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54 | In [this answer](https://ell.stackexchange.com/a/185/54), Liam W said [emphasis added]
>
> 'A Japanese' **infers** the Japanese person is a thing, and not a person.
> This is what **deems** it offensive.
>
>
> 'A Japanese Person' **infers** the Japanese person is just that - a
> person, and is therefore considered fine for use.
>
>
>
While not wanting to go [this far](http://xkcd.com/1133/) in using simple words, should we try to use simple and common words that are easily understood by people learning English?
An exception to this would be technical terms to do with English, such as "split infinitive". They should still be used, because it is easier to google for "split infinitive" than "boldly putting a word between "to" and the verb". | 2013/01/24 | [
"https://ell.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/54",
"https://ell.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.meta.stackexchange.com/users/54/"
] | Any time we write, we should keep our audience in mind. Writing simply and clearly is always a good writer's goal – no matter what they are writing about, and no matter who they are writing to.
As I write on ELL, I'll be assuming that the primary audience is intelligent adults; I plan to write accordingly. That said, I'm also aware that many members of this community speak English as a second or third language, so I'll try to be careful to clarify terms that might be hard to interpret.
That said, I think we do a disservice to the members here if we try to oversimplify the words we use. Presumably, many of them are here to improve their English. I always avoided "baby talk" when my children were younger, figuring that if I always spoke to them as if their vocabulary was limited, their vocabulary would remain limited. In a similar way, I don't think we should worry too much about restricting our language to "simple words." Deliberately using esoteric vocabulary would be a mistake, too, but that's true whenever and wherever we write. | Yes, where possible, I think it is best to answer with the simplest words available. Use simpler sentence structures, and a smaller range of words. But I would suggest that technical terms to do with grammar should be used freely, since that is what people are often here to learn about.
The particular example given is just bad though: **infers** and **deems** are used incorrectly. |
54 | In [this answer](https://ell.stackexchange.com/a/185/54), Liam W said [emphasis added]
>
> 'A Japanese' **infers** the Japanese person is a thing, and not a person.
> This is what **deems** it offensive.
>
>
> 'A Japanese Person' **infers** the Japanese person is just that - a
> person, and is therefore considered fine for use.
>
>
>
While not wanting to go [this far](http://xkcd.com/1133/) in using simple words, should we try to use simple and common words that are easily understood by people learning English?
An exception to this would be technical terms to do with English, such as "split infinitive". They should still be used, because it is easier to google for "split infinitive" than "boldly putting a word between "to" and the verb". | 2013/01/24 | [
"https://ell.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/54",
"https://ell.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.meta.stackexchange.com/users/54/"
] | Any time we write, we should keep our audience in mind. Writing simply and clearly is always a good writer's goal – no matter what they are writing about, and no matter who they are writing to.
As I write on ELL, I'll be assuming that the primary audience is intelligent adults; I plan to write accordingly. That said, I'm also aware that many members of this community speak English as a second or third language, so I'll try to be careful to clarify terms that might be hard to interpret.
That said, I think we do a disservice to the members here if we try to oversimplify the words we use. Presumably, many of them are here to improve their English. I always avoided "baby talk" when my children were younger, figuring that if I always spoke to them as if their vocabulary was limited, their vocabulary would remain limited. In a similar way, I don't think we should worry too much about restricting our language to "simple words." Deliberately using esoteric vocabulary would be a mistake, too, but that's true whenever and wherever we write. | Coming to think of it and now that I have been using this site for almost three days, it makes sense to me that simple language should be highly preferred here simply because of the fact that we can expect to see "a lot" of foreign-language visitors here and more we make it simple for them to "comprehend the answer" more the better. |
54 | In [this answer](https://ell.stackexchange.com/a/185/54), Liam W said [emphasis added]
>
> 'A Japanese' **infers** the Japanese person is a thing, and not a person.
> This is what **deems** it offensive.
>
>
> 'A Japanese Person' **infers** the Japanese person is just that - a
> person, and is therefore considered fine for use.
>
>
>
While not wanting to go [this far](http://xkcd.com/1133/) in using simple words, should we try to use simple and common words that are easily understood by people learning English?
An exception to this would be technical terms to do with English, such as "split infinitive". They should still be used, because it is easier to google for "split infinitive" than "boldly putting a word between "to" and the verb". | 2013/01/24 | [
"https://ell.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/54",
"https://ell.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.meta.stackexchange.com/users/54/"
] | Any time we write, we should keep our audience in mind. Writing simply and clearly is always a good writer's goal – no matter what they are writing about, and no matter who they are writing to.
As I write on ELL, I'll be assuming that the primary audience is intelligent adults; I plan to write accordingly. That said, I'm also aware that many members of this community speak English as a second or third language, so I'll try to be careful to clarify terms that might be hard to interpret.
That said, I think we do a disservice to the members here if we try to oversimplify the words we use. Presumably, many of them are here to improve their English. I always avoided "baby talk" when my children were younger, figuring that if I always spoke to them as if their vocabulary was limited, their vocabulary would remain limited. In a similar way, I don't think we should worry too much about restricting our language to "simple words." Deliberately using esoteric vocabulary would be a mistake, too, but that's true whenever and wherever we write. | I think that the example is a borderline case:
Certainly, the content could be expressed elegantly enough without using the words "infer" and "deem". They do not add better precision or explanation.
On the other hand, for me, the answer (and the question) was new and surprising and I really learned something, and yet I have no problems whatsoever with words like "infer" and "deem".
So, I would advice that one should use words that are understood by most people who would actually be interested in the answer to the question, but this is probably the case here. |
54 | In [this answer](https://ell.stackexchange.com/a/185/54), Liam W said [emphasis added]
>
> 'A Japanese' **infers** the Japanese person is a thing, and not a person.
> This is what **deems** it offensive.
>
>
> 'A Japanese Person' **infers** the Japanese person is just that - a
> person, and is therefore considered fine for use.
>
>
>
While not wanting to go [this far](http://xkcd.com/1133/) in using simple words, should we try to use simple and common words that are easily understood by people learning English?
An exception to this would be technical terms to do with English, such as "split infinitive". They should still be used, because it is easier to google for "split infinitive" than "boldly putting a word between "to" and the verb". | 2013/01/24 | [
"https://ell.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/54",
"https://ell.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.meta.stackexchange.com/users/54/"
] | Do not avoid them in contexts where the meaning can be inferred from that context. That is the best way for users to learn them!
OTOH, definitely avoid them if not knowing their meaning will make given answer confusing - when the meaning is not apparent. Alternatively, reiterate, rephrase the same thing using simpler terms to make it clear.
In the example case both bolded words are used in context that makes their meaning fairly apparent, so there is no harm in leaving them in. | Yes, where possible, I think it is best to answer with the simplest words available. Use simpler sentence structures, and a smaller range of words. But I would suggest that technical terms to do with grammar should be used freely, since that is what people are often here to learn about.
The particular example given is just bad though: **infers** and **deems** are used incorrectly. |
54 | In [this answer](https://ell.stackexchange.com/a/185/54), Liam W said [emphasis added]
>
> 'A Japanese' **infers** the Japanese person is a thing, and not a person.
> This is what **deems** it offensive.
>
>
> 'A Japanese Person' **infers** the Japanese person is just that - a
> person, and is therefore considered fine for use.
>
>
>
While not wanting to go [this far](http://xkcd.com/1133/) in using simple words, should we try to use simple and common words that are easily understood by people learning English?
An exception to this would be technical terms to do with English, such as "split infinitive". They should still be used, because it is easier to google for "split infinitive" than "boldly putting a word between "to" and the verb". | 2013/01/24 | [
"https://ell.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/54",
"https://ell.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.meta.stackexchange.com/users/54/"
] | Yes, where possible, I think it is best to answer with the simplest words available. Use simpler sentence structures, and a smaller range of words. But I would suggest that technical terms to do with grammar should be used freely, since that is what people are often here to learn about.
The particular example given is just bad though: **infers** and **deems** are used incorrectly. | Coming to think of it and now that I have been using this site for almost three days, it makes sense to me that simple language should be highly preferred here simply because of the fact that we can expect to see "a lot" of foreign-language visitors here and more we make it simple for them to "comprehend the answer" more the better. |
54 | In [this answer](https://ell.stackexchange.com/a/185/54), Liam W said [emphasis added]
>
> 'A Japanese' **infers** the Japanese person is a thing, and not a person.
> This is what **deems** it offensive.
>
>
> 'A Japanese Person' **infers** the Japanese person is just that - a
> person, and is therefore considered fine for use.
>
>
>
While not wanting to go [this far](http://xkcd.com/1133/) in using simple words, should we try to use simple and common words that are easily understood by people learning English?
An exception to this would be technical terms to do with English, such as "split infinitive". They should still be used, because it is easier to google for "split infinitive" than "boldly putting a word between "to" and the verb". | 2013/01/24 | [
"https://ell.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/54",
"https://ell.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.meta.stackexchange.com/users/54/"
] | Any time we write, we should keep our audience in mind. Writing simply and clearly is always a good writer's goal – no matter what they are writing about, and no matter who they are writing to.
As I write on ELL, I'll be assuming that the primary audience is intelligent adults; I plan to write accordingly. That said, I'm also aware that many members of this community speak English as a second or third language, so I'll try to be careful to clarify terms that might be hard to interpret.
That said, I think we do a disservice to the members here if we try to oversimplify the words we use. Presumably, many of them are here to improve their English. I always avoided "baby talk" when my children were younger, figuring that if I always spoke to them as if their vocabulary was limited, their vocabulary would remain limited. In a similar way, I don't think we should worry too much about restricting our language to "simple words." Deliberately using esoteric vocabulary would be a mistake, too, but that's true whenever and wherever we write. | Do not avoid them in contexts where the meaning can be inferred from that context. That is the best way for users to learn them!
OTOH, definitely avoid them if not knowing their meaning will make given answer confusing - when the meaning is not apparent. Alternatively, reiterate, rephrase the same thing using simpler terms to make it clear.
In the example case both bolded words are used in context that makes their meaning fairly apparent, so there is no harm in leaving them in. |
23,826,260 | I have to train a very large feedforward neural network for pattern recognition.
The network has 10,000 input neurons, 200 output neurons, the hidden layer of it has 5100 neurons. Function x / (1 + abs(x)) is used as the activation function.
The size of the training data set is 100,000.
The problem is it took very long time to train the neural network, which makes fine tuning the network very time consuming.
Two possible options came to me for improving training performance:
* Reduce the size of hidden layer to somewhere between 500 and 1000. This would dramatically reduce the number of multiplication operations needed. However I'm not sure whether such reduction would harm recognition accuracies.
* Get a high performance matrix multiplication library (maybe even introduce OpenCL/CUDA), currently only naive matrix multiplication is implemented, which should be slower than a carefully tuned one.
Are there any better options ? I'm new to ANN, any suggestions are appreciated.
Thanks. | 2014/05/23 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/23826260",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/416983/"
] | In one sentence - **first play with the size of the hidden layer to see what size fit your needs**.
I've once written an implementation to the feed-forward back-propagation. Size of the network may be the only factor, but you also have etta (factor of convergence) in the back-propagation phase, and other factors (which I need to remember, but I promise to try). Also you have some tricks as cross-correlations. Also you can try to optimize the differentiation code and the activation function (small x may introduce numeric issues, and you have division operations)
My strategy would be first examine the hidden layer - 5000 neurons in the hidden layer compared to 10000 input neurons is quite a massive hidden layer (however, it depends on the problem).
The number of functions to compute is the major bottleneck - quadratic to the size of the hidden layer. if number of nodes in the hidden layer is O(N), then the number of functions to to perform between the outer layers and the hidden layer is O(N^2).
This is because each node in the input layer needs to contribute to all of the nodes in the hidden layers, and the same with the output layer and the hidden layer.
In the problems I dealt with - image compression, 1/8th or even 1/16th of the size of input neurons satisfied my needs. I highly recommend you to first test the hidden layer size to see where you get the optimal tradeoff between hidden layer size and result quality.
Also - **feed forward (and back propagation) can be implemented in a parallel manner** - consider using open-mp for that.
The accumulation of the weights in each node can be done very efficiently with parallel processing. | Take a loot at <http://deeplearning.net/software/theano/>.
It does support OpenCL and is tailored quite well for ANN, e.g. here is the LeNet implementation:
<http://deeplearning.net/tutorial/lenet.html> |
90,866 | Subsequent to my question about Club’s telephone tips in Maureen Dowd’s article, "Mitt Romney is the president of white male America” in New York Times (Nov. 10), I was interested in the usage of “the Ones” in the following sentence:
>
>
> >
> > “Just like the Bushes before him, Romney tried to portray himself as
> > more American than his Democratic opponent. But America’s gallimaufry
> > wasn’t knuckling under to the gentry this time.
> >
> >
> >
>
>
> If 2008 was about exalting ***the One***, 2012 was about the
> disenchanted Democratic base deciding: “We are ***the Ones*** we’ve
> been waiting for.”
>
>
>
There is no explanation about “*the One" and "the Ones*” in this paragraph, and before and after this sentence. Although I surmise “the Ones” means We, awaken populace – middle class, colored, ethnic, college students, working females, and you can name it, I don’t know what it exactly mean.
Are “the One" and "the Ones” self-explanatory to native speakers, when “one” and "ones" are written with the capital O.
What are the exact definitions of “the One / Ones”? Is the difference (upper case O vs lower case O) discernable in audio, i.e. when they are read out? | 2012/11/11 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/90866",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/3119/"
] | It seems to me that by "**the One**", Dowd means Obama as a kind of savior because he was so persuasive about his vision of change in the American government. Romney, she says, tried to portray himself as a rival "**the One**" and his GOP colleagues as his assistant "**the Ones**". The gallimaufry (the melange that is the American voting populace and especially *the disenchanted Democratic base*), however, she says, have decided that they, the American people and the disenchanted Democrats, are "**the Ones**". They didn't cross over and vote for Romney and the GOP. | "Exalting the One" means "praising a chosen person", implying that the person the people would vote for would be able to solve their problems.
"We are the Ones" indeed refers to the people, implying that there is no charismatic leader who can help the people, it is the people themselves who can work out the solutions.
To my understanding, "The One" refers to terms like "the one and only" or "the chosen one", which are both associated with a person having unique qualities and who rises above all others. |
8,057 | Holy Spirit conceives Jesus
===========================
**Matthew 1:20 ESV**
>
> But as he considered these things, behold, an angel of the Lord
> appeared to him in a dream, saying, “Joseph, son of David, do not fear
> to take Mary as your wife, for that which is conceived in her is from
> the **Holy Spirit**. She will bear a son, and you shall call his name
> Jesus, for he will save his people from their sins.”
>
>
>
**Luke 1:35 ESV**
>
> And the angel answered her, “The **Holy Spirit** will come upon you, and
> the power of the Most High will overshadow you; therefore the child to
> be born[a] will be called holy— the Son of God.
>
>
>
---
Jesus is distinct from God
==========================
Clearly during "life" Jesus was distinct from God:
**John 20:17 ESV**
>
> Jesus said to her, “Do not cling to me, for I have not yet ascended to
> the Father; but go to my brothers and say to them, ‘I am ascending to
> my Father and your Father, to my God and your God.’”
>
>
>
**Matthew 27:46 ESV**
>
> And about the ninth hour Jesus cried out with a loud voice, saying,
> “Eli, Eli, lema sabachthani?” that is, “My God, my God, why have you
> forsaken me?”
>
>
>
And in heaven:
**Psalm 110:1 YLT**
>
> A Psalm of David. The affirmation of Jehovah (*LORD*) to my Lord: `Sit at My
> right hand, Till I make thine enemies thy footstool.'
>
>
>
and
**Mark 16:19 ESV**
>
> So then the Lord Jesus, after he had spoken to them, was taken up into
> heaven and sat down at the right hand of God.
>
>
>
---
The question
============
So then, the Holy Spirit must also be distinct. Is it better proper to say that the Holy Spirit is the father of Jesus? | 2012/06/15 | [
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/8057",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | The Holy Spirit is not the Father of Jesus, God the Father is. What you are asking about is the nature of the Trinity.
**Trinity**
Christians have always believed the Son of God was preexisting before the creation of the world and is God who created the world. The Father spoke through the Son and the Spirit performed the actual creative events.
>
> John 1:1-3
> 1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2 He was with God in the beginning. 3 Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made.
>
>
>
God told Moses that His name was ‘I AM’ (Exodus 3:14 ) meaning without beginning and eternal, therefore, when Jesus said the following, the Jews picked up stones to stone Him for blasphemy:
>
> John 8:57-58
> “You are not yet fifty years old,” they said to him, “and you have seen Abraham!” 58 “Very truly I tell you,” Jesus answered, “before Abraham was born, I am!”
>
>
>
The Holy Spirit is also God. He is an eternally existing divine person and the author of divine operations.
For example:
>
> Genesis 1:2
> Now the earth was formless and empty, darkness was over the surface of the deep, and the Spirit of God was hovering over the waters.
>
>
>
Now all three person of the trinity combined are the Godhead who is One.
>
> Matthew 28:19
> Therefore go and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit.
>
>
>
God is One:
>
> Isaiah 44:6
> The Lord, Not Idols 6 “This is what the Lord says— Israel’s King and Redeemer, the Lord Almighty: I am the first and I am the last; apart from me there is no God.
>
>
>
So it seems very Biblical to accept the Trinity as believed by the Christian church throughout all the ages. One definition of the trinity that makes things clear can be taken from John Owen’s Works Volume 2, Page 462:
>
> God is one; — that this one God is Father, Son, and Holy Ghost; — that the Father is the Father of the Son; and the Son, the Son of the Father; and the Holy Ghost, the Spirit of the Father and the Son; and that, in respect of this their mutual relation, they are distinct from each other.
>
>
>
What sometimes makes the issue more complex, and more direcct to your point, is that Jesus sometimes speaks from His 'God-ward' side, like when the Jews wanted to stone Him, and sometimes from His 'man-ward' side. The verses you quote seem to be when He is speaking from his man-ward aspect, like ‘to my God and your God’. The same is true when Jesus refers to his disciples as his 'brothers'. This is easily understood when we remember although Christ was eternal, the man Jesus was not. Therefore, the Spirit is one person of the Holy Trinity performing the works of the eternal Father’s will through the eternal Son, God's word. That is how in a theoretical-sense the Spirit is kind of a 'father' of the body of Christ, but not really, more like the creative cause, or operation, according to the original Father's will. The God-Man is by no means the Son of the Spirit, He is the Son of God the Father.
The Son is the eternally generated Son of the Father, not the Spirit. What you have noticed is that the body of Christ was made by the Spirit, so technically, yes, God was the father of the Man Jesus, by the Spirit’s operation and power. The eternal Son was willing to take this body prepared for Him, thereby creating the God-Man, the Christ of God, in order to bring salvation to men. By this means The eternal Son assumed a human body prepared for Him by the eternal Spirit, according to the will of the eternal Father. All three; Father, Son and Holy Spirit, are the 'I AM', the only One and true God. | Since you are pushing for more answers, I will go out on a limb and "play the heretic" with a theory I've had for a while.
God, in a nutshell.
-------------------
It is difficult to wrap our [3 lb. brains](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Human_brain#Structure) around a God who [***is*** love](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1%20John%204:16&version=NASB), is [eternal](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Psalm%2090:2&version=NASB), can do [whatever He wants to](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Psalm%20115:3&version=NASB), but yet [only does good](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Psalm%20100:5,%20James%201:17,%201%20Timothy%204:4&version=NASB), etc. etc. Just try to imagine God existing eternally into the past! *You can't!* That's why skeptics have attacked Christians on this point for centuries. I mean, He is ***God***! How could we possibly understand Him? It's not hard to fathom that "[His thoughts and ways are not like our thoughts and ways](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Isaiah%2055:8&version=NASB)"!
Perhaps the most central theme in Scripture is that [the God of love earnestly desires intimate relationship with mankind.](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1%20Jn.%204:16,%201%20Tim.%202:3-4,%20John%203:16,%20Matt.%2022:36-40,%20Prov.%203:32,%20Zeph.%203:17&version=NASB) However, another huge theme of Scripture is that [the relationship between God and man was destroyed by sin](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Genesis%203:1-9,%2023,%20Isaiah%2059:1-2&version=NASB). We no longer have face-to-face access to God [like they did in the garden](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Genesis%203:8&version=NASB) - now we "[see in a mirror dimly](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1%20Corinthians%2013:12&version=NASB)" instead.
It seems pretty clear that there is a bit of a "language barrier" between God and man *just due to the fact that we aren't God*. With sin added in, we ***definitely*** have trouble understanding Him now. These "language barriers" severely limit our understanding.
When there is a language barrier between two humans, the solution is to speak in a language that the other one can understand. For instance, if I were ministering in Russia, I would either need to speak with a Russian who understood English, or I would need to speak in Russian. God does the same thing. He "speaks our language" in order to communicate with us. This is why God spoke in Hebrew to the Jews, why Jesus used a lot of examples about money and farming and spoke in the everyday language, why the apostles quoted from translations that were understandable to their audience ([example](https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/a/1883/529)), etc.
I think we need to have some humility when we're trying to "understand God". I love these verses, and think they apply perfectly here:
>
> O LORD, my heart is not proud, nor my eyes haughty; Nor do I involve myself in great matters, Or in things too difficult for me. [***-Psalm 131:1***](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Psalm%20131:1&version=NASB)
>
>
> Such knowledge is too wonderful for me; It is too high, I cannot attain to it. [***-Psalm 139:6***](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Psalm%20139:6&version=NASB)
>
>
>
One Possible Answer
-------------------
I think what God has done is He has attempted to reveal Himself in a way that would make sense to our pea-brains. In doing so, He has described Himself as "Us" in some places, and "I" in other places. In some cases He appears unapproachable in His high and holy greatness, and in other cases He appears to be our friend, lover, and co-heir. At times He has revealed Himself to be sovereign, and at other times, interactive and personal.
He has shown us that He is our Father, but also shown us that He is our Brother. He has shown us that He dictates what is right (Father), He has demonstrated how to do things right (Son), and He helps us do what is right (Spirit). He has shown us that He provides as a Father (Father), that He provides as a Sacrifice (Son), and that He provides as a Helper (Spirit).
I believe God is one, and I suspect that the Father, Son and Spirit may be the different ways God has revealed Himself for the purpose of our understanding Him better.
You may object, thinking, "why would God put on an act just to illustrate something?" Consider this passage:
>
> Father, I thank You that You have heard Me. I knew that You always hear Me; but because of the people standing around I said it, so that they may believe that You sent Me. [***-John 11:41-42***](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=John%2011:41-42&version=NASB)
>
>
>
In other words, Jesus only prayed this so people would hear Him pray it!
I am also highly suspicious based on passages such as 2 Corinthians 3. Verse 17 states "the Lord is the Spirit", and if you study the chapter **very carefully** I believe verse 18 is teaching that the difference between Jesus and the Spirit is the same as the difference between the fading glory on Moses' face and the unfading glory God has destined us to. Also, the following quote from Jesus seems to indicate that having the Holy Spirit is better than having Jesus:
>
> But I tell you the truth, it is to your advantage that I go away; for if I do not go away, the Helper will not come to you; but if I go, I will send Him to you. [***-John 16:7***](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=John%2016:7&version=NASB)
>
>
>
To me this makes perfect sense, because God desires deep intimacy with us, and the Spirit dwells within us, but a relationship with Jesus was external. In other words, I think God may have been indicating that it is much better to experience internal intimacy with Him (Spirit), than external relationship with Him (Jesus). I am beginning to think of Jesus as God's way of interacting with us in a familiar form. Passages like [Revelation 22](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Revelation%2022&version=NASB) make a lot more sense in light of this view.
Semantics
---------
As a result, I think it is appropriate to say, "God was the Father of the man, Jesus", because in the "God is one" perspective, this is true. It is also appropriate to say, "God (i.e. God the Father) is the Father of Jesus (i.e. God the Son)", because in the "three Persons" perspective that God has given us, this is true.
However, I tend to think it would be inappropriate to say, "The Holy Spirit is the Father of Jesus", because:
* God has not revealed Himself as the "Holy Spirit Father", and
* This would be a confusion of two perspectives
If there is something about the Holy Spirit's activity in the Virgin Birth which makes us think of Him as the Father of Jesus, I would suggest that we need to constrain our language to the boundaries set forth by God in Scripture and resist the urge to use that wording.
Forgive me for challenging 2,000 years of Church doctrine with my home-brewed theology, but at least now you'll have a 2nd perspective to consider, per your request. (Looking forward to comments.) |
8,057 | Holy Spirit conceives Jesus
===========================
**Matthew 1:20 ESV**
>
> But as he considered these things, behold, an angel of the Lord
> appeared to him in a dream, saying, “Joseph, son of David, do not fear
> to take Mary as your wife, for that which is conceived in her is from
> the **Holy Spirit**. She will bear a son, and you shall call his name
> Jesus, for he will save his people from their sins.”
>
>
>
**Luke 1:35 ESV**
>
> And the angel answered her, “The **Holy Spirit** will come upon you, and
> the power of the Most High will overshadow you; therefore the child to
> be born[a] will be called holy— the Son of God.
>
>
>
---
Jesus is distinct from God
==========================
Clearly during "life" Jesus was distinct from God:
**John 20:17 ESV**
>
> Jesus said to her, “Do not cling to me, for I have not yet ascended to
> the Father; but go to my brothers and say to them, ‘I am ascending to
> my Father and your Father, to my God and your God.’”
>
>
>
**Matthew 27:46 ESV**
>
> And about the ninth hour Jesus cried out with a loud voice, saying,
> “Eli, Eli, lema sabachthani?” that is, “My God, my God, why have you
> forsaken me?”
