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Hysteroscopical excision can be done for all EXCEPT:
A. Uterine fundus fibroid
B. Submucous fibroid
C. Subserous fibroid
D. Endometrial polyp | Ans. (c) Subserous fibroidRef: Shaws 15th ed. 1359* Uterine fibroids are noncancerous growths of the uterus that often appear during childbearing years. It is aka leiomyomas* They aren't associated with an increased risk of uterine cancer and almost never develop into cancer.Types* Intramural fibroids are located within the wall of the uterus and are the most common type* Subserosal fibroids are located underneath the mucosal (peritoneal) surface of the uterus and can become very large. They can also grow out in a papillary manner to become pedunculated fibroids.# Therefore hysteroscopical excision is not possible.# It can be resected lapascopically or by open laparotomy.* Submucosal fibroids are located in the muscle beneath the endometrium of the uterus and distort the uterine cavity; even small lesions in this location may lead to bleeding and infertility* Cervical fibroids are located in the wall of the cervix (neck of the uterus)* Subserosal fibroids are located on the outer surface of the uterus.
So the answer to this question is C |
Length of ureter is:
A. 15 cm
B. 20 cm
C. 25 cm
D. 30 cm | 25 cm
So the answer to this question is C |
A case of road traffic accident (A) came with head injury, BP is 90/60, pulse is 150/min. Which anesthetic agent should be used for induction.
A. Thiopentone
B. Ketamine
C. Halothane
D. Succinylcholine | A i.e. Thiopentone In head injury, induction is preferably done by thiopental or propofol (both neuroprotective)Q and a rapid onset NMBD (usually rocuronium or mivacurium) following adequate preoxygenation hyperventilation by mask. A barbiturate (thiopentone) - opioid - N20-NMBA technique is commonly used or intraoperative maintenance anesthesia. Ketamine, halothane, succinylcholine can increase ICP and are better avoidedQ, however, Sch can be used in difficult intubation. Glucose containing or hypotonic crystalloid solutions, sedation without airway control and vasodilators (CCB, hydralazine, nitro-glycerine, nitroprusside) and PEEP are also avoided (or used very cautiously) in head injury.
So the answer to this question is A |
Which of the following has the lowest Vitamin A
A. Pappaya
B. Mango
C. Amla
D. Orange | Ans) c (Amla) Ref Park 20th ed p 531Vitamin A is seen in most green and yellow fruits and vegetables Retinol equivalent of:* Ripe mango-313* Pappaya - 118* Orange - 25Amala is one of the richest source of Vit C both in fresh as well as in dry condition.
So the answer to this question is C |
Plasma membrane of cell is bounded to cytoskeleton by which of the following?
A. Spectrin
B. Ankyrin
C. Tubulin
D. Laminin | In erythrocytes and most other cells ankyrin mediates the interaction between plasma membrane and cytoskeleton. Ankyrin also binds to the 100nm, rod shaped, antiparallel alpha beta heterodimers of spectrin and thus secures the cytoskeleton to the plasma membrane. Other membrane proteins with the same function are Cl-/HCO3- antipoer, sodium ion pumps and voltage dependent sodium ion channels. Ref: Basic Neurochemistry: Molecular, Cellular And Medical Aspects, Volume 1, page 29
So the answer to this question is B |
Best means of giving hepatitis B vaccine is
A. Subcutaneous
B. Intradermal
C. Intramuscular deltoid
D. Intramuscular gluteal | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Intramuscular Deltoid Prophalyxis against HBV . Both passive and active immunization are available for HBV infection prophylaxis. . Passive prophylaxis is by hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG). . Active immunization is by recombinant hepatitis B vaccine. . These are two recombinant vaccines : Recombivax - HB Engerix - B Vaccine is given intramuscular into the deltoid or in infants into the anterolateral aspect of thigh. Gluteal injection is not recommended as it may result in poor immune response. . Three doses are given at 0, 1 and 6 months. . For pre exposure prophylaxis only hepatitis B vaccine is given. . For post exposure prophylaxis combination of HBIG and hepatitis B vaccine is recommended. For perinatal exposure single dose of HBIG at bih along with complete course of vaccination is recommended. First dose of vaccine should be given within 12 hours after bih.
So the answer to this question is C |
Neutral amino acid is -
A. Aspartate
B. Arginine
C. Glycine
D. Histidine | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Glycine Neutral amino acidsAcidic amino acidsBasic amino acidsAlanineAspartic acid (aspartate)ArginineAspargingGlutamic acid (glutamate)HistidineCysteineGlycineGlutaminelsoleucineLeucineMethionineProlinePhenylalanineSerineThreonineTyrosineTryptophanValine Lysine
So the answer to this question is C |
First agent shown to be effective in maniac phase of BPD is
A. Lithium
B. Valproate
C. Lamotrigine
D. Carbamazepine | .lithium was the frst agent to be used for mania it has mood stabilizing propey it was introduced by John F Cade it is liver friendly drug it has to be introduced in caution with renal derangements it can cause of hypothyroidim it should be given with caution with ACE inhibitors, NSAIDS, Angiotensin receptor antagonists it has a narrow thereupatic index the optimal level of lithium in blood need for reduction of acute symptoms is 0.8-1.2meq/l when taken in increased amount , it may result in lithium toxicity hemodialysis is the treatment for lithium toxicity
So the answer to this question is A |
Second generation cephalosporin that can be used orally is
A. Cefipime
B. Cephalothin
C. Cefaclor
D. Cefadroxil | Ans. c (Cefaclor). (Ref. Pharmacology by KD Tripathi - 6th/pg. 704)GenerationOralParenteral1stCephalexinCefadroxilCephradineCephalothinCefazolin2ndCefaclorCefuroximeCefuroximeCefoxitin3rd QCefiximeCefpodoximeCefdinirCeftibuteCefoperazoneCefotanimeCeftizoximeCeftriaxoneCeftazidime4th--CefepimeCefpirome
So the answer to this question is C |
Life span of house fly is?
