qid int64 1 74.7M | question stringlengths 12 33.8k | date stringlengths 10 10 | metadata list | response_j stringlengths 0 115k | response_k stringlengths 2 98.3k |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
16,404,985 | Anyone knows why is Facebook for Android SDK distributed as a Library Project instead of a jar?
I know you "can" compile it as a jar and everything, just wondering if there is any advantage on distribute it like that. | 2013/05/06 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/16404985",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1704441/"
] | The primary reason why the Facebook SDK is distributed as a Library Project is probably because it contains resources. This is the most straightforward way to distribute this kind of thing with resources. You can't simply compile it as a jar file. | Because doing so will not give the access of library project's resources to dependent projects. |
572,774 | Concept
-------
What is the word for someone who has no responsibility? I am meaning a situation where someone lacks anything to be responsible for.
Adjusting Google/Oxfords' meaning of "responsibility" to try and make the concept more clear:
The state or fact of having **no** duty to deal with **anything** or of having **no** control over **anyone**.
Specifically, I am looking for an adjective that describes a person. Like responsibility, it should reflect one's duty or state, not one's desire. But unlike responsibility, it should not imply a moral obligation nor a lack thereof.
---
Example Usage
-------------
Example sentences using a phrase:
* "The baby, previously lacking anything to be responsible for, finally set their heart on locomotion: the art of flailing limbs and sliding belly to move across the plush carpet.
* "His body finally able to rest, the industrial man becomes the man that now lacks anything to be responsible for."
With a made up word "aresponsible":
* "The once aresponsible baby finally set their heart on locomotion: the art of flailing limbs and sliding belly to move across the plush carpet."
* "His body finally able to rest, the industrial man becomes the aresponsible man."
---
Antonyms Tried
--------------
While checking Cambridge's Thesaurus for antonyms "be responsible for" gave no results, "be responsible" only gave the word "innocent". Innocent seems to mean a lack of knowledge or a state of being wrongfully accused. Innocent does not convey my idea properly. A lack of responsibilities can be known or not known and has nothing to do with accusations.
Another common suggestion is "irresponsible", from wiktionary.org's antonym list for example, but it comes with the assumption that responsibility is being neglected or there is a lack of ability to handle responsibility. Someone without responsibility could very well be aware and capable of it, but not have any and may never be obligated, expected, or assigned any in the future. This does not mean they are an irresponsible person.
---
I will try to source to the best of my ability:
([Wikitionary](https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/responsible#English) 8/13/2021)
(Original Google/Oxfords' [definition](https://www.google.com/search?q=responsibility) of responsibility, *"The state or fact of having a duty to deal with something or of having control over someone."* 8/13/2021) | 2021/08/13 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/572774",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/269277/"
] | **Floater**
As in, somebody within an organization who does not have a fixed assignment. Rather, their skills are deployed as and where they are needed (e.g. paraprofessional aides who move between classrooms). | [Merriam-Webster](https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/sinecurist) gives:
**sinecurist** (noun): ***one who has a sinecure***
Where *sinecure* is:
**sinecure** (noun): ***an office or position that requires little or no work and that usually provides an income*** |
572,774 | Concept
-------
What is the word for someone who has no responsibility? I am meaning a situation where someone lacks anything to be responsible for.
Adjusting Google/Oxfords' meaning of "responsibility" to try and make the concept more clear:
The state or fact of having **no** duty to deal with **anything** or of having **no** control over **anyone**.
Specifically, I am looking for an adjective that describes a person. Like responsibility, it should reflect one's duty or state, not one's desire. But unlike responsibility, it should not imply a moral obligation nor a lack thereof.
---
Example Usage
-------------
Example sentences using a phrase:
* "The baby, previously lacking anything to be responsible for, finally set their heart on locomotion: the art of flailing limbs and sliding belly to move across the plush carpet.
* "His body finally able to rest, the industrial man becomes the man that now lacks anything to be responsible for."
With a made up word "aresponsible":
* "The once aresponsible baby finally set their heart on locomotion: the art of flailing limbs and sliding belly to move across the plush carpet."
* "His body finally able to rest, the industrial man becomes the aresponsible man."
---
Antonyms Tried
--------------
While checking Cambridge's Thesaurus for antonyms "be responsible for" gave no results, "be responsible" only gave the word "innocent". Innocent seems to mean a lack of knowledge or a state of being wrongfully accused. Innocent does not convey my idea properly. A lack of responsibilities can be known or not known and has nothing to do with accusations.
Another common suggestion is "irresponsible", from wiktionary.org's antonym list for example, but it comes with the assumption that responsibility is being neglected or there is a lack of ability to handle responsibility. Someone without responsibility could very well be aware and capable of it, but not have any and may never be obligated, expected, or assigned any in the future. This does not mean they are an irresponsible person.
---
I will try to source to the best of my ability:
([Wikitionary](https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/responsible#English) 8/13/2021)
(Original Google/Oxfords' [definition](https://www.google.com/search?q=responsibility) of responsibility, *"The state or fact of having a duty to deal with something or of having control over someone."* 8/13/2021) | 2021/08/13 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/572774",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/269277/"
] | For completeness, a very specific term in government is: minister **without portfolio**.
Most government ministers have responsibility for a government ministry or department or other office (known as their ‘portfolio’). But a politician can be given a ministerial salary and participation in cabinet meetings and decisions without that specific responsibility, by appointing them [minister without portfolio](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Minister_without_portfolio). This may be because they hold a non-government position (such as party chairman), or have an area of responsibility not aligned with the existing structures, or simply because the head of government values their participation at that level. | **Supernumerary**
One definition is "Not wanted or needed; redundant".
For example (Cambridge dictionary, quoting Hansard) "The view is also held in certain places that there is a large number of supernumeraries in the administration who ought not to be there at all. |
572,774 | Concept
-------
What is the word for someone who has no responsibility? I am meaning a situation where someone lacks anything to be responsible for.
Adjusting Google/Oxfords' meaning of "responsibility" to try and make the concept more clear:
The state or fact of having **no** duty to deal with **anything** or of having **no** control over **anyone**.
Specifically, I am looking for an adjective that describes a person. Like responsibility, it should reflect one's duty or state, not one's desire. But unlike responsibility, it should not imply a moral obligation nor a lack thereof.
---
Example Usage
-------------
Example sentences using a phrase:
* "The baby, previously lacking anything to be responsible for, finally set their heart on locomotion: the art of flailing limbs and sliding belly to move across the plush carpet.
* "His body finally able to rest, the industrial man becomes the man that now lacks anything to be responsible for."
With a made up word "aresponsible":
* "The once aresponsible baby finally set their heart on locomotion: the art of flailing limbs and sliding belly to move across the plush carpet."
* "His body finally able to rest, the industrial man becomes the aresponsible man."
---
Antonyms Tried
--------------
While checking Cambridge's Thesaurus for antonyms "be responsible for" gave no results, "be responsible" only gave the word "innocent". Innocent seems to mean a lack of knowledge or a state of being wrongfully accused. Innocent does not convey my idea properly. A lack of responsibilities can be known or not known and has nothing to do with accusations.
Another common suggestion is "irresponsible", from wiktionary.org's antonym list for example, but it comes with the assumption that responsibility is being neglected or there is a lack of ability to handle responsibility. Someone without responsibility could very well be aware and capable of it, but not have any and may never be obligated, expected, or assigned any in the future. This does not mean they are an irresponsible person.
---
I will try to source to the best of my ability:
([Wikitionary](https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/responsible#English) 8/13/2021)
(Original Google/Oxfords' [definition](https://www.google.com/search?q=responsibility) of responsibility, *"The state or fact of having a duty to deal with something or of having control over someone."* 8/13/2021) | 2021/08/13 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/572774",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/269277/"
] | Elements of **Innocent**
1. a pure, guileless, or naive person.
"a young innocent abroad"
2. a person involved by chance in a situation, especially a victim of crime or war.
"they are prepared to kill or maim innocents in pursuit of a cause" | ### Spare resources.
In a business context, employees and their time are resources. Often, businesses don't want 100% resource utilization, since that doesn't give any slack in case someone gets sick, goes on vacation, or is otherwise unavailable. As such, the employees who don't have any tasks currently assigned to them can be said to be spare resources.
Of course, this is a noun phrase, not an adjective that describes a noun. "Bob is sick today. What spare resources do we have?" |
572,774 | Concept
-------
What is the word for someone who has no responsibility? I am meaning a situation where someone lacks anything to be responsible for.
Adjusting Google/Oxfords' meaning of "responsibility" to try and make the concept more clear:
The state or fact of having **no** duty to deal with **anything** or of having **no** control over **anyone**.
Specifically, I am looking for an adjective that describes a person. Like responsibility, it should reflect one's duty or state, not one's desire. But unlike responsibility, it should not imply a moral obligation nor a lack thereof.
---
Example Usage
-------------
Example sentences using a phrase:
* "The baby, previously lacking anything to be responsible for, finally set their heart on locomotion: the art of flailing limbs and sliding belly to move across the plush carpet.
* "His body finally able to rest, the industrial man becomes the man that now lacks anything to be responsible for."
With a made up word "aresponsible":
* "The once aresponsible baby finally set their heart on locomotion: the art of flailing limbs and sliding belly to move across the plush carpet."
* "His body finally able to rest, the industrial man becomes the aresponsible man."
---
Antonyms Tried
--------------
While checking Cambridge's Thesaurus for antonyms "be responsible for" gave no results, "be responsible" only gave the word "innocent". Innocent seems to mean a lack of knowledge or a state of being wrongfully accused. Innocent does not convey my idea properly. A lack of responsibilities can be known or not known and has nothing to do with accusations.
Another common suggestion is "irresponsible", from wiktionary.org's antonym list for example, but it comes with the assumption that responsibility is being neglected or there is a lack of ability to handle responsibility. Someone without responsibility could very well be aware and capable of it, but not have any and may never be obligated, expected, or assigned any in the future. This does not mean they are an irresponsible person.
---
I will try to source to the best of my ability:
([Wikitionary](https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/responsible#English) 8/13/2021)
(Original Google/Oxfords' [definition](https://www.google.com/search?q=responsibility) of responsibility, *"The state or fact of having a duty to deal with something or of having control over someone."* 8/13/2021) | 2021/08/13 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/572774",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/269277/"
] | I'd go for "footloose". It literally means "unshackled", but - according to Etymonline.com - it has meant "free to act as one pleases" since 1873.
If that feels a bit informal, you might try "unengaged". It can mean "currently without a job", though (on the downside) it could also suggest "detached" in a disparaging sense.
Yes, it's interesting, isn't it? I kept feeling that the answer to your question was obvious, that it was on the tip of my tongue; but nothing really satisfying ever arrived. It definitely feels like we *should* have a word for it, but even a word like "insouciant", which literally means what you're asking for, has taken on that rather dismissive feeling, as if to describe someone as being "without responsibilities" is a criticism. | **Not in charge.**
Person who isn't in charge for something ( responsible ) isn't irresponsible, but rather not assigned to the duty. |
572,774 | Concept
-------
What is the word for someone who has no responsibility? I am meaning a situation where someone lacks anything to be responsible for.
Adjusting Google/Oxfords' meaning of "responsibility" to try and make the concept more clear:
The state or fact of having **no** duty to deal with **anything** or of having **no** control over **anyone**.
Specifically, I am looking for an adjective that describes a person. Like responsibility, it should reflect one's duty or state, not one's desire. But unlike responsibility, it should not imply a moral obligation nor a lack thereof.
---
Example Usage
-------------
Example sentences using a phrase:
* "The baby, previously lacking anything to be responsible for, finally set their heart on locomotion: the art of flailing limbs and sliding belly to move across the plush carpet.
* "His body finally able to rest, the industrial man becomes the man that now lacks anything to be responsible for."
With a made up word "aresponsible":
* "The once aresponsible baby finally set their heart on locomotion: the art of flailing limbs and sliding belly to move across the plush carpet."
* "His body finally able to rest, the industrial man becomes the aresponsible man."
---
Antonyms Tried
--------------
While checking Cambridge's Thesaurus for antonyms "be responsible for" gave no results, "be responsible" only gave the word "innocent". Innocent seems to mean a lack of knowledge or a state of being wrongfully accused. Innocent does not convey my idea properly. A lack of responsibilities can be known or not known and has nothing to do with accusations.
Another common suggestion is "irresponsible", from wiktionary.org's antonym list for example, but it comes with the assumption that responsibility is being neglected or there is a lack of ability to handle responsibility. Someone without responsibility could very well be aware and capable of it, but not have any and may never be obligated, expected, or assigned any in the future. This does not mean they are an irresponsible person.
---
I will try to source to the best of my ability:
([Wikitionary](https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/responsible#English) 8/13/2021)
(Original Google/Oxfords' [definition](https://www.google.com/search?q=responsibility) of responsibility, *"The state or fact of having a duty to deal with something or of having control over someone."* 8/13/2021) | 2021/08/13 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/572774",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/269277/"
] | **carefree**
>
> ADJECTIVE
>
> Free from anxiety or responsibility.
>
> *‘the carefree days of summer’* [Lexico](https://www.lexico.com/en/definition/carefree)
>
>
>
**carefreeness**
>
> The trait of being without worry or responsibility [vocabulary.com](https://www.vocabulary.com/dictionary/carefreeness)
>
>
>
>
> But for most of us **carefree** living is taking no responsibilities and
> an escape from the world itself. [ref](https://www.google.com/books/edition/Heart_2_Heart/MFteDAAAQBAJ?hl=en&gbpv=1&dq=carefree%20responsibilities&pg=PT35&printsec=frontcover).
>
>
>
>
> Childhood is idealized as a **carefree** period—no responsibilities, no
> worries about calories. [ref](https://www.google.com/books/edition/Kids_These_Days/UQRvAAAAQBAJ?hl=en&gbpv=1&dq=carefree%20responsibilities&pg=PA41&printsec=frontcover).
>
>
>
>
> She had been eighteen, no age at all really, but though they had both
> been delighted at the thought of parenthood, **carefreeness** had flown
> out the window. [ref](https://www.google.com/books/edition/Such_Sweet_Sorrow/9ZfrwxX-V5oC?hl=en&gbpv=1&dq=carefreeness&pg=PA88&printsec=frontcover).
>
>
>
You could refer to a *carefree state/existence,* or the *state/condition of being carefree* if that works better than *carefreeness.* | Elements of **Innocent**
1. a pure, guileless, or naive person.
"a young innocent abroad"
2. a person involved by chance in a situation, especially a victim of crime or war.
"they are prepared to kill or maim innocents in pursuit of a cause" |
572,774 | Concept
-------
What is the word for someone who has no responsibility? I am meaning a situation where someone lacks anything to be responsible for.
Adjusting Google/Oxfords' meaning of "responsibility" to try and make the concept more clear:
The state or fact of having **no** duty to deal with **anything** or of having **no** control over **anyone**.
Specifically, I am looking for an adjective that describes a person. Like responsibility, it should reflect one's duty or state, not one's desire. But unlike responsibility, it should not imply a moral obligation nor a lack thereof.
---
Example Usage
-------------
Example sentences using a phrase:
* "The baby, previously lacking anything to be responsible for, finally set their heart on locomotion: the art of flailing limbs and sliding belly to move across the plush carpet.
* "His body finally able to rest, the industrial man becomes the man that now lacks anything to be responsible for."
With a made up word "aresponsible":
* "The once aresponsible baby finally set their heart on locomotion: the art of flailing limbs and sliding belly to move across the plush carpet."
* "His body finally able to rest, the industrial man becomes the aresponsible man."
---
Antonyms Tried
--------------
While checking Cambridge's Thesaurus for antonyms "be responsible for" gave no results, "be responsible" only gave the word "innocent". Innocent seems to mean a lack of knowledge or a state of being wrongfully accused. Innocent does not convey my idea properly. A lack of responsibilities can be known or not known and has nothing to do with accusations.
Another common suggestion is "irresponsible", from wiktionary.org's antonym list for example, but it comes with the assumption that responsibility is being neglected or there is a lack of ability to handle responsibility. Someone without responsibility could very well be aware and capable of it, but not have any and may never be obligated, expected, or assigned any in the future. This does not mean they are an irresponsible person.
---
I will try to source to the best of my ability:
([Wikitionary](https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/responsible#English) 8/13/2021)
(Original Google/Oxfords' [definition](https://www.google.com/search?q=responsibility) of responsibility, *"The state or fact of having a duty to deal with something or of having control over someone."* 8/13/2021) | 2021/08/13 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/572774",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/269277/"
] | **Floater**
As in, somebody within an organization who does not have a fixed assignment. Rather, their skills are deployed as and where they are needed (e.g. paraprofessional aides who move between classrooms). | **Not in charge.**
Person who isn't in charge for something ( responsible ) isn't irresponsible, but rather not assigned to the duty. |
572,774 | Concept
-------
What is the word for someone who has no responsibility? I am meaning a situation where someone lacks anything to be responsible for.
Adjusting Google/Oxfords' meaning of "responsibility" to try and make the concept more clear:
The state or fact of having **no** duty to deal with **anything** or of having **no** control over **anyone**.
Specifically, I am looking for an adjective that describes a person. Like responsibility, it should reflect one's duty or state, not one's desire. But unlike responsibility, it should not imply a moral obligation nor a lack thereof.
---
Example Usage
-------------
Example sentences using a phrase:
* "The baby, previously lacking anything to be responsible for, finally set their heart on locomotion: the art of flailing limbs and sliding belly to move across the plush carpet.
* "His body finally able to rest, the industrial man becomes the man that now lacks anything to be responsible for."
With a made up word "aresponsible":
* "The once aresponsible baby finally set their heart on locomotion: the art of flailing limbs and sliding belly to move across the plush carpet."
* "His body finally able to rest, the industrial man becomes the aresponsible man."
---
Antonyms Tried
--------------
While checking Cambridge's Thesaurus for antonyms "be responsible for" gave no results, "be responsible" only gave the word "innocent". Innocent seems to mean a lack of knowledge or a state of being wrongfully accused. Innocent does not convey my idea properly. A lack of responsibilities can be known or not known and has nothing to do with accusations.
Another common suggestion is "irresponsible", from wiktionary.org's antonym list for example, but it comes with the assumption that responsibility is being neglected or there is a lack of ability to handle responsibility. Someone without responsibility could very well be aware and capable of it, but not have any and may never be obligated, expected, or assigned any in the future. This does not mean they are an irresponsible person.
---
I will try to source to the best of my ability:
([Wikitionary](https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/responsible#English) 8/13/2021)
(Original Google/Oxfords' [definition](https://www.google.com/search?q=responsibility) of responsibility, *"The state or fact of having a duty to deal with something or of having control over someone."* 8/13/2021) | 2021/08/13 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/572774",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/269277/"
] | For completeness, a very specific term in government is: minister **without portfolio**.
Most government ministers have responsibility for a government ministry or department or other office (known as their ‘portfolio’). But a politician can be given a ministerial salary and participation in cabinet meetings and decisions without that specific responsibility, by appointing them [minister without portfolio](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Minister_without_portfolio). This may be because they hold a non-government position (such as party chairman), or have an area of responsibility not aligned with the existing structures, or simply because the head of government values their participation at that level. | I'd go for "footloose". It literally means "unshackled", but - according to Etymonline.com - it has meant "free to act as one pleases" since 1873.
If that feels a bit informal, you might try "unengaged". It can mean "currently without a job", though (on the downside) it could also suggest "detached" in a disparaging sense.
Yes, it's interesting, isn't it? I kept feeling that the answer to your question was obvious, that it was on the tip of my tongue; but nothing really satisfying ever arrived. It definitely feels like we *should* have a word for it, but even a word like "insouciant", which literally means what you're asking for, has taken on that rather dismissive feeling, as if to describe someone as being "without responsibilities" is a criticism. |
572,774 | Concept
-------
What is the word for someone who has no responsibility? I am meaning a situation where someone lacks anything to be responsible for.
Adjusting Google/Oxfords' meaning of "responsibility" to try and make the concept more clear:
The state or fact of having **no** duty to deal with **anything** or of having **no** control over **anyone**.
Specifically, I am looking for an adjective that describes a person. Like responsibility, it should reflect one's duty or state, not one's desire. But unlike responsibility, it should not imply a moral obligation nor a lack thereof.
---
Example Usage
-------------
Example sentences using a phrase:
* "The baby, previously lacking anything to be responsible for, finally set their heart on locomotion: the art of flailing limbs and sliding belly to move across the plush carpet.
* "His body finally able to rest, the industrial man becomes the man that now lacks anything to be responsible for."
With a made up word "aresponsible":
* "The once aresponsible baby finally set their heart on locomotion: the art of flailing limbs and sliding belly to move across the plush carpet."
* "His body finally able to rest, the industrial man becomes the aresponsible man."
---
Antonyms Tried
--------------
While checking Cambridge's Thesaurus for antonyms "be responsible for" gave no results, "be responsible" only gave the word "innocent". Innocent seems to mean a lack of knowledge or a state of being wrongfully accused. Innocent does not convey my idea properly. A lack of responsibilities can be known or not known and has nothing to do with accusations.
Another common suggestion is "irresponsible", from wiktionary.org's antonym list for example, but it comes with the assumption that responsibility is being neglected or there is a lack of ability to handle responsibility. Someone without responsibility could very well be aware and capable of it, but not have any and may never be obligated, expected, or assigned any in the future. This does not mean they are an irresponsible person.
---
I will try to source to the best of my ability:
([Wikitionary](https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/responsible#English) 8/13/2021)
(Original Google/Oxfords' [definition](https://www.google.com/search?q=responsibility) of responsibility, *"The state or fact of having a duty to deal with something or of having control over someone."* 8/13/2021) | 2021/08/13 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/572774",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/269277/"
] | **Floater**
As in, somebody within an organization who does not have a fixed assignment. Rather, their skills are deployed as and where they are needed (e.g. paraprofessional aides who move between classrooms). | ### Spare resources.
In a business context, employees and their time are resources. Often, businesses don't want 100% resource utilization, since that doesn't give any slack in case someone gets sick, goes on vacation, or is otherwise unavailable. As such, the employees who don't have any tasks currently assigned to them can be said to be spare resources.
Of course, this is a noun phrase, not an adjective that describes a noun. "Bob is sick today. What spare resources do we have?" |
572,774 | Concept
-------
What is the word for someone who has no responsibility? I am meaning a situation where someone lacks anything to be responsible for.
Adjusting Google/Oxfords' meaning of "responsibility" to try and make the concept more clear:
The state or fact of having **no** duty to deal with **anything** or of having **no** control over **anyone**.
Specifically, I am looking for an adjective that describes a person. Like responsibility, it should reflect one's duty or state, not one's desire. But unlike responsibility, it should not imply a moral obligation nor a lack thereof.
---
Example Usage
-------------
Example sentences using a phrase:
* "The baby, previously lacking anything to be responsible for, finally set their heart on locomotion: the art of flailing limbs and sliding belly to move across the plush carpet.
* "His body finally able to rest, the industrial man becomes the man that now lacks anything to be responsible for."
With a made up word "aresponsible":
* "The once aresponsible baby finally set their heart on locomotion: the art of flailing limbs and sliding belly to move across the plush carpet."
* "His body finally able to rest, the industrial man becomes the aresponsible man."
---
Antonyms Tried
--------------
While checking Cambridge's Thesaurus for antonyms "be responsible for" gave no results, "be responsible" only gave the word "innocent". Innocent seems to mean a lack of knowledge or a state of being wrongfully accused. Innocent does not convey my idea properly. A lack of responsibilities can be known or not known and has nothing to do with accusations.
Another common suggestion is "irresponsible", from wiktionary.org's antonym list for example, but it comes with the assumption that responsibility is being neglected or there is a lack of ability to handle responsibility. Someone without responsibility could very well be aware and capable of it, but not have any and may never be obligated, expected, or assigned any in the future. This does not mean they are an irresponsible person.
---
I will try to source to the best of my ability:
([Wikitionary](https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/responsible#English) 8/13/2021)
(Original Google/Oxfords' [definition](https://www.google.com/search?q=responsibility) of responsibility, *"The state or fact of having a duty to deal with something or of having control over someone."* 8/13/2021) | 2021/08/13 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/572774",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/269277/"
] | For completeness, a very specific term in government is: minister **without portfolio**.
Most government ministers have responsibility for a government ministry or department or other office (known as their ‘portfolio’). But a politician can be given a ministerial salary and participation in cabinet meetings and decisions without that specific responsibility, by appointing them [minister without portfolio](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Minister_without_portfolio). This may be because they hold a non-government position (such as party chairman), or have an area of responsibility not aligned with the existing structures, or simply because the head of government values their participation at that level. | **Not in charge.**
Person who isn't in charge for something ( responsible ) isn't irresponsible, but rather not assigned to the duty. |
572,774 | Concept
-------
What is the word for someone who has no responsibility? I am meaning a situation where someone lacks anything to be responsible for.
Adjusting Google/Oxfords' meaning of "responsibility" to try and make the concept more clear:
The state or fact of having **no** duty to deal with **anything** or of having **no** control over **anyone**.
Specifically, I am looking for an adjective that describes a person. Like responsibility, it should reflect one's duty or state, not one's desire. But unlike responsibility, it should not imply a moral obligation nor a lack thereof.
