qid int64 1 74.7M | question stringlengths 12 33.8k | date stringlengths 10 10 | metadata list | response_j stringlengths 0 115k | response_k stringlengths 2 98.3k |
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46,346 | Strictly in regard to the current events happening in the US involving its president and the Ukrainian call, I'm confused by the use of the term "whistleblower".
The context I've been able to infer from the news and this group is that the US government employes, in the interest of national security, multiple people with the task to listen to all presidential calls, transcript and monitor them.
Now, I know US government can be puzzling sometimes to us non US residents, but I can't imagine a situation where the government spends money on monitoring someone without being kept aware of the information gathered.
So why an official government employee who's properly doing the job he's been hired for, is denigratively called "whistleblower"? | 2019/10/07 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/46346",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/13091/"
] | I'm not sure how much of a negative connotation "whistleblower" has; that's a question that is probably better asked on [English SE](https://english.stackexchange.com). Actually, it turns out there already is a [long anwer](https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/331877/understanding-whistleblower) there on the topic. It concludes that
>
> Today, few people in the United States have any memory of hearing whistleblower used as a pejorative term, and modern dictionaries present it in a broadly sympathetic light.
>
>
>
As far as the Ukraine-related whistleblower, the term is used in no small part because the person in question has claimed and apparently qualifies for protection under section 601 "Intelligence Community Whistleblower Protections" of the [Intelligence Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2014](https://www.congress.gov/113/plaws/publ126/PLAW-113publ126.pdf); this section which sets out protections fairly similar to the better known
[Whistleblower Protection Act](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Whistleblower_Protection_Act) generally applicable to other federal employees, basically prohibiting administrative retaliatory actions against whistleblowers (like demotions etc.) The somewhat misleadingly named [Intelligence Community Whistleblower Protection Act](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Intelligence_Community_Whistleblower_Protection_Act) is also relevant because it sets out the procedures to use for whistleblowers who blow the whistle on classified issues, although the latter Act doesn't provide any protection for the whistleblower.
My point is that federal law makes widespread use of the term, so it would be hard to avoid in the Ukraine-related matter, even if it has some negative connotation, which I'm not sure it has.
And apparently you've missed the fact that the whistleblower (the first one at least--there are two now) didn't "listen in" on the conversations, but had second-hand knowledge of them.
Furthermore, the act of [blowing the whistle](https://www.macmillandictionary.com/dictionary/british/blow-the-whistle), means reporting something that the employee thinks is an illegal practice.
>
> to tell the public or someone in authority about something wrong that you know someone is doing, especially at the place where you work.
>
>
> | It's a common word, and generally doesn't have a negative connotation. As Fizz pointed out, the laws are written and use the term, but it's been around much longer than the protections in law, which use the term.
From Wikipedia
>
>
> >
> > U.S. civic activist Ralph Nader is said to have coined the phrase, but he in fact put a positive spin on the term[8] in the early 1970s to avoid the negative connotations found in other words such as "informer" and "snitch".[9] However, the origins of the word date back to the 19th century.
> >
> >
> >
>
>
>
<https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Whistleblower> |
36,572 | We're normally paving the high-traffic road with concrete or asphalt. While for sidewalk/garden, we use pave block/tiles (either concrete or else)
Common reason is because pave block/tiles doesn't seems comfortable for high speed vehicle, because it tend to have up-and-down structure, cannot be as plain and smooth as pouring asphalt on it.
While this is true, instead of making pave block/tiles as flat as possible, why do we choose to keep using common surfacing method? Is there any other reason?
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/M22mN.jpg)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/u77ib.jpg)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/3WQCs.jpg)
Considering from what i understand, in compare to common surfacing method, block/tiles have either environmental, aesthetical or mechanical advantage over it | 2020/07/07 | [
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/questions/36572",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/users/27771/"
] | Engineering decisions are fundamentally about problem solving. Thus, when asking, "Why not do [x] instead of [status quo]?" an answering question is: "What problem does [x] solve or what benefit does [x] provide versus existing designs?" If no satisfactory answer is forthcoming to the second question then that's the answer to the starting question, i.e. [status quo] is a better engineering solution.
When assessing a proposed solution, considerations include: safety, constructibility, initial cost, life-cycle cost, maintainability, aesthetics, etc.
So, how do pavers stack up against existing roadway toppings like asphalt concrete? Overall, I'd say not great. It's likely a more expensive material from the get-go, more expensive and much more laborious to construct, less maintainable, and less safe (the uneven surface issue you identified). Note that roadways are often carefully cambered and banked to ensure proper drainage and safe driving dynamics, so we have the added challenge of actually not wanting a perfectly level surface, but rather a smooth surface that is sloped in a precise way.
It could be argued that stone pavers offer an aesthetic benefit, but the driving surface aesthetics are a low priority for major roadways so the pavers aren't offering much value versus existing engineering solutions.
On personal property like driveways, the aesthetic consideration may be much more significant to the owners, and low driving speeds plus a small project size change the value equation appreciably versus a highly traveled roadway.
From a more big-picture perspective, it's interesting to know that the actual driving surface is only a small part of roadway design. Furthermore, pavement design actually is an active area of Civil Engineering research. I myself am not a roadway or pavement engineer, but having worked with those folks on various projects I can confirm that roadways are carefully designed, both in terms of geometric layout and the 'structural section' that generally extends much deeper than than the final paved surface you can see. An example roadway cross section from the California Department of Transportation [Highway Design Manual](https://dot.ca.gov/programs/design/manual-highway-design-manual-hdm) is included below for illustrative purposes.
Ultimately, I think we can say pavers just don't make the grade for major roadway applications, but innovation in pavement engineering is certainly something engineers and researchers are striving for!
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/dCuWy.png) | The reason tiles or flagstone or any other finishing is not used for heavy trrafic areas is lack of strength and toughness.
Even in the decks you have attached photos these tiles/ stones will crack and dislodge due to differential heat expansion, vibration and water penetration to adhesive layer. They require a much higher level of maintenance.
For roads and heavy traffic areas there are tested methods and standards worked out over centuries. They have civil engineering courses focused on roads and highway design. |
195,855 | I'm writing a story and I can't think of a word that describes someone. The quote is,
>
> Who do I want right now? Sympathy or \_\_\_\_\_
>
>
>
So I'm looking for a word that describes this character. If you're mad, she'll get mad with you. If you want to cry, she'll bring the tissues and be right beside you making her own river. In the moment, she will be angry with the main character, I don't know if that will help but that's the situation. | 2014/09/11 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/195855",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/91057/"
] | This might be [Sympathy vs Empathy](http://dictionary.reference.com/help/faq/language/d23.html).
Dictionary.com indicates that this contrasts Sympathy (feeling with) versus Empathy (feeling into).
*Empathy* knows what it's like. *Sympathy* feels your pain, but may not understand the circumstances. | I think a better word you might consider is **toady**
1. a person who behaves obsequiously to someone important
Since the main character is probably important and the person in question is constantly miming the actions of this important character, this would fit well. |
195,855 | I'm writing a story and I can't think of a word that describes someone. The quote is,
>
> Who do I want right now? Sympathy or \_\_\_\_\_
>
>
>
So I'm looking for a word that describes this character. If you're mad, she'll get mad with you. If you want to cry, she'll bring the tissues and be right beside you making her own river. In the moment, she will be angry with the main character, I don't know if that will help but that's the situation. | 2014/09/11 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/195855",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/91057/"
] | [**Pushover**](http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/pushover), Dictionary.com, a person who is easily persuaded, influenced, or seduced.
**[Mush](http://www.urbandictionary.com/define.php?term=Mush)**, Urban Dictionary, an old Romany word, meaning "my good friend". | Perhaps *[wingman](http://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/wingman)* (forgive the gender bias)
>
> a friend who accompanies one to offer (or receive) support [*Wiktionary*]
>
>
>
A related term (but not a noun equivalent) is *[got my back](http://www.urbandictionary.com/define.php?term=GOT%20YOUR%20BACK)*
>
> An expression assuring someone that you are watching out for them. Comes from making sure you are safe by watching what's behind you when you're busy looking ahead. [*Urban Dictionary*]
>
>
>
The phrase *[my person](http://www.urbandictionary.com/define.php?term=My%20person)* also seems to be achieving some ascendancy
>
> A person with whom you have attained the highest level of friendship. Coined from Grey's Anatomy.
> *Beka is my person, I cannot imagine my life without her* [*Urban Dictionary*]
>
>
> |
195,855 | I'm writing a story and I can't think of a word that describes someone. The quote is,
>
> Who do I want right now? Sympathy or \_\_\_\_\_
>
>
>
So I'm looking for a word that describes this character. If you're mad, she'll get mad with you. If you want to cry, she'll bring the tissues and be right beside you making her own river. In the moment, she will be angry with the main character, I don't know if that will help but that's the situation. | 2014/09/11 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/195855",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/91057/"
] | This might be [Sympathy vs Empathy](http://dictionary.reference.com/help/faq/language/d23.html).
Dictionary.com indicates that this contrasts Sympathy (feeling with) versus Empathy (feeling into).
*Empathy* knows what it's like. *Sympathy* feels your pain, but may not understand the circumstances. | >
> 1. Who do I want right now? **Sympathy or Support**?
>
>
>
In writing *Support* with a capital letter, the author personifies this quality. In fact the OP's choice of the pronoun *who* necessitates that we speak about a person or people. Songwriters, poets, and authors have often used this literary device to great effect. For example the lyrics, "Hello darkness, my old friend/ I've come to talk to you again" by Paul Simon
[**support**](http://www.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/english/support): give approval, comfort, or encouragement to
*Your spouse is there to comfort and support you so depend on him or her a little.*
>
> 2. Who do I want right now? **Sympathy or an an emotional crutch**?
>
>
>
[**crutch**](http://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/british/crutch): *something that provides help and support and that you depend on, often too much:*
>
> 3. Who do I want right now? **Sympathy or an Ally**?
>
>
>
**[ally](http://www.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/english/ally)**: A person or organization that cooperates with or helps another in a particular activity |
195,855 | I'm writing a story and I can't think of a word that describes someone. The quote is,
>
> Who do I want right now? Sympathy or \_\_\_\_\_
>
>
>
So I'm looking for a word that describes this character. If you're mad, she'll get mad with you. If you want to cry, she'll bring the tissues and be right beside you making her own river. In the moment, she will be angry with the main character, I don't know if that will help but that's the situation. | 2014/09/11 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/195855",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/91057/"
] | This might be [Sympathy vs Empathy](http://dictionary.reference.com/help/faq/language/d23.html).
Dictionary.com indicates that this contrasts Sympathy (feeling with) versus Empathy (feeling into).
*Empathy* knows what it's like. *Sympathy* feels your pain, but may not understand the circumstances. | A more negative term that you might consider a bit humorous is "Accomplice"
A more religious term is "Apostle"
One that rhymes is "Deputy"
Ref. Synonym of "Companion" at thesaurus.com |
195,855 | I'm writing a story and I can't think of a word that describes someone. The quote is,
>
> Who do I want right now? Sympathy or \_\_\_\_\_
>
>
>
So I'm looking for a word that describes this character. If you're mad, she'll get mad with you. If you want to cry, she'll bring the tissues and be right beside you making her own river. In the moment, she will be angry with the main character, I don't know if that will help but that's the situation. | 2014/09/11 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/195855",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/91057/"
] | Sycophant: a person who praises powerful people in order to get their approval
<http://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/sycophant> | It depends on what you want to say.
Harmony might work, fits well with the idea of friendship, although it depends on if the person is seen as a true 'soul mate' or not.
Synchronicity, would work well with aliteration (of sympathy) but would see the other person as more 'mechanical' if that makes sense? |
195,855 | I'm writing a story and I can't think of a word that describes someone. The quote is,
>
> Who do I want right now? Sympathy or \_\_\_\_\_
>
>
>
So I'm looking for a word that describes this character. If you're mad, she'll get mad with you. If you want to cry, she'll bring the tissues and be right beside you making her own river. In the moment, she will be angry with the main character, I don't know if that will help but that's the situation. | 2014/09/11 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/195855",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/91057/"
] | Sycophant: a person who praises powerful people in order to get their approval
<http://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/sycophant> | I think a better word you might consider is **toady**
1. a person who behaves obsequiously to someone important
Since the main character is probably important and the person in question is constantly miming the actions of this important character, this would fit well. |
195,855 | I'm writing a story and I can't think of a word that describes someone. The quote is,
>
> Who do I want right now? Sympathy or \_\_\_\_\_
>
>
>
So I'm looking for a word that describes this character. If you're mad, she'll get mad with you. If you want to cry, she'll bring the tissues and be right beside you making her own river. In the moment, she will be angry with the main character, I don't know if that will help but that's the situation. | 2014/09/11 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/195855",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/91057/"
] | This might be [Sympathy vs Empathy](http://dictionary.reference.com/help/faq/language/d23.html).
Dictionary.com indicates that this contrasts Sympathy (feeling with) versus Empathy (feeling into).
*Empathy* knows what it's like. *Sympathy* feels your pain, but may not understand the circumstances. | Perhaps *[wingman](http://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/wingman)* (forgive the gender bias)
>
> a friend who accompanies one to offer (or receive) support [*Wiktionary*]
>
>
>
A related term (but not a noun equivalent) is *[got my back](http://www.urbandictionary.com/define.php?term=GOT%20YOUR%20BACK)*
>
> An expression assuring someone that you are watching out for them. Comes from making sure you are safe by watching what's behind you when you're busy looking ahead. [*Urban Dictionary*]
>
>
>
The phrase *[my person](http://www.urbandictionary.com/define.php?term=My%20person)* also seems to be achieving some ascendancy
>
> A person with whom you have attained the highest level of friendship. Coined from Grey's Anatomy.
> *Beka is my person, I cannot imagine my life without her* [*Urban Dictionary*]
>
>
> |
195,855 | I'm writing a story and I can't think of a word that describes someone. The quote is,
>
> Who do I want right now? Sympathy or \_\_\_\_\_
>
>
>
So I'm looking for a word that describes this character. If you're mad, she'll get mad with you. If you want to cry, she'll bring the tissues and be right beside you making her own river. In the moment, she will be angry with the main character, I don't know if that will help but that's the situation. | 2014/09/11 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/195855",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/91057/"
] | This might be [Sympathy vs Empathy](http://dictionary.reference.com/help/faq/language/d23.html).
Dictionary.com indicates that this contrasts Sympathy (feeling with) versus Empathy (feeling into).
*Empathy* knows what it's like. *Sympathy* feels your pain, but may not understand the circumstances. | Sycophant: a person who praises powerful people in order to get their approval
<http://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/sycophant> |
195,855 | I'm writing a story and I can't think of a word that describes someone. The quote is,
>
> Who do I want right now? Sympathy or \_\_\_\_\_
>
>
>
So I'm looking for a word that describes this character. If you're mad, she'll get mad with you. If you want to cry, she'll bring the tissues and be right beside you making her own river. In the moment, she will be angry with the main character, I don't know if that will help but that's the situation. | 2014/09/11 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/195855",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/91057/"
] | This might be [Sympathy vs Empathy](http://dictionary.reference.com/help/faq/language/d23.html).
Dictionary.com indicates that this contrasts Sympathy (feeling with) versus Empathy (feeling into).
*Empathy* knows what it's like. *Sympathy* feels your pain, but may not understand the circumstances. | In most first instances, you would tend to get into the sarcasm mood. In such a mood, you would call that person an *accomplice*.
***Accomplice*** relates to a partner who is totally with you into doing everything that is wrong, usually used as a legal term in crime cases.
However, *accomplice* also usually used when a couple "goes postal" on themselves, without a care in the world doing whatever they like, breaking any rules if necessary.
>
> Mark and I will be in Las Vegas for Thanksgiving week. He has a lot of unplanned ideas up his sleeves, and I will be his accomplice.
>
>
>
The word accomplice then brings us to the word ***abet*** and the *abettor*. Even though abetting is usually used in criminal cases, it actually mean cooperating and encouraging actions whether good or bad.
Which then brings us to the word ***accessory***. An accessory is someone who goes along with the perpetrator's ideas. She/he does not have the originality or motivation to devise or cook up ideas. She/he simply agrees to go along with it, giving every encouragement, cheering and whatever cooperation necessary to the perpetrator.
>
> Satyanatan is a brilliant architect. He has had such vast experience, such depth of creativity. You see all these works we "designed together", all the awards we have won? I have merely been an accessory to his ingenuity and went along with all his brilliant ideas.
>
>
>
### Dictionary lookup:
[accessory](http://www.thefreedictionary.com/accessory) (əkˈsɛsərɪ)
n, pl -ries
1. a supplementary part or object, as of a car, appliance, etc
2. (often plural) a small accompanying item of dress, esp of women's dress
3. (Law) a person who incites someone to commit a crime or assists the perpetrator of a crime, either before or during its commission
adj
4. supplementary; additional; subordinate
5. (Law) assisting in or having knowledge of an act, esp a crime
[from Late Latin accessōrius: see access]
accessorial adj acˈcessorily adv acˈcessoriness n
*Collins English Dictionary – Complete and Unabridged © HarperCollins Publishers 1991, 1994, 1998, 2000, 2003*
[accomplice](http://www.thefreedictionary.com/accomplice) (əˈkɒmplɪs; əˈkʌm-)
n
* a person who helps another in committing a crime
[from a complice, interpreted as one word. See complice]
*Collins English Dictionary – Complete and Unabridged © HarperCollins Publishers 1991, 1994, 1998, 2000, 2003*
[a·bet](http://www.thefreedictionary.com/abet) (-bt)
tr.v. a·bet·ted, a·bet·ting, a·bets
1. To approve, encourage, and support (an action or a plan of action); urge and help on.
2. To urge, encourage, or help (a person): abetted the thief in robbing the bank.
[Middle English abetten, from Old French abeter, to entice : a-, to (from Latin ad-; see ad-) + beter, to bait; see bheid- in Indo-European roots.]
a·betment n.
a·bettor, a·better n.
*The American Heritage® Dictionary of the English Language, Fourth Edition copyright ©2000 by Houghton Mifflin Company. Updated in 2009. Published by Houghton Mifflin Company. All rights reserved.* |
195,855 | I'm writing a story and I can't think of a word that describes someone. The quote is,
>
> Who do I want right now? Sympathy or \_\_\_\_\_
>
>
>
So I'm looking for a word that describes this character. If you're mad, she'll get mad with you. If you want to cry, she'll bring the tissues and be right beside you making her own river. In the moment, she will be angry with the main character, I don't know if that will help but that's the situation. | 2014/09/11 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/195855",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/91057/"
] | It depends on what you want to say.
Harmony might work, fits well with the idea of friendship, although it depends on if the person is seen as a true 'soul mate' or not.
Synchronicity, would work well with aliteration (of sympathy) but would see the other person as more 'mechanical' if that makes sense? | Perhaps *[wingman](http://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/wingman)* (forgive the gender bias)
>
> a friend who accompanies one to offer (or receive) support [*Wiktionary*]
>
>
>
A related term (but not a noun equivalent) is *[got my back](http://www.urbandictionary.com/define.php?term=GOT%20YOUR%20BACK)*
>
> An expression assuring someone that you are watching out for them. Comes from making sure you are safe by watching what's behind you when you're busy looking ahead. [*Urban Dictionary*]
>
>
>
The phrase *[my person](http://www.urbandictionary.com/define.php?term=My%20person)* also seems to be achieving some ascendancy
>
> A person with whom you have attained the highest level of friendship. Coined from Grey's Anatomy.
> *Beka is my person, I cannot imagine my life without her* [*Urban Dictionary*]
>
>
> |
1,672,503 | I'm writing an ASP.NET app in which a table of objects is created by the user client-side.
I envisage them clicking "Add item" and a new 'row' is created in the table with textboxes for them to enter their stuff.
I can do this fine by adding HTML with jQuery. The problem is that one of the fields in the row for the user to fill in needs to be a colour picker.
I have an ASP.NET web user control for my colour picker. How do I add an instance of it to the page within my html row? Or am I barking up the wrong tree here - is there a better way of encapsulating the functionality of my colour picker so that it can be put on every row? | 2009/11/04 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1672503",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/128386/"
] | No, you can't add a server-side asp.net control to a page that has already been rendered using client-side techniques (aka Javascript)
Two options:
1. Firstly, switch to using a client-side colour picker. You can then have the data from this included in the post-back by dynamically adding hidden fields to your form.
2. Secondly, have a single editing panel which includes your colour picker. Users then select a row to edit, which updates the edit panel with current values etc. Values are stored in hidden fields created when you dynamicaly add rows to your table, and included in the post-back
Without seeing your UI, I can't comment as to which would be best. The asp.net control might look nicer, but it might be difficult to work into your design. A pure client-side solution might fit your designer better, but might not look so good. You also need to consider what happens if / when a users adds *lots* of rows (this might be 10, 50 or 100 depending on your app /code). Lots of dynamically added controls (the first solution) might cripple the performance of the page. | You can't add ASP.NET controls with jQuery (at least not easily). You could, however, perform a postback when you need to add the colour picker to the row. |
1,672,503 | I'm writing an ASP.NET app in which a table of objects is created by the user client-side.
I envisage them clicking "Add item" and a new 'row' is created in the table with textboxes for them to enter their stuff.
I can do this fine by adding HTML with jQuery. The problem is that one of the fields in the row for the user to fill in needs to be a colour picker.
I have an ASP.NET web user control for my colour picker. How do I add an instance of it to the page within my html row? Or am I barking up the wrong tree here - is there a better way of encapsulating the functionality of my colour picker so that it can be put on every row? | 2009/11/04 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1672503",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/128386/"
] | I'm not sure what version of ASP.NET you're using, one approach that would work is to turn your usercontrol into a [custom control](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/yhzc935f.aspx). You'd then need to implement ICallbackEventHandler (the first way to do Ajax on asp.net); for sure it's a bit more work but it does give you a good level of control.
