qid int64 1 74.7M | question stringlengths 12 33.8k | date stringlengths 10 10 | metadata list | response_j stringlengths 0 115k | response_k stringlengths 2 98.3k |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
108,609 | I have a mysterious problem with my XP laptop. Since a) installing the latest windows updates and b) using Picasa 3.6 to look through dozens of GB of photos for faces, it now takes ages (first time: 45mins, second time: 10 mins) to get from login to a populated desktop. The whole time the hard drive light is on.
I am also experiencing odd freezing of the UI - in a context menu, or trying to start Access Connections, the window may freeze and no longer redraw until I eventually kill it off with the task manager (which may also take several minutes to respond). Other things seem fine; Firefox is working as usual, for example, although the first time it took 30 minutes until the WiFi was recognised :/
I have tried uninstalling the dodgy windows update, which has not helped. Could it be Picasa slowing me down? if so, is there a service I should stop or something? Any ideas would be much appreciated! | 2010/02/14 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/108609",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/3856/"
] | * check your event log.
* use **[Bootvis](http://www.softpedia.com/get/Tweak/System-Tweak/BootVis.shtml)** to find the culprit(s).
* use **[Autoruns](http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/sysinternals/bb963902.aspx)** to disable the programs causing the delay (and other unwanted/unnecessary programs). | The answer was actually to ininstall ThinkVantage Access Connections (the Thinkpad WiFi utility). No idea why it started playing up so badly.
The first answer is more useful in general though, so I won't tick this as the accepted answer. |
35,893,973 | The information about ASP.NET Core MVC 1.0 (aka MVC 6) is a little light from Microsoft, so there's a few questions still unanswered. One question I have is in regards to backwards compatibility and upgradability. It's known that WebForms is not part of ASP.NET Core 1.0.
What is unclear is whether ASP.NET Core MVC 1.0 (aka MVC 6) will run on both ASP.NET 4.x AND ASP.NET Core 1.0? Or is ASP.NET Core MVC 1.0 only compatible with ASP.NET Core 1.0?
When attempting to upgrade the ASP.NET MVC nuget package from MVC 5 to MVC 6 (final RC1 at this time) the following error is given in Visual Studio:
>
> Unable to find a version of 'Microsoft.AspNet.Razor' that is compatible with 'Microsoft.AspNet.Razor.Runtime 4.0.0-rc1-final constraint: Microsoft.AspNet.Razor (≥ 4.0.0-rc1-final)', 'Microsoft.AspNet.WebPages 3.2.3 constraint: Microsoft.AspNet.Razor (≥ 3.2.3 && < 3.3.0)'.
>
>
>
It's unclear if this is a versioning issue with the RC, or if ASP.NET Core MVC (aka MVC 6) will not be supported on ASP.NET 4.6?
Basically, does/will ASP.NET Core MVC 1.0 (aka MVC 6) support running on ASP.NET 4.6? | 2016/03/09 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/35893973",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/7831/"
] | No it won't.
MVC 6/MVC Core 1.0 is aimed at, and only compatible with ASP.NET Core. | You are going to have to do a manual upgrade / conversion of your application.
you basically have three options,
1: convert everything in one shot.
2: convert as your go and have your site be actually two sites that work together until you finish the conversion
3: stick with what you have and do not upgrade.
many reasons for choosing each option... |
35,893,973 | The information about ASP.NET Core MVC 1.0 (aka MVC 6) is a little light from Microsoft, so there's a few questions still unanswered. One question I have is in regards to backwards compatibility and upgradability. It's known that WebForms is not part of ASP.NET Core 1.0.
What is unclear is whether ASP.NET Core MVC 1.0 (aka MVC 6) will run on both ASP.NET 4.x AND ASP.NET Core 1.0? Or is ASP.NET Core MVC 1.0 only compatible with ASP.NET Core 1.0?
When attempting to upgrade the ASP.NET MVC nuget package from MVC 5 to MVC 6 (final RC1 at this time) the following error is given in Visual Studio:
>
> Unable to find a version of 'Microsoft.AspNet.Razor' that is compatible with 'Microsoft.AspNet.Razor.Runtime 4.0.0-rc1-final constraint: Microsoft.AspNet.Razor (≥ 4.0.0-rc1-final)', 'Microsoft.AspNet.WebPages 3.2.3 constraint: Microsoft.AspNet.Razor (≥ 3.2.3 && < 3.3.0)'.
>
>
>
It's unclear if this is a versioning issue with the RC, or if ASP.NET Core MVC (aka MVC 6) will not be supported on ASP.NET 4.6?
Basically, does/will ASP.NET Core MVC 1.0 (aka MVC 6) support running on ASP.NET 4.6? | 2016/03/09 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/35893973",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/7831/"
] | No it won't.
MVC 6/MVC Core 1.0 is aimed at, and only compatible with ASP.NET Core. | It wont support. That is one of the reason they decided to make it core 1.0 instead of asp.net 5 |
534,543 | I have **Cisco Catalyst 2960-s** switch and I want to configure *three Vlans* (A; B; C)
I want to :
* *Allow* traffic between A and B
* *Allow* traffic between A and C
* *Block* traffic between C and B
or if there is other method to permit/deny access between switch ports. | 2013/08/28 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/534543",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/187570/"
] | **- Power off a host.** - To test high-availability and admission control.
**- Power off a switch.** - To test failover links.
**- Disconnect data and storage network cables independently.** - To test resiliency, load balancing and datastore heartbeat/host isolation state. Also storage controller failover. | When we test failure scenarios we start by removing individual wires/fibres, then whole NICs/HBAs, then servers, then switches - i.e. small to large - simply because if the platform can't handle the small then testing on the large will be pointless.
That said I can't see any issues with your setup, not as you've explained it anyway. |
534,543 | I have **Cisco Catalyst 2960-s** switch and I want to configure *three Vlans* (A; B; C)
I want to :
* *Allow* traffic between A and B
* *Allow* traffic between A and C
* *Block* traffic between C and B
or if there is other method to permit/deny access between switch ports. | 2013/08/28 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/534543",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/187570/"
] | **- Power off a host.** - To test high-availability and admission control.
**- Power off a switch.** - To test failover links.
**- Disconnect data and storage network cables independently.** - To test resiliency, load balancing and datastore heartbeat/host isolation state. Also storage controller failover. | I more go on the big approach - unplug a server and on the next try storage and on the last one a switch - or in any other order - if the system survives that -> all good. But if you do have a lot of time (and someone to pay for it), you can try each small problem on it's own...
Tsg |
534,543 | I have **Cisco Catalyst 2960-s** switch and I want to configure *three Vlans* (A; B; C)
I want to :
* *Allow* traffic between A and B
* *Allow* traffic between A and C
* *Block* traffic between C and B
or if there is other method to permit/deny access between switch ports. | 2013/08/28 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/534543",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/187570/"
] | When we test failure scenarios we start by removing individual wires/fibres, then whole NICs/HBAs, then servers, then switches - i.e. small to large - simply because if the platform can't handle the small then testing on the large will be pointless.
That said I can't see any issues with your setup, not as you've explained it anyway. | I more go on the big approach - unplug a server and on the next try storage and on the last one a switch - or in any other order - if the system survives that -> all good. But if you do have a lot of time (and someone to pay for it), you can try each small problem on it's own...
Tsg |
15,353 | I grew up in a western country raised in a western atmosphere with a western mentality. I'm talking things like the pyramid of needs and how apparently self-gratification and personal success are the highest on the checklist. I grew up with an attitude that stressed individuality above everything else, self-accomplishment as the most important trait of a person, and everything under it (money, fame, finance, cars, houses, etc). When I started practicing Buddhism, I began to look into the nature of the "self" and the ego, and now it seems to me like there is an inner cultural conflict.
What does Buddhism say about success and accomplishment in life? It seems on one hand you have an absolute western mentality about achievement and individual strength and standing out from all others as an ultimate success. On the other, Buddhism and a lot of eastern cultures traditionaly emphasize humility, selflesness, and non-attachment to one's ego.
Thank you all~. | 2016/06/03 | [
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/questions/15353",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com",
"https://buddhism.stackexchange.com/users/7115/"
] | This is an old question, but just popped up at the beginning of my feed.
I am not sure about a handout, but the book on the subject by Alan Wallace is ***The Seven-Point Mind Training: A Tibetan Method For Cultivating Mind And Heart***
The kindle or paperback is available on Amazon. | [there are texts here on lojong](https://studybuddhism.com/en/tibetan-buddhism/mind-training)
Dr. Berzin is a guru of a tibetan Mahayana lineage and offers lojong training on his website under Tibetan Mind training. There are also audio files for the mind training lectures on his Soundcloud Study Buddhism. |
1,795,690 | when studying about xml vulnerabilities , i came accross coercive parsing attack.
can anybody say what exactly is Coercive parsing attack(in SOA applications). How does the attack take place? How can one implement this attack using xml parser in java? | 2009/11/25 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1795690",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/218431/"
] | Because web services need to consume messages and XML documents it is possible to create XML documents which may strain the consuming systems as they try to validate and route it. Send enough of those documents at once and the consuming system may use up all its resources trying to work out if the messages are good or not and reject valid messages. Usually you do it by constructing a message with an insanely deep nesting structure, or even recursive nesting.
You'll implement it by constructing such a document and sending it off to the web service. | Generally applications use document type definitions(DTDs) for backward compatibility.
XML definitions allow the use of element "CDATA" which allows illegal characters '<','&'.
**All text in an xml document will be parsed by parser. But text inside te cdata section will be ignored by parsers which allows the attackers to send possible system commands to the underlying systems and can sneak in system commands that could potentially be disastrous, they could allow the attaker to manipulate the host with a series of commands.**
They could also be used for injection attacks like xpath injection attacks. |
1,795,690 | when studying about xml vulnerabilities , i came accross coercive parsing attack.
can anybody say what exactly is Coercive parsing attack(in SOA applications). How does the attack take place? How can one implement this attack using xml parser in java? | 2009/11/25 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1795690",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/218431/"
] | For an example implementation of this attack, see the "Billion Laughs Attack."
For a full discussion of the attack, how to test for it, and basic defenses, see the ["Web Security Testing Cookbook" recipe on Malicious XML.](http://books.google.com/books?id=VmrSJ3V-s_MC&lpg=PT116&dq=web%20security%20testing%20cookbook%20billion%20laughs&pg=PT116#v=onepage&q=web%20security%20testing%20cookbook%20billion%20laughs&f=false) (Free Google Preview - it's only 3 pages). An excerpt:
"This billion laughs attack abuses the tendency of many XML parsers to keep the entire structure of the XML document in memory as it is parsed ... enough to exhaust a vulnerable program's available memory."
Here's a few other resources:
<http://www.ibm.com/developerworks/xml/library/x-tipcfsx.html>
<http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Billion_laughs> | Because web services need to consume messages and XML documents it is possible to create XML documents which may strain the consuming systems as they try to validate and route it. Send enough of those documents at once and the consuming system may use up all its resources trying to work out if the messages are good or not and reject valid messages. Usually you do it by constructing a message with an insanely deep nesting structure, or even recursive nesting.
You'll implement it by constructing such a document and sending it off to the web service. |
1,795,690 | when studying about xml vulnerabilities , i came accross coercive parsing attack.
can anybody say what exactly is Coercive parsing attack(in SOA applications). How does the attack take place? How can one implement this attack using xml parser in java? | 2009/11/25 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1795690",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/218431/"
] | For an example implementation of this attack, see the "Billion Laughs Attack."
For a full discussion of the attack, how to test for it, and basic defenses, see the ["Web Security Testing Cookbook" recipe on Malicious XML.](http://books.google.com/books?id=VmrSJ3V-s_MC&lpg=PT116&dq=web%20security%20testing%20cookbook%20billion%20laughs&pg=PT116#v=onepage&q=web%20security%20testing%20cookbook%20billion%20laughs&f=false) (Free Google Preview - it's only 3 pages). An excerpt:
"This billion laughs attack abuses the tendency of many XML parsers to keep the entire structure of the XML document in memory as it is parsed ... enough to exhaust a vulnerable program's available memory."
Here's a few other resources:
<http://www.ibm.com/developerworks/xml/library/x-tipcfsx.html>
<http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Billion_laughs> | Generally applications use document type definitions(DTDs) for backward compatibility.
XML definitions allow the use of element "CDATA" which allows illegal characters '<','&'.
**All text in an xml document will be parsed by parser. But text inside te cdata section will be ignored by parsers which allows the attackers to send possible system commands to the underlying systems and can sneak in system commands that could potentially be disastrous, they could allow the attaker to manipulate the host with a series of commands.**
They could also be used for injection attacks like xpath injection attacks. |
148,566 | In 2.79, I could get easily acceptable quality from the native renderer. I'd like to move to 2.80 but can't get a good quality render from cycles and eevee is far worse.
The files below are an old practice image that used many of the basic techniques that I needed to practice. I'm more interested in technical drawings but needed something a bit more capable than the free Sketchup offered.
<http://www.bcae1.com/temp/blender%20help/>
Can I get a clean render (no fireflies?), proper clear transparencies, clean reflections in cycles? In blender render, it was so simple. In cycles, I'm having no luck.
To make it easier to show new settings:
<http://www.bcae1.com/temp/blender%20help/hydrauliccylindertransparenttube01.blend>
This will allow anyone helping to change the materials for the tube without having to try to go through the mess I have on the larger file.
Thanks to all who posted.
I think, for now, I've found a solution that will work for me (Radeon ProRender). The controls work as I expect. I'm sure that Cycles works as well or better since I've heard very little about the Radeon renderer but I can make ProRender do what I need it to do for now where Cycles just baffles me. Thanks again. | 2019/08/14 | [
"https://blender.stackexchange.com/questions/148566",
"https://blender.stackexchange.com",
"https://blender.stackexchange.com/users/76016/"
] | Either crank up your samples or try denoising with AI or Photoshop / AfterEffects.
The former takes a little longer to render, the latter produces artifacts at times.
I am not too sure about the current implementation of denoising into cycles, but there is an addon called dnoise you could try out. Otherwise go into the "Properties" Editor, into the "Render" Context and and put a higher value into the "Render" textfield under "Sampling".
The thing is, that Cycles does a lot more realistic calculations than BlenderRenderer ever did, so it takes longer to produce a clean result... | [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Mmp9j.jpg)
Hi Perry, linked is your file with material setups for EEVEE and Cycles. This is by no means the only way of doing this, and you will see I have a few different setups available for the glass material. I won't be able to host the file indefinitely, so be sure to download it ASAP. You will get good results in Cycles by turning the sample count up and using denoising as I have it selected in your file. Currently it's 256 samples but it really should be more like 1024 for this shot. In the EEVEE shot above, it's 64 samples and a lightning quick render. To keep the highlights from blowing out, I used Filmic, High Contrast, and 0.8 gamma in the Color Management settings. Different scenes can use different settings. It still looks good even with the default "Standard" view transform and "None" look.
I fixed some issues with the gray end caps by setting shading to smooth and then enabling "auto smooth" on both of them from the Object Data > Normals panel.
[Here is the .blend file.](https://drive.google.com/file/d/18PfNjsAndBfjZR4jsAOz3D8E0Erc9Z8u/view?usp=sharing) Included HDRI is a free file from [HDRI haven here.](https://hdrihaven.com/hdri/?c=artificial%20light&h=autoshop_01) I hope this helps!
-Adam |
655,589 | I am currently studying Graph Theory and want to know the difference in between Path , Cycle and Circuit.
I know the difference between Path and the cycle but What is the Circuit actually mean. | 2014/01/29 | [
"https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/655589",
"https://math.stackexchange.com",
"https://math.stackexchange.com/users/122373/"
] | All of these are sequences of vertices and edges. They have the following properties :
1. **Walk** : Vertices may repeat. Edges may repeat (Closed or Open)
2. **Trail** : Vertices may repeat. Edges cannot repeat (Open)
3. **Circuit** : Vertices may repeat. Edges cannot repeat (Closed)
4. **Path** : Vertices cannot repeat. Edges cannot repeat (Open)
5. **Cycle** : Vertices cannot repeat. Edges cannot repeat (Closed)
**NOTE** : For closed sequences start and end vertices are the only ones that can repeat. | In a circuit we have can repeated vertices, but we cannot in a cycle. |
655,589 | I am currently studying Graph Theory and want to know the difference in between Path , Cycle and Circuit.
I know the difference between Path and the cycle but What is the Circuit actually mean. | 2014/01/29 | [
"https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/655589",
"https://math.stackexchange.com",
"https://math.stackexchange.com/users/122373/"
] | In a circuit we have can repeated vertices, but we cannot in a cycle. | cycle is a closed path with no vertices repeated. |
655,589 | I am currently studying Graph Theory and want to know the difference in between Path , Cycle and Circuit.
I know the difference between Path and the cycle but What is the Circuit actually mean. | 2014/01/29 | [
"https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/655589",
"https://math.stackexchange.com",
"https://math.stackexchange.com/users/122373/"
] | Usually a path in general is same as a walk which is just a sequence of vertices such that adjacent vertices are connected by edges. Think of it as just traveling around a graph along the edges with no restrictions.
Some books, however, refer to a path as a "simple" path. In that case when we say a path we mean that **no vertices are repeated**. We do not travel to the same vertex twice (or more).
A **cycle** is a **closed** path. That is, we start and end at the same vertex. In the middle, we do not travel to any vertex twice.
It will be convenient to define trails before moving on to circuits. Trails refer to a walk where **no edge is repeated**. (Observe the difference between a trail and a simple path)
**Circuits** refer to the **closed** trails, meaning we start and end at the same vertex. | cycle is a closed path with no vertices repeated. |
655,589 | I am currently studying Graph Theory and want to know the difference in between Path , Cycle and Circuit.
I know the difference between Path and the cycle but What is the Circuit actually mean. | 2014/01/29 | [
"https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/655589",
"https://math.stackexchange.com",
"https://math.stackexchange.com/users/122373/"
] | Different books have different terminology in some books a simple path means in which none of the edges are repeated and a circuit is a path which begins and ends at same vertex,and circuit and cycle are same thing in these books.
Books which use the term walk have different definitions of path and circuit,here, walk is defined to be an alternating sequence of vertices and edges of a graph, a trail is used to denote a walk that has no repeated edge here a path is a trail with no repeated vertices, closed walk is walk that starts and ends with same vertex and a circuit is a closed trail. | In a circuit we have can repeated vertices, but we cannot in a cycle. |
655,589 | I am currently studying Graph Theory and want to know the difference in between Path , Cycle and Circuit.
I know the difference between Path and the cycle but What is the Circuit actually mean. | 2014/01/29 | [
"https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/655589",
"https://math.stackexchange.com",
"https://math.stackexchange.com/users/122373/"
] | Usually a path in general is same as a walk which is just a sequence of vertices such that adjacent vertices are connected by edges. Think of it as just traveling around a graph along the edges with no restrictions.
Some books, however, refer to a path as a "simple" path. In that case when we say a path we mean that **no vertices are repeated**. We do not travel to the same vertex twice (or more).
A **cycle** is a **closed** path. That is, we start and end at the same vertex. In the middle, we do not travel to any vertex twice.
It will be convenient to define trails before moving on to circuits. Trails refer to a walk where **no edge is repeated**. (Observe the difference between a trail and a simple path)
**Circuits** refer to the **closed** trails, meaning we start and end at the same vertex. | In a circuit we have can repeated vertices, but we cannot in a cycle. |
655,589 | I am currently studying Graph Theory and want to know the difference in between Path , Cycle and Circuit.
I know the difference between Path and the cycle but What is the Circuit actually mean. | 2014/01/29 | [
"https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/655589",
"https://math.stackexchange.com",
"https://math.stackexchange.com/users/122373/"
] | All of these are sequences of vertices and edges. They have the following properties :
1. **Walk** : Vertices may repeat. Edges may repeat (Closed or Open)
2. **Trail** : Vertices may repeat. Edges cannot repeat (Open)
3. **Circuit** : Vertices may repeat. Edges cannot repeat (Closed)
4. **Path** : Vertices cannot repeat. Edges cannot repeat (Open)
5. **Cycle** : Vertices cannot repeat. Edges cannot repeat (Closed)
**NOTE** : For closed sequences start and end vertices are the only ones that can repeat. | Usually a path in general is same as a walk which is just a sequence of vertices such that adjacent vertices are connected by edges. Think of it as just traveling around a graph along the edges with no restrictions.
Some books, however, refer to a path as a "simple" path. In that case when we say a path we mean that **no vertices are repeated**. We do not travel to the same vertex twice (or more).
A **cycle** is a **closed** path. That is, we start and end at the same vertex. In the middle, we do not travel to any vertex twice.
It will be convenient to define trails before moving on to circuits. Trails refer to a walk where **no edge is repeated**. (Observe the difference between a trail and a simple path)
**Circuits** refer to the **closed** trails, meaning we start and end at the same vertex. |
8,071 | I have a connection between a Drupal User and a CiviCRM contact that I would like to remove. I found [this Q&A](https://civicrm.stackexchange.com/questions/3878/how-to-disconnect-civi-contact-record-from-drupal-user) which describes how to do that on the database level.
I was however wondering if there is any way to do that via the UI. Any hints? (Using CiviCRM 4.6.9 and latest Drupal.) | 2015/12/03 | [
"https://civicrm.stackexchange.com/questions/8071",
"https://civicrm.stackexchange.com",
"https://civicrm.stackexchange.com/users/483/"
] | This is just a top-of-the-head thought and I am not sure I've thought through all the ramifications, but could you:
1. Create a new contact (blank, essentially, or with the same name)
2. Run a search that pulls both of these, and select to merge them
3. Flip the contacts so the old contact is considered the duplicate contact
4. Check the boxes to transfer all the info **except the Drupal user** to the new contact in the process of merging?
Test first, obviously! | There is no way to do this via the UI. I am not sure what to suggest if you don't have easy access to the db. |
23,699 | Kiddo is a little over seven-months old. We've been trying to get him on semi-solid foods for about a month now, trying once a day or every couple of days. We've tried the standard stuff: baby oatmeal, rice cereal and packaged pureed fruits. It's not too hard to get the stuff in his mouth, but then he'll just sit with it in his mouth indefinitely, a little agitated with us. Our response is then to give him his bottle, at which point he washes down whatever the semi-solid may be. All of this is to say that he is consuming the semi-solid, but basically only because he's *washing it down* with the bottle. So, two questions:
1. Is there a way to teach kiddo to swallow these semi-solids? Just leaving it in his mouth for a while gets him pretty angry without inducing any swallowing.
2. Supposing he won't swallow for us, are we doing more harm than good in letting him learn to wash down the semi-solids with formula?
Or, more broadly, how do you recommend we proceed? | 2016/01/19 | [
"https://parenting.stackexchange.com/questions/23699",
"https://parenting.stackexchange.com",
"https://parenting.stackexchange.com/users/20329/"
] | He may just not be ready. It takes a lot of muscles and coordination to swallow, especially if you have to get the stuff from the front of your mouth to the back, and kids learn how at different ages. At 7 months, I don't think there's anything to worry about. I'd start meals with breastmilk or formula, then offer solid or semi-solid foods, and then wrap up with breastmilk or formula. I'd guess for the next couple months at least, most of that solid food will end up coming back out or getting washed down. Around 9 months, I'd switch the order and start with solids or semi-solids, then offer breastmilk or formula.
We went the [baby-led weaning route](http://www.babyledweaning.com/) and avoided semi-solid foods altogether to avoid the hassle and 'cause mush is gross. If your kid is reaching for your food and acting interested in solids, you could try that approach instead. Basically, you let the kid eat what you're eating as long as it's not an obvious choking/health hazard (grapes, honey) and doesn't require lots of teeth (rare steak, raw carrots). Still, at 7 months, most of the solids came right back out. We had especially good luck with cooked vegetables of all kinds, chicken legs, whole fruit, and cottage cheese. | Something I've always done with my little one is to say the word "Chew!" in between making over emphasised chewing motions with my mouth, and then "Swallow!" and making a big gulping swallow so he can see my neck moving. It often amuses him as if it's a bit of a game but does seem to work as it shows by example.
