JamesSpray/medmcqa_evaluation · Datasets at Hugging Face

instruction stringlengths 7 582	input stringlengths 19 560	output int64 0 3
A driver wearing seat belt applied brake suddenly to avoid a collision. Which of the following body pas is most likely to be injured?	A: Liver B: Spleen C: Mesentery D: Abdominal aoa	2
Drug not given in PCOD in a 30-year-old lady with infeility?	A: Clomiphene B: Tamoxifen C: OCPs D: Metformin	1
According to Kim and colleagues which of the following describe type IV isthmus?	A: Two canals with a definite connection between them B: Complete or incomplete isthmus between three or more canals C: Very short, complete Isthmus between two canals D: Two or three canal openings without visible connections	1
Heavy and light body impression materials are used with:	A: Mercaptan B: Silicone C: Reversible hydrocolloid D: 1 and 2	3
In comparison to maxillary central incisor, maxillary canine has a height of contour that is:	A: More B: Less C: Same D: Different on different teeth	0
Bite cells are seen in	A: G6PD deficiency B: SCA C: Hereditory spherocytosis D: Trauma	0
The decreased phosphate levels seen in hyper parathyroidism is due to:	A: Decreased intestinal phosphate absorption B: Increased calcium excretion C: Decreased renal phosphate absorption D: Increased loss of phosphate in urine	2
A patient on Anti - tubercular therapy develops tingling sensation in the limbs. Which of the following when substituted can result in improvement of symptoms?	A: Thiamine B: Pyridoxine C: Folic acid D: Methylcobalamine	1
A permanent tooth with fracture involving apical one third of root after treatment, would most likely:	A: Exhibit internal root resorption B: Remain vital and functional C: Be ankylosed D: Exhibit external root resorption and exfoliate	1
The effect of enlarged Adenoids on the maxillary growth is by	A: Narrowing of maxilla B: Widening of maxilla C: Palatal plane tipped upwards at PNS D: Palate descends down	0
Which of the following is not true of boiling water	A: It can kill hepatitis B virus B: Used for sterilizing surgical instruments C: Can kill mycobacterium tuberculosis D: Can kill vegetative bacterial cells	1
Marker appearing last in MI	A: LDH B: CPK-MB C: Troponin T D: Troponin I	0
Patient reports with severe throbbing pain in relation to mandibular second molar. The tooth is sensitive to both hot and cold food and elicits a painful response on percussion. What would be your treatment of choice?	A: Incision and drainage of Periapical area B: Endodontic therapy C: Indirect pulp capping D: Partial pulpectomy	1
Which of the following is not true about the larynx?	A: All intrinsic muscles are supplied by the recurrent laryngeal nerve B: Cricothyroid is supplied by the external laryngeal nerve C: Posterior cricoarytenoid abduct the vocal cords D: Lymphatic drainage of the larynx is to the deep cervical nodes	0
Etanercept is a disease-modifying drug used in management of rheumatoid ahritis. What is its mechanism of action?	A: Inhibition of TNF alpha B: COX-2 inhibition C: IL-6 inhibition D: Stabilization of mast cells	0
A6 month old child with Tetralogy of Fallot develops cyanotic spell initiated by crying. Which one of the following drugs you would like to avoid –	A: Sodium bicarbonate B: Propranolol C: Phenylephrine D: Isoprenaline	3
For root fracture it is imperative to take X-ray at?	A: 45°, 90° B: 90° C: 90°, 110° D: 45°, 90°, 110°	3
A 5 year child is brought with brown coloured urine and oliguria since 3 days with mild facial puffiness and pedal edema with 3+ proteinuria, BP 126/90. Urine examination shows RBCs 100/hpf and granular casts. Which of the following doesn't present with this finding?	A: Minimal change disease B: Membranous glomerulonephritis C: FSGS D: IgA nephropathy	0
An alert 6 months old child is brought with vomiting & diarrhea. RR–45/min, HR–130/min, S P–85 mm of Hg. Capillary refilling time is 4 secs. Diagnosis is –	A: Early compensated hypovolemic shock B: Early decompensated hypovolemic shock C: Late compensated hypovolemic shock D: Late decompensated shock due to SVT	0
Postherpetic neuralgia is defined as pain lasting beyond how many weeks?	A: 1 week B: 2 weeks C: 3 weeks D: 4 weeks	3
Swelling and redness of the orifices of minor salivary glands of the palate occurs in:	A: Nicotinic stornatitis B: Leukoplakia C: Fovea palatine D: Erythroplakia	0
A child is diagnosed to have acute gastroenteritis. The consulting pediatrician wants to send a stool sample to a lab which is 16-18 hours away. Which of the following mediums should he use to send this sample –	A: Charcol cotton bud B: Carry Blair medium C: Sterilized jar D: A medium with high CO2 content	1
GIC was developed by:	A: Barnum. B: Wilson and Kent. C: Bowen. D: Herman.	1
The first sensation to be lost following administration of local anesthetic is	A: Proprioception B: Pain C: Touch D: Temperature	1
Drug causing toxic optic neuropathy is:March 2009	A: Pyrazinamide B: Chloroquine C: Ethambutol D: Tetracycile	2