---
Example Usage
-------------
Example sentences using a phrase:
* "The baby, previously lacking anything to be responsible for, finally set their heart on locomotion: the art of flailing limbs and sliding belly to move across the plush carpet.
* "His body finally able to rest, the industrial man becomes the man that now lacks anything to be responsible for."
With a made up word "aresponsible":
* "The once aresponsible baby finally set their heart on locomotion: the art of flailing limbs and sliding belly to move across the plush carpet."
* "His body finally able to rest, the industrial man becomes the aresponsible man."
---
Antonyms Tried
--------------
While checking Cambridge's Thesaurus for antonyms "be responsible for" gave no results, "be responsible" only gave the word "innocent". Innocent seems to mean a lack of knowledge or a state of being wrongfully accused. Innocent does not convey my idea properly. A lack of responsibilities can be known or not known and has nothing to do with accusations.
Another common suggestion is "irresponsible", from wiktionary.org's antonym list for example, but it comes with the assumption that responsibility is being neglected or there is a lack of ability to handle responsibility. Someone without responsibility could very well be aware and capable of it, but not have any and may never be obligated, expected, or assigned any in the future. This does not mean they are an irresponsible person.
---
I will try to source to the best of my ability:
([Wikitionary](https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/responsible#English) 8/13/2021)
(Original Google/Oxfords' [definition](https://www.google.com/search?q=responsibility) of responsibility, *"The state or fact of having a duty to deal with something or of having control over someone."* 8/13/2021) | 2021/08/13 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/572774",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/269277/"
] | **At leisure**
From MacMillan, [at leisure](https://www.macmillandictionary.com/us/dictionary/american/at-leisure): *free to do what you want.* | [Merriam-Webster](https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/sinecurist) gives:
**sinecurist** (noun): ***one who has a sinecure***
Where *sinecure* is:
**sinecure** (noun): ***an office or position that requires little or no work and that usually provides an income*** |
10,605,390 | Recently I've been tasked with writing and running unit tests in C# for a desktop application. In the past, I've written mainly automated functional/GUI tests. These get run on dedicated QA machines because these tests can cause crashes, data loss, Blue Screen of Death, etc. Should a similar setup be done for running unit tests? Are there any risks with running unit tests on my local machine? | 2012/05/15 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/10605390",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1134864/"
] | Unit tests should be so isolated that they can be run on every machine without any further setup. Unit tests by definition test only functional units on a very granular level without touching external systems (i.e. database, file system, etc.) | Unit Testing is typically done by the Developers while developing. So Run it on your Development environment. Probably your Local machine. |
10,605,390 | Recently I've been tasked with writing and running unit tests in C# for a desktop application. In the past, I've written mainly automated functional/GUI tests. These get run on dedicated QA machines because these tests can cause crashes, data loss, Blue Screen of Death, etc. Should a similar setup be done for running unit tests? Are there any risks with running unit tests on my local machine? | 2012/05/15 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/10605390",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1134864/"
] | Unit tests should run on your local machine **AND** on the build server. They are an invaluable resource as feedback for the developer. The **DEV** should *write* the unit tests. Before checking in, he should *run* the unit tests to make sure he does not break anything. The build server will then run the unit tests again, in order to make sure nothing it actually broken, and that the integration with other code, if any, succeeded.
When the unit tests have run, preferably, the build server should then run integration tests and automated UI tests. When these processes have finished, a build has been produced with no known defects - at least none that is covered by the tests. In other words a green build means the software integration went well, and the developers can keep checking in - or at some point start doing manual testing before actually releasing a piece of software.
Software testing nirvana happens when enough tests has been automated, so that the developers and the business can feel safe releasing a product based only on the success of this stream of automated tests. In reality, only a few products will be this mature - and some amount of manual testing is required.
Unit tests does not touch external systems or interfaces. Therefore, there are no risks by running them locally. | Unit Testing is typically done by the Developers while developing. So Run it on your Development environment. Probably your Local machine. |
10,605,390 | Recently I've been tasked with writing and running unit tests in C# for a desktop application. In the past, I've written mainly automated functional/GUI tests. These get run on dedicated QA machines because these tests can cause crashes, data loss, Blue Screen of Death, etc. Should a similar setup be done for running unit tests? Are there any risks with running unit tests on my local machine? | 2012/05/15 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/10605390",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1134864/"
] | Unit tests should be so isolated that they can be run on every machine without any further setup. Unit tests by definition test only functional units on a very granular level without touching external systems (i.e. database, file system, etc.) | well if your local machine is a dev machine I see no risk since the machine is not a production end user machine. You can also consider TFS Lab management (in case you have Microsoft TFS as ALM / source control system). in that case you can create virtual or physical test environment and the application gets deployed and tested in those defined environments.
not sure what the names of similar test products are for non TFS scenarios. |
10,605,390 | Recently I've been tasked with writing and running unit tests in C# for a desktop application. In the past, I've written mainly automated functional/GUI tests. These get run on dedicated QA machines because these tests can cause crashes, data loss, Blue Screen of Death, etc. Should a similar setup be done for running unit tests? Are there any risks with running unit tests on my local machine? | 2012/05/15 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/10605390",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1134864/"
] | Unit tests should run on your local machine **AND** on the build server. They are an invaluable resource as feedback for the developer. The **DEV** should *write* the unit tests. Before checking in, he should *run* the unit tests to make sure he does not break anything. The build server will then run the unit tests again, in order to make sure nothing it actually broken, and that the integration with other code, if any, succeeded.
When the unit tests have run, preferably, the build server should then run integration tests and automated UI tests. When these processes have finished, a build has been produced with no known defects - at least none that is covered by the tests. In other words a green build means the software integration went well, and the developers can keep checking in - or at some point start doing manual testing before actually releasing a piece of software.
Software testing nirvana happens when enough tests has been automated, so that the developers and the business can feel safe releasing a product based only on the success of this stream of automated tests. In reality, only a few products will be this mature - and some amount of manual testing is required.
Unit tests does not touch external systems or interfaces. Therefore, there are no risks by running them locally. | Unit tests should be so isolated that they can be run on every machine without any further setup. Unit tests by definition test only functional units on a very granular level without touching external systems (i.e. database, file system, etc.) |
10,605,390 | Recently I've been tasked with writing and running unit tests in C# for a desktop application. In the past, I've written mainly automated functional/GUI tests. These get run on dedicated QA machines because these tests can cause crashes, data loss, Blue Screen of Death, etc. Should a similar setup be done for running unit tests? Are there any risks with running unit tests on my local machine? | 2012/05/15 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/10605390",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1134864/"
] | Unit tests should run on your local machine **AND** on the build server. They are an invaluable resource as feedback for the developer. The **DEV** should *write* the unit tests. Before checking in, he should *run* the unit tests to make sure he does not break anything. The build server will then run the unit tests again, in order to make sure nothing it actually broken, and that the integration with other code, if any, succeeded.
When the unit tests have run, preferably, the build server should then run integration tests and automated UI tests. When these processes have finished, a build has been produced with no known defects - at least none that is covered by the tests. In other words a green build means the software integration went well, and the developers can keep checking in - or at some point start doing manual testing before actually releasing a piece of software.
Software testing nirvana happens when enough tests has been automated, so that the developers and the business can feel safe releasing a product based only on the success of this stream of automated tests. In reality, only a few products will be this mature - and some amount of manual testing is required.
Unit tests does not touch external systems or interfaces. Therefore, there are no risks by running them locally. | well if your local machine is a dev machine I see no risk since the machine is not a production end user machine. You can also consider TFS Lab management (in case you have Microsoft TFS as ALM / source control system). in that case you can create virtual or physical test environment and the application gets deployed and tested in those defined environments.
not sure what the names of similar test products are for non TFS scenarios. |
4,389,975 | I am using a *Settings.bundle* to keep user preferences in my app. By default, they are displayed in the standard *Settings.app*: <http://i.stack.imgur.com/QxWKX.png>
I need to be able to hide these so the user cannot access the app preferences from the *Settings.app*
Any help would be greatly appreciated! | 2010/12/08 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/4389975",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/524358/"
] | Delete the Settings.bundle, clean all targets, Then Build and Go. | Remove your Settings.bundle and just reference your preference keys using NSUserDefaults. Settings.bundle just defines how they should appear in the settings app. |
166,539 | The **Orion's Arm Universe Project** includes a description of what they call "**[To](https://www.orionsarm.com/eg-article/4802ab151e093)['](https://tvtropes.org/pmwiki/pmwiki.php/Main/PunctuationShaker)[ul](https://www.orionsarm.com/eg-article/4802ab151e093)['](https://tvtropes.org/pmwiki/pmwiki.php/Main/PunctuationShaker)[hian Worlds](https://www.orionsarm.com/eg-article/4802ab151e093)**", planets that are (in the simplest of terms) a cross between Earth and Venus.
**I'm working on designing a similar planet** for an unconnected story, and this OAUP page is the closest thing to a reference for my setting that I've found so far.
@galactic\_analyzer suggests that the OAUP world's CO₂ atmosphere is problematic, and I'd prefer an Earth-like nitrox atmosphere anyway, so for this question let's make that replacement.
**Could a planet like this exist in real life?** If not, what specifically causes problems with the concept?
The key points are:
* surface pressure of 10 to 100 bars
* surface temperature of 100 to 200 degrees Celsius
+ Note: at 10 bar, maximum temperature is 180°C; at 200°C, minimum pressure is 16 bar
* liquid water at the planet's surface
* an active carbon cycle
* develops oxygen-producing airborne life
* atmosphere includes thermosphere and ozone layer
* atmosphere consists primarily of ~~carbon dioxide~~ nitrox | 2020/01/25 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/166539",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/71843/"
] | Quite simply, it would not be possible. First of all, the **only** reason why the Earth does **not** have so much carbon dioxide is because of oxygen-producing life. If your planet has developed oxygen-producing life, it should already have converted most of the CO2 into oxygen. While oxygen-producing life may have evolved only recently on your planet, other aspects of your hypothetical planet prevent each other from forming.
The early Earth, although rich in CO2 with higher surface temperatures, did **not** have temperatures or pressures as high as Venus does today. Like Zxyrra said earlier, Venus’s current atmosphere was formed when greenhouse gases accumulated in its atmosphere, heating rocks to a higher temperature to form more greenhouse gases. This accumulated over time into its current atmosphere. The reason why this did not occur on Earth is because oxygen-producing life acted as a “brake” to halt the process. If oxygen-producing life evolved on your world, the planet would **not** have temperatures or pressures as high as they are mentioned in your question (10-100 bars, 100-200°C).
There is a great amount of difference between 10 and 100 bars of atmospheric pressure and 100 and 200 degrees Celsius. In **one** interpretation of your atmospheric pressure and temperature, liquid water **cannot** exist. A **different** interpretation would allow it to exist, but I do not know the exact values of your hypothetical planet's atmospheric pressure and temperature. A carbon cycle also could not exist on this world because oxygen-producing life is incompatible with higher surface temperatures and pressures. A thermosphere would also not exist on a planet with such high pressures; an ozone layer would similarly not exist because oxygen originating from photosynthetic organisms is a prerequisite for the formation of one.
In summary, your idea is an interesting thought experiment. However, there is either the toxic, hellish “Venus” type planet or the terrestrial, Earth-like planet with no “in-between.” So, your planet would not exist.
UPDATE: @Lawton edited his/her question to a nitrox (nitrogen-oxygen atmosphere similar to Earth) atmosphere. This is an entirely different scenario. If possible, I will answer his/her new scenario later when I have time. | With such temperatures you'd have another problem. At least, if your lifeforms are going to be anything like familiar biology.
Complex proteines break down at those temperature similar to how the proteine in meat changes its properties when subjected to high temperature, giving it its brown rather than pink or red coloration. The only thing coming remotely close to the kinds of lifeforms that could live in your environment are thermophiles with highly specialized enzymes. But that also has its limits, it doesn't allow for very complex and big proteine chains required for complex life. You'd have to deviate from carbon based since carbon based proteines simply won't hold up at such temperatures. |
166,539 | The **Orion's Arm Universe Project** includes a description of what they call "**[To](https://www.orionsarm.com/eg-article/4802ab151e093)['](https://tvtropes.org/pmwiki/pmwiki.php/Main/PunctuationShaker)[ul](https://www.orionsarm.com/eg-article/4802ab151e093)['](https://tvtropes.org/pmwiki/pmwiki.php/Main/PunctuationShaker)[hian Worlds](https://www.orionsarm.com/eg-article/4802ab151e093)**", planets that are (in the simplest of terms) a cross between Earth and Venus.
**I'm working on designing a similar planet** for an unconnected story, and this OAUP page is the closest thing to a reference for my setting that I've found so far.
@galactic\_analyzer suggests that the OAUP world's CO₂ atmosphere is problematic, and I'd prefer an Earth-like nitrox atmosphere anyway, so for this question let's make that replacement.
**Could a planet like this exist in real life?** If not, what specifically causes problems with the concept?
The key points are:
* surface pressure of 10 to 100 bars
* surface temperature of 100 to 200 degrees Celsius
+ Note: at 10 bar, maximum temperature is 180°C; at 200°C, minimum pressure is 16 bar
* liquid water at the planet's surface
* an active carbon cycle
* develops oxygen-producing airborne life
* atmosphere includes thermosphere and ozone layer
* atmosphere consists primarily of ~~carbon dioxide~~ nitrox | 2020/01/25 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/166539",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/71843/"
] | Life organisms
==============
Earth examples and liquid water
-------------------------------
First of all within the ranges given, at temperatures lower than 150 °C and pressures greater than 10 bar water is [liquid](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Water_(data_page)#Phase_diagram). Which also means that there is no runaway greenhouse effect under those conditions. Among the living organisms that live and reproduce in those conditions there are the following:
* [Methanopyrus kandleri](https://microbewiki.kenyon.edu/index.php/Methanopyrus_kandleri) lives optimally at 105 °C (up to 122°C) and it was found also underwater at 200 bar. It can consume CO2 and H2 to produce methane(CH4).
* [Pyrobaculum islandicum](https://microbewiki.kenyon.edu/index.php/Pyrobaculum_islandicum) lives best at 100 °C (up to 103°C). It can survive with only elemental sulfur, CO2 and H2 while acting as the producer of organic matter that the other living being may need.
* [Pyrolobus fumari](https://microbewiki.kenyon.edu/index.php/Pyrolobus_fumarii) lives best at 106°C (up to 113°C) and was also found underwater at 370 bar. Among the many ways, it can live by consuming O2 and H2.
* [Geogemma barossii aka. Strain 121](https://microbewiki.kenyon.edu/index.php/Geogemma_barossii) lives best at 103°C (up to 130°C) and it was found also underwater at 243 bar. It survives by using iron instead of oxygen.
* [Pyrococcus furiosus](https://microbewiki.kenyon.edu/index.php/Pyrococcus_furiosus) lives best at 100°C (up to 103°C-105°C). It can generate H2, but O2 is toxic to it. In its presence it tries to convert it into water.
Carbon cycle and ozone
----------------------
Assuming a way of producing O2 from water (which will be discussed later) the presence of O2 in the air would [transform the CH4](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Atmospheric_methane#Removal_processes) produced by the Methanopyrus kandleri in formaldehyde(HCHO). This [would react with O2](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Formaldehyde#Oxidation) to produce formic acid, which [readily decomposes](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Formic_acid#Chemical_reactions) into H2O + CO in the presence of sulfuric acid, which is present in the [upper clouds of Venus](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sulfuric_acid#Venus).
For the ozone you mostly need only O2 due to the [ozone-oxygen cycle](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ozone%E2%80%93oxygen_cycle).
Oxygen cycle
------------
As per the missing production O2, this would be what plants usually do. [This wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Photosynthesis#Light_intensity_(irradiance),_wavelength_and_temperature) paragraph shows how increasing the temperature is either indifferent or improves the photosynthesis, but this may not apply to temperatures a bit over 100°C.
There are some like the [Chloroflexus aurantiacus](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Chloroflexus_aurantiacus) that are able to do photosynthesis using bacteriochlorophyll instead of chlorophyll and grow at 70°C, but they don't produce O2 (this due to using bacteriochlorophyll). Others like [Cab. thermophilum](https://microbewiki.kenyon.edu/index.php/Candidatus_Chloracidobacterium_thermophilum) are able to use chlorophyll at 66°C, but they consumes O2 instead of producing it.
Even if I didn't found any O2 producing organism that lives at over 100°C, it's important to notice how such an environment is rather scarce on earth, which makes the few known cases have a rather low statistical relevance. There could be an alternative and possible evolution path where those exist, but it just didn't happen. From the data riported the existence of such a being seems plausible. On the other hand if there isn't such a being then the requested planet can't exist (no oxygen-producing airborne life at those temperatures).
Environment planet-wise
=======================
Required differences from Venus
-------------------------------
First of all that planet should have a magnetic field like earth to reduce the loss of oxygen and hydrogen due to the solar wind, as they are both needed for life. Having a thermosphere is not a problem as both Earth and Venus have it.
Additionally a day duration more similar to the one on earth would allow for a more even temperature which helps (together with the CO2 that on the surface is a supercritical fluid with a good heat conduction) the organisms have the temperatures more near the mean of 100°C (131°C and they all die). This would have the effect of changing the wind circulation into one more earth-like.
Consequences on sulfur
----------------------
In a planet with an atmosphere composition like the one of Venus, the surface pressure would be around 90 bar, which is perfectly within range. As per the temperature, it'd surely be higher than the one of a planet like earth, but that would still depend on its distance from the sun. Just put it much further away and you'd get the desired surface temperature. This has also the effect of preventing the formation of the clouds as the sulfuric acid cycle needs a surface temperature of at least 300°C (which is not there) to [regenerate the clouds](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sulfuric_acid#Venus) from the acid rain like on Venus.
The result would make all the sulfuric acid stay mostly on the surface and a big reduction in SO2 content in the atmosphere, with clouds being created through evaporation like on earth. It's also worth notice how the surface temperature of 100°C is at 33% between the melting and boiling point of sulfuric acid, while the earth average of the surface sea is 16.1°C, roughly at 16% between the melting and boiling point of water. Being closer to the boiling point would create more clouds than on earth (it limits the photosynthesis), but still way less than the current situation on Venus.
Life related atmospheric composition.
-------------------------------------
It's also important to consider that there would be a higher concentration of CH4 in the air due to the presence of the Methanopyrus kandleri. Additionally there would be two ways to consume O2: the atmospheric transformation of CH4 into CO2 and the Pyrolobus fumari that consumes H2 and O2. If the amount of CH4 produced is not enough to make the atmosphere fully consume the O2, the Pyrolobus fumari would help consuming the rest. This would result in an atmosphere with mostly CO2, and only in minor part of O2, CH4 and H2.
The low production of CH4 and consumption of CO2 could be attained by carefully choosing the surface temperature to control how fast each species reproduce. The amount of O2 present would probably be enough to kill the Pyrococcus furiosus needed to generate the H2, but I can't see why there couldn't exist a variation able to withstand a concentration of O2 a bit higher than that one.
This difference from Venus would help increasing the greenhouse effect due to the presence of CH4 instead of CO2, with the former having a greater [global warming potential](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Global_warming_potential). Additionally it would reduce the pressure On the surface and depending on the variation, it may reduce the ability of the superfluid CO2 to conduct heat and keep the temperature uniform. This may complicate a bit the situation, but it wouldn't be a deal breaker
other online resources used:
============================
* <https://www.newscientist.com/article/dn14208-the-most-extreme-life-forms-in-the-universe/>
* <https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC4148896/#T1>
* <https://engineeringunits.com/pressure-at-depth-calculator/>
* <https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Atmosphere_of_Venus> | With such temperatures you'd have another problem. At least, if your lifeforms are going to be anything like familiar biology.
Complex proteines break down at those temperature similar to how the proteine in meat changes its properties when subjected to high temperature, giving it its brown rather than pink or red coloration. The only thing coming remotely close to the kinds of lifeforms that could live in your environment are thermophiles with highly specialized enzymes. But that also has its limits, it doesn't allow for very complex and big proteine chains required for complex life. You'd have to deviate from carbon based since carbon based proteines simply won't hold up at such temperatures. |
12,564 | I'm falling in love with data science and I'm spending a lot of time studying it. It seems that a common data science workflow is:
1. Frame the problem
2. Collect the data
3. Clean the data
4. Work on the data
5. Report the results
I'm struggling to connect the dots when comes to work on the data. I'm aware that step 4 is where the fun happens, but I don't know where to begin. What are the steps taken when you work on the data? Example: do I need to find the central tendency or the standard deviation? Is machine learning needed?
Ps: I know these are broad questions, so please answer it within your own domain expertise. | 2016/07/03 | [
"https://datascience.stackexchange.com/questions/12564",
"https://datascience.stackexchange.com",
"https://datascience.stackexchange.com/users/18919/"
] | There is an answer from Tianqi Chen (2018).
>
> This difference has an impact on a corner case in feature importance analysis: the correlated features.
> Imagine two features perfectly correlated, feature A and feature B. For one specific tree, if the algorithm needs one of them, it will choose randomly (true in both boosting and Random Forests™).
>
>
> However, in Random Forests™ this random choice will be done for each tree, because each tree is independent from the others. Therefore, approximatively, depending of your parameters, 50% of the trees will choose feature A and the other 50% will choose feature B. So the importance of the information contained in A and B (which is the same, because they are perfectly correlated) is diluted in A and B. So you won’t easily know this information is important to predict what you want to predict! It is even worse when you have 10 correlated features…
>
>
> In boosting, when a specific link between feature and outcome have been learned by the algorithm, it will try to not refocus on it (in theory it is what happens, the reality is not always that simple). Therefore, all the importance will be on feature A or on feature B (but not both). You will know that one feature has an important role in the link between the observations and the label. It is still up to you to search for the correlated features to the one detected as important if you need to know all of them.
>
>
>
To summarise, Xgboost does not randomly use the correlated features in each tree, which random forest model suffers from such a situation.
**Reference**:
Tianqi Chen, Michaël Benesty, Tong He. 2018. “Understand Your Dataset with Xgboost.” <https://cran.r-project.org/web/packages/xgboost/vignettes/discoverYourData.html#numeric-v.s.-categorical-variables>. | A remark on Sandeep's answer:
Assuming 2 of your features are highly colinear (say equal 99% of time)
Indeed only 1 feature is selected at each split, but for the next split, the xgb can select the other feature. Therefore, the xgb feature ranking will probably rank the 2 colinear features equally. Without some prior knowledge or other feature processing, you have almost no means from this provided ranking to detect that the 2 features are colinear.
Now, as for the relative importance that outputs the xgboost, it should be very similar (or maybe exactly similar) to the sklearn gradient boostined tree ranking. See [here](https://stats.stackexchange.com/questions/162162/relative-variable-importance-for-boosting) for explainations. |
12,564 | I'm falling in love with data science and I'm spending a lot of time studying it. It seems that a common data science workflow is:
1. Frame the problem
2. Collect the data
3. Clean the data
4. Work on the data
5. Report the results
I'm struggling to connect the dots when comes to work on the data. I'm aware that step 4 is where the fun happens, but I don't know where to begin. What are the steps taken when you work on the data? Example: do I need to find the central tendency or the standard deviation? Is machine learning needed?
Ps: I know these are broad questions, so please answer it within your own domain expertise. | 2016/07/03 | [
"https://datascience.stackexchange.com/questions/12564",
"https://datascience.stackexchange.com",
"https://datascience.stackexchange.com/users/18919/"
] | There is an answer from Tianqi Chen (2018).
>
> This difference has an impact on a corner case in feature importance analysis: the correlated features.
> Imagine two features perfectly correlated, feature A and feature B. For one specific tree, if the algorithm needs one of them, it will choose randomly (true in both boosting and Random Forests™).
>
>
> However, in Random Forests™ this random choice will be done for each tree, because each tree is independent from the others. Therefore, approximatively, depending of your parameters, 50% of the trees will choose feature A and the other 50% will choose feature B. So the importance of the information contained in A and B (which is the same, because they are perfectly correlated) is diluted in A and B. So you won’t easily know this information is important to predict what you want to predict! It is even worse when you have 10 correlated features…
>
>
> In boosting, when a specific link between feature and outcome have been learned by the algorithm, it will try to not refocus on it (in theory it is what happens, the reality is not always that simple). Therefore, all the importance will be on feature A or on feature B (but not both). You will know that one feature has an important role in the link between the observations and the label. It is still up to you to search for the correlated features to the one detected as important if you need to know all of them.
>
>
>
To summarise, Xgboost does not randomly use the correlated features in each tree, which random forest model suffers from such a situation.
**Reference**:
Tianqi Chen, Michaël Benesty, Tong He. 2018. “Understand Your Dataset with Xgboost.” <https://cran.r-project.org/web/packages/xgboost/vignettes/discoverYourData.html#numeric-v.s.-categorical-variables>. | Remark on PSAfrance's answer, there is no such thing as equal ranking for 2 collinear features for xgb as tested by @dalloliogm. In fact, the equal ranking might be a case for random forests as the informational value of two correlated features is split due to random bagging.
