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19zddi | Would a deaf person still sustain injuries from a sound at 120 decibals? | askscience | http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/19zddi/would_a_deaf_person_still_sustain_injuries_from_a/ | {
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"To add on, since decibels is a measure of intensity/power, what if we are exposed to a sound the human ear does not detect at high decibels. Get a really high frequency we can't hear and make it really loud, would it damage our hearing?"
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9y1rp7 | what exactly is "data science"/"data analytics" and what are the people who are in those positions doing on a day-to-day basis? | explainlikeimfive | https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/9y1rp7/eli5_what_exactly_is_data_sciencedata_analytics/ | {
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"It is often said that a data scientist is someone who's better at programming than a statistician and better at statistics than a programmer. Data scientists want to create models that use data to solve some kind of business/science problem.",
"Take some level of information and derive meaning from it.\n\nMy day to day is spending a ton of time organizing, cleaning and thinking through data problems, then visualing it to come up with insights. I get asked questions all day and do my best to answer them with the available information."
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59o68c | why do we have to wash fruits before eating them? what damaging things can go away with water only? (except dust,but you can rub the fruit to avoid it i guess). if a fruit is contaminated, how can water help in this case? | explainlikeimfive | https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/59o68c/eli5_why_do_we_have_to_wash_fruits_before_eating/ | {
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"Anything soluble in water can be washed away. That includes many chemicals like pesticides and contaminants like feces. Soap makes this washing away of things easier and more thorough, but water is much better than nothing. Water is sometimes referred to in chemistry as \"the universal solvent) because of the variety of things which can dissolve in water."
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15z47a | Can you help me identify this old ship? See album below. | My husband and I bought this photograph about 10 years ago at an antique store. It is labeled in the bottom right corner: O.W. Waterman, Hampton VA. There is no year listed.
I have always wondered what era it was from. Is it a war ship, a passenger ship or a cargo ship?
_URL_0_
Sorry for the bad quality of pictures.
| AskHistorians | http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/15z47a/can_you_help_me_identify_this_old_ship_see_album/ | {
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"Well looking up the photographer (O.W. Waterman) explains that he was stationed at Hampton, VA from around 1907-1919 photographing Navy Ships. I'll try to find the actual type of ship, but it is definitely a navy ship from that time period. ",
"I've actually been looking outside the USN at revenue cutters, based on this being a one-stack design and US destroyers being four-pipers pretty exclusively by that point. But those (*Tahoma, Manning,* and *Morrill*) all look far too small and \"uncluttered\" to fit this bill. I'm assuming that's a US flag on the fantail with the after gun, but the basic layout is a lot like that of revenue cutters. I'm not sure where you'd find pictures of other revenue cutters than the three I mentioned, each of which seems a little different than the others, or if there even are any. The Navy's online photo archive only shows those three.\n\nAny way to get a better picture of the whole shebang together? I'm also wondering what that is just forward of the fantail gun.",
"This is more than likely a late 19th century gunboat. because of the two cannons that are not mounted in Barbettes. This is a feature on gun boats that are prior to 1890s. Also, masts disappear from destroyers around 1900. So this is a gunboat, probably going to the scrap heap. I would guess from sometime between 1870-1880."
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hs7e8 | When I read about "radioactive water" am I reading about "water contaminated by radioactive particles" or is the water itself somehow changed? | askscience | http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/hs7e8/when_i_read_about_radioactive_water_am_i_reading/ | {
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"The water is contaminated by radioactive particles.",
"Usually it's water with radioactive stuff that is soluble mixed into it. \n\nIt can also mean water with a heightened amount of radioactive tritium. If it is intentional to have tritium in the water it's usually called tritiated water or heavy water. If it wasn't intentional it is contaminated water. ",
"During the process of fission, nuclear fuels such as uranium and plutonium break down into lighter metals and gasses. These [fission products](_URL_0_) are themselves radioactive. However, fission products are contained by the [\"cladding\"](_URL_1_), a metal coating around the actual nuclear fuel. When the fuel gets hotter than its design temperature it can warp or melt, which destroys the cladding and releases fission products into the coolant. The fission products are what makes the water radioactive.\n\nThe fuel itself isn't a huge concern because it isn't solvent in water, but gasses like iodine and xenon are because they can easily become airborne if the coolant system is somehow becomes exposed to the environment. Well, I should back up and say that once the fuel completely melts, the nuclear reaction becomes very difficult to control, so at that point the fuel *is* a concern but it's not normally what you're worried about when you're talking about radioactive water/coolant.",
"If it is radioactive water because it is contaminated, it has extra radioactive particles in it. Fukushima has radioactive water because radioactive particles have entered the water. However, water itself can be radioactive. Both oxygen and hydrogen have radioactive isotopes. Water made from either of these will be slightly radioactive."
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yz4la | Do people with better reaction times experience the passage of time slower? | askscience | http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/yz4la/do_people_with_better_reaction_times_experience/ | {
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"That's a great question. Although, this doesn't answer your question directly, there was an experiment performed asking a similar question.\n\nWhen jumping off a building / bungee jumping, time feels to be moving slower. The hypothesis for this experiment was that you would be able to read a number flashed at you that would otherwise be too fast to read.\n\nThe result of the experiment was no, your reaction speed (or at least your eye/brain's ability to see something quick) does not improve.\n\n_URL_0_",
"I'd like to know how you would measure how people experience the passage of time (not aimed at OP)?",
"I'm uncertain of whether or not this directly addresses your question, but often reactions don't even get to your brain by the time they're processed -- they're processed in ganglia. I can't find a direct source ATM, but we just learned this in physiology.\n\nBasically you'd receive a signal from an afferent neuron (for example placing your hand on something incredibly hot), which then would cause an excitatory post synaptic potential (EPSP) to your bicep muscles (causing contraction, and thus flexion), and an inhibitory post synaptic potential (IPSP) to your triceps (preventing contraction, and thus preventing extension). The EPSPs and IPSPs are graded potentials, and thus are summated from several neurons. If they cause the neuron to hit the threshold potential in the ganglia, they cause an appropriate response (inhibition or excitation of the muscle group) without any cranial interaction at all.\n\n_URL_0_\n_URL_1_\n\nAssuming you mean this form of reaction (my studies haven't gone too in depth into this topic so far), then I would imagine that reaction speed has very little to do with your thought process at all.\n\nI hope this helps :).\n\nThe following poster explains what I mentioned in significantly better and more relevant detail: _URL_2_",
"I don't mind if this is downvoted and deleted for speculation, just wanted to put this out there: \n\nAs a volleyballer who relies on fast reflexes, time does not pass any faster or slower in the middle of an adrenaline-pumping point. As far as I can work out; faster reflexes causes your subconscious to become more in tune with what you are trying to achieve and is able to act more efficiently.\n\nIf I make a pass from an opponents extremely hard hit, I generally won't have any idea how I did it, it was just fast reflexes and a technique which is well embedded in subconscious muscle memory.\n\n**tl;dr: I don't think my conscious mind can perceive adrenalin-improved reflexes, its all in the subconscious.**",
"Neuroscientist here.\n\nOk, I'll break this into two parts.\n\n**Reaction to stimuli:**\n\nIf a stimuli is reacted to often enough a (reflex loop develops.)[_URL_0_]\n\nThis allows for a reaction to occur without any input from the brain. It is also known as a reflex arc, or muscle memory. So in this type of reaction (the fastest type of reaction) no brain activity has to occur. As the passage of time is experienced in the brain, this reaction will not allow for faster or slower time experience.\n\n**Time Experience:**\n\nTime is experienced in our brain. Specifically the hippocampus. \"Time\" cells fire systematically to allow us to keep track of time. This system is constantly re-calibrated by our interactions with our surroundings. Looking at your watch will re-calibrate it. Due to the re-calibration it means all humans have a very similar experience of time.\n\nNote, that this is a distinct system from the hypothalamus and thalamus which is concerned with day tracking via light input.\n\nSo far I have explained that time is constantly recalibrated and the fastest of responses are not involved in the brain, and thus not involved in faster or slower time experience.\n\n\nAdrenaline has been linked to slowing down time by forming a larger than normal amount of memory data. The extra memory tricks the brain into thinking more time has passed than has. This means the time slowing down is linked to the stimulus to which the person responds and not the speed of the response.\n\n\nTo physically respond to a stimuli (not in a reflex arc) your neurones must carry a signal to brain, the signal must be processed, and a new signal sent to effectors to make a response.\n\nThe speed of this system is dependant on conduction velocity of the neurones. (Speed the signal travels) The speed at which the effectors actually react. (Muscles firing and limbs moving).\n\n**To tie this all together:**\n\nReaction speed is not linked to any processes I have previously mentioned, so does not alter time perception. These are two distinct and separate body functions. \n\nThe presence of adrenaline in situations requiring fast reactions will slow down the perception of time, not speed it up. However speed of reaction remains irrelevant and stimuli causes adrenaline release.\n\nHope this helps\n\n**TL;DR: No.**"
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4v226i | How many people would run for consul on average in the Roman Republic? | If I were to vote around 200-100 BCE for a consul in Rome, how many candidates would I have to choose from? How much time would be given for campaigning before and how much money/resources would be necessary to have a decent shot of securing consulship?
Thanks! | AskHistorians | https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/4v226i/how_many_people_would_run_for_consul_on_average/ | {
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"There were usually a number of candidates for the consulship at least. Of those usually only three or four were considered serious rivals. Catiline ran against five other men for the consulship of 63, but only Gaius Antonius and Cicero were thought to have much of a chance besides Catiline, who ended up losing to both of them. In the elections for the consulship of 59 Caesar ran against Bibulus and Lucceius, neither of whom was thought to be a serious threat to him--Lucceius had agreed to work with Caesar and Bibulus, as Caesar's colleague for the aedileship, had been totally overshadowed\n\nBefore a man could officially become a *candidatus* (literally a \"whitened guy,\" because candidates for office customarily wore all white) he had to formally enter the city and present before the corresponding magistrate (depending on what office he intended to run for) his *professio*. The *professio* had to be submitted at least one *trinundinum*, or three market market days (held every eight days), in advance of the election, although usually it was submitted well in advance. Until Pompey in 52 passed a bill making personal submission of a *professio* a legal requirement to candidacy, a move clearly intended to attack Caesar individually, candidates don't appear to have actually legally *needed* to submit their *proffesiones* in person. In 63 in the *de lege agraria* Cicero points out that the clause in the Rullan bill preventing individuals not present in the city (he means Pompey, who was in the east still) from candidacy for the proposed decemvirate had no legal precedent, and that legally speaking there was no actual reason why even annual magistrates (like the consuls) had to submit *professiones* in person. Indeed, Livy specifically says that Fulvius Flaccus was elected to the consulship while sitting outside the city waiting for a triumph. The requirement of personal submission of *professio* seems to have been a custom rather than a legal requirement, at least until Caesar tried to run *in absentia* after returning from Gaul. It was an expected custom, though, since Caesar felt compelled to give up his Spanish triumph after Cato's insistence that he submit his *professio* in person, and Catiline was prevented from submitting his, and thus did not run, in 66 by his trial for *repetundae*\n\nCampaigns for the consulship could take months, or even a year, with preparations usually going back as far as a candidate's entry into politics, since so much relied on the personal connections and reputation the candidate had forged during his career. The *Commentariolum Petitionis* advocates for lengthy periods of meetings with just about every important leader in the city, and while campaigns sometimes were announced at the last minute generally lengthy periods of electioneering were the norm. Campaigns were also, without exception, extremely expensive. Even the *Commentariolum Petitionis* has to admit that bribery is the rule, rather than the exception, and while enormous gifts were not necessarily standard voting centuries and other associations, along with a candidate's body of clients, would expect a certain amount of compensation of some kind, if for no other reason than to seal the deal, so to speak. A clean candidate would see months of continuous campaigning, which would be necessarily very expensive as he did favors and lent support for various people and groups, all paid from his own pocket. A corrupt election could be prohibitively expensive for an individual, and in the election for 59 we see Cato trying to stop Caesar from getting Lucceius elected as his colleague by putting together a coalition to shell out enormous bribes"
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1ws8yo | Why do we describe artsy type communities as bohemian? What was so bohemian about the Bohemians? | AskHistorians | http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/1ws8yo/why_do_we_describe_artsy_type_communities_as/ | {
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"This question prompted a very similar one in my head; the term Burgundian means, at least where I live, an enjoyer of life. What was so Burgundian about the Burgundians?",
"The first attested mention of Bohemians as wandering artists can be traced back to a French novel called *Les Bohémiens* (literally, *the Bohemians*) which was published in… 1790. Apparently, it is completely independent from the later 19th-century attestations of the word in this meaning, given that the book sank into oblivion. It was rediscovered quite recently by Robert Darnton, who has written an interesting article about it, *Finding a Lost Prince of Bohemia* (I know that it is available on the Internet as a pdf file on an academic site — it is full of interesting details on the life of disgruntled and minor French intellectuals and libellists shortly before the Revolution, and the author of the aforementioned novel has a very interesting story).",
"I’m going to go ahead and post my response here rather than the original question cited by American_Graffiti because my answer is not about the semantics of the word “Bohemianism”, which is very much an arbitrary social signifier that has little to do with the country of Bohemia itself [and was effectively discussed by Algernon_Asimov](_URL_0_). Instead I want to designate what came to constitute “Bohemian” behavior and why it might be applied to different forms of writing across the 19th and 20th century.\n\n**TL:DR definition of Bohemianism:** Bohemianism was initially established in reference to impoverished artists living in the Latin Quarter of mid-19th century Industrial Paris. It is predicated on the notion of living “outside” of society in a way that is define directly against the socio-economic norms of the period, usually a middle-class-bourgeoisie type construct, hence the labeling of numerous later counter culture movements like Hippies and Beats as similarly “Bohemian”. This performative “life on the fringe of society” is at the core of what defines Bohemian behavior, but there is also an emphasis on voicing criticisms of mainstream lifestyle through art, music, or literature. Accordingly there is a history of works that either attack popular society or explore the benefits/experience of living outside of it being labelled or self-identifying as \"Bohemian\", such as Miller’s *Tropic of Cancer* or Kerouac’s *On the Road*.\n\nFor further detail, I've pulled a handful of extracts (grouped by topic) from a graduate-level paper I wrote for [Professor Robert Holton](_URL_4_), a senior academic in American literary studies and one of the foremost experts on Bohemianism. I'm aware AskHistorians usually disproves of quoted responses but I figure since its my own work, I've provided context, and it will never be published, an exception could be made. My paper examined the roots of Bohemianism within 19th century industrial Paris through the life and works of two authors fundamental in establishing it in popular consciousness, and was well received. \n\n* The first author is Henri Murger, a relatively unremarkable writer save for his 1851 publication of [*La Vie de Boheme*](_URL_3_), which profiled the lives of his fellow Parisian artists who lived in abject poverty. A self-identified Bohemian himself, Murger’s collection was almost single-handedly responsible for introducing the idea of Bohemian behavior to the public, and formed the basis for Puccini’s hugely successful 1896 Opera [La Boheme](_URL_2_). It’s important to note that Murger hated being poor and was writing *La Vie* in the hopes of making money.\n\n* The second is [Charles Baudelaire](_URL_1_), a poet who lived alongside Murger in the squalor of mid-19th century Paris and wrote about the individual’s struggle to reconcile himself to the urban environment, amongst a myriad of other subjects. Baudelaire is now a titan of French literature, but during his lifetime he was utterly impoverished, and his life and art helped to crystalize what Murger had defined in his novel. Unlike Murger, Baudelaire embraced this poverty and pariah-status willingly, and made it central to his artistic process.\n\n**Disclaimer:** These essay extracts are very literary in nature as I’m an English scholar. That said, the social history/causality I present, while general, is accurate. Furthermore I’m not nearly as Marxist as this essay may suggest, but almost all of the work on Bohemianism necessarily involves some Marxist thought due to the huge importance Bohemian authors place on class-consciousness and a self-identification with the underclass/lumpenproletariat.\n\n\n**Introduction:**\n\n\"An inevitable byproduct of urban anonymity is a search for that which is authentic, produced by the sensation of being a single consciousness in a vast tableau of voices, thoughts, and feelings. With the industrial revolution of the early 19th century, city populations rose to unprecedented levels and pushed this dilemma of defining oneself against the miasma of the crowd to the cultural fore. Young artists in mid 19th century Paris reacted to this quest for authenticity by delving into the city’s cafes and garrets in an effort to find a means of creation uninhibited by the pressures of a country coming to grips with modernity. This loosely defined conglomerate of impoverished yet youthful artists became known as Bohemia, and took shape in opposition to the middle-class bourgeois lifestyle that was also being established at the time. This essay will contrast two artists from the initial wave of Parisian Bohemians, active between 1840-1860, in order to explore the twofold contribution early Bohemia made to the world of literature. The first is Henri Murger, whose work defined Bohemianism for a wider public and thus produced the social construct of Bohemia that would ensure its continued relevance to later artists. Second is the poet Charles Baudelaire, whose writing facilitated an ideological shift towards the autonomous production of art. Through their lives, views, and works, these men embody the respective social and artistic facets of early Bohemianism.\"\n\n\n**On the Causes of Bohemianism:**\n\n\"Paris became the first truly modern 19th century city in its intersection of political, artistic, and industrial production, and one of the most significant byproducts of this was a localized sense of class-consciousness fundamental to Bohemia’s establishment, evidenced in Murger’s statement that, “Bohemia only exists, and is only possible, in Paris”. With money replacing hereditary titles as the primary indicator of social status, there arose a conception of a moneyed bourgeoisie that, as they grew in cultural and financial power, aligned notions of social distinction in opposition to the proletariat underclass (Chambers 104). Within Paris intellectual activity had always been closely related to politics, and the gradual rise in political power of the Bourgeois class following the July Revolution meant that it was effectively, “capable of imposing its own form of organization on national life” (Seigal 22). Nowhere did this become more apparent than in the changing perception of art during the period.\"\n\n\"For contemporary artists and writers this was evidenced most clearly in the aristocratic patronage system being replaced by the open market. The bourgeois influence on artistic sensibilities created a movement towards what Pierre Bourdieu terms an “industrialized” approach to literature that emphasized the influence of the market both directly, in relation an artist’s earnings, and indirectly, via new jobs in journalism and publishing (Bourdieau 49). At the time this was construed as both good and bad, with many voicing concerns that the narrow demands of commerce, which measures value by profit, would debase artistic achievement and imagination; while others suggested that freedom from personal subjugation would see the artist act as a voice of the collective people rather than a singular retainer (Seigal 14-15). Thus in being introduced to the market, art simultaneously came to be evaluated based upon its monetary earnings while individual artists were provided an unprecedented degree of independence. In many ways this dualism acts as an analogy to Murger and Baudelaire’s different interpretations of Bohemia’s relationship with art. Murger pursues financial success and identifies Bohemia as a means to achieve this, whereas Baudelaire’s work uses Bohemia to realize the full potential of this newfound individual autonomy in the face of industrialized artistic sensibility.\"\n\n\"To summarize, bourgeois sensibilities had come to be seen as culturally authoritative, the underclass of Paris was its social opposition, and many bourgeois youth were without money or jobs and searching for an artistic outlet. Thus Bohemianism, the practice of young would-be artists appropriating underclass lifestyles in order to develop artistic sensibilities outside those upheld by the bourgeois, acted as a sort of release from these societal pressures.\""
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"http://www.carle... | ||
4b99gc | Do Kepler's laws still apply for bodies of similar masses? If not, are there similar ones which do? | askscience | https://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/4b99gc/do_keplers_laws_still_apply_for_bodies_of_similar/ | {
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5w8p3k | Explanations for the Cultural Revolution | I am currently reading Henry Kissinger's book "On China." He argues, in a nutshell, that the cultural revolution was launched in order to provide Mao greater autonomy, especially in geopolitics, during the Cold War. He downplays ideology and internal concerns (for obvious reasons given his position). This one question is actually two:
(1) to what extent is this explanation plausible?
(2) what are some other alternative explanations (aside from the "continuous revolution" explanation)?
I understand the (a) basic tenants of Maoism and (b) the political and economic structure of the Maoist era. | AskHistorians | https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/5w8p3k/explanations_for_the_cultural_revolution/ | {
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"The two chief reasons for the cultural revolution were internal politics and ideology.\n\nAfter the failure of the great leap forward Mao had being sidelined from power and the day-to-day running of the government was taken over by Liu Shoaqi and Deng Xiaoping. The cultural revolution started off as a play by Mao to attack those two leaders for ideological impurity, for being \"capitalist roaders\" whose pragmatic style of governance was leading China away from the road towards Communism. To this end he was successful in purging both Liu and Deng from the government and reasserting himself as the unquestionable leader of China.\n\nThe second explanation was that the \"continuous revolution\" was something Mao genuinely believed. He did believe that the Communist party and its cadres had indeed accumulated a large degree of privilege and corruption had became a problem. It was not just him who believed this: both Deng and Liu had started off supporting the cultural revolution when it began and before it became obvious how violent it was to become. He believed that there was a need to train up a new generation of revolutionaries to take the mantle of the old generation and renew China's revolutionary zeal. The best way to train a new generation of revolutionaries was, well, to have them make a revolution, even against the party and the state Mao himself had built. Had the cultural revolution simply being a cynical political stratagem to for Mao to purge his opponents it could have ended in 1966 when Liu and Deng was purged, yet it went on for 10 years longer and inflicted considerable damage to the party and the state.\n\nWhen it comes to geopolitics one could see the cultural revolution as ideologically defining Chinese Communism apart from Soviet Communism and trying to forestall the development of a Soviet-style bureaucratic state in China. And indeed China was deeply hostile to the Soviet Union during the late Mao period, accumulating in the tactful Sino-American alliance aimed at the USSR. But the primary explanation for it was never geopolitics or foreign relations, it was internal politics and what kind of society Mao wished to build in China.\n\nSource: Mao's Last Revolution by Michael Schoenhals and Roderick MacFarquhar\n\nTurbulent Decade: A History of the Cultural Revolution by Y Jiaqi"
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1ikty2 | why can i eat a lot of hot pizza, but only a little cold pizza? | So I've noticed that when I get a pizza at night, I can eat around 5-6 slices, as it's fresh out tha kitchen. But if I eat that same pizza for dinner the next day, when it's been sitting in my refrigerator, I can only eat 2-3 slices before I'm full up. Is this something to do with liquid vs. solid cheese? Is it temperature? Am I crazy? | explainlikeimfive | http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/1ikty2/eli5_why_can_i_eat_a_lot_of_hot_pizza_but_only_a/ | {
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"It's most likely nothing more than a psychological effect based on the fact that you likely find the fresh pizza more appealing. In the same way that you'll eat until you think you're full at a restaurant but somehow you still find room for dessert. By the time the food hits your stomach, it's most likely in a state where one is pretty much indistinguishable from the other, mashed up, very close to body temperature, same basic composition.",
"On a hot slice of pizza - the sauce is hot and liquid-like, the cheese is soft. On a cold slice of pizza - the sauce is cold and more solid-like, the cheese is hard.\n\nIt takes more time and energy to mechanically chew the pizza for digestion.\n\nMore time allows your brain to get signals from the stomach saying I'm full before you've eaten to much. Try a little experiment at home. Eat 2 slices of cold pizza and time yourself. Then the next meal eat 2 slices of hot pizza but take your time and try to match it up to the time that it took you to eat 2 slices of cold - you most likely will be full by then.",
"Because you are full from all of the hot pizza you ate two hours earlier.",
"Our taste buds like things that are healthy enough. This is for evolutionary reasons - people who had a taste for poisonous foods would end up racking up a habit of chewing hemlock, and his genetics would die with him. For reasons already mentioned in this thread, hot foods are healthier than raw foods. Bacteria and viruses have a hard time living when it's hotter, so it's healthier to eat. \n\nThis means that people that developed a taste for healthier, non-raw meals, would survive and live to reproduce a chain of humans that lead to you, who clearly shares these traits."
