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135
Magistrate inquest not needed in: JIPMER 14
{ "A": "Homicide", "B": "Exhumation", "C": "Police custody death", "D": "Dowry death" }
Homicide
0A
Ans. Homicide
Forensic Medicine
None
Which of the following disease with bird, ahropod and human chain
{ "A": "Malaria", "B": "Japanese encephalitis", "C": "Paragonimus", "D": "Plague" }
Japanese encephalitis
1B
Agent factors :- * Caused by group B arbovirus (flavivirus) * The main reservoirs are Ardeid birds and pigs * Pigs are amplifiers of the virus and they do not manifest ove symptoms but circulates the virus Host factors :- * Most common in the age group of <15 years of age * Man - incidental dead end host * Affects othe...
Social & Preventive Medicine
Communicable diseases
Potter syndrome is not assoiated with
{ "A": "Bilateral renal agenesis", "B": "Bilateral multicystic kidney disease", "C": "oligohydromnios", "D": "Polyhydromnios" }
Bilateral renal agenesis
0A
Since there is b/l kidney agenesis or cystic disease there is no urine production leading to oligohydromnios
Surgery
None
Increase in pauwel's angle indicate
{ "A": "Good prognosis", "B": "Impaction", "C": "More chances of displacement", "D": "Trabecular alignment displacement" }
More chances of displacement
2C
Pauwel's classification - depending on angle (Pauwel's angle) formed by the line with the horizontal. More the Pauwell's angle, more unstable is the fracture with poorer prognosis Type I : <30deg Type II : 30-50deg Type III: >50deg(worst prognosis)
Orthopaedics
Lower Limb Traumatology
A 28 year old female teacher is found to have a prolonged bleeding time and normal platelet count. She had a bleeding of "easy bleeding" with frequent bleeding of the gums, epistaxis, cutaneous bleeding and menorrhagia, further testing revealed a deficiency of Von willebrand factor. Which of the following thrombogenic ...
{ "A": "Adhesion", "B": "Aggregation", "C": "Formation of fibrinogen bridges", "D": "Conformational change with activation of phospholipid surface" }
Adhesion
0A
Disruption of the endothelium exposes subendothelial Von willebrand factor (VWF) and collagen, which promotes platelet adherence and activation. Deficiency of Von willebrand factor (VWF) causes ↓ Platelet adhesion (↑ BT) ↓ Intrinsic pathway activity (↑ aPTT)
Pathology
None
Ifa Panchayat is dissolved, elections are to be held within?
{ "A": "1 month", "B": "3 months", "C": "6 months", "D": "1 year" }
6 months
2C
Ans. is 'c' i.e., 6 months
Social & Preventive Medicine
None
Stomach is derived from ?
{ "A": "Foregut", "B": "Midgut", "C": "Hindgut", "D": "Allantois" }
Foregut
0A
Foregut
Anatomy
None
Which of the following is the main enzyme responsible for activation of xenobiotics?
{ "A": "Cytochrome P-450", "B": "Glucuronyl transferase", "C": "Glutathione S-transferase", "D": "NADPH cytochrome P-450-reductase" }
Cytochrome P-450
0A
Xenobiotics are compounds which may be accidently ingested or taken as drugs or compounds produced in the body by bacterial metabolism. The cytochrome P-450 enzyme family is involved in the biotransformation reaction of xenobiotics. They are heme containing membrane proteins localized in the smooth endoplasmic reticulu...
Biochemistry
None
In Familial hypercholesterolemia there is deficiency of
{ "A": "LDL receptor", "B": "Apoprotein A", "C": "Apo protein C", "D": "Lipoprotein lipase" }
LDL receptor
0A
LDL receptors  Familial hypercholesterolemia (type IIa) is due to deficiency of functional LDL receptors as a result of different types of mutations.
Biochemistry
None
Botulinum affects all of the following, EXCEPT:
{ "A": "Neuromuscular junction", "B": "Preganglionic junction", "C": "Post ganglionic nerves", "D": "CNS" }
CNS
3D
Diplopia, dysphagia, dysahria, dry mouth, vomiting, thirst, constipation are the clinical features associated with botulinum toxin. Patients experience minimal or no CNS effects and usually there's no significant alteration in their mental status. Ingested, inhaled or formed botulinum toxin travels through the vascular...
Microbiology
None
Which of the following is a poor prognostic factor for childhood ALL.
{ "A": "Total Leukocyte count 4000-100,000", "B": "Age < 2 years", "C": "Testicular involvement", "D": "Blasts in peripheral smear" }
Testicular involvement
2C
Answer is C (Testicular involvement) Testicular involvement / enlargement is a typical poor prognostic factor for childhood ALL Age < 2 years versus Testicular Involvement Typically Age < 1 year is considered a poor prognostic factor Although Age < 2 year has been mentioned as a poor prognostic factor in ceain textbook...
Medicine
None
Relining of complete denture is not indicated when
{ "A": "Denture contains broken teeth", "B": "There is excessive resorption of the ridge", "C": "Vertical dimension is excessively reduced and has to be changed", "D": "Centric relation does not coincide with centric occlusion" }
Vertical dimension is excessively reduced and has to be changed
2C
None
Dental
None
Which of the following condition is necessary prerequisite for this change?
{ "A": "Rupture of membranes", "B": "Scanty liquor amnii", "C": "Adequate liquor amnii", "D": "Air inside the uterine cavity" }
Adequate liquor amnii
2C
Ans. (C). Adequate liquor amniiThe photograph shows maceration, a sign of intrauterine death.Conditions favoring maceration: Intact membranes; adequate liquor amnii & NO air.
