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The wiring of the nervous system is established through a progressive refinement of the choices made by a growing axon. The growth cone is a highly motile structure at the tip of the axon that integrates the multitude of signals present in its environment and translates these signals into structural changes of the cytoskeleton that determine the rate and direction of extension. Four families of guidance cues were identified that provide directional information to growing axons: the ephrins, the netrins, the slit proteins, and the semaphorins. The semaphorins represent the largest family of guidance cues identified so far that can be divided into 8 classes based on the degree of sequence similarity between their semaphorin domains and the presence of class specific carboxy-terminal domains (CTD). Collectively, the in vitro data indicate that semaphorins function mainly as chemorepellents that direct axons away from tissues marked by their expression, but can also act as chemoattractants in some cases. Genetic analysis of the semaphorins and their receptor showed that these proteins play an important role in the development and function of different tissues other than the nervous system. The effects of the different semaphorins are mediated by a variety of receptor complexes that include members of the neuropilin and plexin protein families as well as other membrane proteins belonging to the immunoglobulin superfamily. Plexins directly and indirectly interact with members of the Rho-like GTPases, the kinases Fes, Fyn, and Cdk5, the oxidoreductase MICAL, lipoxygenase, and the CRMP proteins. The signal transduction cascades that include these signalling proteins and link semaphorin receptors to the cytoskeleton are still incompletely understood.	Is Mical an oxidoreductase?	the oxidoreductase MICAL
In the last few weeks, the FDA approved three new therapies for multiple myeloma: ixazomib, the first oral proteasome inhibitor; and daratumumab and elotuzumab, two monoclonal antibodies that target CD38 and SLAMF7, respectively.	What is the target of daratumumab?	In the last few weeks, the FDA approved three new therapies for multiple myeloma: ixazomib, the first oral proteasome inhibitor; and daratumumab and elotuzumab, two monoclonal antibodies that target CD38 and SLAMF7, respectively.
Miller Fisher syndrome is an acute inflammatory polyradiculoneuropathy that is generally considered a variant of Guillain-Barré syndrome and is characterized by the clinical triad of ataxia, areflexia, and ophthalmoplegia. Several reports of familial Guillain-Barré syndrome have been reported, indicating a possible underlying genetic and/or environmental predisposition to the development of Guillain-Barré syndrome. A familial association in Miller Fisher syndrome has not previously been described in the literature. We report 2 cases of Miller Fisher syndrome presenting simultaneously in siblings, with a review of recent relevant literature.	Is the Miller-Fisher syndrome considered to be a variant of Guillain-Barré?	Miller Fisher syndrome is an acute inflammatory polyradiculoneuropathy that is generally considered a variant of Guillain-Barré syndrome and is characterized by the clinical triad of ataxia,
Primary neuronal cultures are a useful tool for measuring pharmacological- and transgene-regulated gene expression; however, accurate measurements can be confounded by heterogeneous cell types and inconsistent transfection efficiency. Here we describe our adaptation of a ribosomal capture strategy that was designed to be used in transgenic mice expressing tagged ribosomal subunits (RiboTag) in specific cell types, thereby allowing measurement of translating RNAs from desired cell types within complex tissues. Using this strategy we were able to isolate and analyze neuron-specific RNA despite the presence of glia by co-transfecting experimental plasmids with plasmids that selectively express RiboTag in neurons. RiboTag immunoprecipitation was capable of recovering high integrity RNA from small numbers of transfected cells that can then be interrogated by a variety of methods (e.g., RT-qPCR, PCR array, RNA-Seq) and compared with basal RNA expression of the entire culture. Additionally, we demonstrate how co-transfection of RiboTag with small hairpin RNA (shRNA) constructs can validate and accurately assess the degree of gene expression knockdown, and how RiboTag can be used to measure receptor-mediated gene regulation with transiently expressed designer receptors exclusively activated by designer drugs (DREADDs). RiboTag co-transfection represents a convenient and powerful tool to isolate RNA from a specific subset of cultured cells with a variety of applications for experiments in vitro.	What is RiboTag profiling?	Here we describe our adaptation of a ribosomal capture strategy that was designed to be used in transgenic mice expressing tagged ribosomal subunits (RiboTag) in specific cell types, thereby allowing measurement of translating RNAs from desired cell types within complex tissues. Using this strategy we were able to isolate and analyze neuron-specific RNA despite the presence of glia by co-transfecting experimental plasmids with plasmids that selectively express RiboTag in neurons. RiboTag immunoprecipitation was capable of recovering high integrity RNA from small numbers of transfected cells that can then be interrogated by a variety of methods (e.g., RT-qPCR, PCR array, RNA-Seq) and compared with basal RNA expression of the entire culture. Additionally, we demonstrate how co-transfection of RiboTag with small hairpin RNA (shRNA) constructs can validate and accurately assess the degree of gene expression knockdown, and how RiboTag can be used to measure receptor-mediated gene regulation with transiently expressed designer receptors exclusively activated by designer drugs (DREADDs). RiboTag co-transfection represents a convenient and powerful tool to isolate RNA from a specific subset of cultured cells with a variety of applications for experiments in vitro.
Alcohol-based hand sanitizer is a liquid, gel, or foam that contains ethanol or isopropanol used to disinfect hands. Hand hygiene is an important component of the U.S. response to the emergence of SARS-CoV-2, the virus that causes coronavirus disease 2019 (COVID-19). If soap and water are not readily available, CDC recommends the use of alcohol-based hand sanitizer products that contain at least 60% ethyl alcohol (ethanol) or 70% isopropyl alcohol (isopropanol) in community settings (1); in health care settings, CDC recommendations specify that alcohol-based hand sanitizer products should contain 60%-95% alcohol (≥60% ethanol or ≥70% isopropanol) (2). According to the Food and Drug Administration (FDA), which regulates alcohol-based hand sanitizers as an over-the-counter drug, methanol (methyl alcohol) is not an acceptable ingredient. Cases of ethanol toxicity following ingestion of alcohol-based hand sanitizer products have been reported in persons with alcohol use disorder (3,4). On June 30, 2020, CDC received notification from public health partners in Arizona and New Mexico of cases of methanol poisoning associated with ingestion of alcohol-based hand sanitizers. The case reports followed an FDA consumer alert issued on June 19, 2020, warning about specific hand sanitizers that contain methanol. Whereas early clinical effects of methanol and ethanol poisoning are similar (e.g., headache, blurred vision, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, loss of coordination, and decreased level of consciousness), persons with methanol poisoning might develop severe anion-gap metabolic acidosis, seizures, and blindness. If left untreated methanol poisoning can be fatal (5). Survivors of methanol poisoning might have permanent visual impairment, including complete vision loss; data suggest that vision loss results from the direct toxic effect of formate, a toxic anion metabolite of methanol, on the optic nerve (6). CDC and state partners established a case definition of alcohol-based hand sanitizer-associated methanol poisoning and reviewed 62 poison center call records from May 1 through June 30, 2020, to characterize reported cases. Medical records were reviewed to abstract details missing from poison center call records. During this period, 15 adult patients met the case definition, including persons who were American Indian/Alaska Native (AI/AN). All had ingested an alcohol-based hand sanitizer and were subsequently admitted to a hospital. Four patients died and three were discharged with vision impairment. Persons should never ingest alcohol-based hand sanitizer, avoid use of specific imported products found to contain methanol, and continue to monitor FDA guidance (7). Clinicians should maintain a high index of suspicion for methanol poisoning when evaluating adult or pediatric patients with reported swallowing of an alcohol-based hand sanitizer product or with symptoms, signs, and laboratory findings (e.g., elevated anion-gap metabolic acidosis) compatible with methanol poisoning. Treatment of methanol poisoning includes supportive care, correction of acidosis, administration of an alcohol dehydrogenase inhibitor (e.g., fomepizole), and frequently, hemodialysis.	What is the active ingredient in the most common hand sanitizer?	Clinicians should maintain a high index of suspicion for methanol poisoning when evaluating adult or pediatric patients with reported swallowing of an alcohol-based hand sanitizer product or with symptoms, signs, and laboratory findings (e.g., elevated anion-gap metabolic acidosis) compatible with methanol poisoning.
