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Familial adenomatous polyposis is characterized by all except: (A) Autosomal recessive transmission, (B) More than 100 polyps in colorectal area, (C) Polyps seen in duodenum, (D) Extra-intestinal manifestations are present | Answer is A. Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) Is a rare, inherited condition caused by a defect in the adenomatous polyposis coli (APC) gene - located in 5q 21 chromosome. FAP is autosomal dominant- >50% chance of inheritance in family members Has > 100 adenomatous polyps 100% RISK of malignancy Polyp formation - b... | |
In Steiner's analysis, SNA demonstrates:: (A) Position of mandible in relation to cranial base, (B) Position of maxilla in relation to cranial base, (C) Maxillo-mandibular relationship, (D) None of the above | Answer is B. Relating the Maxilla to the Skull: The angle SNA is formed by joining the lines S-N and N-A . The mean reading for this angle is 82°.
Steiners analysis demonstrates the position of maxilla and mandible in relation to the cranial base.
If the angular reading is more than 82°, it would indicate a relative f... | |
. Sulphasalazine is NOT used for the treatment of-: (A) Crohn's disease, (B) Rheumatoid ahritis, (C) Sarcoidosis, (D) Ulcerative colitis | Answer is C. Sulhasalazine is not used for treatment of sarcoidosis As a treatment for sarcoidosis, these drugs are most likely to be effective in people who have skin symptoms or a high level of calcium in their blood. Hydroxychloroquine (Plaquenil) and chloroquine (Aralen) are antimalarial drugs that are used to trea... | |
Post traumatic stress disorder is differentiated from other anxiety disorders by which of the following symptoms?: (A) Nightmares, (B) Re-living of past adverse event, (C) Hypervigilance, (D) Avoidance | Answer is B. This question is not about the diagnostic features of PTSD. This is about the differential diagnosis. PTSD is an anxiety disorder and it shares symptoms with other disorders. Impoant features in distinguishing the condition are given below. Differential diagnosis: Point 1: Etiologically significant trauma ... | |
Which muscle is responsible for unlocking of knee?: (A) Popliteus, (B) Quadriceps femoris, (C) Semitendinosus, (D) Semimembranosus | Answer is A. Ans. A PopliteusRef: BDC, vol II pg. 155* Quadriceps femoris is the main and only extensor of knee.* It produces locking action as a result of medial rotation of the femur during the last stage of extension.* To reverse this lock popliteus muscle comes into action and does so by the lateral rotation of fem... | |
Polymorphic ventricular tachycardia can occur when terfenadine(antihistaminic):: (A) Is coadministrator with azithromycin, (B) Is coadministrator with fluconazole, (C) Is given in higher doses, (D) Reduces QT interval | Answer is C. Torsades de pointes (polymorphic ventricular tachycardia) occurs when terfenadine is taken in higher doses or when hepatic metabolism is impaired by disease or by drugs which inhibit the cytochrome P450 responsible for metabolism of terfenadine. Drugs include erythromycin, clarithromycin, ketoconazole and ... | |
Which component transfers four protons:: (A) NADH-Q Oxidoreductase, (B) Cytochrome -C oxidase, (C) Cytochrome C - Q oxidoredictase, (D) Isocitrate Dehydrogenase | Answer is A. A i.e. NADH-Q Oxidoreductase; C i.e. Cytochrome C-Q oxidoreductase | |
All of the following are true about Asthma, Except:: (A) Charcol Leydin crystals may be seen in sputum, (B) Reversible Airflow obstruction is a characteristic feature, (C) Large airways are involved, (D) Small airways are not involved | Answer is D. Answer is D (Small airways are not involved): Asthma involves both large and small airways but alveoli are not involved Charcot Leyden crystals may be seen in sputum: Pathology by woolf lsr (1998)/434 Sputum from Asthmatics show ceain characteristic features, including charcot leydencrystas The microscopic... | |
In emergency, which aery can be safely ligated ?: (A) Internal iliac, (B) Popliteal, (C) Renal aeryInternal carotid, (D) All | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e. Internal iliac | |
Late metabolic acidosis is seen in-: (A) Term infant given formula feed, (B) Preterm baby getting cow milk, (C) Long term breast feeding, (D) None of the above | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Preterm baby getting cow milk Late metabolic acidosis (LMA) o Late metabolic acidosis is a special type of acidosis in apparently healthy premature infant. o This hyperchloremic acidosis appeares during second and third week of life, and resolves spontaneously within a couple of weeks. De... | |
Chemotherapeutic drugs can cause?: (A) Only necrosis, (B) Only apoptosis, (C) Both necrosis and apoptosis, (D) Anoikis | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Both necrosis and apoptosis o Injurious stimuli, e.g., radiation, cytotoxic anticancer durgs, heat and hypoxia, can induce apoptosis if the insult is mild, but large doses of same stimuli result in necrotic cell death. | |
