JamesSpray/medmcqa_evaluation · Datasets at Hugging Face

instruction stringlengths 7 582	input stringlengths 19 560	output int64 0 3
In a patient of rheumatic heart disease with fever and mitral valve vegetations due to infective endocarditis, the vegetation usually do no embolise to:	A: Brain B: Lungs C: Liver D: Spleen.	1
Stainless steel orthodontic wire can be hardened by: (OR) Bending orthodontic wire at room temperature is an example of	A: Tempering B: Work/ Strain hardening C: Age hardening D: Precipitation hardening	1
A lady delivered a normal vaginal delivery and was discharged. On third day she came back with fever, tachycardia and seizures. Fundus showed papilledema with no focal deficits. What is the most likely diagnosis?	A: Coical vein thrombosis B: Meningitis C: Subarachnoid hemorrhage D: Acute migraine	0
Infeility in kaagener syndrome is due to which of the following?	A: Oligospermia B: Blockage of epididymis C: Asthenozoospermia D: Undescended testis	2
Regeneration leads to formation of which layer of cementum:	A: Cellular mixed cementum B: Cellular intrinsic fibre cementum C: Acellular extrinsic fiber cementum D: Acellular afibrillar cementum	2
Mention the true/false statements about digoxin toxicity?	A: The earliest manifestation of digoxin toxicity are gastrointestinal symptoms B: Non-specific vision changes may be noted in digoxin toxicity C: Early toxicity may not correlate with serum levels and Neurological symptoms may occur without corresponding cardiovascular changes D: All	3
All of the following bones are the pas of inferior wall of orbit except:	A: Ethmoid B: Maxillary C: Palatine D: ZygomaticWhile	0
Not responsible for chronic gingival inflammation?	A: Neutrophil B: Macrophages C: T-lymphocytes D: Plasma cells	0
Which cells are decreased in chronic periodontitis?	A: B-lymphocytes B: T-lymphocytes C: Mast cells D: Plasma cells	1
For calculation of sample size for a prevalence study all of the following are necessary except	A: Prevalence of disease in population B: Power of the study C: Significance level D: Desired precision	3
All are features of benign intracranial hypeension except:	A: Proptosis B: Normal size ventricles C: Headache D: Papilledema	0
The most common mode of spread of retinoblastoma:	A: Optic nerve invasion B: Lymphatics C: Vascular D: Direct invasion	0
The organ most resistant to GA is	A: Spinal Cord B: Medulla oblonagata C: Medullary cortex D: Cerebrum	1
Continuous murmur can be heard in all except:	A: VSD with aoic regurgitation B: Coronary AV fistula C: Pulmonary AV fistula D: Patent ductus aeriosus	0
Impedence based apex locator is:	A: Generation 1 B: Generation 2 C: Generation 3 D: Generation 4	1
Mechanism of adhesion of GIC restoration with tooth surface is by means of?	A: Carboxyl group B: Chelates with Metal Ions C: C=C double bond D: Polymer Chains	0
A 10 year old child came to the OPD with pain and mass in right lumbar region with no fever, with right hip flexed. The pain increased on extension and X ray showed spine changes. Most probable diagnosis is:	A: Psoas abscess B: Pyonephrosis C: Appendicular lump in retrocecal position D: Torsion of Right undescended testis	0
The process by which the amount of a drug in the body decreases after administration, but before entering the systemic circulation is called:	A: Excretion B: First pass effect C: First order elimination D: Metabolism	1
Eugenol may be replaced in the zinc oxide eugenol cement by:	A: Acetic acid B: Alginic acid C: Phosphoric acid D: Ortho-ethoxy acid	3
Cross-linking in resins helps increasing:	A: Strength B: Hardness C: Crazing resistance D: All of the above	3
Which of the following leads to an increase in enzyme activity -	A: Increase in temperature B: Decrease in activation energy C: Extremes of pH value D: Low substrate concentration	1
Nutrients are mainly absorbed in:	A: Small intestine B: Large intestine C: Liver D: Stomach	0
Calcification of falx cerebrl is seen in:	A: Sturge Weber syndrome B: Gorlin goltz syndrome C: Mobius syndrome D: Caffey silverman syndrome	1
70-74.9% cephalic index indicates:	A: Hyperdolichocephalic B: Dolichocephalic C: Mesocephalic D: Brachycephalic	1
Most commonly used tooth numbering system in books is	A: Universal system B: Zigmondy and Palmar C: FDI D: Grid System	0
A child who has an avulsed tooth 1/2 hour back should carry the tooth to the dentist in:	A: Cold milk B: Normal saline C: Wrapped in a wet handkerchief D: Buccal vestibule	0
The term poikilokaryosis refers to	A: Alteration of nuclear cytoplasmic ratio B: Division of nuclei without division of cytoplasm C: Large, prominent nuclei D: Loss of polarity and disorientation of cells	1
