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Cornea
Lagophthalmos corneal ulcers usually starts at:
The lower third of the cornea.
The middle third of the cornea.
The upper third of the cornea.
The center of the cornea.
Anywhere all over the cornea.
a
The lower third of the cornea.
Cornea
Typical trachomatous corneal ulcers usually start at:
The lower third of the cornea.
The middle third of the cornea.
The upper third of the cornea.
The center of the cornea.
Anywhere all over the cornea.
c
The upper third of the cornea.
Cornea
Topical steroids are contraindicated in the following conditions, EXCEPT:
Typical hypopyon corneal ulcers.
Fungal corneal ulcers.
Dendritic corneal ulcers.
Herpetic interstitial keratitis.
Acanthamoeba corneal ulcers.
d
Herpetic interstitial keratitis.
Cornea
Non-inflammatory corneal ectasia include:
Keratectasia.
Keratoconus.
Keratomalacia.
All the above.
None of the above.
b
Keratoconus.
Cornea
Pseudo-cornea is a term used to describe:
Keratectasia.
Keratoconus.
Keratomalacia.
Total anterior staphyloma.
None of the above.
d
Total anterior staphyloma.
Cornea
A progressive keratoconus typically leads to the following, EXCEPT:
Frequent change of glasses.
Progressive irregular astigmatism.
Progressive hypermetropia.
Fleisher ring.
Vogt stria.
c
Progressive hypermetropia.
Cornea
Keratoconus can be managed by all the following, EXCEPT:
Glasses.
Rigid contact lenses.
LASIK.
Intracorneal ring segments.
Penetrating keratoplasty.
c
LASIK.
Cornea
The leading cause of preventable blindness worldwide;
Cataract
Age related macular degeneration
Glaucoma
Diabetic retinopathy
Trachoma
a
Cataract
Cornea
The term “mature cataract” means
A nuclear cataract presents more than 10 years
A posterior subcapsular cataract that reduces visual acuity to 6/60 or worse
A cortical cataract that involves the entire cortex
An anterior subcapsular cataract that causes capsular wrinkling.
null
c
A cortical cataract that involves the entire cortex
Cornea
Criteria of mature senile cataract:
a-Visual acuity HM
b-Absent red reflex
c-Absent iris shadow
All the above
null
d
All the above
Cornea
Which is the least desirable method for corneal graft storage?
moist chamber at 4° C
glycerin
Optisol
cryopreservation
null
b
glycerin
Cornea
Presently in the United States, phlyctenule is most commonly associated with
HSV
tuberculosis
Staphylococcus
fungus
null
c
Staphylococcus
Cornea
Which blood test is most helpful in the evaluation of a patient with Schnyder’s crystalline corneal dystrophy?
calcium
uric acid
immunoglobulins
cholesterol
null
d
cholesterol
Cornea
Which disease has never been transmitted by a corneal graft?
CMV
Creutzfeldt-Jakob
rabies
Cryptococcus
null
a
CMV
Cornea
Which corneal dystrophy does not recur in a corneal graft?
granular
macular
lattice
PPMD
null
d
PPMD
Cornea
A conjunctival map biopsy is typically used for which malignancy?
squamous cell carcinoma
basal cell carcinoma
sebaceous cell carcinoma
malignant melanoma
null
c
sebaceous cell carcinoma
Cornea
Corneal clouding does not occur in which mucopolysaccharidosis?
Hunter
Hurler
Scheie
Sly
null
a
Hunter
Cornea
All of the following may cause follicular conjunctivitis except
Chlamydia
Neisseria
lopidine
EKC
null
b
Neisseria
Cornea
Which of the following tests is least helpful in determining the etiology of enlarged corneal nerves?
EKG
calcitonin
urinary VMA
acid-fast stain
null
a
EKG
Cornea
Corneal filaments are least likely to be present in which condition?
keratoconjunctivitis sicca
Thygeson’s SPK
SLK
medicamentosa
null
b
Thygeson’s SPK
Cornea
Which of the following is not an appropriate treatment for SLK?
bandage contact lens
conjunctival resection
silver nitrate stick
conjunctival cautery
null
c
silver nitrate stick
Cornea
In what level of the cornea does a Kayser-Fleischer ring occur?
epithelium
Bowman’s membrane
stroma
Descemet’s membrane
null
d
Descemet’s membrane
Cornea
Cornea verticillata-like changes are associated with all of the following except
indomethacin
thorazine
chloroquine
amiodarone
null
b
thorazine
Cornea
The least common location for a nevus is
bulbar conjunctiva
palpebral conjunctiva
caruncle
lid skin
null
a
bulbar conjunctiva
Cornea
All of the following ions move across the corneal endothelium by both active transport and passive diffusion except
Cl−
K+
Na+
H+
null
a
Cl−
Cornea
Which organism is associated with crystalline keratopathy?
