dataset string | id string | question string | choices list | rationale string | answer string | subject string |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
medmcqa | medmcqa_200 | Glod standard test for insulinoma | [
"72 hr fasting test",
"Plasma insulin levels",
"C-peptide levels",
"Low glucose levels < 30 mg\\/dl"
] | A fasting test that may last for up to 72 hrs is regarded as the most sensitive test.Usually , insulin, pro insulin, C-peptide and blood glucose are measured in 1- to 2-hr intervals to demonstrate inappropriately high secretion of insulin on relation to blood glucose. About 80% of insulinomas are diagnosed by this test... | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_201 | Minimum level of iodine iodized salt reaching the consumer level according to iodine programme should be:- | [
"5 ppm",
"30 ppm",
"15 ppm",
"20 ppm"
] | National Iodine deficiency disorder programme , 1992: - National goitre control programme, 1962 is conveed to NIDDCP, 1992 - Impact indicators: Major indicator - Urinary iodine excretion levels ( generally measured in pregnant women over 24hrs) Others - Neonatal hypothyroidism , Goitre - Level of salt iodinisation: 30 ... | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_202 | Which deleterious effect is least likely to occur in hypothermia - | [
"Cardiac arryhthmia",
"Decreased peripheral resistance",
"Reversible coagulation",
"Renal failure"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_203 | All are seen in malignant hypehermia except | [
"Tachycardia",
"hyperkalemia",
"metabolic acidosis",
"hypercalcemia"
] | Hypercalcemia never happens in malignant hypehermia. Clinical Manifestations of Malignant Hypehermia: Early Signs: Elevated end-tidal carbon dioxide Tachypnea and/or tachycardia Masseter spasm, if succinylcholine has been used Generalized muscle rigidity Mixed metabolic and respiratory acidosis Profuse sweating Mottlin... | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_204 | Congestive hea failure in an infant is characterized by all except | [
"Pedal edema",
"Tachypnea",
"Sweating",
"Poor weight gain"
] | Congestive Cardiac Failure in InfantsSymptomsSignsuFeeding difficultyuTakes less volume per feeduDiaphoretic while suckinguForehead sweating.uSuck-rest-suck cycle.uPoor weight gainuPeriorbital edema uClothes no longer fituIncreasing cloth sizeuRapid breathing/nasal flaring/cyanosis/chest retractions.uTachycardia.uHepat... | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_205 | Ability of an organism to induce clinically apparent illness is known as: | [
"Infectivity",
"Pathogenicity",
"Virulence",
"Viability"
] | Infectivity: It is the ability of an infectious agent to invade and multiply in a host. Pathogenicity: It is the ability of an organism to induce clinically apparent illness. Virulence: It is the propoion of clinical cases resulting in severe clinical disease. Ref: Park, 21st Edition, Page 34. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_206 | The use of levodopa is avoided in which of the following patients? | [
"Alzheimer's disease",
"Psychosis",
"Multiple sclerosis",
"Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis"
] | Any drug which increase dopamine in brain causes psychosis.Levodopa should be avoided in patient with psychosis Anti parkinsonism drug can cause psychosis Anti Psychotic drug can cause parkinsonism Multiple sclerosis : Interferon b1a and interferon b1b: The immunomodulatory effects of interferon help to diminish the in... | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_207 | When orthotoludine reagent is added to water and if free chohine is present, what colour will be produced? | [
"Pink",
"Yellow",
"Green",
"Red"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_208 | False about Hydrocyanic acid. | [
"Also called as muriatic acid",
"Sodium nitrite and amyl nitrite are used in treatment",
"Inhibits cytochrome oxidase",
"Delayed neurological sequel can develop in form of Parkinson's disease"
] | Hydrocyanic acid is not muriatic acid. Oil of vitriol - Sulphuric acid Muriatic acid - Hydrochloric acid Aqua fois - Nitric acid Carbolic acid - Phenol Salt of sorrel - oxalic acid | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_209 | Regarding glutathione which of the following is/are true: | [
"It helps in absorption of ceain amino acids",
"It inactivates some enzymes",
"It helps in membrane transpo",
"All"
] | Ans:C.)It helps in membrane transpo. GLUTATHIONE: Glutathione is a tripeptide made up of glutamate, cysteine and glycine (T-glutamyl-cysteinyl-glycine). Glutathione is present in all mammalian cells except neurons. The sulphydryl (-SH) group of cysteine residue is the reactive poion of glutathione which can undergo oxi... | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_210 | Herbe's pits are seen in - | [
"Trachoma",
"Phlyctenular conjunctivitis",
"Sarcoidosis",
"Molluscum contagiosum"
] | Herbe pits are the oval or circular pitted scar, left after healing of herbe follicles in the limbal area. Ref: Parson's 22nd/e p.173 & 21st/e p.173 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_211 | Flea bitten appearance of the kidney is seen in- | [
"Malignant hypeension",
"Benign hypeension",
"Chronic pyelonephritis",
"Diabetes mellitus In an adult"
] | Causes of the flea-bitten kidney: Malignant hypeension Subacute bacterial endocarditis Rapidly progressive GN Henoch-Schonlein purpura. Ref: RAM DAS NAYAK EXAM PREPARATORY MANUAL FOR UNDERGRADUATES 2nd ed. pg no: 621 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_212 | Role of P-selectin in inflammation | [
"Rolling",
"Adhesion",
"Homing",
"Transmigration"
] | . | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_213 | Pyridoxal phosphate is required for | [
"Gluconeogenesis",
"Glycogenolysis",
"Glycolysis",
"Fatty acid oxidation"
] | Glycogen phosphorylase removes glucose as glucose-1-phosphate from glycogen (phosphorolysis). It contains pyridoxal. Formation of branches in glycogen phosphate (PLP) as a prosthetic group. The alpha-1,4 linkages in the glycogen are cleaved. removes glucose units one at a time. Enzyme sequentially hydrolyses alpha-1,4 ... | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_214 | Diagnosis of carcinoid tumour is done Urinary estimation of: | [
"VMA",
"Metanephrines",
"Catecholamines",
"5HIAA"