Example of Dystrophic calcification-	A: Hyperparathyroidism B: Sarcoidosis C: Hypervitaminosis D D: Myositis ossificans	3
In National Water Supply and Sanitation programme a problem village is defined as all except?	A: Distance of safe water is greater than 1.6 Km B: Water is exposed to the risk of cholera C: Water source has excess iron and heavy metals D: Water infested with Guniea worm	3
Autoinnoculation is seen with?	A: Ameloblastoma B: Papilloma C: Benign pemphigoid D: Leukoplakia	1
The following condition do not create gingival defects necessitating gingivoplasty except	A: Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis B: Desquamative gingivitis C: Erosive lichen planus D: Acute herpetic gingivostomatitis	0
female patient came with right side hearing loss, better heard in a noisy environment,Audiogram shown with about 30-40 dB gap between AC-BC of right & left ear. Rinne's test negative, Weber's test centralised. Which of the following condition shown?	A: Meniere's disease B: stapedial otosclerosis C: Presbycusis D: Vestibular schwannoma	1
A middle-aged man comes after a road traffic accident with bleeding from the scalp. He is unconscious. A card in his pocket reveals that he is a known diabetic on Tab Glimepiride + Metformin 2 tablets twice daily. What should the next step in management?	A: Send blood for tests, sta IV glucose and send to CT B: Sta normal saline and send to CT C: Dextrose solution, CT scan D: Airway, CT scan. Blood sugar if <70 sta dextrose	3
Which of the following is a method of achieving slow separation?	A: Seperating rubber bands B: Rubber Dam Sheet C: Ligature wire D: All of the following	3
In Caries Assessment Test (CAT), which condition doesn't come in highest risk category?	A: Isolated with spot lesion on tooth B: Enamel hypoplasia C: Child with special care need D: Visible plaque on anterior teeth	0
High angle case is:	A: FMIA > 65 B: IMP > 100 C: FMP > 35° D: SNA >4°	2
Mother to children's transmission is a key feature of which pattern of inheritance?	A: Codominance B: Autosomal dominant inheritance C: Recessive inheritance D: Mitochondrial inheritance	3
Sublingual tablet or sublingual GTN metered dose aerosol usually relieve angina in	A: 15 sec B: 2-3 min C: 10-12 min D: 30 min	1
Gene not involved in SCID	A: BTK B: ZAP70 C: IL2RG D: JAK3	0
A 6–month–old infant presents to the 'diarrhoea clinic' unit with some dehydration. The most likely organism causing diarrhea is –	A: Entamoeba histolytica B: Rotavirus C: Giardia lamblia D: Shigella	1
Lip and mentalis muscle contraction are not seen in:	A: Mature swallow B: Simple tongue thrust C: Complex tongue thrust D: All of the above	0
ABC and VED analysis at PHC are done for:	A: Drug inventory B: Staff management C: Vaccination coverage D: National Programs implementation.	0
Which of the following is not true regarding teeth features and ethnicity?	A: Upper third molar is most commonly absent in Mongolians B: Carabelli cusps are seen in Caucasians C: Negros have wide molar cusps and deep, shovel shaped cusps in incisors D: Prominent lingual ridge and labial ridge is seen in Mongolians	2
Continues use of vibrator can leads to	A: Random nodule formation B: Surface roughness C: Surface irregularities D: Discoloration	1
Most reliable method of recording centric relation	A: Graphic tracing with excursive movements B: Wax cone method C: Trial and error method D: None of the above	0
Most common chances of pulpal exposure will be there if pulpal floor is made perpendicular to the long axis of tooth:	A: Maxillary 1st premolar B: Maxillary 1st molar C: Mandibular 1st premolar D: Mandibular 2nd premolar	2
Diagnosis of CI. Difficile infection is made by which of the following methods?	A: Toxin gene detection by polymerase chain reaction (PCR) B: Culture C: Enzyme - linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) D: Nagler's reaction	0
A 37-year-old patient presented to you with hyper-extension of 4th and 5th metacarpophalangeal joint with flexion at proximal interphalangeal joint. This deformity is due to injury to:	A: Deep branch of ulnar nerve B: Median nerve C: Radial nerve D: Superficial branch of median nerve	0
Myofunctional appliance is given at which stage:	A: Primary dentition B: Mixed dentition C: Permanent dentition D: Adulthood	1
Not true about NRHM	A: Appoint ASHA B: Strengthen institutional delivery under JSY C: Health and family welfare societies D: State and district health mission	2