Alternatively, you could try [this](http://encosia.com/2008/05/29/using-jquery-to-directly-call-aspnet-ajax-page-methods/) | You can't add ASP.NET controls with jQuery (at least not easily). You could, however, perform a postback when you need to add the colour picker to the row. |
1,672,503 | I'm writing an ASP.NET app in which a table of objects is created by the user client-side.
I envisage them clicking "Add item" and a new 'row' is created in the table with textboxes for them to enter their stuff.
I can do this fine by adding HTML with jQuery. The problem is that one of the fields in the row for the user to fill in needs to be a colour picker.
I have an ASP.NET web user control for my colour picker. How do I add an instance of it to the page within my html row? Or am I barking up the wrong tree here - is there a better way of encapsulating the functionality of my colour picker so that it can be put on every row? | 2009/11/04 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1672503",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/128386/"
] | No, you can't add a server-side asp.net control to a page that has already been rendered using client-side techniques (aka Javascript)
Two options:
1. Firstly, switch to using a client-side colour picker. You can then have the data from this included in the post-back by dynamically adding hidden fields to your form.
2. Secondly, have a single editing panel which includes your colour picker. Users then select a row to edit, which updates the edit panel with current values etc. Values are stored in hidden fields created when you dynamicaly add rows to your table, and included in the post-back
Without seeing your UI, I can't comment as to which would be best. The asp.net control might look nicer, but it might be difficult to work into your design. A pure client-side solution might fit your designer better, but might not look so good. You also need to consider what happens if / when a users adds *lots* of rows (this might be 10, 50 or 100 depending on your app /code). Lots of dynamically added controls (the first solution) might cripple the performance of the page. | In the code in front declaratively define a template of what the new row should look like, then hide it using css.
When the user clicks the 'Add new button' select and cloen the contents of your hidden template and write that into your target div. Just make sure to remove the hiding css when you do this.
You will, of course, just be copying the rednered html of your server controls, but htis apporach may give you a quick and easy way of doing what you need |
1,672,503 | I'm writing an ASP.NET app in which a table of objects is created by the user client-side.
I envisage them clicking "Add item" and a new 'row' is created in the table with textboxes for them to enter their stuff.
I can do this fine by adding HTML with jQuery. The problem is that one of the fields in the row for the user to fill in needs to be a colour picker.
I have an ASP.NET web user control for my colour picker. How do I add an instance of it to the page within my html row? Or am I barking up the wrong tree here - is there a better way of encapsulating the functionality of my colour picker so that it can be put on every row? | 2009/11/04 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1672503",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/128386/"
] | No, you can't add a server-side asp.net control to a page that has already been rendered using client-side techniques (aka Javascript)
Two options:
1. Firstly, switch to using a client-side colour picker. You can then have the data from this included in the post-back by dynamically adding hidden fields to your form.
2. Secondly, have a single editing panel which includes your colour picker. Users then select a row to edit, which updates the edit panel with current values etc. Values are stored in hidden fields created when you dynamicaly add rows to your table, and included in the post-back
Without seeing your UI, I can't comment as to which would be best. The asp.net control might look nicer, but it might be difficult to work into your design. A pure client-side solution might fit your designer better, but might not look so good. You also need to consider what happens if / when a users adds *lots* of rows (this might be 10, 50 or 100 depending on your app /code). Lots of dynamically added controls (the first solution) might cripple the performance of the page. | I'm not sure what version of ASP.NET you're using, one approach that would work is to turn your usercontrol into a [custom control](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/yhzc935f.aspx). You'd then need to implement ICallbackEventHandler (the first way to do Ajax on asp.net); for sure it's a bit more work but it does give you a good level of control.
Alternatively, you could try [this](http://encosia.com/2008/05/29/using-jquery-to-directly-call-aspnet-ajax-page-methods/) |
1,672,503 | I'm writing an ASP.NET app in which a table of objects is created by the user client-side.
I envisage them clicking "Add item" and a new 'row' is created in the table with textboxes for them to enter their stuff.
I can do this fine by adding HTML with jQuery. The problem is that one of the fields in the row for the user to fill in needs to be a colour picker.
I have an ASP.NET web user control for my colour picker. How do I add an instance of it to the page within my html row? Or am I barking up the wrong tree here - is there a better way of encapsulating the functionality of my colour picker so that it can be put on every row? | 2009/11/04 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1672503",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/128386/"
] | I'm not sure what version of ASP.NET you're using, one approach that would work is to turn your usercontrol into a [custom control](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/yhzc935f.aspx). You'd then need to implement ICallbackEventHandler (the first way to do Ajax on asp.net); for sure it's a bit more work but it does give you a good level of control.
Alternatively, you could try [this](http://encosia.com/2008/05/29/using-jquery-to-directly-call-aspnet-ajax-page-methods/) | In the code in front declaratively define a template of what the new row should look like, then hide it using css.
When the user clicks the 'Add new button' select and cloen the contents of your hidden template and write that into your target div. Just make sure to remove the hiding css when you do this.
You will, of course, just be copying the rednered html of your server controls, but htis apporach may give you a quick and easy way of doing what you need |
8,191,791 | I have a confusion with wait() method of thread class. It is known that wait() method is called from a synchronized context always. But after execution of wait method, will that thread release the lock on that object which it was holding.
I mean to ask that "When a thread goes to wait pool of an object, before going will it release the lock it has." | 2011/11/19 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/8191791",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/882137/"
] | yes. Its pretty clearly stated in the javadoc:
wait
<http://download.oracle.com/javase/1.4.2/docs/api/java/lang/Object.html#wait>()
public final void wait()
throws InterruptedException
>
> Causes current thread to wait until another thread invokes the notify() method or the notifyAll() method for this object. In other words, this method behaves exactly as if it simply performs the call wait(0).
> The current thread must own this object's monitor. The thread releases ownership of this monitor and waits until another thread notifies threads waiting on this object's monitor to wake up either through a call to the notify method or the notifyAll method. The thread then waits until it can re-obtain ownership of the monitor and resumes execution.
>
>
> This method should only be called by a thread that is the owner of this object's monitor. See the notify method for a description of the ways in which a thread can become the owner of a monitor.
>
>
> Throws:
> IllegalMonitorStateException - if the current thread is not the owner of the object's monitor.
> InterruptedException - if another thread has interrupted the current thread. The interrupted status of the current thread is cleared when this exception is thrown.
> See Also:
> notify(), notifyAll()
>
>
> | <http://download.oracle.com/javase/6/docs/api/java/lang/Object.html#wait>()
>
> Causes current thread to wait until another thread invokes the notify() method or the notifyAll() method for this object.
>
>
>
And to answer your second question: *never*. As in your last question, locks aren't ever arbitrarily released - that would break synchronization.
Oracle provides a fairly detailed tutorial that covers all of this information:
<http://download.oracle.com/javase/tutorial/essential/concurrency/> |
195,642 | I'm trying to do a makeshift small grinder/sander out of a car radiator fan, but I want to power it up with a laptop charger for convenience.
Since it's a salvaged fan, I wasn't able to look up its schematics, I only know it takes 12VDC input (as most car radiator fans do).
These fans typically go from 10-15 Amps while running, with up to 25 Amps inrush.
The laptop power brick is rated at 18.5 Vout, 6.5 Amps, 120 Watts.
I connected it as-is for a short period, and everything works fine, I get satisfactory RPM and torque on the fan. However, I wouldn't want to leave that setup running for a long time, for multiple obvious reasons.
I'd like to be able to have some sort of potentiometer as well, in order to be able to regulate its speed.
So far, I've only come up with this:
* Limit 16 Volts on the laptop output via triac voltage regulator or similar (at this point around 16v)
* Static resistor rated at 100 Watt / 3 Ohm maximum (at this point making sure it'd be around 16V 5A)
* Variable resistor (pot) rated at maybe 100 Watts / 100 Ohms (resistance is less important than wattage at this point)
The problem with this setup, is that those kinds of resistors and pots are hard to come by, and usually expensive.
**Can anyone come up with a better / more intelligent solution and suggestions?**
Most answers I found are related to more common uses, at usually lower amperage.
I have moderate experience with electrical appliances, what I don't know I'm willing to research, so don't hesitate to go wild. | 2015/10/16 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/195642",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/89210/"
] | Is there a reason you're not controlling it via PWM? The main argument against is the complexity, but would give you the effective reduction of voltage you're after. Though there are potential issues with using PWM on an input to (what I assume is) a DC brush-less motor, you may want to end up smoothing it out with capacitance, but then it becomes a DC-DC converter...
Alternatively, as your current plan is to change the voltage across the motor, it isn't insane to considering using a DC-DC converter with a potentiometer on the voltage setting pin.
Third option would be to put a known fixed resistor in series with the fan, and a lower rated pot across the pins of the motor.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/lNtXd.png)
So R1 is a high wattage (100W), low resistance device, R2 is a high resistance POT (you should really put a high value resistor to go in series with the POT to make sure you can't set it too low). But his is a pretty wasteful way of controlling the fan, burning energy in the resistors rather that switching off as you would with a switched DC-DC or PWM option. | Cheap, Simple, but no over current protection.
Several resistors (resistor bank) in series. Put a switch across each resistor bank. Opening or closing the switches individually will change the overall resistance.
I will leave all the ohm's law calculations for resistance and power rating of resistors up to you.
EDIT : Probably better to use the resistor banks in parallel (with switch then in series with each resistor bank. This allows use of higher value resistors. |
195,642 | I'm trying to do a makeshift small grinder/sander out of a car radiator fan, but I want to power it up with a laptop charger for convenience.
Since it's a salvaged fan, I wasn't able to look up its schematics, I only know it takes 12VDC input (as most car radiator fans do).
These fans typically go from 10-15 Amps while running, with up to 25 Amps inrush.
The laptop power brick is rated at 18.5 Vout, 6.5 Amps, 120 Watts.
I connected it as-is for a short period, and everything works fine, I get satisfactory RPM and torque on the fan. However, I wouldn't want to leave that setup running for a long time, for multiple obvious reasons.
I'd like to be able to have some sort of potentiometer as well, in order to be able to regulate its speed.
So far, I've only come up with this:
* Limit 16 Volts on the laptop output via triac voltage regulator or similar (at this point around 16v)
* Static resistor rated at 100 Watt / 3 Ohm maximum (at this point making sure it'd be around 16V 5A)
* Variable resistor (pot) rated at maybe 100 Watts / 100 Ohms (resistance is less important than wattage at this point)
The problem with this setup, is that those kinds of resistors and pots are hard to come by, and usually expensive.
**Can anyone come up with a better / more intelligent solution and suggestions?**
Most answers I found are related to more common uses, at usually lower amperage.
I have moderate experience with electrical appliances, what I don't know I'm willing to research, so don't hesitate to go wild. | 2015/10/16 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/195642",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/89210/"
] | Is there a reason you're not controlling it via PWM? The main argument against is the complexity, but would give you the effective reduction of voltage you're after. Though there are potential issues with using PWM on an input to (what I assume is) a DC brush-less motor, you may want to end up smoothing it out with capacitance, but then it becomes a DC-DC converter...
Alternatively, as your current plan is to change the voltage across the motor, it isn't insane to considering using a DC-DC converter with a potentiometer on the voltage setting pin.
Third option would be to put a known fixed resistor in series with the fan, and a lower rated pot across the pins of the motor.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/lNtXd.png)
So R1 is a high wattage (100W), low resistance device, R2 is a high resistance POT (you should really put a high value resistor to go in series with the POT to make sure you can't set it too low). But his is a pretty wasteful way of controlling the fan, burning energy in the resistors rather that switching off as you would with a switched DC-DC or PWM option. | Just thinking a power transistor with a potentiometer as voltage divider/ base current control should work. Just never fully open the transistor or something will die. ;-) |
46,909 | A few days ago my site was infected with Malware. I've sinced removed it and all is well. However, logging into the back end of my CMS I get the malware warning again.
I've followed the instructions which incdicates you can request a review of the site in Webmaster Tools. However, WM Tools says the site is free of malware.
Is there anything I can do to get rid of Googles block? | 2013/04/04 | [
"https://webmasters.stackexchange.com/questions/46909",
"https://webmasters.stackexchange.com",
"https://webmasters.stackexchange.com/users/21289/"
] | What you need to do is request a [Malware Review](http://support.google.com/webmasters/bin/answer.py?hl=en&answer=168328) which is not the same as a usual reconsideration request as it is handled by an entire different team. You do this from the Webmaster Tools.
Google explains all the steps in the process [here](http://www.google.com/webmasters/hacked/). If all you are missing is the Review, see [here](http://support.google.com/webmasters/bin/answer.py?hl=en&answer=168328). | Google has a formal process for considering removing manual actions taken against sites in violation of its guidelines.
You can submit a "Request reconsideration" with Google:
<http://support.google.com/webmasters/bin/answer.py?hl=en&answer=35843>
This video may help explain the process as well:
<http://www.youtube.com/watch?feature=player_embedded&v=cA5I3HHApYk#>! |
51,181 | I am an Indian citizen. I need to go to Tbilisi (Georgia) via Istanbul (Turkey) from Berlin (Germany).
I booked the two flights separately from two different companies. Do I need a transit visa for Turkey?
I do not have a cabin baggage. I guess if I have a cabin baggage, I would have to pick up the baggage at the Istanbul airport and would need a visa because I have to pass the immigration first? | 2015/07/15 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/51181",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/31809/"
] | I am assuming you have schengen visa and also visa to enter Georgia. I don't think you need transit visa at istanbul airport, if you are just changing planes.
To answer to your question whether you need transit visa in Istanbul: <http://www.mfa.gov.tr/frequently-asked-questions.en.mfa>
Its says there:
>
> Question: I will be flying to Europe. I know that our aircraft will
> land in İstanbul. I am not planning to leave the transit lounge. Do I
> need to get transit visa?
>
>
> Answer: If you will not leave the transit lounge at the airport you
> are not required to have transit visa. Otherwise, you have to make
> visa application to the nearest Turkish Representation. Contact
> information of the said missions can be reached through www.mfa.gov.tr
> (Ministry/Turkish Representations).
>
>
>
Also, refer to this official page: <http://www.mfa.gov.tr/visa-information-for-foreigners.en.mfa>
It says this:
>
> India: Diplomatic passport holders are exempt from visa for their
> travels to Turkey up to 90 days. Ordinary, Special and Service
> passport holders are required to have visa to enter Turkey. Ordinary,
> Special and Service passport holders with a valid Schengen or OECD
> member's visa or residence permit may get their single entry e-Visas
> valid for one month via the website www.evisa.gov.tr, provided that
> they meet certain conditions.
>
>
>
If you want to enter istanbul, just apply for e-visa online to enter istanbul. Remember you collect baggage ONLY after passport control.
I am also indian passport holder, entered through istanbul airport several times needed no transit visa, to change planes to another destination within the terminal. | Per Timatic, the database used by airlines:
>
> TWOV (Transit Without Visa):
> - Passengers with a confirmed onward ticket for a flight to a
> third country within 24 hours. They must stay in the
> international transit area of the airport and have documents
> required for the next destination
>
>
>
As you write, if having luggage to pick up you would need a visa.
However, the fact is, even if you don't, in practice most check-in staff will consider Istanbul your final destination if you're on separate tickets, and thus deny you boarding without a visa. This is largely because if something goes wrong with your connection, you not "insured" and the airline that flew you to Istanbul could end up having to take you back. |
8,192,403 | What is the best pathway to achieve this?
I know that VS2005 contains an upgrade mechanism. Do any later versions of VS contain this? | 2011/11/19 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/8192403",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/327528/"
] | 1. There is a specialized version of frame decoder called, LengthFieldBasedFrameDecoder. Its handy, when you have a header with message length. It can even extract the message length from header by giving an offset.
2. Actually, ChannelBuffers.wrappedBuffer does not creates copies of received data, it creates a composite buffer from given buffers, so your received frame data will not be copied. If you are holding the composite buffers/ your custom wrapper in the code and forgot to nullify, memory leaks can happen.
These are practices I follow,
* Allocate direct buffers for long lived objects, slice it on use.
* when I want to join/encode multiple buffers into one big buffer. I Use ChannelBuffers.wrappedBuffer
* If I have a buffer and want to do something with it/portion of it, I make a slice of it by calling slice or slice(0,..) on channel buffer instance
* If I have a channel buffer and know the position of data which is small, I always use getXXX methods
* If I have a channel buffer, which is used in many places for make something out of it, always make it modifiable, slice it on use.
Note: channelbuffer.slice does not make a copy of the data, it creates a channel buffer with new reader & write index. | In the end, it appeared the best way to handle my FrameDecoder issue was to write my own on top of the SimpleChannelUpstreamHandler. As soon as I determined the length from the header, I created the ChannelBuffer with size exactly matching the length. This (along with other changes) significantly improved the memory performance of my application. |
53,931 | This question mainly deals with Revelation 21:24–27, but it is probably helpful to read from Rev 20 to the end also.
Revelation 21 (KJV)
>
> 24 And the nations of them which are saved shall walk in the light of
> it: and the kings of the earth do bring their glory and honour into
> it. 25 And the gates of it shall not be shut at all by day: for there
> shall be no night there. 26 And they shall bring the glory and honour
> of the nations into it. 27 And there shall in no wise enter into it
> any thing that defileth, neither whatsoever worketh abomination, or
> maketh a lie: but they which are written in the Lamb's book of life.
>
>
>
I understand that these nations of the new earth are not procreating, however, there are supposedly people who are evil that are being kept out of the holy city at this time. Where are they coming from if no one is having babies?
You would think, that at this time all the people that are found in the Lamb's book of Life have eternal bodies, and the others are in the lake of fire. Somehow these evil people in question should be in the lake of fire instead of being kept out of the gates of the holy city of the new earth, one would think. The mere problem that sin is still with us in the new earth seems, well, weird.
A good answer will be from the premillennial perspective, pre- or post-tribulation shouldn't matter. | 2016/12/04 | [
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/53931",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/users/32228/"
] | In the historicist framework of Ellis Skolfield, Christ returns at the last trumpet (the seventh trumpet) and the time of the new Earth is immediately ushered in. The righteous receive their new bodies, while the damned are immediately dispatched to Hell. No one from this time forward has any children. In Matthew 22:29-30 it says:
>
> Jesus replied, “You are in error because you do not know the
> Scriptures or the power of God. At the resurrection people will
> neither marry nor be given in marriage; they will be like the angels
> in heaven.
>
>
>
According to Skolfield, the tribulation and the millennial reign of Christ coexist simultaneously. Thus we are currently in the midst of the tribulation, and we are also in the Kingdom of God, because Christ ascended to the throne about 2,000 years ago.
As for the length of the time periods, he argues that the word for millennium used in the Greek, chillioi, is an indefinite plural, hence can refer to multiple thousands of years.
As for the time when the nations will once again be deceived, he argues that over the course of the last century, especially since the founding of Israel, many nations (faithful or not) that once gave lip service to Christ being their ultimate sovereign have since abandoned even the pretense of following him. | Robertson's Word Pictures addresses your question:
>
> "Maketh an abomination and a lie (poiōn bdelugma kai pseudos). Like
> Babylon (Rev\_17:4 which see for bdelugma) and Rev\_21:8 for those in
> the lake of fire and brimstone, and Rev\_22:15 for “every one loving
> and doing a lie.” These recurrent glimpses of pagan life on earth and
> of hell in contrast to heaven in this picture raise the question
> already mentioned whether John is just running parallel pictures of
> heaven and hell after the judgment or whether, as Charles says: “The
> unclean and the abominable and the liars are still on earth, but,
> though the gates are open day and night, they cannot enter.” In
> apocalyptic writing literalism and chronology cannot be insisted on as
> in ordinary books. The series of panoramas continue to the end."
>
>
>
I would add the caution not to be sidetracked by seeing one's name in the Book of Life as irrevocable: Revelation 3:5 and Exodus 32:33 indicate it is not.
I often ponder how Satan could fall.
Apparently children will still be born there: Isa 65:17
>
> For, behold, I create new heavens and a new earth: and the former
> shall not be remembered, nor come into mind. 18 But be ye glad and
> rejoice for ever in that which I create: for, behold, I create
> Jerusalem a rejoicing, and her people a joy. 19 And I will rejoice in
> Jerusalem, and joy in my people: and the voice of weeping shall be no
> more heard in her, nor the voice of crying. 20 There shall be no more
> thence an infant of days, nor an old man that hath not filled his
> days: for the child shall die an hundred years old; but the sinner
> being an hundred years old shall be accursed. 21 And they shall build
> houses, and inhabit them; and they shall plant vineyards, and eat the
> fruit of them.
>
>
>
I wonder if the whole purpose of human finite lives on Earth since Adam's Fall, during which our knowledge is limited and God's presence is, in the words of Matthew 25, as it were "in a far country", has been to give us a chance to make our choice between God and Darkness a habit able to endure throughout eternity, so that never again after Satan's fall would any soul enter Heaven and later decide to leave. In any case while on this Earth Hebrews 6 assures us of the possibility of falling for even the most spiritual of humans who do not "watch", as Jesus warned; and Isaiah certifies that there will still be "sinners", even in the New Earth, in which people do not yet live forever.
Could it be the New Earth is a chance for fence walkers in earlier ages, whose goal was the minimum requirements for their ticket to Heaven, to get one more chance to finally make up their minds? |
53,931 | This question mainly deals with Revelation 21:24–27, but it is probably helpful to read from Rev 20 to the end also.