A 6 years old child with development delay, can ride a tricycle, can climb upstairs with alternate feet, but downstairs with 2 feet per step, can tell his name, known his own sex, but cannot narrate a story. What is his development age?	A: 3 years B: 4 years C: 5 years D: 2 years	0
A 20 years old woman has been brought to casualty with BP 70/40 mm Hg, pulse rate 120/min. and a positive urine pregnancy test. She should be managed by:	A: Immediate laparotomy B: Laparoscopy C: Culdocentesis D: Resuscitation and Medical management	0
Major mechanism of action of nitrates in acute attack of angina is:-	A: Coronary vasodilation B: Decreases in preload C: Decreases in afterload D: Decreases in hea rate	1
Black Extension for prevention to MID (Minimally invasive dentistry), all are true except	A: Site & size of lesion B: Technique & Material used C: Increase number of cariogenic bacteria D: Minimal preparation of cavity	2
In dental composite 75 % by weight filler is approximately what % volume of filler?	A: 85 B: 90 C: 60 D: 50	3
In penicillin allergy, penicillin acts as a:	A: Hapten B: Carrier C: Super antigen D: Toxin	0
A 12 years old boy develops sore throat of 4 day s duration. On examination, yellow grayish patch seen over both the tonsils and foul smell coming from his mouth. Which of the following non-suppurative complication is of concern?	A: Acute rheumatic fever B: Acute glomerulonephritis C: Both acute rheumatic fever and acute glomerulonephritis D: Scarlet fever	2
In a patient with implanted cardiac pacemaker (defibrillator),which of the following investigation is useful to know the position of the misplaced implant ?.	A: X-ray B: CT scan C: MR1 D: USG	0
What is the effective management of a dengue patient with warning signs without shock and haemorrhage-	A: Steroids B: Platelet transfusion C: IV fluids D: Antiviral	2
Most impoant but nonspecific regulator of iron metabolism is:	A: Hepcidin B: DMT I C: Ferropoin D: Ferritin	0
Treatment of solitary langerhans histiocytoma of mandible is by	A: Curettage B: Radiotherapy C: No treatment required D: Chemotherapy	0
In PHC, which anticoagulant is used to send the blood sample for blood glucose:	A: EDTA B: Heparin C: Potassium oxalate + sodium fluoride D: Potassium oxalate	2
HIV sentinel surveillance provides data:	A: To monitor disease trends B: To identify high risk population C: To estimate disease incidence D: To assess the quality of related services	0
1,1,1,1 Tetra-floroethylene is applied during cold test testing with?	A: # 4 Cotton pellet B: # 2 Cotton pellet C: # 6 Cotton pellet D: # 8 Cotton pellet	1
A radiotherapist prescribes a new drug combination of chemotherapy and immunotherapy for metastatic melanoma. It prolongs the survival. Which of the following is true in this situation?	A: Incidence reduces and prevalence increases B: Incidence remains the same and prevalence increases C: Incidence reduces and prevalence remains the same D: Incidence increases and prevalence reduces	1
Receptors for olfactory sensation are present in:	A: Lateral walls B: Nasal septum C: Lateral wall and nasal septum above superior concha D: None of the above	2
What processing should be done of the blood before transfusion to reduce chances of febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction (FNHTR)?	A: Irradiation B: Washing C: Leucocyte reduction D: Glycolisation	2
All the following nerves are related to the mandible except:	A: Lingual nerve B: Auriculotemporal nerve C: Chorda tympani D: Mental nerve	2
Which of the following statements about high copper silver alloy compared to conventional alloy in not true?	A: It has increased tensile and compressive strength B: It has poor tarnish and corrosion resistance C: Its edge strength is greater D: Mercury content in the final restoration is less	1
After amalgam polishing, the outermost surface has crystals arranged flattened to tooth surface. This layer is known as	A: Beilby layer B: Beillyl layer C: Beibyl Layer D: none of the above	0
Nutra sweet is:	A: Saccharin. B: Aspartame. C: Xylitol. D: Sorbitol.	1
Which of the following drugs is not used in typhoid fever?	A: Amikacin B: Ciprofloxacin C: Cefixime D: Azithromycin	0
Opium poisoning is treated with:MAHE 06; Bihar 12; UPSC 13	A: Naloxone B: Atropine C: Neostigmine D: Physostigmine	0
Onodi cells and Haller cells are seen in relation to following respectively -	A: Optic nerve and floor of the orbit B: Optic nerve and internal carotid artery C: Optic nerve and nasolacrimal duct D: Orbital floor and nasolacrimal duct	0
Junctional epithelium	A: Lines the gingival sulcus B: Is permeable C: Is derived initially from the outer enamel epithelium D: Is attached to enamel by desmosomes	1
A child present with recurrent sinusitis and recurrent chest infections. Chest X–ray reveals dextrocardia and situs invertus. The diagnosis is –	A: Kartagener's syndrome B: Good–pasture's syndrome C: Ehlers–Danlos syndrome D: William Campbell syndrome	0
