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38,223 | I will preface my question by stating I am very new to writing and new to this website. I am here for help.
I'm writing a collection of inspirational short stories, as though I was sitting across from someone over coffee sharing my experiences. Because my normal manner of speaking is in passive voice, I am struggling desperately to convert over to active voice, which is basically stifling the flow of my thoughts and words, making them almost stiff and impersonal.
I have been studying the grammar rules and know exactly what needs to be done, but I am stuck - what is the best advice you can offer for someone in my situation? I am not ashamed or embarrassed to ask this but would appreciate your input. Thank you. | 2018/08/09 | [
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/38223",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/users/32652/"
] | Well, for starters, a mix of active and passive voice gives your writing variation. It's the same with how you would want to vary sentence length and structure.
The difference between active voice and passive voice is where you put your focus.
The dog bit the man. (Active)
The man was bitten by the dog. (Passive)
If your default is passive voice, I think a good place to start is trying to recognize when you are using PV and when you are using AV. In my experience, PV is usually recognizable by the preposition "by." I think [this](https://writing.wisc.edu/Handbook/CCS_activevoice.html) is a good resource on AV/PV, and has some good examples on when PV is actually good to use. Hope it helps! | I struggle with this too, so while I can't completely act like I know what I'm doing, I would like to recommend this app:
<http://www.hemingwayapp.com/>
It's a neat little app that will at the very least flag up all the little ways you're using passive voice so you know where you're tripping up. It's useful for minimalist prose in general, but don't take its word as gospel; after all, if everyone was hyper-minimalist, there'd be no stylistic variation.
Note: I'm not sponsored by Hemingwayapp. |
38,223 | I will preface my question by stating I am very new to writing and new to this website. I am here for help.
I'm writing a collection of inspirational short stories, as though I was sitting across from someone over coffee sharing my experiences. Because my normal manner of speaking is in passive voice, I am struggling desperately to convert over to active voice, which is basically stifling the flow of my thoughts and words, making them almost stiff and impersonal.
I have been studying the grammar rules and know exactly what needs to be done, but I am stuck - what is the best advice you can offer for someone in my situation? I am not ashamed or embarrassed to ask this but would appreciate your input. Thank you. | 2018/08/09 | [
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/38223",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/users/32652/"
] | I'm struggling with the idea that you customarily write in passive voice, because, well, people just don't do that. Passive voice is really pretty rare.
Just to clarify what we're talking about:
"Joe fed the dog" is active voice.
"The dog was fed by Joe" is passive voice.
But--
"The dog was eating" is ACTIVE voice.
Is that, perhaps, what you're talking about? It's not passive voice. It is past continuous tense, and it is possible to overuse past continuous tense.
More examples:
The club was disbanded: Passive voice.
The club was in turmoil: Active voice, but past continuous tense.
Jane was seated by the hostess: Passive voice.
Jane was sitting at a window table: Active voice, but past continuous tense.
I realize this isn't really an answer, but it's hard to answer without being reasonably confident of what the problem is. | Do you know someone who speaks in an active voice?
If so then a simple method is to have that person (In your minds eye) speak your dialogue to you.
Alternatively, if you have a favourite character who uses active voice, then that is another possible person you have speak this dialogue to you.
With this kind of visualisation I find it helpful to be in a quiet room - or have my headphones on - to completely isolate myself from outside stimulus. I will also have my eyes closed. Then I spend some time first getting into the head of the person or character I want to "speak" the dialogue.
Then I will have them do so in my head. For me personally I also find that if I try to do any of this out load it doesn't work very well - the sound of my own voice gets in the way.
Let things slow down - try to frame things a small concept at a time. Once it begins, it will flow naturally. Keep rolling with it and after a while you should be able to begin recording what your character is saying. |
38,223 | I will preface my question by stating I am very new to writing and new to this website. I am here for help.
I'm writing a collection of inspirational short stories, as though I was sitting across from someone over coffee sharing my experiences. Because my normal manner of speaking is in passive voice, I am struggling desperately to convert over to active voice, which is basically stifling the flow of my thoughts and words, making them almost stiff and impersonal.
I have been studying the grammar rules and know exactly what needs to be done, but I am stuck - what is the best advice you can offer for someone in my situation? I am not ashamed or embarrassed to ask this but would appreciate your input. Thank you. | 2018/08/09 | [
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/38223",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/users/32652/"
] | Consider finishing your draft before trying to do active voice and instead changing things to active prose in your revisions.
Active vs passive voice usually reads better, but it does not change the meaning of the text it just makes it seem more energetic and immediate. Therefore it is not like you will have to restructure huge pieces of plots or similar if you want to change it later. So it is good to do it in late revisions.
Improving prose is something that is usally good to save until late revisions. (If you do it in early revisions or in your initial draft there might be large parts you end up not using or you have to rewrite a chapter because the plot doesnt work or you want to change a character and suddenly you have wasted a lot of effort improving prose you are scrapping and rewriting anyway)
And obviously if you just write great from the start you'll have less revising to do in the future, but if trying to write great stops your drafting process there is nothing unusual with saving it for later and just producing the words. | Do you know someone who speaks in an active voice?
If so then a simple method is to have that person (In your minds eye) speak your dialogue to you.
Alternatively, if you have a favourite character who uses active voice, then that is another possible person you have speak this dialogue to you.
With this kind of visualisation I find it helpful to be in a quiet room - or have my headphones on - to completely isolate myself from outside stimulus. I will also have my eyes closed. Then I spend some time first getting into the head of the person or character I want to "speak" the dialogue.
Then I will have them do so in my head. For me personally I also find that if I try to do any of this out load it doesn't work very well - the sound of my own voice gets in the way.
Let things slow down - try to frame things a small concept at a time. Once it begins, it will flow naturally. Keep rolling with it and after a while you should be able to begin recording what your character is saying. |
38,223 | I will preface my question by stating I am very new to writing and new to this website. I am here for help.
I'm writing a collection of inspirational short stories, as though I was sitting across from someone over coffee sharing my experiences. Because my normal manner of speaking is in passive voice, I am struggling desperately to convert over to active voice, which is basically stifling the flow of my thoughts and words, making them almost stiff and impersonal.
I have been studying the grammar rules and know exactly what needs to be done, but I am stuck - what is the best advice you can offer for someone in my situation? I am not ashamed or embarrassed to ask this but would appreciate your input. Thank you. | 2018/08/09 | [
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/38223",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/users/32652/"
] | Don't worry about it in your first draft. It's hard enough to finish a first draft, don't make it harder by trying to write perfectly. Just get your story out and fix it later.
Especially since you're working on short pieces, you can devote your revisions to individual issues. Read through once just to look for passive voice. Read through again just to look for weak verbs. Read through again, listening to awkward phrasing. Rinse and repeat. | Do you know someone who speaks in an active voice?
If so then a simple method is to have that person (In your minds eye) speak your dialogue to you.
Alternatively, if you have a favourite character who uses active voice, then that is another possible person you have speak this dialogue to you.
With this kind of visualisation I find it helpful to be in a quiet room - or have my headphones on - to completely isolate myself from outside stimulus. I will also have my eyes closed. Then I spend some time first getting into the head of the person or character I want to "speak" the dialogue.
Then I will have them do so in my head. For me personally I also find that if I try to do any of this out load it doesn't work very well - the sound of my own voice gets in the way.
Let things slow down - try to frame things a small concept at a time. Once it begins, it will flow naturally. Keep rolling with it and after a while you should be able to begin recording what your character is saying. |
38,223 | I will preface my question by stating I am very new to writing and new to this website. I am here for help.
I'm writing a collection of inspirational short stories, as though I was sitting across from someone over coffee sharing my experiences. Because my normal manner of speaking is in passive voice, I am struggling desperately to convert over to active voice, which is basically stifling the flow of my thoughts and words, making them almost stiff and impersonal.
I have been studying the grammar rules and know exactly what needs to be done, but I am stuck - what is the best advice you can offer for someone in my situation? I am not ashamed or embarrassed to ask this but would appreciate your input. Thank you. | 2018/08/09 | [
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/38223",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/users/32652/"
] | It is somewhat normal to write a first draft with a passive style.
Here is how you shift writing to a more active voice:
-----------------------------------------------------
**(1)** Search through your document for is/was/were and similar verbs of being. Assess each instance, and decide if that word is part of a passive construction, and reformat to active if appropriate.
**(2)** Part of passivity, though, is not passive voice *per se* but comes about through the addition of qualifying action verbs. **Trying to do something** is less powerful that **doing something**. Scan through your document for any construction as: 'began to x,' 'tried to x,' 'thought about doing x' -- anything along these lines. Basically, such constructions place a weaker verb before a more active verb. (There is no try. Do. Or do not.)
**(3)** Some verbs are inherently considered weak, even 'action verbs,' if they are vague or overused, simplistic verbs. Running is weaker than bolting or dashing. Biting is weaker than ripping into. Thinking is weaker than calculating.
**(4)** Along the lines of 'thinking.' Any verb that you 'can do on your couch' should be critically examined. Looking, thinking, sitting, dreaming, remembering, and so on. Consider deleting any instance of a verb that does not require the character to physically move.
**These are not absolute rules, of course. You must decide on a case-by-case basis. If you make those four editorial rounds on your writing, you'll have a more active piece of prose.** | I struggle with this too, so while I can't completely act like I know what I'm doing, I would like to recommend this app:
<http://www.hemingwayapp.com/>
It's a neat little app that will at the very least flag up all the little ways you're using passive voice so you know where you're tripping up. It's useful for minimalist prose in general, but don't take its word as gospel; after all, if everyone was hyper-minimalist, there'd be no stylistic variation.
Note: I'm not sponsored by Hemingwayapp. |
38,223 | I will preface my question by stating I am very new to writing and new to this website. I am here for help.
I'm writing a collection of inspirational short stories, as though I was sitting across from someone over coffee sharing my experiences. Because my normal manner of speaking is in passive voice, I am struggling desperately to convert over to active voice, which is basically stifling the flow of my thoughts and words, making them almost stiff and impersonal.
I have been studying the grammar rules and know exactly what needs to be done, but I am stuck - what is the best advice you can offer for someone in my situation? I am not ashamed or embarrassed to ask this but would appreciate your input. Thank you. | 2018/08/09 | [
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/38223",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/users/32652/"
] | Well, for starters, a mix of active and passive voice gives your writing variation. It's the same with how you would want to vary sentence length and structure.
The difference between active voice and passive voice is where you put your focus.
The dog bit the man. (Active)
The man was bitten by the dog. (Passive)
If your default is passive voice, I think a good place to start is trying to recognize when you are using PV and when you are using AV. In my experience, PV is usually recognizable by the preposition "by." I think [this](https://writing.wisc.edu/Handbook/CCS_activevoice.html) is a good resource on AV/PV, and has some good examples on when PV is actually good to use. Hope it helps! | Do you know someone who speaks in an active voice?
If so then a simple method is to have that person (In your minds eye) speak your dialogue to you.
Alternatively, if you have a favourite character who uses active voice, then that is another possible person you have speak this dialogue to you.
With this kind of visualisation I find it helpful to be in a quiet room - or have my headphones on - to completely isolate myself from outside stimulus. I will also have my eyes closed. Then I spend some time first getting into the head of the person or character I want to "speak" the dialogue.
Then I will have them do so in my head. For me personally I also find that if I try to do any of this out load it doesn't work very well - the sound of my own voice gets in the way.
Let things slow down - try to frame things a small concept at a time. Once it begins, it will flow naturally. Keep rolling with it and after a while you should be able to begin recording what your character is saying. |
7,436,972 | >
> **Possible Duplicate:**
>
> [How do you find a roman numeral equivalent of an integer](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/3921866/how-do-you-find-a-roman-numeral-equivalent-of-an-integer)
>
>
>
I need to write a JSP function that will efficiently convert an integer (from 1 - 3000) to a roman numeral. | 2011/09/15 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/7436972",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/422845/"
] | Start simple. Work out how you would convert the numbers 1 - 9 into Roman. Code and test. When it is working correctly, extend it to handle numbers up to 99. Again code and test. When it is working correctly, extend it to handle numbers up to 999. Code, test and extend up to 3,000. | Google has quite a few links to both algorithms and code:
<http://www.google.com/webhp?hl=&sourceid=navclient-ff&rlz=1B3GGLL_enUS384US384&ie=UTF-8#hl=en&sugexp=gsis%2Ci18n%3Dtrue&cp=34&gs_id=3&xhr=t&q=decimal+to+roman+numeral+algorithm&pf=p&sclient=psy-ab&rlz=1B3GGLL_enUS384US384&site=webhp&source=hp&pbx=1&oq=decimal+to+roman+numeral+algorithm&aq=0&aqi=g1&aql=&gs_sm=&gs_upl=&bav=on.2,or.r_gc.r_pw.&fp=d5bc1e92224c5138&biw=1003&bih=594> |
40,693 | How do the Catholic and the Orthodox Churches differentiate between which Apocrypha are part of their holy tradition and which are not?
For example, the story of the Presentation of the Blessed Virgin Mary is not contained in any books of the Bible and is rather coming from the early Apocrypha: "The Protevangelium of James".
However, as far as I know, at least in the Orthodox Church this story is absolutely believed upon and its validity is never questioned. The Orthodox definitely consider this story to be a part of their tradition. On the other hand, there are many Apocrypha that describe exactly the same stories that are described in the New Testaments, however, those Apocrypha are just considered Apocrypha, their authorship and spiritual validity are held under question, and they are not considered by the Orthodox to be the part of their tradition. | 2015/05/16 | [
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/40693",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/users/234/"
] | There's the Gospels of Eve, Judas, Philip, Mary, Ebionites, Hebrews, Marcion, Mani, Apelles, Bartholomew... there's a huge list. To be "Apocrypha", a book need only be unaccepted into the official Bible. This, added to the propensity of early Christians (especially Gnostics) to write what were essentially fan-fics at the time, and you end up with numerous [apocryphal books.](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/New_Testament_apocrypha)
Different denominations' canons can be found [here](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Books_of_the_Bible) under Intertestamental books and [here](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Biblical_canon).
As for why some are canon an some are not, for Catholics it was decided in the [Council of Trent](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Council_of_Trent) and subsequent discussions, while the [Eastern Orthodox canon](http://www.catholicbridge.com/catholic/orthodox/why_orthodox_bible_is_different_from_catholic.php) is still mercurial, for a lack of such a unified council. | I'm not aware of any. I would say that it's not possible. First off, there is no single Bible. The word "bible" means "books" plural in Greek. Various groups picked certain ancient books to be part of their Bible, and ignored many others. Different groups ignored different books. The Protestant believe there are 66 books. The Ethiopian Orthodox Church says 81. Some churches regard "Book of Jubilees" to be holy, and other don't. Each church decided which books were going into their bible, and if they didn't, the book is not holy to them by definition. |
40,693 | How do the Catholic and the Orthodox Churches differentiate between which Apocrypha are part of their holy tradition and which are not?
For example, the story of the Presentation of the Blessed Virgin Mary is not contained in any books of the Bible and is rather coming from the early Apocrypha: "The Protevangelium of James".
However, as far as I know, at least in the Orthodox Church this story is absolutely believed upon and its validity is never questioned. The Orthodox definitely consider this story to be a part of their tradition. On the other hand, there are many Apocrypha that describe exactly the same stories that are described in the New Testaments, however, those Apocrypha are just considered Apocrypha, their authorship and spiritual validity are held under question, and they are not considered by the Orthodox to be the part of their tradition. | 2015/05/16 | [
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/40693",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/users/234/"
] | ### Eastern Orthodox Old Testament "Apocrypha"
In the [Eastern Orthodox tradition](https://orthodoxwiki.org/Apocrypha), the Old Testament Apocrypha comprises books such as the [Assumption of Moses](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Assumption_of_Moses), [Ascension of Isaiah](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ascension_of_Isaiah), [Apocalypse of Elijah](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Apocalypse_of_Elijah), [Book of Enoch](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Book_of_Enoch), and the [Testament of the Twelve Patriarchs](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Testaments_of_the_Twelve_Patriarchs). Other traditions sometimes refer to these books as apocrypha and/or pseudoepigrapha.
None of the these books were included in the Old Testament canon confirmed by the 7th Ecumenical Council in 787, nor in any of the preceding related councils (i.e. Council of Carthage in 397, Council of Trullo in 692). In some other Orthodox traditions that broke away after the 3rd and 4th Ecumenical Councils (e.g. Ethiopean/Eritrean), the Book of Enoch is also included in the Old Testament and not considered as being part of the Old Testament Apocrypha.
---
### Eastern Orthodox New Testament "Apocrypha"
In the Eastern Orthodox tradition again, the [New Testament Apocrypha](https://orthodoxwiki.org/New_Testament#New_Testament_Apocrypha) includes the [Didache](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Didache), the [Gospel of Thomas](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gospel_of_Thomas), the [Gospel of Peter](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gospel_of_Peter), the [Epistle of Barnabas](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Epistle_of_Barnabas), the [Greek Gospel of the Egyptians](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Greek_Gospel_of_the_Egyptians), the [Gospel of the Hebrews](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gospel_of_the_Hebrews), the [First Epistle of Clement](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/First_Epistle_of_Clement), the [Apocalypse of Peter](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Apocalypse_of_Peter), the [Shepherd of Hermas](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/The_Shepherd_of_Hermas), the [Gospel of Judas](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gospel_of_Judas), and the [Protoevangelium of James](https://orthodoxwiki.org/Protoevangelion_of_James).
Some of the above books (e.g. Gospel of Thomas) were considered truly spurious and heretical (usually gnostic) and were never considered as part of the canon by the Church of the 7 Ecumenical Councils.
Some of the books were included in some manuscripts we have of the New Testament used in the early Church (e.g. Codex Sinaiticus, Codex Alexandrinus - the two principal witnesses behind the Nestle-Aland Greek New Testament text). These include Clement, Barnabas, and Hermas. Although eventually excluded form the canon, they were not considered heretical and to this day are part of the written tradition of the Eastern Orthodox Church. Other Orthodox traditions (e.g. Ethiopean/Eritrean) continue to include some of these books (e.g. Clement) in their New Testament canon to this day.
Still others were never included in any New Testament compilation, but neither are they considered heretical. These include the Didache and the Protoevangelium of James.
---
### The Deuterocanon
Again in the Eastern Orthodox tradition, there are a number of Old Testament books which, though not part of the Hebrew canon, are included in the overall Old Testament canon. Within the Eastern Orthodox Church, this set comprises:
* I Esdras
* The portion of II Esdras called the "Prayer of Manasseh"
* Tobit
* Judith
* Portions of Esther
* Wisdom of Solomon
* Wisdom of Sirach (Ecclesiasticus)
* Baruch
* Epistle of Jeremiah
* The portions of Daniel:
+ Song of the Three Children
+ Susanna
+ Bel and the Dragon
* Psalm 151
* I Maccabees
* II Maccabees
* III Maccabees
Although "apocrypha" is a Greek word, the Greek Church never referred to any of the above books as apocrypha, which has a derogatory connotation. They are instead referred to as the *deuterocanon* (the second canon). You will sometimes find the books referred to as "Apocrypha" in Orthodox sources nonetheless, but this is largely in deference to non-Orthodox terminology.
Jerome seems to have been the first to have labeled the deuterocanon as "apocrypha" in one of his introductions to his Latin translation of the Old Testament. He seem to have objected to the inclusion of books outside the Hebrew canon in the Old Testament, but elsewhere he wrote that he felt he must defer to the Church. (He translated all of the deuterocanon and included it in his work.)
---
### Timeline of the Deuterocanon/"Apocrypha"
An overview of how the Old Testament canon developed within the Church is discussed [here](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/a/56186/33515) and [here](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/a/61539/33515). A brief timeline would be:
**Through 2nd century**
There is not consensus on the content of the Old Testament.
* Marcion (85-160) holds that that the entire Old Testament - Hebrew or otherwise - should be excluded from the Bible.
* Melito of Sardis (d. 180) seems to exclude the deuterocanon from what he considers to be the Old Testament.
* Deuterocanonical books found among the Dead Sea Scrolls.
* Some early Church Fathers quote from the deuterocanon (e.g. Irenaeus, 130-202), others do not (e.g. Justin Martyr, 100-165).
**3rd century**
* Origen includes Maccabees in the Old Testament canon he enumerates, although it is not clear which specific books.
* Canon LXXXV of the Apostolic Canons include a number of deuterocanonical books in the Old Testament, including Sirach and Maccabees. (These canons are of indeterminate origin. Some scholars say they may date to the 2nd century, others to as late as the 5th or 6th, though.)
**4th century**
* Hilary of Poitiers (310-368) includes Tobit and Judith in his enumeration of the Old Testament
* Jerome (347-420) includes the entire deuterocanon in his Latin translation of the Old Testament (see above)
* Virtually every Church Father quotes from the deuterocanon in their works, including John Chrysostom (349-407) (called by John MacArthur "the greatest preacher of the early Church").
* The deuterocanon is bound up with the Bible codices of this period (see above)
* Canon XXXIII of the 3rd Council of Carthage (397) includes the deuterocanon in the Old Testament
**7th century**
The Council of Trullo (692) ratifies and adopts many ancient local canons, including the Apostolic Canons. Canon LXXXV of the Apostolic Canon includes the deuterocanon in the Old Testament (see above).
**8th century**
The 7th Ecumenical Council in Nicaea (787) ratifies and adopts the canons of both the 3rd Council of Carthage and the Council of Trullo. This effectively establishes the following Old Testament canon for the entire Chalcedonian Church (i.e. the Church recognizing all 7 Ecumenical Councils to that date):
>
> * Genesis, Exodus, Leviticus, Numbers, Deuteronomy
> * Joshua, Judges, Ruth
> * 1-4 Kings (referred to as 1/2 Samuel and 1/2 Kings in most Bibles today)
> * 1/2 Chronicles
> * Job
> * Psalms
> * Proverbs
> * Ecclesiastes
> * Song of Songs
> * Wisdom of Solomon
> * Wisdom of Sirach (Ecclesiasticus)
> * The books of the 12 Prophets: Hosea, Amos, Micah, Joel, Obadiah, Jonah, Nahum, Habakkuk, Zephaniah, Haggai, Zechariah, Malachi
> * Isaiah, Jeremiah, Ezekiel, Daniel
> * Tobit
> * Judith
> * Esther
> * Ezra and Nehemiah
> * 1-3 Maccabees
>
>
>
**"Great Schism" to the Reformation and beyond**
The See of Rome and the other four Sees (Constantinople, Alexandria, Antioch, Jerusalem) mutually separated in 1054 as the Pope of Rome and Patriarch of Constantinople mutually anathematize each other.
* The Roman Catholic Council of Trent (c 1546) issues a decree (*De Canonicis Scripturis*) re-affirming the canon of the 3rd Council of Carthage, resulting in minimal changes to the canon established by the 7th Ecumenical Council.
* The Geneva Bible is published in 1560 with the deuterocanon specified the 7th Ecumenical Council.
* The King James Bible is published in 1611 with the deuterocanon specified by the 7th Ecumenical Council.
* The Synod of Jerusalem (1692) amends the Old Testament canon to include the Prayer of Manasseh and a 4th Book of Maccabees. Technically, the canons of this synod only apply to the Jerusalem Patriarchate. To date, most Eastern Orthodox jurisdictions recognize the Prayer of Manasseh, but not 4 Maccabees.
* The deuterocanon begins disappearing from editions of the King James Bible beginning in the early 19th century. | I'm not aware of any. I would say that it's not possible. First off, there is no single Bible. The word "bible" means "books" plural in Greek. Various groups picked certain ancient books to be part of their Bible, and ignored many others. Different groups ignored different books. The Protestant believe there are 66 books. The Ethiopian Orthodox Church says 81. Some churches regard "Book of Jubilees" to be holy, and other don't. Each church decided which books were going into their bible, and if they didn't, the book is not holy to them by definition. |
40,693 | How do the Catholic and the Orthodox Churches differentiate between which Apocrypha are part of their holy tradition and which are not?
For example, the story of the Presentation of the Blessed Virgin Mary is not contained in any books of the Bible and is rather coming from the early Apocrypha: "The Protevangelium of James".
However, as far as I know, at least in the Orthodox Church this story is absolutely believed upon and its validity is never questioned. The Orthodox definitely consider this story to be a part of their tradition. On the other hand, there are many Apocrypha that describe exactly the same stories that are described in the New Testaments, however, those Apocrypha are just considered Apocrypha, their authorship and spiritual validity are held under question, and they are not considered by the Orthodox to be the part of their tradition. | 2015/05/16 | [
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/40693",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/users/234/"
] | ### Eastern Orthodox Old Testament "Apocrypha"
In the [Eastern Orthodox tradition](https://orthodoxwiki.org/Apocrypha), the Old Testament Apocrypha comprises books such as the [Assumption of Moses](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Assumption_of_Moses), [Ascension of Isaiah](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ascension_of_Isaiah), [Apocalypse of Elijah](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Apocalypse_of_Elijah), [Book of Enoch](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Book_of_Enoch), and the [Testament of the Twelve Patriarchs](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Testaments_of_the_Twelve_Patriarchs). Other traditions sometimes refer to these books as apocrypha and/or pseudoepigrapha.
None of the these books were included in the Old Testament canon confirmed by the 7th Ecumenical Council in 787, nor in any of the preceding related councils (i.e. Council of Carthage in 397, Council of Trullo in 692). In some other Orthodox traditions that broke away after the 3rd and 4th Ecumenical Councils (e.g. Ethiopean/Eritrean), the Book of Enoch is also included in the Old Testament and not considered as being part of the Old Testament Apocrypha.
---
### Eastern Orthodox New Testament "Apocrypha"
In the Eastern Orthodox tradition again, the [New Testament Apocrypha](https://orthodoxwiki.org/New_Testament#New_Testament_Apocrypha) includes the [Didache](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Didache), the [Gospel of Thomas](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gospel_of_Thomas), the [Gospel of Peter](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gospel_of_Peter), the [Epistle of Barnabas](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Epistle_of_Barnabas), the [Greek Gospel of the Egyptians](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Greek_Gospel_of_the_Egyptians), the [Gospel of the Hebrews](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gospel_of_the_Hebrews), the [First Epistle of Clement](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/First_Epistle_of_Clement), the [Apocalypse of Peter](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Apocalypse_of_Peter), the [Shepherd of Hermas](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/The_Shepherd_of_Hermas), the [Gospel of Judas](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gospel_of_Judas), and the [Protoevangelium of James](https://orthodoxwiki.org/Protoevangelion_of_James).
Some of the above books (e.g. Gospel of Thomas) were considered truly spurious and heretical (usually gnostic) and were never considered as part of the canon by the Church of the 7 Ecumenical Councils.
Some of the books were included in some manuscripts we have of the New Testament used in the early Church (e.g. Codex Sinaiticus, Codex Alexandrinus - the two principal witnesses behind the Nestle-Aland Greek New Testament text). These include Clement, Barnabas, and Hermas. Although eventually excluded form the canon, they were not considered heretical and to this day are part of the written tradition of the Eastern Orthodox Church. Other Orthodox traditions (e.g. Ethiopean/Eritrean) continue to include some of these books (e.g. Clement) in their New Testament canon to this day.
Still others were never included in any New Testament compilation, but neither are they considered heretical. These include the Didache and the Protoevangelium of James.
---
### The Deuterocanon
Again in the Eastern Orthodox tradition, there are a number of Old Testament books which, though not part of the Hebrew canon, are included in the overall Old Testament canon. Within the Eastern Orthodox Church, this set comprises:
* I Esdras
* The portion of II Esdras called the "Prayer of Manasseh"
* Tobit
* Judith
* Portions of Esther
* Wisdom of Solomon
* Wisdom of Sirach (Ecclesiasticus)
* Baruch
* Epistle of Jeremiah
* The portions of Daniel:
+ Song of the Three Children
+ Susanna
+ Bel and the Dragon
* Psalm 151
* I Maccabees
* II Maccabees
* III Maccabees
Although "apocrypha" is a Greek word, the Greek Church never referred to any of the above books as apocrypha, which has a derogatory connotation. They are instead referred to as the *deuterocanon* (the second canon). You will sometimes find the books referred to as "Apocrypha" in Orthodox sources nonetheless, but this is largely in deference to non-Orthodox terminology.
Jerome seems to have been the first to have labeled the deuterocanon as "apocrypha" in one of his introductions to his Latin translation of the Old Testament. He seem to have objected to the inclusion of books outside the Hebrew canon in the Old Testament, but elsewhere he wrote that he felt he must defer to the Church. (He translated all of the deuterocanon and included it in his work.)
---
### Timeline of the Deuterocanon/"Apocrypha"
An overview of how the Old Testament canon developed within the Church is discussed [here](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/a/56186/33515) and [here](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/a/61539/33515). A brief timeline would be:
**Through 2nd century**
There is not consensus on the content of the Old Testament.
* Marcion (85-160) holds that that the entire Old Testament - Hebrew or otherwise - should be excluded from the Bible.
* Melito of Sardis (d. 180) seems to exclude the deuterocanon from what he considers to be the Old Testament.
* Deuterocanonical books found among the Dead Sea Scrolls.
* Some early Church Fathers quote from the deuterocanon (e.g. Irenaeus, 130-202), others do not (e.g. Justin Martyr, 100-165).
**3rd century**
* Origen includes Maccabees in the Old Testament canon he enumerates, although it is not clear which specific books.
* Canon LXXXV of the Apostolic Canons include a number of deuterocanonical books in the Old Testament, including Sirach and Maccabees. (These canons are of indeterminate origin. Some scholars say they may date to the 2nd century, others to as late as the 5th or 6th, though.)
**4th century**
* Hilary of Poitiers (310-368) includes Tobit and Judith in his enumeration of the Old Testament
* Jerome (347-420) includes the entire deuterocanon in his Latin translation of the Old Testament (see above)
* Virtually every Church Father quotes from the deuterocanon in their works, including John Chrysostom (349-407) (called by John MacArthur "the greatest preacher of the early Church").
* The deuterocanon is bound up with the Bible codices of this period (see above)
* Canon XXXIII of the 3rd Council of Carthage (397) includes the deuterocanon in the Old Testament
**7th century**
The Council of Trullo (692) ratifies and adopts many ancient local canons, including the Apostolic Canons. Canon LXXXV of the Apostolic Canon includes the deuterocanon in the Old Testament (see above).
**8th century**
The 7th Ecumenical Council in Nicaea (787) ratifies and adopts the canons of both the 3rd Council of Carthage and the Council of Trullo. This effectively establishes the following Old Testament canon for the entire Chalcedonian Church (i.e. the Church recognizing all 7 Ecumenical Councils to that date):
>
> * Genesis, Exodus, Leviticus, Numbers, Deuteronomy
> * Joshua, Judges, Ruth
> * 1-4 Kings (referred to as 1/2 Samuel and 1/2 Kings in most Bibles today)
> * 1/2 Chronicles
> * Job
> * Psalms
> * Proverbs
> * Ecclesiastes
> * Song of Songs
> * Wisdom of Solomon
> * Wisdom of Sirach (Ecclesiasticus)
> * The books of the 12 Prophets: Hosea, Amos, Micah, Joel, Obadiah, Jonah, Nahum, Habakkuk, Zephaniah, Haggai, Zechariah, Malachi
> * Isaiah, Jeremiah, Ezekiel, Daniel
> * Tobit
> * Judith
> * Esther
> * Ezra and Nehemiah
> * 1-3 Maccabees
>
>
>
**"Great Schism" to the Reformation and beyond**
The See of Rome and the other four Sees (Constantinople, Alexandria, Antioch, Jerusalem) mutually separated in 1054 as the Pope of Rome and Patriarch of Constantinople mutually anathematize each other.
* The Roman Catholic Council of Trent (c 1546) issues a decree (*De Canonicis Scripturis*) re-affirming the canon of the 3rd Council of Carthage, resulting in minimal changes to the canon established by the 7th Ecumenical Council.
* The Geneva Bible is published in 1560 with the deuterocanon specified the 7th Ecumenical Council.
* The King James Bible is published in 1611 with the deuterocanon specified by the 7th Ecumenical Council.
* The Synod of Jerusalem (1692) amends the Old Testament canon to include the Prayer of Manasseh and a 4th Book of Maccabees. Technically, the canons of this synod only apply to the Jerusalem Patriarchate. To date, most Eastern Orthodox jurisdictions recognize the Prayer of Manasseh, but not 4 Maccabees.
* The deuterocanon begins disappearing from editions of the King James Bible beginning in the early 19th century. | There's the Gospels of Eve, Judas, Philip, Mary, Ebionites, Hebrews, Marcion, Mani, Apelles, Bartholomew... there's a huge list. To be "Apocrypha", a book need only be unaccepted into the official Bible. This, added to the propensity of early Christians (especially Gnostics) to write what were essentially fan-fics at the time, and you end up with numerous [apocryphal books.](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/New_Testament_apocrypha)
Different denominations' canons can be found [here](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Books_of_the_Bible) under Intertestamental books and [here](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Biblical_canon).
As for why some are canon an some are not, for Catholics it was decided in the [Council of Trent](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Council_of_Trent) and subsequent discussions, while the [Eastern Orthodox canon](http://www.catholicbridge.com/catholic/orthodox/why_orthodox_bible_is_different_from_catholic.php) is still mercurial, for a lack of such a unified council. |
30,187 | I read somewhere that when the aircraft banks to turn, its angle of attack increases.Since angle of attack is the angle between the relative wind and chord line, how does turning increase it? Is it because the relative wind is now from different direction or is it because the wing that goes higher meets the air at a higher angle? | 2016/07/20 | [
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/30187",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/users/11517/"
] | The aircraft turns to change its speed vector. The absolute value of the vector stays the same, but its direction is changed. A force is needed to change the direction of movement of any mass, and the wing is used to provide this force in addition to the lift force. This is why lift is increased in a turn.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/qV14B.png)
For turning, the aircraft needs to add a force in the direction of the red vector in the sketch above. This it can either do by pointing its nose to the right, and then the fuselage will create a small lateral force, albeit at a heavy price in drag. Or the airplane uses its wing to provide this force, which is a much cleverer way of creating the desired force because the wing is by far the most efficient "force generator" of an aircraft.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Vv0pr.png)
Note that as the turn progresses, the red vector will point in the opposite direction of the initial (blue) speed vector, which means that the speed in the initial direction is reduced to zero when a 90° turn is completed. The horizontal component of the lift force accelerates the aircraft in the new, desired direction and decelerates it in the old direction.
Lift can be increased either by speeding up, by flying in denser air or by increasing the angle of attack. The first two options are not very practical, so it is the angle of attack change which gives the aircraft the additional lift for turning. This angle of attack increase is controlled by pulling the stick gently back, thereby reducing lift on the horizontal tail so the aircraft can pitch up.