S. aureus
H. influenzae
Enterococcus
S. viridans
null
d
S. viridans
Cornea
Which of the following conditions is associated with the best 5-year prognosis for a corneal graft?
PBK
Fuchs’ dystrophy
ABK
HSV
null
b
Fuchs’ dystrophy
Cornea
The best strategy for loosening a tight contact lens is to
increase the diameter
increase the curvature
decrease the diameter
decrease the curvature
null
c
decrease the diameter
Cornea
The type of contact lens that causes the least endothelial pleomorphism is
soft daily wear
soft extended wear
rigid gas permeable
hard / PMMA
null
a
soft daily wear
Cornea
Which of the following conditions is associated with the worst prognosis for a corneal graft?
PBK
Fuchs’ dystrophy
Reis-Bucklers’ dystrophy
keratoglobus
null
c
Reis-Bucklers’ dystrophy
Cornea
Which is not a treatment of acute hydrops?
steroid
homatropine
bandage contact lens
corneal transplant
null
d
corneal transplant
Cornea
Which organism cannot penetrate intact corneal epithelium?
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
N. gonorrhoeae
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
H. aegyptius
null
c
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Cornea
Which organism is most commonly associated with angular blepharitis?
S. epidermidis
Moraxella
S. aureus
Demodex folliculorum
null
b
Moraxella
Cornea
Which of the following medications would be the best choice in the treatment of microsporidial keratoconjunctivitis?
fumagillin
chloramphenicol
galardin
paromomycin
null
a
fumagillin
Cornea
All of the following agents are used in the treatment of Acanthamoeba keratitis except
paromomycin
natamycin
chlorhexidine
miconazole
null
b
natamycin
Cornea
Goblet cells are most abundant in which location?
fornix
plica
bulbar conjunctiva
limbus
null
a
fornix
Cornea
Thygeson’s superficial punctate keratopathy is best treated with topical
cyclosporine (ciclosporin)
idoxuridine
loteprednol
trifluridine
null
c
loteprednol
Cornea
EKC is typically contagious for how many days?
5 days
7 days
10 days
14 days
null
d
14 days
Cornea
A shield ulcer is associated with
AKC
SLK
VKC
GPC
null
c
VKC
Cornea
Ulcerative blepharitis is most likely to be caused by
Staphylococcus
Herpes
Moraxella
Demodex
null
b
Herpes
Cornea
Which of the following is most likely to be associated with melanoma of the conjunctiva and uvea?
dysplastic nevus syndrome
melanosis oculi
nevus of Ota
secondary acquired melanosis
null
c
nevus of Ota
Cornea
Which of the following is not associated with N. gonorrheae conjunctivitis?
pseudomembrane
preauricular lymphadenopathy
purulent discharge
corneal ulcer
null
a
pseudomembrane
Cornea
Even spreading of the tear film depends most on which factor?
lipid
aqueous
mucin
epithelium
null
c
mucin
Cornea
Neurotrophic ulcer should not be treated with
tarsorrhaphy
antiviral
antibiotic
bandage contact lens
null
b
antiviral
Cornea
Which layer of the cornea can regenerate?
Bowman’s membrane
stroma
Descemet’s membrane
endothelium
null
c
Descemet’s membrane
Cornea
The most appropriate treatment for a patient with scleromalacia is
topical steroid
sub-Tenon’s steroid injection
oral NSAID
oral immunosuppressive agent
null
d
oral immunosuppressive agent
Cornea
The HEDS recommendation for treating stromal (disciform) keratitis is
topical steroid alone
topical steroid and topical antiviral
topical steroid and oral antiviral
topical steroid, topical antiviral, and oral antiviral
null
b
topical steroid and topical antiviral
Cornea
A satellite infiltrate with feathery edges is most characteristic of a corneal ulcer caused by
Pseudomonas
Acanthamoeba
Microsporidia
Fusarium
null
d
Fusarium
Cornea
PTK would be most appropriate for treating which of the following corneal disorders?
superficial granular dystrophy
anterior stromal neovascularization
mid-stromal herpes scar
Fuchs’ dystrophy
null
a
superficial granular dystrophy
Cornea
A 62-year-old woman with keratoconjunctivitis sicca is most likely to demonstrate corneal staining in which location?
superior third
middle third (interpalpebral)
inferior third
diffuse over entire cornea
null
b
middle third (interpalpebral)
Cornea
Which of the following findings is most commonly associated with SLK?
filaments
giant papillae
pseudomembrane
follicles
null
a
filaments
Cornea
Which lab test is most helpful to obtain in a 38-year-old man with herpes zoster ophthalmicus?