] | Answer is D (5HIAA): Carcinoid Tumors Carcinoid tumors are associated with elevated levels of metabolites of Tryptophan/ serotonin which include 5HIAA, 5HT and5HTP. Pheochromocytomas Pheochromocytomas are associated with elevated levels of catecholamines and their metabolites which include Vanillylmandelic acid (VMA)an... | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_215 | The most important criterion of success in a pulpotomy in a young permanent central incisor would be whether. | [
"The uncompleted root end would complete its development",
"The root end remained open if not fully developed when treatment was started",
"A bridge of secondary dentin, became radiographically demonstrable",
"Pulp stones were in evidence several months after treatment"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_216 | All of the following are true regarding CLL except: March 2008 | [
"Most common type of leukemia in adults",
"Males are commonly affected",
"ZAP-70 has prognostic impoance",
"Affects T-cells"
] | Ans. D: Affects T-cellsB-cell chronic lymphocytic leukemia (B-CLL)/chronic lymphoid leukemia (CLL), is the most common type of leukemia of the adults.CLL affects B cell lymphocytes.B cells originate in the bone marrow, develop in the lymph nodes, and normally fight infection by producing antibodies. In CLL, the DNA of ... | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_217 | Reward centre in the brain is? | [
"Amygdala",
"Thalamus",
"Hippocampus",
"Ventral tegmental area"
] | 1. Reward center contains ventral tegmental area connected with nucleus accumbens (through dopamine NT) 2. Previously major reward centers are thought to be located along course of "medial forebrain bundle" Amygdala - Pa of limbic system - It has many connections (i.e. with neocoex of temporal, parietal & occipital lob... | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_218 | Rupture of membrane is said to be premature when it occurs at? | [
"38 weeks of pregnancy",
"32 weeks of pregnancy",
"Prior to 1st stage of labor",
"II stage of labor"
] | Ans. is c, i.e. Prior to 1st stage of laborRef. Fernando Arias 3/e, p 240; Sheila Balakrishnan, p 233Premature rupture of membranes (PROM) is defined as spontaneous rupture of membranes before the onset of labor. Preterm premature rupture of membranes (PPROM) is defined as premature rupture of membranes before 37 compl... | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_219 | Total number of refractive surfaces in the Eye is | [
"2",
"4",
"5",
"3"
] | There are 4 refractive surfaces in the Eye
Anterior surface of Cornea
Posterior surface of Cornea
Anterior surface of Lens
Posterior surface of Lens | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_220 | The dose of radiation for point A for early and locally advancing cervical cancer during brachytherapy according to ABS guidelines is: | [
"70-75Gy- 75-80Gy",
"75-75Gy- 80-85Gy",
"80-85Gy- 85-90Gy",
"85-90Gy- 90-95Gy"
] | (Refer: John Hopkins’ Manual of Obstetrics & Gynecology, 4th edition, pg no: 554)
Brachytherapy of CA Cervix | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_221 | Sensory nerve action potential in NCV to calculate | [
"Sensory conduction",
"Motor conduction",
"Velocity conduction",
"Muscular contraction"
] | (Sensory conduction) (24-Apley's 8th)Sensory nerve conduction - If a sensory nerve is stimulated distally, the sensory nerve action potential (SNAP) can be recorded at a proximal site, here again, by measuring the distance between stimulating and recording electrodes and the time lapse between stimulus and response, th... | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_222 | Paneth cells contain | [
"Zinc",
"Copper",
"Molybdneum",
"Selenium"
] | Paneth cells are zinc-containing cells widely distributed in Lieberkuhn's crypts of small intestine in many species, but their function has remained obscure. Our previous study showed that a single intravenous injection of diphenylthiocarbazone (dithizone), a zinc chelator, forms zinc-dithizonate complexes in the cytop... | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_223 | Cervical sympathetic lesion causes all except: | [
"Miosis",
"Ptosis",
"Enophthalmos",
"Increased sweating"
] | Ans: dRef: Harrison, 16thed, p. 2384, Fig 349.11 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_224 | Which of the following is the most common side effect of Cisapride? | [
"Arrythmias",
"Constipation",
"Diarrhoea",
"Convulsion"
] | Cisapride is a prokinetic drug and the most common side effect associated with its use are abdominal cramps, borborygmi and diarrhea. Cisapride is a non selective serotonin 5HT4 agonist and paial 5HT3 agonist, it acts by increasing acetylcholine release from myenteric neurons. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_225 | Which of the following is the most common adverse effect of omeprazole | [
"Nausea",
"Constipation",
"Jaundice",
"Black stools"
] | PROTON PUMP INHIBITORS (PPIs) Omeprazole Adverse effects:- Nausea, loose stools, headache, abdominal pain, muscle and joint pain, dizziness, Rashes. Leucopenia and hepatic dysfunction are infrequent. On prolonged treatment atrophic gastritis has been repoed. Ref:- kd tripathi; pg num:- 653 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_226 | The response which is graded by an observer on agree or disagree continuum is based on? | [
"Visual analogue scale",
"Guttman scale",
"Likert scale",
"Adjective scale"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_227 | What portion of stearic acid does impression compound contains? | [
"5",
"10",
"30",
"15"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_228 | Which of the following necrosis occurs characteristically in brain infarcts? | [
"Caseous necrosis",
"Fibrinoid necrosis",
"Coagulative necrosis",
"Liquefactive necrosis"
] | CNS parenchymal infarcts organize an influx of macrophages into the area of necrosis. The macrophages ingest the lipid-rich, necrotic parenchyma, ultimately conveing the area to a fluid-filled cavity (liquefactive necrosis). This process is usually complete by about 6 months after the development of the infarct. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_229 | Not true about Herniotomy | [
"Done in congenital inguinal hernia case",
"Contents are reduced and sac is closed but defect is left without serturing",
"Less recurrence rate",
"Can also be done ib congenital hydrocode."
