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916 | What is your experience with applying IT policy to the Board of Directors?
Please mention the country and industry you have experience in, since the advice you're sharing may or may not be the same across all industries.
**[Edit]**
It isn't uncommon for a single Board Member to be involved in more than one board/company. If this is the case, it's entirely possible that that individual may have conflicting IT policies in place if they were both applied to the same machine. How does this ultimately impact the way they do business? | 2010/12/01 | [
"https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/916",
"https://security.stackexchange.com",
"https://security.stackexchange.com/users/396/"
] | I work in healthcare and write the IT policies (among other things). All of my policies are reviewed by the corporate compliance team and others before being finalized. Once a policy is approved the first people I hold to the policy are the ones who asked for it or helped write it.
My thinking is that the people who helped create the policy should be the ones who have to deal with it first so that they know whether it works. When I changed the password complexity requirements our CEO needed to get information off of his PC for a meeting. Rather than accept a temporary exemption from the password policy change he insisted on being held to the same standard as everyone else.
If someone on our board is using a system connected to our network they can either use the guest wireless or they can abide by the policies. All of the policies I write have an exception clause, but the exception must be in writing and reviewed. All exceptions are sent to the compliance auditor within 30 days of the exception and annually the full list is sent. Any exception expires no more than a year from the exception to force a review.
I'm okay with there being reason able exceptions, as long as it is documented and necessary. When that happens I just require a compensating control to be demonstrated. | A board member should never deviate from the companies policy where the policy applies to them. The policy should be clear on what applies to whom and what the consequences for violation are. Policies can have contradictory elements where "allowed vs not-allowed" depends on ones position and responsibilities. The board should be prepared to justify the policy to whomever they answer to. Shareholders, Regulatory Agencies, etc.
Where policy is concerned the one position you don't want to find yourself in is where you knowingly allow/aid users in circumventing the policy. If you have to have exceptions document them. Better yet make them part of the policy. If the board isn't comfortable documenting an exception and still insists on being the exception go polish your resume.
A board member shouldn't be any different from any other employee with regards to following the rules. But it is up to the board, barring any legal restriction, to decide if a different set of rules should apply to them.
It is the board member's responsibility to understand what is required of them. If they are placed in position of conflict they should reach out to both entities and try to reach a compromise. From a technical point of view the easiest solution would be complete segregation of resources, ie two separate machines. Obviously this isn't the most usable solution. I would try to shoot for giving them remote access to an internal machine that as limited access to just what they need to do their job. I am not a big fan of giving them email access where they can work with documents from their personal machine. No matter what you do be sure it is documented and you are doing what your policy states you are doing. |
916 | What is your experience with applying IT policy to the Board of Directors?
Please mention the country and industry you have experience in, since the advice you're sharing may or may not be the same across all industries.
**[Edit]**
It isn't uncommon for a single Board Member to be involved in more than one board/company. If this is the case, it's entirely possible that that individual may have conflicting IT policies in place if they were both applied to the same machine. How does this ultimately impact the way they do business? | 2010/12/01 | [
"https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/916",
"https://security.stackexchange.com",
"https://security.stackexchange.com/users/396/"
] | If you're lucky enough to operate in a jurisdiction where [**directors would be personally liable**](http://www.soxlaw.com/s802.htm) for knowingly violating the protections in place, you can just wave that piece of law at them until they realise they had better comply with the policy. | A board member should never deviate from the companies policy where the policy applies to them. The policy should be clear on what applies to whom and what the consequences for violation are. Policies can have contradictory elements where "allowed vs not-allowed" depends on ones position and responsibilities. The board should be prepared to justify the policy to whomever they answer to. Shareholders, Regulatory Agencies, etc.
Where policy is concerned the one position you don't want to find yourself in is where you knowingly allow/aid users in circumventing the policy. If you have to have exceptions document them. Better yet make them part of the policy. If the board isn't comfortable documenting an exception and still insists on being the exception go polish your resume.
A board member shouldn't be any different from any other employee with regards to following the rules. But it is up to the board, barring any legal restriction, to decide if a different set of rules should apply to them.
It is the board member's responsibility to understand what is required of them. If they are placed in position of conflict they should reach out to both entities and try to reach a compromise. From a technical point of view the easiest solution would be complete segregation of resources, ie two separate machines. Obviously this isn't the most usable solution. I would try to shoot for giving them remote access to an internal machine that as limited access to just what they need to do their job. I am not a big fan of giving them email access where they can work with documents from their personal machine. No matter what you do be sure it is documented and you are doing what your policy states you are doing. |
916 | What is your experience with applying IT policy to the Board of Directors?
Please mention the country and industry you have experience in, since the advice you're sharing may or may not be the same across all industries.
**[Edit]**
It isn't uncommon for a single Board Member to be involved in more than one board/company. If this is the case, it's entirely possible that that individual may have conflicting IT policies in place if they were both applied to the same machine. How does this ultimately impact the way they do business? | 2010/12/01 | [
"https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/916",
"https://security.stackexchange.com",
"https://security.stackexchange.com/users/396/"
] | I work in healthcare and write the IT policies (among other things). All of my policies are reviewed by the corporate compliance team and others before being finalized. Once a policy is approved the first people I hold to the policy are the ones who asked for it or helped write it.
My thinking is that the people who helped create the policy should be the ones who have to deal with it first so that they know whether it works. When I changed the password complexity requirements our CEO needed to get information off of his PC for a meeting. Rather than accept a temporary exemption from the password policy change he insisted on being held to the same standard as everyone else.
If someone on our board is using a system connected to our network they can either use the guest wireless or they can abide by the policies. All of the policies I write have an exception clause, but the exception must be in writing and reviewed. All exceptions are sent to the compliance auditor within 30 days of the exception and annually the full list is sent. Any exception expires no more than a year from the exception to force a review.
I'm okay with there being reason able exceptions, as long as it is documented and necessary. When that happens I just require a compensating control to be demonstrated. | If you're lucky enough to operate in a jurisdiction where [**directors would be personally liable**](http://www.soxlaw.com/s802.htm) for knowingly violating the protections in place, you can just wave that piece of law at them until they realise they had better comply with the policy. |
61,127 | Why is the *f* dynamic indication repeated in the last two bars displayed below if a dynamic instruction should last until a different indication occurs?
Also, in the same picture, should the notes between the sforzando indications be played as *ff* (the last dynamic specified before *sf* )?
Thanks for your help!
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/U0kXr.jpg) | 2017/08/15 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/61127",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/43419/"
] | At least in the classical period, the normal practice (with no explicit notation) was that different beats in the bar were accented differently.
Repeating the "f" on every beat says "ignore the fact that the first beat in the bar is normally louder than the second beat in 2/4 time, and play them both at the same dynamic level". | Sforzando only applies to the notes immediately above it, so the notes in between should not be played sforzando.
RE: the repeated forte, this is not necessary. Once forte, the layers must continue to play forte until told otherwise. My guess is that the composer wanted to remind the players to do this every few notes. |
61,127 | Why is the *f* dynamic indication repeated in the last two bars displayed below if a dynamic instruction should last until a different indication occurs?
Also, in the same picture, should the notes between the sforzando indications be played as *ff* (the last dynamic specified before *sf* )?
Thanks for your help!
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/U0kXr.jpg) | 2017/08/15 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/61127",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/43419/"
] | Sforzando only applies to the notes immediately above it, so the notes in between should not be played sforzando.
RE: the repeated forte, this is not necessary. Once forte, the layers must continue to play forte until told otherwise. My guess is that the composer wanted to remind the players to do this every few notes. | The composer wants the staccato notes to be emphasised. But they have a staccato dot over them. They need '>' over as well. There's no room. So he has to put 'f' instead. |
61,127 | Why is the *f* dynamic indication repeated in the last two bars displayed below if a dynamic instruction should last until a different indication occurs?
Also, in the same picture, should the notes between the sforzando indications be played as *ff* (the last dynamic specified before *sf* )?
Thanks for your help!
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/U0kXr.jpg) | 2017/08/15 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/61127",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/43419/"
] | At least in the classical period, the normal practice (with no explicit notation) was that different beats in the bar were accented differently.
Repeating the "f" on every beat says "ignore the fact that the first beat in the bar is normally louder than the second beat in 2/4 time, and play them both at the same dynamic level". | The composer wants the staccato notes to be emphasised. But they have a staccato dot over them. They need '>' over as well. There's no room. So he has to put 'f' instead. |
707,463 | From my understanding your ISP will assign (sometimes dynamically) an IP address to your ***router.***
(Or is it assigned to the modem? [I'm starting to think it is.])
If it is assigned to the **router**, then this question follows:
What if I plug my PC directly into the modem via an Ethernet cable.
Does my computer have hardware that interprets the IP being assigned by the ISP the same way the router does?
If anyone can offer up some details on how this work that'd be great.
Thanks! | 2014/01/27 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/707463",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/292855/"
] | The automatic assignment of IP addresses happens via a standard known as the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol.
When a computer connects to the network, the DHCP client, generally a component of the operating system sends out a DHCP request and recieves an offer from a DHCP server. The offer generally contains:
1. An IP Address
2. A subnet mask for that IP address
3. A gateway that should be used for off-network requests (like those going via the internet)
4. One or more DNS server addresses so the computer knows where to send DNS requests.
### Connecting to a Router
When you plug your computer into a router or associate your wireless adapter with an access point, the computer will usually receive a DHCP response directly from the router, which may itself have requested an IP from the ISP for the interface the modem uses. it will then route traffic from the computer via it's interface connected to the modem where appropriate.
### Connecting to a Modem
When you connect your computer to a modem, the DHCP request generated by the computer may be handled directly by the modem itself if the modem is running a DHCP server.
### Static Address Assignment
If the modem is not running a DHCP server, you may have to staticly configure the client device's IP address, subnet mask, default gateway and DNS servers. If this is the case, the correct values will be giiven to subscribers, or entered by a service technician when the service is setup.
Side note: This answer deals with addresses for end-user devices. Your modem also has an interface to the ISPs network, the address for this interface may also be configured by a DHCP server on the provider's network, however this depends how the provider chooses to configure their network. | Your PC has software ([DHCP](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dynamic_Host_Configuration_Protocol) client) that can request IP settings to be assigned to it by the ISP the same way the router does. |
707,463 | From my understanding your ISP will assign (sometimes dynamically) an IP address to your ***router.***
(Or is it assigned to the modem? [I'm starting to think it is.])
If it is assigned to the **router**, then this question follows:
What if I plug my PC directly into the modem via an Ethernet cable.
Does my computer have hardware that interprets the IP being assigned by the ISP the same way the router does?
If anyone can offer up some details on how this work that'd be great.
Thanks! | 2014/01/27 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/707463",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/292855/"
] | The automatic assignment of IP addresses happens via a standard known as the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol.
When a computer connects to the network, the DHCP client, generally a component of the operating system sends out a DHCP request and recieves an offer from a DHCP server. The offer generally contains:
1. An IP Address
2. A subnet mask for that IP address
3. A gateway that should be used for off-network requests (like those going via the internet)
4. One or more DNS server addresses so the computer knows where to send DNS requests.
### Connecting to a Router
When you plug your computer into a router or associate your wireless adapter with an access point, the computer will usually receive a DHCP response directly from the router, which may itself have requested an IP from the ISP for the interface the modem uses. it will then route traffic from the computer via it's interface connected to the modem where appropriate.
### Connecting to a Modem
When you connect your computer to a modem, the DHCP request generated by the computer may be handled directly by the modem itself if the modem is running a DHCP server.
### Static Address Assignment
If the modem is not running a DHCP server, you may have to staticly configure the client device's IP address, subnet mask, default gateway and DNS servers. If this is the case, the correct values will be giiven to subscribers, or entered by a service technician when the service is setup.
Side note: This answer deals with addresses for end-user devices. Your modem also has an interface to the ISPs network, the address for this interface may also be configured by a DHCP server on the provider's network, however this depends how the provider chooses to configure their network. | In my experience, your modem is normally a DHCP client and a DHCP server, but they dont have to be either.
IF your modem is a DHCP client, then when you connect it to your upstream network (IE. Plug the modem into cable of the DSL Line) and power it on IT will ask for an address on that interface. The ISP will then respond with an address for the modem. Alternatively it might be a static assignment, where it turns on, sets the address that the cable tech probably set up, and begins communicating. Another alternative is that there may be some sort of login system combined in with either of these two options. This takes care of upstream traffic (modem to ISP)
IF your modem is a DHCP server (has been my experience as of late, then your device that plugs into the Modem will be asking for an address (similar to the modem asking the ISP above). Whatever device you plug in most likely has DHCP already turned on. If it is turned on already (whether router or computer) it is going to ask for an address. Alternatively, you may have been instructed to Set a manual address. In this case, the modem will most likely be expecting communication on this address and ignoring any other attempts. BONUS: The modem could potentially also act as a DHCP helper and forward your routers DHCP request to a place where it will get the REAL public IP that refers to your internet conection. 1
If you have a router doing DHCP for your home network as well (most common), then all of your other devices are going to be asking your router for an address as well.
Example Scenario: Power failure just ended. Everything starts back up. Modem asks ISP for its address, and gets one. Router asks Modem for address and gets one. (Maybe the public address!) Your Desktop computer finished booting and asks the router for an address, and the router gives it one. Now if the desktop asks for Google.com the router gets the request, the router forwards to the modem, the modem forwards to the ISP and the ISP forwards to the Internet, where it comes back down the other side to Google and Google responds. All of this happens in Usually Less than 20ms (~1/50th) of a second.
The Internet is incredible.
So, for a short answer, assuming you dont have DHCP turned off in your computer, it wont matter plugging into the modem directly or plugging your router into the modem and the computer into the router. But, using the router often does another process called NAT that allows you to have multiple devices behind your single internet connection, so routers are still usually recommended |
344,066 | Example:
>
> The accident happened due to a lack of communication (or coordination) between the parties involved.
>
>
> | 2016/08/22 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/344066",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/1824/"
] | **Miscommunication** — [Cambridge](http://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/miscommunication)
>
> *noun* Failure to communicate ideas or intentions successfully
>
>
> *"A spokeswomen blamed the confusion on miscommunication between the company and its customers.*"
>
>
> | Perhaps **disconnect** ([Cambridge](http://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/miscommunication))
>
> A situation in which two or more things are not connected in the way
> that they should be.
>
>
>
better indicates the missed opportunity to communicate, if that's your intention.
**[Breakdown](http://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/breakdown)** also sometimes gets used in this sense, though the assumption that it refers to communication (rather than, for instance, their automobile) may be a little more ambiguous in certain situations or audiences. |
344,066 | Example:
>
> The accident happened due to a lack of communication (or coordination) between the parties involved.
>
>
> | 2016/08/22 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/344066",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/1824/"
] | **Miscommunication** — [Cambridge](http://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/miscommunication)
>
> *noun* Failure to communicate ideas or intentions successfully
>
>
> *"A spokeswomen blamed the confusion on miscommunication between the company and its customers.*"
>
>
> | **Confusion** has a couple definitions along this line: [[Merriam-Webster](http://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/confusion)]
>
> a situation in which people are uncertain about what to do or are
> unable to understand something clearly
>
>
>
and
>
> the feeling that you have when you do not understand what is
> happening, what is expected, etc.
>
>
>
So it would be: "the accident happened due to confusion between the parties involved." |
241,028 | I can definitely remember the series showing us animals being transfigured into objects, but what about the reverse? Do the books give us any examples? | 2020/12/27 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/241028",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/112139/"
] | **Yes.**
McGonagall uses this type of transfiguration as a demonstration in her first lesson in PS/SS:
>
> Then she changed her desk into a pig and back again. They were all very impressed and couldn't wait to get started, but soon realised they weren't going to be changing the furniture into animals for a long time.
>
>
>
Cedric does it to get the egg from the dragon in GoF, according to Ron:
>
> “Cedric did this weird thing where he Transfigured a rock on the ground ... turned it into a dog ... he was trying to make the dragon go for the dog instead of him.”
>
>
>
We see Voldemort using this type of magic during OotP:
>
> For a moment, it seemed Dumbledore had won, but then the fiery rope became a serpent, which relinquished its hold upon Voldemort at once and turned, hissing furiously, to face Dumbledore.
>
>
>
Fudge uses it to prove to the Muggle Prime Minister that he’s a wizard in HBP (see also a [fuller excerpt](https://hpmedia.bloomsbury.com/rep/files/harry-potter-and-the-half-blood-prince-extract.pdf)):
>
> And he had turned the Prime Minister’s teacup into a gerbil.
>
>
> | ### Yes, turning objects into animals is possible.
It is indeed possible to turn an inanimate object into an animal. It is not a uniquely difficult branch of magic, as turning a teapot into a tortoise is covered in Hogwarts’s third year Transfiguration class.
>
> “The third-years emerged from Transfiguration at lunch-time on Monday limp and ashen-faced, comparing results and bemoaning the difficulty of the tasks they had been set, which had included turning a teapot into a tortoise. Hermione irritated the rest by fussing about how her tortoise had looked more like a turtle, which was the least of everyone else’s worries.
>
>
> ‘Mine still had a spout for a tail, what a nightmare …’
>
>
> ‘Were the tortoises supposed to breathe steam?’
>
>
> ‘It still had a willow-patterned shell, d’you think that’ll count against me?”
> *- Harry Potter and the Prisoner of Azkaban, Chapter 16 (Professor Trelawney’s Prediction)*
>
>
>
While this class of third-years did have some difficulty doing the transformation successfully, at least one student (Hermione) was successful in hers, and it being in the curriculum indicates that it is considered a spell that a third-year student would be able to perform effectively with practice. |
20,356,546 | I have made C# application of Loan Receive Management for my client in windows 7(x86) and using Microsoft visual studio 2010 (.NET Framework 4.0) and it works fine, but my client using windows XP now. So I am worry that my application will run completely fine in his OS (XP).
If it can produce any problem or difficulties, please tell me about it and also suggest effective way to solve that problem. | 2013/12/03 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/20356546",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/3062281/"
] | It should work fine, You should only be worried if your application is targeting .Net framework 4.5 which is not available on windows XP. To be on the safe side, select "Any CPU" for platform target in project properties.
Make sure that the target computer has .Net framework 4.0 installed. | yes it should works fine you need sp3 installed on XP and compile your app in 32 bit mode to be more sure and make sure your .net installed as Full on XP. You can download it from [here](http://www.microsoft.com/en-us/download/details.aspx?id=17718) |
44,917 | I'm trying to get my new Android phone running without speaking to Google or sending them my data. For the moment, I've got Funambol Running, but Funambol doesn't have a Thunderbird client. They do have an Evolution plugin, however. I'm not prepared to switch over to Evolution, because I really like Thunderbird and have it all set up just so.
So I'm trying to figure out a way to get Evolution to read my Thunderbird address book or vice versa. That way I can sync Thunderbird to Evolution, Evolution to Funambol, Funambol to Android.
I'm open to better solutions here, too. | 2011/05/24 | [
"https://askubuntu.com/questions/44917",
"https://askubuntu.com",
"https://askubuntu.com/users/13049/"
] | Yes, Thunderbird uses EDS by default in 11.10, which means that it is shared with Evolution. EDS currently has issues with DesktopCouch addressbooks, but others seem to work nicely. | You could manually save and load adressbooks via dropbox or similar services! There is a dropbox app for android, should work. But that's not what you want, is it? |
40,713 | I have a large ceramic soup cup which appears to be internally damaged after being rinsed with cold water while hot:
Is this cup still safe to use, or is it likely to shatter or otherwise fail during use? | 2013/12/30 | [
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/40713",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/11542/"
] | potter of 28 years experience here. What you are seeing is called crazing. It's caused by a slightly poor "fit" between glaze and clay body of the ceramics, usually because of too much silica in the glaze. With some glazes, it's intentional; [celedons craze](https://digitalfire.com/glossary/celadon+glaze), as do [white raku](https://ceramicartsnetwork.org/daily/ceramic-glaze-recipes/low-fire-glaze-recipes/fergusons-white-crackle-raku-glaze-recipe/) glazes.
What you're seeing there is unintentional crazing. It's fairly common for this to appear at the first time you use it with a hot liquid, or microwave it. What's happened is that the glaze is 1% smaller than the clay body, so the first time it heats and cools, it crackles.
Whether or not eating off of crazed glazes is a health hazard is [a matter of some debate](https://digitalfire.com/article/crazing+and+bacteria%3A+is+there+a+hazard%3F). It's prohibited for most restaurants in countries with strong sanitary regulations, although rarely enforced. For home use, I personally wouldn't worry about it; you pick up more bacteria off your kitchen counter than you will from the cracks. There's one exception to this though: if the dish is low-fire earthenware, or made from a clay that was not [fully vitrified](https://stoneleafpottery.com/vitrification-nation/2014/08/19/), then the cracks can allow the underlying clay to absorb liquid. In addition to being a bacteria hazard, such absorbed liquid could cause (for example) the dish to explode in the microwave. | It is safe to use. I have seen lots of cups with similar cracks. I think that they are only in the glaze, not in the ceramic below. But even if the ceramic is slightly damaged too, I have never had one of these break in my hands despite using them for years. |
40,713 | I have a large ceramic soup cup which appears to be internally damaged after being rinsed with cold water while hot:
Is this cup still safe to use, or is it likely to shatter or otherwise fail during use? | 2013/12/30 | [
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/40713",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/11542/"
] | That is called crazing. It is a crack or fissure in the enamel coating on the cup, not indicative of deep structural flaws.
