qid int64 1 74.7M | question stringlengths 12 33.8k | date stringlengths 10 10 | metadata list | response_j stringlengths 0 115k | response_k stringlengths 2 98.3k |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
2,578,944 | Does anyone know any site or book that presents problems like [python challenge](http://www.pythonchallenge.com/), but for C++?
When I think python challenge, I do not mean only a set of problems to be solved with C++ (for that I could probably use the same problems of python challenge), but rather problems that will probably be best solved using C++ STL, special features of the language, etc.
For example, there is one python challenge that is specifically designed to teach you how to use `pickle`, a serializing library for python.
Until now, I only know programming contests problems, but they could also be solved with C, java or other languages. | 2010/04/05 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2578944",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/309254/"
] | [Google Code Jam](http://code.google.com/codejam) problems frequently have analyses with snippets of C++ code, probably because C++ is by far the most popular language used for solving code-jam problems. The latter also allows you to see many C++ constructs cleverly employed, as code-jam allows you to download the solutions by all the competitors. As most code is C++, you'll get to learn a lot of nice C++ tricks for efficient code. | You're going to have a difficult time finding that because C++ provides less for you than almost any other language available. If C++ provides it, it's probably provided by Python or Java or C or any other programming language.
Why not try using some C++ concepts such as the STL to solve [Project Euler](http://projecteuler.net/) problems? |
2,578,944 | Does anyone know any site or book that presents problems like [python challenge](http://www.pythonchallenge.com/), but for C++?
When I think python challenge, I do not mean only a set of problems to be solved with C++ (for that I could probably use the same problems of python challenge), but rather problems that will probably be best solved using C++ STL, special features of the language, etc.
For example, there is one python challenge that is specifically designed to teach you how to use `pickle`, a serializing library for python.
Until now, I only know programming contests problems, but they could also be solved with C, java or other languages. | 2010/04/05 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2578944",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/309254/"
] | There are many tasks on [Rosetta Code](http://rosettacode.org/wiki/Main_Page) that are [not implemented in C++](http://rosettacode.org/wiki/Reports:Tasks_not_implemented_in_C%2B%2B) as yet. Try your hand at those, especially if you can use advanced features (templates, external libraries, etc.) to produce a particularly nice solution. Remember that there is no fundamental reason why *any* of those tasks should be beyond the C++ language, and there's usually several other implementations in other languages to show you other ways to attempt the task, which can help a lot. | You're going to have a difficult time finding that because C++ provides less for you than almost any other language available. If C++ provides it, it's probably provided by Python or Java or C or any other programming language.
Why not try using some C++ concepts such as the STL to solve [Project Euler](http://projecteuler.net/) problems? |
2,578,944 | Does anyone know any site or book that presents problems like [python challenge](http://www.pythonchallenge.com/), but for C++?
When I think python challenge, I do not mean only a set of problems to be solved with C++ (for that I could probably use the same problems of python challenge), but rather problems that will probably be best solved using C++ STL, special features of the language, etc.
For example, there is one python challenge that is specifically designed to teach you how to use `pickle`, a serializing library for python.
Until now, I only know programming contests problems, but they could also be solved with C, java or other languages. | 2010/04/05 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2578944",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/309254/"
] | [Google Code Jam](http://code.google.com/codejam) problems frequently have analyses with snippets of C++ code, probably because C++ is by far the most popular language used for solving code-jam problems. The latter also allows you to see many C++ constructs cleverly employed, as code-jam allows you to download the solutions by all the competitors. As most code is C++, you'll get to learn a lot of nice C++ tricks for efficient code. | There are many tasks on [Rosetta Code](http://rosettacode.org/wiki/Main_Page) that are [not implemented in C++](http://rosettacode.org/wiki/Reports:Tasks_not_implemented_in_C%2B%2B) as yet. Try your hand at those, especially if you can use advanced features (templates, external libraries, etc.) to produce a particularly nice solution. Remember that there is no fundamental reason why *any* of those tasks should be beyond the C++ language, and there's usually several other implementations in other languages to show you other ways to attempt the task, which can help a lot. |
85,056 | I'm new to Linux but not to app development. I come from a RealBasic on a Mac background.
I've accepted that I need to learn a new language to develop for Linux (since RB won't run on 64 bit distros and is a cloed proprietary language) but I want to make sure I pick the right one.
I've been looking at Python and was all set to go until I read that PyGTK is becoming obsolete with the introduction of GTK 3. Is this true? The Ubuntu developer website stills seems to recommend it with Glade for the UI but I want to make sure that I don't learn something that's on the way out! | 2011/12/04 | [
"https://askubuntu.com/questions/85056",
"https://askubuntu.com",
"https://askubuntu.com/users/35883/"
] | The short answer is no.
PyGTK is being phased out and replaced with [PyGObject](http://live.gnome.org/PyGObject) as the widget set upgrades from GTK+2 to GTK+3. As of Oneiric all 'native' ubuntu applications run [using the GTK+3](http://www.omgubuntu.co.uk/2011/10/ubuntu-11-10-released/) set.
On a personal note, fairly recently I started developing an application in Python, and having looked into it I decided to use Python3 with [PySide](https://launchpad.net/~pyside/+archive/ppa) (which is Qt4 instead of GTK+3) because I found that Python 3 [would be the standard](http://wiki.python.org/moin/Python2orPython3) in the year or so it took me to write the program, and because Qt4 has a some very good documentation, and some first class development software (just have a trail of Qt 4 Designer...) | PyGTK and pyGOBJECT are no longer the recommended method for developing apps for Ubuntu . Ubuntu developer website now recommends QML for the Ubuntu apps. |
93,833 | I came up with a much longer version of this but here is the skinny:
As a new employee, I was tasked to create an application. I did all my core work on time but the underlying database architecture was not up to the job and causing major delays.
To have something to show, I created a proof of concept using a different database architecture, which worked fine, but management was adamant I use their solution and unhappy the project was slipping.
I created a second demo using the "correct" architecture, which everybody promptly hated because it was very slow and sometimes failed due to a vendor bug.
I was then written up and given six months to "turn things around". To help with the database architecture, the company assigned a team of data engineers to fix the problem. They are still at it four months later while the project languishes. Vendor still hasn't fixed the bug.
I have been working on other things in the meantime and haven't missed any deadlines, but I was told I have two months to "improve", although the definition of improvement is totally nonspecific, consisting of "better collaboration", "better understanding" and "better enthusiasm".
My gut tells me they need to throw somebody under the bus to appease management and a relatively new employee probably fits the bill. I also get the impression that if somebody says you need to improve but can't really say exactly what it is you need to improve, you are probably already done for. Should I bail now while I still have a job or wait and see if maybe this will all blow over? | 2017/06/28 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/93833",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/72173/"
] | This is typical of a sick company.
Update your resume, get out. They don't want a working solution, they don't want to listen to reason, they've got a dog and they know it. They want someone to blame, and you are it.
Basically, you need to keep things running as best as you can while you job hunt. You are the proverbial sacrificial lamb. | Definitely bail. Job hunting is slow and having a steady income relieves much of the stress. Not to mention you have more bargaining power when negotiating salaries, since you can legitimately say you do not need the job you're applying for.
Turning the question around on you.. Why would you stay? Do you want to work at a company that put a new hire in this situation? Do you trust them with your future? I think the answer in this case is obvious, unless you have further input? |
25,286 | If a person discovers a vulnerability similar in scope to the recently disclosed Spectre/Meltdown (CPU design flaws that affect nearly all existing server infrastructure), could they legally explain this vulnerability to the vendor and offer non-disclosure for a fee, in the realm of $100,000 per month of delayed publication?
Failure to pay only results in immediate publication of the vulnerability, which is in itself a legal activity.
Would this be construed as extortion? The design flaw itself exists already, and information regarding it isn't withheld from the vender, they are paying solely for delayed disclosure to the public. | 2018/01/12 | [
"https://law.stackexchange.com/questions/25286",
"https://law.stackexchange.com",
"https://law.stackexchange.com/users/5466/"
] | This is extortion, and thus generally illegal. Below is the California Penal code on the matter (as you did not specify a particular state). To paraphrase: "Extortion is the obtaining of property (i.e. money) from another...induced by a wrongful use of...fear, (which)...may be induced by a threat...[t]o expose any secret affecting him or them".
However, payment to disclose your solution to the vulnerability is legal.
CA PENAL CODE
SECTION 518-527
518. Extortion is the obtaining of property from another, with his
consent, or the obtaining of an official act of a public officer,
induced by a wrongful use of force or fear, or under color of
official right.
519. Fear, such as will constitute extortion, may be induced by a
threat, either:
1. To do an unlawful injury to the person or property of the
individual threatened or of a third person; or,
2. To accuse the individual threatened, or any relative of his, or
member of his family, of any crime; or,
3. To expose, or to impute to him or them any deformity, disgrace
or crime; or,
4. To expose any secret affecting him or them. | It largely depends on whether disclosure of the vulnerability would be legal, which will differ case by case and could be challenged in court either way.
The key word in the California Penal code bit quoted by @sharur is "*wrongful use*". The thing is, the use of fear to do what you are legally allowed cannot be considered "wrongful". A good analogy here would be a skilled/important employee "threatening" his employer to resign if they do not raise his pay. Therefore, if disclosing the vulnerability in public can be proved legal, then the offer in question is legal as well. |
1,012,970 | When I select a sentence of Normal text in Word and choose the Numbering list icon, to turn it into a list, the style of the text changes to Heading 1. Somehow heading numbering and list numbering have gotten mixed up? How to I properly set heading numbering with affecting normal list numbering?
Also, if I have a bulleted list with a nested level and try to change the nest level from bullets to numbers using the numbering icon, the indent is lost and ends up indented the same as the parent bullet. It doesn't change to Heading 1 here thank goodness. How do I fixed all this messed up Word Numbering?
Microsoft Word for Mac 15 | 2015/12/13 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1012970",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/366738/"
] | Instead of selecting the "Numbering" icon, I selected the down arrow next to it, then "Define New Number Format". I pressed "Ok" on the dialog box that appeared and that allowed me to create numbering without automatically changing the style of the paragraph to "Heading 1". | Disgraceful bug - my only solution was to delete my section, create the header again, copy the previous text to a text editor, then paste back in unformatted. Was able to to what should have happened the first time. Wasted 45 minutes on this and our I.T. are still trying to resolve it as it keeps happening. |
1,012,970 | When I select a sentence of Normal text in Word and choose the Numbering list icon, to turn it into a list, the style of the text changes to Heading 1. Somehow heading numbering and list numbering have gotten mixed up? How to I properly set heading numbering with affecting normal list numbering?
Also, if I have a bulleted list with a nested level and try to change the nest level from bullets to numbers using the numbering icon, the indent is lost and ends up indented the same as the parent bullet. It doesn't change to Heading 1 here thank goodness. How do I fixed all this messed up Word Numbering?
Microsoft Word for Mac 15 | 2015/12/13 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1012970",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/366738/"
] | Instead of selecting the "Numbering" icon, I selected the down arrow next to it, then "Define New Number Format". I pressed "Ok" on the dialog box that appeared and that allowed me to create numbering without automatically changing the style of the paragraph to "Heading 1". | **Check on issue** : right click on 'list bullet' style. If it jumps to 'heading 1' before giving you the popup then your styles box is broken.
**Workaround** : highlight text that you're applying the style to. Instead of clicking the style as normal, click the little arrow bottom right of the styles box, which gives you a text list instead. Click desired style in this text list and it will be applied rather than the one you didn't want |
1,012,970 | When I select a sentence of Normal text in Word and choose the Numbering list icon, to turn it into a list, the style of the text changes to Heading 1. Somehow heading numbering and list numbering have gotten mixed up? How to I properly set heading numbering with affecting normal list numbering?
Also, if I have a bulleted list with a nested level and try to change the nest level from bullets to numbers using the numbering icon, the indent is lost and ends up indented the same as the parent bullet. It doesn't change to Heading 1 here thank goodness. How do I fixed all this messed up Word Numbering?
Microsoft Word for Mac 15 | 2015/12/13 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1012970",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/366738/"
] | Instead of selecting the "Numbering" icon, I selected the down arrow next to it, then "Define New Number Format". I pressed "Ok" on the dialog box that appeared and that allowed me to create numbering without automatically changing the style of the paragraph to "Heading 1". | The easiest workaround I could find was selecting bullets, typing your steps and then change the steps to numbers.
So first type out your steps using bullets.
* Text 1
* Text 2
* Text 3
Now select all text after the bullets and click on the Numbering button in the paragraph section. It should change all steps to numbers without changing the heading:
1. Text 1
2. Text 2
3. Text 3 |
18,481 | **The use of the Death Note in the human world sometimes affects other humans' lives or shortens their original life span, even though their names are not actually written in the Death Note itself. In these cases, no matter the cause, the god of death sees only the original lifespan and not the shortened lifespan.**
We saw, that Misas lifespan was shortened because Light was killed by Ryuk. So this means, that you can shorten a persons lifespan with the death note. So let's say, A has a death note and knows that C wants to kill B with a death note. He writes B's name in his death note, thus preventing him from being killed by a death note. So C, can't kill B with a death note anymore. But since the death note can shorten the lifespan of those, whos name isn't written in the death note, C decides to use Y, to set up a trap. C writes:
Y, Car accident. Dies at 12:30, after he produces a deadly poison, which he injects into the food the person he knows as ''B'' eats. After he did this, he will die 9 days later in a car accident.
So, could C shorten B's lifespan in this way, so that he is able to indirectly kill him? | 2015/01/12 | [
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/questions/18481",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/users/6399/"
] | Yes, to the extent of how can you manipulate a person's actions with the DN. [(1)](https://anime.stackexchange.com/questions/17280/how-long-can-you-manipulate-a-person-with-a-death-note?rq=1) [(2)](https://anime.stackexchange.com/questions/7415/can-writing-in-the-death-note-influence-others?rq=1). But care must be taken not to break the other rules:
In your example, B will die in at most 23 days because A has written B's name in his DN.
But let's assume C wants B dead BEFORE that timeframe.
There is a conflict in the writing C did in the DN:
>
> Y, Car accident. Dies at 12:30, after he produces a deadly poison, which he injects into the food the person he knows as ''B'' eats. After he did this, he will die 9 days later in a car accident.
>
>
>
C's writing may be in conflict with this rule:
>
> If the death leads to the death of more than the intended, the person will simply die of a heart attack. This is to ensure that other lives are not influenced. Even though only one name is written in the Death Note, if it influences and causes other humans that are not written in it to die, the victim’s cause of death will be a heart attack
>
>
>
So it can either be considered as a violation of the rule above (and Y will die of heart attack) or work as intended by C. | It's not shortening B's lifespan, you had to write B's name in the death note to make that happen.
The way you can accidentally shorten someone's lifespan is, for example, killing the police officer that stopped B from getting shot, thus B's lifespan is implicitly shortened to the time where he gets shot. |
3,075 | Since winter is near, can someone suggest some practical ways to get warm at home without spending too much in gas or electricity?
Also for every solution, please add if it can be done homemade and what the approximate costs are?
More information:
the problem of my home now is that it is using gas-water heating system, but this consumes a lot of gas and the actual walls are not very isolated against external.
I wanted to avoid the use of gas or find any better solution. | 2014/10/08 | [
"https://sustainability.stackexchange.com/questions/3075",
"https://sustainability.stackexchange.com",
"https://sustainability.stackexchange.com/users/1746/"
] | There are two main categories to consider here.
The first is to improve the efficiency of how your home is kept warm - either by increasing the efficiency of the heating system, or by reducing the rate at which warmth is lost to the outside. If your home is quite "leaky" then major gains can be made this way quite cheaply. Other answers to this and other questions have given some guidance on this.
The second is to think about ways to reduce the need for heating your home. Things that you could consider (some of which are probably obvious):
* Wear warmer clothing at home.
* If you use heating in your bedroom during the night, turn it off. If you find yourself waking up due to the cold, invest in warmer blankets or duvet, or warm pyjamas. Except in the coldest and leakiest houses, in harsh climates, bedroom heating is often not strictly necessary - although using some "comfort" heating in the mornings certainly makes it easier to get out of bed! A hot water bottle can help to alleviate the discomfort of a cold bed until your body heat warms it up.
* If you do want to heat your bedroom, then use an electric blanket to heat the bed, and your body, rather than warming the whole room. *NB ensure that this is in good condition and observe safety instructions*. Note, however, that [some sources](http://asthmafoundation.org.nz/your-health/living-with-asthma/healthy-homes/#Warm) do not recommend living at below 16C - although it is not clear whether this applies to sleeping as well as waking conditions.
* Don't heat rooms that you don't use (depending on climate, you may want to keep a background level of heating to prevent mould or freezing). If you live in many rooms, consider whether you can live in fewer.
* Don't heat corridors or hallways - instead, close the door of the room that you're in.
Bear in mind that being cold at home can be detrimental to your physical and mental health. None of the above should be construed as "live with being uncomfortably cold" - instead, think of it as suggestions on how to remain comfortable while using less energy. | A: Insulate your attic. This can be done in an afternoon. Put 12-16" total in that space.
B: Seal the leaks: Weatherstrip the doors and openable windows. All electrical outlets are punctures in the outside wall. You can buy gaskets for them, or you can make them out of the styrofoam meat trays you get from the grocery store.
C: Heat shrink plastic the windows. This is another kit. Each layer of plastic adds 1 R unit.
After that the changes get more expensive. |
3,075 | Since winter is near, can someone suggest some practical ways to get warm at home without spending too much in gas or electricity?
Also for every solution, please add if it can be done homemade and what the approximate costs are?
More information:
the problem of my home now is that it is using gas-water heating system, but this consumes a lot of gas and the actual walls are not very isolated against external.
I wanted to avoid the use of gas or find any better solution. | 2014/10/08 | [
"https://sustainability.stackexchange.com/questions/3075",
"https://sustainability.stackexchange.com",
"https://sustainability.stackexchange.com/users/1746/"
] | A: Insulate your attic. This can be done in an afternoon. Put 12-16" total in that space.
B: Seal the leaks: Weatherstrip the doors and openable windows. All electrical outlets are punctures in the outside wall. You can buy gaskets for them, or you can make them out of the styrofoam meat trays you get from the grocery store.
C: Heat shrink plastic the windows. This is another kit. Each layer of plastic adds 1 R unit.
After that the changes get more expensive. | To give you an idea of costs:
If you're in the UK, you can often get grants for insulating your loft and walls, so each should cost about £100. You will make that back in savings pretty quickly. I didn't do this, and paid for loft insulation, which cost about £250, which still gives you savings in heating quite rapidly. Basically it's the equivalent of wearing a jumper on a cold day (compared with not wearing one).
You can buy a seal for about £5 to go around doors and windows to plug any gaps. This will stop draughts so that you can keep the warm air in for longer. You can also buy 'window film' which is a clear plastic that you can put over windows to make them like double-glazed windows. This also costs about £5 and covers 2-3 windows.
To buy an electric blanket costs about £20 and it can cost as little as 1p per hour to run.
Of course, there are other suggestions such as closing the curtains when it gets dark, which can also help.
Also in the UK there is the 'green deal' which means that you may be able to make improvements to the house - such as putting in a new boiler - and the cost is covered by the reduction in your energy bills. Your bills themselves won't reduce, but the money you're saving will go to pay back the company which fitted the improvement in the first place. You may need to pay around £100-£150 for a survey though. |
3,075 | Since winter is near, can someone suggest some practical ways to get warm at home without spending too much in gas or electricity?
Also for every solution, please add if it can be done homemade and what the approximate costs are?
More information:
the problem of my home now is that it is using gas-water heating system, but this consumes a lot of gas and the actual walls are not very isolated against external.
I wanted to avoid the use of gas or find any better solution. | 2014/10/08 | [
"https://sustainability.stackexchange.com/questions/3075",
"https://sustainability.stackexchange.com",
"https://sustainability.stackexchange.com/users/1746/"
] | A: Insulate your attic. This can be done in an afternoon. Put 12-16" total in that space.
B: Seal the leaks: Weatherstrip the doors and openable windows. All electrical outlets are punctures in the outside wall. You can buy gaskets for them, or you can make them out of the styrofoam meat trays you get from the grocery store.
C: Heat shrink plastic the windows. This is another kit. Each layer of plastic adds 1 R unit.
After that the changes get more expensive. | Some perhaps unusual ideas that I use myself, the principle being that it's not your home that wants to be warm, it's your human body that wants to be.
* Drink lots of hot water (I drink tea myself, but probably hot water or any other hot drink is just as good).
* Exercise frenetically for 5-10 minutes every time you get cold, to get heated up. You get healthier, you save heating bills, and the environment takes a little bit less of a hit. Win-win all around. |
3,075 | Since winter is near, can someone suggest some practical ways to get warm at home without spending too much in gas or electricity?
Also for every solution, please add if it can be done homemade and what the approximate costs are?
More information:
the problem of my home now is that it is using gas-water heating system, but this consumes a lot of gas and the actual walls are not very isolated against external.
I wanted to avoid the use of gas or find any better solution. | 2014/10/08 | [
"https://sustainability.stackexchange.com/questions/3075",
"https://sustainability.stackexchange.com",
"https://sustainability.stackexchange.com/users/1746/"
] | There are two main categories to consider here.
The first is to improve the efficiency of how your home is kept warm - either by increasing the efficiency of the heating system, or by reducing the rate at which warmth is lost to the outside. If your home is quite "leaky" then major gains can be made this way quite cheaply. Other answers to this and other questions have given some guidance on this.
The second is to think about ways to reduce the need for heating your home. Things that you could consider (some of which are probably obvious):
* Wear warmer clothing at home.
* If you use heating in your bedroom during the night, turn it off. If you find yourself waking up due to the cold, invest in warmer blankets or duvet, or warm pyjamas. Except in the coldest and leakiest houses, in harsh climates, bedroom heating is often not strictly necessary - although using some "comfort" heating in the mornings certainly makes it easier to get out of bed! A hot water bottle can help to alleviate the discomfort of a cold bed until your body heat warms it up.
* If you do want to heat your bedroom, then use an electric blanket to heat the bed, and your body, rather than warming the whole room. *NB ensure that this is in good condition and observe safety instructions*. Note, however, that [some sources](http://asthmafoundation.org.nz/your-health/living-with-asthma/healthy-homes/#Warm) do not recommend living at below 16C - although it is not clear whether this applies to sleeping as well as waking conditions.
* Don't heat rooms that you don't use (depending on climate, you may want to keep a background level of heating to prevent mould or freezing). If you live in many rooms, consider whether you can live in fewer.
* Don't heat corridors or hallways - instead, close the door of the room that you're in.
Bear in mind that being cold at home can be detrimental to your physical and mental health. None of the above should be construed as "live with being uncomfortably cold" - instead, think of it as suggestions on how to remain comfortable while using less energy. | To give you an idea of costs:
If you're in the UK, you can often get grants for insulating your loft and walls, so each should cost about £100. You will make that back in savings pretty quickly. I didn't do this, and paid for loft insulation, which cost about £250, which still gives you savings in heating quite rapidly. Basically it's the equivalent of wearing a jumper on a cold day (compared with not wearing one).
You can buy a seal for about £5 to go around doors and windows to plug any gaps. This will stop draughts so that you can keep the warm air in for longer. You can also buy 'window film' which is a clear plastic that you can put over windows to make them like double-glazed windows. This also costs about £5 and covers 2-3 windows.
To buy an electric blanket costs about £20 and it can cost as little as 1p per hour to run.
Of course, there are other suggestions such as closing the curtains when it gets dark, which can also help.
Also in the UK there is the 'green deal' which means that you may be able to make improvements to the house - such as putting in a new boiler - and the cost is covered by the reduction in your energy bills. Your bills themselves won't reduce, but the money you're saving will go to pay back the company which fitted the improvement in the first place. You may need to pay around £100-£150 for a survey though. |
3,075 | Since winter is near, can someone suggest some practical ways to get warm at home without spending too much in gas or electricity?
Also for every solution, please add if it can be done homemade and what the approximate costs are?
More information:
the problem of my home now is that it is using gas-water heating system, but this consumes a lot of gas and the actual walls are not very isolated against external.
I wanted to avoid the use of gas or find any better solution. | 2014/10/08 | [
"https://sustainability.stackexchange.com/questions/3075",
"https://sustainability.stackexchange.com",
"https://sustainability.stackexchange.com/users/1746/"
] | There are two main categories to consider here.
The first is to improve the efficiency of how your home is kept warm - either by increasing the efficiency of the heating system, or by reducing the rate at which warmth is lost to the outside. If your home is quite "leaky" then major gains can be made this way quite cheaply. Other answers to this and other questions have given some guidance on this.
The second is to think about ways to reduce the need for heating your home. Things that you could consider (some of which are probably obvious):
* Wear warmer clothing at home.
* If you use heating in your bedroom during the night, turn it off. If you find yourself waking up due to the cold, invest in warmer blankets or duvet, or warm pyjamas. Except in the coldest and leakiest houses, in harsh climates, bedroom heating is often not strictly necessary - although using some "comfort" heating in the mornings certainly makes it easier to get out of bed! A hot water bottle can help to alleviate the discomfort of a cold bed until your body heat warms it up.
* If you do want to heat your bedroom, then use an electric blanket to heat the bed, and your body, rather than warming the whole room. *NB ensure that this is in good condition and observe safety instructions*. Note, however, that [some sources](http://asthmafoundation.org.nz/your-health/living-with-asthma/healthy-homes/#Warm) do not recommend living at below 16C - although it is not clear whether this applies to sleeping as well as waking conditions.
* Don't heat rooms that you don't use (depending on climate, you may want to keep a background level of heating to prevent mould or freezing). If you live in many rooms, consider whether you can live in fewer.
* Don't heat corridors or hallways - instead, close the door of the room that you're in.