Forensic Medicine
Sexual Offenses
Savita is 32 weeks pregnant presents in causality and diagnosed as a case of APH. Vitals are unstable with BP 80/60 which of the following is next step in M/n
{ "A": "Careful observation", "B": "Blood transfusion", "C": "Medical induction of labour", "D": "Immediate cesarean section" }
Blood transfusion
1B
Ans. is b i.e. Blood transfusion
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
None
All are true about Cancer breast, except:
{ "A": "Affected sibling is a risk factor", "B": "Paget's disease of nipple is intraductal type of CA", "C": "Common in aged nulliparous", "D": "Increased incidence with prolonged breast feeding" }
Increased incidence with prolonged breast feeding
3D
Ans. (d) Increased incidence with prolonged breast feeding* Paget's Disease is a superficial manifest of an underlying Intra ductal carcinoma breast
Surgery
Breast
Which of the following vitamin reduces the risk of insulin resistance, obesity, and the metabolic syndrome?
{ "A": "Vitamin A", "B": "Vitamin C", "C": "Vitamin D", "D": "Vitamin B12" }
Vitamin D
2C
Higher Intakes of Vitamin D May Be Beneficial There is evidence that Vitamin D intake considerably higher than that required to maintain calcium homeostasis reduce the risk of insulin resistance, obesity, and the metabolic syndrome, as well as various cancers. There is growing evidence that higher vitamin D status is p...
Biochemistry
vitamins
The following drugs have significant drug interactions with digoxin except:
{ "A": "Cholestyramine", "B": "Thiazide diuretics", "C": "Quinidine", "D": "Amlodipine" }
Amlodipine
3D
Ref:KDT 6/e p499 Cholestyramine inhibits itestinal absorption of digoxin. Thiazides result in hypokalemia and thus make precipitate digitalis toxicity by pharmacodynamic interaction. Quinidine and verampil reduces the exceion of digoxin and does make precipitate toxicity (pharmacokinetic interaction)
Pharmacology
Cardiovascular system
Antiboiotic Prophylaxis for infective endocarditis is indicated in:
{ "A": "Isolated secundum ASD", "B": "Mitral valve prolapse without regurgitation", "C": "Prior coronary aery bypass graft", "D": "Coarctation of aoa" }
Coarctation of aoa
3D
Answer is D (Coarctation of Aoa) Coarctation of Aoa is a high risk cardiac lesion fior the development of infective endocarditis and an indication fir antibiotic prophyloxis.
Medicine
None
Adder Head" appearance is found in:
{ "A": "X-ray", "B": "USG", "C": "IVP", "D": "CT" }
IVP
2C
VP
Radiology
None
Ortolani's test is done for
{ "A": "Congenial dislocation of the knee joints", "B": "Congenital dislocation of the hip joints", "C": "Congenital dislocation of the shoulder joints", "D": "Congenital dislocation of the elbow joints" }
Congenital dislocation of the hip joints
1B
B. i.e. (Congenital dislocation of hip joints) (410 - Apley 8th)Important Tests**Ortolani's and Barlow's test Galeazzi test (604 CDT 4th)Congenital dislocation of hip joints** Apprehension testRecurrent dislocation of shoulder joints* Bryant's Call ways Hamilton ruler testHamilton ruler testAnterior dislocation of shou...
Orthopaedics
Congenital Dislocation of Hip (C.D.H.)
A 50 year old female patient complains of difficulty in swallowing. Patient gives h/o multiple diagnostic CT-scans of the head and neck region. This patient may be predominantly susceptible to which of the following?
{ "A": "Medullary thyroid carcinoma", "B": "Follicular thyroid carcinoma", "C": "Anaplastic thyroid carcinoma", "D": "Papillary thyroid carcinoma" }
Papillary thyroid carcinoma
3D
The incidence of thyroid carcinomas, predominantly papillary thyroid carcinomas, increases in humans after radiation exposure. There is strong dependence on age at exposure—susceptibility to radiation-induced thyroid cancer is higher in children than adults. There is little evidence for a dose response for individuals ...
Radiology
None
Secondary retention for a removable partial denture is provided by
{ "A": "The indirect retainer", "B": "The direct retainer", "C": "Intimate contact between the denture bases and the underlying tissues", "D": "Direct and indirect retainers" }
Intimate contact between the denture bases and the underlying tissues
2C
None
Dental
None
Which of the following may be seen in second degree Hea block (select three options):
{ "A": "Change in QRS complex morphology", "B": "Atrial rate more than ventricular rate", "C": "Prolonged conduction time", "D": "All of the above" }
All of the above
3D
Answer is A, B, and C Second degree AV block (Type I and /or Type II) may be associated with prolonged conduction time (prolonged PR interval), Atrial rate more than ventricular rate and change in QRS complex morphology (Tipe II). Name Rhythm Rate (beats/minute) P waves (lead II) PR Interval QRS complex First-degree at...
Medicine
None
An ill 16 days old baby girl is brought to the emergency. On examination pallor and dyspnoea present with a respiratory rate of 85 per minute. Her HR is 200 bpm, hea sounds are distant and a gallop is heard. X-ray showed cardiomegaly. An echocardiogram shows dilated ventricles and dilation of the left atrium. An ECG sh...
{ "A": "CHF", "B": "Glycogen storage disease", "C": "Pericarditis", "D": "Aberrant left coronary aery arising from pulmonary aery" }
CHF
0A
In CHF pallor, dyspnoea, tachypnoea, tachycardia and cardiomegaly are common regardless of the cause.The most common causes of CHF in children include myocarditis caused by adenovirus and coxsackievirus B.The echocardiogram shows ventricular and left atrial dilatation as well as poor ventricular function. With glycogen...
Pediatrics
Impoant Viral Diseases in Children
Egg shell calcification is seen in all except –
{ "A": "Sarcoidosis", "B": "Silicosis", "C": "Post irradiation lymphoma", "D": "Bronchogenic CA" }
Bronchogenic CA
3D
None
Radiology
None
In inversion of the foot, the sole will face:
{ "A": "Upwards", "B": "Downwards", "C": "Laterally", "D": "Medially" }
Medially
3D
Ans: d (Medially) Ref: BDC, Vol. II, 4th ed, p. 155; Kieth L. Moore, 4th ed, p. 638Inversion is the movement in which the medial border of the foot is elevated, so that the sole faces medially.Eversion is the movement in which the lateral border of the foot is elevated. So that the sole faces laterally.Joints of the fo...