Which of the following nerve is involved in Frey's syndrome?: (A) Trigeminal, (B) Mandibular, (C) Ariculo temporal, (D) Lingual | Answer is C. Syndrome (Gustatory Sweating) aka auriculotemporal syndrome: Frey's syndrome arises as a complication of parotid surgery usually manifesting several months after the operation. lt is characterised by sweating and flushing of the preauricular skin during mastication causing nuisance to the person or social ... | |
Opening of mouth is caused by:: (A) Lateral pterygoid, (B) Medial pterygoid, (C) Temporalis, (D) Masseter | Answer is A. Ans. A Lateral pterygoidRef: Grays, 41st ed. pg. 507-508* The primary function of the lateral pterygoid muscle is to pull the head of the condyle out of the mandibular fossa along the articular eminence to protrude the mandible.* The effort of the lateral pterygoid muscles acts in helping lower the mandibl... | |
All are true about streptococcus Except: (A) M-protein is responsible for production of mucoid colonies, (B) M-protein is responsible for virulence, (C) Mucoid colonies are virulent, (D) Classified based on their haemolytic propeies. | Answer is A. Mucoid colonies are due to the production of the capsule of hyaluronic acid not due to M-protein. Growth characteristic of Strep. pyogenes: On blood agar, virulent stains form matt or mucoid colonies while avirulent from glossy colonies. M, T, R are proteins found on the outer pa of the cell wall and forms... | |
What is monitored in a patient of Pre eclamsia ?: (A) Uric acid, (B) Platlet count, (C) LFT, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e. All of the abov Investigations in a case of Pre eclampsia* URINE for proteins/albumin. 24 hours urine protein* CBC: There is hemoconcentration so HB values are false elevated. Low platlets indicate HELLP syndrome* Sr uric acid: It is a biochemical marker of preeclampsia. Raised levels (>4.... | |
In a young female of reproductive age an absolute contraindication for prescribing oral contraceptive pills is:: (A) Diabetes, (B) Hypertension, (C) Obesity, (D) Impaired liver function | Answer is D. Ans-D i.e., Impaired liver function Repeat Q No 173 (Nov. 2004)Absolute contraindications include:A personal h/O thromboembolic venous, arterial or cardiac disease or severe or multiple risk factor for these. Transient cerebral ischaemic attacks without a headache.Infective hepatitis, until 3 months after ... | |
A tracheostomised patient, with poex tracheostomy tube, in the ward, developed sudden complete blockage of the tube. Which of the following is best next step in the management?: (A) Immediate removal of the tracheostomy tube, (B) Suction of tube with sodium bicarbonate, (C) Suction of tube with saline, (D) Jet ventilat... | Answer is A. Immediate removal of the tracheostomy tube is best next step in the management in the above case -Suction of tube with sodium bicarbonate is done to avoid the blockage. -Suction of the tube with saline can't be used when there's a complete obstruction. - Jet ventilation is done below the level of larynx, w... | |
All of the following are well recognised predisposing factors for adult respiratory distress syndrome, except:: (A) Multiple blood transfusions, (B) Septicemia, (C) Status asthmaticus, (D) Toxic gas inhalation | Answer is C. Status asthmaticus is an example of type 2 respiratory failure while ARDS is type 1 respiratory failure. All other choices lead to cytokines release and damage the alveoli leading to ARDS. | |
Gottron papules is seen in ?: (A) Dermatomyositis, (B) Scleroderma, (C) Sarcoidosis, (D) Behcets syndrome | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Dermatomyositis | |
Which among the following is the BEST irrigating fluid during ECCE?: (A) Ringer lactate, (B) Normal saline, (C) Balanced salt solution, (D) Balanced salt solution + glutathione | Answer is D. BSS plus a balanced salt solution enhanced with bicarbonate, dextrose and glutathione. It is specially used for surgeries requiring prolonged irrigation such as phacoemulsification, pars plana vitrectomy and automated extracapsular cataract extraction. Balanced sterile solution is a sterile physiologically... | |
Acute Gouty ahritis is seen early in treatment following -: (A) Probenecid, (B) Allopurinol, (C) Rasburicase, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. All of the above Rapid lowering of urate level in chronic gout, by any means, may precipitate an attack of acute gout, probably by causing the dissolution of tophi. o It is therefore usual to give prophylactic suppressive treatment with indomethacine, colchicine or steroid cover during first 2 months of al... | |