From an understanding-feature-importance POV, XGB does it clearly and somewhat reliable interpretation (re-emphasizing the answer of Tianqi Chen) is possible. But it seems the feature importance from Random Forest can't be taken for granted for ranking as the value is split between the correlated features. |
12,564 | I'm falling in love with data science and I'm spending a lot of time studying it. It seems that a common data science workflow is:
1. Frame the problem
2. Collect the data
3. Clean the data
4. Work on the data
5. Report the results
I'm struggling to connect the dots when comes to work on the data. I'm aware that step 4 is where the fun happens, but I don't know where to begin. What are the steps taken when you work on the data? Example: do I need to find the central tendency or the standard deviation? Is machine learning needed?
Ps: I know these are broad questions, so please answer it within your own domain expertise. | 2016/07/03 | [
"https://datascience.stackexchange.com/questions/12564",
"https://datascience.stackexchange.com",
"https://datascience.stackexchange.com/users/18919/"
] | Decision trees are by nature immune to multi-collinearity. For example, if you have 2 features which are 99% correlated, when deciding upon a split the tree will choose only one of them. Other models such as Logistic regression would use both the features.
Since boosted trees use individual decision trees, they also are unaffected by multi-collinearity. However, its a good practice to remove any redundant features from any dataset used for training, irrespective of the model's algorithm. In your case since you're deriving new features, you could use this approach, evaluate each feature's importance and retain only the best features for your final model.
The importance matrix of an xgboost model is actually a data.table object with the first column listing the names of all the features actually used in the boosted trees. The second column is the Gain metric which implies the relative contribution of the corresponding feature to the model calculated by taking each feature's contribution for each tree in the model. A higher value of this metric when compared to another feature implies it is more important for generating a prediction. | Remark on PSAfrance's answer, there is no such thing as equal ranking for 2 collinear features for xgb as tested by @dalloliogm. In fact, the equal ranking might be a case for random forests as the informational value of two correlated features is split due to random bagging.
From an understanding-feature-importance POV, XGB does it clearly and somewhat reliable interpretation (re-emphasizing the answer of Tianqi Chen) is possible. But it seems the feature importance from Random Forest can't be taken for granted for ranking as the value is split between the correlated features. |
12,564 | I'm falling in love with data science and I'm spending a lot of time studying it. It seems that a common data science workflow is:
1. Frame the problem
2. Collect the data
3. Clean the data
4. Work on the data
5. Report the results
I'm struggling to connect the dots when comes to work on the data. I'm aware that step 4 is where the fun happens, but I don't know where to begin. What are the steps taken when you work on the data? Example: do I need to find the central tendency or the standard deviation? Is machine learning needed?
Ps: I know these are broad questions, so please answer it within your own domain expertise. | 2016/07/03 | [
"https://datascience.stackexchange.com/questions/12564",
"https://datascience.stackexchange.com",
"https://datascience.stackexchange.com/users/18919/"
] | Decision trees are by nature immune to multi-collinearity. For example, if you have 2 features which are 99% correlated, when deciding upon a split the tree will choose only one of them. Other models such as Logistic regression would use both the features.
Since boosted trees use individual decision trees, they also are unaffected by multi-collinearity. However, its a good practice to remove any redundant features from any dataset used for training, irrespective of the model's algorithm. In your case since you're deriving new features, you could use this approach, evaluate each feature's importance and retain only the best features for your final model.
The importance matrix of an xgboost model is actually a data.table object with the first column listing the names of all the features actually used in the boosted trees. The second column is the Gain metric which implies the relative contribution of the corresponding feature to the model calculated by taking each feature's contribution for each tree in the model. A higher value of this metric when compared to another feature implies it is more important for generating a prediction. | A remark on Sandeep's answer:
Assuming 2 of your features are highly colinear (say equal 99% of time)
Indeed only 1 feature is selected at each split, but for the next split, the xgb can select the other feature. Therefore, the xgb feature ranking will probably rank the 2 colinear features equally. Without some prior knowledge or other feature processing, you have almost no means from this provided ranking to detect that the 2 features are colinear.
Now, as for the relative importance that outputs the xgboost, it should be very similar (or maybe exactly similar) to the sklearn gradient boostined tree ranking. See [here](https://stats.stackexchange.com/questions/162162/relative-variable-importance-for-boosting) for explainations. |
3,902 | Is there some precise definition of cryptographic protocol?
I'm asking because I have tried a few good books and they don't seem to define it (Douglas Stinson, Wenbo Mao, Trappe/Washington). The lecture notes by Goldwasser and Bellare come close, but don't really define protocols (and leave key distribution out of the protocols chapter, for example).
I've seen people include key management in protocols and others keeping it out; the same for secret sharing and some other topics.
So, does that mean there no widely-accepted definition for cryptographic protocols?
Edit: I'm not sure I was clear enough when I originally posted the question -- I wanted to know what usually is considered a "protocol" in cryptography and what is not (and not how I'd go about defining some particular protocol) | 2010/12/21 | [
"https://cstheory.stackexchange.com/questions/3902",
"https://cstheory.stackexchange.com",
"https://cstheory.stackexchange.com/users/1700/"
] | There are several definitions of cryptographic protocols, each of which tries to capture some particular features of interest.
I start with [Goldwasser, Micali, and Rackoff](http://portal.acm.org/citation.cfm?id=22178) definition (1985): They first defined **interactive Turing machines** (ITM), based of which they defined (two-party) interactive protocols. An ITM is a special TM equipped with one read-only and one write-only communication tape. A pair of ITMs constitutes an **interactive protocol** if the read-only communication tape of party A coincides with the write-only communication tape of party B, and vice versa. The power of parties and the adversary model is then defined accordingly (see the paper).
The multi-party case was later defined by [Goldreich, Micali, and Wigderson](http://portal.acm.org/citation.cfm?id=28395.28420) (1987). They modeled a secure multi-party game in an elegant way, though the paper (as Goldreich states himself) leaves a lot of doors open. For a more concrete discussion see: <http://www.wisdom.weizmann.ac.il/~oded/pp.html>.
Finally, a much stronger model was proposed by [Canetti](http://ieeexplore.ieee.org/xpls/abs_all.jsp?arnumber=959888&tag=1) (2001). In his paper, he defines a framework called Universal Composability (UC), based on which he defines the cryptographic protocols and puts forward a notion of security for them.
As far as I recall, the last paper cites a lot of other works which try to define and model security protocols. Therefore, I strongly advise you to take a look at it. | This is a follow up answer to the edited question. As I wrote in the comment above, **anything** can be defined to be a protocol. The real question is whether the object you define is useful. As I wrote in my previous answer this depends on the actual definition and on what the user wants from the protocol (which is what I tried to elaborate on in my previous answer).
The most common way to go about defining the syntax and security of a cryptographic protocol is to specify its intended functionality as if the users were interacting with an "ideal" black box (the functionality specifies the output of players in the protocol as a function of the players' inputs). Security (and correctness) are then obtained by requiring that for any adversary A attacking a real execution of your protocol there exists a (roughly) equally powerful adversary S that would have done equally well by attacking the ideal black box (without actual access to the protocol messages).
The above is known as the simulation paradigm (sometimes referred to as the real/ideal paradigm). The idea is that in the ideal world there are no attacks beyond observing the input/output relationship (which is what you indended to give away anyway by running the protocol), and hence there are also no attacks in the real world. The actual definition is slightly more involved. You can find it in the references given in Sadeq's answer.
An alternative, more exlicit way for defining security is the "game based" one. It involves stating explicity what it means for the adversary to break the system (think of the definition of signatures). Its advantage over the simulation based definitions is that it may be easier to realize. This is because simulation is very strong: it implies that the adversary learns **nothing** beyond what is intended. The advatange of the simulation approach is that it often guarantees the preservation of security under composition. |
3,902 | Is there some precise definition of cryptographic protocol?
I'm asking because I have tried a few good books and they don't seem to define it (Douglas Stinson, Wenbo Mao, Trappe/Washington). The lecture notes by Goldwasser and Bellare come close, but don't really define protocols (and leave key distribution out of the protocols chapter, for example).
I've seen people include key management in protocols and others keeping it out; the same for secret sharing and some other topics.
So, does that mean there no widely-accepted definition for cryptographic protocols?
Edit: I'm not sure I was clear enough when I originally posted the question -- I wanted to know what usually is considered a "protocol" in cryptography and what is not (and not how I'd go about defining some particular protocol) | 2010/12/21 | [
"https://cstheory.stackexchange.com/questions/3902",
"https://cstheory.stackexchange.com",
"https://cstheory.stackexchange.com/users/1700/"
] | Generally spealing, the definition of a cryptographic protocol consists of two different parts: **syntax** and **security**.
The syntax specifies the functionality of the protocol under legitimate use (dealing with issues such as key generation, correct decryption, valid signature verification, or more generally some desired output). A protocol can be totally "insecure" and still satisfy the syntax of the cryptographic task at hand.
The security part deals with guaranteeing that the protocol can be used safely in a cryptographic context. It specifies the access that the adversary has to the protocol, as well as what it means for the adversary to break it.
It is desirable that a security definition carries some "semantics" with it, in the sense that if a protocol satisfies this definition then the user is convinced that the security guarantee is meaningful (e.g. having a security definition that allows any protocol is certainly "legitimate" but it clearly doesn't guarantee any security).
The biggest conceptual contribution of modern cryptography is to develop a methodology for coming up with security definitions that are extremely meaningful and at the same time realizable (see [Goldwasser Micali](http://theory.lcs.mit.edu/~cis/pubs/shafi/1984-jcss.pdf), [Goldreich, Goldwasser, Micali](http://theory.lcs.mit.edu/~cis/pubs/shafi/1986-jacm.pdf) and [Goldwasser, Micali, Rivest](http://people.csail.mit.edu/rivest/GoldwasserMicaliRivest-ADigitalSignatureSchemeSecureAgainstAdaptiveChosenMessageAttacks.pdf) for prime examples of this methodology).
Following the works mentioned above it has become common (some would say mandatory) practice to define both syntax and security and to prove that a given protocol satisfies the given definitions (usually under some widely accepted intractability assumptions). The precise definitions to be satisfied depend on the cryptographic task at hand, and are evaluated in light of the intended application.
As Sadeq points out in his answer, the general syntax of protocols is defined via interactive Turing Machines (by [Goldwasser Micali Rackoff](http://theory.lcs.mit.edu/~cis/pubs/shafi/1989-siamjc.pdf)). This definition allows to model players that "keep state" between messages that are sent and received. The GMR paper is also the first to rigorously define security for interactive protocols, and in particular what it means for a protocol to be zero-knowledge. More general security requirements are given in later papers on secure two and multi-party computation. For references to these see Sadeq's answer. | This is a follow up answer to the edited question. As I wrote in the comment above, **anything** can be defined to be a protocol. The real question is whether the object you define is useful. As I wrote in my previous answer this depends on the actual definition and on what the user wants from the protocol (which is what I tried to elaborate on in my previous answer).
The most common way to go about defining the syntax and security of a cryptographic protocol is to specify its intended functionality as if the users were interacting with an "ideal" black box (the functionality specifies the output of players in the protocol as a function of the players' inputs). Security (and correctness) are then obtained by requiring that for any adversary A attacking a real execution of your protocol there exists a (roughly) equally powerful adversary S that would have done equally well by attacking the ideal black box (without actual access to the protocol messages).
The above is known as the simulation paradigm (sometimes referred to as the real/ideal paradigm). The idea is that in the ideal world there are no attacks beyond observing the input/output relationship (which is what you indended to give away anyway by running the protocol), and hence there are also no attacks in the real world. The actual definition is slightly more involved. You can find it in the references given in Sadeq's answer.
An alternative, more exlicit way for defining security is the "game based" one. It involves stating explicity what it means for the adversary to break the system (think of the definition of signatures). Its advantage over the simulation based definitions is that it may be easier to realize. This is because simulation is very strong: it implies that the adversary learns **nothing** beyond what is intended. The advatange of the simulation approach is that it often guarantees the preservation of security under composition. |
133,378 | Since the glyph shapes are based on constellations, wouldn't the Milky Way constellations be a totally different shape, if even existent at all, in the Pegasus Galaxy? Assuming this is the case, which glyphs are used in the puddle jumper DHDs and how can they work in both galaxies? The buttons on the jumpers look like they are real buttons with labels that don't change (vs. touch screens). This (different glyph shapes) can be extrapolated further on the stargates planted throughout the various distant galaxies on *Stargate: Universe*.
I'm not talking about stellar drift over the millennia which is essentially dealt with using automatic periodic software updates to the DHDs. This has been addressed in the first season of *Stargate SG-1*. | 2016/06/30 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/133378",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/54605/"
] | The Puddle Jumpers on Atlantis have different DHD buttons to the ones on Milky-way Puddle Jumpers.
Here is a picture of a Milky-way DHD:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/7gS76.jpg)
Note the colour and constellation symbols.
Here is a Pegasus one:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/tIiJ3.jpg)
As you can see the 2 are different, to take into account the constellations. It's a fairly safe bet that the entire console section is replacable on Ancient ships, or can be re-calibrated somehow for the local network with the right experience and tools. | It's actually a sound. The glyphs themselves are phonetic symbols, so each symbol has a sound, and when an address is put together it spells a word, or planet designation like "Earth" in the ancient language. Refers back to when Jack O'Neill had the ancient knowledge downloaded and he gave Jackson the name or "sounds" of the address to find the "lost outpost" in the build up to the battle with Anubis over Antarctica. |
9,249 | It seems that in the modern world, we are beginning to enjoy more and more liberty, and freedom from authority, while becoming more and more unhinged from a traditional sources of morality or systems of ethics. Is this sustainable? I recently read a book in which the author suggested that morality, or a certain degree of virtue, is necessary to ensure liberty.
Can someone expound on this further? Thanks. | 2013/12/31 | [
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/questions/9249",
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com",
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/users/3293/"
] | This seems to me to be related to Plato's core argument in the *Republic*: The most profound and damaging bondage is to be a slave to your own unchecked desires --which in turn implies that true liberty is obtained solely through allegiance to morality.
Compare also *Matthew 11:30*: "My yoke is easy...". | The question, as I interpret it, is in what direction morality (or virtue) and liberty should move: is morality necessary for liberty or is liberty necessary for morality? I will say the jury is still out as there are two competing paradigm principles on this matter.
One is **the harm principle**. J.S. Mill postulated the principle to answer the question, "When can the liberty of a person be limited by the coercive power of the law? To Mill the answer is that forceful interference is justified only when the interference is used to prevent harm to others. Force should never be applied to a person for the person's sake. That is, to make the person good or virtuous is never a legitimate reason to use forceful coercion, to Mill. Maximal liberty for individuals is a big deal for Mill because Mill thinks that men are progressive beings, that we can continue to improve and perfect capacities and values that are proper to human beings (cf. Brink's *Mill's Progressive Principles*) To Mill, morality imposed on and indoctrinated makes us hypocritical (untrue to selves). When we confront values as individuals (individuality) and test them out through our projects and social interactions (experiment in living), we can become authentic (true) selves: we can truly affirm truth and morality. Viewed in this light, liberty is necessary for morality (or virtue).
The other idea is **the offense principle**, postulated by Joel Feinberg. To Feinberg, the harm principle needs a revision since a society that adheres only the harm principle will not actually maximize liberty. To motivate this idea, Feinberg invites us to a bus ride. Sitting in a city bus, you suddenly realize that people are eating cooked dogs and engaging in sexual orgy with cats. you cannot get away from the sight. Being disgusted and humiliated is an under-statement of how you feel. You are profoundly offended: you are tormented by the image, Dogs and cats are never the way they were to you before the incident. You become un-free. Feinberg thus maintains that when morality is not in place in the society, and when the law is not in line with the going morality of the society, the society cannot secure liberty. That is, to a degree, laws should try to make people good and virtuous. Viewed in this light, morality is necessary for liberty. |
13,377 | Is it possible for an untrained person to incapacitate someone else with a strike to the solar plexus? If not, what kind of training does it require? If so, what is the most effective way to strike (with a punch or a knee) ? And how should you locate the solar plexus (maybe it is different in different people) ? | 2022/07/04 | [
"https://martialarts.stackexchange.com/questions/13377",
"https://martialarts.stackexchange.com",
"https://martialarts.stackexchange.com/users/11733/"
] | As a matter of fact, fighting does not work without defensive options. But at the same time, a sequential application of defensive and offensive moves does leave you with two options **because your opponent typically does not stop with their attacks if not forced to do so**:
* You are *faster* than your opponent, so much so that you can squeeze in an offensive move between two defenses
* You are more or less equally fast, so you end up defending and defending endlessly without ever getting an advantage
Since the latter does inevitably end up in an eventual mistake by you and thus being hit and even more of a tactical disadvantage, sequential application obviously is not an option. You could try to be the first to attack and keep them busy with defending all the time but truth be told, how realistic is that? Apart from being the first to go into the offensive obviously can cause legal problems in self-defense.
**Therefore, you have no other option than doing both at the same time if you are to ever get out of the defense once an attack is coming at you.**
This can take two forms:
* You defend and attack in the same move, e.g. shifting sidewards and forwards and deflecting to avoid a cross and gripping/kneeing/hooking from your new, better position.
* You use your defensive move in a way that offers you a strategic advantage, ie. you do not exactly attack at the same time but enable attacks, for example by pushing a low-kick-block out forwards and thereby breaking the opponent's balance. Or by evading a roundhouse and giving it a bit of extra-inertia with your hand to mess up your opponent's positioning and balance. Or by moving with a roundhouse or swinger to dampen the impact and blocking plus catching the limb for throws or joint manipulation. Endless options.
The way you posed your question seems to imply that the first option would basically overcharge us cognitively. That is not true. If you train both aspects as one move, your body learns the thing as one movement and acts accordingly, no matter whether you only move and deflect or move in and attack with the same move.
Therefore, just train to do both at the same time and that is exactly what you will be able to do when attacked for real. | Your question can evolve into a philosophical discussion very quickly, and each person's viewpoint will depend largely on what and how they were taught.
The point of view I am about to put forward is based on philosophies taught in karate, where it is expected that you will "win" the "fight" as soon as possible - this philosophy can still apply in part to ring combat but might be harder to execute due to rules and equipment.
I was taught very early on that there was no point defending, if you defend then you haven't progressed the fight at all. The opponent attacks, you defend, you're now both back to where you started - what is better is if your defense is actually an attack.
In a subsequent school I was taught there is no such thing as "defending". Our defensive moves - i.e. "blocks" or *uke* in karate parlance - were in fact attacks. Once I reached a belt level where bunkai was taught, I started to understand how a block was actually an attack. From that point on I never defended.
So going back to your question:
>
> Is it efficient to defend and counterattack simultaneously?
>
>
>
I would answer that no, it is not efficient and there should only be counterattack, no defense.
Think of it this way: when an opponent throws a punch or a kick, they are extending an arm or leg towards you. My response will be to move and use a "block" against the incoming limb - i.e. like my description of the application of soto uke in [this previous answer](https://martialarts.stackexchange.com/a/262/70). When "blocking" most people initially think that you're only using the striking hand or forearm, but there's more than that - what do you think the other hand is doing? In most cases it is catching or parrying and it is an integral part of the "block". It could be argued that the parry/catch is a defense, but when executed with the rest of the move it is all attack, not defense. Your attack *is* the defense. |
60,471,618 | when i use Android Studio 3.5 and dart 2.5 (i used flutter for develop mobile app) ,I faced to "Shader compilation error" in android emulator.
I have no error with my code . | 2020/03/01 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/60471618",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/10827515/"
] | Somehow it worked on my side,
removed / uninstall the app in emulator
flutter clean
run again | for me flutter clean in terminal makes it go away |
98,744 | I don't get the blowgun. Given that a blowgun is just a pipe-like thing that you blow on one end and a dart-like thing flies out the other end, why is it the case that:
1. it requires martial weapon proficiency?
2. it only does 1 damage whereas a dart (a simple ranged weapon) does 1d4 damage?
3. it has its own ammunition instead of using the same darts I just mentioned?
It seems like no-one would ever choose this weapon if they had martial proficiency, so there must be something I'm missing. Unfortunately I've not been able to find any info in the PHB about this. I wanted to make sure I'm not missing some crucial point that puts all this into perspective before I just homebrew what I think a blowgun should be like (in prep for a game I'll be running soon).
**Could anyone provide some insight into why this weapon is as it is and why anyone would use it, ideally with quotes from the handbooks** (especially if it's the PHB, I couldn't find anything and would like to know what I missed).
There was a related question, but it's about Pathfinder, and I'm interested in 5e specifically: [Blowguns. What's the point?](https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/51738/blowguns-whats-the-point)
---
In light of a comment pointing out the difference between a throwing dart and a blowgun needle, this question is now mostly about **why such a thing requires martial proficiency** given how it compares to the other martial weapons when dealing only 1 damage, and **are their any other benefits to this weapon that justify this?** | 2017/04/25 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/98744",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/35259/"
] | There are a few reasons for this weapon being what it is. But the main one is simply that stats are based on what makes sense for a weapon. Real blowguns deal trivial damage (unless poison-tipped) and are pretty hard to use properly, requiring some level of training to be accurate with them.
For example, the [Trident is another choice of weapon that you'd never pick mechanically](https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/55534/is-there-any-sort-of-mechanical-reason-to-use-a-trident-over-a-spear).
Of course, the main point to the blowgun is that it's traditionally used to poison people covertly. Especially when the goal is to disable targets without murdering them, it might come in handy. A blowgun with a tranq dart *cannot* accidentally murder the target, while a tranq dart delivered from a crossbow has a good chance of accidentally killing the target.
And while there is no mechanical property that makes the blowgun easier to hide, its light weight and small size would logically make it more easy to do so, likely reducing the DC of attempting to sneak one past people.
And it's cheap and light; you can have a blowgun and a case of 50 darts for 11gp and 2lbs, while even a light crossbow and 20 bolts would be 26gp and 6lbs.
(Of course, unless you're hunting chickens, the blowgun still isn't a very good choice without poison tipped darts, and the poison is likely to be *way* more expensive than the delivery mechanism, so it'll remain a very niche weapon either way. Such is the fate of some tools. You wouldn't see a medieval army outfitted with these things either.) | You have to realize that for a higher level rogue, direct weapon damage is not that interesting anyway - and a sneak attack from a blowgun is almost the same as from a crossbow. The difference is 3HP, I believe. |
98,744 | I don't get the blowgun. Given that a blowgun is just a pipe-like thing that you blow on one end and a dart-like thing flies out the other end, why is it the case that:
1. it requires martial weapon proficiency?
2. it only does 1 damage whereas a dart (a simple ranged weapon) does 1d4 damage?
3. it has its own ammunition instead of using the same darts I just mentioned?
It seems like no-one would ever choose this weapon if they had martial proficiency, so there must be something I'm missing. Unfortunately I've not been able to find any info in the PHB about this. I wanted to make sure I'm not missing some crucial point that puts all this into perspective before I just homebrew what I think a blowgun should be like (in prep for a game I'll be running soon).
**Could anyone provide some insight into why this weapon is as it is and why anyone would use it, ideally with quotes from the handbooks** (especially if it's the PHB, I couldn't find anything and would like to know what I missed).
There was a related question, but it's about Pathfinder, and I'm interested in 5e specifically: [Blowguns. What's the point?](https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/51738/blowguns-whats-the-point)
---
In light of a comment pointing out the difference between a throwing dart and a blowgun needle, this question is now mostly about **why such a thing requires martial proficiency** given how it compares to the other martial weapons when dealing only 1 damage, and **are their any other benefits to this weapon that justify this?** | 2017/04/25 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/98744",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/35259/"
] | There are a few reasons for this weapon being what it is. But the main one is simply that stats are based on what makes sense for a weapon. Real blowguns deal trivial damage (unless poison-tipped) and are pretty hard to use properly, requiring some level of training to be accurate with them.
For example, the [Trident is another choice of weapon that you'd never pick mechanically](https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/55534/is-there-any-sort-of-mechanical-reason-to-use-a-trident-over-a-spear).
Of course, the main point to the blowgun is that it's traditionally used to poison people covertly. Especially when the goal is to disable targets without murdering them, it might come in handy. A blowgun with a tranq dart *cannot* accidentally murder the target, while a tranq dart delivered from a crossbow has a good chance of accidentally killing the target.
And while there is no mechanical property that makes the blowgun easier to hide, its light weight and small size would logically make it more easy to do so, likely reducing the DC of attempting to sneak one past people.
And it's cheap and light; you can have a blowgun and a case of 50 darts for 11gp and 2lbs, while even a light crossbow and 20 bolts would be 26gp and 6lbs.
(Of course, unless you're hunting chickens, the blowgun still isn't a very good choice without poison tipped darts, and the poison is likely to be *way* more expensive than the delivery mechanism, so it'll remain a very niche weapon either way. Such is the fate of some tools. You wouldn't see a medieval army outfitted with these things either.) | Seen as a combat weapon choice **there is no good reason**.
Blowguns are included because they're a real world hunting weapon used in some parts of the world that has been traditionally included in D&D as a weapon. The designers of 5e chose not to give every weapon in the table a reason to use it so there are options on the table that have no mechanical reason to choose. These are presumably included for greater verisimilitude.
For the hunting of small game - which is what blowguns are really used for - the cheap ammunition possibly justifies their use in game. |
98,744 | I don't get the blowgun. Given that a blowgun is just a pipe-like thing that you blow on one end and a dart-like thing flies out the other end, why is it the case that:
1. it requires martial weapon proficiency?
