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1
Introduction to TCP/IP Networking
Networking Fundamentals
1
Which of the following protocols are examples of TCP/IP transport layer protocols? (Choose two answers.) A. Ethernet B. HTTP C. IP D. UDP E. SMTP F. TCP
Which of the following protocols are examples of TCP/IP transport layer protocols? (Choose two answers.)
A. Ethernet B. HTTP C. IP D. UDP E. SMTP F. TCP
DF
1
Introduction to TCP/IP Networking
Networking Fundamentals
2
Which of the following protocols are examples of TCP/IP data-link layer protocols? (Choose two answers.) A. Ethernet B. HTTP C. IP D. UDP E. SMTP F. TCP G. 802.11
Which of the following protocols are examples of TCP/IP data-link layer protocols? (Choose two answers.)
A. Ethernet B. HTTP C. IP D. UDP E. SMTP F. TCP G. 802.11
AG
1
Introduction to TCP/IP Networking
Networking Fundamentals
3
The process of HTTP asking TCP to send some data and making sure that it is received correctly is an example of what? A. Same-layer interaction B. Adjacent-layer interaction C. TCP/IP model D. All of these answers are correct.
The process of HTTP asking TCP to send some data and making sure that it is received correctly is an example of what?
A. Same-layer interaction B. Adjacent-layer interaction C. TCP/IP model D. All of these answers are correct.
B
1
Introduction to TCP/IP Networking
Networking Fundamentals
4
The process of TCP on one computer marking a TCP segment as segment 1 and the receiving computer then acknowledging the receipt of TCP segment 1 is an example of what? A. Data encapsulation B. Same-layer interaction C. Adjacent-layer interaction D. TCP/IP model E. All of these answers are correct.
The process of TCP on one computer marking a TCP segment as segment 1 and the receiving computer then acknowledging the receipt of TCP segment 1 is an example of what?
A. Data encapsulation B. Same-layer interaction C. Adjacent-layer interaction D. TCP/IP model E. All of these answers are correct.
B
1
Introduction to TCP/IP Networking
Networking Fundamentals
5
The process of a web server adding a TCP header to the contents of a web page, followed by adding an IP header and then adding a data-link header and trailer, is an example of what? A. Data encapsulation B. Same-layer interaction C. TCP/IP model D. All of these answers are correct.
The process of a web server adding a TCP header to the contents of a web page, followed by adding an IP header and then adding a data-link header and trailer, is an example of what?
A. Data encapsulation B. Same-layer interaction C. TCP/IP model D. All of these answers are correct.
A
1
Introduction to TCP/IP Networking
Networking Fundamentals
6
Which of the following terms is used specifically to identify the entity created when encapsulating data inside data-link layer headers and trailers? A. Data B. Chunk C. Segment D. Frame E. Packet
Which of the following terms is used specifically to identify the entity created when encapsulating data inside data-link layer headers and trailers?
A. Data B. Chunk C. Segment D. Frame E. Packet
D
2
Fundamentals of Ethernet LANs
Networking Fundamentals
1
Some end-user devices connect to a LAN using a cable while others use wireless. Which answer best characterizes which devices use Ethernet to connect to the LAN? A. Only the end-user devices that use cables are using Ethernet. B. Only the end-user devices that use wireless are using Ethernet. C. Both the end-user devices using cables and those using wireless are using Ethernet. D. Neither the end-user devices using cables nor those using wireless are using Ethernet.
Some end-user devices connect to a LAN using a cable while others use wireless. Which answer best characterizes which devices use Ethernet to connect to the LAN?
A. Only the end-user devices that use cables are using Ethernet. B. Only the end-user devices that use wireless are using Ethernet. C. Both the end-user devices using cables and those using wireless are using Ethernet. D. Neither the end-user devices using cables nor those using wireless are using Ethernet.
A
2
Fundamentals of Ethernet LANs
Networking Fundamentals
2
Which of the following Ethernet standards defines Gigabit Ethernet over UTP cabling? A. 10GBASE-T B. 100BASE-T C. 1000BASE-T D. None of the other answers are correct.
Which of the following Ethernet standards defines Gigabit Ethernet over UTP cabling?
A. 10GBASE-T B. 100BASE-T C. 1000BASE-T D. None of the other answers are correct.
C
2
Fundamentals of Ethernet LANs
Networking Fundamentals
3
Which of the following is true about Ethernet crossover cables for Fast Ethernet? A. Pins 1 and 2 are reversed on the other end of the cable. B. Pins 1 and 2 on one end of the cable connect to pins 3 and 6 on the other end of the cable. C. Pins 1 and 2 on one end of the cable connect to pins 3 and 4 on the other end of the cable. D. The cable can be up to 1000 meters long to cross over between buildings. E. None of the other answers are correct.
Which of the following is true about Ethernet crossover cables for Fast Ethernet?
A. Pins 1 and 2 are reversed on the other end of the cable. B. Pins 1 and 2 on one end of the cable connect to pins 3 and 6 on the other end of the cable. C. Pins 1 and 2 on one end of the cable connect to pins 3 and 4 on the other end of the cable. D. The cable can be up to 1000 meters long to cross over between buildings. E. None of the other answers are correct.
B
2
Fundamentals of Ethernet LANs
Networking Fundamentals
4
Each answer lists two types of devices used in a 100BASE-T network. If these devices were connected with UTP Ethernet cables, which pairs of devices would require a straight-through cable? (Choose three answers.) A. PC and router B. PC and switch C. Hub and switch D. Router and hub E. Wireless access point (Ethernet port) and switch
Each answer lists two types of devices used in a 100BASE-T network. If these devices were connected with UTP Ethernet cables, which pairs of devices would require a straight-through cable? (Choose three answers.)
A. PC and router B. PC and switch C. Hub and switch D. Router and hub E. Wireless access point (Ethernet port) and switch
BDE
2
Fundamentals of Ethernet LANs
Networking Fundamentals
5
Which of the following are advantages of using multimode fiber for an Ethernet link instead of UTP or single-mode fiber? (Choose two answers.) A. To achieve the longest distance possible for that single link. B. To extend the link beyond 100 meters while keeping initial costs as low as possible. C. To make use of an existing stock of laser-based SFP/SFP+ modules. D. To make use of an existing stock of LED-based SFP/SFP+ modules.
Which of the following are advantages of using multimode fiber for an Ethernet link instead of UTP or single-mode fiber? (Choose two answers.)
A. To achieve the longest distance possible for that single link. B. To extend the link beyond 100 meters while keeping initial costs as low as possible. C. To make use of an existing stock of laser-based SFP/SFP+ modules. D. To make use of an existing stock of LED-based SFP/SFP+ modules.
BD
2
Fundamentals of Ethernet LANs
Networking Fundamentals
6
Which of the following is true about the CSMA/CD algorithm? A. The algorithm never allows collisions to occur. B. Collisions can happen, but the algorithm defines how the computers should notice a collision and how to recover. C. The algorithm works with only two devices on the same Ethernet. D. None of the other answers are correct.
Which of the following is true about the CSMA/CD algorithm?
A. The algorithm never allows collisions to occur. B. Collisions can happen, but the algorithm defines how the computers should notice a collision and how to recover. C. The algorithm works with only two devices on the same Ethernet. D. None of the other answers are correct.
B
2
Fundamentals of Ethernet LANs
Networking Fundamentals
7
Which of the following is true about the Ethernet FCS field? A. Ethernet uses FCS for error recovery. B. It is 2 bytes long. C. It resides in the Ethernet trailer, not the Ethernet header. D. It is used for encryption.
Which of the following is true about the Ethernet FCS field?
A. Ethernet uses FCS for error recovery. B. It is 2 bytes long. C. It resides in the Ethernet trailer, not the Ethernet header. D. It is used for encryption.
C
2
Fundamentals of Ethernet LANs
Networking Fundamentals
8
Which of the following are true about the format of Ethernet addresses? (Choose three answers.) A. Each manufacturer puts a unique OUI code into the first 2 bytes of the address. B. Each manufacturer puts a unique OUI code into the first 3 bytes of the address. C. Each manufacturer puts a unique OUI code into the first half of the address. D. The part of the address that holds the manufacturer’s code is called the MAC. E. The part of the address that holds the manufacturer’s code is called the OUI. F. The part of the address that holds the manufacturer’s code has no specific name.
Which of the following are true about the format of Ethernet addresses? (Choose three answers.)