Anatomy
Foot
Where does the "knot" is put in the neck during judicial hanging?
{ "A": "The back of the neck", "B": "Under angle of jaw", "C": "Below the chin", "D": "Choice of hangman" }
Under angle of jaw
1B
In judicial hanging, a rope to allow a drop of five to seven metres according to the weight, build and age of the person, is looped round the neck, with the knot under the angle of the jaw. This causes fracture-dislocation usually at the level of the second and third, or third and fouh cervical veebrae. Ref: The essent...
Forensic Medicine
None
Seal finger and whale finger are associated with -
{ "A": "Listeria", "B": "Erysipelothrix", "C": "Corynebacterium", "D": "Treponema" }
Erysipelothrix
1B
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Erysipelothrix
Microbiology
None
Which of the following muscle acts as unlocker of knee?
{ "A": "Gracilis", "B": "Popliteus", "C": "Saorius", "D": "Biceps femoris" }
Popliteus
1B
Popliteus rotates the tibia medially on the femur or, when the tibia is fixed, rotates the femur laterally on the tibia. At the beginning of flexion of the fully extended knee, lateral femoral rotation by popliteus muscle unlocks the joint.Must know:Locking of knee joint is due to the the action of quadriceps femoris, ...
Anatomy
None
A 60 yr old chronic smoker presents with painless gross hematuria of 1 day duration. Which is the investigation of choice to know the cause of hematuria?
{ "A": "USG", "B": "X-ray KUB", "C": "Urine routine", "D": "Urine microscopy for malignant cytology cells" }
Urine microscopy for malignant cytology cells
3D
A chronic smoker with painless gross hematuria should be suspected as having bladder cancer. The most common form of bladder cancer is transitional cell carcinoma (TCC). Tobacco use, followed by occupational exposure to various carcinogenic materials such as automobile exhaust or industrial solvents are the most freque...
Surgery
None
The most sensitive method for detecting cervical Chlamydia trachomatis infection is:
{ "A": "Direct fluorescent antibody test", "B": "Enzyme immunoassay", "C": "Polymerase chain reaction", "D": "Culture on irradiated McConkey cells" }
Polymerase chain reaction
2C
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Polymerase chain reactionRef: Harrison, 17th/e, p. 1074,19th/e, p. 1165 and Ananthanarayan, 9th/e, p. 415Amplification assays such as ligase chain reaction and polymerase chain reaction are the most sensitive chlamydial diagnostic method.Other methods are:(a) Cell culture: Sensitivity (60-80%).(b) Dir...
Microbiology
Bacteria
A labourer involved with repair-work of sewers was admitted with fever, jaundice and renal failure. The most appropriate test to diagnose the infection in this patient is -
{ "A": "Weil Felix test", "B": "Paul Bunnell test", "C": "Microscopic agglutination test", "D": "Microimmunofluorescence test" }
Microscopic agglutination test
2C
None
Microbiology
None
Congestive hea failure in an infant is characterized by all except
{ "A": "Pedal edema", "B": "Tachypnea", "C": "Sweating", "D": "Poor weight gain" }
Pedal edema
0A
Congestive Cardiac Failure in InfantsSymptomsSignsuFeeding difficultyuTakes less volume per feeduDiaphoretic while suckinguForehead sweating.uSuck-rest-suck cycle.uPoor weight gainuPeriorbital edema uClothes no longer fituIncreasing cloth sizeuRapid breathing/nasal flaring/cyanosis/chest retractions.uTachycardia.uHepat...
Anatomy
All India exam
Congenital hydrocele is best treated by
{ "A": "Eversion of sac", "B": "Excision of sac", "C": "Lord's procedure", "D": "Herniotomy" }
Herniotomy
3D
Congenital hydrocele is best treated with herniotomy if they do not resolve spontaneously. Established acquired hydrocele often have thick walls. They are treated by subtotal excision of the sac. If the sac is small, thin walled and contains clear fluid, Lord's operation is done. Jaboulay's operation where the sac is e...
Surgery
Urology
Rate limiting step in cholesterol synthesis is catalysed by which of the following enzyme?
{ "A": "HMG CoA synthetase", "B": "HMG CoA reductase", "C": "Thiokinase", "D": "Mevalonate kinase" }
HMG CoA reductase
1B
Conversion of HMG CoA to mevalonate by HMG CoA reductase is the rate limiting step in the synthesis of cholesterol. Cholesterol is an allosteric inhibitor of HMG CoA reductase Statin drugs acts as competitive inhibitors with mevalonate for binding to HMG CoA reductase. Insulin ors the active form of HMG CoA reductase a...
Biochemistry
None
Vaccine administered by following route is
{ "A": "Typhoral live", "B": "H1n1 killed", "C": "H1n1 live", "D": "Yellow fever live" }
H1n1 live
2C
Hlnl live (Intranasal route)
Social & Preventive Medicine
Influenza
A 40-year old diabetic patient presents with proptosis of one eye and black eschar over palate. The likely organism is :
{ "A": "Pseudomonas", "B": "Candida", "C": "E. coli", "D": "Mucor" }
Mucor
3D
None
Medicine
None
Coloured urine is not seen in :
{ "A": "Quinine", "B": "Rifampcin", "C": "Nitrofurantoin", "D": "Pyridium" }
Quinine
0A
Answer is A (Quinine) Quinine is not associated with discoloured urine.