>
>
>
And in heaven:
**Psalm 110:1 YLT**
>
> A Psalm of David. The affirmation of Jehovah (*LORD*) to my Lord: `Sit at My
> right hand, Till I make thine enemies thy footstool.'
>
>
>
and
**Mark 16:19 ESV**
>
> So then the Lord Jesus, after he had spoken to them, was taken up into
> heaven and sat down at the right hand of God.
>
>
>
---
The question
============
So then, the Holy Spirit must also be distinct. Is it better proper to say that the Holy Spirit is the father of Jesus? | 2012/06/15 | [
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/8057",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | The Holy Spirit is not the Father of Jesus, God the Father is. What you are asking about is the nature of the Trinity.
**Trinity**
Christians have always believed the Son of God was preexisting before the creation of the world and is God who created the world. The Father spoke through the Son and the Spirit performed the actual creative events.
>
> John 1:1-3
> 1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2 He was with God in the beginning. 3 Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made.
>
>
>
God told Moses that His name was ‘I AM’ (Exodus 3:14 ) meaning without beginning and eternal, therefore, when Jesus said the following, the Jews picked up stones to stone Him for blasphemy:
>
> John 8:57-58
> “You are not yet fifty years old,” they said to him, “and you have seen Abraham!” 58 “Very truly I tell you,” Jesus answered, “before Abraham was born, I am!”
>
>
>
The Holy Spirit is also God. He is an eternally existing divine person and the author of divine operations.
For example:
>
> Genesis 1:2
> Now the earth was formless and empty, darkness was over the surface of the deep, and the Spirit of God was hovering over the waters.
>
>
>
Now all three person of the trinity combined are the Godhead who is One.
>
> Matthew 28:19
> Therefore go and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit.
>
>
>
God is One:
>
> Isaiah 44:6
> The Lord, Not Idols 6 “This is what the Lord says— Israel’s King and Redeemer, the Lord Almighty: I am the first and I am the last; apart from me there is no God.
>
>
>
So it seems very Biblical to accept the Trinity as believed by the Christian church throughout all the ages. One definition of the trinity that makes things clear can be taken from John Owen’s Works Volume 2, Page 462:
>
> God is one; — that this one God is Father, Son, and Holy Ghost; — that the Father is the Father of the Son; and the Son, the Son of the Father; and the Holy Ghost, the Spirit of the Father and the Son; and that, in respect of this their mutual relation, they are distinct from each other.
>
>
>
What sometimes makes the issue more complex, and more direcct to your point, is that Jesus sometimes speaks from His 'God-ward' side, like when the Jews wanted to stone Him, and sometimes from His 'man-ward' side. The verses you quote seem to be when He is speaking from his man-ward aspect, like ‘to my God and your God’. The same is true when Jesus refers to his disciples as his 'brothers'. This is easily understood when we remember although Christ was eternal, the man Jesus was not. Therefore, the Spirit is one person of the Holy Trinity performing the works of the eternal Father’s will through the eternal Son, God's word. That is how in a theoretical-sense the Spirit is kind of a 'father' of the body of Christ, but not really, more like the creative cause, or operation, according to the original Father's will. The God-Man is by no means the Son of the Spirit, He is the Son of God the Father.
The Son is the eternally generated Son of the Father, not the Spirit. What you have noticed is that the body of Christ was made by the Spirit, so technically, yes, God was the father of the Man Jesus, by the Spirit’s operation and power. The eternal Son was willing to take this body prepared for Him, thereby creating the God-Man, the Christ of God, in order to bring salvation to men. By this means The eternal Son assumed a human body prepared for Him by the eternal Spirit, according to the will of the eternal Father. All three; Father, Son and Holy Spirit, are the 'I AM', the only One and true God. | No.The Holy Spirit was not Jesus' Father. Rather, God fathered Jesus in Mary through the Holy Spirit:
>
> Matthew 1:18 (NIV)
>
>
> This is how the birth of Jesus the Messiah came about: His mother Mary
> was pledged to be married to Joseph, but before they came together,
> she was found to be pregnant **through the Holy Spirit.**
>
>
>
Jesus has only one Father and that's God the Father:
>
> John 8:41-42 (NASB) 41 You are doing the deeds of your father.” They
> said to Him, “We were not born of fornication; we have **one Father:
> God**.” 42 Jesus said to them, “If God were your Father, you would
> love Me, for **I proceeded forth and have come from God**, for I have
> not even come on My own initiative, but He sent Me.
>
>
> 1 Peter 1:3 (NASB) Blessed be **the God and Father of our Lord Jesus
> Christ**, who according to His great mercy has caused us to be born
> again to a living hope through the resurrection of Jesus Christ from
> the dead,
>
>
>
Jesus is equal with His Father in terms of nature:
>
> Philippians 2:6 (NIV)
>
>
> Who, being in very nature God,did not consider **equality with God**
> something to be used to his own advantage;
>
>
> John 5:17-19 (NASB)
>
>
> 17 But He answered them, **“My Father is working until now, and I
> Myself am working.**” 18 For this reason therefore the Jews were
> seeking all the more to kill Him, because He not only was breaking the
> Sabbath, but also was **calling God His own Father, making Himself
> equal with God.** 19 Therefore Jesus answered and was saying to them,
> “Truly, truly, I say to you, the Son can do nothing of Himself, unless
> it is something He sees the Father doing; for **whatever the Father
> does, these things the Son also does in like manner.**
>
>
>
The Holy Spirit is neither the Father nor the Son but rather, he is the third person in the one Godhead called *Trinity*.
>
> Matthew 28:19 (NIV)
>
>
> Therefore go and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them **in the
> name of** the Father and of the Son and of **the Holy Spirit**,
>
>
> |
8,057 | Holy Spirit conceives Jesus
===========================
**Matthew 1:20 ESV**
>
> But as he considered these things, behold, an angel of the Lord
> appeared to him in a dream, saying, “Joseph, son of David, do not fear
> to take Mary as your wife, for that which is conceived in her is from
> the **Holy Spirit**. She will bear a son, and you shall call his name
> Jesus, for he will save his people from their sins.”
>
>
>
**Luke 1:35 ESV**
>
> And the angel answered her, “The **Holy Spirit** will come upon you, and
> the power of the Most High will overshadow you; therefore the child to
> be born[a] will be called holy— the Son of God.
>
>
>
---
Jesus is distinct from God
==========================
Clearly during "life" Jesus was distinct from God:
**John 20:17 ESV**
>
> Jesus said to her, “Do not cling to me, for I have not yet ascended to
> the Father; but go to my brothers and say to them, ‘I am ascending to
> my Father and your Father, to my God and your God.’”
>
>
>
**Matthew 27:46 ESV**
>
> And about the ninth hour Jesus cried out with a loud voice, saying,
> “Eli, Eli, lema sabachthani?” that is, “My God, my God, why have you
> forsaken me?”
>
>
>
And in heaven:
**Psalm 110:1 YLT**
>
> A Psalm of David. The affirmation of Jehovah (*LORD*) to my Lord: `Sit at My
> right hand, Till I make thine enemies thy footstool.'
>
>
>
and
**Mark 16:19 ESV**
>
> So then the Lord Jesus, after he had spoken to them, was taken up into
> heaven and sat down at the right hand of God.
>
>
>
---
The question
============
So then, the Holy Spirit must also be distinct. Is it better proper to say that the Holy Spirit is the father of Jesus? | 2012/06/15 | [
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/8057",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | Since you are pushing for more answers, I will go out on a limb and "play the heretic" with a theory I've had for a while.
God, in a nutshell.
-------------------
It is difficult to wrap our [3 lb. brains](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Human_brain#Structure) around a God who [***is*** love](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1%20John%204:16&version=NASB), is [eternal](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Psalm%2090:2&version=NASB), can do [whatever He wants to](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Psalm%20115:3&version=NASB), but yet [only does good](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Psalm%20100:5,%20James%201:17,%201%20Timothy%204:4&version=NASB), etc. etc. Just try to imagine God existing eternally into the past! *You can't!* That's why skeptics have attacked Christians on this point for centuries. I mean, He is ***God***! How could we possibly understand Him? It's not hard to fathom that "[His thoughts and ways are not like our thoughts and ways](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Isaiah%2055:8&version=NASB)"!
Perhaps the most central theme in Scripture is that [the God of love earnestly desires intimate relationship with mankind.](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1%20Jn.%204:16,%201%20Tim.%202:3-4,%20John%203:16,%20Matt.%2022:36-40,%20Prov.%203:32,%20Zeph.%203:17&version=NASB) However, another huge theme of Scripture is that [the relationship between God and man was destroyed by sin](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Genesis%203:1-9,%2023,%20Isaiah%2059:1-2&version=NASB). We no longer have face-to-face access to God [like they did in the garden](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Genesis%203:8&version=NASB) - now we "[see in a mirror dimly](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1%20Corinthians%2013:12&version=NASB)" instead.
It seems pretty clear that there is a bit of a "language barrier" between God and man *just due to the fact that we aren't God*. With sin added in, we ***definitely*** have trouble understanding Him now. These "language barriers" severely limit our understanding.
When there is a language barrier between two humans, the solution is to speak in a language that the other one can understand. For instance, if I were ministering in Russia, I would either need to speak with a Russian who understood English, or I would need to speak in Russian. God does the same thing. He "speaks our language" in order to communicate with us. This is why God spoke in Hebrew to the Jews, why Jesus used a lot of examples about money and farming and spoke in the everyday language, why the apostles quoted from translations that were understandable to their audience ([example](https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/a/1883/529)), etc.
I think we need to have some humility when we're trying to "understand God". I love these verses, and think they apply perfectly here:
>
> O LORD, my heart is not proud, nor my eyes haughty; Nor do I involve myself in great matters, Or in things too difficult for me. [***-Psalm 131:1***](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Psalm%20131:1&version=NASB)
>
>
> Such knowledge is too wonderful for me; It is too high, I cannot attain to it. [***-Psalm 139:6***](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Psalm%20139:6&version=NASB)
>
>
>
One Possible Answer
-------------------
I think what God has done is He has attempted to reveal Himself in a way that would make sense to our pea-brains. In doing so, He has described Himself as "Us" in some places, and "I" in other places. In some cases He appears unapproachable in His high and holy greatness, and in other cases He appears to be our friend, lover, and co-heir. At times He has revealed Himself to be sovereign, and at other times, interactive and personal.
He has shown us that He is our Father, but also shown us that He is our Brother. He has shown us that He dictates what is right (Father), He has demonstrated how to do things right (Son), and He helps us do what is right (Spirit). He has shown us that He provides as a Father (Father), that He provides as a Sacrifice (Son), and that He provides as a Helper (Spirit).
I believe God is one, and I suspect that the Father, Son and Spirit may be the different ways God has revealed Himself for the purpose of our understanding Him better.
You may object, thinking, "why would God put on an act just to illustrate something?" Consider this passage:
>
> Father, I thank You that You have heard Me. I knew that You always hear Me; but because of the people standing around I said it, so that they may believe that You sent Me. [***-John 11:41-42***](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=John%2011:41-42&version=NASB)
>
>
>
In other words, Jesus only prayed this so people would hear Him pray it!
I am also highly suspicious based on passages such as 2 Corinthians 3. Verse 17 states "the Lord is the Spirit", and if you study the chapter **very carefully** I believe verse 18 is teaching that the difference between Jesus and the Spirit is the same as the difference between the fading glory on Moses' face and the unfading glory God has destined us to. Also, the following quote from Jesus seems to indicate that having the Holy Spirit is better than having Jesus:
>
> But I tell you the truth, it is to your advantage that I go away; for if I do not go away, the Helper will not come to you; but if I go, I will send Him to you. [***-John 16:7***](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=John%2016:7&version=NASB)
>
>
>
To me this makes perfect sense, because God desires deep intimacy with us, and the Spirit dwells within us, but a relationship with Jesus was external. In other words, I think God may have been indicating that it is much better to experience internal intimacy with Him (Spirit), than external relationship with Him (Jesus). I am beginning to think of Jesus as God's way of interacting with us in a familiar form. Passages like [Revelation 22](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Revelation%2022&version=NASB) make a lot more sense in light of this view.
Semantics
---------
As a result, I think it is appropriate to say, "God was the Father of the man, Jesus", because in the "God is one" perspective, this is true. It is also appropriate to say, "God (i.e. God the Father) is the Father of Jesus (i.e. God the Son)", because in the "three Persons" perspective that God has given us, this is true.
However, I tend to think it would be inappropriate to say, "The Holy Spirit is the Father of Jesus", because:
* God has not revealed Himself as the "Holy Spirit Father", and
* This would be a confusion of two perspectives
If there is something about the Holy Spirit's activity in the Virgin Birth which makes us think of Him as the Father of Jesus, I would suggest that we need to constrain our language to the boundaries set forth by God in Scripture and resist the urge to use that wording.
Forgive me for challenging 2,000 years of Church doctrine with my home-brewed theology, but at least now you'll have a 2nd perspective to consider, per your request. (Looking forward to comments.) | No.The Holy Spirit was not Jesus' Father. Rather, God fathered Jesus in Mary through the Holy Spirit:
>
> Matthew 1:18 (NIV)
>
>
> This is how the birth of Jesus the Messiah came about: His mother Mary
> was pledged to be married to Joseph, but before they came together,
> she was found to be pregnant **through the Holy Spirit.**
>
>
>
Jesus has only one Father and that's God the Father:
>
> John 8:41-42 (NASB) 41 You are doing the deeds of your father.” They
> said to Him, “We were not born of fornication; we have **one Father:
> God**.” 42 Jesus said to them, “If God were your Father, you would
> love Me, for **I proceeded forth and have come from God**, for I have
> not even come on My own initiative, but He sent Me.
>
>
> 1 Peter 1:3 (NASB) Blessed be **the God and Father of our Lord Jesus
> Christ**, who according to His great mercy has caused us to be born
> again to a living hope through the resurrection of Jesus Christ from
> the dead,
>
>
>
Jesus is equal with His Father in terms of nature:
>
> Philippians 2:6 (NIV)
>
>
> Who, being in very nature God,did not consider **equality with God**
> something to be used to his own advantage;
>
>
> John 5:17-19 (NASB)
>
>
> 17 But He answered them, **“My Father is working until now, and I
> Myself am working.**” 18 For this reason therefore the Jews were
> seeking all the more to kill Him, because He not only was breaking the
> Sabbath, but also was **calling God His own Father, making Himself
> equal with God.** 19 Therefore Jesus answered and was saying to them,
> “Truly, truly, I say to you, the Son can do nothing of Himself, unless
> it is something He sees the Father doing; for **whatever the Father
> does, these things the Son also does in like manner.**
>
>
>
The Holy Spirit is neither the Father nor the Son but rather, he is the third person in the one Godhead called *Trinity*.
>
> Matthew 28:19 (NIV)
>
>
> Therefore go and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them **in the
> name of** the Father and of the Son and of **the Holy Spirit**,
>
>
> |
56,266 | As seen in this screencap, Magneto seems to be pulling Mystique towards him using his powers. What I don't understand is, **how** can Magneto affect Mystique? Since when did he gain the ability to manipulate human beings using his powers? Or is there anything unique about Mystique that makes her vulnerable to this? Any comic references to this?
 | 2014/05/14 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/56266",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/12551/"
] | **For clarity the answer below is a pre-release trailer based answer**
There are many possible answers to this question you will not find out for certain until you watch the film.
1. Something she is wearing, he is not pulling her but pulling something she has on.
2. Like stated in the comments it's the iron in her blood that he is pulling.
3. She is holding onto something that he wants and he is dragging her as a result.
>
> how can Magneto affect Mystique? Since when did he gain the ability to manipulate human beings using his powers?
>
>
>
He can't affect her directly, he would have had this power in the future if he had gained it in the past. He still only has the power to influence metal in the future though.
>
> Or is there anything unique about Mystique that makes her vulnerable to this?
>
>
>
I doubt it, there has never been anything mentioned about Mystiques powers other than her transformations.
>
> Any comic references to this?
>
>
>
Not that I can recall although I'm not one of the more prominent comic aficionados of the site.
After re-watching the trailer it looks more and more like there is something on her ankle just due to the way in which her leg is raised, she is also clearly not holding anything. | I am sure that he has lifted human beings in the comics since his post-Asteroid M power-up, and also as a way for the comic writers to reference [diamagnetic levitation](http://www.physics.org/facts/frog-really.asp). Basically, the right magnetic field causes objects with a high water content to become briefly magnetic and thus able to be repelled or attracted.
It's a little ambiguous, since it's possible that he's working with the metal the soldiers presumably have somewhere on their body, but the following image's art (from the [Comic Book Legends Revealed site](http://goodcomics.comicbookresources.com/2009/08/13/comic-book-legends-revealed-220/)) suggests that he's moving the soldiers directly.
 |
56,266 | As seen in this screencap, Magneto seems to be pulling Mystique towards him using his powers. What I don't understand is, **how** can Magneto affect Mystique? Since when did he gain the ability to manipulate human beings using his powers? Or is there anything unique about Mystique that makes her vulnerable to this? Any comic references to this?
 | 2014/05/14 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/56266",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/12551/"
] | **For clarity the answer below is a pre-release trailer based answer**
There are many possible answers to this question you will not find out for certain until you watch the film.
1. Something she is wearing, he is not pulling her but pulling something she has on.
2. Like stated in the comments it's the iron in her blood that he is pulling.
3. She is holding onto something that he wants and he is dragging her as a result.
>
> how can Magneto affect Mystique? Since when did he gain the ability to manipulate human beings using his powers?
>
>
>
He can't affect her directly, he would have had this power in the future if he had gained it in the past. He still only has the power to influence metal in the future though.
>
> Or is there anything unique about Mystique that makes her vulnerable to this?
>
>
>
I doubt it, there has never been anything mentioned about Mystiques powers other than her transformations.
>
> Any comic references to this?
>
>
>
Not that I can recall although I'm not one of the more prominent comic aficionados of the site.
After re-watching the trailer it looks more and more like there is something on her ankle just due to the way in which her leg is raised, she is also clearly not holding anything. | He's the master of magnitism. It isn't limited to metal objects - he doesn't need any metal around his body to fly. He uses magnetic force fields to manipulate things, he can rip a large tree out of the ground, and launch it miles away. The movies have so much good material to work with out of the comic books; from astral projection, lightning manipulation, magnetic force fields, repulsor beams, all kinds of good stuff. |
56,266 | As seen in this screencap, Magneto seems to be pulling Mystique towards him using his powers. What I don't understand is, **how** can Magneto affect Mystique? Since when did he gain the ability to manipulate human beings using his powers? Or is there anything unique about Mystique that makes her vulnerable to this? Any comic references to this?
 | 2014/05/14 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/56266",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/12551/"
] | **Spoiler alert**
After watching the film,
>
> Magneto shot her in the leg and is pulling the bullet towards him;
> hence Mystique is being pulled as well. That is why in your screenshot, her leg is lifted a little.
> After he had brought her close enough, he pulled the bullet out of her leg.
>
>
>
For those of you wanting the answer but with less spoilers (spoiler tag anyway)
>
> Metal object inside Mystiques leg which Magneto is pulling towards him, thus the lifted leg in the screenshot.
>
>
> | **For clarity the answer below is a pre-release trailer based answer**
There are many possible answers to this question you will not find out for certain until you watch the film.
1. Something she is wearing, he is not pulling her but pulling something she has on.
2. Like stated in the comments it's the iron in her blood that he is pulling.
3. She is holding onto something that he wants and he is dragging her as a result.
>
> how can Magneto affect Mystique? Since when did he gain the ability to manipulate human beings using his powers?
>
>
>
He can't affect her directly, he would have had this power in the future if he had gained it in the past. He still only has the power to influence metal in the future though.
>
> Or is there anything unique about Mystique that makes her vulnerable to this?
>
>
>
I doubt it, there has never been anything mentioned about Mystiques powers other than her transformations.
>
> Any comic references to this?
>
>
>
Not that I can recall although I'm not one of the more prominent comic aficionados of the site.
After re-watching the trailer it looks more and more like there is something on her ankle just due to the way in which her leg is raised, she is also clearly not holding anything. |
56,266 | As seen in this screencap, Magneto seems to be pulling Mystique towards him using his powers. What I don't understand is, **how** can Magneto affect Mystique? Since when did he gain the ability to manipulate human beings using his powers? Or is there anything unique about Mystique that makes her vulnerable to this? Any comic references to this?
 | 2014/05/14 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/56266",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/12551/"
] | **For clarity the answer below is a pre-release trailer based answer**
There are many possible answers to this question you will not find out for certain until you watch the film.
1. Something she is wearing, he is not pulling her but pulling something she has on.
2. Like stated in the comments it's the iron in her blood that he is pulling.
3. She is holding onto something that he wants and he is dragging her as a result.
>
> how can Magneto affect Mystique? Since when did he gain the ability to manipulate human beings using his powers?
>
>
>
He can't affect her directly, he would have had this power in the future if he had gained it in the past. He still only has the power to influence metal in the future though.
>
> Or is there anything unique about Mystique that makes her vulnerable to this?
>
>
>
I doubt it, there has never been anything mentioned about Mystiques powers other than her transformations.
>
> Any comic references to this?
>
>
>
Not that I can recall although I'm not one of the more prominent comic aficionados of the site.
After re-watching the trailer it looks more and more like there is something on her ankle just due to the way in which her leg is raised, she is also clearly not holding anything. | She had been shot before. The bullet in her leg is his 'leverage'. |
56,266 | As seen in this screencap, Magneto seems to be pulling Mystique towards him using his powers. What I don't understand is, **how** can Magneto affect Mystique? Since when did he gain the ability to manipulate human beings using his powers? Or is there anything unique about Mystique that makes her vulnerable to this? Any comic references to this?
 | 2014/05/14 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/56266",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/12551/"
] | I am sure that he has lifted human beings in the comics since his post-Asteroid M power-up, and also as a way for the comic writers to reference [diamagnetic levitation](http://www.physics.org/facts/frog-really.asp). Basically, the right magnetic field causes objects with a high water content to become briefly magnetic and thus able to be repelled or attracted.
It's a little ambiguous, since it's possible that he's working with the metal the soldiers presumably have somewhere on their body, but the following image's art (from the [Comic Book Legends Revealed site](http://goodcomics.comicbookresources.com/2009/08/13/comic-book-legends-revealed-220/)) suggests that he's moving the soldiers directly.
 | He's the master of magnitism. It isn't limited to metal objects - he doesn't need any metal around his body to fly. He uses magnetic force fields to manipulate things, he can rip a large tree out of the ground, and launch it miles away. The movies have so much good material to work with out of the comic books; from astral projection, lightning manipulation, magnetic force fields, repulsor beams, all kinds of good stuff. |
56,266 | As seen in this screencap, Magneto seems to be pulling Mystique towards him using his powers. What I don't understand is, **how** can Magneto affect Mystique? Since when did he gain the ability to manipulate human beings using his powers? Or is there anything unique about Mystique that makes her vulnerable to this? Any comic references to this?
 | 2014/05/14 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/56266",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/12551/"
] | **Spoiler alert**
After watching the film,
>
> Magneto shot her in the leg and is pulling the bullet towards him;
> hence Mystique is being pulled as well. That is why in your screenshot, her leg is lifted a little.
> After he had brought her close enough, he pulled the bullet out of her leg.
>
>
>
For those of you wanting the answer but with less spoilers (spoiler tag anyway)
>
> Metal object inside Mystiques leg which Magneto is pulling towards him, thus the lifted leg in the screenshot.
>
>
> | I am sure that he has lifted human beings in the comics since his post-Asteroid M power-up, and also as a way for the comic writers to reference [diamagnetic levitation](http://www.physics.org/facts/frog-really.asp). Basically, the right magnetic field causes objects with a high water content to become briefly magnetic and thus able to be repelled or attracted.
It's a little ambiguous, since it's possible that he's working with the metal the soldiers presumably have somewhere on their body, but the following image's art (from the [Comic Book Legends Revealed site](http://goodcomics.comicbookresources.com/2009/08/13/comic-book-legends-revealed-220/)) suggests that he's moving the soldiers directly.
 |
56,266 | As seen in this screencap, Magneto seems to be pulling Mystique towards him using his powers. What I don't understand is, **how** can Magneto affect Mystique? Since when did he gain the ability to manipulate human beings using his powers? Or is there anything unique about Mystique that makes her vulnerable to this? Any comic references to this?
 | 2014/05/14 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/56266",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/12551/"
] | **Spoiler alert**
After watching the film,
>
> Magneto shot her in the leg and is pulling the bullet towards him;
> hence Mystique is being pulled as well. That is why in your screenshot, her leg is lifted a little.
> After he had brought her close enough, he pulled the bullet out of her leg.
>
>
>
For those of you wanting the answer but with less spoilers (spoiler tag anyway)
>
> Metal object inside Mystiques leg which Magneto is pulling towards him, thus the lifted leg in the screenshot.