A. Each manufacturer puts a unique OUI code into the first 2 bytes of the address. B. Each manufacturer puts a unique OUI code into the first 3 bytes of the address. C. Each manufacturer puts a unique OUI code into the first half of the address. D. The part of the address that holds the manufacturer’s code is called the MAC. E. The part of the address that holds the manufacturer’s code is called the OUI. F. The part of the address that holds the manufacturer’s code has no specific name.
BCE
2
Fundamentals of Ethernet LANs
Networking Fundamentals
9
Which of the following terms describe Ethernet addresses that can be used to send one frame that is delivered to multiple devices on the LAN? (Choose two answers.) A. Burned-in address B. Unicast address C. Broadcast address D. Multicast address
Which of the following terms describe Ethernet addresses that can be used to send one frame that is delivered to multiple devices on the LAN? (Choose two answers.)
A. Burned-in address B. Unicast address C. Broadcast address D. Multicast address
CD
3
Fundamentals of WANs and IP Routing
Networking Fundamentals
1
Which of the following terms is not commonly used to describe a serial link? A. Private line B. Point-to-point link C. Leased circuit D. E-line
Which of the following terms is not commonly used to describe a serial link?
A. Private line B. Point-to-point link C. Leased circuit D. E-line
D
3
Fundamentals of WANs and IP Routing
Networking Fundamentals
2
Two routers, R1 and R2, connect using an Ethernet WAN service. The service provides point-to-point service between these two routers only, as a Layer 2 Ethernet service. Which of the following are the most likely to be true about this WAN? (Choose two answers.) A. R1 will connect to a physical Ethernet link, with the other end of the cable connected to R2. B. R1 will connect to a physical Ethernet link, with the other end of the cable connected to a device at the WAN service provider point of presence. C. R1 will forward data-link frames to R2 using an HDLC header/trailer. D. R1 will forward data-link frames to R2 using an Ethernet header/trailer.
Two routers, R1 and R2, connect using an Ethernet WAN service. The service provides point-to-point service between these two routers only, as a Layer 2 Ethernet service. Which of the following are the most likely to be true about this WAN? (Choose two answers.)
A. R1 will connect to a physical Ethernet link, with the other end of the cable connected to R2. B. R1 will connect to a physical Ethernet link, with the other end of the cable connected to a device at the WAN service provider point of presence. C. R1 will forward data-link frames to R2 using an HDLC header/trailer. D. R1 will forward data-link frames to R2 using an Ethernet header/trailer.
BD
3
Fundamentals of WANs and IP Routing
Networking Fundamentals
3
Imagine a network in which PC1 connects to the same Ethernet LAN as Router1, PC2 connects to the same LAN as Router2, and the two routers connect to each other with a PPP serial link. When PC1 sends data to PC2, and Router1 removes the Ethernet header and trailer, which of the following is true? A. Router1 does not use the removed Ethernet header/trailer again. B. Router1 re-encapsulates the packet in a PPP frame that uses the Ethernet addresses from the removed header. C. Router1 also removes the IP header before forwarding the data to Router2. D. Router1 re-encapsulates the packet in a new Ethernet frame before forwarding the packet to Router2.
Imagine a network in which PC1 connects to the same Ethernet LAN as Router1, PC2 connects to the same LAN as Router2, and the two routers connect to each other with a PPP serial link. When PC1 sends data to PC2, and Router1 removes the Ethernet header and trailer, which of the following is true?
A. Router1 does not use the removed Ethernet header/trailer again. B. Router1 re-encapsulates the packet in a PPP frame that uses the Ethernet addresses from the removed header. C. Router1 also removes the IP header before forwarding the data to Router2. D. Router1 re-encapsulates the packet in a new Ethernet frame before forwarding the packet to Router2.
A
3
Fundamentals of WANs and IP Routing
Networking Fundamentals
4
Which of the following does a router normally use when making a decision about routing TCP/IP packets? A. Destination MAC address B. Source MAC address C. Destination IP address D. Source IP address E. Destination MAC and IP addresses
Which of the following does a router normally use when making a decision about routing TCP/IP packets?
A. Destination MAC address B. Source MAC address C. Destination IP address D. Source IP address E. Destination MAC and IP addresses
C
3
Fundamentals of WANs and IP Routing
Networking Fundamentals
5
Which of the following are true about a LAN-connected TCP/IP host and its IP routing (forwarding) choices? A. The host always sends packets to its default gateway. B. The host never sends packets to its default gateway. C. The host sends packets to its default gateway if the destination IP address is in a different subnet than the host. D. The host sends packets to its default gateway if the destination IP address is in the same subnet as the host.
Which of the following are true about a LAN-connected TCP/IP host and its IP routing (forwarding) choices?
A. The host always sends packets to its default gateway. B. The host never sends packets to its default gateway. C. The host sends packets to its default gateway if the destination IP address is in a different subnet than the host. D. The host sends packets to its default gateway if the destination IP address is in the same subnet as the host.
C
3
Fundamentals of WANs and IP Routing
Networking Fundamentals
6
Which of the following are functions of a routing protocol? (Choose two answers.) A. Advertising known routes to neighboring routers B. Learning routes to directly connected subnets C. Learning routes as advertised to the router by neighboring routers D. Forwarding IP packets based on a packet’s destination IP address
Which of the following are functions of a routing protocol? (Choose two answers.)
A. Advertising known routes to neighboring routers B. Learning routes to directly connected subnets C. Learning routes as advertised to the router by neighboring routers D. Forwarding IP packets based on a packet’s destination IP address
AC
3
Fundamentals of WANs and IP Routing
Networking Fundamentals
7
A company implements a TCP/IP network, with PC1 sitting on an Ethernet LAN. Which of the following protocols and features requires PC1 to learn information from some other server device? A. ARP B. ping C. DNS D. None of these answers are correct.
A company implements a TCP/IP network, with PC1 sitting on an Ethernet LAN. Which of the following protocols and features requires PC1 to learn information from some other server device?
A. ARP B. ping C. DNS D. None of these answers are correct.
C
4
Using the Command-Line Interface
Ethernet LANs
1
In what modes can you type the command show mac address-table and expect to get a response with MAC table entries? (Choose two answers.) A. User mode B. Enable mode C. Global configuration mode D. Interface configuration mode
In what modes can you type the command show mac address-table and expect to get a response with MAC table entries? (Choose two answers.)
A. User mode B. Enable mode C. Global configuration mode D. Interface configuration mode
AB
4
Using the Command-Line Interface
Ethernet LANs
2
In which of the following modes of the CLI could you type the command reload and expect the switch to reboot? A. User mode B. Enable mode C. Global configuration mode D. Interface configuration mode
In which of the following modes of the CLI could you type the command reload and expect the switch to reboot?
A. User mode B. Enable mode C. Global configuration mode D. Interface configuration mode
B
4
Using the Command-Line Interface
Ethernet LANs
3
Which of the following is a difference between Telnet and SSH as supported by a Cisco switch? A. SSH encrypts the passwords used at login, but not other traffic; Telnet encrypts nothing. B. SSH encrypts all data exchange, including login passwords; Telnet encrypts nothing. C. Telnet is used from Microsoft operating systems, and SSH is used from UNIX and Linux operating systems. D. Telnet encrypts only password exchanges; SSH encrypts all data exchanges.
Which of the following is a difference between Telnet and SSH as supported by a Cisco switch?
A. SSH encrypts the passwords used at login, but not other traffic; Telnet encrypts nothing. B. SSH encrypts all data exchange, including login passwords; Telnet encrypts nothing. C. Telnet is used from Microsoft operating systems, and SSH is used from UNIX and Linux operating systems. D. Telnet encrypts only password exchanges; SSH encrypts all data exchanges.
B
4
Using the Command-Line Interface
Ethernet LANs
4
What type of switch memory is used to store the configuration used by the switch when it is up and working? A. RAM B. ROM C. Flash D. NVRAM E. Bubble
What type of switch memory is used to store the configuration used by the switch when it is up and working?
A. RAM B. ROM C. Flash D. NVRAM E. Bubble
A
4
Using the Command-Line Interface
Ethernet LANs
5
What command copies the configuration from RAM into NVRAM? A. copy running-config tftp B. copy tftp running-config C. copy running-config start-up-config D. copy start-up-config running-config E. copy startup-config running-config F. copy running-config startup-config
What command copies the configuration from RAM into NVRAM?
A. copy running-config tftp B. copy tftp running-config C. copy running-config start-up-config D. copy start-up-config running-config E. copy startup-config running-config F. copy running-config startup-config
F
4
Using the Command-Line Interface
Ethernet LANs
6
A switch user is currently in console line configuration mode. Which of the following would place the user in enable mode? (Choose two answers.) A. Using the exit command once B. Using the end command once C. Pressing the Ctrl+Z key sequence once D. Using the quit command
A switch user is currently in console line configuration mode. Which of the following would place the user in enable mode? (Choose two answers.)
