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165,978
We're trying to write a custom scripting language. There has been a suggestion to make the language forgiving by providing **case insensitive** keywords. I personally do not like the idea, but there are few people in my team leaning towards it, saying it will make the end user happy! Examples of languages like FORTRAN, BASIC, SQL are given saying that these are case insensitive. Is this a good idea?
2012/09/24
[ "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/165978", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/61418/" ]
Ask yourself who the end user is. If it's meant to be written by someone with programming experience in C or Javscript, or IT experience in Unix, then case sensitivity is probably the right thing to do, because that's what the user expects. But for most end-users, even power-users, this will be confusing. VB/VBA/VBScript are case-insensitive, and this was a decision made to allow non-programmers to easily get the hang of the language. Excel formulas, not exactly scripts but as close as many users get, are not case sensitive. In most writing the choice of case can make the text look more or less professional and polished, but case it self won't change the *semantic* meaning of the words. That's why I believe non-developers will be confused by a case sensitive scripting language. Again, this isn't a technical choice. It's a product-management choice that has to be made by the people who know the target audience well.
I can't believe that someone said "case sensitivity makes reading code easier". It most certainly does not! I've looked over a colleague's shoulder at variables called Company and company (public variable Company, matched private variable company) and his choice of font and colour makes it incredibly difficult to tell the difference between the two - even when next to each other. The correct statement should be "mixed case makes reading code easier". That's a much more obvious truth - e.g. variables called CompanyName and CompanyAddress rather than companyname. But no language I know of makes you only use lower case variable names. The most insane convention I know of is the "uppercase public, lowercase private" one. It is just asking for trouble! My take on errors is "better that something fail noisily and as soon as possible rather than quietly fail but appear to succeed". And there's no sooner than compile time. If you mistakenly use a lower case variable when you meant to use the uppercase, it will often compile **if you are referencing it within the same class**. Thus, you can appear to succeed in both compile and run time but be subtly doing the wrong thing, and perhaps not detect it for a long time. When you do detect that there's something wrong Far better to use a convention where the private variable hass a suffix - e.g. Company public variable, CompanyP private variable. **Nobody** is going to accidentally mix up the two, and they appear together in the intellisense. This contrasts with an objection people have to Hungarian notation, where a prefixed private variable pCompany would not appear in a good place in the intellisesne. This convention has all of the advantages of the dreadful upper/lower case convention and none of its drawbacks. The fact that people feel the need to appeal to case sensitivity to distinguish between variables shows both a lack of imagination and a lack of common sense, in my opinion. Or, sadly, the human sheep like habit of following a convention because "that's the way it's always been done" Make the things you work with clearly and obviously different to each other, even if they're related!!
165,978
We're trying to write a custom scripting language. There has been a suggestion to make the language forgiving by providing **case insensitive** keywords. I personally do not like the idea, but there are few people in my team leaning towards it, saying it will make the end user happy! Examples of languages like FORTRAN, BASIC, SQL are given saying that these are case insensitive. Is this a good idea?
2012/09/24
[ "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/165978", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com", "https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/61418/" ]
From my personal experience I don't see a big difference between case sensitive and insensitive languages. More important thing is naming and structural conventions that a programmer should keep in his code and no compiler or parser checks it for him. If you stick to some kind of rules you will easily know a proper name (you won't think if you named a variable checkOut or CheckOut) and your code probably will be case sensitive and easier to read. One shouldn't use CheckOut and checkOut and checkout and cHeCkOuT and CHECKOUT in the same meaning. It will hurt readibility and make understanding that kind of code more painfull (but there are worse thing that one can do to destroy readibility of code). If you use some kind of rules you will see at glance for example: CheckOut.getInstance() - it's static method of a class called checkOut.calculate() - it's a method of an object kept in variable or public field called \_checkOut.calculate() - it's a method of an object kept in private field called CHECKOUT - it's a final static or constant field / variable without checking out some other files or parts of a file. It makes reading code faster. I see pretty many developers using similar rules - in languages which I often use: Java, PHP, Action Script, JavaScript, C++. In a rare case one might be angry on case insensitiveness - for example when wanted to use CheckOut for a class name and checkOut for a variable and cannot because it collides with each other. But it's a problem of a programmer that is used to case sensitivity and to using it in his naming conventions. One can have rules with standard prefixes or postfixes in a case insensitive language (I don't program in VB but I know that many VB programmers have this kind of naming conventions). In few words: I see case sensitiveness better (only for object oriented languages) because most of developers use case sensitive languages and most of them use naming conventions based on case sensitivity so they would like better a language to be case sensitive so they would be able to stick to their rules without some sort of modifications. But it's rather religious argument - not an objective one (not based on real drawbacks or good sides of case sensitiveness - because I don't see any when it comes to a good developer, when it comes to a bAd DeVeLoPeR one could produce nightmare code even when there is case sensitiveness so it's not a big difference).
You shouldn't introduce case insensitivity without a very good reason to do so. For example, dealing with case comparisons with Unicode can be a bitch. The case sensitivity (or lack thereof) of older languages is immaterial, as their needs were *very* different. Programmers in this era expect case sensitivity.
1,509,564
I have a list of objects, where each object has a boolean property named "enabled". I want to remember the state of these objects accross application sessions. To do this I have at least 2 options, using the registry or using, the more .net approach, app.config file. I would prefer to do the latter. However, while static/compiletime key/value assignment is trivial, assigning new keys dynamically to the app.config file seems nontrivial. Do you have an example of how to do this? My question is, what is the best approach to store properties of a list of objects in .net if you want to avoid the registry?
2009/10/02
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1509564", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/183103/" ]
You can also use the [IsolatedStorage](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/3ak841sy(VS.80).aspx)
I would serialize the objects to an xml file on exit, and deserialize on startup. This way as your objects change, all properties are maintained.
1,509,564
I have a list of objects, where each object has a boolean property named "enabled". I want to remember the state of these objects accross application sessions. To do this I have at least 2 options, using the registry or using, the more .net approach, app.config file. I would prefer to do the latter. However, while static/compiletime key/value assignment is trivial, assigning new keys dynamically to the app.config file seems nontrivial. Do you have an example of how to do this? My question is, what is the best approach to store properties of a list of objects in .net if you want to avoid the registry?
2009/10/02
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1509564", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/183103/" ]
You could use application settings (.settings file) and store your state information there as a key-value structure (dictionary, list of custom objects or whatever). Here you can find more details about using app settings and user settings in C#: <http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa730869%28VS.80%29.aspx> The app settings will be stored in app.config and the user settings in the user's isolated storage.
I would serialize the objects to an xml file on exit, and deserialize on startup. This way as your objects change, all properties are maintained.
1,183,715
I am a heavy Linux user, both professional and private. Since I almost never use Microsoft Windows I don't know very much about it so apologies if this is a really stupid question. There is one particular piece of software that I use on a regular basis (it's for tax calculation) for which there is only a Windows version available, no Linux version and no alternative software product whatsoever. In the past 15 years I used to use VirtualBox on Linux with a really old Windows XP image (from 2002, I believe) for running just this tax software. Now the latest update of the software doesn't support Windows XP anymore and refuses to install. So apparently I need an image of a newer version of Microsoft Windows for my VirtualBox now. My questions: * Am I right about that I need a new image? Or is there a better solution for my problem? * Which Windows version should I pick? It needs to be younger than Windows XP and reasonably stable. It does not need any fancy stuff or support the latest hardware etc. * Where can I get an installation image of it? Do I really need to buy (or at least pick up) a CD somewhere or is it possible to download the image? * Are there any free (or "used") images of outdated Windows versions (newer than XP) available somewhere? * How about licenses in this case? Do I have to "activate" Windows somehow? Thank you very much for any hint!
2017/02/28
[ "https://superuser.com/questions/1183715", "https://superuser.com", "https://superuser.com/users/702474/" ]
I had to just do this recently, there are many option here: [<https://developer.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-edge/tools/vms/>](https://developer.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-edge/tools/vms/) Microsoft Provides them for free to Web Developers but it is a fully functional Windows OS, just choose which version of windows with which IE you want, select Virtual Box, and download. In your case, feel free to use the IE11 on Windows81 (This is Windows 8.1), that way you can be using this for many years to come as long as you keep it. You can install applications. The only down side is there is a expiration of 90 days, so you would need to make sure you save all your App Settings / Backup and Documents off the Virtual Machine before then, I would suggest before you even boot the VM the first time to make a snapshot, that way you can just roll back to this moment, and get going again installing your apps and transfer over your files, so you don't have to re-download or create a new VM. The UP side is that you don't have to do any windows install or setup a virtual machine or have to create any boot disks, nothing, download, import and go! Since you say your using Tax Software, I would imagine you could create a save location somewhere in your home directory using an auto mounted folder. Save you a lot of time when you have to re-install.
You can use the [Windows USB/DVD Download Tool](https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/download/windows-usb-dvd-download-tool) provided by Microsoft to download and create a bootable copy of Windows. You don't need a license to install, but Windows will start nagging after a while if you don't provide it with one after installation (I want to say 30 days, but it might have changed.)
1,183,715
I am a heavy Linux user, both professional and private. Since I almost never use Microsoft Windows I don't know very much about it so apologies if this is a really stupid question. There is one particular piece of software that I use on a regular basis (it's for tax calculation) for which there is only a Windows version available, no Linux version and no alternative software product whatsoever. In the past 15 years I used to use VirtualBox on Linux with a really old Windows XP image (from 2002, I believe) for running just this tax software. Now the latest update of the software doesn't support Windows XP anymore and refuses to install. So apparently I need an image of a newer version of Microsoft Windows for my VirtualBox now. My questions: * Am I right about that I need a new image? Or is there a better solution for my problem? * Which Windows version should I pick? It needs to be younger than Windows XP and reasonably stable. It does not need any fancy stuff or support the latest hardware etc. * Where can I get an installation image of it? Do I really need to buy (or at least pick up) a CD somewhere or is it possible to download the image? * Are there any free (or "used") images of outdated Windows versions (newer than XP) available somewhere? * How about licenses in this case? Do I have to "activate" Windows somehow? Thank you very much for any hint!
2017/02/28
[ "https://superuser.com/questions/1183715", "https://superuser.com", "https://superuser.com/users/702474/" ]
You can use the [Windows USB/DVD Download Tool](https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/download/windows-usb-dvd-download-tool) provided by Microsoft to download and create a bootable copy of Windows. You don't need a license to install, but Windows will start nagging after a while if you don't provide it with one after installation (I want to say 30 days, but it might have changed.)
Download the [Windows 10 Media Creation Tool](https://www.microsoft.com/en-ca/software-download/windows10) It does require that you run it on a valid windows machine but allows you to create bootable media (iso/usb) for different versions of Windows 10 home etc. and 32 or 64bit
1,183,715
I am a heavy Linux user, both professional and private. Since I almost never use Microsoft Windows I don't know very much about it so apologies if this is a really stupid question. There is one particular piece of software that I use on a regular basis (it's for tax calculation) for which there is only a Windows version available, no Linux version and no alternative software product whatsoever. In the past 15 years I used to use VirtualBox on Linux with a really old Windows XP image (from 2002, I believe) for running just this tax software. Now the latest update of the software doesn't support Windows XP anymore and refuses to install. So apparently I need an image of a newer version of Microsoft Windows for my VirtualBox now. My questions: * Am I right about that I need a new image? Or is there a better solution for my problem? * Which Windows version should I pick? It needs to be younger than Windows XP and reasonably stable. It does not need any fancy stuff or support the latest hardware etc. * Where can I get an installation image of it? Do I really need to buy (or at least pick up) a CD somewhere or is it possible to download the image? * Are there any free (or "used") images of outdated Windows versions (newer than XP) available somewhere? * How about licenses in this case? Do I have to "activate" Windows somehow? Thank you very much for any hint!
2017/02/28
[ "https://superuser.com/questions/1183715", "https://superuser.com", "https://superuser.com/users/702474/" ]
You can use the [Windows USB/DVD Download Tool](https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/download/windows-usb-dvd-download-tool) provided by Microsoft to download and create a bootable copy of Windows. You don't need a license to install, but Windows will start nagging after a while if you don't provide it with one after installation (I want to say 30 days, but it might have changed.)
Download the latest Windows 10 ISO image, mount it a new VM and install like normal. <http://www.thewindowsclub.com/download-windows-10-iso-disc-image> Windows 10 will function indefinitely in a limited manner, but for most things it will work fine, I have been running the same VM install for almost a year with no issues, I just can't change the background.
1,183,715
I am a heavy Linux user, both professional and private. Since I almost never use Microsoft Windows I don't know very much about it so apologies if this is a really stupid question. There is one particular piece of software that I use on a regular basis (it's for tax calculation) for which there is only a Windows version available, no Linux version and no alternative software product whatsoever. In the past 15 years I used to use VirtualBox on Linux with a really old Windows XP image (from 2002, I believe) for running just this tax software. Now the latest update of the software doesn't support Windows XP anymore and refuses to install. So apparently I need an image of a newer version of Microsoft Windows for my VirtualBox now. My questions: * Am I right about that I need a new image? Or is there a better solution for my problem? * Which Windows version should I pick? It needs to be younger than Windows XP and reasonably stable. It does not need any fancy stuff or support the latest hardware etc. * Where can I get an installation image of it? Do I really need to buy (or at least pick up) a CD somewhere or is it possible to download the image? * Are there any free (or "used") images of outdated Windows versions (newer than XP) available somewhere? * How about licenses in this case? Do I have to "activate" Windows somehow? Thank you very much for any hint!
2017/02/28
[ "https://superuser.com/questions/1183715", "https://superuser.com", "https://superuser.com/users/702474/" ]
I had to just do this recently, there are many option here: [<https://developer.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-edge/tools/vms/>](https://developer.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-edge/tools/vms/) Microsoft Provides them for free to Web Developers but it is a fully functional Windows OS, just choose which version of windows with which IE you want, select Virtual Box, and download. In your case, feel free to use the IE11 on Windows81 (This is Windows 8.1), that way you can be using this for many years to come as long as you keep it. You can install applications. The only down side is there is a expiration of 90 days, so you would need to make sure you save all your App Settings / Backup and Documents off the Virtual Machine before then, I would suggest before you even boot the VM the first time to make a snapshot, that way you can just roll back to this moment, and get going again installing your apps and transfer over your files, so you don't have to re-download or create a new VM. The UP side is that you don't have to do any windows install or setup a virtual machine or have to create any boot disks, nothing, download, import and go! Since you say your using Tax Software, I would imagine you could create a save location somewhere in your home directory using an auto mounted folder. Save you a lot of time when you have to re-install.
Download the [Windows 10 Media Creation Tool](https://www.microsoft.com/en-ca/software-download/windows10) It does require that you run it on a valid windows machine but allows you to create bootable media (iso/usb) for different versions of Windows 10 home etc. and 32 or 64bit
1,183,715
I am a heavy Linux user, both professional and private. Since I almost never use Microsoft Windows I don't know very much about it so apologies if this is a really stupid question. There is one particular piece of software that I use on a regular basis (it's for tax calculation) for which there is only a Windows version available, no Linux version and no alternative software product whatsoever. In the past 15 years I used to use VirtualBox on Linux with a really old Windows XP image (from 2002, I believe) for running just this tax software. Now the latest update of the software doesn't support Windows XP anymore and refuses to install. So apparently I need an image of a newer version of Microsoft Windows for my VirtualBox now. My questions: * Am I right about that I need a new image? Or is there a better solution for my problem? * Which Windows version should I pick? It needs to be younger than Windows XP and reasonably stable. It does not need any fancy stuff or support the latest hardware etc. * Where can I get an installation image of it? Do I really need to buy (or at least pick up) a CD somewhere or is it possible to download the image? * Are there any free (or "used") images of outdated Windows versions (newer than XP) available somewhere? * How about licenses in this case? Do I have to "activate" Windows somehow? Thank you very much for any hint!
2017/02/28
[ "https://superuser.com/questions/1183715", "https://superuser.com", "https://superuser.com/users/702474/" ]
I had to just do this recently, there are many option here: [<https://developer.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-edge/tools/vms/>](https://developer.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-edge/tools/vms/) Microsoft Provides them for free to Web Developers but it is a fully functional Windows OS, just choose which version of windows with which IE you want, select Virtual Box, and download. In your case, feel free to use the IE11 on Windows81 (This is Windows 8.1), that way you can be using this for many years to come as long as you keep it. You can install applications. The only down side is there is a expiration of 90 days, so you would need to make sure you save all your App Settings / Backup and Documents off the Virtual Machine before then, I would suggest before you even boot the VM the first time to make a snapshot, that way you can just roll back to this moment, and get going again installing your apps and transfer over your files, so you don't have to re-download or create a new VM. The UP side is that you don't have to do any windows install or setup a virtual machine or have to create any boot disks, nothing, download, import and go! Since you say your using Tax Software, I would imagine you could create a save location somewhere in your home directory using an auto mounted folder. Save you a lot of time when you have to re-install.
Download the latest Windows 10 ISO image, mount it a new VM and install like normal. <http://www.thewindowsclub.com/download-windows-10-iso-disc-image> Windows 10 will function indefinitely in a limited manner, but for most things it will work fine, I have been running the same VM install for almost a year with no issues, I just can't change the background.
1,521,880
How to connect to different WI-FI with static and dynamic IP addresses? I have any user with loptop that connect to Wi-Fi inside Co and I set static IP for them But when users go to their home and connect to home Wi-Fi, they can't connect to internet, until they change IP to dynamic (DHCP) What is the solution for this problem ?
2020/02/01
[ "https://superuser.com/questions/1521880", "https://superuser.com", "https://superuser.com/users/1135446/" ]
If you want a user to always have the same IP Address within the company, but also have the freedom to use dynamic addressing at other locations, then the best way to do that is leave the computer at default settings - DHCP automatic - & instead reserve the address on your router\* using the computer's MAC address. That way, the computer 'thinks' it's dynamic, but the router always hands it the same reserved address. \*You'll have to check the manual for exactly how to do this, but it's a fairly common feature.
In Windows you can set static or dynamic IP based on Wi-Fi SSID. Go to *Settings > Network and Internet > Wi-Fi* and select *"Manage known networks"* Select the SSID of your network, then *Properties* and click "Edit" under IP Settings and set it to *"Manual"* You can then set a static IP for just your work Wi-Fi SSID and leave the others automatic. [![Settings](https://i.stack.imgur.com/8P8Ub.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/8P8Ub.png)
1,521,880
How to connect to different WI-FI with static and dynamic IP addresses? I have any user with loptop that connect to Wi-Fi inside Co and I set static IP for them But when users go to their home and connect to home Wi-Fi, they can't connect to internet, until they change IP to dynamic (DHCP) What is the solution for this problem ?
2020/02/01
[ "https://superuser.com/questions/1521880", "https://superuser.com", "https://superuser.com/users/1135446/" ]
If you want a user to always have the same IP Address within the company, but also have the freedom to use dynamic addressing at other locations, then the best way to do that is leave the computer at default settings - DHCP automatic - & instead reserve the address on your router\* using the computer's MAC address. That way, the computer 'thinks' it's dynamic, but the router always hands it the same reserved address. \*You'll have to check the manual for exactly how to do this, but it's a fairly common feature.
If you're the administrator of that first network, I would argue that the solution is to stop forcing your users to use static IP configuration in the first place. Instead, set up DHCP and assign *static leases* (aka DHCP reservations) based on each user's MAC address or DHCP Client ID. That way you will still have static addresses for everyone, but your users won't need to change their configuration at all.
1,521,880
How to connect to different WI-FI with static and dynamic IP addresses? I have any user with loptop that connect to Wi-Fi inside Co and I set static IP for them But when users go to their home and connect to home Wi-Fi, they can't connect to internet, until they change IP to dynamic (DHCP) What is the solution for this problem ?
2020/02/01
[ "https://superuser.com/questions/1521880", "https://superuser.com", "https://superuser.com/users/1135446/" ]
If you're the administrator of that first network, I would argue that the solution is to stop forcing your users to use static IP configuration in the first place. Instead, set up DHCP and assign *static leases* (aka DHCP reservations) based on each user's MAC address or DHCP Client ID. That way you will still have static addresses for everyone, but your users won't need to change their configuration at all.
In Windows you can set static or dynamic IP based on Wi-Fi SSID. Go to *Settings > Network and Internet > Wi-Fi* and select *"Manage known networks"* Select the SSID of your network, then *Properties* and click "Edit" under IP Settings and set it to *"Manual"* You can then set a static IP for just your work Wi-Fi SSID and leave the others automatic. [![Settings](https://i.stack.imgur.com/8P8Ub.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/8P8Ub.png)
20,856,091
[THIS](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/14350484/android-eclipse-import-existing-code) is a duplicate name for the question but unfortunately doesn't serve. I'm trying to import a [project](http://wissamfawaz.com/COALectures/16thSet.zip) called *MakeToastApp*. When importing, three different types of files are imported. Sometimes, only one, but it misses the *src* folder and the R.java files which carries the resource variables. ![output](https://i.stack.imgur.com/ks8pi.png) **NOTE** that not checking or checking is just for testing. I have tried all kind of imports but the project won't run without the src and resources. I'm new to this, read all of similar posts and need to get this running..Thanks.
2013/12/31
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/20856091", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/2898754/" ]
Before you import do following thing. Delete everything except src, res folders, Manifest.xml file. try this..
Not sure whether you are facing this problem. But you can try another thing instead. Create an emptry project then copy the contents to your project manually
20,856,091
[THIS](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/14350484/android-eclipse-import-existing-code) is a duplicate name for the question but unfortunately doesn't serve. I'm trying to import a [project](http://wissamfawaz.com/COALectures/16thSet.zip) called *MakeToastApp*. When importing, three different types of files are imported. Sometimes, only one, but it misses the *src* folder and the R.java files which carries the resource variables. ![output](https://i.stack.imgur.com/ks8pi.png) **NOTE** that not checking or checking is just for testing. I have tried all kind of imports but the project won't run without the src and resources. I'm new to this, read all of similar posts and need to get this running..Thanks.
2013/12/31
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/20856091", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/2898754/" ]
Before you import do following thing. Delete everything except src, res folders, Manifest.xml file. try this..
Follow these steps: * File->Import->General->Existing Projects into Workspace, * Then Select root directory: /path/to/project Projects->Select All * UNCHECK both "Copy projects into workspace" and "Add project to working sets" * Finish If the problem is still exist then sure you have problem with your project. Means it is not a complete project or runnable project.
77,143
I recently canceled my AdSense account and I want to re-apply for a new one, with a different email. My payee name and other informations will be exactly the same as my canceled account. Can I open a new AdSense account using the same information? My previous account no longer exists. If I can, how long I have to wait after canceling it?
2015/02/12
[ "https://webmasters.stackexchange.com/questions/77143", "https://webmasters.stackexchange.com", "https://webmasters.stackexchange.com/users/49733/" ]
Gracey addresses this question in the [Google Product Forums](https://productforums.google.com/d/msg/adsense/Y1XBQsDo1vE/zRpjuce7g40J) > > If your Adsense account was cancelled, then you can only reapply for a new AdSense account using a completely NEW Google account and NEW gmail account. > > > You can't sign up again with any account you previously used. > > > So you cannot use the same Google account or email address. I have not seen anything that says that there would be a waiting period.
I guess, if you have already cancelled your account, you can reapply - even with the same (or different) email id and same bank account details. Adsense policy just require you to have atmost one account and it seems, you now have none and so can surely apply.