Weevils (Curculionoidea) comprise one of the most diverse groups of organisms on earth. There is hardly a vascular plant or plant part without its own species of weevil feeding on it and weevil species diversity is greater than the number of fishes, birds, reptiles, amphibians and mammals combined. Here, we employ ultraconserved elements (UCEs) designed for beetles and a novel partitioning strategy of loci to help resolve phylogenetic relationships within the radiation of Australasian smurf-weevils (Eupholini). Despite being emblematic of the New Guinea fauna, no previous phylogenetic studies have been conducted on the Eupholini. In addition to a comprehensive collection of fresh specimens, we supplement our taxon sampling with museum specimens, and this study is the first target enrichment phylogenomic dataset incorporating beetle specimens from museum collections. We use both concatenated and species tree analyses to examine the relationships and taxonomy of this group. For species tree analyses we present a novel partitioning strategy to better model the molecular evolutionary process in UCEs. We found that the current taxonomy is problematic, largely grouping species on the basis of similar color patterns. Finally, our results show that most loci required multiple partitions for nucleotide rate substitution, suggesting that single partitions may not be the optimal partitioning strategy to accommodate rate heterogeneity for UCE loci.	What is the contribution of ultraconserved elements in Australasian smurf-weevils?	Here, we employ ultraconserved elements (UCEs) designed for beetles and a novel partitioning strategy of loci to help resolve phylogenetic relationships within the radiation of Australasian smurf-weevils (Eupholini). Despite being emblematic of the New Guinea fauna, no previous phylogenetic studies have been conducted on the Eupholini. In addition to a comprehensive collection of fresh specimens, we supplement our taxon sampling with museum specimens, and this study is the first target enrichment phylogenomic dataset incorporating beetle specimens from museum collections. We use both concatenated and species tree analyses to examine the relationships and taxonomy of this group. For species tree analyses we present a novel partitioning strategy to better model the molecular evolutionary process in UCEs. We found that the current taxonomy is problematic, largely grouping species on the basis of similar color patterns. Finally, our results show that most loci required multiple partitions for nucleotide rate substitution, suggesting that single partitions may not be the optimal partitioning strategy to accommodate rate heterogeneity for UCE loci.
A quantitative trait locus (QTL) affecting milk fat percentage has been mapped to the centromeric end of the bovine chromosome 14 (BTA14). This genomic area includes the DGAT1 gene, which encodes acyl-CoA:diacylglycerol acyltransferase 1, the key enzyme of triglyceride biosynthesis. Genetic and biochemical studies led to the identification of the nonconservative DGAT1-K232A polymorphism as a causal mutation for the QTL. In addition to this, another polymorphism in the 5'-regulatory region of this gene, the DGAT1 variable number of tandem repeat (VNTR), also showed a strong association with milk fat percentage. This promoter VNTR polymorphism affects the number of potential Sp1 binding sites and therefore might have an impact on DGAT1 expression and also milk fat content. Hence, the DGAT1 VNTR polymorphism might be another causal mutation for the BTA14 QTL. However, evidence for Sp1 binding to this polymorphic site and for the capability of DGAT1 VNTR alleles to stimulate gene expression was lacking. In the current work Sp1-VNTR interactions were analyzed by EMSA. In addition, effects of DGAT1 VNTR alleles on gene expression were measured with reporter gene analyses. Conclusions from the results are that 1) the DGAT1 VNTR sequence is indeed a target for Sp1 binding; 2) DGAT1 VNTR alleles can stimulate gene expression in vitro and probably in vivo as well; and 3) although the stimulating effects of the different DGAT1 VNTR alleles did not show significant differences in vitro, their effects on transcription might be different in the chromatin context existing in vivo.	What is the function of the DGAT1 gene product?	This genomic area includes the DGAT1 gene, which encodes acyl-CoA:diacylglycerol acyltransferase 1, the key enzyme of triglyceride biosynthesis.
The optimal surgical procedure for patients with calcified and organized chronic subdural haematoma (CSDH), or "armoured brain", has not been established because it is difficult to obtain good re-expansion of the brain after surgery. We present herein the case of a 32-year-old woman with huge calcified CSDH manifesting as refractory headache, periods of unconsciousness, and unsteady gait who obtained favourable results after craniotomy. Thinning of the thick calcified inner membrane using high-speed air drilling was performed after removal of the organized CSDH. The patient obtained good re-expansion after surgery. This observation illustrates that it is possible to perform such a surgery even on a huge calcified CSDH.	Describe armoured brain syndrome.	The optimal surgical procedure for patients with calcified and organized chronic subdural haematoma (CSDH), or "armoured brain", has not been established because it is difficult to obtain good re-expansion of the brain after surgery
In the nucleus HuR binds to mRNAs containing adenylate-uridylate rich elements in the 3'-untranslated region. HuR may influence expression of its ligand mRNA through regulation of polyadenylation, translocation of the message to the cytosol, stabilization of the mRNA and/or altering its translational efficiency. Suppression of HuR using siRNA resulted in an attenuation of the 3T3-L1 differentiation program, consistent with HuR control of the expression of mRNA ligand(s) critical to the differentiation process. In the present study, we begin to identify mRNA ligands of HuR whose regulated expression is necessary for adipogenesis.	Which are the main functions of the human HuR (ELAVL1) protein in fibroblasts?	Suppression of HuR using siRNA resulted in an attenuation of the 3T3-L1 differentiation program, consistent with HuR control of the expression of mRNA ligand(s) critical to the differentiation process.
