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Kawasaki disease is associated with all of the following clinical features except - | [
"Truncal rash",
"Posterior cervical lymphadenopathy",
"Thrombocytopenia",
"Conjunctivitis"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Second most common neoplasm seen in children is- | [
"Lymphoma",
"Brain tumour",
"Wilm's tumour",
"Neuroblastoma"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Brain tumour | train | med_mcqa | null |
True statement about transgenic mice - | [
"Developed from DNA insertion into fertilized egg",
"Have same genome as parents except one or more genes",
"Homozygous are selected",
"All of these"
] | D | Transgenic mice are generated by pronuclear injection of foreign DNA into fertilized mouse oocytes and subsequent transfer into the oviduct of pseudopregnant foster mothers.
This process of generating transgenic animal would alter germ cell lines and be passed on to offsprings. So, the transgenic animals have the same genome as parents except for few (1 or more) genes that have been integrated or inactivated.
This replacement of one gene in embryonic stem cell creates a heterozygous transgenic animals. The mating in 2 such animals will result in 25% homozygous offsprings. Careful breeding will establish a transgenic line in which all animals are homozygous for new genes. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is maximally associated with hea disease | [
"HDL",
"LDL",
"VLDL",
"Chylomicrons"
] | B | Serum cholesterol as a risk factor for CHD It is nearly three decades since it became clear that elevation of serum cholesterol was one of the factors which carried an increased risk for the development of myocardial infarction. Today, there is a vast body of evidence showing a triangular relationship between habitual diet, blood cholesterol-lipoprotein levels and CHD, and that these relationships are judged to be causal. There is no population, in which CHD is common, that does not also have a relatively high mean level of cholesterol (i.e. greater than 200 mg/di in adults), which shows the cultural differences in serum cholesterol levels between two countries. Among Japan and Finland, Japan having the lowest incidence and Finland the highest incidence of CHD. The strength of the dietary-fat hypothesis is that observations in the Seven Countries Study (among others) fitted it well that is, the Japanese had low fat diets, low serum cholesterol and low incidence of CHD while the East Fins were at the other extreme. The weakness of the hypothesis is that studies of individuals have not shown such a relationship. This has been attributed to genetic and dietary intake differences between individuals. When we look at the various types of. lipoproteins, it is the level of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol that is most directly associated with CHD. While very low- density lipoprotein (VLDL) has also been shown to be associated with premature atherosclerosis, it is more strongly associated with peripheral vascular disease (e.g., intermittent claudication) than with CHD. High-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol is protective against the development of CHD- the higher its mean level in a group of individuals, the lower the incidence of infarction in that group. HDL should be more than 40 mg/dl. To fuher refine CHD risk prediction based on serum lipid levels, a total "cholesterol/HDL ratio" has been developed. A ratio of less than 3.5 has been recommended as a clinical goal for CHD prevention. With newer techniques, high-density and low-density lipoproteins have been fuher subdivided into sub-fractions. Recent evidence indicates that levels of plasma apolipoprotein-A-1 (the major HDL protein) and apolipoprotein-B (the major LDL protein) are better predictors of CHD than HDL cholesterol or LDL cholesterol respectively. Therefore, measurement of apolipoproteins may replace lipoprotein cholesterol determinations in assessing the risk of CHD Ref: Park 25th edition Pgno : 387 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following statements about Pulse deficit in Atrial Fibrillation are true , except: | [
"Usually more than 10/minute",
"Increases with faster ventricular rates",
"May be absent in digitalis intoxication",
"Radial pulse rate may be more than ventricular pulse rate"
] | D | Answer is D (Radial pulse rate may be more than ventricular pulse rate) The radial pulse rate is always lower than the ventricular pulse rate. Pulse deficit refers to the difference between the radial pulse rate and the hea rate counted by auscultation (Apical Ventricular Rate). Pulse deficit is produced when ventricular contractions are preceded by sho diastoles such that poor ventricular filling results in insufficient stroke volume to transmit the pressure wave out to the radial pulse. The radial pulse rate is always lower than the ventricular pulse rate. Pulse Deficit in Atrial Fibrillation Atrial fibrillation is the most common cause of pulse deficit (Pulse deficit has traditionally been believed to be a classical bedside sign for diagnosis of atrial fibrillation) Pulse deficit in Atrial Fibrillation is often more than 10 per minute. Pulse deficit in atrial fibrillation is greater when the ventricular rate is high Pulse deficit in atrial fibrillation may be absent in patients with slow ventricular rate (<50) If a digitalized patient with a prior diagnosis of chronic atrial fibrillation presents with a perfectly regular pulse, one should suspect digitalis intoxication with a regular nodal rhythm and atrioventricular dissociation. (Note that in this form of 'regularized' atrial fibrillation, the apical- radial pulse deficit also disappears.) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Time period between occurrence of osteosarcoma following radiation therapy: | [
"1 year",
"3 years",
"5 years",
"10 years"
] | D | D i.e. 10 yearsRef: Diagnostic Pathology: Bone, By G. Petur Nielsen, Andrew E Rosenberg, 2nd edition, pageExplanation:Post-radiation OsteosarcomaLatent period from radiation is long: Median 11 years.Rarely as little as 2 years.Latency inversely related to radiation dose.OsteosarcomaThe X-ray appearances are variable.Hazy osteolytic areas may alternate with unusually dense osteoblastic areas.The endosteal margin is poorly defined.Often the cortex is breached and the tumour extends into the adjacent tissues; when this happens, streaks of new bone appear, radiating outwards from the cortex - the so-called 'sunburst' effect.Where the tumour emerges from the cortex, reactive new bone forms at the angles of periosteal elevation (Codman's triangle).While both the sunburst appearance and Codman's triangle are typical of osteosarcoma, they may occasionally be seen in other rapidly growing tumours.Risk Factors for OsteosarcomaFamilial cases where the deletion of chromosome '13q14' inactivates the retinoblastoma gene is associated with a high risk of osteosarcoma development.Bone dysplasias, including Paget's disease, fibrous dysplasia, enchondromatosis, and hereditary multiple exostoses, increase the risk of osteosarcoma.Li-Fraumeni syndrome (germline TP53 mutation) is a predisposing factor for osteosarcoma development.Rothmund-Thomson syndrome (i.e., autosomal recessive association of congenital bone defects, hair and skin dysplasias, hypogonadism and cataracts) is associated with increased risk of this disease.Bone irradiation.Note:Characteristic histologic finding of osteosarcoma:Bone forming tumor (osteo = bone).Presence of osteoid.Characteristic radiologic features:Codman's triangle.Sunburst appearance. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common primary malignant bone tumor - | [
"Osteosarcoma",
"Osteochondroma",
"Multiple myeloma",
"Osteoclastoma"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Multiple myeloma | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the vitamin deficiency lead to lactic acidosis? | [
"Riboflavin",
"Thiamin",
"Niacin",
"Panthotheic acid"
] | B | thiamine deficiency in alcoholism may cause impairment of conversion of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA the result is increased plasma concentration of pyruvate and lactate, leading to lactic acidosis ref DM Vasudevan 8th ed page 467 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following statements are true regarding neutrophil extracellular trap | [
"Produced by neutrophils in response to infectious pathogens and inflammatory mediators",
"Provide a high concentration of antimicrobial substances at sites of infection",
"Prevent the spread of the microbes by trapping them in the fibrils",
"All the above"
] | D | Ans. (d) All the above(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 81)Neutrophil extracellular traps (NETs) are extracellular fibrillar networks that provide a high concentration of antimicrobial substances at sites of infection and prevent the spread of the microbes by trapping them in the fibrils. They consist of a viscous meshwork of nuclear chromatin that binds and concentrates granule proteins such as antimicrobial peptides and enzymes | train | med_mcqa | null |
When gentamicin is given , its half life is 2-3 hours but it accumulates in kidney and its half life is prolonged to 53 hour. This half life is called as: | [
"Secondary half life",
"Terminal half life",
"Zero order half life",
"First order half life"