2. it only does 1 damage whereas a dart (a simple ranged weapon) does 1d4 damage?
3. it has its own ammunition instead of using the same darts I just mentioned?
It seems like no-one would ever choose this weapon if they had martial proficiency, so there must be something I'm missing. Unfortunately I've not been able to find any info in the PHB about this. I wanted to make sure I'm not missing some crucial point that puts all this into perspective before I just homebrew what I think a blowgun should be like (in prep for a game I'll be running soon).
**Could anyone provide some insight into why this weapon is as it is and why anyone would use it, ideally with quotes from the handbooks** (especially if it's the PHB, I couldn't find anything and would like to know what I missed).
There was a related question, but it's about Pathfinder, and I'm interested in 5e specifically: [Blowguns. What's the point?](https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/51738/blowguns-whats-the-point)
---
In light of a comment pointing out the difference between a throwing dart and a blowgun needle, this question is now mostly about **why such a thing requires martial proficiency** given how it compares to the other martial weapons when dealing only 1 damage, and **are their any other benefits to this weapon that justify this?** | 2017/04/25 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/98744",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/35259/"
] | A reason to use the blowgun has finally arrived! As a [kensei monk](http://media.wizards.com/2017/dnd/downloads/UA-RevisedSubclasses.pdf);
* You can gain proficiency in 1 melee and 1 ranged weapon (at 3rd level).
* These weapons can then be used as monk weapons, allowing the damage to increase according to the table.
As previously stated, the blowgun pipe is
* inconspicuous and could easily be disguised, and the darts are so small, they could easily be concealed.
* really cheap, which is nice, because monks don't have much money either.
This could be furthered with the sharpshooter feat, the archery fighting style (multi-class required) and/or the crossbow feat (to ignore the loading property). | Blowgun is a weapon your character can carry into the guarded area. If he conseals darts, blowgun itself is just a tube and can be carried openly. Typical guard would hardly think of such a weapon upon seeing the tube, he would assume it to be a flute or a smoking device. So it is a very situational stealth weapon. |
98,744 | I don't get the blowgun. Given that a blowgun is just a pipe-like thing that you blow on one end and a dart-like thing flies out the other end, why is it the case that:
1. it requires martial weapon proficiency?
2. it only does 1 damage whereas a dart (a simple ranged weapon) does 1d4 damage?
3. it has its own ammunition instead of using the same darts I just mentioned?
It seems like no-one would ever choose this weapon if they had martial proficiency, so there must be something I'm missing. Unfortunately I've not been able to find any info in the PHB about this. I wanted to make sure I'm not missing some crucial point that puts all this into perspective before I just homebrew what I think a blowgun should be like (in prep for a game I'll be running soon).
**Could anyone provide some insight into why this weapon is as it is and why anyone would use it, ideally with quotes from the handbooks** (especially if it's the PHB, I couldn't find anything and would like to know what I missed).
There was a related question, but it's about Pathfinder, and I'm interested in 5e specifically: [Blowguns. What's the point?](https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/51738/blowguns-whats-the-point)
---
In light of a comment pointing out the difference between a throwing dart and a blowgun needle, this question is now mostly about **why such a thing requires martial proficiency** given how it compares to the other martial weapons when dealing only 1 damage, and **are their any other benefits to this weapon that justify this?** | 2017/04/25 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/98744",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/35259/"
] | The "dart-like" thing that fly from a blowgun is lighter than the regular dart, hence the lower damage.
I tend to think of the blowgun as a discreet poison dispenser: far easier to use in a crowd than a bow, not immediately evident what happened to the poor target, and easy to drop discreetly. | Blowgun is a weapon your character can carry into the guarded area. If he conseals darts, blowgun itself is just a tube and can be carried openly. Typical guard would hardly think of such a weapon upon seeing the tube, he would assume it to be a flute or a smoking device. So it is a very situational stealth weapon. |
98,744 | I don't get the blowgun. Given that a blowgun is just a pipe-like thing that you blow on one end and a dart-like thing flies out the other end, why is it the case that:
1. it requires martial weapon proficiency?
2. it only does 1 damage whereas a dart (a simple ranged weapon) does 1d4 damage?
3. it has its own ammunition instead of using the same darts I just mentioned?
It seems like no-one would ever choose this weapon if they had martial proficiency, so there must be something I'm missing. Unfortunately I've not been able to find any info in the PHB about this. I wanted to make sure I'm not missing some crucial point that puts all this into perspective before I just homebrew what I think a blowgun should be like (in prep for a game I'll be running soon).
**Could anyone provide some insight into why this weapon is as it is and why anyone would use it, ideally with quotes from the handbooks** (especially if it's the PHB, I couldn't find anything and would like to know what I missed).
There was a related question, but it's about Pathfinder, and I'm interested in 5e specifically: [Blowguns. What's the point?](https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/51738/blowguns-whats-the-point)
---
In light of a comment pointing out the difference between a throwing dart and a blowgun needle, this question is now mostly about **why such a thing requires martial proficiency** given how it compares to the other martial weapons when dealing only 1 damage, and **are their any other benefits to this weapon that justify this?** | 2017/04/25 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/98744",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/35259/"
] | There are a few reasons for this weapon being what it is. But the main one is simply that stats are based on what makes sense for a weapon. Real blowguns deal trivial damage (unless poison-tipped) and are pretty hard to use properly, requiring some level of training to be accurate with them.
For example, the [Trident is another choice of weapon that you'd never pick mechanically](https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/55534/is-there-any-sort-of-mechanical-reason-to-use-a-trident-over-a-spear).
Of course, the main point to the blowgun is that it's traditionally used to poison people covertly. Especially when the goal is to disable targets without murdering them, it might come in handy. A blowgun with a tranq dart *cannot* accidentally murder the target, while a tranq dart delivered from a crossbow has a good chance of accidentally killing the target.
And while there is no mechanical property that makes the blowgun easier to hide, its light weight and small size would logically make it more easy to do so, likely reducing the DC of attempting to sneak one past people.
And it's cheap and light; you can have a blowgun and a case of 50 darts for 11gp and 2lbs, while even a light crossbow and 20 bolts would be 26gp and 6lbs.
(Of course, unless you're hunting chickens, the blowgun still isn't a very good choice without poison tipped darts, and the poison is likely to be *way* more expensive than the delivery mechanism, so it'll remain a very niche weapon either way. Such is the fate of some tools. You wouldn't see a medieval army outfitted with these things either.) | Blowgun is a weapon your character can carry into the guarded area. If he conseals darts, blowgun itself is just a tube and can be carried openly. Typical guard would hardly think of such a weapon upon seeing the tube, he would assume it to be a flute or a smoking device. So it is a very situational stealth weapon. |
98,744 | I don't get the blowgun. Given that a blowgun is just a pipe-like thing that you blow on one end and a dart-like thing flies out the other end, why is it the case that:
1. it requires martial weapon proficiency?
2. it only does 1 damage whereas a dart (a simple ranged weapon) does 1d4 damage?
3. it has its own ammunition instead of using the same darts I just mentioned?
It seems like no-one would ever choose this weapon if they had martial proficiency, so there must be something I'm missing. Unfortunately I've not been able to find any info in the PHB about this. I wanted to make sure I'm not missing some crucial point that puts all this into perspective before I just homebrew what I think a blowgun should be like (in prep for a game I'll be running soon).
**Could anyone provide some insight into why this weapon is as it is and why anyone would use it, ideally with quotes from the handbooks** (especially if it's the PHB, I couldn't find anything and would like to know what I missed).
There was a related question, but it's about Pathfinder, and I'm interested in 5e specifically: [Blowguns. What's the point?](https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/51738/blowguns-whats-the-point)
---
In light of a comment pointing out the difference between a throwing dart and a blowgun needle, this question is now mostly about **why such a thing requires martial proficiency** given how it compares to the other martial weapons when dealing only 1 damage, and **are their any other benefits to this weapon that justify this?** | 2017/04/25 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/98744",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/35259/"
] | There are a few reasons for this weapon being what it is. But the main one is simply that stats are based on what makes sense for a weapon. Real blowguns deal trivial damage (unless poison-tipped) and are pretty hard to use properly, requiring some level of training to be accurate with them.
For example, the [Trident is another choice of weapon that you'd never pick mechanically](https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/55534/is-there-any-sort-of-mechanical-reason-to-use-a-trident-over-a-spear).
Of course, the main point to the blowgun is that it's traditionally used to poison people covertly. Especially when the goal is to disable targets without murdering them, it might come in handy. A blowgun with a tranq dart *cannot* accidentally murder the target, while a tranq dart delivered from a crossbow has a good chance of accidentally killing the target.
And while there is no mechanical property that makes the blowgun easier to hide, its light weight and small size would logically make it more easy to do so, likely reducing the DC of attempting to sneak one past people.
And it's cheap and light; you can have a blowgun and a case of 50 darts for 11gp and 2lbs, while even a light crossbow and 20 bolts would be 26gp and 6lbs.
(Of course, unless you're hunting chickens, the blowgun still isn't a very good choice without poison tipped darts, and the poison is likely to be *way* more expensive than the delivery mechanism, so it'll remain a very niche weapon either way. Such is the fate of some tools. You wouldn't see a medieval army outfitted with these things either.) | A reason to use the blowgun has finally arrived! As a [kensei monk](http://media.wizards.com/2017/dnd/downloads/UA-RevisedSubclasses.pdf);
* You can gain proficiency in 1 melee and 1 ranged weapon (at 3rd level).
* These weapons can then be used as monk weapons, allowing the damage to increase according to the table.
As previously stated, the blowgun pipe is
* inconspicuous and could easily be disguised, and the darts are so small, they could easily be concealed.
* really cheap, which is nice, because monks don't have much money either.
This could be furthered with the sharpshooter feat, the archery fighting style (multi-class required) and/or the crossbow feat (to ignore the loading property). |
98,744 | I don't get the blowgun. Given that a blowgun is just a pipe-like thing that you blow on one end and a dart-like thing flies out the other end, why is it the case that:
1. it requires martial weapon proficiency?
2. it only does 1 damage whereas a dart (a simple ranged weapon) does 1d4 damage?
3. it has its own ammunition instead of using the same darts I just mentioned?
It seems like no-one would ever choose this weapon if they had martial proficiency, so there must be something I'm missing. Unfortunately I've not been able to find any info in the PHB about this. I wanted to make sure I'm not missing some crucial point that puts all this into perspective before I just homebrew what I think a blowgun should be like (in prep for a game I'll be running soon).
**Could anyone provide some insight into why this weapon is as it is and why anyone would use it, ideally with quotes from the handbooks** (especially if it's the PHB, I couldn't find anything and would like to know what I missed).
There was a related question, but it's about Pathfinder, and I'm interested in 5e specifically: [Blowguns. What's the point?](https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/51738/blowguns-whats-the-point)
---
In light of a comment pointing out the difference between a throwing dart and a blowgun needle, this question is now mostly about **why such a thing requires martial proficiency** given how it compares to the other martial weapons when dealing only 1 damage, and **are their any other benefits to this weapon that justify this?** | 2017/04/25 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/98744",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/35259/"
] | You have to realize that for a higher level rogue, direct weapon damage is not that interesting anyway - and a sneak attack from a blowgun is almost the same as from a crossbow. The difference is 3HP, I believe. | Seen as a combat weapon choice **there is no good reason**.
Blowguns are included because they're a real world hunting weapon used in some parts of the world that has been traditionally included in D&D as a weapon. The designers of 5e chose not to give every weapon in the table a reason to use it so there are options on the table that have no mechanical reason to choose. These are presumably included for greater verisimilitude.
For the hunting of small game - which is what blowguns are really used for - the cheap ammunition possibly justifies their use in game. |
98,744 | I don't get the blowgun. Given that a blowgun is just a pipe-like thing that you blow on one end and a dart-like thing flies out the other end, why is it the case that:
1. it requires martial weapon proficiency?
2. it only does 1 damage whereas a dart (a simple ranged weapon) does 1d4 damage?
3. it has its own ammunition instead of using the same darts I just mentioned?
It seems like no-one would ever choose this weapon if they had martial proficiency, so there must be something I'm missing. Unfortunately I've not been able to find any info in the PHB about this. I wanted to make sure I'm not missing some crucial point that puts all this into perspective before I just homebrew what I think a blowgun should be like (in prep for a game I'll be running soon).
**Could anyone provide some insight into why this weapon is as it is and why anyone would use it, ideally with quotes from the handbooks** (especially if it's the PHB, I couldn't find anything and would like to know what I missed).
There was a related question, but it's about Pathfinder, and I'm interested in 5e specifically: [Blowguns. What's the point?](https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/51738/blowguns-whats-the-point)
---
In light of a comment pointing out the difference between a throwing dart and a blowgun needle, this question is now mostly about **why such a thing requires martial proficiency** given how it compares to the other martial weapons when dealing only 1 damage, and **are their any other benefits to this weapon that justify this?** | 2017/04/25 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/98744",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/35259/"
] | The "dart-like" thing that fly from a blowgun is lighter than the regular dart, hence the lower damage.
I tend to think of the blowgun as a discreet poison dispenser: far easier to use in a crowd than a bow, not immediately evident what happened to the poor target, and easy to drop discreetly. | Seen as a combat weapon choice **there is no good reason**.
Blowguns are included because they're a real world hunting weapon used in some parts of the world that has been traditionally included in D&D as a weapon. The designers of 5e chose not to give every weapon in the table a reason to use it so there are options on the table that have no mechanical reason to choose. These are presumably included for greater verisimilitude.
For the hunting of small game - which is what blowguns are really used for - the cheap ammunition possibly justifies their use in game. |
98,744 | I don't get the blowgun. Given that a blowgun is just a pipe-like thing that you blow on one end and a dart-like thing flies out the other end, why is it the case that:
1. it requires martial weapon proficiency?
2. it only does 1 damage whereas a dart (a simple ranged weapon) does 1d4 damage?
3. it has its own ammunition instead of using the same darts I just mentioned?
It seems like no-one would ever choose this weapon if they had martial proficiency, so there must be something I'm missing. Unfortunately I've not been able to find any info in the PHB about this. I wanted to make sure I'm not missing some crucial point that puts all this into perspective before I just homebrew what I think a blowgun should be like (in prep for a game I'll be running soon).
**Could anyone provide some insight into why this weapon is as it is and why anyone would use it, ideally with quotes from the handbooks** (especially if it's the PHB, I couldn't find anything and would like to know what I missed).
There was a related question, but it's about Pathfinder, and I'm interested in 5e specifically: [Blowguns. What's the point?](https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/51738/blowguns-whats-the-point)
---
In light of a comment pointing out the difference between a throwing dart and a blowgun needle, this question is now mostly about **why such a thing requires martial proficiency** given how it compares to the other martial weapons when dealing only 1 damage, and **are their any other benefits to this weapon that justify this?** | 2017/04/25 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/98744",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/35259/"
] | A reason to use the blowgun has finally arrived! As a [kensei monk](http://media.wizards.com/2017/dnd/downloads/UA-RevisedSubclasses.pdf);
* You can gain proficiency in 1 melee and 1 ranged weapon (at 3rd level).
* These weapons can then be used as monk weapons, allowing the damage to increase according to the table.
As previously stated, the blowgun pipe is
* inconspicuous and could easily be disguised, and the darts are so small, they could easily be concealed.
* really cheap, which is nice, because monks don't have much money either.
This could be furthered with the sharpshooter feat, the archery fighting style (multi-class required) and/or the crossbow feat (to ignore the loading property). | Seen as a combat weapon choice **there is no good reason**.
Blowguns are included because they're a real world hunting weapon used in some parts of the world that has been traditionally included in D&D as a weapon. The designers of 5e chose not to give every weapon in the table a reason to use it so there are options on the table that have no mechanical reason to choose. These are presumably included for greater verisimilitude.
For the hunting of small game - which is what blowguns are really used for - the cheap ammunition possibly justifies their use in game. |
98,744 | I don't get the blowgun. Given that a blowgun is just a pipe-like thing that you blow on one end and a dart-like thing flies out the other end, why is it the case that:
1. it requires martial weapon proficiency?
2. it only does 1 damage whereas a dart (a simple ranged weapon) does 1d4 damage?
3. it has its own ammunition instead of using the same darts I just mentioned?
It seems like no-one would ever choose this weapon if they had martial proficiency, so there must be something I'm missing. Unfortunately I've not been able to find any info in the PHB about this. I wanted to make sure I'm not missing some crucial point that puts all this into perspective before I just homebrew what I think a blowgun should be like (in prep for a game I'll be running soon).
**Could anyone provide some insight into why this weapon is as it is and why anyone would use it, ideally with quotes from the handbooks** (especially if it's the PHB, I couldn't find anything and would like to know what I missed).
There was a related question, but it's about Pathfinder, and I'm interested in 5e specifically: [Blowguns. What's the point?](https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/51738/blowguns-whats-the-point)
---
In light of a comment pointing out the difference between a throwing dart and a blowgun needle, this question is now mostly about **why such a thing requires martial proficiency** given how it compares to the other martial weapons when dealing only 1 damage, and **are their any other benefits to this weapon that justify this?** | 2017/04/25 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/98744",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/35259/"
] | There are a few reasons for this weapon being what it is. But the main one is simply that stats are based on what makes sense for a weapon. Real blowguns deal trivial damage (unless poison-tipped) and are pretty hard to use properly, requiring some level of training to be accurate with them.
For example, the [Trident is another choice of weapon that you'd never pick mechanically](https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/55534/is-there-any-sort-of-mechanical-reason-to-use-a-trident-over-a-spear).
Of course, the main point to the blowgun is that it's traditionally used to poison people covertly. Especially when the goal is to disable targets without murdering them, it might come in handy. A blowgun with a tranq dart *cannot* accidentally murder the target, while a tranq dart delivered from a crossbow has a good chance of accidentally killing the target.
And while there is no mechanical property that makes the blowgun easier to hide, its light weight and small size would logically make it more easy to do so, likely reducing the DC of attempting to sneak one past people.
And it's cheap and light; you can have a blowgun and a case of 50 darts for 11gp and 2lbs, while even a light crossbow and 20 bolts would be 26gp and 6lbs.
(Of course, unless you're hunting chickens, the blowgun still isn't a very good choice without poison tipped darts, and the poison is likely to be *way* more expensive than the delivery mechanism, so it'll remain a very niche weapon either way. Such is the fate of some tools. You wouldn't see a medieval army outfitted with these things either.) | The "dart-like" thing that fly from a blowgun is lighter than the regular dart, hence the lower damage.
I tend to think of the blowgun as a discreet poison dispenser: far easier to use in a crowd than a bow, not immediately evident what happened to the poor target, and easy to drop discreetly. |
77,375 | I asked this question yesterday with 8x16 tiles, but today I found this tile in a larger size, 8"x32".
The thing is, I made the mistake of putting 2" x 2" tiles on my shower floor of a tile that is hard to match. This being my first tile job, I didn't plan properly.
As said, I found the matching tile in size, 8x32, and they also have the bullnose tiles(3x16). The widths of my shower walls are 39.5" by 35.5" by 39.5".
**How would it look if I had one vertical seam on all three walls?** I know it would be a lot of waste, but that's ok.
The manufacturer says it's a "porcelain tile that looks like marble." The tile is: Gardenia Orchidea Varenna beige.
Thanks! Joe | 2015/11/05 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/77375",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/45209/"
] | You don't. I have installed around 50 showers and designed maybe 5 times that. You don't buy tile that is just a little shorter than your width. If you did buy this tile I would run it vertically.
Also I would think if you could possibly extend the edge walls as far as the tile. You have to think of your shower as a big puzzle. You want to match the pieces to your shower. Larger pieces in a small shower are just odd. It only works well if the pieces match up somehow and in your case they don't. You are going to spend a lot of time staggering these things to look well.
Really the only thing you could do is a diamond pattern with something that % of the width and that is a really hard install. Good luck - (buy something that works better). | Make the joints appear as if they had a purpose, or totally random.
Purposeful joints would be the type for structure, like the joints you see on a brick wall, whether the joints are centered over the brick above or below or stepped to the side so the joints are stepped by a third of the tile or perhaps a 1/4 of the tile. A pattern more or less that gives the joints purpose. It was also suggested in the lower drawing of DAO1 post.
In my opinion, the tile are too large to make that the best choice, but I could be wrong. I would try a layout on the floor to give it chance perhaps.
Lay out whole tile without cutting any and use cardboard to cover the areas so the visible part is the size of your shower.
My though would be to go totally random by starting with full tile and cutting what you need to finish the run, then use the remainder of the piece that was cut to start the next course, or on the next wall. There will be little waste, and the nature of the install would make the joints totally random. The only thing I would not do random, is do not let the joints fall too closely to each other on the next course above or below any other joints. If you can do this and separate them by 2 tile up or down would help the effect.
I could add a sketch if needed. |
26,579,532 | Im (re)writing a socket server in ruby in hopes of simplifying it. Reading about ruby sockets I ran across a [site](http://rubylearning.com/satishtalim/ruby_threads.html) that says multithreaded ruby apps only use one core / processor in a machine.
Questions:
1. Is this accurate?
2. Do I care? Each thread in this server will potentially run for several minutes and there will be lots of them. Is the OS (CentOS 6.5) smart enough to share the load?
3. Is this any different from threading in C++? (language of the current socket server) IE do **pthreads** use multiple cores automatically?
4. What if I **fork** instead of **thread**? | 2014/10/27 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/26579532",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/491682/"
] | CRuby has a [global interpreter lock](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Global_Interpreter_Lock), so it cannot run threads in parallel. Jruby and some other implementations can do it, but CRuby will never run any kind of code in parallel. This means that, no matter how smart your OS is, it can never share the load.
This is different in threading in C++. pthreads create real OS threads, and the kernal's scheduler will run them on multiple cores at the same time. Technically Ruby uses pthreads as well, but the GIL prevents them from running in parallel.
Fork creates a new process, and your OS's scheduler will almost certainly be smart enough to run it on a separate core. If you need parallelism in Ruby, either use an implementation without a GIL, or use fork. | Due to [GIL](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Global_Interpreter_Lock) in YARV, ruby is not thread friendly. If you want to write multithreaded ruby use jruby or rubinius. It would be even better to use a functional language with actor model such as Erlang or Elixir and let the Virtual Machine handle the threads and you only manage the Erlang processes. |
26,579,532 | Im (re)writing a socket server in ruby in hopes of simplifying it. Reading about ruby sockets I ran across a [site](http://rubylearning.com/satishtalim/ruby_threads.html) that says multithreaded ruby apps only use one core / processor in a machine.
Questions:
1. Is this accurate?
2. Do I care? Each thread in this server will potentially run for several minutes and there will be lots of them. Is the OS (CentOS 6.5) smart enough to share the load?
3. Is this any different from threading in C++? (language of the current socket server) IE do **pthreads** use multiple cores automatically?
4. What if I **fork** instead of **thread**? | 2014/10/27 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/26579532",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/491682/"
] | CRuby has a [global interpreter lock](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Global_Interpreter_Lock), so it cannot run threads in parallel. Jruby and some other implementations can do it, but CRuby will never run any kind of code in parallel. This means that, no matter how smart your OS is, it can never share the load.
This is different in threading in C++. pthreads create real OS threads, and the kernal's scheduler will run them on multiple cores at the same time. Technically Ruby uses pthreads as well, but the GIL prevents them from running in parallel.
Fork creates a new process, and your OS's scheduler will almost certainly be smart enough to run it on a separate core. If you need parallelism in Ruby, either use an implementation without a GIL, or use fork. | There is a very nice gem called [parallel](https://github.com/grosser/parallel) which allows data processing with parallel threads or multiple processes by forking (work around GIL of current CRuby implementation). |
26,579,532 | Im (re)writing a socket server in ruby in hopes of simplifying it. Reading about ruby sockets I ran across a [site](http://rubylearning.com/satishtalim/ruby_threads.html) that says multithreaded ruby apps only use one core / processor in a machine.
Questions:
1. Is this accurate?
2. Do I care? Each thread in this server will potentially run for several minutes and there will be lots of them. Is the OS (CentOS 6.5) smart enough to share the load?
3. Is this any different from threading in C++? (language of the current socket server) IE do **pthreads** use multiple cores automatically?
4. What if I **fork** instead of **thread**? | 2014/10/27 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/26579532",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/491682/"
] | CRuby has a [global interpreter lock](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Global_Interpreter_Lock), so it cannot run threads in parallel. Jruby and some other implementations can do it, but CRuby will never run any kind of code in parallel. This means that, no matter how smart your OS is, it can never share the load.
This is different in threading in C++. pthreads create real OS threads, and the kernal's scheduler will run them on multiple cores at the same time. Technically Ruby uses pthreads as well, but the GIL prevents them from running in parallel.
Fork creates a new process, and your OS's scheduler will almost certainly be smart enough to run it on a separate core. If you need parallelism in Ruby, either use an implementation without a GIL, or use fork. | Threading
---------
If you're going to want multi-core threading, you need to use an interpreter that actively uses multiple cores. MRI Ruby as of 2.1.3 is still only single-core; JRuby and Rubinius allow access to multiple cores.
Threading Alternatives
----------------------
Alternatives to changing your interpreter include:
* [DRb](http://www.ruby-doc.org/stdlib-2.1.3/libdoc/drb/rdoc/DRb.html) with multiple Ruby processes.