Chandler's index is associated with: September 2006: (A) Round worm, (B) Hook worm, (C) Pin worm, (D) Tape worm | Answer is B. Ans. B: Hook worm Morbidity and moality from hookworm infection depend much on the worm load. Chandler worked out an index on the basis of an average number of hookworm eggs per gram of feces for the entire community, Chandler's index is still used in epidemiological studies of hookworm disease. By this in... | |
Heparin is the commonly used anticoagulant in cardiac surgery. All of the following are true about heparin except-: (A) Weakest acid found in living things, (B) Most commercial preparations of heparin now utilize pig intestinal slimes, (C) Act via Antithrombin activation, (D) Produce thrombocytopenia | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' Weakest acid found in living organism Heparin is a direct acting anticoagulant Chemical nature and preparationHeparin is a sulfated mucopolysaccharide which occurs in the secretory granules of mast cells.It is the strongest organic acid in the body and in the solution it carries an electronegat... | |
One of the following is the first enzyme to be released at the site of wound?: (A) Aminopeptidase, (B) ATPase, (C) Acid phosphatase, (D) Alkaline phosphatase | Answer is B. Ref - Krishan Vij textbook of forensic medicine and toxicology 5e pg - 202 | |
Sign of diabetic ketoacidosis is-: (A) Loss of sweating, (B) Depression, (C) Dehydration, (D) Absent deep tendon reflexes | Answer is C. Physical findings of diabetic ketoacidosis are tachycardia, dehydration/hypotension, hypothermia, tachypnea/Kussmaul respirations/ respiratory distress, abdominal tenderness (may resemble acute pancreatitis or surgical abdomen), lethargy/obtundation/cerebral edema/possibly coma. Reference : page 2418 Harri... | |
Which of the following drug is used in scabies as single oral dose agent: March 2011: (A) Permethrin, (B) Retinoids, (C) Ivermectin, (D) Co-trimoxazole | Answer is C. Ans. C: Ivermectin Ivermectin is used as single oral dose of 200 microgram/ kg body weight It can be repeated after 2 weeks It is indicated in epidemics of scabies in orphanages and Norwegian scabies Scabies: Incubation period: 4 weeks Pathognomic lesion: Burrow, which lies in stratum corneum MC site in in... | |
Most common complication after ERCP is: (A) Acute Pancreatitis, (B) Acute cholangitis, (C) Acute cholecystitis, (D) Duodenal perforation | Answer is A. Complication perforation(1.3%)/hemorrhage (1.4%),pancreatitis (4.3%) and sepsis (3-30%). Bailey & Love 26th, 208 | |
Progesterone production in the ovary is primarily by:: (A) Stroma, (B) Corpora albicans, (C) Corpora lutea, (D) Mature follicles | Answer is C. None | |
Which of the following clinical situations is associated with an increase in predominantly conjugated ("direct") bilirubin?: (A) Physiologic jaundice of the neonate, (B) Kernicterus Following Rhesus Incompatibility, (C) Gilbe's Syndrome, (D) Pancreatic head tumor | Answer is D. Of the conditions listed, only pancreatic head tumors are associated with an increase in conjugated ("direct") bilirubin (obstructive jaundice). Increased levels of unconjugated ("direct") bilirubin result from hemolysis over liver defects that impair uptake or conjugation mechanism in liver cells (Gilbe's... | |
The use of kinematic face bow is contraindicated in the
edentulous patients because: (A) It has to be used on the mandibular ridge, (B) Recording base may be unstable on the edentulous mandible, (C) Movement of bases may lead to inaccuracy in recording hinge axis, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. None | |
Regarding carcinoma Gallbladder true statement: (A) Squamous cell carcinoma is the most common, (B) Present with jaundice, (C) Good prognosis, (D) 65% survival after surgery | Answer is B. Clinical features Most commonly presents with right upper quadrant pain often mimicking cholecystitis and cholelithiasis Weight loss, jaundice and abdominal pain are less common presenting symptoms Chronic cholecystitis with a recent change in quality or frequency of the painful episodes in 40% patients Ma... | |
Which anaesthetic agent increases intracranial tension among the following: (A) Thiopentone, (B) Propofol, (C) Lignocaine, (D) Sevoflurane | Answer is D. All inhalational anaesthetics directly act on cerebral blood vessels→vasodilatation→increase cerebral blood flow→ increase intracranial tension | |
Granules of Eleidin are present in which of the following layer?: (A) Stratum corneum, (B) Stratum lucidum, (C) Stratum spinosum, (D) Stratum basale | Answer is B. Stratum Lucidum - Also called clear cell layer. Present only in skin of palms and soles. Translucent due to presence of refractile Eleidin granules | |
Which of the following drug is a long acting beta–2 agonist ?: (A) Albuterol, (B) Salmeterol, (C) Pirbuterol, (D) Orciprenaline | Answer is B. None | |
Antidepressant drug used in nocturnal enuresis is:: (A) Imipramine, (B) Fluoxetine, (C) Trazodone, (D) Seraline | Answer is A. Sleep related enuresis- Treatment Bed alarms (behavioral therapy)- TOC Desmopressin (DOC) Imipramine (TCA Antidepressant) | |