If you need more formulas to calculate the precise angle of attack change, look at [this answer](https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/8012/what-does-it-take-to-turn-a-747-around-180-degrees/8014#8014) for flight mechanics in banked flight and [this answer](https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/14508/what-is-the-method-to-calculate-a-finite-wings-lift-from-its-sectional-airfoil/14559#14559) for how lift depends on angle of attack. | The AoA in a turn will be higher than in level flight IF the same airspeed and level is maintained. Reason being, in a turn some of the "upwards" (relative to the lateral axis) force generated by the wing is used to turn the aircraft around, so more lift needs to be generated to maintain altitude. To generate more lift at the same airspeed, the angle of attack has to increase.
This image illustrates it nicely:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/2fDJ5.jpg)
source: <http://avstop.com/ac/flighttrainghandbook/forces.html>
(consider the "Total Lift" vs. the "Vertical Component of Lift") |
30,187 | I read somewhere that when the aircraft banks to turn, its angle of attack increases.Since angle of attack is the angle between the relative wind and chord line, how does turning increase it? Is it because the relative wind is now from different direction or is it because the wing that goes higher meets the air at a higher angle? | 2016/07/20 | [
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/30187",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/users/11517/"
] | Just to avoid some confusion that I feel in your question:
It doesn't!
-----------
That is, it doesn't happen by itself. The pilot or autopilot must actively pitch up (and possibly do other adjustments, e.g. increase thrust). Without active control, the angle of attack will stay about the same (initially), and the airplane will start descending if it enters a turn, because the lift becomes insufficient for level flight (see pictures in other answers). | The AoA in a turn will be higher than in level flight IF the same airspeed and level is maintained. Reason being, in a turn some of the "upwards" (relative to the lateral axis) force generated by the wing is used to turn the aircraft around, so more lift needs to be generated to maintain altitude. To generate more lift at the same airspeed, the angle of attack has to increase.
This image illustrates it nicely:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/2fDJ5.jpg)
source: <http://avstop.com/ac/flighttrainghandbook/forces.html>
(consider the "Total Lift" vs. the "Vertical Component of Lift") |
30,187 | I read somewhere that when the aircraft banks to turn, its angle of attack increases.Since angle of attack is the angle between the relative wind and chord line, how does turning increase it? Is it because the relative wind is now from different direction or is it because the wing that goes higher meets the air at a higher angle? | 2016/07/20 | [
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/30187",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/users/11517/"
] | The AoA in a turn will be higher than in level flight IF the same airspeed and level is maintained. Reason being, in a turn some of the "upwards" (relative to the lateral axis) force generated by the wing is used to turn the aircraft around, so more lift needs to be generated to maintain altitude. To generate more lift at the same airspeed, the angle of attack has to increase.
This image illustrates it nicely:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/2fDJ5.jpg)
source: <http://avstop.com/ac/flighttrainghandbook/forces.html>
(consider the "Total Lift" vs. the "Vertical Component of Lift") | >
> **How does the angle of attack vary in turns?**
>
>
>
While many of the answers focus on the ***need*** for the angle-of-attack to be higher in a turn than in wings-level-flight if altitude is to be maintained with no change in power setting (or alternatively if altitude is to be maintained with increased power but no change in airspeed), your question seems to be asking about something else.
>
> I read somewhere that when the aircraft banks to turn, its angle of
> attack increases.Since angle of attack is the angle between the
> relative wind and chord line, how does turning increase it? Is it
> because the relative wind is now from different direction or is it
> because the wing that goes higher meets the air at a higher angle?
>
>
>
You seem to have the impression that the angle-of-attack is inherently tends to increase as we enter a turn.
Of course when considering this whether this is true and why, an important question is "is the pilot in the loop, making pitch control inputs as needed to achieve some given goal, such as maintaining altitude without changing the thrust or power setting, or such as maintaining both airspeed and altitude (which will require more thrust and power)?
Many of the other answers to this question assume that the pilot ***is*** in the pitch control loop, manipulating the controls as needed to to achieve parameters such as the ones stated above. In this case, the angle-of-attack ***usually*** will indeed be higher in the turn than in wings-level flight, for reasons given in other answers such as [this one](https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/30187/how-does-the-angle-of-attack-vary-in-turns/30188#30188).
Of course, there are exceptions. Here is an example of a situation where the angle-of-attack would ideally ***not*** be higher while turning than in wings-level flight, even when the pilot ***is*** in the pitch control loop: a glider is soaring in weak but smooth and widespread ridge lift, flying at the angle-of-attack that yields the minimum sink rate in steady-state linear flight. In this case, as long as the roll rate is kept low, it would be a disadvantage rather than an advantage to increase the angle-of-attack when entering a turn.
But generally speaking, especially in the context of powered flight, a pilot will increase the angle-of-attack when entering a turn. In fact, if you know you prefer to travel in some other direction than the one you are currently going in, in some cases you might want to do a little zoom climb as you roll into the turn, to convert some kinetic energy into altitude and get the turn accomplished quicker as well.
On the other hand, if we assume that the pilot is ***not*** in the pitch control loop, then your impression that the angle-of-attack tends to increase as we enter a turn is mistaken. Here's why:
First of all, it's worth noting that ***if*** we start with the aircraft in a somewhat nose-up pitch attitude ***relative to the flight path***-- i.e. a somewhat positive "angle-of-attack of the fuselage"-- than any rolling motion toward a steeper bank angle ***converts angle-of-attack into sideslip angle***, so that the angle-of-attack tends to ***decrease***. This happens because an aircraft generally rolls about its longitudinal axis, not its velocity vector (flight path vector). So the angle-of-attack tends to decrease, as if we were pushing the control stick forward, while applying some top rudder at the same time. If this is hard to visualize, imagine starting at an extreme angle-of-attack, like 15 degrees or more, and rolling to very steep bank angle. Since the aircraft's natural pitch stability dynamics are constantly trying to return the aircraft to the "correct" angle-of-attack for the elevator position (with one caveat that we'll note below), this dynamic will be most pronounced when the roll rate is very high and the aircraft's pitch stability dynamics are relaxed, i.e. the CG is so far aft as to give near-neutral pitch stability. You aren't going to detect this dynamic as you practice maneuvers for the private pilot or commercial flight test in a typical general aviation trainer.
But what if we are not beginning the maneuver at a high "angle-of-attack of the fuselage", and/or we are rolling slowly enough that the above dynamic is trivial? For example, what if we are making a typical turn entry in a general aviation light airplane, or perhaps a sailplane? It turns out that if we leave the control stick or yoke in a fixed fore-and-aft position as we roll (or if we allow the control stick or yoke to "float" at trim in the fore-and-aft sense and apply no forward or aft pressure on it), ***we still find that the angle-of-attack tends to decrease as we increase the bank angle***. The reason for this is that as we bank, we start to turn, and the curving flight path actually creates a curvature in the free-stream airflow or relative wind, which tends to "push up" on the horizontal stabilizer and pitch down the nose, or more precisely, tends to alter the angle-of-attack of the horizontal stabilizer in a way that causes the aircraft to transition to a lower angle-of-attack overall, including a lower angle-of-attack as measured at the wing. This effect is related to ***bank angle***, not roll rate.
One way to see this effect first-hand in some aircraft is to trim for level flight with the stall horn just barely sounding, and then increase the bank angle without exerting any fore or aft pressure on the control yoke (or while using a special clamp to hold the yoke in a fixed position in the fore-and-aft sense while still allowing free roll control inputs), and note that the stall horn stops sounding when we slowly roll the aircraft into a moderately-banked turn, such as 45 degrees of bank. In the turn, we are further from the stall angle-of-attack than we were in wings-level flight. Be sure to try it both directions so as not to be misled by asymmetries in the angle-of-attack of the inside wing and outside wing during the turn.
Because of this effect, to maintain the same angle-of-attack in turning flight as we had in wings-level flight, we have to have the control stick or yoke further aft in the turn. Since turn radius is proportional to velocity squared, this dynamic is especially pronounced in aircraft that fly at relatively low airspeeds and also fly at relatively low "scale speeds", i.e. take a relatively long time to cover one fuselage-length. A sailplane circling in a thermal updraft would be a good example of such an aircraft, and it's not uncommon for a pilot in such a case to be circling with the stick so far aft that it would command a full stall if the wings were level rather than banked.
Another way to look at the curving relative wind induced by the turn, is to note that the aircraft is rotating around the pitch and yaw axes (and in some cases the roll axis as well), and this rotation induces a change in direction and magnitude of the local free-stream airflow as measured at various points along the length and span of the aircraft, just as different points on the blades of a pinwheel are not travelling through the airmass in exactly the same direction at any given point in time. By this point of view, the tendency of the angle-of-attack to be lower when turning than when wings-level can be viewed as a natural consequence of a "pitch damping" effect, creating a resistance to rotation about the pitch axis which requires a change in elevator position to overcome.
Now to "throw one more wrench into the gears"-- the discussion of the effect of roll rate in the first paragraph of this answer referred to the combined average angle-of-attack of both wings. It's simultaneously true that a rolling motion tends to increase the angle-of-attack of the descending wing and to decrease the angle-of-attack of the ascending wing. This is important, as in extreme cases it can lead to a stall of the descending wing. This is also an important cause of adverse yaw that it is not directly related to actual changes in the shape of the wing-- for more see <https://www.av8n.com/how/htm/yaw.html#sec-adverse-yaw>. Note that even a constant-banked turn involves some degree of roll rate if the altitude is not constant with respect to the surrounding airmass-- the roll rate is toward the inside wingtip in a descending turn, and toward the outside wingtip in a climbing turn, and this will tend to create a difference in angle-of-attack between the two wings that tends to destabilize a climbing turn (i.e. makes the bank angle tend to increase) and stabilize a descending turn (i.e. makes the bank angle tend to decrease). But that's probably more than you wanted to know!
Related ASE questions and answers--
[This answer](https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/55713/what-has-happened-to-make-me-experience-negative-g-with-the-control-stick-full-a/55876#55876) considers the consequences of the curving relative wind and the resulting nose-down pitch torque and decrease in angle-of-attack when the aircraft is maneuvering purely in the vertical plane-- e.g. during a loop. Includes links at end to outside sources discussing the curvature of the relative wind in turning flight. |
30,187 | I read somewhere that when the aircraft banks to turn, its angle of attack increases.Since angle of attack is the angle between the relative wind and chord line, how does turning increase it? Is it because the relative wind is now from different direction or is it because the wing that goes higher meets the air at a higher angle? | 2016/07/20 | [
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/30187",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/users/11517/"
] | The AoA in a turn will be higher than in level flight IF the same airspeed and level is maintained. Reason being, in a turn some of the "upwards" (relative to the lateral axis) force generated by the wing is used to turn the aircraft around, so more lift needs to be generated to maintain altitude. To generate more lift at the same airspeed, the angle of attack has to increase.
This image illustrates it nicely:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/2fDJ5.jpg)
source: <http://avstop.com/ac/flighttrainghandbook/forces.html>
(consider the "Total Lift" vs. the "Vertical Component of Lift") | The question itself is open ended but, in the simplest terms, it depends on how you execute the turn - are you flying a constant airspeed or a constant angle of attack?
In either instance, in a level turn, the load factor will increase with the inverse cosine of the bank angle.
If flying a constant airspeed turn, then an increase in lift coefficient will command a higher angle of attack as dynamic pressure remains constant: CL-turn = CL-wings level (L-turn/L-wings level)
If flying a constant angle of attack turn (i.e., same angle of attack in the bank as that used in level flight), the dynamic pressure has to increase to support the higher wing loading at a constant lift coefficient. Since dynamic pressure is a function of the velocity squared, the velocity commanded to maintain level flight within a banking turn varies with the square root of the load factor: V-turn = V-wings level x (load factor)^1/2 ...all other factors being equal. |
30,187 | I read somewhere that when the aircraft banks to turn, its angle of attack increases.Since angle of attack is the angle between the relative wind and chord line, how does turning increase it? Is it because the relative wind is now from different direction or is it because the wing that goes higher meets the air at a higher angle? | 2016/07/20 | [
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/30187",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/users/11517/"
] | The aircraft turns to change its speed vector. The absolute value of the vector stays the same, but its direction is changed. A force is needed to change the direction of movement of any mass, and the wing is used to provide this force in addition to the lift force. This is why lift is increased in a turn.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/qV14B.png)
For turning, the aircraft needs to add a force in the direction of the red vector in the sketch above. This it can either do by pointing its nose to the right, and then the fuselage will create a small lateral force, albeit at a heavy price in drag. Or the airplane uses its wing to provide this force, which is a much cleverer way of creating the desired force because the wing is by far the most efficient "force generator" of an aircraft.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Vv0pr.png)
Note that as the turn progresses, the red vector will point in the opposite direction of the initial (blue) speed vector, which means that the speed in the initial direction is reduced to zero when a 90° turn is completed. The horizontal component of the lift force accelerates the aircraft in the new, desired direction and decelerates it in the old direction.
Lift can be increased either by speeding up, by flying in denser air or by increasing the angle of attack. The first two options are not very practical, so it is the angle of attack change which gives the aircraft the additional lift for turning. This angle of attack increase is controlled by pulling the stick gently back, thereby reducing lift on the horizontal tail so the aircraft can pitch up.
If you need more formulas to calculate the precise angle of attack change, look at [this answer](https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/8012/what-does-it-take-to-turn-a-747-around-180-degrees/8014#8014) for flight mechanics in banked flight and [this answer](https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/14508/what-is-the-method-to-calculate-a-finite-wings-lift-from-its-sectional-airfoil/14559#14559) for how lift depends on angle of attack. | >
> **How does the angle of attack vary in turns?**
>
>
>
While many of the answers focus on the ***need*** for the angle-of-attack to be higher in a turn than in wings-level-flight if altitude is to be maintained with no change in power setting (or alternatively if altitude is to be maintained with increased power but no change in airspeed), your question seems to be asking about something else.
>
> I read somewhere that when the aircraft banks to turn, its angle of
> attack increases.Since angle of attack is the angle between the
> relative wind and chord line, how does turning increase it? Is it
> because the relative wind is now from different direction or is it
> because the wing that goes higher meets the air at a higher angle?
>
>
>
You seem to have the impression that the angle-of-attack is inherently tends to increase as we enter a turn.
Of course when considering this whether this is true and why, an important question is "is the pilot in the loop, making pitch control inputs as needed to achieve some given goal, such as maintaining altitude without changing the thrust or power setting, or such as maintaining both airspeed and altitude (which will require more thrust and power)?
Many of the other answers to this question assume that the pilot ***is*** in the pitch control loop, manipulating the controls as needed to to achieve parameters such as the ones stated above. In this case, the angle-of-attack ***usually*** will indeed be higher in the turn than in wings-level flight, for reasons given in other answers such as [this one](https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/30187/how-does-the-angle-of-attack-vary-in-turns/30188#30188).
Of course, there are exceptions. Here is an example of a situation where the angle-of-attack would ideally ***not*** be higher while turning than in wings-level flight, even when the pilot ***is*** in the pitch control loop: a glider is soaring in weak but smooth and widespread ridge lift, flying at the angle-of-attack that yields the minimum sink rate in steady-state linear flight. In this case, as long as the roll rate is kept low, it would be a disadvantage rather than an advantage to increase the angle-of-attack when entering a turn.
But generally speaking, especially in the context of powered flight, a pilot will increase the angle-of-attack when entering a turn. In fact, if you know you prefer to travel in some other direction than the one you are currently going in, in some cases you might want to do a little zoom climb as you roll into the turn, to convert some kinetic energy into altitude and get the turn accomplished quicker as well.
On the other hand, if we assume that the pilot is ***not*** in the pitch control loop, then your impression that the angle-of-attack tends to increase as we enter a turn is mistaken. Here's why:
First of all, it's worth noting that ***if*** we start with the aircraft in a somewhat nose-up pitch attitude ***relative to the flight path***-- i.e. a somewhat positive "angle-of-attack of the fuselage"-- than any rolling motion toward a steeper bank angle ***converts angle-of-attack into sideslip angle***, so that the angle-of-attack tends to ***decrease***. This happens because an aircraft generally rolls about its longitudinal axis, not its velocity vector (flight path vector). So the angle-of-attack tends to decrease, as if we were pushing the control stick forward, while applying some top rudder at the same time. If this is hard to visualize, imagine starting at an extreme angle-of-attack, like 15 degrees or more, and rolling to very steep bank angle. Since the aircraft's natural pitch stability dynamics are constantly trying to return the aircraft to the "correct" angle-of-attack for the elevator position (with one caveat that we'll note below), this dynamic will be most pronounced when the roll rate is very high and the aircraft's pitch stability dynamics are relaxed, i.e. the CG is so far aft as to give near-neutral pitch stability. You aren't going to detect this dynamic as you practice maneuvers for the private pilot or commercial flight test in a typical general aviation trainer.
But what if we are not beginning the maneuver at a high "angle-of-attack of the fuselage", and/or we are rolling slowly enough that the above dynamic is trivial? For example, what if we are making a typical turn entry in a general aviation light airplane, or perhaps a sailplane? It turns out that if we leave the control stick or yoke in a fixed fore-and-aft position as we roll (or if we allow the control stick or yoke to "float" at trim in the fore-and-aft sense and apply no forward or aft pressure on it), ***we still find that the angle-of-attack tends to decrease as we increase the bank angle***. The reason for this is that as we bank, we start to turn, and the curving flight path actually creates a curvature in the free-stream airflow or relative wind, which tends to "push up" on the horizontal stabilizer and pitch down the nose, or more precisely, tends to alter the angle-of-attack of the horizontal stabilizer in a way that causes the aircraft to transition to a lower angle-of-attack overall, including a lower angle-of-attack as measured at the wing. This effect is related to ***bank angle***, not roll rate.
One way to see this effect first-hand in some aircraft is to trim for level flight with the stall horn just barely sounding, and then increase the bank angle without exerting any fore or aft pressure on the control yoke (or while using a special clamp to hold the yoke in a fixed position in the fore-and-aft sense while still allowing free roll control inputs), and note that the stall horn stops sounding when we slowly roll the aircraft into a moderately-banked turn, such as 45 degrees of bank. In the turn, we are further from the stall angle-of-attack than we were in wings-level flight. Be sure to try it both directions so as not to be misled by asymmetries in the angle-of-attack of the inside wing and outside wing during the turn.
Because of this effect, to maintain the same angle-of-attack in turning flight as we had in wings-level flight, we have to have the control stick or yoke further aft in the turn. Since turn radius is proportional to velocity squared, this dynamic is especially pronounced in aircraft that fly at relatively low airspeeds and also fly at relatively low "scale speeds", i.e. take a relatively long time to cover one fuselage-length. A sailplane circling in a thermal updraft would be a good example of such an aircraft, and it's not uncommon for a pilot in such a case to be circling with the stick so far aft that it would command a full stall if the wings were level rather than banked.
Another way to look at the curving relative wind induced by the turn, is to note that the aircraft is rotating around the pitch and yaw axes (and in some cases the roll axis as well), and this rotation induces a change in direction and magnitude of the local free-stream airflow as measured at various points along the length and span of the aircraft, just as different points on the blades of a pinwheel are not travelling through the airmass in exactly the same direction at any given point in time. By this point of view, the tendency of the angle-of-attack to be lower when turning than when wings-level can be viewed as a natural consequence of a "pitch damping" effect, creating a resistance to rotation about the pitch axis which requires a change in elevator position to overcome.
Now to "throw one more wrench into the gears"-- the discussion of the effect of roll rate in the first paragraph of this answer referred to the combined average angle-of-attack of both wings. It's simultaneously true that a rolling motion tends to increase the angle-of-attack of the descending wing and to decrease the angle-of-attack of the ascending wing. This is important, as in extreme cases it can lead to a stall of the descending wing. This is also an important cause of adverse yaw that it is not directly related to actual changes in the shape of the wing-- for more see <https://www.av8n.com/how/htm/yaw.html#sec-adverse-yaw>. Note that even a constant-banked turn involves some degree of roll rate if the altitude is not constant with respect to the surrounding airmass-- the roll rate is toward the inside wingtip in a descending turn, and toward the outside wingtip in a climbing turn, and this will tend to create a difference in angle-of-attack between the two wings that tends to destabilize a climbing turn (i.e. makes the bank angle tend to increase) and stabilize a descending turn (i.e. makes the bank angle tend to decrease). But that's probably more than you wanted to know!
Related ASE questions and answers--
[This answer](https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/55713/what-has-happened-to-make-me-experience-negative-g-with-the-control-stick-full-a/55876#55876) considers the consequences of the curving relative wind and the resulting nose-down pitch torque and decrease in angle-of-attack when the aircraft is maneuvering purely in the vertical plane-- e.g. during a loop. Includes links at end to outside sources discussing the curvature of the relative wind in turning flight. |
30,187 | I read somewhere that when the aircraft banks to turn, its angle of attack increases.Since angle of attack is the angle between the relative wind and chord line, how does turning increase it? Is it because the relative wind is now from different direction or is it because the wing that goes higher meets the air at a higher angle? | 2016/07/20 | [
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/30187",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/users/11517/"
] | The aircraft turns to change its speed vector. The absolute value of the vector stays the same, but its direction is changed. A force is needed to change the direction of movement of any mass, and the wing is used to provide this force in addition to the lift force. This is why lift is increased in a turn.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/qV14B.png)
For turning, the aircraft needs to add a force in the direction of the red vector in the sketch above. This it can either do by pointing its nose to the right, and then the fuselage will create a small lateral force, albeit at a heavy price in drag. Or the airplane uses its wing to provide this force, which is a much cleverer way of creating the desired force because the wing is by far the most efficient "force generator" of an aircraft.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Vv0pr.png)
Note that as the turn progresses, the red vector will point in the opposite direction of the initial (blue) speed vector, which means that the speed in the initial direction is reduced to zero when a 90° turn is completed. The horizontal component of the lift force accelerates the aircraft in the new, desired direction and decelerates it in the old direction.
Lift can be increased either by speeding up, by flying in denser air or by increasing the angle of attack. The first two options are not very practical, so it is the angle of attack change which gives the aircraft the additional lift for turning. This angle of attack increase is controlled by pulling the stick gently back, thereby reducing lift on the horizontal tail so the aircraft can pitch up.
If you need more formulas to calculate the precise angle of attack change, look at [this answer](https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/8012/what-does-it-take-to-turn-a-747-around-180-degrees/8014#8014) for flight mechanics in banked flight and [this answer](https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/14508/what-is-the-method-to-calculate-a-finite-wings-lift-from-its-sectional-airfoil/14559#14559) for how lift depends on angle of attack. | The question itself is open ended but, in the simplest terms, it depends on how you execute the turn - are you flying a constant airspeed or a constant angle of attack?
In either instance, in a level turn, the load factor will increase with the inverse cosine of the bank angle.
If flying a constant airspeed turn, then an increase in lift coefficient will command a higher angle of attack as dynamic pressure remains constant: CL-turn = CL-wings level (L-turn/L-wings level)
If flying a constant angle of attack turn (i.e., same angle of attack in the bank as that used in level flight), the dynamic pressure has to increase to support the higher wing loading at a constant lift coefficient. Since dynamic pressure is a function of the velocity squared, the velocity commanded to maintain level flight within a banking turn varies with the square root of the load factor: V-turn = V-wings level x (load factor)^1/2 ...all other factors being equal. |
30,187 | I read somewhere that when the aircraft banks to turn, its angle of attack increases.Since angle of attack is the angle between the relative wind and chord line, how does turning increase it? Is it because the relative wind is now from different direction or is it because the wing that goes higher meets the air at a higher angle? | 2016/07/20 | [
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/30187",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/users/11517/"
] | Just to avoid some confusion that I feel in your question:
It doesn't!
-----------
That is, it doesn't happen by itself. The pilot or autopilot must actively pitch up (and possibly do other adjustments, e.g. increase thrust). Without active control, the angle of attack will stay about the same (initially), and the airplane will start descending if it enters a turn, because the lift becomes insufficient for level flight (see pictures in other answers). | >
> **How does the angle of attack vary in turns?**
>
>
>
While many of the answers focus on the ***need*** for the angle-of-attack to be higher in a turn than in wings-level-flight if altitude is to be maintained with no change in power setting (or alternatively if altitude is to be maintained with increased power but no change in airspeed), your question seems to be asking about something else.
>
> I read somewhere that when the aircraft banks to turn, its angle of
> attack increases.Since angle of attack is the angle between the
> relative wind and chord line, how does turning increase it? Is it
> because the relative wind is now from different direction or is it
> because the wing that goes higher meets the air at a higher angle?
>
>
>
You seem to have the impression that the angle-of-attack is inherently tends to increase as we enter a turn.
Of course when considering this whether this is true and why, an important question is "is the pilot in the loop, making pitch control inputs as needed to achieve some given goal, such as maintaining altitude without changing the thrust or power setting, or such as maintaining both airspeed and altitude (which will require more thrust and power)?
Many of the other answers to this question assume that the pilot ***is*** in the pitch control loop, manipulating the controls as needed to to achieve parameters such as the ones stated above. In this case, the angle-of-attack ***usually*** will indeed be higher in the turn than in wings-level flight, for reasons given in other answers such as [this one](https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/30187/how-does-the-angle-of-attack-vary-in-turns/30188#30188).
Of course, there are exceptions. Here is an example of a situation where the angle-of-attack would ideally ***not*** be higher while turning than in wings-level flight, even when the pilot ***is*** in the pitch control loop: a glider is soaring in weak but smooth and widespread ridge lift, flying at the angle-of-attack that yields the minimum sink rate in steady-state linear flight. In this case, as long as the roll rate is kept low, it would be a disadvantage rather than an advantage to increase the angle-of-attack when entering a turn.
But generally speaking, especially in the context of powered flight, a pilot will increase the angle-of-attack when entering a turn. In fact, if you know you prefer to travel in some other direction than the one you are currently going in, in some cases you might want to do a little zoom climb as you roll into the turn, to convert some kinetic energy into altitude and get the turn accomplished quicker as well.
On the other hand, if we assume that the pilot is ***not*** in the pitch control loop, then your impression that the angle-of-attack tends to increase as we enter a turn is mistaken. Here's why:
First of all, it's worth noting that ***if*** we start with the aircraft in a somewhat nose-up pitch attitude ***relative to the flight path***-- i.e. a somewhat positive "angle-of-attack of the fuselage"-- than any rolling motion toward a steeper bank angle ***converts angle-of-attack into sideslip angle***, so that the angle-of-attack tends to ***decrease***. This happens because an aircraft generally rolls about its longitudinal axis, not its velocity vector (flight path vector). So the angle-of-attack tends to decrease, as if we were pushing the control stick forward, while applying some top rudder at the same time. If this is hard to visualize, imagine starting at an extreme angle-of-attack, like 15 degrees or more, and rolling to very steep bank angle. Since the aircraft's natural pitch stability dynamics are constantly trying to return the aircraft to the "correct" angle-of-attack for the elevator position (with one caveat that we'll note below), this dynamic will be most pronounced when the roll rate is very high and the aircraft's pitch stability dynamics are relaxed, i.e. the CG is so far aft as to give near-neutral pitch stability. You aren't going to detect this dynamic as you practice maneuvers for the private pilot or commercial flight test in a typical general aviation trainer.
But what if we are not beginning the maneuver at a high "angle-of-attack of the fuselage", and/or we are rolling slowly enough that the above dynamic is trivial? For example, what if we are making a typical turn entry in a general aviation light airplane, or perhaps a sailplane? It turns out that if we leave the control stick or yoke in a fixed fore-and-aft position as we roll (or if we allow the control stick or yoke to "float" at trim in the fore-and-aft sense and apply no forward or aft pressure on it), ***we still find that the angle-of-attack tends to decrease as we increase the bank angle***. The reason for this is that as we bank, we start to turn, and the curving flight path actually creates a curvature in the free-stream airflow or relative wind, which tends to "push up" on the horizontal stabilizer and pitch down the nose, or more precisely, tends to alter the angle-of-attack of the horizontal stabilizer in a way that causes the aircraft to transition to a lower angle-of-attack overall, including a lower angle-of-attack as measured at the wing. This effect is related to ***bank angle***, not roll rate.
One way to see this effect first-hand in some aircraft is to trim for level flight with the stall horn just barely sounding, and then increase the bank angle without exerting any fore or aft pressure on the control yoke (or while using a special clamp to hold the yoke in a fixed position in the fore-and-aft sense while still allowing free roll control inputs), and note that the stall horn stops sounding when we slowly roll the aircraft into a moderately-banked turn, such as 45 degrees of bank. In the turn, we are further from the stall angle-of-attack than we were in wings-level flight. Be sure to try it both directions so as not to be misled by asymmetries in the angle-of-attack of the inside wing and outside wing during the turn.
Because of this effect, to maintain the same angle-of-attack in turning flight as we had in wings-level flight, we have to have the control stick or yoke further aft in the turn. Since turn radius is proportional to velocity squared, this dynamic is especially pronounced in aircraft that fly at relatively low airspeeds and also fly at relatively low "scale speeds", i.e. take a relatively long time to cover one fuselage-length. A sailplane circling in a thermal updraft would be a good example of such an aircraft, and it's not uncommon for a pilot in such a case to be circling with the stick so far aft that it would command a full stall if the wings were level rather than banked.
Another way to look at the curving relative wind induced by the turn, is to note that the aircraft is rotating around the pitch and yaw axes (and in some cases the roll axis as well), and this rotation induces a change in direction and magnitude of the local free-stream airflow as measured at various points along the length and span of the aircraft, just as different points on the blades of a pinwheel are not travelling through the airmass in exactly the same direction at any given point in time. By this point of view, the tendency of the angle-of-attack to be lower when turning than when wings-level can be viewed as a natural consequence of a "pitch damping" effect, creating a resistance to rotation about the pitch axis which requires a change in elevator position to overcome.
Now to "throw one more wrench into the gears"-- the discussion of the effect of roll rate in the first paragraph of this answer referred to the combined average angle-of-attack of both wings. It's simultaneously true that a rolling motion tends to increase the angle-of-attack of the descending wing and to decrease the angle-of-attack of the ascending wing. This is important, as in extreme cases it can lead to a stall of the descending wing. This is also an important cause of adverse yaw that it is not directly related to actual changes in the shape of the wing-- for more see <https://www.av8n.com/how/htm/yaw.html#sec-adverse-yaw>. Note that even a constant-banked turn involves some degree of roll rate if the altitude is not constant with respect to the surrounding airmass-- the roll rate is toward the inside wingtip in a descending turn, and toward the outside wingtip in a climbing turn, and this will tend to create a difference in angle-of-attack between the two wings that tends to destabilize a climbing turn (i.e. makes the bank angle tend to increase) and stabilize a descending turn (i.e. makes the bank angle tend to decrease). But that's probably more than you wanted to know!
Related ASE questions and answers--
[This answer](https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/55713/what-has-happened-to-make-me-experience-negative-g-with-the-control-stick-full-a/55876#55876) considers the consequences of the curving relative wind and the resulting nose-down pitch torque and decrease in angle-of-attack when the aircraft is maneuvering purely in the vertical plane-- e.g. during a loop. Includes links at end to outside sources discussing the curvature of the relative wind in turning flight. |
30,187 | I read somewhere that when the aircraft banks to turn, its angle of attack increases.Since angle of attack is the angle between the relative wind and chord line, how does turning increase it? Is it because the relative wind is now from different direction or is it because the wing that goes higher meets the air at a higher angle? | 2016/07/20 | [
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/30187",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/users/11517/"
] | Just to avoid some confusion that I feel in your question:
It doesn't!
-----------
That is, it doesn't happen by itself. The pilot or autopilot must actively pitch up (and possibly do other adjustments, e.g. increase thrust). Without active control, the angle of attack will stay about the same (initially), and the airplane will start descending if it enters a turn, because the lift becomes insufficient for level flight (see pictures in other answers). | The question itself is open ended but, in the simplest terms, it depends on how you execute the turn - are you flying a constant airspeed or a constant angle of attack?
In either instance, in a level turn, the load factor will increase with the inverse cosine of the bank angle.
If flying a constant airspeed turn, then an increase in lift coefficient will command a higher angle of attack as dynamic pressure remains constant: CL-turn = CL-wings level (L-turn/L-wings level)
If flying a constant angle of attack turn (i.e., same angle of attack in the bank as that used in level flight), the dynamic pressure has to increase to support the higher wing loading at a constant lift coefficient. Since dynamic pressure is a function of the velocity squared, the velocity commanded to maintain level flight within a banking turn varies with the square root of the load factor: V-turn = V-wings level x (load factor)^1/2 ...all other factors being equal. |
54,333 | Capaldi [PhD Columbia](http://www.business.loyno.edu/bio/nicholas-capaldi), Smit [PhD Catholic Univ. of Leuven](http://www.petrarch-institute.com/about-us/founders/). [*The Art of Deception* (2007)](https://www.amazon.ca/Art-Deception-Introduction-Critical-Thinking/dp/159102532X). p. 173.
>
> ### Red Herring
>
>
> So far we have discussing refutation of specific charges against your presentation. If you have successfully rebutted them, all well and good. But what happens if you feel that your defense has not be strong enough or that there are lingering doubts in the minds of the audience? At this point you should avoid sticking to the point. **Remember that the only thing that always sticks to the point is a dead insect on display.** What you must do is draw attention to a side issue where you feel particularly strong. This will give the impression that you are still in charge of the course of the discussion
>
>
>
I agree that dead insects on display stick to a specific location (on a window pane), but how's this (the emboldened sentence) relevant to the Fallacy of Red Herring? | 2018/08/06 | [
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/questions/54333",
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com",
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | [Wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Red_herring) describes a red herring fallacy as follows:
>
> A red herring is something that misleads or distracts from a relevant
> or important issue.
>
>
>
The OP quotes from a book called *The Art of Deception*. It appears the book is an attempt to show the reader how to use a deceptive argument hopefully with the goal of making the reader realize what is going on when the reader hears such arguments from real deceivers.
Consider this from the quote:
>
> But what happens if you feel that your defense has not be[en] strong
> enough or that there are lingering doubts in the minds of the
> audience? At this point you should avoid sticking to the point.
> Remember that the only thing that always sticks to the point is a dead
> insect on display. What you must do is draw attention to a side issue
> where you feel particularly strong.
>
>
>
The reason to engage in the deception is because one's defense has not been strong enough. What should a deceiver do? The author, playing the role of the deceiver, suggests that the reader, who supposedly also wants to become a deceiver, stop sticking to the point. Distract the listeners by throwing them a red herring to play with so they do not focus on the real issue. Draw their attention to a side issue where the deceiver can make a stronger argument.