Bear in mind that being cold at home can be detrimental to your physical and mental health. None of the above should be construed as "live with being uncomfortably cold" - instead, think of it as suggestions on how to remain comfortable while using less energy. | Some perhaps unusual ideas that I use myself, the principle being that it's not your home that wants to be warm, it's your human body that wants to be.
* Drink lots of hot water (I drink tea myself, but probably hot water or any other hot drink is just as good).
* Exercise frenetically for 5-10 minutes every time you get cold, to get heated up. You get healthier, you save heating bills, and the environment takes a little bit less of a hit. Win-win all around. |
41,601 | As I was visiting a gadget shop I noticed these dice that had this images from top, front, and side - presented in the picture. Than I noticed another feature and knew it. Who plays with these dice? The intended players use the dice as regular dice.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Rr7fK.png) | 2016/08/28 | [
"https://puzzling.stackexchange.com/questions/41601",
"https://puzzling.stackexchange.com",
"https://puzzling.stackexchange.com/users/9531/"
] | Partial answer:
>
> The dice are transparent. I'm not sure *why* someone would specifically need transparent dice, but with a standard layout, that's what a transparent die would look like. The front and back are 6 and 1, the sides are 5 and 2, and the top and bottom are 3 and 4.
>
>
>
It could be
>
> a nested die?
>
> [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/zgkN2.png)
>
> I know several tabletop roleplayers use these, and sometimes they're used for other games where you have to roll two dice at once.
>
>
> | Well,
>
> one of the dice in a set of "[Efron dice](https://plus.maths.org/content/let-em-roll)" would have three faces with 5,5,7 spots on them.
>
>
>
I don't see why the question would have the "geometry" tag if that were what Moti has in mind, but assuming this isn't the intended answer perhaps Moti would like to narrow the question somehow so as to exclude it?
[Since I posted this, the question has been edited to include the words "The intended players use the dice as regular dice"; if that rules out this answer then I don't really see how...] |
41,601 | As I was visiting a gadget shop I noticed these dice that had this images from top, front, and side - presented in the picture. Than I noticed another feature and knew it. Who plays with these dice? The intended players use the dice as regular dice.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Rr7fK.png) | 2016/08/28 | [
"https://puzzling.stackexchange.com/questions/41601",
"https://puzzling.stackexchange.com",
"https://puzzling.stackexchange.com/users/9531/"
] | Well,
>
> one of the dice in a set of "[Efron dice](https://plus.maths.org/content/let-em-roll)" would have three faces with 5,5,7 spots on them.
>
>
>
I don't see why the question would have the "geometry" tag if that were what Moti has in mind, but assuming this isn't the intended answer perhaps Moti would like to narrow the question somehow so as to exclude it?
[Since I posted this, the question has been edited to include the words "The intended players use the dice as regular dice"; if that rules out this answer then I don't really see how...] | The people who use these dice are:
>
> Scam Artists
>
>
>
These are called called:
>
> ["Non-Transitive Dice"](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nontransitive_dice). A dice of one layout will have a winning probability over another, and that one will lose to the third, sort of like "Rock, Paper, Scissors".
>
> Relevant Scam School video: <https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=dQ0sdD61UGs>
>
>
> |
41,601 | As I was visiting a gadget shop I noticed these dice that had this images from top, front, and side - presented in the picture. Than I noticed another feature and knew it. Who plays with these dice? The intended players use the dice as regular dice.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Rr7fK.png) | 2016/08/28 | [
"https://puzzling.stackexchange.com/questions/41601",
"https://puzzling.stackexchange.com",
"https://puzzling.stackexchange.com/users/9531/"
] | Partial answer:
>
> The dice are transparent. I'm not sure *why* someone would specifically need transparent dice, but with a standard layout, that's what a transparent die would look like. The front and back are 6 and 1, the sides are 5 and 2, and the top and bottom are 3 and 4.
>
>
>
It could be
>
> a nested die?
>
> [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/zgkN2.png)
>
> I know several tabletop roleplayers use these, and sometimes they're used for other games where you have to roll two dice at once.
>
>
> | The people who use these dice are:
>
> Scam Artists
>
>
>
These are called called:
>
> ["Non-Transitive Dice"](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nontransitive_dice). A dice of one layout will have a winning probability over another, and that one will lose to the third, sort of like "Rock, Paper, Scissors".
>
> Relevant Scam School video: <https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=dQ0sdD61UGs>
>
>
> |
71,583 | I would like to know whether these free SMS alert sites such as My Today SMS, Alertix pay for the sites such as religate, oneindia.in e.t.c, Or they just mention in their website that this service powered by Oneindia.
What I would like to know is whether these people pay any royalty/monthly/annual fee for these religate/oneindia, by which I also mean:
Are there any legal issues attached to extracting data from the RSS feeds these websites provide for services like free SMS alerts? | 2009/11/17 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/71583",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/-1/"
] | There is no one answer fits all.
The main reason for content owners offering RSS feeds is simply because they want to syndicate the content to people in a quick and easy way.
Generally people offer this service for end users to see the content and there should be no harm in building an application or using a feed for yourself.
If however, you are going to be references, reselling or offering someone's content to anyone, you start going in the area of copyrighted work... Look at the recent complaints about Google News for example.
I am pretty sure that if you use any content from any website, you have to agree to their terms and conditions as well as their terms of service which may prevent this sort of activity.
The only real way to know is to get in contact with the website in question and ask for their permission. | If you didn't want your content syndicated, you wouldn't publish an RSS feed.
I'd say that allowing this syndication is one of the reasons for having an RSS feed, and to pursue legal action for someone using it would be stupid. |
71,583 | I would like to know whether these free SMS alert sites such as My Today SMS, Alertix pay for the sites such as religate, oneindia.in e.t.c, Or they just mention in their website that this service powered by Oneindia.
What I would like to know is whether these people pay any royalty/monthly/annual fee for these religate/oneindia, by which I also mean:
Are there any legal issues attached to extracting data from the RSS feeds these websites provide for services like free SMS alerts? | 2009/11/17 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/71583",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/-1/"
] | There is no one answer fits all.
The main reason for content owners offering RSS feeds is simply because they want to syndicate the content to people in a quick and easy way.
Generally people offer this service for end users to see the content and there should be no harm in building an application or using a feed for yourself.
If however, you are going to be references, reselling or offering someone's content to anyone, you start going in the area of copyrighted work... Look at the recent complaints about Google News for example.
I am pretty sure that if you use any content from any website, you have to agree to their terms and conditions as well as their terms of service which may prevent this sort of activity.
The only real way to know is to get in contact with the website in question and ask for their permission. | Their is no Such Legal issue.
Feel Free to extract them and use them Where ever you want to use or do whatever you want to do with them.
Giving RSS means the Publisher wishes RSS as frequently updated data.
Just to get the incoming links / Repearing visitors.
And there are tons of tools that fetch data.Safari/Firefox/Opera/.. Have built-in features.
Yahoo fetches them... |
7,736 | I was watching a [video](http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=eWtPA8v-xeQ) of the first A350 flight. At [0:35](http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=eWtPA8v-xeQ#t=35) one of the pilots appears to be wearing a helmet and what looks like a parachute. Is that true? Do pilots on maiden flights wear such a kit, so that in case of an emergency they can evacuate the airplane? | 2014/07/16 | [
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/7736",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/users/1534/"
] | To the best of my knowledge, all commercial aircraft being tested have their pilots take on parachutes and hi-vis clothing in addition to creating a possible means of egress on all important flights, such as the first flight and high-speed tests.
Since getting the cabin doors open is practically difficult, the solution I think most producers use is to built a chute down the front cargo entrance which can open.
**Bombardier produced a [pretty extensive film](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=lWIOQuQBKFM) for their new CSeries.**
Here's the solution employed on the Concorde:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/1MZVQ.jpg) | >
> Since getting the cabin doors open is practically difficult
>
>
>
No, that's not the (main) reason.
There's something called a wing ... which has engines mounted to it !
Not a very good idea to jump out of a door if you're likely to be sucked into an engine on your way out ! |
262 | This site's structure is very good at getting specific answers to specific questions. I'm currently doing some troubleshooting at home to work out why I'm running into a particular fault and would like to ask a question that will likely involve lots of 'question -> answer -> more data -> repeat' loops. The challenge is that I don't know what the cause of my problem is, else I'd address it directly.
I imagine this would come up for users every so often so thought I'd ask here for the sake of reference.
**What should a user do when faced with a troubleshooting question?**
Some potential ideas...
1. Ask a general question like "Can you help me diagnose a problem with X symptom?" or "Why does X happen in my brew?"
2. Ask a series of specific questions based on hypotheses "Can you X too much?" "Does X effect Y?"
3. Refrain from asking at all & take the question to a forum-style site (or chat)
Number 1 could easily be a "bad fit" for the site, unlikely to help many others, but would probably get the answer eventually. Number 2 would be time-consuming for the asker but fits nicely with the site. Number 3 sucks but may be the right answer. | 2012/03/21 | [
"https://homebrew.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/262",
"https://homebrew.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://homebrew.meta.stackexchange.com/users/898/"
] | I'd go with option 2. Ask one specific question at a time, as it helps you to diagnose your problem. The site's main value to others is specific answers to specific questions, so this kind of activity is helpful. | They could go to a traditional forum and ask for advice there. |
193,038 | If all my data is in UTM NAD83 Zone 10 and I get new data in GCS WGS 1984 do I have to reproject the WGS data to UTM NAD83 Zone 10 for it to align correctly or can I just bring it into an mxd that is already in UTM NAD83 Zone 10. If I need to reproject it using ArcCatalog how do I do this? | 2016/05/10 | [
"https://gis.stackexchange.com/questions/193038",
"https://gis.stackexchange.com",
"https://gis.stackexchange.com/users/72939/"
] | If you are planning to perform spatial analysis using your data, I suggest you to reproject all your data into one projection, either using ArcGIS or FME. Sometimes the reprojections does not work perfectly on the first try, you may need to try a couple times to get it right. | I know it is dated in May but if you don't reproject it to UTM NAD 83, then your ArcMap will run very slowly !! so if you reproject then it will run smoothly and I agree with Christina as well. |
3,221,394 | I am looking to build a web app that implements background audio and fast app switching. These features work out of the box, when run as regular Safari web pages, but as soon as you add the web-app-capable tag, and try to run in full screen mode, this functionality breaks.
I did some testing and even the most basic web app will reload every time when you switch back to it. And seeing as it's a web app, we can't exactly implement the multitasking API. Has anyone found a work around?
This isn't a deal-breaker, as you can just avoid full screen mode, but then you also lose the ability to use your own icon in the app switch tray. Perhaps this explains a lack of full screen mode in YouTube's new web app.... | 2010/07/11 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3221394",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/388657/"
] | For future reference, this does not seem to be possible.
My theory is that when you enable full screen mode on an iPhone app, it creates a very simple native app that consists of a single Web UI view. Unfortunately, this simple native app does not have any complex functionality (multitasking, background audio), nor is there any way to add it.
If you don't add full screen mode, the web app acts as a shortcut to Safari and seeing as it is running inside Safari, you get all the functionality that is built into it. So if you want multitasking or background audio, you cannot enable full screen mode.
Hope that helps someone else wondering the same thing. | I'm seeing the same thing and found very few others complaining about this, which I find surprising. I put some additional details [in a blog post](http://www.willcodeforequity.com/blog/2011/1/10/apple-webapp-short-comings.html).
Like you, I'm disabling full-screen for now. I'll probably package my app up using PhoneGap in the near future, in hopes that it will maintain state better and even if it doesn't right away, I'll have the native code available to add that support. |
9,641 | I spend the vast majority of my time inside, so I would like to start getting into cycling. I rode up to the beach a couple days ago and got some slight sunburn. I personally don't mind sunburn all too much, but the news has successfully instilled a fear of skin cancer into me.
My initial reaction to articles like: <http://shine.yahoo.com/healthy-living/the-new-rules-of-sun-safety-2477938.html> that make claims such as:
>
> It's not smart to go out-of-doors unprotected.
>
>
>
..was that the writers were absolutely nuts. We've spent our entire evolutionary history under the sun - to think that short excursions outdoors would be dangerous seems ludicrous. But then, people are living much longer than they ever did before and, if there are dangerous aspects of sun exposure, the increase in greenhouse gases might be adding to them.
So, does anyone know the reality behind all of this? Should I wear sunblock, or is skin cancer only a risk for people outside all day everyday? | 2012/05/30 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/9641",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/4186/"
] | I wear sunblock all the time, because I burn easily, as much as cancer concerns.
Alas, one to watch for, as you get older and lose hair, is to remember sunblock under the helmet, else you get burn lines. | I use long sleeves to shield myself from the sun during long exposures.
I found a [lightweight trekking shirt](http://www.rei.com/product/794446/rei-sahara-tech-long-sleeve-shirt-mens) from REI to be a good fit, it dries quickly and is rather vented and the arms are made to be rolled up and buttoned to stay in place when you don't want the long sleeves. I used this on my last 4 day tour for almost the entire ride.
Also, [Pearl Izumi](http://rads.stackoverflow.com/amzn/click/B002KW3I1Y) makes sun sleeves which can protect you if you want a more traditional racer style look.
For Your Head you can get skullcaps with a flap on the back of the neck like [walz caps skullcap](http://www.walzcaps.com/caps_skullcaps_helmetliners.html) or [Halo Headband Solar Skull Cap](http://rads.stackoverflow.com/amzn/click/B002IY8DBE)
For Legs you can get [UV leg protectors](http://davidsworld.com/product/pearl-izumi-sun-knees-162583-1.htm), [SPF 50+ compression leg covers,](http://www.studiovelocycling.com/products/2xu-compression-leg-sleeves) or [Pearl Izumi Sun Knees](http://davidsworld.com/product/pearl-izumi-sun-knees-162583-1.htm) to protect yourself from the sun. |
9,641 | I spend the vast majority of my time inside, so I would like to start getting into cycling. I rode up to the beach a couple days ago and got some slight sunburn. I personally don't mind sunburn all too much, but the news has successfully instilled a fear of skin cancer into me.
My initial reaction to articles like: <http://shine.yahoo.com/healthy-living/the-new-rules-of-sun-safety-2477938.html> that make claims such as:
>
> It's not smart to go out-of-doors unprotected.
>
>
>
..was that the writers were absolutely nuts. We've spent our entire evolutionary history under the sun - to think that short excursions outdoors would be dangerous seems ludicrous. But then, people are living much longer than they ever did before and, if there are dangerous aspects of sun exposure, the increase in greenhouse gases might be adding to them.
So, does anyone know the reality behind all of this? Should I wear sunblock, or is skin cancer only a risk for people outside all day everyday? | 2012/05/30 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/9641",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/4186/"
] | I ride with a bunch of old guys. They are all white guys who grew up in the midwest, working on farms, and spending a lot of time in the sun when the weather permitted it.
It is interesting to me that all of them are fastidious when it comes to sun protection. They wear sunscreen and long sleeves when it can be done comfortably. They also can tell you about regular visits to the dermatologist, where they go to fight skin cancer.
Here's a few threads for you to read and ponder:
1) [For the love of God, NOW will you wear the sunscreen?](http://www.bikeforums.net/showthread.php/721745-For-the-love-of-God-NOW-will-you-wear-the-sunscreen)
2) [Sun Protection from a Dermatologist](http://www.bikeforums.net/showthread.php/651681-Sun-Protection-from-a-Dermatologist)
Hope that helps | I use long sleeves to shield myself from the sun during long exposures.
I found a [lightweight trekking shirt](http://www.rei.com/product/794446/rei-sahara-tech-long-sleeve-shirt-mens) from REI to be a good fit, it dries quickly and is rather vented and the arms are made to be rolled up and buttoned to stay in place when you don't want the long sleeves. I used this on my last 4 day tour for almost the entire ride.
Also, [Pearl Izumi](http://rads.stackoverflow.com/amzn/click/B002KW3I1Y) makes sun sleeves which can protect you if you want a more traditional racer style look.
For Your Head you can get skullcaps with a flap on the back of the neck like [walz caps skullcap](http://www.walzcaps.com/caps_skullcaps_helmetliners.html) or [Halo Headband Solar Skull Cap](http://rads.stackoverflow.com/amzn/click/B002IY8DBE)
For Legs you can get [UV leg protectors](http://davidsworld.com/product/pearl-izumi-sun-knees-162583-1.htm), [SPF 50+ compression leg covers,](http://www.studiovelocycling.com/products/2xu-compression-leg-sleeves) or [Pearl Izumi Sun Knees](http://davidsworld.com/product/pearl-izumi-sun-knees-162583-1.htm) to protect yourself from the sun. |
9,641 | I spend the vast majority of my time inside, so I would like to start getting into cycling. I rode up to the beach a couple days ago and got some slight sunburn. I personally don't mind sunburn all too much, but the news has successfully instilled a fear of skin cancer into me.
My initial reaction to articles like: <http://shine.yahoo.com/healthy-living/the-new-rules-of-sun-safety-2477938.html> that make claims such as:
>
> It's not smart to go out-of-doors unprotected.
>
>
>
..was that the writers were absolutely nuts. We've spent our entire evolutionary history under the sun - to think that short excursions outdoors would be dangerous seems ludicrous. But then, people are living much longer than they ever did before and, if there are dangerous aspects of sun exposure, the increase in greenhouse gases might be adding to them.
So, does anyone know the reality behind all of this? Should I wear sunblock, or is skin cancer only a risk for people outside all day everyday? | 2012/05/30 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/9641",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/4186/"
] | We've spent our entire evolutionary history under the sun, but also aging quickly and dying at young ages. The evolutionary history argument just isn't very compelling.
The current consensus is that sunscreen helps prevent skin cancer, and skin cancer is indeed common. On the other hand, I have seen references to theories suggesting that sunscreen might increase a certain type of cancer or decrease vitamin D production, but these do not seem to be widely accepted. An in-depth discussion of this is probably more appropriate for Skeptics.SE than Bicycles.SE.
In the meantime, just use sunscreen.
EDIT: As heltonbiker pointed out, burning and cancer susceptibility depend on your skin, and most people develop some protection from tanning. I personally wear sunblock during mid-day rides (between about 11:00 and 3:00), when the sun is directly overhead, but I'll leave it off for evening and early morning rides.
If you're burning instead of tanning (even if you don't mind the burns), you're probably getting too much exposure and should use sunscreen more often. | I would suggest that you always wear a sun block of a minimum of a 50 SPF. If you don't like putting a sunscreen on, then a long sleeved shirt such as a hiker would wear that has a built in SPF. One thing we all seem to forget, is the fact that sun exposure is more than the 2 to 4 hour ride on your bike. You may already have spent a total of another hour or two doing outside work at the house or just walking in and out of buildings during the day. This sun exposure all adds up on your skin. I have a friend who virtually lived on his bicycle 7 or 8 months out of the year. A 50 to 60 mile ride daily was nothing to him. And then there was golfing or kayacking before or after the ride. He never wore sun protection and was always really dark tanned all year. A few years ago he began treatments for melonoma on his face and shoulders from the comtinuous exposure while unprotected. He never wore a helmet either. He just develops the melonomas and has them treated when they occur. I always wear SPF 50 sun protection that's "waterproof", especially when I take the longer rides. |
9,641 | I spend the vast majority of my time inside, so I would like to start getting into cycling. I rode up to the beach a couple days ago and got some slight sunburn. I personally don't mind sunburn all too much, but the news has successfully instilled a fear of skin cancer into me.
My initial reaction to articles like: <http://shine.yahoo.com/healthy-living/the-new-rules-of-sun-safety-2477938.html> that make claims such as:
>
> It's not smart to go out-of-doors unprotected.
>
>
>
..was that the writers were absolutely nuts. We've spent our entire evolutionary history under the sun - to think that short excursions outdoors would be dangerous seems ludicrous. But then, people are living much longer than they ever did before and, if there are dangerous aspects of sun exposure, the increase in greenhouse gases might be adding to them.
So, does anyone know the reality behind all of this? Should I wear sunblock, or is skin cancer only a risk for people outside all day everyday? | 2012/05/30 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/9641",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/4186/"
] | I offer an "informed decision" answer, partly based on a (slightly skeptical) medical knowledge, and from my experience as a biker. This should NOT be considered some truth emited by a potential authority-figure, neither an advice to act this or that way.
On one hand, there is a very positive association between skin exposure to UV radiation (such as sunlight) and skin cancer. This association is much greater in people who have a very white skin color, such as most european/caucasian ethnic groups. It is believed that this is due to the small capacity of these skin types to produce melanin. Melanin is a dark pigment produced by skin cells to protect the cell nucleus, and its production is somewhat stimulated by sunlight exposure. Please read these very interesting paragraphs from Wikipedia: <http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Melanin#Human_adaptation>
Now, as a biker, my experience is the following:
* There was a time when I didn't ride much often in direct sunlight. I almost always got sunburn when I went to the beach during the summer, unprotected, when it became obvious that sunblock was needed, at least on high-exposure seasons and places. During that time, riding across noon in the summer almost always implied a reddish sunburn on neck, nose, calves and forearms.
* Some time later, I started to use sunblock to ride my bike during the summer, if I knew there would be many hours exposed to the sun. It worked a lot, no sunburns at all, but if at any time I forgot the sunblock, I got sunburned.
* Nowadays, in what my wife (with much reason) considers a very questionable behaviour, I gave up any kind of sun protection to ride the bike, completely. This was due to many "reasons", which I am not ashamed to share:
+ I think the skin must be given the opportunity to develop at least a minimum amount of self-defense;
+ The anti-cancer pro-sunblock-all-the-time propaganda contains all the tints of a pharmaceutical lobby, at least partially;
+ Sheer lazyness, sort of.
The experience I've been having, and it is a totally empirical, baseless, subjective one, is that I very rarely get sunburnt anymore. During the summer, the exposed skin gets very tanned (the classical "cyclist tan") and don't hurt except after very long rides under scorching sun (I tend to use sunblock on these occasions, anyway, but sometimes...).
I think both views (sunblock-always and sunblock-never) are too extreme. That's the reason why a lot of information is needed to choose an "informed decision" strategy, so that one can achieve a reasonable balance between them. The scientifical evidence about cancer vs. sunlight gets to the media very distorted by oversimplification, incompleteness and commercial/professional bias. In the other hand, as already been said, there is an undoubtfully positive evidence of association between UV radiation exposure (as sunlight) and skin cancer incidence on clear-skin populations, which might or might not be overrated.
Hope this helps | At the very least you need to be aware of the potential for burning, since, if nothing else, it's unpleasant. (We'll let others preach about skin cancer, et al.)
I don't burn easily, but, when cycling (with a helmet), and the sun is at all bright, I find it advisable to put sun block on the back of my neck, my lower arms (including hands), and my upper legs, below the point that they will be exposed when my shorts "ride up". When riding, these areas are exposed to more intense sun that other parts of the body.
Sometimes the upper arms need treating (if you're not wearing a long-sleeve jersey), if the sun is at a lower angle. And the backs of the lower legs can burn if you're riding east in the afternoon. |
9,641 | I spend the vast majority of my time inside, so I would like to start getting into cycling. I rode up to the beach a couple days ago and got some slight sunburn. I personally don't mind sunburn all too much, but the news has successfully instilled a fear of skin cancer into me.
My initial reaction to articles like: <http://shine.yahoo.com/healthy-living/the-new-rules-of-sun-safety-2477938.html> that make claims such as:
>
> It's not smart to go out-of-doors unprotected.
>
>
>
..was that the writers were absolutely nuts. We've spent our entire evolutionary history under the sun - to think that short excursions outdoors would be dangerous seems ludicrous. But then, people are living much longer than they ever did before and, if there are dangerous aspects of sun exposure, the increase in greenhouse gases might be adding to them.
So, does anyone know the reality behind all of this? Should I wear sunblock, or is skin cancer only a risk for people outside all day everyday? | 2012/05/30 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/9641",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/4186/"
] | I ride with a bunch of old guys. They are all white guys who grew up in the midwest, working on farms, and spending a lot of time in the sun when the weather permitted it.
It is interesting to me that all of them are fastidious when it comes to sun protection. They wear sunscreen and long sleeves when it can be done comfortably. They also can tell you about regular visits to the dermatologist, where they go to fight skin cancer.
Here's a few threads for you to read and ponder:
1) [For the love of God, NOW will you wear the sunscreen?](http://www.bikeforums.net/showthread.php/721745-For-the-love-of-God-NOW-will-you-wear-the-sunscreen)
2) [Sun Protection from a Dermatologist](http://www.bikeforums.net/showthread.php/651681-Sun-Protection-from-a-Dermatologist)
Hope that helps | I wear sunblock all the time, because I burn easily, as much as cancer concerns.
Alas, one to watch for, as you get older and lose hair, is to remember sunblock under the helmet, else you get burn lines. |
9,641 | I spend the vast majority of my time inside, so I would like to start getting into cycling. I rode up to the beach a couple days ago and got some slight sunburn. I personally don't mind sunburn all too much, but the news has successfully instilled a fear of skin cancer into me.
My initial reaction to articles like: <http://shine.yahoo.com/healthy-living/the-new-rules-of-sun-safety-2477938.html> that make claims such as:
>
> It's not smart to go out-of-doors unprotected.
>
>
>
..was that the writers were absolutely nuts. We've spent our entire evolutionary history under the sun - to think that short excursions outdoors would be dangerous seems ludicrous. But then, people are living much longer than they ever did before and, if there are dangerous aspects of sun exposure, the increase in greenhouse gases might be adding to them.
So, does anyone know the reality behind all of this? Should I wear sunblock, or is skin cancer only a risk for people outside all day everyday? | 2012/05/30 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/9641",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/4186/"
] | We've spent our entire evolutionary history under the sun, but also aging quickly and dying at young ages. The evolutionary history argument just isn't very compelling.
The current consensus is that sunscreen helps prevent skin cancer, and skin cancer is indeed common. On the other hand, I have seen references to theories suggesting that sunscreen might increase a certain type of cancer or decrease vitamin D production, but these do not seem to be widely accepted. An in-depth discussion of this is probably more appropriate for Skeptics.SE than Bicycles.SE.
