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A 20 year old patient presented with early pregnancy for Medical termination of Pregnancy (MTP) in day care facility. What will be the anaesthetic induction agent of choice ?
A. Thiopentone
B. Ketamine
C. Propofol
D. Diazepam | Propofol is considered the anaesthesia of choice for day care surgery (out patient surgery) as induction is smooth & pleasant and recovery is rapid.
So the answer to this question is C |
Precocious puberty in girl age limit -
A. 8 year
B. 10 year
C. 9 year
D. 11 year | Ans. is 'a' i.e., 8 year o precocious puberty is defined as appearence of secondary' sexual character before 8 year of age in girl and 9.5 year of age (Nelson says 9 year) in bodys.o Thelarche = Isolated breast development.o Premature, Pubarche/Adrenarche - Appearance of sexual hair before age of 8 year in girl and bef... |
Longest acting cephalosporin:
A. Ceftriaxone
B. Ceftazidime
C. Cefoperazone
D. Cefotaxime | Ans: a (Ceftriaxone) Ref: Tripathi, 6th ed, p. 706 10th ed, p. 735- Ceftriaxone has a long duration of action with half life of 8 hrs- Ceftazidime has half life of 1.5-1.8 hrs- Cefaperazone has half life of 2 hrs- Cefotaxime has half life of 1 hrFirst-generation cephalosporinsThird- generation cephalosporinsCefadroxil ... |
A patient presents with Ahritis, hyperpigmentation of skin and hypogonadism, likely diagnosis is.
A. Hemochromatosis
B. Ectopic ACTH secreting tumour of the lung
C. Wilson's disease
D. Rheumatoid ahritis | Answer is A (Hemochromatosis):The association of Ahritis, hyperpigmentation of skin and hypogonadism suggests the diagnosis of hematochromatosis.
So the answer to this question is A |
Which among the following is common cause for transverse lie
A. Prolonged labor
B. Nulliparity
C. Placenta previa
D. Oligohydramnios | Most common causes of transverse lie are:
Multiparity
Preterm fetus
Abnormal uterine anatomy
Hydramnios
Contracted pelvis.
So the answer to this question is C |
Habitat of hookworm is -
A. Jejunum
B. ileum
C. Colon
D. Duodenum | The adult worms live in the small intestine of infected persons mostly in the jejunum,less often in the duodenum, and infrequently in the ileum Ref : panikers textbook of Medical parasitology 8th edition page 187
So the answer to this question is A |
What is the percentage of patients with disseminated discoid lupus erythematosus who develop SLE?
A. 2%
B. 22%
C. 52%
D. 82% | The risk is higher in patients with disseminated DLE (22%) than in DLE confined to the head and neck (1.2%). Females developing DLE before the age of 40 years,with HLA-B8 in their histocompatibility type, have an increasedrisk of 'conveing' to SLE. Neither immunological nor biochemical abnormalities appear to alter the... |
Pineal gland forms ?
A. Floor of third ventricle
B. Anterior wall of third ventricle
C. Posterior wall of thrid ventricle
D. Roof of third ventricle | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Posterior wall of thrid ventricleBoundries of third ventricle are :-Anterior wall : Lamina terminal, anterior commissure, anterior columns of fornix.Posterior wall : Pineal body, posterior commissure, cerebral aqueduct.Roof : Ependyma lining of under surface of tela choroidea of r ventricle. The choro... |
Stage of contraction of family stas at -
A. Marriage
B. Bih of fis child
C. Bih of last child
D. Leaving home of first child | -family is a group of biologically related individuals living together and eating from a common kitchen. - the stage of contraction of family begins when the first child leaves the home and ends when the last child leaves the home of parents. Reference : Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, ... |
A child presents with "freckles" all over his body, including the buccal mucosa, lips, palms, soles, and skin not exposed to sun. Which of the following additional findings would most likely be present?
A. Colonic polyps
B. Desmoid tumors
C. Epidermoid cysts
D. Osteomas of the jaw | The widespread "freckles" (spots of melanin pigmentation) described in this case are associated with hamaomatous colonic polyps in Peutz-Jeghers syndrome. The polyps in Peutz-Jeghers syndrome do not progress to colon cancer. Interestingly, Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is associated with an increased potential to develop carc... |
All the above loud S1 caused by
A. Calcified Valve
B. MVP
C. Sho PR interval
D. Dilation or widening of mitral valve after valvotomy | Ref Harrison 19 th ed pg 1447 The intensity of S1 is determined by the distance over which the ante- rior leaflet of the mitral valve must travel to return to its annular plane, leaflet mobility, left ventricular contractility, and the PR interval. S1 is classically loud in the early phases of rheumatic mitral stenosis... |
Autism is characterised by all EXCEPT
A. Motor abnormalities
B. Less eye contact
C. High intelligence
D. Unusual gestures | (C) High intelligence # AUTISM is a neurodevelopmental disorder characterized by impaired social interaction, verbal and non-verbal communication, and by restricted and repetitive behavior.> Autistic infants show less attention to social stimuli, smile and look at others less often, and respond less to their own name.>... |
A 60-year old patient underwent renal aery doppler which shows narrowing and turbulence in right renal aery. If radius of the aery is reduced by 1/3rd, resistance to blood flow in right kidney would have increased by:
A. 3 times
B. 9 times
C. 16 times
D. 81 times | "Fouh power law" of radius ~ Blood flow varies directly and resistance inversely with the fouh power of the radius (r 4). If the radius is changed by a factor of 3 (reduced by 1/3rd), resistance would change by (34).