With that as preliminary, here is the question: *I agree that dead insects on display stick to a specific location (on a window pane), but how's this (the emboldened sentence) relevant to the Fallacy of Red Herring?*
The author playing the role of a deceiver is trying to instruct the reader into becoming a deceiver by suggesting that the reader use a red herring argument when it is to the reader's advantage. Why not? If one does not use a red herring argument then one is sticking to the point but that is a weak point for the deceiver. The author humorously notes that only dead insects on a pin stick to the point. | It isn't. He's apparently taking for granted that you know what a red herring fallacy is and wants you to use it. So "Remember that the only thing that always sticks to the point is a dead insect on display." is more of a mantra for the reader to keep in mind, so that you avoid sticking to the point, which ultimately means you're throwing red herrings to your audience. So it's less of an explanation of a red herring or even a description it's a mnemonic on what to avoid in order to use the red herring (which would be sticking to the point). |
6,196,027 | As per the concept about static members, they are created/loaded into the memory when there is first call made to its class. And they are common among all instances of that class. Means they are not re-created or re-itialized etc. In addition, They can be accessed by the class name only. There is no need to create object for that class just to access them.
Now my questions are;
1. Whether static members ever be in
memory till the application is
running? even if all the instances
of that class had been collected by
GC(garbage collector).
2. For a big project, where 8-10 teams
are working together, they dont care
about the coding of other's team.
They may create static members as
per their need. If all the members
are cached in memory, would it not
create overhead over JVM?
3. By default, all the members of interfaces are STATIC and the use of interfaces are good in many cases. But if i keep my above questions in mind, should i still use interfaces? | 2011/06/01 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/6196027",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/453767/"
] | 1) Static members are garbage collected only when the class that defines them is itself collected; this in turn can only happen if the defining ClassLoader is collected. This is common in web application containers and plugin architectures.
2) Yes, defining a large amount of static data can be a bad idea. But it's like a lot of other things: it's good if you need it, and bad if you abuse it. Just use common sense.
3) Again, an interface that defined an array of a thousand Strings would be a bad idea, but of course that's not normally what people do. Just use common sense. There's no (memory-related) reason to avoid static variables in general. | 1. yes. No GC will ever clean up static variables. This is important because otherwise one could not rely on values stored in static variables. Design patterns like "Singleton" rely on static variables.
2. The static variables take as much mem as the same value stored in instance variable, so as long as the value stored in the variable is really necessary for the abblication, there is no particular storage overhead in static variables. But the side-effects iposed by the use of static variables when it comes to thread-safety etc. need to be considered more thatn the memory issues.
3. yes. But Interfaces are there for describing the contract between provider and user of functionality, not for storing any data. |
6,196,027 | As per the concept about static members, they are created/loaded into the memory when there is first call made to its class. And they are common among all instances of that class. Means they are not re-created or re-itialized etc. In addition, They can be accessed by the class name only. There is no need to create object for that class just to access them.
Now my questions are;
1. Whether static members ever be in
memory till the application is
running? even if all the instances
of that class had been collected by
GC(garbage collector).
2. For a big project, where 8-10 teams
are working together, they dont care
about the coding of other's team.
They may create static members as
per their need. If all the members
are cached in memory, would it not
create overhead over JVM?
3. By default, all the members of interfaces are STATIC and the use of interfaces are good in many cases. But if i keep my above questions in mind, should i still use interfaces? | 2011/06/01 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/6196027",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/453767/"
] | 1) Static members are garbage collected only when the class that defines them is itself collected; this in turn can only happen if the defining ClassLoader is collected. This is common in web application containers and plugin architectures.
2) Yes, defining a large amount of static data can be a bad idea. But it's like a lot of other things: it's good if you need it, and bad if you abuse it. Just use common sense.
3) Again, an interface that defined an array of a thousand Strings would be a bad idea, but of course that's not normally what people do. Just use common sense. There's no (memory-related) reason to avoid static variables in general. | 1. No, they are collected with the class.
2. Overhead compared to what? What's the alternative?
3. Yes, but nobody said you have to fill them up with static members. |
6,196,027 | As per the concept about static members, they are created/loaded into the memory when there is first call made to its class. And they are common among all instances of that class. Means they are not re-created or re-itialized etc. In addition, They can be accessed by the class name only. There is no need to create object for that class just to access them.
Now my questions are;
1. Whether static members ever be in
memory till the application is
running? even if all the instances
of that class had been collected by
GC(garbage collector).
2. For a big project, where 8-10 teams
are working together, they dont care
about the coding of other's team.
They may create static members as
per their need. If all the members
are cached in memory, would it not
create overhead over JVM?
3. By default, all the members of interfaces are STATIC and the use of interfaces are good in many cases. But if i keep my above questions in mind, should i still use interfaces? | 2011/06/01 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/6196027",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/453767/"
] | 1. yes. No GC will ever clean up static variables. This is important because otherwise one could not rely on values stored in static variables. Design patterns like "Singleton" rely on static variables.
2. The static variables take as much mem as the same value stored in instance variable, so as long as the value stored in the variable is really necessary for the abblication, there is no particular storage overhead in static variables. But the side-effects iposed by the use of static variables when it comes to thread-safety etc. need to be considered more thatn the memory issues.
3. yes. But Interfaces are there for describing the contract between provider and user of functionality, not for storing any data. | 1. No, they are collected with the class.
2. Overhead compared to what? What's the alternative?
3. Yes, but nobody said you have to fill them up with static members. |
8,298 | In terms of integrating Blender renders with existing photographs, is there a way to create a set of Blender mesh points using the parallax info between just a pair of stereo photographs?
I've gotten good at regular camera tracking with video, and also using BLAM for static images, but what I'd really like to do is take two very clear and stable stereo images and extract as many good 3D points from them as possible, without resorting to also videoing in order to reconstruct the scene. | 2014/04/03 | [
"https://blender.stackexchange.com/questions/8298",
"https://blender.stackexchange.com",
"https://blender.stackexchange.com/users/621/"
] | Or you could try point cloud reconstruction software which are free to download using Visual SFM and Meshlab. There are a few tutorials on the subject on youtube. As the question you are asking will require substantial write up, it's best to point you to some tutorials.
I learn this in 3 hours last night. However you may need more than 2 images.
<https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=D6eqW6yk50k> | Yes, there is a way, because there is an image processing package called Hugin (available for free), with tutorials from <http://hugin.sourceforge.net/> which does exactly what you want.
I have downloaded it and tried to do exactly what you wish, but I've not yet mastered Hugin. I do perceive that it might be more doable with some images than with others. I have it, I'm trying to learn it, but I have to say that for me, it's been more difficult than Blender. .
Tutorial link: <http://hugin.sourceforge.net/tutorials/perspective/> |
43,880,569 | I am developing my first simple app in Dynamics 365, and one of my main pieces is a Web Resource that involves a lot of tweak-save-test-repeat workflow. Up to this point, every time I have made a tiny change to my web resource, I have been deploying it by opening the solution customization settings, navigating to my particular Web Resource, opening it, clicking "Text Editor" button, pasting in my updated Javascript code, and saving/publishing the changes.
This process is tedious, and I would like to find a way to automate it. I have been researching Dynamics 365 deployment tools, and I have found the CRM Package Deployer tool, but from what I can find it requires me to set up an entire deployment package (a giant XML file) comprising my entire customization, rather than the single file I am currently working on. Is there some way to automate deploying a SINGLE FILE with these (or other) tools? Or is it possible to deploy a package with ONLY A SINGLE FILE rather than re-deploying the entire solution's package each time I just change the one file? | 2017/05/09 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/43880569",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/390519/"
] | Check out the open source alternative to the SDK's developer toolkit called [Dynamics CRM & 365 Developer Extensions](https://github.com/jlattimer/CRMDeveloperExtensions) which you can install right into VS. It makes deployment of web resources a snap. Basically, you map individual JS/Html/Css/etc files to their corresponding web resources in CRM, and then once they are mapped all you have to do to deploy is right-click and choose Publish to CRM.
That tool is great, but if you **really** want to speed up your web resource development, you should use Fiddler. In Fiddler, turn on Autoresponder and setup a mapping for the file you are working on. When Fiddler sees a request that matches a mapping, it doesn't send the request to the server and instead returns the file from your hard drive. This technique offers a dramatic speed improvements for developing web resources. There's also a free tool for Fiddler called Imposter that makes the process easier. Search the web for "dynamics crm fiddler web resources" to read about this technique. | Another lightweight Visual Studio Add-in, which allows for deploying single (or multiple) web resource file to CRM without leaving Visual Studio is
**Microsoft Dynamics CRM Web Resources Updater**:
<https://marketplace.visualstudio.com/items?itemName=MaratVDeykun.MicrosoftDynamicsCRMWebResourcesUpdater> |
43,880,569 | I am developing my first simple app in Dynamics 365, and one of my main pieces is a Web Resource that involves a lot of tweak-save-test-repeat workflow. Up to this point, every time I have made a tiny change to my web resource, I have been deploying it by opening the solution customization settings, navigating to my particular Web Resource, opening it, clicking "Text Editor" button, pasting in my updated Javascript code, and saving/publishing the changes.
This process is tedious, and I would like to find a way to automate it. I have been researching Dynamics 365 deployment tools, and I have found the CRM Package Deployer tool, but from what I can find it requires me to set up an entire deployment package (a giant XML file) comprising my entire customization, rather than the single file I am currently working on. Is there some way to automate deploying a SINGLE FILE with these (or other) tools? Or is it possible to deploy a package with ONLY A SINGLE FILE rather than re-deploying the entire solution's package each time I just change the one file? | 2017/05/09 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/43880569",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/390519/"
] | Check out the open source alternative to the SDK's developer toolkit called [Dynamics CRM & 365 Developer Extensions](https://github.com/jlattimer/CRMDeveloperExtensions) which you can install right into VS. It makes deployment of web resources a snap. Basically, you map individual JS/Html/Css/etc files to their corresponding web resources in CRM, and then once they are mapped all you have to do to deploy is right-click and choose Publish to CRM.
That tool is great, but if you **really** want to speed up your web resource development, you should use Fiddler. In Fiddler, turn on Autoresponder and setup a mapping for the file you are working on. When Fiddler sees a request that matches a mapping, it doesn't send the request to the server and instead returns the file from your hard drive. This technique offers a dramatic speed improvements for developing web resources. There's also a free tool for Fiddler called Imposter that makes the process easier. Search the web for "dynamics crm fiddler web resources" to read about this technique. | There is also a commercial solution called XrmToolkit which can be set to automatically publish to CRM when you save the web resource file in Visual Studio:
<https://www.xrmtoolkit.com/> |
43,880,569 | I am developing my first simple app in Dynamics 365, and one of my main pieces is a Web Resource that involves a lot of tweak-save-test-repeat workflow. Up to this point, every time I have made a tiny change to my web resource, I have been deploying it by opening the solution customization settings, navigating to my particular Web Resource, opening it, clicking "Text Editor" button, pasting in my updated Javascript code, and saving/publishing the changes.
This process is tedious, and I would like to find a way to automate it. I have been researching Dynamics 365 deployment tools, and I have found the CRM Package Deployer tool, but from what I can find it requires me to set up an entire deployment package (a giant XML file) comprising my entire customization, rather than the single file I am currently working on. Is there some way to automate deploying a SINGLE FILE with these (or other) tools? Or is it possible to deploy a package with ONLY A SINGLE FILE rather than re-deploying the entire solution's package each time I just change the one file? | 2017/05/09 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/43880569",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/390519/"
] | Check out the open source alternative to the SDK's developer toolkit called [Dynamics CRM & 365 Developer Extensions](https://github.com/jlattimer/CRMDeveloperExtensions) which you can install right into VS. It makes deployment of web resources a snap. Basically, you map individual JS/Html/Css/etc files to their corresponding web resources in CRM, and then once they are mapped all you have to do to deploy is right-click and choose Publish to CRM.
That tool is great, but if you **really** want to speed up your web resource development, you should use Fiddler. In Fiddler, turn on Autoresponder and setup a mapping for the file you are working on. When Fiddler sees a request that matches a mapping, it doesn't send the request to the server and instead returns the file from your hard drive. This technique offers a dramatic speed improvements for developing web resources. There's also a free tool for Fiddler called Imposter that makes the process easier. Search the web for "dynamics crm fiddler web resources" to read about this technique. | Another tool is the Web Resource Manager in the [XrmToolBox](http://www.xrmtoolbox.com) It's free, a part of the XrmToolBox, and even handles pushing .map and .ts files you're doing TypeScript. It will warn you if someone else has updated the file since you have, and allows you to push, publish, or even add the files to a particular solution. |
61,030,603 | I'm looking to organize some items based on inheritance, with the goal of identifying which items are the most densely-connected parents, and also just seeing the connections formed.
Normally this would be done with a topological sort, but my graph has cycles. Is there something like a "best-effort" topological sort, which can attempt to determine the "most important" parents based on things like number of connections or something analogous?
As an example, given the graph below, I'd like for 1 and 2 to be the top-level parents. 1 has no parents; and while 2 is in a cycle, it is the parent of more children than it inherits from.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/y8Lpz.png) | 2020/04/04 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/61030603",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/592678/"
] | One way to achieve something like that would be to compute for each node how many other nodes are accessible from it, and then sort the nodes based on that number.
Alternatively, you can reverse that logic. For each node compute how many nodes have access to it, then sort nodes in ascending order. | Google's [pagerank-Algorithm](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=P8Kt6Abq_rM) evaluates websites, whose hyperlinks are represented as directed edges. Websites with many and important incoming links are rated highly.
In your case it seems to be the opposite. You want few/no incoming edge.
You could therefore try the pagerank-algorithm, but reverse its results in the way, that the nodes with the highst page-rank get the lowest inheritance-rating and the other way around. |
63,956 | I'm updating the main content2 view, and I'd like to add another column to show which user made the last update. I'm using workbench moderation, in case that makes any difference. | 2013/02/28 | [
"https://drupal.stackexchange.com/questions/63956",
"https://drupal.stackexchange.com",
"https://drupal.stackexchange.com/users/1561/"
] | 1. Edit your content type's Publishing options & enable 'Create new revision'.
2. In Views' Advanced pane, add a Relationship of type 'Content revision: User'.
3. Under Fields, add the field 'User: Name' AND use the relationship you just created.
Voilà! | 1. Download [revisioning](http://drupal.org/project/revisioning)
2. In your view fields section you will now find a new option called **Content: Last edited by** |
3,593 | If I'm making Homemade Jams/Preserves, how long will they last? | 2010/07/28 | [
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/3593",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/177/"
] | The [Good Eats jam episode](http://www.goodeatsfanpage.com/Season2/Jam/JamTranscript.htm) suggests 2-3 weeks if you don't actually preserve the jam in a home-canning kind of way and about a year if you do. | There's also freezer jams, which can easily last a few years in a deep-freeze without losing much quality. They're well sealed, so there's little moisture loss / freezer burn, there's little loss of quality aside from the initial freezing, and you don't have to worry about mold or other organism growing in the freezer. |
3,593 | If I'm making Homemade Jams/Preserves, how long will they last? | 2010/07/28 | [
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/3593",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/177/"
] | The [Good Eats jam episode](http://www.goodeatsfanpage.com/Season2/Jam/JamTranscript.htm) suggests 2-3 weeks if you don't actually preserve the jam in a home-canning kind of way and about a year if you do. | Home made Jam made with half Fruit and half Sugar will last almost indefinitely... it's additives that spoil food, placed into in a sterile jam jar it could be there many years and still as good as the one eaten in the first week, Ask your granny not a jobsworth! 50/50 nothing else! |
3,593 | If I'm making Homemade Jams/Preserves, how long will they last? | 2010/07/28 | [
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/3593",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/177/"
] | All home-canned food should be used within a year. This assumes you follow the strict sterilization regimen required by jarring/canning at home. You should also store them in a cool, dark, dry place between 50-70°F.
Over time changes in color, flavor, and texture is inevitable. This will result in a degradation of *quality* in the product, but as long as the seal is in tact and there are no visible signs of mold or yeast the jam should be safe to eat.
Another thing to note is that lighter colored jams tend to darken faster than others and thus may not look appealing over the course of a full year. They are still "safe" though.
Source:
<http://www.uga.edu/nchfp/questions/FAQ_jellied.html#7> | There's also freezer jams, which can easily last a few years in a deep-freeze without losing much quality. They're well sealed, so there's little moisture loss / freezer burn, there's little loss of quality aside from the initial freezing, and you don't have to worry about mold or other organism growing in the freezer. |
3,593 | If I'm making Homemade Jams/Preserves, how long will they last? | 2010/07/28 | [
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/3593",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/177/"
] | All home-canned food should be used within a year. This assumes you follow the strict sterilization regimen required by jarring/canning at home. You should also store them in a cool, dark, dry place between 50-70°F.
Over time changes in color, flavor, and texture is inevitable. This will result in a degradation of *quality* in the product, but as long as the seal is in tact and there are no visible signs of mold or yeast the jam should be safe to eat.
Another thing to note is that lighter colored jams tend to darken faster than others and thus may not look appealing over the course of a full year. They are still "safe" though.
Source:
<http://www.uga.edu/nchfp/questions/FAQ_jellied.html#7> | Home made Jam made with half Fruit and half Sugar will last almost indefinitely... it's additives that spoil food, placed into in a sterile jam jar it could be there many years and still as good as the one eaten in the first week, Ask your granny not a jobsworth! 50/50 nothing else! |
3,593 | If I'm making Homemade Jams/Preserves, how long will they last? | 2010/07/28 | [
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/3593",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/177/"
] | "Use within a year" is a good guideline. There are exceptions. Lingonberry jam done right is easily good for a couple of years. | There's also freezer jams, which can easily last a few years in a deep-freeze without losing much quality. They're well sealed, so there's little moisture loss / freezer burn, there's little loss of quality aside from the initial freezing, and you don't have to worry about mold or other organism growing in the freezer. |
3,593 | If I'm making Homemade Jams/Preserves, how long will they last? | 2010/07/28 | [
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/3593",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/177/"
] | There's also freezer jams, which can easily last a few years in a deep-freeze without losing much quality. They're well sealed, so there's little moisture loss / freezer burn, there's little loss of quality aside from the initial freezing, and you don't have to worry about mold or other organism growing in the freezer. | Home made Jam made with half Fruit and half Sugar will last almost indefinitely... it's additives that spoil food, placed into in a sterile jam jar it could be there many years and still as good as the one eaten in the first week, Ask your granny not a jobsworth! 50/50 nothing else! |
3,593 | If I'm making Homemade Jams/Preserves, how long will they last? | 2010/07/28 | [
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/3593",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/177/"
] | "Use within a year" is a good guideline. There are exceptions. Lingonberry jam done right is easily good for a couple of years. | Home made Jam made with half Fruit and half Sugar will last almost indefinitely... it's additives that spoil food, placed into in a sterile jam jar it could be there many years and still as good as the one eaten in the first week, Ask your granny not a jobsworth! 50/50 nothing else! |
370,750 | Can "[antithesis](http://www.ldoceonline.com/dictionary/antithesis)" be used with the preposition "to" as in the following example sentence?
>
> ...We human beings have a tendency to demand without giving much in
> return to the Earth. However, this is an antithesis **to** how the
> biosphere works...
>
>
> | 2017/01/28 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/370750",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/98169/"
] | Your use of "to" is correct. However, one would take issue with your use of the article, 'an'.
The word 'antithesis' is to mean the *exact* opposite of something. Meaning, there can be only one exact opposite. So if you're going to use antithesis in a sentence, it should be written as '**the** antithesis' rather than '**an** antithesis', as there shouldn't exist more than one antithesis. | Yes, the expression ***[an antithesis to](https://books.google.com/ngrams/graph?content=in%20antithesis%20to%2C%20an%20antithesis%20to&year_start=1800&year_end=2008&corpus=15&smoothing=3&share=&direct_url=t1%3B%2Cin%20antithesis%20to%3B%2Cc0%3B.t1%3B%2Can%20antithesis%20to%3B%2Cc0)*** is a correct expression meaning "the opposite of":
From [Nietzsche and Ethics](https://books.google.it/books?id=yf445ypX8D0C&pg=PA55&dq=%22an%20antithesis%20to%22&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwiE0N_3gubRAhWrBcAKHd59BAkQ6AEINTAE#v=onepage&q=%22an%20antithesis%20to%22&f=false):
>
> * I hope to show two things: that Nietzsche characterizes his immoralist position as an extension of ***rather than as an antithesis to a moralist one,*** and that Nietzsche offers a teleological position different from any of the familiar ones.
>
>
>
Usage note of "antithesis" from [M-W](https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/antithesis) :
>
> * Writers and speechmakers use the traditional pattern known as antithesis for its resounding effect; John Kennedy's famous "ask not what your country can do for you—ask what you can do for your country" is an example.
> * ***But antithesis normally means simply "opposite".*** Thus, war is the antithesis of peace, wealth is the antithesis of poverty, and love is the antithesis of hate. Holding two antithetical ideas in one's head at the same time—for example, that you're the sole master of your fate but also the helpless victim of your terrible upbringing—is so common as to be almost normal.
>
>
> |
370,750 | Can "[antithesis](http://www.ldoceonline.com/dictionary/antithesis)" be used with the preposition "to" as in the following example sentence?
>
> ...We human beings have a tendency to demand without giving much in
> return to the Earth. However, this is an antithesis **to** how the
> biosphere works...
>
>
> | 2017/01/28 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/370750",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/98169/"
] | Your use of "to" is correct. However, one would take issue with your use of the article, 'an'.
The word 'antithesis' is to mean the *exact* opposite of something. Meaning, there can be only one exact opposite. So if you're going to use antithesis in a sentence, it should be written as '**the** antithesis' rather than '**an** antithesis', as there shouldn't exist more than one antithesis. | Why not replace the noun with an adjective, which seems much more natural to me?
>
> ...We human beings have a tendency to demand without giving much in return to the Earth. However, this is *antithetical* to how the biosphere works...
>
>
> |
370,750 | Can "[antithesis](http://www.ldoceonline.com/dictionary/antithesis)" be used with the preposition "to" as in the following example sentence?
>
> ...We human beings have a tendency to demand without giving much in
> return to the Earth. However, this is an antithesis **to** how the
> biosphere works...
>
>
> | 2017/01/28 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/370750",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/98169/"
] | Yes, the expression ***[an antithesis to](https://books.google.com/ngrams/graph?content=in%20antithesis%20to%2C%20an%20antithesis%20to&year_start=1800&year_end=2008&corpus=15&smoothing=3&share=&direct_url=t1%3B%2Cin%20antithesis%20to%3B%2Cc0%3B.t1%3B%2Can%20antithesis%20to%3B%2Cc0)*** is a correct expression meaning "the opposite of":
From [Nietzsche and Ethics](https://books.google.it/books?id=yf445ypX8D0C&pg=PA55&dq=%22an%20antithesis%20to%22&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwiE0N_3gubRAhWrBcAKHd59BAkQ6AEINTAE#v=onepage&q=%22an%20antithesis%20to%22&f=false):
>
> * I hope to show two things: that Nietzsche characterizes his immoralist position as an extension of ***rather than as an antithesis to a moralist one,*** and that Nietzsche offers a teleological position different from any of the familiar ones.
>
>
>
Usage note of "antithesis" from [M-W](https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/antithesis) :
>
> * Writers and speechmakers use the traditional pattern known as antithesis for its resounding effect; John Kennedy's famous "ask not what your country can do for you—ask what you can do for your country" is an example.
> * ***But antithesis normally means simply "opposite".*** Thus, war is the antithesis of peace, wealth is the antithesis of poverty, and love is the antithesis of hate. Holding two antithetical ideas in one's head at the same time—for example, that you're the sole master of your fate but also the helpless victim of your terrible upbringing—is so common as to be almost normal.
>
>
> | Why not replace the noun with an adjective, which seems much more natural to me?
>
> ...We human beings have a tendency to demand without giving much in return to the Earth. However, this is *antithetical* to how the biosphere works...
>
>
> |
867 | How do i transfer contacts from old nokia symbian phone to windows phone?
Also is there a way to sync sms from my old phone to windows phone?
Windows Phone is Nokia 710. My old Nokia Phone has bluetooth but it is refusing to connect to the new Windows Phone | 2012/08/15 | [
"https://windowsphone.stackexchange.com/questions/867",
"https://windowsphone.stackexchange.com",
"https://windowsphone.stackexchange.com/users/179/"
] | There's a contact transfer app for Nokia Windows Phones.
Easy route: watch the youtube video showing the contact transfer process at <http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=gwZAWXyXYbU> .
Have the micro SIM in your Nokia 710 and turn it on. You must use the micro SIM that comes with your Nokia Lumia, aka the one that was in the box.
In the application list you should find "Contact Transfer". Follow the instructions and connect the two phones via Bluetooth. Your contact will move from the old device to the new one. | Use a phone to phone tool.
May this tool will help you.
<http://www.iphonetoandroidtransfer.com/> |
867 | How do i transfer contacts from old nokia symbian phone to windows phone?
Also is there a way to sync sms from my old phone to windows phone?
Windows Phone is Nokia 710. My old Nokia Phone has bluetooth but it is refusing to connect to the new Windows Phone | 2012/08/15 | [
"https://windowsphone.stackexchange.com/questions/867",
"https://windowsphone.stackexchange.com",
"https://windowsphone.stackexchange.com/users/179/"
] | If you are using WP8, follow these steps:
1. Install the [Transfer My Data](http://windowsphone.com/s?appid=dc08943b-7b3d-4ee5-aa3c-30f1a826af02) app
2. Switch on Bluetooth on your old phone and ensure that it's visible to other devices.
3. Open the Transfer My Data app on your Windows phone, and now you can transfer contacts, text messages, pictures and music files. | While this might not be the best method, I have found it best served what I needed when transferring my iphone contacts to my Android HTC:
<http://fff.wf/hfSj>
First, I don't have a Gmail account, and even if I had, I would not wish to mix my email addresses with my iphone address book by syncing Gmail with my iphone address book. As a result, I used the above method in order to manually export my iphone contacts to my computer and in turn import them to my new HTC phone. |
867 | How do i transfer contacts from old nokia symbian phone to windows phone?
Also is there a way to sync sms from my old phone to windows phone?
Windows Phone is Nokia 710. My old Nokia Phone has bluetooth but it is refusing to connect to the new Windows Phone | 2012/08/15 | [
"https://windowsphone.stackexchange.com/questions/867",
"https://windowsphone.stackexchange.com",
"https://windowsphone.stackexchange.com/users/179/"
] | Built into every Nokia Windows Phone is a small utility, 'Contacts Transfer', providing a very quick way for Symbian smartphone owners to get their core contacts over to a replacement Windows Phone. Here's a walkthrough of this usefull utility in action.
1. Turn Bluetooth on in the source smartphone (on the N8, in Settings/Connectivity)
2. Start the utility and you'll be prompted to turn Bluetooth on. Do this and you'll be shown Bluetooth enabled devices nearby.
3. Tap the one you want and you'll be asked to confirm the connection on the other device in the usual way.
4.The Lumia will scan the contacts on the other smartphone (via PBAP) and report on the number of entries found. Tap on 'Continue' to proceed with the transfer, which should take a minute or so at most.
[this link might clear your doubts](http://allaboutwindowsphone.com/features/item/13828_How_to_Get_your_contacts_direc.php) | If you are using WP8, follow these steps:
1. Install the [Transfer My Data](http://windowsphone.com/s?appid=dc08943b-7b3d-4ee5-aa3c-30f1a826af02) app
2. Switch on Bluetooth on your old phone and ensure that it's visible to other devices.
3. Open the Transfer My Data app on your Windows phone, and now you can transfer contacts, text messages, pictures and music files. |
867 | How do i transfer contacts from old nokia symbian phone to windows phone?
Also is there a way to sync sms from my old phone to windows phone?
Windows Phone is Nokia 710. My old Nokia Phone has bluetooth but it is refusing to connect to the new Windows Phone | 2012/08/15 | [
"https://windowsphone.stackexchange.com/questions/867",
"https://windowsphone.stackexchange.com",
"https://windowsphone.stackexchange.com/users/179/"
] | There's a contact transfer app for Nokia Windows Phones.
Easy route: watch the youtube video showing the contact transfer process at <http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=gwZAWXyXYbU> .
Have the micro SIM in your Nokia 710 and turn it on. You must use the micro SIM that comes with your Nokia Lumia, aka the one that was in the box.
In the application list you should find "Contact Transfer". Follow the instructions and connect the two phones via Bluetooth. Your contact will move from the old device to the new one. | If you are using WP8, follow these steps:
1. Install the [Transfer My Data](http://windowsphone.com/s?appid=dc08943b-7b3d-4ee5-aa3c-30f1a826af02) app
2. Switch on Bluetooth on your old phone and ensure that it's visible to other devices.
3. Open the Transfer My Data app on your Windows phone, and now you can transfer contacts, text messages, pictures and music files. |
867 | How do i transfer contacts from old nokia symbian phone to windows phone?
Also is there a way to sync sms from my old phone to windows phone?
Windows Phone is Nokia 710. My old Nokia Phone has bluetooth but it is refusing to connect to the new Windows Phone | 2012/08/15 | [
"https://windowsphone.stackexchange.com/questions/867",
"https://windowsphone.stackexchange.com",
"https://windowsphone.stackexchange.com/users/179/"
] | Built into every Nokia Windows Phone is a small utility, 'Contacts Transfer', providing a very quick way for Symbian smartphone owners to get their core contacts over to a replacement Windows Phone. Here's a walkthrough of this usefull utility in action.
1. Turn Bluetooth on in the source smartphone (on the N8, in Settings/Connectivity)
2. Start the utility and you'll be prompted to turn Bluetooth on. Do this and you'll be shown Bluetooth enabled devices nearby.
3. Tap the one you want and you'll be asked to confirm the connection on the other device in the usual way.
4.The Lumia will scan the contacts on the other smartphone (via PBAP) and report on the number of entries found. Tap on 'Continue' to proceed with the transfer, which should take a minute or so at most.
[this link might clear your doubts](http://allaboutwindowsphone.com/features/item/13828_How_to_Get_your_contacts_direc.php) | Use a phone to phone tool.
May this tool will help you.
<http://www.iphonetoandroidtransfer.com/> |
867 | How do i transfer contacts from old nokia symbian phone to windows phone?
Also is there a way to sync sms from my old phone to windows phone?
Windows Phone is Nokia 710. My old Nokia Phone has bluetooth but it is refusing to connect to the new Windows Phone | 2012/08/15 | [
"https://windowsphone.stackexchange.com/questions/867",
"https://windowsphone.stackexchange.com",
"https://windowsphone.stackexchange.com/users/179/"
] | Built into every Nokia Windows Phone is a small utility, 'Contacts Transfer', providing a very quick way for Symbian smartphone owners to get their core contacts over to a replacement Windows Phone. Here's a walkthrough of this usefull utility in action.
1. Turn Bluetooth on in the source smartphone (on the N8, in Settings/Connectivity)
2. Start the utility and you'll be prompted to turn Bluetooth on. Do this and you'll be shown Bluetooth enabled devices nearby.
3. Tap the one you want and you'll be asked to confirm the connection on the other device in the usual way.
4.The Lumia will scan the contacts on the other smartphone (via PBAP) and report on the number of entries found. Tap on 'Continue' to proceed with the transfer, which should take a minute or so at most.
[this link might clear your doubts](http://allaboutwindowsphone.com/features/item/13828_How_to_Get_your_contacts_direc.php) | While this might not be the best method, I have found it best served what I needed when transferring my iphone contacts to my Android HTC:
<http://fff.wf/hfSj>
First, I don't have a Gmail account, and even if I had, I would not wish to mix my email addresses with my iphone address book by syncing Gmail with my iphone address book. As a result, I used the above method in order to manually export my iphone contacts to my computer and in turn import them to my new HTC phone. |
867 | How do i transfer contacts from old nokia symbian phone to windows phone?
Also is there a way to sync sms from my old phone to windows phone?
Windows Phone is Nokia 710. My old Nokia Phone has bluetooth but it is refusing to connect to the new Windows Phone | 2012/08/15 | [
"https://windowsphone.stackexchange.com/questions/867",
"https://windowsphone.stackexchange.com",
"https://windowsphone.stackexchange.com/users/179/"
] | There's a contact transfer app for Nokia Windows Phones.
Easy route: watch the youtube video showing the contact transfer process at <http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=gwZAWXyXYbU> .
Have the micro SIM in your Nokia 710 and turn it on. You must use the micro SIM that comes with your Nokia Lumia, aka the one that was in the box.
In the application list you should find "Contact Transfer". Follow the instructions and connect the two phones via Bluetooth. Your contact will move from the old device to the new one. | You can use google sync to solve the issue about [how to transfer contacts from Nokia to iPhone](http://iphone-contact-transfer.blogspot.com/2013/10/transfer-contacts-from-nokia-to-iphone.html).
1 Launch Mail Exchange on your Nokia phone and setup using the settings mentioned here .
2 Now use your iPhone and navigate to Settings app and go to Mail,Contacts,Calendar tab .
3 Add an account and select Microsoft Exchange . Enter all your google account details as shown here .
4 Now your Google Sync is ready . Sync to transfer your contacts. |
867 | How do i transfer contacts from old nokia symbian phone to windows phone?
Also is there a way to sync sms from my old phone to windows phone?
Windows Phone is Nokia 710. My old Nokia Phone has bluetooth but it is refusing to connect to the new Windows Phone | 2012/08/15 | [
"https://windowsphone.stackexchange.com/questions/867",
"https://windowsphone.stackexchange.com",
"https://windowsphone.stackexchange.com/users/179/"
] | Built into every Nokia Windows Phone is a small utility, 'Contacts Transfer', providing a very quick way for Symbian smartphone owners to get their core contacts over to a replacement Windows Phone. Here's a walkthrough of this usefull utility in action.
1. Turn Bluetooth on in the source smartphone (on the N8, in Settings/Connectivity)
2. Start the utility and you'll be prompted to turn Bluetooth on. Do this and you'll be shown Bluetooth enabled devices nearby.
3. Tap the one you want and you'll be asked to confirm the connection on the other device in the usual way.
4.The Lumia will scan the contacts on the other smartphone (via PBAP) and report on the number of entries found. Tap on 'Continue' to proceed with the transfer, which should take a minute or so at most.
[this link might clear your doubts](http://allaboutwindowsphone.com/features/item/13828_How_to_Get_your_contacts_direc.php) | You can use google sync to solve the issue about [how to transfer contacts from Nokia to iPhone](http://iphone-contact-transfer.blogspot.com/2013/10/transfer-contacts-from-nokia-to-iphone.html).