] | B | Terminal half life: With prolonged dosing (or with high drug concentrations), a drug may penetrate beyond the central compament into "deep" or secondary body compaments that equilibrate only slowly with the plasma. When the infusion or dosing stops, the drug will be initially cleared from plasma as expected but will eventually drop to a point at which net diffusion from the secondary compaments begins, and this slow equilibration will produce a prolongation of the half-life of the drug, referred to as the terminal half-life. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Nephrocalcinosis seen in all except: March 2005 | [
"Sarcoidosis",
"Acute pancreatitis",
"Hyperparathyroidism",
"Vitamin D intoxication"
] | B | Ans. B: Acute pancreatitis Primary hyperparathyroidism is single most common cause of nephrocalcinosis in adults Distal Renal Tubular Acidosis is second most common cause of medullary nephrocalcinosis - Both familial and secondary forms have high incidence - Contributing mechanisms are hypercalcemia, acidosis, and reduced excretion of citrate in the presence of increased urinary pH - Renal function is fairly well maintained Other causes of nephrocalcinosis are - Hypervitaminosis D due to treatment of hypoparathyroidism or self-administration of vitamins - Milk-alkali syndrome due to ingestion of milk or alkali for ulcer dyspepsia Sarcoidosis due to increased conversion of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol within the sarcoid granuloma - In children with hypophosphatemic rickets, nephrocalcinosis is increasingly being recognized as most common complication - Idiopathic hypercalciuria, one of the common metabolic diseases, also is known cause of nephrocalcinosis - Medullary sponge kidney is a common cause of medullary calcification in which calcium lies in ectatic collecting ducts rather than renal substance - Renal papillary necrosis associated with phenacetin-induced analgesic nephropathy is identified as calcified papillae rather than speckled pattern. - Rapidly progressive osteoporosis due to immobilization, menopause, senility, or steroids also may cause nephrocalcinosis - Hyperoxaluria, primary (familial) or secondary to increased intake of oxalates, enhanced absorption due to intestinal disease, or ingestion of ethylene glycol or methoxyflurane can induce medullary calcification | train | med_mcqa | null |
Least common site for berry aneurysm is - | [
"Veebral aery",
"Basilar aery",
"Junction of anterior cerebral aery and internal carotid aery",
"Posterior cerebral aery"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Veebral AeryBerry aneurysm The iiiher away the aneurysm from the anterior circulation or from the circle of willis , the less common will be its rate of occurance.o Berry aneurysm or Saccualr aneurysm or Congenital aneurysm is the most frequent type of intracranial aneurysm. o Most aneurysms occur in the anterior circulation and are found near the branchs points.o Most common site is junction between anterior cerebral aery and anterior communication aery (40%). o Next most common site is internal carotid aery and posterior communicating aery (20%) Less frequent sites include ?o Top of basilar aeryo Junction of basilar aery and the superior cerebllar aery or anterior inferior cerebellar aery.o Junction of veebral aery and posterior inferior cerebellar aery. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Incineration is: | [
"High temperature reduction process",
"Low temperature reduction process",
"High temperature oxidation process",
"Low temperature oxidation process"
] | C | INCINERATION
Incineration: Is a ‘high temperature dry oxidation’ process; It leads to significant reduction in waste-volume and weight (up to 70 – 80%).
Incineration does not require pre-treatment.
Biggest disadvantage of incineration: Generation of smoke.
Types of Incinerators:
– Double-chamber pyrolytic.
– Single-chamber pyrolytic.
– Rotary kilns.
Temperature in an incinerator:
– Primary chamber: 800° ± 50°C.
– Secondary chamber: 1050° ± 50°C. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Functional residual capacity represents the volume of air remaining in lungs | [
"After forceful expiration",
"After forceful inspiration",
"After normal inspiration",
"After normal expiration"
] | D | Functional residual capacity * Functional residual capacity is the volume of air remaining in the lungs after expiration of a normal breath * Normal value - 2.5 L * (Residual volume + Expiratory reserve volume) Ref:- Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology 25th ed; pg num:- 629 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Investigation of choice in discrete thyroid swellings | [
"USG",
"FNAC",
"Biopsy",
"RAI"
] | B | Ans. (b) FNACRef: Bailey and Love page 751/26th edition* Fine-needle aspiration cytology is the investigation of choice in discrete thyroid swellings* A discrete swelling in an otherwise impalpable gland is termed isolated or solitary, whereas the preferred term is dominant for a similar swelling in a gland with clinical evidence of generalised abnormality in the form of a palpable contralateral lobe or generalised mild nodularity.* About 70 per cent of discrete thyroid swellings are clinically isolated and about 30 per cent are dominant | train | med_mcqa | null |
A diabetic patient presents with fungal infection of sinuses and peri-orbital region with significant visual impairment. The best drug for treatment of this patient is: | [
"Amphotericin B",
"Itraconazole",
"Ketoconazole",
"Broad spectrum antibiotics"
] | A | Ans. (A) Amphotericin B(Ref: Harrison 18th/1663)The diagnosis is rhinocerebral mucormycosis.Mucormycosis typically occurs in patients with diabetes mellitus, solid organ or hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT), prolonged neutropenia, or malignancyAmphotericin B deoxycholate remains the only licensed antifungal agent for the treatment of mucormycosis. However, lipid formulations of AMB are significantly less nephrotoxic, can be administered at higher doses, and may be more efficacious than AMB deoxycholate for this purpose. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Test for malabsorption syndrome is all except? | [
"D- Xylose absorption test",
"Fecal fat estimation",
"Urine aminoaciduria",
"Breath Hydrogen test"
] | C | D- Xylose absorption test: Mucosal disease in Small Intestine Fecal Fat animation: Steatorrhea Breath Hydrogen test: Carbohydrate malabsorption Urine aminoaciduria: Fanconi Syndrome | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cross section of K-flex file is: (OR) K-flex file is traditionally made form | [
"Rhomboidal",
"Circular",
"Spiral",
"Double helix"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hyperventilation before drowning : | [
"Can cause death",
"Does not alter the process of drowning",
"Can cause delayed death",
"Can cause secondary drowning"
] | D | D i.e. Can cause secondary drowning | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 30 year old man came at the outpatient depament because he had suddenly developed double vision. On examination it was found that his right eye, when at rest was turned medially. The most likely anatomical structures involved are: | [
"Medial rectus and superior division of oculomotor nerve",
"Inferior oblique and inferior division of oculomotor nerve",
"Lateral rectus and abducent nerve",
"Superior rectus and trochlear nerve"
] | C | Ans. Lateral rectus and abducent nerve | train | med_mcqa | null |
The drug which is a specific inhibitor of the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase and is useful in the treatment of methanol and ethylene glycol poisoning is: | [
"Disulfiram",
"Ethylene glycol",
"Calcium leucovorin",
"Fomepizole"
] | D | Fomepizole (4-methylpyrazole) is a specific inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase and the drug of choice for methanol poisoning by retarding its metabolism. A loading dose of 15 mg/kg i.v. followed by 10 mg/kg every 12 hours till serum methanol falls below 20 mg/dl, has been found effective and safe. It has several advantages over ethanol, viz. longer t 1/2 and lack of inebriating action, but is not available commercially in India. | train | med_mcqa | null |
DNS may be associated with all the following except: | [
"Recurrent sphenoiditis",
"Acute otitis media",
"Hyperophy of the inferior turbinate",
"Recurrent maxillary sinusitis"
] | A | In deted nasal septum, the nasal chamber on the concave side of the nasal septum is wide and shows compensatory hyperophy of turbinates and not atrophy. The sphenoid sinus opens in the sphenoethmoid recess near the roof of nasal cavity and this opening is not affected by DNS. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The oculomotor and trochlear nerve passes through | [
"The superior orbital fissure",
"The inferior orbital fissure",
"The optic canal",
"None of the above"
] | A | Ans. (a) The superior orbital fissureRef : A.K. Khurana 6th ed. / 337, BDC 4th ed. Vol III, pg 25-6Superior orbital fissureInferior orbital fissureInferior orbital fissure* Occulomotor nerve* Abducent nerve* Nasociliary nerve* Lacrimal nerve* Frontal nerve* Trochlear nerve* Superior ophthalmic vein* Inferior ophthalmic vein* Zygomatic nerve* Maxillary nerve* Infraorbital vessel* Emissary vein *Optic nerve* Ophthalmic artery | train | med_mcqa | null |
The eye condition for which the World bank assistance was provided to the National Programme for Control of Blindness (1994-2001) is – | [
"Cataract",
"Refractive errors",
"Trachoma",
"Vitamin A deficiency"
] | A | World Bank provides assistance to NPCB for control of cataract.