Five days after an uneventful cholecystectomy, an asymptomatic middle-aged woman is found to have a serum sodium level of 125 mEq/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate management strategy for this patient?: (A) Administration of hypeonic saline solution, (B) Restriction of free water, (C) Plasma ultrafiltra... | Answer is B. The initial, and often definitive, management of hyponatremia is free-water restriction. Symptomatic hyponatremia, which occurs at serum sodium levels less than or equal to 120 mEq/L, can result in headache, seizures, coma, and signs of increased intracranial pressure and may require infusion of hypeonic s... | |
Reversible cause of dementia is -: (A) Alzheimer's disease, (B) Parkinsonism, (C) Hypothyroidism, (D) Vascular dementia | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Hypothyroidism Causes of dementiaReversible causesSurgically treatableMedically treatableo Normal pressure hydrocephaluso Brain tumors (frontal lobe tumor)o Meningiomao Subdural hematoma (Head injury)o Hydrocephaluso Hypothyroidismo Depressiono HIV infectiono Alcohol abuseo Vitamin B12, F... | |
A obese female having hirsutism on laboratory investigation has high level of LH and androgens. Likely cause is-: (A) PCOS, (B) Exogenous steroid ingestion, (C) Turner syndrome, (D) Kleinfelter syndrome | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., PCOS o The clinical and laboratory features of the patient described in the question match with those of PCOS as depicted in the table. So the most appropriate answer is PCOS.Clinical features of polycystic ovarian diseaseClinical featureHannonalSequelaeo Young womano | E2. levelo Diabaet... | |
Which of the following is a feature of papillon lefevre
syndrome?: (A) destructive periodontitis, (B) palmar-plantar keratosis, (C) calcification of dura, (D) all the above | Answer is D. None | |
All are used in the management of head injury patient except?: (A) Neuromuscular paralysis, (B) Nor-epinephrine, (C) Sedation, (D) Glucocoicoids | Answer is D. Glucocoicoids are useful for management of vasogenic edema from tumor or brain abscess. In contrast glucocoicoids are avoided in case of head trauma, ischemic and hemorrhagic stroke. Norepinephrine or pressor therapy is used to maintain a MAP to maintain CPP> 60 mm Hg. Sedation is done with propofol or mid... | |
Not a premalignant condition: March 2005: (A) Retinitis pigmentosa, (B) Crohn's disease, (C) Ulcerative colitis, (D) Leukoplakia | Answer is A. Ans. A: Retinitis pigmentosaGIT premalignant conditionsOf the four major primary small-bowel tumors (adenocarcinomas, lymphomas, carcinoid, and leiomyosarcomas), adenocarcinomas and lymphomas are associated with diseases that seem to increase the risk of developing these malignancies.Immunoproliferative sm... | |
Which of the following is false about Takotsubo Cardiomyopathy: (A) Due to major catecholamine discharge, (B) Lv Contractile dysfunction, (C) Presents with acute chest pain, (D) Echo never reverts back to normal | Answer is D. Echo comes back to normal in two weeks. | |
In rheumatic heart disease, infective endocarditis is detected by echocardiogram and the largest vegetations seen are due to-: (A) Streptococcus viridans, (B) Staphylococcus aureus, (C) Candida albicans, (D) Salmonella typhi | Answer is C. None | |
Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC) has an increased risk of all the following except: (A) Endometrium, (B) Ovary, (C) Stomach, (D) Pancreas | Answer is D. Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer (Lynch syndrome)Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC) is characterised by an increased risk of colorectal cancer and also cancers of the endometrium, ovary, stomach and small intestine.It is an autosomal dominant condition caused by a mutation in one ... | |
Iodine RDA is -: (A) 300 microgram, (B) 500 microgram, (C) 150 microgram, (D) 50microgram | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., 150 microgram o The RDA of iodine for adults is 150 microgram.GroupRecommended daily intakePreschool children (0-59 months)School children (6 - 12 years)Adults (>12 years)Pregnancy and lactation90 meg120 meg150 meg250 meg | |
Spanish windlass was practices in Spain as a method of execution. It is a type of:: (A) Bansdola, (B) Mugging, (C) Garrotting, (D) Hanging | Answer is C. Garrotting Garrotting: One of the methods of hemicidal strangulation The victim is attacked from behind without warning and strangled by grasping throat or by throwing a ligature over the neck and tightening it quickly. In this way a single assailant can kill a healthy robust adult. Garrotting was practice... | |
Dispropoionately increased blood urea levels compared to serum creatinine (urea creatinine ratio 20:1) can be seen in the following except -: (A) Prerenal failure, (B) CCF, (C) Intrinsic renal failure, (D) Hypovolemia | Answer is C. Intrinsic or intrarenal acute renal failure (ARF) occurs when direct damage to the kidneys causes a sudden loss in kidney function. The most common causes of intrinsic acute renal failure are acute tubular necrosis (ATN), acute glomerulonephritis (AGN), and acute interstitial nephritis (AIN) . Ref Harrison... | |