Your cup is unlikely to fail in the sense of completely breaking due to the craze in the glaze.
On the other hand, they will stain over time, and be unsightly, and hard to wash out.
If the piece is old enough, the glaze may contain lead, which can leach due to the crazing. In that case, the piece should definitely be discarded.
Technically, most health codes require crazed dishware to be discarded, although you can assess your tolerance for risk. | potter of 28 years experience here. What you are seeing is called crazing. It's caused by a slightly poor "fit" between glaze and clay body of the ceramics, usually because of too much silica in the glaze. With some glazes, it's intentional; [celedons craze](https://digitalfire.com/glossary/celadon+glaze), as do [white raku](https://ceramicartsnetwork.org/daily/ceramic-glaze-recipes/low-fire-glaze-recipes/fergusons-white-crackle-raku-glaze-recipe/) glazes.
What you're seeing there is unintentional crazing. It's fairly common for this to appear at the first time you use it with a hot liquid, or microwave it. What's happened is that the glaze is 1% smaller than the clay body, so the first time it heats and cools, it crackles.
Whether or not eating off of crazed glazes is a health hazard is [a matter of some debate](https://digitalfire.com/article/crazing+and+bacteria%3A+is+there+a+hazard%3F). It's prohibited for most restaurants in countries with strong sanitary regulations, although rarely enforced. For home use, I personally wouldn't worry about it; you pick up more bacteria off your kitchen counter than you will from the cracks. There's one exception to this though: if the dish is low-fire earthenware, or made from a clay that was not [fully vitrified](https://stoneleafpottery.com/vitrification-nation/2014/08/19/), then the cracks can allow the underlying clay to absorb liquid. In addition to being a bacteria hazard, such absorbed liquid could cause (for example) the dish to explode in the microwave. |
40,713 | I have a large ceramic soup cup which appears to be internally damaged after being rinsed with cold water while hot:
Is this cup still safe to use, or is it likely to shatter or otherwise fail during use? | 2013/12/30 | [
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/40713",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/11542/"
] | Looks [crazed](https://www.google.com/search?q=crazed%20ceramic&safe=off&client=firefox-a&hs=2QS&rls=org.mozilla%3aen-US%3aofficial&tbm=isch&tbo=u&source=univ&sa=X&ei=7fXBUo6bAo7AkQeW1oCACQ&ved=0CE4QsAQ&biw=1478&bih=783). Sometimes that's a death sentence for a cup, more often it means that dark colored liquids can seep into the cracks, and make things look interesting. Sometimes not even that happens, and you just have a cup with an interesting pattern in the glaze. | Cracks in any dishes hold bacteria so they are always unsafe. Never use dishes with any cracks in them for food. Chips on edges of plates or serving dishes do not really present a problem, but all tiny cracks present a health problem and the poster is also exactly right about leaching into the cracks and molds and staining resulting. If dishes have any cracks, even tiny crazing, you should think of them as unsafe for foods and eating, any kind of foods, even dry foods. And what is unsafe for humans is also unsafe for your pets. Bacteria that you do not know about can be deadly. That is why it is important for human animals and pet animals to eat cooked foods. |
40,713 | I have a large ceramic soup cup which appears to be internally damaged after being rinsed with cold water while hot:
Is this cup still safe to use, or is it likely to shatter or otherwise fail during use? | 2013/12/30 | [
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/40713",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/11542/"
] | Looks [crazed](https://www.google.com/search?q=crazed%20ceramic&safe=off&client=firefox-a&hs=2QS&rls=org.mozilla%3aen-US%3aofficial&tbm=isch&tbo=u&source=univ&sa=X&ei=7fXBUo6bAo7AkQeW1oCACQ&ved=0CE4QsAQ&biw=1478&bih=783). Sometimes that's a death sentence for a cup, more often it means that dark colored liquids can seep into the cracks, and make things look interesting. Sometimes not even that happens, and you just have a cup with an interesting pattern in the glaze. | It is safe to use. I have seen lots of cups with similar cracks. I think that they are only in the glaze, not in the ceramic below. But even if the ceramic is slightly damaged too, I have never had one of these break in my hands despite using them for years. |
40,713 | I have a large ceramic soup cup which appears to be internally damaged after being rinsed with cold water while hot:
Is this cup still safe to use, or is it likely to shatter or otherwise fail during use? | 2013/12/30 | [
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/40713",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/11542/"
] | That is called crazing. It is a crack or fissure in the enamel coating on the cup, not indicative of deep structural flaws.
Your cup is unlikely to fail in the sense of completely breaking due to the craze in the glaze.
On the other hand, they will stain over time, and be unsightly, and hard to wash out.
If the piece is old enough, the glaze may contain lead, which can leach due to the crazing. In that case, the piece should definitely be discarded.
Technically, most health codes require crazed dishware to be discarded, although you can assess your tolerance for risk. | As anybody who has ever made something from ceramic and has tried to paint it knows, ceramic is a very porous material, which will soak up some of whatever touches it's surface. That is the very reason why a glazing is needed to seal it, in order to make it food safe, if we want to make something, such as a cup, from it. If that ceramic cup were to be left unglazed, it would soak up some of whatever is put into it and we would never be able to clean it all out. Whatever is soaked into the ceramic, would then grow mold, trap bacteria and so become a health hazard.
That is the reason why most health codes require any ceramics used to serve food or drink, to people, to discard crazed ceramics. The crazing (cracks in the glass sealing the ceramic) in a cup, does not give us cause for concern that the cup might break and spill hot liquid onto a person, because that will not happen, due to crazing alone. Crazing is simply cracks in the glazing that seals the ceramic beneath it, thus rendering it a health hazard to anybody drinking from it.
We should be careful to never discount a health code, as rediculous, simply because we may not understand the reason(s) behind it. Those rules haven't been arbitrarily thought up to create a hassle, or hardship, for people serving food. They have been created to protect us, for a verifiable reason, from a danger to our health. |
40,713 | I have a large ceramic soup cup which appears to be internally damaged after being rinsed with cold water while hot:
Is this cup still safe to use, or is it likely to shatter or otherwise fail during use? | 2013/12/30 | [
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/40713",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/11542/"
] | It is safe to use. I have seen lots of cups with similar cracks. I think that they are only in the glaze, not in the ceramic below. But even if the ceramic is slightly damaged too, I have never had one of these break in my hands despite using them for years. | As anybody who has ever made something from ceramic and has tried to paint it knows, ceramic is a very porous material, which will soak up some of whatever touches it's surface. That is the very reason why a glazing is needed to seal it, in order to make it food safe, if we want to make something, such as a cup, from it. If that ceramic cup were to be left unglazed, it would soak up some of whatever is put into it and we would never be able to clean it all out. Whatever is soaked into the ceramic, would then grow mold, trap bacteria and so become a health hazard.
That is the reason why most health codes require any ceramics used to serve food or drink, to people, to discard crazed ceramics. The crazing (cracks in the glass sealing the ceramic) in a cup, does not give us cause for concern that the cup might break and spill hot liquid onto a person, because that will not happen, due to crazing alone. Crazing is simply cracks in the glazing that seals the ceramic beneath it, thus rendering it a health hazard to anybody drinking from it.
We should be careful to never discount a health code, as rediculous, simply because we may not understand the reason(s) behind it. Those rules haven't been arbitrarily thought up to create a hassle, or hardship, for people serving food. They have been created to protect us, for a verifiable reason, from a danger to our health. |
40,713 | I have a large ceramic soup cup which appears to be internally damaged after being rinsed with cold water while hot:
Is this cup still safe to use, or is it likely to shatter or otherwise fail during use? | 2013/12/30 | [
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/40713",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/11542/"
] | It is safe to use. I have seen lots of cups with similar cracks. I think that they are only in the glaze, not in the ceramic below. But even if the ceramic is slightly damaged too, I have never had one of these break in my hands despite using them for years. | Cracks in any dishes hold bacteria so they are always unsafe. Never use dishes with any cracks in them for food. Chips on edges of plates or serving dishes do not really present a problem, but all tiny cracks present a health problem and the poster is also exactly right about leaching into the cracks and molds and staining resulting. If dishes have any cracks, even tiny crazing, you should think of them as unsafe for foods and eating, any kind of foods, even dry foods. And what is unsafe for humans is also unsafe for your pets. Bacteria that you do not know about can be deadly. That is why it is important for human animals and pet animals to eat cooked foods. |
40,713 | I have a large ceramic soup cup which appears to be internally damaged after being rinsed with cold water while hot:
Is this cup still safe to use, or is it likely to shatter or otherwise fail during use? | 2013/12/30 | [
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/40713",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/11542/"
] | That is called crazing. It is a crack or fissure in the enamel coating on the cup, not indicative of deep structural flaws.
Your cup is unlikely to fail in the sense of completely breaking due to the craze in the glaze.
On the other hand, they will stain over time, and be unsightly, and hard to wash out.
If the piece is old enough, the glaze may contain lead, which can leach due to the crazing. In that case, the piece should definitely be discarded.
Technically, most health codes require crazed dishware to be discarded, although you can assess your tolerance for risk. | Looks [crazed](https://www.google.com/search?q=crazed%20ceramic&safe=off&client=firefox-a&hs=2QS&rls=org.mozilla%3aen-US%3aofficial&tbm=isch&tbo=u&source=univ&sa=X&ei=7fXBUo6bAo7AkQeW1oCACQ&ved=0CE4QsAQ&biw=1478&bih=783). Sometimes that's a death sentence for a cup, more often it means that dark colored liquids can seep into the cracks, and make things look interesting. Sometimes not even that happens, and you just have a cup with an interesting pattern in the glaze. |
40,713 | I have a large ceramic soup cup which appears to be internally damaged after being rinsed with cold water while hot:
Is this cup still safe to use, or is it likely to shatter or otherwise fail during use? | 2013/12/30 | [
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/40713",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/11542/"
] | potter of 28 years experience here. What you are seeing is called crazing. It's caused by a slightly poor "fit" between glaze and clay body of the ceramics, usually because of too much silica in the glaze. With some glazes, it's intentional; [celedons craze](https://digitalfire.com/glossary/celadon+glaze), as do [white raku](https://ceramicartsnetwork.org/daily/ceramic-glaze-recipes/low-fire-glaze-recipes/fergusons-white-crackle-raku-glaze-recipe/) glazes.
What you're seeing there is unintentional crazing. It's fairly common for this to appear at the first time you use it with a hot liquid, or microwave it. What's happened is that the glaze is 1% smaller than the clay body, so the first time it heats and cools, it crackles.
Whether or not eating off of crazed glazes is a health hazard is [a matter of some debate](https://digitalfire.com/article/crazing+and+bacteria%3A+is+there+a+hazard%3F). It's prohibited for most restaurants in countries with strong sanitary regulations, although rarely enforced. For home use, I personally wouldn't worry about it; you pick up more bacteria off your kitchen counter than you will from the cracks. There's one exception to this though: if the dish is low-fire earthenware, or made from a clay that was not [fully vitrified](https://stoneleafpottery.com/vitrification-nation/2014/08/19/), then the cracks can allow the underlying clay to absorb liquid. In addition to being a bacteria hazard, such absorbed liquid could cause (for example) the dish to explode in the microwave. | Cracks in any dishes hold bacteria so they are always unsafe. Never use dishes with any cracks in them for food. Chips on edges of plates or serving dishes do not really present a problem, but all tiny cracks present a health problem and the poster is also exactly right about leaching into the cracks and molds and staining resulting. If dishes have any cracks, even tiny crazing, you should think of them as unsafe for foods and eating, any kind of foods, even dry foods. And what is unsafe for humans is also unsafe for your pets. Bacteria that you do not know about can be deadly. That is why it is important for human animals and pet animals to eat cooked foods. |
40,713 | I have a large ceramic soup cup which appears to be internally damaged after being rinsed with cold water while hot:
Is this cup still safe to use, or is it likely to shatter or otherwise fail during use? | 2013/12/30 | [
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/40713",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/11542/"
] | Looks [crazed](https://www.google.com/search?q=crazed%20ceramic&safe=off&client=firefox-a&hs=2QS&rls=org.mozilla%3aen-US%3aofficial&tbm=isch&tbo=u&source=univ&sa=X&ei=7fXBUo6bAo7AkQeW1oCACQ&ved=0CE4QsAQ&biw=1478&bih=783). Sometimes that's a death sentence for a cup, more often it means that dark colored liquids can seep into the cracks, and make things look interesting. Sometimes not even that happens, and you just have a cup with an interesting pattern in the glaze. | As anybody who has ever made something from ceramic and has tried to paint it knows, ceramic is a very porous material, which will soak up some of whatever touches it's surface. That is the very reason why a glazing is needed to seal it, in order to make it food safe, if we want to make something, such as a cup, from it. If that ceramic cup were to be left unglazed, it would soak up some of whatever is put into it and we would never be able to clean it all out. Whatever is soaked into the ceramic, would then grow mold, trap bacteria and so become a health hazard.
That is the reason why most health codes require any ceramics used to serve food or drink, to people, to discard crazed ceramics. The crazing (cracks in the glass sealing the ceramic) in a cup, does not give us cause for concern that the cup might break and spill hot liquid onto a person, because that will not happen, due to crazing alone. Crazing is simply cracks in the glazing that seals the ceramic beneath it, thus rendering it a health hazard to anybody drinking from it.
We should be careful to never discount a health code, as rediculous, simply because we may not understand the reason(s) behind it. Those rules haven't been arbitrarily thought up to create a hassle, or hardship, for people serving food. They have been created to protect us, for a verifiable reason, from a danger to our health. |
98,405 | My first year undergraduate teammate has submitted our project work to multiple conferences. I want him to pull back the submission before reviewers take action against us. But he wants proof that conferences actually care about it and can detect self plagiarism and double submission.
This is in electronics, where conference proceedings count as publications. | 2017/11/04 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/98405",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/82427/"
] | Organizers of conferences with overlapping review periods sometimes exchange the submission information to detect cases of multiple submission. However, since doing so without the authors' agreement would be a breach of confidentiality, this can only be done ethically by conferences who announce this process in their call for papers (In my field, that is the case for several top conferences, including FSE 2019 and ICSE 2020).
There are several other ways how the duplicate submission would eventually be discovered. Let's say the paper has been submitted in parallel at two conferences called A and B.
1. There could be a shared reviewer for conferences A and B who notices the duplicate submission. In this case, the reviewer would probably contact the chairs of both conferences, leading to an immediate disqualification of the paper. Note that such a reviewer would not have to be a program committee member at both conferences: program committee members often delegate their workload to colleagues in order to reduce their workload.
2. If the paper is accepted at conference A, the paper is eventually published in A's proceedings. In this case, the reviewers from conference B might become aware of the submission of the paper to A. Consequently, they could contact the chairs of conference A to enforce its retraction. | Submitting without the approval of all authors is obviously wrong.
Putting that aside, what’s the problem with submitting to multiple conferences? Its not the same a dual publication of journal articles - a permanent citeable record.
I routinely submit work to two conferences - it’s in the remit of both, but there is virtually no overlap in attendance. Presenting work at multiple conferences improves visibility and networking. |
98,405 | My first year undergraduate teammate has submitted our project work to multiple conferences. I want him to pull back the submission before reviewers take action against us. But he wants proof that conferences actually care about it and can detect self plagiarism and double submission.
This is in electronics, where conference proceedings count as publications. | 2017/11/04 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/98405",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/82427/"
] | Organizers of conferences with overlapping review periods sometimes exchange the submission information to detect cases of multiple submission. However, since doing so without the authors' agreement would be a breach of confidentiality, this can only be done ethically by conferences who announce this process in their call for papers (In my field, that is the case for several top conferences, including FSE 2019 and ICSE 2020).
There are several other ways how the duplicate submission would eventually be discovered. Let's say the paper has been submitted in parallel at two conferences called A and B.
1. There could be a shared reviewer for conferences A and B who notices the duplicate submission. In this case, the reviewer would probably contact the chairs of both conferences, leading to an immediate disqualification of the paper. Note that such a reviewer would not have to be a program committee member at both conferences: program committee members often delegate their workload to colleagues in order to reduce their workload.
2. If the paper is accepted at conference A, the paper is eventually published in A's proceedings. In this case, the reviewers from conference B might become aware of the submission of the paper to A. Consequently, they could contact the chairs of conference A to enforce its retraction. | As a reviewer I routinely search for the paper title, basic paper keywords, and/or the particular combination of authors' names in an academic search engine. This typically shows the close environment of peers, a sub-sub-area, so to say.
But not once or twice this has resulted in rather unexpected results, such as a very similar titled paper with paragraph-wise text overlap and an author subset/superset.
This greatly saves my work time, because in the above case I can immediately flag it as plagiarism, send my review with snarky remarks to the editor, and go back to whatever I did before reviewing. I have yet to encounter a *true* double submission, but my actions would bear a strong degree of similarity.
*(You notice by now some degree of irony here, but I really have seen such plagiarism cases as a reviewer.)* |
98,405 | My first year undergraduate teammate has submitted our project work to multiple conferences. I want him to pull back the submission before reviewers take action against us. But he wants proof that conferences actually care about it and can detect self plagiarism and double submission.
This is in electronics, where conference proceedings count as publications. | 2017/11/04 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/98405",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/82427/"
] | "Actually care about it": Read the conference's rules.
"Can detect": Irrelevant. Like many things in academic research, this is primarily honor system. If your teammate thinks that whether something is acceptable is determined by whether you can get away with it, they need a serious attitude adjustment.
By the way: do you have a faculty advisor on this project? They need to know about this. They would also be the best one to give you advice on the specific norms of conferences and publishing in your fields. | Submitting without the approval of all authors is obviously wrong.
Putting that aside, what’s the problem with submitting to multiple conferences? Its not the same a dual publication of journal articles - a permanent citeable record.
I routinely submit work to two conferences - it’s in the remit of both, but there is virtually no overlap in attendance. Presenting work at multiple conferences improves visibility and networking. |
98,405 | My first year undergraduate teammate has submitted our project work to multiple conferences. I want him to pull back the submission before reviewers take action against us. But he wants proof that conferences actually care about it and can detect self plagiarism and double submission.
This is in electronics, where conference proceedings count as publications. | 2017/11/04 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/98405",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/82427/"
] | As a reviewer I routinely search for the paper title, basic paper keywords, and/or the particular combination of authors' names in an academic search engine. This typically shows the close environment of peers, a sub-sub-area, so to say.
But not once or twice this has resulted in rather unexpected results, such as a very similar titled paper with paragraph-wise text overlap and an author subset/superset.
This greatly saves my work time, because in the above case I can immediately flag it as plagiarism, send my review with snarky remarks to the editor, and go back to whatever I did before reviewing. I have yet to encounter a *true* double submission, but my actions would bear a strong degree of similarity.
*(You notice by now some degree of irony here, but I really have seen such plagiarism cases as a reviewer.)* | Submitting without the approval of all authors is obviously wrong.
Putting that aside, what’s the problem with submitting to multiple conferences? Its not the same a dual publication of journal articles - a permanent citeable record.
I routinely submit work to two conferences - it’s in the remit of both, but there is virtually no overlap in attendance. Presenting work at multiple conferences improves visibility and networking. |
98,405 | My first year undergraduate teammate has submitted our project work to multiple conferences. I want him to pull back the submission before reviewers take action against us. But he wants proof that conferences actually care about it and can detect self plagiarism and double submission.
This is in electronics, where conference proceedings count as publications. | 2017/11/04 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/98405",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/82427/"
] | "Actually care about it": Read the conference's rules.
"Can detect": Irrelevant. Like many things in academic research, this is primarily honor system. If your teammate thinks that whether something is acceptable is determined by whether you can get away with it, they need a serious attitude adjustment.
By the way: do you have a faculty advisor on this project? They need to know about this. They would also be the best one to give you advice on the specific norms of conferences and publishing in your fields. | As a reviewer I routinely search for the paper title, basic paper keywords, and/or the particular combination of authors' names in an academic search engine. This typically shows the close environment of peers, a sub-sub-area, so to say.
But not once or twice this has resulted in rather unexpected results, such as a very similar titled paper with paragraph-wise text overlap and an author subset/superset.
This greatly saves my work time, because in the above case I can immediately flag it as plagiarism, send my review with snarky remarks to the editor, and go back to whatever I did before reviewing. I have yet to encounter a *true* double submission, but my actions would bear a strong degree of similarity.
*(You notice by now some degree of irony here, but I really have seen such plagiarism cases as a reviewer.)* |
206,580 | After all, we are talking about very definite passengers – the ones that were on that train. Can it be gathered from the sentence that not all of the passengers were given a refund?
P.S. The sentence comes from a grammar book. | 2019/04/22 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/206580",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/77655/"
] | The sentence
>
> Since the train was delayed for more than an hour, passengers were given a full refund.
>
>
>
is formally ambiguous. One cannot tell from the sentence alone whether **the** passengers were given a refund -- that is, all the passengers -- or whether only **some** passengers were given a refund: perhaps only those who complained. When an article is elided in this way, the reader must determine from context and common sense what the meaning is, and which article is implied. Here either choice is possible, although "the" seems more likely. But in another context the result would be different.
>
> After the minister's eulogy, friends and family spoke about the deceased.
>
>
>
Does that mean that every one of the dead person's friends and family spoke, or only some of them? Were all of them even present? "Some" is the likely choice here, but further context could change that.
>
> After the minister's eulogy, friends and family spoke about the deceased -- all five who were still alive.