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25vmc2 | why do humans bare their teeth (smile) to show positive emotions when baring teeth is an almost universal signal of aggression or fear among other mammals? | explainlikeimfive | http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/25vmc2/eli5_why_do_humans_bare_their_teeth_smile_to_show/ | {
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"It's not though.\n\nBearing teeth can be good or bad for most animals. Let's look at dogs, my dog shows his teeth when he's entertained and happy, but also when angry.\n\nSimilar to a human, bearing teeth in itself isn't a sign of aggression or happiness, but it is one sign that when combined with others can tell.\n\nFor instance, I can bear my teeth in two ways; I can smile, or when I get annoyed, I can make a sort of grimace or scowl, where I show my teeth. One says \"I'm happy\" not just because of teeth, but because of my eyes, my posture, I might be laughing, etc. The other shows that I am annoyed or angry, again, not because of the teeth alone, but again because of my posture, my eyes, or I might be sighing or showing signs of frustration/irritation.\n\nSimilar to a dog, they can show their teeth while \"smiling\" (I don't know if dogs actually smile or if we just think they do) which is accompanied by a wagging tail, them bouncing, maybe panting a little from playing, etc. But they can also show teeth when angry or preparing to fight, this is often accompanied by an arched back, straight tail and growling.\n\nIf dogs aren't a good enough example, look at primates. They all smile as well as yell, both of which often show teeth, just like with humans.",
"In primates, showing teeth within a /closed/ mouth is a submissive gesture. It shows that there is no aggression going on. If a monkey bares fangs with their mouth open, then that is a dominant gesture.\n\nI did behavioural research with monkeys for several years.",
"Chimpanzees do smile actually, and we also do the 'fear face'. Look at pictures of people riding roller coasters, you'll usually see at least some one with their teeth grit and on full view. Primate facial expression is more complicated than for most animals because that's what we rely on most heavily, but if you look at an animal like a dog, their tail wagging can have multiple meanings. It's generally taken to mean happy, but dogs will also wag their tails when nervous or agitated. ",
"We bare our teeth for a wide variety of reasons, including out of exertion/desperation/aggression. It's not always used to express a positive emotion.\n\nCompared to other animals humans have insanely acute vision and very over-developed facial musculature. We're able to make a much wider range of expressions with our faces than other animals, and our stereoscopic, true-color vision allows us to perceive very subtle nuances in each other's expressions.\n\nFor most animals baring teeth expresses one emotion. For humans it can express upwards of 1,000.",
"It's not a universal sign of aggression, all types of animals bare their teeth for non aggressive reasons. ",
"Completely not true. Humans bare their teeth under aggression. It's a scary thing as it denoted immediate physical attack, usually. Nothing as scary.",
"You saying this just reminded me to start watching 3rd Rock from the Sun. They often question the actions of humans objectively as aliens.",
"People still can use smiles as a sign of agression. When I get really mad, I get this nut house smile like I'm going to do something people aren't going to like. It has never been mistaken as a happy smile..",
"Humans also show our teeth in aggression. It's called snarling.\n\nIt's also worth noting that, while it's certainly not the rule, some laughter is cruel—like laughing at pain and misfortune. \n\nIn general, I think the most obvious distinction to be noted is that laughter is an extremely different muscle motion than snarling.",
"Not entirely true. My dog smiles when i come home from work, it's hilarious. She also shakes her head no when i ask her if she has to go out and go potty.",
"Healthy teeth can be indicative of overall health. Showing your teeth may be a way of showing another tribe or a potential mate that you are disease free. ",
"It's not universal. Wolves bare their teeth with other wolves as a greeting. Whereas dogs smell butts, wolves smell each other's teeth. (dogs are so disgusting).",
"For me it just feels like a natural response. Overwhelming happiness just make me smile. It doesn't seem like something that society has taught human.",
"Many people believe that the reaction to fear in primates evolved to our smile. A show of fear, teeth in this case, in another being means it has no intent to harm, so we can proceed to come closer. The evolution theory to it suggests time turned it from \"fear\" to \"no harm intended.\" \n\nHumans smile to show that we are friendly and welcoming; ergo, no harm intended.\n\nEdit: Typo",
"Guess I'm an evolutionary throwback. I find smiling with lots of teeth as strange. All my life people have tried to get me to show teeth while smiling. Anyone else like that?",
"I have studied facial expressions. I believe that the reason that we show our teeth when we smile is that we have zygomatic muscles that make the display non threatening. And if you think about it, it's not just the mouth that is involved in a smile. In a genuine smile the corners of the eyes crease and there is no downward movement of the eyebrows indicating aggression. \n\nMost animals do not have the same physiology as humans to produce a equivalent smile. If you think about a scowl indicating aggression possibly with bared teeth the eyebrows are always lowered. The mouth is pulled up more vertically by the muscles that cover and surround the nose (i.e. not zygomatic). Also, if you think about instinct, we smile when we are tickled and when we laugh. It's really hard to laugh with a scowl on your face. Because laughing when tickled is a reflex, that is some evidence to suggest that it is something that is hard wired. ",
"There is definitely such a thing as an aggressive smile.",
"Corner of the mouth (back teeth exposed) is submission; front teeth only is aggression. This is for both humans and primates.\n\nSource: Desmond Morris, whom you should all take a moment to youtube.\n\n_URL_0_ (doesn't cover teeth)\n\nEDIT: TEETH, Y'ALL: _URL_1_",
"I answered this last time this question was posed, but my comment was buried. Here is an interesting take on it:\n It is covered relatively simply in [this](_URL_0_) document. In very simple terms, we smile because evolutionarily when our ancestors were happy or something maked them pleased, they would be wise to show something that is the opposite of aggression, which is to vocalize something that makes the other, pleasing party feel superior. Think of it like this. Make an \"oo\" sound and spread your lips into a smile. Notice how the sound is heightened and might by seen as less intimidating? This is essentially the claim to the acoustic origin of the smile.",
"The famous case of Genie the feral child showed when they rescued her, she could not smile. It wasn't until she saw others doing it she learned. Pretty solid evidence it is just a social thing and not wired in us.",
"I never understood smiling. Especially in photos. It might be because my mom was never happy with my smile. I either smiled too much or not enough.",
"Closed mouth exposure of teeth = submissive. Open mouth exposure of teeth = dominant. \n(Try it yourself, smile then open your mouth. It feels like you're getting ready to attack someone)",
"Showing your teeth is saying: \"Look at this dental job. Can you pay for it? No? Therefore: submit, submit, submit, lower being.\"",
"There are a lot of good posts here. This is a copy/paste from when I answered this question once before. I hope ol' Darwin's take on the whole smiling thing is still interesting:\n\n Worked in a Fear and Emotions lab in college: Darwin tackled this one in OOS, and modern research bears this out. The \"Fear Face\" is an evolutionary response that maximizes survival in response to a threat (gasp gets some extra O2 in the lungs, lips parted mean you can get more when you need it, eyes wide open to let in more information about the environment, possible escape routes etc.). This instinctive survival tactic has become an innate part of the mammalian fear response. In social animals, seeing a fear response from another member of the species will activate a fear response in the observer. This is also a survival tactic; if you are looking toward me and you are scared, then I will know there is something to be afraid of and get biologically prepared to try and survive the threat.\nNow think about the shape of a \"Fear Face\" (jaw parted, lips turned down, eyes wide open, brow raised). It is the opposite of a smile (teeth together, lips turned up, eyes squinting, brow relaxed). So the smile evolved as a nonverbal method for communicating the opposite of fear (perhaps more properly- the total lack of fear) to other group members. Similar patterns exist in other social mammals (rats, dogs, meerkats, apes), but smiling is the human one.\nFurther reading: _URL_1_\n_URL_0_\nAdolphs, R., Gosselin, F., Buchanan, T. W., Tranel, D., Schyns, P., & Damasio, A. R. (2005). A mechanism for impaired fear recognition after amygdala damage. Nature, 433, 68-72\nMonk, C., McClure, E., Nelson, E., Zarahn, R., Bilder, R., & Liebenluft, E. (2003). Adolescent immaturity in attention-related brain engagement to emotional facial expressions. NeuroImage, 20(1), 420-8.\nAlso check out the \"predatory imminence curve\" - My Google is broken",
"lot of answers here that don't sound like they're coming from anthropologists and sound like they're coming from people with pets that have teeth that are visible, sometimes. ",
"You're wrong. Dogs show teeth the same way as humans. Instead Of just teeth, look at the face. If the face is pulled back and the eyes relaxed, that's a smile, with or without teeth. If the face is pulled forward and scrunched, that is a face of anger or aggression regardless of the teeth showing or not. ",
"The only human to smile and show aggression is Gary Busey.\n",
"We do it because it shows our weapons, same reason why we show our hands or shake them. We show our weapons as a sign of respect, as to show that we are not going to use them. We are saying, \"Hey, here's my guns and I'm putting them on the table\". ",
"Because the feeling of happiness, smiles and laughter, are derived of fear and aggression.",
"I see what you are asking, but the premise is misunderstood. Facial expressions are fairly universal throughout animals, including humans. It is thought they were all evolved to be used as a form of communication. \n\nWhen humans bare their teeth, it is an aggressive gesture. Just look at every drawng of the angry HUlk: _URL_0_\n\nWhen monkeys are happy, they smile: _URL_4_\n\nGenerally, a person can look at other animals and know what emotional state they are in. There can be tells such as the position of ears and tails, but a lot can be seen on the faces between species. \n\nFor instance, here are some facial expressions of dogs: _URL_3_\n\nAnd here are some expressions of chimpanzees\nSmiling: _URL_2_\nAngry:_URL_1_\n\n",
"I always thought smiling with your teeth is a very American thing. Here in Germany many people will not show their teeth when smiling, which makes it often very easy to spot people from the US in group pictures. I always wondered about that difference, though. ",
"if you actually watch a human face for example playing poker, in very slow motion/high def camera, you will notice there are MANY expressions that show on our face but are then quickly suppressed/changed by our conscious thought (or subconsciously, if its habit/social). \n\nSo many times you see teeth-baring, or grimacing, or frowning or curling of lips but its only there for literally a frame or two before being suppressed.\n\nThis suppression of body language/reactions is natural in our society where we often do not wish to 'show' that we are disgusted by something or scared of something. Due to a variety of social conventions, morality, blah.\n\nPersonally, i've made the disgusted face several times while writing this post. One of the keys on my keyboard is sticky.",
"I don't bare my teeth when I smile. In fact, I make very conscious effort of hiding my teeth when I smile.\nAm I not human?",
"I'd wag my tail... but got no tail to wag. :'(",
"I think it has roots in the way we communicate trust and social bonding. There are studies on the way that people sound when doing something like laughing and how similar that is across cultures. [See this study summary](_URL_1_)\nWhen you think about it reckless laughter (like when it hurts) it is very weird, you pant and grin wildly and generally lose control a bit. The theory that it is part of a social/trust ritual is plausible but nothing is proven as yet!\nThe origins of laughter are thought to be through tickling (see [here](_URL_0_)) and that is quite a trust exercise as you expose your delicate, tickly bits to another for them to tickle you. It's quite sweet really.",
"Wait until your next staff meeting when the boss tells a joke and then look around.",
"Not all other mammals! \nProsimians and simians (Primates) show their teeth to show submission - particularly the teeth held together. A threat is when the teeth are apart (and lips curled back) as it shows you are about to/ready to bite. \nIt seems logical to me that the human smile has developed from this.",
"Because when you smile with no teeth, you look like a prick.",
"Because \"hahahaha you're so funny I'll fucking kill you hahahahaha\". ",
"Because imagine our ancestors back in Africa.. They are having a BBQ chilling with their tribe having a good time and in this vulnerable state they are attacked by predators.. So they needed to figure out a way to still be able to have fun and chill out while still scaring off predators.. This is how the tooth bearing smile evolved. ",
"Reposting this on It's own since It was buried under many other comments and several people suggested this should be higher up!\n\nFor humans showing our teeth has a bit to do with language as well. When we smile, we are actually creating a shape with our vocal tract/mouth that increases/heightens the pitch of our voice. The kind of pitch that indicates that one is happy, or speaking to a child in a 'nice' tone, for example (give it a shot, say something, and then say the same thing while smiling). I think that originally, smiling and showing teeth began as a speech function (long before we ever took pictures showing how happy we are!) that served to indicate to those around us that we were in fact nice and passive and happy.\n\nSource: I'm currently 1 class away from graduating with a degree in linguistics. If anyone has more information/evidence to back this up, please do so, as I don't have any references available currently aside from memory.",
"Humans also put their mouths on each others' genitals. Don't read so much into it. :P",
"Aggression CAN be shown through smiling! Humans do it all the time. \n\nA man who was in jail once smiled at me and it sent shivers down my spine. His smile was worse than a death threat. "
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160ium | the clock on my microwave runs fast. how is that possible, being that it's digital? | explainlikeimfive | http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/160ium/the_clock_on_my_microwave_runs_fast_how_is_that/ | {
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"Since 1930, electric clocks have kept time based on the rate of the electrical current that powers them. If the current slips off its usual rate, clocks run a little fast or slow. Power companies now take steps to correct it and keep the frequency of the current — and the time — as precise as possible.",
"The fact that it's digital does not necessarily make a clock more accurate. Something needs to tell the clock that 1 minute or 1 second has passed. This can be done either internally, using clever circuitry or crystals, or by taking information from the interwebs. Im assuming this is done internally in the case of a microwave. Either way, errors are always present in the determination of time (even in atomic clocks) and it would be just as likely that your microwave's clock would run slow. Electronically determining time has an effect on the accuracy of the clock itself with respect to mechanical methods but it does not eliminate the error. Mechanical time keepers have the same problem, but are effected by many external effects and thus have larger errors.",
"I'm sorry, but most comments here are pretty inaccurate. NO truly digital system (I know of) uses the 50/60Hz net frequency for something like timekeeping. It's unstable, can suffer from peak voltages/harmonics, and is filtered out anyway, when providing power to any digital circuit. (as digital circuits all operate on direct current, not alternating current)\n\nEverything that needs an accurate frequency (be it an antique clock, or your laptop), has an oscillator inside. In the antique clock this is a pendulum, in your laptop and almost all digital systems, a 'crystal'.\n\nIt works much like a tuning fork, which means that, when a voltage is applied, it will oscillate at a certain (very high) determined frequency, but always the same one (as long as the crystal doesn't get worn out/damaged.)\n\nThink of the crystal as a pendulum that oscillates not once but 1 million times a second. (called the frequency: 50MHz would mean 50 million times a second) Once you know this number of oscillations per second, you can easily make something that can count seconds. You just make a circuit that counts up to one million, and when that is reached, gives a signal that a second has passed and resets the counter.\n\nThere is also another (less accurate) way to generate a frequency, and it happens when you put a capacitor and an inductor (coil) - two electronic devices, the former acting to maintain voltage, the latter acting to maintain the same current - together in an 'resonant circuit'. It makes use of the fact that you put two energy storage devices together, and 'swap' energy constantly.\n\nImagine an iron ball hanging from a rubber band. As you pull the ball down, you store energy in the rubber band. You let loose, and the rubber band transfers it energy to the ball, which -once the rubber is fully flaccid- will have all this energy now stored as potential gravitational energy. Now gravity starts to pull the ball down again, storing that energy once again in the rubber band... Operating on a cycle. This cycle will have a certain frequency again, which you can determine by adjusting the stiffness/length of the elastic band and the weight of the ball. Once these variables are set, the frequency is set.\n\nHow can it get off sync? All electronic components degrade over time. This is called drift. Resistors, inductors, and capacitors suffer from it, but also crystals. Drift simply means that the actual value of the component will change, due to heat, corrosion, etc... Much like a rubber band won't stretch as well after 10 years of use.\n\nIf your microwave clock is fast, it probably means the oscillating digital circuit is faster than it was calculated to be, and it thinks a second is slightly shorter than it actually is. On a fun note, this technically means your microwave was 'overclocked' ;)"
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2a7ffn | Why does traumatic brain injury lead to sudden onset of hypoglycemia within the body? | askscience | http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/2a7ffn/why_does_traumatic_brain_injury_lead_to_sudden/ | {
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"I am not aware of any evidence to suggest that it does. "
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63u3s4 | how do bbq restaurants work? | A few years ago I bought a Traeger smoking grill and I love to make my own BBQ. I know from experience that pork shoulders and briskets take at least 12 hours to cook, while ribs take 3-6 hours depending on whether you're cooking baby backs or spare ribs. All of this depends on what temperature you cook at (I prefer 225 myself).
My question is how do they serve hot and fresh food? Most restaurants cook to order. Do they have someone cooking at least 12 hours in advance of the lunch hours? Then what about dinner service? Do they serve the same meat at dinner as they did at lunch? Is it possible that they would cook some meat until they're 90% done and finish it when an order is placed? Smoked chicken is great but leaves the skin unappetizing, unless you finish it with higher heat. How does a restaurant deal with that? When something like brisket is done, how do they keep it warm without drying it out? How do they plan for how much meat to cook? I realize that running out of something comes with the territory when your food is great. I have seen some shows that follow mom and pop shops around and that has answered some of my questions. I am more interested in larger restaurants or chains like Bandanas or Famous Dave's. | explainlikeimfive | https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/63u3s4/eli5_how_do_bbq_restaurants_work/ | {
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" > Is it possible that they would cook some meat until they're 90% done and finish it when an order is placed?\n\nYes. This is called par cooking.\n\nThey also cook stuff overnight. Big chains will have more pre-cooked stuff that is just finished on site.",
"Many BBQ joints now employ gas or electric smokers that can be set at the end of the night and then left running overnight. Some just start super early and that's why many are only open for lunch... they may get in at 3am to smoke the meat, serve from 11-1 and that's end of day (like Franklin BBQ in Austin). Restaurants often have to hold food that takes long time to cook for service, and there are all sorts of warming boxes, etc. And BBQ joints do often run out of particular items due to the long cook time... they may make 10 shoulders or 8 briskets and when it's gone, it's gone for the day.",
"Items like brisket and ribs can sit in warmers for long periods of time, where chicken can't. Often times the pit masters work awful hours putting their meat in the evening, and pulling it out in the early morning, then placing these hearty cuts of meat in warmers before moving onto other food that's harder to keep warm and delicious like chicken. As far as more local BBQ joints, once they're out, they're out. I can't speak for large chains, but I assume that they possibly keep already prepped food cold, and warm it up as needed.\nChicken - absolutely terrible, pain in the ass. I can't count the number of times we've tossed our entire whole chickens because the workers got tired of eating it, or no one bought it. You had to make several throughout the day because of picky eaters."
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45nyv2 | does everything emit gravitational waves? | hello
I did a lot of googling and there seems to be a lot of confusion regarding the new discovery, in one paper i read that only accelerating things emit gravitational waves, in the other i read that only moving objects do. If only moving objects do, moving compared to what?? Could anyone explain how does this work exactly?
Another question: they are waves, so they should have frequencies and amplitudes? how do those values get determined exactly? | askscience | https://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/45nyv2/does_everything_emit_gravitational_waves/ | {
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"Yes, accelerating masses produces gravitational waves -- with the caveat that the mass distribution can't be spherically or cylindrically symmetric.\n\nAnd yes, these waves have frequencies and amplitudes. The frequency is determined by the frequency in the changing mass distribution that produces the wave. For example, in the binary black hole system, the gravitational wave frequency is [twice (PDF)](_URL_0_) the orbital frequency. This is why the frequency of the detected signal increased at the end, as the two black holes were spinning around their center of mass faster and faster. The amplitude is determined by the way the mass distribution is changing, namely by the second time derivative the quadrupole moment.",
"If it is accelerated (speed or direction of movement changes) then theoretically kind of yes but they are insignificant unless really great masses experience really strong acceleration as happened in the recently detected event. "
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5yrvmm | if heat rises, then are hotter object "technically" lighter than colder ones? | I've always had this thought but I have never asked about it to sound stupid. | explainlikeimfive | https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/5yrvmm/eli5_if_heat_rises_then_are_hotter_object/ | {
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"No they are not technically lighter. An object that is lighter would weigh less, ie be less massive. Lift however has nothing to do with mass. It's all about relative density. An object with lower relative density compared to its surroundings will rise. But it won't change mass and is thus not lighter. ",
"It's not that heat rises, it's that *hot air* rises - or more specifically, it rises above cold air. \n\nThink of it this way: the hotter something is, the further apart its molecules are. So if you take equal volumes of hot air vs cold air, the cold air will contain more molecules - and will therefore be heavier. If you introduce a heavy gas though, it won't matter how hot that other gas is, it'll still be heavier. "
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24efeg | how do new zookeepers introduce themselves to hostile animals like lions and tigers without getting mauled to death? | explainlikeimfive | http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/24efeg/eli5_how_do_new_zookeepers_introduce_themselves/ | {
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"They probably are friendly with them from a young age. I remember seeing this one cool video about two guys who took care of a lion until he grew too large. They released him to the wild, then a while later visited him. The lion remembered them and was hugging and licking them. ",
"You first need to make sure that you know how they interpret your actions, and what their actions should mean for you. Eye contact is amazingly powerful, as are all nonverbal cues and body movements. Learn what scares them and how they react when they're afraid. Once you have a grasp on how your actions (and any vocalizations you make) affect them, you can act appropriately to get closer to them without getting your heart ripped out. At this point, bribe them with things they like to help them understand that you bring good things. \n\nSource: I work with animals that can rip me apart if they want to. I also am in a long-term (human) relationship, and the rules are surprisingly similar now that I write them out!\n\nEdit: As some other commenters have pointed out, I am always separated from the animals or have them on a pole. I'm not just cavorting with my animals.",
"Strictly answering your question, any reputable (AZA acredited) zoo will not allow anyone to go into an enclosure with a potentially dangerous animal. The safety of the people who work there is #1, so you will always be separated from them. \n\nThere certainly are people who will get up close and personal with their animals, they might have raised them from birth to be comfortable around people for example. These cases are rare though, and there is always a risk of an animal turning on you in a way that you couldn't have predicted would happen. The more you work around an animal, the more you get to know it's behaviour, but at the end of the day you can never be 100% sure what they will do.\n\nPeople like circus lion trainers are not professionals trained in animal welfare, and there have been a huge number of accusations leveled at them with regards to animal cruelty and poor practices. There's a slow trend of more and more countries banning wild animal performances.\n\nTL:DR - any large wild animal could potentially harm you. Good keepers place their safety first, and treat the animals with the respect they deserve. If you go into the enclosure with the lion and get mauled, then you deserve everything you get.",
"In the US, in accredited zoos, keepers would not normally have unprotected contact with large predatory animals. Training techniques and modern facilities mean people and animals are not in the same spaces \nAnimals are often wary of new people and have a good memory of who brings food and who brings needles. They are keenly aware of sounds like keys, locks, doors that are associated with good things. \n\n At many so called animal havens and rescues , people do often go in with dangerous animals. Food rewards, toys, and affection can lead to a degree of \"domestication\" and decrease in aggressions. However, People are maimed and killed at these places with some regularity. \nSource: 20 years of field biology and zoo keeping ",
"That's what interns are for."
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7vz2tj | What was the true original purpose of the Electoral College? Politicians say that it is necessary for equal representation of their states where there are concentrated areas of party majority. Parties were not apart of the constitution. Has the Electoral College taken on a new and modern purpose? | AskHistorians | https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/7vz2tj/what_was_the_true_original_purpose_of_the/ | {
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"text": [
"Hello,\n\nI actually answers this question last year which [you can check out right here](_URL_0_). Essentially, the electoral college was created in order to put up a barrier against democracy, since the vast majority of the founders saw democracy as the chief danger to America's future. The narrative that exists now, that it's designed to give better representation to low population states is more of a modern interpretation that started popping up with more recent elections. Due to the community's 20 year rule, I cannot explain further. \n\nPlease let me know if this answers your question and if you have any follow ups."
]
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[
"https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/5c9d6a/origins_of_the_electoral_college_system_in_the_us/dc2z1kd/"
]
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fyh8f | I've been hearing some talk lately of scientists trying to grow meat in a lab, but what about meat like fungus? | I was wondering to myself a few hours ago how much more or even less difficult it would be to develop a fungus which holds many, if not all the properties we need from meat which we can't find in the plant world. Things like iron and a great number of different acids and other nutrients can't be found in plant life, and I know some of them can be found in fungus.
So what's stopping us from making a fungus that is rich in those nutrients, and how much more or less practical would it be to do that instead of painstakingly growing and working out meat in a lab?
Here's the link I got the meat growing lab from in case there is anyone who hasn't seen it: _URL_0_
EDIT: Sorry, in the title I meant to write "meat-like" as in to say growing a fungus that is like meat, not to grow types of meat that are a fungus. | askscience | http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/fyh8f/ive_been_hearing_some_talk_lately_of_scientists/ | {
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"text": [
"The only thing stopping us is that it wouldn't taste like meat. :P"
]
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"http://news.discovery.com/tech/test-tube-meat-grown-in-the-lab.html"
] | [
[]
] | |
79uo5i | why do babies cry and make a drama before they go to sleep. | Title is self explanatory!!! | explainlikeimfive | https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/79uo5i/eli5_why_do_babies_cry_and_make_a_drama_before/ | {
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"Explain the title better!\n\nSeriously though, babies are very base or primal in their behaviour and they'll cry about anything really.\n\nAnd since being tired isn't a nice feeling, they'll start crying because they want it to be made better. Eventually they'll tire themselves out enough to fall asleep.",
"This is somewhat of a loaded/false premise question... the thing is, babies **always** cry. That's their sole method of communication. They don't \"make drama\" as they have no *concept* of that nor the facilities to understand, well, much of anything.\n\nBabies cry. It's one of their primary functions until they become children. ",
"Emotional outbursts are physically draining (just think about the last time you cried until you couldn’t any more). This may be an unintended effect of reacting to uncomfortable stimulus (being tired). Babies haven’t been around long enough to just “deal” with unpleasant sensations, hence the reaction. Plus at that point an infant’s prefrontal cortex is too underdeveloped to even try to be reasonable. "
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[],
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21gukz | Does Mars have a molten core? If so, how do we know? | askscience | http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/21gukz/does_mars_have_a_molten_core_if_so_how_do_we_know/ | {
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"text": [
"There is [some evidence](_URL_0_) that's Mars' core is at least partially molten. Depending on the sulfur content, it [may be completely molten](_URL_1_)."