77,143
I recently canceled my AdSense account and I want to re-apply for a new one, with a different email. My payee name and other informations will be exactly the same as my canceled account. Can I open a new AdSense account using the same information? My previous account no longer exists. If I can, how long I have to wait after canceling it?
2015/02/12
[ "https://webmasters.stackexchange.com/questions/77143", "https://webmasters.stackexchange.com", "https://webmasters.stackexchange.com/users/49733/" ]
Yes, you can apply for a new account, so that you have a new mail ID and a new bank account. Google Adsense blocks our account only when we do not work according to its guidelines.
I guess, if you have already cancelled your account, you can reapply - even with the same (or different) email id and same bank account details. Adsense policy just require you to have atmost one account and it seems, you now have none and so can surely apply.
77,143
I recently canceled my AdSense account and I want to re-apply for a new one, with a different email. My payee name and other informations will be exactly the same as my canceled account. Can I open a new AdSense account using the same information? My previous account no longer exists. If I can, how long I have to wait after canceling it?
2015/02/12
[ "https://webmasters.stackexchange.com/questions/77143", "https://webmasters.stackexchange.com", "https://webmasters.stackexchange.com/users/49733/" ]
Gracey addresses this question in the [Google Product Forums](https://productforums.google.com/d/msg/adsense/Y1XBQsDo1vE/zRpjuce7g40J) > > If your Adsense account was cancelled, then you can only reapply for a new AdSense account using a completely NEW Google account and NEW gmail account. > > > You can't sign up again with any account you previously used. > > > So you cannot use the same Google account or email address. I have not seen anything that says that there would be a waiting period.
Yes, you can apply for a new account, so that you have a new mail ID and a new bank account. Google Adsense blocks our account only when we do not work according to its guidelines.
806,515
...what's next? After you defined what actors do what actions, which way do you go? Do you model the database or do you prefer to start with the classes? I thought the better approach was to start with a class-like modelling diagram, to focus on relationships between objects. This has proven to be wrong because I went too deep in detailing classes and, even if the system "seemed to work", when I went to the database modelling, everything just would not fit naturally in the positions I chose in the previous phase. I read about people saying that one should put application logic into a database and leverage its speed in retrieving data, opposed to building large objects in memory that are queried and provide abstraction of the underlying database. I always thought that the db is there to store my data and provide a fast way to access it. But maybe I'm wrong, I mean, do I really have to build a database which has inside the same logic I would put on a group of classes? Isn't the database lacking the tools to achieve this? I think I'm failing in identifying the right point where to start, if I choose to start with the database I find it hard to not just think of it as a "place to store my data, let's do app logic on a higher level" thing, if I start with classes the database ends up looking like an unnatural representation of classes, i feel the sensation of missing something important, something like not assigning the right purpose to the right tool. How do you deal with this? When it comes to decide whether to start with modelling the db or the classes, in your experience, what kind of approach has proven to lead to a natural and clean implementation ? Thanks in advance
2009/04/30
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/806515", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/57095/" ]
I've had success using [Robustness Analysis](http://www.ddj.com/architect/184414712). > > This article focuses on robustness > analysis, which involves analyzing the > narrative text of use cases and > identifying a first-guess set of > objects that will participate in each > use case, then classifying these > objects into three types: > > > 1. Boundary objects, which actors use in communicating with the system. > 2. Entity objects, which are usually objects from the domain model > (the subject of "Driving Design: The > Problem Domain," Jan. 2001). > 3. Control objects (which we usually call controllers because they > often aren't real objects), which > serve as the "glue" between boundary > objects and entity objects.Figure 1 > shows the visual icons for these three > types of objects. > > > The entity objects are the ones that (usuallly) end up in the database/ On mapping between classes and the database, I would recommend [S.Lott's article on "The ORM Problem"](http://homepage.mac.com/s_lott/iblog/architecture/C20070522153704/E20090325060144/index.html) (he's also a participant on StackOverflow
If using Test Driven Development, write your unit tests first. Your classes will be outlined as you go. You can choose to develop your business logic without a database (mock or stub objects) or develop your database as you go on with your tests. Remember your database and domain model shouldn't map one on one with each other.
5,393
You see these tag views on quite a few blogs and I'm curious what SO used in their recent tags implementation... I'm thinking more along the lines of the jQuery tool used or however else it was presented...
2009/07/14
[ "https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/5393", "https://meta.stackexchange.com", "https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/55747/" ]
Opera mini [doesn't support AJAX](http://dev.opera.com/articles/view/javascript-support-in-opera-mini-4/), the key to the entire voting process, as well as commenting etc. I personally do not feel they should go through the effort of making these features degrade nicely, since it is a lot of extra work for a very limited audience. Stack Overflow was and always will be best suited for a modern day browser. That isn't to say it doesn't work on mobile browsers, but you shouldn't expect to have the same user experience.
I feel that Opera/WinCE/iPhone/what-have-you-platform tweaks don't really belong in *the* StackOverflow codebase. Instead, this need should be served by third-party apps built using the (hopefully) forthcoming API. For one, the experience would be a lot nicer. There's also not much point in the developers working to support such a niche case, when I'm sure plenty of people will be willing to gin up clients for their favorite platforms.
5,393
You see these tag views on quite a few blogs and I'm curious what SO used in their recent tags implementation... I'm thinking more along the lines of the jQuery tool used or however else it was presented...
2009/07/14
[ "https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/5393", "https://meta.stackexchange.com", "https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/55747/" ]
Opera mini [doesn't support AJAX](http://dev.opera.com/articles/view/javascript-support-in-opera-mini-4/), the key to the entire voting process, as well as commenting etc. I personally do not feel they should go through the effort of making these features degrade nicely, since it is a lot of extra work for a very limited audience. Stack Overflow was and always will be best suited for a modern day browser. That isn't to say it doesn't work on mobile browsers, but you shouldn't expect to have the same user experience.
Opera Mini supports some Ajax, and works fine on the Stack sites. I've been commenting, answering, voting, tagging, etc, quite happily with it for over a week :)
5,393
You see these tag views on quite a few blogs and I'm curious what SO used in their recent tags implementation... I'm thinking more along the lines of the jQuery tool used or however else it was presented...
2009/07/14
[ "https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/5393", "https://meta.stackexchange.com", "https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/55747/" ]
Opera mini [doesn't support AJAX](http://dev.opera.com/articles/view/javascript-support-in-opera-mini-4/), the key to the entire voting process, as well as commenting etc. I personally do not feel they should go through the effort of making these features degrade nicely, since it is a lot of extra work for a very limited audience. Stack Overflow was and always will be best suited for a modern day browser. That isn't to say it doesn't work on mobile browsers, but you shouldn't expect to have the same user experience.
I can vote on questions and answers (but not on comments), view vote splits, and vote to close questions with Opera mini on my BlackBerry, but I cannot post answers or comments. Ian's [point](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/5390/support-for-opera-mini-pocket-pc/9432#9432) is valid, but it'd be nice to have at least mid-90s "submit, next page" functionality on mobile browsers.
38,825
I'm just getting started looking at bitcoin and it's protocol, so this might be an incredibly stupid question. Why does bitcoin have a separate concept of transactions? Wouldn't it be better for each block to have a bunch of inputs and a bunch of outputs without separating them as individual transactions? This way it's more anonymous and private, since anyone trying to track an public key is stopped since their transactions are mixed with hundreds of others? I guess technically, you could do that right now, by making one transaction with hundreds of inputs and outputs and mining that. I'm not asking why transactions are propagated by the nodes, I'm asking why are they stored separately in the final blocks?
2015/07/27
[ "https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/questions/38825", "https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com", "https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/users/27653/" ]
An interesting idea, but I don't think it technically works out. 1. Transactions include a digital signature of the set of inputs and outputs in a transaction. This signature could not be validated if the inputs and outputs where not linked. 2. Since signatures wouldn't be tied to specific outputs/inputs, what would stop a greedy miner from including your inputs but not your outputs? 3. Outputs can be created and spent in the same block. So you can't list all inputs, and then list all outputs, because some of those inputs depends on those outputs being known first. (There may be a work around for this, but it complicates things)
Because when someone creates a transaction, they don't know what other transactions will be included in the same block... and it is the transactions that are signed by the sender, not the whole block. There is a mechanism in between, namely CoinJoin, where multiple transaction creators/senders collaborate to create a joint transaction with multiple inputs and outouts from each of the participants, to increase privacy.
90,196
This situation happened in the last session I ran: Evil wizard casts a Wall of Fire across the middle of a room. She's on one side, and the PCs are on the other. The party wizard decides he's going to cast a Cone of Cold through the Wall of Fire. My gut tells me this shouldn't work, but there's nothing in the rules that says it doesn't. People/objects can pass through the Wall of Fire (and take a bunch of damage doing so), so I guess a spell could also pass through? Can a Cone of Cold pass through a Wall of Fire?
2016/11/09
[ "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/90196", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/26796/" ]
Yes. ---- There is no written rule that says that area of effect magical effects block other area of effect magics. However, the two spells, by the rules, also don't interact in any way. The best your party wizard could hope for is to hit the evil wizard with the *Cone of Cold* and end his concentration on *Wall of Fire*.
RAW I think the Cone passes through just like any other effect would, but... In cases like this with *clearly* opposing spell effects I treat them as opposing Dispel Magics (As it is unclear if the Wall of Fire should block the Cone of Cold or if the Cone of Cold would blast a breach in the Wall of Fire or even put it out completely.) On Dispel Magic it says that for spells above 3rd level you should do an ability check with the casters spellcasting ability versus the target spells level + 10. If you invert this check and make it opposing it becomes: > > A casters spellcasting ability check + spell level versus the same for > the other casters ability and the opposing spells level. > > > The spell that wins cancels the effects of the other, at least for that round. I would judge that if the Wall wins, the Cone is blocked. If the Cone wins it passes through and nullifies the wall at that point for a round. If the Cone wins with a lot (like 10) the Wall is actually dispelled.
90,196
This situation happened in the last session I ran: Evil wizard casts a Wall of Fire across the middle of a room. She's on one side, and the PCs are on the other. The party wizard decides he's going to cast a Cone of Cold through the Wall of Fire. My gut tells me this shouldn't work, but there's nothing in the rules that says it doesn't. People/objects can pass through the Wall of Fire (and take a bunch of damage doing so), so I guess a spell could also pass through? Can a Cone of Cold pass through a Wall of Fire?
2016/11/09
[ "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/90196", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com", "https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/26796/" ]
Yes. ---- There is no written rule that says that area of effect magical effects block other area of effect magics. However, the two spells, by the rules, also don't interact in any way. The best your party wizard could hope for is to hit the evil wizard with the *Cone of Cold* and end his concentration on *Wall of Fire*.
Nothing stops the cone ====================== There is nothing in the rules that would disallow this. However, it does sound like a great opportunity to grant advantage on the save to resist the *cone of cold*. DMG 239: > > Consider granting advantage when: > > > * … > * Some aspect of the environment contributes to the character's chance of success. > * … > > > Fire in the way of cold sounds like an environmental factor to me!
27,582
Is *peculiar* completely interchangeable with *strange*? can both be used in exactly the same contexts?
2011/05/28
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/27582", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/7210/" ]
*Peculiar* can be used as a synonym for *strange*. However, *peculiar* originally has the meaning "particular to a given place or time; unique", and it is sometimes used that way today. And the connotations of the words still differ: *strange* carries a slight hint of disapproval, while *peculiar* suggests curiosity and uniqueness more than abnormality.
Let's see what Oxford has to say on this one. Here are the links: [Strange](http://oxforddictionaries.com/definition/strange), and [Peculiar](http://oxforddictionaries.com/definition/peculiar). Strange conveys the notion of *unfamiliarity* or *oddity*. Peculiar on the other hand signifies *particular*, *special*, or *abnormal* (anything that deviates from the normal or the expected). The etymology of this word is noteworthy. Its meaning as `strange` is dated later (17th cent.) by the dictionary.
27,582
Is *peculiar* completely interchangeable with *strange*? can both be used in exactly the same contexts?
2011/05/28
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/27582", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/7210/" ]
*Peculiar* can be used as a synonym for *strange*. However, *peculiar* originally has the meaning "particular to a given place or time; unique", and it is sometimes used that way today. And the connotations of the words still differ: *strange* carries a slight hint of disapproval, while *peculiar* suggests curiosity and uniqueness more than abnormality.
In my experience there is a slight connotational difference. Both words refer to something that is unfamiliar to the observer. However, each word implies a slightly different reaction to the unfamiliar object or person. *Peculiar* tends to imply that the unfamiliar object draws interest and further scrutiny. Conversely a *strange* object inspires unease or possibly repulsion. In essence, *peculiar* means unfamiliar in a good way, and *strange* means unfamiliar in a bad way.
27,582
Is *peculiar* completely interchangeable with *strange*? can both be used in exactly the same contexts?
2011/05/28
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/27582", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/7210/" ]
*Peculiar* can be used as a synonym for *strange*. However, *peculiar* originally has the meaning "particular to a given place or time; unique", and it is sometimes used that way today. And the connotations of the words still differ: *strange* carries a slight hint of disapproval, while *peculiar* suggests curiosity and uniqueness more than abnormality.
No. Example: In America, in December, peculiar decorations are publicly displayed.
27,582
Is *peculiar* completely interchangeable with *strange*? can both be used in exactly the same contexts?
2011/05/28
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/27582", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/7210/" ]
Let's see what Oxford has to say on this one. Here are the links: [Strange](http://oxforddictionaries.com/definition/strange), and [Peculiar](http://oxforddictionaries.com/definition/peculiar). Strange conveys the notion of *unfamiliarity* or *oddity*. Peculiar on the other hand signifies *particular*, *special*, or *abnormal* (anything that deviates from the normal or the expected). The etymology of this word is noteworthy. Its meaning as `strange` is dated later (17th cent.) by the dictionary.
No. Example: In America, in December, peculiar decorations are publicly displayed.
27,582
Is *peculiar* completely interchangeable with *strange*? can both be used in exactly the same contexts?
2011/05/28
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/27582", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/7210/" ]
In my experience there is a slight connotational difference. Both words refer to something that is unfamiliar to the observer. However, each word implies a slightly different reaction to the unfamiliar object or person. *Peculiar* tends to imply that the unfamiliar object draws interest and further scrutiny. Conversely a *strange* object inspires unease or possibly repulsion. In essence, *peculiar* means unfamiliar in a good way, and *strange* means unfamiliar in a bad way.
No. Example: In America, in December, peculiar decorations are publicly displayed.
447,136
I am currently working on a heated glove project using a Buck-Boost converter to adjust the temperature of the glove. I'm using the [LTC3112EDHD#TRPBF QFN](https://www.analog.com/media/en/technical-documentation/data-sheets/3112fd.pdf) Buck-Boost IC to control the Buck-Boost functionality. I just finished soldering my test PCB, and my Buck-Boost Converter IC isn't outputting a voltage. My multi-meter is reading a voltage output of 0V. I've included my schematic design below. The PCB layout is exactly the same as the schematic. Some of the ports on the IC are controlled by a micro-controller. [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/N0jDX.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/N0jDX.png) I honestly do not know what could be the issue with this circuit. My two guesses are that either some of the passive components got damaged during soldering (which I doubt. I confirm the resistors work properly, but can not confirm the capacitors functionality due to my multi-meters limitations), the Buck-Boost IC isn't solder correctly, or my design layout is incorrect. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Edit: I've added the PCB layout of the schematic. It may be hard to see due to all of the connections, but I've included it as a reference. [![PCB Design](https://i.stack.imgur.com/CCDLG.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/CCDLG.png)
2019/07/07
[ "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/447136", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/225997/" ]
Your DC-DC won't work at all without at least one of the feedback transistors being turned on. When they are turned on the VCE(sat) is directly in series with your feedback voltage. While VCE(sat) will likely only be a few mV in this case it still has an impact on the accuracy of you V(out) You should be extra careful that the transistors used in the feedback loop are extremely low leakage and not too high an Hfe. You don't seem to specificity the part number in your schematic so I can't check. The CE leakage current when these transistors are off (no Base current) is typically higher than that quoted for the CBO leakage specified in the datasheet. The feedback resistors indicate that the feedback current is very small at only about 5uA. With only one of the three feedback switches on, it means you are dealing with 2x the leakage current. If you are NOT driving the transistor bases, then the CE leakage will be approximately Hfe\*I(CBO). With high Hfe devices this can be troublesome. You should ensure that the drive point for your base resistors is always driven by a logic zero or one, this ensures that the base is terminated to close to ground when turned off. You might find this [answer](https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/164085/what-if-any-is-the-leakage-current-through-a-npn-c-e) helpful. **Update:** Now you have added the feedback switching transistor [data](http://rohmfs.rohm.com/en/products/databook/datasheet/discrete/transistor/bipolar/qs5w2tr-e.pdf) it is clear that they are unsuitable for this task. They are power devices with a max I(CBO) of 1uA so even when off will impact the feedback loop. If you can find something in the same package layout, then you are looking for characteristics similar to these ONSemi small signal devices, [NST3904DP6T5G](https://www.onsemi.com/pub/Collateral/NST3904DP6-D.PDF). [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/5HjDK.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/5HjDK.png) With I(CEX) of only 50nA these are a much better choice, and you can find transistors with I(CEX) down to 10nA. I(CEX) is the CE current with the base open circuit so is a much better indicator of leakage performance than I(CBO). Ideally IMO the best choice choice for a switched feedback loop would be a small signal Depletion mode N-Channel FET switching from the output.
I would add a comment instead of an answer but my "reputation" is not high enough. Check the following: (1) Vin, Run and PWM pins. (Start with PWM of 0% duty) (2) Check the FB pin is connected to the voltage divider [This needs feed back to work] (3) Check if SW1 and SW2, are doing anything. Never mind. Check the PWM pin; it should be <0.5V. [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/G0lTX.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/G0lTX.png)
22,839
I have seen this phrase bandied about from time to time, usually in more "academic" works; my problem is that I remember it rarely being applied to children, as a direct translation might imply ("terrible infant"?) I think I usually just skipped over the meaning when I read it, so I don't know how to use it. What are connotative elements of this noun that I'm missing? **NOTE**: This *is* an English Language question; I'm not asking about the French, and really have no idea how they use the word — which would be an inappropriate question for this site. But this phrase does find usage, and I believe has its own distinctive meaning, in English corpora. E.g.: ![Google N-gram of "L'enfant terrible"](https://i.stack.imgur.com/2PSd7.png) As always, example sentences would be appreciated.
2011/04/27
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/22839", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/4763/" ]
*Edited to add this prequel —* the most common use of the phrase does not include the French article. See the statistics from [Google ngram](http://ngrams.googlelabs.com/graph?content=l%27enfant%20terrible,enfant%20terrible&year_start=1800&year_end=2000&corpus=0&smoothing=3), for example: ![l'enfant terrible vs. enfant terrible](https://i.stack.imgur.com/oq1oi.png) --- First, the *New Oxford American Dictionary* definition: > > ***enfant terrible*** • noun (plural: enfants terribles) > > a person whose unconventional or controversial behavior or ideas shock, embarrass, or annoy others. > > > From the *Corpus of Contemporary American English*, it has quite a few hits. These include works of fiction, magazines, and some academic writings; I don't believe it is restricted to the academic style. Examples include: > > * This neglect comes from the " destructive cartoon " that greeted Ellis in the early years: his image as a frivolous enfant terrible whose clipped prose was fit only for the MTV generation > * His unflattering reputation is a hangover from the Young Tom Doak era when he was architecture's enfant terrible, better known for his *Golf Magazine* writings on the craft than for his practice of it. > * Krenek (1900-1991) was an enfant terrible among composers, but a series of artistic setbacks prompted him to reconsider his career. In 1925, he began work on… > * Eugeni Berzin, 25, the Russian enfant terrible who won the' 94 Giro and is scheduled to make his debut in the Tour > * It also reveals that, at 71, this seminal artist still is the enfant terrible he was when he began to rattle art's cages half a century ago. > * Make no mistake, the high points of this 96-year-old enfant terrible are remarkable. > > > To sum it up, I would say that most uses fall under two categories: **(ⅰ) young professionals or artists who are seen as behaving unconventionally or in a shocking manner; (ⅱ) in an ironic fashion, for rather older people who behave in a way that is more expected of the young.** I found only one hit for the plural form which does not refer to [Cocteau’s movie](http://www.imdb.com/title/tt0042436/): > > Yet he writes with a riotous, slangy precision reminiscent of a line of British enfants terribles, beginning with Evelyn Waugh in the 1920s-30s and continuing in such contemporary figures as Martin Amis and Will Self. > > >
You would use this expression to qualify one individual or entity who would behave badly with respect to the standards of its community. In the past, when in families you had a child who distinguished himself by being more unruly than the others, behaving badly, breaking things or being more aggressive with his parents or brothers and sisters, then he would deserve the title of "Enfant Terrible". Bear in mind that in the Victorian era, in aristocratic families one would commonly use French to communicate thereby avoiding being understood by the servants. In more modern times you can find the expression used in domains where one way to reach celebrity is to challenge established standards: fashion, design, art, show business. Here are for example a few examples in the world of fashion: * [Jean-Paul Gaultier: l'Enfant Terrible of French Fashion](http://www.luxemag.org/fashion-designers/jean-paul-gaultier.html) * [Alexander McQueen: Enfant terrible and fashion genius](http://www.independent.co.uk/life-style/fashion/news/alexander-mcqueen-enfant-terrible-and-fashion-genius-1896873.html) As you can see from the above articles, the sense of unruliness is mitigated by a suggested connotation of hidden brilliance, as if the episodic eccentricities where the natural consequence of a repressed genius.
25,289
On my team, we're starting to work with kanban and have column limits applied. One of our members will work frequently work in the evenings or at night and is expressing that the column limits prevent him from doing work as in the evenings all the slots are generally full. We currently have a column limit of our number of team members - 1. We have mandatory code review, and the review column will fill and can't be cleared without the testing team during normal working hours. What are some strategies that can allow this person to be productive but don't make the column limits too loose?
2018/11/20
[ "https://pm.stackexchange.com/questions/25289", "https://pm.stackexchange.com", "https://pm.stackexchange.com/users/34153/" ]
It's all down to what you need. **Ask your team:** why there's this code limit in place? * **Potential Answer #1:** Because we must not work on development if we have pending code reviews. * **Potential Action #1:** Your team must either work together to avoid leaving a lot pending code reviews or the night shift guy must be focused on code reviews. What works better for the team. ===== * **Potential Answer #2:** Because we read that the ideal number for a limit is . * **Potential action #2:** Increase the limit. These limits are there to HELP the team to deliver more value... not to slow the team down. ===== * **Potential answer #3:** I'm not sure to be honest, someone defined these limits. * **Potential action #3:** Ditto as #2. The WIP limit should help, not slow down. Don't apply agile-related approaches for the sake of applying them. Use them to address specific problems your team has. ===== **Bottomline:** Discuss with your team and pick the best choice *from a team perspective, focused on deliver value, not on adhering to agile methodology*. Agile is a tool to a mean (deliver more value) not a purpose in itself.
Though not specified, I infer that you have one developer 'owning' each task. You can fix this by changing that. Either: A) The night-coder picks one of the in-progress issues and starts working on it. Make sure you're making good use of source control! B) The day-coders pair up more on issues, leaving more available for the night-coder. Essentially, you have two different WIP limits: numMembers-2 for day-coders, numMembers-1 for the night-coder.
