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97,064
I vaguely know that a good credit score is very important in the US (we do not have such concept in France for individuals). I was wondering whether such credit score can be boosted through some kind of sponsorship? A real life scenario would be a company absolutely willing to bring in a very senior employee from abroad who would certainly want to avoid being treated as a fresh graduate, credit-wise.
2018/07/02
[ "https://money.stackexchange.com/questions/97064", "https://money.stackexchange.com", "https://money.stackexchange.com/users/29745/" ]
It depends on the clause of the Direct Deposit agreement. Some Direct Deposit agreements include a clause including permission to make withdrawals, the actionary phrase may be as simple as 'I permit {organisation} to deposit and withdraw on my account'. If there is no withdrawal authorization provided, such things as correcting overpayments or incorrect deposits are handled through normal banking procedures.
No, direct deposit doesn't permit withdrawal. But keep in mind that every company or person performing transactions can file for a withdrawal of same amount that they deposit. However their is a limited time period after which banks will revoke the ability to even reverse the transition. [ Won't apply if court or police is involved ]. Read this government article on 5 myths of direct deposit for additional information. <https://www.tpsgc-pwgsc.gc.ca/recgen/dd/prom-1-eng.html>
97,064
I vaguely know that a good credit score is very important in the US (we do not have such concept in France for individuals). I was wondering whether such credit score can be boosted through some kind of sponsorship? A real life scenario would be a company absolutely willing to bring in a very senior employee from abroad who would certainly want to avoid being treated as a fresh graduate, credit-wise.
2018/07/02
[ "https://money.stackexchange.com/questions/97064", "https://money.stackexchange.com", "https://money.stackexchange.com/users/29745/" ]
Usually, when you sign up for direct deposit you have to sign a form giving your consent. This contains a clause which allows the company to make withdrawals up to the paycheck amount, in order to correct any errors. In short, if you signed up for direct deposit then you have already given your consent for them to fix errors by withdrawing money. If you do not consent (and therefore do not get direct deposit), they will usually require you to write a check to the company for the difference.
No, direct deposit doesn't permit withdrawal. But keep in mind that every company or person performing transactions can file for a withdrawal of same amount that they deposit. However their is a limited time period after which banks will revoke the ability to even reverse the transition. [ Won't apply if court or police is involved ]. Read this government article on 5 myths of direct deposit for additional information. <https://www.tpsgc-pwgsc.gc.ca/recgen/dd/prom-1-eng.html>
45,399
I live in Denmark and have Danish citizenship. That means I am not allowed to obtain another citizenship otherwise I will lose the danish one. My question is then: Can I get the kosovo ID card, without losing the danish citizenship, does the ID-card mean citizenship?
2015/03/30
[ "https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/45399", "https://travel.stackexchange.com", "https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/28107/" ]
I’d suggest taking a look at the website of the Paris Convention and Visitors Bureau, which has a [page titled “Places to visit at night in Paris”](http://en.parisinfo.com/discovering-paris/themed-guides/paris-by-night/practical-guide/places-to-visit-at-night-in-paris). It lists a number of places (mostly museums, some galleries) that have late openings. The page is unfortunately organized by place rather than by what your options are on a particular day of the week, but the “fact sheet” for every place does clearly list “late opening” on the “prices and times” section. Here are a few suggestions taken from that page, but organized by day of the week (non-exhaustive list): **Monday**: Musée Jacquemart-André (until 9pm, only during temporary exhibitions). **Tuesday**: Jeu de Paume Paris (until 9pm). **Wednesday**: Musée du Louvre (until 9.45pm). **Thursday**: Musée des Arts et Métiers (until 9.30pm), Musée d'Orsay (until 9.45pm), Musée du Quai Branly (until 9pm). **Friday**: Musée du Louvre (until 9.45pm), Musée du Quai Branly (until 9pm). **Saturday**: Musée du Quai Branly (until 9pm), Musée Jacquemart-André (9pm, only during temporary exhibitions). There’s also the Palais de Tokyo which is open every day, except Tuesday, until midnight; and the Musée de l'Érotisme is open every day until 2am. Obviously these times can change, so do check the original “fact sheet”. For most places it also lists until what time before closing time the ticket offices stay open, which would be useful to know. (Thanks for reopening this question; the above is a slightly extended version of the [answer I proposed on the meta SE](https://travel.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/3122/can-the-question-on-which-sights-are-open-late-in-paris-be-reopened)).
Fortunately [ParisInfo](https://en.parisinfo.com/) (the official tourism website of Paris) has a great few pieces on this: * [Places to visit at night in Paris](http://en.parisinfo.com/discovering-paris/themed-guides/paris-by-night/practical-guide/places-to-visit-at-night-in-paris) - many museums, theatres and more are open late, including Espace Dali, Musee d'Orsay and the Louvre. * [Some places are open very late or all night](http://en.parisinfo.com/discovering-paris/themed-guides/paris-by-night/practical-guide/open-very-late-or-all-night-in-paris) - but this is more in terms of food, services and shopping. * And finally their piece on [night transportation in Paris](http://en.parisinfo.com/discovering-paris/themed-guides/paris-by-night/practical-guide/night-transport-in-paris) - covering the Noctillen buses, Metro, RER, taxis and more.
79,217
I'm using Pi 3 I have a line that gives 12V. I need to invoke something on Pi, when the line goes High. As I cannot connect the 12V to GPIO, I thought of using a relay, that will trigger on 12V, and then connect the 3v3 to a GPIO. This will happen periodically, for almost a second. I know that the 3v3 will have current that is unused by the Pi, but in this case I cannot always be sure how much thag would be. Is this safe?
2018/02/14
[ "https://raspberrypi.stackexchange.com/questions/79217", "https://raspberrypi.stackexchange.com", "https://raspberrypi.stackexchange.com/users/80931/" ]
Use a voltage divider, or a 10V zener diode. My 10V zeners drop 9.49V, and would in your case yield 2.51V; a HIGH on PI. Optionally use a PNP+NPN pair to close the connection from the 12V line to the Pi when polling the voltage, or there will be a bit of leakage.
First you need to implement a De-bounce circuit, it will prevent the mechanical contact that can bounce when they touch together and be read as multiple contacts. There is no "unused" current, the circuit will draw as much current as it need and the output will deliver it, if it can.
79,217
I'm using Pi 3 I have a line that gives 12V. I need to invoke something on Pi, when the line goes High. As I cannot connect the 12V to GPIO, I thought of using a relay, that will trigger on 12V, and then connect the 3v3 to a GPIO. This will happen periodically, for almost a second. I know that the 3v3 will have current that is unused by the Pi, but in this case I cannot always be sure how much thag would be. Is this safe?
2018/02/14
[ "https://raspberrypi.stackexchange.com/questions/79217", "https://raspberrypi.stackexchange.com", "https://raspberrypi.stackexchange.com/users/80931/" ]
Use a voltage divider, or a 10V zener diode. My 10V zeners drop 9.49V, and would in your case yield 2.51V; a HIGH on PI. Optionally use a PNP+NPN pair to close the connection from the 12V line to the Pi when polling the voltage, or there will be a bit of leakage.
It is simple to interface a higher voltage indicator to the Pi, provided they can share a common ground connection. Using relays is sledgehammer solution which introduces a number of other problems. The simplest approach uses a voltage divider. Do **NOT** attempt to produce 3.3V, anything over 2.2V will reliably trigger the Pi (my tests indicate 1.3V is OK). If the source is not clean DC you can implement various protective measures - either a diode clamp to 3.3V or a total isolation e.g using an optoisolator.
79,217
I'm using Pi 3 I have a line that gives 12V. I need to invoke something on Pi, when the line goes High. As I cannot connect the 12V to GPIO, I thought of using a relay, that will trigger on 12V, and then connect the 3v3 to a GPIO. This will happen periodically, for almost a second. I know that the 3v3 will have current that is unused by the Pi, but in this case I cannot always be sure how much thag would be. Is this safe?
2018/02/14
[ "https://raspberrypi.stackexchange.com/questions/79217", "https://raspberrypi.stackexchange.com", "https://raspberrypi.stackexchange.com/users/80931/" ]
Use a voltage divider, or a 10V zener diode. My 10V zeners drop 9.49V, and would in your case yield 2.51V; a HIGH on PI. Optionally use a PNP+NPN pair to close the connection from the 12V line to the Pi when polling the voltage, or there will be a bit of leakage.
See my answer to another question here [regarding the use of an interposing relay](https://raspberrypi.stackexchange.com/a/107149/56181). In the answer I posted I made mention to use a pull down resistor, and a current limiting resistor in series with the GPIO. This would look something like this. ![schematic](https://i.stack.imgur.com/5U98a.png) [simulate this circuit](/plugins/schematics?image=http%3a%2f%2fi.stack.imgur.com%2f5U98a.png) – Schematic created using [CircuitLab](https://www.circuitlab.com/) R2 serves to limit the current going to the input. We don't need a lot, we are simply looking for a voltage (as measured across pull down resistor R1). I typically use a 10:1 ratio, but for R2 you can use a lower value like 330 ohms. SW1 represents the contact of a relay, the coil not shown. Pick a relay with a 12Vdc coil, these are common.
25,106
I am building an exchange for crypto currency. I need to be able to transfer tx from cold storage(offline) to hot wallet(online system) for submission. Usb stick is suitable for an individual user mining but is not suitable in an exchange environment. One option I am proposed is to build an api that sends tx over ethernet cable to and from cold/hot storage. But in this case the cold storage wont really be offline, it would still be connected. So what other options do I have that could work well for an exchange?
2014/05/05
[ "https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/questions/25106", "https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com", "https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/users/14151/" ]
I would reroute all incoming deposits to cold storage, which I would keep in small portions on different addresses. Then I'd import some cold storage addresses to my hot wallet whenever my hot wallet is running low, keeping the amount in my hot wallet in the range between "not empty" and "what I'm comfortable having in the hot wallet". As Mike mentioned, multi-signature addresses could provide additional security, and accountability.
I'd recommend using multisig for your 'hot' wallet (selfish plug to bitgo). Then you can periodically manually transfer from your cold storage savings, but have most of your coins be protected with signatures from at least 2 systems.
38,348
When you're selling a product, do you think it's important to offer the users various themes (in order for them to choose the one they like most or to customize it to their brand)? What are the advantages of having this option? Should I just offer one theme? My question is related to website makers, like WordPress and Blogspot....If I wanted to make a webpage creator, is offering several themes really that important?
2013/04/19
[ "https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/38348", "https://ux.stackexchange.com", "https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/10254/" ]
Customization in consumer products has always been targeted at "making it yours". We're all unique so even if we all have an iPhone and we're all on Facebook, we like that unicity to shine through somewhere. Some services used to overdo that (*ahem* myspace *ahem*). Facebook and Twitter on the other hand have a nice balance of offering customization, allowing you to show your personality on your profile page, while keeping the usability and look & feel of the service in tact. This is true as well for websites. If you're going to create a website for a business, they'll definitely feel they're unique and they are going to want it to look like it's theirs. And they're going to want to feel like they had a say in how it looks. So picking a theme is never going to be sufficient. Even if there are a hundred themes, any theme you choose a customer will want to customize at some level. What options you should offer depends on many factors. For instance, you could offer only one or two themes that can be further customized with images and colors. Just explain the limitations get you the best set of features for the lowest price and that further customization would be more expensive. And at the other end of the spectrum you could do without themes at all and build everything from scratch.
Multiple themes for designers who would design their websites using WordPress are absolutely a requirement as the designer needs freedom of expression and variety to choose from or they wouldn't feel they have "designed". Variety is a sense of change, interest and adventure that we all **\**need*\*** in order to feel alive. This is the same need which you fulfill by going to a shop with 1000 styles and colors of shoes and not the one that only had one style. But variety must be within certain limits or it starts to bog us down. Have a look at [Barry Schwartz: The paradox of choice](http://www.ted.com/talks/barry_schwartz_on_the_paradox_of_choice.html) who advocates why Choices are bad but also look at [Malcolm Gladwell: Choice, happiness and spaghetti sauce](http://www.ted.com/talks/malcolm_gladwell_on_spaghetti_sauce.html). Concluding: Your designers need freedom and variety to choose from. You are in ART oriented business where 16 million colors are not just enough. Good luck.
104,889
When taking photos with my iPhone, the phone's camera does a great job of protecting the highlights from blowing out. When using my Canon 5D mark ii, on the other hand, it seems to map a much narrower dynamic range into the jpg files. Example pictures from both cameras, where I metered of the flower pot in both cases: ![taken with iPhone SE](https://i.stack.imgur.com/kkYvg.jpg) ![taken with Canon 5D mark ii](https://i.stack.imgur.com/r73Wn.jpg) How can I achive a similar exposure as the iPhone for both subject and bright background when using my DSLR? Obviously I need to expose to protect the hoghlights, but then what? Can this be achived using a curves tool, or do I need different brightening for different parts of the picture, necessitating some kind of mask?
2019/02/07
[ "https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/104889", "https://photo.stackexchange.com", "https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/59662/" ]
What you seem to be after is a metering mode that places the highest priority on not blowing the highlights. This is important for many photographers and many lighting situations. But there are also other times when getting the shadows or the midtones properly exposed is more important to the photographer. At those points where the dynamic range of the scene exceeds the dynamic range of the camera, the choice has to be made whether to clip highlights, shadows, or a bit of both. Canon has long had an option called *Highlight Tone Priority* for their digital cameras. Nikon has pretty much the same thing called *Active D Lighting*. There are differences in the way each is implemented, but both start at exposing lower to avoid blown highlights and then pushing the tone curves of the shadows and mids in raw conversion. Other camera makers have offered similar options. Along with the metering mode selected (Spot, Partial, Center Weighted, Evaluative), *HTP* will affect the exposure decisions made by the camera in semi-automatic exposure modes (P, Tv, Av) and will also affect the meter reading in Manual exposure mode. More recently there have been even more sophisticated methods introduced for avoiding overexposed highlights. In their higher level models both Nikon and Canon have introduced newer metering/exposure methods that make avoiding blown highlights the highest priority. Nikon calls it *Highlight Weighted Metering* (it is only available with D, G, and E lenses - it can't be used with other lenses, even if they are "chipped"). Canon still calls it *HTP*, but the way it is implemented is far more sophisticated than early versions, and the versions currently used in the lower models, of *HTP*. Beyond that, the introduction of RGB or RGB+IR color light meters with hundreds of thousands of pixels divided into hundreds of metering zones has enabled very sophisticated "library" based metering where a metered scene is compared to a stored library of typical lighting scenarios. This has further refined the camera's ability to more often correctly guess when the highlights are more important and when the shadows are more important. To some degree such light meters are miniature imaging sensors. Meter readings, though not recorded to the camera's memory card, are effectively low resolution images upon which the camera bases exposure decisions similar to what mirrorless cameras (or DSLRs when shooting in Live View) do using the camera's main imaging sensor. In your examples, the iPhone underexposed the main subject in order to only partially blow out the background. Had the DSLR been focused properly (or held steadier) more details of the flower and table would have been noticeable. Your DSLR exposed the subject a bit more and allowed the background outside the window to totally blow out. With the much more shallow depth of field in the image taken with the DSLR, the background, even if properly exposed, would have been so blurry as to have no discernable details anyway. In general, smart phones tend to reduce contrast when used to photograph high dynamic range scenes. Some will even automatically take multiple frames at different exposure levels and merge the results. Most DSLRs at their default settings tend to "punch" the contrast a bit. Their in-camera jpeg engines increase contrast, saturation, and add some sharpening into the mix. When saving the raw data, these things are still applied to the [jpeg preview image](https://photo.stackexchange.com/a/100501/15871) attached to the raw file. Depending upon what raw processing application you use, these settings may or may not be applied when you first open the raw file on your computer. To view a "raw" image as anything more than a [near black blob of nothingness](https://photo.stackexchange.com/a/98371/15871), a LOT of processing must be done to the data between reading [the numbers in the raw data](https://photo.stackexchange.com/q/86170/15871) and [what is displayed on your screen](https://photo.stackexchange.com/a/102769/15871). You can alter your EOS 5D Mark II camera's 'Contrast' settings under the [Shooting (Red) tab 2 → Picture Style] menu options. These settings will affect in-camera produced JPEG images as well as the JPEG review image attached to raw files. The state of each setting at the time the image was captured will also be saved in the EXIF info of the raw file. As is mentioned above, this information may or may not be used when you first open the raw file using a computer based raw conversion application. They won't affect that actual raw value collected from each sensel (a/k/a pixel well) on the sensor. The various 'Picture Styles' from Canon are what some would call "presets" intended for different types of shooting. The *Landscape* Picture Style, for instance, is optimized to give blue skies and green vegetation more "pop". The *Portrait* Picture Style attempts to give pleasing skin tones. The *Standard* Picture Style does what we described a few paragraphs above: it increases contrast and color saturation as well as applies some sharpening to give images a little more "pop". The *Neutral* and *Faithful* Picture Styles use a flatter contrast curve that allows a wider range of brightness levels to be depicted in the same photo. For most scenes, this makes the image a bit "flat" looking. But for capturing very high contrast scenes, such as in your example, it allows you to [see more accurately](https://photo.stackexchange.com/a/55827/15871) what you are actually capturing in the raw data when you check the histogram on the back of the camera. Within each 'Picture Style', the camera user can adjust values for 'Sharpness', 'Contrast', 'Saturation', and 'Color Tone'. You can either save those changes as one of three 'User defined settings' or save those changes to the 'Picture Style' itself. If the changes are saved to the 'Picture Style' itself, those changes will be applied each time that 'Picture Style' is selected. Keep in mind that the '0' values for contrast, saturation, and color tone (hue) within each 'Picture Style' are not the same. They are merely the starting point for that particular 'Picture Style'. The same is true for the initial sharpness setting of '1' to '7' within each 'Picture Style'. A '0' contrast setting for the *Standard* Picture Style will give more contrast than a '0' contrast setting for the *Neutral* Picture Style. Increasing or decreasing the setting from '0' to anywhere between -4 to +4 for contrast will move the amount of contrast relative to the '0' setting *for that particular 'Picture Style'.* In the end, there's no such thing as *correct* or *perfect* exposure. There's only the image the photographer wishes to make. What may be *perfect* for one may be overexposed for another and too dark for yet another. Most photographers who are critically concerned about getting exposure "just so" will eventually learn to use **Manual** exposure mode so they can have complete control over all exposure parameters. ¹ Part of the difference in metering might be due to the window taking up a larger percentage of the frame in the second shot than in the first. Depending on which metering mode was selected, even if you had taken two shots with the same camera using an automatic metering mode, the one with a wider field of view that included more of the dark interior would have probably been exposed brighter than one in which the window fills more of the frame.
The setting you're likely looking for is **Highlight Tone Priority** (HTP). This makes the camera expose for highlights, to avoid blowing them out, and brings back shadows to normal with processing. Other cameras may refer to this as Dynamic Range Expansion/Optimization. Other settings you might find helpful: * Auto Lighting Optimizer (ALO). Cannot be used with HTP. * Contrast. Other cameras may have separate shadows and highlights settings. If HTP is not aggressive enough, you can further reduce exposure manually and bring back shadows in post. If you use Google Photos, just playing with the exposure, highlights, and shadows sliders can be enough. When working with Raw files, the same basic adjustments are used: **exposure, shadows, highlights**. There's more data to work with, so you can "bring back" more detail, but there's also some potential difficulty matching the baseline JPEG appearance. If the above does not help, you will need to **reduce contrast within the scene** itself with flash, reflectors, repositioning, etc. --- 1. Canon EOS 550D without HTP.  2. with HTP.  3. FujiFilm X-T20 with DRO. [![without HTP](https://i.imgur.com/8iR3cJ0b.jpg)](https://i.imgur.com/8iR3cJ0.jpg) [![with HTP](https://i.imgur.com/VdYf3jib.jpg)](https://i.imgur.com/VdYf3ji.jpg) [![FujiFilm X-T20](https://i.imgur.com/8tNyXkQb.jpg)](https://i.imgur.com/8tNyXkQ.jpg)
104,889
When taking photos with my iPhone, the phone's camera does a great job of protecting the highlights from blowing out. When using my Canon 5D mark ii, on the other hand, it seems to map a much narrower dynamic range into the jpg files. Example pictures from both cameras, where I metered of the flower pot in both cases: ![taken with iPhone SE](https://i.stack.imgur.com/kkYvg.jpg) ![taken with Canon 5D mark ii](https://i.stack.imgur.com/r73Wn.jpg) How can I achive a similar exposure as the iPhone for both subject and bright background when using my DSLR? Obviously I need to expose to protect the hoghlights, but then what? Can this be achived using a curves tool, or do I need different brightening for different parts of the picture, necessitating some kind of mask?
2019/02/07
[ "https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/104889", "https://photo.stackexchange.com", "https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/59662/" ]
What you seem to be after is a metering mode that places the highest priority on not blowing the highlights. This is important for many photographers and many lighting situations. But there are also other times when getting the shadows or the midtones properly exposed is more important to the photographer. At those points where the dynamic range of the scene exceeds the dynamic range of the camera, the choice has to be made whether to clip highlights, shadows, or a bit of both. Canon has long had an option called *Highlight Tone Priority* for their digital cameras. Nikon has pretty much the same thing called *Active D Lighting*. There are differences in the way each is implemented, but both start at exposing lower to avoid blown highlights and then pushing the tone curves of the shadows and mids in raw conversion. Other camera makers have offered similar options. Along with the metering mode selected (Spot, Partial, Center Weighted, Evaluative), *HTP* will affect the exposure decisions made by the camera in semi-automatic exposure modes (P, Tv, Av) and will also affect the meter reading in Manual exposure mode. More recently there have been even more sophisticated methods introduced for avoiding overexposed highlights. In their higher level models both Nikon and Canon have introduced newer metering/exposure methods that make avoiding blown highlights the highest priority. Nikon calls it *Highlight Weighted Metering* (it is only available with D, G, and E lenses - it can't be used with other lenses, even if they are "chipped"). Canon still calls it *HTP*, but the way it is implemented is far more sophisticated than early versions, and the versions currently used in the lower models, of *HTP*. Beyond that, the introduction of RGB or RGB+IR color light meters with hundreds of thousands of pixels divided into hundreds of metering zones has enabled very sophisticated "library" based metering where a metered scene is compared to a stored library of typical lighting scenarios. This has further refined the camera's ability to more often correctly guess when the highlights are more important and when the shadows are more important. To some degree such light meters are miniature imaging sensors. Meter readings, though not recorded to the camera's memory card, are effectively low resolution images upon which the camera bases exposure decisions similar to what mirrorless cameras (or DSLRs when shooting in Live View) do using the camera's main imaging sensor. In your examples, the iPhone underexposed the main subject in order to only partially blow out the background. Had the DSLR been focused properly (or held steadier) more details of the flower and table would have been noticeable. Your DSLR exposed the subject a bit more and allowed the background outside the window to totally blow out. With the much more shallow depth of field in the image taken with the DSLR, the background, even if properly exposed, would have been so blurry as to have no discernable details anyway. In general, smart phones tend to reduce contrast when used to photograph high dynamic range scenes. Some will even automatically take multiple frames at different exposure levels and merge the results. Most DSLRs at their default settings tend to "punch" the contrast a bit. Their in-camera jpeg engines increase contrast, saturation, and add some sharpening into the mix. When saving the raw data, these things are still applied to the [jpeg preview image](https://photo.stackexchange.com/a/100501/15871) attached to the raw file. Depending upon what raw processing application you use, these settings may or may not be applied when you first open the raw file on your computer. To view a "raw" image as anything more than a [near black blob of nothingness](https://photo.stackexchange.com/a/98371/15871), a LOT of processing must be done to the data between reading [the numbers in the raw data](https://photo.stackexchange.com/q/86170/15871) and [what is displayed on your screen](https://photo.stackexchange.com/a/102769/15871). You can alter your EOS 5D Mark II camera's 'Contrast' settings under the [Shooting (Red) tab 2 → Picture Style] menu options. These settings will affect in-camera produced JPEG images as well as the JPEG review image attached to raw files. The state of each setting at the time the image was captured will also be saved in the EXIF info of the raw file. As is mentioned above, this information may or may not be used when you first open the raw file using a computer based raw conversion application. They won't affect that actual raw value collected from each sensel (a/k/a pixel well) on the sensor. The various 'Picture Styles' from Canon are what some would call "presets" intended for different types of shooting. The *Landscape* Picture Style, for instance, is optimized to give blue skies and green vegetation more "pop". The *Portrait* Picture Style attempts to give pleasing skin tones. The *Standard* Picture Style does what we described a few paragraphs above: it increases contrast and color saturation as well as applies some sharpening to give images a little more "pop". The *Neutral* and *Faithful* Picture Styles use a flatter contrast curve that allows a wider range of brightness levels to be depicted in the same photo. For most scenes, this makes the image a bit "flat" looking. But for capturing very high contrast scenes, such as in your example, it allows you to [see more accurately](https://photo.stackexchange.com/a/55827/15871) what you are actually capturing in the raw data when you check the histogram on the back of the camera. Within each 'Picture Style', the camera user can adjust values for 'Sharpness', 'Contrast', 'Saturation', and 'Color Tone'. You can either save those changes as one of three 'User defined settings' or save those changes to the 'Picture Style' itself. If the changes are saved to the 'Picture Style' itself, those changes will be applied each time that 'Picture Style' is selected. Keep in mind that the '0' values for contrast, saturation, and color tone (hue) within each 'Picture Style' are not the same. They are merely the starting point for that particular 'Picture Style'. The same is true for the initial sharpness setting of '1' to '7' within each 'Picture Style'. A '0' contrast setting for the *Standard* Picture Style will give more contrast than a '0' contrast setting for the *Neutral* Picture Style. Increasing or decreasing the setting from '0' to anywhere between -4 to +4 for contrast will move the amount of contrast relative to the '0' setting *for that particular 'Picture Style'.* In the end, there's no such thing as *correct* or *perfect* exposure. There's only the image the photographer wishes to make. What may be *perfect* for one may be overexposed for another and too dark for yet another. Most photographers who are critically concerned about getting exposure "just so" will eventually learn to use **Manual** exposure mode so they can have complete control over all exposure parameters. ¹ Part of the difference in metering might be due to the window taking up a larger percentage of the frame in the second shot than in the first. Depending on which metering mode was selected, even if you had taken two shots with the same camera using an automatic metering mode, the one with a wider field of view that included more of the dark interior would have probably been exposed brighter than one in which the window fills more of the frame.
You're using a much wider aperture on the second photograph : the buildings in the background - and even the window frame - would be out of focus irrespective of any highlights. Cameras are great at exposing for something in focus, but even with spot metering an out of focus background might affect the picture. In this case, the camera has exposed more (slower shutter speed or higher ISO) on the second picture than happened with the first - the flowers themselves are a little lighter. The highlights (the sky behind the buildings) in the first picture don't look [to me] significantly less blown than those in the second shot. It's worth trying to replicate the ["Depth of Field"](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Depth_of_field) in the first picture with a smaller (higher number) aperture on the Canon 5D. I think what you're seeing has at least as much to do with the initial photographs as it does with post processing.
35,080
1) Does it mean if I commit shirk right now, I will never enter paradise? or 2) Does it mean if I die in the state of shirk, I will never enter paradise? In my opinion, it should mean the second one. Because if it's the first one, that would mean that after a person commits shirk, there is no point in being a good person (since he/she will go to hell anyways)
2016/08/27
[ "https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/35080", "https://islam.stackexchange.com", "https://islam.stackexchange.com/users/-1/" ]
Here's some of what is written on this matter: Shirk is forgiveable if one repents ----------------------------------- > > Say, "O My servants who have transgressed against themselves [by sinning], do not despair of the mercy of Allah. Indeed, Allah forgives all sins. Indeed, it is He who is the Forgiving, the Merciful." -- [Qur'an 39:53](https://quran.com/39:53) > > > This includes all sins, even shirk. Whoever repents, Allaah will accept his repentance. Islam Q&A [fatwa 34171](https://islamqa.info/en/34171), 2004 > > > ...if one repents from Shirk whether small Shirk or major, Allaah will forgive him and accept his repentance. -- [IslamWeb fatwa 89591](http://www.islamweb.net/emainpage/index.php?page=showfatwa&Option=FatwaId&Id=89591), 2005 > > > Hence we must repent from all kinds of shirk, whether it is major shirk or minor shirk. If a person repents sincerely then Allaah will accept his repentance and forgive him his sins. -- Islam Q&A [fatwa 20482](https://islamqa.info/en/20482), 2009 > > > If a person repents from sin, Allah will forgive him, whether it was shirk or otherwise -- Islam Q&A [fatwa 177990](https://islamqa.info/en/177990), 2012 > > > If the person falls into this sin of shirk, then he is a kafir and he has to come back into Islaam for a second time, and he has to make tawbah (seek repentance). But he should realise that Islaam wipes what came before it. -- Shaykh `Abdus Salaam al-Burjis, FatwaIslam.com [article AQD01004](http://www.fatwaislam.com/fis/index.cfm?scn=fd&ID=169) > > > Major shirk is punished ----------------------- > > They have certainly disbelieved who say, " Allah is the Messiah, the son of Mary" while the Messiah has said, "O Children of Israel, worship Allah , my Lord and your Lord." **Indeed, he who associates others with Allah - Allah has forbidden him Paradise, and his refuge is the Fire. And there are not for the wrongdoers any helpers.** -- [Qur'an 5:72](https://quran.com/5:72) > > > (among others, e.g. [25:68](https://quran.com/25:68)) > > He who dies invoking an equal to Allah (the Exalted) regardless of Allah (the Exalted), will definitely be admitted into Hell-Fire. -- hadith narration attributed to Al-Bukhary, in Fath al-Majeed, ([pdf](http://www.islamic-invitation.com/downloads/Fathul-Majeed-explain-tawheed_eng.pdf), p. 91) > > > Major shirk is unforgiveable without repentance ----------------------------------------------- > > Indeed, Allah does not forgive association with Him, but He forgives what is less than that for whom He wills. And he who associates others with Allah has certainly fabricated a tremendous sin. -- [Qur'an 4:48](https://quran.com/4:48) > > > But if the person dies while on his Shirk, Allah does not forgive him if it is a major Shirk. But if it is a minor Shirk, then Allah might forgive him or He might punish him for it. -- [IslamWeb fatwa 85083](http://www.islamweb.net/emainpage/index.php?page=showfatwa&Option=FatwaId&Id=85083), 2002 > > > Hence, Allah (Exalted be He) will not forgive those who commit this type of Shirk and die without repentance. -- [Ibn Baz](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Abd_al-Aziz_ibn_Baz), fatwa ([source](http://www.alifta.net/Fatawa/fatawaDetails.aspx?languagename=en&BookID=14&View=Page&PageNo=1&PageID=207)) > > > Allah Does not Forgive Shirk, Except After Repenting From it -- attributed to [Ibn Kathir](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ibn_Kathir) by [qtafsir.com](http://www.qtafsir.com/index.php?option=com_content&task=view&id=653&Itemid=59) > > >
Ofcourse it means the second , otherwise the SAHABA the prophet's companions will not enter paradise ,because before islam they were at shirk. The aya means that in the day of judgment Allah will not forgive shirk and would forgive other than that on his will subhanahu we taala and he is the most kind and mercifull. In islam a person is counted on his present status regarding to his belief which i mean if a person is a true believer MU'MIN and was in past doing shirk he will be counted as he didn't done shirk ever from the time of his repentance.