Medicine
None
Investigations in a clinically suspected case of tuberculosis -
{ "A": "Mantoux (in children)", "B": "Sputum AFB", "C": "Bactec", "D": "All of the above" }
All of the above
3D
None
Medicine
None
Schizophrenia is treated by
{ "A": "Anti depressants", "B": "Anti psychotics", "C": "Anti epileptics", "D": "Mood stabilizers" }
Anti psychotics
1B
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Anti psychotics
Pharmacology
None
Fries test is used in the diagnosis of:
{ "A": "Gonorrhoea", "B": "Herpes", "C": "Chanchroid", "D": "Granuloma venereum" }
Granuloma venereum
3D
Granuloma venereum
Microbiology
None
A 45-year-old woman complains of severe headaches and difficulty in swallowing. Over the past 6 months, she has noticed small, red lesions around her mouth as well as thickening of her skin. The patient has "stone facies" on physical examination. Which of the following antigens is the most common and most specific targ...
{ "A": "C-ANCA (anti-proteinase-3)", "B": "Double-stranded DNA", "C": "P-ANCA (anti-myeloperoxidase)", "D": "Scl-70 (anti-topoisomerase I)" }
Scl-70 (anti-topoisomerase I)
3D
Scleroderma (refer to the image below) Autoimmune disease of connective tissue. Antinuclear antibodies are common but are usually present in a lower titer than in patients with SLE. Antibodies viually specific for scleroderma include:- Nucleolar autoantibodies (primarily against RNA polymerase) Antibodies to Scl-70, a ...
Pathology
Immunity disorders
Grave's ophthalmopathy mostly presents as September 2010
{ "A": "Proptosis", "B": "Ptosis", "C": "Reduced intraocular tension", "D": "Increased power of convergence" }
Proptosis
0A
Ans. A: Proptosis Graves' ophthalmopathy (also known as thyroid eye disease (TED), dysthyroid/thyroid-associated orbitopathy (TAO), Graves' orbitopathy) is an autoimmune inflammatory disorder affecting the orbit around the eye, characterized by upper eyelid retraction, swelling (edema), redness (erythema), conjunctivit...
Ophthalmology
None
Earliest lesion seen in atherosclerosis is:
{ "A": "Fatty streaks", "B": "Intimal thickening", "C": "Fibrinoid necrosis", "D": "Plaque" }
Fatty streaks
0A
Ans: A (Fatty streaks) Ref: Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease, 8th edition.Explanation:Fatty streaks are the earliest lesions in atherosclerosis " Ref: RobbinsMorphology of AtherosclerosisFatty StreaksThese are the earliest lesions in atherosclerosis.They are composed of lipid-filled foamy macrophages.Beginning as mu...
Pathology
Atherosclerosis and Arteriosclerosis
Flipped LDH indicating Myocardial Infarction is represented by:
{ "A": "LDH-1> LDH-2", "B": "LDH-2 > LDH-1", "C": "LDH-4 > LDH-5", "D": "LDH-5 > LDH-4" }
LDH-1> LDH-2
0A
When LDH-1 is greater than LDH-2, it is referred to as flipped LDH and is indicative of MI. LDH-1 isoenzyme is found primarily in hea muscle and is lesser in concentration than the LDH-2 Isoenzyme which is primarily found in RBC. When the concentration of LDH-1 is observed to be greater than LDH2. It is referred to as ...
Medicine
C.V.S
Dimension stability of hydrocollids may be achieved by
{ "A": "optimizing w:p", "B": "using cold water", "C": "prolonged manipulation", "D": "using humidor" }
using humidor
3D
None
Dental
None
Blood supply of stomach is/are:
{ "A": "Left gastric aery", "B": "Sho gastric aery", "C": "Lt gastroepiploic aery", "D": "All" }
All
3D
A. i.e. Left gastric aery; B. i.e. Sho gastric aery; C. i.e. Left gastroepiploic aery
Anatomy
None
Which of the following ultrasound finding has the highest association with aneuploidy?
{ "A": "Choroid plexus cyst", "B": "Nuchal translucency", "C": "Cystic hygroma", "D": "Single umbilical aery" }
Cystic hygroma
2C
All the above mentioned are ultrasound findings associated with increased risk of aneuploidy although the highest association is seen with cystic hygroma Nuchal translucency and cystic hygroma are both measured in the first trimesterTrisomy 21 is the most common aneuploidy associated with increased NT and cystic hygrom...
Microbiology
All India exam
Which of the following is not a component of transpo system?
{ "A": "Receptor activation", "B": "Selective gate", "C": "Non-selective channel", "D": "Energy coupling system" }
Receptor activation
0A
Functions: Transpo Systems An essential role of biomembranes is to allow movement of all compounds necessary for the normal function of a cell across the membrane barrier. These compounds include a vast array of substances like sugars, amino acids, fatty acids, steroids, cations and anions to mention a few. These compo...
Biochemistry
Respiratory chain
Burst supression pattern on EEG is typically seen in:
{ "A": "Anoxic encephalopathy", "B": "Absence seizures", "C": "SSPE", "D": "Herpes simplex encephalitis" }
Anoxic encephalopathy
0A
Ref: Ref: Harrisons 18/e p e-45 chapter  As the depth of coma increases, the EEG becomes nonreactive and may show a burst-suppression pattern, with bursts of mixed-frequency activity separated by intervals of relative cerebral inactivity. In other instances there is a reduction in amplitude of the EEG until eventually ...
Unknown
None
To feel comfoable and cool in a factory the conrrected effective temperature ( in degree Farenheit) should be -
{ "A": "Less tha 69", "B": "Between 69 and 76", "C": "Between 77 and 80", "D": "Between 81 and 82" }
Between 69 and 76
1B
Comfo zones: In deg C of corrected effective temperature Pleasant and cool 20 Comfoable and cool 20-25 (69-76F) Comfoable 25- 27 (77-80F) Hot and uncomfoable 27-28 Extremely hot 28+ Intolerably hot 30+. Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 25th Edition, Pg 792
Social & Preventive Medicine
Environment and health
Test used for factor VIII deficiency identification is-
{ "A": "PT", "B": "APTT", "C": "D dimer", "D": "FDP" }
APTT
1B
Ans. is 'b' i.e., APTT o Factor VIII is a part of the intrinsic pathway of coagulation. The test used to identity1 the defects in the intrinsic and common pathways of coagulation is PTT. Thus prolonged PTT is a feature of patient with factor VIII deficiency.o Patients with hemophilia have deficiency of factor VIII that...