So the answer to this question is D |
In starvation, the gall bladder may be -
A. Atrophied
B. Distended
C. Show stones
D. Normal | PM appearance in death due to starvation
Complete disappearance of body fat.
Loss of mesenteric and omental fat, atrophic digestive tract, empty stomach no wider than colon, thin and transparent small intestine.
Distension of gallbladder due to the accumulation of bile from lack of stimulation.
So the answer to this ... |
All of the following are true for pseudopelade of brocq except?
A. Scarring Alopecia
B. Inflammation is absent
C. Foot print in snow appearance is seen
D. Presence of pustules | Pseudopelade of brocq Scarring Alopecia Inflammation is absent Absence of pustules Foot print in snow appearance is seen
So the answer to this question is D |
The main cause of minimal change ds is
A. Increase in pore size
B. Loss of negative charge on membrane
C. Loss of cells
D. Decreased circulation | Etiology of minimal change ds is unknown. Electron microscopy reveals the primary injury to the visceral epithelial cells, which may be caused by:- A) immunological mechanism: Lack of immune deposits in the glomerulus exclude the possibility of immune complex mechanism. But several features suggest immunological mechan... |
MTP can be done upto
A. 12 weeks
B. 16 weeks
C. 20 weeks
D. 10 weeks | MTP act 1971, provides safeguards to the mother by authorizing only a Registered Medical Practitioner having experience in gynecology and obstetrics to perform aboion where the length of Pregnancy does not exceed 12 weeks Where the pregnancy exceeds 12 weeks and is not more than 20 weeks, the opinion of two Registered ... |
All of the following murmurs may be heard in patients with aoic regurgitation except :
A. High-pitched decrescendo diastolic murmur.
B. Soft, low pitched mid distolic rumbling murmur
C. Mid-systolic ejection flow murmur
D. Pansystolic murmur. | Answer is D (Pansystolic murmur)
So the answer to this question is D |
All are about brucella except
A. B. abous is capnophilic
B. Transmission by aerosol can occur occasionally
C. Paesturisation destroys it
D. 2ME is used to detect IgA | 2ME is used to detect IgA Brucella is a wides pread zoonotic disease mainly seen in cattle sheep, goats, pigs and camels. - Brucella is strictly a parasite of animals. -No human to human transmission has been identified and infection in human occurs only by contact with infected animals or animal products. - The diseas... |
Which of the following is the definition of conscious sedation?
A. A minimally depressed level of consciousness that retains the patient’s ability to independently and continuously maintain an airway and respond appropriately to physical stimulation or verbal command.
B. A significantly depressed level of consciousness... | Conscious sedation is defined as a minimally depressed level of consciousness as opposed to deep sedation or general anesthesia. Remember that there are four stages of anesthesia (analgesia → delirium → surgical anesthesia → respiratory paralysis) and only in the first stage (analgesia) is the patient conscious. The pa... |
Which of the following statements about amoebicide is least accurate
A. Diloxanide furoate it is a luminal amoebicide
B. Emetine is contraindicated in pregnancy and in patients with Cardiac disease
C. Metronidazole has little activity in the gut lumen
D. Paromomcin is effective in extraintestinal amoebiasis | Ref-KDT 6/e p896,807 Paromomycin and diloxanide furoate are luminal ameobicamo
So the answer to this question is D |
What is the age limit for further developmental assessment in a child not reaching for objects
A. 3 months
B. 5 months
C. 9 months
D. 12 months | A developmental assessment for children under age 3 is an attempt to assess various aspects of the child's functioning, including areas such as cognition, communication, behavior, social interaction, motor and sensory abilities, and adaptive skills. Assessment of the family and the child's environment also provides imp... |
True about H. mole:a) Complete mole seen in human onlyb) Trophoblastic proliferationc) Hydropic degenerationd) Villus pattern absent
A. a
B. bc
C. ac
D. ad | H mole:
Microscopically: It is characterised by :
Marked proliferation of the syncytial and cytotrophoblastic epithelium.
Thinning of the stromal tissue due to hydropic degeneration (edema of villous stroma).
Avascular villi.
Maintenance of villus pattern.
Absence of villus pattern is characteristic of choriocarcinom... |
Endemic ascites is associated with the following ?
A. Pyrrolizidine
B. Aflatoxin
C. Sanguinarine
D. Beta oxalylamino alanine (BOAA) | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Pyrrolizidine Endemic ascites o Endemic ascites is caused by a hepatotoxin - pyrralizidine alkaloid found in weed seeds of Crotolariu (Jhunjhunia). o These weed seeds of Jhunjhunia contaminate the millet seeds Panicum ',Ware (locally k/a Gondhli) o Endemic ascites presented in Sarguja district of Madh... |
Gandy gamma body is typically seen in chronic venous congestion of which of the following?