A. 5 days
B. 10 days
C. 1 month
D. 1 year | The complete life cycle from egg to adult may take 5 to 6 days during summer in India, but at other times it may take 8 to 20 days. Flies do not generally live longer than 15 days in summer and 25 days during winter Eggs - 8 to 24 hours, Larvae - 2 to 7 days, Pupae - 3 to 6 days, Adults 5-20 says. Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 25th Edition, Pg
So the answer to this question is C |
Iceberg phenomenon is depicted by all of the following diseases except:
A. Influenza
B. Hypeension
C. Measles
D. Malnutrition | Iceberg phenomenon is not shown by diseases which have no carrier state such as: - Rabies - Tetanus - Measles - Rubella - Peussis Tip of iceberg Submerged pa of iceberg Composition Clinical cases Latent, inapparent, pre symptomatic, Undiagnosed cases and carriers Visibility to clinician Visible Invisible Prime impoance for Clinician Epidemiologist Detection Diagnostic tests Screening tests Useful level of prevention Secondary Secondary
So the answer to this question is C |
Reticulocytes are stained by
A. Methylviolet
B. Brilliant cresyl blue
C. Sudan black
D. Indigo carmine | Ref Robbins 9/e p635 Reticulocytes are stained in living state in-vitro so staining with dyes like brilliant cresyl blue and new methylene blue is preferred road supra vital staining Brilliant cresyl blue is a supravital stain used for counting reticulocytes. It is classified as an oxazine dye
So the answer to this question is B |
In patient with anterior uveitis, decrease in vision due to involvement of posterior segment can occur because of
A. Exudative RD
B. Cystoid macular edema (CME)
C. Vitreal floaters
D. Inflammatory disc edema | B i.e. Cystoid macular edema (CME)
So the answer to this question is B |
An old patient Ram Kishore having asthma and glaucoma is to receive a b blocker. Regarding b blocking drugs:
A. Metoprolol blocks b2 receptors selectively
B. Esmolol's pharmacokinetics are compatible with chronic topical use
C. Nadolol lacks b2 blocking action
D. Timolol lacks the local anaesthetic effects of propanolol | Metoprolol is a cardioselective (b1 selective) blocker and not b2 selective. Esmolol is the shoest acting b -blocker and is useful for acute treatment. Nadolol is a non-selective b-blocker. It blocks both b1 as well as b2 receptors. Propanolol possesses maximum local anaesthetic activity whereas timolol lacks this propey.
So the answer to this question is D |
Which of the following is false about watermelon stomach
A. Watermelon stomach is more common in females
B. Causes upper GI bleeding
C. Treatment is argon photocoagulation
D. Dilated veins present in the fundus. | Dilated veins and capillaries are present in the antrum
So the answer to this question is D |
Nerve injured in fracture of medial epicondyle of humerus -
A. Anterior interosseous
B. Median
C. Ulnar
D. Radial | Ans. is 'c' i.e., UlnarSite of injuryNerve injuredFracture surgical neck humerusAxillary nerveFracture shaft humerusRadial nerveSupracondylar fractureMedian nerve (anterior interosseous branch)Medial epicondyle fractureUlnar nervePosterior dislocation of HIPSciatic nerveFibular neck fractureCommon peroneal nerve
So the answer to this question is C |
Hydroxyethyl starch is used as:
A. Plasma expander
B. Inotropic agent
C. Vasodilator
D. Type of dextran | It is a blood volume expander used in treatment of hypovolemia; adjunct in leukapheresis to improve harvesting and increase the yield of granulocytes by centrifugation. Mechanism of Action: Produces plasma volume expansion by viue of its highly colloidal starch structure. Onset of action: Volume expansion: I.V.: Approximately 30 minutes. Contraindications: Renal failure with oliguria or anuria (not related to hypovolemia); any fluid overload condition (eg, pulmonary edema, congestive hea failure); pre-existing coagulation or bleeding disorders. Ref: Wang S. (2012). Chapter 116. Paracentesis. In G.V. Lawry, S.C. McKean, J. Matloff, J.J. Ross, D.D. Dressler, D.J. Brotman, J.S. Ginsberg (Eds), Principles and Practice of Hospital Medicine.
So the answer to this question is A |
In a study, dye ABC is used to measure cardiac output and blood volume. The dye is replaced with a new dye XYZ which diffuses more rapidly out of the capillaries. This would affect the study by
A. Normal cardiac output, altered blood volume
B. Altered cardiac output, normal blood volume estimation
C. Both altered
D. Both normal | In estimation of cardiac output by the dye, the dye is injected through a vein and then blood is collected from the artery after a single cycle through the heart. So there is no diffusion out through the capillaries in between. Hence the cardiac output is unchanged in the given scenario. But the measured blood volume is affected because the measurement is done after it passes through the capillaries.
So the answer to this question is A |
A 23-year-old male patient presents to the OPD with nausea, vomiting, & four episodes of loose stools. On history taking, he reveals to have consumed food from a restaurant 3 hours back. The most likely etiologic organism is
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Bacillus cereus
C. Salmonella
D. Vibrio cholerae | Staphylococcus causes nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea 2-6 hrs after consuming contaminated food (other organisms causing food poisoning within the same time period of 2-6 hrs is Bacillus cereus-Emetic strains). Enterotoxin produced by Staphylococcus: It is a preformed toxin that is heat stable (Most of the other exotoxins are heat labile). Site of action: This toxin stimulates the vagus nerve and vomiting center of the brain and also stimulates the intestinal peristaltic activity. Most common type of enterotoxin: Type A. 1-6 hrs incubation period Staphylococcus aureus: Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea.source :Ham, poultry, potato, cream pastries, mayonnaise Bacillus cereus: Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea and source is Fried rice 8-16 hrs incubation period Clostridium perfringes Abdominal cramps, diarrhea and source:Beef, poultry, legume, gravies Bacillus cereus Abdominal cramps, diarrhea and source: Meats, vegetables, dried beans, cereals >16 hrs incubation period Vibrio cholerae Watery diarrhea Shellfish, and source:water Salmonella species Inflammatory diarrhea and source: Beef, poultry, eggs Reference: Ananthanarayan and Paniker&;s Textbook of Microbiology Tenth edition
So the answer to this question is A |
Radiation dose monitoring in occupational personal is done by
A. TLD Badge
B. Linear accelerator
C. Collimators
D. Grid | ref : david sutton
So the answer to this question is A |
Drug that is mostly used to decrease the suicidal tendencies in Manic Bipolar Disorder
A. Fluoxetine
B. Lithium
C. Carbamazepine
D. Risperidone | (B) Lithium # With Lithium treatment, patients have been shown to present a decreased risk of suicide (especially when treated with Lithium) and a reduction of frequency and severity of their episodes, which in turn moves them toward a stable life and reduces the time they spend ill.> In order to maintain their state of balance, therapy is often continued indefinitely, as around 50% of the patients who dis- continue it relapse quickly and experience either full-blown episodes or sub-syndromal symptoms that bring significant functional impairments.> There is a high rate of suicide among people with untreated bipolar disorder, and studies show that lithium treatment significantly reduces this risk.> Conversely, patients who discontinue lithium treatment are 20 times as likely to commit suicide during the first 6 months following discontinuation.