Revelation 21 (KJV)
>
> 24 And the nations of them which are saved shall walk in the light of
> it: and the kings of the earth do bring their glory and honour into
> it. 25 And the gates of it shall not be shut at all by day: for there
> shall be no night there. 26 And they shall bring the glory and honour
> of the nations into it. 27 And there shall in no wise enter into it
> any thing that defileth, neither whatsoever worketh abomination, or
> maketh a lie: but they which are written in the Lamb's book of life.
>
>
>
I understand that these nations of the new earth are not procreating, however, there are supposedly people who are evil that are being kept out of the holy city at this time. Where are they coming from if no one is having babies?
You would think, that at this time all the people that are found in the Lamb's book of Life have eternal bodies, and the others are in the lake of fire. Somehow these evil people in question should be in the lake of fire instead of being kept out of the gates of the holy city of the new earth, one would think. The mere problem that sin is still with us in the new earth seems, well, weird.
A good answer will be from the premillennial perspective, pre- or post-tribulation shouldn't matter. | 2016/12/04 | [
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/53931",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/users/32228/"
] | Adding another answer as it is substantially different from my first answer.
There is a viewpoint irrespective of millennial position, that the city in this passage is a symbolic representation of the church, and not a literal city. Taking this symbolic viewpoint, verse 27 would simply be saying that no one unclean enters the church, which in turn simply implies that people must be cleansed first, which implies a connection between "having been cleansed" and "written in the Lamb's book of life". | Robertson's Word Pictures addresses your question:
>
> "Maketh an abomination and a lie (poiōn bdelugma kai pseudos). Like
> Babylon (Rev\_17:4 which see for bdelugma) and Rev\_21:8 for those in
> the lake of fire and brimstone, and Rev\_22:15 for “every one loving
> and doing a lie.” These recurrent glimpses of pagan life on earth and
> of hell in contrast to heaven in this picture raise the question
> already mentioned whether John is just running parallel pictures of
> heaven and hell after the judgment or whether, as Charles says: “The
> unclean and the abominable and the liars are still on earth, but,
> though the gates are open day and night, they cannot enter.” In
> apocalyptic writing literalism and chronology cannot be insisted on as
> in ordinary books. The series of panoramas continue to the end."
>
>
>
I would add the caution not to be sidetracked by seeing one's name in the Book of Life as irrevocable: Revelation 3:5 and Exodus 32:33 indicate it is not.
I often ponder how Satan could fall.
Apparently children will still be born there: Isa 65:17
>
> For, behold, I create new heavens and a new earth: and the former
> shall not be remembered, nor come into mind. 18 But be ye glad and
> rejoice for ever in that which I create: for, behold, I create
> Jerusalem a rejoicing, and her people a joy. 19 And I will rejoice in
> Jerusalem, and joy in my people: and the voice of weeping shall be no
> more heard in her, nor the voice of crying. 20 There shall be no more
> thence an infant of days, nor an old man that hath not filled his
> days: for the child shall die an hundred years old; but the sinner
> being an hundred years old shall be accursed. 21 And they shall build
> houses, and inhabit them; and they shall plant vineyards, and eat the
> fruit of them.
>
>
>
I wonder if the whole purpose of human finite lives on Earth since Adam's Fall, during which our knowledge is limited and God's presence is, in the words of Matthew 25, as it were "in a far country", has been to give us a chance to make our choice between God and Darkness a habit able to endure throughout eternity, so that never again after Satan's fall would any soul enter Heaven and later decide to leave. In any case while on this Earth Hebrews 6 assures us of the possibility of falling for even the most spiritual of humans who do not "watch", as Jesus warned; and Isaiah certifies that there will still be "sinners", even in the New Earth, in which people do not yet live forever.
Could it be the New Earth is a chance for fence walkers in earlier ages, whose goal was the minimum requirements for their ticket to Heaven, to get one more chance to finally make up their minds? |
52,209 | I understand that Sherlock does not like his father (Morland Holmes) very much because he was a distant father as a child. But this does not seem to be a strong enough factor for Sherlock's venomous hate for Morland.
Why does Sherlock hate his father so much? | 2016/04/25 | [
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/questions/52209",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/users/1969/"
] | Sherlock's hatred of his father is explained in Elementary Season 4, Episode 14 titled "Who Is That Masked Man". During that episode as Sherlock is investigating the death of Sabine he reveals to Joan that he blames his father for his mother's death. His father threw her out and due to prenuptial agreement she was living in a small rundown house that caught fire one night, killing her. There are several recaps available online. Later in the series Morland reveals why he threw her out.
[Elementary Season 4 Episode 14](http://www.ew.com/recap/elementary-season-4-episode-14) | Probably what Mykewlname mentioned is the base of Sherlock's attitude towards his father, but there are a couple of secondary facts that play their role as well, such as:
1. Sherlock was sent to a boarding school at the age of eight
2. Morland's job & personality (as portrayed by Sherlock at least): wealthy international consultant with no morals, willing to do anything for money & power
3. Morland seems to have a tendency to favor Sherlock's elder brother, Mycroft.
Source:
[Morland Holmes from Elementary Wiki](http://bakerstreet.wikia.com/wiki/Morland_Holmes) |
803,034 | I want to set Firefox as the default browser on Ubuntu Touch so that links in Dekko, RSS reader, etc. open in Firefox instead of the Ubuntu touch browser. I can't find a "default browser" setting in the settings app. Setting Firefox to default inside Firefox does nothing.
I use some add-ons in Firefox as well as syncing tabs and bookmarks with my desktop, so I really don't want to be forced to use another browser by every link I open on Ubuntu touch.
I'm using the Bq M10 FHD with OTA 11. | 2016/07/26 | [
"https://askubuntu.com/questions/803034",
"https://askubuntu.com",
"https://askubuntu.com/users/167425/"
] | I found this WebRTC implementation that allows you to share a browser screen through the browser via a url. It is free software.
<https://www.webrtc-experiment.com/Pluginfree-Screen-Sharing/>
It should work in both Chromium and Firefox, but may require you to configure some additional settings in about:config. The observing user should not have to.
If one implementation does not work, there are other options available under the [demos page](https://www.webrtc-experiment.com/). These *are* all demos, but the source can be used to create your own solution as well if desired. | There's an embedded feature in Mozilla Firefox, called Hello. It can be used for sharing your webpage to some other remote user which has Firefox on his side. OS isn't important. We checked it with my colleague, one with Ubuntu and another with Windows (just your case, right?). Absolutely open source solution.
You can chat using your headphones and microphone at the same time.
You'll find the description of this feature [here](https://www.mozilla.org/en-US/firefox/hello/).
If you need help in setup and troubleshooting, use this [link](https://support.mozilla.org/en-US/products/firefox/chat-and-share/firefox-hello-webrtc). |
803,034 | I want to set Firefox as the default browser on Ubuntu Touch so that links in Dekko, RSS reader, etc. open in Firefox instead of the Ubuntu touch browser. I can't find a "default browser" setting in the settings app. Setting Firefox to default inside Firefox does nothing.
I use some add-ons in Firefox as well as syncing tabs and bookmarks with my desktop, so I really don't want to be forced to use another browser by every link I open on Ubuntu touch.
I'm using the Bq M10 FHD with OTA 11. | 2016/07/26 | [
"https://askubuntu.com/questions/803034",
"https://askubuntu.com",
"https://askubuntu.com/users/167425/"
] | I found this WebRTC implementation that allows you to share a browser screen through the browser via a url. It is free software.
<https://www.webrtc-experiment.com/Pluginfree-Screen-Sharing/>
It should work in both Chromium and Firefox, but may require you to configure some additional settings in about:config. The observing user should not have to.
If one implementation does not work, there are other options available under the [demos page](https://www.webrtc-experiment.com/). These *are* all demos, but the source can be used to create your own solution as well if desired. | Heyyo, guettli. I too looked into this recently.
[Apache Guacamole](https://guacamole.incubator.apache.org/) claims to be "a clientless remote desktop gateway." Clientless, they say, means **no client software or plugins**. Guacamole is **open source** software.
[Ajax VNC](https://sourceforge.net/projects/ajaxvnc/) also claims to be "clientless" & "purely HTTP."
[Appear.in](https://appear.in/) requires no software, & is browser-based. Appear.in is my **1st recommendation** as it **meets your standards!** Also, it does not require login or installations on either side. You just need to set up a room. Voice & text chat, private rooms, & connect using link are nice features. Supported browsers are Google Chrome, Firefox, Vivaldi, & Opera.
[xrdp](http://www.xrdp.org/) is an open source remote desktop protocol(rdp) server. It is "capable of accepting connections from rdesktop, FreeRDP, and **Microsoft's** own terminal server / remote desktop clients."(xrdp.org/). It is based upon [FreeRDP](http://www.freerdp.org/) & [rdesktop](http://www.rdesktop.org/), and uses [Xvnc](http://www.tightvnc.com/Xvnc.1.php) or X11rdp for management of the X session. [X11rdp-o-Matic](https://github.com/scarygliders/X11RDP-o-Matic) will automatically setup X11rdp & xrdp for you. Xrdp is my 2nd **recommendation.**
*If* you decide that downloading would actually be okay, then I suggest [TeamViewer 11](http://www.teamviewer.com/%E2%80%8E). I personally use TeamViewer to help my cousin resolve computer issues. After getting to know how to use it, I love it! It supports Linux-Windows-Mac OS X. [Chrome Remote Desktop](https://chrome.google.com/webstore/detail/chrome-remote-desktop/gbchcmhmhahfdphkhkmpfmihenigjmpp?hl=en) would be my other suggestion *if* you do decide downloads are okay. |
803,034 | I want to set Firefox as the default browser on Ubuntu Touch so that links in Dekko, RSS reader, etc. open in Firefox instead of the Ubuntu touch browser. I can't find a "default browser" setting in the settings app. Setting Firefox to default inside Firefox does nothing.
I use some add-ons in Firefox as well as syncing tabs and bookmarks with my desktop, so I really don't want to be forced to use another browser by every link I open on Ubuntu touch.
I'm using the Bq M10 FHD with OTA 11. | 2016/07/26 | [
"https://askubuntu.com/questions/803034",
"https://askubuntu.com",
"https://askubuntu.com/users/167425/"
] | I found this WebRTC implementation that allows you to share a browser screen through the browser via a url. It is free software.
<https://www.webrtc-experiment.com/Pluginfree-Screen-Sharing/>
It should work in both Chromium and Firefox, but may require you to configure some additional settings in about:config. The observing user should not have to.
If one implementation does not work, there are other options available under the [demos page](https://www.webrtc-experiment.com/). These *are* all demos, but the source can be used to create your own solution as well if desired. | You could use [screenleap](http://www.screenleap.com/), to share your desktop/program/tab from browser, an online desktop sharing service.
You (the sharer) will have to create a free account and install on your browser their extension.
After you setup your options you will be given a link to give to the observer so he/she can connect via their browser.
No install or registration required for the observer. It all happens to their browser via the link you provide to them.
Your screen sharing can be public (via link) or private (via link that requires your code). You can also take screenshots while screen-sharing and save them for later (private or public) under screenleap/your-username/screenshots.
The only limitation is that the free account only offers 2-3 hours sharing per 24h.
Here's a tour of [how to share your screen with screenleap](http://www.screenleap.com/how-to-share-your-screen).
Keep in mind that it requires Java to be able to see the content of the page. |
803,034 | I want to set Firefox as the default browser on Ubuntu Touch so that links in Dekko, RSS reader, etc. open in Firefox instead of the Ubuntu touch browser. I can't find a "default browser" setting in the settings app. Setting Firefox to default inside Firefox does nothing.
I use some add-ons in Firefox as well as syncing tabs and bookmarks with my desktop, so I really don't want to be forced to use another browser by every link I open on Ubuntu touch.
I'm using the Bq M10 FHD with OTA 11. | 2016/07/26 | [
"https://askubuntu.com/questions/803034",
"https://askubuntu.com",
"https://askubuntu.com/users/167425/"
] | I found this WebRTC implementation that allows you to share a browser screen through the browser via a url. It is free software.
<https://www.webrtc-experiment.com/Pluginfree-Screen-Sharing/>
It should work in both Chromium and Firefox, but may require you to configure some additional settings in about:config. The observing user should not have to.
If one implementation does not work, there are other options available under the [demos page](https://www.webrtc-experiment.com/). These *are* all demos, but the source can be used to create your own solution as well if desired. | You can run skype like explained here: [Ubuntu Help / Skype](https://help.ubuntu.com/community/Skype), or you can run Microsoft-Windows in a virtual machine running. |
803,034 | I want to set Firefox as the default browser on Ubuntu Touch so that links in Dekko, RSS reader, etc. open in Firefox instead of the Ubuntu touch browser. I can't find a "default browser" setting in the settings app. Setting Firefox to default inside Firefox does nothing.
I use some add-ons in Firefox as well as syncing tabs and bookmarks with my desktop, so I really don't want to be forced to use another browser by every link I open on Ubuntu touch.
I'm using the Bq M10 FHD with OTA 11. | 2016/07/26 | [
"https://askubuntu.com/questions/803034",
"https://askubuntu.com",
"https://askubuntu.com/users/167425/"
] | There's an embedded feature in Mozilla Firefox, called Hello. It can be used for sharing your webpage to some other remote user which has Firefox on his side. OS isn't important. We checked it with my colleague, one with Ubuntu and another with Windows (just your case, right?). Absolutely open source solution.
You can chat using your headphones and microphone at the same time.
You'll find the description of this feature [here](https://www.mozilla.org/en-US/firefox/hello/).
If you need help in setup and troubleshooting, use this [link](https://support.mozilla.org/en-US/products/firefox/chat-and-share/firefox-hello-webrtc). | You could use [screenleap](http://www.screenleap.com/), to share your desktop/program/tab from browser, an online desktop sharing service.
You (the sharer) will have to create a free account and install on your browser their extension.
After you setup your options you will be given a link to give to the observer so he/she can connect via their browser.
No install or registration required for the observer. It all happens to their browser via the link you provide to them.
Your screen sharing can be public (via link) or private (via link that requires your code). You can also take screenshots while screen-sharing and save them for later (private or public) under screenleap/your-username/screenshots.
The only limitation is that the free account only offers 2-3 hours sharing per 24h.
Here's a tour of [how to share your screen with screenleap](http://www.screenleap.com/how-to-share-your-screen).
Keep in mind that it requires Java to be able to see the content of the page. |
803,034 | I want to set Firefox as the default browser on Ubuntu Touch so that links in Dekko, RSS reader, etc. open in Firefox instead of the Ubuntu touch browser. I can't find a "default browser" setting in the settings app. Setting Firefox to default inside Firefox does nothing.
I use some add-ons in Firefox as well as syncing tabs and bookmarks with my desktop, so I really don't want to be forced to use another browser by every link I open on Ubuntu touch.
I'm using the Bq M10 FHD with OTA 11. | 2016/07/26 | [
"https://askubuntu.com/questions/803034",
"https://askubuntu.com",
"https://askubuntu.com/users/167425/"
] | There's an embedded feature in Mozilla Firefox, called Hello. It can be used for sharing your webpage to some other remote user which has Firefox on his side. OS isn't important. We checked it with my colleague, one with Ubuntu and another with Windows (just your case, right?). Absolutely open source solution.
You can chat using your headphones and microphone at the same time.
You'll find the description of this feature [here](https://www.mozilla.org/en-US/firefox/hello/).
If you need help in setup and troubleshooting, use this [link](https://support.mozilla.org/en-US/products/firefox/chat-and-share/firefox-hello-webrtc). | You can run skype like explained here: [Ubuntu Help / Skype](https://help.ubuntu.com/community/Skype), or you can run Microsoft-Windows in a virtual machine running. |
803,034 | I want to set Firefox as the default browser on Ubuntu Touch so that links in Dekko, RSS reader, etc. open in Firefox instead of the Ubuntu touch browser. I can't find a "default browser" setting in the settings app. Setting Firefox to default inside Firefox does nothing.
I use some add-ons in Firefox as well as syncing tabs and bookmarks with my desktop, so I really don't want to be forced to use another browser by every link I open on Ubuntu touch.
I'm using the Bq M10 FHD with OTA 11. | 2016/07/26 | [
"https://askubuntu.com/questions/803034",
"https://askubuntu.com",
"https://askubuntu.com/users/167425/"
] | Heyyo, guettli. I too looked into this recently.
[Apache Guacamole](https://guacamole.incubator.apache.org/) claims to be "a clientless remote desktop gateway." Clientless, they say, means **no client software or plugins**. Guacamole is **open source** software.
[Ajax VNC](https://sourceforge.net/projects/ajaxvnc/) also claims to be "clientless" & "purely HTTP."
[Appear.in](https://appear.in/) requires no software, & is browser-based. Appear.in is my **1st recommendation** as it **meets your standards!** Also, it does not require login or installations on either side. You just need to set up a room. Voice & text chat, private rooms, & connect using link are nice features. Supported browsers are Google Chrome, Firefox, Vivaldi, & Opera.
[xrdp](http://www.xrdp.org/) is an open source remote desktop protocol(rdp) server. It is "capable of accepting connections from rdesktop, FreeRDP, and **Microsoft's** own terminal server / remote desktop clients."(xrdp.org/). It is based upon [FreeRDP](http://www.freerdp.org/) & [rdesktop](http://www.rdesktop.org/), and uses [Xvnc](http://www.tightvnc.com/Xvnc.1.php) or X11rdp for management of the X session. [X11rdp-o-Matic](https://github.com/scarygliders/X11RDP-o-Matic) will automatically setup X11rdp & xrdp for you. Xrdp is my 2nd **recommendation.**
*If* you decide that downloading would actually be okay, then I suggest [TeamViewer 11](http://www.teamviewer.com/%E2%80%8E). I personally use TeamViewer to help my cousin resolve computer issues. After getting to know how to use it, I love it! It supports Linux-Windows-Mac OS X. [Chrome Remote Desktop](https://chrome.google.com/webstore/detail/chrome-remote-desktop/gbchcmhmhahfdphkhkmpfmihenigjmpp?hl=en) would be my other suggestion *if* you do decide downloads are okay. | You could use [screenleap](http://www.screenleap.com/), to share your desktop/program/tab from browser, an online desktop sharing service.
You (the sharer) will have to create a free account and install on your browser their extension.
After you setup your options you will be given a link to give to the observer so he/she can connect via their browser.
No install or registration required for the observer. It all happens to their browser via the link you provide to them.
Your screen sharing can be public (via link) or private (via link that requires your code). You can also take screenshots while screen-sharing and save them for later (private or public) under screenleap/your-username/screenshots.
The only limitation is that the free account only offers 2-3 hours sharing per 24h.
Here's a tour of [how to share your screen with screenleap](http://www.screenleap.com/how-to-share-your-screen).
Keep in mind that it requires Java to be able to see the content of the page. |
803,034 | I want to set Firefox as the default browser on Ubuntu Touch so that links in Dekko, RSS reader, etc. open in Firefox instead of the Ubuntu touch browser. I can't find a "default browser" setting in the settings app. Setting Firefox to default inside Firefox does nothing.
I use some add-ons in Firefox as well as syncing tabs and bookmarks with my desktop, so I really don't want to be forced to use another browser by every link I open on Ubuntu touch.
I'm using the Bq M10 FHD with OTA 11. | 2016/07/26 | [
"https://askubuntu.com/questions/803034",
"https://askubuntu.com",
"https://askubuntu.com/users/167425/"
] | Heyyo, guettli. I too looked into this recently.
[Apache Guacamole](https://guacamole.incubator.apache.org/) claims to be "a clientless remote desktop gateway." Clientless, they say, means **no client software or plugins**. Guacamole is **open source** software.
[Ajax VNC](https://sourceforge.net/projects/ajaxvnc/) also claims to be "clientless" & "purely HTTP."
[Appear.in](https://appear.in/) requires no software, & is browser-based. Appear.in is my **1st recommendation** as it **meets your standards!** Also, it does not require login or installations on either side. You just need to set up a room. Voice & text chat, private rooms, & connect using link are nice features. Supported browsers are Google Chrome, Firefox, Vivaldi, & Opera.
[xrdp](http://www.xrdp.org/) is an open source remote desktop protocol(rdp) server. It is "capable of accepting connections from rdesktop, FreeRDP, and **Microsoft's** own terminal server / remote desktop clients."(xrdp.org/). It is based upon [FreeRDP](http://www.freerdp.org/) & [rdesktop](http://www.rdesktop.org/), and uses [Xvnc](http://www.tightvnc.com/Xvnc.1.php) or X11rdp for management of the X session. [X11rdp-o-Matic](https://github.com/scarygliders/X11RDP-o-Matic) will automatically setup X11rdp & xrdp for you. Xrdp is my 2nd **recommendation.**
*If* you decide that downloading would actually be okay, then I suggest [TeamViewer 11](http://www.teamviewer.com/%E2%80%8E). I personally use TeamViewer to help my cousin resolve computer issues. After getting to know how to use it, I love it! It supports Linux-Windows-Mac OS X. [Chrome Remote Desktop](https://chrome.google.com/webstore/detail/chrome-remote-desktop/gbchcmhmhahfdphkhkmpfmihenigjmpp?hl=en) would be my other suggestion *if* you do decide downloads are okay. | You can run skype like explained here: [Ubuntu Help / Skype](https://help.ubuntu.com/community/Skype), or you can run Microsoft-Windows in a virtual machine running. |
331,380 | I'm looking for a synonym for the term "chameleon" as applied to a person who easily fits in anywhere by altering their demeanor in a respectful positive and aware way, not with malicious intent. All ideas appreciated! | 2016/06/07 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/331380",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/179858/"
] | It's interesting that you mention you don't want it to be a negative term, since most usages tend to be.