>
>
>
Now the implication is otherwise.
When the choice of article is obvious, omitting it does not mislead the reader. When there is more than one serious possibility, this may be poor writing. Or it may be intentionally ambiguous writing. | It could be a stylistic reason, because "the" has already been used for "the train", so "passengers" reads better. It is possibly from a newspaper article. Your reasoning is correct, the refund concerns these specific passengers. |
206,580 | After all, we are talking about very definite passengers – the ones that were on that train. Can it be gathered from the sentence that not all of the passengers were given a refund?
P.S. The sentence comes from a grammar book. | 2019/04/22 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/206580",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/77655/"
] | It could be a stylistic reason, because "the" has already been used for "the train", so "passengers" reads better. It is possibly from a newspaper article. Your reasoning is correct, the refund concerns these specific passengers. | The main takeaway (for me) from reading that sentence is that the railway company admitted responsibility for the delay, and followed through on that admission by actually giving out full refunds. Who exactly got those refunds (all passengers, or just some passengers), and what they had to do in order to get them isn't part of the information that that sentence is trying to convey. Therefore it is left unspecific. |
206,580 | After all, we are talking about very definite passengers – the ones that were on that train. Can it be gathered from the sentence that not all of the passengers were given a refund?
P.S. The sentence comes from a grammar book. | 2019/04/22 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/206580",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/77655/"
] | The sentence
>
> Since the train was delayed for more than an hour, passengers were given a full refund.
>
>
>
is formally ambiguous. One cannot tell from the sentence alone whether **the** passengers were given a refund -- that is, all the passengers -- or whether only **some** passengers were given a refund: perhaps only those who complained. When an article is elided in this way, the reader must determine from context and common sense what the meaning is, and which article is implied. Here either choice is possible, although "the" seems more likely. But in another context the result would be different.
>
> After the minister's eulogy, friends and family spoke about the deceased.
>
>
>
Does that mean that every one of the dead person's friends and family spoke, or only some of them? Were all of them even present? "Some" is the likely choice here, but further context could change that.
>
> After the minister's eulogy, friends and family spoke about the deceased -- all five who were still alive.
>
>
>
Now the implication is otherwise.
When the choice of article is obvious, omitting it does not mislead the reader. When there is more than one serious possibility, this may be poor writing. Or it may be intentionally ambiguous writing. | The main takeaway (for me) from reading that sentence is that the railway company admitted responsibility for the delay, and followed through on that admission by actually giving out full refunds. Who exactly got those refunds (all passengers, or just some passengers), and what they had to do in order to get them isn't part of the information that that sentence is trying to convey. Therefore it is left unspecific. |
454,807 | I develop asp.net websites, and I read about cloud computing, windows azure, etc. But in the end, I cannot see any pratical reasons to change/move/etc my services to the "cloud".
What the benefices?
Cloud computing is some kind of "evolution" of web farms?
Thanks, and sorry my ignorance.... | 2009/01/18 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/454807",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/48729/"
] | I think the number-one reason is the level of dynamic scalability that is offered.
Then I would say the amount of redundancy, that is typically offered. | Because you can use one buzzword more to impress your clients. :)
Honestly, if you don't know it you probably don't need it. |
454,807 | I develop asp.net websites, and I read about cloud computing, windows azure, etc. But in the end, I cannot see any pratical reasons to change/move/etc my services to the "cloud".
What the benefices?
Cloud computing is some kind of "evolution" of web farms?
Thanks, and sorry my ignorance.... | 2009/01/18 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/454807",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/48729/"
] | To explain the benefits, I'll use two examples [Microsoft Azure](http://www.azure.com) and [Amazon EC2](http://aws.amazon.com).
In the case of Amazon EC2 you can rent a virtual image with Windows Server 2003 and SQL Server for a few cents per machine per hour. Like other hosting companies you don't need to manage the hardware yourself; your machine is stored in Amazon's datacenters and they'll make sure the server's always up and the data backed up, etc. You also receive an API so that you can automatically spin up new instances of the machine to cope with fluctuations in demand.
Azure takes this a step further - you don't need to manage your system. Using the developer tools you create your ASP.NET website and provide some metadata to indicate how your app is split into front end and back end, and then you choose how many instances you want and click "deploy to Azure". Microsoft again takes care of making sure the app keeps running, is geographically distributed, etc. In fact you never know which computer your app is on or even how many computers it is spread across. Microsoft also provide several web APIs that you can call from your Azure app for things like authentication and storage.
You can find more info on the web sites given above. | I think the number-one reason is the level of dynamic scalability that is offered.
Then I would say the amount of redundancy, that is typically offered. |
454,807 | I develop asp.net websites, and I read about cloud computing, windows azure, etc. But in the end, I cannot see any pratical reasons to change/move/etc my services to the "cloud".
What the benefices?
Cloud computing is some kind of "evolution" of web farms?
Thanks, and sorry my ignorance.... | 2009/01/18 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/454807",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/48729/"
] | I think the number-one reason is the level of dynamic scalability that is offered.
Then I would say the amount of redundancy, that is typically offered. | The short answer is that "the cloud" is a buzzword for virtual server services. If you need to use it it's because you don't want to spend your money on IT-staff and servers that can do the same thing.
Azure has some extra features for microsoft developers and you can watch the [PDC 2008 keynote](http://channel9.msdn.com/pdc2008/KYN01/) where they introduce Azure that talks a lot about it. |
454,807 | I develop asp.net websites, and I read about cloud computing, windows azure, etc. But in the end, I cannot see any pratical reasons to change/move/etc my services to the "cloud".
What the benefices?
Cloud computing is some kind of "evolution" of web farms?
Thanks, and sorry my ignorance.... | 2009/01/18 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/454807",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/48729/"
] | To explain the benefits, I'll use two examples [Microsoft Azure](http://www.azure.com) and [Amazon EC2](http://aws.amazon.com).
In the case of Amazon EC2 you can rent a virtual image with Windows Server 2003 and SQL Server for a few cents per machine per hour. Like other hosting companies you don't need to manage the hardware yourself; your machine is stored in Amazon's datacenters and they'll make sure the server's always up and the data backed up, etc. You also receive an API so that you can automatically spin up new instances of the machine to cope with fluctuations in demand.
Azure takes this a step further - you don't need to manage your system. Using the developer tools you create your ASP.NET website and provide some metadata to indicate how your app is split into front end and back end, and then you choose how many instances you want and click "deploy to Azure". Microsoft again takes care of making sure the app keeps running, is geographically distributed, etc. In fact you never know which computer your app is on or even how many computers it is spread across. Microsoft also provide several web APIs that you can call from your Azure app for things like authentication and storage.
You can find more info on the web sites given above. | Because you can use one buzzword more to impress your clients. :)
Honestly, if you don't know it you probably don't need it. |
454,807 | I develop asp.net websites, and I read about cloud computing, windows azure, etc. But in the end, I cannot see any pratical reasons to change/move/etc my services to the "cloud".
What the benefices?
Cloud computing is some kind of "evolution" of web farms?
Thanks, and sorry my ignorance.... | 2009/01/18 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/454807",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/48729/"
] | To explain the benefits, I'll use two examples [Microsoft Azure](http://www.azure.com) and [Amazon EC2](http://aws.amazon.com).
In the case of Amazon EC2 you can rent a virtual image with Windows Server 2003 and SQL Server for a few cents per machine per hour. Like other hosting companies you don't need to manage the hardware yourself; your machine is stored in Amazon's datacenters and they'll make sure the server's always up and the data backed up, etc. You also receive an API so that you can automatically spin up new instances of the machine to cope with fluctuations in demand.
Azure takes this a step further - you don't need to manage your system. Using the developer tools you create your ASP.NET website and provide some metadata to indicate how your app is split into front end and back end, and then you choose how many instances you want and click "deploy to Azure". Microsoft again takes care of making sure the app keeps running, is geographically distributed, etc. In fact you never know which computer your app is on or even how many computers it is spread across. Microsoft also provide several web APIs that you can call from your Azure app for things like authentication and storage.
You can find more info on the web sites given above. | The short answer is that "the cloud" is a buzzword for virtual server services. If you need to use it it's because you don't want to spend your money on IT-staff and servers that can do the same thing.
Azure has some extra features for microsoft developers and you can watch the [PDC 2008 keynote](http://channel9.msdn.com/pdc2008/KYN01/) where they introduce Azure that talks a lot about it. |
137,416 | I Googled and found [this page](https://www.prepressure.com/design/basics/bleed) about bleed. It says the following:
>
> The fact that content needs to extend beyond the page boundaries is no excuse for sloppy design. Letting images extend beyond the needed bleed clutters the file, can lead to bloated PDF files and simply looks sloppy.
>
>
>
Point taken that you shouldn't just leave large graphics unkempt and extended beyond the trim marks willy-nilly because that does seem to clutter the file and be sloppy; and I'm not entirely sure if a desktop publishing program actually cuts off graphics at the edge of its container (for example, in Adobe InDesign, placed images are contained within a bounding box which defines the visibility extent of the images) and embeds only those cuts in the PDF instead of the whole original graphics, but if that's what it does, then bloated PDFs may be a concern.
That being said, is it really necessary to spend time extending graphics *precisely* to the bleed marks? Would it be that big a deal if I extend graphics beyond the bleed a tiny bit, like say five milimetres or so? Adobe apps like InDesign or Illustrator actually crop out whatever is beyond the bleed mark anyway on exporting to a PDF, so is it really worth the trouble to be too concerned about bleed when placing graphics? Or is it a problem for other programs upon exporting to PDFs?
Here's a screenshot of a PDF page exported from InDesign. The original page in InDesign actually has a magenta rectangle extending beyond the bleed mark, but it's not visible at all here. The cyan rectangle was precisely extended to the bleed mark, and the yellow rectangle to the trim mark.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/kAUwS.png) | 2020/05/14 | [
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/questions/137416",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/users/83685/"
] | Objects extending past bleed marks are never *really* a problem. There's no such thing as "too much" bleed. Within reason of course. I mean a 6" bleed would be ridiculous unless it was requested.
However, it never hurts to keep cleanliness in mind while working. Much the same way you can't work effectively if there are 50 items scattered all over your desk, prepress is made easier if you show a little effort and keep files as clean as possible.
Most high-end apps will crop or truncate objects outside a bleed region. But not all will. And even if you don't *see* items outside the bleed area that does *not* mean those objects aren't still there and merely hidden via a mask. And extra content, visible or not, always increases file sizes (kb).
So while it's not imperative that everything stop *exactly* at the outer bleed area, it's not a bad idea to keep tidy files whenever possible. If cutting an object at the outer bleed areas mean the object *must* be manually altered (beyond merely adjusting an object frame), then it may be best to leave the additional object data so as to not alter the on-page, visible portion.
(Note this also goes for all those random things off the page on the pasteboard.... it doesn't hurt to remove all that working content *before* generating a press-ready PDF) | While keeping your files tidy is mostly just good craftsmanship (and courtesy when working with other people), there are some cases where it can prevent problems further down the road.
---
For example: **Spot colours**
If you place an "spot-coloured" object next to your page, some prepress-algorithms will flag your document for using more than 4c.
---
This quote by Steve Jobs might help:
*“When you’re a carpenter making a beautiful chest of drawers, you’re not going to use a piece of plywood on the back, even though it faces the wall and nobody will ever see it. You’ll know it’s there, so you’re going to use a beautiful piece of wood on the back. For you to sleep well at night, the aesthetic, the quality, has to be carried all the way through.”* ― Steve Jobs |
6,768,166 | I need to create a recursive method in java which checks two Char lists.
If the second list includes all the chars in the first list at least once and in the same order it should return true, else it should return false.
for example:
List 1: "abbcd"(every char in a node), List 2: "abbcccddd"(every char in node) This should return true.
Example 2: "abbcd", List 2: "abcd" this should return false.
I have some ideas but can't reach a definite solution.
Ideas anyone? | 2011/07/20 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/6768166",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/854745/"
] | I'll assume that you use the usual node structure with a data element and a reference to the next node. Then one can define the function as follows:
* contains(null, haystack) = true (since every string contains the empty string)
* contains(pattern, null) = false (since the empty string doesn't contain any patterns)
* contains(pattern, haystack) = contains(pattern.next, haystack.next) if pattern.data = haystack.data
(we found a match and proceed to the next item in both lists)
* contains(pattern, haystack) = contains(pattern.next, haystack.next) else (we found no match and try it with the next character in the haystack) | The *in order* requirement also simplifies the problem.
Consider that both lists are iterated over at the same time with slightly different advancing rules:
1. When is the list "to find" advanced to the next node?
2. When is the list which may contain the "to find" list advanced to the next node?
3. At what point is it determined that the "to find" list is not contained in the other?
4. At what point is a match determined?
5. How can it be done iterating each list? How can it be done recursively?
Happy coding. |
61,855,532 | Problem #1: Hello, so I messed up my Windows(while removing dual boot with ubuntu) once and it wouldn't start so I had to install using a flash drive, during installation I deleted the EFI partition and the free space is still there but windows made another EFI partition and now I have free space and then EFI partition for windows. How do I move it to that free space?[Image below RED]
Problem #2: I installed ubuntu again and I messed up with diskpart while moving my partitions and it accidentally deleted boot/efi/grub although I still get grub and it shows a bunch of options but nothing works and I had to manually change the boot order to windows so I can boot into windows and use my laptop. Now, the problem is how do I remove grub safely, also it still shows in disk management as healthy EFI partition - Image below GREEN.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/qS11B.jpg) | 2020/05/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/61855532",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/13424587/"
] | So, I solved this thing on my own. Here's how it goes - First of all the EFI partition I'm talking about in Problem #1 turns out that it's not EFI partition but it's Win Recovery Tools and I deleted them during my fresh windows install and the memory left before them, I merged it with my C drive using AOEMI partition tool and then for Problem #2- it's actually fairly simple -
1) Start Powershell with admin privileges.
2) write "diskpart"
3) write "list disk" and "sel disk #(disk number)"
4) write "list vol" and choose the volume with FAT32, it should be generally around ~100MB
5) write "ASSIGN LETTER=S:"
6)write "exit"
6) "cd /S"
7) "ls" and select "cd EFI"
8) "ls" and delete ubuntu by command "rm -r ubuntu"
And, that's it that will solve both my problems! | You can use disk partition software like partition magic that can help you remove the Linux partitions and make it unpartitioned space. Post making unpartioned format it as NTFS and it will be merged with windows.
You can use the free version of partition magic for this. |
354 | Regarding: [Sachin Tendulkar's bowling record](https://sports.stackexchange.com/questions/2632/sachin-tendulkars-bowling-record)
In said question, the following was omitted:
>
> Does the batting sensation hold any other such fascinating bowling records to his name?
>
>
>
As of the writing of this post, three close votes for "Too Localized" have been given (see: [Range of localization for Sports questions](https://sports.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/278/range-of-localization-for-sports-questions?rq=1)). Given that [`trivia`](https://sports.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/trivia) is [on-topic](https://sports.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/260/sports-trivia-evaluation) for Sports SE, its content should be [consistent](https://sports.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/339/consistency-in-trivia-content).
**Does said omission deserve a close vote for "Too Localized" or for any reason at all? Why or why not?** Also, is said omission "provoking" to anyone? | 2013/05/12 | [
"https://sports.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/354",
"https://sports.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://sports.meta.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | Here's why I initially tried to edit this into some semblance of order, and then ultimately decided I'd vote to close (I don't really care the reason, but TL fits here and I'll explain why).
First the merits of the question. This started out as a bad question, the line you quoted there was my main concern and I initially felt that editing that out might make this a serviceable question. It's (if cricket keeps records anywhere near as thoroughly as baseball does) answerable and it's not subjective at all (does x hold stat y).
However, and this is where a judgement call comes into play, asking about a single batter vs a single bowler is something akin to asking "has Roy Halliday struck out Albert Pujols more times than any other pitcher?" I'd immediately vote to close that as too localized because that's just not interesting to anyone other than the biggest trivia nut (and it's really not all that interesting in general). Single batter vs Single pitcher stats in baseball are basically meaningless because there is rarely a significant enough sample to make a judgment on. I don't know Cricket, but applying the same rules there seems reasonable. | Posting my comment from that question here:
If this question is too localized, I am not sure what would be the question you would ask in a Q&A forum for sports page. Localized was used as an option in SO to denote that the problem was very specific to the person who asked question and will not benefit anyone apart from him. I dont understand how can it be used here. OP is not talking about his personal record here to say that this is localized. It is a question about trivia and records.
I have also seen that many questions such as Hashim Amla's record of not getting out for a duck was asked before and it got many upvotes. So considering all these I dont think we can justify that.
Also I dont agree with removing this "Does the batting sensation hold any other such fascinating bowling records to his name?" from that question. OP is just asking if there are any other bowling records in a particular player's name. This can be reasonably answered by a Cricket lover if they know some unique feat of this player. I am not sure if there are any valid reasons for removing this as I cant think of anything. |
354 | Regarding: [Sachin Tendulkar's bowling record](https://sports.stackexchange.com/questions/2632/sachin-tendulkars-bowling-record)
In said question, the following was omitted:
>
> Does the batting sensation hold any other such fascinating bowling records to his name?
>
>
>
As of the writing of this post, three close votes for "Too Localized" have been given (see: [Range of localization for Sports questions](https://sports.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/278/range-of-localization-for-sports-questions?rq=1)). Given that [`trivia`](https://sports.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/trivia) is [on-topic](https://sports.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/260/sports-trivia-evaluation) for Sports SE, its content should be [consistent](https://sports.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/339/consistency-in-trivia-content).
**Does said omission deserve a close vote for "Too Localized" or for any reason at all? Why or why not?** Also, is said omission "provoking" to anyone? | 2013/05/12 | [
"https://sports.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/354",
"https://sports.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://sports.meta.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | Here's why I initially tried to edit this into some semblance of order, and then ultimately decided I'd vote to close (I don't really care the reason, but TL fits here and I'll explain why).
First the merits of the question. This started out as a bad question, the line you quoted there was my main concern and I initially felt that editing that out might make this a serviceable question. It's (if cricket keeps records anywhere near as thoroughly as baseball does) answerable and it's not subjective at all (does x hold stat y).
However, and this is where a judgement call comes into play, asking about a single batter vs a single bowler is something akin to asking "has Roy Halliday struck out Albert Pujols more times than any other pitcher?" I'd immediately vote to close that as too localized because that's just not interesting to anyone other than the biggest trivia nut (and it's really not all that interesting in general). Single batter vs Single pitcher stats in baseball are basically meaningless because there is rarely a significant enough sample to make a judgment on. I don't know Cricket, but applying the same rules there seems reasonable. | I voted to close. As edmastermind29 points out, this forms part of an ongoing discussion about how to handle 'trivia' questions and also 'statistics' questions. Some trivia/stats questions a good, and some are sufficiently poor as to warrant closure so as to not encourage more such poor questions. How could the distinction be clearly stated? I don't know, maybe it isn't possible. In the end it will come down to a judgement call.
To my mind, that question is too localised, since it is such an obscure, highly specific question that is unlikely to be asked again. The criteria for *any* question on a SE site is that the question and answers to it would form part of a useful archive of information. Good questions are not meant to be merely something to satisfy the momentary curiosity of the asker, they are meant to last as a record of information that people will want to know in the future. This is not a forum, this is a Q&A site.
More questions is not always better. For potential new users who stumble across this site, seeing lots of poor question such as that is NOT going to encourage them to stick around. |
77,736 | I've been taught that a *child* is gender-neutral noun. But in the textbook on linguistics I've been reading, the noun is used as feminine. For example, a sentence in the book goes like this:
>
> The child must also learn many aspects of grammar from her specific linguistic environment.
>
>
>
Is there an explanation for the use of the pronoun *her* instead of *its*? | 2016/01/03 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/77736",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/26564/"
] | English doesn’t have “grammatical” gender at all, not even for *he*, *she*, or *it*. The “gender” *he*, *she*, and *it* refer to the actual, real-world gender of the antecedent, not its grammatical gender. In general, one would use the word *she* for *child* because this particular child is female.
Even in cases such as this, where there is no actual person (or there are several people, in a mix of genders, and the text is referring to any one), the language still refers to the hypothetical “example person” as a person, with a gender. The pronouns used, therefore, reflect the gender of the example person. Again, this is not grammatical gender.
In the past, as a matter of convention, “the example person” was always male, and thus *he* was used as a pronoun for the example person. More recently, the example person will sometimes be written as female, that is, with *she*. Some authors will also use both roughly equally (though they can only switch when introducing a new example person; for clarity, any person who is supposed to be some consistent example individual could not switch genders).
The reason for this is simple: by having the example person consistently be male, you give the impression that all of the people involved are male. It has not always been clear when male was chosen by convention, or because the individual under discussion actually is expected to be male. Switching to female does not fix the ambiguity, but at least it makes things more even: by having *everything* use male examples, it gives the impression that men do *everything*.
Finally, *it* is not gender-neutral, it is the gender-specific pronoun for the neuter gender, that is, the gender of inanimate objects. It is almost-always inappropriate, if not exceedingly offensive, to refer to a person with *it* as it implies that he or she is not a person, or not even a living thing. | The word *child* is indeed gender-neutral. In fact, really English as a whole doesn't have grammatical gender. All that matters is the gender of the actual person that it is referring to.
If the child being referred to is a boy, then you use *he*. If the child is a girl, you use *she*.