1 Launch Mail Exchange on your Nokia phone and setup using the settings mentioned here .
2 Now use your iPhone and navigate to Settings app and go to Mail,Contacts,Calendar tab .
3 Add an account and select Microsoft Exchange . Enter all your google account details as shown here .
4 Now your Google Sync is ready . Sync to transfer your contacts. |
867 | How do i transfer contacts from old nokia symbian phone to windows phone?
Also is there a way to sync sms from my old phone to windows phone?
Windows Phone is Nokia 710. My old Nokia Phone has bluetooth but it is refusing to connect to the new Windows Phone | 2012/08/15 | [
"https://windowsphone.stackexchange.com/questions/867",
"https://windowsphone.stackexchange.com",
"https://windowsphone.stackexchange.com/users/179/"
] | There's a contact transfer app for Nokia Windows Phones.
Easy route: watch the youtube video showing the contact transfer process at <http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=gwZAWXyXYbU> .
Have the micro SIM in your Nokia 710 and turn it on. You must use the micro SIM that comes with your Nokia Lumia, aka the one that was in the box.
In the application list you should find "Contact Transfer". Follow the instructions and connect the two phones via Bluetooth. Your contact will move from the old device to the new one. | While this might not be the best method, I have found it best served what I needed when transferring my iphone contacts to my Android HTC:
<http://fff.wf/hfSj>
First, I don't have a Gmail account, and even if I had, I would not wish to mix my email addresses with my iphone address book by syncing Gmail with my iphone address book. As a result, I used the above method in order to manually export my iphone contacts to my computer and in turn import them to my new HTC phone. |
867 | How do i transfer contacts from old nokia symbian phone to windows phone?
Also is there a way to sync sms from my old phone to windows phone?
Windows Phone is Nokia 710. My old Nokia Phone has bluetooth but it is refusing to connect to the new Windows Phone | 2012/08/15 | [
"https://windowsphone.stackexchange.com/questions/867",
"https://windowsphone.stackexchange.com",
"https://windowsphone.stackexchange.com/users/179/"
] | If you are using WP8, follow these steps:
1. Install the [Transfer My Data](http://windowsphone.com/s?appid=dc08943b-7b3d-4ee5-aa3c-30f1a826af02) app
2. Switch on Bluetooth on your old phone and ensure that it's visible to other devices.
3. Open the Transfer My Data app on your Windows phone, and now you can transfer contacts, text messages, pictures and music files. | You can use google sync to solve the issue about [how to transfer contacts from Nokia to iPhone](http://iphone-contact-transfer.blogspot.com/2013/10/transfer-contacts-from-nokia-to-iphone.html).
1 Launch Mail Exchange on your Nokia phone and setup using the settings mentioned here .
2 Now use your iPhone and navigate to Settings app and go to Mail,Contacts,Calendar tab .
3 Add an account and select Microsoft Exchange . Enter all your google account details as shown here .
4 Now your Google Sync is ready . Sync to transfer your contacts. |
238,385 | What does the word "hooky" mean in the phrase "play hooky" (skipping class/truancy) and where did it come from? | 2015/04/09 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/238385",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/72833/"
] | ***Dictionary discussions of 'hookey'***
John Bartlett, [*Dictionary of Americanisms*](https://books.google.com/books?id=NhVAAAAAYAAJ&pg=PA180&dq=%22hookey%22&hl=en&sa=X&ei=6f8mVeT2FsGzogStzIDgCQ&ved=0CEMQ6AEwBzhk#v=onepage&q=%22hookey%22&f=false) (1848) has entries for "hookey" and for a term that I suspect may be very closely related, "on one's own hook". Here they are:
>
> ON ONE'S OWN HOOK. A phrase much used in familiar language, denoting on one's own account ; as, 'He is doing business on his own hook,' i. e. for himself.
>
>
> [Example:] The South is determined that its favorite, Mr. Calhoun, shall go into the National Convention as a candidate for the Presidency ; and in case he does not get the nomination, he will run *on his own hook*.—*Newspaper*.
>
>
> Example:] I now resolve to do business entirely alone—to go *on my own hook*. If I get rich, the money will be all mine.—*Perils of Pearl Street*, p. 195
>
>
> ...
>
>
> HOOKEY. To play *hookey* is to play truant. A term used among schoolboys.
>
>
>
The [second edition of Bartlett](https://books.google.com/books?id=nHgCAAAAQAAJ&pg=PA201&dq=%22hookey%22&hl=en&sa=X&ei=6f8mVeT2FsGzogStzIDgCQ&ved=0CBwQ6AEwADhk#v=onepage&q=%22hookey%22&f=false) (1859) adds to the entry for *hookey* the words "chiefly in the State of New York." Although the 1848 edition of Bartlett has an entry for "by hook or by crook," neither it nor the 1859 edition has anything for "hooky-crooky," which makes that theory of origin less appealing. Bartlett also provides an entry for *hook*, but that entry says simply
>
> TO HOOK. To steal. A common vulgarism.
>
>
>
to which the 1859 edition appends the words "formerly used in England." No doubt running away is a frequent adjunct to stealing, but it appears that *hookey* was already used in U.S. slang before Bartlett showed any awareness of U.S. use of "to hook" in the sense of "to steal."
As for the theory that truant schoolboys were influenced by the Dutch term *hoekje spelen*, it seems rather fanciful; the argument would be more compelling if the kids cutting school were naughty PhD candidates in linguistics. Admittedly, Bartlett's explicit tying of the word *hookey* to New York offers some support for the possibility that the expression is derived from Dutch (as *hoople* was), but I remain skeptical.
It seems far more likely to me that a schoolboy might boast to his schoolmates that he was "going out on his own account [or *going on his own hook*] for the day" and that the wording mutated into "playing hookey."
On the other hand, Kenneth Wilson, [*The Columbia Guide to Standard American English*](https://books.google.com/books?id=l9g3BAAAQBAJ&pg=PA228&dq=%22plurals+are+hookeys+or+hookies%22&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwjV37LRiY_MAhVM7GMKHUNYDHsQ6AEIJzAA#v=onepage&q=%22plurals%20are%20hookeys%20or%20hookies%22&f=false) (1993) has this reading:
>
> **hooky, hookey** (n.) is part of an idiom, to play hooky, which means "to be truant, to *hook* {escape} school." Its plurals are *hookeys* or *hookies*, and neither is much used. *Hooky* was once slang, but it has lasted so well that it is now Standard in its idiom.
>
>
>
And Dick Wilkinson, [*Concise Thesaurus of Traditional English Metaphors*](https://books.google.com/books?id=1z_30jpgkBAC&pg=PA58&dq=%22hook+jack%22&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwj7x-SJgY_MAhUE1mMKHaDbCXc4WhDoAQhKMAg#v=onepage&q=%22hook%20jack%22&f=false) (2013) reports that the phrase "hook Jack" was used in the sense of "play truant" during the period 1840–1850:
>
> **Hook Jack** {Amer: 1840-50}/**Play hookey** [Amer]. Play truant. (As/From the above, the sense-connexion being to hook Jack from going to school.)
>
>
>
Harold Wentworth, *American Dialect Dictionary* (1944) confirms the usage of "hook Jack" listed in Wilkinson:
>
> **hook Jack.** To play truant. Cf. **slunk school** [the corresponding term used in Maritimes Canada, circa 1895]. **1840–1850 e[astern] Mass[achusetts] Boston** The current phrase among boys **c.1860 Mass[achusetts] Chelsea** n. phr. = hookey. **1889 Mass[achusetts] Boston** Also 'hook off.' **Before 1892 e[astern] Mass[achusetts] Wellesley** *to play hookey & hook Jack*. **1910–22 cent[ral] N[ew] Y[ork]** Not used.
>
>
>
---
***Google Books and Library of Congress matches for 'hookey' and related terms***
The earliest Google Books match for "on his own hook" is from a [letter from Gerrit Smith to Edward Delavan](https://books.google.com/books?id=9GQoAAAAYAAJ&pg=PA41&dq=%22on+his+own+hook%22&hl=en&sa=X&ei=ggUnVdiuHJCYoQTZpICQCA&ved=0CCIQ6AEwATge#v=onepage&q=%22on%20his%20own%20hook%22&f=false) (September 11, 1833), reprinted in "The Intemperate, and the Reformed" (1834):
>
> You have heard the story of our countryman at the battle of Yorktown, who, to use his expression, '**fought on his own hook**.' There are some such self poised and independent spirits. But the reformed drunkard, in respect to his conflict with the the temptations of rum, is far from being one of them.
>
>
>
Another instance occurs in Robert Bird, [*Nick of the Woods, or, The Jibbenainosay: A Tale of Kentucky*](https://books.google.com/books?id=7cxEAQAAMAAJ&pg=PA175&dq=%22he+comes+here+on+his+own+hook%22&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwjFturwxY7MAhUI8mMKHfGiAdYQ6AEIHTAA#v=onepage&q=%22he%20comes%20here%20on%20his%20own%20hook%22&f=false), volume 2 (1837):
>
> "It is true," replied Doe, coolly : "but see the difference! When the Piankeshaws were burning him,—or when I thought the dogs were at it,—it was a death of *my* making for him : it was *I* that helped him to the stake. But here the case is altered. He comes here **on his own hook**; the Injuns catch him **on his own hook** ; and, d—n them! they'll burn him **on his own hook**! and so it's no matter of my consarning. There's the root of it."
>
>
>
The earliest Google Books match for *hookey* in the relevant U.S. sense is from Joseph Field, [*La Déesse, an Elssler-atic Romance*](https://books.google.com/books?id=8gxEAQAAMAAJ&pg=PA6&dq=%22home+and+rule+played+hooky%22&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwiJ2vOkxY7MAhVI6GMKHaFfCQoQ6AEIHDAA#v=onepage&q=%22home%20and%20rule%20played%20hooky%22&f=false) (1841):
>
> And oh! how sweet the memory/Of boyish days, when carelessly/We stole away from home and rule,/**Played “hooky,”** and deserted school,/To wander, fancy, fetter free,/Among Pomona's treasures there—/(Heaven, smiling, pass'd the registry—)/To snatch a peach, perhaps a *pair*!
>
>
>
An instance from [*Merry's Gems of Prose and Poetry*](https://books.google.com/books?id=OaYYAAAAYAAJ&pg=PA217&dq=%22hookie%22&hl=en&sa=X&ei=vwUnVa79MdGzoQSQmIC4CA&ved=0CB4Q6AEwAA#v=onepage&q=%22hookie%22&f=false) (1860) spells the word *hookie*:
>
> The Comforts of Playing **Hookie**
>
>
>
In this vignette (or reminiscence), at least, it appears that "playing hookie" entailed not skipping school but failing to return directly home (as expected) after school. But in other instances from the 1860s, bagging school is definitely part of the delinquency.
Another early instance of hookey in the relevant sense appears in a brief item in the [*New York Daily Tribune*](http://chroniclingamerica.loc.gov/lccn/sn83030213/1845-04-30/ed-1/seq-4/#date1=1836&index=15&rows=20&searchType=advanced&language=&sequence=0&words=hookey&proxdistance=5&date2=1850&ortext=&proxtext=&phrasetext=hookey&andtext=&dateFilterType=yearRange&page=1) (April 30, 1845), reprinted from the *Baltimore [Maryland] Saturday Visiter*:
>
> ADVERISEMENT —Mr. Starling respecktfully cautions his patterns and the publick that he is a going to teach a school in this town in the branches of larning and the scholars will find there own books as will be well used except them that plays **hookey** will be licked with the strap—8 cuts for a big boy and 5 cuts for a little one. For further infarmation, inquire of Mr. Pras the sope biler whose darter gut her edication as above.
>
>
>
The earliest Google Books match for "hook Jack" appears in [*City of Boston. Reports of Truant Officers*](https://books.google.com/books?id=g3nCrCpFxqEC&pg=PA301&dq=%22hook+jack%22&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwi5ju35h4_MAhVR9WMKHS1TDCM4ChDoAQg4MAU#v=onepage&q=%22hook%20jack%22&f=false) (July 1853):
>
> The inducements for boys to leave School at this season of the year, such as bathing, boating, going into the country for fruit and berries, are irresistible with many, who never see the beauties of the country, unless they "**hook Jack**," as they term it, during school hours, for they are employed by their parents as soon as they arrive at home, both Wednesday and Saturday afternoons, and their excuses for truancy are numerous just at this time.
>
>
>
And from Oliver Optic, [*Now Or Never: Or, The Adventures of Bobby Bright*](https://books.google.com/books?id=-w4WAAAAYAAJ&pg=PA12&dq=%22hook+jack%22&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwjwwb2Sho_MAhUHKWMKHfHzA3g4ChDoAQgnMAI#v=onepage&q=%22hook%20jack%22&f=false) (1857):
>
> "Didn't you tell me you were '**hooking jack**'?"
>
>
> "Who is going to know any thing about it?"
>
>
> "The master will know you are absent."
>
>
> "I shall tell him my mother sent me over to the village on an errand."
>
>
> "I never knew a fellow to 'hook jack,' yet, without getting found out."
>
>
>
---
***Other early nineteenth-century meanings of 'hookey'***
*Hookey* was by no means an unheard-of term in the United States when it began to be applied to truancy. One early instance of *hookey* that doesn't seem to be directly related to the "skip school" sense of the term appears in "[Editor's Correspondence](http://chroniclingamerica.loc.gov/lccn/sn82003410/1846-01-13/ed-1/seq-3/#date1=1836&index=10&rows=20&searchType=advanced&language=&sequence=0&words=Hookey&proxdistance=5&date2=1850&ortext=&proxtext=&phrasetext=hookey&andtext=&dateFilterType=yearRange&page=1)" (written by a correspondent from New York on January 12, 1846), in the [Washington, D.C.] Daily Union (January 13, 1846):
>
> *The* "*Bad Enough*" *News."*—This paper has thought proper to criticize my remarks respecting the extent of the trade and commerce of New York, made in a former letter. What does "*The News*" mean? One day it is for peace, and peaceful counsels, and at another time hot for war, and ready to quarrel with a man if he merely says the people of this city have much at stake, but are not less patriotic than the citizens of other portions of the Union. From its repeatedly blowing *hot and cold*, one would suppose it was playing a game of "*Political Blind **Hookey***."
>
>
>
An early edition of [*Hoyle's Games: Containing the Rules for Playing Fashionable Games*](https://books.google.com/books?id=IEAVAAAAYAAJ&pg=PA4&dq=%22blind+hookey%22&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwi8ktCuzY7MAhVH22MKHRC2AJ0Q6AEIHDAA#v=onepage&q=%22blind%20hookey%22&f=false) (1857) devotes a full page to explaining the rules for playing "Blind Hookey," a simple card game that has elements of blackjack in it. George Smeeton, [*Doings in London; Or, Day and Night Scenes of the Frauds, Frolics, Manners, and Depravities of the Metropolis*](https://books.google.com/books?id=ZxFgAAAAcAAJ&pg=PA338&dq=%22blind+hookey%22&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwi8ktCuzY7MAhVH22MKHRC2AJ0Q6AEISDAI#v=onepage&q=%22blind%20hookey%22&f=false) (1828) mentions this game twice; and [*Professional Anecdotes: or Ana of Medical Literature*](https://books.google.com/books?id=t8oGAAAAcAAJ&pg=PA223&dq=%22blind+hookey%22&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwjsvOm50I7MAhVT3GMKHdrkD0w4FBDoAQgjMAE#v=onepage&q=%22blind%20hookey%22&f=false), volume 2 (published in London in 1823), says that Blind Hookey "is a game venerable for its antiquity." The name *Blind Hookey* thus seems very likely to have originated in England and subsequently crossed over to the United States.
Another usage of *hookey* in early nineteenth century English appears in the phrase "Hookey Walker"—a piece of London slang attested as early as 1811 in Francis Grose, [*Lexicon Balatronicum*](https://books.google.com/books?id=iDsJAAAAQAAJ&pg=PT103&dq=%22an+expression+signifying+that+the+story+is+not+true%22&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwiEi8Th0o7MAhVG5mMKHXBjBhUQ6AEIOzAF#v=onepage&q=%22an%20expression%20signifying%20that%20the%20story%20is%20not%20true%22&f=false) (1811):
>
> HOOKEE WALKER. An expression signifying that the story is not true, or that the thing will not occur.
>
>
>
J.S. Farmer & W.E. Henley, *Slang and Its Analogues*, volume 3 (1893) has this entry for the term:
>
> **HOOKEY WALKER!** (or **WALKER!**) *intj.* (common). — Be off! go away. Also implying doubt. ... {BEE: From John Walker, a hook-nosed spy, whose reports were proved to be fabrications.}
>
>
>
The "Bee" mentioned by Farmer & Henley is Jon Bee, Slang. [*A Dictionary of the Turf, the Ring, the Chase, the Pit, of Bon-ton, and the Varieties of Life*](https://books.google.com/books?id=KKNWAAAAcAAJ&pg=PA99&dq=%22hookey+walker%22&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwiJ6qeN3Y7MAhULwWMKHU9iBi84ChDoAQghMAE#v=onepage&q=%22hookey%20walker%22&f=false) (1823), which offers a thorough account of the expression and accompanying pantomime. Though *Hookey Walker* was an English term, knowledge of it reached the United States. The *[Holly Springs, Mississippi] Guard* (January 12, 1842) devotes space to an excerpt from Charles Mackay, "[Cant Phrases](http://chroniclingamerica.loc.gov/lccn/sn83016785/1842-01-12/ed-1/seq-4/#date1=1836&index=2&rows=20&searchType=advanced&language=&sequence=0&words=Hookey&proxdistance=5&date2=1850&ortext=&proxtext=&phrasetext=hookey&andtext=&dateFilterType=yearRange&page=1)," from his *Memoirs of Popular Delusions*, including this discussion of *Hookey Walker*:
>
> *Hookey Walker* derived from the chorus of a popular ballad, was also high in favor at one time, and served, like its predecessor, *Quoz*, to answer all questions. In the course of time the latter word alone became the favorite, and was uttered with a peculiar drawl upon the first syllable, and a sharp turn upon the last.
>
>
>
---
***Could 'hookey' have originated from 'Hookies', a pejorative term for Amish people?***
An answer by Old-School (above) asserts that "playing hookie" meant staying at home rather than going to school "like the Amish children." Could that appellation for the Amish be the source of *hookey* in the sense of truancy? Google Books searches for *Hookies* and *Hookeys* turn up a first occurrence in the relevant sense from Peter Schrag, [*Voices in the Classroom: Public Schools and Public Attitudes*](https://books.google.com/books?id=KVhBAAAAIAAJ&q=%22hookeys%22&dq=%22hookeys%22&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwijw8zt7Y7MAhXEKGMKHcqYBXQ4PBDoAQgtMAQ) (1965) [combined snippets]:
>
> But Jesup, unlike the Amish, long ago accepted the technology of the modern world, giving up the attempt to be commercially self-sufficient, and thus there is an ironic aspect to its good natured but somewhat condescending references to the "**Hookeys**" (so named for the hooks and eyes on their clothes). The Amish are trying to preserve their culture by rejecting at least part of the surrounding technology.
>
>
>
Also, from Donald Erickson, [*Public Controls for Nonpublic Schools*](https://books.google.com/books?id=ZMw1ywgbgL8C&q=%22taboo+on+ornaments,+are%22&dq=%22taboo+on+ornaments,+are%22&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwiF9rSR6o7MAhVBzmMKHYNFAC8Q6AEIHDAA) (1969) [combined snippets]:
>
> On the way back to Hazleton, however, Snively suggested that "since the **Hookies** pulled a fast one on us, we should pull a fast one on them." (The Amish, who fasten their clothing with hooks and eyes because of a taboo on ornaments, are often called "Hooks" or "**Hookies**." The non-Amish nearby are frequently referred to as "Buttons" or "English.")
>
>
>
And from Don Locke, [*Increasing Multicultural Understanding: A Comprehensive Model*](https://books.google.com/books?id=jIfResk97qMC&pg=PA46&dq=%22hookies%22&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwjMsqau4I7MAhUD3WMKHeIbCfg4ChDoAQg1MAU#v=onepage&q=%22hookies%22&f=false), second edition (1998):
>
> Like other ethnic minorities, the Amish endure verbal affronts as well. In Buchanan County, Iowa, they are often pejoratively called "**hookies**," a term that refers to the Amish use of hooks and eyes instead of buttons.
>
>
>
Mitford Mathews, *A Dictionary of Americanisms on Historical Principles* (1951) has no entry for *Hookies* or *Hookeys*, but it does have relevant citations for "Hook and Eye Baptists," "Hook and Eye Dutch," and "Hookers":
>
> (1) **1898** *Philistine* Feb. 66 The East Aurora Hook & Eye Baptists as yet have not Meeting Houses of their own, holding services every Sunday at the residence of some member. — (2) **1903** *N.Y. Times* 9 Sep., He was a member of the Amish sect, commonly known as the Hook and Eye Dutch, for reason that they wear hooks and eyes in preference to buttons on their clothes. **1947** *Amer[ican] Sp[eech]* Consequently these 'hook and eye Dutch' were often the butt of fun-making by the other school-children.
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and:
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> **1880** *Harper's Mag[azine]* May 810/1 The stricter Mennonites regarded them {sc. buttons}as a worldly innovation, and, adhering to the use of hooks and eyes, were called 'Hookers,' in distinction from the more lax brethren, who were called 'Buttoners.' **1913** *Proc[eedings and Addresses of the] P[ennsylvani]a-Ger[man] Soc[iety]* XXII 82 The inn was the first public house west of Philadelphia, kept by a 'Hooker' Mennonite.
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Google Books finds instances of "Hook and Eye Baptist" as early as a newspaper called the [*Journal and Republican*](https://books.google.com/books?id=tfQpAQAAMAAJ&q=%22hook+and+eye+baptist%22&dq=%22hook+and+eye+baptist%22&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwjNnaPx_Y7MAhUL0WMKHSbqD5oQ6AEIOjAE) of February 15, 1894, quoted in *Strangers and Pilgrims: History of Lewis County [New York] Mennonites* (1987):
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> There is a sect living in this region with some queer ideas, called **Hook and Eye Baptist**, because hooks an eyes are used on all garments instead of buttons.
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Instances of "Hook and Eye Dutch" going back to Federal Writers Project, [*The WPA Guide to Iowa: The Hawkeye State*](https://books.google.com/books?id=PVzpCAAAQBAJ&pg=PT301&dq=%22hook+and+eye+dutch%22&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwidvYuK847MAhVC5WMKHbHrCEsQ6AEIJTAA#v=onepage&q=%22hook%20and%20eye%20dutch%22&f=false) (1938):
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> Right from Independence, on a dirt road, is LITTLETON, 11 *m*., a small settlement of "**Hook and Eye Dutch**." They are a religious sect, in many ways similar to the Mennonites and Amish, fundamentalists in their doctrine, and strict in compliance with it. ... The men wear black clothes, the coats having wide neckbands. In winter the topcoats have capes of elbow length. All fastenings are made by means of hooks and eyes, from which comes the name "**Hook and Eye Dutch**."
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Federal Writers Project, [*The WPA Guide to Oklahoma*](https://books.google.com/books?id=W7DpCAAAQBAJ&pg=PA312&dq=%22hook+and+eye+dutch%22&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwidvYuK847MAhVC5WMKHbHrCEsQ6AEIMTAC#v=onepage&q=%22hook%20and%20eye%20dutch%22&f=false) (1941), however, asserts that the "Hook and Eye Dutch" are indeed Amish:
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> The Amish, popularly called the "**Hook-and-eye Dutch**," first came to America from Holland and Switzerland in the seventeenth century, hoping to settle where they might be free from all hindrances in following their customs and institutions.
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The earliest mention of "Hooker Amish" I could find in Google Books searches is from Henry Smith, "[Report to the Evangelical Alliance](https://books.google.com/books?id=KGzUAAAAMAAJ&pg=PA586&dq=%22hooker+Amish%22&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwj7xvea_I7MAhUN0WMKHTSiBF8Q6AEILzAE#v=onepage&q=%22hooker%20Amish%22&f=false)," in *The American Presbyterian and Theological Review* (October 1867):
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> The Mennonites, numbering (1858,) 110 churches and 36,280 members ; the Reformed Mennonites, 5,000 members, and the **Hooker** (Amish) Mennonites, are also Baptists. An attempt to unite the Campbellites with the regular Southern Baptists has failed.
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Jonathon Green, [*Cassell's Dictionary of Slang*](https://books.google.com/books?id=5GpLcC4a5fAC&pg=PA734&dq=%22hook+and+eye+dutch%22&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwidvYuK847MAhVC5WMKHbHrCEsQ6AEIKzAB#v=onepage&q=%22hook%20and%20eye%20dutch%22&f=false) (2005) offers this relevant entry:
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> **hook-and-eyes** (*also* **hook-and-eye Baptists**, **hook-and-eye Dutch**, **hook-and-eyers**, **hookers**) (late 19C+] (*US*) a nickname for the Amish, whose beliefs forbid them the use of buttons.
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---
***Conclusions***
The earliest instance of \*hookey/hooky" that a Google Books search finds is from 1841, so any source for that slang term must have existed before that year. The phrase "on [one's] own hook" dates to at least 1833, which qualifies it as a possible source—but no published authority supports the notion that it may be the actual source. According to at least two authorities, the phrase "hook Jack" is recorded for the period 1840–1850," so it, too, qualifies. Yet another reference work suggests that *hookey* derives from hook in the sense of "escape." I haven't attempted to trace that usage of *hook*.
The suggestion that *hookey* derives from *Hookies* (a denigrating term for Amish people) is intriguing, but it suffers from the fact that the term *Hookie/Hookey* is not recorded in the sense of "Amish" until fairly late—the earliest Google Books match is from 1965. Earlier dictionaries list "Hook and Eye Baptist" (as early as 1894) "Hook and Eye Dutch" (as early as 1904), and "Hooker" (as early as 1867) as terms referring to Amish people.
But if anything, the presence of those terms in the published record makes the absence of *Hookies/ Hookeys* in the same sense more striking. And even the earliest instance of *Hooker* I could find is from 26 years after the first instance of *hookey* in the "truancy" sense. Ultimately, the argument that *hookey* comes from *Hookies* is unpersuasive, I think, because *Hookies* appears so late in the historical record and because no lexicographer who is or was aware of the hook-and-eye-related pejorative terms for Amish people has considered those terms to be related to truancy *hookey*. | ***UPDATE:*** @Old-School's answer sounds the most plausible (and most interesting), so I've marked it as the accepted answer.
---
Since the phrase has been around [since the mid 1800's](https://books.google.com/ngrams/graph?content=play+hooky%2Cplaying+hooky%2Cplay+hookey%2Cplaying+hookey%2Chook+jack&case_insensitive=on&year_start=1800&year_end=2000&corpus=15&smoothing=3&share=&direct_url=t4%3B%2Cplay%20hooky%3B%2Cc0%3B%2Cs0%3B%3Bplay%20hooky%3B%2Cc0%3B%3BPlay%20hooky%3B%2Cc0%3B.t4%3B%2Cplaying%20hooky%3B%2Cc0%3B%2Cs0%3B%3Bplaying%20hooky%3B%2Cc0%3B%3BPlaying%20hooky%3B%2Cc0%3B%3BPLAYING%20HOOKY%3B%2Cc0%3B%3BPlaying%20Hooky%3B%2Cc0%3B.t4%3B%2Cplay%20hookey%3B%2Cc0%3B%2Cs0%3B%3Bplay%20hookey%3B%2Cc0%3B%3BPlay%20hookey%3B%2Cc0%3B.t4%3B%2Cplaying%20hookey%3B%2Cc0%3B%2Cs0%3B%3Bplaying%20hookey%3B%2Cc0%3B%3BPlaying%20hookey%3B%2Cc0%3B%3BPlaying%20Hookey%3B%2Cc0%3B.t1%3B%2Chook%20Jack%3B%2Cc0) (many sources cite 1848 as its first appearance), it's hard to determine a definitive answer. According to [this site](http://makingheadsortailsofidioms.com/2011/07/31/playing-hooky/), there are a few theories about the origin of the phrase "playing hooky". As an interesting sidenote, in Boston, the phrase "hooking Jack" meant the same thing.
You'll have to decide for yourself which answer is the best. I believe the first two are more likely, but you're welcome to decide differently if you choose (or suggest a theory of your own in a new answer). :)
### Americanism of the Dutch term *hoekje spelen*
*[Although it has no bearing on the correctness of this theory, I like this one the best.]*
Considering the fact that a large amount of the American colonists were Dutch, it is possible that the phrase for skipping school was related to a Dutch phrase for the game of hide-and-seek, *hoekje spelen*. This would certainly apply for students hiding from teachers and authority figures.
### Related to the phrase "hooky-crooky"
[This site](http://www.word-detective.com/back-m.html) has an interesting explanation of this theory. Because a student had to pretend he or she was going to school first and spend the rest of the day avoiding the truancy officer, these acts of deception were referred to as playing "hooky-crooky" (related to "by hook or by crook", an [old English phrase](http://everything2.com/title/By+hook+or+by+crook)).
### Related to the phrase "hook it"
There's also speculation that it is related to the phrase "hook it", which means to escape or run away. This theory is [discredited by some American lexicographers](http://everything2.com/title/Play+hooky) because the phrase "hook it" was allegedly not in use until after 1848. |
238,385 | What does the word "hooky" mean in the phrase "play hooky" (skipping class/truancy) and where did it come from? | 2015/04/09 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/238385",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/72833/"
] | ***Dictionary discussions of 'hookey'***
John Bartlett, [*Dictionary of Americanisms*](https://books.google.com/books?id=NhVAAAAAYAAJ&pg=PA180&dq=%22hookey%22&hl=en&sa=X&ei=6f8mVeT2FsGzogStzIDgCQ&ved=0CEMQ6AEwBzhk#v=onepage&q=%22hookey%22&f=false) (1848) has entries for "hookey" and for a term that I suspect may be very closely related, "on one's own hook". Here they are:
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> ON ONE'S OWN HOOK. A phrase much used in familiar language, denoting on one's own account ; as, 'He is doing business on his own hook,' i. e. for himself.
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> [Example:] The South is determined that its favorite, Mr. Calhoun, shall go into the National Convention as a candidate for the Presidency ; and in case he does not get the nomination, he will run *on his own hook*.—*Newspaper*.
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> Example:] I now resolve to do business entirely alone—to go *on my own hook*. If I get rich, the money will be all mine.—*Perils of Pearl Street*, p. 195
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> ...
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> HOOKEY. To play *hookey* is to play truant. A term used among schoolboys.
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The [second edition of Bartlett](https://books.google.com/books?id=nHgCAAAAQAAJ&pg=PA201&dq=%22hookey%22&hl=en&sa=X&ei=6f8mVeT2FsGzogStzIDgCQ&ved=0CBwQ6AEwADhk#v=onepage&q=%22hookey%22&f=false) (1859) adds to the entry for *hookey* the words "chiefly in the State of New York." Although the 1848 edition of Bartlett has an entry for "by hook or by crook," neither it nor the 1859 edition has anything for "hooky-crooky," which makes that theory of origin less appealing. Bartlett also provides an entry for *hook*, but that entry says simply
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> TO HOOK. To steal. A common vulgarism.
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to which the 1859 edition appends the words "formerly used in England." No doubt running away is a frequent adjunct to stealing, but it appears that *hookey* was already used in U.S. slang before Bartlett showed any awareness of U.S. use of "to hook" in the sense of "to steal."
As for the theory that truant schoolboys were influenced by the Dutch term *hoekje spelen*, it seems rather fanciful; the argument would be more compelling if the kids cutting school were naughty PhD candidates in linguistics. Admittedly, Bartlett's explicit tying of the word *hookey* to New York offers some support for the possibility that the expression is derived from Dutch (as *hoople* was), but I remain skeptical.
It seems far more likely to me that a schoolboy might boast to his schoolmates that he was "going out on his own account [or *going on his own hook*] for the day" and that the wording mutated into "playing hookey."
On the other hand, Kenneth Wilson, [*The Columbia Guide to Standard American English*](https://books.google.com/books?id=l9g3BAAAQBAJ&pg=PA228&dq=%22plurals+are+hookeys+or+hookies%22&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwjV37LRiY_MAhVM7GMKHUNYDHsQ6AEIJzAA#v=onepage&q=%22plurals%20are%20hookeys%20or%20hookies%22&f=false) (1993) has this reading:
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> **hooky, hookey** (n.) is part of an idiom, to play hooky, which means "to be truant, to *hook* {escape} school." Its plurals are *hookeys* or *hookies*, and neither is much used. *Hooky* was once slang, but it has lasted so well that it is now Standard in its idiom.
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And Dick Wilkinson, [*Concise Thesaurus of Traditional English Metaphors*](https://books.google.com/books?id=1z_30jpgkBAC&pg=PA58&dq=%22hook+jack%22&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwj7x-SJgY_MAhUE1mMKHaDbCXc4WhDoAQhKMAg#v=onepage&q=%22hook%20jack%22&f=false) (2013) reports that the phrase "hook Jack" was used in the sense of "play truant" during the period 1840–1850:
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> **Hook Jack** {Amer: 1840-50}/**Play hookey** [Amer]. Play truant. (As/From the above, the sense-connexion being to hook Jack from going to school.)
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Harold Wentworth, *American Dialect Dictionary* (1944) confirms the usage of "hook Jack" listed in Wilkinson:
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> **hook Jack.** To play truant. Cf. **slunk school** [the corresponding term used in Maritimes Canada, circa 1895]. **1840–1850 e[astern] Mass[achusetts] Boston** The current phrase among boys **c.1860 Mass[achusetts] Chelsea** n. phr. = hookey. **1889 Mass[achusetts] Boston** Also 'hook off.' **Before 1892 e[astern] Mass[achusetts] Wellesley** *to play hookey & hook Jack*. **1910–22 cent[ral] N[ew] Y[ork]** Not used.
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***Google Books and Library of Congress matches for 'hookey' and related terms***
The earliest Google Books match for "on his own hook" is from a [letter from Gerrit Smith to Edward Delavan](https://books.google.com/books?id=9GQoAAAAYAAJ&pg=PA41&dq=%22on+his+own+hook%22&hl=en&sa=X&ei=ggUnVdiuHJCYoQTZpICQCA&ved=0CCIQ6AEwATge#v=onepage&q=%22on%20his%20own%20hook%22&f=false) (September 11, 1833), reprinted in "The Intemperate, and the Reformed" (1834):
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> You have heard the story of our countryman at the battle of Yorktown, who, to use his expression, '**fought on his own hook**.' There are some such self poised and independent spirits. But the reformed drunkard, in respect to his conflict with the the temptations of rum, is far from being one of them.