25,289
On my team, we're starting to work with kanban and have column limits applied. One of our members will work frequently work in the evenings or at night and is expressing that the column limits prevent him from doing work as in the evenings all the slots are generally full. We currently have a column limit of our number of team members - 1. We have mandatory code review, and the review column will fill and can't be cleared without the testing team during normal working hours. What are some strategies that can allow this person to be productive but don't make the column limits too loose?
2018/11/20
[ "https://pm.stackexchange.com/questions/25289", "https://pm.stackexchange.com", "https://pm.stackexchange.com/users/34153/" ]
Though not specified, I infer that you have one developer 'owning' each task. You can fix this by changing that. Either: A) The night-coder picks one of the in-progress issues and starts working on it. Make sure you're making good use of source control! B) The day-coders pair up more on issues, leaving more available for the night-coder. Essentially, you have two different WIP limits: numMembers-2 for day-coders, numMembers-1 for the night-coder.
When I read your question, my initial thought was you were working multiple shifts and that the same task was being worked upon by multiple people - some developer working during the day and some at night - sort of a disjointed paired-programming :) But it looks like that's not the case. Each person is working on their own tasks - and they just happen to be working at different times. If a person is working on a specific stage of your workflow - and has the capacity to work - but is unable to because of the WIP Limit on the column, clearly there is a mismatch between the WIP Limit for that column and the available capacity for that column. The great Don Reinertsen has said in one of the Lean Kanban conferences that a recommended WIP Limit for teams new to Kanban can be twice the average amount of work being done at any time in a column (more about that [here](https://www.digite.com/blog/how-do-you-do-scrumban/)). So, I am not sure you have a high enough WIP Limit and this issue is an indicator of that. How do you decide what WIP Limits to define? The following are some of the guidelines - 1. Twice the average WIP as mentioned above as "prescribed" by Don Reinertsen. 2. Keep a buffer for any blockers - cards that are blocked by team members due to their inability to continue working on them due to some dependency 3. Number of tasks a team member is working on at a time and the time it takes for them to do any one task. For example, a dev team member will typically work with 1 task at a time, while a marketing team member might have 2-3 smaller tasks that they might be expected to complete in a day 4. Unexpected tasks that need a person to put something on hold and work on the interrupt A general thumb-rule I have seen most teams use is a WIP Limit of 1.5 times the number of people assigned to work in a specific column. Ultimately, your WIP Limits must be defined based on your own context. If you have people waiting to take up work but can't due to a low WIP Limit, you have an over-capacity issue. If you have too many tasks in a column not being worked upon, you have a low capacity/ high demand or multi-tasking related stagnation of work (people not being able to complete any one task because they have too many balls in the air). I'd say, start by increasing your WIP Limit to at least 1.25 times the # of people in and then see how the system behaves.
25,289
On my team, we're starting to work with kanban and have column limits applied. One of our members will work frequently work in the evenings or at night and is expressing that the column limits prevent him from doing work as in the evenings all the slots are generally full. We currently have a column limit of our number of team members - 1. We have mandatory code review, and the review column will fill and can't be cleared without the testing team during normal working hours. What are some strategies that can allow this person to be productive but don't make the column limits too loose?
2018/11/20
[ "https://pm.stackexchange.com/questions/25289", "https://pm.stackexchange.com", "https://pm.stackexchange.com/users/34153/" ]
It's all down to what you need. **Ask your team:** why there's this code limit in place? * **Potential Answer #1:** Because we must not work on development if we have pending code reviews. * **Potential Action #1:** Your team must either work together to avoid leaving a lot pending code reviews or the night shift guy must be focused on code reviews. What works better for the team. ===== * **Potential Answer #2:** Because we read that the ideal number for a limit is . * **Potential action #2:** Increase the limit. These limits are there to HELP the team to deliver more value... not to slow the team down. ===== * **Potential answer #3:** I'm not sure to be honest, someone defined these limits. * **Potential action #3:** Ditto as #2. The WIP limit should help, not slow down. Don't apply agile-related approaches for the sake of applying them. Use them to address specific problems your team has. ===== **Bottomline:** Discuss with your team and pick the best choice *from a team perspective, focused on deliver value, not on adhering to agile methodology*. Agile is a tool to a mean (deliver more value) not a purpose in itself.
When I read your question, my initial thought was you were working multiple shifts and that the same task was being worked upon by multiple people - some developer working during the day and some at night - sort of a disjointed paired-programming :) But it looks like that's not the case. Each person is working on their own tasks - and they just happen to be working at different times. If a person is working on a specific stage of your workflow - and has the capacity to work - but is unable to because of the WIP Limit on the column, clearly there is a mismatch between the WIP Limit for that column and the available capacity for that column. The great Don Reinertsen has said in one of the Lean Kanban conferences that a recommended WIP Limit for teams new to Kanban can be twice the average amount of work being done at any time in a column (more about that [here](https://www.digite.com/blog/how-do-you-do-scrumban/)). So, I am not sure you have a high enough WIP Limit and this issue is an indicator of that. How do you decide what WIP Limits to define? The following are some of the guidelines - 1. Twice the average WIP as mentioned above as "prescribed" by Don Reinertsen. 2. Keep a buffer for any blockers - cards that are blocked by team members due to their inability to continue working on them due to some dependency 3. Number of tasks a team member is working on at a time and the time it takes for them to do any one task. For example, a dev team member will typically work with 1 task at a time, while a marketing team member might have 2-3 smaller tasks that they might be expected to complete in a day 4. Unexpected tasks that need a person to put something on hold and work on the interrupt A general thumb-rule I have seen most teams use is a WIP Limit of 1.5 times the number of people assigned to work in a specific column. Ultimately, your WIP Limits must be defined based on your own context. If you have people waiting to take up work but can't due to a low WIP Limit, you have an over-capacity issue. If you have too many tasks in a column not being worked upon, you have a low capacity/ high demand or multi-tasking related stagnation of work (people not being able to complete any one task because they have too many balls in the air). I'd say, start by increasing your WIP Limit to at least 1.25 times the # of people in and then see how the system behaves.
799
Are users able to upload their own pictures into these diagrams on this site?
2011/03/14
[ "https://webapps.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/799", "https://webapps.meta.stackexchange.com", "https://webapps.meta.stackexchange.com/users/-1/" ]
You need to have a reputation of 10 or more to be able to post pictures. The [privilege page](https://webapps.stackexchange.com/privileges) explains them all. The [new user privilege](https://webapps.stackexchange.com/privileges/new-user) is the on that covers this. In the meantime just post a link to the image and some one with edit rights will convert it into an inline image for you. If you post good questions and answers you'll soon gain the reputation you need.
Sure -- as long as you have more than 10 rep, you can add images. Use the image button on the toolbar to do so. [![](https://i.stack.imgur.com/znWtz.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/znWtz.png) (source: [stackoverflow.com](http://blog.stackoverflow.com/wp-content/uploads/native-image-uploads-imgur.png))
68,074
I watch Naruto, in that they use chakra as energy source or power, and they sometimes they commit act of shirk, whenever they do any kind of act of shirk, I start saying this all is fake and there is only one God and that is Allah, I do this because it's all fake first and second that this might lead me to commit shirk, but in the home we play like using techniques of the anime and chakra all that but we don't commit any act of shirk, we just play and we don't believe in it and one of my friends just thinks about a story like Naruto in which there is chakra but we all know it's fictional, are we committing shirk, and are we committing sin? We only watch these anime for entertainment.
2021/04/30
[ "https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/68074", "https://islam.stackexchange.com", "https://islam.stackexchange.com/users/44551/" ]
The answer to this question needs **diversified discussions** which may be broken down as below points! --- 1. Time Management 2. Islamic Views of Entainment 3. Slow poisoning 4. Cultural conflicts and conflicts in believed as well 5. Going near to halal acts that (may) lead to sin(s) 6. Doing Meaningless tasks --- I am giving very brief answers as keywords for further study or exploration for the curious mind! 1. Our HAYAT / time is the foremost grace from the Almighty alongside Iman! Wasting Time is a prohibited act in Islam! 2. Entertainment is a very basic human need. Acknowledging that, Islam doesn't restrict Muslims from enjoying themselves at leisure and allows various forms of entertainment as well eg. physical activities, listening to meaningful musicless non-instrumental nasheeds, watching and educational video production, and many more! But there are limits & guidelines for entertainment for a Muslim for which an act of entertainment may be equally be judged as prohibited or allowed with certain clauses eg playing football! If the players wear inappropriate clothing avoiding Islamic guidelines that aren't permitted. Men Watching women playing or vice versa avoiding Islamic guidelines of Veil that is also prohibited. If any bet is related to any gameplay that is prohibited as well. 3. Such videos/ animations are actively harming our beliefs, making us forgetful of our basic beliefs, and injecting agnosticism into our beliefs. Watching these meaningless non-educational or least educational video productions killing our valuable time as well. 4. Such many video productions are released as part of war-of-civilizations to have a greater effect on the opponent's mindsets. 5. Islam strongly discourages doing any act that may lead to sin which example can specifically be referred to [al-Isra’ 17:32]. 6. Islam denounces doing any meaningless task investing health, time, wealth, or any other effort from which there is no worldly benefit or benefits for hereafter to a single human or Muslim. Lastly, I would like to give an analogy as that is poured what is inside the pot! As a remarkable part of your entertainment time is being engaged there watching that video production you actively recall those memories when you are not watching that anime. Even you, maybe unknowingly from the subconscious mind, act with the line of their presentation when you play with your mates. Form this one can say how much impact, obviously negative, that anime had created upon you! I don't know your age but I would like to suggest thinking upon the matter primarily with references to the above discussion than a deep sincere contemplation in yourself to identify the sincere Islamic Act for yourself! > > #Self\_Declaration: I may not be totally right but I am open to discussions! > > > **May Allah, the Almighty grant both of us the right & beneficial knowledge, a practicing life, and finally His meeting at Heaven through granting His forgiveness at the Day of Judgment!** *AsSalamu\_Alaikum!*
I asked something similar to my teacher (we have religion classes) and he said they are okay unless you actually lose your mind and believe that fictions. But I don't have any trusted sources.
41,689
[![Woodchips or mulch](https://i.stack.imgur.com/s29el.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/s29el.jpg) I'm a first-time homeowner and pretty naive and often overwhelmed by home-related upkeep, especially related to gardening (see [my very first question on this exchange](https://gardening.stackexchange.com/questions/41033/how-to-eradicate-bamboo-from-suburban-sfh) for what still continues to vex me). So, my question: from the picture above, do I have woodchips or mulch? (That's a quarter in the picture for scale reference) Either way, why is it used? It was all over the lawn in our front yard and the small pockets of exposed soil in our mostly hardscaped backyard. I was never a fan of it - I kind of prefer lawns with just soil. But before trying to get rid of it, I wanted to learn if there is an actual use for it - or is it just an aesthetic choice? I live in Orange County, California, so summers are fairly hot (80s - 90s F) and will occasionally get humid, but is mostly dry, and winters are mildly cold with relatively little rain.
2018/08/25
[ "https://gardening.stackexchange.com/questions/41689", "https://gardening.stackexchange.com", "https://gardening.stackexchange.com/users/23404/" ]
Well technically they're wood chips, but also a mulch, although they look pretty awful - they're not even proper bark chips. I can only guess why they were all over the lawn, but I live in the UK - is it possible that people who live in hot, dry regions of the USA strew wood chips over their lawns when the weather is particularly hot? I can't imagine it would do the grass much good, but perhaps there is a reason for it - and maybe someone from your area (either on here or a neighbour) might tell you.On the other hand, the chips might just have been spilt over the lawn - it's certainly not usual for chippings to be in such a place. In regard to mulch, mulch is just a term for a layer of something over the top of soil - it might be organic (composted manure, leafmould, bark chips, anything that rots down over time) or inorganic (pebbles, chippings, slate and the like). Even the layer of leaf litter in forests is a mulch, and a layer of shredded paper or cardboard spread over the soil would also be a mulch. The advantage with a good organic mulch applied to beds and borders at least annually in spring is, it keeps moisture in and reduces 'baking' of the soil from hot sun in summer - it also improves the ability of rain to penetrate the soil instead of running off when there's a sudden downpour. As it breaks down, it improves the soil, raising the bio diversity within it, thereby improving fertility. Some mulches break down quicker than others - good garden compost or composted manures will be taken down into the soil much more quickly than lumpy bark chips, but the more organic material placed in or onto soil, the better the soil will be, and the better plants will grow. Finally, mulch is sometimes used as a weed suppressant - but that would need to be a layer a mininmum 2 inches thick, and preferably more. If you do decide to mulch, always remember never to pile it up against the woody trunk of a tree or shrub. If you apply a thick layer of mulch as a weed suppressant, leave a clear inch or two at least all round the woody trunk or stem. And never use fresh wood chippings - they're best composted first.
What you have in picture are wood chips and if you use them in certain way, depending on what you want to achieve - they will become mulch. Mulch is just a layer of material applied over surface/soil. It could be organic (such as your wood chips, leaves, straw, nut shells, paper...) or artificial (like nylon, plastic sheeting...). You can use mulch to retain moisture, improve soil, prevent weed growth or just improve appearance. [You can find more about Mulch at Wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mulch)
41,689
[![Woodchips or mulch](https://i.stack.imgur.com/s29el.jpg)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/s29el.jpg) I'm a first-time homeowner and pretty naive and often overwhelmed by home-related upkeep, especially related to gardening (see [my very first question on this exchange](https://gardening.stackexchange.com/questions/41033/how-to-eradicate-bamboo-from-suburban-sfh) for what still continues to vex me). So, my question: from the picture above, do I have woodchips or mulch? (That's a quarter in the picture for scale reference) Either way, why is it used? It was all over the lawn in our front yard and the small pockets of exposed soil in our mostly hardscaped backyard. I was never a fan of it - I kind of prefer lawns with just soil. But before trying to get rid of it, I wanted to learn if there is an actual use for it - or is it just an aesthetic choice? I live in Orange County, California, so summers are fairly hot (80s - 90s F) and will occasionally get humid, but is mostly dry, and winters are mildly cold with relatively little rain.
2018/08/25
[ "https://gardening.stackexchange.com/questions/41689", "https://gardening.stackexchange.com", "https://gardening.stackexchange.com/users/23404/" ]
Well technically they're wood chips, but also a mulch, although they look pretty awful - they're not even proper bark chips. I can only guess why they were all over the lawn, but I live in the UK - is it possible that people who live in hot, dry regions of the USA strew wood chips over their lawns when the weather is particularly hot? I can't imagine it would do the grass much good, but perhaps there is a reason for it - and maybe someone from your area (either on here or a neighbour) might tell you.On the other hand, the chips might just have been spilt over the lawn - it's certainly not usual for chippings to be in such a place. In regard to mulch, mulch is just a term for a layer of something over the top of soil - it might be organic (composted manure, leafmould, bark chips, anything that rots down over time) or inorganic (pebbles, chippings, slate and the like). Even the layer of leaf litter in forests is a mulch, and a layer of shredded paper or cardboard spread over the soil would also be a mulch. The advantage with a good organic mulch applied to beds and borders at least annually in spring is, it keeps moisture in and reduces 'baking' of the soil from hot sun in summer - it also improves the ability of rain to penetrate the soil instead of running off when there's a sudden downpour. As it breaks down, it improves the soil, raising the bio diversity within it, thereby improving fertility. Some mulches break down quicker than others - good garden compost or composted manures will be taken down into the soil much more quickly than lumpy bark chips, but the more organic material placed in or onto soil, the better the soil will be, and the better plants will grow. Finally, mulch is sometimes used as a weed suppressant - but that would need to be a layer a mininmum 2 inches thick, and preferably more. If you do decide to mulch, always remember never to pile it up against the woody trunk of a tree or shrub. If you apply a thick layer of mulch as a weed suppressant, leave a clear inch or two at least all round the woody trunk or stem. And never use fresh wood chippings - they're best composted first.
> > do I have woodchips or mulch? > > > That is mulch made from chipped wood. The mulch may have been dyed for aesthetic purposes. > > why is it used? > > > The previous owner may have applied mulch because it's a cheap and quick method of improving the landscaping and curb appeal, at least in the listing photos. The climate of Orange County is characterized by high temperatures, low humidity, and few clouds. Mulch keeps moisture in the soil. Without mulch, new plants in full sun would require *daily* irrigation to survive the first summer. Irrigation is the single biggest use of water in a suburban house, which is a problem in drought-stricken California. In 2015 and 2016, many communities offered "cash for grass", i.e. incentives to remove lawns. Your water supplier may have made free mulch available as a water-saving program. Also, fewer weeds will grow in mulched soil.
20,362
Does anybody know of a Drupal 7 autocomplete widget for textfields? I've tried Autocomplete Widgets, but the "Autocomplete for allowed values list" widget from that doesn't seem to exist in Drupal 7 -- only the other two widgets show up. My goal is to store plain text but autocomplete from a user profile field. Thanks!
2012/01/22
[ "https://drupal.stackexchange.com/questions/20362", "https://drupal.stackexchange.com", "https://drupal.stackexchange.com/users/3233/" ]
Try <http://timonweb.com/how-create-ajax-autocomplete-textfield-drupal-7> ALSO: <http://qandeelaslam.com/blogs/cck/converting-texfield-autocomplete-using-drupals-form-api> http://www.elevatedthird.com/blog/enable-ajax-autocomplete-drupal-7-webform-textfield (Looking for a module, now.)
There is <http://drupal.org/project/autocomplete_widgets>: > > This module adds 3 autocomplete widgets for CCK fields of type Text > and Number. > > > Autocomplete for allowed values list: This widget can be used for Text > and Number fields and it takes candidate values from the defined list > of Allowed values of the fields. You can even generate your allowed > values list using PHP, so the limit to provide a widget with > autocomplete features is your imagination! > > > Autocomplete for existing field data: This widget can be used for Text > only and it takes candidate values from existing values in the > database for that field. > > > (7.x only) Autocomplete for predefined suggestions: This widget can be > used for Text only and allows an admin to provide a list of > suggestions but still allows users to enter anything they want in a > text field. Use this widget to help avoid (but not prevent) variations > of the same value. Ex: burger, hamburger, Burger ... > > > (7.x only) Autocomplete for existing field data and some node titles: > This widget works just like the "existing field data" widget above > except it will also suggest node titles for nodes of a specific > content type(s). > > >
162,347
You bought your first entry level oscilloscope (e.g. Rigol DS1004Z series, 4 Channels, 50-100MHz, 1Gs/s) and while it is slowly warming up to room temperature you are wondering if the unit you have is really working well and did not suffer any damage from shipping etc. Since your next complex measurement equipment is a multimeter, you wonder how to test it. Like, for a new computer you run memory test, hdd test, burn in tests (like mprime), so what is kind of an equivalent for oscilloscopes that can make you certain it is functioning mostly correctly? Besides the built in square wave generator, what can you measure and check if it is properly displayed? I am thinking of something like * A simple (breadboardable? though probably not at 100MHz) circuit that is almost guaranteed to work and can be used to check most things like bandwidth and accuracy of the scope. * A signal source that is rather easily accessible to most people and has quite known characteristics that when off tell you something is wrong. Note: I am not asking about how to get familiar with the scope, but rather than some simple checks that assess it is functioning probably correctly.
2015/03/30
[ "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/162347", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/39687/" ]
If the square-wave looks fine after probe compensation and the scope passes self-check/self-calibration, then there really is nothing you can do at your level. To properly check it, you'd need a good lab and you don't have that. Presumably, manufacturer would have performed quality control on the unit and did factory calibration with equipment much better than you have, so if you trust the manufacturer, you should be fine. If you don't, then, as I wrote previously, there is nothing you can do without proper equipment.
Find a friend with an oscilloscope, and some circuits you can probe (these can be anything you have available). Probe the circuits at various points with your new oscilloscope and the borrowed one, and check they see substantially the same thing. In most consumer devices, you will find a range of analogue and high frequency signals, just stay away from the mains power supply until you are competent to work in that area! This does depend on temporary access to another oscilloscope, but is probably the simplest and most reliable method outside of having a full calibration laboratory. As a bonus, it will let you test your oscilloscope capabilities and give you confidence that you can use it correctly. Any solutions which involve 'building a simple circuit' will always leave you wondering whether the circuit or the new oscilloscope is doing something unexpected.
162,347
You bought your first entry level oscilloscope (e.g. Rigol DS1004Z series, 4 Channels, 50-100MHz, 1Gs/s) and while it is slowly warming up to room temperature you are wondering if the unit you have is really working well and did not suffer any damage from shipping etc. Since your next complex measurement equipment is a multimeter, you wonder how to test it. Like, for a new computer you run memory test, hdd test, burn in tests (like mprime), so what is kind of an equivalent for oscilloscopes that can make you certain it is functioning mostly correctly? Besides the built in square wave generator, what can you measure and check if it is properly displayed? I am thinking of something like * A simple (breadboardable? though probably not at 100MHz) circuit that is almost guaranteed to work and can be used to check most things like bandwidth and accuracy of the scope. * A signal source that is rather easily accessible to most people and has quite known characteristics that when off tell you something is wrong. Note: I am not asking about how to get familiar with the scope, but rather than some simple checks that assess it is functioning probably correctly.
2015/03/30
[ "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/162347", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/39687/" ]
If the square-wave looks fine after probe compensation and the scope passes self-check/self-calibration, then there really is nothing you can do at your level. To properly check it, you'd need a good lab and you don't have that. Presumably, manufacturer would have performed quality control on the unit and did factory calibration with equipment much better than you have, so if you trust the manufacturer, you should be fine. If you don't, then, as I wrote previously, there is nothing you can do without proper equipment.
Here's a list of more basic things you can check: * Check all the knobs (360 degrees in both turning directions) and buttons. * Compare readings at each voltage range to some reference, such as a multimeter. (If you hear a relay click at certain levels, you should test the range at each relay click.) * Test as many trigger types as you can. Compare the levels at which the scope triggers compared to where you set it, and compare the offsets for each direction. * Do all input tests for each channel. * Verify that the input of one channel does not affect any other more than it should. (Your manual probably specifies the minimum rejection ratio. At the very least, two channels of similar voltages shouldn't visibly impact one another.) * If your scope has additional functions like USB, Ethernet, SD card, etc, make sure to test these as well. Obviously, these checks are far from perfect (you certainly won't be able to validate your scope this way, as AndrejaKo mentions), but this should help you find any glaring hardware faults. Just make sure you fully understand what you're seeing before you freak out about anything that seems off.
162,347
You bought your first entry level oscilloscope (e.g. Rigol DS1004Z series, 4 Channels, 50-100MHz, 1Gs/s) and while it is slowly warming up to room temperature you are wondering if the unit you have is really working well and did not suffer any damage from shipping etc. Since your next complex measurement equipment is a multimeter, you wonder how to test it. Like, for a new computer you run memory test, hdd test, burn in tests (like mprime), so what is kind of an equivalent for oscilloscopes that can make you certain it is functioning mostly correctly? Besides the built in square wave generator, what can you measure and check if it is properly displayed? I am thinking of something like * A simple (breadboardable? though probably not at 100MHz) circuit that is almost guaranteed to work and can be used to check most things like bandwidth and accuracy of the scope. * A signal source that is rather easily accessible to most people and has quite known characteristics that when off tell you something is wrong. Note: I am not asking about how to get familiar with the scope, but rather than some simple checks that assess it is functioning probably correctly.