In the meantime, just use sunscreen.
EDIT: As heltonbiker pointed out, burning and cancer susceptibility depend on your skin, and most people develop some protection from tanning. I personally wear sunblock during mid-day rides (between about 11:00 and 3:00), when the sun is directly overhead, but I'll leave it off for evening and early morning rides.
If you're burning instead of tanning (even if you don't mind the burns), you're probably getting too much exposure and should use sunscreen more often. | I always wear a full-arm length high vis cycling top, with full gloves and full leg pants. The only parts of me that are exposed are face and neck.
Sunblock just makes sense - there's no fun in a ride where you're getting damaged and have a week of bad sleep afterwards.
If its expected to be hot, rub sunblock on the ears, neck (front and back), lower face, nose. If you're bald or have short hair, put sunblock on the scalp or fit a light cloth handkerchief to the inside of your helmet.
Here's what happened after I had a #1 buzzcut, then took a ride down the beach. It feels worse than it looks.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/OTRy6.jpg) |
9,641 | I spend the vast majority of my time inside, so I would like to start getting into cycling. I rode up to the beach a couple days ago and got some slight sunburn. I personally don't mind sunburn all too much, but the news has successfully instilled a fear of skin cancer into me.
My initial reaction to articles like: <http://shine.yahoo.com/healthy-living/the-new-rules-of-sun-safety-2477938.html> that make claims such as:
>
> It's not smart to go out-of-doors unprotected.
>
>
>
..was that the writers were absolutely nuts. We've spent our entire evolutionary history under the sun - to think that short excursions outdoors would be dangerous seems ludicrous. But then, people are living much longer than they ever did before and, if there are dangerous aspects of sun exposure, the increase in greenhouse gases might be adding to them.
So, does anyone know the reality behind all of this? Should I wear sunblock, or is skin cancer only a risk for people outside all day everyday? | 2012/05/30 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/9641",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/4186/"
] | At the very least you need to be aware of the potential for burning, since, if nothing else, it's unpleasant. (We'll let others preach about skin cancer, et al.)
I don't burn easily, but, when cycling (with a helmet), and the sun is at all bright, I find it advisable to put sun block on the back of my neck, my lower arms (including hands), and my upper legs, below the point that they will be exposed when my shorts "ride up". When riding, these areas are exposed to more intense sun that other parts of the body.
Sometimes the upper arms need treating (if you're not wearing a long-sleeve jersey), if the sun is at a lower angle. And the backs of the lower legs can burn if you're riding east in the afternoon. | I use long sleeves to shield myself from the sun during long exposures.
I found a [lightweight trekking shirt](http://www.rei.com/product/794446/rei-sahara-tech-long-sleeve-shirt-mens) from REI to be a good fit, it dries quickly and is rather vented and the arms are made to be rolled up and buttoned to stay in place when you don't want the long sleeves. I used this on my last 4 day tour for almost the entire ride.
Also, [Pearl Izumi](http://rads.stackoverflow.com/amzn/click/B002KW3I1Y) makes sun sleeves which can protect you if you want a more traditional racer style look.
For Your Head you can get skullcaps with a flap on the back of the neck like [walz caps skullcap](http://www.walzcaps.com/caps_skullcaps_helmetliners.html) or [Halo Headband Solar Skull Cap](http://rads.stackoverflow.com/amzn/click/B002IY8DBE)
For Legs you can get [UV leg protectors](http://davidsworld.com/product/pearl-izumi-sun-knees-162583-1.htm), [SPF 50+ compression leg covers,](http://www.studiovelocycling.com/products/2xu-compression-leg-sleeves) or [Pearl Izumi Sun Knees](http://davidsworld.com/product/pearl-izumi-sun-knees-162583-1.htm) to protect yourself from the sun. |
9,641 | I spend the vast majority of my time inside, so I would like to start getting into cycling. I rode up to the beach a couple days ago and got some slight sunburn. I personally don't mind sunburn all too much, but the news has successfully instilled a fear of skin cancer into me.
My initial reaction to articles like: <http://shine.yahoo.com/healthy-living/the-new-rules-of-sun-safety-2477938.html> that make claims such as:
>
> It's not smart to go out-of-doors unprotected.
>
>
>
..was that the writers were absolutely nuts. We've spent our entire evolutionary history under the sun - to think that short excursions outdoors would be dangerous seems ludicrous. But then, people are living much longer than they ever did before and, if there are dangerous aspects of sun exposure, the increase in greenhouse gases might be adding to them.
So, does anyone know the reality behind all of this? Should I wear sunblock, or is skin cancer only a risk for people outside all day everyday? | 2012/05/30 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/9641",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/4186/"
] | I ride with a bunch of old guys. They are all white guys who grew up in the midwest, working on farms, and spending a lot of time in the sun when the weather permitted it.
It is interesting to me that all of them are fastidious when it comes to sun protection. They wear sunscreen and long sleeves when it can be done comfortably. They also can tell you about regular visits to the dermatologist, where they go to fight skin cancer.
Here's a few threads for you to read and ponder:
1) [For the love of God, NOW will you wear the sunscreen?](http://www.bikeforums.net/showthread.php/721745-For-the-love-of-God-NOW-will-you-wear-the-sunscreen)
2) [Sun Protection from a Dermatologist](http://www.bikeforums.net/showthread.php/651681-Sun-Protection-from-a-Dermatologist)
Hope that helps | At the very least you need to be aware of the potential for burning, since, if nothing else, it's unpleasant. (We'll let others preach about skin cancer, et al.)
I don't burn easily, but, when cycling (with a helmet), and the sun is at all bright, I find it advisable to put sun block on the back of my neck, my lower arms (including hands), and my upper legs, below the point that they will be exposed when my shorts "ride up". When riding, these areas are exposed to more intense sun that other parts of the body.
Sometimes the upper arms need treating (if you're not wearing a long-sleeve jersey), if the sun is at a lower angle. And the backs of the lower legs can burn if you're riding east in the afternoon. |
9,641 | I spend the vast majority of my time inside, so I would like to start getting into cycling. I rode up to the beach a couple days ago and got some slight sunburn. I personally don't mind sunburn all too much, but the news has successfully instilled a fear of skin cancer into me.
My initial reaction to articles like: <http://shine.yahoo.com/healthy-living/the-new-rules-of-sun-safety-2477938.html> that make claims such as:
>
> It's not smart to go out-of-doors unprotected.
>
>
>
..was that the writers were absolutely nuts. We've spent our entire evolutionary history under the sun - to think that short excursions outdoors would be dangerous seems ludicrous. But then, people are living much longer than they ever did before and, if there are dangerous aspects of sun exposure, the increase in greenhouse gases might be adding to them.
So, does anyone know the reality behind all of this? Should I wear sunblock, or is skin cancer only a risk for people outside all day everyday? | 2012/05/30 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/9641",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/4186/"
] | I wear sunblock all the time, because I burn easily, as much as cancer concerns.
Alas, one to watch for, as you get older and lose hair, is to remember sunblock under the helmet, else you get burn lines. | I would suggest that you always wear a sun block of a minimum of a 50 SPF. If you don't like putting a sunscreen on, then a long sleeved shirt such as a hiker would wear that has a built in SPF. One thing we all seem to forget, is the fact that sun exposure is more than the 2 to 4 hour ride on your bike. You may already have spent a total of another hour or two doing outside work at the house or just walking in and out of buildings during the day. This sun exposure all adds up on your skin. I have a friend who virtually lived on his bicycle 7 or 8 months out of the year. A 50 to 60 mile ride daily was nothing to him. And then there was golfing or kayacking before or after the ride. He never wore sun protection and was always really dark tanned all year. A few years ago he began treatments for melonoma on his face and shoulders from the comtinuous exposure while unprotected. He never wore a helmet either. He just develops the melonomas and has them treated when they occur. I always wear SPF 50 sun protection that's "waterproof", especially when I take the longer rides. |
9,641 | I spend the vast majority of my time inside, so I would like to start getting into cycling. I rode up to the beach a couple days ago and got some slight sunburn. I personally don't mind sunburn all too much, but the news has successfully instilled a fear of skin cancer into me.
My initial reaction to articles like: <http://shine.yahoo.com/healthy-living/the-new-rules-of-sun-safety-2477938.html> that make claims such as:
>
> It's not smart to go out-of-doors unprotected.
>
>
>
..was that the writers were absolutely nuts. We've spent our entire evolutionary history under the sun - to think that short excursions outdoors would be dangerous seems ludicrous. But then, people are living much longer than they ever did before and, if there are dangerous aspects of sun exposure, the increase in greenhouse gases might be adding to them.
So, does anyone know the reality behind all of this? Should I wear sunblock, or is skin cancer only a risk for people outside all day everyday? | 2012/05/30 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/9641",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/4186/"
] | We've spent our entire evolutionary history under the sun, but also aging quickly and dying at young ages. The evolutionary history argument just isn't very compelling.
The current consensus is that sunscreen helps prevent skin cancer, and skin cancer is indeed common. On the other hand, I have seen references to theories suggesting that sunscreen might increase a certain type of cancer or decrease vitamin D production, but these do not seem to be widely accepted. An in-depth discussion of this is probably more appropriate for Skeptics.SE than Bicycles.SE.
In the meantime, just use sunscreen.
EDIT: As heltonbiker pointed out, burning and cancer susceptibility depend on your skin, and most people develop some protection from tanning. I personally wear sunblock during mid-day rides (between about 11:00 and 3:00), when the sun is directly overhead, but I'll leave it off for evening and early morning rides.
If you're burning instead of tanning (even if you don't mind the burns), you're probably getting too much exposure and should use sunscreen more often. | I ride with a bunch of old guys. They are all white guys who grew up in the midwest, working on farms, and spending a lot of time in the sun when the weather permitted it.
It is interesting to me that all of them are fastidious when it comes to sun protection. They wear sunscreen and long sleeves when it can be done comfortably. They also can tell you about regular visits to the dermatologist, where they go to fight skin cancer.
Here's a few threads for you to read and ponder:
1) [For the love of God, NOW will you wear the sunscreen?](http://www.bikeforums.net/showthread.php/721745-For-the-love-of-God-NOW-will-you-wear-the-sunscreen)
2) [Sun Protection from a Dermatologist](http://www.bikeforums.net/showthread.php/651681-Sun-Protection-from-a-Dermatologist)
Hope that helps |
10,734 | Currently, my organization is using [Splunk](http://www.splunk.com/) to store logs from various places (DBs, Apache, systems we write, etc.). We don't really use most of its abilities (pull logs automatically, etc.), but we do require the search it provides - showing the event and some of its surroundings.
Recently the free version of Splunk started giving us hard time, so we would like to replace it with some other tool, even with less features, as long as it could index and search over large amount of logs.
Could you please offer such alternatives?
EDIT: while the suggestions given are great, none offer the searching and indexing capability I need. Can you offer something else? | 2009/05/21 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/10734",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/1068/"
] | Syslog-ng is a one of the traditional ways to centralize your logs. [This](http://www.linux.com/archive/articles/57220) older Linux.com article explains how to set this up. The article doesn't include indexing exactly, but shows you how to set up Log check to filter the logs using regex and get notified of non-trivial events. | [Rsyslog](http://www.rsyslog.com/) as a log collector (you can run nearly any syslog on each client) and [phplogcon](http://www.phplogcon.org/) as a UI for viewing the log data will do the job. Be warned, I found the documentation for rsyslog to be seriously lacking and majorly frustrating at times. I was able to make it do everything I wanted, but it took me many more hours to get things working than it did for me to get syslog-ng free working. See the [phplogcon demo site](http://demo.phplogcon.org/) to see the search and filtering interface in action. |
10,734 | Currently, my organization is using [Splunk](http://www.splunk.com/) to store logs from various places (DBs, Apache, systems we write, etc.). We don't really use most of its abilities (pull logs automatically, etc.), but we do require the search it provides - showing the event and some of its surroundings.
Recently the free version of Splunk started giving us hard time, so we would like to replace it with some other tool, even with less features, as long as it could index and search over large amount of logs.
Could you please offer such alternatives?
EDIT: while the suggestions given are great, none offer the searching and indexing capability I need. Can you offer something else? | 2009/05/21 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/10734",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/1068/"
] | Syslog-ng is a one of the traditional ways to centralize your logs. [This](http://www.linux.com/archive/articles/57220) older Linux.com article explains how to set this up. The article doesn't include indexing exactly, but shows you how to set up Log check to filter the logs using regex and get notified of non-trivial events. | As a log system I will recommend rsyslog, as its features and license has made the default in some Linux distributions. If you want a tool to search in those logs you may look at Octopusy ( <http://www.8pussy.org/> )
You can also get more feedback on another question: Alternatives to Splunk? [Alternatives to Splunk?](https://serverfault.com/questions/62687/alternatives-to-splunk) |
10,734 | Currently, my organization is using [Splunk](http://www.splunk.com/) to store logs from various places (DBs, Apache, systems we write, etc.). We don't really use most of its abilities (pull logs automatically, etc.), but we do require the search it provides - showing the event and some of its surroundings.
Recently the free version of Splunk started giving us hard time, so we would like to replace it with some other tool, even with less features, as long as it could index and search over large amount of logs.
Could you please offer such alternatives?
EDIT: while the suggestions given are great, none offer the searching and indexing capability I need. Can you offer something else? | 2009/05/21 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/10734",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/1068/"
] | In the past, I had centralized logging enabled via syslog-ng, but more recently, at a new site, I've switched to rsyslog. Here's a good comparison:
<http://www.rsyslog.com/doc-rsyslog_ng_comparison.html> | [Rsyslog](http://www.rsyslog.com/) as a log collector (you can run nearly any syslog on each client) and [phplogcon](http://www.phplogcon.org/) as a UI for viewing the log data will do the job. Be warned, I found the documentation for rsyslog to be seriously lacking and majorly frustrating at times. I was able to make it do everything I wanted, but it took me many more hours to get things working than it did for me to get syslog-ng free working. See the [phplogcon demo site](http://demo.phplogcon.org/) to see the search and filtering interface in action. |
10,734 | Currently, my organization is using [Splunk](http://www.splunk.com/) to store logs from various places (DBs, Apache, systems we write, etc.). We don't really use most of its abilities (pull logs automatically, etc.), but we do require the search it provides - showing the event and some of its surroundings.
Recently the free version of Splunk started giving us hard time, so we would like to replace it with some other tool, even with less features, as long as it could index and search over large amount of logs.
Could you please offer such alternatives?
EDIT: while the suggestions given are great, none offer the searching and indexing capability I need. Can you offer something else? | 2009/05/21 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/10734",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/1068/"
] | In the past, I had centralized logging enabled via syslog-ng, but more recently, at a new site, I've switched to rsyslog. Here's a good comparison:
<http://www.rsyslog.com/doc-rsyslog_ng_comparison.html> | As a log system I will recommend rsyslog, as its features and license has made the default in some Linux distributions. If you want a tool to search in those logs you may look at Octopusy ( <http://www.8pussy.org/> )
You can also get more feedback on another question: Alternatives to Splunk? [Alternatives to Splunk?](https://serverfault.com/questions/62687/alternatives-to-splunk) |
40,955,855 | I just moved my site to a new url. Here's what I did:
1. Copied everything from old FTP account to new account
2. Changed the site url and home from phpMyAdmin
3. Exported the old database
4. Imported the database into the new site
5. edited wp-config.php
Now when I click on the author's name in the author's bio, it redirects to my old site. How do I fix this? | 2016/12/04 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/40955855",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/6950437/"
] | Change site url and home url is not enough. There are still some old url store in database.
When replacing the url, don't edit the SQL directly, because there some value stored in db in [serialized format](https://deliciousbrains.com/wp-migrate-db-pro/doc/serialized-data/).
Try to use tool like [Search and Replace for WordPress database](https://interconnectit.com/products/search-and-replace-for-wordpress-databases/) or [WP Migrate DB](https://tw.wordpress.org/plugins/wp-migrate-db/) to replace the url. These tools will help you to replace all the url and handle the serialized value. | >
> You have to replace all the old URL with new URL.
>
>
>
After exporting the database from phpMyAdmin open the SQL file in any text editor and use find and replace method to replace all the old URL.
Reference: [How to Move WordPress From Local Server to Live Site](http://www.webhat.in/how-to-move-wordpress-from-local-server-to-live-site/) |
40,955,855 | I just moved my site to a new url. Here's what I did:
1. Copied everything from old FTP account to new account
2. Changed the site url and home from phpMyAdmin
3. Exported the old database
4. Imported the database into the new site
5. edited wp-config.php
Now when I click on the author's name in the author's bio, it redirects to my old site. How do I fix this? | 2016/12/04 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/40955855",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/6950437/"
] | You also need to flush the new rewrite rules to overwrite some options value from the sql.
To do so, just save the permalink structure in the permalink setting page. | >
> You have to replace all the old URL with new URL.
>
>
>
After exporting the database from phpMyAdmin open the SQL file in any text editor and use find and replace method to replace all the old URL.
Reference: [How to Move WordPress From Local Server to Live Site](http://www.webhat.in/how-to-move-wordpress-from-local-server-to-live-site/) |
67,127,295 | Maybe someone had the same problem? I'm using Wordpress sites and getting this following error in my metrics. I've already deactivated Auto Updates on Softacolous so now I get less errors, but those ones still couldn't understand:
[Fri Apr 16 11:57:30.115119 2021] [:error] [pid 4189499:tid 47071174346496] [client 193.106.30.100:51380] [client 193.106.30.100] ModSecurity: Warning. Match of "pmFromFile path\_excludes" against "REQUEST\_FILENAME" required. [file "/etc/apache2/conf.d/modsec\_vendor\_configs/imunify360-full-apache/004\_i360\_4\_custom.conf"] [line "905"] [id "77140992"] [msg "IM360 WAF: Suspicious access attempt (WP folders)!||SC:/home/optim085/rshestakov.com/wp-content/plugins/wp-file-manager||T:APACHE||REQUEST\_URI:/wp-content/plugins/wp-file-manager/lib/files/hardfork.php||"] [severity "NOTICE"] [tag "service\_i360custom"] [tag "noshow"] [hostname "rshestakov.com"] [uri "/wp-content/plugins/wp-file-manager/lib/files/hardfork.php"] [unique\_id "YHlfii5NrBxmL1xubinBiwAAANE"]
Thanks in advice! | 2021/04/16 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/67127295",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/15661407/"
] | OWASP ModSecurity Core Rule Set project here.
This is an alert or a false positive alert from your commercial Imunify360 web application firewall. You should get in touch with the Imunify support to solve this for you. It's a paid service after all. | Like dune73 allready mentioned this is a message generated by immunify360. It might well be legitimate so first you need to check if it was you who triggered it or some unauthorized source.
Check if your ip-address is the same as the ip-address mentioned in the error message. If this is the case it might be a false positive.
Check whether there is a PHP warning in your error log saying something like:
>
> PHP Warning: POST Content-Length of 9852139 bytes exceeds the limit
> of 8388608 bytes
>
>
>
Over the last few weeks I've seen this happening to several people who were trying to install a wordpress theme. If this is the case with you as well you should probably check if upping the php limits helps to solve it. (to people who haven't done this before: you can do this by either creating a .user.ini file or by altering a .php.ini file - depending on the setup of your server)
If this still fails you could try looking for the incident in the Immunify360 interface. If it's in there you can whitelist it.
I hope this helps. If you have any more questions please let me know! |
69,529 | So I know that providing a Pi with too little power can potentially cause physical damage to the circuitry (brownout). I don't 100% understand how or why this happens.
I know that it seems a lot of people are able to run the Pi on portable batteries, but I'm wondering what happens when the battery dies. Will it start to provide less and less power until it provides so little that the Pi gets damaged?
So this question also involves the behavior of a battery as it dies. As a portable battery is dying, what is happening to the current? Does the voltage start dropping or is it the amperage? Or both? My understanding is that a very low amperage is what can damage the Pi.
I just need a little explanation about how these different things are working and how to prevent issues, because I'm just worried about bricking my Pi. | 2017/07/08 | [
"https://raspberrypi.stackexchange.com/questions/69529",
"https://raspberrypi.stackexchange.com",
"https://raspberrypi.stackexchange.com/users/69939/"
] | What happens during a brownout is not "physical damage" in itself, rather, digital devices start to behave erratically when underpowered. This can indeed result in physical damage too: if the SoC accidentally reconfigures an input pin as output, it can create an internal short circuit and fry the pin, the SoC itself, or an external device connected to that pin. Or it could send a command to the power management chip to increase the core voltage from 1.2V to 2V, which will kill the CPU cores.
Needless to say, the probability of such events is very low, as it requires to execute several erroneous commands in a defined sequence, and running random commands quickly results in a segmentation fault or a hard reset.
What usually happens during a brownout is RAM flipping a few bits here and there, and if that RAM was used as disk cache which is due to be written to the SD card, the cached data may get corrupted. | There are a lot of old-wives tales about the Pi and power supplies.
You **definitely** will **NOT** damage the Pi if it runs out of power, whether gradually or suddenly.
There is a possibility that the data on the SD Card can be damaged by uncontrolled power down, principally if it is writing at the time, although normal SD Card processes can cause problems if interrupted. (I have 6 Pi and 10 SD Cards, and despite many power failures have not experienced loss.)
If you want to be safe it is not difficult to detect low voltage and arrange an orderly shutdown.
Unfortunately your comment "Does the voltage start dropping or is it the amperage" indicates little understanding of electrical engineering, but is another of the old-wives tales circulating in Pi circles, which can be remedied by further study. |
69,529 | So I know that providing a Pi with too little power can potentially cause physical damage to the circuitry (brownout). I don't 100% understand how or why this happens.
I know that it seems a lot of people are able to run the Pi on portable batteries, but I'm wondering what happens when the battery dies. Will it start to provide less and less power until it provides so little that the Pi gets damaged?
So this question also involves the behavior of a battery as it dies. As a portable battery is dying, what is happening to the current? Does the voltage start dropping or is it the amperage? Or both? My understanding is that a very low amperage is what can damage the Pi.
I just need a little explanation about how these different things are working and how to prevent issues, because I'm just worried about bricking my Pi. | 2017/07/08 | [
"https://raspberrypi.stackexchange.com/questions/69529",
"https://raspberrypi.stackexchange.com",
"https://raspberrypi.stackexchange.com/users/69939/"
] | There are a lot of old-wives tales about the Pi and power supplies.
You **definitely** will **NOT** damage the Pi if it runs out of power, whether gradually or suddenly.
There is a possibility that the data on the SD Card can be damaged by uncontrolled power down, principally if it is writing at the time, although normal SD Card processes can cause problems if interrupted. (I have 6 Pi and 10 SD Cards, and despite many power failures have not experienced loss.)
If you want to be safe it is not difficult to detect low voltage and arrange an orderly shutdown.
Unfortunately your comment "Does the voltage start dropping or is it the amperage" indicates little understanding of electrical engineering, but is another of the old-wives tales circulating in Pi circles, which can be remedied by further study. | First of all I have to say about battery. Battery store energy as voltage. The term of current comes when we are trying to put a load across it. The voltage reduces in a rechargeable battery after using it for a while. A dead battery has no voltage,neither it can provide any flow of electricity.
If a battery dies, and that battery has some abnormal chemistry going in, it can damage the device(0.1% probability). Otherwise there will be no flow of electron in there.
The amperage drops with the voltage. So I guess it won't affect the raspberry pi.
(Caution: Do not leave a dead battery around any types of circuit, the discharge from the circuit can damage the circuit) |
69,529 | So I know that providing a Pi with too little power can potentially cause physical damage to the circuitry (brownout). I don't 100% understand how or why this happens.
I know that it seems a lot of people are able to run the Pi on portable batteries, but I'm wondering what happens when the battery dies. Will it start to provide less and less power until it provides so little that the Pi gets damaged?
So this question also involves the behavior of a battery as it dies. As a portable battery is dying, what is happening to the current? Does the voltage start dropping or is it the amperage? Or both? My understanding is that a very low amperage is what can damage the Pi.
I just need a little explanation about how these different things are working and how to prevent issues, because I'm just worried about bricking my Pi. | 2017/07/08 | [
"https://raspberrypi.stackexchange.com/questions/69529",
"https://raspberrypi.stackexchange.com",
"https://raspberrypi.stackexchange.com/users/69939/"
] | What happens during a brownout is not "physical damage" in itself, rather, digital devices start to behave erratically when underpowered. This can indeed result in physical damage too: if the SoC accidentally reconfigures an input pin as output, it can create an internal short circuit and fry the pin, the SoC itself, or an external device connected to that pin. Or it could send a command to the power management chip to increase the core voltage from 1.2V to 2V, which will kill the CPU cores.
Needless to say, the probability of such events is very low, as it requires to execute several erroneous commands in a defined sequence, and running random commands quickly results in a segmentation fault or a hard reset.
What usually happens during a brownout is RAM flipping a few bits here and there, and if that RAM was used as disk cache which is due to be written to the SD card, the cached data may get corrupted. | First of all I have to say about battery. Battery store energy as voltage. The term of current comes when we are trying to put a load across it. The voltage reduces in a rechargeable battery after using it for a while. A dead battery has no voltage,neither it can provide any flow of electricity.
If a battery dies, and that battery has some abnormal chemistry going in, it can damage the device(0.1% probability). Otherwise there will be no flow of electron in there.
The amperage drops with the voltage. So I guess it won't affect the raspberry pi.
(Caution: Do not leave a dead battery around any types of circuit, the discharge from the circuit can damage the circuit) |
51,621,593 | I got a fresh installation of Python 3.6.6 and PyCharm 2018.2 Commmunity Edition.
Unfortunately PyCharm (and also a installed with Python IDLE) does not see packages installed with pip.