>
>
> | He's the master of magnitism. It isn't limited to metal objects - he doesn't need any metal around his body to fly. He uses magnetic force fields to manipulate things, he can rip a large tree out of the ground, and launch it miles away. The movies have so much good material to work with out of the comic books; from astral projection, lightning manipulation, magnetic force fields, repulsor beams, all kinds of good stuff. |
56,266 | As seen in this screencap, Magneto seems to be pulling Mystique towards him using his powers. What I don't understand is, **how** can Magneto affect Mystique? Since when did he gain the ability to manipulate human beings using his powers? Or is there anything unique about Mystique that makes her vulnerable to this? Any comic references to this?
 | 2014/05/14 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/56266",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/12551/"
] | She had been shot before. The bullet in her leg is his 'leverage'. | He's the master of magnitism. It isn't limited to metal objects - he doesn't need any metal around his body to fly. He uses magnetic force fields to manipulate things, he can rip a large tree out of the ground, and launch it miles away. The movies have so much good material to work with out of the comic books; from astral projection, lightning manipulation, magnetic force fields, repulsor beams, all kinds of good stuff. |
56,266 | As seen in this screencap, Magneto seems to be pulling Mystique towards him using his powers. What I don't understand is, **how** can Magneto affect Mystique? Since when did he gain the ability to manipulate human beings using his powers? Or is there anything unique about Mystique that makes her vulnerable to this? Any comic references to this?
 | 2014/05/14 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/56266",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/12551/"
] | **Spoiler alert**
After watching the film,
>
> Magneto shot her in the leg and is pulling the bullet towards him;
> hence Mystique is being pulled as well. That is why in your screenshot, her leg is lifted a little.
> After he had brought her close enough, he pulled the bullet out of her leg.
>
>
>
For those of you wanting the answer but with less spoilers (spoiler tag anyway)
>
> Metal object inside Mystiques leg which Magneto is pulling towards him, thus the lifted leg in the screenshot.
>
>
> | She had been shot before. The bullet in her leg is his 'leverage'. |
5,985 | If I use Tor to log into my personal accounts (gmail, facebook, hotmail) I know I won't be anonymous anymore but is there any way they can trace my IP address? Either my ISP or anyone else?
I"m mostly concerned about someone finding my location rather than knowing which sites and when I visit them. Thank you | 2015/01/10 | [
"https://tor.stackexchange.com/questions/5985",
"https://tor.stackexchange.com",
"https://tor.stackexchange.com/users/6498/"
] | Use Virtualbox with USB Wi-Fi dongle. Your host(Windows) will go to the Internet directly, and the Linux VM will be routed through it(NAT or bridge) - and USB 2.0(not 3.0 !) will be a mapping forwarding of USB dongle to VM and via hostapd you will securely do the trick. It is the simpliest *secure* way to do this. | If you're looking for an easy way to run Tor on Windows, the [Tor Browser Bundle](https://torproject.org) is the easiest way. If you install it on every Windows machine, practically all traffic going to pass in the wireless access point will go through the Tor network. Smartphone have their own apps that allow them to use Tor.
If that's not what you need, and you are seeking a software-based solution to configure your access point to use Tor, then that is harder to carry out, and there is no way to do it from Windows. You'll have to either use a pre-configured router with Tor pre-installed such as Anonabox, or set up a Linux machine with wireless network card as access point, configure it as a router, and install Tor on it so it can connect all your wireless devices through Tor. This will require a certain level of knowledge in Linux administration & networking. |
5,985 | If I use Tor to log into my personal accounts (gmail, facebook, hotmail) I know I won't be anonymous anymore but is there any way they can trace my IP address? Either my ISP or anyone else?
I"m mostly concerned about someone finding my location rather than knowing which sites and when I visit them. Thank you | 2015/01/10 | [
"https://tor.stackexchange.com/questions/5985",
"https://tor.stackexchange.com",
"https://tor.stackexchange.com/users/6498/"
] | Use Virtualbox with USB Wi-Fi dongle. Your host(Windows) will go to the Internet directly, and the Linux VM will be routed through it(NAT or bridge) - and USB 2.0(not 3.0 !) will be a mapping forwarding of USB dongle to VM and via hostapd you will securely do the trick. It is the simpliest *secure* way to do this. | Simply use **Tortilla** **adapter** by the and tor community. New adapter will be installed along side. Two methods are available
1. Executable
2. Manually create the tortilla bundle adapter with the help of solution.
You can follow build instruction from this git.
<https://github.com/CrowdStrike/Tortilla> |
159,752 | Using the Linux Kali distribution, I was able to get the password from my wifi network using the `airmon-ng` [Aircrack-ng] tool.
However, how can I find out if someone is doing this on my network? | 2017/05/17 | [
"https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/159752",
"https://security.stackexchange.com",
"https://security.stackexchange.com/users/132707/"
] | You can't tell if they're doing it because they are scanning your network promiscuously, which means they are just monitoring traffic and not generating any of their own.
You **can** normally prevent this type of attack by using an appropriate level of encryption and passphrase sizes, something such as WPA2-PSK instead of WPA. | Assuming you're using WPA authentication, the best thing you can do is have a strong passphrase. WPA is not vulnerable to the same Fluhrer, Mantin, and Shamir key recovery attack that WEP is vulnerable to, but it's still possible to brute force the passphrase offline by capturing the WPA 4 way handshake, so it all boils down to how good your passphrase is. The longer it is, the better it is. |
168,881 | I know that in a previous version of Minecraft, you could get a Ender Dragon spawn egg (a white egg, like it has no texture). Is that still possible, and if how do i get it? | 2014/05/22 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/168881",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/30691/"
] | ### There's no Ender Dragon Spawn Egg since 1.2
Reading the page on [Spawn Eggs](http://minecraft.gamepedia.com/Spawn_Egg#Ability_to_spawn) on the Wiki, it does not seem possible to get an Ender Dragon Spawn Egg since version 1.2.
Specifically,
>
> **Any entity not in the list above**, such as paintings, entity blocks, or primed TNT, **cannot be created with spawn eggs**, even if set to the relevant entity ID value by commands. The egg is colored gray (Spawn Null.png) and will only work in version 1.1.
>
>
>
(emphasis mine)
As far as I can tell, the list is identical with the spawn eggs you can get in creative mode. Ender Dragon is not listed, and can not be spawned using spawn eggs. | You can also type '/give 383 1 63'. It'll give you the white egg with grey spots.
It is avaliable on any version below 1.7.5
Example:
/give Popcorn98 383 1 63 |
168,881 | I know that in a previous version of Minecraft, you could get a Ender Dragon spawn egg (a white egg, like it has no texture). Is that still possible, and if how do i get it? | 2014/05/22 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/168881",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/30691/"
] | ### There's no Ender Dragon Spawn Egg since 1.2
Reading the page on [Spawn Eggs](http://minecraft.gamepedia.com/Spawn_Egg#Ability_to_spawn) on the Wiki, it does not seem possible to get an Ender Dragon Spawn Egg since version 1.2.
Specifically,
>
> **Any entity not in the list above**, such as paintings, entity blocks, or primed TNT, **cannot be created with spawn eggs**, even if set to the relevant entity ID value by commands. The egg is colored gray (Spawn Null.png) and will only work in version 1.1.
>
>
>
(emphasis mine)
As far as I can tell, the list is identical with the spawn eggs you can get in creative mode. Ender Dragon is not listed, and can not be spawned using spawn eggs. | As of 1.19.3, you can now obtain them with the `/give` command. |
168,881 | I know that in a previous version of Minecraft, you could get a Ender Dragon spawn egg (a white egg, like it has no texture). Is that still possible, and if how do i get it? | 2014/05/22 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/168881",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/30691/"
] | As of 1.19.3, you can now obtain them with the `/give` command. | You can also type '/give 383 1 63'. It'll give you the white egg with grey spots.
It is avaliable on any version below 1.7.5
Example:
/give Popcorn98 383 1 63 |
507 | Shingetsutan Tsukihime is a pretty expansive work - a main visual novel, the Kagetsu Tohya supplement, and the Melty Blood games. The last bit, Melty Blood, is especially jarring to a Type-Moon fan who is late to the party - there are many versions, and the format itself is very different from what is normal for Nasu works: a fighting game.
What are the different versions, and how do they differ? What should be played and what skipped, and in what order, if one is playing for the story aspect? | 2012/12/15 | [
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/questions/507",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com",
"https://anime.stackexchange.com/users/180/"
] | **Melty Blood** is the original game. The story supposedly follows [Satsuki's](http://typemoon.wikia.com/wiki/Satsuki_Yumizuka) route, which was never released with any of TM's games, which takes place one year after *Tsukihime*. The story and plot doesn't change with the subsequent expansion, but a lot of side stories are added (more Neco Arcs!). In the original Melty Blood, only six of 14 characters were available to be played, the other 8 had to be unlocked through playing Story Mode. This was later changed in an update for the game (aka the "Nero" patch), which unlocked all the characters from the start.
[Sion](http://typemoon.wikia.com/wiki/Sion_Eltnam_Atlasia) is the main character of Melty Blood. She originally came to Shiki's town in order to find the cure for vampireism and defeat the [Night of Walachia](http://typemoon.wikia.com/wiki/Night_of_Wallachia) once and for all.
>
> In Actress Again, she is responsible for the reenactment of Walachia.
>
>
>
Although this is supposedly Satsuki's route...
>
> She never appears. She is only mentioned a total of three times in the full story, until ReACT. However, if you read into the game's story, her appearance could might as well been a fake created by Wallachia or White Len...
>
>
>
**Melty Blood ReACT** is an expansion for the original game (like Burning Crusade was to World of Warcraft). This expansion added 2 playable characters and 4 non-playable ones. I believe ReACT also adds an Arcade mode, which is a continuation of sorts of what happens in the Story Mode played out in fighting game style instead of visual novel style. Start with this game if you are just starting out with Melty Blood series and want the whole story (original Story Mode + Arcade Mode).
**Melty Blood Act Cadenza** is a further expansion of ReACT. This added 4 additional playable characters and various graphical and gameplay changes. Note that this version does NOT have a Story Mode.
**Melty Blood Actress Again** is a sequel to the previous game. It features many drasticly new mechanics, two new characters, and 3 different fighting styles for all known characters. Several secondary characters have had their storylines expanded upon to include what happened to them after the main storyline. | to answer the question in the comments:
melty blood react final tuned -> actress again is the full storyline (of melty blood, melty blood itself being a sequel to tsukihime)
melty blood original and react/react final tuned have the exact same story.
i believe more people may be looking for this question due to recent developments so heres the answer. |
161,534 | If I start hiking at [Tillamook Head](https://goo.gl/maps/1pigUHk1tgQ1djzU9) (Seaside, OR), will I be able to [Indian Beach Trailhead](https://goo.gl/maps/v6MWNXcB5mvcJcsg8) (Cannon Beach, OR)? If so, is it feasible (or are there some hindrances, like the trail turns into a bog after a rainy weather, etc.)? Further, will I be able to walk along Ecola State Park Rd. to Cannon Beach (e.g. to Les Shirley Park), or is that a car-only road?
Update: according to [this](https://www.oregonhikers.org/field_guide/Tillamook_Head_Traverse_Hike), the answer to my first question seems to be yes:
>
> This traverse hike, a designated National Recreation Trail and also part of the Oregon Coast Trail, can be shuttled by beginning at either the Indian Beach Trailhead in Ecola State Park, just north of Cannon Beach, or the Tillamook Head Trailhead, although the latter is a better choice if you're doing this as a 12.6 mile out and back trip because you don't have to pay the state parks day use fee. The Tillamook Head Trailhead is just south of Seaside.
>
>
> | 2020/12/09 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/161534",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/77409/"
] | A quick check of the segment explorer in Strava shows that many people frequently run on the trails between Tillamook Head and Indian Beach Trailhead, and they also frequently run the length of Ecola State Park Road. In fact it's popular with both runners and cyclists.
For the trail segment, do note that you will gain about 1,000 feet of elevation, and there are switchbacks/moderately rough terrain. Runners generally average 2-3 minutes/mile slower than their usual city-running average when running this particular route.
For the road segment, just stay on the left and wear something visible. People drive slowly. | I successfully walked from Les Shirley Park all the way to Tillamook Head (through the Indian Beach Trail, then through the coastal part of the Clatsop Loop Trail, and through the Hikers Camp) this December. It was raining the day before my hike and earlier that week, and the trails were muddy and slippery, but nothing unpassable. I've only encountered a couple of cars on Ecola State Park Rd. (in the morning). |
367,337 | On the Meta question [Does Stack Exchange really want to conflate newbies with women/people of color?](https://meta.stackoverflow.com/questions/366665/does-stack-exchange-really-want-to-conflate-newbies-with-women-people-of-color), a user posted an answer that heavily criticized the recent blog post. He was temporarily banned a little while after. Was he banned for his political beliefs, or was it for some other reason? Are moderators or Stack Overflow employees really biased enough that they would ban someone for something like that? | 2018/05/04 | [
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/questions/367337",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/users/7021836/"
] | We [try to avoid discussing specific suspensions publicly](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/293213/why-we-dont-keep-public-records-of-suspensions), *particularly* while the relevant user is still suspended. It's unfair to the person who was suspended and unable to defend themselves.
We also discourage folks from [calling out specific users by name here on meta](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/289909/should-any-meta-post-that-calls-out-a-user-by-name-be-deleted-not-just-downvote), for pretty much the same reason.
So I've edited your question, and I'm not going to say anything specific to this user's suspension.
I will note, for the benefit of one and all, that while anyone is free to discuss controversial topics here the [be nice](/help/be-nice) policy still applies; if you can't [show basic respect to the folks who disagree with you](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/289398/if-youre-gonna-talk-politics-you-must-respect-those-who-disagree), then there's no point in talking to them at all. | I'm going to let the employee that enforced the suspension chime in on the particulars, though we can't share very much about it.
I want to take a moment and clearly say that we would not suspend anyone for their beliefs, or the expression of those beliefs, as long as they were expressed in a manner that is consistent with our [code of conduct](https://stackoverflow.com/help/be-nice).
We provide this platform *for you to disagree with us* if that's what you want to do. We just ask that you do it with respect and sincerity for us as well as other users. |
16,056,353 | I am trying to reduce the width of the bar. I achieved the same by using pointWidth attribute. However, the padding before and after the label "1 page" is too high. I want to compress the whole graph similar to the second image.
Does anyone know?
Before:
After:
 | 2013/04/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/16056353",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/956287/"
] | try setting the height of the chart :
chart: {
type: 'bar',
height: 250, // this can be calculated on the basis of categories length along with some default margin at the bottom and top of the chart
} | You can set use pointPadding / groupPadding <http://api.highcharts.com/highcharts#plotOptions.bar.groupPadding>
<http://api.highcharts.com/highcharts#plotOptions.bar.pointPadding> |
3,309 | Some years ago, particularly before the 1990s, there way a saying in Europe that (paraphrased) you can sell your blue jeans in every part of Eastern Europe and literally live like a king for a week.
Naturally things have changed since then. But is it still possible to do so in any part of Europe? | 2011/11/07 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/3309",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/693/"
] | That used to be true, back in the 1980s, in the Soviet Bloc countries, because:
* blue jeans were *the* fashion trend then and there
* they were not available on the market, *at all* (not "sold out", not "in small quantities", not at all.)
* thus providing an opportunity for home-made imitations *and* for scarce (rare even) black-market goods
Now, that's a textbook example for Economics 101: high demand, extremely scarce supply - and prices shot through the roof, quite predictably: and yes, people were willing to part with a month's worth of wage to get that one pair of jeans (as @M.K. recalls in the comments). So, it indeed used to be true, *literally*: sell a pair of blue jeans and live like a king for a week.
Things that have changed in this situation since 1980s:
* Everything.
No, seriously:
* Jeans are not *the* new hot fashion trend (perhaps *a* fashion trend, if at all)
* Import is unrestricted
* Supply is abundant
* And that all was true even before I could have ordered virtually *anything* from *anywhere*, directly, through the Internet.
In short, that specific bubble has popped not "some years", but twenty-some years ago; *two* major market changes ("paradigm shifts," if you will) have happened since. It's an amusing historical tidbit, but nothing more. | Not anymore. Now you'd have to sell a blue auto...
Nowadays you can buy a heck of jeans of various quality everywhere, from marketplaces to supermarkets. The prices in, for example, Poland, are much lower than in Germany, so you'd have more luck selling your jeans in Germany...
Before the 1990s the situation was completely different. Almost everything was hardly available (there are various photos of markes shelves, where there's only vinegar on it). Some products, like jeans, were possible (officially) to buy only for dollars and the average citizen wasn't allowed to buy dollars, so such products were available only to people having relatives in the West, or buying it second hand, for the high price.
Now most Eastern Europe is in EU, and the rest trade intensively with the west, and the dollars are widely available, as well as the goods from all over the world. And jeans comes mostly from Asia. Such curiosities as internal export (see Pewex) are known only to older people, for the yougsters they are like knights and dragons. |
3,309 | Some years ago, particularly before the 1990s, there way a saying in Europe that (paraphrased) you can sell your blue jeans in every part of Eastern Europe and literally live like a king for a week.
Naturally things have changed since then. But is it still possible to do so in any part of Europe? | 2011/11/07 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/3309",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/693/"
] | That used to be true, back in the 1980s, in the Soviet Bloc countries, because:
* blue jeans were *the* fashion trend then and there
* they were not available on the market, *at all* (not "sold out", not "in small quantities", not at all.)
* thus providing an opportunity for home-made imitations *and* for scarce (rare even) black-market goods
Now, that's a textbook example for Economics 101: high demand, extremely scarce supply - and prices shot through the roof, quite predictably: and yes, people were willing to part with a month's worth of wage to get that one pair of jeans (as @M.K. recalls in the comments). So, it indeed used to be true, *literally*: sell a pair of blue jeans and live like a king for a week.
Things that have changed in this situation since 1980s:
* Everything.
No, seriously:
* Jeans are not *the* new hot fashion trend (perhaps *a* fashion trend, if at all)
* Import is unrestricted
* Supply is abundant
* And that all was true even before I could have ordered virtually *anything* from *anywhere*, directly, through the Internet.
In short, that specific bubble has popped not "some years", but twenty-some years ago; *two* major market changes ("paradigm shifts," if you will) have happened since. It's an amusing historical tidbit, but nothing more. | That used to be true in 1980ies, but it ended with the collapse of the USSR a whole generation ago.
In essence, in USSR there was a thriving black market for imported goods which weren't generally available locally - jeans, music records and consumer electronics such as VCRs; such items would be worth a fortune and the 'local' items were price-controlled to be very cheap, so people who could get it through the customs (generally foreign sailors) could live well on selling such items.
But for the last 20 years it's not true. |
184,864 | Has anyone had good experiences of talking direct to RPG programs running on a V5R4 iSeries machine from Java? If so, what are the recommendations of the community, and what pitfalls should I try to avoid?
From the various pieces of literature and spike solutions I have attempted it looks as though we can use ProgramCallBeans (either through PCML or xPCML), talking to the DataQueues (for asynchronous comms), or even JNI.
I'm looking for something that's robust, performant, quick to develop, easy to maintain, and easy to test (aren't we all!?!). | 2008/10/08 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/184864",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/26283/"
] | You should look at [JTOpen](http://jt400.sourceforge.net/). It is fairly easy to use that to do what you want to do. Here is an example someone has put together: [program call to as400 using jtopen](http://codenewbie.com/forum/java/1921-program-call-as400-using-jtopen.html) | I've had some success with PCML documents. I decided to use PCML since encoding the commandcall into a string when passing parameters to an RPG program can get really ugly.
PCML allows you to somewhat transparently pass java data types to an rpg program as a parameter. The drawback is that the xml in the PCML doc becomes a static interface and must be updated if the program is ever updated. With the right build tools, it might be pretty straightforward to automate the update of the pcml xml, but right now I'm doing this manually.
I've used this approach when the rpg program needs to be called from java, and the logic flow is controlled by the java program.
In a case where the logic flow was controlled by an rpg program, I've used dataqueues for both synchronous and asynchronous calls to java. This required writing a significant amount of code to standardize on how to read and write to dataqueues in a coordinated manner from different programming languages |
184,864 | Has anyone had good experiences of talking direct to RPG programs running on a V5R4 iSeries machine from Java? If so, what are the recommendations of the community, and what pitfalls should I try to avoid?
From the various pieces of literature and spike solutions I have attempted it looks as though we can use ProgramCallBeans (either through PCML or xPCML), talking to the DataQueues (for asynchronous comms), or even JNI.
I'm looking for something that's robust, performant, quick to develop, easy to maintain, and easy to test (aren't we all!?!). | 2008/10/08 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/184864",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/26283/"
] | I've had some success with PCML documents. I decided to use PCML since encoding the commandcall into a string when passing parameters to an RPG program can get really ugly.
PCML allows you to somewhat transparently pass java data types to an rpg program as a parameter. The drawback is that the xml in the PCML doc becomes a static interface and must be updated if the program is ever updated. With the right build tools, it might be pretty straightforward to automate the update of the pcml xml, but right now I'm doing this manually.
I've used this approach when the rpg program needs to be called from java, and the logic flow is controlled by the java program.
In a case where the logic flow was controlled by an rpg program, I've used dataqueues for both synchronous and asynchronous calls to java. This required writing a significant amount of code to standardize on how to read and write to dataqueues in a coordinated manner from different programming languages | Hmm, I'm new here and would vote KC Baltz answer up, but cannot yet. Stored procedures are the way to go. I've used JT open to call programs natively and found issues with the number of parms that could be passed, issues with data types, etc. Once you have an SQL procedure wrapper around your program you'll find the Java support for SQL to be far superior than the java support for native 400 calls. |
184,864 | Has anyone had good experiences of talking direct to RPG programs running on a V5R4 iSeries machine from Java? If so, what are the recommendations of the community, and what pitfalls should I try to avoid?
From the various pieces of literature and spike solutions I have attempted it looks as though we can use ProgramCallBeans (either through PCML or xPCML), talking to the DataQueues (for asynchronous comms), or even JNI.
I'm looking for something that's robust, performant, quick to develop, easy to maintain, and easy to test (aren't we all!?!). | 2008/10/08 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/184864",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/26283/"
] | It is quite simple to call java methods directly from RPG. I am not sure exactly what you are trying to do, I have made calls directly to java methods several times.
For an example of how this is done. Take a look at [RPGMail](http://mowyourlawn.com/html/RPGMail.php). You can look at the source and see how Aaron used RPG to connect to JavaMail. | Hmm, I'm new here and would vote KC Baltz answer up, but cannot yet. Stored procedures are the way to go. I've used JT open to call programs natively and found issues with the number of parms that could be passed, issues with data types, etc. Once you have an SQL procedure wrapper around your program you'll find the Java support for SQL to be far superior than the java support for native 400 calls. |
184,864 | Has anyone had good experiences of talking direct to RPG programs running on a V5R4 iSeries machine from Java? If so, what are the recommendations of the community, and what pitfalls should I try to avoid?
From the various pieces of literature and spike solutions I have attempted it looks as though we can use ProgramCallBeans (either through PCML or xPCML), talking to the DataQueues (for asynchronous comms), or even JNI.
I'm looking for something that's robust, performant, quick to develop, easy to maintain, and easy to test (aren't we all!?!). | 2008/10/08 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/184864",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/26283/"
] | We just use JDBC and stored procedures. The stored procedure calls the RPG instead of running SQL. I'm not an RPG programmer, but it seems like a very simple interface. DataQueues are OK, but they aren't as robust as something like JMS (no guaranteed delivery). | Hmm, I'm new here and would vote KC Baltz answer up, but cannot yet. Stored procedures are the way to go. I've used JT open to call programs natively and found issues with the number of parms that could be passed, issues with data types, etc. Once you have an SQL procedure wrapper around your program you'll find the Java support for SQL to be far superior than the java support for native 400 calls. |
184,864 | Has anyone had good experiences of talking direct to RPG programs running on a V5R4 iSeries machine from Java? If so, what are the recommendations of the community, and what pitfalls should I try to avoid?
From the various pieces of literature and spike solutions I have attempted it looks as though we can use ProgramCallBeans (either through PCML or xPCML), talking to the DataQueues (for asynchronous comms), or even JNI.
I'm looking for something that's robust, performant, quick to develop, easy to maintain, and easy to test (aren't we all!?!). | 2008/10/08 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/184864",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/26283/"
] | You should look at [JTOpen](http://jt400.sourceforge.net/). It is fairly easy to use that to do what you want to do. Here is an example someone has put together: [program call to as400 using jtopen](http://codenewbie.com/forum/java/1921-program-call-as400-using-jtopen.html) | We just use JDBC and stored procedures. The stored procedure calls the RPG instead of running SQL. I'm not an RPG programmer, but it seems like a very simple interface. DataQueues are OK, but they aren't as robust as something like JMS (no guaranteed delivery). |
75,758 | I have a car cigarette extension cord with a USB out on it as well. The USB out though will not charge my phone, which is a bit annoying. I had a look at the circuit inside in the device and it looked something like this:
I'm guessing the reason the phone won't charge is the 78L05 chip is only rated for 100mA. Therefore I was thinking of changing it to a 7805 chip, which is rated for 1A. Would this idea stand up to my reasoning? Or am I likely to damage any equipment I connect if I go down this root?
Also, if I go about this, will I also need to do something with the capacitor and the resistor on the board?
Edit:
Thanks for all the answers.
I didn't think of the heating problems I might have in my scenario above.
Its looking like the best solution for the device is the one Nick Alexeev gave below if I'm going to stick with the device I have.
I have also changed the diagram above as the resistor is actually 360 ohm.
Also, I am including a image of the device itself below as requested to show exactly what I was talking about.
 | 2013/07/13 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/75758",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/26315/"
] | A linear regulator such as 7805 would work, if you heatsink it adequately.
Suppose, that the 7805 is outputting 1A\*\* at 5V, which is 5W. It draws 1A at 14.5\*\*\* from the supply, which is 14.5W. Where does the remaining 9.5W go? It's lost as heat. To keep 7805 cool, the heat needs to be dissipated. That's why you need to do the thermal analysis (think the heatsinking through).
\*\* 1A is the max current, which your 7805 is rated for. Worst-case current in this scenario.
