarin— (aa) B kaal is, of die geslagsorgane of anale area van B vertoon word, of indien B ’n vroulike persoon, transgenderpersoon of intersekspersoon is, hul borste, vertoon word; of (bb) die bedekte geslagsorgane of anale area van B, of indien B ’n 25 vroulike persoon, transgenderpersoon of intersekspersoon is, hul bedekte borste, vertoon word; en
+(ii) ten opsigte waarvan B aldus vertoon ’n redelike verwagting van privaatheid gehad het toe die databoodskap gemaak is op ’n wyse wat— (aa) die seksuele integriteit of waardigheid van B skend of krenk; of 30 (bb) op seksuele uitbuiting neerkom.
+
+# DEEL III: POGING, SAMESWERING, HULPVERLENING, AANSTIGTING, UITLOKKING, AANHITSING, AANMOEDIGING, AANRAAIING, BEVEL, RAADGEWING OF VERKRYGING OM MISDRYF TE PLEEG
+
+Poging, sameswering, hulpverlening, aanstigting, uitlokking, aanhitsing, 35 aanmoediging, aanraaiing, bevel, raadgewing of verkryging om misdryf te pleeg
+
+17. Enige persoon wat wederregtelik en opsetlik—
+
+(a) poog;
+(b) met ’n ander persoon saamsweer; of
+(c) ’n ander persoon help, aanstig, uitlok, aanhits, aanraai, beveel of verkry, 40 om ’n misdryf ingevolge Deel I of Deel II van hierdie Hoofstuk te pleeg, is skuldig aan ’n misdryf en is by skuldigbevinding strafbaar met die straf waarvoor ’n persoon wat aan die werklike pleging van daardie misdryf skuldig bevind is, onderhewig sal wees.
+
+# DEEL IV: GEOORLOOFDE UITSPRAKE
+
+# Geoorloofde uitsprake
+
+18. (1) Indien getuienis in strafregtelike verrigtinge nie die pleging van die ten laste gelegde misdryf bewys nie, maar ’n oortreding van artikel 17 bewys—
+
+(a) ten opsigte van die ten laste gelegde misdryf; of
+(b) ten opsigte van enige ander misdryf waaraan ’n beskuldigde op die ten laste 50 gelegde misdryf skuldig bevind kan word,
+
+kan die beskuldigde aan die aldus bewese misdryf skuldig bevind word.
+
+(2) If the evidence on a charge of a contravention of section 3(1), does not prove the offence or a contravention of section 17 in respect of that offence, but proves a contravention of—
+
+(a) section 2(1) or (2);
+$(b)$ section 3(2) or (3); or
+(c) section 4(1), in so far as it relates to the use or possession of a software or hardware tool, for purposes of contravening section 3(1),
+
+the accused may be found guilty of the offence so proved.
+
+(3) If the evidence on a charge of a contravention of section 5(1), does not prove the offence or a contravention of section 17 in respect of that offence, but proves—
+
+(a) a contravention of section 2(1) or (2);
+(b) a contravention of section 4(1), in so far as it relates to the use or possession of a software or hardware tool, for purposes of contravening section 5(1); or
+(c) the offence of malicious injury to property,
+
+the accused may be found guilty of the offence so proved.
+
+15
+
+(4) If the evidence on a charge of a contravention of section 6(1), does not prove the offence or a contravention of section 17 in respect of that offence, but proves—
+
+(a) a contravention of section 2(1) or (2);
+(b) a contravention of section 4(1), in so far as it relates to the use or possession of a software or hardware tool, for purposes of contravening section 6(1); or 20
+(c) the offence of malicious injury to property,
+
+the accused may be found guilty of the offence so proved.
+
+(5) (a) If the evidence on a charge of a contravention of section $7(1)(a)$ or $(d)$ does not prove the offence or a contravention of section 17 in respect of that offence, but proves a contravention of—
+
+(i) section 2(1) or (2);
+(ii) section $7(1)(b)$ or (c) or (2); or
+(iii) section 4(1), in so far as it relates to the use or possession of a software or hardware tool, to acquire or use a password, access code or similar data or device, 3
+
+the accused may be found guilty of the offence so proved.
+
+(b) If the evidence on a charge of a contravention of section $7(1)(b)$ or (c) does not prove the offence or a contravention of section 17 in respect of that offence, but proves a contravention of section 7(2), the accused may be found guilty of an offence so proved.
+
+(6) If the evidence on a charge of a contravention of section 8, does not prove the 35 offence or a contravention of section 17 in respect of the offence, but proves—
+
+(a) a contravention of section 2(1) or (2);
+(b) a contravention of section 4(1), in so far as it relates to the use or possession of a software or hardware tool, for the purposes of— (i) interfering with data or a computer program as contemplated in section 40 5(1); or (ii) interfering with a computer data storage medium or a computer system as contemplated in section 6(1);
+(c) a contravention of section 7(1) or (2), in so far as the password, access code or similar data or device was acquired, possessed, provided to another person or 45 used for purposes of contravening the provisions of section 8;
+(d) a contravention of section 9(1) or (2);
+(e) the common law offence of fraud or attempt to commit that offence;
+$(f)$ the common law offence of forgery or uttering or attempt to commit that offence; or 50
+(g) the common law offence of theft or attempt to commit that offence,
+
+the accused may be found guilty of the offence so proved.
+
+(7) (a) If the evidence on a charge of a contravention of section 9(1), does not prove the offence or a contravention of section 17 in respect of the offence, but proves—
+
+(i) the common law offence of forgery; (ii) a contravention of section 9(2); or
+
+25
+
+(2) Indien die getuienis op ’n aanklag van ’n oortreding van artikel 3(1), nie die misdryf of ’n oortreding van artikel 17 ten opsigte van daardie misdryf bewys nie, maar ’n oortreding van—
+
+(a) artikel 2(1) of (2);
+$(b)$ artikel 3(2) of (3); of
+(c) artikel 4(1), vir sover dit verband hou met die gebruik of besit van ’n sagteware- of hardewarenutsmiddel, vir doeleindes van oortreding van artikel 3(1),
+
+ewys, kan die beskuldigde aan die aldus bewese misdryf skuldig bevind word.
+
+(3) Indien die getuienis op ’n aanklag van ’n oortreding van artikel 5(1), nie die 10 misdryf of ’n oortreding van artikel 17 ten opsigte van daardie misdryf bewys nie, maar—
+
+(a) ’n oortreding van artikel 2(1) of (2);
+(b) ’n oortreding van artikel 4(1), vir sover dit verband hou met die gebruik of besit van ’n sagteware- of hardewarenutsmiddel vir doeleindes van oortreding 15 van artikel 5(1); of
+(c) die misdryf van opsetlike saakbeskadiging,
+
+bewys, kan die beskuldigde aan die aldus bewese misdryf skuldig bevind word.
+
+(4) Indien die getuienis op ’n aanklag van ’n oortreding van artikel 6(1), nie die misdryf of ’n oortreding van artikel 17 ten opsigte van daardie misdryf bewys nie, 20 maar—
+
+(a) ’n oortreding van artikel 2(1) of (2);
+(b) ’n oortreding van artikel 4(1), vir sover dit verband hou met die gebruik of besit van ’n sagteware- of hardewarenutsmiddel vir die doeleindes van ’n oortreding van artikel 6(1); of
+(c) die misdryf van opsetlike saakbeskadiging,
+
+bewys, kan die beskuldigde aan die aldus bewese misdryf skuldig bevind word.
+
+(5) (a) Indien die getuienis op ’n aanklag van ’n oortreding van artikel $7(1)(a)$ of $(d)$ nie die misdryf of ’n oortreding van artikel 17 ten opsigte van daardie misdryf bewys nie, maar ’n oortreding van—
+
+(i) artikel 2(1) of (2);
+(ii) artikel $7(1)(b)$ of (c) of (2); of
+(iii) artikel 4(1), vir sover dit verband hou met die gebruik of besit van ’n sagtewareof hardewarenutsmiddel om ’n wagwoord, toegangskode of soortgelyke data of toestel te verkry of te gebruik, 3
+
+wys, kan die beskuldigde aan die aldus bewese misdryf skuldig bevind word.
+
+(b) Indien die getuienis op ’n aanklag van ’n oortreding van artikel $7(1)(b)$ of (c) nie die misdryf of ’n oortreding van artikel 17 ten opsigte van daardie misdryf bewys nie, maar ’n oortreding van artikel 7(2) bewys, kan die skuldige aan die aldus bewese misdryf skuldig bevind word.
+
+(6) Indien die getuienis op ’n aanklag van ’n oortreding van artikel 8, nie die misdryf of ’n oortreding van artikel 17 ten opsigte van daardie misdryf bewys nie, maar—
+
+(a) ’n oortreding van artikel 2(1) of (2);
+(b) ’n oortreding van artikel 4(1), vir sover dit verband hou met die gebruik of besit van ’n sagteware- of hardewarenutsmiddel vir die doeleindes van— 45 (i) inmenging met data of ’n rekenaarprogram soos in artikel 5(1) beoog; of (ii) inmenging met ’n rekenaardatabergingsmedium of ’n rekenaarstelsel soos in artikel 6(1) bedoel;
+(c) ’n oortreding van artikel 7(1) of (2) vir sover die wagwoord, toegangskode of soortgelyke data of toestelle verkry, besit, aan iemand anders voorsien of 50 gebruik is vir die doeleindes van oortreding van die bepalings van artikel 8;
+(d) ’n oortreding van artikel 9(1) of (2);
+(e) die gemeneregmisdryf van bedrog of poging om daardie misdryf te pleeg;
+$(f)$ die gemeneregmisdryf van vervalsing of uitgifte of poging om daardie misdryf te pleeg; of 55
+(g) die gemeneregmisdryf van diefstal of poging om daardie misdryf te pleeg,
+
+ewys, kan die beskuldigde aan die aldus bewese misdryf skuldig bevind word.
+
+(7) (a) Indien die getuienis op ’n aanklag van ’n oortreding van artikel 9(1), nie die misdryf of ’n oortreding van artikel 17 ten opsigte van daardie misdryf, bewys nie, maar—
+
+(i) die gemeneregmisdryf van vervalsing; (ii) ’n oortreding van artikel 9(2); of
+
+26
+
+(iii) the common law offence of uttering, the accused may be found guilty of the offence so proved.
+
+(b) If the evidence on a charge of a contravention of section 9(2), does not prove the offence, but proves the common law offence of uttering, the accused may be found guilty of the offence so proved.
+
+(8) If an accused is charged with a contravention of section 11(1), and the evidence on the charge does not prove a contravention of section 11(1) or a contravention of section 17 in respect of that offence, but proves a contravention of—
+
+(a) section 2(1) or (2); (b) section 3(1) or any competent verdict provided for in subsection (2); (c) section 5(1) or any competent verdict provided for in subsection (3); (d) section 6(1) or any competent verdict provided for in subsection (4); or (e) section 7(1) or any competent verdict provided for in subsection (5),
+
+the accused may be found guilty of the offence so proved.
+
+(9) If an accused is charged with a contravention of section 11(2), and the evidence on 15 the charge does not prove the offence or a contravention of section 17 in respect of the offence, but proves a contravention of—
+
+(a) section 2(1) or (2); $(b)$ section 5(1) or any competent verdict provided for in subsection (3); or (c) section 6(1) or any competent verdict provided for in subsection (4), the accused may be found guilty of the offence so proved.
+
+(10) If the evidence on a charge for any offence referred to in the preceding subsections does not prove the commission of the offence so charged or any competent verdict in respect of the offence, but proves the commission of an offence which by reason of the essential elements of that offence is included in the offence so charged, the 25 accused may be found guilty of the offence so proved. (11) If an accused is charged with a contravention of section 14, 15 or 16, and the evidence on the charge does not prove the offence in question or a contravention of section 17 in respect of the offence, but proves the commission of an offence which by reason of the essential elements of that offence is included in the offence so charged, the 30 accused may be found guilty of the offence so proved.
+
+# PART V: SENTENCING
+
+# Sentencing
+
+19. (1) Any person who contravenes the provisions of section 2(1) or (2), 3(3) or 7(2)
+is liable on conviction to a fine or to imprisonment for a period not exceeding five years 35
+or to both a fine and such imprisonment. (2) Any person who contravenes the provisions of section 3(1) or (2), 4(1), 5(1), 6(1)
+or 7(1) is liable on conviction to a fine or to imprisonment for a period not exceeding 10
+years or to both a fine and such imprisonment. (3) Any person who contravenes the provisions of section 11(1) is liable on conviction 40
+to a fine or to imprisonment for a period not exceeding 15 years or to both a fine and such
+imprisonment. (4) A court which convicts a person of an offence in terms of section 8, 9(1) or (2), 10
+or 11(2) may, where a penalty is not prescribed in respect of that offence by any other
+law, impose a sentence, as provided for in section 276 of the Criminal Procedure Act, 45
+1977, which that court considers appropriate and which is within that court’s penal
+jurisdiction. (5) A court which imposes any sentence in terms of this section, or where a person is
+convicted of the offence of theft that was committed or facilitated by electronic means,
+must, without excluding other relevant factors, consider as aggravating factors— 50 (a) the fact that the offence was committed by electronic means; (b) the extent of the prejudice and loss suffered by the complainant or any other person as a result of the commission of such an offence;
+
+27
+
+(iii) die gemeneregmisdryf van uitgifte, ewys, kan die beskuldigde aan die aldus bewese misdryf skuldig bevind word.
+
+(b) Indien die getuienis op ’n aanklag van ’n oortreding van artikel 9(2), nie die misdryf bewys nie, maar die gemeneregmisdryf van uitgifte, kan die beskuldigde aan die aldus bewese misdryf skuldig bevind word.
+
+(8) Indien ’n beskuldigde van ’n oortreding van artikel 11(1) aangekla word, en die getuienis op die aanklag nie ’n oortreding van artikel 11(1) of ’n oortreding van artikel 17 ten opsigte van daardie misdryf bewys nie, maar ’n oortreding van—
+
+(a) artikel 2(1) of (2);
+(b) artikel 3(1) of enige bevoegde uitspraak waarvoor subartikel (2) voorsiening 10 maak;
+(c) artikel 5(1) of enige bevoegde uitspraak waarvoor subartikel (3) voorsiening maak;
+(d) artikel 6(1) of enige bevoegde uitspraak waarvoor subartikel (4) voorsiening maak; of 15
+(e) artikel 7(1) of enige bevoegde uitspraak waarvoor subartikel (5) voorsiening maak,
+
+bewys, kan die beskuldigde aan die aldus bewese misdryf skuldig bevind word.
+
+(9) Indien ’n beskuldigde van ’n oortreding van artikel 11(2) aangekla word, en die getuienis op die aanklag nie die misdryf of ’n oortreding van artikel 17 ten opsigte van 20 die misdryf bewys nie, maar ’n oortreding van—
+
+(a) artikel 2(1) of (2);
+(b) artikel 5(1) of enige bevoegde uitspraak waarvoor subartikel (3) voorsiening maak; of
+(c) artikel 6(1) of enige bevoegde uitspraak waarvoor subartikel (4) voorsiening 25 maak,
+
+wys, kan die beskuldigde aan die aldus bewese misdryf skuldig bevind word.
+
+(10) Indien die getuienis op ’n aanklag vir enige misdryf in die voormelde subartikels nie die pleging van die aldus ten laste gelegde misdryf of enige geoorloofde uitspraak ten opsigte van die misdryf nie bewys nie, maar die pleging van ’n misdryf bewys wat 30 weens die wesenlike elemente van daardie misdryf in die aldus ten laste gelegde misdryf inbegrepe is, kan die beskuldigde aan die aldus bewese misdryf skuldig bevind word. (11) Indien ’n beskuldigde van ’n oortreding van artikel 14, 15 of 16 aangekla word, en die getuienis oor die aanklag nie die betrokke misdryf of ’n oortreding van artikel 17 ten opsigte van die misdryf bewys nie, maar die pleging van ’n misdryf bewys wat uit 35 hoofde van die wesenlike elemente van daardie misdryf in die aldus ten laste gelegde misdryf inbegrepe is, kan die beskuldigde aan die aldus bewese misdryf skuldig bevind word.
+
+# DEEL V: VONNISOPLEGGING
+
+# Vonnisoplegging
+
+19. (1) Enige persoon wat die bepalings van artikel 2(1) of (2), 3(3) of 7(2) oortree,
+is by skuldigbevinding strafbaar met ’n boete of met gevangenisstraf vir ’n tydperk van
+hoogstens vyf jaar of met beide ’n boete en sodanige gevangenisstraf. (2) Enige persoon wat die bepalings van artikel 3(1) of (2), 4(1), 5(1), 6(1) of 7(1)
+oortree, is by skuldigbevinding strafbaar met ’n boete of met gevangenisstraf vir ’n 45
+tydperk van hoogstens 10 jaar of met beide ’n boete en sodanige gevangenisstraf. (3) Enige persoon wat die bepalings van artikel 11(1) oortree, is by skuldigbevinding
+strafbaar met ’n boete of met gevangenisstraf vir ’n tydperk van hoogstens 15 jaar of met
+beide ’n boete en sodanige gevangenisstraf. (4) ’n Hof wat ’n persoon aan ’n misdryf ingevolge artikel 8, 9(1) of (2), 10 of 11(2) 50
+skuldig bevind, kan, waar ’n straf ten opsigte van daardie misdryf nie deur enige ander
+wetsbepaling voorgeskryf word nie, ’n vonnis oplê soos in artikel 276 van die
+Strafproseswet, 1977, bepaal, wat daardie hof gepas ag en wat binne daardie hof se
+strafjurisdiksie is. (5) ’n Hof wat enige vonnis ingevolge hierdie artikel oplê, of waar ’n persoon aan die 55
+misdryf van diefstal wat gepleeg of gefasiliteer is deur elektroniese middele, skuldig
+bevind is, moet, sonder om enige ander tersaaklike faktore uit te sluit— (a) die feit dat die misdryf met elektroniese middele gepleeg is; (b) die mate van die benadeling en verlies deur die klaer of enige ander persoon gely as gevolg van die pleging van so ’n misdryf; 60
+
+(c) the extent to which the person gained financially, or received any favour, benefit, reward, compensation or any other advantage from the commission of the offence; or
+
+(d) the fact that the offence was committed in concert with one or more persons.
+
+(6) (a) If a person is convicted of any offence provided for in section 2(1) or (2), 3(1), 5(1), 6(1), 7(1), 8, 9(1) or (2), 10 or 11(1) or (2), a court imposing any sentence in terms of those sections must, unless substantial and compelling circumstances justify the imposition of another sentence, impose a period of direct imprisonment, with or without a fine, if the offence was committed—
+
+(i) by the person; or 10 (ii) with the collusion or assistance of another person, who as part of their duties, functions or lawful authority were in charge of, in control of, or had access to data, a computer program, a computer data storage medium or a computer system belonging to another person in respect of which the offence in question was committed. 15 (b) A sentence imposed in terms of paragraph (a) may not be suspended as contemplated in section 297(4) of the Criminal Procedure Act, 1977. (7) Any person who contravenes the provisions of section 14, 15 or 16 is liable on conviction to a fine or to imprisonment for a period not exceeding three years or to both a fine and such imprisonment.
+
+# PART VI: ORDERS TO PROTECT COMPLAINANTS FROM THE HARMFUL EFFECT OF MALICIOUS COMMUNICATIONS
+
+# Order to protect complainant pending finalisation of criminal proceedings
+
+20. (1) A complainant (hereinafter referred to as the applicant) who lays a charge with the South African Police Service that an offence contemplated in section 14, 15 or 16 has 25 allegedly been committed against them, may on an ex parte basis in the prescribed form and manner, apply to a magistrate’s court for a protection order pending the finalisation of the criminal proceedings to—
+
+(a) prohibit any person to disclose or further disclose the data message which relates to the charge; or 3
+(b) order an electronic communications service provider whose electronic communications service is used to host or disclose the data message which relates to the charge, to remove or disable access to the data message.
+
+(2) The court must as soon as is reasonably possible consider an application submitted to it in terms of subsection (1) and may, for that purpose, consider any additional 35 evidence it deems fit, including oral evidence or evidence by affidavit, which must form part of the record of the proceedings.
+
+(3) If the court is satisfied that there—
+
+(a) is prima facie evidence that an offence referred to in section 14, 15 or 16, has allegedly been committed against the applicant; and 40
+(b) are reasonable grounds to believe that a person referred to in subsection (1)(a) disclosed the data message in question; or
+(c) are reasonable grounds to believe that the electronic communications service of the electronic communications service provider referred to in subsection $(1)(b)$ , is used to host or was or is used to disclose the data message in 45 question,
+
+the court may, subject to such conditions as the court may deem fit, issue the order referred to in subsection (1), in the prescribed form.
+
+(4) The order, referred to in subsection (3), must be served on the person referred to in subsection $(1)(a)$ or electronic communications service provider referred to in 50 subsection $(1)(b)$ , in the prescribed manner: Provided, that if the court is satisfied that the order cannot be served in the prescribed manner, the court may make an order allowing service to be effected in the form or manner specified in that order.
+
+(5) An order referred to in subsection (3) is of force and effect from the time it is issued by the court and the existence thereof has been brought to the attention of the 55 person referred to in subsection $(1)(a)$ or electronic communications service provider referred to in subsection $(1)(b)$ .
+
+(c) die mate waartoe die persoon finansieel voordeel getrek het of enige guns voordeel, beloning, vergoeding of enige ander voordeel uit die pleging van die misdryf gekry het; of (d) die feit dat die misdryf in samewerking met een of meer persone gepleeg is, erswarende omstandighede in ag neem.
+
+(6) (a) Indien ’n persoon aan enige misdryf in artikel 2(1) of (2), 3(1), 5(1), 6(1), 7(1), 8, 9(1) of (2), 10 of 11(1) of (2) skuldig bevind is, moet ’n hof wat enige vonnis ingevolge daardie artikels oplê, tensy wesenlike en dwingende omstandighede die oplegging van ’n ander vonnis regverdig, ’n tydperk van direkte gevangenisstraf, met of sonder ’n boete, oplê waar die misdryf—
+
+(i) deur die persoon; of (ii) met die samespanning of bystand van ’n ander persoon, gepleeg is, wat as deel van hul pligte, werksaamhede of wettige magtiging verantwoordelik was vir, in beheer was van, of toegang gehad het tot data, ’n rekenaarprogram, ’n rekenaardatabergingsmedium of ’n rekenaarstelsel behorende aan 15 ’n ander persoon ten opsigte waarvan die betrokke misdryf gepleeg was. (b) ’n Vonnis opgelê ingevolge paragraaf (a), mag nie opgeskort word soos in artikel 297(4) van die Strafproseswet, 1977, beoog nie. (7) Enige persoon wat die bepalings van artikel 14, 15 of 16 oortree is by skuldigbevinding strafbaar met ’n boete of met gevangenisstraf vir ’n tydperk van 20 hoogstens drie jaar of met beide ’n boete en sodanige gevangenisstraf.
+
+# DEEL VI: BEVELE TER BESKERMING VAN KLAERS TEEN DIE SKADELIKE UITWERKING VAN KWAADWILLIGE KOMMUNIKASIES
+
+Bevel ter beskerming van klaer hangende afhandeling van strafregtelike verrigtinge
+
+20. (1) ’n Klaer (hierna die applikant genoem) wat ’n klag by die Suid-Afrikaanse Polisiediens indien dat ’n misdryf in artikel 14, 15 of 16 beoog na bewering teen hulle gepleeg is, kan op ’n ex parte-grondslag op die voorgeskrewe vorm of wyse, by ’n landdroshof aansoek doen om ’n beskermingsbevel hangende die afhandeling van die strafregtelike verrigtinge om—
+
+(a) enige persoon te belet om die databoodskap wat met die klag verband hou, openbaar te maak of verder openbaar te maak; of
+(b) ’n elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer wie se elektroniese kommunikasiediens gebruik word om die databoodskap wat met die klag verband hou, te huisves of openbaar te maak, te beveel om die betrokke databoodskap te verwyder of toegang daartoe te deaktiveer.
+
+(2) Die hof moet ’n aansoek ingevolge subartikel (1) aan die hof voorgelê, so gou as redelik moontlik oorweeg en kan vir daardie doel enige bykomende getuienis wat die hof gepas ag, oorweeg, met inbegrip van mondelinge getuienis of getuienis by wyse van beëdigde verklaring, wat deel van die oorkonde van die verrigtinge moet uitmaak.
+
+(3) Indien die hof oortuig is dat daar—
+
+(a) prima facie-getuienis is dat ’n misdryf bedoel in artikel 14, 15 of 16 na bewering teen die applikant gepleeg is; en
+(b) redelike gronde is om te glo dat ’n persoon in subaritkel (1)(a) bedoel die betrokke databoodskap openbaar gemaak het; of
+(c) redelike gronde is om te glo dat die elektroniese kommunikasiediens van die elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer in subartikel $(1)(b)$ bedoel, gebruik word om daardie databoodskap te huisves of gebruik was of word om daardie boodskap openbaar te maak,
+
+kan die hof, onderworpe aan sodanige voorwaardes wat die hof gepas ag, die bevel 50 bedoel in subartikel (1) in die voorgeskrewe vorm uitreik.
+
+(4) Die bevel in subartikel (3) bedoel, moet aan die persoon in subartikel $(1)(a)$ of elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer in subartikel (1)(b) bedoel, op die voorgeskrewe wyse beteken word: Met dien verstande dat, indien die hof oortuig is dat die bevel nie op die voorgeskrewe wyse beteken kan word nie, die hof ’n bevel kan gee wat betekening in die vorm of op die wyse in daardie bevel gespesifiseer, toelaat.
+
+(5) ’n Bevel in subartikel (3) bedoel, is van krag vanaf die oomblik dat dit deur die hof uitgereik word en die bestaan daarvan onder die aandag van die persoon in subartikel $(1){\dot{(a)}}$ of elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer in subartikel ${\bar{(1)}}(b)$ bedoel, gebring is.
+
+(6) A person referred to in subsection $(1)(a)$ , other than the person who is accused of having committed the offence in question, or an electronic communications service provider referred to in subsection $(1)(b)$ , may, within 14 days after the order has been served on them in terms of subsection (4) or within such further period as the court may allow, upon notice to the magistrate’s court concerned, in the prescribed form and manner, apply to the court for the setting aside or amendment of the order referred to in subsection (3).
+
+(7) (a) The court must as soon as reasonably possible consider an application
+submitted to it in terms of subsection (6) and may, for that purpose, consider such
+additional evidence as it deems fit, including oral evidence or evidence by affidavit, 10
+which must form part of the record of the proceedings. (b) The court may, if good cause is shown for the variation or setting aside of the
+protection order, issue an order to this effect. (8) The court may, for purposes of subsections (2) and (7), in the prescribed form and
+manner cause to be subpoenaed any person as a witness at those proceedings or to 15
+provide any book, document or object, if the evidence of that person or book, document
+or object appears to the court essential to the just decision of the case. (9) Any person referred to in subsection (1)(a) or an electronic communications
+service provider, referred to in subsection $(1)(b)$ , that fails to comply with an order
+referred to in subsection (3) or any variations thereof, is guilty of an offence. 20 (10) Any person who is subpoenaed in terms of subsection (8) to attend proceedings
+
+and who fails to— (a) attend or to remain in attendance; (b) appear at the place and on the date and at the time to which the proceedings in question may be adjourned; 25 (c) remain in attendance at those proceedings as so adjourned; or (d) produce any book, document or object specified in the subpoena,
+
+is guilty of an offence.
+
+(11) The provisions in respect of appeal and review as provided for in the Magistrates’ Courts Act, 1944, and the Superior Courts Act, 2013, apply to proceedings in terms of 30 this section.
+
+(12) For purposes of this section and sections 21 and 22 ‘‘to host a data message’’ means to store the data message on an electronic communications network that is used to provide an electronic communications service, where it can be viewed, copied or downloaded.
+
+# Electronic communications service provider to furnish particulars to court
+
+21. (1) If an application for a protection order is made in terms of section 20(1) and the court is satisfied in terms of section 20(3) that a protection order must be issued and the particulars of the person referred to in section $20(1)(a)$ , who discloses the data message, or the electronic communications service provider referred to in section 40 $20(1)(b)$ , whose service is used to host or was or is used to disclose the data message, is not known, the court may—
+
+(a) adjourn the proceedings to any time and date on the terms and conditions which the court deems appropriate; and
+(b) issue a direction in the prescribed form, directing an electronic communica- 45 tions service provider, that is believed to be able to furnish such particulars, to furnish the court in the prescribed manner by means of an affidavit in the prescribed form with— (i) the electronic communications identity number from where the data message originated; 50 (ii) the name, surname, identity number and address of the person to whom the electronic communications identity number has been assigned; (iii) any information which indicates that the data message was or was not sent from the electronic communications identity number of the person to the electronic communications identity number of the applicant; 55 (iv) any information that is available to an electronic communications service provider that may be of assistance to the court to identify the person
+
+(6) ’n Persoon in subartikel $(1)(a)$ bedoel, anders as die persoon wat van die pleging van die betrokke misdryf beskuldig word, of ’n elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer in subartikel $(1)(b)$ bedoel, kan, binne 14 dae nadat die bevel ingevolge subartikel (4) aan hulle beteken is, of binne sodanige verdere tydperk soos die hof mag toelaat, by kennisgewing aan die betrokke landdroshof, op die voorgeskrewe vorm en wyse, by die hof aansoek doen om die tersydestelling of wysiging van die bevel in subartikel (3) bedoel.
+
+(7) (a) Die hof moet ’n aansoek ingevolge subartikel (6) aan die hof voorgelê, so gou as redelik moontlik oorweeg en kan vir daardie doel sodanige bykomende getuienis wat die hof gepas ag, oorweeg, met inbegrip van mondelinge getuienis of getuienis by wyse 10 van beëdigde verklaring, wat deel van die oorkonde van die verrigtinge moet uitmaak.
+
+(b) Die hof kan, by die aanvoer van goeie gronde vir die wysiging of tersydestelling van die beskermingsbevel, ’n bevel te dien effekte uitreik.
+
+(8) Die hof kan, by die toepassing van subartikels (2) en (7), op die voorgeskrewe vorm en wyse enige persoon laat dagvaar as ’n getuie by daardie verrigtinge of om enige 15 boek, dokument of voorwerp voor te lê, indien die getuienis van daardie persoon of boek, dokument of voorwerp vir die hof noodsaaklik blyk te wees vir die regverdige beslissing van die saak.
+
+(9) Enige persoon in subartikel $(1)(a)$ bedoel of ’n elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer in subartikel $(1)(b)$ bedoel, wat versuim om aan ’n bevel in subartikel (3) 20 bedoel of enige wysigings daarvan te voldoen, is skuldig aan ’n misdryf.
+
+(10) Enige persoon wat ingevolge subartikel (8) gedagvaar is om verrigtinge by te woon en wat versuim om—
+
+(a) dit by te woon of teenwoordig te bly;
+(b) te verskyn by die plek en op die datum en die tyd waarheen die betrokke 25 verrigtinge verdaag mag word;
+(c) teenwoordig te bly by daardie verrigtinge aldus verdaag; of
+(d) enige boek, dokument of voorwerp in die dagvaarding gespesifiseer, voor te lê,
+
+is skuldig aan ’n misdryf.
+
+(11) Die bepalings ten opsigte van appèl en hersiening soos in die Wet op Landdroshowe, 1944, en die Wet op Hoër Howe, 2013, bepaal, is van toepassing op verrigtinge ingevolge hierdie artikel.
+
+(12) By die toepassing van hierdie artikel en artikels 21 en 22 beteken ‘‘om ’n databoodskap te huisves’’ om die databoodskap op ’n elektroniese kommunikasie- 35 netwerk te berg wat gebruik word om ’n elektroniese kommunikasiediens te verskaf, waar dit besigtig, gekopieer of afgelaai kan word.
+
+# lektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer moet besonderhede aan hof verskaf
+
+21. (1) Indien daar ingevolge artikel 20(1) om ’n beskermingsbevel aansoek gedoen word en die hof ingevolge artikel 20(3) oortuig is dat ’n beskermingsbevel uitgereik 40 moet word en die besonderhede van die persoon in artikel $20(1)(a)$ bedoel, wat die betrokke databoodskap openbaar maak of die elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer, in artikel $20(1)(b)$ bedoel, wie se diens gebruik word om die databoodskap te huisves of gebruik was of word om die databoodskap openbaar te maak, is nie bekend nie, kan die hof— 45 (a) die verrigtinge verdaag tot enige tyd en datum op die bepalings en voorwaardes wat die hof doenlik ag; en ’n lasgewing in die voorgeskrewe vorm uitreik, wat ’n elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer wat geglo word in staat te wees om daardie besonderhede te verskaf, gelas om die hof op die voorgeskrewe wyse deur 50 middel van ’n beëdigde verklaring in die voorgeskrewe vorm te voorsien van— (i) die elektroniese kommunikasie-identiteitsnommer van waar die databoodskap afkomstig was; (ii) die naam, van, identiteitsnommer en adres van die persoon aan wie die 55 elektroniese kommunikasie-identiteitsnommer toegeken is; (iii) enige inligting wat aandui dat die databoodskap vanaf die elektroniese kommunikasie-identiteitsnommer van die persoon na die elektroniese kommunikasie-identiteitsnommer van die applikant gestuur is al dan nie; enige inligting wat beskikbaar is aan ’n elektroniese kommunikasie- 60 diensverskaffer wat die hof behulpsaam kan wees om die persoon bedoel
+
+referred to in section $20(1)(a)$ or the electronic communications service provider referred to in section $20(1)(b)$ , which provides a service to that person;
+
+(v) any information that is available to an electronic communications service provider which—
+
+(aa) confirms whether or not its electronic communications service is used to host or was or is used to disclose the data message in question; or
+(bb) may be of assistance to the court to identify the electronic communications service provider whose service is used to host or 10 was or is used to disclose the data message in questions; or
+
+(vi) an assessment whether or not the electronic communications service provider is in a position to— (aa) remove the data message or a link to such data message; or $(b b)$ disable access to the data message or a link to such data message.
+
+(2) If the court issues a direction in terms of subsection $(1)(b)$ , the court must direct that the direction be served on the electronic communications service provider in the prescribed manner: Provided, that if the court is satisfied that the direction cannot be served in the prescribed manner, the court may make an order allowing service to be effected in the form or manner specified in that order. 2
+
+(3) (a) The information referred to in subsection (1)(b) must be provided to the court within five ordinary court days from the time that the direction is served on an electronic communications service provider.
+
+(b) An electronic communications service provider on which a direction is served, may in the prescribed manner by means of an affidavit in the prescribed form apply to 25 the court for—
+
+(i) an extension of the period of five ordinary court days referred to in paragraph (a) for a further period of five ordinary court days on the grounds that the information cannot be provided timeously; or
+(ii) the cancellation of the direction on the grounds that— 30 (aa) it does not provide an electronic communications service to the applicant or the person referred to in section $20(1)(a)$ ; (bb) the requested information is not available in the records of the electronic communications service provider; or (cc) its service is not used to host or was or is not used to disclose the data 35 message in question.
+
+(4) After receipt of an application in terms of subsection $(3)(b)$ , the court—
+
+(a) must consider the application;
+(b) may, in the prescribed manner, request such additional evidence by way of an affidavit from the electronic communications service provider as it deems fit; 40
+(c) must give a decision in respect thereof; and
+(d) must inform the electronic communications service provider in the prescribed form and manner of the outcome of the application.
+
+(5) (a) The court may, on receipt of an affidavit from an electronic communications service provider which contains the information referred to in subsection (1)(b), 45 consider the issuing of a protection order in terms of section 20(3) against the person or electronic communications service provider on the date to which the proceedings have been adjourned.
+
+(b) Any information furnished to the court in terms of subsection $(1)(b)$ forms part of the evidence that a court may consider in terms of section 20(3).
+
+(6) The Cabinet member responsible for the administration of justice may, by notice in the Gazette, prescribe reasonable tariffs of compensation payable to electronic communications service providers for providing the information referred to in subsection $(1)(b)$ .
+
+(7) Any electronic communications service provider or employee of an electronic 55 communications service provider who—
+
+(a) fails to furnish the required information within five ordinary court days from the time that the direction is served on such electronic communications in artikel $20(1)(a)$ of die elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer bedoel in artikel $20(1)(b)$ , wat ’n diens aan daardie persoon verskaf, te identifiseer;
+
+(v) enige inligting wat aan ’n elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer beskikbaar is wat—
+
+(aa) bevestig of hul elektroniese kommunikasiediens gebruik word om die betrokke databoodskap te huisves of gebruik was of word om dit openbaar te maak al dan nie; of
+(bb) die hof behulpsaam kan wees om die elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer te identifiseer wie se diens gebruik word om die 10 betrokke databoodskap te huisves of gebruik was of word om dit openbaar te maak; of
+
+(vi) ’n assessering of die elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer in ’n posisie is, al dan nie, om— (aa) die databoodskap of ’n skakel na daardie databoodskap te 15 verwyder; of $(b b)$ toegang tot die databoodskap of ’n skakel tot daardie databoodskap te deaktiveer.
+
+(2) Indien die hof ’n lasgewing ingevolge subartikel $(1)(b)$ uitreik, moet die hof gelas dat die lasgewing op die voorgeskrewe wyse aan die elektroniese kommunikasiediens- 20 verskaffer beteken word: Met dien verstande dat indien die hof oortuig is dat die lasgewing nie op die voorgeskrewe wyse beteken kan word nie, die hof ’n bevel kan gee wat betekening in die vorm of op die wyse in daardie bevel gespesifiseer, toelaat.
+
+(3) (a) Die inligting in subartikel $(1)(b)$ bedoel, moet binne vyf gewone hofdae vanaf die tyd waarop die lasgewing aan ’n elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer beteken 25 is, aan die hof verskaf word.
+
+(b) ’n Elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer aan wie ’n lasgewing beteken is, kan op die voorgeskrewe wyse en deur middel van ’n beëdigde verklaring in die voorgeskrewe vorm by die hof aansoek doen om—
+
+(i) ’n verlenging van die tydperk van vyf gewone hofdae in paragraaf (a) bedoel vir 30 ’n verdere tydperk van vyf gewone hofdae op grond daarvan dat die inligting nie tydig voorsien kan word nie; of
+(ii) die kansellasie van die lasgewing op gronde daarvan dat— (aa) hulle nie ’n elektroniese kommunikasiediens aan die applikant of die persoon bedoel in artikel 20(1)(a), lewer nie; 35 $(b b)$ die inligting wat aangevra is, nie in die rekords van die elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer beskikbaar is nie; of (cc) hul diens nie gebruik word om die betrokke databoodskap te huisves nie of gebruik was of word om dit openbaar te maak nie.
+
+(4) Ná ontvangs van ’n aansoek ingevolge subartikel (3)(b)—
+
+40
+
+(a) moet die hof die aansoek oorweeg;
+
+(b) kan die hof, op die voorgeskrewe wyse, sodanige bykomende getuienis versoek by wyse van ’n beëdigde verklaring van die elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer soos wat die hof goeddink;
+(c) moet die hof daaroor beslis; en
+(d) moet die hof die elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer op die voorgeskrewe vorm en wyse van die uitslag van die aansoek verwittig.
+
+45
+
+(5) (a) Die hof kan, by ontvangs van ’n beëdigde verklaring van ’n elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer wat die inligting bedoel in subartikel $(1)(b)$ , bevat, die uitreiking van ’n beskermingsbevel ingevolge artikel 20(3) teen die persoon of elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer oorweeg op die datum waartoe die verrigtinge verdaag is.
+
+(b) Enige inligting wat ingevolge subartikel $(1)(b)$ aan die hof verskaf is, maak deel uit van die getuienis wat ’n hof ingevolge artikel 20(3) kan oorweeg.
+
+(6) Die Kabinetslid verantwoordelik vir die regspleging kan, by kennisgewing in die 55 Staatskoerant, redelike tariewe voorskryf vir vergoeding betaalbaar aan elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffers vir die verskaffing van die inligting in subartikel $(1)(b)$ bedoel.
+
+(7) Enige elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of werknemer van ’n elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer wat— 60 (a) versuim om die vereiste inligting binne vyf gewone hofdae vandat die lasgewing aan sodanige elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer beteken
+
+service provider to a court in terms of subsection $(3)(a)$ or such extended period allowed by the court in terms of subsection $(3)(b)$ ; or (b) makes a false statement in an affidavit referred to in subsection $(1)(b)$ or $(3)(b)$ in a material respect,
+
+is guilty of an offence.
+
+(8) For purposes of this section ‘‘electronic communications identity number’’ means a technical identification label which represents the origin or destination of electronic communications traffic.
+
+# Orders on finalisation of criminal proceedings
+
+22. (1) Whenever a person is—
+
+10
+
+(a) convicted of an offence in terms of section 14, 15 or 16; or (b) acquitted of an offence in terms of section 14, 15 or 16,
+
+but evidence proves that the person engaged in, or attempted to engage in, harassment as contemplated in the Protection from Harassment Act, 2011, the trial court may, after holding an enquiry, issue a protection order contemplated in section 9(4) of the Protec- 15 tion from Harassment Act, 2011, against the person, whereafter the provision of that Act must apply with the necessary changes as required by the context.
+
+(2) The trial court which convicts a person of an offence contemplated in section 14, 15 or 16, must order—
+
+(a) that person to refrain from further making available, disclosing or distributing 20 the data message contemplated in section 14, 15 or 16, which relates to the charge on which that person is convicted;
+(b) that person or any other person to destroy the data message in question, any copy of the data message or any output of the data message and to submit an affidavit in the prescribed form to the prosecutor identified in the order that the 25 data message has been so destroyed; or
+(c) an electronic communications service provider to remove or disable access to the data message in question.
+
+(3) The order referred to in subsection $(2)(b)$ , in so far as it relates to a person other than the person who has been convicted of the offence, and subsection (2)(c), must be in 30 the prescribed form and must be served on the person or electronic communications service provider in the prescribed manner: Provided, that if the trial court is satisfied that the order cannot be served in the prescribed form and manner, the court may make an order allowing service to be effected in the form or manner specified in that order.
+
+(4) Any person contemplated in subsection (2)(a) or $(b)$ or electronic communications 3 service provider contemplated in subsection (2)(c), that fails to comply with an order referred to in subsection (2), is guilty of an offence.
+
+(5) An electronic communications service provider that is ordered to remove or disable access to the data message may, within 14 days after the order has been served on it in terms of subsection (3), upon notice to the trial court concerned, in the prescribed 40 form and manner, apply to the court for the setting aside or amendment of the order referred to in subsection (2)(c).
+
+(6) (a) The trial court must as soon as is reasonably possible consider an application submitted to it in terms of subsection (5) and may for that purpose, consider such additional evidence as it deems fit, including oral evidence or evidence by affidavit, 45 which must form part of the record of the proceedings.
+
+(b) The trial court may, if good cause has been shown for the variation or setting aside of the order, issue an order to this effect.
+
+(7) The court may, for purposes of subsection $(6)(a)$ , in the prescribed form and manner cause to be subpoenaed any person as a witness at those proceedings or to 50 provide any book, document or object, if the evidence of that person or book, document or object appears to the court essential to the just decision of the case.
+
+(8) Any person who is subpoenaed in terms of subsection (7) to attend proceedings and who fails to—
+
+(a) attend or to remain in attendance;
+
+is, aan ’n hof te verskaf ingevolge subartikel $(3)(a)$ of sodanige verlengde tydperk wat ingevolge subartikel $(3)(b)$ deur die hof toegelaat word; of (b) ’n vals verklaring in ’n wesenlike opsig in ’n beëdigde verklaring in subartikel $(1)(b)$ of (3)(b) bedoel, maak,
+
+is skuldig aan ’n misdryf.
+
+(8) By die toepassing van hierdie artikel, beteken ‘‘elektroniese kommunikasieidentiteitsnommer’’ ’n tegniese identifikasie-etiket wat die oorsprong of bestemming van elektroniese kommunikasieverkeer verteenwoordig.
+
+# Bevele by afhandeling van strafregtelike verrigtinge
+
+22. (1) Wanneer ’n persoon—
+
+10
+
+(a) aan ’n misdryf ingevolge artikel 14, 15 of 16 skuldig bevind word; of (b) van ’n misdryf ingevolge artikel 14, 15 of 16 vrygespreek word,
+
+maar getuienis bewys dat die persoon aan teistering meegedoen het of gepoog het om aan teistering mee te doen, soos beoog in die Wet op Beskerming teen Teistering, 2011, kan die verhoorhof, na afloop van ’n ondersoek, ’n beskermingsbevel soos beoog in 15 artikel 9(4) van die Wet op Beskerming teen Teistering, 2011, teen die persoon uitreik, waarna die bepaling van daardie Wet, met die nodige veranderinge soos deur die samehang vereis, van toepassing sal wees.
+
+(2) Die verhoorhof wat ’n persoon skuldig bevind aan ’n misdryf in artikel 14, 15 of 16 beoog, moet—
+
+(a) daardie persoon beveel om te weerhou van die verdere beskikbaarstelling, openbaarmaking of verspreiding van die databoodskap beoog in artikel 14, 15 of 16, wat verband hou met die aanklag waaraan daardie persoon skuldig bevind is;
+(b) daardie persoon of enige ander persoon beveel om die betrokke databoodskap 25 of enige kopie van die databoodskap of enige uitset van die databoodskap te vernietig en ’n beëdigde verklaring in die voorgeskrewe vorm aan die aanklaer in die bevel geïdentifiseer, voor te lê dat die databoodskap aldus vernietig is; of
+(c) ’n elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer beveel om die betrokke 30 databoodskap te verwyder of toegang daartoe te deaktiveer.
+
+(3) Die bevel in subartikel (2)(b) bedoel, vir sover dit verband hou met ’n persoon, anders as die persoon wat aan die misdryf skuldig bevind is, en subartikel (2)(c), moet in die voorgeskrewe vorm wees en moet op die voorgeskrewe wyse aan die persoon of elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer beteken word: Met dien verstande dat, 35 indien die verhoorhof oortuig is dat die bevel nie op die voorgeskrewe vorm en wyse beteken kan word nie, die hof ’n bevel kan gee wat betekening in die vorm of op die wyse in daardie bevel gespesifiseer, toelaat.
+
+(4) Enige persoon beoog in subartikel (2)(a) of (b) of elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer beoog in subartikel (2)(c), wat versuim om aan ’n bevel in subartikel (2) 40 bedoel, te voldoen, is skuldig aan ’n misdryf.
+
+(5) ’n Elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer wat beveel word om die databoodskap te verwyder of toegang daartoe te deaktiveer, kan, binne 14 dae nadat die bevel ingevolge subartikel (3) aan hulle beteken is, by kennisgewing aan die betrokke verhoorhof, op die voorgeskrewe vorm en wyse, by die hof aansoek doen om die 4 tersydestelling of wysiging van die bevel in subartikel (2)(c) bedoel.
+
+(6) (a) Die verhoorhof moet so gou as redelikerwys moontlik ’n aansoek daaraan voorgelê ingevolge subartikel (5), oorweeg en kan vir daardie doel bykomende getuienis oorweeg wat die hof gepas ag, met inbegrip van mondelinge getuienis of getuienis by wyse van beëdigde verklaring, wat deel van die oorkonde moet uitmaak.
+
+(b) Die verhoorhof kan, by die aanvoer van goeie gronde vir die wysiging of tersydestelling van die bevel, ’n bevel te dien effekte uitreik.
+
+(7) Die hof kan, vir doeleindes van subartikel $(6)(a)$ , op die voorgeskrewe vorm en wyse, enige persoon laat dagvaar as ’n getuie by daardie verrigtinge of om enige boek, dokument of voorwerp voor te lê, indien die getuienis van daardie persoon of boek, 55 dokument of voorwerp vir die hof noodsaaklik blyk te wees vir die regverdige beslissing van die saak.
+
+(8) Enige persoon wat ingevolge subartikel (7) gedagvaar word om verrigtinge by te woon en wat versuim om—
+
+(a) dit by te woon of teenwoordig te bly;
+
+36
+
+(b) appear at the place and on the date and at the time to which the proceedings in question may be adjourned; (c) remain in attendance at those proceedings as so adjourned; or (d) produce any book, document or object specified in the subpoena, is guilty of an offence.
+
+(9) For purposes of this section ‘‘trial court’’ means—
+
+(a) a magistrate’s court established under section 2(1)(f)(i) of the Magistrates’ Courts Act, 1944;
+(b) a court for a regional division established under section 2(1)(g)(i) of the Magistrates’ Courts Act, 1944; or 1
+(c) a High Court referred to in section 6(1) of the Superior Courts Act, 2013.
+
+(10) Whenever a person is convicted of an offence in terms of section 14, 15 or 16, the trial court must issue an order that the person must reimburse all expenses reasonably incurred by—
+
+(a) a complainant as a result of any direction issued in terms of section $21(1)(b)$ ; 1 or
+(b) an electronic communications service provider to remove or disable access to the data message in question,
+
+whereupon the provisions of section 300 of the Criminal Procedure Act, 1977, shall apply with the necessary changes required by the context, to such order. 20
+
+# Penalties
+
+23. Any person or electronic communications service provider that is convicted of an offence referred in section 20(9) or (10), 21(7) or 22(4) or (8), is liable on conviction to a fine or to imprisonment for a period not exceeding two years or to both a fine and such imprisonment.
+
+# CHAPTER 3
+
+# JURISDICTION
+
+# Jurisdiction
+
+24. (1) A court in the Republic has jurisdiction to try any offence referred to in Part I or Part II of Chapter 2, if— 30 (a) the accused was arrested in the territory of the Republic, on board a vessel, a ship, an off-shore installation or fixed platform, or an aircraft registered or required to be registered in the Republic;
+
+(b) the person to be charged is—
+
+(i) a citizen of the Republic or ordinary resident in the Republic; 3 (ii) a company, incorporated or registered as such under any law, in the Republic; or (iii) any body of persons, corporate or unincorporated, in the Republic;
+
+(c) the offence was committed—
+
+40
+
+(i) in the territory of the Republic; or
+(ii) on board a vessel, a ship, an off-shore installation, or a fixed platform, or an aircraft registered or required to be registered in the Republic at the time that the offence was committed;
+
+(d) any act in preparation of the offence or any action necessary to commit the offence or any part of the offence took place—
+
+(i) in the territory of the Republic; or
+(ii) on board a vessel, a ship, an off-shore installation or fixed platform, or an aircraft registered or required to be registered in the Republic at the time when the act, action or part of the offence took place;
+
+(e) the offence affects any person, a restricted computer system contemplated in 50 section $11(1)(b)$ , a public body or any business, in the Republic; $(f)$ the offence was committed outside of the Republic against—
+
+(i) any person who is a citizen of the Republic or ordinarily resident in the Republic;
+
+# 37
+
+(b) te verskyn by die plek en op die datum en tyd waarheen die betrokke verrigtinge verdaag kan word;
+(c) teenwoordig te bly by daardie verrigtinge aldus verdaag; of
+(d) enige boek, dokument of voorwerp in die dagvaarding gespesifiseer, voor te lê,
+
+is skuldig aan ’n misdryf.
+
+(9) By die toepassing van hierdie artikel beteken ‘‘verhoorhof’’—
+
+(a) ’n landdroshof ingestel kragtens artikel 2(1)(f)(i) van die Wet op Landdroshowe, 1944;
+(b) ’n hof vir ’n streeksafdeling ingestel kragtens artikel 2(1)(g)(i) van die Wet op 10 Landdroshowe, 1944; of
+(c) ’n Hooggeregshof bedoel in artikel 6(1) van die Wet op Hoër Howe, 2013.
+
+(10) Wanneer iemand aan ’n misdryf ingevolge artikel 14, 15 of 16 skuldig bevind word, moet die verhoorhof ’n bevel gee dat die persoon alle koste moet vergoed wat redelikerwys aangegaan is deur—
+
+15
+
+(a) ’n klaer na aanleiding van enige lasgewing ingevolge artikel $21(1)(b)$ uitgereik; of
+(b) ’n elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer om die betrokke databoodskap te verwyder of toegang tot die betrokke databoodskap te deaktiveer,
+
+waarop die bepalings van artikel 300 van die Strafproseswet, 1977, met die nodige 20 veranderinge deur die samehang vereis, daardie bevel van toepassing sal wees.
+
+# Strawwe
+
+23. Enige persoon of elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer wat aan ’n misdryf in artikel 20(9) of (10), 21(7) of 22(4) of (8) skuldig bevind word, is by skuldigbevinding strafbaar met ’n boete of met gevangenisstraf vir ’n tydperk van 25 hoogstens twee jaar of met ’n boete sowel as sodanige gevangenisstraf.
+
+# HOOFSTUK 3
+
+# JURISDIKSIE
+
+# Jurisdiksie
+
+24. (1) ’n Hof in die Republiek het jurisdiksie om enige misdryf in Deel I of Deel II 30 van Hoofstuk 2 te bereg, indien—
+
+(a) die beskuldigde gearresteer is binne die grondgebied van die Republiek, aan boord van ’n vaartuig, ’n skip, ’n aflandige installasie of vasstaande platform, of ’n lugvaartuig geregistreer of vereis om geregistreer te wees in die Republiek;
+
+(b) die persoon wat aangekla staan te word ’n—
+
+(i) burger van die Republiek is of gewoonlik in die Republiek woonagtig is; (ii) ’n maatskappy, as sodanig ingelyf of geregistreer kragtens enige wet, in die Republiek is; of (iii) enige liggaam van persone, ingelyf of oningelyf, in die Republiek is;
+
+40 ) die misdryf gepleeg is—
+
+(i) in die grondgebied van die Republiek; of
+(ii) aan boord van ’n vaartuig, ’n skip, ’n aflandige installasie of vaste platform, of ’n lugvaartuig geregistreer of vereis om geregistreer te wees in die Republiek toe die misdryf gepleeg is;
+
+(d) enige handeling ter voorbereiding van die misdryf of enige optrede nodig om die misdryf of enige deel van die misdryf te pleeg, plaasgevind het—
+
+(i) in die grondgebied van die Republiek; of
+(ii) aan boord van ’n vaartuig, ’n skip, ’n aflandige installasie of vaste platform, of ’n lugvaartuig geregistreer of vereis om geregistreer te wees 50 in die Republiek toe die handeling optrede, of deel van die misdryf plaasgevind het;
+
+(e) die misdryf enige persoon, ’n beperkte rekenaarstelsel beoog in artikel $11(1)(b)$ , ’n openbare liggaam of enige besigheid in die Republiek raak;
+
+$(f)$ die misdryf buite die Republiek gepleeg is teen— (i) enige persoon wat $\mathbf{\chi}_{\mathrm{n}}^{\prime}$ burger van die Republiek is of gewoonlik in die Republiek woonagtig is;
+
+38
+
+(ii) a restricted computer system contemplated in section $11(1)(b)$ ;
+(iii) a company, incorporated or registered as such under any law, in the Republic;
+(iv) any body of persons, corporate or unincorporated, in the Republic; or
+(v) a government facility of the Republic, including an embassy or other 5 diplomatic or consular premises, or any other property of the Republic; or
+the evidence reveals any other basis recognised by law in terms of which the
+court may assert jurisdiction to try the offence.
+
+(2) Any act alleged to constitute an offence referred to in Part I or Part II of 10 Chapter 2 and which is committed outside the Republic by a person other than a person contemplated in subsection (1), must, regardless of whether or not the act constitutes an offence at the place of its commission, be deemed to have been committed in the Republic if—
+
+15
+
+(a) that person is extradited to the Republic; or
+$(b)$ that person— (i) is found to be in the Republic; and (ii) is for one or other reason not extradited by the Republic or if there is no application to extradite the person.
+
+(3) Where a person is charged with attempting, conspiring, aiding, abetting, inducing, 20 inciting, instigating, instructing, commanding or procuring to commit an offence or as an accessory after the offence, the offence is deemed to have been committed not only at the place where the act was committed, but also at every place where the person so acted.
+
+(4) (a) A prosecution of an offence referred to in Part I or Part II of Chapter 2, which 25 was committed outside the Republic—
+
+(i) may only be instituted against a person with the written permission of the National Director of Public Prosecutions; and
+(ii) must commence before a court designated by the National Director of Public Prosecutions.
+
+(b) The accused must be served with a copy of the written permission and designation and the original thereof must be handed in at the court in which the proceedings are to commence.
+
+(5) The National Commissioner and the National Head of the Directorate, in consultation with the National Director of Public Prosecutions, must issue directives, 35 with which all police officials must comply in the execution of their functions in terms of this Act, regarding the investigation of offences that were committed outside the Republic.
+
+# CHAPTER 4
+
+# POWERS TO INVESTIGATE, SEARCH, ACCESS OR SEIZE
+
+# Definitions
+
+25. In this Chapter, unless the context indicates otherwise— ‘‘access’’ includes without limitation to make use of—
+
+(a) a computer data storage medium, or a computer system, or their accessories and components or any part thereof or any ancillary device or component 45 thereto; and
+(b) data or a computer program held in a computer data storage medium or a computer system,
+
+o the extent necessary to search for and seize an article;
+
+‘‘investigator’’ means any fit and proper person, who is not a member of the South 50 African Police Service and who is—
+
+(a) identified and authorised in terms of a search warrant as contemplated in section 29(3); or (b) requested by a police official in terms of section 31(2), 32(3) or 33(4),
+
+to, subject to the direction and control of a police official, assist the police official with 55
+the search for, access or seizure of an article; and
+‘‘seize’’ includes to—
+
+39
+
+(ii) ’n beperkte rekenaarstelsel in artikel $11(1)(b)$ beoog;
+(iii) ’n maatskappy, as sodanig ingelyf of geregistreer kragtens enige wet, in die Republiek;
+(iv) enige liggaam persone, ingelyf of oningelyf, in die Republiek; of
+(v) ’n regeringsfasiliteit van die Republiek, met inbegrip van ’n ambassade 5 of ander diplomatieke of konsulêre perseel, of enige ander perseel van die Republiek; of
+
+(g) die getuienis enige ander grondslag deur die reg erken, openbaar, ingevolge waarvan die hof jurisdiksie kan vestig om die misdryf te verhoor.
+
+(2) Enige handeling wat na bewering ’n misdryf ingevolge Deel I of Deel II van 10 Hoofstuk 2 daarstel en wat buite die Republiek gepleeg is deur ’n persoon, behalwe ’n persoon in subartikel (1) beoog, moet, ongeag of die handeling by die plek waar dit gepleeg is ’n misdryf daarstel, al dan nie, geag word in die Republiek gepleeg te wees indien—
+
+15
+
+(a) daardie persoon aan die Republiek uitgelewer word; of
+(b) daardie persoon— (i) in die Republiek gevind word; en (ii) om een of ander rede nie deur die Republiek uitgelewer word nie of indien daar geen aansoek is om die persoon uit te lewer nie.
+
+(3) Waar ’n persoon aangekla word van poging, sameswering, hulpverlening, 20 aanstigting, uitlokking, aanhitsing, aanmoediging, aanraaiing, bevel, raadgewing of verkryging om ’n misdryf te pleeg of as ’n begunstiger by daardie misdryf, word die misdryf geag gepleeg te wees nie slegs by die plek waar die handeling gepleeg is nie, maar ook by elke plek waar die persoon as sodanig opgetree het.
+
+(4) (a) ’n Vervolging van ’n misdryf bedoel in Deel I of Deel II van Hoofstuk 2, wat 25 buite die Republiek gepleeg is—
+
+(i) kan slegs teen ’n persoon ingestel word met die skriftelike toestemming van die Nasionale Direkteur van Openbare Vervolging; en
+(ii) moet ’n aanvang neem voor ’n hof deur die Nasionale Direkteur vir Openbare Vervolging aangewys.
+
+(b) ’n Afskrif van die skriftelike toestemming en aanwysing moet aan die beskuldigde beteken word en die oorspronklike daarvan moet by die hof waar die verrigtinge ’n aanvang neem, ingedien word.
+
+(5) Die Nasionale Kommissaris en die Nasionale Hoof van die Direktoraat, in oorleg met die Nasionale Direkteur van Openbare Vervolging, moet voorskrifte uitreik, 35 waaraan alle polisiebeamptes in die uitvoering van hul werksaamhede ingevolge hierdie Wet rakende die ondersoek van misdrywe wat buite die Republiek gepleeg is, moet voldoen.
+
+# HOOFSTUK 4
+
+# BEVOEGDHEDE VAN ONDERSOEK, DEURSOEKING, TOEGANG OF 40BESLAGLEGGING
+
+# Woordomskrywing
+
+25. In hierdie Hoofstuk, tensy uit die samehang anders blyk, beteken— ‘‘beslag lê’’ ook om—
+
+(a) ’n rekenaardatabergingsmedium of enige deel van ’n rekenaarstelsel te 45 verwyder;
+(b) data, ’n rekenaarprogram, ’n rekenaardatabergingsmedium of enige deel van ’n rekenaarstelsel ontoeganklik te maak ten einde getuienis te bewaar;
+(c) ’n kopie van data of ’n rekenaarprogram te maak en te behou; of
+(d) ’n drukstuk van die uitset van data of ’n rekenaarprogram te maak en te hou; 50
+
+‘‘ondersoeker’’ enige gepaste en geskikte persoon, wat nie ’n lid van die SuidAfrikaanse Polisiediens is nie, en wat—
+
+(a) ingevolge ’n deursoekingslasbrief in artikel 29(3) beoog, geïdentifiseer en gemagtig is; of (b) ingevolge artikel 31(2), 32(3) of 33(4) deur ’n polisiebeampte versoek is, om, onderworpe aan die leiding en beheer van ’n polisiebeampte, die polisiebeampte by te staan met die deursoeking vir, toegang tot en beslaglegging op ’n item; en ‘‘toegang’’ ook om sonder beperking gebruik te maak van—
+
+40
+
+(a) remove a computer data storage medium or any part of a computer system; (b) render inaccessible, data, a computer program, a computer data storage medium or any part of a computer system in order to preserve evidence; (c) make and retain a copy of data or a computer program; or (d) make and retain a printout of the output of data or a computer program.
+
+# Standard Operating Procedures
+
+26. (1) The Cabinet member responsible for policing, in consultation with the National Commissioner, the National Head of the Directorate, the National Director of Public Prosecutions and the Cabinet member responsible for the administration of justice must, after following a process of public consultation, within 12 months of the 10 commencement of this Chapter, issue Standard Operating Procedures which must be observed by—
+
+(a) the South African Police Service; or (b) any other person or agency who or which is authorised in terms of the provisions of any other law to investigate any offence in terms of any law, 15 in the investigation of any offence or suspected offence in terms of Part I or Part II of Chapter 2 or any other offence or suspected offence which may be committed by means of, or facilitated through the use of, an article.
+
+(2) The Standard Operating Procedures referred to in subsection (1) and any amendment thereto must be published in the Gazette.
+
+20
+
+# Application of Criminal Procedure Act, 1977
+
+27. The Criminal Procedure Act, 1977, applies in addition to the provisions of this Chapter in so far that it is not inconsistent with the provisions of this Chapter.
+
+# Search for, access to, or seizure of certain articles
+
+28. A police official may, in accordance with the provisions of this Chapter, search for, 25 access or seize any article, within the Republic.
+
+# Article to be searched for, accessed or seized under search warrant
+
+29. (1) Subject to the provisions of sections 31, 32, 33 and 40(1) and (2) of this Act, section 4(3) of the Customs and Excise Act, 1964, sections $69(2)(b)$ and 71 of the Tax Administration Act, 2011, and section 21(e) and $(f)$ of the Customs Control Act, 2014, 30 an article can only be searched for, accessed or seized by virtue of a search warrant issued—
+
+(a) by a magistrate or judge of the High Court, on written application by a police official, if it appears to the magistrate or judge, from information on oath or by way of affirmation, as set out in the application, that there are reasonable 35 grounds for believing that an article— (i) is within their area of jurisdiction; or (ii) is being used or is involved or has been used or was involved in the commission of an offence— (aa) within their area of jurisdiction; or 40 (bb) within the Republic, if it is unsure within which area of jurisdiction the article is being used or is involved or has been used or was involved in the commission of an offence; or
+
+(b) by a magistrate or judge of the High Court presiding at criminal proceedings, if it appears to such magistrate or judge that an article is required in evidence 45 at such proceedings.
+
+(2) A search warrant issued under subsection (1) must require a police official identified in the warrant to search for, access or seize the article in question and, to that end, must authorise the police official to—
+
+(a) search any person identified in the warrant;
+
+41
+
+(a) ’n rekenaardatabergingsmedium, of ’n rekenaarstelsel, of die toebehore en komponente of enige deel daarvan of enige bykomstige toestel of komponent daartoe; en
+(b) data of ’n rekenaarprogram gehou in ’n rekenaardatabergingsmedium of ’n rekenaarstelsel,
+
+vir sover dit nodig is om te deursoek vir en beslag te lê op ’n item.
+
+# Standaardbedryfsprosedures
+
+26. (1) Die Kabinetslid verantwoordelik vir polisiëring, in oorleg met die Nasionale Kommissaris, die Nasionale Hoof van die Direktoraat, die Nasionale Direkteur van Openbare Vervolging en die Kabinetslid verantwoordelik vir die regspleging moet, na 10 afloop van ’n proses van openbare oorlegpleging, binne 12 maande vanaf die inwerkingtreding van hierdie Hoofstuk, Standaardbedryfsprosedures uitreik wat nagekom moet word deur—
+
+(a) die Suid-Afrikaanse Polisiediens; of $(b)$ enige ander persoon of agentskap wat ingevolge die bepalings van enige ander 15 wet gemagtig is om enige misdryf ingevolge enige wet te ondersoek, in die ondersoek van enige misdryf of vermeende misdryf ingevolge Deel I of Deel II van Hoofstuk 2 of enige ander misdryf of vermeende misdryf wat gepleeg is by wyse van, of gefasiliteer is deur die gebruik van, ’n item. (2) Die Standaardbedryfsprosedures in subartikel (1) bedoel en enige wysiging 20 daartoe moet in die Staatskoerant gepubliseer word.
+
+# Toepassing van bepalings van Strafproseswet, 1977
+
+27. Die Strafproseswet, 1977, is van toepassing addisioneel tot die bepalings van hierdie Hoofstuk, vir sover dit nie onbestaanbaar is met die bepalings van hierdie Hoofstuk nie.
+
+# Deursoeking vir, toegang tot, of beslaglegging op sekere items
+
+28. ’n Polisiebeampte kan, ooreenkomstig die bepalings van hierdie Hoofstuk, deursoek vir, toegang kry tot en beslag lê op enige item, binne die Republiek.