I’ve installed with pip some pakages: Pillow, Pyglet, Pygame, Arcade. I can see them using pip list command, but they are inviosible in PyCharm interpreter settings. PyCharm detects only setuptools and pip.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/JKFPX.jpg)
I reinstalled Python and Pycharm several times, tried to reinstall packages with pip, but nothing helps. | 2018/07/31 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/51621593",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/7671956/"
] | I have currently no access to my dev pc, but i encountered that specific problem multiple times before.
PyCharm provides the funtionality to use multiple python interpreters (virtual interpreters provided by pycharm and the python interpreter installed on your system). Have a look at your projects python interpreter in your project settings. | It is possible that you are working on an env(may be venv) that pycharm is not able to see.
In Pycharm you will have to go to Preferences->Project: -> and then install the package there. It will then see the packages. |
8,897,395 | Recently, i was allotted for a project on online photo processing of images. I am a newbie to web designing , so any suggestion or links on how to deploy image editing scripts on web and and use them to edit images.? | 2012/01/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/8897395",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1102092/"
] | you should have a look at this: <http://www.ajax-image-editor.com/>
I used it a few times and it's pretty powerful and open source. | <http://code.google.com/p/ajaximageeditor/downloads/list>
you can use this php script.
here is the demo : <http://pjf-imageeditor.appspot.com/> |
277,587 | I'm looking for a way that the ESP8266 (or alternative, like an Attiny85 with an RF module) is only turned on once a reed switch (or similar sensor) has been triggered.
The problem is that the ESP8266 should have just enough time to power on and send a message over the Wi-fi network. The reed switch could close too fast for the device to send a signal.
Are there any components I can use to add a minimum power time before the reed switch (or power, somehow) is closed again?
The purpose is to keep the batteries for a long time while also notifying when the reed switch is activated. | 2016/12/30 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/277587",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/73255/"
] | [Dampmaskin has the right idea](https://electronics.stackexchange.com/a/277597/11683), but his design is overly simplistic, for the reasons I outlined in my comments.
A more robust circuit would look like this:
[simulate this circuit](/plugins/schematics?image=http%3a%2f%2fi.stack.imgur.com%2fFncWh.png) – Schematic created using [CircuitLab](https://www.circuitlab.com/)
R1 and R3 make sure that leakage currents in either transistor won't cause unwanted activation of the circuit.
Obviously, the micro must set the GPIO pin high as soon as possible after it comes out of reset, before C1 discharges too far (make C1 larger if necessary). Then, it can set the pin low (or tristate it) when the task it is doing is complete.
You can substitute MOSFETs for the BJTs if you like, in which case, R2 and R4 are not needed (but they cause no harm, either). | One possible approach: Let the reed switch power the Attiny in parallel with an NPN transistor (or perhaps an N-channel MOSFET) as a low side switch. When the Attiny turns on, it can output a HIGH to the base of the transistor, turning the transistor on, keeping the Attiny powered for as long as it needs to. When the Attiny is done doing whatever it's supposed to do, it can then set the output LOW, which turns the transistor off and shuts everything down (unless the reed switch is still closed). |
277,587 | I'm looking for a way that the ESP8266 (or alternative, like an Attiny85 with an RF module) is only turned on once a reed switch (or similar sensor) has been triggered.
The problem is that the ESP8266 should have just enough time to power on and send a message over the Wi-fi network. The reed switch could close too fast for the device to send a signal.
Are there any components I can use to add a minimum power time before the reed switch (or power, somehow) is closed again?
The purpose is to keep the batteries for a long time while also notifying when the reed switch is activated. | 2016/12/30 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/277587",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/73255/"
] | One possible approach: Let the reed switch power the Attiny in parallel with an NPN transistor (or perhaps an N-channel MOSFET) as a low side switch. When the Attiny turns on, it can output a HIGH to the base of the transistor, turning the transistor on, keeping the Attiny powered for as long as it needs to. When the Attiny is done doing whatever it's supposed to do, it can then set the output LOW, which turns the transistor off and shuts everything down (unless the reed switch is still closed). | You functionality should have nothing to do with how long the reed switch is activated. Identification of reed switch activity should put your system into a state where it does what it needs to do, complete the job, then turn off.
This is how sleep modes work. |
277,587 | I'm looking for a way that the ESP8266 (or alternative, like an Attiny85 with an RF module) is only turned on once a reed switch (or similar sensor) has been triggered.
The problem is that the ESP8266 should have just enough time to power on and send a message over the Wi-fi network. The reed switch could close too fast for the device to send a signal.
Are there any components I can use to add a minimum power time before the reed switch (or power, somehow) is closed again?
The purpose is to keep the batteries for a long time while also notifying when the reed switch is activated. | 2016/12/30 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/277587",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/73255/"
] | [Dampmaskin has the right idea](https://electronics.stackexchange.com/a/277597/11683), but his design is overly simplistic, for the reasons I outlined in my comments.
A more robust circuit would look like this:
[simulate this circuit](/plugins/schematics?image=http%3a%2f%2fi.stack.imgur.com%2fFncWh.png) – Schematic created using [CircuitLab](https://www.circuitlab.com/)
R1 and R3 make sure that leakage currents in either transistor won't cause unwanted activation of the circuit.
Obviously, the micro must set the GPIO pin high as soon as possible after it comes out of reset, before C1 discharges too far (make C1 larger if necessary). Then, it can set the pin low (or tristate it) when the task it is doing is complete.
You can substitute MOSFETs for the BJTs if you like, in which case, R2 and R4 are not needed (but they cause no harm, either). | You functionality should have nothing to do with how long the reed switch is activated. Identification of reed switch activity should put your system into a state where it does what it needs to do, complete the job, then turn off.
This is how sleep modes work. |
65,907,270 | I have been wondering about building Windows executables targeting Cygwin on
a Linux host.
I have not been able to find anything related to a prebuilt crosscompiler and I am lost about how to build one myself with a Cygwin target.
How would I proceed?
Thanks in advance. | 2021/01/26 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/65907270",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/8350000/"
] | A cross-tool is available at:
<https://sourceforge.net/projects/fedora-cygwin/>
A repository for Fedora is at:
<https://copr.fedorainfracloud.org/coprs/yselkowitz/cygwin/>
as mentioned on the Cygwin mailing list not so long ago
<https://cygwin.com/pipermail/cygwin/2020-July/245695.html> | Is there an actual reason you want to target Cygwin instead of native Windows?
Cygwin introduces a POSIX compatibility layer, while MinGW-w64 targets native Windows.
MinGW-w64 can be installed under most Linux distributions using their respective package managers. |
35,967 | Continuing from [this](https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/35929/from-mice-to-men-series) question:
The rodents on the synthetic planet ( which I am now calling Ark ) can now walk/run erect when desired. The scientists continue with biological forging and work on there social behave , and the realize in hindsight that they probably should have worked on this first. The rodents live in an area with grass that is tall in relation to them , and smells slightly of mint. They run to and fro , dodging predators and carry twigs with large , sticky seeds or various small insects stuck to the ends.
Essential Question: what environmental pressures might force the rodents to live/forage in groups
Or
Alternate Essential Question: what environmental pressures might cause the rodents to become social? | 2016/02/15 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/35967",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | There are already social Rodents
--------------------------------
**The Degu** [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/6kV1n.jpg)
They dig communal burrows, nurse each others young, have paternal involvement in child rearing, cooperatively forage and "have an elaborate vocal repertoire comprising up to 15 unique sounds". To socialize properly, they need to hear their mothers voices. Not a social trait but they also have been observed [using rakes](http://journals.plos.org/plosone/article?id=10.1371/journal.pone.0001860) to get seeds.
They live on the west coast of Chile and are Coprophagic herbivores.
But why be social when you can be Eusocial
------------------------------------------
naked mole rats
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/xLxMs.jpg)
There seems to be something about communal burrowing that correlates with sociality. Give them a reason to burrow [predators weather] and make them do it together [high populations, undefendable burrows]. Also, use the [Common goods game](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Public_goods_game) but ignore John Nash he is less than useful on the topic. | If a random mutation/variation makes an organism fitter and able to breed more prolifically, that trait will be passed on; if that trait allows individuals which have it to out-compete the others that do not, then eventually they will dominate and the others will die out. With this in mind, there are some significant advantages to living in groups, a few of which might be:
Safety in numbers
-----------------
The ability to kill, deter or scare off predators that an individual would be killed by, and the ability to defend larger territories against members of the same species
Teamwork
--------
* The ability to obtain better or more varied types of food, or larger quantities of food, than an solitary animal could obtain on its own. Consider the difference between a cheetah, which often struggles to kill animals of a similar size and weight, to a pride of lions or a lack of wolves, who are capable of taking down animals that could kill an individual
* The ability to share duties and live more efficiently than a solitary member of the species: shared parenting, or adopting orphaned young; keeping watch for danger in shifts, allowing more time to sleep and gather food in safety; working together to construct larger or more effective dwellings/shelters.
* The possibility of "looking out for one another", e.g. If a sick or wounded member of the group can survive and in turn reproduce due to the care of its fellow group members, when a solitary animal in the same situation would have died
* The option of specialisation within the group: either phenotypically, as in bees, where you have specialist workers, soldiers and breeders; or behaviourally, as in humans, where craftsmen and innovators have the freedom to develop skills and advance collective knowledge because other specialists are taking care of food and protection.
The only thing to consider is whether there is an overall benefit after considering the main disadvantage of living collectively, namely that resources have to be allocated/shared amongst the group. The amount of food distributed to each member should be equal to or greater than what a solitary animal could obtain and keep all for itself, for example. |
37,889 | >
> [Rom 16:3-4 KJV] 3 Greet Priscilla and Aquila my helpers in Christ Jesus: 4 Who have for my life laid down their own necks: **unto whom** not only I give thanks, but also all the churches of the Gentiles.
>
>
>
I have recently been struck with the absence in the scriptures of gratitude TO people. It appears to be the scriptural pattern to thank **God** FOR people rather than to thank people.
The [notable exception is the passage here in Romans 16:3-4](https://biblehub.com/romans/16-4.htm) which is normally treated to "to whom I give thanks". Is this indeed "the exception that proves the rule" or should it read "for whom I give thanks"? | 2018/12/27 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/37889",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/20832/"
] | The Greek says,
>
> οἵτινες ὑπὲρ τῆς ψυχῆς μου τὸν ἑαυτῶν τράχηλον ὑπέθηκαν, **οἷς** οὐκ ἐγὼ μόνος εὐχαριστῶ ἀλλὰ καὶ πᾶσαι αἱ ἐκκλησίαι τῶν ἐθνῶν,
>
>
>
Holmes, M. W. (2011–2013). The Greek New Testament: SBL Edition (Ro 16:4). Lexham Press; Society of Biblical Literature.
οἷς means "who" or "which", but it's in the dative plural case. In Greek, the dative case can either mean "to" or "for".
The phrase, "οἷς οὐκ ἐγὼ μόνος εὐχαριστῶ ἀλλὰ καὶ πᾶσαι αἱ ἐκκλησίαι τῶν ἐθνῶν" interlinearly translates as
>
> to/for whom (pl) not I only thank but also to/for all the church of the Gentiles
>
>
>
I haven't searched every instance of the time that the word for thanks (εὐχαριστῶ) is used in the NT, but it seems to always mean "thanks to person" when paired with the dative case. Usually it is used as "I thank God" or "I give thanks to God" (in both cases, "God" is dative, but it doesn't mean "for God" as in "I give thanks for God"). For that reason, I would say that this verse probably means that Paul is thanking the people and the church of the Gentiles rather than God for them. That's not to say that Paul never gave thanks to God for them, but I just believe that Paul is currently saying that he thanks the people. However, the Greek is somewhat ambiguous. | Interesting detail.
>
> “But *thanks be to G-d* who puts the same earnest care for you into the heart of Titus.”
> II Corinthians 8:16 NKJV
>
>
>
Titus doesn’t get the credit G-d does.
>
> “And whatever you do in word or deed, do all in the name of the Lord Jesus, **giving thanks to G-d** the Father through Him.”
> Colossians 3:17 NKJV
>
>
>
It appears evident to me that G-d gets all the credit, all the time. **For** whom seems to fit best because the churches are also showing gratitude. If it were to whom, I would have found it reasonable to see Paul follow up and express the thankfulness the churches want to communicate to the couples because they don’t have contact with the couple. Yet in the case that the churches are being thankful to G-d the churches can do the thanking directly to G-d not needing an intermediary like Paul to communicate their message to G-d of thanksgiving.
It isn’t obvious enough to me that this could be an exception, even though multiple translations including non English translations say **to** whom.
>
> ““Or who has first given to Him And it shall be repaid to him?” For of Him and through Him and to Him are all things, to whom be glory forever. Amen.”
> Romans 11:35-36 NKJV
>
>
>
It is only fitting that if the Spirit is given dominion over our bodies, that the Spirit receive the gratitude for the deeds He executes through our complete surrender, unless we believe there is something we can do outside or apart from the vine.
““I am the vine, you are the branches. He who abides in Me, and I in him, bears much fruit; for without Me **you can do nothing**.”
John 15:5 NKJV
If we can do **nothing**, then it’s clear it’s He who deserves the gratitude.
Also it’s not both the couple **and** G-d being thanked it’s either one or the other in this passage. So it would stand to reason that the causing agent should receive the gratitude not the instrument He is using, which in this case He also happened to have being the Creator of and has imputed His Spirit to transform them, guide and direct.
Furthermore so far I’ve not found one instance in the OT or the NT where a human gives thanks to another human. All the thanking is directed to G-d.
I’ll use an illustration to make a point from logic to hopefully bring all this home. Obviously illustrations are limited so please take it for what it’s worth.
If I’m trapped in a car that just plunged into a lake taking in water and a farmer with a stock horse is close by with a rope, in the event that the farmer ties the rope to the car hitch and pulls the car out of the water before I drown trapped inside: if I am going to thank one and only one, would it be the horse who did the work or the farmer who saw the need, created a solution, utilized his resources and directed the horse?
It’s for this reason I cannot see this text being interpreted both ways, you cannot equally interpret it either way, thanking both the couple or G-d. And since it is a little ambiguous, and only one party is receiving gratitude from two sources (Paul and the churches), and G-d is much more Other than the couple, and He gave the couple the resources and changed life, I reason that it was directed toward G-d and not the couple which if it were the couple would be to my knowledge the first instance and the exception where a human received thanks from another human in the Bible.
Also to reemphasize,
>
> “**for it is G-d who is at work in you**, both to will and to work for His good pleasure.”
> Philippians 2:13 NASB
>
>
>
Why would the couple be thanked for that which G-d was at work for in their lives?
“A text without a context is a pretext for whatever you want it to mean”. That’s why to me I place a lot of value of contextual analysis both narrow and wide scope context. Individual word analysis especially ambiguous ones are open to personal interpretation/opinions/preferences without a broader context
(I am open to being corrected and have no issue being critiqued in fact I find it helpful and loving of someone to point out my blind spots.) |
37,889 | >
> [Rom 16:3-4 KJV] 3 Greet Priscilla and Aquila my helpers in Christ Jesus: 4 Who have for my life laid down their own necks: **unto whom** not only I give thanks, but also all the churches of the Gentiles.
>
>
>
I have recently been struck with the absence in the scriptures of gratitude TO people. It appears to be the scriptural pattern to thank **God** FOR people rather than to thank people.
The [notable exception is the passage here in Romans 16:3-4](https://biblehub.com/romans/16-4.htm) which is normally treated to "to whom I give thanks". Is this indeed "the exception that proves the rule" or should it read "for whom I give thanks"? | 2018/12/27 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/37889",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/20832/"
] | The person to whom thanks is given is indicated by the dative (no preceding preposition is necessary). The person(s) for whom thanks is given is most often indicated by the preposition περί followed by the object of the preposition declined in the genitive (i.e., περί τίνος).
For example:
* 1 Thes. 1:2
«Εὐχαριστοῦμεν τῷ θεῷ πάντοτε **περὶ πάντων ὑμῶν**»
“We give thanks to God always **for you all**...”
* 2 Thes. 1:3
«Εὐχαριστεῖν ὀφείλομεν τῷ θεῷ πάντοτε **περὶ ὑμῶν**»
“We are obligated to give thanks to God always **for you**...”
* 2 Thes. 2:13
«Ἡμεῖς δὲ ὀφείλομεν εὐχαριστεῖν τῷ θεῷ πάντοτε **περὶ ὑμῶν**»
“But we are obligated to give thanks to God always **for you**...”
* 1 Cor. 1:4
«Εὐχαριστῶ τῷ θεῷ μου πάντοτε **περὶ ὑμῶν**»
“I give thanks to my God always **for you**”
Seldomly, we encounter ὑπέρ τίνος instead of περί τίνος:
* Eph. 1:16
«οὐ παύομαι εὐχαριστῶν **ὑπὲρ ὑμῶν**»
“I do not stop giving thanks **for you**...”
Since Rom. 16:4 has the dative οἷς rather than περὶ ὧν or ὑπὲρ ὧν, then it is more probable that Rom. 16:4 should be translated as “to whom” rather than “for whom,” even if it is unprecedented in the NT corpus to give thanks to someone other than God. | Interesting detail.
>
> “But *thanks be to G-d* who puts the same earnest care for you into the heart of Titus.”
> II Corinthians 8:16 NKJV
>
>
>
Titus doesn’t get the credit G-d does.
>
> “And whatever you do in word or deed, do all in the name of the Lord Jesus, **giving thanks to G-d** the Father through Him.”
> Colossians 3:17 NKJV
>
>
>
It appears evident to me that G-d gets all the credit, all the time. **For** whom seems to fit best because the churches are also showing gratitude. If it were to whom, I would have found it reasonable to see Paul follow up and express the thankfulness the churches want to communicate to the couples because they don’t have contact with the couple. Yet in the case that the churches are being thankful to G-d the churches can do the thanking directly to G-d not needing an intermediary like Paul to communicate their message to G-d of thanksgiving.
It isn’t obvious enough to me that this could be an exception, even though multiple translations including non English translations say **to** whom.
>
> ““Or who has first given to Him And it shall be repaid to him?” For of Him and through Him and to Him are all things, to whom be glory forever. Amen.”
> Romans 11:35-36 NKJV
>
>
>
It is only fitting that if the Spirit is given dominion over our bodies, that the Spirit receive the gratitude for the deeds He executes through our complete surrender, unless we believe there is something we can do outside or apart from the vine.
““I am the vine, you are the branches. He who abides in Me, and I in him, bears much fruit; for without Me **you can do nothing**.”
John 15:5 NKJV
If we can do **nothing**, then it’s clear it’s He who deserves the gratitude.
Also it’s not both the couple **and** G-d being thanked it’s either one or the other in this passage. So it would stand to reason that the causing agent should receive the gratitude not the instrument He is using, which in this case He also happened to have being the Creator of and has imputed His Spirit to transform them, guide and direct.
Furthermore so far I’ve not found one instance in the OT or the NT where a human gives thanks to another human. All the thanking is directed to G-d.
I’ll use an illustration to make a point from logic to hopefully bring all this home. Obviously illustrations are limited so please take it for what it’s worth.
If I’m trapped in a car that just plunged into a lake taking in water and a farmer with a stock horse is close by with a rope, in the event that the farmer ties the rope to the car hitch and pulls the car out of the water before I drown trapped inside: if I am going to thank one and only one, would it be the horse who did the work or the farmer who saw the need, created a solution, utilized his resources and directed the horse?
It’s for this reason I cannot see this text being interpreted both ways, you cannot equally interpret it either way, thanking both the couple or G-d. And since it is a little ambiguous, and only one party is receiving gratitude from two sources (Paul and the churches), and G-d is much more Other than the couple, and He gave the couple the resources and changed life, I reason that it was directed toward G-d and not the couple which if it were the couple would be to my knowledge the first instance and the exception where a human received thanks from another human in the Bible.
Also to reemphasize,
>
> “**for it is G-d who is at work in you**, both to will and to work for His good pleasure.”
> Philippians 2:13 NASB
>
>
>
Why would the couple be thanked for that which G-d was at work for in their lives?
“A text without a context is a pretext for whatever you want it to mean”. That’s why to me I place a lot of value of contextual analysis both narrow and wide scope context. Individual word analysis especially ambiguous ones are open to personal interpretation/opinions/preferences without a broader context
(I am open to being corrected and have no issue being critiqued in fact I find it helpful and loving of someone to point out my blind spots.) |
37,889 | >
> [Rom 16:3-4 KJV] 3 Greet Priscilla and Aquila my helpers in Christ Jesus: 4 Who have for my life laid down their own necks: **unto whom** not only I give thanks, but also all the churches of the Gentiles.
>
>
>
I have recently been struck with the absence in the scriptures of gratitude TO people. It appears to be the scriptural pattern to thank **God** FOR people rather than to thank people.
The [notable exception is the passage here in Romans 16:3-4](https://biblehub.com/romans/16-4.htm) which is normally treated to "to whom I give thanks". Is this indeed "the exception that proves the rule" or should it read "for whom I give thanks"? | 2018/12/27 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/37889",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/20832/"
] | I think the reason for the exception in the case of Priscilla and Aquila is that they went above and beyond that which was required of them:
>
> [Luk 17:7-10 NKJV] (7) "And which of you, having a servant plowing or tending sheep, will say to him when he has come in from the field, 'Come at once and sit down to eat'? (8) "But will he not rather say to him, 'Prepare something for my supper, and gird yourself and serve me till I have eaten and drunk, and afterward you will eat and drink'? (9) **"Does he thank that servant because he did the things that were commanded him? I think not. (10) "So likewise you, when you have done all those things which you are commanded, say, 'We are unprofitable servants. We have done what was our duty to do.' "**
>
>
> | Interesting detail.
>
> “But *thanks be to G-d* who puts the same earnest care for you into the heart of Titus.”
> II Corinthians 8:16 NKJV
>
>
>
Titus doesn’t get the credit G-d does.
>
> “And whatever you do in word or deed, do all in the name of the Lord Jesus, **giving thanks to G-d** the Father through Him.”
> Colossians 3:17 NKJV
>
>
>
It appears evident to me that G-d gets all the credit, all the time. **For** whom seems to fit best because the churches are also showing gratitude. If it were to whom, I would have found it reasonable to see Paul follow up and express the thankfulness the churches want to communicate to the couples because they don’t have contact with the couple. Yet in the case that the churches are being thankful to G-d the churches can do the thanking directly to G-d not needing an intermediary like Paul to communicate their message to G-d of thanksgiving.
It isn’t obvious enough to me that this could be an exception, even though multiple translations including non English translations say **to** whom.
>
> ““Or who has first given to Him And it shall be repaid to him?” For of Him and through Him and to Him are all things, to whom be glory forever. Amen.”
> Romans 11:35-36 NKJV
>
>
>
It is only fitting that if the Spirit is given dominion over our bodies, that the Spirit receive the gratitude for the deeds He executes through our complete surrender, unless we believe there is something we can do outside or apart from the vine.
““I am the vine, you are the branches. He who abides in Me, and I in him, bears much fruit; for without Me **you can do nothing**.”
John 15:5 NKJV
If we can do **nothing**, then it’s clear it’s He who deserves the gratitude.
Also it’s not both the couple **and** G-d being thanked it’s either one or the other in this passage. So it would stand to reason that the causing agent should receive the gratitude not the instrument He is using, which in this case He also happened to have being the Creator of and has imputed His Spirit to transform them, guide and direct.
Furthermore so far I’ve not found one instance in the OT or the NT where a human gives thanks to another human. All the thanking is directed to G-d.
I’ll use an illustration to make a point from logic to hopefully bring all this home. Obviously illustrations are limited so please take it for what it’s worth.
If I’m trapped in a car that just plunged into a lake taking in water and a farmer with a stock horse is close by with a rope, in the event that the farmer ties the rope to the car hitch and pulls the car out of the water before I drown trapped inside: if I am going to thank one and only one, would it be the horse who did the work or the farmer who saw the need, created a solution, utilized his resources and directed the horse?
It’s for this reason I cannot see this text being interpreted both ways, you cannot equally interpret it either way, thanking both the couple or G-d. And since it is a little ambiguous, and only one party is receiving gratitude from two sources (Paul and the churches), and G-d is much more Other than the couple, and He gave the couple the resources and changed life, I reason that it was directed toward G-d and not the couple which if it were the couple would be to my knowledge the first instance and the exception where a human received thanks from another human in the Bible.
Also to reemphasize,
>
> “**for it is G-d who is at work in you**, both to will and to work for His good pleasure.”
> Philippians 2:13 NASB
>
>
>
Why would the couple be thanked for that which G-d was at work for in their lives?
“A text without a context is a pretext for whatever you want it to mean”. That’s why to me I place a lot of value of contextual analysis both narrow and wide scope context. Individual word analysis especially ambiguous ones are open to personal interpretation/opinions/preferences without a broader context
(I am open to being corrected and have no issue being critiqued in fact I find it helpful and loving of someone to point out my blind spots.) |
37,889 | >
> [Rom 16:3-4 KJV] 3 Greet Priscilla and Aquila my helpers in Christ Jesus: 4 Who have for my life laid down their own necks: **unto whom** not only I give thanks, but also all the churches of the Gentiles.
>
>
>
I have recently been struck with the absence in the scriptures of gratitude TO people. It appears to be the scriptural pattern to thank **God** FOR people rather than to thank people.
The [notable exception is the passage here in Romans 16:3-4](https://biblehub.com/romans/16-4.htm) which is normally treated to "to whom I give thanks". Is this indeed "the exception that proves the rule" or should it read "for whom I give thanks"? | 2018/12/27 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/37889",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/20832/"
] | The person to whom thanks is given is indicated by the dative (no preceding preposition is necessary). The person(s) for whom thanks is given is most often indicated by the preposition περί followed by the object of the preposition declined in the genitive (i.e., περί τίνος).
For example:
* 1 Thes. 1:2
«Εὐχαριστοῦμεν τῷ θεῷ πάντοτε **περὶ πάντων ὑμῶν**»
“We give thanks to God always **for you all**...”