If the writer is not really referring to a specific child (as in this example), then you have a problem. Traditionally, writers used the male *he*. In modern English, that implies that all children are male unless otherwise specified, which smacks of sexism. Some use the wordy *he or she*. Others use just *she*, as a sort of corrective to centuries of assuming maleness. Still others borrow *they* to refer to a single generic person.
Of course, it's also possible to rewrite the sentence in the plural. |
77,736 | I've been taught that a *child* is gender-neutral noun. But in the textbook on linguistics I've been reading, the noun is used as feminine. For example, a sentence in the book goes like this:
>
> The child must also learn many aspects of grammar from her specific linguistic environment.
>
>
>
Is there an explanation for the use of the pronoun *her* instead of *its*? | 2016/01/03 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/77736",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/26564/"
] | "Child" is, indeed, gender-neutral.
For a long time, "he" was considered to be both the male pronoun and the non-gender-specific pronoun (see [Wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/He#Gender_neutral)). An older text would talk about a child learning from his environment and it would be understood to mean that both male and female children do so. "They" has a [long history](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Singular_they) of use as a gender-neutral pronoun and is widely accepted, though some continue to insist that it is wrong. The use of "she" as a gender-neutral pronoun appears to be something of a backlash against the former use of "he"; it's quite common in modern writing.
[Wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gender-specific_and_gender-neutral_pronouns#It_and_one_as_gender-neutral_pronouns) notes that "it" is considered OK to refer to a child in situations where there's no emotional investment, especially in scientific contexts. Indeed, Wikipedia uses your very example as a case where it's reasonable to use "it". On the other hand, if I was talking about your child and said "Is it OK if I give it some candy?", you'd be fully justified in slapping me in the face or worse.
The least controversial situation is to just rephrase the sentence. For example, "they" is absolutely uncontroversially the gender-neutral *plural* pronoun, and the sentence you quote in your question seems to be talking about children in general, rather than a specific single child. Thus,
>
> Children must also learn many aspects of grammar from their specific linguistic environment.
>
>
>
(Or, if you prefer, "linguistic *environments*", since not all children have the same one.) | Child is not gender neutral, but it is gender normative. In modern English it is gender neutral, but it depends upon its use and more importantly it derives from kilþei a Gothic word for Womb. It entered Old English with a female gender moniker and retained it only until the onset of Modern English. Arguably, Child/Cild is thus feminine in gender reference especially within given contexts referencing pregnancy. While it has been made neuter through over usage.
This reflects the gender bias but gender normative nature of the word "guys". While masculine in nature and in its original usage, it has also gained a neutral usage. |
77,736 | I've been taught that a *child* is gender-neutral noun. But in the textbook on linguistics I've been reading, the noun is used as feminine. For example, a sentence in the book goes like this:
>
> The child must also learn many aspects of grammar from her specific linguistic environment.
>
>
>
Is there an explanation for the use of the pronoun *her* instead of *its*? | 2016/01/03 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/77736",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/26564/"
] | "Child" is, indeed, gender-neutral.
For a long time, "he" was considered to be both the male pronoun and the non-gender-specific pronoun (see [Wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/He#Gender_neutral)). An older text would talk about a child learning from his environment and it would be understood to mean that both male and female children do so. "They" has a [long history](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Singular_they) of use as a gender-neutral pronoun and is widely accepted, though some continue to insist that it is wrong. The use of "she" as a gender-neutral pronoun appears to be something of a backlash against the former use of "he"; it's quite common in modern writing.
[Wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gender-specific_and_gender-neutral_pronouns#It_and_one_as_gender-neutral_pronouns) notes that "it" is considered OK to refer to a child in situations where there's no emotional investment, especially in scientific contexts. Indeed, Wikipedia uses your very example as a case where it's reasonable to use "it". On the other hand, if I was talking about your child and said "Is it OK if I give it some candy?", you'd be fully justified in slapping me in the face or worse.
The least controversial situation is to just rephrase the sentence. For example, "they" is absolutely uncontroversially the gender-neutral *plural* pronoun, and the sentence you quote in your question seems to be talking about children in general, rather than a specific single child. Thus,
>
> Children must also learn many aspects of grammar from their specific linguistic environment.
>
>
>
(Or, if you prefer, "linguistic *environments*", since not all children have the same one.) | English doesn’t have “grammatical” gender at all, not even for *he*, *she*, or *it*. The “gender” *he*, *she*, and *it* refer to the actual, real-world gender of the antecedent, not its grammatical gender. In general, one would use the word *she* for *child* because this particular child is female.
Even in cases such as this, where there is no actual person (or there are several people, in a mix of genders, and the text is referring to any one), the language still refers to the hypothetical “example person” as a person, with a gender. The pronouns used, therefore, reflect the gender of the example person. Again, this is not grammatical gender.
In the past, as a matter of convention, “the example person” was always male, and thus *he* was used as a pronoun for the example person. More recently, the example person will sometimes be written as female, that is, with *she*. Some authors will also use both roughly equally (though they can only switch when introducing a new example person; for clarity, any person who is supposed to be some consistent example individual could not switch genders).
The reason for this is simple: by having the example person consistently be male, you give the impression that all of the people involved are male. It has not always been clear when male was chosen by convention, or because the individual under discussion actually is expected to be male. Switching to female does not fix the ambiguity, but at least it makes things more even: by having *everything* use male examples, it gives the impression that men do *everything*.
Finally, *it* is not gender-neutral, it is the gender-specific pronoun for the neuter gender, that is, the gender of inanimate objects. It is almost-always inappropriate, if not exceedingly offensive, to refer to a person with *it* as it implies that he or she is not a person, or not even a living thing. |
77,736 | I've been taught that a *child* is gender-neutral noun. But in the textbook on linguistics I've been reading, the noun is used as feminine. For example, a sentence in the book goes like this:
>
> The child must also learn many aspects of grammar from her specific linguistic environment.
>
>
>
Is there an explanation for the use of the pronoun *her* instead of *its*? | 2016/01/03 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/77736",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/26564/"
] | Child **is** gender neutral. As a result, when referring to a child, one must then choose a pronoun **he**, **she** or **they** when referring to the said child, as English does not have a gender neutral way of referring to that individual. This causes a problem for writers. Whatever you choose could be wrong.
Some would write **he**, but that sounds sexist and presumptive. Some write **they**, but this does not confirm the singular as it could refer to many. As an alternative some writers have taken to using **she** to balance those that historically have used the masculine form.
Other writers go to great lengths to avoid any of these forms by just rewriting the sentences completely.
Stack Exchange questions and answers have the same problem. Do we refer to a writer as **he**, **she**, **they**...? Whatever one chooses makes implications that it may not be correct.
We almost never use **it** or **its** to refer to a child, as this form is reserved for objects and not people and thus is considered to be demeaning. | Child is not gender neutral, but it is gender normative. In modern English it is gender neutral, but it depends upon its use and more importantly it derives from kilþei a Gothic word for Womb. It entered Old English with a female gender moniker and retained it only until the onset of Modern English. Arguably, Child/Cild is thus feminine in gender reference especially within given contexts referencing pregnancy. While it has been made neuter through over usage.
This reflects the gender bias but gender normative nature of the word "guys". While masculine in nature and in its original usage, it has also gained a neutral usage. |
77,736 | I've been taught that a *child* is gender-neutral noun. But in the textbook on linguistics I've been reading, the noun is used as feminine. For example, a sentence in the book goes like this:
>
> The child must also learn many aspects of grammar from her specific linguistic environment.
>
>
>
Is there an explanation for the use of the pronoun *her* instead of *its*? | 2016/01/03 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/77736",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/26564/"
] | The word *child* is indeed gender-neutral. In fact, really English as a whole doesn't have grammatical gender. All that matters is the gender of the actual person that it is referring to.
If the child being referred to is a boy, then you use *he*. If the child is a girl, you use *she*.
If the writer is not really referring to a specific child (as in this example), then you have a problem. Traditionally, writers used the male *he*. In modern English, that implies that all children are male unless otherwise specified, which smacks of sexism. Some use the wordy *he or she*. Others use just *she*, as a sort of corrective to centuries of assuming maleness. Still others borrow *they* to refer to a single generic person.
Of course, it's also possible to rewrite the sentence in the plural. | From historic perspective, `it` used to be an appropriate pronoun for a child.
<http://archive.boston.com/bostonglobe/ideas/articles/2008/09/28/a_girl_called_it/>
This is similar to other Germanic languages that have grammatical gender (which has degenerated in English except rare cases like ship-she), like German "das Kind" or Dutch "het kind".
Modern connotation of the neutral pronoun in American English seems to have changed as other responses note. |
77,736 | I've been taught that a *child* is gender-neutral noun. But in the textbook on linguistics I've been reading, the noun is used as feminine. For example, a sentence in the book goes like this:
>
> The child must also learn many aspects of grammar from her specific linguistic environment.
>
>
>
Is there an explanation for the use of the pronoun *her* instead of *its*? | 2016/01/03 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/77736",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/26564/"
] | From historic perspective, `it` used to be an appropriate pronoun for a child.
<http://archive.boston.com/bostonglobe/ideas/articles/2008/09/28/a_girl_called_it/>
This is similar to other Germanic languages that have grammatical gender (which has degenerated in English except rare cases like ship-she), like German "das Kind" or Dutch "het kind".
Modern connotation of the neutral pronoun in American English seems to have changed as other responses note. | Child is not gender neutral, but it is gender normative. In modern English it is gender neutral, but it depends upon its use and more importantly it derives from kilþei a Gothic word for Womb. It entered Old English with a female gender moniker and retained it only until the onset of Modern English. Arguably, Child/Cild is thus feminine in gender reference especially within given contexts referencing pregnancy. While it has been made neuter through over usage.
This reflects the gender bias but gender normative nature of the word "guys". While masculine in nature and in its original usage, it has also gained a neutral usage. |
77,736 | I've been taught that a *child* is gender-neutral noun. But in the textbook on linguistics I've been reading, the noun is used as feminine. For example, a sentence in the book goes like this:
>
> The child must also learn many aspects of grammar from her specific linguistic environment.
>
>
>
Is there an explanation for the use of the pronoun *her* instead of *its*? | 2016/01/03 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/77736",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/26564/"
] | "Child" is, indeed, gender-neutral.
For a long time, "he" was considered to be both the male pronoun and the non-gender-specific pronoun (see [Wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/He#Gender_neutral)). An older text would talk about a child learning from his environment and it would be understood to mean that both male and female children do so. "They" has a [long history](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Singular_they) of use as a gender-neutral pronoun and is widely accepted, though some continue to insist that it is wrong. The use of "she" as a gender-neutral pronoun appears to be something of a backlash against the former use of "he"; it's quite common in modern writing.
[Wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gender-specific_and_gender-neutral_pronouns#It_and_one_as_gender-neutral_pronouns) notes that "it" is considered OK to refer to a child in situations where there's no emotional investment, especially in scientific contexts. Indeed, Wikipedia uses your very example as a case where it's reasonable to use "it". On the other hand, if I was talking about your child and said "Is it OK if I give it some candy?", you'd be fully justified in slapping me in the face or worse.
The least controversial situation is to just rephrase the sentence. For example, "they" is absolutely uncontroversially the gender-neutral *plural* pronoun, and the sentence you quote in your question seems to be talking about children in general, rather than a specific single child. Thus,
>
> Children must also learn many aspects of grammar from their specific linguistic environment.
>
>
>
(Or, if you prefer, "linguistic *environments*", since not all children have the same one.) | The word *child* is indeed gender-neutral. In fact, really English as a whole doesn't have grammatical gender. All that matters is the gender of the actual person that it is referring to.
If the child being referred to is a boy, then you use *he*. If the child is a girl, you use *she*.
If the writer is not really referring to a specific child (as in this example), then you have a problem. Traditionally, writers used the male *he*. In modern English, that implies that all children are male unless otherwise specified, which smacks of sexism. Some use the wordy *he or she*. Others use just *she*, as a sort of corrective to centuries of assuming maleness. Still others borrow *they* to refer to a single generic person.
Of course, it's also possible to rewrite the sentence in the plural. |
77,736 | I've been taught that a *child* is gender-neutral noun. But in the textbook on linguistics I've been reading, the noun is used as feminine. For example, a sentence in the book goes like this:
>
> The child must also learn many aspects of grammar from her specific linguistic environment.
>
>
>
Is there an explanation for the use of the pronoun *her* instead of *its*? | 2016/01/03 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/77736",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/26564/"
] | Child **is** gender neutral. As a result, when referring to a child, one must then choose a pronoun **he**, **she** or **they** when referring to the said child, as English does not have a gender neutral way of referring to that individual. This causes a problem for writers. Whatever you choose could be wrong.
Some would write **he**, but that sounds sexist and presumptive. Some write **they**, but this does not confirm the singular as it could refer to many. As an alternative some writers have taken to using **she** to balance those that historically have used the masculine form.
Other writers go to great lengths to avoid any of these forms by just rewriting the sentences completely.
Stack Exchange questions and answers have the same problem. Do we refer to a writer as **he**, **she**, **they**...? Whatever one chooses makes implications that it may not be correct.
We almost never use **it** or **its** to refer to a child, as this form is reserved for objects and not people and thus is considered to be demeaning. | "Child" is, indeed, gender-neutral.
For a long time, "he" was considered to be both the male pronoun and the non-gender-specific pronoun (see [Wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/He#Gender_neutral)). An older text would talk about a child learning from his environment and it would be understood to mean that both male and female children do so. "They" has a [long history](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Singular_they) of use as a gender-neutral pronoun and is widely accepted, though some continue to insist that it is wrong. The use of "she" as a gender-neutral pronoun appears to be something of a backlash against the former use of "he"; it's quite common in modern writing.
[Wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gender-specific_and_gender-neutral_pronouns#It_and_one_as_gender-neutral_pronouns) notes that "it" is considered OK to refer to a child in situations where there's no emotional investment, especially in scientific contexts. Indeed, Wikipedia uses your very example as a case where it's reasonable to use "it". On the other hand, if I was talking about your child and said "Is it OK if I give it some candy?", you'd be fully justified in slapping me in the face or worse.
The least controversial situation is to just rephrase the sentence. For example, "they" is absolutely uncontroversially the gender-neutral *plural* pronoun, and the sentence you quote in your question seems to be talking about children in general, rather than a specific single child. Thus,
>
> Children must also learn many aspects of grammar from their specific linguistic environment.
>
>
>
(Or, if you prefer, "linguistic *environments*", since not all children have the same one.) |
77,736 | I've been taught that a *child* is gender-neutral noun. But in the textbook on linguistics I've been reading, the noun is used as feminine. For example, a sentence in the book goes like this:
>
> The child must also learn many aspects of grammar from her specific linguistic environment.
>
>
>
Is there an explanation for the use of the pronoun *her* instead of *its*? | 2016/01/03 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/77736",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/26564/"
] | English doesn’t have “grammatical” gender at all, not even for *he*, *she*, or *it*. The “gender” *he*, *she*, and *it* refer to the actual, real-world gender of the antecedent, not its grammatical gender. In general, one would use the word *she* for *child* because this particular child is female.
Even in cases such as this, where there is no actual person (or there are several people, in a mix of genders, and the text is referring to any one), the language still refers to the hypothetical “example person” as a person, with a gender. The pronouns used, therefore, reflect the gender of the example person. Again, this is not grammatical gender.
In the past, as a matter of convention, “the example person” was always male, and thus *he* was used as a pronoun for the example person. More recently, the example person will sometimes be written as female, that is, with *she*. Some authors will also use both roughly equally (though they can only switch when introducing a new example person; for clarity, any person who is supposed to be some consistent example individual could not switch genders).
The reason for this is simple: by having the example person consistently be male, you give the impression that all of the people involved are male. It has not always been clear when male was chosen by convention, or because the individual under discussion actually is expected to be male. Switching to female does not fix the ambiguity, but at least it makes things more even: by having *everything* use male examples, it gives the impression that men do *everything*.
Finally, *it* is not gender-neutral, it is the gender-specific pronoun for the neuter gender, that is, the gender of inanimate objects. It is almost-always inappropriate, if not exceedingly offensive, to refer to a person with *it* as it implies that he or she is not a person, or not even a living thing. | From historic perspective, `it` used to be an appropriate pronoun for a child.
<http://archive.boston.com/bostonglobe/ideas/articles/2008/09/28/a_girl_called_it/>
This is similar to other Germanic languages that have grammatical gender (which has degenerated in English except rare cases like ship-she), like German "das Kind" or Dutch "het kind".
Modern connotation of the neutral pronoun in American English seems to have changed as other responses note. |
77,736 | I've been taught that a *child* is gender-neutral noun. But in the textbook on linguistics I've been reading, the noun is used as feminine. For example, a sentence in the book goes like this:
>
> The child must also learn many aspects of grammar from her specific linguistic environment.
>
>
>
Is there an explanation for the use of the pronoun *her* instead of *its*? | 2016/01/03 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/77736",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/26564/"
] | Child **is** gender neutral. As a result, when referring to a child, one must then choose a pronoun **he**, **she** or **they** when referring to the said child, as English does not have a gender neutral way of referring to that individual. This causes a problem for writers. Whatever you choose could be wrong.
Some would write **he**, but that sounds sexist and presumptive. Some write **they**, but this does not confirm the singular as it could refer to many. As an alternative some writers have taken to using **she** to balance those that historically have used the masculine form.
Other writers go to great lengths to avoid any of these forms by just rewriting the sentences completely.
Stack Exchange questions and answers have the same problem. Do we refer to a writer as **he**, **she**, **they**...? Whatever one chooses makes implications that it may not be correct.
We almost never use **it** or **its** to refer to a child, as this form is reserved for objects and not people and thus is considered to be demeaning. | The word *child* is indeed gender-neutral. In fact, really English as a whole doesn't have grammatical gender. All that matters is the gender of the actual person that it is referring to.
If the child being referred to is a boy, then you use *he*. If the child is a girl, you use *she*.
If the writer is not really referring to a specific child (as in this example), then you have a problem. Traditionally, writers used the male *he*. In modern English, that implies that all children are male unless otherwise specified, which smacks of sexism. Some use the wordy *he or she*. Others use just *she*, as a sort of corrective to centuries of assuming maleness. Still others borrow *they* to refer to a single generic person.
Of course, it's also possible to rewrite the sentence in the plural. |
202,038 | Are there any benefits to removing unused using statements in a VS project (such as can be done using Resharper), or will VS automatically take care of that when building/deploying? | 2013/06/19 | [
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/202038",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/65774/"
] | There aren't any performance benefits, if that's what you mean.
All references in an assembly are fully qualified; the compiler merely uses the references you provide in your code to fully qualify identifiers, so the only impact of unused references in your source code is a slight decrease in readability (why is this reference here?), and a trivial increase in compile time.
To put it another way, the generated IL is exactly the same whether you remove the unused references or not. | Yes - I can think of two primary benefits:
1. Beyond its primary functional purpose (i.e. to reduce code verbosity), the 'Using' statement list at the top of a code file can tell future readers (especially those without Resharper) which namespaces are (or at least *were*) relevant to that code file. If you actively prune this list, it can act as a better signaling mechanism.
2. Removing unused namespaces will reduce the number of autocompletion candidates in your text editor as you type. If you rely on the autocompletion lists at all, this will help keep you "on the straight and narrow" and may even increase your typing speed, as you should be able to find your intended autocompletion candidate just a little bit faster. |
202,038 | Are there any benefits to removing unused using statements in a VS project (such as can be done using Resharper), or will VS automatically take care of that when building/deploying? | 2013/06/19 | [
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/202038",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/65774/"
] | There aren't any performance benefits, if that's what you mean.
All references in an assembly are fully qualified; the compiler merely uses the references you provide in your code to fully qualify identifiers, so the only impact of unused references in your source code is a slight decrease in readability (why is this reference here?), and a trivial increase in compile time.
To put it another way, the generated IL is exactly the same whether you remove the unused references or not. | Removing unused code, is just extra baggage and hard to measure the efficiencies gained.
* Removing unused code, brings down the compilation time, I am working on a project which takes anywhere from 15 to 20 minutes, there is tons of unused code. Eliminating unused code decreased the compile time to ~7 minutes. This makes a diff when there are many developers on the team, this saves everyone time to quickly build and test.
* If you have automated your build and unit tests, you have now removed unit tests you do not need. again this is reduced time taken to run unit tests. Just increased efficiency in your Continuous Build management process.
+ Unused code results in bigger foot print of your binaries. Having a smaller code foot print will reduce the time taken to load/start up initially. Though the gains may be very meager and subjective. |
202,038 | Are there any benefits to removing unused using statements in a VS project (such as can be done using Resharper), or will VS automatically take care of that when building/deploying? | 2013/06/19 | [
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/202038",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://softwareengineering.stackexchange.com/users/65774/"
] | Yes - I can think of two primary benefits:
1. Beyond its primary functional purpose (i.e. to reduce code verbosity), the 'Using' statement list at the top of a code file can tell future readers (especially those without Resharper) which namespaces are (or at least *were*) relevant to that code file. If you actively prune this list, it can act as a better signaling mechanism.
2. Removing unused namespaces will reduce the number of autocompletion candidates in your text editor as you type. If you rely on the autocompletion lists at all, this will help keep you "on the straight and narrow" and may even increase your typing speed, as you should be able to find your intended autocompletion candidate just a little bit faster. | Removing unused code, is just extra baggage and hard to measure the efficiencies gained.