A. Lung
B. Spleen
C. Kidney
D. Liver | Gamna-Gandy bodies in chronic venous congestion (CVC) of the spleen is characterized by calcific deposits admixed with haemosiderin on fibrous tissue.
So the answer to this question is B |
A patient is passing stones recurrently in urine for past few years. All are due to be restrlcted in diet except-
A. Protein restriction
B. Calcium restriction
C. Salt restricted diet
D. Phosphate restriction | The inverse relationship between low dietary calcium intake and an increase in stone formation is likely due to a secondary increase in urinary oxalate. While urinary calcium levels decreased in both groups, urinary oxalate levels increased in men on the low calcium diet and decreased in men on the normal calcium diet ... |
Cholestasis may lead to the following complications except -
A. Intrauterine fetal death
B. Meconium stained liquor
C. Preterm labour
D. Neonatal jaundice | Ans-D
So the answer to this question is D |
Not a cause of objective tinnitus ?
A. Palatal myoclonus
B. Glomus tumor
C. Carotid aery aneurysm
D. Presbyacusis | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Presbyacusis Tinnitus Tinnitus is ringing sound or noise in the ear. The characteristic feature is that the origin of this sound is within the patient.
So the answer to this question is D |
Hexose sugar is not present in:
A. Ribose
B. Glucose
C. Fructose
D. Galactose | Hexose sugar is present in:Glucose, "blood sugar", the immediate source of energy for cellular respirationGalactose, a sugar in milk (and yogu), andFructose, a sugar found in honeyRibose is a pentose sugar
So the answer to this question is A |
EAC rosette formation is the property of one of the following type of immune cells -
A. T cells
B. B cells
C. Macrophages
D. All of the above | Erythrocyte antibody complement rosetting (EAC-rosetting), occurs when the antibody in the presence of complement is bound to the surface of a red blood cell. The complement binds to the tail region (Fc region) of the antibody. Finally, T-cells with a complement receptor are added and the T-cells bind to the complement... |
Which of the following tumor is most commonly associated with superior vena cava syndrome:
A. Lymphoma
B. Small cell carcinoma
C. Non small cell carcinoma
D. Metastasis | Answer is B (Small cell carcinoma): Current Critical Care Diagnosis & Treatment 3ra /465 The incidence of superior vena caval syndrome is highest with small cell carcinoma. Superior vena caval syndrome (SVC syndrome) SVC syndrome results from an impedance in outflow from superior vena cava due to external compression T... |
Hemosiderin contains -
A. Calcium
B. Iron
C. Magnesium
D. None | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Iron Hemosiderino It is hemoglobin derived, golden yellow to brown, granular or crystalline pigment in which form iron is stored in cells. When there is local or systemic excess of iron, ferritin forms hemosiderin granules. Thus hemosiderin pigment represents aggregrates of ferritin micelles. Under no... |
Blanket consent is consent taken: NEET 14
A. When the patient comes to doctor for treatment
B. Orally when given during any procedure
C. Implied by gesture
D. At the time of admission to do any surgery | Ans. At the time of admission to do any surgery
So the answer to this question is D |
The early changes in coicosteroid-induced cataract are in the form of:
A. Central posterior subcapsular lens changes
B. Anterior coical lens changes
C. Nuclear changes
D. Diffuse lens changes | Ans. Central posterior subcapsular lens changes
So the answer to this question is A |
Anthracosis is caused by -
A. Silica
B. Iron
C. Coal dust
D. Cotton dust | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Coal dust * Anthracosis- Coal dust* Silicosis- Silica* Siderosis- Iron* Byssinosis- Cotton dust (textile industry)* Farmer's lung- Hay or grain dust (micropolyspora faeni)* Sequousis- Moldy red wood saw dust* Suberosis- Moldy cork dust* Detergent workers lung- Enzyme additives* Baggassosis- Sugarcane ... |
Pseudocholinesterase is synthesized by
A. Liver
B. Plasma
C. Muscle end plate
D. Nerve ending | Pseudocholinesterase which metabolizes succinylcholine is synthesized by liver and is present in plasma. True cholinesterase which metabolizes acetylcholine is synthesized by muscle end plate. Ref: KD Tripathi 8th ed.
So the answer to this question is A |
Chemoreceptor Trigger Zone is:
A. Pons
B. Lateral hypothalamus
C. Ventral hypothalamus
D. Area postrema | Area postrema
So the answer to this question is D |
Parenteral nutrition is not used in:
A. Enterocutaneous fistula
B. Burns
C. Crohn's disease
D. Pancreatitis | Ans is d i.e. Pancreatitis
So the answer to this question is D |
The most common side effect of IUD inseion is-
A. Bleeding
B. Pain
C. Pelvic infection
D. Ectopic pregnancy | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Bleeding
So the answer to this question is A |
The difference between a typical cervical and thoracic veebrae is, which of the following:
A. Has a triangular body
B. Has a foramen transversarium
C. Superior aicular facet directed backwards & upwards
D. Has a large veebral body | The transverse process of cervical veebrae is pierced by a foramen called foramen transversarium. It is not seen in thoracic and lumbar veebrae.Ref: Human Anatomy, B D Chaurasia, 4th Edition, Volume 3, Chapter 1, Page 40, 41; Textbook of Anatomy with Colour Atlas, Inderbir Singh, 4th Edition, Chapter 6, Page 84.