For RNA, which blotting technique is used -: (A) Western blot, (B) Northern blot, (C) Southernblod, (D) None | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Northern blot TechniqueSample analyzedGel usedProbeSouthern blotDNAQYesRadioactive DNAAllele specific oligonucleotide (ASO)DNANoAllele specific oligonucleotideMicroarravm-RNA or c-DNANoDNA probeNorthern blotRNAQYesDNA probeWestern (immuno) blotProtein QYesLabeled antibody QSouth Western b... | |
Which bacteria acts by inhibiting protein synthesis?: (A) Pseudomonas, (B) Staphylococcus, (C) Streptococcus, (D) Klebsiella | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Pseudomonas | |
Panthothenic acid is coenzyme of which of the following reaction (s):: (A) Dehydrogenation, (B) Oxidation, (C) Decarboxylation, (D) Acetylation | Answer is D. D i.e. Acetylation Pantothenic acid is necessary for synthesis of coenzyme A (CoA)Q, which functions as a coenzyme for acetylation reactionsQ | |
Delusion that someone from high socio economic status is loving you is in -: (A) Othello syndrome, (B) Capgras syndrome, (C) De clerambault syndrome, (D) Franklin syndrome | Answer is C. None | |
Oesophageal motility disorder are best diagnosed by?: (A) Barium studies, (B) Endoscopy, (C) 24 hour pH monitoring, (D) Manometry | Answer is B. Answer is B (Endoscopy): Dysphagia for solids alone suggests a probable mechanical cause for dysphagia such as carcinoma, stricture or esophageal web. The investigation of choice for such cases is Endoscopy. | |
Quinine given to a patient of falciparum malaria caused sweating and palpitation, the likely cause is?: (A) Cinchonism, (B) Hyperglycemia, (C) Hypoglycemia, (D) Hypokalemia | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Hypoglycemia o Sweating and palpitations suggest hypoglycemia; which can occur due to quinine. Cinchonism is characterized by ringing in ears, nausea, vomiting, veigo, headache, mental confusion, difficulty in hearing and vision. Hypotension and cardiac arrhythmias develop on rapid i.v. i... | |
Good pasture's syndrome is characterized by all of the following, except:: (A) Glomerulonephritis, (B) Leucocytoclastic Vasculitis, (C) Diffuse alveolar haemorrhage, (D) Presence of antibodies to Basement Membrane | Answer is B. Answer is B (Leucocytoclastic Vasculitis) Leucocytoclastic vasculitis is not a typical feature of Good pasture's syndrome Triad of Goodpasture's syndrome (Ferri 's Color Atlas & Text of Clinical Medicine) Glomerulonephritisdeg (RPGN; crescents) Pulmonary HaemorrhageQ (Diffuse Alveolar Haemorrhage) Antibodi... | |
Main source of energy derived from: (A) Fat, (B) Glycogen, (C) Lactate, (D) Ketone | Answer is B. Glycogen is the reserve carbohydrate in animals. It is stored in liver and muscles.The phosphorylated enzyme is less sensitive to allosteric inhibitors. Thus even if cellular ATP and glucose-6-phosphate are high, Phosphorylase will be active. The glucose-1-phosphate produced from glycogen in the liver may ... | |
Reverse Coarctation is seen in: (A) Giant cell arteritis, (B) Takayasu arteritis, (C) Polyarteritis nodosa, (D) Microscopic polyangitis | Answer is B. Reverse Coarctation ;weak or absent pulse in upper limb + pulse present in lower limb. | |
Measures involved in sentinel surveillance includes all of the following except.: (A) Identifying missing cases in notification of diseases, (B) Identifying new cases of infection, (C) Identifying old and new cases, (D) Identifying cases free of disability | Answer is D. Ans. (d) Identifying cases free of disability* Surveillance: Is the ongoing systematic collection and analysis of data and the provision of information which leads to action being taken to prevent and control a disease, usually one of an infectious nature* Surveillance is of many types:- Passive Surveillan... | |
Which of the following drug crosses placenta: (A) Heparin, (B) Warfarin, (C) Dicumarol, (D) Nicoumalone | Answer is B. (Warfarin) (601-KDT6th)* WARFARIN - It crosses placenta and is secreted in milk however quantity of active form is generally insufficient to affect the suckling infants* HEPARIN - does not cross BBB or placenta**- It is the anticoagulant of choice during pregnancy*** Bleeding due to overdose is the most se... | |
Vocal cord palsy is not associated with -: (A) Vertebral secondaries, (B) Left atrial enlargement, (C) Bronchogenic carcinoma, (D) secondaries in mediastinum | Answer is A. None | |
Thymic hypoplsia is seen in which of the following: (A) Wiskott Aldrich syndrome, (B) Digeorge syndrome, (C) IgA deficiency, (D) Agammaglobulinamia | Answer is D. Ref Robbins 9/e p224 Thymic Hypoplasia: DiGeorge Syndrome DiGeorge syndrome results from a congenital defect in thymic development with deficient T cell maturation. T cells are absent in the lymph nodes, spleen, and peripheral blood, and infants with this defect are extremely vulnera- ble to viral, fungal,... | |