* Removing unused code, brings down the compilation time, I am working on a project which takes anywhere from 15 to 20 minutes, there is tons of unused code. Eliminating unused code decreased the compile time to ~7 minutes. This makes a diff when there are many developers on the team, this saves everyone time to quickly build and test.
* If you have automated your build and unit tests, you have now removed unit tests you do not need. again this is reduced time taken to run unit tests. Just increased efficiency in your Continuous Build management process.
+ Unused code results in bigger foot print of your binaries. Having a smaller code foot print will reduce the time taken to load/start up initially. Though the gains may be very meager and subjective. |
150,326 | My spouse is self-employed and has significant expenses that he can write off, eg home office expenses. For him, itemized deductions makes total sense compared to standard.
I'm also working from home (remotely) but I'm an employee so apparently I can't claim home office expenses as deductions (weird). Therefore for me, itemized deductions make no sense compared to standard.
My income is much higher than my spouse's, so I'm guessing we will file jointly. It would make logical sense to me that we could add up the standard deduction for my income and the itemized deductions for his income to calculate our total deductions, but I'm not reading anywhere that this is a possibility: can someone please confirm that this is not possible? Any advice on what to do in our situation? Many thanks. | 2022/04/11 | [
"https://money.stackexchange.com/questions/150326",
"https://money.stackexchange.com",
"https://money.stackexchange.com/users/116595/"
] | The standard deduction for married filing jointly is 2x the standard deduction for filing single or married filing separately.
When filing jointly you either itemize or take the standard deduction jointly. Even if you filed separately, if one spouse itemized the other would have to too (well, they don't HAVE to but their standard deduction would be 0).
Self employment expenses are not itemized deductions, but instead offset business income, so itemized vs standard is likely a non-issue for you. If your spouse is new to self-employment it's worth doing a fair bit of research on what is/isn't deductible and/or leveraging a professional. | It is not possible. If you file separately, you have to both either itemize or not.
However, if your spouse is self-employed then their home-office deduction goes as an expense on their Schedule C, not as a deduction on schedule A. That should solve your problem. |
92,943 | Why Edge Split doesn't dynamically apply its functions through animation?
Using it as a tool (Mesh->Edges->Edge Split) allows you to manipulate each face independently. However Edge Split modifier doesn't work like that. Yes it still increase vertex count but doesn't actually split geometry, unless click *Apply* button.
**Setup:**
**1.** Hook is binded to the top face with Sharp edge surrounding
**2.** Split Edge modifier is splitting top face
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/GJMii.png)
**Now animated hook is trying to move it:** There is no visible split.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/p44lc.gif)
**After pressing** *Apply* **in Edge Split modifer:** Whole different picture
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/r3VCz.gif)
[](https://blend-exchange.giantcowfilms.com/b/4025/) | 2017/10/23 | [
"https://blender.stackexchange.com/questions/92943",
"https://blender.stackexchange.com",
"https://blender.stackexchange.com/users/29200/"
] | >
> so why it splits edges and at the same time keeps them connected
> before applying?
>
>
>
Edge split modifier actually split geometry. But you test this using wrong way. Try to add Susurf after Edge Split:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/JUrWv.png)
When you adding hooks it moves both arrays of vertex, that splitted by edge split modifier | Yes, I understood your problem but i suggest you to split the only desired face by this method:
1:Select
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/avO1Z.png)
2:Press Ctrl+E
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/1K2q1.png)
3: Click on Edge Split
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/vryR8.png)
And the results would be much better. By this only your desired face will be splitted as it also does not cause increase in unwanted geometery... |
87 | Regarding promoting the site and [the various ways to go about doing that](https://ux.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/85/what-options-do-we-have-to-promote-the-site-and-grow-its-user-base), are there any members of the UI industry whom we should approach for participation in StackExchagne UI? Do any of us know any of these people? I'm thinking not just of the Jeff Atwoods and Joel Spolsky's of UI, but of the Jon Skeets and Marc Gravells: people who might not be rock stars but *are* significant contributors to the field.
Let's post answers if we know someone and then someone else (possibly the same person) who wants to get in touch with that person can comment. It might be useful to describe the person so we know who they are and also what contribution they could make to our community. | 2010/08/24 | [
"https://ux.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/87",
"https://ux.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.meta.stackexchange.com/users/249/"
] | I contacted Michael Angeles, the UX designer of Balsamiq Mockups. He runs Konigi, a neat site that links to various tools and apps for UX designers. He wrote a blog post about StackExchange UI: <http://konigi.com/notebook/user-interface-stack-exchange> | I run a user group in the UK http:\www.nxtgenug.net, probably the most active in the UK, with a few thousand registrants... with 7 locations across the UK..... WIll promote there... |
87 | Regarding promoting the site and [the various ways to go about doing that](https://ux.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/85/what-options-do-we-have-to-promote-the-site-and-grow-its-user-base), are there any members of the UI industry whom we should approach for participation in StackExchagne UI? Do any of us know any of these people? I'm thinking not just of the Jeff Atwoods and Joel Spolsky's of UI, but of the Jon Skeets and Marc Gravells: people who might not be rock stars but *are* significant contributors to the field.
Let's post answers if we know someone and then someone else (possibly the same person) who wants to get in touch with that person can comment. It might be useful to describe the person so we know who they are and also what contribution they could make to our community. | 2010/08/24 | [
"https://ux.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/87",
"https://ux.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.meta.stackexchange.com/users/249/"
] | I contacted Michael Angeles, the UX designer of Balsamiq Mockups. He runs Konigi, a neat site that links to various tools and apps for UX designers. He wrote a blog post about StackExchange UI: <http://konigi.com/notebook/user-interface-stack-exchange> | Why don't we start a Twitter account that automatically tweets the latest questions? All we need to do is create an account and then set up [TwitterFeed](http://twitterfeed.com/). Then we can promote the account. |
87 | Regarding promoting the site and [the various ways to go about doing that](https://ux.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/85/what-options-do-we-have-to-promote-the-site-and-grow-its-user-base), are there any members of the UI industry whom we should approach for participation in StackExchagne UI? Do any of us know any of these people? I'm thinking not just of the Jeff Atwoods and Joel Spolsky's of UI, but of the Jon Skeets and Marc Gravells: people who might not be rock stars but *are* significant contributors to the field.
Let's post answers if we know someone and then someone else (possibly the same person) who wants to get in touch with that person can comment. It might be useful to describe the person so we know who they are and also what contribution they could make to our community. | 2010/08/24 | [
"https://ux.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/87",
"https://ux.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.meta.stackexchange.com/users/249/"
] | I sent an email a couple of weeks ago to Don Norman, who I've had a few email exchanges with in the past, acknowledging that this is not his area, but also asking him to pass it on to Jakob Nielson, Tog and the rest of the NNG. He had a look and agreed that it was a good thing to be doing, and passed it on. | I run a user group in the UK http:\www.nxtgenug.net, probably the most active in the UK, with a few thousand registrants... with 7 locations across the UK..... WIll promote there... |
87 | Regarding promoting the site and [the various ways to go about doing that](https://ux.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/85/what-options-do-we-have-to-promote-the-site-and-grow-its-user-base), are there any members of the UI industry whom we should approach for participation in StackExchagne UI? Do any of us know any of these people? I'm thinking not just of the Jeff Atwoods and Joel Spolsky's of UI, but of the Jon Skeets and Marc Gravells: people who might not be rock stars but *are* significant contributors to the field.
Let's post answers if we know someone and then someone else (possibly the same person) who wants to get in touch with that person can comment. It might be useful to describe the person so we know who they are and also what contribution they could make to our community. | 2010/08/24 | [
"https://ux.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/87",
"https://ux.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.meta.stackexchange.com/users/249/"
] | I sent an email a couple of weeks ago to Don Norman, who I've had a few email exchanges with in the past, acknowledging that this is not his area, but also asking him to pass it on to Jakob Nielson, Tog and the rest of the NNG. He had a look and agreed that it was a good thing to be doing, and passed it on. | Why don't we start a Twitter account that automatically tweets the latest questions? All we need to do is create an account and then set up [TwitterFeed](http://twitterfeed.com/). Then we can promote the account. |
87 | Regarding promoting the site and [the various ways to go about doing that](https://ux.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/85/what-options-do-we-have-to-promote-the-site-and-grow-its-user-base), are there any members of the UI industry whom we should approach for participation in StackExchagne UI? Do any of us know any of these people? I'm thinking not just of the Jeff Atwoods and Joel Spolsky's of UI, but of the Jon Skeets and Marc Gravells: people who might not be rock stars but *are* significant contributors to the field.
Let's post answers if we know someone and then someone else (possibly the same person) who wants to get in touch with that person can comment. It might be useful to describe the person so we know who they are and also what contribution they could make to our community. | 2010/08/24 | [
"https://ux.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/87",
"https://ux.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.meta.stackexchange.com/users/249/"
] | I run a user group in the UK http:\www.nxtgenug.net, probably the most active in the UK, with a few thousand registrants... with 7 locations across the UK..... WIll promote there... | Why don't we start a Twitter account that automatically tweets the latest questions? All we need to do is create an account and then set up [TwitterFeed](http://twitterfeed.com/). Then we can promote the account. |
222,818 | I read this short fiction about 10-15 years ago but of course it might have been written long before, I don't remember what collection it was in.
It was about a short novelette length, maybe technically still a "short story" but not a short-short one.
The main character is a woman physicist, specialist in quantum mechanics. She attends a big scientific conference. There she meets another QM physicist, a man, whom she met already at one (or more) similar conferences and had, at that time expressed his romantic interest in her, very nicely and politely, but she had declined. And she keeps declining when he expresses it again. Note that though he is **persistent** he is never **harassing** her, always very nice and polite. Still, in order not to pain him, she tries to avoid him. It is a big conference, with parallel talks at the same time. Also there are lots of various restaurants around, and various things to do during recesses. But though she tries to make decisions at the last moment so he cannot know what talk, restaurant or whatever she chooses, whenever there is a choice, he is always there when she arrives. But it is not through spying, it does not look like "magic" in a "fantasy story", nor some kind of SF "mind reading". No, the writer manages to convey the idea that they are like "[quantum entangled particles](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Quantum_entanglement)."
It is really very well done. In the end, she finally admits to herself that she really is attracted to the guy and all's well that ends well.
When I read it, I knew of course whether the author was a man or a woman, but now I forgot the author's name. However, I **think** that at that time I thought that indeed, only a woman could have written that. But this might be a false, fabricated memory.
In answer to some remarks below
* It was definitely in an SF collection. As user14111 pointed out, that seems to me a good definition of a SF story.
* The man never used the expression "entangled particles". It is the reader who comes to this conclusion due to clues the author gives. The titles of the talks to which they attend, things like that.
* Also, the man definitely does not harass the woman. He does not follow her. She goes someplace at random, and just bumps into him, he was there already.
* @ Invisible Trihedron *Bellwether* is a novel, and my story is not that long, though it might be technically a novelette, I don't remember exactly enough. But Connie Willis, that rings a bell. She **is** a woman, in particular. However, even if it is by her (and I am not sure) she wrote so many stories... Another suggestion ? | 2019/11/09 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/222818",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/115682/"
] | Possibly the novelette [At the Rialto](https://www.isfdb.org/cgi-bin/title.cgi?41639) by Connie Willis. I read it in the anthology [Impossible Things](https://www.isfdb.org/cgi-bin/pl.cgi?17916).
The physicist is Dr. Ruth Baringer and the man she keeps bumping into is just referred to as *David* - we never learn his surname. The story is as you describe, though as with many of Connie Willis's short stories it is complicated and I have to confess I'm not sure I understand it. Much of the action is set at the hotel called The Rialto where the conference is taking place.
The story is interspersed with titles of talks from the conference e.g.
>
> Thursday, 7:30–9 P.M. Opening Ceremonies. Dr. Halvard Onofrio, University of Maryland at College Park, will speak on the topic, “Doubts Surrounding the Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle.” Ballroom
>
>
>
and:
>
> Thursday, 9–10 P.M. “The Science of Chaos.” I. Durcheinander, University of Leipzig. A seminar on the structure of chaos. Principles of chaos will be discussed, including the Butterfly Effect, fractals, and insolid billowing. Clara Bow Room.
>
>
>
There is also a mysterious character called Dr. Gedanken whose whereabouts no-one seems to know. The story ends at Graumann's Theatre:
>
> I looked up at the marquee. Benji IX was showing in all three theaters, the huge main theater and the two smaller ones on either side. “They’re doing audience-reaction surveys,” Kimberly said. “Each theater has a different ending.”
>
>
> “Which one’s in the main theater?”
>
>
> “I don’t know. I just work here part-time to pay for my organic breathing lessons.”
>
>
> “Do you have any dice?” I asked, and then realized I was going about this all wrong. This was quantum theory, not Newtonian. It didn’t matter which theater I chose or which seat I sat down in. This was a delayed-choice experiment, and David was already in flight.
>
>
> | Could it be this one? I don't know if it matches your plot description, as I haven't read it and would prefer not to, unless it's absolutely necessary.
["Entangled Eyes Are Smiling"](https://www.isfdb.org/cgi-bin/title.cgi?301541), a novelette by [John Meaney](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/John_Meaney), published in [*Interzone* #190, July–August 2003](https://www.isfdb.org/cgi-bin/pl.cgi?116031), available at the [Internet Archive](https://archive.org/stream/Interzone_190_2003-07-08#page/n5/mode/1up).
>
> The link between **quantum-entangled particles** can be surprisingly robust. That mystic, time-denying bond survives all sorts of attempts to separate the particles' states. Ram one half of the pair through a solid metal sheet: still the couple remain as one.
>
>
> Is this the basis of true love? Breathing in a lover's spawned particles? Or something deeper, a process which reaches beneath the normal layers of reality?
>
>
> Or perhaps it is not quantum, but a higher-level pairing, an emergent resonance between two complex neural structures: the standing wave of love.
>
>
> "Jack!"
>
>
> Up ahead, a slim form was waving at me.
>
>
> "Over here!"
>
>
> I called back a greeting:
>
>
> "Hello, Maddie."
>
>
> As I drew closer, I saw something strange: not a fiery link, but a brief sputtering evanescence, like a fire trying to start.
>
>
> Sapphire sparks, just for a moment, scintillated in her eyes.
>
>
> "I just spotted you. I was out shopping."
>
>
> |
650,482 | Anyone using colorjack? Someone here on SO mentioned it the other day, so I checked it out. It is a really slick tool, but I am having a hard time figuring out how it is used?
<http://www.colorjack.com/sphere/>
I do all web development using asp.net, and my strength is in back-end programming but I'd love to beef up my design skills, and it seems like colorjack might be helpful, but I am not grasping how it should be best used...there is very little guidance on the website.
Do you use it? At what stage? How does it fit in to your web design toolbox?
edit: if not colorjack, but you use another similar tool, same question applies - where does it fit in? | 2009/03/16 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/650482",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/53686/"
] | Colorjack is a color scheme generator.
Is useful if you want to find quickly a nice color scheme for your user interface. It is based on color theory: schemes can be analogous, complementary, triadic, tetradic and so on...
It also has the useful function to simulate how the generated color schemes are seen by people with some view limitation (protanopia, tritanopia and so on...).
It gives you the possibility to export your color scheme in a format compatible with illustrator, photoshop and other programs for graphic designers. | Tools like colorjack are used to help you pick a color scheme for your design. There are many methods people have devised to pick a group of colors that will look good together, based on different aspects of [color theory](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Color_theory). I found this short [article](http://www.colorjack.com/articles/color_formulas.html) on the Colorjack blog that describes some of the ways you could pick a color scheme and the relative merits of each.
You usually use the color scheme generated by a tool like this as a starting point, but you may end up customizing or tweaking it to your specific needs. |
650,482 | Anyone using colorjack? Someone here on SO mentioned it the other day, so I checked it out. It is a really slick tool, but I am having a hard time figuring out how it is used?
<http://www.colorjack.com/sphere/>
I do all web development using asp.net, and my strength is in back-end programming but I'd love to beef up my design skills, and it seems like colorjack might be helpful, but I am not grasping how it should be best used...there is very little guidance on the website.
Do you use it? At what stage? How does it fit in to your web design toolbox?
edit: if not colorjack, but you use another similar tool, same question applies - where does it fit in? | 2009/03/16 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/650482",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/53686/"
] | Colorjack is a color scheme generator.
Is useful if you want to find quickly a nice color scheme for your user interface. It is based on color theory: schemes can be analogous, complementary, triadic, tetradic and so on...
It also has the useful function to simulate how the generated color schemes are seen by people with some view limitation (protanopia, tritanopia and so on...).
It gives you the possibility to export your color scheme in a format compatible with illustrator, photoshop and other programs for graphic designers. | Adobe has a Flash/Flex version of something very similar called [Kuler](http://kuler.adobe.com). |
650,482 | Anyone using colorjack? Someone here on SO mentioned it the other day, so I checked it out. It is a really slick tool, but I am having a hard time figuring out how it is used?
<http://www.colorjack.com/sphere/>
I do all web development using asp.net, and my strength is in back-end programming but I'd love to beef up my design skills, and it seems like colorjack might be helpful, but I am not grasping how it should be best used...there is very little guidance on the website.
Do you use it? At what stage? How does it fit in to your web design toolbox?
edit: if not colorjack, but you use another similar tool, same question applies - where does it fit in? | 2009/03/16 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/650482",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/53686/"
] | Colorjack is a color scheme generator.
Is useful if you want to find quickly a nice color scheme for your user interface. It is based on color theory: schemes can be analogous, complementary, triadic, tetradic and so on...
It also has the useful function to simulate how the generated color schemes are seen by people with some view limitation (protanopia, tritanopia and so on...).
It gives you the possibility to export your color scheme in a format compatible with illustrator, photoshop and other programs for graphic designers. | [COLOURlovers](http://www.colourlovers.com/) is also a good resource. |
650,482 | Anyone using colorjack? Someone here on SO mentioned it the other day, so I checked it out. It is a really slick tool, but I am having a hard time figuring out how it is used?
<http://www.colorjack.com/sphere/>
I do all web development using asp.net, and my strength is in back-end programming but I'd love to beef up my design skills, and it seems like colorjack might be helpful, but I am not grasping how it should be best used...there is very little guidance on the website.
Do you use it? At what stage? How does it fit in to your web design toolbox?
edit: if not colorjack, but you use another similar tool, same question applies - where does it fit in? | 2009/03/16 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/650482",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/53686/"
] | Tools like colorjack are used to help you pick a color scheme for your design. There are many methods people have devised to pick a group of colors that will look good together, based on different aspects of [color theory](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Color_theory). I found this short [article](http://www.colorjack.com/articles/color_formulas.html) on the Colorjack blog that describes some of the ways you could pick a color scheme and the relative merits of each.
You usually use the color scheme generated by a tool like this as a starting point, but you may end up customizing or tweaking it to your specific needs. | Adobe has a Flash/Flex version of something very similar called [Kuler](http://kuler.adobe.com). |
650,482 | Anyone using colorjack? Someone here on SO mentioned it the other day, so I checked it out. It is a really slick tool, but I am having a hard time figuring out how it is used?
<http://www.colorjack.com/sphere/>
I do all web development using asp.net, and my strength is in back-end programming but I'd love to beef up my design skills, and it seems like colorjack might be helpful, but I am not grasping how it should be best used...there is very little guidance on the website.
Do you use it? At what stage? How does it fit in to your web design toolbox?
edit: if not colorjack, but you use another similar tool, same question applies - where does it fit in? | 2009/03/16 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/650482",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/53686/"
] | [COLOURlovers](http://www.colourlovers.com/) is also a good resource. | Adobe has a Flash/Flex version of something very similar called [Kuler](http://kuler.adobe.com). |
5,909,292 | I need to get current account balance sim card programatically. Any ideas? | 2011/05/06 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5909292",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1932241/"
] | There is no API to access that sort of information from the SIM card in Android, sorry. You may wish to contact the mobile carrier for advice. | Even if there is some technique to get data from sim card , it simply cant word ... because thr is no dedicated field for balance in a sim card ....
bt if some how you cat trace d service provider , den a possible approach can be 2 create a hashmap for main service provider's vs related number for balance inquiry => sms/call to this number => get response . |
40,467,151 | According to [the GraphDB documentation](http://graphdb.ontotext.com/documentation/free/using-graphdb-with-the-sesame-api.html), it is possible to program against its underlying RDF4J database directly. It goes against my intuition that the same database files can concurrently be accessed by two separate applications. Is this handled correctly, including concurrent writes?
I believe GraphDB uses an older Sesame 2.9 version. Has the file format changed with the latest RDF4J 2.1 version? Or do I need to use this older Sesame version instead?
I assume, if all the above is correct, that there is a big performance bonus compared with HTTP connectivity. Are there any test results available to back this? | 2016/11/07 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/40467151",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1466126/"
] | I think there is a bit of confusion here. GraphDB does not have an "underlying RDF4J/Sesame database". It's actually the other way around: RDF4J/Sesame provides a standardized Java access API for RDF databases, and GraphDB is an implementation of this API.
You can programmatically access a GraphDB store using the Sesame APIs, as explained in the GraphDB Documentation. Sesame provides ways to access a local database (embedded in your own application) or a remote database (accessible via HTTP). As you correctly surmised, you can not access a database locally with multiple applications - if more than one application needs access, you should have both applications access the database via HTTP (or have one application talk directly to the other application, but that requires a lot of custom coding).