So th... |
A person with defective blue color appreciation is called ?
A. Deuteranomalous
B. Deuteranopia
C. Tritanopia
D. Tritanomalous | Ans. is `d' i.e., Tritanomalous
So the answer to this question is D |
MC side effect of lithium: March 2003
A. Polyuria
B. Fine tremors
C. Polydipsia
D. Weight gain | Ans. B i.e. Fine tremors
So the answer to this question is B |
Which of the following is not an ophthalmic emergency:
A. Macular hole
B. Retinal Detachment
C. CRAO
D. Acute primary angle closure glaucoma | Ans. Macular hole
So the answer to this question is A |
An 5 year old male patient complains of multiple decayed teeth and has a history of frequent snacking and consumption of sugar containing beverages. Intraoral examination shows multiple interproximal carious lesions. Which of the following caries management protocol is not suitable for this child?
A. Recall after 3 mon... | Caries-Risk Assessment Form for Children 6 Years Old or Younger
So the answer to this question is C |
Most common presenting feature of adult hypopituitarism is
A. Hypothyroidism
B. Hypogonadism
C. Addison’s disease
D. Hyperprolactinemia | In adults decreased pituitary function is first shown by hypogonadism.
So the answer to this question is B |
Which of following is/are not the feature of Henoch?Schonlein Purpura (HSP)
A. Abdominal pain
B. Splinter haemorrhage
C. Thrombocytopenia
D. Epistaxis | C. i.e. Thrombocytopenia
So the answer to this question is C |
A genetic disorder renders fructose 1,6 -- bisphosphates in liver less sensitive to regulation by fructose 2,6 -- bi-phosphate. All of the following metabolic changes are observed in this disorder except:
A. Level of fructose 1,6--biphosphate is higher than normal
B. Level of fructose 1,6 -- biphosphate is lower than n... | Ans. A. Level of fructose 1,6--biphosphate is higher than normalFructose 2,6 - biphosphate acts to decrease the activity of fructose 1,6 - bisphosphates. When the enzyme becomes less sensitive to regulation, the inhibitory effect is lost and the enzyme activity increases. The following effects are observed:a. Level of ... |
Which point in the below natural history of disease marks the onset of symptoms?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D | (c) C* Point A marks the entry of infectious agent into the host* Point B marks the subclinical phase where symptoms and signs are not visible, but the disease agent induces tissue and physiological changes* Point C marks the Clinical horizon when symptoms and signs appear* Point D is present inside the Clinical phase ... |
Verocay bodies are seen in
A. Memingioma
B. Hemangioma
C. Glioma
D. Shwannoma | Schwannoma are well circumscribed encapsulated masses that abut the associated nerve without invading it
So the answer to this question is D |
The fibers of the coicospinal tract pass through which structure?
A. Medial lemniscus
B. Medullary pyramid
C. Posterior funiculus
D. Medial longitudinal fasciculus | Coicospinal fibers pass through the Medullary Pyramid Extra edge Tracts Function Lateral coicospinal and rubrospinal tracts Control distal limb muscles for fine motor and skilled voluntary movements. Anteriorcoicospinal tract and tectospinal, reticulospinal, and vestibulospinal tracts Control the postural adjustments a... |
Which of the following is the "Least common" complication of measles -
A. Diarrhoea
B. Pneumonia
C. Otitis media
D. SSPE | Ans. is 'd' i.e., SSPE o Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) is a rare complication of measles, which develops many years after the initial infection - PSM
So the answer to this question is D |
Which of the following facilitates comparison between different radiations?
A. Rad
B. Rem
C. Quality factor exposure
D. Roentgen | EQUIVALENT (RADIATION-WEIGHTED) DOSE:
The equivalent dose (HT) is used to compare the biologic effects of different types of radiation on a tissue or organ. Particulate types of radiation have a high LET and are more damaging to tissue than radiation with low LET, such as x rays. This relative biologic effectiveness of... |
Mean head circumference at birth is
A. 48-51 cm
B. 38-40 cm
C. 42-45 cm
D. 33-35 cm | Head circumference:-
Measured with a nonstretchable tape passing through the maximum point of occipital protuberance posteriorly and at a point just above the glabella anteriorly.
Head circumference must be compared with that of mother to know any familial variations.
If the head circumference is more than expected,... |
A farmer presents with pustules, which show Gram Positive Cocci on smear. Culture shows Beta hemolysis, and organisms are Catalase negative. To show that the identified organism is group A streptococci, which of the following test should be done?