\*\*\* 12V supply in a car can be as high as 14.5V sometimes.
Commercial cigaret plug chargers, which I've seen had buck converters (switch-mode). They are more complex than linear, but they have 85% to 95% efficiency. Which means that in case of 1A at 5V, you would need to dissipate only 0.5W or so.
There are self-contained buck modules, which were designed for drop-in replacement of 7805. Such as [this one](http://www.mouser.com/ds/2/281/oki-78sr-56393.pdf). (There are many more modules with suitable specs, so don't get bent of that particular one.) | The basic concept is sound, although a bit profligate. You want to worry a little bit about heat-sinking the 7805, since for every 5 mW out, you're burning 7 mW in the regulator heat sink (because current out essentially = current in, and you're dropping 7V across the regulator). You'd do a lot better with a 12V-to-5V stepdown switcher.
The capacitor is there to smooth out ripple and noise on the input to the regulator. I would add a 1 uf TANTALUM (!) across the 7805 output, to suppress spurious oscillation of the regulator IC. I've seen that happen on a friend's homemade linear supply; adding the capacitor fixed it. (Supposedly, current-gen 78xx regulators don't need it, but it is CHEAP insurance.)
What color LED is it, and how much current does it require? That's what sizes the resistor. |
75,758 | I have a car cigarette extension cord with a USB out on it as well. The USB out though will not charge my phone, which is a bit annoying. I had a look at the circuit inside in the device and it looked something like this:
I'm guessing the reason the phone won't charge is the 78L05 chip is only rated for 100mA. Therefore I was thinking of changing it to a 7805 chip, which is rated for 1A. Would this idea stand up to my reasoning? Or am I likely to damage any equipment I connect if I go down this root?
Also, if I go about this, will I also need to do something with the capacitor and the resistor on the board?
Edit:
Thanks for all the answers.
I didn't think of the heating problems I might have in my scenario above.
Its looking like the best solution for the device is the one Nick Alexeev gave below if I'm going to stick with the device I have.
I have also changed the diagram above as the resistor is actually 360 ohm.
Also, I am including a image of the device itself below as requested to show exactly what I was talking about.
 | 2013/07/13 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/75758",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/26315/"
] | Two things. One, the 7805 and 78L05 are identical in operation and pinning, the only significant difference being the current they can operate at. There is heat concerns with higher current, but the TO-220 case that the 7805 comes in handles more heat. Essentially, they are drop in replacements for each other.
**BUT the more important part is that most newer phones hate dumb chargers.** Older chargers tend to simply have the power pins connected. It's not the 100mA limit that prevents charging, but lack of signaling on the data pins. Newer chargers tend to have switching regulators instead of linear regulators, which are more efficient and have little to no heat issues, but also signal to the phone what kind of charger it is.
For the most part, it would be cheaper, faster, and safer to buy a 1 dollar usb car charger on ebay then it would trying to replace the 78l05 with a 7805. Or spare 5 bucks for the same charger at a retail store (Walgreens, CVS, etc). | The basic concept is sound, although a bit profligate. You want to worry a little bit about heat-sinking the 7805, since for every 5 mW out, you're burning 7 mW in the regulator heat sink (because current out essentially = current in, and you're dropping 7V across the regulator). You'd do a lot better with a 12V-to-5V stepdown switcher.
The capacitor is there to smooth out ripple and noise on the input to the regulator. I would add a 1 uf TANTALUM (!) across the 7805 output, to suppress spurious oscillation of the regulator IC. I've seen that happen on a friend's homemade linear supply; adding the capacitor fixed it. (Supposedly, current-gen 78xx regulators don't need it, but it is CHEAP insurance.)
What color LED is it, and how much current does it require? That's what sizes the resistor. |
75,758 | I have a car cigarette extension cord with a USB out on it as well. The USB out though will not charge my phone, which is a bit annoying. I had a look at the circuit inside in the device and it looked something like this:
I'm guessing the reason the phone won't charge is the 78L05 chip is only rated for 100mA. Therefore I was thinking of changing it to a 7805 chip, which is rated for 1A. Would this idea stand up to my reasoning? Or am I likely to damage any equipment I connect if I go down this root?
Also, if I go about this, will I also need to do something with the capacitor and the resistor on the board?
Edit:
Thanks for all the answers.
I didn't think of the heating problems I might have in my scenario above.
Its looking like the best solution for the device is the one Nick Alexeev gave below if I'm going to stick with the device I have.
I have also changed the diagram above as the resistor is actually 360 ohm.
Also, I am including a image of the device itself below as requested to show exactly what I was talking about.
 | 2013/07/13 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/75758",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/26315/"
] | The basic concept is sound, although a bit profligate. You want to worry a little bit about heat-sinking the 7805, since for every 5 mW out, you're burning 7 mW in the regulator heat sink (because current out essentially = current in, and you're dropping 7V across the regulator). You'd do a lot better with a 12V-to-5V stepdown switcher.
The capacitor is there to smooth out ripple and noise on the input to the regulator. I would add a 1 uf TANTALUM (!) across the 7805 output, to suppress spurious oscillation of the regulator IC. I've seen that happen on a friend's homemade linear supply; adding the capacitor fixed it. (Supposedly, current-gen 78xx regulators don't need it, but it is CHEAP insurance.)
What color LED is it, and how much current does it require? That's what sizes the resistor. | A better alternative is by using SMR88xx ([eBay link](http://www.ebay.com/itm/DC-DC-converter-mini-SMR88xx-high-current-replacement-7805-7809-1-Lot-10pcs-/181181177608)), it's has higher power, less dissipation heat. |
75,758 | I have a car cigarette extension cord with a USB out on it as well. The USB out though will not charge my phone, which is a bit annoying. I had a look at the circuit inside in the device and it looked something like this:
I'm guessing the reason the phone won't charge is the 78L05 chip is only rated for 100mA. Therefore I was thinking of changing it to a 7805 chip, which is rated for 1A. Would this idea stand up to my reasoning? Or am I likely to damage any equipment I connect if I go down this root?
Also, if I go about this, will I also need to do something with the capacitor and the resistor on the board?
Edit:
Thanks for all the answers.
I didn't think of the heating problems I might have in my scenario above.
Its looking like the best solution for the device is the one Nick Alexeev gave below if I'm going to stick with the device I have.
I have also changed the diagram above as the resistor is actually 360 ohm.
Also, I am including a image of the device itself below as requested to show exactly what I was talking about.
 | 2013/07/13 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/75758",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/26315/"
] | A linear regulator such as 7805 would work, if you heatsink it adequately.
Suppose, that the 7805 is outputting 1A\*\* at 5V, which is 5W. It draws 1A at 14.5\*\*\* from the supply, which is 14.5W. Where does the remaining 9.5W go? It's lost as heat. To keep 7805 cool, the heat needs to be dissipated. That's why you need to do the thermal analysis (think the heatsinking through).
\*\* 1A is the max current, which your 7805 is rated for. Worst-case current in this scenario.
\*\*\* 12V supply in a car can be as high as 14.5V sometimes.
Commercial cigaret plug chargers, which I've seen had buck converters (switch-mode). They are more complex than linear, but they have 85% to 95% efficiency. Which means that in case of 1A at 5V, you would need to dissipate only 0.5W or so.
There are self-contained buck modules, which were designed for drop-in replacement of 7805. Such as [this one](http://www.mouser.com/ds/2/281/oki-78sr-56393.pdf). (There are many more modules with suitable specs, so don't get bent of that particular one.) | A better alternative is by using SMR88xx ([eBay link](http://www.ebay.com/itm/DC-DC-converter-mini-SMR88xx-high-current-replacement-7805-7809-1-Lot-10pcs-/181181177608)), it's has higher power, less dissipation heat. |
75,758 | I have a car cigarette extension cord with a USB out on it as well. The USB out though will not charge my phone, which is a bit annoying. I had a look at the circuit inside in the device and it looked something like this:
I'm guessing the reason the phone won't charge is the 78L05 chip is only rated for 100mA. Therefore I was thinking of changing it to a 7805 chip, which is rated for 1A. Would this idea stand up to my reasoning? Or am I likely to damage any equipment I connect if I go down this root?
Also, if I go about this, will I also need to do something with the capacitor and the resistor on the board?
Edit:
Thanks for all the answers.
I didn't think of the heating problems I might have in my scenario above.
Its looking like the best solution for the device is the one Nick Alexeev gave below if I'm going to stick with the device I have.
I have also changed the diagram above as the resistor is actually 360 ohm.
Also, I am including a image of the device itself below as requested to show exactly what I was talking about.
 | 2013/07/13 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/75758",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/26315/"
] | Two things. One, the 7805 and 78L05 are identical in operation and pinning, the only significant difference being the current they can operate at. There is heat concerns with higher current, but the TO-220 case that the 7805 comes in handles more heat. Essentially, they are drop in replacements for each other.
**BUT the more important part is that most newer phones hate dumb chargers.** Older chargers tend to simply have the power pins connected. It's not the 100mA limit that prevents charging, but lack of signaling on the data pins. Newer chargers tend to have switching regulators instead of linear regulators, which are more efficient and have little to no heat issues, but also signal to the phone what kind of charger it is.
For the most part, it would be cheaper, faster, and safer to buy a 1 dollar usb car charger on ebay then it would trying to replace the 78l05 with a 7805. Or spare 5 bucks for the same charger at a retail store (Walgreens, CVS, etc). | A better alternative is by using SMR88xx ([eBay link](http://www.ebay.com/itm/DC-DC-converter-mini-SMR88xx-high-current-replacement-7805-7809-1-Lot-10pcs-/181181177608)), it's has higher power, less dissipation heat. |
42,342 | [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/I8qAm.png)I want to have a wired Internet connection before or after a PoE access point.
Is that possible? | 2017/07/04 | [
"https://networkengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/42342",
"https://networkengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://networkengineering.stackexchange.com/users/37980/"
] | As far as I understand your problem: on the location of the AP you want another, wired Internet access? You can run the AP's patch cable through a switch to add ports to the network.
However, (usually) PoE doesn't pass the switch, so you'll need to connect the switch to the LAN side of the PoE injector. Then, from the switch, run another cable through the PoE injector and then to the AP as before. | The Access point has the Ethernet port,there you can connect a PC or Switch.from that port you can get access
user will get access on the same AP IP range. |
42,342 | [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/I8qAm.png)I want to have a wired Internet connection before or after a PoE access point.
Is that possible? | 2017/07/04 | [
"https://networkengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/42342",
"https://networkengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://networkengineering.stackexchange.com/users/37980/"
] | For PoE to work, the last device before the PD (powered device, in your case an access point) needs to be the PSE (power sourcing equipment, in your case the PoE "injector", also called a Midspan). Your options are a) remove the PoE injector and install a switch which supports PoE instead between the firewall and AP, or b) run a second network cable from the firewall to a new switch in parallel with the AP cabling. | As far as I understand your problem: on the location of the AP you want another, wired Internet access? You can run the AP's patch cable through a switch to add ports to the network.
However, (usually) PoE doesn't pass the switch, so you'll need to connect the switch to the LAN side of the PoE injector. Then, from the switch, run another cable through the PoE injector and then to the AP as before. |
42,342 | [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/I8qAm.png)I want to have a wired Internet connection before or after a PoE access point.
Is that possible? | 2017/07/04 | [
"https://networkengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/42342",
"https://networkengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://networkengineering.stackexchange.com/users/37980/"
] | For PoE to work, the last device before the PD (powered device, in your case an access point) needs to be the PSE (power sourcing equipment, in your case the PoE "injector", also called a Midspan). Your options are a) remove the PoE injector and install a switch which supports PoE instead between the firewall and AP, or b) run a second network cable from the firewall to a new switch in parallel with the AP cabling. | The Access point has the Ethernet port,there you can connect a PC or Switch.from that port you can get access
user will get access on the same AP IP range. |
2,288 | Let us have the following three sets of information
---
---
---
Now I want to combine all of this data and show it all together. Telling it like a story. Giving inter-relations. Showing similarities in terms, concepts etc. to get the following (Note that in the diagram below, the colored relations may not be exact, they are merely indicative of a node of information)
**Question:** Is there a good way to do it. Also, Is there a tool available for doing this?
I hope this make the question much more clear. :)
I have posted this question originally on stackoverflow [here](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/4070150/data-visualisation1.) so you can take a deeper look to understand my question better. | 2010/11/01 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/2288",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/2290/"
] | Maybe this [one](https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/953/how-to-display-the-hierarchical-data-closed)
**ADDED:**
and use it with combination of [Topic Map](https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/1056/how-to-use-topic-maps) to find out *associations*, *occurrences*(number of occurrences to size "circle") between **topics** (entities). | If you are trying to "visualize" relationships between 1 or more things you may find a tool like [this](http://yuml.me/diagram/scruffy/class/samples) very handy. Not only does it let you visually build a picture with simple text, but it handles many of the "odd" scenarios that might otherwise be hard to indicate.
 |
243,913 | So this isnt like a technical question, just some advice.
This is my issue:
A few years ago I had a medical problem but I'll spare you the details.
One of the results is a lack of concentration and motivation.
How it works is that I can get a burst of enthusiasm and work away at a project for hours on end, then it's like I hit a large wall (literally from one moment to the next, not gradual) where I can't continue and the project gets abandoned.
Now motivation is something you can't really fix with an app.
But,
I have seen that there are apps that allow you to write without distractions, but I do programming (currently HTML, PHP and CSS but also a lot of Python).
Is there an app that either allows me to kinda make previous code typed not seem so daunting, or perhaps an app that can make me focus solely on the task at hand?
I know it's a bit of an odd question, but any ideas are very welcomed, even if it's just advice.
Thanks in advance | 2013/01/16 | [
"https://askubuntu.com/questions/243913",
"https://askubuntu.com",
"https://askubuntu.com/users/57196/"
] | There is a writing app called FocusWriter which is a very distraction free text editor. It does however not support any syntax highlighting.
It is available for free download in the Ubuntu Software Center.
And here is a link to their webpage:
<http://gottcode.org/focuswriter/> | I found a solution to the distraction editor.
Having checked out focuswriter, I started looking through Google for similar apps and stumbled upon Marave.
It doesn't work perfectly as I need to start it with sudo in order to save, but it's fullscreen and distraction free, thanks very much for the input |
120,698 | Google search results:
"posts by categories" — 442 000
"posts by category" — 2 820 000
Usually there are many posts and many categories, but many people do something like that: <http://heteconomist.com/all-posts-by-category/> Is it correct? | 2017/02/25 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/120698",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/49764/"
] | People who write *by categories* think about posts sorted into a number of categories, people who write *by category* think about *category* as the criterion for sorting. Either form is acceptable, but I think the singular is mildly preferred in formal discourse. | "posts by categories" is incorrect.
"posts by category" assumes multiple categories, else it's meaningless.
One would also say, for example, "posts by gender" not "posts by genders". |
253,793 | If I wish to eat some of the chocolate my friend is eating. Can I say:
>
> 1. Give me a bite.
> 2. Share me a bite.
> 3. Let me take a bite.
> 4. Can you share a bite?
>
>
>
**Important: Does it have any taboos meaning too?** | 2020/07/14 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/253793",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/92676/"
] | Firstly, it’s “than”, not “then”.
As Kate Bunting mentions, the second example is valid, though rather old-fashioned and formal.
The first sort of sounds like it’s trying to say:
>
> Men are rather impressed by beauty.
>
>
>
“Rather” here just means “very”.
One acceptable and common way to phrase what you're trying to say would be:
>
> Men are impressed by beauty rather than (by) character.
>
>
>
Also note that the second “by”, which I’ve bracketed, is optional. | To add to Chris's answer...
Even better to avoid using 'rather' here. So:
>
> Men are impressed by beauty in a woman, not character
>
>
>
or
>
> Men are more impressed by a woman's beauty than her character.
>
>
> |
253,793 | If I wish to eat some of the chocolate my friend is eating. Can I say:
>
> 1. Give me a bite.
> 2. Share me a bite.
> 3. Let me take a bite.
> 4. Can you share a bite?
>
>
>
**Important: Does it have any taboos meaning too?** | 2020/07/14 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/253793",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/92676/"
] | Firstly, it’s “than”, not “then”.
As Kate Bunting mentions, the second example is valid, though rather old-fashioned and formal.
The first sort of sounds like it’s trying to say:
>
> Men are rather impressed by beauty.
>
>
>
“Rather” here just means “very”.
One acceptable and common way to phrase what you're trying to say would be:
>
> Men are impressed by beauty rather than (by) character.
>
>
>
Also note that the second “by”, which I’ve bracketed, is optional. | >
> Men are rather impressed by beauty than character.
>
>
>
Will rather be the right answer to your question.
Here `rather` is giving more emphasis on one over the other. |
210 | Hi,
The definition I have for a Path Algega of a quiver Q is that it is the algebra whose basis is formed by the oriented paths in Q, including the trivial ones. Apparently multiplication is given by concatenation of paths, and those that can't be concatenated are considered zero. That part I think I understand, but I am wondering if there is a non-formal interpretation of the addition operation on two elements of a path algebra someone could provide? | 2009/10/09 | [
"https://mathoverflow.net/questions/210",
"https://mathoverflow.net",
"https://mathoverflow.net/users/16/"
] | The short answer is no. You just have to think of them as formal sums, in the same way that you can only think of elements of a group algebra as formal sums.
What you can do is think of the path category of a quiver, which is the category whose objects are elements are vertices of the quiver, and whose morphisms are paths in the quiver. A representation of the path algebra as an algebra is essentially just a functor from this path category to vectors spaces. | I realize that this question is four months old, but I'm new to the site.
Another thing you can do is use the relationship between path algebras and other algebras to breathe some life into the formal construction. For example, it is known that any elementary hereditary algebra over a field is isomorphic to a path algebra. |
3,609,188 | I'm writing an app which needs to post emails on behalf of users of our Google Apps Premier domain. I see there is a way to do this using the AppEngine Mail Service if you have the admin credentials. I want to know how to do this from a normal Java app running on say Tomcat. | 2010/08/31 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3609188",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/219579/"
] | This is explained at
* [Zend\_Controller Basics](http://framework.zend.com/manual/en/zend.controller.basics.html) and
* [Zend Framework MVC Request Lifecycle](http://devzone.zend.com/article/11978) and
* [Zend Framework Dispatch Workflow](http://www.slideshare.net/polleywong/zend-framework-dispatch-workflow)
Usually I do not like pointing to external resources without giving a few words to it, but to explain what's going on is too much to type in my own words, so bear with me on this one.
If the explanation at the given links dont suffice, you could install XDebug and step through the execution flow if you want to know all the nittygritty details. | Here is a bit less orthodox view on [how zend framework application could be architectured](http://artur.ejsmont.org/blog/content/how-to-structure-a-zend-framework-application-and-manage-internal-dependencies). |
248,034 | I have a transformer that outputs 14.3V (AC of course) and the current in short-circuit is about 13A (made a beautiful spark when I measured it :) ). Can I guesstimate from here what is the 'normal' current that I can get from this transformer without overheating it? I need 1.3A.
Other data:
Input voltage: 230V
Output 1: 14.3V
Output 2: 18V
Transformer's iron core: 4.5 x 5.5 x 3 cm.
It is written on the transformer that it has an internal thermal fuse.
Transformer name: transformer SF-57E/11B/18A
From an music player (tape, cd, pickup, radio) with speakers of about (2x) 4-8W. | 2016/07/26 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/248034",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/33899/"
] | You need 14.5 V X 1.3 A = 18.9 VA. Look for 20 VA transformers on seller sites. Here is one that I found:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/0hIJP.png)
The one that you have is about that size, so there is a good chance that is will be ok, but you don't have much safety factor in the estimate. | Short-circuit current is not a useful measure.
Instead, pick a tolerance — say, 10% — and gradually increase the load current until the output voltage drops by that amount (e.g., from 14.3 V to 12.9 V). This gives you one estimate of the transformer's capacity.
Pay attention to how the voltage drops as you increase the current. If there's an abrupt "knee", then you want to stop there and back off a bit. This indicates that the transformer core has started to saturate, and you don't want to operate in that region because losses go up dramatically.
Let the transformer run at that load for a while and see how warm it gets — and whether the thermal fuse trips (hopefully, it's self-resetting). If it gets too hot to touch, you need to back off on the load. |
317,789 | On Area 51 meta someone asked a question about promoting his proposal which I answered [here](https://area51.meta.stackexchange.com/a/28317).
Now on Stack Exchange since we don't like spam I don't like the idea of someone spamming something from Stack Exchange on some other platform, so I said in the most friendly way possible not to spam anyone in my answer. (*Small text at the bottom*)
But, should I have said this, is there anything wrong somehow with this simple reminder? It felt kind of rude in a way. | 2018/11/04 | [
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/317789",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/311917/"
] | I don't think this simple reminder is rude, and it's not wrong.
It's always fine to remind people not to spam and to respect the users using the website. If you feel like it's rude to the user, you always have the right to remove it.
I also don't think you have to put the reminder in since most users know it's unrespectful to spam on websites, but you still have the right to remind people not to spam in a friendly way. | Although I sometime see small text used within posts, I personally think it is undesirable to do so, because my first thought is always "I wonder what they want to try and hide in the fine print". If it is worth saying then I think it is worth making it easily readable.
I think we all know that spamming is highly unpopular, and so your fine print can go without saying. If people spam here downvotes and spam flags quickly discourage them, and I think it is up to other sites to perform their own spam control to the level that is desirable for them. |
8,116 | Have an old(ish) laptop with a Pentium T4400 @ 2.20 GHz processor, and some old software1 that requires Windows 95 or NT.
With a view to running this software on that hardware, I tried installing Windows 95, 98, ME, 2000, and NT from CD-ROM with no success whatsoever.
Can it be a configuration problem? Which is the latest processor I can use for this software?
IIRC, Windows 98 & ME are versions of 95, and 2000 is a version of NT? Later Windows versions are more different?
---
1 The software in question, which does not run on Windows 7 or 10, is [Nationalencyklopedin](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nationalencyklopedin):
>
> In 1997, the first digital form of the encyclopedia was released on 6 CD-ROMs...
>
>
> | 2018/11/01 | [
"https://retrocomputing.stackexchange.com/questions/8116",
"https://retrocomputing.stackexchange.com",
"https://retrocomputing.stackexchange.com/users/7265/"
] | Windows 2000 is the latest (5.0) version of NT. Last Update was 2005, EOL in 2010. The Laptop isn't anywhere near being old (or OT here), as its at maximum from 2010. While this seem late, it should be possible to install Win2k, update it to SP4 and include drivers for the Laptop from XP, as the original XP driver model is still compatible with NT/Win2k.
Then again, without more information why installation failed, it's hard to even randomly guess why it doesn't work.
Further, software made for NT should, in most cases, run on XP and even Windows 10. Of course, depending on what OS services it uses. So again, without a more detailed information about it's impossible to give a real answer. | ### Windows XP Mode
Quite a bit of older software will NOT run natively in Windows 7 or above. However, most of this software, whether DOS-based or older Windows software, will run just fine in [Windows XP Mode.](https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/download/details.aspx?id=8002)
Unfortunately, Windows XP Mode is not available for Windows 10. I have quite a few customers where I have stuck with Windows 7 specifically in order to run Windows XP Mode to run older software. Actually, most of them (and many of my other customers) prefer the "classic" Windows interface used from 95 through 7 to the newer 8/10 interface anyway, but I digress.
Other than the now very rare (for me at least) hardware issues requiring older systems to run properly, I have not had any significant problems getting the oldest software - including much that would quality as Retro (> 20 years old) running well in Windows XP Mode in Windows 7. |
8,116 | Have an old(ish) laptop with a Pentium T4400 @ 2.20 GHz processor, and some old software1 that requires Windows 95 or NT.
With a view to running this software on that hardware, I tried installing Windows 95, 98, ME, 2000, and NT from CD-ROM with no success whatsoever.
Can it be a configuration problem? Which is the latest processor I can use for this software?
IIRC, Windows 98 & ME are versions of 95, and 2000 is a version of NT? Later Windows versions are more different?
---
1 The software in question, which does not run on Windows 7 or 10, is [Nationalencyklopedin](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nationalencyklopedin):
>
> In 1997, the first digital form of the encyclopedia was released on 6 CD-ROMs...
>
>
> | 2018/11/01 | [
"https://retrocomputing.stackexchange.com/questions/8116",
"https://retrocomputing.stackexchange.com",
"https://retrocomputing.stackexchange.com/users/7265/"
] | Windows 2000 is the latest (5.0) version of NT. Last Update was 2005, EOL in 2010. The Laptop isn't anywhere near being old (or OT here), as its at maximum from 2010. While this seem late, it should be possible to install Win2k, update it to SP4 and include drivers for the Laptop from XP, as the original XP driver model is still compatible with NT/Win2k.
Then again, without more information why installation failed, it's hard to even randomly guess why it doesn't work.
Further, software made for NT should, in most cases, run on XP and even Windows 10. Of course, depending on what OS services it uses. So again, without a more detailed information about it's impossible to give a real answer. | >
> IIRC, Windows 98 & ME are versions of 95, and 2000 is a version of NT? Later Windows versions are more different?
>
>
>
All modern windows is based on the "NT line", but of course it has evolved over the years and sometimes things break.
IIRC in terms of windows system stuff NT4->2K was a pretty big change, 2K->XP was realtively minor, XP->Vista was a big change and Vista->7->8->10 were again relatively minor.
>
> Can it be a configuration problem? Which is the latest processor I can use for this software?
>
>
>
It's not so much about the processor as about the whole system. PCs aren't fundamentally all that different from they were in the 2000s, but there are enough little things that can make getting older OS's to run on newer hardware difficult or impossible.