2,084,021
what is the difference between creating ordinary tables using 'dbo' and creating tables using schemas.How this schema works & supports the tables
2010/01/18
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2084021", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/219876/" ]
`dbo` *is* a schema.
See if [this](http://www.sqlteam.com/article/understanding-the-difference-between-owners-and-schemas-in-sql-server) helps. Schema seems to be a way of categorizing objects (tables/stored procs/views etc). Think of it as a bucket to organize related objects based on functionality. I am not sure, how logged in SQL user is tied to a specific schema though.
2,084,021
what is the difference between creating ordinary tables using 'dbo' and creating tables using schemas.How this schema works & supports the tables
2010/01/18
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2084021", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/219876/" ]
A schema is just a container for DB objects - tables, views etc. It allows you to structure a very large database solution you might have. As a sample, have a look at the newer AdventureWorks sample databases - they have a number of schemata included, like "HumanResources" and so forth. A schema can be a security boundary, e.g. you can give or deny certain users access to a schema as a whole. A schema can also be used to keep tables with the same name apart, e.g. you could create a "user schema" for each user of your application, and have a "Settings" table in each of them, holding that user's settings, e.g. "Bob.Settings", "Mary.Settings" etc. In my experience, schemata are not used very often in SQL Server. It's a way to organize your database objects into containers, but unless you have a huge amount of database objects, it's probably something you won't really use much.
`dbo` *is* a schema.
2,084,021
what is the difference between creating ordinary tables using 'dbo' and creating tables using schemas.How this schema works & supports the tables
2010/01/18
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2084021", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/219876/" ]
A schema is just a container for DB objects - tables, views etc. It allows you to structure a very large database solution you might have. As a sample, have a look at the newer AdventureWorks sample databases - they have a number of schemata included, like "HumanResources" and so forth. A schema can be a security boundary, e.g. you can give or deny certain users access to a schema as a whole. A schema can also be used to keep tables with the same name apart, e.g. you could create a "user schema" for each user of your application, and have a "Settings" table in each of them, holding that user's settings, e.g. "Bob.Settings", "Mary.Settings" etc. In my experience, schemata are not used very often in SQL Server. It's a way to organize your database objects into containers, but unless you have a huge amount of database objects, it's probably something you won't really use much.
See if [this](http://www.sqlteam.com/article/understanding-the-difference-between-owners-and-schemas-in-sql-server) helps. Schema seems to be a way of categorizing objects (tables/stored procs/views etc). Think of it as a bucket to organize related objects based on functionality. I am not sure, how logged in SQL user is tied to a specific schema though.
28,991,562
Looking to add a span tag around every word in the block title. I need to have the last two words in my title be a larger font, and also a different color.
2015/03/11
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/28991562", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/3308716/" ]
You should consider using Hibernate Search for your requirement. You can use [This link](http://hibernate.org/search/documentation/getting-started/) to get started. As you are using tables for your application, you will have lot of facilities like ORM and also Full Text Search through this module. If you want to use Apache Solr, you may have to make necessary code to sync data from your database to Apache Solr Synchronization. Hope, this may help you Thanks
I think you can use Solr in your case and you will get the data faster and accurate. About the latest...there would be some lag there... as data needs to added/updated in solr index. I have used Solr in my application...(I have used DataImportHandler) I am updating the Solr index after 20 mins... that means there is 20 mins lag for the latest update in the database. But users are fine with it as its faster than Oracle search ...:) Its been three years... its working fine and there is no issue with it.
5,616,490
I created some graphic layouts by photoshop and made it the background for my website. But I am clueless as to how I can put html elements in the right place. The problem is, the positions of html elements change by the size of the browser. How can I solve this problem? Any clues? Thanks in advance!
2011/04/11
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5616490", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/673656/" ]
[You need to learn CSS](http://sixrevisions.com/css/20_websites_learn_master_css/). * Be patient. * Be persistent. * Learn what IE versions baulk at what.
You must know how to use CSS specially the html elements positioning. * [Positioning HTML Elements with Cascading Style Sheets](http://www.w3.org/TR/WD-positioning-970131) * [Positioning schemes](http://www.w3.org/TR/CSS2/visuren.html#positioning-scheme) Also be careful with different browser because the display result may differ for every browser.
5,616,490
I created some graphic layouts by photoshop and made it the background for my website. But I am clueless as to how I can put html elements in the right place. The problem is, the positions of html elements change by the size of the browser. How can I solve this problem? Any clues? Thanks in advance!
2011/04/11
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5616490", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/673656/" ]
[You need to learn CSS](http://sixrevisions.com/css/20_websites_learn_master_css/). * Be patient. * Be persistent. * Learn what IE versions baulk at what.
start here: <http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=GwQMnpUsj8I> Once you understand the basics, check out grid systems like this: <http://960.gs/>
339
What should the separator be? * System > Preferences > Keyboard > Layouts > Apply System-Wide * System → Preferences → Keyboard → Layouts → Apply System-Wide * System --> Preferences --> Keyboard --> Layouts --> Apply System-Wide * System | Preferences | Keyboard | Layouts | Apply System-Wide * System/Preferences/Keyboard/Layouts/Apply System-Wide Should they be italicized, or quoted? * Click Edit → Profile Preferences and then uncheck Terminal bell. * Click *Edit → Profile Preferences* and then uncheck *Terminal bell*. * Click "Edit" → "Profile Preferences" and then uncheck "Terminal bell". What precedents are there in the Ubuntu and StackExchange communities?
2010/09/20
[ "https://meta.askubuntu.com/questions/339", "https://meta.askubuntu.com", "https://meta.askubuntu.com/users/1859/" ]
Voting should be encouraged but voting *for the sake of voting* should be dissuaded. ### Voting on answers is pretty self explanatory It's easy to notice a good answer amongst less-good answers even if it's competing with your own answer. I know it's very easy for the person with the most points on the site to say "be honest with your votes" but I mean it. We're all here for the same reason: to help people. Not voting the best answers up stops the site working like it's supposed to and that hurts its whole efficiency. ### But what makes a good question? * Is it something that affects us? * Something we think may affect lots of other users? * Something that doesn't have enough attention? * Something you don't understand (for technical, not semantic reasons)? * Something you can answer? I personally vote for the first four. I don't think the fifth is enough *on its own* especially if it's done for the reason of getting the question asker over the points threshold so they can give your answer a +1. Ultimately this isn't something we can enforce. People will do what they want, when they want. But yes, including something in the FAQ might get people to vote more freely.
Yes - voting is a very **very** important act on this site. It's what drives the content - and it needs to be stressed - especially as the majority of this communities user base comes from outside the existent StackExchange community. The system of this style isn't one that's frequently used (Think of it as most users here are coming from the blog/IRC/Forum world). Voting on great questions and even greater answers helps to drive the quality content that we strive for on this site. Almost equally as important is the downvote power which contributes to what is good and what is considered not good by this community - a community which should round out as Experts in the field of Ubuntu. In addition to voting - the community here needs to start taking user moderation (that is the powers given to user for closing, editing, reopening, etc) a lot more seriously. It's hard to just type a great question or a great answer at first shot. But having feedback from users and having users directly edit questions and answers to contribute and even better answer or question further helps establish ourselves as a community of experts providing phenomenal answers to compelling questions.
339
What should the separator be? * System > Preferences > Keyboard > Layouts > Apply System-Wide * System → Preferences → Keyboard → Layouts → Apply System-Wide * System --> Preferences --> Keyboard --> Layouts --> Apply System-Wide * System | Preferences | Keyboard | Layouts | Apply System-Wide * System/Preferences/Keyboard/Layouts/Apply System-Wide Should they be italicized, or quoted? * Click Edit → Profile Preferences and then uncheck Terminal bell. * Click *Edit → Profile Preferences* and then uncheck *Terminal bell*. * Click "Edit" → "Profile Preferences" and then uncheck "Terminal bell". What precedents are there in the Ubuntu and StackExchange communities?
2010/09/20
[ "https://meta.askubuntu.com/questions/339", "https://meta.askubuntu.com", "https://meta.askubuntu.com/users/1859/" ]
Yes - voting is a very **very** important act on this site. It's what drives the content - and it needs to be stressed - especially as the majority of this communities user base comes from outside the existent StackExchange community. The system of this style isn't one that's frequently used (Think of it as most users here are coming from the blog/IRC/Forum world). Voting on great questions and even greater answers helps to drive the quality content that we strive for on this site. Almost equally as important is the downvote power which contributes to what is good and what is considered not good by this community - a community which should round out as Experts in the field of Ubuntu. In addition to voting - the community here needs to start taking user moderation (that is the powers given to user for closing, editing, reopening, etc) a lot more seriously. It's hard to just type a great question or a great answer at first shot. But having feedback from users and having users directly edit questions and answers to contribute and even better answer or question further helps establish ourselves as a community of experts providing phenomenal answers to compelling questions.
Yes. IMHO, even if one is not personally interested in a particular question (if he is, he will usually not only vote, but also star it), he should vote it if he finds it interesting and/or probable to be practically useful. I think for each n votes one should to be given a reputation gain. The only issue here is to resist reputation-increasing mass voting robots in this case, but I think it is not a hard problem. Also I think voting button should be available on questions listing pages, so one can vote without browsing to question details.
339
What should the separator be? * System > Preferences > Keyboard > Layouts > Apply System-Wide * System → Preferences → Keyboard → Layouts → Apply System-Wide * System --> Preferences --> Keyboard --> Layouts --> Apply System-Wide * System | Preferences | Keyboard | Layouts | Apply System-Wide * System/Preferences/Keyboard/Layouts/Apply System-Wide Should they be italicized, or quoted? * Click Edit → Profile Preferences and then uncheck Terminal bell. * Click *Edit → Profile Preferences* and then uncheck *Terminal bell*. * Click "Edit" → "Profile Preferences" and then uncheck "Terminal bell". What precedents are there in the Ubuntu and StackExchange communities?
2010/09/20
[ "https://meta.askubuntu.com/questions/339", "https://meta.askubuntu.com", "https://meta.askubuntu.com/users/1859/" ]
Voting should be encouraged but voting *for the sake of voting* should be dissuaded. ### Voting on answers is pretty self explanatory It's easy to notice a good answer amongst less-good answers even if it's competing with your own answer. I know it's very easy for the person with the most points on the site to say "be honest with your votes" but I mean it. We're all here for the same reason: to help people. Not voting the best answers up stops the site working like it's supposed to and that hurts its whole efficiency. ### But what makes a good question? * Is it something that affects us? * Something we think may affect lots of other users? * Something that doesn't have enough attention? * Something you don't understand (for technical, not semantic reasons)? * Something you can answer? I personally vote for the first four. I don't think the fifth is enough *on its own* especially if it's done for the reason of getting the question asker over the points threshold so they can give your answer a +1. Ultimately this isn't something we can enforce. People will do what they want, when they want. But yes, including something in the FAQ might get people to vote more freely.
Yes. IMHO, even if one is not personally interested in a particular question (if he is, he will usually not only vote, but also star it), he should vote it if he finds it interesting and/or probable to be practically useful. I think for each n votes one should to be given a reputation gain. The only issue here is to resist reputation-increasing mass voting robots in this case, but I think it is not a hard problem. Also I think voting button should be available on questions listing pages, so one can vote without browsing to question details.
169,680
I am installing a simple IKEA ceiling light fixture. The new light fixture has a neutral wire, a live wire, and a ground wire. My current old light fixture has 4 wires: white, red, dark blue or black, and copper wire. And here is how it is connected: The white from ceiling to the white in an old fixture. The black from old fixture to both the red and black/blue ( 3 cables in a cap). The ground from the ceiling is just hanging. How should I connect the wires? Please see the attached picture of the current situation. I also included instructions of the new fixture. [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/tbBe5.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/tbBe5.jpg) [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/NDOED.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/NDOED.jpg)
2019/07/22
[ "https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/169680", "https://diy.stackexchange.com", "https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/104190/" ]
Do you have a double switch on the wall? The red and black wires in a three core at a light fitting are usually intended to be separate feeds for a fan plus lighting fixture. If you look behind the switch you may find the red and black commoned together there too, if a double switch wasn't fitted. Usually the unused one is just capped off at the light fitting with a wire nut, but it doesn't matter if the two are paralleled. For the new fixture, white connects to the neutral (ribbed wire), black+red stay commoned and go to the other wire, and the yellow/green to the bare wire.
The yellow plate in the ceiling and the wiring leads me to believe a ceiling fan was originally there. The black wire would usually be the live wire, the white wire would usually be the neutral and the copper wire would usually be the ground. The red wire would usually be a live wire controlled by a switch. You should verify the that the color coding of the wires is correct with a voltage tester and also find out where the red wire originates, check some of the switches in the room. Since the old fixture worked you can just hook your new neutral to the white wire, the new live wire to the black/red group and the ground to the bare copper wire and the fixture should work like the old one did.
169,680
I am installing a simple IKEA ceiling light fixture. The new light fixture has a neutral wire, a live wire, and a ground wire. My current old light fixture has 4 wires: white, red, dark blue or black, and copper wire. And here is how it is connected: The white from ceiling to the white in an old fixture. The black from old fixture to both the red and black/blue ( 3 cables in a cap). The ground from the ceiling is just hanging. How should I connect the wires? Please see the attached picture of the current situation. I also included instructions of the new fixture. [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/tbBe5.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/tbBe5.jpg) [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/NDOED.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/NDOED.jpg)
2019/07/22
[ "https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/169680", "https://diy.stackexchange.com", "https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/104190/" ]
What not to do -------------- We get people who find 4-12 non-ground wires they don't understand, and so they *take them all apart*. I call this "trying to learn electrical by disassembling your house". Every wire is now separated and splayed all over the box, and they ask "how does this hook up?" And we tell them Wire it *exactly* the way you found it -------------------------------------- And you can (unlike some people). We don't need to worry about ground, so for purposes of *getting the wiring right*, we can totally ignore ground. Grounds are always and only bare, green, or yellow with green stripe. So ignore those; we'll come back to them later. It's obvious which wire from the ceiling is neutral. Neutrals are supposed to be color-coded white or gray, and there's only one wire that could even possibly be. So neutral is identified; hook lamp neutral to it. Done. **What remains?** Hot. Hots are *usually* every other color not mentioned. We find 1 wire from the lamp which is obviously hot, and two wires from the ceiling that, they seem like hots and nothing contradicts that. What is up with that- **we really don't care, the point is, that is how we found it, so we hook it up that way** unless it's an obvious code violation (and it's not). So your new lamp hot goes to those 2 black/red wires. I really don't care why. Now, let's revisit grounds. Hook all the grounds together. In fact, it's best to do this *first* and push the grounds into the back of the box; however I just did this sequence because it's easier to describe. So what is up with those two hot wires? --------------------------------------- Until the lamp is installed and working, I don't care because the first rule is **wire it the way you found it**. Now that it's wired, working and tested, we can think about that. Often, black+red is used to provide separate control either for a light and fan, or for separate groups of lights (e.g. hi/lo, or groups in a chandelier). Typically you find two switches on the wall in this type of installation. If you have 2 switches and the light is on unless both are off, that's what's going on here. In that case, you should revisit this installation and remove one of the wires from the wire-nut and cap it off (it will be hot so it must be insulated). Don't cut short or otherwise destroy the wire, because the next person might want that feature. If the switch which now controls the light isn't the one you want it to be, exchange hot wires at the light. I do not recommend attempting to do both things in one action. Hook up the new lamp exactly as-was, then test and confirm it's working as expected, *then* modify the circuit.
Do you have a double switch on the wall? The red and black wires in a three core at a light fitting are usually intended to be separate feeds for a fan plus lighting fixture. If you look behind the switch you may find the red and black commoned together there too, if a double switch wasn't fitted. Usually the unused one is just capped off at the light fitting with a wire nut, but it doesn't matter if the two are paralleled. For the new fixture, white connects to the neutral (ribbed wire), black+red stay commoned and go to the other wire, and the yellow/green to the bare wire.
169,680
I am installing a simple IKEA ceiling light fixture. The new light fixture has a neutral wire, a live wire, and a ground wire. My current old light fixture has 4 wires: white, red, dark blue or black, and copper wire. And here is how it is connected: The white from ceiling to the white in an old fixture. The black from old fixture to both the red and black/blue ( 3 cables in a cap). The ground from the ceiling is just hanging. How should I connect the wires? Please see the attached picture of the current situation. I also included instructions of the new fixture. [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/tbBe5.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/tbBe5.jpg) [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/NDOED.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/NDOED.jpg)
2019/07/22
[ "https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/169680", "https://diy.stackexchange.com", "https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/104190/" ]
What not to do -------------- We get people who find 4-12 non-ground wires they don't understand, and so they *take them all apart*. I call this "trying to learn electrical by disassembling your house". Every wire is now separated and splayed all over the box, and they ask "how does this hook up?" And we tell them Wire it *exactly* the way you found it -------------------------------------- And you can (unlike some people). We don't need to worry about ground, so for purposes of *getting the wiring right*, we can totally ignore ground. Grounds are always and only bare, green, or yellow with green stripe. So ignore those; we'll come back to them later. It's obvious which wire from the ceiling is neutral. Neutrals are supposed to be color-coded white or gray, and there's only one wire that could even possibly be. So neutral is identified; hook lamp neutral to it. Done. **What remains?** Hot. Hots are *usually* every other color not mentioned. We find 1 wire from the lamp which is obviously hot, and two wires from the ceiling that, they seem like hots and nothing contradicts that. What is up with that- **we really don't care, the point is, that is how we found it, so we hook it up that way** unless it's an obvious code violation (and it's not). So your new lamp hot goes to those 2 black/red wires. I really don't care why. Now, let's revisit grounds. Hook all the grounds together. In fact, it's best to do this *first* and push the grounds into the back of the box; however I just did this sequence because it's easier to describe. So what is up with those two hot wires? --------------------------------------- Until the lamp is installed and working, I don't care because the first rule is **wire it the way you found it**. Now that it's wired, working and tested, we can think about that. Often, black+red is used to provide separate control either for a light and fan, or for separate groups of lights (e.g. hi/lo, or groups in a chandelier). Typically you find two switches on the wall in this type of installation. If you have 2 switches and the light is on unless both are off, that's what's going on here. In that case, you should revisit this installation and remove one of the wires from the wire-nut and cap it off (it will be hot so it must be insulated). Don't cut short or otherwise destroy the wire, because the next person might want that feature. If the switch which now controls the light isn't the one you want it to be, exchange hot wires at the light. I do not recommend attempting to do both things in one action. Hook up the new lamp exactly as-was, then test and confirm it's working as expected, *then* modify the circuit.
The yellow plate in the ceiling and the wiring leads me to believe a ceiling fan was originally there. The black wire would usually be the live wire, the white wire would usually be the neutral and the copper wire would usually be the ground. The red wire would usually be a live wire controlled by a switch. You should verify the that the color coding of the wires is correct with a voltage tester and also find out where the red wire originates, check some of the switches in the room. Since the old fixture worked you can just hook your new neutral to the white wire, the new live wire to the black/red group and the ground to the bare copper wire and the fixture should work like the old one did.
109,559
![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/UsmuI.jpg) I have tried unscrewing the top four screws and the bottoms four. I have no ideas left on how to take the glass off eithlut basically completely disassembling the fan.
2017/03/02
[ "https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/109559", "https://diy.stackexchange.com", "https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/66977/" ]
You are correct in that no sane manufacturer would build something that would require disassembly of the fan to change the light bulbs. This looks like a split glass assembly, you might have a locking ring above the fan blades, if it is a locking ring type unscrew the locking ring and it would drop down and allow you to slide one glass side out in order to change the bulbs. You might have to remove the blades to do this - but I can not be sure. Since you do not list the make and model it is difficult to give more specifics.
Try finding the fan's model number on the housing. Look up the model information from the manufacturer's website. This may be a sealed LED light housing. Personally, I do not like sealed LED lights for ANYTHING. They NEVER last as long as they claim. Ok, enough ranting - if it is a sealed LED light fixture your only options are to get another LED light kit from the manufacturer or install an entire new fan/light combo. Another reason NOT to purchase any fixtures (fan or otherwise) with sealed LEDs. Always purchase fixtures with bulbs - if you prefer LED then purchase the bulb and screw in. :)
18,900
I've been trying to find out more about some of my Irish ancestors. My 3rd great-grandparents **John Joseph McEvoy** and **Mary Murray** were living in Liverpool, England in the mid-1840s, but both were originally from Ireland. I have not been able to learn anything about their lives or the lives of their parents prior to John and Mary's marriage in Liverpool in 1840. According to their [marriage record](https://www.ancestry.com/discoveryui-content/view/1472470:2182) (below) at the St. Anthony's Parish in Liverpool, John's parents were named **Charles and Bridget McEvoy** (I think Bridget's maiden name was Hughes), and Mary's parents were **John and Honora Murray**. (At least I think it says Honora? That's also what Ancestry transcription thinks it says...) [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/W7UJ5.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/W7UJ5.jpg) Where in Ireland are the McEvoys and Murrays from? So far, my research hasn't yielded much on this question. My understanding is there are no Irish birth records before 1864, but I've not found any baptism records for John or Mary or their parents. (I've looked on Ancestry, Familysearch, RootsIreland.ie, and FindMyPast but didn't find anything.) I also understand that there were no passenger lists for Irish ships going to and from England. So I fear I won't be able to find this information, but though I'd check in case anyone has any thoughts. Below are some facts that I *do* know about these McEvoys. (Sorry if I'm including too much detail, but I figure the more I can put out there the better): * John McEvoy and Mary Murray had a son named **John Joseph McEvoy** (my 2GGF), who was born in Liverpool on Feb. 1, 1844, and baptized in Liverpool on Feb. 4 of that year (sources [here](https://www.ancestry.com/discoveryui-content/view/45273821:9841) and [here](https://www.ancestry.com/imageviewer/collections/2180/images/engl-56170_282-ant-1-4_m_00090)). Unlike John Sr. & Mary and their parents, I have lots of information about him * According to letters John wrote to the U.S. War Department while trying to collect his military pension, his mother Mary died in Liverpool, and then he and his father immigrated to the United States some time between 1853 and 1855 * There is a record [here](https://www.ancestry.com/discoveryui-content/view/746665:2183) for a Mary McEvoy who died in 1851 from St. Anthony's in Liverpool * John Sr. died in 1857, very shortly after he and John Jr. came over to America. He is buried at Calvary Cemetery in Queens, New York * It appears John Sr. and Mary also had a daughter named **Rebecca McEvoy** (per St. Anthony's baptism [here](https://www.ancestry.com/discoveryui-content/view/774928:2180), which lists Charles and Bridget McEvoy as godparents). I believe Rebecca died around the same time as her mother Mary * According to John and Mary's [marriage record](https://www.ancestry.com/discoveryui-content/view/1472470:2182) (the screenshot above), John was living at 2 Sawney Pope Road at the time of the 1940 marriage, and Mary was living at 84 Scotland Road (presumably both in Liverpool) * There are some UK City and County Directories that list three different John Murrays living in Liverpool (none on Scotland Road, but some close to it) in 1843, with three different professions (one a customs officer, two who are tailors), but I don't know if that's the right John Murray * To make matters even more confusing, there are sources out there that indicate a John McEvoy and Mary Murray married, came to the United States, and settled in the Herkimer, New York area. But I think this is a *different* John and Mary * In case it's useful, [here](https://www.ancestry.com/family-tree/person/tree/182000118/person/322368309250/facts) is a link to John Joseph McEvoy in my family tree on Ancestry; from there you can click to get to either of his parents as well.
2022/10/23
[ "https://genealogy.stackexchange.com/questions/18900", "https://genealogy.stackexchange.com", "https://genealogy.stackexchange.com/users/15108/" ]
I can confirm that there are no passenger lists for travel between England & Ireland. It was a short domestic journey and no records have ever been kept for that sort of travel. Check the 1851 English census for the family in case they indicated where they came from in Ireland. Often it will just say Ireland but sometimes a more specific place is given. If John & Mary married in 1840, then they were presumably born c 1820 or even earlier. I assume they were Roman Catholic. A difficult problem you face is that many RC parishes in Ireland don’t have baptism records for the early 1800s. This makes finding their roots pretty challenging. Death registration didn’t start till 1864, and few RC parishes kept burial records so a search for their parents may not reveal anything either. No easy way round that. I agree that Mary’s mother’s name looks to be Honora. That was a common name for the time. Friends and family would have called her Nora. You can use this site to see where both Murray & McEvoy were found in Ireland in the mid 1800s. <https://www.johngrenham.com/surnames/> Unfortunately both are very common names found all over most of Ireland so it’s not much help in this particular case. DNA testing might throw up a link to someone who knows more about the families origins.