+
+# Deursoeking vir, toegang tot en beslaglegging op item kragtens deursoekingslasbrief
+
+29. (1) Behoudens die bepalings van artikels 31, 32, 33 en 40(1) en (2) van hierdie Wet, artikel 4(3) van die Doeane- en Aksynswet, 1964, artikels 69(2)(b) en 71 van die Wet op Belastingadministrasie, 2011, en artikel 21(e) en $(f)$ van die Wet op Doeanebeheer, 2014, kan deursoeking vir, toegang kry tot, of beslaglegging op, ’n item slegs plaasvind uit hoofde van ’n deursoekingsslasbrief uitgereik—
+
+35
+
+40
+
+(a) deur ’n landdros of regter van die Hooggeregshof, by skriftelike aansoek deur ’n polisiebeampte, indien dit vir die landdros of regter uit inligting onder eed of by wyse van plegtige verklaring, soos in die aansoek uiteengesit, blyk dat daar redelike gronde is om te glo dat ’n item— (i) binne hul regsgebied is; of (ii) gebruik word of betrokke is of gebruik is of betrokke was in die pleging van ’n misdryf— (aa) binne hul regsgebied; of (bb) binne die Republiek, indien dit onseker is binne watter regsgebied die item gebruik word of betrokke is of gebruik is of betrokke was 4 in die pleging van ’n misdryf; of
+
+(b) deur ’n landdros of regter van die Hooggeregshof wat by strafregtelike verrigtinge voorsit, indien dit vir daardie landdros of regter blyk dat ’n item as getuienis by bedoelde verrigtinge benodig word.
+
+(2) ’n Deursoekingslasbrief ingevolge subartikel (1) uitgereik, moet ’n 50 polisiebeampte in die lasbrief geïdentifiseer gelas om te deursoek vir, toegang te kry tot of beslag te lê op die betrokke item en, vir daardie doel, moet dit die polisiebeampte magtig om—
+
+(a) enige persoon in die lasbrief geïdentifiseer, te deursoek;
+
+(b) enter and search any container, premises, vehicle, facility, ship or aircraft identified in the warrant; (c) search any person who is believed, on reasonable grounds, to be able to furnish any information of material importance concerning the matter under investigation and who is found near such container, on or at such premises, 5 vehicle, facility, ship or aircraft; (d) search any person who is believed, on reasonable grounds, to be able to furnish any information of material importance concerning the matter under investigation and who— (i) is nearby; (ii) uses; or (iii) is in possession or in direct control of, any data, computer program, computer data storage medium or computer system identified in the warrant to the extent set out in the warrant; search for any article identified in the warrant to the extent set out in the 15 warrant; $(f)$ access an article identified in the warrant to the extent set out in the warrant; seize an article identified in the warrant to the extent set out in the warrant; or (h) use or obtain and use any instrument, device, equipment, password, decryption key, data, computer program, computer data storage medium or 20 computer system or other information that is believed, on reasonable grounds, to be necessary to search for, access or seize an article identified in the warrant to the extent set out in the warrant. (3) A search warrant issued under subsection (1) may require an investigator or other person identified in the warrant to assist the police official identified in the warrant, with 25 the search for, access or seizure of the article in question, to the extent set out in the warrant. (4) (a) A search warrant may be executed at any time, unless the person issuing the warrant in writing specifies otherwise. (b) A search warrant may be issued on any day and is of force until it is executed or 30 is cancelled by the person who issued it or, if such person is not available, by a person with like authority. (5) A police official who executes a warrant under this section must hand to any person whose rights in respect of any search, or article accessed or seized under the warrant have been affected, a copy of the warrant and the written application of the 35 police official contemplated in subsection $(1)(a)$ . (6) The provisions of subsections (1) to (5) apply with the changes required by the context to an amendment of a warrant issued in terms of subsection (1).
+
+# Oral application for search warrant or amendment of warrant
+
+30. (1) An application referred to in section $29(1)(a)$ , or an application for the 40 amendment of a warrant issued in terms of section $29(1)(a)$ , may be made orally by a specifically designated police official, if it is not reasonably practicable, having regard to the urgency of the case or the existence of exceptional circumstances, to make a written application.
+
+(2) An oral application referred to in subsection (1) must—
+
+(a) indicate the particulars of the urgency of the case or the other exceptional circumstances which, in the opinion of the police official, justify the making of an oral application; and
+(b) comply with any supplementary directives relating to oral applications which may be issued by the Chief Justice in terms of section 8(3) of the Superior 5 Courts Act, 2013.
+
+(3) A magistrate or judge of the High Court may, upon an oral application made to them in terms of subsection (1) and subject to subsection (4), issue a warrant or amend a warrant as contemplated in section $29(1)(a)$ .
+
+(b) enige houer, perseel, voertuig, fasiliteit, skip of lugvaartuig in die lasbrief geïdentifiseer, te betree en te deursoek;
+(c) enige persoon te deursoek wat, op redelike gronde, geglo word in staat is om enige inligting van wesenlike belang aangaande die aangeleentheid wat ondersoek word, te voorsien en wat naby sodanige houer, op of by sodanige 5 perseel, voertuig, fasiliteit, skip of lugvaartuig gevind word;
+(d) enige persoon te deursoek wat, op redelike gronde, geglo word in staat is om enige inligting van wesenlike belang te voorsien aangaande die aangeleentheid wat ondersoek word en wat— (i) in die nabyheid is; (ii) gebruik maak; of (iii) in besit of in direkte beheer is, van enige data, rekenaarprogram, rekenaardatabergingsmedium of rekenaarstelsel in die lasbrief geïdentifiseer, tot die mate in die lasbrief uiteengesit;
+(e) te deursoek vir enige item in die lasbrief geïdentifiseer tot die mate in die 15 lasbrief uiteengesit;
+$(f)$ toegang te kry tot enige item in die lasbrief geïdentifiseer tot die mate in die lasbrief uiteengesit; beslag te lê op ’n item in die lasbrief geïdentifiseer tot die mate in die lasbrief uiteengesit; of 20
+(h) enige instrument, toestel, toerusting, wagwoord, dekripteringsleutel, data, rekenaarprogram, rekenaardatabergingsmedium of rekenaarstelsel of ander inligting gebruik of verkry en gebruik wat, op redelike gronde, vermoed word nodig is om te deursoek vir, toegang te kry tot of beslag te lê op ’n item in die lasbrief geïdentifiseer tot die mate in die lasbrief uiteengesit. 25
+
+(3) ’n Deursoekingslasbrief kragtens subartikel (1) uitgereik, kan vereis dat ’n ondersoeker of ander persoon in die lasbrief geïdentifiseer, die polisiebeampte in die lasbrief geïdentifiseer, bystaan in die deursoeking vir, toegang kry tot of beslaglegging op die betrokke item, tot die mate in die lasbrief uiteengesit.
+
+(4) (a) ’n Deursoekingslasbrief kan te eniger tyd uitgevoer word, tensy die persoon 30 wat die lasbrief uitreik skriftelik anders spesifiseer.
+
+(b) ’n Deursoekingslasbrief kan op enige dag uitgereik word en is van krag totdat dit uitgevoer is of deur die persoon wat dit uitgereik het, of indien daardie persoon nie beskikbaar is nie, deur ’n persoon met soortgelyke gesag, gekanselleer word.
+
+(5) ’n Polisiebeampte wat ’n lasbrief kragtens hierdie artikel uitvoer, moet ’n afskrif 35 van die lasbrief en die skriftelike aansoek van die polisiebeampte beoog in subartikel $(1)(a)$ , oorhandig aan enige persoon wie se regte geraak is ten opsigte van enige deursoeking, of item waartoe toegang gekry is of waarop beslag gelê is kragtens die lasbrief.
+
+(6) Die bepalings van subartikels (1) tot (5) is van toepassing met die veranderinge 40 deur die samehang vereis op ’n wysiging van ’n lasbrief ingevolge subartikel (1) uitgereik.
+
+# Mondelinge aansoek om deursoekingslasbrief of wysiging van lasbrief
+
+30. (1) ’n Aansoek in artikel $29(1)(a)$ bedoel, of ’n aansoek om die wysiging van ’n lasbrief ingevolge artikel 29(1)(a) uitgereik, kan mondeling deur ’n spesifiek aangewese 45 polisiebeampte gedoen word, indien dit nie redelikerwys prakties is, met inagneming van die dringendheid van die saak of die bestaan van buitengewone omstandighede, om ’n skriftelike aansoek te bring nie.
+
+(2) ’n Mondelinge aansoek in subartikel (1) bedoel, moet—
+
+(a) die besonderhede van die dringendheid van die saak of die ander 50 buitengewone omstandighede aandui wat, na mening van die polisiebeampte, die doen van ’n mondelinge aansoek regverdig; en
+(b) voldoen aan enige aanvullende voorskrifte aangaande mondelinge aansoeke wat ingevolge artikel 8(3) van die Wet op Hoër Howe, 2013, deur die Hoofregter uitgereik kan word.
+
+(3) ’n Landdros of regter van die Hooggeregshof kan, by die bring van ’n mondelinge aansoek ingevolge subartikel (1) en behoudens subartikel (4), ’n lasbrief beoog in artikel $29(1)(a)$ uitreik of wysig.
+
+44
+
+(4) A warrant or any amendment to a warrant may only be issued under subsection (3)—
+
+(a) if the magistrate or judge of the High Court concerned is satisfied, on the facts alleged in the oral application concerned, that—
+
+there are reasonable grounds to believe that a warrant or any amendment 5 to a warrant applied for could be issued; (ii) a warrant or an amendment to a warrant is necessary immediately in order to search for, access or seize an article— (aa) within their area of jurisdiction; or (bb) within the Republic, if it is unsure within which area of jurisdiction 10 the article is being used or is involved or has been used or was involved in the commission of an offence; and
+
+(iii) it is not reasonably practicable, having regard to the urgency of the case or the existence of exceptional circumstances, to make a written application for the issuing of a warrant or to amend a warrant; and
+
+(b) on condition that the police official concerned must submit a written application to the magistrate or judge of the High Court concerned within 48 hours after the issuing of the warrant or amended warrant under subsection (3).
+
+(5) A warrant or any amendment to a warrant issued under subsection (3) must— 20 (a) be in writing; (b) be transmitted electronically to the police official or be provided to the specifically designated police official; and (c) contain a summary of the facts which were considered and the grounds upon which the warrant was issued. 25
+
+(6) A magistrate or judge of the High Court who has issued a warrant or amended a warrant under subsection (3) or, if unavailable, any other magistrate or judge of the High Court must, upon receipt of a written application in terms of subsection $(4)(b)$ , reconsider that application whereupon they may confirm, amend or cancel that warrant.
+
+(7) A magistrate or judge of the High Court contemplated in subsection (6), who 30 amends or cancels the warrant, must make an order they deem fit on how any article which is affected by their decision is to be dealt with.
+
+# Search for, access to, or seizure of article without search warrant with consent of person who has lawful authority to consent
+
+31. (1) Any police official may, without a search warrant, execute the powers referred 35 to in section 29(2), subject to any other law, if the person who has the lawful authority to consent to the search for, access to, or seizure of the article in question, consents, in writing, to such search, access or seizure.
+
+(2) A police official acting in terms of subsection (1), may, subject to the lawful consent, in writing, of the person who has the lawful authority to consent, in writing 40 authorise an investigator to assist them with the search for, access to, or seizure of the article in question.
+
+# Search for, access to, or seizure of article involved in the commission of an offence without search warrant
+
+32. (1) A police official may without a search warrant referred to in section $29(1)(a)$ 45 search any person, container, premises, vehicle, facility, ship or aircraft for the purposes of performing the powers referred to in paragraphs $(a)$ and $(b)$ of the definition of ‘‘seize’’ in respect of a computer data storage medium or any part of a computer system referred to in paragraph (c) or $(d)$ of the definition of ‘‘article’’, if the police official on reasonable grounds believes—
+
+(a) that a search warrant will be issued to them under section $29(1)(a)$ if they apply for such warrant; and
+(b) that the delay in obtaining such warrant would defeat the object of the search and seizure.
+
+45
+
+(4) ’n Lasbrief of enige wysiging aan ’n lasbrief kan slegs kragtens subartikel (3) uitgereik word—
+
+(a) indien die landdros of regter van die betrokke Hooggeregshof, op grond van die feite in die betrokke mondelinge aansoek aangevoer, oortuig is dat—
+
+daar redelike gronde is om te glo dat ’n lasbrief of enige wysiging van ’n 5 lasbrief waarom aansoek gedoen is, uitgereik kan word;
+(ii) ’n lasbrief of ’n wysiging van ’n lasbrief onmiddellik noodsaaklik is ten einde te deursoek vir, toegang te kry tot of beslag te lê op ’n item— (aa) binne hul regsgebied; of (bb) binne die Republiek, indien hulle onseker is binne watter 10 regsgebied die item gebruik word of betrokke is in die pleging van ’n misdryf; en
+(iii) dit nie redelik moontlik is, met inagneming van die dringendheid van die saak of die bestaan van buitengewone omstandighede, om ’n skriftelike aansoek te bring vir die uitreiking van ’n lasbrief of om ’n lasbrief te 15 wysig nie; en
+
+(b) op voorwaarde dat die betrokke polisiebeampte ’n skriftelike aansoek aan die betrokke landdros of regter van die Hooggeregshof binne 48 uur ná die uitreiking van die lasbrief of gewysigde lasbrief kragtens subartikel (3), moet voorlê.
+
+(5) ’n Lasbrief of enige wysiging van ’n lasbrief kragtens subartikel (3) uitgereik, moet—
+
+(a) skriftelik wees;
+(b) elektronies aan die polisiebeampte gestuur word of aan die spesifiek aangewese polisiebeampte voorsien word; en
+(c) ’n opsomming bevat van die feite wat oorweeg is en die gronde waarop die lasbrief uitgereik is.
+
+(6) ’n Landdros of regter van die Hooggeregshof wat ’n lasbrief uitgereik het of ’n lasbrief gewysig het kragtens subartikel (3) of, indien hulle nie beskikbaar is nie, enige ander landdros of regter van die Hooggeregshof, moet by ontvangs van ’n skriftelike aansoek ingevolge subartikel $(4)(b)$ , daardie aansoek heroorweeg, waarna hulle daardie lasbrief kan bevestig, wysig of kanselleer.
+
+(7) ’n Landdros of regter van die Hooggeregshof in subartikel (6) beoog, wat die lasbrief wysig of kanselleer, moet ’n bevel gee wat hulle gepas ag, oor hoe enige item wat deur hul beslissing geraak word, hanteer moet word.
+
+# Deursoeking vir, toegang tot, of beslaglegging op item sonder deursoekingslasbrief met toestemming van persoon met wettige magtiging om toe te stem
+
+31. (1) Enige polisiebeampte kan, sonder ’n deursoekingslasbrief, die bevoegdhede bedoel in artikel 29(2) uitoefen, behoudens enige ander wetsbepaling, indien die persoon wat wettige magtiging het om toe te stem tot die deursoeking vir, toegang tot of 40 beslaglegging op die betrokke item, skriftelik toestem tot sodanige deursoeking, toegang of beslaglegging.
+
+(2) ’n Polisiebeampte wat ingevolge subartikel (1) optree kan, behoudens die regmatige skriftelike toestemming van die persoon wat wettige magtiging het om toestemming te verleen, ’n ondersoeker skriftelik magtig om hulle by te staan met die 45 deursoeking vir, toegang tot of beslaglegging op die betrokke item.
+
+# Deursoeking vir, toegang tot of beslaglegging op item betrokke in pleging van misdryf sonder deursoekingslasbrief
+
+32. (1) ’n Polisiebeampte kan sonder ’n deursoekingslasbrief in artikel $29(1)(a)$ bedoel, enige persoon, houer, perseel, voertuig, fasiliteit, skip of lugvaartuig deursoek 50 met die doel om die bevoegdhede in paragrawe (a) en $(b)$ van die omskrywing van ‘‘beslag lê’’ uit te oefen ten opsigte van ’n rekenaardatabergingsmedium of enige deel van ’n rekenaarstelsel bedoel in paragraaf (c) of $(d)$ van die omskrywing van ‘‘item’’, indien die polisiebeampte op redelike gronde glo—
+
+(a) dat ’n deursoekingslasbrief kragtens artikel $29(1)(a)$ aan hulle uitgereik sal 5 word indien hulle om daardie lasbrief aansoek doen; en
+(b) dat die vertraging in die verkryging van sodanige lasbrief die oogmerk van die deursoeking en beslaglegging sal verydel.
+
+(2) A police official may only access or perform the powers referred to in paragraphs (c) or $(d)$ of the definition of ‘‘seize’’, in respect of the computer data storage medium or a computer system referred to in subsection (1), in accordance with a search warrant issued in terms of section $29(1)(a)$ : Provided that a police official may, if they on reasonable grounds believe—
+
+(a) that a search warrant will be issued to them under section $29(1)(a)$ if they apply for such warrant; and
+(b) it is not reasonably practicable, having regard to the urgency of the case or the existence of exceptional circumstances, to make a written or oral application for a search warrant,
+
+access and perform the powers referred to in paragraph $(c)$ or $(d)$ of the definition of ‘‘seize’’ without a search warrant.
+
+(3) An investigator authorised in writing by a police official may assist the police official to seize an article as contemplated subsections (1) and (2) and to access the article as contemplated in subsection (2).
+
+# Search for, access to, or seizure of article on arrest of person
+
+33. (1) A police official may without a warrant, as contemplated in section 40 of the Criminal Procedure Act, 1977, arrest any person—
+
+(a) who commits any offence in terms of Part I or Part II of Chapter 2 in their presence; 2
+(b) whom they reasonably suspect of having committed any offence in terms of Part I and part II of Chapter 2; or who is concerned with or against whom a reasonable complaint has been made or credible information has been received or a reasonable suspicion exists that they have been concerned with an offence— (i) similar to those contemplated in Part I or Part II of Chapter 2; or (ii) substantially similar to an offence recognised in the Republic, which may be committed by means of, or facilitated through the use of, an article, in a foreign State, and for which they are, under any law relating to extradition
+
+or fugitive offenders, liable to be arrested or detained in custody in the 30 Republic.
+
+(2) On the arrest of a person contemplated in subsection (1) or in terms of section 40 or 43 of the Criminal Procedure Act, 1977, a police official may search for and perform the powers referred to in paragraphs (a) and $(b)$ of the definition of ‘‘seize’’ in respect of a computer data storage medium or any part of a computer system referred to in paragraph (c) or $(d)$ of the definition of ‘‘article’’, which is found in the possession of or in the custody or under the control of the person.
+
+(3) A police official may only access or perform the powers referred to in paragraph (c) or (d) of the definition of ‘‘seize’’, in respect of a computer data storage medium or a computer system referred to in subsection (2), in accordance with a search warrant 40 issued in terms of section $29(1)(a)$ : Provided that a police official may, if they on reasonable grounds believe—
+
+(a) that a search warrant will be issued to them under section $29(1)(a)$ , if they apply for such warrant; and
+(b) it is not reasonably practicable, having regard to the urgency of the case or the 45 existence of exceptional circumstances, to make a written or oral application for a search warrant,
+
+access and perform the powers referred to in paragraph (c) and $(d)$ of the definition of ‘‘seize’’ without a search warrant.
+
+(4) An investigator authorised in writing by a police official may assist the police 50 official to seize an article as contemplated subsections (2) and (3) and to access the article as contemplated in subsection (3).
+
+# Assisting police official or investigator
+
+34. (1) An electronic communications service provider, financial institution or person, other than the person who is suspected of having committed the offence which is being 55 investigated, who is in control of any container, premises, vehicle, facility, ship, aircraft,
+
+(2) ’n Polisiebeampte kan slegs toegang kry of die bevoegdhede in paragrawe (c) of (d) van die omskrywing van ‘‘beslag $\mathbf{l}\hat{\mathbf{e}}^{,,,}$ uitoefen, ten opsigte van die rekenaardatabergingsmedium of rekenaarstelsel in subartikel (1) bedoel, ooreenkomstig ’n deursoekingslasbrief ingevolge artikel $29(1)(a)$ uitgereik: Met dien verstande dat ’n polisiebeampte kan, as hulle op redelike gronde glo—
+
+(a) dat ’n deursoekingslasbrief kragtens artikel $29(1)(a)$ aan hulle uitgereik sal word as hulle om so ’n lasbrief aansoek doen; en
+(b) dat dit nie redelikerwys moontlik is, met inagneming van die dringendheid van die saak of die bestaan van buitengewone omstandighede, om ’n skriftelike of mondelinge aansoek om ’n lasbrief te doen nie,
+
+toegang kan kry en die bevoegdhede bedoel in paragraaf (c) of (d) van die omskrywing van ‘‘beslag $\mathbf{l}\hat{\mathbf{e}}^{,,,}$ kan uitoefen, sonder ’n deursoekingslasbrief.
+
+(3) ’n Ondersoeker wat skriftelik daartoe gemagtig is deur ’n polisiebeampte, kan die polisiebeampte bystaan in die beslaglegging op ’n item soos in subartikels (1) en (2) beoog en om toegang te kry tot die item soos in subartikel (2) beoog.
+
+# Deursoeking vir, toegang tot of beslaglegging op item by inhegtenisneming van persoon
+
+33. (1) ’n Polisiebeampte kan sonder ’n lasbrief, soos beoog in artikel 40 van die Strafproseswet, 1977, enigiemand in hegtenis neem—
+
+(a) wat enige misdryf ingevolge Deel I of Deel II van Hoofstuk 2 in hul 20 teenwoordigheid pleeg;
+(b) wat hul redelikerwys daarvan verdink dat hulle ’n misdryf ingevolge Deel I en Deel II van Hoofstuk 2 gepleeg het; of
+(c) wat betrokke is by of teen wie ’n redelike klagte gebring is of geloofwaardige inligting ontvang is of ’n redelike verdenking bestaan dat hulle betrokke was 25 by ’n misdryf— (i) soortgelyk aan die misdrywe in Deel I of Deel II van Hoofstuk 2 beoog; of (ii) wesenlik soortgelyk aan ’n misdryf in die Republiek erken, wat gepleeg kan word by wyse van, of gefasiliteer kan word deur die gebruik van, ’n 30 item, in ’n vreemde Staat, en waarvoor hulle, kragtens enige wetsbepaling in verband met uitlewering van voortvlugtige oortreders, in die Republiek gearresteer of in bewaring aangehou kan word.
+
+(2) By die inhegtenisneming van $\mathbf{\chi}_{\mathrm{n}}^{\prime}$ persoon in subartikel (1) beoog of ingevolge 35 artikel 40 of 43 van die Strafproseswet, 1977, kan ’n polisiebeampte deursoek vir en die bevoegdhede bedoel in paragrawe (a) en (b) van die omskrywing van ‘‘beslag lê’’ uitoefen ten opsigte van ’n rekenaardatabergingsmedium of enige deel van ’n rekenaarstelsel in paragraaf (c) of (d) van die omskrywing van ‘‘item’’ bedoel, wat in die besit van of in die bewaring of onder beheer van die persoon gevind word. 40
+
+(3) ’n Polisiebeampte kan slegs toegang kry of die bevoegdhede bedoel in paragraaf (c) of (d) van die omskrywing van ‘‘beslag lê’’ uitoefen, ten opsigte van ’n rekenaardatabergingsmedium of ’n rekenaarstelsel in subartikel (2) bedoel, ooreenkomstig ’n deursoekingslasbrief uitgereik ingevolge artikel $29(1)(a)$ : Met dien verstande dat ’n polisiebeampte, as hulle op redelike gronde glo—
+
+(a) dat ’n deursoekingslasbrief kragtens artikel $29(1)(a)$ aan hulle uitgereik sal word, as hulle om daardie lasbrief aansoek doen; en
+(b) dit nie redelikerwys moontlik is, met inagneming van die dringendheid van die saak of die bestaan van buitengewone omstandighede, om ’n skriftelike of mondelinge aansoek om ’n deursoekingslasbrief te doen nie,
+
+toegang kan kry en die bevoegdhede in paragrawe (c) en (d) van die omskrywing van ‘‘beslag lê’’ kan uitoefen sonder ’n deursoekingslasbrief.
+
+(4) ’n Ondersoeker wat skriftelik daartoe gemagtig is deur ’n polisiebeampte, kan die polisiebeampte bystaan in die beslaglegging op ’n item soos beoog in subartikels (2) en (3) en om toegang te kry tot die item soos in subartikel (3) beoog.
+
+# Bystand aan polisiebeampte of ondersoeker
+
+34. (1) ’n Elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer, finansiële instelling of persoon, anders as die persoon wat verdink word van die pleging van die misdryf wat ondersoek word, wat in beheer is van enige houer, perseel, voertuig, fasiliteit, skip, lugvaartuig, data, computer program, computer data storage medium or computer system that is subject to a search authorised in terms of section 29(1) must, if required, provide—
+
+(a) technical assistance; and (b) such other assistance as may be reasonably necessary, to a police official or investigator in order to search for, access or seize an article. (2) An electronic communications service provider, financial institution or person who fails to comply with the provisions of subsection (1), is guilty of an offence and is liable on conviction to a fine or imprisonment for a period not exceeding two years or to both a fine and such imprisonment.
+
+# Obstructing or hindering police official or investigator and authority to overcome 10 resistance
+
+35. (1) Any person who unlawfully and intentionally obstructs or hinders a police official or an investigator in the exercise of their powers or the performance of their duties or functions in terms of this Chapter or who refuses or fails to comply with a search warrant issued in terms of section 29(1), is guilty of an offence and is liable on 15 conviction to a fine or imprisonment for a period not exceeding two years or to both a fine and such imprisonment.
+
+(2) (a) A police official who may lawfully execute any power conferred upon them in terms of section 29(2), may use such force as may be— (i) reasonably necessary; and (ii) proportional to all the circumstances, relating to the execution of such powers.
+
+20
+
+(b) No police official may enter upon or search any premises, vehicle, facility, ship or aircraft unless they have audibly demanded admission to the premises, vehicle, facility, ship or aircraft and have notified the purpose of their entry.
+
+25
+
+(c) The provisions of paragraph (b) do not apply where the police official is, on reasonable grounds, of the opinion that an article which is the subject of the search may be destroyed, disposed of or tampered with if the provisions of paragraph $(b)$ are complied with.
+
+# Powers conferred upon police official or investigator to be conducted in decent and 30 orderly manner with due regard to rights of other persons
+
+36. (1) The powers conferred upon a police official or an investigator in terms of section 29(2), 31, 32 or 33, must be conducted—
+
+(a) with strict regard to decency and order; and
+(b) with due regard to the rights, responsibilities and legitimate interests of other 35 persons in proportion to the severity of the offence.
+
+(2) If a female needs to be searched physically in terms of section 29(2)(a), (c) or (d), 32 or 33, such search must be carried out by a police official who is also a female: Provided that if no female police official is available, the search must be carried out by any female designated for that purpose by a police official.
+
+# Wrongful search, access or seizure and restriction on use of instrument, device, password or decryption key or information to gain access
+
+37. (1) A police official or an investigator who unlawfully and intentionally— (a) acts contrary to the authority of—
+
+(i) a search warrant issued under section 29(1); or (ii) consent granted in terms of section 31(1); or (b) without being authorised thereto under this Chapter or the provision of any other law which affords similar powers to a police official or an investigator— (i) searches for, accesses or seizes data, a computer program, a computer data storage medium or any part of a computer system; or
+
+data, rekenaarprogram, rekenaardatabergingsmedium of rekenaarstelsel wat aan ’n deursoeking ingevolge artikel 29(1) gemagtig, onderwerp word, moet, indien dit vereis word—
+
+(a) tegniese bystand; en (b) sodanige ander bystand as wat redelikerwys nodig mag wees, aan ’n polisiebeampte of ondersoeker verleen ten einde te deursoek vir, toegang te kry tot of beslag te lê op ’n item. (2) ’n Elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer, finansiële instelling of persoon wat versuim om aan die bepalings van subartikel (1) te voldoen, is skuldig aan ’n misdryf en is by skuldigbevinding strafbaar met ’n boete of gevangenisstraf vir $\mathbf{\chi}_{\mathrm{n}}^{\prime}$ tydperk van 10 hoogstens twee jaar of met beide ’n boete en sodanige gevangenisstraf.
+
+# Dwarsboming of belemmering van polisiebeampte of ondersoeker en magtiging om weerstand te oorkom
+
+35. (1) Enige persoon wat wederregtelik en opsetlik ’n polisiebeampte of ’n ondersoeker dwarsboom of belemmer in die uitoefening van hul bevoegdhede of die 15 verrigting van hul pligte of werksaamhede ingevolge hierdie Hoofstuk of wat weier of versuim om te voldoen aan ’n deursoekingslasbrief uitgereik ingevolge artikel 29(1), is skuldig aan ’n misdryf en is by skuldigbevinding strafbaar met ’n boete of gevangenisstraf vir ’n tydperk van hoogstens twee jaar of met beide ’n boete en daardie gevangenisstraf. 20
+
+(2) (a) ’n Polisiebeampte wat wettig enige bevoegdheid ingevolge artikel 29(2) aan hulle opgedra, uitvoer, kan sodanige geweld gebruik wat—
+
+(i) redelikerwys nodig; en (ii) in verhouding tot al die omstandighede, is, in verband met die uitvoering van daardie bevoegdhede.
+
+(b) Geen polisiebeampte mag enige perseel, voertuig, fasiliteit, skip of lugvaartuig betree of deursoek nie tensy hul hoorbaar toelating tot die perseel, voertuig, fasiliteit, skip of lugvaartuig geëis het en die doel van hul betreding bekend gemaak het.
+
+(c) Die bepalings van paragraaf $(b)$ is nie van toepassing nie waar die polisiebeampte, op redelike gronde, van oordeel is dat ’n item ten opsigte waarvan die deursoeking 30 geskied, vernietig, weggedoen of mee gepeuter kan word indien die bepalings van paragraaf (b) nagekom word.
+
+# Bevoegdhede aan polisiebeampte of ondersoeker opgedra moet op welvoeglike en ordelike wyse uitgevoer word met behoorlike inagneming van regte van ander persone
+
+36. (1) Die bevoegdhede aan ’n polisiebeampte of ’n ondersoeker opgedra ingevolge artikel 29(2), 31, 32 of 33, moet uitgevoer word—
+
+(a) met streng behoud van welvoeglikheid en orde; en (b) met behoorlike inagneming van die regte, verantwoordelikhede en regmatige belange van ander persone in verhouding tot die erns van die misdryf.
+
+(2) Indien ’n vrou ingevolge artikel 29(2)(a), (c) of (d), 32 of 33, fisiek deursoek moet word, moet daardie deursoeking deur ’n polisiebeampte wat ook ’n vrou is, gedoen word: Met dien verstande dat indien geen vroulike polisiebeampte beskikbaar is nie, die deursoeking deur enige vrou vir daardie doel deur ’n polisiebeampte aangewys, gedoen moet word.
+
+# Wederregtelike deursoeking, toegang of beslaglegging en beperking op gebruik van instrument, toestel, wagwoord of dekripteringsleutel of inligting om toegang te kry
+
+37. (1) ’n Polisiebeampte of ’n ondersoeker wat wederregtelik en opsetlik— (a) strydig optree met die magtiging van— (i) ’n deursoekingslasbrief kragtens artikel 29(1) uitgereik; of (ii) toestemming ingevolge artikel 31(1) gegee; of (b) sonder om gemagtig te wees kragtens hierdie Hoofstuk of die bepaling van enige ander wet wat soortgelyke bevoegdhede aan ’n polisiebeampte of ’n ondersoeker verleen— (i) deursoek vir, toegang kry tot of beslag lê op data, ’n rekenaarprogram, ’n rekenaardatabergingsmedium of enige deel van van ’n rekenaarstelsel; of
+
+50
+
+(ii) obtains or uses any instrument, device, password, decryption key or other information that is necessary to access data, a computer program, a computer data storage medium or any part of a computer system,
+
+is guilty of an offence.
+
+(2) (a) A police official or an investigator who obtains or uses any instrument, device, equipment, password, decryption key, data or other information contemplated in section 29(2)(h)—
+
+(i) must use the instrument, device, equipment, password, decryption key, data or information only in respect of and to the extent specified in the warrant to gain access to or use data, a computer program, a computer data storage medium or 10 any part of a computer system in the manner and for the purposes specified in the search warrant concerned; and
+
+(ii) must destroy all passwords, decryption keys, data or other information if— (aa) it is not required by a person who may lawfully possess the passwords, decryption keys, data or other information; 15 (bb) it will not be required for purposes of any criminal proceedings or civil proceedings contemplated in Chapter 5 or 6 of the Prevention of Organised Crime Act, 1998, or for purposes of evidence or for purposes of an order of court; or (cc) no criminal proceedings or civil proceedings as contemplated in Chapter 5 20 or 6 of the Prevention of Organised Crime Act, 1998, are to be instituted in connection with such information.
+
+(b) A police official or an investigator who unlawfully and intentionally—
+
+(i) uses any instrument, device, equipment, password, decryption key, data or information outside the authorisation of a warrant as contemplated in para- 25 graph (a)(i); or
+(ii) fails to destroy all passwords, decryption keys, data or other information as contemplated in paragraph (a)(ii),
+
+is guilty of an offence.
+
+(3) A police official or an investigator who contravenes or fails to comply with 30 subsection (1) or (2), is liable on conviction to a fine or imprisonment for a period not exceeding 2 years or to both a fine and such imprisonment. (4) Where a police official or an investigator is convicted of an offence referred to in subsection (1) or (2), the court convicting such a person may, upon application of any person who has suffered damage or upon the application of the prosecutor acting on the 35 instructions of that person, award compensation in respect of such damage, whereupon the provisions of section 300 of the Criminal Procedure Act, 1977, shall apply with the necessary changes required by the context to such award.
+
+# False information under oath or by way of affirmation
+
+38. (1) Any person who unlawfully or intentionally gives false information under oath 40 or by way of affirmation knowing it to be false or not knowing it to be true, with the result that—
+
+(a) a search warrant is issued;
+(b) a search contemplated in section 31 took place on the basis of such information; 45
+(c) a person, container, premises, vehicle, facility, ship or aircraft is searched or a computer data storage medium or any part of a computer system is seized or accessed in terms of section 32;
+(d) an expedited preservation of data direction contemplated in section 41 is issued; 50
+(e) a preservation of evidence direction contemplated in section 42 is issued; or
+$(f)$ a disclosure of data direction contemplated in section 44 is issued,
+
+is guilty of an offence and is liable on conviction to a fine or to imprisonment for a period not exceeding two years or to both such fine and imprisonment.
+
+51
+
+(ii) enige instrument, toestel, wagwoord, dekripteringsleutel of ander inligting wat nodig is om toegang te kry tot data, ’n rekenaarprogram, ’n rekenaardatabergingsmedium of enige deel van ’n rekenaarstelsel, te bekom of gebruik,
+
+is skuldig aan ’n misdryf.
+
+(2) (a) ’n Polisiebeampte of ’n ondersoeker wat enige instrument, toestel, toerusting, wagwoord, dekripteringsleutel, data of ander inligting beoog in artikel $29(2)(h)$ verkry of gebruik—
+
+(i) moet die instrument, toestel, toerusting, wagwoord, dekripteringsleutel, data of inligting slegs ten opsigte van en tot die mate gespesifiseer in die 10 deursoekingslasbrief gebruik om toegang te kry tot, of om data, ’n rekenaarprogram, ’n rekenaardatabergingsmedium of enige deel van ’n rekenaarstelsel te gebruik op die wyse en vir die doeleindes in die betrokke deursoekingslasbrief gespesifiseer; en
+
+(ii) moet alle wagwoorde, dekripteringsleutels, data of ander inligting vernietig 15 indien—
+
+(aa) dit nie deur ’n persoon benodig word wat die wagwoorde, dekoderingsleutels, data of inligting wettig mag besit nie;
+(bb) dit nie vir die doeleindes van enige strafregtelike verrigtinge of siviele verrigtinge beoog in Hoofstuk 5 of 6 van die Wet op Voorkoming van 20 Georganiseerde Misdaad, 1998, of vir die doeleindes van getuienis of vir doeleindes van ’n hofbevel, benodig sal word nie; of
+(cc) geen strafregtelike verrigtinge of siviele verrigtinge soos beoog in Hoofstuk 5 of 6 van die Wet op Voorkoming van Georganiseerde Misdaad, 1998, in verband met daardie inligting ingestel staan te word 25 nie.
+
+(b) ’n Polisiebeampte of ondersoeker wat wederregtelik en opsetlik—
+
+(i) enige instrument, toestel, toerusting, wagwoord, dekripteringsleutel, data of inligting gebruik buite die magtiging van ’n lasbrief soos in paragraaf (a)(i) beoog; of
+(ii) versuim om alle wagwoorde, dekripteringsleutels, data of ander inligting soos beoog in paragraaf (a)(ii) te vernietig,
+
+is skuldig aan ’n misdryf.
+
+(3) ’n Polisiebeampte of ’n ondersoeker wat subartikel (1) of (2) oortree of versuim om daaraan te voldoen, is by skuldigbevinding strafbaar met ’n boete of gevangenisstraf 35 vir ’n tydperk van hoogstens twee jaar of met beide ’n boete en sodanige gevangenisstraf.
+
+(4) Waar ’n polisiebeampte of ’n ondersoeker skuldig bevind word aan ’n misdryf in subartikel (1) of (2) bedoel, kan die hof wat daardie persoon skuldig bevind, op aansoek van enige persoon wat skade gely het of op die aansoek van die aanklaer wat in opdrag 40 van daardie persoon optree, vergoeding ten opsigte van daardie skade toeken, waarop die bepalings van artikel 300 van die Strafproseswet, 1977, met die nodige veranderinge deur die samehang vereis, op daardie toekenning van toepassing is.
+
+# Vals inligting onder eed of deur plegtige verklaring
+
+38. (1) Enige persoon wat wederregtelik en opsetlik vals inligting onder eed of deur 45 plegtige verklaring gee, wetende dat dit vals is of nie wetende dat dit waar is nie, met die gevolg dat—
+
+(a) ’n deursoekingslasbrief uitgereik word;
+(b) ’n deursoeking in artikel 31 beoog op grond van daardie inligting plaasgevind het; 50
+(c) ’n persoon, houer, perseel, voertuig, fasiliteit, skip of lugvaartuig deursoek of ’n rekenaardatabergingsmedium of enige deel van ’n rekenaarstelsel ingevolge artikel 32 op beslag gelê word of toegang gekry word daartoe;
+(d) ’n lasgewing vir bespoedigde bewaring van data ingevolge artikel 41 uitgereik word; 55
+(e) ’n lasgewing vir bewaring van getuienis beoog in artikel 42 uitgereik word; of
+$(f)$ ’n lasgewing vir openbaarmaking van data beoog in artikel 44 uitgereik word,
+
+is skuldig aan ’n misdryf en is by skuldigbevinding strafbaar met ’n boete of met gevangenisstraf vir ’n tydperk van hoogstens twee jaar of met beide ’n boete en daardie gevangenisstraf.
+
+(2) Where a person is convicted of an offence referred to in subsection (1), the court convicting such a person may, upon application of any person who has suffered damage or upon the application of the prosecutor acting on the instructions of that person, award compensation in respect of such damage, whereupon the provisions of section 300 of the Criminal Procedure Act, 1977, shall apply with the necessary changes required by the context to such award.
+
+# Prohibition on disclosure of information
+
+39. (1) No person, investigator, police official, electronic communications service provider, financial institution or an employee of an electronic communications service provider or financial institution may, subject to subsection (2), disclose any information 10 which they have obtained in the exercise of their powers or the performance of their duties in terms of Chapter 4 or 5 of this Act, except—
+
+(a) to any other person who of necessity requires it for the performance of their functions in terms of this Act;
+(b) if they are a person who of necessity supplies such information in the 15 performance of their duties or functions in terms of this Act;
+(c) if it is information which is required in terms of any law or as evidence in any court of law;
+(d) if it constitutes information-sharing between electronic communications service providers, financial institutions, the South African Police Service, 20 competent authorities or any other person or entity which is aimed at preventing, detecting, investigating or mitigating cybercrime: Provided that such information-sharing may not prejudice any criminal investigation or criminal proceedings; or
+(e) to any competent authority in a foreign State which requires it for the 25 prevention, detection, or mitigation of cybercrime, or the institution of criminal proceedings or an investigation with a view to institute criminal proceedings.
+
+(2) The prohibition on disclosure of information contemplated in subsection (1) does not apply where the disclosure—
+
+(a) is authorised in terms of this Act or any other Act of Parliament; or (b) reveals a criminal activity.
+
+(3) A person, investigator, police official, electronic communications service provider, financial institution or an employee of an electronic communications service provider or financial institution who unlawfully and intentionally contravenes the provisions of 35 subsection (1) is guilty of an offence and is liable on conviction to a fine or imprisonment for a period not exceeding three years or to both a fine and such imprisonment.
+
+# Interception of indirect communication and obtaining of real-time communication-related information
+
+40. (1) The interception of an indirect communication as defined in section 1 of the 40 Regulation of Interception of Communications and Provision of Communicationrelated Information Act, 2002, must take place in terms of a direction issued in terms of section 16(4) or 18(3) of that Act and must, subject to subsection (4), be dealt with further in the manner provided for in that Act.
+
+(2) The obtaining of real-time communication-related information as defined in 45 section 1 of the Regulation of Interception of Communications and Provision of Communication-related Information Act, 2002, on an ongoing basis, as it becomes available, must take place in terms of a direction issued in terms of section 17(3) or 18(3) of that Act, and must, subject to subsection (4), be dealt with further in the manner provided for in that Act.
+
+(3) An electronic communications service provider who is— (a) in terms of section $30(1)(b)$ of the Regulation of Interception of Communications and Provision of Communication-related Information Act, 2002, required to provide an electronic communications service which has the capability to store communication-related information; and
+
+(2) Waar ’n persoon aan ’n misdryf bedoel in subartikel (1) skuldig bevind word, kan die hof wat daardie persoon skuldig bevind, op aansoek van enige persoon wat skade gely het of op die aansoek van die aanklaer wat in opdrag van daardie persoon optree, vergoeding ten opsigte van daardie skade toeken, waarop die bepalings van artikel 300 van die Strafproseswet, 1977, met die nodige veranderinge deur die samehang vereis, op daardie toekenning van toepassing is.
+
+# Verbod op openbaarmaking van inligting
+
+39. (1) Geen persoon, ondersoeker, polisiebeampte, elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer, finansiële instelling of ’n werknemer van ’n elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of finansiële instelling mag, behoudens subartikel (2), 10 enige inligting wat hulle in die uitoefening van hul bevoegdhede of die verrigting van hul pligte ingevolge Hoofstuk 4 of 5 van hierdie Wet verkry het openbaar maak nie, behalwe—
+
+(a) aan enige ander persoon wat dit uit noodsaak vereis vir die verrigting van hul werksaamhede ingevolge hierdie Wet; 15
+(b) indien hul ’n persoon is wat daardie inligting uit noodsaak verskaf in die verrigting van hul pligte en werksaamhede ingevolge hierdie Wet;
+(c) indien dit inligting is wat ingevolge enige wet as getuienis in enige geregshof benodig word;
+(d) indien dit inligtingdeling tussen elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffers, 20 finansiële instellings, die Suid-Afrikaanse Polisiediens, bevoegde owerhede of enige ander persoon of entiteit daarstel wat op die voorkoming, bespeuring, ondersoek of mitigasie van kubermisdaad gemik is: Met dien verstande dat sodanige inligtingdeling geen strafregtelike ondersoek of strafregtelike verrigtinge mag benadeel nie; of 25
+(e) aan enige bevoegde owerheid in ’n vreemde Staat wat dit benodig vir die voorkoming, bespeuring of mitigasie van kubermisdaad, of die instelling van strafregtelike verrigtinge of ’n ondersoek met die oog op die instelling van strafregtelike verrigtinge.
+
+(2) Die verbod op openbaarmaking van inligting in subartikel (1) beoog, is nie van 30 oepassing nie waar die openbaarmaking—
+
+(a) ingevolge hierdie Wet of enige ander Parlementswet gemagtig is; of (b) ’n kriminele aktiwiteit onthul. (3) ’n Persoon, ondersoeker, polisiebeampte, elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer, finansiële instelling of ’n werknemer van ’n elektroniese kommuni- 35 kasiediensverskaffer of finansiële instelling wat wederregtelik en opsetlik die bepalings van subartikel (1) oortree, is skuldig aan ’n misdryf en is by skuldigbevinding strafbaar met ’n boete of gevangenisstraf vir ’n tydperk van hoogstens drie jaar of met beide ’n boete en daardie gevangenisstraf.
+
+# Onderskepping van onregstreekse kommunikasie en verkryging van intydse 40 kommunikasie-verwante inligting
+
+40. (1) Die onderskepping van ’n onregstreekse kommunikasie soos omskryf in artikel 1 van die Wet op die Reëling van Onderskepping van Kommunikasies en Verstrekking van Kommunikasie-verwante Inligting, 2002, moet plaasvind ingevolge ’n lasgewing uitgereik ingevolge artikel 16(4) of 18(3) van daardie Wet en moet, 45 behoudens subartikel (4), verder hanteer word op die wyse waarvoor daardie Wet voorsiening maak.
+
+(2) Die verkryging van intydse kommunikasie-verwante inligting soos omskryf in artikel 1 van die Wet op die Reëling van Onderskepping van Kommunikasies en Verstrekking van Kommunikasie-verwante Inligting, 2002, op ’n deurlopende 50 grondslag, soos dit beskikbaar word, moet plaasvind ingevolge ’n lasgewing uitgereik ingevolge artikel 17(3) of 18(3) van daardie Wet, en moet, behoudens subartikel (4), verder hanteer word op die wyse waarvoor daardie Wet voorsiening maak.
+
+(3) ’n Elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer wat— (a) ingevolge artikel $30(1)(b)$ van die Wet op die Reëling van Onderskepping van 55 Kommunikasies en Verstrekking van Kommunikasie-verwante Inligting, 2002, ’n elektroniese kommunikasiediens moet voorsien wat die vermoë het om kommunikasie-verwante inligting te bewaar; en
+
+(b) not required to store communication-related information in terms of a directive issued in terms of section 30(2) of that Act, must, in addition to any other obligation imposed by any law, comply with—
+
+(i) a real-time communication-related direction contemplated in subsection (2), in terms of which the electronic communications service provider is directed to 5 provide real-time communication-related information in respect of a customer, on an ongoing basis, as it becomes available;
+(ii) an expedited preservation of data direction contemplated in section 41, in terms of which the electronic communications service provider is directed to preserve real-time communication-related information in respect of a customer; 10
+(iii) a preservation of evidence direction contemplated in section 42, in terms of which the electronic communications service provider is directed to preserve real-time communication-related information in respect of a customer;
+(iv) a disclosure of data direction contemplated in section 44, in terms of which the electronic communications service provider is directed to provide real-time 15 communication-related information in respect of a customer that was preserved or otherwise stored by the electronic communications service provider; or
+(v) any order of the designated judge in terms of section 48(6), in terms of which the electronic communications service provider is ordered to— (aa) obtain and preserve any real-time communication-related information; 20 or (bb) obtain and furnish traffic data.
+
+(4) Any indirect communication which is to be intercepted or any real-time communication-related information or traffic data which is to be obtained, at the request of an authority, court or tribunal exercising jurisdiction in a foreign State must further be 25 dealt with in the manner provided for in an order referred to in section 48(6), which is issued by the designated judge.
+
+# Expedited preservation of data direction
+
+41. (1) A specifically designated police official may— (a) if they believe on reasonable grounds that any person, an electronic 30 communications service provider referred to in section 40(3), or a financial institution is— (i) in possession of; (ii) to receive; or (iii) in control of, 35 data as contemplated in paragraph (a) of the definition of ‘‘article’’; and (b) with due regard to the rights, responsibilities and legitimate interests of other persons in proportion to the severity of the offence in question, issue an expedited preservation of data direction to such a person, electronic ommunications service provider or financial institution. 40 (2) Subsection (1) also applies to— (a) archived communication-related information which an electronic communications service provider is no longer required to store due to the fact that the period contemplated in section 30(2)(a)(iii) of the Regulation of Interception of Communications and Provision of Communication-related Information 45 Act, 2002, is due to come to an end; or (b) any other data which— (i) must be stored for a certain period in terms of any other law and that period is due to come to an end; or (ii) is stored by an electronic communications service provider which is not 50 real-time communication-related information or archived communication-related information as contemplated in section 1, read with section
+30(2) and any directive issued in terms of that section, of the Regulation of Interception of Communications and Provision of Communicationrelated Information Act, 2002.
+
+(3) An expedited preservation of data direction must be in the prescribed form and must be served on the person, electronic communications service provider or financial institution affected thereby, in the prescribed manner by a police official.
+
+(b) nie vereis word om kommunikasie-verwante inligting, ingevolge ’n voorskrif ingevolge artikel 30(2) van daardie Wet uitgereik, te bewaar nie,
+
+moet, benewens enige ander verpligting deur enige wetsbepaling opgelê, voldoen aan—
+
+(i) ’n intydse kommunikasie-verwante lasgewing in subartikel (2) beoog ingevolge waarvan die elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer gelas word om intydse 5 kommunikasie-verwante inligting te voorsien ten opsigte van ’n kliënt, op ’n deurlopende grondslag, soos dit beskikbaar word;
+(ii) ’n lasgewing vir bespoedigde bewaring van data beoog in artikel 41, ingevolge waarvan die elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer gelas word om intydse kommunikasie-verwante inligting ten opsigte van ’n kliënt te bewaar; 10
+(iii) ’n lasgewing vir bewaring van getuienis in artikel 42 beoog, ingevolge waarvan die elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer gelas word om intydse kommunikasie-verwante inligting ten opsigte van ’n kliënt te bewaar;
+(iv) ’n lasgewing vir openbaarmaking van data in artikel 44 beoog, ingevolge waarvan die elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer gelas word om intydse 15 kommunikasie-verwante inligting ten opsigte van ’n kliënt wat deur die elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer bewaar of andersins geberg is, te voorsien; of
+(v) enige bevel deur die aangewese regter ingevolge artikel 48(6), ingevolge waarvan die elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer beveel word om— 20 (aa) enige intydse kommunikasie-verwante inligting te verkry en te bewaar; of (bb) verkeersdata te verkry en te verskaf.
+
+(4) Enige onregstreekse kommunikasie wat onderskep moet word of enige intydse kommunikasie-verwante inligting of verkeersdata wat bekom moet word, op versoek 25 van ’n owerheid, hof of tribunaal met jurisdiksie in ’n vreemde Staat, moet verder mee gehandel word op die wyse waarvoor in ’n bevel bedoel in artikel 48(6), deur die aangewese regter uitgereik, voorsiening gemaak word.
+
+# Lasgewing vir bespoedigde bewaring van data
+
+41. (1) ’n Spesifiek aangewese polisiebeampte kan—
+
+(a) as hul op redelike gronde glo dat enige persoon, ’n elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer in artikel 40(3) bedoel, of ’n finansiële instelling— (i) in besit is van data; (ii) data gaan ontvang; of 35 (iii) in beheer is van data, soos beoog in paragraaf (a) van die omskrywing van ‘‘item’’; en
+(b) met behoorlike inagneming van die regte, verantwoordelikhede en regmatige belange van ander persone in verhouding tot die erns van die betrokke misdryf, 40
+
+’n lasgewing vir bespoedigde bewaring van data aan daardie persoon, elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of finansiële instelling uitreik.
+
+(2) Subartikel (1) is ook van toepassing op—
+
+(a) argief-bewaarde kommunikasie-verwante inligting wat ’n elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer nie langer hoef te bewaar nie omdat die tydperk 45 beoog in artikel 30(2)(a)(iii) van die Wet op die Reëling van Onderskepping van Kommunikasies en Verstrekking van Kommunikasie-verwante Inligting, 2002, gaan verstryk; of
+(b) enige ander data— (i) wat vir ’n sekere tyd geberg moet word ingevolge enige ander 50 wetsbepaling en daardie tydperk gaan verstryk; of (ii) wat deur ’n elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer geberg word wat nie vir intydse kommunikasie-verwante inligting of argief-bewaarde kommunikasie-verwante inligting is soos beoog in artikel 1, gelees met artikel 30(2) en enige voorskrif uitgereik ingevolge daardie artikel, van 55 die Wet op die Reëling van Onderskepping van Kommunikasies en Verstrekking van Kommunikasie-verwante Inligting, 2002, nie.
+
+(3) ’n Lasgewing vir bespoedigde bewaring van data moet in die voorgeskrewe vorm wees en moet op die voorgeskrewe wyse deur ’n polisiebeampte aan die persoon, elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of finansiële instelling daardeur geraak, 60 beteken word.
+
+(4) An expedited preservation of data direction must direct the person, electronic communications service provider or financial institution affected thereby, from the time of service of the direction, and for a period of 21 days—
+
+(a) to preserve the current status of; (b) not to deal in any manner with; or (c) to deal in a certain manner with,
+
+the data referred to in the direction in order to preserve the availability and integrity of the data.
+
+(5) No data may be disclosed to a police official on the strength of an expedited preservation of data direction, unless it is authorised in terms of section 44.
+
+(6) The 21 day period referred to in subsection (4), may only be extended by way of a preservation of evidence direction contemplated in section 42, once, for an additional period which may not exceed 90 days.
+
+(7) A person, electronic communications service provider or financial institution to whom an expedited preservation of data direction, referred to in subsection (1), is 15 addressed may, in writing in the prescribed form and manner, apply to a magistrate in whose area of jurisdiction the person, electronic communications service provider or financial institution is situated, for an amendment or the cancellation of the direction concerned on the ground that they cannot timeously or in a reasonable fashion, comply with the direction. 20
+
+(8) The magistrate to whom an application is made in terms of subsection (7) must, as soon as possible after receipt thereof—
+
+(a) consider the application and may for this purpose, order oral or written evidence to be adduced regarding any fact alleged in the application;
+(b) give a decision in respect of the application; and
+(c) inform the applicant and specifically designated police official referred to in subsection (1) of the outcome of the application.
+
+25
+
+(9) A person, electronic communications service provider or financial institution eferred to in subsection (1) who—
+
+(a) fails to comply with an expedited preservation of data direction or contravenes 30 the provisions of subsection (5); or (b) makes a false statement in an application referred to in subsection (7),
+
+is guilty of an offence and is liable on conviction to a fine or imprisonment for a period not exceeding two years or to both a fine and such imprisonment.
+
+# Preservation of evidence direction
+
+42. (1) A magistrate or judge of the High Court, may—
+
+(a) upon written application by a police official;
+(b) if it appears to the magistrate or judge upon consideration of the information provided under oath or by way of affirmation, as set out in the application, that there are reasonable grounds to believe that any person, electronic communi- 40 cations service provider or financial institution— (i) may receive; (ii) is in possession of; or (iii) is in control of, an article; and 45
+(c) with due regard to the rights, responsibilities and legitimate interests of other persons in proportion to the severity of the offence in question,
+
+issue a preservation of evidence direction.
+
+(2) A preservation of evidence direction must be in the prescribed form and must be served on the person, electronic communications service provider or financial institution 50 affected thereby, in the prescribed manner by a police official.
+
+(3) The preservation of evidence direction must direct the person, electronic communications service provider or financial institution, from the time of service of the direction, and for the time period specified in the direction, which may not exceed 90 days—
+
+(a) to preserve the current status of; $(b)$ not to deal in any manner with; or $(c)$ to deal in a certain manner with, an article in order to preserve the availability or integrity of the article.
+
+(4) ’n Lasgewing vir bespoedigde bewaring van data moet die persoon, elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of finansiële instelling daardeur geraak, gelas om van die tyd van betekening van die lasgewing en vir ’n tydperk van 21 dae—
+
+(a) die huidige status te bewaar van; (b) geensins op enige wyse te handel met; of (c) op ’n sekere wyse te handel met,
+
+die data in die lasgewing vermeld, ten einde die beskikbaarheid en integriteit van die data te bewaar.
+
+(5) Geen data mag op grond van ’n lasgewing vir bespoedigde bewaring van data aan ’n polisiebeampte openbaar gemaak word nie, tensy dit ingevolge artikel 44 gemagtig 10 word.
+
+(6) Die tydperk van 21 dae in subartikel (4) bedoel, kan slegs eenmalig verleng word by wyse van’n lasgewing vir bewaring van getuienis in artikel 42 beoog, vir ’n bykomende tydperk wat nie 90 dae mag oorskry nie.
+
+(7) ’n Persoon, elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of finansiële instelling aan 15 wie ’n lasgewing vir bespoedigde bewaring van data, in subartikel (1) bedoel, gerig is, kan skriftelik op die voorgeskrewe vorm en wyse, by ’n landdros in wie se regsgebied die persoon, elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of finansiële instelling geleë is, aansoek doen om ’n wysiging of die kansellasie van die betrokke lasgewing op grond daarvan dat hulle nie tydig of op ’n redelike wyse aan die lasgewing kan voldoen nie. 20
+
+(8) Die landdros by wie ’n aansoek ingevolge subartikel (7) gedoen word, moet, so gou moontlik ná ontvangs daarvan—
+
+(a) die aansoek oorweeg en kan vir hierdie doel gelas dat mondelinge of skriftelike getuienis aangevoer word aangaande enige feit in die aansoek beweer; 25
+(b) ’n beslissing ten opsigte van die aansoek gee; en
+(c) die applikant en spesifiek aangewese polisiebeampte bedoel in subartikel (1) verwittig van die uitslag van die aansoek.
+
+(9) ’n Persoon, elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of finansiële instelling in ubartikel (1) bedoel wat—
+
+(a) versuim om aan ’n lasgewing vir bespoedigde bewaring van data te voldoen of die bepalings van subartikel (5) oortree; of (b) ’n vals verklaring maak in ’n aansoek in subartikel (7) bedoel,
+
+is skuldig aan ’n misdryf en is by skuldigbevinding strafbaar met ’n boete of met gevangenisstraf vir ’n tydperk van hoogstens twee jaar of met beide ’n boete en sodanige 35 gevangenisstraf.
+
+# Lasgewing vir bewaring van getuienis
+
+42. (1) ’n Landdros of regter van die Hooggeregshof kan—
+
+(a) by skriftelike aansoek deur ’n polisiebeampte;
+(b) indien dit vir die landdros of regter, by oorweging van die inligting onder eed 40 of by wyse van plegtige verklaring verstrek, soos in die aansoek uiteengesit, blyk dat daar redelike gronde is om te glo dat enige persoon, elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of finansiële instelling— (i) ’n item mag ontvang; (ii) in besit is van ’n item; of 45 (iii) in beheer is van ’n item; en
+(c) met behoorlike inagneming van die regte, verantwoordelikhede en regmatige belange van ander persone in verhouding tot die erns van die betrokke misdryf,
+
+’n lasgewing vir bewaring van getuienis uitreik.
+
+(2) ’n Lasgewing vir bewaring van getuienis moet in die voorgeskrewe vorm wees en moet op die voorgeskrewe wyse deur ’n polisiebeampte aan die persoon, elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of finansiële instelling daardeur geraak, beteken word.
+
+(3) Die lasgewing vir bewaring van getuienis moet die persoon, elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of finansiële instelling gelas om, van die tyd van 55 betekening van die lasgewing en vir die tydperk in die lasgewing gespesifiseer, wat nie 90 dae mag oorskry nie—
+
+(a) die huidige status te bewaar van; $(b)$ nie op enige wyse te handel met; of (c) op ’n sekere wyse te handel met,
+
+’n item, ten einde die beskikbaarheid of integriteit van die item te bewaar.
+
+50
+
+(4) Any person, electronic communications service provider or financial institution who fails to comply with a preservation of evidence direction is guilty of an offence and is liable on conviction to a fine or to imprisonment for a period not exceeding three years or to both a fine and such imprisonment.
+
+(5) A person, electronic communications service provider or financial institution to 5 whom a preservation of evidence direction referred to in subsection (1) is addressed may, in writing in the prescribed form and manner, apply to a magistrate or judge of the High Court in whose area of jurisdiction the person, electronic communications service provider or financial institution is situated for an amendment or the cancellation of the direction concerned on the ground that they cannot timeously or in a reasonable fashion, 10 comply with the direction.
+
+(6) The magistrate or judge of the High Court to whom an application is made in terms of subsection (5) must, as soon as possible after receipt thereof—
+
+(a) consider the application and may, for this purpose, order oral or written evidence to be adduced regarding any fact alleged in the application; 15 (b) give a decision in respect of the application; and (c) inform the applicant and police official of the outcome of the application.
+
+# Oral application for preservation of evidence direction
+
+43. (1) A police official may orally make an application referred to in section 42(1), if they are of the opinion that it is not reasonably practicable, having regard to the urgency 20 of the case or the existence of exceptional circumstances, to make a written application.
+
+(2) An oral application referred to in subsection (1) must—
+
+(a) indicate the particulars of the urgency of the case or the other exceptional circumstances which, in the opinion of the police official, justify the making of an oral application; and
+(b) comply with any supplementary directives relating to oral applications which may be issued by the Chief Justice in terms of section 8(3) of the Superior Courts Act, 2013.
+
+(3) A magistrate or judge of the High Court may, upon receipt of an oral application made to them in terms of subsection (1), issue the preservation of evidence direction 30 applied for.
+
+(4) A preservation of evidence direction may only be issued under subsection (3)— (a) if the magistrate or judge of the High Court concerned is satisfied, on the facts alleged in the oral application concerned, that— (i) there are reasonable grounds to believe that a preservation of evidence 35 direction applied for could be issued; (ii) a preservation of evidence direction is necessary immediately in order to ensure the availability or integrity, of the article; and (iii) it is not reasonably practicable, having regard to the urgency of the case or the existence of exceptional circumstances, to make a written applica- 40 tion for the issuing of the preservation of evidence direction applied for; and (b) on condition that the police official concerned must submit a written application to the magistrate or judge of the High Court concerned within 48 hours after the issuing of the preservation of evidence direction under 45 subsection (3).
+
+(5) A preservation of evidence direction issued under subsection (3) must be in writing and must be transmitted electronically to the police official or be provided to a specifically designated police official.
+
+(6) A magistrate or judge of the High Court who issued a direction under subsection 50 (3) or, if they are not available, any other magistrate or judge of the High Court must, upon receipt of a written application in terms of subsection $(4)(b)$ , reconsider that application whereupon they may confirm, amend or cancel that preservation of evidence direction.
+
+(4) Enige persoon, elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of finansiële instelling wat versuim om te voldoen aan ’n lasgewing vir bewaring van getuienis, is skuldig aan ’n misdryf en is by skuldigbevinding strafbaar met ’n boete of met gevangenisstraf vir ’n tydperk van hoogstens drie jaar of met beide ’n boete en sodanige gevangenisstraf.
+
+(5) ’n Persoon, elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of finansiële instelling aan 5 wie ’n lasgewing vir bewaring van getuienis bedoel in subartikel (1) gerig is, kan skriftelik op die voorgeskrewe vorm en wyse, by ’n landdros of regter van die Hooggeregshof in wie se regsgebied die persoon, elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of finansiële instelling geleë is, aansoek doen om ’n wysiging of die kansellasie van die betrokke lasgewing op grond daarvan dat hulle nie tydig of op ’n 10 redelike wyse aan die lasgewing kan voldoen nie.
+
+(6) Die landdros of regter van die Hooggeregshof by wie ’n aansoek ingevolge subartikel (5) gedoen word, moet, so gou moontlik ná ontvangs daarvan—
+
+(a) die aansoek oorweeg en kan vir hierdie doel gelas dat mondelinge of skriftelike getuienis aangevoer word aangaande enige feit in die aansoek 15 beweer;
+(b) ’n beslissing ten opsigte van die aansoek gee; en
+(c) die applikant en polisiebeampte verwittig van die uitslag van die aansoek.
+
+# Mondelinge aansoek om lasgewing vir bewaring van getuienis
+
+43. (1) ’n Polisiebeampte kan ’n aansoek in artikel 42(1) bedoel, mondeling doen, 20 indien hulle van mening is dat dit nie redelikerwys moontlik is, met inagneming van die dringendheid van die saak of die bestaan van buitengewone omstandighede, om ’n skriftelike aansoek te doen nie.
+
+(2) ’n Mondelinge aansoek bedoel in subartikel (1) moet—
+
+(a) die besonderhede van die dringendheid van die saak of die ander 25 buitengewone omstandighede aandui wat, na mening van die polisiebeampte, die doen van ’n mondelinge aansoek regverdig; en
+(b) voldoen aan enige aanvullende voorskrifte rakende mondelinge aansoeke wat ingevolge artikel 8(3) van die Wet op Hoër Howe, 2013 deur die Hoofregter uitgereik kan word. 30
+
+(3) ’n Landdros of regter van die Hooggeregshof kan, by die ontvangs van ’n mondelinge aansoek aan hulle ingevolge subartikel (1) gedoen, die lasgewing vir bewaring van getuienis waarvoor aansoek gedoen word, uitreik.
+
+(4) ’n Lasgewing vir die bewaring van getuienis kan slegs kragtens subartikel (3) uitgereik word— 35
+
+(a) indien die betrokke landdros of regter van die Hooggeregshof oortuig is, op grond van die feite in die betrokke mondelinge aansoek aangevoer, dat— (i) daar redelike gronde is om te glo dat ’n lasgewing vir die bewaring van getuienis waarom aansoek gedoen is, uitgereik kan word; (ii) ’n lasgewing vir die bewaring van getuienis onmiddellik nodig is ten 40 einde die beskikbaarheid of die integriteit van die item te verseker; en (iii) dit nie redelikerwys moontlik is nie, met inagneming van die dringendheid van die saak of die bestaan van buitengewone omstandighede, om ’n skriftelike aansoek om die uitreiking van die lasgewing vir die bewaring van getuienis waarvoor aansoek gedoen 45 word, te doen nie; en
+
+(b) op voorwaarde dat die betrokke polisiebeampte ’n skriftelike aansoek aan die betrokke landdros of regter van die Hooggeregshof binne 48 uur ná uitreiking van die lasgewing vir die bewaring van getuienis kragtens subartikel (3), moet voorlê.
+
+(5) ’n Lasgewing vir die bewaring van getuienis kragtens subartikel (3) uitgereik, moet skriftelik wees en moet elektronies versend word aan die polisiebeampte of vir ’n spesifiek aangewese polisiebeampte gegee word.