It's worth trying windows XP if you haven't already. It might be old enough for your software to run, while being new enough for the rest of your hardware.
It's also worth setting the SATA mode to "legacy" in the BIOS.
Failing that it is worth considering virtualisation, virtualisation tools (virtualbox, vmware etc) often get on better with older operating systems than real hardware does. |
8,116 | Have an old(ish) laptop with a Pentium T4400 @ 2.20 GHz processor, and some old software1 that requires Windows 95 or NT.
With a view to running this software on that hardware, I tried installing Windows 95, 98, ME, 2000, and NT from CD-ROM with no success whatsoever.
Can it be a configuration problem? Which is the latest processor I can use for this software?
IIRC, Windows 98 & ME are versions of 95, and 2000 is a version of NT? Later Windows versions are more different?
---
1 The software in question, which does not run on Windows 7 or 10, is [Nationalencyklopedin](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nationalencyklopedin):
>
> In 1997, the first digital form of the encyclopedia was released on 6 CD-ROMs...
>
>
> | 2018/11/01 | [
"https://retrocomputing.stackexchange.com/questions/8116",
"https://retrocomputing.stackexchange.com",
"https://retrocomputing.stackexchange.com/users/7265/"
] | Windows 2000 is the latest (5.0) version of NT. Last Update was 2005, EOL in 2010. The Laptop isn't anywhere near being old (or OT here), as its at maximum from 2010. While this seem late, it should be possible to install Win2k, update it to SP4 and include drivers for the Laptop from XP, as the original XP driver model is still compatible with NT/Win2k.
Then again, without more information why installation failed, it's hard to even randomly guess why it doesn't work.
Further, software made for NT should, in most cases, run on XP and even Windows 10. Of course, depending on what OS services it uses. So again, without a more detailed information about it's impossible to give a real answer. | You mention the processor but not the amount of memory installed. It's possible that it contains more RAM than older versions of Windows can deal with.
You could try using a virtual machine (VM) such as [VirtualBox](https://www.virtualbox.org) which can be configured to support older versions of Windows with a single CPU and a small amount of RAM (512MB might be a place to start). Your preferred flavor of "classic" Windows should install with little issue.
Then you can mount the media for your software within the VM and install it. |
67,298 | I want to write my own custom file system in Linux. Can I share it over standard NFS without making any changes to the local NFS server? If so what VFS APIs are required to be implemented by my file system? Any other guidelines / gotchas for such an approach? | 2013/03/08 | [
"https://unix.stackexchange.com/questions/67298",
"https://unix.stackexchange.com",
"https://unix.stackexchange.com/users/33804/"
] | Yes. Once linux recognizes it as a filesystem and mounts it, it can be shared over NFS like any other filesystem, whether it's a hard drive, CD, USB stick, or even another NFS filesystem shared from somewhere else.
That's what abstraction layers are *for*. | That are two separate tasks:
1. Write a local filesystem for Linux
2. Export it via NFS
The second one is really (mostly) independent of the first one (if the kernel can mount it, it can be exported). The hard work is in the first point. And as lots of experiences with remote file systems have shown, full POSIX compliance is possible only at the price of totally unacceptable performance. Look around NFS (various versions), Remote File System, Andrew File System, and there sure are others I forget right now, for the tradeoffs considered (and mostly discarded, it if for a reason that NFS is still *the* remote filesystem for Unix). Also look at CIFS, the remote filesystem from the Windows world.
The first one is a major undertaking. Look at the *massive* amount of work poured into BTRFS by Oracle, and it is still few years away from non-experimental status. Consider the failed ReiserFS and others. The current ext4 filesystem is a relatively straightforward development of the ext filesystem, one of the first native filesystems for Linux.
I'd suggest you attach yourself to work within one of the current filesystem development groups to learn the ropes before starting on such a project. |
18,517 | At my workplace I have been assigned to create an accurate 3D model of our Dell PowerEdge R820 servers so we can insert our custom cards and run a CFD and thermal analysis on them. The end goal is to have an exact understanding off all the airflow and heat transfer within the servers and server racks to help in designing future systems and fix overheating issues we are having with some of our current ones.
My problem is that the insides of these servers are quite complex and it is going to take an era for me to reverse engineer all the parts with a pair of verniers and find out how much heat is produced and where.So I am wondering if anyone else has come across something like this before and how they created an accurate CFD of their system.
Would 3D scanning be an option? I am concerned that 3D scanning will be too accurate, in the sense that what should be a straight edge might be turned into 200 different vertices etc. And I am not sure of how much cleanup it would require. I plan to do the CFD in Solidworks which requires solid modelling - it may have issues with the surfacing of the scans. Would like to hear from anyone with experience regarding this.
On the other hand, does anyone have experience with getting 3D CAD models from companies like Dell? I work at a large company and we buy a lot of their products for our projects but I wouldn't have a clue what department to call to see what needs to be organised to get CAD files. Would welcome any input here.
Lastly, for the thermal modelling, my plan of attack is to use some IR cameras to see where the heat is being produced. But I don't know how to work out HOW much heat is being produced at these spots so I can model the heat production from these processors in the CFD. What do people normally do for this? | 2017/12/20 | [
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/questions/18517",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/users/13810/"
] | Your options are a bit limited. Either you get the model from Dell, or you model it yourself.
Getting the model is a long shot, but if you are a really big customer that might happen. However this is not necceserily a godsend, since:
* The model may not be accurate enough for your need. They may have ripped some data out to protect their IP
* It may be too accurate in places that are of no interest for you. And mostly the data is just in your way.
* The model may be unsuitable for your task. So its geometry but your cfd needs the material info and heat generation info.
That said modeling a suitably absteacted version that simulates faster than imported models is not necceserily a huge job. Its just very scary, as it is just raw work.
Would scanning help? In my experience not really, though it might speed up data gathering, as you now have a digital model to check against. So you do not need to go and measure that one dimension you realized you need. Thats a good thing if you can not have the object on the table next to you. However, scanning is another can of worms as a work process.
Concentrate on abstracting things as much as you can. Do you really need every detail?
Also note thermal camera does not directly neasure what you want it measures how much things radiate at a specific band which varies by material and its surface quality. worse some materials like the silicon in your chips are transparent at typical infrared camera ranges. You still need to know how much the materials transfer energy to air. That said the thermal camera is a good validator target for your model.
This is a lot of work no matter how you look at it. | For your IR camera, you need an image of a known object at a known temperature in the same environment as a temperature reference , then when you have the IR image you can cross-reference the colours to approximate the temperatures. Check out some building thermal images for the idea. |
156,979 | For me it seems that in the following case expression seems not to be fitting, I think the second example is shorter, simpler and may even be more correct.
1. dugite - Elegant bindings for working with Git in your Node applications
2. dugite - Elegant bindings to work with Git in your Node applications | 2018/01/19 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/156979",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | If one says "I ate out on Monday" it necessarily implies the nearest previous Monday.
"Last Monday" generally implies "Monday of last week". For example, if today were Tuesday or Wednesday and someone said "I ate out last Monday", almost no one would wonder if they meant yesterday. But as days pass, particularly towards the end of the week and especially on the weekend, that difference becomes more muddled. | So I'd say if a Monday had past since you ate out, then I suppose you would say "I Ate Out Last Monday."
If, say its the next day, so Tuesday. "I ate out on Monday," Would be what you want to say. |
7,462,924 | Is it possible to use the accelerometer to detect height? For instance, if I'm holding the phone on my hand and then detect the height after raising my arm?
Thanks | 2011/09/18 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/7462924",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/919810/"
] | Assuming you mean you want to detect the height the phone was raised from its staring point, yes. The android accelerometer measures force, more info on how to use it can be found [here](http://developer.android.com/reference/android/hardware/SensorEvent.html#values). Keep in mind that the accelerometer isn't a perfect device, and so your results will be approximations of how much the phone was really moved. | Yes, bt you need to integrate the output twice and add in the two integration constants - initial velocity and displacement.
Rgds,
Martin |
7,462,924 | Is it possible to use the accelerometer to detect height? For instance, if I'm holding the phone on my hand and then detect the height after raising my arm?
Thanks | 2011/09/18 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/7462924",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/919810/"
] | Assuming you mean you want to detect the height the phone was raised from its staring point, yes. The android accelerometer measures force, more info on how to use it can be found [here](http://developer.android.com/reference/android/hardware/SensorEvent.html#values). Keep in mind that the accelerometer isn't a perfect device, and so your results will be approximations of how much the phone was really moved. | The inaccuracy of the accelerometer will be insignificant when compared to the error caused by an unstable accelerometer. What I mean by this is the fact that as you move your phone you will not be able to keep the accelerometer orientated perfectly i.e. you will 'naturally' rotate it about its longitudinal,lateral and azimuth axes. This means that a vertical acceleration will partly be felt in all the above axes and result in an error if you were to just integrate twice the vertical acceleration measurement.
There are ways to eliminate this error which involve gyroscopes but that requires some complicated mathematics and gyros to be fitted in your phone as well.
In theory you can integrate an accelerometer's output but in a real-world device there are practical issues you must overcome. |
7,462,924 | Is it possible to use the accelerometer to detect height? For instance, if I'm holding the phone on my hand and then detect the height after raising my arm?
Thanks | 2011/09/18 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/7462924",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/919810/"
] | Assuming you mean you want to detect the height the phone was raised from its staring point, yes. The android accelerometer measures force, more info on how to use it can be found [here](http://developer.android.com/reference/android/hardware/SensorEvent.html#values). Keep in mind that the accelerometer isn't a perfect device, and so your results will be approximations of how much the phone was really moved. | You get position by integrating the linear acceleration twice but **the error is horrible. It is useless in practice.**
Here is [an explanation why (Google Tech Talk)](http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=C7JQ7Rpwn2k) at 23:20. I highly recommend this video.
Similar questions:
[track small movements of iphone with no GPS](https://stackoverflow.com/q/6158176/341970)
[What is the real world accuracy of phone accelerometers when used for positioning?](https://stackoverflow.com/q/6027724/341970)
[how to calculate phone's movement in the vertical direction from rest?](https://stackoverflow.com/q/6291110/341970)
[iOS: Movement Precision in 3D Space](https://stackoverflow.com/q/5550453/341970)
[How to use Accelerometer to measure distance for Android Application Development](https://stackoverflow.com/q/6352681/341970)
[How can I find distance traveled with a gyroscope and accelerometer?](https://stackoverflow.com/q/6647314/341970)
[Distance moved by Accelerometer](https://stackoverflow.com/q/6645126/341970) |
7,462,924 | Is it possible to use the accelerometer to detect height? For instance, if I'm holding the phone on my hand and then detect the height after raising my arm?
Thanks | 2011/09/18 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/7462924",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/919810/"
] | Assuming you mean you want to detect the height the phone was raised from its staring point, yes. The android accelerometer measures force, more info on how to use it can be found [here](http://developer.android.com/reference/android/hardware/SensorEvent.html#values). Keep in mind that the accelerometer isn't a perfect device, and so your results will be approximations of how much the phone was really moved. | First of all you measure Linear acceleration and gravity together (also some noise)
So it means when you are using accelerometer you will get
Accelerometer Readings = Linear Acc. + Gravity + Noise
Here you just only need Linear Acc. but the Accelerometer reads all the values |
7,462,924 | Is it possible to use the accelerometer to detect height? For instance, if I'm holding the phone on my hand and then detect the height after raising my arm?
Thanks | 2011/09/18 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/7462924",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/919810/"
] | The inaccuracy of the accelerometer will be insignificant when compared to the error caused by an unstable accelerometer. What I mean by this is the fact that as you move your phone you will not be able to keep the accelerometer orientated perfectly i.e. you will 'naturally' rotate it about its longitudinal,lateral and azimuth axes. This means that a vertical acceleration will partly be felt in all the above axes and result in an error if you were to just integrate twice the vertical acceleration measurement.
There are ways to eliminate this error which involve gyroscopes but that requires some complicated mathematics and gyros to be fitted in your phone as well.
In theory you can integrate an accelerometer's output but in a real-world device there are practical issues you must overcome. | Yes, bt you need to integrate the output twice and add in the two integration constants - initial velocity and displacement.
Rgds,
Martin |
7,462,924 | Is it possible to use the accelerometer to detect height? For instance, if I'm holding the phone on my hand and then detect the height after raising my arm?
Thanks | 2011/09/18 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/7462924",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/919810/"
] | You get position by integrating the linear acceleration twice but **the error is horrible. It is useless in practice.**
Here is [an explanation why (Google Tech Talk)](http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=C7JQ7Rpwn2k) at 23:20. I highly recommend this video.
Similar questions:
[track small movements of iphone with no GPS](https://stackoverflow.com/q/6158176/341970)
[What is the real world accuracy of phone accelerometers when used for positioning?](https://stackoverflow.com/q/6027724/341970)
[how to calculate phone's movement in the vertical direction from rest?](https://stackoverflow.com/q/6291110/341970)
[iOS: Movement Precision in 3D Space](https://stackoverflow.com/q/5550453/341970)
[How to use Accelerometer to measure distance for Android Application Development](https://stackoverflow.com/q/6352681/341970)
[How can I find distance traveled with a gyroscope and accelerometer?](https://stackoverflow.com/q/6647314/341970)
[Distance moved by Accelerometer](https://stackoverflow.com/q/6645126/341970) | Yes, bt you need to integrate the output twice and add in the two integration constants - initial velocity and displacement.
Rgds,
Martin |
7,462,924 | Is it possible to use the accelerometer to detect height? For instance, if I'm holding the phone on my hand and then detect the height after raising my arm?
Thanks | 2011/09/18 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/7462924",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/919810/"
] | Yes, bt you need to integrate the output twice and add in the two integration constants - initial velocity and displacement.
Rgds,
Martin | First of all you measure Linear acceleration and gravity together (also some noise)
So it means when you are using accelerometer you will get
Accelerometer Readings = Linear Acc. + Gravity + Noise
Here you just only need Linear Acc. but the Accelerometer reads all the values |
7,462,924 | Is it possible to use the accelerometer to detect height? For instance, if I'm holding the phone on my hand and then detect the height after raising my arm?
Thanks | 2011/09/18 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/7462924",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/919810/"
] | The inaccuracy of the accelerometer will be insignificant when compared to the error caused by an unstable accelerometer. What I mean by this is the fact that as you move your phone you will not be able to keep the accelerometer orientated perfectly i.e. you will 'naturally' rotate it about its longitudinal,lateral and azimuth axes. This means that a vertical acceleration will partly be felt in all the above axes and result in an error if you were to just integrate twice the vertical acceleration measurement.
There are ways to eliminate this error which involve gyroscopes but that requires some complicated mathematics and gyros to be fitted in your phone as well.
In theory you can integrate an accelerometer's output but in a real-world device there are practical issues you must overcome. | First of all you measure Linear acceleration and gravity together (also some noise)
So it means when you are using accelerometer you will get
Accelerometer Readings = Linear Acc. + Gravity + Noise
Here you just only need Linear Acc. but the Accelerometer reads all the values |
7,462,924 | Is it possible to use the accelerometer to detect height? For instance, if I'm holding the phone on my hand and then detect the height after raising my arm?
Thanks | 2011/09/18 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/7462924",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/919810/"
] | You get position by integrating the linear acceleration twice but **the error is horrible. It is useless in practice.**
Here is [an explanation why (Google Tech Talk)](http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=C7JQ7Rpwn2k) at 23:20. I highly recommend this video.
Similar questions:
[track small movements of iphone with no GPS](https://stackoverflow.com/q/6158176/341970)
[What is the real world accuracy of phone accelerometers when used for positioning?](https://stackoverflow.com/q/6027724/341970)
[how to calculate phone's movement in the vertical direction from rest?](https://stackoverflow.com/q/6291110/341970)
[iOS: Movement Precision in 3D Space](https://stackoverflow.com/q/5550453/341970)
[How to use Accelerometer to measure distance for Android Application Development](https://stackoverflow.com/q/6352681/341970)
[How can I find distance traveled with a gyroscope and accelerometer?](https://stackoverflow.com/q/6647314/341970)
[Distance moved by Accelerometer](https://stackoverflow.com/q/6645126/341970) | First of all you measure Linear acceleration and gravity together (also some noise)
So it means when you are using accelerometer you will get
Accelerometer Readings = Linear Acc. + Gravity + Noise
Here you just only need Linear Acc. but the Accelerometer reads all the values |
57,063 | When learning to ride, my dad taught me to always have the inside pedal up when cornering. He reinforced the lesson by telling me about a race he'd been in where someone clipped a pedal when cornering and took down 20-30 people in the pack behind him as he went down.
To me it's quite intuitive to keep that inside pedal up - it keeps it away from the ground when leaning into a corner and I'll often even hang my knee on the inside as I'm leaning to lower the center of gravity even further. Additionally, I *think* that I'm actually pushing on the outside pedal as I go around, which also feels very natural to do.
The vast majority of people I see riding these days (recreationally or light competitive, not professionally), including (much to my chagrin) my own children, insist on putting the inside pedal down when turning. I suppose that there is a belief that "my foot is closer to the ground, so if I start to crash I can save myself more quickly", but it just seems so totally counter intuitive and unnatural to me. It feels very unbalanced to have that inside leg down, like I'm going to fall over on it.
Why does this feel like the "right" way of going around a corner to so many people? | 2018/09/13 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/57063",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/18643/"
] | I guess it's because when you lean to the right you'd naturally expect your weight to be on your right-side leg -- IOW your right leg is straight and load-bearing, and your left is bent/relaxed i.e. off the ground.
Once your pedal ever scrapes the ground I think you change your mind about the correct way to do it. | Been at races where the competitors have ground down the pedals to allow continued pedalling through the turn. I often keep my cadence through a turn on road and typically will stutter on a trail turn because I lack confidence in the traction holding. There are times when negotiating a tighter turn or when an obstacle or oncoming traffic forces a path change mid-turn that my stroke ceases, my turn side leg is up and that side's knee is leaned away from bike (into the turn) which gives me a tighter response...the turn becomes sharper.
The benefit of my outward movement of the knee is questioned by some, and I've linked an article by Sheldon Brown that outlines his, and other bicyclists, views.
It's most critical in turns to keep on top of the saddle and lean with the bike. Perhaps that's better said, keep your body in line with the center of gravity of the bike. Here's a quote from the artcicle I've linked below:
"Leaning the upper body and the bicycle together, keeping them in line as when riding straight.
This technique has the advantage of keeping the steering axis, tire contact patches and center of gravity all in the same plane. This preserves the proper handling characteristics of the bicycle, and makes a skid less likely."
Best to have turnside pedal up. Seems that's what you'll witness an experienced cyclist go to in a hot corner. |
57,063 | When learning to ride, my dad taught me to always have the inside pedal up when cornering. He reinforced the lesson by telling me about a race he'd been in where someone clipped a pedal when cornering and took down 20-30 people in the pack behind him as he went down.
To me it's quite intuitive to keep that inside pedal up - it keeps it away from the ground when leaning into a corner and I'll often even hang my knee on the inside as I'm leaning to lower the center of gravity even further. Additionally, I *think* that I'm actually pushing on the outside pedal as I go around, which also feels very natural to do.
The vast majority of people I see riding these days (recreationally or light competitive, not professionally), including (much to my chagrin) my own children, insist on putting the inside pedal down when turning. I suppose that there is a belief that "my foot is closer to the ground, so if I start to crash I can save myself more quickly", but it just seems so totally counter intuitive and unnatural to me. It feels very unbalanced to have that inside leg down, like I'm going to fall over on it.
Why does this feel like the "right" way of going around a corner to so many people? | 2018/09/13 | [
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/questions/57063",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com",
"https://bicycles.stackexchange.com/users/18643/"
] | People put the inside pedal down because it's the natural thing to do. You want the bike to lean to the left, so you press down on the left side; you want the bike to lean right, so you press on the right.
Putting the outside pedal down is a learnt behaviour, so it's only done by people who have been taught it. Also, most people don't cycle fast and aren't on road bikes, so they're not leaning the bike much and they have reasonably high bottom brackets. Pedal strikes simply aren't an issue for most cyclists. | Been at races where the competitors have ground down the pedals to allow continued pedalling through the turn. I often keep my cadence through a turn on road and typically will stutter on a trail turn because I lack confidence in the traction holding. There are times when negotiating a tighter turn or when an obstacle or oncoming traffic forces a path change mid-turn that my stroke ceases, my turn side leg is up and that side's knee is leaned away from bike (into the turn) which gives me a tighter response...the turn becomes sharper.
The benefit of my outward movement of the knee is questioned by some, and I've linked an article by Sheldon Brown that outlines his, and other bicyclists, views.
It's most critical in turns to keep on top of the saddle and lean with the bike. Perhaps that's better said, keep your body in line with the center of gravity of the bike. Here's a quote from the artcicle I've linked below:
"Leaning the upper body and the bicycle together, keeping them in line as when riding straight.
This technique has the advantage of keeping the steering axis, tire contact patches and center of gravity all in the same plane. This preserves the proper handling characteristics of the bicycle, and makes a skid less likely."
Best to have turnside pedal up. Seems that's what you'll witness an experienced cyclist go to in a hot corner. |
181,051 | I am trying to export an image from the print composer using this layer [ESRI rest layer][1] as a basemap. <http://services.arcgisonline.com/arcgis/rest/services/ESRI_Imagery_World_2D/MapServer>
I connected to the layer using the python plugin and this tutorial. <http://hub.qgis.org/wiki/quantum-gis/Arcgis_rest>
When I go to export my map made in print composer as an image the basemap doesn't show up and I get a grey hatching with 'no map data' on it. It worked a few times and then quit for some reason. The print composer version looks great but the only way I can export seems to either screen grab or save the maps as images and then add through the print composer.
Any thoughts on how to solve this issue? It worked so I imagine i've twiddled something and need to untwiddle it to resolve the issue. | 2016/02/17 | [
"https://gis.stackexchange.com/questions/181051",
"https://gis.stackexchange.com",
"https://gis.stackexchange.com/users/57516/"
] | Since version 2.14, you have the option to add ArcGis MapServer Layer directly from the "Add Layer" menu.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/AL8xc.png)
The ArcGIS REST API connector plugin - which I think is what you referred to in the now removed url - works for vectors.
The issue you describes seems more like a general connection issue where QGIS can't load the tiles from source, either due to connectivity issues, or tiling issues.
Furthermore, there are other ways of adding a global image, using the QuickMapService plugin, you can load many common world rasters from ESRI (Bing), Google, and others. | In Print Composer, go to the Composition tab in the right-hand menu. Scroll down to Export Settings. Check what your export resolution is set at. Chances are, it is a higher resolution than what is displayed as a preview in print composer. Try setting this to 300 dpi, or lower.
If the export resolution is too high, it seems QGIS will send a request to the raster server at a different scale than what is shown on the preview. I have particularly seen this when accessing maps where there are place name labels that get very small on export. I've found that changing the export resolution sometimes helps, as long as you don't go too low where the map isn't as crisp.
I am guessing that the image request sent by QGIS when you export could be for a zoom level that is not available from the server, resulting in the 'no map data' error. |
247,314 | >
> 1) They are driving to New York tomorrow morning. (Present Continuous)
>
> 2) I'll be in the office tomorrow morning. (Future Simple)
>
>
>
Why can't you use the Future Simple in the first question?
Why is the Future Simple used in the second question? | 2020/05/13 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/247314",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/53953/"
] | Yes, *[to google](https://www.dictionary.com/browse/google)* is used also as a generic term for internet searching.
>
> 1) verb (used with object), Goo·gled, Goo·gling.
> (often lowercase)
>
>
> to search the Internet for information about (a person, topic, etc.):
>
>
> * We googled the new applicant to check her background.
>
>
> 2) verb (used without object), Goo·gled, Goo·gling.
> (often lowercase)
>
>
> to use a search engine such as Google to find information, a website address, etc., on the Internet.
>
>
>
(Dictionary.com)
>
> A number of common words began as trademarks but passed over into unprotectable generic terms. Aspirin, for one. And escalator. And cellophane. Dry ice. Thermos. Trampoline. For some of those, there are other words we could use for the product, but it's easy to see why we prefer to call it "aspirin" rather than "acetylsalicylic acid." For others, the term is so ingrained that it's hard to think of what else we would call the product.
>
>
>
([www.stites.com](https://www.stites.com/resources/trademarkology/is-google-generic-if-only-there-were-a-way-to-search-for-the-answer-on-the-internet)) | Note that the usual phrase in English is, "Google something", not "Google for something". |
31,779 | In *Star Trek: Generations*, the actor Tim Russ plays an unnamed bridge officer (probably tactical/operations, as he's monitoring the ship's hull and systems integrity) on the Enterprise-B in the prelude. No pointy ears or eyebrows, so I must assume this character is not Vulcan and therefore not the Tuvok character that this same actor portrays in Star Trek: Voyager.
Was there ever an in-universe explanation given for this actor's appearance as someone other than Tuvok? Obviously any such explanation would be a retcon, as Generations was released a year before Voyager and so Tuvok's character didn't exist. But was there even an attempt, or is the role just dismissable as a human who happens to look similar to a notable Vulcan? | 2013/02/14 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/31779",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/2834/"
] | In most cases there is not - nor does there really need to be - any in-universe explanation for an actor playing multiple characters in the same universe, unless the characters themselves are specifically poised to have some connection. You should especially learn to disregard such coincidences if you really love the Star Trek universe. It is *very* common for actors to have multiple minor roles in the same series, or across several series, in the Star Trek franchise. It's also quite normal to see an actor who previously played a minor or one-off character in one series taken on for a major role in a later (or, in some cases, the same) series.