So the answer to this question is B |
Horner's syndrome is characterized by all of the following except:
A. Miosis
B. Enopthalmos
C. Ptosis
D. Cycloplegia | Cycloplegia is not a feature of Horner's syndrome. Ref:Walsh and Hoyt's Clinical Neuro-Ophthalmology: The Essentials By Frank Buon Walsh, Nancy J. Newman, William Fletcher Hoyt, Neil R. Miller, Valerie Biousse, John B. Kerrison, 2007, Page 304
So the answer to this question is D |
All have high hepatic clearance EXCEPT
A. Labetalol
B. Simvastatin
C. Morphine
D. Paracetamol | (D) Paracetamol HEPATIC CLEARANCE OF DRUGSLOWHepatic ClearanceINTERMEDIATEHepatic ClearanceHIGHHepatic Clearance* Carbamazepine* Caffeine* Lignocaine* Diazepam* Fluoxetine* Morphine* Ibuprofen* Midazolam* Pethidine* Phenytoin* Omeprazole* Propranolol* Warfarin* Paracetamol* Zidovudine> Low Hepatic Clearance does not mean that the drug is then cleared by the kidneys; it indicates that the capacity of the hepatic enzymes involved in the metabolism of the drug is low.
So the answer to this question is D |
Most common site for diveiculosis is?
A. Sigmoid colon
B. Ascending colon
C. Transverse colon
D. Spleenic flexure | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Sigmoid colon The sigmoid colon is the most common site of diveiculosis.
So the answer to this question is A |
Green blue postmortem discoloration is seen in which poisoning -
A. Cyanide
B. Carbon monoxide
C. Phosphorous
D. Hydrogen sulphide | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Hydrogen sulphide o Color of post-mortem staining in various poisoning:POISONCOLORCarbon mono-oxide and hypothermiaCherry redHCN, bumsBright redNitrites, potassium chlorate, potassium bicarbonateChocolate orNitrobenzene, acetanilide, bromates, aniline (causing methaemoglobinuria)Copper brownPhosphorousDark brown or yellowHydrogen sulphideBluish green
So the answer to this question is D |
Consent given by a person who is intoxicated with ethanol is invalid, this comes under
A. Sec 87 IPC
B. Sec 92 IPC
C. Sec 90 IPC
D. Sec 89 IPC | Refer the byte "Legal sections".
So the answer to this question is C |
Anti-phospholipid Antibody syndrome is Characterized by all except
A. Antibodies directed against phospholipid binding proteins.
B. Inhibition of syncytiotrophoblast differentiation.
C. Central nervous system involvement is least common.
D. High risk of placental infarction and early-onset pre-eclampsia. | Central nervous system involvement is one of the most prominent clinical manifestations in APLAS.
So the answer to this question is C |
Injury caused to the pedestrian in a vehicular accident due to his/her striking onto the object on road is known as -
A. Primary injury
B. Secondary injury
C. Acceleration injury
D. Decceleration injury | Secondary injury is caused by person violently falling on ground (road) or on stationary object.
So the answer to this question is B |
Pseudorosettes are seen in
A. Retinoblastoma
B. Ophthalmia nodosa
C. Phacolytic glaucoma
D. Trachoma | Microscopic pathological study in Retinoblastoma shows various patterns like Homer-wright Flexner wintersteiner Fleurettes Refer khurana 6/e
So the answer to this question is A |
Patient died during surgery/under anesthesia, which among here applies for the surgeon?
A. 174 (3) CrPC
B. 174 CrPC
C. 39 CrPC
D. 176 CrPC | 174 CrPC- Procedure for inquest in unnatural death 174 (3) CrPC- Inquest rights for deaths of a married woman within 7 years of her marriage either by suicide or under any other suspicious circumstances. 39 CrPC- Public should intimate the police in case of any crime. 176 CrPC- It gives the procedure of inquest by Magistrate into cause of death.
So the answer to this question is B |
Plateau phase of cardiac muscle is due to
A. East Na + channel opening
B. Opeaning of Ca++Na+ channels
C. Opeaning of Slow Ca++ channels
D. Opeaning of K + channels | Ca2+ influx through more slowly opening Ca2+ channels produces the plateau phase The initial depolarization is due to Na+ influx through rapidly opening Na+ channels Repolarization is due to net K+ efflux through multiple types of K+ channels Ref: Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology Twenty-Third Edition Page No:491
So the answer to this question is C |
Nodes of Rouviere -
A. Retropharyngeal node
B. Parapharyngeal node
C. Adenoids
D. None | Retropharyngeal nodes are divided into medial and lateral groups.
Most superior node of the lateral group is called the node of Rouviere.
Also know
Krause's node :- Lymph nodes situated at the jugular foramen.
