qid int64 1 74.7M | question stringlengths 12 33.8k | date stringlengths 10 10 | metadata list | response_j stringlengths 0 115k | response_k stringlengths 2 98.3k |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
20,437 | Why do we say "Jack Shit" to mean "nothing at all"? | 2011/04/11 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/20437",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/7214/"
] | (Expanded from @mickeyf and @Callithumpian's [comments](https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/20437/origin-of-jack-shit/20440#20440).)
**Jack-shit** is US slang dating to at least 1968, where it was used by S. Clay Wilson's ["Captain Pissgums and His Pervert Pirates"](http://ukjarry.blogspot.com/2010/01/360-s-clay-wilson-captain-pissgums-and.html) in *Zap Comix* #3, published in San Francisco. See the final frame of page six:
>
> CAN'T SEE JACK-SHIT OUT OF THIS EYE
>
>
>
*Jack-shit* goes back to [1971](http://www.google.com/search?q=%22jack-shit%22&num=20&hl=en&tbs=sbd:1,cdr:1,cd_min:1/1/1900,cd_max:12/31/1979&tbm=bks&ei=CfCOTpmDF6rb4QTg7p2lAQ&start=20&sa=N&biw=1024&bih=509) and *jackshit* to [1970](http://www.google.com/search?q=%22jackshit%22&num=20&hl=en&tbs=sbd:1,cdr:1,cd_min:1/1/1900,cd_max:12/31/1979&tbm=bks&ei=CfCOTpmDF6rb4QTg7p2lAQ&start=20&sa=N&biw=1024&bih=509) in Google Books, and there seems to be a San Francisco connection to the early uses. (This [Partridge dictionary of slang](http://books.google.com/books?id=cCVnlIUTpg4C&pg=PA360&dq=%22jack%20shit%22%20dictionary&hl=en&ei=SPKOTrO3IujP4QTutfzBAQ&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=result&resnum=20&ved=0CIsBEOgBMBM#v=snippet&q=%22jack%20shit%22&f=false) dated it to 1969.) | "Jack shit" is a colloquial form of emphasis. That is, if you say either "you don't know jack" or "you don't know shit" you convey the same meaning. It's arguable whether one is more intense or threatening than the other; to my mind, that depends on context and setting. "You don't know jack shit" conveys greater force by doubling the final term. |
20,437 | Why do we say "Jack Shit" to mean "nothing at all"? | 2011/04/11 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/20437",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/7214/"
] | I guess your question is more about the *jack* part.
In English a jack is by-name for a common person.
In British English, *jack* is a very old (13th century) term to designate the average peasant - the man at the bottom of the social pyramid. See for instance colloquial expressions such as "every man jack".
In that sense it comes from Old French "jacques" which has the same meaning - "Jacques" being a very common first name in medieval France at the time. The revolt of the French peasantry during the Hundred Years' War was famously called the "[Jacquerie](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jacquerie)" because the *jacques* were all in arms and busy burning castles.
It also gave English the word "jacket" that was then adopted back in French as "jaquette" (the lost "c" and the meaning of a typically classy suit is a tell-tale sign it does not come directly from Old French).
During the British naval supremacy period, jack was also used to designate the average seaman.
The word must have somehow passed into American English. See for instance "lumberjack" for "lumberman".
So in addition to the word "shit" symbol of something of little value, the use of jack here reinforces that meaning by referring to an average fellow of supposedly low level of sophistication or knowledge.
Another very close way to see things is that "jack-sth" is used to denote a smaller version of this something. The OED says:
>
> applied to things of smaller than the
> normal size; [...] jack-bowl,
> jack-brick, jack-fish"
>
>
>
So you get the idea: a *jack shit* is of even less value than a regular-size one (who can claim now that EL&U is not an instructive forum ?).
To redeem myself, let me just mention one of the proposed etymologies of the name "**Union Jack**" (quoted from the OED) as this is a related matter:
>
> "A ship's flag of smaller size than the
> ensign, used at sea as a signal, or as
> a mark of distinction; spec. the small
> flag which is flown from the
> jack-staff at the bow of a vessel
> (formerly at the sprit-sail topmast
> head), and by which the nationality of
> a ship is indicated, as in British
> jack, Dutch jack, French jack. In
> British use the jack has been since
> the 17th c. (except under the
> Commonwealth) a small sized ‘Union
> Flag’ of the period (Union Jack),
> which has also been, since 1707,
> inserted in the upper canton of the
> ensign; hence, the name ‘union jack’
> is often improperly applied to the
> union flag itself, when this is not
> carried or used as a jack. Every
> maritime nation has a jack of its own;
> this is usually, either as in Great
> Britain, †the German Empire, Sweden,
> and the United States, the same as the
> canton of the ensign, or, as in France
> and the Netherlands, identical with
> the ensign, only smaller". (Prof. J. K.
> Laughton.)
>
>
> | [Etymonline](http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?search=jack%20shit&searchmode=none) reports that *Jack shit* (to mean "nothing at all") has been attested by 1974, and it is American English slang.
It doesn't report for which reason *Jack shit* is used, and not, for example, *Daniel shit*.
There isn't probably any correlation, but *Jack* is a familiar form of the given name *John*, and *john* is a word that means *toilet* (the other meaning is "a prostitute's client").
In American English, *jack* is the informal short for *jack shit*, but in other contexts it also a short for *jackrabbit*.
*Jack* is also used in names of animals that are smaller than similar kinds (e.g. *jacksnipe*). |
20,437 | Why do we say "Jack Shit" to mean "nothing at all"? | 2011/04/11 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/20437",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/7214/"
] | The term "jack shit" has been around for ages. The term is a corruption of a phrase used in the British Navy. "He doesn't know jacks from sheets." Where "jacks" were flags or small sails and "sheets" were larger sails. It's not that big a step from describing a novice sailor as "not knowing jacks from sheets" to "not knowing jack shit." | [Etymonline](http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?search=jack%20shit&searchmode=none) reports that *Jack shit* (to mean "nothing at all") has been attested by 1974, and it is American English slang.
It doesn't report for which reason *Jack shit* is used, and not, for example, *Daniel shit*.
There isn't probably any correlation, but *Jack* is a familiar form of the given name *John*, and *john* is a word that means *toilet* (the other meaning is "a prostitute's client").
In American English, *jack* is the informal short for *jack shit*, but in other contexts it also a short for *jackrabbit*.
*Jack* is also used in names of animals that are smaller than similar kinds (e.g. *jacksnipe*). |
20,437 | Why do we say "Jack Shit" to mean "nothing at all"? | 2011/04/11 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/20437",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/7214/"
] | I guess your question is more about the *jack* part.
In English a jack is by-name for a common person.
In British English, *jack* is a very old (13th century) term to designate the average peasant - the man at the bottom of the social pyramid. See for instance colloquial expressions such as "every man jack".
In that sense it comes from Old French "jacques" which has the same meaning - "Jacques" being a very common first name in medieval France at the time. The revolt of the French peasantry during the Hundred Years' War was famously called the "[Jacquerie](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jacquerie)" because the *jacques* were all in arms and busy burning castles.
It also gave English the word "jacket" that was then adopted back in French as "jaquette" (the lost "c" and the meaning of a typically classy suit is a tell-tale sign it does not come directly from Old French).
During the British naval supremacy period, jack was also used to designate the average seaman.
The word must have somehow passed into American English. See for instance "lumberjack" for "lumberman".
So in addition to the word "shit" symbol of something of little value, the use of jack here reinforces that meaning by referring to an average fellow of supposedly low level of sophistication or knowledge.
Another very close way to see things is that "jack-sth" is used to denote a smaller version of this something. The OED says:
>
> applied to things of smaller than the
> normal size; [...] jack-bowl,
> jack-brick, jack-fish"
>
>
>
So you get the idea: a *jack shit* is of even less value than a regular-size one (who can claim now that EL&U is not an instructive forum ?).
To redeem myself, let me just mention one of the proposed etymologies of the name "**Union Jack**" (quoted from the OED) as this is a related matter:
>
> "A ship's flag of smaller size than the
> ensign, used at sea as a signal, or as
> a mark of distinction; spec. the small
> flag which is flown from the
> jack-staff at the bow of a vessel
> (formerly at the sprit-sail topmast
> head), and by which the nationality of
> a ship is indicated, as in British
> jack, Dutch jack, French jack. In
> British use the jack has been since
> the 17th c. (except under the
> Commonwealth) a small sized ‘Union
> Flag’ of the period (Union Jack),
> which has also been, since 1707,
> inserted in the upper canton of the
> ensign; hence, the name ‘union jack’
> is often improperly applied to the
> union flag itself, when this is not
> carried or used as a jack. Every
> maritime nation has a jack of its own;
> this is usually, either as in Great
> Britain, †the German Empire, Sweden,
> and the United States, the same as the
> canton of the ensign, or, as in France
> and the Netherlands, identical with
> the ensign, only smaller". (Prof. J. K.
> Laughton.)
>
>
> | The term "jack shit" has been around for ages. The term is a corruption of a phrase used in the British Navy. "He doesn't know jacks from sheets." Where "jacks" were flags or small sails and "sheets" were larger sails. It's not that big a step from describing a novice sailor as "not knowing jacks from sheets" to "not knowing jack shit." |
20,437 | Why do we say "Jack Shit" to mean "nothing at all"? | 2011/04/11 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/20437",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/7214/"
] | I guess your question is more about the *jack* part.
In English a jack is by-name for a common person.
In British English, *jack* is a very old (13th century) term to designate the average peasant - the man at the bottom of the social pyramid. See for instance colloquial expressions such as "every man jack".
In that sense it comes from Old French "jacques" which has the same meaning - "Jacques" being a very common first name in medieval France at the time. The revolt of the French peasantry during the Hundred Years' War was famously called the "[Jacquerie](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jacquerie)" because the *jacques* were all in arms and busy burning castles.
It also gave English the word "jacket" that was then adopted back in French as "jaquette" (the lost "c" and the meaning of a typically classy suit is a tell-tale sign it does not come directly from Old French).
During the British naval supremacy period, jack was also used to designate the average seaman.
The word must have somehow passed into American English. See for instance "lumberjack" for "lumberman".
So in addition to the word "shit" symbol of something of little value, the use of jack here reinforces that meaning by referring to an average fellow of supposedly low level of sophistication or knowledge.
Another very close way to see things is that "jack-sth" is used to denote a smaller version of this something. The OED says:
>
> applied to things of smaller than the
> normal size; [...] jack-bowl,
> jack-brick, jack-fish"
>
>
>
So you get the idea: a *jack shit* is of even less value than a regular-size one (who can claim now that EL&U is not an instructive forum ?).
To redeem myself, let me just mention one of the proposed etymologies of the name "**Union Jack**" (quoted from the OED) as this is a related matter:
>
> "A ship's flag of smaller size than the
> ensign, used at sea as a signal, or as
> a mark of distinction; spec. the small
> flag which is flown from the
> jack-staff at the bow of a vessel
> (formerly at the sprit-sail topmast
> head), and by which the nationality of
> a ship is indicated, as in British
> jack, Dutch jack, French jack. In
> British use the jack has been since
> the 17th c. (except under the
> Commonwealth) a small sized ‘Union
> Flag’ of the period (Union Jack),
> which has also been, since 1707,
> inserted in the upper canton of the
> ensign; hence, the name ‘union jack’
> is often improperly applied to the
> union flag itself, when this is not
> carried or used as a jack. Every
> maritime nation has a jack of its own;
> this is usually, either as in Great
> Britain, †the German Empire, Sweden,
> and the United States, the same as the
> canton of the ensign, or, as in France
> and the Netherlands, identical with
> the ensign, only smaller". (Prof. J. K.
> Laughton.)
>
>
> | (Expanded from @mickeyf and @Callithumpian's [comments](https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/20437/origin-of-jack-shit/20440#20440).)
**Jack-shit** is US slang dating to at least 1968, where it was used by S. Clay Wilson's ["Captain Pissgums and His Pervert Pirates"](http://ukjarry.blogspot.com/2010/01/360-s-clay-wilson-captain-pissgums-and.html) in *Zap Comix* #3, published in San Francisco. See the final frame of page six:
>
> CAN'T SEE JACK-SHIT OUT OF THIS EYE
>
>
>
*Jack-shit* goes back to [1971](http://www.google.com/search?q=%22jack-shit%22&num=20&hl=en&tbs=sbd:1,cdr:1,cd_min:1/1/1900,cd_max:12/31/1979&tbm=bks&ei=CfCOTpmDF6rb4QTg7p2lAQ&start=20&sa=N&biw=1024&bih=509) and *jackshit* to [1970](http://www.google.com/search?q=%22jackshit%22&num=20&hl=en&tbs=sbd:1,cdr:1,cd_min:1/1/1900,cd_max:12/31/1979&tbm=bks&ei=CfCOTpmDF6rb4QTg7p2lAQ&start=20&sa=N&biw=1024&bih=509) in Google Books, and there seems to be a San Francisco connection to the early uses. (This [Partridge dictionary of slang](http://books.google.com/books?id=cCVnlIUTpg4C&pg=PA360&dq=%22jack%20shit%22%20dictionary&hl=en&ei=SPKOTrO3IujP4QTutfzBAQ&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=result&resnum=20&ved=0CIsBEOgBMBM#v=snippet&q=%22jack%20shit%22&f=false) dated it to 1969.) |
20,437 | Why do we say "Jack Shit" to mean "nothing at all"? | 2011/04/11 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/20437",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/7214/"
] | The term "jack shit" has been around for ages. The term is a corruption of a phrase used in the British Navy. "He doesn't know jacks from sheets." Where "jacks" were flags or small sails and "sheets" were larger sails. It's not that big a step from describing a novice sailor as "not knowing jacks from sheets" to "not knowing jack shit." | (Expanded from @mickeyf and @Callithumpian's [comments](https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/20437/origin-of-jack-shit/20440#20440).)
**Jack-shit** is US slang dating to at least 1968, where it was used by S. Clay Wilson's ["Captain Pissgums and His Pervert Pirates"](http://ukjarry.blogspot.com/2010/01/360-s-clay-wilson-captain-pissgums-and.html) in *Zap Comix* #3, published in San Francisco. See the final frame of page six:
>
> CAN'T SEE JACK-SHIT OUT OF THIS EYE
>
>
>
*Jack-shit* goes back to [1971](http://www.google.com/search?q=%22jack-shit%22&num=20&hl=en&tbs=sbd:1,cdr:1,cd_min:1/1/1900,cd_max:12/31/1979&tbm=bks&ei=CfCOTpmDF6rb4QTg7p2lAQ&start=20&sa=N&biw=1024&bih=509) and *jackshit* to [1970](http://www.google.com/search?q=%22jackshit%22&num=20&hl=en&tbs=sbd:1,cdr:1,cd_min:1/1/1900,cd_max:12/31/1979&tbm=bks&ei=CfCOTpmDF6rb4QTg7p2lAQ&start=20&sa=N&biw=1024&bih=509) in Google Books, and there seems to be a San Francisco connection to the early uses. (This [Partridge dictionary of slang](http://books.google.com/books?id=cCVnlIUTpg4C&pg=PA360&dq=%22jack%20shit%22%20dictionary&hl=en&ei=SPKOTrO3IujP4QTutfzBAQ&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=result&resnum=20&ved=0CIsBEOgBMBM#v=snippet&q=%22jack%20shit%22&f=false) dated it to 1969.) |
659,483 | The laptop is able to suspend. After resuming from suspend, there is simply no display, the screen remains off. Based on all the other answers, I have tried the various **Ctrl+Alt+Fn** (1 - 12) combinations as well as **Ctrl+Alt+Del**. There is no terminal, no error message, no nothing. The only thing that does happen is the fans go louder and faster.
The model/make of the laptop is HP 630 Notebook PC. | 2015/08/09 | [
"https://askubuntu.com/questions/659483",
"https://askubuntu.com",
"https://askubuntu.com/users/434692/"
] | The solution was to update the BIOS.
The old BIOS which didn't work was version F.19.
It worked after updating to version F.39. | If you can't get anything on a screen even after powering off and on, possibly you should try to clear CMOS but this better do in service centre.
If you can see at least BIOS post messages immediately after powering on but then it goes blank screen, this means something wrong with you OS and you should try to boot Ubuntu from Live USB and then recover it.
If you can successfully boot as usual but you have issues only resuming from suspend this is just a bug in kernel or in graphic drivers. You should write a bug report on appropriate bug tracker previously identifying the source of the problem. |
659,483 | The laptop is able to suspend. After resuming from suspend, there is simply no display, the screen remains off. Based on all the other answers, I have tried the various **Ctrl+Alt+Fn** (1 - 12) combinations as well as **Ctrl+Alt+Del**. There is no terminal, no error message, no nothing. The only thing that does happen is the fans go louder and faster.
The model/make of the laptop is HP 630 Notebook PC. | 2015/08/09 | [
"https://askubuntu.com/questions/659483",
"https://askubuntu.com",
"https://askubuntu.com/users/434692/"
] | The solution was to update the BIOS.
The old BIOS which didn't work was version F.19.
It worked after updating to version F.39. | I had the same problem. In my case, I discovered a method for this: start swiping the touch pad fully and very fast, **immediately** after opening the lid. |
659,483 | The laptop is able to suspend. After resuming from suspend, there is simply no display, the screen remains off. Based on all the other answers, I have tried the various **Ctrl+Alt+Fn** (1 - 12) combinations as well as **Ctrl+Alt+Del**. There is no terminal, no error message, no nothing. The only thing that does happen is the fans go louder and faster.
The model/make of the laptop is HP 630 Notebook PC. | 2015/08/09 | [
"https://askubuntu.com/questions/659483",
"https://askubuntu.com",
"https://askubuntu.com/users/434692/"
] | If you can't get anything on a screen even after powering off and on, possibly you should try to clear CMOS but this better do in service centre.
If you can see at least BIOS post messages immediately after powering on but then it goes blank screen, this means something wrong with you OS and you should try to boot Ubuntu from Live USB and then recover it.
If you can successfully boot as usual but you have issues only resuming from suspend this is just a bug in kernel or in graphic drivers. You should write a bug report on appropriate bug tracker previously identifying the source of the problem. | I had the same problem. In my case, I discovered a method for this: start swiping the touch pad fully and very fast, **immediately** after opening the lid. |
33,441 | I'm writing my research proposal and my supervisor wants me to abbreviate the journal name (and remove part of the month from the publication date). How can I achieve that?
*Edit:*
I am using BibTeX and my .bib file holds the full journal name. I writing using Emacs on an Arch Linux machine. I don't really mind switching to other LaTeX format but I don't know anything about them. | 2011/11/02 | [
"https://tex.stackexchange.com/questions/33441",
"https://tex.stackexchange.com",
"https://tex.stackexchange.com/users/5366/"
] | A while back I created a package and some BibTeX styles for automatic journal abbreviations that uses the ISSN database to do exactly this:
<https://github.com/compholio/jabbrv>
This is now included as an Overleaf template: <https://www.overleaf.com/latex/templates/automatic-journal-abbreviations/mxfsdscmvxcr>
Edit: Changed link to git repository (old link: <http://www.compholio.com/latex/jabbrv/>) | You should be aware that the abbreviation is not arbitrary, because there is the standard [ISO 4](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/ISO_4) that defines a [List of Title Word Abbreviations (LTWA)](http://www.issn.org/services/online-services/access-to-the-ltwa/). As far as I know, every abbreviation is unique, so that abbreviating/un-abbreviating should work unambigously in both directions.
The CAS has a small [online tool CASSI](http://cassi.cas.org/) that can be used to search for journal names and/or their official LTWA abbreviation.
JabRef has a [journal name abbreviation feature](http://jabref.sourceforge.net/help/JournalAbbreviations.php) that also uses the LTWA. This feature can be configured under Options → Manage journal abbreviations. |
33,441 | I'm writing my research proposal and my supervisor wants me to abbreviate the journal name (and remove part of the month from the publication date). How can I achieve that?
*Edit:*
I am using BibTeX and my .bib file holds the full journal name. I writing using Emacs on an Arch Linux machine. I don't really mind switching to other LaTeX format but I don't know anything about them. | 2011/11/02 | [
"https://tex.stackexchange.com/questions/33441",
"https://tex.stackexchange.com",
"https://tex.stackexchange.com/users/5366/"
] | A while back I created a package and some BibTeX styles for automatic journal abbreviations that uses the ISSN database to do exactly this:
<https://github.com/compholio/jabbrv>
This is now included as an Overleaf template: <https://www.overleaf.com/latex/templates/automatic-journal-abbreviations/mxfsdscmvxcr>
Edit: Changed link to git repository (old link: <http://www.compholio.com/latex/jabbrv/>) | I have made a little Python script that processes a bibtex database, searching for the journal names and replacing them with their official abbreviation (taken from the Jabref source): <https://gist.github.com/FilipDominec/9ff081952dbc4aae1df657a56c3db4ea> |
167,016 | I was trying to create an Android emulator on my computer but the AVD Manager is telling me that my computer doesn't support a required feature for the "VT-x or SVM." My computer has a AMD A6-5350M processor with radeon graphics with 8GB of memory. I was wondering if there was any way to run an emulator with this configuration. | 2017/01/17 | [
"https://android.stackexchange.com/questions/167016",
"https://android.stackexchange.com",
"https://android.stackexchange.com/users/106273/"
] | VT-x is the Intel virtualization technology while SVM is its equivalent for AMD.
I think either your computer doesn't have such feature or it is not enabled.
Go to the BIOS and see if it is supported.
If the feature is not supported, you can test your app with ADB though. | My Laptop has also got AMD processor, I tried with Android emulator many times but always get it running slow or not opening at all... So I switched to other Android emulators and I found "Xamarin" cool.. even Genymotion is cool but not all feature you get for fee :P.
So what I suggest is to use "Xamarin". |
167,016 | I was trying to create an Android emulator on my computer but the AVD Manager is telling me that my computer doesn't support a required feature for the "VT-x or SVM." My computer has a AMD A6-5350M processor with radeon graphics with 8GB of memory. I was wondering if there was any way to run an emulator with this configuration. | 2017/01/17 | [
"https://android.stackexchange.com/questions/167016",
"https://android.stackexchange.com",
"https://android.stackexchange.com/users/106273/"
] | I found out that it seems that the state of enabling and disabling the virtualization on my computer is flipped in the BIOS. While trying to run the emulator did succeed is getting to the home screen when the virtualization was actually enabled, it was too slow to actually try to run anything from the Android AVD manager so my CPU itself is to blame. However I did manage to get a decent emulator running with Genymotion's free edition after discovering the fault in the BIOS.
You can download the free genymotion from the link:
<https://www.genymotion.com/fun-zone/> | My Laptop has also got AMD processor, I tried with Android emulator many times but always get it running slow or not opening at all... So I switched to other Android emulators and I found "Xamarin" cool.. even Genymotion is cool but not all feature you get for fee :P.