Rett's syndrome occurs due to deficiency of ?: (A) Niacin, (B) Biotin, (C) Carotene, (D) Vit D | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Biotin | |
The Triat in which the parents are clinically normal and only siblings are affected but males and females are affected in equal propoions is:: (A) AD, (B) AR, (C) XLD, (D) XLR | Answer is B. AR | |
Vitamin K is ivolved in the posttranslational modification?: (A) Glutamate, (B) Aspartate, (C) Leucine, (D) Lysine | Answer is A. None | |
True about primary peritonitis: (A) Mostly monobacterial, (B) It is chemical peritonitis proceeds secondary peritonitis, (C) Needs peritoneal lavage, (D) Occurs with Cirrhosis of liver | Answer is D. (D) Occurs with Cirrhosis of liver # # PRIMARY (SPONTANEOUS) BACTERIAL PERITONITIS> Peritonitis is either primary (without an apparent source of contamination) or secondary.> The types of organisms found and the clinical presentations of these two processes are different. In adults, primary bacterial perit... | |
Osgood Schlatter disease is associated with osteochondritis of: (A) Patella, (B) Femur medial condyle, (C) Tibial tubercle, (D) Femur lateral condyle | Answer is C. Types of Osteochondritis and Nomenclature Traction apophysitis (chronic strain injuries) Tibial Tuberosity Osgood-Schlatter Calcaneum Sever The lower pole of patella Sinding-Larsen&;s | |
Datura seeds resemble -: (A) Ricinus communis, (B) Capsicum, (C) Opium, (D) None | Answer is B. ↵The seeds of datura closely resemble those of the capsicum universally used over India as a condiment, and the difficulty of their detection is enhanced by the fact that, apart from the bitterness, the poison-seeds have little taste and as impure salt is generally used in India. | |
Measles is infective for:: (A) One day before and 4 days after rash, (B) Four days before and five days after rash, (C) Entire incubation period, (D) Only during scabs falling | Answer is B. Measles/English Measles is spread through respiration (contact with fluids from an infected person&;s nose and mouth, either directly or through aerosol transmission), and is highly contagious -- 90% of people without immunity sharing a house with an infected person will catch it. The infection has an aver... | |
True about Caspases is?: (A) Involved in apoptosis, (B) Cause necrosis, (C) Involved in pain pathway, (D) Are cytokines inhibitor | Answer is A. ANSWER: (A) Involved in apoptosisREF: Robbins pathology 7th edition page 27-29Caspases are essential in cells for apoptosis, or programmed cell death, in development and most other stages of adult life, and have been termed "executioner" proteins for their roles in the cell Some Caspases are also required ... | |
Metachromatic granules are stained by?: (A) Ponder's stain, (B) Negative stain, (C) Gram's stain, (D) Leishman stain | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Ponder's stain | |
Finger print bureau was first established in the following country:: (A) India, (B) England, (C) USA, (D) France | Answer is A. Dactylography or fingerprint system or dermatoglyphics or Galton system was first used in India in 1858, by Sir William Herschel in Bengal. Sir Francis Galton systematised this in 1892. Finger print bureau was first established in Kolkata.Fingerprints are impressions of patterns formed by the papillary or ... | |
Which of the following drug acts against Pseudomonas -: (A) Piperacillin, (B) Methicillin, (C) Nafcillin, (D) Cloxacillin | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Piperacillin Drugs acting against Pseudomonas. o Penicillins- Piperacillin, Carbenicillin, Ticarcillin, Mezlocillin. o Cephalosporins - Ceftazidime, Cefoperazone, Cefepime. o Carbapenems- Imipenem, meropenem o Monobactams - Aztreonam. o Aminoglycosides - Tobramycin, Gentamycin, Amikacin. ... | |
Cicatrial Alopecia is seen in:: (A) Tenia Capitis, (B) Psoriasis, (C) DLE, (D) Alopecia Aereta | Answer is C. C. i.e. DLE | |
According to Spetzler-Main criteria, how much score is given for a 5 cm nidus with AV malformation?: (A) 3, (B) 4, (C) 2, (D) 5 | Answer is C. Spetzler-Main AVM grading scale. Graded Feature Points Assigned Size of AVM < 3 cm 3-6 cm >6 cm 1 2 3 Eloquence1 of adjacent brain Noneloquent Eloquent 0 1 Venous drainage Superficial Deep 0 1 'Eloquent areas include: visual, language, and sensorimotor coex; the thalamus and hypothalamus; the internal caps... | |
Which of these following statements is wrong about Tacrolimus?: (A) It is one of the macrolide antibiotic, (B) It can be safely administered with any nephrotoxic drug, (C) Glucose intolerance is a well known side effect, (D) It is used as prophylaxis for transplant rejection | Answer is B. The side effects of Tacrolimus includes, nephro and hepato toxicity. It can also cause hypeension, tremors, seizure, diabetes mellitus and blurred vision. It should be better avoided with other hepato and renal toxicity drugs. Ref: Manzoor M. Khan (2008), Chapter 4 "Immunesupressive Agents", In the book, "... | |