You've alredy made a good start by gathering records in Liverpool and in the US. Extend your research and be on the lookout for more extended family members, associates and neighbors. This approach is called "cluster research" and more recently, Elizabeth Shown Mills refers to it as the FAN Principle or "FAN CLub Research". Some guides for studying clusters of people include: * Marsha Hoffman Rising's book [The Family Tree Problem Solver](https://www.penguinrandomhouse.com/books/631070/the-family-tree-problem-solver-by-marsha-hoffman-rising/), available in paper or as an ebook. The book is US-centric but the strategies can be applied to any locality. * Elizabeth Shown Mills: [Researching Elusive People](https://www.evidenceexplained.com/quicktips/researching-elusive-people) a short blog post from her *Evidence Explained* website * Elizabeth Shown Mills: [Quicklesson 11: Identity Problems and the FAN Principle](https://Quicklesson%2011:%20Identity%20Problems%20and%20the%20FAN%20Principle) on her *Evidence Explained* website * Webinar (available as a paid download or by subscription: [Complex Evidence – What is It? How Does it Work? And Why Does it Matter?](https://familytreewebinars.com/webinar/complex-evidence-what-is-it-how-does-it-work-and-why-does-it-matter/) by Warren Bittner (examples from Germanic genealogy research in Germany and the USA) You may not be able to find the information about the county of origin in records about John or Mary. There may be clues in the records of siblings, children, grandchildren, or in the records of other collateral lines. Look at historical newspapers, naturalization records, passenger lists, passport applications, and other records from family members to see what information is contained in the records. If you haven't already, do a deep-dive into all of the records you have gathered so far. Do you know how the records were created, and for what purpose? Have you looked at just the entries for your people, or have you examined the whole page, or surrounding pages in the record set? Look for research guides online and in libraries near you, such as: * [GenGuide](https://www.genguide.co.uk/) UK and Irish Genealogy * [Tracing Your Irish Ancestors](https://genealogical.com/store/tracing-your-irish-ancestors-2/) by John Grenham * [Tracing Your Irish Family History on the Internet](https://www.pen-and-sword.co.uk/Tracing-Your-Irish-Family-History-on-the-Internet-Paperback/p/16483) by Chris Paton * Video podcast: [Tracing your Irish ancestors at The National Archives](https://media.nationalarchives.gov.uk/index.php/tracing-your-irish-ancestors-at-the-national-archives/) by Audrey Collins (TNA at Kew, England) * [Help with your research: Research Guides](https://www.nationalarchives.gov.uk/help-with-your-research/research-guides/) at TNA Discovery (England) for articles on immigration and emigration Take a step back from the individual records, and study the context for all the records you have. Do you know what was happening in history at the time the records were created? Have you listed your sources in the order of record creation? Have you make a timeline of events to look for gaps? Have you to looked for other individuals born in Ireland who lived in Liverpool or in the communities in the USA where your people lived? Have you searched for local histories? Check PERSI, JSTOR, Google Scholar and sites like Academia.edu (warning: be prepared to filter out nagging emails) for published scholarship, and check Iinternet Archive for local histories. Check Histpop.org and Google Books for published reoprots about the census, etc. Look for diaries and other materials from the community via ArchiveGrid and similar sites. Looking at published works by other scholars and genealogists can show you techniques and search strategies to try, new sources to explore, point you to record sets you haven't considered yet. If you're working online, bear in mind that the 'big box' websites emphasize record sets like the census and BMD or church records because those record sets are likely to have information about more people, so customers/library patrons will be more likely to find something rather than nothing. But other record sets may be richer in information, such as wills, land records (if you can get them). Studying house history can be sometimes be useful in disambiguating same-name individuals in the community. Use all the identifiers that you can find, and be creative in your searching and research. Looking at the bigger picture helps you spot clues in records that you might have missed earlier, because you didn't understand the significance. As you review your prior research and look at new records, it helps to start with the most recent records and to work back slowly (think INCHWORM rather than LEAPFROG). **Resources:** * Irish Genealogy Toolkit: [Finding the townland of origin](https://www.irish-genealogy-toolkit.com/townland-of-origin.html) * Irish Geneaography: [Townlands](https://www.irish-geneaography.com/townlands.html) * FamilySearch Wiki:[Tracing Immigrants Search Strategies](https://www.familysearch.org/en/wiki/Tracing_Immigrants_Search_Strategies) * FamilySearch Wiki: [Ireland Record Finder](https://www.familysearch.org/en/wiki/Ireland_Record_Finder) * Genealogy Bank Blog: [Irish American Passenger Lists in Old Newspapers](https://blog.genealogybank.com/irish-american-passenger-lists-in-old-newspapers.html) * Genealogy Bank Blog: [Trace Your Immigrant Ancestors with Newspaper Passenger Lists](https://blog.genealogybank.com/trace-your-immigrant-ancestors-with-newspaper-passenger-lists.html) * Genealogy Bank learning center PDF Download: [Irish Passenger Lists Published in US Newspapers](https://www.genealogybank.com/static/downloads/Irish_Passenger_Lists.pdf) * PDF download: [Separating Men of the Same Name](https://www.dallasgenealogy.com/DGS_Docs/Hatcher/04_Separating-Men_of_the_Same_Name.pdf) by Patricia Law Hatcher, CG * [Same Name Genealogy Brick Wall Research Methodology Explained](https://www.familyhistoryfanatics.com/same-name-genealogy-methodology) by Devon Noel Lee at Family History Fanatics **More from Genealogy Stack Exchange:** * [Determining what records are available about an individual?](https://genealogy.stackexchange.com/q/12524/1006) * [Determining what records are available for a particular locale?](https://genealogy.stackexchange.com/q/3625/1006)
18,900
I've been trying to find out more about some of my Irish ancestors. My 3rd great-grandparents **John Joseph McEvoy** and **Mary Murray** were living in Liverpool, England in the mid-1840s, but both were originally from Ireland. I have not been able to learn anything about their lives or the lives of their parents prior to John and Mary's marriage in Liverpool in 1840. According to their [marriage record](https://www.ancestry.com/discoveryui-content/view/1472470:2182) (below) at the St. Anthony's Parish in Liverpool, John's parents were named **Charles and Bridget McEvoy** (I think Bridget's maiden name was Hughes), and Mary's parents were **John and Honora Murray**. (At least I think it says Honora? That's also what Ancestry transcription thinks it says...) [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/W7UJ5.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/W7UJ5.jpg) Where in Ireland are the McEvoys and Murrays from? So far, my research hasn't yielded much on this question. My understanding is there are no Irish birth records before 1864, but I've not found any baptism records for John or Mary or their parents. (I've looked on Ancestry, Familysearch, RootsIreland.ie, and FindMyPast but didn't find anything.) I also understand that there were no passenger lists for Irish ships going to and from England. So I fear I won't be able to find this information, but though I'd check in case anyone has any thoughts. Below are some facts that I *do* know about these McEvoys. (Sorry if I'm including too much detail, but I figure the more I can put out there the better): * John McEvoy and Mary Murray had a son named **John Joseph McEvoy** (my 2GGF), who was born in Liverpool on Feb. 1, 1844, and baptized in Liverpool on Feb. 4 of that year (sources [here](https://www.ancestry.com/discoveryui-content/view/45273821:9841) and [here](https://www.ancestry.com/imageviewer/collections/2180/images/engl-56170_282-ant-1-4_m_00090)). Unlike John Sr. & Mary and their parents, I have lots of information about him * According to letters John wrote to the U.S. War Department while trying to collect his military pension, his mother Mary died in Liverpool, and then he and his father immigrated to the United States some time between 1853 and 1855 * There is a record [here](https://www.ancestry.com/discoveryui-content/view/746665:2183) for a Mary McEvoy who died in 1851 from St. Anthony's in Liverpool * John Sr. died in 1857, very shortly after he and John Jr. came over to America. He is buried at Calvary Cemetery in Queens, New York * It appears John Sr. and Mary also had a daughter named **Rebecca McEvoy** (per St. Anthony's baptism [here](https://www.ancestry.com/discoveryui-content/view/774928:2180), which lists Charles and Bridget McEvoy as godparents). I believe Rebecca died around the same time as her mother Mary * According to John and Mary's [marriage record](https://www.ancestry.com/discoveryui-content/view/1472470:2182) (the screenshot above), John was living at 2 Sawney Pope Road at the time of the 1940 marriage, and Mary was living at 84 Scotland Road (presumably both in Liverpool) * There are some UK City and County Directories that list three different John Murrays living in Liverpool (none on Scotland Road, but some close to it) in 1843, with three different professions (one a customs officer, two who are tailors), but I don't know if that's the right John Murray * To make matters even more confusing, there are sources out there that indicate a John McEvoy and Mary Murray married, came to the United States, and settled in the Herkimer, New York area. But I think this is a *different* John and Mary * In case it's useful, [here](https://www.ancestry.com/family-tree/person/tree/182000118/person/322368309250/facts) is a link to John Joseph McEvoy in my family tree on Ancestry; from there you can click to get to either of his parents as well.
2022/10/23
[ "https://genealogy.stackexchange.com/questions/18900", "https://genealogy.stackexchange.com", "https://genealogy.stackexchange.com/users/15108/" ]
I can confirm that there are no passenger lists for travel between England & Ireland. It was a short domestic journey and no records have ever been kept for that sort of travel. Check the 1851 English census for the family in case they indicated where they came from in Ireland. Often it will just say Ireland but sometimes a more specific place is given. If John & Mary married in 1840, then they were presumably born c 1820 or even earlier. I assume they were Roman Catholic. A difficult problem you face is that many RC parishes in Ireland don’t have baptism records for the early 1800s. This makes finding their roots pretty challenging. Death registration didn’t start till 1864, and few RC parishes kept burial records so a search for their parents may not reveal anything either. No easy way round that. I agree that Mary’s mother’s name looks to be Honora. That was a common name for the time. Friends and family would have called her Nora. You can use this site to see where both Murray & McEvoy were found in Ireland in the mid 1800s. <https://www.johngrenham.com/surnames/> Unfortunately both are very common names found all over most of Ireland so it’s not much help in this particular case. DNA testing might throw up a link to someone who knows more about the families origins.
A possible sister to your groom - marriage of a James Murphy and Catherine McEvoy same Church in Liverpool (St. Anthony's RC) 19th January 1843, looks like the same address.. [![Murphy/McEvoy marriage](https://i.stack.imgur.com/TkIyS.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/TkIyS.jpg) Unfortunately the priest only filled in father's name in the 'parents' column.. witnesses appear to be James Williams and Isobelle[?] Duggan Might be worth searching for this couple on the 1841 census and also the later returns after the marriage to see if they stayed in England and if Catherine ever gave a county of birth p.s. I think the McEvoy residence on both marriage may be Sawney Pope Street
18,900
I've been trying to find out more about some of my Irish ancestors. My 3rd great-grandparents **John Joseph McEvoy** and **Mary Murray** were living in Liverpool, England in the mid-1840s, but both were originally from Ireland. I have not been able to learn anything about their lives or the lives of their parents prior to John and Mary's marriage in Liverpool in 1840. According to their [marriage record](https://www.ancestry.com/discoveryui-content/view/1472470:2182) (below) at the St. Anthony's Parish in Liverpool, John's parents were named **Charles and Bridget McEvoy** (I think Bridget's maiden name was Hughes), and Mary's parents were **John and Honora Murray**. (At least I think it says Honora? That's also what Ancestry transcription thinks it says...) [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/W7UJ5.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/W7UJ5.jpg) Where in Ireland are the McEvoys and Murrays from? So far, my research hasn't yielded much on this question. My understanding is there are no Irish birth records before 1864, but I've not found any baptism records for John or Mary or their parents. (I've looked on Ancestry, Familysearch, RootsIreland.ie, and FindMyPast but didn't find anything.) I also understand that there were no passenger lists for Irish ships going to and from England. So I fear I won't be able to find this information, but though I'd check in case anyone has any thoughts. Below are some facts that I *do* know about these McEvoys. (Sorry if I'm including too much detail, but I figure the more I can put out there the better): * John McEvoy and Mary Murray had a son named **John Joseph McEvoy** (my 2GGF), who was born in Liverpool on Feb. 1, 1844, and baptized in Liverpool on Feb. 4 of that year (sources [here](https://www.ancestry.com/discoveryui-content/view/45273821:9841) and [here](https://www.ancestry.com/imageviewer/collections/2180/images/engl-56170_282-ant-1-4_m_00090)). Unlike John Sr. & Mary and their parents, I have lots of information about him * According to letters John wrote to the U.S. War Department while trying to collect his military pension, his mother Mary died in Liverpool, and then he and his father immigrated to the United States some time between 1853 and 1855 * There is a record [here](https://www.ancestry.com/discoveryui-content/view/746665:2183) for a Mary McEvoy who died in 1851 from St. Anthony's in Liverpool * John Sr. died in 1857, very shortly after he and John Jr. came over to America. He is buried at Calvary Cemetery in Queens, New York * It appears John Sr. and Mary also had a daughter named **Rebecca McEvoy** (per St. Anthony's baptism [here](https://www.ancestry.com/discoveryui-content/view/774928:2180), which lists Charles and Bridget McEvoy as godparents). I believe Rebecca died around the same time as her mother Mary * According to John and Mary's [marriage record](https://www.ancestry.com/discoveryui-content/view/1472470:2182) (the screenshot above), John was living at 2 Sawney Pope Road at the time of the 1940 marriage, and Mary was living at 84 Scotland Road (presumably both in Liverpool) * There are some UK City and County Directories that list three different John Murrays living in Liverpool (none on Scotland Road, but some close to it) in 1843, with three different professions (one a customs officer, two who are tailors), but I don't know if that's the right John Murray * To make matters even more confusing, there are sources out there that indicate a John McEvoy and Mary Murray married, came to the United States, and settled in the Herkimer, New York area. But I think this is a *different* John and Mary * In case it's useful, [here](https://www.ancestry.com/family-tree/person/tree/182000118/person/322368309250/facts) is a link to John Joseph McEvoy in my family tree on Ancestry; from there you can click to get to either of his parents as well.
2022/10/23
[ "https://genealogy.stackexchange.com/questions/18900", "https://genealogy.stackexchange.com", "https://genealogy.stackexchange.com/users/15108/" ]
I can confirm that there are no passenger lists for travel between England & Ireland. It was a short domestic journey and no records have ever been kept for that sort of travel. Check the 1851 English census for the family in case they indicated where they came from in Ireland. Often it will just say Ireland but sometimes a more specific place is given. If John & Mary married in 1840, then they were presumably born c 1820 or even earlier. I assume they were Roman Catholic. A difficult problem you face is that many RC parishes in Ireland don’t have baptism records for the early 1800s. This makes finding their roots pretty challenging. Death registration didn’t start till 1864, and few RC parishes kept burial records so a search for their parents may not reveal anything either. No easy way round that. I agree that Mary’s mother’s name looks to be Honora. That was a common name for the time. Friends and family would have called her Nora. You can use this site to see where both Murray & McEvoy were found in Ireland in the mid 1800s. <https://www.johngrenham.com/surnames/> Unfortunately both are very common names found all over most of Ireland so it’s not much help in this particular case. DNA testing might throw up a link to someone who knows more about the families origins.
Interesting question - and i have exactly the same issue, tracing Irish ancestors who went via Liverpool in the 1800s. One possible clue that you may have already considered is that they often are recorded in the Liverpool registers under Latin names, so "John" is buried as "Johannes", etc.
18,900
I've been trying to find out more about some of my Irish ancestors. My 3rd great-grandparents **John Joseph McEvoy** and **Mary Murray** were living in Liverpool, England in the mid-1840s, but both were originally from Ireland. I have not been able to learn anything about their lives or the lives of their parents prior to John and Mary's marriage in Liverpool in 1840. According to their [marriage record](https://www.ancestry.com/discoveryui-content/view/1472470:2182) (below) at the St. Anthony's Parish in Liverpool, John's parents were named **Charles and Bridget McEvoy** (I think Bridget's maiden name was Hughes), and Mary's parents were **John and Honora Murray**. (At least I think it says Honora? That's also what Ancestry transcription thinks it says...) [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/W7UJ5.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/W7UJ5.jpg) Where in Ireland are the McEvoys and Murrays from? So far, my research hasn't yielded much on this question. My understanding is there are no Irish birth records before 1864, but I've not found any baptism records for John or Mary or their parents. (I've looked on Ancestry, Familysearch, RootsIreland.ie, and FindMyPast but didn't find anything.) I also understand that there were no passenger lists for Irish ships going to and from England. So I fear I won't be able to find this information, but though I'd check in case anyone has any thoughts. Below are some facts that I *do* know about these McEvoys. (Sorry if I'm including too much detail, but I figure the more I can put out there the better): * John McEvoy and Mary Murray had a son named **John Joseph McEvoy** (my 2GGF), who was born in Liverpool on Feb. 1, 1844, and baptized in Liverpool on Feb. 4 of that year (sources [here](https://www.ancestry.com/discoveryui-content/view/45273821:9841) and [here](https://www.ancestry.com/imageviewer/collections/2180/images/engl-56170_282-ant-1-4_m_00090)). Unlike John Sr. & Mary and their parents, I have lots of information about him * According to letters John wrote to the U.S. War Department while trying to collect his military pension, his mother Mary died in Liverpool, and then he and his father immigrated to the United States some time between 1853 and 1855 * There is a record [here](https://www.ancestry.com/discoveryui-content/view/746665:2183) for a Mary McEvoy who died in 1851 from St. Anthony's in Liverpool * John Sr. died in 1857, very shortly after he and John Jr. came over to America. He is buried at Calvary Cemetery in Queens, New York * It appears John Sr. and Mary also had a daughter named **Rebecca McEvoy** (per St. Anthony's baptism [here](https://www.ancestry.com/discoveryui-content/view/774928:2180), which lists Charles and Bridget McEvoy as godparents). I believe Rebecca died around the same time as her mother Mary * According to John and Mary's [marriage record](https://www.ancestry.com/discoveryui-content/view/1472470:2182) (the screenshot above), John was living at 2 Sawney Pope Road at the time of the 1940 marriage, and Mary was living at 84 Scotland Road (presumably both in Liverpool) * There are some UK City and County Directories that list three different John Murrays living in Liverpool (none on Scotland Road, but some close to it) in 1843, with three different professions (one a customs officer, two who are tailors), but I don't know if that's the right John Murray * To make matters even more confusing, there are sources out there that indicate a John McEvoy and Mary Murray married, came to the United States, and settled in the Herkimer, New York area. But I think this is a *different* John and Mary * In case it's useful, [here](https://www.ancestry.com/family-tree/person/tree/182000118/person/322368309250/facts) is a link to John Joseph McEvoy in my family tree on Ancestry; from there you can click to get to either of his parents as well.
2022/10/23
[ "https://genealogy.stackexchange.com/questions/18900", "https://genealogy.stackexchange.com", "https://genealogy.stackexchange.com/users/15108/" ]
You've alredy made a good start by gathering records in Liverpool and in the US. Extend your research and be on the lookout for more extended family members, associates and neighbors. This approach is called "cluster research" and more recently, Elizabeth Shown Mills refers to it as the FAN Principle or "FAN CLub Research". Some guides for studying clusters of people include: * Marsha Hoffman Rising's book [The Family Tree Problem Solver](https://www.penguinrandomhouse.com/books/631070/the-family-tree-problem-solver-by-marsha-hoffman-rising/), available in paper or as an ebook. The book is US-centric but the strategies can be applied to any locality. * Elizabeth Shown Mills: [Researching Elusive People](https://www.evidenceexplained.com/quicktips/researching-elusive-people) a short blog post from her *Evidence Explained* website * Elizabeth Shown Mills: [Quicklesson 11: Identity Problems and the FAN Principle](https://Quicklesson%2011:%20Identity%20Problems%20and%20the%20FAN%20Principle) on her *Evidence Explained* website * Webinar (available as a paid download or by subscription: [Complex Evidence – What is It? How Does it Work? And Why Does it Matter?](https://familytreewebinars.com/webinar/complex-evidence-what-is-it-how-does-it-work-and-why-does-it-matter/) by Warren Bittner (examples from Germanic genealogy research in Germany and the USA) You may not be able to find the information about the county of origin in records about John or Mary. There may be clues in the records of siblings, children, grandchildren, or in the records of other collateral lines. Look at historical newspapers, naturalization records, passenger lists, passport applications, and other records from family members to see what information is contained in the records. If you haven't already, do a deep-dive into all of the records you have gathered so far. Do you know how the records were created, and for what purpose? Have you looked at just the entries for your people, or have you examined the whole page, or surrounding pages in the record set? Look for research guides online and in libraries near you, such as: * [GenGuide](https://www.genguide.co.uk/) UK and Irish Genealogy * [Tracing Your Irish Ancestors](https://genealogical.com/store/tracing-your-irish-ancestors-2/) by John Grenham * [Tracing Your Irish Family History on the Internet](https://www.pen-and-sword.co.uk/Tracing-Your-Irish-Family-History-on-the-Internet-Paperback/p/16483) by Chris Paton * Video podcast: [Tracing your Irish ancestors at The National Archives](https://media.nationalarchives.gov.uk/index.php/tracing-your-irish-ancestors-at-the-national-archives/) by Audrey Collins (TNA at Kew, England) * [Help with your research: Research Guides](https://www.nationalarchives.gov.uk/help-with-your-research/research-guides/) at TNA Discovery (England) for articles on immigration and emigration Take a step back from the individual records, and study the context for all the records you have. Do you know what was happening in history at the time the records were created? Have you listed your sources in the order of record creation? Have you make a timeline of events to look for gaps? Have you to looked for other individuals born in Ireland who lived in Liverpool or in the communities in the USA where your people lived? Have you searched for local histories? Check PERSI, JSTOR, Google Scholar and sites like Academia.edu (warning: be prepared to filter out nagging emails) for published scholarship, and check Iinternet Archive for local histories. Check Histpop.org and Google Books for published reoprots about the census, etc. Look for diaries and other materials from the community via ArchiveGrid and similar sites. Looking at published works by other scholars and genealogists can show you techniques and search strategies to try, new sources to explore, point you to record sets you haven't considered yet. If you're working online, bear in mind that the 'big box' websites emphasize record sets like the census and BMD or church records because those record sets are likely to have information about more people, so customers/library patrons will be more likely to find something rather than nothing. But other record sets may be richer in information, such as wills, land records (if you can get them). Studying house history can be sometimes be useful in disambiguating same-name individuals in the community. Use all the identifiers that you can find, and be creative in your searching and research. Looking at the bigger picture helps you spot clues in records that you might have missed earlier, because you didn't understand the significance. As you review your prior research and look at new records, it helps to start with the most recent records and to work back slowly (think INCHWORM rather than LEAPFROG). **Resources:** * Irish Genealogy Toolkit: [Finding the townland of origin](https://www.irish-genealogy-toolkit.com/townland-of-origin.html) * Irish Geneaography: [Townlands](https://www.irish-geneaography.com/townlands.html) * FamilySearch Wiki:[Tracing Immigrants Search Strategies](https://www.familysearch.org/en/wiki/Tracing_Immigrants_Search_Strategies) * FamilySearch Wiki: [Ireland Record Finder](https://www.familysearch.org/en/wiki/Ireland_Record_Finder) * Genealogy Bank Blog: [Irish American Passenger Lists in Old Newspapers](https://blog.genealogybank.com/irish-american-passenger-lists-in-old-newspapers.html) * Genealogy Bank Blog: [Trace Your Immigrant Ancestors with Newspaper Passenger Lists](https://blog.genealogybank.com/trace-your-immigrant-ancestors-with-newspaper-passenger-lists.html) * Genealogy Bank learning center PDF Download: [Irish Passenger Lists Published in US Newspapers](https://www.genealogybank.com/static/downloads/Irish_Passenger_Lists.pdf) * PDF download: [Separating Men of the Same Name](https://www.dallasgenealogy.com/DGS_Docs/Hatcher/04_Separating-Men_of_the_Same_Name.pdf) by Patricia Law Hatcher, CG * [Same Name Genealogy Brick Wall Research Methodology Explained](https://www.familyhistoryfanatics.com/same-name-genealogy-methodology) by Devon Noel Lee at Family History Fanatics **More from Genealogy Stack Exchange:** * [Determining what records are available about an individual?](https://genealogy.stackexchange.com/q/12524/1006) * [Determining what records are available for a particular locale?](https://genealogy.stackexchange.com/q/3625/1006)
Interesting question - and i have exactly the same issue, tracing Irish ancestors who went via Liverpool in the 1800s. One possible clue that you may have already considered is that they often are recorded in the Liverpool registers under Latin names, so "John" is buried as "Johannes", etc.
18,900
I've been trying to find out more about some of my Irish ancestors. My 3rd great-grandparents **John Joseph McEvoy** and **Mary Murray** were living in Liverpool, England in the mid-1840s, but both were originally from Ireland. I have not been able to learn anything about their lives or the lives of their parents prior to John and Mary's marriage in Liverpool in 1840. According to their [marriage record](https://www.ancestry.com/discoveryui-content/view/1472470:2182) (below) at the St. Anthony's Parish in Liverpool, John's parents were named **Charles and Bridget McEvoy** (I think Bridget's maiden name was Hughes), and Mary's parents were **John and Honora Murray**. (At least I think it says Honora? That's also what Ancestry transcription thinks it says...) [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/W7UJ5.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/W7UJ5.jpg) Where in Ireland are the McEvoys and Murrays from? So far, my research hasn't yielded much on this question. My understanding is there are no Irish birth records before 1864, but I've not found any baptism records for John or Mary or their parents. (I've looked on Ancestry, Familysearch, RootsIreland.ie, and FindMyPast but didn't find anything.) I also understand that there were no passenger lists for Irish ships going to and from England. So I fear I won't be able to find this information, but though I'd check in case anyone has any thoughts. Below are some facts that I *do* know about these McEvoys. (Sorry if I'm including too much detail, but I figure the more I can put out there the better): * John McEvoy and Mary Murray had a son named **John Joseph McEvoy** (my 2GGF), who was born in Liverpool on Feb. 1, 1844, and baptized in Liverpool on Feb. 4 of that year (sources [here](https://www.ancestry.com/discoveryui-content/view/45273821:9841) and [here](https://www.ancestry.com/imageviewer/collections/2180/images/engl-56170_282-ant-1-4_m_00090)). Unlike John Sr. & Mary and their parents, I have lots of information about him * According to letters John wrote to the U.S. War Department while trying to collect his military pension, his mother Mary died in Liverpool, and then he and his father immigrated to the United States some time between 1853 and 1855 * There is a record [here](https://www.ancestry.com/discoveryui-content/view/746665:2183) for a Mary McEvoy who died in 1851 from St. Anthony's in Liverpool * John Sr. died in 1857, very shortly after he and John Jr. came over to America. He is buried at Calvary Cemetery in Queens, New York * It appears John Sr. and Mary also had a daughter named **Rebecca McEvoy** (per St. Anthony's baptism [here](https://www.ancestry.com/discoveryui-content/view/774928:2180), which lists Charles and Bridget McEvoy as godparents). I believe Rebecca died around the same time as her mother Mary * According to John and Mary's [marriage record](https://www.ancestry.com/discoveryui-content/view/1472470:2182) (the screenshot above), John was living at 2 Sawney Pope Road at the time of the 1940 marriage, and Mary was living at 84 Scotland Road (presumably both in Liverpool) * There are some UK City and County Directories that list three different John Murrays living in Liverpool (none on Scotland Road, but some close to it) in 1843, with three different professions (one a customs officer, two who are tailors), but I don't know if that's the right John Murray * To make matters even more confusing, there are sources out there that indicate a John McEvoy and Mary Murray married, came to the United States, and settled in the Herkimer, New York area. But I think this is a *different* John and Mary * In case it's useful, [here](https://www.ancestry.com/family-tree/person/tree/182000118/person/322368309250/facts) is a link to John Joseph McEvoy in my family tree on Ancestry; from there you can click to get to either of his parents as well.
2022/10/23
[ "https://genealogy.stackexchange.com/questions/18900", "https://genealogy.stackexchange.com", "https://genealogy.stackexchange.com/users/15108/" ]
A possible sister to your groom - marriage of a James Murphy and Catherine McEvoy same Church in Liverpool (St. Anthony's RC) 19th January 1843, looks like the same address.. [![Murphy/McEvoy marriage](https://i.stack.imgur.com/TkIyS.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/TkIyS.jpg) Unfortunately the priest only filled in father's name in the 'parents' column.. witnesses appear to be James Williams and Isobelle[?] Duggan Might be worth searching for this couple on the 1841 census and also the later returns after the marriage to see if they stayed in England and if Catherine ever gave a county of birth p.s. I think the McEvoy residence on both marriage may be Sawney Pope Street
Interesting question - and i have exactly the same issue, tracing Irish ancestors who went via Liverpool in the 1800s. One possible clue that you may have already considered is that they often are recorded in the Liverpool registers under Latin names, so "John" is buried as "Johannes", etc.
184
Now that this is avp, can we have some effort to remove obsolete "this is off-topic" comments on migrated questions? I worry that this site will seem even more unwelcoming than SEs sometimes do if practically every question is painted with the off-topic brush. Would it be considered OK for me (and others, obviously) to use my flag allowance to ask mods to attend to this?
2011/07/08
[ "https://avp.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/184", "https://avp.meta.stackexchange.com", "https://avp.meta.stackexchange.com/users/707/" ]
Yes, flag these comments for removal. Removing obsolete and resolved comment inquiries is useful and *explicitly* encouraged. [**Should moderators delete obsolete comments?**](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/77373/should-moderators-delete-make-correction-done-comments)
That would be helpful, that way we mods don't have to go find them all ourselves. ...Assuming everyone's ok with deleting these comments. So far I've just been adding an additional comment saying that the question is now on-topic.
48,687
I've acquired an old wooden desk that is just varnished wood. I would like to paint it but with the rubberised feel I have seen applied to some metals. I'm not sure if this paint exists for wood, but maybe it's possible to mix it manually? I've seen rubberised paint advertised for industrial uses like railings etc
2014/09/10
[ "https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/48687", "https://diy.stackexchange.com", "https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/21117/" ]
There is a major consideration that must be investigated before this can be answered in the positive. That is - Is the fan / light combo unit designed to support separate wiring feeds for the light and the fan. Many units do support this whilst some may not. If your unit does support this then there is a second consideration. If the vanity light and the fan combo are on the same power feed from the main breaker panel then it is possible to entertain the idea that that the two lights can be interconnected to the same switches. Since the two switches are in the same electrical box this is a good start if the prior considerations are met. The last criteria to look at is if there are already separate power feeds from the switch box to the fan/light combo in the ceiling. If not then it will be necessary to either replace the existing 2\_wire+ground cable between the boxes with a 3\_wire+ground cable OR to add an additional 2\_wire+ground cable. Once all that is in place the process of merging the two lights to one switch becomes one of pig tailing the correct sets of wires together in the switch box so the single switch can operate both of the lights.
With almost all relatively new (last 15 years) bath fan/light kits you will be able to do this. You simply wire vanity and light together with hot on switch and give fan timer. To do you one better I have been installing lutron dimmers-timer in all of my new remodels. So the top half of the switch is simply a dimmer - we hook this up to the fan light. And the bottom half is a timer - hooked up to fan (if fan has a nightlight we hook this up here too). Meaning you can control all three without putting in a new box.