] | null | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_230 | In PCOD which of the following drug is used for ovulation induction in infeility : | [
"Spironolactone",
"Tamoxifen",
"Clomiphene",
"Testosterone"
] | Clomiphene citrate: Used for induction of ovulation; can be 50 mg/day increased to 150mg/day; Staing from day 2 to day 6 of the cycle for 5 days Tamoxifen 10 mg daily for 6 months has been effective in treating male infeility Testosterone 25 -50 mg daily orally improves testicular functions Spironolactone is an antiand... | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_231 | Early sepsis is characterized by a/e -a) Confusion & restlessnessb) Bradycardiac) Hypotensiond) Sweatinge) Cold extremities | [
"abc",
"bde",
"ace",
"bce"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_232 | Nexus criteria is used for | [
"Traumatic cervical spine injury",
"Traumatic ankle injury",
"Traumatic knee injury",
"Traumatic hip injury"
] | Nexus criteria is used for traumatic cervical spine injury. It checks for any neural deficits, spinal tenderness and for patients with altered consciousness and intoxicated patients as they have chances of spinal injury. Those fulfilling this criterion requires cervical spine stabilization and investigation. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_233 | Which MRI sequence is used to detect brain edema? | [
"T1WI",
"FLAIR",
"SWI",
"DWI"
] | FLAIR stands for Fluid Attenuation Inversion Recovery Sequence This sequence is similar to T2 with suppression of CSF/Fluid signal so the Brain Edema can be seen better. Figure: FLAIR image showing edema in bilateral occipital lobe in a case of PRES(posterior reversible encephalopathy syndrome). | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_234 | True about xenon anaesthesia: | [
"Rapid induction and recovery",
"Low potency",
"High blood solubility",
"All"
] | A i.e. Rapid induction and recovery Xenon is ine/ nobel, colourless, odorless, nonirritating, nonflammable and non explosive gas that is heavier than air (4 times), more dense/viscous than N2 & N20, more potent than N20, is very blood insolubleQ (B/G coefficienct 0.14) most ideal inhaled anesthetic agent with very rapi... | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_235 | Kalli, 35yrs old female presents with Bilateral deep vein thrombosis in legs. There is past history of recurrent foetal loss and one attack of pulmonary embolism. Screening tests of coagulation reveal a prolonged aPTT. Likely diagnosis is: | [
"Factor VIII deficiency",
"Inherited Protein C and S deficiency",
"Anti phospholipid syndrome",
"Hereditary excess of Anti thrombin III"
] | A female with history of deep vein thrombosis in legs, recurrent foetal loss and one attack of pulmonary embolism with prolonged aPTT highlights the diagnosis of a hypercoagulable state which is anti phospholipid syndrome. Ref: Hughes Syndrome: Antiphospholipid Syndrome By Munther A. Khamashta, 2006 ; Textbook of Obste... | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_236 | Clinical significance of Vi antigen of S typhi is - | [
"Helps in diagnosis",
"Highly immunogenic",
"Most important antigen for widal test",
"Antibody against Vi-antigen is used for diagnosis of carrier"
] | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Antibody against Vi-antigen is used for diagnosis of carrier Antigen structures of salmonellao Three important antigenic structures are:-1) Flagellar antigen 'H'# It is a heat labile 'protein' and present on flagella. The H antigen is strongly immunogenic and induce antibody formation rapidly and in h... | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_237 | DNA synthesis requires: | [
"DNA polymerase",
"DNA ligase",
"DNA topoisomerase",
"All"
] | A i.e. DNA polymerase, B i.e.DNA ligase, C i.e. DNA topoisomerase | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_238 | Which one of the following should be relieved under a
palatal major connector? | [
"Rugae region",
"Posterior palatal seal",
"Soft flabby tissue",
"Torus palatinus"
] | null | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_239 | Minus cylinder lenses are prescribed because of | [
"Cheaper to produce and distribute",
"Preferred due to meridional aniseikonia",
"Reduces minification",
"Causes less coma and trefoil"
] | Aniseikonia is defined as a condition wherein, images projected to visual coex from the two retinae are abnormally unequal in size and/or shape. Up to 5% aniseikonia is well tolerated. Meridional aniseikonia - refractive differences only occur in one meridian In a plus cylinder the lens is ground on the anterior surfac... | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_240 | M.C. nerve used for monitoring during anaesthesia | [
"Ulnar nerve",
"Facial nerve",
"Radial nerve",
"Median nerve"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e. Ulnar nerve Most common nerve used for monitoring during anaesthesia is ulnar nerve.Ulnar nerve supplies adductor pollicis, and this muscle is most commonly observed during perioperative period.Adductor pollicis muscle is monitored for neuromuscular blockade. If adductor pollicis is showing no activity... | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_241 | Savita is 35 years female with gravida-2 and parity-1 is suffering from hepatic encephalopathy. Likely cause will be: | [
"Hepatitis B",
"Hepatitis E",
"Hepatitis D",
"Hepatitis A"