So the answer to this question is A |
Dose of vitamin A during pregnancy -
A. 600 mg
B. 800 mg
C. 950 mg
D. 350 mg | During pregnancy recommended allowance of vitamin A is 800mcg . REF. PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICAL 21ST EDITION. PAGE NO - 616
So the answer to this question is B |
Basis of division of anatomical segments of liver are all, EXCEPT:
A. Hepatic aery
B. Hepatic vein
C. Poal vein
D. Bile duct | The proper hepatic aery, poal vein, and common hepatic duct enter/exit the liver at the poa hepatis as the 'poal triad'. The central branch first divides into two larger branches, functionally subdividing the liver into left pas and right pas. The poal triad continue to ramify within the liver, forming a total of eight segments that are more or less functionally independent of one another. Hepatic segments grouped by pas and divisions: Left pa of the liver 1. Posterior pa, Caudate lobe Segment (S1) 2. Left lateral division 1. Left posterolateral segment (S2) 2. Left anterolateral segment (S3) 3. Left medial division Left medial segment (S4); subdivided into subsegment (4a) and (4b) Right pa of the liver 1. Right medial division 1. Right anteromedial segment (S5) 2. Right posteromedial segment (S8) 2. Right lateral division 1. Right anterolateral segment (S6) 2. Right posterolateral segment (S7)
So the answer to this question is B |
Which one of the following hepatitis viruses have significant perinatal transmission –
A. Hepatitis E virus
B. Hepatitis C virus
C. Hepatitis B virus
D. Hepatitis A virus | Features of Hepatitis viruses
So the answer to this question is C |
Yellow fluorescence on wood&;s lamp is seen in -
A. Tuberous sclerosis
B. Pseudomonas infection
C. Tinea versicolor
D. Erythrasma | PITYRIASIS VERSICOLOR:-Tinea versicolor.Macules with fine scaling.Causative organism: dimorphic fungi.genus Malassezia globosa and M.furfur. Clinical features:- Hypo/hyperpigmented macules with fine ,branny scales. The lesions may coalesce to involve large areas,forming map like structures. Scraping the surface will accentuate the scaling,known as scratch sign or coup d'ongle sign or Besnier sign. Sites involved-upper trunk( mainly). Also affect face and flexural areas. Investigation:- Wood's lamp examination - golden yellow flourescence. Scraping and direct microscopy after adding KOH will demonstrate presence of both yeast and hyphal forms.This appearance is called as "spaghetti and meatball" appearance. Tuberous sclerosis gives a bluish white flourescence with wood's lamp examination.The macules with their long axis longitudinally distributed on the limbs and transversly on the trunk are seen more on wood's lamp examination. Erythrasma- causative organism- corynebacterium minutissimum shows coral red flourescence due to production of coproporphyrin 3. Pseudomonas:Contains pigments pyoverdin or fluorescein giving green flourescence. {Reference: IADVL textbook of dermatology, page 109.
So the answer to this question is C |
A 3-year-old girl has normal developmental milestones except the delay in speech. She has difficulty in concentration, communication and relating to others and does not make friends but plays with herself. Likely diagnosis is
A. ADHD
B. Autism
C. Specific learning disorder
D. Mental retardation | Autism Absent social smile Lack of eye to eye contact Lack of awareness of others existence or feelings and treats people as furniture Lack of attachment to parents and absence of separation anxiety No or abnormal social play prefers solitary games Marked impairment in making friends Absence of fear in presence of danger (Ref: a sho textbook of psychiatry, Niraj Ahuja,7th edition, pg no 164)
So the answer to this question is B |
HMB 45 is tumor marker for -
A. Malignant melanoma
B. Mesothelioma
C. Bronchogenic carcinoma
D. Pancreatic carcinoma | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Malignant melanoma Markers for melnnonaS-100 - 90% of tumors are positiveHMB-45 - More specific but less sensitive than S-100TA-90Important markersTumoro S-100. HMB-45o TA-90o NMP-22MelanomaMelanoma, colon & breast ca.Urinary bladder ca.Neuroendocrine tumors (small cell ca of lung, carcinoid tumor & neuroblastoma)Ovarian Ca.Ovarian, pancreatic & gastric Ca.Pancreatic & colorectal CaEpithelial ovarian tumorBreast Cancer.o Neuron Specific enalaseoChromouraninAo Lipid associated Sialic acid (LASA-P)o CA 72-4o CA 19-9o CA 125o CA 27.29 &CA 15-3
So the answer to this question is A |
Distichiasis is-
A. Abnormal inversion of eyelashes
B. Abnormal extra row of cilia
C. Abnormal eversion of eyelashes
D. Misdirected cilia | *Distichiasis i.e. an abnormal extra row of cilia taking place of meibomian glands. Ref: Khurana ophthalmology 7th/e p.386
So the answer to this question is B |
A newborn baby presents with absent anal orifice and meconuria. What is the most appropriate management:
A. Transverse colostomy
B. Conservative management
C. Posterior saggital anorectoplasty
D. Perineal V-Y plasty | The presence of meconium in urine reflects some form of communication between the urinary tract and rectum, and suggests a high type of anorectal malformation. Such patients require a diveing colostomy. The colostomy decompresses the bowel and provides protection during the healing of subsequent repair. Posterior Saggital Anorectoplasty (PSARP) is performed after 4-8 weeks. The presence of meconium in urine and a flat bottom are considered indications of a protective colostomy.
So the answer to this question is A |
Incidence of choriocarcinoma is seen more after:
A. Ectopic pregnancy
B. Spontaneous abortion
C. Normal delivery
D. Cesarean section | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Spontaneous abortion * Among all the cases of choriocarcinoma:# 50% develop following a hydatidiform mole#' 25% develop following an abortion# 20% develop following a full-term pregnancy and 5% develop following an ectopic pregnancy* As vesicular mole is not in the options, abortion is the answer.
So the answer to this question is B |
On mammogram, all of the following are the features of a malignant tumor except:
A. Spiculation
B. Microcalcification
C. Macrocalcification
D. Irregular mass | Ans. C...MACROCALCIFICATION is seen in fibroadenomaAlso know Distinguishing features between benign and malignant lesions on mammogram Benign Malignant Opacity Smooth margin Ill defined margin, Irregular stellate, spiculated margin, comet tail Low density High density Homogeneous In homogeneous Thin halo wide halo Calcification Macrocalcification (> 5mm in diameter) Microcalcification (< 5 mm in diameter) Breast Parenchyma Normal Architectural distortion Nipple/areola +- Retracted +- Retracted Skin Normal thickened Cooper ligaments Normal thickened, increase number Ducts Normal focal dilatation Subcutaneous retro mammary space Normal obliterated Calcifications are the most common finding on mammogram. Most of these are benign calcification. * The calcification patterns which are associated with high probability of malignancy are: Clustered pleomorphic heterogenous microcalcifications these are small, usually less than 0.5 mm in diameter vary in size, shape and density often termed granular calcifications. Fine linear or fine branching calcifications these calcifications are often seen in comedocarcinoma * Architectural distortion the structures of the breast are normally directed towards the nipple. Disturbances in this normal orientation of tissue towards the nipple, especially the tethering or pulling in of structures to a point away from the nipple, is termed architectural distortion. architectural distortion is highly suspicious for breast carcinoma, although benign conditions such as radial scar, surgical scar, fat necrosis can have this appearance.