]
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"http://www.sciencedaily.com/releases/2003/03/030307071457.htm",
"http://www.newscientist.com/article/dn11962-lab-study-indicates-mars-has-a-molten-core.html#.UzOo6vldUwA"
]
] | ||
q8v9u | How similar (or different) is the biology of Alzheimer's disease compared to a person with a healthy brain who just "forgets" something? | askscience | http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/q8v9u/how_similar_or_different_is_the_biology_of/ | {
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"Quite, quite different.\n\nAlzheimers and other dementias are degenerative diseases characterized by atrophy and loss of neural tissue. The neurons and synapses that support given memories (most researchers characterize memory as the pattern of activation in a broadly distributed network of neural connections, rather than a memory being \"stored\" in a given neuron) are slowly destroyed, piecemeal. So what we see in dementia patients is a seemingly random, progressive, and irreversible loss of memory. Further, neurogenesis (the creation of new neurons) and synaptogenesis (the creation of new synapses) both slow as we age, so the brain in this case cannot just \"heal itself\".\n\nIn neurotypical individuals, forgetting can be better characterized as a failure of accessibility, rather than availability. That is, when we forget, it's not because the memory has been erased-- all our neural tissue is, for the most part, intact. Instead, a memory becomes inaccessible due to changes in the neural networks supporting it, interference from other information/networks, etc."
]
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[]
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cqt567 | what’s the science behind the difference in the nasal spiciness of horseradish/wasabi etc and the mouth spiciness of chillis? | explainlikeimfive | https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/cqt567/eli5_whats_the_science_behind_the_difference_in/ | {
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"Different chemicals.\n\nThe spiciness in chili and other peppers is caused by capsaicin, which stimulates the heat sensing receptors in your mouth. Meanwhile Wasabi and its friends have allyl isothiocyanate which triggers a different set of pain receptors.",
"For an excellent explanation of this which is also fun and easy to understand, see [this Wow in the World episode](_URL_0_)."
]
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[],
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"https://www.npr.org/2019/06/14/732812079/g-force-vs-wasabi-how-the-brain-registers-pain"
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12ht52 | Why does heat from a star lose intensity over a distance despite being in a vacuum? | How does the light energy dissipate and what is it absorbed by? | askscience | http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/12ht52/why_does_heat_from_a_star_lose_intensity_over_a/ | {
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"There's more surface area if you draw a sphere 1 lightyear out from a star than 1 meter out from a star, right?\n\nSo each bit of surface area is going to get a bit less heat, because there's a finite amount of heat being spread over a larger area.\n\nMake sense now? \n\nEdit: Reversed the distances in my comparison. "
]
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[]
] | |
2agnh0 | a black car that have been sitting in the sun is more warm than a car in a different color. is this also the case with human beings, does a black person absorb more heat than a white person? | explainlikeimfive | http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/2agnh0/eli5_a_black_car_that_have_been_sitting_in_the/ | {
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"Black person's skin does absorb more light and probably more heat. Black skin is good because it absorbs UV light, which could otherwise cause cancer",
"Black skin does absorb a bit more heat than white skin, but it isn't all that much (about half the heat from the sun is from infrared light which is not effected by skin color at all), and a fair trade off for black skin's increased ability to resist damage from UV rays. ",
"Sort of. Black people absorb more light and heat because the melanin in their skin helps protect them from the sun. It's partly natural selection - originally, black people had to spend all day in the harsh African sun, so they had higher melanin counts because melanin protected them. Having high amounts of melanin was actually the default human body, the original human being. White people came about after their (black) ancestors lived in Europe, which was cold and dark, and since there was no need to have melanin in their hair, skin, and eyes, it began to fade. Blue eyes came after a single genetic mutation. So there's that."
]
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1j2v7n | How were the Allies perceived in WWII by non-Axis nations? | Was there large amounts of support for allies efforts? Were they met with resentment, particularly about massive civilian targeting by the allies? Or did most of the world view their efforts positively?
I was curious, since our history books paint us as the stoppers of a genocide; how were we viewed on the other-side of the fence? How did Axis Nations view their own efforts?
Thanks! | AskHistorians | http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/1j2v7n/how_were_the_allies_perceived_in_wwii_by_nonaxis/ | {
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"An example of what you're looking for might be the experience of the French in their colonies in North Africa.\n\nLet's start with the Battle of Mers-el-Kébir. This was the fifth naval battle of WWII and the first to involve the French. In an effort to crush French naval power in the Mediterranean, a British task force surprised the French fleet at anchor off the coast of French Algeria on July 3, 1940. Britain and France were **not** at war at the time the battle took place. In accordance with the Second Armistice at Compiègne, France was to be a neutral party in the conflict between Britain and the Axis.\n\nThe battle was a British victory and resulted in the deaths of almost 1,300 Frenchmen and the destruction of the battleship *Bretagne* at the hands of the HMS *Hood*. The battle was of enormous propaganda value to the Germans and contributed to pro-German sentiment in the French government.\n\nAdmiral Somerville, who led the British attack, was personally opposed to the engagement due to strategic considerations. Churchill wrote to him,\n\n > You are charged with one of the most disagreeable tasks that a British Admiral has ever been faced with, but we have complete confidence in you and rely on you to carry it out relentlessly.\n\nSomerville later said of the engagement,\n\n > [This will be] the biggest political blunder of modern times and will rouse the whole world against us…we all feel thoroughly ashamed...\n\nSomerville had attempted to deliver an ultimatum to the French fleet, which read,\n\n > It is impossible for us, your comrades up to now, to allow your fine ships to fall into the power of the German enemy. We are determined to fight on until the end, and if we win, as we think we shall, we shall never forget that France was our Ally, that our interests are the same as hers, and that our common enemy is Germany. Should we conquer we solemnly declare that we shall restore the greatness and territory of France. For this purpose we must make sure that the best ships of the French Navy are not used against us by the common foe. In these circumstances, His Majesty's Government have instructed me to demand that the French Fleet now at Mers el Kebir and Oran shall act in accordance with one of the following alternatives;\n\n > (a) Sail with us and continue the fight until victory against the Germans.\n\n > (b) Sail with reduced crews under our control to a British port. The reduced crews would be repatriated at the earliest moment.\nIf either of these courses is adopted by you we will restore your ships to France at the conclusion of the war or pay full compensation if they are damaged meanwhile.\n\n > (c) Alternatively if you feel bound to stipulate that your ships should not be used against the Germans unless they break the Armistice, then sail them with us with reduced crews to some French port in the West Indies — Martinique for instance — where they can be demilitarised to our satisfaction, or perhaps be entrusted to the United States and remain safe until the end of the war, the crews being repatriated.\n\n > If you refuse these fair offers, I must with profound regret, require you to sink your ships within 6 hours.\n\n > Finally, failing the above, I have the orders from His Majesty's Government to use whatever force may be necessary to prevent your ships from falling into German hands.\n\nUnfortunately, his decision to deliver the message through a lower-ranking bilingual subordinate (rather than one of his English-speaking, high-ranking officers) greatly offended the French commander, who, in response, employed one of his own lower-ranking subordinates in the negotiation process.\n\nThese two lower-ranking individuals lacked the necessary experience to resolve the situation amicably; in fact, the French commander never even received the full details of the ultimatum and was completely unaware of Option C. In a cruel twist of fate, the French Admiral had already been ordered by his superiors to sail to America were a foreign power (such as Britain) to attempt to seize his ships. If Option C had been given to the French Admiral, the entire battle might have been avoided.\n\nThe French ships that survived the engagement sailed to Toulon and remained there for the next two years in accordance with the armistice signed with Germany.\n\nWhen Germany later attempted to occupy southern France in late November of 1942, violating its armistice with France, the French government scuttled all ships at Toulon of any military value, including those that had participated in the Battle of Mers-el-Kébir. This only further cemented the belief among the French people that the British attack had been an unnecessary betrayal by an ally.\n\nAdmiral Darlan (the superior officer in charge of the fleet at Mers-el-Kébir) wrote to Churchill after the scuttlings, saying,\n\n > Prime Minister you said to me 'I hope you will never surrender the fleet'. I replied, 'There is no question of doing so'. It seems to me you did not believe my word. The destruction of the fleet at Toulon has just proved that I was right.\n\nIn early November of 1942, shortly before Germany began its assault on the French fleet at Toulon, the United States of America began its assault on French Morocco under the command of Admiral Henry Hewitt. A coup in Algiers was also planned to coincide with the American invasion.\n\nIt was assumed by the allies that an all-American task force would be seen as liberators by the local French population. Instead, the local French forces eagerly defended French neutrality and attempted to prevent an American occupation.\n\nThe engagement resulted in approximately 450-500 French casualties and the loss of most of the local French defensive forces, both in the air and at sea. Casablanca fell after about a week of fighting.\n\nThe aforementioned Admiral Darlan was informed by the Allies that he would be permitted to remain in control of Casablanca if he sided with the Allies (no French government-in-exile was officially recognized by the Allies at this point), but was assassinated before he could respond to the offer.\n\nIn his place, the Allies installed General Henri Giraud, whom they had lured out of southern France with promises of fame and command on the Allied side. Giraud's first act was to arrest the rebels who had staged the coup in Algiers; this act was not opposed by the Americans.\n\nGiraud's regime slowly aligned with de Gaulle, his French resistance fighters, and their British handlers. The merger of Giraud's and de Gaulle's forces led to the creation of the US- and British-recognized French government in exile mere months later.\n\n**Addendum:** For a German or Japanese impression of the Allies, read Vonnegut's *Slaughterhouse-Five* or watch Studio Ghibli's *Grave of the Fireflies*, respectively. Vonnegut's \"Everyman\" account of the situation on the ground in Germany is personal and real, but the statistics on which he relies regarding the Dresden bombings are out of date and hyperbolic; still, his writing closely reflects the perspective of Germans and pacifists who were familiar with the Allies' deplorable bombing strategies, and the data on Dresden which he used in the novel were considered accurate at the time of writing.\n\n**A second addendum:** The source for Vonnegut's data on Dresden was the now-discredited 1963 *The Destruction of Dresden* by David Irving. This book **is not** historically accurate, but was a best-seller in its day and drew the public's attention to the severity of Allied bombing techniques near the end of the war. If you want to get a *feeling* for the *sentiment* among Germans and pacifists surrounding that subject, read it. Just remember that it's now considered *woefully inaccurate*. In its 1963 review of the book, *The Economist* said,\n\n > In devoting a book to this one violent moment of the war, with its antecedents and something of its aftermath, Mr. David Irving has rendered the British people a great service. They have to know. The Dresden event is a part of British (as well as of German, and European, and human) history. It is a piece of the mosaic that makes up the British character and a brush-stroke, out of many, in the image that Britain presents to foreign peoples -- an image the British are at best imperfectly aware of, and that has consequences which they often find it difficult to understand. Dresden also has lessons necessary to an understanding of the nature of war. What is necessary is to know what happened and to understand how it came to happen, and the only way is to read Mr. Irving's excellent and terrible book.\n\nSo if you're looking for a straight-to-the-point distillation of one outsider's perspective on the Allies - one that was widely-read and impacted a lot of people in the aftermath of the war - read that as well."
]
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[]
] | |
1u65a5 | did arms evolve from legs or did legs evolve from arms? | which came first arms or legs? | askscience | http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/1u65a5/did_arms_evolve_from_legs_or_did_legs_evolve_from/ | {
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"Legs came first. The earliest amphibious and terrestrial vertebrates walked on four legs. [Acanthostega](_URL_1_) is a good example. [Human ancestors](_URL_0_) are one of several lineages which evolved a bipedal posture."
]
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23aiwx | How important was left vs right handedness in Greek hoplite warfare? | Like the title says did left handedness inhibit or influence a persons place in the phalanx and in battle in general? | AskHistorians | http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/23aiwx/how_important_was_left_vs_right_handedness_in/ | {
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"You used both hands in a phalanx, one for shield, one for spear. Just as a right-hander would need to learn left-handed shield work, a left-hander would need to learn right-handed spear work.\n\nIf your right hand was simply useless for anything, you would probably be better of as an irregular or skirmisher, which were, if anything, more numerous than hoplites (who were by definition those wealthy enough to own armour).\n\nIf you were wealthy *and* hopeless with your right hand, then you would probably be relegated to the rear ranks. These did not simply stand around waiting their turn, but forcibly pushed the phalanx forward into the opposing shield wall, trying to force it to break. Only the first 2 or 3 ranks could be involved with fighting, but phalanxes were often 8 ranks (or even 16) deep, with the remaining ranks being the pushers."
]
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13x49z | Three questions about puberty | askscience | http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/13x49z/three_questions_about_puberty/ | {
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"One comment, hair isn't just for protection from the elements. It can help wick away sweat or perform as a dry lubricant to reduce friction."
]
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fvery6 | why is it so difficult to produce tests for covid-19? | I’ve heard a lot of praise for South Korea’s reaction to the virus with people being able to get easily tested at drive-through stations.
People in America are angry that tests are being used for NBA players because they are so scarce.
Why is there such a big disparity between countries having the ability to test for the virus and how are these tests being made? | explainlikeimfive | https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/fvery6/eli5_why_is_it_so_difficult_to_produce_tests_for/ | {
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"The issue isn't necessarily that the test is difficult to make, it's that countries didn't have enough materials to built to conduct the tests, or they didn't have enough laboratories to perform the tests.\n\nSouth Korea had fairly recently dealt with MERS, so prepared by having a stockpile and plans in place in order to quickly develop and expand the number of guests.\n\nAdditional, South Korea was likely preparing much earlier once the virus was known to exist in China, so that should it end up in South Korea, they could respond very quickly because the premade a large number of tests and had enough materials in the stockpile to conduct those tests.\n\nThe US didn't take these same precautions and so took much longer to expand the number of tests it was able to perform. One bottleneck with there wasn't a good stockpile of materials needed for the tests. Another issue was that the US's first test had a flaw that took time to correct. Another was the US was slow to allow additional laboratories to create and conduct tests. Another was they didn't create a plan on what it would do once the first case of the virus was detected in the country.",
"I would think some countries are better prepared and have them available. While others don’t have this preparedness. There’s also different rules, protocols they follow and crap like that which makes a difference."
]
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eojh79 | Why does the body look droopy at later ages? | I’ve seen pictures of extremely ripped older males but their bodies don’t look plump and as defined as when they were younger or those of younger ages. By droopy I mean less plump or definition and the skin seems saggy or just hanging. Is this inevitable? I’m extremely curious | askscience | https://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/eojh79/why_does_the_body_look_droopy_at_later_ages/ | {
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"It's pretty much inevitable.\n\nThe proteins that make up connective tissue, primarily the collagen, which is the main structural protein in the skin, detoriate with age, so that the connective tissue is less elastic and stable. This leads to the observed \"sagginess\""
]
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] | |
136v9d | Interesting Discourse in /islam. I was wondering the validity of a user's historical narrative. | So the link is here: _URL_0_
I'm curious what your thoughts are towards user Bismallahs post. I have always found history to be fascinating and was wondering what criticisms or factual correctness he is displaying.
Empires - Ottoman Empire - Khilafah | AskHistorians | http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/136v9d/interesting_discourse_in_islam_i_was_wondering/ | {
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"I don't think this is specifically historicaly related, but I'll try to answer your question:\n\nEach and every nation has its own narrative about history. This is inevitable. For every major victory on one side there's a major defeat on the other side. Some nations celebrate their victories to remember their military prowess; others commemorate defeat as a \"never again\" or to show how bold their people were at a time of difficulty. Most nations remember both their highs and their lows - and in both cases some might end up vilifying another nation.\n\nUser Bismalla claims that \"Britain and France entered into the war in order to destroy the Ottoman Empire\" and therefore commemorating the victory against the Ottomans in WW1 means you're supporting what he calls \"murder of millions of Muslims, the destruction of our Ummah, and the removal of Islam from the position of ruling for the last 100 years.\"\n\nOn that, I pretty much agree with user LOHare response in the first thread. While GB and the French did carve out the Ottoman empire and gain a lot from the conflict, they did not enter the war just to screw the OE over - there were major political and economic for those powers to declare war - and let me remind you that they considered Germany to be the \"major offender\" in that war, not the Ottomans. \n\nIn fact, even the fact that this is a thread in /r/islam shows the inherent bias in the OP's thesis - that GB and France, western Christian powers, intentionally sought to destroy the leading Islamic power and their actions were against the Ummah - the Islamic counterpart for \"Christiandom\". I do not think religion played a major part in the conflict, and the OP of that thread is mostly trying to \"force\" his pro-Ottoman or pro-Islamic narrative on people who might not understand it or realize it exists. \n\nSo, if someone feels like WW1 was a major defeat for Islam and no Muslim - be he English or French - should celebrate it - it's his own personal opinion. But saying the acts of those soldiers were only for profit and capitalism while the valiant Ottoman soldiers fought for fatherland and Islam - that's just biased and wrong.\n\nEDIT: I accidentally a word.",
"I would like to see him provide archival records from the Public Records Office in London that prove any of his comments regarding British policy (especially in his reply to the first comment). As it stands, he's creating conclusions from events that occurred without providing any sources that prove his assertions. I doubt he could provide any policy documents from the Foreign Office that outlined British motivation in dismantling the Ottoman Empire the way he describes it. Same goes for the other Allied powers as well, I imagine.\n\nSimply put, if what he said was true, it would be in the government documents. All of which are preserved and accessible to any member of the public willing to go to Kew in London, all of which have been examined (probably by multiple historians). The fact that no historian has ever made his argument is not a testament to how history has been manipulated, but that his argument is purely conjecture. The sources have not been altered or destroyed, they simply don't exist.",
"The Ottoman Empire did try to treat WW1 as a Jihad as a means to mobilize Muslims - especially those outside of the Ottoman Empire - against the entente. But to say that wearing a poppy is celebrating the death of millions of Muslims is a stretch, at best. WW1 was not about religion, at all, on pretty much no side. The British happened to be fighting the Ottoman Empire - which was officially a caliphate - at that time, but wearing a poppy is hardly commemorating it. Besides, even for Muslims, I really don't think it is worth to remember the Ottoman Empire with such fondness. Some early Arab nationalists even used the Ottomans as an example of why non-Arabs are bad for Islam."
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a1k84v | how do tvs translate waves to a display. | [deleted] | explainlikeimfive | https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/a1k84v/eli5_how_do_tvs_translate_waves_to_a_display/ | {
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"* First they filter out all the waves they don't want, and just pay attention to the ones that are in a very narrow range of frequencies.\n* Then they split that range of frequencies into two parts.\n* They sample the exact frequency they are receiving and figure out if its on one side of the range or the other.\n* Each side of the frequency range represents either a 0 or a 1 in binary code.\n* This sampling creates a stream of 0s and 1.\n* The TV decodes this stream of 0s and 1s into the video, audio, and other data it uses."
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6xfzqe | whenever you break skin on a joint area, how come the healed/new skin comes in complete with wrinkles? | I just had my knuckle heal after a gnarly bit of road rash. It took about a month, but it's finally good. Having said that, the new skin came in with the same wrinkles from age (35 years old) that I had before. Shouldn't the new skin come in without any signs of aging? Or, does the body reproduce the skin in the exact same way it was before the injury? | explainlikeimfive | https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/6xfzqe/eli5_whenever_you_break_skin_on_a_joint_area_how/ | {
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" > Having said that, the new skin came in with the same wrinkles from age (35 years old) that I had before.\n\nPresumably the skin under the rash was still present and folding as it did before, otherwise you would be having that wound stitched closed. Wrinkles therefore would be preserved as the upper layer heals."