Macrosomia is a: (A) Large size baby, (B) Big mouth, (C) Large head, (D) Large tongue | Answer is A. Macrosomia:- A condition where a baby is large before bihFactors causing macrosomia:Mother having diabetesMother having gestational diabetesObese mother(Refer: Nelson's Textbook of Pediatrics, SAE, 1st edition, pg no. 777, 897 - 899) | |
Which one of the following device conves radioactive emissions to light for detection?: (A) Geiger counter, (B) Photographic film, (C) Scintillation counter, (D) Radiotracer | Answer is C. Scintillation counter: It measures ionizing radiation. The sensor, called a scintillator, consists of a transparent crystal, usually phosphor, plastic, or organic liquid that fluoresces when struck by ionizing radiation. A sensitive photomultiplier tube (PMT) measures the light from the crystal. The PMT is... | |
Enterobius commonly inhabit the: September 2011: (A) Duodenum, (B) Jejunum, (C) Ileum, (D) Caecum | Answer is D. Ans. D: Caecum Adult Enterobius vermicularis worms inhabit the caecum, appendix and adjacent poions of the ascending colon, lying closely applied to the mucosal surface. Pinworm (genus En terobius)/Threadworm/Seatworm, It is a nematode (roundworm) and a common human intestinal parasite, especially in child... | |
Which of the following results in increase in secretion of ADH?: (A) Hypervolemia, (B) Hypeension, (C) Hypovolemia, (D) Decrease osmolarity | Answer is C. Ans: C HypovolemiaRef: Guyton 12th/e p. 9051Hypovolemia (Decreased ECF) stimulates the release of ADH.Vasopressin secretion is increased by: - i) Increased osmolarity (osmotic pressure) of plasma; ii) Decreased ECF volume; iii) Pain, emotion, stress, exercise; iv) Nausea and vomiting; v) Standing; vi) Clof... | |
Urine osmolality in Diabetes insipidus is: (A) <150 mmol/L, (B) <300 mmol/L, (C) <600 mmol/L, (D) <900 mmol/L | Answer is A. Diabetes insipidus is condition characterised by excessive thirst excretion of large amounts of severely diluted urine Those with diabetes insipidus continue to uinate large amount of urine in spite of water deprivation.Ref: DM Vasudevan, 7th edition, page no: 373 | |
1-a hydroxylation in Vitamin-D metabolism takes place in: (A) Skin, (B) Liver, (C) Kidney, (D) Blood | Answer is C. Vitamin D is a fat-soluble vitamin molecule found in fish liver oils, and also produced in the skin when subjected to ultraviolet rays from sunlight. The main function of the vitamin is to increase the utilization of calcium and phosphorus in bones and teeth. A mixture of several forms of vitamin D: Vitami... | |
Magaldrate is conveed by gastric acid to ?: (A) Magnesium hydroxide, (B) Magnesium hydroxide and calcium carbonate, (C) Magnesium hydroxide and Aluminium hydroxide, (D) Calcium carbonate and aluminium hydroxide | Answer is C. Ans. is `c' i.e., Magnesium hydroxide and Aluminium hydroxide Magaldrate: Magaldrateis a common antaciddrug that is used for the treatment of duodenal and gastric ulcers, esophagitis from gastroesophageal reflux. Magaldrate is a hydroxymagnesium aluminate complex that is conveed rapidly in gastric acid to ... | |
Which of the following nerves are affected after spinal anaesthetic block –: (A) Motor and sensory only, (B) Sensory and autonomic nerve only, (C) Sensory nerves only, (D) Sensory, autonomic and motor nerves | Answer is D. Local anesthetics block generation and conduction of nerve impulse at all part of neuron where they come in contact, without causing structural damage. Thus not only sensory but motor impulses and autonomic control is also interrupted. | |
Drug of choice for Treponema Pallidum is?: (A) Penicillin G, (B) Tetracycline, (C) Azithromycin, (D) Doxycycline | Answer is A. ANSWER: (A) Penicillin GREF: Microbiology, Volume 2; Volume 9, Part 2 edited by E. Edward Bittar, Neville Bittar p; 241See APPENDIX-65 for "SEXUALLY TRANSMITTED DISEASES""Parenteral penicillin G remains the treatment of choice for syphilis (Treponema pallidu and resistance to penicillin has not been report... | |
If hemoglobin status of a population with mean value is 10.3 gm % with SD 2 gm%, then 5% population will be below what value of Hb?: (A) 6.67, (B) 7.35, (C) 9, (D) 8.6 | Answer is B. . | |
Inclusion body conjunctivitis true is all except:: (A) Self limiting, (B) Present only in infants, (C) Occurs while passage from bih canal, (D) Caused by chlamydia | Answer is B. Ans. Present only in infants | |
A 55 year old man, a chronic smoker is brought to emergency with history of polyuria, polydipsia, nausea and altered sensorium for last two days. He had been diagnosed as having squamous cell carcinoma of lung two months prior to this. On examination, he was lethargic and confused. An ECG was normal except for a narrow... | Answer is B. None | |