* 2 Thes. 1:3
«Εὐχαριστεῖν ὀφείλομεν τῷ θεῷ πάντοτε **περὶ ὑμῶν**»
“We are obligated to give thanks to God always **for you**...”
* 2 Thes. 2:13
«Ἡμεῖς δὲ ὀφείλομεν εὐχαριστεῖν τῷ θεῷ πάντοτε **περὶ ὑμῶν**»
“But we are obligated to give thanks to God always **for you**...”
* 1 Cor. 1:4
«Εὐχαριστῶ τῷ θεῷ μου πάντοτε **περὶ ὑμῶν**»
“I give thanks to my God always **for you**”
Seldomly, we encounter ὑπέρ τίνος instead of περί τίνος:
* Eph. 1:16
«οὐ παύομαι εὐχαριστῶν **ὑπὲρ ὑμῶν**»
“I do not stop giving thanks **for you**...”
Since Rom. 16:4 has the dative οἷς rather than περὶ ὧν or ὑπὲρ ὧν, then it is more probable that Rom. 16:4 should be translated as “to whom” rather than “for whom,” even if it is unprecedented in the NT corpus to give thanks to someone other than God. | The Greek says,
>
> οἵτινες ὑπὲρ τῆς ψυχῆς μου τὸν ἑαυτῶν τράχηλον ὑπέθηκαν, **οἷς** οὐκ ἐγὼ μόνος εὐχαριστῶ ἀλλὰ καὶ πᾶσαι αἱ ἐκκλησίαι τῶν ἐθνῶν,
>
>
>
Holmes, M. W. (2011–2013). The Greek New Testament: SBL Edition (Ro 16:4). Lexham Press; Society of Biblical Literature.
οἷς means "who" or "which", but it's in the dative plural case. In Greek, the dative case can either mean "to" or "for".
The phrase, "οἷς οὐκ ἐγὼ μόνος εὐχαριστῶ ἀλλὰ καὶ πᾶσαι αἱ ἐκκλησίαι τῶν ἐθνῶν" interlinearly translates as
>
> to/for whom (pl) not I only thank but also to/for all the church of the Gentiles
>
>
>
I haven't searched every instance of the time that the word for thanks (εὐχαριστῶ) is used in the NT, but it seems to always mean "thanks to person" when paired with the dative case. Usually it is used as "I thank God" or "I give thanks to God" (in both cases, "God" is dative, but it doesn't mean "for God" as in "I give thanks for God"). For that reason, I would say that this verse probably means that Paul is thanking the people and the church of the Gentiles rather than God for them. That's not to say that Paul never gave thanks to God for them, but I just believe that Paul is currently saying that he thanks the people. However, the Greek is somewhat ambiguous. |
37,889 | >
> [Rom 16:3-4 KJV] 3 Greet Priscilla and Aquila my helpers in Christ Jesus: 4 Who have for my life laid down their own necks: **unto whom** not only I give thanks, but also all the churches of the Gentiles.
>
>
>
I have recently been struck with the absence in the scriptures of gratitude TO people. It appears to be the scriptural pattern to thank **God** FOR people rather than to thank people.
The [notable exception is the passage here in Romans 16:3-4](https://biblehub.com/romans/16-4.htm) which is normally treated to "to whom I give thanks". Is this indeed "the exception that proves the rule" or should it read "for whom I give thanks"? | 2018/12/27 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/37889",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/20832/"
] | The person to whom thanks is given is indicated by the dative (no preceding preposition is necessary). The person(s) for whom thanks is given is most often indicated by the preposition περί followed by the object of the preposition declined in the genitive (i.e., περί τίνος).
For example:
* 1 Thes. 1:2
«Εὐχαριστοῦμεν τῷ θεῷ πάντοτε **περὶ πάντων ὑμῶν**»
“We give thanks to God always **for you all**...”
* 2 Thes. 1:3
«Εὐχαριστεῖν ὀφείλομεν τῷ θεῷ πάντοτε **περὶ ὑμῶν**»
“We are obligated to give thanks to God always **for you**...”
* 2 Thes. 2:13
«Ἡμεῖς δὲ ὀφείλομεν εὐχαριστεῖν τῷ θεῷ πάντοτε **περὶ ὑμῶν**»
“But we are obligated to give thanks to God always **for you**...”
* 1 Cor. 1:4
«Εὐχαριστῶ τῷ θεῷ μου πάντοτε **περὶ ὑμῶν**»
“I give thanks to my God always **for you**”
Seldomly, we encounter ὑπέρ τίνος instead of περί τίνος:
* Eph. 1:16
«οὐ παύομαι εὐχαριστῶν **ὑπὲρ ὑμῶν**»
“I do not stop giving thanks **for you**...”
Since Rom. 16:4 has the dative οἷς rather than περὶ ὧν or ὑπὲρ ὧν, then it is more probable that Rom. 16:4 should be translated as “to whom” rather than “for whom,” even if it is unprecedented in the NT corpus to give thanks to someone other than God. | I think the reason for the exception in the case of Priscilla and Aquila is that they went above and beyond that which was required of them:
>
> [Luk 17:7-10 NKJV] (7) "And which of you, having a servant plowing or tending sheep, will say to him when he has come in from the field, 'Come at once and sit down to eat'? (8) "But will he not rather say to him, 'Prepare something for my supper, and gird yourself and serve me till I have eaten and drunk, and afterward you will eat and drink'? (9) **"Does he thank that servant because he did the things that were commanded him? I think not. (10) "So likewise you, when you have done all those things which you are commanded, say, 'We are unprofitable servants. We have done what was our duty to do.' "**
>
>
> |
63,421 | Currently my workflow with Emacs when I am coding in C or C++ involves three windows. The largest on the right contains the file I am working with. The left is split into two, the bottom being a shell which I use to type in compile or make commands, and the top is often some sort of documentation or README file that I want to consult while I am working. Now I know there are some pretty expert Emacs users out there, and I am curious what other Emacs functionally is useful if the intention is to use it as a complete IDE. Specifically, most IDEs usually fulfill these functions is some form or another:
* Source code editor
* Compiler
* Debugging
* Documentation Lookup
* Version Control
* OO features like class lookup and object inspector
For a few of these, it's pretty obvious how Emacs can fit these functions, but what about the rest? Also, if a specific language must be focused on, I'd say it should be C++.
**Edit:** One user pointed out that I should have been more specific when I said 'what about the rest'. Mostly I was curious about efficient version control, as well as documentation lookup. For example, in SLIME it is fairly easy to do a quick hyperspec lookup on a Lisp function. Is there a quick way to look up something in C++ STL documentation (if I forgot the exact syntax of [hash\_map](http://www.sgi.com/tech/stl/hash_map.html), for example)? | 2008/09/15 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/63421",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/7545/"
] | A starting point (which may be non-obvious) for exploring the VC features of Emacs is **M-x vc-next-action**.
It does the "next logical version control operation" on the current file, depending on the state of the file and the VC backend. So if the file is not under version control, it registers it, if the file has been changed, the changes are submitted etc.
It takes a little getting used to, but I find it very useful.
Default keybinding is **C-x v v** | In the Unix or X windows style, I don't know that there is an integrated IDE that works for everything.
For interacting with debuggers, just one component of an IDE, consider [realgud](https://github.com/realgud). The other thing it has that I find useful are parsers for location messages, so that if you have a call stack trace and want to edit at a particular place in the callstack, this front-end interface will can do that.
By far this program could use improvement. But then it could also use people working on it to improve it.
Disclaimer: I work on realgud |
63,421 | Currently my workflow with Emacs when I am coding in C or C++ involves three windows. The largest on the right contains the file I am working with. The left is split into two, the bottom being a shell which I use to type in compile or make commands, and the top is often some sort of documentation or README file that I want to consult while I am working. Now I know there are some pretty expert Emacs users out there, and I am curious what other Emacs functionally is useful if the intention is to use it as a complete IDE. Specifically, most IDEs usually fulfill these functions is some form or another:
* Source code editor
* Compiler
* Debugging
* Documentation Lookup
* Version Control
* OO features like class lookup and object inspector
For a few of these, it's pretty obvious how Emacs can fit these functions, but what about the rest? Also, if a specific language must be focused on, I'd say it should be C++.
**Edit:** One user pointed out that I should have been more specific when I said 'what about the rest'. Mostly I was curious about efficient version control, as well as documentation lookup. For example, in SLIME it is fairly easy to do a quick hyperspec lookup on a Lisp function. Is there a quick way to look up something in C++ STL documentation (if I forgot the exact syntax of [hash\_map](http://www.sgi.com/tech/stl/hash_map.html), for example)? | 2008/09/15 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/63421",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/7545/"
] | I have to recommend [Emacs Code Browser](http://ecb.sourceforge.net/ "Emacs Code Browser Homepage") as a more "traditional" IDE style environment for emacs.
**EDIT**: I also now recommend [Magit](http://www.emacswiki.org/emacs/Magit) highly over the standard VCS interface in emacs. | I agree that you should learn about M-x compile (bind that and M-x next-error to a short key sequence).
Learn about the bindings for version control (e.g. vc-diff, vc-next-action, etc.)
Look into registers. You not only can remember locations in buffers but whole window configurations (C-x r w -- window-configuration-to-register). |
63,421 | Currently my workflow with Emacs when I am coding in C or C++ involves three windows. The largest on the right contains the file I am working with. The left is split into two, the bottom being a shell which I use to type in compile or make commands, and the top is often some sort of documentation or README file that I want to consult while I am working. Now I know there are some pretty expert Emacs users out there, and I am curious what other Emacs functionally is useful if the intention is to use it as a complete IDE. Specifically, most IDEs usually fulfill these functions is some form or another:
* Source code editor
* Compiler
* Debugging
* Documentation Lookup
* Version Control
* OO features like class lookup and object inspector
For a few of these, it's pretty obvious how Emacs can fit these functions, but what about the rest? Also, if a specific language must be focused on, I'd say it should be C++.
**Edit:** One user pointed out that I should have been more specific when I said 'what about the rest'. Mostly I was curious about efficient version control, as well as documentation lookup. For example, in SLIME it is fairly easy to do a quick hyperspec lookup on a Lisp function. Is there a quick way to look up something in C++ STL documentation (if I forgot the exact syntax of [hash\_map](http://www.sgi.com/tech/stl/hash_map.html), for example)? | 2008/09/15 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/63421",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/7545/"
] | I have to recommend [Emacs Code Browser](http://ecb.sourceforge.net/ "Emacs Code Browser Homepage") as a more "traditional" IDE style environment for emacs.
**EDIT**: I also now recommend [Magit](http://www.emacswiki.org/emacs/Magit) highly over the standard VCS interface in emacs. | compile, next-error, and previous-error are all pretty important commands for C++ development in Emacs (works great on grep output too). Etags, visit-tags-table, and find-tag are important as well. completion.el is one of the great unsung hacks of the 20th century, and can speed up your C++ hacking by an order of magnitude. Oh and let's not forget ediff.
I've yet to learn how to use version control without visiting a shell, but now that I'm running commits so much more frequently (with git) I will probably have to. |
63,421 | Currently my workflow with Emacs when I am coding in C or C++ involves three windows. The largest on the right contains the file I am working with. The left is split into two, the bottom being a shell which I use to type in compile or make commands, and the top is often some sort of documentation or README file that I want to consult while I am working. Now I know there are some pretty expert Emacs users out there, and I am curious what other Emacs functionally is useful if the intention is to use it as a complete IDE. Specifically, most IDEs usually fulfill these functions is some form or another:
* Source code editor
* Compiler
* Debugging
* Documentation Lookup
* Version Control
* OO features like class lookup and object inspector
For a few of these, it's pretty obvious how Emacs can fit these functions, but what about the rest? Also, if a specific language must be focused on, I'd say it should be C++.
**Edit:** One user pointed out that I should have been more specific when I said 'what about the rest'. Mostly I was curious about efficient version control, as well as documentation lookup. For example, in SLIME it is fairly easy to do a quick hyperspec lookup on a Lisp function. Is there a quick way to look up something in C++ STL documentation (if I forgot the exact syntax of [hash\_map](http://www.sgi.com/tech/stl/hash_map.html), for example)? | 2008/09/15 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/63421",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/7545/"
] | I have to recommend [Emacs Code Browser](http://ecb.sourceforge.net/ "Emacs Code Browser Homepage") as a more "traditional" IDE style environment for emacs.
**EDIT**: I also now recommend [Magit](http://www.emacswiki.org/emacs/Magit) highly over the standard VCS interface in emacs. | For version control, there are several things that you can use, depending on what version control system you use. But some of the functionality is common to all of them.
**vc.el** is the built-in way to handle version control at a file level. It has backends for most version control systems. For instance, the Subversion backend comes with Emacs, and there are git backends and others available from other sources.
The most useful command is **C-x v v** (vc-next-action) that does the appropriate next action for the file you are visiting. This might mean updating from the repository or commiting your changes, vc.el also rebinds **C-x C-q** to check in and out files if you are using a system that needs it (like RCS).
Other very useful commands are **C-x v l** and **C-x v =** that show you the log and current diff for the file you are using.
But for real productivity, you should avoid using the single-file vc.el commands other than for simple things. There are several packages that can give you an overview of the status of your whole tree, and give you more power, and not to mention the ability to create coherent commits spanning several files.
Most of these are heavily influenced or based on the original **pcl-cvs**/**pcvs** for CVS. There are even two of them that comes with subversion, **psvn.el** and **dsvn.el**. There are packages for git etc. |
85,097 | From what I understood, if I want to do some approach procedure, **I need to get to the waypoints marked at the STAR chart, and then I go to the IAF marked at the IAP chart through the feeder route.** After reaches to IAF, I can make the approach as published.
Is the relationship between STAR, IAP, and feeder route correct? | 2021/03/24 | [
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/85097",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/users/55585/"
] | Definitions
-----------
From the FAA's Pilot/Controller Glossary, an [instrument approach procedure](https://123atc.com/term/instrument-approach-procedure) (IAP) is:
>
> A series of predetermined maneuvers for the orderly transfer of an aircraft under instrument flight conditions from the beginning of the initial approach to a landing or to a point from which a landing may be made visually.
>
>
>
A [feeder route](https://123atc.com/term/feeder-route) is:
>
> A route depicted on instrument approach procedure charts to designate routes for aircraft to proceed from the en route structure to the initial approach fix (IAF).
>
>
>
A [standard terminal arrival](https://123atc.com/term/standard-terminal-arrival-star) (STAR) is:
>
> A preplanned instrument flight rule (IFR) air traffic control arrival procedure published for pilot use in graphic and/or textual form. STARs provide transition from the en route structure to an outer fix or an instrument approach fix/arrival waypoint in the terminal area.
>
>
>
So you can see that a STAR and a feeder route serve the same general function: to allow IFR aircraft to transition from the en route structure (meaning Federal airways, the Victor, Tango, J- and Q-routes) to the beginning of an instrument approach procedure. The major difference is that STARs are published for busier airports to make things easier and more predictable from ATC's point of view; a STAR can contain any number of waypoints/fixes and, more importantly, can have altitude and speed restrictions pre-published at those fixes so ATC doesn't have to issue them to each individual arrival.
Example
-------
Let's look at the [ILS Runway 11 approach](https://skyvector.com/files/tpp/2102/pdf/00329IL11.PDF) into Portland International Jetport (PWM). We can see that there are three Initial Approach Fixes: Kennebunk VOR/DME, BUXTO intersection, and PARSO intersection. If you can somehow navigate to any one of those three fixes, you can follow the approach procedure to safely get down to the ground (or at least pretty close to the ground).
>
> [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/RC2B1.png)
>
>
>
Now say, for example, you're navigating via V93 from the southwest. When you reach CON you could continue to follow V93 to ENE and start the published approach by flying on the ENE030 radial to BUXTO and performing the hold-in-lieu-of-procedure-turn. But that takes you rather out of your way, so if you could you'd rather start the approach at PARSO and avoid having to perform a procedure turn.
Well, PARSO is on V3, so you could fly CON.V93.SATAN.V3.PARSO. But that still isn't the most direct route.
Happily for you there's a published feeder route starting from CON! When you arrive at the VOR/DME you leave the airways and navigate on the CON067 radial directly to PARSO. Hooray!
>
> [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Vadnu.jpg)
>
>
> [Enroute L-32 IFR chart](https://skyvector.com/?ll=43.29340221973114,-70.96942310509468&chart=432&zoom=1)
>
>
>
This plan might work if you were flying a Skyhawk at 5000 feet. But say you're flying Southwest 1982 from Baltimore, descending out of the flight levels at 250+ knots. ATC would rather have you flying a certain procedure that's the same as all the other jets coming in to Portland, and your dispatcher knows this—so they've filed for, and ATC has cleared you via, the [SCOGS THREE](https://skyvector.com/files/tpp/2102/pdf/00329SCOGS.PDF) arrival.
>
> [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/0b7IIm.png)
>
>
>
Some time before you reach SAACO, and probably long before then, ATC will tell you to expect Runway 11. Therefore, when you reach SAACO, you will make a left turn towards BIDDE and continue following the published route until you reach BUXTO. By this point ATC has cleared you for the ILS Runway 11 Approach, so you transition from the STAR directly onto the instrument approach. Note that you arrive at BUXTO on a track of 081, meaning you only need to make a 29º turn to intercept the localizer (track 110).
A different example
-------------------
The SCOGS arrival is designed to get you from the enroute structure down to the ground with little-to-no ATC intervention. But at many *even busier* airports, the arrival will not smoothly transition onto an instrument approach. Instead, you will depart the final fix on a published heading (likely the radar downwind heading) and expect vectors to final from ATC. This allows ATC to give you extended vectors, or shortcuts, as necessary to account for the mixing of different arrival streams. The arrivals into Charlotte/Douglas International are like this, for example the [CHSLY FOUR](https://skyvector.com/files/tpp/2102/pdf/00078CHSLY_C.PDF):
>
> [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/eEeNvm.png)
>
>
>
If you're landing Runway 23 the arrival has you navigate to JEPHS, the initial fix for the ILS approach for that runway. But if you're landing Runways 18 you come off the arrival on a heading for a left base, while if you're landing Runways 36 you're on a heading for a right downwind. | To answer your question in a couple of sentences, you do not have to follow or fly a STAR or feeder route in order to fly an IAP. There is no relationship between STARs and feeder routes other than they have similar functions.
The shortest route to an IAP is to vector to the intermediate leg/segment of the approach. That is the section between the Intermediate Fix and the Final Approach Fix.
A STAR will get you from the En Route or cruise segment of your flight to the terminal area where you will transition to the proper direction and altitude for an approach to the airport. The STAR may or may not share a common fix or waypoint with the IAP or feeder route of your choice. It is very unlikely that there will be a common fix. Therefore, you might not have an actual published route from the STAR to the IAP. Where a STAR terminates with the IAF to an IAP is usually a STAR that services a specific airport instead of the general Terminal Area.
A feeder route will give you a way to transition directly from the En Route structure of your route to an IAF of the IAP. The feeder route effectively makes the STAR unnecessary if you fly directly to the starting fix for the feeder route. A feeder route, although published on the IAP, is technically not part of the IAP. It is an alternate way to transition from the final En Route segment to the IAP. It is not a standalone procedure and must always terminate at an IAF.
Either the feeder route or the STAR can be used to get to the IAP. Or, neither can be used if you vector directly to the IAP. And, a Terminal Arrival Area on an IAP effectively eliminates the need for a STAR or a feeder route since you can descend from cruise within the TAA. In any case, the IAP does not have to start at an IAF. You just have to be established on the IAP prior to the FAF.
That being said, you can combine a STAR with a feeder route to the IAP. But, more than likely, you will be vectored from the last point on the STAR to the most direct route onto the IAP by ATC (if you are getting ATC separation service and routing). |
49,580 | I have read about the [Iran-Saudi Arabia proxy conflict](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Iran%E2%80%93Saudi_Arabia_proxy_conflict) and I would like to know who has more regional influence in the Middle East in terms of political and cultural influence, Iran or Saudi Arabia? | 2020/01/20 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/49580",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/29927/"
] | Saudis have the power of the purse, but Iran commands more respect
------------------------------------------------------------------
Theoretically speaking, Saudi Arabia should have much more influence. They have much better economy and living standard, they are custodians of Muslim [holy sites](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Holiest_sites_in_Islam), they are Sunni (majority of Muslims) compared to Shia dominated Iran, their military is [much stronger on paper](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Armed_Forces_of_Saudi_Arabia) and they are not isolated by the West (in fact they have very good relations). However, lots of this is just a facade. Saudi economy is still reliant almost exclusively on oil, and they are practically unable to produce much else. Although in public very religious, it is long [rumored](http://www.ahl-alquran.com/arabic/show_article.php?main_id=17483) in Middle East about promiscuity and other vices of Saudi princes. Military is mostly made of foreign mercenaries and as [witnessed in Yemen](https://www.theguardian.com/world/2019/sep/29/houthis-claim-killed-hundreds-saudi-soldiers-captured-thousands) recently, not very good, to say the least. Finally, politically speaking, Saudis are often viewed as mere lap-dogs of the West, especially United States. And considering US-Israeli firm ties, Saudis are by extension allied with much hated Israel. To sum it up, Saudis are rich, fat and spoiled kid, one that prefers to bribe other to fight for him, because he is too soft to do that on his own.
What about Iran ? Iran is comparatively poor, isolated, Shia, on the surface [more liberal](https://annaeverywhere.com/what-to-wear-in-iran/) and generally appear weaker. However, Iranians have their own industry and technological base. Despite all the sanctions they have developed pretty good military technology, especially missile technology. Iranians managed to down US drones, precisely strike Saudi oil refinery with cruise missiles (probably with the help of their proxies in Yemen) and now even retaliated for the killing of their general with surprisingly accurate [ballistic missile attack](https://www.npr.org/2020/01/08/794517031/satellite-photos-reveal-extent-of-damage-at-al-assad-air-base) on US base. Bear in mind that in few decades before, US and Israelis trashed practically any Middle Eastern opponent (except Hezbollah, supported by Iran) . Now it appears that US would not continue with military escalation against Iran, which is practically unprecedented in modern times - and this gives Iran huge dose of prestige in Middle East and whole Muslim world. This could be only enhanced if Iran manages to develop nuclear weapons (second Muslim country to do so, after Pakistan) . In other words, Iran is like poor but proud man, well versed in combat, and ready to speak his mind no matter of consequences. | In the Middle East, there is a saying, Saudi buys its allies, but Iran allies are brothers in arms.
Saudi, being an absolute monarchy, their at most goals is to stay as such. by allying with the west and doing their bidding in the area. you do not have a dogmatic reason to ally with Saudi,
Iran, on the other hand, have Islamic dogma, opposition to the US and Israel, which gives her a lot of support and friends.
They also treat their allies better and stick with them, Saudi is known to be inconsistent policies, switching sides rapidly. |
66,314 | The term "drink offering" seems to have first appeared in Numbers 28:
>
> **Numbers 28:8**: "The other lamb you shall offer at twilight; as the grain offering of the morning and as its drink offering, you shall offer it, an offering by fire, a soothing aroma to the LORD."
>
>
>
In the Letter to the Philippians, Paul mentions being "poured out as a drink offering":
>
> **Philippians 2:17**: "But even if I [Paul] am being poured out as a drink offering upon the sacrifice and service of your faith, I rejoice and share my joy with you all."
>
>
>
What was this drink offering, and what does this mean? | 2021/08/08 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/66314",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/42506/"
] | In Greek the concept of glory has to do with light or attention by visibility. In Acts 22:11 ἀπὸ τῆς δόξης τοῦ φωτὸς ἐκείνου (NA28) means Paul was blinded "from the brightness of that light." Brightness translates the Greek word for glory.
The Hebrew word for glory
כָּבֵד
means *heavy*, the idea of being taken seriously or honored.
Thus, the idea is both Jesus and the Father will be become visible (revealed) and taken seriously (honored) in that visibility.
This had been taking place through the other miracles Jesus performed. Now, it would be through the resurrection.
>
> 11 This, the first of his signs, Jesus did at Cana in Galilee, and manifested his glory. And his disciples believed in him.
> (John 2:11, ESV)
>
>
>
>
> 4 But when Jesus heard it he said, “This illness does not lead to death. It is for the glory of God, so that the Son of God may be glorified through it.”
> (John 11:4, ESV)
>
>
>
>
> Jesus said to her, “Did I not tell you that if you believed you would see the glory of God?”
> (John 11:40, ESV)
>
>
>
>
> 3 Jesus answered, “It was not that this man sinned, or his parents, but that the works of God might be displayed in him. 4 We must work the works of him who sent me while it is day; night is coming, when no one can work. 5 As long as I am in the world, I am the light of the world.”
> (John 9:3–5, ESV)
>
>
>
Notice the context of this passage relates to Jesus' sacrificial death and resurrection.
>
> Now is the Son of Man glorified, and God is glorified in him. 32 If God is glorified in him, God will also glorify him in himself, and glorify him at once. 33 Little children, yet a little while I am with you. You will seek me, and just as I said to the Jews, so now I also say to you, ‘Where I am going you cannot come.’
> (John 13:31–33, ESV)
>
>
>
>
> By this my Father is **glorified**, that you bear much fruit and so prove to be my disciples. 9 As the Father has loved me, so have I loved you. Abide in my love. 10 If you keep my commandments, you will abide in my love, just as I have kept my Father’s commandments and abide in his love. 11 These things I have spoken to you, that my joy may be in you, and that your joy may be full.
> 12 “This is my commandment, that you love one another as I have loved you. 13 Greater love has no one than this, that someone **lay down his life** for his friends. 14 You are my friends if you do what I command you.
> (John 15:8–14, ESV)
>
>
>
This passage shows the unity of the glory between believers, Christ, and the Father.
>
> 12 “Truly, truly, I say to you, whoever believes in me will also do the works that I do; and greater works than these will he do, because I am going to the Father. 13 Whatever you ask in my name, this I will do, that the Father may be glorified in the Son. 14 If you ask me anything in my name, I will do it.