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19vcia | Do Radio Waves move faster than Gamma Rays? | If you had a radio wave and a gamma ray with the same amplitude. Since a gamma ray has a shorter wavelength, and therefore a higher frequency. Wouldn't the gamma ray have a greater distance to travel than the radio wave, because the gamma rays have to travel over more crests of a wave? In other words since the gamma ray has to travel the up and down distance more often than the radio wave. wouldn't that decrease the speed of the gamma ray? | askscience | http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/19vcia/do_radio_waves_move_faster_than_gamma_rays/ | {
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"No. They both travel at the speed of light.\n\n > Wouldn't the gamma ray have a greater distance to travel than the radio wave, because the gamma rays have to travel over more crests of a wave? In other words since the gamma ray has to travel the up and down distance more often than the radio wave. wouldn't that decrease the speed of the gamma ray?\n\nThe 'wave' refers to the periodic fluctuation of the magnitude of the perpendicular electric and magnetic fields. There is no physical crest to the wave.",
"I believe the model of light you have is a photon moving along a sine wave pattern, actually going up and down, etc. This is not the case. The photon itself has a wavelength and a frequency, because it is not localized in space. \n\nEven non-light waves (say waves in an ocean) are not really the water moving. The wave in energy, and that energy propagates through the water at a certain rate. The water moves yes, but the water itself is not the wave, the water is the medium the wave moves in. But like water- if a wave had higher amplitude, that doesn't slow down the propagation of the wave. "
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6o5cj9 | Hermann Goering was very intelligent, and an experienced officer. Why did he make so many strategic mistakes(E.G. Dunkirk, Stalingrad)? Was he delusional? | AskHistorians | https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/6o5cj9/hermann_goering_was_very_intelligent_and_an/ | {
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"One of the common denominators of accounts from Allied personnel who encountered Göring was that they were shocked at his intelligence. Allied prosecutors at the IMT tended to see him as one of the cannier defendants as did the journalists that covered the Tribunals. The RAF officer Eric Brown also found Göring to be intelligent and well-versed on technical matters after the fact. These accounts of his intelligence were not just impressions either; IQ tests conducted by the Allied authorities placed Göring in the 99th percentile. This picture of a highly intelligent Reichsmarschall is at odds with though with Göring's leadership of the Luftwaffe. Postwar accounts by Adolf Galland and many of the *Jagdflieger* veterans were often at pains to stress Göring's incompetence and unsuitability for his position. Nor was this postwar picture by Luftwaffe veterans entirely an attempt to blame-shift defeat on their military chief. Göring did have his hand in a number of disasters and did push the Luftwaffe down a number of strategic dead-ends. These two pictures though- the foolish air leader and the intelligent, charismatic individual- are not too hard to reconcile though. Intelligence and bad leadership were not mutually exclusive in the National Socialist state. \n\n*Pace* the common perception of Göring as a complete failure, his leadership of the Luftwaffe in the early years was actually not that bad. Göring knew enough to delegate to various Reichswehr leaders that had been prepping for aerial rearmament since the 1920s. In particular, Göring relied very much on the technocratic and capable Erhard Milch at the helm of *Reichsluftfahrtministerium* (aviation ministry/RLM) to resolve the major technical and personnel issues that occurred when expanding a military force from scratch. Milch, in conjunction with Walter Wever formed a competent team that managed to create a structure that could be expanded quickly. Göring himself also had fairly decent technical instincts towards certain aircraft in this early period and appreciated that this was an era of great technical change. Milch also had a knowledgeable relationship with nascent German aviation industry and knew its capabilities. The industry itself also formed a profitable relationship with Göring and the two worked in symbiosis in this period of expansion as Göring's duties for the Four-Year Plan meant he could funnel resources into the aviation sector to enhance his own prestige within the National Socialist state hierarchy. \n\nThe Luftwaffe's successes of the early war years was a beneficiary of this prewar system. Germany possessed a large, technically advanced air force in September 1939 with a great deal of trained personnel and a coherent doctrine. This was no mean feat for a service that barely existed prior to 1933 beyond the Reichswehr's experimental units. The Luftwaffe procurement certainly did have its own boondoggles like the Ju-86. This bomber set to be powered by diesel engines, was obsolete before it even entered service and most Ju-86s were either sold or went immediately into training units. The Ju-86 debacle and other mistakes like adding too many requirements to the Ju-88 program were problems, but every air force in this period also had similar failures and setbacks. Dead-ends like the Ju-86 were normal in an era of massive technological change when promising technology like diesel aviation engines never quite delivered. \n\nNonetheless, the victories of 1939 and 1940 did mask a significant number of problems within the Luftwaffe that became more prominent as the war dragged on. The losses in the 1940 campaigns in France and Britain were quite severe. Despite this, German industry could only barely cover operational losses and the same could be said of the Luftwaffe's training establishment. Victory over France had vindicated the use of airpower, but no the Luftwaffe found itself facing a hard ceiling on its expansion. Milch's championship of American-style production techniques ran into resistance from aviation firms who came from an older German industrial tradition of craftsmanship and technical precision. The technocratic Milch was often abrasive to men like Willi Messerschmitt, and while industry could form a functional relationship with Milch in peace, this relationship suffered under wartime pressure. Göring tended to side with industry over Milch in these internal squabbles as he both feared a potential rival within the Luftwaffe and he too found Milch abrasive.\n\nTechnical issues also began to loom more seriously for the long-term prospects of the Luftwaffe. A 1939 decision to focus all future production on only four aircraft types- the He-177, Me-210, Bf-109, and Ju-88, proved to be disastrous as only the latter two aircraft were able to resolve technical hurdles to become operational. A good deal of the blame for this problem was the leadership of Ernst Udet at the RLM technical office. Udet, who replaced Wever after the latter died in a crash landing, was like Göring an flying ace from the last war and chosen for his job largely because of his connections to the Reichsmarschall. Udet was patently unsuitable for his job and often wasted precious time and resources on dead-ends and chimeras like making every bomber capable of dive attacks. Udet's leadership further exacerbated RLM's tendencies towards focusing too much on technical issues and solutions at the expense of the bigger picture. Additionally, Udet and the RLM's leadership as a whole was incapable of thinking flexibly about new roles and uses for aircraft despite their focus on high-technology solutions. Roles and aircraft for them sometimes had to be implemented on the ground as opposed to Berlin. Such was the case with the FW-200 which was derived from a Japanese order of a militarized version of the airliner and came into service largely at the behest of Hauptmann Edgar Petersen, an officer of the X.Fliegerkorps (the unit tasked with maritime strike), after he visited Focke-Wulf in September 1939 to ascertain whether or not civilian aircraft could be used for this role.\n\nIn fairness to Göring, not all of the problems with the Luftwaffe in this period were entirely his fault. A number of postwar narratives have inflated his role in the decision to halt outside of Dunkirk. While Göring certainly did claim the Luftwaffe could destroy the pocket alone, research by Karl Heinz Frieser has shown that such assertions only came after Hitler and his generals had made the decision to halt the ground forces. The decision to fight the Battle of Britain also fell in line with a number of air strategists around the world that felt that airpower alone was sufficient to force political results. Göring may have reveled in the idea that *his* air force could force a British capitulation, but even without this egoism, this thought was not all that out of line with contemporary thinking on airpower. And Göring does deserve some credit for the Fw-190 program. He was sufficiently impressed by a demonstration of Kurt Tank's fighter and understood that relying too much on the Bf-109 was unwise given the bottlenecks of Messerschmitt's plane like the troubled production of the DB 600 series of engines. \n\nCracks began to appear in the edifice of the Luftwaffe by 1941. Udet's suicide may have been prompted by a love affair, but the man was under extraordinary pressures from his failures at RLM like the Me-210. German procurement was left in chaos as attempts to inject rationalism and streamlining the process ran afoul of existing power blocs and created unnecessary frictions. Udet though was emblematic of a deep-seated problem within the Luftwaffe's leadership in that Göring had a tendency to promote the wrong men to positions of authority. The Luftwaffe's Chief of Staff, Hans Jeschonnek, was typical of the wrong man in the wrong place. Although Jeschonnek possessed a keen mind, he was also slavishly subservient to higher authority. This was one of the attributes that endeared him Göring, but also to Hitler. It was the Luftwaffe's chief of staff, not its commander, that assured Hitler that the Luftwaffe could resupply the Stalingrad pocket. Jeschonnek had a tendency to agree with his superiors' desires and then try to find a way to make them work around existing capabilities. In the Stalingrad airlift decision, both Göring and Hitler initially proceeded along Jeschonnek's optimistic assessments of German capabilities, and in fairness to the chief of staff, they were not inclined to investigate the matter on their own. It was telling of the Luftwaffe's habits of leadership that even though Jeschonnek later figured out his errors after consulting with frontline commanders, he never really tried correct them and committed to this course of action. This was one of the byproducts of the Luftwaffe's swift expansion within a National Socialist milieu. Younger officers tended to be promoted to the upper echelons well past their experiences while the Nazi system prioritized a type of political loyalty that verged on cronyism. \n\n\n\n\n"
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soic3 | To what extent do the countries in the commonwealth of the United Kingdom participate in some historical event for her? | It seems in WW1 and 2 Austrialia and New Zealand put up a good bit of aid to Britian in the times of war, however, it did not seem as if they where in a 'Total War' mode as was England, Germany ect. Am I mis-judging their resources, that they cannot simply put up enough men and equipment to make an impression that a nation like Japan or France did during WW2, or did they just not fight to the death like England did? | AskHistorians | http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/soic3/to_what_extent_do_the_countries_in_the/ | {
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"Well, of course we Aussies weren't in \"total war\" mode - we weren't in immediate danger (except from the Japanese in WWII). However, I don't think you should understate our contribution as much as you seem to be. We are a much smaller country. \n\nAt the time of World War I, for example, England's population at the time was about 35,000,000, [and](_URL_0_):\n\n > When the war ended in 1918, British Army casualties, as the result of enemy action and disease, were recorded as 673,375 dead and missing, with another 1,643,469 wounded. The rush to demobilise at the end of the war substantially decreased the strength of the army, from its peak of 4,000,000 men in 1918\n\nThat's about 11% of their population; about 1 in 4.5 males served in their armed forces. Their casualty rate was only 16%.\n\nIn comparison, Australia's population was just under 5,000,000. [And](_URL_1_):\n\n > During World War I over 421,809 Australians served in the military with 331,781 serving overseas. Over 60,000 Australians lost their lives and 137,000 were wounded. As a percentage of forces committed, this equalled a casualty rate of almost 65 percent, one of the highest casualty rates amongst the British Empire forces.\n\nThis was about 8.43% of our population: 1 in 6 males were in the armed forces. And, 2 in 3 of our soldiers ~~died in action~~ *either died or were injured in action* [thanks to logantauranga]. Our casualty rate of 65% was ~~four times~~ *higher than* the rate of ~~deaths~~ *injury and deaths* suffered by English soldiers.\n\nOur Prime Minister at the time, Andrew Fisher, said: \"Australians will stand beside our own to help and defend her to our last man and our last shilling.\" And we did.\n\nDuring World War II, when our population was about 7,000,000, we committed nearly 1,000,000 armed forces to various theatres of war: Europe, North Africa, South ~~West~~ East Asia - and here on our own soil, when Japan attacked cities in Australia. Final casualties came to [over 27,000 deaths](_URL_2_) over the course of the war.\n\nWe did our bit.\n\n\n*EDIT: I've misinterpreted what \"casualties\" means, but my point remains valid - that Australians did NOT shirk or avoid fighting in either of these wars, as implied by the OP.*\n",
"By the way, it's not \"the commonwealth of the United Kingdom\".\n\n[It was:](_URL_0_)\n\n* The British Empire (until around the beginning of the 20th century)\n\n* The British Commonwealth of Nations (from 1926)\n\n* The Commonwealth of Nations (from 1949)\n\n"
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3gy2zh | how is it that baseball became so prominent in carribean islands like the dr cuba and pr? | explainlikeimfive | http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/3gy2zh/eli5_how_is_it_that_baseball_became_so_prominent/ | {
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"as a dominican i can tell you that is really easy for poor people to play baseball as you dont have to buy a lot of gears and stuff, all you need is a broom stick, and a cap of a really big gallon of water, the game is call vitilla(which is really hard to play cus the broom stick is very thin and the cap is flat also, my theory of why dominicans players are good players is because of this game call vitilla, but thats besides the point),, so if you had money for a bat then all you need is a cheap bat and a rubber ball, and you can make glove out of juice carton.\n\nsorry for grammar",
"Expanding on what Albert said, the question really is: Why is baseball more popular than soccer?\n\nThe answer is proximity to America. In the interim between the Civil War and the Spanish-American War, there were many opportunities for sailors and Cuba college students returning from semesters abroad to bring the sport to the islands. Once it gained popularity there were chances for international competitions with American teams. Negro league players would even go to Cuba and play on the integrated teams, and eventually Cuba players made their way to America to play as well. \n\nBy the time Castro rose to power there was no chance of getting rid of the sport. Fidelito didn't try, though. He used it as a symbol of nationalism and only made it more popular.\n\nA very similar thing happened in Puerto Rico, although obviously its territorial connection to the US makes the cultural influence a lot more direct. Cubans were actually the ones who brought baseball to DR when they were fleeing the Tens Years War.\n\nMost of this predates basketball's invention by about 20 years. I'll also speculate that basketball is mostly an indoor sport, whereas Carribeaners prefer to spend their sporting time outside.\n",
"I have a climate theory about this. Baseball is an outdoor sport made to play in the heat. All the running is done in short burst. Sans the pitcher/catcher no one is giving effort on every defensive play. Then after three outs you get a break in the shade and can sip something cold. \n\nAs viewer, its a great sport to watch in the summer. Sit down lean back in the shade and watch the day roll by with something cold to drink."
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1kuaxx | What did 2 Samurai armies fighting look like? | I know samurai would fight in duels but how did this relate to a battlefield? Would it turn into a giant blob of individual duels or was it a free for all? | AskHistorians | http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/1kuaxx/what_did_2_samurai_armies_fighting_look_like/ | {
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"I'm introducing a tangent to the conversation. Are there any movies out there that depict warring samurai armies? *Ran* by Akira Kurosawa left me wanting more. ",
"I kind of hate to post this in /r/AskHistorians because I used mediocre sources and almost *certainly* have some inaccuracies there. But [I made a post on the subject of historical Japanese soldiers](_URL_0_) for /r/TotalWar a while ago. Some of the information there might be of use to you."
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61ur5w | hard drive data recovery. | I know downloadable applications exist and MAYBE some have somewhat worked for me in the past but why are there companies charging $3000 to recover some files from a hard drive?
Is it just a scam or are they doing something beyond my knowledge? | explainlikeimfive | https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/61ur5w/eli5_hard_drive_data_recovery/ | {
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"Hard drives encode information using magnets to put little dots of information on your hard drive. And it stores two key pieces of information. The file itself, and an index of where to find the file.\n\nThis is important because the file might have to be broken up and saved across multiple locations.\n\nWhen you press delete, instead of trying to erase the entire file, which can be a long and complicated process, they simply erase the index file. This makes the file location available for overwriting. \n\nAn undelete program looks for the actual file data that doesn't have an associated index file. If you haven't had a chance to add new information to the drive, there is a chance of recovery. \n\nNSA standards for compete deletion of computer data call for deleting and overwriting the data on the hard drive 7 times to remove as much of the file as possible.",
" > but why are there companies charging $3000 to recover some files from a hard drive?\n\nSuppose you deleted some stuff off your drive and want it back. No problem, if all that was purged was the record of where the file was then software can probably retrieve it.\n\nBut there are other ways for a drive to fail. Suppose the motor for the spindle failed. Suppose there was a head crash and a head scraped along the disk, or bounced around the inside like shrapnel. What do you do then?\n\nSomeone needs to take the drive into a clean room and carefully clean the outside to be free of dust. Then they take a drive of the same type and open it and the damaged drive up. They carefully remove the platters from the failed drive and insert them into the new drive, button it back up, and try to read data from it with specialized software tools. Or, switch out a drive microcontroller, or a spindle motor, or whatever.\n\nMaintaining a clean room and specialists to do some fiddly, specialized work isn't cheap. But if you really need the data it can be worth the cost.",
"When you delete a file from a hard drive it doesnt actually remove it. Instead it removes it from the registry, and basically pretends that its empty space. Eventually when you save something in the future it will be overwritten, but until then it exist on your hard drive. Recovering it is just a matter of accessing the hard drive without the use of a registry and piecing it back together if it is fragmented. Its not exactly hard to do if you have the right equipment and training, but not everyone knows how to do and IT can charge whatever they want for it.",
"Data recovery software only works on data that is still (technically) on the physical disk.\n\nLet me explain:\n\nData on physical medium is stored as 1s and 0s, you may already know this. So there's different sectors filled with sequences of 1s and 0s. \n\nIn order to actually use storage medium, in computing we use file-systems to represent these sequences in different structures (files, folders, permissions etc.).\n\nFile-systems are plenty - from FAT, FAT32, NTFS, HFS+, FATX, ReFS, ext3, ext4, ReiserFS, ZFS etc.\n\nWindows uses NTFS by default these days. Apple's macOS uses HFS+, iPhones also use HFS+ (and since today they were swapped to APFS), Android uses a mixture of filesystems, but mostly ext4 for the important parts.\n\nAnyway, these filesystems decide how to store and access the sequences of 1s and 0s and how they are presented, and they are usually pretty documented.\n\nThey do this by having an area of the disk (or more areas) that is used to store a table that describes the physical location of the file contents.\n\nLet's say you have a file called Picture.JPG that is 1MB in size. Newer HDDs these days use a \"sector size\" of 4 KB. So Picture.JPG in this case it will use up 256 physical sectors on the disk. The filesystem stores the address of all these sectors in the table I mentioned earlier. So it will say something like: Picture.JPG is stored in sectors 100 to 200, then the rest of it is in sectors 5000 to 5156 (a file won't always be allocated continuously on the disk, but that's another matter: fragmentin and defragmenting a filesystem).\n\nWhen you delete a file, or otherwise destroy the data on a physical storage medium (be it hard disk, usb drive etc.), the 1s and 0s sequences that make up a file don't get removed from the disk, mostly because that's an expensive operation in terms of performance.\n\nInstead, the information about the file's location is REMOVED from the table of the filesystem I mentioned earlier.\n\nThis is also why usually it's very fast to delete 1 x 1GB file instead of 1000 x 1MB files. \n\nNow, because most file types have to respect some standard \"format\" in order to be valid, the data recovery software usually scans the whole physical disk for patterns of specific file/file types. For example, it can guess that a sector of the disk that has the contents of ````\" < FF > < D8 > JFIF\"```` is most likely a JPG file and then it looks for specific markers of the file format. This is the case of a lot of file formats, for example most PDF files start with ````\"%PDF\"``` etc.\n\nThe data recovery software also knows how a specific filesystem stores the data of file names and locations etc., so it looks for those patterns too.\n\nThis is rather an easy operation to do, AS LONG AS THE HARD DISK IS STILL FUNCTIONING and the DATA HAS NOT BEEN REWRITTEN.\n\nNow if you deleted File1.JPG, and somehow you wrote to the disk File2.jpg and File3.jpg, and because the closest available free disk space was where File1.JPG used to reside, then the contents of File2.jpg and File3.jpg will overwrite the data-structures that used to belong to File1.JPG.\n\nThis is why data recovery software tells you to not recover the data back to the same disk, so you don't overwrite the very own structures you are trying to recover.\n\nAgain, this is a rather easy operation to do, as long as the disk is perfectly functional and only the data from it has been made inaccessible because of a filesystem error or deletion.\n\nSpecialized data-recovery companies usually have very expensive hardware that can read the contents of a disk even if the disk is not recognized by your PC anymore. They can also recover broken PCBs, they can transplant the physical platters (the spinning thingies where your data is stored) to other HDDs in order to retrieve the data. This takes an incredible amount of time and a very clean room to do so. Even a speck of dust on the platter will make the data recovery very hard!\n\nA simple issue, from my own experience, can take a lot of time to fix if you haven't got this specialized hardware."
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307j0k | how do snri medications work for anxiety? | I'm taking a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) called Effexor for my depression. Whenever I start a new medication I learn as much about it as I can. I read that SNRIs are also used to treat anxiety. But if norepinephrine is a stress hormone, how does that work? Shouldn't more norepinephrine in the brain cause more anxiety instead of reducing it? | explainlikeimfive | http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/307j0k/eli5_how_do_snri_medications_work_for_anxiety/ | {
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"Norepinephrine plays an important role in mood, as does dopamine and others as well, but it doesn't just do that. It's also a stress hormone.\n\nThese neurotransmitters are not on-off switches. Too much norepinephrine will cause anxiety, but too little will cause anxiety as well, for various reasons. \n\nYou have to keep in mind that different parts of the brain do different things. Norepinephrine activity in one area will do one thing, and in another something else. When you take a drug it gets deposited all over the brain, and many of these parts of the brain are not responsible for mood but for other biological functions. Interfering with these biological functions can cause adverse reactions that inhibit mood regulation.This is a fundamental limitation of the current drug delivery system, and it's not going to be fixed anytime soon. Nanorobots or something of that sort may fix it one day. \n\nWithout much of an understanding of how the brain works and without a way to manipulate the specific parts we would want to, we're left with drugs that cause many unintended side-effects. The severity of these side-effects will be based on the dosage of the drug, as well as many other complex factors. \n\nEDIT: There's also more complexity beyond different parts of the brain doing different things. Receptors themselves have multiple roles as well for example. The brain isn't a perfectly logically segmented machine. There is overlap. "
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aq2ng9 | how can someone get six life sentences if they only have one life? why isn’t there just one life sentence? | explainlikeimfive | https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/aq2ng9/eli5_how_can_someone_get_six_life_sentences_if/ | {
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"It's basically a round about legal way of saying, \"There is zero chance of parole, and also super super duper fuck you\"\n\nIf you have one life sentence there is often a chance of parole no matter how awful the crime.",
"The accused is tried and sentenced to each crime individually. This means if they do six crimes that deserve a life sentence they get six life sentences. It also means if they are later found to be innocent from one of the charges they don't need to be re-sentenced, they stay in prison.",
"It serves two purposes. Firstly this penalty is typically used to prevent the possibility of parole since one life sentence doesn't mean the entirety of the felons life rather the term in that state which reflects the time it takes to become a new person and hopefully rehabilitate and since life without parole is given to criminals who commit the most henious crimes multiple life sentences serve to eliminate the possibility of parole. \n\nSecondly multiple life sentences are given for multiple crimes , to ensure if one is overturned another will keep you behind bars . Murder trials , for instance , are tried separately for each victum if they are heinious enough to try to ensure multiple life sentences , or were committed in several jurisdictions, also they prevent the inmate from being released for compassionate reasons or medical reasons since each conviction must be heard separately which then takes alot of time.\n\nEdit : Grammar mistakes"
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bdm4da | How do you calculate the radius of an atom that isn’t in a bond? | askscience | https://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/bdm4da/how_do_you_calculate_the_radius_of_an_atom_that/ | {
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"You can numerically solve the Schrodinger equation for a potential well with a certain depth (nuclear charge) to obtain the shape of the electron orbitals. The shape of the atom is typically defined as the volume which contains some large fraction X% of the electron density."
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sav4i | why muscle mass ≠ strength? | People with larger muscle mass lift less than people with smaller muscle mass at my gym, why? Steroids are not a factor. I know these people are clean.
Edit: In both cases perfect form is used. | explainlikeimfive | http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/sav4i/eli5_why_muscle_mass_strength/ | {
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"Well, you can't really say that x person has more muscle than y person just by looking, unless you weigh them both and separate fat from muscle. In conclusion finding out their real muscle to fat ratio.\n\nIn physiology you will find that strength of a muscle is a function of the cross sectional area only, which translates to basically, you NEED bigger muscles to gain more strength. No muscle no strength.\n\nThere can be several reasons why x guy(small) can lift more than y guy(big):\n\n* Their diet overall\n* Pre-workout meal\n* Their training method\nLet's say I'm training always on the limit of my capabilities. My brain will learn how to utilize 100% of the muscle mass available while let's say I'm training at 70% of my ability most of the time. My brain never really learns how to utilize 100% of the muscle, thus my record bench won't be as high compared to when I'd train 100%.\n* Attitude - lack of enthusiasm is a deal breaker when it comes bodybuilding.\n* Lack of sleep - another big no no when you want to gain muscle and achieve in the gym.\n\nIn a nutshell muscle mass = strength. Biggest proof I personally consider is when you first start training. After a month or so there are no noticable changes in your physique, but there are very large differences in your overall strength aka. you're not bigger, but you can move much heavier weights. This is also varying, if you're not giving it your all there might not be large gains in any area.",
"If you're just watching people, you can't be sure what they're doing. Sometimes people work significantly below their maximum, for various reasons. De-loading, doing higher volume work, or another reason. Or the people you see doing higher weights could be using poor form and \"cheating\" somehow.\n",
"Nobody's got it yet. \n\nThere's two kinds of weight training:\n\n- Sarcoplasmic Hypertrophy\n- Myofibrillar Hypertrophy\n\nSarcoplasmic involves a high number of sets and high number of reps and the intention is to increase muscle mass. This is usually done by increasing the size of existing muscle fibres via water deposits in the muscles, causing little increase in the actual number of muscle fibres (ie strength). So the person appears muscular, such as a bodybuilder, but is not necessarily as powerful as they could be for their mass. \n\nMyofibrillar involves low reps and a lower number of sets to increase the density of muscle fibres and trigger growth of new ones in a small space. There is little space 'wasted' due to water so in essence all muscular growth equals an increase in strength. This usually means those focusing on strength training do not gain mass as quickly as those focused on bodybuilding. However when you see a power lifter or Olympic lifter, you know that their size is due mainly to Myofibrillar Hypertrophy rather than Sarcoplasmic due to their impressive strength. \n\nThese two methods normally go hand in hand but you can focus your training on a particular aspect. For example, Bruce Lee heavily used Myofibrillar exercises, and was exceptionally strong but did not have a very large muscle mass. \n\nBasically if you put Ronnie Coleman in a wrestling match with an Olympic lifter of equal muscle mass, the Olympic lifter is gonna win.\n\nEdit: clarified",
"Like you're 5;\nYou have two balloons: One is filled to be bigger but is filled with air. One is smaller but filled with water instead. Which one is going to have more impact when thrown?\nSome people work out to make their muscles bigger, some work out to make them more dense. ",
"This is ELI5 people. I read 2 explanations and I have no clue what they mean. Maybe I'm just dumb but could someone please simplify it even more?\n\n[edit] thank you to Tankinator",
"ELI5 version: All muscles work by pulling. Think of your muscle as a tug-of-war, with the people on the rope contributing to the 'power' of the muscle. Now you can have a lot of people on a rope and they'll probably be pretty powerful--this is like having a large muscle mass. However, you could also just have a small number of really strong people pulling the rope which also results in a powerful team. In one instance you're generating strength by adding more people (more muscle mass) and in another instance you're generating strength by making what people you do have stronger.",
"Don't forget people, your form and CNS play a big factor in how much strength can be recruited from your muscles. Generating strength from your muscles isn't as simple as flipping a switch, and your muscles get to work. Muscles are made up of lots of muscle fibers, all of which need to fire in a certain sequence during the movement. As you lift, your brain is constantly learning the optimal pathways to recruit more and more strength from your muscles. Without the proper pathways, your muscles are just lumps of proteins.\n\nTL;DR: Muscle mass isn't everything.",
"Okay, there's a ton of \"bro-science\" in this thread, so I'll chime in.\n\nThere are two main types of muscle tissue: fast twitch and slow twitch.\n\nFast twitch muscle fibers are much bigger than slow twitch muscle fibers, and are capable of moving a lot more weight than slow twitch muscle fibers, and are capable of doing it a lot faster than slow twitch muscle fibers, but they get tired much, much sooner than slow twitch muscle fibers. This is because while fast twitch muscle fibers have a larger cross-sectional area (bigger), slow twitch muscle fibers have many more mitochondria (little factories inside every cell that produce energy) than fast twitch muscles.\n\nNow, the strength and power of a muscle group is *directly proportional to its size*. Period. This is why fast twitch fibers are stronger and faster than slow twitch. However, since slow twitch fibers contain many more mitochondria, they are able to continue working for much longer (although more slowly and not as much peak output at any given time).\n\nNow, add to this the fact that your brain controls your muscles, and without the proper \"wiring\" in your nervous system, you won't be activating as many muscle fibers at one time as you could be if you trained more.\n\nSo back to your question: first I would question whether the bigger guys actually have bigger muscles (they might have more body fat, making them bigger, but with less muscle than the smaller guys) and then second, if we assume that they do have larger muscles, then the only way for the smaller guys to be stronger is that they have more fully developed the nervous system control over their muscles (better wiring) which comes from training closer to your limits more often.\n\nIn conclusion, the smaller guys probably train closer to their limits more often, and this makes them stronger through better \"wiring\".\n\nEdit: Sorry if this wasn't explained in simple enough terms. Also, in an interesting side note, the difference in muscle fibers is why different people have a physique that is more adapted to different types of sports. For example, people whose genetics favor fast twitch muscle fibers are typically much more successful in sports where explosive strength/speed is needed, such as sprinting, power lifting, etc, and people whose genetics favor slow twitch muscle fibers generally excel more in endurance sports such as long distance running, cycling, etc."
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2gfwak | why are local ip addresses 192.168.x.x instead of 0.0.x.x or 255.255.x.x etc? | I've always wondered and know it's a standard, but why a seemingly arbitrary address instead of something more expected?