EBV causes all EXCEPT:: (A) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma, (B) Burkitt s lymphoma, (C) Verrucous lymphoma, (D) Hodgkin's lymphoma | Answer is C. ANSWER: (C) Verrucous lymphomaREF: Jawett's 24th edition Section IV. Virology > Chapter 33. Herpesviruses Cancer by EBV:EBV is recognized as a cause of Burkitt's lymphoma, nasopharyngeal carcinoma, Hodgkins disease, and some other lymphomas. Sera from patients with Burkitt's lymphoma or nasopharyngeal carc... | |
All of the following are required more during lactation as compared to pregnancy, except ?: (A) Iron, (B) Vitamin A, (C) Niacin, (D) Energy | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Iron Required more during lactation as compared to pregnancy : Energy, Vitamin A, thiamin, riboflavin, Vitamin C, niacin, and Vitamin B12. Required more during pregnancy : Iron, protein, and folate. Same requirment in pregnancy and lactation : Fat, calcium, zinc, magnesium, and vitamin B6... | |
Not a B cell marker -: (A) CD 19, (B) CD 20, (C) CD 134, (D) CD 10 | Answer is C. . CD 134 | |
Actinomycosis is commonly seen in -: (A) Tibia, (B) Mandible, (C) Scapula, (D) Femur | Answer is B. None | |
In sebaceous glands, accumulation of sebum leads to:: (A) Milia, (B) Acne, (C) Epidermoid cyst, (D) Miliaria | Answer is B. Ans. b. Acne4 steps in pathogenesis of Acne are:Sebum productionHyperkeratosis of pilosebaceous unitPropionibacterium acnes colonization of pilosebaceous unit Inflammation | |
A young girl presents with abdominal pain and a recent change in bowel habit, with passage of mucus in stool. There is no associated blood in stool and symptoms are increased with stress. The most likely diagnosis is-: (A) Irritable bowel syndrome, (B) Ulcerative colitis, (C) Crohn's disease, (D) Amebiasis | Answer is A. Childhood Chronic ill health in childhood or adolescent IBD may result in growth failure, metabolic bone disease and delayed pubey. Loss of schooling and social contact, as well as frequent hospitalisation, can have impoant psychosocial consequences.Treatment is similar to that described for adults and may... | |
Length of umbilical cord is?: (A) 40-50 cms, (B) 60- 120 cms, (C) 30-100 cms, (D) 25-40 cms | Answer is C. ANSWER: (C) 30-100 cmsREF: Dutta 6th ed p. 40The normal length of umblical cord is around 50cms with usual variation between 30-100 cms | |
Vinyl chloride has been implicated in -: (A) Angiosarcoma of liver, (B) Angiofibroma of nose, (C) Hepatomas, (D) Bladder cancer | Answer is A. None | |
Vitamin B12 intrinsic factor absorption occurs in: (A) Duodenum, (B) Ileum, (C) Jejunum, (D) Colon | Answer is B. Most of the vitamins are absorbed in the upper small intestine, but vitamin B12 is absorbed in the ileum.Vitamin B12 binds to intrinsic factor and the complex is absorbed across the ileal mucosa.Vitamin B12 and folate absorption are Na+ independent.Other vitamins are absorbed by carriers that are Na+ cotra... | |
Splenunculi are commonly seen in: (A) Hilum of spleen, (B) Tail of spleen, (C) Mesocolon, (D) Splenic ligaments | Answer is A. A. (Hilum of spleen) (1103-B & L 25th)ACCESSORY SPLEEN (Splenunculi) - probably results from a failure of infusion of splenic embryonic tissues* They are located near the hilum of the spleen in 50% of cases and related to the splenic vessels or behind the tail of pancreas in 30%. The remainder are located ... | |
Causative agent of Favus is:: (A) Tinea schoenleinii, (B) Tinea rubrum, (C) Malassezia furfur, (D) Epidermophyton floccosum | Answer is A. Ans. A. Tinea schoenleiniiFavous usually affect scalp, but occurring occasionally on any part of the skin and even at times on mucous membrane, caused by Tinea schoenleinii. | |
Zona Pellucida disappears by:-: (A) Before ferilisation, (B) During feilization, (C) 5th day after feilization, (D) 7th day after feilization | Answer is C. Zona pellucida is thick membranous covering made up of glycoprotein, the microvilli of oocyte and follicular cells project into zona pellucida for nutrition. it prevent polyspermy and implantation. Blastocyst forms at 4th day and by the end of 5th day, zona pellucida disappears and implantation takes place... | |
Storage form of thyroid hormone-: (A) Tri-iodo tyrosine, (B) Tri - iodo thyronine, (C) Thyroglobulin, (D) Di-iodo tyrosine | Answer is C. The synthesis and storage of thyroid hormones occurs between the follicular cells and the colloid. The storage form of thyroid hormone is thyroglobulin. Thyroglobulin is a large glycoprotein synthesized in the follicular cells and has a molecular weight of around 650 000 with about 140 tyrosine residues, d... | |
Congenital hepatic fibrosis is a characteristic feature of: (A) Multicystic renal dysplasia, (B) ARPKD, (C) Familial juvenile nephronophthisis, (D) Medullary sponge kidney | Answer is B. Infantile and Iuvenile forms are associated with congenital Hepatic fibrosis. |
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