So the answer to this question is C |
Dexmedetomidine is
A. Selective alpha 2 blocker
B. Agent of choice for conscious sedation
C. Less sensitive to alpha 2 receptors than clonidine
D. Good analgesic | Dexmedetomidine is alpha 2 agonist, more sensitive than clonidine. It is used to produce conscious sedation.
So the answer to this question is B |
Shoest acting non benzodiazepine sedative is:
A. Zolpidem
B. Zaleplon
C. Zopiclone
D. Midazolam | Amongst the three Z drugs, zaleplon has the shoest half life of one hours, half life of zolpidem is 2.4 hours whereas that zopiclone is 5 hours. Midazolam is a benzodiazepine
So the answer to this question is B |
A 4-year-old male child presents with muscles weakness. His mother tells that her child has difficulty in climbing stairs and getting up from the floor. On muscle biopsy, small muscle fibrils and absent of dystrophic was found. What is the diagnosis out of given option?
A. Beck's muscle dystrophy
B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
C. Myotonic dystrophy
D. Limb-girdle muscular dystrophy | Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy Progressive weakness Calf muscle involvement Pseudo hyperophy Difficulty in climbing stairs Gowersign present (+) Wheel chair bound Patient Death - CHF/ Pneumonia CPK MM: Increased IOC: - PCR for dystrophin gene (Dystrophin gene absent) Rx: - Chest Physiotherapy NOTE:Immunohistochemical studies for dystrophin show Absence of the normal sarcolemma staining pattern in Duchenne muscular dystrophin Reduced staining in Becker muscular dystrophy.
So the answer to this question is B |
Which of the following is a Mortality Indicator?
A. Life Expectancy
B. Notification Rate
C. DALY
D. Bed turn-over ratio | Ans. (a) Life Expectancy* Life Expectancy is a 'Positive mortality indicator'ALSO REMEMBER* DALY is a type of disability rate* Bed turn-over ratio is a type of heath care utilization rate
So the answer to this question is A |
In oral poisoning with carbamate insecticide_______ may be hazardous
A. Pralidoxime
B. Atropine
C. Magnesium sulfate purgative
D. Gastric lavage with activated charcoal | Refer kDT 7/e p 111 Oximes are in effective in carbamate poisoning. Rathre, this can worsen the poisoning due to weak anticholinesterase activity by its own
So the answer to this question is A |
need for thinness inspite of being lean is a feuture of
A. anorexia nervosa
B. bulimia nervosa
C. metabolic syndrome
D. binge eating | Anorexia nervosa Anorexia nervosa is a eating disorder where the patient has decreased weight and altered body image and persistent desire to maintain thinness * Gender==== more common in females * Age=======adolescence * Comorbidity=== depression and social phobia * Duration====3 months * Criteria= * Intense fear of becoming fat * Restriction of food intake * Restricting type * Binge eating and purging type * Amenorrhea is not needed for diagnosis, previously amenorrhea is considered as a diagnostic criteria for diagnosis, in recent DSM 5 amenorrhea is considered for a diagnosis * Association= * OCD and depression * Decreased interest in sex * Complication * 7-14% moality * ECG changes * Hypokalemic alkalosis because of induced vomiting * Gastric dilation * Drugs * Cypro hepatidine * SSRI * Management * Admit in severe cases * Prevent vomiting by making restroom inaccessible for 2 hours after food intake * Avoid laxatives * Small frequent meals * Avoid refeeding syndrome Ref. kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no. 509
So the answer to this question is A |
Point shource epidemic is -
A. Short term fluctuation
B. Periodic fluctuation
C. Long term fluctuation
D. Secular trend | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Short term fluctuation * Point source (single exposure) epidemic is short term fluctuation.* There are three kinds of time trends or fluctuations in disease occurenceA. Short term fluctuations - epidemics.B. Secular trends or long term fluctuations.C. Periodic fluctuation.
So the answer to this question is A |
The length of distal convoluted tubule is ?
A. 2 mm
B. 5 mm
C. 8 mm
D. 12 mm | B i.e., 5 mm
So the answer to this question is B |
Which of the following is not a cause of features of primary hyperaldosteronism?
A. Cushing syndrome
B. Adrenal adenoma
C. Adrenal hyperplasia
D. Chronic CCF | Chronic CCF will lead to low GFR. The subsequent activation of RAAS will lead to increased renin and secondary aldosteronism. Causes of primary hyperaldosteronism : Conn syndrome (adrenal adenoma): 60% Bilateral adrenal hyperplasia (Micronodular): 60% Cushing syndrome Syndrome of apparent mineralocoicoid excess Adrenocoical carcinoma Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
So the answer to this question is D |
Not affected in multiple myeloma -
A. IgG
B. IgA
C. IgM
D. IgD | Types of monoclonal protein in multiple myeloma include IgG,(55%),IgA(21%), light chain only(22%), others(D,E,non-secretory about 2%).Reference :Davidson's principles & practice of medicine 22nd edition pg no 1046.
So the answer to this question is C |
Whispering produces a sound of:
A. 20-30db
B. 30-40db
C. 40-50db
D. 50-60db | Sound levels of some noises: Whisper: 20-30db Normal conversation 60-70db Mechanical damage; 150-160db Acceptable noise levels: expressed in db (A), sound pressure levels conforming to weighing curve (A) acceptable noise level < 85dbAuditory fatigue > 90 dbPermanent hearing loss > 100 dbTympanic membrane damage > 160 db. Environment Place Acceptable noise level Db (A) Residential Bed room 25 Living room 40 Commercial Office 30-45 Conference 40-45 Restaurants 40-60 Industries Workshop 40-60 Laboratory 40-50 Education Class room 30-40 Library 35-40 Hospitals Wards 20-35
So the answer to this question is A |
Which of the following is not an indication for endotracheal intubation?
A. Maintenance of a patent airway
B. To provide positive pressure ventilation
C. Pulmonary toilet
D. Pneumothorax | Pneumothorax requires urgent needle thoracocentesis and/or Intercostal drainage. Pneumothorax is a known complication of endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation and is certainly not an indication for the same.