So what I suggest is to use "Xamarin". |
35,778 | At the end of "The wedding of River song", Dorium says that at the end, a question will be asked, and it must not be answered. Silence must fall. He then says, "Doctor Who??", hinting that the question will be the Doctor's name.
In the episode "The name of the Doctor", the Doctor goes
>
> to his grave, and is asked to speak his name, so the inner part of the Tardis can open, and his time body (dead) be seen, and used by Dr Simeon to kill him throughout history.
>
>
>
But the Silence wanted to kill the Doctor anyway, so why would they want to stop the question being asked? | 2013/05/18 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/35778",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/7931/"
] | It is improbable that the silence wanted to prevent the events in the Name of the Doctor, or even that they were aware of the events.
The utterance of the words and question "Dr. Who?" by the Great Intelligence is not enough to conclude that this is the situation referred to in the prophecy. The prophecy refers to other circumstances that also have to exist for the utterance of those words to be the true manifestation of the events set out in the prophecy.
References to "the fall of the eleventh" and "fields of Trenzalore" although they may admit many reasonable interpretations still imply the existence of a war (not its aftermath). The events of the Time of the Doctor which deals with a long war on Trenzalore seems to fit much better with the details of the prophecy. Also, the Doctor does resist answering the G.I's question and despite extreme duress doesn't answer it. That behaviour does not agree with what is described in the prophecy. The prophecy says the question will be asked at a moment "when no living creature can speak falsely or fail to answer".
So, it is reasonable to conclude that the prophecy does not refer to the Doctor's encounter with the G.I. at Trenzalore and that it is not meant to prevent those specific events. | I think yous arent really looking at the prophecy that well or what Dorium said to be in fact.
"On the fields of Trenzalore, at the fall of the eleventh, **when no living creature** can speak falsely or fail to answer, a Question will be asked, a question that must never, ever be answered."
On the name of the doctor someone did actually answer the question, River and that River was actually the saved one from the Libary meaning she was actually dead then and was only a saved piece of data the Tenth Doctor had done to keep her. So basically no living creature can speak falsely or fail to answer meaning something that isnt alive no more will have to speak the true answer which the only dead thing their amongst all the graves i mean that could actually speak was River! hope i helped |
35,778 | At the end of "The wedding of River song", Dorium says that at the end, a question will be asked, and it must not be answered. Silence must fall. He then says, "Doctor Who??", hinting that the question will be the Doctor's name.
In the episode "The name of the Doctor", the Doctor goes
>
> to his grave, and is asked to speak his name, so the inner part of the Tardis can open, and his time body (dead) be seen, and used by Dr Simeon to kill him throughout history.
>
>
>
But the Silence wanted to kill the Doctor anyway, so why would they want to stop the question being asked? | 2013/05/18 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/35778",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/7931/"
] | >
> The Silence wanted to prevent the Great Intelligence from turning the Doctor's victories into defeats by killing the Doctor before he could get to Trenzalore. The Silence's goals are explained by two key pieces of dialogue in "The Wedding of River Song":
>
>
>
* Churchill: But what was the question? Why did it mean your death?
* Doctor: Suppose there was a man who knew a secret. A terrible, dangerous secret that must never be told. How would you erase that secret from the world? Destroy it forever, before it can be spoken.
* Churchill: If I had to, I'd destroy the man.
* Doctor: And silence would fall. All the times I've heard those words, **I never realised it was my silence, my death**. The Doctor will fall.
>
> As explained here, "silence" refers to the Doctor's silence, which, if the Silence had succeeded in killing him prematurely, would fall when the Question was asked on Trenzalore because there would be nobody there to answer it.
>
>
>
Also:
* Doctor: Silence will fall when the question is asked.
* Dorium: Silence must fall would be a better translation. **The Silence are determined the question will never be answered**. That the Doctor will never reach Trenzalore.
>
> Here, we see that the Silence will stop at no costs to ensure that the Doctor does not make it to Trenzalore (so that he can't say his name and give the Great Intelligence access to his timeline). They believe that silence absolutely **must** fall when the Question is asked; that the Doctor **must** be dead and unable to answer. So basically, the Silence believes that killing the Doctor is a much better alternative to what will happen if he goes to Trenzalore and answers the Question (since doing so will result in the Great Intelligence gaining access to his timeline and being able to undo all the good he's ever done).
>
>
>
It should be noted, however, that the Silence most likely do not know what *exactly* will happen when the Question is answered on Trenzalore and are merely heeding the warning given by the prophecy, which simply says that the Question must never be answered. If they knew the exact details, then they could have just as easily warned the Doctor about what to look out for as opposed to going to such great lengths to kill him and ensure his silence. | To answer the question of why the Silence didn't want the Doctor to go to Trenzalore and answer the question, we must first figure out what "Silence" is referring to in the prophecy. It could be either of the following, which contain spoilers from The Name of the Doctor:
>
> Silence could mean that nobody present at the event hear the Doctor's name spoken aloud. - In this case, the Silence succeeded, but only by luck, or arguably another manipulation of River Song. This would mean that the Silence don't care about the events that transpire within the tomb itself and we will probably see them in season 8.
>
>
>
-Or-
>
> Silence could mean that the name never be spoken and that the tomb never open. - In this case, the Silence fail in their attempt, but we don't know their reason for wanting the tomb to stay closed. We also don't know if the end result was good or bad for them. We might find out in season 8 if the writers didn't forget about the Silence.
>
>
>
The primary goal of the Silence was to use Time Lord DNA as a means to gain power, which would be impossible if the Doctor is destroyed throughout history and the Time Lords still existed. They don't want to kill the Doctor, but they will try to do so if it is within their best interests. They also only try to kill him in his eleventh or further incarnation, meaning he needs to have existed up until a certain point for them to acquire their weapon. |
35,778 | At the end of "The wedding of River song", Dorium says that at the end, a question will be asked, and it must not be answered. Silence must fall. He then says, "Doctor Who??", hinting that the question will be the Doctor's name.
In the episode "The name of the Doctor", the Doctor goes
>
> to his grave, and is asked to speak his name, so the inner part of the Tardis can open, and his time body (dead) be seen, and used by Dr Simeon to kill him throughout history.
>
>
>
But the Silence wanted to kill the Doctor anyway, so why would they want to stop the question being asked? | 2013/05/18 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/35778",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/7931/"
] | As Dorium explains to The Doctor, The Silence did not want to *kill* the Doctor, they just did not want him to *remain alive*. That explanation was brushed off by The Doctor at the time, but it actually makes perfect sense now.
The Silence did not necessarily want to murder The Doctor personally. (They are not like his other enemies, e.g. Dalek, Cybermen, Sontarans, who want to kill him off as soon as possible) Rather, they wanted to stop the specific events of their prophecy, which he was directly responsible for, from happening. They believed that the only way to accomplish this goal was to kill him at some point before those events could occur. We can also *speculate* that The Silence don't want to erase the things The Doctor has already done. Since they can time travel, they could have selected any number of "still points" during The Doctor's life to kill him; they presumably picked Lake Silencio because it was far enough along to safely cut off his time stream.
According to Dorium, the entire prophecy was something like (from *The Wedding of River Song*):
>
> "On the fields of Trenzalore, at the fall of the eleventh, when no living creature can speak falsely or fail to answer, a Question will be asked, a question that must never, ever be answered. [...] The First Question, the oldest question in the Universe, that must never be answered, hidden in plain sight. [...] Doctor Who?
>
>
>
And that the Silence "must fall" if the question were answered.
Based on the events of "Name of the Doctor":
>
> The Silence want to prevent The Doctor from going to Trenzalore and speaking his own name to open his grave for the Great Intelligence. Again, we can *speculate* that the Silence are actually trying to prevent the Great Intelligence from undoing the things The Doctor has already done.
>
>
>
It's not entirely clear if the Silence succeeded in avoiding whatever fate they had in store. We saw no hint of them in the episode, so its possible that whatever bad thing was supposed to happen to them will still happen. But it's also possible that they managed to achieve their goal anyway -- note that they way events played out in the episode relied very heavily on
>
> River Song knowing everything about The Doctor and being a major part of his life, as well as being able to control the TARDIS
>
>
>
which arguably was the result of The Silence's meddling.
(As a side note, I still don't quite get the "cannot lie or fail to answer" bit in the prophecy, unless it was just a bit of poetic license.) | It is improbable that the silence wanted to prevent the events in the Name of the Doctor, or even that they were aware of the events.
The utterance of the words and question "Dr. Who?" by the Great Intelligence is not enough to conclude that this is the situation referred to in the prophecy. The prophecy refers to other circumstances that also have to exist for the utterance of those words to be the true manifestation of the events set out in the prophecy.
References to "the fall of the eleventh" and "fields of Trenzalore" although they may admit many reasonable interpretations still imply the existence of a war (not its aftermath). The events of the Time of the Doctor which deals with a long war on Trenzalore seems to fit much better with the details of the prophecy. Also, the Doctor does resist answering the G.I's question and despite extreme duress doesn't answer it. That behaviour does not agree with what is described in the prophecy. The prophecy says the question will be asked at a moment "when no living creature can speak falsely or fail to answer".
So, it is reasonable to conclude that the prophecy does not refer to the Doctor's encounter with the G.I. at Trenzalore and that it is not meant to prevent those specific events. |
35,778 | At the end of "The wedding of River song", Dorium says that at the end, a question will be asked, and it must not be answered. Silence must fall. He then says, "Doctor Who??", hinting that the question will be the Doctor's name.
In the episode "The name of the Doctor", the Doctor goes
>
> to his grave, and is asked to speak his name, so the inner part of the Tardis can open, and his time body (dead) be seen, and used by Dr Simeon to kill him throughout history.
>
>
>
But the Silence wanted to kill the Doctor anyway, so why would they want to stop the question being asked? | 2013/05/18 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/35778",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/7931/"
] | It is still possible that the events in that prophecy are going to be coming in the 50th, and are related to why the John Hurt doctor isn't the Doctor, and so the events of the Name of the Doctor are irrelevant to the Silence's plan. I say that because the prophecy also says when no one can fail to answer or speak falsely, and it was pretty evident that the Doctor failed to answer the Great Intelligence. | I think yous arent really looking at the prophecy that well or what Dorium said to be in fact.
"On the fields of Trenzalore, at the fall of the eleventh, **when no living creature** can speak falsely or fail to answer, a Question will be asked, a question that must never, ever be answered."
On the name of the doctor someone did actually answer the question, River and that River was actually the saved one from the Libary meaning she was actually dead then and was only a saved piece of data the Tenth Doctor had done to keep her. So basically no living creature can speak falsely or fail to answer meaning something that isnt alive no more will have to speak the true answer which the only dead thing their amongst all the graves i mean that could actually speak was River! hope i helped |
35,778 | At the end of "The wedding of River song", Dorium says that at the end, a question will be asked, and it must not be answered. Silence must fall. He then says, "Doctor Who??", hinting that the question will be the Doctor's name.
In the episode "The name of the Doctor", the Doctor goes
>
> to his grave, and is asked to speak his name, so the inner part of the Tardis can open, and his time body (dead) be seen, and used by Dr Simeon to kill him throughout history.
>
>
>
But the Silence wanted to kill the Doctor anyway, so why would they want to stop the question being asked? | 2013/05/18 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/35778",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/7931/"
] | The Silence didn't care about the Doctor visiting his tomb. The prophecy is about the battle that resulted in the graveyard we see in *The Name of the Doctor*. During that battle, Silence fell. The main reason I think this is the case, is because:
>
> when no living creature may speak falsely or fail to give answer
>
>
>
wasn't really part of the events of that episode. The Doctor clearly failed to give an answer, River was the one who provided the answer.
---
We see the events of the prophesy play out in the recent Christmas Special episode, *The Time of the Doctor*. In it, The Doctor and Clara go to a world revealed to be Trenzalore. The crack from Series 5 is in a building on the planet, in a small town. It is emanating a 'truth field', which prevents people from 'speaking falsely' (see above prophecy). A signal is coming from the crack, which contains an encrypted message asking a question over and over:
>
> Doctor *Who?*
>
>
>
They come to the planet, and find many ships from various races. Each race sent one ship to investigate the signal, which is being transmitted throughout time and space. The Church got there first. To protect the planet, they setup a shield to prevent anyone from going to the planet or attacking it. When the Doctor arrived, The Church sent him down to investigate.
The signal is coming from Gallifrey, outside the universe after the events of *Day of the Doctor*. If the Doctor speaks his name they'll return, but in so doing, will restart the Time War. Upon learning this, The Church dedicates themselves to Silence, the silence of the Doctor, as they do not want the Time War to return. As The Church's leader proclaims:
>
> Silence must fall.
>
>
>
A repeating theme of the 11th Doctor's run, and something related to the prophecy, "Silence will fall when the Question is asked" (*Let's Kill Hitler*).
So The Church helps maintain a truce, they help the Doctor prevent any of the races from invading the planet, and he does not answer the question. Then time passes as they maintain the truce. Centuries pass, the Doctor grows old.
At the end of the episode, the Daleks break the truce and invade the planet. Clara argues into the crack that the Time Lords don't need to hear the Doctor's true name, they just need to help him. They do so by providing him with a new set of regenerations. The 11th Doctor dies of old age, blasting the Daleks with his regeneration energy, saving the planet as his regeneration begins.
And so the Eleventh falls. This fulfills the prophecy, and explains, "what Silence?" It's the Doctor's silence; his refusal to answer the question. This gets copied into Church faith, which ends up being the source of the past events where the Silence try to kill the Doctor.
The Silence are a faction of The Church who took the new Silence dogma and went back along the Doctor's personal timeline. They attacked him earlier (i.e. by creating River Song, by blowing up the TARDIS) to kill him, preventing him from reaching Trenzalore. Essentially they sought to ensure that 'Silence would fall' by preventing the Doctor from being present.
*Largely copied from my answer over on [Movies & TV.SE](https://movies.stackexchange.com/a/11519/209)* | Well we know the Doctor some time in the future will actually die on Trenzalore. So it's possible the prophecy could be pertaining to the last time he goes there.
We know the 11th Doctor will die soon so maybe he goes back there in the Christmas Special or 50th Anniversary and then more will be explained. That will fit in more with the prophecy that "at the fall of the eleventh, when no living creature can speak falsely or fail to answer, a question will be asked, a question that must never, ever be answered.
Wikipedia says that "The religion takes its name from the prophecy, that when the oldest question in the universe is answered, silence will (or must) fall. As the Doctor is predestined to answer the question, the Silence made it their goal to make his death a fixed point in time and prevent this."
I think it could be building to his death or something really big because ever since season 5 the silence have played a part. They interfered with the TARDIS in the Pandorica season finale. They tried to kill the Doctor again in the next season with River. But in the 7th season they didn't appear even though they are still alive but the Doctor still ended up going to Trenzalore so its somewhat connected. Maybe Moffat wants to actually end the Doctor for real on Trenzalore. |
35,778 | At the end of "The wedding of River song", Dorium says that at the end, a question will be asked, and it must not be answered. Silence must fall. He then says, "Doctor Who??", hinting that the question will be the Doctor's name.
In the episode "The name of the Doctor", the Doctor goes
>
> to his grave, and is asked to speak his name, so the inner part of the Tardis can open, and his time body (dead) be seen, and used by Dr Simeon to kill him throughout history.
>
>
>
But the Silence wanted to kill the Doctor anyway, so why would they want to stop the question being asked? | 2013/05/18 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/35778",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/7931/"
] | Well we know the Doctor some time in the future will actually die on Trenzalore. So it's possible the prophecy could be pertaining to the last time he goes there.
We know the 11th Doctor will die soon so maybe he goes back there in the Christmas Special or 50th Anniversary and then more will be explained. That will fit in more with the prophecy that "at the fall of the eleventh, when no living creature can speak falsely or fail to answer, a question will be asked, a question that must never, ever be answered.
Wikipedia says that "The religion takes its name from the prophecy, that when the oldest question in the universe is answered, silence will (or must) fall. As the Doctor is predestined to answer the question, the Silence made it their goal to make his death a fixed point in time and prevent this."
I think it could be building to his death or something really big because ever since season 5 the silence have played a part. They interfered with the TARDIS in the Pandorica season finale. They tried to kill the Doctor again in the next season with River. But in the 7th season they didn't appear even though they are still alive but the Doctor still ended up going to Trenzalore so its somewhat connected. Maybe Moffat wants to actually end the Doctor for real on Trenzalore. | One thing no one seems to have mentioned is that the 11th Doctor did "fall" at Trenzalore. Remember, the TARDIS parked in orbit and refused to land on the planet, and so the Doctor disabled the anti-gravity and let the TARDIS fall to the planet. I believe that this is the "fall of the 11th" from the prophecy. |
35,778 | At the end of "The wedding of River song", Dorium says that at the end, a question will be asked, and it must not be answered. Silence must fall. He then says, "Doctor Who??", hinting that the question will be the Doctor's name.
In the episode "The name of the Doctor", the Doctor goes
>
> to his grave, and is asked to speak his name, so the inner part of the Tardis can open, and his time body (dead) be seen, and used by Dr Simeon to kill him throughout history.
>
>
>
But the Silence wanted to kill the Doctor anyway, so why would they want to stop the question being asked? | 2013/05/18 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/35778",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/7931/"
] | As Dorium explains to The Doctor, The Silence did not want to *kill* the Doctor, they just did not want him to *remain alive*. That explanation was brushed off by The Doctor at the time, but it actually makes perfect sense now.
The Silence did not necessarily want to murder The Doctor personally. (They are not like his other enemies, e.g. Dalek, Cybermen, Sontarans, who want to kill him off as soon as possible) Rather, they wanted to stop the specific events of their prophecy, which he was directly responsible for, from happening. They believed that the only way to accomplish this goal was to kill him at some point before those events could occur. We can also *speculate* that The Silence don't want to erase the things The Doctor has already done. Since they can time travel, they could have selected any number of "still points" during The Doctor's life to kill him; they presumably picked Lake Silencio because it was far enough along to safely cut off his time stream.
According to Dorium, the entire prophecy was something like (from *The Wedding of River Song*):
>
> "On the fields of Trenzalore, at the fall of the eleventh, when no living creature can speak falsely or fail to answer, a Question will be asked, a question that must never, ever be answered. [...] The First Question, the oldest question in the Universe, that must never be answered, hidden in plain sight. [...] Doctor Who?
>
>
>
And that the Silence "must fall" if the question were answered.
Based on the events of "Name of the Doctor":
>
> The Silence want to prevent The Doctor from going to Trenzalore and speaking his own name to open his grave for the Great Intelligence. Again, we can *speculate* that the Silence are actually trying to prevent the Great Intelligence from undoing the things The Doctor has already done.
>
>
>
It's not entirely clear if the Silence succeeded in avoiding whatever fate they had in store. We saw no hint of them in the episode, so its possible that whatever bad thing was supposed to happen to them will still happen. But it's also possible that they managed to achieve their goal anyway -- note that they way events played out in the episode relied very heavily on
>
> River Song knowing everything about The Doctor and being a major part of his life, as well as being able to control the TARDIS
>
>
>
which arguably was the result of The Silence's meddling.
(As a side note, I still don't quite get the "cannot lie or fail to answer" bit in the prophecy, unless it was just a bit of poetic license.) | One thing no one seems to have mentioned is that the 11th Doctor did "fall" at Trenzalore. Remember, the TARDIS parked in orbit and refused to land on the planet, and so the Doctor disabled the anti-gravity and let the TARDIS fall to the planet. I believe that this is the "fall of the 11th" from the prophecy. |
35,778 | At the end of "The wedding of River song", Dorium says that at the end, a question will be asked, and it must not be answered. Silence must fall. He then says, "Doctor Who??", hinting that the question will be the Doctor's name.
In the episode "The name of the Doctor", the Doctor goes
>
> to his grave, and is asked to speak his name, so the inner part of the Tardis can open, and his time body (dead) be seen, and used by Dr Simeon to kill him throughout history.
>
>
>
But the Silence wanted to kill the Doctor anyway, so why would they want to stop the question being asked? | 2013/05/18 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/35778",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/7931/"
] | It is still possible that the events in that prophecy are going to be coming in the 50th, and are related to why the John Hurt doctor isn't the Doctor, and so the events of the Name of the Doctor are irrelevant to the Silence's plan. I say that because the prophecy also says when no one can fail to answer or speak falsely, and it was pretty evident that the Doctor failed to answer the Great Intelligence. | To answer the question of why the Silence didn't want the Doctor to go to Trenzalore and answer the question, we must first figure out what "Silence" is referring to in the prophecy. It could be either of the following, which contain spoilers from The Name of the Doctor:
>
> Silence could mean that nobody present at the event hear the Doctor's name spoken aloud. - In this case, the Silence succeeded, but only by luck, or arguably another manipulation of River Song. This would mean that the Silence don't care about the events that transpire within the tomb itself and we will probably see them in season 8.
>
>
>
-Or-
>
> Silence could mean that the name never be spoken and that the tomb never open. - In this case, the Silence fail in their attempt, but we don't know their reason for wanting the tomb to stay closed. We also don't know if the end result was good or bad for them. We might find out in season 8 if the writers didn't forget about the Silence.
>
>
>
The primary goal of the Silence was to use Time Lord DNA as a means to gain power, which would be impossible if the Doctor is destroyed throughout history and the Time Lords still existed. They don't want to kill the Doctor, but they will try to do so if it is within their best interests. They also only try to kill him in his eleventh or further incarnation, meaning he needs to have existed up until a certain point for them to acquire their weapon. |
35,778 | At the end of "The wedding of River song", Dorium says that at the end, a question will be asked, and it must not be answered. Silence must fall. He then says, "Doctor Who??", hinting that the question will be the Doctor's name.
In the episode "The name of the Doctor", the Doctor goes
>
> to his grave, and is asked to speak his name, so the inner part of the Tardis can open, and his time body (dead) be seen, and used by Dr Simeon to kill him throughout history.
>
>
>
But the Silence wanted to kill the Doctor anyway, so why would they want to stop the question being asked? | 2013/05/18 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/35778",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/7931/"
] | >
> The Silence wanted to prevent the Great Intelligence from turning the Doctor's victories into defeats by killing the Doctor before he could get to Trenzalore. The Silence's goals are explained by two key pieces of dialogue in "The Wedding of River Song":
>
>
>
* Churchill: But what was the question? Why did it mean your death?
* Doctor: Suppose there was a man who knew a secret. A terrible, dangerous secret that must never be told. How would you erase that secret from the world? Destroy it forever, before it can be spoken.
* Churchill: If I had to, I'd destroy the man.
* Doctor: And silence would fall. All the times I've heard those words, **I never realised it was my silence, my death**. The Doctor will fall.