2015/03/30
[ "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/162347", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/39687/" ]
Find a friend with an oscilloscope, and some circuits you can probe (these can be anything you have available). Probe the circuits at various points with your new oscilloscope and the borrowed one, and check they see substantially the same thing. In most consumer devices, you will find a range of analogue and high frequency signals, just stay away from the mains power supply until you are competent to work in that area! This does depend on temporary access to another oscilloscope, but is probably the simplest and most reliable method outside of having a full calibration laboratory. As a bonus, it will let you test your oscilloscope capabilities and give you confidence that you can use it correctly. Any solutions which involve 'building a simple circuit' will always leave you wondering whether the circuit or the new oscilloscope is doing something unexpected.
Here's a list of more basic things you can check: * Check all the knobs (360 degrees in both turning directions) and buttons. * Compare readings at each voltage range to some reference, such as a multimeter. (If you hear a relay click at certain levels, you should test the range at each relay click.) * Test as many trigger types as you can. Compare the levels at which the scope triggers compared to where you set it, and compare the offsets for each direction. * Do all input tests for each channel. * Verify that the input of one channel does not affect any other more than it should. (Your manual probably specifies the minimum rejection ratio. At the very least, two channels of similar voltages shouldn't visibly impact one another.) * If your scope has additional functions like USB, Ethernet, SD card, etc, make sure to test these as well. Obviously, these checks are far from perfect (you certainly won't be able to validate your scope this way, as AndrejaKo mentions), but this should help you find any glaring hardware faults. Just make sure you fully understand what you're seeing before you freak out about anything that seems off.
313,810
What sounds better to a native/is more correct? I assume they all are correct, but still - what is the best way to say it? * If one wants to do something, one should do it. * If one wants to do something, he or she should do it. * If one wants to do something, they should do it. --- As the question was marked as duplicate, I'd like to point out that the main thing asked was not whether there exists a gender-neutral pronoun, but rather how to end the sentence if I begin it with 'one'.
2016/03/15
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/313810", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/26608/" ]
If you're using "one" at the start, then use one at the end. However, it's not the best way (in my opinion) to express this sentiment. One is more generally switched with "you", rather than "he or she", so you would tend to say "If one wants to do something, one should do it." or "If you want to do something, you should do it." (note "want" not "wants" in the latter) You could also use "someone", eg "If someone wants to do something, they should do it." and I feel that this is the best way to express this sentiment: the use of "one" in this sense, although more correct, runs the risk of being seen as archaic and pretentious nowadays, and using "he or she" instead of "they" in this case feels clumsy. Note that "someone" and "one" are not interchangeable in all situations: if you wrote "If someone wants to do something, someone should do it." then this changes the meaning to "If a person wants to do something, then a person (any person) should do it." instead of "If a person wants to do something, then *that* person (the person who wants to do it) should do it." which was the original meaning. Where "one" is better than "you" is in a situation where you (the speaker) want to make a general statement which is actually directed towards the listener, but still has "plausible deniability" as being a general statement. It's a way of telling someone they should do something, in this case, without *technically* telling them to do it, which might be desirable.
In American English, "one" sounds very formal and stilted and old-fashioned. In most situations "you" would be used instead. * If you want to do something, you should do it.
193,341
I have a Trac project installed on top of a Subversion implementation (easy to do thanks to Webfaction's control panel), but now I have configuration work to do. With that in mind, are there *easy* ways to do the following in Trac: 1) Ensure that customers can only see a high level progress indicator. 2) Give daily summary reports on tickets, testing, and tasks. Also, I am interested in knowing if there are any **highly** recommended plugins that I would be sorry I forgot to install.
2008/10/10
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/193341", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/13990/" ]
I would not recommend using the same Trac project for tracking development tasks and showing the customer progress. You want to be able to be candid with your development tickets, comments, etc. Customers can focus on the wrong things and misinterpret data you put in the tickets. I would recommend providing the customer with a separate project that contains high level tasks and only shows the progress on those tasks, not the nitty gritty.
@Dave Dunkin is right. Use Trac for your internal use, and use a system like [Basecamp](http://www.basecamphq.com/) to give your clients a high-level overview of what's going on in the project.
193,341
I have a Trac project installed on top of a Subversion implementation (easy to do thanks to Webfaction's control panel), but now I have configuration work to do. With that in mind, are there *easy* ways to do the following in Trac: 1) Ensure that customers can only see a high level progress indicator. 2) Give daily summary reports on tickets, testing, and tasks. Also, I am interested in knowing if there are any **highly** recommended plugins that I would be sorry I forgot to install.
2008/10/10
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/193341", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/13990/" ]
As far as additional plugins are concerned, we install TocMacro, XmlRpcPlugin, WysiwygPlugin and TracRedirect. In particular, the WYSIWYG plugin is really good for encouraging less technical staff to maintain their own documents in the wiki - you can even C&P from MS Word whilst retaining formatting, which helps. Take a look at the custom ticket workflow stuff that Trac gives you, if your own workflow isn't well represented by Trac's defaults. This has allowed us to add code review and integration testing steps to the workflow. I'd recommend making your Trac server authenticate against some central authentication framework. We run an LDAP tree with auth credentials in it, and this is used by all our internal systems - including trac, svn, samba, openvpn etc.
If it's a stock install, the database is just an SQLite3, so you can easily write scripts to fetch "safe" info, like the number of tickets, or why not one of the reports. That way, you can discuss freely as long as the ticket name is ok. Revisions, milestones, wikipages, tags (if you use that plugin) are also available.
193,341
I have a Trac project installed on top of a Subversion implementation (easy to do thanks to Webfaction's control panel), but now I have configuration work to do. With that in mind, are there *easy* ways to do the following in Trac: 1) Ensure that customers can only see a high level progress indicator. 2) Give daily summary reports on tickets, testing, and tasks. Also, I am interested in knowing if there are any **highly** recommended plugins that I would be sorry I forgot to install.
2008/10/10
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/193341", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/13990/" ]
I would not recommend using the same Trac project for tracking development tasks and showing the customer progress. You want to be able to be candid with your development tickets, comments, etc. Customers can focus on the wrong things and misinterpret data you put in the tickets. I would recommend providing the customer with a separate project that contains high level tasks and only shows the progress on those tasks, not the nitty gritty.
If it's a stock install, the database is just an SQLite3, so you can easily write scripts to fetch "safe" info, like the number of tickets, or why not one of the reports. That way, you can discuss freely as long as the ticket name is ok. Revisions, milestones, wikipages, tags (if you use that plugin) are also available.
21,930,261
I have a Wordpress blog that is now running in Linux/MySQL. Now, I have seen a product called Brandoo Wordpress which let you run Wordpress on IIS + MSSQL. Since I am using Windows Server and MSSQL for all my other projects I would very much like to use it on my Wordpress blog too. The wordpress site is quite big and important. The blog is beloved for its adult content. It has a revenue on thousands of dollars/month so I don't want to rush in anything here. The Brandoo Wordpress is a part of the application gallery in Windows Platform Installer and also in Windows Azure. So my questions are: **Since Brandoo Wordpress is a part of the apps in Azure, do you think it is quality assured by Microsoft? I guess before Microsoft adds a web app to Azure and Platform Installer it has to be safe and bug free? Right?** I have tested my Wordpress locally with Brandoo Wordpress and it seems to work great so far.
2014/02/21
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/21930261", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/2710099/" ]
I'm member of Brandoo WordPress team and I think I can help You. So... Brandoo WordPress is based on MSSQL. If You are using plugins that uses non-standard (same for MS and My SQL) db query You must face situation when You will must drop those plugins untill we will create translation for those queries that are not translated yet. There is also one thing. Brandoo WordPress is one step behind mainline right now. It's because some MySQL speciffic query in onsite search function. We do not want to fork WP and change it to MS schema so we are still working on translation or disabling this subfunction (If we willagree that this is a safe way to do it). If this is ok for You, then Brandoo WordPress is good for Your production.
I wouldn't call this a guarantee, but one of the [principles of submission to the web app store](http://www.iis.net/learn/develop/windows-web-application-gallery/windows-web-application-gallery-principles) is to "Be Safe"
472,479
A bit of background here is important - my country historically had an unfriendly relationship with Germans, then got occupied by the Soviet Union, which really liked to justify everything by saying it's fighting the Nazis (and Russia still does); the occupation ended with an independence movement during which there was a significant, nationally broadcasted concert, which among other things, had plenty of old patriotic songs. I cut a recording of the said concert into individual songs and uploaded it to Youtube. I also have been trying to add lyrics to the songs and translate them to English. Although I do want the meaning to be as close to the original as possible, my aim is for people to understand the general idea of the lyrics, not to be too literal and use terms that don't really exist in English. I obviously also don't want anyone to be able to misinterpret it as showing support to any foreign regimes and such, especially given that many older people probably have warm and fuzzy memories about the concert. Now here's the problem - the original lyrics have a word that literally means *the land one (or a group of people) was born in* and can mean just that, but also has patriotic connotations. I translated it as *motherland* and somebody in the comments complained that it should be *fatherland*, along with a snark, that they quickly edited out, that I picked a Russian term. There are terms in our language that literally mean fatherland (and no motherland terms). It wasn't used here, but would be good to know if it is appropriate for future reference in any case. Now I did some quick research: **Motherland** - I thought it was the correct English word and that terms associated only with Russia are just mother Russia or mother motherland. I am now seeing plenty of websites suggest it indeed is associated only with Russia. **Fatherland** - I had the impression that in English it is strongly associated with Nazi Germany. My research seemed to agree. Besides feeding any Russian trolls, if the association is very strong it might end up being weird, if used in a song that actually is about fighting a German enemy. For both of these it was suggested that the one corresponding with the original should be used. So now I am thinking it could be used if the original term actually is *fatherland* or related, but not sure it's the right choice in cases when the original is birth, not father, related. **Homeland** - I found several suggestions that it is the most appropriate neutral translation, quickly followed by a note that it is associated with US Homeland security. **Native land** - seems like it would be close to original, but I don't think I've ever seen it used "in the wild". I did see it used in some dictonary definitions while doing my research. Wouldn't it be associated with something aboriginal? The sentence in the particular case is: > > The fields of [word] are shrouded in mist. > > >
2018/11/11
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/472479", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/323817/" ]
It's true that to a certain extent these words are associated in English with Nazi Germany and the Soviet Union, but these are by no means the only associations, nor should they be. First of all, I'd just like to point out that one of the major reasons why these words have these associations is not so much because they have been used predominantly by the previous two regimes I've mentioned, but because people in certain parts of the world are exposed to their popular culture rather than being acquainted with facts or knowing about other parts of the world. To start off, if "homeland" has any mental association with America's Department of Homeland Security (which it may, especially among Americans), it's only possible that this association has existed since 2002, as it was established directly after the September 11 attacks. The term "fatherland" or something close to it is ancient. In Ancient Greek "[patris](http://artflsrv02.uchicago.edu/cgi-bin/efts/dicos/woodhouse_test.pl?keyword=fatherland&sortorder=Keyword)" can be translated as "fatherland". The Latin word is "patria". As to "fatherland" acquiring an association of Third Reich Germany, [Wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fatherland) notes that this association began when countries not using the word "fatherland" became acquainted with German propaganda of the era. We can see the meaning of "fatherland" without Nazistic allusions from the current national anthem of Germany, which despite going through some drastic measures of denazification, still maintains in their anthem the line *"For the German fatherland!"*. Nigeria's anthem contains "Nigeria's call obey to serve our fatherland," and was adopted 1978. East Timor's national anthem adopted in 2002 is named "Fatherland". Some countries' official motto include the word (English translation) "fatherland", including Portugal, Cameroon, Dominican Republic, Latvia and Liechtenstein. And here is a list of populations who refer to their country as the fatherland. [Groups that refer to their native country as "fatherland"](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fatherland#Groups_that_refer_to_their_native_country_as_a_%22fatherland%22) As to "motherland", here's how the dictionaries define it: > > 1.One's native land. > > 2.The land of one's ancestors. > [American Heritage Dictionary](https://www.thefreedictionary.com/motherland) > > > > 2.another word for fatherland > [Collins Dictionary](https://www.thefreedictionary.com/motherland) > > > > Random House Kernernman Webster's Dictionary defines it as "mother country". [Here](https://www.thefreedictionary.com/mother+country) is a list of definitions of "mother country", in case you want to consider it. "mother country" makes sense to me, in same way your mother tongue is the language you're born into. Mauritius adopted its national anthem titled "[Motherland](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Motherland_(anthem))" in 1968. Monserrat's national song "[Motherland](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/National_Song_(Montserrat))" was adopted in 2014. Montserrat is a British Overseas Territory in the Caribbean. Also, about your point that "native land" sounds like land belonging to aborigines, the "native" is supposed to mean "of one's birth". At the bottom I've shown three national anthems containing "native land" in untranslated English, meaning just this, land of one's birth. The fact that "fatherland" and "motherland" seem to have been hijacked or perverted through two particular regimes should not cause you to worry about appearing to endorse either's politics. If people were more accustomed to other cultures and words they would be more immune from having these words elicit negative emotions, and seeing them as mainly products of Nazism and Soviet communism, which most definitely they are not. I personally think it's appropriate to reappropriate these terms for what they really mean. The only way to do justice to your country's patriotic songs are to do an accurate translation. The only way to maintain these two particular words "fatherland" and "motherland" without them continuing to be tainted with these two political ideologies is to rehabilitate them. If you're worried about appearing to support a particular politics just by using these words, I would strongly suggest, given the above information of the way these terms are used in non-pejorative ways, that you not hesitate in doing an accurate translation. If, on the other hand you wish to do it out of respect for those who are particularly sensitive to these particular words, then that's another matter. Also, I would have your same suspicion that the people posting these comments are trolls. Some examples from countries' national anthems (All have English as either de facto or de jure official language: **United States:** "Land of the free, home of the brave". **Australia**: "Our home is girt by sea.... our land abounds in nature's gifts... **Canada:** Our home and native land! (Note the French version literally translates to "land of our ancestors/forefathers/forebears") **Antigua and Barbuda:** To safeguard our native land **Sierra Leone:** Singing thy praise, O native land. **New Zealand:** God defend our free land.
The most neutral option seems to be *homeland*, but I understand the association with the United States. Why not use the slightly less poetic alternative to *land* to avoid that association, and go for *home country*?
472,479
A bit of background here is important - my country historically had an unfriendly relationship with Germans, then got occupied by the Soviet Union, which really liked to justify everything by saying it's fighting the Nazis (and Russia still does); the occupation ended with an independence movement during which there was a significant, nationally broadcasted concert, which among other things, had plenty of old patriotic songs. I cut a recording of the said concert into individual songs and uploaded it to Youtube. I also have been trying to add lyrics to the songs and translate them to English. Although I do want the meaning to be as close to the original as possible, my aim is for people to understand the general idea of the lyrics, not to be too literal and use terms that don't really exist in English. I obviously also don't want anyone to be able to misinterpret it as showing support to any foreign regimes and such, especially given that many older people probably have warm and fuzzy memories about the concert. Now here's the problem - the original lyrics have a word that literally means *the land one (or a group of people) was born in* and can mean just that, but also has patriotic connotations. I translated it as *motherland* and somebody in the comments complained that it should be *fatherland*, along with a snark, that they quickly edited out, that I picked a Russian term. There are terms in our language that literally mean fatherland (and no motherland terms). It wasn't used here, but would be good to know if it is appropriate for future reference in any case. Now I did some quick research: **Motherland** - I thought it was the correct English word and that terms associated only with Russia are just mother Russia or mother motherland. I am now seeing plenty of websites suggest it indeed is associated only with Russia. **Fatherland** - I had the impression that in English it is strongly associated with Nazi Germany. My research seemed to agree. Besides feeding any Russian trolls, if the association is very strong it might end up being weird, if used in a song that actually is about fighting a German enemy. For both of these it was suggested that the one corresponding with the original should be used. So now I am thinking it could be used if the original term actually is *fatherland* or related, but not sure it's the right choice in cases when the original is birth, not father, related. **Homeland** - I found several suggestions that it is the most appropriate neutral translation, quickly followed by a note that it is associated with US Homeland security. **Native land** - seems like it would be close to original, but I don't think I've ever seen it used "in the wild". I did see it used in some dictonary definitions while doing my research. Wouldn't it be associated with something aboriginal? The sentence in the particular case is: > > The fields of [word] are shrouded in mist. > > >
2018/11/11
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/472479", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/323817/" ]
There isn't anything wrong with *native land.* (It hasn't been tarnished by association with Germany, Russia, or the American Department of Homeland Security.) And it is a phrase that has been used for centuries in English. Maybe not as often as the other three phrases, but it's definitely out there "in the wild". For an example from literature, [Lord Byron](https://www.poetryloverspage.com/poets/byron/adieu_adieu_my_native_shore.html) wrote a poem *Adieu, Adieu my Native Shore* around 1815, which contains the phrase *my native land*. It is taken from *Childe Harold's Pilgrimage*, which is in part autobiographical, so the phrase here refers to England. And in Thomas Hardy's book *The Return of the Native*, the title character is a native of Egdon Heath, in England, who has returned from Paris. I suppose if you were using it with respect to a country like Australia or the United States, where white settlers displaced the original natives, some people might think it was insensitive. But otherwise, it should be fine.
It's true that to a certain extent these words are associated in English with Nazi Germany and the Soviet Union, but these are by no means the only associations, nor should they be. First of all, I'd just like to point out that one of the major reasons why these words have these associations is not so much because they have been used predominantly by the previous two regimes I've mentioned, but because people in certain parts of the world are exposed to their popular culture rather than being acquainted with facts or knowing about other parts of the world. To start off, if "homeland" has any mental association with America's Department of Homeland Security (which it may, especially among Americans), it's only possible that this association has existed since 2002, as it was established directly after the September 11 attacks. The term "fatherland" or something close to it is ancient. In Ancient Greek "[patris](http://artflsrv02.uchicago.edu/cgi-bin/efts/dicos/woodhouse_test.pl?keyword=fatherland&sortorder=Keyword)" can be translated as "fatherland". The Latin word is "patria". As to "fatherland" acquiring an association of Third Reich Germany, [Wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fatherland) notes that this association began when countries not using the word "fatherland" became acquainted with German propaganda of the era. We can see the meaning of "fatherland" without Nazistic allusions from the current national anthem of Germany, which despite going through some drastic measures of denazification, still maintains in their anthem the line *"For the German fatherland!"*. Nigeria's anthem contains "Nigeria's call obey to serve our fatherland," and was adopted 1978. East Timor's national anthem adopted in 2002 is named "Fatherland". Some countries' official motto include the word (English translation) "fatherland", including Portugal, Cameroon, Dominican Republic, Latvia and Liechtenstein. And here is a list of populations who refer to their country as the fatherland. [Groups that refer to their native country as "fatherland"](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fatherland#Groups_that_refer_to_their_native_country_as_a_%22fatherland%22) As to "motherland", here's how the dictionaries define it: > > 1.One's native land. > > 2.The land of one's ancestors. > [American Heritage Dictionary](https://www.thefreedictionary.com/motherland) > > > > 2.another word for fatherland > [Collins Dictionary](https://www.thefreedictionary.com/motherland) > > > > Random House Kernernman Webster's Dictionary defines it as "mother country". [Here](https://www.thefreedictionary.com/mother+country) is a list of definitions of "mother country", in case you want to consider it. "mother country" makes sense to me, in same way your mother tongue is the language you're born into. Mauritius adopted its national anthem titled "[Motherland](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Motherland_(anthem))" in 1968. Monserrat's national song "[Motherland](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/National_Song_(Montserrat))" was adopted in 2014. Montserrat is a British Overseas Territory in the Caribbean. Also, about your point that "native land" sounds like land belonging to aborigines, the "native" is supposed to mean "of one's birth". At the bottom I've shown three national anthems containing "native land" in untranslated English, meaning just this, land of one's birth. The fact that "fatherland" and "motherland" seem to have been hijacked or perverted through two particular regimes should not cause you to worry about appearing to endorse either's politics. If people were more accustomed to other cultures and words they would be more immune from having these words elicit negative emotions, and seeing them as mainly products of Nazism and Soviet communism, which most definitely they are not. I personally think it's appropriate to reappropriate these terms for what they really mean. The only way to do justice to your country's patriotic songs are to do an accurate translation. The only way to maintain these two particular words "fatherland" and "motherland" without them continuing to be tainted with these two political ideologies is to rehabilitate them. If you're worried about appearing to support a particular politics just by using these words, I would strongly suggest, given the above information of the way these terms are used in non-pejorative ways, that you not hesitate in doing an accurate translation. If, on the other hand you wish to do it out of respect for those who are particularly sensitive to these particular words, then that's another matter. Also, I would have your same suspicion that the people posting these comments are trolls. Some examples from countries' national anthems (All have English as either de facto or de jure official language: **United States:** "Land of the free, home of the brave". **Australia**: "Our home is girt by sea.... our land abounds in nature's gifts... **Canada:** Our home and native land! (Note the French version literally translates to "land of our ancestors/forefathers/forebears") **Antigua and Barbuda:** To safeguard our native land **Sierra Leone:** Singing thy praise, O native land. **New Zealand:** God defend our free land.
472,479
A bit of background here is important - my country historically had an unfriendly relationship with Germans, then got occupied by the Soviet Union, which really liked to justify everything by saying it's fighting the Nazis (and Russia still does); the occupation ended with an independence movement during which there was a significant, nationally broadcasted concert, which among other things, had plenty of old patriotic songs. I cut a recording of the said concert into individual songs and uploaded it to Youtube. I also have been trying to add lyrics to the songs and translate them to English. Although I do want the meaning to be as close to the original as possible, my aim is for people to understand the general idea of the lyrics, not to be too literal and use terms that don't really exist in English. I obviously also don't want anyone to be able to misinterpret it as showing support to any foreign regimes and such, especially given that many older people probably have warm and fuzzy memories about the concert. Now here's the problem - the original lyrics have a word that literally means *the land one (or a group of people) was born in* and can mean just that, but also has patriotic connotations. I translated it as *motherland* and somebody in the comments complained that it should be *fatherland*, along with a snark, that they quickly edited out, that I picked a Russian term. There are terms in our language that literally mean fatherland (and no motherland terms). It wasn't used here, but would be good to know if it is appropriate for future reference in any case. Now I did some quick research: **Motherland** - I thought it was the correct English word and that terms associated only with Russia are just mother Russia or mother motherland. I am now seeing plenty of websites suggest it indeed is associated only with Russia. **Fatherland** - I had the impression that in English it is strongly associated with Nazi Germany. My research seemed to agree. Besides feeding any Russian trolls, if the association is very strong it might end up being weird, if used in a song that actually is about fighting a German enemy. For both of these it was suggested that the one corresponding with the original should be used. So now I am thinking it could be used if the original term actually is *fatherland* or related, but not sure it's the right choice in cases when the original is birth, not father, related. **Homeland** - I found several suggestions that it is the most appropriate neutral translation, quickly followed by a note that it is associated with US Homeland security. **Native land** - seems like it would be close to original, but I don't think I've ever seen it used "in the wild". I did see it used in some dictonary definitions while doing my research. Wouldn't it be associated with something aboriginal? The sentence in the particular case is: > > The fields of [word] are shrouded in mist. > > >
2018/11/11
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/472479", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/323817/" ]
There isn't anything wrong with *native land.* (It hasn't been tarnished by association with Germany, Russia, or the American Department of Homeland Security.) And it is a phrase that has been used for centuries in English. Maybe not as often as the other three phrases, but it's definitely out there "in the wild". For an example from literature, [Lord Byron](https://www.poetryloverspage.com/poets/byron/adieu_adieu_my_native_shore.html) wrote a poem *Adieu, Adieu my Native Shore* around 1815, which contains the phrase *my native land*. It is taken from *Childe Harold's Pilgrimage*, which is in part autobiographical, so the phrase here refers to England. And in Thomas Hardy's book *The Return of the Native*, the title character is a native of Egdon Heath, in England, who has returned from Paris. I suppose if you were using it with respect to a country like Australia or the United States, where white settlers displaced the original natives, some people might think it was insensitive. But otherwise, it should be fine.