ANCA
Lyme titer
chest x-ray
HIV test
null
d
HIV test
Cornea
A patient with conjunctival intraepithelial neoplasia is most likely to have
CMV
EBV
HSV
HPV
null
d
HPV
Cornea
Which of the following disorders is most likely to be found in a patient suffering from sleep apnea?
iritis
interstitial keratitis
follicular conjunctivitis
trichiasis
null
c
follicular conjunctivitis
Cornea
A patient with graft-vs-host disease is most likely to have which eye finding?
scleritis
symblepharon
optic neuropathy
iritis
null
b
symblepharon
Error of Refraction
All the following are TRUE about the nodal point of the eye, EXCEPT:
Rays undergo refraction
Lies just anterior to the posterior pole of the lens
Optic and visual axis intersect at the nodal point
Optical center of the eye.
null
a
Rays undergo refraction
Error of Refraction
In Emmetropia, parallel rays come to focus:
Behind the retina.
Infront of the retina.
On the retina.
Might be all the above.
null
c
On the retina.
Error of Refraction
The term Ametropia refers to:
Myopia
Hypermetropia
Asigmatism
All the above.
null
d
All the above.
Error of Refraction
All the following is TRUE about Angle alpha, EXCEPT:
Angle between optic and visual axes.
Always positive in myopia.
Lies at the nodal point of the eye.
More than 5 degrees in hypermetropia.
null
b
Always positive in myopia.
Error of Refraction
In hypermetropia, parallel rays come to focus:
On the retina
Behind the retina
Infront of the retina.
All the above.
null
b
Behind the retina
Error of Refraction
All the following are TRUE about hyperopic eye, EXCEPT:
Small axial length.
Deep anterior chamber.
Flat cornea
Positive angle alpha.
null
b
Deep anterior chamber.
Error of Refraction
The term manifest hypermetropia means:
Hypermetropia without atropine.
Hypermetropia with atropine.
Hypermetropia with ciliary muscle paralysis.
Hypermetropia corrected by accommodation.
null
a
Hypermetropia without atropine.
Error of Refraction
In myopia parallel rays come to focus:
On the retina
Behind the retina
Infront of the retina.
All the above.
null
c
Infront of the retina.
Error of Refraction
All the following are TRUE about myopic eye, EXCEPT:
Small axial length.
Deep anterior chamber.
Steep cornea
High refractive power.
null
a
Small axial length.
Error of Refraction
All the following is TRUE about progressive myopia, EXCEPT:
Starts at younger age.
Stabilizes around the age of 18 years old.
Reaches higher degrees.
Associated with retinal complications.
null
b
Stabilizes around the age of 18 years old.
Error of Refraction
All the following are types of myopia, EXCEPT:
Simple myopia.
Facultative myopia.
Congenital myopia.
Progressive myopia.
null
b
Facultative myopia.
Error of Refraction
Progressive myopia might be associated with all the following, EXCEPT:
Tigroid fundus.
Pseudo-papillitis.
Myopic crescent
Posterior staphyloma.
null
b
Pseudo-papillitis.
Error of Refraction
All the following are TRUE about astigmatism, EXCEPT:
Parallel rays come to a point focus on the retina.
Might be regular or irregular.
Might be congenital of postoperative.
All the above.
null
a
Parallel rays come to a point focus on the retina.
Error of Refraction
With the rule astigmatism is:
Less common than against the rule.
Vertical meridian more curved.
Horizontal meridian more curved.
None of the above.
null
b
Vertical meridian more curved.
Error of Refraction
All the following is TRUE about irregular astigmatism, EXCEPT:
Could be corrected with glasses.
Could be corrected with rigid lenes.
Occurs with corneal opacities.
Occurs with keratoconus.
null
a
Could be corrected with glasses.
Error of Refraction
In glasses for simple regular astigmatism, we use:
Sphero-cylindrical lenses.
Cylindrical lenses.
Convex lenses.
Concave lenses.
null
a
Sphero-cylindrical lenses.
Error of Refraction
In glasses for compound regular astigmatism, we use:
cylindrical lenses.
Cylindrical lenses.