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Another instance occurs in Robert Bird, [*Nick of the Woods, or, The Jibbenainosay: A Tale of Kentucky*](https://books.google.com/books?id=7cxEAQAAMAAJ&pg=PA175&dq=%22he+comes+here+on+his+own+hook%22&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwjFturwxY7MAhUI8mMKHfGiAdYQ6AEIHTAA#v=onepage&q=%22he%20comes%20here%20on%20his%20own%20hook%22&f=false), volume 2 (1837):
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> "It is true," replied Doe, coolly : "but see the difference! When the Piankeshaws were burning him,—or when I thought the dogs were at it,—it was a death of *my* making for him : it was *I* that helped him to the stake. But here the case is altered. He comes here **on his own hook**; the Injuns catch him **on his own hook** ; and, d—n them! they'll burn him **on his own hook**! and so it's no matter of my consarning. There's the root of it."
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The earliest Google Books match for *hookey* in the relevant U.S. sense is from Joseph Field, [*La Déesse, an Elssler-atic Romance*](https://books.google.com/books?id=8gxEAQAAMAAJ&pg=PA6&dq=%22home+and+rule+played+hooky%22&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwiJ2vOkxY7MAhVI6GMKHaFfCQoQ6AEIHDAA#v=onepage&q=%22home%20and%20rule%20played%20hooky%22&f=false) (1841):
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> And oh! how sweet the memory/Of boyish days, when carelessly/We stole away from home and rule,/**Played “hooky,”** and deserted school,/To wander, fancy, fetter free,/Among Pomona's treasures there—/(Heaven, smiling, pass'd the registry—)/To snatch a peach, perhaps a *pair*!
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An instance from [*Merry's Gems of Prose and Poetry*](https://books.google.com/books?id=OaYYAAAAYAAJ&pg=PA217&dq=%22hookie%22&hl=en&sa=X&ei=vwUnVa79MdGzoQSQmIC4CA&ved=0CB4Q6AEwAA#v=onepage&q=%22hookie%22&f=false) (1860) spells the word *hookie*:
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> The Comforts of Playing **Hookie**
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In this vignette (or reminiscence), at least, it appears that "playing hookie" entailed not skipping school but failing to return directly home (as expected) after school. But in other instances from the 1860s, bagging school is definitely part of the delinquency.
Another early instance of hookey in the relevant sense appears in a brief item in the [*New York Daily Tribune*](http://chroniclingamerica.loc.gov/lccn/sn83030213/1845-04-30/ed-1/seq-4/#date1=1836&index=15&rows=20&searchType=advanced&language=&sequence=0&words=hookey&proxdistance=5&date2=1850&ortext=&proxtext=&phrasetext=hookey&andtext=&dateFilterType=yearRange&page=1) (April 30, 1845), reprinted from the *Baltimore [Maryland] Saturday Visiter*:
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> ADVERISEMENT —Mr. Starling respecktfully cautions his patterns and the publick that he is a going to teach a school in this town in the branches of larning and the scholars will find there own books as will be well used except them that plays **hookey** will be licked with the strap—8 cuts for a big boy and 5 cuts for a little one. For further infarmation, inquire of Mr. Pras the sope biler whose darter gut her edication as above.
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The earliest Google Books match for "hook Jack" appears in [*City of Boston. Reports of Truant Officers*](https://books.google.com/books?id=g3nCrCpFxqEC&pg=PA301&dq=%22hook+jack%22&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwi5ju35h4_MAhVR9WMKHS1TDCM4ChDoAQg4MAU#v=onepage&q=%22hook%20jack%22&f=false) (July 1853):
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> The inducements for boys to leave School at this season of the year, such as bathing, boating, going into the country for fruit and berries, are irresistible with many, who never see the beauties of the country, unless they "**hook Jack**," as they term it, during school hours, for they are employed by their parents as soon as they arrive at home, both Wednesday and Saturday afternoons, and their excuses for truancy are numerous just at this time.
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And from Oliver Optic, [*Now Or Never: Or, The Adventures of Bobby Bright*](https://books.google.com/books?id=-w4WAAAAYAAJ&pg=PA12&dq=%22hook+jack%22&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwjwwb2Sho_MAhUHKWMKHfHzA3g4ChDoAQgnMAI#v=onepage&q=%22hook%20jack%22&f=false) (1857):
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> "Didn't you tell me you were '**hooking jack**'?"
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> "Who is going to know any thing about it?"
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> "The master will know you are absent."
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> "I shall tell him my mother sent me over to the village on an errand."
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> "I never knew a fellow to 'hook jack,' yet, without getting found out."
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***Other early nineteenth-century meanings of 'hookey'***
*Hookey* was by no means an unheard-of term in the United States when it began to be applied to truancy. One early instance of *hookey* that doesn't seem to be directly related to the "skip school" sense of the term appears in "[Editor's Correspondence](http://chroniclingamerica.loc.gov/lccn/sn82003410/1846-01-13/ed-1/seq-3/#date1=1836&index=10&rows=20&searchType=advanced&language=&sequence=0&words=Hookey&proxdistance=5&date2=1850&ortext=&proxtext=&phrasetext=hookey&andtext=&dateFilterType=yearRange&page=1)" (written by a correspondent from New York on January 12, 1846), in the [Washington, D.C.] Daily Union (January 13, 1846):
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> *The* "*Bad Enough*" *News."*—This paper has thought proper to criticize my remarks respecting the extent of the trade and commerce of New York, made in a former letter. What does "*The News*" mean? One day it is for peace, and peaceful counsels, and at another time hot for war, and ready to quarrel with a man if he merely says the people of this city have much at stake, but are not less patriotic than the citizens of other portions of the Union. From its repeatedly blowing *hot and cold*, one would suppose it was playing a game of "*Political Blind **Hookey***."
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An early edition of [*Hoyle's Games: Containing the Rules for Playing Fashionable Games*](https://books.google.com/books?id=IEAVAAAAYAAJ&pg=PA4&dq=%22blind+hookey%22&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwi8ktCuzY7MAhVH22MKHRC2AJ0Q6AEIHDAA#v=onepage&q=%22blind%20hookey%22&f=false) (1857) devotes a full page to explaining the rules for playing "Blind Hookey," a simple card game that has elements of blackjack in it. George Smeeton, [*Doings in London; Or, Day and Night Scenes of the Frauds, Frolics, Manners, and Depravities of the Metropolis*](https://books.google.com/books?id=ZxFgAAAAcAAJ&pg=PA338&dq=%22blind+hookey%22&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwi8ktCuzY7MAhVH22MKHRC2AJ0Q6AEISDAI#v=onepage&q=%22blind%20hookey%22&f=false) (1828) mentions this game twice; and [*Professional Anecdotes: or Ana of Medical Literature*](https://books.google.com/books?id=t8oGAAAAcAAJ&pg=PA223&dq=%22blind+hookey%22&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwjsvOm50I7MAhVT3GMKHdrkD0w4FBDoAQgjMAE#v=onepage&q=%22blind%20hookey%22&f=false), volume 2 (published in London in 1823), says that Blind Hookey "is a game venerable for its antiquity." The name *Blind Hookey* thus seems very likely to have originated in England and subsequently crossed over to the United States.
Another usage of *hookey* in early nineteenth century English appears in the phrase "Hookey Walker"—a piece of London slang attested as early as 1811 in Francis Grose, [*Lexicon Balatronicum*](https://books.google.com/books?id=iDsJAAAAQAAJ&pg=PT103&dq=%22an+expression+signifying+that+the+story+is+not+true%22&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwiEi8Th0o7MAhVG5mMKHXBjBhUQ6AEIOzAF#v=onepage&q=%22an%20expression%20signifying%20that%20the%20story%20is%20not%20true%22&f=false) (1811):
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> HOOKEE WALKER. An expression signifying that the story is not true, or that the thing will not occur.
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J.S. Farmer & W.E. Henley, *Slang and Its Analogues*, volume 3 (1893) has this entry for the term:
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> **HOOKEY WALKER!** (or **WALKER!**) *intj.* (common). — Be off! go away. Also implying doubt. ... {BEE: From John Walker, a hook-nosed spy, whose reports were proved to be fabrications.}
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The "Bee" mentioned by Farmer & Henley is Jon Bee, Slang. [*A Dictionary of the Turf, the Ring, the Chase, the Pit, of Bon-ton, and the Varieties of Life*](https://books.google.com/books?id=KKNWAAAAcAAJ&pg=PA99&dq=%22hookey+walker%22&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwiJ6qeN3Y7MAhULwWMKHU9iBi84ChDoAQghMAE#v=onepage&q=%22hookey%20walker%22&f=false) (1823), which offers a thorough account of the expression and accompanying pantomime. Though *Hookey Walker* was an English term, knowledge of it reached the United States. The *[Holly Springs, Mississippi] Guard* (January 12, 1842) devotes space to an excerpt from Charles Mackay, "[Cant Phrases](http://chroniclingamerica.loc.gov/lccn/sn83016785/1842-01-12/ed-1/seq-4/#date1=1836&index=2&rows=20&searchType=advanced&language=&sequence=0&words=Hookey&proxdistance=5&date2=1850&ortext=&proxtext=&phrasetext=hookey&andtext=&dateFilterType=yearRange&page=1)," from his *Memoirs of Popular Delusions*, including this discussion of *Hookey Walker*:
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> *Hookey Walker* derived from the chorus of a popular ballad, was also high in favor at one time, and served, like its predecessor, *Quoz*, to answer all questions. In the course of time the latter word alone became the favorite, and was uttered with a peculiar drawl upon the first syllable, and a sharp turn upon the last.
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***Could 'hookey' have originated from 'Hookies', a pejorative term for Amish people?***
An answer by Old-School (above) asserts that "playing hookie" meant staying at home rather than going to school "like the Amish children." Could that appellation for the Amish be the source of *hookey* in the sense of truancy? Google Books searches for *Hookies* and *Hookeys* turn up a first occurrence in the relevant sense from Peter Schrag, [*Voices in the Classroom: Public Schools and Public Attitudes*](https://books.google.com/books?id=KVhBAAAAIAAJ&q=%22hookeys%22&dq=%22hookeys%22&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwijw8zt7Y7MAhXEKGMKHcqYBXQ4PBDoAQgtMAQ) (1965) [combined snippets]:
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> But Jesup, unlike the Amish, long ago accepted the technology of the modern world, giving up the attempt to be commercially self-sufficient, and thus there is an ironic aspect to its good natured but somewhat condescending references to the "**Hookeys**" (so named for the hooks and eyes on their clothes). The Amish are trying to preserve their culture by rejecting at least part of the surrounding technology.
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Also, from Donald Erickson, [*Public Controls for Nonpublic Schools*](https://books.google.com/books?id=ZMw1ywgbgL8C&q=%22taboo+on+ornaments,+are%22&dq=%22taboo+on+ornaments,+are%22&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwiF9rSR6o7MAhVBzmMKHYNFAC8Q6AEIHDAA) (1969) [combined snippets]:
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> On the way back to Hazleton, however, Snively suggested that "since the **Hookies** pulled a fast one on us, we should pull a fast one on them." (The Amish, who fasten their clothing with hooks and eyes because of a taboo on ornaments, are often called "Hooks" or "**Hookies**." The non-Amish nearby are frequently referred to as "Buttons" or "English.")
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And from Don Locke, [*Increasing Multicultural Understanding: A Comprehensive Model*](https://books.google.com/books?id=jIfResk97qMC&pg=PA46&dq=%22hookies%22&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwjMsqau4I7MAhUD3WMKHeIbCfg4ChDoAQg1MAU#v=onepage&q=%22hookies%22&f=false), second edition (1998):
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> Like other ethnic minorities, the Amish endure verbal affronts as well. In Buchanan County, Iowa, they are often pejoratively called "**hookies**," a term that refers to the Amish use of hooks and eyes instead of buttons.
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Mitford Mathews, *A Dictionary of Americanisms on Historical Principles* (1951) has no entry for *Hookies* or *Hookeys*, but it does have relevant citations for "Hook and Eye Baptists," "Hook and Eye Dutch," and "Hookers":
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> (1) **1898** *Philistine* Feb. 66 The East Aurora Hook & Eye Baptists as yet have not Meeting Houses of their own, holding services every Sunday at the residence of some member. — (2) **1903** *N.Y. Times* 9 Sep., He was a member of the Amish sect, commonly known as the Hook and Eye Dutch, for reason that they wear hooks and eyes in preference to buttons on their clothes. **1947** *Amer[ican] Sp[eech]* Consequently these 'hook and eye Dutch' were often the butt of fun-making by the other school-children.
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and:
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> **1880** *Harper's Mag[azine]* May 810/1 The stricter Mennonites regarded them {sc. buttons}as a worldly innovation, and, adhering to the use of hooks and eyes, were called 'Hookers,' in distinction from the more lax brethren, who were called 'Buttoners.' **1913** *Proc[eedings and Addresses of the] P[ennsylvani]a-Ger[man] Soc[iety]* XXII 82 The inn was the first public house west of Philadelphia, kept by a 'Hooker' Mennonite.
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Google Books finds instances of "Hook and Eye Baptist" as early as a newspaper called the [*Journal and Republican*](https://books.google.com/books?id=tfQpAQAAMAAJ&q=%22hook+and+eye+baptist%22&dq=%22hook+and+eye+baptist%22&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwjNnaPx_Y7MAhUL0WMKHSbqD5oQ6AEIOjAE) of February 15, 1894, quoted in *Strangers and Pilgrims: History of Lewis County [New York] Mennonites* (1987):
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> There is a sect living in this region with some queer ideas, called **Hook and Eye Baptist**, because hooks an eyes are used on all garments instead of buttons.
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Instances of "Hook and Eye Dutch" going back to Federal Writers Project, [*The WPA Guide to Iowa: The Hawkeye State*](https://books.google.com/books?id=PVzpCAAAQBAJ&pg=PT301&dq=%22hook+and+eye+dutch%22&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwidvYuK847MAhVC5WMKHbHrCEsQ6AEIJTAA#v=onepage&q=%22hook%20and%20eye%20dutch%22&f=false) (1938):
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> Right from Independence, on a dirt road, is LITTLETON, 11 *m*., a small settlement of "**Hook and Eye Dutch**." They are a religious sect, in many ways similar to the Mennonites and Amish, fundamentalists in their doctrine, and strict in compliance with it. ... The men wear black clothes, the coats having wide neckbands. In winter the topcoats have capes of elbow length. All fastenings are made by means of hooks and eyes, from which comes the name "**Hook and Eye Dutch**."
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Federal Writers Project, [*The WPA Guide to Oklahoma*](https://books.google.com/books?id=W7DpCAAAQBAJ&pg=PA312&dq=%22hook+and+eye+dutch%22&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwidvYuK847MAhVC5WMKHbHrCEsQ6AEIMTAC#v=onepage&q=%22hook%20and%20eye%20dutch%22&f=false) (1941), however, asserts that the "Hook and Eye Dutch" are indeed Amish:
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> The Amish, popularly called the "**Hook-and-eye Dutch**," first came to America from Holland and Switzerland in the seventeenth century, hoping to settle where they might be free from all hindrances in following their customs and institutions.
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The earliest mention of "Hooker Amish" I could find in Google Books searches is from Henry Smith, "[Report to the Evangelical Alliance](https://books.google.com/books?id=KGzUAAAAMAAJ&pg=PA586&dq=%22hooker+Amish%22&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwj7xvea_I7MAhUN0WMKHTSiBF8Q6AEILzAE#v=onepage&q=%22hooker%20Amish%22&f=false)," in *The American Presbyterian and Theological Review* (October 1867):
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> The Mennonites, numbering (1858,) 110 churches and 36,280 members ; the Reformed Mennonites, 5,000 members, and the **Hooker** (Amish) Mennonites, are also Baptists. An attempt to unite the Campbellites with the regular Southern Baptists has failed.
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Jonathon Green, [*Cassell's Dictionary of Slang*](https://books.google.com/books?id=5GpLcC4a5fAC&pg=PA734&dq=%22hook+and+eye+dutch%22&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwidvYuK847MAhVC5WMKHbHrCEsQ6AEIKzAB#v=onepage&q=%22hook%20and%20eye%20dutch%22&f=false) (2005) offers this relevant entry:
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> **hook-and-eyes** (*also* **hook-and-eye Baptists**, **hook-and-eye Dutch**, **hook-and-eyers**, **hookers**) (late 19C+] (*US*) a nickname for the Amish, whose beliefs forbid them the use of buttons.
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***Conclusions***
The earliest instance of \*hookey/hooky" that a Google Books search finds is from 1841, so any source for that slang term must have existed before that year. The phrase "on [one's] own hook" dates to at least 1833, which qualifies it as a possible source—but no published authority supports the notion that it may be the actual source. According to at least two authorities, the phrase "hook Jack" is recorded for the period 1840–1850," so it, too, qualifies. Yet another reference work suggests that *hookey* derives from hook in the sense of "escape." I haven't attempted to trace that usage of *hook*.
The suggestion that *hookey* derives from *Hookies* (a denigrating term for Amish people) is intriguing, but it suffers from the fact that the term *Hookie/Hookey* is not recorded in the sense of "Amish" until fairly late—the earliest Google Books match is from 1965. Earlier dictionaries list "Hook and Eye Baptist" (as early as 1894) "Hook and Eye Dutch" (as early as 1904), and "Hooker" (as early as 1867) as terms referring to Amish people.
But if anything, the presence of those terms in the published record makes the absence of *Hookies/ Hookeys* in the same sense more striking. And even the earliest instance of *Hooker* I could find is from 26 years after the first instance of *hookey* in the "truancy" sense. Ultimately, the argument that *hookey* comes from *Hookies* is unpersuasive, I think, because *Hookies* appears so late in the historical record and because no lexicographer who is or was aware of the hook-and-eye-related pejorative terms for Amish people has considered those terms to be related to truancy *hookey*. | I was told by my grandparents that at one time the Amish were called "Hookies". This was because they wore "hook and eye" closures instead of zippers. The Amish also didn't attend school. On their way to school children used to taunt the Amish children with phrases such as "lookie lookie, it's a hookie! Run and hide, or give me a cookie". The term "playing hookie" meant that you simply stayed home from school like the Amish children. This wasn't always seen as negative, often farm children would stay home and help out on the farm on days when their parents needed a little extra help. This was also called "playing hookie". |
238,385 | What does the word "hooky" mean in the phrase "play hooky" (skipping class/truancy) and where did it come from? | 2015/04/09 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/238385",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/72833/"
] | ***Dictionary discussions of 'hookey'***
John Bartlett, [*Dictionary of Americanisms*](https://books.google.com/books?id=NhVAAAAAYAAJ&pg=PA180&dq=%22hookey%22&hl=en&sa=X&ei=6f8mVeT2FsGzogStzIDgCQ&ved=0CEMQ6AEwBzhk#v=onepage&q=%22hookey%22&f=false) (1848) has entries for "hookey" and for a term that I suspect may be very closely related, "on one's own hook". Here they are:
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> ON ONE'S OWN HOOK. A phrase much used in familiar language, denoting on one's own account ; as, 'He is doing business on his own hook,' i. e. for himself.
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> [Example:] The South is determined that its favorite, Mr. Calhoun, shall go into the National Convention as a candidate for the Presidency ; and in case he does not get the nomination, he will run *on his own hook*.—*Newspaper*.
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> Example:] I now resolve to do business entirely alone—to go *on my own hook*. If I get rich, the money will be all mine.—*Perils of Pearl Street*, p. 195
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> ...
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> HOOKEY. To play *hookey* is to play truant. A term used among schoolboys.
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The [second edition of Bartlett](https://books.google.com/books?id=nHgCAAAAQAAJ&pg=PA201&dq=%22hookey%22&hl=en&sa=X&ei=6f8mVeT2FsGzogStzIDgCQ&ved=0CBwQ6AEwADhk#v=onepage&q=%22hookey%22&f=false) (1859) adds to the entry for *hookey* the words "chiefly in the State of New York." Although the 1848 edition of Bartlett has an entry for "by hook or by crook," neither it nor the 1859 edition has anything for "hooky-crooky," which makes that theory of origin less appealing. Bartlett also provides an entry for *hook*, but that entry says simply
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> TO HOOK. To steal. A common vulgarism.
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to which the 1859 edition appends the words "formerly used in England." No doubt running away is a frequent adjunct to stealing, but it appears that *hookey* was already used in U.S. slang before Bartlett showed any awareness of U.S. use of "to hook" in the sense of "to steal."
As for the theory that truant schoolboys were influenced by the Dutch term *hoekje spelen*, it seems rather fanciful; the argument would be more compelling if the kids cutting school were naughty PhD candidates in linguistics. Admittedly, Bartlett's explicit tying of the word *hookey* to New York offers some support for the possibility that the expression is derived from Dutch (as *hoople* was), but I remain skeptical.
It seems far more likely to me that a schoolboy might boast to his schoolmates that he was "going out on his own account [or *going on his own hook*] for the day" and that the wording mutated into "playing hookey."
On the other hand, Kenneth Wilson, [*The Columbia Guide to Standard American English*](https://books.google.com/books?id=l9g3BAAAQBAJ&pg=PA228&dq=%22plurals+are+hookeys+or+hookies%22&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwjV37LRiY_MAhVM7GMKHUNYDHsQ6AEIJzAA#v=onepage&q=%22plurals%20are%20hookeys%20or%20hookies%22&f=false) (1993) has this reading:
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> **hooky, hookey** (n.) is part of an idiom, to play hooky, which means "to be truant, to *hook* {escape} school." Its plurals are *hookeys* or *hookies*, and neither is much used. *Hooky* was once slang, but it has lasted so well that it is now Standard in its idiom.
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And Dick Wilkinson, [*Concise Thesaurus of Traditional English Metaphors*](https://books.google.com/books?id=1z_30jpgkBAC&pg=PA58&dq=%22hook+jack%22&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwj7x-SJgY_MAhUE1mMKHaDbCXc4WhDoAQhKMAg#v=onepage&q=%22hook%20jack%22&f=false) (2013) reports that the phrase "hook Jack" was used in the sense of "play truant" during the period 1840–1850:
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> **Hook Jack** {Amer: 1840-50}/**Play hookey** [Amer]. Play truant. (As/From the above, the sense-connexion being to hook Jack from going to school.)
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Harold Wentworth, *American Dialect Dictionary* (1944) confirms the usage of "hook Jack" listed in Wilkinson:
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> **hook Jack.** To play truant. Cf. **slunk school** [the corresponding term used in Maritimes Canada, circa 1895]. **1840–1850 e[astern] Mass[achusetts] Boston** The current phrase among boys **c.1860 Mass[achusetts] Chelsea** n. phr. = hookey. **1889 Mass[achusetts] Boston** Also 'hook off.' **Before 1892 e[astern] Mass[achusetts] Wellesley** *to play hookey & hook Jack*. **1910–22 cent[ral] N[ew] Y[ork]** Not used.
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***Google Books and Library of Congress matches for 'hookey' and related terms***
The earliest Google Books match for "on his own hook" is from a [letter from Gerrit Smith to Edward Delavan](https://books.google.com/books?id=9GQoAAAAYAAJ&pg=PA41&dq=%22on+his+own+hook%22&hl=en&sa=X&ei=ggUnVdiuHJCYoQTZpICQCA&ved=0CCIQ6AEwATge#v=onepage&q=%22on%20his%20own%20hook%22&f=false) (September 11, 1833), reprinted in "The Intemperate, and the Reformed" (1834):
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> You have heard the story of our countryman at the battle of Yorktown, who, to use his expression, '**fought on his own hook**.' There are some such self poised and independent spirits. But the reformed drunkard, in respect to his conflict with the the temptations of rum, is far from being one of them.
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Another instance occurs in Robert Bird, [*Nick of the Woods, or, The Jibbenainosay: A Tale of Kentucky*](https://books.google.com/books?id=7cxEAQAAMAAJ&pg=PA175&dq=%22he+comes+here+on+his+own+hook%22&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwjFturwxY7MAhUI8mMKHfGiAdYQ6AEIHTAA#v=onepage&q=%22he%20comes%20here%20on%20his%20own%20hook%22&f=false), volume 2 (1837):
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> "It is true," replied Doe, coolly : "but see the difference! When the Piankeshaws were burning him,—or when I thought the dogs were at it,—it was a death of *my* making for him : it was *I* that helped him to the stake. But here the case is altered. He comes here **on his own hook**; the Injuns catch him **on his own hook** ; and, d—n them! they'll burn him **on his own hook**! and so it's no matter of my consarning. There's the root of it."
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The earliest Google Books match for *hookey* in the relevant U.S. sense is from Joseph Field, [*La Déesse, an Elssler-atic Romance*](https://books.google.com/books?id=8gxEAQAAMAAJ&pg=PA6&dq=%22home+and+rule+played+hooky%22&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwiJ2vOkxY7MAhVI6GMKHaFfCQoQ6AEIHDAA#v=onepage&q=%22home%20and%20rule%20played%20hooky%22&f=false) (1841):
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> And oh! how sweet the memory/Of boyish days, when carelessly/We stole away from home and rule,/**Played “hooky,”** and deserted school,/To wander, fancy, fetter free,/Among Pomona's treasures there—/(Heaven, smiling, pass'd the registry—)/To snatch a peach, perhaps a *pair*!
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An instance from [*Merry's Gems of Prose and Poetry*](https://books.google.com/books?id=OaYYAAAAYAAJ&pg=PA217&dq=%22hookie%22&hl=en&sa=X&ei=vwUnVa79MdGzoQSQmIC4CA&ved=0CB4Q6AEwAA#v=onepage&q=%22hookie%22&f=false) (1860) spells the word *hookie*:
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> The Comforts of Playing **Hookie**
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In this vignette (or reminiscence), at least, it appears that "playing hookie" entailed not skipping school but failing to return directly home (as expected) after school. But in other instances from the 1860s, bagging school is definitely part of the delinquency.
Another early instance of hookey in the relevant sense appears in a brief item in the [*New York Daily Tribune*](http://chroniclingamerica.loc.gov/lccn/sn83030213/1845-04-30/ed-1/seq-4/#date1=1836&index=15&rows=20&searchType=advanced&language=&sequence=0&words=hookey&proxdistance=5&date2=1850&ortext=&proxtext=&phrasetext=hookey&andtext=&dateFilterType=yearRange&page=1) (April 30, 1845), reprinted from the *Baltimore [Maryland] Saturday Visiter*:
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> ADVERISEMENT —Mr. Starling respecktfully cautions his patterns and the publick that he is a going to teach a school in this town in the branches of larning and the scholars will find there own books as will be well used except them that plays **hookey** will be licked with the strap—8 cuts for a big boy and 5 cuts for a little one. For further infarmation, inquire of Mr. Pras the sope biler whose darter gut her edication as above.
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The earliest Google Books match for "hook Jack" appears in [*City of Boston. Reports of Truant Officers*](https://books.google.com/books?id=g3nCrCpFxqEC&pg=PA301&dq=%22hook+jack%22&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwi5ju35h4_MAhVR9WMKHS1TDCM4ChDoAQg4MAU#v=onepage&q=%22hook%20jack%22&f=false) (July 1853):
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> The inducements for boys to leave School at this season of the year, such as bathing, boating, going into the country for fruit and berries, are irresistible with many, who never see the beauties of the country, unless they "**hook Jack**," as they term it, during school hours, for they are employed by their parents as soon as they arrive at home, both Wednesday and Saturday afternoons, and their excuses for truancy are numerous just at this time.
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And from Oliver Optic, [*Now Or Never: Or, The Adventures of Bobby Bright*](https://books.google.com/books?id=-w4WAAAAYAAJ&pg=PA12&dq=%22hook+jack%22&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwjwwb2Sho_MAhUHKWMKHfHzA3g4ChDoAQgnMAI#v=onepage&q=%22hook%20jack%22&f=false) (1857):
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> "Didn't you tell me you were '**hooking jack**'?"
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> "Who is going to know any thing about it?"
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> "The master will know you are absent."
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> "I shall tell him my mother sent me over to the village on an errand."
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> "I never knew a fellow to 'hook jack,' yet, without getting found out."
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***Other early nineteenth-century meanings of 'hookey'***
*Hookey* was by no means an unheard-of term in the United States when it began to be applied to truancy. One early instance of *hookey* that doesn't seem to be directly related to the "skip school" sense of the term appears in "[Editor's Correspondence](http://chroniclingamerica.loc.gov/lccn/sn82003410/1846-01-13/ed-1/seq-3/#date1=1836&index=10&rows=20&searchType=advanced&language=&sequence=0&words=Hookey&proxdistance=5&date2=1850&ortext=&proxtext=&phrasetext=hookey&andtext=&dateFilterType=yearRange&page=1)" (written by a correspondent from New York on January 12, 1846), in the [Washington, D.C.] Daily Union (January 13, 1846):
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> *The* "*Bad Enough*" *News."*—This paper has thought proper to criticize my remarks respecting the extent of the trade and commerce of New York, made in a former letter. What does "*The News*" mean? One day it is for peace, and peaceful counsels, and at another time hot for war, and ready to quarrel with a man if he merely says the people of this city have much at stake, but are not less patriotic than the citizens of other portions of the Union. From its repeatedly blowing *hot and cold*, one would suppose it was playing a game of "*Political Blind **Hookey***."
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An early edition of [*Hoyle's Games: Containing the Rules for Playing Fashionable Games*](https://books.google.com/books?id=IEAVAAAAYAAJ&pg=PA4&dq=%22blind+hookey%22&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwi8ktCuzY7MAhVH22MKHRC2AJ0Q6AEIHDAA#v=onepage&q=%22blind%20hookey%22&f=false) (1857) devotes a full page to explaining the rules for playing "Blind Hookey," a simple card game that has elements of blackjack in it. George Smeeton, [*Doings in London; Or, Day and Night Scenes of the Frauds, Frolics, Manners, and Depravities of the Metropolis*](https://books.google.com/books?id=ZxFgAAAAcAAJ&pg=PA338&dq=%22blind+hookey%22&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwi8ktCuzY7MAhVH22MKHRC2AJ0Q6AEISDAI#v=onepage&q=%22blind%20hookey%22&f=false) (1828) mentions this game twice; and [*Professional Anecdotes: or Ana of Medical Literature*](https://books.google.com/books?id=t8oGAAAAcAAJ&pg=PA223&dq=%22blind+hookey%22&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwjsvOm50I7MAhVT3GMKHdrkD0w4FBDoAQgjMAE#v=onepage&q=%22blind%20hookey%22&f=false), volume 2 (published in London in 1823), says that Blind Hookey "is a game venerable for its antiquity." The name *Blind Hookey* thus seems very likely to have originated in England and subsequently crossed over to the United States.
Another usage of *hookey* in early nineteenth century English appears in the phrase "Hookey Walker"—a piece of London slang attested as early as 1811 in Francis Grose, [*Lexicon Balatronicum*](https://books.google.com/books?id=iDsJAAAAQAAJ&pg=PT103&dq=%22an+expression+signifying+that+the+story+is+not+true%22&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwiEi8Th0o7MAhVG5mMKHXBjBhUQ6AEIOzAF#v=onepage&q=%22an%20expression%20signifying%20that%20the%20story%20is%20not%20true%22&f=false) (1811):
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> HOOKEE WALKER. An expression signifying that the story is not true, or that the thing will not occur.
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J.S. Farmer & W.E. Henley, *Slang and Its Analogues*, volume 3 (1893) has this entry for the term:
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> **HOOKEY WALKER!** (or **WALKER!**) *intj.* (common). — Be off! go away. Also implying doubt. ... {BEE: From John Walker, a hook-nosed spy, whose reports were proved to be fabrications.}
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The "Bee" mentioned by Farmer & Henley is Jon Bee, Slang. [*A Dictionary of the Turf, the Ring, the Chase, the Pit, of Bon-ton, and the Varieties of Life*](https://books.google.com/books?id=KKNWAAAAcAAJ&pg=PA99&dq=%22hookey+walker%22&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwiJ6qeN3Y7MAhULwWMKHU9iBi84ChDoAQghMAE#v=onepage&q=%22hookey%20walker%22&f=false) (1823), which offers a thorough account of the expression and accompanying pantomime. Though *Hookey Walker* was an English term, knowledge of it reached the United States. The *[Holly Springs, Mississippi] Guard* (January 12, 1842) devotes space to an excerpt from Charles Mackay, "[Cant Phrases](http://chroniclingamerica.loc.gov/lccn/sn83016785/1842-01-12/ed-1/seq-4/#date1=1836&index=2&rows=20&searchType=advanced&language=&sequence=0&words=Hookey&proxdistance=5&date2=1850&ortext=&proxtext=&phrasetext=hookey&andtext=&dateFilterType=yearRange&page=1)," from his *Memoirs of Popular Delusions*, including this discussion of *Hookey Walker*:
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> *Hookey Walker* derived from the chorus of a popular ballad, was also high in favor at one time, and served, like its predecessor, *Quoz*, to answer all questions. In the course of time the latter word alone became the favorite, and was uttered with a peculiar drawl upon the first syllable, and a sharp turn upon the last.
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***Could 'hookey' have originated from 'Hookies', a pejorative term for Amish people?***
An answer by Old-School (above) asserts that "playing hookie" meant staying at home rather than going to school "like the Amish children." Could that appellation for the Amish be the source of *hookey* in the sense of truancy? Google Books searches for *Hookies* and *Hookeys* turn up a first occurrence in the relevant sense from Peter Schrag, [*Voices in the Classroom: Public Schools and Public Attitudes*](https://books.google.com/books?id=KVhBAAAAIAAJ&q=%22hookeys%22&dq=%22hookeys%22&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwijw8zt7Y7MAhXEKGMKHcqYBXQ4PBDoAQgtMAQ) (1965) [combined snippets]:
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> But Jesup, unlike the Amish, long ago accepted the technology of the modern world, giving up the attempt to be commercially self-sufficient, and thus there is an ironic aspect to its good natured but somewhat condescending references to the "**Hookeys**" (so named for the hooks and eyes on their clothes). The Amish are trying to preserve their culture by rejecting at least part of the surrounding technology.
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Also, from Donald Erickson, [*Public Controls for Nonpublic Schools*](https://books.google.com/books?id=ZMw1ywgbgL8C&q=%22taboo+on+ornaments,+are%22&dq=%22taboo+on+ornaments,+are%22&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwiF9rSR6o7MAhVBzmMKHYNFAC8Q6AEIHDAA) (1969) [combined snippets]:
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> On the way back to Hazleton, however, Snively suggested that "since the **Hookies** pulled a fast one on us, we should pull a fast one on them." (The Amish, who fasten their clothing with hooks and eyes because of a taboo on ornaments, are often called "Hooks" or "**Hookies**." The non-Amish nearby are frequently referred to as "Buttons" or "English.")