As commenters have noted, [Tim Russ](http://www.imdb.com/name/nm0750913/) also appears as a [human mercenary in TNG](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Devor). (Thanks to Xantec for the reference.) Aside from that, and your mention of his role as an [Enterprise-B Lieutenant in Generations](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/USS_Enterprise_%28NCC-1701-B%29_personnel#Lieutenant), he's also portrayed a [Klingon mercenary on DS9](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/T%27Kar). Then, if you *really* want to abstract every Star Trek role he's had, you could also count [*thirteen* variations or imitations of Tuvok himself in VOY](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Tim_Russ#Star_Trek_appearances).
Another commenter brings up [Jeffrey Combs](http://www.imdb.com/name/nm0001062/). He's not only played [one](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Weyoun), but [*two*](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Brunt) major and *otherwise unrelated* characters in DS9 - even once [portraying both roles in the same episode](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/The_Dogs_of_War_%28episode%29). (Thanks to Izkata for that one.) He's also played an [Andorian on ENT](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Thy%27lek_Shran) (Thanks to Mark Rogers.) and [several other minor characters across the franchise](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Jeffrey_Combs#Characters).
Then there's Star Trek's own First Lady, [Majel Barrett](http://www.imdb.com/name/nm0000854/), who, aside from being the ubiquitous voice of the [Starfleet Computer](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Majel_Barrett#Star_Trek_voice_work) across most of the franchise, has also portrayed [recurring characters in three of the television series](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Majel_Barrett#Star_Trek_appearances) - in fact, even [two](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Number_One) [unrelated](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Christine_Chapel) characters *of the same species and affiliation* in one. And this doesn't even begin to cover her work in [The Animated Series](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Majel_Barrett#The_Animated_Series). (Thanks to jwodder, here.)
There's also other multi-character players, like:
* [Suzie Plakson](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Suzie_Plakson)
* [Diana Muldaur](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Diana_Muldaur)
* [Jennifer Gatti](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Jennifer_Gatti)
(Thanks again to jwodder - who seems to have an odd fixation on the feminine variety in this subject.)
For an example of someone else who got their start as a minor character, and went on to play a (not too dissimilar) major character in a later series, check out [Robert Duncan McNeill](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Robert_Duncan_McNeill) who played [Cadet Nicholas Locarno in TNG](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Nicholas_Locarno) before becoming [Lieutenant Tom Paris in VOY](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Tom_Paris).
Another one I've particularly noticed has been [Ethan Phillips](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Ethan_Phillips) who played a [Ferengi on TNG](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Farek) prior to his service as [Neelix on VOY](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Neelix), a [maitre d' in First Contact](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Unnamed_Dixon_Hill_characters#Nightclub_maitre.27D) (which was released *while* he was already a part of the VOY cast), and [another Ferengi on ENT](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Ulis).
I hope by now it's safe to say I've made my point. Now, cases where one might *legitimately* expect to see connections between characters portrayed by the same actor would be:
* [Brent Spiner](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Brent_Spiner)
+ Most well known as [Data](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Data), but also played...
+ [Lore](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Lore), another [Soong-type android](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Soong-type_android),
+ [Noonian Soong](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Noonian_Soong) (Creator of the Soong-type androids) in various incarnations,
+ [B-4](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/B-4) *another* Soong-type android,
+ ...And [Arik Soong](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Arik_Soong), who is meant to be Noonian Soong's great-grandfather.
Or, here's a better example of one which would *really* warrant a question (which I'm sure *has* been asked about here, but I'm too lazy to look up at the moment):
* [Michael Dorn](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Michael_Dorn)
+ Primarily known as [Lieutenant Commander Worf in TNG & DS9](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Worf).
+ Also known as [Colonel Worf in Star Trek VI](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Worf_%28Colonel%29), who was stated in out-of-universe literature to have been an ancestor of the TNG/DS9-era Worf. | Although this isn't an official piece, my favourite personal theory for Tim Russ' appearance elsewhere in Star Trek is because he's an undercover agent (he had previously infiltrated the Marquis and had been brainwashed during said stint in the official VOY diaglogue). Make-up and physical changes aren't uncommon in Star Trek - such as when Janeway becomes borgified.
So it might well be, as a Vulcan with a 200 year long lifespan, that he could very well appear both on Enterprise-B, then later a mercenary on the Enterprise (especially as this might have been during his undercover stint for the Marquis - we never actually see him die, he could have just cleverly beamed out back to his ship whilst screaming to fool Picard) and then again as the Klingon mercenary on DS9 (perhaps trying to expose any Dominion connections?).
This might explain, after all, why Tuvok is such a badass.
Who knows? But it's the theory I like to entertain. Makes it more interesting. |
31,779 | In *Star Trek: Generations*, the actor Tim Russ plays an unnamed bridge officer (probably tactical/operations, as he's monitoring the ship's hull and systems integrity) on the Enterprise-B in the prelude. No pointy ears or eyebrows, so I must assume this character is not Vulcan and therefore not the Tuvok character that this same actor portrays in Star Trek: Voyager.
Was there ever an in-universe explanation given for this actor's appearance as someone other than Tuvok? Obviously any such explanation would be a retcon, as Generations was released a year before Voyager and so Tuvok's character didn't exist. But was there even an attempt, or is the role just dismissable as a human who happens to look similar to a notable Vulcan? | 2013/02/14 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/31779",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/2834/"
] | In most cases there is not - nor does there really need to be - any in-universe explanation for an actor playing multiple characters in the same universe, unless the characters themselves are specifically poised to have some connection. You should especially learn to disregard such coincidences if you really love the Star Trek universe. It is *very* common for actors to have multiple minor roles in the same series, or across several series, in the Star Trek franchise. It's also quite normal to see an actor who previously played a minor or one-off character in one series taken on for a major role in a later (or, in some cases, the same) series.
As commenters have noted, [Tim Russ](http://www.imdb.com/name/nm0750913/) also appears as a [human mercenary in TNG](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Devor). (Thanks to Xantec for the reference.) Aside from that, and your mention of his role as an [Enterprise-B Lieutenant in Generations](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/USS_Enterprise_%28NCC-1701-B%29_personnel#Lieutenant), he's also portrayed a [Klingon mercenary on DS9](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/T%27Kar). Then, if you *really* want to abstract every Star Trek role he's had, you could also count [*thirteen* variations or imitations of Tuvok himself in VOY](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Tim_Russ#Star_Trek_appearances).
Another commenter brings up [Jeffrey Combs](http://www.imdb.com/name/nm0001062/). He's not only played [one](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Weyoun), but [*two*](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Brunt) major and *otherwise unrelated* characters in DS9 - even once [portraying both roles in the same episode](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/The_Dogs_of_War_%28episode%29). (Thanks to Izkata for that one.) He's also played an [Andorian on ENT](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Thy%27lek_Shran) (Thanks to Mark Rogers.) and [several other minor characters across the franchise](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Jeffrey_Combs#Characters).
Then there's Star Trek's own First Lady, [Majel Barrett](http://www.imdb.com/name/nm0000854/), who, aside from being the ubiquitous voice of the [Starfleet Computer](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Majel_Barrett#Star_Trek_voice_work) across most of the franchise, has also portrayed [recurring characters in three of the television series](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Majel_Barrett#Star_Trek_appearances) - in fact, even [two](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Number_One) [unrelated](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Christine_Chapel) characters *of the same species and affiliation* in one. And this doesn't even begin to cover her work in [The Animated Series](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Majel_Barrett#The_Animated_Series). (Thanks to jwodder, here.)
There's also other multi-character players, like:
* [Suzie Plakson](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Suzie_Plakson)
* [Diana Muldaur](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Diana_Muldaur)
* [Jennifer Gatti](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Jennifer_Gatti)
(Thanks again to jwodder - who seems to have an odd fixation on the feminine variety in this subject.)
For an example of someone else who got their start as a minor character, and went on to play a (not too dissimilar) major character in a later series, check out [Robert Duncan McNeill](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Robert_Duncan_McNeill) who played [Cadet Nicholas Locarno in TNG](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Nicholas_Locarno) before becoming [Lieutenant Tom Paris in VOY](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Tom_Paris).
Another one I've particularly noticed has been [Ethan Phillips](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Ethan_Phillips) who played a [Ferengi on TNG](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Farek) prior to his service as [Neelix on VOY](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Neelix), a [maitre d' in First Contact](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Unnamed_Dixon_Hill_characters#Nightclub_maitre.27D) (which was released *while* he was already a part of the VOY cast), and [another Ferengi on ENT](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Ulis).
I hope by now it's safe to say I've made my point. Now, cases where one might *legitimately* expect to see connections between characters portrayed by the same actor would be:
* [Brent Spiner](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Brent_Spiner)
+ Most well known as [Data](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Data), but also played...
+ [Lore](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Lore), another [Soong-type android](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Soong-type_android),
+ [Noonian Soong](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Noonian_Soong) (Creator of the Soong-type androids) in various incarnations,
+ [B-4](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/B-4) *another* Soong-type android,
+ ...And [Arik Soong](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Arik_Soong), who is meant to be Noonian Soong's great-grandfather.
Or, here's a better example of one which would *really* warrant a question (which I'm sure *has* been asked about here, but I'm too lazy to look up at the moment):
* [Michael Dorn](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Michael_Dorn)
+ Primarily known as [Lieutenant Commander Worf in TNG & DS9](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Worf).
+ Also known as [Colonel Worf in Star Trek VI](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Worf_%28Colonel%29), who was stated in out-of-universe literature to have been an ancestor of the TNG/DS9-era Worf. | There actually is, the VOY episode Flashback, as someone mentions here, retcons Tim Russ's human appearance during the original series movies and explains that Tuvok was in fact an ensign/lieutenant during that period of time --- Tuvok is show to have served on the Excelsior during Undiscovered Country as an Ensign and specifically mentions later serving with/meeting Kirk and Spock. |
31,779 | In *Star Trek: Generations*, the actor Tim Russ plays an unnamed bridge officer (probably tactical/operations, as he's monitoring the ship's hull and systems integrity) on the Enterprise-B in the prelude. No pointy ears or eyebrows, so I must assume this character is not Vulcan and therefore not the Tuvok character that this same actor portrays in Star Trek: Voyager.
Was there ever an in-universe explanation given for this actor's appearance as someone other than Tuvok? Obviously any such explanation would be a retcon, as Generations was released a year before Voyager and so Tuvok's character didn't exist. But was there even an attempt, or is the role just dismissable as a human who happens to look similar to a notable Vulcan? | 2013/02/14 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/31779",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/2834/"
] | In most cases there is not - nor does there really need to be - any in-universe explanation for an actor playing multiple characters in the same universe, unless the characters themselves are specifically poised to have some connection. You should especially learn to disregard such coincidences if you really love the Star Trek universe. It is *very* common for actors to have multiple minor roles in the same series, or across several series, in the Star Trek franchise. It's also quite normal to see an actor who previously played a minor or one-off character in one series taken on for a major role in a later (or, in some cases, the same) series.
As commenters have noted, [Tim Russ](http://www.imdb.com/name/nm0750913/) also appears as a [human mercenary in TNG](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Devor). (Thanks to Xantec for the reference.) Aside from that, and your mention of his role as an [Enterprise-B Lieutenant in Generations](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/USS_Enterprise_%28NCC-1701-B%29_personnel#Lieutenant), he's also portrayed a [Klingon mercenary on DS9](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/T%27Kar). Then, if you *really* want to abstract every Star Trek role he's had, you could also count [*thirteen* variations or imitations of Tuvok himself in VOY](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Tim_Russ#Star_Trek_appearances).
Another commenter brings up [Jeffrey Combs](http://www.imdb.com/name/nm0001062/). He's not only played [one](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Weyoun), but [*two*](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Brunt) major and *otherwise unrelated* characters in DS9 - even once [portraying both roles in the same episode](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/The_Dogs_of_War_%28episode%29). (Thanks to Izkata for that one.) He's also played an [Andorian on ENT](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Thy%27lek_Shran) (Thanks to Mark Rogers.) and [several other minor characters across the franchise](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Jeffrey_Combs#Characters).
Then there's Star Trek's own First Lady, [Majel Barrett](http://www.imdb.com/name/nm0000854/), who, aside from being the ubiquitous voice of the [Starfleet Computer](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Majel_Barrett#Star_Trek_voice_work) across most of the franchise, has also portrayed [recurring characters in three of the television series](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Majel_Barrett#Star_Trek_appearances) - in fact, even [two](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Number_One) [unrelated](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Christine_Chapel) characters *of the same species and affiliation* in one. And this doesn't even begin to cover her work in [The Animated Series](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Majel_Barrett#The_Animated_Series). (Thanks to jwodder, here.)
There's also other multi-character players, like:
* [Suzie Plakson](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Suzie_Plakson)
* [Diana Muldaur](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Diana_Muldaur)
* [Jennifer Gatti](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Jennifer_Gatti)
(Thanks again to jwodder - who seems to have an odd fixation on the feminine variety in this subject.)
For an example of someone else who got their start as a minor character, and went on to play a (not too dissimilar) major character in a later series, check out [Robert Duncan McNeill](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Robert_Duncan_McNeill) who played [Cadet Nicholas Locarno in TNG](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Nicholas_Locarno) before becoming [Lieutenant Tom Paris in VOY](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Tom_Paris).
Another one I've particularly noticed has been [Ethan Phillips](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Ethan_Phillips) who played a [Ferengi on TNG](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Farek) prior to his service as [Neelix on VOY](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Neelix), a [maitre d' in First Contact](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Unnamed_Dixon_Hill_characters#Nightclub_maitre.27D) (which was released *while* he was already a part of the VOY cast), and [another Ferengi on ENT](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Ulis).
I hope by now it's safe to say I've made my point. Now, cases where one might *legitimately* expect to see connections between characters portrayed by the same actor would be:
* [Brent Spiner](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Brent_Spiner)
+ Most well known as [Data](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Data), but also played...
+ [Lore](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Lore), another [Soong-type android](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Soong-type_android),
+ [Noonian Soong](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Noonian_Soong) (Creator of the Soong-type androids) in various incarnations,
+ [B-4](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/B-4) *another* Soong-type android,
+ ...And [Arik Soong](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Arik_Soong), who is meant to be Noonian Soong's great-grandfather.
Or, here's a better example of one which would *really* warrant a question (which I'm sure *has* been asked about here, but I'm too lazy to look up at the moment):
* [Michael Dorn](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Michael_Dorn)
+ Primarily known as [Lieutenant Commander Worf in TNG & DS9](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Worf).
+ Also known as [Colonel Worf in Star Trek VI](http://en.memory-alpha.org/wiki/Worf_%28Colonel%29), who was stated in out-of-universe literature to have been an ancestor of the TNG/DS9-era Worf. | I also feel myself bugged by his appearance because it bring us automatically to Tuvok (Voyager). But there is not any relationship. First because the guy at Ent-B was an human and not a vulcan; second because the Ent-B was commissioned almost 80 years before Voyager. So... |
31,779 | In *Star Trek: Generations*, the actor Tim Russ plays an unnamed bridge officer (probably tactical/operations, as he's monitoring the ship's hull and systems integrity) on the Enterprise-B in the prelude. No pointy ears or eyebrows, so I must assume this character is not Vulcan and therefore not the Tuvok character that this same actor portrays in Star Trek: Voyager.
Was there ever an in-universe explanation given for this actor's appearance as someone other than Tuvok? Obviously any such explanation would be a retcon, as Generations was released a year before Voyager and so Tuvok's character didn't exist. But was there even an attempt, or is the role just dismissable as a human who happens to look similar to a notable Vulcan? | 2013/02/14 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/31779",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/2834/"
] | There actually is, the VOY episode Flashback, as someone mentions here, retcons Tim Russ's human appearance during the original series movies and explains that Tuvok was in fact an ensign/lieutenant during that period of time --- Tuvok is show to have served on the Excelsior during Undiscovered Country as an Ensign and specifically mentions later serving with/meeting Kirk and Spock. | Although this isn't an official piece, my favourite personal theory for Tim Russ' appearance elsewhere in Star Trek is because he's an undercover agent (he had previously infiltrated the Marquis and had been brainwashed during said stint in the official VOY diaglogue). Make-up and physical changes aren't uncommon in Star Trek - such as when Janeway becomes borgified.
So it might well be, as a Vulcan with a 200 year long lifespan, that he could very well appear both on Enterprise-B, then later a mercenary on the Enterprise (especially as this might have been during his undercover stint for the Marquis - we never actually see him die, he could have just cleverly beamed out back to his ship whilst screaming to fool Picard) and then again as the Klingon mercenary on DS9 (perhaps trying to expose any Dominion connections?).
This might explain, after all, why Tuvok is such a badass.
Who knows? But it's the theory I like to entertain. Makes it more interesting. |
31,779 | In *Star Trek: Generations*, the actor Tim Russ plays an unnamed bridge officer (probably tactical/operations, as he's monitoring the ship's hull and systems integrity) on the Enterprise-B in the prelude. No pointy ears or eyebrows, so I must assume this character is not Vulcan and therefore not the Tuvok character that this same actor portrays in Star Trek: Voyager.
Was there ever an in-universe explanation given for this actor's appearance as someone other than Tuvok? Obviously any such explanation would be a retcon, as Generations was released a year before Voyager and so Tuvok's character didn't exist. But was there even an attempt, or is the role just dismissable as a human who happens to look similar to a notable Vulcan? | 2013/02/14 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/31779",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/2834/"
] | I also feel myself bugged by his appearance because it bring us automatically to Tuvok (Voyager). But there is not any relationship. First because the guy at Ent-B was an human and not a vulcan; second because the Ent-B was commissioned almost 80 years before Voyager. So... | Although this isn't an official piece, my favourite personal theory for Tim Russ' appearance elsewhere in Star Trek is because he's an undercover agent (he had previously infiltrated the Marquis and had been brainwashed during said stint in the official VOY diaglogue). Make-up and physical changes aren't uncommon in Star Trek - such as when Janeway becomes borgified.
So it might well be, as a Vulcan with a 200 year long lifespan, that he could very well appear both on Enterprise-B, then later a mercenary on the Enterprise (especially as this might have been during his undercover stint for the Marquis - we never actually see him die, he could have just cleverly beamed out back to his ship whilst screaming to fool Picard) and then again as the Klingon mercenary on DS9 (perhaps trying to expose any Dominion connections?).
This might explain, after all, why Tuvok is such a badass.
Who knows? But it's the theory I like to entertain. Makes it more interesting. |
31,779 | In *Star Trek: Generations*, the actor Tim Russ plays an unnamed bridge officer (probably tactical/operations, as he's monitoring the ship's hull and systems integrity) on the Enterprise-B in the prelude. No pointy ears or eyebrows, so I must assume this character is not Vulcan and therefore not the Tuvok character that this same actor portrays in Star Trek: Voyager.
Was there ever an in-universe explanation given for this actor's appearance as someone other than Tuvok? Obviously any such explanation would be a retcon, as Generations was released a year before Voyager and so Tuvok's character didn't exist. But was there even an attempt, or is the role just dismissable as a human who happens to look similar to a notable Vulcan? | 2013/02/14 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/31779",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/2834/"
] | There actually is, the VOY episode Flashback, as someone mentions here, retcons Tim Russ's human appearance during the original series movies and explains that Tuvok was in fact an ensign/lieutenant during that period of time --- Tuvok is show to have served on the Excelsior during Undiscovered Country as an Ensign and specifically mentions later serving with/meeting Kirk and Spock. | I also feel myself bugged by his appearance because it bring us automatically to Tuvok (Voyager). But there is not any relationship. First because the guy at Ent-B was an human and not a vulcan; second because the Ent-B was commissioned almost 80 years before Voyager. So... |
5,598,358 | I would like to allow the user of my XULRunner based app to be able to do copy/paste via a context menu.
Keyboard shortcuts Ctrl-C and Ctrl-V are already working fine | 2011/04/08 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5598358",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/18027/"
] | Three best links I could find are :
<http://www.mahalo.com/answers/what-is-the-process-to-submit-an-application-to-itunes>
<http://help.appmakr.com/entries/218997-how-to-upload-your-app-to-itunes-connect-using-application-loader>
<http://www.weston-fl.com/blog/?p=2442> | Go to developer.apple.com/ios, log in, look on the right for itunes connect, click on "manage apps", click "add new application" and follow directions for submission. You must be a registered apple developer and have already paid the developer fee. |
5,598,358 | I would like to allow the user of my XULRunner based app to be able to do copy/paste via a context menu.
Keyboard shortcuts Ctrl-C and Ctrl-V are already working fine | 2011/04/08 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5598358",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/18027/"
] | You'll find your detailed explanation in the [iOS Developer Program User Guide](http://adcdownload.apple.com/ios/ios_developer_program_user_guide/ios_developer_program_user_guide__standard_program_v2.7__final_9110.pdf). | Go to developer.apple.com/ios, log in, look on the right for itunes connect, click on "manage apps", click "add new application" and follow directions for submission. You must be a registered apple developer and have already paid the developer fee. |
5,598,358 | I would like to allow the user of my XULRunner based app to be able to do copy/paste via a context menu.
Keyboard shortcuts Ctrl-C and Ctrl-V are already working fine | 2011/04/08 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5598358",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/18027/"
] | Three best links I could find are :
<http://www.mahalo.com/answers/what-is-the-process-to-submit-an-application-to-itunes>
<http://help.appmakr.com/entries/218997-how-to-upload-your-app-to-itunes-connect-using-application-loader>
<http://www.weston-fl.com/blog/?p=2442> | You'll find your detailed explanation in the [iOS Developer Program User Guide](http://adcdownload.apple.com/ios/ios_developer_program_user_guide/ios_developer_program_user_guide__standard_program_v2.7__final_9110.pdf). |
5,598,358 | I would like to allow the user of my XULRunner based app to be able to do copy/paste via a context menu.
Keyboard shortcuts Ctrl-C and Ctrl-V are already working fine | 2011/04/08 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5598358",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/18027/"
] | Three best links I could find are :
<http://www.mahalo.com/answers/what-is-the-process-to-submit-an-application-to-itunes>
<http://help.appmakr.com/entries/218997-how-to-upload-your-app-to-itunes-connect-using-application-loader>
<http://www.weston-fl.com/blog/?p=2442> | Apple has excellent documentation:
<http://developer.apple.com/library/ios/#documentation/Xcode/Conceptual/iphone_development/145-Distributing_Applications/distributing_applications.html>
In summary:
1. Make sure your application is something of value.
2. Great a distribution provisioning profile in the developer portal.
3. Archive you application using this profile.
4. Log into iTunes Connect and add an application - there will be several pages of fields to fill out. Upload your application.
5. Wait for approval. |
5,598,358 | I would like to allow the user of my XULRunner based app to be able to do copy/paste via a context menu.
Keyboard shortcuts Ctrl-C and Ctrl-V are already working fine | 2011/04/08 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5598358",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/18027/"
] | You'll find your detailed explanation in the [iOS Developer Program User Guide](http://adcdownload.apple.com/ios/ios_developer_program_user_guide/ios_developer_program_user_guide__standard_program_v2.7__final_9110.pdf). | Apple has excellent documentation:
<http://developer.apple.com/library/ios/#documentation/Xcode/Conceptual/iphone_development/145-Distributing_Applications/distributing_applications.html>
In summary:
1. Make sure your application is something of value.
2. Great a distribution provisioning profile in the developer portal.
3. Archive you application using this profile.
4. Log into iTunes Connect and add an application - there will be several pages of fields to fill out. Upload your application.
5. Wait for approval. |
41,537,817 | How could I add a link to a page with SignIn via e-mail and then send a verification e-mail? I want to add a user to Wagtail, create group, site with name of the user. Why Wagtail doesn't have a module for that membership site? | 2017/01/08 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/41537817",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/7391866/"
] | I know this post is a bit old but it should be updated. Wagtail makes use of django's in-built auth views.
>
> Wagtail uses Django’s standard django.contrib.auth.views.LoginView
> view here, and so the context variables available on the template are
> as detailed in Django's login view documentation.
>
>
>
<http://docs.wagtail.io/en/v2.6.1/advanced_topics/privacy.html#setting-up-a-login-page>
That said, it should be pretty straight forward. Set up auth as you normally would for a django project, and make your own templates.
<https://docs.djangoproject.com/en/2.2/topics/auth/default/#using-the-django-authentication-system> | Using [Django-registration](https://github.com/macropin/django-registration) is posible as explained here:
[Django-registration setup without password](https://stackoverflow.com/q/5843319/3186190) |
276,342 | I am in search for a database with translations so I can have comonly used phrases and words translated by a machine and not by an expensive translator. Is there such a thing as a translation database with words and often used phrases?
If you don't know any would you use such a service?
edit: the database should only be monitored by people and not some automatic translater since they tend to be VERY bad | 2008/11/09 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/276342",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/19929/"
] | >
> edit: the database should only be monitored by people and not some automatic translater since they tend to be VERY bad
>
>
>
I don't think this is enough. If you're going to translate single words, you need to have some idea of the context in which the word will be used.
For instance, consider the english word "row"
Does this mean
1. A line of things
2. An argument
3. To move a boat with oars
4. An uproar
5. Several things in succession ("they won four years in a row")
These are likely to have very different translations.
So instead, it might well be worth keeping a multi-language glossary, where you record the definition of a term and its translation in all the languages you care about, but I think you'll need a professional translator to get the translations right, and the "lookup" will always need to be manual. | <http://www.google.com/language_tools> |
276,342 | I am in search for a database with translations so I can have comonly used phrases and words translated by a machine and not by an expensive translator. Is there such a thing as a translation database with words and often used phrases?