] | In normal individuals, acute hepatitis E is self-limited; acute illness usually lasts 1-4 weeks, although some patients have a prolonged cholestatic hepatitis lasting 2-6 months. The hepatitis E virus causes a fulminant hepatitis in pregnant females, primarily affecting women in the third trimester. The moality rate in... | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_242 | The antisocial disorder is characterized by | [
"Excessive sensitivity to suspiciousness",
"Emotional coldness, lack of pressure",
"Unconcern for feeling for others, disregard for social norms",
"Self dramatization, exaggerated expression of emotions"
] | Personality Disorders An enduring pattern of inner experience and behavior that detes markedly from the expectations of individuals' culture. manifested in cognition, affectivity, interpersonal functioning, impulse control. Cluster A Paranoid , Schizoid , Schizotypal Cluster B Anti Social , Borderline , Histrionic , Na... | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_243 | Regarding Rabies, true is - | [
"Incubation period depends on the site of bite",
"Diagnosis is by eosinophilic intranuclear inclusion",
"It is a RNA virus",
"Caused only by dogs"
] | Incubation period is sho in persons bitten on the face,and or head and in long those bitten on leg REF:ANANTHANARYANAN TEXT BOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9th EDITION PG NO.534 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_244 | Myocardial contractility is increased by: | [
"Atropine",
"Decreased end diastolic volume",
"Increased heart rate from 70 to 150 beats/min",
"Reduced arterial pH to 7.3"
] | Option A: Atropine is a muscarinic receptor antagonist that is used to inhibit the effects of excessive vagal activation on the heart, which is manifested as sinus bradycardia and AV nodal block. Effect on contractility is negligible.
Option B: Decrease EDV decreases contractility by Frank Starling law.
Option D: Ac... | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_245 | Knuckle bender splint is used for: September 2009 | [
"Ulnar nerve palsy",
"Radial nerve palsy",
"Median nerve palsy",
"Axillary nerve palsy"
] | Ans. A: Ulnar Nerve Palsy | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_246 | Dysphonia plica ventricularis is produced from: | [
"Vocal cord",
"Ventricular fold",
"Arytenoid",
"Epiglottis"
] | Ans: b (Ventricular fold) Ref: Dhingra, 3rd ed, p. 379 & 4th ed, p. 289In dysphonia plica ventricularis (ventricular dysphonia) voice is produced by ventricular fold which take over the function of true vocal cords. Voice is rough, low pitched and unpleasant.Aetiology:1. Functional2. Secondary to impaired function of v... | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_247 | Which of the following compound antagonizes the actions of insulin | [
"Neuropeptide Y",
"Growth hormone",
"Substance P",
"Vasoactive intestinal peptide"
] | Ans. (b) Growth hormone(Ref: Ganong, 25th ed/p.434)Growth hormone is a diabetogenic hormone. It causes hyperglycemia. It antagonizes the action of insulin | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_248 | Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) affects the immune response. The primary change brought about is: | [
"A gammaglobulinemia",
"Defect in cell-mediated immunity",
"Defect in complement system",
"Defect in natural killer cells"
] | HIV infects CD4 (helper) T-lymphocytes, macrophages and monocytes and leads to cell-mediated immune deficiency which predisposes to opportunistic infections and malignancies. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_249 | Which of the following pulmonary symptoms dont have the corresponding not pulmonary association? | [
"Cyanosis.Anxiety",
"Wheezing-CHF",
"Tachypnoea-Acidosis",
"Chest pain-pericarditis"
] | Cyanosis is the bluish or purplish discolouration of the skin or mucous membranes due to the tissues near the skin surface having low oxygen saturation. Based on Lundsgaard and Van Slyke&;s work,it is classically described as occurring if 5.0 g/dL of deoxyhemoglobin or greater is present. This was based on an estimate ... | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_250 | All of the following tumors are malignant except: | [
"Glioma",
"Astrocytoma",
"Hemangioblastoma",
"Ependymoma"
] | Answer is C (Hemangioblastoma): Cerebellar hemangioblastoina is a benign neoplasm that occurs either sporadically or as pa of Von Hippel - Lindau disease - Chandrasoma Taylor 2"d/933 Clinically presentation is with : - Cerebellar dysfunctionQ - HydrocephalusQ - Polycythemia (the tumor produces erythropoetin).Q | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_251 | Community health guide is selected by: | [
"Block Development Officer",
"ASHA",
"Zila Parishad",
"Medical officer - in - charge"
] | Village community is requested to recommended 2-3 persons suitable to be Health guides Final selection is made by Medical offices of PHC jointly selection is made by Medical officers of PHC ficer and field staff of several government organizations. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_252 | Not associated with diabetes mellitus | [
"Cushing syndrome",
"Acromegaly",
"Hypothyroidism",
"Pheochromocytoma"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Hypothyroidism | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_253 | The following are DDT resistant except - | [
"Phlebotomus",
"Culex fatigans",
"Anopheles stephenci",
"Musca domestica"
] | Resistance to DDT has not been demonstrated in Phlebotomus. Organochloride resistance is divided into Resistance to DDT and analogues Resistance to HCH-Dieldrin group of insecticides Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 25th Edition, Pg 845 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_254 | Endoscopic mucosal resection in Barrett's esophagus results in: | [