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And from Don Locke, [*Increasing Multicultural Understanding: A Comprehensive Model*](https://books.google.com/books?id=jIfResk97qMC&pg=PA46&dq=%22hookies%22&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwjMsqau4I7MAhUD3WMKHeIbCfg4ChDoAQg1MAU#v=onepage&q=%22hookies%22&f=false), second edition (1998):
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> Like other ethnic minorities, the Amish endure verbal affronts as well. In Buchanan County, Iowa, they are often pejoratively called "**hookies**," a term that refers to the Amish use of hooks and eyes instead of buttons.
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>
>
Mitford Mathews, *A Dictionary of Americanisms on Historical Principles* (1951) has no entry for *Hookies* or *Hookeys*, but it does have relevant citations for "Hook and Eye Baptists," "Hook and Eye Dutch," and "Hookers":
>
> (1) **1898** *Philistine* Feb. 66 The East Aurora Hook & Eye Baptists as yet have not Meeting Houses of their own, holding services every Sunday at the residence of some member. — (2) **1903** *N.Y. Times* 9 Sep., He was a member of the Amish sect, commonly known as the Hook and Eye Dutch, for reason that they wear hooks and eyes in preference to buttons on their clothes. **1947** *Amer[ican] Sp[eech]* Consequently these 'hook and eye Dutch' were often the butt of fun-making by the other school-children.
>
>
>
and:
>
> **1880** *Harper's Mag[azine]* May 810/1 The stricter Mennonites regarded them {sc. buttons}as a worldly innovation, and, adhering to the use of hooks and eyes, were called 'Hookers,' in distinction from the more lax brethren, who were called 'Buttoners.' **1913** *Proc[eedings and Addresses of the] P[ennsylvani]a-Ger[man] Soc[iety]* XXII 82 The inn was the first public house west of Philadelphia, kept by a 'Hooker' Mennonite.
>
>
>
Google Books finds instances of "Hook and Eye Baptist" as early as a newspaper called the [*Journal and Republican*](https://books.google.com/books?id=tfQpAQAAMAAJ&q=%22hook+and+eye+baptist%22&dq=%22hook+and+eye+baptist%22&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwjNnaPx_Y7MAhUL0WMKHSbqD5oQ6AEIOjAE) of February 15, 1894, quoted in *Strangers and Pilgrims: History of Lewis County [New York] Mennonites* (1987):
>
> There is a sect living in this region with some queer ideas, called **Hook and Eye Baptist**, because hooks an eyes are used on all garments instead of buttons.
>
>
>
Instances of "Hook and Eye Dutch" going back to Federal Writers Project, [*The WPA Guide to Iowa: The Hawkeye State*](https://books.google.com/books?id=PVzpCAAAQBAJ&pg=PT301&dq=%22hook+and+eye+dutch%22&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwidvYuK847MAhVC5WMKHbHrCEsQ6AEIJTAA#v=onepage&q=%22hook%20and%20eye%20dutch%22&f=false) (1938):
>
> Right from Independence, on a dirt road, is LITTLETON, 11 *m*., a small settlement of "**Hook and Eye Dutch**." They are a religious sect, in many ways similar to the Mennonites and Amish, fundamentalists in their doctrine, and strict in compliance with it. ... The men wear black clothes, the coats having wide neckbands. In winter the topcoats have capes of elbow length. All fastenings are made by means of hooks and eyes, from which comes the name "**Hook and Eye Dutch**."
>
>
>
Federal Writers Project, [*The WPA Guide to Oklahoma*](https://books.google.com/books?id=W7DpCAAAQBAJ&pg=PA312&dq=%22hook+and+eye+dutch%22&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwidvYuK847MAhVC5WMKHbHrCEsQ6AEIMTAC#v=onepage&q=%22hook%20and%20eye%20dutch%22&f=false) (1941), however, asserts that the "Hook and Eye Dutch" are indeed Amish:
>
> The Amish, popularly called the "**Hook-and-eye Dutch**," first came to America from Holland and Switzerland in the seventeenth century, hoping to settle where they might be free from all hindrances in following their customs and institutions.
>
>
>
The earliest mention of "Hooker Amish" I could find in Google Books searches is from Henry Smith, "[Report to the Evangelical Alliance](https://books.google.com/books?id=KGzUAAAAMAAJ&pg=PA586&dq=%22hooker+Amish%22&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwj7xvea_I7MAhUN0WMKHTSiBF8Q6AEILzAE#v=onepage&q=%22hooker%20Amish%22&f=false)," in *The American Presbyterian and Theological Review* (October 1867):
>
> The Mennonites, numbering (1858,) 110 churches and 36,280 members ; the Reformed Mennonites, 5,000 members, and the **Hooker** (Amish) Mennonites, are also Baptists. An attempt to unite the Campbellites with the regular Southern Baptists has failed.
>
>
>
Jonathon Green, [*Cassell's Dictionary of Slang*](https://books.google.com/books?id=5GpLcC4a5fAC&pg=PA734&dq=%22hook+and+eye+dutch%22&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwidvYuK847MAhVC5WMKHbHrCEsQ6AEIKzAB#v=onepage&q=%22hook%20and%20eye%20dutch%22&f=false) (2005) offers this relevant entry:
>
> **hook-and-eyes** (*also* **hook-and-eye Baptists**, **hook-and-eye Dutch**, **hook-and-eyers**, **hookers**) (late 19C+] (*US*) a nickname for the Amish, whose beliefs forbid them the use of buttons.
>
>
>
---
***Conclusions***
The earliest instance of \*hookey/hooky" that a Google Books search finds is from 1841, so any source for that slang term must have existed before that year. The phrase "on [one's] own hook" dates to at least 1833, which qualifies it as a possible source—but no published authority supports the notion that it may be the actual source. According to at least two authorities, the phrase "hook Jack" is recorded for the period 1840–1850," so it, too, qualifies. Yet another reference work suggests that *hookey* derives from hook in the sense of "escape." I haven't attempted to trace that usage of *hook*.
The suggestion that *hookey* derives from *Hookies* (a denigrating term for Amish people) is intriguing, but it suffers from the fact that the term *Hookie/Hookey* is not recorded in the sense of "Amish" until fairly late—the earliest Google Books match is from 1965. Earlier dictionaries list "Hook and Eye Baptist" (as early as 1894) "Hook and Eye Dutch" (as early as 1904), and "Hooker" (as early as 1867) as terms referring to Amish people.
But if anything, the presence of those terms in the published record makes the absence of *Hookies/ Hookeys* in the same sense more striking. And even the earliest instance of *Hooker* I could find is from 26 years after the first instance of *hookey* in the "truancy" sense. Ultimately, the argument that *hookey* comes from *Hookies* is unpersuasive, I think, because *Hookies* appears so late in the historical record and because no lexicographer who is or was aware of the hook-and-eye-related pejorative terms for Amish people has considered those terms to be related to truancy *hookey*. | My father, born in 1914 in Ohio and lived in and around Detroit had told me that ***playing hooky*** was in reference to kids not going to school and going fishing instead. Boys my dad's age would carry hooks and string to school in case they had a chance to go fishing. If they got caught at school with this they told school officials that it was a game called ***Hooky.*** (using the hook and string to snag small wads of paper) So, ***Playing Hooky*** was a code between the boys meaning lets leave school and go fishing. |
36,195,230 | Please help me to protect access to APP Services (Api APP) in Azure from outside . **I need to disable external IP**. I have Web App which should be available for everyone and API APP which should be available for WEB but **unavailable** for others.
Thanks,
Mykola | 2016/03/24 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/36195230",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/6108182/"
] | You cannot really disable the external IP address of an WebApp.
There are various ways you can **protect** the API App.
First way is to protect it using Azure AD Bearer Token authentication. Check this sample here: <https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/documentation/articles/active-directory-devquickstarts-webapi-dotnet/>
Once protected, you can use [ADAL](https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/documentation/articles/active-directory-authentication-libraries/) on your code behind to get token to call the API.
Here however I would raise the question - how do you think your web app will communicate with the Web API? Via JavaScript in the browser, or from the Code Behind. Because if you to call your Web API from in-browser JavaScript, then your question makes no sense! Because effectivly every user will need an access to your API in order the JavaScript to make the call!
Another way would be to create an App Service Environment for your API (rather costly for what you want to achieve). You can then put this App Service Environment into a Subnet of Virtual Network. You put your Web App into anotwer Web App Service plan and connect this to the same Virtual Network. **Then you define such network security group, that you permit only internal access to your App Service environment.**
At the end, I really doubt you want to disable Internet Access to your Web API. You just want to protect it, and IP Address filtering is not the best way to protect Web APIs. | In addition to the AD bearer token already suggested, you could use a client certificate or a simple shared secret using HTTP Basic Authentication. |
47,834,297 | The softmax cross-entropy with logits loss function is used to reduce the difference between the logits and labels provided to the function. Typically, the labels are fixed for supervised learning and the logits are adapted. But what happens when the labels come from a differentiable source, e.g., another network? Do both networks, i.e., the "logits network" and the "labels network" get trained by the subsequent optimizer, or does this loss function always treat the labels as fixed?
TLDR: Does tf.nn.softmax\_cross\_entropy\_with\_logits() also provide gradients for the labels (if they are differentiable), or are they always considered fixed?
Thanks! | 2017/12/15 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/47834297",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/6621268/"
] | You need to use tf.softmax\_cross\_entropy\_with\_logits\_v2 to get gradients with respect to labels. | The gradient is calculated from loss provided to the optimizer, if the "labels" are coming from another trainable network, then yes, these will be modified, since they influence the loss. The correct way of using another networks outputs for your own is to define it as untrainable, or make a list of all variables you want to train and pass them to the optimizer explicitly. |
2,022,336 | I have downloaded facebook-java-api-3.0.2-bin from
<http://code.google.com/p/facebook-java-api/>
for connecting to face book.I want to use this api in my java application to connect Facebook.I am developing a desktop application for this purpose.I have created account on Face book and registered as a developer.
Is it possible to connect Facebook from my java application?
If yes please, can some one send me the example code for that and treat me as a New Bee in this facebook integration?
Thanks in advance. | 2010/01/07 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2022336",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/160577/"
] | Have you tried out the various examples available in the api wiki?
<http://code.google.com/p/facebook-java-api/wiki/Examples>
Google also returns various tutorial pages:
<http://programmaremobile.blogspot.com/2009/01/facebook-java-apieng.html>
<http://www.socialjava.com/socialjavastepbystep.html>
You should try working through some of these and posting specific questions about problems you run into. | Note that the facebook-java-api project is now dead.
Use instead:
<http://restfb.com/> |
3,962,169 | I have a file which contains around 10 million rows and size is around 400mb , my system is just not able to handle it . when i try opening the file using gedit , it just gets stuck . Is there any way to handle such large files of data. | 2010/10/18 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3962169",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/405442/"
] | A web based great utility that can handle large file is Google Refine Tool.
You can find <https://code.google.com/p/google-refine/wiki/FaqAllocateMoreMemory> [details for memory allocation] | Split them using the gnu (cygwin on Windows) head, tail or cut utilities. Then do work on the file parts. |
3,962,169 | I have a file which contains around 10 million rows and size is around 400mb , my system is just not able to handle it . when i try opening the file using gedit , it just gets stuck . Is there any way to handle such large files of data. | 2010/10/18 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3962169",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/405442/"
] | A web based great utility that can handle large file is Google Refine Tool.
You can find <https://code.google.com/p/google-refine/wiki/FaqAllocateMoreMemory> [details for memory allocation] | A great utility for Windows is [Large Text Viewer](http://www.swiftgear.com/ltfviewer/features.html)
I was able to open a file over 4GB in size. |
80,491 | I was making a project with Arduino Uno ,
It's working is like this it connects to a key pad and a 7segment display ,and when you press a run button connected to Arduino it should run the code written.
I don't want code for display and keypad but for executing a string like we can do in python- **exec("print (8)")**
Please help me and ask any information you need to solve it | 2020/12/31 | [
"https://arduino.stackexchange.com/questions/80491",
"https://arduino.stackexchange.com",
"https://arduino.stackexchange.com/users/71342/"
] | Unless you want to implement some form of scripting engine, you can't.
Arduino code is compiled code, not interpreted code. There is no way of converting text into runnable code, since that is done by your computer at compile time, not by the Arduino at run-time.
The only thing you could possibly do is write some form of scripting engine which reads text and interprets it in some meaningful way to perform operations. That is not a trivial task, so you have to ask yourself: is this *really* what you want to do? Are you going about tackling your problem in the right way? | As stated in Majenko's answer, you would need an interpreter running on
the Arduino. Python is too large to run on an Uno, although [it can run
on some more powerful microcontrollers](https://micropython.org/).
A Web search for Arduino interpreters yields quite a few promising
options. I have not tested any of them:
* [Firmata](https://github.com/firmata/arduino)
* [Forth](https://flashforth.com/)
* another [Forth-ish language](https://github.com/tschaer/tofish)
* [Lisp](http://www.ulisp.com/)
* [BASIC](https://github.com/robinhedwards/ArduinoBASIC)
* a [C-like language](https://n.mtng.org/ele/arduino/iarduino.html)
The Forth language is quite popular when you need an interpreter with
minimal footprint. |
15,770 | I was trying to reverse engineer an android ndk (arm) using ida pro on a static analysis. However, it appears there are a lot of useless jumps to the same place and with random values set to R1 to compare and jump again. Like the following picture. Nearly every function is doing something similar -- Initialization first (stuffs like push registers), then it jumps to code somewhere (like the right up corner of the picture), load random values to R1 register and compare it with R0 and do the jumps, but it will always jump back to the up corner again
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/NzXbP.jpg)
Here is another case, it seems loc\_FFBA and it's following branches serve as a big switch, but what doesn't make sense is nearly every branch will eventually jump back to loc\_FFBA again. There can be a flow red->green->blue->red, but it doesn't even make sense... You can see the jump in blue is even useless because if it takes jump to blue (R0>0x6fe5e521), it will definitely take the jump to the red (R0>0x661cf941)...
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/nuCQC.jpg)
My question is, is this done intentionally by the author to prevent the reverse engineering? If so how is it achieved? For me, it sounds like the author will need a lot of if-else and goto clause in his C++ code, but that will also slow down the development because he may confuse himself... And it doesn't seem the .so ndk is packed, since by using a debugger, I found generally what it actually does is just to decode a resource file to an apk and load it dynamically, but all the decryption is done by calling JNI functions to do an AES decryption to load the APK, rather than do it in C++, so the messed up jumps seems not to be something related to the decryption either...
Maybe there's some kind of compiler that will generate the junks if this is really an intentional obfuscation? | 2017/07/06 | [
"https://reverseengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/15770",
"https://reverseengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://reverseengineering.stackexchange.com/users/20811/"
] | Unfortunately it is not enough code to say exactly what it is, but,
as @0xec said, it looks very much like control flow flattening.
Usually such kind of code transformations are done automatically with obfuscators.
There are some obfuscating compilers, and [one of them](https://github.com/obfuscator-llvm/obfuscator/wiki) does [CFG flattening](https://github.com/obfuscator-llvm/obfuscator/wiki/Control-Flow-Flattening). As far as I know this compiler is not one-of-a-kind, there are a lot of others. This specific obfuscating compiler is based on [LLVM framework](https://llvm.org) and if you want to see how it can be implemented - the code for the CFG flattening is [here](https://github.com/obfuscator-llvm/obfuscator/blob/llvm-4.0/lib/Transforms/Obfuscation/Flattening.cpp). Also, you can find an example on how to deobfuscate small programs [here](https://blog.quarkslab.com/deobfuscation-recovering-an-ollvm-protected-program.html). | Here's a blog post describing this technique in a little more detail as well as some hints on how to undo it:
<https://blog.quarkslab.com/deobfuscation-recovering-an-ollvm-protected-program.html>
**EDIT**
Another article from 2017:
<https://blog.rpis.ec/2017/12/dissection-llvm-obfuscator-p1.html> |
15,770 | I was trying to reverse engineer an android ndk (arm) using ida pro on a static analysis. However, it appears there are a lot of useless jumps to the same place and with random values set to R1 to compare and jump again. Like the following picture. Nearly every function is doing something similar -- Initialization first (stuffs like push registers), then it jumps to code somewhere (like the right up corner of the picture), load random values to R1 register and compare it with R0 and do the jumps, but it will always jump back to the up corner again
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/NzXbP.jpg)
Here is another case, it seems loc\_FFBA and it's following branches serve as a big switch, but what doesn't make sense is nearly every branch will eventually jump back to loc\_FFBA again. There can be a flow red->green->blue->red, but it doesn't even make sense... You can see the jump in blue is even useless because if it takes jump to blue (R0>0x6fe5e521), it will definitely take the jump to the red (R0>0x661cf941)...
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/nuCQC.jpg)
My question is, is this done intentionally by the author to prevent the reverse engineering? If so how is it achieved? For me, it sounds like the author will need a lot of if-else and goto clause in his C++ code, but that will also slow down the development because he may confuse himself... And it doesn't seem the .so ndk is packed, since by using a debugger, I found generally what it actually does is just to decode a resource file to an apk and load it dynamically, but all the decryption is done by calling JNI functions to do an AES decryption to load the APK, rather than do it in C++, so the messed up jumps seems not to be something related to the decryption either...
Maybe there's some kind of compiler that will generate the junks if this is really an intentional obfuscation? | 2017/07/06 | [
"https://reverseengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/15770",
"https://reverseengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://reverseengineering.stackexchange.com/users/20811/"
] | Unfortunately it is not enough code to say exactly what it is, but,
as @0xec said, it looks very much like control flow flattening.
Usually such kind of code transformations are done automatically with obfuscators.
There are some obfuscating compilers, and [one of them](https://github.com/obfuscator-llvm/obfuscator/wiki) does [CFG flattening](https://github.com/obfuscator-llvm/obfuscator/wiki/Control-Flow-Flattening). As far as I know this compiler is not one-of-a-kind, there are a lot of others. This specific obfuscating compiler is based on [LLVM framework](https://llvm.org) and if you want to see how it can be implemented - the code for the CFG flattening is [here](https://github.com/obfuscator-llvm/obfuscator/blob/llvm-4.0/lib/Transforms/Obfuscation/Flattening.cpp). Also, you can find an example on how to deobfuscate small programs [here](https://blog.quarkslab.com/deobfuscation-recovering-an-ollvm-protected-program.html). | **There are several method of obfuscation**, including:
* obfuscation based on source code obfuscation.
* meta-level based code obfuscation (compile-time level).
* IR level obfuscation (like OLLVM and etc).
* binary level obfuscation (instructions morphing, shuffling and etc).
* packing/protection level obfuscation (which involves using external tools to protect the binary code and restore it while executing).
* compilation of these methods.
**Each of these methods has its own advantages and disadvantages**:
For example
* Compile-time level obfuscation can be difficult to control and debug.
* While Binary level of obfuscation can leave many signs of obfuscation such as changed opcode sequences and abnormal constructions.
* IR level obfuscators can also leave many signs of obfuscation and can be easily deobfuscated with automatic or semi-automatic tools.
* Packing/protection level obfuscation may easily be deobfuscated\unpacked with automatic tools too and protected binary will be restored as original one.
Here I want to stop on code level obfuscation and transformation.
Yes, when it comes to code level obfuscation and transformation, parsing and handling the code of all C/C++ languages (including ISO versions such as C17+) is a complex task.
Processing transformation passes at the source code level can also be challenging.
However, if done correctly, code level obfuscation can provide many benefits. For example, mixing dummy generated code with the original code can protect against automatic deobfuscation.
Adding powerful opaque predicates with complex precalculation can also protect against auto tracing and code simplify tools. Protecting strings, values, and expressions at the source level is also valuable. Additionally, the control flow of the code can be shuffled without changing the logic through techniques such as while/goto jumps or conditional if blocks.
But we should remember about code optimization by complier phase and prepare code obfuscation passes with mind of how to avoid optimization of protected code.
So, code level obfuscation and transformation can be a powerful tool for protecting code against reverse engineering and tampering attacks. However, it is important to carefully consider the pros and cons of each method and to design the obfuscation passes with an understanding of how they will be affected by compiler optimization. By doing so, it is possible to effectively protect code and safeguard intellectual property.
At RandomBlocks Lab, we use code level obfuscation in our CodeMorpher C/C++ Code Obfuscator to protect our customers' code. We leverage the power of the Clang parser and our own techniques and transformation passes to ensure the highest level of protection. Our team of experts has extensive experience in code obfuscation and is committed to helping our customers safeguard their intellectual property. If you are looking to protect your C/C++ code, we encourage you to give our CodeMorpher Obfuscator a try.
We believe it is the most effective solution available for code level obfuscation. |
15,770 | I was trying to reverse engineer an android ndk (arm) using ida pro on a static analysis. However, it appears there are a lot of useless jumps to the same place and with random values set to R1 to compare and jump again. Like the following picture. Nearly every function is doing something similar -- Initialization first (stuffs like push registers), then it jumps to code somewhere (like the right up corner of the picture), load random values to R1 register and compare it with R0 and do the jumps, but it will always jump back to the up corner again
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/NzXbP.jpg)
Here is another case, it seems loc\_FFBA and it's following branches serve as a big switch, but what doesn't make sense is nearly every branch will eventually jump back to loc\_FFBA again. There can be a flow red->green->blue->red, but it doesn't even make sense... You can see the jump in blue is even useless because if it takes jump to blue (R0>0x6fe5e521), it will definitely take the jump to the red (R0>0x661cf941)...
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/nuCQC.jpg)
My question is, is this done intentionally by the author to prevent the reverse engineering? If so how is it achieved? For me, it sounds like the author will need a lot of if-else and goto clause in his C++ code, but that will also slow down the development because he may confuse himself... And it doesn't seem the .so ndk is packed, since by using a debugger, I found generally what it actually does is just to decode a resource file to an apk and load it dynamically, but all the decryption is done by calling JNI functions to do an AES decryption to load the APK, rather than do it in C++, so the messed up jumps seems not to be something related to the decryption either...
Maybe there's some kind of compiler that will generate the junks if this is really an intentional obfuscation? | 2017/07/06 | [
"https://reverseengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/15770",
"https://reverseengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://reverseengineering.stackexchange.com/users/20811/"
] | Here's a blog post describing this technique in a little more detail as well as some hints on how to undo it:
<https://blog.quarkslab.com/deobfuscation-recovering-an-ollvm-protected-program.html>
**EDIT**
Another article from 2017:
<https://blog.rpis.ec/2017/12/dissection-llvm-obfuscator-p1.html> | **There are several method of obfuscation**, including:
* obfuscation based on source code obfuscation.
* meta-level based code obfuscation (compile-time level).
* IR level obfuscation (like OLLVM and etc).
* binary level obfuscation (instructions morphing, shuffling and etc).
* packing/protection level obfuscation (which involves using external tools to protect the binary code and restore it while executing).
* compilation of these methods.
**Each of these methods has its own advantages and disadvantages**:
For example
* Compile-time level obfuscation can be difficult to control and debug.
* While Binary level of obfuscation can leave many signs of obfuscation such as changed opcode sequences and abnormal constructions.
* IR level obfuscators can also leave many signs of obfuscation and can be easily deobfuscated with automatic or semi-automatic tools.
* Packing/protection level obfuscation may easily be deobfuscated\unpacked with automatic tools too and protected binary will be restored as original one.
Here I want to stop on code level obfuscation and transformation.
Yes, when it comes to code level obfuscation and transformation, parsing and handling the code of all C/C++ languages (including ISO versions such as C17+) is a complex task.
Processing transformation passes at the source code level can also be challenging.
However, if done correctly, code level obfuscation can provide many benefits. For example, mixing dummy generated code with the original code can protect against automatic deobfuscation.
Adding powerful opaque predicates with complex precalculation can also protect against auto tracing and code simplify tools. Protecting strings, values, and expressions at the source level is also valuable. Additionally, the control flow of the code can be shuffled without changing the logic through techniques such as while/goto jumps or conditional if blocks.
But we should remember about code optimization by complier phase and prepare code obfuscation passes with mind of how to avoid optimization of protected code.
So, code level obfuscation and transformation can be a powerful tool for protecting code against reverse engineering and tampering attacks. However, it is important to carefully consider the pros and cons of each method and to design the obfuscation passes with an understanding of how they will be affected by compiler optimization. By doing so, it is possible to effectively protect code and safeguard intellectual property.
At RandomBlocks Lab, we use code level obfuscation in our CodeMorpher C/C++ Code Obfuscator to protect our customers' code. We leverage the power of the Clang parser and our own techniques and transformation passes to ensure the highest level of protection. Our team of experts has extensive experience in code obfuscation and is committed to helping our customers safeguard their intellectual property. If you are looking to protect your C/C++ code, we encourage you to give our CodeMorpher Obfuscator a try.
We believe it is the most effective solution available for code level obfuscation. |
372,343 | I've set up a small hardcore Minecraft server for me and some friends. There aren't many of us, and what we really want out of the hardcore mode is that as soon as anyone dies, the whole world gets deleted and the server restarts from scratch.
At the moment, the dead players go into spectator mode, and it's kinda boring. I'd rather everyone be able to play all the time, just that when someone dies it's an "awwwwwww" moment for everyone, if you get my meaning :)
Is it possible to do this? I've googled frantically but all I can find is people trying NOT to lose their hardcore worlds... which is the opposite of what I want >\_> | 2020/07/10 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/372343",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/254528/"
] | You can go back to life in hardcore. Find a way to turn on cheats. If on singleplayer, open to LAN. If on multiplayer, find another way to do so. (I will edit when I find out how). Then, set your gamemode to survival. Using this, you can have infinite lives on hardcore. | You can technically see when a player dies. When any player dies, you can quit and delete the world. Then, recreate the world using the same seed. |
33,906,487 | I have generated my xml coverage file as part of CI build on the TFS server using vNext 2015 build definition. How would one display the results in the TFS 2015 summary ? Either using the xml report or the html generated using the ReportGenerator. | 2015/11/25 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/33906487",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/245189/"
] | Currently, these customizations are not supported. You can't edit the displays in new build summary. However, you can [customize Code Coverage Analysis](https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj159530.aspx).
>
> You can submit it to User Voice site at:
> <http://visualstudio.uservoice.com/forums/121579-visual-studio>
>
>
> | Instead of using OpenCover extension, it is very convenience for you to generate code coverage result and include it in the build summary page this way:
Select the Visual Studio Test step, check the **Code Coverage Enabled** option.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/uA12S.png)
Then, the code coverage result shows on the build summary page:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/hJr6G.png) |
33,906,487 | I have generated my xml coverage file as part of CI build on the TFS server using vNext 2015 build definition. How would one display the results in the TFS 2015 summary ? Either using the xml report or the html generated using the ReportGenerator. | 2015/11/25 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/33906487",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/245189/"
] | In “TFS 2015 - Update 2” this is possible by writing your own vsts extension (see here: <https://www.visualstudio.com/en-us/docs/integrate/extensions/overview> ).
I set up my own 'learning project' for building this as .vsix here: <https://github.com/RobertK66/vsts-opencover>.
My custom build step uses nunit3 console runner to execute tests under opencover.
I managed to upload the OpenCover xml result file as 'testrun-attachment' via REST-interface and got the pieces in place to show the summary values on both the build summary tab and on its own extended “build-results-view”.
Base for this first version were a lot of examples provided by MS on github: <https://github.com/Microsoft/vsts-tasks> and <https://github.com/Microsoft/vsts-extension-samples>
To get a first feeling what places on your TFS Web Portal can be extended/customized you can download and install this extension <https://aha.gallery.vsassets.io/items?itemName=ms-samples.samples-contributions-guide> from the Visual Studio Marketplace.
Hope this helps to get you started. | Currently, these customizations are not supported. You can't edit the displays in new build summary. However, you can [customize Code Coverage Analysis](https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj159530.aspx).
>
> You can submit it to User Voice site at:
> <http://visualstudio.uservoice.com/forums/121579-visual-studio>
>
>
> |
33,906,487 | I have generated my xml coverage file as part of CI build on the TFS server using vNext 2015 build definition. How would one display the results in the TFS 2015 summary ? Either using the xml report or the html generated using the ReportGenerator. | 2015/11/25 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/33906487",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/245189/"
] | You need to convert the results produced by OpenCover to a format which can be parsed by TFS.
One way to do this would be to use the [OpenCoverToCoberturaConverter](https://github.com/danielpalme/OpenCoverToCoberturaConverter) NuGet package.
Once you have that, you can use the *Publish Code Coverage Results* build step.
I have described the whole process on [my blog](http://codewithstyle.info/setting-up-coverage-reports-on-vsts-with-opencover/). | Currently, these customizations are not supported. You can't edit the displays in new build summary. However, you can [customize Code Coverage Analysis](https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj159530.aspx).
>
> You can submit it to User Voice site at:
> <http://visualstudio.uservoice.com/forums/121579-visual-studio>
>
>
> |
33,906,487 | I have generated my xml coverage file as part of CI build on the TFS server using vNext 2015 build definition. How would one display the results in the TFS 2015 summary ? Either using the xml report or the html generated using the ReportGenerator. | 2015/11/25 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/33906487",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/245189/"
] | In “TFS 2015 - Update 2” this is possible by writing your own vsts extension (see here: <https://www.visualstudio.com/en-us/docs/integrate/extensions/overview> ).
I set up my own 'learning project' for building this as .vsix here: <https://github.com/RobertK66/vsts-opencover>.
My custom build step uses nunit3 console runner to execute tests under opencover.
I managed to upload the OpenCover xml result file as 'testrun-attachment' via REST-interface and got the pieces in place to show the summary values on both the build summary tab and on its own extended “build-results-view”.
Base for this first version were a lot of examples provided by MS on github: <https://github.com/Microsoft/vsts-tasks> and <https://github.com/Microsoft/vsts-extension-samples>
To get a first feeling what places on your TFS Web Portal can be extended/customized you can download and install this extension <https://aha.gallery.vsassets.io/items?itemName=ms-samples.samples-contributions-guide> from the Visual Studio Marketplace.
Hope this helps to get you started. | Instead of using OpenCover extension, it is very convenience for you to generate code coverage result and include it in the build summary page this way:
Select the Visual Studio Test step, check the **Code Coverage Enabled** option.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/uA12S.png)
Then, the code coverage result shows on the build summary page:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/hJr6G.png) |
33,906,487 | I have generated my xml coverage file as part of CI build on the TFS server using vNext 2015 build definition. How would one display the results in the TFS 2015 summary ? Either using the xml report or the html generated using the ReportGenerator. | 2015/11/25 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/33906487",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/245189/"
] | You need to convert the results produced by OpenCover to a format which can be parsed by TFS.
One way to do this would be to use the [OpenCoverToCoberturaConverter](https://github.com/danielpalme/OpenCoverToCoberturaConverter) NuGet package.
Once you have that, you can use the *Publish Code Coverage Results* build step.
I have described the whole process on [my blog](http://codewithstyle.info/setting-up-coverage-reports-on-vsts-with-opencover/). | Instead of using OpenCover extension, it is very convenience for you to generate code coverage result and include it in the build summary page this way:
Select the Visual Studio Test step, check the **Code Coverage Enabled** option.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/uA12S.png)
Then, the code coverage result shows on the build summary page:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/hJr6G.png) |
33,906,487 | I have generated my xml coverage file as part of CI build on the TFS server using vNext 2015 build definition. How would one display the results in the TFS 2015 summary ? Either using the xml report or the html generated using the ReportGenerator. | 2015/11/25 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/33906487",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/245189/"
] | You need to convert the results produced by OpenCover to a format which can be parsed by TFS.
One way to do this would be to use the [OpenCoverToCoberturaConverter](https://github.com/danielpalme/OpenCoverToCoberturaConverter) NuGet package.
Once you have that, you can use the *Publish Code Coverage Results* build step.
I have described the whole process on [my blog](http://codewithstyle.info/setting-up-coverage-reports-on-vsts-with-opencover/). | In “TFS 2015 - Update 2” this is possible by writing your own vsts extension (see here: <https://www.visualstudio.com/en-us/docs/integrate/extensions/overview> ).
I set up my own 'learning project' for building this as .vsix here: <https://github.com/RobertK66/vsts-opencover>.
My custom build step uses nunit3 console runner to execute tests under opencover.
I managed to upload the OpenCover xml result file as 'testrun-attachment' via REST-interface and got the pieces in place to show the summary values on both the build summary tab and on its own extended “build-results-view”.
Base for this first version were a lot of examples provided by MS on github: <https://github.com/Microsoft/vsts-tasks> and <https://github.com/Microsoft/vsts-extension-samples>
To get a first feeling what places on your TFS Web Portal can be extended/customized you can download and install this extension <https://aha.gallery.vsassets.io/items?itemName=ms-samples.samples-contributions-guide> from the Visual Studio Marketplace.
Hope this helps to get you started. |
480,971 | What does the horizontal bar indicate and how to use it in my measurement?
 | 2020/02/13 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/480971",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/193564/"
] | That bar at the bottom of the screen simulates an analog meter - the length of the bar increases with increasing digital readings. It is often easier to observe a varying voltage by looking at the bar than trying to interpret rapidly changing digits. | From the Fluke 87V [datasheet](https://dam-assets.fluke.com/s3fs-public/80v_____umeng0200.pdf?tKDGTic.KN0dP9_UJVtSyLsuYWEUp3SY) page 11 point 18 :
>
> The number of segments is relative
> to the full-scale value of the
> selected range. In normal operation
> 0 (zero) is on the left. The polarity
> indicator at the left of the graph
> indicates the polarity of the input.
> The graph does not operate with
> the capacitance, frequency counter
> functions, temperature, or peak min
> max. For more information, see
> “Bar Graph”. The bar graph also
> has a zoom function, as described
> under "Zoom Mode".
>
>
> |
480,971 | What does the horizontal bar indicate and how to use it in my measurement?
 | 2020/02/13 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/480971",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/193564/"
] | From the Fluke 87V [datasheet](https://dam-assets.fluke.com/s3fs-public/80v_____umeng0200.pdf?tKDGTic.KN0dP9_UJVtSyLsuYWEUp3SY) page 11 point 18 :
>
> The number of segments is relative
> to the full-scale value of the
> selected range. In normal operation
> 0 (zero) is on the left. The polarity
> indicator at the left of the graph
> indicates the polarity of the input.