World Bank assisted cataract blindness control project was launched in 1994. Its aim was to reduce the cataract back log in 7 states which were identified to have the highest prevalence of cataract blindness. It has been proposed to perform 1.1 crore cataract operations during the project period 1994-2001. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Passavant ridge is formed by- | [
"Tensor veli palatini and superior constrictor",
"Palatopharyngeous and superior constrictor",
"Palatopharyngeous and inferior constrictor",
"Palatoglossus and superior constrictor"
] | B | Some of the upper fibres of the palatopharyngeus pass circularly deep to the mucous membrane of the pharynx and form a sphincter internal to the superior constrictor.
These fibres constitute Passavant's muscle which on contraction raises a ridge called the Passavant's ridge on the posterior wall of the nasopharynx. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the prosthetic group of the enzyme ALA dehydratase? | [
"Zinc",
"Copper",
"Lead",
"Magnesium"
] | A | ALA dehydratase is a zinc metalloprotein. Option c - Lead inhibits ALA dehydratase. -Additional information: List of zinc containing enzymes: Carbonic anhydrase Carboxy peptidase Alcohol dehydrogenase Alkaline phosphatase Lactate dehydrogenase ALA dehydratase Glutamate dehydrogenase Superoxide dismutase Phospholipase C RNA polymerase | train | med_mcqa | null |
Muscles used in normal walk during DIstance and swing: | [
"Popliteus",
"Gastrocnemius",
"Tibialis anterior",
"Iliopsoas"
] | B | Gastrocnemius | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 36-year-old woman presents with headache, backache, epigastric fullness, and decreased sexual desire. She has lost -2.5 kg over the past 3 years, and her appetite is otherwise normal. Her husband had a major vehicular accident 8 years back. Which of the following diagnoses best describes the mental status of this patient? | [
"Depersonalization disorder",
"Adjustment disorder and depression",
"Somatization disorder",
"Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)"
] | C | Ans. c (Somatization disorder), (Ref. Psychiatry by Niraj Ahuja 7th ed. 125, 197)SOMATIZATION DISORDERA history of many physical complaints beginning before age 30 years that occur over a period of several years and result in treatment being sought or significant impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning. Each of the following criteria must have been met, with individual symptoms occurring at any time during the course of the disturbance:1. Four pain symptoms2. Two gastrointestinal symptoms3. One sexual symptom4. One pseudoneurologic symptom. All the symptoms are not intentionally produced or feigned.Post traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)Delayed and protracted response to an exceptionally stressful or catastrophic situation or life event which causes pervasive distress in almost any person (e.g. natural calamities/disasters, wars, rape, torture or serious accident). It is characterized by recurrent and intrusive recollections of stressful event either in flashbacks or dreams. Associated sense of experiencing of stressful event with anxiety and increased arousal. Partial amnesia, feeling of numbness and anhedonia.Depersonalization disorderIt is a dissociative disorder, diagnosed when patients report feeling detached from their mental processes or body (e.g. feelings as if they are in dream), however patient accurately report who they are and what is going around them, but it results in significant distress or impairment in functioning.DepressionThe diagnosis of depression should be considered in any geriatric patient who complains about increasing levels of somatic concern. An important point is that although many patients and clinicians believe that depression is a normal feature of a terminal illness, most terminally ill patients do not become depressed. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Injury to radial nerve in lower pa of spiral groove result in which of the following? | [
"Weakens pronation movement",
"Results in paralysis of anconeus muscle",
"Leaves extension at the elbow joint intact",
"Spares nerve supply to extensor carpi radialis longus"
] | B | Ans:B.)Results in paralysis of anconeus muscle.RADIAL NERVE(1) Before entering the spiral groove, radial nerve supplies the long and medial heads of the triceps.(2) In the spiral groove, it supplies the lateral and medial heads of the triceps and the anconeus. (3) Below the radial groove, on the front of the arm, it supplies the brachialis with proprioceptive fibres, the brachioradialis, and the extensor carp radialis longus.The radial nerve is very commonly damaged in region of the radial (spiral) groove. The common causes of injury are: (i) intramuscular injections in the arm (triceps), (ii) sleeping in an armchair with the limb hanging by the side of the chair (Saturday night palsy), or even the pressure by crutch (crutch paralysis), and (iii) fractures of the shaft of the humerus. This results in the weakness or loss of power of extension at the wrist (wrist drop) and sensory loss over a narrow strip on the back of forearm, and on the lateral side of the dorsum of the hand. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following drugs acts as potassium sparing diuretics, EXCEPT: | [
"Spironolactone",
"Eplerenone",
"Triamterene",
"Thiazide"
] | D | Potassium-sparing diuretics prevent K+ secretion by antagonizing the effects of aldosterone at the late distal and coical collecting tubules. Inhibition may occur by direct pharmacologic antagonism of mineralocoicoid receptors (spironolactone, eplerenone) or by inhibition of Na+ influx through ion channels in the luminal membrane (amiloride, triamterene). Ref: Katzung, 11th edition, Chapter 15. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common cause of secondary amenorrhea | [
"Turner syndrome",
"Pregnancy",
"Mullerian agenesis",
"Kallmann syndrome"
] | B | Ans. (b) PregnancyRef. Dutta's Obstetricsy Th ed./ 431-438* Amenorrhea is the absence of menstrual bleeding. It is a normal feature in prepubertal, pregnant, and postmenopausal females.* Primary amenorrhea is defined as the absence of menses by age 16 in the presence of normal developmental and sexual characteristics or by age 14 if secondary sexual characteristics have failed to develop* Secondary amenorrhea refers to the absence of menses for 6 months or more in a women with previously regular menstrual cycles.Causes* Primary amenorrhea may result from congenital reproductive tract abnormalities or endocrine disorders that delay the onset of puberty.# Ex: HPA dysfunction, Kallmans syndrome, CNS tumors, turner syndrome, mullerian agenesis etc.* The most common cause of secondary amenorrhea is pregnancy.* Other causes of secondary amenorrhea can be: Tubercular Endometritis, PCOS, Cushings disease, Sheehans syndrome, Uterine synechiae secondary to vigorous curettage. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Katayama fever is seen in | [
"Schistosoma Mansoni",
"Schistosoma japonicum",
"S. haematobium",
"S. mekongi"
] | A | S. mansoni more likely to cause Katayama fever than Japonicum. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hoarse with typical barking cough and biphasic stridor are feature in which site of lesion is | [
"Larynx",
"Hypopharynx",
"Trachea",
"Pharynx"
] | A | A. i.e. (Larynx) (717-B&L 25th)LARYNGOTRACHEO BRONCHITIS (CROUP)* Most commonly in children under 2 years of age* Usually viral in origin* The children have biphasic stridor and are often hoarse with a typical barking cough* Air way intervention is required less oftenAcute epiglottitis - Stridor is usually associated with drooling of salivaDifferences between acute epiglottitis and acute larybngo-tracheo bronchitis in children (267-Dhingra 4th) Acute epiglottitis(Supraglottic Laryngitis)Acute laryngotracheobronchitis* Causative organismH. influenzae type BPara influenza virus type I & II* Age2-7 years3 months to 3 years* PathologySupraglottic larynxSub glottic area* Prodromal symptomsAbsentPresent* OnsetSuddenSlow* FeverHighLow grade or no fever* Patients's lookToxicNon - Toxic* CoughUsually absentPresent (Barking seal like)* OdynophagiaPresent with drooling of secretionsUsually absent* StridorPresent and may be markedPresent* Radiology"Thumb sign" on lateral viewSteeple sign on AP view of neck* TreatmentHumidified oxygen, third generation cephalosporins (Ceftriaxone) or amoxicilline)Humidified oxygen tent, steroids.* LARYNGEAL DIPHTHERIA* Very toxaemic with tachycardia and thready pulse* **Hoarse voice, croupy cough. Inspiratory stridor, increasing dyspnoea wth marked upper airway obstruction* **Greyish white membrane is seen in the tonsil, pharynx and soft palate* "Bull-neck" cervical lymphadenopathyComplications Asphyxia and death due to airways obstruction. Toxic myocarditis and circulatory failure, palatal paralysis with nasal regurgitation, Laryngeal and pharyngeal paralysis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Bronchoalveolar carcinoma presents as:(1991) | [