A. Bacitracin sensitivity
B. Optochm sensitivity
C. Novobiocin sensitivit... | Streptococci are catalase negative and beta hemolytic. Group A beta hemolytic streptococci can be differentiated from other beta hemolytic streptococci by bacitracin sensitivity. Streptococcus pyogenes is bacitracin sensitive whereas streptococcus agalactiae is bacitracin resistant. Both are beta hemolytic. Ref: Textbo... |
Which of the following is not seen in haemolytic anemia?
A. Hemosiderosis
B. Hemochromatosis
C. Cholelithiasis
D. None of the above | Ceain changes are seen in hemolytic anemias regardless of cause or type. Anemia and lowered tissue oxygen tension trigger the production of erythropoietin, which stimulates erythroid differentiation and leads to the appearance of increased numbers of erythroid precursors (normoblasts) in the marrow. Compensatory increa... |
Which of the following propeies make pyridostigmine different from neostigmine
A. It is more potent
B. It is longer acting
C. It produces less muscarinic side effects
D. It does not have any direct action on NM receptor | Ref-KDT 7/e p108 Pyridostigmine acts for 3 to 6 hours as compared to 0.5 to 2 hourshours dur of action of neostigmine. It is less impoant than neostigmine Rest of the propeies are similar to neostigmine
So the answer to this question is B |
All the following are features of Cardiac muscle Except
A. Striated
B. Large T tubules
C. Troponin system present
D. Caldesmon is impoant regulatory protein | Some Differences among Skeletal, Cardiac, and Smooth MuscleNoSkeletal MuscleCardiac MuscleSmooth Muscle1StriatedStriatedNonstriated2No syncytiumSyncytialSyncytial3Small T tubulesLarge T tubulesGenerally rudimentary T tubules4Sarcoplasmic reticulum well developed andCa2+ pump acts rapidlySarcoplasmic reticulum present a... |
All correlates with USG findings of congenital pyloric stenosis except:
A. > 95% accuracy
B. Segment length >16mm
C. Thickness >4mm
D. High gastric residues | D i.e. High gastric residuesUltrasonography is the investigation of choice to confirm diagnose of hyperophic pyloric stenosis with accuracy > 95% (approching almost 100%)Q. USG visualizes thickened and elongated pyloric canalQ. USG criteria for diagnosis include >16 mm pyloric length and >4mm pyloric muscle wall thickn... |
All of the following are true about multiple myeloma except -
A. Osteolytic bone disease
B. (18-14) translocation
C. Light chain proliferation
D. Bence-Jones proteins in urine | The chromosomal alterations in multiple myeloma include translocations in t(11;14) & t(4;14) & deletion of 13q.Reference : Harsh mohan textbook of pathology 6th edition pg no 381.
So the answer to this question is B |
Drug of choice for obsessive - compulsive neurosis is :
A. Imipramine
B. CPZ
C. Carbamazapine
D. Clomipramine | SSRIs are the drugs of choice for OCD. However, amongst the given options no drug is SSRI. Amongst the tricyclic antidepressants, clomipramine is the DOC.
So the answer to this question is D |
What is diagnostic of fresh myocardial infarction In ECG-
A. QT interval prolongation
B. Pmitrale
C. ST segment elevation
D. ST segment depression | Ref: R Alagappan - Manual of Practical Medicine 4th Edition.pg no:184 ECG * May be normal initially and hence serial ECGs must be taken. * ST elevation and T-wave inversion with pathological Q-waves are typically seen in leads adjacent to the infarcted segment of myocardium. * Reciprocal ST depression or T-wave inversi... |
Major hormone secreted by zona reticularis of adrenal coex ?
A. Glucocoicoids
B. Mineralcoicoids
C. Aldosterone
D. Androgens | Ans. is `d i.e., AndrogensThe adrenal coex is divided into three zones (outer to inner) : Zona glomerulosa, zona fasciculata and zona reticularis.All three coical zones secrete coicosterone, but the active enzymatic mechanism for aldosterone biosynthesis is limited to the zona glomerulosa whereas the enzymatic machanis... |
Which drug used in bronchial asthma needs monitoring-
A. Theophylline
B. Cromoglycate
C. Salmeterol
D. Terbutaline | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Theophylline o Theophylline has low safety margin and therefore requires therepeutic drug monitoring.