I suggest [**changeable**](http://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/changeable)
>
> able to change or be changed
>
>
>
as a value-neutral alternative. | A chameleon could also be a mimic:
>
> verb (used with object), mimicked, mimicking.
>
>
> 1.to imitate or copy in action, speech, etc., often playfully or derisively.
>
>
> 2.to imitate in a servile or unthinking way; ape.
>
>
> 3.to be an imitation of; simulate; resemble closely.
>
>
> noun
>
>
> 4.a person who mimics, especially a performer skilled in mimicking others.
>
>
> 5.a copy or imitation of something.
>
>
>
-Dictionary.com
Alternatively, the person could be a shape-shifter.
>
> one that seems able to change form or identity at will; especially :
>
> a mythical figure that can assume different forms (as of animals)
>
>
>
-Merriam-Webster |
331,380 | I'm looking for a synonym for the term "chameleon" as applied to a person who easily fits in anywhere by altering their demeanor in a respectful positive and aware way, not with malicious intent. All ideas appreciated! | 2016/06/07 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/331380",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/179858/"
] | [**"adjustable"**](http://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/adjustable) and [**"adaptable"**](http://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/adaptable) (the latter mentioned in a comment by FumbleFingers) come to mind.
>
> **adjustable** - able to be changed to suit particular needs [CDO](http://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/adjustable)
>
>
> * "In talking about the more adjustable personality of the middle born child..."
> * "A positive, easily adjustable personality, with a streak of modesty." [from Google Books](https://www.google.com.br/webhp?sourceid=chrome-instant&ion=1&espv=2&ie=UTF-8#tbm=bks&q=%22adjustable+personality%22)
>
>
> **adaptable** - able to change or be changed in order to fit or work better in some situation or for some purpose.
>
>
> * "The highly adaptable person meets the other person's needs and his own." [The Platinum Rule](https://books.google.com.br/books?id=lhQsgWMGanYC&pg=PT82&dq=%22adaptable+person%22&hl=pt-BR&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwjPjJaGxJbNAhUMJiYKHajDCpUQ6AEIMzAD#v=onepage&q=%22adaptable%20person%22&f=false)
> * "An adaptable child learns to recognize the internal state of distress and hyperarousal, then finds ways to inhibit the arousal..." [Effective Parenting for the Hard-to-Manage Child](https://books.google.com.br/books?id=Fs2SAgAAQBAJ&pg=PA8&dq=%22adaptable+child%22&hl=pt-BR&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwiE04DixJbNAhVDTSYKHQvHDyIQ6AEIJTAB#v=onepage&q=%22adaptable%20child%22&f=false)
>
>
> | It's interesting that you mention you don't want it to be a negative term, since most usages tend to be.
I suggest [**changeable**](http://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/changeable)
>
> able to change or be changed
>
>
>
as a value-neutral alternative. |
331,380 | I'm looking for a synonym for the term "chameleon" as applied to a person who easily fits in anywhere by altering their demeanor in a respectful positive and aware way, not with malicious intent. All ideas appreciated! | 2016/06/07 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/331380",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/179858/"
] | A person who switches demeanor or word choice to fit into different groups at different times is [code switching](http://www.npr.org/sections/codeswitch/2013/04/08/176064688/how-code-switching-explains-the-world) in the sociological (not linguistic) sense. From the NPR article:
>
> When you're attuned to the phenomenon of code-switching, you start to see it everywhere, and you begin to see the way race, ethnicity and culture plays out all over the place.
>
>
> | It's interesting that you mention you don't want it to be a negative term, since most usages tend to be.
I suggest [**changeable**](http://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/changeable)
>
> able to change or be changed
>
>
>
as a value-neutral alternative. |
331,380 | I'm looking for a synonym for the term "chameleon" as applied to a person who easily fits in anywhere by altering their demeanor in a respectful positive and aware way, not with malicious intent. All ideas appreciated! | 2016/06/07 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/331380",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/179858/"
] | It's interesting that you mention you don't want it to be a negative term, since most usages tend to be.
I suggest [**changeable**](http://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/changeable)
>
> able to change or be changed
>
>
>
as a value-neutral alternative. | This is for a translation from French to English, where the French uses the term "cameleon." The client prefers to maintain "chameleon" in English as well... despite the potential negative connotations. Thank you for all the input! |
331,380 | I'm looking for a synonym for the term "chameleon" as applied to a person who easily fits in anywhere by altering their demeanor in a respectful positive and aware way, not with malicious intent. All ideas appreciated! | 2016/06/07 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/331380",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/179858/"
] | [**"adjustable"**](http://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/adjustable) and [**"adaptable"**](http://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/adaptable) (the latter mentioned in a comment by FumbleFingers) come to mind.
>
> **adjustable** - able to be changed to suit particular needs [CDO](http://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/adjustable)
>
>
> * "In talking about the more adjustable personality of the middle born child..."
> * "A positive, easily adjustable personality, with a streak of modesty." [from Google Books](https://www.google.com.br/webhp?sourceid=chrome-instant&ion=1&espv=2&ie=UTF-8#tbm=bks&q=%22adjustable+personality%22)
>
>
> **adaptable** - able to change or be changed in order to fit or work better in some situation or for some purpose.
>
>
> * "The highly adaptable person meets the other person's needs and his own." [The Platinum Rule](https://books.google.com.br/books?id=lhQsgWMGanYC&pg=PT82&dq=%22adaptable+person%22&hl=pt-BR&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwjPjJaGxJbNAhUMJiYKHajDCpUQ6AEIMzAD#v=onepage&q=%22adaptable%20person%22&f=false)
> * "An adaptable child learns to recognize the internal state of distress and hyperarousal, then finds ways to inhibit the arousal..." [Effective Parenting for the Hard-to-Manage Child](https://books.google.com.br/books?id=Fs2SAgAAQBAJ&pg=PA8&dq=%22adaptable+child%22&hl=pt-BR&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwiE04DixJbNAhVDTSYKHQvHDyIQ6AEIJTAB#v=onepage&q=%22adaptable%20child%22&f=false)
>
>
> | A chameleon could also be a mimic:
>
> verb (used with object), mimicked, mimicking.
>
>
> 1.to imitate or copy in action, speech, etc., often playfully or derisively.
>
>
> 2.to imitate in a servile or unthinking way; ape.
>
>
> 3.to be an imitation of; simulate; resemble closely.
>
>
> noun
>
>
> 4.a person who mimics, especially a performer skilled in mimicking others.
>
>
> 5.a copy or imitation of something.
>
>
>
-Dictionary.com
Alternatively, the person could be a shape-shifter.
>
> one that seems able to change form or identity at will; especially :
>
> a mythical figure that can assume different forms (as of animals)
>
>
>
-Merriam-Webster |
331,380 | I'm looking for a synonym for the term "chameleon" as applied to a person who easily fits in anywhere by altering their demeanor in a respectful positive and aware way, not with malicious intent. All ideas appreciated! | 2016/06/07 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/331380",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/179858/"
] | A person who switches demeanor or word choice to fit into different groups at different times is [code switching](http://www.npr.org/sections/codeswitch/2013/04/08/176064688/how-code-switching-explains-the-world) in the sociological (not linguistic) sense. From the NPR article:
>
> When you're attuned to the phenomenon of code-switching, you start to see it everywhere, and you begin to see the way race, ethnicity and culture plays out all over the place.
>
>
> | A chameleon could also be a mimic:
>
> verb (used with object), mimicked, mimicking.
>
>
> 1.to imitate or copy in action, speech, etc., often playfully or derisively.
>
>
> 2.to imitate in a servile or unthinking way; ape.
>
>
> 3.to be an imitation of; simulate; resemble closely.
>
>
> noun
>
>
> 4.a person who mimics, especially a performer skilled in mimicking others.
>
>
> 5.a copy or imitation of something.
>
>
>
-Dictionary.com
Alternatively, the person could be a shape-shifter.
>
> one that seems able to change form or identity at will; especially :
>
> a mythical figure that can assume different forms (as of animals)
>
>
>
-Merriam-Webster |
331,380 | I'm looking for a synonym for the term "chameleon" as applied to a person who easily fits in anywhere by altering their demeanor in a respectful positive and aware way, not with malicious intent. All ideas appreciated! | 2016/06/07 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/331380",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/179858/"
] | A person who switches demeanor or word choice to fit into different groups at different times is [code switching](http://www.npr.org/sections/codeswitch/2013/04/08/176064688/how-code-switching-explains-the-world) in the sociological (not linguistic) sense. From the NPR article:
>
> When you're attuned to the phenomenon of code-switching, you start to see it everywhere, and you begin to see the way race, ethnicity and culture plays out all over the place.
>
>
> | [**"adjustable"**](http://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/adjustable) and [**"adaptable"**](http://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/adaptable) (the latter mentioned in a comment by FumbleFingers) come to mind.
>
> **adjustable** - able to be changed to suit particular needs [CDO](http://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/adjustable)
>
>
> * "In talking about the more adjustable personality of the middle born child..."
> * "A positive, easily adjustable personality, with a streak of modesty." [from Google Books](https://www.google.com.br/webhp?sourceid=chrome-instant&ion=1&espv=2&ie=UTF-8#tbm=bks&q=%22adjustable+personality%22)
>
>
> **adaptable** - able to change or be changed in order to fit or work better in some situation or for some purpose.
>
>
> * "The highly adaptable person meets the other person's needs and his own." [The Platinum Rule](https://books.google.com.br/books?id=lhQsgWMGanYC&pg=PT82&dq=%22adaptable+person%22&hl=pt-BR&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwjPjJaGxJbNAhUMJiYKHajDCpUQ6AEIMzAD#v=onepage&q=%22adaptable%20person%22&f=false)
> * "An adaptable child learns to recognize the internal state of distress and hyperarousal, then finds ways to inhibit the arousal..." [Effective Parenting for the Hard-to-Manage Child](https://books.google.com.br/books?id=Fs2SAgAAQBAJ&pg=PA8&dq=%22adaptable+child%22&hl=pt-BR&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwiE04DixJbNAhVDTSYKHQvHDyIQ6AEIJTAB#v=onepage&q=%22adaptable%20child%22&f=false)
>
>
> |
331,380 | I'm looking for a synonym for the term "chameleon" as applied to a person who easily fits in anywhere by altering their demeanor in a respectful positive and aware way, not with malicious intent. All ideas appreciated! | 2016/06/07 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/331380",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/179858/"
] | [**"adjustable"**](http://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/adjustable) and [**"adaptable"**](http://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/adaptable) (the latter mentioned in a comment by FumbleFingers) come to mind.
>
> **adjustable** - able to be changed to suit particular needs [CDO](http://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/adjustable)
>
>
> * "In talking about the more adjustable personality of the middle born child..."
> * "A positive, easily adjustable personality, with a streak of modesty." [from Google Books](https://www.google.com.br/webhp?sourceid=chrome-instant&ion=1&espv=2&ie=UTF-8#tbm=bks&q=%22adjustable+personality%22)
>
>
> **adaptable** - able to change or be changed in order to fit or work better in some situation or for some purpose.
>
>
> * "The highly adaptable person meets the other person's needs and his own." [The Platinum Rule](https://books.google.com.br/books?id=lhQsgWMGanYC&pg=PT82&dq=%22adaptable+person%22&hl=pt-BR&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwjPjJaGxJbNAhUMJiYKHajDCpUQ6AEIMzAD#v=onepage&q=%22adaptable%20person%22&f=false)
> * "An adaptable child learns to recognize the internal state of distress and hyperarousal, then finds ways to inhibit the arousal..." [Effective Parenting for the Hard-to-Manage Child](https://books.google.com.br/books?id=Fs2SAgAAQBAJ&pg=PA8&dq=%22adaptable+child%22&hl=pt-BR&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwiE04DixJbNAhVDTSYKHQvHDyIQ6AEIJTAB#v=onepage&q=%22adaptable%20child%22&f=false)
>
>
> | This is for a translation from French to English, where the French uses the term "cameleon." The client prefers to maintain "chameleon" in English as well... despite the potential negative connotations. Thank you for all the input! |
331,380 | I'm looking for a synonym for the term "chameleon" as applied to a person who easily fits in anywhere by altering their demeanor in a respectful positive and aware way, not with malicious intent. All ideas appreciated! | 2016/06/07 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/331380",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/179858/"
] | A person who switches demeanor or word choice to fit into different groups at different times is [code switching](http://www.npr.org/sections/codeswitch/2013/04/08/176064688/how-code-switching-explains-the-world) in the sociological (not linguistic) sense. From the NPR article:
>
> When you're attuned to the phenomenon of code-switching, you start to see it everywhere, and you begin to see the way race, ethnicity and culture plays out all over the place.
>
>
> | This is for a translation from French to English, where the French uses the term "cameleon." The client prefers to maintain "chameleon" in English as well... despite the potential negative connotations. Thank you for all the input! |
338,736 | The plural of *mouse* is *mice*, and the plural of *louse* is *lice*. Why is the plural form of *house* not *hice*?
According to [Merriam-Webster](http://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/house), the word house is already longer in the language, just as mouse and louse, so it is not because it is a foreign word (loanword).
This question was marked to be a duplicate of ["Goose"–"geese" vs. "moose"–"moose"](https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/111728/goose-geese-vs-moose-moose) and [Why is the plural form of Moose not Meese?](https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/338695/why-is-the-plural-form-of-moose-not-meese), but it is actually a duplicate of neither since they handle different words, and also different causes. | 2016/07/22 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/338736",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/133955/"
] | *house* comes from Old English/Old Saxon *hūs* and *mouse* comes from Old English/Old Saxon *mūs* (pronounced like the animal *moose*), but only the latter experienced the phenomenon known as "i-mutation", where the /u/ sound shifts to an /i/ [then eventually becoming /aɪ/] sound when the noun becomes plural as a shortcut in pronouncing it faster.
So *mice* used to be pronounced /my:s/ in Old English (similar to the ending sound of the word *few*), before the /y:/ changed to /i:/ in Middle English (similar to modern facetious pronunciation of plural *meese* for the animal *moose*) and then to /aɪ/ in late Middle/Early Modern English, where it eventually came to be pronounced like the word *nice*.
---
[etymonline: house](http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?term=house&allowed_in_frame=0)
[etymonline: mouse](http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?term=mouse&allowed_in_frame=0)
>
> Plural form mice (Old English mys) shows effects of i-mutation:
>
>
> [etymonline: i-mutation](http://www.etymonline.com/imutate.php)
>
>
>
---
[Wiktionary on Old English mūs](https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/mus#Old_English)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/MDhC6.png)
[Wiktionary on Old Saxon hūs](https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/hus#Old_Saxon)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/pnNLA.png)
---
...while *house* didn't go down the "i-mutation" path for whatever reason, probably because there wasn't much need back then to pluralize *house* while *mice* were everywhere, and were much more colloquial. Think about it: how often do you actually use the word ***houses***?
---
Some English dialects even had *housen* as the plural of *house*:
[Wiktionary ~ from Middle English *housen*](https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/housen#English)
--- | It would take a linguist to give you a precisely accurate answer, and I am not one. However, I have what I'll call an educated guess.
Ask yourself how often someone from the 19th century or before would have had occasion to talk about more than one house? Not very often, I'm guessing. Particularly when compared to mice and lice. :)
Living languages are about usage, and the odd forms fall away if they're not used. There used to be a lot more strong verbs in English than there are today, but we sort of "forgot" those forms through disuse and then normalized them. I assume the same is true of irregular plurals.
As an example, think of words that end in the 'f' sound: thief, knife, hoof, wolf. Most of them pluralize with a 'v'. But there are some exceptions: roof, grief... Now ask yourself how often *anyone* (other than a roofer) has occasion to talk about more than one roof at the same time. |
338,736 | The plural of *mouse* is *mice*, and the plural of *louse* is *lice*. Why is the plural form of *house* not *hice*?
According to [Merriam-Webster](http://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/house), the word house is already longer in the language, just as mouse and louse, so it is not because it is a foreign word (loanword).
This question was marked to be a duplicate of ["Goose"–"geese" vs. "moose"–"moose"](https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/111728/goose-geese-vs-moose-moose) and [Why is the plural form of Moose not Meese?](https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/338695/why-is-the-plural-form-of-moose-not-meese), but it is actually a duplicate of neither since they handle different words, and also different causes. | 2016/07/22 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/338736",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/133955/"
] | The simple answer is that you’re asking the question the wrong way about. In language, the central and most important way to inflect words is always what might be termed the ‘regular’ ones. The patterns that occur most frequently and are most flexible and applicable to the most roots. In English, the regular pluralising pattern is adding /z/ (with some assimilation and epenthesis rules). Everything else is **irregular**, including *mouse/mice* and *louse/lice*. So really, it makes more sense to ask why those aren’t *mouses* and *louses* in the plural.
If we look at it from a slightly more abstract angle and ask why these three words who are identical in the singular (except for the initial consonant) are different in the plural, we can answer it more usefully.
Let’s start with *house(s)*. The reason why the plural of *house* is *houses* is that that ending is the regular pattern.1 That simple. In earlier stages of English, *house* had different plurals; but it was regularised to fit in with the most basic pattern of adding /z/. If we go back to Old English, the word was *hūs* (pronounced /huːs/, like ‘hooce’ in Modern English), and the plural was also *hūs*.
*Mouse* and *louse* were similarly *mūs* /muːs/ and *lūs* /luːs/ (like *moose* and *loose*) in Old English, but their plurals were *mȳs* /myːs/ and *lȳs* /lyːs/, respectively.
So why this difference?
Well, *hūs* is a **neuter noun** in Old English, while both *mūs* and *lūs* are **feminine nouns**. V0ight’s answer has already mentioned *i*-mutation (also known as *i*-affection), which is the historical cause of the different vowel in the plural of the latter two words. Historically, in [Proto-Germanic](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proto-Germanic_language), the plural ended in *-iz* (pronounced much like ‘-eez’ would be in English), and the high front vowel /i/ in that ending caused the preceding vowel to assimilate, to become more ‘ee-like’. And an /u/ that becomes more ‘ee-like’ almost always becomes /y/, as indeed it did in English. At some pre-English point in time, this final syllable was lost, but the change it had caused in the preceding vowel remained.
But this ‘ee-like’ plural ending was only used in the masculine and feminine genders; not in the neuter. In the neuter, there were various other ways of forming a plural, including not adding an ending at all. We can see from various comparative evidence that an earlier form of *hūs* also had an extra syllable lost by the time of Old English, but in *hūs*, the vowel in that extra syllable was an /a/, not an /i/ (Proto-Germanic *\*hūsa-* was an [*a*-stem](https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/Reconstruction:Proto-Germanic/h%C5%ABs%C4%85), so its plural would have been *\*hūsō*). Since there was no /i/, there was nothing to cause the *i*-mutation and change the /ū/ to /ȳ/.
So if we take it chronologically, starting from the Proto-Germanic stage, the development *house* and *mouse* went through went something like this (giving *singular > plural* pairs):
>
> 1. *hūsa-* > *hūsō* // *mūs* > *mūsiz* (pre-English/Proto-Germanic: starting point)
> 2. *hūsa-* > *hūso* // *mūs* > *mȳsi(z)* (pre-English: *i*-mutation, final syllables weakened)
> 3. *hūs* > *hūs* // *mūs* > *mȳs* (~ Old English: loss of final syllables)
> 4. *hūs* > *hūs* // *mūs* > *mīs* (late Old English: unrounding of /y/ to /i/)
> 5. *həus* > *həus(en/es)* // *məus* > *məis* (Middle/Early Modern English: [Great Vowel Shift diphthongisation](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Great_Vowel_Shift) of /uː/ and /iː/ to /əu/ and /əi/; *house* starts getting an explicit plural)
> 6. *haʊs* ⟨house⟩ > *haʊzəs* ⟨houses⟩ // *maʊs* ⟨mouse⟩ > *maɪs* ⟨mice⟩ (Modern English: diphthongisation continued to /aʊ, aɪ/; alternative plurals of *house* disappear, leaving just one, regular plural)
>
>
>
If we focus on steps 3 and 4 here, you can see that *hūs* was the same in the singular and the plural, while *mūs* had a separate plural.
It is not uncommon for words that are under-marked (i.e., have different forms that are identical) to become marked (develop separate forms to make them less ambiguous), and that is indeed what happened to *hūs* here: people started applying the standard pattern of adding *-es* or *-en* (another formerly very common ending) to make it clearer that it’s a plural. That wasn’t (as) necessary for *mūs*, though, since the singular and plural forms were actually different there.
It does sometimes happen that a regular word becomes irregular if there is enough pressure (for example, *dive* has developed the past tense *dove* in American English because of the similarity to *drove*, *strove*, *throve*), but it is much, much more common that unpredictable, irregular forms are lost in favour of regular forms—so if anything were to happen in future to make the three words in this question the same, the expected development would be that *mouse* and *louse* become *mouses* and *louses*.
---
1 The *ending* is regular; the form as a whole is slightly irregular, since the stem-final consonant /s/ is most commonly (though not consistently) voiced before the plural ending. This is a pattern found with many words that end in unvoiced fricatives (/f θ s/); cf. *mouth* /maʊθ/ ~ *mouths* /maʊðz/, *life* /laɪf/ ~ *lives* /laivz/. For all three consonants, though, the plural voicing is sporadic and only happens sometimes—there is no rule. | It would take a linguist to give you a precisely accurate answer, and I am not one. However, I have what I'll call an educated guess.
Ask yourself how often someone from the 19th century or before would have had occasion to talk about more than one house? Not very often, I'm guessing. Particularly when compared to mice and lice. :)
Living languages are about usage, and the odd forms fall away if they're not used. There used to be a lot more strong verbs in English than there are today, but we sort of "forgot" those forms through disuse and then normalized them. I assume the same is true of irregular plurals.