Also it helps if he's choking a little bit because it makes him stop what he's doing (trying to swallow something a bit too big or dry) and gives him a chance to break it down a bit more. |
23,699 | Kiddo is a little over seven-months old. We've been trying to get him on semi-solid foods for about a month now, trying once a day or every couple of days. We've tried the standard stuff: baby oatmeal, rice cereal and packaged pureed fruits. It's not too hard to get the stuff in his mouth, but then he'll just sit with it in his mouth indefinitely, a little agitated with us. Our response is then to give him his bottle, at which point he washes down whatever the semi-solid may be. All of this is to say that he is consuming the semi-solid, but basically only because he's *washing it down* with the bottle. So, two questions:
1. Is there a way to teach kiddo to swallow these semi-solids? Just leaving it in his mouth for a while gets him pretty angry without inducing any swallowing.
2. Supposing he won't swallow for us, are we doing more harm than good in letting him learn to wash down the semi-solids with formula?
Or, more broadly, how do you recommend we proceed? | 2016/01/19 | [
"https://parenting.stackexchange.com/questions/23699",
"https://parenting.stackexchange.com",
"https://parenting.stackexchange.com/users/20329/"
] | He may just not be ready. It takes a lot of muscles and coordination to swallow, especially if you have to get the stuff from the front of your mouth to the back, and kids learn how at different ages. At 7 months, I don't think there's anything to worry about. I'd start meals with breastmilk or formula, then offer solid or semi-solid foods, and then wrap up with breastmilk or formula. I'd guess for the next couple months at least, most of that solid food will end up coming back out or getting washed down. Around 9 months, I'd switch the order and start with solids or semi-solids, then offer breastmilk or formula.
We went the [baby-led weaning route](http://www.babyledweaning.com/) and avoided semi-solid foods altogether to avoid the hassle and 'cause mush is gross. If your kid is reaching for your food and acting interested in solids, you could try that approach instead. Basically, you let the kid eat what you're eating as long as it's not an obvious choking/health hazard (grapes, honey) and doesn't require lots of teeth (rare steak, raw carrots). Still, at 7 months, most of the solids came right back out. We had especially good luck with cooked vegetables of all kinds, chicken legs, whole fruit, and cottage cheese. | When we first started our children on semi-solids, my wife expressed some breast milk and mixed this in. It worked extremely well. It has a familiar taste then, so they know what to do with it. |
147,898 | I downloaded an animation from mixamo and made a repeating action of the walk cycle. But I can't find a master bone or parent bone to move the model along a path. It is just walking in place. When I try to add a new bone, parent it to the rest of the bones, and key frame it to move forward it deforms the animation. How do I add or find the master bone so I can keyframe its location and make the model actually walk forward. I've linked to the blender file I'm working on. Thanks for the help in advance for this newbie question!
<https://www.dropbox.com/s/cog8matnnie6lg9/MixamoTest.blend?dl=0> | 2019/08/08 | [
"https://blender.stackexchange.com/questions/147898",
"https://blender.stackexchange.com",
"https://blender.stackexchange.com/users/48452/"
] | You can easily find in the outliner which bone is the highest in the hierarchy. It is the Hips. But if you want to make it move you better animate the whole armature in object mode instead of moving the root bone far away from the object's origin.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Dje0Z.jpg) | Thanks to FFeller for leading me to the answer. I should have shown in my original post what happens when I try to animate the armature in object mode. I included below a link to a video showing what happens. The model should be moving in a straight line but it keeps jumping backwards and repeating.
I noticed there were already key frames on the armature, even though it wasn't moving. So I tried just making an empty the parent of the armature and animating the empty instead and now it works. I feel like a bonehead
[Video of key framed armature](https://gfycat.com/elatedcharminggrassspider) |
2,638 | I caught this question which was highlighted on the SE network:
[So, what is the advantage of using the terminal?](https://askubuntu.com/questions/106039/so-what-is-the-advantage-of-using-the-terminal)
There's a user Mehrdad who has been posting comments attacking the CLI-oriented linux in favor of GUI-oriented Windows. This question has nothing to do with Windows, yet he continues to make the comparison.
I have flagged his comments and most of them have been removed. This morning, he has posted another one. Apparently, simply removing the comments is not getting the message through to this user that these off-topic and highly-opinionated comments are unwelcome.
What is the next step? | 2012/02/22 | [
"https://meta.askubuntu.com/questions/2638",
"https://meta.askubuntu.com",
"https://meta.askubuntu.com/users/47366/"
] | I have dropped a notice and will purge the comments from that answer later on.
The user has already been contacted and we will keep an eye on the situation.
Please feel free to contact any of the moderators any time with situations like this on meta or more directly try the general chat room. | >
> What is the next step?
>
>
>
Exactly what you've done. We'll deal with it now.
\* *Puts his boots on* |
262,718 | I would like to know if there is any standard functionality or any possible custom solution for making an email notification to the admin of the org when any data on account or other object is being exported from salesforce. Any tool can be utilised either the dataloader, Ant migration or else for exporting purpose but the email should be triggered to admin.
Example scenario: When any user exports an account record through apex data loader, an email should be sent to admin stating this record have been exported by this user.
I have searched a lot through various forums and blogs but was not able to find a proper solution. Let me know if you need more detail. I am wondering even it is possible or not? | 2019/05/16 | [
"https://salesforce.stackexchange.com/questions/262718",
"https://salesforce.stackexchange.com",
"https://salesforce.stackexchange.com/users/48502/"
] | No.
===
If you're concerned about users using these kind of tools, you can (a) run reports to see how users are logging in, (b) block logins from certain types of applications for some or all users, and/or (c) disable API Access entirely for users. It's a lot easier to simply configure your org correctly and hand out permissions when necessary, than to try and set up monitoring. | You cannot send an email to an admin for the scenario you have here.
You can though alternatively use [**Event Monitoring**](https://trailhead.salesforce.com/content/learn/modules/event_monitoring/event_monitoring_intro) to monitor activities in your Org.
It helps you to find out a User's activities which are logged in Event Log files capturing the different [Event Types](https://developer.salesforce.com/docs/atlas.en-us.object_reference.meta/object_reference/sforce_api_objects_eventlogfile_supportedeventtypes.htm). Based on the Event Type, you can determine what operation was performed by the User. |
73,694 | Ingrid and her neighbor Fatima have a long standing dispute. One day Ingrid's dog bites Fatima.
Aside from civil liability, are there circumstances where Ingrid might face assault charges, including "deadly weapon" or "first degree" (depending on the state)?
Some potential facts to consider:
1. Ingrid's dog has no history of biting or attacks.
2. Ingrid negligently or perhaps intentionally did not restrain the dog.
3. Ingrid may have specifically trained her dog to bite on command.
4. Ingrid may have threatened Fatima with "I'll sic my dog on you."
I understand that it depends on what facts can be proved in court. My question is what set of facts might be necessary to rise to the level of assault (ADW)?
As this is a hypothetical question, feel free to pick the jurisdiction of your choice. | 2021/10/14 | [
"https://law.stackexchange.com/questions/73694",
"https://law.stackexchange.com",
"https://law.stackexchange.com/users/34620/"
] | [washington](/questions/tagged/washington "show questions tagged 'washington'")
Under the laws of Washington State, USA, a dog can be considered a deadly weapon. See [*State v. Hoeldt*, 139 Wash. App. 225 (2007)](https://casetext.com/case/state-v-hoeldt). Hoeldt allegedly released a dog which attacked a police officer, and was convicted of second degree assault with a deadly weapon. He appealed, claiming that a dog was not a weapon for purposes of the assault statute. The Court of Appeals upheld the conviction:
>
> Because a dog is an instrument that can be used to cause death or substantial bodily harm, we hold that a dog can be a "deadly weapon" under RCW 9A.04.110(6).
>
>
> | There is no special crime "assault with a deadly weapon" in Washington state, but "deadly weapon" figures into the definition of [1st and 2nd degree assault](https://app.leg.wa.gov/RCW/default.aspx?cite=9A.36). Third degree assault refers (as a possibility) to "weapon", and the relevant potentially applicable clause is in terms of an act that
>
> With criminal negligence, causes bodily harm to another person by
> means of a weapon or other instrument or thing likely to produce
> bodily harm
>
>
>
[Deadly weapon](https://app.leg.wa.gov/rcw/default.aspx?cite=9a.04.110) has a statutory definition, as
>
> any explosive or loaded or unloaded firearm, and shall include any
> other weapon, device, instrument, article, or substance, including a
> "vehicle" as defined in this section, which, under the circumstances
> in which it is used, attempted to be used, or threatened to be used,
> is readily capable of causing death or substantial bodily harm
>
>
>
which doesn't apply to a dog bite. You would have to load the dog with explosives in Washington for it to constitute a "deadly weapon". The definitions do not extend to simple "weapon", so the "ordinary" meaning of weapon would be applied (in the case of 3rd degree assault, where the thing is just "a weapon"). [RCW 9.94A.825](https://app.leg.wa.gov/Rcw/default.aspx?cite=9.94A.825) stipulates a special verdict associated with deadly weapons, and a definition:
>
> For purposes of this section, a deadly weapon is an implement or
> instrument which has the capacity to inflict death and from the manner
> in which it is used, is likely to produce or may easily and readily
> produce death. The following instruments are included in the term
> deadly weapon: Blackjack, sling shot, billy, sand club, sandbag, metal
> knuckles, any dirk, dagger, pistol, revolver, or any other firearm,
> any knife having a blade longer than three inches, any razor with an
> unguarded blade, any metal pipe or bar used or intended to be used as
> a club, any explosive, and any weapon containing poisonous or
> injurious gas.
>
>
>
(Note that Title 9A is different from title 9 so we get two different versions of "deadly weapon). A dog is not a thing described by this definition. |
500,533 | PWM Freq : 30 HZ and 5% Duty cycle, uC internal ADC sampling time is configurable.
any limitations with ADC sampling time & Duty cycle of PWM should be considered for choosing RC ? | 2020/05/19 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/500533",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/252849/"
] | A rule of thumb is to use a 10:1 ratio of PWM frequency to filter cutoff. This will reduce ripple so that you have a nice "flat" signal.
So for your values that would be an RC cutoff of 3Hz, which is pretty low and will result in long settling times whenever the duty cycle changes.
If your system allows it, I would recomend upping your PWM freq. to 1kHz or 10kHz, thus allowing you to use a much higher RC cutoff frequency and giving you a fast response time to any changes in duty cycle. | This sounds like an RC servo control signal (0.5 to 2 ms or so pulse width every 30 ms) not a true PWM signal.
Smoothing it adequately to read with an ADC with any accuracy is a losing game unless you can tolerate settling times of about a second per Aaron's answer.
Instead, use a timer peripheral on your MCU to measure the pulse width directly. |
4,477 | Just wondering about the idea, what if stack exchange platform would be used for candidates to answer citizens questions.
Some changes would need to be made to the platform.
* Only eligible voters can ask questions.
* Only eligible voters can vote on questions and answers
* Only candidates can answer questions.
* Community moderators would merge duplicates but there should be limitations on what can be done.
* No need for "accept" feature, people can vote for their favourite answer
*just a few basic rules of top of my head, details of the system are not part of the question*
That obviously poses the problem of user verification.
If we ignore/solve the user verification problem. **What would it take to convince politicians to actually use it?**
The idea came to me recently as I read an AMA with one politician and he answered only the questions that had a positive answer and anything inconvenient was completely ignored.
Often debates are being accused of having prepared questions.
Additionally, if you watch videos analysing debates, often they focus on candidates charisma and wits rather than their answers to decide who "won".
It would truly allow anyone to ask questions and highlight ignored issues if a question with a lot of votes has no answers.
Possibly there could be accusations of hackers manipulating scores and other content but I think that is a weak argument to avoid answering a question if any politician ever cared. | 2020/07/10 | [
"https://politics.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/4477",
"https://politics.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.meta.stackexchange.com/users/33168/"
] | It doesn't work, because it doesn't fit the model:
>
> Ask questions, get answers, no distractions
>
>
>
A politician isn't interested in answering the question. A politician wants to get votes.
>
> Good answers are voted up and rise to the top.
>
>
>
But if questions and answers are partisan, then "popular answers rise to the top". That is different.
Moreover the world is not the USA. That seems to have been forgotten in this proposal.
And I'm not going to prove my eligiblity or otherwise to vote (which could mean me telling about my immigration and felon status) to Stack Exchange.
This proposal is a non-starter. | If you can guarantee that 80% of the people voting in the election will read the politician's posting, it will be used.
If you can deliver only .0008% viewership, forget about it. |
4,477 | Just wondering about the idea, what if stack exchange platform would be used for candidates to answer citizens questions.
Some changes would need to be made to the platform.
* Only eligible voters can ask questions.
* Only eligible voters can vote on questions and answers
* Only candidates can answer questions.
* Community moderators would merge duplicates but there should be limitations on what can be done.
* No need for "accept" feature, people can vote for their favourite answer
*just a few basic rules of top of my head, details of the system are not part of the question*
That obviously poses the problem of user verification.
If we ignore/solve the user verification problem. **What would it take to convince politicians to actually use it?**
The idea came to me recently as I read an AMA with one politician and he answered only the questions that had a positive answer and anything inconvenient was completely ignored.
Often debates are being accused of having prepared questions.
Additionally, if you watch videos analysing debates, often they focus on candidates charisma and wits rather than their answers to decide who "won".
It would truly allow anyone to ask questions and highlight ignored issues if a question with a lot of votes has no answers.
Possibly there could be accusations of hackers manipulating scores and other content but I think that is a weak argument to avoid answering a question if any politician ever cared. | 2020/07/10 | [
"https://politics.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/4477",
"https://politics.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.meta.stackexchange.com/users/33168/"
] | It doesn't work, because it doesn't fit the model:
>
> Ask questions, get answers, no distractions
>
>
>
A politician isn't interested in answering the question. A politician wants to get votes.
>
> Good answers are voted up and rise to the top.
>
>
>
But if questions and answers are partisan, then "popular answers rise to the top". That is different.
Moreover the world is not the USA. That seems to have been forgotten in this proposal.
And I'm not going to prove my eligiblity or otherwise to vote (which could mean me telling about my immigration and felon status) to Stack Exchange.
This proposal is a non-starter. | There is no way to verify that Biden or Trump are actually answering questions under that format. A benefit of the live debates is that voters get to see their candidates respond to questions in real time and in their "own words." Granted, the answers are rehearsed.
Let's say, for argument's sake, that a candidate was becoming a bit slow in the noggin. A debate would demonstrate to the voters that the candidate may not be able to manage the affairs of a nation. Long, rambling, incoherent responses and an inability to formulate a real answer to a question are big red flags. Really, electing that person puts his committee of unelected "handlers" in charge and makes the candidate a mere figurehead.
Not to mention that a known-senile president would give his party a great excuse to remove him at their convenience and elevate his VP to the top. He also would make a great fall guy for any serious scandals that would almost certainly result from such an arrangement. I guess the various options available to party leadership create potential benefits for the party elites.
This is all just hypothetical...of course. |
4,477 | Just wondering about the idea, what if stack exchange platform would be used for candidates to answer citizens questions.
Some changes would need to be made to the platform.
* Only eligible voters can ask questions.
* Only eligible voters can vote on questions and answers
* Only candidates can answer questions.
* Community moderators would merge duplicates but there should be limitations on what can be done.
* No need for "accept" feature, people can vote for their favourite answer
*just a few basic rules of top of my head, details of the system are not part of the question*
That obviously poses the problem of user verification.
If we ignore/solve the user verification problem. **What would it take to convince politicians to actually use it?**
The idea came to me recently as I read an AMA with one politician and he answered only the questions that had a positive answer and anything inconvenient was completely ignored.
Often debates are being accused of having prepared questions.
Additionally, if you watch videos analysing debates, often they focus on candidates charisma and wits rather than their answers to decide who "won".
It would truly allow anyone to ask questions and highlight ignored issues if a question with a lot of votes has no answers.
Possibly there could be accusations of hackers manipulating scores and other content but I think that is a weak argument to avoid answering a question if any politician ever cared. | 2020/07/10 | [
"https://politics.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/4477",
"https://politics.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.meta.stackexchange.com/users/33168/"
] | If you can guarantee that 80% of the people voting in the election will read the politician's posting, it will be used.
If you can deliver only .0008% viewership, forget about it. | There is no way to verify that Biden or Trump are actually answering questions under that format. A benefit of the live debates is that voters get to see their candidates respond to questions in real time and in their "own words." Granted, the answers are rehearsed.
Let's say, for argument's sake, that a candidate was becoming a bit slow in the noggin. A debate would demonstrate to the voters that the candidate may not be able to manage the affairs of a nation. Long, rambling, incoherent responses and an inability to formulate a real answer to a question are big red flags. Really, electing that person puts his committee of unelected "handlers" in charge and makes the candidate a mere figurehead.
Not to mention that a known-senile president would give his party a great excuse to remove him at their convenience and elevate his VP to the top. He also would make a great fall guy for any serious scandals that would almost certainly result from such an arrangement. I guess the various options available to party leadership create potential benefits for the party elites.
This is all just hypothetical...of course. |
29,265 | I can't really tell what someone means when he says "you could do worse than [x]." [Live example](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/2058247/successor-of-msxsl-exe):
>
> If you are just interested in a simple command line processor which uses MSXML 6 then you could do worse than using a simple JScript application.
>
>
>
Does anyone know what, exactly, he is trying to say? What nuance is he trying to convey? | 2011/06/09 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/29265",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/8278/"
] | This is an example of *litotes*, which is stating a positive through a negative. It just means that [X] is not bad, that there are many alternatives that are worse.
In the sentence you link to
>
> If you are just interested in a simple command line processor which uses MSXML 6 then you could do worse than using a simple JScript application.
>
>
>
the person who responded is suggesting that using a simple JScript application is a good choice. | It's a indirect compliment. You can go check out this link => <http://www.english-test.net/forum/ftopic24532.html> for more explanations. |
29,265 | I can't really tell what someone means when he says "you could do worse than [x]." [Live example](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/2058247/successor-of-msxsl-exe):
>
> If you are just interested in a simple command line processor which uses MSXML 6 then you could do worse than using a simple JScript application.
>
>
>
Does anyone know what, exactly, he is trying to say? What nuance is he trying to convey? | 2011/06/09 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/29265",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/8278/"
] | This is an example of *litotes*, which is stating a positive through a negative. It just means that [X] is not bad, that there are many alternatives that are worse.
In the sentence you link to
>
> If you are just interested in a simple command line processor which uses MSXML 6 then you could do worse than using a simple JScript application.
>
>
>
the person who responded is suggesting that using a simple JScript application is a good choice. | My favorite term for this sort of left-handed compliment (technically called a *[litotes](http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/litotes)*, as @Robusto pointed out) is "**[praising with faint damns](http://www.time.com/time/magazine/article/0,9171,924489,00.html)**", a humorous inversion of the better-known "**[damn with faint praise](http://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/damn_with_faint_praise)**" (which is so old that [Alexander Pope is said to have stolen it from Wycherley](http://books.google.com/books?id=OnlWTPu62_wC&pg=PA286&dq=%22damn%20with%20faint%20praise%22&hl=en&ei=aHnxTerFFoH0tgOJ1bW1Dg&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=result&resnum=8&ved=0CFYQ6AEwBw#v=onepage&q=%22damn%20with%20faint%20praise%22&f=false).) |
29,265 | I can't really tell what someone means when he says "you could do worse than [x]." [Live example](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/2058247/successor-of-msxsl-exe):
>
> If you are just interested in a simple command line processor which uses MSXML 6 then you could do worse than using a simple JScript application.
>
>
>
Does anyone know what, exactly, he is trying to say? What nuance is he trying to convey? | 2011/06/09 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/29265",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/8278/"
] | This is an example of *litotes*, which is stating a positive through a negative. It just means that [X] is not bad, that there are many alternatives that are worse.
In the sentence you link to
>
> If you are just interested in a simple command line processor which uses MSXML 6 then you could do worse than using a simple JScript application.
>
>
>
the person who responded is suggesting that using a simple JScript application is a good choice. | Another example of litotes is the cliché you've seen many times: "x is no small thing!" as in "to move the earth, no matter the lever, is no small thing." |
45,079 | Because /i y u/ behave so differently to the other French vowels /ɛ ɑ œ ɔ/, which all have tense and nasal variants, while also being symmetrical to the semivowels /j ɥ w/, it is attractive to render them as the same.
I did see that there are minimal pairs like /lu.a/ vs /lwa/, but couldn't they be rendered as /lu.ua/ and /lua/, or would that make things more complicated than it simplifies? | 2022/08/28 | [
"https://linguistics.stackexchange.com/questions/45079",
"https://linguistics.stackexchange.com",
"https://linguistics.stackexchange.com/users/37134/"
] | It is in fact proposed, in Schane (1968) that French glides derive from vowels. Morin (1971: "Computer experiments in generative phonology: Low-level French phonology") pursues this further to handle some problems (formally restricting where the rule applies), followed by Dell (1972: "Une regle d‘effacement de i en français"). Lyche (1979 – "glides in French") criticises these analyses, but does not deny the existence of glide-vowel rules, instead she posits a different analysis which presages contemporary OT Output-Output constraints (alternativly, word-level cyclicity).
It is clear from these works and all subsequent discussion that glides in French are not allophones of high vowels, because of the "opacity" of the rules deriving glides. It is possible that French glides derive by rule from underlying vowels, but those rules are not allophonic. | /**lu.ua**/ (*loup où ah*) is not the same as /**lu.a**/ (*loua*).
If you want to avoid /**lwa**/ for ***loi***, you would want to use the non-syllabic diacritic: /**lu̯a**/ or a lower or upper tie bar /**lo͜a**/ /**lo͡a**/ to make clear it's a single syllable word and not the potentially two syllable ***loua***, arguably not a simplification. |
23,685 | The project is to rotate a load using a motor with a varying speed between like *2000-10000 rpm*.
I'm using a **flange coupling** to attach the cylindrical tube to the motor. Since I will rotate it to high speed, I think I need to tightly and safely attach the load to the motor.
Do you have any suggestion on what coupling or what is the best way to attach the cylindrical tube to the motor **safely**?
NOTE: the shaft and load are the same lines. this machine is about centrifugal electrospinning which is a machine to fabricate a nanofiber.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/JsGkQ.jpg) | 2018/09/10 | [
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/questions/23685",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/users/1368/"
] | One can use the Flange Coupling with Key feature and Axis Support Fixed Seat.
Like this:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/qtpBZ.jpg)
This design includes both. Also, one can find these off the shelf according to dimension requirements, or one can design one of them easily.
---
For example: [JoyceDayton](https://joycedayton.com/products/system-accessories/couplings)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/nX6DM.jpg)
For example: [Ebay](https://www.ebay.co.uk/itm/8mm-Flange-Coupling-Steel-Rigid-Flange-Coupling-Motor-Guide-Shaft-Axis-Bearing-F-/222683278447)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/vON9es.jpg)
---
Most importantly, after the calculation of the bolt torques, one can use **lock tight** in order to make sure rigid connection. | The safest way to attach a non-symmetrical load (such as that shown in your photo) that spins that fast (up to 10,000rpm) will be to mount it to a solid base, using bearings or similar, such that its weight is supported separately from the motor shaft. This will minimise vibrations/oscillations of the load.
As a result, there will now be a slight misalignment between the vibrating motor, and the constrained load. Using a a semi-flexible coupling (jaw, Oldham, etc) to transfer the rotation will accomodate this misalignment safely without damaging the motor.
Your biggest worry should be wobble from any off-centre mass of the load, rather than the direct strength of the coupling, per se. |
23,685 | The project is to rotate a load using a motor with a varying speed between like *2000-10000 rpm*.
I'm using a **flange coupling** to attach the cylindrical tube to the motor. Since I will rotate it to high speed, I think I need to tightly and safely attach the load to the motor.
Do you have any suggestion on what coupling or what is the best way to attach the cylindrical tube to the motor **safely**?
NOTE: the shaft and load are the same lines. this machine is about centrifugal electrospinning which is a machine to fabricate a nanofiber.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/JsGkQ.jpg) | 2018/09/10 | [
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/questions/23685",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/users/1368/"
] | One can use the Flange Coupling with Key feature and Axis Support Fixed Seat.
