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|---|---|---|---|---|---|
16,221 | I am working at the operations department at a large, mostly Windows based, IT solutions company. Personally I am a Mac user, but I mostly use my Mac in "Mac environments".
We have got an inquiry about getting some Macs into the network domain. The main reason for this is authentication (the Mac users are already members of the domain and would like to login with these credentials), and to mount some network drives.
I have not done this before, and would like to know your ideas of the best way to implement these Macs into the domain. We are looking for free, or at least inexpensive, solution for this. I have looked into some of the solutions out there but would appreciate some feedback from someone who have worked with this in a production environment. | 2009/05/31 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/16221",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/6712/"
] | As already mentioned here, joining a Mac to a Windows domain is relatively easy. Moreover, as of 10.5 it can be done entirely from the command line, including *where* to put the computer if you prefer to put it in a non-default location. In fact, I developed just such a script for our engineers to use as a basis for migrating systems over. I found this document to be an incredible supplement to Apple's own documentation: [Leveraging Active Directory on Mac OS X](http://web.mac.com/bombich/Leveraging_AD_on_MOSXS_2.2.pdf.zip)
However, I have not done converted the Macs in my environment because of the problem with user authorization. I find this to be a big problem, but I also work in Security :) There are AD extensions for the OSX attributes so you can get some of the same levels of configuration that you do with Windows in AD. However, your AD environment must be extended to support them.
If you don't mind having unmanaged machines where anybody with credentials can login, then add them. Having centralized authentication is almost always preferred. Unfortunately, for my systems, this limitation was a show stopper.
There is documentation on setting up an OSX Server as a middle-man between your Macs and the AD servers. You run OpenDirectory in what they call โsubordinateโ mode. Supposedly, you can then completely manage the Macs as you would ordinarily, except the authentication is passed along to the AD box. The idea being that you will perform your user authorization at the OD server, and join your Macs to it (while also putting them in the AD kerberos domain). It sounds promising, but as I said, I did not have success getting the authorization to work correctly. The instructions are also in the pdf linked above. | When you say "and to mount some network drives," be aware that Macs cannot access DFS shares without third-party software. AdmitMac claims it works, and it may at this point; when I dealt with it about a year ago DFS access was an unmitigated disaster. |
32,399 | Well the idea started with my colleagues when we decided we should study better (med school).
So we want to create and IRC Trivia bot with medical questions. The archive with the questions will be created by us. The problem is I don't really know how to make a channel and a Trivia bot. If anyone has a little bit of time to explain some of the major steps, I'd appreciate it. | 2009/08/30 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/32399",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/-1/"
] | This might be one of the more easier solutions:
Prerequisite: A windows computer that is always on, to host the Trivia program.
1. Download [mIRC](http://www.mirc.com/) (a Windows client used to connect to IRC)
2. Connect to a random network, maybe best to connect to one with more than one server for redundancy. mIRC comes with a list of networks and servers built in.
3. When you join a channel that is empty, you are basically creating it. As long as you have someone in it at all times (such as the trivia bot in the next step) it remains open.
4. Download the [Tat's Triva Bot](http://www.mircscripts.com/cgi-bin/file.php?id=519) addon for mIRC and run it on the same computer. Preferably, you would need a computer on all the time to ensure other people could always connect and play trivia.
You can edit the trivia questions to your liking. Simply provide the server address and the channel name to anyone who wanted to play along. They would of course need a client installed on their computer in order to connect, such as mIRC mentioned previously.
Alternatively, if you wanted to go down the route of creating your own IRC Network from scratch with your own domain name then it gets a little bit more complicated. | Channels are maintained, on most servers, by ChanServ. You can talk to chanserv by going "/msg Chanserv [text]" (most clients alias /cs to this).
"/cs help" gives basic help, and "/cs help commands" gives a command list. |
19,488 | I've seen many times an icon to represent "random" that looks like this:

But does anyone else feel this icon is awkward?
**I** can understand what it wants to express, but it's just not that straight forward. People have to think about it to really understand what it's referring to.
What would be another alternative to this icon? | 2013/07/13 | [
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/questions/19488",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/users/14029/"
] | I also find the crossed-arrows icon to be awkward. While working on a music app, I needed an icon for a "play random song" action. I considered the crossed arrows but didn't use it because:
1. I just don't find it intuitive - it doesn't express a "random" action to me, and
2. If anything, I associate this kind of icon with a random mode, rather than a random action. That is, there is a sequence of things happening (e.g. songs), and pressing this icon will select a playing mode where every successive song is chosen randomly. I just wanted a one-time random song.
I was browsing wikipedia on my phone and saw their "random article" icon, which is a dice. That seemed perfect for my situation, because it's intuitive, easily represented in an icon, and implies a one-time action initiated by the user.
You can see the icon in situ by going to the mobile Wikipedia site, then opening the sidebar menu via the 3-bars icon in the top left: <http://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Main_Page> - here's a screenshot:

And here you can see the dice icon in my app (I re-created it):

Hope that helps. I'm happy to share the Illustrator file of my version of this icon if you would find it useful. | I was looking for visual representations of randomness for a cover some time ago, and what I found was mostly works of art. I ended up using a generative designed drawing that used randomness. The point is that randomness is an abstract concept that means the lack of [predictability](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Predictability) in many different fields and as such it will avoid any universal representation. You may think about randomness in math, philosophy, physics, biology, astronomy, genetics, religion (!), design, generative architecture, art, etc. Ironically, to be a good metaphor, an icon of randomness should change all the time, paradoxically, and be different depending on the field you want to apply it.
I discovered (or at least this is what I like to believe, in my scientific ignorance) that the two crossing arrows may refer to a concept in physics: the concept of "[arrow of time](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Arrow_of_time)", based on the idea that time is "asymmetric" (or one way direction). This concept involves another one, the "[entropy](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Entropy_%28arrow_of_time%29)", strictly related to randomness. I am a designer, not a mathematician, and I cannot explain this well, but those two arrows crossing should refer to a simplified representation of this lack of predictability which involves time. I guess a Nobel price would tell this a bit better (or more probably laugh about this) or give you some more visual examples: as an example, think about images from "[chaotic systems](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Chaotic_system)"... Like the famous *double rod pendulum*:

Anyway. If you are looking for *conventional* representations of randomness, you will not find any other visual icon: the one you showed in your example is arbitrary and it may look "awkward" from a certain point of view because it is just a convention and does not stick to any particular field. The good thing about that icon is exactly what you may see as its limit: it became a convention and that's it.
Consider also that an icon aims to be a stylization of a concept or its metaphor, specially when representing something totally abstract or conceptually complex.
You are free to create another arbitrary representation though (that will maybe become a new standard one day ;). A good approach, in my opinion, would be to restrict your research to the field you are interested in, by trying to create a closer metaphor of the thing you have in mind or your idea of randomness. |
19,488 | I've seen many times an icon to represent "random" that looks like this:

But does anyone else feel this icon is awkward?
**I** can understand what it wants to express, but it's just not that straight forward. People have to think about it to really understand what it's referring to.
What would be another alternative to this icon? | 2013/07/13 | [
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/questions/19488",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/users/14029/"
] | I also find the crossed-arrows icon to be awkward. While working on a music app, I needed an icon for a "play random song" action. I considered the crossed arrows but didn't use it because:
1. I just don't find it intuitive - it doesn't express a "random" action to me, and
2. If anything, I associate this kind of icon with a random mode, rather than a random action. That is, there is a sequence of things happening (e.g. songs), and pressing this icon will select a playing mode where every successive song is chosen randomly. I just wanted a one-time random song.
I was browsing wikipedia on my phone and saw their "random article" icon, which is a dice. That seemed perfect for my situation, because it's intuitive, easily represented in an icon, and implies a one-time action initiated by the user.
You can see the icon in situ by going to the mobile Wikipedia site, then opening the sidebar menu via the 3-bars icon in the top left: <http://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Main_Page> - here's a screenshot:

And here you can see the dice icon in my app (I re-created it):

Hope that helps. I'm happy to share the Illustrator file of my version of this icon if you would find it useful. | The icon you posted is more of a learned icon that has been ingrained in people through digital mediums.
I agree with you 100% in that I don't think it expresses random. In design, I think this touches on the concept of perceived affordances. As a user, I'm confused with that icon because it doesn't mimic anything I'm aware of in the tangible real world.
The problem, though, is that because the idea of random is an abstract concept, it makes it especially difficult to give someone an understanding of meaning through a symbol. It's very difficult.
One of the things I initially think of is a quote on Chaos Theory -
>
> It has been said that something as small as the flutter of a
> butterfly's wing can ultimately cause a typhoon halfway around the
> world.
>
>
>
I've always thought that was a powerfully evoking image when thinking of the concept of randomness. If I was coming up with something I would probably pursue something along this route.
I quickly mocked something up in Illustrator that I think kind of hits close to what you're going for, but obviously might just be a step in the right direction into what you eventually come up with.
Good Luck!
 |
19,488 | I've seen many times an icon to represent "random" that looks like this:

But does anyone else feel this icon is awkward?
**I** can understand what it wants to express, but it's just not that straight forward. People have to think about it to really understand what it's referring to.
What would be another alternative to this icon? | 2013/07/13 | [
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/questions/19488",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/users/14029/"
] | I also find the crossed-arrows icon to be awkward. While working on a music app, I needed an icon for a "play random song" action. I considered the crossed arrows but didn't use it because:
1. I just don't find it intuitive - it doesn't express a "random" action to me, and
2. If anything, I associate this kind of icon with a random mode, rather than a random action. That is, there is a sequence of things happening (e.g. songs), and pressing this icon will select a playing mode where every successive song is chosen randomly. I just wanted a one-time random song.
I was browsing wikipedia on my phone and saw their "random article" icon, which is a dice. That seemed perfect for my situation, because it's intuitive, easily represented in an icon, and implies a one-time action initiated by the user.
You can see the icon in situ by going to the mobile Wikipedia site, then opening the sidebar menu via the 3-bars icon in the top left: <http://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Main_Page> - here's a screenshot:

And here you can see the dice icon in my app (I re-created it):

Hope that helps. I'm happy to share the Illustrator file of my version of this icon if you would find it useful. | The icon isn't all that awkward if you consider where it's usually used: in a music playlist. You're taking a list of tracks and shuffling them around, making it random. I think the icon represents that quite well. It's *really* abstracted (three shuffled lines might get the point across better, after all, as could using music notes), but it's close enough to create an association and simple enough to work well as an icon and be catchy.
So, while you might be able to completely abstract the concept of 'random' (as has been done with the die solution), a "one-size-fits-all" answer doesn't have to be your answer.
What is your app randomizing? If it's pages in a book, maybe you create an icon that shows page flipping. If it's photos, maybe you have rectangles and arrows somehow. These are quick ideas and icons are *hard* to do well, but I just wanted to throw a couple in to speak to the idea that **a random icon can (and maybe should) be born out of what is being randomized.** |
15,721 | My tenants never turn the lights off in the stairwells of my 3 family house, so I'd like to replace all of the light switches with motion sensors. Here is a crude diagram of how this is set up now.

Each number indicates a 3 way switch. 2 questions:
1. Can I replace each switch with [these sensors](http://rads.stackoverflow.com/amzn/click/B003ZDNMW2)?
2. The #1 switch on the left with the asterisk is in the first floor apartment and I'd like to disable it, so that the first light only comes on from motion in the hallway when a door is opened. How do I take this switch out of the loop? | 2012/07/22 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/15721",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/6862/"
] | You can probably replace the switches with those sensors, but you're going to have to do some creative wiring to work around the fact that they're not 3-way switches, but the switches you're replacing with them are. You'll likely end up with the light being on whenever either of the switches is on. You also might run into trouble if they ran the 3-way switches as a switch loop (no neutral in box), because "smart switches" like these require a neutral so they can use power for themselves to decide when to switch on and off.
Here's what the difference between these wiring schemes looks like if you draw it out:

Also note that those occupancy sensors still have a hard-on switch, so your tenants can still just leave the lights on. You might want to look instead at vacancy sensors. (An example vacancy sensor is [Cooper Wiring Devices K01-400RW-L](http://rads.stackoverflow.com/amzn/click/B000ZOCSX8), but note that it does not handle CFLs, just incandescents.) These, you tap to turn them on, and they turn themselves *off* automatically when everyone's gone. That sounds more like what you want.
The how for switch #1 depends again on how they wired your #1 switches and the light they control together. If you diagram out the connections, it becomes straightforward. Until you have enough info to diagram it out, you don't have enough info to rewire it, either.
As an aside, all the exterior stairwell lights I've seen in apartment complexes were on timers. They'd come on around dark and flip off in the morning. I knew they were timers rather than photosensors because a couple times a year they'd end up slightly out of sync with actual daylight hours, but if these are in fact exterior lights, putting them on a photosensor and disabling the switches entirely might be an option. | At the risk of being a complete ass, you are likely putting way too much effort into a plan that is not likely to work.
You start with, "My tenants never turn the lights off ... ."
This is not an issue of electrical wiring, this is about the tenants behavior.
In trying to help, my question to you is, why do you think your tenants are not going to just turn the sensors into the 'On' position, and leave it there ?
Feel free to just smack me on the nose with a rolled up newspaper.
And I will be happy to help electrical, but technology will not win out over thoughtless people. |
15,721 | My tenants never turn the lights off in the stairwells of my 3 family house, so I'd like to replace all of the light switches with motion sensors. Here is a crude diagram of how this is set up now.

Each number indicates a 3 way switch. 2 questions:
1. Can I replace each switch with [these sensors](http://rads.stackoverflow.com/amzn/click/B003ZDNMW2)?
2. The #1 switch on the left with the asterisk is in the first floor apartment and I'd like to disable it, so that the first light only comes on from motion in the hallway when a door is opened. How do I take this switch out of the loop? | 2012/07/22 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/15721",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/6862/"
] | You can probably replace the switches with those sensors, but you're going to have to do some creative wiring to work around the fact that they're not 3-way switches, but the switches you're replacing with them are. You'll likely end up with the light being on whenever either of the switches is on. You also might run into trouble if they ran the 3-way switches as a switch loop (no neutral in box), because "smart switches" like these require a neutral so they can use power for themselves to decide when to switch on and off.
Here's what the difference between these wiring schemes looks like if you draw it out:

Also note that those occupancy sensors still have a hard-on switch, so your tenants can still just leave the lights on. You might want to look instead at vacancy sensors. (An example vacancy sensor is [Cooper Wiring Devices K01-400RW-L](http://rads.stackoverflow.com/amzn/click/B000ZOCSX8), but note that it does not handle CFLs, just incandescents.) These, you tap to turn them on, and they turn themselves *off* automatically when everyone's gone. That sounds more like what you want.
The how for switch #1 depends again on how they wired your #1 switches and the light they control together. If you diagram out the connections, it becomes straightforward. Until you have enough info to diagram it out, you don't have enough info to rewire it, either.
As an aside, all the exterior stairwell lights I've seen in apartment complexes were on timers. They'd come on around dark and flip off in the morning. I knew they were timers rather than photosensors because a couple times a year they'd end up slightly out of sync with actual daylight hours, but if these are in fact exterior lights, putting them on a photosensor and disabling the switches entirely might be an option. | I have idea. How about we use two motion sensor to replace these two switches? And we will use ESP8266 or Arduino to have the programming like: when motion sensor 1 or motion sensor two are '1', turn on the light. |
1,343,824 | I have an NSImage that came from a PDF, so it has one representation, of type NSPDFImageRep. I do an image setDataRetained:YES; to make sure that it remains a NSPDFImageRep. Later, I want to change the page, so I get the rep, and set the current page. This is fine.
The problem is that when I draw the image, only the 1st page comes out.
My impression is that when I draw an NSImage, it picks a representation, and draws that representation. Now, the image only has one rep, so that's the one that is being drawn, and that's the PDFrep. So, why when I draw the image, is it not drawing the correct page?
HOWEVER, when I draw the representation itself, I get the correct page.
What am I missing? | 2009/08/27 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1343824",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/53491/"
] | Check that your DB file is not copied to the output directory at each build (in the property page of the project item) | Of course 5 minutes after posting my question I have a huge DUH! moment. Turns out I was refreshing the database in my project to see if the inserts were persisting when I should have been checking \bin\Debug\MyData.sdf instead.
Trust the code Sean, trust the code. Oh, and remember you're an idiot sometimes. |
31,397 | I have lots of air plants ([Tillandsia](http://www.airplant.com/indcare.html)) and I would like to place them in a closed terrarium. Will this type of plant survive the type of humidity and moisture that comes with a closed terrarium environment?
And can I just place this plant in some sand or can I place it in soil as well?
The reason I ask is because I'd like to place the air plant alongside some ferns inside the terrarium. Hence, if I could just place both plants on the same soil bed, it will be very convenient. | 2017/04/01 | [
"https://gardening.stackexchange.com/questions/31397",
"https://gardening.stackexchange.com",
"https://gardening.stackexchange.com/users/16194/"
] | In a word, no. The natural environment of these plants is high in trees where there is good air circulation and bright diffuse light. Humidity and moisture requirements vary by species but air circulation is essential.
In a terrarium they will get not get air circulation but they will get a constant level of higher humidity which will promote rot.
I have maintained these plants quite successfully in a more open terrarium where these was a lot of light from High Pressure Sodium lamps and good air circulation. They were attached with silicon to cork. Maintenance was to mist them down with distilled or filtered water once a day | I am by no means an expert but I have successfully been growing several varieties in a closed terrarium (not sealed as I do open the lid about twice a month to apply some orachid food). I have had the set up for about two years and have had them flower and put off successful pups. The container is a several gallon glass container from Wal-Mart (kitchen section). The glass lid fits quite well so there is negligible moisture loss. The bottom is filled with larg-ish aquarium stones. I space them quite well apart and don't have them resting on their bases. The terrarium sits in an East facing windowsill. As with all closed terrariums the most difficult factor is the moisture level. The rough estimate I use is that the terrarium should be without significant condensations for a few hours a day. From what I have read the thinner leaved ones are from more naturally humid environments so I would experiment with those, however I have several varieties. Good luck, maybe it's just luck for me but I really enjoy this terrarium and think it's worth an attempt if you're interested. |
17,897,460 | What are the differences between applying "OnClickListener" and adding a function to related XML file to add an action for a button? Which way is more useful in what conditions? | 2013/07/27 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/17897460",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1906364/"
] | A great article about button click here: <http://martin.cubeactive.com/android-onclicklitener-tutorial/>
Its main idea is that you have two options:
1. subscribe programatically
1.1. Inline OnClickListener implementation with anonymous class.
1.2 By implementing OnClickListener in your class (usually your Activity).
2. set button onClick attribute in the xml with the name of the handler method.
What is more useful is debatable, but It seems better to use xml onClick attribute if you have many buttons and each needs its own handler.
Another good approach is to assign all buttons to use the same handler on click and then - in the handler method - make switch according to what button was clicked (the view parameter is a refference to the clicked button). | When you add listener from xml, you could have diffrent actions for diffrent conditions (language, dimensions etc ) without writing conditional statements in ypur source code. |
58,917 | This sentence is said to be correct:
>
> Skeptical of the abilities of prophets to tell the future, a significant number of philosophers in Athens began to value reason over revealed truths.
>
>
>
*"Skeptical"* modifies *"number",* but *"number"* cannot be *"Skeptical."*
*"Skeptical"* should modify *"philosophers."*
Can someone shed light on this sentence? | 2015/06/09 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/58917",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/20337/"
] | Nope, a *number* can indeed be skeptical. Something like:
>
> A skeptical number began to value reason.
>
>
>
is just fine. There's nothing wrong with this. A valid meaning of *number* is *a few from a larger group*.
Of course, without context or previous conversation/text we'd be asking *number of what?*. But that's explicitly stated your example, so no confusion.
Numbers as in numerals can't be skeptical, so anyone hearing/reading something like this won't be thinking that. | Try thinking of "number" as "group" or "set."
You're right that skeptical modifies number, but in this case the phrase "of philosophers" defines the number as a set of people, which can be skeptical. |
58,917 | This sentence is said to be correct:
>
> Skeptical of the abilities of prophets to tell the future, a significant number of philosophers in Athens began to value reason over revealed truths.
>
>
>
*"Skeptical"* modifies *"number",* but *"number"* cannot be *"Skeptical."*
*"Skeptical"* should modify *"philosophers."*
Can someone shed light on this sentence? | 2015/06/09 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/58917",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/20337/"
] | Simplify for Clarity
--------------------
Let's strip this sentence down:
>
> Skeptical of the abilities of prophets to tell the future, a significant number of philosophers in Athens began to value reason over revealed truths.
>
>
>
The first clause adds meaning, but isn't essential to the core sentence.
>
> A significant number of philosophers in Athens began to value reason over revealed truths.
>
>
>
The last clause only tells us a bit more about how *much* they're valuing reason, so it's not essential.
>
> A significant number of philosophers in Athens began to value reason.
>
>
>
Significant is just an adjective, let's drop that.
>
> A number of philosophers in Athens began to value reason.
>
>
>
Who cares where these philosophers are located?
>
> A number of philosophers began to value reason.
>
>
>
"Of philosophers" is just a prepositional phrase describing what we have a number *of*.
>
> A number began to value reason.
>
>
>
This is a perfectly valid sentence. "A number" is the subject. This is one of the most common usages of the word 'number'.
Dictionary Definitions
----------------------
Some different phrasings of its definition from a few dictionaries:
Wiktionary:
>
> 5. Quantity
>
>
>
Reference.com:
>
> 2. the sum, total, count, or aggregate of a collection of units, or the like
>
>
>
Merriam-Webster:
>
> 1a. (1) : a sum of units : total (2) : complement 1b (3) : an indefinite usually large total (4) plural : a numerous group : many (5) : a numerical preponderance
>
>
>
Therefore, here are some other, mostly synonymous phrasings:
>
> Many (philosophers) began to value reason.
>
>
> A group (of philosophers) began to value reason.
>
>
> A preponderance (of philosophers) began to value reason.
>
>
>
A Skeptical Number
------------------
So the subject of the sentence being modified is *not* "philosophers", it's "a number". It might be more useful to look at it as "a number of philosophers", but the phrase specifying what we have a number of may not always be present in the sentence. It could be from context:
>
> At this time there were a great many philosophers in Athens. Skeptical of the abilities of prophets to tell the future, a significant number began to value reason over revealed truths.
>
>
>
So yes, 'skeptical' *can* modify number, because "a number" is a group of things, and the things in the group can be skeptical. | Try thinking of "number" as "group" or "set."
You're right that skeptical modifies number, but in this case the phrase "of philosophers" defines the number as a set of people, which can be skeptical. |
58,917 | This sentence is said to be correct:
>
> Skeptical of the abilities of prophets to tell the future, a significant number of philosophers in Athens began to value reason over revealed truths.
>
>
>
*"Skeptical"* modifies *"number",* but *"number"* cannot be *"Skeptical."*
*"Skeptical"* should modify *"philosophers."*
Can someone shed light on this sentence? | 2015/06/09 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/58917",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/20337/"
] | Nope, a *number* can indeed be skeptical. Something like:
>
> A skeptical number began to value reason.
>
>
>
is just fine. There's nothing wrong with this. A valid meaning of *number* is *a few from a larger group*.
Of course, without context or previous conversation/text we'd be asking *number of what?*. But that's explicitly stated your example, so no confusion.
Numbers as in numerals can't be skeptical, so anyone hearing/reading something like this won't be thinking that. | Simplify for Clarity
--------------------
Let's strip this sentence down:
>
> Skeptical of the abilities of prophets to tell the future, a significant number of philosophers in Athens began to value reason over revealed truths.
>
>
>
The first clause adds meaning, but isn't essential to the core sentence.
>
> A significant number of philosophers in Athens began to value reason over revealed truths.
>
>
>
The last clause only tells us a bit more about how *much* they're valuing reason, so it's not essential.
>
> A significant number of philosophers in Athens began to value reason.
>
>
>
Significant is just an adjective, let's drop that.
>
> A number of philosophers in Athens began to value reason.
>
>
>
Who cares where these philosophers are located?
>
> A number of philosophers began to value reason.
>
>
>
"Of philosophers" is just a prepositional phrase describing what we have a number *of*.
>
> A number began to value reason.
>
>
>
This is a perfectly valid sentence. "A number" is the subject. This is one of the most common usages of the word 'number'.
Dictionary Definitions
----------------------
Some different phrasings of its definition from a few dictionaries:
Wiktionary:
>
> 5. Quantity
>
>
>
Reference.com:
>
> 2. the sum, total, count, or aggregate of a collection of units, or the like
>
>
>
Merriam-Webster:
>
> 1a. (1) : a sum of units : total (2) : complement 1b (3) : an indefinite usually large total (4) plural : a numerous group : many (5) : a numerical preponderance
>
>
>
Therefore, here are some other, mostly synonymous phrasings:
>
> Many (philosophers) began to value reason.
>
>
> A group (of philosophers) began to value reason.
>
>
> A preponderance (of philosophers) began to value reason.
>
>
>
A Skeptical Number
------------------
So the subject of the sentence being modified is *not* "philosophers", it's "a number". It might be more useful to look at it as "a number of philosophers", but the phrase specifying what we have a number of may not always be present in the sentence. It could be from context:
>
> At this time there were a great many philosophers in Athens. Skeptical of the abilities of prophets to tell the future, a significant number began to value reason over revealed truths.
>
>
>
So yes, 'skeptical' *can* modify number, because "a number" is a group of things, and the things in the group can be skeptical. |
42,374 | Context: New Jersey, USA.
For a school activity celebrating different cultures, my daughter (11 years old) and I built a presentation on Ireland (most of my family is Irish and Scottish descent). As part of the presentation we presented music videos representative of some modern online Irish-ness, one of which was (links to [YouTube](https://youtube.com)):
* [โFreedomโ by Kieran Hardiman, et.al.](https://youtu.be/thjctEd7O_Y)
The school Principalโs Assistant removed the video from the presentation and sent my daughter home believing that it contained โ*offensive language*โ.
The video uses pieces of **Charlie Chaplin**โs famous speech from *The Great Dictator*.
Regardless of how much of a dirtbag you may think Chaplin was, the speech is undeniably one of the most influential in modern history. [According to Wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/The_Great_Dictator):
>
> In 1997, it was selected by the Library of Congress for preservation in the United States National Film Registry as being "culturally, historically, or aesthetically significant".
>
>
>
To be clear: I am not so very bothered at the school removing a piece of the presentation as I am *the reason* my daughter was given for it: that the language therein was somehow *offensive*.
(To whom? Dictators and... school administrators? Does the PA think that quoting pieces of this seminal speech makes one a communist? Or a womanizer?)
I find something deeply, fundamentally disturbing that my daughter was told that something historically and culturally significant, something I am trying to teach her so that she does *not* become a โmachine mindโ, ignorant to history and the forces at work around her in the world, was somehow *offensive language* not to be permitted in the classroom.
Again, what bothers me is what my daughter was taught about the video content โ contrary to its actual meaning and *my wishes* to educate her properly. I do not believe that it is reasonable for the school to countermand my efforts to teach her about *history* that *affects us today*. Thereโs an irony in this somewhere.
### I wish to address this with the school, but I am unsure how to proceed.
I am unhappy with a PA willing to behave this way. (And I suspect the PA is actually ignorant of who wrote the words and where it came from and what it means, and was just reacting to the initial images of war detritus and the affected vocal patterns used.)
I have already addressed this with my daughter, and she reports that she is no longer bothered with any of this.
I *could* just pretend it didnโt happen and go my merry way... | 2022/02/10 | [
"https://parenting.stackexchange.com/questions/42374",
"https://parenting.stackexchange.com",
"https://parenting.stackexchange.com/users/30739/"
] | I think the first step is to write to the PA asking for clarification:
1. Was the video actually rejected as offensive? If I understand your post correctly, you only have your daughter's report on that.
2. If so, exactly what about it was considered offensive?
3. Does the school have any written policies about what is considered offensive enough to ban?
Don't argue or cite the source just yet, just find out the school's policy and reasoning. It's possible there has been a misunderstanding somewhere.
Once you have the facts established you can make a formal objection to the decision. Your daughter has [first amendment rights](https://www.aclu.org/know-your-rights/students-rights/) when at school; the school can only block materials that will disrupt the school or which violate school polices that are not about the message. "Offensive language", for instance, would be a reasonable thing to ban. But tagging a video as "offensive" just because they don't like its message is not acceptable.
At the very least, having to justify their decision in writing might make the school more thoughtful next time.
>
> I have already addressed this with my daughter, and she reports that she is no longer bothered with any of this.
>
>
>
Taking up the fight would seem to me a way of teaching her that this stuff really is important.
If you want backup then try contacting the ACLU. They believe this is important too. You might also want to ask any legal questions over on Law.SE, although you should keep them to what the law says and avoid asking for *advice* (e.g. "what should I do?").
Oh, and in the meantime, your daughter can spread the video URL to her friends so they can see the video that the school wanted to ban. | I like Paul's answer very much for the most part, but I would like to add a couple things -- so this is a supplementary post.
1. Even if you don't have children, and even if you rent and don't pay school taxes directly, you have a legitimate interest in this. And in this case you co-authored the presentation.
2. You may quietly inquire without involving your daughter, if you wish. If the school retaliates against her as a result, then the problems at that school are bigger than what you described.
3. State policies and local (school district) policies are available on the web. I suggest you look those up before asking for more information about the incident. Also the Student Conduct guide given to parents and students in September. (You can ask for another copy if you don't have it handy, and it might be on their website.) And see if you can find something like New York's "Dignity for All Students Act (DASA)." Apparently NJ has something similar but I haven't found it yet. If you can't find it either you can ask at Law.SE. ([source](https://www.queeringeducation.org/policy/dasa))
4. Paul wrote, "your daughter can spread the video URL to her friends." Watch out. This could run afoul of the student conduct guidelines involving off-campus electronic communications. Perhaps the safest thing would be to quietly ask questions first.
5. Paul wrote in a comment, "an important part of getting a resolution before it goes to court is looking like you mean business. Otherwise you just get brushed off." Maybe Paul has known people who got brushed off -- but I think it can be helpful to start with optimism. And there are non-aggressive ways of getting their attention. So I'd suggest that you try not to appear to be coming out swinging. If your initial email is not answered, you can send it again with a "Perhaps this email slipped between the cracks" intro (it happens to all of us sometimes, after all). Then you can work your way up the chain with a forward and "Perhaps I misdirected this message (see below). Can you suggest the appropriate person to direct it to?" Also a phone call can help (you can ask the secretary for permission to forward the non-responded-to email to him/her -- this often helps, as school administrators get inundated with email).
6. There's another tool I want to mention that might come in handy at some point -- a FOIA request. If you think you're at that point, please don't hesitate to ask about that specifically.
On a personal note, if I lived in your school district, even if I didn't have any direct connection to the class(es) that were involved with these presentations, I would be quite concerned to learn that an administrator was reviewing all the presentations ahead of time, to begin with. I would wonder what led to that level of administrative oversight. You might want to take a look at local newspaper archives to see if there have been issues in the past that are having current ripple effects. Also, if there's a school newspaper (unusual in middle school, but it doesn't hurt to check), an informal conversation with the newspaper advisor could be illuminating. |
42,374 | Context: New Jersey, USA.
For a school activity celebrating different cultures, my daughter (11 years old) and I built a presentation on Ireland (most of my family is Irish and Scottish descent). As part of the presentation we presented music videos representative of some modern online Irish-ness, one of which was (links to [YouTube](https://youtube.com)):
* [โFreedomโ by Kieran Hardiman, et.al.](https://youtu.be/thjctEd7O_Y)
The school Principalโs Assistant removed the video from the presentation and sent my daughter home believing that it contained โ*offensive language*โ.
The video uses pieces of **Charlie Chaplin**โs famous speech from *The Great Dictator*.
Regardless of how much of a dirtbag you may think Chaplin was, the speech is undeniably one of the most influential in modern history. [According to Wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/The_Great_Dictator):
>
> In 1997, it was selected by the Library of Congress for preservation in the United States National Film Registry as being "culturally, historically, or aesthetically significant".
>
>
>
To be clear: I am not so very bothered at the school removing a piece of the presentation as I am *the reason* my daughter was given for it: that the language therein was somehow *offensive*.
(To whom? Dictators and... school administrators? Does the PA think that quoting pieces of this seminal speech makes one a communist? Or a womanizer?)
I find something deeply, fundamentally disturbing that my daughter was told that something historically and culturally significant, something I am trying to teach her so that she does *not* become a โmachine mindโ, ignorant to history and the forces at work around her in the world, was somehow *offensive language* not to be permitted in the classroom.
Again, what bothers me is what my daughter was taught about the video content โ contrary to its actual meaning and *my wishes* to educate her properly. I do not believe that it is reasonable for the school to countermand my efforts to teach her about *history* that *affects us today*. Thereโs an irony in this somewhere.
### I wish to address this with the school, but I am unsure how to proceed.
I am unhappy with a PA willing to behave this way. (And I suspect the PA is actually ignorant of who wrote the words and where it came from and what it means, and was just reacting to the initial images of war detritus and the affected vocal patterns used.)
I have already addressed this with my daughter, and she reports that she is no longer bothered with any of this.
I *could* just pretend it didnโt happen and go my merry way... | 2022/02/10 | [
"https://parenting.stackexchange.com/questions/42374",
"https://parenting.stackexchange.com",
"https://parenting.stackexchange.com/users/30739/"
] | I think the first step is to write to the PA asking for clarification:
1. Was the video actually rejected as offensive? If I understand your post correctly, you only have your daughter's report on that.
2. If so, exactly what about it was considered offensive?
3. Does the school have any written policies about what is considered offensive enough to ban?
Don't argue or cite the source just yet, just find out the school's policy and reasoning. It's possible there has been a misunderstanding somewhere.
Once you have the facts established you can make a formal objection to the decision. Your daughter has [first amendment rights](https://www.aclu.org/know-your-rights/students-rights/) when at school; the school can only block materials that will disrupt the school or which violate school polices that are not about the message. "Offensive language", for instance, would be a reasonable thing to ban. But tagging a video as "offensive" just because they don't like its message is not acceptable.
At the very least, having to justify their decision in writing might make the school more thoughtful next time.
>
> I have already addressed this with my daughter, and she reports that she is no longer bothered with any of this.
>
>
>
Taking up the fight would seem to me a way of teaching her that this stuff really is important.
If you want backup then try contacting the ACLU. They believe this is important too. You might also want to ask any legal questions over on Law.SE, although you should keep them to what the law says and avoid asking for *advice* (e.g. "what should I do?").
Oh, and in the meantime, your daughter can spread the video URL to her friends so they can see the video that the school wanted to ban. | This answer assumes this is a *public* school. Most of it will be applicable to private schools as well, but there are some important differences, particularly in the power dynamic. This answer is also from the point of view of a parent, not an educator, but a parent who has managed conflict with their school effectively.
One of the most important things to do when talking to your child's school is to come to the table with a positive, constructive attitude, and to make that clear from the outset. Decide, before you go, what you hope to get out of the conversation, and *be realistic*; don't go in expecting to get everything you would want in an ideal world. Rather, focus on what is achievable right now - and usually in that first conversation the goal should be *discovering* what is achievable. Also remember that the people at the school are, well, people; they have reasons for doing what they do, and some of that is due to having *information* you don't have, as well as motivations that may not perfectly match yours - without being unreasonable, necessarily.
In this case, you need to decide between a few goals. Is the purpose of the meeting to *find out why* they made the choice they did? Do you want them to know how you feel? Do you want them to take a concrete action (for example, when you say she was *sent home* was that an actual suspension - in which case you might want that removed from her record)?
---
In the first case, finding out why, the best approach is to be open. Something like, "Hello [P], Would it be possible to meet about [D]'s recent assignment? I would like to find out more about what happened so I can best support her learning at home. Thank you." is best. This has a few things in it that are important for getting the most out of the school:
* Open attitude - not making judgements
* Asking how you can best support the school
* Directly connected to a recent issue
Then in the meeting you would mostly listen. Ask for a summary of what happened. Ask for why they chose to take the actions they chose. Ask what specifically was objectionable. Ask what she could do differently in the future. All of this is *asking* - and asking without including a judgement in the question. This is quite difficult to do - so formulate your questions ahead of time, and don't deviate from them. Don't interrupt, and don't go too far into the followup here - if the point is to find out why they took these actions, just find that out. Then decide on any further action at home, when you have time to think!
---
If you want to have them take concrete action, the best approach in my opinion is to start with a fact-finding meeting like above. Then, come back to the school a few days later with a carefully crafted message incorporating what you learned in the fact-finding meeting, politely asking for particular actions to be taken based on your reasoning. It needs to be polite, and it needs to be specific and concrete; and it needs to be thoroughly grounded in the school's policies, as opposed to political theory.
It should also be *relatively easy* for the school to take - don't ask for something that's either hard to do, or would involve conflict. The school administrators will tend towards what they think is the path of least resistance; make that path doing the thing you want! This is where being *slightly* annoying is helpful, but only slightly - on the level of making it clear what it will take for you to go away and stop emailing them.
---
If, however, you mostly just want them to know how you feel, the best approach is a politely worded letter letting them know how you feel. One that doesn't suggest any action, and doesn't require a response beyond a "thank you for letting us know". It should not *accuse* anyone of anything, and should be very carefully worded to not impugn anyone's motives; simply state how you feel, something like:
>
> Dear P; Based on what happened with the video last week, I wanted to let you know about the concerns I have related to how that was handled. My daughter worked very hard on this project, under my guidance, and we felt that she designed an effective presentation that put every part of our history together. It was very disappointing to learn that not only did the P.A. disapprove of this work, but that, rather than coming to me and discussing their concerns, they [did x y z]. I would like to support my daughter's education in every way possible, and support the school in their mission; I certainly do not want to cause strife in the classroom or the school. I am concerned that my daughter will not feel safe sharing her ideas or beliefs in the classroom setting as a result of how this was handled. Respectfully, Dรบthomhas.
>
>
>
The important part here is making it clear how you feel - and in how those feelings impact the school - while underlining your respect for the school and its mission, and your role in her education. Keeping it as positive as possible, while still making your very real feelings known, is important here. (And I'm just approximating your feelings here - this is mostly how I would probably feel in this instance.)
---
Hopefully the TL;DR is clear by this point - communicate with the school *politely*, and be very clear in your own mind and in your communication with what your goal is from that communication. Don't break into the legal side of things unless you truly would go that route (which I don't encourage); and don't cast blame. Especially don't blame specific people - then you get into where people have pride involved, and that makes it far less likely to accomplish your goal.
And, do consider your child's wishes here; whatever you do, keep her out of it, since that's what she wants. She's old enough to have some understanding of the impact of this, and given you've raised her to be thoughtful and understand her role in society, you should give her that choice. |
42,374 | Context: New Jersey, USA.
For a school activity celebrating different cultures, my daughter (11 years old) and I built a presentation on Ireland (most of my family is Irish and Scottish descent). As part of the presentation we presented music videos representative of some modern online Irish-ness, one of which was (links to [YouTube](https://youtube.com)):
* [โFreedomโ by Kieran Hardiman, et.al.](https://youtu.be/thjctEd7O_Y)
The school Principalโs Assistant removed the video from the presentation and sent my daughter home believing that it contained โ*offensive language*โ.
The video uses pieces of **Charlie Chaplin**โs famous speech from *The Great Dictator*.
Regardless of how much of a dirtbag you may think Chaplin was, the speech is undeniably one of the most influential in modern history. [According to Wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/The_Great_Dictator):
>
> In 1997, it was selected by the Library of Congress for preservation in the United States National Film Registry as being "culturally, historically, or aesthetically significant".
>
>
>
To be clear: I am not so very bothered at the school removing a piece of the presentation as I am *the reason* my daughter was given for it: that the language therein was somehow *offensive*.
(To whom? Dictators and... school administrators? Does the PA think that quoting pieces of this seminal speech makes one a communist? Or a womanizer?)
I find something deeply, fundamentally disturbing that my daughter was told that something historically and culturally significant, something I am trying to teach her so that she does *not* become a โmachine mindโ, ignorant to history and the forces at work around her in the world, was somehow *offensive language* not to be permitted in the classroom.
Again, what bothers me is what my daughter was taught about the video content โ contrary to its actual meaning and *my wishes* to educate her properly. I do not believe that it is reasonable for the school to countermand my efforts to teach her about *history* that *affects us today*. Thereโs an irony in this somewhere.
### I wish to address this with the school, but I am unsure how to proceed.
I am unhappy with a PA willing to behave this way. (And I suspect the PA is actually ignorant of who wrote the words and where it came from and what it means, and was just reacting to the initial images of war detritus and the affected vocal patterns used.)
I have already addressed this with my daughter, and she reports that she is no longer bothered with any of this.
I *could* just pretend it didnโt happen and go my merry way... | 2022/02/10 | [
"https://parenting.stackexchange.com/questions/42374",
"https://parenting.stackexchange.com",
"https://parenting.stackexchange.com/users/30739/"
] | I think the first step is to write to the PA asking for clarification:
1. Was the video actually rejected as offensive? If I understand your post correctly, you only have your daughter's report on that.
2. If so, exactly what about it was considered offensive?
3. Does the school have any written policies about what is considered offensive enough to ban?
Don't argue or cite the source just yet, just find out the school's policy and reasoning. It's possible there has been a misunderstanding somewhere.
Once you have the facts established you can make a formal objection to the decision. Your daughter has [first amendment rights](https://www.aclu.org/know-your-rights/students-rights/) when at school; the school can only block materials that will disrupt the school or which violate school polices that are not about the message. "Offensive language", for instance, would be a reasonable thing to ban. But tagging a video as "offensive" just because they don't like its message is not acceptable.
At the very least, having to justify their decision in writing might make the school more thoughtful next time.
>
> I have already addressed this with my daughter, and she reports that she is no longer bothered with any of this.
>
>
>
Taking up the fight would seem to me a way of teaching her that this stuff really is important.
If you want backup then try contacting the ACLU. They believe this is important too. You might also want to ask any legal questions over on Law.SE, although you should keep them to what the law says and avoid asking for *advice* (e.g. "what should I do?").
Oh, and in the meantime, your daughter can spread the video URL to her friends so they can see the video that the school wanted to ban. | Ask the school for a clear explanation as to why this happened.
===============================================================
They should be able to provide a basic explanation as to why the video was removed. And if they donโt? *That* is the real problem here.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
There are a few answers here that go quite deep. But I think the core issue here is quite simple:
>
> โI wish to address this with the school, but I am unsure how to proceed.โ
>
>
>
Knowing that letโs look at the key issue here:
>
> โThe school Principalโs Assistant removed the video from the presentation and sent my daughter home believing that it contained โ*offensive language*โ.โ
>
>
>
Okay, hereโs the solution: Contact the schoolโs principal and ask for clarification as to why the video was removed.
* Was it language?
* If so, what exact language?
* Once you know that, simply ask โWhy was that an issue?โ
* Request that the info regarding the rationale for the actions of the Principalโs Assistant be put in writing.
And thatโs pretty much it.
There is really no deep drama here (yet) so just ask for the basics: Why was this done?
On a very basic level, even if your daughter is โno longer bothered with any of thisโ what is the โthisโ that she is no longer bothered by? Does she just want this to go away?
My attitude is if your daughter had her worked censored, and was punished, even if there is a disagreement about the โwhyโ she should at least know that she is 100% entitled to a โwhy.โ
Having content removed from oneโs work is one thing; not being provided with a clear explanation is another thing. She, and all of us, deserve to know why something was done in a case like this. |
124,989 | What single words and idioms would best describe someone who loves to sit in judgment of others, almost making it a hobby to become a nitpicker. They are aware but un-acknowledging of their own deficiencies and of their non-eligibility as critics. They are overly critical of others, yet vehemently intolerant of any criticisms directed to them. I guess it is a combination of spite, rudeness and lack of insight. But they are not stupid.
As examples you could imagine an unaccomplished reality TV judge (Iโm not sure what credentials they possess) being spiteful and mean. This may not be a very good example because sometime the judges put on a veneer of [this attribute] for ratings? Or say a colleague at work who feels threatened by your skills? Or a meddlesome neighbour perhaps who is jealous of your success?
Edit: Having considered the responses so far one apt overarching word I think is **hostile**, but perhaps there are better words or idioms? Another word that applies perhaps is ***caviling***. | 2013/09/02 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/124989",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/49727/"
] | **Sneering** can have this meaning when used to describe a person or people - a personality inclined to sneer at others.
It implies spite and scorn - hostile, contemptuous unjustified judgment and a sense of assumed superiority. It also that the person judges others because they enjoy spiteful judging.
A few examples from the press:
>
> Sneering TV talent-show judge Simon Cowell...
>
>
>
---
>
> Why sneering reality television is as bad as the Roman amphitheatre
>
>
>
---
>
> The Real Romney Captured on Tape Turns Out to Be a Sneering Plutocrat
>
>
>
---
>
> Keith Kloor lumps me with Dawkins as sneering, strident, and...
>
>
>
---
Since it's an adjective and Shyam's suggestion is a noun, you can combine the two. "Armchair critic" implies inadequacy, and "sneering" implies spite.
>
> I can't stand these **sneering armchair critics** who judge talent shows.
>
>
>
(just be careful you're not sneering or an armchair critic yourself when criticizing those who are!) | Perhaps **[self-opinionated](http://www.collinsdictionary.com/dictionary/english/self-opinionated)**
>
> having an unduly high regard for oneself or one's own opinions
>
>
> |
124,989 | What single words and idioms would best describe someone who loves to sit in judgment of others, almost making it a hobby to become a nitpicker. They are aware but un-acknowledging of their own deficiencies and of their non-eligibility as critics. They are overly critical of others, yet vehemently intolerant of any criticisms directed to them. I guess it is a combination of spite, rudeness and lack of insight. But they are not stupid.
As examples you could imagine an unaccomplished reality TV judge (Iโm not sure what credentials they possess) being spiteful and mean. This may not be a very good example because sometime the judges put on a veneer of [this attribute] for ratings? Or say a colleague at work who feels threatened by your skills? Or a meddlesome neighbour perhaps who is jealous of your success?
Edit: Having considered the responses so far one apt overarching word I think is **hostile**, but perhaps there are better words or idioms? Another word that applies perhaps is ***caviling***. | 2013/09/02 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/124989",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/49727/"
] | **Sneering** can have this meaning when used to describe a person or people - a personality inclined to sneer at others.
It implies spite and scorn - hostile, contemptuous unjustified judgment and a sense of assumed superiority. It also that the person judges others because they enjoy spiteful judging.
A few examples from the press:
>
> Sneering TV talent-show judge Simon Cowell...
>
>
>
---
>
> Why sneering reality television is as bad as the Roman amphitheatre
>
>
>
---
>
> The Real Romney Captured on Tape Turns Out to Be a Sneering Plutocrat
>
>
>
---
>
> Keith Kloor lumps me with Dawkins as sneering, strident, and...
>
>
>
---
Since it's an adjective and Shyam's suggestion is a noun, you can combine the two. "Armchair critic" implies inadequacy, and "sneering" implies spite.
>
> I can't stand these **sneering armchair critics** who judge talent shows.
>
>
>
(just be careful you're not sneering or an armchair critic yourself when criticizing those who are!) | You could call them **tinhorn** critics - someone who pretends to be important but actually has little money, influence, or skill. |
124,989 | What single words and idioms would best describe someone who loves to sit in judgment of others, almost making it a hobby to become a nitpicker. They are aware but un-acknowledging of their own deficiencies and of their non-eligibility as critics. They are overly critical of others, yet vehemently intolerant of any criticisms directed to them. I guess it is a combination of spite, rudeness and lack of insight. But they are not stupid.
As examples you could imagine an unaccomplished reality TV judge (Iโm not sure what credentials they possess) being spiteful and mean. This may not be a very good example because sometime the judges put on a veneer of [this attribute] for ratings? Or say a colleague at work who feels threatened by your skills? Or a meddlesome neighbour perhaps who is jealous of your success?
Edit: Having considered the responses so far one apt overarching word I think is **hostile**, but perhaps there are better words or idioms? Another word that applies perhaps is ***caviling***. | 2013/09/02 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/124989",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/49727/"
] | Such people [could be called](http://www.usingenglish.com/reference/idioms/armchair+critic.html) **armchair critics**.
>
> An armchair critic is someone who offers advice but never shows that they could actually do any better.
>
>
> | I think the word you want is *pseudo-intellectual.* I think that's the combination of pedantry and incompetence you're looking for. |
124,989 | What single words and idioms would best describe someone who loves to sit in judgment of others, almost making it a hobby to become a nitpicker. They are aware but un-acknowledging of their own deficiencies and of their non-eligibility as critics. They are overly critical of others, yet vehemently intolerant of any criticisms directed to them. I guess it is a combination of spite, rudeness and lack of insight. But they are not stupid.
As examples you could imagine an unaccomplished reality TV judge (Iโm not sure what credentials they possess) being spiteful and mean. This may not be a very good example because sometime the judges put on a veneer of [this attribute] for ratings? Or say a colleague at work who feels threatened by your skills? Or a meddlesome neighbour perhaps who is jealous of your success?
Edit: Having considered the responses so far one apt overarching word I think is **hostile**, but perhaps there are better words or idioms? Another word that applies perhaps is ***caviling***. | 2013/09/02 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/124989",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/49727/"
] | Maybe this should be an answer after all:
Given your comparison to reality show judges; if you are thinking of a particular such judge, create an adjective from their name, as in *Sternian* or *Mandelian* or *Cowellian*. | I think the word you want is *pseudo-intellectual.* I think that's the combination of pedantry and incompetence you're looking for. |
124,989 | What single words and idioms would best describe someone who loves to sit in judgment of others, almost making it a hobby to become a nitpicker. They are aware but un-acknowledging of their own deficiencies and of their non-eligibility as critics. They are overly critical of others, yet vehemently intolerant of any criticisms directed to them. I guess it is a combination of spite, rudeness and lack of insight. But they are not stupid.
As examples you could imagine an unaccomplished reality TV judge (Iโm not sure what credentials they possess) being spiteful and mean. This may not be a very good example because sometime the judges put on a veneer of [this attribute] for ratings? Or say a colleague at work who feels threatened by your skills? Or a meddlesome neighbour perhaps who is jealous of your success?
Edit: Having considered the responses so far one apt overarching word I think is **hostile**, but perhaps there are better words or idioms? Another word that applies perhaps is ***caviling***. | 2013/09/02 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/124989",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/49727/"
] | **[Self-Righteous](http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/self-righteous)**
While it is originally associated with morality or virtue, it is used informally to describe an attitude of being better than others while also being judgmental, where righteous takes on a looser meaning of being perfect, [excellent or genuine](http://www.thefreedictionary.com/righteous).
>
> confident of one's own righteousness, especially when smugly
> moralistic and intolerant of the opinions and behavior of others.
>
>
>
**Sanctimonious** and **Holier-Than-Thou** can be used informally the same way.
The obvious word is "judgmental", given by Pieter in the comments, but it doesn't include a hint of self-assumed perfection on part of the one doing the judging.
An **Elitist** is one who believes they are among a select group of people who (by virtue of birth, intellect, training, education, experience) assume their judgement is superior to that of others. | You could call them **tinhorn** critics - someone who pretends to be important but actually has little money, influence, or skill. |
124,989 | What single words and idioms would best describe someone who loves to sit in judgment of others, almost making it a hobby to become a nitpicker. They are aware but un-acknowledging of their own deficiencies and of their non-eligibility as critics. They are overly critical of others, yet vehemently intolerant of any criticisms directed to them. I guess it is a combination of spite, rudeness and lack of insight. But they are not stupid.
As examples you could imagine an unaccomplished reality TV judge (Iโm not sure what credentials they possess) being spiteful and mean. This may not be a very good example because sometime the judges put on a veneer of [this attribute] for ratings? Or say a colleague at work who feels threatened by your skills? Or a meddlesome neighbour perhaps who is jealous of your success?
Edit: Having considered the responses so far one apt overarching word I think is **hostile**, but perhaps there are better words or idioms? Another word that applies perhaps is ***caviling***. | 2013/09/02 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/124989",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/49727/"
] | Such people [could be called](http://www.usingenglish.com/reference/idioms/armchair+critic.html) **armchair critics**.
>
> An armchair critic is someone who offers advice but never shows that they could actually do any better.
>
>
> | **Sneering** can have this meaning when used to describe a person or people - a personality inclined to sneer at others.
It implies spite and scorn - hostile, contemptuous unjustified judgment and a sense of assumed superiority. It also that the person judges others because they enjoy spiteful judging.
A few examples from the press:
>
> Sneering TV talent-show judge Simon Cowell...
>
>
>
---
>
> Why sneering reality television is as bad as the Roman amphitheatre
>
>
>
---
>
> The Real Romney Captured on Tape Turns Out to Be a Sneering Plutocrat
>
>
>
---
>
> Keith Kloor lumps me with Dawkins as sneering, strident, and...
>
>
>
---
Since it's an adjective and Shyam's suggestion is a noun, you can combine the two. "Armchair critic" implies inadequacy, and "sneering" implies spite.
>
> I can't stand these **sneering armchair critics** who judge talent shows.
>
>
>
(just be careful you're not sneering or an armchair critic yourself when criticizing those who are!) |
124,989 | What single words and idioms would best describe someone who loves to sit in judgment of others, almost making it a hobby to become a nitpicker. They are aware but un-acknowledging of their own deficiencies and of their non-eligibility as critics. They are overly critical of others, yet vehemently intolerant of any criticisms directed to them. I guess it is a combination of spite, rudeness and lack of insight. But they are not stupid.
As examples you could imagine an unaccomplished reality TV judge (Iโm not sure what credentials they possess) being spiteful and mean. This may not be a very good example because sometime the judges put on a veneer of [this attribute] for ratings? Or say a colleague at work who feels threatened by your skills? Or a meddlesome neighbour perhaps who is jealous of your success?
Edit: Having considered the responses so far one apt overarching word I think is **hostile**, but perhaps there are better words or idioms? Another word that applies perhaps is ***caviling***. | 2013/09/02 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/124989",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/49727/"
] | Maybe this should be an answer after all:
Given your comparison to reality show judges; if you are thinking of a particular such judge, create an adjective from their name, as in *Sternian* or *Mandelian* or *Cowellian*. | Perhaps **[self-opinionated](http://www.collinsdictionary.com/dictionary/english/self-opinionated)**
>
> having an unduly high regard for oneself or one's own opinions
>
>
> |
124,989 | What single words and idioms would best describe someone who loves to sit in judgment of others, almost making it a hobby to become a nitpicker. They are aware but un-acknowledging of their own deficiencies and of their non-eligibility as critics. They are overly critical of others, yet vehemently intolerant of any criticisms directed to them. I guess it is a combination of spite, rudeness and lack of insight. But they are not stupid.
As examples you could imagine an unaccomplished reality TV judge (Iโm not sure what credentials they possess) being spiteful and mean. This may not be a very good example because sometime the judges put on a veneer of [this attribute] for ratings? Or say a colleague at work who feels threatened by your skills? Or a meddlesome neighbour perhaps who is jealous of your success?
Edit: Having considered the responses so far one apt overarching word I think is **hostile**, but perhaps there are better words or idioms? Another word that applies perhaps is ***caviling***. | 2013/09/02 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/124989",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/49727/"
] | Maybe this should be an answer after all:
Given your comparison to reality show judges; if you are thinking of a particular such judge, create an adjective from their name, as in *Sternian* or *Mandelian* or *Cowellian*. | Judges - a public official selected to decide cases in a court of law
District attoruneys
Magistrates
Sheriffs
Cops |
124,989 | What single words and idioms would best describe someone who loves to sit in judgment of others, almost making it a hobby to become a nitpicker. They are aware but un-acknowledging of their own deficiencies and of their non-eligibility as critics. They are overly critical of others, yet vehemently intolerant of any criticisms directed to them. I guess it is a combination of spite, rudeness and lack of insight. But they are not stupid.
As examples you could imagine an unaccomplished reality TV judge (Iโm not sure what credentials they possess) being spiteful and mean. This may not be a very good example because sometime the judges put on a veneer of [this attribute] for ratings? Or say a colleague at work who feels threatened by your skills? Or a meddlesome neighbour perhaps who is jealous of your success?
Edit: Having considered the responses so far one apt overarching word I think is **hostile**, but perhaps there are better words or idioms? Another word that applies perhaps is ***caviling***. | 2013/09/02 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/124989",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/49727/"
] | Maybe this should be an answer after all:
Given your comparison to reality show judges; if you are thinking of a particular such judge, create an adjective from their name, as in *Sternian* or *Mandelian* or *Cowellian*. | In the urban community this is often referred to as "hater". [See full definition here](http://www.urbandictionary.com/define.php?term=hater). |
124,989 | What single words and idioms would best describe someone who loves to sit in judgment of others, almost making it a hobby to become a nitpicker. They are aware but un-acknowledging of their own deficiencies and of their non-eligibility as critics. They are overly critical of others, yet vehemently intolerant of any criticisms directed to them. I guess it is a combination of spite, rudeness and lack of insight. But they are not stupid.
As examples you could imagine an unaccomplished reality TV judge (Iโm not sure what credentials they possess) being spiteful and mean. This may not be a very good example because sometime the judges put on a veneer of [this attribute] for ratings? Or say a colleague at work who feels threatened by your skills? Or a meddlesome neighbour perhaps who is jealous of your success?
Edit: Having considered the responses so far one apt overarching word I think is **hostile**, but perhaps there are better words or idioms? Another word that applies perhaps is ***caviling***. | 2013/09/02 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/124989",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/49727/"
] | **[Self-Righteous](http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/self-righteous)**
While it is originally associated with morality or virtue, it is used informally to describe an attitude of being better than others while also being judgmental, where righteous takes on a looser meaning of being perfect, [excellent or genuine](http://www.thefreedictionary.com/righteous).
>
> confident of one's own righteousness, especially when smugly
> moralistic and intolerant of the opinions and behavior of others.
>
>
>
**Sanctimonious** and **Holier-Than-Thou** can be used informally the same way.
The obvious word is "judgmental", given by Pieter in the comments, but it doesn't include a hint of self-assumed perfection on part of the one doing the judging.
An **Elitist** is one who believes they are among a select group of people who (by virtue of birth, intellect, training, education, experience) assume their judgement is superior to that of others. | I think the word you want is *pseudo-intellectual.* I think that's the combination of pedantry and incompetence you're looking for. |
35,128 | [Today I learnt](https://mechanics.stackexchange.com/q/35109/675) that some engine management setups demand a feedback signal from the ignition coil.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/U9OMr.jpg)
What does it do with the signal though? Is it just for diagnostics? | 2016/08/12 | [
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com/questions/35128",
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com",
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com/users/675/"
] | The ignition confirmation signal is a comeback signal to the ECM. This tells the computer a successful spark has occurred: the coil has launched it's goods. When the signal fails, the computer knows there's an issue with the coil or the ignition circuit and will send a fault code, then notify the driver with the glorious check engine light. | There's a still from this [ScannerDanner video](https://youtu.be/VG3EZJlyjl8?t=44s), which says the following regarding a 1991 Toyota:
>
> Primary circuit is turned off when the ECU sends a signal to the ignitor on the IGT wire. At the same time, the ignitor sends an IGF signal to the ECU. The ECU feeds voltage to the IGF circuit. The ground for this voltage is momentarily cut when the primary circuit is turned off. The ECU monitors the IGF signal and detects if the primary was switched on and off. After sending a command to turn off the primary circuit on the IGT wire, the ECU monitors the IGF circuit to ensure primary switching occurred.
>
>
>
So it is a confirmation for the engine management that the primary circuit pulsed on/off as expected. |
35,128 | [Today I learnt](https://mechanics.stackexchange.com/q/35109/675) that some engine management setups demand a feedback signal from the ignition coil.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/U9OMr.jpg)
What does it do with the signal though? Is it just for diagnostics? | 2016/08/12 | [
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com/questions/35128",
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com",
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com/users/675/"
] | [Pแดแดสsแดแดส2's answer is pretty much correct](https://mechanics.stackexchange.com/a/35129/9884), at least for Toyotas (the linked post in the OP was for a Lexus aka Toyota). Here is some extra detail. Also "feedback" is used for different things in different ignition systems.
Toyota/Lexus (Catalytic Converter Overheat Protection):
-------------------------------------------------------
[This is from the official coursebook for Toyota's EFI/TCCS training course #850](http://web.archive.org/web/20100114074256/http://autoshop101.com/forms/h23.pdf):
>
> **Spark Confirmation IGf**
>
>
> Once a spark event takes place, an ignition confirmation signal called IGf is generated by the igniter and sent to the ECU. The IGf signal tells the ECU that a spark event has actually occurred. In the event of an ignition fault, after approximately eight to eleven IGt signals are sent to the igniter without receiving an IGf confirmation, the ECU will enter a fail-safe mode, shutting down the injectors to prevent potential catalyst overheating.
>
>
>
Later, in the chapter summary, it once again states:
>
> An ignition confirmation signal is generated by the igniter which signals the ECU with each ignition event. The IGf signal is used to provide the ECU with a fail-safe fuel cutoff if ignition spark is lost.
>
>
>
So this directly states the primary purpose:
* To let the ECU cut fuel if a spark plug stops firing, for the express purpose of preventing unburnt fuel from overheating the catalytic converter.
The question the OP linked to confirms fuel-injector cut after nine missed confirmations (you can see it in [the scope output](https://i.stack.imgur.com/dDa90.jpg)), just as the description from the coursebook states. We can only conjecture why it keeps firing anyways - my personal theory is since it's primary goal is to prevent catalyst overheating from unburnt fuel, it just gives it periodic breaks then continues to retry, but it could also just be your everyday limp mode bouncing around at an RPM cutoff point. Or it could be smart enough to say "OK, since *every* igniter is failing to respond, maybe something else is going on and the coils still work". I mean; really, there's plenty of good reasons to cut the fuel injectors, but not really any great reasons to cut the spark plugs, so why not just keep going (the real question there is probably "why do the fuel injectors resume" rather than "why do the spark plugs continue to fire", but now we're straying). Who knows. Doesn't matter though, the purpose is clear at least.
Now, from that, we can also infer some secondary purposes, or at least nice obvious side-effects:
* To provide a technician with valuable diagnostics info (pretty convenient when the car just tells you that there's an issue in cylinder 3's coil or whatever).
* To provide the vehicle owner with valuable feedback (i.e. turn on the CEL, time to go to the shop).
Ford (Dwell Control):
---------------------
It's worth noting that **the above was Toyota-specific**. For example, Ford has a patent on a feedback-based dwell control system:
* [US Patent 4933861](https://www.google.com/patents/US4933861), and
* [US Patent 5043900](https://www.google.com/patents/US5043900), a continuation of 4933861.
These were filed in 1990 and therefore expired in 2004 (when it presumably became available for others to use).
In this system, consider a possible initial state (pre-dwell corrected) of a coil charging mechanism:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/QaJGC.png)
Here, current is sent to the coil. There's the initial charge time, but then the dwell is too long and so there's a delay before discharge. Also the spark timing is too late, because it took time for the coil to charge. So you add the feedback signal (Fig. 1C above), which goes low when the ignition signal is received, and high when the coil is charged.
Now the ECU knows exactly how long it takes to charge a given ignition coil, and can make corrections to the dwell time, and offset the ignition commands as well, allowing the ECU to start charging the coils far enough ahead of time so that the actual discharge (spark) happens exactly when it should:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/ahX2g.png)
And the big advantage of this over a "hard-coded" dwell time is the ability to adjust to the current conditions of the environment and ignition coils, in real time, while maintaining precise spark timing.
It's entirely possible that vehicles after 2004 used this system since the patent expired.
And of course in addition to the dwell correction we still get the diagnostics benefits here.
There are some related patents as well (and probably more):
* Ford, [EP 0390314 A2](http://google.com/patents/EP0390314A2), describes a timing offset system based on back-EMF.
* Toyota, [EP 0350894 A2](http://google.com/patents/EP0350894A2?cl=en), which I've included just because it's interesting. This describes a non-feedback-based system with a similar goal which attempts to correct spark timing by predicting when the next TDC will occur.
These were all filed around the same time in the late 80's and early 90's, it looks like there was probably a big patent rush for ignition timing control systems. I'm sure the lawyers and engineers in all those ignition system labs were consuming inordinately large amounts of coffee during that time period.
Ford (Dwell Control + Pre-ionization):
--------------------------------------
So the above Ford patent was filed in 1990 and expired in 2004. There is a newer Ford patent, filed in 2009, which builds off of it:
* [US 8490598: Ignition coil with ionization and digital feedback for an internal combustion engine](https://www.google.com/patents/US8490598)
This patent describes the same dwell control system, but also includes some sort of pre-charge phase that can detect pre-ignition or fouled spark plugs. It looks pretty cool, but since this answer is already so long and this patent rabbit hole is virtually bottomless, I have to cut myself off here, but you can read more about it there.
Further Reading:
----------------
Basically, there's a lot of uses for feedback from the ignition coils in general. Various systems use it for various things so it's not really possible to give a general answer beyond "it lets the ECU know when the spark plugs fire, so that it can do nice things".
I'm sure many other companies besides Ford and Toyota have a lot of other interesting things that they do with feedback signals from ignition coils.
There's *tons* of further reading. If you've got time, just start going through the citation lists from the patents linked above. Everything you've ever wanted to know about every ignition control system that has ever existed should be there somewhere, so have fun. | The ignition confirmation signal is a comeback signal to the ECM. This tells the computer a successful spark has occurred: the coil has launched it's goods. When the signal fails, the computer knows there's an issue with the coil or the ignition circuit and will send a fault code, then notify the driver with the glorious check engine light. |
35,128 | [Today I learnt](https://mechanics.stackexchange.com/q/35109/675) that some engine management setups demand a feedback signal from the ignition coil.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/U9OMr.jpg)
What does it do with the signal though? Is it just for diagnostics? | 2016/08/12 | [
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com/questions/35128",
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com",
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com/users/675/"
] | [Pแดแดสsแดแดส2's answer is pretty much correct](https://mechanics.stackexchange.com/a/35129/9884), at least for Toyotas (the linked post in the OP was for a Lexus aka Toyota). Here is some extra detail. Also "feedback" is used for different things in different ignition systems.
Toyota/Lexus (Catalytic Converter Overheat Protection):
-------------------------------------------------------
[This is from the official coursebook for Toyota's EFI/TCCS training course #850](http://web.archive.org/web/20100114074256/http://autoshop101.com/forms/h23.pdf):
>
> **Spark Confirmation IGf**
>
>
> Once a spark event takes place, an ignition confirmation signal called IGf is generated by the igniter and sent to the ECU. The IGf signal tells the ECU that a spark event has actually occurred. In the event of an ignition fault, after approximately eight to eleven IGt signals are sent to the igniter without receiving an IGf confirmation, the ECU will enter a fail-safe mode, shutting down the injectors to prevent potential catalyst overheating.
>
>
>
Later, in the chapter summary, it once again states:
>
> An ignition confirmation signal is generated by the igniter which signals the ECU with each ignition event. The IGf signal is used to provide the ECU with a fail-safe fuel cutoff if ignition spark is lost.
>
>
>
So this directly states the primary purpose:
* To let the ECU cut fuel if a spark plug stops firing, for the express purpose of preventing unburnt fuel from overheating the catalytic converter.
The question the OP linked to confirms fuel-injector cut after nine missed confirmations (you can see it in [the scope output](https://i.stack.imgur.com/dDa90.jpg)), just as the description from the coursebook states. We can only conjecture why it keeps firing anyways - my personal theory is since it's primary goal is to prevent catalyst overheating from unburnt fuel, it just gives it periodic breaks then continues to retry, but it could also just be your everyday limp mode bouncing around at an RPM cutoff point. Or it could be smart enough to say "OK, since *every* igniter is failing to respond, maybe something else is going on and the coils still work". I mean; really, there's plenty of good reasons to cut the fuel injectors, but not really any great reasons to cut the spark plugs, so why not just keep going (the real question there is probably "why do the fuel injectors resume" rather than "why do the spark plugs continue to fire", but now we're straying). Who knows. Doesn't matter though, the purpose is clear at least.
Now, from that, we can also infer some secondary purposes, or at least nice obvious side-effects:
* To provide a technician with valuable diagnostics info (pretty convenient when the car just tells you that there's an issue in cylinder 3's coil or whatever).
* To provide the vehicle owner with valuable feedback (i.e. turn on the CEL, time to go to the shop).
Ford (Dwell Control):
---------------------
It's worth noting that **the above was Toyota-specific**. For example, Ford has a patent on a feedback-based dwell control system:
* [US Patent 4933861](https://www.google.com/patents/US4933861), and
* [US Patent 5043900](https://www.google.com/patents/US5043900), a continuation of 4933861.
These were filed in 1990 and therefore expired in 2004 (when it presumably became available for others to use).
In this system, consider a possible initial state (pre-dwell corrected) of a coil charging mechanism:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/QaJGC.png)
Here, current is sent to the coil. There's the initial charge time, but then the dwell is too long and so there's a delay before discharge. Also the spark timing is too late, because it took time for the coil to charge. So you add the feedback signal (Fig. 1C above), which goes low when the ignition signal is received, and high when the coil is charged.
Now the ECU knows exactly how long it takes to charge a given ignition coil, and can make corrections to the dwell time, and offset the ignition commands as well, allowing the ECU to start charging the coils far enough ahead of time so that the actual discharge (spark) happens exactly when it should:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/ahX2g.png)
And the big advantage of this over a "hard-coded" dwell time is the ability to adjust to the current conditions of the environment and ignition coils, in real time, while maintaining precise spark timing.
It's entirely possible that vehicles after 2004 used this system since the patent expired.
And of course in addition to the dwell correction we still get the diagnostics benefits here.
There are some related patents as well (and probably more):
* Ford, [EP 0390314 A2](http://google.com/patents/EP0390314A2), describes a timing offset system based on back-EMF.
* Toyota, [EP 0350894 A2](http://google.com/patents/EP0350894A2?cl=en), which I've included just because it's interesting. This describes a non-feedback-based system with a similar goal which attempts to correct spark timing by predicting when the next TDC will occur.
These were all filed around the same time in the late 80's and early 90's, it looks like there was probably a big patent rush for ignition timing control systems. I'm sure the lawyers and engineers in all those ignition system labs were consuming inordinately large amounts of coffee during that time period.
Ford (Dwell Control + Pre-ionization):
--------------------------------------
So the above Ford patent was filed in 1990 and expired in 2004. There is a newer Ford patent, filed in 2009, which builds off of it:
* [US 8490598: Ignition coil with ionization and digital feedback for an internal combustion engine](https://www.google.com/patents/US8490598)
This patent describes the same dwell control system, but also includes some sort of pre-charge phase that can detect pre-ignition or fouled spark plugs. It looks pretty cool, but since this answer is already so long and this patent rabbit hole is virtually bottomless, I have to cut myself off here, but you can read more about it there.
Further Reading:
----------------
Basically, there's a lot of uses for feedback from the ignition coils in general. Various systems use it for various things so it's not really possible to give a general answer beyond "it lets the ECU know when the spark plugs fire, so that it can do nice things".
I'm sure many other companies besides Ford and Toyota have a lot of other interesting things that they do with feedback signals from ignition coils.
There's *tons* of further reading. If you've got time, just start going through the citation lists from the patents linked above. Everything you've ever wanted to know about every ignition control system that has ever existed should be there somewhere, so have fun. | There's a still from this [ScannerDanner video](https://youtu.be/VG3EZJlyjl8?t=44s), which says the following regarding a 1991 Toyota:
>
> Primary circuit is turned off when the ECU sends a signal to the ignitor on the IGT wire. At the same time, the ignitor sends an IGF signal to the ECU. The ECU feeds voltage to the IGF circuit. The ground for this voltage is momentarily cut when the primary circuit is turned off. The ECU monitors the IGF signal and detects if the primary was switched on and off. After sending a command to turn off the primary circuit on the IGT wire, the ECU monitors the IGF circuit to ensure primary switching occurred.
>
>
>
So it is a confirmation for the engine management that the primary circuit pulsed on/off as expected. |
118 | I'd like to make my site accessible to people that have the [iPad](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IPad) or other [iOS](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IOS_%28Apple%29) devices.
What considerations do I need to take into account when designing a user interface that is compatible with the iPad or iOS in general? | 2010/08/10 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/118",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/103/"
] | Check out [Jakon Nielsen's thoughts on the issue](http://www.useit.com/alertbox/ipad.html). The [video linked at the bottom](http://www.telegraph.co.uk/technology/apple/7746134/Apple-iPad-apps-need-more-consistency-says-usability-guru.html) is only 3 minutes long and is interesting, if not directly useful.
General thoughts (no facts to back this up other than personal experience):
* If you need to fall back to a design for another platform, fall back to PC designs, NOT iPod designs. If you can get your hands on an iPad (soon), try browsing the default Amazon.com on iPad. It falls back to the default iPod Touch/iPhone UI, which has horizontal-fill buttons with text at the far right, and is basically unusable.
* It's easier to see small things than it is to click them. In my own experience, most text that is readable is not clickable, and I often need to zoom in on links (ie on Wikipedia).
* Test your designs in both portrait and landscape!
* Moving your hands around takes slightly more physical energy (and is less precise) than moving your mouse around.
* Using multiple tabs is more difficult than with PC (though probably easier than with iPhone). Links that take the user away from the site will probably do just that; don't expect them back any time soon.
* Accidental taps are more common than accidental clicks.
* Typing (even for search) is more difficult than with a keyboard.
* Embedded YouTube videos work.
* Remember the user base that buys iPads and design for them.
* **Update:** There are other web browsers. 95% of users probably use Mobile Safari, but it might be worth testing in a couple others. For example, I just discovered Stack Exchange sites don't work (can't post questions) in [Atomic Web Browser](http://atomicwebbrowser.com/).
Good luck! | Elements need to be bigger than on a desktop app, because the finger is less precise than the mouse.
Having used some graphics apps lately I have seen that it can be very hard to place objects accurately with your fingers because they obscure the object you are moving. One way to fix this which it seems like apple did is to begin move only after you have moved the finger some, so it is no longer on top of the object you move.
Multiple select is very troublesome at the moment. I don't like the apple approach of tap one object with one finger and tap multiple object with the other to create a multiple selection. It falls apart once you need more than 4-5 objects. Drag select might work better. E.g. tab a selection tool first and then drag select multiple objects. |
118 | I'd like to make my site accessible to people that have the [iPad](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IPad) or other [iOS](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IOS_%28Apple%29) devices.
What considerations do I need to take into account when designing a user interface that is compatible with the iPad or iOS in general? | 2010/08/10 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/118",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/103/"
] | This applies more to your general UI question:
Think "touch, don't click." How would you (or your potential clients) use the app with their **hands**? There is a fundamental difference between pointing at something with a mouse and pointing at something with your hand. Perhaps make the most important controls on the side so people can reach them easily? Experiment with different wire frames and ask people to assess the ease of use. User testing early in the process can greatly help refining your design. | Two more issue I wanted to add, especially regarding adapting a an existing site or application rather than designing a new one - these might seem trivial, but still:
* Make sure your site or application don't reply on mouse over actions (like tooltips)
* Remember there's no right click (less common on the web, but sometimes found in web apps) |
118 | I'd like to make my site accessible to people that have the [iPad](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IPad) or other [iOS](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IOS_%28Apple%29) devices.
What considerations do I need to take into account when designing a user interface that is compatible with the iPad or iOS in general? | 2010/08/10 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/118",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/103/"
] | I wrote a [blog](http://www.8164.org/designing-for-the-ipad/) on things to watch for when designing sites that are optimized/ready for the iPad. You may find it useful. | Two more issue I wanted to add, especially regarding adapting a an existing site or application rather than designing a new one - these might seem trivial, but still:
* Make sure your site or application don't reply on mouse over actions (like tooltips)
* Remember there's no right click (less common on the web, but sometimes found in web apps) |
118 | I'd like to make my site accessible to people that have the [iPad](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IPad) or other [iOS](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IOS_%28Apple%29) devices.
What considerations do I need to take into account when designing a user interface that is compatible with the iPad or iOS in general? | 2010/08/10 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/118",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/103/"
] | I wrote a [blog](http://www.8164.org/designing-for-the-ipad/) on things to watch for when designing sites that are optimized/ready for the iPad. You may find it useful. | Elements need to be bigger than on a desktop app, because the finger is less precise than the mouse.
Having used some graphics apps lately I have seen that it can be very hard to place objects accurately with your fingers because they obscure the object you are moving. One way to fix this which it seems like apple did is to begin move only after you have moved the finger some, so it is no longer on top of the object you move.
Multiple select is very troublesome at the moment. I don't like the apple approach of tap one object with one finger and tap multiple object with the other to create a multiple selection. It falls apart once you need more than 4-5 objects. Drag select might work better. E.g. tab a selection tool first and then drag select multiple objects. |
118 | I'd like to make my site accessible to people that have the [iPad](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IPad) or other [iOS](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IOS_%28Apple%29) devices.
What considerations do I need to take into account when designing a user interface that is compatible with the iPad or iOS in general? | 2010/08/10 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/118",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/103/"
] | This applies more to your general UI question:
Think "touch, don't click." How would you (or your potential clients) use the app with their **hands**? There is a fundamental difference between pointing at something with a mouse and pointing at something with your hand. Perhaps make the most important controls on the side so people can reach them easily? Experiment with different wire frames and ask people to assess the ease of use. User testing early in the process can greatly help refining your design. | I wrote a [blog](http://www.8164.org/designing-for-the-ipad/) on things to watch for when designing sites that are optimized/ready for the iPad. You may find it useful. |
118 | I'd like to make my site accessible to people that have the [iPad](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IPad) or other [iOS](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IOS_%28Apple%29) devices.
What considerations do I need to take into account when designing a user interface that is compatible with the iPad or iOS in general? | 2010/08/10 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/118",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/103/"
] | Check out [Jakon Nielsen's thoughts on the issue](http://www.useit.com/alertbox/ipad.html). The [video linked at the bottom](http://www.telegraph.co.uk/technology/apple/7746134/Apple-iPad-apps-need-more-consistency-says-usability-guru.html) is only 3 minutes long and is interesting, if not directly useful.
General thoughts (no facts to back this up other than personal experience):
* If you need to fall back to a design for another platform, fall back to PC designs, NOT iPod designs. If you can get your hands on an iPad (soon), try browsing the default Amazon.com on iPad. It falls back to the default iPod Touch/iPhone UI, which has horizontal-fill buttons with text at the far right, and is basically unusable.
