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The cyclic subgroup of Z_24 generated by 18 has order A. 4 B. 8 C. 12 D. 6 Answer: A. 4
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Find the order of the factor group Z_6/<3>. A. 2 B. 3 C. 6 D. 12 Answer: B. 3
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Statement 1 | A permutation that is a product of m even permutations and n odd permutations is an even permutation if and only if n is even. Statement 2 | Every group is isomorphic to a group of permutations. A. True, True B. False, False C. True, False D. False, True Answer: A. True, True
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Find the order of the factor group (Z_4 x Z_12)/(<2> x <2>) A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 12 Answer: C. 4
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Find the maximum possible order for some element of Z_4 x Z_6. A. 4 B. 6 C. 12 D. 24 Answer: C. 12
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Statement 1 | The symmetric group S_3 is cyclic. Statement 2 | Every group is isomorphic to some group of permutations. A. True, True B. False, False C. True, False D. False, True Answer: D. False, True
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Statement 1 | If a and b are elements of finite order in an Abelian group, then |ab| is the lcm (|a|,|b|). Statement 2 | If g is a group element and g^n = e, then |g| = n. A. True, True B. False, False C. True, False D. False, True Answer: B. False, False
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Statement 1 | If f is a homomorphism from G to K and H is normal in G then f(H) is normal in K. Statement 2 | If f is a homomorphism from G to a group and H is finite subgroup of G, then |f(H)| divides |H|. A. True, True B. False, False C. True, False D. False, True Answer: D. False, True
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Find the maximum possible order for an element of S_n for n = 7. A. 6 B. 12 C. 30 D. 105 Answer: B. 12
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Statement 1 | Every integral domain has a field of quotients. Statement 2 | A polynomial of degree n over a ring can have at most n zeros counting multiplicity. A. True, True B. False, False C. True, False D. False, True Answer: C. True, False
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Statement 1 | If a group has an element of order 10, then the number of elements of order 10 is divisible by 4. Statement 2 | If m and n are positive integers and phi is the Euler phi function, then phi(mn) = phi(m)phi(n). A. True, True B. False, False C. True, False D. False, True Answer: B. False, False
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Which of the following terms describes the body's ability to maintain its normal state? A. Anabolism B. Catabolism C. Tolerance D. Homeostasis Answer: D. Homeostasis
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Which of the following structures travel through the substance of the parotid gland? A. The maxillary artery B. The maxillary artery and retromandibular vein C. The maxillary artery, retromandibular vein and facial artery D. The maxillary artery, retromandibular vein, facial artery and buccal branch of the mandibular n...
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A medical practitioner places a stethoscope over the patient's seventh right intercostal space in the mid-axillary line. The stethoscope overlies the A. upper lobe of the lung. B. middle lobe of the lung. C. lower lobe of the lung. D. costo-diaphragmatic recess. Answer: C. lower lobe of the lung.
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The maxillary sinus A. is lined by stratified squamous epithelium. B. drains into the superior meatus of the nasal cavities. C. is innervated by branches of the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve. D. Receives its blood supply from the first part of the maxillary artery. Answer: C. is innervated by branches of t...
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Which of the following is flexible connective tissue that is attached to bones at the joints? A. Adipose B. Cartilage C. Epithelial D. Muscle Answer: B. Cartilage
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Tonsillar tissue is commonly found A. on the posterior wall of the oropharynx. B. under the mucosa of the ventral surface of the tongue. C. between the palatoglossal and palatopharyngeal folds. D. at all three sites. Answer: C. between the palatoglossal and palatopharyngeal folds.
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The best place to listen to the general heart sound with a stethoscope is the A. fifth left intercostal space in the midclavicular line. B. second left intercostal space one inch from the sternum. C. third left rib at its junction with the sternum. D. sternum midway between the sternal angle and xiphisternum. Answer: A...
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Emissary veins connect the intracranial venous sinuses to A. veins draining the scalp. B. veins draining the eye. C. the pterygoid venous plexus. D. All of the above areas. Answer: D. All of the above areas.
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Smooth muscle cells contain A. actin but not myosin. B. myosin but not actin. C. actin and myosin arranged irregularly. D. actin and myosin arranged in parallel arrays. Answer: C. actin and myosin arranged irregularly.
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Which of the following controls body temperature, sleep, and appetite? A. Adrenal glands B. Hypothalamus C. Pancreas D. Thalamus Answer: B. Hypothalamus
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Which one of the following is brought about by activation of sympathetic nerves? A. Contraction of bronchial smooth muscle. B. Dilation of the pupil of the eye. C. Increase in intestinal secretion D. Decrease in heart rate Answer: B. Dilation of the pupil of the eye.