>
> As explained here, "silence" refers to the Doctor's silence, which, if the Silence had succeeded in killing him prematurely, would fall when the Question was asked on Trenzalore because there would be nobody there to answer it.
>
>
>
Also:
* Doctor: Silence will fall when the question is asked.
* Dorium: Silence must fall would be a better translation. **The Silence are determined the question will never be answered**. That the Doctor will never reach Trenzalore.
>
> Here, we see that the Silence will stop at no costs to ensure that the Doctor does not make it to Trenzalore (so that he can't say his name and give the Great Intelligence access to his timeline). They believe that silence absolutely **must** fall when the Question is asked; that the Doctor **must** be dead and unable to answer. So basically, the Silence believes that killing the Doctor is a much better alternative to what will happen if he goes to Trenzalore and answers the Question (since doing so will result in the Great Intelligence gaining access to his timeline and being able to undo all the good he's ever done).
>
>
>
It should be noted, however, that the Silence most likely do not know what *exactly* will happen when the Question is answered on Trenzalore and are merely heeding the warning given by the prophecy, which simply says that the Question must never be answered. If they knew the exact details, then they could have just as easily warned the Doctor about what to look out for as opposed to going to such great lengths to kill him and ensure his silence. | Well we know the Doctor some time in the future will actually die on Trenzalore. So it's possible the prophecy could be pertaining to the last time he goes there.
We know the 11th Doctor will die soon so maybe he goes back there in the Christmas Special or 50th Anniversary and then more will be explained. That will fit in more with the prophecy that "at the fall of the eleventh, when no living creature can speak falsely or fail to answer, a question will be asked, a question that must never, ever be answered.
Wikipedia says that "The religion takes its name from the prophecy, that when the oldest question in the universe is answered, silence will (or must) fall. As the Doctor is predestined to answer the question, the Silence made it their goal to make his death a fixed point in time and prevent this."
I think it could be building to his death or something really big because ever since season 5 the silence have played a part. They interfered with the TARDIS in the Pandorica season finale. They tried to kill the Doctor again in the next season with River. But in the 7th season they didn't appear even though they are still alive but the Doctor still ended up going to Trenzalore so its somewhat connected. Maybe Moffat wants to actually end the Doctor for real on Trenzalore. |
35,778 | At the end of "The wedding of River song", Dorium says that at the end, a question will be asked, and it must not be answered. Silence must fall. He then says, "Doctor Who??", hinting that the question will be the Doctor's name.
In the episode "The name of the Doctor", the Doctor goes
>
> to his grave, and is asked to speak his name, so the inner part of the Tardis can open, and his time body (dead) be seen, and used by Dr Simeon to kill him throughout history.
>
>
>
But the Silence wanted to kill the Doctor anyway, so why would they want to stop the question being asked? | 2013/05/18 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/35778",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/7931/"
] | To answer the question of why the Silence didn't want the Doctor to go to Trenzalore and answer the question, we must first figure out what "Silence" is referring to in the prophecy. It could be either of the following, which contain spoilers from The Name of the Doctor:
>
> Silence could mean that nobody present at the event hear the Doctor's name spoken aloud. - In this case, the Silence succeeded, but only by luck, or arguably another manipulation of River Song. This would mean that the Silence don't care about the events that transpire within the tomb itself and we will probably see them in season 8.
>
>
>
-Or-
>
> Silence could mean that the name never be spoken and that the tomb never open. - In this case, the Silence fail in their attempt, but we don't know their reason for wanting the tomb to stay closed. We also don't know if the end result was good or bad for them. We might find out in season 8 if the writers didn't forget about the Silence.
>
>
>
The primary goal of the Silence was to use Time Lord DNA as a means to gain power, which would be impossible if the Doctor is destroyed throughout history and the Time Lords still existed. They don't want to kill the Doctor, but they will try to do so if it is within their best interests. They also only try to kill him in his eleventh or further incarnation, meaning he needs to have existed up until a certain point for them to acquire their weapon. | One thing no one seems to have mentioned is that the 11th Doctor did "fall" at Trenzalore. Remember, the TARDIS parked in orbit and refused to land on the planet, and so the Doctor disabled the anti-gravity and let the TARDIS fall to the planet. I believe that this is the "fall of the 11th" from the prophecy. |
87,496 | How do you answer the question "*Give me an estimate on how long this will take you*"?
My boss has presented a list of items he would like me to complete, 3 of which I have no idea what he's asking for. I have asked him twice to explain exactly what he wants and yet the communication is still unclear.
Can someone help me create a response? | 2017/03/20 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/87496",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/66454/"
] | Since you're not getting clear responses to your questions, one possibility is to make an estimate based on some assumptions. Then present both your assumptions and the estimate to your boss. Keep a record of both so that you will be covered when the boss later figures out what he really wants, and questions your implementation or the time it took to complete. | I would send your boss an email something along the lines of:
>
> My estimates can only be as accurate as the requirements provided.
> Three of the tasks you have assigned are unfamiliar to me. Could we spend
> some time together so that I can obtain the necessary information to
> provide you an accurate estimate?
>
>
> Thanks,
>
>
> Tessa
>
>
>
The other option is to provide a SWAG ( Silly Wild A$$ Guess ) to go along with the extremely vague requirements. Usually, this will get a conversation started too. |
9,837,326 | Im Tryinig to create a networking **Java SE** application with a **user-friendly interface**, im so confused about the GUI library **(Swing, SWT, JavaFX)** and also about the **architecture** of the application **(MVC, PureMVC)** can any one, with experience, give me a suggestion about all this, I would be so grateful.
I heard about **Griffon** but without a good documentation I can not get started.
*PS: I google it but nothing interesting.* | 2012/03/23 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/9837326",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1286872/"
] | Grails is a framework for creating web applications, so if you're trying to create a Java SE (desktop) application, you can forget about Grails.
However, there is a desktop application framework called [Griffon](http://griffon.codehaus.org/) that uses the same language as Grails (Groovy), which should be easier than using Swing or SWT. | Grails it's server side framework, designed to build web application. So, if you're making desktop app (event n-tier app, with some central server), it doesn't good here.
Anyway, you can find official Grails documentation here: <http://grails.org/doc/latest/> (as for me it's very detailed)
Also, if you're really need a framework to build some server for your desktop app, I can suggest you to start with Spring Framework / Spring MVC. It's easy to make an REST JSON/XML/SOAP/Protobuf/etc/etc server based on it. Btw, it's much more low level, and you have to choose all other technologies and libraries that fits your needs. Like choosing JSON serializer, database mapper, etc |
9,837,326 | Im Tryinig to create a networking **Java SE** application with a **user-friendly interface**, im so confused about the GUI library **(Swing, SWT, JavaFX)** and also about the **architecture** of the application **(MVC, PureMVC)** can any one, with experience, give me a suggestion about all this, I would be so grateful.
I heard about **Griffon** but without a good documentation I can not get started.
*PS: I google it but nothing interesting.* | 2012/03/23 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/9837326",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1286872/"
] | This are at least three question, a single answer is unlikely to cover all aspects
a) What about GUI-Lib
With any detailed information about your requirements it is hard to say which fits better and why. In short
Swing is pure Java, maybe some what slow, but running where java is fully available (not android for example)
SWT is os-aware, used by eclipse for example. Looks like the os appear and seems to be much faster. Good for Windows, Linux, Mac
JavaFX is not commonly used. As far I know it is required to learn a further language.
I have never seen an JavaFX app
b) What about architecture and libs
MVC could be a real good concept. However, there so many different opinions about what MVC really is.
pureMVC is a lib supporting an interpretation of MVC
c) What about Grail
There are already answers about this aspect.
When you mean with "networking app", client server apps with browser front end, there are lots of technologies supporting this.
* GWT
* Captain Casa (JSF)
* Wicket
* IceFace (JSF)
...
(I guess you will find about 40 technologies in the area)
However, the backend is no more Java SE in such cases.
The are no simple answer (no, there is NO "the best"), you have to investigate your needs, technical implication and than choose the right or better known technology.
This is a hard job without a short cut. Any other approach is gambling, you may win, but usually you lost | Grails is a framework for creating web applications, so if you're trying to create a Java SE (desktop) application, you can forget about Grails.
However, there is a desktop application framework called [Griffon](http://griffon.codehaus.org/) that uses the same language as Grails (Groovy), which should be easier than using Swing or SWT. |
9,837,326 | Im Tryinig to create a networking **Java SE** application with a **user-friendly interface**, im so confused about the GUI library **(Swing, SWT, JavaFX)** and also about the **architecture** of the application **(MVC, PureMVC)** can any one, with experience, give me a suggestion about all this, I would be so grateful.
I heard about **Griffon** but without a good documentation I can not get started.
*PS: I google it but nothing interesting.* | 2012/03/23 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/9837326",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1286872/"
] | Grails is a framework for creating web applications, so if you're trying to create a Java SE (desktop) application, you can forget about Grails.
However, there is a desktop application framework called [Griffon](http://griffon.codehaus.org/) that uses the same language as Grails (Groovy), which should be easier than using Swing or SWT. | GUI:
JavaFX is dead, don't use it.
SWT is hairy and to low level - you won't use it.
Swing is way to go (also you can customize is with L&F like substance) if you dislike built in Look&Feels like Metal. |
9,837,326 | Im Tryinig to create a networking **Java SE** application with a **user-friendly interface**, im so confused about the GUI library **(Swing, SWT, JavaFX)** and also about the **architecture** of the application **(MVC, PureMVC)** can any one, with experience, give me a suggestion about all this, I would be so grateful.
I heard about **Griffon** but without a good documentation I can not get started.
*PS: I google it but nothing interesting.* | 2012/03/23 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/9837326",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1286872/"
] | Grails is a framework for creating web applications, so if you're trying to create a Java SE (desktop) application, you can forget about Grails.
However, there is a desktop application framework called [Griffon](http://griffon.codehaus.org/) that uses the same language as Grails (Groovy), which should be easier than using Swing or SWT. | Btw, every Grails application *is* an Spring MVC application, so every +1 you give to Spring MVC applies to Grails as well. |
9,837,326 | Im Tryinig to create a networking **Java SE** application with a **user-friendly interface**, im so confused about the GUI library **(Swing, SWT, JavaFX)** and also about the **architecture** of the application **(MVC, PureMVC)** can any one, with experience, give me a suggestion about all this, I would be so grateful.
I heard about **Griffon** but without a good documentation I can not get started.
*PS: I google it but nothing interesting.* | 2012/03/23 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/9837326",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1286872/"
] | This are at least three question, a single answer is unlikely to cover all aspects
a) What about GUI-Lib
With any detailed information about your requirements it is hard to say which fits better and why. In short
Swing is pure Java, maybe some what slow, but running where java is fully available (not android for example)
SWT is os-aware, used by eclipse for example. Looks like the os appear and seems to be much faster. Good for Windows, Linux, Mac
JavaFX is not commonly used. As far I know it is required to learn a further language.
I have never seen an JavaFX app
b) What about architecture and libs
MVC could be a real good concept. However, there so many different opinions about what MVC really is.
pureMVC is a lib supporting an interpretation of MVC
c) What about Grail
There are already answers about this aspect.
When you mean with "networking app", client server apps with browser front end, there are lots of technologies supporting this.
* GWT
* Captain Casa (JSF)
* Wicket
* IceFace (JSF)
...
(I guess you will find about 40 technologies in the area)
However, the backend is no more Java SE in such cases.
The are no simple answer (no, there is NO "the best"), you have to investigate your needs, technical implication and than choose the right or better known technology.
This is a hard job without a short cut. Any other approach is gambling, you may win, but usually you lost | Grails it's server side framework, designed to build web application. So, if you're making desktop app (event n-tier app, with some central server), it doesn't good here.
Anyway, you can find official Grails documentation here: <http://grails.org/doc/latest/> (as for me it's very detailed)
Also, if you're really need a framework to build some server for your desktop app, I can suggest you to start with Spring Framework / Spring MVC. It's easy to make an REST JSON/XML/SOAP/Protobuf/etc/etc server based on it. Btw, it's much more low level, and you have to choose all other technologies and libraries that fits your needs. Like choosing JSON serializer, database mapper, etc |
9,837,326 | Im Tryinig to create a networking **Java SE** application with a **user-friendly interface**, im so confused about the GUI library **(Swing, SWT, JavaFX)** and also about the **architecture** of the application **(MVC, PureMVC)** can any one, with experience, give me a suggestion about all this, I would be so grateful.
I heard about **Griffon** but without a good documentation I can not get started.
*PS: I google it but nothing interesting.* | 2012/03/23 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/9837326",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1286872/"
] | This are at least three question, a single answer is unlikely to cover all aspects
a) What about GUI-Lib
With any detailed information about your requirements it is hard to say which fits better and why. In short
Swing is pure Java, maybe some what slow, but running where java is fully available (not android for example)
SWT is os-aware, used by eclipse for example. Looks like the os appear and seems to be much faster. Good for Windows, Linux, Mac
JavaFX is not commonly used. As far I know it is required to learn a further language.
I have never seen an JavaFX app
b) What about architecture and libs
MVC could be a real good concept. However, there so many different opinions about what MVC really is.
pureMVC is a lib supporting an interpretation of MVC
c) What about Grail
There are already answers about this aspect.
When you mean with "networking app", client server apps with browser front end, there are lots of technologies supporting this.
* GWT
* Captain Casa (JSF)
* Wicket
* IceFace (JSF)
...
(I guess you will find about 40 technologies in the area)
However, the backend is no more Java SE in such cases.
The are no simple answer (no, there is NO "the best"), you have to investigate your needs, technical implication and than choose the right or better known technology.
This is a hard job without a short cut. Any other approach is gambling, you may win, but usually you lost | GUI:
JavaFX is dead, don't use it.
SWT is hairy and to low level - you won't use it.
Swing is way to go (also you can customize is with L&F like substance) if you dislike built in Look&Feels like Metal. |
9,837,326 | Im Tryinig to create a networking **Java SE** application with a **user-friendly interface**, im so confused about the GUI library **(Swing, SWT, JavaFX)** and also about the **architecture** of the application **(MVC, PureMVC)** can any one, with experience, give me a suggestion about all this, I would be so grateful.
I heard about **Griffon** but without a good documentation I can not get started.
*PS: I google it but nothing interesting.* | 2012/03/23 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/9837326",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1286872/"
] | This are at least three question, a single answer is unlikely to cover all aspects
a) What about GUI-Lib
With any detailed information about your requirements it is hard to say which fits better and why. In short
Swing is pure Java, maybe some what slow, but running where java is fully available (not android for example)
SWT is os-aware, used by eclipse for example. Looks like the os appear and seems to be much faster. Good for Windows, Linux, Mac
JavaFX is not commonly used. As far I know it is required to learn a further language.
I have never seen an JavaFX app
b) What about architecture and libs
MVC could be a real good concept. However, there so many different opinions about what MVC really is.
pureMVC is a lib supporting an interpretation of MVC
c) What about Grail
There are already answers about this aspect.
When you mean with "networking app", client server apps with browser front end, there are lots of technologies supporting this.
* GWT
* Captain Casa (JSF)
* Wicket
* IceFace (JSF)
...
(I guess you will find about 40 technologies in the area)
However, the backend is no more Java SE in such cases.
The are no simple answer (no, there is NO "the best"), you have to investigate your needs, technical implication and than choose the right or better known technology.
This is a hard job without a short cut. Any other approach is gambling, you may win, but usually you lost | Btw, every Grails application *is* an Spring MVC application, so every +1 you give to Spring MVC applies to Grails as well. |
376,504 | On this small island in Liyue, there is a seal blocking a hole where materials such as Violetgrass can be seen.
There is a tablet in front of the seal, presumably a puzzle of sorts to solve to open the seal. But I haven't found any solution that has worked.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/YTjVL.jpg)
How do you get past the seal in Sal Terrae? | 2020/10/09 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/376504",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/18916/"
] | Yes, it can be done. A correct swipe is about 1/2 second at a uniform speed, slightly slower than the speed at which you would scan a card reader at a grocery store. It's admittedly easier to do on mouse (and when you're not stressed by an Impostor possibly stack-killing you).
Here's a video of a YouTuber named Alpharad swiping the card first try during a game: | I have heard that if you swipe slowly to the arrow and then really fast to the end you will actually complete the quest, I have actually tried this myself and It actually does work.! |
399,306 | I understand Regression analysis relies on the following assumptions about the residuals:
* Normally Distributed (normal plot of residuals)
* Be independent of each other (random and data must be time ordered)
* Have a constant variance
Do these same assumptions apply to both Non-Linear regression and linear regression? | 2019/03/25 | [
"https://stats.stackexchange.com/questions/399306",
"https://stats.stackexchange.com",
"https://stats.stackexchange.com/users/242361/"
] | **Those assumptions don’t even necessarily apply to linear regression.**
The assumptions you list are important in order for the OLS estimator to have the nice properties we want it to have, but that’s just one estimator. A generalized least squares estimator, for instance, could be perfectly reasonable for autocorrelated errors.
Consequently, it is not a given that such assumptions will be important to nonlinear regression models. It will depend on your model and how you want to estimate your model. | There is also the hypothesis of homoskedasticity in the case of linear regression (ie: all residuals must have the same variance)
When jumping into the non-linear regression world, different methods will have different assumptions, so there is no definite answer. I would say, however, that independence of residuals is always a desirable property unless you are working with a model that tries to especifically handle that (time series, for instance) |
37,977 | After reading the first Foundation book in the series, I asked myself if Trantor was Earth at one point. I don't think Asimov ever mentions Earth in the Foundation series. | 2013/07/09 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/37977",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/15655/"
] | Trantor was never intended to be Earth. [Thaddeus's answer](https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/37977/is-trantor-earth/37978#37978) gives some evidence from early canon.
Later Asimov linked the *Foundation* universe with the *Robots* universe, which situated Earth in the *Foundation* universe. [*Robots and Empire*](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Robots_and_Empire) is the original book that connects the two; it explains what happened to the planet Earth and lays the groundwork for why the Empire, the Foundations and Gaia came to exist. The [1980s *Foundations* books](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Foundation_series#Later_sequels) expand on that connection.
>
> In *Robots and Empire*, the Earth is rendered uninhabitable. The two humaniform robots Giskard and Daneel decide not to prevent this, so as to give humanity an impulse to spread out and thrive throughout the galaxy. Daneel starts imagining how he will guide mankind in secret.
>
>
> | Lord Dorwin makes a brief mention of "Sol" in "Foundation" (chapter 2 - "The Encyclopedists). Speaking of possible locations for the first human world, he says (he drops his 'r's - sorry).
>
> "Othahs insist on Alpha Centauwi, oah on Sol, oah on 61 Cygni – all in
> the Siwius sectah, you see"
>
>
>
So it's known that there's an ancient inhabited (or once inhabited) planet circling Sol - but no one knows for sure that that planet is the first planet with humans, and judging by the later books, no one associates the name "Earth" with that planet. Or possibly so many planets are called something like "Earth"/"New Earth"/"Earth 2" etc., that no one can use that information to determine which one is the real Earth (Troy, New York, is not where the Trojan horse was built).
Oops. Didn't see System Down's comment that mentions Dorwin. |
37,977 | After reading the first Foundation book in the series, I asked myself if Trantor was Earth at one point. I don't think Asimov ever mentions Earth in the Foundation series. | 2013/07/09 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/37977",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/15655/"
] | How many *Foundation* books have you read? By *[Foundation's Edge](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Foundation%27s_Edge)*, it's clear that Earth isn't a known planet in the Foundation time-frame. The following book, *Foundation and Earth* is all about the search for Earth, and it is definitely not Trantor. | Lord Dorwin makes a brief mention of "Sol" in "Foundation" (chapter 2 - "The Encyclopedists). Speaking of possible locations for the first human world, he says (he drops his 'r's - sorry).
>
> "Othahs insist on Alpha Centauwi, oah on Sol, oah on 61 Cygni – all in
> the Siwius sectah, you see"
>
>
>
So it's known that there's an ancient inhabited (or once inhabited) planet circling Sol - but no one knows for sure that that planet is the first planet with humans, and judging by the later books, no one associates the name "Earth" with that planet. Or possibly so many planets are called something like "Earth"/"New Earth"/"Earth 2" etc., that no one can use that information to determine which one is the real Earth (Troy, New York, is not where the Trojan horse was built).
Oops. Didn't see System Down's comment that mentions Dorwin. |
37,977 | After reading the first Foundation book in the series, I asked myself if Trantor was Earth at one point. I don't think Asimov ever mentions Earth in the Foundation series. | 2013/07/09 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/37977",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/15655/"
] | **Definitely not, given Trantor's physical location in the galaxy and its planetary properties. Trantor is located as close to the galactic core as possible for humans to still be able to inhabit it. It is also slightly larger than Earth.**
>
> Trantor was first mentioned in a short story by Asimov, 'Black Friar of the Flame', later collected as The Early Asimov, Volume 1. It was described as a human-settled planet in the part of the galaxy not ruled by an intelligent reptilian race (later defeated). Later, Trantor gained prominence when the 1940s Foundation series first appeared in print (in the form of short stories). **Ref: [Wikipedia -> Trantor](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Galactic_Empire_(Asimov)#Trantor)**
>
>
>
* Asimov described Trantor as being in the centre of the galaxy. Earth is located on the [Orion Arm](https://www.universetoday.com/65601/where-is-earth-in-the-milky-way/) out near the edge of the galaxy.
* In later stories he acknowledged the growth in astronomical knowledge by retconning its position to be as close to the galactic centre as was compatible with human habitability. The first time it was acknowledged in novel form was in Pebble in the Sky.
* Trantor is depicted as the capital of the first Galactic Empire. Its land surface of 194,000,000 km² (75,000,000 miles², 130% of Earth land area) was, with the exception of the Imperial Palace, entirely enclosed in artificial domes. | *[Pebble in the Sky](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pebble_in_the_Sky)* was published in 1950, between the original *Foundation* stories appearing in magazine form and in book form.
It identifies Earth as a small but particularly annoying part of the Trantorian Empire.
In *Foundation*, Lord Dorwin makes it clear that knowledge of the location of Earth is lost. |
37,977 | After reading the first Foundation book in the series, I asked myself if Trantor was Earth at one point. I don't think Asimov ever mentions Earth in the Foundation series. | 2013/07/09 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/37977",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/15655/"
] | **Definitely not, given Trantor's physical location in the galaxy and its planetary properties. Trantor is located as close to the galactic core as possible for humans to still be able to inhabit it. It is also slightly larger than Earth.**
>
> Trantor was first mentioned in a short story by Asimov, 'Black Friar of the Flame', later collected as The Early Asimov, Volume 1. It was described as a human-settled planet in the part of the galaxy not ruled by an intelligent reptilian race (later defeated). Later, Trantor gained prominence when the 1940s Foundation series first appeared in print (in the form of short stories). **Ref: [Wikipedia -> Trantor](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Galactic_Empire_(Asimov)#Trantor)**
>
>
>
* Asimov described Trantor as being in the centre of the galaxy. Earth is located on the [Orion Arm](https://www.universetoday.com/65601/where-is-earth-in-the-milky-way/) out near the edge of the galaxy.