Like this:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/qtpBZ.jpg)
This design includes both. Also, one can find these off the shelf according to dimension requirements, or one can design one of them easily.
---
For example: [JoyceDayton](https://joycedayton.com/products/system-accessories/couplings)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/nX6DM.jpg)
For example: [Ebay](https://www.ebay.co.uk/itm/8mm-Flange-Coupling-Steel-Rigid-Flange-Coupling-Motor-Guide-Shaft-Axis-Bearing-F-/222683278447)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/vON9es.jpg)
---
Most importantly, after the calculation of the bolt torques, one can use **lock tight** in order to make sure rigid connection. | Normally, you would use two grub screws at 90 degrees to each other, to secure the load onto the motor shaft. I have done this to attach a stainless steel flywheel on a motor spinning at 6,000 rpm and it's holding just fine.
To give it extra strength, you can also use something like Loctite 638 to glue the flange coupling, or whatever coupling you should choose, to the shaft. This probably means the coupling needs to be metal, not plastic (although I'm sure there'll be other glues to bong plastic to metal). Note that Loctite 638 is pretty much permanent: once you've glued your coupling onto the shaft, it won't be coming off again (easily). |
23,685 | The project is to rotate a load using a motor with a varying speed between like *2000-10000 rpm*.
I'm using a **flange coupling** to attach the cylindrical tube to the motor. Since I will rotate it to high speed, I think I need to tightly and safely attach the load to the motor.
Do you have any suggestion on what coupling or what is the best way to attach the cylindrical tube to the motor **safely**?
NOTE: the shaft and load are the same lines. this machine is about centrifugal electrospinning which is a machine to fabricate a nanofiber.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/JsGkQ.jpg) | 2018/09/10 | [
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/questions/23685",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/users/1368/"
] | The safest way to attach a non-symmetrical load (such as that shown in your photo) that spins that fast (up to 10,000rpm) will be to mount it to a solid base, using bearings or similar, such that its weight is supported separately from the motor shaft. This will minimise vibrations/oscillations of the load.
As a result, there will now be a slight misalignment between the vibrating motor, and the constrained load. Using a a semi-flexible coupling (jaw, Oldham, etc) to transfer the rotation will accomodate this misalignment safely without damaging the motor.
Your biggest worry should be wobble from any off-centre mass of the load, rather than the direct strength of the coupling, per se. | Normally, you would use two grub screws at 90 degrees to each other, to secure the load onto the motor shaft. I have done this to attach a stainless steel flywheel on a motor spinning at 6,000 rpm and it's holding just fine.
To give it extra strength, you can also use something like Loctite 638 to glue the flange coupling, or whatever coupling you should choose, to the shaft. This probably means the coupling needs to be metal, not plastic (although I'm sure there'll be other glues to bong plastic to metal). Note that Loctite 638 is pretty much permanent: once you've glued your coupling onto the shaft, it won't be coming off again (easily). |
26,354 | I am presently not working, and my job is just to look after my 15 months baby 24/7 which is making me frustrated, and I am staying with my in-laws with the constant whining of my mother-in-law.
I feel I am not able to find personal time to relax or do what I like to do. Even though I get time to relax when my baby is asleep, I don't feel the time is enough for me to relax. I want to start a hobby or read books but I am unable to find time or, even though I find it, I am not in a state to open a book. I am open for suggestions on what I should do. | 2016/06/23 | [
"https://parenting.stackexchange.com/questions/26354",
"https://parenting.stackexchange.com",
"https://parenting.stackexchange.com/users/23568/"
] | I found that switching to e-Books (e.g. through the Kindle, iBooks, or Kobo apps on your phone, or tabled, or through dedicated readers) helps a situation such as you describe a bit, in that **when** you have a moment of time, you can immediately pick up your book at the exact spot you stopped before. | You could spend a large part of each day with your infant strapped to your back while you pursue any one of hundreds of activities.
I have seen young women with a baby in a front or back sling happily throwing pots, pruning plants, baking bread, hiking, shopping, and so forth. You could hand out flyers at the mall. Sacagawea Charbonneau explored a quarter of North America with her newborn son on her back; he was 19 mos old by the time she finished.
Of course you can't do just any old thing. Discouraged activities would include bicycling, rafting, jogging, fencing. Attending a concert or the cinema would be problematical. Grouse shooting is right out.
The best thing about an active hobby is that your baby will have a great appetite and no trouble sleeping. Also you will be much too tired to give a fig about whatever your mother-in-law has to say about anything. |
26,354 | I am presently not working, and my job is just to look after my 15 months baby 24/7 which is making me frustrated, and I am staying with my in-laws with the constant whining of my mother-in-law.
I feel I am not able to find personal time to relax or do what I like to do. Even though I get time to relax when my baby is asleep, I don't feel the time is enough for me to relax. I want to start a hobby or read books but I am unable to find time or, even though I find it, I am not in a state to open a book. I am open for suggestions on what I should do. | 2016/06/23 | [
"https://parenting.stackexchange.com/questions/26354",
"https://parenting.stackexchange.com",
"https://parenting.stackexchange.com/users/23568/"
] | I think the critical part to finding more time is to let go of the need to "just to look after your child". As parents we might think that doing constant activities with and for the child is our job, when in fact:
>
> The more we do (or toys do)…
>
>
> * the less our child does
> * the more our child thinks she needs us (or toys) to do for her
> * the less confident, capable, creative and fulfilled she feels[1](http://www.janetlansbury.com/2013/05/stop-entertaining-your-toddler-in-3-steps-2/)
>
>
>
Free yourself from the need to entertain your child 24/7 while he or she is awake. Make sure your child is learning how to play independently without constant interaction with you. Of course you'll still need to provide the loving support that the child needs, checking in on a regular basis, and encouraging them. There are several books and articles on how to do this, including "Stop Entertaining Your Toddler (In 3 Steps)", which is the source for the quote above.
Some ideas for hobbies to take up while your child plays independently:
1. Cooking or baking: Pick up a few new cookbooks from the library and try new recipes. Get some plastic food and pots and pans to put on the floor for your child to play with nearby. Or have him or her sit in a high chair with crayons or [sensory trays](http://dirtandboogers.com/25-sensory-tray-ideas/)
2. Photography: get outside with your camera and your kid and take some pictures; read books on photography and find exercises to try. Let your child play with grass, bugs, flowers, sand, dirt, rocks, or balls and bubbles.
3. Learn how to play a musical instrument: get some toy musical instruments too, like maracas, xylophone, tambourine, etc. for your kid to play along | You need to not take care of the baby 24/7. That is NOT your job. If you spouse work, and you don't, it is your job to take care of the baby while he is not there (so maybe 10 hours a day?).
**When you both are home the baby is taken care of by both of you!**
It also sounds like you are unable to relax with your in-laws around. I sounds like the best way to relax is to get out of the house, or have 'your own space'.
Here are some things I can think of:
* Pick a crafty hobby like cardmaking, painting, candle making, soap making, even adult coloring. Set up a space for you to do this in the house, and do it while the baby naps or sleeps. Let in-laws and other know you are not available to talk when you do this.
* Think of something you can do while the baby plays by himself that is easy to stop. Like playing little games on your phone, or reading 'light' books such as romance or comedy or spy novels.
* If the baby naps in a stroller, bring a book while taking the baby on napping walk. Go to park bench or cafe where you can bring a stroller, and sit down and read while he sleeps and while you are not around your in-laws.
* Find some activity like a sport or dance or evening class and sign up. Your husband should be able to take of the baby one evening a week so you can get out of the house without the baby.
* You can also consider picking something with your husband like dancing or a co-ed sports team for one evening a week while your in-laws watches the baby.
I see a lot of people saying to find a hobby to do WITH your child, but it honestly doesn't sound like that is what you are looking for. I think it is great to do stuff like that with your kid, but it is not getting a break.
I think the most telling stuff you said was that you feel it is your job to take care of the baby 24/7, and that is not healthy. You need to feel you can catch a breath.
In this regard, in addition to finding a hobby, maybe an idea would be to find some other moms to hang out with. Have the your baby interact with other kids and let them play together at a park or in someones house. The kids will entertain each other, and having several parents around makes you feel like you don't have to be at 100% vigilance all the time. |
26,354 | I am presently not working, and my job is just to look after my 15 months baby 24/7 which is making me frustrated, and I am staying with my in-laws with the constant whining of my mother-in-law.
I feel I am not able to find personal time to relax or do what I like to do. Even though I get time to relax when my baby is asleep, I don't feel the time is enough for me to relax. I want to start a hobby or read books but I am unable to find time or, even though I find it, I am not in a state to open a book. I am open for suggestions on what I should do. | 2016/06/23 | [
"https://parenting.stackexchange.com/questions/26354",
"https://parenting.stackexchange.com",
"https://parenting.stackexchange.com/users/23568/"
] | I think the critical part to finding more time is to let go of the need to "just to look after your child". As parents we might think that doing constant activities with and for the child is our job, when in fact:
>
> The more we do (or toys do)…
>
>
> * the less our child does
> * the more our child thinks she needs us (or toys) to do for her
> * the less confident, capable, creative and fulfilled she feels[1](http://www.janetlansbury.com/2013/05/stop-entertaining-your-toddler-in-3-steps-2/)
>
>
>
Free yourself from the need to entertain your child 24/7 while he or she is awake. Make sure your child is learning how to play independently without constant interaction with you. Of course you'll still need to provide the loving support that the child needs, checking in on a regular basis, and encouraging them. There are several books and articles on how to do this, including "Stop Entertaining Your Toddler (In 3 Steps)", which is the source for the quote above.
Some ideas for hobbies to take up while your child plays independently:
1. Cooking or baking: Pick up a few new cookbooks from the library and try new recipes. Get some plastic food and pots and pans to put on the floor for your child to play with nearby. Or have him or her sit in a high chair with crayons or [sensory trays](http://dirtandboogers.com/25-sensory-tray-ideas/)
2. Photography: get outside with your camera and your kid and take some pictures; read books on photography and find exercises to try. Let your child play with grass, bugs, flowers, sand, dirt, rocks, or balls and bubbles.
3. Learn how to play a musical instrument: get some toy musical instruments too, like maracas, xylophone, tambourine, etc. for your kid to play along | Give the kid to the mother in law for a couple of hours per day, getting out of the house if necessary for some alone time. However, you will have to live with the mother in law taking care of the kid her way during those hours. |
26,354 | I am presently not working, and my job is just to look after my 15 months baby 24/7 which is making me frustrated, and I am staying with my in-laws with the constant whining of my mother-in-law.
I feel I am not able to find personal time to relax or do what I like to do. Even though I get time to relax when my baby is asleep, I don't feel the time is enough for me to relax. I want to start a hobby or read books but I am unable to find time or, even though I find it, I am not in a state to open a book. I am open for suggestions on what I should do. | 2016/06/23 | [
"https://parenting.stackexchange.com/questions/26354",
"https://parenting.stackexchange.com",
"https://parenting.stackexchange.com/users/23568/"
] | I 100% agree with all the posts above!
A couple of things to add. First, I'm not going to advise regarding your disatisfaction with your mother-in-law because that's, like, a whole different issue. Second, it sounds like there's some stuff going on under the surface. Like, the lack of a hobby is a symptom of a larger issue at play. I don't play a therapist on the internet, so for this I'll just say 1 thing: if you're at ALL resentful of your toddler for stealing away your freedom (this is something I'm 100% guilty of), your toddler will feel it. So point the flames of your resent somewhere else. Now, onto the hobby stuff.
OK, so you're stuck with this toddler and feel overwhelmed. Let's say the kid gets 12 hours of sleep/day and you get 8 hours. That leaves a good 4 hours of free time, obviously subtracting out chores. This is totally enough time for a new hobby, but I don't think that's the issue. The issue is the overwhelm, which leaves you sucked dry of energy. For me, dinner/bath/bed time leaves me like totally burned out sometimes, and I've got no energy left after the kid falls asleep to do anything productive. SO, two points here: (1) you're a parent, and being an awesome parent will usually come at the expense of your hobbies so get used to it! (And hey, take pride in that!); and (2) the big issue is personal energy--deal with the soul-sucking feeling of overwhelm and you'll probably have way more energy left to expend on hobbies at night. Not to mention a better overall parent during the day.
Some practical tips:
1. For me, exercise helps with this exact issue. Oddly, 30 minutes of jogging somehow calms down my (unhealthy) ambitions to be a world-class hobbyist.
2. Find a hobby that you can do w/ your kid. For me, I go on tree walks and identify all the trees I can find. My 2 year-old (usually) loves it.
3. As you're doing hobbies w/ the kid, remember: slow down. Your toddler will rip up your newly-planted tomato plants, rip a page out of the book you're trying to read, and otherwise scream and fuss and intentionally make it so you can't do your hobby at all.
I love the Gabriel Garcia Marquez quote:
>
> “Human beings are not born once and for all on the day their mothers
> give birth to them, but life obliges them over and over again to give
> birth to themselves.”
>
>
>
NO matter what, you'll have to reinvent your hobbies in the slim margins of, or somewhere within, your new life as a parent. | Would part-time child care be an option? Even if its just a few hours a week, it would give you time to get away from the house, your baby and your mother-in-law.
Also, if you can find something that involves getting out of the house on a regular basis, like a class, then you could rope your MIL in as a baby-sitter. |
26,354 | I am presently not working, and my job is just to look after my 15 months baby 24/7 which is making me frustrated, and I am staying with my in-laws with the constant whining of my mother-in-law.
I feel I am not able to find personal time to relax or do what I like to do. Even though I get time to relax when my baby is asleep, I don't feel the time is enough for me to relax. I want to start a hobby or read books but I am unable to find time or, even though I find it, I am not in a state to open a book. I am open for suggestions on what I should do. | 2016/06/23 | [
"https://parenting.stackexchange.com/questions/26354",
"https://parenting.stackexchange.com",
"https://parenting.stackexchange.com/users/23568/"
] | I think the critical part to finding more time is to let go of the need to "just to look after your child". As parents we might think that doing constant activities with and for the child is our job, when in fact:
>
> The more we do (or toys do)…
>
>
> * the less our child does
> * the more our child thinks she needs us (or toys) to do for her
> * the less confident, capable, creative and fulfilled she feels[1](http://www.janetlansbury.com/2013/05/stop-entertaining-your-toddler-in-3-steps-2/)
>
>
>
Free yourself from the need to entertain your child 24/7 while he or she is awake. Make sure your child is learning how to play independently without constant interaction with you. Of course you'll still need to provide the loving support that the child needs, checking in on a regular basis, and encouraging them. There are several books and articles on how to do this, including "Stop Entertaining Your Toddler (In 3 Steps)", which is the source for the quote above.
Some ideas for hobbies to take up while your child plays independently:
1. Cooking or baking: Pick up a few new cookbooks from the library and try new recipes. Get some plastic food and pots and pans to put on the floor for your child to play with nearby. Or have him or her sit in a high chair with crayons or [sensory trays](http://dirtandboogers.com/25-sensory-tray-ideas/)
2. Photography: get outside with your camera and your kid and take some pictures; read books on photography and find exercises to try. Let your child play with grass, bugs, flowers, sand, dirt, rocks, or balls and bubbles.
3. Learn how to play a musical instrument: get some toy musical instruments too, like maracas, xylophone, tambourine, etc. for your kid to play along | **Based on my experience**
Answering this as someone who decided to quit work and be a stay at home mum to raise my son. Leaving work can be frustrating especially when you know you're not used to being a stay at home mum.
At first I thought I couldn't make it but I gathered courage by simply looking for a hobby like you've asked. In my situation, I did mathematics in College and to higher level, so I decided to teach myself some programming, I bought a smart TV and decided to use youtube to teach myself programming since the resources are a lot. So whenever the baby would go to bed I'd switch youtube on and watch tutorials. So far, I learnt Java and C++, I had a previous knowledge of C language. So for the 17 month's I have learnt Java confidently and even decided to work on a free math android app for kid's which is on the app store already.
This made life easier for me because I was occupied. My baby now is 17 month's and I'm planning on going back to work when he's 24 month's.
My advice would be look around, you might get interested in many things, reading is a good suggestion, if you've worked before try advancing the skills by reading more on how to make yourself better on the field, so that when your baby is ready to go to school e.g you'll be good. Just from my experience. |
26,354 | I am presently not working, and my job is just to look after my 15 months baby 24/7 which is making me frustrated, and I am staying with my in-laws with the constant whining of my mother-in-law.
I feel I am not able to find personal time to relax or do what I like to do. Even though I get time to relax when my baby is asleep, I don't feel the time is enough for me to relax. I want to start a hobby or read books but I am unable to find time or, even though I find it, I am not in a state to open a book. I am open for suggestions on what I should do. | 2016/06/23 | [
"https://parenting.stackexchange.com/questions/26354",
"https://parenting.stackexchange.com",
"https://parenting.stackexchange.com/users/23568/"
] | Give the kid to the mother in law for a couple of hours per day, getting out of the house if necessary for some alone time. However, you will have to live with the mother in law taking care of the kid her way during those hours. | You could spend a large part of each day with your infant strapped to your back while you pursue any one of hundreds of activities.
I have seen young women with a baby in a front or back sling happily throwing pots, pruning plants, baking bread, hiking, shopping, and so forth. You could hand out flyers at the mall. Sacagawea Charbonneau explored a quarter of North America with her newborn son on her back; he was 19 mos old by the time she finished.
Of course you can't do just any old thing. Discouraged activities would include bicycling, rafting, jogging, fencing. Attending a concert or the cinema would be problematical. Grouse shooting is right out.
The best thing about an active hobby is that your baby will have a great appetite and no trouble sleeping. Also you will be much too tired to give a fig about whatever your mother-in-law has to say about anything. |
26,354 | I am presently not working, and my job is just to look after my 15 months baby 24/7 which is making me frustrated, and I am staying with my in-laws with the constant whining of my mother-in-law.
I feel I am not able to find personal time to relax or do what I like to do. Even though I get time to relax when my baby is asleep, I don't feel the time is enough for me to relax. I want to start a hobby or read books but I am unable to find time or, even though I find it, I am not in a state to open a book. I am open for suggestions on what I should do. | 2016/06/23 | [
"https://parenting.stackexchange.com/questions/26354",
"https://parenting.stackexchange.com",
"https://parenting.stackexchange.com/users/23568/"
] | I think the critical part to finding more time is to let go of the need to "just to look after your child". As parents we might think that doing constant activities with and for the child is our job, when in fact:
>
> The more we do (or toys do)…
>
>
> * the less our child does
> * the more our child thinks she needs us (or toys) to do for her
> * the less confident, capable, creative and fulfilled she feels[1](http://www.janetlansbury.com/2013/05/stop-entertaining-your-toddler-in-3-steps-2/)
>
>
>
Free yourself from the need to entertain your child 24/7 while he or she is awake. Make sure your child is learning how to play independently without constant interaction with you. Of course you'll still need to provide the loving support that the child needs, checking in on a regular basis, and encouraging them. There are several books and articles on how to do this, including "Stop Entertaining Your Toddler (In 3 Steps)", which is the source for the quote above.
Some ideas for hobbies to take up while your child plays independently:
1. Cooking or baking: Pick up a few new cookbooks from the library and try new recipes. Get some plastic food and pots and pans to put on the floor for your child to play with nearby. Or have him or her sit in a high chair with crayons or [sensory trays](http://dirtandboogers.com/25-sensory-tray-ideas/)
2. Photography: get outside with your camera and your kid and take some pictures; read books on photography and find exercises to try. Let your child play with grass, bugs, flowers, sand, dirt, rocks, or balls and bubbles.
3. Learn how to play a musical instrument: get some toy musical instruments too, like maracas, xylophone, tambourine, etc. for your kid to play along | Would part-time child care be an option? Even if its just a few hours a week, it would give you time to get away from the house, your baby and your mother-in-law.
Also, if you can find something that involves getting out of the house on a regular basis, like a class, then you could rope your MIL in as a baby-sitter. |
26,354 | I am presently not working, and my job is just to look after my 15 months baby 24/7 which is making me frustrated, and I am staying with my in-laws with the constant whining of my mother-in-law.
I feel I am not able to find personal time to relax or do what I like to do. Even though I get time to relax when my baby is asleep, I don't feel the time is enough for me to relax. I want to start a hobby or read books but I am unable to find time or, even though I find it, I am not in a state to open a book. I am open for suggestions on what I should do. | 2016/06/23 | [
"https://parenting.stackexchange.com/questions/26354",
"https://parenting.stackexchange.com",
"https://parenting.stackexchange.com/users/23568/"
] | Give the kid to the mother in law for a couple of hours per day, getting out of the house if necessary for some alone time. However, you will have to live with the mother in law taking care of the kid her way during those hours. | You need to not take care of the baby 24/7. That is NOT your job. If you spouse work, and you don't, it is your job to take care of the baby while he is not there (so maybe 10 hours a day?).
**When you both are home the baby is taken care of by both of you!**
It also sounds like you are unable to relax with your in-laws around. I sounds like the best way to relax is to get out of the house, or have 'your own space'.
Here are some things I can think of:
* Pick a crafty hobby like cardmaking, painting, candle making, soap making, even adult coloring. Set up a space for you to do this in the house, and do it while the baby naps or sleeps. Let in-laws and other know you are not available to talk when you do this.
* Think of something you can do while the baby plays by himself that is easy to stop. Like playing little games on your phone, or reading 'light' books such as romance or comedy or spy novels.
* If the baby naps in a stroller, bring a book while taking the baby on napping walk. Go to park bench or cafe where you can bring a stroller, and sit down and read while he sleeps and while you are not around your in-laws.
* Find some activity like a sport or dance or evening class and sign up. Your husband should be able to take of the baby one evening a week so you can get out of the house without the baby.
* You can also consider picking something with your husband like dancing or a co-ed sports team for one evening a week while your in-laws watches the baby.
I see a lot of people saying to find a hobby to do WITH your child, but it honestly doesn't sound like that is what you are looking for. I think it is great to do stuff like that with your kid, but it is not getting a break.
I think the most telling stuff you said was that you feel it is your job to take care of the baby 24/7, and that is not healthy. You need to feel you can catch a breath.
In this regard, in addition to finding a hobby, maybe an idea would be to find some other moms to hang out with. Have the your baby interact with other kids and let them play together at a park or in someones house. The kids will entertain each other, and having several parents around makes you feel like you don't have to be at 100% vigilance all the time. |
26,354 | I am presently not working, and my job is just to look after my 15 months baby 24/7 which is making me frustrated, and I am staying with my in-laws with the constant whining of my mother-in-law.
I feel I am not able to find personal time to relax or do what I like to do. Even though I get time to relax when my baby is asleep, I don't feel the time is enough for me to relax. I want to start a hobby or read books but I am unable to find time or, even though I find it, I am not in a state to open a book. I am open for suggestions on what I should do. | 2016/06/23 | [
"https://parenting.stackexchange.com/questions/26354",
"https://parenting.stackexchange.com",
"https://parenting.stackexchange.com/users/23568/"
] | I think the critical part to finding more time is to let go of the need to "just to look after your child". As parents we might think that doing constant activities with and for the child is our job, when in fact:
>
> The more we do (or toys do)…
>
>
> * the less our child does
> * the more our child thinks she needs us (or toys) to do for her
> * the less confident, capable, creative and fulfilled she feels[1](http://www.janetlansbury.com/2013/05/stop-entertaining-your-toddler-in-3-steps-2/)
>
>
>
Free yourself from the need to entertain your child 24/7 while he or she is awake. Make sure your child is learning how to play independently without constant interaction with you. Of course you'll still need to provide the loving support that the child needs, checking in on a regular basis, and encouraging them. There are several books and articles on how to do this, including "Stop Entertaining Your Toddler (In 3 Steps)", which is the source for the quote above.
Some ideas for hobbies to take up while your child plays independently:
1. Cooking or baking: Pick up a few new cookbooks from the library and try new recipes. Get some plastic food and pots and pans to put on the floor for your child to play with nearby. Or have him or her sit in a high chair with crayons or [sensory trays](http://dirtandboogers.com/25-sensory-tray-ideas/)
2. Photography: get outside with your camera and your kid and take some pictures; read books on photography and find exercises to try. Let your child play with grass, bugs, flowers, sand, dirt, rocks, or balls and bubbles.