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The trachea A. lies deep to the oesophagus. B. lies superficial to the oesophagus. C. is totally enclosed by cartilaginous rings. D. divides at the thoracic inlet. Answer: B. lies superficial to the oesophagus.
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Pharyngeal mucosa is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerves because it develops from the A. first pharyngeal arch. B. second pharyngeal arch. C. third pharyngeal arch. D. fourth pharyngeal arch. Answer: C. third pharyngeal arch.
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A patient is most likely to experience pain due to infection of the ethmoidal air cells sinus A. at the base of the skull. B. on the forehead. C. in the cheeks. D. between the eyes. Answer: D. between the eyes.
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You cool a blackbody to half its original temperature. How does its spectrum change? A. Power emitted is 1/16 times as high; peak emission wavelength is 1/2 as long. B. Power emitted is 1/4 times as high; peak emission wavelength is 2 times longer. C. Power emitted is 1/4 times as high; peak emission wavelength is 1/2 ...
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What drives differentiation? A. Spontaneous emission from radioactive atoms. B. The minimization of gravitational potential energy. C. Thermally induced collisions. D. Plate tectonics. Answer: B. The minimization of gravitational potential energy.
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How did the lunar maria form? A. The giant impact that created the Moon left smooth areas that we call the maria. B. Volatiles escaping from the Moon's interior heated and eroded the surface in the regions of the maria. C. The early bombardment created heat that melted the lunar surface in the regions of the maria. D. ...
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Why doesn't Venus have seasons like Mars and Earth do? A. Its rotation axis is nearly perpendicular to the plane of the Solar System. B. It does not have an ozone layer. C. It does not rotate fast enough. D. It is too close to the Sun. Answer: A. Its rotation axis is nearly perpendicular to the plane of the Solar Syste...
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The mass of Saturn's rings is 2x1019 kg. What is the ratio of this mass to that of a 200 km diameter spherical moon made entirely of water-ice (density ~ 1 g/cm3)? That is what is Mrings : Micy moon? A. 1 : 1 B. 50 : 1 C. 5 : 1 D. 0.5 : 1 Answer: C. 5 : 1
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Which mechanism can NOT explain Mercury's lack of a permanent atmosphere? A. Impact Heating B. Volcanic Heating C. Ablation by the solar wind D. Thermal Escape Answer: B. Volcanic Heating
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Which property of our solar system does a formation theory NOT need to explain? A. patterns of motion B. the presence of asteroids and comets C. the measured ages of meteorites D. the presence of life on Earth Answer: D. the presence of life on Earth
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What dangers are currently faced by each Mars Exploration Rover? A. Opportunity may not be able to drive out of Victoria Crater due to its broken sixth wheel; Spirit's instruments are being corroded by the acidic hot spring environment it is exploring. B. Opportunity may not be able to move its arm again; Spirit may no...
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The reason that small planets tend to lose interior heat faster than larger planets is essentially the same as the reason that ________. A. a large baked potato takes longer to cool than a small baked potato B. Earth contains more metal than the Moon C. thunderstorms tend to form on hot summer days D. gas bubbles form ...
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If the Moon is setting at noon the phase of the Moon must be A. third quarter. B. waning crescent. C. waxing crescent. D. full. Answer: A. third quarter.
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In astronomy the concept of black bodies is very important to better calculate the radiation of stars. Which one is the correct definition of a black body? A. An idealized physical object that reflects all electromagnetic radiation. B. An idealized physical object that absorbs all electromagnetic radiation. C. An ideal...
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The Coriolis effect is observed on planets because A. they are rotating and spherical so different latitudes rotate at different speeds (meters/second) B. their surfaces rotate at the same speed (meters/second) at all latitudes C. they rotate and have magnetic fields D. the solar wind interacts with their magnetosphere...
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The International Space Station (ISS) circles the Earth approximately 410 km above the ground. Find the best estimate for the orbital speed of the ISS: A. 19000 km/h B. 21000 km/h C. 28000 km/h D. 32000 km/h Answer: C. 28000 km/h
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Which is the least likely cause of death? A. Being hit in the head by a bullet. B. Being hit by a small meteorite. C. Starvation during global winter caused by a major impact. D. Driving while intoxicated without wearing seatbelts. Answer: B. Being hit by a small meteorite.
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How have we been able to construct detailed maps of surface features on Venus? A. by studying Venus from Earth with powerful optical telescopes B. by landing spacecraft on the surface for close-up study C. by studying Venus with powerful optical telescopes on spacecraft that were sent to orbit Venus D. by using radar f...