> The graph does not operate with
> the capacitance, frequency counter
> functions, temperature, or peak min
> max. For more information, see
> “Bar Graph”. The bar graph also
> has a zoom function, as described
> under "Zoom Mode".
>
>
> | I know this question has been answered, but I don't agree with the answer.
**The horizontal bar shows you how much of your current range you have used up, ie. how much the voltage/current/whatever can change before the meter has to switch to a higher input range**
Anyone who has spend hours upon hours using a multimeter will understand why this is usefull; sometimes when you are measuring for instance a voltage with a multimeter what you are measuring might be very close to the upper bound of one range, and so it can happen, at least with some older multimeters, that the range selection will start toggling between two ranges, which can be super annoying. If you are measuring something which you know has spikes that are larger than what you are trying to measure then the horizontal bar will give you an indication of whether the spikes that can occur will be likely to cause the multimeter to change range while you are measuring, letting you change to a higher range if what you are measuring is close to saturating the value of the horizontal bar..
Without the horizontal bar you can have no way of knowing, by just looking at the reading from the multimeter, how much of the current range you are using.
The bar is also useful in the case that you are using manual range, because it may tell you that what you are measuring is only using up a small part of the current range, ie. you are not getting the full resolution of the instrument, knowing this you can turn down the range to use up more of the range of the instrument for you measurement and hence get better resolution.
Several of the answers here claim that it is for DMMs to "compete" with analog meters. I very much disagree with that, DMMs are inherently faster than analog meters, although you might not be able to rapidly read the changing numbers on the display, there is a physical limit to how fast the nedle on an analog meter can move as well, and it is driven by a coil which futher limits its bandwidth. Besides, looking at the bar moving back and forth might let you know the voltage is changing, but not by how much, as you have no way of knowing how large a value a certain size of bar corresponds to. And besides; You're an idiot if your trying to measure a changing voltage (other than pure AC) using a multimeter rather than an oscilloscope. |
480,971 | What does the horizontal bar indicate and how to use it in my measurement?
 | 2020/02/13 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/480971",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/193564/"
] | From the Fluke 87V [datasheet](https://dam-assets.fluke.com/s3fs-public/80v_____umeng0200.pdf?tKDGTic.KN0dP9_UJVtSyLsuYWEUp3SY) page 11 point 18 :
>
> The number of segments is relative
> to the full-scale value of the
> selected range. In normal operation
> 0 (zero) is on the left. The polarity
> indicator at the left of the graph
> indicates the polarity of the input.
> The graph does not operate with
> the capacitance, frequency counter
> functions, temperature, or peak min
> max. For more information, see
> “Bar Graph”. The bar graph also
> has a zoom function, as described
> under "Zoom Mode".
>
>
> | Digital multimeters have measurement ranges like 0-200 mV, 0-2V, 0-20V, 0-400V etc.
Bar graph shows how near you are to the end of one range. |
480,971 | What does the horizontal bar indicate and how to use it in my measurement?
 | 2020/02/13 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/480971",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/193564/"
] | That bar at the bottom of the screen simulates an analog meter - the length of the bar increases with increasing digital readings. It is often easier to observe a varying voltage by looking at the bar than trying to interpret rapidly changing digits. | The bar is a fast-responding 'analog meter', that can be useful for following variations in the input voltage, for instance when you're adjusting a circuit with a potentiometer in real time.
In the Fluke I had, the digital display updated once per second to 3200 count resolution, while the 32 step bar updated at 25Hz.
This was introduced shortly after DMMs were to counter the criticism that analogue meters were better when you had a varying input and could watch the needle swing in real time. Waiting a second for the digits, and then needing to think what they meant, makes tuning circuits unnecessarily awkward. |
480,971 | What does the horizontal bar indicate and how to use it in my measurement?
 | 2020/02/13 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/480971",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/193564/"
] | That bar at the bottom of the screen simulates an analog meter - the length of the bar increases with increasing digital readings. It is often easier to observe a varying voltage by looking at the bar than trying to interpret rapidly changing digits. | I know this question has been answered, but I don't agree with the answer.
**The horizontal bar shows you how much of your current range you have used up, ie. how much the voltage/current/whatever can change before the meter has to switch to a higher input range**
Anyone who has spend hours upon hours using a multimeter will understand why this is usefull; sometimes when you are measuring for instance a voltage with a multimeter what you are measuring might be very close to the upper bound of one range, and so it can happen, at least with some older multimeters, that the range selection will start toggling between two ranges, which can be super annoying. If you are measuring something which you know has spikes that are larger than what you are trying to measure then the horizontal bar will give you an indication of whether the spikes that can occur will be likely to cause the multimeter to change range while you are measuring, letting you change to a higher range if what you are measuring is close to saturating the value of the horizontal bar..
Without the horizontal bar you can have no way of knowing, by just looking at the reading from the multimeter, how much of the current range you are using.
The bar is also useful in the case that you are using manual range, because it may tell you that what you are measuring is only using up a small part of the current range, ie. you are not getting the full resolution of the instrument, knowing this you can turn down the range to use up more of the range of the instrument for you measurement and hence get better resolution.
Several of the answers here claim that it is for DMMs to "compete" with analog meters. I very much disagree with that, DMMs are inherently faster than analog meters, although you might not be able to rapidly read the changing numbers on the display, there is a physical limit to how fast the nedle on an analog meter can move as well, and it is driven by a coil which futher limits its bandwidth. Besides, looking at the bar moving back and forth might let you know the voltage is changing, but not by how much, as you have no way of knowing how large a value a certain size of bar corresponds to. And besides; You're an idiot if your trying to measure a changing voltage (other than pure AC) using a multimeter rather than an oscilloscope. |
480,971 | What does the horizontal bar indicate and how to use it in my measurement?
 | 2020/02/13 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/480971",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/193564/"
] | That bar at the bottom of the screen simulates an analog meter - the length of the bar increases with increasing digital readings. It is often easier to observe a varying voltage by looking at the bar than trying to interpret rapidly changing digits. | Digital multimeters have measurement ranges like 0-200 mV, 0-2V, 0-20V, 0-400V etc.
Bar graph shows how near you are to the end of one range. |
480,971 | What does the horizontal bar indicate and how to use it in my measurement?
 | 2020/02/13 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/480971",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/193564/"
] | The bar is a fast-responding 'analog meter', that can be useful for following variations in the input voltage, for instance when you're adjusting a circuit with a potentiometer in real time.
In the Fluke I had, the digital display updated once per second to 3200 count resolution, while the 32 step bar updated at 25Hz.
This was introduced shortly after DMMs were to counter the criticism that analogue meters were better when you had a varying input and could watch the needle swing in real time. Waiting a second for the digits, and then needing to think what they meant, makes tuning circuits unnecessarily awkward. | I know this question has been answered, but I don't agree with the answer.
**The horizontal bar shows you how much of your current range you have used up, ie. how much the voltage/current/whatever can change before the meter has to switch to a higher input range**
Anyone who has spend hours upon hours using a multimeter will understand why this is usefull; sometimes when you are measuring for instance a voltage with a multimeter what you are measuring might be very close to the upper bound of one range, and so it can happen, at least with some older multimeters, that the range selection will start toggling between two ranges, which can be super annoying. If you are measuring something which you know has spikes that are larger than what you are trying to measure then the horizontal bar will give you an indication of whether the spikes that can occur will be likely to cause the multimeter to change range while you are measuring, letting you change to a higher range if what you are measuring is close to saturating the value of the horizontal bar..
Without the horizontal bar you can have no way of knowing, by just looking at the reading from the multimeter, how much of the current range you are using.
The bar is also useful in the case that you are using manual range, because it may tell you that what you are measuring is only using up a small part of the current range, ie. you are not getting the full resolution of the instrument, knowing this you can turn down the range to use up more of the range of the instrument for you measurement and hence get better resolution.
Several of the answers here claim that it is for DMMs to "compete" with analog meters. I very much disagree with that, DMMs are inherently faster than analog meters, although you might not be able to rapidly read the changing numbers on the display, there is a physical limit to how fast the nedle on an analog meter can move as well, and it is driven by a coil which futher limits its bandwidth. Besides, looking at the bar moving back and forth might let you know the voltage is changing, but not by how much, as you have no way of knowing how large a value a certain size of bar corresponds to. And besides; You're an idiot if your trying to measure a changing voltage (other than pure AC) using a multimeter rather than an oscilloscope. |
480,971 | What does the horizontal bar indicate and how to use it in my measurement?
 | 2020/02/13 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/480971",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/193564/"
] | The bar is a fast-responding 'analog meter', that can be useful for following variations in the input voltage, for instance when you're adjusting a circuit with a potentiometer in real time.
In the Fluke I had, the digital display updated once per second to 3200 count resolution, while the 32 step bar updated at 25Hz.
This was introduced shortly after DMMs were to counter the criticism that analogue meters were better when you had a varying input and could watch the needle swing in real time. Waiting a second for the digits, and then needing to think what they meant, makes tuning circuits unnecessarily awkward. | Digital multimeters have measurement ranges like 0-200 mV, 0-2V, 0-20V, 0-400V etc.
Bar graph shows how near you are to the end of one range. |
480,971 | What does the horizontal bar indicate and how to use it in my measurement?
 | 2020/02/13 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/480971",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/193564/"
] | I know this question has been answered, but I don't agree with the answer.
**The horizontal bar shows you how much of your current range you have used up, ie. how much the voltage/current/whatever can change before the meter has to switch to a higher input range**
Anyone who has spend hours upon hours using a multimeter will understand why this is usefull; sometimes when you are measuring for instance a voltage with a multimeter what you are measuring might be very close to the upper bound of one range, and so it can happen, at least with some older multimeters, that the range selection will start toggling between two ranges, which can be super annoying. If you are measuring something which you know has spikes that are larger than what you are trying to measure then the horizontal bar will give you an indication of whether the spikes that can occur will be likely to cause the multimeter to change range while you are measuring, letting you change to a higher range if what you are measuring is close to saturating the value of the horizontal bar..
Without the horizontal bar you can have no way of knowing, by just looking at the reading from the multimeter, how much of the current range you are using.
The bar is also useful in the case that you are using manual range, because it may tell you that what you are measuring is only using up a small part of the current range, ie. you are not getting the full resolution of the instrument, knowing this you can turn down the range to use up more of the range of the instrument for you measurement and hence get better resolution.
Several of the answers here claim that it is for DMMs to "compete" with analog meters. I very much disagree with that, DMMs are inherently faster than analog meters, although you might not be able to rapidly read the changing numbers on the display, there is a physical limit to how fast the nedle on an analog meter can move as well, and it is driven by a coil which futher limits its bandwidth. Besides, looking at the bar moving back and forth might let you know the voltage is changing, but not by how much, as you have no way of knowing how large a value a certain size of bar corresponds to. And besides; You're an idiot if your trying to measure a changing voltage (other than pure AC) using a multimeter rather than an oscilloscope. | Digital multimeters have measurement ranges like 0-200 mV, 0-2V, 0-20V, 0-400V etc.
Bar graph shows how near you are to the end of one range. |
133,162 | I finished my PhD a few years ago, and since then have been hopping from temporary job to temporary job every year. They've all been research-and-teaching jobs, which has been exactly what I wanted. I applied to a whole host of jobs this year, and got one. It's a secure, open-ended job, in a location I think I could be happy living in for a long time. I'm incredibly relieved about this.
The one downside is that it's a teaching-only job.
Now, I honestly enjoy teaching, but it alone is not enough to keep me in this career in the long run. This job seems like a poisoned chalice for my research career: not only does it mean less research time, it also means I'm less likely to be able to attend seminars, I'll have minimal free time during other mathematicians' work hours to liaise with them, I'll receive no funding to attend conferences, I won't be able to swap out duties with other people to give talks, and so on. I won't even be housed in the same building as the research mathematicians, so even interacting with them over lunch is going to be difficult. I'm basically excluded from all of the things that are involved in being an active member of the community!
How do I avoid being funnelled into a permanent teaching-only career? How do I make the most of the time I have during this job? Am I going to find it more difficult to be taken seriously as a researcher after a few years in this job?
---
Edited to clarify: my department is not the mathematics department. It is part of the university, but it is a "learning and teaching"-style department: the vast majority of staff there are teaching-only. I don't know whether this makes a concrete difference, but it might well impact funding, internal policy regarding grants, the priorities of my line managers, etc. I have no idea. Anecdotes and experiences related to this might also be useful. | 2019/07/09 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/133162",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/104822/"
] | **First, I’ll describe what happens at my department (engineering, high ranking, UK). It might be useful to understand the mindset.**
We were recently hiring for teaching only position at my school (teaching fellow). The idea behind it was to get someone to teach in a specific area. *The job is open-ended, the same salary as other faculty (Lecturer/assist prof), and has excellent career progression (to full professor on a teaching track).* We wanted someone that loves to do that, teaching. If we wanted someone to do both, then we would open a position for someone to do both.
As a panel, we tried to understand if the candidate really wanted to do research and was only using the position as a transition or as a way into the department. Then, we removed those candidates. Afterwards, there is a probation period of one year during which, if the person seems that is not interested in teaching (which was the job description), the school can decide to let them go.
The school only “allows” the teaching-only colleagues to research if it’s related to teaching. For instance, new teaching methods, methodologies, etc. With “allows”, I mean would shift timetable, include in workload, and pay for conferences. If the teaching staff wants to do anything not related to teaching, they need to do it at their own time and expense. PhD co-supervision is not possible.
**To your questions**
The more you stay in a teaching position, the more you’ll get trapped. Your peers in research or combined post will be encouraged and have more time to write grants and publish papers. Since these are the main characteristics looked for in research-track hiring and progression, you will gradually become unattractive for research-focused or combined positions.
Transitioning within the same department is indeed possible (but rare). We have a colleague that transitioned from a teaching to a combined position after three years. He is now transitioning back to a teaching post. He found that three years without publishing and without the skills that other research-track colleagues honed over the same three years (grant writing, networking, panels, etc.) it was impossible to attract funding (which is a requirement in our school to keep your position).
**Edit based on OP comments**
Our university offers two progression tracks. The research track has 80% research excellence, contribution to the field, and funding criteria and 20% teaching. The teaching track is the other way around.
The teaching-track research is on education in the area. One of the best journals for us as an example is [IEEE Transactions on Education](https://ieeexplore.ieee.org/xpl/RecentIssue.jsp?punumber=13). Admittedly, most of the research is translational. That is, bringing modern educational concepts and ideas into the engineering teaching environment.
Other criteria involve participation to accreditation process, designing/updating teaching programs, achieving Fellow status at HEA, outreach activities at schools, etc. | It sounds like the research mathematicians are at the same campus. If so, even if not in the same building, you can cultivate collegiate relationships:
* Go to the seminars held by the research group
* Be a co-supervisor for PhD students in the research group
If you spend some time finding out peoples' interests, then you could potentially write a grant application during the summer teaching break with one of the research mathematicians, and that grant could include buyout time for you. Find out the buyout policy for your department.
Do the research mathematicians also teach? That is, would you be able to apply for jobs with the research group where your teaching experience is relevant? If so, becoming familiar with the group would also be an advantage in any application for a position. |
133,162 | I finished my PhD a few years ago, and since then have been hopping from temporary job to temporary job every year. They've all been research-and-teaching jobs, which has been exactly what I wanted. I applied to a whole host of jobs this year, and got one. It's a secure, open-ended job, in a location I think I could be happy living in for a long time. I'm incredibly relieved about this.
The one downside is that it's a teaching-only job.
Now, I honestly enjoy teaching, but it alone is not enough to keep me in this career in the long run. This job seems like a poisoned chalice for my research career: not only does it mean less research time, it also means I'm less likely to be able to attend seminars, I'll have minimal free time during other mathematicians' work hours to liaise with them, I'll receive no funding to attend conferences, I won't be able to swap out duties with other people to give talks, and so on. I won't even be housed in the same building as the research mathematicians, so even interacting with them over lunch is going to be difficult. I'm basically excluded from all of the things that are involved in being an active member of the community!
How do I avoid being funnelled into a permanent teaching-only career? How do I make the most of the time I have during this job? Am I going to find it more difficult to be taken seriously as a researcher after a few years in this job?
---
Edited to clarify: my department is not the mathematics department. It is part of the university, but it is a "learning and teaching"-style department: the vast majority of staff there are teaching-only. I don't know whether this makes a concrete difference, but it might well impact funding, internal policy regarding grants, the priorities of my line managers, etc. I have no idea. Anecdotes and experiences related to this might also be useful. | 2019/07/09 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/133162",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/104822/"
] | It sounds like the research mathematicians are at the same campus. If so, even if not in the same building, you can cultivate collegiate relationships:
* Go to the seminars held by the research group
* Be a co-supervisor for PhD students in the research group
If you spend some time finding out peoples' interests, then you could potentially write a grant application during the summer teaching break with one of the research mathematicians, and that grant could include buyout time for you. Find out the buyout policy for your department.
Do the research mathematicians also teach? That is, would you be able to apply for jobs with the research group where your teaching experience is relevant? If so, becoming familiar with the group would also be an advantage in any application for a position. | The obvious answer is to shirk teaching and divert time to research. Do it in a stealthy manner of course (just be perceived as efficient, not blowing things off). Use your massive Ph.D. brain to figure out how to do that. (limit graded homework, use established texts and curricula versus trying new ones, etc. etc. use your noggin.)
But really, you are already pretty far off the beaten track ("job to job" along with taking a teaching only post, versus finding another one with partial research). At this point, you really need to re-evaluate your goals and see if pursuing hard core academia research is in the cards for you. It is a tournament system (like being a rock star...lots of aspiring musicians, few headliners). Consider if you will be happy being a postdoc in your 40s. Or an adjunct forever. Or if you even might want to look at alternate fields (more applied, BUT don't take more school) or going to work for government or the like. |
133,162 | I finished my PhD a few years ago, and since then have been hopping from temporary job to temporary job every year. They've all been research-and-teaching jobs, which has been exactly what I wanted. I applied to a whole host of jobs this year, and got one. It's a secure, open-ended job, in a location I think I could be happy living in for a long time. I'm incredibly relieved about this.
The one downside is that it's a teaching-only job.
Now, I honestly enjoy teaching, but it alone is not enough to keep me in this career in the long run. This job seems like a poisoned chalice for my research career: not only does it mean less research time, it also means I'm less likely to be able to attend seminars, I'll have minimal free time during other mathematicians' work hours to liaise with them, I'll receive no funding to attend conferences, I won't be able to swap out duties with other people to give talks, and so on. I won't even be housed in the same building as the research mathematicians, so even interacting with them over lunch is going to be difficult. I'm basically excluded from all of the things that are involved in being an active member of the community!
How do I avoid being funnelled into a permanent teaching-only career? How do I make the most of the time I have during this job? Am I going to find it more difficult to be taken seriously as a researcher after a few years in this job?
---
Edited to clarify: my department is not the mathematics department. It is part of the university, but it is a "learning and teaching"-style department: the vast majority of staff there are teaching-only. I don't know whether this makes a concrete difference, but it might well impact funding, internal policy regarding grants, the priorities of my line managers, etc. I have no idea. Anecdotes and experiences related to this might also be useful. | 2019/07/09 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/133162",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/104822/"
] | **First, I’ll describe what happens at my department (engineering, high ranking, UK). It might be useful to understand the mindset.**
We were recently hiring for teaching only position at my school (teaching fellow). The idea behind it was to get someone to teach in a specific area. *The job is open-ended, the same salary as other faculty (Lecturer/assist prof), and has excellent career progression (to full professor on a teaching track).* We wanted someone that loves to do that, teaching. If we wanted someone to do both, then we would open a position for someone to do both.
As a panel, we tried to understand if the candidate really wanted to do research and was only using the position as a transition or as a way into the department. Then, we removed those candidates. Afterwards, there is a probation period of one year during which, if the person seems that is not interested in teaching (which was the job description), the school can decide to let them go.
The school only “allows” the teaching-only colleagues to research if it’s related to teaching. For instance, new teaching methods, methodologies, etc. With “allows”, I mean would shift timetable, include in workload, and pay for conferences. If the teaching staff wants to do anything not related to teaching, they need to do it at their own time and expense. PhD co-supervision is not possible.
**To your questions**
The more you stay in a teaching position, the more you’ll get trapped. Your peers in research or combined post will be encouraged and have more time to write grants and publish papers. Since these are the main characteristics looked for in research-track hiring and progression, you will gradually become unattractive for research-focused or combined positions.
Transitioning within the same department is indeed possible (but rare). We have a colleague that transitioned from a teaching to a combined position after three years. He is now transitioning back to a teaching post. He found that three years without publishing and without the skills that other research-track colleagues honed over the same three years (grant writing, networking, panels, etc.) it was impossible to attract funding (which is a requirement in our school to keep your position).
**Edit based on OP comments**
Our university offers two progression tracks. The research track has 80% research excellence, contribution to the field, and funding criteria and 20% teaching. The teaching track is the other way around.
The teaching-track research is on education in the area. One of the best journals for us as an example is [IEEE Transactions on Education](https://ieeexplore.ieee.org/xpl/RecentIssue.jsp?punumber=13). Admittedly, most of the research is translational. That is, bringing modern educational concepts and ideas into the engineering teaching environment.
Other criteria involve participation to accreditation process, designing/updating teaching programs, achieving Fellow status at HEA, outreach activities at schools, etc. | The obvious answer is to shirk teaching and divert time to research. Do it in a stealthy manner of course (just be perceived as efficient, not blowing things off). Use your massive Ph.D. brain to figure out how to do that. (limit graded homework, use established texts and curricula versus trying new ones, etc. etc. use your noggin.)
But really, you are already pretty far off the beaten track ("job to job" along with taking a teaching only post, versus finding another one with partial research). At this point, you really need to re-evaluate your goals and see if pursuing hard core academia research is in the cards for you. It is a tournament system (like being a rock star...lots of aspiring musicians, few headliners). Consider if you will be happy being a postdoc in your 40s. Or an adjunct forever. Or if you even might want to look at alternate fields (more applied, BUT don't take more school) or going to work for government or the like. |
292,551 | Here's the problem:
I have to modify an existing Excel spreadsheet using .NET. The spreadsheet is hugely complex, and I just have to add data in some predefined areas.
I'm investigating my options, and Excel Automation/InterOp is out of the question, as I'm implementing an ASP.NET website, and Excel probably isn't installed on the server. From what I find online, InterOp is also a very expensive solution performancewise.
Creating a CSV file is also ruled out because of the complex nature of the original spreadsheet.
Currently I'm leaning towards an ADO.NET OleDb solution, but I find that mentioned very rarely (Google and Stackoverflow.com) so I'm kinda worried: What's the catch with OldDb for Excel?
The only drawback I can find on MSDN so far, is that I can't create cells with formulas, but that's really not an issue in my case.
I've also considered SSIS, but that's only based on my assumption that you can use existing Excel files when you generate spreadsheets. I don't know if that possible or not.
Then there's OpenXml. It seems overly complicated compared to OldDb, plus it's still undetermined which of the older Excel versions I have to support.
Am I missing something? Are there more alternatives? | 2008/11/15 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/292551",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/10932/"
] | I've used [Aspose.Cells](http://www.aspose.com) for this sort of thing with good success. The documentation can be a little obtuse, but the product seems to work. It won't require you to have Excel on the server and it works with the latest versions of Excel (and previous versions). | You may want to take a look at <http://www.gemboxsoftware.com/GBSpreadsheetFree.htm>.
They have a free version with all features but limited to 150 rows per sheet and 5 sheets per workbook, if that falls within your needs, otherwise the paid version starts at $425 for a 1 Developer License.
There are additional answers that may apply to your question at [StackOverflow: Create Excel (.XLS and .XLSX) file from C#](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/151005/create-excel-xls-and-xlsx-file-from-c). |
292,551 | Here's the problem:
I have to modify an existing Excel spreadsheet using .NET. The spreadsheet is hugely complex, and I just have to add data in some predefined areas.
I'm investigating my options, and Excel Automation/InterOp is out of the question, as I'm implementing an ASP.NET website, and Excel probably isn't installed on the server. From what I find online, InterOp is also a very expensive solution performancewise.
Creating a CSV file is also ruled out because of the complex nature of the original spreadsheet.
Currently I'm leaning towards an ADO.NET OleDb solution, but I find that mentioned very rarely (Google and Stackoverflow.com) so I'm kinda worried: What's the catch with OldDb for Excel?
The only drawback I can find on MSDN so far, is that I can't create cells with formulas, but that's really not an issue in my case.
I've also considered SSIS, but that's only based on my assumption that you can use existing Excel files when you generate spreadsheets. I don't know if that possible or not.
Then there's OpenXml. It seems overly complicated compared to OldDb, plus it's still undetermined which of the older Excel versions I have to support.
Am I missing something? Are there more alternatives? | 2008/11/15 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/292551",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/10932/"
] | Check out [MyXls](http://myxls.in2bits.org) a .NET solution for reading and writing binary XLS files. | You may want to take a look at <http://www.gemboxsoftware.com/GBSpreadsheetFree.htm>.
They have a free version with all features but limited to 150 rows per sheet and 5 sheets per workbook, if that falls within your needs, otherwise the paid version starts at $425 for a 1 Developer License.
There are additional answers that may apply to your question at [StackOverflow: Create Excel (.XLS and .XLSX) file from C#](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/151005/create-excel-xls-and-xlsx-file-from-c). |
292,551 | Here's the problem:
I have to modify an existing Excel spreadsheet using .NET. The spreadsheet is hugely complex, and I just have to add data in some predefined areas.
I'm investigating my options, and Excel Automation/InterOp is out of the question, as I'm implementing an ASP.NET website, and Excel probably isn't installed on the server. From what I find online, InterOp is also a very expensive solution performancewise.
Creating a CSV file is also ruled out because of the complex nature of the original spreadsheet.
Currently I'm leaning towards an ADO.NET OleDb solution, but I find that mentioned very rarely (Google and Stackoverflow.com) so I'm kinda worried: What's the catch with OldDb for Excel?
The only drawback I can find on MSDN so far, is that I can't create cells with formulas, but that's really not an issue in my case.
I've also considered SSIS, but that's only based on my assumption that you can use existing Excel files when you generate spreadsheets. I don't know if that possible or not.
Then there's OpenXml. It seems overly complicated compared to OldDb, plus it's still undetermined which of the older Excel versions I have to support.
Am I missing something? Are there more alternatives? | 2008/11/15 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/292551",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/10932/"
] | In that situation, I would normally favour not messing with the complex spreadsheet, but setting up a separate data file, to which I would link the data cells in the complex spreadsheet. This is much cleaner and safer than changing a complex spreadsheet from outside.
If this is not easier than the alternatives you are currently facing,it would surprise me. But then I haven't seen your spreadsheet. | The problem with using Excel as an ISAM database using any driver (ODBC, OLEDB., etc.) is the datatype of the column is based on the first 8 rows in the column - this is pure evil; for example: if a column is something like a part# and the first 8 parts happen to be only numeric then you get get NULL for any cell in that column where the part# isn't numeric. (110000 vs 111000-1 or 111000A). This is reguardless of how you format the column in excel (even if you set the column as text).
I'll try and find a doc on this and update.
Here's one:
<http://support.microsoft.com/kb/194124>
<http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb177610.aspx> |
292,551 | Here's the problem:
I have to modify an existing Excel spreadsheet using .NET. The spreadsheet is hugely complex, and I just have to add data in some predefined areas.
I'm investigating my options, and Excel Automation/InterOp is out of the question, as I'm implementing an ASP.NET website, and Excel probably isn't installed on the server. From what I find online, InterOp is also a very expensive solution performancewise.
Creating a CSV file is also ruled out because of the complex nature of the original spreadsheet.
Currently I'm leaning towards an ADO.NET OleDb solution, but I find that mentioned very rarely (Google and Stackoverflow.com) so I'm kinda worried: What's the catch with OldDb for Excel?
The only drawback I can find on MSDN so far, is that I can't create cells with formulas, but that's really not an issue in my case.
I've also considered SSIS, but that's only based on my assumption that you can use existing Excel files when you generate spreadsheets. I don't know if that possible or not.
Then there's OpenXml. It seems overly complicated compared to OldDb, plus it's still undetermined which of the older Excel versions I have to support.
Am I missing something? Are there more alternatives? | 2008/11/15 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/292551",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/10932/"
] | Check out [MyXls](http://myxls.in2bits.org) a .NET solution for reading and writing binary XLS files. | not sure if this is exactly what you need, but certainly could be: [4 Editing In Excel Tutorials](http://spietrek.blogspot.com/2008/11/links-1192008.html) (under .NET #5-8) |
292,551 | Here's the problem:
I have to modify an existing Excel spreadsheet using .NET. The spreadsheet is hugely complex, and I just have to add data in some predefined areas.
I'm investigating my options, and Excel Automation/InterOp is out of the question, as I'm implementing an ASP.NET website, and Excel probably isn't installed on the server. From what I find online, InterOp is also a very expensive solution performancewise.
Creating a CSV file is also ruled out because of the complex nature of the original spreadsheet.
Currently I'm leaning towards an ADO.NET OleDb solution, but I find that mentioned very rarely (Google and Stackoverflow.com) so I'm kinda worried: What's the catch with OldDb for Excel?
The only drawback I can find on MSDN so far, is that I can't create cells with formulas, but that's really not an issue in my case.
I've also considered SSIS, but that's only based on my assumption that you can use existing Excel files when you generate spreadsheets. I don't know if that possible or not.
Then there's OpenXml. It seems overly complicated compared to OldDb, plus it's still undetermined which of the older Excel versions I have to support.
Am I missing something? Are there more alternatives? | 2008/11/15 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/292551",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/10932/"
] | The problem with using Excel as an ISAM database using any driver (ODBC, OLEDB., etc.) is the datatype of the column is based on the first 8 rows in the column - this is pure evil; for example: if a column is something like a part# and the first 8 parts happen to be only numeric then you get get NULL for any cell in that column where the part# isn't numeric. (110000 vs 111000-1 or 111000A). This is reguardless of how you format the column in excel (even if you set the column as text).
I'll try and find a doc on this and update.
Here's one:
<http://support.microsoft.com/kb/194124>
<http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb177610.aspx> | You may want to take a look at <http://www.gemboxsoftware.com/GBSpreadsheetFree.htm>.
They have a free version with all features but limited to 150 rows per sheet and 5 sheets per workbook, if that falls within your needs, otherwise the paid version starts at $425 for a 1 Developer License.
There are additional answers that may apply to your question at [StackOverflow: Create Excel (.XLS and .XLSX) file from C#](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/151005/create-excel-xls-and-xlsx-file-from-c). |
150,133 | Total newbie here as far as home improvement goes, I'd love some advice from the community!
I'm considering building a little office-shed (for remote work) in my backyard. From what I can tell, in order for electric run to the shed to be up to code, it needs to be buried underground.
There are two problems in my case:
1. There's a slab for a concrete patio right below my electric panel. I don't think I could add a conduit without jackhammering the concrete.
2. The place I want to put the shed is on another (lower) "tier" of the yard. I can't run a conduit from the panel to the shed without digging a *super* deep trench.
Here's a outline of the property: <https://cl.ly/fdd96711937f>. What I'm wondering is if I can piggyback the shed electric off of the garage. There's a subpanel in the garage with a conduit already buried through the concrete patio pad. The shed would be placed behind the garage so I'm thinking I could run another conduit off of the back of the garage.
Is this possible? Or does the conduit need to be run off of the main panel to be up to code?
Any other ideas on how to get electric to the shed?
Thanks! | 2018/11/07 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/150133",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/92839/"
] | There is no problem with running the feeder from the garage's subpanel to the shed.
The only thing you have to watch out for is the remaining capacity of the garage's panel.
The heaviest load in the shed is going to be climate control if you choose to install one. All the rest you'd need for remote work can be powered of a single 15A circuit. | You can set up the shed as a subpanel of the garage subpanel, supplying it from a 2-pole breaker in the garage.
Alternately, if the sizes make sense, you can avoid using 2 breaker spaces and simply continue the garage feeder onto the shed with the same size wire. You would either double-lug the garage main breaker, or use a wire nut or 3-lug terminal block to split it.
Either way, the circuit to the garage must be sufficient for both garage and shed loads. |
407,371 | According to Longman dictionary (and also Oxford dictionary), a parking ticket is "*an official notice fixed to a vehicle, saying that you have to pay money because you have parked your car in the wrong place or for too long*".
I don't know what is the right word for the piece of paper you get from a parking meter. Can we call it a parking receipt or a parking permit? | 2017/08/25 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/407371",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/251921/"
] | As per the comments, you are looking for a name for the piece of paper that proves you have **permission to park**, not a piece of paper that proves you have paid money.
---
Receipt
-------
"Receipt" is not correct then. The OED defines a [receipt](https://en.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/receipt) as:
>
> A written or printed statement acknowledging that something has been paid for or that goods have been received.
>
>
>
That is not what you're looking for. Even if the "permission" also prints the details of a receipt, that does not make "receipt" a correct definition for "a piece of paper that gives permission".
*Similarly, the invention of the [spork](http://www.lightmyfire.com/ImageGen.ashx?image=http%3A//farm8.staticflickr.com/7388/10016603724_04217ceb77_b.jpg&constrain=true&pad=true&bgcolor=FFFFFF&height=530&width=700) has not made the words "fork" and "spoon" freely interchangeable. For the same reason that a fork is not the same as a spoon (even though sporks exist), a receipt is not a piece of paper that proves you have permission (even though both are sometimes printed on the same piece of paper).*
---
Ticket
------
When talking about a document that proves you have permission, I would instinctively call it a [ticket](https://en.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/ticket):
>
> A piece of paper or card that gives the holder a certain right, especially to enter a place, travel by public transport, or participate in an event.
>
>
>
**However**, we run into a problem here. "Ticket" is ambiguous, since it could also refer to a fine:
>
> A certificate or warrant.
>
> --> An official notice of a traffic offence.
>
> *‘the officer issued Rhodes a speeding ticket’*
>
>
>
In the interest of avoiding misinterpretation, I would not use "parking ticket". While it is technically correct (through the definition of ticket), it will predominantly be understood to be a synonym for "parking fine".
---
Permit
------
[Permit](https://en.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/permit) fits the bill:
>
> An official document giving someone authorization to do something.
>
>
>
However, there is an ambiguity. There are two sorts of parking permits:
* Short term, when you use a parking meter (which is what your question focuses on)
* Long term, e.g. when you are a resident of an area which has parking meters, but you are exempted from having to use the parking meter because you live there.
Again, we find ourselves with a contradiction. When you say "I have a parking permit", it is possible for people to understand that you have a *long term* permit which exempts you from having to have a *short term* parking permit.