As an example, think of words that end in the 'f' sound: thief, knife, hoof, wolf. Most of them pluralize with a 'v'. But there are some exceptions: roof, grief... Now ask yourself how often *anyone* (other than a roofer) has occasion to talk about more than one roof at the same time. |
338,736 | The plural of *mouse* is *mice*, and the plural of *louse* is *lice*. Why is the plural form of *house* not *hice*?
According to [Merriam-Webster](http://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/house), the word house is already longer in the language, just as mouse and louse, so it is not because it is a foreign word (loanword).
This question was marked to be a duplicate of ["Goose"–"geese" vs. "moose"–"moose"](https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/111728/goose-geese-vs-moose-moose) and [Why is the plural form of Moose not Meese?](https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/338695/why-is-the-plural-form-of-moose-not-meese), but it is actually a duplicate of neither since they handle different words, and also different causes. | 2016/07/22 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/338736",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/133955/"
] | The simple answer is that you’re asking the question the wrong way about. In language, the central and most important way to inflect words is always what might be termed the ‘regular’ ones. The patterns that occur most frequently and are most flexible and applicable to the most roots. In English, the regular pluralising pattern is adding /z/ (with some assimilation and epenthesis rules). Everything else is **irregular**, including *mouse/mice* and *louse/lice*. So really, it makes more sense to ask why those aren’t *mouses* and *louses* in the plural.
If we look at it from a slightly more abstract angle and ask why these three words who are identical in the singular (except for the initial consonant) are different in the plural, we can answer it more usefully.
Let’s start with *house(s)*. The reason why the plural of *house* is *houses* is that that ending is the regular pattern.1 That simple. In earlier stages of English, *house* had different plurals; but it was regularised to fit in with the most basic pattern of adding /z/. If we go back to Old English, the word was *hūs* (pronounced /huːs/, like ‘hooce’ in Modern English), and the plural was also *hūs*.
*Mouse* and *louse* were similarly *mūs* /muːs/ and *lūs* /luːs/ (like *moose* and *loose*) in Old English, but their plurals were *mȳs* /myːs/ and *lȳs* /lyːs/, respectively.
So why this difference?
Well, *hūs* is a **neuter noun** in Old English, while both *mūs* and *lūs* are **feminine nouns**. V0ight’s answer has already mentioned *i*-mutation (also known as *i*-affection), which is the historical cause of the different vowel in the plural of the latter two words. Historically, in [Proto-Germanic](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proto-Germanic_language), the plural ended in *-iz* (pronounced much like ‘-eez’ would be in English), and the high front vowel /i/ in that ending caused the preceding vowel to assimilate, to become more ‘ee-like’. And an /u/ that becomes more ‘ee-like’ almost always becomes /y/, as indeed it did in English. At some pre-English point in time, this final syllable was lost, but the change it had caused in the preceding vowel remained.
But this ‘ee-like’ plural ending was only used in the masculine and feminine genders; not in the neuter. In the neuter, there were various other ways of forming a plural, including not adding an ending at all. We can see from various comparative evidence that an earlier form of *hūs* also had an extra syllable lost by the time of Old English, but in *hūs*, the vowel in that extra syllable was an /a/, not an /i/ (Proto-Germanic *\*hūsa-* was an [*a*-stem](https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/Reconstruction:Proto-Germanic/h%C5%ABs%C4%85), so its plural would have been *\*hūsō*). Since there was no /i/, there was nothing to cause the *i*-mutation and change the /ū/ to /ȳ/.
So if we take it chronologically, starting from the Proto-Germanic stage, the development *house* and *mouse* went through went something like this (giving *singular > plural* pairs):
>
> 1. *hūsa-* > *hūsō* // *mūs* > *mūsiz* (pre-English/Proto-Germanic: starting point)
> 2. *hūsa-* > *hūso* // *mūs* > *mȳsi(z)* (pre-English: *i*-mutation, final syllables weakened)
> 3. *hūs* > *hūs* // *mūs* > *mȳs* (~ Old English: loss of final syllables)
> 4. *hūs* > *hūs* // *mūs* > *mīs* (late Old English: unrounding of /y/ to /i/)
> 5. *həus* > *həus(en/es)* // *məus* > *məis* (Middle/Early Modern English: [Great Vowel Shift diphthongisation](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Great_Vowel_Shift) of /uː/ and /iː/ to /əu/ and /əi/; *house* starts getting an explicit plural)
> 6. *haʊs* ⟨house⟩ > *haʊzəs* ⟨houses⟩ // *maʊs* ⟨mouse⟩ > *maɪs* ⟨mice⟩ (Modern English: diphthongisation continued to /aʊ, aɪ/; alternative plurals of *house* disappear, leaving just one, regular plural)
>
>
>
If we focus on steps 3 and 4 here, you can see that *hūs* was the same in the singular and the plural, while *mūs* had a separate plural.
It is not uncommon for words that are under-marked (i.e., have different forms that are identical) to become marked (develop separate forms to make them less ambiguous), and that is indeed what happened to *hūs* here: people started applying the standard pattern of adding *-es* or *-en* (another formerly very common ending) to make it clearer that it’s a plural. That wasn’t (as) necessary for *mūs*, though, since the singular and plural forms were actually different there.
It does sometimes happen that a regular word becomes irregular if there is enough pressure (for example, *dive* has developed the past tense *dove* in American English because of the similarity to *drove*, *strove*, *throve*), but it is much, much more common that unpredictable, irregular forms are lost in favour of regular forms—so if anything were to happen in future to make the three words in this question the same, the expected development would be that *mouse* and *louse* become *mouses* and *louses*.
---
1 The *ending* is regular; the form as a whole is slightly irregular, since the stem-final consonant /s/ is most commonly (though not consistently) voiced before the plural ending. This is a pattern found with many words that end in unvoiced fricatives (/f θ s/); cf. *mouth* /maʊθ/ ~ *mouths* /maʊðz/, *life* /laɪf/ ~ *lives* /laivz/. For all three consonants, though, the plural voicing is sporadic and only happens sometimes—there is no rule. | *house* comes from Old English/Old Saxon *hūs* and *mouse* comes from Old English/Old Saxon *mūs* (pronounced like the animal *moose*), but only the latter experienced the phenomenon known as "i-mutation", where the /u/ sound shifts to an /i/ [then eventually becoming /aɪ/] sound when the noun becomes plural as a shortcut in pronouncing it faster.
So *mice* used to be pronounced /my:s/ in Old English (similar to the ending sound of the word *few*), before the /y:/ changed to /i:/ in Middle English (similar to modern facetious pronunciation of plural *meese* for the animal *moose*) and then to /aɪ/ in late Middle/Early Modern English, where it eventually came to be pronounced like the word *nice*.
---
[etymonline: house](http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?term=house&allowed_in_frame=0)
[etymonline: mouse](http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?term=mouse&allowed_in_frame=0)
>
> Plural form mice (Old English mys) shows effects of i-mutation:
>
>
> [etymonline: i-mutation](http://www.etymonline.com/imutate.php)
>
>
>
---
[Wiktionary on Old English mūs](https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/mus#Old_English)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/MDhC6.png)
[Wiktionary on Old Saxon hūs](https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/hus#Old_Saxon)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/pnNLA.png)
---
...while *house* didn't go down the "i-mutation" path for whatever reason, probably because there wasn't much need back then to pluralize *house* while *mice* were everywhere, and were much more colloquial. Think about it: how often do you actually use the word ***houses***?
---
Some English dialects even had *housen* as the plural of *house*:
[Wiktionary ~ from Middle English *housen*](https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/housen#English)
--- |
268,244 | Can these phrases be used interchangeably?
>
> 1. "English accent"
>
>
>
>
> 2. "Accent of English"
>
>
>
>
> 3. "Accent in English"
>
>
>
Context: What I try to mean is, pronunciation of English. I don't try to mean a particular British accent by, "English accent." For example, let's say some nonnative English speaker speaks English a lot like Americans, can I say those three phrases interchangeably to refer to his English? Like in "I like his English accent/accent of English/accent in English" I think 1, and 2 are okay, but 1 can be ambiguous depending on the case. I am not as sure about 3. I am not very sure about 2 either actually. | 2020/12/11 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/268244",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/65554/"
] | It will be easier to make a judgement if we switch to another language.
For example:
"He has a very good accent when he speaks Italian."
OK
"He speaks with an excellent Italian accent." (1)
OK
"I like his Italian accent." (1)
OK
"I like his accent of Italian" (2)
No, definitely not.
"I like his accent in Italian" (3)
No, although it sounds less wrong than "of Italian".
---
There's another issue with your original question, which is that you asked about English.
Let's say the speaker is Chinese. Rather than saying he has a good English accent, it's more common to say "He speaks excellent English, he doesn't have much of an accent. (a Chinese accent)." When speaking English, an accent refers to the foreign accent. If someone speaks perfectly, then they have no accent. | "English accent" would be by far the most common.
You would never hear "accent of English". Not necessarily because its wrong. It's not really wrong as much as it is in a form no one would ever use. I know some languages work that way like Japanese for nouns and adjectives in general, but for this particular example, English does not.
I am pretty sure "accent in English" is just wrong. It never occurred to me that someone might put it that way. Weirdly enough though, "What accent does he speak in?" doesn't sound so bad to me, natural even. But "what accent does he speak with?" sound better if I actually have to stop to think about it. |
268,244 | Can these phrases be used interchangeably?
>
> 1. "English accent"
>
>
>
>
> 2. "Accent of English"
>
>
>
>
> 3. "Accent in English"
>
>
>
Context: What I try to mean is, pronunciation of English. I don't try to mean a particular British accent by, "English accent." For example, let's say some nonnative English speaker speaks English a lot like Americans, can I say those three phrases interchangeably to refer to his English? Like in "I like his English accent/accent of English/accent in English" I think 1, and 2 are okay, but 1 can be ambiguous depending on the case. I am not as sure about 3. I am not very sure about 2 either actually. | 2020/12/11 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/268244",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/65554/"
] | The first thing you need to understand is that 'English' is both a nationality and a language. I'm English, because I was born in England. I'm also British, because England is part of Britain. I speak English, so I'm a native *British English* speaker.
How you use expressions like 'English accent' is all relative. An American might say that I had either an 'English accent' or a 'British accent'. But someone from Scotland, which is also part of Britain, would definitely say I had an 'English' accent.
Speaking with an accent is not the same as the language you use. In American English there are some words used differently from British English, but you could still say an American word in a British accent, and vice-versa. For example, an American calls the front of a car a 'hood' while we call it a 'bonnet', but both these words exist in both languages and different accents put differing inflections on them.
Someone from a non-English-speaking country may not be able to differentiate between different types of accents, such as British English and American English. They may not comment on the accent of someone speaking English and just say "they are *speaking* English". But if the same person spoke *their* language, they may say, for example, "he speaks French with an English accent".
To sum up, an "English accent" could mean that someone's accent reflects their English nationality, or it could mean that someone is speaking another language with the accent of someone whose native language is a type of English. Of your three options, only the first is really idiomatic in true reference to someone's accent while speaking English. If you were more specific about what you were really trying to say there may be other idiomatic ways to express that. | "English accent" would be by far the most common.
You would never hear "accent of English". Not necessarily because its wrong. It's not really wrong as much as it is in a form no one would ever use. I know some languages work that way like Japanese for nouns and adjectives in general, but for this particular example, English does not.
I am pretty sure "accent in English" is just wrong. It never occurred to me that someone might put it that way. Weirdly enough though, "What accent does he speak in?" doesn't sound so bad to me, natural even. But "what accent does he speak with?" sound better if I actually have to stop to think about it. |
268,244 | Can these phrases be used interchangeably?
>
> 1. "English accent"
>
>
>
>
> 2. "Accent of English"
>
>
>
>
> 3. "Accent in English"
>
>
>
Context: What I try to mean is, pronunciation of English. I don't try to mean a particular British accent by, "English accent." For example, let's say some nonnative English speaker speaks English a lot like Americans, can I say those three phrases interchangeably to refer to his English? Like in "I like his English accent/accent of English/accent in English" I think 1, and 2 are okay, but 1 can be ambiguous depending on the case. I am not as sure about 3. I am not very sure about 2 either actually. | 2020/12/11 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/268244",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/65554/"
] | The first thing you need to understand is that 'English' is both a nationality and a language. I'm English, because I was born in England. I'm also British, because England is part of Britain. I speak English, so I'm a native *British English* speaker.
How you use expressions like 'English accent' is all relative. An American might say that I had either an 'English accent' or a 'British accent'. But someone from Scotland, which is also part of Britain, would definitely say I had an 'English' accent.
Speaking with an accent is not the same as the language you use. In American English there are some words used differently from British English, but you could still say an American word in a British accent, and vice-versa. For example, an American calls the front of a car a 'hood' while we call it a 'bonnet', but both these words exist in both languages and different accents put differing inflections on them.
Someone from a non-English-speaking country may not be able to differentiate between different types of accents, such as British English and American English. They may not comment on the accent of someone speaking English and just say "they are *speaking* English". But if the same person spoke *their* language, they may say, for example, "he speaks French with an English accent".
To sum up, an "English accent" could mean that someone's accent reflects their English nationality, or it could mean that someone is speaking another language with the accent of someone whose native language is a type of English. Of your three options, only the first is really idiomatic in true reference to someone's accent while speaking English. If you were more specific about what you were really trying to say there may be other idiomatic ways to express that. | It will be easier to make a judgement if we switch to another language.
For example:
"He has a very good accent when he speaks Italian."
OK
"He speaks with an excellent Italian accent." (1)
OK
"I like his Italian accent." (1)
OK
"I like his accent of Italian" (2)
No, definitely not.
"I like his accent in Italian" (3)
No, although it sounds less wrong than "of Italian".
---
There's another issue with your original question, which is that you asked about English.
Let's say the speaker is Chinese. Rather than saying he has a good English accent, it's more common to say "He speaks excellent English, he doesn't have much of an accent. (a Chinese accent)." When speaking English, an accent refers to the foreign accent. If someone speaks perfectly, then they have no accent. |
22,259,381 | I need to store trillion of list of URLs where each URL list will contain ~50 URLs.
What would be the most space efficient way to compress them for on-disk storage.
I was thinking of first removing useless information like "http://" and then build a minimal finite state automaton and save this.
An other option is to build a string of comma separated URL and compress this string using regular compression such as GZIP or BZ2.
If I don't care about speed which solution would result in the best compression. | 2014/03/07 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/22259381",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/185646/"
] | Given the amount of URLs and the fact that most of them use more or less the same structures and naming patters, I would go with using an index and a tokenizer.
First use a tokenizer to gather as many words as possible and save them in an index. You can then replace each token by its index in the list:
**<http://www.google.com/search?q=hello+world>** (42 bytes)== would give you
http:// => 1
www. => 2
google.com => 3
search => 4
hello => 5
world => 6
and the URL will become: 1,2,3,'/',4,'?','q','=', 5,'+',6
Given the fact that a lot of URLs will be subdomains of a common big domain and that most of them will use the same common English words (think of all the about us pages or careers...), you will probably end up with a not so big index (there is about 50000 usual words in english, 70000 in french).
You can then compress the index and the tokenized URLs to gain even more space.
There are O(n) and O(nlogn) algorithms for parsing the URLs and building the index. | After investigating it seem that just using GZIP compress better than just using a Compact Directed Acyclic Word Graph! |
25,148 | Consider the following rice bag
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/x1yIF.jpg)
I want to close the rice bag mouth so that insects and other unnecessary materials will not fall into the rice.
I have plenty of rice bags like this in my home. I keep them in the hall to ensure that no unnecessary materials will fall into them. Now I want to move them to the kitchen again and hence want to know the best method to close them. There is no zip to close them and I cannot twist them (daily) because the bag will have full of rice.
How can I close the rice bag? | 2021/10/17 | [
"https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com/questions/25148",
"https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com",
"https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com/users/23789/"
] | The size of the bag is not given but from the rope handle must be quite sizeable.
If you cannot obtain a canister with a lid of sufficient size, then
* place the bag inside a polythene bag that is large enough to twist shut, or roll shut. | You could use a vacuum sealer (I've even used a soldering iron in the past... the idea is to melt the two open sides of the container together creating an air-tight seal. Usually it just requires you to press both sides of the bag into the machine and hit "seal" (not "vacuum-seal"; they usually come with a variety of features, one of which should be just "seal" that is the one you want). |
25,148 | Consider the following rice bag
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/x1yIF.jpg)
I want to close the rice bag mouth so that insects and other unnecessary materials will not fall into the rice.
I have plenty of rice bags like this in my home. I keep them in the hall to ensure that no unnecessary materials will fall into them. Now I want to move them to the kitchen again and hence want to know the best method to close them. There is no zip to close them and I cannot twist them (daily) because the bag will have full of rice.
How can I close the rice bag? | 2021/10/17 | [
"https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com/questions/25148",
"https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com",
"https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com/users/23789/"
] | The size of the bag is not given but from the rope handle must be quite sizeable.
If you cannot obtain a canister with a lid of sufficient size, then
* place the bag inside a polythene bag that is large enough to twist shut, or roll shut. | There appears to be a sizeable gap between the top of the bag, where the crimped seal was and the top level of the rice. Roll down the top of the bag until you can roll no more and the secure the sealing roll with a length of two of adhesive tape. |
25,148 | Consider the following rice bag
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/x1yIF.jpg)
I want to close the rice bag mouth so that insects and other unnecessary materials will not fall into the rice.
I have plenty of rice bags like this in my home. I keep them in the hall to ensure that no unnecessary materials will fall into them. Now I want to move them to the kitchen again and hence want to know the best method to close them. There is no zip to close them and I cannot twist them (daily) because the bag will have full of rice.
How can I close the rice bag? | 2021/10/17 | [
"https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com/questions/25148",
"https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com",
"https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com/users/23789/"
] | You can try bag clips. They are fairly cheap and work well. There are some bigger sizers that can clip onto the bags if you fold the opened part vertically (like making a triangle)
If you don't want to spend money, you should try as suggested to snip off a corner of the bag and pour the rice out. Then fold the open corner and put something heavy on it.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/DMGwd.png) | You could use a vacuum sealer (I've even used a soldering iron in the past... the idea is to melt the two open sides of the container together creating an air-tight seal. Usually it just requires you to press both sides of the bag into the machine and hit "seal" (not "vacuum-seal"; they usually come with a variety of features, one of which should be just "seal" that is the one you want). |
25,148 | Consider the following rice bag
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/x1yIF.jpg)
I want to close the rice bag mouth so that insects and other unnecessary materials will not fall into the rice.
I have plenty of rice bags like this in my home. I keep them in the hall to ensure that no unnecessary materials will fall into them. Now I want to move them to the kitchen again and hence want to know the best method to close them. There is no zip to close them and I cannot twist them (daily) because the bag will have full of rice.
How can I close the rice bag? | 2021/10/17 | [
"https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com/questions/25148",
"https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com",
"https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com/users/23789/"
] | You can try bag clips. They are fairly cheap and work well. There are some bigger sizers that can clip onto the bags if you fold the opened part vertically (like making a triangle)
If you don't want to spend money, you should try as suggested to snip off a corner of the bag and pour the rice out. Then fold the open corner and put something heavy on it.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/DMGwd.png) | There appears to be a sizeable gap between the top of the bag, where the crimped seal was and the top level of the rice. Roll down the top of the bag until you can roll no more and the secure the sealing roll with a length of two of adhesive tape. |
25,148 | Consider the following rice bag
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/x1yIF.jpg)
I want to close the rice bag mouth so that insects and other unnecessary materials will not fall into the rice.
I have plenty of rice bags like this in my home. I keep them in the hall to ensure that no unnecessary materials will fall into them. Now I want to move them to the kitchen again and hence want to know the best method to close them. There is no zip to close them and I cannot twist them (daily) because the bag will have full of rice.
How can I close the rice bag? | 2021/10/17 | [
"https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com/questions/25148",
"https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com",
"https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com/users/23789/"
] | The size of the bag is not given but from the rope handle must be quite sizeable.
If you cannot obtain a canister with a lid of sufficient size, then
* place the bag inside a polythene bag that is large enough to twist shut, or roll shut. | Binder clips are my go to for closing bags, such as rice bags, chip bags and type of clamping needed to make it air tight so your items should stay fresh. |
25,148 | Consider the following rice bag
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/x1yIF.jpg)
I want to close the rice bag mouth so that insects and other unnecessary materials will not fall into the rice.
I have plenty of rice bags like this in my home. I keep them in the hall to ensure that no unnecessary materials will fall into them. Now I want to move them to the kitchen again and hence want to know the best method to close them. There is no zip to close them and I cannot twist them (daily) because the bag will have full of rice.
How can I close the rice bag? | 2021/10/17 | [
"https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com/questions/25148",
"https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com",
"https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com/users/23789/"
] | You could use a vacuum sealer (I've even used a soldering iron in the past... the idea is to melt the two open sides of the container together creating an air-tight seal. Usually it just requires you to press both sides of the bag into the machine and hit "seal" (not "vacuum-seal"; they usually come with a variety of features, one of which should be just "seal" that is the one you want). | There appears to be a sizeable gap between the top of the bag, where the crimped seal was and the top level of the rice. Roll down the top of the bag until you can roll no more and the secure the sealing roll with a length of two of adhesive tape. |
25,148 | Consider the following rice bag
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/x1yIF.jpg)
I want to close the rice bag mouth so that insects and other unnecessary materials will not fall into the rice.