In expansion screws an expansion of 90° causes an expansion of:	A: 0.20 mm B: 0.10 mm C: 0.36 mm D: 0.09 mm	0
The function of a sprue is to:	A: Form an opening for molten metal to enter the mold B: Help polish cast restorations C: Eliminate air bubbles on the wax pattern D: Reproduce fine detail	0
A nurse got accidental prick from the HIV infected needle. Which of the following is T/F regarding the management of this nurse?a. Lamivudine used as monotherapy in post-exposure prophylaxis (t/f)b. Washing hands advised(t/f)c. Viral markers at the time of prick(t/f)d. Repeat serology at 6 weeks (t/f)	A: b,c,d true a false B: a, b true c,d false C: b,c true a,d false D: All true	0
Peripheral eosinophila with renal failure is least likely to be possible in:	A: Drug-induced interstitial nephritis B: Drug-induced interstitial nephritis C: Atheroembolic renal failure D: Polyangitis nodosa	3
Largest permanent tooth in mouth is	A: Maxillary 1st molar B: Mandibular 1st molar C: Maxillary canine D: Mandibular canine	0
Which of the following is TRUE about propagated nerve action potential?	A: Decremental B: Not affected by hypoxia C: Fastest in C fibers D: Not affected by membrane capacitance	1
Translocation seen in Ewing's sarcoma is:	A: t(8,11) B: t(11,22) C: t(11,18) D: t(14,18)	1
A 60 years old male with alcoholic liver disease presented to emergency with a history of hematemesis. Which of the following is false regarding his management'	A: Somatostatin infusion is indicated B: Negative nasogastric aspirate does not exclude variceal bleed C: Nasogastric tube inseion can provoke variceal bleeding D: Upper GI endoscopy is done initially	2
Which of the following is not used as a disinfectant?	A: 1-2% Cetrimide B: 100% Alcohol C: 2% Lysol D: 5% Chloroxylene	1
Young’s formula for calculating pediatric dose of a drug is:	A: Age / Age+12 x Adult dose B: Age / 20 x Adult dose C: Weight (pounds) / 150 x Adult dose D: None of the above	0
Most common site for melanotic neuroectodermal tumour of infancy is (MNTI):	A: Maxilla B: Mandible C: Ethmoid bone D: Cervical spine	0
Liver is divided into eight segments according to Couinaud's classification based upon	A: Bile Duct B: Poal vein C: Hepatic Vein D: Hepatic aery	1
Mantle cell Carcinoma shows	A: CD 5+, CD 25- B: CD 5+, CD 10+ C: CD 5+, CD 23+ D: CD 5+, CD 23-	3
The drug which gives orange colour to the urine is:	A: Rifampicin B: Ethambutol C: INH D: Streptomycin	0
A 27 years old pregnant lady comes with severe jaundice and altered sensorium. On examination, the patient is deeply icteric, not responding to commands and pelvic sonogram reveals intrauterine fetal death. Serum bilirubin levels are 28.8 mg/dL (direct = 18.6 mg/dL), AST levels are 1063 and ALT levels are 1191. The viral markers are as follows. What is the likely diagnosis?Anti-HAV IgGReactiveAnti-HAV IgMNonreactiveHbSAgNon reactiveAnti-HbSAgNonreactiveAnti-HBc IgMNonreactiveAnti-HBc IgGReactiveAnti-HCV IgGNonreactiveAnti-HEV IgMReactiveAnti-HEV IgGNon reactive	A: Acute hepatitis E superimposed on chronic liver failure due to hepatitis B B: Fulminant hepatitis due to hepatitis B infection C: Acute hepatitis E with chronic hepatitis A D: Fulminant hepatitis due to hepatitis E infection	3
In a patient of liver disease, the possible complication during extraction is:	A: Dry socket B: Fascial space infection C: Bleeding D: Loss of clot	2
Dengue shock syndrome is characterized by the following except :	A: Hepatomegaly B: Pleural effusion C: Thrombocytopenia D: Decreased haemoglobin	3
Vascular event of inflammation in order-a) delayed prolonged- leukocytes mediated injuryb) immediate transient - mast cell activation lead to release of histamine bradykininc) immediate prolonged- direct endothelial injury by bacterial toxind) Somewhat delayed prolonged- sun exposure /heat stroke lead to mild endothelial injury	A: ABCD B: DCBA C: ACDB D: BDCA	3
Endotoxin of gram -ve bacteria that do not cause pathogenesis of natural disease	A: Mycobacterium B: Klebsiella C: Vibrio D: E.coli	2
A 24 years old female presented with patchy hair loss in the right temporal and occipital region. Examination revealed non- scarring alopecia with multiple small broken hairs. Scrapings from scalp showed mild inflammation, peri-follicular hemorrhage and surrounding mild lymphocytic infiltration. What is the most likely diagnosis?	A: Alopecia areata B: Androgenic alopecia C: Loose anagen hair D: Trichotillomania	3
Decalcification and discoloration of teeth occurs during orthodontic treatment due to:	A: Acid etching B: Poor oral hygiene C: Leakage of cement around bands D: All of the above	3
A 4 yr old girl child suffering from vomiting, cerebral edema and is being treated for viral infection from past 5 days. Liver biopsy in this patient may show	A: Central haemorrhagic necrosis B: Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis C: Autoimmune hepatitis D: Microvesicular steatohepatitis	3