A. Using the exit command once B. Using the end command once C. Pressing the Ctrl+Z key sequence once D. Using the quit command
BC
5
Analyzing Ethernet LAN Switching
Ethernet LANs
1
Which of the following statements describes part of the process of how a switch decides to forward a frame destined for a known unicast MAC address? A. It compares the unicast destination address to the bridging, or MAC address, table. B. It compares the unicast source address to the bridging, or MAC address, table. C. It forwards the frame out all interfaces in the same VLAN except for the incoming interface. D. It compares the destination IP address to the destination MAC address. E. It compares the frame’s incoming interface to the source MAC entry in the MAC address table.
Which of the following statements describes part of the process of how a switch decides to forward a frame destined for a known unicast MAC address?
A. It compares the unicast destination address to the bridging, or MAC address, table. B. It compares the unicast source address to the bridging, or MAC address, table. C. It forwards the frame out all interfaces in the same VLAN except for the incoming interface. D. It compares the destination IP address to the destination MAC address. E. It compares the frame’s incoming interface to the source MAC entry in the MAC address table.
A
5
Analyzing Ethernet LAN Switching
Ethernet LANs
2
Which of the following statements best describes the forwarding logic that a LAN switch, with all interfaces assigned to VLAN 1 as per default settings, uses for an incoming frame with a destination MAC address of FFFF.FFFF.FFFF? A. It forwards the frame out all switch ports. B. It forwards the frame out all switch ports except the arrival port. C. It forwards the frame out all ports that had earlier registered to ask to receive broadcasts. D. It discards the frame.
Which of the following statements best describes the forwarding logic that a LAN switch, with all interfaces assigned to VLAN 1 as per default settings, uses for an incoming frame with a destination MAC address of FFFF.FFFF.FFFF?
A. It forwards the frame out all switch ports. B. It forwards the frame out all switch ports except the arrival port. C. It forwards the frame out all ports that had earlier registered to ask to receive broadcasts. D. It discards the frame.
B
5
Analyzing Ethernet LAN Switching
Ethernet LANs
3
Which of the following statements best describes what a switch does with a frame destined for an unknown unicast address? A. It forwards out all interfaces in the same VLAN except for the incoming interface. B. It forwards the frame out the one interface identified by the matching entry in the MAC address table. C. It compares the destination IP address to the destination MAC address. D. It compares the frame’s incoming interface to the source MAC entry in the MAC address table.
Which of the following statements best describes what a switch does with a frame destined for an unknown unicast address?
A. It forwards out all interfaces in the same VLAN except for the incoming interface. B. It forwards the frame out the one interface identified by the matching entry in the MAC address table. C. It compares the destination IP address to the destination MAC address. D. It compares the frame’s incoming interface to the source MAC entry in the MAC address table.
A
5
Analyzing Ethernet LAN Switching
Ethernet LANs
4
Which of the following comparisons does a switch make when deciding whether a new MAC address should be added to its MAC address table? A. It compares the unicast destination address to the bridging, or MAC address, table. B. It compares the unicast source address to the bridging, or MAC address, table. C. It compares the VLAN ID to the bridging, or MAC address, table. D. It compares the destination IP address’s ARP cache entry to the bridging, or MAC address, table.
Which of the following comparisons does a switch make when deciding whether a new MAC address should be added to its MAC address table?
A. It compares the unicast destination address to the bridging, or MAC address, table. B. It compares the unicast source address to the bridging, or MAC address, table. C. It compares the VLAN ID to the bridging, or MAC address, table. D. It compares the destination IP address’s ARP cache entry to the bridging, or MAC address, table.
B
5
Analyzing Ethernet LAN Switching
Ethernet LANs
5
A Cisco Catalyst switch has 24 10/100 ports, numbered 0/1 through 0/24. Ten PCs connect to the ten lowest numbered ports, with those PCs working and sending data over the network. The other ports are not connected to any device. Which of the following answers lists facts displayed by the show interfaces status command? A. Port Ethernet 0/1 is in a connected state. B. Port Fast Ethernet 0/11 is in a connected state. C. Port Fast Ethernet 0/5 is in a connected state. D. Port Ethernet 0/15 is in a notconnected state.
A Cisco Catalyst switch has 24 10/100 ports, numbered 0/1 through 0/24. Ten PCs connect to the ten lowest numbered ports, with those PCs working and sending data over the network. The other ports are not connected to any device. Which of the following answers lists facts displayed by the show interfaces status command?
A. Port Ethernet 0/1 is in a connected state. B. Port Fast Ethernet 0/11 is in a connected state. C. Port Fast Ethernet 0/5 is in a connected state. D. Port Ethernet 0/15 is in a notconnected state.
C
5
Analyzing Ethernet LAN Switching
Ethernet LANs
6
Consider the following output from a Cisco Catalyst switch: Which of the following answers is true about this switch? A. The output proves that port Gi0/2 connects directly to a device that uses address 02BB.BBBB.BBBB. B. The switch has learned three MAC addresses since the switch powered on. C. The three listed MAC addresses were learned based on the destination MAC address of frames forwarded by the switch. D. Address 02CC.CCCC.CCCC was learned from the source MAC address of a frame that entered port Gi0/3.
Consider the following output from a Cisco Catalyst switch: Which of the following answers is true about this switch?
A. The output proves that port Gi0/2 connects directly to a device that uses address 02BB.BBBB.BBBB. B. The switch has learned three MAC addresses since the switch powered on. C. The three listed MAC addresses were learned based on the destination MAC address of frames forwarded by the switch. D. Address 02CC.CCCC.CCCC was learned from the source MAC address of a frame that entered port Gi0/3.
D
6
Configuring Basic Switch Management
Ethernet LANs
1
Imagine that you have configured the enable secret command, followed by the enable password command, from the console. You log out of the switch and log back in at the console. Which command defines the password that you had to enter to access privileged mode? A. enable password B. enable secret C. Neither D. The password command, if it is configured
Imagine that you have configured the enable secret command, followed by the enable password command, from the console. You log out of the switch and log back in at the console. Which command defines the password that you had to enter to access privileged mode?
A. enable password B. enable secret C. Neither D. The password command, if it is configured
B
6
Configuring Basic Switch Management
Ethernet LANs
2
An engineer wants to set up simple password protection with no usernames for some switches in a lab, for the purpose of keeping curious coworkers from logging in to the lab switches from their desktop PCs. Which of the following commands would be a useful part of that configuration? A. A login vty mode subcommand B. A password password console subcommand C. A login local vty subcommand D. A transport input ssh vty subcommand
An engineer wants to set up simple password protection with no usernames for some switches in a lab, for the purpose of keeping curious coworkers from logging in to the lab switches from their desktop PCs. Which of the following commands would be a useful part of that configuration?
A. A login vty mode subcommand B. A password password console subcommand C. A login local vty subcommand D. A transport input ssh vty subcommand
A
6
Configuring Basic Switch Management
Ethernet LANs
3
An engineer had formerly configured a Cisco 2960 switch to allow Telnet access so that the switch expected a password of mypassword from the Telnet user. The engineer then changed the configuration to support Secure Shell. Which of the following commands could have been part of the new configuration? (Choose two answers.) A. A username name secret password vty mode subcommand B. A username name secret password global configuration command C. A login local vty mode subcommand D. A transport input ssh global configuration command
An engineer had formerly configured a Cisco 2960 switch to allow Telnet access so that the switch expected a password of mypassword from the Telnet user. The engineer then changed the configuration to support Secure Shell. Which of the following commands could have been part of the new configuration? (Choose two answers.)
A. A username name secret password vty mode subcommand B. A username name secret password global configuration command C. A login local vty mode subcommand D. A transport input ssh global configuration command
BC
6
Configuring Basic Switch Management
Ethernet LANs
4
An engineer’s desktop PC connects to a switch at the main site. A router at the main site connects to each branch office through a serial link, with one small router and switch at each branch. Which of the following commands must be configured on the branch office switches, in the listed configuration mode, to allow the engineer to telnet to the branch office switches and supply only a password to log in? (Choose three answers.) A. The ip address command in interface configuration mode B. The ip address command in global configuration mode C. The ip default-gateway command in VLAN configuration mode D. The ip default-gateway command in global configuration mode E. The password command in console line configuration mode F. The password command in vty line configuration mode
An engineer’s desktop PC connects to a switch at the main site. A router at the main site connects to each branch office through a serial link, with one small router and switch at each branch. Which of the following commands must be configured on the branch office switches, in the listed configuration mode, to allow the engineer to telnet to the branch office switches and supply only a password to log in? (Choose three answers.)