3. Learn how to play a musical instrument: get some toy musical instruments too, like maracas, xylophone, tambourine, etc. for your kid to play along | **Your baby is a hobby!**
Your beautiful child is a commitment. At 15 months, you've been through the infant stage, one of the tougher ones. Your child is around the point where he'll/she'll be walking.
*This is the fun part!*
You're almost at the point where you can take your baby to the park. He'll want to take little walks outside, or get pushed in a buggy. What on earth could be more exciting than having a little person who trusts you and *wants* to be with you and spend time with you?
Your child will grow. Pretty soon, he'll start finding his own hobbies. Then he'll decide what he wants to do when he grows up. Then he'll be gone. You will have, in theory, all the time in the world. And, unless I miss my guess, you'll hate it. You will miss this, believe it or not. This stage only comes once in your child's lifetime. Savor it. Make it a hobby.
**Other hobbies...**
As for other things that you can do when you have a spare minute ('cause yes, you still get to keep a *little* of your sovereignty ;P) I suggest getting a kindle. I love my kindle. You can take it with you to lunch and read while eating, between your and your child's bites. You can have it in your lap in a chair while watching your child play in the living room. It's a great tool.
While learning a musical instrument has been suggested, given your current situation and the neediness of the child, this seems like it could present a bit of a challenge. However, listening to music is an amazing thing. And by music, I don't mean just pop. Branch out! Try some [classical](http://www.gumballmachiner.com/_-favorite-vivaldi-songs-will-get-hooked) music, or even some [jazz](https://quinersdiner.com/2016/02/19/carlos-jobim-and-herbie-hancock-jam/)! Do a little research and find out what to listen *for* in whatever category you decide you listen to. Become an expert! Your music player will be your best friend.
God bless you and your child! |
26,354 | I am presently not working, and my job is just to look after my 15 months baby 24/7 which is making me frustrated, and I am staying with my in-laws with the constant whining of my mother-in-law.
I feel I am not able to find personal time to relax or do what I like to do. Even though I get time to relax when my baby is asleep, I don't feel the time is enough for me to relax. I want to start a hobby or read books but I am unable to find time or, even though I find it, I am not in a state to open a book. I am open for suggestions on what I should do. | 2016/06/23 | [
"https://parenting.stackexchange.com/questions/26354",
"https://parenting.stackexchange.com",
"https://parenting.stackexchange.com/users/23568/"
] | **Your baby is a hobby!**
Your beautiful child is a commitment. At 15 months, you've been through the infant stage, one of the tougher ones. Your child is around the point where he'll/she'll be walking.
*This is the fun part!*
You're almost at the point where you can take your baby to the park. He'll want to take little walks outside, or get pushed in a buggy. What on earth could be more exciting than having a little person who trusts you and *wants* to be with you and spend time with you?
Your child will grow. Pretty soon, he'll start finding his own hobbies. Then he'll decide what he wants to do when he grows up. Then he'll be gone. You will have, in theory, all the time in the world. And, unless I miss my guess, you'll hate it. You will miss this, believe it or not. This stage only comes once in your child's lifetime. Savor it. Make it a hobby.
**Other hobbies...**
As for other things that you can do when you have a spare minute ('cause yes, you still get to keep a *little* of your sovereignty ;P) I suggest getting a kindle. I love my kindle. You can take it with you to lunch and read while eating, between your and your child's bites. You can have it in your lap in a chair while watching your child play in the living room. It's a great tool.
While learning a musical instrument has been suggested, given your current situation and the neediness of the child, this seems like it could present a bit of a challenge. However, listening to music is an amazing thing. And by music, I don't mean just pop. Branch out! Try some [classical](http://www.gumballmachiner.com/_-favorite-vivaldi-songs-will-get-hooked) music, or even some [jazz](https://quinersdiner.com/2016/02/19/carlos-jobim-and-herbie-hancock-jam/)! Do a little research and find out what to listen *for* in whatever category you decide you listen to. Become an expert! Your music player will be your best friend.
God bless you and your child! | You need to not take care of the baby 24/7. That is NOT your job. If you spouse work, and you don't, it is your job to take care of the baby while he is not there (so maybe 10 hours a day?).
**When you both are home the baby is taken care of by both of you!**
It also sounds like you are unable to relax with your in-laws around. I sounds like the best way to relax is to get out of the house, or have 'your own space'.
Here are some things I can think of:
* Pick a crafty hobby like cardmaking, painting, candle making, soap making, even adult coloring. Set up a space for you to do this in the house, and do it while the baby naps or sleeps. Let in-laws and other know you are not available to talk when you do this.
* Think of something you can do while the baby plays by himself that is easy to stop. Like playing little games on your phone, or reading 'light' books such as romance or comedy or spy novels.
* If the baby naps in a stroller, bring a book while taking the baby on napping walk. Go to park bench or cafe where you can bring a stroller, and sit down and read while he sleeps and while you are not around your in-laws.
* Find some activity like a sport or dance or evening class and sign up. Your husband should be able to take of the baby one evening a week so you can get out of the house without the baby.
* You can also consider picking something with your husband like dancing or a co-ed sports team for one evening a week while your in-laws watches the baby.
I see a lot of people saying to find a hobby to do WITH your child, but it honestly doesn't sound like that is what you are looking for. I think it is great to do stuff like that with your kid, but it is not getting a break.
I think the most telling stuff you said was that you feel it is your job to take care of the baby 24/7, and that is not healthy. You need to feel you can catch a breath.
In this regard, in addition to finding a hobby, maybe an idea would be to find some other moms to hang out with. Have the your baby interact with other kids and let them play together at a park or in someones house. The kids will entertain each other, and having several parents around makes you feel like you don't have to be at 100% vigilance all the time. |
39,322,148 | I would like to implement a typical CAD software and therefore need an edge detection algorithm to draw the silhouette of various meshes. Silhouette includes outline, ridges and creases of various objects. Here is an example of a cube created in Blender where the silhouette is made of thick orange lines:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/OrBa4.png)
I want to use a geometrical approach where wireframes are drawn on top of the objects and interior lines like diagonals are omitted. The wireframe rendering is described [here](http://strattonbrazil.blogspot.co.at/2011/09/single-pass-wireframe-rendering_10.html). In this article, the geometry shader is used to draw the wireframe.
It is also explained that one has to set a per-vertex attribute to decide if a line should be omitted or not.
My question is: How could I decide which lines I have to omit? I use OpenGL as rendering API by the way.
EDIT: To clarify, I really want to draw just the edges that constitutes the silhouette but not any diagonals. Here is an example of what I want to achieve:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/tc2TP.png) | 2016/09/04 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/39322148",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/804969/"
] | From your sample pictures I infer that you want to enhance
* the silhouette edges, i.e. those that belong to the outline of the projections,
* the salient edges, i.e. those that join two angled faces.
The former are determined by looking at the orientation of the faces: a face is "facing" when the observer is outside the half-space it delimits and conversely. A silhouette edge is one that belongs to a facing face and a non-facing face. Note that this is a viewer-dependent property.
A salient edge is such that it joins two faces forming a sufficiently large angle that the connection is considered non-smooth. (The angle threshold is up to you.) This is a viewer-independent property. | Consider freestyle
<https://www.blender.org/manual/en/render/freestyle/index.html>
>
> Freestyle is an edge- and line-based non-photorealistic (NPR) rendering >engine. It relies on mesh data and z-depth information to draw lines on >selected edge types. Various line styles can be added to produce >artistic (“hand drawn”, “painted”, etc.) or technical (hard line) looks.
>
>
>
I haven't used it yet, but am planning to give it a try for creating line drawings from 3d models. |
11,094 | I'm looking for the EV3-G control block for the HiTechnic Color Sensor V2, previously distributed by HiTechnic (<https://www.hitechnic.com/cgi-bin/commerce.cgi?key=NCO1038&preadd=action>), apparently now distributed by Modern Robotics (<https://modernroboticsinc.com/product/hitechnic-nxt-color-sensor-v2/>).
Many websites and online installation guides claim that the block is available from the downloads and support website from the original supplier (<https://www.hitechnic.com/downloadnew.php?category=38>). However, that site has been down for at least the past week and perhaps longer. Emails to both HiTechnic and Modern Robotics have gone unanswered, thus it appears that the sites are no longer maintained. :-(
A similar question was recently asked and answered ([Anyone have the control block for the hitechnic color sensors?](https://bricks.stackexchange.com/questions/11079/anyone-have-the-control-block-for-the-hitechnic-color-sensors)), however, the direct download link suggested there (<https://www.hitechnic.com/upload/306-Color%20Sensor%20V2.zip>) is for the older NXT control block only. Unfortunately, the NXT block is not compatible with EV3-G and the current EV3 brick. I'm seeking the EV3 block, not the NXT block.
I hope that someone here can help. | 2019/03/24 | [
"https://bricks.stackexchange.com/questions/11094",
"https://bricks.stackexchange.com",
"https://bricks.stackexchange.com/users/11446/"
] | Hitechnic.com now points to modernroboticsinc.com. You can find the Hitechnic EV3 color sensor block here:
<https://modernroboticsinc.com/download/hitechnic-ev3-color-sensor-block/>
All available downloads are available and searchable here:
<https://modernroboticsinc.com/downloads/> | Thank you! The answer from jncraton did the trick.
Summary: the direct download for the EV3 sensor block for the HiTechnic Color Sensor V2 is here:
<https://www.hitechnic.com/upload/545-HiTechnicEV3Color.zip>
The zip archive includes three files:
(1) instructions (HTColorREADME.txt)
(2) the control block (HTColor.ev3b)
(3) a sample file demonstrating use of the control block (ViewColor.ev3)
All three worked like a charm.
The instructions above for locating arbitrary HiTechnic files worked well also. This technique will be useful to others seeking programming blocks for other HiTechnic sensors. |
220,429 | It'd be nice to see reputation updates in the app, as we get on both the desktop and mobile sites.
**Mock-up of how this would look:**
>
> 
>
>
>
**Other possible icon states:**
>
> 
>
>
>
While I understand reputation is shown in the feed, it's a bit unwieldy, and has no notification.
With this feature implemented, the feed could arguably lose both reputation and inbox items, and be left with the interesting questions that fill it up. This would make for a much more consistent UX across app and desktop. | 2014/02/11 | [
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/220429",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/248072/"
] | The beta version of the app now has an achievements button that can be used to access our shiny new achievements screen:
 | Some kind of reputation activity is something we're planning on for post 1.0 (which is coming soon!). As soon as we get through the release, we'll be prioritizing a pretty heft list of stuff we want to do. When we have a concrete direction for this, I (or someone) will come back and tag it [status-planned](/questions/tagged/status-planned "show questions tagged 'status-planned'"). |
1,008,335 | I am trying to deploy my MVC app on a subdomain, unfortunately I get 404 errors.
I tried to find out if it's MVC itself that can't handle being hosted on a subdomain.
I uploaded the standard bare MVC webapp that you get when you start a new project. The index page loads, but all the other pages that require actual routing based on the url do all give 404's.
What do I need to change to be able to use MVC on a subdomain.
(it's all setup on a IIS 7.5 server as a seperate website) | 2009/06/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1008335",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/-1/"
] | I had this problem with a shared hosting provider. I had to get them to change the Application Pool to "Integrated Mode" instead of "Classic" mode in iis7 for it to work. Not sure why, haven't really looked into IIS7 that much | Is this a shared host where the subdomain is resolved via URL rewriting to point to a sub folder?
MVC doesn't care what the domain name is. I've used it with a couple different subdomains, but they were not on the type of host that would be rewritting to a sub folder. |
4,202 | I know some skills are best learned while a person is very young, like a second language, or absolute pitch. What are some other skills that are best learned while young and can be beneficial to a person? My thinking is that since those skills can only be learned while young, then that would be the time to focus and teach them. Other skills like reading/math can be focused on later. | 2012/01/30 | [
"https://parenting.stackexchange.com/questions/4202",
"https://parenting.stackexchange.com",
"https://parenting.stackexchange.com/users/2193/"
] | Beside language and musical skills, one thing that is never thought in schools is *character* or *assertiveness* skills, they present a challenge as sometimes the parents don't posses them, although there are many good books on the topic (just check an online book store and read the ratings!). *Meta* self-help books such as the *7 habits of highly successful people*, which go beyond mere tips to forge true character are recommended. | Kindness, following directions (need for school and business, not just discipline), sharing, group 'work', sportsmanship, kindness (o-did I already say this), empathy, creative play (work), kindness (o-did I say this again), problem solving skills, how to deal with difficult people, kindness (again).
I can give suggestions on how to teach some of these if you wish, but the question was what skills should be taught. It is very hard to get rid of bad habits if these skills are not taught from the beginning. |
126,478 | I'm new to guitar. I don’t really understand the tuning and its relationship with music notes. Can someone explain how I can get my guitar tuning to
F, Bb, D, F, Bb, F (Capo on 1). | 2022/12/20 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/126478",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/89796/"
] | I am going on the assumption that your notes are in order of low to high pitch. Standard tuning on guitar low to high is E,A,D,G,B,E. With the capo off the tuning you want is E,A,C#,E,A,E. This means from standard tuning the 2 lowest strings and the high string need no change. The D string must be tuned down a semitone to C#, the G string must be tuned down 3 semitones to E and the B string must be tuned down 2 semitones to A. Once you have done that putting the capo on the first fret will give you the notes you want, F,Bb,D,F,Bb,F. | John's answer is spot on. But I question why one would want to tune down a bit only to use a capo to bring it all up a semitone. That difference won't particularly affect the tension of the strings, so why not simply tune open to what is effectively B♭ open tuning? Maybe this doesn't answer the question directly, but - it does solve OP's problem! |
126,478 | I'm new to guitar. I don’t really understand the tuning and its relationship with music notes. Can someone explain how I can get my guitar tuning to
F, Bb, D, F, Bb, F (Capo on 1). | 2022/12/20 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/126478",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/89796/"
] | I am going on the assumption that your notes are in order of low to high pitch. Standard tuning on guitar low to high is E,A,D,G,B,E. With the capo off the tuning you want is E,A,C#,E,A,E. This means from standard tuning the 2 lowest strings and the high string need no change. The D string must be tuned down a semitone to C#, the G string must be tuned down 3 semitones to E and the B string must be tuned down 2 semitones to A. Once you have done that putting the capo on the first fret will give you the notes you want, F,Bb,D,F,Bb,F. | As I don't understand what your ultimate intention is, let me give you the basics so you can work it out yourself:
>
> I don’t really understand the tuning and its relationship with music notes.
>
>
>
When you pluck each string individually, without pressing anywhere on the fretboard, and if your guitar is tuned in the usual fashion, then the following notes will play:
E - A - D - G - B - E
The frets (the little dividers on the fretboard) are distanced such that they are always exactly a half-tone apart. This means that if you press your finger within the space between the zeroth and the first fret, you get a half-tone higher than the empty string.
For example: pressing the first fret on the E string gives you an F.
And so on and so forth. Pressing the E string on the second fret sounds an F#, then G, and so on.
Playing the first fret on the A string gives you Bb, the second fret B, the third fret C, and so forth.
A way to tune your guitar in the standard is to tune the lowest (deepest, thickest, 6th) string first, for example by playing the E on another instrument, and then playing the 5th fret on the E string. The notes on E are E-F-F#-G-G#-A-... (from fret 0 to 5). So if you press the 5th fret on the E string, you will be playing an A. Then you can tune the 5th string by ear so it sounds exactly the same, and will have your A. This works the same for A -> D, D -> G, and B -> E. There is a difference to go from G to B since the notes on the G string are G-G#-A-A#/Bb-B, so on the G string you need to press the 4th fret to tune the B string.
To get an arbitrary tuning, like the one you mention in your question, you can do the same. You tune the deepest note first by whatever means - if you are playing with others, they can give you the proper note; if you play alone you can guesstimate it. Then you figure out which frets on each deeper string corresponds to the empty tuning of the next higher string. In your example:
>
> F, Bb, D, F, Bb, F
>
>
>
This means:
* Tune the 6th string to F
* Press the 5th fret on the 6th string and tune the empty 5th string to that sound
* Press the 4th fret on the 5th string and tune the empty 4th string to that sounds
* ... 3th fret on the 4th string ...
* ... 5th fret on the 3rd string ...
* ... 6th fret on the 2nd string.
Also finally: the previous instructions interpret your question such that the tuning of the empty strings is as given in your question, and *then* you put the capo in the first fret, which would effectively give you a tuning of F#, B, D#, F#, B, F# - this is called "Open B" tuning, and if you simply play all strings without pressing anything, you will be playing a B major chord.
If instead your instructions mean that those notes (F, Bb, ...) should sound *after* you have put on the capo on 1, then this means that the empty strings must be tuned to E, A, C#, E, A, E, which would be the "Open A" tuning.
>
> I'm new to guitar.
>
>
>
Then I would highly suggest to stick with the standard tuning (E-A-D-G-B-E). A very important part of learning the guitar is learning the locations of the most common notes on fret 1-3 (at first) on the fretboard, and later the locations of all notes. Changing tuning will make this unnecessarily hard.
Most songs and chords are presented with respect to standard tuning - i.e., the numbers in tabulature notation (or sometimes also in classical notes) directly tell you the fret, and the "pictures" of chords also only make sense if your strings are tuned at least relatively standard. |
126,478 | I'm new to guitar. I don’t really understand the tuning and its relationship with music notes. Can someone explain how I can get my guitar tuning to
F, Bb, D, F, Bb, F (Capo on 1). | 2022/12/20 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/126478",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/89796/"
] | I am going on the assumption that your notes are in order of low to high pitch. Standard tuning on guitar low to high is E,A,D,G,B,E. With the capo off the tuning you want is E,A,C#,E,A,E. This means from standard tuning the 2 lowest strings and the high string need no change. The D string must be tuned down a semitone to C#, the G string must be tuned down 3 semitones to E and the B string must be tuned down 2 semitones to A. Once you have done that putting the capo on the first fret will give you the notes you want, F,Bb,D,F,Bb,F. | This is less me answering your question than figuring out your context.
>
> F Bb D F Bb F (Capo on 1)
>
>
>
Remove the capo and we get
>
> E A C# E A E
>
>
>
That's likely high-to-low. Guitarists tend to talk tunings low-to-high, but this is fine. Then we get that C# on the G string, and that's awful sharp. You'd need a far smaller third string, and no.
So it *is* low-to-high. Down a half step on the fourth string. I would probably try to tune up to E but the this works. Then, on the third string, we're down a minor third instead of up a second. Then with the second string, we're down a major second instead of up, getting the A instead of the C#. The major chord across the second, third and fourth strings is kinda the core to guitar fingering, but if that's the tuning you need, the open Bb the song needs, there you go.
So, low-to-high, that would be standard, standard, down a half step, down three half steps, down two half steps, standard. Capo and recheck and there you go.
It would be more "normal" to get there by tuning to an open G like
>
> D G D G B D
>
>
>
then capoing on the third fret.
>
> F Bb F Bb D F
>
>
>
This would seem more natural to most guitarists. But I don't know the song and arrangement and fingering you're trying to get to. I could see that being some fingerstyle player's fave tuning, but I don't get it.
Best of luck. |
126,478 | I'm new to guitar. I don’t really understand the tuning and its relationship with music notes. Can someone explain how I can get my guitar tuning to
F, Bb, D, F, Bb, F (Capo on 1). | 2022/12/20 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/126478",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/89796/"
] | John's answer is spot on. But I question why one would want to tune down a bit only to use a capo to bring it all up a semitone. That difference won't particularly affect the tension of the strings, so why not simply tune open to what is effectively B♭ open tuning? Maybe this doesn't answer the question directly, but - it does solve OP's problem! | As I don't understand what your ultimate intention is, let me give you the basics so you can work it out yourself:
>
> I don’t really understand the tuning and its relationship with music notes.
>
>
>
When you pluck each string individually, without pressing anywhere on the fretboard, and if your guitar is tuned in the usual fashion, then the following notes will play:
E - A - D - G - B - E
The frets (the little dividers on the fretboard) are distanced such that they are always exactly a half-tone apart. This means that if you press your finger within the space between the zeroth and the first fret, you get a half-tone higher than the empty string.
For example: pressing the first fret on the E string gives you an F.
And so on and so forth. Pressing the E string on the second fret sounds an F#, then G, and so on.
Playing the first fret on the A string gives you Bb, the second fret B, the third fret C, and so forth.
A way to tune your guitar in the standard is to tune the lowest (deepest, thickest, 6th) string first, for example by playing the E on another instrument, and then playing the 5th fret on the E string. The notes on E are E-F-F#-G-G#-A-... (from fret 0 to 5). So if you press the 5th fret on the E string, you will be playing an A. Then you can tune the 5th string by ear so it sounds exactly the same, and will have your A. This works the same for A -> D, D -> G, and B -> E. There is a difference to go from G to B since the notes on the G string are G-G#-A-A#/Bb-B, so on the G string you need to press the 4th fret to tune the B string.
To get an arbitrary tuning, like the one you mention in your question, you can do the same. You tune the deepest note first by whatever means - if you are playing with others, they can give you the proper note; if you play alone you can guesstimate it. Then you figure out which frets on each deeper string corresponds to the empty tuning of the next higher string. In your example:
>
> F, Bb, D, F, Bb, F
>
>
>
This means:
* Tune the 6th string to F
* Press the 5th fret on the 6th string and tune the empty 5th string to that sound
* Press the 4th fret on the 5th string and tune the empty 4th string to that sounds
* ... 3th fret on the 4th string ...
* ... 5th fret on the 3rd string ...
* ... 6th fret on the 2nd string.
Also finally: the previous instructions interpret your question such that the tuning of the empty strings is as given in your question, and *then* you put the capo in the first fret, which would effectively give you a tuning of F#, B, D#, F#, B, F# - this is called "Open B" tuning, and if you simply play all strings without pressing anything, you will be playing a B major chord.
If instead your instructions mean that those notes (F, Bb, ...) should sound *after* you have put on the capo on 1, then this means that the empty strings must be tuned to E, A, C#, E, A, E, which would be the "Open A" tuning.
>
> I'm new to guitar.
>
>
>
Then I would highly suggest to stick with the standard tuning (E-A-D-G-B-E). A very important part of learning the guitar is learning the locations of the most common notes on fret 1-3 (at first) on the fretboard, and later the locations of all notes. Changing tuning will make this unnecessarily hard.
Most songs and chords are presented with respect to standard tuning - i.e., the numbers in tabulature notation (or sometimes also in classical notes) directly tell you the fret, and the "pictures" of chords also only make sense if your strings are tuned at least relatively standard. |
126,478 | I'm new to guitar. I don’t really understand the tuning and its relationship with music notes. Can someone explain how I can get my guitar tuning to
F, Bb, D, F, Bb, F (Capo on 1). | 2022/12/20 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/126478",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/89796/"
] | ### Frame challenge: As a beginner, you definitely shouldn't
Using altered tunings is a common technique for advanced guitar players. When you've been playing several years and you're used to finding different chord forms all round the neck, you're probably ready to think about trying alternate tunings.
As a beginner, you simply aren't. You have no intuitive understanding of where to find notes around the fretboard. You don't understand the basics of how the instrument works. You haven't owned your instrument long enough to have any basic motor control in your fingers to play chords consistently and clearly.
As a beginner, work with beginner-level material and build your skills up. You didn't think up this tuning on your own (for reference, it's open A tuning with capo 1) so you must be working from some more advanced book or song and sheet. You need to drop this for now and go back to stuff which is in your ability range.