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A comet’s tail points in the following direction: A. away from the Sun B. towards the Sun C. in the direction of movement D. against the direction of movement Answer: A. away from the Sun
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Disqualification of directors may result from breaches under the A. Sale of Goods Act 1979 B. Financial Services Act 1986 C. Companies Act 2006 and Insolvency Act 1986 D. Health and Safety at Work Act 1974 Answer: C. Companies Act 2006 and Insolvency Act 1986
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In a global context, many companies have significant ______ power due to their ability to threaten governments, in the face of ________ with relocation to other territories, which Beck (1998) describes as 'corporate power of _______. A. Economic, Commercial competition, Social sanction B. Political, Undesirable regulat...
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Ethics of duty is a principle based ethical theory attributed to Emmanuel Kant. A. 1,3 B. 2,3 C. 1,2 D. 1,2,3 Answer: A. 1,3
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While businesses traditionally engaged in civil society through ______, recently more business-________ collaboration have emerged in order to tackle social and environmental problems. Likewise, CSO's strategies have evolved with an increasing number setting up _________, which are more commercially orientated then tra...
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The relationship between shareholders and the company, or so called ________, describes shareholders as _________ and managers of the company as ________. A. Agency relation, Agent, Principals B. Stakeholder management, Agent, Principals C. Agency relation, Principal, Agents D. Stakeholder management, Principal, Agents...
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Executive directors are responsible for running the firm. A. 1,4 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. 1,2,3 Answer: A. 1,4
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Subjection to emotional exploitation. A. 1,2,4 B. 1,3,4 C. 2,3,4 D. 1,2,3,4,5 Answer: B. 1,3,4
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The recent global sustainability agenda has been dominated by which of the following organisations sustainability goals? A. Marks & Spencer's 'Plan A' B. United Nations 'Sustainable Development Goals' C. The Alibaba Group's 'Sustainability Initiatives' D. Unilever's 'Sustainable Living Plan' Answer: B. United Nations '...
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The OECD argues that corporate governance problems arise because: A. Ownership and control is separated B. Managers always act in their own self interest C. Profit maximization is the main objective of organizations D. Stakeholders have differing levels of power Answer: A. Ownership and control is separated
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What is meant by the phrase CSR? A. Corporate Social Responsibility B. Company Social Responsibility C. Corporate Society Responsibility D. Company Society Responsibility Answer: A. Corporate Social Responsibility
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______, ________ and _______ are all factors which can impinge upon stakeholder communication and collaboration. A. Resource intensity, Culture clash, Accountability B. Resource clash, Culture intensity, Accountability C. Resource intensity, Culture clash, Coordinative fluidity D. Resource clash, Culture clash, Coordin...
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Type I muscle fibres have the following characteristics: A. white, glycolytic, slow contracting. B. white, oxidative, slow contracting. C. red, oxidative, fast contracting. D. red, oxidative, slow contracting. Answer: D. red, oxidative, slow contracting.
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Mr Wood has just returned from surgery and has severe internal bleeding. Which of the following observations would you NOT expect to find on undertaking post-operative observations? A. Hypotension. B. Bradycardia. C. Confusion D. Tachypnoea. Answer: B. Bradycardia.
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Which of the following represents Cushing's response? A. Low blood pressure, tachycardia. B. High blood pressure, tachycardia. C. Low blood pressure, bradycardia. D. High blood pressure, bradycardia. Answer: D. High blood pressure, bradycardia.
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How many 'true' movements are available at the hip? A. 4 B. 5 C. 6 D. 7 Answer: C. 6
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For patients with asthma, how many times a day should a peak flow reading be taken? A. Daily. B. Twice a day. C. Three times a week. D. Once a week. Answer: B. Twice a day.
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Which of the following is incorrect? A. Dentures should be removed at night. B. Dentures should be cleaned on removal from mouth. C. Dentures should be stored in a named pot. D. Dentures should be stored dry. Answer: D. Dentures should be stored dry.
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Why might you choose to use a silicone catheter (as of 2020 medical knowledge)? A. Because the patient does not like the others. B. Because the patient is allergic to latex. C. Because there are no other kinds of catheter at your disposal. D. Because it is cheaper. Answer: B. Because the patient is allergic to latex.
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The recommended dose of creatine to load the muscles of a 70 kg man within one week is: A. 2 g/day. B. 5 g/day. C. 10 g/day. D. 20 g/day. Answer: D. 20 g/day.
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The coding sequences of genes are called: A. extrons. B. exons. C. introns. D. codons. Answer: B. exons.