Pathology
Bleeding Disorders
A 19 year old female presents with pain in the neck for 5 days. She is not able to wear tie for her job because of neck pain. H/O fatigue and lethargy for 10 days. She had flu like symptoms 20 days ago which resolved spontaneously. BP 110/80 mmHg, Pulse 48/min. Extremities are cold and dry. Neck is very tender. ECG nor...
{ "A": "Atropine injection", "B": "Levothyroxine administration", "C": "Aspirin", "D": "Increase iodine intake in food" }
Aspirin
2C
Answer: c) Aspirin (SCHWARTZ 19TH ED, P-1525; SABISTON 19TH ED, P-895)Granulomatous or Subacute or De Quervain's thyroiditisMost commonly occurs in 30- 40 year-old womenStrong association with the HLA-B35Fever with Sudden or gradual onset of neck painH/o preceding URI; Viral etiologyGland - enlarged, tender, firmClassi...
Surgery
Thyroid Gland
Headache, apathy and deteriorating level of consciousness occurring weeks after head injury suggests;
{ "A": "Chronic subdral haematoma.", "B": "Pontine hemorrhage", "C": "Continuing cerebral.", "D": "Depressed skull fracture." }
Chronic subdral haematoma.
0A
Chronic subdral haematoma
Surgery
None
A 27-year female wearing high heels stumbled and sustained inversion injury at ankle. Which ligament is most likely to be injured in the given case?
{ "A": "A", "B": "B", "C": "C", "D": "D" }
A
0A
Ans. A. (A)A. Anterior Talofibular ligamentAnkle sprains: Usually caused by the falls from height or twists of ankle. When the plantar-flexed foot is excessively inverted, the anterior and posterior talofibular and calcaneofibular ligaments are stretched and torn. The anterior talofibular ligament is most commonly torn...
Anatomy
Lower Extremity
Asymmetric tonic neck reflex (ATNR) disappears at ______
{ "A": "6 months", "B": "5 months", "C": "9 months", "D": "8 months" }
6 months
0A
Asymmetric tonic reflex (ATNR) diappears by 6-7 months postnatally The tonic neck reflex is produced by manually rotating the infant&;s head to 1 side and observing for the characteristic fencing posture (extension of the arm on the side to which the face is rotated and flexion of the conralateral arm) An obligatory to...
Pediatrics
New born infants
Ligament teres is a remnant of ?
{ "A": "Ductus aeriosus", "B": "Umbilical aery", "C": "Umbilical vein", "D": "Ductus venosus" }
Umbilical vein
2C
Umbilical vein
Anatomy
None
Sho structured primi gravida has height less then
{ "A": "140 cm", "B": "145 cm", "C": "150 cm", "D": "135 cm" }
140 cm
0A
140 cm
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
None
Which of the following is the most specific and sensitive screening test for renovascular hypeension?
{ "A": "HRCT", "B": "CT Angiography", "C": "Captopril enhanced radionucleotide scan", "D": "Doppler ultrasound of renal aeries" }
CT Angiography
1B
Hypeension due to an occlusive lesion of a renal aery is renovascular hypeensionIn the initial stages, the mechanism of hypeension generally is related to activation of the renin-angiotensin system. Obstruction of the renal aery leads to decreased renal perfusion pressure, thereby stimulating renin secretion. Over time...
Medicine
All India exam
Role of egg lecithin in propofol formulation is?
{ "A": "Acts as emulsifying agent", "B": "Acts as preservative", "C": "Acts as carrier vehicle", "D": "Acts as antibacterial" }
Acts as emulsifying agent
0A
Propofol is an insoluble drug that requires a lipid vehicle for emulsification. Current formulations of propofol use a soybean oil as the oil phase and egg lecithin as the emulsifying agent.
Anaesthesia
Intravenous Anesthetic Agents
A 63 year old man presents with a triad of angina, syncope and congestive hea failure. Which of the following valvular hea lesion can be suspected-
{ "A": "antral stenosis", "B": "Tricuspid regurgitation", "C": "Aoic stenosis", "D": "Aoic regurgitation" }
Aoic stenosis
2C
Even severe AS may exist for many years without producing any symptoms because of the ability of the hyperophied LV to generate the elevated intraventricular pressures required to maintain a normal stroke volume. Most patients with pure or predominant AS have gradually increasing obstruction over years, but do not beco...
Medicine
C.V.S
Generalised thickening of cortical and cancellous bones is seen in
{ "A": "Osteopetrosis", "B": "Pagets disease", "C": "Osteogenesis imperfecta", "D": "Infantile hyperostosis" }
Infantile hyperostosis
3D
None
Pathology
None
An athelete presented with red coloured urine after 2 days of history of severe exeion. The most probable cause is?
{ "A": "Hemoglobinuria", "B": "Hemosiderinuria", "C": "Hematuria", "D": "Myoglobinuria" }
Myoglobinuria
3D
Myoglobinuria REF: Harrison's Internal Medicine 17th edition chapter 382, Physiology and pathology of the urine by john dixon p. 49 Red color urine may be due to hemoglobin or myoglobin. In the question clue is given that patient is an athlete who competed in an event which lead to sternous exercise and hence increased...
Surgery
None
High false positive cases in a community signify that disease has -
{ "A": "High prevalence & Low incidence", "B": "High incidence & Low prevalence", "C": "Low prevalence & Low incidence", "D": "High incidence & High prevalence" }
High incidence & Low prevalence
1B
None
Social & Preventive Medicine
None
Which of the following is released from hypothalamus?