* In later stories he acknowledged the growth in astronomical knowledge by retconning its position to be as close to the galactic centre as was compatible with human habitability. The first time it was acknowledged in novel form was in Pebble in the Sky.
* Trantor is depicted as the capital of the first Galactic Empire. Its land surface of 194,000,000 km² (75,000,000 miles², 130% of Earth land area) was, with the exception of the Imperial Palace, entirely enclosed in artificial domes. | Trantor was never intended to be Earth. [Thaddeus's answer](https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/37977/is-trantor-earth/37978#37978) gives some evidence from early canon.
Later Asimov linked the *Foundation* universe with the *Robots* universe, which situated Earth in the *Foundation* universe. [*Robots and Empire*](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Robots_and_Empire) is the original book that connects the two; it explains what happened to the planet Earth and lays the groundwork for why the Empire, the Foundations and Gaia came to exist. The [1980s *Foundations* books](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Foundation_series#Later_sequels) expand on that connection.
>
> In *Robots and Empire*, the Earth is rendered uninhabitable. The two humaniform robots Giskard and Daneel decide not to prevent this, so as to give humanity an impulse to spread out and thrive throughout the galaxy. Daneel starts imagining how he will guide mankind in secret.
>
>
> |
37,977 | After reading the first Foundation book in the series, I asked myself if Trantor was Earth at one point. I don't think Asimov ever mentions Earth in the Foundation series. | 2013/07/09 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/37977",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/15655/"
] | How many *Foundation* books have you read? By *[Foundation's Edge](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Foundation%27s_Edge)*, it's clear that Earth isn't a known planet in the Foundation time-frame. The following book, *Foundation and Earth* is all about the search for Earth, and it is definitely not Trantor. | *[Pebble in the Sky](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pebble_in_the_Sky)* was published in 1950, between the original *Foundation* stories appearing in magazine form and in book form.
It identifies Earth as a small but particularly annoying part of the Trantorian Empire.
In *Foundation*, Lord Dorwin makes it clear that knowledge of the location of Earth is lost. |
37,977 | After reading the first Foundation book in the series, I asked myself if Trantor was Earth at one point. I don't think Asimov ever mentions Earth in the Foundation series. | 2013/07/09 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/37977",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/15655/"
] | How many *Foundation* books have you read? By *[Foundation's Edge](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Foundation%27s_Edge)*, it's clear that Earth isn't a known planet in the Foundation time-frame. The following book, *Foundation and Earth* is all about the search for Earth, and it is definitely not Trantor. | **No.**
The Empire Trilogy (*Pebble in the Sky* &cetera) mention that Earth is more or less abandoned, being just another podunk little planet in the Trantorian Empire.
Furthermore, if you're willing to endure some spoilers:
>
> The twist ending of *Foundation and Earth* is that Earth was completely abandoned centuries before due to fallout from the war with the Spacers. Trantor is still inhabited, and IIRC was ruled out earlier in the book.
>
>
> |
37,977 | After reading the first Foundation book in the series, I asked myself if Trantor was Earth at one point. I don't think Asimov ever mentions Earth in the Foundation series. | 2013/07/09 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/37977",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/15655/"
] | *[Pebble in the Sky](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pebble_in_the_Sky)* was published in 1950, between the original *Foundation* stories appearing in magazine form and in book form.
It identifies Earth as a small but particularly annoying part of the Trantorian Empire.
In *Foundation*, Lord Dorwin makes it clear that knowledge of the location of Earth is lost. | Lord Dorwin makes a brief mention of "Sol" in "Foundation" (chapter 2 - "The Encyclopedists). Speaking of possible locations for the first human world, he says (he drops his 'r's - sorry).
>
> "Othahs insist on Alpha Centauwi, oah on Sol, oah on 61 Cygni – all in
> the Siwius sectah, you see"
>
>
>
So it's known that there's an ancient inhabited (or once inhabited) planet circling Sol - but no one knows for sure that that planet is the first planet with humans, and judging by the later books, no one associates the name "Earth" with that planet. Or possibly so many planets are called something like "Earth"/"New Earth"/"Earth 2" etc., that no one can use that information to determine which one is the real Earth (Troy, New York, is not where the Trojan horse was built).
Oops. Didn't see System Down's comment that mentions Dorwin. |
37,977 | After reading the first Foundation book in the series, I asked myself if Trantor was Earth at one point. I don't think Asimov ever mentions Earth in the Foundation series. | 2013/07/09 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/37977",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/15655/"
] | Trantor was never intended to be Earth. [Thaddeus's answer](https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/37977/is-trantor-earth/37978#37978) gives some evidence from early canon.
Later Asimov linked the *Foundation* universe with the *Robots* universe, which situated Earth in the *Foundation* universe. [*Robots and Empire*](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Robots_and_Empire) is the original book that connects the two; it explains what happened to the planet Earth and lays the groundwork for why the Empire, the Foundations and Gaia came to exist. The [1980s *Foundations* books](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Foundation_series#Later_sequels) expand on that connection.
>
> In *Robots and Empire*, the Earth is rendered uninhabitable. The two humaniform robots Giskard and Daneel decide not to prevent this, so as to give humanity an impulse to spread out and thrive throughout the galaxy. Daneel starts imagining how he will guide mankind in secret.
>
>
> | *[Pebble in the Sky](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pebble_in_the_Sky)* was published in 1950, between the original *Foundation* stories appearing in magazine form and in book form.
It identifies Earth as a small but particularly annoying part of the Trantorian Empire.
In *Foundation*, Lord Dorwin makes it clear that knowledge of the location of Earth is lost. |
37,977 | After reading the first Foundation book in the series, I asked myself if Trantor was Earth at one point. I don't think Asimov ever mentions Earth in the Foundation series. | 2013/07/09 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/37977",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/15655/"
] | *[Pebble in the Sky](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pebble_in_the_Sky)* was published in 1950, between the original *Foundation* stories appearing in magazine form and in book form.
It identifies Earth as a small but particularly annoying part of the Trantorian Empire.
In *Foundation*, Lord Dorwin makes it clear that knowledge of the location of Earth is lost. | **No.**
The Empire Trilogy (*Pebble in the Sky* &cetera) mention that Earth is more or less abandoned, being just another podunk little planet in the Trantorian Empire.
Furthermore, if you're willing to endure some spoilers:
>
> The twist ending of *Foundation and Earth* is that Earth was completely abandoned centuries before due to fallout from the war with the Spacers. Trantor is still inhabited, and IIRC was ruled out earlier in the book.
>
>
> |
37,977 | After reading the first Foundation book in the series, I asked myself if Trantor was Earth at one point. I don't think Asimov ever mentions Earth in the Foundation series. | 2013/07/09 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/37977",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/15655/"
] | **Definitely not, given Trantor's physical location in the galaxy and its planetary properties. Trantor is located as close to the galactic core as possible for humans to still be able to inhabit it. It is also slightly larger than Earth.**
>
> Trantor was first mentioned in a short story by Asimov, 'Black Friar of the Flame', later collected as The Early Asimov, Volume 1. It was described as a human-settled planet in the part of the galaxy not ruled by an intelligent reptilian race (later defeated). Later, Trantor gained prominence when the 1940s Foundation series first appeared in print (in the form of short stories). **Ref: [Wikipedia -> Trantor](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Galactic_Empire_(Asimov)#Trantor)**
>
>
>
* Asimov described Trantor as being in the centre of the galaxy. Earth is located on the [Orion Arm](https://www.universetoday.com/65601/where-is-earth-in-the-milky-way/) out near the edge of the galaxy.
* In later stories he acknowledged the growth in astronomical knowledge by retconning its position to be as close to the galactic centre as was compatible with human habitability. The first time it was acknowledged in novel form was in Pebble in the Sky.
* Trantor is depicted as the capital of the first Galactic Empire. Its land surface of 194,000,000 km² (75,000,000 miles², 130% of Earth land area) was, with the exception of the Imperial Palace, entirely enclosed in artificial domes. | How many *Foundation* books have you read? By *[Foundation's Edge](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Foundation%27s_Edge)*, it's clear that Earth isn't a known planet in the Foundation time-frame. The following book, *Foundation and Earth* is all about the search for Earth, and it is definitely not Trantor. |
133,793 | Part - 1 Rejection
Case 1:
Rejection reason was justification for the purpose and the condition of the intended stay was not provided:
>
> The applicant has applied for a visa to meet with client. The applicant has informed the he will be conducting training as well as day to day tasks and workshops and similar sessions with the local team whilst in Norway. where training may be exempted from the requirement of a residence permit, engaging in the work related task is not covered under the any of the exemption of the residence permit. All work relating to the realisation of a contract (product development) is not an activity typically performed by a business traveller outside scope of the provision. 'Workshops' and similar discussion forums are therefore not deemed to be covered, as this type of activity is deemed to be part of the product development, where the participants exchange knowledge and information as part of there ordinary task in their home country. Consequently the stated purpose and conditions to the visa application has not been justified and visa cannot be issued.
>
>
> Based on the attached description of the application's activities in Norway the applicant must apply for the residence permit.
>
>
>
What should I do next? I do not want residence permit and i have to travel through business visa for 22 days.
Case 2:
>
> The applicant has informed that he will attend workshops or similar session, as well as development projects at leardal offices. Further, hew will engage in "Continued development based on findings the week before". Such activity is deemed to be part of the product development, thus not covered by any of the exemptions form the requirement of a residence permit. Consequently, the stated purpose and conditions of the visa application has not been justified and a visa cannot be issued.
>
>
> In invitation letter its was mentioned as During his stay in norway Mr XYZ, will attend workshops discussing future software development projects at client location.
>
>
>
What should be change in purpose of visit? I want business visa only.
Part - 2
Here is invitation letter Planning to apply again,Which among these would justifies visit, would like to visit to gather knowledge for the project.
I have not yet applied just asking for opnion which invite should i apply so that i can have more chance of getting visa. please check previous rejection above.
Require business Schengen visa for 22 days
case Inv\_1:
>
> We hereby kindly ask you to issue a 6 months Schengen business visa for Mr. XYZ, aaa, bearer of passport number: aaa, issued by ttt on ddd, expiring on ddd.
>
>
> Mr. XYZ who is employed by EEEE in since ABC 20XX with the position of Senior Software Engineer will arrive in Norway on ddd (estimated) and departure to HOME, on ddd (estimated).
>
>
> QQQ is a client of EEEE for the past 4 years and the relationship is continuing to grow. Recently EEEE was awarded with new project from QQQ, which is a “DDD” and Mr. XYZ is invited to QQQ office to gather knowledge about the project and do a detailed discovery of current functionality and the requirements. As this is an App in Training category, it’s important that Mr. XYZ understands the requirements well before going back to HOME starting the development. There are many workshops and discussion sessions planned for understanding the design, receiving knowledge on equipment/manikins and taking guidance from QQQ team.
>
>
>
Case Inv\_2
>
> We hereby kindly ask you to issue a 6 months Schengen business visa for Mr. XYZ, aaa, bearer of passport number: aaa, issued by ttt on ddd, expiring on ddd.
>
>
> Mr. XYZ who is employed by EEEE in since ABC 20XX with the position of Senior Software Engineer will arrive in Norway on DDD (estimated) and departure to HOME, on DDD (estimated).
>
>
> During his stay in Norway, Mr. XYZ will attend project initiation meetings and technical training in software development for the DDD project at QQQ Offices.
>
>
>
Which among two case is proper reason which will come under the Business Visa ?? Among 2 case of letter which has higher chance of getting visa ? | 2019/03/13 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/133793",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/91153/"
] | >
> Based on the attached description of the application's activities in Norway the applicant must apply for the residence permit.
>
>
>
*What should I do next?*
Apply for the residence permit. You’ve already received the most relevant advise already. I would follow that.
An applicant may have many reasons to believe that the visa they are applying for is the right one, but ultimately its the issuing authority that decides which activities are allowed. The activities you have listed, are not allowed, according to them. So a re-application for the same visa will not help.
They have your refusal on record, and a quick reapplication with an altered description of intended activities may very well be seen as deception.
**Must Read**: [Does your business trip to Norway require a work permit?](https://www.malmadvokatfirma.no/does-your-business-trip-to-norway-require-a-work-permit/) | In response to the edit:
>
> What should be change in purpose of visit? I want business visa only.
>
>
>
You would qualify for a short-term visa for this visit if you could convince the Norwegian authorities that while you are in Norway you will not perform any activities that are considered under Norwegian immigration law to be work. These include (based on the letters you quote in your question):
* performing work relating to the realization of a contract, which includes product development, and
* participation in workshops (because they are considered to be part of product development), and
* "continued development based on findings" because it is explicitly product development.
Since it seems that you've applied and been rejected twice, however, you may find it difficult to convince the authorities of the credibility of a subsequent visa application with significantly different description of the activities. Your better bet, therefore, is to apply for a different document, *as you have been advised to do by the Norwegian authorities,* or to conduct your meetings remotely. |
158,652 | The Malgrange-Ehrenpreis theorem tells us that there is a fundamental solution for any linear differential operator of constants coefficients. The original proof was not constructive (it was based on the Hahn-Banach theorem). Lars Hörmander first gave a method (Hörmander's staircase) to explicitely compute fundamental solutions. Nevertheless, the solutions his method provides are usually "too bad", for they are not even tempered distributions.
Therefore, a natural question arises: Is there a general method to explicitely construct fundamental solutions which are actually tempered distributions? | 2014/02/25 | [
"https://mathoverflow.net/questions/158652",
"https://mathoverflow.net",
"https://mathoverflow.net/users/47455/"
] | The fact that there always exists a temperate fundamental solution was proved by Hormander [here](http://link.springer.com/article/10.1007%2FBF02589517) in 1958. I don't know if this answers some part of your question. Concerning regularity, well, this is an interesting question (most of the classical theory of PDEs is concerned with it).
Let me also mention a nice paper by
[Rosay](http://www.jstor.org/stable/2324871?origin=crossref) who reproves Malgrange-Ehrenpreis in the $L^2$ setting with an elementary proof, but still non constructive | If you are interested in explicit fundamental solutions for pde's, you should take a look at the supremely interesting work of the Innsbruck group (P. Wagner and N. Ortner). Detailed references can be found via Google. For starters there is their "A survey on explicit representation formulae for fundamental solutions of linear partial differential operators" in Acta Applicandae Math. 47 (1997) 101-124. |
6,214,487 | I am developing an application. In that my requirement is access the video from iPhone and play that videos and select one from that videos. So please tell me how to access and play the videos in iPhone programmatically. | 2011/06/02 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/6214487",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/777021/"
] | This site is not to do your homework for you. Please read Apple docs on [Media Player Framework](https://developer.apple.com/documentation/mediaplayer). Then download [sample code](https://developer.apple.com/library/archive/navigation/#section=Resource%20Types&topic=Sample%20Code) from iOS Developer Library. Once you have written your own code and getting a specific error you cannot resolve, then post your question on SO. | Apple's [MoviePlayer](https://developer.apple.com/library/archive/samplecode/MoviePlayer_iPhone/Introduction/Intro.html) sample shows how to do this.
And refer - <https://web.archive.org/web/20110528064432/http://developer.apple.com/library/ios/codinghowtos/AudioAndVideo/_index.html> |
40,994,642 | With the rise of Spark, Scala has gained a tremendous momentum as programming language of choice for data science applications.
To increase the efficiency when working on data science applications, **specialized IDEs** have been released for
* R (e.g. RStudio) and
* Python (e.g. Spyder or Rodeo, see [Is there something like RStudio for Python?](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/8305809/is-there-something-like-rstudio-for-python)).
Is there something similar for Scala? | 2016/12/06 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/40994642",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1575670/"
] | Unfortunately there doesn't seem to be any dedicated Data Science IDEs for Scala at this time. I think these would be your best options:
[IntelliJ Worksheets:](https://confluence.jetbrains.com/display/IntelliJIDEA/Working+with+Scala+Worksheet)
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/JcafD.png)
This is basically a text editor with an output window which gets updated as often as you want. Eclipse has something similar, I just prefer IntelliJ.
**Pros:**
* Backed by IntelliJ's fantastic code completion, error checking, and sbt/maven integration.
* You can prototype within the same project setup as your actual development system (if you have one).
**Cons:**
* I am not aware of any caching/selective evaluation so the entire worksheet is evaluated each time you want an answer, something you may not want if you have some operations which take a long time to complete.
* No workspace variables window or plot integration.
[Jupyter Notebooks](http://jupyter.org/)
----------------------------------------
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/RLzOc.png)
The Jupyter Notebook is a generalization of the iPython notebook which now supports [dozens of interpreted languages](https://github.com/ipython/ipython/wiki/IPython-kernels-for-other-languages) (new kernels are being added all of the time).
**Pros:**
* [Scala](https://github.com/alexarchambault/jupyter-scala) and [Spark Scala](https://github.com/apache/incubator-toree) Kernels are fairly easy to install, both have the ability to add maven/sbt dependencies and JARs.
* The cells in the notebook can be run individually (allowing you to train a model once and use it many times, for example).
* The cells support markdown (with LaTeX!) which can be rendered on its own ([a github example](https://github.com/EvanOman/KaggleCompetitions/blob/master/StackExchange/scala/Review_Aspect_Extraction_Spark.ipynb)), allowing you to use your notebooks as a report/demonstration.
* Notebooks are backed by a Notebook Server so you could easily use a more powerful computer as your notebook server and then interact with the notebook from another location.
* Some kernels have autocompletion.
* Looks like there is some plot integration ([example](http://nbviewer.jupyter.org/urls/gist.githubusercontent.com/chilang/b28319c2955d76219001/raw/645d4df74186548752a43f93eec3880e4e0d27d1/Bokeh.ipynb)) but it is not totally polished.
**Cons:**
* Not all kernels are perfect, some have bugs or limited functionality.
* No workspace variables window.
* You really need to be careful about the ordering of your cells, failure to do so can cause a lot of confusion.
---
For most of the data-sciency stuff I do I use Jupyter but it is far from perfect. In order for Scala to really take over as a Data Science language it really needs more data science libraries (scikit-learn is sooo far ahead here) and it needs a solid plotting library (there are a few options but none I have seen both use idiomatic Scala and are able to run without a server). I think as soon as it has those two elements it will become more popular and hopefully someone will make a nice RStudio-esque IDE. | Your best shot (nothing like rstudio but this would be your best shot for scala) is [apache zeppelin](https://zeppelin.apache.org/)
 |
40,994,642 | With the rise of Spark, Scala has gained a tremendous momentum as programming language of choice for data science applications.
To increase the efficiency when working on data science applications, **specialized IDEs** have been released for
* R (e.g. RStudio) and
* Python (e.g. Spyder or Rodeo, see [Is there something like RStudio for Python?](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/8305809/is-there-something-like-rstudio-for-python)).
Is there something similar for Scala? | 2016/12/06 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/40994642",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1575670/"
] | Unfortunately there doesn't seem to be any dedicated Data Science IDEs for Scala at this time. I think these would be your best options:
[IntelliJ Worksheets:](https://confluence.jetbrains.com/display/IntelliJIDEA/Working+with+Scala+Worksheet)
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/JcafD.png)
This is basically a text editor with an output window which gets updated as often as you want. Eclipse has something similar, I just prefer IntelliJ.
**Pros:**
* Backed by IntelliJ's fantastic code completion, error checking, and sbt/maven integration.
* You can prototype within the same project setup as your actual development system (if you have one).
**Cons:**
* I am not aware of any caching/selective evaluation so the entire worksheet is evaluated each time you want an answer, something you may not want if you have some operations which take a long time to complete.
* No workspace variables window or plot integration.
[Jupyter Notebooks](http://jupyter.org/)
----------------------------------------
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/RLzOc.png)
The Jupyter Notebook is a generalization of the iPython notebook which now supports [dozens of interpreted languages](https://github.com/ipython/ipython/wiki/IPython-kernels-for-other-languages) (new kernels are being added all of the time).
**Pros:**
* [Scala](https://github.com/alexarchambault/jupyter-scala) and [Spark Scala](https://github.com/apache/incubator-toree) Kernels are fairly easy to install, both have the ability to add maven/sbt dependencies and JARs.
* The cells in the notebook can be run individually (allowing you to train a model once and use it many times, for example).
* The cells support markdown (with LaTeX!) which can be rendered on its own ([a github example](https://github.com/EvanOman/KaggleCompetitions/blob/master/StackExchange/scala/Review_Aspect_Extraction_Spark.ipynb)), allowing you to use your notebooks as a report/demonstration.
* Notebooks are backed by a Notebook Server so you could easily use a more powerful computer as your notebook server and then interact with the notebook from another location.
* Some kernels have autocompletion.
* Looks like there is some plot integration ([example](http://nbviewer.jupyter.org/urls/gist.githubusercontent.com/chilang/b28319c2955d76219001/raw/645d4df74186548752a43f93eec3880e4e0d27d1/Bokeh.ipynb)) but it is not totally polished.
**Cons:**
* Not all kernels are perfect, some have bugs or limited functionality.
* No workspace variables window.
* You really need to be careful about the ordering of your cells, failure to do so can cause a lot of confusion.
---
For most of the data-sciency stuff I do I use Jupyter but it is far from perfect. In order for Scala to really take over as a Data Science language it really needs more data science libraries (scikit-learn is sooo far ahead here) and it needs a solid plotting library (there are a few options but none I have seen both use idiomatic Scala and are able to run without a server). I think as soon as it has those two elements it will become more popular and hopefully someone will make a nice RStudio-esque IDE. | I would recommend you to look at Scala IDE for Eclipse. But i think, it really depends on your personal choice in which you are comfortable writing the code. For testing code by code, i would still use jupyter notebook |
40,994,642 | With the rise of Spark, Scala has gained a tremendous momentum as programming language of choice for data science applications.
To increase the efficiency when working on data science applications, **specialized IDEs** have been released for
* R (e.g. RStudio) and
* Python (e.g. Spyder or Rodeo, see [Is there something like RStudio for Python?](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/8305809/is-there-something-like-rstudio-for-python)).
Is there something similar for Scala? | 2016/12/06 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/40994642",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1575670/"
] | Your best shot (nothing like rstudio but this would be your best shot for scala) is [apache zeppelin](https://zeppelin.apache.org/)
 | I would recommend you to look at Scala IDE for Eclipse. But i think, it really depends on your personal choice in which you are comfortable writing the code. For testing code by code, i would still use jupyter notebook |
166,103 | Essentially, I have the opportunity to obtain a game voucher for a couple of PS Vita games that only allows me to download from the UK marketplace. My PSN account is based in New Zealand. What I am thinking is to create a UK account, use the voucher, download the games, switch to my main NZ account and play the downloaded games. This all sounds rosy, but is this really plausible? | 2014/04/28 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/166103",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/12229/"
] | No, this will not work. You can only have one account from one region active on a PS Vita. This is the same with the PSP, fwiw.