So the answer to this question is D |
Balloon valvotomy is successful in all of the following cases except –
A. Congenital pulmonary stenosis
B. Calcified mitral stenosis
C. Mitral stenosis is pregnancy
D. Congenital aortic stenosis | It is indicated in MS without calcification.
So the answer to this question is B |
Hep Burn Osteometric board is used to measure-
A. Length of long bones
B. Length of flat bones
C. Breadth of long bones
D. Breadth of flat bones | Ans. 'a' i.e., Length of long bones o Hep Bum Osteometric board is used to accurately measure length of long bones.Hepburn Osteometric Boardo It is ait instrument used to measure length oflong bones.o It has a rectangular base with ruler fixed along one of its long sides,o An upright is fixed at one end of the board and a second one slides along the board.o Bone is placed with one of its ends along the fixed upright and the movable upright is brought upto the other end of the bone. The distance between the uprights is the length of the long bone,o Stature can be calculated from the length of long bones and used for identification. Femur and tibia give more accurate values compared to humerus and radius.
So the answer to this question is A |
Which of the following drugs should be given in a patient with acute angle closure glaucoma .except
A. Pilocarpine
B. Clozapine
C. Fluphenazine
D. Paroxentine | Three drugs in the option i.e clozapine,fluph fluphen,paroxentine have anti-cholinergic propeies and should be avoided in angle closure glaucoma. Ref-KDT 6/e p426
So the answer to this question is A |
Which among the following drug is contra-indicated in renal failure?
A. Pethidine
B. Morphine
C. Fentanyl
D. Atracurium | Renal failure patients given repeated doses of pethidine are prone to experience similar effects. All the other drugs are safe in renal failure. Ref: KD Tripathi 8th ed
So the answer to this question is A |
Male-female differentiation of fetus occurs at
A. 2-4 weeks
B. 10-12 weeks
C. 16-18 weeks
D. 24-26 weeks | Genotype of embryo is established at feilization. But male and female embryos are phenotypically distinguishbletill week 6. Ref: Gray's 39e/p-1289
So the answer to this question is B |
Traditionally scrotal carcinoma is associated with which of the following occupations?
A. Chimney sweeps
B. Mule spinners
C. Coal worker
D. Wood workers | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Chimney sweeps & 'b' i.e., Mule spinners * Carcinoma of the scrotum.* It is traditionally recognized as an occupational hazard for chimney sweeps and mule spinners.* It was described by Potts.* Unlike carcinoma of the penis, carcinoma of the scrotum is almost unknown in India and Asiatic countries.* The growth starts as a wart or ulcer and as it grows it may involve the testis.* The growth is excised with a margin of healthy skin. If associated enlargement of the inguinal nodes does not subside with anti- biotics, a bilateral block dissection should be carried out up to the external nodes.
So the answer to this question is A |
Which of the following organism causes a life-threatening gastroenteritis as a result of use of a broad spectrum antimicrobial agents
A. Bacillus cereus
B. Bacillus anthracis
C. Clostridium botulinum
D. Clostridium difficile | The use of broad spectrum antibiotics such as ampicillin and clindamycin has been associated with pseudomembranous colitis. Antibiotic administration results in the proliferation of drug resistant C. difficile that produces Toxin A (a potent enterotoxin with cytotoxic activity) and Toxin B (a potent cytotoxin). This disease is best treated by discontinuing the use of the offending antibiotic and administering oral doses of metronidazole or vancomycin. Administration of antibiotics may also lead to a milder form of diarrhea, called antibiotic associated diarrhea. This form is associated with C. difficile in about 25 percent of the time.
So the answer to this question is D |
Hep-2 cells are a type of-
A. Primary cell cultures
B. Diploid cell strain
C. Continuous cell lines
D. Explant culture | Ans. is 'c', i.e. Continous cell lines
So the answer to this question is C |
Botulinum toxin acts by
A. Secretion of Ach
B. Synthesis of ACh
C. Inhibits Ach release
D. Muscle nerve block | Ref: HL Sharma 3rd ed pg no:133 botulinum toxin and beta-bungaro toxin inhibits the release of Ach into the synapse
So the answer to this question is C |
The commonest pancreatic tumor is:
A. Ductal adenocarcinoma
B. Cystadenoma
C. Insulinoma
D. Non islet cell tumor | M/C type - Adenocarcinoma Non-specific Tumour Marker - CEA Specific Tumour Marker - CA 19.9 Chemotherapy Regimen - Gemcitabine MC site of metastasis - Liver M/C site for CA pancreas - Head > Body > Tail Neuroendocrine Tumors (NET) of Pancreas- M/C NET of Pancreases - Non-Functional (PPOMA)- M/C functional NET of Pancreas - Insulinoma- M/C functional & Malignant NET of Pancreas - Gastrinoma
So the answer to this question is A |
Bite cells are characteristic of -
A. G6PD deficiency
B. Thallasemia
C. Hereditary spherocytosis
D. Sideroblastic anaemia | Exposure of G6PD deficient red cells to high levels of oxidants causes cross linking of reactive sulfhydril groups on globin chains which become denatured and form membrane bound precipitates known as Heinz bodies. As inclusion bearing red cells pass through the splenic cords, macrophages pluck out the Heinz bodies. As a result of membrane damage some of these paially devoured cells retain an abnormal shape appearing to have a bite taken out of it.This is called as bite cells. Reference; Robbins and Cotran Pathologic basis of disease.South Asia Edition volume 1.page no. 634
So the answer to this question is A |
A four year old boy Tinu has normal developmental milestones except delayed speech. He is interested to watch spinning objects like fan and the washing machine. His parents struggle to get him interested in other children at home. People often comment that he is disinterested and self centred. What will be your thought regarding his diagnosis?
A. Autism Spectrum Disorder
B. Sibling Rivalry
C. Mental retardation
D. Specific learning disability | Tinu's presentation is that of poor 'theory of mind' or lack of perspective taking, poor communication and social skills and obsessive interests in spinning objects, which is common in ASD (autism spectrum disorder). Autism is characterized by triad of impaired social development, disturbed communication and language and presence of stereotypes. Ref: The Biology of the Autistic Syndromes By Christopher Gillberg, Mary Coleman, 2000, Page 25
So the answer to this question is A |
True about Arboviruses is -
A. Yellow fever is endemic in India
B. Dengue has only one serotype
C. KFD was first identified in West Bengal
D. Chikungunya is transmitted by Aedes aegypti | - chikungunya is a disease caused by group A virus, the chikungunya virus and transmitted by Aedes aegypti. - KFD was first recognized inas Shimoga district of Karnataka in India. - India is a yellow fever receptive area, that is an area in which yellow fever does not exist, but where conditions would permit it's development if introduced. - Dengue is caused by dengue virus. - there are four virus serotypes which we designated as DENV1, DENV2, DENV3 and DENV4. Reference : Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no:283,247,288,289 <\p>
So the answer to this question is D |
NADPH oxidase deficiency causes impaired immunity which of the follwoing process?