Currently used radiographic method for working length determination is:	A: Grossman technique B: Ingels technique. C: Bregman technique. D: None of the above.	1
A patient who is a known case of CKD has complaints of vomiting. His ABG repos are as follows: pH - 7.40, pCO2 - 40, HCO3 - 25. Na -145, chloride-100.	A: Normal anion gap met acidosis B: High anion gap met acidosis C: No acid base abnormality D: High anion gap metabolic acidosis with metabolic alkalosis	3
Impression compound base:	A: Low thermal conductivity B: Crystalline structure C: Formation of cross linkage with heating D: High fusion temperature	0
Patient had a A and put on mechanical ventilation, he is opening his eyes on verbal command, Moves all his 4 limbs spontaneously. What will be his GCS score?	A: 9 B: 10 C: 11 D: 12	0
Which of the following enzyme is common between glycogenesis and glycogenolysis?	A: Glycogen synthase B: Glycogen phosphorylase C: Glucan transferase D: Phosphoglucomutase	3
Common sign of occlusal trauma (TFO) is	A: Tooth mobility B: Fractures of cusps C: Resorption of alveolar ridge D: Widening of P.D ligament	0
What to be done next?	A: Extended curettage with allograft B: Bone biopsy C: Curettage D: Extended curettage with autograft	1
Mechanism of action of Oseltamivir (Tamiflu) as an antiviral agent is:	A: Inhibition of M2 receptor B: Neuraminidase inhibition C: Inhibition of RNA dependent DNA polymerase D: Apoptosis of infected cells	1
Which of the following cranial nerve not associated with olfaction?	A: XII B: IX C: V D: X	0
Regimen followed in expectant management of placenta previa:	A: Liley's method B: Crede's method C: Macafee and Johnson regime D: Brandt-Andrews Method	2
Recommnended daily intake of iodine in pregnancy-	A: 90 microgram B: 120 microgram C: 150 microgram D: 250 microgram	3
True about Levator Ani except -	A: Converge downwards & medially B: Suppos viscera C: Made up of iliococcygeus & pubococcygeus D: Attached to pelvic brim	3
Glossy smooth margins of a casting are due to	A: Shrinkage of alloy on cooling B: Investment breakdown C: incomplete wax elimination D: incomplete gas elimination	2
A 5–years old male child presents with episodic anaemia and jaundice since birth. He is least likely to have which of the following	A: Hereditary spherocytosis B: Siclde cell anemia C: PNH D: G–6–PD deficiency	2
Best medium to transport/store an avulsed tooth, which is not to be reimplanted immediately? (OR) the medium which maintains the vitality of PDl and thus indicated for long duration transport of an avulse tooth	A: Viaspan B: Hanks balanced salt solution C: Coconut water D: Milk	0
True statements regarding the calculation of HDI are all of the following except	A: In gross enrolment, only secondary education is considered, not primary education B: 1/3rd weightage is given to adult literacy C: 2/3`dweightage is given to gross enrolmen D: Country's achievement is computed on the basis of adult literacy	3
In complete bilateral palsy of recurrent laryngeal nerves, there is -	A: Complete loss of speech with stridor and dyspnea B: Complete loss of speech but not difficulty in breathing C: Preservation of speech with severe stridor and dyspnea D: Preservation of speech and not difficulty in breathing	2
Delayed neuronal migration and organization leads to ceain disorders. Which of the following is the least likely possibility?	A: Lissencephaly B: Schizencephaly C: Polymicrogyria D: Focal coical dyplasia without balloon cells	3
Enzyme involved in gluconeogenesis are all except:	A: Pyruvate carboxylase B: PEP carboxykinase C: Pyruvate kinase D: Glucose-6-phosphatase	2
Concentration of adrenaline in local anaesthetic solution for achieving haemostasis & vasoconstriction at surgical site?	A: 1:20000 B: 1:50000 C: 1:80000 D: 1:100000	1
While performing drainage of fluid from the pleural cavity, the needle is introduced through all of the following structures except-	A: Skin B: Thoracic fascia C: Pulmonary pleura D: Intercostal muscles	2
Inter dose interval depends on?	A: Half life of drug B: Dose of drug C: Age of patient D: Bioavailability of drug	0
Which is the most common type of congenital ossicular dysfunction?	A: Isolated stapes defect B: Stapes defect with fixation of footplate and lenticular process involvement. C: Defective lenticular process of incus D: None of the above.	1
Earliest transient change following tissue injury	A: Neutrophilia B: Neutropenia C: Monocytoses D: Lymphocytoses	0
Canine can be classified as	A: Haplodont B: Triconodont C: Tritubercular teeth D: None of the above	0
Microaneurysms are the earliest manifestation of diabetic retinopathy. Which of the following layer is involved in diabetic etinopathy?	A: Outer plexiform layer B: Inner nuclear layer C: Layer of rods and cones D: Retinal pigment epithelium	1
The type of bone present in the inter-radicular area is	A: Cortical B: Cancellous C: Osteophytic D: Exophytic	1