EDIT: I understand how it works with the numbers established. My question is why those numbers were chosen in the first place, which seems random. | explainlikeimfive | http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/2gfwak/eli5_why_are_local_ip_addresses_192168xx_instead/ | {
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"Anything with 255 (all 1s in binary) is reserved for a \"broadcast\" address - that means that it's sent everywhere on the network & everyone listens to it.\n\nAnything with a 0 (all 0s in binary) is reserved for a \"network\" address that references the network as a whole.\n\nIt's slightly complicated by using CIDR network adressing (IE - you don't just cut it off in 8/16/24 bit segments, but can split a network at odd boundaries), but that's still the general idea.\n\nUnroutable networks didn't come into play until well after the TCP/IP system was in place. The idea of a \"private\" network was sort of alien to the people who originally built the internet protocols with the goal of connecting all the computers in the world on a single network. You need to remember that [this was the entire Internet](_URL_0_) in the early days.",
"Several network blocks are reserved for specific reasons:\n\n* 0.x.x.x refer to the \"local network\", whatever that may be\n* 10.x.x.x is a reserved local (non-routable) network. Some networks use this instead of the more well-known 192.168\n* 127.x.x.x is the local computer, which may respond to the different addresses in different ways\n* 172.(16 - 31).x.x is another local network\n* 192.168.x.x is, yet again, local network\n* 255.255.255.255 is a broadcast network\n\nSo 0 and 255 can't really be used, since they're reserved elsewhere. The first parts of the network blocks were the old network class prefixes, which aren't used as much these days but were very important when the internet was being built.",
"Even though they look like random decimal numbers they're actually pretty nice looking numbers in binary:\n\n192 = 1100 0000\n168 = 1010 1000\n\n127.0.0.1 is also a special kind of IP address, which points to the local host. 127 is also a nice looking binary number:\n\n127 = 0111 1111\n\nOn older networks (before the standard was actually established), the number of ones at the start of the address (before the first zero) determined what kind of network it was. The standard was designed to maintain some compatibility with this system. Form this point of view 192 *is* all zeroes (for a network starting with two 1s).\n\nThe specifics of why exactly 162 was chosen for private networks (as opposed to any other pretty binary number) isn't really known. Somebody picked it and that's what it's been.\n\nIn a practical sense, almost any number can be used and could've been chosen. To somebody, at one point or another, that seemed like the most sensible option.",
"Good question. I've taken several classes that included IP addressing and subnetting, and I don't recall hearing any explanation for why those specific numbers were chosen for the Class C private reserved subnet. \n\nConsider:\n\n192(base 10) = 11000000(base 2) = 300(base 8) = C0(base 16)\n\n168(base 10) = 10101000(base 2) = 250(base 8) = A8(base 16)\n\nAround the time ARPANET was created, many computers (e.g. PDP-8) used data and address pathways that were designed in multiples of 8, so the octal system (base 8) was a convenient way to represent numbers in those environments. Also, in IP addressing, the numbers between periods are sometimes referred to as the 1st, 2nd, 3rd and 4th octets. Maybe someone thought that because 192.168 = 300.250 in base 8, there was some sort of appeal to those \"round numbers\" as seen in octal.\n\nThat doesn't work out as neatly for the 10.x.x.x or 172.(16-31).x.x private subnets, though, so this could all be a bunch of hooey.\n\nEDIT: Also, large blocks of addresses were assigned to various government, military, university and business entities, so the private addresses were carved out of the spaces in between. At the time the designers thought that we would never use up all the addresses in what we now call the IPv4 system.\n\nEDIT II: The 192.168.x.x private address range was defined in RFC1918 as the 16-bit block, consisting of 256 contiguous Class C networks. \n\nEDIT III: TIFU. Forget octet (above) having anything to do with octal. It just refers to there being 8 binary bits in the number."
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6ybty6 | why are some people more sympathetic/emotional than others? | explainlikeimfive | https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/6ybty6/eli5_why_are_some_people_more/ | {
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"The only answer to this is no one knows.\n\nThere is a ton of research about it in psychology, but it's one of those things that is a trait of \"personality.\" In the newest personality inventory in psycology (they always have a new personality test every decade or so. It used to be the Myers-Briggs) is the \"Big 5.\" Of which \"conscientiousness\" is a trait. It's the trait most associated with what you are getting at.\n\nBut why certain people are high in that trait and others low, no one knows. Genetics, nature vs. nurture, who knows. "
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3woze4 | why do some people get personal offended if a woman says she doesn't want kids? | It's as if it's a personal affront to them when, in reality, it doesn't affect them whatsoever.
They're like, "Well, you're selfish"
| explainlikeimfive | https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/3woze4/eli5_why_do_some_people_get_personal_offended_if/ | {
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"I think it's a social thing stemming from when kids were needed to carry on the family income. Not really a case in the modern world.\n\nMen also get called selfish too if they don't want kids. My eldest brother is nearing 45 and doesn't want kids...in fact he went as far as to get a vasectomy at 25 to ensure he didn't father any. Cost him around £6000 to get it done, but he's happy. He found a lady who couldn't have kids and they're one of the happiest couples I know.",
"I think a lot of people feel that one of the responsibilities of a woman is to bear children, and that to not do so is to go against what it means to be a woman. I'm sure many also take the view that by choosing not to have kids, you are 'denying life', or something to that effect. In either case it's ridiculous that anyone should be offended by that.\n\nSociety seems to be getting better at recognising that women have different ambitions and that not all of them are going to have a maternal instinct, but as with many things it will likely take a while.",
"People who do have kids have personally decided to make a sacrifice in their quality of life to have children. When confronted with somebody who choses not to have kids, it makes them question whether they've made the right decisions in life. Rather than accept that they may have made the wrong choice, it's easier to vilify the other person & convince yourself that they are wrong.\n\nIt's the same as people who make a big stink about a friend claiming to be vegan. They automatically assume they're being judged & get defensive about their decision to not be vegan.\n\n...or how XBox owners constantly start internet fights with Playstation users.",
"Having someone else make the same life decisions that you made helps validate those decisions. This is particularly true for decisions with a high economic, social and emotional cost. ",
"As a woman who doesn't want kids (biological or adopted) and has been in a MULTITUDE of arguments WITH COMPLETE STRANGERS, the usual reasons they give me:\n\n1)Who will take care of you when you're old? (Me: maybe my nieces and nephews, but hopefully I'll have planned financially for long term care)\n\n2)Having a child is part of life, if you don't have a child you won't fully experience life (Me: in my socioeconomic status, having a child would prevent me from HAVING a life)\n\n3)If you don't you'll regret it for life (me: soooo...how does this affect you exactly?)\n\n",
"I think it's bc they want you to want their life. If you don't want their life, well.... /shakes head//// who are THEY!?!?!!?\n\nEdIT: I see the same with ppl who insult renters... you're not a 'real' adult if you don't have a mortgage. \n\nI think part of it really is to trap people into their lifestyle. They have to believe the sacrifices they've made ( & debts acquired) really matter.\n",
"As a guy who is asked if they want kids I say hell no, and there's always \"you will\". Never heard selfish, but apparently I'm just going to wake up one day and have some complete change. It's always by someone who has kids.\n\nNo I won't because I know my life, who I am, what I want, and I won't ever consider kids, my own or others, and not getting involved with anyone who has kids. This is an unquestionable fact to me.\n\nWe were asked in Sociology class in college to raise our hand whether or not we:\n\n1. Wanted Kids\n2. Wanted Marriage\n\nMost people said yes to #1, but not all. I was the only one to say no to #2 (I said no to both), but some people seemed reluctant and late raised their hand. I feel some people do this because it's expected of them, not necessarily because they want to. So they get a spouse they eventually can't stand just to not be unmarried by 30-40 (whenever), and their kids grow up as nothing more than an obligation. Sounds like a lose-lose scenario for everyone in those cases.\n\nIn this world, it's normal to be divorced by 35, often multiple times, but apparently never getting married makes you the serial killer suspect on some crime show. I've actually heard a cop on one of those who was a doubly divorced alcoholic with issues in his current relationship say \"oh that guy never married, mid-40s, he's our #1 suspect\".",
"I think sometimes it's a case of misery loves company.\n\nParents have to sacrifice a lot of things, like money, free time, peace and quiet, hobbies, social life. However, many people have kids just because they never really thought about it. For them, it is just something that people do, sort of dues you have to pay in life. So when they see someone who actively chooses not to pay those dues, it seems unfair to them and they feel attacked."
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2z2p92 | why can my city ban carry and concealed fire arms in public places when the states allows it? | They've banned them from places like parking garages and public parks. | explainlikeimfive | http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/2z2p92/eli5_why_can_my_city_ban_carry_and_concealed_fire/ | {
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"My guess is because it hasn't gone to court yet. Cities do lots of stupid things, and unless someone challenges it, they stay the law. ",
"It's called \"local preemption\". It means that local laws can be more strict than the state laws. In some states, local preemption of carry laws are permitted, and in others its not. ",
"Because your state law allows municipalities to place those restrictions.\n\nSome states word their code so that municipalities cannot restrict concealed carry in this manner."
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1szqk7 | What did ancient Chinese language sound like? | I read on wikipedia that the [Cantonese dialect is much closer to ancient Chinese](_URL_0_) than mandarin based on observation that ancient poems still rhymed in Cantonese. I also read that many tones in Cantonese were lost or merged over time, so ancient Chinese is definitely not the same as Cantonese.
So my question is how greatly did ancient Chinese dialects differ from modern ones? Which modern dialects has retained most character from older ones? If possible, describe what historians think ancient Chinese sounded like. A more straightforward question: why was mandarin chosen as the official dialect? Were there other candidates?
Thanks in advanced for your replies, I look forward to learning from all of you
| AskHistorians | http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/1szqk7/what_did_ancient_chinese_language_sound_like/ | {
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"Okay, you should be asking this on /r/linguistics. I'm not an expert on Sinitic historical linguistics. So what I *can* do is...\n\n1. Tell you to post over there. They have a number of Sinitic and Sino-Tibetan linguists.\n\n2. Point you to [this post](_URL_0_) I wrote about on the nature of Old Chinese. There you will find a poem read, starting in Old Chinese, and then read for each sound change as it evolved into Mandarin.",
"To answer some questions but not all:\n\n- Southern Chinese languages are generally more conservative and so retained more phonological patterns of Middle and Old Chinese. One very salient example is the retention of final -p -t -k sounds, which Mandarin has completely lost\n\n- Modern Chinese languages derive from Middle Chinese, which was spoken roughly, very roughly, between 600 AD - 1200 AD according to linguists\n\n- Why did they start to split? This can be tied to the history of that time -- northern and northwestern invasions by Jurchens, Khitans, and Mongols, which (1) caused huge waves of migrations southward, (2) foreign phonological (and other grammatical) influence into the Chinese language spoken in the north. In comparison, the south, by then, had become quite stable with Han Chinese cultural and political dominance. Hence, say, for Cantonese which today borders many Tai-Kadai and Austronesian languages in the very past likely coexisted and then displaced those languages, you can definitely find substratum traces of such indigenous languages in the Cantonese vocabulary and grammar, but that was before the invasion of northern tribes, so Cantonese still retained more of Middle Chinese (and Old Chinese) than Mandarin did. Also, the early waves of southern migration likely ensured that the Chinese spoken in the north and the south were still \"homogenous enough\" before the northern tribes really dominated and settled in in Northern China to make substantial impact on the Chinese spoken there that you don't find in the south.\n\n- As for why there are so many languages/dialects in Southern China, compared to the North, my guess is relative long-term political stability, hence very little population displacement, and sheer geography (it's a very huge area after all).\n\n- Why Mandarin as official language? Since at least the Mongolian-controlled Yuan Dynasty (13th century), the seat of the imperial Chinese government has remained in the north, near/around modern-day Beijing. That's where Mandarin evolved, and that language that was used in the region has since continued being the official language of the government. So even if you are a governor in a southern province, or at the borders of the empire, you had to learn the language of the government to move up in the socio-economic ladder. This continued for centuries and the government language, today Modern Mandarin, retained that legacy up through the end of the Qing Dynasty and the establishment of the Chinese republics. It made sense, both practically and culturally, to have Mandarin continue being the language of national communication, and to then chose it as the official language."
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dzcauk | how is pansexuality any different from bisexual? | explainlikeimfive | https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/dzcauk/eli5_how_is_pansexuality_any_different_from/ | {
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"Pansexuality is attraction to someone regardless of their gender, this includes transgenders and people who identify as neither \nBisexuals are just attracted to both males and females, usually not including transsexuals",
"There's a lot of overlap in the terms, and that's okay.\n\nBroadly, many people consider bisexuality to be attraction to two or more genders, while pansexuality isn't \"limited\" by gender. So someone who is bisexual could be attracted to women and Non-binary people, but a pansexual person could theoretically be attracted to everyone, and gender doesn't really matter. Omnisexual people are similar.\n\nUltimately, it comes down to what someone prefers to use.",
"It’s not. People like to invent different sexualities and words to describe them to make themselves seem more interesting and unique.\n\nStuff like this is big in internet culture. In the real world, if someone says they’re pansexual, everyone else just rolls their eyes or yawns with boredom.\n\nEdit: Downvote me all you want. Gay or bi? That’s cool, whatever. Pansexual? That’s attention-seeking behavior and people think you’re weird.",
"Both are, essentially, the same. Bisexual means attraction to two or more genders whereas pansexual means all genders. There’s a big overlap in what that means to any one person. \nThe differentiation comes down to what someone prefers to use, as well as the classic assumption that bisexuals aren’t attracted to trans people “because they’re not real men or women”, which is incorrect.",
"The difference is negligible and really changes depending on who you ask. Do not that bisexuality does NOT exclude trans people. There are bisexual trans people, bisexual people can be attracted to trans people, etc.",
"Honestly they're very similar, but calling yourself bi can be easier to normies. Saying you're pan and then having to explain to people what that means is awful, I don't care to do that and saying I'm bi is just as valid.",
"Theres a lot of overlap between them. Bisexual is attraction to 2 or more, and pansexuality is attraction regardless of gender. Neither of them exclude transgender people.",
"I’m bisexual, and I’m attracted to trans people. \nI think the pansexual label is at best performative woke and at worst transphobic (as it implies trans people are not real male nor female).\nSure, non-binary trans people are real, but they still display one or more sexual characteristics denoted by the gender spectrum.",
"As David Rose says in Schitt's Creek: \"I like the wine, not the label \". I think that's the essence of being Pansexual. While I don't think bisexuals have ever excluded transfolx, there's a level of discerning that is suggested in bisexuality. It's like a Pansexual says \"i don't care what body you're in, I'm attracted to you\" but a bisexual is saying \"I care about your body and have preferences but they're very wide. You fall into the category of my preferences and therefore I like you.\"\n\nThere's nothing wrong with having preferences, but I believe it is suggested that bisexuals have them whereas Pansexuals do not.",
"Bisexual: I’m attracted to both or all genders \n\nPansexual: I do not care about gender when it comes to attraction",
"Ultimately it comes down to what term people use for their own identity. There are some folks who will imply that bisexuality is inherently anti-trans or anti-enby but that's not true. There's a lot of overlap and some people use both depending on their audience (for instance, sometimes it's easier to just explain to straight people that you're bi).",
"Man, this is gonna sound crazy, but I always interpreted bisexuality to mean that you were attracted to humans of all genders, and pansexual just meant you were attracted to whatever you found attractive, as in, if your pillow looked sexy in the morning light, you would fuck that thing.",
"I identify as pansexual. Like others have said there’s some overlap, but for me there’s just less range and openness in bisexual vs pansexual.\n\nTo me bisexual is someone who likes either men or women. \n\nAs a pansexual the gender of somebody is less important to me. I don’t care really about gender, I will date a person of any gender or no gender. I care about people as who they are and not what they are.\n\nI know that there’s overlap and some people may view it as being barley any different but that’s cool. As long as people respect me as a person and what I identify as then I don’t mind what you think."
]
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7kb5xw | How does spin gravity work? Why wouldn't the space station just spin around you while you floated? | askscience | https://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/7kb5xw/how_does_spin_gravity_work_why_wouldnt_the_space/ | {
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"Hi Uranus_Rings thank you for submitting to /r/Askscience.\n\n**If your post is not flaired it will not be reviewed.** Please add flair to your post. \n \n Your post will be removed permanently if flair is not added within one hour. You can flair this post by replying to this message with your flair choice. It must be an exact match to one of the following flair categories and contain no other text:\n\n 'Computing', 'Economics', 'Human Body', 'Engineering', 'Planetary Sci.', 'Archaeology', 'Neuroscience', 'Biology', 'Chemistry', 'Medicine', 'Linguistics', 'Mathematics', 'Astronomy', 'Psychology', 'Paleontology', 'Political Science', 'Social Science', 'Earth Sciences', 'Anthropology', 'Physics'\n\n ___\n\n Your post is not yet visible on the forum and is awaiting review from the moderator team. Your question may be denied for the following reasons, \n\n \n* **Have you searched for your question on** [**AskScience**](_URL_2_ & sort=relevance & restrict_sr=on & t=all) **or on** [**Google**](_URL_1_)**?** - Common questions, or questions covered in the [**FAQ**](_URL_3_), will be rejected.\n* **Are you asking for** [**medical advice**](_URL_4_) **or does your post contain personal medical information?** - These questions, even innocuous ones should be between you and your doctor.\n* **Is your post speculative or hypothetical?** - Questions involving unphysical what ifs or imaginary situations requiring guesses and speculation are best for /r/AskScienceDiscussion. \n\nThere are more restrictions on what kind of questions are suitable for /r/AskScience, the above are just some of the most common. While you wait, check out the forum \n[**Posting Guidelines**](_URL_5_) on asking questions as well as our [**User Help Page**](_URL_0_). Please wait several hours before messaging us if there is an issue, moderator mail concerning recent submissions will be ignored.\n\n___\n\n*I am a bot, and this action was performed automatically. Please contact the* [*moderators of this subreddit*](_URL_6_) *if you have any questions or concerns.*"
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"https://www.google.com/search?q=How%20does%20spin%20gravity%20work%3F%20Why%20wouldn%27t%20the%20space%20station%20just%20spin%20around%20you%20while%20you%20floated%3F",
"https://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/search?q=How... | ||
c2yinm | how does a submarine maintain interior atmosphere with changing pressure? | im preplexed, how tf does that work. In terms of regulating temperature and pressure as the depth below sea level changes, how does it maintain inner enviornment | askscience | https://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/c2yinm/how_does_a_submarine_maintain_interior_atmosphere/ | {
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"The atmosphere inside a submarine remains at close to atmospheric pressure. Submarines have hulls designed to resist the external pressure. The atmosphere inside has to be kept breathable of course, which involves removing carbon dioxide, and replacing consumed oxygen, and as you suggest, keeping the temperature to something reasonable. This article explains the basics of how this is done:\n\n_URL_0_",
"There are two approaches wrt pressure.\n\nIn the first, the submarine is sealed against the external environment and a reinforced pressure hull resists the external pressure, maintaining a constant 1 atmosphere inside. This is why subs that go 'too deep' are crushed and implode: the mechanical strength of the hull isn't enough to oppose the water pressure outside, and it gives way catastrophically. For the deepest diving subs, the pressure hull is typically a spherical shape, as that is the strongest mechanical structure to resist enormous pressures.\n\nIn the second, no attempt is made to regulate pressure back to the surface level. The air inside the hull is kept at the same pressure as the water outside it, usually by simply being exposed to it. This is how diving bells work, with an opening at the base that divers can freely enter and leave through. The downside to this is the occupants of the vehicle suffer all the normal effects of pressure, and would have to spend lengthy periods decompressing in order to come back to the surface, or they would suffer the bends as dissolved gas in their bodies fizzed out of solution. If you've seen the film 'The Abyss', the open 'moon pool' that they launch and recover flatbed and the other subs through shows that their habitat is at ambient pressure..."
]
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[
"https://www.ussnautilus.org/education/pdf/stemlessons/harris%20_How-Do-Submariners-Breathe-Underwater.pdf"
],
[]
] | |
2rp5vh | What would happen if you microwaved uranium? | Do other radioactive materials react the same way? | askscience | http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/2rp5vh/what_would_happen_if_you_microwaved_uranium/ | {
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"Nothing all that different than if you microwaved a block of granite.",
"Well, there is one thing it's going to do: break your microwave. Without something to absorb the microwaves, you'll probably damage the magnetron. Also, depending on the shape of the piece you put in, arcing may also occur. I suppose if you put something very very radioactive in there, you might get a visible plasma from the charged particles being emitted and ionization of the air in there. Naturally-occurring uranium isn't particularly radioactive, so it'll act more or less like any hunk of metal in a microwave."
]
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[],
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2ziehi | Is there a reason the angular size of our moon is almost identical to the angular size of the sun? Or is it coincidence? | Assuming there is intelligent life on other planets, and that we do communicate with them at some point, will we be able to brag that we're the only folks who can see both a complete solar eclipse and complete lunar eclipse? | askscience | http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/2ziehi/is_there_a_reason_the_angular_size_of_our_moon_is/ | {
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"It is a coincidence. They both get bigger and smaller from our perspective throughout the month/year, so there is some overlap in their range of sizes, rather than both being the *exact* same angular size all the time.\n\nIn many billion years the sun will be bigger and the moon will be farther away, so this won't be the case any more.",
"Total coincidence. But we still have a ways to go. You can calculate (_URL_0_) that it'll be over 500 million years before a total eclipse becomes completely impossible. ",
"We are quite fortunate about the total solar eclipses! Especially since the moon isn't *so* much larger that you don't see the corona on all sides.\n\nLunar eclipses, however, would be much less unusual in the cosmos. Whenever the satellite in question is smaller than the body it revolves around, and the orbital inclination isn't too far off, they should happen with some regularity.",
"It's more luck than coincidence. The moon appeared very large long ago, and will continue to appear smaller each year. It was already true that at some point their relative sizes would match (unless one was destroyed) at some point. You are lucky enough to be alive at that time. \n\nSo I guess coincidence, but you are the coincidence. Kinda like walking past a bus stop just as it arrived, it's you that just happened to be there, the bus was scheduled. "
]
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[],
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"http://spacemath.gsfc.nasa.gov/earth/4Page28.pdf"
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5vfcg2 | when picking someone up (literally), why do people who are tensed up feel "heavier" than relaxed people? | I understand the the whole mass vs weight thing but what is the actual cause? Center of mass? | explainlikeimfive | https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/5vfcg2/eli5_when_picking_someone_up_literally_why_do/ | {
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"Not sure what position the person is when you're picking them up.\n\nIf a person is limp when you're moving/picking them up you don't have to move it all at once. If they're stiff as a board you're having to move all the weight at once.\n\nSo unconscious patients can be easier to roll around than those who've had a stroke and are like a solid piece...if you do it properly.\n\nTalking about picking someone off the ground who's limp, you grab a \"part\" and secure it, grab another part, etc like picking up a bag of potatoes. Picking them up and they move as one solid object would be much more difficult as all the weight must be managed at once.",
"Grappler here. It's all about the other person's center of gravity. When you are under a person's center of gravity, even people who weigh quite a bit can feel light. When a person tenses, a lot of the time their muscles will expand or they will frame away from you. These actions push their center away from your's and they will feel relatively heavier.",
"Dead weight is much harder to move.\n\nIf you are trying to pick someone up and they keep changing their centre of gravity that can be hard too.\n\nFrom a rescuing perspective, a conscious person is usually a lot easier to pick up and move than an unconscious dead weight."
]
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44dlwz | what are some long term psychological effects of minors/children being exposed to child pornography at a young age? | [deleted] | explainlikeimfive | https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/44dlwz/eli5_what_are_some_long_term_psychological/ | {
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"I'm fairly sure you won't find a study on this - you certainly aren't going to intentionally create this sort of exposure (laws, morality) and a study that isolated children who had high levels of exposure to child pornography would be confounded by the variety of other things any kid with such exposure was experiencing (abuse, neglect, generally shitting parenting, etc.)."
]
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rgue7 | Would staring at the Sun from Mars hurt your eyes, like it does on Earth? | As everyone knows, staring at the Sun is totally a bad idea. I am wondering if one could stare at the Sun, standing on Mars, and be ok? | askscience | http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/rgue7/would_staring_at_the_sun_from_mars_hurt_your_eyes/ | {
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"_URL_0_\n\nI think you're just asking about the brightness, not the fact that a totally different spectrum comes through the atmosphere, posing different threats.\n\nAs for your question, you can see for yourself in that picture! The Martian landscape can be bright so I think that staring directly into the sun would still be unpleasant.\n\nIf you want, you can also crunch the numbers and figure out the relative intensity of the light and compare it to a hazy/cloudy day on Earth."
]
} | [] | [] | [
[
"http://cache.boston.com/universal/site_graphics/blogs/bigpicture/mars_06_20/mars3.jpg"
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4hw8wt | Was the US Army advised against landing at Omaha beach by the British? | I have a good memory of reading such a thing in one of the (many) books on D-Day that I have read down the years. As I recall, the British advised the Americans not to undertake a frontal assault because the defences were too strong, and it would be a bloodbath.
Omaha certainly was a bloodbath.