> (John 14:12–14, ESV)
>
>
>
Another passage relating glory to the death and resurrection:
>
> 17 When Jesus had spoken these words, he lifted up his eyes to heaven, and said, “Father, the hour has come; glorify your Son that the Son may glorify you, 2 since you have given him authority over all flesh, to give eternal life to all whom you have given him. 3 And this is eternal life, that they know you, the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom you have sent. 4 I glorified you on earth, having accomplished the work that you gave me to do. 5 And now, Father, glorify me in your own presence with the glory that I had with you before the world existed.
> (John 17:1–5, ESV)
>
>
>
This passage discusses our unity related to the glory.
>
> 20 “I do not ask for these only, but also for those who will believe in me through their word, 21 that they may all be one, just as you, Father, are in me, and I in you, that they also may be in us, so that the world may believe that you have sent me. 22 The **glory** that you have given me I have given to them, that they may be one even as we are one, 23 I in them and you in me, that they may become perfectly one, so that the world may know that you sent me and loved them even as you loved me. 24 Father, I desire that they also, whom you have given me, may be with me where I am, to see my **glory** that you have given me because you loved me before the foundation of the world. 25 O righteous Father, even though the world does not know you, I know you, and these know that you have sent me. 26 I made known to them your name, and I will continue to make it known, that the love with which you have loved me may be in them, and I in them.”
> (John 17:20–26, ESV)
>
>
>
**Appendix**
Glory in the Old Testament was heavy and burdensome, associated with giving the Law which exposed sin. Glory in the New Testament was associated with light, grace, and true, the revelation of salvation.
>
> 14 And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we have seen his glory, glory as of the only Son from the Father, full of grace and truth. 15 (...) 16 For from his fullness we have all received, grace upon grace. 17 For the law was given through Moses; grace and truth came through Jesus Christ. 18 No one has ever seen God; the only God, who is at the Father’s side, he has made him known.
> (John 1:14–18, ESV)
>
>
>
>
> 4 In him was life, and the life was the light of men. 5 The light shines in the darkness, and the darkness has not overcome it.
> (John 1:4–5, ESV)
>
>
>
>
> 16 On the morning of the third day there were thunders and lightnings and a thick cloud on the mountain and a very loud trumpet blast, so that all the people in the camp trembled. 17 Then Moses brought the people out of the camp to meet God, and they took their stand at the foot of the mountain. 18 Now Mount Sinai was wrapped in smoke because the LORD had descended on it in fire. The smoke of it went up like the smoke of a kiln, and the whole mountain trembled greatly. 19 And as the sound of the trumpet grew louder and louder, Moses spoke, and God answered him in thunder. 20 The LORD came down on Mount Sinai, to the top of the mountain. And the LORD called Moses to the top of the mountain, and Moses went up.
> (Exodus 19:16-20, ESV)
>
>
>
>
> 15 Then Moses went up on the mountain, and the cloud covered the mountain. 16 The glory of the LORD dwelt on Mount Sinai, and the cloud covered it six days. And on the seventh day he called to Moses out of the midst of the cloud. 17 Now the appearance of the glory of the LORD was like a devouring fire on the top of the mountain in the sight of the people of Israel. 18 Moses entered the cloud and went up on the mountain. And Moses was on the mountain forty days and forty nights.
> (Exodus 24:15–18, ESV)
>
>
> | NASB John 13:
>
> 31Therefore when he had left, Jesus \*said, “Now is the Son of Man **glorified**, and God is **glorified** in Him; 32 if God is **glorified** in Him, God will also **glorify** Him in Himself, and will **glorify** Him immediately.
>
>
>
The word *glorify* is repeated 5 times here. The repetitions show the importance of this act. More specifically, it refers to the impending suffering and the ultimate crucifixion.
The Spirit is linked to "glorified" in John 7:39
>
> Now this he said about the **Spirit**, whom those who believed in him were to receive, for as yet the Spirit had not been given, because Jesus was not yet **glorified**.
>
>
>
The coming Helper (Spirit) is conditioned on Jesus' leaving (death) in John 16:7
>
> But I tell you the truth: it is to your advantage that I am **leaving**; for if I do not leave, the **Helper** will not come to you; but if I go, I will send Him to you.
>
>
>
In John 13, Jesus linked glorification to his crucifixion. |
66,314 | The term "drink offering" seems to have first appeared in Numbers 28:
>
> **Numbers 28:8**: "The other lamb you shall offer at twilight; as the grain offering of the morning and as its drink offering, you shall offer it, an offering by fire, a soothing aroma to the LORD."
>
>
>
In the Letter to the Philippians, Paul mentions being "poured out as a drink offering":
>
> **Philippians 2:17**: "But even if I [Paul] am being poured out as a drink offering upon the sacrifice and service of your faith, I rejoice and share my joy with you all."
>
>
>
What was this drink offering, and what does this mean? | 2021/08/08 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/66314",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/42506/"
] | In Greek the concept of glory has to do with light or attention by visibility. In Acts 22:11 ἀπὸ τῆς δόξης τοῦ φωτὸς ἐκείνου (NA28) means Paul was blinded "from the brightness of that light." Brightness translates the Greek word for glory.
The Hebrew word for glory
כָּבֵד
means *heavy*, the idea of being taken seriously or honored.
Thus, the idea is both Jesus and the Father will be become visible (revealed) and taken seriously (honored) in that visibility.
This had been taking place through the other miracles Jesus performed. Now, it would be through the resurrection.
>
> 11 This, the first of his signs, Jesus did at Cana in Galilee, and manifested his glory. And his disciples believed in him.
> (John 2:11, ESV)
>
>
>
>
> 4 But when Jesus heard it he said, “This illness does not lead to death. It is for the glory of God, so that the Son of God may be glorified through it.”
> (John 11:4, ESV)
>
>
>
>
> Jesus said to her, “Did I not tell you that if you believed you would see the glory of God?”
> (John 11:40, ESV)
>
>
>
>
> 3 Jesus answered, “It was not that this man sinned, or his parents, but that the works of God might be displayed in him. 4 We must work the works of him who sent me while it is day; night is coming, when no one can work. 5 As long as I am in the world, I am the light of the world.”
> (John 9:3–5, ESV)
>
>
>
Notice the context of this passage relates to Jesus' sacrificial death and resurrection.
>
> Now is the Son of Man glorified, and God is glorified in him. 32 If God is glorified in him, God will also glorify him in himself, and glorify him at once. 33 Little children, yet a little while I am with you. You will seek me, and just as I said to the Jews, so now I also say to you, ‘Where I am going you cannot come.’
> (John 13:31–33, ESV)
>
>
>
>
> By this my Father is **glorified**, that you bear much fruit and so prove to be my disciples. 9 As the Father has loved me, so have I loved you. Abide in my love. 10 If you keep my commandments, you will abide in my love, just as I have kept my Father’s commandments and abide in his love. 11 These things I have spoken to you, that my joy may be in you, and that your joy may be full.
> 12 “This is my commandment, that you love one another as I have loved you. 13 Greater love has no one than this, that someone **lay down his life** for his friends. 14 You are my friends if you do what I command you.
> (John 15:8–14, ESV)
>
>
>
This passage shows the unity of the glory between believers, Christ, and the Father.
>
> 12 “Truly, truly, I say to you, whoever believes in me will also do the works that I do; and greater works than these will he do, because I am going to the Father. 13 Whatever you ask in my name, this I will do, that the Father may be glorified in the Son. 14 If you ask me anything in my name, I will do it.
> (John 14:12–14, ESV)
>
>
>
Another passage relating glory to the death and resurrection:
>
> 17 When Jesus had spoken these words, he lifted up his eyes to heaven, and said, “Father, the hour has come; glorify your Son that the Son may glorify you, 2 since you have given him authority over all flesh, to give eternal life to all whom you have given him. 3 And this is eternal life, that they know you, the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom you have sent. 4 I glorified you on earth, having accomplished the work that you gave me to do. 5 And now, Father, glorify me in your own presence with the glory that I had with you before the world existed.
> (John 17:1–5, ESV)
>
>
>
This passage discusses our unity related to the glory.
>
> 20 “I do not ask for these only, but also for those who will believe in me through their word, 21 that they may all be one, just as you, Father, are in me, and I in you, that they also may be in us, so that the world may believe that you have sent me. 22 The **glory** that you have given me I have given to them, that they may be one even as we are one, 23 I in them and you in me, that they may become perfectly one, so that the world may know that you sent me and loved them even as you loved me. 24 Father, I desire that they also, whom you have given me, may be with me where I am, to see my **glory** that you have given me because you loved me before the foundation of the world. 25 O righteous Father, even though the world does not know you, I know you, and these know that you have sent me. 26 I made known to them your name, and I will continue to make it known, that the love with which you have loved me may be in them, and I in them.”
> (John 17:20–26, ESV)
>
>
>
**Appendix**
Glory in the Old Testament was heavy and burdensome, associated with giving the Law which exposed sin. Glory in the New Testament was associated with light, grace, and true, the revelation of salvation.
>
> 14 And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we have seen his glory, glory as of the only Son from the Father, full of grace and truth. 15 (...) 16 For from his fullness we have all received, grace upon grace. 17 For the law was given through Moses; grace and truth came through Jesus Christ. 18 No one has ever seen God; the only God, who is at the Father’s side, he has made him known.
> (John 1:14–18, ESV)
>
>
>
>
> 4 In him was life, and the life was the light of men. 5 The light shines in the darkness, and the darkness has not overcome it.
> (John 1:4–5, ESV)
>
>
>
>
> 16 On the morning of the third day there were thunders and lightnings and a thick cloud on the mountain and a very loud trumpet blast, so that all the people in the camp trembled. 17 Then Moses brought the people out of the camp to meet God, and they took their stand at the foot of the mountain. 18 Now Mount Sinai was wrapped in smoke because the LORD had descended on it in fire. The smoke of it went up like the smoke of a kiln, and the whole mountain trembled greatly. 19 And as the sound of the trumpet grew louder and louder, Moses spoke, and God answered him in thunder. 20 The LORD came down on Mount Sinai, to the top of the mountain. And the LORD called Moses to the top of the mountain, and Moses went up.
> (Exodus 19:16-20, ESV)
>
>
>
>
> 15 Then Moses went up on the mountain, and the cloud covered the mountain. 16 The glory of the LORD dwelt on Mount Sinai, and the cloud covered it six days. And on the seventh day he called to Moses out of the midst of the cloud. 17 Now the appearance of the glory of the LORD was like a devouring fire on the top of the mountain in the sight of the people of Israel. 18 Moses entered the cloud and went up on the mountain. And Moses was on the mountain forty days and forty nights.
> (Exodus 24:15–18, ESV)
>
>
> | I put the verse before it so it gives it more context of the verse you're speaking about.
>
> 31Therefore when he had gone out, Jesus said, “Now is the Son of Man glorified, and God is glorified in Him;
>
>
> 32if God is glorified in Him, God will also glorify Him in Himself, and will glorify Him immediately.
>
>
>
What does it mean for God to glorify Jesus in Himself?
God's work has been accomplished through Jesus as the Son of Man in this verse.
Upon completion, God's Glory is given to the Son of Man with Himself.
God's word is alive and when thinking about it this afternoon it came to me that this was such a great revelation in the verse at hand.
He was going to glorify man through glorifying the Son of Man that represents the second Adam.
Jesus said, <“Now the Son of Man is glorified and God is glorified in him. John 13:32>
Man has always been wanting the glory of God and fallen short of it. Failed to fulfill a goal. Missed the mark.
>
> For all did sin, and are come short of the glory of God —
> Romans 3:23
>
>
>
When God said let us make man in our image it definitely was a work of God the Father and His Son. Genesis 1:26
God and His Son are now going to accomplish, finish making man in the true image of God.
He glorifies the Son of Man and just as the righteousness of God is given to man through the faith and work of Jesus in the form of the son of man, so also God gives man glory through glorifying the Son of Man
2 Thessalonians 2:14
>
> To this he called you through our gospel, so that you may obtain the glory of our Lord Jesus Christ.
>
>
>
God gives to Christ first and this is a new glory being revealed because it's now given to the Son of Man. This glory is from the Father Himself.
For from his fullness we have all received, grace upon grace. |
66,314 | The term "drink offering" seems to have first appeared in Numbers 28:
>
> **Numbers 28:8**: "The other lamb you shall offer at twilight; as the grain offering of the morning and as its drink offering, you shall offer it, an offering by fire, a soothing aroma to the LORD."
>
>
>
In the Letter to the Philippians, Paul mentions being "poured out as a drink offering":
>
> **Philippians 2:17**: "But even if I [Paul] am being poured out as a drink offering upon the sacrifice and service of your faith, I rejoice and share my joy with you all."
>
>
>
What was this drink offering, and what does this mean? | 2021/08/08 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/66314",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/42506/"
] | I put the verse before it so it gives it more context of the verse you're speaking about.
>
> 31Therefore when he had gone out, Jesus said, “Now is the Son of Man glorified, and God is glorified in Him;
>
>
> 32if God is glorified in Him, God will also glorify Him in Himself, and will glorify Him immediately.
>
>
>
What does it mean for God to glorify Jesus in Himself?
God's work has been accomplished through Jesus as the Son of Man in this verse.
Upon completion, God's Glory is given to the Son of Man with Himself.
God's word is alive and when thinking about it this afternoon it came to me that this was such a great revelation in the verse at hand.
He was going to glorify man through glorifying the Son of Man that represents the second Adam.
Jesus said, <“Now the Son of Man is glorified and God is glorified in him. John 13:32>
Man has always been wanting the glory of God and fallen short of it. Failed to fulfill a goal. Missed the mark.
>
> For all did sin, and are come short of the glory of God —
> Romans 3:23
>
>
>
When God said let us make man in our image it definitely was a work of God the Father and His Son. Genesis 1:26
God and His Son are now going to accomplish, finish making man in the true image of God.
He glorifies the Son of Man and just as the righteousness of God is given to man through the faith and work of Jesus in the form of the son of man, so also God gives man glory through glorifying the Son of Man
2 Thessalonians 2:14
>
> To this he called you through our gospel, so that you may obtain the glory of our Lord Jesus Christ.
>
>
>
God gives to Christ first and this is a new glory being revealed because it's now given to the Son of Man. This glory is from the Father Himself.
For from his fullness we have all received, grace upon grace. | NASB John 13:
>
> 31Therefore when he had left, Jesus \*said, “Now is the Son of Man **glorified**, and God is **glorified** in Him; 32 if God is **glorified** in Him, God will also **glorify** Him in Himself, and will **glorify** Him immediately.
>
>
>
The word *glorify* is repeated 5 times here. The repetitions show the importance of this act. More specifically, it refers to the impending suffering and the ultimate crucifixion.
The Spirit is linked to "glorified" in John 7:39
>
> Now this he said about the **Spirit**, whom those who believed in him were to receive, for as yet the Spirit had not been given, because Jesus was not yet **glorified**.
>
>
>
The coming Helper (Spirit) is conditioned on Jesus' leaving (death) in John 16:7
>
> But I tell you the truth: it is to your advantage that I am **leaving**; for if I do not leave, the **Helper** will not come to you; but if I go, I will send Him to you.
>
>
>
In John 13, Jesus linked glorification to his crucifixion. |
213,515 | Welcome,
I will tell how i'm doing this now (backup).
I have my local computer, and server.
I log into server, and mount my local computer (folder) via sshfs.
Create .rar backup archive direct to sshfs remote folder.
After copy, close my ssh sessions.
And use my streamer to backup files stored by server.
I'm wondering, is there any way to share streamer /dev/st0 via ssh session ?
Any idea how can i start backup direct to (remote) -> root@server/dev/st0
Regards | 2010/11/21 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/213515",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/51833/"
] | It should not, excluding the 'offline tests' smart operations. Even with those I'd be surprised if you saw anything more significant than a small performance difference. Most SMART operations only involve the drive firmware and not the platters where your data is stored. | When you say "running SMART tests" some clarification needs to be made.
**From this [wiki](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/S.M.A.R.T.):**
>
> The purpose of S.M.A.R.T. is to warn a user or a system administrator of impending drive failure while there is still time to take action, such as copying the data to a replacement device.
>
>
>
S.M.A.R.T. is a series of built-in self tests that are run and monitored by the hard drive. **Viewing** these results can be done at any time whether using the hard drive or not. There is really no "testing" done, but rather a viewing of these already monitored tests.
However if you do **any** diagnostics on the drive then there is a *possibility* that something might happen. My recommendation is to avoid testing your hard drive while doing **any** sort of tasks. Also be sure to make backups of the data. It's better to be safe than sorry. |
336,132 | Whenever I try to walk to Kellogg he gets hostile without me even talking to him. is it Nick or something else? I tried telling Nick to wait outside and I even dismissed him. Please help. | 2018/07/17 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/336132",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/215563/"
] | It's happening because if Kellogg doesn't die, you can't finish the game. \*
>
> (1) equipped power armor,
>
>
> (2) companion is hostile,
>
>
> (3) weapons is not holstered,
>
>
> (4) bug or glitch happening while you walk to him.
>
>
>
(5) There's probably a script that keeps checking if he isn't hostile, to make him hostile, to facilitate progression.
---
(\*) *Guy Beats Fallout 4 Without [they themselves personally] Killing Anyone, Nearly Breaks The Game* – [kotaku.com](https://kotaku.com/guy-beats-fallout-4-without-killing-anyone-nearly-brea-1749882569) (the hard part was Kellogg, because he *must* die) | Whenever I did the quest I just walke in with my power armor and gun holstered. I had Preston graves as my companion. When I talked to him though, eventually he has to become hostile because of what you’re saying. Try to pick a different companion or holster your gun. |
1,448,465 | Recently I've run across something odd. An exact copy of a folder full of files has a different Size on Disk than the original. I could understand how this could happen between drives with different structures, except that these files are on the same exact drives.
I have run multiple tests to ensure that every file is exactly the same and that all of the properties are exactly the same as well.
***What could be an explanation for this?***
Screenshot of the two folders' properties:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/6e4sb.png)
Disk Management screenshot:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/ma5sM.png)
Considerations
--------------
1. Compression is not turned on for either folders.
2. There is only one partition on the drive, ergo both folders would share cluster size, file system (NTFS), etc. | 2019/06/13 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1448465",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/1025486/"
] | So, this took a lot of digging but I did eventually figure this out. I learned a lot about our servers through this issue.
Background of the folders
-------------------------
To begin, we have two folders in question. These folders are 100% identical in terms of their data, down to the binary. These folders live on one of our servers.
This specific server was recently taken offline and upgraded from Windows Server 2008 to 2012 to 2016. Along with every other file on this server, one of the folders stayed along for the ride on the volume while the server went through its upgrades. The other folder was actually duplicated from a snapshot of the server in its 2008 state and then placed onto the current 2016 server. So we have the original folder and the duplicated folder. The discrepancy is that the duplicated folder takes up more size on disk than the original.
What I tried
------------
My line of reasoning to figure out this issue was to drill down into the duplicated folder and find out if all files had mismatching size on disk or if it was only certain ones. To make this task a lot easier on myself I used [WizTree by Antibody Software](https://antibody-software.com/web/software/software/wiztree-finds-the-files-and-folders-using-the-most-disk-space-on-your-hard-drive/) which is similar to [WinDirStat](https://windirstat.net/) except that by defualt it has a column to show each file's size on disk as well as its size. WinDirStat only shows size, I believe. So I drilled down and found that not every subfolder or files had mismatching size on disk, only some. And the ones that did had something very peculiar to me: files with 0 size on disk, even though they had nonzero size.
Some NTFS background
--------------------
That discovery led me to find [this answer](https://superuser.com/a/1030802/1025486) on another Super User question. In context of my issue this is what I gathered from that answer.
1. If a file is so small that the data of the file and the filesystem bookkeeping are less than 1KB, NTFS will store the data within the file record itself (MFT) and no cluster has to be allocated for it. There is no size on disk because there's nothing beyond the file record. This is called a resident file.
2. Before Windows 8, NTFS "size on disk" calculation did not take into account resident vs non resident files and just rounded each file's size up to the next multiple of cluster size. Now NTFS will count files with resident data as 0kb size on disk; meaning that the calculation used in Windows 8+ is smarter than the calculation used in Windows 7-.
3. Once a file has passed the threshold from a resident file to a nonresident file, the file cannot go back.
How I ended up with exactly the same files that have a different size on disk
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------
The original folder that went through the server upgrades would have had its data rewritten through the process, therefore Windows reran its NTSF calculation and when it found the files which it now knew could become resident files, it updated the bookkeeping to accommodate them, meaning that a few hundred 4kb (1x cluster size) size on disk files turned into 0kb size on disk files, thereby reducing a 245Mb file to 244Mb.
When our IT Dept. used the 3rd party duplication software, not only was the data copied, but the bookkeeping information was as well. This application is meant to duplicate everything and that includes the bookkeeping.
The original file in 2008 took up 245mb since the NTFS did not handle the resident files in its calculation. When the data was rewritten the NTFS ran the up-to-date calculation and made certain files resident. The duplication of the original from 2008 had its bookkeeping information copied as well, so the nonresident files stayed nonresident.
**So, a succinct answer without all of the background needed to understand how this happened is:**
One folder contains resident files, while the other folder does not. This is because one folder had its data rewritten with calculations that handles resident files while the other folder had its data and bookkeeping information copied from a system that did not handle resident files.
Noteworthy mentions
-------------------
1. I can replicate this issue by copying either the original (244mb) or the duplicated (245mb) folder. The new copy will always be 244mb with resident files.
2. If I look at the C: Drive's administrative share from a Windows 7 computer, since Windows 7 calculates the Size on Disk property, both folders show 245MB. If I look from a Windows 10 computer, it shows both the 244mb and 245mb since the calculation is smart enough to look for resident files.
3. If (from a Windows 8+ machine) I copy a nonresident file from the duplicated folder that is a resident file in the original folder, the copy results in a resident file since the data was rewritten. | Windows automatically compresses files that do not get used frequently. If It has been compressed by Windows, You can check it :
>
> Right click on folder > Properties > Advanced attributes
>
>
>
Check if compress contents to save disk space is enabled. |
1,448,465 | Recently I've run across something odd. An exact copy of a folder full of files has a different Size on Disk than the original. I could understand how this could happen between drives with different structures, except that these files are on the same exact drives.
I have run multiple tests to ensure that every file is exactly the same and that all of the properties are exactly the same as well.
***What could be an explanation for this?***
Screenshot of the two folders' properties:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/6e4sb.png)
Disk Management screenshot:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/ma5sM.png)
Considerations
--------------
1. Compression is not turned on for either folders.
2. There is only one partition on the drive, ergo both folders would share cluster size, file system (NTFS), etc. | 2019/06/13 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1448465",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/1025486/"
] | So, this took a lot of digging but I did eventually figure this out. I learned a lot about our servers through this issue.
Background of the folders
-------------------------
To begin, we have two folders in question. These folders are 100% identical in terms of their data, down to the binary. These folders live on one of our servers.
This specific server was recently taken offline and upgraded from Windows Server 2008 to 2012 to 2016. Along with every other file on this server, one of the folders stayed along for the ride on the volume while the server went through its upgrades. The other folder was actually duplicated from a snapshot of the server in its 2008 state and then placed onto the current 2016 server. So we have the original folder and the duplicated folder. The discrepancy is that the duplicated folder takes up more size on disk than the original.
What I tried
------------
My line of reasoning to figure out this issue was to drill down into the duplicated folder and find out if all files had mismatching size on disk or if it was only certain ones. To make this task a lot easier on myself I used [WizTree by Antibody Software](https://antibody-software.com/web/software/software/wiztree-finds-the-files-and-folders-using-the-most-disk-space-on-your-hard-drive/) which is similar to [WinDirStat](https://windirstat.net/) except that by defualt it has a column to show each file's size on disk as well as its size. WinDirStat only shows size, I believe. So I drilled down and found that not every subfolder or files had mismatching size on disk, only some. And the ones that did had something very peculiar to me: files with 0 size on disk, even though they had nonzero size.
Some NTFS background
--------------------
That discovery led me to find [this answer](https://superuser.com/a/1030802/1025486) on another Super User question. In context of my issue this is what I gathered from that answer.
1. If a file is so small that the data of the file and the filesystem bookkeeping are less than 1KB, NTFS will store the data within the file record itself (MFT) and no cluster has to be allocated for it. There is no size on disk because there's nothing beyond the file record. This is called a resident file.
2. Before Windows 8, NTFS "size on disk" calculation did not take into account resident vs non resident files and just rounded each file's size up to the next multiple of cluster size. Now NTFS will count files with resident data as 0kb size on disk; meaning that the calculation used in Windows 8+ is smarter than the calculation used in Windows 7-.
3. Once a file has passed the threshold from a resident file to a nonresident file, the file cannot go back.
How I ended up with exactly the same files that have a different size on disk
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------
The original folder that went through the server upgrades would have had its data rewritten through the process, therefore Windows reran its NTSF calculation and when it found the files which it now knew could become resident files, it updated the bookkeeping to accommodate them, meaning that a few hundred 4kb (1x cluster size) size on disk files turned into 0kb size on disk files, thereby reducing a 245Mb file to 244Mb.
When our IT Dept. used the 3rd party duplication software, not only was the data copied, but the bookkeeping information was as well. This application is meant to duplicate everything and that includes the bookkeeping.
The original file in 2008 took up 245mb since the NTFS did not handle the resident files in its calculation. When the data was rewritten the NTFS ran the up-to-date calculation and made certain files resident. The duplication of the original from 2008 had its bookkeeping information copied as well, so the nonresident files stayed nonresident.
**So, a succinct answer without all of the background needed to understand how this happened is:**
One folder contains resident files, while the other folder does not. This is because one folder had its data rewritten with calculations that handles resident files while the other folder had its data and bookkeeping information copied from a system that did not handle resident files.