+
+(6) ’n Landdros of regter van die Hooggeregshof wat ’n lasgewing kragtens subartikel (3) uitgereik het of, indien hulle nie beskikbaar is nie, enige ander landdros of regter van 55 die Hooggeregshof, moet by ontvangs van ’n skriftelike aansoek ingevolge subartikel $(4)(b)$ , daardie aansoek heroorweeg waarna hulle daardie lasgewing vir die bewaring van getuienis kan bevestig, wysig of kanselleer.
+
+# Disclosure of data direction and search for, access to, and seizure of articles subje o preservation
+
+44. (1) (a) A police official may, where it is expedient, other than by way of a search and seizure in terms of a warrant contemplated in section 29(1), to obtain—
+
+(i) data which is subject to preservation in terms of an expedited preservation of 5 data direction or a preservation of evidence direction; or
+(ii) data as contemplated in paragraph (a) of the definition of ‘‘article’’, which is— (aa) held in a computer system or computer storage medium; or (bb) available to a computer system,
+
+apply to a magistrate or judge of the High Court for the issuing of a disclosure of data 10 direction.
+
+(b) An application referred to in paragraph (a)(i) must— (i) indicate the identity of the police official who applies for the disclosure of data direction;
+(ii) identify the person, electronic communications service provider or financial 15 institution to whom the disclosure of data direction must be addressed;
+(iii) be accompanied by a copy of the expedited preservation of data direction or preservation of evidence direction or any amendment thereof;
+(iv) contain a description of the data which must be provided and the format in which it must be provided; 20
+(v) specify the grounds for believing that the data is an article as contemplated in paragraph (a) of the definition of ‘‘article’’; and
+(vi) comply with any supplementary directives relating to applications for the disclosure of data, which may be issued by the Chief Justice in terms of section 8(3) of the Superior Courts Act, 2013. 25 (c) An application referred to in paragraph (a)(ii) must— (i) indicate the identity of the policy official who applies for the disclosure of data direction;
+(ii) identify the person, electronic communications service provider or financial institution to whom the disclosure of data direction must be addressed; 30
+(iii) contain a description of the data which must be provided and the format in which it must be provided;
+(iv) specify the grounds for believing that the data is an article as contemplated in paragraph (a) of the definition of ‘‘article’’;
+(v) specify the grounds for believing that the data, in question, is held in a computer 35 system or computer data storage medium or is available to a computer system that is under the control of the person, electronic communications service provider or financial institution, referred to in subparagraph (ii), within the area of jurisdiction of the court; and
+(vi) comply with any supplementary directives relating to applications for the 40 disclosure of data, which may be issued by the Chief Justice in terms of section 8(3) of the Superior Courts Act, 2013.
+
+(2) A magistrate or judge of the High Court may, subject to the provisions of section 4(2) of the Customs and Excise Act, 1964, sections $69(2)(b)$ and 71 of the Tax Administration Act, 2011, and section $21(e)$ and $(f)$ of the Customs Control Act, 2014, 45 on the written application by a police official referred to in subsection (1), if it appears to the magistrate or judge from information on oath or by way of affirmation, as set out in the application that—
+
+(a) there are reasonable grounds for believing that—
+
+(i) data which is subject to preservation in terms of an expedited 50 preservation of data direction or a preservation of evidence direction, is an article as contemplated in paragraph (a) of the definition of ‘‘article’’; or
+(ii) data, which is an article as contemplated in paragraph (a) of the definition of ‘‘article’’, is— 55 (aa) held in a computer system or computer data storage medium; or
+
+# Lasgewing vir openbaarmaking van data en deursoeking vir, toegang tot en beslaglegging op items onderworpe aan bewaring
+
+44. (1) (a) ’n Polisiebeampte kan, waar dit geleë is, anders as by wyse van ’n deursoeking en beslaglegging ingevolge ’n lasbrief in artikel 29(1) beoog, om—
+
+(i) data te bekom wat onderworpe is aan bewaring ingevolge ’n lasgewing vir 5 bespoedigde bewaring van data of ’n lasgewing vir die bewaring van getuienis; of
+(ii) data soos beoog in paragraaf (a) van die omskrywing van ‘‘item’’ te bekom, wat— (aa) in ’n rekenaarstelsel of rekenaardatabergingsmedium gehou word; of 10 (bb) aan ’n rekenaarstelsel beskikbaar is,
+
+by ’n landdros of regter van die Hooggeregshof aansoek doen om die uitreiking van ’n lasgewing vir die openbaarmaking van data.
+
+(b) ’n Aansoek in paragraaf (a)(i) bedoel, moet—
+
+(i) die identiteit verstrek van die polisiebeampte wat om die lasgewing vir 15 openbaarmaking van data aansoek doen;
+(ii) die persoon, elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of finansiële instelling identifiseer aan wie die lasgewing vir openbaarmaking van data, gerig moet word;
+(iii) van ’n afskrif van die lasgewing vir bespoedigde bewaring van data of ’n 20 lasgewing vir die bewaring van getuienis of enige wysiging daarvan vergesel gaan;
+(iv) ’n beskrywing van die data bevat wat voorsien moet word en die formaat waarin dit voorsien moet word;
+(v) die gronde spesifiseer waarom geglo word dat die data ’n item is soos beoog in 25 paragraaf (a) van die omskrywing van ‘‘item’’; en
+(vi) voldoen aan enige aanvullende voorskrifte wat verband hou met aansoeke om openbaarmaking van data, wat deur die Hoofregter uitgereik kan word ingevolge artikel 8(3) van die Wet op Hoër Howe, 2013.
+(c) ’n Aansoek bedoel in paragraaf (a)(ii), moet— 30
+(i) die identiteit verstrek van die polisiebeampte wat om die lasgewing vir openbaarmaking van data aansoek doen;
+(ii) die persoon, elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of finansiële instelling identifiseer aan wie die lasgewing vir openbaarmaking van data gerig moet word; 35
+(iii) ’n beskrywing bevat van die data wat voorsien moet word en die formaat waarin dit voorsien moet word;
+(iv) die gronde spesifiseer waarom geglo word dat die data ’n item is soos beoog in paragraaf (a) van die omskrywing van ‘‘item’’;
+(v) die gronde spesifiseer waarom geglo word dat die betrokke data gehou word in 40 ’n rekenaarstelsel of rekenaardatabergingsmedium of aan ’n rekenaarstelsel beskikbaar is wat onder beheer is van die persoon, elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of finansiële instelling in subparagraaf (ii) bedoel, binne die regsgebied van die hof; en
+(vi) voldoen aan enige aanvullende voorskrifte rakende aansoeke om die 45 openbaarmaking van data, wat ingevolge artikel 8(3) van die Wet op Hoër Howe, 2013, deur die Hoofregter uitgereik kan word.
+
+(2) ’n Landdros of regter van die Hooggeregshof kan, behoudens die bepalings van artikel 4(2) van die Doeane- en Aksynswet, 1964, artikels 69(2)(b) en 71 van die Wet op Belastingadministrasie, 2011, en artikel 21(e) en $(f)$ van die Wet op Doeanebeheer, 2014, 50 op skriftelike aansoek deur ’n polisiebeampte in subartikel (1) bedoel, indien dit vir die landdros of regter uit inligting onder eed of by wyse van plegtige verklaring, soos in die aansoek uiteengesit, blyk—
+
+(a) dat daar redelike gronde is om te glo dat—
+
+(i) data wat onderhewig is aan bewaring ingevolge ’n lasgewing vir 55 bespoedigde bewaring van data of ’n lasgewing vir die bewaring van getuienis, ’n item is soos beoog in paragraaf (a) van die omskrywing van ‘‘item’’; of
+(ii) data, wat ’n item is soos beoog in paragraaf (a) van die omskrywing van ‘‘item’’— 60 (aa) gehou word in ’n rekenaarstelsel of rekenaardatabergingsmedium; of
+
+62
+
+(bb) available to a computer system, within their area of jurisdiction; and
+
+(b) it will be in the interests of justice if a disclosure of data direction is issued, issue the disclosure of data direction applied for.
+
+(3) A disclosure of data direction must be in the prescribed form and must be served 5 on the person, electronic communications service provider or financial institution affected thereby, in the prescribed manner by a police official.
+
+(4) The disclosure of data direction—
+
+(a) must direct the person, electronic communications service provider or financial institution to provide the data identified in the direction to the extent 10 set out in the direction to an identified police official;
+(b) must specify the format in which the data identified in paragraph (a) must be provided;
+(c) must set out the period within which the data identified in paragraph (a) must be provided; and 15
+(d) may specify conditions or restrictions relating to the provision of data authorised therein.
+
+(5) A person, electronic communications service provider or financial institution on whom a disclosure of data direction referred to in subsection (3) is served may, in writing in the prescribed form and manner, apply to the magistrate or judge for an 20 amendment or the cancellation of the direction concerned on the ground that they cannot timeously or in a reasonable fashion comply with the direction.
+
+(6) The magistrate or judge to whom an application is made in terms of subsection (5) must, as soon as possible after receipt thereof—
+
+(a) consider the application and may, for this purpose, order oral or written 25 evidence to be adduced regarding any fact alleged in the application;
+(b) give a decision in respect of the application; and
+(c) if the application is successful, inform the police official and the applicant of the outcome of the application.
+(7) Any data made available in terms of a disclosure of data direction, must be— 30
+(a) provided to the police official identified in the direction; and (b) accompanied by an affidavit in the prescribed form by the person or authorised representative of an electronic communications service provider or financial institution, verifying the authenticity, integrity and reliability of the data that is furnished. 35
+
+(8) A person, electronic communications service provider or a financial institution who— (a) fails to comply with a disclosure of data direction; $(b)$ makes a false statement in an application referred to in subsection (5); or (c) fails to comply with subsection (7), 40 is guilty of an offence and is liable on conviction to a fine or imprisonment for a period not exceeding two years or to both a fine and such imprisonment. (9) (a) Any article subject to a preservation of evidence direction that is not ‘‘data’’ must be seized in terms of a warrant referred to in section 29(1). (b) A police official may, at any time, apply for a search warrant in terms of section 45 29(1) to search for, access or seize an article (which includes ‘‘data’’) that is or was subject to an expedited preservation of data direction or a preservation of evidence direction.
+
+# Obtaining and using publicly available data or receiving data from person who is in possession of data
+
+45. A police official may, without being specifically authorised thereto in terms of this Chapter, for the purposes of investigating any offence or suspected offence in terms of Part I or Part II of Chapter 2 or any other offence or suspected offence in terms of the laws of the Republic, which may be committed by means of, or facilitated through the use of, an article—
+
+(a) receive, obtain or use publicly available data regardless of where the data is located geographically; or
+
+Wet op Kubermisdade, 2020
+
+63
+
+$(b b)$ aan ’n rekenaarstelsel beskikbaar is, binne hul regsgebied; en
+
+(b) dit in die belang van geregtigheid sal wees indien ’n lasgewing vir openbaarmaking van data uitgereik word,
+
+e lasgewing vir openbaarmaking van data waarom aansoek gedoen is, uitreik.
+
+(3) ’n Lasgewing vir openbaarmaking van data moet in die voorgeskrewe vorm wees en moet op die voorgeskrewe wyse deur ’n polisiebeampte aan die persoon, elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of finansiële instelling daardeur geraak, beteken word.
+
+(4) Die lasgewing vir openbaarmaking van data—
+
+(a) moet die persoon, elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of finansiële 10 instelling gelas om die data in die lasgewing geïdentifiseer, tot die mate in die lasgewing uiteengesit, aan ’n geïdentifiseerde polisiebeampte te voorsien;
+(b) moet die formaat spesifiseer waarin die data in paragraaf (a) geïdentifiseer, voorsien moet word;
+(c) moet die tydperk uiteensit waarbinne die data in paragraaf (a) geïdentifiseer, 15 voorsien moet word; en
+(d) kan voorwaardes of beperkings in verband met die voorsiening van data daarin gemagtig, spesifiseer.
+
+(5) ’n Persoon, elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of finansiële instelling aan wie ’n lasgewing vir openbaarmaking van data in subartikel (3) bedoel, beteken word, 20 kan, skriftelik op die voorgeskrewe vorm en wyse, by die landdros of regter aansoek doen om ’n wysiging of die kansellasie van die betrokke lasgewing op grond daarvan dat hulle nie tydig of op ’n redelike wyse aan die lasgewing kan voldoen nie.
+
+(6) Die landdros of regter by wie die aansoek ingevolge subartikel (5) gebring word, moet so gou moontlik ná ontvangs daarvan—
+
+25
+
+(a) die aansoek oorweeg en kan, vir hierdie doel, beveel dat mondelinge of skriftelike getuienis aangebied word aangaande enige feit in die aansoek beweer;
+(b) ’n beslissing gee ten opsigte van die aansoek; en
+(c) indien die aansoek suksesvol is, die polisiebeampte en die applikant verwittig 30 van die uitslag van die aansoek.
+
+(7) Enige data wat ingevolge ’n lasgewing vir openbaarmaking van data beskikbaar gemaak moet word—
+
+(a) aan die polisiebeampte in die lasgewing geïdentifiseer, voorsien word; en
+(b) vergesel gaan van ’n beëdigde verklaring in die voorgeskrewe vorm deur die 35 persoon of gemagtigde verteenwoordiger van ’n elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of finansiële instelling, wat die egtheid, integriteit en betroubaarheid van die data, wat voorsien word, bevestig.
+
+(8) ’n Persoon, elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of ’n finansiële instelling wat— 40 (a) versuim om aan ’n lasgewing vir openbaarmaking van data te voldoen; (b) ’n vals verklaring aflê in ’n aansoek in subartikel (5) bedoel; of (c) versuim om aan subartikel (7) te voldoen,
+
+is skuldig aan ’n misdryf en is by skuldigbevinding strafbaar met ’n boete of gevangenisstraf vir ’n tydperk van hoogstens twee jaar of tot beide ’n boete en sodanige 45 gevangenisstraf.
+
+(9) (a) Enige item wat onderhewig is aan ’n lasgewing vir die bewaring van getuienis, wat nie ‘‘data’’ is nie, moet op beslag gelê word ingevolge ’n lasbrief in artikel 29(1) bedoel.
+
+(b) ’n Polisiebeampte kan, te eniger tyd, aansoek doen om ’n deursoekingslasbrief 50 ingevolge artikel 29(1) om te deursoek vir, toegang te kry tot of beslag te lê op ’n item (wat ‘‘data’’ insluit) wat aan ’n lasgewing vir bespoedigde bewaring van data of ’n lasgewing vir die bewaring van getuienis onderhewig is of was.
+
+# Verkryging en gebruik van openbaar beskikbare data of ontvangs van data van persoon wat in besit is van data
+
+45. ’n Polisiebeampte kan, sonder om uitdruklik ingevolge hierdie Hoofstuk daartoe gemagtig te wees, vir die ondersoek van enige misdryf of vermeende misdryf ingevolge Deel I of Deel II van Hoofstuk 2 of enige ander misdryf of vermeende misdryf ingevolge die wette van die Republiek, wat gepleeg kan word by wyse van, of gefasiliteer kan word deur die gebruik van, ’n item—
+
+(a) openbaar beskikbare data ontvang, verkry of gebruik ongeag waar die data geografies geleë is; of
+
+64
+
+(b) receive and use non-publicly available data, regardless of where the data is located geographically, if a person who is in control of, or possesses the data, voluntarily and on such conditions regarding confidentiality and limitation of use which they deem necessary, discloses the data to a police official.
+
+# CHAPTER 5
+
+# MUTUAL ASSISTANCE
+
+# Application of provisions of Chapter
+
+46. The provisions of sections 48 to 51 apply in addition to Chapter 2 of the International Co-operation in Criminal Matters Act, 1996, and relate, unless specified otherwise, to the preservation of an article or other evidence in electronic format 10 regarding the commission or suspected commission of—
+
+(a) an offence in terms of Part I or Part II of Chapter 2;
+(b) any other offence in terms of the laws of the Republic, which may be committed by means of, or facilitated through the use of, an article; or
+(c) an offence— 15 (i) similar to those contemplated in Part I or Part II of Chapter 2; or (ii) substantially similar to an offence recognised in the Republic, which may be committed by means of, or facilitated through the use of, an article,
+
+pending a request in terms of section 2 or 7 of the International Co-operation in Criminal 20 Matters Act, 1996.
+
+# Spontaneous information
+
+47. (1) The National Commissioner or the National Head of the Directorate, may, on such conditions regarding confidentiality and limitation of use as they may determine, furnish any information obtained during any investigation, to a law enforcement agency 25 of a foreign State when the National Commissioner or the National Head of the Directorate is of the opinion that the disclosure of such information may—
+
+(a) assist the foreign State in the initiation or carrying out of investigations; or (b) lead to further cooperation with a foreign State to carry out an investigation,
+regarding the commission or suspected commission of— 30 (i) an offence contemplated in Part I or Part II of Chapter 2, in the Republic; (ii) any other offence in terms of the laws of the Republic, which may be committed by means of, or facilitated through the use of, an article; or
+(iii) an offence— (aa) similar to those contemplated in Part I or Part II of Chapter 2; or 35 (bb) substantially similar to an offence recognised in the Republic, which may be committed by means of, or facilitated through the use of, an article, in that foreign State.
+
+(2) The South African Police Service may receive any information from a foreign State, subject to such conditions regarding confidentiality and limitation of use as may 40 be agreed upon, which may—
+
+(a) assist the South African Police Service in the initiation or carrying out of investigations; or (b) lead to further cooperation with a foreign State to carry out an investigation, garding the commission or suspected commission of—
+
+(i) an offence contemplated in Part I or Part II of Chapter 2, in the Republic; (ii) any other offence in terms of the laws of the Republic, which may be committed by means of, or facilitated through the use of, an article; or
+
+(b) nie-openbaar-beskikbare data ontvang en gebruik, ongeag waar die data geografies geleë is, indien ’n persoon wat in beheer is van, of in besit is van die data, vrywillig en op sodanige voorwaardes aangaande vertroulikheid en beperking van gebruik wat hulle nodig ag, die data aan ’n polisiebeampte openbaar maak.
+
+# HOOFSTUK 5
+
+# ONDERLINGE BYSTAND
+
+# Toepassing van bepalings van Hoofstuk
+
+46. Die bepalings van artikels 48 tot 51 is van toepassing adissioneel tot Hoofstuk 2 van die Wet op Internasionale Samewerking in Strafregtelike Aangeleenthede, 1996, en 10 het betrekking, tensy anders gespesifiseer, op die bewaring van ’n item of ander getuienis in elektroniese formaat aangaande die pleging of vermeende pleging van—
+
+(a) ’n misdryf ingevolge Deel I of Deel II van Hoofstuk 2;
+(b) enige ander misdryf ingevolge die wette van die Republiek, wat gepleeg kan word by wyse van, of gefasiliteer kan word deur die gebruik van, ’n item; of 15
+(c) ’n misdryf— (i) soortgelyk aan dié in Deel I of Deel II van Hoofstuk 2 beoog; of (ii) wesenlik soortgelyk aan ’n misdryf erken in die Republiek, wat gepleeg kan word by wyse van, of gefasiliteer kan word deur die gebruik van, ’n item, 20
+
+hangende ’n versoek ingevolge artikel 2 of 7 van die Wet op Internasionale Samewerking in Strafregtelike Aangeleenthede, 1996.
+
+# Spontane inligting
+
+47. (1) Die Nasionale Kommissaris of die Nasionale Hoof van die Direktoraat kan, op 25 sodanige voorwaardes aangaande vertroulikheid en beperking van gebruik wat hulle mag bepaal, enige inligting tydens enige ondersoek verkry, verskaf aan ’n wetstoepassingsagentskap in ’n vreemde Staat wanneer die Nasionale Kommissaris of die Nasionale Hoof van die Direktoraat van mening is dat die openbaarmaking van daardie inligting— 30
+
+(a) die vreemde Staat behulpsaam mag wees in die inisiëring of uitvoering van ondersoeke; of (b) kan lei tot verdere samewerking met ’n vreemde Staat om ’n ondersoek uit te voer,
+aangaande die pleging of vermeende pleging van— (i) ’n misdryf in Deel I of Deel II van Hoofstuk 2 beoog, in die Republiek;
+(ii) enige ander misdryf ingevolge die wette van die Republiek wat gepleeg kan word by wyse van, of gefasiliteer kan word deur die gebruik van, ’n item; of
+(iii) ’n misdryf— (aa) soortgelyk aan dié in Deel I of Deel II van Hoofstuk 2 beoog; of 40 (bb) wesenlik soortgelyk aan ’n misdryf in die Republiek erken wat gepleeg kan word by wyse van, of gefasiliteer kan word deur die gebruik van, ’n item, in daardie vreemde Staat.
+
+(2) Die Suid-Afrikaanse Polisiediens kan enige inligting van ’n vreemde Staat 45 ontvang, behoudens voorwaardes rakende vertroulikheid en beperking van gebruik waarop ooreengekom mag word, wat—
+
+(a) die Suid-Afrikaanse Polisiediens behulpsaam mag wees in die inisiëring of uitvoering van ondersoeke; of
+(b) kan lei tot verdere samewerking met ’n vreemde Staat om ’n ondersoek uit te 50 voer,
+
+aangaande die pleging of vermeende pleging van— (i) ’n misdryf in Deel I of Deel II van Hoofstuk 2 beoog, in die Republiek; of (ii) enige ander misdryf ingevolge die wette van die Republiek, wat gepleeg kan word by wyse van, of gefasiliteer kan word deur die gebruik van, ’n item; of 55
+
+66
+
+(iii) an offence— (aa) similar to those contemplated in Part I or Part II of Chapter 2; or (bb) substantially similar to an offence recognised in the Republic, which may be committed by means of, or facilitated through the use of, an article, in that foreign State.
+
+# Foreign requests for assistance and cooperation
+
+48. (1) A request by an authority, court or tribunal exercising jurisdiction in a foreign State for the—
+
+(a) preservation of data or other article;
+(b) seizure of data or other article;
+(c) expedited disclosure of traffic data;
+(d) obtaining of real-time communication-related information or archived communication-related information; or
+(e) interception of indirect communications,
+
+10
+
+ust, subject to subsection (9), be submitted to the designated Point of Contact.
+
+15
+
+(2) The designated Point of Contact must submit the request to the National Director of Public Prosecutions for consideration.
+
+(3) (a) Upon receipt of a request referred to in subsection (2), the National Director of Public Prosecutions must satisfy himself or herself that—
+
+(i) proceedings have been instituted in a court or tribunal exercising jurisdiction in 20 the requesting foreign State; or
+(ii) there are reasonable grounds for believing that an offence has been committed in the requesting foreign State or that it is necessary to determine whether an offence has been so committed and that an investigation in respect thereof is being conducted in the requesting foreign State; and 25
+
+(iii) the offence in question is—
+
+(aa) similar to those contemplated in Part I or Part II of Chapter 2; or (bb) substantially similar to an offence recognised in the Republic, which may be committed by means of, or facilitated through the use of, an article; and (iv) the foreign State intends to submit a request in terms of section 7 of the 3 International Co-operation in Criminal Matters Act, 1996, for obtaining the data, information, a communication or an article in the Republic for use in such proceedings or investigation in the foreign State.
+
+(b) For purposes of paragraph (a), the National Director of Public Prosecutions may rely on a certificate purported to be issued by a competent authority in the foreign State 35 concerned, stating the facts contemplated in subsection $(3)(a)$ .
+
+(4) (a) The National Director of Public Prosecutions must submit the request for assistance, together with their recommendations, to the Cabinet member responsible for the administration of justice, for the Cabinet member’s approval.
+
+(b) Upon being notified of the Cabinet member’s approval the National Director of 40 Public Prosecutions must forward the request contemplated in subsection (1) to the designated judge for consideration.
+
+(5) Where the request relates to the expedited disclosure of traffic data, subsections (3)(a)(iv) and (4) do not apply, and the National Director of Public Prosecutions must submit the request for assistance, together with their recommendations, to the designated 45 judge.
+
+(6) Subject to subsections (7) and (8), the designated judge may on receipt of a request referred to in subsection (4) or (5), issue any order they deem appropriate to ensure that the requested—
+
+(a) data or other article is preserved in accordance with section 42; 50
+(b) data or other article is seized on an expedited basis in accordance with section 29 and preserved;
+(c) traffic data is disclosed on an expedited basis in terms of a disclosure of data direction in accordance with section 44;
+(d) real-time communication-related information or archived communication 55 related information, is obtained and preserved; or
+
+(e) indirect communications are intercepted and preserved,
+
+as is specified in the request.
+
+67
+
+(iii) ’n misdryf—
+
+(aa) soortgelyk aan dié in Deel I of Deel II van Hoofstuk 2 beoog; of
+(bb) wesenlik soortgelyk aan ’n misdryf in die Republiek erken, wat gepleeg kan word by wyse van, of gefasiliteer kan word deur die gebruik van, ’n item,
+in daardie vreemde Staat.
+
+# Buitelandse versoeke om bystand en samewerking
+
+48. (1) ’n Versoek deur ’n owerheid, hof of tribunaal wat regsbevoegdheid in ’n vreemde Staat uitoefen om die—
+
+(a) bewaring van data of ander item;
+(b) beslaglegging op data of ander item;
+(c) bespoedigde openbaarmaking van verkeersdata;
+(d) verkryging van intydse kommunikasie-verwante inligting of argief-bewaarde kommunikasie-verwante inligting; of
+(e) onderskepping van onregstreekse kommunikasie,
+
+10
+
+15
+
+et, behoudens subartikel (9), aan die aangewese Kontakpunt voorsien word.
+
+(2) Die aangewese Kontakpunt moet die versoek aan die Nasionale Direkteur vir Openbare Vervolgings voorlê vir oorweging.
+
+(3) (a) By ontvangs van ’n versoek in subartikel (2) bedoel, moet die Nasionale Direkteur vir Openbare Vervolgings hulself tevrede stel— 20
+
+(i) dat verrigtinge ingestel is in ’n hof of tribunaal wat regsbevoegdheid in die versoekende vreemde Staat uitoefen; of
+(ii) dat daar redelike gronde is om te vermoed dat ’n misdryf in die versoekende vreemde Staat gepleeg is of dat dit nodig is om vas te stel of ’n misdryf aldus gepleeg is en dat ’n ondersoek ten opsigte daarvan in die versoekende vreemde 25 Staat onderneem word; en
+
+(iii) dat die betrokke misdryf—
+
+(aa) soortgelyk is aan dié in Deel I of Deel II van Hoofstuk 2 beoog; of
+(bb) wesenlik soortgelyk is aan ’n misdryf in die Republiek erken, wat gepleeg kan word by wyse van, of gefasiliteer kan word deur die gebruik 30 van, ’n item; en
+
+dat die vreemde Staat voornemens is om ’n versoek te rig ingevolge artikel 7 van die Wet op Internasionale Samewerking in Strafregtelike Aangeleenthede, 1996, vir die verkryging van die data, inligting, ’n kommunikasie of ’n item in die Republiek vir gebruik in daardie verrigtinge of ondersoek in die vreemde Staat.
+
+(b) By die toepassing van paragraaf (a), kan die Nasionale Direkteur van Openbare Vervolgings steun op ’n sertifikaat wat heet om uitgereik te wees deur ’n bevoegde owerheid in die betrokke vreemde Staat, waarin die feite in subartikel (3)(a) beoog, vermeld word.
+
+(4) (a) Die Nasionale Direkteur van Openbare Vervolgings moet die versoek om 40 bystand, tesame met hul aanbevelings, aan die Kabinetslid verantwoordelik vir die regspleging voorlê vir die Kabinetslid se goedkeuring.
+
+(b) By verwittiging van die Kabinetslid se goedkeuring, moet die Nasionale Direkteur van Openbare Vervolgings die versoek in subartikel (1) beoog, na die aangewese regter stuur vir oorweging.
+
+(5) Waar die versoek verband hou met die bespoedigde openbaarmaking van verkeersdata, is subartikels (3)(a)(iv) en (4) nie van toepassing nie, en die Nasionale Direkteur van Openbare Vervolgings moet die versoek om bystand, saam met hul aanbevelings, aan die aangewese regter voorlê.
+
+(6) Behoudens subartikels (7) en (8), kan die aangewese regter by ontvangs van ’n 50 versoek in subartikel (4) of (5) beoog, enige bevel uitreik wat hulle gepas ag om te verseker dat die aangevraagde—
+
+(a) data of ander item ooreenkomstig artikel 42 bewaar word;
+(b) data of ander item op beslag gelê word op ’n bespoedigde grondslag ooreenkomstig artikel 29 en bewaar word; 5
+(c) verkeersdata op ’n bespoedigde grondslag openbaar gemaak word ingevolge ’n lasgewing vir openbaarmaking van data ooreenkomstig artikel 44;
+(d) intydse kommunikasie-verwante inligting of argief-bewaarde kommunikasieverwante inligting, verkry en bewaar word; of
+(e) onregstreekse kommunikasie onderskep en bewaar word,
+
+soos in die versoek gespesifiseer.
+
+(7) The designated judge may only issue an order contemplated in subsection (6), if— (a) on the facts alleged in the request, there are reasonable grounds to believe that—
+
+(i) an offence substantially similar to the offences contemplated in Part I or Part II of Chapter 2 has been, is being, or will probably be committed; or any other offence substantially similar to an offence recognised in the Republic, has been, is being, or will probably be committed by means of, or facilitated through the use of, an article; and (iii) for purposes of the investigation it is necessary, in the interests of justice, to give an order contemplated in subsection (6);
+
+(b) the request clearly identifies—
+
+(i) the person, electronic communications service provider or financial institution— (aa) who or which will receive, is in possession of, or is in control of, the data or other article that must be preserved; or 1 (bb) from whose facilities the data, real-time communication-related information, archived communication-related information, indirect communications or traffic data must be obtained or intercepted;
+
+(ii) the data or other article which must be preserved;
+
+(iii) the data or other article which must be seized on an expedited basis and 20 be preserved;
+(iv) the traffic data which must be disclosed on an expedited basis;
+(v) the real-time communication-related information or archived communication-related information, which is to be obtained; or
+(vi) the indirect communications, which are to be intercepted; 25
+
+(c) the request is, where applicable, in accordance with—
+
+(i) any treaty, convention or other agreement to which that foreign State and the Republic are parties or which can be used as a basis for mutual assistance; or
+(ii) any agreement with any foreign State entered into in terms of section 57; 30 and
+
+(d) the order contemplated in subsection (6) is in accordance with any applicable law of the Republic.
+
+(8) The designated judge may, where a request relates to the expedited disclosure of raffic data—
+
+(a) specify conditions or restrictions relating to the disclosure of traffic data as they deem appropriate; or
+(b) refuse to issue an order referred to in subsection (6)(c), if the disclosure of the traffic data may prejudice the sovereignty, security, public safety or other essential interests of the Republic.
+
+(9) (a) In the case of urgency, a request by any authority, court or tribunal exercising jurisdiction in a foreign State referred to in subsection (1), may be submitted directly to the designated judge.
+
+(b) Upon receipt of a request in terms of paragraph (a), the designated judge may issue any order referred to in subsection (6).
+
+(10) (a) A specifically designated police official must serve or execute an order ontemplated in subsection (6).
+
+(b) The specifically designated police official referred to in paragraph (a), must inform—
+
+(i) the designated judge; and (ii) the National Director of Public Prosecutions, in writing, of the fact that an order has been served or executed.
+
+(11) The National Director of Public Prosecutions must, in writing, inform the applicable authority in a foreign State of the fact that an order was issued and executed or not issued.
+
+# Complying with order of designated judge
+
+49. (1) A person, electronic communications service provider or financial institution must comply with an order of the designated judge issued in terms of section 48(6).
+
+(2) A person, electronic communications service provider or financial institution to whom an order referred to in section 48(6) is addressed may, in writing, apply to the 60
+
+69
+
+(7) Die aangewese regter kan slegs ’n bevel in subartikel (6) beoog gee, indien— (a) daar, op die feite in die versoek beweer, redelike gronde is om te glo dat— (i) ’n misdryf, wesenlik soortgelyk aan die misdrywe in Deel I of Deel II van Hoofstuk 2 beoog gepleeg is, gepleeg word of waarskynlik gepleeg sal word; of (ii) enige ander misdryf wesenlik soortgelyk aan ’n misdryf in die Republiek erken, is, word of waarskynlik gepleeg sal word by wyse van, of gefasiliteer deur die gebruik van, ’n item; en (iii) vir die doeleindes van die ondersoek, dit nodig is, in die belang van geregtigheid, om ’n bevel beoog in subartikel (6) te gee;
+
+(b) die versoek identifiseer duidelik— (i) die persoon, elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of finansiële instelling— (aa) wat die data of ander item wat bewaar moet word, sal ontvang, in besit is daarvan, of in beheer is daarvan; of (bb) vanaf wie se fasiliteite die data, intydse kommunikasie-verwante inligting, argief-bewaarde kommunikasie-verwante inligting, onregstreekse kommunikasie of verkeersdata verkry of onderskep moet word;
+
+(ii) die data of ander item wat bewaar moet word; 20
+(iii) die data of ander item waarop beslag gelê moet word op ’n bespoedigde grondslag en wat bewaar moet word;
+(iv) die verkeersdata wat op ’n bespoedigde grondslag openbaargemaak moet word; die intydse kommunikasie-verwante inligting of argief-bewaarde 25 kommunikasie-verwante inligting, wat verkry moet word; of
+(vi) die onregstreekse kommunikasie wat onderskep moet word
+
+c) die versoek, waar van toepassing, in ooreenstemming is met—
+
+(i) enige verdrag, konvensie of ander ooreenkoms waartoe daardie vreemde Staat en die Republiek partye is of wat as grondslag vir onderlinge 30 bystand gebruik kan word; of
+(ii) enige ooreenkoms met enige vreemde Staat aangegaan ingevolge artikel 57; en
+
+(d) die bevel in subartikel (6) beoog in ooreenstemming is met enige toepaslike reg van die Republiek.
+
+(8) Die aangewese regter kan, waar ’n versoek verband hou met die bespoedigde penbaarmaking van verkeersdata—
+
+(a) voorwaardes of beperkings in verband met die openbaarmaking van verkeersdata spesifiseer soos hul gepas ag; of
+(b) weier om ’n bevel bedoel in subartikel (6)(c) te gee, indien die open- 40 baarmaking van die verkeersdata die soewereiniteit, sekuriteit, openbare veiligheid of ander noodsaaklike belange van die Republiek kan benadeel.
+
+(9) (a) In die geval van dringendheid, kan ’n versoek deur enige owerheid, hof of tribunaal wat regsbevoegdheid in ’n vreemde Staat bedoel in subartikel (1) uitoefen, regstreeks aan die aangewese regter voorgelê word.
+
+(b) By ontvangs van ’n versoek ingevolge paragraaf (a), kan die aangewese regter enige bevel bedoel in subartikel (6) gee.
+
+(10) (a) ’n Spesifiek aangewese polisiebeampte moet ’n bevel in subartikel (6) beoog, beteken of uitvoer.
+
+(b) Die spesifiek aangewese polisiebeampte bedoel in paragraaf (a), moet— (i) die aangewese regter; en (ii) die Nasionale Direkteur van Openbare Vervolgings, kriftelik inlig van die feit dat ’n bevel beteken of uitgevoer is.
+
+(11) Die Nasionale Direkteur van Openbare Vervolgings moet die toepaslike owerheid in ’n vreemde Staat skriftelik inlig van die feit dat ’n bevel gegee en uitgevoer 55 is of nie gegee is nie.
+
+# Voldoening aan bevel van aangewese regter
+
+49. (1) ’n Persoon, elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of finansiële instelling moet aan ’n bevel van die aangewese regter wat ingevolge artikel 48(6) uitgevaardig is, voldoen.
+
+(2) ’n Persoon, elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of finansiële instelling aan wie ’n bevel bedoel in artikel 48(6) gerig is, kan skriftelik by die aangewese regter designated judge for an amendment or the cancellation of the order concerned on the ground that they cannot timeously or in a reasonable fashion, comply with the order.
+
+(3) The designated judge to whom an application is made in terms of subsection (2) must, as soon as possible after receipt thereof—
+
+(a) consider the application and may, for this purpose, order oral or written 5 evidence to be adduced regarding any fact alleged in the application;
+(b) give a decision in respect of the application; and
+(c) if the application is successful, inform the National Director of Public Prosecutions of the outcome of the application. (4) A person, electronic communications service provider or financial institution 10
+who— (a) fails to comply with an order referred to in section 48(6); or (b) makes a false statement in an application referred to in subsection (2),
+is guilty of an offence and is liable on conviction to a fine or imprisonment for a period
+not exceeding two years or to both a fine and such imprisonment. 15
+
+# Informing foreign State of outcome of request for mutual assistance and expedited disclosure of traffic data
+
+50. (1) The National Director of Public Prosecutions must inform— (a) the designated judge; and (b) the applicable authority in a foreign State, of the outcome of the request for assistance and cooperation.
+
+(2) Any traffic data made available in terms of an order referred to in section $48(6)(c)$ , must be—
+
+(a) provided to the designated Point of Contact, in the prescribed manner, for submission to the applicable authority in a foreign State; and 25
+(b) accompanied by— (i) a copy of the order referred to in section 48(6); and (ii) an affidavit in the prescribed form by the person or authorised representative of an electronic communications service provider or financial institution, verifying the authenticity, integrity and reliability of 30 the information that is furnished.
+
+(3) The traffic data together with the copy of the order and affidavit referred to in subsection (2), must be provided to the applicable authority in a foreign State which requested the assistance in terms of section 48(1).
+
+(4) A person, electronic communications service provider or financial institution 35 who—
+
+(a) fails to comply with subsection (2) or any regulations contemplated in section 59(1)(a)(xxii); or (b) makes a false statement in an affidavit referred to in subsection (2)(b)(ii), is guilty of an offence and is liable on conviction to a fine or imprisonment for a period 40 not exceeding two years or to both a fine and such imprisonment.
+
+# Issuing of direction requesting assistance from foreign State
+
+51. (1) If it appears to a magistrate from information on oath or by way of affirmation that there are reasonable grounds for believing that—
+
+(a) an offence contemplated in Part I or Part II of Chapter 2; or $(b)$ any other offence in terms of the laws of the Republic, which may be committed by means of, or facilitated through the use of, an article, has been committed or that it is necessary to determine whether the offence has been so ommitted and that it is necessary—
+
+(i) pending the issuing of a letter of request in terms of section 2(2) of the 50 International Co-operation in Criminal Matters Act, 1996, to— (aa) preserve data or other articles; (bb) seize data or other articles on an expedited basis;
+
+aansoek doen om ’n wysiging of die kansellasie van die betrokke bevel op grond daarvan dat hulle nie tydig of op ’n redelike wyse aan die bevel kan voldoen nie. (3) Die aangewese regter by wie ’n aansoek ingevolge subartikel (2) gedoen is, moet, so gou moontlik ná ontvangs daarvan—
+
+(a) die aansoek oorweeg en kan, vir hierdie doel, beveel dat mondelinge of 5 skriftelike getuienis aangebied word aangaande enige feit in die aansoek beweer; (b) ’n beslissing gee ten opsigte van die aansoek; en (c) indien die aansoek suksesvol is, die Nasionale Direkteur van Openbare Vervolgings verwittig van die uitslag van die aansoek. 10 (4) ’n Persoon, elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of finansiële instelling wat— (a) versuim om aan ’n bevel bedoel in artikel 48(6) te voldoen; of (b) ’n vals verklaring maak in ’n aansoek in subartikel (2) bedoel, s skuldig aan ’n misdryf en is by skuldigbevinding strafbaar met ’n boete of 15 gevangenisstraf vir ’n tydperk van hoogstens twee jaar of met beide ’n boete en sodanige gevangenisstraf.
+
+# Verwittiging van vreemde Staat van uitslag van versoek om onderlinge bystand en bespoedigde openbaarmaking van verkeersdata
+
+50. (1) Die Nasionale Direkteur van Openbare Vervolgings moet— (a) die aangewese regter; en (b) die toepaslike owerheid in ’n vreemde Staat, inlig van die uitkoms van die versoek om bystand en samewerking.
+
+(2) Enige verkeersdata wat ingevolge ’n bevel bedoel in artikel 48(6)(c) beskikbaar gestel word, moet— 2
+
+(a) op die voorgeskrewe wyse aan die aangewese Kontakpunt verskaf word vir voorlegging aan die toepaslike owerheid in ’n vreemde Staat; en
+(b) vergesel gaan van— (i) ’n afskrif van die bevel in artikel 48(6) bedoel; en (ii) ’n beëdigde verklaring in die voorgeskrewe vorm deur die persoon of 30 gemagtigde verteenwoordiger van ’n elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of finansiële instelling, wat die egtheid, integriteit en betroubaarheid van die inligting wat voorsien word, bevestig.
+
+(3) Die verkeersdata, tesame met die afskrif van die bevel en beëdigde verklaring in subartikel (2) bedoel, moet aan die toepaslike owerheid wat regsbevoegdheid uitoefen in 35 ’n vreemde Staat wat die bystand ingevolge artikel 48(1) aangevra het, voorsien word.
+
+(4) ’n Persoon, elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of finansiële instelling wat— versuim om aan subartikel (2) of enige regulasies beoog in artikel 59(1)(a)(xxii) te voldoen; of 40 (b) ’n vals verklaring maak in ’n beëdigde verklaring in subartikel (2)(b)(ii) bedoel,
+
+is skuldig aan ’n misdryf en is by skuldigbevinding strafbaar met ’n boete of gevangenisstraf vir ’n tydperk van hoogstens twee jaar of met beide ’n boete en sodanige gevangenisstraf.
+
+# Uitreiking van lasgewing om onderlinge bystand van vreemde Staat te versoek
+
+51. (1) Indien dit vir ’n landdros uit inligting onder eed of by wyse van plegtige verklaring blyk dat daar redelike gronde is om te vermoed dat—
+
+(a) ’n misdryf beoog in Deel I of Deel II van Hoofstuk 2; of (b) enige ander misdryf ingevolge die wette van die Republiek, wat gepleeg kan 50 word by wyse van, of gefasiliteer kan word deur die gebruik van, ’n item, gepleeg is of dat dit nodig is om vas te stel of die misdryf aldus gepleeg is en dat dit nodig is—
+
+(i) hangende die uitreiking van ’n versoekbrief ingevolge artikel 2(2) van die Wet op Internasionale Samewerking in Strafregtelike Aangeleenthede, 1996, om— 55 (aa) data of ander items te bewaar; (bb) op ’n bespoedigde grondslag op data of ander items beslag te lê;
+
+(cc) obtain real-time communication-related information or archived communication-related information; or
+(dd) intercept indirect communications; or
+
+(ii) to obtain traffic data,
+
+within the area of jurisdiction of a foreign State, the magistrate may issue a direction in 5 the prescribed form in which assistance from that foreign State is sought as is stated in the direction.
+
+2) A direction contemplated in subsection (1) must specify that—
+
+(a) there are reasonable grounds for believing that an offence contemplated in subsection $(1)(a)$ or $(b)$ has been committed in the Republic or that it is 10 necessary to determine whether such an offence has been committed;
+$(b)$ an investigation in respect thereof is being conducted; and
+$(c)$ for purposes of the investigation it is necessary, in the interests of justice, that— (i) data or other articles specified in the direction, be preserved; 15 (ii) data or any other article specified in the direction is to be seized on an expedited basis and be preserved; (iii) traffic data specified in the direction, be disclosed on an expedited basis; (iv) real-time communication-related information or archived communication-related information specified in the direction, be obtained and be 20 preserved; or (v) indirect communications, specified in the direction, be intercepted and be preserved,
+
+within the area of jurisdiction of a foreign State.
+
+(3) The direction must be sent to the National Director of Public Prosecutions for 25 transmission to— (a) the appropriate authority in the foreign State; or $(b)$ a designated point of contact in the foreign State, which is requested to provide assistance and cooperation.
+
+# CHAPTER 6
+
+# DESIGNATED POINT OF CONTACT
+
+# Establishment and functions of designated Point of Contact
+
+52. (1) The National Commissioner must—
+
+(a) establish or designate an office within existing structures of the South African Police Service to be known as the designated Point of Contact for the 35 Republic; and
+(b) equip, operate and maintain the designated Point of Contact.
+
+(2) The National Commissioner exercises final responsibility over the administration and functioning of the designated Point of Contact.
+
+(3) (a) The designated Point of Contact must ensure the provision of immediate 40 assistance for the purpose of proceedings or investigations regarding the commission or intended commission of—
+
+(i) an offence under Part I or Part II of Chapter 2;
+(ii) any other offence in terms of the laws of the Republic, which may be committed by means of, or facilitated through the use of, an article; or 45
+(iii) an offence— (aa) similar to those contemplated in Part I or Part II of Chapter 2; or (bb) substantially similar to an offence recognised in the Republic, which may be committed by means of, or facilitated through the use of, an article, in a foreign State. 50
+
+(b) The assistance contemplated in subsection (3)(a), includes—
+
+(i) the provision of technical advice and assistance;
+(ii) the facilitation or provision of assistance regarding anything which is authorised under Chapters 4 and 5;
+(iii) the provision of legal assistance;
+(iv) the identification and location of an article;
+
+73
+
+(cc) intydse kommunikasie-verwante inligting of argief-bewaarde kommunikasie-verwante inligting te verkry; of
+
+(dd) onregstreekse kommunikasies te onderskep; of (ii) om verkeersdata te verkry,
+
+binne die regsgebied van ’n vreemde Staat, kan die landdros ’n lasgewing in die 5 voorgeskrewe vorm uitreik waarin bystand van daardie vreemde Staat versoek word soos in die lasgewing uiteengesit word.
+
+(2) ’n Lasgewing in subartikel (1) bedoel, moet spesifiseer dat—
+
+(a) daar redelike gronde is om te glo dat ’n misdryf in subartikel (1)(a) of $(b)$ in die Republiek gepleeg is of dat dit nodig is om vas te stel of so ’n misdryf 10 gepleeg is;
+(b) ’n ondersoek ten opsigte daarvan onderneem word; en
+(c) dit vir die doeleindes van die ondersoek, in die belang van geregtigheid, nodig is dat— (i) data of ander items in die lasgewing gespesifiseer, bewaar word; 15 (ii) data of enige ander item in die lasgewing gespesifiseer, op ’n bespoedigde grondslag op beslag gelê en bewaar moet word; (iii) verkeersdata, in die lasgewing gespesifiseer, op ’n bespoedigde grondslag openbaargemaak moet word; (iv) intydse kommunikasie-verwante inligting of argief-bewaarde 20 kommunikasie-verwante inligting in die lasgewing gespesifiseer, verkry en bewaar moet word; of (v) onregstreekse kommunikasie in die lasgewing gespesifiseer, onderskep en bewaar moet word,
+
+binne die regsgebied van ’n vreemde Staat.
+
+(3) Die lasgewing moet aan die Nasionale Direkteur van Openbare Vervolgings gestuur word vir oorsending aan—
+
+(a) die gepaste owerheid in die vreemde Staat; of (b) ’n aangewese Kontakpunt in die vreemde Staat, waarvan bystand en samewerking versoek word.
+
+# HOOFSTUK 6
+
+# AANGEWESE KONTAKPUNT
+
+# Instelling en werksaamhede van aangewese Kontakpunt
+
+52. (1) Die Nasionale Kommissaris moet— (a) ’n kantoor instel of aanwys binne die bestaande strukture van die Suid- 35 Afrikaanse Polisiediens, wat as die aangewese Kontakpunt vir die Republiek bekend sal staan; en
+
+(b) die aangewese Kontakpunt toerus, bedryf en in stand hou.
+
+(2) Die Nasionale Kommissaris oefen finale verantwoordelikheid oor die dministrasie en funksionering van die aangewese Kontakpunt uit. 40
+
+(3) (a) Die aangewese Kontakpunt moet die voorsiening van onmiddellike bystand verseker vir die doeleindes van verrigtinge of ondersoeke rakende die pleging of voorgenome pleging van—
+
+(i) ’n misdryf kragtens Deel I of Deel II van Hoofstuk 2;
+(ii) enige ander misdryf ingevolge die wette van die Republiek, wat gepleeg kan 45 word by wyse van, of gefasiliteer kan word deur die gebruik van,’n item; of
+(iii) ’n misdryf— (aa) soortgelyk aan dié in Deel I of Deel II van Hoofstuk 2 beoog; of (bb) wesenlik soortgelyk aan ’n misdryf in die Republiek erken, wat gepleeg kan word by wyse van, of gefasiliteer kan word deur die gebruik van, ’n 50 item, in ’n vreemde Staat.
+
+(b) Die bystand beoog in subartikel (3)(a) sluit in—
+
+(i) die voorsiening van tegniese advies en bystand;
+(ii) die fasilitering of voorsiening van bystand aangaande enigiets wat kragtens 55 Hoofstukke 4 en 5 gemagtig is;
+(iii) die voorsiening van regsbystand;
+(iv) die identifikasie en opsporing van ’n item;
+(v) the identification and location of a suspect; and
+(vi) cooperation with appropriate authorities of a foreign State.
+(4) The Cabinet member responsible for policing may make regulations to further— (a) regulate any aspect provided for in subsection (3); (b) impose additional duties on the designated Point of Contact; and 5 (c) regulate any aspect which is necessary or expedient for the proper implementation of this section.
+
+(5) The National Director of Public Prosecutions must make available members of the National Prosecuting Authority—
+
+(a) who have particular knowledge and skills in respect of any aspect dealt with 10 in this Act; and
+(b) to whom a security clearance has been issued by the State Security Agency in terms of section 2A of the National Strategic Intelligence Act, 1994, to the satisfaction of the National Director of Public Prosecutions,
+
+to provide legal assistance to the designated Point of Contact as may be necessary or 15 expedient for the effective operation of the designated Point of Contact.
+
+(6) (a) The Cabinet member responsible for policing must, at the end of each financial year, submit a report to the Chairperson of the Joint Standing Committee on Intelligence established by section 2 of the Intelligence Services Oversight Act, 1994, on the functions and activities of the designated Point of Contact.
+
+20
+
+$(b)$ The report contemplated in paragraph (a) must include—
+(i) the number of matters in which assistance was provided in terms of subsection $(3)(a)$ ; and
+(ii) the number of matters in which assistance was received from a foreign State.
+
+# CHAPTER 7
+
+# EVIDENCE
+
+# Proof of certain facts by affidavit
+
+53. (1) Whenever any fact established by any examination or process requiring any skill in—
+
+30
+
+(a) the interpretation of data;
+(b) the design or functioning of data, a computer program, a computer data storage medium or a computer system;
+(c) computer science;
+(d) electronic communications networks and technology;
+(e) software engineering; or
+$(f)$ computer programming,
+
+35
+
+is or may become relevant to an issue at criminal proceedings or civil proceedings as contemplated in Chapter 5 or 6 of the Prevention of Organised Crime Act, 1998, a document purporting to be an affidavit or a solemn or attested declaration made by a person who, in that document, states that they—
+
+40
+
+(i) (aa) fall within a category of persons within the Republic; or $(b b)$ are in the service of a body in the Republic or a foreign State, designated by the Cabinet member responsible for the administration of justice, by notice in the Gazette;
+(ii) possess relevant qualifications, expertise and experience which makes them 45 competent to make the affidavit; and
+(iii) have established such fact by means of an examination or process that is documented in the document,
+
+is, upon its mere production at such proceedings, prima facie proof of such fact.
+
+(2) Any person who makes an affidavit or a solemn or attested declaration under 50 subsection (1) and who in such affidavit or solemn or attested declaration wilfully states anything which is false, is guilty of an offence and is liable on conviction to a fine or imprisonment for a period not exceeding two years or to both a fine and such imprisonment.
+
+(v) die identifikasie en opsporing van ’n verdagte; en (vi) samewerking met toepaslike owerhede van ’n vreemde Staat. (4) Die Kabinetslid verantwoordelik vir polisiëring kan regulasies uitvaardig om verder— (a) enige aspek waarvoor in subartikel (3) voorsiening gemaak word, te reël; 5 (b) bykomende pligte aan die aangewese Kontakpunt op te lê; en (c) enige aspek wat noodsaaklik of raadsaam is vir die behoorlike implementering van hierdie artikel, te reël.
+
+(5) Die Nasionale Direkteur van Openbare Vervolgings moet lede van die Nasionale Vervolgingsgesag beskikbaar stel— 10
+
+(a) wat bepaalde kennis en vaardighede het ten opsigte van enige aspek wat in hierdie Wet hanteer word; en
+(b) aan wie ’n sekerheidsklaring deur die Staatsveiligheidsagentskap ingevolge artikel 2A van die Wet op Nasionale Strategiese Intelligensie, 1994, uitgereik is, tot die tevredenheid van die Nasionale Direkteur van Openbare 15 Vervolgings,
+
+om regshulp aan die aangewese Kontakpunt te voorsien soos noodsaaklik of raadsaam mag wees vir die doeltreffende bedryf van die aangewese Kontakpunt.
+
+(6) (a) Die Kabinetslid verantwoordelik vir polisiëring moet, aan die einde van elke boekjaar, ’n verslag aan die Voorsitter van die Gesamentlike Staande Komitee oor 20 Intelligensie ingestel by artikel 2 van die Wet op Toesig oor Intelligensiedienste, 1994, voorlê oor die werksaamhede en aktiwiteite van die aangewese Kontakpunt.
+
+(b) Die verslag in paragraaf (a) beoog, moet insluit— (i) die getal aangeleenthede waar bystand ingevolge subartikel (3)(a) aan ’n vreemde Staat voorsien is; en 25 (ii) die getal aangeleenthede waar bystand van ’n vreemde Staat ontvang is.
+
+# HOOFSTUK 7
+
+# GETUIENIS
+
+# Bewys van sekere feite deur beëdigde verklaring
+
+53. (1) Wanneer enige feit vasgestel deur enige ondersoek of proses wat enige 30 vaardigheid vereis in—
+
+(a) die vertolking van data;
+(b) die ontwerp of funksionering van data, ’n rekenaarprogram, ’n rekenaardatabergingsmedium of ’n rekenaarstelsel;
+(c) rekenaarwetenskap;
+$(d)$ elektroniese kommunikasienetwerke en tegnologie;
+(e) sagteware-ingenieurswese; of
+$(f)$ rekenaarprogrammering,
+
+35
+
+tersaaklik is of kan word tot $\mathbf{\chi}_{\mathrm{n}}^{\prime}$ aangeleentheid by strafregtelike verrigtinge of siviele verrigtinge soos in Hoofstuk 5 of 6 van die Wet op Voorkoming van Georganiseerde 40 Misdaad, 1998, beoog, is ’n dokument wat voorgee om ’n beëdigde verklaring of plegtige of geattesteerde verklaring te wees soos afgelê deur ’n persoon wat, in daardie dokument, stel dat hulle—
+
+(i) (aa) in ’n kategorie van persone in die Republiek val; of (bb) in die diens staan van ’n liggaam in die Republiek of ’n vreemde Staat, 45 deur die Kabinetslid verantwoordelik vir die regspleging by kennisgewing in die Staatskoerant aangewys;
+(ii) tersaaklike kwalifikasies, kundigheid en ervaring het wat hulle bevoeg maak om die beëdigde verklaring af te lê; en
+(iii) daardie feit met behulp van ’n ondersoek of proses wat in die dokument 50 gedokumenteer is, vasgestel het,
+
+is by die blote voorlegging daarvan by sodanige verrigtinge, prima facie bewys van sodanige feit.
+
+(2) Enige persoon wat kragtens subartikel (1) ’n beëdigde verklaring of plegtige of geattesteerde verklaring aflê en wat in sodanige beëdigde verklaring of plegtige of 55 geattesteerde verklaring opsetlik enigiets stel wat vals is, is skuldig aan ’n misdryf en is by skuldigbevinding strafbaar met ’n boete of gevangenisstraf vir ’n tydperk van hoogstens twee jaar of met beide ’n boete en sodanige gevangenisstraf.
+
+(3) The court before which an affidavit or solemn or attested declaration is produced as prima facie proof of the relevant contents thereof may, in its discretion, cause the person who made the affidavit or solemn or attested declaration to be subpoenaed to give oral evidence in the proceedings in question or may cause written interrogatories to be submitted to such person for reply and such interrogatories and any reply thereto purporting to be a reply from such person are likewise admissible in evidence at such proceedings.
+
+(4) No provision of this section affects any other law under which any certificate or other document is admissible in evidence and the provisions of this section are deemed to be additional to and not in substitution of any such law.
+
+(5) (a) For the purposes of subsection (1), a document purporting to be an affidavit or a solemn or attested declaration made by a person who in that affidavit alleges that they are in the service of a body in the Republic or a foreign State designated by the Cabinet member responsible for the administration of justice, by notice in the Gazette, has no effect unless it is—
+
+15
+
+(i) obtained in terms of an order of a competent court or on the authority of a government institution of the foreign State concerned, as the case may be; and
+(ii) authenticated— (aa) in the manner prescribed in the rules of court for the authentication of documents executed outside the Republic; or (bb) by a person and in the manner contemplated in section 7 or 8 of the Justices of the Peace and Commissioners of Oaths Act, 1963.
+
+(b) The admissibility and evidentiary value of an affidavit contemplated in paragraph (a) are not affected by the fact that the form of the oath, confirmation or attestation thereof differs from the form of the oath, confirmation or attestation prescribed in the 25 Republic.
+
+(c) A court before which an affidavit or a solemn or attested declaration contemplated in paragraph (a) is placed may, in order to clarify any obscurities in the said affidavit, order that a supplementary affidavit or a solemn or attested declaration be submitted or that oral evidence be heard: Provided that oral evidence may only be heard if the court 30 is of the opinion that it is in the interests of the administration of justice and that a party to the proceedings would be prejudiced materially if oral evidence is not heard.
+
+# CHAPTER 8
+
+# REPORTING OBLIGATIONS AND CAPACITY BUILDING
+
+# Obligations of electronic communications service providers and financial institu- 35 tions
+
+54. (1) An electronic communications service provider or financial institution that is aware or becomes aware that its electronic communications service or electronic communications network is involved in the commission of any category or class of offences provided for in Part I of Chapter 2 and which is determined in terms of 40 subsection (2), must—
+
+(a) without undue delay and, where feasible, not later than 72 hours after having become aware of the offence, report the offence in the prescribed form and manner to the South African Police Service; and
+(b) preserve any information which may be of assistance to the South African 45 Police Service in investigating the offence.
+
+(2) The Cabinet member responsible for policing, in consultation with the Cabinet member responsible for the administration of justice, must by notice in the Gazette, prescribe—
+
+(a) the category or class of offences which must be reported to the South African 50 Police Service in terms of subsection (1); and
+(b) the form and manner in which an electronic communications service provider or financial institution must report offences to the South African Police Service.
+
+(3) Die hof voor wie ’n beëdigde verklaring of plegtige of geattesteerde verklaring voorgelê word as prima facie-bewys van die tersaaklike inhoud daarvan kan, na goeddunke, die persoon wat die beëdigde verklaring of plegtige of geattesteerde verklaring afgelê het, laat dagvaar om mondelinge getuienis in die betrokke verrigtinge af te lê of kan skriftelike vraagpunte vir beantwoording aan sodanige persoon laat voorlê en sodanige vraagpunte en enige antwoord daarop wat voorgee om ’n antwoord van sodanige persoon te wees, is insgelyks as getuienis by sodanige verrigtinge toelaatbaar. (4) Geen bepaling van hierdie artikel maak inbreuk op enige ander wetsbepaling waarkragtens enige sertifikaat of ander dokument as getuienis toelaatbaar is nie, en die bepalings van hierdie artikel word geag so ’n wetsbepaling aan te vul en nie te vervang nie.
+
+(5) (a) By die toepassing van subartikel (1), is ’n dokument wat voorgee om ’n beëdigde verklaring of plegtige of geattesteerde verklaring afgelê deur ’n persoon wat in daardie beëdigde verklaring of plegtige of geattesteerde verklaring beweer dat hulle in die diens staan van ’n liggaam in die Republiek of ’n vreemde Staat aangewys deur die Kabinetslid verantwoordelik vir die regspleging by kennisgewing in die Staatskoerant, van nul en gener waarde tensy dit—
+
+(i) ingevolge ’n bevel van ’n bevoegde hof of op gesag van ’n regeringsinstelling van die betrokke vreemde Staat, na gelang van die geval, verkry is; en
+(ii) gewaarmerk is— (aa) op die wyse voorgeskryf in die hofreëls vir die waarmerking van dokumente wat buite die Republiek verly is; of (bb) deur ’n persoon, en op die wyse beoog in artikel 7 of 8 van die Wet op Vrederegters en Kommissarisse van Ede, 1963.
+
+(b) Die toelaatbaarheid en bewyswaarde van ’n beëdigde verklaring in paragraaf (a) 25 bedoel, word nie geraak deur die feit dat die vorm van die eed, bevestiging of attestasie daarvan verskil van die vorm van die eed, bevestiging of attestasie wat in die Republiek voorgeskryf word nie.
+
+(c) ’n Hof voor wie’n beëdigde verklaring of ’n plegtige of geattesteerde verklaring in paragraaf (a) beoog, voorgelê word, kan ten einde enige onduidelikhede in die bedoelde 30 beëdigde verklaring op te klaar, beveel dat ’n aanvullende beëdigde verklaring of plegtige of geattesteerde verklaring voorgelê word of dat mondelinge getuienis aangehoor word: Met dien verstande dat mondelinge getuienis slegs aangehoor kan word indien die hof van oordeel is dat dit in die belang van die regspleging is en dat ’n party tot die verrigtinge wesenlik benadeel sal word indien mondelinge getuienis nie 35 aangehoor word nie.
+
+# HOOFSTUK 8
+
+# RAPPORTERINGSVERPLIGTINGE EN KAPASITEITSBOU
+
+Verpligtinge van elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffers en finansiële instellings
+
+54. (1) ’n Elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of finansiële instelling wat bewus is van of bewus word daarvan dat sy elektroniese kommunikasiediens of elektroniese kommunikasienetwerk betrokke is by die pleging van enige kategorie of klas misdrywe waarvoor in Deel I van Hoofstuk 2 voorsiening gemaak en wat ingevolge subartikel (2) bepaal word, moet—
+
+(a) sonder onnodige vertraging en, waar moontlik, nie later nie as 72 uur ná bewuswording van die misdryf, die misdryf op die voorgeskrewe vorm en wyse by die Suid-Afrikaanse Polisiediens aanmeld; en
+(b) enige inligting bewaar wat die Suid-Afrikaanse Polisiediens in die ondersoek van die misdryf behulpsaam kan wees.
+
+(2) Die Kabinetslid verantwoordelik vir polisiëring, in oorleg met die Kabinetslid verantwoordelik vir die regspleging, moet—
+
+(a) die kategorie of klas van misdrywe wat ingevolge subartikel (1) by die Suid-Afrikaanse Polisiediens aangemeld moet word; en
+(b) die vorm en wyse waarop ’n elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of 55 finansiële instelling misdrywe by die Suid-Afrikaanse Polisiediens moet aanmeld,
+
+by kennisgewing in die Staatskoerant voorskryf.
+
+(3) An electronic communications service provider or financial institution that fails to comply with subsection (1), is guilty of an offence and is liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $\mathtt{R50000}$ .
+
+(4) Subject to any other law or obligation, the provisions of subsection (1) must not be interpreted as to impose obligations on an electronic service provider or financial institution to—
+
+(a) monitor the data which the electronic communications service provider or financial institution transmits or stores; or (b) actively seek facts or circumstances indicating any unlawful activity.
+
+(5) This section does not apply to a financial sector regulator or a function performed 10 by the South African Reserve Bank in terms of section 10 of the South African Reserve Bank Act, 1989.
+
+# Capacity to detect, prevent and investigate cybercrimes
+
+55. (1) The Cabinet member responsible for policing must—
+
+(a) establish and maintain sufficient human and operational capacity to detect, 15 prevent and investigate cybercrimes;
+(b) ensure that members of the South African Police Service receive basic training in aspects relating to the detection, prevention and investigation of cybercrimes; and
+(c) in co-operation with any institution of higher learning, in the Republic or 20 elsewhere, develop and implement accredited training programmes for members of the South African Police Service primarily involved with the detection, prevention and investigation of cybercrimes.
+
+(2) The Cabinet member responsible for policing may make regulations to further regulate any aspect referred to in subsection (1).
+
+(3) The Cabinet member responsible for policing must, at the end of each financial year, submit a report to Parliament regarding—
+
+(a) progress made with the implementation of this section;
+(b) the number of— (i) offences provided for in Part I or Part II of Chapter 2, which were 30 reported to the South African Police Service; (ii) cases which were, in terms of subparagraph (i), reported to the South African Police Service which resulted in criminal prosecutions; and (iii) cases where no criminal prosecutions were instituted after a period of 18 months after a case was, in terms of subparagraph (i), reported to the 35 South African Police Service; and
+
+(c) the number of members of the South African Police Service who received training as contemplated in subsection (1)(b) and (c).
+
+# National Director of Public Prosecutions must keep statistics of prosecutions
+
+56. (1) The National Director of Public Prosecutions must keep statistics of the number of prosecutions instituted for offences in terms of Part I or Part II of Chapter 2, the outcome of such prosecutions and any other information relating to such prosecutions, which is determined by the Cabinet member responsible for the administration of justice.
+
+(2) The statistics or information contemplated in subsection (1) must be included in the report of the National Director of Public Prosecutions referred to in section 22(4)(g) of the National Prosecuting Authority Act, 1998.
+
+(3) ’n Elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of finansiële instelling wat versuim om aan subartikel (1) te voldoen, is skuldig aan ’n misdryf en is by skuldigbevinding strafbaar met ’n boete van hoogstens $\mathord{\mathrm{R50000}}$ .
+
+(4) Behoudens enige ander wetsbepaling of verpligting, moet die bepalings van subartikel (1) nie sodanig uitgelê word nie dat dit verpligtinge aan ’n elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of finansiële instelling sou oplê om—
+
+(a) die data wat die elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of finansiële instelling oorsend of berg te monitor; of
+(b) aktief feite of omstandighede te soek wat aanduidend is van enige onwettige aktiwiteit.
+
+(5) Hierdie Hoofstuk is nie op ’n finansiële sektor reguleerder of ’n werksaamheid verrig deur die Suid-Afrikaanse Reserwebank ingevolge artikel 10 van die Wet op die Suid-Afrikaanse Reserwebank, 1989, van toepassing nie.