"Stricture esophagus",
"Peptic ulceration",
"Reflux esophagitis",
"Achalasia cardia"
] | Complications of endoscopic therapy in barrett esophagus should be divided into immediate and delayed outcomes. Immediate complications include bleeding and perforation. Delayed complications from ablative therapy include stricture formation. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_255 | The height of a child is double the birth height at the age of – | [
"1 year",
"2 years",
"4 years",
"6 years"
] | An infant usually doubles his birth height by the age of 41/2 years | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_256 | Earliest feature of tuberous sclerosis is? | [
"Facial angiofibroma",
"Shagreen patch",
"Ash leaf spot",
"Gingival fibroma"
] | ANSWER: (C) Ash leaf spotREF: Harrison s 18th ed chapter 53 Repeat in December 2011"The earliest manifestation of tuberous sclerosis is Ash leaf spot"Some form of dermatological sign will be present in 96% of individuals with TSC. Most cause no problems but are helpful in diagnosis. Some cases may cause disfigurement, ... | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_257 | Which of the following statements about vasomotor centre (VMC) is true? | [
"Independent of coiCohypothalamic inputs",
"Influenced by baroceptor signals but not by chemoreceptors",
"Acts along with the cardiovagal centre (CVC) to maintain blood pressure",
"Essentially silent in sleep"
] | The vasomotor center (VMC) is a poion of the medulla oblongata that, together with the cardiovascular center and respiratory center, regulates blood pressure and other homeostatic processes Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number:201,202,203 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_258 | The commonest cailage to ossify is | [
"Hyaline",
"Elastic",
"Fibrous",
"Fibroelastic"
] | The epiphyseal plate (or epiphysial plate, physis, or growth plate) is a hyaline cailage plate in the metaphysis at each end of a long bone. It is the pa of a long bone where new bone growth takes place; that is, the whole bone is alive, with maintenance remodeling throughout its existing bone tissue, but the growth pl... | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_259 | A 30 year old man had sexual exposure to a commercial sex worker, develops a painless indurated ulcer on gland after 3 weeks. Diagnosis is - | [
"Syphilis",
"Chancroid",
"HSV",
"Traumatic"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Syphilis o Among the given options only syphilis causes painless ulcer. Also its IP is 9-90 days (median 3 weeks). Genital ulcers || |PainlessPainful|i| | iNo-lymphadenopathy Lymphadenopathy Multiple lesions Painful lymphadenopathy | | | | Painfullymphadenopathy Painlesslymphadenopathy||Presence of ve... | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_260 | Left sided facial weakness and right hemisphere site of lesion is | [
"Internal capsule",
"Pons",
"Medulla",
"Amygdala"
] | (A) Internal capsule # Most common LACUNAR SYNDROMES are the following: Pure motor hemiparesis from an infarct in the posterior limb of the internal capsule or basis pontis; the face, arm, and leg are almost always involved; Pure sensory stroke from an infarct in the ventrolateral thalamus; Ataxic hemiparesis from an i... | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_261 | Features of tentorial herniation include | [
"Vomiting",
"Deterioration of consciousness",
"Dilated pupil",
"All the above"
] | . *trans tentorial herniation of the uncus may compress the ipsilateral 3rd nerve and usually involves the pupillary fibres first ,causing a dilated pupil :however ,a false localised contralateral 3rd nerve palsy may also occur ,perhaps due to extrinsic compression by the tentorial margin.vomiting,coma,bradycardia and ... | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_262 | Vasodilation is caused by all, EXCEPT: | [
"Prostacyclin",
"Thromboxane A2",
"PGE1",
"PGD2"
] | Principal Inflammatory Actions of Arachidonic Acid Metabolites (Eicosanoids) ACTION EICOSANOIDS Vasodilation PGI2 (prostacyclin), PGE1, PGE2, PGD2 Vasoconstriction Thromboxane A2, leukotrienes C4, D4, E4 Increased vascular permeability Leukotrienes C4, D4, E4Ref: Robbins 8th edition Chapter 2. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_263 | Amebic abscess is caused by - | [
"Staph. Aureus",
"Entamoeba histlytica",
"Influenza",
"Echinococcus granulosus"
] | Some individuals with intestinal amoebiasis develop hepatic amoebiasis.Amoebic liver abscess is formed .It may occur in any pa of the liver but it is generally confined to posteriosuperior surface of right lobe of liver (refer pgno:18 baveja 3 rd edition) | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_264 | The instrument below is used for | [
"Endoscopic ultrasound probe",
"Oesophageal temperature probe",
"Enterography",
"None"
] | This is used for monitoring temperature, core temperature monitoring. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_265 | Which of the following is most suggestive of neonatal small bowel obstruction - | [
"Generalized abdominal distension",
"Failure to pass meconeum in the first 24 hours",
"Bilious vomiting",
"Refusal of feeds"
] | Generalized abdominal distention is more indicative of large bowel obstruction. In small bowel obstruction the distention is mild to massive depending on the site of obstruction (minimal or absent in proximal & mild to massive in distal) and is usually central and not generalized.