"Hemoptysis",
"Collapse",
"Effusion",
"All"
] | D | Ans: d | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hereditary spherocytosis is due to deficiency of:September 2007 | [
"Spectrin",
"Pyruvate kinase",
"Cytokeratin",
"Integrin"
] | A | Ans. A: SpectrinHereditary spherocytosis (HS) is due to a deficiency of a protein called ankyrin.Ankyrins are cell membrane proteins (thought to interconnect integral proteins with the spectrin-based membrane skeleton)The ankyrin of red blood cells (erythrocytic ankyrin) is called ankyrin-R/ankyrin-1/ ANK1. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 55 year old lady presenting to out patient depament with postmenopausal bleeding for 3 months has a 1 x 1 cm nodule on the anterior lip of cervix. Which of the following is the most appropriate investigation to be done subsequently in this care? | [
"Pap smear",
"Punch biopsy",
"Colposcopy",
"Endocervical curettage"
] | B | Most appropriate investigation which can be done in the OPD in this patient who has a visible 1 x 1 cm nodule on the anterior lip of cervix is puch biopsy. For non-visible lesions coloposcopy allows accurate delineation of suspicious areas for tissue biopsy. Ref: Shaw's Textbook of Gynaecology, 13th Edition, Page 384 | train | med_mcqa | null |
An army jawan posted in remote forest area had fever and headache. His fever was 104degF and pulse was 70 per min. He had an erythematous lesion of about 1 cm on the leg surrounded by small vesicles, along with generalized lymphadenopathy at the time of presentation to the referral hospital. His blood sample was collected to perform serology for the diagnosis of Rickettsial disease. Which one of the following results in Weil-felix reaction will be diagnostic in this clinical setting - | [
"High OX - 2",
"High OX - 19",
"High OX - K",
"High OX - 19 and OX - 2"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., High OX - K . Fever, headache, erythmatous lesion along with generalized lymphadenopathy are suggestive of scrub typhus. . In scrub typhus, Weil - Felix reaction is strongly positive with the proteus strain OX - K. Note ---> In this question the key word is lymphadenopathy. Amongst the typhus group, lymphadenopathy is seen only in scrub typhus. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Superoxol is: | [
"30% H2O2",
"Combination of H2O2 + sodium perborate",
"Combination of HCl + H2O2",
"None of the above"
] | A | Superoxol - 5 parts H2O2 : 1 part ether
Hydrogen peroxide is a powerful oxidizer that is available in various strengths, but 30% to 35% stabilized solutions (Superoxol, Perhydrol) are the most common.
These high-concentration solutions must be handled with care because they are: Unstable, lose oxygen quickly, and may explode unless they are refrigerated and kept in a dark container. Also, these are caustic chemicals and will burn tissue on contact. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ludwig angina is usually caused by | [
"Streptococci and various mixed anaerobes",
"Anaerobic\tinfection\tby\tprevotella\tand fusobacterium",
"Paramyxovirus",
"Candida species"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient presented with Aldrich-Mee's lines which are characteristic of which heavy metal poisoning? | [
"Lead",
"Mercury",
"Arsenic",
"Copper"
] | C | Aldrich-Mee's lines: Hyperkeratosis of the palms and soles with irregular thickening of the nails and development of bands of opacity in the fingernails. It is seen in prolonged contact of Arsenic. Ref: The essentials of forensic medicine and toxicology by Narayan Reddy, 27th edition, Page 475 | train | med_mcqa | null |
“Inertization” deals with | [
"Mixing biomedical waste with cement and other substance before disposal",
"Incineration of biomedical waste with cement and other substance before disposal",
"Dumping of Biomedical waste in sanitary landfills",
"Screw feed technology to disinfect sharps"
] | A | The process of ‘Inertization’ involves mixing biomedical waste with cement and other substance before disposal, so as to minimize risk of toxic substances contained in waste to contaminate ground/surface water. inertization is especiallysuitable for pharmaceuticals and for incineration ashes with high metal content. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 54-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis presents with a 2-year history of dry eyes and dry mouth. Physical examination confirms xerostomia (dry mouth) and xerophthalmia (dry eyes) and reveals enlarged lacrimal glands bilaterally. Histologic examination of the lacrimal glands would likely show an infiltrate of which of the following inflammatory cell types? | [
"Fibroblasts",
"Lymphocytes",
"Macrophages",
"Mast cells"
] | B | This patient has Sjogren (sicca) syndrome, an autoimmune disease characterized by an intense lymphocytic infiltration of the salivary and lacrimal glands. Patients develop xerostomia and xerophthalmia. The other choices are not characteristic of autoimmune disease.Diagnosis: Sjogren syndrome | train | med_mcqa | null |
Incase of uncontrolled epistaxis,ligation of internal maxillary aery is to be done in the | [
"maxillary antrum",
"Pterygopalayine fossa",
"At the neck",
"Medual wall of orbit"
] | B | Maxillary aery: Ligation of this aery is done in uncontrollable posterior epistaxis. Approach is Caldwell-Luc operation through pterygopalatine fossa Posterior wall of maxillary sinus is removed and the maxillary aery or its branches are blocked by applying clips. The procedure is now superceded by transnasal endoscopic sphenopalatine aery ligation. Ref: Dhingra 7e pg 201,469. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 28-year-old woman complains of chest pain for 1.5 months. Three months prior to the current visit, she developed cough with expectoration, worse in the early morning. There was no shoness of breath or hemoptysis About 2 months after the onset of the cough, she began to have intermittent pleuritic (worse with coughing or deep breathing) left sided chest pain, increasing fatigue and weight loss of 3kgs but no loss of appetite. On auscultation: fine crackles in the suprascapular areas bilaterally were present(L>>R). The left upper lobe was dull to percussion. All are contents of the classic medium used for the above disease except: - | [
"Egg suspension",
"Malachite green",
"Glycerol",
"L-glutamine"
] | D | The patient comes with a constellation of weight loss, productive cough, and cavitary pulmonary infiltrates, which is extremely characteristic of TB. The medium being asked is the Lowenstein-Jensen medium, an egg-based solid medium that suppos the growth of Mycobacterium species, including Mycobacterium tuberculosis. CXR shows well defined cavitary lesions in left upper lung zone and right lower lung zone. COMPOSITION OFLJ MEDIUM Ingredients Potato Flour (Potato Starch) L-Asparagine Monopotassium Phosphate Magnesium Citrate Malachite Green Magnesium Sulfate Glycerol Egg suspension Distilled Water | train | med_mcqa | null |
Arrange the following tooth in the order of age of eruption of temporary teeth Upper lateral incisor Lower lateral incisor Lower medial incisor Upper medial incisor | [
"1-2-4-3",
"3-2-1-4",
"3-4-1-2",
"2-3-4-1"
] | C | Eruption sequence of Temporary Dentition Lower medial incisor 6 to 8 months Upper medial incisor 7 to 9 months Upper lateral incisor 7 to 9 months Lower lateral incisor 10 to 12 months First molar 12 to 14 months Canine 17 to 18 months Second molar 20 to 30 months | train | med_mcqa | null |
PIVOT TEST is used test for ? | [
"Medial meniscus",
"Lateral meniscus",
"Anterior cruciate ligament",
"Posterior cruciate ligament"