As for Sesame 2.9 vs RDF4J, as @ChristophE correctly pointed out, there are some differences (see the [migration guide](http://docs.rdf4j.org/migration) for details), so your version of GraphDB probably will not yet work with RDF4J. However the next upcoming release of GraphDB will have support for RDF4J.
As for performance: naturally, communication over HTTP incurs a performance penalty when compared to direct access. I don't have exact figures for you, I'm afraid. However both Sesame/RDF4J itself, as well as GraphdB, have been engineered to minimize this penalty as much as possible, so it's not *quite* as bad as you might think. | >
> I believe GraphDB uses an older Sesame 2.9 version. Has the file
> format changed with the latest RDF4J 2.1 version? Or do I need to use
> this older Sesame version instead?
>
>
>
Sesame 2.9 still uses Java 7, Sesame 4 and RDF4J use Java 8
The file format did not change but the programming API changed quite a bit between Sesame2 and 4 so if GraphDB really uses sesame 2.9 than you need to use the same version.
for more info see also <http://docs.rdf4j.org/migration/> |
2,494 | I'm currently trying to do the [Stronglifts 5x5](http://www.stronglifts.com) weight training program *and* the [Couch to 5k](http://www.coolrunning.com/engine/2/2_3/181.shtml) running program at the same time. I'm finding it hard to find time for both, especially with adequate rest. My experience tells that if I work out hard every day, or close to it, my immune system suffers and I get sick within 2 weeks.
Both the Stronglifts and the Couch to 5k programs prescribe 3 workouts per week. I'd like to change that to 3 days of Stronglifts, 2 days of Couch to 5k, and 2 days of doing nothing. I know theoretically that I could run and lift weights on the same day, but I haven't found that to be practical.
My question is: **Can I do Couch to 5k (or any running program really) 2 days per week and still get good results?** What is the minimum running frequency to achieve the desired results? Obviously progress would be slower, but would I still get there? | 2011/06/14 | [
"https://fitness.stackexchange.com/questions/2494",
"https://fitness.stackexchange.com",
"https://fitness.stackexchange.com/users/323/"
] | You're right, you should still get results, albeit slower.
However, you might consider lifting twice and running three times a week rather than the other way around. Given enough intensity (and proper rest), it is easy enough to see progress with lifting on just two sessions a week.
Or you might switch between blocks with focus on lifting (3xlift 2xrun) and focus on running (3xrun 2xlift). 2-4 weeks would be a good length for such a block. | I think you could do a running program consisting of 2 runs a weeks and still achieve "good results".
One run should focus on a shorter and faster effort after a nice brisk warm up walk. And the other run should focus on a longer and slower effort after a nice brisk warm up. The shorter run should be closer to your 5K pace goal. The longer effort could be as much as 3:00/mile slower than your 5k goal.
Make sure you do a nice ~10 minute brisk walk before running and a nice cool down session afterwards. And, please don't increase your mileage/time/effort running by more than 10% each week. |
166,576 | I'm setting up an offsite DR facility on a budget. The office has 2 ADSL lines coming in to identical router/modem devices.
I'm looking for a cost effective (cheap) way of joining the two connections so that the network only sees one link to the outside world.
Primarily I'm looking for ADSL failover as opposed to load balancing and bonding but if the solution does all theree then that's fine.
Is anyone aware of a device that does this, or alternatively software that could be installed on a PC with multiple NIC's to manage this sort of thing?
Thanks in advance. | 2010/08/03 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/166576",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/2277/"
] | Get a DrayTek 2955
<http://draytek.co.uk/products/vigor2955.html>
Loads of feature for a one time price only | I have a [Syswan SW24](http://www.syswan.com/sw24_overview.htm) that I use for WAN failover and it works pretty well. I suspect the firmware has a memory leak because if I leave a bittorrent client running over the weekend, it'll lock up, but otherwise it runs for months without reboot given typical office usage.
[pfsense](http://www.pfsense.com/), among other software options, does this, too. |
166,576 | I'm setting up an offsite DR facility on a budget. The office has 2 ADSL lines coming in to identical router/modem devices.
I'm looking for a cost effective (cheap) way of joining the two connections so that the network only sees one link to the outside world.
Primarily I'm looking for ADSL failover as opposed to load balancing and bonding but if the solution does all theree then that's fine.
Is anyone aware of a device that does this, or alternatively software that could be installed on a PC with multiple NIC's to manage this sort of thing?
Thanks in advance. | 2010/08/03 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/166576",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/2277/"
] | You can install OpenBSD on old PC and use [CARP](http://www.openbsd.org/faq/pf/carp.html) (as Warner mentioned) or [uCARP](http://www.ucarp.org/project/ucarp) (for non-OpenBSD :).
<http://meinit.nl/openbsd-loadbalancing-and-failover-relayd-pf-and-carp>
I wanted to use two ADSL lines a year ago but provider dropped prices so I didn't accomplished this. | I have a [Syswan SW24](http://www.syswan.com/sw24_overview.htm) that I use for WAN failover and it works pretty well. I suspect the firmware has a memory leak because if I leave a bittorrent client running over the weekend, it'll lock up, but otherwise it runs for months without reboot given typical office usage.
[pfsense](http://www.pfsense.com/), among other software options, does this, too. |
166,576 | I'm setting up an offsite DR facility on a budget. The office has 2 ADSL lines coming in to identical router/modem devices.
I'm looking for a cost effective (cheap) way of joining the two connections so that the network only sees one link to the outside world.
Primarily I'm looking for ADSL failover as opposed to load balancing and bonding but if the solution does all theree then that's fine.
Is anyone aware of a device that does this, or alternatively software that could be installed on a PC with multiple NIC's to manage this sort of thing?
Thanks in advance. | 2010/08/03 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/166576",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/2277/"
] | Get a DrayTek 2955
<http://draytek.co.uk/products/vigor2955.html>
Loads of feature for a one time price only | You are best off focusing on network protocols for your type of implementation.
Typically [Border Gateway Protocol](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Border_Gateway_Protocol) (BGP) is among the ideal solution for managing dynamic network routing but this is unlikely an option with your DSL connections. Nevertheless, this would be the first choice for different types of Internet connections.
Be aware of single points of failure. A single switch, cabling, all interfaces, and devices that are shared between your two connections. Consider all failure points and types of failure to eliminate risk where possible.
[HSRP](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hot_Standby_Router_Protocol) would be among your potential solutions. HSRP is a Cisco protocol but there are alternative implementations that can be implemented on Open Source operating systems, such as [CARP](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Common_Address_Redundancy_Protocol) or [VRRP](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Virtual_Router_Redundancy_Protocol). You would want to track both the internal and external interfaces to attempt to mitigate a single point failing without failover. |
166,576 | I'm setting up an offsite DR facility on a budget. The office has 2 ADSL lines coming in to identical router/modem devices.
I'm looking for a cost effective (cheap) way of joining the two connections so that the network only sees one link to the outside world.
Primarily I'm looking for ADSL failover as opposed to load balancing and bonding but if the solution does all theree then that's fine.
Is anyone aware of a device that does this, or alternatively software that could be installed on a PC with multiple NIC's to manage this sort of thing?
Thanks in advance. | 2010/08/03 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/166576",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/2277/"
] | Get a DrayTek 2955
<http://draytek.co.uk/products/vigor2955.html>
Loads of feature for a one time price only | Have a look at Endian Community firewall. It allows multiple connections to be setup with failover. It's free, and also a solid firewall/proxy too.
[Endian - Secure everyThing](http://www.endian.org)
Download the ISO and install on any old bit of hardware with multiple NICs. |
166,576 | I'm setting up an offsite DR facility on a budget. The office has 2 ADSL lines coming in to identical router/modem devices.
I'm looking for a cost effective (cheap) way of joining the two connections so that the network only sees one link to the outside world.
Primarily I'm looking for ADSL failover as opposed to load balancing and bonding but if the solution does all theree then that's fine.
Is anyone aware of a device that does this, or alternatively software that could be installed on a PC with multiple NIC's to manage this sort of thing?
Thanks in advance. | 2010/08/03 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/166576",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/2277/"
] | Get a DrayTek 2955
<http://draytek.co.uk/products/vigor2955.html>
Loads of feature for a one time price only | You can install OpenBSD on old PC and use [CARP](http://www.openbsd.org/faq/pf/carp.html) (as Warner mentioned) or [uCARP](http://www.ucarp.org/project/ucarp) (for non-OpenBSD :).
<http://meinit.nl/openbsd-loadbalancing-and-failover-relayd-pf-and-carp>
I wanted to use two ADSL lines a year ago but provider dropped prices so I didn't accomplished this. |
166,576 | I'm setting up an offsite DR facility on a budget. The office has 2 ADSL lines coming in to identical router/modem devices.
I'm looking for a cost effective (cheap) way of joining the two connections so that the network only sees one link to the outside world.
Primarily I'm looking for ADSL failover as opposed to load balancing and bonding but if the solution does all theree then that's fine.
Is anyone aware of a device that does this, or alternatively software that could be installed on a PC with multiple NIC's to manage this sort of thing?
Thanks in advance. | 2010/08/03 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/166576",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/2277/"
] | You can install OpenBSD on old PC and use [CARP](http://www.openbsd.org/faq/pf/carp.html) (as Warner mentioned) or [uCARP](http://www.ucarp.org/project/ucarp) (for non-OpenBSD :).
<http://meinit.nl/openbsd-loadbalancing-and-failover-relayd-pf-and-carp>
I wanted to use two ADSL lines a year ago but provider dropped prices so I didn't accomplished this. | You are best off focusing on network protocols for your type of implementation.
Typically [Border Gateway Protocol](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Border_Gateway_Protocol) (BGP) is among the ideal solution for managing dynamic network routing but this is unlikely an option with your DSL connections. Nevertheless, this would be the first choice for different types of Internet connections.
Be aware of single points of failure. A single switch, cabling, all interfaces, and devices that are shared between your two connections. Consider all failure points and types of failure to eliminate risk where possible.
[HSRP](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hot_Standby_Router_Protocol) would be among your potential solutions. HSRP is a Cisco protocol but there are alternative implementations that can be implemented on Open Source operating systems, such as [CARP](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Common_Address_Redundancy_Protocol) or [VRRP](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Virtual_Router_Redundancy_Protocol). You would want to track both the internal and external interfaces to attempt to mitigate a single point failing without failover. |
166,576 | I'm setting up an offsite DR facility on a budget. The office has 2 ADSL lines coming in to identical router/modem devices.
I'm looking for a cost effective (cheap) way of joining the two connections so that the network only sees one link to the outside world.
Primarily I'm looking for ADSL failover as opposed to load balancing and bonding but if the solution does all theree then that's fine.
Is anyone aware of a device that does this, or alternatively software that could be installed on a PC with multiple NIC's to manage this sort of thing?
Thanks in advance. | 2010/08/03 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/166576",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/2277/"
] | You can install OpenBSD on old PC and use [CARP](http://www.openbsd.org/faq/pf/carp.html) (as Warner mentioned) or [uCARP](http://www.ucarp.org/project/ucarp) (for non-OpenBSD :).
<http://meinit.nl/openbsd-loadbalancing-and-failover-relayd-pf-and-carp>
I wanted to use two ADSL lines a year ago but provider dropped prices so I didn't accomplished this. | Have a look at Endian Community firewall. It allows multiple connections to be setup with failover. It's free, and also a solid firewall/proxy too.
[Endian - Secure everyThing](http://www.endian.org)
Download the ISO and install on any old bit of hardware with multiple NICs. |
234,656 | I am trying to understand how exactly the voltage from a 1.5 V battery gets connected to a 1000+ V capacitor inside these disposable cameras. Is there a specific chip designed to act as a voltage amplifier and diode or do capacitors act as a sponge of sorts and directly connecting them to lower power sources allow for saturation?
After previous answers I have more questions.
1. you state the current is transformed to AC with a transistor\* embedded in the chip. Does this mean I could get the same result with a suitable market transistor
(and other components\*)?
As my direct intentions for the hack are to use an increased voltage supply to drive a motor from a smaller set of cells (18650 to be exact) and I am aware that power is always lost during any conversion, would it maybe be best to use an AC motor such as a furnace fan I have rather than the 12 V scooter motor I intended to use?
Assuming I were to go with the AC alternative I would presume I would substantially be building an inverter, while I have had trouble with these being limited in their output to under 100 W, I suspect this may be mostly due to compenent costs and limits to ensure certain commercial safety ranges for delicate electronics's safety, as the whole point of this circuit will be to drive a motor some of those parts may be omitted?
I have APX30 18650 cells at my disposal and I prefer to keep them in smaller banks of 2-4 cells per set. I have an Arduino with relays I could use to switch banks.
What would be the easiest method (i.e. specific parts and general wiring preferred) to deliver the energy to get this motor running as well as possible?
Particularly, as I believe the fan motor calls for something like 20 A, I would presume I may need multiple transistors in parallel. If so, would I then need to bridge one of the legs on each to ensure they are all switched at the same time to the same phase, or would it need to be more complicated than that?
The intent is to build a motorized cart from bikes and other materials. | 2016/05/17 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/234656",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/110296/"
] | Its not even a chip - its a single transistor oscillator.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/MiUXN.png)
Here's a fairly typical circuit. Q1 (NPN BJT) forms an oscillator with T1,R1 and C1. (If you listen carefully you can usually hear its high frequency whine).
The primary of T1 is 6 turns, the output is 1750 with a feedback tapping of 15 turns. In otherwords a step up transformer. This high voltage AC is then converted to DC by D1 and used to charge up C2. After several seconds the voltage across C2 is high enough and triggers the small neon indicator (ready light). The other (trigger) coil produces a very short high voltage pulse for the flash tube causing the Xenon gas inside it to conduct and short out the capacitor - Very quickly the charge on the capacitor is used up and the flash stops.
What about the AA cell providing the energy?
The cell provides current at 1.5V. It can't supply any more than 1.5V, that's why you need the oscillator circuit to boost the voltage. The oscillator circuit draws quite a large current from the cell (that's why batteries don't last long in flash guns). As voltage is stepped UP by the transformer **the current is stepped DOWN.** That's why it takes several seconds to charge the capacitor.
Simply connecting an AA cell to any capacitor would only allow it to charge to (nearly) 1.5V. To charge up your microwave oven capacitor you could use it to replace C2 - in which case it might get up to about 100V.
To get to 1900V you would have to build a circuit capable of supplying that voltage.
**SAFETY WARNING:** High voltages and charged capacitors are quite capable of killing you, even when the circuit power has been switched off. Unless you wish to put yourself forward for the **Darwin Awards** (taking yourself out of the gene pool by your own stupidity) I suggest you leave hacking microwave ovens well alone.
*One small slip for screwdriver, one giant blue flash for man.* | Inside the camera there's a little chip that turns the small battery voltage into AC (but still at the same voltage), the AC feeds a step-up transformer that cranks it up to around 350V AC (pretty much all xenon camera flashes use ~300-350V). The AC from the step-up transformer gets rectified to DC and that's used to charge the capacitor. You can only charge up a capacitor to the voltage of your power supply (in exactly the same way as you can't get boiling water from a hot water heater set to 60°C, you get what you give). Hooking up a microwave oven capacitor to a 1.5V battery will charge it to 1.5V, no more, no less. Now if you had 1200 AA batteries in series... then you'd get 1800+ volts but that'd be more dangerous than a microwave cap at 1800+ V. |
91,533 | There are two capstone abilities that grant "cures for aging"
The wizard has the [immortality](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/classes/core-classes/wizard/arcane-discoveries/arcane-discoveries-paizo/immortality) arcane discovery:
>
> Benefit: You discover a cure for aging, and from this point forward
> you take no penalty to your physical ability scores from advanced age.
> If you are already taking such penalties, they are removed at this
> time. This is an extraordinary ability.
>
>
>
The Alchemist has [Eternal Youth](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/classes/base-classes/alchemist/discoveries/paizo---alchemist-grand-discoveri/eternal-youth) grand discovery:
>
> Benefit: The alchemist has discovered a cure for aging, and from this
> point forward he takes no penalty to his physical ability scores from
> advanced age. If the alchemist is already taking such penalties, they
> are removed at this time.
>
>
>
But these do not specifically state that the character will stop aging.
The [age resistance](http://paizo.com/pathfinderRPG/prd/ultimateMagic/spells/ageResistance.html) spell specifically states that it does not stop dying from old age.
>
> You ignore the physical detriments of being middle-aged. This spell
> does not cause you to look younger, nor does it prevent you from dying
> of old age,
>
>
>
Whereas the [longevity mythic ability](http://paizo.com/pathfinderRPG/prd/mythicAdventures/mythicHeroes.html) specifically states it does.
>
> Longevity (Su): Upon taking this ability, you can no longer die from
> old age. If you have penalties to your physical ability scores due to
> aging, you no longer take those penalties. You still continue to age,
> and you gain all the benefits to your mental ability scores.
>
>
>
So does immortality/eternal youth stop aging, or just the stat penalties of aging? | 2016/12/09 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/91533",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/3230/"
] | Could go either way, depending on how you read “cure for aging.”
* It might just be description—a “cure for aging” which here is *defined as* eliminating penalties by the rest of the description, which are taken to be the actual effect.
* It might mean a cure for the things the game calls aging—the penalties. This is only subtly different from the first, which ignores the phrase as fluff description—this regards it as rules text, but text that is then expanded and defined, not an additional part of the ability
* It might mean that you do not age, or otherwise include death from old age as part of aging that it cures.
The first two would still have die of old age, the last would not.
The fact that they are called immortality suggests that the third one is accurate, but honestly it really should say. The wording also implies that you still get aging bonuses, which implies *some* aging. Effects like these usually spell out what they do, as *age resistance* does, and these effects ought to as well. | They cannot die from old age.
-----------------------------
Unless it says so on the ability, your character **does not die** when they reach their racial maximum age, because **they do not age** to reach that maximum age, their actual age is stuck at whatver age they had when their character obtained that ability.
There are very specific abilities that say they prevent that death from old age, like the ones you listed and the capstone of the [Time Oracle](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/classes/base-classes/oracle/mysteries/paizo---oracle-mysteries/time):
>
> Upon reaching 20th level, you become a true master of time and stop aging. You cannot be magically aged and no longer take penalties to your ability scores for aging. Age bonuses still accrue, and any aging penalties that you have already accrued remain in place. **You cannot die of old age**, but you can be killed or die through accident, disease, poison, or other external effects.
>
>
>
The book that introduced the [Eternal Youth](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/classes/base-classes/alchemist/discoveries/paizo---alchemist-grand-discoveri/eternal-youth) grand discovery was released earlier than the one that introduces the [Time Mystery](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/classes/base-classes/oracle/mysteries/paizo---oracle-mysteries/time). You will notice that the wording here is different because it says you still obtain the bonuses, but not the penalties.
However, the ultimate magic also introduced the [Immortality](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/classes/core-classes/wizard/arcane-discoveries/arcane-discoveries-paizo/immortality) arcane discovery. So, the same book introduced two different "*immortal*" type effects.
Based on this observation, it is safe to assume that the *rules as written* are also the *rules as intended*. As seems to be *no FAQ or errata* about this either.
You will keep the penalties and bonuses if the ability says you do. For [Eternal Youth](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/classes/base-classes/alchemist/discoveries/paizo---alchemist-grand-discoveri/eternal-youth) and [Immortality](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/classes/core-classes/wizard/arcane-discoveries/arcane-discoveries-paizo/immortality), you keep the bonuses and remove all penalties. They will also recieve no further bonuses if they obtain enough age (except if they obtain mythic immortality) as they cannot age normally anymore.
Back in 2012, when [Sean K. Reynolds](http://paizo.com/people/SeanKReynolds) was still a developer at paizo, [he posted agreeing that wizards with immortality could life forever](http://paizo.com/threads/rzs2o3yo?Immortality-arcane-discovery#22). So the *rules as intended*, at least for wizards, seems to be that they are no longer affected by aging once they obtain the discovery.
Druids and Monks
----------------
Druids and monks are probably the oldest example of a class that does not age, with the [Timeless Body](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/classes/core-classes/druid#TOC-Timeless-Body-Ex-) ability obtained at 15th (for druids) and 17th (for monks):
>
> After attaining 15th level, a druid no longer takes ability score penalties for aging and cannot be magically aged. Any penalties she may have already incurred, however, remain in place. Bonuses still accrue, and the druid **still dies of old age** when her time is up.
>
>
>
You will notice that the text is very similar to the one from the [Time Oracle](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/classes/base-classes/oracle/mysteries/paizo---oracle-mysteries/time), and the reason for that is that your character gains the bonuses, but not the penalties, so they can die because they are actually aging, they simply have a body that will not suffer penalties from their age.
Keep in mind that with [Wish](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/magic/all-spells/w/wish) and [Limited Wish](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/magic/all-spells/l/limited-wish), a wizard can obtain other means of immortality that does not depend on reaching 20th level, such as duplicating the [Reincarnate](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/magic/all-spells/r/reincarnate) spell to become an adult again. Or even make [Clones](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/magic/all-spells/c/clone). |
75,612 | >
> Annie said that she couldn't do anything with Helen Keller unless she had her all to herself.
>
>
>
I'd like to paraphrase the sentence as the following.
>
> 1. Annie wanted to have Helen all to herself **because she wanted to control her completely.**
> 2. Annie wanted to have Helen all to herself **so that she could manage her completely.**
>
>
>
Are my sentences correct in meaning to the original sentences? | 2015/12/11 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/75612",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/27528/"
] | I think it means:
>
> Annie wanted the complete and undivided attention of Helen.