* A queuing system with multiple workers.
* Socket programming with multiple interpreters.
* Forking processes, if the underlying platform supports the fork(2) system call. |
26,579,532 | Im (re)writing a socket server in ruby in hopes of simplifying it. Reading about ruby sockets I ran across a [site](http://rubylearning.com/satishtalim/ruby_threads.html) that says multithreaded ruby apps only use one core / processor in a machine.
Questions:
1. Is this accurate?
2. Do I care? Each thread in this server will potentially run for several minutes and there will be lots of them. Is the OS (CentOS 6.5) smart enough to share the load?
3. Is this any different from threading in C++? (language of the current socket server) IE do **pthreads** use multiple cores automatically?
4. What if I **fork** instead of **thread**? | 2014/10/27 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/26579532",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/491682/"
] | There is a very nice gem called [parallel](https://github.com/grosser/parallel) which allows data processing with parallel threads or multiple processes by forking (work around GIL of current CRuby implementation). | Due to [GIL](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Global_Interpreter_Lock) in YARV, ruby is not thread friendly. If you want to write multithreaded ruby use jruby or rubinius. It would be even better to use a functional language with actor model such as Erlang or Elixir and let the Virtual Machine handle the threads and you only manage the Erlang processes. |
26,579,532 | Im (re)writing a socket server in ruby in hopes of simplifying it. Reading about ruby sockets I ran across a [site](http://rubylearning.com/satishtalim/ruby_threads.html) that says multithreaded ruby apps only use one core / processor in a machine.
Questions:
1. Is this accurate?
2. Do I care? Each thread in this server will potentially run for several minutes and there will be lots of them. Is the OS (CentOS 6.5) smart enough to share the load?
3. Is this any different from threading in C++? (language of the current socket server) IE do **pthreads** use multiple cores automatically?
4. What if I **fork** instead of **thread**? | 2014/10/27 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/26579532",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/491682/"
] | Due to [GIL](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Global_Interpreter_Lock) in YARV, ruby is not thread friendly. If you want to write multithreaded ruby use jruby or rubinius. It would be even better to use a functional language with actor model such as Erlang or Elixir and let the Virtual Machine handle the threads and you only manage the Erlang processes. | Threading
---------
If you're going to want multi-core threading, you need to use an interpreter that actively uses multiple cores. MRI Ruby as of 2.1.3 is still only single-core; JRuby and Rubinius allow access to multiple cores.
Threading Alternatives
----------------------
Alternatives to changing your interpreter include:
* [DRb](http://www.ruby-doc.org/stdlib-2.1.3/libdoc/drb/rdoc/DRb.html) with multiple Ruby processes.
* A queuing system with multiple workers.
* Socket programming with multiple interpreters.
* Forking processes, if the underlying platform supports the fork(2) system call. |
26,579,532 | Im (re)writing a socket server in ruby in hopes of simplifying it. Reading about ruby sockets I ran across a [site](http://rubylearning.com/satishtalim/ruby_threads.html) that says multithreaded ruby apps only use one core / processor in a machine.
Questions:
1. Is this accurate?
2. Do I care? Each thread in this server will potentially run for several minutes and there will be lots of them. Is the OS (CentOS 6.5) smart enough to share the load?
3. Is this any different from threading in C++? (language of the current socket server) IE do **pthreads** use multiple cores automatically?
4. What if I **fork** instead of **thread**? | 2014/10/27 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/26579532",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/491682/"
] | There is a very nice gem called [parallel](https://github.com/grosser/parallel) which allows data processing with parallel threads or multiple processes by forking (work around GIL of current CRuby implementation). | Threading
---------
If you're going to want multi-core threading, you need to use an interpreter that actively uses multiple cores. MRI Ruby as of 2.1.3 is still only single-core; JRuby and Rubinius allow access to multiple cores.
Threading Alternatives
----------------------
Alternatives to changing your interpreter include:
* [DRb](http://www.ruby-doc.org/stdlib-2.1.3/libdoc/drb/rdoc/DRb.html) with multiple Ruby processes.
* A queuing system with multiple workers.
* Socket programming with multiple interpreters.
* Forking processes, if the underlying platform supports the fork(2) system call. |
241,995 | When I double click on my connection.pbk it's was open by Adobe PixelBender and I don't know how can I fix that. | 2011/02/05 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/241995",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/66190/"
] | Some users have problems opening .pbk (vpn) files in Windows 7. If you have Adobe Pixel Bender then the .pbk files will open using the Adobe Pixel Bender. If you still want to open pbk files as VPN connection (with Windows Remote Access Phonebook), please follow the steps below:
1. Launch Notepad.
2. Copy the following content into Notepad.
>
> Windows Registry Editor Version 5.00
>
>
> [HKEY\_CLASSES\_ROOT.pbk] @="pbkfile"
>
>
>
3. Save to Desktop with the name .pkb.reg
4. Launch the saved file from Desktop to modify the registry to change the file association.
If the issue still occurs, please follow the steps below:
1. Launch Notepad.
2. Copy the following content into Notepad.
>
> Windows Registry Editor Version 5.00
>
>
> [HKEY\_CLASSES\_ROOT\pbkfile] @="Dial-Up
> Phonebook"
> "FriendlyTypeName"=hex(2):40,00,25,00,53,00,79,00,73,00,74,00,65,00,6d,00,52,\
> 00,6f,00,6f,00,74,00,25,00,5c,00,73,00,79,00,73,00,74,00,65,00,6d,00,33,00,\
> 32,00,5c,00,72,00,61,00,73,00,64,00,6c,00,67,00,2e,00,64,00,6c,00,6c,00,2c,\
> 00,2d,00,33,00,35,00,33,00,00,00
>
>
> [HKEY\_CLASSES\_ROOT\pbkfile\DefaultIcon]
> @=hex(2):25,00,53,00,79,00,73,00,74,00,65,00,6d,00,52,00,6f,00,6f,00,74,00,25,\
> 00,5c,00,73,00,79,00,73,00,74,00,65,00,6d,00,33,00,32,00,5c,00,72,00,61,00,\
> 73,00,64,00,6c,00,67,00,2e,00,64,00,6c,00,6c,00,2c,00,2d,00,35,00,36,00,32,\
> 00,00,00
>
>
> [HKEY\_CLASSES\_ROOT\pbkfile\Shell]
>
>
> [HKEY\_CLASSES\_ROOT\pbkfile\Shell\open]
>
>
> [HKEY\_CLASSES\_ROOT\pbkfile\Shell\open\command]
> @=hex(2):25,00,53,00,79,00,73,00,74,00,65,00,6d,00,52,00,6f,00,6f,00,74,00,25,\
> 00,5c,00,73,00,79,00,73,00,74,00,65,00,6d,00,33,00,32,00,5c,00,72,00,61,00,\
> 73,00,70,00,68,00,6f,00,6e,00,65,00,2e,00,65,00,78,00,65,00,20,00,2d,00,66,\
> 00,20,00,22,00,25,00,31,00,22,00,00,00
>
>
>
3. Save to Desktop with the name .pkb.reg
4. Launch the saved file from Desktop to modify the registry to change the file association. | Sounds like you have the wrong association with the file extension.
Open *Control Panel*. Go to *Default Programs*. Then *Set Associations*. Find .pbk and change the application associated with it. |
241,995 | When I double click on my connection.pbk it's was open by Adobe PixelBender and I don't know how can I fix that. | 2011/02/05 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/241995",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/66190/"
] | Well I just had this problem too, I installed Adobe pixel bender tool and .pbk vpn connection file got associated to it,
---
* I went to registry and pushed ctrl+f and searched pbk in registry
* I found "pbk opens with:Adobe pixel bender" entry and the program associated to it was Adobe pixel bender I deleted the entry(by the way you have to push ctrl+f several times until you reach this entry.)
* then after I closed regedit.exe I right clicked on the file and chose "Open whith" then "Choose default Program"
* now browse for the "rasphone.exe" file in System 32 and associate it to your file and the problem is solved. | Sounds like you have the wrong association with the file extension.
Open *Control Panel*. Go to *Default Programs*. Then *Set Associations*. Find .pbk and change the application associated with it. |
241,995 | When I double click on my connection.pbk it's was open by Adobe PixelBender and I don't know how can I fix that. | 2011/02/05 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/241995",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/66190/"
] | easy solution:
right click on the file and chose open with, then find rasphone.exe from system32 folder and click OK.
enjoy | Sounds like you have the wrong association with the file extension.
Open *Control Panel*. Go to *Default Programs*. Then *Set Associations*. Find .pbk and change the application associated with it. |
241,995 | When I double click on my connection.pbk it's was open by Adobe PixelBender and I don't know how can I fix that. | 2011/02/05 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/241995",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/66190/"
] | easy solution:
right click on the file and chose open with, then find rasphone.exe from system32 folder and click OK.
enjoy | Some users have problems opening .pbk (vpn) files in Windows 7. If you have Adobe Pixel Bender then the .pbk files will open using the Adobe Pixel Bender. If you still want to open pbk files as VPN connection (with Windows Remote Access Phonebook), please follow the steps below:
1. Launch Notepad.
2. Copy the following content into Notepad.
>
> Windows Registry Editor Version 5.00
>
>
> [HKEY\_CLASSES\_ROOT.pbk] @="pbkfile"
>
>
>
3. Save to Desktop with the name .pkb.reg
4. Launch the saved file from Desktop to modify the registry to change the file association.
If the issue still occurs, please follow the steps below:
1. Launch Notepad.
2. Copy the following content into Notepad.
>
> Windows Registry Editor Version 5.00
>
>
> [HKEY\_CLASSES\_ROOT\pbkfile] @="Dial-Up
> Phonebook"
> "FriendlyTypeName"=hex(2):40,00,25,00,53,00,79,00,73,00,74,00,65,00,6d,00,52,\
> 00,6f,00,6f,00,74,00,25,00,5c,00,73,00,79,00,73,00,74,00,65,00,6d,00,33,00,\
> 32,00,5c,00,72,00,61,00,73,00,64,00,6c,00,67,00,2e,00,64,00,6c,00,6c,00,2c,\
> 00,2d,00,33,00,35,00,33,00,00,00
>
>
> [HKEY\_CLASSES\_ROOT\pbkfile\DefaultIcon]
> @=hex(2):25,00,53,00,79,00,73,00,74,00,65,00,6d,00,52,00,6f,00,6f,00,74,00,25,\
> 00,5c,00,73,00,79,00,73,00,74,00,65,00,6d,00,33,00,32,00,5c,00,72,00,61,00,\
> 73,00,64,00,6c,00,67,00,2e,00,64,00,6c,00,6c,00,2c,00,2d,00,35,00,36,00,32,\
> 00,00,00
>
>
> [HKEY\_CLASSES\_ROOT\pbkfile\Shell]
>
>
> [HKEY\_CLASSES\_ROOT\pbkfile\Shell\open]
>
>
> [HKEY\_CLASSES\_ROOT\pbkfile\Shell\open\command]
> @=hex(2):25,00,53,00,79,00,73,00,74,00,65,00,6d,00,52,00,6f,00,6f,00,74,00,25,\
> 00,5c,00,73,00,79,00,73,00,74,00,65,00,6d,00,33,00,32,00,5c,00,72,00,61,00,\
> 73,00,70,00,68,00,6f,00,6e,00,65,00,2e,00,65,00,78,00,65,00,20,00,2d,00,66,\
> 00,20,00,22,00,25,00,31,00,22,00,00,00
>
>
>
3. Save to Desktop with the name .pkb.reg
4. Launch the saved file from Desktop to modify the registry to change the file association. |
241,995 | When I double click on my connection.pbk it's was open by Adobe PixelBender and I don't know how can I fix that. | 2011/02/05 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/241995",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/66190/"
] | easy solution:
right click on the file and chose open with, then find rasphone.exe from system32 folder and click OK.
enjoy | Well I just had this problem too, I installed Adobe pixel bender tool and .pbk vpn connection file got associated to it,
---
* I went to registry and pushed ctrl+f and searched pbk in registry
* I found "pbk opens with:Adobe pixel bender" entry and the program associated to it was Adobe pixel bender I deleted the entry(by the way you have to push ctrl+f several times until you reach this entry.)
* then after I closed regedit.exe I right clicked on the file and chose "Open whith" then "Choose default Program"
* now browse for the "rasphone.exe" file in System 32 and associate it to your file and the problem is solved. |
13,897 | [Similar question as in Academia StackExchange](https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/95860/mathematics-stack-exchange-as-an-indicator-for-academic-career#comment280835_95897) except education instead of academia.
Quote:
>
> High reputation on a technical Stack Exchange site might indicate that you're a good teacher of that subject, since well-explained, easy-to-understand answers tend to get higher reputation.
>
>
>
Paraphrasing (or whatever is the term to change words of another to suit an analogous situation)
I'm due to start my PhD in mathematics education next month, fully funded by a scholarship, at an average university, I'll be specialising in [how language affects mathematical definitions](https://matheducators.stackexchange.com/questions/13700), and I have a strong First in Mathematics from a Russell group university. My goal is to become a kindergarten/primary/secondary maths teacher and an academic.
This is my Mathematics Stack Exchange (MSE) profile. I've been an active user since 201X, visiting pretty much daily, but my reputation is currently just [4 digits] and I haven't used MathOverflow at all (as the questions there every time I visit, which isn't that often, are beyond me). This seems quite low. Should this worry me? | 2018/04/02 | [
"https://matheducators.stackexchange.com/questions/13897",
"https://matheducators.stackexchange.com",
"https://matheducators.stackexchange.com/users/5987/"
] | I'd put my money on:
*[Mathematics and the Imagination](https://www.goodreads.com/book/show/849866.Mathematics_and_the_Imagination)* by Edward Kasner and James Newman
The four-volume set *[The World of Mathematics](https://www.goodreads.com/book/show/705566.The_World_of_Mathematics)* that Newman edited.
These books appeal to people in all subject areas. I myself taught a bit on math through literature at the secondary level, and I gleaned three short stories from the corresponding section in *World*.
For inspiration, *[Innumeracy](https://www.goodreads.com/book/show/186749.Innumeracy)* by John Allen Paulos, which shows why people are so ready to say they're bad at math. He's a mathematics professor, so he's seen it.
*[Mathematical Snapshots](https://www.goodreads.com/book/show/2112067.Mathematical_Snapshots)* by Hugo Steinhaus is festooned with examples of connections within and outside of mathematics. I could easily get 25 conference presentations from this book alone.
I guess it's clear that I am not one for the traditional curriculum, preferring books with a student-oriented (rather than math-oriented) focus. I *loved* [*Calculus: A Liberal Art*](https://www.goodreads.com/book/show/1936376.Calculus) by W. M. Priestley, and liberally used it when teaching AB and BC Calculus.
If you're looking for specific textbooks, I can vouch for *[Contemporary Pre-Calculus through Applications](https://rads.stackoverflow.com/amzn/click/1570397759)* and *Contemporary Calculus through Applications*, both developed by the North Carolina School of Science and Mathematics faculty. I've taught using both of them and they are phenomenal, although the Calculus one might be hard to find.
My favorite series of high school books is from the University of Chicago School Mathematics Project. I was only able to use two of them: *Functions, Statistics, and Trigonometry*, and *Precalculus and Discrete Mathematics*, found in their [entire series for grades 6–12](http://ucsmp.uchicago.edu/secondary/curriculum/).
Ever since they came up with the acronym, I've contended that although the STE parts belong together, the M isn't like STE. M should exist between the humanities and the sciences, and the closer you get to the humanities the better. Have a look at [*A Mathematician's Lament: How School Cheats Us Out of Our Most Fascinating and Imaginative Art Form*](https://www.goodreads.com/book/show/6232657-a-mathematician-s-lament) to see why.
Some of these books exist in inexpensive Dover editions. They're worth investigating.
I'm only allowed 8 links, and have probably written more than I know already. | **Overall: I recommend two tracks:** (1) books that are motivational and (2) books that are helpful. For all of them, I would emphasize books that are more common/popular as it will be more likely to get a native language translation. Also, for the charitable bang for the buck, emphasize books that have cheap editions (more likely in the popular ones as there will be current paperback prints).
**You don't mention it, but:** I think bigger challenges than the content will be (1) funding and (2) outreach. I feel like your question is already super broad (but lacking in detail on your situation, like WHAT country or age target or ability target, which would allow us to help you better), so won't address them. But these are probably bigger challenges than the books. I do see something like a national (perhaps participative) exam with prizes as a useful idea. I'm not sure how to restrict it to low income awardees though.
**Motivational books:** Feynman "what do you care what other people think" and "surely you are joking". Microbe Hunters. Men of Mathematics. All of the Heinlein juveniles, especially Starman Jones, Have Spaceship Will Travel, and Citizen of the Galaxy (as they emphasize education and a bit of Horatio Alger). All of these should be available in Arabic.
**Useful books:** Schaum's Outlines, especially the older ones for First Year College Math, Calculus, etc. Practical man's Guide to Trig, Calc, etc. Also Calculus made Easy. These may all be English only. |
13,897 | [Similar question as in Academia StackExchange](https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/95860/mathematics-stack-exchange-as-an-indicator-for-academic-career#comment280835_95897) except education instead of academia.
Quote:
>
> High reputation on a technical Stack Exchange site might indicate that you're a good teacher of that subject, since well-explained, easy-to-understand answers tend to get higher reputation.
>
>
>
Paraphrasing (or whatever is the term to change words of another to suit an analogous situation)
I'm due to start my PhD in mathematics education next month, fully funded by a scholarship, at an average university, I'll be specialising in [how language affects mathematical definitions](https://matheducators.stackexchange.com/questions/13700), and I have a strong First in Mathematics from a Russell group university. My goal is to become a kindergarten/primary/secondary maths teacher and an academic.
This is my Mathematics Stack Exchange (MSE) profile. I've been an active user since 201X, visiting pretty much daily, but my reputation is currently just [4 digits] and I haven't used MathOverflow at all (as the questions there every time I visit, which isn't that often, are beyond me). This seems quite low. Should this worry me? | 2018/04/02 | [
"https://matheducators.stackexchange.com/questions/13897",
"https://matheducators.stackexchange.com",
"https://matheducators.stackexchange.com/users/5987/"
] | It seems that your main concern is cost. I therefore suggest you look for sources of free textbooks. If you're looking for books for undergraduate students, then you might want to take a look at the books from [OpenStax](https://openstax.org/).
From its [Wikipedia entry](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/OpenStax):
>
> **OpenStax** (formerly OpenStax College) is a nonprofit ed-tech initiative based at Rice University. Since 2012, OpenStax has created peer-reviewed, openly licensed textbooks, which are available in free digital formats and for a low cost in print.
>
>
>
They have free textbooks on Math, Science, Social Sciences, Humanities, and [AP](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Advanced_Placement). For math, they currently have textbooks on Prealgebra, Elementary Algebra, Intermediate Algebra, College Algebra, Algebra and Trigonometry, Precalculus, Calculus (Volumes 1, 2, and 3), Introductory Statistics, and Introductory Business Statistics. | **Overall: I recommend two tracks:** (1) books that are motivational and (2) books that are helpful. For all of them, I would emphasize books that are more common/popular as it will be more likely to get a native language translation. Also, for the charitable bang for the buck, emphasize books that have cheap editions (more likely in the popular ones as there will be current paperback prints).
**You don't mention it, but:** I think bigger challenges than the content will be (1) funding and (2) outreach. I feel like your question is already super broad (but lacking in detail on your situation, like WHAT country or age target or ability target, which would allow us to help you better), so won't address them. But these are probably bigger challenges than the books. I do see something like a national (perhaps participative) exam with prizes as a useful idea. I'm not sure how to restrict it to low income awardees though.
**Motivational books:** Feynman "what do you care what other people think" and "surely you are joking". Microbe Hunters. Men of Mathematics. All of the Heinlein juveniles, especially Starman Jones, Have Spaceship Will Travel, and Citizen of the Galaxy (as they emphasize education and a bit of Horatio Alger). All of these should be available in Arabic.
**Useful books:** Schaum's Outlines, especially the older ones for First Year College Math, Calculus, etc. Practical man's Guide to Trig, Calc, etc. Also Calculus made Easy. These may all be English only. |
13,897 | [Similar question as in Academia StackExchange](https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/95860/mathematics-stack-exchange-as-an-indicator-for-academic-career#comment280835_95897) except education instead of academia.
Quote:
>
> High reputation on a technical Stack Exchange site might indicate that you're a good teacher of that subject, since well-explained, easy-to-understand answers tend to get higher reputation.
>
>
>
Paraphrasing (or whatever is the term to change words of another to suit an analogous situation)
I'm due to start my PhD in mathematics education next month, fully funded by a scholarship, at an average university, I'll be specialising in [how language affects mathematical definitions](https://matheducators.stackexchange.com/questions/13700), and I have a strong First in Mathematics from a Russell group university. My goal is to become a kindergarten/primary/secondary maths teacher and an academic.
This is my Mathematics Stack Exchange (MSE) profile. I've been an active user since 201X, visiting pretty much daily, but my reputation is currently just [4 digits] and I haven't used MathOverflow at all (as the questions there every time I visit, which isn't that often, are beyond me). This seems quite low. Should this worry me? | 2018/04/02 | [
"https://matheducators.stackexchange.com/questions/13897",
"https://matheducators.stackexchange.com",
"https://matheducators.stackexchange.com/users/5987/"
] | I'd put my money on:
*[Mathematics and the Imagination](https://www.goodreads.com/book/show/849866.Mathematics_and_the_Imagination)* by Edward Kasner and James Newman
The four-volume set *[The World of Mathematics](https://www.goodreads.com/book/show/705566.The_World_of_Mathematics)* that Newman edited.
These books appeal to people in all subject areas. I myself taught a bit on math through literature at the secondary level, and I gleaned three short stories from the corresponding section in *World*.
For inspiration, *[Innumeracy](https://www.goodreads.com/book/show/186749.Innumeracy)* by John Allen Paulos, which shows why people are so ready to say they're bad at math. He's a mathematics professor, so he's seen it.
*[Mathematical Snapshots](https://www.goodreads.com/book/show/2112067.Mathematical_Snapshots)* by Hugo Steinhaus is festooned with examples of connections within and outside of mathematics. I could easily get 25 conference presentations from this book alone.
I guess it's clear that I am not one for the traditional curriculum, preferring books with a student-oriented (rather than math-oriented) focus. I *loved* [*Calculus: A Liberal Art*](https://www.goodreads.com/book/show/1936376.Calculus) by W. M. Priestley, and liberally used it when teaching AB and BC Calculus.
If you're looking for specific textbooks, I can vouch for *[Contemporary Pre-Calculus through Applications](https://rads.stackoverflow.com/amzn/click/1570397759)* and *Contemporary Calculus through Applications*, both developed by the North Carolina School of Science and Mathematics faculty. I've taught using both of them and they are phenomenal, although the Calculus one might be hard to find.
My favorite series of high school books is from the University of Chicago School Mathematics Project. I was only able to use two of them: *Functions, Statistics, and Trigonometry*, and *Precalculus and Discrete Mathematics*, found in their [entire series for grades 6–12](http://ucsmp.uchicago.edu/secondary/curriculum/).
Ever since they came up with the acronym, I've contended that although the STE parts belong together, the M isn't like STE. M should exist between the humanities and the sciences, and the closer you get to the humanities the better. Have a look at [*A Mathematician's Lament: How School Cheats Us Out of Our Most Fascinating and Imaginative Art Form*](https://www.goodreads.com/book/show/6232657-a-mathematician-s-lament) to see why.
Some of these books exist in inexpensive Dover editions. They're worth investigating.
I'm only allowed 8 links, and have probably written more than I know already. | It seems that your main concern is cost. I therefore suggest you look for sources of free textbooks. If you're looking for books for undergraduate students, then you might want to take a look at the books from [OpenStax](https://openstax.org/).
From its [Wikipedia entry](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/OpenStax):
>
> **OpenStax** (formerly OpenStax College) is a nonprofit ed-tech initiative based at Rice University. Since 2012, OpenStax has created peer-reviewed, openly licensed textbooks, which are available in free digital formats and for a low cost in print.
>
>
>
They have free textbooks on Math, Science, Social Sciences, Humanities, and [AP](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Advanced_Placement). For math, they currently have textbooks on Prealgebra, Elementary Algebra, Intermediate Algebra, College Algebra, Algebra and Trigonometry, Precalculus, Calculus (Volumes 1, 2, and 3), Introductory Statistics, and Introductory Business Statistics. |
1,409,418 | In Flex 3 application how to export the charts in pdf and word formats? | 2009/09/11 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1409418",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/128124/"
] | The Render methods are intended to render Views. The idea is that the Controller deals with the request, conjures up a Model and hands that Model off to the View. At that point, the Controller's work is done.
I think it is an indication of a design flaw if the View needs to know anything about the Controller. Can you share more about what it is that you are trying to accomplish?
I often find that when dealing with well-designed frameworks (such as the MVC framework), if it feels like the framework is fighting you, you are probably going about the task in the wrong way. This has happened to me a lot, and stepping back and asking myself what it is that I'm *really* trying to accomplish often leads to new insights.