A. The ip address command in interface configuration mode B. The ip address command in global configuration mode C. The ip default-gateway command in VLAN configuration mode D. The ip default-gateway command in global configuration mode E. The password command in console line configuration mode F. The password command in vty line configuration mode
ADF
6
Configuring Basic Switch Management
Ethernet LANs
5
A Layer 2 switch configuration places all its physical ports into VLAN 2. An attached router uses address/mask 172.16.2.254/24. The IP address plan calls for the switch to use address/mask 172.16.2.250/24 and to use the router as its default gateway. The switch needs to support SSH connections into the switch from any subnet in the network. Which of the following commands are part of the required configuration in this case? (Choose two answers.) A. The ip address 172.16.2.250 255.255.255.0 command in interface vlan 1 configuration mode. B. The ip address 172.16.2.250 255.255.255.0 command in interface vlan 2 configuration mode. C. The ip default-gateway 172.16.2.254 command in global configuration mode. D. The switch cannot support SSH because all its ports connect to VLAN 2, and the IP address must be configured on interface VLAN 1.
A Layer 2 switch configuration places all its physical ports into VLAN 2. An attached router uses address/mask 172.16.2.254/24. The IP address plan calls for the switch to use address/mask 172.16.2.250/24 and to use the router as its default gateway. The switch needs to support SSH connections into the switch from any subnet in the network. Which of the following commands are part of the required configuration in this case? (Choose two answers.)
A. The ip address 172.16.2.250 255.255.255.0 command in interface vlan 1 configuration mode. B. The ip address 172.16.2.250 255.255.255.0 command in interface vlan 2 configuration mode. C. The ip default-gateway 172.16.2.254 command in global configuration mode. D. The switch cannot support SSH because all its ports connect to VLAN 2, and the IP address must be configured on interface VLAN 1.
BC
6
Configuring Basic Switch Management
Ethernet LANs
6
Which of the following line subcommands tells a switch to wait until a show command’s output has completed before displaying log messages on the screen? A. logging synchronous B. no ip domain-lookup C. exec-timeout 0 0 D. history size 15
Which of the following line subcommands tells a switch to wait until a show command’s output has completed before displaying log messages on the screen?
A. logging synchronous B. no ip domain-lookup C. exec-timeout 0 0 D. history size 15
A
7
Configuring and Verifying Switch Interfaces
Ethernet LANs
1
Switch SW1 connects its G1/0/1 port to PC1. Both devices use IEEE autonegotiation and have 10/100/1000 ports. Which answer describes how the switch chooses its G1/0/1 speed and duplex settings? (Choose two answers.) A. Speed by comparing capabilities per received autonegotiation messages B. Speed by analyzing the electrical signal of incoming Ethernet frames from PC1 C. Duplex by comparing capabilities per received autonegotiation messages D. Duplex by analyzing the electrical signal of incoming Ethernet frames from PC1 E. Duplex by choosing a default based on the chosen speed
Switch SW1 connects its G1/0/1 port to PC1. Both devices use IEEE autonegotiation and have 10/100/1000 ports. Which answer describes how the switch chooses its G1/0/1 speed and duplex settings? (Choose two answers.)
A. Speed by comparing capabilities per received autonegotiation messages B. Speed by analyzing the electrical signal of incoming Ethernet frames from PC1 C. Duplex by comparing capabilities per received autonegotiation messages D. Duplex by analyzing the electrical signal of incoming Ethernet frames from PC1 E. Duplex by choosing a default based on the chosen speed
AC
7
Configuring and Verifying Switch Interfaces
Ethernet LANs
2
In which of the following modes of the CLI could you configure the duplex setting for interface Fast Ethernet 0/5? A. User mode B. Enable mode C. Global configuration mode D. VLAN mode E. Interface configuration mode
In which of the following modes of the CLI could you configure the duplex setting for interface Fast Ethernet 0/5?
A. User mode B. Enable mode C. Global configuration mode D. VLAN mode E. Interface configuration mode
E
7
Configuring and Verifying Switch Interfaces
Ethernet LANs
3
Switch SW1 connects its G1/0/1 port to PC1. Both devices are 10/100/1000 ports. While the switch port uses IEEE autonegotiation, PC1 has disabled it. Which answer describes how the switch chooses its G1/0/1 speed and duplex settings? A. Speed by comparing capabilities per received autonegotiation messages B. Speed by analyzing the electrical signal of incoming Ethernet frames from PC1 C. Duplex by comparing capabilities per received autonegotiation messages D. Duplex by analyzing the electrical signal of incoming Ethernet frames from PC1 E. Duplex by choosing a default based on the chosen speed
Switch SW1 connects its G1/0/1 port to PC1. Both devices are 10/100/1000 ports. While the switch port uses IEEE autonegotiation, PC1 has disabled it. Which answer describes how the switch chooses its G1/0/1 speed and duplex settings?
A. Speed by comparing capabilities per received autonegotiation messages B. Speed by analyzing the electrical signal of incoming Ethernet frames from PC1 C. Duplex by comparing capabilities per received autonegotiation messages D. Duplex by analyzing the electrical signal of incoming Ethernet frames from PC1 E. Duplex by choosing a default based on the chosen speed
BE
7
Configuring and Verifying Switch Interfaces
Ethernet LANs
4
Switch interface G1/0/5 has been cabled correctly in anticipation of some weekend work. However, the engineer needs to prevent the interface from being used until she enables it remotely during a change window this weekend. Which action helps achieve that goal? A. Unplug the cable. B. Issue the shutdown g1/0/5 global configuration command. C. Issue the shutdown interface subcommand under interface g1/0/5. D. Issue the disable g1/0/5 global configuration command. E. Issue the enable interface subcommand under interface g1/0/5.
Switch interface G1/0/5 has been cabled correctly in anticipation of some weekend work. However, the engineer needs to prevent the interface from being used until she enables it remotely during a change window this weekend. Which action helps achieve that goal?
A. Unplug the cable. B. Issue the shutdown g1/0/5 global configuration command. C. Issue the shutdown interface subcommand under interface g1/0/5. D. Issue the disable g1/0/5 global configuration command. E. Issue the enable interface subcommand under interface g1/0/5.
C
7
Configuring and Verifying Switch Interfaces
Ethernet LANs
5
An engineer configures Cisco switch SW1 with the commands interface range G1/0/10-20 and then description connected to endpoint device. The engineer exits configuration mode and issues a show running- config command. Which answers best describe the related output? (Choose two answers.) A. The output includes the interface range command. B. The output does not include the interface range command. C. The output lists one description connected to endpoint device interface subcommand. D. The output lists 11 description connected to endpoint device interface subcommands.
An engineer configures Cisco switch SW1 with the commands interface range G1/0/10-20 and then description connected to endpoint device. The engineer exits configuration mode and issues a show running- config command. Which answers best describe the related output? (Choose two answers.)
A. The output includes the interface range command. B. The output does not include the interface range command. C. The output lists one description connected to endpoint device interface subcommand. D. The output lists 11 description connected to endpoint device interface subcommands.
BD
7
Configuring and Verifying Switch Interfaces
Ethernet LANs
6
The output from the switch command show interfaces status shows interface Fa0/1 in a “disabled” state. Which of the following is true about interface Fa0/1? (Choose three answers.) A. The interface is configured with the shutdown command. B. The show interfaces fa0/1 command will list the interface with two status codes of administratively down and line protocol down. C. The show interfaces fa0/1 command will list the interface with two status codes up and down. D. The interface cannot currently be used to forward frames. E. The interface can currently be used to forward frames.
The output from the switch command show interfaces status shows interface Fa0/1 in a “disabled” state. Which of the following is true about interface Fa0/1? (Choose three answers.)
A. The interface is configured with the shutdown command. B. The show interfaces fa0/1 command will list the interface with two status codes of administratively down and line protocol down. C. The show interfaces fa0/1 command will list the interface with two status codes up and down. D. The interface cannot currently be used to forward frames. E. The interface can currently be used to forward frames.