So the answer to this question is A |
The most common extranodal site for non-hodgkin lymphoma is
A. Stomach
B. Brain
C. Intestine
D. Tonsils | *Lymphomas are divided broadly into Hodgkins and Non-Hodgkin&;s lymphomas. *Two-thirds of Non-Hodgkin&;s lymphoma present as generalized lymphadenopathy(Nodal sites).*One third of the cases present at an extranodal site. *Extra nodal sites include the gastrointestinal tract, upper aerodigestive tract, salivary glands, ... |
Blindness in child is most commonly due to
A. Keratomalacia
B. Congenital cataract
C. Glaucoma
D. Injuries | Most common cause of childhood blindness is vitamin A deficiency Refer: Khurana 6th edition page number 382
So the answer to this question is A |
Bleuler's symptoms for schizophrenia are all except
A. Loosening of association
B. Affect disturbances
C. Autism
D. Hallucinations | Eugen Bleuler's Fundamental Symptoms of Schizophrenia (Also called as 4 A's of Bleuler) 1. Ambivalence: Marked inability to decide for or against 2. Autism: Withdrawal into self 3. Affect disturbances: Disturbances of affect such as inappropriate affect 4. Association disturbances: Loosening of associations; thought di... |
Stage of contraction of family stas at
A. Bih of first child
B. Bih of last child
C. Leaving home of first child
D. Marriage | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Leaving home of first child
So the answer to this question is C |
Phelp's sign is seen in:
A. Glomus jugulare
B. Vestibular Schawannoma
C. Maniere's disease
D. Neurofibromatosis | Phelp's sign Phelp sign This sign is seen on CT scan In CT- in case of glomus jugulare tumor the normal crest between the carotid canal and jugulare tumor is absent whereas it is not so in case of glomus tympanicum
So the answer to this question is A |
Fastest acting receptor/transduction mechanism is
A. Adenylyl cyclase-cyclic AMP pathway
B. Phospholipase C-IP3:DAG pathway
C. Intrinsic ion channel operation
D. Nuclear receptor | Ref-KDT 6/e p40 Drugs acting and ionotropic receptor are fast acting where as those acting through nuclear receptors are slowest in action
So the answer to this question is C |
A boy comes from Bihar with non-anesthetic hypopigmented atropic patch over face, diagonosis is
A. P. alba
B. P. versicolour
C. Indeterminate leprosy
D. Borderline leprosy | C i.e. Indeterminate leprosy Points in our of diagnosing indeterminate leprosy: - Epidermal atrophyQ Non scaly & AnesthesiaQ (if present) Resident of high leprosy prevelence state? (Bihar)
So the answer to this question is C |
Which structure is not transmitted by foramen ovale?
A. Middle meningeal artery
B. Accessory meningeal artery
C. Lesser petrosal nerve
D. Emissary vein | Ans. A Middle meningeal arteryRef: Netter's Clinical Anatomy, 3rd ed. pg. 460Structures transmitted via foramen ovale (M.A.L.E.)* Mandibular nerve-V3* Accessory meningeal artery* Lesser petrosal nerve* Emissary veinExtra edgeForamen rotundumMaxillary nerve V2Foramen LacerumInternal carotid arteryLesser petrosal nerveGr... |
A mother has been diagnosed with chicken pox. She delivered 7 days ago a term infant that appears to be healthy. The baby is afebrile. Which of the following is the most appropriate step in management?
A. Advise the mother to continue regular baby care
B. Hospitalize the infant in the isolation ward
C. Administer acycl... | If a normal full-term newborn is exposed to chickenpox 2 or more days after delivery, VZIG and isolation are not necessary because these babies appear to be at no risk for complications. VZIG should be given to the infant immediately after delivery if the mother had the onset of varicella within 5 days prior to deliver... |
Which of the following is not carried in dorsal column of spinal cord:March 2011
A. Proprioception
B. Vibratory sense
C. Heat sensation
D. Touch | Ans. C: Heat sensationLateral spinothalamic tract carries fibers of all type of pain and temperature impulses (both hot and cold)Spinothalamic tractIt transmits information to the thalamus about pain, temperature, itch and crude touch.The pathway decussates at the level of the spinal cord, rather than in the brainstem ... |
Homonymous hemianopia may be seen in lesion of all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Optic chiasma
B. Optic tract
C. Optic radiation
D. Occipital lobe | Lesion of the optic chiasma result in bitemporal hemianopia not homonymous hemianopia. Lesions of the visual pathway and corresponding field defects: Lesion of optic nerve: Ipsilateral blindness Lesion through proximal pa of optic nerve: Ipsilateral blindness with contralateral quadrantanopia. Lesion of optic tract: Ho... |
Age related dementia has been associated with increased levels of
A. Homocysteine
B. Cysteine
C. Tourine
D. Methionine | Identification of modifiable risk factors provides a crucial approach to the prevention of dementia.. The findings are consistent with moderately raised plasma total homocysteine (>11 mmol/L), which is common in the elderly, being one of the causes of age-related cognitive decline and dementia Ref Harrison20th edition ... |
All are true regarding brachial plexus injury, except:
A. Preganglionic lesions have a better prognosis than postganglionic lesions
B. Erb's palsy causes paralysis of the abductors and external rotators of the shoulder
C. In Klumpke's palsy, Horner's syndrome may be present on the ipsilateral side
D. Histamine test is ... | Preganglionic lesions have a poor prognosis as these do not recover and are surgically irreparable. Postganglionic lesions have better prognosis than preganglionic lesions and histamine test is useful in making the distinction
So the answer to this question is A |
Harpender's Callipers are used to;
A. Measure skin fold thickness
B. Measure mid arm circumference
C. Measure height
D. Measure chest circumference | Ans. A. Measure Skin fold thicknessSkin fold thickness is an indication of the subcutaneous fat. Triceps skin fold thickness is the most representative of the total subcutaneous fat upto 16 years of age. It is usually above 10mm in normal children whereas in severely malnourished children it may fall below 6mm.