+
+# Kapasiteit om kubermisdade te bespeur, te voorkom en te ondersoek
+
+55. (1) Die Kabinetslid verantwoordelik vir polisiëring moet—
+
+15
+
+(a) genoegsame menslike hulpbron- en operasionele kapasiteit vestig en in stand hou om kubermisdade te bespeur, te voorkom en te ondersoek;
+(b) verseker dat lede van die Suid-Afrikaanse Polisiediens basiese opleiding ontvang in aspekte wat verband hou met die bespeuring, voorkoming en ondersoek van kubermisdade; en 20
+(c) in samewerking met enige inrigting vir hoër onderwys, in die Republiek of elders, geakkrediteerde opleidingsprogramme ontwikkel en instel vir lede van die Suid-Afrikaanse Polisiediens wat hoofsaaklik gemoeid is met die bespeuring, voorkoming en ondersoek van kubermisdade.
+
+(2) Die Kabinetslid verantwoordelik vir polisiëring kan regulasies uitvaardig om 25 enige aspek in subartikel (1) bedoel, verder te reël.
+
+(3) Die Kabinetslid verantwoordelik vir polisiëring moet, aan die einde van elke boekjaar, ’n verslag aan die Parlement voorlê aangaande—
+
+(a) vordering met die implementering van hierdie artikel;
+(b) die getal— 30 (i) misdrywe waarvoor in Deel I of Deel II van Hoofstuk 2 voorsiening gemaak word, wat by die Suid-Afrikaanse Polisiediens aangemeld is; (ii) sake wat, ingevolge subparagraaf (i), by die Suid-Afrikaanse Polisiediens aangemeld is, wat tot strafregtelike verrigtinge gelei het; en (iii) sake waar geen strafregtelike vervolgings ingestel is nie ná ’n tydperk 35 van 18 maande nadat ’n saak ingevolge subparagraaf (i) by die Suid-Afrikaanse Polisiediens aangemeld is; en
+
+(c) die getal lede van die Suid-Afrikaanse Polisiediens wat opleiding soos beoog in subartikel $(1)(b)$ en (c), ontvang het.
+
+# Nasionale Direkteur van Openbare Vervolgings moet statistieke van vervolgings 40 hou
+
+56. (1) Die Nasionale Direkteur van Openbare Vervolgings moet statistieke hou van die getal vervolgings ingestel vir misdrywe ingevolge Deel I of Deel II van Hoofstuk 2, die uitslag van daardie vervolgings en enige ander inligting aangaande daardie vervolgings, wat deur die Kabinetslid verantwoordelik vir die regspleging bepaal word. 45 (2) Die statistieke of inligting in subartikel (1) beoog, moet in die verslag van die Nasionale Direkteur van Openbare Vervolgings bedoel in artikel $22(4)(g)$ van die Wet op die Nasionale Vervolgingsgesag, 1998, ingesluit word.
+
+80
+
+# CHAPTER 9
+
+# GENERAL PROVISIONS
+
+# National Executive may enter into agreements
+
+57. (1) The National Executive may enter into any agreement with any foreign State regarding—
+
+(a) the provision of mutual assistance and cooperation relating to the investigation and prosecution of—
+
+(i) an offence under Part I or Part II of Chapter 2;
+(ii) any other offence in terms of the laws of the Republic, which may be committed by means of, or facilitated through the use of, an article; or 10
+(iii) an offence— (aa) similar to those contemplated in Part I or Part II of Chapter 2; or (bb) substantially similar to an offence recognised in the Republic, which may be committed by means of, or facilitated through the use of, an article, 15 in that foreign State;
+
+(b) the implementation of cybercrime response activities;
+(c) training, research, information and technology-sharing and the exchange of information on the detection, prevention, mitigation and investigation of cybercrimes; 20
+(d) the establishment or designation of points of contact to facilitate the provision of mutual assistance and cooperation as contemplated in paragraph (a);
+(e) the implementation of emergency cross-border response mechanisms to mitigate the effect of cybercrimes; and
+$(f)$ the reciprocal implementation of measures to curb cybercrime. 25
+
+(2) A member of the National Executive must, as soon as practicable after Parliament has agreed to the ratification of, accession to, amendment of, or revocation of, an agreement referred to in subsection (1), give notice thereof in the Gazette.
+
+# Repeal or amendment of laws
+
+58. The laws mentioned in the Schedule are hereby repealed or amended to the extent 30 reflected in the third column of the Schedule.
+
+# Regulations
+
+59. (1) The Cabinet member responsible for the administration of justice— (a) must make regulations to prescribe the— (i) form and manner of the application as contemplated in section 20(1); 35 (ii) form of the order as contemplated in section 20(3); (iii) manner of serving the order as contemplated in section 20(4); (iv) form and manner of the application as contemplated in section 20(6); (v) form and manner in which the court may subpoena a person as contemplated in section 20(8); 40 (vi) form of the direction and affidavit and manner to furnish information to a court as contemplated in section $21(1)(b)$ ; (vii) manner of serving a direction as contemplated in section 21(2); (viii) manner and the form of the affidavit to apply for an extension of the time period or cancellation of the direction as contemplated in section 45 $21(3)(b)$ ; (ix) manner for requesting additional information as contemplated in section $21(4)(b)$ ; (x) form and manner of informing an electronic communications service provider of the outcome of application as contemplated in section 50 $21(4)(d)$ ; (xi) tariffs of compensation payable to an electronic communications service provider as contemplated in section 21(6); (xii) form of the order and manner of service of the order as contemplated in section 22(3);
+
+# HOOFSTUK 9
+
+# ALGEMENE BEPALINGS
+
+# Nasionale Uitvoerende Gesag kan ooreenkomste aangaan
+
+57. (1) Die Nasionale Uitvoerende Gesag kan enige ooreenkoms met enige vreemde Staat aangaan oor—
+
+(a) die voorsiening van onderlinge bystand en samewerking aangaande die ondersoek en vervolging van— (i) ’n misdryf kragtens Deel I of Deel II van Hoofstuk 2; (ii) enige ander misdryf ingevolge die reg van die Republiek wat gepleeg kan word by wyse van, of gefasiliteer kan word deur die gebruik van, ’n item; 10 of (iii) ’n misdryf— (aa) soortgelyk aan dié in Deel I of Deel II van Hoofstuk 2 beoog; of (bb) wesenlik soortgelyk aan ’n misdryf in die Republiek erken wat gepleeg kan word by wyse van, of gefasiliteer kan word deur die 15 gebruik van, ’n item, in daardie vreemde Staat;
+
+) die instelling van kubermisdaadreaksie-aktiwiteite;
+
+(c) opleidings-, navorsings-, inligtings- en tegnologiedeling en die uitruil van inligting oor die bespeuring, voorkoming, mitigasie en ondersoek van 20 kubermisdade;
+(d) die instelling of aanwysing van kontakpunte om die voorsiening van onderlinge bystand en samewerking soos in paragraaf (a) beoog, te fasiliteer;
+(e) die inwerkingstelling van oorgrensnoodreaksiemeganismes om die uitwerking van kubermisdade te mitigeer; en 25
+$(f)$ die wedersydse inwerkingstelling van maatreëls om kubermisdaad te bekamp.
+
+(2) ’n Lid van die Nasionale Uitvoerende Gesag moet, so gou prakties moontlik nadat die Parlement ingestem het tot die bekragtiging van, toetreding tot, wysiging van of herroeping van ’n ooreenkoms in subartikel (1) bedoel, kennis daarvan in die Staatskoerant gee.
+
+# Herroeping of wysiging van wette
+
+58. Die wette in die Bylae genoem word hierby herroep of gewysig tot die mate in die derde kolom van die Bylae aangedui.
+
+# Regulasies
+
+59. (1) Die Kabinetslid verantwoordelik vir die regspleging— (a) moet regulasies uitvaardig om die—
+
+(i) vorm en wyse van die aansoek soos in artikel 20(1) beoog; (ii) vorm van die bevel soos in artikel 20(3) beoog;
+(iii) wyse van betekening van die bevel soos in artikel 20(4) beoog;
+(iv) vorm en wyse van die aansoek soos in artikel 20(6) beoog; 40 (v) vorm en wyse waarop die hof ’n persoon kan dagvaar soos in artikel 20(8) beoog;
+(vi) vorm van die lasgewing en beëdigde verklaring en wyse waarop inligting aan die hof voorsien moet word soos in artikel $21(1)(b)$ beoog;
+(vii) wyse van betekening van ’n lasgewing soos in artikel 21(2) beoog; 45
+(viii) wyse en die vorm van die beëdigde verklaring om aansoek te doen om ’n verlenging van die tydperk of kansellasie van die lasgewing soos in artikel $21(3)(b)$ beoog;
+(ix) wyse vir aanvra van bykomende inligting soos in artikel 21(4)(b) beoog; (x) vorm en wyse waarop ’n elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer van 50 die uitslag van die aansoek ingelig moet word soos in artikel 21(4)(d) beoog;
+(xi) tariewe van vergoeding betaalbaar aan ’n elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer soos in artikel 21(6) beoog;
+(xii) vorm van die bevel en wyse van betekening van die bevel soos in artikel 55 22(3) beoog;
+
+82
+
+(xiii) form and manner of the application as contemplated in section 22(5);
+(xiv) form and manner in which the court may subpoena a person as contemplated in section 22(7); (xv) the form of the expedited preservation of data direction and manner of service as contemplated in section 41(3); 5
+(xvi) form and manner for the making of an application as contemplated in section 41(7);
+(xvii) form of the preservation of evidence direction and manner of service as contemplated in section 42(2);
+(xviii) form and manner of an application to set aside a preservation of evidence 10 direction as contemplated in section 42(5);
+(xix) form of the disclosure of data direction and manner of service as contemplated in section 44(3); (xx) form and manner of an application for the amendment or setting aside of a disclosure of data direction as contemplated in section 44(5); 15
+(xxi) form of the affidavit as contemplated in section $44(7)(b)$ ;
+(xxii) manner in which traffic data must be provided to the designated Point of Contact as contemplated in section 50(2);
+(xxiii) form of the affidavit as contemplated in section 50(2)(b)(ii); and
+(xxiv) form of the direction as contemplated in section 51(1); and 20
+
+(b) may make regulations which are not inconsistent with this Act or any other law to prescribe any matter which in terms of this Act may be prescribed or which may be necessary or expedient to prescribe in order to achieve or promote the objects of this Act.
+
+(2) (a) The Cabinet member responsible for policing must make regulations in terms of section 54(2), prescribing the—
+
+(i) category or class of offences which must be reported to the South African Police Service in terms of section $54(2)(a)$ ; and
+(ii) form and manner in which an electronic communications service provider or financial institution must report offences to the South African Police Service as contemplated in section $54(2)(b)$ .
+
+(b) The Cabinet member responsible for policing may make regulations to further egulate aspects contemplated in section 52(4) and 55(2).
+
+# Short title and commencement
+
+60. (1) This Act is called the Cybercrimes Act, 2020, and comes into operation on a date fixed by the President by proclamation in the Gazette. (2) Different dates may be fixed under subsection (1) in respect of different provisions of this Act.
+
+83
+
+(xiii) vorm en wyse van die aansoek soos in artikel 22(5) beoog; (xiv) vorm en wyse waarop die hof ’n persoon kan dagvaar soos in artikel 22(7) beoog; (xv) vorm van die lasgewing vir bespoedigde bewaring van data en wyse van betekening soos in artikel 41(3) beoog; 5 (xvi) vorm en wyse waarop ’n aansoek soos beoog in artikel 41(7) gedoen moet word; (xvii) vorm van die lasgewing vir bewaring van getuienis en wyse van betekening soos in artikel 42(2) beoog; (xviii) vorm en wyse waarop ’n aansoek om tersydestelling van ’n lasgewing vir 10 bewaring van getuienis gedoen moet word, soos in artikel 42(5) beoog; (xix) vorm van die lasgewing vir openbaarmaking van data en wyse van betekening soos in artikel 44(3) beoog; (xx) vorm en wyse waarop ’n aansoek om die wysiging of tersydestelling van ’n lasgewing vir die openbaarmaking van data gedoen moet word soos in 15 artikel 44(5) beoog; (xxi) vorm van die beëdigde verklaring soos in artikel 44(7)(b) beoog; (xxii) wyse waarop verkeersdata aan die aangewese Kontakpunt verskaf moet word soos in artikel 50(2) beoog; (xxiii) vorm van die beëdigde verklaring soos in artikel 50(2)(b)(ii) beoog; en 20 (xxiv) vorm van die lasgewing soos in artikel 51(1) beoog, voor te skryf; en
+
+(b) kan regulasies uitvaardig wat nie met hierdie Wet of enige ander wetsbepaling onbestaanbaar is nie, om enige aangeleentheid voor te skryf wat ingevolge hierdie Wet voorgeskryf kan word of wat nodig of dienstig kan wees om voor 25 te skryf ten einde die oogmerke van hierdie Wet te bereik of te bevorder.
+
+(2) (a) Die Kabinetslid verantwoordelik vir polisiëring moet regulasies ingevolge artikel 54(2) uitvaardig, wat die—
+
+(i) kategorie of klas van misdrywe wat by die Suid-Afrikaanse Polisiediens aangemeld moet word ingevolge artikel $54(2)(a)$ ; en 30
+(ii) vorm en wyse waarop ’n elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer of finansiële instelling misdrywe by die Suid-Afrikaanse Polisiediens moet aanmeld soos in artikel $54(2)(b)$ beoog,
+
+voorskryf.
+
+(b) Die Kabinetslid verantwoordelik vir polisiëring kan regulasies uitvaardig om 35 aspekte in artikel 52(4) en 55(2) beoog, verder te reël.
+
+# Kort titel en inwerkingtreding
+
+60. (1) Hierdie Wet heet die Wet op Kubermisdade, 2020, en tree in werking op ’n datum deur die President by proklamasie in die Staatskoerant vasgestel. (2) Verskillende datums kan kragtens subartikel (1) ten opsigte van verskillende 40 bepalings van hierdie Wet vasgestel word.
+
+84
+
+# Schedule
+
+(Section 58) LAWS REPEALED OR AMENDED
+
+
Number and year of law Act No. 51 of 1977 Act,1977
Short title Criminal Procedure 5: “A contravention of section 8, 9 or 10 of the Cybercrimes Act, 2020- (b)
Extent of repeal or amendment The addition of the following items to Schedule
(ii)
(a)involving amounts of more than R500 000,00; involving amounts of more than R100 000,00, if it is proven that the offence was committed- (i)by a person, group of persons, syndicate or any enterprise act- ing in the execution or further- ance of a common purpose or conspiracy; or by a person or with the collusion or assistance of another person, who as part of his or her duties, functions or lawful authority was in charge of, in control of, or had access to data, a computer program, a computer data stor- age medium or a computer sys- tem of another person in respect of which the offence in question was committed; or (c)if it is proven that the offence was committed by any law enforcement officer- (i)involving amounts of more than R10 000; or (ii) as a member of a group of persons, syndicate or any enter- prise acting in the execution or furtherance of a common pur- pose or conspiracy; or (iii)with the collusion or assistance of another person, who as part of his or her duties, functions or lawful authority was in charge of, in control of, or had access to
Act No. 68 of
offence in question was com- mitted. A contravention of section 11(2) of the Cybercrimes Act, 2020." South African Police|The deletion of section 71. Service Act, 1995
+
+Wet op Kubermisdade, 2020
+
+85
+
+# Bylae
+
+(Artikel 58) WETTE HERROEP OF GEWYSIG
+
+
Nommer en jaar van wet Wet No.51 van 1977 1977
Kort titel Strafproseswet,
Omvang van herroeping of wysiging
Die volgende items word by Bylae 5 gevoeg: n Oortreding van artikel 8, 9 of 10 van die Wet op Kubermisdade, 2020- (a)waarby bedrae van R500 000,00 betrokkeis (b) waarby bedrae van R100 000,00 betrokke is, indien bewys word dat die misdryf gepleeg is- (i)deur 'n persoon, groep persone, sindikaat of enige onderneming handelende in die uitvoering of bevordering van 'n gemeenskap- like doel of sameswering; of (ii)_deur ‘n persoon of met die sameswering of bystand van iemand anders, wat as deel van sy of haar pligte, werksaamhede of wettige magtiging, toesig gehad het oor, in beheer was van, of toegang gehad het tot data, ‘'n rekenaarprogram, rekenaardatabergingsmedium of 'n rekenaarstelsel van 'n ander persoon ten opsigte waarvan die betrokke misdryf gepleeg is; of (c)indien bewys word dat die misdryf deur enige wetstoepassingsbeampte gepleeg is- (i)_waarby bedrae van R10 000 betrokke is; of (ii)as 'n lid van 'n groep persone, sindikaat of enige onderneming handelende in die uitvoering of ter bevordering van 'n gemeen-
skaplike doel of sameswering; of (iii) met die sameswering of bystand van iemand anders,wat as deel van sy of haar pligte, werksaam- hede of wettige magtiging toesig gehad het oor, in beheer was van, of toegang gehad het tot data,'n rekenaarprogram, 'n rekenaardatabergingsmedium of 'n rekenaarstelsel van iemand anders ten opsigte waarvan die betrokke misdryf gepleeg is.
van 1995
'n Oortreding van artikel 11(2) van die Wet op Kubermisdade, 2020." Artikel 71 word geskrap. Artikel 24B word geskrap.
Wet No.68 Wet No.65 van 1996
Wet op Suid- Afrikaanse Polisiediens, 1995 Wet op Films en Publikasies, 1996
+
+Act No. 19 of 2020
+86
+
+
+
Number and year of law Act No.105 Criminal Law of 1997 Amendment Act, 1997
Short title
Extent of repeal or amendment
Schedule 2:
The addition of the following item to Part II of “A contravention of section 8, 9 or 10 of the Cybercrimes Act, 2020- (a)involving amounts of more than R500 000,00; (b)involving amounts of more than R100 000,00, if it is proven that the offence was committed- (i) by a person, group of persons, syndicate or any enterprise act- ing in the execution or further- ance of a common purpose or conspiracy; or (ii)_by a person or with the collusion or assistance of another person, who as part of his or her duties, functions or lawful authority was in charge of, in control of, or had access to data, a computer program, a computer data stor- age medium or a computer sys- tem of another person in respect of which the offence in question was committed; or (c)if it is proven that the offence was committed by any law enforcement officer- (i)involving amounts of more than R10 000; or (ii) as a member of a group of
persons, syndicate or any enter- prise acting in the execution or furtherance of a common pur- pose or conspiracy; or (iii)_with the collusion or assistance of another person, who as part of his or her duties, functions or lawful authority was in charge of, in control of, or had access to data, a computer_program,a computer data storage medium or a computer system of another person in respect of which the
Act No. 32 of 1998
National Prosecut- ing Authority Act,
offence in question was com- mitted." The deletion of sections 40A and 41(4).
Act No. 111 of1998 Act No. 38 of
Correctional Ser- vices Act,1998 Financial Intelli- gence Centre Act,
The deletion of section 128. The deletion of sections 65, 66 and 67.
+
+Wet op Kubermisdade, 2020
+
+Wet No. 19 van 2020
+87
+
+
+
Nommer en jaar van wet Wet No.105
Kort titel
Omvang van herroeping of wysiging
van 1997 van 2001 Intelligensiesentrum, 2001
Strafregwysigings- wet,1997
gevoeg: is- tenopsigte (c)indien bewys word dat die misdryf gepleeg is- (i)_waarby bedrae van of
“n Oortreding vanartikel 8, 9of 10 van die Wet op Kubermisdade, 2020- (a)waarby bedrae van meer as R500 000,00 betrokke is; (b)waarby bedrae van meer as R100 000,00 betrokke is, indien bewys word dat die misdryf gepleeg (i)deur 'n persoon, groep persone, sindikaat of enige onderneming handelende in die uitvoering of bevordering_van'n gemeen- skaplike doel of sameswering; of (ii) deur 'n persoon of met die
sameswering of bystand van iemand anders, wat as deel van sy of haar pligte, werksaamhede of wettige magtiging toesig gehad het oor, in beheer was van of toegang gehad het tot data, 'n rekenaarprogram, 'n rekenaar- databergingmedium of 'n reke- naarstelsel van iemand anders waarvan die betrokke misdryf gepleeg is; of deur enige wetstoepassingsbeampte R10 000,00 betrokke is; of (ii)as 'n lid van 'n groep persone, sindikaat of enige onderneming handelende in die uitvoering of ter bevordering van 'n gemeen- skaplike doel of sameswering; (iii)met die sameswering of bystand van iemand anders, wat as deel van sy of haar pligte, werksaam- hede of wettige magtiging toesig gehad het oor, in beheer was van of toegang gehad het tot data, 'n die meer as
Wet No.32 van 1998
Wet op die Nasionale Vervolgingsgesag,
rekenaarprogram, ‘n rekenaar- databergingsmedium of n reke- naarstelsel van iemand anders tenopsigte waarvan betrokke misdryf gepleeg is.". Artikels 40A en 41(4) word geskrap. Artikel 128 word geskrap.
Wet No. 111 van 1998 Wet No.38 Wet op Finansiele
1998 Wet op Korrektiewe Dienste,1998
+
+Act No. 19 of 2020
+88
+
+
+
Number and year of law
Short title
Extent of repeal or amendment
Act No. 25 of 2002
Electronic Commu- nications and Trans- actions Act, 2002
(a) The deletion of sections 85, 86, 87 and 88. (b) The substitution for section 89 of the following section: “Penalties 89. [(1)] A person convicted of an offence referred to in sections 37(3), 40(2), 58(2),80(5)[,] or 82(2) [0r 86(1), (2) or (3)] is liable to a fine or imprisonment for a period not exceeding 12 months. [(2) A person convicted of an offence referred to in section 86(4) or (5) or section 87 is liable to a fine or imprison-
Act No. 70 of 2002
Regulation of Inter- (a) ception of Commu- nications and Provi- sion of Communication related Information Act, 2002
ment for a period not exceeding five years.]". The amendment of section 1 by the substi- tution for paragraph (a) of the definition of “serious offence” of the following para- graph: “(a) offence mentioned in [the] Schedule 1; or". (b) The amendment of section 4 by the addi- tion of the following subsection: “(3) Notwithstanding subsection (2), a law enforcement officer or a person who is authorised in terms of the Criminal Proce- dure Act, 1977, the Cybercrimes Act, 2020, or any other law to engage or to apprehend a suspect or to enter premises in respect of the commission or suspected commission of any offence, may during the apprehension of the suspect or during the time that he or she is lawfully on the premises, record what he or she observes or hears if- (a)the recording relates directly to the purpose for which the suspect was apprehended or the law enforcement officer or_person entered the pre- mises; and (b) the law enforcement officer or person has- (i)identified himself or herself as such; and (ii) verbally informed any_person concerned that his or her direct communications are to be re- corded, before such recording is made." (c) The substitution for subsection (4) of section 17 of the following subsection: “(4) A real-time communication-related direction may only be issued if it appears
+
+Wet op Kubermisdade, 2020
+
+89
+Wet No. 19 van 2020
+
+
+
Nommer en jaar van wet
Kort titel
Omvang van herroeping of wysiging
Wet No.25 van 2002
Wet op Elektroniese Kommunikasies en Transaksies, 2002
(a) Artikels 85, 86, 87 en 88 word geskrap. (b) Artikel 89 word deur die volgende artikel vervang: “Strawwe 89. [(1)] 'n Persoon wat skuldig bevind is aan 'n misdryf bedoel in artikels 37(3), 40(2),58(2), 80(5)[,l of 82(2) [of 86(1), (2) of (3)] is strafbaar met 'n boete of gevangenisstraf vir 'n tydperk wat nie 12 maande oorskry nie. [(2)'n Persoon wat skuldig bevind is aan 'n misdryf bedoel in artikel 86(4) of
Wet No. 70 van 2002
Wet op die Reeling van Onderskepping van Kommunikasies en Verstrekking van Kommunikasie- verwante Inligting, 2002
(5) of artikel 87 is strafbaar met 'n boete of gevangenisstraf vir 'n tydperk wat nie vyf jaar oorskry nie.]" (a) Artikel 1 word gewysig deur paragraaf (a) van die omskrywingvan“ernstige misdryf" deur die volgende paragraaf te vervang: “(a) misdryf vermeld in [die] Bylae 1; of". (b) Artikel 4 word gewysig deur die volgende subartikel by te voeg: “(3)Ondanks subartikel (2), kan 'n wetstoepassingsbeampte of n persoon wat ingevolge die Strafproseswet, 1977, die Wet op Kubermisdade, 2020, of enige ander wetsbepaling, gemagtig is om ‘n verdagte te betrek of in hegtenis te neem of om ‘n perseel te betree ten opsigte van die pleging of vermeende pleging van enige misdryf, tydens die inhegtenisname van die verdagte of terwyl hy of sy wettig op die perseel is, opneem wat hy of sy waarneem of hoor indien- (a) die opname direk in verband staan met die doel waarvoor die verdagte in hegtenis geneem is of die wets- toepassingsbeampte of persoon die perseel betree het; en (b)die wetstoepassingsbeampte of persoon- (i) hom- of haarself as sodanig geidentifiseer het; en
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+Act No. 19 of 2020
+90
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Number and year of law
Short title
Extent of repeal or amendment
(d) The substitution for subsection (4) of
being or will probably be committed; (b) the gathering of information concern- ing an actual threat to the public health or safety, national security or compelling national economic inter- ests of the Republic is necessary; (c) the gathering of information concern- ing a potential threat to the public health or safety or national security of
the Republic is necessary; (d) the making of a request for the provision, or the provision to the competent authorities of a country or territory outside the Republic, of any
assistance in connection with, or in the form of, the interception of com- munications relating to organised crime, an offence mentioned in Schedule II or any offence relating to terrorism or the gathering of informa- tion relating to organised crime or terrorism, is in- (i) accordance with an international mutual assistance agreement; or
(ii) the interests of the Republic's international relations or obliga-
tions; or (e) the gathering of information concern- ing an offence mentioned in Schedule II, or property which is or could probably be an instrumentality of a serious offence, or is or could prob- ably be the proceeds of unlawful activities, is necessary, and that the provision of real-time commu- nication-related information is necessary
+
+Wet op Kubermisdade, 2020
+
+Wet No. 19 van 2020
+91
+
+
+
Nommer en jaar van wet
Kort titel
Omvang van herroeping of wysiging
(a)"n ernstige misdryf of 'n misdryf in Bylae II genoem, gepleeg is of word of waarskynlik gepleeg sal word;
of
(b) die insameling van inligting aan- gaande 'n werklike bedreiging van die openbare gesondheid veiligheid, nasionale sekuriteit of dwingende nasionale ekonomiese
belang van die Republiek nodig is; (c) die insameling van inligting aan- gaande ‘'n potensiele bedreiging van die openbare gesondheid
veiligheid of nasionale sekuriteit van die Republiek nodig is; (d) die rig van 'n versoek vir die voorsiening, of die voorsiening aan die bevoegde owerhede van 'n land of gebied buite die Republiek, van enige hulp in verband met, of in die vorm van, die onderskepping van kommunikasies met betrekking tot
georganiseerde misdaad, 'n misdryf in Bylae II genoem of enige misdryf met betrekking tot terrorisme of die insameling van inligting met be- trekking tot georganiseerde misdaad of terrorisme- (i) ooreenkomstig 'n internasionale (ii) in belang van die internasionale (e)die aangaande ‘n misdryf in Bylae II genoem, of eiendom wat 'n middel is of waarskynlik kan wees by'n ernstige misdryf of die opbrengs is of waarskynlik kan wees van onwettige aktiwiteite nodig is, en dat die verstrekking van intydse kommunikasie-verwante inligting nodig is vir die doeleindes van die ondersoek van so 'n misdryf of die insameling van sodanige inligting." (d) Subartikel (4) van artikel 19 word deur die volgende subartikel vervang: “(4)'n Argief-bewaarde kommuni- kasie-verwante lasgewing kan slegs uitgereik word indien dit vir die betrokke regter van die Hoe Hof, streekhoflanddros of landdros voorkom, op die feite in die betrokke aansoek beweer, dat daar redelike gronde is om te glo dat-
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+Act No. 19 of 2020
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Extent of repeal or amendment
(b) the gathering of information concern- ing an actual threat to the public health or safety, national security or compelling national economic inter- ests of the Republic is necessary; (c) the gathering of information concern- ing a potential threat to the public health or safety or national security of the Republic is necessary; (d) the making of a request for the provision, or the provision to the competent authorities of a country or territory outside the Republic, of any assistance in connection with,or in the form of, the interception of com- munications relating to organised crime, an_offence_mentionedin Schedule II or any offence relating to terrorism or the gathering of informa- tion relating to organised crime or terrorism, is in- (i) accordance with an international mutual assistance agreement; or (ii) the interests of the Republic's international relations or obliga- tions; or (e) the gathering of information concern- ing an offence mentioned in Schedule I or property which is or could probably be an instrumentality of a serious offence, or is or could prob- ably be the proceeds of unlawful activities, is necessary, and that the provision of archived commu- nication-related information is necessary for purposes of investigating such offence or gathering such information." (e)The renaming of the Schedule to the Act as "Schedule I” and the addition of the following items: “15 Any offence contemplated in section 17,18,19A or 20 of the Criminal Law (Sexual Offences and Related Matters)Amendment Act, 2007 (Act No. 32 of 2007). 16 Any offence contemplated in- (a)section 8, 9(1) or (2) or 10, which involves an amount of R200 000, 00 or more; or (b)section 11(1) or (2) or 17 (in so far as the section relates to the offences referred to in section 11(1) or (2)), of the Cybercrimes Act, 2020.”.
+
+Wet op Kubermisdade, 2020
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+93
+Wet No. 19 van 2020
+
+
+
Nommer en jaar van wet
Kort titel
Omvang van herroeping of wysiging
(b) die insameling van aangaande‘n werklike bedreiging van die openbare gesondheid of veiligheid, nasionale sekuriteit of dwingende nasionale ekonomiese belang van die Republiek nodig is; (c) dieinsameling van aangaande ‘n potensiele bedreiging van die openbare gesondheid of veiligheid of nasionale sekuriteit van die Republiek nodig is; (d) die rig van 'n versoek vir die voorsiening, of die voorsiening aan die bevoegde owerhede van 'n land of gebied buite die Republiek, van enige hulp in verband met, of in die vorm van, die onderskepping van kommunikasies met betrekking tot georganiseerde misdaad, 'n misdryf in Bylae II genoem of enige misdryf met betrekking tot terrorisme of die insameling van inligting met be- trekking tot georganiseerde misdaad of terrorisme- (i) ooreenkomstig ‘n internasionale onderlinge hulpooreenkoms is; of (ii) in belang van die internasionale betrekkinge of verpligtinge van die Republiek is; of (e) die insameling van inligting aan- gaande 'n misdryf in Bylae II genoem, of eiendom wat ‘n middel is of waarskynlik kan wees by‘n ernstige misdryf of die opbrengs is of waarskynlik kan wees van onwettige aktiwiteite nodig is, en dat die verstrekking van argief- bewaarde kommunikasie-verwante inlig- ting nodig is vir die doeleindes om so “n misdryf te ondersoek of sodanige inligting in te samel.". (e) Die herbenoeming van die Bylae tot die Wet as “Bylae I" en die byvoeging van die volgende items: “15Enige misdryf in artikels 17, 18, 19A of 20 van die Wysigingswet op die Strafreg(Seksuele Misdrywe en Verwante_Aangeleenthede),2007 (Wet No. 32 van 2007), beoog. 16 Enige misdryf beoog in- (a)artikel 8, 9(1) of (2) of 10 waarby 'n R200 000,00 of meer betrokke is; of (b) artikel 11(1) of (2) of 17 (vir sover die artikel in verband staan met die misdrywe bedoel in artikel 11(1) of (2), van die Wet op Kubermisdade, 2020.".
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+Act No. 19 of 2020
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Extent of repeal or amendment
Criminal Law
(f) 1 2
The addition of the following Schedule after Schedule I: “Schedule II Any offence referred to in- (a)section 3(1), 5,6,7(1),8,9(1) or (2), or 10; or (b) section 17 (in so far as the section relates to the offences referred to in paragraph (a)), of the Cybercrimes Act, 2020, which involves an amount of R50 000, 00 or more. Any offence which is substantially similar to an offence referred to in item 1 which is or was committed in a foreign State, which involves an
Act No.32 of 2007
(Sexual Offences and Related Mat- ters)Amendment Act,2007
amount of R50 000, 00 or more.". (a) The Index to the Criminal Law (Sexual Offences and Related Matters) Amend- 11A Harmful disclosure of pornography
ment Act, 2007, is hereby amended- (i) by the insertion of the following Part and items after item 11: “Part 3A Persons 18 years or older: Harmful disclosure of pornography and orders to protect complainant against harmful effects of disclosure of pornography
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+Wet op Kubermisdade, 2020
+
+95
+
+Wet No. 19 van 2020
+
+
+
Nommer en jaar van wet
Kort titel
Omvang van herroeping of wysiging
Wet No.32 van 2007
Wysigingswet op
(f) Die volgende Bylae word na Bylae I bygevoeg: “Bylae II Enige misdryf bedoel in- (a)artikels3(1),5,6,7(1),8,9(1) of (2), of 10; of (b)artikel17 (vir sover die artikelin verband staan met die misdrywe in paragraaf (a) bedoel), van die Wet op Kubermisdade, 2020, waarby 'n bedrag van R50 000,00 of meer betrokke is. 2 Enige misdryf wat wesenlik soort- gelyk is aan 'n misdryf in item 1 bedoel wat in 'n vreemde Staat gepleeg word of was, waarby‘n bedrag van R50 000,00 of meer betrokke is.".
die Strafreg (Seksuele Misdrywe en Verwante Aangeleenthede), 2007
(a) Die Inhoudsopgawe tot die Wysigingswet op die Strafreg (Seksuele Misdrywe en Verwante Aangeleenthede), 2007, word hierby gewysig- (i) deur die volgende Deel en items na item 11 in te voeg: “Deel 3A "Persone 18 jaar of ouer: Skadelike openbaarmaking van pornografie en bevele omklaer teen dieskadelike uitwerking van openbaarmaking van pornografie te beskerm 11A Skadelike openbaarmaking van pornografie 11B Bevele om klaer teen skadelike openbaarmaking van porno- grafie te beskerm hangende afhandeling van strafregtelike verrigtinge 11C Elektroniese kommunikasie- diensverskaffer moet besonder- hede aan hof verskaf 11D Bevele by afhandeling van strafregtelike verrigtinge”; (ii) deur die opskrif tot Deel 2 van Hoofstuk 3 deur die volgende opskrif te vervang: “Seksuele uitbuiting en seksuele aanvoring van kinders, blootstelling of vertoon van of veroorsaking van blootstelling of vertoon van kinder- pornografie of pornografie aan kinders,kinderpornografie en gebruikmaking van kinders vir
+
+96
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+Act No. 19 of 2020
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Number and year of law
Short title
Extent of repeal or amendment
(iii) the insertion after item 19 of the following item: “19A. Offences relating to child por- nography". (b) The amendment of section (i) by the insertion, after the definition of “Director of Public Prosecutions”,of the following definitions: “‘disclose' and ‘disclosure', in rela- tion to the harmful disclosure of pornography contemplated in section 11A, includes- (a) to send the pornography to a person who is the intended re- cipient of the electronic commu- nication or any other person; (b) to store the pornography on an electronic communications net- work, where the pornography can be viewed, copied or down- loaded; or (c)to send or otherwise make avail- able to a person, a link to the pornography that has been stored on an electronic commu- nication network, where the por- nography can be viewed, copied or downloaded; ‘Electronic Communications Act' means the Electronic Communica- tions Act, 2005 (Act No. 36 of 2005); 'electronic communications iden- tity number' means a technical iden- tification label which represents the origin or destination of electronic communications traffic; ‘electronic communications net- work' means an ‘electronic commu- nications network' as defined in section 1 of the Electronic Communi- cations Act, 2005, and includes a computer system; ‘electronic communications ser- vice' means any service which con- sists wholly or mainly of the convey- ance by any means of electronic communications over an electronic communications_ network, but ex- cludes broadcasting services as de- fined in section 1 of the Electronic Communications Act, 2005; *electronic communications service provider'means-
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+Wet op Kubermisdade, 2020
+
+Wet No. 19 van 2020
+97
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+
+
Nommer en jaar van wet
Kort titel
Omvang van herroeping of wysiging
(iii) deur die volgende item na item 19 in te voeg: “19A. Misdrywe in verband met kinderpornografie". (b) Artikel 1 word gewysig- (i) deur die volgende omskrywings na die omskrywing van“Direkteur van Openbare Vervolgings" in te voeg: “"elektroniese kommunikasie- diens' enige diens wat in die geheel of hoofsaaklik bestaan uit oordrag, op enige wyse, van elek- troniese kommunikasiesoor elektroniese kommunikasienetwerk, met uitsondering van uitsaaidienste soos omskryf in artikel 1 van die Wet op Elektroniese Kommunikasie, 2005; ‘elektroniese kommunikasiediens- verskaffer'- (a) enige persoon wat ‘n elektro- niese kommunikasiediens ver- skaf aan die publiek, dele van die publiek, die Staat, of die intekenaars tot sodanige diens, kragtens en ooreenkomstig 'n elektroniese kommunikasie- dienslisensie aan persoon uitgereik ingevolge die Wet op Elektroniese Kommuni- kasie, 2005, of wat geag word gelisensieer of vrygestel van lisensiering as sodanig te wees ingevolgedaardie Wet; en (b)‘n_persoon wat magtiging het om die bedryf of gebruik van ‘n private elek- troniese kommunikasie- diensnetwerk te beheerwat hoofsaaklik gebruik word vir voorsiening van elektroniese kommunikasiedienste vir die eienaar se eie gebruik en wat van lisensiering vrygestel is ingevolge die Wet op Elektro- niese Kommunikasie, 2005; *elektroniese kommunikasie-iden- titeitsnommer’ ‘n tegniese identi- fikasie-etiket wat die oorsprong of bestemming van elektroniese kommunikasieverkeer woordig; ‘elektroniese kommunikasie- netwerk"'n ‘elektroniese kommuni- kasienetwerk' soos omskryf in artikel 1 van die Wet op Elektroniese Kommunikasie, 2005, en sluit ‘n rekenaarstelsel in;""
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+Act No. 19 of 2020
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Number and year of law
Short title
Extent of repeal or amendment
(a)_any person who provides an electronic communications ser- vice to the public, sections of the public, the State, or the subscrib- ers to such service, under and in accordance with an electronic communications service licence issued to that person in terms of the Electronic Communications Act, 2005, or who is deemed to be licensed or exempted from being licensed as such in terms of that Act; and (b) a person who has lawful author- ity to control the operation or use of a private electronic com- munications network used pri- marily for providing electronic communications services for the owner's own use and which is exempted frombeing licensedin terms of the Electronic Commu- nications Act, 2005;"; and (ii) by the insertion, after the definition of “genital organs” of the following definitions: "*host' means to store information on an electronic communications net- work that is used to provide an electronic communications service, where it can be viewed,copied or downloaded; ‘live performance involving child pornography' means an event where
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+Wet op Kubermisdade, 2020
+
+Wet No. 19 van 2020
+99
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+
Nommer en jaar van wet
Kort titel
Omvang van herroeping of wysiging
(ii)) deur die volgende omskrywing na die omskrywing van “hof vir seksuele misdrywe" in te voeg: ‘huisves'ominligting op 'n elektroniese kommunikasienetwerk te berg wat gebruik word om ‘n elektroniese kommunikasiediens te verskaf, waar dit besigtig, gekopieer of afgelaai kan word;"; (iii) deur die volgende omskrywing na die omskrywing van “Nasionale Direkteur van Openbare Vervolg- ings" in te voeg: ‘openbaar maak' en ‘open- baarmaking', in verband met die skadelike openbaarmaking van pornografie in artikel 11A beoog, ook om- (a) die pornografie aan 'n persoon wat die bedoelde ontvanger van die elektroniese kommunikasie is of enige ander persoon te stuur; (b) die pornografie op ‘'n elek- troniese kommunikasienetwerk te berg, waar die _pornografie besigtig, gekopieer of afgelaai kan word; of (c)‘n skakel na die pornografie wat op 'n elektroniese kommuni- kasiediensnetwerk geberg is, aan‘n _persoon te stuur of andersins beskikbaar testel waar die pornografie besigtig, gekopieer of afgelaai kan word;"; (iv) deur die volgende omskrywing na die omskrywing van“pornografie” in te “‘regstreekse uitvoering wat kinderpornografie behels' 'n geleentheid waar 'n kind gebruik word om kinderpornografie te skep, te maak of te vervaardig;"; en (v) deur die volgende omskrywing na die omskrywing van“’sorggewer” in te voeg: voeg:
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+Act No. 19 of 2020
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Number and year of law
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Extent of repeal or amendment
(c)The following Part and sections are hereby inserted in Chapter 2 after section 11: “Part3A Persons18years or older:Harmful disclosure ofpornography and ordersto protectcomplainant against harmful effects of disclosure of pornography Harmful disclosure of pornography 11A.(1)A person (°A')who unlawfully and intentionally discloses or causes the disclosure of pornography in which a person (°B') appears or is described and such disclosure- (a)_takes place without the consent of B; and (b) causes any harm, including mental, psychological,physical,social or economic harm, to B or any member of the family of B or any other person in a close relationship to B, is guilty of the offence of harmful disclo- sure of pornography. (2)A person (°A') who unlawfully and intentionally threatens to disclose or threatens to cause the disclosure of por- nography referred to in subsection (1) and such threat causes, or such disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause, any harm referred to in subsection (1)(b), is guilty of the offence of threatening to disclose pornography that will cause harm. (3)A person (°A')who unlawfully and intentionally threatens disclose or threatens to cause the disclosure of por- nography referred to in subsection (1), for the purposes of obtaining any advantage from B or any member of the family of B or any other person in a close relationship to B,is guilty of the offence of harmful disclosure of pornography related extor- tion. Orders to protect complainant against harmful disclosure of pornography pending finalisation of criminal pro-
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+Wet op Kubermisdade, 2020
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+Wet No. 19 van 2020
+101
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Nommer en jaar van wet
Kort titel
Omvang van herroeping of wysiging
(c) Die volgende Deel en artikels word hierby na artikel 11 in Hoofstuk 2 ingevoeg: “Deel 3A Persone 18 jaar of ouer: Skadelike openbaarmaking van pornografieen beveleomklaer teenskadelike uitwerking van openbaarmakingvan pornografie te beskerm Skadelike openbaarmaking van pornografie 11A.(1)Iemand (A')wat weder- regtelik en opsetlik pornografie waarin 'n persoon (B') verskyn of beskryf word, openbaar maak of veroorsaak dat dit openbaar gemaak word,en sodanige openbaarmaking- (a)_vind plaas sonder B se toestemming; en (b) veroorsaak enige leed, met inbegrip van geestelike, psigologiese, fisieke, maatskaplike of ekonomiese leed, aan B of enige lid van B se familie of enige ander_persoon in 'n noue verwantskap met B, is skuldig aan die misdryf van skadelike openbaarmaking van pornografie. (2)Iemand ('A') wat wederregtelik en opsetlik dreig om pornografie soos bedoel in subartikel (1) openbaar te maak of dreig om die openbaarmaking daarvan _te veroorsaak, en sodanige dreigement enige leed, of sodanige openbaarmaking redelikerwys verwag kan word om enige leed, bedoel in subartikel (1)(b)te veroorsaak, is skuldig aan die misdryf van dreigement om pornografie openbaar te maak wat leed sal veroorsaak. (3)Iemand (°A')wat wederregtelik en opsetlik dreig om pornografie in subartikel (1) bedoel openbaar te maak of dreig om die openbaarmaking daarvan te ver- oorsaak ten einde enige voordeel van B of enige familielid van B of enige ander persoon in 'n noue verwantskap met B, te verkry, is skuldig aan die misdryf van skadelike openbaarmaking van porno- grafie verwante afpersing. Bevele ter beskerming van klaer teen skadelike openbaarmaking van porno- grafie beskerm hangende afhandeling van strafregtelike verrigtinge
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+Act No. 19 of 2020
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Number and year of law
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Extent of repeal or amendment
11B.(1) A complainant (hereinafter referred to as the applicant) who lays a charge with the South African Police Service that an offence contemplated in section 11A(1), (2) or (3) has allegedly been committed against him or her, may on an ex parte basis in the prescribed form and manner, apply to a magistrate's court for a _protection order pending the finalisation of the criminal proceedings to- (a)_prohibit person to disclose,or cause the disclosure or threaten the applicant with the disclosure or caus- ing the disclosure of pornography which relates to the charge; or (b) order an electronic communications service provider whose electronic communications service is used to host or disclose the_pornography which relates to the charge, to remove or disable access to such pornogra- phy. (2)The court must as soon as is reason- ably possible consider an application sub- mitted to it in terms of subsection (1) and may, for that purpose consider any addi- tional evidence it deems fit, including oral evidence or evidence by affidavit, which must form part of the record of the proceedings. (3)If the court is satisfied that there- (a)is prima facie evidence that an of- fence referred to in section 11A(1), (2) or (3), has allegedly been commit- ted against the applicant; and (b) are reasonable grounds to believe that a person referred to in subsection (1)(a), disclosed or caused the disclo- sure or threatened the applicant with the disclosure or causing the disclo- sure of such pornography; or (c)are reasonable grounds to believe that the electronic communications ser- vice of the electronic communica- tions service provider referred to in subsection (1)(b), is used to host or disclose such pornography, the court may, subject to such conditions as the court may deem fit, issue the order any
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+Wet op Kubermisdade, 2020
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+Wet No. 19 van 2020
+103
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Nommer en jaar van wet
Kort titel
Omvang van herroeping of wysiging
11B.(1) 'n Klaer (hierna die applikant genoem) wat 'n klag by die Afrikaanse Polisiediens indien dat misdryf inartikelA(1),(2)of(3)bg na bewering teen hom of haar gepleeg is, kan op 'n ex parte-grondslag op die voorgeskrewe vorm en wyse, landdroshof aansoek doen om beskermingsbevel hangende die handeling van die strafregtelike verrigtinge om- (a)enige persoon te belet om pornografie wat met die klag verband hou, openbaar te maak, of veroorsaak dat dit openbaar gemaak word of die applikant te dreig met die open- baarmaking of veroorsaking van die openbaarmaaking daarvan; of (b) 'n elektroniese kommunikasiediens- verskaffer wiese elektroniese kommunikasiediens gebruik word om die pornografie te huisves of openbaar te maak wat met die klag verband hou, te beveel om daardie pornografie te verwyder of toegang daartoe te deaktiveer. (2) Die hof moet 'n aansoek ingevolge subartikel (1) aan die hof voorgele, so gou as redelik moontlik oorweeg en kan, vir daardie doel, enige bykomende getuienis wat die hof gepas ag, oorweeg, met inbegrip van mondelinge getuienis of getuienis by wyse van beedigde ver- klaring,wat deel van die oorkonde van die verrigtinge moet uitmaak. (3) Indien die hof oortuig is dat daar- (a)_prima facie getuienisis dat"n misdryf in artikel 11A(1), (2) of (3) bedoel, na bewering teen applikant gepleeg is; en (b) redelike gronde is om te glo dat 'n persoon in subartikel (1)(a) bedoel, daardie pornografie openbaar gemaak het of openbaarmaking veroorsaak het of die applikant gedreig het met die openbaarmaking veroorsaaking van die openbaar- making van die pornografie; of (c)redelike gronde is om te glo dat die elektroniese kommunikasiediens van die elektroniese kommunikasiediens- verskaffer in subartikel (1)(b) bedoel, gebruik word om daardie pornografie te huisves of openbaar te maak, kan die hof, onderworpe aan sodanige voorwaardes wat die hof gepas ag, die bevel bedoel in subartikel(1) in die
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+Act No. 19 of 2020
+104
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Number and year of law
Short title
Extent of repeal or amendment
(4) The order, referred to in subsection (3), must be served on the person referred to in subsection (1)(a) or electronic com- munications service provider referred to in subsection (1)(b),in the prescribed man ner: Provided, that if the court is satisfied that the order cannot be served in the prescribed manner, the court may make an order allowing service to be effected in the formo1 pecified in thatorder. (5)An order referred to in subsection (3) is of force ife ctfromthe timeit1S issued by the court and the existence thereof has been brought to the attention of the person referred to in subsection (1)(a) or electronic communications service pro- vider referred to in subsection (1)(b). (6) A person referred to in subsection (1)(a), other than the person who is ac- cused of having committed the offence in question, or an electronic communications service rovider, referred to in subsection (1)(b) may,within 14 days after the order has been served on him, her or it in terms of subsection (4)or within such further period as the court may allow, upon notice to the magistrate's court concerned, in the prescribed form and manner, apply to the court for the setting aside or amendment of the order referred to in subsection (3). (7)(a) The court must as soon as is reasonably possible consider an applica- tion submitted to it in terms of subsection 6)and that purpose, consider such additional evidence as it deems fit, including oral evidence or evidence by affidavit, which must form part of the record of the proceedings. (b) The court may if good cause has been shown for the variation or setting aside of the protection order, issue an order to this effect. (8)The court nay for purposes of subsections (2) and (7), in the prescribed form and manner cause to be subpoenaed any person as a witness at those proceed- ings or to provide any book, document or object, if the evidence of that person or book, document or object appears to the court essential to the just decision of the
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Nommer en jaar van wet
Kort titel
Omvang van herroeping of wysiging
(4)Die bevel in subartikel (3) bedoel, moet aan die persoon in subartikel (1)(a) of elektroniese kommunikasiediens- verskaffer in subartikel (1)(b) bedoel, op die voorgeskrewe wyse beteken word: Met dien verstande dat indien die hof oortuig is dat die bevel nie op die voorgeskrewe wyse beteken kan word nie, die hof bevel kan gee wat betekening in die vorm ofop diewyse in daardie bevel gespesifiseer, toelaat. (5)'n Bevel in subartikel (3) bedoel, is van krag vanaf die oomblik wat dit deur die hof uitgereik word en die bestaan daarvan onder die aandag van die persoon bedoel in subartikel (1)(a) of elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer bedoel in subartikel (1)(b), gebring is. (6) Iemand in subartikel (1)(a) bedoel, anders as die persoon wat van die pleging van die betrokke misdryf beskuldig word, of 'n elektroniese kommunikasiediens- verskaffer in subartikel (1)(b) bedoel kan, binne 14 dae nadat die bevel ingevolge subartikel (4) aan hom of haar beteken is, of binne sodanige verdere tydperk wat die hof mag toelaat, by kennisgewing aan die betrokke landdroshof, opdievoor- geskrewe vorm en wyse, by die hof aansoek doen om die tersydestelling of wysiging van die bevel in subartikel (3) bedoel. (7)(a) Die hof moet aansoek ingevolge subartikel (6) aan die hof voorgele, SO gou as redelik moontlik oorweeg en kan vir daardiedoel sodanige bykomende getuienis soos die hof gepas ag, oorweeg, met inbegrip van mondelinge getuienis of getuienis by wyse van beedigde verklaring, wat deel van die oorkonde van die verrigtinge moet uit- maak. (b) Die hof kan, by die aanvoer van goeie gronde vir die wysiging of tersydestelling van die beskermingsbevel, 'n bevel te dien effekte uitreik. (8) Die hof kan, vir doeleindes van subartikels (2) en (7), op die voorgeskrewe vorm en wyse enige persoon laat dagvaar as 'n getuie by daardie verrigtinge of om enige boek, dokument of voorwerp voor te le, indien die getuienis van daardie persoon of boek, dokument of voorwerp 'n
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(9)A person referred to in subsection (1)(a) or electronic communications ser- vice_provider referred to in subsection (1)(b), that fails to comply with an order referred to in subsection (3) or any varia- tion thereof, is guilty of an offence. (10)Any person who is subpoenaed in terms of subsection (8) to attend proceed- ings and who fails to- (a)attend or to remain in attendance; (b)appear at the place and on the date and at the time to which the proceed- ings in question may be adjourned; (C) remain in attendance at those pro- ceedings as so adjourned; or (d)_produce any book, document or ob- ject specified in the subpoena, is guilty of an offence. (11) The provisions in respect of appeal and review as provided for in the Magis- trates' Courts Act, 1944, and the Superior Courts Act, 2013, apply to proceedings in terms of this section. (12) Sections 8 and 9(3) of the Protec- tion from Harassment Act, 2011 (Act No. 17 of 2011), apply with the necessary changes required by the context to pro- ceedings contemplated in subsections (2) and (7). Electronic communications service pro- vider to furnish particulars to court 11C.(1) If an application for a protec- tion order is made in terms of section 11B(1) and the court is satisfied in terms of section 11B(3) that a protection order must be issued and the particulars of the person referred to in section 11B(1)(a), or the electronic communications service_ pro- vider referred to in section 11B(1)(b), whose service is used to host or disclose such pornography, is not known, the court may- (a)adjourn the proceedings to any time and date on the terms and conditions which the court deems appropriate; and
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Nommer en jaar van wet
Kort titel
Omvang van herroeping of wysiging
(9) Iemand in subartikel (1)(a) bedoel, of‘n elektroniese kommunikasiediens- verskaffer in subartikel (1)(b) bedoel, wat versuim om aan 'n bevel in subartikel (3) bedoel of enige wysiging daarvan, te voldoen, is skuldig aan 'n misdryf. (10)Enige persoon wat ingevolge subartikel (8) gedagvaar is om verrigtinge by te woon en wat versuim om- (a)dit by te woon of teenwoordig te bly; (b)te verskyn by die plek en op die datum en die tyd waarheen die betrokke verrigtinge verdaag mag word; (C) teenwoordig tebly by daardie verrigtinge aldus verdaag; of (d)enige boek, dokument of voorwerp in die dagvaarding gespesifiseer voor te 1e, is skuldig aan 'n misdryf. (11) Die bepalings ten opsigte van appel en hersiening soos in die Wet op Landdroshowe, 1944, en die Wet op Hoer Howe, 2013, voor voorsiening gemaak, is van toepassing op verrigtinge ingevolge hierdie artikel. (12) Artikels 8 en 9(3)van die Wet op Beskerming teen Teistering, 2011 (Wet No. 17 van 2011), is van toepassing met die nodige veranderinge deur die samehang vereis op verrigtinge in subartikels (2) en (7) beoog. Elektroniese kommunikasiediens- verskaffer moet besonderhede aan hof verskaf 11C.(1) Indien daar ingevolge artikel 11B(1) om ‘n beskermingsbevel aansoek gedoen word en die hof is ingevolge artikel 11B(3) oortuig dat 'n be- skermingsbevel uitgereik moet word en die besonderhede van die persoon in artikel 11B(1)(a) bedoel, of die elek- troniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer in artikel 11B(1)(b) bedoel, wie se diens gebruik is om daardie pornografie te huisves of openbaar te maak, is nie bekend nie, kan die hof- (a)die verrigtinge verdaag tot enige tyd en datumopdie bepalingsen voorwaardes wat die hof doenlik ag;
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+Wet op Kubermisdade, 2020
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Nommer en Kort titel jaar van wet
Omvang van herroeping of wysiging (b)'n lasgewing in die voorgeskrewe vorm uitreik, wat ‘n elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer,wat geglo_word in_staat te weesom daardie besonderhede te verskaf, gelas om die hof op die voorgeskrewe wyse deur middel van ‘n beedigde verklaring in die voorgeskrewe vorm te voorsien van- (i) die elektroniese kommunikasie- identiteitsnommer van waar daardie pornografie afkomstig was: die naam, van, identiteits- nommer en adres van die persoon aan wie die elektroniese kommunikasie- identiteitsnommer toegeken is; (ii) enige inligting wat aandui dat daardie pornografie vanaf die elektroniese kommunikasie- identiteitsnommer van die persoon na die elektroniese kommunikasie- identiteitsnommer van die applikant gestuur is al dan nie; (iv) enige inligting wat beskikbaar is aan'n elektroniese kommu- nikasiediensverskaffer wat die hof behulpsaam kan wees om die_persoon_bedoel in artikel
(ii) (v) wat-
11B(1)(a) of die elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer bedoel in artikel 11B(1)(b), wat 'n diens aan daardie persoon verskaf,teidentifiseer; enige inligting wat aan 'n elektroniese kommunikasie- diensverskaffer beskikbaar is (aa) bevestig of hul elektroniese kommunikasiediens gebruik word om daardie pornografie te huisves of gebruik was of word om daardie pornografie open- baar te maak al dan nie; of (bb) die hof behulpsaam kan wees om die elektroniese kommunikasiediensver- skaffer te identifiseer wie se diens gebruik word om die betrokke pornografie te huisves of gebruik was of word om dit openbaar te maak; of
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(b) An electronic communications ser- vice provider on which a direction is served, may in the prescribed manner by means of an affidavit in the prescribed form apply to the court for- (i) an extension of the period of five ordinary_court days referred to in paragraph (a) for a further period of five ordinary court days on the grounds that the information cannot be provided timeously; or (ii)the cancellation of the direction on the grounds that- (aa) it does not provide an electronic communications service to the applicant or the person referred
Extent of repeal or amendment (vi) an assessment whether or not the electronic communications ser- vice provider is in a position to- (aa) remove such pornography or a link to such pornogra- phy; or (bb) disable access to such por- nography or a link to such pornography. (2) If the court issues a direction in terms of subsection (1)(b) the court must direct that the direction be served on the electronic communications service pro- vider in the prescribed manner: Provided, that if the court is satisfied that the direction cannot be served in the pre- scribed manner, the court may make an order allowing service to be effected in the form or manner specified in that order. (3)(a) The information referred to in subsection (1)(b) must be provided to the court within five ordinary court days from the time that the direction is served on an electronic communications service pro- vider.
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Omvang van herroeping of wysiging (vi) 'n assessering of die elektro- niese kommunikasiediensver- skaffer in ‘n posisie is, al dan nie,om- (aa) daardie pornografie of 'n skakel na daardie por- nografie te verwyder; of (bb) toegang pornografie of 'n skakel na daardie pornografie deaktiveer. (2)Indien die hof ingevolge subartikel (1)(b) uitreik, moet die hof gelas dat die lasgewing op die voorgeskrewe wyse aan die elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer word: Met dien verstande, dat indien die hof oortuig is dat die lasgewing nie op die voorgeskrewe wyse beteken kan word nie, die hof 'n bevel kan gee wat betekening in die vorm of op die wyse in daardie bevel gespesifiseer, toelaat. (3) (a) Die inligting in subartikel (1)(b) bedoel, moet binne vyf gewone hofdae vanaf die dag waarop die lasgewing aan 'n elektroniese kommunikasiediensver- skaffer beteken is, aan die hof verskaf word. (b)'n Elektroniese kommunikasiediens- verskaffer aan wie 'n lasgewing beteken is, kan op die voorgeskrewe wyse en deur middel van ‘n beedigde verklaring in die voorgeskrewe vorm by die hof aansoek doen om- (i)'n verlenging van die tydperk van vyf gewone hofdae in paragraaf (a) bedoel vir 'n verdere tydperk van vyf gewone hofdae op grond daarvan dat die inligting nie tydig voorsien kan word nie; of (ii)die kansellasie van die lasgewing op grond daarvan dat—
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(b) may, in the prescribed manner, re- quest such additional evidence by way of affidavit from the electronic
communications service provider as it deems fit;:
(c)must give_ a decision in respect thereof; and (d)must inform the electronic communi-
cations service provider in the pre- scribed form and manner of the out- come of the application. (5) (a) The court may, on receipt of an
affidavit from an electronic communica- tions service provider which contains the information
referred to in subsection
(1)(b), consider the issuing of a protection
order in terms of section 11B(3) against the person or electronic communications
service provider on the date to which the proceedings have been adjourned. (b) Any information furnished to the court in terms of subsection (1)(b) forms
part of the evidence that a court may consider in terms of section 11B(3).
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Omvang van herroeping of wysiging
(b) kan die hof, op die voorgeskrewe wyse, sodanige bykomende getuienis versoek bywyse vanbeedigde verklaringvan die elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffersoos wat die hof goeddink; (C) moet die hof daaroor beslis; en (d)moet die hof dieelektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer op die voorgeskrewe vorm en wyse van die uitslag van die aansoek verwittig. (5) (a) Die hof kan, by ontvangs van 'n beedigde verklaring van 'n elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer inligting bedoel in subartikel (1)(b) bevat, die uitreiking van ‘n beskermingsbevel ingevolge artikel 11B(3) teen die persoon of elektroniese kommunikasiediens- verskaffer oorweegop diedatum waarheen die verrigtinge verdaag is. (b) Enige inligting wat ingevolge subartikel (1)(b) aan die hof verskaf is, maak deel uit van die getuienis wat 'n hof ingevolge artikel 1B(3)kan oorweeg. (6) Die Kabinetslid verantwoordelik vir die regspleging kan, by kennisgewing in die Staatskoerant,redelike tariewevoor- skryf vir vergoeding betaalbaar elektroniese kommunikasiediensver- skaffers vir die verskaffing inligting in subartikel (1)(b) bedoel. (7)Enige elektroniese kommunikasie- diensverskaffer of werknemer van‘n elektroniese kommunikasiediens- verskafferwat- (a)versuim om die vereiste inligting binne vyf gewone hofdae vanaf die dag waarop die lasgewing aan daardie elektroniese kommunikasie- diensverskaffer beteken is, aan 'n hof te verskaf ingevolge subartikel (3)(a) of sodanige verlengde tydperk wat ingevolge subartikel (3)(b) deur die hof toegelaat word; of (b) 'n vals verklaring in ‘n wesenlike opsig in 'n beedigde verklaring bedoel in subartikel (1)(b) of (3)(b) maak, is skuldig aan 'n misdryf. Bevele by afhandelingvan regtelike verrigtinge 11D.(1) Die verhoorhof, wat 'n persoon
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(a)that person to destroy the pornogra- phy and to submit an affidavit in the prescribed form to the_prosecutor identified in the order, that the por- nography has been so destroyed; or (b) an electronic communications service provider whose service is used to host or disclose such pornography to re- move or disable access to such por- nography. (2) The order referred to in subsection (1)(b), must be in the prescribed form and must be served on the electronic commu- nications service provider in the pre- scribed manner: Provided, that if the trial court is satisfied that the order cannot be
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Omvang van herroeping of wysiging
beveel die
(a)daardie persoon om pornografie te vernietig en om 'n verklaring
beedigde in die voorgeskrewe vorm aan die aanklaer in die bevel geidentifiseer, voor te le, dat die pornografie aldus vernietig is;
of (b)"n elektroniese kommunikasiediens- verskaffer wie se diens gebruik word om daardie pornografie te huisves of openbaar te maak, beveel om daardie pornografie te verwyder of toegang daartoe te deaktiveer.
elektroniese kommunikasiediensver-
moet in die voorgeskrewe vorm wees en
(2)Die bevel in subartikel (1)(b) bedoel, moet op die voorgeskrewe wyse aan die
skaffer beteken word: Met dien verstande dat, indien die verhoorhof oortuig is dat
die bevel nie op die voorgeskrewe wyse
beteken kan word nie, die hof 'n bevel kan
gee wat betekening in die vorm of op die
wyse in daardie bevel gespesifiseer,
toelaat.
(3)Enige persoon of elektroniese
kommunikasiediensverskafer_ wat_ ver-
suim om aan 'n bevel in subartikel (1)
bedoel te voldoen, is skuldig aan‘n
misdryf.
(4)'n Elektroniese kommunikasiediens-
verskaffer kan, binne 14 dae na die bevel
bedoel in subartikel (1)(b), ingevolge
subartikel (2) daaraan beteken is, by kennisgewing
aan die betrokke ver- hoorhof, op die voorgeskrewe vorm en wyse, by die verhoorhof aansoek doen om
die tersydestelling of wysiging van die bevel.
redelikerwys
(5) (a) Die verhoorhof moet so gou as
moontlik 'n aansoek
ingevolge subartikel (4) daaraan voorgele,
oorweeg en kan vir daardie doel sodanige
bykomende getuienis oorweeg wat die hof
gepas ag, met inbegrip van mondelinge
getuienis of getuienis by wyse van
beedigde verklaring, wat deel van die
oorkonde moet uitmaak.