If you don't know any would you use such a service?
edit: the database should only be monitored by people and not some automatic translater since they tend to be VERY bad | 2008/11/09 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/276342",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/19929/"
] | Check: [open-tran.eu](http://open-tran.eu/). It is a database of translations taken from various open source projects. | <http://www.google.com/language_tools> |
276,342 | I am in search for a database with translations so I can have comonly used phrases and words translated by a machine and not by an expensive translator. Is there such a thing as a translation database with words and often used phrases?
If you don't know any would you use such a service?
edit: the database should only be monitored by people and not some automatic translater since they tend to be VERY bad | 2008/11/09 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/276342",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/19929/"
] | >
> edit: the database should only be monitored by people and not some automatic translater since they tend to be VERY bad
>
>
>
I don't think this is enough. If you're going to translate single words, you need to have some idea of the context in which the word will be used.
For instance, consider the english word "row"
Does this mean
1. A line of things
2. An argument
3. To move a boat with oars
4. An uproar
5. Several things in succession ("they won four years in a row")
These are likely to have very different translations.
So instead, it might well be worth keeping a multi-language glossary, where you record the definition of a term and its translation in all the languages you care about, but I think you'll need a professional translator to get the translations right, and the "lookup" will always need to be manual. | So what you want is a database phrase book? What do you want that for? You can't use a phrase book to translate books or software etc. You can't use machine translation either, even though it can be a useful tool to start with. You have to use human translators wich know the source and target-language well, preferrably a bi-lingual person.
The only thing a phrase book is good for is asking directions; and not understand the answer... ;) |
276,342 | I am in search for a database with translations so I can have comonly used phrases and words translated by a machine and not by an expensive translator. Is there such a thing as a translation database with words and often used phrases?
If you don't know any would you use such a service?
edit: the database should only be monitored by people and not some automatic translater since they tend to be VERY bad | 2008/11/09 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/276342",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/19929/"
] | Check: [open-tran.eu](http://open-tran.eu/). It is a database of translations taken from various open source projects. | So what you want is a database phrase book? What do you want that for? You can't use a phrase book to translate books or software etc. You can't use machine translation either, even though it can be a useful tool to start with. You have to use human translators wich know the source and target-language well, preferrably a bi-lingual person.
The only thing a phrase book is good for is asking directions; and not understand the answer... ;) |
12,840 | I'd like to route my multibit traffic through TOR, but have been unsuccessful finding out if it's possible. It's certainly not in the GUI settings on OSX. | 2013/08/21 | [
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/questions/12840",
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com",
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/users/6468/"
] | Unfortunately there is a library used in MultiBit/ bitcoinj for networking (called netty) that does not support SOCKS proxies. Thus currently you cannot set up MultiBit to use Tor.
It is something we want to support so there are plans afoot to refactor the code and use a different networking library that does support SOCKS proxies. | As it relates to Bitcoin, no. Bitcoin is a peer to peer network for sharing the transactions and would require some server out there running TOR to convert the rest of the network to the same TOR and redistribute the transactions. I have not heard of any plans of implementing this in to Bitcoin transactions of any kind. If, on the other hand, your multibit traffic is not a virtual currency, I would recomend checking port forwarding settings on the application to local host 127.0.0.1:(port) and see if the GUI can allow that. |
6,250,683 | I have a table and rows are added by users by clicking in a button. I do this with Javascript.
But then I have to get the values with C# and add then to database. C# is mandatory.
How can I do this? | 2011/06/06 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/6250683",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/374027/"
] | Use [`AJAX`](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ajax_%28programming%29) to get/send the values from and to the server. | Probably the best way to do this would be to use AJAX. Since you're already using JavaScript, it would be a simple matter of adding the service call at the finalization stage of the action to implement the database changes directly.
<http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa479042.aspx> |
6,250,683 | I have a table and rows are added by users by clicking in a button. I do this with Javascript.
But then I have to get the values with C# and add then to database. C# is mandatory.
How can I do this? | 2011/06/06 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/6250683",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/374027/"
] | Use [`AJAX`](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ajax_%28programming%29) to get/send the values from and to the server. | you can do it by using jquery & ajax
if you dont want you can put all new values in new rows in a hidden field (with a proper structure) and read hidden field value in server side |
14,260 | "to pull it off" was at one time used meaning "to win."
And in sentences such as,
>
> I don't think you can pull it off.
>
>
>
, it often implies the idea of "success."
But how did this expression originate? | 2011/02/26 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/14260",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/4988/"
] | Eric Partridge, in his *A Dictionary of Slang and Unconventional English*, says this comes from late 19th century sporting jargon meaning "to win". He cites two OED references, one from 1870 and the other from 1887. | I have not been able to find any explanation of the origin of the phrase "pull [something] off" beyond the sketchy one that Robusto cites in his answer. For completeness, I give the full entry from Eric Partridge, *A Dictionary of Slang and Unconventional English*, second edition (1938):
>
> **pull off.** To obtain (some benefit) : sporting : 1870 (O.E.D.). Ex sporting j[argon], to win.—2. Hence, to succeed with, or in effecting, something : 1887, Black, 'We haven't pulled it off this time, mother.' O.E.D.
>
>
>
Although Partridge doesn't narrow the source of "pull off" beyond "sporting," Hugo in his answer suggests that the source was probably horse racing, backing up his hypothesis with an earliest instance of the phrase from 1863, where the context is indeed horse racing.
I found four examples from 1860 and the first part of 1861—two from horse racing and two from prize fighting. All four instances are overseas reports of happenings on the turf or in the ring in England, so it may well be that a search of British newspapers would yield even earlier matches for "pull it off" in the relevant sense.
Now let's look at the earliest four 1860 and 1861 matches for the phrase. First, from "[The British Turf: Ascot Races](http://idnc.library.illinois.edu/cgi-bin/illinois?a=d&d=NYC18600630.2.32&txq=%22pulled+it+off%22)," in the *New York Clipper* (June 30, 1860):
>
> The Ascot Stakes, on which the betting was neither brisk nor heavy, followed the Two-year-old Biennial, and fifteen [horses] went to the post. This proved a capital turn for the book-makers. Mouravieff, who won a beautiful race by a head, was scarcely backed for a shilling, although his nominal price in the betting was 12 to 1[.] Having won a race of two miles two hours previously, he was not expected to do the trick again : however, the stake was worth trying for, and he **pulled it off**[.] The Ascot Derby was a gentle exercise for the Wizard; and then seventeen of all ages went to the T. Y. C. post for the Queen's Stand Plate—a new item on the Ascot bill of fare, worth £640 to the inner.
>
>
>
From "[Epitome of English Sporting](http://trove.nla.gov.au/newspaper/article/59873051?searchTerm=%22pulled+it+off%22)," in the *Bell's Life in Sydney [New South Wales] and Sporting Reviewer* (July 14, 1860):
>
> In the Oaks Betting the One Thousand winner had not taken the lead, but was content with third or fourth place on the list[.] John Scott, however, has always been a very dangerous customer in the "Ladies' Race," and has often **pulled it off** quite against public opinion.
>
>
>
From "[Sports Abroad: The Ring: Fights to Come](http://idnc.library.illinois.edu/cgi-bin/illinois?a=d&d=NYC18600922.2.17&txq=%22pull+it+off%22)," in the *New York Clipper* (September 22, 1860), originally in the *London Sporting Life* (August 29):
>
> [October] 18.—Bob Brettle, of Birmingham, and Jem Mace, of Norwich, £200 a side—home circuit.
>
>
> ...
>
>
> THE COMING GREAT FIGHT BETWEEN BRETTLE AND MACE. A further instalment of £15 a side in this interesting match is to be made good at Mr. W. Richardson's, Blue Anchor, Shoreditch, on Friday next. On Monday, Brettle took a sweat from his training quarters and visited Lichfield for the races, in company with Joe Wareham, who is training both him and Young Bodger Crutchley. Bob was in good condition, and his friends offered to lay £50 to £40. One gentleman has got on a cool hundred at evens. ... Mace is taking his breathings by the seaside, under the care of Alfred Milner, of Sheffield, and his old trainer "Friday," or Norwich. Mace, it appears, likes the match, and says he can **pull it off** to a certainty.
>
>
>
From "[Latest Sports in London](http://idnc.library.illinois.edu/cgi-bin/illinois?a=d&d=NYC18610406.2.3&txq=%22pulling+it+off%22)," in the *New York Clipper* (April 6, 1861):
>
> There have been, during the past week, several good little mills, but as I was away at the Liverpool gathering, I can only speak from hearsay. ... Ruff of Nottingham and Curley of Sheffield, also had a slashing affair, which lasted one hour and 28 minutes, and in which 55 rounds were hotly contested; Ruff's friends seeing that he then had no chance of **pulling it off** in his favor, wisely threw in the sponge in token of defeat, and Curley was declared the victor. Millington and Bagot, also went through their performance for the mastership, and £40, which neither succeeded in **pulling off**, on account of a disturbance, and the ring being broken in, when the referee at once declined to act any longer, and the men agreed, after having fought 65 rounds in 92 minutes, to draw stakes, and thus the matter rests. It will be seen that there has been plenty of boxing for those fond of it.
>
>
>
Although the meaning of "pull it off" in these various instances clearly tends toward the simple idea of "win," as Partridge indicates, I suspect that the literal focus of the "pulling off" is the stakes—the prize money. Mouravieff tried for the stake at Ascot and pulled it off. Mace wants to pull the £200 betting stake from his opponent off the table. Neither Millington nor Bagot succeeded in pulling off the £40 prize, so they had to "draw stakes" instead. (It seems clear that the term *draw* derives from a situation where competing fighters reach a stalemate without a winner, in which case the two sides' bettors must withdraw the stake they put up without pulling off the other side's stake with it.)
If I am right that the "it" in the phrase "pull it off" originally referred to "the stake," you would expect to find mentions of the phrase "pull the stake off" or "pull off the stake" in at least a few early sporting accounts. An Elephind search does uncover a number of such instances from the 1860s, all in connection with horse racing. The earliest of these is from "[Randwick Autumn Meeting](http://trove.nla.gov.au/newspaper/article/60494934?searchTerm=%22pulled+off+the+stake%22)," in the *[Sydney, New South Wales] Empire* (May 6, 1861):
>
> As Johnny Cutts pleased, so he won. The next was another certainty, young Battye bringing Peter Possum first past the chair without any trouble. Then came the Champagne, for which The Nun was the favourite; but Mr. De Mestre's luck was in, and Exeter **pulled off the stake**, Holmes beating the favourite for second place. The Three-mile Handicap brought six to the post, and Talleyrand won pretty easily, old Veno, with all the weights, being second.
>
>
>
Likewise, from "[New South Wales for the Melbourne Cup](http://trove.nla.gov.au/newspaper/article/65465251?searchTerm=%22pull+the+stake+off%22)," in the *Bell's Life in Sydney [New South Wales]* (June 23, 1866):
>
> I am not fond of three-yr-olds in big handicaps at the beginning of the season; but if there is really a good one among these, and well on the day, he or she may **pull the stake off** in such a field, for a more unaccountable one I never tried to make anything out of. Report says that Maribyrnong is to be *the* nag of Mr Fisher's stable; but from among three such as Budelight, Sea Gull, and Maribyrnong, it is not easy to say which will be the pick.
>
>
>
And from "[Intercolonial News: Victoria](http://trove.nla.gov.au/newspaper/article/13138560?searchTerm=%22pulled+off+the+stake%22)," in the *Sydney [New South Wales] Morning Herald* (April 4,, 1867):
>
> Mr. Goyder, the well-known turf *vates* and bookmaker, was summoned on Friday in the County Court by a chemist named Ready, residing at Maryborough, for £50 damages, on account of an assault committed upon the Melbourne Racecourse. Ready cme to town to see the last Champion Meeting, and on arriving at the course, he patronised the betting ring, with the intention of "potting" on The Barb. Here he fell in with Mr. Coker, and accepted that gentleman's offer of 20 to 8, in sovereigns, against his favourite horse. When The Barb had **pulled off the stake**, and Mr. Coker was about to pay the £20 to Ready, Mr. Goyder interfered and prevented him from doing so by saying that Ready owed him £5. The latter gave the statement a flat denial, and Goyder knocked him down. Mr. Coker paid him next morning, but he brought this action against Goyder for the injury and unwarranted exposure he had received, as, although he did owe him £5 on account of a bet at Ballarat, he sent a cheque for the amount shortly after the debt was incurred. Mr. Goyder, however, said that he never received the £5, and that the alleged assault lay in an attempt which he made to pull the nose of Mr. Ready, who frustrated his intention by falling over backwards. His Honor Judge Pohlman found for the plaintiff, with £25 damages.
>
>
>
Additional instances of the wording appear from 1867 through the 1870s (at least).
Realistically, the expression "pull it off" is already figurative in the earliest matches (from 1860) cited here, but the vestige of a literal pulling off of the wagered stakes remains dimly visible. |
14,260 | "to pull it off" was at one time used meaning "to win."
And in sentences such as,
>
> I don't think you can pull it off.
>
>
>
, it often implies the idea of "success."
But how did this expression originate? | 2011/02/26 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/14260",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/4988/"
] | I found some slightly earlier uses than the *OED*'s 1870. All are from the UK. The majority are from magazines. Nine are about horse-racing, two about rowing, and one each for football and coursing, and one using an analogy of being a good player, and the last about being lucky in general.
From the citations below, it seems fairly safe to say *pull it off* comes from horse-racing, and that it's usually the horse that pulls off, and the *it* is the name of the race or the prize -- the cup or the stakes. This then spread into other sports.
But why *pull*? This isn't entirely clear, but some definitions of *[pull](http://www.thefreedictionary.com/pull)* relate to horses:
* pull away, 2. To move ahead: *The horse pulled away and took the lead in the race.*
And conversely:
* 21. (Individual Sports & Recreations / Horse Racing) (of a rider) to restrain (a horse), esp to prevent it from winning a race
And conversely to the converse:
* 22. (Individual Sports & Recreations / Horse Training, Riding & Manège) (intr) (of a horse) to resist strongly the attempts of a rider to rein in or check it
---
The [1863](http://books.google.fi/books?id=b2NHAAAAMAAJ&pg=PA59&dq=%22pull%20off%20*%20event%22&hl=en&sa=X&ei=60MwT-vJNOX54QT3lsGZDg&redir_esc=y#v=snippet&q=%22pull%20off%20the%22&f=false) *Stable secrets: or, Puffy Doddles ; his sayings and sympathies* by John Mills has four occurrences of "[the horse Sunshine would...] pull off the [event]":
(Plus a second almost identical passage in the next sentence.)
---
An [1865](http://books.google.fi/books?id=brEOAAAAQAAJ&pg=RA1-PA83&dq=%22pull%20it%20off%22%20OR%20%22pulled%20it%20off%22&hl=en&sa=X&ei=hN8uT8PJI_L24QTzsbD5DQ&redir_esc=y#v=snippet&q=%22pull%20it%20off%22&f=false) edition of *Fun* magazine has the following in the "Sporting Intelligence" column, the first from 11th November mentioning the Liverpool Cup horse race:
>
> The fact is, that a little seclusion will do me no harm, so shall lie by and **try to pull it off over the Liverpool Cup**.
>
>
>
And by the same writer and the same column on 17th June, a similar phrase when discussing horse races:
>
> As for Ascot or the Ledger, you shall have them all in good time, and is much mistaken **if I do not pull off both events as succesfully as Epsom**.
>
>
>
---
An [1866](http://books.google.fi/books?id=-N0cAQAAIAAJ&pg=PA465&dq=%22pull%20it%20off%22%20OR%20%22pulled%20it%20off%22&hl=en&sa=X&ei=hN8uT8PJI_L24QTzsbD5DQ&redir_esc=y#v=onepage&q=%22pull%20it%20off%22&f=false) *London Society* magazine prints a small story called "Fast and Loose" that appears to be using it in an extended gaming analogy rather than directly.:
>
> The game's well worth the winning; but he must be a beau joueur, indeed, who shall pull it off!' And then 'The Bey' had to take his share in the cross play of badinage and brilliant trifling it pleased Valerie to engage in.
>
>
>
---
An [1867](http://books.google.fi/books?id=eGwZAQAAIAAJ&q=%22pulled%20it%20off%22#v=snippet&q=%22pulled%20it%20off%22&f=false) edition of *The Eagle* magazine by St. John's College, University of Cambridge has uses *pulled it off* in a sports report:
Yes, this is not rugby but football (US soccer), but [Cambridge rules](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cambridge_rules#Cambridge_University_Football_Club).
---
An [1867](http://books.google.fi/books?id=bzsFAAAAQAAJ&pg=PA283&dq=%22pull%20it%20off%22%20OR%20%22pulled%20it%20off%22&hl=en&sa=X&ei=hN8uT8PJI_L24QTzsbD5DQ&redir_esc=y#v=onepage&q=%22pull%20it%20off%22&f=false) edition of *The Illustrated London* magazine also uses it in a horse racing context:
>
> To hear'them, one would not have the slightest doubt of their sanguine hopes of success.
>
>
> "You told Challoner to hold him in till the finish, Powell," said Peep o' Day's owner.
>
>
> "Ay, ay, my Lord; never fear!" chuckled the astute old trainer: "We have made that ere little business all right, and last night as ever was, a small chap we had got to watch Athleta taking his gallop, said that he was short in the stride, and looked pumped at the end of it. **We shall pull it off**, my Lord, safe as houses."
>
>
>
---
An [1866](http://books.google.fi/books?id=GDgFAAAAQAAJ&pg=PA46&dq=%22pull%20it%20off%22%20OR%20%22pulled%20it%20off%22&hl=en&sa=X&ei=5-guT5TOAoXj4QT1uNnJBg&redir_esc=y#v=onepage&q=%22pulled%20it%20off%22&f=false) *The Suburban Magazine* describes a rowing race victory:
>
> rowing all the four-mile distaince with their bow close to our No. 2's oar ; and only by the sheer pluck of our crew, **pulled it off**. They earned us about, the ZRC, on their shoulders after the race, filling the air with their shouts. Ah, it was a glorious time !
>
>
>
---
*Tony Pastor's Book of Six Hundred Comic Songs and Speeches* ([1867](http://books.google.com/books?id=Gt8_6aucrg0C&pg=RA2-PA52&dq=%22pull%20it%20off%22%20OR%20%22pulled%20it%20off%22&hl=en&sa=X&ei=hdcuT7_bJ8jb4QTv2dn8DQ&ved=0COUEEOgBMGM4yAE)) is used when betting at the races:
pull it off
-----------
An [1868](http://books.google.fi/books?id=s0AFAAAAYAAJ&pg=PA50&dq=%22pull%20off%20the%20*%20cup%22&hl=en&sa=X&ei=B0gwT7vnHIyL4gSUlJDGDg&redir_esc=y#v=onepage&q=%22pull%20off%20the%22&f=false) *Baily's Magazine of sports and pastimes* has two occurrences of a horse or jockey "to pull off the cup":
---
Some more from 1869:
* The book [*Harry Egerton; or, The Younger Son of the Day*](http://books.google.fi/books?id=-NoBAAAAQAAJ&pg=PA258&dq=%22pull%20it%20off%22%20OR%20%22pulled%20it%20off%22&hl=en&sa=X&ei=5-guT5TOAoXj4QT1uNnJBg&redir_esc=y#v=onepage&q=%22pull%20it%20off%22%20&f=false) by George Charles L. Tottenham, discusses horse racing.
* Two uses of *pull it off* in *[The Sportsman](http://books.google.fi/books?id=PSkGAAAAQAAJ&pg=PA314&dq=%22pull%20it%20off%22%20OR%20%22pulled%20it%20off%22&hl=en&sa=X&ei=5-guT5TOAoXj4QT1uNnJBg&redir_esc=y#v=onepage&q=%22pull%20it%20off%22%20&f=false)* magazine, one about coursing (racing greyhounds chasing hares) and the other about horse-racing.
* [*The Tomahawk*](http://books.google.fi/books?id=GrkRAAAAYAAJ&pg=PA144&dq=%22pull%20it%20off%22%20OR%20%22pulled%20it%20off%22&hl=en&sa=X&ei=5-guT5TOAoXj4QT1uNnJBg&redir_esc=y#v=onepage&q=%22pull%20it%20off%22%20OR%20%22pulled%20it%20off%22&f=false) magazine, discussing the Oxford-Cambridge boat race.
* Again [*Baily's magazine of sports and pastimes*](http://books.google.fi/books?id=TRkGAAAAQAAJ&pg=PA143&dq=%22pull%20it%20off%22%20OR%20%22pulled%20it%20off%22&hl=en&sa=X&ei=5-guT5TOAoXj4QT1uNnJBg&redir_esc=y#v=onepage&q=%22pull%20it%20off%22%20OR%20%22pulled%20it%20off%22&f=false), discussing a horse race.
---
And a non-sporting use in the [1869](http://books.google.com/books?id=w39MAAAAcAAJ&pg=PA202&dq=%22pull%20it%20off%22%20OR%20%22pulled%20it%20off%22&hl=en&sa=X&ei=8dUuT9X9NOH44QTnnuiGDg&ved=0CNoBEOgBMBw) *A London Romance* by Charles H. Ross:
>
> “I didn't say that,” retorted Frank; “I've made a bit of money now and again. One is not always lucky. I don't complain; **I shall pull it off yet.** I don't want any one's help or sympathy. I'm quite capable of fighting my own battles.
>
>
> | I have not been able to find any explanation of the origin of the phrase "pull [something] off" beyond the sketchy one that Robusto cites in his answer. For completeness, I give the full entry from Eric Partridge, *A Dictionary of Slang and Unconventional English*, second edition (1938):
>
> **pull off.** To obtain (some benefit) : sporting : 1870 (O.E.D.). Ex sporting j[argon], to win.—2. Hence, to succeed with, or in effecting, something : 1887, Black, 'We haven't pulled it off this time, mother.' O.E.D.
>
>
>
Although Partridge doesn't narrow the source of "pull off" beyond "sporting," Hugo in his answer suggests that the source was probably horse racing, backing up his hypothesis with an earliest instance of the phrase from 1863, where the context is indeed horse racing.
I found four examples from 1860 and the first part of 1861—two from horse racing and two from prize fighting. All four instances are overseas reports of happenings on the turf or in the ring in England, so it may well be that a search of British newspapers would yield even earlier matches for "pull it off" in the relevant sense.
Now let's look at the earliest four 1860 and 1861 matches for the phrase. First, from "[The British Turf: Ascot Races](http://idnc.library.illinois.edu/cgi-bin/illinois?a=d&d=NYC18600630.2.32&txq=%22pulled+it+off%22)," in the *New York Clipper* (June 30, 1860):
>
> The Ascot Stakes, on which the betting was neither brisk nor heavy, followed the Two-year-old Biennial, and fifteen [horses] went to the post. This proved a capital turn for the book-makers. Mouravieff, who won a beautiful race by a head, was scarcely backed for a shilling, although his nominal price in the betting was 12 to 1[.] Having won a race of two miles two hours previously, he was not expected to do the trick again : however, the stake was worth trying for, and he **pulled it off**[.] The Ascot Derby was a gentle exercise for the Wizard; and then seventeen of all ages went to the T. Y. C. post for the Queen's Stand Plate—a new item on the Ascot bill of fare, worth £640 to the inner.
>
>
>
From "[Epitome of English Sporting](http://trove.nla.gov.au/newspaper/article/59873051?searchTerm=%22pulled+it+off%22)," in the *Bell's Life in Sydney [New South Wales] and Sporting Reviewer* (July 14, 1860):
>
> In the Oaks Betting the One Thousand winner had not taken the lead, but was content with third or fourth place on the list[.] John Scott, however, has always been a very dangerous customer in the "Ladies' Race," and has often **pulled it off** quite against public opinion.
>
>
>
From "[Sports Abroad: The Ring: Fights to Come](http://idnc.library.illinois.edu/cgi-bin/illinois?a=d&d=NYC18600922.2.17&txq=%22pull+it+off%22)," in the *New York Clipper* (September 22, 1860), originally in the *London Sporting Life* (August 29):
>
> [October] 18.—Bob Brettle, of Birmingham, and Jem Mace, of Norwich, £200 a side—home circuit.
>
>
> ...
>
>
> THE COMING GREAT FIGHT BETWEEN BRETTLE AND MACE. A further instalment of £15 a side in this interesting match is to be made good at Mr. W. Richardson's, Blue Anchor, Shoreditch, on Friday next. On Monday, Brettle took a sweat from his training quarters and visited Lichfield for the races, in company with Joe Wareham, who is training both him and Young Bodger Crutchley. Bob was in good condition, and his friends offered to lay £50 to £40. One gentleman has got on a cool hundred at evens. ... Mace is taking his breathings by the seaside, under the care of Alfred Milner, of Sheffield, and his old trainer "Friday," or Norwich. Mace, it appears, likes the match, and says he can **pull it off** to a certainty.
>
>
>
From "[Latest Sports in London](http://idnc.library.illinois.edu/cgi-bin/illinois?a=d&d=NYC18610406.2.3&txq=%22pulling+it+off%22)," in the *New York Clipper* (April 6, 1861):
>
> There have been, during the past week, several good little mills, but as I was away at the Liverpool gathering, I can only speak from hearsay. ... Ruff of Nottingham and Curley of Sheffield, also had a slashing affair, which lasted one hour and 28 minutes, and in which 55 rounds were hotly contested; Ruff's friends seeing that he then had no chance of **pulling it off** in his favor, wisely threw in the sponge in token of defeat, and Curley was declared the victor. Millington and Bagot, also went through their performance for the mastership, and £40, which neither succeeded in **pulling off**, on account of a disturbance, and the ring being broken in, when the referee at once declined to act any longer, and the men agreed, after having fought 65 rounds in 92 minutes, to draw stakes, and thus the matter rests. It will be seen that there has been plenty of boxing for those fond of it.