] | C | In this test,patient is in supine position.The knee is extended,with a valgus stress applied on the knee and the tibia is internally rotated.The knee is slowly flexed.Subluxation occurs at 30-40 degrees. A positive test indicates anterior cruciate ligament tear. ref:JohnEbnezar textbook,4th edition page no.250 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient is receiving external beam radiation for treatment of metastatic endometrial cancer. The treatment field includes the entire pelvis. Which of the following tissues within this radiation field is the most radiosensitive? | [
"Vagina",
"Ovary",
"Bladder",
"Rectum"
] | B | Normal Ovarian tissue is very radio sensitive hence pelvic irradiation may cause premature ovarian failure. Ovarian cancer is radio resistant - Radoitherapy is not pa of any initial treatment modality for ovarian cancer and surgery is mostly the initial treatment | train | med_mcqa | null |
Replacement of columnar epithelium in respiratory tract to squamous epithelium is - | [
"Hyperplasia",
"Hypoplasia",
"None of the above",
"Metaplasia"
] | D | Metaplasia
o Metaplasia is a reversible change in which one differenated cell type is replaced by another differenated cell type.
o Metaplasia represents an adapve substuon of cells that are sensive to stress by cell types beer able to withstand the adverse environment,
o Metaplasia may be of two types | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which among the following is TRUE about Clomiphene? | [
"Anti-gonadotrophin",
"Anti-progesterone",
"Anti-oestrogen",
"Anti-androgenic"
] | C | Clomiphene is an antiestrogen. These compounds are distinguished from the Selective estrogen receptor modulators(SERMs) in that they are pure antagonists in all tissues studied. Clomiphene citrate is a potent anti-estrogen that primarily is used for treatment of anovulation in the setting of an intact hypothalamic--pituitary axis and adequate estrogen production (e.g., PCOS). By inhibiting the negative feedback effects of estrogen at hypothalamic and pituitary levels, clomiphene increases follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) levels--typically by ~50%--and thereby enhances follicular maturation. Clomiphene s approved for the treatment of infeility in anovulatory women. Clomiphene increases gonadotropin secretion and stimulates ovulation. It increases the amplitude of LH and FSH pulses without changing pulse frequency. This suggests that the drug is acting largely at the pituitary level to block inhibitory actions of estrogen on gonadotropin release from the gland and/or is somehow causing the hypothalamus to release larger amounts of GnRH per pulse. Ref: Levin E.R., Hammes S.R. (2011). Chapter 40. Estrogens and Progestins. In L.L. Brunton, B.A. Chabner, B.C. Knollmann (Eds), Goodman & Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 12e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Krabbes&; disease is due to deficiency of | [
"Sphingomyelinase",
"Beta galactocerebrosidase",
"Hexosaminidase",
"Arylsulfatase"
] | B | Krabbe's DiseaseAn inherited disorder of lipid metabolism, a lipid storage disease (lipidosis)Enzyme deficiency: Galactocerebrosidase (bbb-galactosidase). The enzyme normally catalyzes the hydrolysis of galactocerebrosides and it splits the linkage between ceramide and galactoseNature of lipid accumulating: Galactosylceramide Clinical manifestations:Severe mental retardation in infantsTotal absence of myelin in central nervous system Globoid bodies found in white matter of brain. Note: Galactocerebroside is an impoant component of myelin Diagnosis: Depends on the determination of galactocerebrosidase activity in leucocytes and cultured skin fibroblasts. Prognosis: Fatal.Ref: Textbook of Medical Biochemistry, Eighth Edition, Dr (Brig) MN Chatterjea, page no: 62 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Target or Iris lesion seen in | [
"Uicaria",
"Erythema mutiformae",
"Scabies",
"Lichen Planus"
] | B | B. i.e. Erythema multiformae | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following has a normal level of alpha fetoprotein value in serum? | [
"Ovarian dysgerminoma",
"Hepatoblastoma",
"Embroynal carcinoma",
"Yolk sac tumours"
] | A | Alp is used as serum tumour marker in some conditions . Ref - harrison's internal medicine 20e p441 , Davidson's medicine 23e p1324 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 38yr old bisexual man goes to the clinic for counselling about HIV. Which of the following is false about HIV transmission? | [
"The risk of acquiring HIV with unprotected receptive anal intercourse is lower than that with penile-vaginal intercourse",
"Male-to- female HIV transmission is usually more efficient in causing infection than female-to-male transmission",
"Male circumcision is associated with a lower risk of HIV acquisition fo... | A | The risk of HIV acquisition associated with unprotected receptive anal intercourse is relatively higher than that seen in penile-vaginal intercourse. This is because the rectal mucosal membrane is thin and fragile and anal intercourse is associated with microtrauma (rectal tears). The differences in transmission rates between men and women are because the vagina and cervix are exposed to semen for a longer duration, increasing the risk of transmission. However, the penis and urethral orifice are exposed relatively briefly to infected vaginal fluid, lowering the risk. Reference: Ananthanarayan and Paniker&;s Textbook of Microbiology Tenth edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about anopheles mosquito – | [
"Larvae have siphon tube",
"Larvae are surface feeder",
"Larvae are bottom feeder",
"Larvae lie at an angle to water surface"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
1st carbon of pentose sugar of nucleic acid joins | [
"N-9 of pyrimidine",
"N-1 of pyrimidine",
"N-1 of purine",
"N-8 of purine"
] | B | The sugars and phosphates in nucleic acids are connected to each other in an alternating chain (sugar-phosphate backbone) through phosphodiester linkages. In conventional nomenclature, the carbons to which the phosphate groups attach are the 3&;-end and the 5&;-end carbons of the sugar. This gives nucleic acids directionality, and the ends of nucleic acid molecules are referred to as 5&;-end and 3&;-end. The nucleobases are joined to the sugars an N-glycosidic linkage involving a nucleobase ring nitrogen (N-1 for pyrimidines and N-9 for purines) and the 1&; carbon of the pentose sugar ring.Ref: Harper&;s Biochemistry; 30th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Characteristic X-ray finding in ASD is | [
"Enlarged left atria",
"Enlarged left ventricle",
"PAH",
"Pulmonary plethora"
] | D | * Description:can be normal in early stages when the ASD is small * signs of increased pulmonary flow (pulmonary plethora or shunt vascularity) o enlarged pulmonary vessels o upper zone vascular prominence o vessels visible to the periphery of the film o eventual signs of pulmonary aerial hypeension * chamber enlargement o right atrium o right ventricle o note: left atrium is normal in size unlike VSD or PDA o note: aoic arch is small to normal | train | med_mcqa | null |
Xeroderma pigmentosa is due to: | [
"Base excision defect",
"Nucleotide excision defect",
"Sos repair defect",
"Cross linking defect"
] | B | Ans: b (Nucleotide excision defect) Ref: Vasudevan, 4th ed, p. 403; 5th ed, p. 421Steps in nucleotide excision repair:Repair: Excision endonuclease makes nick on both sides of thymine dimer and removes defective DNA. DNA polymerase fill the gap by synthesising DNA in 5'-3' direction. DNA Ligase seals the nick in the repaired strand .Most DNA repair occurs in G1 phase. Mismatch repair occurs in G2 phase. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A Down syndrome child is mentally retarded. All cytogenetic abnormalities may occurs except? | [
"Deleted 21",
"Trisomy 21",
"Robesonia translocation",
"Mosaic"
] | A | Ans is 'a' i.e., Deleted 21 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 6 year old female child reported with a chief complaint of proclined upper anteriors. Parents give a history of prolonged bottle-feeding and a persistent thumb sucking habit. Clinical examination reveals anterior open bite with proclined upper anterior and retroclined lower anterior teeth and associated tongue thrusting.