(b) Die hof kan, by die aanvoer van
dien effekte uitreik.
grondevir die wysiging of tersydestelling van die bevel, 'n bevel te goeie
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(6) The trial court may, for purposes of subsections (5)(a), in the prescribed form and manner cause to be subpoenaed any person as a witness at those proceedings or to provide any book, document or object, if the evidence of that person or book, document or object appears to the court essential to the just decision of the case. (7)Any person who is subpoenaed in terms of subsection (6) to attend proceed- ings and who fails to- (a)attend or to remain in attendance; (b) appear at the place and on the date and at the time to which the proceed- ings in question may be adjourned; (c) remain in attendance at those pro- ceedings as so adjourned; or (d) produce any book, document or ob- ject specified in the subpoena, is guilty of an offence. (8) For purposes of this section “trial court”means- (a)a magistrate's court established under section 2(1)(f(i) of the Magistrates' Courts Act, 1944; (b)_a court for a regional division estab- lished under section 2(1)(g)(i) of the Magistrates' Courts Act, 1944; or (c)a High Court referred to in section 6(1) of the Superior Courts Act, 2013. (9) Whenever a person is convicted of an offence referred to in section 11A(1), (2) or (3), the trial court must issue an order that the person so convicted must reimburse all expenses reasonably in- curred by- (a)a complainant_ as a result_ of any direction issued in terms of section 11C(1)(b); or (b) an electronic communications service provider to remove or disable access to such pornography, whereupon the provisions of section 300 of the Criminal Procedure Act, 1977, shall apply with the necessary changes required by the context, to such order." (d) Chapter 3 is hereby amended- (i) by the substitution for the heading to Part 2 of Chapter 3 of the following heading:
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Omvang van herroeping of wysiging
(6)Die verhoorhof kan, by die toepassing van subartikel (5)(a), enige persoon op die voorgeskrewe vorm en wyse laat dagvaar as getuie by daardie verrigtinge of om enige boek, dokument of voorwerp voor te lé, indien die getuienis van daardie persoon of boek, dokument of voorwerp vir die hof noodsaaklik blyk te wees vir die regverdige beslissing van die saak. (7) Enige _persoon wat ingevolge subartikel (6) gedagvaar is om verrigtinge by te woon en wat versuim om- (a) dit by te woon of teenwoordig te bly; (b) te verskyn by die plek en op die datumwaarheendiebetrokke verrigtinge verdaag kan word; (c) teenwoordig te bly by daardie ver- rigtinge aldus verdaag; of (d) enige boek, dokument of voorwerp in die dagvaarding gespesifiseer, voor te 1e, is skuldig aan 'n misdryf. (8) By die toepassing van hierdie artikels, beteken‘verhoorhof'- (a)n landdroshof ingestelkragtens artikel 2(1)(f)(i) van die Wet op Landdroshowe, 1944; (b)'n hof vir 'n streeksafdeling ingestel kragtens artikel 2(1)(g)(i) van die Wet op Landdroshowe, 1944; of (c) 'n Hooggeregshof bedoel in artikel 6(1) van die Wet op Hoer Howe, 2013. (9) Wanneer 'n persoon ook al aan 'n misdryf in artikel 11A(1), (2) of (3) skuldig bevind word, moet die verhoorhof 'n bevel gee dat die persoon wat aldus skuldig bevind is, alle koste moet vergoed wat redelikerwys aangegaan is deur- (a)'n klaer na aanleiding van enige lasgewing ingevolge artikel 11C(1)(b) uitgereik; of (b)'n elektroniese kommunikasiediens- verskaffer om daardie pornografie te verwyder of toegang daartoe te deaktiveer, waarop die bepalings van artikel 300 van die Strafproseswet, 1977, met die nodige veranderinge deur die samehang vereis, by daardie bevel van toepassing sal wees." (d) Hoofstuk 3 word hierby gewysig- (i)deur die opskrif by Deel 2 Hoofstuk 3 deur die volgende opskrif te vervang: van
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"Sexual exploitation and sexual grooming of children, exposure or display of or causing exposure or display of child pornography or por- nography to children, offences relat- ing to child pornography and using children for pornographic purposes or benefiting from child pornogra- phy"; (ii) by the addition to section 17 of the following subsection: “(7) Any person who unlawfully and intentionally in any manner ad- vocates, advertises, encourages_or promotes the sexual exploitation of a child, is guilty of an offence."; (iii) by the insertion of the following section after section 19: "Offences relating to child pornog- raphy 19A.(1) Any person who unlaw- fully and intentionally creates, makes or produces child pornography in any manner, other than by using a child for child pornography as contem- plated in section 20(1), is guilty of an offence. (2)Any_ person who unlawfully and intentionally, in any manner assists in, or facilitates the creation, making or production of child por- nography, is guilty of an offence. (3) Any person who unlawfully and intentionally possesses child por- nography, is guilty of an offence. (4) Any person who unlawfully and intentionally, in any manner (a)distributes; (b)makes available; (c) transmits; (d)offers for sale; (e)sells; (f)offers to procure; (g)procures; (h)accesses; (i)downloads; or (j)views, child pornography, is guilty of an offence. (5)Any _person who unlawfully and intentionally, in any manner assists in, or facilitates the-
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Kort titel
Omvang van herroeping of wysiging
"Seksuele uitbuiting en seksuele aanvoring van kinders, blootstelling of vertoon van of veroorsaking van blootstelling of vertoon kinderpornografie of pornografie aan kinders,misdrywe in verband met kinderpornografie en gebruik- making van kinders vir porno- grafiese doeleindes of voordeel- trekking uit kinderpornografie"; (ii) deur die volgende subartikel by artikel 17 te voeg: “(7) Enige persoon wat weder- regtelik en opsetlik op enige wyse die seksuele uitbuiting van'n kind verkondig, adverteer, aanmoedig of bevorder, is skuldig aan 'n misdryf."; (iii) deur die volgende artikel na artikel 19 van die Wet in te voeg: “Misdrywe in verband met kinder- pornografie 19A.(1)Iemand wat wederregtelik en opsetlik kinderpornografie skep, maak of vervaardig, op enige wyse, anders as om ‘n kind vir kinder- pornografie te gebruik soos in artikel 20(1) beoog, is skuldig aann misdryf. (2) Iemand wat wederregtelik en opsetlik, op enige wyse behulpsaam is met die skepping, maakof vervaardiging van kinderpornografie of dit fasiliteer, is skuldig aan ‘n misdryf. (3) Iemand wat wederregtelik en opsetlik kinderpornografie besit, is skuldig aan 'n misdryf. (4) Iemand wat wederregtelik en opsetlik, op enige wyse (a)kinderpornografie versprei; (b)_kinderpornografie beskikbaar stel; (c) kinderpornografie oorsend; (d) kinderpornografie te koop aan- bied; (e) kinderpornografie verkoop; (f) aanbied om kinderpornografie te verkry; (g) kinderpornografie verkry; (h)toegang kry tot pornografie; (i) kinderpornografie aflaai; of (j)kinderpornografie besigtig, is skuldig aan 'n misdryf. (5) Iemand wat wederregtelik en opsetlik op enige wyse met die-
(b)making available; transmission; offering for sale; selling; offering to procure; procuring; accessing; downloading; or viewing, of child pornography, is guilty of an (6) Any person who unlawfully and intentionally processes or facili- tates a financial transaction, knowing that such transaction will facilitate a contravention of subsections (1)to (5), is guilty of an offence."; and (iv)by the addition to section 20 of the following subsections: “(3)Any person who unlawfully and intentionally- (c)_participates in, a live performance involving child pornography, is guilty of the offence of attending, viewing or participating in, a performance involving child (4) Any person(“A") who unlaw- fully and intentionally recruits a child complainant (“B"), with or without the consent of B, whether for finan- cial or other reward, favour or com- pensation to B or a third person ("C") or not, for purposes of- (a)creating, making or producing of child pornography, is guilty of the offence of recruiting a child for child pornography; or (b)_participating in a live perfor- mance involving child pornog- raphy, as contemplated in sub- section (3), is_guilty _of the offence of recruiting a child for participating in a live perfor-
+
+Wet op Kubermisdade, 2020
+
+Wet No. 19 van 2020
+121
+
+
+
Nommer en jaar van wet
Kort titel
Omvang van herroeping of wysiging
(c) (e) aan
(a)_verspreiding van kinderporno- grafie; (b) beskikbaarstelling van kinder- pornografie; oorsending van kinderporno- grafie; (d)te koop aanbieding van kinder- pornografie; verkoop van kinderpornografie; (f)aanbieding_ om kinderporno- grafie te verkry; (g)_verkryging van kinderporno- grafie; (h) _verkryging van toegang tot kinderpornografie; (i)aflaai van kinderpornografie; of (j)besigtiging van kinder- pornografie, bystand verleen of dit fasiliteer, is skuldig aan 'n misdryf. (6)Iemand wat wederregtelik en opsetlik 'n finansiele transaksie verwerk of fasiliteer, wetende dat daardie transaksie 'n oortreding van subartikels (1) tot (5) sal fasiliteer, is skuldig aan 'n misdryf."; en (iv) artikel 20 word gewysig, deur die volgende subartikels by te voeg: “(3) Iemand wat wederregtelik en opsetlik 'n regstreekse uitvoering wat kinderpornografie behels— (a)bywoon; (b)besigtig; of (c)daaraan deelneem, is skuldig aan die misdryf van bywoning, besigtiging of deelname 'nvertoning wat kinder- pornografie behels. (4) Iemand (‘A') wat wederregtelik en opsetlik ‘n klaer of klaagster wat 'n kind is (B'), met of sonder die toestemming van B, werf, hetsy vir finansiele of ander beloning, guns of vergoeding aan B of 'n derde persoon (‘C') al dan nie, ten einde- (a)kinderpornografie te skep, te maak of te vervaardig, is skuldig aan die misdryf van werwing van 'n kind vir kinderporno- grafie; of (b) deel te neem aan 'n regstreekse uitvoering wat kinderporno- grafie behels, soos in subartikel (3)beoog, is skuldig aan die misdryf van werwing van'n kind vir deelname aan'n regstreekseuitvoeringwat
+
+Act No. 19 of 2020
+122
+
+
+
Number and year of law
Short title
Extent of repeal or amendment
(e)
Section 54 of the Act is amended by the addition of the following subsections: “(3) Any person who, having know- ledge of the commission of any offence referred to in section 19A, or having reason to suspect that such an offence has been or is being or will probablybe committed and unlawfully and intention- ally fails to- (a) report such knowledge or suspicion as_ soon_ as possible to the South African Police Service; or (b) furnish, at the request of the South African Police Service, all particulars of such knowledge or suspicion, is guilty of an offence. (4)An electronic communications ser- vice_provider that is aware or becomes aware that its electronic communications service or electronic communications net- work is used or involved in the commis- sion of any offence provided for in section 19A, must- (a)immediately report the offence to the South African Police Service; (b) preserve any information which may be of assistance to the South African Police Service in investigating the
+
+Wet op Kubermisdade, 2020
+
+Wet No. 19 van 2020
+123
+
+
+
Nommer en jaar van wet
Kort titel
Omvang van herroeping of wysiging
(e)Artikel 54 van die Wet word gewysig deur die volgende subartikels by te voeg: “(3) Iemand wat, met kennis van die pleging van enige misdryf in artikel 19A bedoel, of wat rede het om te vermoed dat so 'n misdryf gepleeg is of gepleeg word of waarskynlik gepleeg sal word en wederregtelik en opsetlik versuim om- (a) daardie kennis of vermoede so gou moontlik by die Suid-Afrikaanse Polisiediens aan te meld; of (b) op versoek van die Suid-Afrikaanse Polisiediens, alle besonderhede van daardie kennis of vermoede, te verskaf, is skuldig aan 'n misdryf. (4)'n Elektroniese kommunikasiediens- verskaffer watbewus is of bewusword dat hul elektroniese kommunikasiediens of elektroniese_kommunikasienetwerk ge- bruik word of betrek is by die pleging van enige misdryf in artikel 19A bedoel, moet- (a) die misdryf onmiddellik by die Suid- Afrikaanse Polisiediens aanmeld; (b)enige inligting bewaar wat die Suid- Afrikaanse Polisiediens behulpsaam kan wees in die ondersoek van die misdryf; en (c)alle redelike stappe neem om toegang deur enige persoon tot die kinderpornografie te voorkom." (f) Artikel 56A word gewysig deur die volgende subartikels by te voeg: “(3) (a) Iemand wat die bepalings van artikel 11A(1) of (2) oortree, is strafbaar by skuldigbevinding met 'n boete of met gevangenisstraf vir 'ntydperkvan hoogstens 5 jaar of met beide daardie boete en gevangenisstraf. (b) Iemand wat die bepalings van artikel 11A(3) oortree, is strafbaar by skuldigbevinding met 'n boete of met gevangenisstraf vir 'n tydperk van hoogstens 10 jaar of met beide daardie boete en gevangenisstraf. (c) Iemand of 'n elektroniese kommunikasiediensverskaffer wat aan 'n misdryf bedoel in subartikel 11B(9) of (10) skuldig bevind word, is strafbaar by skuldigbevinding met 'n boete of met gevangenisstraf vir 'n tydperkvan hoogstens 2 jaar of met beide daardie
+
+Act No. 19 of 2020
+124
+
+
+
Number and year of law
Short title
Extent of repeal or amendment
(d) Any person or electronic communi- cations service provider that is convicted of an offence referred to in section 11C(7), is liable, on conviction to a fine or to imprisonment for a period not exceeding two years or to both such fine and impri- sonment. (e) Any electronic communications ser- vice provider or person that is convicted of an offence referred to in section 11D(3) or (7), is liable on conviction to a fine or to imprisonment for a period not exceeding 2 years or to both such fine and imprison- ment. (4) Any person who contravenes the provisions of section 19A(3), (4)(f), (g), (h), (i) or (j), or (5)(f),(g), (h), (i) or (j) is liable- (a)in the case of a first conviction, to a fine or to imprisonment for a period not exceeding five years or to both such fine and imprisonment; (b) in the case of a second conviction, to a fine or to imprisonment for a period not exceeding 10 years or to both such fine and imprisonment; or (c)in the case of a third and subsequent conviction, to a fine or to imprison- ment for a period not exceeding 15 years or to both such fine and impri- sonment. (5)Any person who contravenes the provisions of section 17(7), 19A(1), (2), (4)(a),(b),(c),(d), or (e),(5)(a),(b),(c), (d) or (e) or 20(3) or (4), is liable- (a)in the case of a first conviction, to a fine or to imprisonment for a period not exceeding 10 years or to both such fine and imprisonment; or (b) in the case of a second and subse- quent conviction, to a fine or to imprisonment for a period not ex- ceeding 15years or to both such fine and imprisonment. (6)Any person who contravenes the provisions of section 19A(6), is liable- (a)in the case of a first conviction, to a fine of R1 000 000 or to imprison- ment for a period not exceeding 5
+
+Wet op Kubermisdade, 2020
+
+Wet No. 19 van 2020
+125
+
+
+
Nommer en jaar van wet
Kort titel
Omvang van herroeping of wysiging (d) Iemand of 'n elektroniese
(c)
kommunikasiediensverskaffer wat aan 'n misdryf bedoel in artikel 11C(7) skuldig bevind word, is strafbaar by skuldigbevinding met 'n boete of met gevangenisstraf vir 'n tydperk van hoogstens 2 jaar of met beide daardie boete en gevangenisstraf. (e)‘n Elektroniese kommunikasie- diensverskaffer of persoon wat aan ‘n misdryf bedoel in artikel 11D(3) of (7) skuldig bevind word, isstrafbaarby skuldigbevinding met 'n boete of met gevangenisstraf vir 'n tydperk van hoogstens 2 jaar of met beide daardie boete en gevangenisstraf. (4) Iemand wat die bepalings van artikel 19A(3),(4)(f), (g), (h),(i) of (j), of (5)(f), (g),(h), (i) of (j) oortree, is strafbaar- (a)indiegeval van 'neerste skuldigbevinding, met ‘n boete of met gevangenisstraf vir 'n tydperk van hoogstens 5 jaar of met beide sodanige boete en gevangenisstraf; (b)indie geval van 'n tweede skuldigbevinding, met 'n boete of met gevangenisstraf vir ‘n tydperk van hoogstens 10 jaar of met beide daardie boete en gevangenisstraf; of in die geval van 'n derde en daaropvolgende skuldigbevinding, met 'n boete of met gevangenisstraf vir 'n tydperk van hoogstens 15 jaar of met beide daardie boete en gevangenisstraf. (5)Iemand wat die bepalings van artikel 17(7), 19A(1), (2), (4)(a), (b), (c) (d) of (e),(5)(a),(b),(c),(d) of (e) of 20(3) of (4) oortree, is strafbaar- (a)in die geval van 'n eerste skuldigbevinding, met 'n boete of met gevangenisstraf vir 'n tydperk van hoogstens 10 jaar of met beide daardie boete en gevangenisstraf; of (b)in die geval van'n tweede en daaropvolgendeskuldigbevinding, met 'n boete of met gevangenisstraf vir 'n tydperk van hoogstens 15 jaar of met beide daardie boete en gevangenisstraf. (6)Iemand wat die bepalings van artikel 19A(6) oortree, is strafbaar- (a) in die geval van n eerste skuldigbevinding,met 'n boete van R1 000 000 of met gevangenisstraf vir 'n tydperk van hoogstens 5 jaar of metbeidedaardie boete en
+
+Act No. 19 of 2020
+126
+
+
+
Number and year of law
Short title
Extent of repeal or amendment
Act No. 75 of 2008
(b)in the case of a second or subsequent conviction, to a fine of R2 000 000 or to imprisonment for a period not exceeding 10 years or to both such fine and imprisonment. (7)Any person who contravenes the provisions of section 54(3), is liable,on conviction to a fine or to imprisonment for a period not exceeding 5 years or to both such fine and imprisonment. (8) Any electronic communications ser- vice provider who contravenes the provi- sions of section 54(4), is liable, on convic- tion to a fine not exceeding R1 000 000 or to imprisonment for a period not exceed- ing 5 years or to both such fine and imprisonment."
Child Justice Act, 2008
(a) The addition of the following item to Schedule 2: “26. Any offence contemplated in- (a)section 2, 3 or 4 of the Cybercrimes Act,2020; (b) section 5,6, 7 or 11(1) of the Cybercrimes Act, 2020, where the damage caused does not exceed an amount of R5000; (c) section 14, 15 or 16 of the Cyber- crimes Act, 2020; or (d)section 8, 9 or 10 of the Cybercrimes Act, 2020, where the amount in- volved does not exceed R1500. 27. An offence contemplated in section 11A(1) and (2) of Criminal Law (Sexual Offences and Related Matters) Amend- ment Act, 2007." (b) The addition of the following item to Schedule 3: “23. Any offence contemplated in- (a)section 5,6, 7 or 11(1)of the Cybercrimes Act, 2020,where the damage caused exceeds an amount of R5000; (b) section 8, 9 or 10 of the Cybercrimes Act, 2020, where the amount in- volved exceeds R1500; or (c)section 11(2) of the Cybercrimes Act, 2020. 24. An offence contemplated in section 11A(3) of Criminal Law (Sexual Offences
+
+Wet op Kubermisdade, 2020
+
+Wet No. 19 van 2020
+127
+
+
+
Nommer en jaar van wet
Kort titel
Omvang van herroeping of wysiging
Molao 75 wa 2008
(b) in die geval van 'n tweede en daaropvolgende skuldigbevinding, met 'n boete van R2 000 000 of met gevangenisstraf vir 'n tydperk van hoogstens 10 jaar of met beide daardie boete en gevangenisstraf. (7)Iemand wat die bepalings van artikel 54(3) oortree, is strafbaar by skuldig- bevinding met n boete of met gevangenisstraf vir 'n tydperkvan hoogstens vyf jaar of met beide daardie boete en gevangenisstraf. (8)'n Elektroniese kommunikasiediens- verskaffer wat die bepalings van artikel 54(4)oortree, is strafbaar by skuldig- bevinding met 'n boete van hoogstens R1 000 000 of met gevangenisstraf vir 'n
Molao wa Bosiamisi wa Ngwana,
tydperk van hoogstens vyf jaar of met beide daardie boete en gevangenisstraf." (a) Go tsenngwa ga ntlha e e latelang mo eejuleng 2: "26. Tlolomolao nngwe le nngwe e e umakilweng mo- (a)karolong2, kgotsa 4 ya Cybercrimes Act, 2020; (b) dikarolong 5, 6, 7 kgotsa 11(1) tsa Cybercrimes Act, 2020, fa tshenyegelo e e dirilweng e le kwa tlase ga bokana ka R5000; (c) karolo 14, 15 kgotsa 16 ya Cybercrimes Act, 2020; kgotsa (d) karolo 8, 9 kgotsa 10 ya Cybercrimes Act, 2020, fa tlhotlhwa e e amegang e le kwa tlase ga R1500. 27. Tlolomolao nngwe le nngwe e e umakilweng mo karolong 11A (1) le (2) ya Criminal Law (Sexual Offences and Re- lated Matters)Amendment Act,2007.". (b) Go tsenngwa ga ntlha e e latelang mo eejuleng 3: "23. Tlolomolao nngwe le nngwe e e umakilweng mo- (a)karolong 5, 6, 7 kgotsa 11(1) ya Cybercrimes Act, 2020, fa tshenyegelo e e dirilweng e le kwa godimo ga bokana ka R5000; (b) karolo 8, 9 kgotsa 10 ya Cybercrimes Act, 2020, fa tlhotlhwae e amegang e le kwa godimo ga R1500; kgotsa 3
\ No newline at end of file
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@@ -0,0 +1,524 @@
+# STATESECURITYAGENCY
+
+NO.609
+
+04DECEMBER2015
+
+# THE NATIONAL CYBERSECURITY POLICY FRAMEWORK (NCPF)
+
+
+
+
+
+NATIONALCYBERSECURITYPOLICYFRAMEWORKFORSOUTHAFRICA
+
+# Table of Contents
+
+ABBREVIATIONS P EXECUTIVE SUMMARY 5 DEFINITIONS 8
+
+1. Introduction 10
+2. The South African Context .12
+3. Purpose of the NCPF .14
+4. Key Objectives of the NCPF. .15
+5. Capacity to Respond to Cybersecurity lmperatives .15
+6. Cybersecurity Hub and Additional CSiRTs. .18
+7. Verification of Information Security Products and Systems .19
+8. NCII Protection.. .20
+9. Cryptography .21
+10. Online E-ldentity Management in Cyberspace. .21
+11. Promote and Strengthen Local and International Cooperation.. .23
+12. Capacity Development, Research and Development .24
+13. Cyber-warfare. .24
+14. Promotion of a Cybersecurity Culture. .25
+15. Technical and Operational Standards Compliance. .25
+16. The Role and Responsibility of the State .26
+17. The role and Responsibility of the Private Sector .. .29
+18. The Role and Responsibility of Civil Society .29
+19. Conclusion. 30
+
+# ABBREVIATIONS
+
+CII Critical Information Infrastructure
+CRC Cybersecurity Response Committee
+CSIR Council for the Scientific and Industrial Research
+CSIRT Computer Security Incident Response Team
+DOJ&CD Department of Justice and Constitutional Development
+DOD&MV Department of Defence and Military Veterans
+DST Department of Science and Technology
+DTPS Department of Telecommunications and Postal Services
+ECS Electronic Communications Security
+ECT Electronic Communications and Transactions
+FIRST Forum for Incident Response and Security Teams
+GCA Global Cybersecurity Agenda
+GRC Governance, Risk Management and Compliance
+HLEG High-Level Experts Group
+ICT Information and Communications Technology
+ICASA Independent Communications Authority of South Africa
+IPR Intellectual Property Rights
+ISP Internet Service Provider
+ITU International Telecommunication Union
+JCPS Justice, Crime Prevention and Security (Cluster)
+MOU Memorandum of Understanding
+NCAC National Cybersecurity Advisory Council
+NCII National Critical Information Infrastructure
+NCPF National Cybersecurity Policy Framework
+NPA National Prosecuting Agency
+PKI Public Key Infrastructure
+SAPS South African Police Service
+SIEM Security Information and Event Management
+SITA State Information Technology Agency
+SOE State Owned Entity
+SSA State Security Agency
+UNODC United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime
+WSIS World Summit on the Information Society
+
+# EXECUTIVESUMMARY
+
+1. Information and Communications Technologies (lCTs) are indispensable in modern society.The interconnectivity of computer networks contributes significantly to economic growth, education, citizens' participation in social media and many others.
+2. This new electronic environment is commonly known as cyberspace. The dependence of the daily functioning of society on information communication technology solutions has led to a concomitant need for the development of adequate security measures. This is because the danger that Cybersecurity threats pose, is real.
+3.The numerous cyber-attacks launched in recent years against advanced information societies aimed at undermining the functioning of public and private sector information systems have placed the abuse of cyberspace high on the list of international and also local security threats. Given the seriousness of cyber threats and of the interests at stake, it is therefore imperative that the comprehensive use of information communication technology solutions be supported by a high level of security measures and be embedded in a broad and sophisticated Cybersecurity culture. For this reason, the cyber threats need to be addressed at both the global and national levels.
+4. National Cybersecurity is a broad term encompassing the many aspects of electronic information, data and media services that affect a country's security, economy and welbeing. Ensuring the security of a country's cyberspace therefore comprises a range of activities at different levels.
+5.World-wide Cybersecurity strategies are being developed and are aimed at setting policy goals, measures and institutional responsibilities in a succinct manner. Generally, the primary concern is to ensure the confidentiality, integrity and availability (C-I-A) of computer data and systems and to protect against or prevent intentional and non-intentional incidents and attacks. Priority is also given to critical information infrastructure protection (CIIP).
+6. These strategies normally also contain measures against or reference to cybercrime. Measures against cybercrime provide a criminal justice response to C-l-A attacks against computers and thus complement technical and procedural Cybersecurity responses. However, cybercrime comprises also offences committed by means of computer data and systems, ranging from the sexual exploitation of children to fraud, hate speech, intellectual property rights (IPR) infringements and many other offences. Furthermore, any crime may involve electronic evidence in one way or the other. While this may not be labelled “cybercrime", a cybercrime strategy would nevertheless need to ensure that the forensic capabilities be created that are necessary to analyse electronic
+
+# NATIONAL CYBERSECURITYPOLICYFRAMEWORKFORSOUTHAFRICA
+
+evidence in relation to any crime, or that all law enforcement officers, prosecutors and judges are provided at least with basic skills in this respect.[1]
+
+7.This South African National Cybersecurity PolicyFramework is aligned to these goals and is necessitated to ensure a focussed and an all-embracing safety and security response in respect of the Cybersecurity environment and establishes and addresses the following:
+
+a) The development and implementation of a Government led, coherent and integrated Cybersecurity approach to address Cybersecurity threats;
+b) Establishing a dedicated policy, strategy and decision making body to be known as the JCPS Cybersecurity Response Committee,to identify and prioritise areas of intervention and focussed attention regarding Cybersecurity related threats. The Cybersecurity Response Committee will be chaired by the State Security Agency (SSA) and will be supported operationally by a Cybersecurity Centresituated at the SSA
+c) The capability to effectively coordinate departmental resources in the achievement of common Cybersecurity safety and security objectives (including the planning, response coordination and monitoring and evaluation);
+d) Fighting cybercrime effectively through the promotion of coordinated approaches and planning and the creation of required staffing and infrastructure;
+e) Coordination of the promotion of Cybersecurity measures by all role players (State, public, private sector, and civil society and special interest groups) in relation to Cybersecurity threats, through interaction with and in conjunction with the Cybersecurity Hub (to be established within the Department of Telecommunications and Postal Services);
+f) Strengthening of intelligence collection, investigation, prosecution and judicial processes, in respect of preventing and addressing cybercrime, cyber terrorism and cyber warfare;
+g) Ensuring of the protection of national critical information infrastructure;
+
+# NATIONAL CYBERSECURITYPOLICYFRAMEWORKFORSOUTHAFRICA
+
+h) The promotion of a Cybersecurity culture and compliance with minimum security standards;
+i) The establishment of public-private partnerships for national and action plans in line with the NCPF; and
+j) Ensuring a comprehensive legal framework governing cyberspace.
+
+8. The National Cybersecurity Policy Framework (NCPF) is aligned with and dealt within the JCPS Cluster's mandate and obligations under Outcome $_{3:}$ All people are and feel safe in South Africa. In this regard, Output 8 of Outcome 3 requires the development and implementation of a Cybersecurity policy and the development of capacity to combat and investigate cybercrime that seeks to promote thefollowing
+
+a) Measures to address national security threats in terms of cyberspace;
+b) Measures to promote the combating of cybercrime;
+c) Measures to build confidence and trust in the secure use of ICT; and
+d) The development, review and update of existing substantive and procedural laws to ensure alignment.
+
+9.The NCPF is intended to provide a holistic approach pertaining to the promotion of Cybersecurity measures by all role players and will be supported by a National Cybersecurity Implementation Plan which will be developed by the JCPS Cluster in consultation with relevant stakeholders, identifying roles and responsibilities, timeframes, specific performance indicators, and monitoring and evaluation mechanisms. The development and large-scale implementation of a system of security measures as implemented elsewhere in the world will form part of the National Cybersecurity Implementation Plan.
+
+# NATIONALCYBERSECURITYPOLICYFRAMEWORKFORSOUTHAFRICA
+
+# DEFINITIONS
+
+# In the context of this policy,
+
+"National Critical Information Infrastructure" means all ICT systems, data systems, data bases,networks (including people, buildings,facilities and processes), that are fundamental to the effective operation of the Republic1;
+
+"Computer Security Incident Response Team (CsiRT)" is a team of dedicated information security specialists that prepares for and responds to Cybersecurity breaches (Cybersecurity incidents);
+
+"Cybersecurity" is the practice of making the networks that constitute cyberspace secure against intrusions,maintaining confidentiality, availability and integrity of information, detecting intrusions and incidents that do occur, and responding to and recovering from them.
+
+"Cybersecurity Hub" means a CSiRT established to pool public and private sector threat information for the purposes of processing and disseminating such information to relevant stakeholders including the Cybersecurity centre.
+
+"Cyberspace" means a physical and non-physical terrain created by and/or composed of some or all of the following:
+
+computers, computer systems, networks and their computer programs, computer data, content data, traffic data, and users;
+
+"Cyber warfare" means actions by a nation/state to penetrate another nation's computers and networks for purposes of causing damage or disruption²;
+
+"Cyber espionage" means the act or practice of obtaining secrets without the permission of the holder of the information (personal, sensitive, proprietary or of classified nature),from individuals, competitors, rivals, groups, Governments and enemies for personal, economic, political or military advantage3;
+
+# NATIONALCYBERSECURITYPOLICYFRAMEWORKFORSOUTHAFRICA
+
+"Cyber terrorism" means use of Internet based attacks in terrorist activities by individuals and groups, including acts of deliberate large scale disruptions of computer networks, especially computers attached to the Internet, by the means of tools such as computer viruses4;
+
+"Cybercrime" means illegal acts, the commission of which involves the use of information and communication technologies;
+
+"ICT"(Information and Communication Technologies) mean any communications device or application including radio, television, cellular phones, satellite systems, computers, network hardware and software and other services such as videoconferencing :
+
+"Information society” means people-centred, inclusive and development-oriented information, where everyone can create, access, utilise and share information and knowledge, enabling individuals, communities and people to achieve their full potential in promoting their sustainable development and improving the quality of their life.
+
+"JCPS CRC" means Justice, Crime Prevention and Security Cluster's Cybersecurity Response Committee.
+
+"Malware” means malicious software, and is programming (code, scripts, active content, and other software) designed to disrupt or deny operation, gather information that leads to loss of privacy or exploitation, gain unauthorized access to system resources, and other abusive behaviour. The expression is a general term used by computer professionals to mean a variety of forms of hostile, intrusive, or dangerous software or program code. Malware's most common pathway from criminals to users is through the Internet: primarily by e-mail and the World Wide Web.(Symantec published a report in 2oo8 indicating that "the release rate of malicious code and other unwanted programs may be exceeding that of legitimate software applications.“According to F-Secure,"As much malware [was] produced in 20o7 as in the previous 20 years altogether." $^5)$
+
+"Organisation and user's assets” include connected computing devices, personnel, infrastructure,applications, services, telecommunication systems, and a totality of transmitted and/or stored information in the cyber environment.
+
+"Organ of State" means an Organ of the State as defined in section 239 of the Constitution.
+
+"Phishing" indicates, as an example, the fraudulent way of attempting to acquire sensitive information such as usernames, passwords and credit card details by someone masquerading as a trustworthy entity in an electronic communication,to lure the unsuspecting public.These modus
+
+# NATIONAL CYBERSECURITY POLICY FRAMEWORK FOR SOUTH AFRICA
+
+operandi are constantly evolving and is included here as typical examples of Cybersecurity / cybercrime threats that many people will encounter when using computers and information communication technology. Phishing is typically carried out by e-mail or instant messaging and it often directs users to enterdetails at a fakewebsitewhose look andfeelare almost identical to the legitimate one.
+
+# 1. Introduction
+
+1.1 A number of strategic interventions and tactical interventions have been successfully implemented over the past few years and other interventions are in the process of being implemented within the Justice, Crime Prevention and Security (JCPS) Cluster in the fight against crime with the objective of making South Africa Safe. As part of Government's Outcome based priorities, the JCPS Cluster signed on 24 October 2010, the JCPS Delivery Agreement, relating to Outcome 3: “All People in South Africa Are and Feel Safe". This Outcome focuses on certain areas and activities, clustered around specific Outputs,where interventions will make a substantial and a positive impact on the safety of the people of South Africa. One such area relates to Output 8: which requires the development and implementation of a Cybersecurity Policy and the development of capacity to combat and investigate cybercrime. In line herewith, this document therefore sets out a National Cybersecurity Policy Framework (NCPF) for South Africa.
+
+1.2 It is generally accepted that Information and Communications Technologies (ICTs) have become indispensable in modern society. The increased interconnectivity of computer networks and the expansion of broadband including mobility are contributing significantly to economic growth, digital integration, education, electronic governance, citizens' participation in governance and many others. This new electronic environment is commonly known as cyberspace. It has created a “global village” with instantaneous communication possible between persons on the opposite sides of the world. The NCPF Policy Framework therefore recognises that Cybersecurity threats and the combating thereof have a personal, national and international context.
+
+1.3Cyberspace comes with new types of challenges to the governments of the world and it therefore introduces a further dimension to National Security. It is a borderless platform that enables more sophisticated threats such as cybercrime, cyber terrorism, cyber war and cyber espionage. The numerous cyber-attacks launched in recent years against advanced information societies aimed at undermining the functioning of public and private sector information systems have placed the abuse of cyberspace high on the list of security threats. The acknowledgment that such attacks pose a threat to international security reached new heights in 2007 owing to the first-ever co-ordinated cyber-attack against an entire country and also because of large-scale cyber-attacks against information systems in many other countries as well. The co-ordinated cyber-attacks against government agencies, banks,
+
+# NATIONALCYBERSECURITY POLICYFRAMEWORKFOR SOUTHAFRICA
+
+media and telecommunications companies in Estonia demonstrated the vulnerability of a society's information infrastructure as an aspect of national security that needs attention in all countries. There are views that Internet is becoming more and more militarized.The problem is very specific to malware being distributed through terror groups.
+
+1.4The recurrence and growing incidence of cyber-attacks indicate the start of a new era in which the security of cyberspace requires a global dimension and the protection of National Critical Information Infrastructure must be elevated, in terms of national security, on par with traditional defence interests.
+
+1.5National Cybersecurity is a broad term encompassing many aspects of electronic information, data, and media services that affect a country's security, economy and welbeing. Ensuring the security of a country's cyberspace thus comprises of a range of activities at different levels.Towards this end, the most important policy domains include reducing the vulnerability of cyberspace, preventing cyber threats and attacks in the first instance and,in the event of an attack, ensuring a swift recovery of the functioning of critical information systems.
+
+1.6 Thus, a Cybersecurity strategy must appraise the vulnerability of a country's critical information infrastructure, devise a system of preventative measures against cyber-attacks, and decide upon the alocation of tasks relating to Cybersecurity management at the national level. Moreover, it is also important to improve the legal framework against cyber-attacks, to enhance international and institutional co-operation, and to raise public awareness and develop training and research programmes on Cybersecurity.
+
+1.7 The above threats necessitate a comprehensive and all-encompassing approach in dealing with cyber threats.In short, a Cybersecurity culture, driven in main by the State, is critical to ensure that citizens take advantage of the information age, whilst remaining conscious of the threats and vulnerabilities of cyberspace. The NCPF recognises the need to balance, on the one hand, the risks associated with the use of information systems and, on the other hand, the indispensability of extensive and free use of information technology to the functioning of open and modern societies. The growing threats to Cybersecurity should not hinder the crucial role of information and communications technology in stimulating the growth of economies and societies.
+
+1.8In response to the above challenges, Governments worldwide have established policies and structures that govern interaction and collaboration between Government, private sector, academia and civil society in an effort to prevent, react to, combat and mitigate Cybersecurity vulnerabilities and attacks.
+
+1.9 The NCPF recognises that the State is charged with implementing a Government led, coherent and integrated Cybersecurity approach which, amongst others,will:
+
+# NATIONAL CYBERSECURITY POLICYFRAMEWORK FOR SOUTHAFRICA
+
+a) Promote a Cybersecurity culture and demand compliance with minimum security standards;
+b) Strengthen intelligence collection, investigation, prosecution and judicial processes, in respect of preventing and addressing cybercrime,cyber terrorism and cyber warfare and other cyber ills;
+c) Establish public-private partnerships for national and international action plans;
+d) Ensure the protection of National Critical Information Infrastructure; and
+e) Promote and ensure a comprehensive legal framework governing cyberspace.
+
+1.10 This framework is intended to implement an allencompassing approach pertaining to allthe role players (State, public, private sector, civil society and special interest groups) in relation to Cybersecurity. This framework will be supported by a National Cybersecurity Implementation Plan which will be developed by the SSA in consultation with relevant stakeholders, identifying roles and responsibilities, timeframes, specific performance indicators, and monitoring and evaluation mechanisms.
+
+# 2. The South African Context
+
+2.1 South Africa like many other countries has become dependent on the Internet to govern, to conduct business and for other social purposes. The Internet has become indispensable to many South Africans and will continue to be, as more people access the information highway. Taking into consideration the increase in national and international bandwidth in South Africa, cybercrimes and threats are and will continue to increase. These cybercrimes and threats have the potential to impact on our national security and economy.
+
+2.2 Currently there are various pieces of legislation, some with overlapping mandates administered by different Government Departments and whose implementation is not coordinated. Furthermore, the legislation when viewed collectively does not adequately address South Africa's Cybersecurity challenges.
+
+2.3 The absence of an aligned legal and regulatory framework, and the challenge of uncoordinated Cybersecurity eforts is not unique to South Africa, other jurisdictions arefaced with the same challenges.
+
+2.4Statistics in 2011 indicate that South Africa was in the top three countries that are targeted for phishing purposes, the other countries are the USA and the UK. In addition to phishing, other e-Crime incidents in the RSA have increased to the value of millions of rands. The banking sector is especially vulnerable to cybercrime. In light of the above and many more unreported incidents, there is a need to combat cybercrime.
+
+2.5 The borderless nature of cybercrimes introduces a further dimension to National Security. Numerous cyber-attacks have been launched against a number of countries,such as the attack on Estonia in 2007, which crippled the country's electronic systems. South Africa is not immune to such atacks. The protection of South Africa's critical information infrastructure and the coordination thereof is therefore essential. South Africa needs to develop mechanisms that will ensure proactive and coordinated national response to cyber threats and incidents including combating cybercrime. The Government's leadership role in this regard is important, whilst acknowledging that Cybersecurity is everyone's responsibility, public sector, private sector and civil society.
+
+2.6 The role of the ICTs in social and economic development of a country has been widely acknowledged; however the full potential of ICTs cannot be realized unless there is confidence and trust in the secure use of ICTs. Government should take responsibility to ensure that theprivate sector and civil society are not only aware of the dangers of operating in cyberspace but also take necessary measures not to become victims of cybercrime. It is thus prudent to develop within South Africa a culture of Cybersecurity that will address the needs of the public sector, private sector and civil society.
+
+2.7 Opportunities of ICT and the challenges of Cybersecurity are fuelled by advances in technology. Consequently, there is a need to develop the requisite skills to exploit the opportunities of an information economy and meet the dynamic challenges of Cybersecurity. South Africa will always lag behind or be vulnerableunless we develop requisite skills. There is a need to create an enabling environment for Cybersecurity training, education,research and development and skills development programmes in South Africa.
+
+2.8 South Africa is a consumer of ICTs and depends on overseas manufactured technologies to secure its cyberspace.The downside of this, is that our critical information infrastructure will continue to have some degree of vulnerability. Thus it is important to develop indigenous Cybersecurity technologies. Unless we develop Research and Development capabilities to address this, we will continue to rely of foreign technologies for this purpose. The absence of stringent compliance monitoring to ensure that technologies used comply to international and national Cybersecurity standards.
+
+2.9 South Africa will in the promotion and development of Cybersecurity measures in relation to this NCPF bear in mind the international instruments and measures that may be relevant such
+
+# NATIONAL CYBERSECURITYPOLICYFRAMEWORKFORSOUTHAFRICA
+
+as the work of the various agencies of the United Nations.° In 2011, the International Telecommunications Union (ITU) and the UN Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) signed a memorandum of understanding (MOU) to help secure cyberspace for consumers, businesses, and children and to mitigate the risks posed by cybercrime. The MOU will enable the parties to avail the necessary expertise and resources to establish legal measures and legislativeframeworks atnational level,forthebenefit of allinterestedcountries.This initiative is a major milestone in implementing a co-ordinated global approach to an increasingly serious global problem.'
+
+# 3. Purpose of the NCPF
+
+3.1The purpose of the NCPF is to create a secure, dependable,reliable and trustworthy cyber environment that facilitates the protection of critical information infrastructure whilst strengthening shared human values and understanding of Cybersecurity in support of national security imperatives and the economy. This will enable the development of an information society which takes into account the fundamental rights of every South African citizen to privacy, security, dignity, access to information, the right to communication and freedom of expression.
+
+3.2 The NCPF seeks to ensure that Government, business and civil society are able to enjoy the full benefits of a safe and secure cyberspace. To this end, the public sector, private sector and civil society willneed to work together tounderstand and address the risks,reduce the benefits to criminals and seize opportunities in cyberspace to enhance South Africa's overall security and safety including its economic well-being.
+
+3.3 This NCPF therefore provides for:
+
+a) Measures to address national security in terms of cyberspace; b) Measures to combat cyber warfare, cybercrime and other cyber ills; c) The development, review and updating existing substantive and procedural laws to ensure alignment; and d) Measures to build confidence and trust in the secure use of ICT.
+
+# NATIONAL CYBERSECURITY POLICYFRAMEWORKFORSOUTHAFRICA
+
+# 4. Key Objectives of the NCPF
+
+4.1The NCPF articulates the overall aim and objectives of the South African Government and sets out strategic priorities that will be pursued to achieve these objectives. In order to achieve the strategic visionset out in thispolicy, it is expected that this National Cybersecurity Policy Framework will:
+
+4.1.1 Centralise coordination of Cybersecurity activities,by facilitating the establishment of relevant structures, policy frameworks and strategies in support of Cybersecurity in order to combat cybercrime, address national security imperatives and to enhance the information society and knowledge based economy;
+4.1.2 Foster cooperation and coordination between Government, the private sector and civil society by stimulating and fostering a strong interplay between policy, legislation, societal acceptance and technology;
+4.1.3 Promote international cooperation;
+4.1.4 Develop requisite skills, research and development capacity;
+4.1.5 Promote a culture of Cybersecurity; and
+4.1.6 Promote compliance with appropriate technical and operational Cybersecurity standards.
+
+# 5. Capacity to Respond to Cybersecurity lmperatives
+
+5.1The Justice Crime Prevention and Security Cluster (JCPS),working in consultation with other Government Clusters , will oversee the implementation of this policy framework, with the aim to ensure centralized coordination of Cybersecurity issues.
+
+5.2Adedicated JCPSCybersecurity Response Committee will be established within the JCPS Cluster to coordinate Cybersecurity activities, drive the implementation of the NCPF and manage the implementation of Output 8. The Cybersecurity Response Committee will be chaired by the State Security Agency (SSA) and it will be supported operationally by a CybersecurityCentresituated at the SSA.All relevant JCPS departments willberepresented on the Cybersecurity Response Committee.
+
+5.3 The role of the JCPS Cybersecurity Response Committee will, amongst others, be to:
+
+# NATIONALCYBERSECURITYPOLICYFRAMEWORKFORSOUTHAFRICA
+
+5.3.2 Coordinate Cybersecurity activities and be a central point of contact on all Cybersecurity matters pertinent to national security (national defence, national intelligence and cybercrime);
+
+.3 Identify and prioritise areas of intervention and promote focussed attention and guidance where required regarding Cybersecurity related threats and incidents;
+
+5.3.4 Promote, guide and coordinate activities aimed at improving Cybersecurity measures by all role players, which would include amongst others, the strengthening of intelligence collection and improved State capacity to investigate, prosecute and combat:
+
+a) Cybercrime,
+b) Cyber terrorism,
+c) Cyber espionange,
+d) Cyber warfare and
+e) Any other cyber related threats;
+
+5.3.5 Oversee and guide the functioning of the Cybersecurity Centre, Cybersecurity Hub, RSA Government Electronic Communications Security Computer Security Incident Response Team (ECS -CSiRT) and any other CSiRT established in SA.
+
+5.3.6 Promote and provide guidance to the process of the development and implementation of:
+
+a) The protection of national critical information infrastructure Plan;
+b) Situational analysis and awareness campaign concerning the risk environment of South African cyberspace;
+c) Cybersecurity culture and compliance with minimum security standards;
+d) Public-private partnerships for national and action plans in line with the NCPF;
+e) Compliance with appropriate technical and operational Cybersecurity standards;
+f) Cybersecurity training, education, research and development and skills development programmes;
+g) International cooperation;
+h) Facilitation of interaction, both nationally and internationally, including through international memberships to organisations such as the Forum for Incident Response and Security Teams (FiRST); and develop policy guidelines to inform such interaction;
+
+# NATIONALCYBERSECURITYPOLICYFRAMEWORKFORSOUTHAFRICA
+
+i) Establishment of sector, regional and continental CSiRTs; and j) Comprehensive legal framework governing cyberspace.
+
+5.4 The role of the Cybersecurity Centre will be to:
+5.4.1 Facilitate the operational coordination of Cybersecurity incident response activities regarding national intelligence, national defence and cybercrime;
+5.4.2 Develop measures to deal with Cybersecurity matters impacting on national security;
+5.4.3 Facilitate the analysis of Cybersecurity incidents, trends, vulnerabilities, information sharing, technology exchange on national security and threats to improve technical response coordination;
+5.4.4 Provide guidance to and facilitate the identification, protection and securing of National Critical Information Infrastructure (NCIl);
+5.4.5 Ensure regular assessment and testing of National Critical Information Infrastructures, including vulnerability assessments, threat and risk assessment and penetration testing;
+5.4.6 Provide coordination and guidance regarding Corporate Security and Policy Development; Governance, Risk Management, and Compliance (GRC); ldentity and Security Management; Security Information and Event Management (SiEM), and Digital Forensics as it pertains to Cybersecurity matters within Organs of State;
+5.4.7 Develop response protocols to guide coordinated responses to Cybersecurity incidents and interaction with the various stakeholders;
+5.4.8 Ensure the conducting of Cybersecurity audits, assessments and readiness exercises and provide advice on the development of national response plans;
+5.4.9 Provide the Secretariat services required in relation to the JCPS Cybersecurity Committee, and
+5.4.10 Perform any other function consistent with the strategic and policy objectives set out herein.
+
+# 6. Cybersecurity Hub and Additional CSlRTs
+
+6.1 Notwithstanding the envisaged JCPS Cybersecurity Response Committee, the Cybersecurity Centre and the existing ECS-CSiRT, there is also a need to ensure appropriate consultation between the JCPS cluster departments, the private sector and civil society regarding Cybersecurity matters.
+6.2 To deal with the above stated, this policy recognises that the crucial need for the facilitation of interaction between the key role players in the public sector, private sector and the broader civil society. The NCPF therefore promotes the coordination and consultation between the JCPS cluster departments, the private sector and civil society regarding Cybersecurity matters through the establishment of a Cybersecurity Hub within the Department of Telecommunications and Postal Services (DOC). The Cybersecurity Hub will be operated within the DOC in accordance with national security guidelines and standards issued by the JCPS Cybersecurity Response Committee.
+6.3 To enhance interaction, consultations and to promote a coordinated aproach regarding engagements with the private sector and civil society, Cybersecurity Hub will amongst others, have the responsibility to:
+6.3.1 Coordinate general Cybersecurity activities, in consultation with JCPS CRC as well as including identifying stakeholders and developing public-private relationships and collaborating with any sector CSiRTs that may be established;
+6.3.2 Disseminate relevant information to othersector CSiRTs, vendors, technology experts on Cybersecurity developments;
+6.3.3 Provide best practice guidance on ICT security for Government, business and civil society;
+6.3.4 Initiate Cybersecurity awareness campaigns;
+6.3.5 Promote compliance with standards, procedures and policy developed by the JCPS Cybersecurity Response Committee regarding Cybersecurity matters with a bearing on national security.
+6.3.6 Encourage and facilitate the development of appropriate additional sector CSiRTs. The sector CSIRTs will:
+6.3.6.1 Be a point of contact for that specific sector on Cybersecurity matters;
+6.3.6.2 Coordinate Cybersecurity incident response activities within that sector;
+
+NATIONALCYBERSECURITYPOLICYFRAMEWORKFORSOUTHAFRICA
+
+
+
6.3.6.3
Facilitate information and technology sharing within the sector;
6.3.6.4
Facilitate information sharing and technology exchange with other sector CSIRTs;
6.3.6.5
Establish national security standards and best practices for the sector in consultation with the Cybersecurity Centre and the JCPS Cybersecurity Response Committee which are consistent with guidelines, standards and best practices
6.3.6.6
Develop agreed upon measures;
6.3.6.7
Conduct Cybersecurity audits, assessments and readiness exercises for the sector; and
6.3.6.8
Provide sector entities with best practice guidance on ICT security.
+
+# 7. Verification of Information Security Products and Systems
+
+7.1 South Africa needs to independently assess and certify products and systems that are used to process or store information that can have an impact on national security. The NCPF therefore promotes the facilitation by the JCPS Cybersecurity Response Committee and the National Cybersecurity Hub of the development of a National Information Security Verification Framework that will enable the achievement of this objective by executing the following:
+
+a) Facilitating effective partnerships between the Republic of South Africa and countries with established capacity to perform information security assessments and certifications.
+b) Facilitating effective partnerships between the Government of South Africa, the private sector, academic and research institutions to ensure that there is always capacity to perform information security assessments and certifications within the borders of the Republic.
+c) Developing National regulations for verification of products and systems with applications in Information Security.
+d) Facilitating effective partnerships among government institutions, e.g. those tasked with technical assessments, and those whose responsibility is licensing, and those
+
+# NATIONAL CYBERSECURITYPOLICY FRAMEWORKFOR SOUTH AFRICA
+
+who monitor, (e.g. the Auditor General), to ensure that solutions are implemented in accordance with certification conditions and legislation.
+
+e) Establishing a body that will centrally coordinate the required national verification functions.
+
+# 8. NCll Protection
+
+8.1 The NCPF recognises the need to provide a mechanism to ensure that South Africa's critical information infrastructure is protected and secured against cyber related crimes. It is also noted that a more secured critical information infrastructure will help to achieve the continued provision of essential services and support national security, economic prosperity and social well-being of the Republic. The policy framework recognises that a significant proportion of SA's national critical information infrastructure (NCll) is privately owned or operated on a commercial basis.
+
+8.2 The NCPF therefore seeks to ensure that appropriate steps are taken to ascertain that all National Critical Information Infrastructure (NCll) are identified and properly protected from a variety of threats. For continued availability of the critical information infrastructure, the NCPF thus promotes the development of a National Critical Information Infrastructure (NCIl) Strategy that will address the identification and protection of NCll by:
+
+a) Developing National Critical Information Infrastructure regulations, relating,inter alia, to:
+
+i. Information Classification and Information Security Policy and Procedures;
+ii. Third Party Access to NCII;
+1i1. Access to and authentication on NCll;
+iv. Storage and archiving of critical databases;
+V. Incident management and business continuity; and vi. Physical and technical protection of all NCll.
+
+b) Facilitate an effective business - government partnership relating to the implementation of the Cll Protection Plan. To this end, the private sector, State Owned Enterprises (SOE's), and other government agencies and institutions such as the State Information Technology Agency (SiTA) will play a critical role in ensuring the implementation of NCIl protection plan.
+
+# 9. Cryptography
+
+9.1 There are an ever-increasing numbers of cryptographic devices, crypto graphic software and users requiring secure communications and the geographic spread of locations of these devices. The NCPF therefore provides for the regulation of cryptography given the critical role it plays in ensuring improved secure communications.
+
+9.2 The NCPF notes that various attempts at regulating cryptography were initiated as a way of developing a coherent and integrated approach to this matter. These strategies are found in various laws such as:
+
+a) National Convention Arms Control Act (Act 41 of 2002)
+b) Electronic Communications and Transactions Act (Act 25 of 2002)
+c) Electronic Communications Security (Pty) Ltd Act (Act 68 of 2002)
+d) Regulation of Interception of Communications and Provision of Communications Related Information Act (Act 70 of 2002)
+e) State Information Technology Agency Act (Act 88 of 1998)
+f) Conventional Arms Control Regulations (R7969 of 2004)
+g) Cryptographic regulations (R8418 of 2006)
+
+9.3Taking into consideration the above-mentioned legislation,the NCPF recognises that there is a need to:
+
+a) Review the existing legislation and regulations thereof; and b) Develop an integrated regulatory framework for Cryptography for the country.
+
+# 10.Online E-ldentity Management in Cyberspace
+
+10.1 It is noted that the Electronic Communications and Transactions Act, 20o2 (Act 25 of 2002) (ECT Act) provides for the establishment of the South African Accreditation Authority to facilitate the accreditation and regulation of authentication services and products. It further provides for advanced electronic signatures and facilitates the recognition of electronic documents as legal and binding.
+
+10.2 The NCPF notes that the South African Post Offce (which in terms of the ECT Act, 2002 is a preferred service provider for advanced electronic signatures) has developed a Public Key Infrastructure (PKl) to support advanced electronic signatures (e-identity) and the Department of Public Service and Administration pursuant to its mandate in E--Government willdevelop a
+
+# NATIONALCYBERSECURITYPOLICYFRAMEWORKFORSOUTHAFRICA
+
+PKI Strategy. The Department of Telecommunications and Postal Services (DOC), pursuant to its mandate established the South African Accreditation Authority to accredit and regulate authentication services and products.
+
+10.3The issue of identity management in cyberspace is central to building confidence and trust in the secure use of ICTs. The NCPF seeks to address the fragmented approach by promoting the development of an integrated National E-identity and PKl strategy. Such a strategy and implementation thereof will be critical inproviding inter alia e-government services as well as to ensure security, confidentiality and integrity. Uptake and usage of e-identity in e government services will stimulate other sectors as well.
+
+10.4 The NCPF acknowledges that transmission of information over the Internet for trading and communication purposes presents new and sophisticated threats for both the senders and recipients of information. Therefore to ensure online transaction security, the NCPF provides for the development of a holistic National E-ldentity and PKl Strategy. The strategy will, amongst others, assist to address:
+
+a) Authentication and securing of the identities of the parties to an e-transaction;
+b) Confidentiality, ensuring information is kept private;
+c) Integrity issues, by ensuring the information or process has not been modified or corrupted;
+d) Non-repudiation issues, by ensuring that neither party can refute that the transaction occurred (i.e. the trans action is binding); and
+e) The structure and regulatory framework for E-ldentity and a Public Key Infrastructure.
+
+10.5 The NCPF also requires that the development of a holistic National E-ldentity and PKI Strategy should be aligned to the broader objectives set out herein and in particular the roles and the responsibilities of the critical stakeholders in the implementation of the NCPF.
+
+# 11. Promote and Strengthen Local and International Cooperation
+
+11.1 In terms of this policy framework, the Cybersecurity Hub will foster cooperation and coordination between the public sector, private sector and civil society.
+
+# 11.2 Local cooperation
+
+11.2.1 The NCPF promotes the Public-Private-Civil sector collaboration and the use of industry perspectives, equities and knowledge to enhance Cybersecurity. The Public-PrivateCivil sector partnership is based on the understanding that Cybersecurity is everyone's responsibility and there is a need to leverage on joint knowledge and perspectives, to combat cybercrime.
+
+11.2.2 The NCPF thus promotes the establishment of collaboration with local stakeholders, with a focus on the following aspects:
+
+(a) Inclusion of the industry and creating an enabling environment for a successful partnership;
+(b) Encouraging private sector groups to address common security interests and collaborate with government including encouraging cooperation among groups from interdependent industries;
+(c) Bringing private sector and government together in trusted forums; and
+(d) Creating a common understanding of the threats and vulnerabilities that the country faces and the responses required.
+
+# 11.3 International Cooperation
+
+11.3.1 Internet as a form of media can in essence not be regulated in total by an authority or government. Given the borderless nature of the Internet and the challenges it poses in terms of jurisdiction, it is important that countries learn and collaborate with each other in order to combat cybercrimes.
+
+11.3.2 Therefore, international collaboration is critical in securing cyberspaces nationally and globally. Recognising the need for global collaboration on matters regarding Cybersecurity, South Africa is required to collaborate with relevant and appropriate international organisations and governments, in line with the Constitution, national security imperatives, foreign policy and existing international agreements. To this end, South Africa will:
+
+# NATIONAL CYBERSECURITYPOLICYFRAMEWORKFORSOUTHAFRICA
+
+(a) Participate in regional, African Union and international fora on matters pertinent to Cybersecurity in order to advance South Africa's views in the definition and elaboration of the global Cybersecurity agenda in combating cybercrime and building confidence and trust in the secure use of ICTs.
+(b) Forge bilateral and multilateral partnerships in our national interest through various instruments inter alia Memorandum of Understanding, Convention, Treaty, etc.
+(c) Afiliate to relevant international organisations in order to promote a coordinated global response to threats and vulnerabilities and to keep abreast of developments in the Cybersecurity front.
+
+# 12. Capacity Development, Research and Development
+
+12.1 The dynamic nature of Cybersecurity challenges necessitates the continuous development of capabilities and requisite skills.
+
+# 12.2 The NCPF therefore promotes:
+
+a) Development of capacity building strategies to address South Africa's, specific skills requirements to meet the ever increasing challenges of addressing Cybersecurity threats;
+b) Development of recruitment and retention strategies aimed at ensuring a sufficient level of technical expertise is developed and maintained within the Republic; and
+c) Development of a Cybersecurity research and development agenda and enhancement of Cybersecurity research within South African Universities, industry and the Department of Science and Technology.
+d) Enterprise development so as to grow the information security sector in terms of skills and growing enterprises that produce technology that protect cyberspace.
+
+# 13.Cyber-warfare
+
+13.1 In order to protect its interests in the event of a cyber-war, a cyber defence capacity has to be built. The NCPF thus promotes that a Cyber Defence Strategy, that is informed by the National Security Strategy of South Africa, be developed, guided by the JCPS Cybersecurity Response Committee.
+
+# 14. Promotion of a Cybersecurity Culture
+
+14.1 T0 effectively deal with Cybersecurity, it is prudent that civil society, government and the private sector play their part in ensuring South Africa has a culture of Cybersecurity. Critical to this is the development of a culture of Cybersecurity, in whichrole players understand the risks of surfing in cyberspace. To facilitate the building of a Cybersecurity culture, the NCPF provides for inter alia:
+
+14.1.1 Implementing Cybersecurity awareness programs for private sector, public sector and
+civil society users;
+14.1.2 Encouraging business to develop a positive culture for Cybersecurity;
+14.1.3 Supporting outreach to civil society, children and individual users;
+14.1.4 Promoting a comprehensive national awareness program and guidelines;
+14.1.5 Reviewing and updating existing privacy regime;
+14.1.6 Develop awareness of cyber risks and available solutions;
+14.1.7 Continuously review cyber applications and the impact from a Cybersecurity
+perspective.
+14.1.8 Compliment the culture of Cybersecurity with online support mechanisms.
+
+# 15. Technical and Operational Standards Compliance
+
+15.1 The NCPF also promotes:
+
+a) The recognition of and compliance with appropriate international and local technical andoperational Cybersecurity standards. The Ministerof Communications shall enforce compliance with such standards where appropriate and in consultation with the National Cybersecurity Advisory Council;
+b) The continuous monitoring, review and assessment of regulatory frameworks that support Cybersecurity ; and
+
+# NATIONALCYBERSECURITYPOLICYFRAMEWORKFORSOUTHAFRICA
+
+c) The development and/or adoption of standards by the South African Bureau of Standards in consultation with relevant Government Departments, ICASA and industry. This will ensure a safe and secure cyberspace environment that will enable the growth of e-commerce and an inclusive information society.
+
+# 16.The Role and Responsibility of the State
+
+This policy recognizes that there are a number of Organs of State that play a critical role in the implementation of Cybersecurity measures. For effective implementation of this policy framework, the role of some of the main relevant Organs of State are set out below. Inclusive of the various roles and responsibilities set out, all other governmental priorities such as the protection of vulnerable groups,promotion of job creation and general protection of Constitutional values and principles are endorsed and should be promoted in the development of implementation plans and activities. Liaison with other clusters such as the economic cluster will be essential in the development of the various implementation plans guided by the NCPF.
+
+16.1 The Department of Justice and Constitutional Development (DOJ&CD) and the National Prosecuting Authority (NPA) have an overall responsibility for facilitating cybercrime prosecution and court processes in accordance with the applicable laws.
+
+a) The NCPF also requires the DOJ&CD to develop an implementation plan for the review and alignment of all Cybersecurity laws with the policy objectives and mandates of the State institutions as set out herein. In this regard, the DOJ&CD will be required to lead a process, in consultation with other JCPS Cluster Departments, for the review and alignment of Cybersecurity laws and will be required to submit progress reports to the JCPS Cluster Cybersecurity implementation team on a continuous basis in accordance with the approved JCPS implementation plan.
+
+b) The process for the review of the Cybersecurity laws seeks to ensure that all relevant laws are aligned to this policy framework, and create a coherent and integrated cybercrime legal framework and prosecution approach in the Republic. This would require initiation of processes to effect necessary amendments to relevant legislation in order to make cybercrime or related crimes punishable in law.
+
+# NATIONAL CYBERSECURITY POLICY FRAMEWORKFOR SOUTH AFRICA
+
+16.2The Ministry of State Security and the State Security Agency (SSA) has overall responsibility and accountability for coordination, development and implementation of Cybersecurity measures in the Republic as an integral part of its National Security mandate.
+
+16.2.1 The Ministry of State Security and SSA shall, amongst others, be required to perform the following key roles and responsibilities in relation to cybersecutity in the Republic:
+
+(a) Ensure that the JCPS cluster is properly capacitated and is able to perform its function as set out in this Policy framework including ensuring that the JCPS cluster has the the necessary capacity to monitor, promote and guide the implementation of the NCPF.
+
+(b) Ensure, in consultation with the relevant stakeholders, the establishment of the Cybersecurity Response Committee, Cybersecurity Centre and proper function of the existing RSA Government CSiRT in line with the approved JCPS implementation plan.
+
+(c) Initiate and lead a process within the JCPS cluster for the development and approval of guidelines and National security norms for the establsihment of varioussector CSiRTs asprovidedfor inthepolicyframework.
+
+(d) Have an overall responsibility for the development and formulation of National Cybersecurity in Republic and in consultation with stakeholders. This includes reviewing and amending existing Cybersecurity policies as well as prescribing regulations on information and communications technology security for the Republic in order to advance the National Security interests of the Republic
+
+(e) Provide information assurance and secure information and communications technology infrastructure of National importance in support of national security; This should include the development of State capacity to provide threat monitoring, alerting, co-ordination and response for information communications technology related incidents pertaining to National Critical Information Infrastructure of the State;
+
+(f) Prescribe a regulatory frameworkfor the control by the State of the provision and application of cryptographic solutions, development of National strategy and regulations for the protection of National Critical Information Infrastructure, and prescribe information communications technology security technical standards to which the electronic communications security products and services of organs of State must comply;
+
+# NATIONAL CYBERSECURITY POLICY FRAMEWORKFOR SOUTH AFRICA
+
+16.2.2 The implementation of these responsibilities by SSA shall include aspects of developing and implementing regulations, collecting intelligence both locally and internationally, conducting necessary Cybersecurity investigations and reporting on South Africa's Cybersecurity situation.
+
+16.3 The Department of Police and the SAPS shall, in terms of the NCPF, be responsible for the prevention, investigation and combating of cybercrime in the Republic, which includes development of cybercrime policies and strategies, and providing for specialized investigative capacity and interaction with national and international stakeholders. Development of the anticybercrime policy and implementation plans should include operational priorities pertaining to:
+
+(a) The fight against child sexual/physical abuse material on the Internet;
+(b) Actions to counter massive attacks against information systems such as“denial-ofservice attacks (such as those affecting the banking sector);
+(c) Actions combating identity fraud;
+(d) The development of cross-border law enforcement cooperation;
+(e) Public-private cooperation to fight cybercrime (in particular between law enforcement authorities and private companies); and
+(f) Promote enhanced international cooperation to fight cybercrime by taking part in various international initiatives such the UN High Level Expert Group on Cybersecurity and the International Telecommunication Union.
+
+16.4 The Department of Telecommunications and Postal Services (DTPS) has the responsibility for:
+
+(a) Developing and implementing policies, regulations and industry standards regarding ICT aspects in general and to assist in the provision of strategic direction and coordination on local and international Cybersecurity matters pursuant to building an information economy and building confidence and trust in the secure use of ICTs. This includes building trust and confidence in the secure use of ICTs and to advise the Minister of Telecommunications and Postal Services on policy and technical issues and other matters pertinent to Cybersecurity;
+
+# NATIONALCYBERSECURITYPOLICYFRAMEWORKFORSOUTHAFRICA
+
+Establishing the National Cybersecurity Advisory Council (NCAC) to advise the Minister of Telecommunications and Postal Services on policy and technical issues, and other matters pertinent to Cybersecurity pursuant to building confidence and trust in the secure use of ICTs; (c) Establishing the Cybersecurity Hub and to facilitate the establishment of any other sector CSIRTs.
+
+16.5 The Department of Defence and Military Veterans (DOD&MV) has overall responsibility for coordination, accountability and implementation of cyber defence measures in the Republic as an integral part of its National defence mandate. To this end, the Department will develop policies and strategies pursuant to its core mandate.
+
+16.6 The Department of Science and Technology (DsT) has the responsibility for the development, coordination and implementation of national capacity development program. Furthermore, the Department shall be responsible for developing and facilitating the implementation of a national Cybersecurity research and development agenda for South Africa.
+
+16.7 All other Organs of State are required to align their ICT policies and practices with this NCPF in so far as it relates to Cybersecurity.
+
+# 17.The role and Responsibility of the Private Sector
+
+17.1 The private sector is responsible for implementing information security measures at least equivalent to those that are implemented by Government. The NCPF therefore promotes cooperation between the information security bodies that predominantly represent the private sector with equivalent bodies in Government. The Department of Telecommunications and Postal Services (DTPS) and the National Cybersecurity Hub will help facilitate such cooperation.
+
+# 18. The Role and Responsibility of Civil Society
+
+18.1 Each person has a responsibility to ensure that his or her computer, mobile phone or any ICT infrastructure at his or her disposal that links to the cyberspace has updated malware protection. Each person also has a responsibility to report information security incidents to the police or the most accessible CSiRT. DTPS will help facilitate campaigns to raise awareness in this regard.
+
+# NATIONAL CYBERSECURITY POLICYFRAMEWORKFORSOUTHAFRICA
+
+# 19. Conclusion
+
+19.1 It is envisaged that the NCPF will achieve the following benefits:
+
+a) A safer and more secure cyberspace that underpins national security priorities;
+b) The establishment of institutional structures to support a coordinated approach to addressing Cybersecurity;
+c) The identification and protection of national critical information infrastructure;
+d) A secure e-environment that stimulates economic growth and competitiveness of South Africa;
+e) Promotion of a national research and development agenda relating to Cybersecurity;
+f) The effective prevention, combating and prosecution of cybercrime; and
+g) The enhanced management of Cybersecurity.