Is my memory correct? Were the Americans advised not to assault Omaha? | AskHistorians | https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/4hw8wt/was_the_us_army_advised_against_landing_at_omaha/ | {
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"I've never heard of anyone in the British military directly advising the Americans not to land *at all* at Omaha. The difficulty of the landings at Omaha was caused by a number of factors, many of which could not have been predicted or were planned for, but went awry (such as the complete failure of the bombing on that particular beach).\n\nWhat the British *did* do, though, was offer the Americans some of their \"funnies\" - special tanks designed by the Royal Engineers, specifically for the task of clearing beaches under fire. They had minesweeper tanks, super heavy tanks with heavy duty artillery on board to destroy strongpoints, and flamethrower tanks. They also had amphibious tanks, which were the only ones the Americans used on their beaches (and on Omaha, almost all of them sank, mostly due to being let out too far from shore in very heavy seas).\n\nSo I while don't remember ever reading that the British advised against attacking at Omaha, they did make at least one recommendation that the Americans then ignored. Whether the funnies would have helped enough to change the outcome is impossible to say, of course.\n\nSource: Omaha Beach, a Flawed Victory by Adrian R. Lewis\n\n[link](_URL_0_)",
" > Were the Americans advised not to assault Omaha?\n\nAbsolutely not.\n\nIn fact Omaha was the key that bound the British and Canadian beaches (Gold, Juno and Sword) to the other American beach, Utah. \n\nThe plan that eventually became Operation Overlord originated in May 1943 when British general Frederick Morgan was ordered to start detailed planning for a cross-channel invasion. The initial plan was for a three-division assault in the area of the British and Canadian. This smaller plan was mostly the result of planning around the expected number of landing craft that would be available.\n\nWhen Montgomery was appointed commander of the land forces for the invasion he very quickly realized that the planned area was much too small and might easily be contained by the Germans. Together with Eisenhower, he pushed for a larger force over a wider area. In particular they wanted an assault on the Cotentin peninsula to cut off the troops there and make an early push for Cherbourg.\n\nIf troops were landed on the Cotentin then the area between the British and Canadian beaches had to be taken. And that meant landing at the beach now known as Omaha. \n\nIncidentally it was not until a week or so before the invasion that Allied command uncovered that the 352nd Infantry Division had taken over responsibility for the Omaha area. The 352nd was a regular army unit with a good number of Eastern front veterans in its ranks. The unit it replaced, the 716th Infantry Division, was a 'static' unit lacking in mobility, heavy weapons and training. Had the assault taken place against the 716th the casualties at Omaha might have been more comparable to those at Gold-Juno-Sword.\n\nedit to add source : Joe Balkoski, *Omaha Beach*"
]
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[
"http://www.amazon.com/Omaha-Beach-Adrian-R-Lewis/dp/0807854697/ref=sr_1_1?s=books&ie=UTF8&qid=1462398117&sr=1-1&keywords=omaha+beach+a+flawed+victory"
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2l3drd | How realistic would the possiblity that some of our myths and legends might have originated via the interactions of the early homo sapiens and other species of homo be? | I guess it's pretty much absurd considering the vast amount of time between civilization and the extinction of these species. | AskHistorians | http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/2l3drd/how_realistic_would_the_possiblity_that_some_of/ | {
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"You may want to try asking this question in /r/AskAnthropology if you don't get any answers here, I think your question may fit more neatly into their area of expertise."
]
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] | |
4i0m0m | how come inventions in tv shows that i watched as a kid have a number next to their name (2000, 3000, etc.) but real life inventions don't? | explainlikeimfive | https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/4i0m0m/eli5_how_come_inventions_in_tv_shows_that_i/ | {
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"Don't they?\n\nCommodore 64, 128\nAmiga 1000, 500, 2000, 1500, 3000, 4000\nAtari 400, 800, 2600\niPhone 3, 4\nSamsung Galaxy S, II, 3, 4, 5, 6\nnVidia GeForce GTX 960, 970, 980, 980Ti",
"This style of naming conventions was actually fairly popular back in the day especially in the late 90s and early 2000s. Lots of companies started adding large round numbers like 2000 and 3000 to their product models because it made it sound like the product was new, advanced, futuristic, etc.",
"If you lived in 1978 (I did), the year 2000 was the glorious future when we would have flying cars and robot maids and whatnot. So tons of high-tech products really had names like Dynotech 2000. So many that 2000 sounded common and plain, so it was upped to 3000 and so on.\n\nFortunately we actually reached the year 2000 and the nonsense stopped. Though I dunno, maybe in Portland, Oregon, hipsters are calling their vintage old-style drip coffee \"2000 blend\"."
]
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6x7o2p | where did the money come from to create such a sharp increase in housing prices? | explainlikeimfive | https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/6x7o2p/eli5_where_did_the_money_come_from_to_create_such/ | {
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"Supply and demand... for the most part, people already have the money, but just don't spend it if they don't need to. As housing costs increase relative to earnings, they cut back elsewhere. If your mortgage is $1500 instead of $1200, then maybe they buy a cheaper car, go out to eat less, take less expensive vacations.\n\nIn specific places -- say in Silicon Valley -- real incomes have increased along with stock prices of tech companies and bidding wars for top talent, which creates more money competing for the real estate.",
"The global money supply has indeed gone up substantially due to increases in productivity, high-speed electronic finance, and pro-growth banking policies by numerous governments.\n\n_URL_0_"
]
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2esh44 | How were colors defined before hexadecimal or RGB values came into use? | Today, the hexadecimal color scale (ranging from 000000-FFFFFF) covers every color visible to the human eye. It allows standardization in graphic designs around the world. Before this system came into effect, how did people collaborate on color schemes? | AskHistorians | http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/2esh44/how_were_colors_defined_before_hexadecimal_or_rgb/ | {
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"Pantone is what you're looking for, I think. Basically a company sold standardized color/ID pairings (and still do) in printed swatches. Wikipedia will tell a lot more than my fuzzy memory, but hopefully it's a starting point.",
"A few things:\n\n* RGB is a specific color model for additive color. It combines light. This is close but not identical to how the human eye sees things. So I wouldn't necessarily say that RGB covers every color visible to the human eye, because that is a rather big statement about the human visual system. It is, however, a good way of talking about the colors you can generate by combining light in a way that is pretty close to how the human eye will interpret the colors.\n\n* RGB should not be confused with print color models — subtractive models, like CMYK. These are made with ink or paint. They have a very different colorspace, as becomes very clear if you try to use computers to do print design — sometimes colors on the screen look _very_ different in print. [This image from Wikipedia gives a suggestion of the translation differences](_URL_1_) but because you are viewing even that image on a screen there are going to be some things that don't translate! This is a huge pain in the neck for graphic designers, getting your colorspace right, and different printing devices can support different colorspaces as well. Huge headache! This is why things like the Pantone system (1950s) exist — they are little standardized chits of printed color that will tell you _exactly_ what shade of color something is, so you can say, \"I want this red to be Pantone XYZ\" and you can expect a printer who has a press with a Pantone system to get it exactly right.\n\n* So what you are really asking about is how did designers standardize colors prior to the development of these specific color spaces. (RGB is, again, only useful for light — which is why it is used with computer monitors.) \n\nThere were many early attempts at making qualitative and quantitative systems for color in the 18th-19th centuries. To my knowledge the most successful was the [Munsell color system](_URL_2_), which was used to standardize a lot of recording of colors. This would allow one person to say, \"ah, I mean _this_ shade of red\" and someone else to know what they meant even if they didn't have the red object in color in front of them. One interesting historical aside of this is the [von Luschan scale](_URL_0_), which is a color scale for human skin color, used by anthropologists to understand human variation in the 19th and early 20th centuries. There are lots of applications of standardizing color measurement.\n\nThis is separate, though, from standardizing color printing, which I know little about. "
]
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[],
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"http://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/1/1b/RGB_and_CMYK_comparison.png",
"http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Munsell_color_system"
]
] | |
2dagjc | Is there any evidence of biological changes of marine life in the Mediterranean and/or the Red Sea as a result of the Suez Canal? | askscience | http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/2dagjc/is_there_any_evidence_of_biological_changes_of/ | {
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"text": [
"Yep, heaps in the Mediterranean.\n\n_URL_0_\n\n_URL_1_"
]
} | [] | [] | [
[
"http://www.oceandocs.net/bitstream/1834/672/1/exotic_med.pdf",
"http://www.com.univ-mrs.fr/~boudouresque/Publications_FLUC_2007_2008/Bianchi_2007_Hydrobiologia.pdf"
]
] | ||
7it7bb | why do milk alternatives [soy almond etc] get called milk and not *name* water? | explainlikeimfive | https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/7it7bb/eli5_why_do_milk_alternatives_soy_almond_etc_get/ | {
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"Because they are white in color, and often used as a milk alternative. If they were clear they would be called waters or juices. ",
"[Almond milk](_URL_0_) is pretty ancient. I've linked to a 14th C source but I think there are recipes for almond milk going back to the Romans. \n\nMilk does not refer to something that comes from a cow or a goat, it also refers to a consistency - such as a \"milky\" glass - or color - such as the \"milky\" way. It can also refer to an action; ie, \"S/he's milking him/her for all s/he's worth!\" \n\nUsing the term milk for Almond milk - the oldest of the alternatives- could have come about for any of these three reasons. It could be because of the color, the consistency, or because to get almond milk, you need to put all the smashed up, ground up, blanched almonds in a mesh bag and slowly pour water through the bag, \"milking\" it. \n\nAlmond milk itself is a 1 to 1 alternative for regular cow's milk. It has the same fat content which makes it excellent for baking and cooking. "
]
} | [] | [] | [
[],
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"http://medievalcookery.com/search/display.html?forme:86:ALMNT+MLK"
]
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5wjxl1 | What would happen to a flame if the ambient temperature was the same as the flame? | So in a normal combustion the flame points upward because hot air rises, what would happen if the ambient temperature was the same as the flame with no external factors. What would the flame do? | askscience | https://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/5wjxl1/what_would_happen_to_a_flame_if_the_ambient/ | {
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"there wouldn't be a flame.\n\nthe flame is the result of a chemical process; one thing is being turned into another (less energetic) thing, the balance of the energy is expended through heat and light -*that* is the flame.\n\nif the environment around the source of a combustible element is as hot as a flame then it would immediately exhaust all the fuel and there would be no flame.",
" > if the ambient temperature was the same as the flame with no external factors\n\nThis cannot happen. A flame is made of gases in the process of burning, they release energy when doing so and raise the temperature. So the flame will always be hotter than the surrounding air.\n\nA normal candle flame is normally at 800°C. You may be wondering what happens if you light a candle when the external temperature is 800°C, then the energy released by combustion will raise the flame's temperature to 1600°C (assuming you can have a candle in the first place! IRL wax would melt).\n\nThe above rule breaks up when you have much higher ambient temperatures. If it gets as hot as the Sun than air becomes a plasma, where normal chemistry cannot exist, and so there is no combustion and no flame.\n"
]
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[],
[]
] | |
dlbq94 | why is russia still meddling in the united states? what is their goal? | explainlikeimfive | https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/dlbq94/eli5_why_is_russia_still_meddling_in_the_united/ | {
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"text": [
"Their goal is to weaken the US. Weaken their internal political unity, weaken their connections to allies, weaken their influence on the global stage, and ultimately weaken their ability to interfere with whatever Russia wants to do. Broadly speaking Russia sees the US as an obstacle to their growth in power and influence, so anything which can weaken the US is a good thing."
]
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[]
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dgu2sy | How did the first million internet customers actually connect to the internet? | What was the infrastructure involved? When/how did the first ISPs come about? | AskHistorians | https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/dgu2sy/how_did_the_first_million_internet_customers/ | {
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"Too young to remember dial-up modems, I take it?\n\nThey connected through the phone lines, just like everybody did up until cable internet became a thing. You plugged a modem into your phone jack, and the computer would dial the phone number of the server that it was trying to reach. It would go through just like a phone call (including having to pay per minute for the connection), with the computer on the other end also having a modem plugged into their phone jack.\n\nThis meant, of course, that you couldn't use the phone and the internet at the same time (unless you had two phone lines). You also didn't have \"the internet\" in the sense that we have it today at first; what you had was a lot of independent computers/networks that you could dial into. \"The internet\" at its inception was more along the lines of a set of protocols (such as http or telnet) that made those connections possible. Connecting to some particular site or service required that you had their phone number.",
"Universities and government institutions would lease lines from the phone company and use them to connect their computers to each other. The \"network\" and the \"computer\" were basically the same thing. My university's big computer connects to a few other big universities (and so on, and so on), and those computers would pass messages back and forth. These connections were like long extension cords- 1:1 connections. My computer (and budget) has room for 10 connections, and I connect to the 10 most useful computers.\n\nEventually this network of computers got too big to manage as a bunch of peers connecting to a bunch of other peers. Each site would need to connect directly to any other site they wanted to deal with regularly, or suffer really slow service. Further, they were spending more and more of their processing time passing other people's messages instead of doing work. The phone company said \"instead of leasing theose 10 lines connecting to 10 different other sites, why don't you lease this one line and we will deal with delivering the messages where they go. If you connect to us, you can connect to ANY of the sites we have on our network.\"\n\nThe phone companies were the first ISPs.\n\n(This is the difference between circuit-switching and packet-switching, for further reference.)"
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1qe16m | Could you douse a small fire with a huge amount of gasoline? | If you had a small campfire, could you pour 10000 gallons of gasoline on it to make it go out? Or would it just explode? How about a match? | askscience | http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/1qe16m/could_you_douse_a_small_fire_with_a_huge_amount/ | {
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"Biochem major here. It would really depend on the mode in which the gasoline is added to the match. Gasoline liquid does not set on fire. However, gasoline is super volatile so it gives off a ton of fumes. It's these fumes that are EXTREMELY flammable. I suppose of the gasoline was dropped onto the match all at one time it could extinguish the flame. Ideally, dropping the gasoline from an air-tight container would do the trick. I specify air-tight so as to limit the possibility of fumes coming into contact with the match before the liquid does. I have no sources to back this up."
]
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[]
] | |
8lzx58 | Tomatoes originated from Western South America. How did they gain such prominence in European cuisine? | AskHistorians | https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/8lzx58/tomatoes_originated_from_western_south_america/ | {
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"This question gets asked here pretty often -- not discouraging new comments, but here are some older threads on the topic (sorry for the naked hyperlinks, but new/old Reddit formatting seems to be weird):\n\n_URL_1_\n\n_URL_2_\n\n_URL_0_\n\n_URL_3_"
]
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"https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/2r4ghl/what_was_italian_food_like_in_the_14th_and_15th/",
"https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/6z42la/what_was_the_italian_cuisine_before_the_tomato/",
"https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/2fcqkd/how_did_the_tomato_come_to_be_suc... | ||
fq28yi | can you "freeze off" calories? how does it work and is it effective at all? | Since we cant go out and I'm just a bit cold in here and I'm eating chocolate I was wondering
Can being cold help loosing weight, by burning more calories to keep your body warm? And maybe also quivering cause of the relative cold?
(I obviously dont mean literally 0°C freezing, just colder than "standard" room temperature) | explainlikeimfive | https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/fq28yi/eli5_can_you_freeze_off_calories_how_does_it_work/ | {
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"Yes, this works if you're cold enough that you're shivering. That's how the body burns extra calories to keep warm. If you're not that cold, all you're doing is sweating less than usual, and that doesn't burn any extra calories.",
"Yes, being in a cold environment does burn additional calories. This is the best figure how much I can find:\n\n\"To answer that question, Fear pointed to a study done by Dutch researchers back in 2002. They found that lowering a room's temperature from 71.6ºF to 60.8ºF increased the participants' 24-hour energy expenditure — the number of calories they burned in a day — by 4 to 6%. (Scientists who did similar studies in 2010 and 2013 got very similar results.)\"\n\n_URL_0_\n\nSimply put, yes, it will work. But we're talking about 100 kcal or so for the average adult.",
"There is a professor in California who developed a waistcoat which holds multiple freezer bottles against your body. He claims that it is not uncomfortable and is effective in weight loss.",
"Being cold does burns more calories because your body is expending more energy to keep you warm, but it's not an effective weight loss solution because you have to be cold enough to shiver, not just slightly cold, and being that cold for extended periods of time has other negative health consequences."
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66hmev | What was the relationship between the three Gunpowder Empires like? | [deleted] | AskHistorians | https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/66hmev/what_was_the_relationship_between_the_three/ | {
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"I can tell you a little bit about the Ottoman-Mughal relationship, especially in the 16th century as these empires became increasingly aware of each other. I am not particularly knowledgeable about Safavid Iran and the Mughal Empire itself, but I know that their relationship was far from amicable. The Safavids continued the tradition of Iranian/Afghan empires to extend their reach into the [North Indian river plain](_URL_0_). The Safavids fought two wars with the Mughals in the 17th century as did their successors, the Afsharids, in 1738. The Persians won all of these wars but were never able to consolidate their gains. (Nadir Shah even sacked Delhi.) Maybe someone else can elaborate on the Iranian-Indian relationship of the time.\n\nOne might think that due to the fact that the Safavids and the Ottomans frequently fought each other, seeking an alliance with the Mughals would have been only logical for the Sublime Porte. However, when the Safavids began encroaching on North India in the 17th century, the Ottoman position in the Indian Ocean had deteriorated and they had become a minor player, peripheral to Indian affairs. That had not always been the case.\n\nJust a century prior to the Safavid's first war with the Mughals, the Ottomans had quite a significant presence in the Indian Ocean, operating from their (recently acquired) bases in Suez and Yemen and were vying with the Portuguese for control of the Indian Ocean trade. Both powers were newcomers to the region: The Portuguese had circumnavigated Africa in 1498 and acquired Goa in 1510, the Ottomans had conquered the Mamluk Sultanate in 1517 and Basra in 1533 (IIRC), thus giving them direct access to the Red Sea and the Persian Gulf respectively. Both powers sent naval expeditions against the other's strongholds (for example the Ottoman siege of Diu in 1538) and raiding their trade routes, however *generally* the Portuguese kept the upper hand in warfare on the open sea due to their sturdier and larger ships. Trailing behind the Portuguese in actual military power in the Indian Ocean, the Ottoman relied on an extensive network of allies and client states stretching as far as the Aceh Sultanate, which they supplied with guns (and gunners) and military advisors for their fight against the Christian invaders.\n\nOttoman \"soft power\" around the Indian Ocean relied on supplying knowledge, firearms, and invoking their position as caliphs and protectors of the Holy Cities of Mecca and Medinah (*hâdim al-haremeyn*) and thus the *hajj*, the Islamic pilgrimage. States seeking the Empire's support acknowledged the caliphate by reading out the *khutbah*, the sermon at the friday prayer, in the name of the Ottoman caliph and recognizing his (mainly theoretical) suzerainty over all Muslims.\n\nOne local ally of the Sublime Porte in India in the 16th century was the Sultanate of Gujarat. At that time, the Mughals were still a rising power, having just conquered the North Indian plain in the 1520s, but a definite threat to Gujarat. Outside assistance against Mughal expansionism was thus very welcome in Gujarat. Gujarati elites frequently played Mughals, Ottomans, and Portuguese off against each other, turning to who ever seemed less intrusive or promising at the time. Sultan Bahadur of Gujarat (1526–1535 and 1536–1537) was the first to decidedly turn to Constantinople for support by claiming that his land was caught between \"Mongols on land and infidels at sea\" (referring to the Mughals, a Turco-Mongol dynasty, and the Christian Portuguese), and since his time there was an at times influential pro-Ottoman faction of Rumi origin at the Gujarati court.\n\nWhile the relationship between the Sublime Porte and the Mughal emperor Humayun was already strained due to the the Ottoman-Gujarati connection, it grew worse under Humayun's son Akbar. (Yes, the famous one.) Under Akbar the Mughal Empire expanded into Central India and to the coasts. Gujarat was annexed in 1573, thus giving the Mughals their first large Indian Ocean port. Akbar declared himself protector of Indian Muslim pilgrims, appointing officials to help facilitate and finance the *hajj* for Indians, even sending out a lavish delegation of his household to Mecca with offerings to the inhabitants in his name . The Mughal emperor even began to style himself as \"*Padisha* [great-king] of Islam\" and \"Caesar\" – titles claimed by the Ottoman caliph.\n\nAs the Mughal Empire began to claim the title of preeminent Muslim power in the world or at least as an equal to the caliphate, Ottoman-Mughal relationship was increasingly antagonistic. However, with the deterioration of Ottoman power in the Indian Ocean, the Sublime Porte was less of a concern to Indian powers anyway. After the debacle of Mombasa in 1589 (where an Ottoman expeditionary force was lost entirely), the last of a series of defeats in the 1570s and 1580s, Ottoman presence in the Indian Ocean was diminished partly by own choice. Henceforth, the Empire's efforts were directed against the Safavids in the east and the Habsburgs in the west. The Mughal Empire rose to be the largest Indian empire since the Mauryans and the primary Sunni Muslim state in Asia.\n\n**tl;dr:** Ottoman-Mughal relations were not very amicable most of the time. When the Ottomans were still prominent players in India and reaching out to the Muslim rulers of the subcontinent, the Mughals were still a rising power. The Ottomans allied with an enemy of the Mughals and lost their main ally to Mughal conquest later. Furthermore, Akbar the Great's claim to suzerainty over Indian Muslims and patronizing of the pilgrimage conflicted with the foundations of the Ottoman caliphate.\n\nSource:\n\n* Casale, Giancarlo. *The Ottoman Age of Exploration.* New York: Oxford University Press, 2010.\n\n/edit: Spelling, clarity, added a tl;dr."
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q5yxc | how does a web developer create a website? | You're a web developer. What do you need initially when someone approaches you to make them a site and how do you do it?
I ask because I'm looking to have a relatively basic portfolio site made on my behalf but I don't know what to prepare beforehand and I'd like to be able to get my ideas across more effectively.
I have next to no understanding of HTML, hosting, or how these things intertwine out there in the tubes. | explainlikeimfive | http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/q5yxc/eli5_how_does_a_web_developer_create_a_website/ | {
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"Coming prepared with the answers to these two questions will get you most of the way:\n\n1. What should it look like?\n2. What should it do?\n\nYour answers to these questions will allow you to get into the details. For example, do you already have a design, or are you wanting the developer to come up with it? You probably have some images or other assets that you're putting into your portfolio? She'll need those in digital form. Are you selling anything from the site? Will you be adding content to the site yourself, or will you want the developer to do it? Do you have a domain registered, e.g. _URL_0_?\n",
"Ok... so the biggest thing you should be concerned about is this: there's a difference between a web developer and a web designer. \n\nThink of a website like a car. A car has an engine and an alternator; it does 0-60 in something-or-other and it can turn with some level of agility. Someone is responsible for all that stuff.\n\nBut a car also has a certain asthetic appeal. It looks a certain way, has lines that evoke speed and grace. It has a range of colors it comes in, amenities on the inside, a button and control layout. Someone **else** is responsible for all that stuff.\n\nIf your website is a car, the developer is the guy who makes it go, turn, and stop; the designer is responsible for how it looks and feels.\n\nSo first off, are you looking for a website designer or developer? Odds are pretty good that, unless you want your portfolio site to do something that no other portfolio site can do, you don't **really** want a web developer; you want a web designer. \n\nTake a look at some off the shelf portfolio software and see if it can do what you need it to do. Then find a designer who's comfortable putting together some sketches and plans and have them skin it up to look unique and interesting. \n\nThat's not going to be inexpensive, by the way. You're basically asking a professional illustrator to give you a couple days of their time.\n\nIf you need some custom functionality that no one else offers, then you need a web developer and now you're looking at a significant investment. \n\nIt's important that you walk into this knowing the difference (so you're talking to the right person) and knowing that you're talking about a fairly expensive professional service.",
"This isn't an attempt to answer your actual ELI5, but to address your explanation.\n\nTo prepare for something like that you may want to explore some of the simple and easy to use self creation tools available, like _URL_0_, Blogger, etc. You don't need any technical knowledge at all, nor do you need to pay anything. Browse through the many many free themes available, find one that sparks your creativity, and add some content like you might have on your final product. You can then offer that to a professional with notes on what you like and don't like and what you might want different.",
"At the base of everything, you have a server and a domain name. The domain name (_URL_0_) simply POINTS to a given server, the same way a street adress points to your home. This way, you can change servers by pointing it elsewhere. A URL (_URL_0_/hi.html) is just a file located at the root folder of that web server.\n\nA server is just a computer that serves files. You could even host your site yourself at home on your PC, albeit unreliably. It simply checks for the requested file, parses the code in it (if there is any), then returns plain HTML that your browser can read.\n\nWhen I say some files contain code, it's usually to receive parameters and behave accordingly. For example, _URL_0_/hi.php?product=23 might retrieve product #23 from a database, then use this data in the page. This is all done before you receive the page. WordPress and other content managers work like this: content is in a database, and when you call for a page, it retrieves it from a database, and puts it in a generic page.\n\nI'm typing on a phone right now, but feel free to ask for clarification."
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bmj68l | Is there any explanation why cold/temperate countries tend to be more developed than warm weather countries and why this trend reversed from ancient times? | There is a pretty clear trend of countries with cold weather countries being more developed than those with pleasant climates. So for example, Northern Europe is more developed than the Mediterranean countries, Japan and Korea are more developed than the rest of Asia (excluding the gulf oil nations, which are anomalies and were very undeveloped until oil was found). The US and Canada are more developed than South and Central America, and within South America, Chile, Uruguay and Argentina are the most developed. North and South Africa are more developed than equatorial Africa and so on. Clearly there are exceptions, but the trend holds.
However if you go back to antiquity, it was largely the opposite. The great civilizations were mostly in warm climates - Romans, Greeks, Carthaginians, Indus Valley, Egypt, Persia, Mesopotamia, Maya, Aztecs, Khmer, etc.