Model plaster (white) used to cast study models before mixing with water, is largely composed of:	A: CaO B: CaCO3 C: CaSO4 • ½H2O D: CaSO4 • 2H2O	2
Which of the following nonaqueous elastomeric impression materials has the least shelf life	A: Poly ether B: Addition silicone C: Condensation silicone D: Polysulphide	0
A female in labor ward was administered opioid analgesic. Which of the following drugs should be kept ready for emergency?	A: Lignocaine B: Naloxone C: Diphenhydramine D: Fentanyl	1
When we try to find out significance of difference in height of children between 2 classes in a school, which test is used?	A: Unpaired test B: ANOVA C: Chisquare D: Coefficient of variance	0
Composition of KRI paste is:	A: Calcium hydroxide + Iodoform. B: Iodoform+ calcium hydroxide + menthol. C: Iodoform + camphor + parachlorophenol + Menthol. D: Parachlorophenol + Camphor + menthol.	2
Which of the following tooth shows C shaped canal	A: Mandibular 1st premolar B: Maxillary 1st premolar C: Mandibular 2nd premolar D: Maxillary 2nd premolar	0
SPIKES protocol is used for:	A: Triage B: Communication with patients/attendants regarding bad news C: Writing death ceificate D: RCT	1
Which of the following drugs is a P-glycoprotein inducer?	A: Azithromycin B: Ketoconazole C: Itraconazole D: Rifampicin	3
A male child presented with coarse facies, protuberant abdomen , frontal head enlargement, thickening of cardiac valve, hepatosplenomegaly, hearing impairement. What is the most probable diagnosis?	A: Hurler's disease B: Hunter's disease C: Fragile X syndrome D: Tay Sach's disease	1
A term neonate with unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia of 18 mg/dl on 20th day. All are common causes except –	A: Breast rnilk jaundice B: Congenital cholangiopathy C: G 6PD deficiency D: Hypothyroidism	1
Which is the most preferred route for drug administration in the management of chronic pain	A: Intrathecal B: Oral C: Subdermal D: Intravenous	1
Weber-Fechner law related to:	A: Number of nerve Fibers B: Number of muscle Fibers C: Number of stimulus D: Intensity of stimulus	3
White, spongy, folded thick mucosa is seen in	A: Oral hairy leukoplakia B: Aspirin burn C: White spongy nevus D: Pseudomembranous Candidiasis	2
Calculate net filtration pressure with the following data: PGC = 42 mm Hg pGC = 12 mm Hg PBC= 16 mm Hg Assume that no proteins were filtered.	A: 34 mm Hg B: Data not sufficient C: 14 mm Hg D: 28 mm Hg	2
Schielder principle is	A: Minimal enlarged apical foramen B: Shape of the canal can be changed C: Use of 3-5 times larger than first binding file D: Original canal curvature should be altered to make it compatible with obturating material	0
While drilling an implant, bone necrosis occurs at what temperatures:	A: 65 B: 35 C: 45 D: 55	2
Subantimicrobial dose of doxycycline is:	A: 20 mg doxycycline B: 60 mg doxycycline C: 80 mg doxycycline D: 150 mg doxycycline	1
Non radiographic method of working length determination:	A: Digital tactile sense B: Apical periodontal sensitivity C: Electronic apex locator D: All of the above	3
Problems associated with nitrous oxide anaesthesia is	A: Behavioral problem B: Sensitizes the heart to adrenaline C: Prolonged difficult induction D: Tachycardia and or arrhythmias	0
Roots of primary and secondary teeth are different in that the primary roots are more divergent and flaring. The other difference:	A: Primary roots show less accessory and lateral canals B: Primary roots resorb more easily C: Primary roots are shorter D: None of the above	0
Most important factor in rapid progression of Bacteria resulting in pulpal necrosis is?	A: Host resistance B: Virulence of bacteria C: Dentinal Fluid flow D: Pulp vitality	3
Gene for ectodermal dysplasia with cleft lip and palate	A: ED-1 B: GJB6 C: PVRL1 D: R P73	2
Which of these is the best study to evaluate effect and outcome?	A: Clinical trial B: Coho C: Case control study D: Cross sectional study	0
All of the following processes take place in mitochondria except:	A: Beta-oxidation of fatty acids B: DNA synthesis C: Fatty acid synthesis D: Protein synthesis	2
In moyer's classification of class II type D malocclusion, there is:	A: Orthognatic maxilla and orthognathic mandible B: Prognathic maxilla and orthognathic mandible C: Orthognathic maxilla and retrognathic mandible D: Retrognathic maxilla and retrognathic mandible	2
Cephalometric analysis are used to evaluate growth changes by superimposing on:	A: Sella - Nasion plane B: Mandibular plane C: FHP D: Occlusal plane	0
All of the following are associated with HHV8 except?	A: Kaposi sarcoma B: Primary effusion lymphoma C: Castleman disease D: T-cell leukemia	3