The most neutral option seems to be *homeland*, but I understand the association with the United States. Why not use the slightly less poetic alternative to *land* to avoid that association, and go for *home country*?
160,578
I need to inspect some method information before game starts to implement something in Unity. I can run the script by [ExecuteInEditMode] attribute, however it only works if at least one object in the scene has the script as component. What I want is to run the script in edit mode as soon as Unity finishes each recompilation, without a scene object, so other developers can use my library/framework without creating objects manually. How do I run the script in edit mode after the scripts recompile, without creating an object in the current scene?
2018/07/10
[ "https://gamedev.stackexchange.com/questions/160578", "https://gamedev.stackexchange.com", "https://gamedev.stackexchange.com/users/101860/" ]
I solved this by using "[InitializeOnLoad](https://docs.unity3d.com/Manual/RunningEditorCodeOnLaunch.html)" attribute. Using this attribute without MonoBehaviour, you can run the code what you want.
Try removing the "monobehaviour" attribute from your script. This will seperate the script from any visual objects.
39,840,945
I want to convert a DataTable to a CSV string lines, and I want to have the flexibility to code the string representation of each column (Example: I may want Date values in a specific string format, etc.) I have seen some generic methods to convert a DataTable to CSV here: [c# datatable to csv](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/4959722/c-sharp-datatable-to-csv) But none of the methods address custom string representation. Any suggestions?
2016/10/03
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/39840945", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1113579/" ]
Added as answer so you can mark it as accepted and close the question : > > A target here is not a file, it's a build target described inside your xcodeproj. Open the xcworkspace, select your ApplePaySwag.xcodeproj and inside the bar that says "General", "Build settings" and such, all the way to the left, click on the blue xcodeproj icon and select rename the target that seems to be named " ". > > >
Your pods seem to be correct, but the cocoa pod that your trying to install seems to not be correct, best thing to do is double check to make sure you are typing in the exact name for the cocoa pod.
13,000,815
I'm learning to build web-apps in the Yii PHP framework, but I think my question applies to web-applications in general. I want to know how to structure database tables for comments that relate to different types of parent objects, i.e- photos or posts. Photos and Posts are inherently different and wouldn't sit in the same table. However the comments on these objects are in most cases of identical format. My question is two fold, is it possible to put comments for multiple parent objects into the same table? [Seems to me to be the natural solution, but I'm not sure how to take care of this with foreign/primary keys etc. I think it also needs a key to point towards the type of parent object...?] Second, if it is possible to put these comments into the same table, is it efficient to do so, is it more efficient to have a comment table for every parent object? Thanks in advance, hope it's an interesting enough topic for someone. Cheers, Nick
2012/10/21
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/13000815", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1104955/" ]
The other option is to have a post table to which all posts relate (regardless of type). So whether it's a photo or a normal post, it will have a records created for it in this table. Depending on the type of content, you could store both photos and normal posts in this table (with optional fields for each, eg: photo, photo\_type, post\_content could be optional depending on what type is being created (this would be a good opportunity to learn about Yii model validation scenarios). So you post table would look something like: * id * post\_content * photo * photo\_type * etc... If you choose not to store both in the same table, you could have 1 table for photos and 1 for posts which relate back to a post\_id That way, you could have a single comment table (which regardless is the correct route) which relate to a post\_id.
I would model Comment as a table on it's own. The Comment table would have a columns for PhotoId and PostId. These are foreign keys that allow nulls. Then a database check constraint would ensure that exactly one of PhotoId and PostId is null. i.e. each comment is attached to exactly one parent.
13,000,815
I'm learning to build web-apps in the Yii PHP framework, but I think my question applies to web-applications in general. I want to know how to structure database tables for comments that relate to different types of parent objects, i.e- photos or posts. Photos and Posts are inherently different and wouldn't sit in the same table. However the comments on these objects are in most cases of identical format. My question is two fold, is it possible to put comments for multiple parent objects into the same table? [Seems to me to be the natural solution, but I'm not sure how to take care of this with foreign/primary keys etc. I think it also needs a key to point towards the type of parent object...?] Second, if it is possible to put these comments into the same table, is it efficient to do so, is it more efficient to have a comment table for every parent object? Thanks in advance, hope it's an interesting enough topic for someone. Cheers, Nick
2012/10/21
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/13000815", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1104955/" ]
The other option is to have a post table to which all posts relate (regardless of type). So whether it's a photo or a normal post, it will have a records created for it in this table. Depending on the type of content, you could store both photos and normal posts in this table (with optional fields for each, eg: photo, photo\_type, post\_content could be optional depending on what type is being created (this would be a good opportunity to learn about Yii model validation scenarios). So you post table would look something like: * id * post\_content * photo * photo\_type * etc... If you choose not to store both in the same table, you could have 1 table for photos and 1 for posts which relate back to a post\_id That way, you could have a single comment table (which regardless is the correct route) which relate to a post\_id.
I can suggest 3 table structure Table: [Entity\_Types] (List all object titles such as photos, posts) Example: PK:1001, "Photos" Table: [Photos] Example: PK:2001, "My 1st Photo Title" PK:2002, "My 2nd Photo Title" Table: [Comments] Examples: PK:3001, "My 1st Comment for My 1st Photo", FK:1001, FK:2001 PK:3002, "My 2nd Comment for My 1st Photo", FK:1001, FK:2001 PK:3003, "My 1st Comment for My 2nd Photo", FK:1001, FK:2002
13,000,815
I'm learning to build web-apps in the Yii PHP framework, but I think my question applies to web-applications in general. I want to know how to structure database tables for comments that relate to different types of parent objects, i.e- photos or posts. Photos and Posts are inherently different and wouldn't sit in the same table. However the comments on these objects are in most cases of identical format. My question is two fold, is it possible to put comments for multiple parent objects into the same table? [Seems to me to be the natural solution, but I'm not sure how to take care of this with foreign/primary keys etc. I think it also needs a key to point towards the type of parent object...?] Second, if it is possible to put these comments into the same table, is it efficient to do so, is it more efficient to have a comment table for every parent object? Thanks in advance, hope it's an interesting enough topic for someone. Cheers, Nick
2012/10/21
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/13000815", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1104955/" ]
I would model Comment as a table on it's own. The Comment table would have a columns for PhotoId and PostId. These are foreign keys that allow nulls. Then a database check constraint would ensure that exactly one of PhotoId and PostId is null. i.e. each comment is attached to exactly one parent.
I can suggest 3 table structure Table: [Entity\_Types] (List all object titles such as photos, posts) Example: PK:1001, "Photos" Table: [Photos] Example: PK:2001, "My 1st Photo Title" PK:2002, "My 2nd Photo Title" Table: [Comments] Examples: PK:3001, "My 1st Comment for My 1st Photo", FK:1001, FK:2001 PK:3002, "My 2nd Comment for My 1st Photo", FK:1001, FK:2001 PK:3003, "My 1st Comment for My 2nd Photo", FK:1001, FK:2002
300,786
I'm trying to design a digital clock that will use several electromagnets and iron filings to show the time. Each digit should have 7 electromagnets that turned on and off to attract the metal shavings through white plexiglass (I'm also considering using immersion oil to make it easier for the filings to reform). However, I'm stuck on how to design the electromagnet itself. I initially started with a solenoid, however, I quickly learned that the shavings will mainly attract two ends, leaving the middle of the digit line with no definition. I'm looking for advice on how this might be done. Will wrapping the wire vertically instead of horizontally be a better choice? Should I use a different shape altogether? Thank you,
2017/04/20
[ "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/300786", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/146500/" ]
rotate your electromagnet by 90°, so that its axis is perpendicular to the plexiglass. That's kind of obvious – it puts only one of the filings-attrackting ends close to the glass. If you wind your magnet around a rectangular-crosssection piece of iron, then you can make "straight lines". Notice that even these lines will be feathered – the filings will align along the magnetic field lines, and those form a convex shape from one end to the other
Filings are hard to manage, once you get them attracted to a pole piece they are actually hard to get off due to residual magnetic retention effects. You may have to use a high frequency AC signal to demagnetize them. You might be better off using a Ferro Fluid. This is dense, but with very low magnetic retention. Of course like all things novel.....it's already been [done](http://www.thisiscolossal.com/2015/08/ferrolic-magnetic-clock/) quite effectively. The researchers even wrote a [paper](http://isea2015.org/proceeding/submissions/ISEA2015_submission_246.pdf) showing the methodology and a good picture of the electromagnets. I've always fancied making one of these since they showed the prototype...but never got around to it. It looks like it would be fun manipulating the blobs of Ferro fluid to build characters. Show pictures when you are done!!
300,786
I'm trying to design a digital clock that will use several electromagnets and iron filings to show the time. Each digit should have 7 electromagnets that turned on and off to attract the metal shavings through white plexiglass (I'm also considering using immersion oil to make it easier for the filings to reform). However, I'm stuck on how to design the electromagnet itself. I initially started with a solenoid, however, I quickly learned that the shavings will mainly attract two ends, leaving the middle of the digit line with no definition. I'm looking for advice on how this might be done. Will wrapping the wire vertically instead of horizontally be a better choice? Should I use a different shape altogether? Thank you,
2017/04/20
[ "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/300786", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com", "https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/146500/" ]
I see two workable options for accomplishing something close to what you're describing: 1. Build the electromagnets with a flattened (as opposed to round) core, then place one pole against the underside of the plexiglass. This would attract filings fairly uniformly to that "segment." 2. Build the electromagnets as small "horseshoe magnets" with both poles touching the underside of the plexiglass (and the windings around the middle). This would form poles at either end, and gaussian lines connecting them, which may prove to give you better "resolution" in getting your iron filings to line up in a recognizable digit. CAVEAT: Both of these designs should work well for a 1-segment "test case," but there will be more problems to overcome when you start combining segments. I think option #1 may have less "intersegment interference," so long as all poles are equal and synchronised in-phase with each other. However, in practice there are a lot of ways for the electromagnets to interfere with each other when in close enough proximity to form a 7-seg. display. ... In the end, you'll have to do a lot of testing & adjusting, and may end up having to use magnetically shielded segments of some form.
Filings are hard to manage, once you get them attracted to a pole piece they are actually hard to get off due to residual magnetic retention effects. You may have to use a high frequency AC signal to demagnetize them. You might be better off using a Ferro Fluid. This is dense, but with very low magnetic retention. Of course like all things novel.....it's already been [done](http://www.thisiscolossal.com/2015/08/ferrolic-magnetic-clock/) quite effectively. The researchers even wrote a [paper](http://isea2015.org/proceeding/submissions/ISEA2015_submission_246.pdf) showing the methodology and a good picture of the electromagnets. I've always fancied making one of these since they showed the prototype...but never got around to it. It looks like it would be fun manipulating the blobs of Ferro fluid to build characters. Show pictures when you are done!!
1,292
This doesn't happen often, but occasionally, when I get really excited about something, when I try to talk, I trip up on my words, stutter a bit, and what-not. I'm not even really sure why it happens, and it doesn't happen super often. For example, once I got really excited about a physics book I was reading and was explaining part of it to a friend who is also interested in physics, and I started mixing up my words and stuttering. I think I also might have said a few words twice. My friends are kind enough to look past it, but I'd like to try to stop doing it, in case I get that sort of excited in a not quite as friendly social situation. How bad does stuttering look in a conversation of that sort, and how can I stop doing it?
2017/08/03
[ "https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/questions/1292", "https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com", "https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/users/2128/" ]
I believe I know where you're coming from, I often feel the same way. This is what I do to stop myself: 1. Stop talking for a second or excuse yourself. Go in the other room, take a deep breath and focus on your surroundings. (These are mediation techniques) 2. Don't rush yourself when you talk, take time to think of the words you want to say. Finish your sentence before going to another topic. *It's ok to talk slowly.* 3. Ask yourself why this happens when it does. Maybe you really like the person you're talking to? Are you afraid of looking dumb, boring, silly? Work on this issue with yourself. 4. If you don't already, talk to more people. I find that if I've been a hermit all week, I'll stutter more upon going back to conversing. Talk to random people on the street, people around you, or call a friend. Do this just for practice. Finding words isn't always easy. 5. Be aware of how you feel physically. I'll fumble more when I have an empty belly and have drank caffeine.
I have same problem, much worse than you however. I stuttered since I was small, and still do. Mostly when I want to say something long and fast, such as explaining something. I have a few ways I have dealt with the situation, they help a lot. 1. Most importantly is to mentally tell your self to slow down. This takes practice and even I fail sometimes. But when I do slow down, I definitely stutter less. (I noticed that if I get interrupted by my speaking partner, I will stutter more because now i am semi fighting him to finish my sentence). So gotta not worry about finishing your piece before he speaks. 2. I do breathing exercises, run and swim to enlarge my lungs. Not sure about you but when I stutter it feels like I am out of breath and can't finish that sentence. 3. Talk out loud when reading books or internet articles. Did you know the most famous Greek speaker Demosthenes beat his stuttering by chewing pebbles while speaking to the ocean? I am not suggestion you do same, as I haven't tried it either ;) but it demonstrates importance of talk out loud. Link below: <https://www.google.com/amp/s/euroepinomics.wordpress.com/2013/10/22/the-pebbles-of-demosthenes-the-kings-speech-and-the-genetics-of-stuttering/amp/>
1,292
This doesn't happen often, but occasionally, when I get really excited about something, when I try to talk, I trip up on my words, stutter a bit, and what-not. I'm not even really sure why it happens, and it doesn't happen super often. For example, once I got really excited about a physics book I was reading and was explaining part of it to a friend who is also interested in physics, and I started mixing up my words and stuttering. I think I also might have said a few words twice. My friends are kind enough to look past it, but I'd like to try to stop doing it, in case I get that sort of excited in a not quite as friendly social situation. How bad does stuttering look in a conversation of that sort, and how can I stop doing it?
2017/08/03
[ "https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/questions/1292", "https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com", "https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/users/2128/" ]
I believe I know where you're coming from, I often feel the same way. This is what I do to stop myself: 1. Stop talking for a second or excuse yourself. Go in the other room, take a deep breath and focus on your surroundings. (These are mediation techniques) 2. Don't rush yourself when you talk, take time to think of the words you want to say. Finish your sentence before going to another topic. *It's ok to talk slowly.* 3. Ask yourself why this happens when it does. Maybe you really like the person you're talking to? Are you afraid of looking dumb, boring, silly? Work on this issue with yourself. 4. If you don't already, talk to more people. I find that if I've been a hermit all week, I'll stutter more upon going back to conversing. Talk to random people on the street, people around you, or call a friend. Do this just for practice. Finding words isn't always easy. 5. Be aware of how you feel physically. I'll fumble more when I have an empty belly and have drank caffeine.
One technique I specifically find quite helpful is to take three (short) breaths in, and one long, slow breath out. Followed by correctly saying the sentence that had tripped me up to begin with - sometimes slowly or with emphasis, depending on how badly I tangled it. I've been using this technique so long I've forgotten where I found it, it works quite well for me. Especially since it may not always be easy to step aside for a moment, as Alex Common mentioned. This is a thoroughly unnatural breathing pattern, and takes a bit of concentration to boot, so it helps give a bit of distance and breathing room (ha!) from the conversation. Between that and getting that darn sentence right, it usually calms me down enough to start speaking correctly again. Speaking a bit more slowly and taking a little time, even half a second, to plan how I want to say my point helps keep it from happening again. You may find other breathing patterns or self-distraction techniques useful, as well as or instead of what I described. Even a single deep breath may be enough to help. Or else maybe closing your eyes, and/or making some slow hand gesture, just somehow distracting yourself from the conversation for a second, just long enough to slow yourself down a bit. You can also look up meditation breathing or techniques, for visualizations to pair with such an exercise or other ideas that might speak to you better. As a disclaimer, I don't stutter myself so can't say how it may or may not be useful for that, specifically. I tend to use it because when I get overexcited I skip words or tangle my sentences, and generally trip myself up - and then get flustered, which doesn't help me untangle myself.
1,292
This doesn't happen often, but occasionally, when I get really excited about something, when I try to talk, I trip up on my words, stutter a bit, and what-not. I'm not even really sure why it happens, and it doesn't happen super often. For example, once I got really excited about a physics book I was reading and was explaining part of it to a friend who is also interested in physics, and I started mixing up my words and stuttering. I think I also might have said a few words twice. My friends are kind enough to look past it, but I'd like to try to stop doing it, in case I get that sort of excited in a not quite as friendly social situation. How bad does stuttering look in a conversation of that sort, and how can I stop doing it?
2017/08/03
[ "https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/questions/1292", "https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com", "https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/users/2128/" ]
I have same problem, much worse than you however. I stuttered since I was small, and still do. Mostly when I want to say something long and fast, such as explaining something. I have a few ways I have dealt with the situation, they help a lot. 1. Most importantly is to mentally tell your self to slow down. This takes practice and even I fail sometimes. But when I do slow down, I definitely stutter less. (I noticed that if I get interrupted by my speaking partner, I will stutter more because now i am semi fighting him to finish my sentence). So gotta not worry about finishing your piece before he speaks. 2. I do breathing exercises, run and swim to enlarge my lungs. Not sure about you but when I stutter it feels like I am out of breath and can't finish that sentence. 3. Talk out loud when reading books or internet articles. Did you know the most famous Greek speaker Demosthenes beat his stuttering by chewing pebbles while speaking to the ocean? I am not suggestion you do same, as I haven't tried it either ;) but it demonstrates importance of talk out loud. Link below: <https://www.google.com/amp/s/euroepinomics.wordpress.com/2013/10/22/the-pebbles-of-demosthenes-the-kings-speech-and-the-genetics-of-stuttering/amp/>
One technique I specifically find quite helpful is to take three (short) breaths in, and one long, slow breath out. Followed by correctly saying the sentence that had tripped me up to begin with - sometimes slowly or with emphasis, depending on how badly I tangled it. I've been using this technique so long I've forgotten where I found it, it works quite well for me. Especially since it may not always be easy to step aside for a moment, as Alex Common mentioned. This is a thoroughly unnatural breathing pattern, and takes a bit of concentration to boot, so it helps give a bit of distance and breathing room (ha!) from the conversation. Between that and getting that darn sentence right, it usually calms me down enough to start speaking correctly again. Speaking a bit more slowly and taking a little time, even half a second, to plan how I want to say my point helps keep it from happening again. You may find other breathing patterns or self-distraction techniques useful, as well as or instead of what I described. Even a single deep breath may be enough to help. Or else maybe closing your eyes, and/or making some slow hand gesture, just somehow distracting yourself from the conversation for a second, just long enough to slow yourself down a bit. You can also look up meditation breathing or techniques, for visualizations to pair with such an exercise or other ideas that might speak to you better. As a disclaimer, I don't stutter myself so can't say how it may or may not be useful for that, specifically. I tend to use it because when I get overexcited I skip words or tangle my sentences, and generally trip myself up - and then get flustered, which doesn't help me untangle myself.
1,292
This doesn't happen often, but occasionally, when I get really excited about something, when I try to talk, I trip up on my words, stutter a bit, and what-not. I'm not even really sure why it happens, and it doesn't happen super often. For example, once I got really excited about a physics book I was reading and was explaining part of it to a friend who is also interested in physics, and I started mixing up my words and stuttering. I think I also might have said a few words twice. My friends are kind enough to look past it, but I'd like to try to stop doing it, in case I get that sort of excited in a not quite as friendly social situation. How bad does stuttering look in a conversation of that sort, and how can I stop doing it?
2017/08/03
[ "https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/questions/1292", "https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com", "https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/users/2128/" ]
Other answers have focused on breathing that you can do to stop the stuttering so I'll skip that part. Although that's great, sometimes I find it hard to do in the moment, especially if people are paying attention to me and expecting me to continue. In those cases, its good to buy yourself a bit of time by deflecting with humor. For example saying, "Wow, I'm so excited about this book I'm tripping over myself!" or "I'm so excited about it I can't speak straight!" This will automatically put your audience at ease, because you are addressing your stutter and not ignoring it, and will give you a few seconds to take a breath and start again. It's also useful because if, slightly further into the conversation, you find yourself stuttering or tripping over words, you've already established the reason for it and can reiterate, "See, told you I was excited, tripping over myself again *haha*". It makes it less awkward for you and the other people in your conversation which in turn will make you feel more at ease and stutter less.
I have same problem, much worse than you however. I stuttered since I was small, and still do. Mostly when I want to say something long and fast, such as explaining something. I have a few ways I have dealt with the situation, they help a lot. 1. Most importantly is to mentally tell your self to slow down. This takes practice and even I fail sometimes. But when I do slow down, I definitely stutter less. (I noticed that if I get interrupted by my speaking partner, I will stutter more because now i am semi fighting him to finish my sentence). So gotta not worry about finishing your piece before he speaks. 2. I do breathing exercises, run and swim to enlarge my lungs. Not sure about you but when I stutter it feels like I am out of breath and can't finish that sentence. 3. Talk out loud when reading books or internet articles. Did you know the most famous Greek speaker Demosthenes beat his stuttering by chewing pebbles while speaking to the ocean? I am not suggestion you do same, as I haven't tried it either ;) but it demonstrates importance of talk out loud. Link below: <https://www.google.com/amp/s/euroepinomics.wordpress.com/2013/10/22/the-pebbles-of-demosthenes-the-kings-speech-and-the-genetics-of-stuttering/amp/>
1,292
This doesn't happen often, but occasionally, when I get really excited about something, when I try to talk, I trip up on my words, stutter a bit, and what-not. I'm not even really sure why it happens, and it doesn't happen super often. For example, once I got really excited about a physics book I was reading and was explaining part of it to a friend who is also interested in physics, and I started mixing up my words and stuttering. I think I also might have said a few words twice. My friends are kind enough to look past it, but I'd like to try to stop doing it, in case I get that sort of excited in a not quite as friendly social situation. How bad does stuttering look in a conversation of that sort, and how can I stop doing it?
2017/08/03
[ "https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/questions/1292", "https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com", "https://interpersonal.stackexchange.com/users/2128/" ]
Other answers have focused on breathing that you can do to stop the stuttering so I'll skip that part. Although that's great, sometimes I find it hard to do in the moment, especially if people are paying attention to me and expecting me to continue. In those cases, its good to buy yourself a bit of time by deflecting with humor. For example saying, "Wow, I'm so excited about this book I'm tripping over myself!" or "I'm so excited about it I can't speak straight!" This will automatically put your audience at ease, because you are addressing your stutter and not ignoring it, and will give you a few seconds to take a breath and start again. It's also useful because if, slightly further into the conversation, you find yourself stuttering or tripping over words, you've already established the reason for it and can reiterate, "See, told you I was excited, tripping over myself again *haha*". It makes it less awkward for you and the other people in your conversation which in turn will make you feel more at ease and stutter less.