---
Permission
----------
Instinctively, I would have said that this is incorrect. Permission refers to the abstract concept of *being allowed* to do something, rather than the physical proof of permission.
However, [the OED disagrees with me](https://en.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/permission):
>
> An official document giving authorization.
>
>
>
I could make the same argument about ambiguity. "Parking permission" could refer to either the abstract concept of being allowed to park, or the physical document that proves you're allowed to park.
I would expect most people to initially understand the former (the abstract concept), while you are focusing on the physical document.
However, my argument seems weaker in this case (compared to the others). The distinction between the abstract concept and physical object can usually be derived from context, and can even be **irrelevant** in some cases.
>
> I have a parking permission.
>
>
>
Technically, you have both. Because you have the physical document, you therefore also have the abstract concept.
>
> I forgot to put the parking permission behind my windscreen.
>
>
>
This makes it obvious that you're talking about a tangible item, thus excluding the possibility of people inferring you mean the abstract concept.
**Parking permission** is a valid option. Out of all the listed options, it has the least chance of being misinterpreted.
---
In practice, I find usages of "ticket" but not "permission"
-----------------------------------------------------------
I've resorted to Googling, hoping to stumble on usage of the words. [This is the best I could come up with](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pay_and_display#Coupon_parking). The system is called "Pay and Display". But when you read though it, you can see that "ticket" is the preferred word:
>
> A pay and display machine is a type of **ticket** machine used for regulating parking in urban areas or in car parks. It relies on a customer purchasing a **ticket** from a machine and displaying the **ticket** on the dashboard, windscreen or passenger window of the vehicle. Details included on a printed **ticket** are generally the location and operator of the machine, expiry time, fee paid and time entered.
>
>
>
For a second, I though I had found an answer when I saw **coupon parking** mentioned. However, that doesn't fit your current scenario:
>
> Coupon parking is a variation of pay and display **without the use of machines**; instead, the motorist **purchases a booklet of coupons in advance** from the authorities. To use a parking coupon, the motorist has to completely tear off tabs of the date and time, or scratch off panels on the date and time in which he/she leaves the vehicle.
>
>
>
Again, no luck in finding a word to use that does not create ambiguity.
---
Conclusion
----------
You get to choose which one you use, in my opinion. There is no strictly defined answer here.
**Parking permission** seems to be the best choice from a **semantical** point of view. Out of all the presented options, it has the lowest chance of being considered too ambiguous.
**Ticket** is also a good choice, when you observe the **practical usage** based on what I have found. So it wouldn't be wrong to use "ticket".
However, I do want to urge you that you should still avoid using "parking ticket" (because people will assume you mean a parking fine); and that you should endeavour to make it clear from context that you are talking about a permission, not a fine.
>
> There is a ticket on my windshield.
>
>
>
Many people will infer you mean a fine, most likely a parking fine. It is very ambiguous.
>
> The parking meter did not give me a ticket.
>
>
>
The **context** makes it clear that you're not talking about a fine. This isn't ambiguous, due to the context you've used it in. | Certainly in British English a *ticket* in the context of parking is also a piece of paper stating how much parking you've paid for. The machine may also (especially if you pay by card) issue a receipt, on the same type of paper.
This example (user Man vyi on wikipedia) comes with bonus Welsh:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/p1dZY.jpg)
The meters round here also say "take ticket" on the screen when you've finished paying.
Thus it would be perfectly valid to say "I bought a ticket but lost it so I got a ticket"
A parking *permit* would normally be issued to an individual by a business by arrangement (often without payment) rather than to a casual user. Such a permit might be open-ended or might be for a single day (especially if called a visitor's permit). |
654,689 | I work at an electronics store and the other day a customer came in who was rebuilding a circuit board. I sold him some resistors, but later he came back in wanting to return some of them because they were only 1% tolerance, and he needed 5%. I'm not an engineer but I have a hobbyist's understanding of electronics, and I was under the impression that there are situations that would call for a more exact value, but never a *less* exact one. Am I mistaken? | 2023/02/20 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/654689",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/113823/"
] | There might be a hidden specification in wanting 5% - the circuit might be relying on carbon film (typically 5%, "beige bones") vs metal film (typically 1%, "blue bones") resistors. Carbon film has different behaviour under temporary overloads (in a bad design, a metal film resistor might fail) and looks (which might be relevant if someone is restoring vintage equipment and wants their resistors as beige as they were). | Yes. If you are building a run of (say) 100 RC oscillators and you want them to have a spread of frequencies from (say) 95-105kHz. So you buy a lot of 5% resistors and **select** to get that range.
Of course there *are* better ways to do this, but it isn't an impossible scenario.
In other words, the customer is always right.
(Just playing devil's avocado here.) |
654,689 | I work at an electronics store and the other day a customer came in who was rebuilding a circuit board. I sold him some resistors, but later he came back in wanting to return some of them because they were only 1% tolerance, and he needed 5%. I'm not an engineer but I have a hobbyist's understanding of electronics, and I was under the impression that there are situations that would call for a more exact value, but never a *less* exact one. Am I mistaken? | 2023/02/20 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/654689",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/113823/"
] | There might be a hidden specification in wanting 5% - the circuit might be relying on carbon film (typically 5%, "beige bones") vs metal film (typically 1%, "blue bones") resistors. Carbon film has different behaviour under temporary overloads (in a bad design, a metal film resistor might fail) and looks (which might be relevant if someone is restoring vintage equipment and wants their resistors as beige as they were). | depending on the circuit you are making, you don't need the precision. For example, if it is a current limiting resistor it will do the work either at 1% or 5%.
Honestly the main reason to prefer 5% over higher precision like 1% is cost, the other is power, it is very hard to guarantee very high precision for higher power components.
Edit: now for your specific case, I can't see a case where you would want less in general, if everything else is equal then yeah 1% is within the 5% and should work in all conditons. |
654,689 | I work at an electronics store and the other day a customer came in who was rebuilding a circuit board. I sold him some resistors, but later he came back in wanting to return some of them because they were only 1% tolerance, and he needed 5%. I'm not an engineer but I have a hobbyist's understanding of electronics, and I was under the impression that there are situations that would call for a more exact value, but never a *less* exact one. Am I mistaken? | 2023/02/20 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/654689",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/113823/"
] | If he truly did want 5% instead of 1% then he may have been trying to bin the resistors. That is, individually testing each one and selecting for a particular value.
Are you sure he did not say he needed 0.5%? Because no one says it is "only 1%" then proceeds to get 5%.
Otherwise you might prefer 5% if the resistor composition you needed simply did not come in 1%, but that's preferring one composition over another, not 5% over 1% and I would not expect anyone to phrase it as such. | For a random signal noise source, you may want noisier resistors that tend to come with larger tolerances because of different technology. Admittedly that's extra-handwavy because the additional noisiness of, say, carbon resistors comes from shot noise while a good random signal noise source would rather tend to rely on Johnson noise (which is more dependable).
Another handwavy reason might be that more precise resistors tend to be trimmed, and bein suitable for trimming implies an underlying structure that is more susceptible to stray inductivity.
Note that either of those reasons is really grasping at straws as an intellectual game.
The straightforward answer is "no", really. |
654,689 | I work at an electronics store and the other day a customer came in who was rebuilding a circuit board. I sold him some resistors, but later he came back in wanting to return some of them because they were only 1% tolerance, and he needed 5%. I'm not an engineer but I have a hobbyist's understanding of electronics, and I was under the impression that there are situations that would call for a more exact value, but never a *less* exact one. Am I mistaken? | 2023/02/20 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/654689",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/113823/"
] | There might be a hidden specification in wanting 5% - the circuit might be relying on carbon film (typically 5%, "beige bones") vs metal film (typically 1%, "blue bones") resistors. Carbon film has different behaviour under temporary overloads (in a bad design, a metal film resistor might fail) and looks (which might be relevant if someone is restoring vintage equipment and wants their resistors as beige as they were). | There's no technical benefit. All resistors are ideally 0% tolerance. As they can't be, circuits should be designed for the part's worst value at tolerance. It's a design complication that leads to performance variance.
In the past, 5% resistors have been significantly cheaper than 1% resistors. That becomes important when buying in volume rather than handfuls. Nowadays, 1% resistors are the standard part and there's no cost benefit in 5% resistors.
*My guesses here:*
* Your customer was buying replacement parts for an existing circuit and so wanted like-for-like, not understanding there were no downsides to a 1% part
* Your customer was buying against a spec' or parts list and simply wanted the specified part |
654,689 | I work at an electronics store and the other day a customer came in who was rebuilding a circuit board. I sold him some resistors, but later he came back in wanting to return some of them because they were only 1% tolerance, and he needed 5%. I'm not an engineer but I have a hobbyist's understanding of electronics, and I was under the impression that there are situations that would call for a more exact value, but never a *less* exact one. Am I mistaken? | 2023/02/20 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/654689",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/113823/"
] | There might be a hidden specification in wanting 5% - the circuit might be relying on carbon film (typically 5%, "beige bones") vs metal film (typically 1%, "blue bones") resistors. Carbon film has different behaviour under temporary overloads (in a bad design, a metal film resistor might fail) and looks (which might be relevant if someone is restoring vintage equipment and wants their resistors as beige as they were). | Customers don't know everything, I once returned a suitable product as unsuitable just because I don't know any better.
However customers are always right (tm)
With beer 5% is better than 1%, perhaps your customer was thinking along those lines. |
654,689 | I work at an electronics store and the other day a customer came in who was rebuilding a circuit board. I sold him some resistors, but later he came back in wanting to return some of them because they were only 1% tolerance, and he needed 5%. I'm not an engineer but I have a hobbyist's understanding of electronics, and I was under the impression that there are situations that would call for a more exact value, but never a *less* exact one. Am I mistaken? | 2023/02/20 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/654689",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/113823/"
] | There might be a hidden specification in wanting 5% - the circuit might be relying on carbon film (typically 5%, "beige bones") vs metal film (typically 1%, "blue bones") resistors. Carbon film has different behaviour under temporary overloads (in a bad design, a metal film resistor might fail) and looks (which might be relevant if someone is restoring vintage equipment and wants their resistors as beige as they were). | Of course agreeing with all other answers that generally say "no", I see those four cases:
1. In analog musical circuits not-tight values may produce "the tone", when all loose tolerances in filters and other elements sum up, making one's tone less reproducable. Thus, even when you build a clone of your sound processor and give it to a friend, you two sound slightly differently. Though this does not apply to Hi-Fi equipment - rather artistic ones (e.g. guitar effects, synthesizers etc.).
2. It was the point to measure them and prepare some report/statistics - for example for students classes.
3. Preparation for bigger order: as 5%s are cheaper, he searched for best under that price label.
4. Thinking about next serviceman: seeing 1% would think "why it is so tight and do I really need the same for replacement?".
About half a year ago I had to replace 1200 uF capacitor in somehow regular switching power supply. As a hobbyist I was wondering for a while if I really need this value (I had only 1000 uFs in my box and live in a place without electronic store by the corner). I had used 1000 uF I had and since then owner of the equipment hasn't complained - and we are still friends! ;D.
The customer may have not mentioned that being sure that you will provide him with 5%s as defaults. |
654,689 | I work at an electronics store and the other day a customer came in who was rebuilding a circuit board. I sold him some resistors, but later he came back in wanting to return some of them because they were only 1% tolerance, and he needed 5%. I'm not an engineer but I have a hobbyist's understanding of electronics, and I was under the impression that there are situations that would call for a more exact value, but never a *less* exact one. Am I mistaken? | 2023/02/20 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/654689",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/113823/"
] | If *everything* else is the same then there is no technical reason to prefer a looser tolerance, so I think you are correct.
Of course there are situations where a particular manufacturer and part number may be required for regulatory or other similar reasons and no substitutes are permissible. And there are many resistor characteristics that are important in some situations but are not specified by the nominal resistance value + tolerance + power rating (or package). For example, a composition resistor may be specified because of superior power pulse handling, but they cannot be made in tight tolerances due to the way they are manufactured. A 1% film resistor of the same value, package size and power dissipation rating might fail in short order. | There might be a hidden specification in wanting 5% - the circuit might be relying on carbon film (typically 5%, "beige bones") vs metal film (typically 1%, "blue bones") resistors. Carbon film has different behaviour under temporary overloads (in a bad design, a metal film resistor might fail) and looks (which might be relevant if someone is restoring vintage equipment and wants their resistors as beige as they were). |
654,689 | I work at an electronics store and the other day a customer came in who was rebuilding a circuit board. I sold him some resistors, but later he came back in wanting to return some of them because they were only 1% tolerance, and he needed 5%. I'm not an engineer but I have a hobbyist's understanding of electronics, and I was under the impression that there are situations that would call for a more exact value, but never a *less* exact one. Am I mistaken? | 2023/02/20 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/654689",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/113823/"
] | For a random signal noise source, you may want noisier resistors that tend to come with larger tolerances because of different technology. Admittedly that's extra-handwavy because the additional noisiness of, say, carbon resistors comes from shot noise while a good random signal noise source would rather tend to rely on Johnson noise (which is more dependable).
Another handwavy reason might be that more precise resistors tend to be trimmed, and bein suitable for trimming implies an underlying structure that is more susceptible to stray inductivity.
Note that either of those reasons is really grasping at straws as an intellectual game.
The straightforward answer is "no", really. | Customers don't know everything, I once returned a suitable product as unsuitable just because I don't know any better.
However customers are always right (tm)
With beer 5% is better than 1%, perhaps your customer was thinking along those lines. |
654,689 | I work at an electronics store and the other day a customer came in who was rebuilding a circuit board. I sold him some resistors, but later he came back in wanting to return some of them because they were only 1% tolerance, and he needed 5%. I'm not an engineer but I have a hobbyist's understanding of electronics, and I was under the impression that there are situations that would call for a more exact value, but never a *less* exact one. Am I mistaken? | 2023/02/20 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/654689",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/113823/"
] | If he truly did want 5% instead of 1% then he may have been trying to bin the resistors. That is, individually testing each one and selecting for a particular value.
Are you sure he did not say he needed 0.5%? Because no one says it is "only 1%" then proceeds to get 5%.
Otherwise you might prefer 5% if the resistor composition you needed simply did not come in 1%, but that's preferring one composition over another, not 5% over 1% and I would not expect anyone to phrase it as such. | Of course agreeing with all other answers that generally say "no", I see those four cases:
1. In analog musical circuits not-tight values may produce "the tone", when all loose tolerances in filters and other elements sum up, making one's tone less reproducable. Thus, even when you build a clone of your sound processor and give it to a friend, you two sound slightly differently. Though this does not apply to Hi-Fi equipment - rather artistic ones (e.g. guitar effects, synthesizers etc.).
2. It was the point to measure them and prepare some report/statistics - for example for students classes.
3. Preparation for bigger order: as 5%s are cheaper, he searched for best under that price label.
4. Thinking about next serviceman: seeing 1% would think "why it is so tight and do I really need the same for replacement?".
About half a year ago I had to replace 1200 uF capacitor in somehow regular switching power supply. As a hobbyist I was wondering for a while if I really need this value (I had only 1000 uFs in my box and live in a place without electronic store by the corner). I had used 1000 uF I had and since then owner of the equipment hasn't complained - and we are still friends! ;D.
The customer may have not mentioned that being sure that you will provide him with 5%s as defaults. |
654,689 | I work at an electronics store and the other day a customer came in who was rebuilding a circuit board. I sold him some resistors, but later he came back in wanting to return some of them because they were only 1% tolerance, and he needed 5%. I'm not an engineer but I have a hobbyist's understanding of electronics, and I was under the impression that there are situations that would call for a more exact value, but never a *less* exact one. Am I mistaken? | 2023/02/20 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/654689",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/113823/"
] | Of course agreeing with all other answers that generally say "no", I see those four cases:
1. In analog musical circuits not-tight values may produce "the tone", when all loose tolerances in filters and other elements sum up, making one's tone less reproducable. Thus, even when you build a clone of your sound processor and give it to a friend, you two sound slightly differently. Though this does not apply to Hi-Fi equipment - rather artistic ones (e.g. guitar effects, synthesizers etc.).
2. It was the point to measure them and prepare some report/statistics - for example for students classes.
3. Preparation for bigger order: as 5%s are cheaper, he searched for best under that price label.
4. Thinking about next serviceman: seeing 1% would think "why it is so tight and do I really need the same for replacement?".
About half a year ago I had to replace 1200 uF capacitor in somehow regular switching power supply. As a hobbyist I was wondering for a while if I really need this value (I had only 1000 uFs in my box and live in a place without electronic store by the corner). I had used 1000 uF I had and since then owner of the equipment hasn't complained - and we are still friends! ;D.
The customer may have not mentioned that being sure that you will provide him with 5%s as defaults. | **People forget economics**
Why would you want a 5% tolerance resistor? Because it's cheaper than a 1% tolerance resistor and your circuit can stand the variation.
A good example of such a circuit is a voltage divider where *both* resistors are 5% tolerance. Generally (not perfectly, but generally), resistors of the same tolerance will vary in value in the same way under identical environmental conditions. Thus, it's not worth paying for 1% tolerance when all you care about is the unitless ratio of the two resistances.
In this case, if the rebuilt board already had a 5% tolerance resistor, another 5% tolerance resistor would be required or the ratio would vary with environmental conditions, which can be bad.
*Note: This isn't perfect, obviously, but I've not only seen this done, I've done it myself, especially in microelectronic design where you know for a fact that the manufacturing process of the two resistances is identical. Heck, we'd use short strips of polysilicon rather than actual resistors that would take up more real estate so long as they had the same orientation to guarantee the same processing encroachment.*
I can't help it... I'm reminded of an old joke from my college days. A mathematician, a physicist, and an engineer are asked to answer the question, "what is 2+2?" The mathematician proudly answers "4!" The physicist smirks and says "4.00000!" The engineer looks a bit bewildered by their answers and responds, "any damn thing that works." |
1,521 | What I mean is that is it more dangerous than other contact sports that aren't martial arts? Such as Football, Soccer, Basketball, etc...
And if yes, why? | 2012/10/16 | [
"https://martialarts.stackexchange.com/questions/1521",
"https://martialarts.stackexchange.com",
"https://martialarts.stackexchange.com/users/112/"
] | I'm not sure that your statement about the safety of boxing is generally accepted.
>
> ["There is absolutely no way you can make boxing safe," said Nelson Richards, MD, a delegate from the American Academy of Neurology who proposed the original resolution to ban the sport in 1983.](https://www.ama-assn.org/amednews/2002/07/08/hlsb0708.htm)
>
>
>
[The BBC reported](http://www.bbc.co.uk/health/physical_health/conditions/boxing.shtml)
>
> According to brain surgeons, over 80 per cent of professional boxers have serious brain scarring on MRI scans. The evidence for harm or cumulative brain damage to amateur boxers is less clear.
>
>
>
Boxing advocates point out that amateur boxing [has fewer injuries](http://www.boxinggyms.com/gladiator/newpaper/safe.htm) than soccer, gymnastics, etc. However that source doesn't cite how they measure "fewer injuries", and doesn't state whether they count long term damage to the brain. [There is some evidence that even amateur boxing can cause brain damage.](http://www.science20.com/news_articles/even_amateur_boxing_can_cause_brain_damage-89512)
Ultimately, you may want to look at a source which [compares injury rates](http://www.thecni.org/reviews/11-1-p35-gerberkozora.htm). A quick google search suggests that [football and soccer](https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC2267335/) have the highest injury rate/hour practiced. But that doesn't address the severity or long term consequences of those injuries. | While black eyes and minor bruises or the occasional broke nose are quite common in boxing, i think the devastating injuries like cruciate-ruptures are rare.
From my non-representative experience i'd say that runners, soccer-players and the like usually spend more time with doctors because of knee-injuries or broken ankles than (thai) boxers.
Boxing happens in a very controlled environment, there is only one opponent to pay attention to and the attacks and defenses are well-established. While there is a big strategic component, there is not much creativity going into making up moves on the fly.
Soccer for example seems much less predictable to me. While running at full speed an focusing on the ball one may have to deal with being tackled at any moment. |
1,521 | What I mean is that is it more dangerous than other contact sports that aren't martial arts? Such as Football, Soccer, Basketball, etc...
And if yes, why? | 2012/10/16 | [
"https://martialarts.stackexchange.com/questions/1521",
"https://martialarts.stackexchange.com",
"https://martialarts.stackexchange.com/users/112/"
] | At a good gym, meaning experienced coaches and decent equipment, boxing/kick-boxing should not be that dangerous. First of all, you're probably not sparring right away, and once you are its in a controlled environment with mouthpieces, headgear, gloves, and shinpads(if kickboxing).
As pointed out in a previous answer, you are probably at an increased risk of facial bruises, bloody noses, etc, but not serious injury. However, if you are training for an MMA style of fighting which includes takedowns, your rate of injury is going to spike sharply.
Comparing it to other sports is tricky. Even at a high-school level we certainly had a higher level of general injuries in football, and typically more severe...broken bones not being uncommon. Basketball didn't have the same high incidence of really violent injuries, but a much higher incidence of high ankle sprains and the like. Soccer seemed relatively safe but I never played at a highly competitive level, and if you watch the Europeans play you'd think it was more dangerous than trying to snuff volcanoes with your bare hands with the frequency they go down screaming in pain.
In short, I think there are too many variables to objectively answer your question, but the above has been my (anecdotal) experience. | While black eyes and minor bruises or the occasional broke nose are quite common in boxing, i think the devastating injuries like cruciate-ruptures are rare.
From my non-representative experience i'd say that runners, soccer-players and the like usually spend more time with doctors because of knee-injuries or broken ankles than (thai) boxers.
Boxing happens in a very controlled environment, there is only one opponent to pay attention to and the attacks and defenses are well-established. While there is a big strategic component, there is not much creativity going into making up moves on the fly.
Soccer for example seems much less predictable to me. While running at full speed an focusing on the ball one may have to deal with being tackled at any moment. |
1,521 | What I mean is that is it more dangerous than other contact sports that aren't martial arts? Such as Football, Soccer, Basketball, etc...
And if yes, why? | 2012/10/16 | [
"https://martialarts.stackexchange.com/questions/1521",
"https://martialarts.stackexchange.com",
"https://martialarts.stackexchange.com/users/112/"
] | The short answer is yes. The very point of the sport is to do damage to your opponent. That being said, the chances of you actually breaking something (apart from your nose) is pretty rare. The only particularly dangerous thing that can happen to you in boxing or kickboxing is a concussion, which can and probably will cause scarring of the brain and make you "punch drunk" after a few years.
So yes, boxing and kickboxing is pretty dangerous, but the types of serious injury is limited to your brain unless you're very unlucky. | While black eyes and minor bruises or the occasional broke nose are quite common in boxing, i think the devastating injuries like cruciate-ruptures are rare.
From my non-representative experience i'd say that runners, soccer-players and the like usually spend more time with doctors because of knee-injuries or broken ankles than (thai) boxers.
Boxing happens in a very controlled environment, there is only one opponent to pay attention to and the attacks and defenses are well-established. While there is a big strategic component, there is not much creativity going into making up moves on the fly.
Soccer for example seems much less predictable to me. While running at full speed an focusing on the ball one may have to deal with being tackled at any moment. |
1,521 | What I mean is that is it more dangerous than other contact sports that aren't martial arts? Such as Football, Soccer, Basketball, etc...
And if yes, why? | 2012/10/16 | [
"https://martialarts.stackexchange.com/questions/1521",
"https://martialarts.stackexchange.com",
"https://martialarts.stackexchange.com/users/112/"
] | TL;DR: Yes, kickboxing, MMA, and boxing are extremely dangerous.
----------------------------------------------------------------
**The greatest risk in all combat sports in which blows to the head are allowed is traumatic brain injury. When it comes to traumatic brain injury, boxing is by far the most dangerous sport, but kickboxing and MMA aren't far behind.**
---
Brain Injury:
-------------
>
> Almost a century ago, a rare but serious form of dementia was linked to repetitive head injuries in boxing. The dementia was aptly named, “Boxer’s dementia.” Lately, this “punch drunk” dementia has been found to affect athletes in other sports, such as American football and soccer, where athletes' heads take repeated blows, so a broader term for this condition was needed.
>
>
> Chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE), is a related brain disorder that has been shown to affect other kinds of athletes, and more rarely, non-athletes who sustain head injuries...
>
>
> Its prevalence in boxers continues. One recent review study of athletes who were diagnosed with CTE found that of the 51 confirmed cases of CTE, 46 were in athletes – and of these, 39 were boxers. Five football players, a soccer player, and a wrestler made up the remainder of the athletes affected by chronic brain trauma.
>
> - [Athletes and Brain Trauma](http://www.thedoctorwillseeyounow.com/content/sports_medicine/art3599.html)
>
>
>
From an article on a 2014 [study](http://ajs.sagepub.com/content/early/2014/03/19/0363546514526151.full.pdf+html?sid=a2e7e3b5-e377-4840-9489-6e3903519bae), limited to kickboxers and MMA fighters:
>
> **The rate of serious head injuries among professional mixed martial arts competitors is potentially twice that of professional football players, according to U.S. researchers...**
>
>
> Yet [fighters'] risk of head injury hadn't been well studied, according to [Michael Hutchison, a researcher at the University of Toronto] and his coauthors. The highly physical nature of the contact sport - which some critics consider dangerous or violent - got the researchers wondering just how high a risk players run of getting knocked out repeatedly.
>
>
> The first event they looked for was knock-outs, in which players are literally knocked unconscious. The second, known as technical knockouts, occur when a referee or other authority judges that the player is too woozy to successfully defend him- or herself. Both kinds of knockout end the match.
>
>
> The researchers also used statistics to investigate which factors were associated with a player having a higher risk of a knockout or a technical knockout due to being struck multiple times.
>
>
> **They found that players suffered a knockout in 12.7 percent of matches, and that a technical knockout took place in about 19 percent, meaning that nearly one-third of matches ended as a result of some type of head trauma.**
>
>
> **These numbers mean that out of every 100 matches in which a mixed martial arts athlete could be knocked out, known as an athlete exposure, the injury would happen 6.4 times.**
>
>
> **The comparable concussion rates for boxing and kickboxing are, respectively, 4.9 and 1.9 per 100 exposures, the authors note.**
>
>
> Moreover, they observed that competitors often used the few seconds before the referee stepped in to repeatedly kick the downed opponent in the head.
>
>
> **If all knockouts and technical knockouts are counted as concussions, the rate among professional mixed martial arts athletes seen in the study was about 16 per 100 athlete exposures.**
>
>
> It's tempting to compare those statistics to rates of concussions in sports such as football, which has been found to have 8.08 concussions per 100 plays, and ice hockey, with 2.2 concussions per 100 athlete-encounters.
>
> - [Head injury risk is high in mixed martial arts: study](http://www.reuters.com/article/us-head-injury-idUSBREA311SB20140402)
>
>
>
From an article about [an ongoing long-term study](http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/25633832) of brain injuries in boxing and MMA, whose results to date were published in 2015:
>
> Is boxing the better sport or does mixed martial arts win that title? While spectators may debate for hours, the answer to that question when it focuses solely on the health of participants is simple: **Both are bad, research indicates, even if martial arts combatants have a slight advantage. The repeated head blows sustained by fighters during their battles link to slower cognitive processing speeds and smaller volumes of certain brain parts.**
>
>
> “**Repetitive head trauma may be a risk factor for Alzheimer’s disease and is considered the primary cause of chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE)**,” wrote the authors in their new study. A**lzheimer’s is a well-known form of dementia, while CTE is a progressive degenerative disease of the brain linked to memory loss, confusion, impaired judgment, impulse control problems, aggression, depression, and progressive dementia.**
>
>
> **To understand how these sports might affect fighters’ brains, researchers from Cleveland Clinic turned to the data collected by the Professional Fighters Brain Health Study (PFBHS). They identified 224 professional fighters: 131 mixed martial arts (MMA) fighters and 93 boxers. The PFBHS athletes were all between the ages of 18 and 44 and the average time these professionals had fought was about four years, with an average number of 10 total matches...** Next, the researchers matched these athletes with 22 same-aged people with a similar level of education but no history of head trauma.
>
>
> At the start of the study, all participants underwent an MRI scan to assess their brain volume and then they returned for a brain scan annually for four years after that. At each juncture, the researchers tested their verbal memory, processing speed, fine motor skills, and reaction times as a general assessment of brainpower. Next, the researchers calculated for each athlete a Fight Exposure Score, or FES, which combines duration and intensity of fight career...
>
>
> **Fighters with an FES score of four were found to be 8.8 percent slower in processing speed than those with an FES score of 0. Add to that, the higher the score, the smaller the brain volume, particularly in the thalamus and the caudate**... The researchers speculate the typical response to a punch — when a fighter’s head rotates slightly — might be the cause of volume loss in the thalamus and caudate.
>
>
> **More generally, smaller brain volumes plus higher Fight Exposure Scores were linked to slower brain processing speeds. In fact, the researchers estimated a 0.19 percent reduction in processing speed per fight and a 2.1 percent reduction for each increase in FES. Irrespective of age, boxers tended to fare worse than martial arts combatants.**
>
>
> “**Perhaps the most obvious explanation is that boxers get hit in the head more**,” the authors note. “**MMA fighters can utilize other combat skills such as wrestling and jiu jitsu to win their match by submission without causing a concussion.” In the end, boxers' brain structure volumes were smaller and they were mentally slower than the mixed martial arts fighters. Ever so slightly, then, MMA edges out boxing as the 'better' sport, at least in terms of a fighter's health.**
>
> - [Head Blows And Brain Injury: Boxing And Mixed Martial Arts Cause A Similar Loss Of Processing Speed In Fighters' Brains](http://www.medicaldaily.com/head-blows-and-brain-injury-boxing-and-mixed-martial-arts-cause-similar-loss-320000)
>
>
>
---
Why are boxing, kickboxing, and MMA more dangerous than non-combat sports?
--------------------------------------------------------------------------
### TL;DR: Because in team sports, blows to the head are an unfortunate but inevitable consequence of the game; in combat sports, blows to the head are one of the *goals* of the game.
### American Football, Basketball, and Soccer:
In American football, you're trying to get the ball into the end zone and stop the other team from doing likewise. In basketball, you're trying to throw the ball through the hoop and stop the other team from doing likewise. In soccer, you're trying to kick the ball into the goal and stop the other team from doing likewise. Someone might get hurt in any of these sports, but that's a side effect, not the primary objective.
### Boxing:
In boxing, you're trying to punch the other guy until he is unconscious or unable to fight; although body shots sometimes achieve this goal, the surest way to pull it off is to punch your opponent in the face and head as many times as possible, as hard as you can. In other words, you're basically doing everything in your power to give the guy a concussion. What is a concussion? Simple: a concussion is traumatic brain injury. Thus, when two boxers step in the ring, they are essentially trying their hardest to inflict traumatic brain injury on one another.
The fact that boxers are restricted to hitting each other from the belt up increases the rates of brain injury, because you are only allowed to hit opponents on the end of the body where the head happens to be.
Aside from brain trauma, the most common injuries in boxing are broken bones (usually in the head and face - noses, eye sockets, cheekbones, jaws - but sometimes in other places - especially the ribs and hands), eye damage, and swelling. These are relatively minor, relative to brain injury, and easy to overcome.
### Kickboxing:
In kickboxing, as in boxing, the goal is to hit your opponent until he is unconscious or incapable of fighting; however, you're allowed to strike with more of your body (hands, feet, shins, knees, and elbows, as opposed to just your hands), and you're allowed to hit the opponent in more places on his body (basically, everything except the testicles, throat, and eyes, as opposed to only the face, sides of the head, and front and sides of the torso).
This simultaneously reduces the percentage of shots that will be delivered to the head (because more areas are fair game) and increases the kinds of shots that will be delivered to the head (because you're kicking AND punching, and because punches can strike with other parts of your hand, not just your knuckles). It also helps that you can block incoming attacks with your legs as well as your hands and arms.
All in all, kickboxing is slightly less likely to cause brain damage than boxing is, for all the reasons mentioned above, but the difference is negligible.
However, other injuries are far more common in kickboxing than in boxing, mainly broken bones in the arms, legs, feet, hands, ribs, and face. And obviously, there's plenty of bruising, and some damage to ligaments and tendons.
### MMA:
If kickboxing can be described (via a slight oversimplification) as "boxing plus kicking", then MMA might be described as "kickboxing plus grappling". All of the factors I mentioned in relation to kickboxing apply here, but there is the added component of the grappling: whereas boxers and kickboxers are limited to striking, MMA fighters have other options. They can grab, hold, throw, wrestle, etc.
Obviously, the grappling angle of MMA means that even less time is spent trading shots to the face and head than is the case in kickboxing; as a result, traumatic brain injury is probably slightly less common in MMA than kickboxing, and even less common than it is in boxing. Again, though, the difference is relatively small.
On the other hand, [some researchers](http://thesportspost.com/science-says-mma-is-the-most-dangerous-sport/) believe that MMA might be a bigger risk for brain injury, although their findings were based on reviewing fight tapes rather than examining fighters or their medical records. They speculate that one reason for MMA being more dangerous is related to the fact that MMA bouts often end with the dominant fighter delivering a flurry of head shots to his opponent, while the opponent is pinned on the ground and incapable of defending himself.
Non-brain-related injuries are probably more common in MMA than in kickboxing or boxing, and in addition to broken bones, bruising, and torn ligaments/tendons, dislocations are more common because of grappling and submission holds.
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If you're still not convinced, you might want to look at the [Manuel Velazquez Boxing Fatality Collection](http://ejmas.com/jcs/velazquez/), which lists all the known, recorded cases in which boxers died due to injuries sustained in the ring. At present, the [raw data](https://docs.google.com/spreadsheets/d/1e7iWW3KLuVYfQjN_MOK3a9M42Ht_ACIZVa3Tf5n_Z5o/edit?usp=sharing) lists 2,045 such cases between September 1724 and December 2015; there are 1,324 boxing deaths listed between December 1915 and December 2015.
There is no such resource for kickboxing or MMA, and I'm not aware of any similar resources for any team sports. | While black eyes and minor bruises or the occasional broke nose are quite common in boxing, i think the devastating injuries like cruciate-ruptures are rare.
From my non-representative experience i'd say that runners, soccer-players and the like usually spend more time with doctors because of knee-injuries or broken ankles than (thai) boxers.
Boxing happens in a very controlled environment, there is only one opponent to pay attention to and the attacks and defenses are well-established. While there is a big strategic component, there is not much creativity going into making up moves on the fly.
Soccer for example seems much less predictable to me. While running at full speed an focusing on the ball one may have to deal with being tackled at any moment. |
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