Transcription-coupled DNA repair is a mechanism by which bulky DNA lesions that block transcription by RNA polymerase are prioritised for removal by the nucleotide excision repair apparatus. The trigger is thought to be the presence of an irreversibly blocked transcription complex, which is recognised by a transcription-repair coupling factor. Many common DNA lesions do not block transcription, but are bypassed with varying degrees of efficiency and with potentially mutagenic effects on the RNA transcripts that are produced. The effect of the bacterial transcription-repair coupling factor, Mfd, at such lesions is not known: it has been suggested that Mfd may promote mutagenesis by increasing the efficiency with which RNA polymerase bypasses non-bulky lesions, but it has also been reported that 8-oxoguanine, a major product of oxidative DNA damage that is efficiently bypassed by RNA polymerase, is subject to Mfd-dependent transcription-coupled repair in Escherichia coli. We have investigated the effect of Mfd during transcription of templates containing 8-oxoguanine, and various other non-bulky lesions. We show that an 8-oxoguanine in the template strand induces a transient pause in transcription, and that Mfd neither increases nor decreases the efficiency with which RNA polymerase bypasses the lesion. We also show that Mfd can displace a transcription complex stalled at a single strand nick, and that it decreases the efficiency with which RNA polymerase bypasses an abasic site. These activities are not affected by transcription rate, as similar results were obtained using "fast" and "slow" mutant RNA polymerases. Our findings suggest that 8-oxoguanine is unlikely to be directly targeted by the transcription-coupled repair pathway, and identify a potential role for Mfd in reducing the level of transcriptional mutagenesis caused by abasic sites.	Which proteins act as factors that promote transcription-coupled repair in bacteria?	The effect of the bacterial transcription-repair coupling factor, Mfd, at such lesions is not known: it has been suggested that Mfd may promote mutagenesis by increasing the efficiency with which RNA polymerase bypasses non-bulky lesions, but it has also been reported that 8-oxoguanine, a major product of oxidative DNA damage that is efficiently bypassed by RNA polymerase, is subject to Mfd-dependent transcription-coupled repair in Escherichia coli.
Mutations in genes known to be responsible for most of the recognizable syndromes associated with bilateral coronal synostosis can be detected by molecular testing. The genetic alterations that could cause unilateral coronal synostosis are more elusive. It is recognized that FGFR and TWIST mutations can give rise to either bilateral or unilateral coronal synostosis, even in the same family. The authors undertook a prospective study of patients presenting with synostotic frontal plagiocephaly (unilateral coronal synostosis) to Children's Hospital Boston during the period from 1997 to 2000. Mutational analysis was performed on all patients and on selected parents whenever familial transmission was suspected. Intraoperative anthropometry was used in an effort to differentiate those patients in whom a mutation was detected from those in whom it was not. The anthropometric measures included bilateral sagittal orbital-globe distance, inter medial canthal distance, and nasal angulation. Macrocephaly and palpebral angulation were also considered possible determinants. There was a 2:1 female preponderance in 47 patients with synostotic frontal plagiocephaly. Mutations were found in eight of 47 patients: two patients with different single-amino-acid changes in FGFR2, three patients with FGFR3 Pro250Arg, and three patients with TWIST mutations. Another patient had craniofrontonasal syndrome for which a causative locus has been mapped to chromosome X, although molecular testing is not yet available. Two features were strongly associated with a detectable mutation in patients with synostotic frontal plagiocephaly: asymmetrical brachycephaly (retrusion of both supraorbital rims) and orbital hypertelorism. Other abnormalities in the craniofacial region and extremities were clues to a particular mutation in FGFR2, FGFR3, TWIST, or the X-linked mutation. Neither macrocephaly nor degree of nasal angulation nor relative vertical position of the lateral canthi correlated with mutational detection. An additional four patients in this study had either unilateral or bilateral coronal synostosis in an immediate relative and had anthropometric findings that predicted a mutation, and yet no genetic alteration was found. This suggests either that the authors' screening methods were not sufficiently sensitive or that perhaps there are other unknown pathogenic loci. Nevertheless, molecular testing is recommended for infants who have unilateral coronal synostosis, particularly if there are the anthropometric findings highlighted in this study or an otherwise suspicious feature in the child or a parent. Infants with either an identified or a suspected mutation usually need bilateral asymmetric advancement of the bandeau and may be more likely to require frontal revision in childhood.	Is there an association between FGFR3 mutation and plagiocephaly?	Other abnormalities in the craniofacial region and extremities were clues to a particular mutation in FGFR2, FGFR3, TWIST, or the X-linked mutation.
The production performance of pigs has been significantly improved due to long-term artificial selection, and the specific variation characterizations (selection signatures) emerged from the selected genome regions. Different types of breeds are subjected to different selection intensities and had different selection signatures. Selective sweep analysis is one of major methods to detect the selection signatures. In this study, based on the 60K BeadChip genotyping data of both commercial Large White (n=45) and local Tongcheng pigs (n=45), genetic differentiation coefficient Fst was applied to detect the selection signatures. Using gPLINK software to set quality control standards, a total of 34 304 SNPs were selected for statistical analysis. Fst values between two breeds were estimated with Genepop package and the average Fst value was 0.3209. Setting Fst>0.7036 (1% of total number of Fst values) as selection threshold, 344 SNPs were obtained and SNP location annotation indicated that there were 79 candidate genes (Sus scrofa Build 9). Furthermore, network analysis was performed using Ingenuity Pathway Analysis and the preliminary results suggested that most genes were involved in growth, reproduction, and immune response, such as NCOA6, ERBB4, RUNX2, and APOB genes. The findings from this study will contribute to further identification of candidate genes and causal mutations implying for meat production and disease resistance in pig.	Which software are used for the detection of selective sweeps?	Using gPLINK software to set quality control standards, a total of 34 304 SNPs were selected for statistical analysis. Fst values between two breeds were estimated with Genepop package and the average Fst value was 0.3209.
Recent studies have disclosed the function of enhancer RNAs (eRNAs), which are long non-coding RNAs transcribed from gene enhancer regions, in transcriptional regulation. However, it remains unclear whether eRNAs are involved in the regulation of human heme oxygenase-1 gene (HO-1) induction. Here, we report that multiple nuclear-enriched eRNAs are transcribed from the regions adjacent to two human HO-1 enhancers (i.e. the distal E2 and proximal E1 enhancers), and some of these eRNAs are induced by the oxidative stress-causing reagent diethyl maleate (DEM). We demonstrated that the expression of one forward direction (5' to 3') eRNA transcribed from the human HO-1 E2 enhancer region (named human HO-1enhancer RNA E2-3; hereafter called eRNA E2-3) was induced by DEM in an NRF2-dependent manner in HeLa cells. Conversely, knockdown of BACH1, a repressor of HO-1 transcription, further increased DEM-inducible eRNA E2-3 transcription as well as HO-1 expression. In addition, we showed that knockdown of eRNA E2-3 selectively down-regulated DEM-induced HO-1 expression. Furthermore, eRNA E2-3 knockdown attenuated DEM-induced Pol II binding to the promoter and E2 enhancer regions of HO-1 without affecting NRF2 recruitment to the E2 enhancer. These findings indicate that eRNAE2-3 is functional and is required for HO-1 induction.	Are there enhancer RNAs (eRNAs)?	Recent studies have disclosed the function of enhancer RNAs (eRNAs), which are long non-coding RNAs transcribed from gene enhancer regions, in transcriptional regulation.