But if you *really* must, you can always put the Controller name in the ViewData... | You could consider using [Html.RenderAction in ASP.NET MVC Futures](http://davidhayden.com/blog/dave/archive/2009/04/04/ASPNETMVCPartialViewsHtmlRenderActionASPNETMVCFutures.aspx). |
10,299 | If a kind and generous Christian died 20 years ago today, 21July2015, might their rebirth have resulted in there being a 19 year old person in the human realm now? I want to assume that the kindness and generosity perhaps trumped the ignorance about samsara, resulting in a new individual array of aggregates and store consciousness inclined toward learning about Buddhism and Nibana. I wonder this basis Theravada approach to rebirth. | 2015/07/22 | [
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/10299",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/users/108/"
] | From the Tibetan Buddhism perspective this is a possible outcome. In philosophy David Lewis calls these possible worlds. It might even be true in the actual world. Which is the world we live in.
The [bardo](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bardo) and rebirth would have to happen first of course.
Also human rebirth is considered to be [rare](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Human_beings_in_Buddhism#Qualities_of_human_life), rarer still is human rebirth that is interested in the dharma.
But it seems if the worldview is correct, that human rebirths would become more common.
But all that aside, the human realm is still Saṃsāra. Being reborn is rough, relearning everything takes time. Where they were born and to what families will determine what they learn and in what order.
I think that covers the first question.
As for the assumption after the first question, kindness and generosity is said to result in wealth, and being in safety respectively.
I do not understand what you mean in your last sentence though.
You mention one of the [3 vehicles](http://viewonbuddhism.org/vehicles.html). | Rebirth is using the conventional/conditioned truth of suffering, 'I, me, mine', to extrapolate, infer, into the unconditioned truth of the end of suffering, 'not I, not me, not mine'.
Majjhima Nikaya 27 does not allow for inference to grasp ultimate truth, only direct observation. In this respect, if you engage with rebirth, you are already one step away from the Tathagata's message of the cessation of suffering, as opposed to his message on suffering.
The issue is Dhamma is regular, without heights or extremes. Bardo naturally creates the extreme of existence and non-existence, as is therefore philosophically unacceptable. Spontaneous but memoryless continuation of the conditioned - that has NOT reached the unconditioned - is the only option that is not irregular.
That the conditioned randomly (not chaotically, that is still mathematically defined) wobbles around the mathematical approximate of emptiness that is '0', is irregular, so untenable for Dhamma.
Isms don't play any factor in the Newtonianesque law of kamma-vipaka. Intentional action and the result of intentional action, gives no concern for 'isms'.
Wisdom - the ideological space, and concentration - the supramundane path, are considered supreme within Dhamma, but that is different from the morality section.
There is no supremacy within Dhamma with respect to morality. Intentional action to non-harm, non ill-will, will bring benefit whether acted on by a murderer or by a saint.
A good Christian, within Dhamma - subject to accepting 'I' - will be reborn where they stand with respect to their morality. |
10,299 | If a kind and generous Christian died 20 years ago today, 21July2015, might their rebirth have resulted in there being a 19 year old person in the human realm now? I want to assume that the kindness and generosity perhaps trumped the ignorance about samsara, resulting in a new individual array of aggregates and store consciousness inclined toward learning about Buddhism and Nibana. I wonder this basis Theravada approach to rebirth. | 2015/07/22 | [
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/10299",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/users/108/"
] | The Buddha taught in many suttas the kind and generous go to heaven. | If you attain stream entry in this lifetime, your next birth as a human being is assured. Stream enterants take next birth at most 7 times, as a human being, before they reach ultimate enlightenment.
To reach stream entery you must duplicate, understand, contemplate and realize the complete teachings of Buddha. Then you must make 100 days of concentrated effort of meditation. This process is described in the ancient Taoist scripture, Secret of the Golden Flower. I recommend reading The Secret of Secrets vol. 1&2 for complete understanding of this process. |
10,299 | If a kind and generous Christian died 20 years ago today, 21July2015, might their rebirth have resulted in there being a 19 year old person in the human realm now? I want to assume that the kindness and generosity perhaps trumped the ignorance about samsara, resulting in a new individual array of aggregates and store consciousness inclined toward learning about Buddhism and Nibana. I wonder this basis Theravada approach to rebirth. | 2015/07/22 | [
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/10299",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/users/108/"
] | From the Tibetan Buddhism perspective this is a possible outcome. In philosophy David Lewis calls these possible worlds. It might even be true in the actual world. Which is the world we live in.
The [bardo](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bardo) and rebirth would have to happen first of course.
Also human rebirth is considered to be [rare](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Human_beings_in_Buddhism#Qualities_of_human_life), rarer still is human rebirth that is interested in the dharma.
But it seems if the worldview is correct, that human rebirths would become more common.
But all that aside, the human realm is still Saṃsāra. Being reborn is rough, relearning everything takes time. Where they were born and to what families will determine what they learn and in what order.
I think that covers the first question.
As for the assumption after the first question, kindness and generosity is said to result in wealth, and being in safety respectively.
I do not understand what you mean in your last sentence though.
You mention one of the [3 vehicles](http://viewonbuddhism.org/vehicles.html). | If you attain stream entry in this lifetime, your next birth as a human being is assured. Stream enterants take next birth at most 7 times, as a human being, before they reach ultimate enlightenment.
To reach stream entery you must duplicate, understand, contemplate and realize the complete teachings of Buddha. Then you must make 100 days of concentrated effort of meditation. This process is described in the ancient Taoist scripture, Secret of the Golden Flower. I recommend reading The Secret of Secrets vol. 1&2 for complete understanding of this process. |
10,299 | If a kind and generous Christian died 20 years ago today, 21July2015, might their rebirth have resulted in there being a 19 year old person in the human realm now? I want to assume that the kindness and generosity perhaps trumped the ignorance about samsara, resulting in a new individual array of aggregates and store consciousness inclined toward learning about Buddhism and Nibana. I wonder this basis Theravada approach to rebirth. | 2015/07/22 | [
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/10299",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/users/108/"
] | I think it's difficult to talk about rebirth as if it were a sure thing: for example because kamma comes from a being's previous life, but it also comes from the life before that, etc.
"The [precise working out of the] results of kamma" is said to be [unconjecturable](http://www.accesstoinsight.org/tipitaka/an/an04/an04.077.than.html).
Actually being able to directly see others' karmic destinations is one of the miraculous powers [attributed to the Buddha](http://www.accesstoinsight.org/lib/authors/bodhi/wheel433.html):
>
> Then, the records tell us, in the first watch of the night he directed his concentrated mind to the recollection of his previous lives. Gradually there unfolded before his inner vision his experiences in many past births, even during many cosmic aeons; **in the middle watch of the night he developed the "divine eye" by which he could see beings passing away and taking rebirth in accordance with their karma, their deeds**; and in the last watch of the night he penetrated the deepest truths of existence, the most basic laws of reality, and thereby removed from his mind the subtlest veils of ignorance. When dawn broke, the figure sitting beneath the tree was no longer a Bodhisatta, a seeker of enlightenment, but a Buddha, a Perfectly Enlightened One, one who had attained the Deathless in this very life itself.
>
>
> | The Buddha taught in many suttas the kind and generous go to heaven. |
10,299 | If a kind and generous Christian died 20 years ago today, 21July2015, might their rebirth have resulted in there being a 19 year old person in the human realm now? I want to assume that the kindness and generosity perhaps trumped the ignorance about samsara, resulting in a new individual array of aggregates and store consciousness inclined toward learning about Buddhism and Nibana. I wonder this basis Theravada approach to rebirth. | 2015/07/22 | [
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/10299",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/users/108/"
] | I think it's difficult to talk about rebirth as if it were a sure thing: for example because kamma comes from a being's previous life, but it also comes from the life before that, etc.
"The [precise working out of the] results of kamma" is said to be [unconjecturable](http://www.accesstoinsight.org/tipitaka/an/an04/an04.077.than.html).
Actually being able to directly see others' karmic destinations is one of the miraculous powers [attributed to the Buddha](http://www.accesstoinsight.org/lib/authors/bodhi/wheel433.html):
>
> Then, the records tell us, in the first watch of the night he directed his concentrated mind to the recollection of his previous lives. Gradually there unfolded before his inner vision his experiences in many past births, even during many cosmic aeons; **in the middle watch of the night he developed the "divine eye" by which he could see beings passing away and taking rebirth in accordance with their karma, their deeds**; and in the last watch of the night he penetrated the deepest truths of existence, the most basic laws of reality, and thereby removed from his mind the subtlest veils of ignorance. When dawn broke, the figure sitting beneath the tree was no longer a Bodhisatta, a seeker of enlightenment, but a Buddha, a Perfectly Enlightened One, one who had attained the Deathless in this very life itself.
>
>
> | If you attain stream entry in this lifetime, your next birth as a human being is assured. Stream enterants take next birth at most 7 times, as a human being, before they reach ultimate enlightenment.
To reach stream entery you must duplicate, understand, contemplate and realize the complete teachings of Buddha. Then you must make 100 days of concentrated effort of meditation. This process is described in the ancient Taoist scripture, Secret of the Golden Flower. I recommend reading The Secret of Secrets vol. 1&2 for complete understanding of this process. |
10,299 | If a kind and generous Christian died 20 years ago today, 21July2015, might their rebirth have resulted in there being a 19 year old person in the human realm now? I want to assume that the kindness and generosity perhaps trumped the ignorance about samsara, resulting in a new individual array of aggregates and store consciousness inclined toward learning about Buddhism and Nibana. I wonder this basis Theravada approach to rebirth. | 2015/07/22 | [
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/10299",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/users/108/"
] | The Buddha taught in many suttas the kind and generous go to heaven. | Rebirth is using the conventional/conditioned truth of suffering, 'I, me, mine', to extrapolate, infer, into the unconditioned truth of the end of suffering, 'not I, not me, not mine'.
Majjhima Nikaya 27 does not allow for inference to grasp ultimate truth, only direct observation. In this respect, if you engage with rebirth, you are already one step away from the Tathagata's message of the cessation of suffering, as opposed to his message on suffering.
The issue is Dhamma is regular, without heights or extremes. Bardo naturally creates the extreme of existence and non-existence, as is therefore philosophically unacceptable. Spontaneous but memoryless continuation of the conditioned - that has NOT reached the unconditioned - is the only option that is not irregular.
That the conditioned randomly (not chaotically, that is still mathematically defined) wobbles around the mathematical approximate of emptiness that is '0', is irregular, so untenable for Dhamma.
Isms don't play any factor in the Newtonianesque law of kamma-vipaka. Intentional action and the result of intentional action, gives no concern for 'isms'.
Wisdom - the ideological space, and concentration - the supramundane path, are considered supreme within Dhamma, but that is different from the morality section.
There is no supremacy within Dhamma with respect to morality. Intentional action to non-harm, non ill-will, will bring benefit whether acted on by a murderer or by a saint.
A good Christian, within Dhamma - subject to accepting 'I' - will be reborn where they stand with respect to their morality. |
10,299 | If a kind and generous Christian died 20 years ago today, 21July2015, might their rebirth have resulted in there being a 19 year old person in the human realm now? I want to assume that the kindness and generosity perhaps trumped the ignorance about samsara, resulting in a new individual array of aggregates and store consciousness inclined toward learning about Buddhism and Nibana. I wonder this basis Theravada approach to rebirth. | 2015/07/22 | [
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/10299",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/users/108/"
] | I think it's difficult to talk about rebirth as if it were a sure thing: for example because kamma comes from a being's previous life, but it also comes from the life before that, etc.
"The [precise working out of the] results of kamma" is said to be [unconjecturable](http://www.accesstoinsight.org/tipitaka/an/an04/an04.077.than.html).
Actually being able to directly see others' karmic destinations is one of the miraculous powers [attributed to the Buddha](http://www.accesstoinsight.org/lib/authors/bodhi/wheel433.html):
>
> Then, the records tell us, in the first watch of the night he directed his concentrated mind to the recollection of his previous lives. Gradually there unfolded before his inner vision his experiences in many past births, even during many cosmic aeons; **in the middle watch of the night he developed the "divine eye" by which he could see beings passing away and taking rebirth in accordance with their karma, their deeds**; and in the last watch of the night he penetrated the deepest truths of existence, the most basic laws of reality, and thereby removed from his mind the subtlest veils of ignorance. When dawn broke, the figure sitting beneath the tree was no longer a Bodhisatta, a seeker of enlightenment, but a Buddha, a Perfectly Enlightened One, one who had attained the Deathless in this very life itself.
>
>
> | Rebirth is using the conventional/conditioned truth of suffering, 'I, me, mine', to extrapolate, infer, into the unconditioned truth of the end of suffering, 'not I, not me, not mine'.
Majjhima Nikaya 27 does not allow for inference to grasp ultimate truth, only direct observation. In this respect, if you engage with rebirth, you are already one step away from the Tathagata's message of the cessation of suffering, as opposed to his message on suffering.
The issue is Dhamma is regular, without heights or extremes. Bardo naturally creates the extreme of existence and non-existence, as is therefore philosophically unacceptable. Spontaneous but memoryless continuation of the conditioned - that has NOT reached the unconditioned - is the only option that is not irregular.
That the conditioned randomly (not chaotically, that is still mathematically defined) wobbles around the mathematical approximate of emptiness that is '0', is irregular, so untenable for Dhamma.
Isms don't play any factor in the Newtonianesque law of kamma-vipaka. Intentional action and the result of intentional action, gives no concern for 'isms'.
Wisdom - the ideological space, and concentration - the supramundane path, are considered supreme within Dhamma, but that is different from the morality section.
There is no supremacy within Dhamma with respect to morality. Intentional action to non-harm, non ill-will, will bring benefit whether acted on by a murderer or by a saint.
A good Christian, within Dhamma - subject to accepting 'I' - will be reborn where they stand with respect to their morality. |
1,540,983 | I have got a windows service written in .NET and I need to be able to implement a self-restarting feature for it.
E.g. service constantly monitors the environment in runs in and once a value of the environmental variable reaches its threashold value the service must restart itself.
What would be the easiest way to do it? | 2009/10/08 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1540983",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/186809/"
] | Have your app monitor the environment variable, and exit when it should, set the service to restart under the recovery tab for the service. You can do this programmatically if you use code to install the service. | Write a Service to start the Service! |
125,811 | I am flying for the first time tomorrow, and one of my many many worries is regarding the boarding pass. I am flying with SAS and I have checked in on the SAS APP. It then shows me a boarding pass with a little QR code on it.
My questions:
Is this enough to complete my journey, or do I need to print something off or go to a desk at the airport?
If I have checked in and have my boarding pass (via the app) do I just need to head straight to security once I arrive at the airport (I have no luggage)?
Apologies if this has been answered before. I'm so confused and worrying a little because I'll be running on a very tight schedule.
Thank you all | 2018/11/15 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/125811",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/86970/"
] | The app is sufficient. You just go straight to security and scan your QR code there. If you're worried about running out of battery on your phone, you can print a boarding pass in one of the self check-in machines to have as a backup. Good luck on your first flight! | The QR code should be enough. However, make sure your device has sufficient battery charge left to last until after you board the plane (for that reason alone, I nearly always print a physical copy as well). |
794,995 | I'm trying to create an autoscaling group for my web server in AWS.
I do the following:
1.- Create a load balancer. This load balancer checks the first instance of the autoscaling group.
Health Check Tab
Listeners Tab
2.- Create an autoscaling group with an AMI. The policies are:
* INCREASE: If Maximum CPU is >= 70% for 1 min it start 1 instance based on the AMI. It waits 60 sec before allowing another scaling activity.
* DECREASE: If Maximum CPU is <= 25% for 5 min it removes the newest instance. It waits 0 sec before allowing another scaling activity.
In the DETAILS TAB of the autoscaling group I have the folling:
- Desired: 1
* Min: 1
* Max: 5
* Health Check Type: EC2
* Health Check Grace Period: 60
* Termination Policies: NewestInstance
* Default Cooldown 60
Those are the configurations.
Apparently it works well. When we charge the instance using JMeter, AWS starts a new instance using INCREASE policy. The problems is, that seems that the new instance isn't being used. Because, when I check the monitoring graphs of AWS, the CPU stays at 0 all time. So I think that the new instances that AWS launch aren't being used. I think this is because I have a bad configuration of the load balancer, but I really don't know. What can I do? | 2016/08/05 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/794995",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/-1/"
] | Many people miss this.
When load testing Elastic Load Balancers with multiple EC2 instances behind the ELB, you need to run your tests from multiple client locations. Each needs to be originating from a unique IP address.
The reason for this is based in how ELB handles DNS requests. Depending on the number of AZs used, the number of back-end EC2 instances you have, etc. ELB may keep sending requests that originate from the same remote IP address to the same back-end EC2 instance.
**Some Notes:**
This is different from "sticky sessions", which uses cookies to send the same browser session to the same back-end EC2 instance.
If you are using multiple clients to do your load testing, make sure your PCs are not behind the same NAT or firewall. Since all the connections are going through the NAT/firewall, the ELB will see all of the connections as originating from the same IP address (the NAT/firewall's IP address). So this is not good enough.
Use a tool like <http://whatismyipaddress.com> to see what your "outside" IP address is.
**References:**
* Personal experience
* My discussions with AWS Support
* [Best Practices in Evaluating Elastic Load Balancing](https://aws.amazon.com/articles/1636185810492479) - See "DNS Resolution" section
* [6 Dos and Don’ts of AWS Elastic Load Balancers](http://www.stackdriver.com/tips-for-using-aws-elastic-load-balancers-elb/) - See "DON’T get blindsided by infrastructure hotspots" section
* [How elastic are Amazon Elastic Load Balancers (ELB)? Not very it seems](http://blog.mattheworiordan.com/post/19257368025/how-elastic-are-amazon-elastic-load-balancers) - From this article:
>
> So a single load test client would only ever hit one ELB instance
>
>
>
* [Dissecting Amazon ELB : 18 things you should know](http://harish11g.blogspot.ca/2012/07/aws-elastic-load-balancing-elb-amazon.html) - See point #9
**Update:**
One more reference:
* [The DNS Cache Manager: The Right Way To Test Load Balanced Apps](https://www.blazemeter.com/blog/dns-cache-manager-right-way-test-load-balanced-apps) - This article specifically mentions the problems of load testing using JMeter against AWS ELB. | 2 Things to do here.
1) If you have attached a load balancer to your Auto Scaling group, you can optionally have Auto Scaling include the results of Elastic Load Balancing health checks when determining the health status of an instance. After you add these health checks, Auto Scaling also marks an instance as unhealthy if Elastic Load Balancing reports the instance state as OutOfService. It is recommended to set your HC to ELB rather EC2. Thats not the case as per the attached Screenshot.
2) Check the ELB --> Instances tab once you increase the traffic and see another instance spun up to verify if this is actually registered with the ELB you are referring too.
Cheers! |
30,880,990 | I'm new with responsive design and am designing a web page starting with 240px width for old phones and building up from there.
On my banner image, which is a PNG, is it best to:
1) Start with my largest image and shrink it for each media query?
or
2) Start with a small banner and then display a higher resolution file for each breakpoint?
Stretching and shrinking images seems fine for vector graphics but on some gifs and other images it looks rather ugly.
So I wasn't sure if I should load one banner image that I manipulate or if I should have at least 3 images (phone, tablet, desktop sized) that I load at certain resolution trigger points.
Thanks. | 2015/06/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/30880990",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/4379409/"
] | I strongly recommend not using Imagick for downloading images from other servers. Either use CURL or some other library that gives you adequate control over the download (including being able to see redirects, incorrect content types, etc), and then process the image with Imagick once it is downloaded correctly.
Source - I'm the maintainer for Imagick. | The server may be redirecting your request to some html page somewhere, check the contents of the response to find out if this is the case. |
31,838,825 | NetSuite help suggests this "To access the workflow execution log, select the record for the workflow, click the System Information and Workflow History subtabs, and click the Log link for the state you want to view. "
I don't see where this is. Sorry if it sound a noob question, this is the first time i am trying to build a workflow.
PS: This is for a Bin Transfer record. | 2015/08/05 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/31838825",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/4859264/"
] | The System Information >> Workflow history tabs are available on other transactions such as Sales Order and Purchase orders, but not for Bin Transfers. Just discovered it... | Log Link will be seen when workflow run on the record, path is
The System Information >> Workflow history |
31,838,825 | NetSuite help suggests this "To access the workflow execution log, select the record for the workflow, click the System Information and Workflow History subtabs, and click the Log link for the state you want to view. "
I don't see where this is. Sorry if it sound a noob question, this is the first time i am trying to build a workflow.
PS: This is for a Bin Transfer record. | 2015/08/05 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/31838825",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/4859264/"
] | The System Information >> Workflow history tabs are available on other transactions such as Sales Order and Purchase orders, but not for Bin Transfers. Just discovered it... | The 1st configuration step would be to open the Workflow in question and check the checkbox- "Enable Logging" on the global level of the workflow (edit main workflow)[Enable logging on workflow](https://i.stack.imgur.com/jyLau.png) . Please see the screenshot 1 for your reference.
The 2nd step would be to navigate to the record on which this workflow is active. Navigate to system information --> Workflow history --> Log (which is a link, which when open shows you all the actions e.g. when the workflow was triggered, what actions were rejected due to conditions not being met etc.)[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/IXsWR.png) Please see screenshot 2 for reference |
64,628 | We build software which needs a SQL SERVER database. This database will hold private user information (address,bank, ...)
My question is: Should I install my database in a fresh SQL Server instance, or can I use an exiting instance?
(I doesn't want to wast user resources but also want to deny unauthorized access) | 2014/08/04 | [
"https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/64628",
"https://security.stackexchange.com",
"https://security.stackexchange.com/users/35507/"
] | If the existing database has strong security controls then there's no reason to have a separate one. If there are not strong controls on the existing database, and setting up strong security controls is not possible on the existing database then you will need to have a separate database to better protect the data. | Quite frankly, your first stop should be a well regarded pentest company.
Given the nature of your question, I would want to see some evidence you've managed to secure your network first.
Afterall, if you've got a network that looks like a piece of Swiss cheese, it really doesn't matter how many SQL instances you run or how many servers you run them on ! |
16,617 | I would be grateful for recommendations of a smartphone that meets the following criteria:
* 1. It is free of Google and Apple software or hardware.
* 2. It can run a web browser, preferably Mozilla Firefox.
* 3. It can run a textchat-videochat-messaging program such as Signal, Telegram, Viber, Skype, Line, or Whatsapp, either as an app installed on it or through through the web browser.
* 4. It can connect via a USB to USB cable to a laptop running Windows and when it does I will be able to see the phone's filesystem on the laptop and use the laptop to transfer files (of any kind I want) to and from the phone - and this can be done without either the phone or the laptop being connected to the mobile phone network, wifi, or any other equipment, whether by cable or wirelessly.
* 5. No use of cloud services is required. | 2023/01/10 | [
"https://hardwarerecs.stackexchange.com/questions/16617",
"https://hardwarerecs.stackexchange.com",
"https://hardwarerecs.stackexchange.com/users/22295/"
] | Your keyword search is 'Apple A1243 US' [searching ANSI doesn't do so well as US]
There are plenty of second hand keyboards on eBay UK, starting around £30 - [sample search](https://www.ebay.co.uk/sch/i.html?_from=R40&_nkw=apple+a1243+US&_sacat=0&LH_TitleDesc=0&_sop=15)
(When these were first discontinued the prices shot from the original retail £40 to a colossal £140, but have now settled back again to something more sensible. They're still considered 'desirable' so they do hold their prices])
Alternatively, the modern equivalents are the 'short' A1314 or magic A1644, the direct replacement magic A1843 or TouchID A2449 [touch ID probably needs a recent Mac to function.] Considerably more expensive, retail prices £130 for magic, £200 for TouchID.
BTW, the wireless ones are just as good [& the TouchID on an appropriate Mac is useful] but personally, I wouldn't want to spend another hundred quid just to have no wire either. We have one of these that came with a recent iMac, so it was part of the purchase. I wouldn't bother buying one separately.
Just to note: Don't buy anything 'spares or repairs'. These things are really not consumer fixable. You can't even take them apart easily, they're glued.
*Not coffee-proof, btw ;)* | If you're looking for similar options from other brands: Logitech and Cherry have wired keyboard options that work well with Apple and you a search for them on Amazon. If not, you can find decent second-hand options at Amazon too. |
214,275 | Blender version: 2.92
I'm watching Peter France's tutorial about creating a Spider-Man animation. He creates an empty, parents it to SM keeping transform and in "constraints" adds "follow path" and chooses a path. I do the same and everything works fine until i'm trying to rotate an empty to rotate an actual model. Idk why but it deforms my mesh. Before creating an empty Peter France says that "without it your mesh will be deformed if you try to rotate it" but it deforms anyway. I've tried adding a "follow path" constrait directly to my model but it still deforms. I was experimenting with "influence" but it just moves my model away and it stops following the path.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/CGHik.png)
This is how it look like before i'm trying to rotate the empty
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/gk061.png)
And this is the result of rotating it
I've rewatched the tutorial a few times but I haven't noticed any differences. I repeat same actions he does.
This is the tutorial <https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=b0hWrpAG6Sg>
My problem begins at 9:13. He rotates an empty an it works fine.