A driver wearing seat belt applied brake suddenly to avoid a collision. Which of the following body pas is most likely to be injured?

A: Liver B: Spleen C: Mesentery D: Abdominal aoa

2

Drug not given in PCOD in a 30-year-old lady with infeility?

A: Clomiphene B: Tamoxifen C: OCPs D: Metformin

1

According to Kim and colleagues which of the following describe type IV isthmus?

A: Two canals with a definite connection between them B: Complete or incomplete isthmus between three or more canals C: Very short, complete Isthmus between two canals D: Two or three canal openings without visible connections

1

Heavy and light body impression materials are used with:

A: Mercaptan B: Silicone C: Reversible hydrocolloid D: 1 and 2

3

In comparison to maxillary central incisor, maxillary canine has a height of contour that is:

A: More B: Less C: Same D: Different on different teeth

0

Bite cells are seen in

A: G6PD deficiency B: SCA C: Hereditory spherocytosis D: Trauma

0

The decreased phosphate levels seen in hyper parathyroidism is due to:

A: Decreased intestinal phosphate absorption B: Increased calcium excretion C: Decreased renal phosphate absorption D: Increased loss of phosphate in urine

2

A patient on Anti - tubercular therapy develops tingling sensation in the limbs. Which of the following when substituted can result in improvement of symptoms?

A: Thiamine B: Pyridoxine C: Folic acid D: Methylcobalamine

1

A permanent tooth with fracture involving apical one third of root after treatment, would most likely:

A: Exhibit internal root resorption B: Remain vital and functional C: Be ankylosed D: Exhibit external root resorption and exfoliate

1

The effect of enlarged Adenoids on the maxillary growth is by

A: Narrowing of maxilla B: Widening of maxilla C: Palatal plane tipped upwards at PNS D: Palate descends down

0

Which of the following is not true of boiling water

A: It can kill hepatitis B virus B: Used for sterilizing surgical instruments C: Can kill mycobacterium tuberculosis D: Can kill vegetative bacterial cells

1

Marker appearing last in MI

A: LDH B: CPK-MB C: Troponin T D: Troponin I

0

Patient reports with severe throbbing pain in relation to mandibular second molar. The tooth is sensitive to both hot and cold food and elicits a painful response on percussion. What would be your treatment of choice?

A: Incision and drainage of Periapical area B: Endodontic therapy C: Indirect pulp capping D: Partial pulpectomy

1

Which of the following is not true about the larynx?

A: All intrinsic muscles are supplied by the recurrent laryngeal nerve B: Cricothyroid is supplied by the external laryngeal nerve C: Posterior cricoarytenoid abduct the vocal cords D: Lymphatic drainage of the larynx is to the deep cervical nodes

0

Etanercept is a disease-modifying drug used in management of rheumatoid ahritis. What is its mechanism of action?

A: Inhibition of TNF alpha B: COX-2 inhibition C: IL-6 inhibition D: Stabilization of mast cells

0

A6 month old child with Tetralogy of Fallot develops cyanotic spell initiated by crying. Which one of the following drugs you would like to avoid –

A: Sodium bicarbonate B: Propranolol C: Phenylephrine D: Isoprenaline

3

For root fracture it is imperative to take X-ray at?

A: 45°, 90° B: 90° C: 90°, 110° D: 45°, 90°, 110°

3

A 5 year child is brought with brown coloured urine and oliguria since 3 days with mild facial puffiness and pedal edema with 3+ proteinuria, BP 126/90. Urine examination shows RBCs 100/hpf and granular casts. Which of the following doesn't present with this finding?

A: Minimal change disease B: Membranous glomerulonephritis C: FSGS D: IgA nephropathy

0

An alert 6 months old child is brought with vomiting & diarrhea. RR–45/min, HR–130/min, S P–85 mm of Hg. Capillary refilling time is 4 secs. Diagnosis is –

A: Early compensated hypovolemic shock B: Early decompensated hypovolemic shock C: Late compensated hypovolemic shock D: Late decompensated shock due to SVT

0

Postherpetic neuralgia is defined as pain lasting beyond how many weeks?

A: 1 week B: 2 weeks C: 3 weeks D: 4 weeks

3

Swelling and redness of the orifices of minor salivary glands of the palate occurs in:

A: Nicotinic stornatitis B: Leukoplakia C: Fovea palatine D: Erythroplakia

0

A child is diagnosed to have acute gastroenteritis. The consulting pediatrician wants to send a stool sample to a lab which is 16-18 hours away. Which of the following mediums should he use to send this sample –

A: Charcol cotton bud B: Carry Blair medium C: Sterilized jar D: A medium with high CO2 content

1

GIC was developed by:

A: Barnum. B: Wilson and Kent. C: Bowen. D: Herman.

1

The first sensation to be lost following administration of local anesthetic is

A: Proprioception B: Pain C: Touch D: Temperature

1

Drug causing toxic optic neuropathy is:March 2009

A: Pyrazinamide B: Chloroquine C: Ethambutol D: Tetracycile

2

A 6 years old child with development delay, can ride a tricycle, can climb upstairs with alternate feet, but downstairs with 2 feet per step, can tell his name, known his own sex, but cannot narrate a story. What is his development age?