The prevalence of metabolic disorders (MDs), especially diabetes, is rapidly increasing worldwide, leading to an increasing risk of cardiovascular and other socially relevant complications. To boost MD biomarker discovery, advanced proteomics can harmonize metabolomics. Indeed, the rapid development of mass spectrometry (MS) has designated proteomics as an emerging platform to interrogate the plasma/serum proteome for the discovery of next-generation biomarkers exploitable for risk assessment, early detection and prognosis of MDs. Preanalytical plasma/serum treatment, such as combinatorial peptide ligand libraries with nano-liquid chromatography coupled with tandem MS or selected reaction monitoring coupled to triple-quadrupole time-of-flight instruments, are proven clinical laboratory techniques for quantitative analyses. New strategies, such as SWATH™ MS, which allows us to systematically characterize and quantify query sample sets of 'any protein of interest' in complex biological samples, may dramatically improve next-generation MD biomarkers, especially considering the plethora of candidates coming from the 'bioreactor' gut microbiota affecting MD onset and progression.	What is the main application of SWATH-MS in proteomics?	ew strategies, such as SWATH™ MS, which allows us to systematically characterize and quantify query sample sets of 'any protein of interest' in complex biological samples,
Obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) is a highly prevalent sleep disorder; however, it remains underdiagnosed and undertreated. Although screening tools such as the Berlin questionnaire (BQ), STOP-BANG questionnaire (SBQ), STOP questionnaire (STOP), and Epworth sleepiness scale (ESS) are widely used for OSA, the findings regarding their diagnostic accuracy are controversial. Therefore, this meta-analysis investigated and compared the summary sensitivity, specificity, and diagnostic odds ratio (DOR) among the BQ, SBQ, STOP, and ESS according to the severity of OSA. Electronic databases, namely the Embase, PubMed, PsycINFO, ProQuest dissertations and theses A&I databases, and China knowledge resource integrated database, were searched from their inception to July 15, 2016. We included studies examining the sensitivity and specificity of the BQ, SBQ, STOP, and ESS against the apnea-hypopnea index (AHI) or respiratory disturbance index (RDI). The revised quality assessment of diagnostic accuracy studies was used to evaluate the methodological quality of studies. A random-effects bivariate model was used to estimate the summary sensitivity, specificity, and DOR of the tools. We identified 108 studies including a total of 47 989 participants. The summary estimates were calculated for the BQ, SBQ, STOP, and ESS in detecting mild (AHI/RDI ≥ 5 events/h), moderate (AHI/RDI ≥ 15 events/h), and severe OSA (AHI/RDI ≥ 30 events/h). The performance levels of the BQ, SBQ, STOP, and ESS in detecting OSA of various severity levels are outlined as follows: for mild OSA, the pooled sensitivity levels were 76%, 88%, 87%, and 54%; pooled specificity levels were 59%, 42%, 42%, and 65%; and pooled DORs were 4.30, 5.13, 4.85, and 2.18, respectively. For moderate OSA, the pooled sensitivity levels were 77%, 90%, 89%, and 47%; pooled specificity levels were 44%, 36%, 32%, and 621%; and pooled DORs were 2.68, 5.05, 3.71, and 1.45, respectively. For severe OSA, the pooled sensitivity levels were 84%, 93%, 90%, and 58%; pooled specificity levels were 38%, 35%, 28%, and 60%; and pooled DORs were 3.10, 6.51, 3.37, and 2.10, respectively. Therefore, for mild, moderate, and severe OSA, the pooled sensitivity and DOR of the SBQ were significantly higher than those of other screening tools (P < .05); however, the specificity of the SBQ was lower than that of the ESS (P < .05). Moreover, age, sex, body mass index, study sample size, study populations, presence of comorbidities, PSG or portable monitoring performance, and risk of bias in the domains of the index test and reference standard were significant moderators of sensitivity and specificity (P < .05). Compared with the BQ, STOP, and ESS, the SBQ is a more accurate tool for detecting mild, moderate, and severe OSA. Sleep specialists should use the SBQ to conduct patient interviews for the early diagnosis of OSA in clinical settings, particularly in resource-poor countries and sleep clinics where PSG is unavailable.	Which disease risk can be estimated with the Stop-Bang questionnaire?	Compared with the BQ, STOP, and ESS, the SBQ is a more accurate tool for detecting mild, moderate, and severe OSA. Sleep specialists should use the SBQ to conduct patient interviews for the early diagnosis of OSA in clinical settings, particularly in resource-poor countries and sleep clinics where PSG is unavailable.
Diabetes induces cardiomyocyte apoptosis and suppresses cardiac autophagy, indicating that the interplay between autophagy and apoptotic cell death pathways is important in the pathogenesis of diabetic cardiomyopathy. The potential mechanism, however, remains unknown. We recently reported that diabetes depresses AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK) activity, inhibits MAPK8/JNK1-BCL2 signaling, and promotes the interaction between BECN1 and BCL2. Concomitantly, diabetes induces cardiomyocyte apoptosis and suppresses cardiac autophagy. Activation of AMPK directly phosphorylates MAPK8, which mediates BCL2 phosphorylation and subsequent BECN1-BCL2 dissociation, leading to restoration of cardiac autophagy, protection against cardiac apoptosis, and ultimately improvement in cardiac structure and function. We conclude that dissociation of BCL2 from BECN1 through activation of MAPK8-BCL2 signaling may be an important mechanism by which AMPK activation restores autophagy, protects against cardiac apoptosis, and prevents diabetic cardiomyopathy.	What is the role of AMPK in diabetic cardiomyopathy?	Activation of AMPK directly phosphorylates MAPK8, which mediates BCL2 phosphorylation and subsequent BECN1-BCL2 dissociation, leading to restoration of cardiac autophagy, protection against cardiac apoptosis, and ultimately improvement in cardiac structure and function.
In an animal model of AMI relevant to the human disease, intracoronary administration of IGF-1/HGF is a practical and effective strategy to reduce pathological cardiac remodeling, induce myocardial regeneration, and improve ventricular function.	what is the role of IGF-1 in cardiac regeneration after myocardial infarction?	In an animal model of AMI relevant to the human disease, intracoronary administration of IGF-1/HGF is a practical and effective strategy to reduce pathological cardiac remodeling, induce myocardial regeneration, and improve ventricular function.
Ivosidenib (Tibsovo) is a small molecule, orally available inhibitor of mutated cytosolic isocitrate dehydrogenase 1 (IDH1) that is being developed by Agios Pharmaceuticals for the treatment of cancer in patients with IDH1 mutations. The mutated form of the IDH1 enzyme produces a metabolite, 2-hydroxyglutarate (2-HG), which is thought to play a role in the formation and progression of acute myeloid leukaemia (AML), gliomas and other cancers. Elevated 2-HG levels interfere with cellular metabolism and epigenetic regulation, thereby contributing to oncogenesis. Ivosidenib targets the IDH1 metabolic pathway to prevent a build-up of the oncometabolite 2-HG. This article summarizes the milestones in the development of ivosidenib leading to this first approval in the USA for the treatment of patients with relapsed or refractory AML with a susceptible IDH1 mutation. Clinical development for AML, cholangiocarcinoma, glioma, myelodysplastic syndromes and solid tumours is ongoing worldwide.	Which molecule is inhibited by ivosidenib?	Ivosidenib targets the IDH1 metabolic pathway to prevent a build-up of the oncometabolite 2-HG.