To change accounts you actually have to reset the device, wipe the content and activate the alternate account with its own SD card, as the memory card content is locked to the account it was initialized to.
Oh, and a word of warning. Sony limits the number of activation/de-activations per account. Once you hit that limit you can't switch the device again with an account until the window resets (I think it's currently one year).
Sorry for the bad news. | For better or worse, this has been done ever since 2006 when the PS3 was released. Back then people who bought the PlayStation 3 and did not have a "local" (Their country) PSN, had to create accounts with "false" data in order to play. That's the case for a lot of people in Latin America (in my experience) who have their accounts as US accounts, even if they are from another country.
Focusing on your question, I haven't tested that specifically with the PS Vita games, but it is perfectly doable with PSN games, you can download games from another region with a different account and then play it with your "main" account. A good example is with games in the Japanese PSN, there's lots of games that take forever to be released in other countries.
It'd be interesting to investigate if this is posible in the PS Vita since it only allows a single account.
I know this may not answer your question but I hope it helps.
One word of warning, in the PS3 at least, DO NOT delete the account you created to download the game, it renders those games unusable. |
348,583 | 
The extremely high system storage is making my phone unusable. What do I do?
None of my apps have any storage more than 3.44 GB. When I connect to iTunes it shows like 30 something GB available. It is annoying to have because I’m not able to download any apps either. I have an iPhone 6s running iOS 11.3.1.
 | 2019/01/14 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/348583",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/317371/"
] | I would back up the phone and then erase all content and settings and re-measure it with no user apps or data or things installed - just the blank OS.
If you just want to poke at things before erasing, I would put the device in airplane mode then do the power off ( slide to power off in screen - controller shut down of iOS). Then start the device and open the storage viewing app. Ideally you connected to power and let the spotlight index rebuild for 15 minutes on power and in airplane mode (so no new data arrives on device)
Then if it's still too high (or you're just curious how much thinner you can make it), restore the device from iTunes (perhaps in restore mode).
Something is really off with that large an amount. I expect 3 GB of system space on older iOS versions and older devices:
* [What's the practical difference between a 16GB and 32GB iPhone?](https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/64642/whats-the-practical-difference-between-a-16gb-and-32gb-iphone)
* [How large is iOS?](https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/68796/how-large-is-ios)
Not the whopping 50 GB you post in your image. Either there are backup snapshots or something else really taking up space. If you only have 64 GB of space, I could see the device barely operating if it's reserved that much space. Even a larger storage device could be in trouble, so back up and then clean all your apps / settings and consider a restore for good measure. | Your image above shows only 3.6 GB free. You should try to get rid of some apps from your phone to free up more space. You could try the App [PhoneClean](https://www.imobie.com/phoneclean/) I used it and it freed up a few GB on my iPhone. You must have access to a Mac since the App funs on MacOS. Then you connect your iPhone to your computer via cable and run the app. The directions are given in the link above. |
348,583 | 
The extremely high system storage is making my phone unusable. What do I do?
None of my apps have any storage more than 3.44 GB. When I connect to iTunes it shows like 30 something GB available. It is annoying to have because I’m not able to download any apps either. I have an iPhone 6s running iOS 11.3.1.
 | 2019/01/14 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/348583",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/317371/"
] | I would back up the phone and then erase all content and settings and re-measure it with no user apps or data or things installed - just the blank OS.
If you just want to poke at things before erasing, I would put the device in airplane mode then do the power off ( slide to power off in screen - controller shut down of iOS). Then start the device and open the storage viewing app. Ideally you connected to power and let the spotlight index rebuild for 15 minutes on power and in airplane mode (so no new data arrives on device)
Then if it's still too high (or you're just curious how much thinner you can make it), restore the device from iTunes (perhaps in restore mode).
Something is really off with that large an amount. I expect 3 GB of system space on older iOS versions and older devices:
* [What's the practical difference between a 16GB and 32GB iPhone?](https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/64642/whats-the-practical-difference-between-a-16gb-and-32gb-iphone)
* [How large is iOS?](https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/68796/how-large-is-ios)
Not the whopping 50 GB you post in your image. Either there are backup snapshots or something else really taking up space. If you only have 64 GB of space, I could see the device barely operating if it's reserved that much space. Even a larger storage device could be in trouble, so back up and then clean all your apps / settings and consider a restore for good measure. | I bet much of your "system storage" is actually chats, photos and videos from social media apps such as WhatsApp. They have been incorrectly recognized as system files. I learned this the hard way. My iphone indicated that all my apps and photos only took up less than 1GB but the system file was more than 13GB! I tried deleting WhatsApp and it did free up more than 7GB of storage! I thought I had a backup but the backup was old, and I lost the past year's chats as a result. If you want to free up the phone, you would have to either backup your iphone or look into your social media apps and save/back up your chats, then delete and reinstall your apps. If you don't want to be bothered with saving your chats, just delete and reinstall your social media apps. |
348,583 | 
The extremely high system storage is making my phone unusable. What do I do?
None of my apps have any storage more than 3.44 GB. When I connect to iTunes it shows like 30 something GB available. It is annoying to have because I’m not able to download any apps either. I have an iPhone 6s running iOS 11.3.1.
 | 2019/01/14 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/348583",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/317371/"
] | I have had the same issue on Iphone SE. And additionally I was not able to log in to ICloud.
I fixed the issue by restoring the system image of the Ios using Itunes.
Step-by-step:
1. Launch Itunes and back up the phone.
2. Press the Power and Home buttons and hold them until the phone is switched off.
3. Release the Power button and keep holding the Home button till the phone enters the restore mode
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/OqPCf.jpg)
4. In Itunes on this screen press "Restore"
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/suDuO.png)
5. At this point Itunes will download the image of your current Ios if it is not downloaded.
6. Next select "Restore and Update"
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/FRBBY.png)
This will flash the system image onto your phone.
After the process is finished you will get a fresh version of the ios with plenty of free storage(58Gb in my case)
6. Go to Itunes and restore your data from the backup | Your image above shows only 3.6 GB free. You should try to get rid of some apps from your phone to free up more space. You could try the App [PhoneClean](https://www.imobie.com/phoneclean/) I used it and it freed up a few GB on my iPhone. You must have access to a Mac since the App funs on MacOS. Then you connect your iPhone to your computer via cable and run the app. The directions are given in the link above. |
348,583 | 
The extremely high system storage is making my phone unusable. What do I do?
None of my apps have any storage more than 3.44 GB. When I connect to iTunes it shows like 30 something GB available. It is annoying to have because I’m not able to download any apps either. I have an iPhone 6s running iOS 11.3.1.
 | 2019/01/14 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/348583",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/317371/"
] | I have had the same issue on Iphone SE. And additionally I was not able to log in to ICloud.
I fixed the issue by restoring the system image of the Ios using Itunes.
Step-by-step:
1. Launch Itunes and back up the phone.
2. Press the Power and Home buttons and hold them until the phone is switched off.
3. Release the Power button and keep holding the Home button till the phone enters the restore mode
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/OqPCf.jpg)
4. In Itunes on this screen press "Restore"
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/suDuO.png)
5. At this point Itunes will download the image of your current Ios if it is not downloaded.
6. Next select "Restore and Update"
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/FRBBY.png)
This will flash the system image onto your phone.
After the process is finished you will get a fresh version of the ios with plenty of free storage(58Gb in my case)
6. Go to Itunes and restore your data from the backup | I bet much of your "system storage" is actually chats, photos and videos from social media apps such as WhatsApp. They have been incorrectly recognized as system files. I learned this the hard way. My iphone indicated that all my apps and photos only took up less than 1GB but the system file was more than 13GB! I tried deleting WhatsApp and it did free up more than 7GB of storage! I thought I had a backup but the backup was old, and I lost the past year's chats as a result. If you want to free up the phone, you would have to either backup your iphone or look into your social media apps and save/back up your chats, then delete and reinstall your apps. If you don't want to be bothered with saving your chats, just delete and reinstall your social media apps. |
348,583 | 
The extremely high system storage is making my phone unusable. What do I do?
None of my apps have any storage more than 3.44 GB. When I connect to iTunes it shows like 30 something GB available. It is annoying to have because I’m not able to download any apps either. I have an iPhone 6s running iOS 11.3.1.
 | 2019/01/14 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/348583",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/317371/"
] | What I just did on my iPhone 7 Plus 32GB version 12.3.1
1. Phone ON, unlocked, and on the home screen, plugged into PC with iTunes up (don't need to sync)
2. Press and hold Power + Volume Down until the iPhone is off (Still plugged into PC with iTunes up)
3. Power back on, let it come all the way up.
I just went from 14.9GB of System to 7.86GB.
I tried <http://osxdaily.com/2018/07/02/reduce-ios-system-storage-iphone-ipad/> but that didn't work. So I did the steps above on the home screen.
Hope it helps someone. | Your image above shows only 3.6 GB free. You should try to get rid of some apps from your phone to free up more space. You could try the App [PhoneClean](https://www.imobie.com/phoneclean/) I used it and it freed up a few GB on my iPhone. You must have access to a Mac since the App funs on MacOS. Then you connect your iPhone to your computer via cable and run the app. The directions are given in the link above. |
348,583 | 
The extremely high system storage is making my phone unusable. What do I do?
None of my apps have any storage more than 3.44 GB. When I connect to iTunes it shows like 30 something GB available. It is annoying to have because I’m not able to download any apps either. I have an iPhone 6s running iOS 11.3.1.
 | 2019/01/14 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/348583",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/317371/"
] | What I just did on my iPhone 7 Plus 32GB version 12.3.1
1. Phone ON, unlocked, and on the home screen, plugged into PC with iTunes up (don't need to sync)
2. Press and hold Power + Volume Down until the iPhone is off (Still plugged into PC with iTunes up)
3. Power back on, let it come all the way up.
I just went from 14.9GB of System to 7.86GB.
I tried <http://osxdaily.com/2018/07/02/reduce-ios-system-storage-iphone-ipad/> but that didn't work. So I did the steps above on the home screen.
Hope it helps someone. | I bet much of your "system storage" is actually chats, photos and videos from social media apps such as WhatsApp. They have been incorrectly recognized as system files. I learned this the hard way. My iphone indicated that all my apps and photos only took up less than 1GB but the system file was more than 13GB! I tried deleting WhatsApp and it did free up more than 7GB of storage! I thought I had a backup but the backup was old, and I lost the past year's chats as a result. If you want to free up the phone, you would have to either backup your iphone or look into your social media apps and save/back up your chats, then delete and reinstall your apps. If you don't want to be bothered with saving your chats, just delete and reinstall your social media apps. |
191,667 | Our Debian Servers are becoming more and more and I am having a bit of a problem keeping the configurations in sync e.g. for ssh keys. But also stuff like vim configurations and tools installed on the servers.
I would really like to have an option to have a default install on all of them where things like wget and w3m are installed and then have classes I can assign to servers so that my Database Servers have mysql-server and some firewall settings installed where as the Webservers have an apache installed and configured and other firewall settings enabled.
Is there something like this? I have found Chef cookbook but am a bit confused in how it works. What alternatives are there? I am only searching for a tool for Debian - other OS don't have to be supported and it can be all command line.
Also I would like to send off aptitude updates without having to log in every where once. I don't want install the updates automatically though! | 2010/10/16 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/191667",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/1131/"
] | I guess you could look into [Puppet](http://www.puppetlabs.com/). It's seems to fit your requirements. | For automating new installations, there is FAI (Fully Automatic Installation). For configuration management, there are a number of solutions, including: cfEngine, Puppet, and bcfg2. Debian provides packages for all those, so they're just an `apt-get` away. |
191,667 | Our Debian Servers are becoming more and more and I am having a bit of a problem keeping the configurations in sync e.g. for ssh keys. But also stuff like vim configurations and tools installed on the servers.
I would really like to have an option to have a default install on all of them where things like wget and w3m are installed and then have classes I can assign to servers so that my Database Servers have mysql-server and some firewall settings installed where as the Webservers have an apache installed and configured and other firewall settings enabled.
Is there something like this? I have found Chef cookbook but am a bit confused in how it works. What alternatives are there? I am only searching for a tool for Debian - other OS don't have to be supported and it can be all command line.
Also I would like to send off aptitude updates without having to log in every where once. I don't want install the updates automatically though! | 2010/10/16 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/191667",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/1131/"
] | I guess you could look into [Puppet](http://www.puppetlabs.com/). It's seems to fit your requirements. | you should have a look at Puppet or Chef. |
191,667 | Our Debian Servers are becoming more and more and I am having a bit of a problem keeping the configurations in sync e.g. for ssh keys. But also stuff like vim configurations and tools installed on the servers.
I would really like to have an option to have a default install on all of them where things like wget and w3m are installed and then have classes I can assign to servers so that my Database Servers have mysql-server and some firewall settings installed where as the Webservers have an apache installed and configured and other firewall settings enabled.
Is there something like this? I have found Chef cookbook but am a bit confused in how it works. What alternatives are there? I am only searching for a tool for Debian - other OS don't have to be supported and it can be all command line.
Also I would like to send off aptitude updates without having to log in every where once. I don't want install the updates automatically though! | 2010/10/16 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/191667",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/1131/"
] | I guess you could look into [Puppet](http://www.puppetlabs.com/). It's seems to fit your requirements. | take a look at look at [debian pre-seeding](http://wiki.debian.org/DebianInstaller/Preseed) and then - as suggested by Fred and Mark - centralized configuration management like puppet or chef.
pre-seeding might be cumbersome at first but in the long run it's quite powerful..
[here](http://kudzia.eu/b/2009/07/pre-seeding-automated-installation-of-debian/) is the configuration that i've used with some success. |
191,667 | Our Debian Servers are becoming more and more and I am having a bit of a problem keeping the configurations in sync e.g. for ssh keys. But also stuff like vim configurations and tools installed on the servers.
I would really like to have an option to have a default install on all of them where things like wget and w3m are installed and then have classes I can assign to servers so that my Database Servers have mysql-server and some firewall settings installed where as the Webservers have an apache installed and configured and other firewall settings enabled.
Is there something like this? I have found Chef cookbook but am a bit confused in how it works. What alternatives are there? I am only searching for a tool for Debian - other OS don't have to be supported and it can be all command line.
Also I would like to send off aptitude updates without having to log in every where once. I don't want install the updates automatically though! | 2010/10/16 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/191667",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/1131/"
] | I guess you could look into [Puppet](http://www.puppetlabs.com/). It's seems to fit your requirements. | FAI can install and configure your machines. For configuration you can use any scripting language you prefer, like cfengine or chef,....
FAI also includes the normal Debian preseeding technique, but this is only a small part of FAI. FAI can do much more.
The FAI project moved it's $HOME to
<http://fai-project.org> |
191,667 | Our Debian Servers are becoming more and more and I am having a bit of a problem keeping the configurations in sync e.g. for ssh keys. But also stuff like vim configurations and tools installed on the servers.
I would really like to have an option to have a default install on all of them where things like wget and w3m are installed and then have classes I can assign to servers so that my Database Servers have mysql-server and some firewall settings installed where as the Webservers have an apache installed and configured and other firewall settings enabled.
Is there something like this? I have found Chef cookbook but am a bit confused in how it works. What alternatives are there? I am only searching for a tool for Debian - other OS don't have to be supported and it can be all command line.
Also I would like to send off aptitude updates without having to log in every where once. I don't want install the updates automatically though! | 2010/10/16 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/191667",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/1131/"
] | you should have a look at Puppet or Chef. | For automating new installations, there is FAI (Fully Automatic Installation). For configuration management, there are a number of solutions, including: cfEngine, Puppet, and bcfg2. Debian provides packages for all those, so they're just an `apt-get` away. |
191,667 | Our Debian Servers are becoming more and more and I am having a bit of a problem keeping the configurations in sync e.g. for ssh keys. But also stuff like vim configurations and tools installed on the servers.
I would really like to have an option to have a default install on all of them where things like wget and w3m are installed and then have classes I can assign to servers so that my Database Servers have mysql-server and some firewall settings installed where as the Webservers have an apache installed and configured and other firewall settings enabled.
Is there something like this? I have found Chef cookbook but am a bit confused in how it works. What alternatives are there? I am only searching for a tool for Debian - other OS don't have to be supported and it can be all command line.
Also I would like to send off aptitude updates without having to log in every where once. I don't want install the updates automatically though! | 2010/10/16 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/191667",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/1131/"
] | you should have a look at Puppet or Chef. | take a look at look at [debian pre-seeding](http://wiki.debian.org/DebianInstaller/Preseed) and then - as suggested by Fred and Mark - centralized configuration management like puppet or chef.
pre-seeding might be cumbersome at first but in the long run it's quite powerful..
[here](http://kudzia.eu/b/2009/07/pre-seeding-automated-installation-of-debian/) is the configuration that i've used with some success. |
191,667 | Our Debian Servers are becoming more and more and I am having a bit of a problem keeping the configurations in sync e.g. for ssh keys. But also stuff like vim configurations and tools installed on the servers.
I would really like to have an option to have a default install on all of them where things like wget and w3m are installed and then have classes I can assign to servers so that my Database Servers have mysql-server and some firewall settings installed where as the Webservers have an apache installed and configured and other firewall settings enabled.
Is there something like this? I have found Chef cookbook but am a bit confused in how it works. What alternatives are there? I am only searching for a tool for Debian - other OS don't have to be supported and it can be all command line.
Also I would like to send off aptitude updates without having to log in every where once. I don't want install the updates automatically though! | 2010/10/16 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/191667",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/1131/"
] | you should have a look at Puppet or Chef. | FAI can install and configure your machines. For configuration you can use any scripting language you prefer, like cfengine or chef,....
FAI also includes the normal Debian preseeding technique, but this is only a small part of FAI. FAI can do much more.
The FAI project moved it's $HOME to
<http://fai-project.org> |
81,453 | >
> There are products to be flogged and, Ms. Barberich added, “stars to be made.”
>
>
>
What does it mean by flogged here?
I got these synonym:
struck, propelled, electrical, beaten, flogged, chastised
Full Context for Original Quote: [Who Am I Wearing? Funny You Should Ask.](http://www.nytimes.com/2012/09/13/fashion/new-york-fashion-week-street-style-is-often-a-billboard-for-brands.html?ref=fashion) | 2012/09/13 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/81453",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | *Flogged* is used here in wiktionary's sense 3 of *[flog](http://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/flog)*, “(transitive, UK) To sell something.” That is, the sentence means there are products to be aggressively promoted and pushed into the faces of the public. | >
> There are products to be flogged and, Ms. Barberich added, “stars to be made.”
>
>
>
The sentence means there is scope for a lot of products to be fiercely promoted/publicized in the market, and while it sells the new designers become stars. |
43,938 | I have a WinMo 6.1 PPC phone, and it keeps saying that I have one unread sms/mms message, but i have looked through ALL my folders, and there are no unread messages.
After googling around, I found some little app, FixUnreadCount.exe, that you just copy to your phone, and run, and it is supposed to reset the counts. I tried that, but it did not fix it.
Anyone got any other ideas? | 2009/09/19 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/43938",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/4865/"
] | On the garmin website you can download software for your device
<http://www8.garmin.com/support/download.jsp> | Use Windows (file) Explorer to browse the file directories. You can discover where photos and MP3 files can be stored. |
43,938 | I have a WinMo 6.1 PPC phone, and it keeps saying that I have one unread sms/mms message, but i have looked through ALL my folders, and there are no unread messages.
After googling around, I found some little app, FixUnreadCount.exe, that you just copy to your phone, and run, and it is supposed to reset the counts. I tried that, but it did not fix it.
Anyone got any other ideas? | 2009/09/19 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/43938",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/4865/"
] | On the garmin website you can download software for your device
<http://www8.garmin.com/support/download.jsp> | The Garmin Software is free, however the Maps are not. The catch to the Nuvi is that the maps can't be read of the GPS, and needs to be separately purchased and installed.
You can however pull your travel logs of the GPS and I am in the process of writing a little application to parse these and then map them on with Google or Live Maps.
There is a free Mac RoutePlanner available on the Garmin site as well which I haven't had a chance to look at yet. |
266,458 | Someone who has a great taste in fashion could help others with their shopping, but as a profession not as a hobby.
The inspiration for this question is from the movie "In Her Shoes". | 2015/08/12 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/266458",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/133504/"
] | A ['personal shopper'](http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/personal+shopper) (reference.com) does this, and may be employed by the shop or independent. | Personal Shopper/Buyer's Assistant |
266,458 | Someone who has a great taste in fashion could help others with their shopping, but as a profession not as a hobby.
The inspiration for this question is from the movie "In Her Shoes". | 2015/08/12 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/266458",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/133504/"
] | A ['personal shopper'](http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/personal+shopper) (reference.com) does this, and may be employed by the shop or independent. | normally you can use many words but the one that best describes that is doradca. THe pronunciation however is not known to me. The word has been in use for last 300 years - so it is hihg time to learnt it and use freely |
4,023 | There is a user that recently started asking [questions](https://chemistry.stackexchange.com/users/24052/mhchem?tab=questions&sort=newest), that some of us see as [pointless discussions about noob stuff](https://chemistry.stackexchange.com/questions/87314/is-dissolving-salt-a-chemical-reaction-or-a-physical-change?noredirect=1#comment157956_87314). Things about butter and melting ice with salt.
The guy seems to know nothing about chemistry. And while his questions cannot be answered easily via Google, they seem irrelevant to the professional chemist, which we show by ignoring the questions. These questions do not get much attention, neither positive nor negative.
Do we discourage these questions? Should we close them? | 2017/12/13 | [
"https://chemistry.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/4023",
"https://chemistry.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://chemistry.meta.stackexchange.com/users/24052/"
] | We do not want **discussions**. We want questions with answers. Whether or not these are pointless, or noob stuff should be determined by voting.
As with chemistry, I don't really like too many generalisations, especially not on the fuzzy interpretation level. There certainly are questions that are too basic, which becomes too broad in terms of answering them, which would make them off-topic. Otherwise normal criteria of closing should be applied.
The question about physical and chemical change is problematic though - and you see that with the reception. I don't want to answer it here, but in very short terms, it is very opinion-based. However, the comment you linked to is noise and should probably better not have been left. The user might have instead simply down-voted and moved on.