A: 3 years B: 4 years C: 5 years D: 2 years

0

A 20 years old woman has been brought to casualty with BP 70/40 mm Hg, pulse rate 120/min. and a positive urine pregnancy test. She should be managed by:

A: Immediate laparotomy B: Laparoscopy C: Culdocentesis D: Resuscitation and Medical management

0

Major mechanism of action of nitrates in acute attack of angina is:-

A: Coronary vasodilation B: Decreases in preload C: Decreases in afterload D: Decreases in hea rate

1

Black Extension for prevention to MID (Minimally invasive dentistry), all are true except

A: Site & size of lesion B: Technique & Material used C: Increase number of cariogenic bacteria D: Minimal preparation of cavity

2

In dental composite 75 % by weight filler is approximately what % volume of filler?

A: 85 B: 90 C: 60 D: 50

3

In penicillin allergy, penicillin acts as a:

A: Hapten B: Carrier C: Super antigen D: Toxin

0

A 12 years old boy develops sore throat of 4 day s duration. On examination, yellow grayish patch seen over both the tonsils and foul smell coming from his mouth. Which of the following non-suppurative complication is of concern?

A: Acute rheumatic fever B: Acute glomerulonephritis C: Both acute rheumatic fever and acute glomerulonephritis D: Scarlet fever

2

In a patient with implanted cardiac pacemaker (defibrillator),which of the following investigation is useful to know the position of the misplaced implant ?.

A: X-ray B: CT scan C: MR1 D: USG

0

What is the effective management of a dengue patient with warning signs without shock and haemorrhage-

A: Steroids B: Platelet transfusion C: IV fluids D: Antiviral

2

Most impoant but nonspecific regulator of iron metabolism is:

A: Hepcidin B: DMT I C: Ferropoin D: Ferritin

0

Treatment of solitary langerhans histiocytoma of mandible is by

A: Curettage B: Radiotherapy C: No treatment required D: Chemotherapy

0

In PHC, which anticoagulant is used to send the blood sample for blood glucose:

A: EDTA B: Heparin C: Potassium oxalate + sodium fluoride D: Potassium oxalate

2

HIV sentinel surveillance provides data:

A: To monitor disease trends B: To identify high risk population C: To estimate disease incidence D: To assess the quality of related services

0

1,1,1,1 Tetra-floroethylene is applied during cold test testing with?

A: # 4 Cotton pellet B: # 2 Cotton pellet C: # 6 Cotton pellet D: # 8 Cotton pellet

1

A radiotherapist prescribes a new drug combination of chemotherapy and immunotherapy for metastatic melanoma. It prolongs the survival. Which of the following is true in this situation?

A: Incidence reduces and prevalence increases B: Incidence remains the same and prevalence increases C: Incidence reduces and prevalence remains the same D: Incidence increases and prevalence reduces

1

Receptors for olfactory sensation are present in:

A: Lateral walls B: Nasal septum C: Lateral wall and nasal septum above superior concha D: None of the above

2

What processing should be done of the blood before transfusion to reduce chances of febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction (FNHTR)?

A: Irradiation B: Washing C: Leucocyte reduction D: Glycolisation

2

All the following nerves are related to the mandible except:

A: Lingual nerve B: Auriculotemporal nerve C: Chorda tympani D: Mental nerve

2

Which of the following statements about high copper silver alloy compared to conventional alloy in not true?

A: It has increased tensile and compressive strength B: It has poor tarnish and corrosion resistance C: Its edge strength is greater D: Mercury content in the final restoration is less

1

After amalgam polishing, the outermost surface has crystals arranged flattened to tooth surface. This layer is known as

A: Beilby layer B: Beillyl layer C: Beibyl Layer D: none of the above

0

Nutra sweet is:

A: Saccharin. B: Aspartame. C: Xylitol. D: Sorbitol.

1

Which of the following drugs is not used in typhoid fever?

A: Amikacin B: Ciprofloxacin C: Cefixime D: Azithromycin

0

Opium poisoning is treated with:MAHE 06; Bihar 12; UPSC 13

A: Naloxone B: Atropine C: Neostigmine D: Physostigmine

0

Onodi cells and Haller cells are seen in relation to following respectively -

A: Optic nerve and floor of the orbit B: Optic nerve and internal carotid artery C: Optic nerve and nasolacrimal duct D: Orbital floor and nasolacrimal duct

0

Junctional epithelium

A: Lines the gingival sulcus B: Is permeable C: Is derived initially from the outer enamel epithelium D: Is attached to enamel by desmosomes

1

A child present with recurrent sinusitis and recurrent chest infections. Chest X–ray reveals dextrocardia and situs invertus. The diagnosis is –

A: Kartagener's syndrome B: Good–pasture's syndrome C: Ehlers–Danlos syndrome D: William Campbell syndrome

0

In expansion screws an expansion of 90° causes an expansion of:

A: 0.20 mm B: 0.10 mm C: 0.36 mm D: 0.09 mm

0

The function of a sprue is to:

A: Form an opening for molten metal to enter the mold B: Help polish cast restorations C: Eliminate air bubbles on the wax pattern D: Reproduce fine detail

0

A nurse got accidental prick from the HIV infected needle. Which of the following is T/F regarding the management of this nurse?a. Lamivudine used as monotherapy in post-exposure prophylaxis (t/f)b. Washing hands advised(t/f)c. Viral markers at the time of prick(t/f)d. Repeat serology at 6 weeks (t/f)

A: b,c,d true a false B: a, b true c,d false C: b,c true a,d false D: All true

0

Peripheral eosinophila with renal failure is least likely to be possible in:

A: Drug-induced interstitial nephritis B: Drug-induced interstitial nephritis C: Atheroembolic renal failure D: Polyangitis nodosa

3

Largest permanent tooth in mouth is

A: Maxillary 1st molar B: Mandibular 1st molar C: Maxillary canine D: Mandibular canine

0

Which of the following is TRUE about propagated nerve action potential?

A: Decremental B: Not affected by hypoxia C: Fastest in C fibers D: Not affected by membrane capacitance

1

Translocation seen in Ewing's sarcoma is:

A: t(8,11) B: t(11,22) C: t(11,18) D: t(14,18)

1

A 60 years old male with alcoholic liver disease presented to emergency with a history of hematemesis. Which of the following is false regarding his management'

A: Somatostatin infusion is indicated B: Negative nasogastric aspirate does not exclude variceal bleed C: Nasogastric tube inseion can provoke variceal bleeding D: Upper GI endoscopy is done initially

2

Which of the following is not used as a disinfectant?

A: 1-2% Cetrimide B: 100% Alcohol C: 2% Lysol D: 5% Chloroxylene

1

Young’s formula for calculating pediatric dose of a drug is:

A: Age / Age+12 x Adult dose B: Age / 20 x Adult dose C: Weight (pounds) / 150 x Adult dose D: None of the above

0

Most common site for melanotic neuroectodermal tumour of infancy is (MNTI):

A: Maxilla B: Mandible C: Ethmoid bone D: Cervical spine

0

Liver is divided into eight segments according to Couinaud's classification based upon

A: Bile Duct B: Poal vein C: Hepatic Vein D: Hepatic aery

1

Mantle cell Carcinoma shows

A: CD 5+, CD 25- B: CD 5+, CD 10+ C: CD 5+, CD 23+ D: CD 5+, CD 23-

3

The drug which gives orange colour to the urine is:

A: Rifampicin B: Ethambutol C: INH D: Streptomycin

0

A 27 years old pregnant lady comes with severe jaundice and altered sensorium. On examination, the patient is deeply icteric, not responding to commands and pelvic sonogram reveals intrauterine fetal death. Serum bilirubin levels are 28.8 mg/dL (direct = 18.6 mg/dL), AST levels are 1063 and ALT levels are 1191. The viral markers are as follows. What is the likely diagnosis?Anti-HAV IgGReactiveAnti-HAV IgMNonreactiveHbSAgNon reactiveAnti-HbSAgNonreactiveAnti-HBc IgMNonreactiveAnti-HBc IgGReactiveAnti-HCV IgGNonreactiveAnti-HEV IgMReactiveAnti-HEV IgGNon reactive

A: Acute hepatitis E superimposed on chronic liver failure due to hepatitis B B: Fulminant hepatitis due to hepatitis B infection C: Acute hepatitis E with chronic hepatitis A D: Fulminant hepatitis due to hepatitis E infection

3

In a patient of liver disease, the possible complication during extraction is:

A: Dry socket B: Fascial space infection C: Bleeding D: Loss of clot

2

Dengue shock syndrome is characterized by the following except :

A: Hepatomegaly B: Pleural effusion C: Thrombocytopenia D: Decreased haemoglobin

3

Vascular event of inflammation in order-a) delayed prolonged- leukocytes mediated injuryb) immediate transient - mast cell activation lead to release of histamine bradykininc) immediate prolonged- direct endothelial injury by bacterial toxind) Somewhat delayed prolonged- sun exposure /heat stroke lead to mild endothelial injury

A: ABCD B: DCBA C: ACDB D: BDCA

3

Endotoxin of gram -ve bacteria that do not cause pathogenesis of natural disease

A: Mycobacterium B: Klebsiella C: Vibrio D: E.coli

2

A 24 years old female presented with patchy hair loss in the right temporal and occipital region. Examination revealed non- scarring alopecia with multiple small broken hairs. Scrapings from scalp showed mild inflammation, peri-follicular hemorrhage and surrounding mild lymphocytic infiltration. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A: Alopecia areata B: Androgenic alopecia C: Loose anagen hair D: Trichotillomania

3

Decalcification and discoloration of teeth occurs during orthodontic treatment due to:

A: Acid etching B: Poor oral hygiene C: Leakage of cement around bands D: All of the above

3

A 4 yr old girl child suffering from vomiting, cerebral edema and is being treated for viral infection from past 5 days. Liver biopsy in this patient may show

A: Central haemorrhagic necrosis B: Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis C: Autoimmune hepatitis D: Microvesicular steatohepatitis

3

Currently used radiographic method for working length determination is:

A: Grossman technique B: Ingels technique. C: Bregman technique. D: None of the above.