And sry for my english | 2021/03/07 | [
"https://blender.stackexchange.com/questions/214275",
"https://blender.stackexchange.com",
"https://blender.stackexchange.com/users/118410/"
] | in order to make this kind of texture you can play with wave and noise textures as well, here is an example:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/OqCGq.png)
Result:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Vr8yW.png)
You can twek the settings for the texture pattern you are looking for, I hope it helps you. | add a wave modifier and then with sculpting use grab and you get something like this:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/5t2Aw.jpg) |
214,275 | Blender version: 2.92
I'm watching Peter France's tutorial about creating a Spider-Man animation. He creates an empty, parents it to SM keeping transform and in "constraints" adds "follow path" and chooses a path. I do the same and everything works fine until i'm trying to rotate an empty to rotate an actual model. Idk why but it deforms my mesh. Before creating an empty Peter France says that "without it your mesh will be deformed if you try to rotate it" but it deforms anyway. I've tried adding a "follow path" constrait directly to my model but it still deforms. I was experimenting with "influence" but it just moves my model away and it stops following the path.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/CGHik.png)
This is how it look like before i'm trying to rotate the empty
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/gk061.png)
And this is the result of rotating it
I've rewatched the tutorial a few times but I haven't noticed any differences. I repeat same actions he does.
This is the tutorial <https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=b0hWrpAG6Sg>
My problem begins at 9:13. He rotates an empty an it works fine.
And sry for my english | 2021/03/07 | [
"https://blender.stackexchange.com/questions/214275",
"https://blender.stackexchange.com",
"https://blender.stackexchange.com/users/118410/"
] | in order to make this kind of texture you can play with wave and noise textures as well, here is an example:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/OqCGq.png)
Result:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Vr8yW.png)
You can twek the settings for the texture pattern you are looking for, I hope it helps you. | I found this on Instagram, may help you <https://www.instagram.com/p/CIfpOzTjcC4/> |
214,275 | Blender version: 2.92
I'm watching Peter France's tutorial about creating a Spider-Man animation. He creates an empty, parents it to SM keeping transform and in "constraints" adds "follow path" and chooses a path. I do the same and everything works fine until i'm trying to rotate an empty to rotate an actual model. Idk why but it deforms my mesh. Before creating an empty Peter France says that "without it your mesh will be deformed if you try to rotate it" but it deforms anyway. I've tried adding a "follow path" constrait directly to my model but it still deforms. I was experimenting with "influence" but it just moves my model away and it stops following the path.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/CGHik.png)
This is how it look like before i'm trying to rotate the empty
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/gk061.png)
And this is the result of rotating it
I've rewatched the tutorial a few times but I haven't noticed any differences. I repeat same actions he does.
This is the tutorial <https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=b0hWrpAG6Sg>
My problem begins at 9:13. He rotates an empty an it works fine.
And sry for my english | 2021/03/07 | [
"https://blender.stackexchange.com/questions/214275",
"https://blender.stackexchange.com",
"https://blender.stackexchange.com/users/118410/"
] | add a wave modifier and then with sculpting use grab and you get something like this:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/5t2Aw.jpg) | I found this on Instagram, may help you <https://www.instagram.com/p/CIfpOzTjcC4/> |
107,992 | I'm running on an overclocked quad-core to 3.6ghz. I've got a lot of fast ram and an SSD. My motherboard is top tier.
Yet, when my Firefox addons update, I have to sit here and wait several seconds (like 6 or 7 seconds) after they download. A big Visual Studio project loads faster than it takes the addons to update. I'm talking about even after they download, I have to wait 6-7 seconds for them to finish updating.
Is there an artificial pause in Firefox updates or something? | 2010/02/12 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/107992",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/5038/"
] | One simple solution is to go to Tools -> Options -> Advanced -> Update and Uncheck the auto-update for Installed Add Ons.
Probably the best solution would be to change the [extension update interval](http://kb.mozillazine.org/About:config_entries#Extensions.):
You can do so with extensions.update.interval . It is set by default to 1 week (86400 seconds) | I just assumed that it was DNS lookups causing the delay.
I've actually reduced the quantity of add-ons simply because of this annoyance. Surely this could be done in the background.... |
107,992 | I'm running on an overclocked quad-core to 3.6ghz. I've got a lot of fast ram and an SSD. My motherboard is top tier.
Yet, when my Firefox addons update, I have to sit here and wait several seconds (like 6 or 7 seconds) after they download. A big Visual Studio project loads faster than it takes the addons to update. I'm talking about even after they download, I have to wait 6-7 seconds for them to finish updating.
Is there an artificial pause in Firefox updates or something? | 2010/02/12 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/107992",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/5038/"
] | One simple solution is to go to Tools -> Options -> Advanced -> Update and Uncheck the auto-update for Installed Add Ons.
Probably the best solution would be to change the [extension update interval](http://kb.mozillazine.org/About:config_entries#Extensions.):
You can do so with extensions.update.interval . It is set by default to 1 week (86400 seconds) | A fast computer won't get the Internet faster... Maybe the site where the extensions are stored is busy or your browser is doing checks before letting you install an update |
42,738 | Question is mentioned in the title, any help would be great!
It would be nice if you could also explain why certain pieces are seldom publicly performed in comparison to certain pieces that are almost always played in recitals.
Thank you! | 2016/03/15 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/42738",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/27193/"
] | Here are some quick bullets:
* **Length** (How long will it be?) If it's greater than 45min you need an intermission. Plan 1 intermission for every 45 minutes. While the chosen pieces typically dictate recital length, sometimes you don't have that luxury and you *must* have a recital be a certain length, which determines your pieces.
* **Where** (Where will you perform?) Schedule your venue and figure out all logistics as soon as humanly possible.
* **When** (How far in advance are you planning?) A quiet piece is a public area could be dreadful. Plan music accordingly. Also, more lead time gives you more time to undertake more intricate / difficult musical projects.
* **Who** (Who is your audience? / Who is playing with you?)
* **What** (What will you play? Does your recital have a theme?)
* **Recital Programming** Typically, you can/should break up a recital into four basic parts: 1) Lighter music 2) Emotional music 3) Cerebral music 4) Virtuostic / Fun / Amusing
A well-known conductor once told me there are basically three kinds of music: Head Music (intellectual), Heart Music (emotional), and Foot Music (light, catchy, and dance-y). Though there are obviously no hard-and-fast rules for programming, a balanced recital will have these things in equal measure.
**PIECES OF ADVICE**
* Always always always give your performers / accompanist a thank-you note. If you're paying them, or it's a paid gig, give the money / thank-you note to them before the performance on the performance night. If there's no money, either give them a little cash (enough for a meal / drink) or a gift card. ALWAYS thank them with a card and thank them publicly as well (public thanking should be done before the last piece / encore).
* If you have a reception afterward, get some volunteers to set it up prior to your last piece (and thank your volunteers).
* Figure out your logistics as soon has humanly possible - scheduling the venue, scheduling rehearsals, getting musicians, catering, equipment/rentals, transportation, etc.
* Be organized. Intensely organized. | Reasons why some pieces are popular in recitals:
================================================
1. It's already familiar, so the audience knows how the piece should sound and have a better idea of what is a mistake and what is a stylistic choice of the performer.
2. It's a piece that most people consider to sound really good.
3. It's a piece that most performers consider fun to play.
Reasons why some pieces just aren't heard:
==========================================
1. It's new. No time to gain traction outside the composer's inner circle and prove that it's playable by the wider world.
2. It's in a style that isn't popular (with either the audience or performers).
3. It's excessively complicated and the amount of effort required to perfect that particular piece would reduce the available effort to bring the rest of the selections up to par.
4. The composer isn't well-known.
5. It's too easy.
6. No good reason whatsoever (or bad luck, whichever you prefer). |
42,738 | Question is mentioned in the title, any help would be great!
It would be nice if you could also explain why certain pieces are seldom publicly performed in comparison to certain pieces that are almost always played in recitals.
Thank you! | 2016/03/15 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/42738",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/27193/"
] | Pick pieces that show what you can do.
Don't pick any pieces that show what you can't do. | Reasons why some pieces are popular in recitals:
================================================
1. It's already familiar, so the audience knows how the piece should sound and have a better idea of what is a mistake and what is a stylistic choice of the performer.
2. It's a piece that most people consider to sound really good.
3. It's a piece that most performers consider fun to play.
Reasons why some pieces just aren't heard:
==========================================
1. It's new. No time to gain traction outside the composer's inner circle and prove that it's playable by the wider world.
2. It's in a style that isn't popular (with either the audience or performers).
3. It's excessively complicated and the amount of effort required to perfect that particular piece would reduce the available effort to bring the rest of the selections up to par.
4. The composer isn't well-known.
5. It's too easy.
6. No good reason whatsoever (or bad luck, whichever you prefer). |
42,738 | Question is mentioned in the title, any help would be great!
It would be nice if you could also explain why certain pieces are seldom publicly performed in comparison to certain pieces that are almost always played in recitals.
Thank you! | 2016/03/15 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/42738",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/27193/"
] | Here are some quick bullets:
* **Length** (How long will it be?) If it's greater than 45min you need an intermission. Plan 1 intermission for every 45 minutes. While the chosen pieces typically dictate recital length, sometimes you don't have that luxury and you *must* have a recital be a certain length, which determines your pieces.
* **Where** (Where will you perform?) Schedule your venue and figure out all logistics as soon as humanly possible.
* **When** (How far in advance are you planning?) A quiet piece is a public area could be dreadful. Plan music accordingly. Also, more lead time gives you more time to undertake more intricate / difficult musical projects.
* **Who** (Who is your audience? / Who is playing with you?)
* **What** (What will you play? Does your recital have a theme?)
* **Recital Programming** Typically, you can/should break up a recital into four basic parts: 1) Lighter music 2) Emotional music 3) Cerebral music 4) Virtuostic / Fun / Amusing
A well-known conductor once told me there are basically three kinds of music: Head Music (intellectual), Heart Music (emotional), and Foot Music (light, catchy, and dance-y). Though there are obviously no hard-and-fast rules for programming, a balanced recital will have these things in equal measure.
**PIECES OF ADVICE**
* Always always always give your performers / accompanist a thank-you note. If you're paying them, or it's a paid gig, give the money / thank-you note to them before the performance on the performance night. If there's no money, either give them a little cash (enough for a meal / drink) or a gift card. ALWAYS thank them with a card and thank them publicly as well (public thanking should be done before the last piece / encore).
* If you have a reception afterward, get some volunteers to set it up prior to your last piece (and thank your volunteers).
* Figure out your logistics as soon has humanly possible - scheduling the venue, scheduling rehearsals, getting musicians, catering, equipment/rentals, transportation, etc.
* Be organized. Intensely organized. | We appreciate music because it's a balance of what we expect and surprises. A good recital program does the same; some of the material should be familiar (or at least easy to listen to!) and some should be more challenging to the audience. Of course, you also have to balance programming choices with your technical limitations and how much time you have per piece to prepare. Hope that helps! |
42,738 | Question is mentioned in the title, any help would be great!
It would be nice if you could also explain why certain pieces are seldom publicly performed in comparison to certain pieces that are almost always played in recitals.
Thank you! | 2016/03/15 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/42738",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/27193/"
] | Pick pieces that show what you can do.
Don't pick any pieces that show what you can't do. | We appreciate music because it's a balance of what we expect and surprises. A good recital program does the same; some of the material should be familiar (or at least easy to listen to!) and some should be more challenging to the audience. Of course, you also have to balance programming choices with your technical limitations and how much time you have per piece to prepare. Hope that helps! |
42,738 | Question is mentioned in the title, any help would be great!
It would be nice if you could also explain why certain pieces are seldom publicly performed in comparison to certain pieces that are almost always played in recitals.
Thank you! | 2016/03/15 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/42738",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/27193/"
] | Here are some quick bullets:
* **Length** (How long will it be?) If it's greater than 45min you need an intermission. Plan 1 intermission for every 45 minutes. While the chosen pieces typically dictate recital length, sometimes you don't have that luxury and you *must* have a recital be a certain length, which determines your pieces.
* **Where** (Where will you perform?) Schedule your venue and figure out all logistics as soon as humanly possible.
* **When** (How far in advance are you planning?) A quiet piece is a public area could be dreadful. Plan music accordingly. Also, more lead time gives you more time to undertake more intricate / difficult musical projects.
* **Who** (Who is your audience? / Who is playing with you?)
* **What** (What will you play? Does your recital have a theme?)
* **Recital Programming** Typically, you can/should break up a recital into four basic parts: 1) Lighter music 2) Emotional music 3) Cerebral music 4) Virtuostic / Fun / Amusing
A well-known conductor once told me there are basically three kinds of music: Head Music (intellectual), Heart Music (emotional), and Foot Music (light, catchy, and dance-y). Though there are obviously no hard-and-fast rules for programming, a balanced recital will have these things in equal measure.
**PIECES OF ADVICE**
* Always always always give your performers / accompanist a thank-you note. If you're paying them, or it's a paid gig, give the money / thank-you note to them before the performance on the performance night. If there's no money, either give them a little cash (enough for a meal / drink) or a gift card. ALWAYS thank them with a card and thank them publicly as well (public thanking should be done before the last piece / encore).
* If you have a reception afterward, get some volunteers to set it up prior to your last piece (and thank your volunteers).
* Figure out your logistics as soon has humanly possible - scheduling the venue, scheduling rehearsals, getting musicians, catering, equipment/rentals, transportation, etc.
* Be organized. Intensely organized. | Bach’s Well Tempered Clavier
At a recent recital of Bach’s Well Tempered Clavier Book 1, the Austrian pianist’s excellent performance was so long, that it turned to be a challenge as to who would stay to the end of the almost 2- hour piece. Half of the audience had left by the end of the performance.
Boghos L. Artinian |
42,738 | Question is mentioned in the title, any help would be great!
It would be nice if you could also explain why certain pieces are seldom publicly performed in comparison to certain pieces that are almost always played in recitals.
Thank you! | 2016/03/15 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/42738",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/27193/"
] | Pick pieces that show what you can do.
Don't pick any pieces that show what you can't do. | Bach’s Well Tempered Clavier
At a recent recital of Bach’s Well Tempered Clavier Book 1, the Austrian pianist’s excellent performance was so long, that it turned to be a challenge as to who would stay to the end of the almost 2- hour piece. Half of the audience had left by the end of the performance.
Boghos L. Artinian |
327,100 | Is there a free, pop3 email checker for Windows that behaves similar to Google's GMail Notifier? Minimize to Tray, and notification, double click to launch default email client? | 2011/08/23 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/327100",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/21094/"
] | I've used [POP Peeper](http://www.poppeeper.com/) for a number of years and found it quite useful. The interface is somewhat dated (as is the company's website), but it works well. It supports a variety of account types, including POP, IMAP, and a variety of web-based e-mail systems (Hotmail, Yahoo, et al).
 | [I like Mailwasher](http://www.mailwasher.net/mailwasher-free). The free version only allows one email address but the paid pro version can have as many as needed.
 |
327,100 | Is there a free, pop3 email checker for Windows that behaves similar to Google's GMail Notifier? Minimize to Tray, and notification, double click to launch default email client? | 2011/08/23 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/327100",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/21094/"
] | I've used [POP Peeper](http://www.poppeeper.com/) for a number of years and found it quite useful. The interface is somewhat dated (as is the company's website), but it works well. It supports a variety of account types, including POP, IMAP, and a variety of web-based e-mail systems (Hotmail, Yahoo, et al).
 | [PopTray](http://www.poptray.org/) might be worth a look.
>
> **Main Features:**
>
>
> * Unlimited number of Accounts
> * Show number of messages directly on the TrayIcon (rotating by
> account)
> * Quickly preview a message
> * Delete messages from the server without downloading them
> * Rules that identify a message according to your criteria, then does
> one of these - actions:
> + Play different notification sound
> + Delete from the server
> + Run any EXE file
> + Mark as Spam
> * etc ...
> * Configurable Hot-keys/Mouse-Buttons/Command-Line options for most
> functions
> * Plug-in Support:
> + Protocol plug-ins (e.g. IMAP4, Hotmail, Gmail, etc.)
> + Notify plug-ins (e.g. Flashing scroll-lock light, ScreenSaver)
> * Spam management using rules and white/black lists
> * Multiple notfications (play sound, pop-up, etc)
> * Translated into 30+ languages
> * Complete Install / Uninstall
>
>
>
 |
136,629 | In most cities around the world rent is skyrocketing. More and more people want to live in cities and real estate is a limited resource. So why aren't more skyscrapers built to provide more living spaces for people? They have been built since the 1900s and aren't absurdly expensive to build. But in most european cities they aren't built, and even in american cities they only exist within the cities core and most people are completely priced out.
So why aren't more skyscrapers with appartments built to meet the demoand for more affordable housing in cities? | 2021/02/17 | [
"https://money.stackexchange.com/questions/136629",
"https://money.stackexchange.com",
"https://money.stackexchange.com/users/91027/"
] | There is plenty of reasons, some come from the municipalities, some from potential landlors, some from the potential renters themselfes
* Cramming lots of people on a small plot of land causes a high load on infrastructure: electricity, water, transportation, garbage collection, etc. While there are benefits of building denser (than single family homes) at some point this is just too much and your infrastructre needs to be upgraded. This is a cost to be payed by municipalities, not by the investors
* A lot of high buildings makes your streets canyons with barely any light. Just look at the major skylines and you get a glimpse of it
* Building high can also block the wind. The dirty air on your streets is not blown away as with low buildings
* Building high-rise is not that cheap. Land needs to be very valuable and rents high to make economic sense to a single investor
* People do not want to live in sub standard housing. The soviet buildings in eastern Germany are a great example of that. Many of those have been torn down over the last 30 years because people did not want to move there (that was before rents started to rise). Building a high rise that people want to live in is expensive
* Many people do not want to live in high rise buildings. Historically in most areas only poor people have been living in such appartments, with the problem worsened by building cheap. High rise buildings have a bad reputation in most parts of the world. People would rather move to a house with 2, 4 or 8 units than to one with 200 units if they have a choice.
* Rents in Berlin are hardly through the roof. Just compare this to NYC, Zürich, Tokyo, Hong Kong...Except for Zürich those cities are known for their skyscapers. | I suppose you never had the lovely experience of living in a high rise flat. In England, we had lots of them and are trying hard to get rid of them, due to their horrible effects on crime, loneliness, neglect and the occasional fire killing lots of people if corners are cut.
High rise buildings are not made for living. |
136,629 | In most cities around the world rent is skyrocketing. More and more people want to live in cities and real estate is a limited resource. So why aren't more skyscrapers built to provide more living spaces for people? They have been built since the 1900s and aren't absurdly expensive to build. But in most european cities they aren't built, and even in american cities they only exist within the cities core and most people are completely priced out.
So why aren't more skyscrapers with appartments built to meet the demoand for more affordable housing in cities? | 2021/02/17 | [
"https://money.stackexchange.com/questions/136629",
"https://money.stackexchange.com",
"https://money.stackexchange.com/users/91027/"
] | I suppose you never had the lovely experience of living in a high rise flat. In England, we had lots of them and are trying hard to get rid of them, due to their horrible effects on crime, loneliness, neglect and the occasional fire killing lots of people if corners are cut.
High rise buildings are not made for living. | * Not all ground is structurally suitable for building skyscrapers (or requires *deep* and expensive pilings).
* You can *easily* build a two- or three- story apartment building with framing lumber or concrete blocks. Skyscrapers? Not so much. They require highly-specialized iron workers/
* There's a reason people left big apartment buildings after WW2, and it wasn't "white flight" (that came later). I do not want to live here, :
]
* And while lots of people seem content to live *here* I sure as heck don't want to:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/grdGS.jpg) |
136,629 | In most cities around the world rent is skyrocketing. More and more people want to live in cities and real estate is a limited resource. So why aren't more skyscrapers built to provide more living spaces for people? They have been built since the 1900s and aren't absurdly expensive to build. But in most european cities they aren't built, and even in american cities they only exist within the cities core and most people are completely priced out.
So why aren't more skyscrapers with appartments built to meet the demoand for more affordable housing in cities? | 2021/02/17 | [
"https://money.stackexchange.com/questions/136629",
"https://money.stackexchange.com",
"https://money.stackexchange.com/users/91027/"
] | There is plenty of reasons, some come from the municipalities, some from potential landlors, some from the potential renters themselfes
* Cramming lots of people on a small plot of land causes a high load on infrastructure: electricity, water, transportation, garbage collection, etc. While there are benefits of building denser (than single family homes) at some point this is just too much and your infrastructre needs to be upgraded. This is a cost to be payed by municipalities, not by the investors
* A lot of high buildings makes your streets canyons with barely any light. Just look at the major skylines and you get a glimpse of it
* Building high can also block the wind. The dirty air on your streets is not blown away as with low buildings
* Building high-rise is not that cheap. Land needs to be very valuable and rents high to make economic sense to a single investor
* People do not want to live in sub standard housing. The soviet buildings in eastern Germany are a great example of that. Many of those have been torn down over the last 30 years because people did not want to move there (that was before rents started to rise). Building a high rise that people want to live in is expensive
* Many people do not want to live in high rise buildings. Historically in most areas only poor people have been living in such appartments, with the problem worsened by building cheap. High rise buildings have a bad reputation in most parts of the world. People would rather move to a house with 2, 4 or 8 units than to one with 200 units if they have a choice.
* Rents in Berlin are hardly through the roof. Just compare this to NYC, Zürich, Tokyo, Hong Kong...Except for Zürich those cities are known for their skyscapers. | * Not all ground is structurally suitable for building skyscrapers (or requires *deep* and expensive pilings).
* You can *easily* build a two- or three- story apartment building with framing lumber or concrete blocks. Skyscrapers? Not so much. They require highly-specialized iron workers/
* There's a reason people left big apartment buildings after WW2, and it wasn't "white flight" (that came later). I do not want to live here, :
]
* And while lots of people seem content to live *here* I sure as heck don't want to:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/grdGS.jpg) |
47,973 | I'm trying to explore the symbolic uses of time in the Fourth Gospel. My question is: "What is the significance of 4pm (the tenth hour) to first century, and older, Jews?
>
> **John 1:39 (KJV)**, He saith unto them, Come and see. They came and saw where he dwelt, and abode with him that day: for it was about **the tenth hour**.
>
>
> **John 1:39 (NRSV)**, He said to them, “Come and see.” They came and saw where he was staying, and they remained with him that day. It was about **four o’clock in the afternoon.**
>
>
>
I note here that it says "*almost* the tenth hour." I figured the author may have been using this as a sort of anticipation building or indicating of a new beginning, or something that is about to happen. I googled this and found [an article](https://www.jstor.org/stable/30246800?seq=1) describing how the modern day state of Israel was established at exactly 4pm on May 14, 1948. That piqued my interest. Why did they wait for that exact moment? Couldn't find an answer.
But at the same time, 10th hour is a [relative measure](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Relative_hour) in these contexts. The NRSV transaltes it as 4'oclock, but that would only be true on one of the two equinox days of the year when the day is exactly 12 hours of daylight long. Otherwise, relative time defined the day with the sixth hour always at noon. The equinox day in 1948 was March 20th, not may 14, so this was not the tenth hour.
So the tenth hour is 2/3 of the way from apex sun (noon, 6th hour) to sunset (when the next day starts.
**1** (dawn)
2
3
4
5
**6** (noon)
7
8
9
10 ("almost the tenth hour," John 1:39
11
**12** (sunset)
I was able to find in Josephus
>
> Josephus [Wars (vi.ix.§ 3)]: "...their feast which is called the Passover, when they slay their sacrifices, from the ninth hour to the eleventh, etc." (roughly corresponding to 3 o'clock pm to 5 o'clock pm).
>
>
>
So is this an illusion to preparation of Jesus for sacrifice? Is there some other meaning? I can't imagine that that was the reason behind modern Israel defining it's new beginning at 4pm. [This wikipedia page](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Israeli_Declaration_of_Independence#Declaration_ceremony) says they selected the meeting time at "16:00 (a time chosen so as not to breach the sabbath)."
There doesn't seem to be an indication of the time of year, in John 1. Does anyone have a deeper Jewish background (or can phone a rabbi friend), and can provide an answer on the significance of it being "almost the tenth hour?" | 2020/05/23 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/47973",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/35816/"
] | The comment in John 1:39 is a simple expression of the fact that in an agrarian society, food preparation, and the preparations to receive it, required a little time. The evening meal would be approaching so with only 2 hours of daylight left, it was better to stay the night, than either start a new journey to Galilee (John 1:43) or another task.
A similar situation developed when Jesus was with the two men on the way to Emmaus, who invited Him to dinner (Luke 24:29).
Such practices were common eastern hospitality. | >
> John 11:9 Jesus answered, Are there not twelve hours in the day? If any man walk in the day, he stumbleth not, because he seeth the light of this world.
>
>
>
Oddly, Jesus *seems* to be saying there are twelve hours in a day, but asks this as a question. Which causes me to to ask the question also. Why does he say that?
### Twelve hour days
If you divide the day into twelve hours, the first hour *begins* at dawn and the twelfth hour *ends* at sunset.
If that is the correct way of determining hours then the twelfth hour begins an hour before sunset, and likewise the eleventh two, and the tenth three. Thus making about the tenth hour about three to four o'clock.