In a couple of years, if you put in plenty of practise, maybe you'll be ready to pick this up again. If you throw yourself against stuff like this right now, I guarantee you won't get anywhere with it, and I'll give good odds you won't still be playing in a couple of years because you've got frustrated with it. Don't set yourself up to fail. | John's answer is spot on. But I question why one would want to tune down a bit only to use a capo to bring it all up a semitone. That difference won't particularly affect the tension of the strings, so why not simply tune open to what is effectively B♭ open tuning? Maybe this doesn't answer the question directly, but - it does solve OP's problem! |
126,478 | I'm new to guitar. I don’t really understand the tuning and its relationship with music notes. Can someone explain how I can get my guitar tuning to
F, Bb, D, F, Bb, F (Capo on 1). | 2022/12/20 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/126478",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/89796/"
] | This is less me answering your question than figuring out your context.
>
> F Bb D F Bb F (Capo on 1)
>
>
>
Remove the capo and we get
>
> E A C# E A E
>
>
>
That's likely high-to-low. Guitarists tend to talk tunings low-to-high, but this is fine. Then we get that C# on the G string, and that's awful sharp. You'd need a far smaller third string, and no.
So it *is* low-to-high. Down a half step on the fourth string. I would probably try to tune up to E but the this works. Then, on the third string, we're down a minor third instead of up a second. Then with the second string, we're down a major second instead of up, getting the A instead of the C#. The major chord across the second, third and fourth strings is kinda the core to guitar fingering, but if that's the tuning you need, the open Bb the song needs, there you go.
So, low-to-high, that would be standard, standard, down a half step, down three half steps, down two half steps, standard. Capo and recheck and there you go.
It would be more "normal" to get there by tuning to an open G like
>
> D G D G B D
>
>
>
then capoing on the third fret.
>
> F Bb F Bb D F
>
>
>
This would seem more natural to most guitarists. But I don't know the song and arrangement and fingering you're trying to get to. I could see that being some fingerstyle player's fave tuning, but I don't get it.
Best of luck. | As I don't understand what your ultimate intention is, let me give you the basics so you can work it out yourself:
>
> I don’t really understand the tuning and its relationship with music notes.
>
>
>
When you pluck each string individually, without pressing anywhere on the fretboard, and if your guitar is tuned in the usual fashion, then the following notes will play:
E - A - D - G - B - E
The frets (the little dividers on the fretboard) are distanced such that they are always exactly a half-tone apart. This means that if you press your finger within the space between the zeroth and the first fret, you get a half-tone higher than the empty string.
For example: pressing the first fret on the E string gives you an F.
And so on and so forth. Pressing the E string on the second fret sounds an F#, then G, and so on.
Playing the first fret on the A string gives you Bb, the second fret B, the third fret C, and so forth.
A way to tune your guitar in the standard is to tune the lowest (deepest, thickest, 6th) string first, for example by playing the E on another instrument, and then playing the 5th fret on the E string. The notes on E are E-F-F#-G-G#-A-... (from fret 0 to 5). So if you press the 5th fret on the E string, you will be playing an A. Then you can tune the 5th string by ear so it sounds exactly the same, and will have your A. This works the same for A -> D, D -> G, and B -> E. There is a difference to go from G to B since the notes on the G string are G-G#-A-A#/Bb-B, so on the G string you need to press the 4th fret to tune the B string.
To get an arbitrary tuning, like the one you mention in your question, you can do the same. You tune the deepest note first by whatever means - if you are playing with others, they can give you the proper note; if you play alone you can guesstimate it. Then you figure out which frets on each deeper string corresponds to the empty tuning of the next higher string. In your example:
>
> F, Bb, D, F, Bb, F
>
>
>
This means:
* Tune the 6th string to F
* Press the 5th fret on the 6th string and tune the empty 5th string to that sound
* Press the 4th fret on the 5th string and tune the empty 4th string to that sounds
* ... 3th fret on the 4th string ...
* ... 5th fret on the 3rd string ...
* ... 6th fret on the 2nd string.
Also finally: the previous instructions interpret your question such that the tuning of the empty strings is as given in your question, and *then* you put the capo in the first fret, which would effectively give you a tuning of F#, B, D#, F#, B, F# - this is called "Open B" tuning, and if you simply play all strings without pressing anything, you will be playing a B major chord.
If instead your instructions mean that those notes (F, Bb, ...) should sound *after* you have put on the capo on 1, then this means that the empty strings must be tuned to E, A, C#, E, A, E, which would be the "Open A" tuning.
>
> I'm new to guitar.
>
>
>
Then I would highly suggest to stick with the standard tuning (E-A-D-G-B-E). A very important part of learning the guitar is learning the locations of the most common notes on fret 1-3 (at first) on the fretboard, and later the locations of all notes. Changing tuning will make this unnecessarily hard.
Most songs and chords are presented with respect to standard tuning - i.e., the numbers in tabulature notation (or sometimes also in classical notes) directly tell you the fret, and the "pictures" of chords also only make sense if your strings are tuned at least relatively standard. |
126,478 | I'm new to guitar. I don’t really understand the tuning and its relationship with music notes. Can someone explain how I can get my guitar tuning to
F, Bb, D, F, Bb, F (Capo on 1). | 2022/12/20 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/126478",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/89796/"
] | ### Frame challenge: As a beginner, you definitely shouldn't
Using altered tunings is a common technique for advanced guitar players. When you've been playing several years and you're used to finding different chord forms all round the neck, you're probably ready to think about trying alternate tunings.
As a beginner, you simply aren't. You have no intuitive understanding of where to find notes around the fretboard. You don't understand the basics of how the instrument works. You haven't owned your instrument long enough to have any basic motor control in your fingers to play chords consistently and clearly.
As a beginner, work with beginner-level material and build your skills up. You didn't think up this tuning on your own (for reference, it's open A tuning with capo 1) so you must be working from some more advanced book or song and sheet. You need to drop this for now and go back to stuff which is in your ability range.
In a couple of years, if you put in plenty of practise, maybe you'll be ready to pick this up again. If you throw yourself against stuff like this right now, I guarantee you won't get anywhere with it, and I'll give good odds you won't still be playing in a couple of years because you've got frustrated with it. Don't set yourself up to fail. | As I don't understand what your ultimate intention is, let me give you the basics so you can work it out yourself:
>
> I don’t really understand the tuning and its relationship with music notes.
>
>
>
When you pluck each string individually, without pressing anywhere on the fretboard, and if your guitar is tuned in the usual fashion, then the following notes will play:
E - A - D - G - B - E
The frets (the little dividers on the fretboard) are distanced such that they are always exactly a half-tone apart. This means that if you press your finger within the space between the zeroth and the first fret, you get a half-tone higher than the empty string.
For example: pressing the first fret on the E string gives you an F.
And so on and so forth. Pressing the E string on the second fret sounds an F#, then G, and so on.
Playing the first fret on the A string gives you Bb, the second fret B, the third fret C, and so forth.
A way to tune your guitar in the standard is to tune the lowest (deepest, thickest, 6th) string first, for example by playing the E on another instrument, and then playing the 5th fret on the E string. The notes on E are E-F-F#-G-G#-A-... (from fret 0 to 5). So if you press the 5th fret on the E string, you will be playing an A. Then you can tune the 5th string by ear so it sounds exactly the same, and will have your A. This works the same for A -> D, D -> G, and B -> E. There is a difference to go from G to B since the notes on the G string are G-G#-A-A#/Bb-B, so on the G string you need to press the 4th fret to tune the B string.
To get an arbitrary tuning, like the one you mention in your question, you can do the same. You tune the deepest note first by whatever means - if you are playing with others, they can give you the proper note; if you play alone you can guesstimate it. Then you figure out which frets on each deeper string corresponds to the empty tuning of the next higher string. In your example:
>
> F, Bb, D, F, Bb, F
>
>
>
This means:
* Tune the 6th string to F
* Press the 5th fret on the 6th string and tune the empty 5th string to that sound
* Press the 4th fret on the 5th string and tune the empty 4th string to that sounds
* ... 3th fret on the 4th string ...
* ... 5th fret on the 3rd string ...
* ... 6th fret on the 2nd string.
Also finally: the previous instructions interpret your question such that the tuning of the empty strings is as given in your question, and *then* you put the capo in the first fret, which would effectively give you a tuning of F#, B, D#, F#, B, F# - this is called "Open B" tuning, and if you simply play all strings without pressing anything, you will be playing a B major chord.
If instead your instructions mean that those notes (F, Bb, ...) should sound *after* you have put on the capo on 1, then this means that the empty strings must be tuned to E, A, C#, E, A, E, which would be the "Open A" tuning.
>
> I'm new to guitar.
>
>
>
Then I would highly suggest to stick with the standard tuning (E-A-D-G-B-E). A very important part of learning the guitar is learning the locations of the most common notes on fret 1-3 (at first) on the fretboard, and later the locations of all notes. Changing tuning will make this unnecessarily hard.
Most songs and chords are presented with respect to standard tuning - i.e., the numbers in tabulature notation (or sometimes also in classical notes) directly tell you the fret, and the "pictures" of chords also only make sense if your strings are tuned at least relatively standard. |
126,478 | I'm new to guitar. I don’t really understand the tuning and its relationship with music notes. Can someone explain how I can get my guitar tuning to
F, Bb, D, F, Bb, F (Capo on 1). | 2022/12/20 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/126478",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/89796/"
] | ### Frame challenge: As a beginner, you definitely shouldn't
Using altered tunings is a common technique for advanced guitar players. When you've been playing several years and you're used to finding different chord forms all round the neck, you're probably ready to think about trying alternate tunings.
As a beginner, you simply aren't. You have no intuitive understanding of where to find notes around the fretboard. You don't understand the basics of how the instrument works. You haven't owned your instrument long enough to have any basic motor control in your fingers to play chords consistently and clearly.
As a beginner, work with beginner-level material and build your skills up. You didn't think up this tuning on your own (for reference, it's open A tuning with capo 1) so you must be working from some more advanced book or song and sheet. You need to drop this for now and go back to stuff which is in your ability range.
In a couple of years, if you put in plenty of practise, maybe you'll be ready to pick this up again. If you throw yourself against stuff like this right now, I guarantee you won't get anywhere with it, and I'll give good odds you won't still be playing in a couple of years because you've got frustrated with it. Don't set yourself up to fail. | This is less me answering your question than figuring out your context.
>
> F Bb D F Bb F (Capo on 1)
>
>
>
Remove the capo and we get
>
> E A C# E A E
>
>
>
That's likely high-to-low. Guitarists tend to talk tunings low-to-high, but this is fine. Then we get that C# on the G string, and that's awful sharp. You'd need a far smaller third string, and no.
So it *is* low-to-high. Down a half step on the fourth string. I would probably try to tune up to E but the this works. Then, on the third string, we're down a minor third instead of up a second. Then with the second string, we're down a major second instead of up, getting the A instead of the C#. The major chord across the second, third and fourth strings is kinda the core to guitar fingering, but if that's the tuning you need, the open Bb the song needs, there you go.
So, low-to-high, that would be standard, standard, down a half step, down three half steps, down two half steps, standard. Capo and recheck and there you go.
It would be more "normal" to get there by tuning to an open G like
>
> D G D G B D
>
>
>
then capoing on the third fret.
>
> F Bb F Bb D F
>
>
>
This would seem more natural to most guitarists. But I don't know the song and arrangement and fingering you're trying to get to. I could see that being some fingerstyle player's fave tuning, but I don't get it.
Best of luck. |
19,743 | Currently I'm rolling my own score and leader board functionality in my FB canvas game.
In my game, users can see what score they have, in addition I have a public leader board where everybody can see all scores from all other users.(I also have possibility for each user to set themselves as anonymous in the leader board, if desired)
But now I started thinking; why do I have my own leader board system?
Facebook has this scores API and I started play around with it.
It, of course, integrates well with Facebook, scores and achievement showing up in the ticker and what not.
But it seems that I can't let each user see a public leader board in much the same way I currently have it. But it do let the users see their friends score.
Let's face it, this is all what FB is all about, right? Friends.
So the question is; should i scrap my own leader board and go for the Facebook built in one (and skip the public part of it)?
My gut feeling says yes, but I wanted to hear what other thinks. | 2011/11/14 | [
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com/questions/19743",
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com",
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com/users/10771/"
] | I think there are two basic problems with a global leaderboard:
1. [Cheating](https://gamedev.stackexchange.com/questions/4181/how-can-i-prevent-cheating-on-global-highscore-tables).
2. And from a design standpoint, what does it do for the game experience? I would argue it actually detracts from a player's experience, unless a global ranking is somehow achievable. When I finish playing a game for the first time, have a couple hundred points, and then get shown that the top 10 people all have scores above a million, it's not a motivator for me; it's discouraging. It's like an impossible goal. It benefits those 10 people's egos, and detracts from everyone else's sense of accomplishment.
Limiting the leaderboard or high scores table to only friends, though, negates both of these elements. As a player, if I cheat, I know that I'm just doing it to show off to my friends, so I have less of an incentive to cheat (and if I do, you the game designer don't care because it's not globally visible). And it's likely that my friends are of a similar skill level to me, so I feel like I can beat their scores if I try hard enough - and indeed I probably can. Which then motivates my friends to play the game some more to try and beat my score. Which creates more traffic to your game, which is what you want. | I'm a bit late to this question as I've only just started considering the same question myself. I've just launched a game on FB which we created a global leaderboard for, but it also has the option to display just the friends scores. The FB score and achievements API does look good, but I know for my own game (puzzle game) people absolutely want to see who is scoring well in the game across the network, and also what scores are possible. Also if you just make it friends only than unless each player has LOTS of friends who are all playing it, their leaderboard is going to look pretty empty, which I would argue discourages people from playing, for me the more scores people see being posted the bigger inventive for them to do well themselves.
The ideal solution is a global leaderboard and a local one. |
4,152,400 | I have implemented an InApp Purchase Store in my app. I have English and German as languages. But I always get the German titles and descriptions from the SKProducts. I am calling the right localizedDescription localizedTitle methods, so this should be not the problem, according to the documentation.
Can anybody help me with this problem? | 2010/11/11 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/4152400",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/155663/"
] | App Store seems to return localized strings based on user country, rather than user-selected language in Settings.app. In other words, if you shop in the German store, you will get German localized strings from App Store. | Tried with the language setting in the setting and it didn't work for SKProduct's localizedTitle (still display the english product title).
In order to change the country for App Store, I had to go to iTunes on my phone, log out my current account. select create a new apple ID -> select country -> next. Then relaunch app store to verify it's a different country.
PS grobald, Thank you so much for the hint! |
68,799 | This question is based on travelling between the UK and Cancun, Mexico.
On the way out (UK -> Mexico) I purchased 200 cigarettes in the duty free shop at LGW. Some (at the current rate c. 50% by the time I fly back in 6 days) will have been smoked, leaving a remaining quantity. Will these count towards/against any duty-free allowance I have when travelling from Mexico back to the UK, or will I only be entitled to purchase/import my return allowance net of the amount I have remaining? | 2016/05/22 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/68799",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/43916/"
] | No, the limit is a total amount you can bring in, regardless of where or when on your trip you bought them - so if the limit is 200, and you've got 100 left from your outbound trip, you can buy another 100 on the way back to take you back up to 200. | I've previously been interested in a related question, which is if I buy an item tax free at the airport, such as a laptop or phone, am I supposed to declare it when I return home? I found a link that seems to answer both questions:
<http://webarchive.nationalarchives.gov.uk/20080814090357/http://customs.hmrc.gov.uk/channelsportalwebapp/downloadFile?contentID=HMCE_CL_000282>
2.1 Am I entitled to any duty-free allowances?
Yes. In addition to any of the reliefs in Sections 4 to 8 for which you may qualify,
when you are travelling in from outside the EC you can have the relevant allowances
for alcoholic drinks, tobacco products, perfume, toilet water and other goods,
(popularly known as 'duty-frees') shown in our Notice 1 A Customs guide for
travellers entering the UK. *These allowances apply to goods obtained outside the EC
or bought duty or tax free when leaving the EC, and which have travelled in with you.* |
16,180 | My 1997 Honda Accord came with a 115/70/14 donut spare tire. I had to use it for the first time recently, and it is now totally dead and needs to be replaced.
I looked on Ebay and there are a few people selling 115/70/14 Accord donut tires. But there are also a few people selling different sized Accord donut spares that they say will work on a 97 Accord. Those are sized 135/80/15, 125/70/15, and 125/70/14.
***Do I have to get a 115/70/14 tire, or will one of those other sized spares work as well?*** | 2015/03/30 | [
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com/questions/16180",
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com",
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com/users/6536/"
] | There is a huge pile of information about tire sizing around the internet. I'll attempt to summarize its application here.
Tires have 3 numbers, which work together to describe the tire's size. The first number is the section width, the second number is the sidewall ratio and the third number is the rim diameter.
**Section Width**
The section width is the width of the tire in millimeters at the largest point. This is important when trying to fit a tire to a rim, but in your case the rim is already matched to the tire so we're good. The number does still matter for us because of what we're calculating.
**Sidewall Aspect Ratio**
This is the distance from the rim to the tread. It is described as a percentage of the section width, so a 70% sidewall with a 130 section width will be taller than a 70% sidewall with a 110 section width.
**Rim Diameter**
This is the most obvious of the numbers. It is the rim diameter in inches. Why is the section width in millimeters and the rim diameter in inches? My guess is the same reason many manufactured parts in America are dimensioned in inches, but sometimes they hang out alongside parts manufactured to metric dimensions.
We can use these numbers to (roughly) calculate tire diameter...
Let's start with a standard factory sized '97 Accord tire (yours may vary depending on trim, but it will probably have a similar outer diameter):
185/65R15
185 / 25.4 = 7.283" (Metric to inch conversion)
7.283 \* 0.65 = 4.734 (Sidewall height as a percentage of section width)
4.734 \* 2 = 9.468 (Double the radius to get diameter)
9.468 + 15 = **24.468** (Sidewalls + rim = outer diameter)
So following the same calculation:
115/70/14 = 20.339
135/80/15 = 23.504
125/70/15 = 21.890
125/70/14 = 20.890
It looks like your other 3 options are between your original spare and your standard tire diameter. As long as they'll fit in the spare tire well any one of them would likely be an adequate spare as long as the bolt pattern matches. I would favor something as close to the standard tire as possible if you know it will fit the tire well.
Please see [this link at the Tire Rack](http://www.tirerack.com/tires/tiretech/techpage.jsp?techid=46) for a more detailed explanation of tire sizing.
There is a calculator for tire diameter [here](http://www.csgnetwork.com/tiresizescalc.html). | **tl; dr** You can run it, but there is a cost.
You'd need to double check to ensure the rotations per mile (RPM) are almost/nearly the same (if not exactly). If it's off by more than a few percentage, you are going to have a problem with your anti-lock brakes (ABS) throwing codes on you. If you run a mis-matched donut on the front, you will have issues with over-heating your transaxle due to the mismatch of tire sizes. This is due to the differential having to make up the difference in . This will provide extra wear and tear on the differential, especially if it has a posi-traction style differential in it (not sure if Honda even has one, but it is something to consider).
Bottom line - find one which is the same size. You'll be happy doing so and so will your car. |
16,180 | My 1997 Honda Accord came with a 115/70/14 donut spare tire. I had to use it for the first time recently, and it is now totally dead and needs to be replaced.
I looked on Ebay and there are a few people selling 115/70/14 Accord donut tires. But there are also a few people selling different sized Accord donut spares that they say will work on a 97 Accord. Those are sized 135/80/15, 125/70/15, and 125/70/14.
***Do I have to get a 115/70/14 tire, or will one of those other sized spares work as well?*** | 2015/03/30 | [
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com/questions/16180",
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com",
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com/users/6536/"
] | There is a huge pile of information about tire sizing around the internet. I'll attempt to summarize its application here.
Tires have 3 numbers, which work together to describe the tire's size. The first number is the section width, the second number is the sidewall ratio and the third number is the rim diameter.
**Section Width**
The section width is the width of the tire in millimeters at the largest point. This is important when trying to fit a tire to a rim, but in your case the rim is already matched to the tire so we're good. The number does still matter for us because of what we're calculating.
**Sidewall Aspect Ratio**
This is the distance from the rim to the tread. It is described as a percentage of the section width, so a 70% sidewall with a 130 section width will be taller than a 70% sidewall with a 110 section width.
**Rim Diameter**
This is the most obvious of the numbers. It is the rim diameter in inches. Why is the section width in millimeters and the rim diameter in inches? My guess is the same reason many manufactured parts in America are dimensioned in inches, but sometimes they hang out alongside parts manufactured to metric dimensions.
We can use these numbers to (roughly) calculate tire diameter...
Let's start with a standard factory sized '97 Accord tire (yours may vary depending on trim, but it will probably have a similar outer diameter):
185/65R15
185 / 25.4 = 7.283" (Metric to inch conversion)
7.283 \* 0.65 = 4.734 (Sidewall height as a percentage of section width)
4.734 \* 2 = 9.468 (Double the radius to get diameter)
9.468 + 15 = **24.468** (Sidewalls + rim = outer diameter)
So following the same calculation:
115/70/14 = 20.339
135/80/15 = 23.504
125/70/15 = 21.890
125/70/14 = 20.890
It looks like your other 3 options are between your original spare and your standard tire diameter. As long as they'll fit in the spare tire well any one of them would likely be an adequate spare as long as the bolt pattern matches. I would favor something as close to the standard tire as possible if you know it will fit the tire well.
Please see [this link at the Tire Rack](http://www.tirerack.com/tires/tiretech/techpage.jsp?techid=46) for a more detailed explanation of tire sizing.
There is a calculator for tire diameter [here](http://www.csgnetwork.com/tiresizescalc.html). | Most donut spares are a smaller diameter than the original tire. If the vehicle has a donut spare this is smaller in diameter then I wouldn't consider it to be a metric of consideration.
My recommendation would be to retain that diameter.
I think the only relevant piece to this is, if you have a greater width of tire, will it fit in the compartment in your trunk? |
109,334 | I work in an organization which creates many integrated systems products - i.e. it is complete products with mechanical/system/electronics/software being designed and manufactured. At the moment most teams are organized around projects in a cross functional way. The advantage of an organization like this is that people who are working closely together for a common goal are close.
The disadvantages come from the isolation of engineers from their peers. Typically a project is assigned only one software engineer. This means that the projects have a high truck factor, minimal knowledge sharing and best practices, and technical development is limited.
So my question is: are there any studies comparing the cost/benefits of these two approaches? | 2011/09/19 | [
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/109334",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/17922/"
] | The best type of team structure to use isn't necessarily one of cost-benefit, but instead on the organizational culture currently in place, the characteristics of the employees, and the type of project being conducted. Because of these variables, there's no way to say that a particular strategy or approach is best, but there are some general indicators as to how you can best structure a team to complete the task at hand.
There are many [types of teams](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Team#Types_of_teams) and ways to [organize teams and organizations](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Organizational_structure#Organizational_structure_types). Some of the more common forms are functional, lightweight, heavyweight, and autonomous. Below, I'm summarizing a portion of a book on managing technological innovation - [Melissa A. Schilling's Strategic Management of Technological Innovation](http://rads.stackoverflow.com/amzn/click/007338156X).
A functional team is entirely non-cross-functional. Every employee remains within their own department. Total isolation between science, engineering, human resources, and so on. An employee will report to a functional manager. Under this structure, people working on a project tend to be more committed to their functional department rather than to the project. This structure is appropriate for what is known as a derivative project - leveraging existing work with only minor modifications or improvements and projects that only (or mostly) require a single type of expertise.
Lightweight teams occur when members reside in their functional departments and report to functional managers. However, a project manager is introduced. The project manager will oversee the people that are needed to carry out the project, but not manage them directly. The role of the project manager is to facilitate communication and ensure that each member on the project is appropriately contributing. This structure is best for derivative projects that don't require a large amount of coordination and communication between members.
Heavyweight teams remove required individuals from their functional departments, however they still report to a functional manager. A project manager oversees the project activities, but doesn't directly supervise or manager the individual team members. Project managers typically outrank the functional managers in this environment and are responsible for evaluating, rewarding, and leading the project members. These teams have a high degree of communication and collaboration among those assigned to the project and the members are also committed to the success of the project. This format is used on platform projects, which are used to improve cost, quality, and performance from a previous generation (but might not have significant new innovation).