ABD
7
Configuring and Verifying Switch Interfaces
Ethernet LANs
7
Switch SW1 Gigabit 1/0/1 connects to switch SW2’s Gigabit 1/0/2 interface, both 10/100/1000 ports. The switch SW2 configuration includes the speed and duplex commands, the combination of which happens to disable autonegotiation on that port. Which combination of settings in SW2’s speed and duplex commands results in a duplex mismatch between SW1 and SW2? (Choose two answers.) A. speed 100 and duplex full B. speed 100 and duplex half C. speed 10 and duplex full D. speed 10 and duplex half
Switch SW1 Gigabit 1/0/1 connects to switch SW2’s Gigabit 1/0/2 interface, both 10/100/1000 ports. The switch SW2 configuration includes the speed and duplex commands, the combination of which happens to disable autonegotiation on that port. Which combination of settings in SW2’s speed and duplex commands results in a duplex mismatch between SW1 and SW2? (Choose two answers.)
A. speed 100 and duplex full B. speed 100 and duplex half C. speed 10 and duplex full D. speed 10 and duplex half
AC
7
Configuring and Verifying Switch Interfaces
Ethernet LANs
8
Switch SW1 connects via a cable to switch SW2’s G1/0/1 port. Which of the following conditions is the most likely to cause SW1’s late collision counter to continue to increment? A. SW2’s G1/0/1 has been configured with a shutdown interface subcommand. B. The two switches have been configured with different values on the speed interface subcommand. C. A duplex mismatch exists with SW1 set to full duplex. D. A duplex mismatch exists with SW1 set to half duplex.
Switch SW1 connects via a cable to switch SW2’s G1/0/1 port. Which of the following conditions is the most likely to cause SW1’s late collision counter to continue to increment?
A. SW2’s G1/0/1 has been configured with a shutdown interface subcommand. B. The two switches have been configured with different values on the speed interface subcommand. C. A duplex mismatch exists with SW1 set to full duplex. D. A duplex mismatch exists with SW1 set to half duplex.
D
8
Implementing Ethernet Virtual LANs
VLANs and STP
1
In a LAN, which of the following terms best equates to the term VLAN? A. Collision domain B. Broadcast domain C. Subnet D. Single switch E. Trunk
In a LAN, which of the following terms best equates to the term VLAN?
A. Collision domain B. Broadcast domain C. Subnet D. Single switch E. Trunk
B
8
Implementing Ethernet Virtual LANs
VLANs and STP
2
Imagine a small lab network with one LAN switch, with the ports configured to be in three different VLANs. How many IP subnets do you need for the hosts connected to the switch ports, assuming that all hosts in all VLANs want to use TCP/IP? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 E. You cannot tell from the information provided.
Imagine a small lab network with one LAN switch, with the ports configured to be in three different VLANs. How many IP subnets do you need for the hosts connected to the switch ports, assuming that all hosts in all VLANs want to use TCP/IP?
A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 E. You cannot tell from the information provided.
D
8
Implementing Ethernet Virtual LANs
VLANs and STP
3
Switch SW1 sends a frame to switch SW2 using 802.1Q trunking. Which of the answers describes how SW1 changes or adds to the Ethernet frame before forwarding the frame to SW2? A. Inserts a 4-byte header and does change the MAC addresses. B. Inserts a 4-byte header and does not change the MAC addresses. C. Encapsulates the original frame behind an entirely new Ethernet header. D. None of the other answers are correct.
Switch SW1 sends a frame to switch SW2 using 802.1Q trunking. Which of the answers describes how SW1 changes or adds to the Ethernet frame before forwarding the frame to SW2?
A. Inserts a 4-byte header and does change the MAC addresses. B. Inserts a 4-byte header and does not change the MAC addresses. C. Encapsulates the original frame behind an entirely new Ethernet header. D. None of the other answers are correct.
B
8
Implementing Ethernet Virtual LANs
VLANs and STP
4
You are told that switch 1 is configured with the switchport mode dynamic auto command on its Fa0/5 interface, which is connected to switch 2. Which of the following settings on the switchport mode command on switch 2 would allow trunking to work? (Choose two answers.) A. trunk B. dynamic auto C. dynamic desirable D. access E. None of the other answers are correct.
You are told that switch 1 is configured with the switchport mode dynamic auto command on its Fa0/5 interface, which is connected to switch 2. Which of the following settings on the switchport mode command on switch 2 would allow trunking to work? (Choose two answers.)
A. trunk B. dynamic auto C. dynamic desirable D. access E. None of the other answers are correct.
AC
8
Implementing Ethernet Virtual LANs
VLANs and STP
5
A switch has just arrived from Cisco. The switch has never been configured with any VLANs, but VTP has been disabled. An engineer configures the vlan 22 and name Hannahs-VLAN commands and then exits configuration mode. Which of the following are true? (Choose two answers.) A. VLAN 22 is listed in the output of the show vlan brief command. B. VLAN 22 is listed in the output of the show running-config command. C. VLAN 22 is not created by this process. D. VLAN 22 does not exist in that switch until at least one interface is assigned to that VLAN.
A switch has just arrived from Cisco. The switch has never been configured with any VLANs, but VTP has been disabled. An engineer configures the vlan 22 and name Hannahs-VLAN commands and then exits configuration mode. Which of the following are true? (Choose two answers.)
A. VLAN 22 is listed in the output of the show vlan brief command. B. VLAN 22 is listed in the output of the show running-config command. C. VLAN 22 is not created by this process. D. VLAN 22 does not exist in that switch until at least one interface is assigned to that VLAN.
AB
8
Implementing Ethernet Virtual LANs
VLANs and STP
6
Which of the following commands identify switch interfaces as being trunking interfaces—interfaces that currently operate as VLAN trunks? (Choose two answers.) A. show interfaces B. show interfaces switchport C. show interfaces trunk D. show trunks
Which of the following commands identify switch interfaces as being trunking interfaces—interfaces that currently operate as VLAN trunks? (Choose two answers.)
A. show interfaces B. show interfaces switchport C. show interfaces trunk D. show trunks
BC
8
Implementing Ethernet Virtual LANs
VLANs and STP
7
In a switch that disables VTP, an engineer configures the commands vlan 30 and shutdown vlan 30. Which answers should be true about this switch? (Choose two answers.) A. The show vlan brief command should list VLAN 30. B. The show running-config command should list VLAN 30. C. The switch should forward frames that arrive in access ports in VLAN 30. D. The switch should forward frames that arrive in trunk ports tagged with VLAN 30.
In a switch that disables VTP, an engineer configures the commands vlan 30 and shutdown vlan 30. Which answers should be true about this switch? (Choose two answers.)
A. The show vlan brief command should list VLAN 30. B. The show running-config command should list VLAN 30. C. The switch should forward frames that arrive in access ports in VLAN 30. D. The switch should forward frames that arrive in trunk ports tagged with VLAN 30.
AB
8
Implementing Ethernet Virtual LANs
VLANs and STP
8
The show interfaces g0/1 trunk command provides three lists of VLAN IDs. Which items would limit the VLANs that appear in the first of the three lists of VLANs? A. A shutdown vlan 30 global command B. A switchport trunk allowed vlan interface subcommand C. An STP choice to block on G0/1 D. A no vlan 30 global command
The show interfaces g0/1 trunk command provides three lists of VLAN IDs. Which items would limit the VLANs that appear in the first of the three lists of VLANs?
A. A shutdown vlan 30 global command B. A switchport trunk allowed vlan interface subcommand C. An STP choice to block on G0/1 D. A no vlan 30 global command
B
9
Spanning Tree Protocol Concepts
VLANs and STP
1
Which of the following port states are stable states used when STP has completed convergence? (Choose two answers.) A. Blocking B. Forwarding C. Listening D. Learning E. Discarding
Which of the following port states are stable states used when STP has completed convergence? (Choose two answers.)
A. Blocking B. Forwarding C. Listening D. Learning E. Discarding
AB
9
Spanning Tree Protocol Concepts
VLANs and STP
2
Which of the following bridge IDs wins election as root, assuming that the switches with these bridge IDs are in the same network? A. 32769:0200.1111.1111 B. 32769:0200.2222.2222 C. 4097:0200.1111.1111 D. 4097:0200.2222.2222 E. 40961:0200.1111.1111
Which of the following bridge IDs wins election as root, assuming that the switches with these bridge IDs are in the same network?
A. 32769:0200.1111.1111 B. 32769:0200.2222.2222 C. 4097:0200.1111.1111 D. 4097:0200.2222.2222 E. 40961:0200.1111.1111
C
9
Spanning Tree Protocol Concepts
VLANs and STP
3
Which of the following are transitory port states used only during the process of STP convergence? (Choose two answers.) A. Blocking B. Forwarding C. Listening D. Learning E. Discarding
Which of the following are transitory port states used only during the process of STP convergence? (Choose two answers.)