### Ten hour days
If however there are ten hours in a day, then the evening begins at the eleventh hour.
This would make sense of "for" in "They came and saw where he dwelt, and abode with him that day: **for** it was about the tenth hour." It being
close to the end of the day.
It would also somewhat fit with coming in at the eleventh hour. But in context this doesn't seem to make so much sense.
### Eleven hour days
>
> Matthew
> 20:6 And about the eleventh hour he went out, and found others standing idle, and saith unto them, Why stand ye here all the day idle?
>
>
> Matthew
> 20:9 And when they came that were hired about the eleventh hour, they received every man a penny.
>
>
>
Well, its a possibility, but I cannot see how to conclude that except by forcing this passage to fit that explanation.
Hours as divisions of the sky
-----------------------------
If one imagines the hours instead as divisions of the sky, and how one might reckon that by eye in a time that I assume did not have many timepieces. Then one would look up at midday and say it is about the sixth hour. One would not expect to think oh it's 5 minutes to the sixth hour and therefore the sixth hour hasn't come yet. One would say, it's about the sixth hour.
### Seasons
One has to also ask how seasons affect the length of day and the hours. Do we divide the sky into a certain number of hours, or do we keep the hours as positions fixed?
If the hours are fixed in their positions (exactly how needs thinking through) then the day lengths would vary according to the seasons. And exactly twelve (if that is the right number) at the equinoxes.
Then it makes sense that there are times when the tenth hour is time to retire to one's abode, and times when there is light remaining at the eleventh hour.
I would suggest a study John 11, 12 would lead you to think it was almost the passover, that Jesus talks about the twelve hours in the day. This would fit with it being an equinox, making this interpretation plausible.
It being the tenth hour and reason to abide, would therefore fit with it being winter. Though I cannot see an obvious confirmation or conclusion to that point. |
47,973 | I'm trying to explore the symbolic uses of time in the Fourth Gospel. My question is: "What is the significance of 4pm (the tenth hour) to first century, and older, Jews?
>
> **John 1:39 (KJV)**, He saith unto them, Come and see. They came and saw where he dwelt, and abode with him that day: for it was about **the tenth hour**.
>
>
> **John 1:39 (NRSV)**, He said to them, “Come and see.” They came and saw where he was staying, and they remained with him that day. It was about **four o’clock in the afternoon.**
>
>
>
I note here that it says "*almost* the tenth hour." I figured the author may have been using this as a sort of anticipation building or indicating of a new beginning, or something that is about to happen. I googled this and found [an article](https://www.jstor.org/stable/30246800?seq=1) describing how the modern day state of Israel was established at exactly 4pm on May 14, 1948. That piqued my interest. Why did they wait for that exact moment? Couldn't find an answer.
But at the same time, 10th hour is a [relative measure](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Relative_hour) in these contexts. The NRSV transaltes it as 4'oclock, but that would only be true on one of the two equinox days of the year when the day is exactly 12 hours of daylight long. Otherwise, relative time defined the day with the sixth hour always at noon. The equinox day in 1948 was March 20th, not may 14, so this was not the tenth hour.
So the tenth hour is 2/3 of the way from apex sun (noon, 6th hour) to sunset (when the next day starts.
**1** (dawn)
2
3
4
5
**6** (noon)
7
8
9
10 ("almost the tenth hour," John 1:39
11
**12** (sunset)
I was able to find in Josephus
>
> Josephus [Wars (vi.ix.§ 3)]: "...their feast which is called the Passover, when they slay their sacrifices, from the ninth hour to the eleventh, etc." (roughly corresponding to 3 o'clock pm to 5 o'clock pm).
>
>
>
So is this an illusion to preparation of Jesus for sacrifice? Is there some other meaning? I can't imagine that that was the reason behind modern Israel defining it's new beginning at 4pm. [This wikipedia page](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Israeli_Declaration_of_Independence#Declaration_ceremony) says they selected the meeting time at "16:00 (a time chosen so as not to breach the sabbath)."
There doesn't seem to be an indication of the time of year, in John 1. Does anyone have a deeper Jewish background (or can phone a rabbi friend), and can provide an answer on the significance of it being "almost the tenth hour?" | 2020/05/23 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/47973",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/35816/"
] | The comment in John 1:39 is a simple expression of the fact that in an agrarian society, food preparation, and the preparations to receive it, required a little time. The evening meal would be approaching so with only 2 hours of daylight left, it was better to stay the night, than either start a new journey to Galilee (John 1:43) or another task.
A similar situation developed when Jesus was with the two men on the way to Emmaus, who invited Him to dinner (Luke 24:29).
Such practices were common eastern hospitality. | Do not have an answer, but it is good looking at every word, every phrase to squeeze multiple meanings out of the Word. Nothing is in the Bible accidentally or by chance. Every word is there for a reason, so keep searching and comparing.
A great expositonal teacher was the late Chuck Missler. Watch some of his videos on youtube. (Learn the Bible in 24 hours is a great start ...24 - one hour segments that really delves into every word and phrase, with meanings, parallels, types, etc.) |
47,973 | I'm trying to explore the symbolic uses of time in the Fourth Gospel. My question is: "What is the significance of 4pm (the tenth hour) to first century, and older, Jews?
>
> **John 1:39 (KJV)**, He saith unto them, Come and see. They came and saw where he dwelt, and abode with him that day: for it was about **the tenth hour**.
>
>
> **John 1:39 (NRSV)**, He said to them, “Come and see.” They came and saw where he was staying, and they remained with him that day. It was about **four o’clock in the afternoon.**
>
>
>
I note here that it says "*almost* the tenth hour." I figured the author may have been using this as a sort of anticipation building or indicating of a new beginning, or something that is about to happen. I googled this and found [an article](https://www.jstor.org/stable/30246800?seq=1) describing how the modern day state of Israel was established at exactly 4pm on May 14, 1948. That piqued my interest. Why did they wait for that exact moment? Couldn't find an answer.
But at the same time, 10th hour is a [relative measure](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Relative_hour) in these contexts. The NRSV transaltes it as 4'oclock, but that would only be true on one of the two equinox days of the year when the day is exactly 12 hours of daylight long. Otherwise, relative time defined the day with the sixth hour always at noon. The equinox day in 1948 was March 20th, not may 14, so this was not the tenth hour.
So the tenth hour is 2/3 of the way from apex sun (noon, 6th hour) to sunset (when the next day starts.
**1** (dawn)
2
3
4
5
**6** (noon)
7
8
9
10 ("almost the tenth hour," John 1:39
11
**12** (sunset)
I was able to find in Josephus
>
> Josephus [Wars (vi.ix.§ 3)]: "...their feast which is called the Passover, when they slay their sacrifices, from the ninth hour to the eleventh, etc." (roughly corresponding to 3 o'clock pm to 5 o'clock pm).
>
>
>
So is this an illusion to preparation of Jesus for sacrifice? Is there some other meaning? I can't imagine that that was the reason behind modern Israel defining it's new beginning at 4pm. [This wikipedia page](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Israeli_Declaration_of_Independence#Declaration_ceremony) says they selected the meeting time at "16:00 (a time chosen so as not to breach the sabbath)."
There doesn't seem to be an indication of the time of year, in John 1. Does anyone have a deeper Jewish background (or can phone a rabbi friend), and can provide an answer on the significance of it being "almost the tenth hour?" | 2020/05/23 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/47973",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/35816/"
] | The comment in John 1:39 is a simple expression of the fact that in an agrarian society, food preparation, and the preparations to receive it, required a little time. The evening meal would be approaching so with only 2 hours of daylight left, it was better to stay the night, than either start a new journey to Galilee (John 1:43) or another task.
A similar situation developed when Jesus was with the two men on the way to Emmaus, who invited Him to dinner (Luke 24:29).
Such practices were common eastern hospitality. | It seems sundials were in most towns and were the primary use of timekeeping. The article "[A Roman Day](https://www.encyclopedia.com/history/news-wires-white-papers-and-books/roman-day)" states that the Roman day was broken into 12-hour increments which means the length of an hour would fluctuate throughout the year. |
168,555 | So this question is heavily related to the questions [here](https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/7797/what-do-you-do-when-you-find-yourselves-with-an-unreadable-inaccessible-paper) and [here](https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/12334/access-to-journals-for-individuals-outside-of-an-institution/12355#12355). Specifically I would like to know if any academics out there (especially in the fields of Maths, Physics, and Engineering) know of good resources for old papers/journal articles. Most of the papers of interest to me are in German and are between the years 1900 and 1930. A lot of these journals do not exist anymore or were renamed. So, it's almost impossible to track down who holds copies of them. Is there a resource/library that specialises in these old articles/texts? Or am I better off just using the suggestions posted in the two linked questions?
Note: I am not specifically interested in finding, say, digital versions of the old papers. I am more interested in knowing if there is a way to find these old papers myself **before** asking a librarian or asking for an interlibrary loan. | 2021/06/03 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/168555",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/111401/"
] | Actually, research librarians are trained specifically to do this kind of thing. They also have a network they use to find things.
You are making a mistake by avoiding their help. It is what they are there to do. Contact a research librarian, preferably at a research university (R1 or R2 in the US) and state your need.
But even my community library has someone who has been able to contact other librarians with more specific knowledge.
---
Note that quite a lot of old works have been moved out of working libraries into archival storage - warehouses. Some of that has been digitized along the way. Some professional societies do digitizing of old works. | A lot of bound volumes of journals from that period have been digitized and uploaded to either Google Books or archive.org |
168,555 | So this question is heavily related to the questions [here](https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/7797/what-do-you-do-when-you-find-yourselves-with-an-unreadable-inaccessible-paper) and [here](https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/12334/access-to-journals-for-individuals-outside-of-an-institution/12355#12355). Specifically I would like to know if any academics out there (especially in the fields of Maths, Physics, and Engineering) know of good resources for old papers/journal articles. Most of the papers of interest to me are in German and are between the years 1900 and 1930. A lot of these journals do not exist anymore or were renamed. So, it's almost impossible to track down who holds copies of them. Is there a resource/library that specialises in these old articles/texts? Or am I better off just using the suggestions posted in the two linked questions?
Note: I am not specifically interested in finding, say, digital versions of the old papers. I am more interested in knowing if there is a way to find these old papers myself **before** asking a librarian or asking for an interlibrary loan. | 2021/06/03 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/168555",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/111401/"
] | Actually, research librarians are trained specifically to do this kind of thing. They also have a network they use to find things.
You are making a mistake by avoiding their help. It is what they are there to do. Contact a research librarian, preferably at a research university (R1 or R2 in the US) and state your need.
But even my community library has someone who has been able to contact other librarians with more specific knowledge.
---
Note that quite a lot of old works have been moved out of working libraries into archival storage - warehouses. Some of that has been digitized along the way. Some professional societies do digitizing of old works. | Are you aware of the "Jahrbuch über Fortschritte der Mathematik"? In the period 1868–1942, it performed essentially the same function as Mathematical Reviews after 1940 --- summaries and reviews of publications. It won't get you the papers you want, but it can tell you that they exist and where they were published.
Also, take a look at <https://www.emis.de/projects/JFM/> .
I don't know whether there are similar sources for fields other than mathematics. |
189,184 | I'm in the planning stage/phase of migrating one of our SQL Server 2000 databases to 2008. Our database holds numerous tables (hundreds) and stored procedures (hundreds). I'm trying to figure out which are in use and which are not. My first guess was to look in the sysobjects table and see if there's a field that stores the a 'last accessed' but I can't seem to find anything within the [MSDN documentation](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa260447(SQL.80).aspx).
What's the best way to go about investigating which objects are in use or not in SQL Server 2000? | 2010/10/08 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/189184",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/13422/"
] | Out of luck. No way. SQL Server does not track usage timestamps for objects. | >
> USE YourDatabaseHere;
>
>
> GO
>
>
> SELECT name, create\_date, modify\_date
>
>
> FROM sys.objects
>
>
> GO
>
>
>
I think this is what you are looking for?
EDIT:
<http://www.sqlteam.com/article/using-ddl-triggers-in-sql-server-2005-to-capture-schema-changes> - a DDL way which may better suit the requirement.... |
11,446 | Long-term treasury yields have been going down fairly continuously since the mid 1980s. Right now, the 30-year yield is under 3%, meaning that it is likely to barely keep up with inflation if held to maturity.
What long-term secular trends are causing this huge rise in long-term Treasury prices and collapse in yields? Why would anyone in their right mind buy a U.S. Treasury nowadays except as a short term parking place for their money? Since long Treasuries aren't as safe a parking place as short ones, why would anyone buy these, period? | 2011/10/07 | [
"https://money.stackexchange.com/questions/11446",
"https://money.stackexchange.com",
"https://money.stackexchange.com/users/4591/"
] | I believe that it's largely irrational, fueled largely by foreign investors that are afraid to invest anywhere else. There are a few people out there right now who are writing about this:
<http://www.marketwatch.com/story/us-treasuries-largest-bubble-in-world-history-says-nia-2011-08-30>
<http://articles.businessinsider.com/2010-08-25/markets/30080511_1_fed-first-yields-mbs>
As to why would you invest in long-dated versus short? Probably to chase yield. The 30 year yields 30x more than the 1 year. It's also easier to buy on the long end if you believe that the economy will remain slow for another decade or two and therefore the central banks will keep rates low for a very long time.
Of course, at the moment, long-dated treasury prices are artificially high because of operation twist. | In a **secular bull market**, strong investor sentiment **[drives prices higher](http://www.investopedia.com/terms/s/secularmarket.asp#ixzz1a8MYeMjP "Secular bull market causes according to Investopedia")**, as participants, over time, are net buyers.
>
> Secular markets are typically driven by large-scale national and
> worldwide events... demographic/ population shifts,
> governmental policies... bear market periods occur within
> the longer interval, but do not reverse the trend.
>
>
>
There are still many reasons to buy the long bond, despite the lack of yield (nearly flat term structure of interest rates). Despite the recent credit ratings agency downgrades of U.S. sovereign risk, the T-bond offers greater relative security than many alternatives.
If Germany were NOT part of the EU, its government bonds would be issued by the Bundesbank, denominated in Deutsche Marks. German government bonds would probably be a better choice than the U.S. Treasury's 30-year bond.
Long-term maturity U.S. Treasuries are in demand by investment and portfolio managers because:
* They are used as hedges for arb strategies.
* Many fixed-income (bond) mutual funds and pension portfolios have maturity (or duration) requirements. Yield is not easy to find. Choices are limited to short-maturities or speculative "junk" bonds. To satisfy portfolio requirements for maturity length and overall risk, there are few alternatives to the 30-year long bond as a safe, liquid means of adjusting aggregate investment holdings, yet with low transaction costs. |
71,430 | If we are designing a new project or application whatever it is, and you can trust all nodes, should we still consider blockchains in the architecture?
I saw this video of IBM and I was wondering why choosing blockchain as a solution
<https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=tdhpYQCWnCw&lc=z23mitvo0ki5sgplm2hd0syvq1wb1yadphkj5vl0mj00u00c2.151904784581>
Wouldn't regular database solve the problem either way?
Could somebody explain? | 2018/02/25 | [
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/questions/71430",
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com",
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/users/77235/"
] | By design, a blockchain is inherently resistant to modification of the data, so if you own or trust the nodes and you can modify that data anytime, so blockchain is ineffective.
If you were trying to use the blockchain technology just for storing data and for the highest availability, A regular database with some extra connected nodes would do the job. | 1) In future, if you want to collaborate with some other organization then you will not have to trust their nodes.
2) If you want a database that deals with asset transfers and you want records to be immutable then you can use blockchain with optimization done for a known set of validators.
Trustlessness, Transparency and Anonymity/Pseudonymity are the properties Blockchain provides. If we don't need any then we should better use conventional databases. |
19,090,573 | I am new into Android world. I was just referring this tutorial from Google:
<http://developer.android.com/training/location/retrieve-current.html>
Program compiles fine and launches application on emulator, but when I try to find mLocationClient.getLastLocation() it returns null, ALWAYS
I searched for almost a day and ahve already tried sending parameter from DDMS, telnet, switching google MAPs but still no success.
Please help me out. | 2013/09/30 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/19090573",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/523537/"
] | What eventually worked for me was setting a location (I use Genymotion, so the "GPS widget" in the upper right corner), then starting Google Maps, and then running my app.
My guess is that my app wasn't actually setting the current location (which I thought connecting my locationClient would do automatically) - Google Maps checks and sets the location, so getLastLocation actually has something to return. | I think the emulator sometimes has its own bugs and issues. maybe that's one of them.
try the next things:
* use the latest version of Android for the emulator. also update the ADT & SDK to the latest versions.
* use alternative emulators
* use real devices
* use fake-gps-apps (location mocking) which make the OS think that your device is in some position
* make sure that in the OS settings, mocking of gps locations is enabled |
8,094 | I have a fairly large network with eleven commodities and arc capacities that are commodity-dependent (i.e. an arc may have a higher capacity for one commodity than another). I'm solving a protection-interdiction-restoration problem using Benders' decomposition, and running into some initial error because (I believe) the network is unbalanced so there is unmet demand to start. What would be a potential way to check how the network is unbalanced? The supply and demand for each commodity are equal across the entire network, but there may be some issue with arc capacity or general connectivity. | 2022/03/19 | [
"https://or.stackexchange.com/questions/8094",
"https://or.stackexchange.com",
"https://or.stackexchange.com/users/9334/"
] | >
> “Nothing takes place in the world whose meaning is not that of some maximum or minimum.”
> ― Leonhard Euler
>
>
>
But as in many theoretical and industrial problems, the main difficulty is not to formulate the problem, but to define the objective function...
I think at least two types of costs should be considered: how many people are killed and whether you take actions. Then it is an open question that how one should set the coefficient. | This is an ethical problem not a mathematical one.
The main question is about determining the cost function to make the choice.
If the cost function were known, there is no mathematical issue. The choice with the lower cost would be taken.
Ethical impacts are much more interesting:
Shall one simply count the number of human lifes?
Shall one attempt to decide the value of each life concerned?
Do we have enough information to decide?
Might our choices intentionally or indirectly be racist or discriminating?
Shall we even try to determine the value knowing we definitely have incomplete information?
What are the consequences for the person making the choice?
Will a (a posteriori) wrong action be punished more severly than inaction?
This problem is a very interesting base for ethical discussions. |
8,094 | I have a fairly large network with eleven commodities and arc capacities that are commodity-dependent (i.e. an arc may have a higher capacity for one commodity than another). I'm solving a protection-interdiction-restoration problem using Benders' decomposition, and running into some initial error because (I believe) the network is unbalanced so there is unmet demand to start. What would be a potential way to check how the network is unbalanced? The supply and demand for each commodity are equal across the entire network, but there may be some issue with arc capacity or general connectivity. | 2022/03/19 | [
"https://or.stackexchange.com/questions/8094",
"https://or.stackexchange.com",
"https://or.stackexchange.com/users/9334/"
] | No, the main point is the ethic behind the choice.
Pulling the lever minimises the number of deaths, but it requires an active action resulting in the death of a person.
Not doing anything increase the number of deaths, but removes the burden of the decision.
How do we weight action vs inaction is subjective, and whether we should force people to "pull the lever" is also debatable.
So any mathematical treatment is really missing the point and solving another problem. For instance they may solve what should we do in a complicated situation with many trains and switches, but assuming we already know what we would do in the single train scenario. | This is an ethical problem not a mathematical one.
The main question is about determining the cost function to make the choice.
If the cost function were known, there is no mathematical issue. The choice with the lower cost would be taken.
Ethical impacts are much more interesting:
Shall one simply count the number of human lifes?
Shall one attempt to decide the value of each life concerned?
Do we have enough information to decide?
Might our choices intentionally or indirectly be racist or discriminating?
Shall we even try to determine the value knowing we definitely have incomplete information?
What are the consequences for the person making the choice?
Will a (a posteriori) wrong action be punished more severly than inaction?
This problem is a very interesting base for ethical discussions. |
8,094 | I have a fairly large network with eleven commodities and arc capacities that are commodity-dependent (i.e. an arc may have a higher capacity for one commodity than another). I'm solving a protection-interdiction-restoration problem using Benders' decomposition, and running into some initial error because (I believe) the network is unbalanced so there is unmet demand to start. What would be a potential way to check how the network is unbalanced? The supply and demand for each commodity are equal across the entire network, but there may be some issue with arc capacity or general connectivity. | 2022/03/19 | [
"https://or.stackexchange.com/questions/8094",
"https://or.stackexchange.com",
"https://or.stackexchange.com/users/9334/"
] | I totally agree with @JorisKinable, that the problem can be formulated as some version of a network flow problem *if* a clear objective function is known.
But that seems to be the very essence of the Trolley problem: there is no single, clear-cut objective function. If it was just a question of injuring the least amount of people, the problem is trivial in the original version depicted in the picture1. But it is an ethical conundrum, where you cannot objectively quantify the outcome of a decision. Hence, I am inclined to say no, this is not an optimization problem.
---
1 It is not necessarily trivial in more complicated situations | Many discussions of the Trolley Problem ignore an important second-order effect: people who are willing to take evasive maneuvers that protect reckless people at the expense of those who would not otherwise have been in their path encourage recklessness. In an extreme case, suppose a group of five people decided to check before crossing the tracks to check how many people were on the other line, and concluded that if there were four or fewer then they would be safe. Should the train operator value the lives of five over the lives of one, or should he value the life of a worker who followed tag-out procedures over the lives of people who would have sacrificed him to avoid the inconvenience of waiting for the trolley to pass?
Even if one replaces the situation with a driver on a road, a similar issue arises: anyone whose path might intersect with a motorist whose path ahead is presently clear should be prepared for the possibility that the motorist might continue along that path. By contrast, it will often not be possible for all other motorists to be prepared for everything the motorist might do to avoid something on his primary path. If a motorist swerves to successfully avoid someone who is running a red light, but ends up colliding with someone else instead, the motorist's actions will have protected a reckless driver at the cost of an innocent one.
To be sure, the automotive version of the problem raises other issues, since the evasive maneuver may replace a T-bone collision with a side-swipe, and it's even possible that the alternative to the side-swipe might have been three-car collision that would have been worse for everyone involved. In general, though, to the extent that the "trolley problem" is an optimization problem, the goal should be to optimize people's ability to avoid making bad decisions in the first place. |
8,094 | I have a fairly large network with eleven commodities and arc capacities that are commodity-dependent (i.e. an arc may have a higher capacity for one commodity than another). I'm solving a protection-interdiction-restoration problem using Benders' decomposition, and running into some initial error because (I believe) the network is unbalanced so there is unmet demand to start. What would be a potential way to check how the network is unbalanced? The supply and demand for each commodity are equal across the entire network, but there may be some issue with arc capacity or general connectivity. | 2022/03/19 | [
"https://or.stackexchange.com/questions/8094",
"https://or.stackexchange.com",
"https://or.stackexchange.com/users/9334/"
] | I totally agree with @JorisKinable, that the problem can be formulated as some version of a network flow problem *if* a clear objective function is known.
But that seems to be the very essence of the Trolley problem: there is no single, clear-cut objective function. If it was just a question of injuring the least amount of people, the problem is trivial in the original version depicted in the picture1. But it is an ethical conundrum, where you cannot objectively quantify the outcome of a decision. Hence, I am inclined to say no, this is not an optimization problem.
---
1 It is not necessarily trivial in more complicated situations | This problem can be formulated as a network flow problem. Each train is a commodity. The train network is represented as a graph. The cost of using an arc is equal to the number of people killed. The trains need to be moved from their origin to their destination with minimum total cost.
I don't know the specifics of this bizarre problem, but things get a little weird if 2 trains can use the same arc: does the first train kill the people and the second train gets to use the arc for free? You could treat this variation as a fixed charge network flow problem.
Definitely one of the weirdest questions I've seen. |
8,094 | I have a fairly large network with eleven commodities and arc capacities that are commodity-dependent (i.e. an arc may have a higher capacity for one commodity than another). I'm solving a protection-interdiction-restoration problem using Benders' decomposition, and running into some initial error because (I believe) the network is unbalanced so there is unmet demand to start. What would be a potential way to check how the network is unbalanced? The supply and demand for each commodity are equal across the entire network, but there may be some issue with arc capacity or general connectivity. | 2022/03/19 | [
"https://or.stackexchange.com/questions/8094",
"https://or.stackexchange.com",
"https://or.stackexchange.com/users/9334/"
] | I totally agree with @JorisKinable, that the problem can be formulated as some version of a network flow problem *if* a clear objective function is known.
But that seems to be the very essence of the Trolley problem: there is no single, clear-cut objective function. If it was just a question of injuring the least amount of people, the problem is trivial in the original version depicted in the picture1. But it is an ethical conundrum, where you cannot objectively quantify the outcome of a decision. Hence, I am inclined to say no, this is not an optimization problem.
---
1 It is not necessarily trivial in more complicated situations | No, the main point is the ethic behind the choice.
Pulling the lever minimises the number of deaths, but it requires an active action resulting in the death of a person.
Not doing anything increase the number of deaths, but removes the burden of the decision.
How do we weight action vs inaction is subjective, and whether we should force people to "pull the lever" is also debatable.
So any mathematical treatment is really missing the point and solving another problem. For instance they may solve what should we do in a complicated situation with many trains and switches, but assuming we already know what we would do in the single train scenario. |
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