Autonomous teams remove members from functional departments entirely, and having them work directly under a project manager. Project managers here are senior staff members and leaders of the organization. Sometimes, these teams are given immense freedom to "get the job done" by developing their own policies and procedures. At the same time, they would be held entirely accountable for the successes or failures of the project. These types of teams are often deployed on breakthrough projects, which introduce new innovation into the organization's products, or to produce new business units.
However, just because a particular team type might be generally good for a particular type of project, it also matters what the culture of the organization is. Some organizations can't (or won't) support autonomous teams for cultural reasons. Others "have always done it" a certain way and simply won't change. It also matters what kind of people are on the team - some people function better if they are colocated and have a high degree of communication and ability to collaborate, while others prefer their space to solve the problem and throw it back out.
The following papers/books/documents are cited by the section of the book I'm reading:
* S.C. Wheelwright and K.B. Clark, Revolutionizing Product Development: Quantum Leaps in Speed, Efficiency, and Quality (New York: Free Press, 1992).
* F. Damanpour, "Organizational Innovation: A Meta-Analysis of Effects of Determinants and Moderators," Academy of Management Journal 34, no. 3 (1991).
* E.F. McDonough, "Investigation of Factors Contributing to the Success of Cross-Functional Teams." Journal of Product Innovation Management 17 (2000). | While you can have cross functional teams it also doesn't hurt to staff those teams with multiple part-time engineers. You could for example put Bob on project a and project b and also put Jane on project a and project b. This way they are distributed, however, if you have projects that are small enough to build out with just one software engineer, even this approach may have limitations.
Another option might be to keep the team structure the same but organize the work environment around function. Put all the software engineers together where they can collaborate in an open environment. This does go counter to some thinking and sometimes people get defensive when you take down the walls, but it might help to work in a bull-pen type arrangement.
The concept of co-working is based on this as well. Independent consultants and designers that would otherwise work in a home based office, move into a shared facility where they can feed off each others strengths.
There might not be much out there on these ideas, maybe you can pitch it to the teams involved as an experiment to get better productivity and satisfaction in the jobs. Then write up a white paper on the outcomes. |
90,584 | Can I license different parts of my code (different classes) under different licenses?
E.g. I have downloaded and modified a class which licensed under the BSD 3 point.
Can I then say, file AObject.class is BSD, and BObject.class is LGPL (or MIT, or MPL, or PD, etc etc) | 2011/07/07 | [
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/90584",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/3139/"
] | You can license code you write with whatever combination of licenses you please. However this may not make sense.
For example if you license one file with the GPL and another with a closed source license no one is going to be able to use your code as a whole. People will be able to take your GPL code and use it separately in GPL solutions but since the GPL conflicts with closed source licenses they could not use both.
you can also release code under two or more licenses. So you may release code file.cpp under both GPL and BSD and allow people to choose which license applies to them. Or you could charge people a fee to have the code with one license and provide the code under a GPL license for free.
Remember that your license choice will affect your ability to take code "back into" your project. So if file1 is Closed Source and file 2 is GPL in the same project, you will not be able to put other peoples GPL code into your GPL file as this would be a violation of the GPL license. | I believe this really depends on which license is being applied where.
My understanding is you cannot use license X is it steps on license Y toes.
However, I did find some good information here: [Multi-licensing Wikipedia](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Multi-licensing) |
90,584 | Can I license different parts of my code (different classes) under different licenses?
E.g. I have downloaded and modified a class which licensed under the BSD 3 point.
Can I then say, file AObject.class is BSD, and BObject.class is LGPL (or MIT, or MPL, or PD, etc etc) | 2011/07/07 | [
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/90584",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/3139/"
] | You can license code you write with whatever combination of licenses you please. However this may not make sense.
For example if you license one file with the GPL and another with a closed source license no one is going to be able to use your code as a whole. People will be able to take your GPL code and use it separately in GPL solutions but since the GPL conflicts with closed source licenses they could not use both.
you can also release code under two or more licenses. So you may release code file.cpp under both GPL and BSD and allow people to choose which license applies to them. Or you could charge people a fee to have the code with one license and provide the code under a GPL license for free.
Remember that your license choice will affect your ability to take code "back into" your project. So if file1 is Closed Source and file 2 is GPL in the same project, you will not be able to put other peoples GPL code into your GPL file as this would be a violation of the GPL license. | Technically a piece of source is a document which can be copyrighted. So technically you can do so, but you'd have to be able to use both licenses at the same time when using your code in the end product. So practically the separation can best be made at a compilation unit such as a dll, which contains (or should contain) a functional and related set of classes/code. |
90,584 | Can I license different parts of my code (different classes) under different licenses?
E.g. I have downloaded and modified a class which licensed under the BSD 3 point.
Can I then say, file AObject.class is BSD, and BObject.class is LGPL (or MIT, or MPL, or PD, etc etc) | 2011/07/07 | [
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/90584",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/3139/"
] | You can license code you write with whatever combination of licenses you please. However this may not make sense.
For example if you license one file with the GPL and another with a closed source license no one is going to be able to use your code as a whole. People will be able to take your GPL code and use it separately in GPL solutions but since the GPL conflicts with closed source licenses they could not use both.
you can also release code under two or more licenses. So you may release code file.cpp under both GPL and BSD and allow people to choose which license applies to them. Or you could charge people a fee to have the code with one license and provide the code under a GPL license for free.
Remember that your license choice will affect your ability to take code "back into" your project. So if file1 is Closed Source and file 2 is GPL in the same project, you will not be able to put other peoples GPL code into your GPL file as this would be a violation of the GPL license. | The issue of license compatibility aside, you can certainly license different portions of your code differently and this is quite common for commercial software that has Open Source integrated into it. One project I was on included the [mingw](http://www.mingw.org/) compiler as part of the installation as well as [ACE](http://www1.cse.wustl.edu/~schmidt/ACE.html), [OpenSSL](http://www.openssl.org/), and several other bits from around the net. It took our lawyers weeks to be certain we'd dotted our i's and crossed our t's with our legal obligations, but in the end we shipped and even made the principals of those other projects aware of our use of their software. |
35,847,529 | I would like to create a service to toggle policies on and off by QName from an external system. Primarily, I want to disable the auditable policies which prevents my external system from pushing in content and setting the modified/created dates. I am aware of the [BehaviourFilter](http://dev.alfresco.com/resource/AlfrescoOne/5.0/PublicAPI/org/alfresco/repo/policy/BehaviourFilter.html), but those changes are restricted to the current transaction. **I would prefer to have some control over turning the policy on and off without restarting the system.**
How do I prevent a policy from firing for an unspecified amount of time, beyond a single transaction? | 2016/03/07 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/35847529",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1324773/"
] | Alfresco's auditable policies are so often subject for irritations and the needed work arounds are unnecessary waste of time. I'd like to discuss a solution which is more work but which may avoid the trouble in future with more flexibility since Alfresco combined two things which shouldn't be combined:
* modified and created date
* audit modified and created date
The first one is exposed to the file protocols and should be writable from the client. There are so many use cases where we need to set the dates (moving files from and to alfresco, native apps which brake if date is changed by server)
The second one is for the admins and compliance guys only and should be exposed as independant properties thru the service api and Web UI - not thru the file protocols.
Since Alfresco combines both use cases in only one database column / one property we will always have trouble. Either the file protocol use cases doesn't work or we can't trust the audit attributes.
My suggestion would be to separate this by introducing 2 new properties in the model:
* createdDate, modifiedDate (there are only the audit times persisted at the moment)
and map these properties to the file protocol's dates.
A policy would manage the update on these properties if not set by the client (all except file protocols?)
My intention would be to put this in a community module / patch.
Any feedback to this approach? Maybe someone to sponsor this? | It's good that you're aware about the BehaviourFilter, but you're probably missing the point why you shouldn't be totally disable the policy for a time-period and then re-enabling it. If by chance the external system sends a signal to disable the policy and parallel a user is using Alfresco and uploading, that means that it isn't triggered any more.
Hence you really should use the **BehaviourFilter** within your writing transaction from the external system.
How:
Create custom webscript which disables the BehaviourFilter for the QNAME/Node and re-enables it again. If you look at Alfresco's RecordsManagement code it uses the same principle. |
16,373 | I am a German PhD student in South America and am worried about whether my PhD title will be accepted in Germany (as Dr.) and internationally in general.
If you successfully complete a PhD in the EU, you are allowed to carry the title "Dr.", as any PhD in Germany does.
I am working in a faculty with a professor with international experience, who, for research reasons, left a reasonably strong department in Europe for the position in South America, which is incidentally one of the strongest two departments in South America.
I am attending international conferences every now and then, have two papers published in international journals (one jointly, one alone) and two more papers in preparation.
For all I know, I can reasonably expect that my research performance (and eventually, my PhD thesis) is not below the European standard.
The default format for PhDs from a non-EU country is something like "Hans Wurst (Doutorado, Universidade de Ipanema)", which looks like I should just use my self-confidence instead and not mention that I did a PhD unless someone asks.
I don't know if it's off-topic, because this might just be "too localized", but of course I am wondering if it is possible to have my PhD accredited to use my PhD title in Germany like any "normal" PhD.
I'm also wondering, whether the international community is as strict as German law, or whether I should just call myself "Hans Wurst, PhD" on job applications, my professional webpage, etc. (where the place will be listed somewhere), and hope nobody tells me it should be "Hans Wurst (Doutorado, Universidade de Ipanema)" instead.
Did I make a mistake in my career planning in that the only title that is worth carrying (until full tenure, I guess) I can't carry without a large number of not-so-fancy accessories? | 2014/01/30 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/16373",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/11404/"
] | >
> Did I make a mistake in my career planning in that the only title that is worth carrying (until full tenure, I guess) I can’t carry without a large number of not-so-fancy accessories?
>
>
>
No. You make the good old German mistake of thinking that ‘carrying’ the title has any relevance whatsoever. You will have the equivalent of a doctoral degree from a respectable university (presumably) backed with a reasonable publication record. This is what’s going to matter. Whether it will be called a doctorate or a PhD does not matter to any employer (that you would actually want to work for). Also, for practical purposes, the people that care about such things *will* be calling you Dr. Hans Wurst anyway, even if you technically have a slightly different title. It’s close enough.
>
> The default format for PhDs from a non-EU country is something like “Hans Wurst (Doutorado, Universidade de Ipanema)”, which looks like I should just use my self-confidence instead and not mention that I did a PhD unless someone asks.
>
>
>
I don’t quite understand. You don’t want to mention your PhD because of ... what exactly?
>
> I’m also wondering whether the international community is as strict as German law, or whether I should just call myself “Hans Wurst, PhD” on job applications, my professional webpage, etc. (where the place will be listed somewhere), and hope nobody tells me it should be “Hans Wurst (Doutorado, Universidade de Ipanema)” instead.
>
>
>
Practically, on anything but the most formal documents, I have seen people in similar situations call themselves anything out of: Dr. Hans Wurst; Hans Wurst, PhD; or Hans Wurst, PhD (Universidade de Ipanema). All of those mean essentially the same thing to the pragmatic observer.
Clarifications
--------------
First off, I am not German myself, but Austrian with strong ties to Germany (and Austria is *the place that Germans make fun of because we are presumably so fond of our academic titles*), so I do think I am able to comment on this issue.
Second, I think it is required to distinguish a few things which are somewhat mangled up in my above response as well as the questions:
### Will the OP formally be allowed to carry the title Dr. Hans Wurst?
No, not without going through nostrification, as indicated in other answers.
### Will people informally still refer to him as they would to the holder of a European PhD? (e.g., put a Dr. Hans Wurst on his door in the office?). Basically, would people in their day-to-day life consider the difference to be a technicality?
Yes, I am convinced that would be the case in most places. If non-EU people were treated as “not really doctors at all”, we would not have any foreign faculty or postdocs. In Vienna, while I did my postdoc there, we had people who had received PhDs from Austria, Germany, the US, and China, and they all were uniformly referred to as “Drs.” by peers and university administration alike. It may not be formally correct, but people are also not stupid (in general).
### Will it make a difference in his professional life?
Assuming the university is indeed excellent (I have personally never heard of it, but my knowledge of African universities is very limited), it should really not make a difference. I guess the main problem is that if the university is not very well-known, a hiring committee might not go through the trouble of actually finding out whether or not the university is good. However, at least in academic posts, I would not assume that the OP will have any disadvantage in comparison to a holder of a German PhD. International experience is usually considered a big plus. The examples provided by [aeismail](https://academia.stackexchange.com/a/16377) and [Nate Eldredge](https://academia.stackexchange.com/a/16376) are completely opposed to every personal experience I’ve ever had. | To address your last question: the international community is *not* as strict as Germany. Here in the US, there are no formal regulations on the use of the title. If you hold an earned doctorate from a reasonable university somewhere in the world, nobody is going to complain about your use of "Dr." or "Ph.D." or both. Even holders of honorary doctorates, or those from non-accredited universities, usually get away with it. On the other hand, we typically don't use those titles as universally as Germans do. |
16,373 | I am a German PhD student in South America and am worried about whether my PhD title will be accepted in Germany (as Dr.) and internationally in general.
If you successfully complete a PhD in the EU, you are allowed to carry the title "Dr.", as any PhD in Germany does.
I am working in a faculty with a professor with international experience, who, for research reasons, left a reasonably strong department in Europe for the position in South America, which is incidentally one of the strongest two departments in South America.
I am attending international conferences every now and then, have two papers published in international journals (one jointly, one alone) and two more papers in preparation.
For all I know, I can reasonably expect that my research performance (and eventually, my PhD thesis) is not below the European standard.
The default format for PhDs from a non-EU country is something like "Hans Wurst (Doutorado, Universidade de Ipanema)", which looks like I should just use my self-confidence instead and not mention that I did a PhD unless someone asks.
I don't know if it's off-topic, because this might just be "too localized", but of course I am wondering if it is possible to have my PhD accredited to use my PhD title in Germany like any "normal" PhD.
I'm also wondering, whether the international community is as strict as German law, or whether I should just call myself "Hans Wurst, PhD" on job applications, my professional webpage, etc. (where the place will be listed somewhere), and hope nobody tells me it should be "Hans Wurst (Doutorado, Universidade de Ipanema)" instead.
Did I make a mistake in my career planning in that the only title that is worth carrying (until full tenure, I guess) I can't carry without a large number of not-so-fancy accessories? | 2014/01/30 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/16373",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/11404/"
] | How your PhD is counted depends a lot on from which country you obtained it. Currently, degrees from Australia, Canada, Japan, Israel, and most doctoral-granting American universities are recognized as fully equivalent to "Dr." Beyond that, however, the PhD is listed as a PhD, so long as it's been granted by an institution accredited to give out doctoral degrees. (It has to be legitimately "earned.") You just would not technically be allowed to call yourself "Herr Dr. Hans Wurst"; you'd be "Herr Hans Wurst, Ph.D." (or whatever the formal name of your degree is).
Unfortunately, the classification of the degree *does* matter in Germany. Someone who holds a *Dr. rer. nat.* (sciences), for instance, will have a harder time getting a position in an engineering faculty than someone who holds a *Dr.-Ing.* (engineering). PhD's may or may not count as being equivalent to either degree, unless the specific regulations of the universities allow for this. (This can make a difference in setting up thesis committees, depending upon the regulations of the faculty in question. Yes, it's really annoying, but that's the way the system is set up.)
Fortunately, as Nate says in his answer, the rest of the world is nowhere near as strict as German law (even the modified version now in effect).
Also, you can apply to the [Zentralstelle für ausländisches Bildungswesen](http://www.kmk.org/zab.html) (Central Authority for Foreign Education) for recognition of a foreign-obtained degree as equivalent to the corresponding German degree. | >
> Did I make a mistake in my career planning in that the only title that is worth carrying (until full tenure, I guess) I can’t carry without a large number of not-so-fancy accessories?
>
>
>
No. You make the good old German mistake of thinking that ‘carrying’ the title has any relevance whatsoever. You will have the equivalent of a doctoral degree from a respectable university (presumably) backed with a reasonable publication record. This is what’s going to matter. Whether it will be called a doctorate or a PhD does not matter to any employer (that you would actually want to work for). Also, for practical purposes, the people that care about such things *will* be calling you Dr. Hans Wurst anyway, even if you technically have a slightly different title. It’s close enough.
>
> The default format for PhDs from a non-EU country is something like “Hans Wurst (Doutorado, Universidade de Ipanema)”, which looks like I should just use my self-confidence instead and not mention that I did a PhD unless someone asks.
>
>
>
I don’t quite understand. You don’t want to mention your PhD because of ... what exactly?
>
> I’m also wondering whether the international community is as strict as German law, or whether I should just call myself “Hans Wurst, PhD” on job applications, my professional webpage, etc. (where the place will be listed somewhere), and hope nobody tells me it should be “Hans Wurst (Doutorado, Universidade de Ipanema)” instead.
>
>
>
Practically, on anything but the most formal documents, I have seen people in similar situations call themselves anything out of: Dr. Hans Wurst; Hans Wurst, PhD; or Hans Wurst, PhD (Universidade de Ipanema). All of those mean essentially the same thing to the pragmatic observer.
Clarifications
--------------
First off, I am not German myself, but Austrian with strong ties to Germany (and Austria is *the place that Germans make fun of because we are presumably so fond of our academic titles*), so I do think I am able to comment on this issue.
Second, I think it is required to distinguish a few things which are somewhat mangled up in my above response as well as the questions:
### Will the OP formally be allowed to carry the title Dr. Hans Wurst?
No, not without going through nostrification, as indicated in other answers.
### Will people informally still refer to him as they would to the holder of a European PhD? (e.g., put a Dr. Hans Wurst on his door in the office?). Basically, would people in their day-to-day life consider the difference to be a technicality?
Yes, I am convinced that would be the case in most places. If non-EU people were treated as “not really doctors at all”, we would not have any foreign faculty or postdocs. In Vienna, while I did my postdoc there, we had people who had received PhDs from Austria, Germany, the US, and China, and they all were uniformly referred to as “Drs.” by peers and university administration alike. It may not be formally correct, but people are also not stupid (in general).
### Will it make a difference in his professional life?
Assuming the university is indeed excellent (I have personally never heard of it, but my knowledge of African universities is very limited), it should really not make a difference. I guess the main problem is that if the university is not very well-known, a hiring committee might not go through the trouble of actually finding out whether or not the university is good. However, at least in academic posts, I would not assume that the OP will have any disadvantage in comparison to a holder of a German PhD. International experience is usually considered a big plus. The examples provided by [aeismail](https://academia.stackexchange.com/a/16377) and [Nate Eldredge](https://academia.stackexchange.com/a/16376) are completely opposed to every personal experience I’ve ever had. |
16,373 | I am a German PhD student in South America and am worried about whether my PhD title will be accepted in Germany (as Dr.) and internationally in general.
If you successfully complete a PhD in the EU, you are allowed to carry the title "Dr.", as any PhD in Germany does.
I am working in a faculty with a professor with international experience, who, for research reasons, left a reasonably strong department in Europe for the position in South America, which is incidentally one of the strongest two departments in South America.
I am attending international conferences every now and then, have two papers published in international journals (one jointly, one alone) and two more papers in preparation.
For all I know, I can reasonably expect that my research performance (and eventually, my PhD thesis) is not below the European standard.
The default format for PhDs from a non-EU country is something like "Hans Wurst (Doutorado, Universidade de Ipanema)", which looks like I should just use my self-confidence instead and not mention that I did a PhD unless someone asks.
I don't know if it's off-topic, because this might just be "too localized", but of course I am wondering if it is possible to have my PhD accredited to use my PhD title in Germany like any "normal" PhD.
I'm also wondering, whether the international community is as strict as German law, or whether I should just call myself "Hans Wurst, PhD" on job applications, my professional webpage, etc. (where the place will be listed somewhere), and hope nobody tells me it should be "Hans Wurst (Doutorado, Universidade de Ipanema)" instead.
Did I make a mistake in my career planning in that the only title that is worth carrying (until full tenure, I guess) I can't carry without a large number of not-so-fancy accessories? | 2014/01/30 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/16373",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/11404/"
] | How your PhD is counted depends a lot on from which country you obtained it. Currently, degrees from Australia, Canada, Japan, Israel, and most doctoral-granting American universities are recognized as fully equivalent to "Dr." Beyond that, however, the PhD is listed as a PhD, so long as it's been granted by an institution accredited to give out doctoral degrees. (It has to be legitimately "earned.") You just would not technically be allowed to call yourself "Herr Dr. Hans Wurst"; you'd be "Herr Hans Wurst, Ph.D." (or whatever the formal name of your degree is).
Unfortunately, the classification of the degree *does* matter in Germany. Someone who holds a *Dr. rer. nat.* (sciences), for instance, will have a harder time getting a position in an engineering faculty than someone who holds a *Dr.-Ing.* (engineering). PhD's may or may not count as being equivalent to either degree, unless the specific regulations of the universities allow for this. (This can make a difference in setting up thesis committees, depending upon the regulations of the faculty in question. Yes, it's really annoying, but that's the way the system is set up.)
Fortunately, as Nate says in his answer, the rest of the world is nowhere near as strict as German law (even the modified version now in effect).
Also, you can apply to the [Zentralstelle für ausländisches Bildungswesen](http://www.kmk.org/zab.html) (Central Authority for Foreign Education) for recognition of a foreign-obtained degree as equivalent to the corresponding German degree. | To address your last question: the international community is *not* as strict as Germany. Here in the US, there are no formal regulations on the use of the title. If you hold an earned doctorate from a reasonable university somewhere in the world, nobody is going to complain about your use of "Dr." or "Ph.D." or both. Even holders of honorary doctorates, or those from non-accredited universities, usually get away with it. On the other hand, we typically don't use those titles as universally as Germans do. |
153,917 | I'm new to Drupal and want to create a sort option (to sort some Forum topics) so that a user can select any topic and apply it.
Here is an image to better illustrate this:
How to make such sort option? | 2015/04/04 | [
"https://drupal.stackexchange.com/questions/153917",
"https://drupal.stackexchange.com",
"https://drupal.stackexchange.com/users/45900/"
] | It's really up to you what you want to do but the way I see it, if a user goes to a random non-existing path on your site they will get a 404 error, so if the rabbit hole page is a page the user should never be able to get to then it should also be a 404 error because as far as that user is concerned it is not a valid page.
Now if you redirect all 404 errors to your home page or search page or something then these pages should have the same behavior.
If the page is something that anonymous users cannot see but a paying member can (or some similar scenario), then it may make more sense to set rabbit hole to a 403 error, because it is a page that they can't currently see but could see if they log in. | Usually I would recommend a 301 redirect – if the contennt really has moved to a new location. But in this case, redirecting from various pages to the front page, a 301 would **not** be recommendable – at least **from a SEO point of view**. When a search engine reads a 301, it interpretes it as "*this content has move permanently to a new location*". But in your case that's not the case – and so I would fear that a 301 could actually fire back. The pages you basically just wanted to hide from the user will probably disappear from the search indexes one by one.
Instead I personally would probably use javascript for forwarding users to the front page. The user experience is close to a 301 redirect – but for search engines javascript is mostly not functional so that the pages you just wanted to **hide from users** can actually **stay in the search indexes**.
I haven't tried the rabbit hole module myself – but since it seems to be able to have search engines crawl, while users are redirected, at least it sounds worth trying.
ps: just saw your comment on the accepted answer: "those pages are simply not supposed to exist". Well – then it's *probably / almost* all the same. |
91,793 | What is the standard practice if I can no longer find students that contributed to a paper that we would like to publish now? The students contributed data, but obviously had nothing to do with writing the paper. Still, I feel that they deserve authorship. I can no longer find a current email address for them. Should I put them only in the acknowledgements section? | 2017/07/06 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/91793",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/75693/"
] | This is a tricky one! Since some venues may require each author to sign over copyright, it complicates matters above and beyond the ethical question of what is right.