Presented edema, oliguria and frothy urine. He has no past history of similar complaints. On examination, his urine was positive for 3+ proteinuria, no RBCs/WBCs and no casts. His serum albumin was 2.5 gm/L and serum creatinine was 0.5 mg/dL. The most likely diagnosis is:	A: Minimal change disease B: IgA nephropathy C: Interstitial nephritis D: Membranous nephropathy	0
Which of the following is not attached laterally to thyroid cartilage, or all the following muscles are attached to the oblique line of thyroid cartilage except:	A: Sternothyroid B: Thyrohyoid C: Superior constrictor D: Inferior constrictor	2
A parent is homozygous and a parent heterozygous for an autosomal recessive gene. What will be the outcome –	A: 75% children affected B: No child affected, but all are carriers C: 50% children affected, rest are carriers D: 25% children affected, rest are carriers	2
Antischkow cells are present in all of the following conditions except	A: Sickle cell anaemia B: Iron deficiency anaemia C: Apthous ulcer D: herpes simplex	3
Patient on dental chair during extraction becomes unconscious; patient is breathing but not responsive. Your first step will be:	A: Recline chair and shout for help and give oxygen B: Check BP and pulse and intubate C: Start CPR immediately D: ECG	0
Which of the following structures is not present on the internal surface of mandible?	A: Genial tubercle B: Mylohyoid ridge C: Lingula D: Mental foramen	3
A mother and her 4 year old son are seated alone in a reception area with the child staring off into space, rocking and constantly twisting a strand of hair about his fingers. Upon entry of another person, the child begins to beat his fist against the side of his face and behaves as though he does not hear his mother speaking to him. This behavior is most characteristic of:	A: An autistic child B: A mentally retarded child C: First dental appointment anxieties of a 4 year old child D: A child with a chronic seizure disorder	0
ZnPO4 setting time is 4-7 min. All of the following methods are employed to prolong its setting time except:	A: Addition of drop of distilled water B: Prolong spatulation time C: Small increment of addition of powder to liquid D: Mixing on cooled glass slab	0
An abnormal resorption pattern in primary teeth, delayed eruption of permanent teeth and a Large tongue are the features of:	A: Addison's disease B: Hypothyroidism C: Hyperthyroidism D: Von-Recklinghausen disease	1
Which one of the following is not FDA approved	A: GEM 215 B: Elyzol C: Periochip D: Atridox	1
Dynamic creep is the	A: Continuing alloying between silver-tin alloy and mercury during the life of restoration B: Deformation of set amalgam during function C: Process whereby alloy is "wetted" by mercury D: Spread of amalgam during packing	1
All are features of non paralytic polio except –	A: Absent deep tendon reflexes B: Head drop C: Nuchal rigidity D: Knee heel test negative	0
Which of the following procedures can be used to treat an oro-antral fistula resulting from posterior surgery: (Or) Oro-antral fistula in maxillary 3rd molar region is best/commonly treated by	A: Buccal mucoperiosteal flap B: Palatal mucoperiosteal flap C: Bridge flap D: Palatal island flap	3
Fovea palatine are	A: Structures through which blood supply take place B: Mucosal salivary glands C: Palatal termination of maxillary denture D: Found in every individual	1
In case of addition silicones what should be done for better cast	A: Apply ketone over tray B: Apply chloroform over tray C: Add flavouring agent to prevent bad odour D: Delay pouring of cast	3
contractile part of intrafusal fibres	A: Centre B: Ends C: None D: Both	1
The type of strain develop when force is applied perpendicular to surface	A: Compressive strain B: Tensile strain C: Shear stress D: Tensile stress	0
Km value indicates:	A: Purity of Enzyme B: Physiological role C: The substrate concentration at half maximal velocity D: Aﬃnity	2
Which of the following conversions does not require Biotin as a cofactor?	A: Gamma carboxylation of glutamate B: Acetyl Co-A to Malonyl Co-A C: Propionyl Co-A to methyl malonyl Co-A D: Pyruvate to oxaloacetate	0
Majority of the syndromic craniosynosteses are associated with:	A: FGFR mutations B: IRFS mutations C: VWS mutations D: 22q 11.2 mutations	0
The facial proportions between upper, middle and lower thirds of fare Is:	A: 25:50:25 B: 34:33:33 C: 35:30:35 D: 30:35:35	3
Cold agglutinin is	A: IgG B: IgM C: IgA D: IgD	1
Thiamine deficiency is assessed by:	A: Erythrocyte transketolase activity B: RBS Glutathione reductase C: RBC thiamine levels D: Serum thiamine level	0