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Which of the following is true with regards to the anatomy involved in the rectal examination? A. The sacrum is palpated anteriorly B. The pubic bone is palpated anteriorly in both sexes C. In the male the testes can be appreciated anteriorly D. The cervix can sometimes be felt anteriorly in the female Answer: D. The c...
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Using a large volume spacer will improve the deposition of medication by: A. 10-15% B. 40-60% C. 99-100% D. 30-40% Answer: B. 40-60%
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Which one of the following is not a use for intravenous infusions? A. Administer prescribed intravenous fluid. B. Administer dyes or contrast media for radiographic examinations. C. Administer prescribed blood products. D. To orally hydrate a patient. Answer: D. To orally hydrate a patient.
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During exercise, adrenaline secretion from the adrenal glands is stimulated by: A. increased plasma glucose. B. increased plasma fatty acids. C. increased plasma ACTH. D. increased sympathetic nerve activity. Answer: D. increased sympathetic nerve activity.
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Which of the following is true of blackouts and dizziness? A. Confusion following a blackout is strongly suggestive of a fit B. Pre-syncope is another term for a blackout C. An epileptic fit always leads to the loss of consciousness D. In the investigation of a blackout a blood sugar estimation is of no value Answer: A...
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Which of the following is true about abdominal pain? A. Peptic ulcer pain is usually experienced in the hypogastrium B. The pain of irritable bowel syndrome is usually well localised C. The pain of oesophagitis is usually retrosternal in site D. The pain of pancreatitis usually radiates to the groin Answer: C. The pain...
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The following are features of Alzheimer's disease except: A. short-term memory loss. B. confusion. C. poor attention. D. drowsiness. Answer: D. drowsiness.
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Which of the following is true about radial nerve palsy? A. The radial nerve arises from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus B. It is associated with sensory loss over the medial half of the hand C. It leads to wrist drop D. It can occur due to a superficial laceration over the wrist Answer: C. It leads to wrist dr...
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How can several different proteins be produced from the same gene? A. By selective transcription of different parts of the DNA in the gene. B. By doubling or tripling the length of the mRNA molecule produced from the primary transcript. C. The primary transcripts of many genes can be spliced in various ways to produce ...
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How long can a long-term catheter stay in situ? A. 4 weeks. B. 7 weeks. C. 12 weeks. D. 20 weeks. Answer: C. 12 weeks.
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Stridor is described as: A. A wheezing sound. B. A gurgling sound. C. A rattling sound. D. A high-pitched sound. Answer: D. A high-pitched sound.
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What is cardiac output? A. Stroke volume × heart rate. B. Systemic vascular resistance × heart rate. C. Blood pressure × heart rate. D. Preload × stroke volume. Answer: A. Stroke volume × heart rate.
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Which of the following is true about the assessment of gait? A. A stamping gait is caused by bilateral foot drop B. An antalgic gait is caused by a painful leg C. A waddling gait is sometimes called a steppage gait D. An apraxic gait is due to hysteria Answer: B. An antalgic gait is caused by a painful leg
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What should be done after catheterization is carried out? A. The patient should be thanked. B. The patient should be advised when to drink. C. Document catheterization in the patient's notes. D. The patient should be washed. Answer: C. Document catheterization in the patient's notes.
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In a patient with chest pain which of these features is most suggestive of a myocardial infarction? A. Very severe pain B. Sweating and vomiting C. Pain has lasted for over a week D. Pain is sharp like a knife Answer: B. Sweating and vomiting
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In the assessment of visual fields which of the following is true? A. A lesion at the optic chiasma leads to a homonymous hemianopia B. Impulses from the retinal leave the eye via the optic radiation C. An enlarged blind spot may occur because of papilloedema D. The visual field examination maps out a patient's central...
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Who set the world record for the mile race in 1886? A. R Bannister B. S Coe C. J DiMaggio D. WG George Answer: D. WG George
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What is erythema? A. Inflammation of the sweat glands. B. Redness of the skin due to congestion of the capillaries. C. A form of skin infection. D. Redness of the skin caused by pressure. Answer: B. Redness of the skin due to congestion of the capillaries.
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When branched chain amino acids are deaminated in muscle, the ammonia produced is mostly: A. converted into arginine and released from the muscle. B. converted into alanine and glutamine and released from the muscle. C. converted into urea and released from the muscle. D. used to synthesise purines and pyrimidines in t...