A. Blocking B. Forwarding C. Listening D. Learning E. Discarding
CD
9
Spanning Tree Protocol Concepts
VLANs and STP
4
Which of the following facts determines how often a nonroot bridge or switch sends an STP Hello BPDU message? A. The Hello timer as configured on that switch. B. The Hello timer as configured on the root switch. C. It is always every 2 seconds. D. The switch reacts to BPDUs received from the root switch by sending another BPDU 2 seconds after receiving the root BPDU.
Which of the following facts determines how often a nonroot bridge or switch sends an STP Hello BPDU message?
A. The Hello timer as configured on that switch. B. The Hello timer as configured on the root switch. C. It is always every 2 seconds. D. The switch reacts to BPDUs received from the root switch by sending another BPDU 2 seconds after receiving the root BPDU.
B
9
Spanning Tree Protocol Concepts
VLANs and STP
5
Which of the following RSTP port states have the same name and purpose as a port state in traditional STP? (Choose two answers.) A. Blocking B. Forwarding C. Listening D. Learning E. Discarding
Which of the following RSTP port states have the same name and purpose as a port state in traditional STP? (Choose two answers.)
A. Blocking B. Forwarding C. Listening D. Learning E. Discarding
BD
9
Spanning Tree Protocol Concepts
VLANs and STP
6
RSTP adds features beyond STP that enable ports to be used for a role if another port on the same switch fails. Which of the following statements correctly describe a port role that is waiting to take over for another port role? (Choose two answers.) A. An alternate port waits to become a root port. B. A backup port waits to become a root port. C. An alternate port waits to become a designated port. D. A backup port waits to become a designated port.
RSTP adds features beyond STP that enable ports to be used for a role if another port on the same switch fails. Which of the following statements correctly describe a port role that is waiting to take over for another port role? (Choose two answers.)
A. An alternate port waits to become a root port. B. A backup port waits to become a root port. C. An alternate port waits to become a designated port. D. A backup port waits to become a designated port.
AD
9
Spanning Tree Protocol Concepts
VLANs and STP
7
What STP/RSTP feature causes an interface to be placed in the forwarding state as soon as the interface is physically active? A. STP B. EtherChannel C. Root Guard D. PortFast
What STP/RSTP feature causes an interface to be placed in the forwarding state as soon as the interface is physically active?
A. STP B. EtherChannel C. Root Guard D. PortFast
D
9
Spanning Tree Protocol Concepts
VLANs and STP
8
Which optional STP feature reacts to a subset of incoming STP BPDUs to disable the port, but allows and processes some other STP BPDUs? A. Loop Guard B. BPDU Guard C. Root Guard D. PortFast
Which optional STP feature reacts to a subset of incoming STP BPDUs to disable the port, but allows and processes some other STP BPDUs?
A. Loop Guard B. BPDU Guard C. Root Guard D. PortFast
C
10
RSTP and EtherChannel Configuration
VLANs and STP
1
Which type value on the spanning-tree mode type global command enables the use of RSTP? A. rapid-pvst B. pvst C. rstp D. rpvst
Which type value on the spanning-tree mode type global command enables the use of RSTP?
A. rapid-pvst B. pvst C. rstp D. rpvst
A
10
RSTP and EtherChannel Configuration
VLANs and STP
2
Examine the following output from the show spanning-tree vlan 5 command, which describes a root switch in a LAN. Which answers accurately describe facts related to the root’s bridge ID? (Choose two answers.) A. The system ID extension value, in decimal, is 5. B. The root’s configured priority value is 32773. C. The root’s configured priority value is 32768. D. The system ID extension value, in hexadecimal, is 1833.9d7b.0e80.
Examine the following output from the show spanning-tree vlan 5 command, which describes a root switch in a LAN. Which answers accurately describe facts related to the root’s bridge ID? (Choose two answers.)
A. The system ID extension value, in decimal, is 5. B. The root’s configured priority value is 32773. C. The root’s configured priority value is 32768. D. The system ID extension value, in hexadecimal, is 1833.9d7b.0e80.
AC
10
RSTP and EtherChannel Configuration
VLANs and STP
3
With Cisco’s RPVST+, which of the following actions does a switch take to identify which VLAN is described by a BPDU? (Choose three answers.) A. Adds a VLAN tag when forwarding a BPDU on trunks B. Adds the VLAN ID in an extra TLV in the BPDU C. Lists the VLAN ID as the middle 12 bits of the System ID field of the BPDU D. Lists the VLAN ID in the System ID Extension field of the BPDU
With Cisco’s RPVST+, which of the following actions does a switch take to identify which VLAN is described by a BPDU? (Choose three answers.)
A. Adds a VLAN tag when forwarding a BPDU on trunks B. Adds the VLAN ID in an extra TLV in the BPDU C. Lists the VLAN ID as the middle 12 bits of the System ID field of the BPDU D. Lists the VLAN ID in the System ID Extension field of the BPDU
ABD
10
RSTP and EtherChannel Configuration
VLANs and STP
4
A switch port in access mode connects to a single laptop. An attacker replaces the laptop with a LAN switch that uses STP. Which combination of features, enabled on the access port, results in the switch changing the port’s interface state to err-disabled? (Choose two answers.) A. PortFast enabled but BPDU Guard not enabled B. PortFast and BPDU Guard enabled C. PortFast disabled but BPDU Guard enabled D. PortFast and BPDU Guard disabled
A switch port in access mode connects to a single laptop. An attacker replaces the laptop with a LAN switch that uses STP. Which combination of features, enabled on the access port, results in the switch changing the port’s interface state to err-disabled? (Choose two answers.)
A. PortFast enabled but BPDU Guard not enabled B. PortFast and BPDU Guard enabled C. PortFast disabled but BPDU Guard enabled D. PortFast and BPDU Guard disabled
BC
10
RSTP and EtherChannel Configuration
VLANs and STP
5
Root Guard has acted to disable port G1/0/1. An engineer uses the show interfaces status and show spanning-tree vlan 1 commands to investigate the current status. Which answers list facts expected due to Root Guard’s actions? (Choose two answers.) A. The STP port state per show spanning-tree vlan 1 shows BKN (broken). B. The interface state per show interfaces status shows err-disabled. C. The STP port state per show spanning-tree vlan 1 shows FWD (forwarding). D. The STP port state per show spanning-tree vlan 1 shows BLK (blocking). E. The interface state per show interfaces status shows connected.
Root Guard has acted to disable port G1/0/1. An engineer uses the show interfaces status and show spanning-tree vlan 1 commands to investigate the current status. Which answers list facts expected due to Root Guard’s actions? (Choose two answers.)
A. The STP port state per show spanning-tree vlan 1 shows BKN (broken). B. The interface state per show interfaces status shows err-disabled. C. The STP port state per show spanning-tree vlan 1 shows FWD (forwarding). D. The STP port state per show spanning-tree vlan 1 shows BLK (blocking). E. The interface state per show interfaces status shows connected.
AE
10
RSTP and EtherChannel Configuration
VLANs and STP
6
An engineer configures a switch to put interfaces G0/1 and G0/2 into the same Layer 2 EtherChannel. Which of the following terms is used in the configuration commands? A. EtherChannel B. PortChannel C. Ethernet-Channel D. Channel-group
An engineer configures a switch to put interfaces G0/1 and G0/2 into the same Layer 2 EtherChannel. Which of the following terms is used in the configuration commands?
A. EtherChannel B. PortChannel C. Ethernet-Channel D. Channel-group
D
10
RSTP and EtherChannel Configuration
VLANs and STP
7
Which combinations of keywords on the channel-group interface subcommand on two neighboring switches will cause the switches to use LACP and attempt to add the link to the EtherChannel? (Choose two answers.) A. desirable and active B. passive and active C. active and auto D. active and active
Which combinations of keywords on the channel-group interface subcommand on two neighboring switches will cause the switches to use LACP and attempt to add the link to the EtherChannel? (Choose two answers.)
A. desirable and active B. passive and active C. active and auto D. active and active
BD
10
RSTP and EtherChannel Configuration
VLANs and STP
8
A Cisco Catalyst switch needs to send frames over a Layer 2 EtherChannel. Which answer best describes how the switch balances the traffic over the four active links in the channel? A. Breaks each frame into fragments of approximately one-fourth of the original frame, sending one fragment over each link B. Sends the entire frame over one link, alternating links in sequence for each successive frame C. Sends the entire frame over one link, choosing the link by applying some math to fields in each frame’s headers D. Sends the entire frame over one link, using the link with the lowest percent utilization as the next link to use
A Cisco Catalyst switch needs to send frames over a Layer 2 EtherChannel. Which answer best describes how the switch balances the traffic over the four active links in the channel?