Noteworthy mentions
-------------------
1. I can replicate this issue by copying either the original (244mb) or the duplicated (245mb) folder. The new copy will always be 244mb with resident files.
2. If I look at the C: Drive's administrative share from a Windows 7 computer, since Windows 7 calculates the Size on Disk property, both folders show 245MB. If I look from a Windows 10 computer, it shows both the 244mb and 245mb since the calculation is smart enough to look for resident files.
3. If (from a Windows 8+ machine) I copy a nonresident file from the duplicated folder that is a resident file in the original folder, the copy results in a resident file since the data was rewritten. | Compare **Size** vs **Size on Disk**: The contents of the files in your picture above are the same size, but the space taken to store them differs.
Files are stored in chunks ('clusters'), and those chunks vary according to the formatting system used to prepare the drive, and the cluster size chosen (if you do not let the default cluster size be used). This [Microsoft document](https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/help/140365/default-cluster-size-for-ntfs-fat-and-exfat) shows the default cluster sizing] for different formatting choices and for the drive size.
You may also have [Alternate Data Stream](https://blogs.technet.microsoft.com/askcore/2013/03/24/alternate-data-streams-in-ntfs/) [forks](https://www.2brightsparks.com/resources/articles/NTFS-Alternate-Data-Stream-ADS.pdf) attached to files in the directory off the root. |
1,448,465 | Recently I've run across something odd. An exact copy of a folder full of files has a different Size on Disk than the original. I could understand how this could happen between drives with different structures, except that these files are on the same exact drives.
I have run multiple tests to ensure that every file is exactly the same and that all of the properties are exactly the same as well.
***What could be an explanation for this?***
Screenshot of the two folders' properties:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/6e4sb.png)
Disk Management screenshot:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/ma5sM.png)
Considerations
--------------
1. Compression is not turned on for either folders.
2. There is only one partition on the drive, ergo both folders would share cluster size, file system (NTFS), etc. | 2019/06/13 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1448465",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/1025486/"
] | So, this took a lot of digging but I did eventually figure this out. I learned a lot about our servers through this issue.
Background of the folders
-------------------------
To begin, we have two folders in question. These folders are 100% identical in terms of their data, down to the binary. These folders live on one of our servers.
This specific server was recently taken offline and upgraded from Windows Server 2008 to 2012 to 2016. Along with every other file on this server, one of the folders stayed along for the ride on the volume while the server went through its upgrades. The other folder was actually duplicated from a snapshot of the server in its 2008 state and then placed onto the current 2016 server. So we have the original folder and the duplicated folder. The discrepancy is that the duplicated folder takes up more size on disk than the original.
What I tried
------------
My line of reasoning to figure out this issue was to drill down into the duplicated folder and find out if all files had mismatching size on disk or if it was only certain ones. To make this task a lot easier on myself I used [WizTree by Antibody Software](https://antibody-software.com/web/software/software/wiztree-finds-the-files-and-folders-using-the-most-disk-space-on-your-hard-drive/) which is similar to [WinDirStat](https://windirstat.net/) except that by defualt it has a column to show each file's size on disk as well as its size. WinDirStat only shows size, I believe. So I drilled down and found that not every subfolder or files had mismatching size on disk, only some. And the ones that did had something very peculiar to me: files with 0 size on disk, even though they had nonzero size.
Some NTFS background
--------------------
That discovery led me to find [this answer](https://superuser.com/a/1030802/1025486) on another Super User question. In context of my issue this is what I gathered from that answer.
1. If a file is so small that the data of the file and the filesystem bookkeeping are less than 1KB, NTFS will store the data within the file record itself (MFT) and no cluster has to be allocated for it. There is no size on disk because there's nothing beyond the file record. This is called a resident file.
2. Before Windows 8, NTFS "size on disk" calculation did not take into account resident vs non resident files and just rounded each file's size up to the next multiple of cluster size. Now NTFS will count files with resident data as 0kb size on disk; meaning that the calculation used in Windows 8+ is smarter than the calculation used in Windows 7-.
3. Once a file has passed the threshold from a resident file to a nonresident file, the file cannot go back.
How I ended up with exactly the same files that have a different size on disk
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------
The original folder that went through the server upgrades would have had its data rewritten through the process, therefore Windows reran its NTSF calculation and when it found the files which it now knew could become resident files, it updated the bookkeeping to accommodate them, meaning that a few hundred 4kb (1x cluster size) size on disk files turned into 0kb size on disk files, thereby reducing a 245Mb file to 244Mb.
When our IT Dept. used the 3rd party duplication software, not only was the data copied, but the bookkeeping information was as well. This application is meant to duplicate everything and that includes the bookkeeping.
The original file in 2008 took up 245mb since the NTFS did not handle the resident files in its calculation. When the data was rewritten the NTFS ran the up-to-date calculation and made certain files resident. The duplication of the original from 2008 had its bookkeeping information copied as well, so the nonresident files stayed nonresident.
**So, a succinct answer without all of the background needed to understand how this happened is:**
One folder contains resident files, while the other folder does not. This is because one folder had its data rewritten with calculations that handles resident files while the other folder had its data and bookkeeping information copied from a system that did not handle resident files.
Noteworthy mentions
-------------------
1. I can replicate this issue by copying either the original (244mb) or the duplicated (245mb) folder. The new copy will always be 244mb with resident files.
2. If I look at the C: Drive's administrative share from a Windows 7 computer, since Windows 7 calculates the Size on Disk property, both folders show 245MB. If I look from a Windows 10 computer, it shows both the 244mb and 245mb since the calculation is smart enough to look for resident files.
3. If (from a Windows 8+ machine) I copy a nonresident file from the duplicated folder that is a resident file in the original folder, the copy results in a resident file since the data was rewritten. | The extra 1MB of space is likely due to added metadata in the [inode](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inode) or index node...
>
> The inode (index node) is a data structure in a Unix-style file system
> that describes a file-system object such as a file or a directory.
> Each inode stores the attributes and disk block location(s) of the
> object's data. File-system object attributes may include metadata
> (times of last change, access, modification), as well as owner and
> permission data.
>
>
>
Even though they are copies, the bigger one is in a different (nested) directory so, it has a different set of info for indexing. |
43,171 | I want to encrypt my apps and personal data, such as passwords to email etc.
If I have factory reset my phone (GS2sprint) and it is fully charged (over 90%) and plugged in. So I went to *Settings→Apps→Security*, and from there to *Encrypt* or *Encrypt SDCard* -- but it won't let me encrypt: The buttons are grayed out.
Why won't it let me encrypt? I have a new file that I have not seen before which is sprint extention. It will not let me stop it and like I said after Hard Factory reset it still will not let me encrypt anything. | 2013/04/06 | [
"https://android.stackexchange.com/questions/43171",
"https://android.stackexchange.com",
"https://android.stackexchange.com/users/31775/"
] | I know I am late to this discussion, but, for others out there that may have not gotten an answer to this yet, device encryption on some devices may only work with a strong password. A (medium security) PIN may not be enough. | You already have to have a strong password selected and installed and then the encryption button will be available for you to press. |
43,171 | I want to encrypt my apps and personal data, such as passwords to email etc.
If I have factory reset my phone (GS2sprint) and it is fully charged (over 90%) and plugged in. So I went to *Settings→Apps→Security*, and from there to *Encrypt* or *Encrypt SDCard* -- but it won't let me encrypt: The buttons are grayed out.
Why won't it let me encrypt? I have a new file that I have not seen before which is sprint extention. It will not let me stop it and like I said after Hard Factory reset it still will not let me encrypt anything. | 2013/04/06 | [
"https://android.stackexchange.com/questions/43171",
"https://android.stackexchange.com",
"https://android.stackexchange.com/users/31775/"
] | I know I am late to this discussion, but, for others out there that may have not gotten an answer to this yet, device encryption on some devices may only work with a strong password. A (medium security) PIN may not be enough. | The Android phone must be fully charged (100%) and charging in order to encrypt your phone. The button will change dark when your phone is fully charged and charging. There is now a notification text about the thing in the Android 6.x. It also says that the encryption may take one hour and more. |
272,222 | At work, I have an office with private kitchen.
(the kitchen is a room for itself and the only entrance is from the office)
Questions:
What is such a kitchen called? Would you say "an office with private kitchen"? Or maybe "an office with personal kitchen"? | 2021/01/15 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/272222",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/128243/"
] | In general, yes both are correct. There is no implicit minimum amount of time or instances implied by using a perfect progressive verb form (‘has/have/had been Xing’).
However, context can have interesting implications here.
Depending on the context, a perfect progressive verb form implies either of:
* A single continuous action.
* A recurring series of individual instances of the action.
Your first example will for most people be the first case here, essentially equivalent to a past perfect form (which would be ‘Somebody has smoked [a cigarette/cigar] in here.’).
Your second example though will for most people be the second case, implying that the cat is *habitually* peeing in your garden, not that it has simply happened once.
Unfortunately, despite being a native English speaker, I can’t really explain conclusively *why* this differentiation exists. As far as I can tell it has to do with how people perceive the ‘basic duration’ of the activity being described. For stuff most people think of as taking a very short time, the second case (describing a recurring series of individual events) seems to be the common interpretation, while things that most people think of as taking a longer amount of time tend to get interpreted in this form as referring to a single longer instance of the action. | By saying "Someone has been smoking here", you are stressing the duration of the action. You noticed a cloud of smoke, and, apparently, it wasn't just one puff.
You can say "Some has smoked here" when the duration doesn't matter to you. "Smoking is strictly prohibited here, you shouldn't have done that!"
You can use the past continuous as well, as in "Someone was smoking (in) here", because the timespan is quite predictable and can be easily inferred.
The number of cigarettes smoked is irrelevant. What matters is the act itself and whether you want to emphasise the length of it. It could be one cigarette, a packet of cigarettes, a pipe. |
272,222 | At work, I have an office with private kitchen.
(the kitchen is a room for itself and the only entrance is from the office)
Questions:
What is such a kitchen called? Would you say "an office with private kitchen"? Or maybe "an office with personal kitchen"? | 2021/01/15 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/272222",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/128243/"
] | The second example is a little different. "Your cat has been peeing in my garden" does suggest that you think the cat has been doing it as a habit. This is different from "someone has been smoking here," which I would just take to mean that someone has been in there with a lit cigarette.
I am not sure, but I think the difference is that urination is a discrete activity. It lasts about 20 seconds and then the animal is done. One can smoke a single cigarette (or whatever) over a somewhat longer period of time across more than one location.
I should add that, even in the "cat peeing" case, there is ambiguity. The owner of the cat might interpret it as an accusation of habitual use, and the accuser might just mean that it seems to have happened at least once. | Another major difference between the sentences is the use of the pronoun "someone" in the first case vs the very definite (and somewhat *accusatory*) "your cat" in the second. You could also change the first to someone's name and get much the same effect.
>
> **Your kid** has been smoking here.
>
>
>
or
>
> **Johnny** has been smoking here
>
>
>
both hint towards habituality (as has been pointed out already), but by specifying an unknown cause "someone" it's hard for the listener to make a conclusion about habituality (as in who did it, and that it hasn't been the first time). Only the fact that it has been done can be reasonably concluded. |
272,222 | At work, I have an office with private kitchen.
(the kitchen is a room for itself and the only entrance is from the office)
Questions:
What is such a kitchen called? Would you say "an office with private kitchen"? Or maybe "an office with personal kitchen"? | 2021/01/15 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/272222",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/128243/"
] | Yes. There's nothing about the activity of smoking that implies only one cigarette, or about the number at all. Just that there has been *some*.
Likewise, if you see crumbs, you could say "someone has been eating here" — there's no comment on the *amount* that was eaten. | The second example is a little different. "Your cat has been peeing in my garden" does suggest that you think the cat has been doing it as a habit. This is different from "someone has been smoking here," which I would just take to mean that someone has been in there with a lit cigarette.
I am not sure, but I think the difference is that urination is a discrete activity. It lasts about 20 seconds and then the animal is done. One can smoke a single cigarette (or whatever) over a somewhat longer period of time across more than one location.
I should add that, even in the "cat peeing" case, there is ambiguity. The owner of the cat might interpret it as an accusation of habitual use, and the accuser might just mean that it seems to have happened at least once. |
272,222 | At work, I have an office with private kitchen.
(the kitchen is a room for itself and the only entrance is from the office)
Questions:
What is such a kitchen called? Would you say "an office with private kitchen"? Or maybe "an office with personal kitchen"? | 2021/01/15 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/272222",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/128243/"
] | Yes. There's nothing about the activity of smoking that implies only one cigarette, or about the number at all. Just that there has been *some*.
Likewise, if you see crumbs, you could say "someone has been eating here" — there's no comment on the *amount* that was eaten. | By saying "Someone has been smoking here", you are stressing the duration of the action. You noticed a cloud of smoke, and, apparently, it wasn't just one puff.
You can say "Some has smoked here" when the duration doesn't matter to you. "Smoking is strictly prohibited here, you shouldn't have done that!"
You can use the past continuous as well, as in "Someone was smoking (in) here", because the timespan is quite predictable and can be easily inferred.
The number of cigarettes smoked is irrelevant. What matters is the act itself and whether you want to emphasise the length of it. It could be one cigarette, a packet of cigarettes, a pipe. |
272,222 | At work, I have an office with private kitchen.
(the kitchen is a room for itself and the only entrance is from the office)
Questions:
What is such a kitchen called? Would you say "an office with private kitchen"? Or maybe "an office with personal kitchen"? | 2021/01/15 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/272222",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/128243/"
] | Yes, this is correct.
"Smoking" is an action that does not have a minimum number of cigarettes. Even if it was only part of one it would still be "smoking." | The second example is a little different. "Your cat has been peeing in my garden" does suggest that you think the cat has been doing it as a habit. This is different from "someone has been smoking here," which I would just take to mean that someone has been in there with a lit cigarette.
I am not sure, but I think the difference is that urination is a discrete activity. It lasts about 20 seconds and then the animal is done. One can smoke a single cigarette (or whatever) over a somewhat longer period of time across more than one location.
I should add that, even in the "cat peeing" case, there is ambiguity. The owner of the cat might interpret it as an accusation of habitual use, and the accuser might just mean that it seems to have happened at least once. |
272,222 | At work, I have an office with private kitchen.
(the kitchen is a room for itself and the only entrance is from the office)
Questions:
What is such a kitchen called? Would you say "an office with private kitchen"? Or maybe "an office with personal kitchen"? | 2021/01/15 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/272222",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/128243/"
] | Yes, this is correct.
"Smoking" is an action that does not have a minimum number of cigarettes. Even if it was only part of one it would still be "smoking." | Another major difference between the sentences is the use of the pronoun "someone" in the first case vs the very definite (and somewhat *accusatory*) "your cat" in the second. You could also change the first to someone's name and get much the same effect.
>
> **Your kid** has been smoking here.
>
>
>
or
>
> **Johnny** has been smoking here
>
>
>
both hint towards habituality (as has been pointed out already), but by specifying an unknown cause "someone" it's hard for the listener to make a conclusion about habituality (as in who did it, and that it hasn't been the first time). Only the fact that it has been done can be reasonably concluded. |
272,222 | At work, I have an office with private kitchen.
(the kitchen is a room for itself and the only entrance is from the office)
Questions:
What is such a kitchen called? Would you say "an office with private kitchen"? Or maybe "an office with personal kitchen"? | 2021/01/15 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/272222",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/128243/"
] | In general, yes both are correct. There is no implicit minimum amount of time or instances implied by using a perfect progressive verb form (‘has/have/had been Xing’).
However, context can have interesting implications here.
Depending on the context, a perfect progressive verb form implies either of:
* A single continuous action.
* A recurring series of individual instances of the action.
Your first example will for most people be the first case here, essentially equivalent to a past perfect form (which would be ‘Somebody has smoked [a cigarette/cigar] in here.’).
Your second example though will for most people be the second case, implying that the cat is *habitually* peeing in your garden, not that it has simply happened once.
Unfortunately, despite being a native English speaker, I can’t really explain conclusively *why* this differentiation exists. As far as I can tell it has to do with how people perceive the ‘basic duration’ of the activity being described. For stuff most people think of as taking a very short time, the second case (describing a recurring series of individual events) seems to be the common interpretation, while things that most people think of as taking a longer amount of time tend to get interpreted in this form as referring to a single longer instance of the action. | Yes. There's nothing about the activity of smoking that implies only one cigarette, or about the number at all. Just that there has been *some*.
Likewise, if you see crumbs, you could say "someone has been eating here" — there's no comment on the *amount* that was eaten. |
272,222 | At work, I have an office with private kitchen.
(the kitchen is a room for itself and the only entrance is from the office)
Questions:
What is such a kitchen called? Would you say "an office with private kitchen"? Or maybe "an office with personal kitchen"? | 2021/01/15 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/272222",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/128243/"
] | Yes. There's nothing about the activity of smoking that implies only one cigarette, or about the number at all. Just that there has been *some*.
Likewise, if you see crumbs, you could say "someone has been eating here" — there's no comment on the *amount* that was eaten. | Another major difference between the sentences is the use of the pronoun "someone" in the first case vs the very definite (and somewhat *accusatory*) "your cat" in the second. You could also change the first to someone's name and get much the same effect.
>
> **Your kid** has been smoking here.
>
>
>
or
>
> **Johnny** has been smoking here
>
>
>
both hint towards habituality (as has been pointed out already), but by specifying an unknown cause "someone" it's hard for the listener to make a conclusion about habituality (as in who did it, and that it hasn't been the first time). Only the fact that it has been done can be reasonably concluded. |
272,222 | At work, I have an office with private kitchen.
(the kitchen is a room for itself and the only entrance is from the office)
Questions:
What is such a kitchen called? Would you say "an office with private kitchen"? Or maybe "an office with personal kitchen"? | 2021/01/15 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/272222",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/128243/"
] | By saying "Someone has been smoking here", you are stressing the duration of the action. You noticed a cloud of smoke, and, apparently, it wasn't just one puff.
You can say "Some has smoked here" when the duration doesn't matter to you. "Smoking is strictly prohibited here, you shouldn't have done that!"
You can use the past continuous as well, as in "Someone was smoking (in) here", because the timespan is quite predictable and can be easily inferred.
The number of cigarettes smoked is irrelevant. What matters is the act itself and whether you want to emphasise the length of it. It could be one cigarette, a packet of cigarettes, a pipe. | Another major difference between the sentences is the use of the pronoun "someone" in the first case vs the very definite (and somewhat *accusatory*) "your cat" in the second. You could also change the first to someone's name and get much the same effect.
>
> **Your kid** has been smoking here.
>
>
>
or
>
> **Johnny** has been smoking here
>
>
>
both hint towards habituality (as has been pointed out already), but by specifying an unknown cause "someone" it's hard for the listener to make a conclusion about habituality (as in who did it, and that it hasn't been the first time). Only the fact that it has been done can be reasonably concluded. |
272,222 | At work, I have an office with private kitchen.
(the kitchen is a room for itself and the only entrance is from the office)
Questions:
What is such a kitchen called? Would you say "an office with private kitchen"? Or maybe "an office with personal kitchen"? | 2021/01/15 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/272222",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/128243/"
] | Yes, this is correct.
"Smoking" is an action that does not have a minimum number of cigarettes. Even if it was only part of one it would still be "smoking." | By saying "Someone has been smoking here", you are stressing the duration of the action. You noticed a cloud of smoke, and, apparently, it wasn't just one puff.
You can say "Some has smoked here" when the duration doesn't matter to you. "Smoking is strictly prohibited here, you shouldn't have done that!"
You can use the past continuous as well, as in "Someone was smoking (in) here", because the timespan is quite predictable and can be easily inferred.
The number of cigarettes smoked is irrelevant. What matters is the act itself and whether you want to emphasise the length of it. It could be one cigarette, a packet of cigarettes, a pipe. |
216,601 | I want to know what is the relation between (100v, 10A) and 100W in darlington transistor or actually any power device like mosfet or bjt transistor
does that means I can use this transistor to drive say 60 volts motor rated 10A ?
would that means that I am consuming 600 w in the motor circuit how would the transistor survive this amount of power
I am confused, I am sure that I am missing something !! | 2016/02/11 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/216601",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/90194/"
] | >
> What does it means 100v, 10A ,100W darlington transistor?
>
>
>
* The maximum voltage that the transistor can withstand between collector and emitter is 100V. Sometimes this spec is between base and collector.
* The maximum current that the transistor can withstand that flows between collector and emitter is 10A.
* The maximum product of current flow and voltage across the transistor is 100 watts.
Current may be allowed to be greater than 10A if applied in short bursts or at a low duty cycle. The same applies to power - it is average power and RMS current that usually kills a transistor. The voltage spec is usually an instantaneous spec. | If you read this in the datasheet that means the transistor absolute maximum rating. Take example for this [N Channel](http://coecsl.ece.illinois.edu/ge423/spring05/group9/IRF520.pdf), if you drive the motor with 10A then you risk to damage the transistor. For the 100W is the maximum power dissipation of the transistor. |
216,601 | I want to know what is the relation between (100v, 10A) and 100W in darlington transistor or actually any power device like mosfet or bjt transistor
does that means I can use this transistor to drive say 60 volts motor rated 10A ?
would that means that I am consuming 600 w in the motor circuit how would the transistor survive this amount of power
I am confused, I am sure that I am missing something !! | 2016/02/11 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/216601",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/90194/"
] | If you read this in the datasheet that means the transistor absolute maximum rating. Take example for this [N Channel](http://coecsl.ece.illinois.edu/ge423/spring05/group9/IRF520.pdf), if you drive the motor with 10A then you risk to damage the transistor. For the 100W is the maximum power dissipation of the transistor. | For Muhammad, or anyone else learning EE, Might I suggest ["The Art Of Electronics 3rd edition"](http://rads.stackoverflow.com/amzn/click/0521809266)
Prices vary, but it is THE best reference when learning electronics theory. Also, your question is vague.
A Darlington is a BJT, just internally configured with two BJT's for greater current gain from the base signal. MOSFET's are different animals and VERY static sensitive.
Choosing components with no safety factor will severely shorten the service live of a given design. If you mean to drive an DC (direct current) motor of 60V@10A then the transistor will dissipate (10A + Ibase) x (Vce drop typ ~4V for darlingtons) = 10A + 20mA x 4V = 10.020A x 4V = 40.08W
At 40.08W you will need an adequate heatsink for the transistor to survive barely! And that would need to be exotic like water cooling. Better to choose a transistor with at least 20A continuous collector current. Your heatsink choices will also broaden and get cheaper.
Choosing components that can handle 2x the design parameters will ensure ruggedness and reliability over a wide temperature range. |
216,601 | I want to know what is the relation between (100v, 10A) and 100W in darlington transistor or actually any power device like mosfet or bjt transistor
does that means I can use this transistor to drive say 60 volts motor rated 10A ?
would that means that I am consuming 600 w in the motor circuit how would the transistor survive this amount of power
I am confused, I am sure that I am missing something !! | 2016/02/11 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/216601",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/90194/"
] | >
> What does it means 100v, 10A ,100W darlington transistor?
>
>
>
* The maximum voltage that the transistor can withstand between collector and emitter is 100V. Sometimes this spec is between base and collector.
* The maximum current that the transistor can withstand that flows between collector and emitter is 10A.
* The maximum product of current flow and voltage across the transistor is 100 watts.
Current may be allowed to be greater than 10A if applied in short bursts or at a low duty cycle. The same applies to power - it is average power and RMS current that usually kills a transistor. The voltage spec is usually an instantaneous spec. | For Muhammad, or anyone else learning EE, Might I suggest ["The Art Of Electronics 3rd edition"](http://rads.stackoverflow.com/amzn/click/0521809266)
Prices vary, but it is THE best reference when learning electronics theory. Also, your question is vague.
A Darlington is a BJT, just internally configured with two BJT's for greater current gain from the base signal. MOSFET's are different animals and VERY static sensitive.
Choosing components with no safety factor will severely shorten the service live of a given design. If you mean to drive an DC (direct current) motor of 60V@10A then the transistor will dissipate (10A + Ibase) x (Vce drop typ ~4V for darlingtons) = 10A + 20mA x 4V = 10.020A x 4V = 40.08W
At 40.08W you will need an adequate heatsink for the transistor to survive barely! And that would need to be exotic like water cooling. Better to choose a transistor with at least 20A continuous collector current. Your heatsink choices will also broaden and get cheaper.
Choosing components that can handle 2x the design parameters will ensure ruggedness and reliability over a wide temperature range. |
321,439 | I'm playing Assassin's Creed Origins on PS4 and every time I aim with the bow my character starts moving forward. I don't push the analog forward and to counter act this I need to run backwards against the forward movement. Am I doing something wrong or is it a setting that I'm missing? | 2017/11/14 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/321439",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/49036/"
] | The problem is the controller's left stick is slightly worn, and due to the sensitivity while aiming the slight forward position of the controller's left stick results in you moving forward. I verified this by switching controllers. Try cleaning your controller, or you may need to replace it. | It's on the defaults aim (free aim) so that's why it's not making your Character. It's happend to me it's nothing to to with controllers it's the settings i have 2 of them and both brand new so its not worn out |
27,067 | If Jack was a Lord, or a King, or a Knight, he would be called Lord Jack, King Jack or Sir Jack, respectively.
So let's say Jack is a Warlord, would you call him "Warlord Jack"? or just Lord? or just Jack? | 2014/06/27 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/27067",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/8391/"
] | He's a ***warlord***. That's the kind of person who's used to getting his way. If you know what's good for you, you'll call him whatever he wants!
That said, "[warlord](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Warlord)" is not a standard title of nobility in any system I know of. The word suggests that he's a military commander who has used his military power to take a position of government authority, so he can rule. It kind of has a negative connotation that way: he is someone who has seized power by violence (most societies don't usually consider that a legitimate claim to rule). Usually, someone in that position will probably give himself some other, more socially acceptable, title. | "Warlord" is a position or role, not an honorific. "Warlord Bob" is like calling someone "Bowling Instructor Fred" or "Nail Manicurist Maxine". It's not necessarily *incorrect*, but it isn't how a native speaker would formulate the sentence.