* It's easier to see small things than it is to click them. In my own experience, most text that is readable is not clickable, and I often need to zoom in on links (ie on Wikipedia).
* Test your designs in both portrait and landscape!
* Moving your hands around takes slightly more physical energy (and is less precise) than moving your mouse around.
* Using multiple tabs is more difficult than with PC (though probably easier than with iPhone). Links that take the user away from the site will probably do just that; don't expect them back any time soon.
* Accidental taps are more common than accidental clicks.
* Typing (even for search) is more difficult than with a keyboard.
* Embedded YouTube videos work.
* Remember the user base that buys iPads and design for them.
* **Update:** There are other web browsers. 95% of users probably use Mobile Safari, but it might be worth testing in a couple others. For example, I just discovered Stack Exchange sites don't work (can't post questions) in [Atomic Web Browser](http://atomicwebbrowser.com/).
Good luck! | This applies more to your general UI question:
Think "touch, don't click." How would you (or your potential clients) use the app with their **hands**? There is a fundamental difference between pointing at something with a mouse and pointing at something with your hand. Perhaps make the most important controls on the side so people can reach them easily? Experiment with different wire frames and ask people to assess the ease of use. User testing early in the process can greatly help refining your design. |
118 | I'd like to make my site accessible to people that have the [iPad](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IPad) or other [iOS](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IOS_%28Apple%29) devices.
What considerations do I need to take into account when designing a user interface that is compatible with the iPad or iOS in general? | 2010/08/10 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/118",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/103/"
] | This applies more to your general UI question:
Think "touch, don't click." How would you (or your potential clients) use the app with their **hands**? There is a fundamental difference between pointing at something with a mouse and pointing at something with your hand. Perhaps make the most important controls on the side so people can reach them easily? Experiment with different wire frames and ask people to assess the ease of use. User testing early in the process can greatly help refining your design. | Don't forget about the screen size and different possible layouts: [iPad CSS Layout with landscape / portrait orientation modes](http://matthewjamestaylor.com/blog/ipad-layout-with-landscape-portrait-modes) |
118 | I'd like to make my site accessible to people that have the [iPad](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IPad) or other [iOS](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IOS_%28Apple%29) devices.
What considerations do I need to take into account when designing a user interface that is compatible with the iPad or iOS in general? | 2010/08/10 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/118",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/103/"
] | The iPad was designed to browse the web. The big screen makes it possible to view the entire webpage width. So the design for the webpage should be fine on an iPad.
For the iPhone, iPod Touch, you could consider making a different design, creating an UI similar to native iPhone apps. There are tools you can use, to make this possible, but it will be a lot of work. Check out [Sencha Touch](http://www.sencha.com/products/touch/), which can be used for iPads as well.
If you don't want to use something like Sencha Touch, another thing that you have to consider is that user interaction is quite different with these devices. They are touch based and not mouse based. An example is hover effects wont work with a touch based device. Also mouse clicks is different from the tap inaction that the browser on iOS capture. This means that you can improve user interaction, by customizing the JavaScript you use for iOS to make it more native and intuitive.
Apple has also made a [Human Interface Guide](http://developer.apple.com/iphone/library/documentation/userexperience/conceptual/mobilehig/Introduction/Introduction.html) for their native apps on iOS. It would be a good idea to look through this, as this is what the users will expect from native apps. Having webpages that conform to this, will help them understand your site. | Elements need to be bigger than on a desktop app, because the finger is less precise than the mouse.
Having used some graphics apps lately I have seen that it can be very hard to place objects accurately with your fingers because they obscure the object you are moving. One way to fix this which it seems like apple did is to begin move only after you have moved the finger some, so it is no longer on top of the object you move.
Multiple select is very troublesome at the moment. I don't like the apple approach of tap one object with one finger and tap multiple object with the other to create a multiple selection. It falls apart once you need more than 4-5 objects. Drag select might work better. E.g. tab a selection tool first and then drag select multiple objects. |
118 | I'd like to make my site accessible to people that have the [iPad](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IPad) or other [iOS](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IOS_%28Apple%29) devices.
What considerations do I need to take into account when designing a user interface that is compatible with the iPad or iOS in general? | 2010/08/10 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/118",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/103/"
] | Don't forget about the screen size and different possible layouts: [iPad CSS Layout with landscape / portrait orientation modes](http://matthewjamestaylor.com/blog/ipad-layout-with-landscape-portrait-modes) | Elements need to be bigger than on a desktop app, because the finger is less precise than the mouse.
Having used some graphics apps lately I have seen that it can be very hard to place objects accurately with your fingers because they obscure the object you are moving. One way to fix this which it seems like apple did is to begin move only after you have moved the finger some, so it is no longer on top of the object you move.
Multiple select is very troublesome at the moment. I don't like the apple approach of tap one object with one finger and tap multiple object with the other to create a multiple selection. It falls apart once you need more than 4-5 objects. Drag select might work better. E.g. tab a selection tool first and then drag select multiple objects. |
118 | I'd like to make my site accessible to people that have the [iPad](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IPad) or other [iOS](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IOS_%28Apple%29) devices.
What considerations do I need to take into account when designing a user interface that is compatible with the iPad or iOS in general? | 2010/08/10 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/118",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/103/"
] | Check out [Jakon Nielsen's thoughts on the issue](http://www.useit.com/alertbox/ipad.html). The [video linked at the bottom](http://www.telegraph.co.uk/technology/apple/7746134/Apple-iPad-apps-need-more-consistency-says-usability-guru.html) is only 3 minutes long and is interesting, if not directly useful.
General thoughts (no facts to back this up other than personal experience):
* If you need to fall back to a design for another platform, fall back to PC designs, NOT iPod designs. If you can get your hands on an iPad (soon), try browsing the default Amazon.com on iPad. It falls back to the default iPod Touch/iPhone UI, which has horizontal-fill buttons with text at the far right, and is basically unusable.
* It's easier to see small things than it is to click them. In my own experience, most text that is readable is not clickable, and I often need to zoom in on links (ie on Wikipedia).
* Test your designs in both portrait and landscape!
* Moving your hands around takes slightly more physical energy (and is less precise) than moving your mouse around.
* Using multiple tabs is more difficult than with PC (though probably easier than with iPhone). Links that take the user away from the site will probably do just that; don't expect them back any time soon.
* Accidental taps are more common than accidental clicks.
* Typing (even for search) is more difficult than with a keyboard.
* Embedded YouTube videos work.
* Remember the user base that buys iPads and design for them.
* **Update:** There are other web browsers. 95% of users probably use Mobile Safari, but it might be worth testing in a couple others. For example, I just discovered Stack Exchange sites don't work (can't post questions) in [Atomic Web Browser](http://atomicwebbrowser.com/).
Good luck! | I wrote a [blog](http://www.8164.org/designing-for-the-ipad/) on things to watch for when designing sites that are optimized/ready for the iPad. You may find it useful. |
202,268 | In *Harry Potter and the Prisoner of Azkaban*, the Weasleys, Harry, and Hermione were staying in the Leaky Cauldron the day before they boarded Hogwarts Express (1st September).
Still in the station, Mrs. Weasley handed out their sandwiches for them from out of her handbag.
>
> "I've made you all sandwiches. Here you are, Ron... no, they're not
> corned beef... Fred? Where's Fred? Here you are, dear..."
>
>
>
I wonder where (and even when) did she manage to make them all sandwiches for their journey?
Possibilities are:
* She might have made them the day before journey, early morning at the Burrow.
* She might have requested Tom the innkeeper at the Leaky Cauldron let her use the kitchen for some time. | 2018/12/29 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/202268",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/109753/"
] | While staying at the Cauldron Molly does some shopping. It seems likely that amongst her purchases were some sliced bread and fillings.
>
> At that moment Mrs Weasley entered the bar, **laden with shopping** and
> followed by the twins, Fred and George, who were about to start their
> fifth year at Hogwarts, the newly elected Head Boy, Percy, and the
> Weasleysโ youngest child and only girl, Ginny.
>
>
>
Preparing food in her hotel room (to save money) seems like exactly the sort of money-saving idea that the notoriously thrifty Mrs Weasley would do. | They were staying at the Leaky Cauldron, feet away from the most awesome magical market in the world, Diagon Ally. Since in the statement she says she has ***made*** the sandwiches, she may have purchased the bread and other materials from any shop in the ally, but most probably brought the materials from home (given they were Weasleys).
And compiling the sandwiches probably wouldn't need a kitchen, just a quick twirl of wand and all of them are ready! |
202,929 | What's an intuitive derivation behind [ODO's definition](http://www.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/english/subsume) that helps to remember its meaning?
>
> **subsume** = [with object]
> Include or absorb (something) in something else:
>
>
> [Etymonline](http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?allowed_in_frame=0&search=subsume&searchmode=none): 1530s, from Modern Latin subsumere "to take under," from Latin **sub** "under" (see sub-) + **sumere** "to take" (see exempt (adj.)).
>
>
> | 2014/10/17 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/202929",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | This phenomenon is called "The Halo effect".
The Halo effect is an effect where the reputation or the trust of someone or something builds up so much that everything done or said by that person/thing starts appearing to be divine, and the best.
The phrase of 'Halo effect' can be used in relation to a thing as well as a person.
The opposite of 'The Halo effect' is 'The Horn effect', wherein, anything done or said by a person/thing is considered to be untrue and unbelievable.
So, the phrase that you are looking for is 'The Halo effect'. | >
> The **brand** effect
>
>
>
I am not sure this is exactly what you are looking for, but it is the closest expression that came to my mind. |
202,929 | What's an intuitive derivation behind [ODO's definition](http://www.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/english/subsume) that helps to remember its meaning?
>
> **subsume** = [with object]
> Include or absorb (something) in something else:
>
>
> [Etymonline](http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?allowed_in_frame=0&search=subsume&searchmode=none): 1530s, from Modern Latin subsumere "to take under," from Latin **sub** "under" (see sub-) + **sumere** "to take" (see exempt (adj.)).
>
>
> | 2014/10/17 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/202929",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | >
> The **brand** effect
>
>
>
I am not sure this is exactly what you are looking for, but it is the closest expression that came to my mind. | How about **cachet** ?
(M-W) Definition of cachet
* an indication of approval carrying great prestige
* a characteristic feature or quality conferring prestige
* prestige "being rich doesn't have the cachet it used to" โ Truman Capote
Though I'm not sure if this would work with "effect". I think the effect is implied, so "cachet effect" just sounds redundantly clunky.
Does Capote still have the cachet he used to?... There's a temporality that might not be a match either, but it's a bit irreverent too, so it's a fun one to use:
"Oh yes, I know what you mean; University of X is so cachet." |
202,929 | What's an intuitive derivation behind [ODO's definition](http://www.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/english/subsume) that helps to remember its meaning?
>
> **subsume** = [with object]
> Include or absorb (something) in something else:
>
>
> [Etymonline](http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?allowed_in_frame=0&search=subsume&searchmode=none): 1530s, from Modern Latin subsumere "to take under," from Latin **sub** "under" (see sub-) + **sumere** "to take" (see exempt (adj.)).
>
>
> | 2014/10/17 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/202929",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | This phenomenon is called "The Halo effect".
The Halo effect is an effect where the reputation or the trust of someone or something builds up so much that everything done or said by that person/thing starts appearing to be divine, and the best.
The phrase of 'Halo effect' can be used in relation to a thing as well as a person.
The opposite of 'The Halo effect' is 'The Horn effect', wherein, anything done or said by a person/thing is considered to be untrue and unbelievable.
So, the phrase that you are looking for is 'The Halo effect'. | How about **cachet** ?
(M-W) Definition of cachet
* an indication of approval carrying great prestige
* a characteristic feature or quality conferring prestige
* prestige "being rich doesn't have the cachet it used to" โ Truman Capote
Though I'm not sure if this would work with "effect". I think the effect is implied, so "cachet effect" just sounds redundantly clunky.
Does Capote still have the cachet he used to?... There's a temporality that might not be a match either, but it's a bit irreverent too, so it's a fun one to use:
"Oh yes, I know what you mean; University of X is so cachet." |
7,176 | I've seen this come up a few times and I'm not sure what to think about it. Fact is, if you're so inclined, you can force a post to CW by repeatedly editing it (when you don't own it).
Is this abuse? | 2009/07/20 | [
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/7176",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/18393/"
] | Since *by definition* edits to other people's non-CW posts require 2,000 rep, I would say that this is not technically abuse -- but **I do not condone** editing someone's post with the express purpose of converting it to wiki, and if I see users doing this repeatedly as a matter of course and with intent, there will be consequences.
(Also: since there are so many ridiculous complaints about this, I am reducing the CW threshold from 750 rep to 100 rep, effective immediately.) | Yes, that would be an abuse of CW. The purpose of CW is so more people can edit, and more people editing will cause it to go to CW. |
7,176 | I've seen this come up a few times and I'm not sure what to think about it. Fact is, if you're so inclined, you can force a post to CW by repeatedly editing it (when you don't own it).
Is this abuse? | 2009/07/20 | [
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/7176",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/18393/"
] | This happened to me. The specific instance was my answer on the Wedding Cake Code thread. Because I didn't immediately switch my answer over to CW status, people decided to go in and edit it repeatedly until it automatically switched. I do infact consider this abusive behavior. | Yes, that would be an abuse of CW. The purpose of CW is so more people can edit, and more people editing will cause it to go to CW. |
7,176 | I've seen this come up a few times and I'm not sure what to think about it. Fact is, if you're so inclined, you can force a post to CW by repeatedly editing it (when you don't own it).
Is this abuse? | 2009/07/20 | [
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/7176",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/18393/"
] | Since *by definition* edits to other people's non-CW posts require 2,000 rep, I would say that this is not technically abuse -- but **I do not condone** editing someone's post with the express purpose of converting it to wiki, and if I see users doing this repeatedly as a matter of course and with intent, there will be consequences.
(Also: since there are so many ridiculous complaints about this, I am reducing the CW threshold from 750 rep to 100 rep, effective immediately.) | This happened to me. The specific instance was my answer on the Wedding Cake Code thread. Because I didn't immediately switch my answer over to CW status, people decided to go in and edit it repeatedly until it automatically switched. I do infact consider this abusive behavior. |
7,176 | I've seen this come up a few times and I'm not sure what to think about it. Fact is, if you're so inclined, you can force a post to CW by repeatedly editing it (when you don't own it).
Is this abuse? | 2009/07/20 | [
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/7176",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/18393/"
] | Since *by definition* edits to other people's non-CW posts require 2,000 rep, I would say that this is not technically abuse -- but **I do not condone** editing someone's post with the express purpose of converting it to wiki, and if I see users doing this repeatedly as a matter of course and with intent, there will be consequences.
(Also: since there are so many ridiculous complaints about this, I am reducing the CW threshold from 750 rep to 100 rep, effective immediately.) | Pretty sure i did this to a sofaq question at one point. Heh, pretty sure i did it to a sofaq *answer* as well, during a period on SO where the CW checkbox was unavailable to the author after an answer had been posted.
Didn't consider it abuse then; it was a popular, useful, and completely off-topic Q&A that benefited immensely from multiple authors - the perfect use for CW.
If you're just editing arbitrary questions to force them into CW mode... then that should probably be considered abusive. Heck, if you're just editing arbitrary questions without adding anything of value via your edits, then that's abusive. Edits should have a purpose, and "vendetta against the author" isn't a good one.
But even if you strongly believe a question *should* be CW (discussion/subjective/GTKY/whatever), please don't use this technique to force it. It's potentially confusing (why all these edits in the revision history?), and worse yet it's not terribly effective: answers aren't made CW when the question they're attached to is forced into that mode by repeated editing. So you end up in the situation where early answers collect reputation for their authors, while later ones (and the question itself) do not. FGITW may be a Good Thing when it comes to fast answers to technical questions, but there's probably no point in rewarding it for discussion/GTKY questions. |
7,176 | I've seen this come up a few times and I'm not sure what to think about it. Fact is, if you're so inclined, you can force a post to CW by repeatedly editing it (when you don't own it).
Is this abuse? | 2009/07/20 | [
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/7176",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/18393/"
] | This happened to me. The specific instance was my answer on the Wedding Cake Code thread. Because I didn't immediately switch my answer over to CW status, people decided to go in and edit it repeatedly until it automatically switched. I do infact consider this abusive behavior. | Pretty sure i did this to a sofaq question at one point. Heh, pretty sure i did it to a sofaq *answer* as well, during a period on SO where the CW checkbox was unavailable to the author after an answer had been posted.
Didn't consider it abuse then; it was a popular, useful, and completely off-topic Q&A that benefited immensely from multiple authors - the perfect use for CW.
If you're just editing arbitrary questions to force them into CW mode... then that should probably be considered abusive. Heck, if you're just editing arbitrary questions without adding anything of value via your edits, then that's abusive. Edits should have a purpose, and "vendetta against the author" isn't a good one.
But even if you strongly believe a question *should* be CW (discussion/subjective/GTKY/whatever), please don't use this technique to force it. It's potentially confusing (why all these edits in the revision history?), and worse yet it's not terribly effective: answers aren't made CW when the question they're attached to is forced into that mode by repeated editing. So you end up in the situation where early answers collect reputation for their authors, while later ones (and the question itself) do not. FGITW may be a Good Thing when it comes to fast answers to technical questions, but there's probably no point in rewarding it for discussion/GTKY questions. |
36,313 | I am a bit confused by Tokyo Ghoul season 2's ending. Why was Hide bitten, and by who or what? Was it in that "war"? Or did Kaneki bite him?
And why did Yomo stop Touka when she was running to Kaneki (it was at the moment when he was carrying Hide)? Was it just because he did not wanted to let her be killed? Or was it something deeper? | 2016/09/12 | [
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/questions/36313",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/users/28229/"
] | Sadly, anime sacrifices a lots of plot details from manga in sake of 12ep seasons, so numerous things are just not explained. I've abandoned anime at around half of first season, so I will reference manga as explanation.
In a nutshell, main reason why Yomo stopped Touka was because he didn't wanted her to be killed indeed. He referenced this as "his last job in Anteiku". From all the talking of Yomo in manga Ch. 130, I assume, that main reason for Touka to say alive is that she can keep helping ghouls, who has lost their way in life, just like Anteiku crew were doing before.
Regarding Hide, it was heavily implied in chapters 136-137 of original manga, that Kaneki ate him. But Hide offered this by himself, since he knew that Arima is awaiting for Kaneki (and Kaneki was unable to resist his hunger, since he was in half-kakuja form). Maybe, in anime adaptation, events are slightly different, but outcome is same - Hide sacrificed his life to feed Kaneki, so Kaneki can heal his wounds and restore his power. | In the anime Hide gets shot. He finds Kaneki outside injured and brings him to the cafe. When Kaneki wakes up Hide and him have a talk just about regular things. Hide then falls to the ground after bleeding, but then smiles and looks up to him. The cafe starts to burn down and they escape. Kaneki then takes him and brings him to where most of the police/ ghoul investigators are and lays him on the ground. After that it looks one of the ghoul investigators (Arima) is going to try to fight him. Its clear in anime that Kaneki doesn't eat Hide, and gets killed by Arima. Thats all I remember but hopefully it helps! |
36,313 | I am a bit confused by Tokyo Ghoul season 2's ending. Why was Hide bitten, and by who or what? Was it in that "war"? Or did Kaneki bite him?
And why did Yomo stop Touka when she was running to Kaneki (it was at the moment when he was carrying Hide)? Was it just because he did not wanted to let her be killed? Or was it something deeper? | 2016/09/12 | [
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/questions/36313",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/users/28229/"
] | Sadly, anime sacrifices a lots of plot details from manga in sake of 12ep seasons, so numerous things are just not explained. I've abandoned anime at around half of first season, so I will reference manga as explanation.
In a nutshell, main reason why Yomo stopped Touka was because he didn't wanted her to be killed indeed. He referenced this as "his last job in Anteiku". From all the talking of Yomo in manga Ch. 130, I assume, that main reason for Touka to say alive is that she can keep helping ghouls, who has lost their way in life, just like Anteiku crew were doing before.
Regarding Hide, it was heavily implied in chapters 136-137 of original manga, that Kaneki ate him. But Hide offered this by himself, since he knew that Arima is awaiting for Kaneki (and Kaneki was unable to resist his hunger, since he was in half-kakuja form). Maybe, in anime adaptation, events are slightly different, but outcome is same - Hide sacrificed his life to feed Kaneki, so Kaneki can heal his wounds and restore his power. | In the anime, Takizawa's ending is death by Noro. Hide witnesses that, and gasps, alerting Noro's attention to him. When we next see Hide, he is wounded, meaning Noro attacked him. Unlike the manga, Kaneki had nothing to do with Hide's wounds.
Yomo stopped Touka mostly out of paternal feeling(he is her uncle) but it is a well know fact that Kaneki has severe PTSD, and also well know to the ANtieku crew how much Hide meant to him(Kaneki). So I'm assuming that Yomo wanted Kaneki to have as much time as possible left with his friend, seeing as Hide is dead or dyeing.(Sorry to those who were in denial) It is also apparent throughout both manga and anime that Yomo feels fatherly towards Kaneki, so he may have understood that in times like these, leave him alone. I do agree with lentinant however, he definitely wants to protect Touka, though his last job was actually the manager's last orders: If I fall, burn Antieku so that none may trace it back to you. Basically the manager had Yomo get rid of the evidence that there were ghouls at Antieku. Hope this helps. |
36,313 | I am a bit confused by Tokyo Ghoul season 2's ending. Why was Hide bitten, and by who or what? Was it in that "war"? Or did Kaneki bite him?
And why did Yomo stop Touka when she was running to Kaneki (it was at the moment when he was carrying Hide)? Was it just because he did not wanted to let her be killed? Or was it something deeper? | 2016/09/12 | [
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/questions/36313",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/users/28229/"
] | Sadly, anime sacrifices a lots of plot details from manga in sake of 12ep seasons, so numerous things are just not explained. I've abandoned anime at around half of first season, so I will reference manga as explanation.
In a nutshell, main reason why Yomo stopped Touka was because he didn't wanted her to be killed indeed. He referenced this as "his last job in Anteiku". From all the talking of Yomo in manga Ch. 130, I assume, that main reason for Touka to say alive is that she can keep helping ghouls, who has lost their way in life, just like Anteiku crew were doing before.
Regarding Hide, it was heavily implied in chapters 136-137 of original manga, that Kaneki ate him. But Hide offered this by himself, since he knew that Arima is awaiting for Kaneki (and Kaneki was unable to resist his hunger, since he was in half-kakuja form). Maybe, in anime adaptation, events are slightly different, but outcome is same - Hide sacrificed his life to feed Kaneki, so Kaneki can heal his wounds and restore his power. | In *Root A*, there's a scene where Hide walking down a street dying, but not yet dead as you can catch a glimpse of him smiling when Kaneki checking on him. Likely, Kaneki went to the CCG and gave up his life for Hide's medical treatment. |
36,313 | I am a bit confused by Tokyo Ghoul season 2's ending. Why was Hide bitten, and by who or what? Was it in that "war"? Or did Kaneki bite him?
And why did Yomo stop Touka when she was running to Kaneki (it was at the moment when he was carrying Hide)? Was it just because he did not wanted to let her be killed? Or was it something deeper? | 2016/09/12 | [
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/questions/36313",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/users/28229/"
] | In the anime, Takizawa's ending is death by Noro. Hide witnesses that, and gasps, alerting Noro's attention to him. When we next see Hide, he is wounded, meaning Noro attacked him. Unlike the manga, Kaneki had nothing to do with Hide's wounds.
Yomo stopped Touka mostly out of paternal feeling(he is her uncle) but it is a well know fact that Kaneki has severe PTSD, and also well know to the ANtieku crew how much Hide meant to him(Kaneki). So I'm assuming that Yomo wanted Kaneki to have as much time as possible left with his friend, seeing as Hide is dead or dyeing.(Sorry to those who were in denial) It is also apparent throughout both manga and anime that Yomo feels fatherly towards Kaneki, so he may have understood that in times like these, leave him alone. I do agree with lentinant however, he definitely wants to protect Touka, though his last job was actually the manager's last orders: If I fall, burn Antieku so that none may trace it back to you. Basically the manager had Yomo get rid of the evidence that there were ghouls at Antieku. Hope this helps. | In the anime Hide gets shot. He finds Kaneki outside injured and brings him to the cafe. When Kaneki wakes up Hide and him have a talk just about regular things. Hide then falls to the ground after bleeding, but then smiles and looks up to him. The cafe starts to burn down and they escape. Kaneki then takes him and brings him to where most of the police/ ghoul investigators are and lays him on the ground. After that it looks one of the ghoul investigators (Arima) is going to try to fight him. Its clear in anime that Kaneki doesn't eat Hide, and gets killed by Arima. Thats all I remember but hopefully it helps! |
36,313 | I am a bit confused by Tokyo Ghoul season 2's ending. Why was Hide bitten, and by who or what? Was it in that "war"? Or did Kaneki bite him?
And why did Yomo stop Touka when she was running to Kaneki (it was at the moment when he was carrying Hide)? Was it just because he did not wanted to let her be killed? Or was it something deeper? | 2016/09/12 | [
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/questions/36313",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/users/28229/"
] | In *Root A*, there's a scene where Hide walking down a street dying, but not yet dead as you can catch a glimpse of him smiling when Kaneki checking on him. Likely, Kaneki went to the CCG and gave up his life for Hide's medical treatment. | In the anime Hide gets shot. He finds Kaneki outside injured and brings him to the cafe. When Kaneki wakes up Hide and him have a talk just about regular things. Hide then falls to the ground after bleeding, but then smiles and looks up to him. The cafe starts to burn down and they escape. Kaneki then takes him and brings him to where most of the police/ ghoul investigators are and lays him on the ground. After that it looks one of the ghoul investigators (Arima) is going to try to fight him. Its clear in anime that Kaneki doesn't eat Hide, and gets killed by Arima. Thats all I remember but hopefully it helps! |
36,313 | I am a bit confused by Tokyo Ghoul season 2's ending. Why was Hide bitten, and by who or what? Was it in that "war"? Or did Kaneki bite him?
And why did Yomo stop Touka when she was running to Kaneki (it was at the moment when he was carrying Hide)? Was it just because he did not wanted to let her be killed? Or was it something deeper? | 2016/09/12 | [
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/questions/36313",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/users/28229/"
] | In the anime, Takizawa's ending is death by Noro. Hide witnesses that, and gasps, alerting Noro's attention to him. When we next see Hide, he is wounded, meaning Noro attacked him. Unlike the manga, Kaneki had nothing to do with Hide's wounds.
Yomo stopped Touka mostly out of paternal feeling(he is her uncle) but it is a well know fact that Kaneki has severe PTSD, and also well know to the ANtieku crew how much Hide meant to him(Kaneki). So I'm assuming that Yomo wanted Kaneki to have as much time as possible left with his friend, seeing as Hide is dead or dyeing.(Sorry to those who were in denial) It is also apparent throughout both manga and anime that Yomo feels fatherly towards Kaneki, so he may have understood that in times like these, leave him alone. I do agree with lentinant however, he definitely wants to protect Touka, though his last job was actually the manager's last orders: If I fall, burn Antieku so that none may trace it back to you. Basically the manager had Yomo get rid of the evidence that there were ghouls at Antieku. Hope this helps. | In *Root A*, there's a scene where Hide walking down a street dying, but not yet dead as you can catch a glimpse of him smiling when Kaneki checking on him. Likely, Kaneki went to the CCG and gave up his life for Hide's medical treatment. |
122,382 | ### Backgound
I currently work in the Southcoast in the UK for my employer. They are shutting our site (my contracted place of work) and making the whole workforce redundant and moving the site to Oxford.
They are making us all redundant because they do not think it is reasonable to expect anyone to travel from Brighton to Oxford (which is fine).
Now under our 1-2-1 consultations, my work has asked to see if I can come back as a Contractor for a few months on a Project we have left, starting a month after we have left (I work in IT).
The new role will be based in their London Office and I can work from home some days and they want me to start a month after I have been made redundant (So i wont leave the Friday and return Monday).
So I have been investigating this, and obviously found things like:
* IR35 and the many rules around being classed as an employee with said company.
* Coming back to my current work place, I could be liable to pay tax on my redundancy if I'm not careful.
* My role is being made redundant because my place of work is being shutdown. They are not replacing my role with any FT employees at the new site in Oxford.
### Advice
Is there anything else I need to consider or be careful on here or advice people have? I haven't made a decision yet, because my redundancy package is really good (Well over statutory) and I have been at the company a while, so my redundancy payment is over ยฃ30,000 (the excess I'm putting into my pension), so in don't want to risk paying the tax on the ยฃ30,000. | 2018/11/09 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/122382",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/57625/"
] | >
> IR35 and the many rules around being classed as an employee with said company.
>
>
>
This would potentially be a concern, a good accountant with experience in the contracting market will be able to advise you on this aspect (and you can also get IR35 insurance to be safe). The expected IR35 crackdown in the most recent budget (for FY2019) didn't happen which helps, and assuming the contract is worded appropriately you should be able to protect yourself.
>
> Coming back to my current work place, I could be liable to pay tax on my redundancy if I'm not careful.
>
>
>
&
>
> My role is being made redundant because my place of work is being shutdown. They are not replacing my role with any FT employees at the new site in Oxford.
>
>
>
IANL but there's nothing about your situation that will cause you to get taxed on it. The ยฃ30k tax-free allowance will still apply. What you're likely conflating is that fact that if your redundancy was "synthetic" (i.e. you started back in the same role and the same employer straight away) then you'd be considered **not** to have been made redundant. Given that you'll be "returning" as a contractor a month later and to a different site and position you'll be fine. | First rule of contracting - get yourself an accountant. Thatโs all that *you* need to know โ *they* know the rest.
I wrote a very long and detailed answer, but on reflection, the sentence above is all you need, so I deleted the rest.
It helps if the accountant has dealt with software contractors. There are plenty around. I canโt name mine here (site rules), but if you contact me in chat, I will give you contact details.
Relax, and let the professionals take over . For every pound you give them, they will save you ten (minimum). You have landed on your feet. |
3,849,060 | when i click on asp buttons it is giving me error as "The state information is invalid for this page and might be corrupted."
on searching for this error,someone told me that viewstate is storing large amount of data.
so i want to compress the viewstate.
can anybody tell me how to compress the viewstate in asp.net project c# 3.5 | 2010/10/03 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3849060",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/432797/"
] | look at this <http://www.codeproject.com/KB/viewstate/ViewStateCompression.aspx> :) | You need to make use of a Compression Manager.
[This](http://www.dotnetcurry.com/ShowArticle.aspx?ID=67) article does a good job of showing how to create a Compression Manager to compress Viewstate. |
409,955 | Does heavy use of unit tests discourage the use of debug asserts? It seems like a debug assert firing in the code under test implies the unit test shouldn't exist or the debug assert shouldn't exist. "There can be only one" seems like a reasonable principle. Is this the common practice? Or do you disable your debug asserts when unit testing, so they can be around for integration testing?
Edit: I updated 'Assert' to debug assert to distinguish an assert in the code under test from the lines in the unit test that check state after the test has run.
Also here is an example that I believe shows the dilema:
A unit test passes invalid inputs for a protected function that asserts it's inputs are valid. Should the unit test not exist? It's not a public function. Perhaps checking the inputs would kill perf? Or should the assert not exist? The function is protected not private so it should be checking it's inputs for safety. | 2009/01/03 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/409955",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/3892/"
] | A good unit test setup will have the ability to catch asserts. If an assert is triggered the current test should fail and the next is run.
In our libraries low-level debug functionality such as TTY/ASSERTS have handlers that are called. The default handler will printf/break, but client code can install custom handlers for different behavior.
Our UnitTest framework installs its own handlers that log messages and throw exceptions on asserts. The UnitTest code will then catch these exceptions if they occur and log them as an fail, along with the asserted statement.
You can also include assert testing in your unit test - e.g.
CHECK\_ASSERT(someList.getAt(someList.size() + 1); // test passes if an assert occurs | First to have both Design by Contract assertions **and** unit tests, your unit testing framework shall be able to catch the assertions. If your unit tests abort because of a DbC abort, then you simply cannot run them. The alternative here is to disable those assertions while running (read compiling) your unit tests.
Since you're testing non-public functions, what is the risk of having a function invoked with invalid argument ? Don't your unit tests cover that risk ? If you write your code following the TDD (Test-Driven Development) technique, they should.
If you really want/need those Dbc-type asserts in your code, then you can remove the unit tests that pass the invalid arguments to the methods having those asserts.
However, Dbc-type asserts can be useful in lower level functions (that is not directly invoked by the unit tests) when you have coarse-grained unit tests. |
19,211,214 | Well, I don't know what exactly is happening here, but I'll try to explain to the best of my ability.
This is what it looks like: <http://youtu.be/_zbRnYVS6yA>
So I constructed a WebView and a Toolbar for my forum view, and then I set some constraints.
I double checked the layering, and yeah, Toolbar is in front.
I came to the conclusion it's the constraints, so I'll need some help. I have little knowledge of Auto Layout and all of it's goodness.
How can I make this work? | 2013/10/06 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/19211214",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/2403927/"
] | It is because you are using a 3.5 inch iPhone simulator. If you use the 4 inch it should work. To make it work on the 3.5 select your View controller and on top select Editor -> Resolve Auto-Layout Issues -> Clear all constraints in view controller. Next remove your toolbar and re-add it. | On viewDidLoad
self.tabBarController.tabBar.translucent=NO; |
33,706 | I visited a mysterious old man at the place where he lived and worked. He told me a story then he shook my hand. I felt very strange.
I went outside of his house to clear my head. I saw a creature eating grass. It tried to butt me but when we made contact, it collapsed into a pile of cloth.
Nearby there was a family of fluffy creatures of a related species. They wandered toward me. I tried to pet them but the results were even stranger. The mother shrank into a miniature version of herself. The father became a severed human limb and the young one exploded!
This was awful! All I could think of was getting away from there. I found an animal that I thought could help. As soon as I tried to get on it, it disappeared and I found myself at the seaside.
I was disoriented and I staggered back, brushing against a mammal that had just emerged from the sea. It immediately dissolved into several pools of brown liquid that sank, foaming, into the sand.
I had to find the old man again. In my hurry I tripped over a different semi-aquatic mammal. It turned into a cake!
When I found the old man, he laughed at my distress. He snapped his fingers, said the word "uncouth," and everything was back to normal.
What on earth happened? | 2016/06/01 | [
"https://puzzling.stackexchange.com/questions/33706",
"https://puzzling.stackexchange.com",
"https://puzzling.stackexchange.com/users/18924/"
] | Building on the answer from Deusovi:
You were given the power to
>
> Create anagrams of the creatures you encountered
>
> Goat -> Toga
>
> Ewe -> Wee (Deusovi)
>
> Ram -> Arm (Deusovi)
>
> Lamb -> Blam (Deusovi)
>
> Horse -> Shore (Deusovi)
>
> Seal -> Ales
>
> Otter -> Torte
>
>
>
The title of the Puzzle is "The Puzzle that Dims a Tornado"
>
> Tornado is a cryptic hint pointing towards an anagram.
>
> Taking an Anagram of "Dims a" gives you [Midas](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Midas) who was a King from greek mythology who turned everything he touched to gold. This is the story that you were told by the old man and you appear to have gained a similar power, but you turn everything to anagrams.
>
> This suggests that the man you met was in fact [Dionysus](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dionysus) and, as Deusovi has pointed out, his magic word is an anagram of "Untouch".
>
>
> | Your hand was given the power to
>
> move a letter to the front of a word.
>
>
>
The transformations that I've gotten so far, explained:
>
> (not sure about the first one), EWE โ WEE, RAM โ ARM, LAMB โ BLAM, HORSE โ SHORE...
>
>
>
And his magic word meant
>
> UNTOUCH.
>
>
> |
33,706 | I visited a mysterious old man at the place where he lived and worked. He told me a story then he shook my hand. I felt very strange.
I went outside of his house to clear my head. I saw a creature eating grass. It tried to butt me but when we made contact, it collapsed into a pile of cloth.
Nearby there was a family of fluffy creatures of a related species. They wandered toward me. I tried to pet them but the results were even stranger. The mother shrank into a miniature version of herself. The father became a severed human limb and the young one exploded!
This was awful! All I could think of was getting away from there. I found an animal that I thought could help. As soon as I tried to get on it, it disappeared and I found myself at the seaside.
I was disoriented and I staggered back, brushing against a mammal that had just emerged from the sea. It immediately dissolved into several pools of brown liquid that sank, foaming, into the sand.
I had to find the old man again. In my hurry I tripped over a different semi-aquatic mammal. It turned into a cake!
When I found the old man, he laughed at my distress. He snapped his fingers, said the word "uncouth," and everything was back to normal.
What on earth happened? | 2016/06/01 | [
"https://puzzling.stackexchange.com/questions/33706",
"https://puzzling.stackexchange.com",
"https://puzzling.stackexchange.com/users/18924/"
] | Your hand was given the power to
>
> move a letter to the front of a word.
>
>
>
The transformations that I've gotten so far, explained:
>
> (not sure about the first one), EWE โ WEE, RAM โ ARM, LAMB โ BLAM, HORSE โ SHORE...
>
>
>
And his magic word meant
>
> UNTOUCH.
>
>
> | Design Notes- Not An Answer
---------------------------
When I make a puzzle that seems successful, I like to say a little bit about what I think made it successful in the hope that it may be useful to other puzzle-makers. Especially in this case, since the basic idea was very weak.
The accepted solution explains everything. The basic idea is:
>
> Given a clue to an animal and an anagram of the animal's name, guess the animal and the anagram.
>
>
>
That was my starting point.
>
> I happened to notice that a few farmyard animals' names had anagrams. Lamb, horse and goat.
>
>
>
I knew I had to do better than that. It had to be more interesting and more challenging. To make it more interesting, I decided to make a story out of it. To make it more challenging, I had two (simple) ideas:
>
> Make it part of the puzzle to figure out that it is about anagrams, and add some more anagrams. Adding more anagrams gives the reader more to figure out and also more clearly establishes the anagram pattern.
>
>
>
Bmyguest once advised me to make sure to give enough examples to make sure that your solution is the only one that really fits. I always try to do that. Nothing spoils a puzzle like having another solution that is almost but not quite as good as yours.
I thought of
>
> A number of anagrams of animals' names. It seemed cool to me how weirdly unrelated the names and anagrams were. The idea of turning things into their anagrams followed naturally as did the Midas thing. To make it reasonably solvable, I kept it to fairly short one-to-one anagrams organized around themes, the farm being the main one.
>
>
>
I like to start a multi-part puzzle with something hard, then something easier as a kind of "entry point" so the reader has a better idea of how to handle the hard part. That seems to be the way this one worked out.
>
> Kudos to Deusovi for getting the basic pattern as is only just since his name is an anagram.
>
>
>
The last part was the title. It is, of course, a clue to the story that inspired the story part of the puzzle and is kind of an indirect clue to how the puzzle works. I figured at any rate when someone worked out the full solution, the title would be a nice confirmation of correctness.
I was happy with the way this worked out and I hope the journey from apparent insanity to a logical sequence was an entertaining trip for the reader. I think it shows that you can construct a fun puzzle out of simple parts if they are linked in the right way. |
33,706 | I visited a mysterious old man at the place where he lived and worked. He told me a story then he shook my hand. I felt very strange.
I went outside of his house to clear my head. I saw a creature eating grass. It tried to butt me but when we made contact, it collapsed into a pile of cloth.
Nearby there was a family of fluffy creatures of a related species. They wandered toward me. I tried to pet them but the results were even stranger. The mother shrank into a miniature version of herself. The father became a severed human limb and the young one exploded!
This was awful! All I could think of was getting away from there. I found an animal that I thought could help. As soon as I tried to get on it, it disappeared and I found myself at the seaside.
I was disoriented and I staggered back, brushing against a mammal that had just emerged from the sea. It immediately dissolved into several pools of brown liquid that sank, foaming, into the sand.
I had to find the old man again. In my hurry I tripped over a different semi-aquatic mammal. It turned into a cake!
When I found the old man, he laughed at my distress. He snapped his fingers, said the word "uncouth," and everything was back to normal.
What on earth happened? | 2016/06/01 | [
"https://puzzling.stackexchange.com/questions/33706",
"https://puzzling.stackexchange.com",
"https://puzzling.stackexchange.com/users/18924/"
] | Building on the answer from Deusovi:
You were given the power to
>
> Create anagrams of the creatures you encountered
>
> Goat -> Toga
>
> Ewe -> Wee (Deusovi)
>
> Ram -> Arm (Deusovi)
>
> Lamb -> Blam (Deusovi)
>
> Horse -> Shore (Deusovi)
>
> Seal -> Ales
>
> Otter -> Torte
>
>
>
The title of the Puzzle is "The Puzzle that Dims a Tornado"
>
> Tornado is a cryptic hint pointing towards an anagram.
>
> Taking an Anagram of "Dims a" gives you [Midas](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Midas) who was a King from greek mythology who turned everything he touched to gold. This is the story that you were told by the old man and you appear to have gained a similar power, but you turn everything to anagrams.
>
> This suggests that the man you met was in fact [Dionysus](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dionysus) and, as Deusovi has pointed out, his magic word is an anagram of "Untouch".
>
>
> | Design Notes- Not An Answer
---------------------------
When I make a puzzle that seems successful, I like to say a little bit about what I think made it successful in the hope that it may be useful to other puzzle-makers. Especially in this case, since the basic idea was very weak.
The accepted solution explains everything. The basic idea is:
>
> Given a clue to an animal and an anagram of the animal's name, guess the animal and the anagram.
>
>
>
That was my starting point.
>
> I happened to notice that a few farmyard animals' names had anagrams. Lamb, horse and goat.
>
>
>
I knew I had to do better than that. It had to be more interesting and more challenging. To make it more interesting, I decided to make a story out of it. To make it more challenging, I had two (simple) ideas:
>
> Make it part of the puzzle to figure out that it is about anagrams, and add some more anagrams. Adding more anagrams gives the reader more to figure out and also more clearly establishes the anagram pattern.
>
>
>
Bmyguest once advised me to make sure to give enough examples to make sure that your solution is the only one that really fits. I always try to do that. Nothing spoils a puzzle like having another solution that is almost but not quite as good as yours.
I thought of
>
> A number of anagrams of animals' names. It seemed cool to me how weirdly unrelated the names and anagrams were. The idea of turning things into their anagrams followed naturally as did the Midas thing. To make it reasonably solvable, I kept it to fairly short one-to-one anagrams organized around themes, the farm being the main one.
>
>
>
I like to start a multi-part puzzle with something hard, then something easier as a kind of "entry point" so the reader has a better idea of how to handle the hard part. That seems to be the way this one worked out.
>
> Kudos to Deusovi for getting the basic pattern as is only just since his name is an anagram.
>
>
>
The last part was the title. It is, of course, a clue to the story that inspired the story part of the puzzle and is kind of an indirect clue to how the puzzle works. I figured at any rate when someone worked out the full solution, the title would be a nice confirmation of correctness.
I was happy with the way this worked out and I hope the journey from apparent insanity to a logical sequence was an entertaining trip for the reader. I think it shows that you can construct a fun puzzle out of simple parts if they are linked in the right way. |
41,909,765 | How can I disable the administrator from manually adding orders?
Or at least how to hide the button for adding orders just for the admin?
I've looked over the configuration tab and there's no indication that this is configurable. | 2017/01/28 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/41909765",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/365218/"
] | This will be fixed shortly and be part of 4.1.9.Final:
<https://github.com/netty/netty/pull/5766> | It seems if found the solution in this thread
<https://github.com/netty/netty-tcnative/issues/136>
I've just copied netty-tcnative-boringssl-static.jar and relinked tomcat-jni.jar to it in tomcat library directory |
29,819 | Ability to represent issues without Epics (be that a task type or bug type) in Jira Roadmaps. | 2020/06/04 | [
"https://pm.stackexchange.com/questions/29819",
"https://pm.stackexchange.com",
"https://pm.stackexchange.com/users/40865/"
] | The first step is generally validating the idea - fleshing it out from "vague idea" to something that starts to identify the benefits that you expect to get from the project. In such a step, this is no different from any project - it isn't unique to IT projects. Once you have an idea of the benefits, you can start to think about the project methods, structures, resources, and so on, which will also help you to think about the team.
As with any project, I would want to get a strong sponsor or executive to take ownership of the project and drive it forward at a senior level, gaining support from other senior managers, ensuring that it gets proper buy-in.
In terms of documenting the project, that will depend - at least in part - on the approach you plan to take to delivery. Agile methods are different from traditional waterfall methods, but are no less rigorous, in my opinion.
Try Googling "Project Initiation" to get some ideas of how to handle the process in different types of project environment.
Good luck! | For any technology project the most important first step is to get the right expertise together as a team and then let the team (which will grow over time) develop their plans and ideas. Team before plan, not plan before team.
[Scrum](http://scrum.org) is the most popular framework for software development projects and is also used for many other kinds of work. Ultimately the team will want to choose a way of working that they are comfortable with. What works for them as a team is going to be influenced by their previous experience and the organisation's culture. |
29,819 | Ability to represent issues without Epics (be that a task type or bug type) in Jira Roadmaps. | 2020/06/04 | [
"https://pm.stackexchange.com/questions/29819",
"https://pm.stackexchange.com",
"https://pm.stackexchange.com/users/40865/"
] | The "vague IT idea" is what you need to focus on. The project--how you set it up, the development method you use, who you hire for it--is irrelevant and thinking about it now is premature. Look at this way: you wake up one morning and decide it's time to modernize your kitchen. That's all you have at the moment is that you want it to change. Would you be considering whom you would hire to demo and rebuild at this stage?
Your very first step is to remove the vagueness from the product, and that means you need to define the end-state of that product: what it looks like, what it feels like, what it is supposed to do, who uses it, etc. Once the end-state of that product is defined, then you can break that down (WBS) and begin planning the rest of how to get there, which is probably another question and set of answers. | For any technology project the most important first step is to get the right expertise together as a team and then let the team (which will grow over time) develop their plans and ideas. Team before plan, not plan before team.
[Scrum](http://scrum.org) is the most popular framework for software development projects and is also used for many other kinds of work. Ultimately the team will want to choose a way of working that they are comfortable with. What works for them as a team is going to be influenced by their previous experience and the organisation's culture. |
29,819 | Ability to represent issues without Epics (be that a task type or bug type) in Jira Roadmaps. | 2020/06/04 | [
"https://pm.stackexchange.com/questions/29819",
"https://pm.stackexchange.com",
"https://pm.stackexchange.com/users/40865/"
] | The first step is generally validating the idea - fleshing it out from "vague idea" to something that starts to identify the benefits that you expect to get from the project. In such a step, this is no different from any project - it isn't unique to IT projects. Once you have an idea of the benefits, you can start to think about the project methods, structures, resources, and so on, which will also help you to think about the team.
As with any project, I would want to get a strong sponsor or executive to take ownership of the project and drive it forward at a senior level, gaining support from other senior managers, ensuring that it gets proper buy-in.
In terms of documenting the project, that will depend - at least in part - on the approach you plan to take to delivery. Agile methods are different from traditional waterfall methods, but are no less rigorous, in my opinion.
Try Googling "Project Initiation" to get some ideas of how to handle the process in different types of project environment.
Good luck! | The "vague IT idea" is what you need to focus on. The project--how you set it up, the development method you use, who you hire for it--is irrelevant and thinking about it now is premature. Look at this way: you wake up one morning and decide it's time to modernize your kitchen. That's all you have at the moment is that you want it to change. Would you be considering whom you would hire to demo and rebuild at this stage?
Your very first step is to remove the vagueness from the product, and that means you need to define the end-state of that product: what it looks like, what it feels like, what it is supposed to do, who uses it, etc. Once the end-state of that product is defined, then you can break that down (WBS) and begin planning the rest of how to get there, which is probably another question and set of answers. |
63,016 | A recent comment on [this question](https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/62979/trying-to-replace-outlet-puzzled#comment87164_62979) said that it was not unusual to see the grounded leg of a switched circuit being used as the switched leg, there was some agreement.
This seems a terrifying problem if true.
For me, this was learned in the first week of working in the trade.
I could never have passed a rough-in inspection for something like this the day after a hurricane, of a latrine, at a campground in Florida, where he was so drunk someone else had to drive the golf cart.
Does this really happen often?
---
I removed my answer that spoke of NEC 404.2(B) due to comments by a user that did not think that a citation of, what is law, in some jurisdictions, was relevent to the question. The argument could be made that this perspective is/was reasonable. | 2015/04/01 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/63016",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/34599/"
] | Not all grounded conductors are white, and not all white conductors are grounded conductors.
There's no problem using a white or gray wire as an ungrounded conductor, as long as the conductor is permanently reidentified.
>
> National Electrical Code 2014
> =============================
>
>
> Chapter 2 Wiring and Protection
> -------------------------------
>
>
> ### Article 200 Use and Identification of Grounded Conductors
>
>
> **200.7 Use of Insulation of a White or Gray Color or
> with Three Continuous White Stripes.**
>
>
> **(C) Circuits of 50 Volts or More.** The use of insulation
> that is white or gray or that has three continuous white or gray
> stripes for other than a grounded conductor for circuits
> of 50 volts or more shall be permitted only as in (1)
> and (2).
>
>
> (1) If part of a cable assembly that has the insulation permanently
> reidentified to indicate its use as an ungrounded
> conductor by marking tape, painting, or other
> effective means at its termination and at each location
> where the conductor is visible and accessible. Identification
> shall encircle the insulation and shall be a color
> other than white, gray, or green. If used for single-pole,
> 3-way or 4-way switch loops, the reidentified conductor
> with white or gray insulation or three continuous
> white or gray stripes shall be used only for the supply
> to the switch, but not as a return conductor from the
> switch to the outlet.
>
>
>
There **is** a problem with switching the grounded conductor, but no problem switching a white conductor (as long as it's reidentified).
>
> Chapter 4 Equipment for General Use
> -----------------------------------
>
>
> ### Article 404 Switches
>
>
> **404.2 Switch Connections.**
>
>
> **(B) Grounded Conductors.** Switches or circuit breakers
> shall not disconnect the grounded conductor of a circuit.
>
>
> *Exception: A switch or circuit breaker shall be permitted
> to disconnect a grounded circuit conductor where all circuit
> conductors are disconnected simultaneously, or where
> the device is arranged so that the grounded conductor cannot
> be disconnected until all the ungrounded conductors of
> the circuit have been disconnected.*
>
>
>
Before the introduction of [404.2(C)](https://diy.stackexchange.com/a/31710/33), two wire switch loops were common. Since a two wire cable only has a black and white wire (and ground sometimes), the white wire had to be reidentified and used as an ungrounded conductor. | A switch should always switch the hot conductor (NEC 404.2(B) that you referenced), so I'll assume you're talking about the side of the switch that is not electrified when the switch is off.
In a lot of cases, an electrician won't have an option in the matter, they will use the conductors available. Lets say you have a switch that does not have the line coming into it the box (comes in at the ceiling fixture, for example), but rather its just a 14/2 cable from the ceiling box to the switch box (I know the most recent code requires a 14/3 so there is a dedicated neutral, but that's another story). In this case, they have a switch, and a cable with a black, white and bare conductor. The white conductor is going to have to be used to complete the circuit.
In the best case, the electrician would wrap black electrical tape around the white wire on both sides so you know it is hot, but there's still nothing wrong with using the white colored wire for this.
Some dimmer switches I've bought have white, black and blue wires on them. Again, it doesn't mean anything, it's just a way to identify which wire is which on the schematic. If I drive around my neighborhood, all the transformers have 3 black wires coming off of them. Some of them have white tape wrapped on them, some of them don't. No linesman is going to just assume its one or the other by looking at it. |
3,170,831 | If on my compiler, int is of 16 bits, then it's range is -32768 to 32767(in a 2's complement machine).
I want to know why negative numbers have 1 extra no. i.e positive numbers go to 32767
but negative go to one more i.e.-32768.
How -32768 is represented on a 2's complement m/c? | 2010/07/03 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3170831",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/317283/"
] | On 16 bits you can fit pow(2,16) (2 to the power of sixteenth) different combinations to represent 65536 numbers. It was decided that zero looks best represented natively as 000...000 and positive numbers in "two's complement" system are normally readable (they're equal to so called "natural binary" representation like 0000 0000 0000 0101 = 5 decimal etc).
Negative numbers in two's complement start with 1111 1111 1111 1111 to represent -1. Think about it as a counter dial with numbers that goes 997, 998, 999 and suddenly when it has to represent 1000 it overflows and shows 000. The principle is the same here, but the direction is other way around - from ...000 to ...111. -2 is represented as 1111....1110 and so on.
Lowest possible number in two's complement will have 1 on front and zeroes on the rest of digits. | There isn't really any 'biasing'. The number is negative when the most significant bit is set. For "positive number space" (i.e, MSB is *not* set), as well as 1-32767, you have zero, hence the apparent lack of 32768.
-32768 would be represented by 0b1000000000000000. See [link text](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Two's_complement) |
3,170,831 | If on my compiler, int is of 16 bits, then it's range is -32768 to 32767(in a 2's complement machine).
I want to know why negative numbers have 1 extra no. i.e positive numbers go to 32767
but negative go to one more i.e.-32768.
How -32768 is represented on a 2's complement m/c? | 2010/07/03 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3170831",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/317283/"
] | If you're looking for a simple, down to earth answer:
There isn't any bias. There are equal amount of numbers on positive and negative side, positive numbers just start from 0 and negative from -1, so hence the difference of one. :) | There isn't really any 'biasing'. The number is negative when the most significant bit is set. For "positive number space" (i.e, MSB is *not* set), as well as 1-32767, you have zero, hence the apparent lack of 32768.
-32768 would be represented by 0b1000000000000000. See [link text](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Two's_complement) |
3,170,831 | If on my compiler, int is of 16 bits, then it's range is -32768 to 32767(in a 2's complement machine).
I want to know why negative numbers have 1 extra no. i.e positive numbers go to 32767
but negative go to one more i.e.-32768.
How -32768 is represented on a 2's complement m/c? | 2010/07/03 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3170831",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/317283/"
] | On 16 bits you can fit pow(2,16) (2 to the power of sixteenth) different combinations to represent 65536 numbers. It was decided that zero looks best represented natively as 000...000 and positive numbers in "two's complement" system are normally readable (they're equal to so called "natural binary" representation like 0000 0000 0000 0101 = 5 decimal etc).
Negative numbers in two's complement start with 1111 1111 1111 1111 to represent -1. Think about it as a counter dial with numbers that goes 997, 998, 999 and suddenly when it has to represent 1000 it overflows and shows 000. The principle is the same here, but the direction is other way around - from ...000 to ...111. -2 is represented as 1111....1110 and so on.
Lowest possible number in two's complement will have 1 on front and zeroes on the rest of digits. | If you're looking for a simple, down to earth answer:
There isn't any bias. There are equal amount of numbers on positive and negative side, positive numbers just start from 0 and negative from -1, so hence the difference of one. :) |
3,170,831 | If on my compiler, int is of 16 bits, then it's range is -32768 to 32767(in a 2's complement machine).
I want to know why negative numbers have 1 extra no. i.e positive numbers go to 32767
but negative go to one more i.e.-32768.
How -32768 is represented on a 2's complement m/c? | 2010/07/03 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3170831",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/317283/"
] | On 16 bits you can fit pow(2,16) (2 to the power of sixteenth) different combinations to represent 65536 numbers. It was decided that zero looks best represented natively as 000...000 and positive numbers in "two's complement" system are normally readable (they're equal to so called "natural binary" representation like 0000 0000 0000 0101 = 5 decimal etc).
Negative numbers in two's complement start with 1111 1111 1111 1111 to represent -1. Think about it as a counter dial with numbers that goes 997, 998, 999 and suddenly when it has to represent 1000 it overflows and shows 000. The principle is the same here, but the direction is other way around - from ...000 to ...111. -2 is represented as 1111....1110 and so on.
Lowest possible number in two's complement will have 1 on front and zeroes on the rest of digits. | There is no negative zero. (-0). Thats why it appears to be a bias. Really it is considered negative if the last bit is set. There is still another 7bits in a byte that can be set in both the positive and negative range. |
3,170,831 | If on my compiler, int is of 16 bits, then it's range is -32768 to 32767(in a 2's complement machine).
I want to know why negative numbers have 1 extra no. i.e positive numbers go to 32767
but negative go to one more i.e.-32768.
How -32768 is represented on a 2's complement m/c? | 2010/07/03 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3170831",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/317283/"
] | On 16 bits you can fit pow(2,16) (2 to the power of sixteenth) different combinations to represent 65536 numbers. It was decided that zero looks best represented natively as 000...000 and positive numbers in "two's complement" system are normally readable (they're equal to so called "natural binary" representation like 0000 0000 0000 0101 = 5 decimal etc).
Negative numbers in two's complement start with 1111 1111 1111 1111 to represent -1. Think about it as a counter dial with numbers that goes 997, 998, 999 and suddenly when it has to represent 1000 it overflows and shows 000. The principle is the same here, but the direction is other way around - from ...000 to ...111. -2 is represented as 1111....1110 and so on.
Lowest possible number in two's complement will have 1 on front and zeroes on the rest of digits. | Another way to think of it is making a 1 bit signed variable. Signed means there must be negative numbers and of course there will be positive numbers. So you can have 1 positive one negative, what two numbers do you pic? now lets make it 2 bits, what 2 positive and negative do you pic? really the secret is the last bit represents negative.
Theres extra work if we want to consider 0 a negative number. and it would be wasteful to have a negative 0. |
3,170,831 | If on my compiler, int is of 16 bits, then it's range is -32768 to 32767(in a 2's complement machine).
I want to know why negative numbers have 1 extra no. i.e positive numbers go to 32767
but negative go to one more i.e.-32768.
How -32768 is represented on a 2's complement m/c? | 2010/07/03 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3170831",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/317283/"
] | If you're looking for a simple, down to earth answer:
There isn't any bias. There are equal amount of numbers on positive and negative side, positive numbers just start from 0 and negative from -1, so hence the difference of one. :) | There is no negative zero. (-0). Thats why it appears to be a bias. Really it is considered negative if the last bit is set. There is still another 7bits in a byte that can be set in both the positive and negative range. |
3,170,831 | If on my compiler, int is of 16 bits, then it's range is -32768 to 32767(in a 2's complement machine).
I want to know why negative numbers have 1 extra no. i.e positive numbers go to 32767
but negative go to one more i.e.-32768.
How -32768 is represented on a 2's complement m/c? | 2010/07/03 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3170831",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/317283/"
] | If you're looking for a simple, down to earth answer:
There isn't any bias. There are equal amount of numbers on positive and negative side, positive numbers just start from 0 and negative from -1, so hence the difference of one. :) | Another way to think of it is making a 1 bit signed variable. Signed means there must be negative numbers and of course there will be positive numbers. So you can have 1 positive one negative, what two numbers do you pic? now lets make it 2 bits, what 2 positive and negative do you pic? really the secret is the last bit represents negative.
Theres extra work if we want to consider 0 a negative number. and it would be wasteful to have a negative 0. |
1,309,451 | So here I am, first time windows developer (done java swing, iphone, flash/flex) and I'm confused by what technology Microsoft wants me to use for in browser rich applications. The application I'm designing is a file uploader that supports drag and drop from the filesystem, seems easy, I already implemented this already in Java and I figured it'd be even easier using Microsoft's tools but which deployment platform to use...
Silverlight: Great for video, lightweight applications, tons of controls and widgets, runs in browser, its just like Flash, awesome. No drag-and-drop filesystem access, boo.
ClickOnce: You can deploy a full-fledged windows application with all the bells and whistles, however it won't run *inside* the browser even for a web-only deployment, it opens in a new window, boo.
In browser DLLs: These work exactly like the old ActiveX applications which is great, except the only way a user can run them is by adding the site as a trusted site via the security panel and modifying their .Net security using caspol which isn't an acceptable deployment strategy. You should be able to just prompt the user to trust, just like a Java app.
ActiveX: Does almost everything a full-fledged windows application can, including full filesystem access, runs inside a browser, awesome. For some reason this is a deprecated technology nobody talks about or uses anymore, seems like you can only generate ActiveX cab/ocx files from really old VS versions (2003) or VB6.
So is what I want just unattainable? Can I not have full filesystem access with drag and drop, in an app that is run inside the browser without having the user jump through hoops to run it? I'm trying to find a good reason for the problems I'm running into to explain to my coworkers. | 2009/08/20 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1309451",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/155513/"
] | Sounds like you want a [WPF Browser Application](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa970060.aspx) (XBAPs). These apps run within the browser, but have full support for the .NET Framework and WPF (and potentially even full trust, if granted by the user). The only thing to really detract from that is that they only run on Windows (clearly) and only within IE7/FireFox (with a plugin).
Side note: Silverlight 3 applications can in fact be run from the desktop, without the need for a browser window. | Why do you feel the need to limit yourself to Microsoft technologies? I'm a big Microsoft/.NET fan, but I also believe in using the right tool for the job. If Java works, then use it. If Flash works, then use it. |
67,868 | Is it bad practice to use different input methods (separate buttons vs a drop-down menu) to visually indicate which mode an application is currently in? If so, why?
Some background:
We have an application with two buttons: "on" and "off". Depending on a variety of conditions the application will be in one of two modes: "A" or "B". When in mode "A" clicking either button will send the corresponding command to a physical device. In mode "B" clicking either button will just update a value in a database. The UI has a text label saying which mode it is currently in and an icon appears next to the label when in mode "A" to further indicate that clicking a button will operate a physical device.
We have received some requests to make the distinction between the modes more obvious. One of the suggestions is to display the two buttons when in mode "A" and a drop-down menu with the two options when in mode "B". To me, this doesn't seem like an appropriate way to visually differentiate the modes, but I'm having trouble articulating why.
My argument would be that the use of particular UI component should be based on the type of data being presented and the amount of space you have to present it. It should not be chosen just because it is visually distinct from a different component. | 2014/11/20 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/67868",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/47962/"
] | It seems to me like the problem is related to confusion to available actions depending on the interface mode. How about we address that directly.
Instead of using a button or drop down menu to implicitly imply its action, how about simply indicating the action directly on the buttons themselves? e.g. "Activate on Device" "Deactivate on Device" or "Update Database" depending on the mode.
And to address the question. Different input methods should be chosen to support various input types. A button indicates a possible single action, if you have very few items and they are all likely actions the user may choose, then use buttons. If you have a larger group of possible actions, but a user is likely to choose one over another, a drop down, or a [split button](http://getbootstrap.com/components/#btn-dropdowns-split) makes the most sense. To use a different input method for a "learnt" association between 2 modes in your system is quite a workaround solution. | It seems to me that changing the function of your interface at the click of a button would make for a confusing experience. The user has built a mental model of how it works, and expects the app to act a certain way, so it should consistently act that way. At least if you are operating on the "Principle of Least Astonishment": <http://www.uxmatters.com/mt/archives/2010/07/achieving-and-balancing-consistency-in-user-interface-design.php>
But there are other visual cues you could give to differentiate one mode from another. Perhaps the text color could change depending on which mode you're in, or the background color could shade slightly. Perhaps the button itself could be a different color, or change its shape slightly, depending on the mode.
Keep the interface the same, and just change a few cosmetic things to start to get people's mental model in line with "Red Button A does this, but blue Button B does this." Even a subtle change between modes could be useful. |
67,868 | Is it bad practice to use different input methods (separate buttons vs a drop-down menu) to visually indicate which mode an application is currently in? If so, why?
Some background:
We have an application with two buttons: "on" and "off". Depending on a variety of conditions the application will be in one of two modes: "A" or "B". When in mode "A" clicking either button will send the corresponding command to a physical device. In mode "B" clicking either button will just update a value in a database. The UI has a text label saying which mode it is currently in and an icon appears next to the label when in mode "A" to further indicate that clicking a button will operate a physical device.
We have received some requests to make the distinction between the modes more obvious. One of the suggestions is to display the two buttons when in mode "A" and a drop-down menu with the two options when in mode "B". To me, this doesn't seem like an appropriate way to visually differentiate the modes, but I'm having trouble articulating why.
My argument would be that the use of particular UI component should be based on the type of data being presented and the amount of space you have to present it. It should not be chosen just because it is visually distinct from a different component. | 2014/11/20 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/67868",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/47962/"
] | It seems to me like the problem is related to confusion to available actions depending on the interface mode. How about we address that directly.
Instead of using a button or drop down menu to implicitly imply its action, how about simply indicating the action directly on the buttons themselves? e.g. "Activate on Device" "Deactivate on Device" or "Update Database" depending on the mode.
And to address the question. Different input methods should be chosen to support various input types. A button indicates a possible single action, if you have very few items and they are all likely actions the user may choose, then use buttons. If you have a larger group of possible actions, but a user is likely to choose one over another, a drop down, or a [split button](http://getbootstrap.com/components/#btn-dropdowns-split) makes the most sense. To use a different input method for a "learnt" association between 2 modes in your system is quite a workaround solution. | I agree that changing the input method for this does more harm than good. It's both inconsistent and confusing and will probably send at least some users thinking about the why. They will *never* guess it :).
You can provide a strong visual distinction between the two modes, like a different background color for that area, and an icon for both modes, not just for one. When there's no icon, there's nothing to suggest that there is also a second mode that does have an icon. It's just perceived as "the only mode". For example, your computer probably has an indication of the network being connected or disconnected, which is very different from just displaying a "connected" icon and hiding it when disconnected.