Failure to pass meconium in the first ... | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_266 | Drug which is never given by oral route: March 2007 | [
"Erythromycin",
"Ciprofloxacin",
"Streptomycin",
"Albendazole"
] | Ans. C: Streptomycin Streptomycin is derived from the actinobacterium Streptomyces griseus. Streptomycin stops bacterial growth by huing cell membranes and inhibiting protein synthesis. Specifically, it binds to the 16S rRNA of the bacterial ribosome, interfering with the binding of formyl-methionyl-tRNA to the 30S sub... | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_267 | About lung metastasis, which is true? | [
"Associated with cough with sputum production",
"Bilateral and multiple",
"Normal chest X-ray",
"Single lesion"
] | Ans: b (Bilateral and multiple) Ref: Davidson, 20th ed,p. 711SECONDARY TUMOURS OF THE LUNGBlood-borne metastatic deposits in the lungs may be derived from many primary tumours. The secondary deposits are usually multiple and bilateral. Often there are no respiratory symptoms and the diagnosis is made by radiological ex... | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_268 | Lamivudine is recommended for treatment of chronic hepatitis B when: | [
"HBe Ag positive",
"HBe Ag Negative",
"ALT > 2 xULN",
"Viral DNA > 102 copies"
] | Answer is C (ALT > 2x ULN) The primary indication of antiviral treatment in chronic hepatitis B is elevation of ALT levels to more than 2 times the upper limit of normal. Antiviral treatment is recommended for treatment of chronic hepatic B in both HBe Ag positive and HBe Ag negative individuals when HBV DNA > 2 x 104 ... | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_269 | All of the following are seen on the right side of the cardiac silhouette in chest X-ray except: September 2008, 2010 | [
"Right atrium",
"Superior vena cava",
"Inferior vena cava",
"Pulmonary aery"
] | Ans. D: Pulmonary aery The cardiac silhouette is the most prominent central feature of the chest x-ray and it produces a familiar gourd shape with the apex of the left ventricle located just behind the left chest nipple. The inferior left ventricle wall lies on the left diaphragm and the superior base of the hea shows ... | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_270 | Treatment of H. pylori is required in all of the following expect? | [
"Gastro esophageal reflex disease",
"Gastric ulcers",
"Duodenal ulcers",
"Gastric lymphoma"
] | H. pylori is Gram-negative and spiral, and has multiple flagella at one end, which make it motile, allowing it to burrow and live beneath the mucus layer adherent to the epithelial surface. It uses an adhesin molecule (BabA) to bind to the Lewis b antigen on epithelial cells. Here the surface pH is close to neutral and... | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_271 | The most common side effects of cancer chemotherapy is nausea with or without vomiting .The anticancer drugs vary in their ability to cause nauesa and vomiting .which of the 6 anticancer drugs is least6 likely to cause6 nausea and vomiting | [
"Chlorambucil",
"Cisplatin",
"Doxorubucin",
"Danurubicin"
] | Cisplantin and cycloohosphamide have very high emetogenic potential wherrsas6 chlorambucil and busulfan have the least Refer KDT 7th/859 Refer Harrison 18th/708 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_272 | Intermediate cell predominance on a vaginal cytology is seen in : | [
"Pregnancy",
"Menstruation",
"Post ovulatory",
"Premenstrual"
] | Pregnancy | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_273 | NK cell CD marker is- | [
"16",
"60",
"32",
"25"
] | Harshmohan textbook of pathology 7th edition NK cells carries surface molecules of CD2, CD16, CD56. But negative for T cell marker CD 3. . | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_274 | In chylomicrons, the Principle Apo-protein is: | [
"Apo A-I",
"Apo A-II",
"Apo B-100",
"Apo B-48"
] | Apo B-48 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_275 | A 25 years female was found in room with 1000/0 burns on her body. The tongue was protruding out; body was in pugilistic attitude with heat ruptures, peeling of skin, and heat haematoma and heat fractures of skull. Carboxy hemoglobin was 250/0 and soot paicles were present in trachea. Which of the combinations of two f... | [
"Heat haematoma & heat ruptures",
"Heat fracture of skull and peeling of skin",
"Heat haematoma and pugilistic attitude",
"Carboxv hemoglobin (25%) and soot paicles in trachea"
] | D i.e. Carboxy hemoglobin 250/0 and shoot paicles in trachea | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_276 | Males who are sexually underdeveloped with rudimentary testes and prostate glands, sparse pubic and facial hair, long arms and legs and large hands & feet are likely to have the chromosome - | [
"45, XYY",
"46, XY",
"46, XXY",
"46, X"
] | Ans-C | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_277 | Which of the following is not a germ cell tumor? | [
"Embryonal cell cancer",
"Primitive Neuroendocrine tumor",
"Dysgerminoma",
"Teratoma"
] | B- Primitive Neuroendocrine Tumor. Examples of GCT: Seminoma Dysgerminoma Embryonal cell Ca Chorio Ca Teratoma Yolk-Sac tumor | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_278 | Polycythemia is associated with all the following cancers except | [
"Stomach cancer",
"Liver cancer",