Usually digit sucking habits are outgrown by: | [
"6-7 years",
"3-4 years",
"1-2 years",
"11-12 years"
] | B | Thumb-sucking in children
No active intervention regardless of type and severity of malocclusion because of general emotional immaturity.
Most children out grow the habit by approximately 5 years of age.
Malocclusion is self-correcting, if ceased by the time of eruption of permanent teeth.
Parents are advised to ignore habit.
Give more attention to the child when not sucking.
If occlusion Class II, advise need for future orthodontic treatment.
Ref: Textbook of Orthodontics Gurkeerat Singh Second edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Charactersitic feature of kidneys in diabetes mellitus is - | [
"Nodular sclerosis",
"Fibrin cap",
"Papillary necrosis",
"Diffuse glomerulosclerosis"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Following total thyroidectomy the patient develops respiratory stridor. The cause is: | [
"B/L recurrent laryngeal nerve paralysis",
"B/L complete paralysis",
"U/L recurrent laryngeal nerve paralysis",
"U/L complete paralysis"
] | A | (a) B/L recurrent laryngeal nerve paralysis(Ref. Current Diagnosis & Treatment Otolaryngology, Lalwani, 3rd ed., 478)In B/L recurrent laryngeal nerve paralysis the vocal cords will be in median position, leading to stridor.Note: This is the only vocal cord palsy with stridor, breathing is normal in the remaining palsies. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sequence of CPR is? | [
"Basic CPR, ACLS, Defibrillation",
"Basic CPR, Defibrillation, ACLS",
"ACLS, Basic CPR, Defibrillation",
"Defibrillation, ACLS, Basis CPR"
] | B | Ans. is'b'i.e., Basic CP & Defibrillation, ACLSRef: 2010 International Consensus on Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation and Emergency Cardiovascular Care Science with Treatment Recommendations (CoSTR)Sequence ls : Basic life suppo (BLS) - Defibrillation -+ Advanced cardiac life suppo (ACIS). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Biological value is used for assessment of ? | [
"Fat quality",
"Protein quality",
"Carbohydrate quality",
"None"
] | B | An s. is 'b' i.e., Protein quality Assessment of protein Protein quality Amino acid score Biological value Net protein utilization Protein efficiency ratio Protein quantity Protein energy ratio | train | med_mcqa | null |
Imipenem, a newer antibiotic with a broad antibacterial spectrum, is coadministered with cilastin because - | [
"The combination of these antibiotics is Synergistic against Pseudomonas species",
"Cilastin aids the gastrointestinal absorption of the active moiety, imipenem",
"Cilastin inhibits a Beta-lactamase that destroys imipenem",
"Cilastin inhibits an enzyme in the kidney that destroys imipenem"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not a feature of ABPA | [
"High lgE level",
"Recurrent pneumonia",
"Occurrence in patients with old cavitary lesions",
"Pleural effusion"
] | B | Ref. API Textbook of Medicine. Pg. 1751
Allergic Bronchopulmonary Aspergillosis
ABPA represents a hypersensitivity reaction to A. fumigatus; rare cases are due to other aspergilli and other fungi.
ABPA occurs in ~1% of patients with asthma and in up to 15% of adults with cystic fibrosis; occasional cases are reported in patients with neither of the latter.
Episodes of bronchial obstruction with mucous plugs leading to coughing fits, "pneumonia," consolidation, and breathlessness are typical.
Many patients report coughing up thick sputum casts, usually brown or clear.
Eosinophilia commonly develops before systemic glucocorticoids are given.
The cardinal diagnostic tests include an elevated serum level of total IgE (usually >1000 IU/mL), a positive skin-prick test to A. fumigatus extract, or detection of Aspergillus-specific IgE and IgG (precipitating) antibodies.
Central bronchiectasis is characteristic | train | med_mcqa | null |
Girl is suffering from: | [
"Treacher Collins syndrome",
"Pierre Robin syndrome",
"Craniofacial dysostosis",
"Sainton's disease"
] | A | Clinical Features. Wide variations in the clinical expression of this syndrome are recognized, ranging from a complete, typical form manifesting all abnormalities listed below through incomplete, abortive, and atypical forms. The important clinical manifestations of the disease are:
Antimongoloid palpebral fissures with a coloboma of the outer portion of the lower lids, and deficiency of the eye-lashes (and sometimes the upper lids).
Hypoplasia of the facial bones, especially of the malar bones and mandible.
Malformation of the external ear, and occasionally of the middle and internal ears.
Macrostomia, high palate (sometimes cleft) and abnormal position and malocclusion of the teeth.
Blind fistulas between the angles of the ears and the angles of the mouth.
Atypical hair growth in the form of a tongue-shaped process of the hairline extending towards the cheeks.
Other anomalies such as facial clefts and skeletal deformities.
The characteristic faces of the patients have often been described as being bird like or fish like in nature.
The syndrome is thought to result from a retardation or failure of differentiation of maxillary mesoderm at and after the 50 mm stage of the embryo. The fact that the teeth of the upper jaw are usually unaffected, and ordinarily are present by the sixth week, is further evidence of retardation or arrest of differentiation at or after the second month of fetal life. The first visceral arch of the visceral mesoderm also advances secondarily to form the mandible, and again retardation occurs on the same basis.
A disease that has sometimes been confused with mandibulofacial dysostosis, because of certain clinical features in common is hemifacial microsomia (also known as oculoauriculovertebral dysplasia or Goldenhar syndrome). However, hemifacial microsomia is sporadic in the vast majority of cases, although familial cases have been reported. In addition as the name implies, this disease is unilateral and has been suggested to be related to an abnormality in the vascular supply of the head. It has been discussed in detail by Gorlin and his associates.