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Which of the following is true regarding the examination of the legs? A. Sustained clonus occurs with hypotonia B. Clonus can only be demonstrated at the ankle C. The root value of hip flexion is L4, L5 D. The root value of toe extension is L5 Answer: D. The root value of toe extension is L5
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Which of the following is the most direct cause of polyteny in somatic cells of certain organisms? A. RNA transcription B. Supercoiling of chromatin C. Chromosome replication without cell division D. Chromosome recombination Answer: C. Chromosome replication without cell division
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All of the following statements about muscle contraction are true EXCEPT: A. The ends of actin filaments move closer together. B. The length of myosin filaments does not change. C. Calcium-troponin binding precedes actin-myosin binding. D. Calcium-tropomyosin binding precedes actin-myosin binding. Answer: D. Calcium-tr...
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Short-term changes in plant growth rate mediated by the plant hormone auxin are hypothesized to result from A. loss of turgor pressure in the affected cells B. increased extensibility of the walls of affected cells C. suppression of metabolic activity in affected cells D. cytoskeletal rearrangements in the affected cel...
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RNA is thought to have played an important role in the evolution of life for which of the following reasons? I. It occurred in great quantities on early Earth. II. It can self-replicate via a complementary chain. III. It can catalyze some cellular functions. A. I only B. II only C. III only D. II and III Answer: D. II ...
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An organism with a lobed thallus, rhizoids, and gemmae is a A. moss B. liverwort C. fern D. mushroom Answer: B. liverwort
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One hypothesis posed by evolutionary biologists to account for an organism's altruistic behavior in social groups is that of kin selection. According to the kin selection theory, the risk incurred by a bird that sounds an alarm call due to a nearby predator may be offset by the fact that A. the alarm call induces the p...
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A plant that possesses swimming sperm, xylem with tracheids, independent gametophyte and sporophyte phases, and no seeds is probably most closely related to A. mosses B. pines C. ferns D. liverworts Answer: C. ferns
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Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an oligotrophic lake? A. Low nutrient levels B. High altitudes C. Shallow water D. Sand or gravel bottom Answer: C. Shallow water
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Evidence that sea urchins are more closely related to frogs than they are to snails is that echinoderms and chordates share which of the following embryological features? A. An embryonic notochord disappears by the adult stage. B. Larvae undergo metamorphosis. C. Early embryos are unable to compensate for missing cells...
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Which of the following is NOT a correct statement concerning elastin? A. It is a component of large blood vessels. B. Its secondary structure consists primarily of alpha helices. C. It is secreted into the extracellular matrix of tissues. D. It is a globular protein found in connective tissue. Answer: D. It is a globul...
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In cloning experiments on the frog Xenopus laevis, nuclei were removed from intestinal cells of tadpoles and transplanted into zygotes whose nuclei had been removed. A small percent of these zygotes developed into normal frogs, suggesting that A. intestinal cells can be transformed into all cell types B. frogs do not h...
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Which of the following sets of reactions occurs in the stroma of the chloroplast in plant cells? A. Calvin cycle B. Krebs cycle C. Fermentation D. Decarboxylation Answer: A. Calvin cycle
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Which of the following provides visual evidence of genetic recombination during meiosis? A. Centromeres B. Synaptonemal complexes C. Haploid nuclei D. Chiasmata Answer: D. Chiasmata
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Which of the following occurred first during the separation of the elements of Pangaea through continental drift? A. Gondwana and Laurasia were formed. B. Africa separated from South America. C. India collided with Eurasia to form the Himalayan mountain chain. D. Australia separated from the rest of the continental lan...
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Which of the following traits do prokaryotes and eukaryotes have in common? A. A single chromosome carries the entire genome. B. Chromosomes are circular. C. Replication is bidirectional. D. Molecular weight of respective DNA is comparable. Answer: C. Replication is bidirectional.
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All of the following are required procedures in order to clone specific mRNA molecules EXCEPT A. extracting mRNA from cells B. cleaving the full genome of a cell into fragments C. creating a cDNA molecule D. converting single-stranded cDNA into double-stranded cDNA Answer: B. cleaving the full genome of a cell into fra...
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Which of the following is true for Br2 at standard temperature and pressure? A. It is a colorless gas. B. It is a red-brown volatile liquid. C. It is a colorless volatile liquid. D. It is a yellow metallic solid. Answer: B. It is a red-brown volatile liquid.
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The 13C spectrum of which isomer of C6H14 has lines with three distinct chemical shifts? A. hexane B. 2-methylpentane C. 3-methylpentane D. 2,3-dimethylbutane Answer: A. hexane
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The Rydberg equation v = R_H(1/n_1^2 - 1/n_2^2) accurately predicts the UV-visible emission spectrum of the hydrogen atom. A form of the Rydberg equation may also be used to predict the UV-visible emission for all of the following EXCEPT A. hydride ion, H− B. deuterium atom, D C. tritium atom, T D. helium cation, He+ A...
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