*In conclusion:* I would decide these things on a case by case basis, let voting be the guiding factor. I certainly don't want to discourage curiosity. And I most certainly do not want to close such questions. | We don't want discussions. But we also don't want a hostile site that obnoxiously dismisses people as unworthy "noobs". Everybody "knew nothing about chemistry" once. Nothing in the [help centre](https://chemistry.stackexchange.com/help/on-topic) says that the scope of this site is restricted to "professional chemists".In contrast, answering questions that can't be easily answered with Google is pretty much the *raison d'être* of Stack Exchange. |
29,321 | If I write a check to someone (in this case, from an LLC), on a local bank, and it goes to someone who is within 10-25 miles of me, and they take that to their bank (also local and not my bank), is there an upward limit on how long that check can take to clear on my account?
Is there an upward limit or maximum amount of time this will take from the date the recipient deposits or cashes my check until it shows on my account?
Are there limits on how quickly his bank has to process it? Or limits on how quickly my bank has to post the information to my account once they receive it?
My experience tells me that once a check is deposited or cashed that it shows up within 2 (or possibly 3 at the outside) business days, but I'm wondering if there is anything, like a law or procedures banks use, that limits the total time it can take from when it's presented to the recipient's bank until it posts on my account.
**Addendum**: I found a consumer service number for the Fed and called them. They didn't give an upper limit, but they told me it should be 2 days. I tried to get more insight into the process and if there's reasons it might take longer, but they were unable to give me more information, so I still don't know if this is an upper limit.
---
**Note**: I've edited this. In my experience, I've found that many times when I ask a direct question, thinking no background is needed, people say, "Why do you ask?" and when I include background, often someone says, "Well, this is the answer to what you asked, but it seems like this information will help you more." My thought was that a little extra background may help, but in this case, it seems to have diverted attention from the primary question, so I've revise the question to include only the main question. | 2014/03/23 | [
"https://money.stackexchange.com/questions/29321",
"https://money.stackexchange.com",
"https://money.stackexchange.com/users/13963/"
] | There's nothing you can do. If he has indeed deposited the check, it would appear on your account fairly quickly - I've never seen it taking more than 2-3 business days. However, a check is a debt instrument, and you cannot close the account until it clears, or until the "unclaimed property" laws of your state kick in.
If he claims that he deposited the check, ask it in writing and have your bank (or the bank where it was deposited) investigate why it takes so long to clear. If he's not willing to give it to you in writing - he's likely not deposited it. Whatever the reason may be, even just to cause you nuisance.
Lesson learned. Next time - cashier's check with a signed receipt.
Re closing the LLC: if you're the only two partners - you can just withdraw yourself from the LLC, take out your share, and drop it on him leaving him the only partner. Check with your local attorney for details. | According to [this Q&A by a Houston law professor](http://www.chron.com/news/article/Know-your-rights-Stopping-payment-on-a-check-is-1615087.php):
>
> The law, however, is not designed to interfere with an individual's right to stop payment on a valid check because of a dispute with someone. If he didn't deliver as promised, you do not owe the money and have the right to stop payment. Assuming that you had enough money in the bank to cover the check, stopping payment is not a crime.
>
>
>
I found several other pages essentially saying the same thing. All the usual disclaimers apply, I am not a lawyer, this is not legal advice, etc. In particular, laws might vary by state.
Basically, though, it doesn't seem there's any reason why you can't stop payment on the check just because you feel like it. If you then provide a cashier's check for the payment, your ex-partner will not really have anything to complain about. If you're worried about annoying him by doing this, that's a separate issue, but given the situation you describe, I don't see why you should be. If you feel he is being a pain in the neck, feel free to be a pain in the neck right back and force him to accept the payment in the manner you decide, instead of allowing him to string you along.
Note two things: obviously if you have reason to believe the guy will sue you, you should act with caution. Also, I'm not suggesting withdrawing payment completely, only stopping the check and issuing a new payment that you don't have to wait on (e.g., cashier's check). |
24,646 | In every edition of D&D before 4e, Paladins are required to be Lawful Good. If they stray from that, they are completely stripped of their powers. This means that evil deities can't grant powers to paladins or if they do, they go into a new class (e.g. Anti-Paladin).
My question is: why? Why was it designed that paladins have to have such a strict alignment? It seems to me that it unnecessarily pigeonholes the character types and doesn't make sense in D&D world. After all, couldn't evil deities have (un)holy warriors?
I also don't understand the mechanical decision about why was it designed that an evil Paladin has to be a different class. Wouldn't this create a problem if you wanted to redeem an evil Paladin into a good one? This never really made sense to me until 4e where they just dropped the Lawful Good restriction entirely and let you have a Paladin of Vecna (or have that Paladin of Vecna become a redeemed Paladin of Pelor without having to switch classes).
I'm especially interested if the D&D designers ever wrote anything about their decision to make it this way.
I'm mostly looking for an answer on **why the rules were designed this way**, not reasons for why non-Lawful Good paladins can't exist in the rules as they have been written by the designers. | 2013/04/11 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/24646",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/7373/"
] | Since Gary Gygax was the original "designer" let's look at what inspired his version and hence D&D's version of the Paladin.
This is from a Collection of "[Sources for D&D](http://www.hahnlibrary.net/rpgs/sources.html)" that was compiled by Aardy R. DeVarque, who draws his source directly from the original 1st edition *Dungeon Masters Guide*.
>
> **Paladin Class**
>
>
> Based largely on the character of Holger Carlson from Poul Anderson's *Three Hearts and Three Lions*, as well as Anderson's original sources, Charlemagne's paladins in the medieval French chansons de geste ("songs of deeds"), particularly *The Song of Roland* and Ariosto's *Orlando Furioso*. The paladin's tie to a special war-horse is also from *Three Hearts and Three Lions*.
>
>
>
> >
> > I do not mean a saint, but a warrior whom God gave more than common gifts and then put under a more than common burden. —Martinus, *Three Hearts and Three Lions*
> >
> >
> >
>
>
>
So a lot of what the Paladin class is, seems to come from *Three Hearts and Three Lions*.
The main protagonist of the novel plays a crucial role in an epic struggle between Law and Chaos (this is also where the D&D alignment system came from). In the book, law and order are represented by Christianity, which was also considered a beacon of hope. This is, I think, the basis for the Lawful Good requirement and code of conduct that Gygax attached to the paladin class. | In 2E (and maybe 1E - not sure, I don't have the books handy at the moment), the Paladin is specifically a specialist Fighter, much like how the Druid was an "example" of a specialist Cleric.
The paladin is also less defined by his religion (not just a holy warrior) and his alignment, and more defined by his required code of conduct. Alignment is a guideline - any other Lawful Good character can bend the rules from time to time, but the paladin's code of conduct is a hard and fast rule - he breaks it, he's no longer a paladin.
The design decision was less "hey lets make a holy warrior, and only the good guys would have those" and more of a "lets create a class based on this example of the knight in shining armor, with an uncompromising dedication to the ideals of good". |
24,646 | In every edition of D&D before 4e, Paladins are required to be Lawful Good. If they stray from that, they are completely stripped of their powers. This means that evil deities can't grant powers to paladins or if they do, they go into a new class (e.g. Anti-Paladin).
My question is: why? Why was it designed that paladins have to have such a strict alignment? It seems to me that it unnecessarily pigeonholes the character types and doesn't make sense in D&D world. After all, couldn't evil deities have (un)holy warriors?
I also don't understand the mechanical decision about why was it designed that an evil Paladin has to be a different class. Wouldn't this create a problem if you wanted to redeem an evil Paladin into a good one? This never really made sense to me until 4e where they just dropped the Lawful Good restriction entirely and let you have a Paladin of Vecna (or have that Paladin of Vecna become a redeemed Paladin of Pelor without having to switch classes).
I'm especially interested if the D&D designers ever wrote anything about their decision to make it this way.
I'm mostly looking for an answer on **why the rules were designed this way**, not reasons for why non-Lawful Good paladins can't exist in the rules as they have been written by the designers. | 2013/04/11 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/24646",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/7373/"
] | Since Gary Gygax was the original "designer" let's look at what inspired his version and hence D&D's version of the Paladin.
This is from a Collection of "[Sources for D&D](http://www.hahnlibrary.net/rpgs/sources.html)" that was compiled by Aardy R. DeVarque, who draws his source directly from the original 1st edition *Dungeon Masters Guide*.
>
> **Paladin Class**
>
>
> Based largely on the character of Holger Carlson from Poul Anderson's *Three Hearts and Three Lions*, as well as Anderson's original sources, Charlemagne's paladins in the medieval French chansons de geste ("songs of deeds"), particularly *The Song of Roland* and Ariosto's *Orlando Furioso*. The paladin's tie to a special war-horse is also from *Three Hearts and Three Lions*.
>
>
>
> >
> > I do not mean a saint, but a warrior whom God gave more than common gifts and then put under a more than common burden. —Martinus, *Three Hearts and Three Lions*
> >
> >
> >
>
>
>
So a lot of what the Paladin class is, seems to come from *Three Hearts and Three Lions*.
The main protagonist of the novel plays a crucial role in an epic struggle between Law and Chaos (this is also where the D&D alignment system came from). In the book, law and order are represented by Christianity, which was also considered a beacon of hope. This is, I think, the basis for the Lawful Good requirement and code of conduct that Gygax attached to the paladin class. | From a gaming perspective, I see two points in favor of the initial alignment restriction :
* consistency with existing stereotypes : assassins are evil, paladins
are ultimately good, and so on. So that was not shocking for players
* Paladins was the most powerfull class available. Alignment restriction was a good way to prevent abuses and make is also somewhat not easy to play. Playing an overtly evil is less restrictive and may have cause trouble all the time, in my opinion. |
24,646 | In every edition of D&D before 4e, Paladins are required to be Lawful Good. If they stray from that, they are completely stripped of their powers. This means that evil deities can't grant powers to paladins or if they do, they go into a new class (e.g. Anti-Paladin).
My question is: why? Why was it designed that paladins have to have such a strict alignment? It seems to me that it unnecessarily pigeonholes the character types and doesn't make sense in D&D world. After all, couldn't evil deities have (un)holy warriors?
I also don't understand the mechanical decision about why was it designed that an evil Paladin has to be a different class. Wouldn't this create a problem if you wanted to redeem an evil Paladin into a good one? This never really made sense to me until 4e where they just dropped the Lawful Good restriction entirely and let you have a Paladin of Vecna (or have that Paladin of Vecna become a redeemed Paladin of Pelor without having to switch classes).
I'm especially interested if the D&D designers ever wrote anything about their decision to make it this way.
I'm mostly looking for an answer on **why the rules were designed this way**, not reasons for why non-Lawful Good paladins can't exist in the rules as they have been written by the designers. | 2013/04/11 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/24646",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/7373/"
] | Since Gary Gygax was the original "designer" let's look at what inspired his version and hence D&D's version of the Paladin.
This is from a Collection of "[Sources for D&D](http://www.hahnlibrary.net/rpgs/sources.html)" that was compiled by Aardy R. DeVarque, who draws his source directly from the original 1st edition *Dungeon Masters Guide*.
>
> **Paladin Class**
>
>
> Based largely on the character of Holger Carlson from Poul Anderson's *Three Hearts and Three Lions*, as well as Anderson's original sources, Charlemagne's paladins in the medieval French chansons de geste ("songs of deeds"), particularly *The Song of Roland* and Ariosto's *Orlando Furioso*. The paladin's tie to a special war-horse is also from *Three Hearts and Three Lions*.
>
>
>
> >
> > I do not mean a saint, but a warrior whom God gave more than common gifts and then put under a more than common burden. —Martinus, *Three Hearts and Three Lions*
> >
> >
> >
>
>
>
So a lot of what the Paladin class is, seems to come from *Three Hearts and Three Lions*.
The main protagonist of the novel plays a crucial role in an epic struggle between Law and Chaos (this is also where the D&D alignment system came from). In the book, law and order are represented by Christianity, which was also considered a beacon of hope. This is, I think, the basis for the Lawful Good requirement and code of conduct that Gygax attached to the paladin class. | Short answer: they didn't originally have to be Lawful *Good*
-------------------------------------------------------------
The original Paladin as published in Greyhawk was aligned as Lawful. Full Stop.
(This is a very *minor* frame challenge).
The alignment matrix in *Men and Magic* (TSR, 1974, Gygax Arneson, p. 9) showed three:
Lawful, Neutral, Chaotic. That's it.
The two-axis system was first shown in a Strategic Review article (SR #6, Feb 1976) then in the Holmes "Basic D&D" before AD&D hit the streets but after the original Paladin was published.
*Greyhawk* (TSR, 1974, Gygax/Kuntz, p. 8) says this about Paladins:
>
> Charisma scores of 17 or greater by fighters indicate the possibility
> of paladin status IF THEY ARE LAWFUL from the commencement of play for
> that character. If such fighters elect to they can then become
> paladins, **always doing lawful deeds**, for **any chaotic act** will
> immediately revoke the status of paladin, and it can never be
> regained. The paladin has a number of very powerful aids in his
> continual seeking for good: He can "lay on his hands" to cure wounds
> or diseases in others (two points of damage for every level the
> paladin has attained, one disease per five levels, either function
> performable but one per day). Paladins are not themselves subject to
> disease. They have a 10% higher saving throw against all forms of
> attack (excluding melee). Paladins of 8th level and above dispel evil
> (spells, undead, evil enchanted monsters, and the like) simply by
> ordering it hence, and they detect all evil at a range of 6". Paladins
> with any form of "Holy Sword" are virtually immune to all magic (see
> MONSTERS & TREASURE, MAGIC & TREASURE, Swords)
>
>
>
I bolded the "lawful deeds" and "any chaotic act" but the rest is original emphasis by the author.
In Play: we were a typical adventurer party in a large group in the late 1970's, and had a paladin who was lawful, and who in play was pretty much an example of the lawful good you'd see in AD&D 1e requirements by his own choice to play the knight in shining armor. We ran into paladin NPCs led by a Lawful cleric (but in our eyes, not quite particularly pleasant and for sure not good from our PoV) who came to our town and laid the law down on us, the adventurers. My druid in particular was cited as being an undesirable, since I was a heretical Neutral nature cleric. Our Paladin was criticized for associating with us. (We have a few thieves and a few multiclass X-thiff characters).
*Lawful* was the overriding consideration: that alignment restriction (which carried over into the Lawful Good later) was *a cost for the benefits of the class*. You could not just choose to be a Paladin: you had to qualify for it, and you had restrictions (also mentioned in *Greyhawk*) (1) on treasure and (2) the number of followers you could attract and of course (3) you can't change alignment.
### Lawful Good happened originally in ***Advanced*** Dungeons and Dragons, 1e
Note that it says, in the original version of the class, that the paladin "is seeking for good." That germ of an idea that Lawful and Good would be married up came to fruition in the AD&D 1e PHB. The stat requirements also increased: Strength 12, Wisdom 13, Constitution 9, Intelligence 9: these were minimums along with a 17 Charisma (rolled up) or you could not qualify for this Lawful Good Paladin sub class of Fighting Man/Fighter.
While the citation of *Three Hearts and Three Lions* [from the accepted answer](https://rpg.stackexchange.com/a/24647/22566) shows some valid sourcing (no real disagreement) there were additional inspirations that can be seen in the selected entries for the AD&D 1e Gods, Demigods, and Heroes section covering the *Arthurian Legends*. Galahad and Lancelot figure prominently. If you look at the original Paladin from Greyhawk: the Paladin's laying on of hands can be traced in mythology and literature to be a reflection of Mallory's *Morte d'Artur* scene where Lancelot revives a knight he has slain. This makes a vivid impression on Queen Guinevere.
Other literary inspiration for the *knights in shining armor* trope can be found in OD&D and AD&D 1e inspirational reading lists offered by the author. There is [a nice summary here in an interview with Mike Mearls](https://amazingstories.com/2013/03/interview-with-a-wizard-mike-mearls/) where he discusses the roots of D&D in terms of short stories, novels, Moorcock's conception of Law vs Chaos, and more. One of the more interesting tidbits one gleans from the interview with Dave Arneson is that his favorite class to play, in terms of challenge, was the Paladin, but how much input he had in that class, and its final form, may be lost to the ages. |
24,646 | In every edition of D&D before 4e, Paladins are required to be Lawful Good. If they stray from that, they are completely stripped of their powers. This means that evil deities can't grant powers to paladins or if they do, they go into a new class (e.g. Anti-Paladin).
My question is: why? Why was it designed that paladins have to have such a strict alignment? It seems to me that it unnecessarily pigeonholes the character types and doesn't make sense in D&D world. After all, couldn't evil deities have (un)holy warriors?
I also don't understand the mechanical decision about why was it designed that an evil Paladin has to be a different class. Wouldn't this create a problem if you wanted to redeem an evil Paladin into a good one? This never really made sense to me until 4e where they just dropped the Lawful Good restriction entirely and let you have a Paladin of Vecna (or have that Paladin of Vecna become a redeemed Paladin of Pelor without having to switch classes).
I'm especially interested if the D&D designers ever wrote anything about their decision to make it this way.
I'm mostly looking for an answer on **why the rules were designed this way**, not reasons for why non-Lawful Good paladins can't exist in the rules as they have been written by the designers. | 2013/04/11 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/24646",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/7373/"
] | In 2E (and maybe 1E - not sure, I don't have the books handy at the moment), the Paladin is specifically a specialist Fighter, much like how the Druid was an "example" of a specialist Cleric.
The paladin is also less defined by his religion (not just a holy warrior) and his alignment, and more defined by his required code of conduct. Alignment is a guideline - any other Lawful Good character can bend the rules from time to time, but the paladin's code of conduct is a hard and fast rule - he breaks it, he's no longer a paladin.
The design decision was less "hey lets make a holy warrior, and only the good guys would have those" and more of a "lets create a class based on this example of the knight in shining armor, with an uncompromising dedication to the ideals of good". | From a gaming perspective, I see two points in favor of the initial alignment restriction :
* consistency with existing stereotypes : assassins are evil, paladins
are ultimately good, and so on. So that was not shocking for players
* Paladins was the most powerfull class available. Alignment restriction was a good way to prevent abuses and make is also somewhat not easy to play. Playing an overtly evil is less restrictive and may have cause trouble all the time, in my opinion. |
24,646 | In every edition of D&D before 4e, Paladins are required to be Lawful Good. If they stray from that, they are completely stripped of their powers. This means that evil deities can't grant powers to paladins or if they do, they go into a new class (e.g. Anti-Paladin).
My question is: why? Why was it designed that paladins have to have such a strict alignment? It seems to me that it unnecessarily pigeonholes the character types and doesn't make sense in D&D world. After all, couldn't evil deities have (un)holy warriors?
I also don't understand the mechanical decision about why was it designed that an evil Paladin has to be a different class. Wouldn't this create a problem if you wanted to redeem an evil Paladin into a good one? This never really made sense to me until 4e where they just dropped the Lawful Good restriction entirely and let you have a Paladin of Vecna (or have that Paladin of Vecna become a redeemed Paladin of Pelor without having to switch classes).
I'm especially interested if the D&D designers ever wrote anything about their decision to make it this way.
I'm mostly looking for an answer on **why the rules were designed this way**, not reasons for why non-Lawful Good paladins can't exist in the rules as they have been written by the designers. | 2013/04/11 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/24646",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/7373/"
] | In 2E (and maybe 1E - not sure, I don't have the books handy at the moment), the Paladin is specifically a specialist Fighter, much like how the Druid was an "example" of a specialist Cleric.
The paladin is also less defined by his religion (not just a holy warrior) and his alignment, and more defined by his required code of conduct. Alignment is a guideline - any other Lawful Good character can bend the rules from time to time, but the paladin's code of conduct is a hard and fast rule - he breaks it, he's no longer a paladin.
The design decision was less "hey lets make a holy warrior, and only the good guys would have those" and more of a "lets create a class based on this example of the knight in shining armor, with an uncompromising dedication to the ideals of good". | Short answer: they didn't originally have to be Lawful *Good*
-------------------------------------------------------------
The original Paladin as published in Greyhawk was aligned as Lawful. Full Stop.
(This is a very *minor* frame challenge).
The alignment matrix in *Men and Magic* (TSR, 1974, Gygax Arneson, p. 9) showed three:
Lawful, Neutral, Chaotic. That's it.
The two-axis system was first shown in a Strategic Review article (SR #6, Feb 1976) then in the Holmes "Basic D&D" before AD&D hit the streets but after the original Paladin was published.
*Greyhawk* (TSR, 1974, Gygax/Kuntz, p. 8) says this about Paladins:
>
> Charisma scores of 17 or greater by fighters indicate the possibility
> of paladin status IF THEY ARE LAWFUL from the commencement of play for
> that character. If such fighters elect to they can then become
> paladins, **always doing lawful deeds**, for **any chaotic act** will
> immediately revoke the status of paladin, and it can never be
> regained. The paladin has a number of very powerful aids in his
> continual seeking for good: He can "lay on his hands" to cure wounds
> or diseases in others (two points of damage for every level the
> paladin has attained, one disease per five levels, either function
> performable but one per day). Paladins are not themselves subject to
> disease. They have a 10% higher saving throw against all forms of
> attack (excluding melee). Paladins of 8th level and above dispel evil
> (spells, undead, evil enchanted monsters, and the like) simply by
> ordering it hence, and they detect all evil at a range of 6". Paladins
> with any form of "Holy Sword" are virtually immune to all magic (see
> MONSTERS & TREASURE, MAGIC & TREASURE, Swords)
>
>
>
I bolded the "lawful deeds" and "any chaotic act" but the rest is original emphasis by the author.
In Play: we were a typical adventurer party in a large group in the late 1970's, and had a paladin who was lawful, and who in play was pretty much an example of the lawful good you'd see in AD&D 1e requirements by his own choice to play the knight in shining armor. We ran into paladin NPCs led by a Lawful cleric (but in our eyes, not quite particularly pleasant and for sure not good from our PoV) who came to our town and laid the law down on us, the adventurers. My druid in particular was cited as being an undesirable, since I was a heretical Neutral nature cleric. Our Paladin was criticized for associating with us. (We have a few thieves and a few multiclass X-thiff characters).
*Lawful* was the overriding consideration: that alignment restriction (which carried over into the Lawful Good later) was *a cost for the benefits of the class*. You could not just choose to be a Paladin: you had to qualify for it, and you had restrictions (also mentioned in *Greyhawk*) (1) on treasure and (2) the number of followers you could attract and of course (3) you can't change alignment.
### Lawful Good happened originally in ***Advanced*** Dungeons and Dragons, 1e
Note that it says, in the original version of the class, that the paladin "is seeking for good." That germ of an idea that Lawful and Good would be married up came to fruition in the AD&D 1e PHB. The stat requirements also increased: Strength 12, Wisdom 13, Constitution 9, Intelligence 9: these were minimums along with a 17 Charisma (rolled up) or you could not qualify for this Lawful Good Paladin sub class of Fighting Man/Fighter.