Background We evaluated the effect of erenumab, a fully human monoclonal antibody that inhibits the canonical calcitonin gene-related peptide receptor, on migraine-related disability, impact, and health-related quality of life among patients with episodic migraine. Methods Patients enrolled in a phase 3, 6-month, double-blind, placebo-controlled study of once-monthly erenumab 70 and 140 mg for migraine prevention (STRIVE) used an eDiary during the baseline and double-blind treatment phases to complete validated, specific questionnaires, including the modified (monthly) Migraine Disability Assessment Questionnaire; Headache Impact Test; and Migraine-Specific Quality of Life Questionnaire-role function-restrictive (MSQ-RFR), -role function-preventive (MSQ-RFP), and -emotional function (MSQ-EF). Results A total of 955 patients were randomized to receive erenumab 70 mg (n = 317), erenumab 140 mg (n = 319), or placebo (n = 319). Erenumab versus placebo resulted in significantly greater improvements in all patient-reported outcomes; changes from baseline were numerically higher with 140 mg erenumab. Improvements occurred rapidly and were maintained over 6 months of treatment. Between-group differences from placebo over months 4-6 for the 70- and 140-mg dose groups were, respectively, -2.1 and -2.8 for modified (monthly) Migraine Disability Assessment Questionnaire, -2.1 and -2.3 for Headache Impact Test, 5.1 and 6.5 for MSQ-RFR, 4.2 and 5.4 for MSQ-RFP, and 5.2 and 6.7 for MSQ-EF ( p < 0.001 for all). Erenumab also significantly reduced the proportion of patients with severe and very severe migraine-related disability and increased the proportion of patients with clinically meaningful improvements in migraine-related impact and health-related quality of life. Conclusion Erenumab reduced migraine disability and impact and improved patients' health-related quality of life, reinforcing its role as a promising new therapy for migraine prevention.	Which receptor is targeted by Erenumab?	Background We evaluated the effect of erenumab, a fully human monoclonal antibody that inhibits the canonical calcitonin gene-related peptide receptor, on migraine-related disability, impact, and health-related quality of life among patients with episodic migraine.
CENP-A is a centromere-specific histone H3 variant that is required for kinetochore assembly and accurate chromosome segregation. For it to function properly, CENP-A must be specifically localized to centromeres. In fission yeast, Scm3sp and the Mis18 complex, composed of Mis16, Eic1, and Mis18, function as a CENP-A(Cnp1)-specific chaperone and a recruiting factor, respectively, and together ensure accurate delivery of CENP-A(Cnp1) to centromeres. Although how Scm3sp specifically recognizes CENP-A(Cnp1) has been revealed recently, the recruiting mechanism of CENP-A(Cnp1) via the Mis18 complex remains unknown. In this study, we have determined crystal structures of Schizosaccharomyces japonicus Mis16 alone and in complex with the helix 1 of histone H4 (H4α1). Crystal structures followed by mutant analysis and affinity pull-downs have revealed that Mis16 recognizes both H4α1 and Scm3sp independently within the CENP-A(Cnp1)/H4:Scm3sp complex. This observation suggests that Mis16 gains CENP-A(Cnp1) specificity by recognizing both Scm3sp and histone H4. Our studies provide insights into the molecular mechanisms underlying specific recruitment of CENP-A(Cnp1)/H4:Scm3sp into centromeres.	What is the function of the Mis18 protein?	In fission yeast, Scm3sp and the Mis18 complex, composed of Mis16, Eic1, and Mis18, function as a CENP-A(Cnp1)-specific chaperone and a recruiting factor, respectively, and together ensure accurate delivery of CENP-A(Cnp1) to centromeres.
Metabotropic glutamate receptor 5 (mGluR5) has been implicated in Alzheimer's disease (AD) pathology. We sought to understand whether mGluR5's role in AD requires glutamate signaling. We used a potent mGluR5 silent allosteric modulator (SAM, BMS-984923) to separate its well-known physiological role in glutamate signaling from a pathological role in mediating amyloid-β oligomer (Aβo) action. Binding of the SAM to mGluR5 does not change glutamate signaling but strongly reduces mGluR5 interaction with cellular prion protein (PrP) bound to Aβo. The SAM compound prevents Aβo-induced signal transduction in brain slices and in an AD transgenic mouse model, the APPswe/PS1ΔE9 strain. Critically, 4 weeks of SAM treatment rescues memory deficits and synaptic depletion in the APPswe/PS1ΔE9 transgenic mouse brain. Our data show that mGluR5's role in Aβo-dependent AD phenotypes is separate from its role in glutamate signaling and silent allosteric modulation of mGluR5 has promise as a disease-modifying AD intervention with a broad therapeutic window.	Silent Allosteric Modulation of mGluR5 is a form of treatment for what disease?	silent allosteric modulation of mGluR5 has promise as a disease-modifying AD intervention with a broad therapeutic window.
Monoamine Oxidase A (MAOA) is a critical enzyme in the catabolism of monoaminergic neurotransmitters. MAOA transcriptional activity is thought to be regulated by a well characterized 30 base pair (bp) variable nucleotide repeat (VNTR) that lies approximately ∼1000 bp upstream of the transcriptional start site (TSS). However, clinical associations between this VNTR genotype and behavioral states have been inconsistent. Herein, we describe a second, 10 bp VNTR that lies ∼1500 bp upstream of the TSS. We provide in vitro and in silico evidence that this new VNTR region may be more influential in regulating MAOA transcription than the more proximal VNTR and that methylation of this CpG-rich VNTR is genotype dependent in females. Finally, we demonstrate that genotype at this new VNTR interacts significantly with history of child abuse to predict antisocial personality disorder (ASPD) in women and accounts for variance in addition to that explained by the prior VNTR.	With which personality traits has the human monoamine oxidase A (MAOA) gene been associated?	However, clinical associations between this VNTR genotype and behavioral states have been inconsistent.
A recently described protein, metaxin 1, serves as a component of a preprotein import complex in the outer membrane of the mammalian mitochondrion. A yeast two-hybrid screen with metaxin 1 as bait has now identified a novel protein, which we have termed metaxin 2, as a metaxin 1-binding protein. Metaxin 2 shares 29% identity with metaxin 1 at the amino acid level, but metaxin 2, unlike metaxin 1, lacks a C-terminal mitochondrial outer membrane signal-anchor domain. Two C. elegans hypothetical proteins, CelZC97.1 and CelF39B2.i, share high sequence similarity with metaxin 2 and metaxin 1, respectively, and likely represent the C. elegans orthologs. Affinity-purified antibodies against metaxin 2 were prepared against the recombinant protein produced in E. coli and were used to analyze the subcellular distribution of metaxin 2. In subcellular fractions of mouse liver, a 29 kD immunoreactive protein, consistent in size with the predicted translation product of metaxin 2 cDNA, was found solely in mitochondria. Alkali extraction of mitochondria indicated that metaxin 2 is peripherally associated with mitochondrial membranes. Metaxin 2 in intact mitochondria was susceptible to digestion with proteinase K, indicating that metaxin 2 is located on the cytosolic face of the mitochondrial outer membrane. Finally, baculoviruses encoding a His6-tagged metaxin 2 and an untagged metaxin 1 lacking its C-terminal transmembrane domain were produced and used separately or in combination to infect Sf21 insect cells. Metaxin 1 bound to a Ni2+-chelate affinity column only in the presence of metaxin 2, indicating that metaxin 1 and metaxin 2 interact when overexpressed in insect cells. These results suggest that metaxin 2 is bound to the cytosolic face of the mitochondrial outer membrane by means of its interaction with membrane-bound metaxin 1, and that this complex may play a role in protein import into mammalian mitochondria.	Where is the metaxin complex localized?	In subcellular fractions of mouse liver, a 29 kD immunoreactive protein, consistent in size with the predicted translation product of metaxin 2 cDNA, was found solely in mitochondria.