If you feel they deserve authorship, you should IMHO make a good faith effort to find them (web search, ask the university for contact info, etc). But in the end, if you can't find someone and they contributed data but not writing the paper, I see no way you can include them as an author. An acknowledgment would be appropriate. | The next answer assumes that the policy of the venue is silent about such situations (otherwise you simply follow the written guidelines). Moreover, let's assume that you failed to find the students or their representatives in reasonable time (otherwise contact these people and proceed from there). To find the people, you might consider asking the officials (administration, government, police, ...), though it might take more time and money than you originally expected. System administrators and secretaries may know more than they are allowed to say in public. Assuming all that fails:
**If the students deserve the authorship, put them as authors, otherwise don't.**
Of course, "deserve" is vague and open to interpretation, but this is a somewhat separate question. Naturally, most coauthors also co-write the paper. Still, a proof of a mathematical conjecture on a sheet of paper during lunchtime may be a substantial contribution deserving the (co)authorship, even if the coauthor does no paper writing. Similarly, the data your students contributed may be of great value or not. The value in the context counts, and there cannot be a general reply on that.
Next, you have to satisfy the formal requirements of a submission system. Inform the program chair (for conferences) or the main editor (for journals) of the situation and of your best efforts to contact the students. If you don't get an answer by the submission deadline but still have to enter the lost-coauthors' e-mail addresses into some form, use their old e-mails or, if that is not possible, reuse your own e-mail address or (at worst) create dummy e-mail boxes for the purpose of submission. State that you submit on the behalf of the coauthors and inform the chair/editor why you are doing so.
(Once, I even had to temporarily add and then remove a new, dummy coauthor like Jane Doe to one of my papers because of certain technical limitations [which are unrelated here]. Upon informing the PC chair, it was not an issue.)
Note: regardless of whether you make the students the coauthors or not, the act of submission might involve risks. (See the comments.) |
91,793 | What is the standard practice if I can no longer find students that contributed to a paper that we would like to publish now? The students contributed data, but obviously had nothing to do with writing the paper. Still, I feel that they deserve authorship. I can no longer find a current email address for them. Should I put them only in the acknowledgements section? | 2017/07/06 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/91793",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/75693/"
] | This is a tricky one! Since some venues may require each author to sign over copyright, it complicates matters above and beyond the ethical question of what is right.
If you feel they deserve authorship, you should IMHO make a good faith effort to find them (web search, ask the university for contact info, etc). But in the end, if you can't find someone and they contributed data but not writing the paper, I see no way you can include them as an author. An acknowledgment would be appropriate. | This is a difficult one, but I think in the end you have no choice but to put them in the acknowledgements if you cannot contact them, with an appropriate note regarding the level of their contributions. **You should do your best to find them** (social media? Contact other past students? Google?), but sometimes this might not be possible.
**It is assumed that any author on a paper has given their consent to have their name attached to that particular piece of work.** In your situation, the student(s) have not had this opportunity. I would be (rightly) upset if I found that someone had given me authorship on a paper without my consent. It would probably stop me doing any work with this person in future, and if I didn't like the published manuscript it would also involve a letter to the journal editor explaining the situation.
Even worse (I'm not suggesting this is the situation in your case), if the paper is of dubious quality, it may even hurt the student(s) in their future academic life to have their name attached to that paper.
Finally, I think most journals will have you sign off that each author has given their approval to the final manuscript. **Are you happy lying about this? If this is discovered, prepare to face retraction of the paper.**
I think it's a sign of a good supervisor that you value their contribution enough to want to give them authorship, even though you cannot contact them about it. It's just a shame that the rules of authorship preclude this.
Good luck with the paper! |
91,793 | What is the standard practice if I can no longer find students that contributed to a paper that we would like to publish now? The students contributed data, but obviously had nothing to do with writing the paper. Still, I feel that they deserve authorship. I can no longer find a current email address for them. Should I put them only in the acknowledgements section? | 2017/07/06 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/91793",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/75693/"
] | The next answer assumes that the policy of the venue is silent about such situations (otherwise you simply follow the written guidelines). Moreover, let's assume that you failed to find the students or their representatives in reasonable time (otherwise contact these people and proceed from there). To find the people, you might consider asking the officials (administration, government, police, ...), though it might take more time and money than you originally expected. System administrators and secretaries may know more than they are allowed to say in public. Assuming all that fails:
**If the students deserve the authorship, put them as authors, otherwise don't.**
Of course, "deserve" is vague and open to interpretation, but this is a somewhat separate question. Naturally, most coauthors also co-write the paper. Still, a proof of a mathematical conjecture on a sheet of paper during lunchtime may be a substantial contribution deserving the (co)authorship, even if the coauthor does no paper writing. Similarly, the data your students contributed may be of great value or not. The value in the context counts, and there cannot be a general reply on that.
Next, you have to satisfy the formal requirements of a submission system. Inform the program chair (for conferences) or the main editor (for journals) of the situation and of your best efforts to contact the students. If you don't get an answer by the submission deadline but still have to enter the lost-coauthors' e-mail addresses into some form, use their old e-mails or, if that is not possible, reuse your own e-mail address or (at worst) create dummy e-mail boxes for the purpose of submission. State that you submit on the behalf of the coauthors and inform the chair/editor why you are doing so.
(Once, I even had to temporarily add and then remove a new, dummy coauthor like Jane Doe to one of my papers because of certain technical limitations [which are unrelated here]. Upon informing the PC chair, it was not an issue.)
Note: regardless of whether you make the students the coauthors or not, the act of submission might involve risks. (See the comments.) | This is a difficult one, but I think in the end you have no choice but to put them in the acknowledgements if you cannot contact them, with an appropriate note regarding the level of their contributions. **You should do your best to find them** (social media? Contact other past students? Google?), but sometimes this might not be possible.
**It is assumed that any author on a paper has given their consent to have their name attached to that particular piece of work.** In your situation, the student(s) have not had this opportunity. I would be (rightly) upset if I found that someone had given me authorship on a paper without my consent. It would probably stop me doing any work with this person in future, and if I didn't like the published manuscript it would also involve a letter to the journal editor explaining the situation.
Even worse (I'm not suggesting this is the situation in your case), if the paper is of dubious quality, it may even hurt the student(s) in their future academic life to have their name attached to that paper.
Finally, I think most journals will have you sign off that each author has given their approval to the final manuscript. **Are you happy lying about this? If this is discovered, prepare to face retraction of the paper.**
I think it's a sign of a good supervisor that you value their contribution enough to want to give them authorship, even though you cannot contact them about it. It's just a shame that the rules of authorship preclude this.
Good luck with the paper! |
1,331 | Is there a way to create custom delegate control in sub-sites without having to restart the IIS server?
I have full admin/SharePoint designer access to the sub-site, just not the IIS installation.
Also Is there a way to obtain the parent site WSDL asmx without having access to the parent SharePoint site, but having full control of the current sub-site?
I never see the option for the Style Library or the \_layouts/\_vti\_bin folders to be created.
Can anyone shed some light on these items and how they can be obtained/copied to the parent folder without having access to the parent folder? | 2010/02/01 | [
"https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com/questions/1331",
"https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com",
"https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com/users/234/"
] | Working with delegate controls is just one of the main developer changes which requires an IISReset or recycling the app pool for the current site unfortunately. This is because SharePoint agressively caches a great deal of "infrequently changing" data for performance.
Sorry, can't help on your other question. | i havent tested this, but as long as your delegate control is placed in partially trusted location (bin) and not global assembly cache (GAC) i cant see why it shouldnt work without an IISRESET. But i would have to test it to be sure. EDIT: ok chris piped in with his answer while i was writing this. He sounds kind of convincing, so he might have a point :-)
The web services can always be reached through the /\_VTI\_BIN/ virtual directory from any subsite since its a vdir on the virtual web on IIS |
1,331 | Is there a way to create custom delegate control in sub-sites without having to restart the IIS server?
I have full admin/SharePoint designer access to the sub-site, just not the IIS installation.
Also Is there a way to obtain the parent site WSDL asmx without having access to the parent SharePoint site, but having full control of the current sub-site?
I never see the option for the Style Library or the \_layouts/\_vti\_bin folders to be created.
Can anyone shed some light on these items and how they can be obtained/copied to the parent folder without having access to the parent folder? | 2010/02/01 | [
"https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com/questions/1331",
"https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com",
"https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com/users/234/"
] | Working with delegate controls is just one of the main developer changes which requires an IISReset or recycling the app pool for the current site unfortunately. This is because SharePoint agressively caches a great deal of "infrequently changing" data for performance.
Sorry, can't help on your other question. | I think I have seen scenarios where there is no need to iisreset/recycle app pool with delegate controls.
Perhaps it matters whether it's an assembly based control vs ascx based control or as Anders mentioned, whether it's in the GAC vs the bin. |
1,331 | Is there a way to create custom delegate control in sub-sites without having to restart the IIS server?
I have full admin/SharePoint designer access to the sub-site, just not the IIS installation.
Also Is there a way to obtain the parent site WSDL asmx without having access to the parent SharePoint site, but having full control of the current sub-site?
I never see the option for the Style Library or the \_layouts/\_vti\_bin folders to be created.
Can anyone shed some light on these items and how they can be obtained/copied to the parent folder without having access to the parent folder? | 2010/02/01 | [
"https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com/questions/1331",
"https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com",
"https://sharepoint.stackexchange.com/users/234/"
] | i havent tested this, but as long as your delegate control is placed in partially trusted location (bin) and not global assembly cache (GAC) i cant see why it shouldnt work without an IISRESET. But i would have to test it to be sure. EDIT: ok chris piped in with his answer while i was writing this. He sounds kind of convincing, so he might have a point :-)
The web services can always be reached through the /\_VTI\_BIN/ virtual directory from any subsite since its a vdir on the virtual web on IIS | I think I have seen scenarios where there is no need to iisreset/recycle app pool with delegate controls.
Perhaps it matters whether it's an assembly based control vs ascx based control or as Anders mentioned, whether it's in the GAC vs the bin. |
89,094 | My wife and I rent a duplex in an old neighborhood of Honolulu, HI. We have talked about mounting our 55" XBR-55X810C Sony 4K TV since we bought it, and yesterday we bought a mount on a whim. It's a Stanley tilting mount for 32" up to 70" TV's up to 90 pounds in weight. The XBR-55X810C specs say it's 38.2 pounds. Here is a link to the mount: <http://www.stanleymounts.com/tlr-es2215t-product-page.html>
But unfortunately, everything made sense after a wasted trip to the HW store to buy a $15.99 stud finder, and that was, the walls are thin pieces of wood paneling without studs the tilting mount instructions call for. Umm, probably should have added that up when we realized the electrical sockets throughout most of the electrical outlets are facing sideways on the baseboards, and the light switches have electrical running on the outside of the wall into the ceiling (pictures attached).
The wall is located between our LR and MBR; and there is no view to see what's inside, checked the breaker and ground, but there is a ceiling crawl space in the bathroom I can can look.
To measure the thickness I measured the inside of the door jam (3 4/16"), and subtracted the measurement of each outside edge of the jam to the wood paneling to the wood paneling on both sides, subtracting the outside doorjam overhang on each side and taking it away from the initial measure (inside measurement - (1 11/16" + 12/16") 2 7/16" = 13/16" of thickness, in total, for both sides of the wood paneling which is surprisingly sturdy and holds sound quite well.
I searched the DIY site before typing this all out and couldn't find the exact scenario, so I am hoping that a few kind users could offer me advice on how I could make this mount work, given the layout of the room, having no other mounting options (except for maybe a floor standing mount).
So if there is a reasonable way for a DIY novice like myself to safely install the TV with minimal damage to the wall, then I am all ears and would be so appreciative.
The wall plate hardware includes are 4 lag bolts with washers, and concrete anchors. The directions say to drill 3 inch pilot holes into studs which have no less than a total depth of 3 1/2 inch, with a 3/16" bit.
Pictures are attached. LMK if you need anymore info to help.
 | 2016/04/21 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/89094",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/52954/"
] | It sounds like you have solid 13/16" thick plywood for a wall. If that is the case, I'd drill holes matching holes in the mount all the way through, get four metal bolts, four matching nuts and eight washers, and hang the mount on the wall, securing with nuts from the opposite side of the wall and using threadlocker on bolt threads. You would have nuts permanently visible on the back side but the construction should be more than sturdy enough to hold a 40 lb TV.
If you don't have solid plywood but something else (I doubt that there's enough room for anything else but who knows?), that's a different story. You should find out as soon as you drill the first hole. | Since you posted the picture, I can see that the wall is actually normal, and there most-likely *are* studs in it. The stud finder may be having difficulty finding the studs through the panelling; it takes some skill to use a stud finder, especially with panelling, more especially if the panelling is thick (like 3/4"). But (based on the picture) you appear to have just 1/4" panneling. If you don't have any nails in the panelling (they may be tiny, finishing nails, so look hard- but if not the panels are glued on), I would recommend using the stud finder again to try to and find where the studs approximately are. Set the finder against the wall, press the button wait a second and then just to keep sweeping it back and forth slowly. If the stud finder just wont work, then use knocking to locate the dense (stud) and hollow (no stud) sounding areas.
Your studs will either be 16 or 24 inches apart. From the oustide wall, measure 15 1/4 or 23 and 1/4 inches plus the thickness of the panel material (pretty sure they are 1/4") to find the exact center of where your first stud should be. The rest of the studs should be exactly 16 or 24 inches apart from the first stud.
I would not recommend hanging anything as heavy as a TV from 1/4" panelling.
edit- the picture is gone again. |
365,476 | I'm trying to install the latest beta on my MacBook and always get the message at the end:
>
> macOS Catalina beta could not be verified
>
>
>
Any suggestions how to solve this? | 2019/07/27 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/365476",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/86225/"
] | I just retied and it worked out of the box.
Don't know what the error was, I did not change nothing. | Are you scripting your download:
* [Is there a script I can use to download the Mojave installer without being signed in to the App Store?](https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/337450/is-there-a-script-i-can-use-to-download-the-mojave-installer-without-being-signe)
That can help isolate things in my experience. |
365,476 | I'm trying to install the latest beta on my MacBook and always get the message at the end:
>
> macOS Catalina beta could not be verified
>
>
>
Any suggestions how to solve this? | 2019/07/27 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/365476",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/86225/"
] | I just retied and it worked out of the box.
Don't know what the error was, I did not change nothing. | change Date&Time to “Apple Americas / U.S. .....” |
16,416,787 | I am experimenting a lot these days, and one of the things I wanted to do is combine two popular NoSQL databases, namely Neo4j and MongoDB. Simply because I feel they complement eachother perfectly. The first class citizens in Neo4j, the relations, are imo exactly what's missing in MongoDB, whereas MongoDb allows me to not put large amounts of data in my node properties.
So I am trying to combine the two in a Java application, using the Neo4j Java REST binding, and the MongoDB Java driver. All my domain entities have a unique identifier which I store in both databases. The other data is stored in MongoDB and the relations between entities are stored in Neo4J. For instance, both databases contain a userid, MongoDB contains the profile information, and Neo4J contains friendship relations. With the custom data access layer I have written, this works exactly like I want it to. And it's fast.
BUT... When I want to create a user, I need to create both a node in Neo4j and a document in MongoDB. Not necessarily a problem, except that Neo4j is transactional and MongoDB is not. If both were transactional, I would just roll back both transactions when one of them fails. But since MongoDB isn't transactional, I cannot do this.
How do I ensure that whenever I create a user, either both a Node and Document are created, or none of both. I don't want to end up with a bunch of documents that have no matching node.
On top of that, not only do I want my combined database interaction to be ACID compliant, I also want it to be threadsafe. Both the GraphDatabaseService and the MongoClient / DB are provided from singletons.
I found something about creating "Transaction Documents" in MongoDB, but I realy don't like that approach. I would like something nice and clean like the neo4j beginTx, tx.success, tx.failure, tx.finish setup. Ideally, something I can implement in the same try/catch/finally block.
Should I perhaps make a switch to CouchDB, which does appear to be transactional?
**Edit :** After some more research, sparked by a comment, I came to realize that CouchDB is also not suitable for my specific needs. To clarify, the Neo4j part is set in stone. The Document Store database is not as long as it has a Java Library. | 2013/05/07 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/16416787",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1758916/"
] | Pieter-Jan,
if you are able to use Neo4j 2.0 you can implement a Schema-Index-Provider (which is really easy) that creates your documents transactionally in MongoDB.
As Neo4j makes its index providers transactional (since the beginning), we did that with Lucene and there is one for Redis too (needs to be updated). But it is much easier with Neo4j 2.0, if you want to you can check out my implementation for MapDB. (<https://github.com/jexp/neo4j-mapdb-index>) | Although I'm a huge fan of both technologies, I think a better option for you could be [OrientDB](http://www.orientdb.org/). It's a graph (as Neo4) and document (as MongoDB) database in one and supports ACID transactions. Sounds like a perfect match for your needs. |
16,416,787 | I am experimenting a lot these days, and one of the things I wanted to do is combine two popular NoSQL databases, namely Neo4j and MongoDB. Simply because I feel they complement eachother perfectly. The first class citizens in Neo4j, the relations, are imo exactly what's missing in MongoDB, whereas MongoDb allows me to not put large amounts of data in my node properties.
So I am trying to combine the two in a Java application, using the Neo4j Java REST binding, and the MongoDB Java driver. All my domain entities have a unique identifier which I store in both databases. The other data is stored in MongoDB and the relations between entities are stored in Neo4J. For instance, both databases contain a userid, MongoDB contains the profile information, and Neo4J contains friendship relations. With the custom data access layer I have written, this works exactly like I want it to. And it's fast.
BUT... When I want to create a user, I need to create both a node in Neo4j and a document in MongoDB. Not necessarily a problem, except that Neo4j is transactional and MongoDB is not. If both were transactional, I would just roll back both transactions when one of them fails. But since MongoDB isn't transactional, I cannot do this.
How do I ensure that whenever I create a user, either both a Node and Document are created, or none of both. I don't want to end up with a bunch of documents that have no matching node.
On top of that, not only do I want my combined database interaction to be ACID compliant, I also want it to be threadsafe. Both the GraphDatabaseService and the MongoClient / DB are provided from singletons.
I found something about creating "Transaction Documents" in MongoDB, but I realy don't like that approach. I would like something nice and clean like the neo4j beginTx, tx.success, tx.failure, tx.finish setup. Ideally, something I can implement in the same try/catch/finally block.
Should I perhaps make a switch to CouchDB, which does appear to be transactional?
**Edit :** After some more research, sparked by a comment, I came to realize that CouchDB is also not suitable for my specific needs. To clarify, the Neo4j part is set in stone. The Document Store database is not as long as it has a Java Library. | 2013/05/07 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/16416787",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1758916/"
] | Although I'm a huge fan of both technologies, I think a better option for you could be [OrientDB](http://www.orientdb.org/). It's a graph (as Neo4) and document (as MongoDB) database in one and supports ACID transactions. Sounds like a perfect match for your needs. | As posted here <https://stackoverflow.com/questions/23465663/what-is-the-best-practice-to-combine-neo4j-and-mongodb?lq=1>, you might have a look on Structr.
Its backend can be regarded as a Document database around Neo4j. It's fully transactional and open-source. |
16,416,787 | I am experimenting a lot these days, and one of the things I wanted to do is combine two popular NoSQL databases, namely Neo4j and MongoDB. Simply because I feel they complement eachother perfectly. The first class citizens in Neo4j, the relations, are imo exactly what's missing in MongoDB, whereas MongoDb allows me to not put large amounts of data in my node properties.
So I am trying to combine the two in a Java application, using the Neo4j Java REST binding, and the MongoDB Java driver. All my domain entities have a unique identifier which I store in both databases. The other data is stored in MongoDB and the relations between entities are stored in Neo4J. For instance, both databases contain a userid, MongoDB contains the profile information, and Neo4J contains friendship relations. With the custom data access layer I have written, this works exactly like I want it to. And it's fast.
BUT... When I want to create a user, I need to create both a node in Neo4j and a document in MongoDB. Not necessarily a problem, except that Neo4j is transactional and MongoDB is not. If both were transactional, I would just roll back both transactions when one of them fails. But since MongoDB isn't transactional, I cannot do this.
How do I ensure that whenever I create a user, either both a Node and Document are created, or none of both. I don't want to end up with a bunch of documents that have no matching node.
On top of that, not only do I want my combined database interaction to be ACID compliant, I also want it to be threadsafe. Both the GraphDatabaseService and the MongoClient / DB are provided from singletons.
I found something about creating "Transaction Documents" in MongoDB, but I realy don't like that approach. I would like something nice and clean like the neo4j beginTx, tx.success, tx.failure, tx.finish setup. Ideally, something I can implement in the same try/catch/finally block.
Should I perhaps make a switch to CouchDB, which does appear to be transactional?
**Edit :** After some more research, sparked by a comment, I came to realize that CouchDB is also not suitable for my specific needs. To clarify, the Neo4j part is set in stone. The Document Store database is not as long as it has a Java Library. | 2013/05/07 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/16416787",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1758916/"
] | Pieter-Jan,
if you are able to use Neo4j 2.0 you can implement a Schema-Index-Provider (which is really easy) that creates your documents transactionally in MongoDB.
As Neo4j makes its index providers transactional (since the beginning), we did that with Lucene and there is one for Redis too (needs to be updated). But it is much easier with Neo4j 2.0, if you want to you can check out my implementation for MapDB. (<https://github.com/jexp/neo4j-mapdb-index>) | As posted here <https://stackoverflow.com/questions/23465663/what-is-the-best-practice-to-combine-neo4j-and-mongodb?lq=1>, you might have a look on Structr.
Its backend can be regarded as a Document database around Neo4j. It's fully transactional and open-source. |
221,952 | [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/GdZn6.png)
I applied transparent because I wanted the roof to be transparent.
But even the shadows fade.
I want the roof shadow to be the same as the column shadow. | 2021/05/09 | [
"https://blender.stackexchange.com/questions/221952",
"https://blender.stackexchange.com",
"https://blender.stackexchange.com/users/89466/"
] | To make the roof transparent (or semi-transparent as you have it) but opaque in the shadows you can use the *Ray Depth* output of the *Light Path* node.
But, this gives you a value of 0 or 1 which in your case means your roof will be completely invisible but have a shadow, because for the camera the *Mix Shader* is using a factor of 0 (fully transparent) and for the shadow 1, so the *Toon BSDF* is only used to create the shadow.
So in order to keep it semi-transparent when the *Ray Depth* is 0, you can take a *Math* node to add the desired mix factor to this result, for example 0.6 as you are using here. Then to the camera the *Mix Shader* is set to 0.6 (semi-transparent) and 1.6 for the shadow (a value larger 1 is fully opaque). To avoid out-of-range values you could enable *Clamp* in the *Math* node but it's not necessary in this case.
My example (I just used a simple *Diffuse* instead of *Toon*):
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/klW39.jpg) | A full shadow from a glass roof is physically incorrect, but it can probably be done. There is a node with Boolean outputs on wether the ray is actually coming straight from the camera or not. I think it’s called Ray Info but I’m not sure. Might be Light Path. Try configurations with that. |
42,969 | Helicopters can autorotate back to earth in case of emergency. The FAA recommends a flight profile similar to the following procedure:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/jATGq.png)
Notice that in section (2) there is forward speed: vertical autorotation is not recommended. Why is that? | 2017/08/15 | [
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/42969",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/users/21091/"
] | There are three good reasons to avoid Vertical Autorotation.
First, Vertical Autorotation is way more likely to lead to a Vortex Ring condition where the air exiting the rotor disk gets recirculated back through the rotor disk. The recirculated air in the Vortex Ring then limits the amount of airflow/energy available for conversion to Rotor Disk rotational velocity which is critical to successfully completing that part of the Auto Rotation maneuver essential to survival (the flare up to touchdown).
Second, the forward velocity increases the amount of energy available for conversion to rotor disk speed.
Third, forward velocity allows landing shock to be shared between different harnesses and seat shock absorbers thus decreasing the load on any particular axis. | Rotor rpm control is by collective. No vortex ring in autorotation..since Air is flowing in wrong direction. Vertical autorotation is possible but risky since limited excess energy, greater energy with airspeed ,so you have more energy for the flare, allows margins for errors during flares. and you can pick your landing area fly to it and obviously see it in advance .. |
42,969 | Helicopters can autorotate back to earth in case of emergency. The FAA recommends a flight profile similar to the following procedure:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/jATGq.png)
Notice that in section (2) there is forward speed: vertical autorotation is not recommended. Why is that? | 2017/08/15 | [
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/42969",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/users/21091/"
] | You have to consider the power required by the helicopter in flight, represented by the red curve in the graph.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/jQQlj.png)
The blue line is the power provided by the rotor in autorotation. As you can see at zero airspeed the power requiered is much bigger than at 50, 60 or 70 kts. Therefore, you power deficit will be also much bigger at zero airspeed, resulting in an increased rate of descent.