{ "A": "Orexin", "B": "Cortisol releasing hormone", "C": "Neuropeptide", "D": "Ghrelin" }
Cortisol releasing hormone
1B
There are 6 established hypothalamic releasing and inhibiting hormones : Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH), Thyrotropin releasing hormone (TRH), Growth hormone releasing hormone (GRH), Growth  hormone inhibiting hormone (GIH), Luteinizing hormone releasing hormone (LHRH) and Prolactin inhibiting hormone(PIH).
Physiology
None
Vestibulo-Ocular Reflex Mediated by:
{ "A": "Flocculonodular Lobe", "B": "Vermal portion of Spinocerebel 1 um", "C": "Neocerebellum", "D": "Paravermal region of Spinocerebellum" }
Flocculonodular Lobe
0A
Ans:A (Flocculonodular Lobe) Ref: Pal GK. Cerbellurn. In: Textbook of Medical Physiology. Ahuja Publishing House. 2007: 116: 871.Explanation:Functional Division of CerebellumVestibulo cerebellum/Arch-cerebellum (Flocculonodular lobe)Connections with vestibular apparatusConcerned with equilibrium and learning induced ch...
Physiology
Cerebellum and Brainstem
Which statement best describes the cranial fossa?
{ "A": "The middle cranial fossa contains the cribriform plate.", "B": "The anterior cranial fossa contains the pituitary gland.", "C": "The middle cranial fossa is floored by the sphenoid and temporal bones.", "D": "The internal acoustic meatus lies in the middle cranial fossa." }
The middle cranial fossa is floored by the sphenoid and temporal bones.
2C
The floor of the middle cranial fossa is made up of the body and greater wing of the sphenoid as well as the squamous temporal bone. The cribriform plate forms pa of the floor of the anterior cranial fossa The middle cranial fossa contains the pituitary gland. The internal acoustic meatus lies in the posterior cranial ...
Anatomy
Cranial cavity
Which of the following vitamin enhances intestinal absorption of calcium?
{ "A": "Vitamin D", "B": "Vitamin K", "C": "Vitamin B1", "D": "Vitamin B2" }
Vitamin D
0A
Vitamin Functions Deficiency Disease D Maintenance of calcium balance Enhances intestinal absorption of Ca2+ and mobilizes bone mineral Regulation of gene expression and cell differentiation Rickets = poor mineralization of bone Osteomalacia = bone demineralization Reference: Harper; 30th edition; Page no: 550
Biochemistry
vitamins
Which of these is the most impoant indication for Strassmans Metroplasty done for a bicornuate uterus?
{ "A": "Infeility", "B": "Menorrhagia", "C": "Repeated early pregnancy losses", "D": "Associated vaginal atresia" }
Repeated early pregnancy losses
2C
Habitual aboion is the most impoant indication for surgical treatment of women who have a double uterus. The aboion rate in women who have a double uterus is to three times greater than that of the general population. Best diagnosis of the condition is made by laparohysteroscopy. Strassmans Metroplasty
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Mullerian Abnormalities
A 2-year-old child had burns on buttocks, both legs, face, neck and singeing of hair. Total surface area burnt: JIPMER 14
{ "A": "27%", "B": "37%", "C": "45%", "D": "55%" }
37%
1B
Ans. 37%
Forensic Medicine
None
Which test helps to differentiate between concomitant squint and paralytic squint
{ "A": "Cover - uncover test", "B": "Alternate covertest", "C": "Direct cover test", "D": "None of the above" }
Alternate covertest
1B
This procedure causes breakdown of binocular fusion mechanism thus helpful to differentiate.
Ophthalmology
None
Best disinfectant of cholera stool is-
{ "A": "Bleaching powder", "B": "Cresol", "C": "Phenol", "D": "Lime" }
Cresol
1B
Cresol is an excellent coal-tar disinfectant. It is 3 to 10 times as powerful as phenol, yet no more toxic. Cresol is best used in 5 to 20 percent strength for disinfection of farces and urine. Cresol is an all-purpose general disinfectant. (refer pgno :128 park 23 rd edition)
Social & Preventive Medicine
Epidemiology
Black eye is a type of -
{ "A": "Patterend abrasion", "B": "Ectopic abrasion", "C": "Ectopic bruise", "D": "Friction abrasion" }
Ectopic bruise
2C
The synopsis of forensic medicine & toxicology ; Dr k.s.narayan reddy ; 28th edition ; Pg .no . 107 Black eye is the most common example for ectopic bruising or percolated contusion .
Forensic Medicine
Mechanical injuries
In a patient with a type of familial dyslipidemias he presented with palmar Xanthomas and he ias at increased risk of atherosclerosis and CAD.In Lipid profile there was elevation of triacylglycerols and cholesterol.And the IDL and chylomicrons were elevated.What is the pathophysiology of the condition?
{ "A": "LDL deficiency", "B": "VLDL overproduction", "C": "Apo C-2 deficiency", "D": "Apo E deficiency" }
Apo E deficiency
3D
Reference: Harpers illustrated biochemistry 30th edition page 275
Biochemistry
Metabolism of lipid
Endolymphatic duct drains into :
{ "A": "Subdural space", "B": "External space", "C": "Subarachnoid space", "D": "Succulus" }
Subdural space
0A
Ans:A.)Subdural Perilymph drains into subarachnoid space through the aqueduct of cochlea... Endolymph is absorbed in subdural space.
Anatomy
None
Usually associated with parvovirus B19 infection in those with hereditary spherocytosis-
{ "A": "Mild to moderate splenomegaly", "B": "Aplastic crisis", "C": "Gallstones", "D": "Hemolytic crisis" }
Aplastic crisis
1B
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Aplastic crisis o Parvovirus B19 selectively infects erythroidprecursors and is the most common aetiological agent that induces aplastic crisis in patients with hereditary spherocytosis (and other Hemolytic disorders).Transient aplastic crisiso Persons with decreased erythrocytes caused by conditions ...