I have plenty of rice bags like this in my home. I keep them in the hall to ensure that no unnecessary materials will fall into them. Now I want to move them to the kitchen again and hence want to know the best method to close them. There is no zip to close them and I cannot twist them (daily) because the bag will have full of rice.
How can I close the rice bag? | 2021/10/17 | [
"https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com/questions/25148",
"https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com",
"https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com/users/23789/"
] | Introducing the **Divide and Conquer HACK:**
When you buy in bulk quantities, redistribute some of each different food stock into a smaller container for frequent use that is easy to handle and closes securely.
An empty, previously-used package might be convenient as it's already labeled and made of appropriate material. A wide-mouth, screw-top jar would be a good candidate. Don't forget to label the container with the correct expiry (best before) date.
Remove enough from the larger, bulk, storage container so that it can be folded, twisted, or rolled closed, fastened securely, and stored in an appropriate location.
Some bulk food containers are made so that they can be resealed. For those that are not, pay careful attention to opening fresh supplies with a minimal opening and where the container can be easily resealed — a bag corner, say.
Good luck. | Binder clips are my go to for closing bags, such as rice bags, chip bags and type of clamping needed to make it air tight so your items should stay fresh. |
25,148 | Consider the following rice bag
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/x1yIF.jpg)
I want to close the rice bag mouth so that insects and other unnecessary materials will not fall into the rice.
I have plenty of rice bags like this in my home. I keep them in the hall to ensure that no unnecessary materials will fall into them. Now I want to move them to the kitchen again and hence want to know the best method to close them. There is no zip to close them and I cannot twist them (daily) because the bag will have full of rice.
How can I close the rice bag? | 2021/10/17 | [
"https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com/questions/25148",
"https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com",
"https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com/users/23789/"
] | You can try bag clips. They are fairly cheap and work well. There are some bigger sizers that can clip onto the bags if you fold the opened part vertically (like making a triangle)
If you don't want to spend money, you should try as suggested to snip off a corner of the bag and pour the rice out. Then fold the open corner and put something heavy on it.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/DMGwd.png) | Binder clips are my go to for closing bags, such as rice bags, chip bags and type of clamping needed to make it air tight so your items should stay fresh. |
25,148 | Consider the following rice bag
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/x1yIF.jpg)
I want to close the rice bag mouth so that insects and other unnecessary materials will not fall into the rice.
I have plenty of rice bags like this in my home. I keep them in the hall to ensure that no unnecessary materials will fall into them. Now I want to move them to the kitchen again and hence want to know the best method to close them. There is no zip to close them and I cannot twist them (daily) because the bag will have full of rice.
How can I close the rice bag? | 2021/10/17 | [
"https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com/questions/25148",
"https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com",
"https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com/users/23789/"
] | You could use a vacuum sealer (I've even used a soldering iron in the past... the idea is to melt the two open sides of the container together creating an air-tight seal. Usually it just requires you to press both sides of the bag into the machine and hit "seal" (not "vacuum-seal"; they usually come with a variety of features, one of which should be just "seal" that is the one you want). | Binder clips are my go to for closing bags, such as rice bags, chip bags and type of clamping needed to make it air tight so your items should stay fresh. |
25,148 | Consider the following rice bag
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/x1yIF.jpg)
I want to close the rice bag mouth so that insects and other unnecessary materials will not fall into the rice.
I have plenty of rice bags like this in my home. I keep them in the hall to ensure that no unnecessary materials will fall into them. Now I want to move them to the kitchen again and hence want to know the best method to close them. There is no zip to close them and I cannot twist them (daily) because the bag will have full of rice.
How can I close the rice bag? | 2021/10/17 | [
"https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com/questions/25148",
"https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com",
"https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com/users/23789/"
] | It is nothing wrong to transfer goods like rice, cereals, or flour from a larger bag into wide mouth [mason jar's](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mason_jar):
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/78gK1.jpg)
(credit: *loc. cit*)
They come in different shapes (cylindrical; though on occasion in square cross section, too) and storage volume (like 1L, 1.5L, 2L; or a half of a gallon). It is easy to open and close them, and to keep track how much they store (easier than with bags, in my experience) and they keep the storage in good shape. | Binder clips are my go to for closing bags, such as rice bags, chip bags and type of clamping needed to make it air tight so your items should stay fresh. |
885 | I need to generate documents from a web application and would like to do this using the Python language and LaTeX, are there any tools that will help me?
**Edit**
This Application will be hosted on Linux, we can run any external commands using popen, there is currently no defined input document format, nor any storage format, but output to the end user should be PDF.
**Edit 2**
These documents will have complex tables, graphs, and require typeset equations - hence the reason to use LaTeX. We would also prefer not to use intermediate files such as xml->html->pdf
Ideally I would like something like pyTeX or plasTeX that could render directly to PDF. | 2010/08/03 | [
"https://tex.stackexchange.com/questions/885",
"https://tex.stackexchange.com",
"https://tex.stackexchange.com/users/43/"
] | [PyTeX](http://www.pytex.org/) is an Open Source project allowing to use TeX from within Python. | If you want to convert a web page into a pdf, maybe the better way is using the python-pisa package, perform a direct conversion, I used it in a django projects for this purpose. |
885 | I need to generate documents from a web application and would like to do this using the Python language and LaTeX, are there any tools that will help me?
**Edit**
This Application will be hosted on Linux, we can run any external commands using popen, there is currently no defined input document format, nor any storage format, but output to the end user should be PDF.
**Edit 2**
These documents will have complex tables, graphs, and require typeset equations - hence the reason to use LaTeX. We would also prefer not to use intermediate files such as xml->html->pdf
Ideally I would like something like pyTeX or plasTeX that could render directly to PDF. | 2010/08/03 | [
"https://tex.stackexchange.com/questions/885",
"https://tex.stackexchange.com",
"https://tex.stackexchange.com/users/43/"
] | Bit late for an answer, but would like to share my experience. I had a similar problem. Basically needed to get output from Python application in pdf form. Had a look at various alternatives
1. [Jinja2](http://jinja.pocoo.org/)
2. [Reportlab](https://pypi.org/project/reportlab/)
3. [Pollyreports](https://pypi.org/project/PollyReports/)
4. As well as the options listed above
Eventually I settled on using Latex. Basically just wrote a small class that assembled my elements into a tex file and then ran pdflatex on the generated tex file. Other options had a lot of control, but tex already has great formatting predefined and I just needed a professional container for my figures and tables. | [PyX](http://pyx.sourceforge.net/) is a useful package if you want graphs and charts. |
885 | I need to generate documents from a web application and would like to do this using the Python language and LaTeX, are there any tools that will help me?
**Edit**
This Application will be hosted on Linux, we can run any external commands using popen, there is currently no defined input document format, nor any storage format, but output to the end user should be PDF.
**Edit 2**
These documents will have complex tables, graphs, and require typeset equations - hence the reason to use LaTeX. We would also prefer not to use intermediate files such as xml->html->pdf
Ideally I would like something like pyTeX or plasTeX that could render directly to PDF. | 2010/08/03 | [
"https://tex.stackexchange.com/questions/885",
"https://tex.stackexchange.com",
"https://tex.stackexchange.com/users/43/"
] | Bit late for an answer, but would like to share my experience. I had a similar problem. Basically needed to get output from Python application in pdf form. Had a look at various alternatives
1. [Jinja2](http://jinja.pocoo.org/)
2. [Reportlab](https://pypi.org/project/reportlab/)
3. [Pollyreports](https://pypi.org/project/PollyReports/)
4. As well as the options listed above
Eventually I settled on using Latex. Basically just wrote a small class that assembled my elements into a tex file and then ran pdflatex on the generated tex file. Other options had a lot of control, but tex already has great formatting predefined and I just needed a professional container for my figures and tables. | Where does the data for the PDF you want to generate come from? A database?
I ask because (despite being a big Python fan) I once used PHP to generate a latex file with data populated from a database (this was for a very small conference proceedings). It's a bit messy, but works reasonably well; you can easily intermingle PHP code which pulls from the database with latex source, in the same way that you can mix PHP with HTML. Then just compile the resulting latex file to get a PDF. |
885 | I need to generate documents from a web application and would like to do this using the Python language and LaTeX, are there any tools that will help me?
**Edit**
This Application will be hosted on Linux, we can run any external commands using popen, there is currently no defined input document format, nor any storage format, but output to the end user should be PDF.
**Edit 2**
These documents will have complex tables, graphs, and require typeset equations - hence the reason to use LaTeX. We would also prefer not to use intermediate files such as xml->html->pdf
Ideally I would like something like pyTeX or plasTeX that could render directly to PDF. | 2010/08/03 | [
"https://tex.stackexchange.com/questions/885",
"https://tex.stackexchange.com",
"https://tex.stackexchange.com/users/43/"
] | Depending on what you want to do, [Sphinx](http://sphinx.pocoo.org/contents.html) may suit you. I think its the best Python-based tool for technical documentation, and it supports restructured text. | Python library [tikzpy](https://tikzpy.readthedocs.io/en/latest/) is an option, it allows creating tikz images code via Python |
885 | I need to generate documents from a web application and would like to do this using the Python language and LaTeX, are there any tools that will help me?
**Edit**
This Application will be hosted on Linux, we can run any external commands using popen, there is currently no defined input document format, nor any storage format, but output to the end user should be PDF.
**Edit 2**
These documents will have complex tables, graphs, and require typeset equations - hence the reason to use LaTeX. We would also prefer not to use intermediate files such as xml->html->pdf
Ideally I would like something like pyTeX or plasTeX that could render directly to PDF. | 2010/08/03 | [
"https://tex.stackexchange.com/questions/885",
"https://tex.stackexchange.com",
"https://tex.stackexchange.com/users/43/"
] | Recently I've written a library exactly for this purpose. It supports tables, plots, matrices and more.
<https://github.com/JelteF/PyLaTeX> | Depending on what you want to do, [Sphinx](http://sphinx.pocoo.org/contents.html) may suit you. I think its the best Python-based tool for technical documentation, and it supports restructured text. |
885 | I need to generate documents from a web application and would like to do this using the Python language and LaTeX, are there any tools that will help me?
**Edit**
This Application will be hosted on Linux, we can run any external commands using popen, there is currently no defined input document format, nor any storage format, but output to the end user should be PDF.
**Edit 2**
These documents will have complex tables, graphs, and require typeset equations - hence the reason to use LaTeX. We would also prefer not to use intermediate files such as xml->html->pdf
Ideally I would like something like pyTeX or plasTeX that could render directly to PDF. | 2010/08/03 | [
"https://tex.stackexchange.com/questions/885",
"https://tex.stackexchange.com",
"https://tex.stackexchange.com/users/43/"
] | Recently I've written a library exactly for this purpose. It supports tables, plots, matrices and more.
<https://github.com/JelteF/PyLaTeX> | Depending on exactly what you want to do, you may want to take a look at [plasTeX](http://plastex.sourceforge.net/). It's a python version of the TeX engine. It's not a *true* LaTeX interpreter, but if you have control over the input format of the documents then it could be possible to write them in such a manner that plasTeX can render them. At present, it renders the document to XHTML.
So if you wanted web-viewable copies, you could have it so that your documents were sufficiently simple that plasTeX can read them, then use plasTeX for XHTML-rendering and call pdflatex externally for PDF. |
330,599 | I want to know what is your experience with fabric scripts? Do think it is useful?
is there sample scripts for this? copying, setup service etc
I know there is puppet and chef but i am looking for something that does not use a client/server setup to deploy, setup servers etc
your thoughts? | 2011/11/13 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/330599",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/30232/"
] | These guys are doing a project on fabric and I found some nice stuff there. Their [blog](http://awaseconfigurations.wordpress.com/) and [github](https://github.com/AwaseConfigurations/main). There's lots of simple fabric examples in their fabfile that you might find useful. | I found a lot of examples on the [github's gist](https://gist.github.com) using search. |
74,468,107 | I have installed latest Python Latest Python 3 (python-3.11.0-amd64) and latest VS Code (VSCodeUserSetup-x64-1.73.1). I also installed the Python Extension for Visual Studio Code.
I have selected the interpreter as:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/IMHKD.png)
But I am not able to run any Python Command in the terminal even as an administrator. No error and no complain but just empty line:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/ThNva.png)
Why is this happening? | 2022/11/16 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/74468107",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1106951/"
] | Has Python been added to your path? There's a checkbox for this in the dialogue when you install it, but if you didn't check that box, then its possible that Python hasn't been added to your path.
[system properties](https://i.stack.imgur.com/veOHH.png)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/JGkJV.png)
[edit path](https://i.stack.imgur.com/8jZkW.png)[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/UTTHv.png) | Have you checked python path?
>
> system properties--->environment variables--->system variables--->path
>
>
> |
139,373 | Here in India, both the phrases *learning by heart* and *learning by rote* are taken to have the same meaning, i.e., blind memorisation without true understanding.
However, some sources say that to learn something by heart implies that one knows something so well that it has been thoroughly internalised and imbibed.
So is it wrong to conflate the two? | 2013/11/27 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/139373",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/58320/"
] | No. They are not the same. In fact, they are not even related much. Sadly though, the expressions came to be used interchangeably and even Wikipedia has merged them into a single entry.
*Learning by rote* is about the technique or practice of memorizing. *Learning by heart* on the other hand, is the nature or quality of what has been learned.
>
> *The director told me to learn my speech by heart. I had to go over it many times **before** I learned it by heart.* (TFD)
>
>
>
This clearly shows the difference. *go over many times* is the process of 'rote learning'; *I learned it by heart* is the effect it produced or the quality of learning that was acquired.
>
> *[learn something by heart](http://idioms.thefreedictionary.com/learn+by+heart)*
>
> Fig. to learn something so well that it can be written or recited without thinking; to memorize something.
>
>
>
Compare:
>
> *[learn something by rote](http://idioms.thefreedictionary.com/learn+by+rote)*
>
> Fig. to learn something by memorizing without giving any thought to what is being learned. *I learned history by rote; then I couldn't pass the test that required me to think. If you learn things by rote, you'll never understand them.*
>
>
>
Do you notice the *without thinking* part? It occurs in **learning** in case of 'rote learning', and in **recollection** in the case of 'by heart'! | When I was at primary school in the early 1950s we were encouraged to learn things 'by heart'. For example we learned all our times tables from 2 to 12 'by heart'. We learned poems by 'heart'. At that time the practice had not come under the sustained criticism of educationalists that it has today. And the expression 'learning by heart' had a nice gentle ring about it.
I never encountered the term 'learning by rote', nor 'rote learning' until the practice started to become derided by people who claim to understand these things almost as though it were harmful to children's health.
My own suspicion is that whilst they mean the same thing, learning 'by heart' sounded too wholesome and positive a learning experience for those people who wanted to get rid of the practice. So an altogether less enticing term was introduced. I may be completely wrong about this, but that is my impression.
Is it wrong to conflate the two? I think that would largely depend on who you were talking to. Personally I have never understood why 'memorisation' excluded the possibility of 'understanding'. After all actors and actresses learn their parts 'by heart', or is it 'by rote'?
I would say the terms (which mean the same thing) are used by people depending on what impression they wish to create. Whilst Shakespearean actors probably memorise 'by heart' (because that is deemed nice), children are taught times tables 'by rote' (because that is deemed nasty).
Further thought.
@Damkerng T (below) has suggested that learning 'by rote' is only one method of learning 'by heart'. If that idea has substance it suggests that 'by heart' is a more general term and that 'by rote'is a subset of it. Could it be that 'by heart' refers to an end-result e.g. I know the 23rd psalm 'by heart'. And could 'by rote' refer to just one process by which you get there? |
139,373 | Here in India, both the phrases *learning by heart* and *learning by rote* are taken to have the same meaning, i.e., blind memorisation without true understanding.
However, some sources say that to learn something by heart implies that one knows something so well that it has been thoroughly internalised and imbibed.
So is it wrong to conflate the two? | 2013/11/27 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/139373",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/58320/"
] | When I was at primary school in the early 1950s we were encouraged to learn things 'by heart'. For example we learned all our times tables from 2 to 12 'by heart'. We learned poems by 'heart'. At that time the practice had not come under the sustained criticism of educationalists that it has today. And the expression 'learning by heart' had a nice gentle ring about it.
I never encountered the term 'learning by rote', nor 'rote learning' until the practice started to become derided by people who claim to understand these things almost as though it were harmful to children's health.
My own suspicion is that whilst they mean the same thing, learning 'by heart' sounded too wholesome and positive a learning experience for those people who wanted to get rid of the practice. So an altogether less enticing term was introduced. I may be completely wrong about this, but that is my impression.
Is it wrong to conflate the two? I think that would largely depend on who you were talking to. Personally I have never understood why 'memorisation' excluded the possibility of 'understanding'. After all actors and actresses learn their parts 'by heart', or is it 'by rote'?
I would say the terms (which mean the same thing) are used by people depending on what impression they wish to create. Whilst Shakespearean actors probably memorise 'by heart' (because that is deemed nice), children are taught times tables 'by rote' (because that is deemed nasty).
Further thought.
@Damkerng T (below) has suggested that learning 'by rote' is only one method of learning 'by heart'. If that idea has substance it suggests that 'by heart' is a more general term and that 'by rote'is a subset of it. Could it be that 'by heart' refers to an end-result e.g. I know the 23rd psalm 'by heart'. And could 'by rote' refer to just one process by which you get there? | If I want to learn anything by rote, I would have to "consciously" keep repeating the thing I want to learn again and again, usually by speaking out aloud, until finally I can remember it. Usually, given that I repeat this enough times, I might finally "know it by heart". So in my opinion, "learning by rote" is a way (but not the only way) to "learn by heart". But the outcome ("knowing it by heart") is not guaranteed, since more often than not, students usually find the process of "learning by rote" hard to endure, so they stop before they can succeed. |
139,373 | Here in India, both the phrases *learning by heart* and *learning by rote* are taken to have the same meaning, i.e., blind memorisation without true understanding.
However, some sources say that to learn something by heart implies that one knows something so well that it has been thoroughly internalised and imbibed.
So is it wrong to conflate the two? | 2013/11/27 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/139373",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/58320/"
] | When I was at primary school in the early 1950s we were encouraged to learn things 'by heart'. For example we learned all our times tables from 2 to 12 'by heart'. We learned poems by 'heart'. At that time the practice had not come under the sustained criticism of educationalists that it has today. And the expression 'learning by heart' had a nice gentle ring about it.
I never encountered the term 'learning by rote', nor 'rote learning' until the practice started to become derided by people who claim to understand these things almost as though it were harmful to children's health.
My own suspicion is that whilst they mean the same thing, learning 'by heart' sounded too wholesome and positive a learning experience for those people who wanted to get rid of the practice. So an altogether less enticing term was introduced. I may be completely wrong about this, but that is my impression.
Is it wrong to conflate the two? I think that would largely depend on who you were talking to. Personally I have never understood why 'memorisation' excluded the possibility of 'understanding'. After all actors and actresses learn their parts 'by heart', or is it 'by rote'?
I would say the terms (which mean the same thing) are used by people depending on what impression they wish to create. Whilst Shakespearean actors probably memorise 'by heart' (because that is deemed nice), children are taught times tables 'by rote' (because that is deemed nasty).
Further thought.
@Damkerng T (below) has suggested that learning 'by rote' is only one method of learning 'by heart'. If that idea has substance it suggests that 'by heart' is a more general term and that 'by rote'is a subset of it. Could it be that 'by heart' refers to an end-result e.g. I know the 23rd psalm 'by heart'. And could 'by rote' refer to just one process by which you get there? | Surely, learning by rote memory and by heart according to me are two different steps involved. Man has a natural tendency to forget so we use rote memory. While we need to understand what we are learning and reading. It simultaneously occurs. So read aloud first then write. Putting both ur mind and heart will express in form of a nice memory. |
139,373 | Here in India, both the phrases *learning by heart* and *learning by rote* are taken to have the same meaning, i.e., blind memorisation without true understanding.
However, some sources say that to learn something by heart implies that one knows something so well that it has been thoroughly internalised and imbibed.
So is it wrong to conflate the two? | 2013/11/27 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/139373",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/58320/"
] | No. They are not the same. In fact, they are not even related much. Sadly though, the expressions came to be used interchangeably and even Wikipedia has merged them into a single entry.
*Learning by rote* is about the technique or practice of memorizing. *Learning by heart* on the other hand, is the nature or quality of what has been learned.
>
> *The director told me to learn my speech by heart. I had to go over it many times **before** I learned it by heart.* (TFD)
>
>
>
This clearly shows the difference. *go over many times* is the process of 'rote learning'; *I learned it by heart* is the effect it produced or the quality of learning that was acquired.
>
> *[learn something by heart](http://idioms.thefreedictionary.com/learn+by+heart)*
>
> Fig. to learn something so well that it can be written or recited without thinking; to memorize something.
>
>
>
Compare:
>
> *[learn something by rote](http://idioms.thefreedictionary.com/learn+by+rote)*
>
> Fig. to learn something by memorizing without giving any thought to what is being learned. *I learned history by rote; then I couldn't pass the test that required me to think. If you learn things by rote, you'll never understand them.*
>
>
>
Do you notice the *without thinking* part? It occurs in **learning** in case of 'rote learning', and in **recollection** in the case of 'by heart'! | If I want to learn anything by rote, I would have to "consciously" keep repeating the thing I want to learn again and again, usually by speaking out aloud, until finally I can remember it. Usually, given that I repeat this enough times, I might finally "know it by heart". So in my opinion, "learning by rote" is a way (but not the only way) to "learn by heart". But the outcome ("knowing it by heart") is not guaranteed, since more often than not, students usually find the process of "learning by rote" hard to endure, so they stop before they can succeed. |
139,373 | Here in India, both the phrases *learning by heart* and *learning by rote* are taken to have the same meaning, i.e., blind memorisation without true understanding.