49,169,072
I want to know if we can control the selection/deselection of checkboxes of the CAPL Test Modules via CAPL Scripts, either by setting some system variable or by calling certain events. Is this possible? [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/z0DC6.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/z0DC6.png)
2018/03/08
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/49169072", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/5047641/" ]
It is actually possible: > > Use Start to define when the test module is to be started: > > > * Immediately after start of measurement. > * When the defined environment variable switches to a value unequal to 0 during measurement. -When the defined system variable switches to > a value unequal to 0 during measurement. > * When a defined key is pressed during measurement. > > > You can start the test modules manually in the execution dialog, in > the test module's context menu or by using the arrow button on the > test module block in the Simulation Setup. Test modules can be started > several times during a measurement. You can therefore define (and use) > several start conditions. During the runtime of a test module it is > not possible to start it again. > > > CANoe help Test module : Configuration dialog
I think it is entirely impossible to change the selected tests **during** test execution. I suppose you could activate/deactivate test modules with the COM interface but certainly not during test execution.
49,169,072
I want to know if we can control the selection/deselection of checkboxes of the CAPL Test Modules via CAPL Scripts, either by setting some system variable or by calling certain events. Is this possible? [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/z0DC6.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/z0DC6.png)
2018/03/08
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/49169072", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/5047641/" ]
Right-click on the test module and select configuration Use Start to define when the test module is to be started: * define system variable: starts the test module if value unequal to 0 during measurement. use the system variable wherever you want for e.g. create a panel and assign it to a button or a switch (don't forget to configure the 'on' & 'off' value) [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/KyoIe.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/KyoIe.png)
I think it is entirely impossible to change the selected tests **during** test execution. I suppose you could activate/deactivate test modules with the COM interface but certainly not during test execution.
49,169,072
I want to know if we can control the selection/deselection of checkboxes of the CAPL Test Modules via CAPL Scripts, either by setting some system variable or by calling certain events. Is this possible? [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/z0DC6.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/z0DC6.png)
2018/03/08
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/49169072", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/5047641/" ]
It is actually possible: > > Use Start to define when the test module is to be started: > > > * Immediately after start of measurement. > * When the defined environment variable switches to a value unequal to 0 during measurement. -When the defined system variable switches to > a value unequal to 0 during measurement. > * When a defined key is pressed during measurement. > > > You can start the test modules manually in the execution dialog, in > the test module's context menu or by using the arrow button on the > test module block in the Simulation Setup. Test modules can be started > several times during a measurement. You can therefore define (and use) > several start conditions. During the runtime of a test module it is > not possible to start it again. > > > CANoe help Test module : Configuration dialog
Right-click on the test module and select configuration Use Start to define when the test module is to be started: * define system variable: starts the test module if value unequal to 0 during measurement. use the system variable wherever you want for e.g. create a panel and assign it to a button or a switch (don't forget to configure the 'on' & 'off' value) [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/KyoIe.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/KyoIe.png)
13,213,610
Say for example if I receive an email to subscribe@mydomain.com, is there a way I can trigger that to make a GET or POST call to my own server? Another use could be email a link and have my server download the link automatically if the email meets certain criteria. Thanks
2012/11/03
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/13213610", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1241489/" ]
Google Apps Script is perfect to achieve this. You need to use GmailApp, Script Triggers etc from Google Script to automate it. Best Regards [Apps Script Tutorials](https://sites.google.com/site/appsscripttutorial/)
Depending on what you're trying to achieve, a service like [ifttt](http://ifttt.com) might solve your problem without you having to write ay code.
279,975
I try to make a custom board for the STM32F303K8T6 and I am not sure if I do it right. Actually the design is oriented on the STM32F3Discovery. I will not run time critical applications so that I don't need an external oscillator. To flash and debug, I want to use the SWD, but there I am not sure, if I really need the V3.3 pin? Is this PIN not to power the board with the SWD? So when I activate the voltage regulator when I flash, this should be redundant, right? Schematic: [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/CdmwY.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/CdmwY.png)
2017/01/12
[ "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/279975", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/77119/" ]
With SWD or JTAG you don't need to power the device for it to flash. But you do have to power the device somehow while flashing. I use JTAG and SWD and built a board with a jumper to either power it from the ST-link or use the power on the board (I think you might be able to buy these). Its probably better to not use both to power because the regulators on the board and the flash tool are not going to be exactly the same voltage and you could get power flowing from one to the other. So put an option on the board or flash tool to select use.
Whether you need 3.3V or not depends of course which debugger you use. But usually the debugger wants to use the same voltage levels when communicating with the target, so many debuggers do not work without VCC from target. It would also be a very bad debugger if it always assumed communication with 3.3V targets, as this would fry targets using 1.8V from batteries. If you intend to only debug it with the Discovery that always uses 3.3V and your target always uses 3.3V and there is not much difference between separate 3.3V supplies, the you can live without. If you intend to debug with a separate debugger such as ST-Link/V2 then you must have target 3.3V available as reference or it will not work at all.
279,975
I try to make a custom board for the STM32F303K8T6 and I am not sure if I do it right. Actually the design is oriented on the STM32F3Discovery. I will not run time critical applications so that I don't need an external oscillator. To flash and debug, I want to use the SWD, but there I am not sure, if I really need the V3.3 pin? Is this PIN not to power the board with the SWD? So when I activate the voltage regulator when I flash, this should be redundant, right? Schematic: [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/CdmwY.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/CdmwY.png)
2017/01/12
[ "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/279975", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/77119/" ]
The purpose of the 3.3 V pin on the SWD connector is not to provide supply voltage but to monitor it. If you have a look at the schematic of an [ST-Link's SWD connector](http://www.st.com/content/ccc/resource/technical/document/user_manual/70/fe/4a/3f/e7/e1/4f/7d/DM00039084.pdf/files/DM00039084.pdf/jcr:content/translations/en.DM00039084.pdf), the 3.3 V pin is connected to an ADC. [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/z0uZa.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/z0uZa.png) By default the ADC is disconnected as R2 is not fitted on the board.
Whether you need 3.3V or not depends of course which debugger you use. But usually the debugger wants to use the same voltage levels when communicating with the target, so many debuggers do not work without VCC from target. It would also be a very bad debugger if it always assumed communication with 3.3V targets, as this would fry targets using 1.8V from batteries. If you intend to only debug it with the Discovery that always uses 3.3V and your target always uses 3.3V and there is not much difference between separate 3.3V supplies, the you can live without. If you intend to debug with a separate debugger such as ST-Link/V2 then you must have target 3.3V available as reference or it will not work at all.
317,654
It amazed me recently to have found 3 tiny Sot-232 transistors inside a 12V led controller. It can't be serious, but after digging and testing it with my 10 watts power LED mounted on a CPU heatsink for 30 minutes, the huge heatsink was hot to touch, yet when stupidly touching the tiny SOT-232 transistor, it was not even warm. It's a AO3400 N-Channel MOSFET; According to the datasheet, it's Max Vds is 30V, and Id is 5.8A. Question 1, so technically is this tiny transistor capable of switching up to 30V \* 5.8A = 174 watts? Question 2, but according to the datasheet, it can only dissipate 1.4 watt. What is the difference between Power Dissipation VS Switching Power? Question 3, Again, according to the datasheet, we only get 5.8A when VGS=10V; but since I am planning to use this with a MCU which has a HIGH voltage level of either 3.3v or 5v, what is the approximately expected switching current? and how it's calculated?
2017/07/16
[ "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/317654", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/-1/" ]
> > 1. AO3400 30V N-Channel MOSFET ...Can it switch 30V \* 5.8A = 174 watts? > > > * Yes that's the guideline assuming you consider heat and thermal resistance. * based on Rds with drops with Vgs above threshold and often need 4x threshold. > > 2, but according to the datasheet, it can only dissipate 1.4 watt. > > > * yes but only if ambient =25'C then reduced to 0.9W @ 70'C > > 3.... @ 3.3v or 5v, what is the approximately expected switching current? and how it's calculated? ... > > > * Pd=Vds²/Rdson using Vgs to get Rdson from Fig 5 at max case temp Tc, where Tc\_max=Tamb +Pd\*Rθja where I choose max Tc= 85'C at max ambient at T=40'C * Figure 5 gives nominal RdsOn then compute ; Vds, Pd and T rise from Thermal specs 100~125'C/W unless you choose better board conductor material or thermal design Its a low Vds max switch with very low Vgs threshold, so it has more switching capacitance than others of higher V but the ratio of max power switching/ max dissipation is the almost same as ratio of max R load at max power to RdsOn minimum e.g. at 30V 5.8A, load = 30/5.8=5.2R while RdsOn from Fig 5 at 85'C @5V=Vgs ~30mΩ * thus switch power ratio = 5.2Ω/30mΩ = 173x Relays often have a power ratio of 1k~2k while BJT's may be as little as 10x
> > It amazed me ... > > > nothing amazing here. the mosfet operates like a switch so what matters is its Rds when on - assuming that switching losses aren't a big factor here. So if it has very low Rds(on), it can switch lots of current. its power dissipation has no relation to the amount of power being switched, other than the current being switched and the resulting power dissipation on the mosfet.
80,977
Is it possible to migrate a Windows Standard 2003 installation to a Windows Standard 2003 R2 installation. We have a Domain controller that is currently on 2003 but wish to take advantage of some functionality that is only available in the R2 edition. We have the necessary licenses and media but not sure if it is possible or indeed how to go about doing it.
2009/11/03
[ "https://serverfault.com/questions/80977", "https://serverfault.com", "https://serverfault.com/users/66/" ]
You can't hide a site if its in the interweb DNS - would be like having an ex-directory phone number that *is* in the directory. Of course you can run a server that is not associated with anything in DNS.
Perform a port scan using [nmap](http://nmap.org/book/man.html) and look for web servers.
80,977
Is it possible to migrate a Windows Standard 2003 installation to a Windows Standard 2003 R2 installation. We have a Domain controller that is currently on 2003 but wish to take advantage of some functionality that is only available in the R2 edition. We have the necessary licenses and media but not sure if it is possible or indeed how to go about doing it.
2009/11/03
[ "https://serverfault.com/questions/80977", "https://serverfault.com", "https://serverfault.com/users/66/" ]
I don't think there's any way to do this from the outside. As long as your server configuration is secure (it should be anyway), there's no reasonable way to do it. Someone could always do an ip address lookup for every possible domain name and compare the ip addresses. There's no way you could prevent them from doing that, but it's not very realistic.
Perform a port scan using [nmap](http://nmap.org/book/man.html) and look for web servers.
80,977
Is it possible to migrate a Windows Standard 2003 installation to a Windows Standard 2003 R2 installation. We have a Domain controller that is currently on 2003 but wish to take advantage of some functionality that is only available in the R2 edition. We have the necessary licenses and media but not sure if it is possible or indeed how to go about doing it.
2009/11/03
[ "https://serverfault.com/questions/80977", "https://serverfault.com", "https://serverfault.com/users/66/" ]
This isn't programmatic, but this site attempts to answer that question. Here's the page for stackoverflow.com's IP <http://onsamehost.com/69.59.196.211/> EDIT: That is, it tries to answer your first question.
Perform a port scan using [nmap](http://nmap.org/book/man.html) and look for web servers.
80,977
Is it possible to migrate a Windows Standard 2003 installation to a Windows Standard 2003 R2 installation. We have a Domain controller that is currently on 2003 but wish to take advantage of some functionality that is only available in the R2 edition. We have the necessary licenses and media but not sure if it is possible or indeed how to go about doing it.
2009/11/03
[ "https://serverfault.com/questions/80977", "https://serverfault.com", "https://serverfault.com/users/66/" ]
From the "outsite" or in an anonymous manner, there is no way to programatically request the list of domain names that are bound to a particular web server's IP address. Stock security built into IIS/Apache/others prevent such a thing from happening. The ability to have a web server listen for multiple domain names on a single IP address is credited to HTTP 1.1's Host Header implementation. Websites like <http://www.sitedossier.com> maintain a database of domain names and their respective "www" DNS A record, then allow us to query by IP address. They likely scrape search engine results by requesting a large sampling of fake queries (say straight from a dictionary), or have implemented a basic spider themselves (which would be by far more efficient).
Perform a port scan using [nmap](http://nmap.org/book/man.html) and look for web servers.
80,977
Is it possible to migrate a Windows Standard 2003 installation to a Windows Standard 2003 R2 installation. We have a Domain controller that is currently on 2003 but wish to take advantage of some functionality that is only available in the R2 edition. We have the necessary licenses and media but not sure if it is possible or indeed how to go about doing it.
2009/11/03
[ "https://serverfault.com/questions/80977", "https://serverfault.com", "https://serverfault.com/users/66/" ]
You can't hide a site if its in the interweb DNS - would be like having an ex-directory phone number that *is* in the directory. Of course you can run a server that is not associated with anything in DNS.
Another site I have used with good results is <http://www.sitedossier.com/ip/69.59.196.211>
80,977
Is it possible to migrate a Windows Standard 2003 installation to a Windows Standard 2003 R2 installation. We have a Domain controller that is currently on 2003 but wish to take advantage of some functionality that is only available in the R2 edition. We have the necessary licenses and media but not sure if it is possible or indeed how to go about doing it.
2009/11/03
[ "https://serverfault.com/questions/80977", "https://serverfault.com", "https://serverfault.com/users/66/" ]
I don't think there's any way to do this from the outside. As long as your server configuration is secure (it should be anyway), there's no reasonable way to do it. Someone could always do an ip address lookup for every possible domain name and compare the ip addresses. There's no way you could prevent them from doing that, but it's not very realistic.
Another site I have used with good results is <http://www.sitedossier.com/ip/69.59.196.211>
80,977
Is it possible to migrate a Windows Standard 2003 installation to a Windows Standard 2003 R2 installation. We have a Domain controller that is currently on 2003 but wish to take advantage of some functionality that is only available in the R2 edition. We have the necessary licenses and media but not sure if it is possible or indeed how to go about doing it.
2009/11/03
[ "https://serverfault.com/questions/80977", "https://serverfault.com", "https://serverfault.com/users/66/" ]
This isn't programmatic, but this site attempts to answer that question. Here's the page for stackoverflow.com's IP <http://onsamehost.com/69.59.196.211/> EDIT: That is, it tries to answer your first question.
Another site I have used with good results is <http://www.sitedossier.com/ip/69.59.196.211>
80,977
Is it possible to migrate a Windows Standard 2003 installation to a Windows Standard 2003 R2 installation. We have a Domain controller that is currently on 2003 but wish to take advantage of some functionality that is only available in the R2 edition. We have the necessary licenses and media but not sure if it is possible or indeed how to go about doing it.
2009/11/03
[ "https://serverfault.com/questions/80977", "https://serverfault.com", "https://serverfault.com/users/66/" ]
From the "outsite" or in an anonymous manner, there is no way to programatically request the list of domain names that are bound to a particular web server's IP address. Stock security built into IIS/Apache/others prevent such a thing from happening. The ability to have a web server listen for multiple domain names on a single IP address is credited to HTTP 1.1's Host Header implementation. Websites like <http://www.sitedossier.com> maintain a database of domain names and their respective "www" DNS A record, then allow us to query by IP address. They likely scrape search engine results by requesting a large sampling of fake queries (say straight from a dictionary), or have implemented a basic spider themselves (which would be by far more efficient).
Another site I have used with good results is <http://www.sitedossier.com/ip/69.59.196.211>
33,965
I'm in Japan for 3 weeks, and then looking to go across to South Korea. I'm wondering if there's anyway to organise a tour of North Korea that departs from either Japan or South Korea? Bearing in mind, I'm a NZ Citizen so would possibly require time to organise visas...depending on whether or not it goes through China as well.
2014/07/16
[ "https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/33965", "https://travel.stackexchange.com", "https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/101/" ]
In a word (and a [meme](http://www.quickmeme.com/img/3d/3d8d5a4aa07e527aa8af1813f91e75f4489f6ad3fb455d6287735107830c5021.jpg)), **no**. As you're probably aware, South and North Korea remain (in theory anyway) at a state of war and travel between the two is extremely restricted. In the past, there were organized tours from South Korea to [Kumgangsan](https://en.wikivoyage.org/wiki/Kumgangsan) and [Kaesong](https://en.wikivoyage.org/wiki/Kaesong), but both have been indefinitely suspended since 2008 or so. Pyongyang has never been accessible to South Koreans. Japan has also banned all direct travel to North Korea for years, but the ban was lifted [this very week](http://www.lexology.com/library/detail.aspx?g=3b00041c-85c5-4681-92a9-1279d69ee6f7). However, it will be a while until anything like group tours for the general public (as opposed to card-carrying Chongryon members etc) start happening, and Japanese ability would most likely be required.
There are no direct connections between North Korea and either Japan or South Korea, but it is of course possible to visit North Korea starting in either of the two other countries. From Pyŏngyang, there are only direct flights to a handful of cities in China and Russia: Beijing, Shanghai, Shenyang and Vladivostok. In addition, there are international trains from Pyŏngyang to Beijing and Moscow. New Zealand citizens may transit without a visa in Beijing, Shanghai and Shenyang for up to 72 hours and within that time also leave the airport. Flying to Pyŏngyang from Japan or South Korea through any of the three Chinese cities should be no problem. To get a visa for North Korea, you must have booked an organized tour from any of the North Korean tourism operators. They offer both group tours and individual tours, but since you will be accompanied at all times by North Korean guides, individual tours are relatively expensive. Most group tours include flight or train to and from Beijing, but if you book an individual tour, you are likely to be able to choose yourself how to get to Pyŏngyang. Usually, the North Korean visa is arranged by the tour operator and will be given to you before departure in Beijing. For individual tours, you can also apply for a tourist visa at a North Korean embassy, providing that you have a booking confirmation from the tour operator. I am not sure if the application process is that fast everywhere, but the North Korean embassy in London is said to issue tourist visas within 20 minutes.
203,652
I am wondering if anyone might have some suggestions on solving this drainage issue with our vinyl deck. We used to have 2 separate decks but upon rebuild we have them joined with a narrow walkway. There was previously a downspout where the new walkway currently is. Initially, we were going to redirect this downspout to the other side of our roof gutter as our deck builder didn't think having the hole through the deck would look good. But after having a roofer and a gutter company here, we were told that due to the current slope of our roof, redirecting the downspout to the other side would not work without the risk of having our gutters overflow. We have temporarily attached a piece of downspout across our deck that then drains down into river rock for the time being, but of course, it cannot remain this way. As a result, I now have to cut a hole in our deck for the downspout to fit through so that it can reach the storm drain below. The deck surface is the Deksmart vinyl product. I want to make sure that I do this as least invasively as possible while also being accurate. The last thing I want is for water to seep under the vinyl and potentially cause bubbling or rotting, so I want to shield the exposed edges in the subfloor once I cut out the hole. Almost all water will be inside of the downspout, but I want to protect the subfloor in case some water on the deck itself runs into the cut-out. I have attached some photos for reference. Gutter Fix 1 - This is the current layout, as well as the proposed plan outlined in red. Gutter Fix 2 - An alternative view from under the deck. Gutter Fix 3 - This is a mock-up of how I was hoping to potentially protect the subfloor edges (the green tape represents vinyl decking that I would heat weld to the existing vinyl. [![Gutter Fix 1](https://i.stack.imgur.com/O4bff.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/O4bff.jpg) [![Gutter Fix 2](https://i.stack.imgur.com/9Gv12.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/9Gv12.jpg) [![Gutter Fix 3](https://i.stack.imgur.com/sc4ko.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/sc4ko.jpg) I have also been searching online for options, but I'm not sure that I have found a viable solution. Our gutters are 2x3" rectangles and the only PVC coated drain openings I could find online are 1.5" or 2" circles. Could anyone suggest a product or PVC insert that will work with a 2x3" downspout? Or a better way to heat weld the vinyl to protect the cut-out opening? Or any other suggestions or ideas on how to accomplish this? Any help would be greatly appreciated!
2020/09/18
[ "https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/203652", "https://diy.stackexchange.com", "https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/56753/" ]
You could install a main breaker (what you're calling a main shutoff) but that REALLY shouldn't be done live, by anyone. You'd have to lift your feeders and land them on the new main breaker terminals. When the disconnect is not where you can keep an eye on it while you're working, like in your building, it should be lockable. If the disconnect has a one-arm-bandit type arm to open it, those can be locked open with a padlock. If it's just a regular breaker, you might be able to find a breaker lock that clamps on the breaker handle and can be locked with a padlock.
Yeah, there really needs to be a way to lockout/tagout the electric service to this panel. This looks to me like a convertible panel; that's quite common these days. It's almost impossible to buy non-convertibles anymore. You buy an add-on main breaker of whichever size you please. (That's also how you get a 100A 40-space panel). My guess is, the main lugs un-bolt, and the main breaker bolts up where they were. Swish the hot wires around a bit to take up some slack (I would swap which terminals they are on, to add more swish) and you should be good2go. Make sure you torque all your electrical connections with a torque driver.
51,889
> > OzForex Foreign Exchange dealer Michael Judge said the dollar could go > above US79¢ on Tuesday should the Reserve Bank cut the cash rate, > which is currently at 2.25 per cent. > > > (<http://www.smh.com.au/business/markets/currencies/australian-dollar-dips-in-anticipation-of-rba-rate-call-20150302-13ssqy.html#ixzz3TEcGUQv2>) can "should the Reserve Bank cut...." expressed as "if the Reserve Bank cut..."? I have no idea what the sentence means to be?
2015/03/02
[ "https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/51889", "https://ell.stackexchange.com", "https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/15943/" ]
I see four main parts to this sentence: 1. A declarative sentence: "OzForex Foreign Exchange dealer, Michael Judge, said..." 2. Paraphrased quote, another declarative sentence: "the dollar could go above US79¢ on Tuesday..." 3. A conditional clause: "should the Reserve Bank cut the cash rate" 4. A subordinate clause: "which is currently at 2.25 per cent" The first part has a simple subject and verb. Michael Judge said ... Parts two and three are what he said. Part 2 will happen if part 3 happens. The subordinate clause (part 4) cannot stand on its own, and just gives more detail.
You may be able to replace ***should*** with ***if***, but that is not the context of the passage from the original article that you sourced. Before the author wrote those lines, he spoke to many other people who all stated that they expected the Reserve Bank to cut the rate. One actually stated that it was not a matter of if, but when. Their unanimous conclusion was a change in the value of the Australian dollar when this event occurred. If you look at the verb definitions for ***should***, you will find one that expresses a conditional mode (if). This is also like one of the verb definitions of ***should***. However in both definitions the condition is specified in the sentence. For example: > > "If it rains, you should take an umbrella with you." > > > Another definition of ***should*** indicates an event that is possible. Remember in the original article, all the people interviewed clearly expressed *an expectation that the rate cut would happen and the consequences of that rate cut*. So in this context, should can be replaced with ***when*** if the author's original intent is to be preserved in the standalone excerpt: > > " OzForex Foreign Exchange dealer Michael Judge said the dollar could go above US79¢ on Tuesday ***when*** the Reserve Bank cuts the cash rate, which is currently at 2.25 per cent." > > > Therefore, although you could use ***if*** as a synonym in the excerpt, this will only denote a condition. However, if you want to denote the result of an expected event- as outlined by the author in the article- then you may want to use when as a replacement.
51,889
> > OzForex Foreign Exchange dealer Michael Judge said the dollar could go > above US79¢ on Tuesday should the Reserve Bank cut the cash rate, > which is currently at 2.25 per cent. > > > (<http://www.smh.com.au/business/markets/currencies/australian-dollar-dips-in-anticipation-of-rba-rate-call-20150302-13ssqy.html#ixzz3TEcGUQv2>) can "should the Reserve Bank cut...." expressed as "if the Reserve Bank cut..."? I have no idea what the sentence means to be?
2015/03/02
[ "https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/51889", "https://ell.stackexchange.com", "https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/15943/" ]
"can "should the Reserve Bank cut...." be expressed as "if the Reserve Bank cut..."?" Almost. "We don't have enough cans of beer should Jim visit us, who is known to be very thirsty." can be expressed as "We don't have enough cans of beer if Jim **visits** us, who is known to be very thirsty." Both mean almost exactly the same, but "should" is followed by a conditional and "if" is not. You could also say "We don't have enough cans of beer if Jim **were to visit** us, who is known to be very thirsty." Now for organisations like "Reserve Bank" there's the question if you should use plural or singular, which would be "cut" or "cuts"; American and British English could disagree. There is a very slight difference in meaning. The "should" is more of a possibility that you prepare for. An umbrella is useful should it rain. Rain is a possibility that you might prepare for. An umbrella is not useful if you fall down the stairs and break your neck. Falling down the stairs and breaking your neck is not something you prepare for. "Something very bad happens if you do something very stupid." I wouldn't use "should" because the "doing something very stupid" is not something I would expect yo to do.
I see four main parts to this sentence: 1. A declarative sentence: "OzForex Foreign Exchange dealer, Michael Judge, said..." 2. Paraphrased quote, another declarative sentence: "the dollar could go above US79¢ on Tuesday..." 3. A conditional clause: "should the Reserve Bank cut the cash rate" 4. A subordinate clause: "which is currently at 2.25 per cent" The first part has a simple subject and verb. Michael Judge said ... Parts two and three are what he said. Part 2 will happen if part 3 happens. The subordinate clause (part 4) cannot stand on its own, and just gives more detail.
51,889
> > OzForex Foreign Exchange dealer Michael Judge said the dollar could go > above US79¢ on Tuesday should the Reserve Bank cut the cash rate, > which is currently at 2.25 per cent. > > > (<http://www.smh.com.au/business/markets/currencies/australian-dollar-dips-in-anticipation-of-rba-rate-call-20150302-13ssqy.html#ixzz3TEcGUQv2>) can "should the Reserve Bank cut...." expressed as "if the Reserve Bank cut..."? I have no idea what the sentence means to be?
2015/03/02
[ "https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/51889", "https://ell.stackexchange.com", "https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/15943/" ]
"can "should the Reserve Bank cut...." be expressed as "if the Reserve Bank cut..."?" Almost. "We don't have enough cans of beer should Jim visit us, who is known to be very thirsty." can be expressed as "We don't have enough cans of beer if Jim **visits** us, who is known to be very thirsty." Both mean almost exactly the same, but "should" is followed by a conditional and "if" is not. You could also say "We don't have enough cans of beer if Jim **were to visit** us, who is known to be very thirsty." Now for organisations like "Reserve Bank" there's the question if you should use plural or singular, which would be "cut" or "cuts"; American and British English could disagree. There is a very slight difference in meaning. The "should" is more of a possibility that you prepare for. An umbrella is useful should it rain. Rain is a possibility that you might prepare for. An umbrella is not useful if you fall down the stairs and break your neck. Falling down the stairs and breaking your neck is not something you prepare for. "Something very bad happens if you do something very stupid." I wouldn't use "should" because the "doing something very stupid" is not something I would expect yo to do.
You may be able to replace ***should*** with ***if***, but that is not the context of the passage from the original article that you sourced. Before the author wrote those lines, he spoke to many other people who all stated that they expected the Reserve Bank to cut the rate. One actually stated that it was not a matter of if, but when. Their unanimous conclusion was a change in the value of the Australian dollar when this event occurred. If you look at the verb definitions for ***should***, you will find one that expresses a conditional mode (if). This is also like one of the verb definitions of ***should***. However in both definitions the condition is specified in the sentence. For example: > > "If it rains, you should take an umbrella with you." > > > Another definition of ***should*** indicates an event that is possible. Remember in the original article, all the people interviewed clearly expressed *an expectation that the rate cut would happen and the consequences of that rate cut*. So in this context, should can be replaced with ***when*** if the author's original intent is to be preserved in the standalone excerpt: > > " OzForex Foreign Exchange dealer Michael Judge said the dollar could go above US79¢ on Tuesday ***when*** the Reserve Bank cuts the cash rate, which is currently at 2.25 per cent." > > > Therefore, although you could use ***if*** as a synonym in the excerpt, this will only denote a condition. However, if you want to denote the result of an expected event- as outlined by the author in the article- then you may want to use when as a replacement.
1,275,951
I listened to my egghead hubby because he wanted to go back to Windows 7 from Windows 10. Windows 7 had been preloaded to the laptop when purchased so we did not have a disc or even a recovery disc to go backwards. We came across a website that allows you to download files to load Windows 7 provided you have a product key. We tried to create a bootable usb and load it to the laptop but kept receiving an error message. Hubby found some info about having the laptop automatically ask if it wanted to boot upon start up from usb or hard drive. I followed his instructions and changed it in the BIOS advanced options. Now, the damn laptop only boots up waiting for a bootable device and it is not reading the usb AT ALL. Does anyone have any idea how I can break into the computer short of buying a windows disc to change it back to booting via hard drive??? I am at my wits end. Hubby is in the doghouse over this. Any help would be greatly appreciated.
2017/12/10
[ "https://superuser.com/questions/1275951", "https://superuser.com", "https://superuser.com/users/851847/" ]
To change boot settings, you'll need to go into the BIOS and change it to HDD in the same way that you changed it to USB. As for creating a bootable USB disk, you can either use Rufus which can be found here: <https://rufus.akeo.ie/> Or my favorite, ZOTAC, which can be found here: <http://download.cnet.com/Zotac-WinUSB-Maker/3001-2242_4-76060668.html>
My best guess is you weren't successful in creating a bootable USB drive. Try using this software, it's worked for me before: <https://rufus.akeo.ie/> You could also try burning the files onto a DVD disc and set the laptop to boot from CD drive.
11,998
If you are developing your own architecture or heavily use anothers vendors API, how do you promote awareness to the programming staff? For example, say you use Infragistics controls for you C# winforms apps - the controls have boatloads of methods, some quirks, and a best way to use them for your application. How do you promote the knowledge transfer thru your programming staff? Wiki's? Email? Blogs?.