In a patient of rheumatic heart disease with fever and mitral valve vegetations due to infective endocarditis, the vegetation usually do no embolise to:

A: Brain B: Lungs C: Liver D: Spleen.

1

Stainless steel orthodontic wire can be hardened by: (OR) Bending orthodontic wire at room temperature is an example of

A: Tempering B: Work/ Strain hardening C: Age hardening D: Precipitation hardening

1

A lady delivered a normal vaginal delivery and was discharged. On third day she came back with fever, tachycardia and seizures. Fundus showed papilledema with no focal deficits. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A: Coical vein thrombosis B: Meningitis C: Subarachnoid hemorrhage D: Acute migraine

0

Infeility in kaagener syndrome is due to which of the following?

A: Oligospermia B: Blockage of epididymis C: Asthenozoospermia D: Undescended testis

2

Regeneration leads to formation of which layer of cementum:

A: Cellular mixed cementum B: Cellular intrinsic fibre cementum C: Acellular extrinsic fiber cementum D: Acellular afibrillar cementum

2

Mention the true/false statements about digoxin toxicity?

A: The earliest manifestation of digoxin toxicity are gastrointestinal symptoms B: Non-specific vision changes may be noted in digoxin toxicity C: Early toxicity may not correlate with serum levels and Neurological symptoms may occur without corresponding cardiovascular changes D: All

3

All of the following bones are the pas of inferior wall of orbit except:

A: Ethmoid B: Maxillary C: Palatine D: ZygomaticWhile

0

Not responsible for chronic gingival inflammation?

A: Neutrophil B: Macrophages C: T-lymphocytes D: Plasma cells

0

Which cells are decreased in chronic periodontitis?

A: B-lymphocytes B: T-lymphocytes C: Mast cells D: Plasma cells

1

For calculation of sample size for a prevalence study all of the following are necessary except

A: Prevalence of disease in population B: Power of the study C: Significance level D: Desired precision

3

All are features of benign intracranial hypeension except:

A: Proptosis B: Normal size ventricles C: Headache D: Papilledema

0

The most common mode of spread of retinoblastoma:

A: Optic nerve invasion B: Lymphatics C: Vascular D: Direct invasion

0

The organ most resistant to GA is

A: Spinal Cord B: Medulla oblonagata C: Medullary cortex D: Cerebrum

1

Continuous murmur can be heard in all except:

A: VSD with aoic regurgitation B: Coronary AV fistula C: Pulmonary AV fistula D: Patent ductus aeriosus

0

Impedence based apex locator is:

A: Generation 1 B: Generation 2 C: Generation 3 D: Generation 4

1

Mechanism of adhesion of GIC restoration with tooth surface is by means of?

A: Carboxyl group B: Chelates with Metal Ions C: C=C double bond D: Polymer Chains

0

A 10 year old child came to the OPD with pain and mass in right lumbar region with no fever, with right hip flexed. The pain increased on extension and X ray showed spine changes. Most probable diagnosis is:

A: Psoas abscess B: Pyonephrosis C: Appendicular lump in retrocecal position D: Torsion of Right undescended testis

0

The process by which the amount of a drug in the body decreases after administration, but before entering the systemic circulation is called:

A: Excretion B: First pass effect C: First order elimination D: Metabolism

1

Eugenol may be replaced in the zinc oxide eugenol cement by:

A: Acetic acid B: Alginic acid C: Phosphoric acid D: Ortho-ethoxy acid

3

Cross-linking in resins helps increasing:

A: Strength B: Hardness C: Crazing resistance D: All of the above

3

Which of the following leads to an increase in enzyme activity -

A: Increase in temperature B: Decrease in activation energy C: Extremes of pH value D: Low substrate concentration

1

Nutrients are mainly absorbed in:

A: Small intestine B: Large intestine C: Liver D: Stomach

0

Calcification of falx cerebrl is seen in:

A: Sturge Weber syndrome B: Gorlin goltz syndrome C: Mobius syndrome D: Caffey silverman syndrome

1

70-74.9% cephalic index indicates:

A: Hyperdolichocephalic B: Dolichocephalic C: Mesocephalic D: Brachycephalic

1

Most commonly used tooth numbering system in books is

A: Universal system B: Zigmondy and Palmar C: FDI D: Grid System

0

A child who has an avulsed tooth 1/2 hour back should carry the tooth to the dentist in:

A: Cold milk B: Normal saline C: Wrapped in a wet handkerchief D: Buccal vestibule

0

The term poikilokaryosis refers to

A: Alteration of nuclear cytoplasmic ratio B: Division of nuclei without division of cytoplasm C: Large, prominent nuclei D: Loss of polarity and disorientation of cells

1

Example of Dystrophic calcification-

A: Hyperparathyroidism B: Sarcoidosis C: Hypervitaminosis D D: Myositis ossificans

3

In National Water Supply and Sanitation programme a problem village is defined as all except?