However, some sources say that to learn something by heart implies that one knows something so well that it has been thoroughly internalised and imbibed.
So is it wrong to conflate the two? | 2013/11/27 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/139373",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/58320/"
] | No. They are not the same. In fact, they are not even related much. Sadly though, the expressions came to be used interchangeably and even Wikipedia has merged them into a single entry.
*Learning by rote* is about the technique or practice of memorizing. *Learning by heart* on the other hand, is the nature or quality of what has been learned.
>
> *The director told me to learn my speech by heart. I had to go over it many times **before** I learned it by heart.* (TFD)
>
>
>
This clearly shows the difference. *go over many times* is the process of 'rote learning'; *I learned it by heart* is the effect it produced or the quality of learning that was acquired.
>
> *[learn something by heart](http://idioms.thefreedictionary.com/learn+by+heart)*
>
> Fig. to learn something so well that it can be written or recited without thinking; to memorize something.
>
>
>
Compare:
>
> *[learn something by rote](http://idioms.thefreedictionary.com/learn+by+rote)*
>
> Fig. to learn something by memorizing without giving any thought to what is being learned. *I learned history by rote; then I couldn't pass the test that required me to think. If you learn things by rote, you'll never understand them.*
>
>
>
Do you notice the *without thinking* part? It occurs in **learning** in case of 'rote learning', and in **recollection** in the case of 'by heart'! | Surely, learning by rote memory and by heart according to me are two different steps involved. Man has a natural tendency to forget so we use rote memory. While we need to understand what we are learning and reading. It simultaneously occurs. So read aloud first then write. Putting both ur mind and heart will express in form of a nice memory. |
139,373 | Here in India, both the phrases *learning by heart* and *learning by rote* are taken to have the same meaning, i.e., blind memorisation without true understanding.
However, some sources say that to learn something by heart implies that one knows something so well that it has been thoroughly internalised and imbibed.
So is it wrong to conflate the two? | 2013/11/27 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/139373",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/58320/"
] | If I want to learn anything by rote, I would have to "consciously" keep repeating the thing I want to learn again and again, usually by speaking out aloud, until finally I can remember it. Usually, given that I repeat this enough times, I might finally "know it by heart". So in my opinion, "learning by rote" is a way (but not the only way) to "learn by heart". But the outcome ("knowing it by heart") is not guaranteed, since more often than not, students usually find the process of "learning by rote" hard to endure, so they stop before they can succeed. | Surely, learning by rote memory and by heart according to me are two different steps involved. Man has a natural tendency to forget so we use rote memory. While we need to understand what we are learning and reading. It simultaneously occurs. So read aloud first then write. Putting both ur mind and heart will express in form of a nice memory. |
3,753,653 | What is the best way to calculate AND add a field to a data file that shows the crow-fly distance (in miles) between two zip codes for each record (250K+) in a file? THANKS | 2010/09/20 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3753653",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/452968/"
] | Use [this](http://www.populardata.com/downloads.html) page for the raw distance information. Then use [this](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/407989/calculating-distance-between-zip-codes-in-php) website for the formula from Adam Bellaire's response to calculate the distance.
There is no reason to use an external service as zip codes really don't change all that often.
Enjoy! | Get a [Google Earth API Key](http://code.google.com/apis/earth/) and use the API to [calculate distances between two zip codes](http://www.google.com/search?rlz=1C1GGLS_enUS347US347&sourceid=chrome&ie=UTF-8&q=google+api+distance+between+zips) in your language of choice.
**UPDATE:**
If a web service isn't for you, you can check [my OLD Visual Basic Posting](http://pscode.com/vb/scripts/ShowCode.asp?txtCodeId=49144&lngWId=1) on planet source code. It has a database of zip codes, their lat/long positions, and some VB code to calculate the distances between two zip codes. The Zipcode DB will probably require some updating, and it's in a MS Access format (but you can move that data anywhere). |
3,753,653 | What is the best way to calculate AND add a field to a data file that shows the crow-fly distance (in miles) between two zip codes for each record (250K+) in a file? THANKS | 2010/09/20 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3753653",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/452968/"
] | Use [this](http://www.populardata.com/downloads.html) page for the raw distance information. Then use [this](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/407989/calculating-distance-between-zip-codes-in-php) website for the formula from Adam Bellaire's response to calculate the distance.
There is no reason to use an external service as zip codes really don't change all that often.
Enjoy! | You could use the [Yahoo Geocoding Service](http://developer.yahoo.com/geo/placefinder/) to first get the latitude and longitude corrodinates for each zip code, then simply use the [haversine formula](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Haversine_formula) to get the distance between any two sets of latitude/longitude data.
[Here is a c# implementation of the haversine formula.](http://www.storm-consultancy.com/blog/development/code-snippets/the-haversine-formula-in-c-and-sql/)
Enjoy! |
17,836 | Our developer team uses Reviewboard for code, but the UX team doesn't have a good solution for mockup reviews. Currently we are using piles of emails in Outlook. I know Reviewboard should work, but I was wondering what other tools UX designers were using for this that may be more catered to reviews of form and function. Some of the challenges are:
1. How to keep team comments lumped together with similar comments, and assigned to an image/story?
2. How to manage past comments, to be able to access information from older sprints?
3. How to search through team feedback?
Does anyone have any experience successfully managing this? | 2012/02/27 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/17836",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/9434/"
] | I used [Basecamp](http://basecamphq.com/), from 37 signals a few years ago and loved it.
The project owner can archive each set of deliverables, as well as route for approval/feedback.
When we used it, it was web-based, and hooked in with Outlook flawlessly. | For the past year, my team is trying to incorporate Expression Blend + SketchFlow for these mockup reviews.
While I wouldn't agree that Expression Blend is a 'quick mockup' tool, it has a good solution at least when it comes to getting feedback with its SketchFlow Player.
Stakeholders, reviewers alike could mark-up and/or insert comments on the mock-up/prototype and save them into a file whereby it can be sent back to the originator.
The originator then overlays these file(s) on his/her design and make the necessary changes. Since the comment files are associated to the mock-up, we package the entire set (mock-up design files and comments) within an iteration for recording purposes. This set is then kept in a version-based depository (in our case, we use Perforce)
Hope this helps. |
17,836 | Our developer team uses Reviewboard for code, but the UX team doesn't have a good solution for mockup reviews. Currently we are using piles of emails in Outlook. I know Reviewboard should work, but I was wondering what other tools UX designers were using for this that may be more catered to reviews of form and function. Some of the challenges are:
1. How to keep team comments lumped together with similar comments, and assigned to an image/story?
2. How to manage past comments, to be able to access information from older sprints?
3. How to search through team feedback?
Does anyone have any experience successfully managing this? | 2012/02/27 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/17836",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/9434/"
] | I used [Basecamp](http://basecamphq.com/), from 37 signals a few years ago and loved it.
The project owner can archive each set of deliverables, as well as route for approval/feedback.
When we used it, it was web-based, and hooked in with Outlook flawlessly. | I recommend adobe Experience design. you can share it with your team or client and they can easily add comment to it.
<http://www.adobe.com/uk/products/experience-design.html?sdid=19SCDRPP&mv=search&s_kwcid=AL!3085!3!183347083862!e!!g!!adobe%20xd&ef_id=WOYyzAAAAWcjNhBO:20170412152521:s> |
17,836 | Our developer team uses Reviewboard for code, but the UX team doesn't have a good solution for mockup reviews. Currently we are using piles of emails in Outlook. I know Reviewboard should work, but I was wondering what other tools UX designers were using for this that may be more catered to reviews of form and function. Some of the challenges are:
1. How to keep team comments lumped together with similar comments, and assigned to an image/story?
2. How to manage past comments, to be able to access information from older sprints?
3. How to search through team feedback?
Does anyone have any experience successfully managing this? | 2012/02/27 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/17836",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/9434/"
] | There are a variety of web apps that are meant specifically for UX or design reviews. A few that I've used include
* [Invision](http://www.invisionapp.com/) - Also lets you easily create clickable prototypes from your designs
* [MyBalsamiq](http://www.balsamiq.com/products/mockups/mybalsamiq) - Hosted, collaborative version of the popular Balsamiq wireframing app
* [Notable](http://www.notableapp.com) - allows you to share and collect feedback on designs and wireframes
If you're looking for a more general collaboration platform, a wiki would work well for this use-case, and can also be used for organizing and reviewing other deliverables such as documentation. Some popular wiki platforms include:
* [Confluence](http://www.atlassian.com/software/confluence/overview)
* [PBWorks](http://www.pbworks.com/)
* [Media Wiki](http://www.mediawiki.org/) | For the past year, my team is trying to incorporate Expression Blend + SketchFlow for these mockup reviews.
While I wouldn't agree that Expression Blend is a 'quick mockup' tool, it has a good solution at least when it comes to getting feedback with its SketchFlow Player.
Stakeholders, reviewers alike could mark-up and/or insert comments on the mock-up/prototype and save them into a file whereby it can be sent back to the originator.
The originator then overlays these file(s) on his/her design and make the necessary changes. Since the comment files are associated to the mock-up, we package the entire set (mock-up design files and comments) within an iteration for recording purposes. This set is then kept in a version-based depository (in our case, we use Perforce)
Hope this helps. |
17,836 | Our developer team uses Reviewboard for code, but the UX team doesn't have a good solution for mockup reviews. Currently we are using piles of emails in Outlook. I know Reviewboard should work, but I was wondering what other tools UX designers were using for this that may be more catered to reviews of form and function. Some of the challenges are:
1. How to keep team comments lumped together with similar comments, and assigned to an image/story?
2. How to manage past comments, to be able to access information from older sprints?
3. How to search through team feedback?
Does anyone have any experience successfully managing this? | 2012/02/27 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/17836",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/9434/"
] | There are a variety of web apps that are meant specifically for UX or design reviews. A few that I've used include
* [Invision](http://www.invisionapp.com/) - Also lets you easily create clickable prototypes from your designs
* [MyBalsamiq](http://www.balsamiq.com/products/mockups/mybalsamiq) - Hosted, collaborative version of the popular Balsamiq wireframing app
* [Notable](http://www.notableapp.com) - allows you to share and collect feedback on designs and wireframes
If you're looking for a more general collaboration platform, a wiki would work well for this use-case, and can also be used for organizing and reviewing other deliverables such as documentation. Some popular wiki platforms include:
* [Confluence](http://www.atlassian.com/software/confluence/overview)
* [PBWorks](http://www.pbworks.com/)
* [Media Wiki](http://www.mediawiki.org/) | I recommend adobe Experience design. you can share it with your team or client and they can easily add comment to it.
<http://www.adobe.com/uk/products/experience-design.html?sdid=19SCDRPP&mv=search&s_kwcid=AL!3085!3!183347083862!e!!g!!adobe%20xd&ef_id=WOYyzAAAAWcjNhBO:20170412152521:s> |
17,836 | Our developer team uses Reviewboard for code, but the UX team doesn't have a good solution for mockup reviews. Currently we are using piles of emails in Outlook. I know Reviewboard should work, but I was wondering what other tools UX designers were using for this that may be more catered to reviews of form and function. Some of the challenges are:
1. How to keep team comments lumped together with similar comments, and assigned to an image/story?
2. How to manage past comments, to be able to access information from older sprints?
3. How to search through team feedback?
Does anyone have any experience successfully managing this? | 2012/02/27 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/17836",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/9434/"
] | For the past year, my team is trying to incorporate Expression Blend + SketchFlow for these mockup reviews.
While I wouldn't agree that Expression Blend is a 'quick mockup' tool, it has a good solution at least when it comes to getting feedback with its SketchFlow Player.
Stakeholders, reviewers alike could mark-up and/or insert comments on the mock-up/prototype and save them into a file whereby it can be sent back to the originator.
The originator then overlays these file(s) on his/her design and make the necessary changes. Since the comment files are associated to the mock-up, we package the entire set (mock-up design files and comments) within an iteration for recording purposes. This set is then kept in a version-based depository (in our case, we use Perforce)
Hope this helps. | I recommend adobe Experience design. you can share it with your team or client and they can easily add comment to it.
<http://www.adobe.com/uk/products/experience-design.html?sdid=19SCDRPP&mv=search&s_kwcid=AL!3085!3!183347083862!e!!g!!adobe%20xd&ef_id=WOYyzAAAAWcjNhBO:20170412152521:s> |
32,179,196 | I have made a GUI app (WIN FORM) which is running fine on 12 inch screen(no cropping of the form) but on other Laptops having screen > 12 inches Win Form is going beyond the taskbar and some portion of the Form is not visible to the user.I have fixed it currently by squeezing certain UI boxes on the Form .But why this is happening?How can I auto-rectify it for all the PC models. | 2015/08/24 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/32179196",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/714831/"
] | As was pointed out by [Felipe Hoffa](https://stackoverflow.com/users/132438/felipe-hoffa), this feature is currently not enabled on European datasets. | As the error message suggest: Streaming ingestion is disabled for the destination dataset.
You either try to write to a dataset that is listed as public and read only or it's disabled by BigQuery for some reason, and you can contact them.
You can contact the support [here](https://cloud.google.com/support/) or in case you know it's a known bug, you can try posting an issue [here](https://code.google.com/p/google-bigquery/issues/list) |
299,885 | >
> (1) It is reported that he was present at the crime scene.
>
>
>
>
> (2) It has been reported that he was present at the crime scene.
>
>
>
I am sure that the second sentence is correct. Is the first one grammatically correct? If yes, how these two sentences differ in meaning? | 2021/10/12 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/299885",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/142602/"
] | Your quotation is a good example of ambiguity. There is nothing *wrong* with the sentence, it just isn't clear from the grammatical structure what the second 'their' refers back to. Careful writers try to avoid ambiguity, but we often just have to use context and logic to determine what is meant.
My old English teacher's favourite example of ambiguity was "my father drives to work in a hat". It could be read that the hat is his vehicle, but obviously, that is absurd and so it *cannot* mean that. That is an example of using logic to dispel ambiguity.
With your example, it seems unlikely that it refers to a 'journey' made by "the firms". It immediately felt obvious to me that it was talking about the 'journey' made by the goods they order. Perhaps the wider context confirms that - for example, if it was from an article about 'carbon footprints' made by businesses, it would seem logical that the distance goods travel would be under consideration. | Sometimes you can tell what a pronoun refers to by the number and/or sex.
Example 1: "Bob and Sally drove to the market in his car." "His" here must refer to Bob and not Sally because "his" is masculine, Bob is masculine, and Sally is feminine. So "his" matches the gender of Bob but not of Sally. (One could quibble that I am assuming that "Bob" is a man and "Sally" is a woman. It is, of course, possible that Sally is a man. But not very likely, and unless in context we are told that Sally is a man, readers would normally assume that she is a woman.)
Example 2: "The people in the crowd booed when the actor gave his speech. Then they threw rocks." In the second sentence, "they" must refer to "the people in the crowd" because it is plural and "the people" is plural. It can't be the actor who threw rocks because "they" is plural but "actor" is singular.
Besides that, you have to rely on logic and context. Like suppose I read, "Bob and the dog entered the house. 'Hello', he said." I'd normally assume that "he said" refers to Bob and not the dog, because dogs can't talk. (If this sentence occurred in a story about a talking dog, then it would be unclear.)
People sometimes -- often -- say or write sentences that are unclear because such references are ambiguous. When the person is saying the sentence, he knows that when he says "he" he means the tall man with the red hat (or whomever), but he fails to make that clear to the listener. |
65,578,347 | I want to deploy MongoDB to Kubernetes cluster with 2 nodes, there is no chance to add another node in the future.
I want to deploy MongoDB as standalone because both node will be able to access to same disk space via NFS and I don't have requirements for replication or high availability. However, in the MongoDB docs, it is clearly stated that standalone deployment is not suitable for production environment.
[MongoDB Deploy Standalone](https://docs.cloudmanager.mongodb.com/tutorial/deploy-standalone/)
>
> You can deploy a standalone MongoDB instance for Cloud Manager to manage. Use standalone instances for testing and development. Do not use these deployments for production systems as they lack replication and high availability.
>
>
>
What kind of drawbacks I can face? Should I deploy as replica set with arbiter instance? If yes, why? | 2021/01/05 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/65578347",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/5783626/"
] | Of course you can deploy a Standalone MongoDB for production. But if this node fails, then your application is not available anymore. If you don't have any requirement for availability then go for a Standalone MongoDB.
However, running 2 MongoDB services which access the same physical disk (i.e. `dbPath`) will not work. Each MongoDB instance need to have a dedicated data folder.
In your case, I would suggest a [Replica Set](https://docs.mongodb.com/manual/tutorial/deploy-replica-set/). All data from one node will be replicated to the other one. If one node fails then the application goes into "read/only" mode.
You can deploy an arbiter instance on the primary node. If the secondary node goes down, then the application is still fully available. | It is always recommended to deploy as replicaSet for production , however if you deploy as standalone and you have 2x kubernetes nodes , kubernetes can ensure there is always 1x running instance attached to the NFS storage in any of the available nodes , but the risk is that when the data on the storage is corrupted you will not have where to replicate from unless you do often backups and you dont care if you miss some recenly inserted data ... |
3,278,736 | What's the best approach/pattern I should use for the following?
1. Have a C# UI solution that will have (a) Winforms/WPF UI, and (b) class library.
2. The UI will have to start a separate thread for the routine in the class library that will be polling
3. The class library will then need to trigger a callback function in the UI to update UI fields if necessary
How do I best implement this callback arrangement so that the class library can be reused, and ideally it should have no dependency on the UI component.
thanks | 2010/07/19 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3278736",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/173520/"
] | You could do this via an Event being raised out of your library, this way the library will only need to pop the event, if the UI chooses to consume the event then that's implementation in the UI.
You could also expose a property eg CallbackMethod and have a delegate that it accepts, then in the UI you set the property to the addressof your function.
When the library needs to "send the necessary callback" you check to see if the callback has been populated, then call the callback function (via the delegate) if it's been set, or just skip it if it hasn't | Use Backgroundworker for this. This will ease your implementation and thread management. |
10,487,322 | * Which signals are safe, which are not?
* For those signals which are not safe, which damage could be caused when killing a Git process? Might the working tree be left in an undefined state? Might .git/index or even the .git/objects-database get corrupted?
* Are files written in some kind of "atomic" operation by Git? (Working tree files, .git/index, configurations files, and so on ...)
**Update:** more precise question about signals | 2012/05/07 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/10487322",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/241453/"
] | Actually, git tries quite hard to be fully transactional - i.e. it tries to *never* leave the repository in an inconsistent state, no matter when or how an operation is interrupted - see this question:
[Can a git repository be corrupted if a command modifying it crashes or is aborted?](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/8384101/can-a-git-repository-be-corrupted-if-a-command-modifying-it-crashes-or-is-aborte)
So it should not matter how you terminate the git process, if using SIGTERM, SIGKILL or the red power button. The exception, as noted in the answer above, is that the files in the working directory may be a mix of files from different branches, because the files cannot be replaced all at once.
That said, transaction safety is hard to test (as there are many corner cases), so I would not rely 100% on git being safe in this situation. You should normally be ok, but you *might* hit a bug from time to time and mess up the repository. | That depends on what GIT is doing when you try to kill it.
If you kill it during a clone, sure it will be left in some partially incomplete state, but it's easy to recover from that: delete the messy partial clone and clone again.
In my experience, GIT doesn't slaughter the files it's managing when it fails. I've killed it in the middle of pushes before without much damage to the files I changed. Granted, the message log can get a little screwy.
Without much more detail than what you've provided, it's hard to say. |
11,215 | My spouse and I left our hometowns more than 10 years ago and got to know each other in the city where we are living now. The distance to our hometowns is about a 3 and a half hours drive in opposite directions. We used to travel home at least once a month in the past over the years for birthdays or other events, or just to go skiing or whatever and meet our friends and families.
Now, since we got to know each other, we started to reduce the visits because our families live in different directions - my former girlfriend's family lived in the same direction as mine, so it had been easier to handle. Not seeing our families and friends hurts somehow and the less we see them the less we have in common. What hurts especially is that they don't tend to visit us. They also don't call us unless we ask them or invite them again and again to do so. My brother's family never managed to visit me within the 10 years I live here. I've been there at least several times each year, as they live close to my parents, sister and friends. Even my parents don't call us until something bad happened. I once stopped calling them for several weeks and after I called again, they just asked if I am still alive :-)
When we get there everything is just normal like we have never been away. I have a rather big family with loads of aunts, uncles and cousins, and they all move up together in a distance of about 100 miles and it was always quite nice to get the big family together. My spouse's family is much smaller, but they show similar symptoms. Same thing with our friends: they are happy when we visit them, but only 1 or 2 of them did come round here.
Now we tried to get some kinde of "tribe" established here in the city where we live to cope with that family stuff. But most people do have good old friends here already or are always busy with family (we do not have kids, it's difficult). So most of the time we try to organize something and some people gather and have fun - but if we don't arrange or ask there is just silence on the other side. I am already fed up with this now and started thinking "Oh come on, let's just do the stuff I like the best on my own and not care about others".
I sometimes think about moving to different places - we are both situated in the middle of Germany - because it doesn't matter if the people here speak a different dialect or a completely different language. Maybe Italian or Spanish people are easier to deal with and not so complicated in befriending each other, especially while there is more sunshine.
We are not really introverted, ugly or bad people. We are funny, love sports (despite my girlfriend's food allergy, which makes her unable to eat most food, thus lacking energy sometimes), go dancing, love to go out to concerts and shows and so on. Maybe this is normal to modern times and we should just give up and do the stuff we like and not bother. Maybe you do have any other useful tips aside telling our family or friends - they either don't seem to take this seriously or just somehow don't feel it or just don't mind.