So the... |
Fracture of necessity is used to describe -
A. Cottons fracture
B. Galeazzi fracture
C. Monteggia fracture
D. Rolando fracture | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Galleazzi fracture * "Closed reduction is usually not successful due to the deforming forces of the muscles. Hence, open reduction and internal fixation is the preferred method of treatment. Campbell noted this in 1941 and termed Galeazzi fracture as "Fracture of necessity".
So the answer to this que... |
Aerobic oxidation of reduced cytochromes shows P/O ratio of
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1 | ADP:O or P:O Ratio: The NAD-dependant dehydrogenases such as malate, pyruvate, a-ketoglutarate, isocitrate, etc. produce three high energy phosphate bonds for each pair of electrons transferred to O2 because they have P: O ratio of 3. Thus P: O ratio is a measure of how many moles of ATP are formed from ADP by phosphor... |
Glycine is useful in all of the following except
A. Purine synthesis
B. Creatine synthesis
C. Spermine synthesis
D. Heme synthesis | Spermine is a type of polyamine.This is aliphatic amine and it is synthesized from ornithine. Key enzyme is ornithine decarboxylase. REFERENCE : DM.VASUDEVAN.TEXTBOOK; SEVENTH EDITION ; PAGE NO : 229
So the answer to this question is C |
A couple presents to a clinic for work-up of infeility after 5 years of unprotected intercourse. The wife denies any medical problems and notes regular menstrual cycles. The husband states that he has had chronic sinusitis and lower respiratory tract infections. Physical examination of the woman is unremarkable. Examin... | The husband is suffering from Kaagener's syndrome, an autosomal recessive disorder characterized by infeility, situs inversus, chronic sinusitis, and bronchiectasis. The underlying cause of these varied manifestations are defects in the dynein arms, spokes of microtubule doublets of cilia in the airways and the reprodu... |
Most common diaphragmatic hernia in children is:
A. Through the foramen of Bochdalek
B. Through the foramen of Morgagni
C. Traumatic rupture of the diaphragm
D. Eventration of the diapliragm | (Through the f oramen of Bochdalek): Ref: 873 - LB (894-B & L 25th)Hernia through the foramen of Bochdolek - (Posterolateral) This is rarely the persistence of the pleuroperitoneal canal and the opening is in the dome of the diaphragm posteriorly* It is the most common diaphragmatic hernia in children* TRIAD of respira... |
A 25 year old male presents to emergency dept. following a road traffic accident. On examination there is pelvic fracture and blood at urethral meatus. Following are true about pt except -
A. Anterior urethra is the most likely site of injury
B. Retrograde urethrography should be done after the pt is stabilized.
C. Fol... | Ans is (a) anterior urethra is most likely the site of injury The pa of urethra most likely injured in pelvic fracture is membranous urethra (a pa of post. urethra) - Post. Urethra includes -- Prostatic + membranous urethra - Anterior urethra includes -- Bulbar + penile urethra The anterior urethra (paiularly bulbar ur... |
Loss of foot processes of podocytes is characteristically seen in?
A. Good pasture syndrome
B. Lipoid nephrosis
C. PSGN
D. Lupus nephritis | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Lipoid nephrosis * Effacement (loss) of foot process of perietal epithelial cells (podocytes) is most commonly noted in minimal change disease (lipoid nephrosis).* However, it may be seen other causes of nephrotic syndrome like membronous GN, FSGS, IgA nephropathy (a type of mesangioproliferative GN),... |
A codon codes for a single amino acid. This characteristic is called ?
A. Non-overlapping
B. Unambiguous
C. Non-punctate
D. Degeneracy | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Unambiguous Characteristics of genetic codes Genetic codes have following characteristics ? 1) Universal :- Each codon specifically codes for same amino acid in all species, e.g. UCA codes for serine and CCA codes for proline in all organisms. That means specificity of codon has been conserved from ve... |
Vaccine associated paralytic polio is due to
A. Polio virus type 1
B. Polio virus type 2
C. Polio virus type 3
D. None of the above | VAPP - Vaccine associated paralytic polio is due to polio virus type 3
VDPV - Vaccine derived poliovirus is due to poliovirus type 2.
So the answer to this question is C |
Time period between entry of organism to body to maximum infectivity is -
A. Lead time
B. Median incubation period
C. Generation time
D. Serial inverval | Ans is 'c' i.e., Generation time * Generation time - Period from receipt of infection to maximal infectivity.* Serial interval - Gap between onset of primary case and secondary case.
So the answer to this question is C |
False about syphilis is :
A. Incubation period is 9-90 days
B. Secondary syphilis is due to hematological dissemination
C. Syphilitic ulcers(Chancre) are extremely painful
D. "General paresis of Insane" is due to CNS involvement in tertiary syphilis. | Syphilitic ulcers(Chancre) are usually single in number, butter like, hard in consistency and typically painless.