Ref: Shafer’s Ed 7th pg 721 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Triage in casuality is done for: September 2006 | [
"Prevention of such casualities",
"Treating patients",
"Case segregation",
"Predicting after effects of casuality"
] | C | Ans. C: Case segregation Triage is a process of prioritizing patients based on the severity of their condition. This ensures patient treatment efficiently when resources are insufficient for all to be treated imrnediately. Two types of triage exist: simple and advanced. of emergencyThe outcome may result in determining the order and priority treatment, the order and priority of emergency transpo, or the transpo destination for the patient, based upon the special needs of the patient or the balancing of patient distribution in a mass-casualty setting. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following statements about intrinsic allergic Asthma are true, Except: | [
"Nasal polyp",
"Normal IgE",
"Family history Positive",
"More aggressive"
] | C | Answer is C (Family history +ve) Intrinsic Asthma by defination is not allergic in nature and is not associated with a positive family history of allergy Features of Intrinsic Asthma (Nonatopic asthma- Approximately 10% of asthmatic patients are intrinsic) Negative Family History of allergy Negative skin test to common inhalant allergens (Not primarily caused by allergy) Normal serum concentration of IgE. Concomitant nasal polyps (Common) Sensitivity to aspirin and related chemicals Later onset of disease (adult-onset asthma) More servere, persistent disease/asthma. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Tumor marker secreted in choriocarcinoma is : | [
"CEA",
"Prolactin",
"HCG",
"Alfa feto protein"
] | C | HCG | train | med_mcqa | null |
In Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma early involvement of bone marrow is typical of which variety - | [
"Diffuse",
"Nodular",
"Lymphocytic well differentiated",
"Lymphocytic poorly differentiated"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The absolute indications for dialysis include the following except - | [
"Persistent Hyperkalaemia",
"Congestive cardiac failure",
"Pulmonary edema",
"Hyperphosphatemia"
] | D | Answer- D. HyperphosphatemiaPericarditis or pleuritis (urgent indication).Progressive uremic encephalopathy or neuropathyPersistent metabolic disturbancesFluid overload refractory to diuretics.Hypeension poorly responsive to antihypeensive medications.Persistent nausea and vomiting. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pemphigus neonatorum is a variety of | [
"Bullous impetigo",
"Epidermolysis bullosa",
"Congenital syphilis",
"Pemphigus"
] | A | Pemphigoid neonatorum is a variety of bullous impetigo. Impetigo is a contagious superficial pyogenic infection. It can be bullous or non-bullous Causative organism: Bullous is caused by staph aureus Non bullous impetigo is caused by both Staph aureus and Strep pyogens Bullous disorder is widespread in neonate and was called pemphigus neonatorum (Ref: Harrison 20th edition pg 1245 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which among the following is NOT a cause of calcification in anterior mediastinal mass? | [
"Lymphoma after radiotherapy",
"Aneurysm of ascending aorta",
"Germ cell tumor",
"Leiomyoma of esophagus"
] | D | Ans: D Posterior mediastinum contents Mnemonic: DATES -- Descending aorta. Azygous vein and hemiazygos vein, Thoracic duct, Esophagus, Sympathetic trunk/ganglia. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following are seen in Pneumoperitoneum except | [
"Football sign",
"Till-aux sign",
"Rigler's sign",
"Cupola sign"
] | B | Signs of Pneumoperitoneum :
Football sign - Collection of air in the centre of abdomen over flied collection.
Rigler's sign - Visualisation of air outling bowel wall on either side.
Cupola sign - Large amount of gas under diaphragm. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are steroids except | [
"Testosterone",
"Vitamin D",
"Cholesterol",
"Thyroxine"
] | D | Ref: Textbook of Medical Biochemistry, 8th Edition, Dr (Brig) MN Chatterjea, Rana Shinde, page no: 589,590 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is true about the growth cha shown below? | [
"It is a growth velocity curve",
"It can be used to know whether a child has wasting or not",
"It is used for serial assessment of growth status of a girl",
"It cannot detect 'failure to thrive'"
] | C | Discussing about the options one by one, a. False; It is the weight for age growth cha, not a growth velocity cha b. False; Wasting is decrease in weight for height, but this is a weight for age cha e. True; It is used for serial assessment of growth status of a girl c. False; It can be used to detect 'failure to thrive' i.e. not gaining weight properly | train | med_mcqa | null |
First carpometacarpal joint is a - | [
"Hinge joint",
"Saddle joint",
"Elipsid joint",
"Synol"
] | B | B i.e. Saddle | train | med_mcqa | null |
First clinical sign of Vitamin - A deficiency is: | [
"Night blindness",
"Conjunctival xerosis",
"Bitot's spots",
"Keratomalacia"
] | B | All the ocular manifestations of Vitamin - A deficiency are collectively known as 'Xerophthalmia' (Dry Eye). - Xerophthalmia is most common in children aged 1-3 years. 'First clinical sign' of Vitamin - A deficiency: Conjunctival xerosis . 'First clinical symptom' of Vitamin - A deficiency: Night blindness. Conjunctival xerosis in Xerophtalmia - characteristic appearance of emerging like sand banks at receding tide. 'Bitot's Spots' are triangular, pearly-white or yellowish, foamy spots on bulbar conjunctiva, on either side of cornea ( temporal > nasal). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Malarial parasite was discovered by - | [
"Ronald Ross",
"Paul muller",
"Laveran",
"Pampania"
] | C | Discovery Malarial parasite-Charles Laveran Life cycle-A.Bignami,B.Grassi, G.Bastianelli Anopheles species are vectors-Ronald Ross Culture malarial parasite-Trager and Jensen (refer pgno:54 baveja 3 rd edition ) | train | med_mcqa | null |
All statements are true about gas cylinders except | [
"Pressure of N2O is 745 psig at 20 degrees centigrade",
"Higher pressure indicates impurity in N2O",
"N2O is in liquid form",
"Emergency oxygen 'E' cylinder has more gas than 'H' cylinder"
] | D | .N20 is stored in blue steel cylinders as a colorless liquid under 745 psi pressure and is in equilibrium with the gas phase (approximately 50 atmospheres at room temperature). The tank maintains that pressure until it is empty. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common organism, responsible for pseudomembranous colitis is: | [
"Clostridium difficile",
"Clostridium botulism",
"Clostridium bifermentans",
"Clostridium histolyticum"
] | A | Pseudomembranous colitis refers to swelling or inflammation of the large intestine (colon) due to an overgrowth of Clostridium difficile (C. difficile) bacteria.