To speak ABOUT Bob the Warlord, one would phrase it thusly: "Bob the Warlord."
To speak TO Bob to Warlord, one would address him however he bloody well likes to be styled. "Lord Bob", or "sir", or "please-don't-kill-me-I-have-a-wife-and-three-kids" would all be syntactically-valid. |
14,636 | Does anyone know if Pacific Southwest Airlines (PSA) ever flew certain routes under VFR?
I've read [this question](https://aviation.stackexchange.com/q/1743/62) and I understand that Part 121 does allow for VFR flight, but my question is specific to PSA. I've heard they routinely flew low altitude VFR flights on shorter routes throughout California. | 2015/05/09 | [
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/14636",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/users/8438/"
] | Well, there is nothing to indicate in 14 CFR 121 or 135 that an aircraft cannot operate under VFR for a revenue flight.
For very short hops at low altitudes in good weather, a VFR flight can make a lot of sense since it is simpler to conduct, adds less congestion to ATC and may allow the flight to reach its destination more quickly.
For most revenue flights for regional, transcontinental or intercontinental destinations, an IFR flight is preferred, or even mandatory, due to uniformity in ATC routing, operations at high altitudes - Class A or equivalent airspace - and greater operational flexibility in marginal weather. | It's important to understand the difference between visual procedures, visual flight rules, and visual meterological conditions.
Airliners always operate under instrument rules because it guarantees them ATC services, and because it's a requirement for proceeding into instrument meterological conditions (IMC). Also, higher airliner flight level altitudes are reserved for planes on instrument flight plans.
In instrument meterological conditions, only instrument procedures are used. But in visual meterological conditions (VMC), airplanes operating under instrument flight rules (i.e., those following instrument flight plans) are often required to perform visual procedures like flying visual approaches, or maintaining visual separation from other airplanes. |
14,636 | Does anyone know if Pacific Southwest Airlines (PSA) ever flew certain routes under VFR?
I've read [this question](https://aviation.stackexchange.com/q/1743/62) and I understand that Part 121 does allow for VFR flight, but my question is specific to PSA. I've heard they routinely flew low altitude VFR flights on shorter routes throughout California. | 2015/05/09 | [
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/14636",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/users/8438/"
] | I was a controller at L.A. Center around that time, and it was extremely common for airlines on the short-haul routes to go VFR-on-top, which is VFR but on an IFR flight plan. There would have been a lot of downsides to flying VFR but every advantage to them to fly VFR on top: with on-top they didn't need clearance into class B (back then the TCA) or get refused or delayed because the controller was "too busy"; didn't have to fly airport patterns (basically guaranteed a straight-in since they would be on an instrument approach); and for flying into the metered airports like LAX or SFO they would have a guaranteed slot, unlike trying to call up as a VFR where they would go to the back of the line and might have to hold for an hour. Plus of course on-top has the benefits of not needing IFR separation, so ATC would almost always give them a direct routing and they could climb all the way up to 16500/17500 instead of being step-climbed under everyone else and capped at maybe 10,000.
So while I don't remember specific routine flights from 25+ years ago, I do remember working a LOT of airlines flying VFR on top on the short routes like LAX to Bakersfield, Burbank to Fresno, etc. | It's important to understand the difference between visual procedures, visual flight rules, and visual meterological conditions.
Airliners always operate under instrument rules because it guarantees them ATC services, and because it's a requirement for proceeding into instrument meterological conditions (IMC). Also, higher airliner flight level altitudes are reserved for planes on instrument flight plans.
In instrument meterological conditions, only instrument procedures are used. But in visual meterological conditions (VMC), airplanes operating under instrument flight rules (i.e., those following instrument flight plans) are often required to perform visual procedures like flying visual approaches, or maintaining visual separation from other airplanes. |
14,636 | Does anyone know if Pacific Southwest Airlines (PSA) ever flew certain routes under VFR?
I've read [this question](https://aviation.stackexchange.com/q/1743/62) and I understand that Part 121 does allow for VFR flight, but my question is specific to PSA. I've heard they routinely flew low altitude VFR flights on shorter routes throughout California. | 2015/05/09 | [
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/14636",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/users/8438/"
] | I was a controller at L.A. Center around that time, and it was extremely common for airlines on the short-haul routes to go VFR-on-top, which is VFR but on an IFR flight plan. There would have been a lot of downsides to flying VFR but every advantage to them to fly VFR on top: with on-top they didn't need clearance into class B (back then the TCA) or get refused or delayed because the controller was "too busy"; didn't have to fly airport patterns (basically guaranteed a straight-in since they would be on an instrument approach); and for flying into the metered airports like LAX or SFO they would have a guaranteed slot, unlike trying to call up as a VFR where they would go to the back of the line and might have to hold for an hour. Plus of course on-top has the benefits of not needing IFR separation, so ATC would almost always give them a direct routing and they could climb all the way up to 16500/17500 instead of being step-climbed under everyone else and capped at maybe 10,000.
So while I don't remember specific routine flights from 25+ years ago, I do remember working a LOT of airlines flying VFR on top on the short routes like LAX to Bakersfield, Burbank to Fresno, etc. | Well, there is nothing to indicate in 14 CFR 121 or 135 that an aircraft cannot operate under VFR for a revenue flight.
For very short hops at low altitudes in good weather, a VFR flight can make a lot of sense since it is simpler to conduct, adds less congestion to ATC and may allow the flight to reach its destination more quickly.
For most revenue flights for regional, transcontinental or intercontinental destinations, an IFR flight is preferred, or even mandatory, due to uniformity in ATC routing, operations at high altitudes - Class A or equivalent airspace - and greater operational flexibility in marginal weather. |
75,538 | I have a step in which 5 actions run in parallel. It's a Collect data from... task. If at any time I need to go into the workflow to make changes to this step (add action somewhere in the middle, move up or down) SPD wont oblige. It adds actions to the bottom. Can't move them at all (up/down).
I tried switching back to run in sequence, but still can't move actions. Tried adding a step and moving it. Nothing. Move existing? Nada.
Anyone else see this before??? Solutions?
SP2007
SPD 2007 | 2013/08/22 | [
"https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com/questions/75538",
"https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com",
"https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com/users/15225/"
] | You cant move action, only delete and recreate it in enother place. | First select Run All actions in parallel,
Add parameter / whatever you want to do..
and then switch back again to Run All actions in SEQUENCE. |
15,498 | Hashirama Senju, the 1st Hokage, married Mito Uzumaki right? So does that make him Naruto's great, great, great grandfather? | 2014/12/05 | [
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/questions/15498",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/users/9380/"
] | Well, both Naruto and Hashirama Senju are reincarnations of Asura. Apart from that, Hashirama could not be Naruto's direct descendant as marrying to Mito Uzumaki does not mean Mito Uzumaki is directly related to Kushina. There might be a slight chance, but the possibilities are endless, assuming the Uzumaki clan is a big clan. | Is Naruto related to Hashirama? Technically everyone is related, how closely related they are depends on how interbred the Uzumaki and Senju Clans were.
Is Hashirama Naruto's grandfather (I think any farther back the timeline goes out of whack)? No, Kushina would have to be his daughter and the flashbacks make this very unlikely. |
15,498 | Hashirama Senju, the 1st Hokage, married Mito Uzumaki right? So does that make him Naruto's great, great, great grandfather? | 2014/12/05 | [
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/questions/15498",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/users/9380/"
] | Well, both Naruto and Hashirama Senju are reincarnations of Asura. Apart from that, Hashirama could not be Naruto's direct descendant as marrying to Mito Uzumaki does not mean Mito Uzumaki is directly related to Kushina. There might be a slight chance, but the possibilities are endless, assuming the Uzumaki clan is a big clan. | Well, the Sage of Six Paths had two sons, one was Uchiha and the other was Senju. However, the Senju son was also an ancestor to the Uzumaki clan, so if you think hard and research deep, you'll find out that the two clans are related. So the Uzumaki and Senju clans are closely related. So, yes, Naruto is related to Hashirama, as well as Tobirama and Tsunade. Naruto is also related to the Hyuuga clan (the Sage's brother was the ancestor) as well as the Uchiha clan. |
15,498 | Hashirama Senju, the 1st Hokage, married Mito Uzumaki right? So does that make him Naruto's great, great, great grandfather? | 2014/12/05 | [
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/questions/15498",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/users/9380/"
] | I don't know anything when it comes to user20385's answer since absolutely nothing is known on Minato ' s ancestry as to where his blonde hair came from, but in relation to the actual question, yes Naruto is technically - if distantly - related to Hashirama.
No, he's not Naruto ' s great great grandfather (Which would be the line up considering Tsunade is his granddaughter and about 50 years old) as Tsunade and Nawaki are the only two grandchildren known, (though we've no idea if they had cousins) of whom only Tsunade survived to an age to bear children which it doesn't look like she did since Dan died early in one of the Ninja wars.
In the episode "The orange spark" and its following episode explaining Kushina ' s past, Kushina notes that the Senju and Uzumaki clans are distant cousins which is heavily implied to be because the Rikudou Sennin is their common ancestor by some colored art of the manga showing Hagoromo with the Uzumaki ' s famous red hair. (Though I've no idea if these are Kishimoto's renditions or fan made) Whether this is true or not is unexplained.They could just as likely be descended from a second child born to Hagoromo's brother whose story is never explained outside their fight on the Juubi . This would still make them distant cousins regardless of if Homura or Asura is the clan's father.
She also explains she was brought from Uzu to be the next vessel since Mito was up in age and weakening, but it seemed still had a few good years left since she's seen helping Kushina adapt to and prepare for life as a jinchuuriki. We do not know as to where in the clan Kushina or Mito fall in with their births. (i.e. people like to speculate in fanfics that they're both directly born from the head family and as such are equivalent to Uzu royalty) If we were to believe that is the case, then at most it means Mito had a sibling whom had children and one of them gave birth to Kushina, making Mito her great Aunt. That would make Naruto the great great grand nephew to Mito but no closer than that in relation.
In conclusion, Naruto is related to 4 out of the 5 Hokage's in the series. At least as distant cousins as the clan's were very distantly related, and possibly through Mito's marriage to Hashirama Senju as well, though maybe still fairly distantly. Though knowing Naruto, if he knew of this relation and met Hashirama or Tobirama he'd probably still call them both jiji | Naruto is the reincarnation of Hashirama, and Hashirama is the reincarnation of Asura Ōtsutsuki, the creator of the Senju and Uzumaki clans. Basically, Naruto is the reincarnation of Asura Ōtsutsuki who created the Uzumaki clan and the Senju clan, making Hashirama and Naruto Uzumaki from the same clan.
Also, its trait between reincarnations to fight the Uchiha, just like Asura Ōtsutsuki fought his brother who created the Uchiha clan Indra Ōtsutsuki the older son of Hagoromo, making Asura Hagoromo's son as well and grandson of Kaguya. Anyway, the two brothers fought because Indra was possessed by Black Zetsu, and when they died, Asura reincarnated into Hashirama and Indra into Madara who was a friend of Hashirama but then was possessed by Black Zetsu too, forcing them to fight, and then they died.
Hashirama reincarnated into Naruto of the Uzumaki clan which was also created by Asura, and Madara reincarnated into Sasuke. That is why Naruto and Sasuke fight even though Sasuke is not possessed by Black Zetsu, the other son of Kaguya. Anyway, guess that makes Naruto Tsunade's grandpa. |
15,498 | Hashirama Senju, the 1st Hokage, married Mito Uzumaki right? So does that make him Naruto's great, great, great grandfather? | 2014/12/05 | [
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/questions/15498",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/users/9380/"
] | I don't know anything when it comes to user20385's answer since absolutely nothing is known on Minato ' s ancestry as to where his blonde hair came from, but in relation to the actual question, yes Naruto is technically - if distantly - related to Hashirama.
No, he's not Naruto ' s great great grandfather (Which would be the line up considering Tsunade is his granddaughter and about 50 years old) as Tsunade and Nawaki are the only two grandchildren known, (though we've no idea if they had cousins) of whom only Tsunade survived to an age to bear children which it doesn't look like she did since Dan died early in one of the Ninja wars.
In the episode "The orange spark" and its following episode explaining Kushina ' s past, Kushina notes that the Senju and Uzumaki clans are distant cousins which is heavily implied to be because the Rikudou Sennin is their common ancestor by some colored art of the manga showing Hagoromo with the Uzumaki ' s famous red hair. (Though I've no idea if these are Kishimoto's renditions or fan made) Whether this is true or not is unexplained.They could just as likely be descended from a second child born to Hagoromo's brother whose story is never explained outside their fight on the Juubi . This would still make them distant cousins regardless of if Homura or Asura is the clan's father.
She also explains she was brought from Uzu to be the next vessel since Mito was up in age and weakening, but it seemed still had a few good years left since she's seen helping Kushina adapt to and prepare for life as a jinchuuriki. We do not know as to where in the clan Kushina or Mito fall in with their births. (i.e. people like to speculate in fanfics that they're both directly born from the head family and as such are equivalent to Uzu royalty) If we were to believe that is the case, then at most it means Mito had a sibling whom had children and one of them gave birth to Kushina, making Mito her great Aunt. That would make Naruto the great great grand nephew to Mito but no closer than that in relation.
In conclusion, Naruto is related to 4 out of the 5 Hokage's in the series. At least as distant cousins as the clan's were very distantly related, and possibly through Mito's marriage to Hashirama Senju as well, though maybe still fairly distantly. Though knowing Naruto, if he knew of this relation and met Hashirama or Tobirama he'd probably still call them both jiji | Perhaps, since they belong to same clan, Naruto could have some resemblance with Mito Uzumaki because of blood line. Considering a scientific fact that DNA structure does contain some memory from its predecessors. You can generally call someone who is old, grand mother or grand father, but it does not mean that they are in relation.
Your assumption to say that Hashirama could be great great grandfather is likely a gesture but less likely to be a true relation. |
15,498 | Hashirama Senju, the 1st Hokage, married Mito Uzumaki right? So does that make him Naruto's great, great, great grandfather? | 2014/12/05 | [
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/questions/15498",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/users/9380/"
] | Perhaps, since they belong to same clan, Naruto could have some resemblance with Mito Uzumaki because of blood line. Considering a scientific fact that DNA structure does contain some memory from its predecessors. You can generally call someone who is old, grand mother or grand father, but it does not mean that they are in relation.
Your assumption to say that Hashirama could be great great grandfather is likely a gesture but less likely to be a true relation. | Naruto is the reincarnation of Hashirama, and Hashirama is the reincarnation of Asura Ōtsutsuki, the creator of the Senju and Uzumaki clans. Basically, Naruto is the reincarnation of Asura Ōtsutsuki who created the Uzumaki clan and the Senju clan, making Hashirama and Naruto Uzumaki from the same clan.
Also, its trait between reincarnations to fight the Uchiha, just like Asura Ōtsutsuki fought his brother who created the Uchiha clan Indra Ōtsutsuki the older son of Hagoromo, making Asura Hagoromo's son as well and grandson of Kaguya. Anyway, the two brothers fought because Indra was possessed by Black Zetsu, and when they died, Asura reincarnated into Hashirama and Indra into Madara who was a friend of Hashirama but then was possessed by Black Zetsu too, forcing them to fight, and then they died.
Hashirama reincarnated into Naruto of the Uzumaki clan which was also created by Asura, and Madara reincarnated into Sasuke. That is why Naruto and Sasuke fight even though Sasuke is not possessed by Black Zetsu, the other son of Kaguya. Anyway, guess that makes Naruto Tsunade's grandpa. |
15,498 | Hashirama Senju, the 1st Hokage, married Mito Uzumaki right? So does that make him Naruto's great, great, great grandfather? | 2014/12/05 | [
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/questions/15498",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/users/9380/"
] | Well, both Naruto and Hashirama Senju are reincarnations of Asura. Apart from that, Hashirama could not be Naruto's direct descendant as marrying to Mito Uzumaki does not mean Mito Uzumaki is directly related to Kushina. There might be a slight chance, but the possibilities are endless, assuming the Uzumaki clan is a big clan. | Perhaps, since they belong to same clan, Naruto could have some resemblance with Mito Uzumaki because of blood line. Considering a scientific fact that DNA structure does contain some memory from its predecessors. You can generally call someone who is old, grand mother or grand father, but it does not mean that they are in relation.
Your assumption to say that Hashirama could be great great grandfather is likely a gesture but less likely to be a true relation. |
15,498 | Hashirama Senju, the 1st Hokage, married Mito Uzumaki right? So does that make him Naruto's great, great, great grandfather? | 2014/12/05 | [
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/questions/15498",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/users/9380/"
] | Perhaps, since they belong to same clan, Naruto could have some resemblance with Mito Uzumaki because of blood line. Considering a scientific fact that DNA structure does contain some memory from its predecessors. You can generally call someone who is old, grand mother or grand father, but it does not mean that they are in relation.
Your assumption to say that Hashirama could be great great grandfather is likely a gesture but less likely to be a true relation. | Is Naruto related to Hashirama? Technically everyone is related, how closely related they are depends on how interbred the Uzumaki and Senju Clans were.
Is Hashirama Naruto's grandfather (I think any farther back the timeline goes out of whack)? No, Kushina would have to be his daughter and the flashbacks make this very unlikely. |
15,498 | Hashirama Senju, the 1st Hokage, married Mito Uzumaki right? So does that make him Naruto's great, great, great grandfather? | 2014/12/05 | [
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/questions/15498",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/users/9380/"
] | Naruto is the reincarnation of Hashirama, and Hashirama is the reincarnation of Asura Ōtsutsuki, the creator of the Senju and Uzumaki clans. Basically, Naruto is the reincarnation of Asura Ōtsutsuki who created the Uzumaki clan and the Senju clan, making Hashirama and Naruto Uzumaki from the same clan.
Also, its trait between reincarnations to fight the Uchiha, just like Asura Ōtsutsuki fought his brother who created the Uchiha clan Indra Ōtsutsuki the older son of Hagoromo, making Asura Hagoromo's son as well and grandson of Kaguya. Anyway, the two brothers fought because Indra was possessed by Black Zetsu, and when they died, Asura reincarnated into Hashirama and Indra into Madara who was a friend of Hashirama but then was possessed by Black Zetsu too, forcing them to fight, and then they died.
Hashirama reincarnated into Naruto of the Uzumaki clan which was also created by Asura, and Madara reincarnated into Sasuke. That is why Naruto and Sasuke fight even though Sasuke is not possessed by Black Zetsu, the other son of Kaguya. Anyway, guess that makes Naruto Tsunade's grandpa. | Well, the Sage of Six Paths had two sons, one was Uchiha and the other was Senju. However, the Senju son was also an ancestor to the Uzumaki clan, so if you think hard and research deep, you'll find out that the two clans are related. So the Uzumaki and Senju clans are closely related. So, yes, Naruto is related to Hashirama, as well as Tobirama and Tsunade. Naruto is also related to the Hyuuga clan (the Sage's brother was the ancestor) as well as the Uchiha clan. |
107,722 | In a similar vein as [this question](https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/87401/is-your-own-soulless-clone-a-valid-target-for-mind-swapping), can an elemental bound item, such as would be created by the **Bind Elemental** Feat or other related concept, such as a **Nimblewright** (a construct possessed by an elemental spirit) be a valid target for the psionic powers [*mind seed*](http://dndsrd.net/psionicPowersGtoP.html#mind-seed), [*mind switch*](http://dndsrd.net/psionicPowersGtoP.html#mind-switch), [*true mind switch*](http://dndsrd.net/psionicPowersGtoP.html#mind-switch-true), or similar effects? | 2017/10/01 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/107722",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/30200/"
] | The *Monster Manual* description of the golem says
>
> The animating force for a golem is a spirit from the Elemental Plane of Earth. The process of creating the golem binds the unwilling spirit to the artificial body and subjects it to the will of the golem’s creator. (134)
>
>
>
Similarly, the *Monster Manual III* description of the nimblewright says
>
> Like a golem, a nimblewright is a powerful creation that combines awesome magic with elemental forces. Its animating force is a spirit from the Elemental Plane of Water. The process of creating a nimblewright binds the unwilling spirit to the artificial body and subjects it to the will of the creator. (163)
>
>
>
Thus, prior to such constructs' creation, there are just parts and a free spirit, and it's the construction process that makes the spirit and artificial body one being, giving the collective entity the type [construct](http://dndsrd.net/monsterTypes.html#construct), and it's that construct type that grants immunity to mind-affecting effects, vastly limiting the ability of most of the powers in question to target the resultant magical robot.
Were a DM to rule that the elemental spirit *could* be affected separately—that the elemental spirit were more than just an intangible, undetectable *battery* that enables the construct to move and follow commands and that the spirit were, instead, its own independent creature yet trapped in the construct shell—there's still a matter of *targeting* the elemental spirit. Even the 9th-level telepath power [*true mind switch*](http://dndsrd.net/psionicPowersGtoP.html#mind-switch-true) [telepathy] (*Expanded Psionics Handbook* 120) requires line of sight and line of effect, and—so far as I'm aware—there's no way to *get* line or sight or line of effect to the creature's animating force. Similar to how a typical creature can't opt to cast the spell [*magic missile*](http://dndsrd.net/spellsMtoO.html#magic-missile) at—or poke a sword at!— his foe's soul, a creature can't opt to target with the power *true mind switch* a golem's animating force—even if the attacker *knows* there's a soul or animating force in there somewhere! (A DM would have to rule that, like, golems and other such creatures literally wear their hearts on their sleeves for this to be a thing.) (Spells that target a golemlike creature's animating force would likely have to be the product of original spell research—see *Dungeon Master's Guide* 198.)
(Also, keep in mind that the game offers no further description of the elemental spirits that are bound to such constructs. Any DM that decides to make this a plot point must homebrew such spirits.)
The feat **Bind Elemental** (*Eberron Campaign Setting* 51) has a description that runs only about 200 words, significant for a feat but not overwhelming. However, *Magic of Eberron* actually describes what it means to employ the feat Bind Elemental… and that takes over *2,700 words* (from pages 11 to 14 including details on elemental vessel binding). In short, what happens when an elemental is bound using the feat Bind Elemental is that the elemental is shrunken and confined within a Khyber dragonshard in which it zips around endlessly, powering the magic item to which its attached. While the shard remains intact, establishing line of sight and line of effect to the elemental within is virtually impossible. (Even for vessels powered by bound elementals, "[t]o establish line of effect with a bound elemental, you must be touching the dragonshard to which the elemental is bound" (*Explorer's Handbook* 26), but the only effects that are listed as being usable due to that line of effect are *charm*, *dominate*, and elemental command *via* rebuking.)
Now, I guess, in theory, using an effect like the 4th-level Sor/Wiz spell [*scrying*](http://dndsrd.net/spellsS.html#scrying) [div] (*PH* 274-5) a caster *could* peek in on the elemental to make sure the elemental's in there then—probably, somehow, likely with the 5th-level Sor/Wiz spell [*magic jar*](http://dndsrd.net/spellsMtoO.html#magic-jar) [necro] (*PH* 250-1) with its substantial differences from the psionic powers the question mentions—swap souls with the elemental, but then the caster would find *himself* trapped in the Khyber dragonshard!
What happens next is GM fiat, but this DM would likely have the caster find himself forced to zip around powering whatever it is the bound elemental was powering. This sounds like the last desperate act of cornered wizard and an excellent plot hook, but—like the 9th-level Pain domain spell *eternity of torture* [necro] (*BV* 93-4)—a really terrible way of living forever. | **Mind Seed, no. Mind Switch, sort of**
Mind Switch targets "a nearby living creature". True Mind Switch inherits that without modification. Mind Seed must target "One touched Medium or smaller humanoid". Elementals qualify as living but not humanoid, and nothing about being bound into an object changes that. Now, as a bound elemental, your ability to act is likely to be limited, and, I believe, you'd be blind. Still, yes, it should be possible.
In particular, it would be entirely possible to mind switch into an elemental, and then, as that elemental, be bound into an object. There's no particular reason to think that you could not do that in the opposite order, and it's certainly possible to get within range close. Certain kinds of elemental bindings might fully surround the elemental within a casing, which might raise line of sight or line of effect issues, but not all of them. Mind Seed's requirement of touch isn't an issue due to having already failed the humanoid requirement.
To address an issue raised in the comments, even elementals bound into items still exist as entities capable of thought and potentially capable of being targeted. A quote from a sidebar in the Eberron Campaign Guide, page 267:
>
> In order to make the elemental obey any of these commands, an
> unmarked character must win an opposed Charisma check against the
> elemental (virtually all elementals have a Charisma modifier of +0).
> If the elemental wins the opposed check, it either continues with the
> current course of movement or brings the vehicle to an immediate stop,
> according to its whim. If the character wins the opposed check, the
> vessel moves as the character intends.
>
>
>
It is noted somewhat later in the sidebar text that a spell of Charm Monster also does the trick of keeping control of the vessel. Thus, the elemental is capable of some degree of agency even without direction (though quite limited) and can be targeted by mind-affecting abilities (cast by people who are touching the control stone). Nothing stops Mind Switch other than a desire to not be a bound elemental.
For the nimblewright, there are a couple of problems. Quote from MM2, page 162-163:
>
> The process of creating a nimblewright binds the unwilling spirit to
> the artificial body and subjects it to the will of the creator
>
>
>
Thus, even if you could get line of effect on the bound elemental, you would be mindswitching into an elemental that is already bound, and the implication is that it is the fact of being bound to the nimblewright that subjects the elemental to the will of the creator. That's supported by the fact that the nimblewright retains the full suite of construct traits, including the immunity to mind-affecting abilities. |
Subsets and Splits
No community queries yet
The top public SQL queries from the community will appear here once available.