"Prostrate cancer",
"Renal cell cancer"
] | *Paraneoplastic syndromes -Syndromes which occur due to hormonal proteins produced by a "Non-endocrine tumor". So if you find an endocrine tumor, you may safely exclude it from the option.*Malignancies associated with polycythemia are the Gastric carcinoma, Renal carcinoma, Cerebellar hemangioma and Hepatocellular carc... | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_279 | Indications of tracheostomy are | [
"Flail chest",
"Head injury",
"Tetanus",
"All"
] | A i.e. Flail chest; B i.e. Head injury; C i.e. Tetanus | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_280 | The condition of genital organs whlch may lead to leslons in surgicalscars, rectum, lymph nodes, lung ls : | [
"Teratoma",
"Endometriosis",
"Adenomyosis",
"Fibroid"
] | Endometriosis | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_281 | Which of the following is the most common initial manifestation of malignant hypehermia? | [
"Hyperkalemia",
"Increased distal esophageal temperature",
"Increased PETCO2",
"Red discoloration of urine"
] | Increased PETCO2 is the most common initial manifestation of malignant hypehermia. Malignant hypehermia (MH) may occur either in the operating room (OR) or in the early postoperative period. The earliest sign is an increase in end-tidal carbon dioxide. A fulminant reaction is obvious, with very high end-tidal carbon di... | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_282 | Saddle shaped nose is due to: September 2002 | [
"Depressed tip of nose",
"Depressed nasal dorsum",
"Depressed nasal bones",
"Destruction of ala of nose"
] | Ans. B i.e. Depressed nasal dorsum | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_283 | Loss of extension of little ring finger, hypothenar atrophy is seen in injury of: | [
"Post interosseous nerve",
"Radial trunk",
"Ulnar Nerve",
"Median nerve"
] | Ans. c. Ulnar nerve before division into superficial and deep branches (Ref: BDC 4/vol-I/123) Nerve damaged in case of numbness of little and ring finger, atrophy of hypothenar muscles is ulnar nerve, before division into superficial and deep branches. Supplied muscles Ulnar Nerve (C7C8T1) Musician's NerveQ Median Nerv... | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_284 | Drug of choice for obsessive-compulsive disorder is: March, 2005, September 2009 | [
"Seraline",
"Alprazolam",
"Chlorpromazine",
"Fluoxetine"
] | Ans. D: Fluoxetine The two medications proven to be most effective in the treatment of OCD are tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs). Serotonin is a chemical in the brain called a neurotransmitter that may be imbalanced in people with OCD. While both drugs are very effecti... | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_285 | After a solid organ transplantation, which of the following is responsible for acute graft rejection.? | [
"C3a",
"C3b",
"C5a",
"C4d"
] | Ans. (d) C4d(Ref: Robbins 9th/234)Acute antibody-mediated rejection is manifested mainly by damage to glomeruli and small blood vessels. Typically, the lesions consist of inflammation of glomeruli and peritubular capillaries, associated with deposition of the complement breakdown product C4d, which is produced during a... | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_286 | Which of the following is not a cause of metabolic alkalosis? | [
"Vomiting",
"Fever",
"Renal failure",
"Both 2 & 3"
] | Causes of Respiratory Acidosis: (pH ↓, CO2 ↑)
Hypoventilation
Pulmonary edema
COPD
Airway obstruction
Neuromuscular diseases
Causes of Metabolic Acidosis: (pH ↓, HCO3 ↓)
Diabetic Ketoacidosis
Salicylate overdose
Diarrhoea
Shock
Sepsis
Renal failure
Causes of Respiratory Alkalosis: (pH ↑, CO2 ↓)
High altitudes
Preg... | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_287 | The following conditions ours mummification | [
"Warm & Humid climate",
"Absence of moisture",
"Clostridium perfringes",
"Intrinsic Lipases"
] | Ideal conditions for mummification: High temperature, dry condition, absence of moisture and free circulation of air. Ideal conditions for Adipocere formation: Warm temperature, moisture, less air, bacteria, and fat splitting enzymes (lipases). | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_288 | Which one of the following in the characteristic feature of juvenile myoclonic epilepsy ? | [
"Myoclonic seizures frequently occur in morning",
"Complete remission is common",
"Response to anticonvulsants is poor",
"Associted absence seizures are present in majority of patients"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Myoclonic seuzures frequently occur in morning Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy-is an epilepsy syndrome. Epilepsy syndromes are disorders in which epilepsy is a predominant feature and there is sufficient evidence to suggest a common underlying mechanism. Juvenile Mvoclonic Epilepsy o It is characterized b... | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_289 | A 26 year old lady has been on Olanzapine for the treatment of Schizophrenia. All of the following are the ATP III (Adult Treatment Panel) criteria for metabolic syndrome, except: | [
"Abdominal obesity",
"Triglyceride > 150 mg/dl",
"Blood pressure > 130/85",
"LDL > 150 mg/dl"