This infection is a common cause of diarrhea after antibiotic use. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hippocampal formation includes all except - | [
"Dentate gyrus",
"Subicular complex",
"Amygdaloid nucleus",
"Entorhinal cortex"
] | C | Hippocampal formation comprising indusium griseum and longitudinal striae, gyms fasciolaris, dentate gyros, hippocampus, parahippocampal gyms, subicular complex, entorhinal cortex, alveus, fimbria and fornix. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In Alzheimer disease, seen are: | [
"Neurofibrillary tangles",
"Neuritic plaques",
"Pick's protein",
"Amyloid angiopathy"
] | B | Microscopically, the main features are as under: i) Senile neuritic plaque is the most conspicuous lesion and consists of focal area which has a central core containing Ab amyloid. ii) Neurofibrillary tangle is a filamentous collection of neurofilaments and neurotubules within the cytoplasm of neurons. iii) Amyloid angiopathy is deposition of the same amyloid in the vessel wall which is deposited in the amyloid core of the plaque. iv) Granulovacuolar degeneration is presence of multiple, small intraneuronal cytoplasmic vacuoles, some of which contain one or more dark granules called Hirano bodies. Ref: TEXTBOOK OF PATHOLOGY 6th EDITION -HARSH MOHAN PAGE NO:884 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most severe pain in ureteric stone is seen in cases of? | [
"Oxalate stones",
"Triple phosphate",
"Cystine stone",
"Uric acid stone"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Oxalate stones | train | med_mcqa | null |
In portal hypertension lower end of the oesophagus may show dilatation of veins. Which of the following veins drains into the portal vein from the lower end of the oesophagus? | [
"Right gastric",
"Left gastric",
"Hemiazygos",
"Inferior phrenic"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are features of Kerley A lines except? | [
"Prominent Interlobular Septa",
"Due to lymphatic engorgement and edema of septa",
"Located at Base of Lungs",
"Seen In CHF"
] | C | *Kerley A lines are Perihilar Lines *Kerley B lines are thin horizontal parallel lines perpendicular to pleura at base of Lung. Kerley C lines are neither central nor peripheral. They are 2-3 cm long. They do not radiate away from the hila either. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Vibratory sensation depends on the detection of rapidly changing, repetitive sensations. The high-frequency end of the repetitive stimulation scale is detected by which structure? | [
"Merkel discs",
"Meissner corpuscles",
"Pacinian corpuscles",
"Free nerve endings"
] | C | High-frequency repetitive stimulation (indentation/ pressure) of the skin is sensed by Pacinian corpuscles. Free nerve endings detect touch and pressure. Meissner's corpusclesrespond to changes in texture and slow vibration. Merkel cells respond to sustained pressure and touch. Ruffini corpuscles respond to sustained pressure. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are true regarding fluid resuscitation in burn patients except: | [
"Consider intravenous resuscitation 1 children with burns greater than 15% TBSA",
"Oral fluids must contain salts",
"Most preferred fluid is Ringer's lactate",
"Half of the calculated volume of fluid should be given in first 8 hours"
] | A | Ans. (a) Consider intravenous resuscitation in children with burns greater than 15% TBSA* More than 10% burns in children need fluid resuscitation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Quartz tungsten light cure device, minimum output of energy should not be less than | [
"300 mw/cm2",
"350 mw/cm2",
"400 mw/cm2",
"450 mw/cm2"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient presents with B/L proptosis, heat intolerance and palpitations; most unlikely diagnosis here would be | [
"Hoshimoto's thyroiditis",
"Thyroid adenoma",
"Diffuse thyroid goitre",
"Reidel's thyroiditis"
] | D | Answer is D (Reidel's thyroiditis) : Reidel's thyroiditis is usually a consistently hypothyroid condition. The patient in the given question is presenting with symptoms of Hypehyroidism. The condition, most unlikely to produce the picture is the one where hypehyroidism is not a feature, not even transient. Reidel's thyroiditis is one such consistently hypothyroid condition. Thyrotoxicosis is usual with thyroid adenoma and diffuse thyroid goitre and Hashimoto's thyroiditis can present with transient hypehyroidism. Hashimoto's Thyroiditis (Auto immune): In this variant, mild hypehyroidism may be present initially, although hypothyroidism is inevitable. Hypothyroidism may develop rapidly or extremely slowly. The initial phase of hypehyroidism may account for the symptoms in the given patient. Thyroid adenoma, diffuse toxic goitre or Grave's disease, toxic nodular goitre, toxic nodule: All are causes of thyrotoxicosis & explain the symptoms of thyrotoxicosis in the above patient. 733/L&B Riedle's thyroiditis is a very rare disease wherein , the thyroid tissue is replaced by cellular fibrous tissue. The goitre may be unilateral or bilateral & is very hard and fixed. This condition presents with features of hypothyroidism. Hypehyroidism is not manifested, not even transiently. The differential diagnosis is from an anaplastic carcinoma & can be made with ceainity only by biopsy. Diffuse thyroid goitre :Most commonly presents with a euthyroid status however patients may present with hypehyroidism. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A child plays a simple ball game at: | [
"52 weeks",
"36 weeks",
"12 weeks",
"40 weeks"
] | A | Playing a simple ball game comes at 1 year or 52 weeks. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Membrane attack complex is - | [
"C5-9",
"C3b",
"C1-3",
"C4-5"
] | A | Components of complement cascade mediate various biological responses
C5a, C3a, to a lesser extent C4a → are called anaphylotoxin because they have effects similar to those of mast cell mediators that are involved in the reaction called anaphylaxis. These effects are due to stimulation of histamine release by this anaphylatoxin. The effects are increased vascular permeability and vasodilatation.
C5a is a powerful chemotactic agent
C3b, C3bi act as an opsonin and enhance phagocytosis.
C called membrane attack complex (MAC). It forms a channel in the lipid membrane and causes cell lysis (including bacteria). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Safe yield of water source - | [
"Adequate supply for 95% of the year",
"Adequate supply for 60% of the year",
"Adequate supply for 80% of the year",
"None"
] | A | The safe yield is generally defined as the yield that is adequate for 95% of the year. The safe yield of the source must be sufficient to serve the population expected at the end of the design period which may be to 10 to 50 years in future. (PARK TB of social and preventive medicine pg 766 25th edition) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Progressive transformation of germinal centers (PTGC) is a precursor lesion of - | [
"Hodgkins lymphoma, nodular sclerosis",
"Hodgkins lymphoma, mixed cellularity",
"Hodgkins lymphoma, lymphocytic predominant",
"Peripheral T cell lymphoma"
] | C | Lymphocytic predominance contains lymphocytic and histiocytic (L and H) variant. Thesse variants express B cell markers typical of germinal centre B cells. The IgH genes of L and H variant show evidence of ongoing somatic hypermutation,a modification that occurs only in germinal centre B cells. In 3%to5% of cases this type transforms in to a tumour resembling diffuse large B cell lymphoma. Reference; Robbins and Cotran Pathologic basis of disease.South Asia Edition volume 1.page no. 609,610 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following statements is true regarding pertussis - | [
"Neurological complication rate of DPT is 1 in 50000",
"Vaccine efficacy is more than 95%",
"Erythromycin prevents spread of disease between children",
"The degree of polymorphonuclear leukocytosis correlates with the severity of cough"
] | C | Pertussis (Whooping Cough):
Leukocytosis does not correlates with the severity of cough
Drug of choice: Erythromycin (40 mg/kg QID X 10 days)
Vaccines:
DPT:
i. Killed acellular bacilli 20,000 million per dose (0.5 ml)
ii. Pertussis component leads to neurological complications after 2 years of age (@ 1 per 1,70,000 vaccinees)
iii. Vaccine efficacy is 50 – 60 % (2 doses) and 70% (3 doses)
Pertussis killed whole cell vaccine
DOC for cases and contacts: Erythromycin (for 10 days) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Protease inhibitors are : a) Saquinavir b) Nevirapine c) Nelfinavir d) Abacavir e) Efavirenz | [
"ac",
"be",
"bc",
"ad"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Rigor mois is simulated by all, except: PGI 06 | [
"Cold stiffness",
"Heat stiffness",
"Tetanus",
"Putrefaction"
] | C | Ans. Tetanus | train | med_mcqa | null |
Constricted pupil is seen in all poisoning, except: UPSC 13 | [
"Paracetamol",
"Opium",
"Phenol",
"OPC"
] | A | Ans. Paracetamol | train | med_mcqa | null |
Linear deposits along glomerular basement membrane are seen in - | [
"Good pasture syndrome",
"SLE",
"Drug reaction",
"HS purpura"
] | A | Goodpasture syndrome, the prototype disorder of this group, is an uncommon but intriguing condition characterized by a proliferative, usually rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis and hemorrhagic interstitial pneumonitis. Both the renal and the pulmonary lesions are caused by antibodies targeted against the noncollagenous domain of the a3 chain of collagen IV. These antibodies can be detected in the serum of more than 90% of persons with Goodpasture syndrome. The characteristic linear pattern of immunoglobulin deposition (usually IgG, sometimes IgA or IgM) that is the hallmark diagnostic finding in renal biopsy specimens also may be seen along the alveolar septa. Ref: Robbins book of pathology. 6th ed. Page 485 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following can cause neuropathies with predominant motor involvement except - | [
"Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy",
"Acute intermittent porphyria",
"Lead intoxication",
"Arsenic intoxication"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
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