Medicine
Immunology and Rheumatology
Carcinoma of the prostate arise from -
{ "A": "Central zone", "B": "Peripheral zone", "C": "Transitional zone", "D": "Periurethral zone" }
Peripheral zone
1B
None
Surgery
None
A patient with cushinoid features presents with hemoptysis; he shows no response to dexamethasone suppression test; most likely diagnosis here is:
{ "A": "Adrenal hyperplasia", "B": "Adrenal adenoma", "C": "Ca lung with ectopic ACTH production", "D": "Pituitary microadenoma" }
Ca lung with ectopic ACTH production
2C
Answer is C (Ca lung with ectopic ACTH production); Lack of suppression to dexamethasone challenge (ACTH producing tumor) and presence of hemoptysis (Carcinoma lung) in a patient with Cushinoid features suggests a diagnosis of Carcinoma lung with ectopic ACTH secretion. As a method of diagnostic workup of any patient w...
Medicine
None
Symptomatic treatment is not required in withdrawal of:
{ "A": "Cannabis", "B": "Morphine", "C": "Alcohol", "D": "Cocaine" }
Cannabis
0A
Since cannabis causes very mild withdrawal symptoms hence, no symptomatic treatment is required. LSD and other hallucinations also do not cause any withdrawal symptoms .
Psychiatry
Substance Related and Addictive Disorders
Following death of a person, what happens to potassium level in the vitreous.
{ "A": "Potassium level falls", "B": "Potassium level increases", "C": "Remains unchanged", "D": "It depends on cause of death" }
Potassium level increases
1B
Potassium concentration raises at the rate of 0.17-0.25 mmol per hour following death. It helps in determination of time since death.
Forensic Medicine
None
Under transplantation of humans organs act, the punishment for the doctor involved is
{ "A": "< 1 year", "B": "< 2 years", "C": "2-5 years", "D": "> 5 years" }
2-5 years
2C
The Transplantation of Human Organs Act 1994, amended in 2011, and 2012 Chapter VI and VII deals with the trial and punishment of offences under this act. Under this act, doctors involved will be punished for a period of 2-5yrs. Ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY Dr. PC IGNATIUS PAGE NO: 389
Forensic Medicine
Medical Jurisprudence
Staphylococcus aureus does not cause which of the following skin infection:
{ "A": "Ecthyma gangrenosum", "B": "Bullous impetigo", "C": "Botryomycosis", "D": "Cellulitis" }
Ecthyma gangrenosum
0A
Ans. is. a. Ecthyma gangrenosum
Microbiology
None
A young lady with symptoms of hypehyroidism with elevated T4 and TSH levels. On examination, patient was not experiencing Tachycardia or excessive sweating.Fuher examination reveals bitemporal hemianopia. Next step of management
{ "A": "Sta beta blockers immediately", "B": "Conservative management sufficient", "C": "Sta antithyroid drugs and wait for symptoms to resolve.", "D": "Sta antithyroid drugs and do urgent MRI" }
Sta antithyroid drugs and do urgent MRI
3D
Hypehyroidism with elevated levels of T4 and TSH levels and bitemporal hemianopia is highly suggestive of TSH secreting adenoma. Urgent MRI should be done to confirm the diagnosis of TSH secreting pituitary adenoma along with antithyroid drugs. Thyrotropin-secreting pituitary tumors (TSH-omas) are a rare cause of hypeh...
Surgery
Thyroid
Statuary rape is -
{ "A": "Less than 15 years", "B": "Less than 16 years", "C": "Less than 18 years", "D": "Less than 20 years" }
Less than 18 years
2C
Ref:Textbook of Forensic medicine and toxicology (V.V.Pillay) 17th edition, page no.388 Minimum age at which female can give consent for sex by what age is 18 years. As per Sec.375IPC unlawful sexual intercourse by man with a woman with or without her consent when she is under 18 years of age. The criminal law (Amendme...
Forensic Medicine
Sexual offences and infanticide
A patient on amiodarone is diagnosed to have cornea verticillata. What should be management –
{ "A": "Stop the drug", "B": "Penetrating keratoplasty", "C": "Lamellar keratoplasty", "D": "Observation" }
Stop the drug
0A
Cornea Verticillata This is a whorl-like opacity in the corneal epithelium seen in patients on long-term treatment with medication such as amiodarone, chloroquine, phenothiazines and indomethacin. It is also seen in patients with Fabry disease and its carrier state. The condition is generally asymptomatic, harmless an...
Ophthalmology
None
Most aggressive lung CA:
{ "A": "Squamous cell CA", "B": "Adenocarcinoma", "C": "Small cell lung CA", "D": "Large cell CA" }
Small cell lung CA
2C
Ans. (c) Small cell lung CARef: Robbings 9th ed./ 717* Small cell carcinoma is a highly malignant tumor with a strong relationship to cigarette smoking.* Around 1% occurs in nonsmokers.* They are the most aggressive of lung tumors, metastasizing widely and are always fatal.
Pathology
Characteristics and Epidemiology of Neoplasia
Chemoprophylaxis is indicated for all except-
{ "A": "Typhoid", "B": "Meningococcal meningitis", "C": "Cholera", "D": "Plague" }
Typhoid
0A
Chemoprophylaxis There is no role of Chemoprophylaxis in Typhoid. For chemoprophylaxis in meningococcal meningitis, Rifampicin, Ciprofloxacin & Ceftriaxone is used. Tetracycline is used in Cholera and Plague.
Social & Preventive Medicine
Intestinal Infections, Worm Infestations
In pontaic fever, which antigen is seen in urine?
{ "A": "Lipopolysaccharide-1", "B": "Lipopolysaccharide-2", "C": "Lipopolysaccharide-4", "D": "Lipopolysaccharide-6" }
Lipopolysaccharide-1
0A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Lipopolysaccharide-1 Legionella are classified into serogroup on the basis ofgroup specific lipopolysaccharide (somatic antigen or 'O' antigen). Legionella pneumophila sero-group-1 (LP-1) is the most common infecting organism. Urine test detect LP-1.