Convex lenses.
Concave lenses.
null
b
Cylindrical lenses.
Error of Refraction
All the following are CORRECT about anisometropia, EXCEPT:
Difference in refraction between both eyes.
Best corrected with glasses.
Might lead to amblyopia.
Might be congenital.
null
b
Best corrected with glasses.
Error of Refraction
Which of the following are factors affecting the onset of presbyopia?
Age
Refractive error.
Preferred working distance.
All the above.
null
d
All the above.
General Ophthalmology
A 1-year-old presents with a round, well-demarcated mass at the super temporal rim. The lesion has been present since birth. The most likely diagnosis is:
Rhabdomyosarcoma
Neurofibroma
Dermoid cyst
Capillary hemangioma
Metastatic Ewing sarcoma
c
Dermoid cyst
General Ophthalmology
A 40-year-old woman presents with a progressively enlarging clear cystic mass along the eyelid margin. The most likely diagnosis is:
Epidermal inclusion cyst
Apocrine hidrocystoma
Syringoma
Trichofolliculoma
Basal cell carcinoma
b
Apocrine hidrocystoma
General Ophthalmology
Which of the following is the most common primary malignancy of the eyelid?
Basal cell carcinoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Sebaceous carcinoma
Melanoma
Kaposi sarcoma
a
Basal cell carcinoma
General Ophthalmology
Xanthelasma is associated with hyperlipidemia in:
10%
20%
33%
50%
70%
c
33%
General Ophthalmology
In a patient with laceration to the upper lid, all are TRUE, EXCEPT:
the presence of fat herniation indicates the orbital septum is penetrated
the presence of lacrimal gland indicates the orbital septum is penetrated
the orbital septum should be resutured if penetrated
in the presence of ptosis, early repair is recommended
ptosis is usually caused by damage to the levator aponeurosis
c
the orbital septum should be resutured if penetrated
General Ophthalmology
Features of eyelid keratoacanthoma include all the following EXCEPT:
Malignant transformation in 50% of cases
Loss of eyelashes
Rapid growth
Ulcerated surface filled with keratin
Spontaneous resolution
a
Malignant transformation in 50% of cases
General Ophthalmology
The following are contributory factors in senile (involution) entropion EXCEPT:
Atrophy of the orbital fat
Migration of the preseptal orbicularis over the pretarsal muscle
Dehiscence of the lower lid retractor
Horizontal lower lid laxity
Fat herniation through the orbital septum
e
Fat herniation through the orbital septum
General Ophthalmology
Upper lid retraction may be seen in all the following EXCEPT:
Grave's eye disease
An eye with contralateral ptosis
Heart failure
Hydrocephalus in children
Parinaud's syndrome
c
Heart failure
General Ophthalmology
TRUE statements about eyelid lesions include all the following EXCEPT:
Basal cell carcinoma affects the upper lid more commonly than the lower lid
Recurrent follicular conjunctivitis can be the result of molluscum contagiosum
Keratoacanthoma can resolve spontaneously without treatment
Sebaceous cell carcinoma has a worse prognosis than squamous cell carcinoma
Basal cell carcinoma is common in patients with xeroderma pigmentosa
a
Basal cell carcinoma affects the upper lid more commonly than the lower lid
General Ophthalmology
In blepharochalasis, all the following are TRUE, EXCEPT:
The condition begins in teenage years
There are recurrent lid oedema
There are levator disinsertion
The condition is associated with Ascher's syndrome
Treatment is blepharoplasty
c
There are levator disinsertion
General Ophthalmology
In Blepharophimosis, one is FALSE:
Is an autosomal dominant condition
Epicanthus inversus is a feature
Has nasal bridge hypoplasia
Has hypertelorism
Is associated with mental retardation
e
Is associated with mental retardation
General Ophthalmology
All of the following types of entropion are known EXCEPT:
Spastic entropion
Senile entropion
Paralytic entropion
Cicatricial entropion
null
c
Paralytic entropion
General Ophthalmology
Six hours after a bilateral blepharoplasty, the patient complains of sudden pain near the right eye. The dressings are removed and the right eyelids are tense and ecchymotic. The first step would be to:
Open the wound to release a possible retrobulbar hemorrhage
Consider the possibility of a cavernous sinus thrombosis and check corneal sensation
Measure visual acuity and check pupillary responses
Begin treatment with ice packs
Begin treatment with warm compresses
c
Measure visual acuity and check pupillary responses
General Ophthalmology
A 3-year-old girl bitten by a dog, had a 6 mm-wide block of upper eyelid margin hanging by a thread of tissue, leaving a defect in the upper eyelid of approximately the same size. The best treatment is to:
Send the block to pathology and repair the defect by approximation
Send the block to pathology and repair the defect by making a lateral canthotomy and approximation
Repair the eyelid by sewing the block into its normal anatomic position
Send the block to pathology and repair the defect by a transfer of tissue from the lower eyelid
Keep the block under refrigeration for later use if necessary and close the defect by approximation and lateral canthotomy
c
Repair the eyelid by sewing the block into its normal anatomic position
General Ophthalmology
With regard to ptosis, one is FALSE:
The most common abnormality in congenital ptosis is in the levator muscle
Lid lag on down gaze is a feature of senile ptosis
In Horner's syndrome, ptosis is due to paralysis of the Muller's muscle
The levator function is good in aponeurotic defect
In congenital ptosis the levator muscle can neither relax nor contract.