2010/10/14
[ "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/11998", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/4759/" ]
Documentation seems like the most reasonable place to inform your development team regarding implementation and usage of external libraries/API.s Emails get lost, are not read. Wikis are for interlinked content. Blogs are usually for individuals. Documentation is for communicating evidence of something. Although I suppose you could have a meeting initially when a project starts to discuss a chosen API/library to make sure 1. everyone is on the same page and 2. no one has a concern with using it that may have been missed.
Use a combination of formats, appropriate for each knowledge function. * Blogs and RSS feeds can be used to announce updates, news items, etc. * Wikis can be used to document current standards, policies, processes, how-tos, APIs, etc. The content can be structured, given a table of contents and index, support the development of commentaries, provide versioning, dynamic updates, etc. * Forums/discussion boards can be used to work out issues of a technical or managerial nature. Definitely allow tagging of content tagged for a variety of categories (data types, layer, functionality, bugs, etc).
43,319
A lot of recipes recommend removing the outer leaves from Brussels Sprouts. I understand why'd you remove brown or damaged leaves but I've always thought the leaves that just fall off are perfectly fine to eat. Any advice appreciated.
2014/04/06
[ "https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/43319", "https://cooking.stackexchange.com", "https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/4030/" ]
The ones that fall off because you've accidentally trimmed off too much stem are fine to cook, although likely to overcook when treated the same as full size sprouts.
There is no safety reason not to cook them, but if they are falling off the little brussel sprout head, they probably are past their prime and won't be as good s the ones still firmly attached. It should be a fairly small loss; I would recommend discarding them.
43,319
A lot of recipes recommend removing the outer leaves from Brussels Sprouts. I understand why'd you remove brown or damaged leaves but I've always thought the leaves that just fall off are perfectly fine to eat. Any advice appreciated.
2014/04/06
[ "https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/43319", "https://cooking.stackexchange.com", "https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/4030/" ]
There is no safety reason not to cook them, but if they are falling off the little brussel sprout head, they probably are past their prime and won't be as good s the ones still firmly attached. It should be a fairly small loss; I would recommend discarding them.
finely chop some bacon and toss in the pan. When bacon is about finished toss in the extra leaves to cook down sightly. Not the healthiest of servings but a fantastic flavor! Or mince bacon and leaves and ad to a dip for a festive holiday piece of happiness.
43,319
A lot of recipes recommend removing the outer leaves from Brussels Sprouts. I understand why'd you remove brown or damaged leaves but I've always thought the leaves that just fall off are perfectly fine to eat. Any advice appreciated.
2014/04/06
[ "https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/43319", "https://cooking.stackexchange.com", "https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/4030/" ]
The ones that fall off because you've accidentally trimmed off too much stem are fine to cook, although likely to overcook when treated the same as full size sprouts.
finely chop some bacon and toss in the pan. When bacon is about finished toss in the extra leaves to cook down sightly. Not the healthiest of servings but a fantastic flavor! Or mince bacon and leaves and ad to a dip for a festive holiday piece of happiness.
40,741
In Norway, the strongest liquor allowed to buy is 60% (120proof?). I try to flambé my Crème Brûlée as suggested in [Can I make Crème Brûlée using a flambé?](https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/7345/can-i-make-creme-brulee-using-a-flambe). Problem is that my tests on a pre-made chocolate pudding with the 60% alcohol still leaves too much water. So for a newbie in flambé, is there a way to prevent all this water? Do I use too much alcohol ? Or might the access water come from seeping from the pudding in addition to what is coming from the alcohol residues, meaning it wont be a problem when doing it with a properly made Crème Brûlée?
2013/12/31
[ "https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/40741", "https://cooking.stackexchange.com", "https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/22206/" ]
It's been a long time since I actually did this, but my recollection is that the result **will** leave some residual water. It's not an ideal environment for a flambé, but that's OK because you're not actually trying to cook with it, it's more of a show technique that generates just enough heat to produce a caramel-like texture from ground-up caramelized sugar. Some pointers that might help you here: * Don't overdo it with the alcohol. You want to use a very small amount - just a splash. * Make sure the alcohol is hot enough before you try to ignite it. Make sure that it is a uniform temperature, and that you're not just igniting the surface. * **Work quickly**. If too much of the alcohol burns up while you're working, then you are essentially dumping water in, and there might not be enough heat to melt the sugar powder. * Consider serving the crème brûlée closer to room temperature, or at least not as cold as fridge temperature. The colder it is, the quicker the fire will get doused and the more liquid will (probably) remain behind. * Custards are firmer than pudding to begin with, so "watering it down" shouldn't be a huge concern. * It's a bit of a cop-out, but I want to say, *don't worry*. If it's *good* alcohol then nobody's going to mind a bit of a film on the surface - it's part of the attraction! I remember this taking me several tries to get right, and probably wouldn't use the technique at all if I were serving to a particularly critical audience. It's more about getting a *passable* crème brûlée with some cool visual effects than getting a *perfect* crème brûlée with an impossible technique.
I think you may be confusing the flambe method with the traditional method of making Creme Brulee, which is done using a blow torch, not alcohol. Have you considered using a propane torch? These can usually be purchased at hardware stores, with a small tank of propane, for not much money. Then you can melt and caramelize the sugar on top of your custards without alcohol.
27,483
In Genesis 19 (NRSV), > > 30 Now Lot went up out of Zoar and settled in the hills with his two daughters, for he was afraid to stay in Zoar; so he lived in a cave with his two daughters. 31 And the firstborn said to the younger, “Our father is old, and there is not a man on **earth** to come in to us after the manner of **all the world**. 32 Come, let us make our father drink wine, and we will lie with him, so that we may preserve offspring through our father. > > > "Earth" refers only to the place in which they now living in which is the mountain in contrast to the areas outside the mountain which had been referred to by "all the world". Simply, why were the daughters of Lot reluctant to search for husbands outside the mountain?
2017/03/23
[ "https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/27483", "https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com", "https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/19004/" ]
The confusion in this story is caused by the NRSV's overly literal translation methodology and its under adherence to that methodology in verse 31. So there are **two** problems with the translation. The first problem is that the Hebrew idiom דרך כל הארץ, which the NRSV translates as "the manner of all the world", is a Hebrew euphemism for sexual relations.1 Because the word "world" in this verse is used in a euphemism that stands on its own, independent of the verse, it has no relation to, and does not contrast with, modify or limit the prior "earth". In fact, what Lot's daughters intend to say is that there are no men left in the entire world to have relations with them so that they will bear children. The second problem with the NRSV translation is that it uses two different words, "earth" and "world" to translate the **same** Hebrew word, ארץ ("aretz"), that is used in **both** instances. This variation in translation sets the stage for the misunderstanding. In understanding this verse it is important to consider the narrative. Nothing in the preceding narrative indicates that Lot and his daughters are anything but righteous. There is an assumed stricture on incest, but up to this point in the text no explicit prohibition. There **is** an explicit command in Genesis 1:28 and in Genesis 9:7 to be fruitful and multiply. So in the narrative of this verse we can only assume that Lot's daughters would not have done what they did unless they were convinced that there was no other choice in order to fulfill the commandment, i.e. that there were no other men anywhere who could father children. The NIV attempts to address the translation problem in this verse by **both** rendering the meaning of the idiom and translating the idiom literally: > > One day the older daughter said to the younger, "Our father is old, and there is no man around here to give us children--as is the custom all over the earth. > > > The NLT chooses to render the idiom and forfeits the literal translation: > > One day the older daughter said to her sister, "There are no men left anywhere in this entire area, so we can't get married like everyone else. And our father will soon be too old to have children. > > > The ISV **both** defeats the euphemistic intent of the idiom **and** renders the idom literally (!) > > One day the firstborn told the younger one, "Our father is old, and there's no man in the land to have sex with us, as everybody else throughout all the earth does. > > > --- 1. The Masoretic text on which the NRSV is based uses euphemisms and "clean language" in all except one instance when referring to sexual acts.
Good question. In Genesis 13:10 we get some context of the geography > > And Lot lifted up his eyes, and beheld all the plain of Jordan, that it was well watered every where, before the LORD destroyed Sodom and Gomorrah, even as the garden of the LORD, like the land of Egypt, as thou comest unto Zoar. > > > So Zoar was part of the plain of Jordan. In Genesis 19:29 > > And it came to pass, when God destroyed the cities of the plain, that God remembered Abraham, and sent Lot out of the midst of the overthrow, when he overthrew the cities in the which Lot dwelt. > > > So Abraham asked, and God agreed and sent Lot out of Sodom. He sent Him to a small city and named it Zoar. Then Gen. 19:29 God sends Lot out of the cities in which he dwelt again. Then Gen. 19:30 > > And Lot went up out of Zoar, and dwelt in the mountain, and his two daughters with him; for he feared to dwell in Zoar: and he dwelt in a cave, he and his two daughters. > > > So they were in the caves of the mountain, of course afraid to leave because God's outside destroying cities. This is why Lot's eldest daughter says in Gen. 19:31 > > And the firstborn said unto the younger, Our father is old, and there is not a man in the earth to come in unto us after the manner of all the earth: > > > So why were they reluctant to go outside the mountain to seek a husband? Because they'd been moved out of at least two cities Sodom and Zoar those cities were then destroyed by God. So as far as they were concerned there wasn't anyone left to go find, and if there were they would be running the risk of entering a city that might soon be destroyed by God.
27,483
In Genesis 19 (NRSV), > > 30 Now Lot went up out of Zoar and settled in the hills with his two daughters, for he was afraid to stay in Zoar; so he lived in a cave with his two daughters. 31 And the firstborn said to the younger, “Our father is old, and there is not a man on **earth** to come in to us after the manner of **all the world**. 32 Come, let us make our father drink wine, and we will lie with him, so that we may preserve offspring through our father. > > > "Earth" refers only to the place in which they now living in which is the mountain in contrast to the areas outside the mountain which had been referred to by "all the world". Simply, why were the daughters of Lot reluctant to search for husbands outside the mountain?
2017/03/23
[ "https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/27483", "https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com", "https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/19004/" ]
The confusion in this story is caused by the NRSV's overly literal translation methodology and its under adherence to that methodology in verse 31. So there are **two** problems with the translation. The first problem is that the Hebrew idiom דרך כל הארץ, which the NRSV translates as "the manner of all the world", is a Hebrew euphemism for sexual relations.1 Because the word "world" in this verse is used in a euphemism that stands on its own, independent of the verse, it has no relation to, and does not contrast with, modify or limit the prior "earth". In fact, what Lot's daughters intend to say is that there are no men left in the entire world to have relations with them so that they will bear children. The second problem with the NRSV translation is that it uses two different words, "earth" and "world" to translate the **same** Hebrew word, ארץ ("aretz"), that is used in **both** instances. This variation in translation sets the stage for the misunderstanding. In understanding this verse it is important to consider the narrative. Nothing in the preceding narrative indicates that Lot and his daughters are anything but righteous. There is an assumed stricture on incest, but up to this point in the text no explicit prohibition. There **is** an explicit command in Genesis 1:28 and in Genesis 9:7 to be fruitful and multiply. So in the narrative of this verse we can only assume that Lot's daughters would not have done what they did unless they were convinced that there was no other choice in order to fulfill the commandment, i.e. that there were no other men anywhere who could father children. The NIV attempts to address the translation problem in this verse by **both** rendering the meaning of the idiom and translating the idiom literally: > > One day the older daughter said to the younger, "Our father is old, and there is no man around here to give us children--as is the custom all over the earth. > > > The NLT chooses to render the idiom and forfeits the literal translation: > > One day the older daughter said to her sister, "There are no men left anywhere in this entire area, so we can't get married like everyone else. And our father will soon be too old to have children. > > > The ISV **both** defeats the euphemistic intent of the idiom **and** renders the idom literally (!) > > One day the firstborn told the younger one, "Our father is old, and there's no man in the land to have sex with us, as everybody else throughout all the earth does. > > > --- 1. The Masoretic text on which the NRSV is based uses euphemisms and "clean language" in all except one instance when referring to sexual acts.
If they thought it was okay then why the need to get their father so drunk that he didn’t know when they laid with him and when they left. Also remember.... the angel had to literally take them by their hands and drag them out of the city. I used to think they were righteous and that his wife was just being wistful. After a closer look though... I think they were saved just because of their relationship with Abraham. (If he had more than 2 married daughters then God wouldn’t have destroyed the cities) ( Lot, his wife, his 2 virgin daughters, at least 2 married daughter and their husbands.) That’s 8 that we would think would be righteous, another married daughter would give us 10. Maybe Lot and his family weren’t as righteous as we think.
27,483
In Genesis 19 (NRSV), > > 30 Now Lot went up out of Zoar and settled in the hills with his two daughters, for he was afraid to stay in Zoar; so he lived in a cave with his two daughters. 31 And the firstborn said to the younger, “Our father is old, and there is not a man on **earth** to come in to us after the manner of **all the world**. 32 Come, let us make our father drink wine, and we will lie with him, so that we may preserve offspring through our father. > > > "Earth" refers only to the place in which they now living in which is the mountain in contrast to the areas outside the mountain which had been referred to by "all the world". Simply, why were the daughters of Lot reluctant to search for husbands outside the mountain?
2017/03/23
[ "https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/27483", "https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com", "https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/19004/" ]
The confusion in this story is caused by the NRSV's overly literal translation methodology and its under adherence to that methodology in verse 31. So there are **two** problems with the translation. The first problem is that the Hebrew idiom דרך כל הארץ, which the NRSV translates as "the manner of all the world", is a Hebrew euphemism for sexual relations.1 Because the word "world" in this verse is used in a euphemism that stands on its own, independent of the verse, it has no relation to, and does not contrast with, modify or limit the prior "earth". In fact, what Lot's daughters intend to say is that there are no men left in the entire world to have relations with them so that they will bear children. The second problem with the NRSV translation is that it uses two different words, "earth" and "world" to translate the **same** Hebrew word, ארץ ("aretz"), that is used in **both** instances. This variation in translation sets the stage for the misunderstanding. In understanding this verse it is important to consider the narrative. Nothing in the preceding narrative indicates that Lot and his daughters are anything but righteous. There is an assumed stricture on incest, but up to this point in the text no explicit prohibition. There **is** an explicit command in Genesis 1:28 and in Genesis 9:7 to be fruitful and multiply. So in the narrative of this verse we can only assume that Lot's daughters would not have done what they did unless they were convinced that there was no other choice in order to fulfill the commandment, i.e. that there were no other men anywhere who could father children. The NIV attempts to address the translation problem in this verse by **both** rendering the meaning of the idiom and translating the idiom literally: > > One day the older daughter said to the younger, "Our father is old, and there is no man around here to give us children--as is the custom all over the earth. > > > The NLT chooses to render the idiom and forfeits the literal translation: > > One day the older daughter said to her sister, "There are no men left anywhere in this entire area, so we can't get married like everyone else. And our father will soon be too old to have children. > > > The ISV **both** defeats the euphemistic intent of the idiom **and** renders the idom literally (!) > > One day the firstborn told the younger one, "Our father is old, and there's no man in the land to have sex with us, as everybody else throughout all the earth does. > > > --- 1. The Masoretic text on which the NRSV is based uses euphemisms and "clean language" in all except one instance when referring to sexual acts.
There are various explanations for Lot's daughters unwillingness to look elsewhere to continue their lineage: * Not that they imagined the whole human race to have perished in the destruction of the valley of Siddim, but because they were afraid that no man would link himself with them, the only survivors of a country smitten by the curse of God. (Keil and Delitzsch) * [They knew] that the whole world did lie in wickedness, and having possibly heard from their father, that the world, as it was once destroyed by water, so it should afterwards be consumed by fire. (Mattew Poole) * there were no more godly men with whom they might marry. (Knobel) *Above citations from Comparative Commentaries on Genesis at [Biblehub.com](https://biblehub.com/commentaries/genesis/19-31.htm)* We should also consider that even though the OP insists otherwise, many commentators hold that "there is not a man in the earth" means literally not in the entire world (Origen, Irenaeus, Chrysostom, Kalisch). Finally critical scholars suggest that the text not be taken literally. It is meant as a derogatory origin-story to cast Israel's enemies as the descendants of incest. > > So they made their father drink wine that night also; and the younger > arose, and lay with him; and he did not know when she lay down or when > she arose. Thus both the daughters of Lot were with child by their > father. The first-born bore a son, and called his name Moab; he is the > father of the Moabites to this day. The younger also bore a son, and > called his name Ben-ammi; he is the father of the Ammonites to this > day. > > >
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I'm in the process of translating a book (scientific publication) for private use. If I ever decide to publish it: what is the procedure? Who is the right person to ask for publishing rights and translation approval? Two of three authors are deceased, and I still need to find out what is the situation with the third one. I'm translating from a Russian translation of the book (due to the unavailability of the original). If all three authors show up to be deceased - should I contact the original publisher(s) (since it was a joint publication by two companies) or the publisher of the version I'm translating (since one (the Poles) are holding the general, and the other (the Russians) are holding the Russian translation rights)? Furthermore, the Russian publisher went out of business (Mir Moscow).
2012/07/25
[ "https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/6118", "https://writers.stackexchange.com", "https://writers.stackexchange.com/users/3900/" ]
Use the simple past, if you're describing events of the day. An excerpt by Lewis Carroll: > > July 4, 1862 > > > I made an expedition up the river to Godstowe with the three Liddells, we had tea on the bank there, and did not reach Christ Church till half-past eight. ([source](http://www.victorianstation.com/authorcarroll.htm)) > > >
I found these responses very interesting and still relevant to this day, almost 8 years after the original posting. This is because I am finishing my own journal that I have started 22 years ago on the events that happened 23 year ago. It has been a puzzle to me what would be the best form to present it. Do I present as now in reflection or then as day-to-day entry or a hybrid of both? From what I have read, there is no fast or fixed rule in writing a journal, but rather the intent of the writer and the desired outcome of effect or impact from the writing. Hence, it makes sense to employ all the three tenses to fulfill these two goals. However, it is not so instinctively which tense is best unless you read and re-read the paragraph.
6,118
I'm in the process of translating a book (scientific publication) for private use. If I ever decide to publish it: what is the procedure? Who is the right person to ask for publishing rights and translation approval? Two of three authors are deceased, and I still need to find out what is the situation with the third one. I'm translating from a Russian translation of the book (due to the unavailability of the original). If all three authors show up to be deceased - should I contact the original publisher(s) (since it was a joint publication by two companies) or the publisher of the version I'm translating (since one (the Poles) are holding the general, and the other (the Russians) are holding the Russian translation rights)? Furthermore, the Russian publisher went out of business (Mir Moscow).
2012/07/25
[ "https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/6118", "https://writers.stackexchange.com", "https://writers.stackexchange.com/users/3900/" ]
Past tense is my instinct. Yet it depends on what you are writing and the writing's purpose. If it's an adventure story or something with more of a fast pace then clearly present tense might be best. "What was that? Rustling in the bushes nearby. Footsteps just beyond--sound like a person, a large person. I must move on. Now." That is more effective than: "Yesterday I discovered signs of a person having walked behind my trail during the night. I am being followed and better switch up my route." *The Blair Witch Project* versus an Aldo Leopold work.
You can use past or present tense but it depends on the author's purpose. In a diary, if someone will read it, use present tense to make the reader feel like are in the same situation. Otherwise, if it's personal, there's no rules needed to follow. Good Luck:)
6,118
I'm in the process of translating a book (scientific publication) for private use. If I ever decide to publish it: what is the procedure? Who is the right person to ask for publishing rights and translation approval? Two of three authors are deceased, and I still need to find out what is the situation with the third one. I'm translating from a Russian translation of the book (due to the unavailability of the original). If all three authors show up to be deceased - should I contact the original publisher(s) (since it was a joint publication by two companies) or the publisher of the version I'm translating (since one (the Poles) are holding the general, and the other (the Russians) are holding the Russian translation rights)? Furthermore, the Russian publisher went out of business (Mir Moscow).
2012/07/25
[ "https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/6118", "https://writers.stackexchange.com", "https://writers.stackexchange.com/users/3900/" ]
Past tense is my instinct. Yet it depends on what you are writing and the writing's purpose. If it's an adventure story or something with more of a fast pace then clearly present tense might be best. "What was that? Rustling in the bushes nearby. Footsteps just beyond--sound like a person, a large person. I must move on. Now." That is more effective than: "Yesterday I discovered signs of a person having walked behind my trail during the night. I am being followed and better switch up my route." *The Blair Witch Project* versus an Aldo Leopold work.
Are you planning on sharing this with anyone else or is it just for you? If it is just for you then write what comes naturally to you and what feels comfortable at the moment. It is after all your innermost feelings and your tense may change from entry to entry depending on your mood. Personally there is no way I would be able to write a diary entry if I had to force myself to stick to any type of rules.
6,118
I'm in the process of translating a book (scientific publication) for private use. If I ever decide to publish it: what is the procedure? Who is the right person to ask for publishing rights and translation approval? Two of three authors are deceased, and I still need to find out what is the situation with the third one. I'm translating from a Russian translation of the book (due to the unavailability of the original). If all three authors show up to be deceased - should I contact the original publisher(s) (since it was a joint publication by two companies) or the publisher of the version I'm translating (since one (the Poles) are holding the general, and the other (the Russians) are holding the Russian translation rights)? Furthermore, the Russian publisher went out of business (Mir Moscow).
2012/07/25
[ "https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/6118", "https://writers.stackexchange.com", "https://writers.stackexchange.com/users/3900/" ]
Past tense is my instinct. Yet it depends on what you are writing and the writing's purpose. If it's an adventure story or something with more of a fast pace then clearly present tense might be best. "What was that? Rustling in the bushes nearby. Footsteps just beyond--sound like a person, a large person. I must move on. Now." That is more effective than: "Yesterday I discovered signs of a person having walked behind my trail during the night. I am being followed and better switch up my route." *The Blair Witch Project* versus an Aldo Leopold work.
Use the simple past, if you're describing events of the day. An excerpt by Lewis Carroll: > > July 4, 1862 > > > I made an expedition up the river to Godstowe with the three Liddells, we had tea on the bank there, and did not reach Christ Church till half-past eight. ([source](http://www.victorianstation.com/authorcarroll.htm)) > > >
6,118
I'm in the process of translating a book (scientific publication) for private use. If I ever decide to publish it: what is the procedure? Who is the right person to ask for publishing rights and translation approval? Two of three authors are deceased, and I still need to find out what is the situation with the third one. I'm translating from a Russian translation of the book (due to the unavailability of the original). If all three authors show up to be deceased - should I contact the original publisher(s) (since it was a joint publication by two companies) or the publisher of the version I'm translating (since one (the Poles) are holding the general, and the other (the Russians) are holding the Russian translation rights)? Furthermore, the Russian publisher went out of business (Mir Moscow).
2012/07/25
[ "https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/6118", "https://writers.stackexchange.com", "https://writers.stackexchange.com/users/3900/" ]
I find these answers interesting because to me, a *diary* is a place you confess your innermost thoughts, while a *journal* is something you write in every day to talk about what you did. (note the *jour-* root, meaning "day") That having been said, if I'm reporting on what I did today, or yesterday, I'd use past tense, because it's something I *did*. But if I'm using the writing as a way to work out my thoughts or emotions, I'd use present tense, because it's something I *feel*, which is still ongoing.
It all depends on you. You can use the present tense to give an effect of continuation, for example: Wed June 8th- "The alarm clock rings. I wake up and groggily shake off the vestiges of sleep. My eyes slowly focus on the surroundings. ....." and so on. You can continue in the same tense for the next day to get that continuation effect. You can also switch to past tense in between to describe events such as "I decided to visit Anna today. She has been expecting me for a while now."
6,118
I'm in the process of translating a book (scientific publication) for private use. If I ever decide to publish it: what is the procedure? Who is the right person to ask for publishing rights and translation approval? Two of three authors are deceased, and I still need to find out what is the situation with the third one. I'm translating from a Russian translation of the book (due to the unavailability of the original). If all three authors show up to be deceased - should I contact the original publisher(s) (since it was a joint publication by two companies) or the publisher of the version I'm translating (since one (the Poles) are holding the general, and the other (the Russians) are holding the Russian translation rights)? Furthermore, the Russian publisher went out of business (Mir Moscow).
2012/07/25
[ "https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/6118", "https://writers.stackexchange.com", "https://writers.stackexchange.com/users/3900/" ]
It's a unique mix of past and present with future occasionally thrown in - while normal novels are almost universally written "from viewpoint after the end of the book" which means they will be completely "past", each journal entry describes very recent events - many of them ongoing or stretching into the future relative to the entry. > > John left. We had a terrible argument and he said he's tired of dealing with my crap. Now I'm sitting on my bed and crying. I've been calling him for past hour, and now I'm trying again, and the phone still doesn't answer. I will keep trying until he replies or until I'm too tired to continue. > > >
It all depends on you. You can use the present tense to give an effect of continuation, for example: Wed June 8th- "The alarm clock rings. I wake up and groggily shake off the vestiges of sleep. My eyes slowly focus on the surroundings. ....." and so on. You can continue in the same tense for the next day to get that continuation effect. You can also switch to past tense in between to describe events such as "I decided to visit Anna today. She has been expecting me for a while now."
6,118
I'm in the process of translating a book (scientific publication) for private use. If I ever decide to publish it: what is the procedure? Who is the right person to ask for publishing rights and translation approval? Two of three authors are deceased, and I still need to find out what is the situation with the third one. I'm translating from a Russian translation of the book (due to the unavailability of the original). If all three authors show up to be deceased - should I contact the original publisher(s) (since it was a joint publication by two companies) or the publisher of the version I'm translating (since one (the Poles) are holding the general, and the other (the Russians) are holding the Russian translation rights)? Furthermore, the Russian publisher went out of business (Mir Moscow).
2012/07/25
[ "https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/6118", "https://writers.stackexchange.com", "https://writers.stackexchange.com/users/3900/" ]
Past tense is my instinct. Yet it depends on what you are writing and the writing's purpose. If it's an adventure story or something with more of a fast pace then clearly present tense might be best. "What was that? Rustling in the bushes nearby. Footsteps just beyond--sound like a person, a large person. I must move on. Now." That is more effective than: "Yesterday I discovered signs of a person having walked behind my trail during the night. I am being followed and better switch up my route." *The Blair Witch Project* versus an Aldo Leopold work.
I found these responses very interesting and still relevant to this day, almost 8 years after the original posting. This is because I am finishing my own journal that I have started 22 years ago on the events that happened 23 year ago. It has been a puzzle to me what would be the best form to present it. Do I present as now in reflection or then as day-to-day entry or a hybrid of both? From what I have read, there is no fast or fixed rule in writing a journal, but rather the intent of the writer and the desired outcome of effect or impact from the writing. Hence, it makes sense to employ all the three tenses to fulfill these two goals. However, it is not so instinctively which tense is best unless you read and re-read the paragraph.
6,118
I'm in the process of translating a book (scientific publication) for private use. If I ever decide to publish it: what is the procedure? Who is the right person to ask for publishing rights and translation approval? Two of three authors are deceased, and I still need to find out what is the situation with the third one. I'm translating from a Russian translation of the book (due to the unavailability of the original). If all three authors show up to be deceased - should I contact the original publisher(s) (since it was a joint publication by two companies) or the publisher of the version I'm translating (since one (the Poles) are holding the general, and the other (the Russians) are holding the Russian translation rights)? Furthermore, the Russian publisher went out of business (Mir Moscow).
2012/07/25
[ "https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/6118", "https://writers.stackexchange.com", "https://writers.stackexchange.com/users/3900/" ]
Use the simple past, if you're describing events of the day. An excerpt by Lewis Carroll: > > July 4, 1862 > > > I made an expedition up the river to Godstowe with the three Liddells, we had tea on the bank there, and did not reach Christ Church till half-past eight. ([source](http://www.victorianstation.com/authorcarroll.htm)) > > >
I find these answers interesting because to me, a *diary* is a place you confess your innermost thoughts, while a *journal* is something you write in every day to talk about what you did. (note the *jour-* root, meaning "day") That having been said, if I'm reporting on what I did today, or yesterday, I'd use past tense, because it's something I *did*. But if I'm using the writing as a way to work out my thoughts or emotions, I'd use present tense, because it's something I *feel*, which is still ongoing.
6,118
I'm in the process of translating a book (scientific publication) for private use. If I ever decide to publish it: what is the procedure? Who is the right person to ask for publishing rights and translation approval? Two of three authors are deceased, and I still need to find out what is the situation with the third one. I'm translating from a Russian translation of the book (due to the unavailability of the original). If all three authors show up to be deceased - should I contact the original publisher(s) (since it was a joint publication by two companies) or the publisher of the version I'm translating (since one (the Poles) are holding the general, and the other (the Russians) are holding the Russian translation rights)? Furthermore, the Russian publisher went out of business (Mir Moscow).