\ No newline at end of file
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diff --git a/log/lightrag_compatible_demo.log b/log/lightrag_compatible_demo.log
new file mode 100644
index 0000000000000000000000000000000000000000..da3ce657d2124f63710a8e8778550ba0a667de00
--- /dev/null
+++ b/log/lightrag_compatible_demo.log
@@ -0,0 +1,2322 @@
+2025-06-21 15:35:38,547 - lightrag - INFO - Created new empty graph
+2025-06-21 15:35:38,579 - lightrag - INFO - Process 7900 KV load full_docs with 0 records
+2025-06-21 15:35:38,582 - lightrag - INFO - Process 7900 KV load text_chunks with 0 records
+2025-06-21 15:35:38,586 - lightrag - INFO - Process 7900 KV load llm_response_cache with 0 records
+2025-06-21 15:35:38,588 - lightrag - INFO - Process 7900 doc status load doc_status with 0 records
+2025-06-21 15:35:38,601 - lightrag - INFO - Storage Initialization completed!
+2025-06-21 15:37:05,598 - lightrag - INFO - Stored 1 new unique documents
+2025-06-21 15:37:05,600 - lightrag - INFO - Processing 1 document(s)
+2025-06-21 15:37:05,601 - lightrag - INFO - Extracting stage 1/1: dataset/data/docs3\Protection of Information Act 84 of 1982 South African Government.pdf-0aeaf0b9-0f34-4e8c-a946-.md
+2025-06-21 15:37:05,601 - lightrag - INFO - Processing d-id: doc-69fc3692f413a826731489c0557e981d
+2025-06-21 15:37:05,622 - lightrag - INFO - limit_async: 16 new workers initialized
+2025-06-21 15:37:05,623 - lightrag - INFO - limit_async: 4 new workers initialized
+2025-06-21 15:37:08,568 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: 1 validation error for EmbedResponse
+embeddings
+ Field required [type=missing, input_value={'error': 'Unexpected end...hod. (POST /api/embed)'}, input_type=dict]
+ For further information visit https://errors.pydantic.dev/2.11/v/missing
+2025-06-21 15:37:12,161 - lightrag - ERROR - Failed to extrat document doc-69fc3692f413a826731489c0557e981d: Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 990, in process_document
+ await asyncio.gather(*tasks)
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\kg\nano_vector_db_impl.py", line 109, in upsert
+ embeddings_list = await asyncio.gather(*embedding_tasks)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 544, in wait_func
+ return await future
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 328, in worker
+ result = await func(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 203, in __call__
+ return await self.func(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\app_gradio_lightrag.py", line 163, in _embedding_func
+ return await ollama_embed(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\llm\ollama.py", line 131, in ollama_embed
+ data = ollama_client.embed(model=embed_model, input=texts)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\ollama\_client.py", line 357, in embed
+ return self._request(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\ollama\_client.py", line 178, in _request
+ return cls(**self._request_raw(*args, **kwargs).json())
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\pydantic\main.py", line 253, in __init__
+ validated_self = self.__pydantic_validator__.validate_python(data, self_instance=self)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+pydantic_core._pydantic_core.ValidationError: 1 validation error for EmbedResponse
+embeddings
+ Field required [type=missing, input_value={'error': 'Unexpected end...hod. (POST /api/embed)'}, input_type=dict]
+ For further information visit https://errors.pydantic.dev/2.11/v/missing
+
+2025-06-21 15:37:12,166 - lightrag - INFO - Document processing pipeline completed
+2025-06-21 15:37:12,244 - lightrag - INFO - Stored 1 new unique documents
+2025-06-21 15:37:12,249 - lightrag - INFO - Processing 2 document(s)
+2025-06-21 15:37:12,251 - lightrag - INFO - Extracting stage 1/2: dataset/data/docs3\Protection of Information Act 84 of 1982 South African Government.pdf-0aeaf0b9-0f34-4e8c-a946-.md
+2025-06-21 15:37:12,253 - lightrag - INFO - Processing d-id: doc-69fc3692f413a826731489c0557e981d
+2025-06-21 15:37:12,275 - lightrag - INFO - Extracting stage 2/2: dataset/data/docs3\republic-of-south-africa_2013_Protection of Personal Information Act, 2013.pdf-68ed7a0b.md
+2025-06-21 15:37:12,277 - lightrag - INFO - Processing d-id: doc-f489721a8973148eab8fdfd0931a49fe
+2025-06-21 15:37:15,366 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: 1 validation error for EmbedResponse
+embeddings
+ Field required [type=missing, input_value={'error': 'Unexpected end...hod. (POST /api/embed)'}, input_type=dict]
+ For further information visit https://errors.pydantic.dev/2.11/v/missing
+2025-06-21 15:37:18,291 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: 1 validation error for EmbedResponse
+embeddings
+ Field required [type=missing, input_value={'error': 'Unexpected end...hod. (POST /api/embed)'}, input_type=dict]
+ For further information visit https://errors.pydantic.dev/2.11/v/missing
+2025-06-21 15:37:21,241 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: 1 validation error for EmbedResponse
+embeddings
+ Field required [type=missing, input_value={'error': 'Unexpected end...hod. (POST /api/embed)'}, input_type=dict]
+ For further information visit https://errors.pydantic.dev/2.11/v/missing
+2025-06-21 15:37:21,255 - lightrag - ERROR - Failed to extrat document doc-69fc3692f413a826731489c0557e981d: Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 990, in process_document
+ await asyncio.gather(*tasks)
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\kg\nano_vector_db_impl.py", line 109, in upsert
+ embeddings_list = await asyncio.gather(*embedding_tasks)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 544, in wait_func
+ return await future
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 328, in worker
+ result = await func(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 203, in __call__
+ return await self.func(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\app_gradio_lightrag.py", line 163, in _embedding_func
+ return await ollama_embed(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\llm\ollama.py", line 131, in ollama_embed
+ data = ollama_client.embed(model=embed_model, input=texts)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\ollama\_client.py", line 357, in embed
+ return self._request(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\ollama\_client.py", line 178, in _request
+ return cls(**self._request_raw(*args, **kwargs).json())
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\pydantic\main.py", line 253, in __init__
+ validated_self = self.__pydantic_validator__.validate_python(data, self_instance=self)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+pydantic_core._pydantic_core.ValidationError: 1 validation error for EmbedResponse
+embeddings
+ Field required [type=missing, input_value={'error': 'Unexpected end...hod. (POST /api/embed)'}, input_type=dict]
+ For further information visit https://errors.pydantic.dev/2.11/v/missing
+
+2025-06-21 15:37:21,264 - lightrag - ERROR - Failed to extrat document doc-f489721a8973148eab8fdfd0931a49fe: Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 990, in process_document
+ await asyncio.gather(*tasks)
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\kg\nano_vector_db_impl.py", line 109, in upsert
+ embeddings_list = await asyncio.gather(*embedding_tasks)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 544, in wait_func
+ return await future
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 328, in worker
+ result = await func(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 203, in __call__
+ return await self.func(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\app_gradio_lightrag.py", line 163, in _embedding_func
+ return await ollama_embed(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\llm\ollama.py", line 131, in ollama_embed
+ data = ollama_client.embed(model=embed_model, input=texts)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\ollama\_client.py", line 357, in embed
+ return self._request(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\ollama\_client.py", line 178, in _request
+ return cls(**self._request_raw(*args, **kwargs).json())
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\pydantic\main.py", line 253, in __init__
+ validated_self = self.__pydantic_validator__.validate_python(data, self_instance=self)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+pydantic_core._pydantic_core.ValidationError: 1 validation error for EmbedResponse
+embeddings
+ Field required [type=missing, input_value={'error': 'Unexpected end...hod. (POST /api/embed)'}, input_type=dict]
+ For further information visit https://errors.pydantic.dev/2.11/v/missing
+
+2025-06-21 15:37:21,271 - lightrag - INFO - Document processing pipeline completed
+2025-06-21 15:37:22,331 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Call Failed,
+Model: google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17,
+Params: {}, Got: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:22,332 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:23,258 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Call Failed,
+Model: google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17,
+Params: {}, Got: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:23,259 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:24,125 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Call Failed,
+Model: google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17,
+Params: {}, Got: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:24,126 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:25,068 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Call Failed,
+Model: google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17,
+Params: {}, Got: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:25,069 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:27,350 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Call Failed,
+Model: google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17,
+Params: {}, Got: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:27,351 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:28,136 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Call Failed,
+Model: google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17,
+Params: {}, Got: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:28,137 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:29,050 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Call Failed,
+Model: google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17,
+Params: {}, Got: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:29,051 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:29,709 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Call Failed,
+Model: google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17,
+Params: {}, Got: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:29,711 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:32,341 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Call Failed,
+Model: google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17,
+Params: {}, Got: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:32,342 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:33,271 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Call Failed,
+Model: google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17,
+Params: {}, Got: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:33,272 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:34,198 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Call Failed,
+Model: google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17,
+Params: {}, Got: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:34,199 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:35,142 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Call Failed,
+Model: google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17,
+Params: {}, Got: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:35,143 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:37,451 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Call Failed,
+Model: google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17,
+Params: {}, Got: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:37,453 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:38,349 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Call Failed,
+Model: google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17,
+Params: {}, Got: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:38,350 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:39,265 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Call Failed,
+Model: google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17,
+Params: {}, Got: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:39,266 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:40,147 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Call Failed,
+Model: google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17,
+Params: {}, Got: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:40,148 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:41,649 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Call Failed,
+Model: google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17,
+Params: {}, Got: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:41,651 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:42,573 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Call Failed,
+Model: google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17,
+Params: {}, Got: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:42,574 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:42,576 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Call Failed,
+Model: google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17,
+Params: {}, Got: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:42,576 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:42,583 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Call Failed,
+Model: google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17,
+Params: {}, Got: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:42,584 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:45,885 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Call Failed,
+Model: google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17,
+Params: {}, Got: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:45,887 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:46,840 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Call Failed,
+Model: google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17,
+Params: {}, Got: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:46,841 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:46,842 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Call Failed,
+Model: google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17,
+Params: {}, Got: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:46,843 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:46,844 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Call Failed,
+Model: google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17,
+Params: {}, Got: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:46,845 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:50,676 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Call Failed,
+Model: google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17,
+Params: {}, Got: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:50,677 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:51,622 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Call Failed,
+Model: google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17,
+Params: {}, Got: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:51,623 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:51,625 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Call Failed,
+Model: google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17,
+Params: {}, Got: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:51,627 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:51,628 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Call Failed,
+Model: google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17,
+Params: {}, Got: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:51,629 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:54,866 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Call Failed,
+Model: google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17,
+Params: {}, Got: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:54,867 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:54,877 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Call Failed,
+Model: google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17,
+Params: {}, Got: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:54,878 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:56,530 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Call Failed,
+Model: google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17,
+Params: {}, Got: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:56,532 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:57,449 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Call Failed,
+Model: google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17,
+Params: {}, Got: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:57,450 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:59,668 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Call Failed,
+Model: google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17,
+Params: {}, Got: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:37:59,670 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:38:00,697 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Call Failed,
+Model: google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17,
+Params: {}, Got: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:38:00,698 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:38:00,699 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Call Failed,
+Model: google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17,
+Params: {}, Got: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:38:00,700 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:38:00,701 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Call Failed,
+Model: google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17,
+Params: {}, Got: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:38:00,702 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:38:04,422 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Call Failed,
+Model: google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17,
+Params: {}, Got: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:38:04,423 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:38:05,406 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Call Failed,
+Model: google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17,
+Params: {}, Got: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:38:05,407 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:38:05,409 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Call Failed,
+Model: google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17,
+Params: {}, Got: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:38:05,410 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:38:05,411 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Call Failed,
+Model: google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17,
+Params: {}, Got: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:38:05,412 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:38:08,827 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Call Failed,
+Model: google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17,
+Params: {}, Got: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:38:08,828 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:38:09,790 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Call Failed,
+Model: google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17,
+Params: {}, Got: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:38:09,791 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:38:09,794 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Call Failed,
+Model: google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17,
+Params: {}, Got: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:38:09,795 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:38:09,803 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Call Failed,
+Model: google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17,
+Params: {}, Got: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:38:09,804 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:38:13,076 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Call Failed,
+Model: google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17,
+Params: {}, Got: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:38:13,077 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:38:13,984 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Call Failed,
+Model: google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17,
+Params: {}, Got: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:38:13,985 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:38:13,987 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Call Failed,
+Model: google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17,
+Params: {}, Got: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:38:13,989 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:38:13,990 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Call Failed,
+Model: google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17,
+Params: {}, Got: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:38:13,991 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:38:16,396 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Call Failed,
+Model: google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17,
+Params: {}, Got: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:38:16,398 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:38:17,096 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Call Failed,
+Model: google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17,
+Params: {}, Got: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:38:17,098 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:38:17,208 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Call Failed,
+Model: google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17,
+Params: {}, Got: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:38:17,209 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: Error code: 404 - [{'error': {'code': 404, 'message': 'models/google/gemini-2.5-flash-lite-preview-06-17 is not found for API version v1main, or is not supported for generateContent. Call ListModels to see the list of available models and their supported methods.', 'status': 'NOT_FOUND'}}]
+2025-06-21 15:42:11,865 - lightrag - INFO - Created new empty graph
+2025-06-21 15:42:11,882 - lightrag - INFO - Storage Initialization completed!
+2025-06-21 15:43:57,438 - lightrag - INFO - Created new empty graph
+2025-06-21 15:43:57,464 - lightrag - INFO - Storage Initialization completed!
+2025-06-21 15:43:57,468 - lightrag - INFO - Storage Finalization completed!
+2025-06-21 15:43:58,120 - lightrag - INFO - Storage Finalization completed!
+2025-06-21 15:43:58,120 - lightrag - INFO - Storage Finalization completed!
+2025-06-21 15:45:08,541 - lightrag - INFO - No new unique documents were found.
+2025-06-21 15:45:08,543 - lightrag - INFO - Processing 2 document(s)
+2025-06-21 15:45:08,544 - lightrag - INFO - Extracting stage 1/2: dataset/data/docs3\Protection of Information Act 84 of 1982 South African Government.pdf-0aeaf0b9-0f34-4e8c-a946-.md
+2025-06-21 15:45:08,545 - lightrag - INFO - Processing d-id: doc-69fc3692f413a826731489c0557e981d
+2025-06-21 15:45:08,567 - lightrag - INFO - Extracting stage 2/2: dataset/data/docs3\republic-of-south-africa_2013_Protection of Personal Information Act, 2013.pdf-68ed7a0b.md
+2025-06-21 15:45:08,567 - lightrag - INFO - Processing d-id: doc-f489721a8973148eab8fdfd0931a49fe
+2025-06-21 15:45:08,719 - lightrag - INFO - limit_async: 16 new workers initialized
+2025-06-21 15:45:08,720 - lightrag - INFO - limit_async: 4 new workers initialized
+2025-06-21 15:45:18,148 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 88bced5bf83b5f0c7fceeea50ff4688f
+2025-06-21 15:45:19,150 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 28349015bc9cc1f01a169cbdeee9acc2
+2025-06-21 15:45:21,433 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: c76325463b39f189fa5bb50919bf3b53
+2025-06-21 15:45:21,439 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: d130447c52d255f26241f6c176ba36ff
+2025-06-21 15:45:24,995 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 0f76630358af0878f5af5755c9af415b
+2025-06-21 15:45:26,071 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: a2dbc2939bec2ebe85e0e74ae70dd31d
+2025-06-21 15:45:27,083 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 89fb7ed99567c74d40b101e9fbda265a
+2025-06-21 15:45:28,107 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 3ba236f3fdb81f85049f870c16209ad4
+2025-06-21 15:45:33,277 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: b444bd6b69975113599a7e7b6763158c
+2025-06-21 15:45:33,281 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 1 of 5 extracted 12 Ent + 21 Rel
+2025-06-21 15:45:34,562 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: f81869697a158ecad31157527a477234
+2025-06-21 15:45:34,566 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 2 of 5 extracted 30 Ent + 0 Rel
+2025-06-21 15:45:35,524 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 2d67d9ee90e27a000de0af1a435b26e8
+2025-06-21 15:45:35,532 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 3 of 5 extracted 27 Ent + 41 Rel
+2025-06-21 15:45:37,104 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 2a5a991d69c6f60aa31976ba530ff4c1
+2025-06-21 15:45:37,120 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 4 of 5 extracted 38 Ent + 50 Rel
+2025-06-21 15:45:40,114 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: b9bd314eb15ae9041392c13dbe99f4b5
+2025-06-21 15:45:40,122 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 1 of 41 extracted 46 Ent + 43 Rel
+2025-06-21 15:45:41,064 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: fd1105aff792aecc22026e24f512fe3f
+2025-06-21 15:45:41,070 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 2 of 41 extracted 22 Ent + 31 Rel
+2025-06-21 15:45:42,694 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 3e0eed0b4978e96f82c753630f938fe7
+2025-06-21 15:45:42,698 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 3 of 41 extracted 19 Ent + 16 Rel
+2025-06-21 15:45:44,295 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'location': 'global', 'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '15s'}]}}]
+2025-06-21 15:45:44,877 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'location': 'global', 'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '15s'}]}}]
+2025-06-21 15:45:46,164 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 7e0589a12db08c806c3b495777f7cea7
+2025-06-21 15:45:46,178 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 4 of 41 extracted 102 Ent + 25 Rel
+2025-06-21 15:45:46,526 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'location': 'global', 'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '13s'}]}}]
+2025-06-21 15:45:51,693 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite', 'location': 'global'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '8s'}]}}]
+2025-06-21 15:45:53,263 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'location': 'global', 'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '6s'}]}}]
+2025-06-21 15:45:53,471 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'location': 'global', 'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '6s'}]}}]
+2025-06-21 15:45:54,825 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'location': 'global', 'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '5s'}]}}]
+2025-06-21 15:46:00,801 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite', 'location': 'global'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '59s'}]}}]
+2025-06-21 15:46:02,024 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'location': 'global', 'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '58s'}]}}]
+2025-06-21 15:46:02,026 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: RetryError[]
+2025-06-21 15:46:02,742 - lightrag - ERROR - Failed to extract entities and relationships: RetryError[]
+2025-06-21 15:46:02,745 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite', 'location': 'global'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '58s'}]}}]
+2025-06-21 15:46:02,746 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: RetryError[]
+2025-06-21 15:46:02,751 - lightrag - ERROR - Failed to extrat document doc-69fc3692f413a826731489c0557e981d: Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 114, in __call__
+ result = await fn(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\llm\openai.py", line 185, in openai_complete_if_cache
+ response = await openai_async_client.chat.completions.create(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\openai\resources\chat\completions\completions.py", line 2028, in create
+ return await self._post(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\openai\_base_client.py", line 1742, in post
+ return await self.request(cast_to, opts, stream=stream, stream_cls=stream_cls)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\openai\_base_client.py", line 1549, in request
+ raise self._make_status_error_from_response(err.response) from None
+openai.RateLimitError: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'location': 'global', 'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '58s'}]}}]
+
+The above exception was the direct cause of the following exception:
+
+Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 990, in process_document
+ await asyncio.gather(*tasks)
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 1168, in _process_entity_relation_graph
+ raise e
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 1154, in _process_entity_relation_graph
+ chunk_results = await extract_entities(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 832, in extract_entities
+ raise task.exception()
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 808, in _process_with_semaphore
+ return await _process_single_content(chunk)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 733, in _process_single_content
+ final_result = await use_llm_func_with_cache(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 1614, in use_llm_func_with_cache
+ res: str = await use_llm_func(input_text, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 544, in wait_func
+ return await future
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 328, in worker
+ result = await func(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\app_gradio_lightrag.py", line 199, in _llm_model_func
+ return await openai_complete_if_cache(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 189, in async_wrapped
+ return await copy(fn, *args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 111, in __call__
+ do = await self.iter(retry_state=retry_state)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 153, in iter
+ result = await action(retry_state)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\_utils.py", line 99, in inner
+ return call(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\__init__.py", line 421, in exc_check
+ raise retry_exc from fut.exception()
+tenacity.RetryError: RetryError[]
+
+2025-06-21 15:46:03,412 - lightrag - ERROR - Failed to extract entities and relationships: RetryError[]
+2025-06-21 15:46:03,416 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite', 'location': 'global'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '57s'}]}}]
+2025-06-21 15:46:03,418 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: RetryError[]
+2025-06-21 15:46:03,423 - lightrag - ERROR - Failed to extrat document doc-f489721a8973148eab8fdfd0931a49fe: Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 114, in __call__
+ result = await fn(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\llm\openai.py", line 185, in openai_complete_if_cache
+ response = await openai_async_client.chat.completions.create(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\openai\resources\chat\completions\completions.py", line 2028, in create
+ return await self._post(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\openai\_base_client.py", line 1742, in post
+ return await self.request(cast_to, opts, stream=stream, stream_cls=stream_cls)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\openai\_base_client.py", line 1549, in request
+ raise self._make_status_error_from_response(err.response) from None
+openai.RateLimitError: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite', 'location': 'global'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '58s'}]}}]
+
+The above exception was the direct cause of the following exception:
+
+Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 990, in process_document
+ await asyncio.gather(*tasks)
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 1168, in _process_entity_relation_graph
+ raise e
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 1154, in _process_entity_relation_graph
+ chunk_results = await extract_entities(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 832, in extract_entities
+ raise task.exception()
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 808, in _process_with_semaphore
+ return await _process_single_content(chunk)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 733, in _process_single_content
+ final_result = await use_llm_func_with_cache(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 1614, in use_llm_func_with_cache
+ res: str = await use_llm_func(input_text, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 544, in wait_func
+ return await future
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 328, in worker
+ result = await func(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\app_gradio_lightrag.py", line 199, in _llm_model_func
+ return await openai_complete_if_cache(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 189, in async_wrapped
+ return await copy(fn, *args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 111, in __call__
+ do = await self.iter(retry_state=retry_state)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 153, in iter
+ result = await action(retry_state)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\_utils.py", line 99, in inner
+ return call(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\__init__.py", line 421, in exc_check
+ raise retry_exc from fut.exception()
+tenacity.RetryError: RetryError[]
+
+2025-06-21 15:46:03,430 - lightrag - INFO - Document processing pipeline completed
+2025-06-21 15:46:03,437 - lightrag - INFO - No new unique documents were found.
+2025-06-21 15:46:03,438 - lightrag - INFO - Processing 2 document(s)
+2025-06-21 15:46:03,439 - lightrag - INFO - Extracting stage 1/2: dataset/data/docs3\Protection of Information Act 84 of 1982 South African Government.pdf-0aeaf0b9-0f34-4e8c-a946-.md
+2025-06-21 15:46:03,440 - lightrag - INFO - Processing d-id: doc-69fc3692f413a826731489c0557e981d
+2025-06-21 15:46:03,455 - lightrag - INFO - Extracting stage 2/2: dataset/data/docs3\republic-of-south-africa_2013_Protection of Personal Information Act, 2013.pdf-68ed7a0b.md
+2025-06-21 15:46:03,456 - lightrag - INFO - Processing d-id: doc-f489721a8973148eab8fdfd0931a49fe
+2025-06-21 15:46:03,567 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 1 of 5 extracted 30 Ent + 0 Rel
+2025-06-21 15:46:03,572 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 2 of 5 extracted 27 Ent + 41 Rel
+2025-06-21 15:46:03,584 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 3 of 5 extracted 38 Ent + 50 Rel
+2025-06-21 15:46:03,587 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 4 of 5 extracted 12 Ent + 21 Rel
+2025-06-21 15:46:03,597 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 1 of 41 extracted 102 Ent + 25 Rel
+2025-06-21 15:46:03,603 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 2 of 41 extracted 22 Ent + 31 Rel
+2025-06-21 15:46:03,609 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 3 of 41 extracted 19 Ent + 16 Rel
+2025-06-21 15:46:03,618 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 4 of 41 extracted 46 Ent + 43 Rel
+2025-06-21 15:46:09,226 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'location': 'global', 'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '50s'}]}}]
+2025-06-21 15:46:10,185 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'location': 'global', 'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '49s'}]}}]
+2025-06-21 15:46:10,186 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: RetryError[]
+2025-06-21 15:46:11,042 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite', 'location': 'global'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '49s'}]}}]
+2025-06-21 15:46:11,044 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'location': 'global', 'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '49s'}]}}]
+2025-06-21 15:46:14,352 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'location': 'global', 'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '45s'}]}}]
+2025-06-21 15:46:21,744 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 85f2df90eef5c3fde4a66e0c7e49e413
+2025-06-21 15:46:22,543 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: ca75c89c692f20168502a12c150c419e
+2025-06-21 15:46:23,310 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 6c0d9b36b9f7ab611590eb5fa097cb37
+2025-06-21 15:46:27,425 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 51f84f6279f890c52dbc57cf9d660481
+2025-06-21 15:46:28,210 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: bb9319b5055535161b3d789fa64713fc
+2025-06-21 15:46:29,039 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 8b32e001de9fc110e1cc47e2c4aae9c9
+2025-06-21 15:46:29,044 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 5 of 41 extracted 20 Ent + 20 Rel
+2025-06-21 15:46:29,045 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: b88705d05916515f8b5a86e2f407c472
+2025-06-21 15:46:29,049 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 5 of 5 extracted 19 Ent + 20 Rel
+2025-06-21 15:46:33,714 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 2ce1fd9dd9bd251982137af1fa7294c3
+2025-06-21 15:46:35,781 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 64a7424c138f8e11849d265e34be3c3d
+2025-06-21 15:46:35,787 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 6 of 41 extracted 31 Ent + 43 Rel
+2025-06-21 15:46:36,601 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: b1c574a10f0b4e96197fb952bdc9180d
+2025-06-21 15:46:36,609 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 7 of 41 extracted 30 Ent + 35 Rel
+2025-06-21 15:46:40,034 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 2c8ed9e8ee163f3ebfed4124b6d5530c
+2025-06-21 15:46:42,725 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 69a784a97f34d27438a9847f83b02db3
+2025-06-21 15:46:44,504 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 5bf3dac1dcff3d87eb3277c8a36df5fc
+2025-06-21 15:46:44,517 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 8 of 41 extracted 62 Ent + 55 Rel
+2025-06-21 15:46:45,425 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite', 'location': 'global'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '15s'}]}}]
+2025-06-21 15:46:45,899 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 4112353e8584ab112de57bc2aefbfa9d
+2025-06-21 15:46:45,918 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 9 of 41 extracted 60 Ent + 109 Rel
+2025-06-21 15:46:48,354 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'location': 'global', 'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '11s'}]}}]
+2025-06-21 15:46:48,704 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'location': 'global', 'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '11s'}]}}]
+2025-06-21 15:46:49,337 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'location': 'global', 'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '10s'}]}}]
+2025-06-21 15:46:54,737 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite', 'location': 'global'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '5s'}]}}]
+2025-06-21 15:46:57,366 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'location': 'global', 'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '2s'}]}}]
+2025-06-21 15:46:57,832 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'location': 'global', 'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '2s'}]}}]
+2025-06-21 15:46:57,849 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'location': 'global', 'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '2s'}]}}]
+2025-06-21 15:47:04,704 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite', 'location': 'global'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '55s'}]}}]
+2025-06-21 15:47:04,706 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: RetryError[]
+2025-06-21 15:47:05,459 - lightrag - ERROR - Failed to extract entities and relationships: RetryError[]
+2025-06-21 15:47:05,469 - lightrag - ERROR - Failed to extrat document doc-f489721a8973148eab8fdfd0931a49fe: Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 114, in __call__
+ result = await fn(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\llm\openai.py", line 185, in openai_complete_if_cache
+ response = await openai_async_client.chat.completions.create(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\openai\resources\chat\completions\completions.py", line 2028, in create
+ return await self._post(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\openai\_base_client.py", line 1742, in post
+ return await self.request(cast_to, opts, stream=stream, stream_cls=stream_cls)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\openai\_base_client.py", line 1549, in request
+ raise self._make_status_error_from_response(err.response) from None
+openai.RateLimitError: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite', 'location': 'global'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '55s'}]}}]
+
+The above exception was the direct cause of the following exception:
+
+Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 990, in process_document
+ await asyncio.gather(*tasks)
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 1168, in _process_entity_relation_graph
+ raise e
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 1154, in _process_entity_relation_graph
+ chunk_results = await extract_entities(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 832, in extract_entities
+ raise task.exception()
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 808, in _process_with_semaphore
+ return await _process_single_content(chunk)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 748, in _process_single_content
+ glean_result = await use_llm_func_with_cache(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 1614, in use_llm_func_with_cache
+ res: str = await use_llm_func(input_text, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 544, in wait_func
+ return await future
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 328, in worker
+ result = await func(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\app_gradio_lightrag.py", line 199, in _llm_model_func
+ return await openai_complete_if_cache(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 189, in async_wrapped
+ return await copy(fn, *args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 111, in __call__
+ do = await self.iter(retry_state=retry_state)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 153, in iter
+ result = await action(retry_state)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\_utils.py", line 99, in inner
+ return call(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\__init__.py", line 421, in exc_check
+ raise retry_exc from fut.exception()
+tenacity.RetryError: RetryError[]
+
+2025-06-21 15:47:06,658 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite', 'location': 'global'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '53s'}]}}]
+2025-06-21 15:47:06,659 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: RetryError[]
+2025-06-21 15:47:06,739 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite', 'location': 'global'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '53s'}]}}]
+2025-06-21 15:47:06,740 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: RetryError[]
+2025-06-21 15:47:07,640 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'location': 'global', 'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '52s'}]}}]
+2025-06-21 15:47:07,642 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: RetryError[]
+2025-06-21 15:47:08,700 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'location': 'global', 'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '51s'}]}}]
+2025-06-21 15:47:16,144 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'location': 'global', 'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '44s'}]}}]
+2025-06-21 15:47:31,809 - lightrag - INFO - Merging stage 1/2: dataset/data/docs3\Protection of Information Act 84 of 1982 South African Government.pdf-0aeaf0b9-0f34-4e8c-a946-.md
+2025-06-21 15:47:31,810 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Protection of Information Act, 1982 | 4+0
+2025-06-21 15:47:31,810 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: State President | 2+0
+2025-06-21 15:47:31,811 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Riotous Assemblies Act, 1956 | 2+0
+2025-06-21 15:47:31,812 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Republic | 4+0
+2025-06-21 15:47:31,813 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Foreign State | 2+0
+2025-06-21 15:47:31,813 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Hostile Organization | 2+0
+2025-06-21 15:47:31,814 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Password | 2+0
+2025-06-21 15:47:31,814 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Document | 2+0
+2025-06-21 15:47:31,815 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Model | 2+0
+2025-06-21 15:47:31,816 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Article | 2+0
+2025-06-21 15:47:31,817 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Person Holding Office Under the Government | 2+0
+2025-06-21 15:47:31,818 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: South African Police | 2+0
+2025-06-21 15:47:31,819 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: South African Railway Police Force | 2+0
+2025-06-21 15:47:31,821 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Agent | 2+0
+2025-06-21 15:47:31,822 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Offence | 2+0
+2025-06-21 15:47:31,824 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: Hostile Organization - Republic | 2+0
+2025-06-21 15:47:31,825 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: Protection of Information Act, 1982 - Republic | 3+0
+2025-06-21 15:47:31,827 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: Person Holding Office Under the Government - Protection of Information Act, 1982 | 2+0
+2025-06-21 15:47:31,827 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: Person Holding a Contract on Behalf of the Government - Protection of Information Act, 1982 | 2+0
+2025-06-21 15:47:31,830 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: Agent - South African Police | 2+0
+2025-06-21 15:47:31,830 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: Agent - South African Railway Police Force | 2+0
+2025-06-21 15:47:31,831 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: Official Document - Person to Whom an Official Document or a Secret Official Code or Password Has Been Duly Issued or Disclosed | 2+0
+2025-06-21 15:47:31,833 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: Agent - Person | 2+0
+2025-06-21 15:47:31,833 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: Offence - Person | 2+0
+2025-06-21 15:47:31,836 - lightrag - INFO - Updating 107 entities 1/2: dataset/data/docs3\Protection of Information Act 84 of 1982 South African Government.pdf-0aeaf0b9-0f34-4e8c-a946-.md
+2025-06-21 15:51:18,944 - lightrag - INFO - Updating 125 relations 1/2: dataset/data/docs3\Protection of Information Act 84 of 1982 South African Government.pdf-0aeaf0b9-0f34-4e8c-a946-.md
+2025-06-21 15:51:41,319 - lightrag - INFO - Writing graph with 109 nodes, 125 edges
+2025-06-21 15:51:41,385 - lightrag - INFO - In memory DB persist to disk
+2025-06-21 15:51:41,386 - lightrag - INFO - Completed processing file 1/2: dataset/data/docs3\Protection of Information Act 84 of 1982 South African Government.pdf-0aeaf0b9-0f34-4e8c-a946-.md
+2025-06-21 15:51:41,388 - lightrag - INFO - Document processing pipeline completed
+2025-06-24 16:38:51,130 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 16:38:51,134 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 16:38:51,134 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 16:38:51,135 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 16:38:51,135 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 16:38:51,136 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 16:38:51,136 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Health check task exiting
+2025-06-24 16:38:51,137 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 16:38:51,137 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Health check task exiting
+2025-06-24 16:38:51,137 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 16:38:51,138 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 16:38:51,138 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 16:38:51,139 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 16:38:51,139 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 16:38:51,140 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 16:38:51,140 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 16:38:51,141 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 16:38:51,141 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 16:38:51,141 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 16:38:51,142 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 16:38:51,142 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 16:38:51,142 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 16:38:51,143 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 16:38:51,143 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 16:38:51,144 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 16:38:51,144 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 16:38:51,144 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 16:38:51,145 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 16:38:51,145 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Health check task exiting
+2025-06-24 16:38:51,145 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 16:38:51,145 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 16:38:51,146 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 16:38:51,146 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 16:38:51,146 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 16:38:51,147 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Health check task exiting
+2025-06-24 16:38:51,147 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 16:38:51,147 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 16:38:51,148 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 16:38:51,148 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 16:38:51,148 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 16:38:51,148 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 16:38:51,149 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 16:38:51,149 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 16:38:51,149 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 16:38:52,078 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-24 16:38:52,083 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-24 16:38:52,088 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-24 16:38:52,093 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-24 16:38:52,097 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-24 16:38:52,101 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-24 16:38:52,105 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-24 16:38:52,109 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-24 16:38:52,114 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-24 16:38:52,118 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-24 16:38:52,122 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-24 16:38:52,127 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-24 16:38:52,131 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-24 16:38:52,135 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-24 16:38:52,139 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-24 17:05:11,226 - lightrag - INFO - Created new empty graph
+2025-06-24 17:05:11,242 - lightrag - INFO - Process 9512 KV load full_docs with 0 records
+2025-06-24 17:05:11,243 - lightrag - INFO - Process 9512 KV load text_chunks with 0 records
+2025-06-24 17:05:11,247 - lightrag - INFO - Process 9512 KV load llm_response_cache with 0 records
+2025-06-24 17:05:11,248 - lightrag - INFO - Process 9512 doc status load doc_status with 0 records
+2025-06-24 17:05:11,254 - lightrag - INFO - Storage Initialization completed!
+2025-06-24 17:05:29,241 - lightrag - INFO - Stored 1 new unique documents
+2025-06-24 17:05:29,242 - lightrag - INFO - Processing 1 document(s)
+2025-06-24 17:05:29,243 - lightrag - INFO - Extracting stage 1/1: dataset/data/docs3\Protection of Information Act 84 of 1982 South African Government_English_Adesemmyk.pdf-0aeaf0b9-0f34-4e8c-a946-.md
+2025-06-24 17:05:29,243 - lightrag - INFO - Processing d-id: doc-ac2ea95ccf2a57f4d0dbf9ec4d999ba6
+2025-06-24 17:05:29,259 - lightrag - INFO - limit_async: 16 new workers initialized
+2025-06-24 17:05:29,260 - lightrag - INFO - limit_async: 4 new workers initialized
+2025-06-24 17:05:29,917 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: LightRAGApp._system_prompt() missing 1 required positional argument: 'custom_system_prompt'
+2025-06-24 17:05:29,917 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: LightRAGApp._system_prompt() missing 1 required positional argument: 'custom_system_prompt'
+2025-06-24 17:05:29,918 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: LightRAGApp._system_prompt() missing 1 required positional argument: 'custom_system_prompt'
+2025-06-24 17:05:29,918 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: LightRAGApp._system_prompt() missing 1 required positional argument: 'custom_system_prompt'
+2025-06-24 17:05:29,923 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: LightRAGApp._system_prompt() missing 1 required positional argument: 'custom_system_prompt'
+2025-06-24 17:05:29,924 - lightrag - ERROR - Failed to extract entities and relationships: LightRAGApp._system_prompt() missing 1 required positional argument: 'custom_system_prompt'
+2025-06-24 17:05:29,931 - lightrag - ERROR - Failed to extrat document doc-ac2ea95ccf2a57f4d0dbf9ec4d999ba6: Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 990, in process_document
+ await asyncio.gather(*tasks)
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 1168, in _process_entity_relation_graph
+ raise e
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 1154, in _process_entity_relation_graph
+ chunk_results = await extract_entities(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 832, in extract_entities
+ raise task.exception()
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 808, in _process_with_semaphore
+ return await _process_single_content(chunk)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 733, in _process_single_content
+ final_result = await use_llm_func_with_cache(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 1614, in use_llm_func_with_cache
+ res: str = await use_llm_func(input_text, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 544, in wait_func
+ return await future
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 328, in worker
+ result = await func(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\app_gradio_lightrag.py", line 266, in _llm_model_func
+ system_prompt = self._system_prompt()
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+TypeError: LightRAGApp._system_prompt() missing 1 required positional argument: 'custom_system_prompt'
+
+2025-06-24 17:05:29,935 - lightrag - INFO - Document processing pipeline completed
+2025-06-24 17:06:00,926 - lightrag - INFO - Stored 1 new unique documents
+2025-06-24 17:06:00,928 - lightrag - INFO - Processing 2 document(s)
+2025-06-24 17:06:00,928 - lightrag - INFO - Extracting stage 1/2: dataset/data/docs3\Protection of Information Act 84 of 1982 South African Government_English_Adesemmyk.pdf-0aeaf0b9-0f34-4e8c-a946-.md
+2025-06-24 17:06:00,928 - lightrag - INFO - Processing d-id: doc-ac2ea95ccf2a57f4d0dbf9ec4d999ba6
+2025-06-24 17:06:00,937 - lightrag - INFO - Extracting stage 2/2: dataset/data/docs3\republic-of-south-africa_2013_Protection of Personal Information Act, 2013.pdf-68ed7a0b.md
+2025-06-24 17:06:00,938 - lightrag - INFO - Processing d-id: doc-f489721a8973148eab8fdfd0931a49fe
+2025-06-24 17:06:02,133 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: LightRAGApp._system_prompt() missing 1 required positional argument: 'custom_system_prompt'
+2025-06-24 17:06:02,134 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: LightRAGApp._system_prompt() missing 1 required positional argument: 'custom_system_prompt'
+2025-06-24 17:06:02,134 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: LightRAGApp._system_prompt() missing 1 required positional argument: 'custom_system_prompt'
+2025-06-24 17:06:02,135 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: LightRAGApp._system_prompt() missing 1 required positional argument: 'custom_system_prompt'
+2025-06-24 17:06:02,135 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: LightRAGApp._system_prompt() missing 1 required positional argument: 'custom_system_prompt'
+2025-06-24 17:06:02,136 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: LightRAGApp._system_prompt() missing 1 required positional argument: 'custom_system_prompt'
+2025-06-24 17:06:02,136 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: LightRAGApp._system_prompt() missing 1 required positional argument: 'custom_system_prompt'
+2025-06-24 17:06:02,137 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: LightRAGApp._system_prompt() missing 1 required positional argument: 'custom_system_prompt'
+2025-06-24 17:06:02,701 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: LightRAGApp._system_prompt() missing 1 required positional argument: 'custom_system_prompt'
+2025-06-24 17:06:02,702 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: LightRAGApp._system_prompt() missing 1 required positional argument: 'custom_system_prompt'
+2025-06-24 17:06:02,703 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: LightRAGApp._system_prompt() missing 1 required positional argument: 'custom_system_prompt'
+2025-06-24 17:06:02,703 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: LightRAGApp._system_prompt() missing 1 required positional argument: 'custom_system_prompt'
+2025-06-24 17:06:02,703 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: LightRAGApp._system_prompt() missing 1 required positional argument: 'custom_system_prompt'
+2025-06-24 17:06:02,707 - lightrag - ERROR - Failed to extract entities and relationships: LightRAGApp._system_prompt() missing 1 required positional argument: 'custom_system_prompt'
+2025-06-24 17:06:02,707 - lightrag - ERROR - Failed to extract entities and relationships: LightRAGApp._system_prompt() missing 1 required positional argument: 'custom_system_prompt'
+2025-06-24 17:06:02,711 - lightrag - ERROR - Failed to extrat document doc-ac2ea95ccf2a57f4d0dbf9ec4d999ba6: Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 990, in process_document
+ await asyncio.gather(*tasks)
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 1168, in _process_entity_relation_graph
+ raise e
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 1154, in _process_entity_relation_graph
+ chunk_results = await extract_entities(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 832, in extract_entities
+ raise task.exception()
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 808, in _process_with_semaphore
+ return await _process_single_content(chunk)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 733, in _process_single_content
+ final_result = await use_llm_func_with_cache(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 1614, in use_llm_func_with_cache
+ res: str = await use_llm_func(input_text, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 544, in wait_func
+ return await future
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 328, in worker
+ result = await func(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\app_gradio_lightrag.py", line 266, in _llm_model_func
+ system_prompt = self._system_prompt()
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+TypeError: LightRAGApp._system_prompt() missing 1 required positional argument: 'custom_system_prompt'
+
+2025-06-24 17:06:02,717 - lightrag - ERROR - Failed to extrat document doc-f489721a8973148eab8fdfd0931a49fe: Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 990, in process_document
+ await asyncio.gather(*tasks)
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 1168, in _process_entity_relation_graph
+ raise e
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 1154, in _process_entity_relation_graph
+ chunk_results = await extract_entities(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 832, in extract_entities
+ raise task.exception()
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 808, in _process_with_semaphore
+ return await _process_single_content(chunk)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 733, in _process_single_content
+ final_result = await use_llm_func_with_cache(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 1614, in use_llm_func_with_cache
+ res: str = await use_llm_func(input_text, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 544, in wait_func
+ return await future
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 328, in worker
+ result = await func(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\app_gradio_lightrag.py", line 266, in _llm_model_func
+ system_prompt = self._system_prompt()
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+TypeError: LightRAGApp._system_prompt() missing 1 required positional argument: 'custom_system_prompt'
+
+2025-06-24 17:06:02,724 - lightrag - INFO - Document processing pipeline completed
+2025-06-24 17:06:47,674 - lightrag - INFO - No new unique documents were found.
+2025-06-24 17:06:47,675 - lightrag - INFO - Processing 2 document(s)
+2025-06-24 17:06:47,676 - lightrag - INFO - Extracting stage 1/2: dataset/data/docs3\Protection of Information Act 84 of 1982 South African Government_English_Adesemmyk.pdf-0aeaf0b9-0f34-4e8c-a946-.md
+2025-06-24 17:06:47,677 - lightrag - INFO - Processing d-id: doc-ac2ea95ccf2a57f4d0dbf9ec4d999ba6
+2025-06-24 17:06:47,693 - lightrag - INFO - Extracting stage 2/2: dataset/data/docs3\republic-of-south-africa_2013_Protection of Personal Information Act, 2013.pdf-68ed7a0b.md
+2025-06-24 17:06:47,694 - lightrag - INFO - Processing d-id: doc-f489721a8973148eab8fdfd0931a49fe
+2025-06-24 17:06:51,063 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: LightRAGApp._system_prompt() missing 1 required positional argument: 'custom_system_prompt'
+2025-06-24 17:06:51,064 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: LightRAGApp._system_prompt() missing 1 required positional argument: 'custom_system_prompt'
+2025-06-24 17:06:51,065 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: LightRAGApp._system_prompt() missing 1 required positional argument: 'custom_system_prompt'
+2025-06-24 17:06:51,066 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: LightRAGApp._system_prompt() missing 1 required positional argument: 'custom_system_prompt'
+2025-06-24 17:06:51,067 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: LightRAGApp._system_prompt() missing 1 required positional argument: 'custom_system_prompt'
+2025-06-24 17:06:51,067 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: LightRAGApp._system_prompt() missing 1 required positional argument: 'custom_system_prompt'
+2025-06-24 17:06:51,068 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: LightRAGApp._system_prompt() missing 1 required positional argument: 'custom_system_prompt'
+2025-06-24 17:06:51,069 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: LightRAGApp._system_prompt() missing 1 required positional argument: 'custom_system_prompt'
+2025-06-24 17:06:51,083 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: LightRAGApp._system_prompt() missing 1 required positional argument: 'custom_system_prompt'
+2025-06-24 17:06:51,084 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: LightRAGApp._system_prompt() missing 1 required positional argument: 'custom_system_prompt'
+2025-06-24 17:06:51,084 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: LightRAGApp._system_prompt() missing 1 required positional argument: 'custom_system_prompt'
+2025-06-24 17:06:51,085 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: LightRAGApp._system_prompt() missing 1 required positional argument: 'custom_system_prompt'
+2025-06-24 17:06:51,086 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: LightRAGApp._system_prompt() missing 1 required positional argument: 'custom_system_prompt'
+2025-06-24 17:06:51,089 - lightrag - ERROR - Failed to extract entities and relationships: LightRAGApp._system_prompt() missing 1 required positional argument: 'custom_system_prompt'
+2025-06-24 17:06:51,090 - lightrag - ERROR - Failed to extract entities and relationships: LightRAGApp._system_prompt() missing 1 required positional argument: 'custom_system_prompt'
+2025-06-24 17:06:51,094 - lightrag - ERROR - Failed to extrat document doc-ac2ea95ccf2a57f4d0dbf9ec4d999ba6: Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 990, in process_document
+ await asyncio.gather(*tasks)
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 1168, in _process_entity_relation_graph
+ raise e
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 1154, in _process_entity_relation_graph
+ chunk_results = await extract_entities(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 832, in extract_entities
+ raise task.exception()
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 808, in _process_with_semaphore
+ return await _process_single_content(chunk)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 733, in _process_single_content
+ final_result = await use_llm_func_with_cache(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 1614, in use_llm_func_with_cache
+ res: str = await use_llm_func(input_text, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 544, in wait_func
+ return await future
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 328, in worker
+ result = await func(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\app_gradio_lightrag.py", line 266, in _llm_model_func
+ system_prompt = self._system_prompt()
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+TypeError: LightRAGApp._system_prompt() missing 1 required positional argument: 'custom_system_prompt'
+
+2025-06-24 17:06:51,106 - lightrag - ERROR - Failed to extrat document doc-f489721a8973148eab8fdfd0931a49fe: Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 990, in process_document
+ await asyncio.gather(*tasks)
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 1168, in _process_entity_relation_graph
+ raise e
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 1154, in _process_entity_relation_graph
+ chunk_results = await extract_entities(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 832, in extract_entities
+ raise task.exception()
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 808, in _process_with_semaphore
+ return await _process_single_content(chunk)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 733, in _process_single_content
+ final_result = await use_llm_func_with_cache(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 1614, in use_llm_func_with_cache
+ res: str = await use_llm_func(input_text, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 544, in wait_func
+ return await future
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 328, in worker
+ result = await func(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\app_gradio_lightrag.py", line 266, in _llm_model_func
+ system_prompt = self._system_prompt()
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+TypeError: LightRAGApp._system_prompt() missing 1 required positional argument: 'custom_system_prompt'
+
+2025-06-24 17:06:51,116 - lightrag - INFO - Document processing pipeline completed
+2025-06-24 17:07:35,001 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:07:35,003 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:07:35,003 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:07:35,004 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:07:35,005 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:07:35,005 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:07:35,006 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:07:35,007 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Health check task exiting
+2025-06-24 17:07:35,007 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:07:35,008 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:07:35,009 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:07:35,010 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:07:35,011 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:07:35,011 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:07:35,012 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:07:35,013 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:07:35,014 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:07:35,014 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Health check task exiting
+2025-06-24 17:08:11,883 - lightrag - INFO - Created new empty graph
+2025-06-24 17:08:11,908 - lightrag - INFO - Process 17248 KV load full_docs with 0 records
+2025-06-24 17:08:11,909 - lightrag - INFO - Process 17248 KV load text_chunks with 0 records
+2025-06-24 17:08:11,913 - lightrag - INFO - Process 17248 KV load llm_response_cache with 0 records
+2025-06-24 17:08:11,959 - lightrag - INFO - Process 17248 doc status load doc_status with 2 records
+2025-06-24 17:08:11,964 - lightrag - INFO - Storage Initialization completed!
+2025-06-24 17:08:21,304 - lightrag - INFO - No new unique documents were found.
+2025-06-24 17:08:21,305 - lightrag - INFO - Processing 2 document(s)
+2025-06-24 17:08:21,307 - lightrag - INFO - Extracting stage 1/2: dataset/data/docs3\Protection of Information Act 84 of 1982 South African Government_English_Adesemmyk.pdf-0aeaf0b9-0f34-4e8c-a946-.md
+2025-06-24 17:08:21,307 - lightrag - INFO - Processing d-id: doc-ac2ea95ccf2a57f4d0dbf9ec4d999ba6
+2025-06-24 17:08:21,327 - lightrag - INFO - Extracting stage 2/2: dataset/data/docs3\republic-of-south-africa_2013_Protection of Personal Information Act, 2013.pdf-68ed7a0b.md
+2025-06-24 17:08:21,327 - lightrag - INFO - Processing d-id: doc-f489721a8973148eab8fdfd0931a49fe
+2025-06-24 17:08:21,447 - lightrag - INFO - limit_async: 16 new workers initialized
+2025-06-24 17:08:21,448 - lightrag - INFO - limit_async: 4 new workers initialized
+2025-06-24 17:08:30,854 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 44bad209b86ed7fb75b5e958666ec377
+2025-06-24 17:08:32,003 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: fade92222fd387d13b848c526fed345b
+2025-06-24 17:08:34,023 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 42263ba692a09ba47123cd6030e238be
+2025-06-24 17:08:34,027 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: fe7cdca951a7589f070b4110bed5d847
+2025-06-24 17:08:34,896 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: a2dbc2939bec2ebe85e0e74ae70dd31d
+2025-06-24 17:08:40,590 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 3ba236f3fdb81f85049f870c16209ad4
+2025-06-24 17:08:42,835 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 89fb7ed99567c74d40b101e9fbda265a
+2025-06-24 17:08:42,842 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 0f76630358af0878f5af5755c9af415b
+2025-06-24 17:08:43,857 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 33d646ccb6e4beffeb1ecddf1fc30e96
+2025-06-24 17:08:43,863 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 1 of 5 extracted 21 Ent + 20 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:08:46,976 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 8ad35b9e82d93ee0b8a0ed9649edf8cf
+2025-06-24 17:08:46,977 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 2 of 5 extracted 20 Ent + 14 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:08:50,104 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 4af049b3f50d485fe1398c335853dc50
+2025-06-24 17:08:50,105 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 1 of 41 extracted 16 Ent + 14 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:08:51,178 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: caa09cbf2cbabdd463dc33eaf848f04c
+2025-06-24 17:08:51,183 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 2 of 41 extracted 21 Ent + 18 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:08:53,538 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 0d2ec2e8958c2df94181fd7ca82f065b
+2025-06-24 17:08:53,544 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 3 of 5 extracted 43 Ent + 50 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:08:54,610 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: d14fb70b5cb80746c79f50820667aead
+2025-06-24 17:08:54,618 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 4 of 5 extracted 29 Ent + 71 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:08:57,119 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'location': 'global', 'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '3s'}]}}]
+2025-06-24 17:08:57,342 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'location': 'global', 'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '2s'}]}}]
+2025-06-24 17:09:05,311 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 322d146c1307a3c8a5f7a269642e997c
+2025-06-24 17:09:05,324 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 3 of 41 extracted 64 Ent + 66 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:09:07,392 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 70fbaf1c0c88685e2851ba9ed89d2137
+2025-06-24 17:09:07,405 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 4 of 41 extracted 111 Ent + 84 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:09:07,417 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'location': 'global', 'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '53s'}]}}]
+2025-06-24 17:09:07,745 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'location': 'global', 'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '52s'}]}}]
+2025-06-24 17:09:09,365 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'location': 'global', 'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '50s'}]}}]
+2025-06-24 17:09:10,062 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite', 'location': 'global'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '50s'}]}}]
+2025-06-24 17:09:18,238 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'location': 'global', 'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '41s'}]}}]
+2025-06-24 17:09:18,240 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: RetryError[]
+2025-06-24 17:09:19,151 - lightrag - ERROR - Failed to extract entities and relationships: RetryError[]
+2025-06-24 17:09:19,224 - lightrag - ERROR - Failed to extrat document doc-f489721a8973148eab8fdfd0931a49fe: Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 114, in __call__
+ result = await fn(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\llm\openai.py", line 185, in openai_complete_if_cache
+ response = await openai_async_client.chat.completions.create(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\openai\resources\chat\completions\completions.py", line 2028, in create
+ return await self._post(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\openai\_base_client.py", line 1742, in post
+ return await self.request(cast_to, opts, stream=stream, stream_cls=stream_cls)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\openai\_base_client.py", line 1549, in request
+ raise self._make_status_error_from_response(err.response) from None
+openai.RateLimitError: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'location': 'global', 'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '41s'}]}}]
+
+The above exception was the direct cause of the following exception:
+
+Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 990, in process_document
+ await asyncio.gather(*tasks)
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 1168, in _process_entity_relation_graph
+ raise e
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 1154, in _process_entity_relation_graph
+ chunk_results = await extract_entities(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 832, in extract_entities
+ raise task.exception()
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 808, in _process_with_semaphore
+ return await _process_single_content(chunk)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 733, in _process_single_content
+ final_result = await use_llm_func_with_cache(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 1614, in use_llm_func_with_cache
+ res: str = await use_llm_func(input_text, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 544, in wait_func
+ return await future
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 328, in worker
+ result = await func(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\app_gradio_lightrag.py", line 272, in _llm_model_func
+ return await openai_complete_if_cache(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 189, in async_wrapped
+ return await copy(fn, *args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 111, in __call__
+ do = await self.iter(retry_state=retry_state)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 153, in iter
+ result = await action(retry_state)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\_utils.py", line 99, in inner
+ return call(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\__init__.py", line 421, in exc_check
+ raise retry_exc from fut.exception()
+tenacity.RetryError: RetryError[]
+
+2025-06-24 17:09:19,465 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite', 'location': 'global'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '40s'}]}}]
+2025-06-24 17:09:19,466 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: RetryError[]
+2025-06-24 17:09:19,469 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'location': 'global', 'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '40s'}]}}]
+2025-06-24 17:09:19,471 - lightrag - ERROR - Failed to extract entities and relationships: RetryError[]
+2025-06-24 17:09:19,473 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite', 'location': 'global'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '40s'}]}}]
+2025-06-24 17:09:19,478 - lightrag - ERROR - Failed to extrat document doc-ac2ea95ccf2a57f4d0dbf9ec4d999ba6: Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 114, in __call__
+ result = await fn(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\llm\openai.py", line 185, in openai_complete_if_cache
+ response = await openai_async_client.chat.completions.create(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\openai\resources\chat\completions\completions.py", line 2028, in create
+ return await self._post(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\openai\_base_client.py", line 1742, in post
+ return await self.request(cast_to, opts, stream=stream, stream_cls=stream_cls)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\openai\_base_client.py", line 1549, in request
+ raise self._make_status_error_from_response(err.response) from None
+openai.RateLimitError: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite', 'location': 'global'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '40s'}]}}]
+
+The above exception was the direct cause of the following exception:
+
+Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 990, in process_document
+ await asyncio.gather(*tasks)
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 1168, in _process_entity_relation_graph
+ raise e
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 1154, in _process_entity_relation_graph
+ chunk_results = await extract_entities(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 832, in extract_entities
+ raise task.exception()
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 808, in _process_with_semaphore
+ return await _process_single_content(chunk)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 733, in _process_single_content
+ final_result = await use_llm_func_with_cache(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 1614, in use_llm_func_with_cache
+ res: str = await use_llm_func(input_text, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 544, in wait_func
+ return await future
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 328, in worker
+ result = await func(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\app_gradio_lightrag.py", line 272, in _llm_model_func
+ return await openai_complete_if_cache(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 189, in async_wrapped
+ return await copy(fn, *args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 111, in __call__
+ do = await self.iter(retry_state=retry_state)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 153, in iter
+ result = await action(retry_state)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\_utils.py", line 99, in inner
+ return call(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\__init__.py", line 421, in exc_check
+ raise retry_exc from fut.exception()
+tenacity.RetryError: RetryError[]
+
+2025-06-24 17:09:19,487 - lightrag - INFO - Document processing pipeline completed
+2025-06-24 17:09:22,785 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite', 'location': 'global'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '37s'}]}}]
+2025-06-24 17:09:50,507 - lightrag - INFO - No new unique documents were found.
+2025-06-24 17:09:50,509 - lightrag - INFO - Processing 2 document(s)
+2025-06-24 17:09:50,510 - lightrag - INFO - Extracting stage 1/2: dataset/data/docs3\Protection of Information Act 84 of 1982 South African Government_English_Adesemmyk.pdf-0aeaf0b9-0f34-4e8c-a946-.md
+2025-06-24 17:09:50,510 - lightrag - INFO - Processing d-id: doc-ac2ea95ccf2a57f4d0dbf9ec4d999ba6
+2025-06-24 17:09:50,523 - lightrag - INFO - Extracting stage 2/2: dataset/data/docs3\republic-of-south-africa_2013_Protection of Personal Information Act, 2013.pdf-68ed7a0b.md
+2025-06-24 17:09:50,524 - lightrag - INFO - Processing d-id: doc-f489721a8973148eab8fdfd0931a49fe
+2025-06-24 17:09:50,662 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 1 of 5 extracted 20 Ent + 14 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:09:50,675 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 2 of 5 extracted 43 Ent + 50 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:09:50,682 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 3 of 5 extracted 21 Ent + 20 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:09:50,697 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 4 of 5 extracted 29 Ent + 71 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:09:50,704 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 1 of 41 extracted 21 Ent + 18 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:09:50,727 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 2 of 41 extracted 111 Ent + 84 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:09:50,730 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 3 of 41 extracted 16 Ent + 14 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:09:50,749 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 4 of 41 extracted 64 Ent + 66 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:09:59,892 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: ca75c89c692f20168502a12c150c419e
+2025-06-24 17:10:00,732 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: f6a0b2da9062cd3272801d12629fed87
+2025-06-24 17:10:00,734 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 51f84f6279f890c52dbc57cf9d660481
+2025-06-24 17:10:04,687 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: bb9319b5055535161b3d789fa64713fc
+2025-06-24 17:10:06,111 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 1efbad2b8b6437d990c7dacdceb26786
+2025-06-24 17:10:06,114 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 5 of 5 extracted 18 Ent + 21 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:10:06,468 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 1ef3388b2f4e38072072292167683e02
+2025-06-24 17:10:06,472 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 5 of 41 extracted 17 Ent + 0 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:10:07,979 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 6c0d9b36b9f7ab611590eb5fa097cb37
+2025-06-24 17:10:10,792 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 2ce1fd9dd9bd251982137af1fa7294c3
+2025-06-24 17:10:11,579 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: e1462ec7c53c6f6f6472ffe525f979a7
+2025-06-24 17:10:11,581 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 6 of 41 extracted 26 Ent + 8 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:10:13,829 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 23441cf1a19d5e2e134e34225bc546e2
+2025-06-24 17:10:13,836 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 7 of 41 extracted 42 Ent + 35 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:10:14,634 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 2c8ed9e8ee163f3ebfed4124b6d5530c
+2025-06-24 17:10:18,079 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'location': 'global', 'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '42s'}]}}]
+2025-06-24 17:10:18,199 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'location': 'global', 'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '42s'}]}}]
+2025-06-24 17:10:18,726 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: c61982036206fdeddc3f1e0db4680f35
+2025-06-24 17:10:18,731 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 8 of 41 extracted 39 Ent + 77 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:10:19,669 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: a767172123fea41340642c31e2ba1634
+2025-06-24 17:10:19,674 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 9 of 41 extracted 30 Ent + 32 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:10:24,004 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite', 'location': 'global'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '36s'}]}}]
+2025-06-24 17:10:25,204 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'location': 'global', 'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '35s'}]}}]
+2025-06-24 17:10:26,966 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'location': 'global', 'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '33s'}]}}]
+2025-06-24 17:10:27,176 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'location': 'global', 'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '33s'}]}}]
+2025-06-24 17:10:32,532 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 3c3d9d720d30d590365bc30b872f9c3a
+2025-06-24 17:10:33,366 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: a4f2d60cb4f3cb93c78d28e500a6a8b9
+2025-06-24 17:10:40,424 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: a3e3e20e5b578ddf83a5ea0082e34dbe
+2025-06-24 17:10:40,428 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 10 of 41 extracted 35 Ent + 5 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:10:42,222 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 6a12e57a7c25632429a97934edea01b6
+2025-06-24 17:10:42,227 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 11 of 41 extracted 32 Ent + 34 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:10:43,078 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: d8fe0ef30a5cbe3d20397f5dfe7b97df
+2025-06-24 17:10:43,084 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 12 of 41 extracted 55 Ent + 31 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:10:44,519 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 96586bd1e1304d3005d03a73ac54d648
+2025-06-24 17:10:45,331 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 69a784a97f34d27438a9847f83b02db3
+2025-06-24 17:10:46,457 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 043ffc231a3b64e164db8af92e495908
+2025-06-24 17:10:48,977 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 50d07f96c5770885cf55052e0251361d
+2025-06-24 17:10:50,245 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 6c72f0f87b273679a9367244120addcc
+2025-06-24 17:10:50,248 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 13 of 41 extracted 14 Ent + 13 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:10:52,601 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 72422a2dbcae090255db85c4be5b0aa7
+2025-06-24 17:10:52,603 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 14 of 41 extracted 13 Ent + 19 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:10:53,405 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 7c030809bb7869c14cd0fafc51c63dac
+2025-06-24 17:10:53,411 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 15 of 41 extracted 54 Ent + 44 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:10:54,205 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 7c42a7f93fc00e723c4b378a4822b4de
+2025-06-24 17:10:54,210 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 16 of 41 extracted 33 Ent + 35 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:10:55,582 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 6b4691cd0242d714fd2b6c2ed39bc061
+2025-06-24 17:10:57,780 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: d4f8bbe6d589818b459bb295860b0075
+2025-06-24 17:10:58,523 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 19df5c4f23e4ba478aa5daac3c451fd6
+2025-06-24 17:10:59,597 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'location': 'global', 'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '0s'}]}}]
+2025-06-24 17:10:59,729 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'location': 'global', 'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '0s'}]}}]
+2025-06-24 17:11:02,111 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'location': 'global', 'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '58s'}]}}]
+2025-06-24 17:11:02,902 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'location': 'global', 'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '57s'}]}}]
+2025-06-24 17:11:09,146 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'location': 'global', 'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '51s'}]}}]
+2025-06-24 17:11:09,690 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'location': 'global', 'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '50s'}]}}]
+2025-06-24 17:11:10,326 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite', 'location': 'global'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '49s'}]}}]
+2025-06-24 17:11:10,363 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'location': 'global', 'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '49s'}]}}]
+2025-06-24 17:11:16,237 - lightrag - INFO - Merging stage 1/2: dataset/data/docs3\Protection of Information Act 84 of 1982 South African Government_English_Adesemmyk.pdf-0aeaf0b9-0f34-4e8c-a946-.md
+2025-06-24 17:11:16,238 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Republic of South Africa | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:11:16,238 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: State President | 3+0
+2025-06-24 17:11:16,239 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Protection of Information Act, 1982 | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:11:16,240 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: agent | 3+0
+2025-06-24 17:11:16,240 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: foreign State | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:11:16,240 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: hostile organization | 3+0
+2025-06-24 17:11:16,241 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: document | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:11:16,242 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Government | 3+0
+2025-06-24 17:11:16,242 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: prohibited place | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:11:16,243 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Republic | 3+0
+2025-06-24 17:11:16,243 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Prohibited Place | 3+0
+2025-06-24 17:11:16,244 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Foreign State | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:11:16,245 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Hostile Organization | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:11:16,249 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: Protection of Information Act, 1982 - State President | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:11:16,250 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: Prohibited Place - Republic | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:11:16,251 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: Hostile Organization - Republic | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:11:16,253 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: agent - hostile organization | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:11:16,254 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: Republic - agent | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:11:16,255 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: Court - Republic | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:11:16,256 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: Prohibited Place - State President | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:11:16,259 - lightrag - INFO - Updating 112 entities 1/2: dataset/data/docs3\Protection of Information Act 84 of 1982 South African Government_English_Adesemmyk.pdf-0aeaf0b9-0f34-4e8c-a946-.md
+2025-06-24 17:11:22,547 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'location': 'global', 'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '37s'}]}}]
+2025-06-24 17:11:22,548 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: RetryError[]
+2025-06-24 17:11:23,305 - lightrag - ERROR - Failed to extract entities and relationships: RetryError[]
+2025-06-24 17:11:23,308 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'location': 'global', 'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '37s'}]}}]
+2025-06-24 17:11:23,309 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: RetryError[]
+2025-06-24 17:11:23,313 - lightrag - ERROR - Failed to extrat document doc-f489721a8973148eab8fdfd0931a49fe: Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 114, in __call__
+ result = await fn(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\llm\openai.py", line 185, in openai_complete_if_cache
+ response = await openai_async_client.chat.completions.create(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\openai\resources\chat\completions\completions.py", line 2028, in create
+ return await self._post(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\openai\_base_client.py", line 1742, in post
+ return await self.request(cast_to, opts, stream=stream, stream_cls=stream_cls)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\openai\_base_client.py", line 1549, in request
+ raise self._make_status_error_from_response(err.response) from None
+openai.RateLimitError: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'location': 'global', 'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '37s'}]}}]
+
+The above exception was the direct cause of the following exception:
+
+Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 990, in process_document
+ await asyncio.gather(*tasks)
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 1168, in _process_entity_relation_graph
+ raise e
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 1154, in _process_entity_relation_graph
+ chunk_results = await extract_entities(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 832, in extract_entities
+ raise task.exception()
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 808, in _process_with_semaphore
+ return await _process_single_content(chunk)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 748, in _process_single_content
+ glean_result = await use_llm_func_with_cache(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 1614, in use_llm_func_with_cache
+ res: str = await use_llm_func(input_text, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 544, in wait_func
+ return await future
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 328, in worker
+ result = await func(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\app_gradio_lightrag.py", line 272, in _llm_model_func
+ return await openai_complete_if_cache(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 189, in async_wrapped
+ return await copy(fn, *args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 111, in __call__
+ do = await self.iter(retry_state=retry_state)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 153, in iter
+ result = await action(retry_state)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\_utils.py", line 99, in inner
+ return call(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\__init__.py", line 421, in exc_check
+ raise retry_exc from fut.exception()
+tenacity.RetryError: RetryError[]
+
+2025-06-24 17:11:23,709 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'location': 'global', 'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '36s'}]}}]
+2025-06-24 17:11:23,710 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: RetryError[]
+2025-06-24 17:11:23,748 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite', 'location': 'global'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '36s'}]}}]
+2025-06-24 17:11:23,749 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: RetryError[]
+2025-06-24 17:11:26,704 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'location': 'global', 'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '33s'}]}}]
+2025-06-24 17:13:58,594 - lightrag - INFO - Updating 169 relations 1/2: dataset/data/docs3\Protection of Information Act 84 of 1982 South African Government_English_Adesemmyk.pdf-0aeaf0b9-0f34-4e8c-a946-.md
+2025-06-24 17:14:23,918 - lightrag - INFO - Writing graph with 131 nodes, 169 edges
+2025-06-24 17:14:23,943 - lightrag - INFO - In memory DB persist to disk
+2025-06-24 17:14:23,943 - lightrag - INFO - Completed processing file 1/2: dataset/data/docs3\Protection of Information Act 84 of 1982 South African Government_English_Adesemmyk.pdf-0aeaf0b9-0f34-4e8c-a946-.md
+2025-06-24 17:14:23,944 - lightrag - INFO - Document processing pipeline completed
+2025-06-24 17:26:01,683 - lightrag - INFO - Naive query: 3 chunks, top_k: 10
+2025-06-24 17:26:02,363 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving mix: a42847d81a3907cb11881d98986a7c2c
+2025-06-24 17:26:02,364 - lightrag - INFO - Process 17248 buidling query context...