A: Distance of safe water is greater than 1.6 Km B: Water is exposed to the risk of cholera C: Water source has excess iron and heavy metals D: Water infested with Guniea worm

3

Autoinnoculation is seen with?

A: Ameloblastoma B: Papilloma C: Benign pemphigoid D: Leukoplakia

1

The following condition do not create gingival defects necessitating gingivoplasty except

A: Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis B: Desquamative gingivitis C: Erosive lichen planus D: Acute herpetic gingivostomatitis

0

female patient came with right side hearing loss, better heard in a noisy environment,Audiogram shown with about 30-40 dB gap between AC-BC of right & left ear. Rinne's test negative, Weber's test centralised. Which of the following condition shown?

A: Meniere's disease B: stapedial otosclerosis C: Presbycusis D: Vestibular schwannoma

1

A middle-aged man comes after a road traffic accident with bleeding from the scalp. He is unconscious. A card in his pocket reveals that he is a known diabetic on Tab Glimepiride + Metformin 2 tablets twice daily. What should the next step in management?

A: Send blood for tests, sta IV glucose and send to CT B: Sta normal saline and send to CT C: Dextrose solution, CT scan D: Airway, CT scan. Blood sugar if <70 sta dextrose

3

Which of the following is a method of achieving slow separation?

A: Seperating rubber bands B: Rubber Dam Sheet C: Ligature wire D: All of the following

3

In Caries Assessment Test (CAT), which condition doesn't come in highest risk category?

A: Isolated with spot lesion on tooth B: Enamel hypoplasia C: Child with special care need D: Visible plaque on anterior teeth

0

High angle case is:

A: FMIA > 65 B: IMP > 100 C: FMP > 35° D: SNA >4°

2

Mother to children's transmission is a key feature of which pattern of inheritance?

A: Codominance B: Autosomal dominant inheritance C: Recessive inheritance D: Mitochondrial inheritance

3

Sublingual tablet or sublingual GTN metered dose aerosol usually relieve angina in

A: 15 sec B: 2-3 min C: 10-12 min D: 30 min

1

Gene not involved in SCID

A: BTK B: ZAP70 C: IL2RG D: JAK3

0

A 6–month–old infant presents to the 'diarrhoea clinic' unit with some dehydration. The most likely organism causing diarrhea is –

A: Entamoeba histolytica B: Rotavirus C: Giardia lamblia D: Shigella

1

Lip and mentalis muscle contraction are not seen in:

A: Mature swallow B: Simple tongue thrust C: Complex tongue thrust D: All of the above

0

ABC and VED analysis at PHC are done for:

A: Drug inventory B: Staff management C: Vaccination coverage D: National Programs implementation.

0

Which of the following is not true regarding teeth features and ethnicity?

A: Upper third molar is most commonly absent in Mongolians B: Carabelli cusps are seen in Caucasians C: Negros have wide molar cusps and deep, shovel shaped cusps in incisors D: Prominent lingual ridge and labial ridge is seen in Mongolians

2

Continues use of vibrator can leads to

A: Random nodule formation B: Surface roughness C: Surface irregularities D: Discoloration

1

Most reliable method of recording centric relation

A: Graphic tracing with excursive movements B: Wax cone method C: Trial and error method D: None of the above

0

Most common chances of pulpal exposure will be there if pulpal floor is made perpendicular to the long axis of tooth:

A: Maxillary 1st premolar B: Maxillary 1st molar C: Mandibular 1st premolar D: Mandibular 2nd premolar

2

Diagnosis of CI. Difficile infection is made by which of the following methods?

A: Toxin gene detection by polymerase chain reaction (PCR) B: Culture C: Enzyme - linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) D: Nagler's reaction

0

A 37-year-old patient presented to you with hyper-extension of 4th and 5th metacarpophalangeal joint with flexion at proximal interphalangeal joint. This deformity is due to injury to:

A: Deep branch of ulnar nerve B: Median nerve C: Radial nerve D: Superficial branch of median nerve

0

Myofunctional appliance is given at which stage:

A: Primary dentition B: Mixed dentition C: Permanent dentition D: Adulthood

1

Not true about NRHM

A: Appoint ASHA B: Strengthen institutional delivery under JSY C: Health and family welfare societies D: State and district health mission

2

Model plaster (white) used to cast study models before mixing with water, is largely composed of:

A: CaO B: CaCO3 C: CaSO4 • ½H2O D: CaSO4 • 2H2O

2

Which of the following nonaqueous elastomeric impression materials has the least shelf life

A: Poly ether B: Addition silicone C: Condensation silicone D: Polysulphide

0

A female in labor ward was administered opioid analgesic. Which of the following drugs should be kept ready for emergency?