] | LDL is not included in metabolic syndrome criteria. All others are indicated. The new generation anti-psychotics like Olanzapine and Risperidone increases the risk of metabolic syndrome and increase the risks of cardiovascular disease. ATP III (Adult Treatment Panel) Criteria for Metabolic Syndrome is as follows: Abdom... | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_290 | True about nucleosome: (PGI Nov 2009) | [
"Use only one type of histone protein",
"Each complex is separated from each other by non histone proteins",
"Regular repeating structure of DNA & histone proteins",
"Reflect small nucleus"
] | Ans: C (Regular repeating structure of DNA & histone proteins) Chromatin is the chromosomal material in the nuclei of cells of eukaryotic organisms:ChromatinQ consists of very long double-stranded DNAQ molecules and a nearly equal mass of rather small basic proteins termed histonesQ as well as a smaller amount of nonhi... | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_291 | All of the following statements about Leber's Hereditary Optic Neuropathy (LHON) are true except: | [
"Mutation in mitochondrial DNA,MT-ND4 gene",
"Fluorescein angiography shows leakage from the microangiopathic vessels",
"Usually affects males between the ages of 15 -35 years",
"Chalky white optic disc"
] | Leber hereditary optic neuropathy (LHON) Rare ganglion cell degeneration. Papillomacular bundle is paicularly affected. Caused by maternally inherited mitochondrial DNA point mutations, MT-ND4 gene. Affects males between the ages of 15 -35 years, although in atypical cases the condition may affect females and present a... | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_292 | Confirmatory test for the diagnosis ofAmyloidosis is? | [
"Diagnostic peritoneal lavage",
"Tongue biopsy",
"Rectal biopsy",
"Whole body CT scan"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Rectal biopsyThe most definitive investigation for amyloidosis is biopsy. The diagnosis of amyloidosis is made by detecting the characteristic amyloid protein in a biopsy specimen of involved tissue.o For many years rectal biopsy was the first procedure of choice. However, the capillaries in the subcu... | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_293 | Picket fence fever is a feature of- | [
"Acute mastoiditis",
"Lateral sinus thrombophlebitis",
"Bell's Palsy",
"Atticoantral CSOM"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Lateral sinus thrombophlebitis Signs of lateral sinus thrombosis (sigmoid sinus thrombosis)o Hectic Picket-Fence type of fever with rigor.o Headache, Progressive anemia and emaciation.o Griesinger's sign:- odema over the posterior part of mastoid due to thrombosis of mastoid emissary veinso Papilloede... | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_294 | Hyperbaric oxygen is useful in | [
"Tetanus",
"Frostbite",
"Vincent's angina",
"Gas gangrene"
] | Hyperbaric oxygen is currently considered a primary treatment modality for carbon monoxide poisoning, cerebral aerial gas embolism, osteoradionecrosis, decompression sickness, and clostridial gas gangrene. It is also considered an adjunctive therapy for acute exceptional blood loss anemia, acute thermal burns, compromi... | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_295 | True regarding adenomyosis is | [
"Most common in nulliparous women",
"Progestin are agents of choice for medical management",
"More common in young women",
"Presents with menorrhagia, dysmenorrhea, and an enlarged uterus"
] | The patients are usually porous and in their forties
Symptoms: Menorrhagia or Menometrorrhagia and Congestive dysmenorrhoea
Relief of secondary dysmennorhoea can be tried with NSAIDs or OCPs
Other options are GnRH agonists or LNG -IUS.
Medical treatment is not very effective. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_296 | Curling's ulcer is seen if burns area is more than | [
"35%",
"45%",
"55%",
"65%"
] | Curling's ulcer is seen if burns > 35%. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_297 | Which of the following is a feature of Haloperidol toxicity? | [
"Weight loss",
"Sweating",
"Akathisia",
"Diarrhoea"
] | Symptoms of haloperidol toxicity are usually due to exaggerated side effects. Most often encountered are: Severe extrapyramidal side effects with muscle rigidity and tremors, akathisia, etc. Hypotension or hypeension Sedation Anticholinergic side effects (dry mouth, constipation, paralytic ileus, difficulties in urinat... | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_298 | Ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity are characteristic adverse effects of wof | [
"Chloramphenicol",
"Fluoroquinolones",
"b-Lactam antibiotics",
"Aminoglycosides"
] | Aminoglycoside Antibiotics SHARED TOXICITIES The aminoglycosides produce toxic effects which are common to all members( include ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity), but the relative propensity differs Ref:- kd tripathi; pg num:-744 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_299 | The following disease require isolation to break transmission except - | [
"Measles",
"Mumps",
"Chicken pox",
"Tetanus"
] | Tetanus infections are acquired almost always by contamination of wounds with tetanus spores, usually found in soil and dust. Ref: 25th edition, Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, Page no. 339 | D | null |
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