What caused this change? Did natural selection during a period of high population growth (ie it is harder to survive winter if you are dumb) play a big part? Was it just that warm weather people were too busy enjoying their nice weather, and good food and wine to devote time to development? | AskHistorians | https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/bmj68l/is_there_any_explanation_why_coldtemperate/ | {
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"Right, so this is in most respects a better question for /r/askanthropology than it is for /r/askhistory, but there are some historical aspects to it that can be answered. Keep in mind that the following is nowhere near comprehensive; it is only a small portion of a possible answer.\n\n\nFirst of all, it is untrue that developed countries tend to be \"cold-weather\". Developed countries today tend to be in *temperate* climates, with, yes, cold winters, but also reasonably long growing seasons. Save for Iceland, no highly developed country exists that lacks this; the Nordic countries' populations are concentrated in southern regions that have climatic conditions similar to their continental neighbors. Truly cold regions, such as northern Canada, Russia, and Scandinavia, are either undeveloped or are developed as a consequence of government subsidy or valuable resource extraction. Leaving that aside though, what unique disadvantages do warmer regions have? \n\nOne of the biggest is that a subset of these, tropical regions, have historically had low population densities. Urbanization and ease of transfer (for goods, ideas, people) across territory makes development easier; for example, the entirety of South America had a smaller population than the United States from the early 1800s until relatively recently, while the population of all of Africa from 1800 to the mid 20th century struggled to keep pace with just Russia.\n\nThe first and foremost cause of this low density is disease, particularly those caused by internal parasites (tapeworms, roundworms, etc.) or external parasites (mosquitos, ticks, etc.). Freezing winters either kill or mitigate the effects of most parasites, which do not only spread deadly diseases like malaria (which has killed, by far, the most people in history of any disease), but also can cause delays/damage to brain development and physical strength. Malaria is an interesting case because of the development of resistance to malaria among many people of West African descent, as this resistance comes as the cost of a high risk of sickle-cell disease. Tropical diseases, while most damaging in the tropics, have caused tremendous suffering in sub-tropical regions like the Middle East and Southern Europe. Malaria was a huge killer in Rome, for example, prior to the draining of the Pontine marshes in the 1920s-30s. Many of these diseases were native to the Old World; the transfer of diseases such as Yellow Fever, Dengue, and Malaria reduced the habitability of much of South and Central America compared to the period prior to European contact.\n\n\nAn issue specific to the tropics is poor soil quality, which also has contributed to low population density. Tropical soils cannot sustain large-scale agriculture without intensive use of fertilizers. Prior to the large scale development and exploitation of both natural and artificial fertilizers, high density regions in tropical regions tended to be located in volcanic areas, such as Java and the Eastern Congo/Rwandan regions.\n\n\nA semi-related issue comes when considering climatic shifts over the past couple thousand years, since the (Old World) civilizations you mention. The Middle East and North Africa have become significantly drier since the Roman period. This did not make sophisticated societal development in those regions *impossible*, but it did mean that the people and polities in those regions were working with less optimal conditions than their Carthaginian, Roman, etc. forbears were. \n\n\nNone of this explains the greater question you have asked, and it ignores extremely important factors such as imperialism *writ large*, differences between different styles of colonial rule, specific historical events/phenomena/personas, and all sorts of other factors that have contributed to the modern day condition of high development in temperate regions and lower development in warmer regions. What it does do is give some underlying factors, some of which have remained static, and some of which have changed since the ancient time period.\n\nSome population stats: _URL_2_\n\n\nDiscussion of the changing climate of N. Africa: _URL_0_\n(He ultimately concludes that human activity via hunting/soil erosion might be able to explain the decline of N. Africa without needing a climatic explanation, but if that is the case it remains true that N. Africa is less conducive to \"higher development\" currently, just for a different reason)\n\nA more pro-climate take:\n_URL_1_",
" > There is a pretty clear trend of countries with cold weather countries being more developed than those with pleasant climates.\n\nThat is not really true. If we are measuring by Human Development Index, it becomes pretty clear that development levels **do not map neatly to latitude or climate**. If we look at [2018 Human Development Index map](_URL_1_) we don't see a strong sorting by latitude. Countries in South America score consistently higher on HDI scores than African countries despite having comparable climates and being at similar latitudes. \n\nDitto, within Africa you have countries like Gabon which have much better HDI scores than neighboring Democratic republic of Congo, despite having similar climates. And contra to your statement that \"North and South Africa are more developed than Equatorial africa\", by these metrics, Equatorial african countries like Republic of Congo, Gabon, Cameroon, Ghana are more developed than southern african countries like Madagascar, Malawi, Mozambique and Zimbabwe.\n\nOr, look at Malaysia which sits on the equator and is in the \"very high development\" category.\n\n > Clearly there are exceptions, but the trend holds.\n\nIn my opinion, there are too many exceptions to say your trend is valid. \n\n-----\n\nAnd of course, you rightly point out that in past eras there existed highly complex societies in regions which are now in countries with medium or low HDI scores.\n\nSo, no, it was **not** \"natural selection\" or geographical determinism that led to the current world order. \n\nAs to why things are as they are, it's a complex question. Numerous human decisions, and broad social and historical trends all came together to lead to some countries becoming very rich and having high levels of development, and other countries being poor, unstable, and having bad infrastructure. \n\nA major piece of any answer must contend with the reality that Europeans colonized virtually the whole world, and that historical moment (from perhaps 1500 AD to 1950 AD) was when the change happened from ancient warm-weather civilizations to the current economic world order.\n\nPerhaps it is unsurprising that this question of \"why did europeans start to take over the world\" has been asked before, and /u/Profrhodes gives a [good overview of the schools of thought here](_URL_0_).\n\nI find /u/Profrhodes synopsis of Eric Hobsbawm that:\n\n > Much better historians like Eric Hobsbawm (The Age of Revolution: Europe 1789–1848) provide much more solid and rounded explanations. As he states, it is better to argue that the developments during the three centuries following 1492, including the creation and expansion of mercantile empires, the creation of a captive periphery in the Americas, and the proto-capitalist economies of the Carribean and Americas (in the form of plantation systems where whole sections of the society were geared towards production) all provided the basis for the Industrial Revolution to bring Europe to the fore. The New World in particular eased the land constraints within Europe (in the shape of 'ghost area' colonies) and allowed Britain in particular to access coal and thereby shift from the biological/organic ancien regime to the inorganic industrial economy. At the same time, from 1815 onwards European colonial empires saw huge swathes of land being colonized by European industrial powers, and contributing to the economic expansion. From that point onwards (1800) European hegemony was guaranteed. \n\nvery intriguing. The implication of Hobsbawm's argument here is that the economic gains that resulted from conquest of the Americas laid the basis for the first Industrial Revolution and hence European colonization of the rest of the world.\n\nThere is an entire genre of literature that contends that a great portion of African underdevelopment in the 21st century occurs because of 19th and early 20th century colonial economic exploitation. Probably the most famous work in that genre is Walter Rodney's book _How Europe underdeveloped Africa_.\n\nNow, there is of course more to be said. There is individual and continental difference among post-colonial countries and their economic and developmental trajectories. South America gained independence in the 1820s and so has had almost 200 years of post-colonial economic development. Most Asian countries gained independence in the 1940s or 1950s, and since the 1990s have had great development gains. On the other hand, most African countries gained independence in the 1960s (or later for some southern African countries), and enjoyed strong economic growth and development into the 1980s, before seeing a \"lost generation of growth\" into the 2000s.\n\nSo, clearly post-colonial leadership and economic policy have mattered. Some countries like Vietnam, Thailand, and Malaysia have been able to attract foreign investment and seen strong economic growth and development gains in the past 20 years. At the same time, certain countries like Zimbabwe or Iraq or Syria had very healthy economies and fairly high levels of development, but have slid backwards in the past 20 years. Still other countries like Afghanistan or DRC or Myanmar have had persistent conflict for long periods, cutting off opportunities for economic growth and human development."
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jury5 | Why don't we poop when we sleep? | askscience | http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/jury5/why_dont_we_poop_when_we_sleep/ | {
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"The outer Sphincter (in the anus) in a voluntary muscle, only the inner sphincter is involuntary.\n\n[Here](_URL_0_) is the wiki entry. Don't worry the pictures are drawn, no photo's",
"Since we're on the topic, why do we have a strong urge to poo when we know that the toilet is steps away? Are we classicaly conditioned to do so?",
"There have been a lot of off-topic comments and bad top-level jokes in this thread. We've grown a lot lately, so I would bet a lot of people are new here.\n\nAskScience works best when the subreddit's guidelines are followed, so take a minute to read them. They're item 1 in the sidebar.",
"I'm surprised no one has said this yet. During the night phase of the circadian rhythm bowel movements slow down due to the hormones released. However, this doesn't account for daytime naps.",
"The outer Sphincter (in the anus) in a voluntary muscle, only the inner sphincter is involuntary.\n\n[Here](_URL_0_) is the wiki entry. Don't worry the pictures are drawn, no photo's",
"Since we're on the topic, why do we have a strong urge to poo when we know that the toilet is steps away? Are we classicaly conditioned to do so?",
"There have been a lot of off-topic comments and bad top-level jokes in this thread. We've grown a lot lately, so I would bet a lot of people are new here.\n\nAskScience works best when the subreddit's guidelines are followed, so take a minute to read them. They're item 1 in the sidebar.",
"I'm surprised no one has said this yet. During the night phase of the circadian rhythm bowel movements slow down due to the hormones released. However, this doesn't account for daytime naps."
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3nqubc | what exactly happens when you get that heart wrenching feeling in your chest, like when that semi truck almost ran me off the road today | explainlikeimfive | https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/3nqubc/eli5_what_exactly_happens_when_you_get_that_heart/ | {
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"[Adrenaline baby](_URL_0_)\n\n\n\n > Adrenaline is a hormone produced by the adrenal glands during high stress or exciting situations. This powerful hormone is part of the human body's acute stress response system, also called the \"fight or flight\" response. It works by stimulating the heart rate, contracting blood vessels, and dilating air passages, all of which work to increase blood flow to the muscles and oxygen to the lungs. Additionally, it is used as a medical treatment for some potentially life-threatening conditions including anaphylactic shock. In the US, the medical community largely refers to this hormone as epinephrine, although the two terms may be used interchangeably.\n\n\n > The adrenal glands are found directly above the kidneys in the human body, and are roughly 3 inches (7.62 cm) in length. Adrenaline is one of several hormones produced by these glands. Along with norepinephrine and dopamine, it is a catecholamine, which is a group of hormones released in response to stress. These three hormones react with various body tissues, preparing the body to react physically to the stress causing situation.\n"
]
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1a0rxy | Has evolution "taught" deer to cross the road safley? | I have wondered about this when I see deer near the road. Will deer that look both ways, sort of speak, be more likely to pass on genes? Or is this trait not really hereditary? | askscience | http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/1a0rxy/has_evolution_taught_deer_to_cross_the_road_safley/ | {
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"There are really two broad (and really interesting) questions being asked here 1) how are primitive/instinctual reflexes passed on (is all hereditary information passed on genetically?) and 2) could learned behaviours become instinctual?\n\nGenes code for various proteins. Proteins are molecules which can have a wide variety of functions, and are used by cells in a wide variety of roles (e.g. some proteins are just great at connecting to other proteins -- they can thus be formed into structures which support the cell, other proteins are responsible for the Na/K transport in nerve cells, which is what allows them to propagate a signal, etc.). \n\nSo the question really then becomes: could a protein, or a group of proteins, cause this particular primitive reflex in deer, which could then be passed on? It could be expanded to: if it is possible, how do they manage to do it? The person who attempts to answer that would have to touch on how animals pass on untaught primitive reflexes/instinctual behaviours in general.\n\nGreat question, I am very curious to know the answer!\n\n",
"No. Cars have been a threat to deer for around 100 years. In the grand scheme of deer evolution, this is a very very small amount of time. Moreover, most deer never see or go near cars. There simply hasn't been enough pressure for long enough to cause any kind of change.",
"No. The time scale is too small, the incidence rate is too low, and deer breed too slowly. Moreover, any \"evolution\" is unlikely to be as dramatic as the examples you've given. Something like \"increased sensitivity to sound/quicker flight response\" would be much more likely."
]
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18hbk9 | What would happen if a samurai incorrectly committed seppuku and didn't die? | So me and my friend were messing around and somehow we got to the topic of samurai seppuku and an important question was brought up. What would happen if a samurai was unable to commit seppuku and he doesn't die? I don't mean If he didn't try seppuku, I mean if the samurai attempted seppuku and failed by not dying? Would he try again or has his shame gone past the point of redemption by seppuku? | AskHistorians | http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/18hbk9/what_would_happen_if_a_samurai_incorrectly/ | {
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"It was usually performed by 2 people. The Samurai's second would decapitate the Samurai after the ritual cut had been made in the abdomen or even before.",
"His kaishakunin (second / attendant) would decapitate (kaishaku) him after the samurai committing seppuku plunged his knife/sword into his abdomen - usually it would occur right after. The second was usually a skilled swordsman and would ensure death.",
"Often the samurai committing seppuku would ask the kaishakunin (介錯人) to wait until the cut was complete. Others would ask that the kaishakunin act even before the first cut - this happened a lot when the person was very old or ill. Not all seppuku used kaishakunin for example in jumonjigiri (十文字切り) two cuts are made in the shape of a cross - and the samurai bore this alone. Failure in this case was unlikely after the first cut. ",
"Thank you guys for the answers!",
"A samurai usually had a second who would stand behind them ready to decapitate them should they mess up, allow fear to get the better of them, or allow pain to overwhelm them. A truely skilled second would cut the head so that the front skin of the neck would remain in tact so the head would not be fully severed and instead flop against the upper torso.",
"On a similar note, does anybody know when the first cases of seppuku were committed? and how did this become a tradition?"
]
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5dqhil | why ketchup / mustard packets don't have to be refrigerated | [deleted] | explainlikeimfive | https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/5dqhil/eli5_why_ketchup_mustard_packets_dont_have_to_be/ | {
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"They are sealed. No bacteria can get inside them until you open it, and since they are one time use there is no worry. Ketchup and most other condiments aren't refrigerated at the store.\n",
"Most types of ketchup and mustard don't actually have to be refrigerated, because they're typically very high in vinegar and other ingredients that act as preservatives. "
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1h75mb | Why/How does a person's natural color of facial hair not always match that of the natural color on their head? Why does hair color change over time? | The hair on my head was red when I was born and is now somewhere between blonde and light brown. But my beard is very dark brown with random reds. Why isn't everything just one color, and why does it change over time? | askscience | http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/1h75mb/whyhow_does_a_persons_natural_color_of_facial/ | {
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"I would like to know this too. I know blonde often darkens, but does everything darken? And OP seems to have significantly changed. \n\nI used to have very light brown hair, and now it's basically black. Changed from around ages 15-20.",
"Started with blond hair, have dark brown hair, and beard grows in a dark coppery red, so I am interested too!",
"You have different types of hair on top of your head, on your face, and on your body. The melanocytes in the hair follicles in these different hair locations are simply different, and are encoded in your genetics, or are altered based on changes in gene expression in the melanocytes. "
]
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6d1wa9 | how do some music artists, like five finger death punch, become huge hits with their first album? | explainlikeimfive | https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/6d1wa9/eli5_how_do_some_music_artists_like_five_finger/ | {
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"First and foremost you have to understand how the music industry works. \n\nIf the label has a label-beneficial contract, which is common with a newly signed artist, and the musical style fits current trends, they will market the band as much as possible. \n\nMarketing includes grassroots, pushing rotations on radio, Spotify and Pandora as well as teaming a new artist with an established group for tours. Additionally, tv placements can be purchased. \n\nBuilding hype is easy with an unlimited budget, and most bands have a short popularity cycle so the record label will push hard to creat a buzz for them. ",
"There are several factors at play here. First off the members of a lesser known band are switching bands more often. For example the vocalist of 5FDP were the vocalist of Motograter who toured at Ozzfest 2003 and also released the album Ghost Machine before forming 5FDP. The other members have similar stories and were touring and making albums even before forming a band together. The members were not new to the scene and had already lots of fans. Secondly the an album needs financing to produce and market it and people will not pay to make an album unless there is some great music to make an album from. And if there are problems during the production the financing might pull out and the album never gets released. So only the good music is put on albums and the rest is only played at concerts. Thirdly there is survival bias. The bands that do not make a huge hit with their first album is much more likely to not reach the same level of fame or even split up."
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72kdgx | Are there any examples of sedentary, agrarian societies with a concept of more than two genders? | AskHistorians | https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/72kdgx/are_there_any_examples_of_sedentary_agrarian/ | {
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"Hi there! While we think this is a fine question for this sub, you may also want to consider asking it at r/AskAnthropology, as some of these examples may be outside the written historical record. Thanks! ",
"While more can be added to this subject, check out [this AMA](_URL_1_) done by /u/PangeranDipanagara, [which includes an answer about the multi-gendered system of Southern Sulawesi peoples](_URL_0_), Along with lots of other wonderful information!\n\nIn that same AMA, another answer [illustrates the agricultural practices of the penninsula, which has been under intensive agricultural cultivation since at least the 13th century C.E.](_URL_2_)"
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"https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/6qw8he/ama_south_sulawesi_13001800/dl1vftf/?st=j81rlhe0&sh=a3ff1a67",
"https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/6qw8he/ama_south_sulawesi_13001800/?st=j81rmioq&sh=7d58a056",
"https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/6qw8he/am... | ||
1xn6rd | what is the purpose of orgasms? (especially in males) why does it come with such high levels of dopamine? | Is it to sign that ejaculation is happening? And why is it especially signed with that good feeling? (not complaining) But could've that happened with say a sudden painful sensation or something else? | explainlikeimfive | http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/1xn6rd/what_is_the_purpose_of_orgasms_especially_in/ | {
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"It is beneficial for reproduction if the act of reproduction is emmensely enjoyable. The fact that an orgasm is an extremely enjoyable end to sex makes people want to orgasm while having sex, and to insemenate their sexual partner, leading to successful reproduction.\n\nIf orgasm wasn't enjoyable, people wouldn't want to orgasm, and no one would reproduce for fear of pain.",
"How else are you going to get two humans to make such goofy damn faces and motions that lead to reproduction? The juice must be worth the squeeze.",
"For women (I'm not sure for men), the contractions brought on by orgasms that occur in the vaginal walls actually help the sperm along on their journey, so orgasm essentially makes the process of insemination easier."
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fz7o97 | Was Henry VIII justified with the Acts of Supremacy? | & #x200B;
So I've been wondering about the English Reformation. It's like a real life drama play, lots of twists and turns, and it's confusing me.
The Acts of Supremacy declared that Henry VIII would be appointed as the head of the Church of England, thus bypassing the powers of the Pope in the Vatican, granting Henry VIII total power over all Christendom in England.
It is said that Henry passed this law because he wanted to divorce his wife in order to marry someone else, but the pope refused(citing canon law I think) to grant such an annulment. Henry Needed an Heir, because his wife apparently couldn't provide for him. Thus, the acts of supremacy were born.
So was it justifiable? I ask this without any vitriol, pure genuine curiosity here.
* Is it true that once Henry VIII took control, he closed hundreds of abbeys, friaries, and diverted all their funds to fund his war against Spain?
* What was the Pope like, was the church corrupt at all at this point in the 1530's?
* Why didn't the Pope call for a Crusade against England?
* How did the rest of Europe react to this news? Did they even react?
Seriously, just wondering. This is interesting stuff in my opinion. | AskHistorians | https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/fz7o97/was_henry_viii_justified_with_the_acts_of/ | {
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" > It is said that Henry passed this law because he wanted to divorce his wife in order to marry someone else, but the pope refused(citing canon law I think) to grant such an annulment. Henry Needed an Heir, because his wife apparently couldn't provide for him. Thus, the acts of supremacy were born.\n\nYou're on the right track here, but not quite there. The pope wouldn't grant Henry an annulment because he'd already been given papal permission to marry Katherine of Aragon in the first place: she had been his deceased elder brother's wife, and that was expressly forbidden by the church. (It would prove to be a pretty strong taboo over the centuries - there would be periodic challenges to English common law against the reciprocal prohibition against marrying your wife's sister, but for the most part people really internalized the idea that your brother's wife was effectively your own sister.) The dispensation went through on the basis that Arthur Tudor and Katherine had never actually consummated the marriage because of his poor health, which meant that the two never actually became one flesh and Katherine was never really, fully married.\n\nKatherine gave birth to several children, but only Princess Mary survived infancy and childhood, and she was eventually recognized as her father's heir - she was never named Princess of Wales, but she was given a household in Wales and a princely education. A smooth transition of power from a king to his daughter was unprecedented in British history, but to all appearances it was what was going to happen.\n\nThere's a lot that could be said about the beginning of Henry's relationship with Anne Boleyn, so I'm just going to skip to the relevant part - he wanted to marry her for her, and also came to believe that God was signaling the invalidity and sinfulness of his marriage by not giving him an unproblematic male heir. It's not that he refused to pass the throne to a female one, but that wasn't really seen as normal or preferable. (And this is why Anne's eventual failure to give him a male heir was also part of *her* downfall - not \"I need a son or there's nobody to inherit the kingdom\" but \"obviously this is a bad marriage too or I would have a son\".) This conflicted with the pope's refusal to grant the annulment, which was on the basis that there was no impediment to Henry's marriage to Katherine (since the one impediment had been dispensed).\n\nSo declaring the Act of Supremacy 1534 justified or unjustified depends on one's perspective. From one viewpoint, the pope's refusal went against God's will and therefore made it right for Henry to break from this illegitimate church; from another, Henry should have allowed the pope to interpret God's will for him and not asserted that he was better equipped to know what was correct. There is no objective determination here."
]
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529jgd | how do ants coordinate their efforts to make little ant megastructures? | Do they have a little ant foreman and little ant hardhats?
I'm especially curious about the weaver ant species that lives in trees, and make a sort of hive thing out of leaves and ant goop. | explainlikeimfive | https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/529jgd/eli5_how_do_ants_coordinate_their_efforts_to_make/ | {
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"Actually, yeah. There are ant-related species where a foreman can show up and roughen up a worker for slacking off.\n\nTo quote Wikipedia:\n\n > Ants communicate with each other using pheromones, sounds, and touch. ... Like other insects, ants perceive smells with their long, thin, and mobile antennae. The paired antennae provide information about the direction and intensity of scents. Since most ants live on the ground, they use the soil surface to leave pheromone trails that may be followed by other ants. In species that forage in groups, a forager that finds food marks a trail on the way back to the colony; this trail is followed by other ants, these ants then reinforce the trail when they head back with food to the colony. When the food source is exhausted, no new trails are marked by returning ants and the scent slowly dissipates. This behaviour helps ants deal with changes in their environment. For instance, when an established path to a food source is blocked by an obstacle, the foragers leave the path to explore new routes. If an ant is successful, it leaves a new trail marking the shortest route on its return. Successful trails are followed by more ants, reinforcing better routes and gradually identifying the best path.\n > \n > Ants use pheromones for more than just making trails. A crushed ant emits an alarm pheromone that sends nearby ants into an attack frenzy and attracts more ants from farther away. Several ant species even use \"propaganda pheromones\" to confuse enemy ants and make them fight among themselves. Pheromones are produced by a wide range of structures including Dufour's glands, poison glands and glands on the hindgut, pygidium, rectum, sternum, and hind tibia. Pheromones also are exchanged, mixed with food, and passed by trophallaxis, transferring information within the colony. This allows other ants to detect what task group (e.g., foraging or nest maintenance) other colony members belong to. In ant species with queen castes, when the dominant queen stops producing a specific pheromone, workers begin to raise new queens in the colony.\n > \n > Some ants produce sounds by stridulation, using the gaster segments and their mandibles. Sounds may be used to communicate with colony members or with other species.\n\n\nDespite what sci-fi teaches us, there is no actual hive mind. The individual ants simply follow their instincts as to what the group is doing. Humans are not dissimilar that way."
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20yqp9 | How is energy conserved in radiative pressure? | So, I've been reading a little online about solar sails and whatnot and one thing that I haven't been able to understand is how energy is conserved when a photon bounces off. Does it redshift or something to make up for the extra kinetic energy imparted to the sail? | askscience | http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/20yqp9/how_is_energy_conserved_in_radiative_pressure/ | {
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"Yes, indeed it does. You can think of the light being re-emitted by the now-moving object, it's emitted at a lower energy relative to the initial frame of the object, because of the Doppler shift.",
"Yes. In fact, the [Compton effect](_URL_0_) is a well understood phenomenon that describes this very phenomenon.\nIn short, if one scatters a photon off of a stationary electron the electron will start to move, and the photon will be scattered through some angle. If one checks the difference in wavelength of the photon after scattering and before, the wavelength shift will correspond exactly to the (kinetic) energy imparted to the electron during the scattering event."