A. Chedickhigasi syndrome
B. Chronic granulomatous disease
C. Leucocyte adhesion defect type 1
D. Leucocyte adhesion defect type 2 | Chronic granulomatous disease is a rare, X-linked deficiency of NADPH oxidase activity which drastically impairs the ability of macrophages and neutrophils to destroy pathogens. Patients are especially vulnerable to mycobacteria, E coli, and staphylococcus since these organisms produces catalase to defend themselves against hydrogen peroxide attack by phagocytes.
So the answer to this question is B |
A patient presented with numbness of little and ring finger, atrophy of hypothenar muscles. The nerve damaged will be?
A. Palmar cutaneous branch of ulnar
B. Deep branch of ulnar
C. Ulnar nerve before division into superficial and deep branches
D. Posterior cord of brachial plexus | This is a case of cubital tunnel syndrome, which is caused by compression or irritation of the ulnar nerve as it passes under the medial epicondyle before it branches to deep and superficial branches. Symptoms are usually tingling and numbness in the cutaneous distribution of the ulnar nerve. In severe cases, muscle weakness may be apparent, with atrophy of the hypothenar eminence.Also know: Deep branch of ulnar nerve supplies:Hypothenar compamentAdductor pollicisDorsal interosseiPalmar interosseiMedial lumbricalsSuperficial branch of ulnar nerve supplies:Palmaris brevis Surrounding skin of the digit 5 and the medial side of digit 4
So the answer to this question is C |
An elderly male accompanied by his son.The son tells his father has fever, cough, shoness of breath since 2 weeks. The patient is a known case of chronic bronchitis and diabetes. Travel history to Wuhan City, China is present. What is the symmetry of the causative virus?
A. Naked helical symmetry
B. complex symmetry
C. Enveloped helical symmetry
D. Icosahedral symmetry | The patient is suffering from coronavirus disease 2019. The symmetry of the causative virus is enveloped helical symmetry. Coronaviridae is a family of which have the following propeies: Unsegmented genome of positive-sense, single-stranded RNA viruses. They are enveloped viruses. They exhibit helical symmetry. Coronavirus is the causative agent of severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS-CoV). Viruses with Helical Symmetry: Mnemonic: ABC FOR PARAmedics Arenavirus Bunyavirus Coronavirus Filovirus Ohomyxovirus Rhabdovirus Paramyxovirus Reference: Ananthanarayan and Paniker&;s Textbook of Microbiology Tenth edition
So the answer to this question is C |
Multipleround to oval erythematous patches with fine central scale distributed along the skin tension lines on the trunk is highly suggestive of?
A. Tinea versicolor
B. Pityriasis rosea
C. Lichen planus
D. Seborrheic dermatitis | .
So the answer to this question is B |
About Langerhans cell histiocytosis, true are all except:
A. Peak incidence less than 3 years of age
B. Radiosensitive
C. Diffuse form is known as Letterer-Siwe-disease
D. Gonadal involvement occurs | d. Gonadal involvement occurs(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2484-2489; Ghai 8/e p 620-623)a. Peak incidence less than 3 years of age: True; More common and more severe in younger childrenb. Radiosensitive: True, as Bone lesions and Pituitary lesions, causing DI, respond well to radiotherapyc. Diffuse form is known as Letterer-Siwe disease: Trued. Gonadal involvement occurs: FALSE; Gonadal involvement is usually not seen in LCH.
So the answer to this question is D |
Which fruit juice helps in preventing UTI:
A. Grape
B. Raspberry
C. Cranberry
D. Orange | Ans. is 'c' i.e. Cranberry Cranberry juice has been traditionally used for the treatment and prophylaxis of urinary tract infection.Recent randomized controlled trials have demonstrated its utility in prophylaxis of UTIs but not for treatment.
So the answer to this question is C |
Essential drug is?
A. Drugs that has been developed specifically to treat a rare medical condition
B. Those drugs that satisfy the health care needs of the majority of the population
C. Those drugs that satisfy the health care needs of at least 50% of the population
D. Drug that is to be used with in first hour of the acute attack of the disease | ANSWER: (B) Those drugs that satisfy the health care needs of the majority of the populationREF: KDT 6th edition page 5Essential drugs (medicines), as defined by the World Health Organization (WHO) are "those drugs that satisfy the health care needs of the majority of the population; they should therefore be available at all times in adequate amounts and in appropriate dosage forms, at a price the community can afford.
So the answer to this question is B |
The Burrows in scabies is in the –
A. Stratum basale
B. Stratum granulosum
C. Stratum corneum
D. Dennis | Mite burrows into stratum corneum. These burrow is visible clinically as an irregular gray - brown line.
So the answer to this question is C |
Immediate stiffnes postmoem occurs in :
A. Cadaveric rigidity
B. Cadaveric spasm
C. Rigor mois
D. Algor mois | B i.e. Cadaveric spasm
So the answer to this question is B |
One week after an extended hysterectomy, the patient leaks urine per vaginum. In spite of the leakage, she has to pass urine from time to time. The most likely cause is :
A. Vesico-vaginal fistula
B. Ureterovaginal fistula
C. Stress incontinence
D. Overflow incontinence | Ureterovaginal fistula
So the answer to this question is B |
Which of the following does not cause Polyuria?
A. Interstitial nephritis
B. Hypokalemia
C. A.D.H insufficiency
D. Rhabdomyolysis | Rhabdomyolysis leads to myoglobinuria which leads to blockage of tubules and thereby reduction of urine output. Interstitial nephritis is characterized by tubular damage leading to polyuria. Hypokalemic nephropathy in choice B and ADH insufficiency (diabetes insipidus) in choice C leads to Polyuria.
So the answer to this question is D |
A patient who has suffered severe chest trauma in an automobile accident is found to have fluid in the right pleural space. A thoracentesis reveals the presence of chylous fluid in the pleural space, suggesting a rupture of the thoracic duct. In which regions of the thorax is the thoracic duct found.