Acute akinesia is a life-threatening complication of Parkinson disease (PD). It is unlike the "wearing-off" phenomenon that occurs when dopaminergic drug levels decline and responds to dopaminergic rescue drugs. Acute akinesia may be a clinical entity distinct from the previously described PD motor fluctuations.	What is the "wearing-off" phenomenon in levodopa-treated patients with Parkinson's Disease?	It is unlike the "wearing-off" phenomenon that occurs when dopaminergic drug levels decline and responds to dopaminergic rescue drugs.
No standard chemotherapy regimens have been defined yet for extranodal natural killer/T cell lymphoma (ENKTL), and the prognosis of patients with advanced or relapsed disease is very poor. Daratumumab, an investigated anti-cancer drug targeting CD38, has been of great interest in the treatment of CD38-expressing malignancies, especially multiple myeloma. In this study, we reviewed the clinical data of 94 patients with ENKTL, investigated the expression of CD38, and analyzed the prognostic value of CD38 expression. Forty-seven patients had weak expression of CD38, and the other 47 patients had strong expression. The complete response (CR) rate was significantly higher in patients who were treated with asparaginase-based therapy (83.8 vs. 59.6 %, p = 0.025). There was a trend towards higher CR rate in CD38 weak expression group (78.7 vs. 59.6 %, p = 0.074). At a median follow-up time of 42 months, the 2-year and 5-year progression-free survival (PFS) rates were 53.0 and 39.0 %, respectively, and the 2-year and 5-year overall survival (OS) rates were 68.0 and 58.0 %, respectively. In multivariate survival analysis including CD38 expression status, International Prognostic Index (IPI) score, local tumor invasion, and chemotherapy regimens, it was found that strong expression of CD38 and non-asparaginase-based chemoregimens were independent adverse prognostic factors for PFS (p = 0.009 and 0.027, respectively), while local tumor invasion and higher IPI score were independent adverse prognostic factors for OS (p = 0.002 and 0.035, respectively). In subgroup analysis, strong expression of CD38 significantly correlated with inferior survival outcomes in patients without local tumor invasion (p = 0.011) or with stage I-II disease (p = 0.008). In conclusion, we firstly found that the majority of ENKTL cases were CD38 positive, with half had strong expression of CD38, which significantly correlated with poor outcomes, indicating the potential role of CD38 as a therapy target for ENKTL.	Which molecule is targeted by Daratumumab?	Daratumumab, an investigated anti-cancer drug targeting CD38, has been of great interest in the treatment of CD38-expressing malignancies, especially multiple myeloma.
C3G (Crk SH3 domain binding guanine nucleotide releasing factor) (Rap guanine nucleotide exchange factor 1), essential for mammalian embryonic development, is ubiquitously expressed and undergoes regulated nucleocytoplasmic exchange. Here we show that C3G localizes to SC35-positive nuclear speckles and regulates splicing activity. Reversible association of C3G with speckles was seen on inhibition of transcription and splicing. C3G shows partial colocalization with SC35 and is recruited to a chromatin and RNase-sensitive fraction of speckles. Its presence in speckles is dependent on intact cellular actin cytoskeleton and is lost on expression of the kinase Clk1. Rap1, a substrate of C3G, is also present in nuclear speckles, and inactivation of Rap signaling by expression of GFP-Rap1GAP alters speckle morphology and number. Enhanced association of C3G with speckles is seen on glycogen synthase kinase 3 beta inhibition or differentiation of C2C12 cells to myotubes. CRISPR/Cas9-mediated knockdown of C3G resulted in altered splicing activity of an artificial gene as well as endogenous CD44. C3G knockout clones of C2C12 as well as MDA-MB-231 cells showed reduced protein levels of several splicing factors compared with control cells. Our results identify C3G and Rap1 as novel components of nuclear speckles and a role for C3G in regulating cellular RNA splicing activity.	Which biological process takes place in nuclear speckles?	Here we show that C3G localizes to SC35-positive nuclear speckles and regulates splicing activity.
Progranulin, a secreted glycoprotein, is encoded in humans by the single GRN gene. Progranulin consists of seven and a half, tandemly repeated, non-identical copies of the 12 cysteine granulin motif. Many cellular processes and diseases are associated with this unique pleiotropic factor that include, but are not limited to, embryogenesis, tumorigenesis, inflammation, wound repair, neurodegeneration and lysosome function. Haploinsufficiency caused by autosomal dominant mutations within the GRN gene leads to frontotemporal lobar degeneration, a progressive neuronal atrophy that presents in patients as frontotemporal dementia. Frontotemporal dementia is an early onset form of dementia, distinct from Alzheimer's disease. The GRN-related form of frontotemporal lobar dementia is a proteinopathy characterized by the appearance of neuronal inclusions containing ubiquitinated and fragmented TDP-43 (encoded by TARDBP). The neurotrophic and neuro-immunomodulatory properties of progranulin have recently been reported but are still not well understood. Gene delivery of GRN in experimental models of Alzheimer's- and Parkinson's-like diseases inhibits phenotype progression. Here we review what is currently known concerning the molecular function and mechanism of action of progranulin in normal physiological and pathophysiological conditions in both in vitro and in vivo models. The potential therapeutic applications of progranulin in treating neurodegenerative diseases are highlighted.	What protein is encoded by the GRN gene?	Progranulin, a secreted glycoprotein, is encoded in humans by the single GRN gene.
Mammalian interphase chromosomes fold into a multitude of loops to fit the confines of cell nuclei, and looping is tightly linked to regulated function. Chromosome conformation capture (3C) technology has significantly advanced our understanding of this structure-to-function relationship. However, all 3C-based methods rely on chemical cross-linking to stabilize spatial interactions. This step remains a "black box" as regards the biases it may introduce, and some discrepancies between microscopy and 3C studies have now been reported. To address these concerns, we developed "i3C", a novel approach for capturing spatial interactions without a need for cross-linking. We apply i3C to intact nuclei of living cells and exploit native forces that stabilize chromatin folding. Using different cell types and loci, computational modeling, and a methylation-based orthogonal validation method, "TALE-iD", we show that native interactions resemble cross-linked ones, but display improved signal-to-noise ratios and are more focal on regulatory elements and CTCF sites, while strictly abiding to topologically associating domain restrictions.	What is the TALE-iD method used for?	Using different cell types and loci, computational modeling, and a methylation-based orthogonal validation method, "TALE-iD", we show that native interactions resemble cross-linked ones, but display improved signal-to-noise ratios and are more focal on regulatory elements and CTCF sites, while strictly abiding to topologically associating domain restrictions.