One technique I specifically find quite helpful is to take three (short) breaths in, and one long, slow breath out. Followed by correctly saying the sentence that had tripped me up to begin with - sometimes slowly or with emphasis, depending on how badly I tangled it. I've been using this technique so long I've forgotten where I found it, it works quite well for me. Especially since it may not always be easy to step aside for a moment, as Alex Common mentioned. This is a thoroughly unnatural breathing pattern, and takes a bit of concentration to boot, so it helps give a bit of distance and breathing room (ha!) from the conversation. Between that and getting that darn sentence right, it usually calms me down enough to start speaking correctly again. Speaking a bit more slowly and taking a little time, even half a second, to plan how I want to say my point helps keep it from happening again. You may find other breathing patterns or self-distraction techniques useful, as well as or instead of what I described. Even a single deep breath may be enough to help. Or else maybe closing your eyes, and/or making some slow hand gesture, just somehow distracting yourself from the conversation for a second, just long enough to slow yourself down a bit. You can also look up meditation breathing or techniques, for visualizations to pair with such an exercise or other ideas that might speak to you better. As a disclaimer, I don't stutter myself so can't say how it may or may not be useful for that, specifically. I tend to use it because when I get overexcited I skip words or tangle my sentences, and generally trip myself up - and then get flustered, which doesn't help me untangle myself.
56,713,686
I've uploaded my app to the play store and all was good, but suddenly I received an email from Google about problems in my icon launcher size. It's a real problem for me, because the app is for a venue, and the venue is in 3 days. I'm disrespected about this because I tried a lot of different changes but nothing appears to work. I tried to contact google play support to, but never received an answer :( this is the email that Google sends me every 8 hours. (Because I upload a new version and work) > > Hi, Developers at the map, > > > After review, Agroactiva, com.agroactiva.agrofy, has been removed from > Google Play because it violates the device and network abuse policy. > The large dimensions of your app's launcher icon negatively impact the > performance of some user devices. > > > Next Steps > > > Make changes to your app icon to bring your app into compliance. Your > app’s launcher icon size must not exceed 2048x2048. Read through the > Device and Network Abuse policy for more details, and make sure your > app complies with all policies listed in the Developer Program > Policies. Sign in to your Play Console and submit the policy compliant > update. If approved, your app will again be available with all > installs, ratings, and reviews intact. > > > If you've reviewed our policies and feel this removal may have been in > error, please reach out to our policy support team. We'll get back to > you within 2 business days. > > > Regards, > > > The Google Play Review Team > > >
2019/06/22
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/56713686", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1916590/" ]
Well, finally i could find the problem :). After various emails with Google team people, they said me that the problem of the icon size was in a very old apk in the a beta channel created a year ago. They never mention what apk version is wrong in the email, and I never imagin thst Google can remove an app beacuse a beta close channel has a invalid apk. In resume, if you receive an email from Google removing your app, and in the email body you can't see the apk version, you need to check in beta or alpha channel too, not matter if the channel is closed.
Did you try to actually change your icon size? If yes and you fit then this is strange. Google has been known for taking down developer accounts of apps that generate good revenue for no reason
7,134,952
A friend and I would like to do some real-time collaboration with Eclipse. Does anyone know a way we can share the entire project? I've looked around and I can't really find anything but something called Cola, and I can't find anything more on that than a video of them using it. We've already installed the latest ECF, so if we're headed in the right direction, what's next?
2011/08/20
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/7134952", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/798844/" ]
I think [Saros](http://www.saros-project.org/) is what you are looking for.
The instructions for Cola are [right here.](http://wiki.eclipse.org/DocShare_Plugin)
5,649
I'm planning to reinstall my OS by not formatting my root partition (I only use a single partition) as this will preserve the contents of my home directory, but the problem is that when I've done it in the past, it's wiped all my third party applications, and I was wondering if there was a way I could back up and restore them afterwards.
2010/10/10
[ "https://askubuntu.com/questions/5649", "https://askubuntu.com", "https://askubuntu.com/users/-1/" ]
You can do this in the synaptic package manager (System->Administration) Make sure your selection is in the "All" section then go to File->Save markings, make sure you check mark "Save full state, not only changes" then save (somewhere where it won't be formatted ;) When you are done installing you can go to File->Read markings Most of your programs will download, except the ones which you added a repository for (well at least until you re-enter them). You might have to fix some of the broken packages in synaptic after as well. I'm sure someone else might now how to backup and restore the sources list..
as i read, stipple is the best solution while oneconf is final: "Save a list of installed applications, .config files, and other settings to a couchDB. Sync this DB to other computers with Ubuntu One. This application also helps you install those packages and .config files on your other computers." <https://launchpad.net/stipple>
10,258,452
the code comes from a Qt library that helps produce buttons with the shape of an image; it scans through all lines y and all the width x, generating the following change when the rgb part of the pixel coincides with the masking one (mp is the pointer at the start of the line and it is prefilled with 0xff): \*(mp + (x >> 3)) &= ~(1 << (x & 7)); I can't really interpret it; anyone with background to give a hand?
2012/04/21
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/10258452", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1119394/" ]
From the looks of the code, mp points to the current line of a 1 bit per pixel image. The code clears the bit representing the pixel at X. It converts the X offset into a byte offset (x >> 3) and then logical AND's the byte with a mask created from the inverse 1 shifted left by the X position within the byte.
for the mortals; ok, background: <http://www.cprogramming.com/tutorial/bitwise_operators.html>; &= means we are gonna do a bitwise multiplication; in the rhs, the ~ is for the complement, so it flips 1s with 0s and viceversa; 7 in binary has 3 ones in the end and all zeros at front, so x & 7 preserves the last 3 bits in x; combined with << this will move the 1 in the first bit from the char 1 to the left a certain number of places in accordance with the exponent; since the exponent is only using the last 3 bits of x, it is smaller than 8(2^3); so the bit with the one will get in the position 1-8 within the 8 bits of the char; the flip ~ will turn the thing into all 1s except in that magic position; the multiplication performed by the &= will preserve everything in the lhs except that one bit. now for the lhs; we are kicking the last byte or the last 3 bits of x out with >> in a right shift operation; this means the location we'll modify the same byte (char type of mp) for every 8 increments of x; when we "jump", we'll do so by only one byte; when x=9 it will go to mp+1, when x= 17 it will go to mp+2; so it is like x/2^3 in integer operations, but in one shift operation; ok, now we have the elements to understand the whole thing; tmask has been prefilled with 0xff, all ones; which means that it will be passive upon the &= operation, preserving what the rhs dictactes; this means that in case the there's a hit in an if statement that checks if the particular pixel is equal to the background, then this line is executed and we will wipe the specific bit related to the pixel;
52,223
After a recent firefox upgrade, the integration with the unity launcher went pear-shaped. Clicking on the Firefox icon does not move focus to the running firefox, but starts another firefox instance / window. I tried removing it from the launcher and re-adding it but I couldn't re-add it in any way except adding a Firefox shortcut launcher to the desktop and adding that to the launcher, but the same problem persists where clicking on the icon just opens new Firefox windows instead of bringing up the existing window. I'm running Ubuntu 11.04 64 bit with normal Unity desktop. Is there a way to reset the configuration of the launcher to work normally with Firefox again?
2011/07/07
[ "https://askubuntu.com/questions/52223", "https://askubuntu.com", "https://askubuntu.com/users/90/" ]
I rebooted my computer and the problem got resolved on its own.
This works for me: 1. Completely quit Firefox (File | Quit) 2. Remove your existing Firefox launcher from Unity 3. Hit Alt+F2, type 'firefox' to filter results, and *drag* the result into the Unity bar [edited to replace earlier not-working solution]
52,223
After a recent firefox upgrade, the integration with the unity launcher went pear-shaped. Clicking on the Firefox icon does not move focus to the running firefox, but starts another firefox instance / window. I tried removing it from the launcher and re-adding it but I couldn't re-add it in any way except adding a Firefox shortcut launcher to the desktop and adding that to the launcher, but the same problem persists where clicking on the icon just opens new Firefox windows instead of bringing up the existing window. I'm running Ubuntu 11.04 64 bit with normal Unity desktop. Is there a way to reset the configuration of the launcher to work normally with Firefox again?
2011/07/07
[ "https://askubuntu.com/questions/52223", "https://askubuntu.com", "https://askubuntu.com/users/90/" ]
This works for me: 1. Completely quit Firefox (File | Quit) 2. Remove your existing Firefox launcher from Unity 3. Hit Alt+F2, type 'firefox' to filter results, and *drag* the result into the Unity bar [edited to replace earlier not-working solution]
Dragging it onto the launcher didn't work for me. I still had the same issue. I ended up dragging the firefox shortcut to the desktop and then to the Launcher. If the shortcut is deleted from the desktop it is also removed from the launcher.
52,223
After a recent firefox upgrade, the integration with the unity launcher went pear-shaped. Clicking on the Firefox icon does not move focus to the running firefox, but starts another firefox instance / window. I tried removing it from the launcher and re-adding it but I couldn't re-add it in any way except adding a Firefox shortcut launcher to the desktop and adding that to the launcher, but the same problem persists where clicking on the icon just opens new Firefox windows instead of bringing up the existing window. I'm running Ubuntu 11.04 64 bit with normal Unity desktop. Is there a way to reset the configuration of the launcher to work normally with Firefox again?
2011/07/07
[ "https://askubuntu.com/questions/52223", "https://askubuntu.com", "https://askubuntu.com/users/90/" ]
I rebooted my computer and the problem got resolved on its own.
Dragging it onto the launcher didn't work for me. I still had the same issue. I ended up dragging the firefox shortcut to the desktop and then to the Launcher. If the shortcut is deleted from the desktop it is also removed from the launcher.
64,485,441
I am newbie to AWS and looking to resolve the API Gateway issue. We had a frontend web application where if users perform any activity by clicking a **Personal Details** link then request will hit the AWS API Gateway "A" and trigger lambda-A. We created AWS code pipeline and deployed application using Cloud Formation Stack which creates new API Gateway-B and Lambda-B. After the deployment it was intended that when ever user hits the **Personal Details** it should hit API Gateway-B and triggering the Lambda-B instead it was hitting old AWS API Gateway "A" and triggering lambda-A. Any help will be highly appreciated. Regards, Raghu
2020/10/22
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/64485441", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/14145437/" ]
You need to update the base path mapping of your backend domain to API Gateway B. Or you have to edit the backend url in frontend code to new api gateway url [Custom domains with API Gateway](https://docs.aws.amazon.com/apigateway/latest/developerguide/how-to-custom-domains.html)
This was due to the User request from Website navigating to data power (third party vendor for security). In data power it was configured to old API Gateway, so we changed it to new API Gateway.
64,485,441
I am newbie to AWS and looking to resolve the API Gateway issue. We had a frontend web application where if users perform any activity by clicking a **Personal Details** link then request will hit the AWS API Gateway "A" and trigger lambda-A. We created AWS code pipeline and deployed application using Cloud Formation Stack which creates new API Gateway-B and Lambda-B. After the deployment it was intended that when ever user hits the **Personal Details** it should hit API Gateway-B and triggering the Lambda-B instead it was hitting old AWS API Gateway "A" and triggering lambda-A. Any help will be highly appreciated. Regards, Raghu
2020/10/22
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/64485441", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/14145437/" ]
You need to change Lambda function in API Gateway. Please check this article which have screenshots. <https://aws.amazon.com/blogs/compute/using-api-gateway-stage-variables-to-manage-lambda-functions/> <https://docs.aws.amazon.com/lambda/latest/dg/services-apigateway.html> Also I want to recommend you to use Serverless for your project.
This was due to the User request from Website navigating to data power (third party vendor for security). In data power it was configured to old API Gateway, so we changed it to new API Gateway.
11,603,822
I have been designing many applications for my company lately where "fancy" interfaces have not been needed, and where the "basic" controls have been good enough in terms of looks. However, I have just been handed a project where the "typical" VS(Visual Studio 2010) look is not going to cut it. Is there some where that I can get "fancy"er looking controls for VS so that it does not look like a cheap build, or a basic windows program?
2012/07/22
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/11603822", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/882445/" ]
Go and learn [**Windows Presentation Foundation**](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Windows_Presentation_Foundation). It utilizes DirectX and provides developers with a compact model for building rich user experiences for Windows-based systems. You can start [on this tutorial site](http://www.wpftutorial.net/ "here") to learn about what WPF is and what you can do with that framework. Also check out these components to see the power of WPF: * [DevExpress DXperience](http://www.devexpress.com/Subscriptions/DXperience/WhatsNew2012v1/wpf.xml) * [Telerik](http://www.telerik.com/products/wpf/overview.aspx) * [ComponentOne](http://www.componentone.com/SuperProducts/StudioWPF/) * [Syncfusion](http://www.syncfusion.com/products/user-interface-edition/wpf)
Some of the options: 1. Move to WPF. 2. [Telerik](http://www.telerik.com/), [Devexpress](http://devexpress.com/), [Infragistics](http://www.infragistics.com/) etc offer richer library, but could leave a hole in your pocket. 3. Bare minimum, you could just [How can you make a .net windows forms project look fresh?](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/33703/how-can-you-make-a-net-windows-forms-project-look-fresh)
61,543
Warren Buffett has famously said that he could generate 50% annual returns if he was working with small sums of money. (He cannot move the needle enough now with large amounts of capital). Perhaps two reasons could explain this, holding his skill level fixed, 1) there are just more smaller companies and therefore more opportunities available and 2) smaller companies are less closely covered and likely subject to mispricing. This all makes sense under a value investing assumption. Given his 50% claim, this sort of mispricing seems extreme. Are there are any extreme inefficiencies (exploitable on the magnitude of 30%+ annual) using a quant trading viewpoint that are available to those with skill but small sums of money but closed to those with a lot of capital? What sort of examples are there? What is the evidence?
2021/03/05
[ "https://quant.stackexchange.com/questions/61543", "https://quant.stackexchange.com", "https://quant.stackexchange.com/users/43525/" ]
The claim that there are small opportunities that are overlooked by large institutions is increasingly untrue. Some large firms specialize specifically in aggregating a large number of low capacity strategies with low frequency signals. With good infrastructure, these firms can seek out a very large number of signals, each with very low incidence, much more quickly than a smaller outfit. A high level workflow for this approach is to: 1. Have a good model construction and fitting pipeline. 2. Have data pipelines and normalized data representation that make it easy to construct design matrices for any arbitrary ticker in any arbitrary venue. 3. Have a common set of features that can be constructed over such normalized data, and expanded over a parameter space. 4. In an embarrassingly parallel manner, fit model(s) or signal(s) over all possible symbols on a first pass. 5. Where sensible, treat these model(s) or signal(s) as meta-features which are then fed into an ensemble model so that it can be aggregated into one strategy. 6. Traders hand-tune these model(s) or signal(s) either with the aid of simulation or post-trade log from live trading OR the model(s) and signal(s) are themselves fed into a monetization model that optimizes the execution trajectory. 7. Pass all orders to an internal matching engine (or "internalizer") that matches orders between different strategies before sending them out to the public gateway, and/or administrate these strategies separately (e.g. different siloed teams working for the same company), giving them separate accounts and/or session IDs and relying on venue-side self-match prevention to mitigate wash trading. It's not unusual for such a firm to have thousands of "strategies" being monitored by just 1 trader. Individually, some of these strategies may have extremely low capacity (trigger rate in the single digit per day, and only requires <$100k of margin).
Small lot securitized product bonds or greatly factored down ones.
122,538
I'm trying to reformat my 32G SD card to prepare it for my raspberry pi. My GUI program on my mac does not allow me to format it to ext3 which is what i'm told to reformat it to for my raspberry pi. How do I reformat this SD card to ext3. I've researched some links on how to do it from the command line but i'm having a hard time understanding the procedures. Is there a GUI program out there that will do this for me or will i need to do it from the command line. I've tried using fdisk but i can't figure out what commands I need to add on to erase and format to ext3. I know the path and name of my SD card which is /dev/disk1s1 so that is no problem. I've also tried using the GUI program SDFormatter which is located here (<https://www.sdcard.org/downloads/formatter_4>). But I doubt this will reformat it to the format I want which is ext3. It takes some time to write a Linux distro to my SD card so I would like to get this right. Otherwise I wait for 2 hours for the writing process to complete plug in the SD card and then start up my pi and notice it doesn't work. I would like to stay away from making this time consuming mistake another time.
2014/02/20
[ "https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/122538", "https://apple.stackexchange.com", "https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/-1/" ]
Minor addition to other excellent answers: On the raspberry pi site, on the page <https://www.raspberrypi.org/help/noobs-setup/> ... they write: "It is best to format your SD card before copying the NOOBS files onto it. To do this: * Visit the SD Association’s website and download SD Formatter 4.0 for either Windows or Mac. * Follow the instructions to install the software. * Insert your SD card into the computer or laptop’s SD card reader and make a note of the drive letter allocated to it, e.g. G:/ * In SD Formatter, select the drive letter for your SD card and format it. " This suggests to me that SDFormatter is the way to go. *Despite this*, I'm not terribly happy with SDFormatter. * It doesn't explicitly list compatibility with OS X > 1.8. * It doesn't provide the option of installing for just one user. * On startup, you get a Finder dialog stating "SDFormatter wants to make changes." This is exactly how malware obtains privilege escalation. Creepy. * The app itself suffers from OEM-itis: ugly dialog, bad grammar. EDIT: In fact, my SD card is 64G, and the card I prepared with SDFormatter failed horribly. After reading man pages for a while, I used `diskutil` to reformat the SD card to have two 32G FAT32 partitions, dumped the NOOBS file on the first one, and then everything was fine. In fact, as others have noted, the NOOBS loader will actually reformat the card to a single large partition itself.
This link should help you for Mac/Windows/Linux users. <http://computers.tutsplus.com/articles/how-to-flash-an-sd-card-for-raspberry-pi--mac-53600>
238,456
I am an electrician and know through experience that resistance in an electrical circuit causes heat. An incandescent light bulb's light is a by-product of heat, so why does a 100w bulb have a lower resistance than a 25w bulb? It seems counter intuitive to me. Please help me understand.
2016/02/19
[ "https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/238456", "https://physics.stackexchange.com", "https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/108872/" ]
Steve, hopefully you'll get this. Comment if you do! To answer your first question: A 100W light bulb has lower resistance because as long as the light bulb resistance is higher than the wire resistance, you can take advantage of the equation P=I squared R. Just decrease the resistance a little and the current is increased. Since the increased current is squared you get a lot more power. The main thing to remember is you can't drop the resistance too much or the wires will become the load and they will heat up more. You can change the load (or transfer a part of the load) to the wires by either making the wires thinner, longer, or replacing the light bulb with wire. To your other question. The heating elements must have a a higher resistance than the wires. If the heating elements had a lower resistance then the wires would heat up. To summarize, you want to have your load have a high enough resistance where it becomes the load. Then you want to take advantage of getting higher power by reducing the resistance (but not lower than the wires). I'm sure they have reasons why they pick certain resistance levels.
A non-math way to think of it is that higher resistance means less electricity gets through. A higher watt bulb allows more electricity through, therefore the resistance must be lower.
238,456
I am an electrician and know through experience that resistance in an electrical circuit causes heat. An incandescent light bulb's light is a by-product of heat, so why does a 100w bulb have a lower resistance than a 25w bulb? It seems counter intuitive to me. Please help me understand.
2016/02/19
[ "https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/238456", "https://physics.stackexchange.com", "https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/108872/" ]
Steve, hopefully you'll get this. Comment if you do! To answer your first question: A 100W light bulb has lower resistance because as long as the light bulb resistance is higher than the wire resistance, you can take advantage of the equation P=I squared R. Just decrease the resistance a little and the current is increased. Since the increased current is squared you get a lot more power. The main thing to remember is you can't drop the resistance too much or the wires will become the load and they will heat up more. You can change the load (or transfer a part of the load) to the wires by either making the wires thinner, longer, or replacing the light bulb with wire. To your other question. The heating elements must have a a higher resistance than the wires. If the heating elements had a lower resistance then the wires would heat up. To summarize, you want to have your load have a high enough resistance where it becomes the load. Then you want to take advantage of getting higher power by reducing the resistance (but not lower than the wires). I'm sure they have reasons why they pick certain resistance levels.
I understand your question perfectly. Lets leave out all the fancy maths. You are correct in being slightly confused. Logically, a higher resistance causes more heat but we must also remember that a higher resistance causes less current. It is the product of the current and the resistance that generates the heat (not only the resistance). So although a 100W lightbulb has a lower resistance, it will have a much larger current due to the low resistance. The product of the current and resistance will be high! Hope that helps.
54,591
The [Mule](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mule_%28Foundation%29) was a "mentalic" mutant of enough power that he managed to overcome the forces of history and disrupt Hari Seldon's plans. **Were such mutants known prior to the Mule? (and known to Seldon)?**
2014/04/21
[ "https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/54591", "https://scifi.stackexchange.com", "https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/976/" ]
[The Mule](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mule_%28Foundation%29) was the first known *human* to display such remarkable mental abilities in the *Foundation* universe. He was preceded, however, by at least two - and possibly more - robots; [R. Giskard Reventlov](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/R._Giskard_Reventlov#R._Giskard_Reventlov) and [R. Daneel Olivaw](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/R._Daneel_Olivaw). The latter is probably the most important being in the entire *Saga*, with Seldon unarguably being the most important human. Seldon's robot wife, [Dors Venabili](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dors_Venabili), also possesses at least some of the same powers. As Richard states in his comment above, the Mule was originally from [Gaia](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gaia_%28Foundation_universe%29), where such mental powers were common; it was directly stated in [*Foundation's Edge*](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Foundation%27s_Edge) that these mental powers were taught to the humans of Gaia by robots, and it is implied in [*Prelude to Foundation*](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Prelude_to_Foundation) that it is Daneel himself who founded Gaia. So the Mule isn't unique. Even the Second Foundation seemed to possess a weaker version of the Mule's power. The Mule may have been more powerful than his predecessors; this is never stated, and he is eventually defeated by a weaker practitioner of his emotional control. Given his accomplishments, however, it seems likely that he was stronger than both his predecessors and his contemporaries, though Daneel and Gaia were hampered, even moreso than the Second Foundation, by the necessity of keeping their actions secret from the galaxy at large.
In short: there are no other mentalic mutants known on the Foundation universe. The Mule was a mutant, in a plot where they are really really scarce (this is not the Marvel universe). And moreover he was a mutant coming from a society (Gaia) that actively uses mental abilities. His are, anyway, unique. Gaians and robot telepathists concentrate on thoughts and communication, while the Mule had a super capability over emotions. He did not instill the tought that he must be obeyed. He did instill loyalty as an emotion. He can not evem modify thoughts, only emotions, as can be seen on his encounters with Han Pritcher. Pritcher continues being an almost independent thinker, but just ultimately loyal.
193,557
I'm having a really weird problem. I added a metarig to the scene, edited the pose to fit my character,, apply it as the rest pose, applied loc/rot/scale, and Generated Rig. The problem is that on the rig that it generates there is a "bugged" controller in the image below. [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/lsgFs.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/lsgFs.png) On the left side is the controller in rest mode in the forward position where it should be. On the right side is the controller in pose mode where it slightly rotates on the Z axis, despite it being locked. I thought the solution would just be to alt+R and G to reset rotation and movement but for some reason these controllers will not reset to the rest mode. And I don't know of any other way to apply the pose mode position to these. Even when I go to the skeleton layer that controls the problem controller I can't fix it because you can't move the actual bone in pose mode and it goes to the rest pose in edit mode. Does anyone know why this happens and/or how to resolve it? Edit: just realized it causes problems with the hand bones and toe bone as well. EDIT2: Here is the file. <https://drive.google.com/file/d/1jk5RvFQrdlHRr4Pruz8Sk9br0QX3_IYm/view?usp=sharing> You can see how the rig adjusts itself by going from the rest position to the pose position in pose mode.