Microbiology
None
Mediastinal lymph node calcification is seen in which one of the following-
{ "A": "Metastatic neoplasm", "B": "Lymphoma", "C": "Sarcoidosis", "D": "Bronchiectasis" }
Sarcoidosis
2C
Ref:Robbins Basic Pathology (9th Edition),page no.478,479 Sarcoidosis Although sarcoidosis is considered here as an example of a restrictive lung disease, it is impoant to note that sarcoidosis is a multisystem disease of unknown etiology characterized by noncaseating granulomas in many tissues and organs. MORPHOLOGY T...
Pathology
Respiratory system
"Candle-wax spots" in the retina are present in
{ "A": "Sarcoidosis", "B": "Toxoplasmosis", "C": "Syphilis", "D": "Tuberculosis" }
Sarcoidosis
0A
(A) Sarcoidosis # OCULAR MANIFESTATIONS OF SARCOIDOSIS:> Anterior segment: Conjunctival involvement has been reported in patients with ocular sarcoidosis.> Sarcoidosis granulomas are solitary, yellow "millet-seed" nodules.> Anterior uveitis occurs in 22%- 70% of patients with ocular sarcoidosis, and is usually granulom...
Ophthalmology
Miscellaneous
The number of doses recommended for oral Ty21a typhoid vaccine is:
{ "A": "14", "B": "5", "C": "3", "D": "1" }
3
2C
The Ty21a vaccine is licensed for use in individuals > 5 years. A three dose regimen is recommended. Vaccine is administered on alternate days: 0n days 1, 3 and 5. Ref: Park 21st edition, page 215.
Social & Preventive Medicine
None
The drug used in petit mal seizures and has a narrow spectrum of antiepileptic activity is
{ "A": "Lamotrigine", "B": "Ethosuximide", "C": "Phenytoin", "D": "Primidone" }
Ethosuximide
1B
Ethosuximide and valproate are the drugs of choice for absence seizures and are more effective than lamotrigineReference: Katzung Pharmacology; 12th edition; Page no: 418
Pharmacology
Central Nervous system
Which test is not useful in a patient with history of Syncopal attack?
{ "A": "Electrophysiological testing", "B": "Tilt Table testing", "C": "PET Scan", "D": "Holter monitoring" }
PET Scan
2C
Answer is C (PET Scan) : PET scan has- not been mentioned as a test to investigate syncope in Harrisons text. It is the single best answer of exclusion. Electrophysiological tests and 24 hour ECG Holter monitoring are indicated in patients where history suggests a cardiac disease. Upright tilt table testing is indicate...
Medicine
None
Magic syndrome is seen in:
{ "A": "Behcet disease", "B": "Aphthous major", "C": "Herpetiform", "D": "Bloom syndrome" }
Behcet disease
0A
“MAGIC syndrome” (Mouth and Genital ulcers with Inflamed Cartilage) has been proposed to describe patients with clinical features of both relapsing polychondritis and Behcet disease.
Pathology
None
Acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis is caused by ?
{ "A": "Enterovirus 70", "B": "Adenovirus", "C": "Poliovirus", "D": "Hepadnavirus" }
Enterovirus 70
0A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Enterovirus 70 Acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis (AHC) may be caused by adenoviruses, but two enteroviruses, enterovirus 70 and coxsackie A24 variant, are the major causes.
Microbiology
None
In a 24 year old man weight of the upper limb is transmitted to the axial skeleton by:
{ "A": "Coracoacromial ligament", "B": "Coracoclavicular ligament", "C": "Costoclavicular ligament", "D": "Coracohumeral ligament" }
Coracoclavicular ligament
1B
The axial skeleton shapes the longitudinal axis of the human body. Coracoclavicular ligament suspends the scapula from the lower one third of the clavicle and forms a strong bond between them. The weight of the upper limb is transmitted to the axial skeleton through this ligament. A fracture of the clavicle, medial to ...
Anatomy
None
Primary health care was proposed in 1978 at:
{ "A": "Alma ata", "B": "New York", "C": "Geneva", "D": "Delhi" }
Alma ata
0A
Answer: A. Alma ata. (Ref Park's Textbook of PSM 22nd/Pg.832)The new approach to health care came into existence in 1978 following an international conference at Alma Ata (USSR).The Alma-Ata conference defines the primary health care as follows: Primary health care is essential health care made universally accessible t...
Social & Preventive Medicine
Healthcare of the Community & International Health
Schizophrenia is treated by:
{ "A": "Anti depressants", "B": "Anti psychotics", "C": "Anti epileptics", "D": "Mood stabilizers" }
Anti psychotics
1B
None
Pharmacology
None
Gene involved in Cowden syndrome is
{ "A": "P53", "B": "PTEN", "C": "RB", "D": "Ras" }
PTEN
1B
(B) PTENo"Phosphatase and Tensin'' homolog (PTEN) - protein in humans encoded by the PTEN gene. Gene mutations promotes development of cancers.[?]Cowden's disease/Multiple Hamartoma Syndrome:-Part of PTEN hamartoma tumor syndrome-An autosomal dominant syndrome-Trichilemmomas - Numerous tumors of hair follicles in face-...
Pathology
Neoplasia
Supraventricular crest lies between-
{ "A": "Pulmonary orifice and atrioventricular orifice", "B": "Atrioventricular orifice and fossa ovalis", "C": "SVC and right atrium", "D": "Right an dleft coronary artery" }
Pulmonary orifice and atrioventricular orifice
0A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Pulmonary orifice and atrioventricular orifice Interior of right ventricle* It is anteroinferior chamber and projects to the left of right atrium. It is in contact with the sternum.* It is divided into -i) Rough inflowing part (ventricle proper)# It is developed from right half of primitive ventricle....
Anatomy
Thorax