+2025-06-24 17:26:02,364 - lightrag - INFO - Query nodes: Protection of Information Act, Protection of Personal Information Act, Relationship, Correlation, top_k: 60, cosine: 0.2
+2025-06-24 17:26:03,456 - lightrag - INFO - Local query uses 60 entites, 99 relations, 3 chunks
+2025-06-24 17:26:03,457 - lightrag - INFO - Query edges: Information protection, Legislation, Data privacy, top_k: 60, cosine: 0.2
+2025-06-24 17:26:04,463 - lightrag - INFO - Global query uses 62 entites, 60 relations, 3 chunks
+2025-06-24 17:26:28,948 - lightrag - INFO - Process 17248 buidling query context...
+2025-06-24 17:26:28,949 - lightrag - INFO - Query nodes: Protection of Information Act, Protection of Personal Information Act, Relationship, Correlation, top_k: 60, cosine: 0.2
+2025-06-24 17:26:30,424 - lightrag - INFO - Naive query: 3 chunks, top_k: 10
+2025-06-24 17:26:30,536 - lightrag - INFO - Local query uses 60 entites, 99 relations, 3 chunks
+2025-06-24 17:26:30,537 - lightrag - INFO - Query edges: Information protection, Legislation, Data privacy, top_k: 60, cosine: 0.2
+2025-06-24 17:26:31,439 - lightrag - INFO - Global query uses 62 entites, 60 relations, 3 chunks
+2025-06-24 17:33:47,221 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:33:47,222 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:33:47,223 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:33:47,223 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:33:47,224 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:33:47,224 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:33:47,224 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Health check task exiting
+2025-06-24 17:33:47,224 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:33:47,225 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:33:47,225 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:33:47,225 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:33:47,226 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:33:47,226 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:33:47,226 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:33:47,227 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:33:47,227 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:33:47,228 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:33:47,228 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Health check task exiting
+2025-06-24 17:33:47,228 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:33:47,229 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:33:47,229 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:33:47,229 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:33:47,658 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-24 17:34:10,376 - lightrag - INFO - Loaded graph from ./working_folder8\graph_chunk_entity_relation.graphml with 131 nodes, 169 edges
+2025-06-24 17:34:10,412 - lightrag - INFO - Process 5568 KV load full_docs with 2 records
+2025-06-24 17:34:10,416 - lightrag - INFO - Process 5568 KV load text_chunks with 46 records
+2025-06-24 17:34:10,435 - lightrag - INFO - Process 5568 KV load llm_response_cache with 46 records
+2025-06-24 17:34:10,439 - lightrag - INFO - Process 5568 doc status load doc_status with 2 records
+2025-06-24 17:34:10,446 - lightrag - INFO - Storage Initialization completed!
+2025-06-24 17:34:13,520 - lightrag - INFO - Process 5568 buidling query context...
+2025-06-24 17:34:13,521 - lightrag - INFO - Query nodes: Protection of Information Act, Protection of Personal Information Act, Relationship, Correlation, top_k: 60, cosine: 0.2
+2025-06-24 17:34:13,521 - lightrag - INFO - limit_async: 16 new workers initialized
+2025-06-24 17:34:15,053 - lightrag - INFO - Local query uses 60 entites, 99 relations, 3 chunks
+2025-06-24 17:34:15,055 - lightrag - INFO - Query edges: Information protection, Legislation, Data privacy, top_k: 60, cosine: 0.2
+2025-06-24 17:34:15,647 - lightrag - INFO - Naive query: 3 chunks, top_k: 10
+2025-06-24 17:34:16,040 - lightrag - INFO - Global query uses 62 entites, 60 relations, 3 chunks
+2025-06-24 17:34:16,109 - lightrag - INFO - limit_async: 1 new workers initialized
+2025-06-24 17:38:13,106 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:38:13,106 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Health check task exiting
+2025-06-24 17:38:13,107 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:38:13,107 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:38:13,108 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:38:13,108 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:38:13,108 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:38:13,109 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:38:13,109 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:38:13,109 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:38:13,109 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:38:13,110 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Health check task exiting
+2025-06-24 17:38:13,110 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:38:13,110 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:38:13,110 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:38:13,111 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:38:13,111 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:38:13,111 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:38:13,112 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:38:13,461 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-24 17:38:34,301 - lightrag - INFO - Loaded graph from ./working_folder8\graph_chunk_entity_relation.graphml with 131 nodes, 169 edges
+2025-06-24 17:38:34,332 - lightrag - INFO - Process 18624 KV load full_docs with 2 records
+2025-06-24 17:38:34,336 - lightrag - INFO - Process 18624 KV load text_chunks with 46 records
+2025-06-24 17:38:34,355 - lightrag - INFO - Process 18624 KV load llm_response_cache with 46 records
+2025-06-24 17:38:34,358 - lightrag - INFO - Process 18624 doc status load doc_status with 2 records
+2025-06-24 17:38:34,363 - lightrag - INFO - Storage Initialization completed!
+2025-06-24 17:38:37,003 - lightrag - INFO - Process 18624 buidling query context...
+2025-06-24 17:38:37,004 - lightrag - INFO - Query nodes: Protection of Information Act, Protection of Personal Information Act, Relationship, Correlation, top_k: 60, cosine: 0.2
+2025-06-24 17:38:37,005 - lightrag - INFO - limit_async: 16 new workers initialized
+2025-06-24 17:38:38,513 - lightrag - INFO - Naive query: 3 chunks, top_k: 10
+2025-06-24 17:38:38,614 - lightrag - INFO - Local query uses 60 entites, 99 relations, 3 chunks
+2025-06-24 17:38:38,615 - lightrag - INFO - Query edges: Information protection, Legislation, Data privacy, top_k: 60, cosine: 0.2
+2025-06-24 17:38:39,614 - lightrag - INFO - Global query uses 62 entites, 60 relations, 3 chunks
+2025-06-24 17:38:39,708 - lightrag - INFO - limit_async: 1 new workers initialized
+2025-06-24 17:39:43,621 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:39:43,621 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:39:43,622 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:39:43,622 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:39:43,623 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:39:43,623 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:39:43,623 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:39:43,624 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:39:43,624 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:39:43,624 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:39:43,625 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Health check task exiting
+2025-06-24 17:39:43,625 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:39:43,625 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:39:43,626 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:39:43,626 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:39:43,626 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Health check task exiting
+2025-06-24 17:39:43,627 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:39:43,627 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:39:43,627 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-24 17:39:44,003 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-24 17:40:04,930 - lightrag - INFO - Loaded graph from ./working_folder8\graph_chunk_entity_relation.graphml with 131 nodes, 169 edges
+2025-06-24 17:40:04,961 - lightrag - INFO - Process 6944 KV load full_docs with 2 records
+2025-06-24 17:40:04,966 - lightrag - INFO - Process 6944 KV load text_chunks with 46 records
+2025-06-24 17:40:04,988 - lightrag - INFO - Process 6944 KV load llm_response_cache with 46 records
+2025-06-24 17:40:04,993 - lightrag - INFO - Process 6944 doc status load doc_status with 2 records
+2025-06-24 17:40:04,998 - lightrag - INFO - Storage Initialization completed!
+2025-06-24 17:40:08,154 - lightrag - INFO - Process 6944 buidling query context...
+2025-06-24 17:40:08,154 - lightrag - INFO - Query nodes: Protection of Information Act, Protection of Personal Information Act, Relationship, Correlation, top_k: 60, cosine: 0.2
+2025-06-24 17:40:08,155 - lightrag - INFO - limit_async: 16 new workers initialized
+2025-06-24 17:40:09,859 - lightrag - INFO - Naive query: 3 chunks, top_k: 10
+2025-06-24 17:40:09,975 - lightrag - INFO - Local query uses 60 entites, 99 relations, 3 chunks
+2025-06-24 17:40:09,977 - lightrag - INFO - Query edges: Information protection, Legislation, Data privacy, top_k: 60, cosine: 0.2
+2025-06-24 17:40:10,988 - lightrag - INFO - Global query uses 62 entites, 60 relations, 3 chunks
+2025-06-24 17:40:11,061 - lightrag - INFO - limit_async: 1 new workers initialized
+2025-06-24 17:40:33,055 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving global: 0146fed9837693e39bdf7b7f03d6a53e
+2025-06-24 17:40:33,056 - lightrag - INFO - Process 6944 buidling query context...
+2025-06-24 17:40:33,056 - lightrag - INFO - Query edges: Information Protection, Data Privacy, Legal Frameworks, top_k: 60, cosine: 0.2
+2025-06-24 17:40:34,167 - lightrag - INFO - Global query uses 62 entites, 60 relations, 3 chunks
+2025-06-24 17:40:37,358 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving global: 91dd81efc59c857a01d22fec138b18fa
+2025-06-24 17:43:10,524 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving hybrid: c1aeca5fdcd0bd8b0e983d1c9d6e92ad
+2025-06-24 17:43:10,525 - lightrag - INFO - Process 6944 buidling query context...
+2025-06-24 17:43:10,525 - lightrag - INFO - Query nodes: Protection of Information Act, Protection of Personal Information Act, Information, Personal information, Legislation, South Africa, top_k: 60, cosine: 0.2
+2025-06-24 17:43:11,778 - lightrag - INFO - Local query uses 60 entites, 128 relations, 3 chunks
+2025-06-24 17:43:11,779 - lightrag - INFO - Query edges: Information protection, Data privacy, Legal frameworks, top_k: 60, cosine: 0.2
+2025-06-24 17:43:12,818 - lightrag - INFO - Global query uses 62 entites, 60 relations, 3 chunks
+2025-06-24 17:43:16,795 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving hybrid: 0ae5943132fe735fc63603e2b24b2bb7
+2025-06-24 17:43:26,488 - lightrag - INFO - No new unique documents were found.
+2025-06-24 17:43:26,490 - lightrag - INFO - Processing 1 document(s)
+2025-06-24 17:43:26,491 - lightrag - INFO - Extracting stage 1/1: dataset/data/docs3\republic-of-south-africa_2013_Protection of Personal Information Act, 2013.pdf-68ed7a0b.md
+2025-06-24 17:43:26,492 - lightrag - INFO - Processing d-id: doc-f489721a8973148eab8fdfd0931a49fe
+2025-06-24 17:43:26,642 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 1 of 41 extracted 21 Ent + 18 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:43:26,655 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 2 of 41 extracted 111 Ent + 84 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:43:26,658 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 3 of 41 extracted 16 Ent + 14 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:43:26,669 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 4 of 41 extracted 64 Ent + 66 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:43:26,686 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 5 of 41 extracted 39 Ent + 77 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:43:26,691 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 6 of 41 extracted 17 Ent + 0 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:43:26,697 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 7 of 41 extracted 42 Ent + 35 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:43:26,701 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 8 of 41 extracted 26 Ent + 8 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:43:26,710 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 9 of 41 extracted 30 Ent + 32 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:43:26,715 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 10 of 41 extracted 35 Ent + 5 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:43:26,732 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 11 of 41 extracted 54 Ent + 44 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:43:26,743 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 12 of 41 extracted 55 Ent + 31 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:43:26,752 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 13 of 41 extracted 32 Ent + 34 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:43:26,755 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 14 of 41 extracted 14 Ent + 13 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:43:26,759 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 15 of 41 extracted 13 Ent + 19 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:43:26,767 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 16 of 41 extracted 33 Ent + 35 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:43:36,104 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 2c701551b4ff5ab11c4961714f698def
+2025-06-24 17:43:36,107 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 17 of 41 extracted 20 Ent + 22 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:43:42,335 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: ffa8a1f2c33f4adaa0ea3b1a5efd84a6
+2025-06-24 17:43:42,339 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 18 of 41 extracted 27 Ent + 30 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:43:46,894 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: b61a1ffac4bf00aac480bab2d2f35b4a
+2025-06-24 17:43:50,091 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 1ae5cced5aae5610496383ec098cfb99
+2025-06-24 17:43:50,092 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 19 of 41 extracted 9 Ent + 10 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:44:00,054 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 0b617543f4b36e5caa082ccb10bf7a17
+2025-06-24 17:44:00,062 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 20 of 41 extracted 44 Ent + 45 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:44:07,079 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 8320f1f3918f29e0120dd78773361b32
+2025-06-24 17:44:13,234 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: b99c3315026199aa174a52a6afb6b5ed
+2025-06-24 17:44:13,240 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 21 of 41 extracted 38 Ent + 41 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:44:17,688 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 8ef5511027af9bc85db42f829c9f3937
+2025-06-24 17:44:26,763 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: d44a37e057b671909005c6c4353e014d
+2025-06-24 17:44:26,770 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 22 of 41 extracted 33 Ent + 30 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:44:30,462 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 82e6b51c14a6bf7249d4c6ddf262dc5e
+2025-06-24 17:44:32,937 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 62c9c8dafd989249bdf5bdb513918213
+2025-06-24 17:44:32,938 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 23 of 41 extracted 8 Ent + 8 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:44:36,988 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 4cee2e7e82a914a690c8cbf368154fc9
+2025-06-24 17:44:43,996 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 2d1f75909f884ec114aabf5c8e959b0d
+2025-06-24 17:44:43,999 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 24 of 41 extracted 15 Ent + 17 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:44:49,532 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 9759a9faab186847e8208553c78978f3
+2025-06-24 17:44:57,881 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: dc3e730848bcf4f7c17f92fa81b5c3c9
+2025-06-24 17:44:57,885 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 25 of 41 extracted 26 Ent + 30 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:45:03,309 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 490ffa0505673f17b41932cb992f8124
+2025-06-24 17:45:12,235 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 7dab52c6428bb8900d3a7b0f0f1e1470
+2025-06-24 17:45:12,239 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 26 of 41 extracted 25 Ent + 31 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:45:18,213 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 0b965cda93e446f557a1d678ce44c5db
+2025-06-24 17:45:23,316 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 3923a7a8561718342b9f37722574c18f
+2025-06-24 17:45:23,317 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 27 of 41 extracted 9 Ent + 12 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:45:37,446 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 53517b38325523ec10a3c670eaa810e1
+2025-06-24 17:45:42,563 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 7f87761810ca1f8abdc60ebdbc79d3b3
+2025-06-24 17:45:42,566 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 28 of 41 extracted 14 Ent + 27 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:45:47,990 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: adbbe564c4f804ec47bcf7c0fbdf7a86
+2025-06-24 17:45:54,331 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 859c87489128f9c48446bc436c6311dc
+2025-06-24 17:45:54,334 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 29 of 41 extracted 27 Ent + 36 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:46:01,099 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 149e00eb9512a8578c857e291087bb13
+2025-06-24 17:46:05,721 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: df8dc691665ed9ede681a792523d0749
+2025-06-24 17:46:05,723 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 30 of 41 extracted 13 Ent + 12 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:46:10,360 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 6e488500801ad8e924a037c64235e7de
+2025-06-24 17:46:21,578 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 1c3e97155b2bf03e281aac493e2542ed
+2025-06-24 17:46:21,583 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 31 of 41 extracted 16 Ent + 33 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:46:24,890 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 1dc96bcf97f715c27b1d6a8ae373d8e4
+2025-06-24 17:46:30,351 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 1a3282380dc2bffcb0f8c0328f6b40d9
+2025-06-24 17:46:30,354 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 32 of 41 extracted 12 Ent + 17 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:46:34,281 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: d23424eb9b8bc447fce5f983a63c9214
+2025-06-24 17:46:42,370 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 06fe8a9e616beffcb47cede87011f643
+2025-06-24 17:46:42,375 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 33 of 41 extracted 32 Ent + 31 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:46:45,591 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 58145ab33b1d9fcc4adfb438b662844c
+2025-06-24 17:46:50,396 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 2e40298b48256356eea4c4d5f16f2d20
+2025-06-24 17:46:50,397 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 34 of 41 extracted 8 Ent + 0 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:46:53,682 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 2de1c1b2c2847c2716d1a0a32bc615f8
+2025-06-24 17:46:59,209 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 0addd75ef113f7dde429f90c50cd8387
+2025-06-24 17:46:59,212 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 35 of 41 extracted 20 Ent + 23 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:47:03,360 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 8ae86207a743baaa0806dcb09972ce26
+2025-06-24 17:47:09,381 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: f5b40016c000554e914bb66a56f9fb46
+2025-06-24 17:47:09,384 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 36 of 41 extracted 18 Ent + 17 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:47:11,768 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: c6c2e2ee56ae8041b6070c9492c4cd79
+2025-06-24 17:47:14,465 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: c8132ac1d0bf78a899e4a0d34613ae8b
+2025-06-24 17:47:14,466 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 37 of 41 extracted 4 Ent + 3 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:47:18,510 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 9b7390a3e4c3944a391b4196d0969b5b
+2025-06-24 17:47:23,314 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 5a514b3d415ebff5aa94b69f2900a57c
+2025-06-24 17:47:23,317 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 38 of 41 extracted 10 Ent + 15 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:47:26,684 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: c6f4f69428ebf77e301b4fc03be28a76
+2025-06-24 17:47:29,160 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: d6b2eaf3400c47c6080c5695a4873031
+2025-06-24 17:47:29,160 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 39 of 41 extracted 3 Ent + 2 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:47:33,370 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 8221588ff3dc75aa9e030b961c57a058
+2025-06-24 17:47:36,089 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 7881ab833646fac1d4ee38ff7883da9b
+2025-06-24 17:47:36,090 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 40 of 41 extracted 6 Ent + 7 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:47:39,399 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: a853229939759477bb7097a27a288e99
+2025-06-24 17:47:45,220 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 4858e3137a3429b10cbae3da49baa710
+2025-06-24 17:47:45,223 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 41 of 41 extracted 20 Ent + 18 Rel
+2025-06-24 17:47:45,228 - lightrag - INFO - Merging stage 1/1: dataset/data/docs3\republic-of-south-africa_2013_Protection of Personal Information Act, 2013.pdf-68ed7a0b.md
+2025-06-24 17:47:45,229 - lightrag - INFO - LLM merge N: Protection of Personal Information Act, 2013 | 11+0
+2025-06-24 17:47:47,183 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: ccbcea7404a8e5fff1abbfb07c15b085
+2025-06-24 17:47:47,184 - lightrag - INFO - LLM merge N: Information Regulator | 17+0
+2025-06-24 17:47:49,916 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: bf17b9f07840d266edd96dfb6dc7c620
+2025-06-24 17:47:49,917 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Promotion of Access to Information Act, 2000 | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:47:49,917 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: President | 3+0
+2025-06-24 17:47:49,918 - lightrag - INFO - LLM merge N: Republic of South Africa | 5+2
+2025-06-24 17:47:52,343 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: a4667b65980a07b8378e4d6d5f0226a2
+2025-06-24 17:47:52,344 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Government Gazette | 1+1
+2025-06-24 17:47:52,345 - lightrag - INFO - LLM merge N: Act | 6+0
+2025-06-24 17:47:53,757 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 3472751ae1d71a9eb60c3a92e0aeb01a
+2025-06-24 17:47:53,758 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Parliament | 4+0
+2025-06-24 17:47:53,759 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Data Subjects | 3+0
+2025-06-24 17:47:53,759 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Special Personal Information | 4+0
+2025-06-24 17:47:53,760 - lightrag - INFO - LLM merge N: Responsible Party | 15+0
+2025-06-24 17:47:55,559 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 02030101f5381cab06b3db19db2eba8e
+2025-06-24 17:47:55,559 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Operator | 3+0
+2025-06-24 17:47:55,560 - lightrag - INFO - LLM merge N: Regulator | 17+0
+2025-06-24 17:47:59,445 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite', 'location': 'global'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '0s'}]}}]
+2025-06-24 17:48:06,733 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: c7faedf756ba6028bf577424141b1da1
+2025-06-24 17:48:06,734 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: chief executive officer | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:06,734 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Enforcement Committee | 4+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:06,735 - lightrag - INFO - LLM merge N: Information Officer | 6+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:09,311 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 76bdf51eb78891d0d6d5a699fa16b8d8
+2025-06-24 17:48:09,312 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Protection of Personal Information Act | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:09,313 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Codes of Conduct | 3+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:09,313 - lightrag - INFO - LLM merge N: Data Subject | 15+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:11,936 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: d346ae98b176ed998c7f117a61f87e42
+2025-06-24 17:48:11,937 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Direct Marketing | 4+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:11,937 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Automated Decision Making | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:11,938 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Transborder Information Flows | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:11,939 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Prior Authorisation | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:11,940 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: CHAPTER 7 | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:11,941 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Register of approved codes of conduct | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:11,942 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: CHAPTER 8 | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:11,943 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Settlement of complaints | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:11,944 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Breach of confidentiality | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:11,945 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Obstruction of execution of warrant | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:11,946 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Failure to comply with enforcement or information notices | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:11,946 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Offences by witnesses | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:11,947 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Unlawful acts by responsible party in connection with account number | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:11,947 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Unlawful acts by third parties in connection with account number | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:11,948 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: CHAPTER 12 | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:11,949 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Amendment of laws | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:11,949 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Fees | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:11,950 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Regulations | 3+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:11,950 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Procedure for making regulations | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:11,951 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Transitional arrangements | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:11,951 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: biometrics | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:11,952 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: child | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:11,952 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: competent person | 3+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:11,953 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Constitution | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:11,953 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: electronic communication | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:11,954 - lightrag - INFO - LLM merge N: Minister | 10+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:13,709 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 2cfa39dc8f0b94e5a09e44e5e943af25
+2025-06-24 17:48:13,710 - lightrag - INFO - LLM merge N: Promotion of Access to Information Act | 13+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:15,606 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: aff9c5aa497796a95f1e93a49df6b09e
+2025-06-24 17:48:15,607 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: public body | 4+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:15,608 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: private body | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:15,609 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: person | 1+1
+2025-06-24 17:48:15,610 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: information officer | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:15,610 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: processing | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:15,611 - lightrag - INFO - LLM merge N: personal information | 6+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:17,195 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: c21fe34597f6bd93799729f9c87075b1
+2025-06-24 17:48:17,196 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: public record | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:17,196 - lightrag - INFO - LLM merge N: Personal Information | 6+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:18,680 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: ccad3fc7c82b81faebaa35f571687062
+2025-06-24 17:48:18,681 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Processing of Personal Information | 3+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:18,681 - lightrag - INFO - LLM merge N: Republic | 4+3
+2025-06-24 17:48:20,926 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 7e319e22cb9fb9f767f3802195666abc
+2025-06-24 17:48:20,927 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: The Act | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:20,928 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: De-identified | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:20,929 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: section 26 | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:20,930 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Chapter 3 | 4+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:20,930 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Lawful Processing of Personal Information | 3+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:20,931 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Accountability | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:20,932 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Security Safeguards | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:20,933 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Section 6 | 1+1
+2025-06-24 17:48:20,933 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Section 7 | 1+1
+2025-06-24 17:48:20,934 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Section 37 | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:20,934 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Section 26 | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:20,935 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Cabinet | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:20,936 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Executive Council of a province | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:20,936 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: National Security | 3+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:20,937 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Public Safety | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:20,938 - lightrag - INFO - LLM merge N: The Regulator | 11+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:24,092 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: afd5f6bb8b9f652a447d4a51f5bfeee3
+2025-06-24 17:48:24,093 - lightrag - INFO - LLM merge N: responsible party | 9+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:26,485 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 30b8dda51a28533e27fbb46cbf3e904a
+2025-06-24 17:48:26,486 - lightrag - INFO - LLM merge N: data subject | 8+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:28,469 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 666cd0781a0db673d29c3607b915e4d4
+2025-06-24 17:48:28,469 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: relationship | 3+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:28,470 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: public interest | 4+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:28,470 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: freedom of expression | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:28,471 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Processing of personal information | 3+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:28,471 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: South African Revenue Service Act, 1997 | 3+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:28,472 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: subsection (1) | 2+1
+2025-06-24 17:48:28,472 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: subsection (2) | 1+1
+2025-06-24 17:48:28,473 - lightrag - INFO - LLM merge N: Public Body | 6+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:30,100 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: c274f97aa3c83fabfa117a6b997ad545
+2025-06-24 17:48:30,101 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Law | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:30,102 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Court | 3+1
+2025-06-24 17:48:30,103 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Appropriate Safeguards | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:30,104 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: section 61 | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:30,105 - lightrag - INFO - LLM merge N: Gazette | 6+1
+2025-06-24 17:48:32,109 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 72ef77d38041e144d680c3955fe3d742
+2025-06-24 17:48:32,109 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: biometric information | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:32,110 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: criminal behaviour | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:32,111 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: National Assembly | 3+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:32,113 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Protection of Information Act, 1982 | 1+2
+2025-06-24 17:48:32,113 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: South Africa | 3+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:32,114 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: insurance or medical scheme agreement | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:32,115 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: historical, statistical or research activity | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:32,116 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: processing of personal information | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:32,118 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Chairperson | 3+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:32,120 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Journalistic purposes | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:32,120 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Data subject | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:32,121 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Section 7(1) | 3+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:32,122 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Section 7(3)(a) to (d) | 3+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:32,122 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Section 73 | 3+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:32,123 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: High Court of South Africa | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:32,124 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Auditor-General | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:32,125 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Section 51 | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:32,129 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Deputy Information Officer | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:32,130 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: offence | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:32,130 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: section 71 | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:32,132 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Chapter 10 | 3+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:32,133 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Adjudicator | 3+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:32,133 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Section 74(2) | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:32,134 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Section 60 | 3+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:32,134 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Section 64 | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:32,135 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Section 63 | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:32,135 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Section 60 to 63 | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:32,136 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Section 61 | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:32,136 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Section 62 | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:32,138 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Binding Corporate Rules | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:32,139 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: High Court | 3+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:32,139 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: section 82 | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:32,140 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Section 82 | 3+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:32,141 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Client | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:32,141 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Person Executing the Warrant | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:32,142 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Warrant | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:32,142 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Information Notice | 3+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:32,143 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Head of a Private Body | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:32,143 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Complainant | 3+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:32,144 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Enforcement Notice | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:32,144 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Section 54 | 3+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:32,145 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Section 8 | 1+1
+2025-06-24 17:48:32,146 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Offence | 1+1
+2025-06-24 17:48:32,147 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Criminal Procedure Act, 1977 (Act No. 51 of 1977) | 1+1
+2025-06-24 17:48:32,147 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: South African Human Rights Commission | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:32,148 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Private Body | 4+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:32,149 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Manual | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:32,149 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Guide | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:32,149 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Internal Appeal | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:32,151 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Requester | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:32,152 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Electronic Communications and Transactions Act, 2002 | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:32,154 - lightrag - INFO - LLM merge E: Information Regulator - Protection of Personal Information Act, 2013 | 8+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:34,831 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: cf614edbb0d17164b088982452840ffc
+2025-06-24 17:48:34,832 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: President - Protection of Personal Information Act, 2013 | 3+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:34,833 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: Protection of Personal Information Act, 2013 - Special Personal Information | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:34,834 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: Protection of Personal Information Act, 2013 - Responsible Party | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:34,834 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: Regulator - chief executive officer | 4+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:34,835 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: Enforcement Committee - Regulator | 3+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:34,835 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: Information Officer - Regulator | 3+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:34,836 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: Protection of Personal Information Act - Regulator | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:34,836 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: Prior Authorisation - Regulator | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:34,837 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: Data Subject - Regulator | 3+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:34,837 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: Enforcement - Regulator | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:34,838 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: Automated Decision Making - Data Subject | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:34,839 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: Codes of Conduct - Data Subject | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:34,839 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: Enforcement - Protection of Personal Information Act | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:34,840 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: Offences, Penalties and Administrative Fines - Protection of Personal Information Act | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:34,841 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: Data Subject - Direct marketing by means of unsolicited electronic communications | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:34,842 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: Automated decision making - Data Subject | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:34,843 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: child - competent person | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:34,844 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: Minister - Promotion of Access to Information Act | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:34,846 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: Personal Information - Responsible Party | 3+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:34,846 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: Act - Responsible Party | 3+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:34,847 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: Data Subject - Personal Information | 4+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:34,847 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: Act - Data Subject | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:34,849 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: Information Regulator - Regulator | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:34,850 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: Lawful Processing of Personal Information - Responsible Party | 3+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:34,851 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: Protection of Personal Information Act, 2013 - Regulator | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:34,852 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: Data Subject - Protection of Personal Information Act, 2013 | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:34,852 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: Protection of Personal Information Act, 2013 - Section 6 | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:34,853 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: Protection of Personal Information Act, 2013 - Section 37 | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:34,854 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: Data Subject - Section 23 | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:34,855 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: Data Subject - Section 24 | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:34,855 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: Data Subject - Section 11(3)(a) | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:34,855 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: Data Subject - Section 11(3)(b) | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:34,857 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: Direct Marketing - Responsible Party | 3+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:34,858 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: Data Subject - Section 18 | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:34,859 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: Data Subject - Section 22 | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:34,859 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: Section 6 - The Protection of Personal Information Act, 2013 | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:34,860 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: Section 37 - The Protection of Personal Information Act, 2013 | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:34,861 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: Section 74 - The Regulator | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:34,862 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: data subject - personal information | 3+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:34,862 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: personal information - responsible party | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:34,863 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: data subject - responsible party | 3+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:34,865 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: Data Subject - Information Regulator | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:34,866 - lightrag - INFO - LLM merge E: Data Subject - Responsible Party | 8+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:37,372 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 50c0bf1403b2e08a51db871878a0ca26
+2025-06-24 17:48:37,373 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: Operator - Responsible Party | 3+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:37,374 - lightrag - INFO - LLM merge E: Responsible Party - The Regulator | 6+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:38,968 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: e6c613afa21110d37c9ccf7a1890ac40
+2025-06-24 17:48:38,969 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: Data Subject - The Regulator | 3+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:38,971 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: Gazette - The Regulator | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:38,974 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: Information Regulator - Minister | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:38,975 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: Information Regulator - Promotion of Access to Information Act | 2+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:38,975 - lightrag - INFO - Merge E: Minister - Regulator | 5+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:38,976 - lightrag - INFO - LLM merge E: Regulator - responsible party | 6+0
+2025-06-24 17:48:41,940 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite', 'location': 'global'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '18s'}]}}]
+2025-06-24 23:38:53,336 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Connection Error: Connection error.
+2025-06-24 23:38:59,424 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Connection Error: Connection error.
+2025-06-24 23:38:59,425 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: RetryError[]
+2025-06-24 23:38:59,994 - lightrag - ERROR - Merging stage failed in document doc-f489721a8973148eab8fdfd0931a49fe: Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\httpx\_transports\default.py", line 101, in map_httpcore_exceptions
+ yield
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\httpx\_transports\default.py", line 394, in handle_async_request
+ resp = await self._pool.handle_async_request(req)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\httpcore\_async\connection_pool.py", line 256, in handle_async_request
+ raise exc from None
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\httpcore\_async\connection_pool.py", line 236, in handle_async_request
+ response = await connection.handle_async_request(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\httpcore\_async\connection.py", line 101, in handle_async_request
+ raise exc
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\httpcore\_async\connection.py", line 78, in handle_async_request
+ stream = await self._connect(request)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\httpcore\_async\connection.py", line 124, in _connect
+ stream = await self._network_backend.connect_tcp(**kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\httpcore\_backends\auto.py", line 31, in connect_tcp
+ return await self._backend.connect_tcp(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\httpcore\_backends\anyio.py", line 113, in connect_tcp
+ with map_exceptions(exc_map):
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\Python\Python312\Lib\contextlib.py", line 158, in __exit__
+ self.gen.throw(value)
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\httpcore\_exceptions.py", line 14, in map_exceptions
+ raise to_exc(exc) from exc
+httpcore.ConnectError: [Errno 11001] getaddrinfo failed
+
+The above exception was the direct cause of the following exception:
+
+Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\openai\_base_client.py", line 1484, in request
+ response = await self._client.send(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\httpx\_client.py", line 1629, in send
+ response = await self._send_handling_auth(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\httpx\_client.py", line 1657, in _send_handling_auth
+ response = await self._send_handling_redirects(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\httpx\_client.py", line 1694, in _send_handling_redirects
+ response = await self._send_single_request(request)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\httpx\_client.py", line 1730, in _send_single_request
+ response = await transport.handle_async_request(request)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\httpx\_transports\default.py", line 393, in handle_async_request
+ with map_httpcore_exceptions():
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\Python\Python312\Lib\contextlib.py", line 158, in __exit__
+ self.gen.throw(value)
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\httpx\_transports\default.py", line 118, in map_httpcore_exceptions
+ raise mapped_exc(message) from exc
+httpx.ConnectError: [Errno 11001] getaddrinfo failed
+
+The above exception was the direct cause of the following exception:
+
+Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 114, in __call__
+ result = await fn(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\llm\openai.py", line 185, in openai_complete_if_cache
+ response = await openai_async_client.chat.completions.create(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\openai\resources\chat\completions\completions.py", line 2028, in create
+ return await self._post(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\openai\_base_client.py", line 1742, in post
+ return await self.request(cast_to, opts, stream=stream, stream_cls=stream_cls)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\openai\_base_client.py", line 1516, in request
+ raise APIConnectionError(request=request) from err
+openai.APIConnectionError: Connection error.
+
+The above exception was the direct cause of the following exception:
+
+Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 1033, in process_document
+ await merge_nodes_and_edges(
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 556, in merge_nodes_and_edges
+ edge_data = await _merge_edges_then_upsert(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 443, in _merge_edges_then_upsert
+ description = await _handle_entity_relation_summary(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 144, in _handle_entity_relation_summary
+ summary = await use_llm_func_with_cache(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 1614, in use_llm_func_with_cache
+ res: str = await use_llm_func(input_text, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 544, in wait_func
+ return await future
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 328, in worker
+ result = await func(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\app_gradio_lightrag.py", line 277, in _llm_model_func
+ return await openai_complete_if_cache(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 189, in async_wrapped
+ return await copy(fn, *args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 111, in __call__
+ do = await self.iter(retry_state=retry_state)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 153, in iter
+ result = await action(retry_state)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\_utils.py", line 99, in inner
+ return call(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\__init__.py", line 421, in exc_check
+ raise retry_exc from fut.exception()
+tenacity.RetryError: RetryError[]
+
+2025-06-24 23:39:00,023 - lightrag - INFO - Document processing pipeline completed
+2025-06-24 23:40:01,061 - lightrag - INFO - No new unique documents were found.
+2025-06-24 23:40:01,062 - lightrag - INFO - Processing 1 document(s)
+2025-06-24 23:40:01,063 - lightrag - INFO - Extracting stage 1/1: dataset/data/docs3\republic-of-south-africa_2013_Protection of Personal Information Act, 2013.pdf-68ed7a0b.md
+2025-06-24 23:40:01,063 - lightrag - INFO - Processing d-id: doc-f489721a8973148eab8fdfd0931a49fe
+2025-06-24 23:40:01,164 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 1 of 41 extracted 21 Ent + 18 Rel
+2025-06-24 23:40:01,176 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 2 of 41 extracted 111 Ent + 84 Rel
+2025-06-24 23:40:01,179 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 3 of 41 extracted 16 Ent + 14 Rel
+2025-06-24 23:40:01,190 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 4 of 41 extracted 64 Ent + 66 Rel
+2025-06-24 23:40:01,201 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 5 of 41 extracted 39 Ent + 77 Rel
+2025-06-24 23:40:01,205 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 6 of 41 extracted 17 Ent + 0 Rel
+2025-06-24 23:40:01,210 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 7 of 41 extracted 42 Ent + 35 Rel
+2025-06-24 23:40:01,216 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 8 of 41 extracted 26 Ent + 8 Rel
+2025-06-24 23:40:01,220 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 9 of 41 extracted 30 Ent + 32 Rel
+2025-06-24 23:40:01,224 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 10 of 41 extracted 35 Ent + 5 Rel
+2025-06-24 23:40:01,235 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 11 of 41 extracted 54 Ent + 44 Rel
+2025-06-24 23:40:01,243 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 12 of 41 extracted 55 Ent + 31 Rel
+2025-06-24 23:40:01,249 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 13 of 41 extracted 32 Ent + 34 Rel
+2025-06-24 23:40:01,252 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 14 of 41 extracted 14 Ent + 13 Rel
+2025-06-24 23:40:01,259 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 15 of 41 extracted 13 Ent + 19 Rel
+2025-06-24 23:40:01,264 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 16 of 41 extracted 33 Ent + 35 Rel
+2025-06-24 23:40:01,267 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 17 of 41 extracted 20 Ent + 22 Rel
+2025-06-24 23:40:01,271 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 18 of 41 extracted 27 Ent + 30 Rel
+2025-06-24 23:40:01,274 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 19 of 41 extracted 9 Ent + 10 Rel
+2025-06-24 23:40:01,284 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 20 of 41 extracted 44 Ent + 45 Rel
+2025-06-24 23:40:01,291 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 21 of 41 extracted 38 Ent + 41 Rel
+2025-06-24 23:40:01,295 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 22 of 41 extracted 33 Ent + 30 Rel
+2025-06-24 23:40:01,297 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 23 of 41 extracted 8 Ent + 8 Rel
+2025-06-24 23:40:01,300 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 24 of 41 extracted 15 Ent + 17 Rel
+2025-06-24 23:40:01,305 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 25 of 41 extracted 26 Ent + 30 Rel
+2025-06-24 23:40:01,309 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 26 of 41 extracted 25 Ent + 31 Rel
+2025-06-24 23:40:01,312 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 27 of 41 extracted 9 Ent + 12 Rel
+2025-06-24 23:40:01,316 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 28 of 41 extracted 14 Ent + 27 Rel
+2025-06-24 23:40:01,321 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 29 of 41 extracted 27 Ent + 36 Rel
+2025-06-24 23:40:01,325 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 30 of 41 extracted 13 Ent + 12 Rel
+2025-06-24 23:40:01,332 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 31 of 41 extracted 16 Ent + 33 Rel
+2025-06-24 23:40:01,335 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 32 of 41 extracted 12 Ent + 17 Rel
+2025-06-24 23:40:01,339 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 33 of 41 extracted 32 Ent + 31 Rel
+2025-06-24 23:40:01,342 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 34 of 41 extracted 8 Ent + 0 Rel
+2025-06-24 23:40:01,345 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 35 of 41 extracted 20 Ent + 23 Rel
+2025-06-24 23:40:01,351 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 36 of 41 extracted 18 Ent + 17 Rel
+2025-06-24 23:40:01,353 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 37 of 41 extracted 4 Ent + 3 Rel
+2025-06-24 23:40:01,357 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 38 of 41 extracted 10 Ent + 15 Rel
+2025-06-24 23:40:01,358 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 39 of 41 extracted 3 Ent + 2 Rel
+2025-06-24 23:40:01,360 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 40 of 41 extracted 6 Ent + 7 Rel
+2025-06-24 23:40:01,367 - lightrag - INFO - Chunk 41 of 41 extracted 20 Ent + 18 Rel
+2025-06-24 23:41:37,796 - lightrag - INFO - Merging stage 1/1: dataset/data/docs3\republic-of-south-africa_2013_Protection of Personal Information Act, 2013.pdf-68ed7a0b.md
+2025-06-24 23:41:37,796 - lightrag - INFO - LLM merge N: Protection of Personal Information Act, 2013 | 11+1
+2025-06-24 23:41:40,935 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 103dcb2e35aa6d73c9eb7e86a7de5998
+2025-06-24 23:41:40,936 - lightrag - INFO - LLM merge N: Information Regulator | 17+1
+2025-06-24 23:41:43,848 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: f0759a70499dd4c0dcb466ed50f0e534
+2025-06-24 23:41:43,849 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Promotion of Access to Information Act, 2000 | 2+2
+2025-06-24 23:41:43,849 - lightrag - INFO - LLM merge N: President | 3+3
+2025-06-24 23:41:46,270 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 301db24abf4fe667015dbb61d021719d
+2025-06-24 23:41:46,271 - lightrag - INFO - LLM merge N: Republic of South Africa | 5+1
+2025-06-24 23:41:48,673 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 8915260513693574968acaa6db0b9f23
+2025-06-24 23:41:48,674 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Government Gazette | 1+2
+2025-06-24 23:41:48,675 - lightrag - INFO - LLM merge N: Act | 6+1
+2025-06-24 23:41:51,156 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 793bdb8083c2699ba4281921635dfcdb
+2025-06-24 23:41:51,157 - lightrag - INFO - LLM merge N: Parliament | 4+4
+2025-06-24 23:41:52,836 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 3b549380744537643594155dacea4764
+2025-06-24 23:41:52,837 - lightrag - INFO - LLM merge N: Data Subjects | 3+3
+2025-06-24 23:41:54,872 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: ed44d61efc7186ec38b08ae141b8d6ce
+2025-06-24 23:41:54,873 - lightrag - INFO - LLM merge N: Special Personal Information | 4+4
+2025-06-24 23:41:57,323 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: e1b76e7b26a9987fd65649ba084edad5
+2025-06-24 23:41:57,324 - lightrag - INFO - LLM merge N: Responsible Party | 15+1
+2025-06-24 23:42:00,079 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 142729d2352b149b03e4e58c7e2fba04
+2025-06-24 23:42:00,080 - lightrag - INFO - LLM merge N: Operator | 3+3
+2025-06-24 23:42:02,421 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: d99d59b0885d167c2821a3b7b8fd2082
+2025-06-24 23:42:02,422 - lightrag - INFO - LLM merge N: Regulator | 17+1
+2025-06-24 23:42:05,625 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 0c2179bb0dd22b0cdbcf1288d1d1467f
+2025-06-24 23:42:05,625 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: chief executive officer | 2+2
+2025-06-24 23:42:05,626 - lightrag - INFO - LLM merge N: Enforcement Committee | 4+4
+2025-06-24 23:42:08,053 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 3fffca4aae7d005da7ae3ace396aa435
+2025-06-24 23:42:08,054 - lightrag - INFO - LLM merge N: Information Officer | 6+1
+2025-06-24 23:42:10,664 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 83cb9317bbde498c1c8604a9b1681aef
+2025-06-24 23:42:10,664 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Protection of Personal Information Act | 2+2
+2025-06-24 23:42:10,665 - lightrag - INFO - LLM merge N: Codes of Conduct | 3+3
+2025-06-24 23:42:11,936 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 2c396126de4007fb35c6965069b3859e
+2025-06-24 23:42:11,937 - lightrag - INFO - LLM merge N: Data Subject | 15+1
+2025-06-24 23:42:14,433 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: d7f3f472cae58ad3266c3c0736b1ccc7
+2025-06-24 23:42:14,434 - lightrag - INFO - LLM merge N: Direct Marketing | 4+4
+2025-06-24 23:42:16,852 - lightrag - INFO - == LLM cache == saving default: 8f888fb6e8dd372ce911add24f97afee
+2025-06-24 23:42:16,853 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Automated Decision Making | 2+2
+2025-06-24 23:42:16,853 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Transborder Information Flows | 2+2
+2025-06-24 23:42:16,854 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Prior Authorisation | 2+2
+2025-06-24 23:42:16,855 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: CHAPTER 7 | 2+2
+2025-06-24 23:42:16,856 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Register of approved codes of conduct | 2+2
+2025-06-24 23:42:16,857 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: CHAPTER 8 | 2+2
+2025-06-24 23:42:16,858 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Settlement of complaints | 2+2
+2025-06-24 23:42:16,859 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Breach of confidentiality | 2+2
+2025-06-24 23:42:16,859 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Obstruction of execution of warrant | 2+2
+2025-06-24 23:42:16,860 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Failure to comply with enforcement or information notices | 2+2
+2025-06-24 23:42:16,860 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Offences by witnesses | 2+2
+2025-06-24 23:42:16,861 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Unlawful acts by responsible party in connection with account number | 2+2
+2025-06-24 23:42:16,861 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Unlawful acts by third parties in connection with account number | 2+2
+2025-06-24 23:42:16,862 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: CHAPTER 12 | 2+2
+2025-06-24 23:42:16,862 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Amendment of laws | 2+2
+2025-06-24 23:42:16,863 - lightrag - INFO - Merge N: Fees | 2+2
+2025-06-24 23:42:16,863 - lightrag - INFO - LLM merge N: Regulations | 3+3
+2025-06-24 23:42:20,525 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'location': 'global', 'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '39s'}]}}]
+2025-06-24 23:42:28,176 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'location': 'global', 'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '32s'}]}}]
+2025-06-24 23:42:35,741 - lightrag - ERROR - OpenAI API Rate Limit Error: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite', 'location': 'global'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '24s'}]}}]
+2025-06-24 23:42:35,742 - lightrag - ERROR - limit_async: Error in decorated function: RetryError[]
+2025-06-24 23:42:35,744 - lightrag - ERROR - Merging stage failed in document doc-f489721a8973148eab8fdfd0931a49fe: Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 114, in __call__
+ result = await fn(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\llm\openai.py", line 185, in openai_complete_if_cache
+ response = await openai_async_client.chat.completions.create(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\openai\resources\chat\completions\completions.py", line 2028, in create
+ return await self._post(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\openai\_base_client.py", line 1742, in post
+ return await self.request(cast_to, opts, stream=stream, stream_cls=stream_cls)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\openai\_base_client.py", line 1549, in request
+ raise self._make_status_error_from_response(err.response) from None
+openai.RateLimitError: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerMinutePerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'model': 'gemini-2.5-flash-lite', 'location': 'global'}, 'quotaValue': '15'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '24s'}]}}]
+
+The above exception was the direct cause of the following exception:
+
+Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 1033, in process_document
+ await merge_nodes_and_edges(
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 543, in merge_nodes_and_edges
+ entity_data = await _merge_nodes_then_upsert(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 292, in _merge_nodes_then_upsert
+ description = await _handle_entity_relation_summary(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 144, in _handle_entity_relation_summary
+ summary = await use_llm_func_with_cache(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 1614, in use_llm_func_with_cache
+ res: str = await use_llm_func(input_text, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 544, in wait_func
+ return await future
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 328, in worker
+ result = await func(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\app_gradio_lightrag.py", line 277, in _llm_model_func
+ return await openai_complete_if_cache(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 189, in async_wrapped
+ return await copy(fn, *args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 111, in __call__
+ do = await self.iter(retry_state=retry_state)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 153, in iter
+ result = await action(retry_state)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\_utils.py", line 99, in inner
+ return call(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\__init__.py", line 421, in exc_check
+ raise retry_exc from fut.exception()
+tenacity.RetryError: RetryError[]
+
+2025-06-24 23:42:35,749 - lightrag - INFO - Document processing pipeline completed
+2025-06-25 00:43:38,817 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-25 00:43:38,818 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-25 00:43:38,819 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Health check task exiting
+2025-06-25 00:43:38,819 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-25 00:43:38,820 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-25 00:43:38,820 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-25 00:43:38,820 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-25 00:43:38,821 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-25 00:43:38,821 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-25 00:43:38,822 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-25 00:43:38,822 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-25 00:43:38,823 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-25 00:43:38,823 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-25 00:43:38,823 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-25 00:43:38,824 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-25 00:43:38,824 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Health check task exiting
+2025-06-25 00:43:38,825 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-25 00:43:38,825 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-25 00:43:38,825 - lightrag - WARNING - limit_async: Worker exiting
+2025-06-25 00:43:39,432 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 00:58:53,550 - lightrag - INFO - Loaded graph from ./working_folder8\graph_chunk_entity_relation.graphml with 131 nodes, 169 edges
+2025-06-25 00:58:53,668 - lightrag - INFO - Process 26704 KV load full_docs with 2 records
+2025-06-25 00:58:53,704 - lightrag - INFO - Process 26704 KV load text_chunks with 46 records
+2025-06-25 00:58:53,760 - lightrag - INFO - Process 26704 KV load llm_response_cache with 118 records
+2025-06-25 00:58:53,764 - lightrag - INFO - Process 26704 doc status load doc_status with 2 records
+2025-06-25 00:58:53,768 - lightrag - INFO - Storage Initialization completed!
+2025-06-25 01:01:56,747 - lightrag - INFO - No new unique documents were found.
+2025-06-25 01:01:56,748 - lightrag - INFO - Processing 1 document(s)
+2025-06-25 01:01:56,749 - lightrag - INFO - Document processing pipeline completed
+2025-06-25 01:01:56,752 - lightrag - INFO - No new unique documents were found.
+2025-06-25 01:01:56,753 - lightrag - INFO - Processing 1 document(s)
+2025-06-25 01:01:56,753 - lightrag - INFO - Document processing pipeline completed
+2025-06-25 01:05:37,675 - lightrag - INFO - Created new empty graph
+2025-06-25 01:05:37,684 - lightrag - INFO - Storage Initialization completed!
+2025-06-25 01:05:37,686 - lightrag - INFO - Storage Finalization completed!
+2025-06-25 01:05:41,606 - lightrag - INFO - No new unique documents were found.
+2025-06-25 01:05:41,607 - lightrag - INFO - Processing 1 document(s)
+2025-06-25 01:05:41,607 - lightrag - INFO - Document processing pipeline completed
+2025-06-25 01:05:41,611 - lightrag - INFO - No new unique documents were found.
+2025-06-25 01:05:41,612 - lightrag - INFO - Processing 1 document(s)
+2025-06-25 01:05:41,613 - lightrag - INFO - Document processing pipeline completed
+2025-06-25 01:06:15,261 - lightrag - INFO - No new unique documents were found.
+2025-06-25 01:06:15,262 - lightrag - INFO - Processing 1 document(s)
+2025-06-25 01:06:15,263 - lightrag - INFO - Document processing pipeline completed
+2025-06-25 01:06:15,265 - lightrag - INFO - No new unique documents were found.
+2025-06-25 01:06:15,266 - lightrag - INFO - Processing 1 document(s)
+2025-06-25 01:06:15,266 - lightrag - INFO - Document processing pipeline completed
+2025-06-25 13:36:23,294 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:36:23,299 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:36:23,303 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:36:23,308 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:37:51,012 - lightrag - INFO - Created new empty graph
+2025-06-25 13:37:51,032 - lightrag - INFO - Process 25320 KV load full_docs with 0 records
+2025-06-25 13:37:51,033 - lightrag - INFO - Process 25320 KV load text_chunks with 0 records
+2025-06-25 13:37:51,036 - lightrag - INFO - Process 25320 KV load llm_response_cache with 0 records
+2025-06-25 13:37:51,037 - lightrag - INFO - Process 25320 doc status load doc_status with 0 records
+2025-06-25 13:37:51,042 - lightrag - INFO - Storage Initialization completed!
+2025-06-25 13:37:58,973 - lightrag - INFO - Stored 1 new unique documents
+2025-06-25 13:37:58,974 - lightrag - INFO - Processing 1 document(s)
+2025-06-25 13:37:58,974 - lightrag - INFO - Document processing pipeline completed
+2025-06-25 13:37:59,007 - lightrag - INFO - Stored 1 new unique documents
+2025-06-25 13:37:59,008 - lightrag - INFO - Processing 2 document(s)
+2025-06-25 13:37:59,008 - lightrag - INFO - Document processing pipeline completed
+2025-06-25 13:40:49,903 - lightrag - INFO - No new unique documents were found.
+2025-06-25 13:40:49,904 - lightrag - INFO - Processing 2 document(s)
+2025-06-25 13:40:49,904 - lightrag - INFO - Document processing pipeline completed
+2025-06-25 13:40:49,906 - lightrag - INFO - No new unique documents were found.
+2025-06-25 13:40:49,907 - lightrag - INFO - Processing 2 document(s)
+2025-06-25 13:40:49,908 - lightrag - INFO - Document processing pipeline completed
+2025-06-25 13:41:24,173 - lightrag - INFO - Created new empty graph
+2025-06-25 13:41:24,182 - lightrag - INFO - Storage Initialization completed!
+2025-06-25 13:41:24,182 - lightrag - INFO - Storage Finalization completed!
+2025-06-25 13:41:52,913 - lightrag - INFO - No new unique documents were found.
+2025-06-25 13:41:52,914 - lightrag - INFO - Processing 2 document(s)
+2025-06-25 13:41:52,915 - lightrag - INFO - Document processing pipeline completed
+2025-06-25 13:41:52,917 - lightrag - INFO - No new unique documents were found.
+2025-06-25 13:41:52,918 - lightrag - INFO - Processing 2 document(s)
+2025-06-25 13:41:52,918 - lightrag - INFO - Document processing pipeline completed
+2025-06-25 13:47:27,954 - lightrag - INFO - Created new empty graph
+2025-06-25 13:47:27,963 - lightrag - INFO - Storage Initialization completed!
+2025-06-25 13:47:27,965 - lightrag - INFO - Storage Finalization completed!
+2025-06-25 13:47:28,276 - lightrag - INFO - Storage Finalization completed!
+2025-06-25 13:47:28,277 - lightrag - INFO - Storage Finalization completed!
+2025-06-25 13:49:02,265 - lightrag - INFO - Created new empty graph
+2025-06-25 13:49:02,281 - lightrag - INFO - Storage Initialization completed!
+2025-06-25 13:49:02,282 - lightrag - INFO - Storage Finalization completed!
+2025-06-25 13:49:02,587 - lightrag - INFO - Storage Finalization completed!
+2025-06-25 13:49:02,588 - lightrag - INFO - Storage Finalization completed!
+2025-06-25 13:49:04,148 - lightrag - INFO - Storage Finalization completed!
+2025-06-25 13:49:04,149 - lightrag - INFO - Storage Finalization completed!
+2025-06-25 13:49:04,149 - lightrag - INFO - Storage Finalization completed!
+2025-06-25 13:49:04,150 - lightrag - INFO - Storage Finalization completed!
+2025-06-25 13:49:04,151 - lightrag - INFO - Storage Finalization completed!
+2025-06-25 13:49:04,151 - lightrag - INFO - Storage Finalization completed!
+2025-06-25 13:49:33,151 - lightrag - INFO - No new unique documents were found.
+2025-06-25 13:49:33,152 - lightrag - INFO - Processing 2 document(s)
+2025-06-25 13:49:33,152 - lightrag - INFO - Document processing pipeline completed
+2025-06-25 13:49:33,156 - lightrag - INFO - No new unique documents were found.
+2025-06-25 13:49:33,157 - lightrag - INFO - Processing 2 document(s)
+2025-06-25 13:49:33,157 - lightrag - INFO - Document processing pipeline completed
+2025-06-25 13:53:45,097 - lightrag - INFO - Created new empty graph
+2025-06-25 13:53:45,110 - lightrag - INFO - Storage Initialization completed!
+2025-06-25 13:53:45,111 - lightrag - INFO - Storage Finalization completed!
+2025-06-25 13:53:45,378 - lightrag - INFO - Storage Finalization completed!
+2025-06-25 13:53:45,379 - lightrag - INFO - Storage Finalization completed!
+2025-06-25 13:53:47,083 - lightrag - INFO - Storage Finalization completed!
+2025-06-25 13:53:47,084 - lightrag - INFO - Storage Finalization completed!
+2025-06-25 13:53:47,084 - lightrag - INFO - Storage Finalization completed!
+2025-06-25 13:53:47,085 - lightrag - INFO - Storage Finalization completed!
+2025-06-25 13:53:47,086 - lightrag - INFO - Storage Finalization completed!
+2025-06-25 13:53:47,087 - lightrag - INFO - Storage Finalization completed!
+2025-06-25 13:53:53,084 - lightrag - INFO - Storage Finalization completed!
+2025-06-25 13:53:53,086 - lightrag - INFO - Storage Finalization completed!
+2025-06-25 13:53:53,086 - lightrag - INFO - Storage Finalization completed!
+2025-06-25 13:53:53,087 - lightrag - INFO - Storage Finalization completed!
+2025-06-25 13:53:53,087 - lightrag - INFO - Storage Finalization completed!
+2025-06-25 13:53:53,087 - lightrag - INFO - Storage Finalization completed!
+2025-06-25 13:53:53,088 - lightrag - INFO - Storage Finalization completed!
+2025-06-25 13:53:53,088 - lightrag - INFO - Storage Finalization completed!
+2025-06-25 13:53:53,088 - lightrag - INFO - Storage Finalization completed!
+2025-06-25 13:53:53,090 - lightrag - INFO - Storage Finalization completed!
+2025-06-25 13:53:53,090 - lightrag - INFO - Storage Finalization completed!
+2025-06-25 13:53:53,091 - lightrag - INFO - Storage Finalization completed!
+2025-06-25 13:53:53,091 - lightrag - INFO - Storage Finalization completed!
+2025-06-25 13:53:53,092 - lightrag - INFO - Storage Finalization completed!
+2025-06-25 13:53:53,092 - lightrag - INFO - Storage Finalization completed!
+2025-06-25 13:53:53,093 - lightrag - INFO - Storage Finalization completed!
+2025-06-25 13:53:53,093 - lightrag - INFO - Storage Finalization completed!
+2025-06-25 13:53:53,093 - lightrag - INFO - Storage Finalization completed!
+2025-06-25 13:59:32,909 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:32,914 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:32,919 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:32,924 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:32,929 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:32,934 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:32,939 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:32,944 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:32,948 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:32,953 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:32,958 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:32,963 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:32,968 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:32,972 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:32,977 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:32,982 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:32,987 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:32,992 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:32,996 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,001 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,006 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,011 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,015 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,021 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,026 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,030 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,042 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,047 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,052 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,058 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,063 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,069 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,075 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,080 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,086 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,091 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,096 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,100 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,104 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,108 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,112 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,116 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,122 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,127 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,132 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,137 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,142 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,146 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,151 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,155 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,159 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,164 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,169 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,173 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,180 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,185 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,191 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,196 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,200 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,205 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,209 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,213 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,218 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,223 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,227 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,231 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,236 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,241 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,245 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,250 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,255 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,260 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,265 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,271 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,274 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,278 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,282 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,288 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,292 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,296 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,300 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,305 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,309 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,316 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,321 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,326 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,330 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,335 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,340 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,344 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,347 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,352 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,356 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,361 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,365 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,370 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,374 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,379 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,383 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,387 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,392 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,395 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,400 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,404 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,408 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,412 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,416 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,422 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,426 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,430 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,435 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,439 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,447 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,452 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,458 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,463 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,467 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,472 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,478 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,482 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,487 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,491 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,495 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,499 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,504 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,506 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,512 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,516 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,520 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,525 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,528 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,532 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,536 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,540 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,544 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,547 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,552 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,556 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 13:59:33,560 - lightrag - INFO - Creating a new event loop in main thread.
+2025-06-25 14:00:54,924 - lightrag - INFO - Created new empty graph
+2025-06-25 14:00:54,939 - lightrag - INFO - Process 18004 KV load full_docs with 0 records
+2025-06-25 14:00:54,940 - lightrag - INFO - Process 18004 KV load text_chunks with 0 records
+2025-06-25 14:00:54,943 - lightrag - INFO - Process 18004 KV load llm_response_cache with 0 records
+2025-06-25 14:00:54,944 - lightrag - INFO - Process 18004 doc status load doc_status with 0 records
+2025-06-25 14:00:54,948 - lightrag - INFO - Storage Initialization completed!
+2025-06-25 14:01:29,337 - lightrag - INFO - Stored 1 new unique documents
+2025-06-25 14:01:29,338 - lightrag - INFO - Processing 1 document(s)
+2025-06-25 14:01:29,339 - lightrag - INFO - Document processing pipeline completed
+2025-06-25 14:01:29,347 - lightrag - INFO - Stored 1 new unique documents
+2025-06-25 14:01:29,348 - lightrag - INFO - Processing 2 document(s)
+2025-06-25 14:01:29,348 - lightrag - INFO - Document processing pipeline completed
diff --git a/log/lightrag_err.log b/log/lightrag_err.log
new file mode 100644
index 0000000000000000000000000000000000000000..29690ada2dac12c422ca19688bae0a64ba8558e9
--- /dev/null
+++ b/log/lightrag_err.log
@@ -0,0 +1,1546 @@
+[21Jun25]
+_llm_model_func: Error while initialising model: RetryError[]
+ Successfully indexed 2 markdown files.