2020/09/05
[ "https://blender.stackexchange.com/questions/193557", "https://blender.stackexchange.com", "https://blender.stackexchange.com/users/60069/" ]
I looked into your file and noticed the problem. I looked to the knee of the metarig and it looks like your knee is facing backwards. You can see that because the pole is backwards. I posted several pics explaining this. That is why the IK is snapping weirdly when rotating the foot. I removed the rig and generated a new one using your metarig and it seems to have fixed the snapping issue. But there are several other issues with this rig. [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Ygvzz.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Ygvzz.png)[![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/lNsVE.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/lNsVE.png) While I'm a it, I would suggest you to move the kneecaps a bit to the front, so you're knees won't bend to the back when lifting the IK Foot. [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/WJ863.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/WJ863.png) [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/BJgXL.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/BJgXL.png) Hope this helps!
Try this: In Pose Mode and Skeleton to Pose Position select all widgets/bones and press Pose > Apply > Apply pose as rest pose
10,790,162
I've been searching for some information regarding microcontroller programming but the info I find is either way over my head or doesn't appear to exist. I'm looking for something easier to digest! I'm relatively new to programming and come from an SQL DBA background and decided that it would be quicker for me to learn some programming fundamentals and then teach myself Delphi than it would to get some changes implemented through my company's insane design change note system! After a couple of years of Delphi programming I can cope with writing database applications without too much bother and I want to be able to move on a level. We use PIC microcontrollers on our PCBs; mainly the PIC18F family. The software on the PICS is written in C but there are parameters values that are written to by a Delphi application that interface with the PIC using an ActiveX control. Basically, SQL Database holds parameter info, Delphi client app retrieves those values, passes them to the ActiveX controll which does all the low level stuff on the PIC. For example the internal EEPROM will have a map and within any particular address a value will be stored to switch something on or off or hold an integer value etc. I've gotten hold of an MPLAB kit which has an ICD2 device that can read and write values to the internal EEPROM and I understand how to change these hexadecimal values using MPLAB software. My hope isn't to learn embedded microcontroller programming; rather that I can write a Delphi app that will do something similar to MPLAB software. E.g read and write values to certain memory addresses within the EEPROM. I'd be very gratefull if anyone can point me in the right direction of any libraries or components that may already exist for bridging this gap between simple Delphi form application and writing low level PIC EEPROM. I doubt such any easy interface exists but I thought I'd ask. To summarise I want to be able to have a simple form app, with some edit boxes that the user types in or selects from dropdown boxes, parameter values, to click on a button and to assign those parameter values to specific EEPROM memory addresses. Thank you for reading and any comments would be gratefully received. Regards KD
2012/05/28
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/10790162", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1422376/" ]
I'm a big fan of MikroElectronika and have used their Pascal tools for pic16 series MCU with great success (touch screen interfaces, ZigBee, ...). <http://www.mikroe.com/>
Delphi outputs Win32 and Win64 native applications you can write software that can interact with certain devices if the PCB has serial comunication or I2C you can write software that in Delphi that it will interact with the physical device. But if you want to programm the devices yourself , write software that will run on this devices you can't do it in Delphi. I suggest you buy an Arduino it's an excellent envoirment for beginners in microcontroller programming.
10,790,162
I've been searching for some information regarding microcontroller programming but the info I find is either way over my head or doesn't appear to exist. I'm looking for something easier to digest! I'm relatively new to programming and come from an SQL DBA background and decided that it would be quicker for me to learn some programming fundamentals and then teach myself Delphi than it would to get some changes implemented through my company's insane design change note system! After a couple of years of Delphi programming I can cope with writing database applications without too much bother and I want to be able to move on a level. We use PIC microcontrollers on our PCBs; mainly the PIC18F family. The software on the PICS is written in C but there are parameters values that are written to by a Delphi application that interface with the PIC using an ActiveX control. Basically, SQL Database holds parameter info, Delphi client app retrieves those values, passes them to the ActiveX controll which does all the low level stuff on the PIC. For example the internal EEPROM will have a map and within any particular address a value will be stored to switch something on or off or hold an integer value etc. I've gotten hold of an MPLAB kit which has an ICD2 device that can read and write values to the internal EEPROM and I understand how to change these hexadecimal values using MPLAB software. My hope isn't to learn embedded microcontroller programming; rather that I can write a Delphi app that will do something similar to MPLAB software. E.g read and write values to certain memory addresses within the EEPROM. I'd be very gratefull if anyone can point me in the right direction of any libraries or components that may already exist for bridging this gap between simple Delphi form application and writing low level PIC EEPROM. I doubt such any easy interface exists but I thought I'd ask. To summarise I want to be able to have a simple form app, with some edit boxes that the user types in or selects from dropdown boxes, parameter values, to click on a button and to assign those parameter values to specific EEPROM memory addresses. Thank you for reading and any comments would be gratefully received. Regards KD
2012/05/28
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/10790162", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1422376/" ]
I'm a big fan of MikroElectronika and have used their Pascal tools for pic16 series MCU with great success (touch screen interfaces, ZigBee, ...). <http://www.mikroe.com/>
If you have the source code of your pic microcontroller then you can implement the code in C to read from Serial, USB or some other interface available in your hardware and write it to the eeprom. This way its easy to write the app in any high level language like delphi, c++, etc. Or you can write your PIC application using the mikropascal compiler from mikroeletronika that its very good and I've been using for a long time, but as you can see you will have to implement some mecanism to read from the interface and write to your eeprom as I've mentioned before. This compiler comes with a lote of librarys to work with many devices. You should take a look on it, its not free but the price is low and in their site you can find samples and sample boards to test it.
10,790,162
I've been searching for some information regarding microcontroller programming but the info I find is either way over my head or doesn't appear to exist. I'm looking for something easier to digest! I'm relatively new to programming and come from an SQL DBA background and decided that it would be quicker for me to learn some programming fundamentals and then teach myself Delphi than it would to get some changes implemented through my company's insane design change note system! After a couple of years of Delphi programming I can cope with writing database applications without too much bother and I want to be able to move on a level. We use PIC microcontrollers on our PCBs; mainly the PIC18F family. The software on the PICS is written in C but there are parameters values that are written to by a Delphi application that interface with the PIC using an ActiveX control. Basically, SQL Database holds parameter info, Delphi client app retrieves those values, passes them to the ActiveX controll which does all the low level stuff on the PIC. For example the internal EEPROM will have a map and within any particular address a value will be stored to switch something on or off or hold an integer value etc. I've gotten hold of an MPLAB kit which has an ICD2 device that can read and write values to the internal EEPROM and I understand how to change these hexadecimal values using MPLAB software. My hope isn't to learn embedded microcontroller programming; rather that I can write a Delphi app that will do something similar to MPLAB software. E.g read and write values to certain memory addresses within the EEPROM. I'd be very gratefull if anyone can point me in the right direction of any libraries or components that may already exist for bridging this gap between simple Delphi form application and writing low level PIC EEPROM. I doubt such any easy interface exists but I thought I'd ask. To summarise I want to be able to have a simple form app, with some edit boxes that the user types in or selects from dropdown boxes, parameter values, to click on a button and to assign those parameter values to specific EEPROM memory addresses. Thank you for reading and any comments would be gratefully received. Regards KD
2012/05/28
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/10790162", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1422376/" ]
I'm a big fan of MikroElectronika and have used their Pascal tools for pic16 series MCU with great success (touch screen interfaces, ZigBee, ...). <http://www.mikroe.com/>
One option, if you want a simple interface to write to the PIC EEPROM, is to use the ICD command line utility. Unfortunately it is not available for the ICD2, but the PICkit 2 and 3 (which are cheap), ICD3, and RealICE have command line utilities that give you the ability to write to the EEPROM (google pk2cmd). In Delphi, you could just wrap a very simple set of command line calls to pk2cmd.
13,775
I recently bought an older house, and the toilet tank is leaking. In exploring the issue and googling around for toilet repair, I saw no mention of one of the parts that is in my toilet tank. Within the tank, there is a smaller plastic container that surrounds the flush valve. It seems to restrict the amount of water that ends up being used per flush, so perhaps it was added to reduce water consumption? What is this thing, and how does its presence affect my approach toward replacing the different pieces of the toilet? ![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/a8ET7.jpg)
2012/04/20
[ "https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/13775", "https://diy.stackexchange.com", "https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/3785/" ]
I believe that you are correct and that the container was added to reduce the amount of water used per flush. As for whether it will affect your fix - it might. If the tank is leaking then unless it is cracked then there are only two places that it could be leaking from - where the inlet connects to the tank or where the tank connects to the bowl. If it's leaking from the inlet valve then the container would have no effect other than giving you less space to work. If it's leaking form the spud washer (the rubber gasket between the tank and bowl) then you may need to remove it to get to the bolts that hold the tank to the bowl (though it appears that the container has indentations that go around the bolt heads so again it may just come down to the only effect being a more cramped space to work).
I had a similar toilet that never flushed properly, resulting in multiple flushing and wasting water. I removed the tank, removed the flush valve and plastic dam, re-installed the flush valve and my toilet finally works properly. To ensure it wasn't wasting water I measured 1.6 Gal of water, poured into the bowl, marked it, adjusted the fill rate just a little until the water in the bowl hits the mark every time. No, I didn't use a permanent marker in my bowl - I used colored tape that stuck until I removed it.
4,475,028
i want to add page hit to nodes on my drupal site.how can i do that?
2010/12/17
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/4475028", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/313389/" ]
Use the built-in Statistics module to add a pure page count. If you want to display the number of unique visitors that visit a page, you will need to use the [Statistics Advanced module](http://drupal.org/project/statistics_advanced) .This module counts the number of unique IP addresses per visit, while the Drupal core Statistics module increments its count every time the node is viewed.
The built-in Statistics module offers this.
4,475,028
i want to add page hit to nodes on my drupal site.how can i do that?
2010/12/17
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/4475028", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/313389/" ]
What might work easier is "Node view count" module: <http://drupal.org/project/nodeviewcount> I also came accross this other useful "Visitors" module: <http://drupal.org/project/visitors> Hope this helps...options are always good :)
The built-in Statistics module offers this.
4,475,028
i want to add page hit to nodes on my drupal site.how can i do that?
2010/12/17
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/4475028", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/313389/" ]
Use the built-in Statistics module to add a pure page count. If you want to display the number of unique visitors that visit a page, you will need to use the [Statistics Advanced module](http://drupal.org/project/statistics_advanced) .This module counts the number of unique IP addresses per visit, while the Drupal core Statistics module increments its count every time the node is viewed.
After enabling the Statistics module, you can en/disable and configure it here: Administer -> Reports -> Access log settings (admin/reports/settings). The Statistics Advanced module's configuration is there, also.
4,475,028
i want to add page hit to nodes on my drupal site.how can i do that?
2010/12/17
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/4475028", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/313389/" ]
Use the built-in Statistics module to add a pure page count. If you want to display the number of unique visitors that visit a page, you will need to use the [Statistics Advanced module](http://drupal.org/project/statistics_advanced) .This module counts the number of unique IP addresses per visit, while the Drupal core Statistics module increments its count every time the node is viewed.
What might work easier is "Node view count" module: <http://drupal.org/project/nodeviewcount> I also came accross this other useful "Visitors" module: <http://drupal.org/project/visitors> Hope this helps...options are always good :)
4,475,028
i want to add page hit to nodes on my drupal site.how can i do that?
2010/12/17
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/4475028", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/313389/" ]
What might work easier is "Node view count" module: <http://drupal.org/project/nodeviewcount> I also came accross this other useful "Visitors" module: <http://drupal.org/project/visitors> Hope this helps...options are always good :)
After enabling the Statistics module, you can en/disable and configure it here: Administer -> Reports -> Access log settings (admin/reports/settings). The Statistics Advanced module's configuration is there, also.
9,607,730
I went through so many topics asking about "Why does release build fail and not debug?", but I'm across a situation where it's reverse. Here release build works fine but Debug mode build breaks. What are possible reasons or situations where this can happen? Any reply is appreciated. Thanks in advance. One of our friend gave some direction towards memory freeing issue.. This is the same thing i'm facing... When I build in release mode it build successfully, but when I try to build in debug mode it fails/breaks at a point where there is statement for freeing up the allocated memory.. code is like: check if buffer is null, and free it if it's not null... if(buffer){ free(buffer) } When I keep breakpoint on that line (inside if loop) and check value in debug mode, it appears as "bad pointer".(0x000000) but then question remains like why it went inside of if-loop even though buffer has value 0x000000 ?
2012/03/07
[ "https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/9607730", "https://Stackoverflow.com", "https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1255521/" ]
You're better off in almost all cases by doing filtering and data massaging with the SQL engine versus on the web server.
Unless you are planning to do hundreds of thousands such operations at once, it will not matter where you do the string concatenation from a performance point of view. The possible time savings will be so minuscule, they will probably not even be measurable.
976,042
I have three years old HP Laptop (HP CQ42). It was working just fine till yesterday. Yesterday, I left my laptop turned on for about half an hour. When I came back, there was no display. Only "Caps Lock LED" was blinking and "WI-FI LED" was red. Now, when I try to turn it on, I can hear the fan/HDD spinning but there is no display (only blinking Caps Lock LED and red WI-FI LED). I tried to turn on my laptop with battery and without battery (on ac main) but no luck. I also, tried to reset BIOS by taking the battery out and pressing power button for 30 seconds. Still my laptop is not working. Is my motherboard dead? Please help.
2015/09/21
[ "https://superuser.com/questions/976042", "https://superuser.com", "https://superuser.com/users/390306/" ]
Try following options to get rid of problem: 1. Remove the battery and plug the charger then switch on laptop. If it successfully on then shut down laptop from start option and remove charger plug, insert battery and you are done. If it wont works dont worry you have other option too. 2. Take a screw driver from your junk collection and remove and insert the hard disk. This one is just like refresh your memory. So dont blame me if it doesn't work in your case. But 99% of the time I am sure this will works.
i have noticed that the problem is caused by a corrupted bios bin file and you need to desolder your bios and reprogram it or completely replace it with a new one. 2: the problem could also be a faulty display chip and in this case you have to reflow the chip or completely remove it and put a new one though this option requires expertise and specilised equipment like bga machine to do the job
28,596
After seeing this reddit [post](https://www.reddit.com/r/todayilearned/comments/3ewken/til_100_of_the_studies_n74_concluding_aspartame/), and reading this [article](http://www.lightenyourtoxicload.com/wp-content/uploads/2014/07/Dr-Walton-survey-of-aspartame-studies.pdf) are the claims they made true? Claim [![enter image description here](https://i.stack.imgur.com/14D2p.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/14D2p.png) Quote: > > [Today I learnt] 100% of the studies (n=74) concluding aspartame to be safe for consumption are funded by the Nutrasweet® industry, while 92% (n=92) of the stuidies claiming the compound to have the potential for adverse effects (e.g. head aches, brain tumors, seizures and mood disorders) are independently funded. (lightenyourtoxicload.com) >
2015/07/28
[ "https://skeptics.stackexchange.com/questions/28596", "https://skeptics.stackexchange.com", "https://skeptics.stackexchange.com/users/23255/" ]
The ultimate source of your Reddit quote (lightenyourtoxicload.com), hosts a paper titled [Survey Of Aspartame Studies: Correlation Of Outcome And Funding Sources](http://www.lightenyourtoxicload.com/wp-content/uploads/2014/07/Dr-Walton-survey-of-aspartame-studies.pdf) that backs up that quote: > > Studies of aspartame in the peer reviewed medical literature were > surveyed for funding source and study outcome. Of the 166 studies felt > to have relevance for questions of human safety, 74 had Nutrasweet® > industry related funding and 92 were independently funded. One hundred > percent of the industry funded research attested to aspartame's > safety, whereas 92% of the independently funded research identified a > problem. A bibliography supplied by the Nutrasweet® Company included > many studies of questionable validity and relevance, with multiple > instances of the same study being cited up to 6 times. Questions are > raised both about aspartame's safety and the broader issue of the > appropriateness of industry sponsorship of medical research. > > > The paper doesn't detail what those problems are and whether they are mild or severe, but some of the papers that reported problems have titles that suggest serious side adverse reactions: * [Olney, Brain Damage in Infant Mice Following Oral Intake of Glutamate, Aspartate or Cysteine., 1970](http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/5464249) * [Wurtman RJ, Neurological Changes Following High Dose Aspartame with Dietary Carbohydrates. N Engl J Med, 1983](http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/6877300) * [Novick, Aspartame Induced Granulomatous Panniculitis. Ann Int Med, 1985](http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/3966759) * [Johns DR, Migrane Provoked by Aspartame. New Eng J Medicine, 1986](http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/3736626) * Walton, The Possible Role of Aspartame in Seizure Induction. Proceedings of the first International Conference on Phenylalanine and the Brain. Wurtman RJ, Walker E (eds.), Center for Brain Sciences and Metabolism Charitable Trust, Cambridge, 1987
Of course they did, it is up to them to prove to safety authorities that a product is safe for consumption. And who else could pay? do you expect governments to pay for every product attemptedly brought to market. This is true for all drugs and artificial foods, the 'sponsor' who seeks to profit from the product must pay to show it is safe for them to do so <http://www.fda.gov/drugs/resourcesforyou/consumers/ucm143534.htm> That said, Aspartame is now the most researched food in history with many independent studies and no reliable evidence disputing its safety at or even remotely near to levels used in food. <https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Aspartame>
198,840
*I argue instead that politicians have in fact behaved rationally or at least no differently than their Western counterparts would if faced with the same circumstances.* I understand the meaning of the clause but I am a little bit puzzled by the usage of the phrase *would if faced*. Is this a sort of inversion? Why is the verb in past tense? Why is *would* and *if* together (*if* and *would* is never good). Can I rewrite this part in this way: *if they (their westen counterparts) faced with the same circumstances.* Thank you for your answer.
2014/09/29
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/198840", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/87784/" ]
The sentence though grammatically correct, could benefit from some punctuation. But it is, in my view, awkwardly worded. If you must insist on it being a single sentence, the following, in my view sounds better: *My argument instead is that politicians have behaved rationally; or at least no differently than would their Western counterparts, if faced with the same circumstances*.
The verb (faced) is in past tense because of using conjunctive mood here. "if they (their westen counterparts) faced with the same circumstances" - it's absolutely correct.
198,840
*I argue instead that politicians have in fact behaved rationally or at least no differently than their Western counterparts would if faced with the same circumstances.* I understand the meaning of the clause but I am a little bit puzzled by the usage of the phrase *would if faced*. Is this a sort of inversion? Why is the verb in past tense? Why is *would* and *if* together (*if* and *would* is never good). Can I rewrite this part in this way: *if they (their westen counterparts) faced with the same circumstances.* Thank you for your answer.
2014/09/29
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/198840", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/87784/" ]
> > I argue instead that politicians have in fact behaved rationally, or at least no differently than their Western counterparts would if faced with the same circumstances. > > > This entails a comparative construction. It's quite complicated because it contains several clauses nested within each other. Within the clauses, there is a lot of ellipsis, where various material has been deleted, or omitted because it is recoverable from other clauses. The basic form of the sentence, which we shall call sentence *A*, is: * I argue that X *X* here is a content clause functioning as the complement of *argue*. It in involves a co-ordination with *or*. The form of this clause is: * politicians have in fact behaved rationally, or at least Y *Y* is the second co-ordinate in the content clause, *X*. It is basically another content clause joined with the first. The two together function as one big content clause. The form of *Y*, where I've added the missing material is: * at least [they have behaved] no differently than Z Notice that *no differently* in the section above has the meaning *not in a different way*. *Y* could therefore be reconstrued as: * at least they have behaved not in a different way than Z *Z* here is a comparative clause. It takes the form of a conditional. Notice that what is described in the conditional, is not being talked about as an example of something that is actually going to happen; it is a theoretical situation. Z therefore takes the form of a conditional where a past tense is used to talk about a hypothetical, imagined, future or present time. Notice that the conditional uses *would* not *will* in the result clause. *Z* can be analyzed as: * their Western counterparts would [behave in this way], if [they were] faced with the same circumstances [that these politicians are faced with]. We can see from the reconstruted *Z* above, that *Z* is in fact a 'normal' conditional, in the sense that it has two different clauses. It has a result clause ... * their Western counterparts would [behave in this way] ... and it has an *if*-clause: * if they were faced with the same circumstances [that these politicians are faced with]. There are two reasons that it looks as though *would* and *if* are occurring in the same clause in the Original Poster's example. The first is that when the result clause comes first and the *if*-clause second, we do not use a comma to separate off the clauses: * I would kiss that elephant if I could. Compare that with: * If I could, I would kiss that elephant. The second reason is that in comparative clauses, lots of repetition from the first clause is usually avoided. Instead there are large gaps in the sentence which are recovered by the listener from the previous clause. *I can run faster than Bob* means: * I can run faster than Bob [can run fast]. We don't need to repeat the whole of *can run fast* here because the listener can pick it up from the previous clause. In the Original Poster's sentence the Verb Phrase after *would* has been elided, it's completely missing. Because of this, the next word after *would* is *if*. As we have just said, there is no comma after *if* here, because there is no comma when the *if*-clause comes second. This means that *would* and *if* look as if they run together. They don't!. Lastly, let us turn to the Original Poster's reformulation of part of this part of the sentence. Notice also that *they were* is missing from the *if*-clause: * if [they were] faced We can miss out this material from the subordinate *if*-clause because it has the same subject as the superordinate result clause - namely the Western counterparts. However, we must remove both the subject *they* and the auxiliary passive *were*. Otherwise we need to leave them both in. So in relation to this part of the Original Poster's question, we could rewrite this part of the question as: * if they (their Western counterparts) **were** faced with the same circumstances. **Conclusion** The Original Poster's example involves a remarkable amount of nesting. Buried inside a number of other clauses at the end of the sentence is a comparative clause with the form of a so-called 'remote' conditional. A lot of the material from the conditional is missing, and the *if*-clause has not been moved to the front, as we would often expect. Because the *if*-clause is at the end of the conditional, it is not marked off by a comma. In addition, because the conditional is a comparative clause, much of the material, including the Verb Phrase after *would* is missing. This means that although they are in different clauses, *would* and *if* appear next to each other. A reconstruction of the sentence, including some ellipted material would read so: > > I argue instead that politicians have in fact behaved rationally, or at least they have behaved no differently than their Western counterparts would behave - if they were faced with the same circumstances. > > >
The verb (faced) is in past tense because of using conjunctive mood here. "if they (their westen counterparts) faced with the same circumstances" - it's absolutely correct.
198,840
*I argue instead that politicians have in fact behaved rationally or at least no differently than their Western counterparts would if faced with the same circumstances.* I understand the meaning of the clause but I am a little bit puzzled by the usage of the phrase *would if faced*. Is this a sort of inversion? Why is the verb in past tense? Why is *would* and *if* together (*if* and *would* is never good). Can I rewrite this part in this way: *if they (their westen counterparts) faced with the same circumstances.* Thank you for your answer.