2012/07/25
[ "https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/6118", "https://writers.stackexchange.com", "https://writers.stackexchange.com/users/3900/" ]
It's a unique mix of past and present with future occasionally thrown in - while normal novels are almost universally written "from viewpoint after the end of the book" which means they will be completely "past", each journal entry describes very recent events - many of them ongoing or stretching into the future relative to the entry. > > John left. We had a terrible argument and he said he's tired of dealing with my crap. Now I'm sitting on my bed and crying. I've been calling him for past hour, and now I'm trying again, and the phone still doesn't answer. I will keep trying until he replies or until I'm too tired to continue. > > >
You can use past or present tense but it depends on the author's purpose. In a diary, if someone will read it, use present tense to make the reader feel like are in the same situation. Otherwise, if it's personal, there's no rules needed to follow. Good Luck:)
6,118
I'm in the process of translating a book (scientific publication) for private use. If I ever decide to publish it: what is the procedure? Who is the right person to ask for publishing rights and translation approval? Two of three authors are deceased, and I still need to find out what is the situation with the third one. I'm translating from a Russian translation of the book (due to the unavailability of the original). If all three authors show up to be deceased - should I contact the original publisher(s) (since it was a joint publication by two companies) or the publisher of the version I'm translating (since one (the Poles) are holding the general, and the other (the Russians) are holding the Russian translation rights)? Furthermore, the Russian publisher went out of business (Mir Moscow).
2012/07/25
[ "https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/6118", "https://writers.stackexchange.com", "https://writers.stackexchange.com/users/3900/" ]
Are you planning on sharing this with anyone else or is it just for you? If it is just for you then write what comes naturally to you and what feels comfortable at the moment. It is after all your innermost feelings and your tense may change from entry to entry depending on your mood. Personally there is no way I would be able to write a diary entry if I had to force myself to stick to any type of rules.
You can use past or present tense but it depends on the author's purpose. In a diary, if someone will read it, use present tense to make the reader feel like are in the same situation. Otherwise, if it's personal, there's no rules needed to follow. Good Luck:)
2,631
Is there any way to view the number of users online at any given time (or even an approximation)? This could be really useful to provide an indication of whether your question is likely to get answered any time soon. It could also provide a bit of an indication for why your question is getting very low views - if there are only a few users online, then that could be the reason for little interest in a question, whereas if there are lots of users online and the question still doesn't garner many views, then maybe it needs to be rephrased or something. I know that this can't be used definitively, but it could be used as a rough guide, and could also just be an item of interest. Perhaps it could show the number of users that have been seen in the past 5 / 10 minutes? (Shouldn't be too hard, since each user page already shows the last time that they were seen).
2009/07/06
[ "https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/2631", "https://meta.stackexchange.com", "https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/130088/" ]
It has been mentioned again and again that StackOverflow is not a place for deadlines. Any questions that you need answered with any degree of immediacy do not belong here. We do not want 'strategic' asking of questions. One of the instantaneous results will be that the low times will get fewer and fewer questions, and the high times will get more and more. Instead of having a gradual wave of questions appear, there will be a sharp influx of questions that appear around the time that the number of users increases. This will serve to reinforce itself and eventually create an insanely high load on the servers at the 'busy time' and then there will be no users on the rest of the time. The end result of that, of course, is that during the high times the volume of questions generated will be so enormous that it cannot be coherently followed (thereby making your question more likely to be buried), and it will cause a decrease in the quality of the answers on the site. Obviously that is simply a negative look on the resulting scenario, but on the other hand, there aren't really any positive aspects except the curiosity part. On the other hand, since humans instinctively react to information they receive, there is no way to stop people from changing their behaviour based on this. So, I'm against it.
But there are so many more details available why limit yourself to just the number of people on? :) How about the number of on-line users who have been active in the area your questions is in? Or take this further to show how many of these users have high rep through actually answering a lot of questions?
2,631
Is there any way to view the number of users online at any given time (or even an approximation)? This could be really useful to provide an indication of whether your question is likely to get answered any time soon. It could also provide a bit of an indication for why your question is getting very low views - if there are only a few users online, then that could be the reason for little interest in a question, whereas if there are lots of users online and the question still doesn't garner many views, then maybe it needs to be rephrased or something. I know that this can't be used definitively, but it could be used as a rough guide, and could also just be an item of interest. Perhaps it could show the number of users that have been seen in the past 5 / 10 minutes? (Shouldn't be too hard, since each user page already shows the last time that they were seen).
2009/07/06
[ "https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/2631", "https://meta.stackexchange.com", "https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/130088/" ]
We do that for Chat, but it makes sense for chat: how many people are talking in real-time? It makes less sense for a Q&A site; while it may appear to operate in real-time, it doesn't, really. Each post stands on its own, and participants for each post come and go as they please. The number of participants to the site overall is not really a relevant detail, from this perspective. The focus for a Q&A site is, and always should be, on the post, not on the participants.
But there are so many more details available why limit yourself to just the number of people on? :) How about the number of on-line users who have been active in the area your questions is in? Or take this further to show how many of these users have high rep through actually answering a lot of questions?
171,319
Is there any easy and safe way to convert the high voltage AC (60Hz, 10kV, such as the voltage on the overhead line) to 5V DC that can be used to power up a micro controller (around 1W power)? We do have a ground in the AC system. What is the easiest way? Are there any COTS products or components available?
2015/05/19
[ "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/171319", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/76327/" ]
The answer is economy. The optimal processes for CPU and RAM are different, so when both are on the same chip some compromise must be found. For a small chip (not that much RAM) this does not hurt so much, less than adding an external RAM and using a lot of IO pins to interface to it. For a large RAM (currently the switchover seems to be at ~ 100Kb) it makes more sense to put the CPU and RAM on different chips. Making large RAMs is a very specialized high-volume buisiness, so better use what is there in the market than developm a new chip. The RAM you link to is PC-style DDR3 dynamic RAM module. Such a module has a specific interface which is not compatible with the (old) standard address-lines + data-lines + control bus found on most MCU's. I think you would need a glue chip (bridge) to make such a connection. And yes, engineers read the specs and make the wiring (including anyb glue chips needed, power supply things, careful timing etc.) This might sound simple but it is not.
DRAM modules need a memory controller in order to both trigger refreshes and arbitrate access. That controller comes at a cost in wafer real estate, power consumption, and pin count. SRAM modules do exist, but lose out to DRAM on both capacity (SRAM cells need 6 transistors versus DRAM's one transistor and one capacitor) and economy (lower demand = higher cost). But they're much easier to interface with, and almost every MCU family has at least one device with a simple external memory bus.
171,319
Is there any easy and safe way to convert the high voltage AC (60Hz, 10kV, such as the voltage on the overhead line) to 5V DC that can be used to power up a micro controller (around 1W power)? We do have a ground in the AC system. What is the easiest way? Are there any COTS products or components available?
2015/05/19
[ "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/171319", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/76327/" ]
DRAM modules need a memory controller in order to both trigger refreshes and arbitrate access. That controller comes at a cost in wafer real estate, power consumption, and pin count. SRAM modules do exist, but lose out to DRAM on both capacity (SRAM cells need 6 transistors versus DRAM's one transistor and one capacitor) and economy (lower demand = higher cost). But they're much easier to interface with, and almost every MCU family has at least one device with a simple external memory bus.
At 2GB, that's ceased to be "micro" (in the present day). There are plenty of phones shipping with less than that. Are you sure you really have 2Gb of live data? Can you swap it out to Flash? What on earth is it doing? Have a look at [What is a good choice for an ARM to interface with external memory?](https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/3126/what-is-a-good-choice-for-an-arm-to-interface-with-external-memory) - but I think your best option is to get a single-board computer of some sort. You *can* get SoCs with DRAM interfaces. They will tend to be unavailable in small quantities and in BGA packages.
171,319
Is there any easy and safe way to convert the high voltage AC (60Hz, 10kV, such as the voltage on the overhead line) to 5V DC that can be used to power up a micro controller (around 1W power)? We do have a ground in the AC system. What is the easiest way? Are there any COTS products or components available?
2015/05/19
[ "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/171319", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/76327/" ]
The answer is economy. The optimal processes for CPU and RAM are different, so when both are on the same chip some compromise must be found. For a small chip (not that much RAM) this does not hurt so much, less than adding an external RAM and using a lot of IO pins to interface to it. For a large RAM (currently the switchover seems to be at ~ 100Kb) it makes more sense to put the CPU and RAM on different chips. Making large RAMs is a very specialized high-volume buisiness, so better use what is there in the market than developm a new chip. The RAM you link to is PC-style DDR3 dynamic RAM module. Such a module has a specific interface which is not compatible with the (old) standard address-lines + data-lines + control bus found on most MCU's. I think you would need a glue chip (bridge) to make such a connection. And yes, engineers read the specs and make the wiring (including anyb glue chips needed, power supply things, careful timing etc.) This might sound simple but it is not.
At 2GB, that's ceased to be "micro" (in the present day). There are plenty of phones shipping with less than that. Are you sure you really have 2Gb of live data? Can you swap it out to Flash? What on earth is it doing? Have a look at [What is a good choice for an ARM to interface with external memory?](https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/3126/what-is-a-good-choice-for-an-arm-to-interface-with-external-memory) - but I think your best option is to get a single-board computer of some sort. You *can* get SoCs with DRAM interfaces. They will tend to be unavailable in small quantities and in BGA packages.
18,709
I have a MacBook Pro 2.4 GHz Core 2 Duo (Pre-unibody) running Snow Leopard that fails to stay in sleep mode when the battery is run down to 0%. This problem just started a month ago. The battery is new. It runs down fine and I get a warning when the reserve battery kicks in at 10%, but when it reaches 0, it goes into sleep mode for about 1 second and then dies. When I boot back up, it tries to recover but fails and then just reboots as normal. I tried recalibrating the battery and I also tried resetting the PMU but to no avail. If anyone has any ideas, I'm open to suggestions.
2011/07/26
[ "https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/18709", "https://apple.stackexchange.com", "https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/8384/" ]
You may need to recalibrate for the new battery. Use the computer until you get the warning message. Then, shut down and plug it in. Let it charge fully before you turn it back on. Doing this will allow the system to calibrate for the new battery so that it can more accurately tell how much charge is remaining, which could help if it thinks the battery will last longer than it does.
The notebook is supposed to enter into safesleep mode once it goes to sleep with less than 10% battery remaining. It records everything to hard drive and fully powers down so it doesn't use more battery power keeping the memory alive. However in your case it doesn't have enough energy left to spin the hard drive up and record everything. In fact, if you've only been browsing, or reading, the hard drive might not have even been on while you've been using it - and suddenly it spins up, spikes the power consumption while writing the memory to the drive, and then shuts down due to low voltage. You can try the calibration routine with one modification: when you get the 10% warning, put it to sleep and let it sleep for 5 or more hours. Then plug it in before you wake it up. If the calibration routine still isn't working properly, I suggest you take the laptop and new battery to the genius bar, discharged to 10% so they can run it down there, and let them handle it. They'll either get it to calibrate, or they'll replace the battery if it's a new Apple battery. This shouldn't be happening, so don't hesitate to have them support you. If you're out of warranty, or you're using a third-party battery, then you might try applications such as <http://www.axoniclabs.com/DeepSleep/> which force the laptop to go into safesleep mode (hibernate) rather than sleep mode. If you are using a third party replacement battery, talk to their technical support. It's obviously not fully compatible with your laptop if it's not calibrating correctly. It could be that it will never calibrate if they've skimped on the smarts inside the battery. If nothing else works and you can't afford to repair the laptop or battery once the genius bar tells you what's wrong, don't keep using it once it gives you the 10% warning. Put it to sleep until you can charge it, and repair the laptop or replace the battery when you can get to it.
3,465
As we have heard in the summaries of the human ENCODE project, **80 per cent of junk DNA appears to have an essential function**. Many fish have a genome with only one tenth the size of a usual vertebrate genome. Why can fish have 1/10th of junk DNA and be still fully functional? What has a frog more than a fish has? I'm especially interested if we can see the difference somewhere, complexity of physiology or anatomy, or such. Jap. puffer fish genome: 390 Megabases, 47,800-49,000 genes (UniProt) Medaka genome: 690 Megabases, 24,600 genes Clawed frog: 1,500 Megabases, 23,500 genes
2012/09/07
[ "https://biology.stackexchange.com/questions/3465", "https://biology.stackexchange.com", "https://biology.stackexchange.com/users/1122/" ]
Genome size is a poor indicator of an organism's *complexity* (already an ill-defined term). We cannot assume by any means that a larger genome corresponds to a more "complex" organism. There are some plants whose genomes are larger than most mammals, and indeed [the largest eukaryotic genome](http://dx.doi.org/10.1111/j.1095-8339.2010.01072.x) (at least as of 2010) is the plant *Paris japonica*, weighing in at 1C = 152.23 pg (compared to *Homo sapiens* at 1C = 3 pg). Anecdotally, in my previous research lab I discussed with a colleague a fungal species whose genome size differed *by orders of magnitude* between different individuals of that species. It should *never* surprise you to see an organism with a larger genome size than what you may consider to be a more complex organism.
See [here](http://genomeinformatician.blogspot.co.uk/2012/09/encode-my-own-thoughts.html) for an ENCODE author's reflections on their use of the word "functional". (I don't think anyone is using the word "essential".) It is clear from this that, for them, one class of functional DNA is intronic DNA: i.e. introns are defined by ENCODE as functional DNA. It is well known that puffer fish have reduced genomes and that this is largely due to the presence of much smaller introns, although the number and positioning of these introns is broadly similar to what is seen in other vertebrates. One classic example of this is the huntingtin gene which is 7.5 times shorter in pufferfish than in humans even though both genes have 67 introns. In fact the average fish genome size is 5-6 times bigger than that for pufferfish (zebrafish is around this average value). Although ENCODE are defining intronic DNA as functional I don't think that they are claiming a specific function for each and every intron, let alone each base in those introns. So there is still a lot of scope for the observed differences in genome size.
5,694
I asked my self this simple question while reading ["Comment Abuse Classification with Deep Learning"](https://web.stanford.edu/class/cs224n/reports/2762092.pdf) by Chu and Jue. Indeed, they say at the end of the that > > *It is clear that RNNs, specifically LSTMs, and CNNs are state-of-the-art architectures for sentiment analysis* > > > To my mind CNNs were only neurons arranged so that they correspond to overlapping regions when paving the input field. It wasn't that recurrent at all.
2018/03/15
[ "https://ai.stackexchange.com/questions/5694", "https://ai.stackexchange.com", "https://ai.stackexchange.com/users/4738/" ]
You are right. I think you are just misinterpreting the part of the sentence ('specifically LSTMs'). LSTMs are an example of a popular type of RNN. RNNs and CNNs are different architectures but they can be used together. Here is another sentence with the same structure: > > It is clear than dogs, specifically corgis, and cats are very common in online memes. > > > [![A cat and a corgi](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Ztt5e.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Ztt5e.jpg)
Both CNN and RNN fall into the super set of neural networks,however applications of the two matters. So to branch them off in terms of applications, > > I would say CNN’s are mainly used for vision related applications, > whereas, RNN’s are mainly used for language processing applications. > > > You can refer to these links for further details. [Comparative Study of CNN and RNN for Natural Language Processing](https://arxiv.org/abs/1702.01923) [How are recurrent neural networks different from convolutional neural networks?](http://karpathy.github.io/2015/05/21/rnn-effectiveness/) *The unreasonable effectiveness of Recurrent Neural Networks* Hope this can give you a glimpse!
7,627
Every foundational system for mathematics I have ever read about has been a set theory, from ETCS to ZFC to NF. Are there any proposals for a foundational system which is not, in any sense, a set theory? Is there any alternative foundation which is not a set-theory?
2009/12/03
[ "https://mathoverflow.net/questions/7627", "https://mathoverflow.net", "https://mathoverflow.net/users/2266/" ]
To follow up further on Joel David Hamkins's answer on geometry, Frege’s last work (two despairing decades after Russell’s Paradox demolished his *Grundgesetze der Arithmetik*) was a brief unpublished paper entitled “Neuer Versuch der Grundlegun der Arithmetik,” based on geometry with “the final goal, the general complex numbers.” (As in the *Grundgesetze,* he emphasizes that real numbers are *ratios* of quantities, not quantities themselves.)
I know from the logical end there is plural quantification developed and expounded to some extent by Boolos, Lewis and others that sidesteps the whole issue of set and gives first order logic the ability to talk about set-like objects without resorting to set theory.
7,627
Every foundational system for mathematics I have ever read about has been a set theory, from ETCS to ZFC to NF. Are there any proposals for a foundational system which is not, in any sense, a set theory? Is there any alternative foundation which is not a set-theory?
2009/12/03
[ "https://mathoverflow.net/questions/7627", "https://mathoverflow.net", "https://mathoverflow.net/users/2266/" ]
Von Neumann wrote down a foundation where the basic objects are functions, not sets. But it was soon re-cast into an equivalent system with sets (and classes).
I know from the logical end there is plural quantification developed and expounded to some extent by Boolos, Lewis and others that sidesteps the whole issue of set and gives first order logic the ability to talk about set-like objects without resorting to set theory.
7,627
Every foundational system for mathematics I have ever read about has been a set theory, from ETCS to ZFC to NF. Are there any proposals for a foundational system which is not, in any sense, a set theory? Is there any alternative foundation which is not a set-theory?
2009/12/03
[ "https://mathoverflow.net/questions/7627", "https://mathoverflow.net", "https://mathoverflow.net/users/2266/" ]
Type theories form another class of foundations for mathematics, and are used in various places. For example, Martin-Löf type theory is a constructive foundation of mathematics, and a lot of constructive mathematics has been formulated in it. Type theories are used in some proof assistants, like Coq, and they have nice connections with various programming languages in computer science - look up languages with dependent types. I should also mention that type theories have a close relation with categories - "Introduction to higher order categorical logic" by Lambek and Scott connects various type theories and categories.
I know from the logical end there is plural quantification developed and expounded to some extent by Boolos, Lewis and others that sidesteps the whole issue of set and gives first order logic the ability to talk about set-like objects without resorting to set theory.
7,627
Every foundational system for mathematics I have ever read about has been a set theory, from ETCS to ZFC to NF. Are there any proposals for a foundational system which is not, in any sense, a set theory? Is there any alternative foundation which is not a set-theory?
2009/12/03
[ "https://mathoverflow.net/questions/7627", "https://mathoverflow.net", "https://mathoverflow.net/users/2266/" ]
Type theories form another class of foundations for mathematics, and are used in various places. For example, Martin-Löf type theory is a constructive foundation of mathematics, and a lot of constructive mathematics has been formulated in it. Type theories are used in some proof assistants, like Coq, and they have nice connections with various programming languages in computer science - look up languages with dependent types. I should also mention that type theories have a close relation with categories - "Introduction to higher order categorical logic" by Lambek and Scott connects various type theories and categories.
To follow up further on Joel David Hamkins's answer on geometry, Frege’s last work (two despairing decades after Russell’s Paradox demolished his *Grundgesetze der Arithmetik*) was a brief unpublished paper entitled “Neuer Versuch der Grundlegun der Arithmetik,” based on geometry with “the final goal, the general complex numbers.” (As in the *Grundgesetze,* he emphasizes that real numbers are *ratios* of quantities, not quantities themselves.)
7,627
Every foundational system for mathematics I have ever read about has been a set theory, from ETCS to ZFC to NF. Are there any proposals for a foundational system which is not, in any sense, a set theory? Is there any alternative foundation which is not a set-theory?
2009/12/03
[ "https://mathoverflow.net/questions/7627", "https://mathoverflow.net", "https://mathoverflow.net/users/2266/" ]
Bill Lawvere has suggested axiomatizing the category of categories as a foundation of mathematics, and there is no sense in which this could be thought of as a set theory. Colin McLarty is one person who has done some work on achieving such an axiomatization.
This was going to be a comment to Joel David Hamkins's answer on geometry, but it didn't fit. +1 This is one of the most clear-minded things I have read on MO. It does not make a mockery of Foundations and still says something non-obvious. I'm very skeptical of all this business with category theory being a foundation for mathematics. First, whenever anyone talks about it, it always seems to be somebody else's work. It's become something of a meme that "Bill Lawvere has proposals to provide foundations for math through category theory", but we don't ever see details provided. Second, are we really to understand that we are going to add small integers with arrows and diagrams? Draw circles and lines, and say that the latter meet at most once? I think people work in trans-Euclidean hyperschemes of infinite type so much, they forget that math includes these things. As Wittgenstein remarks in the Investigations, just because you can express A in terms of B, it does not mean that B actually underlies A.
7,627
Every foundational system for mathematics I have ever read about has been a set theory, from ETCS to ZFC to NF. Are there any proposals for a foundational system which is not, in any sense, a set theory? Is there any alternative foundation which is not a set-theory?
2009/12/03
[ "https://mathoverflow.net/questions/7627", "https://mathoverflow.net", "https://mathoverflow.net/users/2266/" ]
This may not satisfy the request for something that is "not, in any sense, a set theory" but Oliver Deiser has worked out two versions of foundations, one based on lists and one on multisets. This is in his book "Orte, Listen, Aggregate" (and his Habilitationsschrift with the same title).
To follow up further on Joel David Hamkins's answer on geometry, Frege’s last work (two despairing decades after Russell’s Paradox demolished his *Grundgesetze der Arithmetik*) was a brief unpublished paper entitled “Neuer Versuch der Grundlegun der Arithmetik,” based on geometry with “the final goal, the general complex numbers.” (As in the *Grundgesetze,* he emphasizes that real numbers are *ratios* of quantities, not quantities themselves.)
7,627
Every foundational system for mathematics I have ever read about has been a set theory, from ETCS to ZFC to NF. Are there any proposals for a foundational system which is not, in any sense, a set theory? Is there any alternative foundation which is not a set-theory?
2009/12/03
[ "https://mathoverflow.net/questions/7627", "https://mathoverflow.net", "https://mathoverflow.net/users/2266/" ]
Bill Lawvere has suggested axiomatizing the category of categories as a foundation of mathematics, and there is no sense in which this could be thought of as a set theory. Colin McLarty is one person who has done some work on achieving such an axiomatization.
This may not satisfy the request for something that is "not, in any sense, a set theory" but Oliver Deiser has worked out two versions of foundations, one based on lists and one on multisets. This is in his book "Orte, Listen, Aggregate" (and his Habilitationsschrift with the same title).
7,627
Every foundational system for mathematics I have ever read about has been a set theory, from ETCS to ZFC to NF. Are there any proposals for a foundational system which is not, in any sense, a set theory? Is there any alternative foundation which is not a set-theory?
2009/12/03
[ "https://mathoverflow.net/questions/7627", "https://mathoverflow.net", "https://mathoverflow.net/users/2266/" ]
Bill Lawvere has suggested axiomatizing the category of categories as a foundation of mathematics, and there is no sense in which this could be thought of as a set theory. Colin McLarty is one person who has done some work on achieving such an axiomatization.
I know from the logical end there is plural quantification developed and expounded to some extent by Boolos, Lewis and others that sidesteps the whole issue of set and gives first order logic the ability to talk about set-like objects without resorting to set theory.
7,627
Every foundational system for mathematics I have ever read about has been a set theory, from ETCS to ZFC to NF. Are there any proposals for a foundational system which is not, in any sense, a set theory? Is there any alternative foundation which is not a set-theory?
2009/12/03
[ "https://mathoverflow.net/questions/7627", "https://mathoverflow.net", "https://mathoverflow.net/users/2266/" ]
If we adopt a historical attitude, then there is an extremely good answer, namely, **Geometry**. For approximately two thousand years, (Euclidean) geometry was taken to be the foundation of all mathematics. Numbers were regarded as lengths of line segments; quadratic equations were regarded as expressing the relationship of the areas of certain geometrical figures. All mathematics was, at bottom, geometric. Of course, there were problems with this. For many ancient mathematicians, for example, it made as little sense to add the cube of a number to its square as it would to add a volume to an area. The [equals sign](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Equals_sign) was not introduced until 1557, and it is easy for contemporary mathematicians to lose sight of how differently the ancients thought about the mathematical objects they studied and wrote about. Newton, famously, was so great a mathematician that he was able to introduce the differential calculus in terms of the ancient geometrical reasoning, although we rarely conceive of his ideas that way today. Indeed, much of this kind of writing now appears alien to us.
I believe the lambda calculus was originally intended as a foundation for mathematics. More recently it seems that both category theory and type theory seem to be gaining support. Although, I think type theory (a la Martil-Löf) could be viewed as another variation on the set-theoretic theme.
7,627
Every foundational system for mathematics I have ever read about has been a set theory, from ETCS to ZFC to NF. Are there any proposals for a foundational system which is not, in any sense, a set theory? Is there any alternative foundation which is not a set-theory?
2009/12/03
[ "https://mathoverflow.net/questions/7627", "https://mathoverflow.net", "https://mathoverflow.net/users/2266/" ]
Type theories form another class of foundations for mathematics, and are used in various places. For example, Martin-Löf type theory is a constructive foundation of mathematics, and a lot of constructive mathematics has been formulated in it. Type theories are used in some proof assistants, like Coq, and they have nice connections with various programming languages in computer science - look up languages with dependent types. I should also mention that type theories have a close relation with categories - "Introduction to higher order categorical logic" by Lambek and Scott connects various type theories and categories.
This may not satisfy the request for something that is "not, in any sense, a set theory" but Oliver Deiser has worked out two versions of foundations, one based on lists and one on multisets. This is in his book "Orte, Listen, Aggregate" (and his Habilitationsschrift with the same title).
289,259
I'm currently a young, not-so-young mathematician, finishing its second postdoc. I developed an interest for rather different topics in the last few years but constantly, slowly converged towards something that has to do with (but at this point I'm quite unsure *is*) category theory and its applications. What motivated me in the study of mathematics back in the days was the desire to understand the mechanisms ruling algebraic topology; then the word "functor" came in, and I fell into the rabbit-hole. At this point most of you would expect I'm not unsatisfied with the shape category theory has nowadays: isn't a blurry mixture of homotopy theory and category theory precisely what I'm tackling? I'm instead profoundly disappointed by the drift that categorical thinking has taken in the last ten years or so. And this is because the more I dwell into what "higher category theory" and "formal homotopy theory" became, the less I like both of them (I will somewhat refer as both with the portmanteau term "HTT"; I hereby stress that this acronym has no particular meaning whatsoever): 1. It is still absolutely unclear what good is HTT for category theorists. To my eye, it is certainly a masterpiece of applied mathematics (in the sense that its tasks rest on the use of conceptualization as a tool, not as a target), but it doesn't seem to add a single grain of sand to the sea of category theory; instead, it re-does all the things you need to know to behave "as if" your *homotopy-things* were *things*, or to compactly bookkeep an infinite amount of data into a finite amount of space. These are honest practical motivations, addressed in a way I'm unable to judge; what I am able to judge, is the impact this impressive amount of material is having on category theory intended not as a part of mathematics, but as a *way* to look at mathematics from the outside. I feel this impact is near to zero. Not to mention that to my eye you *do* category theory only the australian way; everyone else is *applying* category theory towards the solution of a specific mathematical problem. And yet, I couldn't think of two more distant languages than Australian CT and HTT; what's wrong with me? What's wrong with the community? Sure there have been [attempts](https://arxiv.org/abs/1306.5144) [to](https://arxiv.org/abs/1310.8279) [circumvent](https://arxiv.org/abs/1401.6247) [this](https://arxiv.org/abs/1506.05500); I feel this is a beginning, and somehow the first example of HTT done by truly categorical means. But in the end, you open and read these papers, only to find that you still need to know simplicial sets and homotopy theory and the lingo of topologists. This is not what I'm after. 2. When you use HTT, you are not providing a foundation for (higher) category theory; instead, you are relying *quite heavily* on the structure of a single category (simplicial sets), and on its quite complicated combinatorics. I am perplexed by the naivety of people that believe HTT can serve as a foundation for higher category theory; I am frightened by the fact that these people seems to be *satisfied* by what they have. So should I? Or shall I look for more? And where? Struggling with the books I had, I haven't been able to find a single convincing word about neither of these terms (foundation, category, theory). Again, it seems that HTT is a framework to perform computations (be them in stable homotopy theory or intersection theory or something else), instead than a language explaining *the profound reason why you already know what things intimately are* (this is what category theory does, to me). It is also quite schizophrenic that HTT exhibits the double nature of a device taking (almost all) category theory for granted, and at the same time it wants to rebuild it from scratch. Do I have to already know this stuff, to learn this stuff? 3. There's a rather deep asymmetry between category theory and homotopy theory: these two fields, although intimately linked, live different planets when it comes to outreach and learning. By its very nature, categorical thinking is trivial; there are few things to prove, and all of them are done with the same toolset, and instead there's an extreme effort in carving deep definitions that can turn into milestones of thought (I take "elementary topos" as an example of such a definition). On the contrary, homotopy theory is a scattered set of results, fragmented in a cloud of subfields, speaking different dialects; every proof is technically a mess, uses ad-hoc ideas, complicated constructions, forces to re-learn things from scratch... in a few words, there is no Bourbaki for algebraic topology [edit: now I know there is one, but it's evidently insufficient]. This double nature entails that there's no way to learn HTT if you (like me) are not so acquainted with the use of concrete and painful arguments; in a few words, if you are not a good enough mathematician. The complexity of techniques you are requested to master is daunting and leaves outside some beginners, as well as some people caught at the wrong time in their formation process. Sure, the situation is changing; but it's doing it slowly, too slow to perceive a real change in the pace, or in the sensibility, or in the sense of priority of the community. Until now, every single attempt I made to enter the field failed in the most painful way. I feel there's no way I can understand fragmented, uncanny arguments like those. The few I can follow, I'd be absolutely unable to repeat, or reshape to prove something I need: they simply lie outside the language I'm comfortable with. Every time I have to check whether something is true, I have absolutely no clue how to operate, apart from pretending that what I do happens in/for a 1-category. And this disability is not conceptual, it is utterly practical, and seemingly unsolvable. Learning HTT requires to abandon categorical thinking from time to time; you are forced to show that something is true *in a specific model*, using a rather specific and particular technique, without relying on completely formal arguments. It is an unsatisfying, poor language from the point of view of a category theorist and people seem to avoid tackling foundations to do geometry and topology. Which is fine, but not my cup of tea. It is at this point extremely likely that, by lack of ability, or simply because I can't recognize myself in (the absence of) their philosophy, I won't be part of the crew of people that will be remembered for their contributions to higher category theory. What shall I do then? The echo-chamber where I live in seems to suggest a "love or leave it" approach, without any space for people that couldn't care less about chromatic homotopy theory, algebraic geometry, differential geometry, deformation theory... So, what shall I do? I can list a few answers, all equally frightening: 1. Settle down, learn my lesson, and fake to be a real mathematician, even though I know barely anything about the above mentioned homotopy theory, algebraic geometry, differential geometry, deformation theory? To a certain extent, it is working: my thesis received surprisingly positive reports, I happen to be able to maintain a position, even though scattered and temporary. But I'm also full of discomfort; I fear that my nature is preventing me from becoming a good mathematician; I am unsatisfied and I feel I'm denying my true self. What's worse: I feel I *have* to deny it, posting this rant with a throwaway account, because the ideas I proposed here are unpopular and could cost my academic life. 2. Shall I quit mathematics, since at this point there's no time to learn something new (I have to employ my time writing to avoid death)? I have to do mathematics with what I have; I feel what I have, what I *know* at the deep level I want, is barely nothing. And I can't use things I don't know, that's the rule. 3. Shall I face the fact that I've been defeated in my deepest desire, becoming exactly the kind of mathematician (and human being) I've always hated, the one who uses a theorem like a black box and makes guesses about things he ignores the true meaning of? But mathematics works this way: there is no point in knowing *that* something is true, until you ignore *why* it's true. Following a quite common idea among category theorists, I would like to go further, knowing *why* something is *trivial*. I don't want to know a definition, I want to know why that definition is the only possible way to speak about the definiendum. And if it's not, I want to be aware of the totality of such ways: does this totality carry a structure? The presence/absence of it have a meaning? Is there a totality of totalities, and how it behaves? When I first approached HTT I thought that answering these very questions was its main task. You can see how deeply I'm disappointed. And you can see the source of my sense of defeat: I feel stupid, way more limited, distracted from learning technicalities, way more than people that do not tackle this search for an absolute meaning. Younger than me, many colleagues began studying HTT, rapidly reaching a certain command of the basic words and subsequently began *producing* mathematics out of this command. To them, category theory is just another piece of mathematics, not different from another (maybe more beautiful); you do your exercises, learn to prove theorems, that's it. To me, category theory is the only satisfying way to think. Am I burdened by this belief to the point that it's preventing me from being a good mathematician? 4. The questions I raised at point 3 do not pertain mathematics; I should do something else. In fact, the only reason why I tried to become a mathematician was that I felt that mathematics is the only correct meaning of the word "philosophy", and the only correct way to pursue it. But turning to philosophy would be, if possible, even a more unfortunate choice: philosophers tend to be silly, ignorant people who claim to be able to explain ethics (=a complicated and elusive task) ignoring linear algebra (=something that shall be the common core of knowledge of every learned person). --- > > One of the answers below advises me to "give HTT another try". > > > This is *what* to do. I've no clue about *how*, and this is why I'm looking for mathematical help. I can't find a way out of this cul-de-sac: doing new, unpolished mathematics is a social event, but I've lived the years of my PhD isolated and without a precise guidance aside from myself.