[download bmml source](/plugins/mockups/download?image=http%3a%2f%2fi.stack.imgur.com%2f6Q0lt.png) โ Wireframes created with [Balsamiq Mockups](http://www.balsamiq.com/products/mockups)
And more generally speaking, a dropdown with only two values is very rarely a good solution. |
67,868 | Is it bad practice to use different input methods (separate buttons vs a drop-down menu) to visually indicate which mode an application is currently in? If so, why?
Some background:
We have an application with two buttons: "on" and "off". Depending on a variety of conditions the application will be in one of two modes: "A" or "B". When in mode "A" clicking either button will send the corresponding command to a physical device. In mode "B" clicking either button will just update a value in a database. The UI has a text label saying which mode it is currently in and an icon appears next to the label when in mode "A" to further indicate that clicking a button will operate a physical device.
We have received some requests to make the distinction between the modes more obvious. One of the suggestions is to display the two buttons when in mode "A" and a drop-down menu with the two options when in mode "B". To me, this doesn't seem like an appropriate way to visually differentiate the modes, but I'm having trouble articulating why.
My argument would be that the use of particular UI component should be based on the type of data being presented and the amount of space you have to present it. It should not be chosen just because it is visually distinct from a different component. | 2014/11/20 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/67868",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/47962/"
] | It seems to me like the problem is related to confusion to available actions depending on the interface mode. How about we address that directly.
Instead of using a button or drop down menu to implicitly imply its action, how about simply indicating the action directly on the buttons themselves? e.g. "Activate on Device" "Deactivate on Device" or "Update Database" depending on the mode.
And to address the question. Different input methods should be chosen to support various input types. A button indicates a possible single action, if you have very few items and they are all likely actions the user may choose, then use buttons. If you have a larger group of possible actions, but a user is likely to choose one over another, a drop down, or a [split button](http://getbootstrap.com/components/#btn-dropdowns-split) makes the most sense. To use a different input method for a "learnt" association between 2 modes in your system is quite a workaround solution. | The scenario says the two MODES. These modes must be indicated visually, by a color coding. Subtle changes can be missed. Here in this case, there is significant change. The UI is communicating with a physical device and in other its not. Just updating.
A distinct cue of two modes with color. That will be a strong visual indication.
 |
1,326,349 | My HP Probook 4530s (Windows) can charge when it is shut down but cannot increase the battery charged percentage while charging when it is on (although it shows that the charger is plugged in and charging).
Why is this happening and how I can make it show the current battery charged percentage again? | 2018/05/27 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1326349",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/909168/"
] | HPs, similar to Dell, often use a third wire communication with the power adapter. That allows the computer to know what size power adapter is plugged in.
Your problem could be one of two problems. The power adapter could be bad. In which case, just try another one. Or, your motherboard could be damaged. If that is that is the case, itโs probably the power jack.
The easiest thing to try here is a different power adapter. You might also be able to go into BIOS setup and it might tell you if it recognizes the power adapter or not. I think HP is a bit more limited in this regard though. Tapping F10 during power on usually gets you in to BIOS setup for HP.
Whatever it is, either the power adapter or motherboard is not delivering enough power to charge the battery when the computer is on.
There is an off chance the battery is just bad and taking too much power to charge. But I really think this sounds unlikely with your description. Youโve indicated the battery charges when the power is off, and I am assuming it runs on battery properly with a reasonable amount of run time. | Let your laptop running until it's only at a few percent left, and then charge it. Let it charge for a while (maybe half an hour) while it's turned on.
If you unplug your charger after some time and if the battery percentage is correct, it should shut down within a minute or so. If this happens, the problem can be your battery. If it stays on for quite a while, even when it's at a few percent, the problem will be where this percentage is calculated.
In any case, this problem seems to be hardware related, and it's best to let somebody look at it that has some expertise. |
288,876 | If you look at the pinout for VGA, there are several ground pins:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/DtrXl.gif)
I was curious as to why, and I found [this answer](https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/2464/what-are-return-pins). To sum it up, the extra ground pins are so that each pin has its own ground in order to prevent interference in the analog signal.
But here's a DVI-I connector that supports analog signals:
[](https://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/6/65/DVI_pinout.svg)
The analog pins are on the right side. The big cross is ground, and the four smaller pins surrounding it are for the red, green, blue, and horizontal sync. What is interesting here is that the ground is shared by all three color channels, unlike VGA where each has its own.
Why are the additional ground pins necessary to prevent signal interference when using VGA but not DVI-I? They're the same pins that send the same data, just with a different physical connector, so it doesn't really make much sense as to why the number of ground connectors are different. | 2017/02/26 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/288876",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/89186/"
] | First: What's critical isn't so much that there's a ground pin for each signal as much as that there's a ground pin **near** each color signal. The cross-shaped ground pin largely satisfies that requirement.
Second: DVI doesn't prioritize high-quality analog video -- it's a *Digital* Video Interface, after all. The small loss of quality incurred by using a single analog ground pin was probably considered acceptable by the designers. | The HD-15 (aka DE-15) connector for VGA connection was compatible with hand-crimping
of pins to conductors of coaxial elements of the multiwire connecting
cable. That practically requires a two-pin set for each of R, G, B
video signals, to accommodate a signal pin and ground (coaxial shield) pin. Those signals were not logic level, and lacked
the noise immunity conferred by the logic margin.
The DVI-I analog compatible signals may use the same wiring, but hand-assembling of
crimp connections is no longer how the cables are constructed. As for
the digital signals, in DVI-I and DVI-D cables those are twisted pair with shield, so require three wires each for up to seven fast digital signals.
To my knowledge, there aren't any hand-assembly crimp pin options, the
cable connectors are [intended for machine wiring](http://www.molex.com/pdm_docs/sd/743232033_sd.pdf). In any case,
twisted pair digital signals are
noise-insensitive (because the digital signals have a significant logic margin).
The shielding of those digital pairs prevents crosstalk, but the shields carry
very small currents. Four pins (shaded yellow in the above question) are shared for up to 7 twisted-pair shields. |
288,876 | If you look at the pinout for VGA, there are several ground pins:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/DtrXl.gif)
I was curious as to why, and I found [this answer](https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/2464/what-are-return-pins). To sum it up, the extra ground pins are so that each pin has its own ground in order to prevent interference in the analog signal.
But here's a DVI-I connector that supports analog signals:
[](https://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/6/65/DVI_pinout.svg)
The analog pins are on the right side. The big cross is ground, and the four smaller pins surrounding it are for the red, green, blue, and horizontal sync. What is interesting here is that the ground is shared by all three color channels, unlike VGA where each has its own.
Why are the additional ground pins necessary to prevent signal interference when using VGA but not DVI-I? They're the same pins that send the same data, just with a different physical connector, so it doesn't really make much sense as to why the number of ground connectors are different. | 2017/02/26 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/288876",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/89186/"
] | First: What's critical isn't so much that there's a ground pin for each signal as much as that there's a ground pin **near** each color signal. The cross-shaped ground pin largely satisfies that requirement.
Second: DVI doesn't prioritize high-quality analog video -- it's a *Digital* Video Interface, after all. The small loss of quality incurred by using a single analog ground pin was probably considered acceptable by the designers. | You are confusing the DVI connector with the cable. That "single" analog ground is a big honking ground, but what goes into a cable? The simplest is a DVI-A cable, which usually has a VGA connector on the other end. Internally, it will carry 3 color channels (red, green and blue) and 2 sync: vertical and horizontal. And guess what? A DVI-A cable will typically have 10 conductors. That is, 5 twisted pairs, 3 for color and 2 for sync, each with a ground line. The 3 analog color grounds will be connected to the cruciform analog ground on the DVI connector and the sync grounds will be connected to another pin.
So, just because a DVI analog section only appears to have a single ground, that does not mean that the cable does as well. In fact, the cable and the VGA connector will have the same number of ground pins (5) as a standard VGA. |
288,876 | If you look at the pinout for VGA, there are several ground pins:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/DtrXl.gif)
I was curious as to why, and I found [this answer](https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/2464/what-are-return-pins). To sum it up, the extra ground pins are so that each pin has its own ground in order to prevent interference in the analog signal.
But here's a DVI-I connector that supports analog signals:
[](https://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/6/65/DVI_pinout.svg)
The analog pins are on the right side. The big cross is ground, and the four smaller pins surrounding it are for the red, green, blue, and horizontal sync. What is interesting here is that the ground is shared by all three color channels, unlike VGA where each has its own.
Why are the additional ground pins necessary to prevent signal interference when using VGA but not DVI-I? They're the same pins that send the same data, just with a different physical connector, so it doesn't really make much sense as to why the number of ground connectors are different. | 2017/02/26 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/288876",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/89186/"
] | The HD-15 (aka DE-15) connector for VGA connection was compatible with hand-crimping
of pins to conductors of coaxial elements of the multiwire connecting
cable. That practically requires a two-pin set for each of R, G, B
video signals, to accommodate a signal pin and ground (coaxial shield) pin. Those signals were not logic level, and lacked
the noise immunity conferred by the logic margin.
The DVI-I analog compatible signals may use the same wiring, but hand-assembling of
crimp connections is no longer how the cables are constructed. As for
the digital signals, in DVI-I and DVI-D cables those are twisted pair with shield, so require three wires each for up to seven fast digital signals.
To my knowledge, there aren't any hand-assembly crimp pin options, the
cable connectors are [intended for machine wiring](http://www.molex.com/pdm_docs/sd/743232033_sd.pdf). In any case,
twisted pair digital signals are
noise-insensitive (because the digital signals have a significant logic margin).
The shielding of those digital pairs prevents crosstalk, but the shields carry
very small currents. Four pins (shaded yellow in the above question) are shared for up to 7 twisted-pair shields. | You are confusing the DVI connector with the cable. That "single" analog ground is a big honking ground, but what goes into a cable? The simplest is a DVI-A cable, which usually has a VGA connector on the other end. Internally, it will carry 3 color channels (red, green and blue) and 2 sync: vertical and horizontal. And guess what? A DVI-A cable will typically have 10 conductors. That is, 5 twisted pairs, 3 for color and 2 for sync, each with a ground line. The 3 analog color grounds will be connected to the cruciform analog ground on the DVI connector and the sync grounds will be connected to another pin.
So, just because a DVI analog section only appears to have a single ground, that does not mean that the cable does as well. In fact, the cable and the VGA connector will have the same number of ground pins (5) as a standard VGA. |
22,378 | I am using HP UFT version 12.5 and I have Google Chrome version 52.
I'm not sure if it supported by Chrome 52 version or not?
Please help, I am very new to it and kindly provide some tutorial link as well for the same. | 2016/09/01 | [
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com/questions/22378",
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com",
"https://sqa.stackexchange.com/users/21149/"
] | QTP/UFT vs Chrome Support Matrix[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/jwwgx.png)
Hope it helps | Iterations for Chrome are so fast these days that it is almost impossible for a company to keep pace with it.
By the time HPE comes up with a support for new version of Chrome; Chrome has already advanced by 2 major versions.
HPE may not be publishing each and every time when a new Chrome versions launches but there are chances your version of UFT would work if it was working for *near* prior versions.
As per [UFT/QTP: Browser Support Matrix for IE, Firefox, Chrome, Netscape & Safari](http://www.learnqtp.com/uft-qtp-browser-support-matrix/), UFT 12.52 supports Chrome v50 with Patch 1. So you may try with the same patch for Chrome v52. |
131,751 | The inside:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/1e3QY.jpg)
The outside:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/qHE9S.jpg)
The installers gave me a window unsealed on the outside but sealed with a rubber seal on inside around the frame (windows are uPVC).
After rain, the damage was done to walls by leaks and the rubber seal inside was blocking the exit for the water so I pulled it out. Unfortunately I'm unable to put it back in place as tight as it was, it's become completely loose after fitting in gap.
The windows are installed on uneven wall opening so there is expected wiggle room.
I prefer to do insulation myself since installers completely disregarded this. Should I try to re-fit the original rubber seal or glue it on, or caulk even though the window wiggles? Ive seen videos where people caulk the rubber seal?
Here's some of the damage, bubbled paint:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/hd429.jpg) | 2018/01/26 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/131751",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/58714/"
] | Theres alot to be left desired by this installation. First of all it looks like your in the city and installed into a masonry opening. By the way your window is resting hard on the masonry sill it looks like the installation is what we refer to as brick to brick. Basically your window fits snug around the brick with maybe a quarter inch perimeter gap. Typically when you have this type of installation you would waterproof the back up masonry jambs which is usually brick or a concrete masonry unit with a perm a barrier applied on a primer. S100 sealant would be applied to the masonry sill and a sill pan would go on top of that. The perm a barrier would then drape into the sill with the vertical sections of perm a barrier being terminated with s100 sealant to prevent the perm a barrier from peeling away from the masonry. The idea is the perm a barrier diverts water that gets passed your caulk on the exterior into your sill pan and keep it from getting inside your house. If you cant strap to the masonry then a buck could be built in the pocket and the window could be anchored to the buck providing the buck was properly anchored. Either way a backer rod would be applied to the exterior perimeter about a quarter inch depth and sealant like a sika flex or np1 around the perimeter. Sometimes they leave a couple of 1 inch gaps at the sill to let water caught by the sill pan leak out. On the interior they could insulate around the window with bat insulation or low expansion spray foam although brick to brick openings usually have to much of a gap to spray foam. If I am wrong and this is within frame then just seal the exterior of the new window to the exterior of the old and spray foam in between the two windows on the interior underneath whatever finish trim you will install. But before I would lift a finger I'd call the installer and ask why is my window inadequately anchored and not sealed on the exterior. Sounds like the job is unfinished. | >
> **what's the best way to seal ...**
>
>
>
Use a paintbrush to sweep out loose debris in the gap then apply builders mastic externally, use a sealant gun.
Random example:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/JwuJR.jpg)
>
> BENEFITS
>
>
> * Overpaintable.
> * Adheres to most common surfaces.
> * Semi drying - **remains permanently plastic** beneath surface skin.
> * High solids formulation - excellent gap filling properties without shrinkage.
> * Good external weathering properties.
>
>
> AREAS FOR USE
>
>
> * Perimeter pointing internally and externally **around doors and windows**.
> * Adheres to concrete, brick, wood, metals and glass without the use of a primer.
>
>
> C3 cartridge size.
> Brown
> 310ml
>
>
>
(my emphasis)
Also available in white or grey.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/WL1mT.jpg)
If you have not done this before, practice on some scrap wood or something similar. It is sticky and can be difficult to clean up if you make a mess. It may help to put masking tape around the area to be sealed. Expect it to take a long time to dry/set in cold weather - keep fingers out.
>
> **... and insulate**
>
>
>
I'd
* seal the gap externally to prevent drafts.
* seal the inside in the hope of creating a hermetically sealed air gap?
* maybe try to fill the void with some closed-cell foam goop? or just
* not worry too much about insulating it so long as there are no obvious drafts. |
34,657 | My SharePoint 2010 Timer Service (Administrative Tools -> Services) keeps stopping. The service is set to start up automatically, and the service account is SPFarm. When attempting a manual start, i get "Error 1069: The service did not start due to a logon failure".
If I select Properties -> Log On and manually enter the password for the account, manual service start will succeed and the service runs for about 24 hours. After this, it stops and on restart gives the error message above. From this, I might guess that the service has incorrect credentials stored somewhere?
There are numerous [other posts](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/5116846/sharepoint-2010-timer-job-is-not-executed) on the Net about these problems, but I have attempted the common suggestions I found (service user is dbcreator and securityadmin, db\_owner for configuration databases, and also member of local Administrators group). No luck on that front. | 2012/04/24 | [
"https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com/questions/34657",
"https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com",
"https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com/users/2984/"
] | It turned out that my initial theory was correct. By going into Central Administration -> Security -> Configure Managed Accounts and editing the SPFarm account, I could set the stored password to its correct value. Check "Change password now", "Use existing password" and enter the account password. This will update the stored password value, and the Timer service will start working.
No idea how the service got the wrong password in the first place, but this solves the issue. | If the above solution doesn't work, check your Group Policy.
To get the service to start I had to retype the password in the Log On tab in the Service Properties. When I'd done this I was given a message saying that the account had been granted Log On Locally rights. I could then start the service, but the problem would recur some hours later.
So I got onto our network guys and they gave the relevant accounts Log On Locally rights in our Group Policy, updated the Group Policy on the server and bingo, no more stopped services.
To test it, I retyped the password in the Log On tab in the Service Properties. This time I *wasn't* given any message. Therefore, the account already had Log On Locally rights.
Hopefully this will save someone some heartache! |
3,984,804 | now we are working in one project.in that project we choosed HTML5 and CSS3 designed. but still we have confuse on server side scripting, whether php,ruby,python,scala,and more and more..our requirements is nothing but
1. SERVER SCRIPTING LANGUAGE:our server side scripting language is secure and more helpfull(ease of development,security,maintenance) in anystage. can you please suggest me which is good at present(21-10-10)? sorry if this question is make argument...
2. and can you say which is current trend in web development language...not ask about which language...but which trend(first functional programming to oops concepts...is still oops concepts or we switched to any recent trend? )
3. and i heard by using proper oops class structure with any language we can enhance security? is it true?
i searched lot and lot more than 1 week. but still confuse...
4. DATABASE: still confuse on which data base is best for us?
sorry to everyone if my question make hurt or make more discussion? and thanks to everyone... | 2010/10/21 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3984804",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/480385/"
] | It depends on the complexity of applications, performance requirements, target audience (corporate intranet, internet,...) and budget.
If you can give more details on these then you might get a better suited answer and not a very general one (like this)
And more importantly in which technology you and your team are comfortable with. A Java project and PHP project's success, in completion and performance is more on the team's experience and expertise than on the language itself, to a great extent.
See also these questions: [(php vs python) scalability](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/1588617/php-vs-python-scalability), [PHP and Java performance and scalability comparison](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/3975691/php-vs-java-performance-and-scalability-comparison), and [this article](http://www.joelonsoftware.com/items/2006/09/01.html) by Joel.
Ok, you asked about security:
It is the application architecture and code that decides security at the end of the day, not the language itself.
OOP is a nice paragdim to code, makes developemnt and maintenance (arguably)easier, but end of the day, it is how you implement it, what your architecture is, and how good you coding practices are. | OOP alone will not make your site secure. Nor will the use of any particular language or OS or framework. Only good practices will help you, and most of those apply regardless of paradigm, language, or platform.
As for language popularity, PHP, Python, and Ruby (on Rails) seem pretty popular. As do .net languages, particularly C#. Don't mistake "popular" for "good" or *especially* "secure", though -- you *need* to evaluate the languages for yourself, and don't trust what some random geek on the intarwebz tells you, as we're not the ones who'll have to build stuff with it. And above all, *follow the best practices for the language/framework you choose*, or any benefits it claims to offer will likely be null and void. |
157,107 | So we know the event's of 2013's *The Wolverine* took place in the original timeline. So just HOW does Logan have the Samurai sword in "Logan"? I guess the events of *The Wolverine* still could have ended up happening in the revised timeline, but that seems unlikely.
Also, how does Charles remember the Statue of Liberty incident? That also happened in the original timeline. But then again, that could've happened in the revised timeline as well, I guess. Or maybe Charles' mind is so powerful that he can remember events that happened in a whole other timeline? | 2017/04/12 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/157107",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/82140/"
] | The answer has two parts:
1. *Logan* doesn't bother with continuity unless it wants to, and
2. Fox has left the "events" of the 2000's in the new timeline basically undocumented , so they can be whatever they need to be.
When Fox made *Days of Future Past* their intent was to try to undo some of the mess they'd made of their canon timeline in the previous movies, as well as some of the silly things (Hi, "mute Deadpool"!). The producers at Fox were pretty clear that *Days of Future Past* basically negated the events of *X-Men Origins: Wolverine* and *X-Men 3*.
But all that means is, the events *as they happened in those movies* didn't necessarily happen that way anymore. In other words, Fox isn't bound to maintain continuity with those movies. However, there's no reason to assume that none of those events happened. It's reasonable to expect that some of those things were bound to happen anyway, especially when you look at something like *The Wolverine*, where the events were triggered by something that happened before the timeline split. So, if Fox wants to claim that *something* traumatic still happened at the Statue of Liberty, they're free to do so; we as viewers can just imagine that those events happened in a way that's "reasonably similar" to the first movie. But, if Fox wants to claim something different happened to, for example, Jean Grey, we can just ignore those parts of *X-Men 3* that contradict the new story.
On top of that, though, the *Logan* writers and directors were pretty open about the fact that they weren't going to feel bound by previous movies if they thought they could improve their own. (It's hard to reconcile the *Logan* timeline with the end of *Days of Future Past* in the first place.) When you're talking about something as minor as an off-hand comment or Easter egg, you just have to accept that sometimes they're going to diverge from strict continuity for the sake of entertainment. | I would argue that the simple answer is that director James Mangold didn't really care for the alternate timeline/reboot stuff that began with *First Class* and decided to make a sequel to *The Wolverine*, meaning ***Logan*** takes place in the **original timeline.**
There are a lot of indications of this being the case, such as the fact that the 2029 future of this world looks radically different from the bright, happy, mutant-filled 2023 of the DOFP post-credit scene. Note that, here, the idea is that no mutants have been born for 25 years, which doesn't make sense at all in the context of DOFP.
Moreover, the movie only makes references to the original timeline, such as Wolverine being a cage fighter. Several deleted scenes had more of this, including Prof X discussing how Wolverine killed Jean and Logan recalling being part of the same squad with Sabertooth. Finally, Mangold confirmed that Wolverine's death at the end of Logan fulfills Yukio's prophecy in *The Wolverine.*
As such, *Logan* indicates that *First Class* was already set in a different timeline and DOFP's Sentinel-ruled 2023 presented the future of that specific timeline. This means *First Class, DOFP, Apocalypse* and (maybe) *Deadpool* are part of a singular, rebooted continuity, while X1-3, and the *Wolverine* trilogy are still in the original. |
157,107 | So we know the event's of 2013's *The Wolverine* took place in the original timeline. So just HOW does Logan have the Samurai sword in "Logan"? I guess the events of *The Wolverine* still could have ended up happening in the revised timeline, but that seems unlikely.
Also, how does Charles remember the Statue of Liberty incident? That also happened in the original timeline. But then again, that could've happened in the revised timeline as well, I guess. Or maybe Charles' mind is so powerful that he can remember events that happened in a whole other timeline? | 2017/04/12 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/157107",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/82140/"
] | The answer has two parts:
1. *Logan* doesn't bother with continuity unless it wants to, and
2. Fox has left the "events" of the 2000's in the new timeline basically undocumented , so they can be whatever they need to be.
When Fox made *Days of Future Past* their intent was to try to undo some of the mess they'd made of their canon timeline in the previous movies, as well as some of the silly things (Hi, "mute Deadpool"!). The producers at Fox were pretty clear that *Days of Future Past* basically negated the events of *X-Men Origins: Wolverine* and *X-Men 3*.
But all that means is, the events *as they happened in those movies* didn't necessarily happen that way anymore. In other words, Fox isn't bound to maintain continuity with those movies. However, there's no reason to assume that none of those events happened. It's reasonable to expect that some of those things were bound to happen anyway, especially when you look at something like *The Wolverine*, where the events were triggered by something that happened before the timeline split. So, if Fox wants to claim that *something* traumatic still happened at the Statue of Liberty, they're free to do so; we as viewers can just imagine that those events happened in a way that's "reasonably similar" to the first movie. But, if Fox wants to claim something different happened to, for example, Jean Grey, we can just ignore those parts of *X-Men 3* that contradict the new story.
On top of that, though, the *Logan* writers and directors were pretty open about the fact that they weren't going to feel bound by previous movies if they thought they could improve their own. (It's hard to reconcile the *Logan* timeline with the end of *Days of Future Past* in the first place.) When you're talking about something as minor as an off-hand comment or Easter egg, you just have to accept that sometimes they're going to diverge from strict continuity for the sake of entertainment. | Don't forget, the Sentinels were about to kill all the mutants in 2023, and the timeline changed at last-minute-dot-com, and there's at least 3 mutants in 'Logan' (i.e: Wolverine, Charles and Laura (AKA 'X-23')) (which is set in 2029), thus placing 'Logan' in the new timeline.
Also, everything from the original timeline prior to 1973 and after 1973 may have changed. Part of 'X-Men Origins Wolverine' still happens in the new timeline (until the screen goes blank after Logan left Team X (or whatever they were called) in 1973). |
157,107 | So we know the event's of 2013's *The Wolverine* took place in the original timeline. So just HOW does Logan have the Samurai sword in "Logan"? I guess the events of *The Wolverine* still could have ended up happening in the revised timeline, but that seems unlikely.
Also, how does Charles remember the Statue of Liberty incident? That also happened in the original timeline. But then again, that could've happened in the revised timeline as well, I guess. Or maybe Charles' mind is so powerful that he can remember events that happened in a whole other timeline? | 2017/04/12 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/157107",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/82140/"
] | I would argue that the simple answer is that director James Mangold didn't really care for the alternate timeline/reboot stuff that began with *First Class* and decided to make a sequel to *The Wolverine*, meaning ***Logan*** takes place in the **original timeline.**
There are a lot of indications of this being the case, such as the fact that the 2029 future of this world looks radically different from the bright, happy, mutant-filled 2023 of the DOFP post-credit scene. Note that, here, the idea is that no mutants have been born for 25 years, which doesn't make sense at all in the context of DOFP.
Moreover, the movie only makes references to the original timeline, such as Wolverine being a cage fighter. Several deleted scenes had more of this, including Prof X discussing how Wolverine killed Jean and Logan recalling being part of the same squad with Sabertooth. Finally, Mangold confirmed that Wolverine's death at the end of Logan fulfills Yukio's prophecy in *The Wolverine.*
As such, *Logan* indicates that *First Class* was already set in a different timeline and DOFP's Sentinel-ruled 2023 presented the future of that specific timeline. This means *First Class, DOFP, Apocalypse* and (maybe) *Deadpool* are part of a singular, rebooted continuity, while X1-3, and the *Wolverine* trilogy are still in the original. | Don't forget, the Sentinels were about to kill all the mutants in 2023, and the timeline changed at last-minute-dot-com, and there's at least 3 mutants in 'Logan' (i.e: Wolverine, Charles and Laura (AKA 'X-23')) (which is set in 2029), thus placing 'Logan' in the new timeline.
Also, everything from the original timeline prior to 1973 and after 1973 may have changed. Part of 'X-Men Origins Wolverine' still happens in the new timeline (until the screen goes blank after Logan left Team X (or whatever they were called) in 1973). |
42,148 | If I cut four trees off about 15' above the ground, and they are approximately in a parallelogram, Can I use them to support a building structure (say, a large shed)?
Would I have to treat against rot? | 2014/05/21 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/42148",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/21641/"
] | The main concern here is not the load bearing capacity of the stumps, (which will not be a problem) but obviously the rotting of the wood over time. Essentially rot, is caused by moisture loving Fungi and Bacteria which feed off the wood. So if you can keep the moisture of the wood down, there is no real problem.
With that in mind, if the stump was enveloped by the structure of the house, and there was no run-off onto that area from rain, I would comfortably say that the stump would last the lifetime of the structure. you can further improve the situation if the wood is of a rot-resistant species like cedar, locust, cypress, oak etc. and then the diameter of the stumps would also play a part.
If you can, it may be a good idea to dig a few inches around each stump and lay a cement casing around each stump under the ground to ensure that any ground moisture does not affect the wood.
termites, wood cracking, and new shoots may also be a hindrance if they are not controlled also.
So the simple answer (and a bit of a cop out) ... If you can control the moisture. it will work. if not. based on the lay of the land, wood species, stump thickness, climate etc... the stump will begin to deteriorate from the word go... | When I chop down a tree (yes I still use an axe) and I have chopped many down in my yard and for neighbors I usually get it about 2 feet above. Leave it for 6 months to a year and handle the stump.
Within a years time the tree has dried and the roots have started to rot/decay - and these are the ones that didn't become infested. These dried out stumps take about 5-10 minutes to go through and that is a tree 2 feet across. What will happen is the soil level will deteriorate next to the tree a bit, exposing more of the decaying trunk/roots. And that is your weak point the area of the tree about 6 inches to a foot below ground. Usually a few whacks with the axe and this part gets wobbly and eventually flies off.
So if you want your shed more than 1-2 years I wouldn't think about it. Now you can always level your other supports off with the trunk as it is now and it will be a pseudo support but really just an architectural feature. Without real weight on it, it will last longer. |
316,786 | I have run into an issue where if I am unchecking a checkbox: 'Let guest users see other members of this community' under general setting in Preferences.
If the check box is checked, welcome emails are getting triggered.
We unchecked it due to some security issues. But I am not sure what is the relation between this and sending email.
We send the welcome emails using standard "Welcome New Member" functionality of communities.
Do Anyone know whats wrong here.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/6123E.png) | 2020/08/14 | [
"https://salesforce.stackexchange.com/questions/316786",
"https://salesforce.stackexchange.com",
"https://salesforce.stackexchange.com/users/29964/"
] | You need to select "Send Welcome Email" on **Emails** Menu
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/gO3N4.png)
Please, take into account the following:
Salesforce sends welcome emails when:
* A community changes from Preview status to Active status. An inactive community doesnโt receive emails unless the associated org has a default portal or if the userโs profile is part of an active portal.
* An admin adds a profile or permission set to an active community.
* A user of an active community is assigned a profile or permission set.
read more about it [here](https://help.salesforce.com/articleView?id=networks_customize_email.htm&type=5) | Make sure you activate the community.
Administration > Settings > Activate |
75,339 | I installed NOOBS on my Raspberry Pi 3 and it worked fine until I decided to change the skin, which caused a system crash.
After restarting, the only thing visible is a black screen. However, I can still see and move the mouse cursor around the screen.
Is there some way to reset the skin without reinstalling the system?
*Note*: I do not have access to an SD Card Reader at the moment so I cannot easily reinstall the system. | 2017/11/17 | [
"https://raspberrypi.stackexchange.com/questions/75339",
"https://raspberrypi.stackexchange.com",
"https://raspberrypi.stackexchange.com/users/76402/"
] | **Update**: Firefox 64 is working with Ubuntu Mate 18.04
---
**No, it does not!**
Anyone who would like to use Firefox on the Raspberry Pi will still have to use an old version, preferably Firefox ESR (the latest ESR available on Raspbian is now 52.5.2 ESR, as of Dec 29, 2017).
I hope that this issue will be resolved before long, but unfortunately this does not seem very likely.
From what I have read elsewhere, nobody wants to take responsibility for the issue.
Edit:
=====
It seems to be possible to use Firefox 57 on the Raspberry Pi 3 running Ubuntu, by using 64 bit, see [jdonaldยดs answer](https://raspberrypi.stackexchange.com/a/77134/72982). | try the fix on my RPI2 with ubuntu mate 16.04. Finally it works when, I put in comment all the lines user\_pref containing gfx |
91,043 | From the image you can see the storm door latch is too close to the door knob causing you to scratch your hand when you try and open it. There are about three layers of support behind that catch, too.
The storm door fits well where it is, and doesn't look out of the ordinary, so I don't know what to do about the catch.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/5wRKo.jpg) | 2016/05/22 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/91043",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/7584/"
] | Consider replacing that door catch with one of this style. It would be a lot less traumatic to the knuckles when you use the regular door knob.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/lFbq1.png)
Alternatively you could consider a change of the regular door knob to an exterior lever style unit. These have additional benefit in that they can be opened by means other then a free hand which can be useful when you come in with two bags of groceries.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/BmUYz.png) | Raise the catch and the lock on the door to about 42", about the height of the deadbolt. |
114,961 | I've seen several datasheets for Bipolar Junction Transistors providing the value of the Base-Emitter voltage at saturation with values way above 0.6~0.7V ([Example](http://www.farnell.com/datasheets/165939.pdf)). What exactly does this entail? I had the notion that the voltage drop from base to emitter was similar to a forward biased diode, ~0.7V, independently of the Base-Emitter voltage. | 2014/06/11 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/114961",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/27067/"
] | This is a guaranteed **maximum** number, with a relatively heavy base and collector current (although only at 25ยฐC). There is no *typical* given.