The large size of spectrin, the flexible protein promoting reversible deformation of red cells, has been an obstacle to elucidating the molecular mechanism of its function. By studying cloned fragments of the repeating unit domain, we have found a correspondence between positions of selected spectrin repeats in a tetramer with their stabilities of folding. Six fragments consisting of two spectrin repeats were selected for study primarily on the basis of the predicted secondary structures of their linker regions. Fragments with a putatively helical linker were more stable to urea- and heat-induced unfolding than those with a putatively nonhelical linker. Two of the less stably folded fragments, human erythroid alpha-spectrin repeats 13 and 14 (HEalpha13,14) and human erythroid beta-spectrin repeats 8 and 9 (HEbeta8,9), are located opposite each other on antiparallel spectrin dimers. At least partial unfolding of these repeats under physiological conditions indicates that they may serve as a hinge. Also less stably folded, the fragment of human erythroid alpha-spectrin repeats 4 and 5 (HEalpha4,5) lies opposite the site of interaction between the partial repeats at the C- and N-terminal ends of beta- and alpha-spectrin, respectively, on the opposing dimer. More stably folded fragments, human erythroid alpha-spectrin repeats 1 and 2 (HEalpha1,2) and human erythroid alpha-spectrin repeats 2 and 3 (HEalpha2,3), lie nearly opposite each other on antiparallel spectrin dimers of a tetramer. These clusterings along the spectrin tetramer of repeats with similar stabilities of folding may have relevance for spectrin function, particularly for its well known flexibility.	Alpha-spectrin and beta-spectrin subunits form parallel or antiparallel heterodimers?	Two of the less stably folded fragments, human erythroid alpha-spectrin repeats 13 and 14 (HEalpha13,14) and human erythroid beta-spectrin repeats 8 and 9 (HEbeta8,9), are located opposite each other on antiparallel spectrin dimers.
We have determined the nucleotide sequence of the murine immunoglobulin gamma 2a membrane 3' untranslated region (1413 nucleotides) and approximately 679 nucleotides of downstream sequence. Two AATAAA hexanucleotide sequences are present in the 2092 nucleotide interval. The first one functions as the major polyA signal, directing cleavage and polyadenylation at a site 20 nucleotides downstream. Within 41 nucleotides downstream of the major membrane polyA signal are two sequences with 75% homology to the consensus sequence, (C/T)GTGTT(C/T)(C/T), identified by McLauchlan et al. [Nucl. Acids Res. 13, 1347-1365 (1985)]. An 80% homology match to the Berget consensus sequence, CA(C/T)TG, begins five nucleotides 3' of the major polyA site (used 20 times more than the second, downstream polyA site) [Berget Nature 309, 179-182 (1984)]. The second AATAAA, located 73 nucleotides 3' of the first, directs cleavage and polyadenylation 18 nucleotides downstream at a minor polyA site. One match with 75% homology to the McLauchlan consensus sequence begins 17 nucleotides 3' of the second (weaker) polyA site. No matches to the Berget consensus sequence are located near this second, weaker polyA site.	What is the most prominent sequence consensus for the polyadenylation site?	Two AATAAA hexanucleotide sequences are present in the 2092 nucleotide interval. The first one functions as the major polyA signal
The anti programmed cell death-1 (PD-1) antibodies pembrolizumab and nivolumab have been recently licensed by the Food and Drug Administration for the treatment of advanced melanoma. Immune checkpoint inhibitors such as these can induce endocrine adverse events but autoimmune diabetes has not been described to date. However, there is a strong preclinical rationale that supports this autoimmune toxicity. We describe for the first time the case of an adult patient who developed autoimmune diabetes likely as a consequence of PD-1 inhibition with pembrolizumab. The presence of high serum titres of anti-glutamic acid decarboxylase antibodies together with a suggestive clinical presentation, age of the patient and preclinical data strongly support an autoimmune aetiology of the diabetes. Moreover, the patient was found to have a well-known high-risk human leucocyte antigen type for the development of type 1 diabetes in children, so the PD-1 inhibition is very likely to have triggered the autoimmune phenomenon. Our case suggests that insulin-dependent diabetes might be a rare but important anti-PD-1 immune-related adverse event.	What is targeted by monoclonal antibody Pembrolizumab?	We describe for the first time the case of an adult patient who developed autoimmune diabetes likely as a consequence of PD-1 inhibition with pembrolizumab.
Drug interactions involving protease inhibitors are common. Protease inhibitors are well known inhibitors of the 3A4 isozyme of cytochrome P450. Select protease inhibitors, including co-formulated lopinavir/ritonavir, may induce glucuronidation or the activity of other CYP450 isozymes. We describe the case of a patient taking warfarin who experienced a significantly decreased international normalized ratio after the initiation of antiretroviral therapy that included lopinavir/ritonavir. We review the possible mechanisms of this interaction and the reported interactions between warfarin and other protease inhibitors.	Please list 7 classes of drugs that interact with Warfarin.	We review the possible mechanisms of this interaction and the reported interactions between warfarin and other protease inhibitors.
Different classes of non-coding RNAs, including microRNAs, have recently been implicated in the process of tumourigenesis. In this study, we examined the expression and putative functions of a novel class of non-coding RNAs known as transcribed ultraconserved regions (T-UCRs) in neuroblastoma. Genome-wide expression profiling revealed correlations between specific T-UCR expression levels and important clinicogenetic parameters such as MYCN amplification status. A functional genomics approach based on the integration of multi-level transcriptome data was adapted to gain insights into T-UCR functions. Assignments of T-UCRs to cellular processes such as TP53 response, differentiation and proliferation were verified using various cellular model systems. For the first time, our results define a T-UCR expression landscape in neuroblastoma and suggest widespread T-UCR involvement in diverse cellular processes that are deregulated in the process of tumourigenesis.	Are transcribed ultraconserved regions involved in cancer?	Different classes of non-coding RNAs, including microRNAs, have recently been implicated in the process of tumourigenesis. In this study, we examined the expression and putative functions of a novel class of non-coding RNAs known as transcribed ultraconserved regions (T-UCRs) in neuroblastoma
Biological systems are hierarchically self-organized complex structures characterized by nonlinear interactions. Biochemical energy is transformed into work of physical forces required for various biological functions. We postulate that energy transduction depends on endogenous electrodynamic fields generated by microtubules. Microtubules and mitochondria colocalize in cells with microtubules providing tracks for mitochondrial movement. Besides energy transformation, mitochondria form a spatially distributed proton charge layer and a resultant strong static electric field, which causes water ordering in the surrounding cytosol. These effects create conditions for generation of coherent electrodynamic field. The metabolic energy transduction pathways are strongly affected in cancers. Mitochondrial dysfunction in cancer cells (Warburg effect) or in fibroblasts associated with cancer cells (reverse Warburg effect) results in decreased or increased power of the generated electromagnetic field, respectively, and shifted and rebuilt frequency spectra. Disturbed electrodynamic interaction forces between cancer and healthy cells may favor local invasion and metastasis. A therapeutic strategy of targeting dysfunctional mitochondria for restoration of their physiological functions makes it possible to switch on the natural apoptotic pathway blocked in cancer transformed cells. Experience with dichloroacetate in cancer treatment and reestablishment of the healthy state may help in the development of novel effective drugs aimed at the mitochondrial function.	Which is the primary distinction between the Reverse Warburg effect and the conventional Warburg effect?	The metabolic energy transduction pathways are strongly affected in cancers. Mitochondrial dysfunction in cancer cells (Warburg effect) or in fibroblasts associated with cancer cells (reverse Warburg effect) results in decreased or increased power of the generated electromagnetic field, respectively
Septins are an evolutionarily conserved family of GTP-binding proteins. They are involved in diverse processes including cytokinesis, apoptosis, infection, neurodegeneration and neoplasia. In this study, through thorough data mining of existed channel catfish genomic resources, we identified a complete set of 15 septin genes. Septins were classified into four subgroups according to phylogenetic analysis. Extensive comparative genomic analysis, including domain and syntenic analysis, supported their annotation and orthologies. The expression patterns of septins in channel catfish were examined in healthy tissues and after infection with two major bacterial pathogens, Edwardsiella ictaluri and Flavobacterium columnare. In healthy channel catfish, most septin genes were ubiquitously expressed and presented diversity patterns in various tissues, especially mucosal tissues, proposing the significant roles septin genes may play in maintaining homeostasis and host immune response activities. After bacterial infections, most septin genes were regulated, but opposite direction in expression profiles were found with the two bacterial pathogens: the differentially expressed septin genes were down-regulated in the intestine after E. ictaluri infection while generally up-regulated in the gill after F. columnare infection, suggesting a pathogen-specific and tissue-specific pattern of regulation. Taken together, these results suggested that septin genes may play complex and important roles in the host immune responses to bacterial pathogens in channel catfish.	What are Septins?	Septins are an evolutionarily conserved family of GTP-binding proteins. They are involved in diverse processes including cytokinesis, apoptosis, infection, neurodegeneration and neoplasia.