2017/12/25
[ "https://mathoverflow.net/questions/289259", "https://mathoverflow.net", "https://mathoverflow.net/users/118946/" ]
This is too long for a comment, but doesn't exactly answer the question. However, I've had enough eggnog this Christmas that I'm going to post it anyway (despite knowing almost nothing about category theory). Reading the question and skimming over the comments, I see a lot of romantic descriptions of the practice of mathematics that bear little relationship to how it is actually practiced. It is truly wonderful when a single elegant idea can completely illuminate and render transparent some part of the subject. However, these ideas are usually the end product of a long development that starts with a hacked together, complicated mess of arguments. And they are discovered by people who are deeply immeshed in the subject. To put it another way, while it is great to have a strong philosophical take on what mathematics is and how it should be practiced, if that philosophy is not informed by the actual practice of mathematics, then it is unlikely to lead anywhere. Philosophical clarity comes at the end and not at the beginning. To be successful at research, you have to be willing to get your hands dirty. If you don't enjoy the ordinary craft of doing mathematics, then it is unlikely that you will be happy as a research mathematician. But it is a craft. I strongly disagree with various comments that make it sound like you have to be some kind of crazy romantic hero taking superhuman risks or something. I certainly am not like that, but I have been able to make a career out this. Now, it is impossible for us to give you personal advice on what you should do with your life or what direction your research should take. We don't know you. But I can say that everyone goes through periods of doubt and frustration. What I always do in those situations is to take a brief break from the front lines of research and go back to the sources that drew me to mathematics in the first place. Read some great mathematics, be refreshed, and then get back at it.
I think the answer is obvious. If you want to stay in mathematics, quit HTT and go back to the basics of what got you interested in math in the first place. It's easy for young people to be seduced into highly abstract areas just because there is a community of senior mathematicians around them doing it, and I've seen it many times. Your assumption that you don't have enough time to learn something new is incorrect. It does not take long to learn something different and even publish in that field if your heart is in it. Do another postdoc and take time to explore your own interests, publish and find a new community.
289,259
I'm currently a young, not-so-young mathematician, finishing its second postdoc. I developed an interest for rather different topics in the last few years but constantly, slowly converged towards something that has to do with (but at this point I'm quite unsure *is*) category theory and its applications. What motivated me in the study of mathematics back in the days was the desire to understand the mechanisms ruling algebraic topology; then the word "functor" came in, and I fell into the rabbit-hole. At this point most of you would expect I'm not unsatisfied with the shape category theory has nowadays: isn't a blurry mixture of homotopy theory and category theory precisely what I'm tackling? I'm instead profoundly disappointed by the drift that categorical thinking has taken in the last ten years or so. And this is because the more I dwell into what "higher category theory" and "formal homotopy theory" became, the less I like both of them (I will somewhat refer as both with the portmanteau term "HTT"; I hereby stress that this acronym has no particular meaning whatsoever): 1. It is still absolutely unclear what good is HTT for category theorists. To my eye, it is certainly a masterpiece of applied mathematics (in the sense that its tasks rest on the use of conceptualization as a tool, not as a target), but it doesn't seem to add a single grain of sand to the sea of category theory; instead, it re-does all the things you need to know to behave "as if" your *homotopy-things* were *things*, or to compactly bookkeep an infinite amount of data into a finite amount of space. These are honest practical motivations, addressed in a way I'm unable to judge; what I am able to judge, is the impact this impressive amount of material is having on category theory intended not as a part of mathematics, but as a *way* to look at mathematics from the outside. I feel this impact is near to zero. Not to mention that to my eye you *do* category theory only the australian way; everyone else is *applying* category theory towards the solution of a specific mathematical problem. And yet, I couldn't think of two more distant languages than Australian CT and HTT; what's wrong with me? What's wrong with the community? Sure there have been [attempts](https://arxiv.org/abs/1306.5144) [to](https://arxiv.org/abs/1310.8279) [circumvent](https://arxiv.org/abs/1401.6247) [this](https://arxiv.org/abs/1506.05500); I feel this is a beginning, and somehow the first example of HTT done by truly categorical means. But in the end, you open and read these papers, only to find that you still need to know simplicial sets and homotopy theory and the lingo of topologists. This is not what I'm after. 2. When you use HTT, you are not providing a foundation for (higher) category theory; instead, you are relying *quite heavily* on the structure of a single category (simplicial sets), and on its quite complicated combinatorics. I am perplexed by the naivety of people that believe HTT can serve as a foundation for higher category theory; I am frightened by the fact that these people seems to be *satisfied* by what they have. So should I? Or shall I look for more? And where? Struggling with the books I had, I haven't been able to find a single convincing word about neither of these terms (foundation, category, theory). Again, it seems that HTT is a framework to perform computations (be them in stable homotopy theory or intersection theory or something else), instead than a language explaining *the profound reason why you already know what things intimately are* (this is what category theory does, to me). It is also quite schizophrenic that HTT exhibits the double nature of a device taking (almost all) category theory for granted, and at the same time it wants to rebuild it from scratch. Do I have to already know this stuff, to learn this stuff? 3. There's a rather deep asymmetry between category theory and homotopy theory: these two fields, although intimately linked, live different planets when it comes to outreach and learning. By its very nature, categorical thinking is trivial; there are few things to prove, and all of them are done with the same toolset, and instead there's an extreme effort in carving deep definitions that can turn into milestones of thought (I take "elementary topos" as an example of such a definition). On the contrary, homotopy theory is a scattered set of results, fragmented in a cloud of subfields, speaking different dialects; every proof is technically a mess, uses ad-hoc ideas, complicated constructions, forces to re-learn things from scratch... in a few words, there is no Bourbaki for algebraic topology [edit: now I know there is one, but it's evidently insufficient]. This double nature entails that there's no way to learn HTT if you (like me) are not so acquainted with the use of concrete and painful arguments; in a few words, if you are not a good enough mathematician. The complexity of techniques you are requested to master is daunting and leaves outside some beginners, as well as some people caught at the wrong time in their formation process. Sure, the situation is changing; but it's doing it slowly, too slow to perceive a real change in the pace, or in the sensibility, or in the sense of priority of the community. Until now, every single attempt I made to enter the field failed in the most painful way. I feel there's no way I can understand fragmented, uncanny arguments like those. The few I can follow, I'd be absolutely unable to repeat, or reshape to prove something I need: they simply lie outside the language I'm comfortable with. Every time I have to check whether something is true, I have absolutely no clue how to operate, apart from pretending that what I do happens in/for a 1-category. And this disability is not conceptual, it is utterly practical, and seemingly unsolvable. Learning HTT requires to abandon categorical thinking from time to time; you are forced to show that something is true *in a specific model*, using a rather specific and particular technique, without relying on completely formal arguments. It is an unsatisfying, poor language from the point of view of a category theorist and people seem to avoid tackling foundations to do geometry and topology. Which is fine, but not my cup of tea. It is at this point extremely likely that, by lack of ability, or simply because I can't recognize myself in (the absence of) their philosophy, I won't be part of the crew of people that will be remembered for their contributions to higher category theory. What shall I do then? The echo-chamber where I live in seems to suggest a "love or leave it" approach, without any space for people that couldn't care less about chromatic homotopy theory, algebraic geometry, differential geometry, deformation theory... So, what shall I do? I can list a few answers, all equally frightening: 1. Settle down, learn my lesson, and fake to be a real mathematician, even though I know barely anything about the above mentioned homotopy theory, algebraic geometry, differential geometry, deformation theory? To a certain extent, it is working: my thesis received surprisingly positive reports, I happen to be able to maintain a position, even though scattered and temporary. But I'm also full of discomfort; I fear that my nature is preventing me from becoming a good mathematician; I am unsatisfied and I feel I'm denying my true self. What's worse: I feel I *have* to deny it, posting this rant with a throwaway account, because the ideas I proposed here are unpopular and could cost my academic life. 2. Shall I quit mathematics, since at this point there's no time to learn something new (I have to employ my time writing to avoid death)? I have to do mathematics with what I have; I feel what I have, what I *know* at the deep level I want, is barely nothing. And I can't use things I don't know, that's the rule. 3. Shall I face the fact that I've been defeated in my deepest desire, becoming exactly the kind of mathematician (and human being) I've always hated, the one who uses a theorem like a black box and makes guesses about things he ignores the true meaning of? But mathematics works this way: there is no point in knowing *that* something is true, until you ignore *why* it's true. Following a quite common idea among category theorists, I would like to go further, knowing *why* something is *trivial*. I don't want to know a definition, I want to know why that definition is the only possible way to speak about the definiendum. And if it's not, I want to be aware of the totality of such ways: does this totality carry a structure? The presence/absence of it have a meaning? Is there a totality of totalities, and how it behaves? When I first approached HTT I thought that answering these very questions was its main task. You can see how deeply I'm disappointed. And you can see the source of my sense of defeat: I feel stupid, way more limited, distracted from learning technicalities, way more than people that do not tackle this search for an absolute meaning. Younger than me, many colleagues began studying HTT, rapidly reaching a certain command of the basic words and subsequently began *producing* mathematics out of this command. To them, category theory is just another piece of mathematics, not different from another (maybe more beautiful); you do your exercises, learn to prove theorems, that's it. To me, category theory is the only satisfying way to think. Am I burdened by this belief to the point that it's preventing me from being a good mathematician? 4. The questions I raised at point 3 do not pertain mathematics; I should do something else. In fact, the only reason why I tried to become a mathematician was that I felt that mathematics is the only correct meaning of the word "philosophy", and the only correct way to pursue it. But turning to philosophy would be, if possible, even a more unfortunate choice: philosophers tend to be silly, ignorant people who claim to be able to explain ethics (=a complicated and elusive task) ignoring linear algebra (=something that shall be the common core of knowledge of every learned person). --- > > One of the answers below advises me to "give HTT another try". > > > This is *what* to do. I've no clue about *how*, and this is why I'm looking for mathematical help. I can't find a way out of this cul-de-sac: doing new, unpolished mathematics is a social event, but I've lived the years of my PhD isolated and without a precise guidance aside from myself.
2017/12/25
[ "https://mathoverflow.net/questions/289259", "https://mathoverflow.net", "https://mathoverflow.net/users/118946/" ]
This is too long for a comment, but doesn't exactly answer the question. However, I've had enough eggnog this Christmas that I'm going to post it anyway (despite knowing almost nothing about category theory). Reading the question and skimming over the comments, I see a lot of romantic descriptions of the practice of mathematics that bear little relationship to how it is actually practiced. It is truly wonderful when a single elegant idea can completely illuminate and render transparent some part of the subject. However, these ideas are usually the end product of a long development that starts with a hacked together, complicated mess of arguments. And they are discovered by people who are deeply immeshed in the subject. To put it another way, while it is great to have a strong philosophical take on what mathematics is and how it should be practiced, if that philosophy is not informed by the actual practice of mathematics, then it is unlikely to lead anywhere. Philosophical clarity comes at the end and not at the beginning. To be successful at research, you have to be willing to get your hands dirty. If you don't enjoy the ordinary craft of doing mathematics, then it is unlikely that you will be happy as a research mathematician. But it is a craft. I strongly disagree with various comments that make it sound like you have to be some kind of crazy romantic hero taking superhuman risks or something. I certainly am not like that, but I have been able to make a career out this. Now, it is impossible for us to give you personal advice on what you should do with your life or what direction your research should take. We don't know you. But I can say that everyone goes through periods of doubt and frustration. What I always do in those situations is to take a brief break from the front lines of research and go back to the sources that drew me to mathematics in the first place. Read some great mathematics, be refreshed, and then get back at it.
Let me address something which is not explicitly mentioned in other answers. Job issues exist, and they exist not only for category-theorists or the like, even much more ''working'' (in the sense of MacLane) pure mathematicians are struggling. In my opinion, the reasons (and possibly the solutions) for this are socio-political in character, we can discuss that elsewhere. To return to math, I have not seen all the comments, but. First, using HTT to prove something, understanding the proofs of HTT, and doing HTT-level of papers are three different levels of difficulty. It is very instructive to have a problem from another field for which you would need higher categories, then it becomes much easier to navigate in the literature to find what you need, or ask precise questions to the experts. Later steps seem to follow as you get sucked in. On the go, you will perhaps start to value the aesthetics of the state-of-the-art in higher category theory, happy days. Even if your pure interest is category theory or something of that form, it helps. You learn more about (higher) category theory by applying it. And, we have to remember that it has been only 20 years since the active development of the field. Various papers which followed since the HTT book show that more thinking leads to more transparency. You mention that there is no Bourbaki for homotopy theory; certain people believe that it is yet to come, and working towards it represents a big prospect in mathematical foundations.
289,259
I'm currently a young, not-so-young mathematician, finishing its second postdoc. I developed an interest for rather different topics in the last few years but constantly, slowly converged towards something that has to do with (but at this point I'm quite unsure *is*) category theory and its applications. What motivated me in the study of mathematics back in the days was the desire to understand the mechanisms ruling algebraic topology; then the word "functor" came in, and I fell into the rabbit-hole. At this point most of you would expect I'm not unsatisfied with the shape category theory has nowadays: isn't a blurry mixture of homotopy theory and category theory precisely what I'm tackling? I'm instead profoundly disappointed by the drift that categorical thinking has taken in the last ten years or so. And this is because the more I dwell into what "higher category theory" and "formal homotopy theory" became, the less I like both of them (I will somewhat refer as both with the portmanteau term "HTT"; I hereby stress that this acronym has no particular meaning whatsoever): 1. It is still absolutely unclear what good is HTT for category theorists. To my eye, it is certainly a masterpiece of applied mathematics (in the sense that its tasks rest on the use of conceptualization as a tool, not as a target), but it doesn't seem to add a single grain of sand to the sea of category theory; instead, it re-does all the things you need to know to behave "as if" your *homotopy-things* were *things*, or to compactly bookkeep an infinite amount of data into a finite amount of space. These are honest practical motivations, addressed in a way I'm unable to judge; what I am able to judge, is the impact this impressive amount of material is having on category theory intended not as a part of mathematics, but as a *way* to look at mathematics from the outside. I feel this impact is near to zero. Not to mention that to my eye you *do* category theory only the australian way; everyone else is *applying* category theory towards the solution of a specific mathematical problem. And yet, I couldn't think of two more distant languages than Australian CT and HTT; what's wrong with me? What's wrong with the community? Sure there have been [attempts](https://arxiv.org/abs/1306.5144) [to](https://arxiv.org/abs/1310.8279) [circumvent](https://arxiv.org/abs/1401.6247) [this](https://arxiv.org/abs/1506.05500); I feel this is a beginning, and somehow the first example of HTT done by truly categorical means. But in the end, you open and read these papers, only to find that you still need to know simplicial sets and homotopy theory and the lingo of topologists. This is not what I'm after. 2. When you use HTT, you are not providing a foundation for (higher) category theory; instead, you are relying *quite heavily* on the structure of a single category (simplicial sets), and on its quite complicated combinatorics. I am perplexed by the naivety of people that believe HTT can serve as a foundation for higher category theory; I am frightened by the fact that these people seems to be *satisfied* by what they have. So should I? Or shall I look for more? And where? Struggling with the books I had, I haven't been able to find a single convincing word about neither of these terms (foundation, category, theory). Again, it seems that HTT is a framework to perform computations (be them in stable homotopy theory or intersection theory or something else), instead than a language explaining *the profound reason why you already know what things intimately are* (this is what category theory does, to me). It is also quite schizophrenic that HTT exhibits the double nature of a device taking (almost all) category theory for granted, and at the same time it wants to rebuild it from scratch. Do I have to already know this stuff, to learn this stuff? 3. There's a rather deep asymmetry between category theory and homotopy theory: these two fields, although intimately linked, live different planets when it comes to outreach and learning. By its very nature, categorical thinking is trivial; there are few things to prove, and all of them are done with the same toolset, and instead there's an extreme effort in carving deep definitions that can turn into milestones of thought (I take "elementary topos" as an example of such a definition). On the contrary, homotopy theory is a scattered set of results, fragmented in a cloud of subfields, speaking different dialects; every proof is technically a mess, uses ad-hoc ideas, complicated constructions, forces to re-learn things from scratch... in a few words, there is no Bourbaki for algebraic topology [edit: now I know there is one, but it's evidently insufficient]. This double nature entails that there's no way to learn HTT if you (like me) are not so acquainted with the use of concrete and painful arguments; in a few words, if you are not a good enough mathematician. The complexity of techniques you are requested to master is daunting and leaves outside some beginners, as well as some people caught at the wrong time in their formation process. Sure, the situation is changing; but it's doing it slowly, too slow to perceive a real change in the pace, or in the sensibility, or in the sense of priority of the community. Until now, every single attempt I made to enter the field failed in the most painful way. I feel there's no way I can understand fragmented, uncanny arguments like those. The few I can follow, I'd be absolutely unable to repeat, or reshape to prove something I need: they simply lie outside the language I'm comfortable with. Every time I have to check whether something is true, I have absolutely no clue how to operate, apart from pretending that what I do happens in/for a 1-category. And this disability is not conceptual, it is utterly practical, and seemingly unsolvable. Learning HTT requires to abandon categorical thinking from time to time; you are forced to show that something is true *in a specific model*, using a rather specific and particular technique, without relying on completely formal arguments. It is an unsatisfying, poor language from the point of view of a category theorist and people seem to avoid tackling foundations to do geometry and topology. Which is fine, but not my cup of tea. It is at this point extremely likely that, by lack of ability, or simply because I can't recognize myself in (the absence of) their philosophy, I won't be part of the crew of people that will be remembered for their contributions to higher category theory. What shall I do then? The echo-chamber where I live in seems to suggest a "love or leave it" approach, without any space for people that couldn't care less about chromatic homotopy theory, algebraic geometry, differential geometry, deformation theory... So, what shall I do? I can list a few answers, all equally frightening: 1. Settle down, learn my lesson, and fake to be a real mathematician, even though I know barely anything about the above mentioned homotopy theory, algebraic geometry, differential geometry, deformation theory? To a certain extent, it is working: my thesis received surprisingly positive reports, I happen to be able to maintain a position, even though scattered and temporary. But I'm also full of discomfort; I fear that my nature is preventing me from becoming a good mathematician; I am unsatisfied and I feel I'm denying my true self. What's worse: I feel I *have* to deny it, posting this rant with a throwaway account, because the ideas I proposed here are unpopular and could cost my academic life. 2. Shall I quit mathematics, since at this point there's no time to learn something new (I have to employ my time writing to avoid death)? I have to do mathematics with what I have; I feel what I have, what I *know* at the deep level I want, is barely nothing. And I can't use things I don't know, that's the rule. 3. Shall I face the fact that I've been defeated in my deepest desire, becoming exactly the kind of mathematician (and human being) I've always hated, the one who uses a theorem like a black box and makes guesses about things he ignores the true meaning of? But mathematics works this way: there is no point in knowing *that* something is true, until you ignore *why* it's true. Following a quite common idea among category theorists, I would like to go further, knowing *why* something is *trivial*. I don't want to know a definition, I want to know why that definition is the only possible way to speak about the definiendum. And if it's not, I want to be aware of the totality of such ways: does this totality carry a structure? The presence/absence of it have a meaning? Is there a totality of totalities, and how it behaves? When I first approached HTT I thought that answering these very questions was its main task. You can see how deeply I'm disappointed. And you can see the source of my sense of defeat: I feel stupid, way more limited, distracted from learning technicalities, way more than people that do not tackle this search for an absolute meaning. Younger than me, many colleagues began studying HTT, rapidly reaching a certain command of the basic words and subsequently began *producing* mathematics out of this command. To them, category theory is just another piece of mathematics, not different from another (maybe more beautiful); you do your exercises, learn to prove theorems, that's it. To me, category theory is the only satisfying way to think. Am I burdened by this belief to the point that it's preventing me from being a good mathematician? 4. The questions I raised at point 3 do not pertain mathematics; I should do something else. In fact, the only reason why I tried to become a mathematician was that I felt that mathematics is the only correct meaning of the word "philosophy", and the only correct way to pursue it. But turning to philosophy would be, if possible, even a more unfortunate choice: philosophers tend to be silly, ignorant people who claim to be able to explain ethics (=a complicated and elusive task) ignoring linear algebra (=something that shall be the common core of knowledge of every learned person). --- > > One of the answers below advises me to "give HTT another try". > > > This is *what* to do. I've no clue about *how*, and this is why I'm looking for mathematical help. I can't find a way out of this cul-de-sac: doing new, unpolished mathematics is a social event, but I've lived the years of my PhD isolated and without a precise guidance aside from myself.
2017/12/25
[ "https://mathoverflow.net/questions/289259", "https://mathoverflow.net", "https://mathoverflow.net/users/118946/" ]
Higher category theory is, roughly speaking, where category theory meets homotopy coherent mathematics. It is hence relevant to those problems in which categorical structures and homotopy coherent phenomena play a significant role. Many areas of algebraic topology and algebraic geometry have this property. There are also many such areas who don't. From what I understood from your question, you like category theory, but not so much homotopy coherent mathematics. So far I would say you don't actually have any problem, since ordinary category theory itself is not, at least in my opinion, a domain in which homotopy coherent mathematics is crucially needed. This is mainly because the coherence issues that arise in category theory are very low-dimensional, to the extent that it is more cost effective to do them by hand (or simply neglect them), then to use fancy machinery. This leads me to the first possible solution to your problem: > > Do category theory. > > > It has really not been my impression that this field is anywhere close to finished. This is especially true if you consider 2-category theory as an acceptable extension (here the coherence is again usually simple enough to do by hand). It also has many interactions with domains such as logic, set theory and foundations of mathematics. You will find many interesting discussions of all these topics, as well as links to state-of-the-art research, in the [n-category café](https://golem.ph.utexas.edu/category/). It will also not surprise me if you will find people there who share your mathematical taste. If you still maintain, for whatever reason, that it is imperative that you do things related to higher category theory, I can tell you that there are many domains in this topic which are very 1-categorical in flavor. For example, you can > > Do model category theory. > > > This notion, one of many brilliant ideas of Quillen, allows one to magically reduce homotopy coherence issues into a 1-categorical framework. Model categories also share many of the aesthetic features of ordinary category theory, in the sense that everything seems to fit together very nicely, while still being extremely useful for real world homotopy coherent mathematics. A bit less known, but also very categorical in flavor are **derivators**. You might also look into triangulated categories. Finally, as many of the comments above suggest, it's possible that the things that you don't like in homotopy coherent mathematics are actually not essential properties of the field, but rather of its young age. You may hence consider to > > Give HTT another try. > > > In doing so, you may want to take into account the following: I strongly believe that no one has ever written a technical simplex-by-simplex combinatorial proof of an HTT-type result without knowing in advance that what they want to prove is true, and moreover *why* it is true. This is because, despite the technicality of some proofs, higher categories *do* behave according to fundamental principles. Sometimes these principles are the same as the 1-categorical case, but sometimes they're different. As a result, it may take a bit of time to acquire a guiding intuition for what should be true and when. It is, nonetheless, certainly doable. I would then suggest that, before reading a given proof, you try to think first why the announced result should be true. In addition, think how you would prove, say, the 1-categorical case, and then try to extend the proof to higher categories dimension by dimension, and see where this leads you. Then read the simplex-by-simplex argument. It may suddenly look very clear.
Questions about aesthetics are of course inherently subjective. In your third point you seem to be expressing a strong aesthetic preference for mathematics which starts from a smallish set of axioms and builds a large, unified theory, constructed with maximal generality. I can think of other areas of mathematics than Australian-style category theory that fit this description, like universal algebra, point-set topology, finite group theory, and several areas of set theory and logic. I believe a young mathematician in any of those areas could have posted a similar complaint bemoaning the general drift away from the kind of mathematics they care about. By contrast let me try to articulate how I perceive the dominant aesthetic preference of the mathematical community, without necessarily endorsing it myself. One imagines that there is a "core" of mathematics, consisting perhaps of geometry, arithmetic and analysis. Questions in these areas are inherently interesting and deserve to be studied. Other parts of mathematics deserve to be studied only inasmuch that they can be applied to those core areas. From this perspective HTT is "superior" to Australian style category theory only because it has been more useful in algebraic geometry, K-theory and topology, which are all close to that "core". A more blunt take is that this is memetic evolution in action. In a toy model, all mathematicians start out being interested only in the specific problem assigned to them by their advisor. During their career they'll become interested in more things, determined by randomness, personal preferences, but above all self-interest: "oh, it seems I can maybe prove something about X (which I care about) if I only learn a bit of Y (which I have only heard of)"... Rightly or wrongly, such a process will "reward" areas exclusively on the basis of whether they are useful to other areas, and "punish" those which aren't. So what can you do if you work in an area which is out of vogue? Of course you can advertise your work and your point of view, but you can't force people to care about the theorems you prove. So you have two extreme options: (a) Keep working on what you care about, no matter what others think. This is not easy, but it can be done - you'll just have fewer job opportunities, fewer funding options, etc. Or: (b) Switch fields. This is not easy either, but it can also be done. This is of course easier if you know someone you can collaborate with and learn from, and if you can switch to something reasonably close to your own interests. Most people will maybe do something inbetween - try to nudge their own interests in the direction of things that can be applied to what other people are working on. Good luck.