A. Breaks each frame into fragments of approximately one-fourth of the original frame, sending one fragment over each link B. Sends the entire frame over one link, alternating links in sequence for each successive frame C. Sends the entire frame over one link, choosing the link by applying some math to fields in each frame’s headers D. Sends the entire frame over one link, using the link with the lowest percent utilization as the next link to use
C
11
Perspectives on IPv4 Subnetting
IPv4 Addressing
1
Host A is a PC, connected to switch SW1 and assigned to VLAN 1. Which of the following are typically assigned an IP address in the same subnet as host A? (Choose two answers.) A. The local router’s WAN interface B. The local router’s LAN interface C. All other hosts attached to the same switch D. Other hosts attached to the same switch and also in VLAN 1
Host A is a PC, connected to switch SW1 and assigned to VLAN 1. Which of the following are typically assigned an IP address in the same subnet as host A? (Choose two answers.)
A. The local router’s WAN interface B. The local router’s LAN interface C. All other hosts attached to the same switch D. Other hosts attached to the same switch and also in VLAN 1
BD
11
Perspectives on IPv4 Subnetting
IPv4 Addressing
2
Why does the formula for the number of hosts per subnet (2^{H} – 2) require the subtraction of two hosts? A. To reserve two addresses for redundant default gateways (routers) B. To reserve the two addresses required for DHCP operation C. To reserve addresses for the subnet ID and default gateway (router) D. To reserve addresses for the subnet broadcast address and subnet ID
Why does the formula for the number of hosts per subnet (2^{H} – 2) require the subtraction of two hosts?
A. To reserve two addresses for redundant default gateways (routers) B. To reserve the two addresses required for DHCP operation C. To reserve addresses for the subnet ID and default gateway (router) D. To reserve addresses for the subnet broadcast address and subnet ID
D
11
Perspectives on IPv4 Subnetting
IPv4 Addressing
3
A Class B network needs to be subnetted such that it supports 100 subnets and 100 hosts/subnet. Which of the following answers list a workable combination for the number of network, subnet, and host bits? (Choose two answers.) A. Network = 16, subnet = 7, host = 7 B. Network = 16, subnet = 8, host = 8 C. Network = 16, subnet = 9, host = 7 D. Network = 8, subnet = 7, host = 17
A Class B network needs to be subnetted such that it supports 100 subnets and 100 hosts/subnet. Which of the following answers list a workable combination for the number of network, subnet, and host bits? (Choose two answers.)
A. Network = 16, subnet = 7, host = 7 B. Network = 16, subnet = 8, host = 8 C. Network = 16, subnet = 9, host = 7 D. Network = 8, subnet = 7, host = 17
BC
11
Perspectives on IPv4 Subnetting
IPv4 Addressing
4
Which of the following are private IP networks? (Choose two answers.) A. 172.31.0.0 B. 172.32.0.0 C. 192.168.255.0 D. 192.1.168.0 E. 11.0.0.0
Which of the following are private IP networks? (Choose two answers.)
A. 172.31.0.0 B. 172.32.0.0 C. 192.168.255.0 D. 192.1.168.0 E. 11.0.0.0
AC
11
Perspectives on IPv4 Subnetting
IPv4 Addressing
5
Which of the following are public IP networks? (Choose three answers.) A. 9.0.0.0 B. 172.30.0.0 C. 192.168.255.0 D. 192.1.168.0 E. 1.0.0.0
Which of the following are public IP networks? (Choose three answers.)
A. 9.0.0.0 B. 172.30.0.0 C. 192.168.255.0 D. 192.1.168.0 E. 1.0.0.0
ADE
11
Perspectives on IPv4 Subnetting
IPv4 Addressing
6
Before Class B network 172.16.0.0 is subnetted by a network engineer, what parts of the structure of the IP addresses in this network already exist, with a specific size? (Choose two answers.) A. Network B. Subnet C. Host D. Broadcast
Before Class B network 172.16.0.0 is subnetted by a network engineer, what parts of the structure of the IP addresses in this network already exist, with a specific size? (Choose two answers.)
A. Network B. Subnet C. Host D. Broadcast
AC
11
Perspectives on IPv4 Subnetting
IPv4 Addressing
7
Consider the size of the network, subnet, and host parts of the address structure for Class B network 172.16.0.0 without any subnetting. Compare that to an updated plan that subnets the network using one mask for all subnets. Which answer describes what changed in the network, subnet, or host fields for the new plan that uses subnetting in comparison to the earlier plan that does not? A. The subnet part got smaller. B. The host part got smaller. C. The network part got smaller. D. The host part was removed. E. The network part was removed.
Consider the size of the network, subnet, and host parts of the address structure for Class B network 172.16.0.0 without any subnetting. Compare that to an updated plan that subnets the network using one mask for all subnets. Which answer describes what changed in the network, subnet, or host fields for the new plan that uses subnetting in comparison to the earlier plan that does not?
A. The subnet part got smaller. B. The host part got smaller. C. The network part got smaller. D. The host part was removed. E. The network part was removed.
B
12
Analyzing Classful IPv4 Networks
IPv4 Addressing
1
Which of the following are not valid Class A network IDs? (Choose two answers.) A. 1.0.0.0 B. 130.0.0.0 C. 127.0.0.0 D. 9.0.0.0
Which of the following are not valid Class A network IDs? (Choose two answers.)
A. 1.0.0.0 B. 130.0.0.0 C. 127.0.0.0 D. 9.0.0.0
BC
12
Analyzing Classful IPv4 Networks
IPv4 Addressing
2
Which of the following are not valid Class B network IDs? A. 130.0.0.0 B. 191.255.0.0 C. 128.0.0.0 D. 150.255.0.0 E. All are valid Class B network IDs.
Which of the following are not valid Class B network IDs?
A. 130.0.0.0 B. 191.255.0.0 C. 128.0.0.0 D. 150.255.0.0 E. All are valid Class B network IDs.
E
12
Analyzing Classful IPv4 Networks
IPv4 Addressing
3
Which of the following are true about IP address 172.16.99.45’s IP network? (Choose two answers.) A. The network ID is 172.0.0.0. B. The network is a Class B network. C. The default mask for the network is 255.255.255.0. D. The number of host bits in the unsubnetted network is 16.
Which of the following are true about IP address 172.16.99.45’s IP network? (Choose two answers.)
A. The network ID is 172.0.0.0. B. The network is a Class B network. C. The default mask for the network is 255.255.255.0. D. The number of host bits in the unsubnetted network is 16.
BD
12
Analyzing Classful IPv4 Networks
IPv4 Addressing
4
Which of the following are true about IP address 192.168.6.7’s IP network? (Choose two answers.) A. The network ID is 192.168.6.0. B. The network is a Class B network. C. The default mask for the network is 255.255.255.0. D. The number of host bits in the unsubnetted network is 16.
Which of the following are true about IP address 192.168.6.7’s IP network? (Choose two answers.)
A. The network ID is 192.168.6.0. B. The network is a Class B network. C. The default mask for the network is 255.255.255.0. D. The number of host bits in the unsubnetted network is 16.
AC
12
Analyzing Classful IPv4 Networks
IPv4 Addressing
5
Which of the following is a network broadcast address? A. 10.1.255.255 B. 192.168.255.1 C. 224.1.1.255 D. 172.30.255.255
Which of the following is a network broadcast address?
A. 10.1.255.255 B. 192.168.255.1 C. 224.1.1.255 D. 172.30.255.255
D
13
Analyzing Subnet Masks
IPv4 Addressing
1
Which of the following answers lists the prefix (CIDR) format equivalent of 255.255.254.0? A. /19 B. /20 C. /23 D. /24 E. /25
Which of the following answers lists the prefix (CIDR) format equivalent of 255.255.254.0?
A. /19 B. /20 C. /23 D. /24 E. /25
C
13
Analyzing Subnet Masks
IPv4 Addressing
2
Which of the following answers lists the prefix (CIDR) format equivalent of 255.255.255.240? A. /26 B. /28 C. /27 D. /30 E. /29
Which of the following answers lists the prefix (CIDR) format equivalent of 255.255.255.240?
A. /26 B. /28 C. /27 D. /30 E. /29
B
13
Analyzing Subnet Masks
IPv4 Addressing
3
Which of the following answers lists the dotted-decimal notation (DDN) equivalent of /30? A. 255.255.255.192 B. 255.255.255.252 C. 255.255.255.240 D. 255.255.254.0 E. 255.255.255.0
Which of the following answers lists the dotted-decimal notation (DDN) equivalent of /30?