>
>
>
Although the meaning of "pull it off" in these various instances clearly tends toward the simple idea of "win," as Partridge indicates, I suspect that the literal focus of the "pulling off" is the stakes—the prize money. Mouravieff tried for the stake at Ascot and pulled it off. Mace wants to pull the £200 betting stake from his opponent off the table. Neither Millington nor Bagot succeeded in pulling off the £40 prize, so they had to "draw stakes" instead. (It seems clear that the term *draw* derives from a situation where competing fighters reach a stalemate without a winner, in which case the two sides' bettors must withdraw the stake they put up without pulling off the other side's stake with it.)
If I am right that the "it" in the phrase "pull it off" originally referred to "the stake," you would expect to find mentions of the phrase "pull the stake off" or "pull off the stake" in at least a few early sporting accounts. An Elephind search does uncover a number of such instances from the 1860s, all in connection with horse racing. The earliest of these is from "[Randwick Autumn Meeting](http://trove.nla.gov.au/newspaper/article/60494934?searchTerm=%22pulled+off+the+stake%22)," in the *[Sydney, New South Wales] Empire* (May 6, 1861):
>
> As Johnny Cutts pleased, so he won. The next was another certainty, young Battye bringing Peter Possum first past the chair without any trouble. Then came the Champagne, for which The Nun was the favourite; but Mr. De Mestre's luck was in, and Exeter **pulled off the stake**, Holmes beating the favourite for second place. The Three-mile Handicap brought six to the post, and Talleyrand won pretty easily, old Veno, with all the weights, being second.
>
>
>
Likewise, from "[New South Wales for the Melbourne Cup](http://trove.nla.gov.au/newspaper/article/65465251?searchTerm=%22pull+the+stake+off%22)," in the *Bell's Life in Sydney [New South Wales]* (June 23, 1866):
>
> I am not fond of three-yr-olds in big handicaps at the beginning of the season; but if there is really a good one among these, and well on the day, he or she may **pull the stake off** in such a field, for a more unaccountable one I never tried to make anything out of. Report says that Maribyrnong is to be *the* nag of Mr Fisher's stable; but from among three such as Budelight, Sea Gull, and Maribyrnong, it is not easy to say which will be the pick.
>
>
>
And from "[Intercolonial News: Victoria](http://trove.nla.gov.au/newspaper/article/13138560?searchTerm=%22pulled+off+the+stake%22)," in the *Sydney [New South Wales] Morning Herald* (April 4,, 1867):
>
> Mr. Goyder, the well-known turf *vates* and bookmaker, was summoned on Friday in the County Court by a chemist named Ready, residing at Maryborough, for £50 damages, on account of an assault committed upon the Melbourne Racecourse. Ready cme to town to see the last Champion Meeting, and on arriving at the course, he patronised the betting ring, with the intention of "potting" on The Barb. Here he fell in with Mr. Coker, and accepted that gentleman's offer of 20 to 8, in sovereigns, against his favourite horse. When The Barb had **pulled off the stake**, and Mr. Coker was about to pay the £20 to Ready, Mr. Goyder interfered and prevented him from doing so by saying that Ready owed him £5. The latter gave the statement a flat denial, and Goyder knocked him down. Mr. Coker paid him next morning, but he brought this action against Goyder for the injury and unwarranted exposure he had received, as, although he did owe him £5 on account of a bet at Ballarat, he sent a cheque for the amount shortly after the debt was incurred. Mr. Goyder, however, said that he never received the £5, and that the alleged assault lay in an attempt which he made to pull the nose of Mr. Ready, who frustrated his intention by falling over backwards. His Honor Judge Pohlman found for the plaintiff, with £25 damages.
>
>
>
Additional instances of the wording appear from 1867 through the 1870s (at least).
Realistically, the expression "pull it off" is already figurative in the earliest matches (from 1860) cited here, but the vestige of a literal pulling off of the wagered stakes remains dimly visible. |
14,260 | "to pull it off" was at one time used meaning "to win."
And in sentences such as,
>
> I don't think you can pull it off.
>
>
>
, it often implies the idea of "success."
But how did this expression originate? | 2011/02/26 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/14260",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/4988/"
] | Two immediate lexical progenitors produced transitive use of the colloquial phrasal verb 'to pull off' in the sense of
>
> **2.** *trans. colloq.* To succeed in accomplishing, achieving, or producing (something); to carry off.
>
>
> [*OED*](http://oed.com/), 'to pull off'
>
>
>
Those two progenitors were uses in these senses:
>
> **1.** *trans.*
>
> **a.** To take away or detach (something) by pulling from where it is held or attached. ....
>
>
> **b.** To take off (one's coat, etc.); to doff (one's hat).
>
>
> op. cit.
>
>
>
Senses 1a and 1b are attested in *OED* from before 1425 (citation composed before 1399) and around 1500, respectively. Sense 2 is attested from 1860:
>
> *Baily's Monthly Mag.* 1 34 After the good old matches of Club and Ground against Cambridge and against Oxford are pulled off at the two Universities, the London Season will open.
>
>
>
Although pulling off boots and coats, etc. (1b), often has a sudden, tangential element of success, it is likely that, at least in the US, transitional, figurative political uses played directly into the ready adoption of the sense denoting *successful* accomplishment, achievement or production.
A painstaking examination of primary sources — uses in the popular press — showed continuing dominance of sense 1b into the mid-1800s (lots of clothes were pulled off during that period), along with, much less frequent, uses in sense 1a (often with reference to pulling off parts of plants in articles concerning agriculture and gardening; sometimes with reference to pulling off flesh and skin).
The principal difference between senses 1 and 2 is relative materiality. Sense 1 takes tactile material as its object: boats, clothes, vegetation, flesh. The later sense 2 takes ideas or concepts as its object: a win, a success, an accomplishment, an achievement. Such chronological development of lexical sense is a standard process; it goes alongside the usually less-definable adoption of figurative senses.
Some transitional US uses, notably political, illustrate the development of the sense, from material things pulled off to immaterial, by way of figurative uses:
>
> The Democratic Journals in New York have a mournful look. Fillmore, on one side, pulls on the anti Ostend conservative men, and Fremont, on the other, **pulls off** the Germans, Irish, &c., ....
>
>
> *The Wilmington Daily Herald* (Wilmington, North Carolina), 18 Jul 1856.
>
>
>
>
> ---
>
>
> Three times he has left governmental posts, ...after brave displays of political pluck; and now, for the fourth time he **pulls off** his cabinet cloak and throws it in the faces of his old fogy associates.
>
>
> *True American* (Steubenville, Ohio) 08 Mar 1855.
>
>
>
These early, figurative US uses from 1855 and 1856 precede the earliest US use of 'pull off' in sense 2 found, from 1858:
>
> His crowning success, however, was to pull off the two thousand guineas stake with Fitz Roland and the Derby with Beardsman.
>
>
> *The Brooklyn Daily Eagle* (Brooklyn, New York) 05 Jun 1858.
>
>
>
As will be deduced from the currency of the stakes, if nothing else, that 1858 use, although it appears in a US newspaper, refers to an English horserace.
---
Setting aside the US transitional, figurative uses of 'pull off' in political contexts, and turning to UK uses, evidence of the development of transitive sense 2 appears earlier. In 1851, for example, rhetorically linked uses of the intransitive verbal phrase 'came off' and the transitive 'carry off' prepare for a third with the transitive 'pull [something] off'. The general subject is horse racing, and the direct object is an event:
>
> The opening race across the flat **came off** in favour of the four-year-old Triennial winner...we suggested the probability of some undreamt of outsider **carrying off** the prize...[w]hether he has won or not, old Joe Rogers will delight in the accomplishment of the feat, for he...abhors **pulling an event off** with a favourite.
>
>
> *The Era* (London) 19 October 1851
>
>
>
A slightly (four days) earlier use in scare quotes suggests the application of 'pull off' to the immaterial object of a horse-racing title is a neologism...at least as concerns the author of the piece and his judgement of Dublin readers' familiarity with the use of the phrase:
>
> ...and Mr. Quin's Whiff "pulling" off the First Class of Trainers' Stakes.
>
>
> *Freeman's Journal* (Dublin) Wednesday 15 October 1851
>
>
>
Here again, in the UK, uses of 'pull off' in sense 2 are presaged by figurative uses in political contexts in sense 1b; such figurative use again involves the removal of articles of attire. One such, a very early instance, is this citation from the *OED* sense 1b attestations:
>
> 1677 W. Hubbard Narr. *Troubles with Indians New-Eng.* (new ed.) ii. 32 He pulled off his Vizour of a friend, and discovered what he was.
>
>
>
Another, contemporaneous with (although a few days earlier than) the 1851 uses in horse-racing contexts:
>
> If the Roman Catholic Prelates...will come forward to denounce...the doings of Italian tyrants...we shal sing our *palinodia* with good will...[t]ill than, we shall continue to regard them as accomplices of the Emperor of Austria and Marshal Haynau...as so many MacHales and Cullens in disguise, waiting for the suitable moment to **pull off** the mask, draw the sword, and throw away the scabbard. — *The Patriot*
>
>
> *Belfast Mercury* 02 October 1851
>
>
>
Figurative uses with reference to the pulling off of masks were thematic in the evidence I examined pertaining to sense 1b.
Side Note on 'Stake' and 'Stakes'
---------------------------------
It may be objected to the foregoing account that a 'stake' is material: valuable goods or money wagered on the outcome of a bet, game, or event.
So, then, uses of 'pull off' with, as direct object, the 'stake' wagered on a horse race, must at least be said to be figurative uses in sense 1a ("to take away" something "by pulling from where it is held"), rather than sense 2 ("to succeed at something" or "to win something").
However, the citations shown make clear that, where 'stake' or 'stakes' is used as the object of 'pulling off', it is being used in a specialized sense, and denotes the race (singular) or class of race (plural), rather than the material prize. The sense is *OED* sense 3a of **stake, n.2**:
>
> *pl.* in Horse Racing, Coursing, etc., the sums of money staked or subscribed by the owners who enter horses or dogs for a contest, the whole to be received as the prize by the owner of the winner or divided among the owners of the animals ‘placed’, as declared in the conditions of the contest. Hence in *sing.* (cf. SWEEPSTAKE *n.*) **a race for money thus staked or subscribed**. Also in *pl.* with defining words as **the designation of particular races or classes of races** in which the sum of money staked is the prize as distinguished from a Plate (see PLATE *n.* 4), Cup, or the like.
>
>
> (Bold emphasis mine.)
>
>
>
Thus, where the direct object of 'pull off' shown in the citations is not the "match" (1860, *Bailey's Monthly Mag*) or the "event" (1851, *The Era*), but rather "the two thousand guineas stake" (1858, *The Brooklyn Daily Eagle*) or the "First Class of Trainers' Stakes" (1851, *Freemans Journal*), the denotation of 'stake' is the race and the denotation of 'Stakes' is the class of race. | I have not been able to find any explanation of the origin of the phrase "pull [something] off" beyond the sketchy one that Robusto cites in his answer. For completeness, I give the full entry from Eric Partridge, *A Dictionary of Slang and Unconventional English*, second edition (1938):
>
> **pull off.** To obtain (some benefit) : sporting : 1870 (O.E.D.). Ex sporting j[argon], to win.—2. Hence, to succeed with, or in effecting, something : 1887, Black, 'We haven't pulled it off this time, mother.' O.E.D.
>
>
>
Although Partridge doesn't narrow the source of "pull off" beyond "sporting," Hugo in his answer suggests that the source was probably horse racing, backing up his hypothesis with an earliest instance of the phrase from 1863, where the context is indeed horse racing.
I found four examples from 1860 and the first part of 1861—two from horse racing and two from prize fighting. All four instances are overseas reports of happenings on the turf or in the ring in England, so it may well be that a search of British newspapers would yield even earlier matches for "pull it off" in the relevant sense.
Now let's look at the earliest four 1860 and 1861 matches for the phrase. First, from "[The British Turf: Ascot Races](http://idnc.library.illinois.edu/cgi-bin/illinois?a=d&d=NYC18600630.2.32&txq=%22pulled+it+off%22)," in the *New York Clipper* (June 30, 1860):
>
> The Ascot Stakes, on which the betting was neither brisk nor heavy, followed the Two-year-old Biennial, and fifteen [horses] went to the post. This proved a capital turn for the book-makers. Mouravieff, who won a beautiful race by a head, was scarcely backed for a shilling, although his nominal price in the betting was 12 to 1[.] Having won a race of two miles two hours previously, he was not expected to do the trick again : however, the stake was worth trying for, and he **pulled it off**[.] The Ascot Derby was a gentle exercise for the Wizard; and then seventeen of all ages went to the T. Y. C. post for the Queen's Stand Plate—a new item on the Ascot bill of fare, worth £640 to the inner.
>
>
>
From "[Epitome of English Sporting](http://trove.nla.gov.au/newspaper/article/59873051?searchTerm=%22pulled+it+off%22)," in the *Bell's Life in Sydney [New South Wales] and Sporting Reviewer* (July 14, 1860):
>
> In the Oaks Betting the One Thousand winner had not taken the lead, but was content with third or fourth place on the list[.] John Scott, however, has always been a very dangerous customer in the "Ladies' Race," and has often **pulled it off** quite against public opinion.
>
>
>
From "[Sports Abroad: The Ring: Fights to Come](http://idnc.library.illinois.edu/cgi-bin/illinois?a=d&d=NYC18600922.2.17&txq=%22pull+it+off%22)," in the *New York Clipper* (September 22, 1860), originally in the *London Sporting Life* (August 29):
>
> [October] 18.—Bob Brettle, of Birmingham, and Jem Mace, of Norwich, £200 a side—home circuit.
>
>
> ...
>
>
> THE COMING GREAT FIGHT BETWEEN BRETTLE AND MACE. A further instalment of £15 a side in this interesting match is to be made good at Mr. W. Richardson's, Blue Anchor, Shoreditch, on Friday next. On Monday, Brettle took a sweat from his training quarters and visited Lichfield for the races, in company with Joe Wareham, who is training both him and Young Bodger Crutchley. Bob was in good condition, and his friends offered to lay £50 to £40. One gentleman has got on a cool hundred at evens. ... Mace is taking his breathings by the seaside, under the care of Alfred Milner, of Sheffield, and his old trainer "Friday," or Norwich. Mace, it appears, likes the match, and says he can **pull it off** to a certainty.
>
>
>
From "[Latest Sports in London](http://idnc.library.illinois.edu/cgi-bin/illinois?a=d&d=NYC18610406.2.3&txq=%22pulling+it+off%22)," in the *New York Clipper* (April 6, 1861):
>
> There have been, during the past week, several good little mills, but as I was away at the Liverpool gathering, I can only speak from hearsay. ... Ruff of Nottingham and Curley of Sheffield, also had a slashing affair, which lasted one hour and 28 minutes, and in which 55 rounds were hotly contested; Ruff's friends seeing that he then had no chance of **pulling it off** in his favor, wisely threw in the sponge in token of defeat, and Curley was declared the victor. Millington and Bagot, also went through their performance for the mastership, and £40, which neither succeeded in **pulling off**, on account of a disturbance, and the ring being broken in, when the referee at once declined to act any longer, and the men agreed, after having fought 65 rounds in 92 minutes, to draw stakes, and thus the matter rests. It will be seen that there has been plenty of boxing for those fond of it.
>
>
>
Although the meaning of "pull it off" in these various instances clearly tends toward the simple idea of "win," as Partridge indicates, I suspect that the literal focus of the "pulling off" is the stakes—the prize money. Mouravieff tried for the stake at Ascot and pulled it off. Mace wants to pull the £200 betting stake from his opponent off the table. Neither Millington nor Bagot succeeded in pulling off the £40 prize, so they had to "draw stakes" instead. (It seems clear that the term *draw* derives from a situation where competing fighters reach a stalemate without a winner, in which case the two sides' bettors must withdraw the stake they put up without pulling off the other side's stake with it.)
If I am right that the "it" in the phrase "pull it off" originally referred to "the stake," you would expect to find mentions of the phrase "pull the stake off" or "pull off the stake" in at least a few early sporting accounts. An Elephind search does uncover a number of such instances from the 1860s, all in connection with horse racing. The earliest of these is from "[Randwick Autumn Meeting](http://trove.nla.gov.au/newspaper/article/60494934?searchTerm=%22pulled+off+the+stake%22)," in the *[Sydney, New South Wales] Empire* (May 6, 1861):
>
> As Johnny Cutts pleased, so he won. The next was another certainty, young Battye bringing Peter Possum first past the chair without any trouble. Then came the Champagne, for which The Nun was the favourite; but Mr. De Mestre's luck was in, and Exeter **pulled off the stake**, Holmes beating the favourite for second place. The Three-mile Handicap brought six to the post, and Talleyrand won pretty easily, old Veno, with all the weights, being second.
>
>
>
Likewise, from "[New South Wales for the Melbourne Cup](http://trove.nla.gov.au/newspaper/article/65465251?searchTerm=%22pull+the+stake+off%22)," in the *Bell's Life in Sydney [New South Wales]* (June 23, 1866):
>
> I am not fond of three-yr-olds in big handicaps at the beginning of the season; but if there is really a good one among these, and well on the day, he or she may **pull the stake off** in such a field, for a more unaccountable one I never tried to make anything out of. Report says that Maribyrnong is to be *the* nag of Mr Fisher's stable; but from among three such as Budelight, Sea Gull, and Maribyrnong, it is not easy to say which will be the pick.
>
>
>
And from "[Intercolonial News: Victoria](http://trove.nla.gov.au/newspaper/article/13138560?searchTerm=%22pulled+off+the+stake%22)," in the *Sydney [New South Wales] Morning Herald* (April 4,, 1867):
>
> Mr. Goyder, the well-known turf *vates* and bookmaker, was summoned on Friday in the County Court by a chemist named Ready, residing at Maryborough, for £50 damages, on account of an assault committed upon the Melbourne Racecourse. Ready cme to town to see the last Champion Meeting, and on arriving at the course, he patronised the betting ring, with the intention of "potting" on The Barb. Here he fell in with Mr. Coker, and accepted that gentleman's offer of 20 to 8, in sovereigns, against his favourite horse. When The Barb had **pulled off the stake**, and Mr. Coker was about to pay the £20 to Ready, Mr. Goyder interfered and prevented him from doing so by saying that Ready owed him £5. The latter gave the statement a flat denial, and Goyder knocked him down. Mr. Coker paid him next morning, but he brought this action against Goyder for the injury and unwarranted exposure he had received, as, although he did owe him £5 on account of a bet at Ballarat, he sent a cheque for the amount shortly after the debt was incurred. Mr. Goyder, however, said that he never received the £5, and that the alleged assault lay in an attempt which he made to pull the nose of Mr. Ready, who frustrated his intention by falling over backwards. His Honor Judge Pohlman found for the plaintiff, with £25 damages.
>
>
>
Additional instances of the wording appear from 1867 through the 1870s (at least).
Realistically, the expression "pull it off" is already figurative in the earliest matches (from 1860) cited here, but the vestige of a literal pulling off of the wagered stakes remains dimly visible. |
30,543,567 | Why J2EE why not J7EE or J8EE . We got latest version as Java 8. But, why still, it is being Java Platform 2 ? What is a significance of "2" here ? Or It looks good, that's why they never changed its name or some other reason ? | 2015/05/30 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/30543567",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1162620/"
] | Java enterprise edition was introduced around the time of Java 2 (which was rebranded from Java 1.2). As part of the branding they included the numeral (originally). Now it is officially [Java EE](http://docs.oracle.com/javaee/7/index.html) (withtout the numeral 2). | Current java is known as Java 2 Platform.
Originally there was JDK1.0 and JDK1.1. They are not compatible to current Java platform. With release of JDK1.2, Java 2 Platform have been born.
>
> Release 1.4 of the Java 2 Platform, Standard Edition (J2SE) represents an advance from J2SE 1.3
>
>
>
[More On](http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/java/javase/index-jsp-138567.html) |
30,543,567 | Why J2EE why not J7EE or J8EE . We got latest version as Java 8. But, why still, it is being Java Platform 2 ? What is a significance of "2" here ? Or It looks good, that's why they never changed its name or some other reason ? | 2015/05/30 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/30543567",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1162620/"
] | Java enterprise edition was introduced around the time of Java 2 (which was rebranded from Java 1.2). As part of the branding they included the numeral (originally). Now it is officially [Java EE](http://docs.oracle.com/javaee/7/index.html) (withtout the numeral 2). | There is a good explanation of that in the link below :
[[Java EE vs J2EE vs Jakarta EE]](https://www.baeldung.com/java-enterprise-evolution)
***For J2EE :***
In the first version of Java, Java enterprise extensions were simply a part of the core JDK.
Then, as part of Java 2 in 1999, these extensions were broken out of the standard binaries, and J2EE, or Java 2 Platform Enterprise Edition, was born. It would keep that name until 2006.
For Java 5 in 2006, J2EE was renamed to Java EE or Java Platform Enterprise Edition. That name would stick all the way to September 2017. |
30,543,567 | Why J2EE why not J7EE or J8EE . We got latest version as Java 8. But, why still, it is being Java Platform 2 ? What is a significance of "2" here ? Or It looks good, that's why they never changed its name or some other reason ? | 2015/05/30 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/30543567",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1162620/"
] | Check the [Version History of Java EE in Wikipedia's content on Java Platform, Enterprise Edition](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Java_Platform,_Enterprise_Edition#Version_history) :-
>
> The platform **was** known as *Java 2 Platform, Enterprise Edition or J2EE*
> until the name was changed to **Java Platform, Enterprise Edition** or
> Java EE in version 5. The current version is called ***Java EE 7***.
>
>
>
Also to add the details of all versions :-
1. J2EE 1.2 (December 12, 1999)
2. J2EE 1.3 (September 24, 2001)
3. J2EE 1.4 (November 11, 2003)
4. Java EE 5 (May 11, 2006)
5. Java EE 6 (December 10, 2009)
6. Java EE 7 (May 28, 2013, but April 5, 2013 according to spec document. June 12, 2013 was the planned kickoff date)
7. Java EE 8 (expected around Q3 2016) | Current java is known as Java 2 Platform.
Originally there was JDK1.0 and JDK1.1. They are not compatible to current Java platform. With release of JDK1.2, Java 2 Platform have been born.
>
> Release 1.4 of the Java 2 Platform, Standard Edition (J2SE) represents an advance from J2SE 1.3
>
>
>
[More On](http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/java/javase/index-jsp-138567.html) |
30,543,567 | Why J2EE why not J7EE or J8EE . We got latest version as Java 8. But, why still, it is being Java Platform 2 ? What is a significance of "2" here ? Or It looks good, that's why they never changed its name or some other reason ? | 2015/05/30 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/30543567",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1162620/"
] | Check the [Version History of Java EE in Wikipedia's content on Java Platform, Enterprise Edition](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Java_Platform,_Enterprise_Edition#Version_history) :-
>
> The platform **was** known as *Java 2 Platform, Enterprise Edition or J2EE*
> until the name was changed to **Java Platform, Enterprise Edition** or
> Java EE in version 5. The current version is called ***Java EE 7***.
>
>
>
Also to add the details of all versions :-
1. J2EE 1.2 (December 12, 1999)
2. J2EE 1.3 (September 24, 2001)
3. J2EE 1.4 (November 11, 2003)
4. Java EE 5 (May 11, 2006)
5. Java EE 6 (December 10, 2009)
6. Java EE 7 (May 28, 2013, but April 5, 2013 according to spec document. June 12, 2013 was the planned kickoff date)
7. Java EE 8 (expected around Q3 2016) | There is a good explanation of that in the link below :
[[Java EE vs J2EE vs Jakarta EE]](https://www.baeldung.com/java-enterprise-evolution)
***For J2EE :***
In the first version of Java, Java enterprise extensions were simply a part of the core JDK.
Then, as part of Java 2 in 1999, these extensions were broken out of the standard binaries, and J2EE, or Java 2 Platform Enterprise Edition, was born. It would keep that name until 2006.
For Java 5 in 2006, J2EE was renamed to Java EE or Java Platform Enterprise Edition. That name would stick all the way to September 2017. |
30,543,567 | Why J2EE why not J7EE or J8EE . We got latest version as Java 8. But, why still, it is being Java Platform 2 ? What is a significance of "2" here ? Or It looks good, that's why they never changed its name or some other reason ? | 2015/05/30 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/30543567",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1162620/"
] | There is a good explanation of that in the link below :
[[Java EE vs J2EE vs Jakarta EE]](https://www.baeldung.com/java-enterprise-evolution)
***For J2EE :***
In the first version of Java, Java enterprise extensions were simply a part of the core JDK.
Then, as part of Java 2 in 1999, these extensions were broken out of the standard binaries, and J2EE, or Java 2 Platform Enterprise Edition, was born. It would keep that name until 2006.
For Java 5 in 2006, J2EE was renamed to Java EE or Java Platform Enterprise Edition. That name would stick all the way to September 2017. | Current java is known as Java 2 Platform.
Originally there was JDK1.0 and JDK1.1. They are not compatible to current Java platform. With release of JDK1.2, Java 2 Platform have been born.
>
> Release 1.4 of the Java 2 Platform, Standard Edition (J2SE) represents an advance from J2SE 1.3
>
>
>
[More On](http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/java/javase/index-jsp-138567.html) |
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