+
+[18Jun25]
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 189, in async_wrapped
+ return await copy(fn, *args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 111, in __call__
+ do = await self.iter(retry_state=retry_state)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 153, in iter
+ result = await action(retry_state)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\_utils.py", line 99, in inner
+ return call(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\__init__.py", line 421, in exc_check
+ raise retry_exc from fut.exception()
+tenacity.RetryError: RetryError[]
+
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+limit_async: Error in decorated function: RetryError[]
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+limit_async: Error in decorated function: RetryError[]
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+limit_async: Error in decorated function: RetryError[]
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+limit_async: Error in decorated function: RetryError[]
+Failed to extract entities and relationships: RetryError[]
+Failed to extrat document doc-ef0cd77646808f710c155866c8180354: Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 114, in __call__
+ result = await fn(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\llm\openai.py", line 271, in openai_complete_if_cache
+ raise InvalidResponseError("Invalid response from OpenAI API")
+lightrag.llm.openai.InvalidResponseError: Invalid response from OpenAI API
+
+The above exception was the direct cause of the following exception:
+
+Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 990, in process_document
+ await asyncio.gather(*tasks)
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 1168, in _process_entity_relation_graph
+ raise e
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 1154, in _process_entity_relation_graph
+ chunk_results = await extract_entities(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 832, in extract_entities
+ raise task.exception()
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 808, in _process_with_semaphore
+ return await _process_single_content(chunk)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 733, in _process_single_content
+ final_result = await use_llm_func_with_cache(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 1614, in use_llm_func_with_cache
+ res: str = await use_llm_func(input_text, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 544, in wait_func
+ return await future
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 328, in worker
+ result = await func(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\app_gradio_lightrag.py", line 133, in _llm_model_func
+ return await openai_complete_if_cache(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 189, in async_wrapped
+ return await copy(fn, *args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 111, in __call__
+ do = await self.iter(retry_state=retry_state)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 153, in iter
+ result = await action(retry_state)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\_utils.py", line 99, in inner
+ return call(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\__init__.py", line 421, in exc_check
+ raise retry_exc from fut.exception()
+tenacity.RetryError: RetryError[]
+
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+limit_async: Error in decorated function: RetryError[]
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+limit_async: Error in decorated function: RetryError[]
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+limit_async: Error in decorated function: RetryError[]
+Failed to extract entities and relationships: RetryError[]
+Failed to extrat document doc-ffbfdfc92426ea7b0a437555f6066a1f: Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 114, in __call__
+ result = await fn(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\llm\openai.py", line 271, in openai_complete_if_cache
+ raise InvalidResponseError("Invalid response from OpenAI API")
+lightrag.llm.openai.InvalidResponseError: Invalid response from OpenAI API
+
+The above exception was the direct cause of the following exception:
+
+Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 990, in process_document
+ await asyncio.gather(*tasks)
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 1168, in _process_entity_relation_graph
+ raise e
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 1154, in _process_entity_relation_graph
+ chunk_results = await extract_entities(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 832, in extract_entities
+ raise task.exception()
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 808, in _process_with_semaphore
+ return await _process_single_content(chunk)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 733, in _process_single_content
+ final_result = await use_llm_func_with_cache(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 1614, in use_llm_func_with_cache
+ res: str = await use_llm_func(input_text, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 544, in wait_func
+ return await future
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 328, in worker
+ result = await func(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\app_gradio_lightrag.py", line 133, in _llm_model_func
+ return await openai_complete_if_cache(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 189, in async_wrapped
+ return await copy(fn, *args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 111, in __call__
+ do = await self.iter(retry_state=retry_state)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 153, in iter
+ result = await action(retry_state)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\_utils.py", line 99, in inner
+ return call(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\__init__.py", line 421, in exc_check
+ raise retry_exc from fut.exception()
+tenacity.RetryError: RetryError[]
+
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+limit_async: Error in decorated function: RetryError[]
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+limit_async: Error in decorated function: RetryError[]
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+limit_async: Error in decorated function: RetryError[]
+Failed to extract entities and relationships: RetryError[]
+Failed to extrat document doc-f489721a8973148eab8fdfd0931a49fe: Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 114, in __call__
+ result = await fn(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\llm\openai.py", line 271, in openai_complete_if_cache
+ raise InvalidResponseError("Invalid response from OpenAI API")
+lightrag.llm.openai.InvalidResponseError: Invalid response from OpenAI API
+
+The above exception was the direct cause of the following exception:
+
+Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 990, in process_document
+ await asyncio.gather(*tasks)
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 1168, in _process_entity_relation_graph
+ raise e
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 1154, in _process_entity_relation_graph
+ chunk_results = await extract_entities(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 832, in extract_entities
+ raise task.exception()
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 808, in _process_with_semaphore
+ return await _process_single_content(chunk)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 733, in _process_single_content
+ final_result = await use_llm_func_with_cache(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 1614, in use_llm_func_with_cache
+ res: str = await use_llm_func(input_text, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 544, in wait_func
+ return await future
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 328, in worker
+ result = await func(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\app_gradio_lightrag.py", line 133, in _llm_model_func
+ return await openai_complete_if_cache(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 189, in async_wrapped
+ return await copy(fn, *args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 111, in __call__
+ do = await self.iter(retry_state=retry_state)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 153, in iter
+ result = await action(retry_state)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\_utils.py", line 99, in inner
+ return call(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\__init__.py", line 421, in exc_check
+ raise retry_exc from fut.exception()
+tenacity.RetryError: RetryError[]
+
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+limit_async: Error in decorated function: RetryError[]
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+limit_async: Error in decorated function: RetryError[]
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+limit_async: Error in decorated function: RetryError[]
+Failed to extract entities and relationships: RetryError[]
+Failed to extrat document doc-8df300e1a1180c2396364be49e925a16: Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 114, in __call__
+ result = await fn(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\llm\openai.py", line 271, in openai_complete_if_cache
+ raise InvalidResponseError("Invalid response from OpenAI API")
+lightrag.llm.openai.InvalidResponseError: Invalid response from OpenAI API
+
+The above exception was the direct cause of the following exception:
+
+Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 990, in process_document
+ await asyncio.gather(*tasks)
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 1168, in _process_entity_relation_graph
+ raise e
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 1154, in _process_entity_relation_graph
+ chunk_results = await extract_entities(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 832, in extract_entities
+ raise task.exception()
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 808, in _process_with_semaphore
+ return await _process_single_content(chunk)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 733, in _process_single_content
+ final_result = await use_llm_func_with_cache(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 1614, in use_llm_func_with_cache
+ res: str = await use_llm_func(input_text, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 544, in wait_func
+ return await future
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 328, in worker
+ result = await func(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\app_gradio_lightrag.py", line 133, in _llm_model_func
+ return await openai_complete_if_cache(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 189, in async_wrapped
+ return await copy(fn, *args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 111, in __call__
+ do = await self.iter(retry_state=retry_state)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 153, in iter
+ result = await action(retry_state)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\_utils.py", line 99, in inner
+ return call(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\__init__.py", line 421, in exc_check
+ raise retry_exc from fut.exception()
+tenacity.RetryError: RetryError[]
+
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+INFO:openai._base_client:Retrying request to /embeddings in 0.422294 seconds
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+limit_async: Error in decorated function: RetryError[]
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+limit_async: Error in decorated function: RetryError[]
+Failed to extract entities and relationships: RetryError[]
+Failed to extrat document doc-a97b8af842e5d53b5c7360718cfd0641: Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 114, in __call__
+ result = await fn(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\llm\openai.py", line 271, in openai_complete_if_cache
+ raise InvalidResponseError("Invalid response from OpenAI API")
+lightrag.llm.openai.InvalidResponseError: Invalid response from OpenAI API
+
+The above exception was the direct cause of the following exception:
+
+Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 990, in process_document
+ await asyncio.gather(*tasks)
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 1168, in _process_entity_relation_graph
+ raise e
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 1154, in _process_entity_relation_graph
+ chunk_results = await extract_entities(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 832, in extract_entities
+ raise task.exception()
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 808, in _process_with_semaphore
+ return await _process_single_content(chunk)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 733, in _process_single_content
+ final_result = await use_llm_func_with_cache(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 1614, in use_llm_func_with_cache
+ res: str = await use_llm_func(input_text, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 544, in wait_func
+ return await future
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 328, in worker
+ result = await func(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\app_gradio_lightrag.py", line 133, in _llm_model_func
+ return await openai_complete_if_cache(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 189, in async_wrapped
+ return await copy(fn, *args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 111, in __call__
+ do = await self.iter(retry_state=retry_state)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 153, in iter
+ result = await action(retry_state)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\_utils.py", line 99, in inner
+ return call(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\__init__.py", line 421, in exc_check
+ raise retry_exc from fut.exception()
+tenacity.RetryError: RetryError[]
+
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+limit_async: Error in decorated function: RetryError[]
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+INFO:openai._base_client:Retrying request to /embeddings in 0.499549 seconds
+INFO:openai._base_client:Retrying request to /embeddings in 0.769309 seconds
+INFO:openai._base_client:Retrying request to /chat/completions in 0.419234 seconds
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+INFO:openai._base_client:Retrying request to /chat/completions in 0.420988 seconds
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+limit_async: Error in decorated function: RetryError[]
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+INFO:openai._base_client:Retrying request to /embeddings in 0.379338 seconds
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+limit_async: Error in decorated function: RetryError[]
+Failed to extract entities and relationships: RetryError[]
+Failed to extrat document doc-9eadb646c4355417caddb6475cfaf814: Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 114, in __call__
+ result = await fn(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\llm\openai.py", line 271, in openai_complete_if_cache
+ raise InvalidResponseError("Invalid response from OpenAI API")
+lightrag.llm.openai.InvalidResponseError: Invalid response from OpenAI API
+
+The above exception was the direct cause of the following exception:
+
+Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 990, in process_document
+ await asyncio.gather(*tasks)
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 1168, in _process_entity_relation_graph
+ raise e
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 1154, in _process_entity_relation_graph
+ chunk_results = await extract_entities(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 832, in extract_entities
+ raise task.exception()
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 808, in _process_with_semaphore
+ return await _process_single_content(chunk)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 733, in _process_single_content
+ final_result = await use_llm_func_with_cache(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 1614, in use_llm_func_with_cache
+ res: str = await use_llm_func(input_text, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 544, in wait_func
+ return await future
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 328, in worker
+ result = await func(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\app_gradio_lightrag.py", line 133, in _llm_model_func
+ return await openai_complete_if_cache(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 189, in async_wrapped
+ return await copy(fn, *args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 111, in __call__
+ do = await self.iter(retry_state=retry_state)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 153, in iter
+ result = await action(retry_state)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\_utils.py", line 99, in inner
+ return call(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\__init__.py", line 421, in exc_check
+ raise retry_exc from fut.exception()
+tenacity.RetryError: RetryError[]
+
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+limit_async: Error in decorated function: RetryError[]
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+INFO:openai._base_client:Retrying request to /chat/completions in 0.410176 seconds
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+INFO:openai._base_client:Retrying request to /embeddings in 0.853570 seconds
+INFO:openai._base_client:Retrying request to /chat/completions in 0.376756 seconds
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+limit_async: Error in decorated function: RetryError[]
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+limit_async: Error in decorated function: RetryError[]
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+limit_async: Error in decorated function: RetryError[]
+Failed to extract entities and relationships: RetryError[]
+Failed to extrat document doc-f9d967c53e9f2e581334ed9428bde6ca: Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 114, in __call__
+ result = await fn(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\llm\openai.py", line 271, in openai_complete_if_cache
+ raise InvalidResponseError("Invalid response from OpenAI API")
+lightrag.llm.openai.InvalidResponseError: Invalid response from OpenAI API
+
+The above exception was the direct cause of the following exception:
+
+Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 990, in process_document
+ await asyncio.gather(*tasks)
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 1168, in _process_entity_relation_graph
+ raise e
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 1154, in _process_entity_relation_graph
+ chunk_results = await extract_entities(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 832, in extract_entities
+ raise task.exception()
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 808, in _process_with_semaphore
+ return await _process_single_content(chunk)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 733, in _process_single_content
+ final_result = await use_llm_func_with_cache(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 1614, in use_llm_func_with_cache
+ res: str = await use_llm_func(input_text, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 544, in wait_func
+ return await future
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 328, in worker
+ result = await func(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\app_gradio_lightrag.py", line 133, in _llm_model_func
+ return await openai_complete_if_cache(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 189, in async_wrapped
+ return await copy(fn, *args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 111, in __call__
+ do = await self.iter(retry_state=retry_state)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 153, in iter
+ result = await action(retry_state)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\_utils.py", line 99, in inner
+ return call(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\__init__.py", line 421, in exc_check
+ raise retry_exc from fut.exception()
+tenacity.RetryError: RetryError[]
+
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+limit_async: Error in decorated function: RetryError[]
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+limit_async: Error in decorated function: RetryError[]
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+limit_async: Error in decorated function: RetryError[]
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+limit_async: Error in decorated function: RetryError[]
+Failed to extract entities and relationships: RetryError[]
+Failed to extrat document doc-f8b2dca12f2fd13fb6f027fa1b0e5981: Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 114, in __call__
+ result = await fn(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\llm\openai.py", line 271, in openai_complete_if_cache
+ raise InvalidResponseError("Invalid response from OpenAI API")
+lightrag.llm.openai.InvalidResponseError: Invalid response from OpenAI API
+
+The above exception was the direct cause of the following exception:
+
+Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 990, in process_document
+ await asyncio.gather(*tasks)
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 1168, in _process_entity_relation_graph
+ raise e
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 1154, in _process_entity_relation_graph
+ chunk_results = await extract_entities(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 832, in extract_entities
+ raise task.exception()
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 808, in _process_with_semaphore
+ return await _process_single_content(chunk)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 748, in _process_single_content
+ glean_result = await use_llm_func_with_cache(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 1614, in use_llm_func_with_cache
+ res: str = await use_llm_func(input_text, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 544, in wait_func
+ return await future
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 328, in worker
+ result = await func(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\app_gradio_lightrag.py", line 133, in _llm_model_func
+ return await openai_complete_if_cache(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 189, in async_wrapped
+ return await copy(fn, *args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 111, in __call__
+ do = await self.iter(retry_state=retry_state)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 153, in iter
+ result = await action(retry_state)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\_utils.py", line 99, in inner
+ return call(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\__init__.py", line 421, in exc_check
+ raise retry_exc from fut.exception()
+tenacity.RetryError: RetryError[]
+
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+limit_async: Error in decorated function: RetryError[]
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+limit_async: Error in decorated function: RetryError[]
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+limit_async: Error in decorated function: RetryError[]
+Failed to extract entities and relationships: RetryError[]
+Failed to extrat document doc-8d9f1c2154bc03d13ad2583ff23573d5: Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 114, in __call__
+ result = await fn(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\llm\openai.py", line 271, in openai_complete_if_cache
+ raise InvalidResponseError("Invalid response from OpenAI API")
+lightrag.llm.openai.InvalidResponseError: Invalid response from OpenAI API
+
+The above exception was the direct cause of the following exception:
+
+Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 990, in process_document
+ await asyncio.gather(*tasks)
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 1168, in _process_entity_relation_graph
+ raise e
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 1154, in _process_entity_relation_graph
+ chunk_results = await extract_entities(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 832, in extract_entities
+ raise task.exception()
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 808, in _process_with_semaphore
+ return await _process_single_content(chunk)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 733, in _process_single_content
+ final_result = await use_llm_func_with_cache(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 1614, in use_llm_func_with_cache
+ res: str = await use_llm_func(input_text, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 544, in wait_func
+ return await future
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 328, in worker
+ result = await func(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\app_gradio_lightrag.py", line 133, in _llm_model_func
+ return await openai_complete_if_cache(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 189, in async_wrapped
+ return await copy(fn, *args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 111, in __call__
+ do = await self.iter(retry_state=retry_state)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 153, in iter
+ result = await action(retry_state)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\_utils.py", line 99, in inner
+ return call(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\__init__.py", line 421, in exc_check
+ raise retry_exc from fut.exception()
+tenacity.RetryError: RetryError[]
+
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+limit_async: Error in decorated function: RetryError[]
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+limit_async: Error in decorated function: RetryError[]
+Failed to extract entities and relationships: RetryError[]
+Failed to extrat document doc-f1107827ac6a5ba31fa7c6b221694515: Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 114, in __call__
+ result = await fn(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\llm\openai.py", line 271, in openai_complete_if_cache
+ raise InvalidResponseError("Invalid response from OpenAI API")
+lightrag.llm.openai.InvalidResponseError: Invalid response from OpenAI API
+
+The above exception was the direct cause of the following exception:
+
+Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 990, in process_document
+ await asyncio.gather(*tasks)
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 1168, in _process_entity_relation_graph
+ raise e
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 1154, in _process_entity_relation_graph
+ chunk_results = await extract_entities(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 832, in extract_entities
+ raise task.exception()
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 808, in _process_with_semaphore
+ return await _process_single_content(chunk)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 748, in _process_single_content
+ glean_result = await use_llm_func_with_cache(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 1614, in use_llm_func_with_cache
+ res: str = await use_llm_func(input_text, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 544, in wait_func
+ return await future
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 328, in worker
+ result = await func(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\app_gradio_lightrag.py", line 133, in _llm_model_func
+ return await openai_complete_if_cache(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 189, in async_wrapped
+ return await copy(fn, *args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 111, in __call__
+ do = await self.iter(retry_state=retry_state)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 153, in iter
+ result = await action(retry_state)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\_utils.py", line 99, in inner
+ return call(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\__init__.py", line 421, in exc_check
+ raise retry_exc from fut.exception()
+tenacity.RetryError: RetryError[]
+
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+limit_async: Error in decorated function: RetryError[]
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+INFO:openai._base_client:Retrying request to /chat/completions in 0.472093 seconds
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+limit_async: Error in decorated function: RetryError[]
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+INFO:openai._base_client:Retrying request to /embeddings in 0.858953 seconds
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+limit_async: Error in decorated function: RetryError[]
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+limit_async: Error in decorated function: RetryError[]
+Failed to extract entities and relationships: RetryError[]
+Failed to extrat document doc-026b7401b78dc555787846c71557a304: Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 114, in __call__
+ result = await fn(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\llm\openai.py", line 271, in openai_complete_if_cache
+ raise InvalidResponseError("Invalid response from OpenAI API")
+lightrag.llm.openai.InvalidResponseError: Invalid response from OpenAI API
+
+The above exception was the direct cause of the following exception:
+
+Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 990, in process_document
+ await asyncio.gather(*tasks)
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 1168, in _process_entity_relation_graph
+ raise e
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 1154, in _process_entity_relation_graph
+ chunk_results = await extract_entities(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 832, in extract_entities
+ raise task.exception()
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 808, in _process_with_semaphore
+ return await _process_single_content(chunk)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 733, in _process_single_content
+ final_result = await use_llm_func_with_cache(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 1614, in use_llm_func_with_cache
+ res: str = await use_llm_func(input_text, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 544, in wait_func
+ return await future
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 328, in worker
+ result = await func(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\app_gradio_lightrag.py", line 133, in _llm_model_func
+ return await openai_complete_if_cache(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 189, in async_wrapped
+ return await copy(fn, *args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 111, in __call__
+ do = await self.iter(retry_state=retry_state)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 153, in iter
+ result = await action(retry_state)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\_utils.py", line 99, in inner
+ return call(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\__init__.py", line 421, in exc_check
+ raise retry_exc from fut.exception()
+tenacity.RetryError: RetryError[]
+
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+limit_async: Error in decorated function: RetryError[]
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+limit_async: Error in decorated function: RetryError[]
+Failed to extract entities and relationships: RetryError[]
+Failed to extrat document doc-89770f1fb5ecf790f77e1bed87947716: Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 114, in __call__
+ result = await fn(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\llm\openai.py", line 271, in openai_complete_if_cache
+ raise InvalidResponseError("Invalid response from OpenAI API")
+lightrag.llm.openai.InvalidResponseError: Invalid response from OpenAI API
+
+The above exception was the direct cause of the following exception:
+
+Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 990, in process_document
+ await asyncio.gather(*tasks)
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 1168, in _process_entity_relation_graph
+ raise e
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 1154, in _process_entity_relation_graph
+ chunk_results = await extract_entities(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 832, in extract_entities
+ raise task.exception()
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 808, in _process_with_semaphore
+ return await _process_single_content(chunk)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 733, in _process_single_content
+ final_result = await use_llm_func_with_cache(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 1614, in use_llm_func_with_cache
+ res: str = await use_llm_func(input_text, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 544, in wait_func
+ return await future
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 328, in worker
+ result = await func(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\app_gradio_lightrag.py", line 133, in _llm_model_func
+ return await openai_complete_if_cache(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 189, in async_wrapped
+ return await copy(fn, *args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 111, in __call__
+ do = await self.iter(retry_state=retry_state)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 153, in iter
+ result = await action(retry_state)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\_utils.py", line 99, in inner
+ return call(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\__init__.py", line 421, in exc_check
+ raise retry_exc from fut.exception()
+tenacity.RetryError: RetryError[]
+
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+INFO:openai._base_client:Retrying request to /embeddings in 0.499504 seconds
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+limit_async: Error in decorated function: RetryError[]
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+INFO:openai._base_client:Retrying request to /embeddings in 0.968772 seconds
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+limit_async: Error in decorated function: RetryError[]
+Failed to extract entities and relationships: RetryError[]
+Failed to extrat document doc-ecf1f949b3adbba5fc3f6c1b8170449d: Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 114, in __call__
+ result = await fn(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\llm\openai.py", line 271, in openai_complete_if_cache
+ raise InvalidResponseError("Invalid response from OpenAI API")
+lightrag.llm.openai.InvalidResponseError: Invalid response from OpenAI API
+
+The above exception was the direct cause of the following exception:
+
+Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 990, in process_document
+ await asyncio.gather(*tasks)
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 1168, in _process_entity_relation_graph
+ raise e
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 1154, in _process_entity_relation_graph
+ chunk_results = await extract_entities(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 832, in extract_entities
+ raise task.exception()
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 808, in _process_with_semaphore
+ return await _process_single_content(chunk)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 733, in _process_single_content
+ final_result = await use_llm_func_with_cache(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 1614, in use_llm_func_with_cache
+ res: str = await use_llm_func(input_text, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 544, in wait_func
+ return await future
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 328, in worker
+ result = await func(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\app_gradio_lightrag.py", line 133, in _llm_model_func
+ return await openai_complete_if_cache(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 189, in async_wrapped
+ return await copy(fn, *args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 111, in __call__
+ do = await self.iter(retry_state=retry_state)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 153, in iter
+ result = await action(retry_state)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\_utils.py", line 99, in inner
+ return call(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\__init__.py", line 421, in exc_check
+ raise retry_exc from fut.exception()
+tenacity.RetryError: RetryError[]
+
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+limit_async: Error in decorated function: RetryError[]
+Invalid response from OpenAI API
+INFO:openai._base_client:Retrying request to /chat/completions in 0.495195 seconds
+Keyboard interruption in main thread... closing server.
+Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\Python\Python312\Lib\asyncio\runners.py", line 118, in run
+ return self._loop.run_until_complete(task)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\Python\Python312\Lib\asyncio\base_events.py", line 687, in run_until_complete
+ return future.result()
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+asyncio.exceptions.CancelledError
+
+During handling of the above exception, another exception occurred:
+
+Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\app_gradio_lightrag.py", line 532, in
+ asyncio.run(main())
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\Python\Python312\Lib\asyncio\runners.py", line 194, in run
+ return runner.run(main)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\Python\Python312\Lib\asyncio\runners.py", line 123, in run
+ raise KeyboardInterrupt()
+KeyboardInterrupt
+
+(minirag)
+user@DESKTOP-P41D8C3 MINGW64 C:/Users/user/AppData/Local/Programs/cursor
+$
+
+
+[13May25]
+Working directory exists: ./working_folder
+LightRAG(working_dir='./working_folder', kv_storage='JsonKVStorage', vector_storage='NanoVectorDBStorage', graph_storage='NetworkXStorage', doc_status_storage='JsonDocStatusStorage', log_level=None, log_file_path=None, entity_extract_max_gleaning=1, summary_to_max_tokens=500, force_llm_summary_on_merge=6, chunk_token_size=1200, chunk_overlap_token_size=100, tokenizer=, tiktoken_model_name='gpt-4o-mini', chunking_func=, embedding_func=.final_decro..wait_func at 0x0000027031FFF1A0>, embedding_batch_num=32, embedding_func_max_async=16, embedding_cache_config={'enabled': False, 'similarity_threshold': 0.95, 'use_llm_check': False}, llm_model_func=.final_decro..wait_func at 0x0000027031E16480>, llm_model_name='gpt-4o-mini', llm_model_max_token_size=32768, llm_model_max_async=4, llm_model_kwargs={}, vector_db_storage_cls_kwargs={'cosine_better_than_threshold': 0.2}, namespace_prefix='', enable_llm_cache=True, enable_llm_cache_for_entity_extract=True, max_parallel_insert=2, addon_params={'language': 'English'}, auto_manage_storages_states=True, convert_response_to_json_func=, cosine_better_than_threshold=0.2, _storages_status=)
+ Initialised LightRAG with OpenAI backend
+
+[13May25]
+OpenAI API Call Failed,
+Model: Qwen3-4B-UD-Q8_K_XL_unsloth_May25,
+Params: {}, Got:
+404 Not Found
+
+
404 Not Found
+
drogon/1.9.7
+
+
+
+
+
+
+
+
+limit_async: Error in decorated function:
+404 Not Found
+
+
404 Not Found
+
drogon/1.9.7
+
+
+
+
+
+
+
+
+INFO:openai._base_client:Retrying request to /embeddings in 0.968874 seconds
+INFO:openai._base_client:Retrying request to /embeddings in 0.782456 seconds
+OpenAI API Call Failed,
+Model: Qwen3-4B-UD-Q8_K_XL_unsloth_May25,
+Params: {}, Got:
+404 Not Found
+
+
404 Not Found
+
drogon/1.9.7
+
+
+[12May25]
+_get_llm_functions error: object method can't be used in 'await' expression
+ LightRAG initialisation.setup: cannot get llm and embed functions | object method can't be used in 'await' expression
+ LightRAG initialisation.setup failed | cannot access local variable 'llm_model_func' where it is not associated with a value
+Storage initialisation failed: 'NoneType' object has no attribute 'initialize_storages'
+ Initialised LightRAG with OpenAI backend
+
+[12May25]
+Working directory exists: ./working_folder
+LightRAG(working_dir='./working_folder', kv_storage='JsonKVStorage', vector_storage='NanoVectorDBStorage', graph_storage='NetworkXStorage', doc_status_storage='JsonDocStatusStorage', log_level=None, log_file_path=None, entity_extract_max_gleaning=1, summary_to_max_tokens=500, force_llm_summary_on_merge=6, chunk_token_size=1200, chunk_overlap_token_size=100, tokenizer=, tiktoken_model_name='gpt-4o-mini', chunking_func=, embedding_func=.final_decro..wait_func at 0x000001BBF374A020>, embedding_batch_num=32, embedding_func_max_async=16, embedding_cache_config={'enabled': False, 'similarity_threshold': 0.95, 'use_llm_check': False}, llm_model_func=.final_decro..wait_func at 0x000001BBF2F967A0>, llm_model_name='gpt-4o-mini', llm_model_max_token_size=32768, llm_model_max_async=4, llm_model_kwargs={}, vector_db_storage_cls_kwargs={'cosine_better_than_threshold': 0.2}, namespace_prefix='', enable_llm_cache=True, enable_llm_cache_for_entity_extract=True, max_parallel_insert=2, addon_params={'language': 'English'}, auto_manage_storages_states=True, convert_response_to_json_func=, cosine_better_than_threshold=0.2, _storages_status=)
+ Initialised LightRAG with OpenAI backend
+
+[12May25]
+$ gradio app_gradio_lightrag.py --demo-name=gradio_ui
+Watching: 'C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag' 'C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag'
+
+2025-05-12 20:28:17 - pipmaster.package_manager - INFO - Targeting pip associated with Python: C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Scripts\python.exe | Command base: C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Scripts\python.exe -m pip
+* Running on local URL: http://127.0.0.1:7860
+* To create a public link, set `share=True` in `launch()`.
+Detected embedding dimension: 3072
+INFO: Process 23636 Shared-Data created for Single Process
+INFO:nano-vectordb:Init {'embedding_dim': 3072, 'metric': 'cosine', 'storage_file': './working_folder\\vdb_entities.json'} 0 data
+INFO:nano-vectordb:Init {'embedding_dim': 3072, 'metric': 'cosine', 'storage_file': './working_folder\\vdb_relationships.json'} 0 data
+INFO:nano-vectordb:Init {'embedding_dim': 3072, 'metric': 'cosine', 'storage_file': './working_folder\\vdb_chunks.json'} 0 data
+INFO: Process 23636 initialized updated flags for namespace: [full_docs]
+INFO: Process 23636 ready to initialize storage namespace: [full_docs]
+INFO: Process 23636 initialized updated flags for namespace: [text_chunks]
+INFO: Process 23636 ready to initialize storage namespace: [text_chunks]
+INFO: Process 23636 initialized updated flags for namespace: [entities]
+INFO: Process 23636 initialized updated flags for namespace: [relationships]
+INFO: Process 23636 initialized updated flags for namespace: [chunks]
+INFO: Process 23636 initialized updated flags for namespace: [chunk_entity_relation]
+INFO: Process 23636 initialized updated flags for namespace: [llm_response_cache]
+INFO: Process 23636 ready to initialize storage namespace: [llm_response_cache]
+INFO: Process 23636 initialized updated flags for namespace: [doc_status]
+INFO: Process 23636 ready to initialize storage namespace: [doc_status]
+INFO: Process 23636 storage namespace already initialized: [full_docs]
+INFO: Process 23636 storage namespace already initialized: [text_chunks]
+INFO: Process 23636 storage namespace already initialized: [llm_response_cache]
+INFO: Process 23636 storage namespace already initialized: [doc_status]
+INFO: Process 23636 Pipeline namespace initialized
+
+[12May25]
+$ python app_gradio_lightrag.py
+2025-05-12 20:48:59 - pipmaster.package_manager - INFO - Targeting pip associated with Python: C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Scripts\python.exe | Command base: C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Scripts\python.exe -m pip
+* Running on local URL: http://127.0.0.1:7860
+* To create a public link, set `share=True` in `launch()`.
+Detected embedding dimension: 3072
+INFO: Process 25976 Shared-Data created for Single Process
+INFO:nano-vectordb:Init {'embedding_dim': 3072, 'metric': 'cosine', 'storage_file': './working_folder\\vdb_entities.json'} 0 data
+INFO:nano-vectordb:Init {'embedding_dim': 3072, 'metric': 'cosine', 'storage_file': './working_folder\\vdb_relationships.json'} 0 data
+INFO:nano-vectordb:Init {'embedding_dim': 3072, 'metric': 'cosine', 'storage_file': './working_folder\\vdb_chunks.json'} 0 data
+INFO: Process 25976 initialized updated flags for namespace: [full_docs]
+INFO: Process 25976 ready to initialize storage namespace: [full_docs]
+INFO: Process 25976 initialized updated flags for namespace: [text_chunks]
+INFO: Process 25976 ready to initialize storage namespace: [text_chunks]
+INFO: Process 25976 initialized updated flags for namespace: [entities]
+INFO: Process 25976 initialized updated flags for namespace: [relationships]
+INFO: Process 25976 initialized updated flags for namespace: [chunks]
+INFO: Process 25976 initialized updated flags for namespace: [chunk_entity_relation]
+INFO: Process 25976 initialized updated flags for namespace: [llm_response_cache]
+INFO: Process 25976 ready to initialize storage namespace: [llm_response_cache]
+INFO: Process 25976 initialized updated flags for namespace: [doc_status]
+INFO: Process 25976 ready to initialize storage namespace: [doc_status]
+INFO: Process 25976 storage namespace already initialized: [full_docs]
+INFO: Process 25976 storage namespace already initialized: [text_chunks]
+INFO: Process 25976 storage namespace already initialized: [llm_response_cache]
+INFO: Process 25976 storage namespace already initialized: [doc_status]
+INFO: Process 25976 Pipeline namespace initialized
+INFO:openai._base_client:Retrying request to /embeddings in 0.444122 seconds
+INFO:openai._base_client:Retrying request to /embeddings in 0.387192 seconds
+INFO:openai._base_client:Retrying request to /embeddings in 0.945424 seconds
+INFO:openai._base_client:Retrying request to /embeddings in 0.753207 seconds
+INFO:openai._base_client:Retrying request to /embeddings in 0.402369 seconds
+INFO:openai._base_client:Retrying request to /embeddings in 0.377865 seconds
+INFO:openai._base_client:Retrying request to /embeddings in 0.992666 seconds
+INFO:openai._base_client:Retrying request to /embeddings in 0.892123 seconds
+INFO:openai._base_client:Retrying request to /embeddings in 0.437740 seconds
+INFO:openai._base_client:Retrying request to /embeddings in 0.412989 seconds
+INFO:openai._base_client:Retrying request to /embeddings in 0.954484 seconds
+INFO:openai._base_client:Retrying request to /embeddings in 0.778560 seconds
+limit_async: Error in decorated function: RetryError[]
+Failed to extrat document doc-f8b2dca12f2fd13fb6f027fa1b0e5981: Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 114, in __call__
+ result = await fn(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\llm\openai.py", line 424, in openai_embed
+ response = await openai_async_client.embeddings.create(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\openai\resources\embeddings.py", line 243, in create
+ return await self._post(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\openai\_base_client.py", line 1742, in post
+ return await self.request(cast_to, opts, stream=stream, stream_cls=stream_cls)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\openai\_base_client.py", line 1549, in request
+ raise self._make_status_error_from_response(err.response) from None
+openai.RateLimitError: Error code: 429 - {'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'Resource has been exhausted (e.g. check quota).', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED'}}
+
+The above exception was the direct cause of the following exception:
+
+Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 990, in process_document
+ await asyncio.gather(*tasks)
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\kg\nano_vector_db_impl.py", line 109, in upsert
+ embeddings_list = await asyncio.gather(*embedding_tasks)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 544, in wait_func
+ return await future
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 328, in worker
+ result = await func(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 203, in __call__
+ return await self.func(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\app_gradio_lightrag.py", line 82, in _embedding_func
+ return await openai_embed(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 203, in __call__
+ return await self.func(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 189, in async_wrapped
+ return await copy(fn, *args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 111, in __call__
+ do = await self.iter(retry_state=retry_state)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 153, in iter
+ result = await action(retry_state)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\_utils.py", line 99, in inner
+ return call(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\__init__.py", line 421, in exc_check
+ raise retry_exc from fut.exception()
+tenacity.RetryError: RetryError[]
+
+limit_async: Error in decorated function: RetryError[]
+Failed to extrat document doc-8d9f1c2154bc03d13ad2583ff23573d5: Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 114, in __call__
+ result = await fn(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\llm\openai.py", line 424, in openai_embed
+ response = await openai_async_client.embeddings.create(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\openai\resources\embeddings.py", line 243, in create
+ return await self._post(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\openai\_base_client.py", line 1742, in post
+ return await self.request(cast_to, opts, stream=stream, stream_cls=stream_cls)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\openai\_base_client.py", line 1549, in request
+ raise self._make_status_error_from_response(err.response) from None
+openai.RateLimitError: Error code: 429 - {'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'Resource has been exhausted (e.g. check quota).', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED'}}
+
+The above exception was the direct cause of the following exception:
+
+Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 990, in process_document
+ await asyncio.gather(*tasks)
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\kg\nano_vector_db_impl.py", line 109, in upsert
+ embeddings_list = await asyncio.gather(*embedding_tasks)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 544, in wait_func
+ return await future
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 328, in worker
+ result = await func(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 203, in __call__
+ return await self.func(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\app_gradio_lightrag.py", line 82, in _embedding_func
+ return await openai_embed(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 203, in __call__
+ return await self.func(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 189, in async_wrapped
+ return await copy(fn, *args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 111, in __call__
+ do = await self.iter(retry_state=retry_state)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 153, in iter
+ result = await action(retry_state)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\_utils.py", line 99, in inner
+ return call(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\__init__.py", line 421, in exc_check
+ raise retry_exc from fut.exception()
+tenacity.RetryError: RetryError[]
+
+INFO:openai._base_client:Retrying request to /embeddings in 0.377104 seconds
+INFO:openai._base_client:Retrying request to /embeddings in 0.969911 seconds
+INFO:openai._base_client:Retrying request to /embeddings in 0.416929 seconds
+INFO:openai._base_client:Retrying request to /embeddings in 0.855646 seconds
+INFO:openai._base_client:Retrying request to /embeddings in 0.486038 seconds
+INFO:openai._base_client:Retrying request to /embeddings in 0.945631 seconds
+limit_async: Error in decorated function: RetryError[]
+Failed to extrat document doc-f1107827ac6a5ba31fa7c6b221694515: Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 114, in __call__
+ result = await fn(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\llm\openai.py", line 424, in openai_embed
+ response = await openai_async_client.embeddings.create(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\openai\resources\embeddings.py", line 243, in create
+ return await self._post(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\openai\_base_client.py", line 1742, in post
+ return await self.request(cast_to, opts, stream=stream, stream_cls=stream_cls)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\openai\_base_client.py", line 1549, in request
+ raise self._make_status_error_from_response(err.response) from None
+openai.RateLimitError: Error code: 429 - {'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'Resource has been exhausted (e.g. check quota).', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED'}}
+
+The above exception was the direct cause of the following exception:
+
+Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 990, in process_document
+ await asyncio.gather(*tasks)
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\kg\nano_vector_db_impl.py", line 109, in upsert
+ embeddings_list = await asyncio.gather(*embedding_tasks)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 544, in wait_func
+ return await future
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 328, in worker
+ result = await func(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 203, in __call__
+ return await self.func(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\app_gradio_lightrag.py", line 82, in _embedding_func
+ return await openai_embed(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 203, in __call__
+ return await self.func(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 189, in async_wrapped
+ return await copy(fn, *args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 111, in __call__
+ do = await self.iter(retry_state=retry_state)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 153, in iter
+ result = await action(retry_state)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\_utils.py", line 99, in inner
+ return call(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\__init__.py", line 421, in exc_check
+ raise retry_exc from fut.exception()
+tenacity.RetryError: RetryError[]
+
+INFO:openai._base_client:Retrying request to /embeddings in 0.498232 seconds
+INFO:openai._base_client:Retrying request to /embeddings in 0.755672 seconds
+INFO:openai._base_client:Retrying request to /embeddings in 0.446166 seconds
+INFO:openai._base_client:Retrying request to /embeddings in 0.931705 seconds
+INFO:openai._base_client:Retrying request to /embeddings in 0.436989 seconds
+INFO:openai._base_client:Retrying request to /embeddings in 0.935155 seconds
+limit_async: Error in decorated function: RetryError[]
+Failed to extrat document doc-89770f1fb5ecf790f77e1bed87947716: Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 114, in __call__
+ result = await fn(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\llm\openai.py", line 424, in openai_embed
+ response = await openai_async_client.embeddings.create(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\openai\resources\embeddings.py", line 243, in create
+ return await self._post(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\openai\_base_client.py", line 1742, in post
+ return await self.request(cast_to, opts, stream=stream, stream_cls=stream_cls)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\openai\_base_client.py", line 1549, in request
+ raise self._make_status_error_from_response(err.response) from None
+openai.RateLimitError: Error code: 429 - {'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'Resource has been exhausted (e.g. check quota).', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED'}}
+
+The above exception was the direct cause of the following exception:
+
+Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 990, in process_document
+ await asyncio.gather(*tasks)
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\kg\nano_vector_db_impl.py", line 109, in upsert
+ embeddings_list = await asyncio.gather(*embedding_tasks)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 544, in wait_func
+ return await future
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 328, in worker
+ result = await func(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 203, in __call__
+ return await self.func(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\app_gradio_lightrag.py", line 82, in _embedding_func
+ return await openai_embed(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 203, in __call__
+ return await self.func(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 189, in async_wrapped
+ return await copy(fn, *args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 111, in __call__
+ do = await self.iter(retry_state=retry_state)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 153, in iter
+ result = await action(retry_state)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\_utils.py", line 99, in inner
+ return call(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\__init__.py", line 421, in exc_check
+ raise retry_exc from fut.exception()
+tenacity.RetryError: RetryError[]
+
+INFO:openai._base_client:Retrying request to /embeddings in 0.449529 seconds
+INFO:openai._base_client:Retrying request to /embeddings in 0.923853 seconds
+INFO:openai._base_client:Retrying request to /embeddings in 0.403065 seconds
+INFO:openai._base_client:Retrying request to /embeddings in 0.929649 seconds
+INFO:openai._base_client:Retrying request to /embeddings in 0.479705 seconds
+INFO:openai._base_client:Retrying request to /embeddings in 0.934844 seconds
+limit_async: Error in decorated function: RetryError[]
+Failed to extrat document doc-ecf1f949b3adbba5fc3f6c1b8170449d: Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 114, in __call__
+ result = await fn(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\llm\openai.py", line 424, in openai_embed
+ response = await openai_async_client.embeddings.create(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\openai\resources\embeddings.py", line 243, in create
+ return await self._post(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\openai\_base_client.py", line 1742, in post
+ return await self.request(cast_to, opts, stream=stream, stream_cls=stream_cls)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\openai\_base_client.py", line 1549, in request
+ raise self._make_status_error_from_response(err.response) from None
+openai.RateLimitError: Error code: 429 - {'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'Resource has been exhausted (e.g. check quota).', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED'}}
+
+The above exception was the direct cause of the following exception:
+
+Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 990, in process_document
+ await asyncio.gather(*tasks)
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\kg\nano_vector_db_impl.py", line 109, in upsert
+ embeddings_list = await asyncio.gather(*embedding_tasks)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 544, in wait_func
+ return await future
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 328, in worker
+ result = await func(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 203, in __call__
+ return await self.func(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\app_gradio_lightrag.py", line 82, in _embedding_func
+ return await openai_embed(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 203, in __call__
+ return await self.func(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 189, in async_wrapped
+ return await copy(fn, *args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 111, in __call__
+ do = await self.iter(retry_state=retry_state)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 153, in iter
+ result = await action(retry_state)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\_utils.py", line 99, in inner
+ return call(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\__init__.py", line 421, in exc_check
+ raise retry_exc from fut.exception()
+tenacity.RetryError: RetryError[]
+
+INFO:openai._base_client:Retrying request to /embeddings in 0.393303 seconds
+INFO:openai._base_client:Retrying request to /embeddings in 0.765578 seconds
+INFO:openai._base_client:Retrying request to /embeddings in 0.450774 seconds
+INFO:openai._base_client:Retrying request to /embeddings in 0.909153 seconds
+INFO:openai._base_client:Retrying request to /embeddings in 0.421790 seconds
+INFO:openai._base_client:Retrying request to /embeddings in 0.793909 seconds
+limit_async: Error in decorated function: RetryError[]
+Failed to extrat document doc-109f144334b4fb3df293699326465652: Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 114, in __call__
+ result = await fn(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\llm\openai.py", line 424, in openai_embed
+ response = await openai_async_client.embeddings.create(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\openai\resources\embeddings.py", line 243, in create
+ return await self._post(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\openai\_base_client.py", line 1742, in post
+ return await self.request(cast_to, opts, stream=stream, stream_cls=stream_cls)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\openai\_base_client.py", line 1549, in request
+ raise self._make_status_error_from_response(err.response) from None
+openai.RateLimitError: Error code: 429 - {'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'Resource has been exhausted (e.g. check quota).', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED'}}
+
+The above exception was the direct cause of the following exception:
+
+Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\lightrag.py", line 990, in process_document
+ await asyncio.gather(*tasks)
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\kg\nano_vector_db_impl.py", line 109, in upsert
+ embeddings_list = await asyncio.gather(*embedding_tasks)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 544, in wait_func
+ return await future
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 328, in worker
+ result = await func(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 203, in __call__
+ return await self.func(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\app_gradio_lightrag.py", line 82, in _embedding_func
+ return await openai_embed(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 203, in __call__
+ return await self.func(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 189, in async_wrapped
+ return await copy(fn, *args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 111, in __call__
+ do = await self.iter(retry_state=retry_state)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 153, in iter
+ result = await action(retry_state)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\_utils.py", line 99, in inner
+ return call(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\__init__.py", line 421, in exc_check
+ raise retry_exc from fut.exception()
+tenacity.RetryError: RetryError[]
+
+... ... ...
+
+ERROR:asyncio:Task exception was never retrieved
+future: ._process_with_semaphore() done, defined at C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py:806> exception=RetryError()>
+Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 114, in __call__
+ result = await fn(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\llm\openai.py", line 185, in openai_complete_if_cache
+ response = await openai_async_client.chat.completions.create(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\openai\resources\chat\completions\completions.py", line 2028, in create
+ return await self._post(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\openai\_base_client.py", line 1742, in post
+ return await self.request(cast_to, opts, stream=stream, stream_cls=stream_cls)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\openai\_base_client.py", line 1549, in request
+ raise self._make_status_error_from_response(err.response) from None
+openai.RateLimitError: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerDayPerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'location': 'global', 'model': 'gemini-2.0-pro-exp'}, 'quotaValue': '25'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '24s'}]}}]
+
+The above exception was the direct cause of the following exception:
+
+Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 808, in _process_with_semaphore
+ return await _process_single_content(chunk)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 748, in _process_single_content
+ glean_result = await use_llm_func_with_cache(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 1614, in use_llm_func_with_cache
+ res: str = await use_llm_func(input_text, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 544, in wait_func
+ return await future
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 328, in worker
+ result = await func(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\app_gradio_lightrag.py", line 122, in _llm_model_func
+ return await openai_complete_if_cache(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 189, in async_wrapped
+ return await copy(fn, *args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 111, in __call__
+ do = await self.iter(retry_state=retry_state)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 153, in iter
+ result = await action(retry_state)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\_utils.py", line 99, in inner
+ return call(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\__init__.py", line 421, in exc_check
+ raise retry_exc from fut.exception()
+tenacity.RetryError: RetryError[]
+ERROR:asyncio:Task exception was never retrieved
+future: ._process_with_semaphore() done, defined at C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py:806> exception=RetryError()>
+Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 114, in __call__
+ result = await fn(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\llm\openai.py", line 185, in openai_complete_if_cache
+ response = await openai_async_client.chat.completions.create(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\openai\resources\chat\completions\completions.py", line 2028, in create
+ return await self._post(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\openai\_base_client.py", line 1742, in post
+ return await self.request(cast_to, opts, stream=stream, stream_cls=stream_cls)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\openai\_base_client.py", line 1549, in request
+ raise self._make_status_error_from_response(err.response) from None
+openai.RateLimitError: Error code: 429 - [{'error': {'code': 429, 'message': 'You exceeded your current quota, please check your plan and billing details. For more information on this error, head to: https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits.', 'status': 'RESOURCE_EXHAUSTED', 'details': [{'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.QuotaFailure', 'violations': [{'quotaMetric': 'generativelanguage.googleapis.com/generate_content_free_tier_requests', 'quotaId': 'GenerateRequestsPerDayPerProjectPerModel-FreeTier', 'quotaDimensions': {'location': 'global', 'model': 'gemini-2.0-pro-exp'}, 'quotaValue': '25'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.Help', 'links': [{'description': 'Learn more about Gemini API quotas', 'url': 'https://ai.google.dev/gemini-api/docs/rate-limits'}]}, {'@type': 'type.googleapis.com/google.rpc.RetryInfo', 'retryDelay': '44s'}]}}]
+
+The above exception was the direct cause of the following exception:
+
+Traceback (most recent call last):
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 808, in _process_with_semaphore
+ return await _process_single_content(chunk)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\operate.py", line 748, in _process_single_content
+ glean_result = await use_llm_func_with_cache(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 1614, in use_llm_func_with_cache
+ res: str = await use_llm_func(input_text, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 544, in wait_func
+ return await future
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\lightrag\utils.py", line 328, in worker
+ result = await func(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\app_gradio_lightrag.py", line 122, in _llm_model_func
+ return await openai_complete_if_cache(
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 189, in async_wrapped
+ return await copy(fn, *args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 111, in __call__
+ do = await self.iter(retry_state=retry_state)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\asyncio\__init__.py", line 153, in iter
+ result = await action(retry_state)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\_utils.py", line 99, in inner
+ return call(*args, **kwargs)
+ ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
+ File "C:\Dat\dev\aider\minirag\Lib\site-packages\tenacity\__init__.py", line 421, in exc_check
+ raise retry_exc from fut.exception()
+tenacity.RetryError: RetryError[]
+
+[12May25]
diff --git a/log/miniriag_workingfolder3_14-18June25.log b/log/miniriag_workingfolder3_14-18June25.log
new file mode 100644
index 0000000000000000000000000000000000000000..aad6ef701fec19e688213ff11bf255bec819442a
--- /dev/null
+++ b/log/miniriag_workingfolder3_14-18June25.log
@@ -0,0 +1,3364 @@
+2025-06-14 08:09:31 [INFO]
+[LM STUDIO SERVER] Success! HTTP server listening on port 1234
+2025-06-14 08:09:31 [INFO]
+2025-06-14 08:09:31 [INFO]
+[LM STUDIO SERVER] Supported endpoints:
+2025-06-14 08:09:31 [INFO]
+[LM STUDIO SERVER] -> GET http://localhost:1234/v1/models
+2025-06-14 08:09:31 [INFO]
+[LM STUDIO SERVER] -> POST http://localhost:1234/v1/chat/completions
+2025-06-14 08:09:31 [INFO]
+[LM STUDIO SERVER] -> POST http://localhost:1234/v1/completions
+2025-06-14 08:09:31 [INFO]
+[LM STUDIO SERVER] -> POST http://localhost:1234/v1/embeddings
+2025-06-14 08:09:31 [INFO]
+2025-06-14 08:09:31 [INFO]
+[LM STUDIO SERVER] Logs are saved into C:\Users\user\.lmstudio\server-logs
+2025-06-14 08:09:31 [INFO]
+Server started.
+2025-06-14 08:09:31 [INFO]
+Just-in-time model loading active.
+2025-06-14 08:09:52 [DEBUG]
+[INFO] [PaniniRagEngine] Loading model into embedding engine...
+[WARNING] Batch size (512) is < context length (8000). Resetting batch size to context length to avoid unexpected behavior.
+2025-06-14 08:09:52 [DEBUG]
+[INFO] [LlamaEmbeddingEngine] Loading model from path: C:\Dat\llm\models\pqnet\bge-m3-gguf\bge-m3-f16.gguf
+2025-06-14 08:09:52 [DEBUG]
+llama_model_load_from_file_impl: using device Vulkan0 (AMD Radeon(TM) Graphics) - 256 MiB free
+2025-06-14 08:09:52 [DEBUG]
+llama_model_loader: loaded meta data with 32 key-value pairs and 389 tensors from C:\Dat\llm\models\pqnet\bge-m3-gguf\bge-m3-f16.gguf (version GGUF V3 (latest))
+llama_model_loader: Dumping metadata keys/values. Note: KV overrides do not apply in this output.
+llama_model_loader: - kv 0: general.architecture str = bert
+llama_model_loader: - kv 1: general.type str = model
+llama_model_loader: - kv 2: general.size_label str = 567M
+llama_model_loader: - kv 3: general.license str = mit
+llama_model_loader: - kv 4: general.tags arr[str,4] = ["sentence-transformers", "feature-ex...
+llama_model_loader: - kv 5: bert.block_count u32 = 24
+llama_model_loader: - kv 6: bert.context_length u32 = 8192
+llama_model_loader: - kv 7: bert.embedding_length u32 = 1024
+llama_model_loader: - kv 8: bert.feed_forward_length u32 = 4096
+llama_model_loader: - kv 9: bert.attention.head_count u32 = 16
+llama_model_loader: - kv 10: bert.attention.layer_norm_epsilon f32 = 0.000010
+llama_model_loader: - kv 11: general.file_type u32 = 1
+llama_model_loader: - kv 12: bert.attention.causal bool = false
+llama_model_loader: - kv 13: bert.pooling_type u32 = 2
+llama_model_loader: - kv 14: tokenizer.ggml.model str = t5
+llama_model_loader: - kv 15: tokenizer.ggml.pre str = default
+2025-06-14 08:09:53 [DEBUG]
+llama_model_loader: - kv 16: tokenizer.ggml.tokens arr[str,250002] = ["", "", "", "", ","...
+2025-06-14 08:09:53 [DEBUG]
+llama_model_loader: - kv 17: tokenizer.ggml.scores arr[f32,250002] = [0.000000, 0.000000, 0.000000, 0.0000...
+2025-06-14 08:09:53 [DEBUG]
+llama_model_loader: - kv 18: tokenizer.ggml.token_type arr[i32,250002] = [3, 3, 3, 2, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, ...
+llama_model_loader: - kv 19: tokenizer.ggml.add_space_prefix bool = true
+llama_model_loader: - kv 20: tokenizer.ggml.token_type_count u32 = 1
+llama_model_loader: - kv 21: tokenizer.ggml.remove_extra_whitespaces bool = true
+2025-06-14 08:09:53 [DEBUG]
+llama_model_loader: - kv 22: tokenizer.ggml.precompiled_charsmap arr[u8,237539] = [0, 180, 2, 0, 0, 132, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0,...
+llama_model_loader: - kv 23: tokenizer.ggml.bos_token_id u32 = 0
+llama_model_loader: - kv 24: tokenizer.ggml.eos_token_id u32 = 2
+llama_model_loader: - kv 25: tokenizer.ggml.unknown_token_id u32 = 3
+llama_model_loader: - kv 26: tokenizer.ggml.seperator_token_id u32 = 2
+llama_model_loader: - kv 27: tokenizer.ggml.padding_token_id u32 = 1
+llama_model_loader: - kv 28: tokenizer.ggml.mask_token_id u32 = 250001
+llama_model_loader: - kv 29: tokenizer.ggml.add_bos_token bool = true
+llama_model_loader: - kv 30: tokenizer.ggml.add_eos_token bool = true
+llama_model_loader: - kv 31: general.quantization_version u32 = 2
+llama_model_loader: - type f32: 244 tensors
+llama_model_loader: - type f16: 145 tensors
+print_info: file format = GGUF V3 (latest)
+print_info: file type = F16
+print_info: file size = 1.07 GiB (16.25 BPW)
+2025-06-14 08:09:54 [DEBUG]
+load: model vocab missing newline token, using special_pad_id instead
+2025-06-14 08:09:54 [DEBUG]
+load: special_eos_id is not in special_eog_ids - the tokenizer config may be incorrect
+2025-06-14 08:09:54 [DEBUG]
+load: special tokens cache size = 4
+2025-06-14 08:09:54 [DEBUG]
+load: token to piece cache size = 2.1668 MB
+print_info: arch = bert
+print_info: vocab_only = 0
+print_info: n_ctx_train = 8192
+print_info: n_embd = 1024
+print_info: n_layer = 24
+print_info: n_head = 16
+print_info: n_head_kv = 16
+print_info: n_rot = 64
+print_info: n_swa = 0
+print_info: n_swa_pattern = 1
+print_info: n_embd_head_k = 64
+print_info: n_embd_head_v = 64
+print_info: n_gqa = 1
+print_info: n_embd_k_gqa = 1024
+print_info: n_embd_v_gqa = 1024
+print_info: f_norm_eps = 1.0e-05
+print_info: f_norm_rms_eps = 0.0e+00
+print_info: f_clamp_kqv = 0.0e+00
+print_info: f_max_alibi_bias = 0.0e+00
+print_info: f_logit_scale = 0.0e+00
+print_info: f_attn_scale = 0.0e+00
+print_info: n_ff = 4096
+print_info: n_expert = 0
+print_info: n_expert_used = 0
+print_info: causal attn = 0
+print_info: pooling type = 2
+print_info: rope type = 2
+print_info: rope scaling = linear
+print_info: freq_base_train = 10000.0
+print_info: freq_scale_train = 1
+print_info: n_ctx_orig_yarn = 8192
+print_info: rope_finetuned = unknown
+print_info: ssm_d_conv = 0
+print_info: ssm_d_inner = 0
+print_info: ssm_d_state = 0
+print_info: ssm_dt_rank = 0
+print_info: ssm_dt_b_c_rms = 0
+print_info: model type = 335M
+print_info: model params = 566.70 M
+print_info: general.name = n/a
+print_info: vocab type = UGM
+print_info: n_vocab = 250002
+print_info: n_merges = 0
+print_info: BOS token = 0 ''
+print_info: EOS token = 2 ''
+print_info: UNK token = 3 ''
+print_info: SEP token = 2 ''
+print_info: PAD token = 1 ''
+print_info: MASK token = 250001 '[PAD250000]'
+print_info: LF token = 0 ''
+print_info: EOG token = 2 ''
+print_info: max token length = 48
+load_tensors: loading model tensors, this can take a while... (mmap = true)
+2025-06-14 08:09:54 [DEBUG]
+load_tensors: offloading 24 repeating layers to GPU
+load_tensors: offloading output layer to GPU
+load_tensors: offloaded 25/25 layers to GPU
+load_tensors: Vulkan0 model buffer size = 577.22 MiB
+load_tensors: CPU_Mapped model buffer size = 520.30 MiB
+2025-06-14 08:09:55 [DEBUG]
+llama_context: constructing llama_context
+llama_context: n_seq_max = 1
+llama_context: n_ctx = 8000
+llama_context: n_ctx_per_seq = 8000
+llama_context: n_batch = 8000
+llama_context: n_ubatch = 8000
+llama_context: causal_attn = 0
+llama_context: flash_attn = 0
+llama_context: freq_base = 10000.0
+llama_context: freq_scale = 1
+llama_context: n_ctx_per_seq (8000) < n_ctx_train (8192) -- the full capacity of the model will not be utilized
+2025-06-14 08:09:55 [DEBUG]
+llama_context: Vulkan_Host output buffer size = 0.00 MiB
+2025-06-14 08:09:55 [DEBUG]
+common_init_from_params: KV cache shifting is not supported for this context, disabling KV cache shifting
+common_init_from_params: setting dry_penalty_last_n to ctx_size = 8000
+common_init_from_params: warming up the model with an empty run - please wait ... (--no-warmup to disable)
+2025-06-14 08:09:55 [DEBUG]
+[INFO] [LlamaEmbeddingEngine] Model load complete!
+[INFO] [PaniniRagEngine] Model loaded into embedding engine!
+[INFO] [PaniniRagEngine] Model loaded without an active session.
+2025-06-14 08:10:56 [DEBUG]
+[LM Studio] GPU Configuration:
+ Strategy: evenly
+ Priority: []
+ Disabled GPUs: []
+ Limit weight offload to dedicated GPU Memory: OFF
+ Offload KV Cache to GPU: ON
+2025-06-14 08:10:56 [DEBUG]
+[LM Studio] Live GPU memory info:
+No live GPU info available
+2025-06-14 08:10:56 [DEBUG]
+[LM Studio] Model load size estimate with raw num offload layers '0' and context length '8000':
+ Model: 0
+ Context: 555.66 MB
+ Total: 555.66 MB
+[LM Studio] Strict GPU VRAM cap is OFF: GPU offload layers will not be checked for adjustment
+[LM Studio] Resolved GPU config options:
+ Num Offload Layers: 0
+ Main GPU: 0
+ Tensor Split: [0]
+ Disabled GPUs: []
+2025-06-14 08:10:56 [DEBUG]
+CPU : SSE3 = 1 | SSSE3 = 1 | AVX = 1 | AVX2 = 1 | F16C = 1 | FMA = 1 | BMI2 = 1 | LLAMAFILE = 1 | OPENMP = 1 | AARCH64_REPACK = 1 |
+2025-06-14 08:10:56 [DEBUG]
+llama_model_load_from_file_impl: using device Vulkan0 (AMD Radeon(TM) Graphics) - 256 MiB free
+2025-06-14 08:10:56 [DEBUG]
+llama_model_loader: loaded meta data with 28 key-value pairs and 399 tensors from C:\Dat\llm\models\Qwen\Qwen3-8B-Q8_0\Qwen3-8B-Q8_0.gguf (version GGUF V3 (latest))
+llama_model_loader: Dumping metadata keys/values. Note: KV overrides do not apply in this output.
+llama_model_loader: - kv 0: general.architecture str = qwen3
+llama_model_loader: - kv 1: general.type str = model
+llama_model_loader: - kv 2: general.name str = Qwen3 8B Instruct
+llama_model_loader: - kv 3: general.finetune str = Instruct
+llama_model_loader: - kv 4: general.basename str = Qwen3
+llama_model_loader: - kv 5: general.size_label str = 8B
+llama_model_loader: - kv 6: qwen3.block_count u32 = 36
+llama_model_loader: - kv 7: qwen3.context_length u32 = 40960
+llama_model_loader: - kv 8: qwen3.embedding_length u32 = 4096
+llama_model_loader: - kv 9: qwen3.feed_forward_length u32 = 12288
+llama_model_loader: - kv 10: qwen3.attention.head_count u32 = 32
+llama_model_loader: - kv 11: qwen3.attention.head_count_kv u32 = 8
+llama_model_loader: - kv 12: qwen3.rope.freq_base f32 = 1000000.000000
+llama_model_loader: - kv 13: qwen3.attention.layer_norm_rms_epsilon f32 = 0.000001
+llama_model_loader: - kv 14: qwen3.attention.key_length u32 = 128
+llama_model_loader: - kv 15: qwen3.attention.value_length u32 = 128
+llama_model_loader: - kv 16: tokenizer.ggml.model str = gpt2
+llama_model_loader: - kv 17: tokenizer.ggml.pre str = qwen2
+2025-06-14 08:10:56 [DEBUG]
+llama_model_loader: - kv 18: tokenizer.ggml.tokens arr[str,151936] = ["!", "\"", "#", "$", "%", "&", "'", ...
+2025-06-14 08:10:56 [DEBUG]
+llama_model_loader: - kv 19: tokenizer.ggml.token_type arr[i32,151936] = [1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, ...
+2025-06-14 08:10:56 [DEBUG]
+llama_model_loader: - kv 20: tokenizer.ggml.merges arr[str,151387] = ["Ġ Ġ", "ĠĠ ĠĠ", "i n", "Ġ t",...
+llama_model_loader: - kv 21: tokenizer.ggml.eos_token_id u32 = 151645
+llama_model_loader: - kv 22: tokenizer.ggml.padding_token_id u32 = 151643
+llama_model_loader: - kv 23: tokenizer.ggml.bos_token_id u32 = 151643
+llama_model_loader: - kv 24: tokenizer.ggml.add_bos_token bool = false
+llama_model_loader: - kv 25: tokenizer.chat_template str = {%- if tools %}\n {{- '<|im_start|>...
+llama_model_loader: - kv 26: general.quantization_version u32 = 2
+llama_model_loader: - kv 27: general.file_type u32 = 7
+llama_model_loader: - type f32: 145 tensors
+llama_model_loader: - type q8_0: 254 tensors
+print_info: file format = GGUF V3 (latest)
+print_info: file type = Q8_0
+print_info: file size = 8.11 GiB (8.50 BPW)
+2025-06-14 08:10:57 [DEBUG]
+load: special tokens cache size = 26
+2025-06-14 08:10:57 [DEBUG]
+load: token to piece cache size = 0.9311 MB
+print_info: arch = qwen3
+print_info: vocab_only = 0
+print_info: n_ctx_train = 40960
+print_info: n_embd = 4096
+print_info: n_layer = 36
+print_info: n_head = 32
+print_info: n_head_kv = 8
+print_info: n_rot = 128
+print_info: n_swa = 0
+print_info: n_swa_pattern = 1
+print_info: n_embd_head_k = 128
+print_info: n_embd_head_v = 128
+print_info: n_gqa = 4
+print_info: n_embd_k_gqa = 1024
+print_info: n_embd_v_gqa = 1024
+print_info: f_norm_eps = 0.0e+00
+print_info: f_norm_rms_eps = 1.0e-06
+print_info: f_clamp_kqv = 0.0e+00
+print_info: f_max_alibi_bias = 0.0e+00
+print_info: f_logit_scale = 0.0e+00
+print_info: f_attn_scale = 0.0e+00
+print_info: n_ff = 12288
+print_info: n_expert = 0
+print_info: n_expert_used = 0
+print_info: causal attn = 1
+print_info: pooling type = 0
+2025-06-14 08:10:57 [DEBUG]
+print_info: rope type = 2
+print_info: rope scaling = linear
+print_info: freq_base_train = 1000000.0
+print_info: freq_scale_train = 1
+print_info: n_ctx_orig_yarn = 40960
+print_info: rope_finetuned = unknown
+print_info: ssm_d_conv = 0
+print_info: ssm_d_inner = 0
+print_info: ssm_d_state = 0
+print_info: ssm_dt_rank = 0
+print_info: ssm_dt_b_c_rms = 0
+print_info: model type = 8B
+print_info: model params = 8.19 B
+print_info: general.name = Qwen3 8B Instruct
+print_info: vocab type = BPE
+print_info: n_vocab = 151936
+print_info: n_merges = 151387
+print_info: BOS token = 151643 '<|endoftext|>'
+print_info: EOS token = 151645 '<|im_end|>'
+print_info: EOT token = 151645 '<|im_end|>'
+print_info: PAD token = 151643 '<|endoftext|>'
+print_info: LF token = 198 'Ċ'
+print_info: FIM PRE token = 151659 '<|fim_prefix|>'
+print_info: FIM SUF token = 151661 '<|fim_suffix|>'
+print_info: FIM MID token = 151660 '<|fim_middle|>'
+print_info: FIM PAD token = 151662 '<|fim_pad|>'
+print_info: FIM REP token = 151663 '<|repo_name|>'
+print_info: FIM SEP token = 151664 '<|file_sep|>'
+print_info: EOG token = 151643 '<|endoftext|>'
+print_info: EOG token = 151645 '<|im_end|>'
+print_info: EOG token = 151662 '<|fim_pad|>'
+print_info: EOG token = 151663 '<|repo_name|>'
+print_info: EOG token = 151664 '<|file_sep|>'
+print_info: max token length = 256
+load_tensors: loading model tensors, this can take a while... (mmap = true)
+2025-06-14 08:10:58 [DEBUG]
+load_tensors: offloading 0 repeating layers to GPU
+load_tensors: offloaded 0/37 layers to GPU
+load_tensors: CPU_Mapped model buffer size = 8300.36 MiB
+2025-06-14 08:11:06 [DEBUG]
+llama_context: constructing llama_context
+llama_context: n_seq_max = 1
+llama_context: n_ctx = 8000
+llama_context: n_ctx_per_seq = 8000
+llama_context: n_batch = 512
+llama_context: n_ubatch = 512
+llama_context: causal_attn = 1
+llama_context: flash_attn = 0
+llama_context: freq_base = 1000000.0
+llama_context: freq_scale = 1
+llama_context: n_ctx_per_seq (8000) < n_ctx_train (40960) -- the full capacity of the model will not be utilized
+llama_context: CPU output buffer size = 0.58 MiB
+2025-06-14 08:11:06 [DEBUG]
+llama_kv_cache_unified: CPU KV buffer size = 1125.00 MiB
+2025-06-14 08:11:06 [DEBUG]
+llama_kv_cache_unified: size = 1125.00 MiB ( 8000 cells, 36 layers, 1 seqs), K (f16): 562.50 MiB, V (f16): 562.50 MiB
+2025-06-14 08:11:06 [DEBUG]
+llama_context: Vulkan0 compute buffer size = 994.34 MiB
+llama_context: Vulkan_Host compute buffer size = 23.63 MiB
+llama_context: graph nodes = 1446
+llama_context: graph splits = 508 (with bs=512), 73 (with bs=1)
+common_init_from_params: setting dry_penalty_last_n to ctx_size = 8000
+common_init_from_params: warming up the model with an empty run - please wait ... (--no-warmup to disable)
+2025-06-14 08:11:07 [DEBUG]
+GgmlThreadpools: llama threadpool init = n_threads = 4
+Image cache size: 10
+2025-06-14 08:14:04 [DEBUG]
+Received request: GET to /v1/models
+2025-06-14 08:14:04 [INFO]
+Returning {
+ "data": [
+ {
+ "id": "text-embedding-bge-m3",
+ "object": "model",
+ "owned_by": "organization_owner"
+ },
+ {
+ "id": "qwen3-8b",
+ "object": "model",
+ "owned_by": "organization_owner"
+ },
+ {
+ "id": "qwen3_8b-km",
+ "object": "model",
+ "owned_by": "organization_owner"
+ },
+ {
+ "id": "text-embedding-nomic-embed-text-v1.5",
+ "object": "model",
+ "owned_by": "organization_owner"
+ },
+ {
+ "id": "qwen3-4b-ud",
+ "object": "model",
+ "owned_by": "organization_owner"
+ },
+ {
+ "id": "open-thoughts.openthinker-7b-unverified",
+ "object": "model",
+ "owned_by": "organization_owner"
+ },
+ {
+ "id": "qwen2.5-coder-14b-instruct",
+ "object": "model",
+ "owned_by": "organization_owner"
+ }
+ ],
+ "object": "list"
+}
+2025-06-14 08:14:05 [DEBUG]
+Received request: GET to /favicon.ico
+2025-06-14 08:14:05 [ERROR]
+Unexpected endpoint or method. (GET /favicon.ico). Returning 200 anyway
+2025-06-14 20:33:31 [DEBUG]
+Received request: POST to /v1/embeddings with body {
+ "input": [
+ "This is a test sentence."
+ ],
+ "model": "bge-m3-gguf",
+ "encoding_format": "float"
+}
+2025-06-14 20:33:31 [INFO]
+Received request to embed multiple: [
+ "This is a test sentence."
+]
+2025-06-14 20:33:31 [INFO]
+Returning embeddings (not shown in logs)
+2025-06-14 20:34:31 [DEBUG]
+Received request: POST to /v1/chat/completions with body {
+ "messages": [
+ {
+ "role": "user",
+ "content": "---Goal---\nGiven a text document that is potential... ...t further underpins\n######################\nOutput:"
+ }
+ ],
+ "model": "Qwen3-8B"
+}
+2025-06-14 20:34:31 [INFO]
+[LM STUDIO SERVER] Running chat completion on conversation with 1 messages.
+2025-06-14 20:34:31 [DEBUG]
+Received request: POST to /v1/embeddings with body {
+ "input": [
+ "# MINIMUM INTEROPERABILITYSTANDARDS (MIOS) FRAMEWO... ... The outcomes (roof) of the e-Government programme",
+ "1. The strategic drive to advance the maturity on ... ...ice Regulations respectively. It further underpins",
+ "the MIOS is to prescribe open system standards tha... ...ality, but new technology infrastructure) \n(iii)",
+ "db98ca8f9.jpg) \nFigure 2: e-Government informatio... ...ter.
3
GITO Council
<",
+ "subject to approval. d) Manage the development, co... ...(iv) The intellectual rights required to implement",
+ "interconnectedness and data exchange within and be... ...>Information and Communication Technology
GCIO
Government Chief Information Off... ...Modelling Language