A: Lignocaine B: Naloxone C: Diphenhydramine D: Fentanyl

1

When we try to find out significance of difference in height of children between 2 classes in a school, which test is used?

A: Unpaired test B: ANOVA C: Chisquare D: Coefficient of variance

0

Composition of KRI paste is:

A: Calcium hydroxide + Iodoform. B: Iodoform+ calcium hydroxide + menthol. C: Iodoform + camphor + parachlorophenol + Menthol. D: Parachlorophenol + Camphor + menthol.

2

Which of the following tooth shows C shaped canal

A: Mandibular 1st premolar B: Maxillary 1st premolar C: Mandibular 2nd premolar D: Maxillary 2nd premolar

0

SPIKES protocol is used for:

A: Triage B: Communication with patients/attendants regarding bad news C: Writing death ceificate D: RCT

1

Which of the following drugs is a P-glycoprotein inducer?

A: Azithromycin B: Ketoconazole C: Itraconazole D: Rifampicin

3

A male child presented with coarse facies, protuberant abdomen , frontal head enlargement, thickening of cardiac valve, hepatosplenomegaly, hearing impairement. What is the most probable diagnosis?

A: Hurler's disease B: Hunter's disease C: Fragile X syndrome D: Tay Sach's disease

1

A term neonate with unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia of 18 mg/dl on 20th day. All are common causes except –

A: Breast rnilk jaundice B: Congenital cholangiopathy C: G 6PD deficiency D: Hypothyroidism

1

Which is the most preferred route for drug administration in the management of chronic pain

A: Intrathecal B: Oral C: Subdermal D: Intravenous

1

Weber-Fechner law related to:

A: Number of nerve Fibers B: Number of muscle Fibers C: Number of stimulus D: Intensity of stimulus

3

White, spongy, folded thick mucosa is seen in

A: Oral hairy leukoplakia B: Aspirin burn C: White spongy nevus D: Pseudomembranous Candidiasis

2

Calculate net filtration pressure with the following data: PGC = 42 mm Hg pGC = 12 mm Hg PBC= 16 mm Hg Assume that no proteins were filtered.

A: 34 mm Hg B: Data not sufficient C: 14 mm Hg D: 28 mm Hg

2

Schielder principle is

A: Minimal enlarged apical foramen B: Shape of the canal can be changed C: Use of 3-5 times larger than first binding file D: Original canal curvature should be altered to make it compatible with obturating material

0

While drilling an implant, bone necrosis occurs at what temperatures:

A: 65 B: 35 C: 45 D: 55

2

Subantimicrobial dose of doxycycline is:

A: 20 mg doxycycline B: 60 mg doxycycline C: 80 mg doxycycline D: 150 mg doxycycline

1

Non radiographic method of working length determination:

A: Digital tactile sense B: Apical periodontal sensitivity C: Electronic apex locator D: All of the above

3

Problems associated with nitrous oxide anaesthesia is

A: Behavioral problem B: Sensitizes the heart to adrenaline C: Prolonged difficult induction D: Tachycardia and or arrhythmias

0

Roots of primary and secondary teeth are different in that the primary roots are more divergent and flaring. The other difference:

A: Primary roots show less accessory and lateral canals B: Primary roots resorb more easily C: Primary roots are shorter D: None of the above

0

Most important factor in rapid progression of Bacteria resulting in pulpal necrosis is?

A: Host resistance B: Virulence of bacteria C: Dentinal Fluid flow D: Pulp vitality

3

Gene for ectodermal dysplasia with cleft lip and palate

A: ED-1 B: GJB6 C: PVRL1 D: R P73

2

Which of these is the best study to evaluate effect and outcome?

A: Clinical trial B: Coho C: Case control study D: Cross sectional study

0

All of the following processes take place in mitochondria except:

A: Beta-oxidation of fatty acids B: DNA synthesis C: Fatty acid synthesis D: Protein synthesis

2

In moyer's classification of class II type D malocclusion, there is:

A: Orthognatic maxilla and orthognathic mandible B: Prognathic maxilla and orthognathic mandible C: Orthognathic maxilla and retrognathic mandible D: Retrognathic maxilla and retrognathic mandible

2

Cephalometric analysis are used to evaluate growth changes by superimposing on:

A: Sella - Nasion plane B: Mandibular plane C: FHP D: Occlusal plane

0

All of the following are associated with HHV8 except?