Compare these *typical* curves for the common [MMBT4401 transistor](http://www.fairchildsemi.com/ds/2N/2N4401.pdf):

At the Ic=500mA, Ib=50mA level, the \$V\_{BE}\$ is typically more than 1 volt.
The manufacturer chooses to guarantee it will be less than 2V (compare to the '4401 where the guarantee is 1.2V). That's about all you can say about it.. it's probably closer to 1V than 2V typically, and certainly much less than 2V (and actually well under 1V) at more reasonable currents such as 10mA base current/100mA collector current.
It's not unusual for manufacturers to have loose guarantees.. leakage currents are often guaranteed at 1uA levels when actual typical leakage may be more like 1nA or 100fA. That speeds up the testing. In the case of the Vbe, it may reduce false fallouts due to bad connections in their test jigs or whatever. | The notion that "a forward conduction SI diode drops 0.7V" is a very rough estimate, which works quite well for LOW currents (compared to the diode's maximum). Look at this graph from an 1N4148 datasheet (the archetypical small-signal diode). At higher currents the voltage gets close to 2V. Your BE junction is behaving as a good approximation of a diode, it is your assumption of a diode's behavior that needs a some adjustment.
 |
4,130 | I would like to know how many punctuations are there and their respective action (i.e. stop for a while or don't stop at this point of sentence) that come in Quran.
For example, I know of one punctuation(not the exact letter) that is meant to be - the reader should not stop at this point while reading because that would make the sentence change it's meaning and could be totally opposite.
Please let me know. | 2012/10/18 | [
"https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/4130",
"https://islam.stackexchange.com",
"https://islam.stackexchange.com/users/380/"
] | These punctuation marks are called Alamatul Waqf or stopping punctuation.
**(ู
) Meem**: When seen, it means you must stop, it is a mandatory stop. Mind you, you will also see a meem After a Noon Sakin or a Tanwin which means that the rule of Iqlab is to be applied. You will see a Baa' after it, if you see no Baa' than there is no Iqlab.
**(ุฌ) Jeem**: It means you are able to stop if you want.
**(ูุง) Laam Alif**: Means to not stop here
**(ุณ) ููSeen**: Means to take a soft/short pause without taking a breath. You would also sometimes see a Seen above a Saad (ุต) That means you pronounce the latter a seen instead of Saad, but if it is under the Saad than pronouncing it as a Saad (it's original pronunciation).
**(ููู)**: Means that you can stop or move on, but stopping is more preferred than continuing on.
**(ุตูู)**: Means you can stop or continue on, but continuing on is more prefered than stopping.
Three dots:

This means you can stop at one of them but not both, so you can stop at (ุฑูุจ) but not at (ููู), but you can not stop at (ุฑูุจ) and (ููู) but just at one of them.
Source: <http://ar.islamway.com/fatwa/18732>
***Tip***: Usually you can look at the back of a Qur'an and you can see the list of the Alamat/Signs.
There is also Alamat in the Indian Script, they have most of the above. Here is the rest:
**(ุฒ) Zai**: al-waqf al-mujawwaz, means that you can stop, but the better choice is not to stop.
**(ุต) Saad** al-waqf al-murathkhas:
>
> means that the statement has not yet been completed at this point but, because the sentence has become long, here is the place to breathe and stop rather than do it elsewhere.
>
>
>
**ุณูุชู**: means one should stop here breaking the sound but not the breath.
**ูููู**:
>
> Means one must stop a little longer than saktah (pause). But, breath should not break here too.
>
>
>
**(ู) Qaaf**:
>
> means that some phoneticians of the Qur'an identify a stop here while others do not.
>
>
>
**ูู**:
>
> This word is 'qif which means 'stop' and it is inserted where the reader may possibly think that a stop was not correct there.
>
>
>
Read More [Here](http://www.saracenic.com/saracenic/Books/Maaruf/Volume1/Volume1-027-RumuzAl-Awqaf-Stop%20signs.htm). | These punctuation marks indicate where a person can/cannot or should/shouldn't stop. They're the tiny Arabic letters you see above the line you're reading.
What do they mean? They match up pretty much one-to-one with ahkaam taklifeeya.
* **Meem:** A fard stop. You *must* stop here.
* **Qaaf + Laam:** A musthabb stop. You *should* stop here.
* **Jeem:** A mubah stop. You can stop here if you want.
* **Saad + Laam:** A makrooh stop. It's better if you don't stop here.
* **Laam + Alif:** A haram stop. You *must not* stop here.
* **Two Pairs of Three Dots:** You need to stop at one of the two pairs of dots, but not both. Not sure if it's recommended, etc.
Reference (with pictures of the stops): [Tajweed - Different Stops](http://www.ilmfruits.com/2008/tajweed-different-stops/) |
4,130 | I would like to know how many punctuations are there and their respective action (i.e. stop for a while or don't stop at this point of sentence) that come in Quran.
For example, I know of one punctuation(not the exact letter) that is meant to be - the reader should not stop at this point while reading because that would make the sentence change it's meaning and could be totally opposite.
Please let me know. | 2012/10/18 | [
"https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/4130",
"https://islam.stackexchange.com",
"https://islam.stackexchange.com/users/380/"
] | These punctuation marks indicate where a person can/cannot or should/shouldn't stop. They're the tiny Arabic letters you see above the line you're reading.
What do they mean? They match up pretty much one-to-one with ahkaam taklifeeya.
* **Meem:** A fard stop. You *must* stop here.
* **Qaaf + Laam:** A musthabb stop. You *should* stop here.
* **Jeem:** A mubah stop. You can stop here if you want.
* **Saad + Laam:** A makrooh stop. It's better if you don't stop here.
* **Laam + Alif:** A haram stop. You *must not* stop here.
* **Two Pairs of Three Dots:** You need to stop at one of the two pairs of dots, but not both. Not sure if it's recommended, etc.
Reference (with pictures of the stops): [Tajweed - Different Stops](http://www.ilmfruits.com/2008/tajweed-different-stops/) | brother/sister
the medina mashaf is soo easy to read. the indian or south african print has about two dozen different stop signs.
we only have a 4 different stops in madina mashaf :) .
(ููู) better to stop but you can continue if you want to.
(ุฌ) you can stop or continue
(ู
ู) you must stop here
(ูุง) you must continue
there are a a couple more that only appear in a few places in the quran - the seen and the three dots but they were mentioned already by other people |
4,130 | I would like to know how many punctuations are there and their respective action (i.e. stop for a while or don't stop at this point of sentence) that come in Quran.
For example, I know of one punctuation(not the exact letter) that is meant to be - the reader should not stop at this point while reading because that would make the sentence change it's meaning and could be totally opposite.
Please let me know. | 2012/10/18 | [
"https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/4130",
"https://islam.stackexchange.com",
"https://islam.stackexchange.com/users/380/"
] | These punctuation marks are called Alamatul Waqf or stopping punctuation.
**(ู
) Meem**: When seen, it means you must stop, it is a mandatory stop. Mind you, you will also see a meem After a Noon Sakin or a Tanwin which means that the rule of Iqlab is to be applied. You will see a Baa' after it, if you see no Baa' than there is no Iqlab.
**(ุฌ) Jeem**: It means you are able to stop if you want.
**(ูุง) Laam Alif**: Means to not stop here
**(ุณ) ููSeen**: Means to take a soft/short pause without taking a breath. You would also sometimes see a Seen above a Saad (ุต) That means you pronounce the latter a seen instead of Saad, but if it is under the Saad than pronouncing it as a Saad (it's original pronunciation).
**(ููู)**: Means that you can stop or move on, but stopping is more preferred than continuing on.
**(ุตูู)**: Means you can stop or continue on, but continuing on is more prefered than stopping.
Three dots:

This means you can stop at one of them but not both, so you can stop at (ุฑูุจ) but not at (ููู), but you can not stop at (ุฑูุจ) and (ููู) but just at one of them.
Source: <http://ar.islamway.com/fatwa/18732>
***Tip***: Usually you can look at the back of a Qur'an and you can see the list of the Alamat/Signs.
There is also Alamat in the Indian Script, they have most of the above. Here is the rest:
**(ุฒ) Zai**: al-waqf al-mujawwaz, means that you can stop, but the better choice is not to stop.
**(ุต) Saad** al-waqf al-murathkhas:
>
> means that the statement has not yet been completed at this point but, because the sentence has become long, here is the place to breathe and stop rather than do it elsewhere.
>
>
>
**ุณูุชู**: means one should stop here breaking the sound but not the breath.
**ูููู**:
>
> Means one must stop a little longer than saktah (pause). But, breath should not break here too.
>
>
>
**(ู) Qaaf**:
>
> means that some phoneticians of the Qur'an identify a stop here while others do not.
>
>
>
**ูู**:
>
> This word is 'qif which means 'stop' and it is inserted where the reader may possibly think that a stop was not correct there.
>
>
>
Read More [Here](http://www.saracenic.com/saracenic/Books/Maaruf/Volume1/Volume1-027-RumuzAl-Awqaf-Stop%20signs.htm). | Here is a summary of *Alamat Al-Waqf* (stopping punctuation).
* At the end of each *aya* (usually denoted by the *aya*'s number inside a stylized circle), it is *wajib* (mandatory) to stop.