**How can we communicate to our friends and families that we expect them to reach out for us and not just wait for us to make the first contact?** | 2018/03/01 | [
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/questions/11215",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com",
"https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/users/13571/"
] | I would invite him to step outside and go for a stroll around the block. You can say that you've been sitting down all morning and you really need to stretch your legs, and does he feel like going for a little walk with you?
When a person with a tic feels embarrassed ticcing in public, it can be helpful to step away from the embarrassing environment. He may have felt, in the coffee shop, as though he were in an aquarium, acutely self-conscious.
If you want to start a conversation sometime about tics, you could bring up someone you've known, or a famous person, who has tics, for example, Tim Howard, the soccer goalie.
It might be helpful to read up a bit about Tourette Syndrome and other tic disorders before you bring this up. There are many, many people with a tic disorder who have never been diagnosed, and don't know exactly what makes them tic (pardon the pun!). So, it's okay to broach the subject, but then wait and see how your acquaintance responds.
*My son has Tourette Syndrome.* | If you're on good enough terms, there is nothing in the world wrong with asking if someone's okay. If they don't want to talk about it, at that point, I wouldn't press it any further and try to minimize attention to it.
They may have had something huge on their mind that day and it was just bubbling up as a facial tic. |
14,821,533 | Is there an API where we can index price changes for iPhone or iPad apps?
For instance, how does [this company](http://applesliced.com/app?n=app-price-drops&cl=3600100), [this company](http://appshopper.com/), and [App Annie](http://www.appannie.com/top/#) collect iOS price data?
Is scraping iTunes the only option? | 2013/02/11 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/14821533",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/144088/"
] | Use Apple's Enterprise Partner Feed, as someone answered in our other question: [Fastest service for crawling web pages or invoking APIs (iTunes in particular)?](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/14988664/fastest-service-for-crawling-web-pages-or-invoking-apis-itunes-in-particular) | Have you tried this [Apple Affiliates Api](http://www.apple.com/itunes/affiliates/resources/documentation/itunes-store-web-service-search-api.html) and this [Search Api](http://www.apple.com/itunes/affiliates/resources/documentation/itunes-store-web-service-search-api.html#searching) .. What you could do is poll the server directly within the application using [AFNetworking](https://github.com/AFNetworking/AFNetworking) and there is a simple JSON request that parses the feed you give it into an accessible dictionary. Or you could pre poll it using PHP (or other language you use) to trim the excess results and only display what you need. |
14,821,533 | Is there an API where we can index price changes for iPhone or iPad apps?
For instance, how does [this company](http://applesliced.com/app?n=app-price-drops&cl=3600100), [this company](http://appshopper.com/), and [App Annie](http://www.appannie.com/top/#) collect iOS price data?
Is scraping iTunes the only option? | 2013/02/11 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/14821533",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/144088/"
] | Use Apple's Enterprise Partner Feed, as someone answered in our other question: [Fastest service for crawling web pages or invoking APIs (iTunes in particular)?](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/14988664/fastest-service-for-crawling-web-pages-or-invoking-apis-itunes-in-particular) | You could use [AppCorner.it API](http://www.appcorner.it/en/service.html) |
13,114 | Are there any specific rules that restrict the use of "couple" and "couple of"?
>
> I have a couple of months left.
>
>
>
versus
>
> I have a couple months left.
>
>
>
Are the both sentence above correct and formal? and if we are talking about other object —aside from time/duration — , are "couple" and "couple of" still interchangeable? | 2013/11/12 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/13114",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/3086/"
] | Conversationally, I would say there is no difference. Either one of those could be used, and you would be understood.
However, the word *couple* has an interesting nuance. Strictly speaking, it means *two*, or *a pair*. However, the idiom *a couple of* can be used to mean *a small number of*, or *a few*.
Collins brings this out rather nicely, for example. Under its entry for **[*couple*](http://www.collinsdictionary.com/dictionary/english/couple)** we find:
>
> **couple**
>
> (*pronoun*) usually preceded by *a*; functioning as singular or plural two; a pair ⇒ *give him a couple*
>
>
> (*noun*) See *a couple of*
>
>
>
and under its entry for [***a couple of***](http://www.collinsdictionary.com/dictionary/english/a-couple-of#a-couple-of_1), we see:
>
> **a couple of**
>
> (informal) a small number of; a few ⇒ *a couple of days*
>
>
>
So, if you were writing in some formal setting (like an official resumé, for example), I would avoid using *couple* to mean "roughly two or three," and use *a couple of* instead. However, if you meant to convey "two and only two," then you could feel free to use *couple*:
>
> I have a couple months left.
>
>
>
That said, many readers won't analyze the difference between these two so closely, so you still risk ambiguity. You might be better off saying:
>
> I have two months left.
>
>
>
The use of "a couple" makes the statement sound very inexact, no matter how Collins might define these words. | Unless you are talking about two persons (the couple walked hand-in-hand), the word *couple* should have *of* after it. This is because it is used as an expression.
>
> So except talking about a couple; you mention a couple *of* something, not a *couple* something
>
>
>
If we still dig in further, we may use *couple of* for identical things. For example - a couple of roses (which means they are identical) but when it comes to **months**, you may say *a couple months* left. You might be talking February and March which are not identically same. |
13,114 | Are there any specific rules that restrict the use of "couple" and "couple of"?
>
> I have a couple of months left.
>
>
>
versus
>
> I have a couple months left.
>
>
>
Are the both sentence above correct and formal? and if we are talking about other object —aside from time/duration — , are "couple" and "couple of" still interchangeable? | 2013/11/12 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/13114",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/3086/"
] | Conversationally, I would say there is no difference. Either one of those could be used, and you would be understood.
However, the word *couple* has an interesting nuance. Strictly speaking, it means *two*, or *a pair*. However, the idiom *a couple of* can be used to mean *a small number of*, or *a few*.
Collins brings this out rather nicely, for example. Under its entry for **[*couple*](http://www.collinsdictionary.com/dictionary/english/couple)** we find:
>
> **couple**
>
> (*pronoun*) usually preceded by *a*; functioning as singular or plural two; a pair ⇒ *give him a couple*
>
>
> (*noun*) See *a couple of*
>
>
>
and under its entry for [***a couple of***](http://www.collinsdictionary.com/dictionary/english/a-couple-of#a-couple-of_1), we see:
>
> **a couple of**
>
> (informal) a small number of; a few ⇒ *a couple of days*
>
>
>
So, if you were writing in some formal setting (like an official resumé, for example), I would avoid using *couple* to mean "roughly two or three," and use *a couple of* instead. However, if you meant to convey "two and only two," then you could feel free to use *couple*:
>
> I have a couple months left.
>
>
>
That said, many readers won't analyze the difference between these two so closely, so you still risk ambiguity. You might be better off saying:
>
> I have two months left.
>
>
>
The use of "a couple" makes the statement sound very inexact, no matter how Collins might define these words. | I'm sure I don't like this Collins fellow already, and thank you for helping the ignorant masses dumb down the language with a "living language" philosophy where we race towards ambiguity.
In my world, one where people cared to preserve clarity, "couple" meant two; furthermore, "a couple of" was used "as an expression" only by those who didn't know what it meant exactly, and so they were unquotable. This is in fact why the question is asked in the first place.
Without a degree in English, this would be my logic and explanation.
"A couple" means "two."
"A few" means "three."
You might say, "I'd like a couple of them" if the pronoun has an antecedent. That is, John says, "We have a dozen peaches," and Mary responds, "I'd like a couple of them."
Similarly, one might say, "I'd like a few peaches," or "...a few of them."
Also remember, when you correct someone, you are bound to hear the living language theory. That is, the language is living and changing. Words change meanings and you can't stop that.
This gives you an out on all your errors, for who is to say that your error isn't made consistently enough to gain relevance. Also, there is no Academy of English defining right and wrong. Schools determine what is right in their institution, and a hiring manager may determine what is right. Your piers may judge helping to define right and wrong in a social circle, but as for a definitive "right" or "wrong" according to an Academy of English, there is no such thing.
I try to look at the etymology of a word and use a form that is logical and clear. The moment ambiguity creeps in, I know there is likely a better word, or meaning to be associated with the word, or punctuation to be applied to the writing. |
13,114 | Are there any specific rules that restrict the use of "couple" and "couple of"?
>
> I have a couple of months left.
>
>
>
versus
>
> I have a couple months left.
>
>
>
Are the both sentence above correct and formal? and if we are talking about other object —aside from time/duration — , are "couple" and "couple of" still interchangeable? | 2013/11/12 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/13114",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/3086/"
] | Conversationally, I would say there is no difference. Either one of those could be used, and you would be understood.
However, the word *couple* has an interesting nuance. Strictly speaking, it means *two*, or *a pair*. However, the idiom *a couple of* can be used to mean *a small number of*, or *a few*.
Collins brings this out rather nicely, for example. Under its entry for **[*couple*](http://www.collinsdictionary.com/dictionary/english/couple)** we find:
>
> **couple**
>
> (*pronoun*) usually preceded by *a*; functioning as singular or plural two; a pair ⇒ *give him a couple*
>
>
> (*noun*) See *a couple of*
>
>
>
and under its entry for [***a couple of***](http://www.collinsdictionary.com/dictionary/english/a-couple-of#a-couple-of_1), we see:
>
> **a couple of**
>
> (informal) a small number of; a few ⇒ *a couple of days*
>
>
>
So, if you were writing in some formal setting (like an official resumé, for example), I would avoid using *couple* to mean "roughly two or three," and use *a couple of* instead. However, if you meant to convey "two and only two," then you could feel free to use *couple*:
>
> I have a couple months left.
>
>
>
That said, many readers won't analyze the difference between these two so closely, so you still risk ambiguity. You might be better off saying:
>
> I have two months left.
>
>
>
The use of "a couple" makes the statement sound very inexact, no matter how Collins might define these words. | The expression "a couple questions" is exclusively American. In British English this would be considered an error, and should be replaced with "a couple of questions." |
13,114 | Are there any specific rules that restrict the use of "couple" and "couple of"?
>
> I have a couple of months left.
>
>
>
versus
>
> I have a couple months left.
>
>
>
Are the both sentence above correct and formal? and if we are talking about other object —aside from time/duration — , are "couple" and "couple of" still interchangeable? | 2013/11/12 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/13114",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/3086/"
] | Conversationally, I would say there is no difference. Either one of those could be used, and you would be understood.
However, the word *couple* has an interesting nuance. Strictly speaking, it means *two*, or *a pair*. However, the idiom *a couple of* can be used to mean *a small number of*, or *a few*.
Collins brings this out rather nicely, for example. Under its entry for **[*couple*](http://www.collinsdictionary.com/dictionary/english/couple)** we find:
>
> **couple**
>
> (*pronoun*) usually preceded by *a*; functioning as singular or plural two; a pair ⇒ *give him a couple*
>
>
> (*noun*) See *a couple of*
>
>
>
and under its entry for [***a couple of***](http://www.collinsdictionary.com/dictionary/english/a-couple-of#a-couple-of_1), we see:
>
> **a couple of**
>
> (informal) a small number of; a few ⇒ *a couple of days*
>
>
>
So, if you were writing in some formal setting (like an official resumé, for example), I would avoid using *couple* to mean "roughly two or three," and use *a couple of* instead. However, if you meant to convey "two and only two," then you could feel free to use *couple*:
>
> I have a couple months left.
>
>
>
That said, many readers won't analyze the difference between these two so closely, so you still risk ambiguity. You might be better off saying:
>
> I have two months left.
>
>
>
The use of "a couple" makes the statement sound very inexact, no matter how Collins might define these words. | I live in Georgia, USA, and am 55 years old. In my experience "couple of" has been shortened to "couple" in recent years around here, and not only among folks younger than I. I do not hear it used under any particular circumstances (as opposed to "couple of"). I think it is a case where the expression has just been shortened. |
13,114 | Are there any specific rules that restrict the use of "couple" and "couple of"?
>
> I have a couple of months left.
>
>
>
versus
>
> I have a couple months left.
>
>
>
Are the both sentence above correct and formal? and if we are talking about other object —aside from time/duration — , are "couple" and "couple of" still interchangeable? | 2013/11/12 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/13114",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/3086/"
] | I'm sure I don't like this Collins fellow already, and thank you for helping the ignorant masses dumb down the language with a "living language" philosophy where we race towards ambiguity.
In my world, one where people cared to preserve clarity, "couple" meant two; furthermore, "a couple of" was used "as an expression" only by those who didn't know what it meant exactly, and so they were unquotable. This is in fact why the question is asked in the first place.
Without a degree in English, this would be my logic and explanation.
"A couple" means "two."
"A few" means "three."
You might say, "I'd like a couple of them" if the pronoun has an antecedent. That is, John says, "We have a dozen peaches," and Mary responds, "I'd like a couple of them."
Similarly, one might say, "I'd like a few peaches," or "...a few of them."
Also remember, when you correct someone, you are bound to hear the living language theory. That is, the language is living and changing. Words change meanings and you can't stop that.
This gives you an out on all your errors, for who is to say that your error isn't made consistently enough to gain relevance. Also, there is no Academy of English defining right and wrong. Schools determine what is right in their institution, and a hiring manager may determine what is right. Your piers may judge helping to define right and wrong in a social circle, but as for a definitive "right" or "wrong" according to an Academy of English, there is no such thing.
I try to look at the etymology of a word and use a form that is logical and clear. The moment ambiguity creeps in, I know there is likely a better word, or meaning to be associated with the word, or punctuation to be applied to the writing. | Unless you are talking about two persons (the couple walked hand-in-hand), the word *couple* should have *of* after it. This is because it is used as an expression.
>
> So except talking about a couple; you mention a couple *of* something, not a *couple* something
>
>
>
If we still dig in further, we may use *couple of* for identical things. For example - a couple of roses (which means they are identical) but when it comes to **months**, you may say *a couple months* left. You might be talking February and March which are not identically same. |
13,114 | Are there any specific rules that restrict the use of "couple" and "couple of"?
>
> I have a couple of months left.
>
>
>
versus
>
> I have a couple months left.
>
>
>
Are the both sentence above correct and formal? and if we are talking about other object —aside from time/duration — , are "couple" and "couple of" still interchangeable? | 2013/11/12 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/13114",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/3086/"
] | The expression "a couple questions" is exclusively American. In British English this would be considered an error, and should be replaced with "a couple of questions." | Unless you are talking about two persons (the couple walked hand-in-hand), the word *couple* should have *of* after it. This is because it is used as an expression.
>
> So except talking about a couple; you mention a couple *of* something, not a *couple* something
>
>
>
If we still dig in further, we may use *couple of* for identical things. For example - a couple of roses (which means they are identical) but when it comes to **months**, you may say *a couple months* left. You might be talking February and March which are not identically same. |
13,114 | Are there any specific rules that restrict the use of "couple" and "couple of"?
>
> I have a couple of months left.
>
>
>
versus
>
> I have a couple months left.
>
>
>
Are the both sentence above correct and formal? and if we are talking about other object —aside from time/duration — , are "couple" and "couple of" still interchangeable? | 2013/11/12 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/13114",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/3086/"
] | I live in Georgia, USA, and am 55 years old. In my experience "couple of" has been shortened to "couple" in recent years around here, and not only among folks younger than I. I do not hear it used under any particular circumstances (as opposed to "couple of"). I think it is a case where the expression has just been shortened. | Unless you are talking about two persons (the couple walked hand-in-hand), the word *couple* should have *of* after it. This is because it is used as an expression.
>
> So except talking about a couple; you mention a couple *of* something, not a *couple* something
>
>
>
If we still dig in further, we may use *couple of* for identical things. For example - a couple of roses (which means they are identical) but when it comes to **months**, you may say *a couple months* left. You might be talking February and March which are not identically same. |
13,114 | Are there any specific rules that restrict the use of "couple" and "couple of"?
>
> I have a couple of months left.
>
>
>
versus
>
> I have a couple months left.
>
>
>
Are the both sentence above correct and formal? and if we are talking about other object —aside from time/duration — , are "couple" and "couple of" still interchangeable? | 2013/11/12 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/13114",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/3086/"
] | The expression "a couple questions" is exclusively American. In British English this would be considered an error, and should be replaced with "a couple of questions." | I'm sure I don't like this Collins fellow already, and thank you for helping the ignorant masses dumb down the language with a "living language" philosophy where we race towards ambiguity.
In my world, one where people cared to preserve clarity, "couple" meant two; furthermore, "a couple of" was used "as an expression" only by those who didn't know what it meant exactly, and so they were unquotable. This is in fact why the question is asked in the first place.
Without a degree in English, this would be my logic and explanation.
"A couple" means "two."
"A few" means "three."
You might say, "I'd like a couple of them" if the pronoun has an antecedent. That is, John says, "We have a dozen peaches," and Mary responds, "I'd like a couple of them."
Similarly, one might say, "I'd like a few peaches," or "...a few of them."
Also remember, when you correct someone, you are bound to hear the living language theory. That is, the language is living and changing. Words change meanings and you can't stop that.
This gives you an out on all your errors, for who is to say that your error isn't made consistently enough to gain relevance. Also, there is no Academy of English defining right and wrong. Schools determine what is right in their institution, and a hiring manager may determine what is right. Your piers may judge helping to define right and wrong in a social circle, but as for a definitive "right" or "wrong" according to an Academy of English, there is no such thing.
I try to look at the etymology of a word and use a form that is logical and clear. The moment ambiguity creeps in, I know there is likely a better word, or meaning to be associated with the word, or punctuation to be applied to the writing. |
13,114 | Are there any specific rules that restrict the use of "couple" and "couple of"?
>
> I have a couple of months left.
>
>
>
versus
>
> I have a couple months left.
>
>
>
Are the both sentence above correct and formal? and if we are talking about other object —aside from time/duration — , are "couple" and "couple of" still interchangeable? | 2013/11/12 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/13114",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/3086/"
] | I live in Georgia, USA, and am 55 years old. In my experience "couple of" has been shortened to "couple" in recent years around here, and not only among folks younger than I. I do not hear it used under any particular circumstances (as opposed to "couple of"). I think it is a case where the expression has just been shortened. | I'm sure I don't like this Collins fellow already, and thank you for helping the ignorant masses dumb down the language with a "living language" philosophy where we race towards ambiguity.
In my world, one where people cared to preserve clarity, "couple" meant two; furthermore, "a couple of" was used "as an expression" only by those who didn't know what it meant exactly, and so they were unquotable. This is in fact why the question is asked in the first place.
Without a degree in English, this would be my logic and explanation.
"A couple" means "two."
"A few" means "three."
You might say, "I'd like a couple of them" if the pronoun has an antecedent. That is, John says, "We have a dozen peaches," and Mary responds, "I'd like a couple of them."
Similarly, one might say, "I'd like a few peaches," or "...a few of them."
Also remember, when you correct someone, you are bound to hear the living language theory. That is, the language is living and changing. Words change meanings and you can't stop that.
This gives you an out on all your errors, for who is to say that your error isn't made consistently enough to gain relevance. Also, there is no Academy of English defining right and wrong. Schools determine what is right in their institution, and a hiring manager may determine what is right. Your piers may judge helping to define right and wrong in a social circle, but as for a definitive "right" or "wrong" according to an Academy of English, there is no such thing.
I try to look at the etymology of a word and use a form that is logical and clear. The moment ambiguity creeps in, I know there is likely a better word, or meaning to be associated with the word, or punctuation to be applied to the writing. |
13,114 | Are there any specific rules that restrict the use of "couple" and "couple of"?
>
> I have a couple of months left.
>
>
>
versus
>
> I have a couple months left.
>
>
>
Are the both sentence above correct and formal? and if we are talking about other object —aside from time/duration — , are "couple" and "couple of" still interchangeable? | 2013/11/12 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/13114",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/3086/"
] | The expression "a couple questions" is exclusively American. In British English this would be considered an error, and should be replaced with "a couple of questions." | I live in Georgia, USA, and am 55 years old. In my experience "couple of" has been shortened to "couple" in recent years around here, and not only among folks younger than I. I do not hear it used under any particular circumstances (as opposed to "couple of"). I think it is a case where the expression has just been shortened. |
81,386 | There is a page in my website that people can browse and see all the available images.
I have created a section where people can enter a number in an input box to see the images starting from that number.
For example, if someone enters 10, then the user doesn't see the first 9 images, but the images starting from 10th image.
What is a good label for that input box?
Should it be *'Start from'*, *'See from'*, *'Offset'* or something else?
Thanks. | 2015/07/11 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/81386",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/68503/"
] | A commonly used pattern to skip a displayed number of pictures is pagination.
Pagination solves a few UX problems commonly associated with skipping content:
* A reference point is needed. (Where am I now?)
* How do I get where I need to go (Where do I go?)
* On Mobile/Table devices it's important to limit the use of the keyboard when using navigational features.
By using an input box you're re-introducing these problems and many more. Thus each pictures needs to display a number of which pictures it is.
How do they reset it so it starts at the beginning again? What if they enter invalid data?
but more importantly:
Do my users need to skip a *specific* number of pictures?
or does it not matter? Is a general "show next 10" enough?
Familiarity is also a big thing to keep in mind.
It show also be noted that users don't know terms like *offset* or *image number* but everyone understands the concept of pagination. (Next page, previous page, if I have 10 showing and click page 5, I'll skip the first 40)
The concrete answer to the question: "What is the Appropriate wording for the input box users use to navigate images" is: It depends on how you prefix your images. | **Jump to image #:**
**View image #:**
Similar in phrasing to jump to page, which many users will be familiar with. |
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