2014/09/29
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/198840", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/87784/" ]
> > I argue instead that politicians have in fact behaved rationally or at least no differently than their Western counterparts would if faced with the same circumstances. > > > The above does not seem to be correct to me, or at least not natural, and you have identified the problem area. I would change it to: ... than their Western counterparts would *have* if faced with ... Which would have the meaning "would have [behaved]" With this single addition I find the sentence quite understandable.
The verb (faced) is in past tense because of using conjunctive mood here. "if they (their westen counterparts) faced with the same circumstances" - it's absolutely correct.
198,840
*I argue instead that politicians have in fact behaved rationally or at least no differently than their Western counterparts would if faced with the same circumstances.* I understand the meaning of the clause but I am a little bit puzzled by the usage of the phrase *would if faced*. Is this a sort of inversion? Why is the verb in past tense? Why is *would* and *if* together (*if* and *would* is never good). Can I rewrite this part in this way: *if they (their westen counterparts) faced with the same circumstances.* Thank you for your answer.
2014/09/29
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/198840", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/87784/" ]
1. The underlying verbal idiom is *face someone with something* = ‘compel someone to confront or deal with something’. 2. *Faced* is not a finite verb but a past participle; here it bears a passive sense, as if there were a preceding *BE*: *(be) faced with* = ‘(be) compelled to confront or deal with something’. 3. An *if* clause whose first verb is *BE* and whose subject is the immediately preceding nominal may delete both of these; thus, *if faced with* is an elliptical form of *they BE faced with*. 4. The verb in the *than* clause has also been reduced by ellipsis: *would* is equivalent to *would BEHAVE*. 5. The capitalized forms *BE* and *BEHAVE* represent constructions which vary, depending on whether the writer intends to depict the hypothetical confrontation as retrospective or prospective. An advantage of the elliptical forms is that they spare the writer the necessity of deciding. Thus, the sentence may be expanded to: > > I argue instead that politicians have in fact behaved rationally or at least no differently their Western counterparts would ***have behaved*** if ***they had been*** faced with the same circumstances. > > *OR* > > ... would ***behave*** if ***they were*** faced ... > > >
The verb (faced) is in past tense because of using conjunctive mood here. "if they (their westen counterparts) faced with the same circumstances" - it's absolutely correct.
198,840
*I argue instead that politicians have in fact behaved rationally or at least no differently than their Western counterparts would if faced with the same circumstances.* I understand the meaning of the clause but I am a little bit puzzled by the usage of the phrase *would if faced*. Is this a sort of inversion? Why is the verb in past tense? Why is *would* and *if* together (*if* and *would* is never good). Can I rewrite this part in this way: *if they (their westen counterparts) faced with the same circumstances.* Thank you for your answer.
2014/09/29
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/198840", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/87784/" ]
> > I argue instead that politicians have in fact behaved rationally, or at least no differently than their Western counterparts would if faced with the same circumstances. > > > This entails a comparative construction. It's quite complicated because it contains several clauses nested within each other. Within the clauses, there is a lot of ellipsis, where various material has been deleted, or omitted because it is recoverable from other clauses. The basic form of the sentence, which we shall call sentence *A*, is: * I argue that X *X* here is a content clause functioning as the complement of *argue*. It in involves a co-ordination with *or*. The form of this clause is: * politicians have in fact behaved rationally, or at least Y *Y* is the second co-ordinate in the content clause, *X*. It is basically another content clause joined with the first. The two together function as one big content clause. The form of *Y*, where I've added the missing material is: * at least [they have behaved] no differently than Z Notice that *no differently* in the section above has the meaning *not in a different way*. *Y* could therefore be reconstrued as: * at least they have behaved not in a different way than Z *Z* here is a comparative clause. It takes the form of a conditional. Notice that what is described in the conditional, is not being talked about as an example of something that is actually going to happen; it is a theoretical situation. Z therefore takes the form of a conditional where a past tense is used to talk about a hypothetical, imagined, future or present time. Notice that the conditional uses *would* not *will* in the result clause. *Z* can be analyzed as: * their Western counterparts would [behave in this way], if [they were] faced with the same circumstances [that these politicians are faced with]. We can see from the reconstruted *Z* above, that *Z* is in fact a 'normal' conditional, in the sense that it has two different clauses. It has a result clause ... * their Western counterparts would [behave in this way] ... and it has an *if*-clause: * if they were faced with the same circumstances [that these politicians are faced with]. There are two reasons that it looks as though *would* and *if* are occurring in the same clause in the Original Poster's example. The first is that when the result clause comes first and the *if*-clause second, we do not use a comma to separate off the clauses: * I would kiss that elephant if I could. Compare that with: * If I could, I would kiss that elephant. The second reason is that in comparative clauses, lots of repetition from the first clause is usually avoided. Instead there are large gaps in the sentence which are recovered by the listener from the previous clause. *I can run faster than Bob* means: * I can run faster than Bob [can run fast]. We don't need to repeat the whole of *can run fast* here because the listener can pick it up from the previous clause. In the Original Poster's sentence the Verb Phrase after *would* has been elided, it's completely missing. Because of this, the next word after *would* is *if*. As we have just said, there is no comma after *if* here, because there is no comma when the *if*-clause comes second. This means that *would* and *if* look as if they run together. They don't!. Lastly, let us turn to the Original Poster's reformulation of part of this part of the sentence. Notice also that *they were* is missing from the *if*-clause: * if [they were] faced We can miss out this material from the subordinate *if*-clause because it has the same subject as the superordinate result clause - namely the Western counterparts. However, we must remove both the subject *they* and the auxiliary passive *were*. Otherwise we need to leave them both in. So in relation to this part of the Original Poster's question, we could rewrite this part of the question as: * if they (their Western counterparts) **were** faced with the same circumstances. **Conclusion** The Original Poster's example involves a remarkable amount of nesting. Buried inside a number of other clauses at the end of the sentence is a comparative clause with the form of a so-called 'remote' conditional. A lot of the material from the conditional is missing, and the *if*-clause has not been moved to the front, as we would often expect. Because the *if*-clause is at the end of the conditional, it is not marked off by a comma. In addition, because the conditional is a comparative clause, much of the material, including the Verb Phrase after *would* is missing. This means that although they are in different clauses, *would* and *if* appear next to each other. A reconstruction of the sentence, including some ellipted material would read so: > > I argue instead that politicians have in fact behaved rationally, or at least they have behaved no differently than their Western counterparts would behave - if they were faced with the same circumstances. > > >
The sentence though grammatically correct, could benefit from some punctuation. But it is, in my view, awkwardly worded. If you must insist on it being a single sentence, the following, in my view sounds better: *My argument instead is that politicians have behaved rationally; or at least no differently than would their Western counterparts, if faced with the same circumstances*.
198,840
*I argue instead that politicians have in fact behaved rationally or at least no differently than their Western counterparts would if faced with the same circumstances.* I understand the meaning of the clause but I am a little bit puzzled by the usage of the phrase *would if faced*. Is this a sort of inversion? Why is the verb in past tense? Why is *would* and *if* together (*if* and *would* is never good). Can I rewrite this part in this way: *if they (their westen counterparts) faced with the same circumstances.* Thank you for your answer.
2014/09/29
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/198840", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/87784/" ]
1. The underlying verbal idiom is *face someone with something* = ‘compel someone to confront or deal with something’. 2. *Faced* is not a finite verb but a past participle; here it bears a passive sense, as if there were a preceding *BE*: *(be) faced with* = ‘(be) compelled to confront or deal with something’. 3. An *if* clause whose first verb is *BE* and whose subject is the immediately preceding nominal may delete both of these; thus, *if faced with* is an elliptical form of *they BE faced with*. 4. The verb in the *than* clause has also been reduced by ellipsis: *would* is equivalent to *would BEHAVE*. 5. The capitalized forms *BE* and *BEHAVE* represent constructions which vary, depending on whether the writer intends to depict the hypothetical confrontation as retrospective or prospective. An advantage of the elliptical forms is that they spare the writer the necessity of deciding. Thus, the sentence may be expanded to: > > I argue instead that politicians have in fact behaved rationally or at least no differently their Western counterparts would ***have behaved*** if ***they had been*** faced with the same circumstances. > > *OR* > > ... would ***behave*** if ***they were*** faced ... > > >
The sentence though grammatically correct, could benefit from some punctuation. But it is, in my view, awkwardly worded. If you must insist on it being a single sentence, the following, in my view sounds better: *My argument instead is that politicians have behaved rationally; or at least no differently than would their Western counterparts, if faced with the same circumstances*.
198,840
*I argue instead that politicians have in fact behaved rationally or at least no differently than their Western counterparts would if faced with the same circumstances.* I understand the meaning of the clause but I am a little bit puzzled by the usage of the phrase *would if faced*. Is this a sort of inversion? Why is the verb in past tense? Why is *would* and *if* together (*if* and *would* is never good). Can I rewrite this part in this way: *if they (their westen counterparts) faced with the same circumstances.* Thank you for your answer.
2014/09/29
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/198840", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/87784/" ]
> > I argue instead that politicians have in fact behaved rationally, or at least no differently than their Western counterparts would if faced with the same circumstances. > > > This entails a comparative construction. It's quite complicated because it contains several clauses nested within each other. Within the clauses, there is a lot of ellipsis, where various material has been deleted, or omitted because it is recoverable from other clauses. The basic form of the sentence, which we shall call sentence *A*, is: * I argue that X *X* here is a content clause functioning as the complement of *argue*. It in involves a co-ordination with *or*. The form of this clause is: * politicians have in fact behaved rationally, or at least Y *Y* is the second co-ordinate in the content clause, *X*. It is basically another content clause joined with the first. The two together function as one big content clause. The form of *Y*, where I've added the missing material is: * at least [they have behaved] no differently than Z Notice that *no differently* in the section above has the meaning *not in a different way*. *Y* could therefore be reconstrued as: * at least they have behaved not in a different way than Z *Z* here is a comparative clause. It takes the form of a conditional. Notice that what is described in the conditional, is not being talked about as an example of something that is actually going to happen; it is a theoretical situation. Z therefore takes the form of a conditional where a past tense is used to talk about a hypothetical, imagined, future or present time. Notice that the conditional uses *would* not *will* in the result clause. *Z* can be analyzed as: * their Western counterparts would [behave in this way], if [they were] faced with the same circumstances [that these politicians are faced with]. We can see from the reconstruted *Z* above, that *Z* is in fact a 'normal' conditional, in the sense that it has two different clauses. It has a result clause ... * their Western counterparts would [behave in this way] ... and it has an *if*-clause: * if they were faced with the same circumstances [that these politicians are faced with]. There are two reasons that it looks as though *would* and *if* are occurring in the same clause in the Original Poster's example. The first is that when the result clause comes first and the *if*-clause second, we do not use a comma to separate off the clauses: * I would kiss that elephant if I could. Compare that with: * If I could, I would kiss that elephant. The second reason is that in comparative clauses, lots of repetition from the first clause is usually avoided. Instead there are large gaps in the sentence which are recovered by the listener from the previous clause. *I can run faster than Bob* means: * I can run faster than Bob [can run fast]. We don't need to repeat the whole of *can run fast* here because the listener can pick it up from the previous clause. In the Original Poster's sentence the Verb Phrase after *would* has been elided, it's completely missing. Because of this, the next word after *would* is *if*. As we have just said, there is no comma after *if* here, because there is no comma when the *if*-clause comes second. This means that *would* and *if* look as if they run together. They don't!. Lastly, let us turn to the Original Poster's reformulation of part of this part of the sentence. Notice also that *they were* is missing from the *if*-clause: * if [they were] faced We can miss out this material from the subordinate *if*-clause because it has the same subject as the superordinate result clause - namely the Western counterparts. However, we must remove both the subject *they* and the auxiliary passive *were*. Otherwise we need to leave them both in. So in relation to this part of the Original Poster's question, we could rewrite this part of the question as: * if they (their Western counterparts) **were** faced with the same circumstances. **Conclusion** The Original Poster's example involves a remarkable amount of nesting. Buried inside a number of other clauses at the end of the sentence is a comparative clause with the form of a so-called 'remote' conditional. A lot of the material from the conditional is missing, and the *if*-clause has not been moved to the front, as we would often expect. Because the *if*-clause is at the end of the conditional, it is not marked off by a comma. In addition, because the conditional is a comparative clause, much of the material, including the Verb Phrase after *would* is missing. This means that although they are in different clauses, *would* and *if* appear next to each other. A reconstruction of the sentence, including some ellipted material would read so: > > I argue instead that politicians have in fact behaved rationally, or at least they have behaved no differently than their Western counterparts would behave - if they were faced with the same circumstances. > > >
> > I argue instead that politicians have in fact behaved rationally or at least no differently than their Western counterparts would if faced with the same circumstances. > > > The above does not seem to be correct to me, or at least not natural, and you have identified the problem area. I would change it to: ... than their Western counterparts would *have* if faced with ... Which would have the meaning "would have [behaved]" With this single addition I find the sentence quite understandable.
198,840
*I argue instead that politicians have in fact behaved rationally or at least no differently than their Western counterparts would if faced with the same circumstances.* I understand the meaning of the clause but I am a little bit puzzled by the usage of the phrase *would if faced*. Is this a sort of inversion? Why is the verb in past tense? Why is *would* and *if* together (*if* and *would* is never good). Can I rewrite this part in this way: *if they (their westen counterparts) faced with the same circumstances.* Thank you for your answer.
2014/09/29
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/198840", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/87784/" ]
> > I argue instead that politicians have in fact behaved rationally, or at least no differently than their Western counterparts would if faced with the same circumstances. > > > This entails a comparative construction. It's quite complicated because it contains several clauses nested within each other. Within the clauses, there is a lot of ellipsis, where various material has been deleted, or omitted because it is recoverable from other clauses. The basic form of the sentence, which we shall call sentence *A*, is: * I argue that X *X* here is a content clause functioning as the complement of *argue*. It in involves a co-ordination with *or*. The form of this clause is: * politicians have in fact behaved rationally, or at least Y *Y* is the second co-ordinate in the content clause, *X*. It is basically another content clause joined with the first. The two together function as one big content clause. The form of *Y*, where I've added the missing material is: * at least [they have behaved] no differently than Z Notice that *no differently* in the section above has the meaning *not in a different way*. *Y* could therefore be reconstrued as: * at least they have behaved not in a different way than Z *Z* here is a comparative clause. It takes the form of a conditional. Notice that what is described in the conditional, is not being talked about as an example of something that is actually going to happen; it is a theoretical situation. Z therefore takes the form of a conditional where a past tense is used to talk about a hypothetical, imagined, future or present time. Notice that the conditional uses *would* not *will* in the result clause. *Z* can be analyzed as: * their Western counterparts would [behave in this way], if [they were] faced with the same circumstances [that these politicians are faced with]. We can see from the reconstruted *Z* above, that *Z* is in fact a 'normal' conditional, in the sense that it has two different clauses. It has a result clause ... * their Western counterparts would [behave in this way] ... and it has an *if*-clause: * if they were faced with the same circumstances [that these politicians are faced with]. There are two reasons that it looks as though *would* and *if* are occurring in the same clause in the Original Poster's example. The first is that when the result clause comes first and the *if*-clause second, we do not use a comma to separate off the clauses: * I would kiss that elephant if I could. Compare that with: * If I could, I would kiss that elephant. The second reason is that in comparative clauses, lots of repetition from the first clause is usually avoided. Instead there are large gaps in the sentence which are recovered by the listener from the previous clause. *I can run faster than Bob* means: * I can run faster than Bob [can run fast]. We don't need to repeat the whole of *can run fast* here because the listener can pick it up from the previous clause. In the Original Poster's sentence the Verb Phrase after *would* has been elided, it's completely missing. Because of this, the next word after *would* is *if*. As we have just said, there is no comma after *if* here, because there is no comma when the *if*-clause comes second. This means that *would* and *if* look as if they run together. They don't!. Lastly, let us turn to the Original Poster's reformulation of part of this part of the sentence. Notice also that *they were* is missing from the *if*-clause: * if [they were] faced We can miss out this material from the subordinate *if*-clause because it has the same subject as the superordinate result clause - namely the Western counterparts. However, we must remove both the subject *they* and the auxiliary passive *were*. Otherwise we need to leave them both in. So in relation to this part of the Original Poster's question, we could rewrite this part of the question as: * if they (their Western counterparts) **were** faced with the same circumstances. **Conclusion** The Original Poster's example involves a remarkable amount of nesting. Buried inside a number of other clauses at the end of the sentence is a comparative clause with the form of a so-called 'remote' conditional. A lot of the material from the conditional is missing, and the *if*-clause has not been moved to the front, as we would often expect. Because the *if*-clause is at the end of the conditional, it is not marked off by a comma. In addition, because the conditional is a comparative clause, much of the material, including the Verb Phrase after *would* is missing. This means that although they are in different clauses, *would* and *if* appear next to each other. A reconstruction of the sentence, including some ellipted material would read so: > > I argue instead that politicians have in fact behaved rationally, or at least they have behaved no differently than their Western counterparts would behave - if they were faced with the same circumstances. > > >
1. The underlying verbal idiom is *face someone with something* = ‘compel someone to confront or deal with something’. 2. *Faced* is not a finite verb but a past participle; here it bears a passive sense, as if there were a preceding *BE*: *(be) faced with* = ‘(be) compelled to confront or deal with something’. 3. An *if* clause whose first verb is *BE* and whose subject is the immediately preceding nominal may delete both of these; thus, *if faced with* is an elliptical form of *they BE faced with*. 4. The verb in the *than* clause has also been reduced by ellipsis: *would* is equivalent to *would BEHAVE*. 5. The capitalized forms *BE* and *BEHAVE* represent constructions which vary, depending on whether the writer intends to depict the hypothetical confrontation as retrospective or prospective. An advantage of the elliptical forms is that they spare the writer the necessity of deciding. Thus, the sentence may be expanded to: > > I argue instead that politicians have in fact behaved rationally or at least no differently their Western counterparts would ***have behaved*** if ***they had been*** faced with the same circumstances. > > *OR* > > ... would ***behave*** if ***they were*** faced ... > > >
198,840
*I argue instead that politicians have in fact behaved rationally or at least no differently than their Western counterparts would if faced with the same circumstances.* I understand the meaning of the clause but I am a little bit puzzled by the usage of the phrase *would if faced*. Is this a sort of inversion? Why is the verb in past tense? Why is *would* and *if* together (*if* and *would* is never good). Can I rewrite this part in this way: *if they (their westen counterparts) faced with the same circumstances.* Thank you for your answer.
2014/09/29
[ "https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/198840", "https://english.stackexchange.com", "https://english.stackexchange.com/users/87784/" ]
1. The underlying verbal idiom is *face someone with something* = ‘compel someone to confront or deal with something’. 2. *Faced* is not a finite verb but a past participle; here it bears a passive sense, as if there were a preceding *BE*: *(be) faced with* = ‘(be) compelled to confront or deal with something’. 3. An *if* clause whose first verb is *BE* and whose subject is the immediately preceding nominal may delete both of these; thus, *if faced with* is an elliptical form of *they BE faced with*. 4. The verb in the *than* clause has also been reduced by ellipsis: *would* is equivalent to *would BEHAVE*. 5. The capitalized forms *BE* and *BEHAVE* represent constructions which vary, depending on whether the writer intends to depict the hypothetical confrontation as retrospective or prospective. An advantage of the elliptical forms is that they spare the writer the necessity of deciding. Thus, the sentence may be expanded to: > > I argue instead that politicians have in fact behaved rationally or at least no differently their Western counterparts would ***have behaved*** if ***they had been*** faced with the same circumstances. > > *OR* > > ... would ***behave*** if ***they were*** faced ... > > >
> > I argue instead that politicians have in fact behaved rationally or at least no differently than their Western counterparts would if faced with the same circumstances. > > > The above does not seem to be correct to me, or at least not natural, and you have identified the problem area. I would change it to: ... than their Western counterparts would *have* if faced with ... Which would have the meaning "would have [behaved]" With this single addition I find the sentence quite understandable.
123,159
Dmaj7 - Emaj7 - Gbmaj7 - Gbmaj7 x repeats What is this chord progression? I could not figure out its key and know nothing about this one. It is from this video.
2022/05/30
[ "https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/123159", "https://music.stackexchange.com", "https://music.stackexchange.com/users/85024/" ]
Call that F♯maj7 rather than G♭maj7 and it starts to make more sense! I'm hearing F♯ as the tonal centre. It's not a functional progression. Just F♯maj7 approached by a couple of similar-shaped chords two and one whole step below. This is called 'planing'. There's a discussion of the technique here: <https://www.secretsofsongwriting.com/2008/09/04/chord-progressions-can-come-alive-with-planing/> As mentioned in a comment, 'planing' became popular with the French impressionist composers, particularly Ravel and Debussy. It's the antithesis of Common Practice harmony, where parallel 5ths and octaves were avoided. EVERYTHING's parallel in planing! Jazz theory tends to obsess on functional harmony, always looking for 'progressions'. We must remember that one perfectly valid way that a chord can 'fit' is simply being the same shape as the one before it.
I have a slightly different way to look at this. It's D - E - F#, with F# being the tonal center, and the relevant trick that makes this interesting is alternating between F# major and F# minor sounds. While the D and E chords are playing, it sounds like things from F# minor i.e. A major would fit (with come added twist like the D# in Emaj7), but then every time there's a "surprising" change - instead of F#m you get F#. "Surprising" in quotes, because it's not really surprising at all, switching between parallel major and minor is a very common thing to do in jazzy genres. Try playing F# minor pentatonic or F# blues licks over it, they should fit just about everywhere, including the F# major chord. Toy around with solo A and A# notes, when the F# major chord is sounding. "Planing" might describe what happens with the guitar chords, because the chord progression can be played by keeping the same fingering pattern but moving the left hand to a different position. But a practically identical chord progression would be: Emaj7 - C#m9 - F#maj7 or Bm9 - C#m9 - F#maj7 or, actually you can even change the F#maj7 and make it, say, D#m9. So Bm9 - C#m9 - D#m9 or if you like, split the second bar in half: Emaj7 - C#m9 - F#maj7 - D#m9 And as you can see, these don't have to be played with "planing". Actually, you can EQ out the bass in the video and change the video to one of these other versions by playing the bass notes from above over the video. And all the solos on the video would sound practically the same. The idea is the same during the first two chords, you treat it like being in F# minor, and during the last chords you treat it like being in F# major. Here's my favourite variation written out with the implied scale changes explicated as key signatures: (I tested that this works perfectly over the video, too bad we can't have audio clips here) [![chord progression variation notated](https://i.stack.imgur.com/10cVY.png)](https://i.stack.imgur.com/10cVY.png) Note that during Emaj7 or C#m9 chords, despite the key signature markings, D is sharpened. That's just one more trick that brings extra flavor. Even over the second bar with six sharps, you *can* play anything you want there, including E even though there's an E# in the default scale and in the F#maj7 chord. Or A even though there's an A# in the default scale and in the F#maj7 chord. Try all notes over all chords and learn what the combinations taste like. :) Planing can be a creative technique for coming up with progressions like that. But when you start doing variations of the chord progression to find out what is its harmonic essence, you may find that no planing is needed to play what's essential to the progression. This is probably somewhat subjective, but in my opinion, it doesn't change the "song" at all whether you have E or C# in the bass. Or D vs B. If you're bored with one, use the other one.