While the citation of *Three Hearts and Three Lions* [from the accepted answer](https://rpg.stackexchange.com/a/24647/22566) shows some valid sourcing (no real disagreement) there were additional inspirations that can be seen in the selected entries for the AD&D 1e Gods, Demigods, and Heroes section covering the *Arthurian Legends*. Galahad and Lancelot figure prominently. If you look at the original Paladin from Greyhawk: the Paladin's laying on of hands can be traced in mythology and literature to be a reflection of Mallory's *Morte d'Artur* scene where Lancelot revives a knight he has slain. This makes a vivid impression on Queen Guinevere.
Other literary inspiration for the *knights in shining armor* trope can be found in OD&D and AD&D 1e inspirational reading lists offered by the author. There is [a nice summary here in an interview with Mike Mearls](https://amazingstories.com/2013/03/interview-with-a-wizard-mike-mearls/) where he discusses the roots of D&D in terms of short stories, novels, Moorcock's conception of Law vs Chaos, and more. One of the more interesting tidbits one gleans from the interview with Dave Arneson is that his favorite class to play, in terms of challenge, was the Paladin, but how much input he had in that class, and its final form, may be lost to the ages. |
82,582 | I'm a student + working from home (coding - not internship). I'm supposed to count hours I've worked on the projects, but then I'm still somewhat new to my job and 2/3 of the time I spend working is basically just learning, reading, testing new technologies and such - every week I'm working is basically 3 days of learning and 2 days of actual work, still mixed with a lot of googling.
While I'm fine with reporting hours, it seems unethical that I'm getting paid to basically read books and docs for 20 hours a week, whereas an experienced programmer would do my job in a few weeks (down from months) without most of that.
A lot of what I'm learning isn't domain-specific, so my next job/certain courses I'll have in a few months will greatly benefit from this.
Should I report all the hours I'm working, or limit those hours somehow? | 2017/01/07 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/82582",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/62609/"
] | Report the hours. They have the right to know how long it took you,
If they hired you on the cheap, they got what they paid for. If they had wanted to hire someone experienced, they would have already done it. And paid that someone accordingly. | Learning will be a major part of your time, no matter how experienced you are. There is much, much more to know than a single person could ever know. So hours spent learning towards the goal of performing the task that you need to perform counts as working time. |
82,582 | I'm a student + working from home (coding - not internship). I'm supposed to count hours I've worked on the projects, but then I'm still somewhat new to my job and 2/3 of the time I spend working is basically just learning, reading, testing new technologies and such - every week I'm working is basically 3 days of learning and 2 days of actual work, still mixed with a lot of googling.
While I'm fine with reporting hours, it seems unethical that I'm getting paid to basically read books and docs for 20 hours a week, whereas an experienced programmer would do my job in a few weeks (down from months) without most of that.
A lot of what I'm learning isn't domain-specific, so my next job/certain courses I'll have in a few months will greatly benefit from this.
Should I report all the hours I'm working, or limit those hours somehow? | 2017/01/07 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/82582",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/62609/"
] | Report the hours. They have the right to know how long it took you,
If they hired you on the cheap, they got what they paid for. If they had wanted to hire someone experienced, they would have already done it. And paid that someone accordingly. | Both overreporting and underreporting of hours amount to timesheet fraud. If your company bills a customer for your hours, timesheet fraud can setup them for potential litigation (in both cases).
The case of overreporting is obvious, but there are a couple of reasons why underreporting could cause problems.
* The customer may see your company more favourably for future contracts based on the "lower" billing, but that lower billing is based on false data.
* The false data could also jeopardize your own company's project planning for future projects, which usually takes past project data as a factor. |
82,582 | I'm a student + working from home (coding - not internship). I'm supposed to count hours I've worked on the projects, but then I'm still somewhat new to my job and 2/3 of the time I spend working is basically just learning, reading, testing new technologies and such - every week I'm working is basically 3 days of learning and 2 days of actual work, still mixed with a lot of googling.
While I'm fine with reporting hours, it seems unethical that I'm getting paid to basically read books and docs for 20 hours a week, whereas an experienced programmer would do my job in a few weeks (down from months) without most of that.
A lot of what I'm learning isn't domain-specific, so my next job/certain courses I'll have in a few months will greatly benefit from this.
Should I report all the hours I'm working, or limit those hours somehow? | 2017/01/07 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/82582",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/62609/"
] | Report the hours. They have the right to know how long it took you,
If they hired you on the cheap, they got what they paid for. If they had wanted to hire someone experienced, they would have already done it. And paid that someone accordingly. | It is not a general rule for this, at any level of experience as freelancer or employee that is paid per hour.
To manage this ethical, you must answer one question, in my opinion:
Is it, the task, included in the job requirements or it is at the level of knowledge for that you were hired or they already paid you to learn that?
If it is and you still need to read more, this shouldn't be paid time.
If the answer is no, if they ask you to do something, but this is out of your working zone, it is something more than the level for you are paid, you should report the hours.
Anyway, 2/3 time for studying it is a bold choice, a little too much time. It is important to keep a balance between a solid base that you offer to your clients/ employer and the learning. |
82,582 | I'm a student + working from home (coding - not internship). I'm supposed to count hours I've worked on the projects, but then I'm still somewhat new to my job and 2/3 of the time I spend working is basically just learning, reading, testing new technologies and such - every week I'm working is basically 3 days of learning and 2 days of actual work, still mixed with a lot of googling.
While I'm fine with reporting hours, it seems unethical that I'm getting paid to basically read books and docs for 20 hours a week, whereas an experienced programmer would do my job in a few weeks (down from months) without most of that.
A lot of what I'm learning isn't domain-specific, so my next job/certain courses I'll have in a few months will greatly benefit from this.
Should I report all the hours I'm working, or limit those hours somehow? | 2017/01/07 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/82582",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/62609/"
] | Learning will be a major part of your time, no matter how experienced you are. There is much, much more to know than a single person could ever know. So hours spent learning towards the goal of performing the task that you need to perform counts as working time. | It is not a general rule for this, at any level of experience as freelancer or employee that is paid per hour.
To manage this ethical, you must answer one question, in my opinion:
Is it, the task, included in the job requirements or it is at the level of knowledge for that you were hired or they already paid you to learn that?
If it is and you still need to read more, this shouldn't be paid time.
If the answer is no, if they ask you to do something, but this is out of your working zone, it is something more than the level for you are paid, you should report the hours.
Anyway, 2/3 time for studying it is a bold choice, a little too much time. It is important to keep a balance between a solid base that you offer to your clients/ employer and the learning. |
82,582 | I'm a student + working from home (coding - not internship). I'm supposed to count hours I've worked on the projects, but then I'm still somewhat new to my job and 2/3 of the time I spend working is basically just learning, reading, testing new technologies and such - every week I'm working is basically 3 days of learning and 2 days of actual work, still mixed with a lot of googling.
While I'm fine with reporting hours, it seems unethical that I'm getting paid to basically read books and docs for 20 hours a week, whereas an experienced programmer would do my job in a few weeks (down from months) without most of that.
A lot of what I'm learning isn't domain-specific, so my next job/certain courses I'll have in a few months will greatly benefit from this.
Should I report all the hours I'm working, or limit those hours somehow? | 2017/01/07 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/82582",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/62609/"
] | Both overreporting and underreporting of hours amount to timesheet fraud. If your company bills a customer for your hours, timesheet fraud can setup them for potential litigation (in both cases).
The case of overreporting is obvious, but there are a couple of reasons why underreporting could cause problems.
* The customer may see your company more favourably for future contracts based on the "lower" billing, but that lower billing is based on false data.
* The false data could also jeopardize your own company's project planning for future projects, which usually takes past project data as a factor. | It is not a general rule for this, at any level of experience as freelancer or employee that is paid per hour.
To manage this ethical, you must answer one question, in my opinion:
Is it, the task, included in the job requirements or it is at the level of knowledge for that you were hired or they already paid you to learn that?
If it is and you still need to read more, this shouldn't be paid time.
If the answer is no, if they ask you to do something, but this is out of your working zone, it is something more than the level for you are paid, you should report the hours.
Anyway, 2/3 time for studying it is a bold choice, a little too much time. It is important to keep a balance between a solid base that you offer to your clients/ employer and the learning. |
8,642,643 | Following reading <http://gbif.blogspot.com/2011/01/setting-up-hadoop-cluster-part-1-manual.html> we want to experiment with mapred.reduce.parallel.copies.
The blog mentions "looking very carefully at the logs". How would we know we've reached the sweet spot? what should we look for? how can we detect that we're over-parallelizing? | 2011/12/27 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/8642643",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/574187/"
] | In order to do that you should basically look for 4 things : CPU, RAM, Disk and Network. If your setup is crossing the threshold of these metrics you can deduce that you are pushing the limits. For example, if you have set the value of "mapred.reduce.parallel.copies" to a value much higher than the number of cores available, you'll end up with too many threads in waiting state, as based on this property Threads will be created to fetch the Map output. In addition to that network might get overwhelmed. Or, if there is too much intermediate output to be shuffled , your job will become slow as you will need disk based shuffle in such a case, which will be slower than RAM based shuffle. Choose a wise value for "mapred.job.shuffle.input.buffer.percent" based on your RAM(defaults to 70% of Reducer heap, which is normally good). So, these are kinda things which will tell you whether you are over-parallelizing or not. There are a lot of other things as well which you should consider. I would recommend you to go through the Chapter 6 of "Hadoop Definitve Guide".
Some of the measures which you could take, in order to make your jobs efficient, are like using a combiner to limit the data transfer, enable intermediate compression etc.
HTH
P.S : The answer is not very specific to just "mapred.reduce.parallel.copies". It tells you about tuning your job in general. Actually speaking setting only this property is not gonna help you much. You should consider other important properties as well. | Reaching the "sweet spot" is really just finding the parameters that give you the best result for whichever metric you consider the most important, usually overall job time. To figure out what parameters are working I would suggest using the following profiling tools that Hadoop comes with, MrBench, TestDFSIO, and NNBench. These are found in the hadoop-mapreduce-client-jobclient-\*.jar.
By running this command you will see a long list of benchmark programs that you can use besides the ones I mentioned above.
>
> hadoop ./share/hadoop/mapreduce/hadoop-mapreduce-client-jobclient-\*.jar
>
>
>
I would suggest running with the default parameters, run tests to give baseline benchmarks, then changing one parameter and rerunning. A bit time consuming but worth it, especially if you use a script to change parameters and run the benchmarks. |
389,913 | I need to connect to Linux computers from remote. I am using LogMeIn for windows PCs. But it doesn't have client for Linux boxes.
I have tried Team Viewer, but seems very heavy.
Is there any other solution for this?? | 2012/05/17 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/389913",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/69155/"
] | One of the VNC client variants would be a good choice. There are several forks, I use TightVNC but YMMV. | Either try using vnc (x11vnc or something) if you need the whole desktop, or ssh with X forwarding (ssh -X) to forward just one window/app. |
389,913 | I need to connect to Linux computers from remote. I am using LogMeIn for windows PCs. But it doesn't have client for Linux boxes.
I have tried Team Viewer, but seems very heavy.
Is there any other solution for this?? | 2012/05/17 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/389913",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/69155/"
] | One of the VNC client variants would be a good choice. There are several forks, I use TightVNC but YMMV. | NoMachine (NX Free Edition in 3.5.0) for Linux will let you access Linux boxes. On your local desktop you'll need to install their client: NoMachine Player (NX Client 3.5.0). They also just released NoMachine for remote access to Windows PCs and Macs. |
389,913 | I need to connect to Linux computers from remote. I am using LogMeIn for windows PCs. But it doesn't have client for Linux boxes.
I have tried Team Viewer, but seems very heavy.
Is there any other solution for this?? | 2012/05/17 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/389913",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/69155/"
] | NoMachine (NX Free Edition in 3.5.0) for Linux will let you access Linux boxes. On your local desktop you'll need to install their client: NoMachine Player (NX Client 3.5.0). They also just released NoMachine for remote access to Windows PCs and Macs. | Either try using vnc (x11vnc or something) if you need the whole desktop, or ssh with X forwarding (ssh -X) to forward just one window/app. |
1,264 | What makes [this question](https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/16375/why-did-allah-encourage-people-to-come-to-the-prophet-pbuh-so-that-he-would-pl) to be considered as an attempt to a polemic question?
This question is based on Quran 's verse,and user wants its tafseer.
So,what is the problem with it? | 2014/07/23 | [
"https://islam.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/1264",
"https://islam.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://islam.meta.stackexchange.com/users/4161/"
] | Ok,I assume that the part which you mentioned,leading toward a particular answer.But I can't understand what is the problem with it?!
All users have authority of accepting or denying.they can be agree with him or be disagree,so they can answer this question based on their opinion and their evidences.every body who isn't agree with this conclusion,can explain his/her opinion with evidence in his/her answer and by this answer he/she can guide the questioner,too.it is the same for a person who is agree with it.
Furthermore,the Questioner actually comes across a verse and then some questions springs to mind,His research leads him to intercession issue,but after that,he asks the question to make sure if he is right. He puts forward the question in order to avoid drawing conclusions which are against Islamic teachings..He didn't answer the question,But ask a question about this issue...
On the other hand,How can we judge about his intention?!
Also,as I see,there isn't any argument about this question,How could you call it a polemic question?!you solved a problem which isn't exist?!
However,I edited the question based on your answer;And in my mind it is really a good question and I support it.
So,considering all this;what is the problem,now?why should it be on hold? | Quite simply, it's the leading question at the end:
>
> **Can we at least draw the conclusion that intercession is not against Islamic teachings?**
>
>
>
The questioner is obviously leading toward a *particular* answer. In bold, no less. This is a hallmark of polemic and apologetic writing; to take a verse or reference, draw a particular conclusion from it, and then frame it in such a way that it appears that only *that* particular conclusion is a reasonable interpretation.
**[THAT IS NOT WHAT THIS SITE IS FOR](https://islam.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/1255/islam-stack-exchange-is-not-for-debates-or-apologetics)**.
The question as phrased does not appear to be a practical answerable question based on an actual problem that the author faces. It just looks like an attempt to get other users to agree with him.
Questions of that sort are not and have never been an appropriate use of this site, and fly against the philosophy of the Stack Exchange model. We as a site are designed to allow *expert users* to get *expert answers* to their *expert question*, *not* for argument, debate, or polemic. |
2,680,387 | I'm trying to reverse engineer how facebook handles their notifications, where when you get a message you get instantly notified via the browser.
I've fiddled with it for a little bit and realized that there is always a pending GET request "listening" if you will to some sort of update from the server. This appears to be some sort of observer pattern. I was just wondering if this pattern was documented somewhere. | 2010/04/21 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2680387",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/207282/"
] | The technique is actually called [Long Polling](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Comet_(programming)#Ajax_with_long_polling). This is one of the popular [Comet](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Comet_(programming)) techniques to get around the limitations of traditional polling.
You may want to check out the following Stack Overflow post for a very simple example:
* [Simple “Long Polling” example code?](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/333664/simple-long-polling-example-code)
---
**UPDATE:**
In addition to the above, I suggest that you check out the accepted answer to the following Stack Overflow post for a detailed description of the technique:
* [How does facebook, gmail send the real time notification?](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/1086380/how-does-facebook-gmail-send-the-real-time-notification) | The technique is called Comet, aka 'server push'
There are currently 2 main ways of implementing comet.
1) As Daniel mentioned, long-polling, where you can use ajax to leave a hanging request to the browser that doesn't send the response back until the server decides to (whether it be based on someone else's actions or another server event).
2) The second approach, used by Google, is streaming. This involvs using ajax to leave a hanging request, but the response is never sent back to you, ever. Instead, the server updates bits of data and you use javascript to monitor changes, and fire events based on new data being pushed in. What happens is you get one very long continuous stream of data flowing in on a document that never closes, taking new data as it comes in.
HTML5 has a specification for a simpler way to do this with Web-Sockets. In the future, this type of live web-app will become commonplace as Web-Sockets are easy to use, but it is not supported on all browsers yet.
If you want to build a Comet site for production, you'll need to use a non-blocking I/O async server like one of the following.
<http://www.tornadoweb.org/> - python
<http://nodejs.org/> - server side javascript
-- or google for comet servers.
You'll need to know how to program for comet type apps on the server-side, as the javascript for Comet is pretty trivial, just your normal ajax calls with a couple event handlers. |
9,960,087 | i am trying to compare just 2 faces and get their likeness - score of how much do they match.
I searching internet for solution but I can only find face recognition against set of training images, I cant find if someone has perform research about this problem - I have 2 unknow faces and I wanna find out if its the same person or not.
Can you give me any clue, resources anything what could help me?
If there is any implementation, it would be great if its - C#, C++
I trying to use openCV- detect faces, recognize faces against some database(get eigen distance) and compare euklidean distances, but I am receiving bad results.(Maybe my approach is wrong and I dont fully understand eigenfaces and euklid distances )
Thanks a lot! | 2012/03/31 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/9960087",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/613299/"
] | First, be warned that this is far from a solved problem. In fact it's a relatively area of research in computer vision. Please have a look at the [Labeled Faces in the Wild dataset](http://vis-www.cs.umass.edu/lfw/) , which uses precisely the task you're talking about, comparing two faces. Of particular interest for you is the [results section](http://vis-www.cs.umass.edu/lfw/results.html), which has reports for which algorithms (and the respective papers) work best.
However, it seems all this may be rather advanced. It seems you may not be too familiar with machine learning and/or computer vision, in which case you might want to look at textbooks in these areas.
Either way, the basic thing is this: You don't want to use pixels to compare faces because they change so much with lighting and pose. (You should try it!) So you have to transform pixels in a way that makes faces from the same person similar and faces from different people dissimilar. This is feature extraction, and it is arguably the hardest and most important part of face recognition. How do you know which is the best way to transform them? That's where the training datasets come in. So for example if you use eigenfaces (which should have quite poor performance by the way), you use the training data to get the eigenvectors that best represent this data. Then, two compare two faces you project each face onto the eigenvectors, and use euclidean distance. (This is the same as using Mahalonobis distance). | It seems that what you intend to do is find similarity between the two faces. OpenCV provides basic template matching functionality between two images. [Here](http://dasl.mem.drexel.edu/~noahKuntz/openCVTut6.html#Step%202)'s a nice explanation and full-fledged C code for doing that.
As explained there, the output of the matching for each point in the images is stored. Getting the match from there is shown in [this](http://www.aishack.in/2010/01/template-matching/) tutorial, including the various normalizations used.
Also came across this [link](http://opencv.willowgarage.com/wiki/FastMatchTemplate) on fast template matching using the later C++ interface, but haven't used it personally.
If your faces are mug-shots only, with little variation in rotation, perspective etc. then this basic approach should be sufficient for your needs. |
6,563,639 | In my application (C#) i have lots of const messages which are get printed to the log, presented to the user, etc.
This const messages are not suppose to change so there is no point putting them in an external file or DB.
My solution is very simple - I am thinking about creating a static class and naming it ConstMessages. This class will simply hold lots of public const string variables which can be accessed from anywhere in the application.
Can you please suggest if there anything wrong with that method and if there are better ways?
Thanks! | 2011/07/03 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/6563639",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/795859/"
] | I would use readonly instead of const to get over versioning issues. | That's usually OK for simple applications - another option is a RESX file if you think there is a possibility the application will ever need to be localized / support more than one language. |
6,563,639 | In my application (C#) i have lots of const messages which are get printed to the log, presented to the user, etc.
This const messages are not suppose to change so there is no point putting them in an external file or DB.
My solution is very simple - I am thinking about creating a static class and naming it ConstMessages. This class will simply hold lots of public const string variables which can be accessed from anywhere in the application.
Can you please suggest if there anything wrong with that method and if there are better ways?
Thanks! | 2011/07/03 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/6563639",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/795859/"
] | I would use readonly instead of const to get over versioning issues. | I would typically store these as application [Settings](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa730869%28VS.80%29.aspx) or [Resources](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/7k989cfy%28VS.80%29.aspx). |
6,563,639 | In my application (C#) i have lots of const messages which are get printed to the log, presented to the user, etc.
This const messages are not suppose to change so there is no point putting them in an external file or DB.
My solution is very simple - I am thinking about creating a static class and naming it ConstMessages. This class will simply hold lots of public const string variables which can be accessed from anywhere in the application.
Can you please suggest if there anything wrong with that method and if there are better ways?
Thanks! | 2011/07/03 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/6563639",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/795859/"
] | That's usually OK for simple applications - another option is a RESX file if you think there is a possibility the application will ever need to be localized / support more than one language. | I would typically store these as application [Settings](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa730869%28VS.80%29.aspx) or [Resources](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/7k989cfy%28VS.80%29.aspx). |
5,728,588 | I have few plugins installed in Visual Studio 2008. Is there a way to disable a few of them without uninstalling the specific plugin? I am looking for something visual i.e I dont want to edit the command line used to start Visual Stuio | 2011/04/20 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5728588",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/320092/"
] | Try disabling Add-ins (e.g. “Tools” | “Add-in Manager”) or run “devenv.exe /SafeMode”.This can eliminate the possibility that third party Add-ins or packages are causing problems. (For more detailed VS command line switches information, see: <http://msdn2.microsoft.com/en-us/library/xee0c8y7.aspx> ) | Yeah...of course there is...Just go to Tools menu and select Add-in Manager, then uncheck the addins you don't want to run. You can also remove the check in Startup column to disable the adding when you start Visual Studio. You can always enable them again from Add-in Manager. |
613,289 | I have an IPhone game app idea that will use Google Maps and was wondering if I could charge for a app that used Google Maps? This will be like a mashup. | 2009/03/05 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/613289",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/44160/"
] | DataMapper, the default ORM for Merb (written in Ruby), might help. Take a look at an experimental [DataMapper adapter for Tokyo-Cabinet](http://github.com/makoto/dm-tokyo-cabinet-adapter/tree/master). DataMapper's already got SQLite3 support so you may be able to compare the two. | I don't know for sure, but since [Carbonado](http://carbonado.sourceforge.net/) supports RDBMSs (Oracle) and "persisted b-trees" (BDB), it could definitely support both. |
28,752,094 | I've been making some tweaks as well as adding finishing touches to an app I've been working on. I just noticed my computer started to load very slowly when compiling the app. after several screen crashes and freezes I decided to reboot in a various number of ways. <http://www.macworld.com/article/2018853/when-good-macs-go-bad-steps-to-take-when-your-mac-wont-start-up.html>
Thankfully I still have all my files and multiple Xcode snapshots for me to use. I don't have a flash drive on me and was wondering what would be the best online service to store my app for the time being?
I know this might be a tad unrelated but I feel this is an important topic and if anyone has any suggestions about which service to use for this task, I'd love to hear it ...ie Google drive , Dropbox, etc...I'm a noob with these services | 2015/02/26 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/28752094",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/4577846/"
] | You can use bitbucket.com, it's free for small projects. | Github is the best repository, it allows you to backup your project,
you can clone it anywhere at any system.