Angiogenin (ANG) promotes cell growth and survival. Under growth conditions, ANG undergoes nuclear translocation and accumulates in the nucleolus where it stimulates rRNA transcription. When cells are stressed, ANG mediates the production of tRNA-derived stress-induced small RNA (tiRNA), which reprograms protein translation into a survival mechanism. The ribonucleolytic activity of ANG is essential for both processes but how this activity is regulated is unknown. We report here that ribonuclease/angiogenin inhibitor 1 (RNH1) controls both the localization and activity of ANG. Under growth conditions, ANG is located in the nucleus and is not associated with RNH1 so that the ribonucleolytic activity is retained to ensure rRNA transcription. Cytoplasmic ANG is associated with and inhibited by RNH1 so that random cleavage of cellular RNA is prevented. Under stress conditions, ANG is localized to the cytoplasm and is concentrated in stress granules where it is not associated with RNH1 and thus remains enzymatically active for tiRNA production. By contrast, nuclear ANG is associated with RNH1 in stressed cells to ensure that the enzymatic activity is inhibited and no unnecessary rRNA is produced to save anabolic energy. Knockdown of RNH1 abolished stress-induced relocalization of ANG and decreased cell growth and survival.	Which is the subcellular localization of the protein angiogenin?	Under growth conditions, ANG undergoes nuclear translocation and accumulates in the nucleolus where it stimulates rRNA transcription
The methylation state of lysine 20 on histone H4 (H4K20) has been linked to chromatin compaction, transcription, DNA repair and DNA replication. Monomethylation of H4K20 (H4K20me1) is mediated by the cell cycle-regulated histone methyltransferase PR-Set7. PR-Set7 depletion in mammalian cells results in defective S phase progression and the accumulation of DNA damage, which has been partially attributed to defects in origin selection and activation. However, these studies were limited to only a handful of mammalian origins, and it remains unclear how PR-Set7 and H4K20 methylation impact the replication program on a genomic scale. We employed genetic, cytological, and genomic approaches to better understand the role of PR-Set7 and H4K20 methylation in regulating DNA replication and genome stability in Drosophila cells. We find that deregulation of H4K20 methylation had no impact on origin activation throughout the genome. Instead, depletion of PR-Set7 and loss of H4K20me1 results in the accumulation of DNA damage and an ATR-dependent cell cycle arrest. Coincident with the ATR-dependent cell cycle arrest, we find increased DNA damage that is specifically limited to late replicating regions of the Drosophila genome, suggesting that PR-Set7-mediated monomethylation of H4K20 is critical for maintaining the genomic integrity of late replicating domains.	Is H4K20 methylation associated with DNA replication?	The methylation state of lysine 20 on histone H4 (H4K20) has been linked to chromatin compaction, transcription, DNA repair and DNA replication.
At the beginning of this century the compulsory vaccination and revaccination which was legally founded after the introduction of the vaccination by Jenner (1796) led to the removal of the smallpox in Europe and Northern America. However, up to the sixties in the developing countries of Asia, Africa as well as of Southern America and Middle America still fell ill and died of small-pox millions of people. Between 1953 and 1973 importations into countries of Europe and Northern America took place in 51 cases. In 1959 on the motion of the USSR the WHO decided performance of a world-wide eradication programme of small-pox which could be led to success with comprehensive personal, material and financial support of many countries. Flanking scientific, technological and methodical measures were of essential importance. In May 1980 the World Health Assembly in Geneva announced in solemn form the world-wide eradication of the small-pox and gave recommendations to the member countries for concluding measures concerning the small-pox vaccination, the foundation of vaccine reserves and the control of the epidemiological situation in the world. Also in the GDR the small-pox vaccination in childhood could be abolished.	Has small pox been eradicated from the world?	In May 1980 the World Health Assembly in Geneva announced in solemn form the world-wide eradication of the small-pox and gave recommendations to the member countries for concluding measures concerning the small-pox vaccination, the foundation of vaccine reserves and the control of the epidemiological situation in the world.
Duchenne and Becker types of muscular dystrophy are usually differentiated according to age of onset and rate of progression criteria which are not sufficient. The aim of this paper was to re-establish the clues for distinguishing Duchenne from Becker types of muscular dystrophy. According to the onset and progression of the disease, one hundred and eleven patients were subdivided into two groups. First group--Becker muscular dystrophy--consisted of 40 patients and second one of 71 patients with Duchenne type of muscular dystrophy. Clinical data confirm some well known differences between Duchenne and Becker muscular dystrophy concerning the age of onset, severity of disease and rate of progression. Electromyographic signs of myopathic changes and spontaneous activity were found in both diseases. Spontaneous activity--bizarre and fibrillation potentials, as well as sharp waves are more common for Duchenne type. The differences between the Becker from Duchenne type of muscular dystrophy can be described on the basis of complex investigations (clinical, electromyographical, histological and biochemical).	What is the difference between Duchenne muscular Dystrophy and Becker muscular dystrophy?	Clinical data confirm some well known differences between Duchenne and Becker muscular dystrophy concerning the age of onset, severity of disease and rate of progression.
We describe a case of a 42-year-old man, with a previous episode of angina and a normal ECG and serum cardiac markers, and a two months later finding of biphasic T wave in leads V2-V3 and deeply inverted T wave in V4-V5 at a asymptomatic occupational evaluation. This is a typical ECG pattern of Wellens' syndrome. A subsequent coronary angiography showed a critical stenosis of proximal left anterior descendent. We underline the careful value of prolonged observation in chest pain unit and repetitive ECG evaluation also during pain-free period after an angina episode, to exclude an earlier T wave pseudonormalization.	Describe Wellens' Syndrome.	We describe a case of a 42-year-old man, with a previous episode of angina and a normal ECG and serum cardiac markers, and a two months later finding of biphasic T wave in leads V2-V3 and deeply inverted T wave in V4-V5 at a asymptomatic occupational evaluation. This is a typical ECG pattern of Wellens' syndrome.