A: Kaposi sarcoma B: Primary effusion lymphoma C: Castleman disease D: T-cell leukemia

3

Presented edema, oliguria and frothy urine. He has no past history of similar complaints. On examination, his urine was positive for 3+ proteinuria, no RBCs/WBCs and no casts. His serum albumin was 2.5 gm/L and serum creatinine was 0.5 mg/dL. The most likely diagnosis is:

A: Minimal change disease B: IgA nephropathy C: Interstitial nephritis D: Membranous nephropathy

0

Which of the following is not attached laterally to thyroid cartilage, or all the following muscles are attached to the oblique line of thyroid cartilage except:

A: Sternothyroid B: Thyrohyoid C: Superior constrictor D: Inferior constrictor

2

A parent is homozygous and a parent heterozygous for an autosomal recessive gene. What will be the outcome –

A: 75% children affected B: No child affected, but all are carriers C: 50% children affected, rest are carriers D: 25% children affected, rest are carriers

2

Antischkow cells are present in all of the following conditions except

A: Sickle cell anaemia B: Iron deficiency anaemia C: Apthous ulcer D: herpes simplex

3

Patient on dental chair during extraction becomes unconscious; patient is breathing but not responsive. Your first step will be:

A: Recline chair and shout for help and give oxygen B: Check BP and pulse and intubate C: Start CPR immediately D: ECG

0

Which of the following structures is not present on the internal surface of mandible?

A: Genial tubercle B: Mylohyoid ridge C: Lingula D: Mental foramen

3

A mother and her 4 year old son are seated alone in a reception area with the child staring off into space, rocking and constantly twisting a strand of hair about his fingers. Upon entry of another person, the child begins to beat his fist against the side of his face and behaves as though he does not hear his mother speaking to him. This behavior is most characteristic of:

A: An autistic child B: A mentally retarded child C: First dental appointment anxieties of a 4 year old child D: A child with a chronic seizure disorder

0

ZnPO4 setting time is 4-7 min. All of the following methods are employed to prolong its setting time except:

A: Addition of drop of distilled water B: Prolong spatulation time C: Small increment of addition of powder to liquid D: Mixing on cooled glass slab

0

An abnormal resorption pattern in primary teeth, delayed eruption of permanent teeth and a Large tongue are the features of:

A: Addison's disease B: Hypothyroidism C: Hyperthyroidism D: Von-Recklinghausen disease

1

Which one of the following is not FDA approved

A: GEM 215 B: Elyzol C: Periochip D: Atridox

1

Dynamic creep is the

A: Continuing alloying between silver-tin alloy and mercury during the life of restoration B: Deformation of set amalgam during function C: Process whereby alloy is "wetted" by mercury D: Spread of amalgam during packing

1

All are features of non paralytic polio except –

A: Absent deep tendon reflexes B: Head drop C: Nuchal rigidity D: Knee heel test negative

0

Which of the following procedures can be used to treat an oro-antral fistula resulting from posterior surgery: (Or) Oro-antral fistula in maxillary 3rd molar region is best/commonly treated by

A: Buccal mucoperiosteal flap B: Palatal mucoperiosteal flap C: Bridge flap D: Palatal island flap

3

Fovea palatine are

A: Structures through which blood supply take place B: Mucosal salivary glands C: Palatal termination of maxillary denture D: Found in every individual

1

In case of addition silicones what should be done for better cast

A: Apply ketone over tray B: Apply chloroform over tray C: Add flavouring agent to prevent bad odour D: Delay pouring of cast

3

contractile part of intrafusal fibres

A: Centre B: Ends C: None D: Both

1

The type of strain develop when force is applied perpendicular to surface

A: Compressive strain B: Tensile strain C: Shear stress D: Tensile stress

0

Km value indicates:

A: Purity of Enzyme B: Physiological role C: The substrate concentration at half maximal velocity D: Aﬃnity

2

Which of the following conversions does not require Biotin as a cofactor?

A: Gamma carboxylation of glutamate B: Acetyl Co-A to Malonyl Co-A C: Propionyl Co-A to methyl malonyl Co-A D: Pyruvate to oxaloacetate

0

Majority of the syndromic craniosynosteses are associated with:

A: FGFR mutations B: IRFS mutations C: VWS mutations D: 22q 11.2 mutations

0

The facial proportions between upper, middle and lower thirds of fare Is:

A: 25:50:25 B: 34:33:33 C: 35:30:35 D: 30:35:35

3

Cold agglutinin is

A: IgG B: IgM C: IgA D: IgD

1

Thiamine deficiency is assessed by:

A: Erythrocyte transketolase activity B: RBS Glutathione reductase C: RBC thiamine levels D: Serum thiamine level

0