>
>
>
The second sentence is almost correct. But I wouldn't use "manage". Manage is to control. I don't think Annie wanted to control Helen, but wanted her complete attention, so as to help her. | >
> ...all to herself.
>
>
>
Means **without outside influence or interference**, there is a certain amount of controlling and **not sharing** which is implied, but the controlling may or may not be egregious to the point of domination. Imagine that Anne got what she wanted, consider the statement:
>
> She had Helen Keller **all to herself**.
>
>
>
This means Anne **only had to deal with Helen Keller** and no one else around Helen Keller: doctors, nurses, relatives, pets, etc. and also that Anne could **make any and all decisions** she wanted to about Helen Keller.
>
> I wanted the bowl of cereal **all to myself**.
>
>
>
Not only means, I **do not want to share** my cereal, but also I don't want anyone telling me **how** to eat my cereal (with milk, without milk, how much milk...) |
75,612 | >
> Annie said that she couldn't do anything with Helen Keller unless she had her all to herself.
>
>
>
I'd like to paraphrase the sentence as the following.
>
> 1. Annie wanted to have Helen all to herself **because she wanted to control her completely.**
> 2. Annie wanted to have Helen all to herself **so that she could manage her completely.**
>
>
>
Are my sentences correct in meaning to the original sentences? | 2015/12/11 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/75612",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/27528/"
] | When you talk about "controlling" a person, that has the connotation of dominating that person, of forcing them to do what you want. That's generally viewed as a very negative thing. Like, "My wife is always trying to control me!" We talk about prison guards "controlling" the prisoners, etc. Adding "completely" makes it more extreme, like she's trying to make Helen her slave. So unless you are trying to portray Anne Sullivan as an evil, manipulative person, this is probably not a good choice of words.
"Manage" is more neutral, but is still probably not what the original sentence meant. To "manage" someone is to direct their activities. Like a boss manages his employees.
I presume that what the writer meant was that Anne didn't want to have many people all trying to teach Helen in different ways so that Helen became distracted and confused. She wanted to be her only teacher. | >
> ...all to herself.
>
>
>
Means **without outside influence or interference**, there is a certain amount of controlling and **not sharing** which is implied, but the controlling may or may not be egregious to the point of domination. Imagine that Anne got what she wanted, consider the statement:
>
> She had Helen Keller **all to herself**.
>
>
>
This means Anne **only had to deal with Helen Keller** and no one else around Helen Keller: doctors, nurses, relatives, pets, etc. and also that Anne could **make any and all decisions** she wanted to about Helen Keller.
>
> I wanted the bowl of cereal **all to myself**.
>
>
>
Not only means, I **do not want to share** my cereal, but also I don't want anyone telling me **how** to eat my cereal (with milk, without milk, how much milk...) |
43,271 | [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/txg2H.jpg)
I am trying to design the windmill blades (the green part) in Solidworks but am having trouble since the radius of curvature for the blades varies at different points. I tried bending it as a sheet metal, but am having a lot of difficulty. Any ideas? | 2021/05/13 | [
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/questions/43271",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | The classic example of a frame of reference in which gravitational forces *disappear* is called a *freely-falling* reference frame.
This is what you get when in deep space, or in orbit around the earth, or when falling off a tall building or down a mine shaft on earth.
In a freely-falling reference frame, pendulums do not swing because all the (mg) terms vanish. | In the so called **center of mass frame** the gravitational forces of the constituents sums to zero per definition. That's the reason why we describe two body problems as (1) motion of the center of mass, and (2) relative motion with respect to the cantor of mass. |
43,271 | [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/txg2H.jpg)
I am trying to design the windmill blades (the green part) in Solidworks but am having trouble since the radius of curvature for the blades varies at different points. I tried bending it as a sheet metal, but am having a lot of difficulty. Any ideas? | 2021/05/13 | [
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/questions/43271",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | The classic example of a frame of reference in which gravitational forces *disappear* is called a *freely-falling* reference frame.
This is what you get when in deep space, or in orbit around the earth, or when falling off a tall building or down a mine shaft on earth.
In a freely-falling reference frame, pendulums do not swing because all the (mg) terms vanish. | it is called free float. And Einstein used it as an intuition leading to his theory of general relativity. In a small local spacetime no physical ebservation or experiment can tell the difference between weightlessness and free float.
the picture is from A Jurney into Gravity.. by John A Wheeler.
It is said that he considered this was one of his the happist thought. [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/ZHFMt.jpg) |
48,951 | If I have the following information about star A and Star B, how can I compute the distance between A and B?
* Distance from Sol for Star A
* Right Ascension/Declination of Star A
* Parallax/Absolute Magnitude of Star A
* Distance from Sol for Star B
* Right Ascension/Declination of Star B
* Parallax/Absolute Magnitude of Star B
I can use the parallax and absolute magnitude to compute distance from Sol, but I don't know how to get the distance between A and B.
Obviously there will be errors in the parallax, but I'm looking for a best effort means to calculate this.
**Edit**
I've implemented this in Java and made it available via this link:
<https://gist.github.com/fergusonjason/fa4794dc0dc5d45f7a7ed12296577ed5>
I realize for actual science work most people wouldn't use Java, but this is for a project that is part of my Java portfolio. | 2022/03/27 | [
"https://astronomy.stackexchange.com/questions/48951",
"https://astronomy.stackexchange.com",
"https://astronomy.stackexchange.com/users/30889/"
] | Alternative approach:
Right ascension + declination + distance are spherical coordinates. Apply a standard conversion from spherical to rectangular coordinates and the distance calculation becomes easy. | The really, really easy way to find the distances between two stars with kown directions and distances from Earth is to use an application which calculates those distances.
See:
[What is the closest stellar neighbour to Sirius?](https://astronomy.stackexchange.com/questions/45105/what-is-the-closest-stellar-neighbour-to-sirius/45135#45135)
In my answer I say that my first impression is that Procyon would probably be the closest stellar neighbor to Sirius. Then I investigate a few stars, listing their differences in angles from the right ascension and the declination of Sirius, and also by how much their distances from Earth differ from that of Sirius.
And then I tried using an app which calculates the distance between two stars. And of all the star pairs I tried, Procyon was the closest to Sirius according to that online app.
<https://www.wolframalpha.com/widgets/view.jsp?id=1ece06643e87f3c4d90813af5ee12223> |
4,629 | I asked [this question](https://movies.stackexchange.com/questions/73933/what-type-of-knot-do-wayfinders-tie-in-moana) about three years ago, and the answer helped me [understand the scene better](https://movies.meta.stackexchange.com/a/307/4206), as [this comment](https://movies.stackexchange.com/questions/73933/what-type-of-knot-do-wayfinders-tie-in-moana/106675#comment119886_73934) also illustrates. The question has garnered 16 upvotes in the meantime.
Today, the question was abruptly closed after it has received an allegedly spam answer. Have the guidelines changed since 2017, or what am I missing here? The "private feedback" seems boilerplate and doesn't help me understand what I did wrong.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/qyzjW.png) | 2020/02/12 | [
"https://movies.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/4629",
"https://movies.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://movies.meta.stackexchange.com/users/4206/"
] | >
> Have the guidelines changed since 2017, or what am I missing here?
>
>
>
Not as far as I know **but** the community has become a little more strict about what constitues TRIVIA in the intervening period.
From the help page...
>
> Unimportant trivia that does not add to the understanding or appreciation of the title.
>
>
>
What the knot is, essentially, is **unimportant** to the film overall and so, when the question received more attention (due the spamish post) it started to receive close votes.
When the question appeared in the review queue it was reconsidered and 5 users (myself included) decided that this was, indeed, *trivia*. | I'll weigh in as I was the one that started this train.
The question, title and body, boil down to: what is this knot? It also has the image. The question does absolutely nothing to tie (pun may or may knot intended) this piece of trivia to the plot of the movie, or any character development, or honestly even a cultural understanding of what they're doing. The question doesn't seek to deepen any appreciation for the movie, but rather seeks trivial, surface level information.
And AJ's answer on the question is a perfect indicator of this. It answers the question exactly, telling us what that knot it. However, his answer adds **ABSOLUTELY NOTHING OF VALUE** to the movie itself (I know that sounds harsh).
The reason that we, the community, have wanted to steer away from these sort of questions has always been (at least imho) 1. they're boring and 2. clog up the system from actual, deep questions and answers.
Now, with the positive score of the question, even if it remains closed it will not be auto-deleted from the site. If it stays closed, that just shows that, at one point we appreciated the question, but we've since moved on. The question does, currently, have 4 reopen votes, which I personally disagree with, but ti could be reopened. |
4,953 | I have a [2009 Kona Dew](http://www.konabikeworld.com/09_dew_en.cfm) and I'm just wondering how to figure out what front and rear derailleurs are compatible with my bike.
Do I just have to find a matching Shimano part that fits 8-speed gearsets? It seems like most of the [front derailleurs at Jenson USA](http://www.jensonusa.com/store/sub/132-Derailleurs+Front-Mountain.aspx?s=2922&mfg=0&closeoutHotdeal=&use=&sort=Default&show=25&pricemin=0&pricemax=900) seem to support 9-speed only, same goes with the [rear](http://www.jensonusa.com/store/sub/1565-Derailleurs+Rear-Mountain.aspx?s=2919&mfg=0&closeoutHotdeal=&use=&sort=Default&show=25&pricemin=0&pricemax=700)s too. | 2011/07/20 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/4953",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/210/"
] | Front and rear derailers are essentially independent -- so long as the two derailers can function with the same type chain they can work together.
Derailer "fit" basically involves 4 factors:
* The amount of chain that can be "absorbed" by the arm (rear derailer only)
* The index "pitch" of the derailer & its shift lever -- how far it moves in one step (indexed derailers only)
* The total distance the derailer can move in and out (adjustable to a degree)
* The angle that the derailer describes as it moves in and out
The amount of chain that the rear derailer arm can "absorb" between the most extended chain position and the most "relaxed" is generally specified as a number of teeth, being the difference between the sum of the teeth on the largest front and rear sprockets and the sum of the teeth on the smallest front and rear sprockets.
A sprocket cluster has a number of sprockets joined together with a certain "pitch" -- the distance between sprockets, as measured from (to pick one point) the outermost surface of one sprocket to the outermost surface of the next sprocket. The "pitch" of the derailer/shift lever must match this sprocket cluster pitch or the derailer will never be able to be adjusted to shift between sprockets.
The total distance the derailer must be able to move is the index pitch times one less than the number of sprockets in the cluster. Eg, for 5 sprocket cluster with a 5mm pitch the derailer must move 20mm from innermost to outermost. Note that most derailers can be adjusted with the high and low limits to 2 or 3 different numbers of sprockets.
The angle is a little more complicated, and also not always well documented for different derailers. The rear cluster on a mountain or touring bike generally has a wide range of sprocket sizes and hence the angle that the derailer movement must describe relative to the axle is fairly steep. A racing cluster, on the other hand, would tend to have sprocket sizes very close together (only one tooth difference in the extreme case), and so the angle relative to the axle is fairly shallow. Derailer specifications may state this quantity as a range of sprocket sizes, or a range of teeth (or may omit it entirely).
(Obviously, "angle" is also an issue for front derailers, and here the acceptable sprocket sizes should be clearly spelled out. Your standard front derailer may not handle that super-small granny gear, for instance.)
Most 9-speed derailers can be adjusted to work with an 8-speed cluster, so long as the 8-speed cluster is using the 9-speed pitch. Unfortunately, the pitch of 8-speed clusters is not cast in concrete, but in most cases it's the same as 9-speed. | Determining compatibility in a practical sense, for your bike, will consist of 4 steps:
1. Clamp position:
* There are two major types here, and a couple less common varieties.
* A top clamp derailleur is on where the clamp that mount the front derailleur to the frame is above the body of the derailleur.
* A bottom clamp derailleur is on where the clamp that mount the front derailleur to the frame is below the body of the derailleur.
2. Cable pull direction:
* A front derailleur is designed to be activated either by a cable pulling from above, or by a cable pulling from below. Usually, this can be determined by whether the cables on your frame are routed along the top tube(above the derailleur), or along the down tube(below the derailleur. There are some cases where there is a pulley on the derailleur which reverses the direction, but if you are replacing the derailleur, it is not necessary to continue that pattern.
3. In addition, the derailleur clamp size must be the same as the one for your frame. There are 3 common sizes, plus braze-on derailleurs which bolt to the frame.
* The sizes are 34.9mm, 31.8mm, and 28.6mm.
* Your Kona will be either 34.9 or 31.8. 28.6 is usually reserved for steel frames.
* You can find your clamp size printed on the inside of the derailleur clamp, as in the picture below, in most cases.
4. The last thing is number of gears. Typically any derailleur is designed to be used with a particular number of gears. In some circumstances, the derailleur can be used on a bike with a lesser number of gears, (i.e. a 9 speed derailleur on an 8 speed bike.) I don't know of any circumstance where an 8 speed could be used on a 9 speed bike, however.
5. The rear derailleur is less complex, only really requiring an equal or greater number of gears than the original, and the correct length of cage to engage all the excess chain length on your bike. Most MTB's and all triple crank bikes that I am aware of use a long cage rear derailleur. It may not be possible to use a new 10 speed MTB derailleur on a 9 or 8 speed bike, but I would have to verify that in person. I know that Shimano says it is not functional, but that may only mean that it's not perfect enough to give their seal of approval.
**Edit: 10 and 11 speed drivetrains are often not backwards compatible for either front or rear derailleurs.**
Hope that helps.
 |
4,953 | I have a [2009 Kona Dew](http://www.konabikeworld.com/09_dew_en.cfm) and I'm just wondering how to figure out what front and rear derailleurs are compatible with my bike.
Do I just have to find a matching Shimano part that fits 8-speed gearsets? It seems like most of the [front derailleurs at Jenson USA](http://www.jensonusa.com/store/sub/132-Derailleurs+Front-Mountain.aspx?s=2922&mfg=0&closeoutHotdeal=&use=&sort=Default&show=25&pricemin=0&pricemax=900) seem to support 9-speed only, same goes with the [rear](http://www.jensonusa.com/store/sub/1565-Derailleurs+Rear-Mountain.aspx?s=2919&mfg=0&closeoutHotdeal=&use=&sort=Default&show=25&pricemin=0&pricemax=700)s too. | 2011/07/20 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/4953",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/210/"
] | Front and rear derailers are essentially independent -- so long as the two derailers can function with the same type chain they can work together.
Derailer "fit" basically involves 4 factors:
* The amount of chain that can be "absorbed" by the arm (rear derailer only)
* The index "pitch" of the derailer & its shift lever -- how far it moves in one step (indexed derailers only)
* The total distance the derailer can move in and out (adjustable to a degree)
* The angle that the derailer describes as it moves in and out
The amount of chain that the rear derailer arm can "absorb" between the most extended chain position and the most "relaxed" is generally specified as a number of teeth, being the difference between the sum of the teeth on the largest front and rear sprockets and the sum of the teeth on the smallest front and rear sprockets.
A sprocket cluster has a number of sprockets joined together with a certain "pitch" -- the distance between sprockets, as measured from (to pick one point) the outermost surface of one sprocket to the outermost surface of the next sprocket. The "pitch" of the derailer/shift lever must match this sprocket cluster pitch or the derailer will never be able to be adjusted to shift between sprockets.
The total distance the derailer must be able to move is the index pitch times one less than the number of sprockets in the cluster. Eg, for 5 sprocket cluster with a 5mm pitch the derailer must move 20mm from innermost to outermost. Note that most derailers can be adjusted with the high and low limits to 2 or 3 different numbers of sprockets.
The angle is a little more complicated, and also not always well documented for different derailers. The rear cluster on a mountain or touring bike generally has a wide range of sprocket sizes and hence the angle that the derailer movement must describe relative to the axle is fairly steep. A racing cluster, on the other hand, would tend to have sprocket sizes very close together (only one tooth difference in the extreme case), and so the angle relative to the axle is fairly shallow. Derailer specifications may state this quantity as a range of sprocket sizes, or a range of teeth (or may omit it entirely).
(Obviously, "angle" is also an issue for front derailers, and here the acceptable sprocket sizes should be clearly spelled out. Your standard front derailer may not handle that super-small granny gear, for instance.)
Most 9-speed derailers can be adjusted to work with an 8-speed cluster, so long as the 8-speed cluster is using the 9-speed pitch. Unfortunately, the pitch of 8-speed clusters is not cast in concrete, but in most cases it's the same as 9-speed. | There is one other aspect that has not yet been addressed: shifters.
Shimano and SRAM use different technologies for the rear derailleur. Most SRAM has a 1:1 actuation ratio, which means that the length of cable moved by the shifters is identical to the horizontal movement of the derailleur. However, all Shimano uses a **2:1** actuation ratio, which means that twice as much cable has to be moved as horizontal movement of the derailleur.
If you have Shimano shifters, you **must** get a Shimano rear derailleur.
But if you have SRAM shifters that are X-series (X-4, X-5, X-7, X-9, X-0), you **must** get a SRAM rear derailleur.
This is a concern *only for the rear derailleur* and not for the front derailleur. |
4,953 | I have a [2009 Kona Dew](http://www.konabikeworld.com/09_dew_en.cfm) and I'm just wondering how to figure out what front and rear derailleurs are compatible with my bike.
Do I just have to find a matching Shimano part that fits 8-speed gearsets? It seems like most of the [front derailleurs at Jenson USA](http://www.jensonusa.com/store/sub/132-Derailleurs+Front-Mountain.aspx?s=2922&mfg=0&closeoutHotdeal=&use=&sort=Default&show=25&pricemin=0&pricemax=900) seem to support 9-speed only, same goes with the [rear](http://www.jensonusa.com/store/sub/1565-Derailleurs+Rear-Mountain.aspx?s=2919&mfg=0&closeoutHotdeal=&use=&sort=Default&show=25&pricemin=0&pricemax=700)s too. | 2011/07/20 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/4953",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/210/"
] | Front and rear derailers are essentially independent -- so long as the two derailers can function with the same type chain they can work together.
Derailer "fit" basically involves 4 factors:
* The amount of chain that can be "absorbed" by the arm (rear derailer only)
* The index "pitch" of the derailer & its shift lever -- how far it moves in one step (indexed derailers only)
* The total distance the derailer can move in and out (adjustable to a degree)
* The angle that the derailer describes as it moves in and out
The amount of chain that the rear derailer arm can "absorb" between the most extended chain position and the most "relaxed" is generally specified as a number of teeth, being the difference between the sum of the teeth on the largest front and rear sprockets and the sum of the teeth on the smallest front and rear sprockets.
A sprocket cluster has a number of sprockets joined together with a certain "pitch" -- the distance between sprockets, as measured from (to pick one point) the outermost surface of one sprocket to the outermost surface of the next sprocket. The "pitch" of the derailer/shift lever must match this sprocket cluster pitch or the derailer will never be able to be adjusted to shift between sprockets.
The total distance the derailer must be able to move is the index pitch times one less than the number of sprockets in the cluster. Eg, for 5 sprocket cluster with a 5mm pitch the derailer must move 20mm from innermost to outermost. Note that most derailers can be adjusted with the high and low limits to 2 or 3 different numbers of sprockets.
The angle is a little more complicated, and also not always well documented for different derailers. The rear cluster on a mountain or touring bike generally has a wide range of sprocket sizes and hence the angle that the derailer movement must describe relative to the axle is fairly steep. A racing cluster, on the other hand, would tend to have sprocket sizes very close together (only one tooth difference in the extreme case), and so the angle relative to the axle is fairly shallow. Derailer specifications may state this quantity as a range of sprocket sizes, or a range of teeth (or may omit it entirely).
(Obviously, "angle" is also an issue for front derailers, and here the acceptable sprocket sizes should be clearly spelled out. Your standard front derailer may not handle that super-small granny gear, for instance.)
Most 9-speed derailers can be adjusted to work with an 8-speed cluster, so long as the 8-speed cluster is using the 9-speed pitch. Unfortunately, the pitch of 8-speed clusters is not cast in concrete, but in most cases it's the same as 9-speed. | <http://en.m.wikibooks.org/wiki/Bicycles/Maintenance_and_Repair/Gear-changing_Dimensions> Shimano pulls roughly half the cable per shift compaired to SRAM. |
4,953 | I have a [2009 Kona Dew](http://www.konabikeworld.com/09_dew_en.cfm) and I'm just wondering how to figure out what front and rear derailleurs are compatible with my bike.
Do I just have to find a matching Shimano part that fits 8-speed gearsets? It seems like most of the [front derailleurs at Jenson USA](http://www.jensonusa.com/store/sub/132-Derailleurs+Front-Mountain.aspx?s=2922&mfg=0&closeoutHotdeal=&use=&sort=Default&show=25&pricemin=0&pricemax=900) seem to support 9-speed only, same goes with the [rear](http://www.jensonusa.com/store/sub/1565-Derailleurs+Rear-Mountain.aspx?s=2919&mfg=0&closeoutHotdeal=&use=&sort=Default&show=25&pricemin=0&pricemax=700)s too. | 2011/07/20 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/4953",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/210/"
] | Determining compatibility in a practical sense, for your bike, will consist of 4 steps:
1. Clamp position:
* There are two major types here, and a couple less common varieties.
* A top clamp derailleur is on where the clamp that mount the front derailleur to the frame is above the body of the derailleur.
* A bottom clamp derailleur is on where the clamp that mount the front derailleur to the frame is below the body of the derailleur.