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3fmeh4 | Why did Germany keep so many men at the Eastern Front during the first World War when they were crushing Russia already and the Western Front needed the extra men so badly? | AskHistorians | http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/3fmeh4/why_did_germany_keep_so_many_men_at_the_eastern/ | {
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"Hiya! I'm not a professional historian but I do know a bit about the German armed forces (called \"Deutsches Heer\" at the time) during WW1.\n\nSo from what little information I know & what I can gather from some quick last minute research is this... \n\nAs we know Germany was fighting a two front war in WW1, which was a worry of the Kaiser's from as early as 1894 with the Franco-Russian Alliance. Britain had seen France & Russia as potential enemies at one point, however decides to ally with both of them to secure her empire in 1904 (Entente Cordiale with France) & 1907 (Anglo-Russian Entente) respectively forming the The Triple Entente.\nThis new & unlikely friendship between the allied powers heightened Germany's fear of encirclement and deepened the divide among the European powers. Imperial rifts worsened these divisions and tensions. When Germany tried to oppose a French takeover of Morocco, Britain supported France. Even though it was basically Germany's fault for this shakeup because unification in 1871 had a big effect on Europe (Because of Bismarck's \"Realpolitik\" policy to unite the German states as one, I think preferably in his mind as \"Kleindeutschland\" or \"Lesser/Smaller Germany\" which would exclude Austria, because both Prussia & Austria were big powers and big contenders for the question as to how & who would run Germany, this is known as \"The German Question\")\n\nNow we've got some background covered, I can try & attempt to answer your question; Germany were often successful in planning an executing their military operations, however if Europe was a casino, Germany would be placing big money on the two-front war & Austria-Hungary (A-H) as an ally. When it came to the two front war, Germany as I stated above were often successful more surprisingly on the eastern front (to begin with) than the western front. However Germany's other gamble the one with A-H went wrong. Niall Ferguson makes the claim that \"the gamble went wrong\" Germany had to divert their troops from the Western front & some areas of the eastern front to help support A-H. Germany was in no way prepared or really equipped to be doing this however does it anyways to help out it's ally.\n\"The Germans did not have a strategy as is confirmed by [Erich] Ludendorff's erratic behaviour & sometimes inconsiderate actions during WW1\" Hew Strachan argues that \"for Ludendorff, If a breakthrough could be effected then strategy could follow\".\nAn example that I could find of this poor strategy was \"The 1918 Spring Offensive\" also known as Kaiserschlacht (Kaiser's Battle), The Ludendorff Offensive & The Michael Offensive. Germany was pushing forwards through the weakest part of French & British lines in northern France, heading towards Paris, Germany gained masses of territory within a few weeks. Anyone would mistakenly think Germany's en route to victory, they were not. Though Germany had gained, they had no way of supplying resources for their army due to bailing out A-H. Because Germany were being pushed to the limits, it was easy for them to be attacked on both fronts.\nW.B. Yeats' Poem \"The Second Coming\") speaks retrospectively on the atmosphere of Europe during & after WW1. Yeats describes the German leaders mindsets as \"the worst are full of passionate intensity\", this passionate intensity could be seen as a reason for the signing of the \"Treaty of Brest-Litovsk\" between the Central powers (The Triple alliance & Bulgaria & Turkey) & Bolshevik Russia, the same treaty that got Russia out of WW1 because of revolution.\nSo hopefully this answers your question, it was fun & insightful researching everything for this answer.\n\nSources: \n\n\"The War of the World\" - Niall Ferguson\n\n\"The First World War: A New History\" - Hew Strachan\n\n\"The Pity Of War\" - Niall Ferguson\n\n\"The Eastern Front 1914-1917\" - Norman Stone\n\nIf you interested in learning more about Bismarck himself, The German Question & the process of German unification then I'd recommend Johnathan Steinberg's \"Bismarck: A Life\"\n"
]
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25n0xv | The Vikings who invaded England in the 800s were from Denmark. The Juts were from Jutland (also Denmark), and they arrived in England in ~410 AD. Did they realize that they are the same people? | [The Jutes settled in SE England.](_URL_1_) [The Vikings who came to England came from modern-day Denmark.](_URL_0_)
However, they seemed to have been not aware that they are the same poeple, and that they've only been removed from one another for ~4 centuries. This is like an Argentinian visiting Spain, IMHO.
I believe that the Juts who came to England were probably upper-middleclass, because they were politically affiliated with the Romans. Moreover, they had the wealth and motivation to move to Modern-Day England.
However, the Vikings were peasant farmers looking for adventure and economic opportunity. Perhaps this was a source of bickering.
Did they know of each other's origins?
Could they communicate with each other? | AskHistorians | http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/25n0xv/the_vikings_who_invaded_england_in_the_800s_were/ | {
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"What makes you think they were unaware? Why would they have preserved the story of the Beowulf, for instance, if they thought it was some other people's myth?\n\nBut there was no single 'Danish' people in 400 or in 800; it only became a consolidated kingdom later. The Beowulf itself also attests to that, if one looks at the very many subdivisions of Danes listed in it (Ring-Danes, Spear-Danes, North-Danes, South-Danes, West-Danes, Scyldings, etc, etc) You're dealing with tribes here, not nationalities in the present-day sense. Post migration, there was not much distinction made between Angles, Jutes and Saxons either, hence \"Ænglisc\" (\"Anglish\"/English) ended being used as a collective term for the Germanic language used, regardless if spoken by former Jutes, Angles or Saxons. But there was more than enough time for the Anglo-Saxons in Britain to develop their own distinct identity. \n\nThe question of whether Old English and Old Norse were mutually intelligible is the subject of some academic debate. It's not easy to quantify such a thing in any case - it can depends a lot on who is listening and how much attention they're paying. But there's no way they'd not notice the languages were closely related - many words were simply identical: _man_, _hand_, _hus_ (house), or had changes that were fairly regular: _dead_, _read_ (red), _bread_ in Old English is _dauðr_, _rauðr_, _brauð_ in Old Norse. \n\n",
"Saying they were the \"same people\" might be a bit of an exaggeration. /u/Platypuskeeper goes into some detail on the facts of language, and tribes rather than countries, but there's also the fact that as you say, these men were ~400 years removed from their \"homeland\" in Denmark. That's longer than the vast majority of settlers in the new world have been removed from their previous homelands, but you'd hardly call an average American \"English\" or \"German.\" The culture of England by the 800s was fairly different than that of the Danes who were raiding and invading in the same period- the Anglo-Saxons had been Christianized for a time and were somewhat more integrated into \"Christendom\" than the pagan Vikings raiding their shores. The fact that they were the \"same people\" (which, again, is something of an overstatement after 4 centuries of separate development- about as much time as it had been since England or Gaul were \"Roman,\" at that time) likely wouldn't have been relevant. There were inter-tribal conflicts in the pagan lands between groups far more similar to one another than the Vikings and the Anglo-Saxons."
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21i3wv | how do creditors resolve debts if a debtor with no next-of-kin dies? | Also, what if the debtor's owned properties fall short of resolving most of the debt? | explainlikeimfive | http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/21i3wv/eli5how_do_creditors_resolve_debts_if_a_debtor/ | {
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"Question 1: They have a claim against his estate and assets up to the amount they are owed. Next of kin doesn't factor in, they'll get their money.\n\nQuestion 2: They get screwed for the rest. Lending is a tough business and getting screwed is a real possibility.",
"If the debtor dies their next-of-kin are never responsible for the debt. The Creditors can liquidate any estate or assets of the dead, but if that does not equal what is owed then they take the loss."
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uekyh | what are the strengths and weaknesses of macs vs pcs? (objectively, please) | explainlikeimfive | http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/uekyh/eli5_what_are_the_strengths_and_weaknesses_of/ | {
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"A weird thing that rarely gets mentioned in these writeups, but is very important, professionally speaking: Macs give you a Unix environment. Steve Jobs didn't invent that; he just co-opted an existing OS. In fact, it's kind of funny how he unceremoniously chucked out the old OS and threw in with the old/new, as if conceding it was better all along. But, having done that, Macs are now aligned w/the classic academic computing OS, w/the added peripheral and built-in provider support that comes w/having such a large market share. ",
"Macs tend to \"just work\", without a lot of hassles. But you have to do things the Mac way.\n\nPC are cheaper, have more software written for them and a greater variety of peripherals. They let you do anything you want, including shooting yourself in the foot.\n\nPut another way:\n\nMacs make easy things easy and hard things impossible.\n\nPC's make easy things hard, and hard things a little harder.",
"Macs are custom designed to work with a smaller set of hardware and software. So more attention is given to details that are hard to enforce in an open, generic platform. However, inevitably, Apple is stuck with a smaller number of vendors who can therefore exert price pressure and ultimately cause the machine cost to be highly marked up.\n\nWindows main selling point is the high degree of backwards compatibility and openness. There is a high onus on independent developers to provide all the quality of their solution by themselves. Since Microsoft does not have any real method of enforcement of any quality standards (other than minor incentives such as the \"Windows logo\" program) you get solutions with quite varied quality. On the other hand the more open market place tends to create fair and correct pricing for third party hardware and software.\n\nSo there is a common conception that Mac's tend to crash less and \"just work\" more and that Windows tends to be flakey, insecure and more difficult to use. Windows machines tend to be much cheaper than Macs.",
"I would just like to point out that all modern desktops would be called PCs. PC simply means personal computer, and has no regards to OS.\n\nThat said, I assume you mean the differences between OSX and Windows.\n\nOSX\n\nPros: Cool design, viruses are less common because of the smaller population size(they do exist though), and generally friendlier usability for simple tasks.\n\nCons: HOLY BALLS PRICE. Seriously. Give me the money you spend on a brand new Mac, and I'll buy you a top of the line Windows machine for half the price that can do everything the Mac could. Apple charges 2 or 3 times(sometimes more) what Newegg, TigerDirect, or other wholesaler type websites would. Oh and customer support usually isn't free. Software on Macs is harder to find. Because of the smaller population size again, most older software wasn't made cross-platform cause there was no reason to. Nowadays it's a little better, but you will still have difficulty finding the correct software for your needs. Games especially are notorious for being Windows only. Lack of ability to do some of the things Windows does without using third-party tools. If you like having lots of choice/tools, Macs are probably not for you. \n\nWindows\n\nPros: Price, easier to find what software you need, and some additional complexity/layers if you take the time to learn. Customer service is generally better than Apple's in my experience. (You're dealing directly with ASUS, AMD, Sapphire, or whatever other company's product you bought instead of the all-seeing all-knowing Apple) Loooooots of programs, applications, peripherals, and commands to do whatever you want. However, that comes with it's own dangers. Windows tends to give you all the tools, but doesn't really discriminate between good usage and bad usage of said tools.\n\nCons: Viruses are more common because of the market share of Windows.The complexity can dissuade people because they don't want to take the time to learn the arguably most important piece of technology in the world.\n\nIf you need a little more info, send a message or reply."
]
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[],
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9tj60h | How Nazi Germany got out of 1929 crisis? | So the other day in history class, teacher was explaining that the New Deal saved the USA from the 1929 crisis. And then I asked if the facists got inspiration in that program, mainly Nazi Germany. From documentaries on YouTube I learned that the facists made huge constructions across their countries and supported agriculture and industries. Like Spain and Portugal that did not participate in the war and saw their economies grow. The only main difference I find from the New Deal is that fascism is against the state welfare. Yet,she said that "it had another purpose than creating jobs and fascism is evil" and moved on. Now I'm really confused. So, how did Nazy Germany (and the other facists) got out of the crisis? | AskHistorians | https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/9tj60h/how_nazi_germany_got_out_of_1929_crisis/ | {
"a_id": [
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"text": [
"There is a very good answer by /u/kieslowskifan here:\n\n_URL_0_"
]
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[
"https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/5ob42v/how_did_hitler_afford_all_of_the_public_works_all/dci28ls/"
]
] | |
1ul141 | why is it okay to have gender-discriminatory schools (all-boys/all-girls) when it is a huge deal in education to assure racially diverse schools? | It's still a completely normal practice to have private schools that discriminate against a "protected class" which both gender and race qualify as. If someone tried to open an all-white or all-black private school there would be an uproar. THANKS! | explainlikeimfive | http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/1ul141/eli5_why_is_it_okay_to_have_genderdiscriminatory/ | {
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"Gender is not in the same legal category as race. Race is explicitly protected from discrimination in the constitution (a so-called \"suspect class\"), gender is not.",
"Different genders need to learn different things. In some cases, it's good for development, as there's minimal distraction. There's no logic besides racism to separate races. In fact, it open people up to different cultures. \n\nI went to an all boys prep school before high school and it was sort of nice not being distracted by girls. I diverted my attention towards my own interests and hobbies. "
]
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[],
[]
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2dp81j | why am i scared of heights in nearly any situation except when i am looking out the window of an airplane? | explainlikeimfive | http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/2dp81j/eli5_why_am_i_scared_of_heights_in_nearly_any/ | {
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"text": [
"Maybe because you are in a closed space, probably strapped in a seat, looking through a small window. There is no real feeling that you could fall down there.",
"When I first rode a plane for the first time I felt comfortable like I was at home I loved how they treated passengers. I had sat by the windows too also the same thing with roller coasters I have gotten use to riding them without my stomach hurting. But if I was to do a challenge like sky jump or something that's going completely out of my comfort zone ",
"Same for me actually. Its mostly because you don't really have the overwhelming sense that one wrong step will cause you to topple to your death.",
"My fear of heights becomes more severe the closer I am to being able to look straight down. Buildings, glass elevators, gondolas, all of them are pretty scary to me, and triggers a fear of falling.\n\nBut with an airplane, you almost never can look straight down, instead the view is limited to a gentle, outward angle, that is unable to trigger my fear.",
"You don't have a fear of heights.... You have a fear of falling\n"
]
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1xrrih | why did the hindenburg crash effectively stop the use of airships while the titanic crash didn't stop the use of ocean liners? | The Titanic crash cost far more lives (~1300 vs 36 according to Wikipedia), so how come airships weren't used as a form of transportation and ocean liners / cruisers didn't have the same problem? Also, why is it the same with the Concord? Is it inherently more unsafe? How could one event erase the previous service record of the entire mode of transport, yet not so for ships? | explainlikeimfive | http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/1xrrih/eli5_why_did_the_hindenburg_crash_effectively/ | {
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"Sea travel had a far longer history than air travel, and at the time there was no alternative to travelling by boat (via the sea). Whereas with air travel, the airplane was an alternative. ",
"1) because WWII started 2 years after the Hindenburg blew up and civilian air travel stopped for the duration of the war.\n\n2) By the end of the war aircraft and jet engine technology has matured to the point where airplane travel is vastly better than anything Airships can offer. In contrast, when the Titanic went down, people still took ships because there was simply nothing else available for long distance travel.\n\nEDIT: Also, operating the Hindenburg is expensive, it can only carry 72 passengers, required a crew of 10 to operate and a trans-atlantic crossing took 4 days. A 1958 Boeing 707 can seat 150 passengers, required a crew of 4, and can fly from New York to London in 12 hours.",
"Mankind has been sailing on boats since time immemorial. No single boat accident is going to change our opinion of boating. The risks are well understood & accepted.\n\nAirships were still new at the time of the Hindenburg. The accident showed everyone just how dangerous they were & nobody wanted to continue taking those risks.\n\nLet's say you've got an old friend. A guy you grew up with & have known for 20+ years. He gets drunk at a party and breaks a lamp. You know he doesn't normally do this shit, so you let it slide. If somebody you just met last week broke a lamp, you wouldn't invite him back.",
"There wasn't anything at the time to replace ocean liners. Powered flight was new, expensive and dangerous. \n\nIn the end though both industries were basically killed by powered flight. After the Second World War airlines started to use a lot of powered flight to move passengers around, the prices dropped, safety increased and using airships or ocean liners just became too much of a hassle. ",
"Airships have *never* been a satisfactory mode of travel, even if they WEREN'T filled with highly-flammable hydrogen.\n\nThe Hindenburg fire didn't END the use of airships, they were still in service here and there up until about 1950. The Hindenburg *did* point up just how stupid it was to fill the damn thing with hydrogen instead of helium, but helium was scarce and expensive in those days.\n\nThe problem with airships in general (and the reason the frequently-announced \"return of airships\" will never happen) is that they're just too unstable and too subject to the elements. Modern airlines can fly right through weather that would turn an airship into a pile of debris on the ground.\n\nThe Concorde accident *also* did not end the program. The Concorde died because it was *horrendously* expensive to fly, held too few passengers, and could not fly at supersonic speeds over land due to the sonic boom issue. It cost too much for too little return.\n\n\n\n"
]
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6gv7xg | How would you measure the speed of light using typical household appliances and materials? | askscience | https://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/6gv7xg/how_would_you_measure_the_speed_of_light_using/ | {
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"There are some DIY experiments you can do at home, like [this one](_URL_0_), which will allow you to measure the speed of light.",
"You take a chocolate bar and a microwave and microwave the bar for a short time period.\nYou will see 2 points where the chocolate is melted.\nThe distance between them is a half of the wavelength.\nIn the manual of the microwave you will find the frequency which is about 2.45 GHz.\n\nWith the formula [; c = \\lambda \\times f ;]\nYou can calculate the speed of light since microwaves are electromagnetic wave, so something like low energy light.",
"The Fizeau-Foucault apparatus used a mirror to reflect light through gear teeth. The light would pass through the gaps, reflect and then pass through the gaps again. By spinning the gear and measuring the speed of the gear when the light was blocked and the distance to the mirror he was able to determine the speed of light.\n\n_URL_0_"
]
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"http://imgur.com/gallery/uiwcv"
],
[],
[
"https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fizeau%E2%80%93Foucault_apparatus"
]
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3c8xoh | I have a referencing question, using the Chicago style, hopefully this is the right place to ask it... | First things first, I am studying History at university level, and this is the first time I've come across this problem. I have searched around a little for an answer, and haven't found one - *how do I quote an inscription using the Chicago style?* The inscription in question is from the tomb of Rekhmire in Thebes.
.Should I reference it as though it were a quote within a book (as in, John Smith, as quoted in Blanky Blanks, *book title, etc*) or as though it were its own source, ie, *An inscription, from the tomb of Rekhmire, Vizier to Tuthmosis III, Thebes*?
.Thanks in advance, and if I'm in the wrong place I'm sorry (in advance as well)! | AskHistorians | http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/3c8xoh/i_have_a_referencing_question_using_the_chicago/ | {
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"There is a /r/askacademia sub that you might find useful!\n\nAre you doing the translation yourself? If not, site the book you found the translation in.",
"I've got about a decade of University press editorial work under my belt, almost all using *Chicago*, so I may be of help here. Bearing in mind that the purpose of a citation is to permit another person to follow your work, then what is of paramount importance is where you found it--the closest you can track it to the original source *and still evaluate it yourself*. Don't cite the original alone unless you have actually seen the object or a direct image (even transcription is out on this); instead cite it through the closest you've been able to get to that. The reason is that some translations may be dodgy or incomplete, and it is important for someone following your evidentiary trail to know where you got that translation or transcription. \n\nIf you've read it in a [source]book, then it's a source or other contribution in an edited volume. If it's an encyclopedia, follow that style. If it's a partial quotation in some other piece of writing, give the original citation information as closely as you can (and there is often some invention here, though in 16th ed., section 14.263 governs the general principles for Classical inscriptions, but you can usually follow the principles in some way appropriate to the material in question) followed by a comma, *quoted in* [the citation and location where you directly read it in *Chicago* style]. They now frown on using secondary cites (the \"quoted in\" model, see 14.273) especially when you don't have anything before \"quoted in,\" but if it's as close as you can get, it's more honest than citing something you haven't or can't actually read.\n\nWith a lot of unusual primary sources, you end up doing some invention, but it's important to be consistent and reasonably conforming to the *Chicago Manual*. Talk to your supervising faculty member and see what they have to say; they may actually have a preference or may have run into this before."
]
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[],
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20vspb | What was the relevance of what someone wore in Sengoku era japan and did any Daimyo outfit any of their troops with a kind of Uniform. | During the Sengoku Jidai what was the relevance of ones clothing. Did clothing show rank or status for example. Were certain colours used for certain occasions or classes of people. Also with armour did certain crests of colours have any significant meaning?
Also did any Daimyo ever outfit there troops with any kind of uniform I know many didn't and troops in Japan did not tend to be uniformly equipped and clothes. I have read lots of Daimyo would provide their Ashigaru with armour but Samurai tended to wear their own. "Red Fire Unit" of Yamagata Masakage wore red armour to strike fear into their opponents Ii Naomasa later did the same thing with his "The Red Devils." inspired by Yamagata. That could be considered a uniform I guess but are there other examples.
I realise this is quite a broad question so please be as broad as you want with your answers. Anything about what people wore both on and off the battlefield would be intresting to me. Also if you wish to expand beyond the Sengoku Jidai and go into other periods such as Edo or Heian that would be great too.
Thank you | AskHistorians | http://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/20vspb/what_was_the_relevance_of_what_someone_wore_in/ | {
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"During the Sengoku period some daimyo did outfit their troops with a kind of uniform. As you noted, Yamagata and Ii used the color red. Sanada Yukimura also used the color red. Date Masamune used the color black and made his troops wear black colored body armor, the Sendai-do (仙台胴). You can google image this word and it will show you some examples. \nThe Hojo clan of Odawara used 5 colors: white, black, red, blue, and yellow. Troops under the command of Hojo Tsunashige famously used the color yellow and the banner of Earth Yellow Hachiman. Troops under a different samurai leader would use another color.\nBut this was rare. Samurai came out of a very individualistic honor culture, and one of the ways to stand out was to wear unique and eye-catching clothing. Thus uniforms in the Sengoku period was rare, particularly among the higher ranking samurai.\nMany foot soldiers tended to borrow the lord's armor and these armors had the lord's crest emblazoned on them, so that was another way to tell which side a soldier was on."
]
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[]
] | |
13v6bh | If the solar system were to survive Andromeda–Milky Way collision and flung into deep space, what effect would it have on the solar system if it were not part of a galaxy? | Assuming the Solar system is intact when the collision happens and comes out unscathed. Would the solar sytem existing out of a galaxy have any major changes? | askscience | http://www.reddit.com/r/askscience/comments/13v6bh/if_the_solar_system_were_to_survive/ | {
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"There would be no difference except for the sky at night, which would be dark.",
"\nThis event has a high probability (from 12% to 50%) but it will have no impact on earth or the solar system.\n\nSources : \n\n* _URL_2_\n* _URL_0_\n* _URL_1_",
"Night time would become very dark but very pretty.",
"I would imagine that our greatest concern would be disturbances in the Oort cloud causing a storm of new comets in the solar system.",
"If things got bs enough to fling the solar system out of re galaxy, would the solar system really hold together? ",
"For the effect of life on earth, the collision is estimated to happen [in around 4 billion years](_URL_1_), while it's theorised that increasing solar luminosity [will make the Earth uninhabitable in 1-2 billion years](_URL_0_), with surface temperatures hot enough to melt rock by 3-4 billion years.\n\n",
"The spirit of your question has been discussed elsewhere, I just want to add that this \"collision\" isn't due to happen for some 5bn years. I'm rather confident that there will not even be archaeological evidence of the human species at that time let alone a human civilization. ",
"As I've mentioned before, as this question is asked once every month of so -- if we were to leave the Galaxy, we would be bombarded with fewer cosmic rays, as they are trapped by the Galactic magnetic field. The atmosphere stops most of them from hitting earth and causing cancer, but some do get through. Main effect: flight attendants would be allowed to fly more hours."
]
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[],
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"http://www.universetoday.com/1604/when-our-galaxy-smashes-into-andromeda-what-happens-to-the-sun/",
"http://fr.arxiv.org/abs/0705.1170",
"http://www.newscientist.com/article/dn11852"
],
[],
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"http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Future_of_the_Earth#Ocean-free_era",
"http://ww... | |
38ytzf | how does the smartphone camera know how much to auto-zoom to focus? | does it emit some sort of electromagnetic wave to the target source to assess the distance? | explainlikeimfive | http://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/38ytzf/eli5_how_does_the_smartphone_camera_know_how_much/ | {
"a_id": [
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"text": [
"Two main ways, contrast detection of phase-detection. \n \nContrast detection is the most common. Contrast is the difference between white and black. When focusing, your camera first determines what it should focus on, which is another discussion. Once the subject is chosen, it runs through its different amounts of focus until it finds the focus distance that produces the best contrast, which is when the subject is sharpest. \n \nFor phase detection, which is the best (mostly in pro cameras) the light coming through the lens is split up and compared, when they match up, that's when the subject is sharpest. \n \nLaser autofocus is also used, this is when you see that red light, like with cheaper consumer cameras. This works like sonar, the distance it takes for the light to reflect back is used to determine the distance of the subject."
]
} | [] | [] | [
[]
] | |
797hq2 | why does the cia choose to reveal sensitive information about major investigations after many years of the case being closed? | explainlikeimfive | https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/797hq2/eli5_why_does_the_cia_choose_to_reveal_sensitive/ | {
"a_id": [
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"text": [
"The CIA are not the ones releasing this. There was legislation passed in the 90’s requiring the Kennedy files to be released this year"
]
} | [] | [] | [
[]
] |
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