* (ู
ู) Mandatory stop (*wajib*). Note that this is different from (ู
) which is a pronunciation symbol used to denote *idgham* (pronouncing the adjacent letter as *meem*).

* (ููู) It is better to stop (*mustahab*), but you may continue (*ja'iz*).

* (ุฌ) Neutral. You may stop and you may continue. Choice is left to the reader. Both are *ja'iz*.

* (ุตูู) It is better to continue (*mustahab*), but you may stop (*ja'iz*).

* (ูุง) Mandatory (*wajib*) to continue.

* (**โด**) These come in two. If you stop in one (*ja'iz*) you must continue in the other (*wajib*). You do not stop at both (*wajib*).

* (ุณ) You make a very short pause (without taking a breath), then continue. (*ja'iz*)

[Source (Arabic)](http://ar.islamway.com/fatwa/18732) |
4,130 | I would like to know how many punctuations are there and their respective action (i.e. stop for a while or don't stop at this point of sentence) that come in Quran.
For example, I know of one punctuation(not the exact letter) that is meant to be - the reader should not stop at this point while reading because that would make the sentence change it's meaning and could be totally opposite.
Please let me know. | 2012/10/18 | [
"https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/4130",
"https://islam.stackexchange.com",
"https://islam.stackexchange.com/users/380/"
] | Here is a summary of *Alamat Al-Waqf* (stopping punctuation).
* At the end of each *aya* (usually denoted by the *aya*'s number inside a stylized circle), it is *wajib* (mandatory) to stop.

* (ู
ู) Mandatory stop (*wajib*). Note that this is different from (ู
) which is a pronunciation symbol used to denote *idgham* (pronouncing the adjacent letter as *meem*).

* (ููู) It is better to stop (*mustahab*), but you may continue (*ja'iz*).

* (ุฌ) Neutral. You may stop and you may continue. Choice is left to the reader. Both are *ja'iz*.

* (ุตูู) It is better to continue (*mustahab*), but you may stop (*ja'iz*).

* (ูุง) Mandatory (*wajib*) to continue.

* (**โด**) These come in two. If you stop in one (*ja'iz*) you must continue in the other (*wajib*). You do not stop at both (*wajib*).

* (ุณ) You make a very short pause (without taking a breath), then continue. (*ja'iz*)

[Source (Arabic)](http://ar.islamway.com/fatwa/18732) | brother/sister
the medina mashaf is soo easy to read. the indian or south african print has about two dozen different stop signs.
we only have a 4 different stops in madina mashaf :) .
(ููู) better to stop but you can continue if you want to.
(ุฌ) you can stop or continue
(ู
ู) you must stop here
(ูุง) you must continue
there are a a couple more that only appear in a few places in the quran - the seen and the three dots but they were mentioned already by other people |
4,130 | I would like to know how many punctuations are there and their respective action (i.e. stop for a while or don't stop at this point of sentence) that come in Quran.
For example, I know of one punctuation(not the exact letter) that is meant to be - the reader should not stop at this point while reading because that would make the sentence change it's meaning and could be totally opposite.
Please let me know. | 2012/10/18 | [
"https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/4130",
"https://islam.stackexchange.com",
"https://islam.stackexchange.com/users/380/"
] | These punctuation marks are called Alamatul Waqf or stopping punctuation.
**(ู
) Meem**: When seen, it means you must stop, it is a mandatory stop. Mind you, you will also see a meem After a Noon Sakin or a Tanwin which means that the rule of Iqlab is to be applied. You will see a Baa' after it, if you see no Baa' than there is no Iqlab.
**(ุฌ) Jeem**: It means you are able to stop if you want.
**(ูุง) Laam Alif**: Means to not stop here
**(ุณ) ููSeen**: Means to take a soft/short pause without taking a breath. You would also sometimes see a Seen above a Saad (ุต) That means you pronounce the latter a seen instead of Saad, but if it is under the Saad than pronouncing it as a Saad (it's original pronunciation).
**(ููู)**: Means that you can stop or move on, but stopping is more preferred than continuing on.
**(ุตูู)**: Means you can stop or continue on, but continuing on is more prefered than stopping.
Three dots:

This means you can stop at one of them but not both, so you can stop at (ุฑูุจ) but not at (ููู), but you can not stop at (ุฑูุจ) and (ููู) but just at one of them.
Source: <http://ar.islamway.com/fatwa/18732>
***Tip***: Usually you can look at the back of a Qur'an and you can see the list of the Alamat/Signs.
There is also Alamat in the Indian Script, they have most of the above. Here is the rest:
**(ุฒ) Zai**: al-waqf al-mujawwaz, means that you can stop, but the better choice is not to stop.
**(ุต) Saad** al-waqf al-murathkhas:
>
> means that the statement has not yet been completed at this point but, because the sentence has become long, here is the place to breathe and stop rather than do it elsewhere.
>
>
>
**ุณูุชู**: means one should stop here breaking the sound but not the breath.
**ูููู**:
>
> Means one must stop a little longer than saktah (pause). But, breath should not break here too.
>
>
>
**(ู) Qaaf**:
>
> means that some phoneticians of the Qur'an identify a stop here while others do not.
>
>
>
**ูู**:
>
> This word is 'qif which means 'stop' and it is inserted where the reader may possibly think that a stop was not correct there.
>
>
>
Read More [Here](http://www.saracenic.com/saracenic/Books/Maaruf/Volume1/Volume1-027-RumuzAl-Awqaf-Stop%20signs.htm). | brother/sister
the medina mashaf is soo easy to read. the indian or south african print has about two dozen different stop signs.
we only have a 4 different stops in madina mashaf :) .
(ููู) better to stop but you can continue if you want to.
(ุฌ) you can stop or continue
(ู
ู) you must stop here
(ูุง) you must continue
there are a a couple more that only appear in a few places in the quran - the seen and the three dots but they were mentioned already by other people |
4,130 | I would like to know how many punctuations are there and their respective action (i.e. stop for a while or don't stop at this point of sentence) that come in Quran.
For example, I know of one punctuation(not the exact letter) that is meant to be - the reader should not stop at this point while reading because that would make the sentence change it's meaning and could be totally opposite.
Please let me know. | 2012/10/18 | [
"https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/4130",
"https://islam.stackexchange.com",
"https://islam.stackexchange.com/users/380/"
] | These punctuation marks are called Alamatul Waqf or stopping punctuation.
**(ู
) Meem**: When seen, it means you must stop, it is a mandatory stop. Mind you, you will also see a meem After a Noon Sakin or a Tanwin which means that the rule of Iqlab is to be applied. You will see a Baa' after it, if you see no Baa' than there is no Iqlab.
**(ุฌ) Jeem**: It means you are able to stop if you want.
**(ูุง) Laam Alif**: Means to not stop here
**(ุณ) ููSeen**: Means to take a soft/short pause without taking a breath. You would also sometimes see a Seen above a Saad (ุต) That means you pronounce the latter a seen instead of Saad, but if it is under the Saad than pronouncing it as a Saad (it's original pronunciation).
**(ููู)**: Means that you can stop or move on, but stopping is more preferred than continuing on.
**(ุตูู)**: Means you can stop or continue on, but continuing on is more prefered than stopping.
Three dots:

This means you can stop at one of them but not both, so you can stop at (ุฑูุจ) but not at (ููู), but you can not stop at (ุฑูุจ) and (ููู) but just at one of them.
Source: <http://ar.islamway.com/fatwa/18732>
***Tip***: Usually you can look at the back of a Qur'an and you can see the list of the Alamat/Signs.
There is also Alamat in the Indian Script, they have most of the above. Here is the rest:
**(ุฒ) Zai**: al-waqf al-mujawwaz, means that you can stop, but the better choice is not to stop.
**(ุต) Saad** al-waqf al-murathkhas:
>
> means that the statement has not yet been completed at this point but, because the sentence has become long, here is the place to breathe and stop rather than do it elsewhere.
>
>
>
**ุณูุชู**: means one should stop here breaking the sound but not the breath.
**ูููู**:
>
> Means one must stop a little longer than saktah (pause). But, breath should not break here too.
>
>
>
**(ู) Qaaf**:
>
> means that some phoneticians of the Qur'an identify a stop here while others do not.
>
>
>
**ูู**:
>
> This word is 'qif which means 'stop' and it is inserted where the reader may possibly think that a stop was not correct there.
>
>
>
Read More [Here](http://www.saracenic.com/saracenic/Books/Maaruf/Volume1/Volume1-027-RumuzAl-Awqaf-Stop%20signs.htm). | The given answers especially the one of @ู
ุฌุงูุฏ only cover the complex punctuation, symbols or signs of waqf (pausing) which are applied in the most prevalent Moshaf's following the Egyptian standard moshaf ุงูู
ุตุญู ุงูู
ุตุฑู, which is the one followed in moshaf al-Madina which is printed in the King Fahad Complex ุตุญู ุงูู
ุฏููุฉ ุงููุจููุฉ ุงูู
ุทุจูุน ุจู
ุฌู
ุน ุงูู
ูู ููุฏ ูุทุจุงุนุฉ ุงูู
ุตุญู ุงูุดุฑูู. I'll use the accepted answer of ู
ุฌุงูุฏ as a reference for the Egyptian standard.
**Waqf signs in North Africa**
In northern Africa and most countries were the reading of Warsh or Qalun from Nafi'i is wide spread an other very simple punctuation is used:
For example in the tajweed Quran printed by dar al-Ma'arifah ุฏุงุฑ ุงูู
ุนุฑูุฉ (Damascus), here surah al-Ma'un 107:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/MiRJV.jpg)
or a moshaf written in the Moroccan-Andalusian calligraphy style (3rd. page surah al-Baqarah verse 5-15):
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/V7Hhp.gif)
Note that in this calligraphy style the letter ูุงุก has no point on it while the letter ูุงู looks like a ูุงุก: For example [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/fi2Xx.gif) is ููู ูููููุจูููู
ู. There's also a simplified North African calligraphy which is easier to read as it looks like the Egyptian handwriting style.
The only symbol for waqf used in this moshaf is the Arabic letter ุตุงุฏ ssad ("ุต" in the text) or a simplified ุตู, (you may see it written in a diagonal position in the 2nd picture) which is an Arabic expression and means keep quiet.
---
**Waqf signs in Turkish and Indian moshafs**
In India and Turkey they follow the signs of waqf of the Imam as-Sijaawandi ุงูุณุฌุงููุฏู (died 540 a.H.) in his book 'Ilal al-Wuqoof ุนูู ุงููููู and they are:
ู
Meem: for a mandatory waqf (pause).
ุท Ta': for waqf al-motlaq ุงูููู ุงูู
ุทูู which is similar to ููู in the Egyptian standard.
ุฌ Jeem: it is allowed waqf (the similar as in the Egyptian standard).
ุฒ Zay: it is allowed to do waqf but better not (similar as in the Egyptian standard).
ุต Sad: al-Waqf al morakhas darouratn, it means it is allowed to do waqf here in case of necessity (similar as in the Egyptian standard)
ูุง Laa: Where one shouldn't make waqf!
In Pakistan you may find an additional sign:
ุน 'Ayn: which is sign recommending to bow if you are reciting in a prayer.
([Source](http://www.alukah.net/sharia/0/72376/) and [also](http://www.aroqia.com/vb/showthread.php?t=10370)) |
4,130 | I would like to know how many punctuations are there and their respective action (i.e. stop for a while or don't stop at this point of sentence) that come in Quran.
For example, I know of one punctuation(not the exact letter) that is meant to be - the reader should not stop at this point while reading because that would make the sentence change it's meaning and could be totally opposite.
Please let me know. | 2012/10/18 | [
"https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/4130",
"https://islam.stackexchange.com",
"https://islam.stackexchange.com/users/380/"
] | The given answers especially the one of @ู
ุฌุงูุฏ only cover the complex punctuation, symbols or signs of waqf (pausing) which are applied in the most prevalent Moshaf's following the Egyptian standard moshaf ุงูู
ุตุญู ุงูู
ุตุฑู, which is the one followed in moshaf al-Madina which is printed in the King Fahad Complex ุตุญู ุงูู
ุฏููุฉ ุงููุจููุฉ ุงูู
ุทุจูุน ุจู
ุฌู
ุน ุงูู
ูู ููุฏ ูุทุจุงุนุฉ ุงูู
ุตุญู ุงูุดุฑูู. I'll use the accepted answer of ู
ุฌุงูุฏ as a reference for the Egyptian standard.
**Waqf signs in North Africa**
In northern Africa and most countries were the reading of Warsh or Qalun from Nafi'i is wide spread an other very simple punctuation is used:
For example in the tajweed Quran printed by dar al-Ma'arifah ุฏุงุฑ ุงูู
ุนุฑูุฉ (Damascus), here surah al-Ma'un 107:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/MiRJV.jpg)
or a moshaf written in the Moroccan-Andalusian calligraphy style (3rd. page surah al-Baqarah verse 5-15):
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/V7Hhp.gif)
Note that in this calligraphy style the letter ูุงุก has no point on it while the letter ูุงู looks like a ูุงุก: For example [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/fi2Xx.gif) is ููู ูููููุจูููู
ู. There's also a simplified North African calligraphy which is easier to read as it looks like the Egyptian handwriting style.
The only symbol for waqf used in this moshaf is the Arabic letter ุตุงุฏ ssad ("ุต" in the text) or a simplified ุตู, (you may see it written in a diagonal position in the 2nd picture) which is an Arabic expression and means keep quiet.
---
**Waqf signs in Turkish and Indian moshafs**
In India and Turkey they follow the signs of waqf of the Imam as-Sijaawandi ุงูุณุฌุงููุฏู (died 540 a.H.) in his book 'Ilal al-Wuqoof ุนูู ุงููููู and they are:
ู
Meem: for a mandatory waqf (pause).
ุท Ta': for waqf al-motlaq ุงูููู ุงูู
ุทูู which is similar to ููู in the Egyptian standard.
ุฌ Jeem: it is allowed waqf (the similar as in the Egyptian standard).
ุฒ Zay: it is allowed to do waqf but better not (similar as in the Egyptian standard).
ุต Sad: al-Waqf al morakhas darouratn, it means it is allowed to do waqf here in case of necessity (similar as in the Egyptian standard)
ูุง Laa: Where one shouldn't make waqf!
In Pakistan you may find an additional sign:
ุน 'Ayn: which is sign recommending to bow if you are reciting in a prayer.
([Source](http://www.alukah.net/sharia/0/72376/) and [also](http://www.aroqia.com/vb/showthread.php?t=10370)) | brother/sister
the medina mashaf is soo easy to read. the indian or south african print has about two dozen different stop signs.
we only have a 4 different stops in madina mashaf :) .
(ููู) better to stop but you can continue if you want to.
(ุฌ) you can stop or continue
(ู
ู) you must stop here
(ูุง) you must continue
there are a a couple more that only appear in a few places in the quran - the seen and the three dots but they were mentioned already by other people |
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