b
Lid lag on down gaze is a feature of senile ptosis
General Ophthalmology
The most important determinant in selecting a corrective procedure for any type of ptosis is:
Vertical height of the palpebral fissure
Age of the patient
Amount of levator function
Duration of the ptosis
Position of the upper eyelid margin relative to the corneal limbus
c
Amount of levator function
General Ophthalmology
Risk factors for developing basal cell carcinoma include all of the following, EXCEPT:
History of smoking
Excessive sun exposure in the first two decades of life
Brown irides
Blond hair
Living in areas that receive high levels of UV radiation from the sun
c
Brown irides
General Ophthalmology
A 74-year-old woman presents with a 2-year history of a painless, progressively enlarging mass in the central aspect of the upper eyelid. This has resulted in distortion of the eyelid margin and loss of eyelashes. The most likely diagnosis is:
Sebaceous gland carcinoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Amelanotic melanoma
Basal cell carcinoma
Dermal nevus
d
Basal cell carcinoma
General Ophthalmology
Entropion repair of the lower eyelid may utilize any of the following techniques EXCEPT:
Lower eyelid retractor advancement
Lateral canthal tightening
Taping of the eyelid
Mucous membrane grafting to the posterior eyelid
Skin grafting
e
Skin grafting
General Ophthalmology
Essential blepharospasm is usually characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:
Unilaterality
Age of onset usually over 50 years
Visual incapacitation
Obscure etiology
Involuntary spasms of the orbicularis muscle
a
Unilaterality
General Ophthalmology
In congenital obstruction of the nasolacrimal duct, one is TRUE:
The success rate of probing at 12 months of age is about 60%
85% of the cases are bilateral
The blockage is found most commonly at the common canaliculus
In congenital dacryocystocele, the skin is usually inflamed and hot
In congenital dacryocystocele, the sac contains amniotic fluid
e
In congenital dacryocystocele, the sac contains amniotic fluid
General Ophthalmology
The following are TRUE about chronic canaliculitis caused by Actinomyces EXCEPT:
It is the most common cause of chronic canaliculitis
This infection is caused by a fungus
Bloody tear is a feature
Syringing is usually normal despite epiphora
Debridment is the treatment of choice
b
This infection is caused by a fungus
General Ophthalmology
A 75-year-old woman complains of tearing and discharge. Irrigation of the lower canaliculus produces mucopurulent reflux. All of the following are TRUE, EXCEPT:
Jones testing will not reveal dye in the nose.
There is probably a common canalicular block.
The condition is not likely to resolve with a course of antibiotics.
The most likely diagnosis is a lacrimal duct obstruction.
The correct treatment is dacryocystorhinostomy.
b
There is probably a common canalicular block.
General Ophthalmology
A 14-month-old child has had tearing and discharge from the right eye since birth. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
Dye disappearance testing is likely to show no asymmetry.
This condition is likely to resolve spontaneously.
The appropriate treatment is nasolacrimal duct probing.
Punctal abnormalities are likely to be the cause.
Jones I and Jones II tests are necessary to make the diagnosis.
c
The appropriate treatment is nasolacrimal duct probing.
General Ophthalmology
Acquired canalicular obstruction is associated with all the following EXCEPT:
Steroids
Trauma
Probing
5 FU
Pemphigoid
a
Steroids
General Ophthalmology
Compared to CT scanning, MRI scanning provides better:
View of bone and calcium
View of the orbital apex and orbitocranial junction
Elimination of motion artifact
Comfort for claustrophobic patients
Safety to patients with prosthetic implants
b
View of the orbital apex and orbitocranial junction