289,259
I'm currently a young, not-so-young mathematician, finishing its second postdoc. I developed an interest for rather different topics in the last few years but constantly, slowly converged towards something that has to do with (but at this point I'm quite unsure *is*) category theory and its applications. What motivated me in the study of mathematics back in the days was the desire to understand the mechanisms ruling algebraic topology; then the word "functor" came in, and I fell into the rabbit-hole. At this point most of you would expect I'm not unsatisfied with the shape category theory has nowadays: isn't a blurry mixture of homotopy theory and category theory precisely what I'm tackling? I'm instead profoundly disappointed by the drift that categorical thinking has taken in the last ten years or so. And this is because the more I dwell into what "higher category theory" and "formal homotopy theory" became, the less I like both of them (I will somewhat refer as both with the portmanteau term "HTT"; I hereby stress that this acronym has no particular meaning whatsoever): 1. It is still absolutely unclear what good is HTT for category theorists. To my eye, it is certainly a masterpiece of applied mathematics (in the sense that its tasks rest on the use of conceptualization as a tool, not as a target), but it doesn't seem to add a single grain of sand to the sea of category theory; instead, it re-does all the things you need to know to behave "as if" your *homotopy-things* were *things*, or to compactly bookkeep an infinite amount of data into a finite amount of space. These are honest practical motivations, addressed in a way I'm unable to judge; what I am able to judge, is the impact this impressive amount of material is having on category theory intended not as a part of mathematics, but as a *way* to look at mathematics from the outside. I feel this impact is near to zero. Not to mention that to my eye you *do* category theory only the australian way; everyone else is *applying* category theory towards the solution of a specific mathematical problem. And yet, I couldn't think of two more distant languages than Australian CT and HTT; what's wrong with me? What's wrong with the community? Sure there have been [attempts](https://arxiv.org/abs/1306.5144) [to](https://arxiv.org/abs/1310.8279) [circumvent](https://arxiv.org/abs/1401.6247) [this](https://arxiv.org/abs/1506.05500); I feel this is a beginning, and somehow the first example of HTT done by truly categorical means. But in the end, you open and read these papers, only to find that you still need to know simplicial sets and homotopy theory and the lingo of topologists. This is not what I'm after. 2. When you use HTT, you are not providing a foundation for (higher) category theory; instead, you are relying *quite heavily* on the structure of a single category (simplicial sets), and on its quite complicated combinatorics. I am perplexed by the naivety of people that believe HTT can serve as a foundation for higher category theory; I am frightened by the fact that these people seems to be *satisfied* by what they have. So should I? Or shall I look for more? And where? Struggling with the books I had, I haven't been able to find a single convincing word about neither of these terms (foundation, category, theory). Again, it seems that HTT is a framework to perform computations (be them in stable homotopy theory or intersection theory or something else), instead than a language explaining *the profound reason why you already know what things intimately are* (this is what category theory does, to me). It is also quite schizophrenic that HTT exhibits the double nature of a device taking (almost all) category theory for granted, and at the same time it wants to rebuild it from scratch. Do I have to already know this stuff, to learn this stuff? 3. There's a rather deep asymmetry between category theory and homotopy theory: these two fields, although intimately linked, live different planets when it comes to outreach and learning. By its very nature, categorical thinking is trivial; there are few things to prove, and all of them are done with the same toolset, and instead there's an extreme effort in carving deep definitions that can turn into milestones of thought (I take "elementary topos" as an example of such a definition). On the contrary, homotopy theory is a scattered set of results, fragmented in a cloud of subfields, speaking different dialects; every proof is technically a mess, uses ad-hoc ideas, complicated constructions, forces to re-learn things from scratch... in a few words, there is no Bourbaki for algebraic topology [edit: now I know there is one, but it's evidently insufficient]. This double nature entails that there's no way to learn HTT if you (like me) are not so acquainted with the use of concrete and painful arguments; in a few words, if you are not a good enough mathematician. The complexity of techniques you are requested to master is daunting and leaves outside some beginners, as well as some people caught at the wrong time in their formation process. Sure, the situation is changing; but it's doing it slowly, too slow to perceive a real change in the pace, or in the sensibility, or in the sense of priority of the community. Until now, every single attempt I made to enter the field failed in the most painful way. I feel there's no way I can understand fragmented, uncanny arguments like those. The few I can follow, I'd be absolutely unable to repeat, or reshape to prove something I need: they simply lie outside the language I'm comfortable with. Every time I have to check whether something is true, I have absolutely no clue how to operate, apart from pretending that what I do happens in/for a 1-category. And this disability is not conceptual, it is utterly practical, and seemingly unsolvable. Learning HTT requires to abandon categorical thinking from time to time; you are forced to show that something is true *in a specific model*, using a rather specific and particular technique, without relying on completely formal arguments. It is an unsatisfying, poor language from the point of view of a category theorist and people seem to avoid tackling foundations to do geometry and topology. Which is fine, but not my cup of tea. It is at this point extremely likely that, by lack of ability, or simply because I can't recognize myself in (the absence of) their philosophy, I won't be part of the crew of people that will be remembered for their contributions to higher category theory. What shall I do then? The echo-chamber where I live in seems to suggest a "love or leave it" approach, without any space for people that couldn't care less about chromatic homotopy theory, algebraic geometry, differential geometry, deformation theory... So, what shall I do? I can list a few answers, all equally frightening: 1. Settle down, learn my lesson, and fake to be a real mathematician, even though I know barely anything about the above mentioned homotopy theory, algebraic geometry, differential geometry, deformation theory? To a certain extent, it is working: my thesis received surprisingly positive reports, I happen to be able to maintain a position, even though scattered and temporary. But I'm also full of discomfort; I fear that my nature is preventing me from becoming a good mathematician; I am unsatisfied and I feel I'm denying my true self. What's worse: I feel I *have* to deny it, posting this rant with a throwaway account, because the ideas I proposed here are unpopular and could cost my academic life. 2. Shall I quit mathematics, since at this point there's no time to learn something new (I have to employ my time writing to avoid death)? I have to do mathematics with what I have; I feel what I have, what I *know* at the deep level I want, is barely nothing. And I can't use things I don't know, that's the rule. 3. Shall I face the fact that I've been defeated in my deepest desire, becoming exactly the kind of mathematician (and human being) I've always hated, the one who uses a theorem like a black box and makes guesses about things he ignores the true meaning of? But mathematics works this way: there is no point in knowing *that* something is true, until you ignore *why* it's true. Following a quite common idea among category theorists, I would like to go further, knowing *why* something is *trivial*. I don't want to know a definition, I want to know why that definition is the only possible way to speak about the definiendum. And if it's not, I want to be aware of the totality of such ways: does this totality carry a structure? The presence/absence of it have a meaning? Is there a totality of totalities, and how it behaves? When I first approached HTT I thought that answering these very questions was its main task. You can see how deeply I'm disappointed. And you can see the source of my sense of defeat: I feel stupid, way more limited, distracted from learning technicalities, way more than people that do not tackle this search for an absolute meaning. Younger than me, many colleagues began studying HTT, rapidly reaching a certain command of the basic words and subsequently began *producing* mathematics out of this command. To them, category theory is just another piece of mathematics, not different from another (maybe more beautiful); you do your exercises, learn to prove theorems, that's it. To me, category theory is the only satisfying way to think. Am I burdened by this belief to the point that it's preventing me from being a good mathematician? 4. The questions I raised at point 3 do not pertain mathematics; I should do something else. In fact, the only reason why I tried to become a mathematician was that I felt that mathematics is the only correct meaning of the word "philosophy", and the only correct way to pursue it. But turning to philosophy would be, if possible, even a more unfortunate choice: philosophers tend to be silly, ignorant people who claim to be able to explain ethics (=a complicated and elusive task) ignoring linear algebra (=something that shall be the common core of knowledge of every learned person). --- > > One of the answers below advises me to "give HTT another try". > > > This is *what* to do. I've no clue about *how*, and this is why I'm looking for mathematical help. I can't find a way out of this cul-de-sac: doing new, unpolished mathematics is a social event, but I've lived the years of my PhD isolated and without a precise guidance aside from myself.
2017/12/25
[ "https://mathoverflow.net/questions/289259", "https://mathoverflow.net", "https://mathoverflow.net/users/118946/" ]
Higher category theory is, roughly speaking, where category theory meets homotopy coherent mathematics. It is hence relevant to those problems in which categorical structures and homotopy coherent phenomena play a significant role. Many areas of algebraic topology and algebraic geometry have this property. There are also many such areas who don't. From what I understood from your question, you like category theory, but not so much homotopy coherent mathematics. So far I would say you don't actually have any problem, since ordinary category theory itself is not, at least in my opinion, a domain in which homotopy coherent mathematics is crucially needed. This is mainly because the coherence issues that arise in category theory are very low-dimensional, to the extent that it is more cost effective to do them by hand (or simply neglect them), then to use fancy machinery. This leads me to the first possible solution to your problem: > > Do category theory. > > > It has really not been my impression that this field is anywhere close to finished. This is especially true if you consider 2-category theory as an acceptable extension (here the coherence is again usually simple enough to do by hand). It also has many interactions with domains such as logic, set theory and foundations of mathematics. You will find many interesting discussions of all these topics, as well as links to state-of-the-art research, in the [n-category café](https://golem.ph.utexas.edu/category/). It will also not surprise me if you will find people there who share your mathematical taste. If you still maintain, for whatever reason, that it is imperative that you do things related to higher category theory, I can tell you that there are many domains in this topic which are very 1-categorical in flavor. For example, you can > > Do model category theory. > > > This notion, one of many brilliant ideas of Quillen, allows one to magically reduce homotopy coherence issues into a 1-categorical framework. Model categories also share many of the aesthetic features of ordinary category theory, in the sense that everything seems to fit together very nicely, while still being extremely useful for real world homotopy coherent mathematics. A bit less known, but also very categorical in flavor are **derivators**. You might also look into triangulated categories. Finally, as many of the comments above suggest, it's possible that the things that you don't like in homotopy coherent mathematics are actually not essential properties of the field, but rather of its young age. You may hence consider to > > Give HTT another try. > > > In doing so, you may want to take into account the following: I strongly believe that no one has ever written a technical simplex-by-simplex combinatorial proof of an HTT-type result without knowing in advance that what they want to prove is true, and moreover *why* it is true. This is because, despite the technicality of some proofs, higher categories *do* behave according to fundamental principles. Sometimes these principles are the same as the 1-categorical case, but sometimes they're different. As a result, it may take a bit of time to acquire a guiding intuition for what should be true and when. It is, nonetheless, certainly doable. I would then suggest that, before reading a given proof, you try to think first why the announced result should be true. In addition, think how you would prove, say, the 1-categorical case, and then try to extend the proof to higher categories dimension by dimension, and see where this leads you. Then read the simplex-by-simplex argument. It may suddenly look very clear.
I think the answer is obvious. If you want to stay in mathematics, quit HTT and go back to the basics of what got you interested in math in the first place. It's easy for young people to be seduced into highly abstract areas just because there is a community of senior mathematicians around them doing it, and I've seen it many times. Your assumption that you don't have enough time to learn something new is incorrect. It does not take long to learn something different and even publish in that field if your heart is in it. Do another postdoc and take time to explore your own interests, publish and find a new community.
6,472
I play with some serious board gamers, but we have neglected Monopoly for a number of years, so our knowledge is mostly based on high school & house rules. We played last week and enjoyed it, but there was a piece of contention. There are times where we decide that we don't like one of our friends for some reason and don't want them to win (i.e. we landed on their property a bunch, or they refused to make a deal, etc.). So when player 1 has some property and player 2 lands on it and cannot pay the rent their assets (houses/hotels get liquidated), their property gets transferred to the other player. (Please correct me if I'm wrong.) In this case, though, player 3 "traded" the amount of money owing for a piece of property (way overpaid). In this case they did it so that player 1 would not get the properties. Player 2 had no chance of winning the game (all properties mortgaged, no cash to speak of and many of the other properties with 3+ houses/hotels on them). **To summarize:** Is it OK for a third player to purchase/trade property or cash to/from a player who is about to lose?
2012/02/06
[ "https://boardgames.stackexchange.com/questions/6472", "https://boardgames.stackexchange.com", "https://boardgames.stackexchange.com/users/2445/" ]
The official rules don't state if you are able to sell properties at any time (in fact, it is one of the few rules that don't have the timing explictly stated), but I wouldn't put too much faith that this wasn't an oversight. > > Unimproved properties, railroads and utilities (but not buildings) may be sold to any player as a private transaction for any amount the owner can get > > > All other types of transactions state that you can do them **at any time**: * Selling "Get Out of Jail Free" cards * Mortgaging properties to the bank * Selling houses back to the bank * Buying houses from the bank. The most troubling transaction that can be done "at any time", in the above list is "Buying Houses." They probably didn't mean that you can buy houses at any time, **after** another player rolls the dice, but **before** they were forced to pay rent on the property they landed on. If they did, this game would be changed for the worst, with people usually not having to invest on houses, until immediately after someone will land on them. This makes me believe that this is probably an oversight. The rules do make it fairly clear that you can mortgage properties and sell houses/hotels if you are unable to pay a tax to the **Bank** (this would be after rolling dice, but before resolving the Tax/Penalty). > > Should you owe the Bank, instead of another player, more than you can pay (because of taxes or penalties) even by selling off buildings and mortgaging property, you must turn over all assets to the Bank. > > > Since the rules aren't very clear about the timing of "Selling Properties", and because they probably don't mean **at any time** is before resolving a players movement after they roll the dice, you will have to make some house rules. You will need to decide what Hasbro meant when they said "any time". * Mortgaging Unimproved Properties: This may be done at any time, including before having to pay rent/tax to the Bank ([only | **or another player**]). * Selling Houses: This may be done at any time, including before having to pay rent/tax to the Bank ([only | **or another player**]) * Selling Property: This may only be done at any time **other than** after a player rolls the dice, but before they have paid ([Rent [and/or] Tax]) to ([another player [and/or] the Bank.]) * Selling a "Get Out of Jail Free" card: This may only be done at any time **other than** after a player rolls the dice, but before they have paid ([Rent [and/or] Tax]) to ([another player [and/or] the Bank.]) * Buying Houses/Hotels: This may only be done at any time **other than** after a player rolls the dice, but before they have paid ([Rent [and/or] Tax]) to ([another player [and/or] the Bank.]) I would personally restrict Selling Unimproved Property cards, Get Out of Jail cards, and Buying Houses to any time other than after dice rolls, and before resolving the rolls (as that is clearly the way that most people have played the game. Mortgaging Property, and selling Houses/Hotels can really occur at any time, even after die rolls but before resolving the die rolls. **Note:** The iOS implementation of Monopoly, and the PSOne implementaion of this game do not allow buying houses/hotels, selling/proposing trades (including Get Out of Jail cards) after rolling dice but before resolving rent owed. It does allow selling houses/hotels and mortgaging properties to avoid going bankrupt after rolling dice but before paying rent, even when landing on another players property.
if a player owes to a landlord and does not have enough cash to pay the debt, but would be able to pay the debt in full after mortgaging properties they select, the player must do so (mortgage one or more properties) before making any deal with a third party to aquire funds for payment to the landlord that is owed. Or said another way... If a player sells a property to a third party before mortgaging to pay their current debts it creates a situation where players can skew markets unreasonably in dealing with a player that faces financial hardship due to rent or taxes/bank fees. "A player in debt should not be able to sell park place at a discounted rate to a third party player who owns boardwalk so that a current debt can be paid to a landlord, or at least not without offering the same deal or value to the landlord who is owed first" The indebted player must handle their affairs in order of priority, first being to pay rent due by way of using one current assets, cash or otherwise, and only then can deals can be made on mortgaged property if the player was able to avoid bankruptcy.
6,472
I play with some serious board gamers, but we have neglected Monopoly for a number of years, so our knowledge is mostly based on high school & house rules. We played last week and enjoyed it, but there was a piece of contention. There are times where we decide that we don't like one of our friends for some reason and don't want them to win (i.e. we landed on their property a bunch, or they refused to make a deal, etc.). So when player 1 has some property and player 2 lands on it and cannot pay the rent their assets (houses/hotels get liquidated), their property gets transferred to the other player. (Please correct me if I'm wrong.) In this case, though, player 3 "traded" the amount of money owing for a piece of property (way overpaid). In this case they did it so that player 1 would not get the properties. Player 2 had no chance of winning the game (all properties mortgaged, no cash to speak of and many of the other properties with 3+ houses/hotels on them). **To summarize:** Is it OK for a third player to purchase/trade property or cash to/from a player who is about to lose?
2012/02/06
[ "https://boardgames.stackexchange.com/questions/6472", "https://boardgames.stackexchange.com", "https://boardgames.stackexchange.com/users/2445/" ]
Our house rule was that the player owing the money could try to AUCTION off one or more of their properties to remain solvent. Everyone, including the player who is owed the money, could bid. Each property was dealt with, in turn, until the amount of the rent was covered. The player owning the money got to pick the order of the auctions. The properties were set aside with the purchase cash on them until the various auctions were over. One nice thing about this is that no one, including the player owning the rent, could bid with money that they could not raise. If there was not enough money to cover the debt, the player who was owed the money had the option to take the new amount of cash, or 'rollback' the auctions and take all the now bankrupt player's stuff instead. This process seemed to prevent any game-altering favoritism.
if a player owes to a landlord and does not have enough cash to pay the debt, but would be able to pay the debt in full after mortgaging properties they select, the player must do so (mortgage one or more properties) before making any deal with a third party to aquire funds for payment to the landlord that is owed. Or said another way... If a player sells a property to a third party before mortgaging to pay their current debts it creates a situation where players can skew markets unreasonably in dealing with a player that faces financial hardship due to rent or taxes/bank fees. "A player in debt should not be able to sell park place at a discounted rate to a third party player who owns boardwalk so that a current debt can be paid to a landlord, or at least not without offering the same deal or value to the landlord who is owed first" The indebted player must handle their affairs in order of priority, first being to pay rent due by way of using one current assets, cash or otherwise, and only then can deals can be made on mortgaged property if the player was able to avoid bankruptcy.
6,472
I play with some serious board gamers, but we have neglected Monopoly for a number of years, so our knowledge is mostly based on high school & house rules. We played last week and enjoyed it, but there was a piece of contention. There are times where we decide that we don't like one of our friends for some reason and don't want them to win (i.e. we landed on their property a bunch, or they refused to make a deal, etc.). So when player 1 has some property and player 2 lands on it and cannot pay the rent their assets (houses/hotels get liquidated), their property gets transferred to the other player. (Please correct me if I'm wrong.) In this case, though, player 3 "traded" the amount of money owing for a piece of property (way overpaid). In this case they did it so that player 1 would not get the properties. Player 2 had no chance of winning the game (all properties mortgaged, no cash to speak of and many of the other properties with 3+ houses/hotels on them). **To summarize:** Is it OK for a third player to purchase/trade property or cash to/from a player who is about to lose?
2012/02/06
[ "https://boardgames.stackexchange.com/questions/6472", "https://boardgames.stackexchange.com", "https://boardgames.stackexchange.com/users/2445/" ]
From a link on boardgamegeek <http://www.boardgamegeek.com/filepage/26288/monopoly-world-championship-game-rules-pdf> > > To raise money to pay debts, only houses and hotels can be sold back > to the bank (at half price) – never properties. If a debt is owed to > another player, properties may be sold to a third player only if > sufficient money is raised to cover the debt. If not, the properties > are turned over as is (and not mortgaged if unmortgaged at the time > the debt is incurred.) > > > If player 3 is willing to give player 2 enough money to stay in the game, I think it is poor form for her to refuse, and deliberately lose, so that player 1 can get her stuff.
It's not a violation of the games rules, but it seems to clearly violate the spirit of the game. If you're at the point where you're willing to resort to such things to penalize player 1 to that extent, why even bother finishing the game?
6,472
I play with some serious board gamers, but we have neglected Monopoly for a number of years, so our knowledge is mostly based on high school & house rules. We played last week and enjoyed it, but there was a piece of contention. There are times where we decide that we don't like one of our friends for some reason and don't want them to win (i.e. we landed on their property a bunch, or they refused to make a deal, etc.). So when player 1 has some property and player 2 lands on it and cannot pay the rent their assets (houses/hotels get liquidated), their property gets transferred to the other player. (Please correct me if I'm wrong.) In this case, though, player 3 "traded" the amount of money owing for a piece of property (way overpaid). In this case they did it so that player 1 would not get the properties. Player 2 had no chance of winning the game (all properties mortgaged, no cash to speak of and many of the other properties with 3+ houses/hotels on them). **To summarize:** Is it OK for a third player to purchase/trade property or cash to/from a player who is about to lose?
2012/02/06
[ "https://boardgames.stackexchange.com/questions/6472", "https://boardgames.stackexchange.com", "https://boardgames.stackexchange.com/users/2445/" ]
From a link on boardgamegeek <http://www.boardgamegeek.com/filepage/26288/monopoly-world-championship-game-rules-pdf> > > To raise money to pay debts, only houses and hotels can be sold back > to the bank (at half price) – never properties. If a debt is owed to > another player, properties may be sold to a third player only if > sufficient money is raised to cover the debt. If not, the properties > are turned over as is (and not mortgaged if unmortgaged at the time > the debt is incurred.) > > > If player 3 is willing to give player 2 enough money to stay in the game, I think it is poor form for her to refuse, and deliberately lose, so that player 1 can get her stuff.
You are allowed to do this. But this kind of trade implies an agreement between the buyer and the vendor to make the player who is about to get the properties lose. So your case is a matter of fair play with the player who is about to get the properties. In your case you decided to do such a thing against player 1 to make him lose. You did not cheat but you was not fair play too.
4,555,682
Imagine I have the two dimensional image of a hotdog. I can draw a straight line on the hotdog between its two ends. Call this the midline. One of its properties is that it is the axis about which the (2D) hotdog has the lowest moment of inertia. Now if I bend the hotdog in an arc, this midline will also distort. Given a picture of the bent hotdog, how can I determine this bent midline? The algorithm should tolerate a modest amount of noise in the image.
2010/12/29
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/4555682", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/287289/" ]
If I understand your question, you want a line through your object where every point is in the middle of the object, i.e. if you start from any point on the midline and walk in a direction perpendicular to the midline, you have to walk the same distance in both directions until you meet the border of the object: ![Hotdog with midline](https://i.stack.imgur.com/usJVh.png) (this is just an illustration - probably not the geometrically correct midline!) My quick&dirty solution would be to start with a middle axis (that can easily be calculated from first and second-order moments) and refine it by taking each point on this line and find the nearest border points on a line perpendicular to the current direction at that point, and move the point to the geometric center of these two points: ![Hotdog iteration 0](https://i.stack.imgur.com/vDWxq.png) If you do this for every point, you should get a better approximation for the midline. I said this was quick&dirty, because I'm not sure if simply repeating this procedure always converges to a stable solution. It probably depends on how you calculate the perpendicular direction of the midline in the presence of bends and kinks. One way around this is to use a more physically-inspired model: * Calculate a distance transform for the inside of your object (the distance of each point to the closest border point) * Find a smooth line through the object that maximizes the path integral of the distance transform image: ![Distance transform](https://i.stack.imgur.com/szie0.png) To find this line, I would use an algorithm similar to active contours/snakes: * Start with the middle axis * Apply two forces to each point: + One force "pushes" the line in the direction of the gradient of the distance transform (i.e. away from the closest border) + The other force counters the stretching and bending of the snake, so it keeps a smooth shape where there is no clear distance transform gradient. (Google for active contour - this is fairly standard CV stuff, you'll find lots of good articles about it.) * Repeat until convergence or some fixed iteration limit is reached You'll need to adjust a few parameters for these smoothness of the curve (as always with active contours), but your chances to get a well-defined and well-behaved approximation are far better than with the simple approach above.
Maybe you can [skeletonize](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Topological_skeleton) your bent hotdog. You first have to [thresold](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Thresholding_%28image_processing%29) it, then use a thinning algorithm. Here are some cool links: <http://xphilipp.developpez.com/contribuez/Skeleton-Algorithm.pdf> <http://www-prima.inrialpes.fr/perso/Tran/Draft/gateway.cfm.pdf> <http://www.geometrictools.com/Documentation/Skeletons.pdf>
4,555,682
Imagine I have the two dimensional image of a hotdog. I can draw a straight line on the hotdog between its two ends. Call this the midline. One of its properties is that it is the axis about which the (2D) hotdog has the lowest moment of inertia. Now if I bend the hotdog in an arc, this midline will also distort. Given a picture of the bent hotdog, how can I determine this bent midline? The algorithm should tolerate a modest amount of noise in the image.
2010/12/29
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/4555682", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/287289/" ]
Maybe you can [skeletonize](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Topological_skeleton) your bent hotdog. You first have to [thresold](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Thresholding_%28image_processing%29) it, then use a thinning algorithm. Here are some cool links: <http://xphilipp.developpez.com/contribuez/Skeleton-Algorithm.pdf> <http://www-prima.inrialpes.fr/perso/Tran/Draft/gateway.cfm.pdf> <http://www.geometrictools.com/Documentation/Skeletons.pdf>
You're probably looking for the Voronoi diagram, which will give you all the points that are equidistant from the shape "hot dog" edges -- e.g. the path/spine/ridge/midline down the middle. And here's an image to help visualize it: <http://vision.ai.uiuc.edu/~sintod/images/research/VoronoiDiag.png> Mapping this image to your example, the heavy blue outlines are your "hot dog" shapes, and the thin blue spine/midline in the interior is given by the Voronoi diagram. The points on that midline ridge are equally distant from the heavy blue edges.
4,555,682
Imagine I have the two dimensional image of a hotdog. I can draw a straight line on the hotdog between its two ends. Call this the midline. One of its properties is that it is the axis about which the (2D) hotdog has the lowest moment of inertia. Now if I bend the hotdog in an arc, this midline will also distort. Given a picture of the bent hotdog, how can I determine this bent midline? The algorithm should tolerate a modest amount of noise in the image.
2010/12/29
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/4555682", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/287289/" ]
If I understand your question, you want a line through your object where every point is in the middle of the object, i.e. if you start from any point on the midline and walk in a direction perpendicular to the midline, you have to walk the same distance in both directions until you meet the border of the object: ![Hotdog with midline](https://i.stack.imgur.com/usJVh.png) (this is just an illustration - probably not the geometrically correct midline!) My quick&dirty solution would be to start with a middle axis (that can easily be calculated from first and second-order moments) and refine it by taking each point on this line and find the nearest border points on a line perpendicular to the current direction at that point, and move the point to the geometric center of these two points: ![Hotdog iteration 0](https://i.stack.imgur.com/vDWxq.png) If you do this for every point, you should get a better approximation for the midline. I said this was quick&dirty, because I'm not sure if simply repeating this procedure always converges to a stable solution. It probably depends on how you calculate the perpendicular direction of the midline in the presence of bends and kinks. One way around this is to use a more physically-inspired model: * Calculate a distance transform for the inside of your object (the distance of each point to the closest border point) * Find a smooth line through the object that maximizes the path integral of the distance transform image: ![Distance transform](https://i.stack.imgur.com/szie0.png) To find this line, I would use an algorithm similar to active contours/snakes: * Start with the middle axis * Apply two forces to each point: + One force "pushes" the line in the direction of the gradient of the distance transform (i.e. away from the closest border) + The other force counters the stretching and bending of the snake, so it keeps a smooth shape where there is no clear distance transform gradient. (Google for active contour - this is fairly standard CV stuff, you'll find lots of good articles about it.) * Repeat until convergence or some fixed iteration limit is reached You'll need to adjust a few parameters for these smoothness of the curve (as always with active contours), but your chances to get a well-defined and well-behaved approximation are far better than with the simple approach above.
If the skeletonizing approach doesn't work, you are probably looking at a harder problem - which brings up a number of questions: how constrained are your shapes? are they always convex? etc. Depending upon the answers, you might consider parameterizing the shape. For starters, I would consider computing a convex hull (google QHull) and then determine a Delaunay triangulation of the shape. From there, I believe you could compute a Voronoi diagram and achieve the midline you need. Note: this is a lot of work - given this level of effort, it might helpful to see if a simple skeletonization can be tweaked enough to be sufficient.
4,555,682
Imagine I have the two dimensional image of a hotdog. I can draw a straight line on the hotdog between its two ends. Call this the midline. One of its properties is that it is the axis about which the (2D) hotdog has the lowest moment of inertia. Now if I bend the hotdog in an arc, this midline will also distort. Given a picture of the bent hotdog, how can I determine this bent midline? The algorithm should tolerate a modest amount of noise in the image.
2010/12/29
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/4555682", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/287289/" ]
If the skeletonizing approach doesn't work, you are probably looking at a harder problem - which brings up a number of questions: how constrained are your shapes? are they always convex? etc. Depending upon the answers, you might consider parameterizing the shape. For starters, I would consider computing a convex hull (google QHull) and then determine a Delaunay triangulation of the shape. From there, I believe you could compute a Voronoi diagram and achieve the midline you need. Note: this is a lot of work - given this level of effort, it might helpful to see if a simple skeletonization can be tweaked enough to be sufficient.
You're probably looking for the Voronoi diagram, which will give you all the points that are equidistant from the shape "hot dog" edges -- e.g. the path/spine/ridge/midline down the middle. And here's an image to help visualize it: <http://vision.ai.uiuc.edu/~sintod/images/research/VoronoiDiag.png> Mapping this image to your example, the heavy blue outlines are your "hot dog" shapes, and the thin blue spine/midline in the interior is given by the Voronoi diagram. The points on that midline ridge are equally distant from the heavy blue edges.