2. Cable pull direction:
* A front derailleur is designed to be activated either by a cable pulling from above, or by a cable pulling from below. Usually, this can be determined by whether the cables on your frame are routed along the top tube(above the derailleur), or along the down tube(below the derailleur. There are some cases where there is a pulley on the derailleur which reverses the direction, but if you are replacing the derailleur, it is not necessary to continue that pattern.
3. In addition, the derailleur clamp size must be the same as the one for your frame. There are 3 common sizes, plus braze-on derailleurs which bolt to the frame.
* The sizes are 34.9mm, 31.8mm, and 28.6mm.
* Your Kona will be either 34.9 or 31.8. 28.6 is usually reserved for steel frames.
* You can find your clamp size printed on the inside of the derailleur clamp, as in the picture below, in most cases.
4. The last thing is number of gears. Typically any derailleur is designed to be used with a particular number of gears. In some circumstances, the derailleur can be used on a bike with a lesser number of gears, (i.e. a 9 speed derailleur on an 8 speed bike.) I don't know of any circumstance where an 8 speed could be used on a 9 speed bike, however.
5. The rear derailleur is less complex, only really requiring an equal or greater number of gears than the original, and the correct length of cage to engage all the excess chain length on your bike. Most MTB's and all triple crank bikes that I am aware of use a long cage rear derailleur. It may not be possible to use a new 10 speed MTB derailleur on a 9 or 8 speed bike, but I would have to verify that in person. I know that Shimano says it is not functional, but that may only mean that it's not perfect enough to give their seal of approval.
**Edit: 10 and 11 speed drivetrains are often not backwards compatible for either front or rear derailleurs.**
Hope that helps.
 | <http://en.m.wikibooks.org/wiki/Bicycles/Maintenance_and_Repair/Gear-changing_Dimensions> Shimano pulls roughly half the cable per shift compaired to SRAM. |
4,953 | I have a [2009 Kona Dew](http://www.konabikeworld.com/09_dew_en.cfm) and I'm just wondering how to figure out what front and rear derailleurs are compatible with my bike.
Do I just have to find a matching Shimano part that fits 8-speed gearsets? It seems like most of the [front derailleurs at Jenson USA](http://www.jensonusa.com/store/sub/132-Derailleurs+Front-Mountain.aspx?s=2922&mfg=0&closeoutHotdeal=&use=&sort=Default&show=25&pricemin=0&pricemax=900) seem to support 9-speed only, same goes with the [rear](http://www.jensonusa.com/store/sub/1565-Derailleurs+Rear-Mountain.aspx?s=2919&mfg=0&closeoutHotdeal=&use=&sort=Default&show=25&pricemin=0&pricemax=700)s too. | 2011/07/20 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/4953",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/210/"
] | There is one other aspect that has not yet been addressed: shifters.
Shimano and SRAM use different technologies for the rear derailleur. Most SRAM has a 1:1 actuation ratio, which means that the length of cable moved by the shifters is identical to the horizontal movement of the derailleur. However, all Shimano uses a **2:1** actuation ratio, which means that twice as much cable has to be moved as horizontal movement of the derailleur.
If you have Shimano shifters, you **must** get a Shimano rear derailleur.
But if you have SRAM shifters that are X-series (X-4, X-5, X-7, X-9, X-0), you **must** get a SRAM rear derailleur.
This is a concern *only for the rear derailleur* and not for the front derailleur. | <http://en.m.wikibooks.org/wiki/Bicycles/Maintenance_and_Repair/Gear-changing_Dimensions> Shimano pulls roughly half the cable per shift compaired to SRAM. |
133,962 | I have a couple of profiles defined in Tasker that I would only like to enable while traveling abroad. As Tasker cannot recognize the state "traveling abroad", I would like to set this state manually which should then disable all the profiles related to this meta profile "traveling abroad".
I envision this in Tasker:
* Category: Traveling abroad (switch off/on)
+ Profile 1 (switch off/on)
+ Profile 2 (switch off/on)
+ Profile 3 (switch off/on)
+ ... | 2016/01/11 | [
"https://android.stackexchange.com/questions/133962",
"https://android.stackexchange.com",
"https://android.stackexchange.com/users/75572/"
] | Disabling a profile constitutes as an action so you need to do something in a task only. Tasker supports toggling the status of profiles from a task.
Create a new task and use this action: Tasker → Profile Status
* Name: name of the profile to be toggled
* Set: On/Off/Toggle
When would you or how would you like to run this task is upon you to decide. You can setup a location profile, a time trigger or perhaps, bind the task into a widget (1x1) to toggle all those profiles from a single touch on a shortcut. | You can create a Profile that is always active when it turned on, then use the %pactive variable state in the other profiles so that they are only able to be active when the main profile is. |
145,749 | Which of these sentences is better?
>
> * The **method to** measure the intelligence of a man is to...
> * The **method for** estimating the intelligence of a man is to...
>
>
>
Is it *method to* or *method for*? | 2014/01/12 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/145749",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/59472/"
] | I don't know of any concrete rules, but "method of" or "method for" would seem more natural to me and are the usual constructions I see.
The only time I can recall "method to" being used is in "method to (his or her) madness," where method is to mean "purpose" more than "process."
Sources:
* The five APA style papers on my desk that all have a Methodology section and use one of the above phrasings. For what it's worth, "Method of" was used eight times, "method for" two times, and "method to" zero times.
* In the physical sciences and mathematics, methods are typically named as "Method of *\_*\_." E.g., Method of Exhaustion, Method of Images, Method of Coordination, Method of Infinite Descent, Method of Successive Frames. | the word'to' indicates intention / purpose.
When we say,
Students study to gain knowledge.
We are making parallel two entities which are parallel
i.e. (noun + verb) before 'to' and (noun+verb) after 'to'
*We mean that 'studying' is done for the purpose of gaining knowledge.*
But when we say 'The method to measure the intelligence.....'
we are trying to make parallel two non-parallel entities.
i.e 'method' (a noun) is being made parallel to 'measure' (a verb)....... this is neither good and nor preferable. |
360,119 | >
> **Possible Duplicate:**
>
> [What to do if my computer is infected by a virus or a malware?](https://superuser.com/questions/100360/what-to-do-if-my-computer-is-infected-by-a-virus-or-a-malware)
>
>
>
My parents computer have apparently contracted a virus named "System Fix"
I have diagnosed this from examination of the infected system, and [Googling](http://google.com) the hilariously alarming fake error messages. This is also hiding the 'stolen' start menu and desktop files in the same place.
This virus slipped right past AVG free edition.
All the sites found with google recommend "Malwerebytes" to remove it, but this ran a full system scan, and did not remove the evil.
What is this thing? How did it dodge two AV programs?
How do I remove this it? | 2011/11/22 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/360119",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/15226/"
] | I would suggest you first run TDSSKILLER, download it on a flash drive on another PC or if possible on the same computer and see if the computer is infected with MBR Virus.
After that, download Malwarebytes AntiMalware, it should remove it.
<http://support.kaspersky.com/downloads/utils/tdsskiller.zip>
<http://www.malwarebytes.org> | EDIT/ADDITION: Follow all directions below and / or visit [this](http://www.bleepingcomputer.com/virus-removal/remove-system-fix) site.
I'll start with some general info on the virus. Then I'll get into how to take care of it.
This virus will start first before any other application and it changes the
start-up items so that you won't have any chance in stopping it from running.
All the exe installed won't run until you block the virus and that means that
you might not be able to download the required virus removers and that is why
you might be forced to use another computer and after that move them using a
USB drive. You will learn more about this when we reach the removal guide.
Also, this virus will change the hidden options of your files and folders and
it does it to make you think that there is something wrong with your computer
and in order to restore the default settings you need to read the removal
guide as the instructions on how to do that are listed at the end of it and it
work only if you first remove the infection.
Also, is it likely that System Fix installed another infection, a TDSS
Rookit or **Google redirect**, that redirects all your web searches and so it
prevents you from finding any legit malware removal guide and instructions on
how to block the virus. However, if you found this post it means that you have
managed to find a way around the infection and now you can start removing it.
The virus removal guides contains instructions on how to remove the System Fix
virus and that rootkit, but before we can move on to the first step we need to
correctly prepare your computer in order to make sure that all the infected
files will be successfully removed. First you need to read the preparation
guide and only afterwards you should move to the first step of the virus
removal process.
**Prepare your computer for the System Fix removal process**
In older to make sure that all the infections will be removed, you need to
read the following instructions as you might need to use them:
* the guide listed here should be printed out because at some point you might be asked to close all the opened screens and running applications, because there shouldn't be any other program that could interfere with the removal process and so we will make sure that all the infections will be successfully removed.
* System Fix might have blocked the download functions of your system and that means that you need another computer to download the required virus removers. When the downloads are complete, find a USB flash drive and transfer the applications into the infected computer.
* also, the steps listed in the virus removal guide might need to be performed in Safe Mode with Networking and if you wish to learn how to do that, then you should follow this [link](http://www.geeksailor.com/how-to-remove-uninstall-av-security-2012-virus-malware-removal-guide/) and in that virus removal guide you will learn how to boot the computer in Safe Mode.
That's all that you need to do before starting to remove the infections and
now we can move on to the virus removal guide and hopefully when you reach the
final step all the infected files were successfully removed allowing you to
use a virus-free computer. Here's what you need to do in order to uninstall
System Fix.
How to remove the System Fix virus using Rkill and Malwarebytes'
----------------------------------------------------------------
Now that you know all that there is to know about this virus, we can move on
to the first step of the virus removal guide and please make sure that you
don't skip any step. Here's how to remove this malware program from your
computer:
1. Rkill.com is the first application that we will use and with it you will block the System Fix from running. [Download Link](http://www.geeksailor.com/download-rkill-com-free-and-terminate-malicious-processes/). Put the Rkill icon on the infected computer desktop screen.
2. Launch Rkill and wait until it all the fake alerts and warnings are closed. In case System Fix starts to show other errors, you need to continue to launch RKill until the virus is by-passed and only then you can move on to the next step. If you notice that Rkill struggles to complete its task, then you should to use eXplorer.exe or iExplorer.exe and these two Rkill clones will surely disable the malware program. When that happens continue with the rest of virus removal steps without restarting the computer, because if you do that, the virus will be enabled again and then you will have to repeat all steps.
3. Now we have to scan and remove the TDSS rootkit infection, but this only if your PC features it and in order to be sure you need to follow the instructions on [How to remove Google redirects or TDSS rookit](http://www.geeksailor.com/how-to-remove-google-redirects-or-the-tdss-tdl3-or-alureon-rootkit-using-tdsskiller/). When you finish applying that steps, return to this removal guide and continue with the rest of the virus removal guide.
4. Malwarebytes' Anti-Malware is the application that we need to use in order to remove all infections. [Download Link for MBAM](http://www.geeksailor.com/malwarebytes-anti-malware/). Place the setup installer of this application on your computer's desktop. Now close all running programs.
5. Launch the Malwarebytes' installer and complete the installation without changing any of its default settings. The only thing that you need to consider is that the options listed at the final installation screen are both checked, so that MBAM will launch an automatic update and then launch its main interface automatically. Click Finish.
6. Wait for MBAM to complete the update process and then it will load the Scanner menu. Select the 'Perform Full Scan' and then press the 'Start Scan' button.
7. Now wait for the scan to be completed and when that happens MBAM will display a confirmation dialog. The Scanner menu will be launched again.
8. Click on 'Show Results' and then select all the found infections for removal, then click on 'Remove Selected' and wait for the virus removal process to finish. Please note that Malwarebytes' might ask you to restart the PC, but this is optional because either answer will lead to the same result, the System Fix virus will be removed completely. In case you reboot the computer, Malwarebytes' will continue to remove the infected files and when it is complete you will be shown a log file of the scanning process in Notepad. Review this file and when you're done close it.
9. Close Malwarebytes' Anti-Malware and that means that all the infections were successfully removed.
10. Now change the Windows theme background so that the next time Windows resumes desktop, it will load all the icons.
11. The last thing that you need to perform is to restore the Folder Options back to its default values and in order to that we will need Unhide.exe - [download link](http://download.bleepingcomputer.com/grinler/unhide.exe).
* download Unhide .exe
* launch it and then allows it to perform all changes needed to restore all the hidden files and folders back to visible again.
* note that this tool will make all the Windows files visible and, in order to hide all the files that were hidden prior to infection you need to find all of them and manually set their settings to 'hidden'
In order to make sure that all the infections were removed, you should restart
the PC and then start Malwarebytes' scan and if it comes back with other
infected files then remove them. However, if the virus wasn't removed, then
you should perform all the above steps in Safe Mode with Networking and that
will surely help you delete and remove all the System Fix malware files.
Now that your computer isn't infected you need to start looking for a powerful
anti-malware application and if you don't know which one to choose then I
recommend you to upgrade Malwarebytes' Anti-Malware to PRO version and then
your PC will be protected against the the worst virus infections. If you have
any other questions or concerns, please feel free to post them in the comments
fields, displayed at the bottom of this web page. |
82,957 | How to set a view title from page title dynamically, as if the page node title is About the Company I want the corresponding view title to be the same as node title.
any suggestions | 2013/08/19 | [
"https://drupal.stackexchange.com/questions/82957",
"https://drupal.stackexchange.com",
"https://drupal.stackexchange.com/users/10329/"
] | Hope this will help you.
In Drupal 7 you can use **VIEWS CONTEXTUAL FILTER** for your requirement
Steps
* Add **VIEWS contextual filter** for node ID
 item
* **Contextual filter settings** for node ID
+ Provide the **default argument** from the URL
+ Also **override** the **TITLE** and the **BREADCRUMB**
* Open browser and type **Base\_url/view\_path/NODE\_ID** you can see both the **TITLE** and the **BREADCRUMB** will be changed based on the **NODE ID**. | From the Context part of the panel page pick out **%node:title** and put it in the settings of the view. |
5,184 | I just to want to know the flow of activities happening after loading the linux kernel image into the RAM after boot process. | 2010/12/28 | [
"https://unix.stackexchange.com/questions/5184",
"https://unix.stackexchange.com",
"https://unix.stackexchange.com/users/2269/"
] | * Kernel takes in the control of the
system H/W as soon as you see
"Uncompressing Linux..".
* Kernel checks and sets the the BIOS
registers of graphics cards and the
screen output format.
* Kernel then reads BIOS settings, and
initializes basic hardware
interfaces.
* Next the drivers in the kernel
initialize the hardware.
* Then the Kernel check for the
partitons
* Then it mounts the root file system
* Then the kernel starts init, which
boots the main system with all its
programs and configurations. | The boot loader jumps to the image entry point passing kernel command line (if any), and the kernel handles the rest. |
376,119 | I am trying to make a simple map with the following legend:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/aQmID.png)
Whatever I change in the settings I can't get the other boxes of the predicted deprivation section to be place under the group title. Ideally I would like to have 4 columns UNDER the group title with 2-2-2-1 boxes. Any ideas? | 2020/10/08 | [
"https://gis.stackexchange.com/questions/376119",
"https://gis.stackexchange.com",
"https://gis.stackexchange.com/users/171018/"
] | It's not clean but a trick is to create a legend per column.
Then you edit each column by deleting / hiding the objects you are not interested in.
This solution can help you on a one-off basis. | I don't think this is possible within QGIS. So I suggest you export your map to Inkscape and edit it manually.
Once you're done with all other things you want in the print composer , export your map as SVG then open the SVG with Inkscape.
Inkscape is a free and open-source graphic design software. So it blends seamlessly with QGIS.
You can download and learn more about Inkscape here:
<https://inkscape.org/release/inkscape-1.0.1/>
If you're absolutely new to Inkscape, this tutorial can get you up and running in a few hours: <https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PL__WA5iiRT53V2UobbmFvzAW_-LJMkPIV> |
545,419 | I am working on implementation of PLL.
The implementation in MATLAB is done. It should be simulated in a similar way in hardware.
Honestly, I don’t understand what a simulation in hardware means. Does anyone explain it to me?
I have read the software engineers use FPGA for software development. I am familiar with FPGA a lit a bit, like how to describe board in Xilinx, or switch a led on/off…such simple stuff.
Does a simulation in hardware mean to rewrite it for FPGA?
Please, could you give me some example how such code looks like
EDIT 1: PLL will be a part of the receiver. The main my task is simulation a receiver | 2021/01/29 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/545419",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/275334/"
] | Simulated in hardware, or simulated as a hardware design? They are different things.
Simulated as a hardware design might mean simulated using a spice type circuit simulator with your loop built out of opamps resistors and caps, and the phase detector done as some suitable implementation of a type I or II detector (generally either flipflops or a mixer of some sort).
Simulated in hardware does not make a lot of sense for a PLL unless you are really doing a discrete time version, where simulating the implementation in something like an FPGA or ASIC might make sense. | Mathworks has a product called HDL CODER toolbox that allows you to translate MATLAB into synthesizeable VHDL which can then be put on an FPGA.
<https://www.mathworks.com/products/hdl-coder.html>
You could try looking into that. |
545,419 | I am working on implementation of PLL.
The implementation in MATLAB is done. It should be simulated in a similar way in hardware.
Honestly, I don’t understand what a simulation in hardware means. Does anyone explain it to me?
I have read the software engineers use FPGA for software development. I am familiar with FPGA a lit a bit, like how to describe board in Xilinx, or switch a led on/off…such simple stuff.
Does a simulation in hardware mean to rewrite it for FPGA?
Please, could you give me some example how such code looks like
EDIT 1: PLL will be a part of the receiver. The main my task is simulation a receiver | 2021/01/29 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/545419",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/275334/"
] | A PLL is sufficiently straightforward and analogue that simulating it in hardware doesn't make much sense. Just go ahead and build it, and see how it behaves.
There might be a case for simulation if you couldn't get hold of some of the components, but still wanted to have a hardware model of the loop to integrate into something else. Say you couldn't get some microwave VCO and PSD yet, so built something round a 4046 with the same bandwidth and loop filters.
Another case might be to simulate the VCO's frequency to phase response as an integrator, so that you could build the loop and loop filters, and see how they responded with the ability to probe 'phase' (the integrator output voltage representing phase) directly on an oscilloscope. | Mathworks has a product called HDL CODER toolbox that allows you to translate MATLAB into synthesizeable VHDL which can then be put on an FPGA.
<https://www.mathworks.com/products/hdl-coder.html>
You could try looking into that. |
126,513 | My team has a need to publish documentation internally. At the moment, it's spread all over the place and this means we often have to search everywhere to find something.
We'd like to publish everything in one place. The main thing that stops us is access control - the wikis in place don't belong to us and we can't do it.
What is the best tool for publishing docs, ideally fitting these requirements:
* web front end - readers access docs using browser
* single place to put docs
* access control by individual doc or by sets of docs (folders, branch of 'site', ...)
* if you don't have access to a doc, you don't see the link to that page/doc/folder.
* either built-in editor or something my users are familiar with (e.g. Word)
* built-in version control would be nice
Also, can you think of other criteria I should've specified? | 2010/03/26 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/126513",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/14439/"
] | Probably best to say what platform you're using, but if it's Windows Server then Windows Sharepoint Services will do nearly all of the above. It's also *free* as a download from Microsoft.
There is a full paid version (Microsft Office Sharepoint Services) but we're using WSS here and it fulfils all our needs, and we have a scenario very similar to the one you detail above including versioning (with full check out/check in functionality if you're using MS Office), fairly granular control over permissions and a decent Wiki. I think the only area it wouldn't work for you is the 'if you don't have access to a doc, you don't see the link to that page/doc/folder'.
You can download it from Microsoft [here.](http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/windowsserver/sharepoint/bb400747.aspx) | It used to have a free version I am not sure if it still does (under the name opengoo):
<http://www.fengoffice.com/web/index.php>
I think it provides everything you want. |
126,513 | My team has a need to publish documentation internally. At the moment, it's spread all over the place and this means we often have to search everywhere to find something.
We'd like to publish everything in one place. The main thing that stops us is access control - the wikis in place don't belong to us and we can't do it.
What is the best tool for publishing docs, ideally fitting these requirements:
* web front end - readers access docs using browser
* single place to put docs
* access control by individual doc or by sets of docs (folders, branch of 'site', ...)
* if you don't have access to a doc, you don't see the link to that page/doc/folder.
* either built-in editor or something my users are familiar with (e.g. Word)
* built-in version control would be nice
Also, can you think of other criteria I should've specified? | 2010/03/26 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/126513",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/14439/"
] | I use <http://www.dokuwiki.org/> because it is easy to set up, has a lot of features (my favourite is "Downloadable Code Blocks"), allows the use of ACLs and uses .txt files which don't depend on any Office/Office Version and are easy to back up.
It has everything you asked for except "if you don't have access to a doc, you don't see the link to that page/doc/folder"
If you are using single .doc(x) files at the moment, I would say it is totally worth the extra effort to move to dokuwiki. | Probably best to say what platform you're using, but if it's Windows Server then Windows Sharepoint Services will do nearly all of the above. It's also *free* as a download from Microsoft.
There is a full paid version (Microsft Office Sharepoint Services) but we're using WSS here and it fulfils all our needs, and we have a scenario very similar to the one you detail above including versioning (with full check out/check in functionality if you're using MS Office), fairly granular control over permissions and a decent Wiki. I think the only area it wouldn't work for you is the 'if you don't have access to a doc, you don't see the link to that page/doc/folder'.
You can download it from Microsoft [here.](http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/windowsserver/sharepoint/bb400747.aspx) |
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