A. 255.255.255.192 B. 255.255.255.252 C. 255.255.255.240 D. 255.255.254.0 E. 255.255.255.0
B
13
Analyzing Subnet Masks
IPv4 Addressing
4
Working at the help desk, you receive a call and learn a user’s PC IP address and mask (10.55.66.77, mask 255.255.255.0). When thinking about this using classful logic, you determine the number of network (N), subnet (S), and host (H) bits. Which of the following is true in this case? A. N=12 B. S=12 C. H=8 D. S=8 E. N=24
Working at the help desk, you receive a call and learn a user’s PC IP address and mask (10.55.66.77, mask 255.255.255.0). When thinking about this using classful logic, you determine the number of network (N), subnet (S), and host (H) bits. Which of the following is true in this case?
A. N=12 B. S=12 C. H=8 D. S=8 E. N=24
C
13
Analyzing Subnet Masks
IPv4 Addressing
5
Working at the help desk, you receive a call and learn a user’s PC IP address and mask (192.168.9.1/27). When thinking about this using classful logic, you determine the number of network (N), subnet (S), and host (H) bits. Which of the following is true in this case? A. N=24 B. S=24 C. H=8 D. H=7
Working at the help desk, you receive a call and learn a user’s PC IP address and mask (192.168.9.1/27). When thinking about this using classful logic, you determine the number of network (N), subnet (S), and host (H) bits. Which of the following is true in this case?
A. N=24 B. S=24 C. H=8 D. H=7
A
13
Analyzing Subnet Masks
IPv4 Addressing
6
Which of the following statements is true about classless IP addressing concepts? A. Uses a 128-bit IP address B. Applies only for Class A and B networks C. Separates IP addresses into network, subnet, and host parts D. Ignores Class A, B, and C network rules
Which of the following statements is true about classless IP addressing concepts?
A. Uses a 128-bit IP address B. Applies only for Class A and B networks C. Separates IP addresses into network, subnet, and host parts D. Ignores Class A, B, and C network rules
D
13
Analyzing Subnet Masks
IPv4 Addressing
7
Which of the following masks, when used as the only mask within a Class B network, would supply enough subnet bits to support 100 subnets? (Choose two answers.) A. /24 B. 255.255.255.252 C. /20 D. 255.255.252.0
Which of the following masks, when used as the only mask within a Class B network, would supply enough subnet bits to support 100 subnets? (Choose two answers.)
A. /24 B. 255.255.255.252 C. /20 D. 255.255.252.0
AB
14
Analyzing Existing Subnets
IPv4 Addressing
1
When you think about an IP address using classful addressing rules, an address can have three parts: network, subnet, and host. If you examined all the addresses in one subnet, in binary, which of the following answers correctly states which of the three parts of the addresses will be equal among all addresses? (Choose the best answer.) A. Network part only B. Subnet part only C. Host part only D. Network and subnet parts E. Subnet and host parts
When you think about an IP address using classful addressing rules, an address can have three parts: network, subnet, and host. If you examined all the addresses in one subnet, in binary, which of the following answers correctly states which of the three parts of the addresses will be equal among all addresses? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Network part only B. Subnet part only C. Host part only D. Network and subnet parts E. Subnet and host parts
D
14
Analyzing Existing Subnets
IPv4 Addressing
2
Which of the following statements are true regarding the binary subnet ID, subnet broadcast address, and host IP address values in any single subnet? (Choose two answers.) A. The host part of the broadcast address is all binary 0s. B. The host part of the subnet ID is all binary 0s. C. The host part of a usable IP address can have all binary 1s. D. The host part of any usable IP address must not be all binary 0s.
Which of the following statements are true regarding the binary subnet ID, subnet broadcast address, and host IP address values in any single subnet? (Choose two answers.)
A. The host part of the broadcast address is all binary 0s. B. The host part of the subnet ID is all binary 0s. C. The host part of a usable IP address can have all binary 1s. D. The host part of any usable IP address must not be all binary 0s.
BD
14
Analyzing Existing Subnets
IPv4 Addressing
3
Which of the following is the resident subnet ID for IP address 10.7.99.133/24? A. 10.0.0.0 B. 10.7.0.0 C. 10.7.99.0 D. 10.7.99.128
Which of the following is the resident subnet ID for IP address 10.7.99.133/24?
A. 10.0.0.0 B. 10.7.0.0 C. 10.7.99.0 D. 10.7.99.128
C
14
Analyzing Existing Subnets
IPv4 Addressing
4
Which of the following is the resident subnet for IP address 192.168.44.97/30? A. 192.168.44.0 B. 192.168.44.64 C. 192.168.44.96 D. 192.168.44.128
Which of the following is the resident subnet for IP address 192.168.44.97/30?
A. 192.168.44.0 B. 192.168.44.64 C. 192.168.44.96 D. 192.168.44.128
C
14
Analyzing Existing Subnets
IPv4 Addressing
5
Which of the following is the subnet broadcast address for the subnet in which IP address 172.31.77.201/27 resides? A. 172.31.201.255 B. 172.31.255.255 C. 172.31.77.223 D. 172.31.77.207
Which of the following is the subnet broadcast address for the subnet in which IP address 172.31.77.201/27 resides?
A. 172.31.201.255 B. 172.31.255.255 C. 172.31.77.223 D. 172.31.77.207
C
14
Analyzing Existing Subnets
IPv4 Addressing
6
A fellow engineer tells you to configure the DHCP server to lease the last 100 usable IP addresses in subnet 10.1.4.0/23. Which of the following IP addresses could be leased as a result of your new configuration? A. 10.1.4.156 B. 10.1.4.254 C. 10.1.5.200 D. 10.1.7.200 E. 10.1.255.200
A fellow engineer tells you to configure the DHCP server to lease the last 100 usable IP addresses in subnet 10.1.4.0/23. Which of the following IP addresses could be leased as a result of your new configuration?
A. 10.1.4.156 B. 10.1.4.254 C. 10.1.5.200 D. 10.1.7.200 E. 10.1.255.200
C
15
Subnet Design
IPv4 Addressing
1
An IP subnetting design effort is under way at a company. So far, the senior engineer has decided to use private Class B network 172.23.0.0. The design calls for 100 subnets, with the largest subnet needing 500 hosts. Management requires that the design accommodate 50 percent growth in the number of subnets and the size of the largest subnet. The requirements also state that a single mask must be used throughout the Class B network. How many masks meet the requirements? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3+
An IP subnetting design effort is under way at a company. So far, the senior engineer has decided to use private Class B network 172.23.0.0. The design calls for 100 subnets, with the largest subnet needing 500 hosts. Management requires that the design accommodate 50 percent growth in the number of subnets and the size of the largest subnet. The requirements also state that a single mask must be used throughout the Class B network. How many masks meet the requirements?
A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3+
A
15
Subnet Design
IPv4 Addressing
2
An IP subnetting design requires 200 subnets and 120 hosts/subnet for the largest subnets, and requires that a single mask be used throughout the one private IP network that will be used. The design also requires planning for 20 percent growth in the number of subnets and number of hosts/subnet in the largest subnet. Which of the following answers lists a private IP network and mask that, if chosen, would meet the requirements? A. 10.0.0.0/25 B. 10.0.0.0/22 C. 172.16.0.0/23 D. 192.168.7.0/24
An IP subnetting design requires 200 subnets and 120 hosts/subnet for the largest subnets, and requires that a single mask be used throughout the one private IP network that will be used. The design also requires planning for 20 percent growth in the number of subnets and number of hosts/subnet in the largest subnet. Which of the following answers lists a private IP network and mask that, if chosen, would meet the requirements?
A. 10.0.0.0/25 B. 10.0.0.0/22 C. 172.16.0.0/23 D. 192.168.7.0/24
B
15
Subnet Design
IPv4 Addressing
3
An engineer has planned to use private Class B network 172.19.0.0 and a single subnet mask throughout the network. The answers list the masks considered by the engineer. Choose the mask that, among the answers, supplies the largest number of hosts per subnet, while also supplying enough subnet bits to support 1000 subnets. A. 255.255.255.0 B. /26 C. 255.255.252.0 D. /28
An engineer has planned to use private Class B network 172.19.0.0 and a single subnet mask throughout the network. The answers list the masks considered by the engineer. Choose the mask that, among the answers, supplies the largest number of hosts per subnet, while also supplying enough subnet bits to support 1000 subnets.
A. 255.255.255.0 B. /26 C. 255.255.252.0 D. /28
B
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