So the answer to this question is C |
A 20 year old is found to have blood pressures of 134/82 and 136/83 on two separate occasions. He will be classified as:
A. Normotensive
B. High normal BP
C. Stage 1 hypeension
D. Stage 2 hypeension | When systolic and diastolic blood pressures fall in different categories, the higher category is taken to classify the individual's blood pressure. Classification of blood pressure measurements: Category Systolic BP Diastolic BP Normal <130 <85 High normal 130-139 85-90 Stage 1 hypeension 140-159 90-99 Stage 2 hypeensi... |
Mitochondria of a sperm is seen in ?
A. Head
B. Neck
C. Body
D. Tail | Mitochondrial granules are seen enveloping the spiral threads around the axial filament present in the body of the sperm. Sperm: The human sperm possesses a head, a neck, a connecting piece or body, and a tail.Head is oval or elliptical, but flattened,its anterior two-thirds are covered by a layer of modified protoplas... |
Increase in cytosolic calcium from intracellular storage, during smooth muscle contraction is/are due to: (PGI Dec 2008)
A. CAMP
B. CGMP
C. CCMP
D. 1P.-DAG | Ans : D (IP3-DAG) & E (Ca2+ channel) Source of Calcium Ions & in Smooth Muscle Contraction Mechanism InvolvedAlmost all the calcium ions that cause contraction enter the muscle cell from the extracellular fluid at the time of action potential or other stimulusSarcoplasmic reticulum (the source of intracellular Ca2+), w... |
Reactivation tuberculosis is almost excusively a disease of the -
A. Lungs
B. Bones
C. Joints
D. Brain | Secondary TB is due to reactivation and involves Lung particularly the apical and posterior segments of upper lobe.
So the answer to this question is A |
Whcih vesiculobullous diseaes is associated with enteropathy?
A. Pemphigus
B. Linear IgA dermatosis
C. Chronic bullous disease of childhood
D. Dermatitis herpetiformis | Dermatitis herpetiformis is an autoimmune blistering disease that is strongly associated with coeliac disease. Almsot all patient with dermatitis herpetiformis have evidence of villous atrophy on Intestinal biopsy, even if they have no gastrointestinal symptoms. Reference : Davidson, 23rd Edition, page no : 1256.
So t... |
All are reversible injury of cell, except -
A. Vacuole
B. Karyorrhexis
C. Fat accumulation
D. Cell wall swelling | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Karyorrhexis
So the answer to this question is B |
Pyramids are formed by
A. Arcuate nucleus
B. Vestibular nuclei
C. Interstitial cells of cajal
D. Lateral coicospinal tract | The pyramidal tracts include both the coicospinal and coicobulbar tracts. These are aggregations of upper motor neuron nerve fibres that travel from the cerebral coex and terminate either in the brainstem (coicobulbar) or spinal cord (coicospinal) and are involved in control of motor functions of the body.The coicospin... |
In which one of the following type of hernia do the abdominal viscera from a pa of the wall of hernial sac?
A. Pantaloon hernia
B. Sliding hernia
C. Richter's hernia
D. Indirect inguinal hernia | As a result of slipping of the posterior parietal peritoneum on the underlying retroperitioneal structures, the posterior wall of the sac in sliding hernia is not formed by peritoneum alone, but by the sigmoid colon and its mesentery on the left, the accident), is called magical thinking. This type of reasoning is typi... |
A 16-year-old girl with primary amenorrhea comes to OPD with bilateral inguinal swelling. She has normal breast development with no pubic hair. USG shows absent uterus. The diagnosis is:
A. Androgen insensitivity syndrome
B. Turner syndrome
C. Mullerian agenesis
D. Klinefelters Syndrome | Testicular feminization syndrome (androgen insensitivity syndrome): XY karyotype with a female phenotype androgens are present but do not act at a peripheral level due to a receptor defect. the embryological development, which is dependent on androgens in a male fetus, does not happen and hence by default a female form... |
Cause of vasodilation in spider nevi
A. Testosterone
B. Estrogen
C. FSH
D. Hepatotoxin | B i.e. EstrogenIn chronic liver disease (especially cirrhosis) and pregnancy, impaired estrogen metabolism and consequent hyper estroenemiaQ leads to spider angiomata/nevi (superficial, toous aerioles, that unlike simple telangiectases, typically fill from the center outwards and occur invariably on upper half of body)... |
A 2 year old man presents with superficial gash on his forehead. The wound is bleeding profusely, but examination reveals no fracture. The physician suspects a hypersensitive cardiac reflex. The patient's epicranial aponeurosis (galea aponeurotica) is penetrated, resulting in severe gaping of the wound. The structure o... | A layer containing blood vessels * A mnemonic device for remembering the order in which the soft tissues overlie the cranium is SCALP: Skin, Connective tissue, Aponeurosis, Loose connective tissue, and Periosteum. * The scalp proper is composed of the outer three layers, of which the connective tissue contains one of t... |
On 5th postoperative day after laparoscopic cholecystectomy, a 50 years old lady presented with . upper quadrant pain with fever and 12 cm subhepatic collection on CT and ERCP shows cystic duct leak. The best management is -
A. Immediate laparotomy
B. Percutaneous drainage of fluid
C. Laparotomy and surgical exploratio... | Ans : (b) i.e. percutaneous drainage of fluid
So the answer to this question is B |
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