Another advantage given by speed is the ability to flare (steps 3-4 in the flight profile recommended by FAA). During the flare you use the kinetic energy provided by forward speed to reduce your descent. With zero airspeed you completely lose this posibility, the only chance of reducing rate of descent remaining will be increasing the collective (and most likely it will not be enough to prevent a very hard landing).
A third reason would be that for the pilot it's easier to judge height above the ground if there is some forward speed, and also the helicopter is more stable directionally.
Bottom line, the preferred airspeed range for autorotation is the one shaded green in the graph, between minimum-power-speed and best-range-speed. There are situations where the yellow range is used (confined area, some procedures for night autorotation), but this area doesn't extend below 30 kts, anyway. | There are many wrong answers in this thread but I want to address one that any rated helicopter pilot should be able to answer (which judging by the answers in this thread may be not as true as I’m hoping) and that is:
YOU CANNOT GET VORTEX RING STATE IN AN AUTOROTATION
The three things you need for VRS or “Settling with Power” (FAA definition) are:
* Rate of descent greater than 300fpm
* Speed less than ETL
* POWER APPLIED
Obviously if the engine has quit you cannot have power applied.
That being said, you do still have energy stored in the helicopter in the form of potential energy (in altitude above ground level) and kinetic energy (in the helicopters airspeed). Kinetic energy increases exponentially with airspeed i.e. if you double your airspeed (ex. 30 to 60 kts) you triple the amount of kinetic energy you can use to maintain your rotor RPM in the flare (that you will need a lot of to arrest the rate of descent and forward airspeed prior to touching down)
If you have no airspeed you have a higher rate of descent in the auto and less energy to arrest that rate of descent with prior to landing.
Answers to these questions and more can be found in the Helicopter Flying Handbook which is free to download from the FAA website!
-FAA RW Commercial Pilot and CFI-I |
42,969 | Helicopters can autorotate back to earth in case of emergency. The FAA recommends a flight profile similar to the following procedure:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/jATGq.png)
Notice that in section (2) there is forward speed: vertical autorotation is not recommended. Why is that? | 2017/08/15 | [
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/42969",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/users/21091/"
] | During autorotation, forward speed is used to control rotor head speed. In auto, the engine is disconnected (in the case of tail rotor failure) or just plain dead, so it can't be used to control rotor speed.
In a vertical descent, the rotor head will eventually overspeed from the air rushing past the blades, and the rotor blades will depart from the aircraft. Not good.
The air hitting the blades from forward flight is used to induce drag on the rotor blades, slowing them down. The faster the helicopter moves forward, the greater the drag.
So the pilot, in auto, uses forward airspeed to control rotor speed. If the rotor head speed builds up too much, nose down a bit to gain airspeed and slow the rotor down. If the rotor head starts slowing down, then back off the forward velocity to let the rotor head pick up speed.
Forward flight also aids in maneuvering the helicopter when choosing a touchdown point, but mainly, it is used to keep the rotor speed in the green.
Every helicopter has an ideal autorotation forward flight velocity, that should keep rotor head speed in the green. In a Bell JetRanger, it's around 60 kts I believe, though this is a general guideline, not an absolute.
Theoretically, one could increase blade pitch to an overspending head to slow it down, but forward flight is a more precise way of doing this, and avoids the risk of inadvertently slowing the head down too much. | Rotor rpm control is by collective. No vortex ring in autorotation..since Air is flowing in wrong direction. Vertical autorotation is possible but risky since limited excess energy, greater energy with airspeed ,so you have more energy for the flare, allows margins for errors during flares. and you can pick your landing area fly to it and obviously see it in advance .. |
42,969 | Helicopters can autorotate back to earth in case of emergency. The FAA recommends a flight profile similar to the following procedure:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/jATGq.png)
Notice that in section (2) there is forward speed: vertical autorotation is not recommended. Why is that? | 2017/08/15 | [
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/42969",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/users/21091/"
] | During autorotation, forward speed is used to control rotor head speed. In auto, the engine is disconnected (in the case of tail rotor failure) or just plain dead, so it can't be used to control rotor speed.
In a vertical descent, the rotor head will eventually overspeed from the air rushing past the blades, and the rotor blades will depart from the aircraft. Not good.
The air hitting the blades from forward flight is used to induce drag on the rotor blades, slowing them down. The faster the helicopter moves forward, the greater the drag.
So the pilot, in auto, uses forward airspeed to control rotor speed. If the rotor head speed builds up too much, nose down a bit to gain airspeed and slow the rotor down. If the rotor head starts slowing down, then back off the forward velocity to let the rotor head pick up speed.
Forward flight also aids in maneuvering the helicopter when choosing a touchdown point, but mainly, it is used to keep the rotor speed in the green.
Every helicopter has an ideal autorotation forward flight velocity, that should keep rotor head speed in the green. In a Bell JetRanger, it's around 60 kts I believe, though this is a general guideline, not an absolute.
Theoretically, one could increase blade pitch to an overspending head to slow it down, but forward flight is a more precise way of doing this, and avoids the risk of inadvertently slowing the head down too much. | There are many wrong answers in this thread but I want to address one that any rated helicopter pilot should be able to answer (which judging by the answers in this thread may be not as true as I’m hoping) and that is:
YOU CANNOT GET VORTEX RING STATE IN AN AUTOROTATION
The three things you need for VRS or “Settling with Power” (FAA definition) are:
* Rate of descent greater than 300fpm
* Speed less than ETL
* POWER APPLIED
Obviously if the engine has quit you cannot have power applied.
That being said, you do still have energy stored in the helicopter in the form of potential energy (in altitude above ground level) and kinetic energy (in the helicopters airspeed). Kinetic energy increases exponentially with airspeed i.e. if you double your airspeed (ex. 30 to 60 kts) you triple the amount of kinetic energy you can use to maintain your rotor RPM in the flare (that you will need a lot of to arrest the rate of descent and forward airspeed prior to touching down)
If you have no airspeed you have a higher rate of descent in the auto and less energy to arrest that rate of descent with prior to landing.
Answers to these questions and more can be found in the Helicopter Flying Handbook which is free to download from the FAA website!
-FAA RW Commercial Pilot and CFI-I |
42,969 | Helicopters can autorotate back to earth in case of emergency. The FAA recommends a flight profile similar to the following procedure:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/jATGq.png)
Notice that in section (2) there is forward speed: vertical autorotation is not recommended. Why is that? | 2017/08/15 | [
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/42969",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/users/21091/"
] | You have to consider the power required by the helicopter in flight, represented by the red curve in the graph.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/jQQlj.png)
The blue line is the power provided by the rotor in autorotation. As you can see at zero airspeed the power requiered is much bigger than at 50, 60 or 70 kts. Therefore, you power deficit will be also much bigger at zero airspeed, resulting in an increased rate of descent.
Another advantage given by speed is the ability to flare (steps 3-4 in the flight profile recommended by FAA). During the flare you use the kinetic energy provided by forward speed to reduce your descent. With zero airspeed you completely lose this posibility, the only chance of reducing rate of descent remaining will be increasing the collective (and most likely it will not be enough to prevent a very hard landing).
A third reason would be that for the pilot it's easier to judge height above the ground if there is some forward speed, and also the helicopter is more stable directionally.
Bottom line, the preferred airspeed range for autorotation is the one shaded green in the graph, between minimum-power-speed and best-range-speed. There are situations where the yellow range is used (confined area, some procedures for night autorotation), but this area doesn't extend below 30 kts, anyway. | Rotor rpm control is by collective. No vortex ring in autorotation..since Air is flowing in wrong direction. Vertical autorotation is possible but risky since limited excess energy, greater energy with airspeed ,so you have more energy for the flare, allows margins for errors during flares. and you can pick your landing area fly to it and obviously see it in advance .. |
9,300,323 | For some reasons I have to stick at Python 3.2. Unfortunately `wxPython` doesn't support python 3.
So which GUI framework should I choose? | 2012/02/15 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/9300323",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/967164/"
] | Depends on your requirements. If [TkInter](http://docs.python.org/py3k/library/tkinter.html) does the job, it will be the least hassle since it comes with Python. Otherwise, go for [PyQt](http://www.riverbankcomputing.co.uk/software/pyqt/intro). | You can also use GTK 3 through [PyGObject](https://live.gnome.org/PyGObject) ([turorial here](http://readthedocs.org/docs/python-gtk-3-tutorial/en/latest/index.html)). |
1,285 | Suppose there is a physical theory that predicts that the observable physical laws differ when applied to the observer himself rather than to the other people, for any given observer.
Would existence of such theory invalidate the applicability of scientific method?
I am referring to [a paper by Thomas Breuer](https://homepages.fhv.at/tb/cms/?download=tbDISS.pdf) where he has proven that an observer in quantum mechanics cannot measure certain parameters about himself or a system that includes himself, even if he can measure similar parameters of other people. This means his own wavefunction appears differently to him, a phenomenon which Breuer called "subjective decoherence".
So my question is whether this result disproves usefulness, credibility or validity of scientific method? | 2011/09/15 | [
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/questions/1285",
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com",
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/users/796/"
] | >
> So my question is whether this result disproves usefulness, credibility or validity of scientific method?
>
>
>
It would problematize the scientific method **only for those cases where results are not repeatable through controlled observation**.
Most (if not all) mysterious quantum effects disappear at the level of everyday objects, so the odds of these kinds of things actually causing a practical problem for science as it is routinely practiced are vanishingly small. | It is no problem at all: once you have discovered that you can't measure things, you ask other people to do the measurements for you. This happens *all the time*. Maybe you don't have the right camera, or you don't have a particle accelerator, or you use a CCD camera instead of your eye to capture some photons.
Also, those phenomena for which a human-sized observer is entangled with observables of other systems are extraordinarily limited, given how big human observers are. So this particular theoretical point is of no interest physically. |
1,285 | Suppose there is a physical theory that predicts that the observable physical laws differ when applied to the observer himself rather than to the other people, for any given observer.
Would existence of such theory invalidate the applicability of scientific method?
I am referring to [a paper by Thomas Breuer](https://homepages.fhv.at/tb/cms/?download=tbDISS.pdf) where he has proven that an observer in quantum mechanics cannot measure certain parameters about himself or a system that includes himself, even if he can measure similar parameters of other people. This means his own wavefunction appears differently to him, a phenomenon which Breuer called "subjective decoherence".
So my question is whether this result disproves usefulness, credibility or validity of scientific method? | 2011/09/15 | [
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/questions/1285",
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com",
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/users/796/"
] | >
> So my question is whether this result disproves usefulness, credibility or validity of scientific method?
>
>
>
It would problematize the scientific method **only for those cases where results are not repeatable through controlled observation**.
Most (if not all) mysterious quantum effects disappear at the level of everyday objects, so the odds of these kinds of things actually causing a practical problem for science as it is routinely practiced are vanishingly small. | >
> So my question is whether this result disproves usefulness, credibility or validity of scientific method?
>
>
>
At the worst, it only means that the scientific method is in some need of revision.
Understand that what we call the scientific method is, even at the present, in no way the provably-best method that we can use. Like eating, breathing, not tormenting prides of hungry lions, and logical argumentation, it is just one of an increasingly elaborate suite of "best practices" that we have settled upon for achieving certain objectives; in this case, being able to reliably predict or even control certain pieces of the universe about us.
If you want to be skeptical of the "validity" of the scientific method, you don't have to wait for an exotic experiment to come about to vindicate your doubts. But at the same time, the existence of an exotic experiment doesn't invalidate all of the past successes of the scientific process. What it would indicate — as with all scientific revolutions — is that *reality is more subtle than we previously thought*, and that our methodology is in some need of revision. It's not clear in advance what this revision would look like, but whatever the new methods are, there should **also** be a good explanation in retrospect — as was true with, for instance, Newtonian mechanics — why it worked so well for so long, if it was wrong. And we can expect that the answer will be that it *wasn't very wrong*, just *somewhat wrong*, and that the degree of wrongness only became apparent in newly discovered and somewhat exotic circumstances.
Science as it is practiced now may not be science as it is practiced a thousand years in the future: but we may regard it as being part of the same continuous tradition if it remains concerned with *somehow* going *very carefully and precisely about* finding out how the world works. It might be running up a blind alley a thousand years hence, or we might currently be doing so now; but science is not about being *right* (which we cannot verify), but by doing our methodical best to be *the least wrong that we can manage*. |
58,023 | I like to know what you guys think about using feedback as a verb. I've seen it a whole lot in writing and email communications. What would be other alternatives?
Your input is appreciated.
Thank you, | 2015/05/30 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/58023",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/18585/"
] | There are plenty of situations in which new verbs can be created in English. If a noun such as "feedback" is used as a verb enough times and it sounds ok to enough people then it will be accepted as a verb. The verb "to google" comes to mind. If it doesn't sound ok to anybody then it will be considered wrong. The noun "feedback" is relatively new in the English language and, for the time being, is usually used with the verb "give". Personally I would never say "please feedback me" I would say "please give me feedback" | Feedback is a verb phrase. If you want to change the verb's tense, number, *et cetera*, you should modify "feed" separately from "back". For example:
* Feedback loops occur when the output from a system is fed back into the system. |
58,023 | I like to know what you guys think about using feedback as a verb. I've seen it a whole lot in writing and email communications. What would be other alternatives?
Your input is appreciated.
Thank you, | 2015/05/30 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/58023",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/18585/"
] | There are plenty of situations in which new verbs can be created in English. If a noun such as "feedback" is used as a verb enough times and it sounds ok to enough people then it will be accepted as a verb. The verb "to google" comes to mind. If it doesn't sound ok to anybody then it will be considered wrong. The noun "feedback" is relatively new in the English language and, for the time being, is usually used with the verb "give". Personally I would never say "please feedback me" I would say "please give me feedback" | *Feed back* (or *feed-back*) is already a verb in English.
If someone wants to spell it as *feedback* and extend its usage to mean *to provide feedback*, that is fine, but it would only be an extension of an already existing verb.
Both *feedback* (also spelled *feed-back*) as a noun and as a (phrasal) verb exist from the early 1920s, first in the field of radio-telegraph technology. So "feed back" is already a verb in English. Whether *feed back*, *feed-back*, and/or *feedback* gains wider usage is unknown to me.
The *Oxford English Dictionary* (OED) provides the following.
>
> **to feed back** (Electronics and Cybernetics)
>
> (a) to return (a fraction of an output signal) to an input of the same or a preceding stage of the circuit, device, process, etc., that produced it. Also transferable. Chiefly in passive. (Cf. feedback *noun*)
>
>
> 1921 *Wireless World* 10 Dec. 571/2 The magnified oscillations are fed back again into the grid circuit.
>
>
>
There are other example sentences and they are all spelled *fed-back* or *fed back*, whether used in the passive or not. To me this looks like a phrasal verb.
>
> (b) In transferred sense also used intransitively. of a result or effect of a process: **to return as feedback**; to affect or modify the process that brought it about.
>
>
>
Here is only one example from the OED:
>
> 1966 *Rep. Comm. Inq. Univ. Oxf.* I. 56 There are also advances in social studies, at postgraduate level, that are likely to feed back into undergraduate work.
>
>
>
The verb already exists. To *feedback* in the sense of *provide feedback* to someone would just be an extension of its usage. |
58,023 | I like to know what you guys think about using feedback as a verb. I've seen it a whole lot in writing and email communications. What would be other alternatives?
Your input is appreciated.
Thank you, | 2015/05/30 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/58023",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/18585/"
] | *Feed back* (or *feed-back*) is already a verb in English.
If someone wants to spell it as *feedback* and extend its usage to mean *to provide feedback*, that is fine, but it would only be an extension of an already existing verb.
Both *feedback* (also spelled *feed-back*) as a noun and as a (phrasal) verb exist from the early 1920s, first in the field of radio-telegraph technology. So "feed back" is already a verb in English. Whether *feed back*, *feed-back*, and/or *feedback* gains wider usage is unknown to me.
The *Oxford English Dictionary* (OED) provides the following.
>
> **to feed back** (Electronics and Cybernetics)
>
> (a) to return (a fraction of an output signal) to an input of the same or a preceding stage of the circuit, device, process, etc., that produced it. Also transferable. Chiefly in passive. (Cf. feedback *noun*)
>
>
> 1921 *Wireless World* 10 Dec. 571/2 The magnified oscillations are fed back again into the grid circuit.
>
>
>
There are other example sentences and they are all spelled *fed-back* or *fed back*, whether used in the passive or not. To me this looks like a phrasal verb.
>
> (b) In transferred sense also used intransitively. of a result or effect of a process: **to return as feedback**; to affect or modify the process that brought it about.
>
>
>
Here is only one example from the OED:
>
> 1966 *Rep. Comm. Inq. Univ. Oxf.* I. 56 There are also advances in social studies, at postgraduate level, that are likely to feed back into undergraduate work.
>
>
>
The verb already exists. To *feedback* in the sense of *provide feedback* to someone would just be an extension of its usage. | Feedback is a verb phrase. If you want to change the verb's tense, number, *et cetera*, you should modify "feed" separately from "back". For example:
* Feedback loops occur when the output from a system is fed back into the system. |
37,108 | I've already seen this question: [Problems with a slipping seatpost](https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/8090/problems-with-a-slipping-seatpost)
The main difference is that I have an aluminium frameset and a forged alloy seatpost - lightweight clamp.
After every couple hundred miles on my commuter (particularly over rougher surfaces), I've found that the seatpost slides into the frame by about half an inch or so. After the second time I've noticed and readjusted it, I figured it might just be because I have a lightweight clamp. I over-tightened it past the recommended torque, but alas, it happened again. I then tightened it as far as I dared without snapping the bolt, but have now found that it has slipped another half an inch over the last 200 miles or so.
Is there some kind of paste / compound that I could use that, similar to the carbon paste, would prevent this slippage? I asked the manufacturer and my LBS about the carbon paste, but they explained that it may not be a great help, because the carbon paste is "designed to create a small amount of swelling of the carbon" on the surface of the components, thereby improving grip. Well, this is metal on metal, so it's different ... right?
Update: It is not oily / dirty / dusty and it is not old and worn
For completeness, I have this bike:
<http://www.planetx.co.uk/i/q/CBPXRT58ALRIV22/planet-x-rt-58-alloy-sram-rival-11-road-bike>
With this seatpost:
<http://www.planetx.co.uk/i/q/SPPXSLT3D/planet-x-superlight-team-3d-forged-alloyseatpost>
And this clamp:
<http://www.planetx.co.uk/i/q/SPPXSLT3D/planet-x-superlight-team-3d-forged-alloyseatpost>
Any advice other than drilling a hole through it an putting a bold in (I won't really do this) ?
*Note: I tried to add a tag to the question for the correct English spelling for ALUMINIUM, but apparently I need more reputation for that. Right ... ;-)* | 2016/02/11 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/37108",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/12673/"
] | I had an exactly same problem: Ritchey WCS seatpost, Merida frame (both alu alloy) and a lightweight clamp, like in @Frisbee's answer. What I tried:
1. Beefy clamp with various torque settings. Didn't help at all.
2. PVC tape. Helped, but didn't last long.
3. More torque on a lightweight clamp. I snapped it in half with only 6Nm.
4. Hair spray. To my surprise, it worked and seatpost stopped slipping, creaking and annoying me.
I've switched to a CF seatpost since then, same problem occured, but hair spray come to rescue again. No slipping for months. | I would try a beefier clamp
This is your lightweight clamp
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/4bMnm.jpg)
This is a beefy clamp
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/alryH.jpg)
Based on just visual the beefy has more than twice the surface area and it probably spreads the force more evenly. Grease the threads. |
37,108 | I've already seen this question: [Problems with a slipping seatpost](https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/8090/problems-with-a-slipping-seatpost)
The main difference is that I have an aluminium frameset and a forged alloy seatpost - lightweight clamp.
After every couple hundred miles on my commuter (particularly over rougher surfaces), I've found that the seatpost slides into the frame by about half an inch or so. After the second time I've noticed and readjusted it, I figured it might just be because I have a lightweight clamp. I over-tightened it past the recommended torque, but alas, it happened again. I then tightened it as far as I dared without snapping the bolt, but have now found that it has slipped another half an inch over the last 200 miles or so.
Is there some kind of paste / compound that I could use that, similar to the carbon paste, would prevent this slippage? I asked the manufacturer and my LBS about the carbon paste, but they explained that it may not be a great help, because the carbon paste is "designed to create a small amount of swelling of the carbon" on the surface of the components, thereby improving grip. Well, this is metal on metal, so it's different ... right?
Update: It is not oily / dirty / dusty and it is not old and worn
For completeness, I have this bike:
<http://www.planetx.co.uk/i/q/CBPXRT58ALRIV22/planet-x-rt-58-alloy-sram-rival-11-road-bike>
With this seatpost:
<http://www.planetx.co.uk/i/q/SPPXSLT3D/planet-x-superlight-team-3d-forged-alloyseatpost>
And this clamp:
<http://www.planetx.co.uk/i/q/SPPXSLT3D/planet-x-superlight-team-3d-forged-alloyseatpost>
Any advice other than drilling a hole through it an putting a bold in (I won't really do this) ?
*Note: I tried to add a tag to the question for the correct English spelling for ALUMINIUM, but apparently I need more reputation for that. Right ... ;-)* | 2016/02/11 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/37108",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/12673/"
] | After trying a chunkier clamp and hairspray, I found [this](http://www.evanscycles.com/products/ritchey/liquid-torque-5gr-bag-ec057869)
Clamp did not help much, the hairspray was better, but I was a little concerned about the solvent stuff in the aerosol.
The Liquid Torque has been applied and I have done over 120 miles since, with not even a millimetre of slippage!
Thanks for the other answers ...
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/cqLlv.jpg) | I would try a beefier clamp
This is your lightweight clamp
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/4bMnm.jpg)
This is a beefy clamp
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/alryH.jpg)
Based on just visual the beefy has more than twice the surface area and it probably spreads the force more evenly. Grease the threads. |
7,617 | Is it possible that the socket orientation (in Europe: one pin 230V, the other ground) can have an effect (albeit very small) on the amplifier behavior of a very old stereo sound system? What is, if any, the underlying reason ? | 2010/12/07 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/7617",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/1272/"
] | I can think in one effect but only for a very specific hardware. If You're using a [capacitive supply](http://electroschematics.com/5678/capacitor-power-supply/) with a [half-wave rectifier](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rectifier#Half-wave_rectification) - In this case the circuit ground is connected directly at one of the socket pins. If this pin is the ground its ok. If this is the 220 AC, although the circuit still operates, you may have some noise coupled on the circuit via ground, as your new ground is oscilating at 60Hz with a amplitude of 220 volts
. | I would imagine this could introduce some unexpected ground loops and so increase both hum and noise levels. - especially if the amp is connected to other kit with hot (live) and neutral (connected to ground/earth) wired the other way round. |
36,408 | I have an aluminium bearing holder attached to one end of an aluminium plate as follows:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/026xMl.png)
The bearing holder is attached to the plate by two bolts on the bottom. The intended setup is to attach a relatively heavy load to the right hand side of the shaft. To reduce stress on the two bolt holes in the plate, is it a good idea to have a lip on the plate as shown? Will it actually have any effect? Ideally I'd like to fasten the bearing holder through the lip, but I'm trying to avoid machining from the side and stay away from 4-axis machining.
Are there better ways to reduce the stress on the holes?
Any advice appreciated. | 2020/06/25 | [
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/questions/36408",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/users/4301/"
] | Lead can be held safely... Just don't eat it and wash your hands. If it is old, is most likely contains some trace amount of lead, as it was a common additive to make machining easier. | your tests suggest that the pipe is just iron or steel and safe to hold. Certain special steel alloys called *free-machining steel* or *ledloy* have lead in them but they are not used to make pipe. |
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