1

A patient who is a known case of CKD has complaints of vomiting. His ABG repos are as follows: pH - 7.40, pCO2 - 40, HCO3 - 25. Na -145, chloride-100.

A: Normal anion gap met acidosis B: High anion gap met acidosis C: No acid base abnormality D: High anion gap metabolic acidosis with metabolic alkalosis

3

Impression compound base:

A: Low thermal conductivity B: Crystalline structure C: Formation of cross linkage with heating D: High fusion temperature

0

Patient had a A and put on mechanical ventilation, he is opening his eyes on verbal command, Moves all his 4 limbs spontaneously. What will be his GCS score?

A: 9 B: 10 C: 11 D: 12

0

Which of the following enzyme is common between glycogenesis and glycogenolysis?

A: Glycogen synthase B: Glycogen phosphorylase C: Glucan transferase D: Phosphoglucomutase

3

Common sign of occlusal trauma (TFO) is

A: Tooth mobility B: Fractures of cusps C: Resorption of alveolar ridge D: Widening of P.D ligament

0

What to be done next?

A: Extended curettage with allograft B: Bone biopsy C: Curettage D: Extended curettage with autograft

1

Mechanism of action of Oseltamivir (Tamiflu) as an antiviral agent is:

A: Inhibition of M2 receptor B: Neuraminidase inhibition C: Inhibition of RNA dependent DNA polymerase D: Apoptosis of infected cells

1

Which of the following cranial nerve not associated with olfaction?

A: XII B: IX C: V D: X

0

Regimen followed in expectant management of placenta previa:

A: Liley's method B: Crede's method C: Macafee and Johnson regime D: Brandt-Andrews Method

2

Recommnended daily intake of iodine in pregnancy-

A: 90 microgram B: 120 microgram C: 150 microgram D: 250 microgram

3

True about Levator Ani except -

A: Converge downwards & medially B: Suppos viscera C: Made up of iliococcygeus & pubococcygeus D: Attached to pelvic brim

3

Glossy smooth margins of a casting are due to

A: Shrinkage of alloy on cooling B: Investment breakdown C: incomplete wax elimination D: incomplete gas elimination

2

A 5–years old male child presents with episodic anaemia and jaundice since birth. He is least likely to have which of the following

A: Hereditary spherocytosis B: Siclde cell anemia C: PNH D: G–6–PD deficiency

2

Best medium to transport/store an avulsed tooth, which is not to be reimplanted immediately? (OR) the medium which maintains the vitality of PDl and thus indicated for long duration transport of an avulse tooth

A: Viaspan B: Hanks balanced salt solution C: Coconut water D: Milk

0

True statements regarding the calculation of HDI are all of the following except

A: In gross enrolment, only secondary education is considered, not primary education B: 1/3rd weightage is given to adult literacy C: 2/3`dweightage is given to gross enrolmen D: Country's achievement is computed on the basis of adult literacy

3

In complete bilateral palsy of recurrent laryngeal nerves, there is -

A: Complete loss of speech with stridor and dyspnea B: Complete loss of speech but not difficulty in breathing C: Preservation of speech with severe stridor and dyspnea D: Preservation of speech and not difficulty in breathing

2

Delayed neuronal migration and organization leads to ceain disorders. Which of the following is the least likely possibility?

A: Lissencephaly B: Schizencephaly C: Polymicrogyria D: Focal coical dyplasia without balloon cells

3

Enzyme involved in gluconeogenesis are all except:

A: Pyruvate carboxylase B: PEP carboxykinase C: Pyruvate kinase D: Glucose-6-phosphatase

2

Concentration of adrenaline in local anaesthetic solution for achieving haemostasis & vasoconstriction at surgical site?

A: 1:20000 B: 1:50000 C: 1:80000 D: 1:100000

1

While performing drainage of fluid from the pleural cavity, the needle is introduced through all of the following structures except-

A: Skin B: Thoracic fascia C: Pulmonary pleura D: Intercostal muscles

2

Inter dose interval depends on?

A: Half life of drug B: Dose of drug C: Age of patient D: Bioavailability of drug

0

Which is the most common type of congenital ossicular dysfunction?

A: Isolated stapes defect B: Stapes defect with fixation of footplate and lenticular process involvement. C: Defective lenticular process of incus D: None of the above.

1

Earliest transient change following tissue injury

A: Neutrophilia B: Neutropenia C: Monocytoses D: Lymphocytoses

0

Canine can be classified as

A: Haplodont B: Triconodont C: Tritubercular teeth D: None of the above

0

Microaneurysms are the earliest manifestation of diabetic retinopathy. Which of the following layer is involved in diabetic etinopathy?

A: Outer plexiform layer B: Inner nuclear layer C: Layer of rods and cones D: Retinal pigment epithelium

1

The type of bone present in the inter-radicular area is

A: Cortical B: Cancellous C: Osteophytic D: Exophytic

1