And you can update your project as well.
Along with this, You can make it private.
<http://git-scm.com/docs>
There is another option if you don't want this to be some console
there is an iCloud drive available in Favourites, that is located in left side of any Finder Folder. |
176,152 | I am prepping my concrete floors for epoxy. After removing whatever I can do mechanically with a grinder and cup brush, I was going to soak it in muriatic acid.
I did something similar to my exposed brick walls and the effects were fantastic, thar thing does clean. But I remember that I neutralized the ph factor with baking soda in water solution. Is this the right approach with concrete floors as well or should I use something else? If yes, about which ratio of baking soda vs water should I use? | 2019/10/09 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/176152",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/9354/"
] | I have rinsed with clear water and a large rubber squeegee 3 times. On the inside basements I cleaned I made a u shaped dam slightly wider than my squeegee, I set my shop vac to suck the water as I pushed it in, it really worked better than I thought it would, I used some scrap angle iron but I bet some 2x4 scraps would work.
On the basement I may have rinsed it 4 times.
But on all the garages I spray & squeegee 3 times. This probably depends on the strength you used. I usually use ~15% depending on how bad the floor is. Baking soda will neutralize the acid but still need to rinsed. The reaction actually dose change the ph but not totally, I started using 3 rinse cycles after working with acid processing equipment (3 rinses is what they required). | concrete's is naturally alkaline washing with water should suffice, but if you want to hit it with quicklime or baking soda that's not going to do any harm. |
87,268 | There are many variants of the [flight altitude record](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Flight_altitude_record). The highest on the list is [SpaceShipOne](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/SpaceShipOne) but rocketry isn't really "flight" in the sense of aerodynamic lift. What is the highest altitude for which:
1. The flight at a reasonably constant speed and altitude "straight and level". It is not in free-fall, so the "cabin" feels about 1g.
2. It is "heavier-than-air" and supported by lift rather than buoyancy. The engine thrust's vertical component is much less than the weight of the aircraft, so the wings or lifting body have to support the craft.
3. The speed is slow enough that centrifugal effects are negligible (i.e. it is not in orbit). This is the case below about 2.5 km/s (about mach 8).
The highest on the list that may qualify is in a [Mikoyan-Gurevich MiG-25](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mikoyan-Gurevich_MiG-25) at about 36000 meters. However, it is not clear if this was at the top of a parabolic arc initiated at a lower altitude. The highest (including unmanned) that surely fulfills the above requirements is the Helios HP01 at almost 30000 meters. **Edit:** this number isn't reliable or believable.
[Helios HP01](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/AeroVironment_Helios_Prototype), although very light, is a very low-power craft that only uses propellers. One would think (sc)ramjet-powered craft would win due to the high speeds needed to generate lift in such extremely rarefied air. Is this the case? | 2021/05/23 | [
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/87268",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/users/46973/"
] | As of writing this, the official (as verified by [FAI](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/F%C3%A9d%C3%A9ration_A%C3%A9ronautique_Internationale)) **"altitude in horizontal flight"** category record goes to the [SR-71](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lockheed_SR-71_Blackbird) on [28 Jul 1976](https://www.fai.org/record/3496) at an altitude of 25 929 m (85 069 ft).
Second place is 24 463 m (80 259 ft) in a [YF-12A](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lockheed_YF-12), and third place is 22 670 m (74 377 ft) in a E-166 (modified [Ye-152](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mikoyan-Gurevich_Ye-150_family)).
---
For more: [www.fai.org](https://www.fai.org/records?f%5B0%5D=field_type_of_record%3A216&record=&order=field_performance&sort=asc&page=2) | Ymb1 mentioned the highest *verified* horizontal flights. Adding to their answer however, the following planes reportedly went higher:
* Brian Carroll said he flew an [English Electric Lightning](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/English_Electric_Lightning) to **87,300 ft (26.6 km)** MSL. From his description it seems it wasn't a zoom climb but an aerodynamic/horizontal flight:
"I once had an F-53 Lightning up to 87,300 feet over Saudi and it was really on a knife edge. Both engines remained alight, but were very touchy, and getting down to a more reasonable and sane altitude needed delicate handling. Earth curvature was visible and the sky was quite dark." [Source](http://www.lightning.org.uk/jul03sotm.html)
* The unmanned solar-driven propeller plane [AeroVironment/NASA Helios](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/AeroVironment_Helios_Prototype) reportedly achieved a peak altitude of **96,863 ft (29,523 m)** MSL and spent more than 40 minutes above 96,000 feet. Since the Helios didn't shoot any images at its alleged peak altitude and having a maximum speed of 23.5 kts, these altitudes sound unbelievable, especially for a propeller plane.
* The unmanned scramjet [NASA X-43A](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/NASA_X-43) is said to have flown around **110,000 ft (33.5 km)** MSL at almost Mach 10. Hence those would be the current horizontal altitude and airspeed records for a non-rocket airplane. |
87,268 | There are many variants of the [flight altitude record](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Flight_altitude_record). The highest on the list is [SpaceShipOne](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/SpaceShipOne) but rocketry isn't really "flight" in the sense of aerodynamic lift. What is the highest altitude for which:
1. The flight at a reasonably constant speed and altitude "straight and level". It is not in free-fall, so the "cabin" feels about 1g.
2. It is "heavier-than-air" and supported by lift rather than buoyancy. The engine thrust's vertical component is much less than the weight of the aircraft, so the wings or lifting body have to support the craft.
3. The speed is slow enough that centrifugal effects are negligible (i.e. it is not in orbit). This is the case below about 2.5 km/s (about mach 8).
The highest on the list that may qualify is in a [Mikoyan-Gurevich MiG-25](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mikoyan-Gurevich_MiG-25) at about 36000 meters. However, it is not clear if this was at the top of a parabolic arc initiated at a lower altitude. The highest (including unmanned) that surely fulfills the above requirements is the Helios HP01 at almost 30000 meters. **Edit:** this number isn't reliable or believable.
[Helios HP01](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/AeroVironment_Helios_Prototype), although very light, is a very low-power craft that only uses propellers. One would think (sc)ramjet-powered craft would win due to the high speeds needed to generate lift in such extremely rarefied air. Is this the case? | 2021/05/23 | [
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/87268",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/users/46973/"
] | As of writing this, the official (as verified by [FAI](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/F%C3%A9d%C3%A9ration_A%C3%A9ronautique_Internationale)) **"altitude in horizontal flight"** category record goes to the [SR-71](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lockheed_SR-71_Blackbird) on [28 Jul 1976](https://www.fai.org/record/3496) at an altitude of 25 929 m (85 069 ft).
Second place is 24 463 m (80 259 ft) in a [YF-12A](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lockheed_YF-12), and third place is 22 670 m (74 377 ft) in a E-166 (modified [Ye-152](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mikoyan-Gurevich_Ye-150_family)).
---
For more: [www.fai.org](https://www.fai.org/records?f%5B0%5D=field_type_of_record%3A216&record=&order=field_performance&sort=asc&page=2) | As far as one can trust NASA to be a reputable source, an A-12 registration 60-6932 operated by CIA flew at 90000ft on 14 August 1965.
There are unofficial accounts that the altitude record of A-12 is actually 94000ft (by A-12 and later SR-71 pilot Ken Collins), but I was unable to verify this. I am inclined to believe this may very well be true, as the 90k is a bit too round and nice of a number, and many of the documents concerning A-12 are still classified or even destroyed, as the Oxcart program was a very sensitive subject in its own time. It was deliberately intensely hushed out as the airforce variant SR-71 took over in late 60's, and as a less secretive and not as "politically incorrect" technological marvel, the "family model" was a perfect posterboy for intelligence supremacy of the U.S. It did not, however, match the performance of the smaller and lighter A-12.
Click [here](https://www.nasa.gov/pdf/736495main_Blackbird_FAQ.pdf) to download the NASA document containing information on the altitude records of the blackbirds (and more). |
87,268 | There are many variants of the [flight altitude record](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Flight_altitude_record). The highest on the list is [SpaceShipOne](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/SpaceShipOne) but rocketry isn't really "flight" in the sense of aerodynamic lift. What is the highest altitude for which:
1. The flight at a reasonably constant speed and altitude "straight and level". It is not in free-fall, so the "cabin" feels about 1g.
2. It is "heavier-than-air" and supported by lift rather than buoyancy. The engine thrust's vertical component is much less than the weight of the aircraft, so the wings or lifting body have to support the craft.
3. The speed is slow enough that centrifugal effects are negligible (i.e. it is not in orbit). This is the case below about 2.5 km/s (about mach 8).
The highest on the list that may qualify is in a [Mikoyan-Gurevich MiG-25](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mikoyan-Gurevich_MiG-25) at about 36000 meters. However, it is not clear if this was at the top of a parabolic arc initiated at a lower altitude. The highest (including unmanned) that surely fulfills the above requirements is the Helios HP01 at almost 30000 meters. **Edit:** this number isn't reliable or believable.
[Helios HP01](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/AeroVironment_Helios_Prototype), although very light, is a very low-power craft that only uses propellers. One would think (sc)ramjet-powered craft would win due to the high speeds needed to generate lift in such extremely rarefied air. Is this the case? | 2021/05/23 | [
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/87268",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/users/46973/"
] | Ymb1 mentioned the highest *verified* horizontal flights. Adding to their answer however, the following planes reportedly went higher:
* Brian Carroll said he flew an [English Electric Lightning](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/English_Electric_Lightning) to **87,300 ft (26.6 km)** MSL. From his description it seems it wasn't a zoom climb but an aerodynamic/horizontal flight:
"I once had an F-53 Lightning up to 87,300 feet over Saudi and it was really on a knife edge. Both engines remained alight, but were very touchy, and getting down to a more reasonable and sane altitude needed delicate handling. Earth curvature was visible and the sky was quite dark." [Source](http://www.lightning.org.uk/jul03sotm.html)
* The unmanned solar-driven propeller plane [AeroVironment/NASA Helios](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/AeroVironment_Helios_Prototype) reportedly achieved a peak altitude of **96,863 ft (29,523 m)** MSL and spent more than 40 minutes above 96,000 feet. Since the Helios didn't shoot any images at its alleged peak altitude and having a maximum speed of 23.5 kts, these altitudes sound unbelievable, especially for a propeller plane.
* The unmanned scramjet [NASA X-43A](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/NASA_X-43) is said to have flown around **110,000 ft (33.5 km)** MSL at almost Mach 10. Hence those would be the current horizontal altitude and airspeed records for a non-rocket airplane. | As far as one can trust NASA to be a reputable source, an A-12 registration 60-6932 operated by CIA flew at 90000ft on 14 August 1965.
There are unofficial accounts that the altitude record of A-12 is actually 94000ft (by A-12 and later SR-71 pilot Ken Collins), but I was unable to verify this. I am inclined to believe this may very well be true, as the 90k is a bit too round and nice of a number, and many of the documents concerning A-12 are still classified or even destroyed, as the Oxcart program was a very sensitive subject in its own time. It was deliberately intensely hushed out as the airforce variant SR-71 took over in late 60's, and as a less secretive and not as "politically incorrect" technological marvel, the "family model" was a perfect posterboy for intelligence supremacy of the U.S. It did not, however, match the performance of the smaller and lighter A-12.
Click [here](https://www.nasa.gov/pdf/736495main_Blackbird_FAQ.pdf) to download the NASA document containing information on the altitude records of the blackbirds (and more). |
32,007 | [This related question](https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/q/31460/28) asks about considerations for Santa's sleigh (particularly weight), but my question is more basic: how do you design a vehicle that satisfies Santa's design requirements, including the very tight schedule, in a way that doesn't turn Santa into a puddle of goo from high-Gs and vaporize the reindeer from wind-speed?
Key design requirements, as I understand them:
* The vehicle must be able to support take-off and landing at the homes of all good children on Earth in a span of roughly 24 hours. (Good children on space colonies are excluded.) We can't afford a long pre-flight check; really, we probably don't even have time to open and close a hatch. (Art never shows a hatch anyway.)
* Without knowing the number and distribution of stops we can only guess at the one-night mileage, but even at conservative estimates... mach-*what*? Gotta support super-high speed.
* It's ok if maintenance and repairs take the next 363 days, but there's not going to be time on delivery night for pit stops and spot-repairs -- the vehicle needs to operate continuously during the delivery run. (Santa would *probably* prefer to be able to do a test-drive tuning check between deployments, however, so less-extensive maintenance is preferred.)
* Santa, a well-padded humanoid, needs to survive the trip without long-term damage. As far as we know it's the same Santa every year.
* The reindeer need to survive the trip. Santa is pretty cagey about the reindeer, though -- who'd know if Blitzen is the same Blitzen as last year? It's ok to assume that Santa runs a breeding program, though protections for the lead reindeer with the light-emitting mutation would be advisable.
* There are no explicit requirements about materials or fuel sources. | 2015/12/22 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/32007",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/28/"
] | Let me introduce you to the concept of legendary matter. Legendary matter is mostly like ordinary matter; indeed, there's a legendary counterpart to each ordinary particle, having basically the same properties. With one exception: Instead of the ordinary charges, they have their own charge fields, the legendary charges. Correspondingly the legendary fields are completely separate from the ordinary fields. This allows legendary matter to freely move around and even through ordinary matter, without ever interacting with it, except through gravitation (that's inevitable).
Now you may wonder why researchers never have found that legendary matter. The answer is: They have; they just don't know. Legendary matter is part of the mysterious dark matter.
Now you may wonder how Santa can then deliver real presents, and how it can be that some people have indeed seen him and his sleight (although the latter is a *very* rare occurrence). Well, what I wrote above is not the whole story: There exist another field, which is able to convert between ordinary and legendary matter. Santa uses the conversion field generator for two purposes:
* Quite obviously, he has to convert the gifts into normal matter when he lays them down under the Christmas tree.
* When he delivers the presents, he of course has to see where he flies; but just as we cannot see legendary matter, anyone made of legendary matter cannot see anything made of normal matter. Thus Santa uses a quite weak conversion field to shift himself and his sleight just a little bit into the ordinary matter regime, not enough that the ordinary matter would hinder his flight, but enough that he could interact with light, and thus see where he would go. A side effect is that he also gets visible to us.
There are also occasions where he temporarily shifts himself completely to ordinary matter; mostly in order to drink some milk and eat some cookies. | Assuming that Santa travels at the speed of light or faster to reach each home this would be problematic. Which with as many starts and stops needed would play heck on whiplash (or corporeal retention!). Even just one acceleration to half the speed of light in say seconds, would likely cause an x-ray burst and the complete disassociation of his particles.
So instead of going ultra fast, Santa plays with time. He makes Christmas/eve 364 days long from his perspective, so his deer can fly at much more reasonable speeds allowing him a little time to snack on cookies and milk between stops, feed the deer and run back to the north pole periodically to get the next batch of presents needing to be delivered. Of course to any observing, it appears that Santa is nothing more than maybe a flash of red out of the corner of the eye. Or maybe a jiggle is heard when the radio is off.
I could also see, Santa actually having several sleighs, Elves filling each one up depending on location to be visited, and when he comes home, hitch the deer up to the next sled and off you go again! Even their each one will have to have space warping abilities, since piling all the gifts for even 1 small town could fill a semi-trailer or two.
Come to think of it, the gift sack is much more likely to be a space warping device, that allows Santa to reach in all the way to the work shop to get the right gift for each, a little 'rift' exists in the sack, kind of like [Nakor and his oranges!](http://midkemia.wikia.com/wiki/Nakor) |
32,007 | [This related question](https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/q/31460/28) asks about considerations for Santa's sleigh (particularly weight), but my question is more basic: how do you design a vehicle that satisfies Santa's design requirements, including the very tight schedule, in a way that doesn't turn Santa into a puddle of goo from high-Gs and vaporize the reindeer from wind-speed?
Key design requirements, as I understand them:
* The vehicle must be able to support take-off and landing at the homes of all good children on Earth in a span of roughly 24 hours. (Good children on space colonies are excluded.) We can't afford a long pre-flight check; really, we probably don't even have time to open and close a hatch. (Art never shows a hatch anyway.)
* Without knowing the number and distribution of stops we can only guess at the one-night mileage, but even at conservative estimates... mach-*what*? Gotta support super-high speed.
* It's ok if maintenance and repairs take the next 363 days, but there's not going to be time on delivery night for pit stops and spot-repairs -- the vehicle needs to operate continuously during the delivery run. (Santa would *probably* prefer to be able to do a test-drive tuning check between deployments, however, so less-extensive maintenance is preferred.)
* Santa, a well-padded humanoid, needs to survive the trip without long-term damage. As far as we know it's the same Santa every year.
* The reindeer need to survive the trip. Santa is pretty cagey about the reindeer, though -- who'd know if Blitzen is the same Blitzen as last year? It's ok to assume that Santa runs a breeding program, though protections for the lead reindeer with the light-emitting mutation would be advisable.
* There are no explicit requirements about materials or fuel sources. | 2015/12/22 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/32007",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/28/"
] | Let me introduce you to the concept of legendary matter. Legendary matter is mostly like ordinary matter; indeed, there's a legendary counterpart to each ordinary particle, having basically the same properties. With one exception: Instead of the ordinary charges, they have their own charge fields, the legendary charges. Correspondingly the legendary fields are completely separate from the ordinary fields. This allows legendary matter to freely move around and even through ordinary matter, without ever interacting with it, except through gravitation (that's inevitable).
Now you may wonder why researchers never have found that legendary matter. The answer is: They have; they just don't know. Legendary matter is part of the mysterious dark matter.
Now you may wonder how Santa can then deliver real presents, and how it can be that some people have indeed seen him and his sleight (although the latter is a *very* rare occurrence). Well, what I wrote above is not the whole story: There exist another field, which is able to convert between ordinary and legendary matter. Santa uses the conversion field generator for two purposes:
* Quite obviously, he has to convert the gifts into normal matter when he lays them down under the Christmas tree.
* When he delivers the presents, he of course has to see where he flies; but just as we cannot see legendary matter, anyone made of legendary matter cannot see anything made of normal matter. Thus Santa uses a quite weak conversion field to shift himself and his sleight just a little bit into the ordinary matter regime, not enough that the ordinary matter would hinder his flight, but enough that he could interact with light, and thus see where he would go. A side effect is that he also gets visible to us.
There are also occasions where he temporarily shifts himself completely to ordinary matter; mostly in order to drink some milk and eat some cookies. | I would expect the technology to consist of a very small self-contained antimatter reactor, with a warp drive similar to the Alcubierre concept or the warp drive from Star Trek. Warp drive operates by moving the space surrounding the vessel so that the vessel is dragged along with it. An extremely fast warp drive could carry the sleigh near every house within a time zone within the hour and then to the next, and presumably there would be no strain on any component of the vehicle. Also, relativity would be a nonissue since the vehicle would remain at negligible speed and within normal space. A rigid system of reins could support the reindeer unharmed, though they'll be nervous unless they've been trained. The reactor could be contained with an energy shield and a spare or several could be carried in the back, and the gifts could be simply constructed with a replicator like in Star Trek and then beamed in with a transporter (also Star Trek.) Advanced holography would leave any tracks and provide something to consume and dispose of the milk and cookies and leave the occasional ashen footprint or sleigh track. Presumably the sleigh itself would be made of some sort of steel or titanium alloy, since if a warp drive is used, weight isn't a concern. |
32,007 | [This related question](https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/q/31460/28) asks about considerations for Santa's sleigh (particularly weight), but my question is more basic: how do you design a vehicle that satisfies Santa's design requirements, including the very tight schedule, in a way that doesn't turn Santa into a puddle of goo from high-Gs and vaporize the reindeer from wind-speed?
Key design requirements, as I understand them:
* The vehicle must be able to support take-off and landing at the homes of all good children on Earth in a span of roughly 24 hours. (Good children on space colonies are excluded.) We can't afford a long pre-flight check; really, we probably don't even have time to open and close a hatch. (Art never shows a hatch anyway.)
* Without knowing the number and distribution of stops we can only guess at the one-night mileage, but even at conservative estimates... mach-*what*? Gotta support super-high speed.
* It's ok if maintenance and repairs take the next 363 days, but there's not going to be time on delivery night for pit stops and spot-repairs -- the vehicle needs to operate continuously during the delivery run. (Santa would *probably* prefer to be able to do a test-drive tuning check between deployments, however, so less-extensive maintenance is preferred.)
* Santa, a well-padded humanoid, needs to survive the trip without long-term damage. As far as we know it's the same Santa every year.
* The reindeer need to survive the trip. Santa is pretty cagey about the reindeer, though -- who'd know if Blitzen is the same Blitzen as last year? It's ok to assume that Santa runs a breeding program, though protections for the lead reindeer with the light-emitting mutation would be advisable.
* There are no explicit requirements about materials or fuel sources. | 2015/12/22 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/32007",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/28/"
] | I would expect the technology to consist of a very small self-contained antimatter reactor, with a warp drive similar to the Alcubierre concept or the warp drive from Star Trek. Warp drive operates by moving the space surrounding the vessel so that the vessel is dragged along with it. An extremely fast warp drive could carry the sleigh near every house within a time zone within the hour and then to the next, and presumably there would be no strain on any component of the vehicle. Also, relativity would be a nonissue since the vehicle would remain at negligible speed and within normal space. A rigid system of reins could support the reindeer unharmed, though they'll be nervous unless they've been trained. The reactor could be contained with an energy shield and a spare or several could be carried in the back, and the gifts could be simply constructed with a replicator like in Star Trek and then beamed in with a transporter (also Star Trek.) Advanced holography would leave any tracks and provide something to consume and dispose of the milk and cookies and leave the occasional ashen footprint or sleigh track. Presumably the sleigh itself would be made of some sort of steel or titanium alloy, since if a warp drive is used, weight isn't a concern. | According to Norad, Santa's sleigh's max speed is "faster than starlight." Additionally, we know that despite being rather aged, he is still athletic and has not died yet.
"Faster than starlight", eh? You know what that means? [Time Travel](http://www.andersoninstitute.com/faster-than-light-travel.html). Backwards to be specific.
So here is how Santa does it. He delivers as many of the presents as he can. Then, at the end of Christmas, he starts going faster than starlight, and go backs and delivers more presents. At the beginning of Christmas, he slows down and starts going forward in time again to deliver presents. He just zips forward and backwards through time. This would take an extremely long time, but given that he can not die from old age and is supplied with free meals of milk and cookies (you can survive on [just milk](http://www.biology-online.org/biology-forum/about1099.html) by the way), he could do it.
Of course, to prevent causal paradoxes, Santa would have to be a logistical and temporal genius. The rest of the year though, he watches literally *everyone* though, so I would not put it beyond his mental capacity.
Really, this is the only possible solution. Why would Santa's sleigh go faster than starlight anyway, if that automatically implies time travel? |
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