A. Anterior and middle mediastinum
B. Anterior and superior mediastinum
C. Middle and superior mediastinum
D. Posterior and superior mediastinum | Posterior and superior mediastinum o Thoracic duct is the main lymphatic channel of the body that drains to the venous system from the body except the: -Right thorax -Right arm -Right head and neck o It begins as a continuation of the cisterna chyli at the level of the T 12 veebras. It passes to the right of the aoa through the aoic hiatus. It then ascends to the right of the oesophagus with the azygous vein on its left. Posteriorly are the right posterior intercostal aeries. o At the level of the fifth thoracic veebra the duct passes superiorly and to the left, posterior to the oesophagus (posterior mediastinum). It then ascends on the left side of the oesophagus into the superior mediastinum. At this point, the aoa lies anteriorly and posteriorly is the anterior longitudinal ligament of the veebral bodies. o Superiorly, within the neck the thoracic duct passes laterally to arch over the dome of the right pleura. It passes laterally and posterior to the carotid sheath and anterior to the veebral aeries. During this final section: o It can divide into 2-3 branches o It is joined by lymphatic trunks from: o The left side of the head - the jugular trunk o The left arm - the left subclan trunk o All the branches merge with the subclan vein, the internal jugular vein or the left brachiocephalic vein near the intersection of all three o On route, the thoracic duct receives lymphatic efferents from: -Intercostal nodes -Anterolateral and -posterior mediastinal nodes -Tracheobronchial nodes
So the answer to this question is D |
All of the following are manifestations of congenital syphilis except:-
A. Gumma
B. Hutchinson's teeth
C. Olympian brow
D. Interstitial keratitis | Gumma- seen in teiary syphilis Late signs of Congenital syphilis Symptom/sign Descriptions Olympian brow Bony prominence of the forehead caused by persistent or recurrent periostitis Higoumenaki's sign Unilateral or bilateral thickening of the sternoclavicular third of the clavicle Saber shins Anterior bowing of the midpoion of tibia Hutchinson teeth Peg-shaped upper central incisors with a notch along the biting surface Mulberry molars Abnormal 1st lower molars with excessive number of cusps Saddle nose Depression of the nasal root Rhagades Linear scars in a spoke-like pattern from mucocutaneous fissures of mouth, genitalia Hutchinson triad Hutchinson teeth, interstitial keratitis, and 8th nerve deafness Clutton joint Unilateral or bilateral painless joint swelling Manifestations of early congenital syphilis include Syphilitic rhinitis Maculopapular rash Condyloma lata
So the answer to this question is A |
What is the position of the leg in fracture neck of femur: September 2007
A. Internal rotation deformity of less than 45 degree
B. External rotation deformity of less than 45 degree
C. Internal rotation deformity of more than 45 degree
D. External rotation deformity of more than 45 degree | Ans. B: External rotation deformity of less than 45 degree Capsule of the hip joint prevents full external rotation in intra-capsular/ fracture neck of femur. So external rotation will be there but not significant, whereas in case of extra-capsular/inter-trochanteric femoral fractures, leg will be externally rotated to such an extent that lateral surface of foot touches the bed as there is no check by the capsule of hip joint.
So the answer to this question is B |
Which one of the following is not a feature of renal aery stenosis?
A. Hypeension responds well to drugs
B. Kidneys may be asymmetrical
C. Atherosclerotic plaques are common
D. Serum creatinine may increase with ACE inhibitors | In renal aery stenosis - Hypeension is difficult to control with drugs. Patients often respond to Revascularization procedures like percutaneous renala aery angioplasty . There may be decline in GFR during therapy with ACE -inhibitors or ARB'S. Renal aery stenosis can be unilateral or bilateral, so kidneys may be asymmetrical . Atherosclerosis is the common cause of renal aery stenosis in elderly. Ref:Harrison 20 th edition pg no 1906
So the answer to this question is A |
CSF glucose level is
A. Half the plasma glucose
B. 2/3 plasma glucose
C. 1/3 plasma glucose
D. Same as plasma glucose | Answer is B (2/3 of plasma glucose):
So the answer to this question is B |
All are true about communicability of Malaria, except-
A. The number of gametocytes in blood increases with time
B. Gametocytes appear in blood 4-5 days after the appearance of the asexual parasite, in vivax infection.
C. Gametocytes appear in blood 10-12 days after the appearance of asexual parasite, in falciparum infection
D. In the early stage of infection, their density may exceed 1000 per cmm of blood. | Ans. is 'a' i.e. The number of gametocytes in blood increases with time o A malarial parasite (Plasmodium) has got 2 hosts Man is the intermediate host Mosquito is the definitive host o Plasmodium undergoes 2 cycles of development - The asexual or human cycle The sexual or mosquito cycle o The mosquito cycle begins when a mosquito feeds on an infected mass and ingests gametocytes o Malaria is communicable as long as mature, ble gametocytes exist in the human circulating blood in sufficient density to infect vector mosquitoes. o In P. vivax infections, gametocytes appear in blood 4-5 days after the appearance of the asexual parasites. o In P. falciparum infections gametocytes appear 10-12 days after the first appearance of asexual parasites. o Gametocytes are the most numerous during the early stage of infection when their density may exceed 1000 per cubic mm of blood. o They also tend to occur in waves in blood.
So the answer to this question is A |
Xray aifact is
A. A radiolucent area
B. Any abnormal opacity in the radiograph
C. Produced when patient moves while taking the film
D. All of the above | Aifacts can present in a variety of ways including abnormal shadow noted on a radiograph or degraded image quality and have been produced by aificial means from hardware failure, operator error, and software (post-processing) aifacts. Common CausesImproper handling of the filmsErrors while processing the filmsPatient movement while taking the shootingCommon aifactsmotion aifact - due patient movement resulting in the distoed imageimage compositing (or twin/double exposure) - superimposition of two structures from different locations due to double exposure of same film/plateradio-opaque objects on or external to the patient (e.g. necklaces, piercings, buttons, hair)(Ref: Radiographic Imaging and Exposure, 4e. Mosby chapter 9)
So the answer to this question is D |
On the basis of BMI obesity is labeled at
A. 20
B. 25
C. 30
D. 18 | Body mass index (BMI) or Quetelet index:Defined as the body mass divided by the square of the body height, and is expressed in units of kg/m2BMIWeight status< 18.5 Underweight18.5-24.9 Healthy25.0-29.9Overweight>= 30.0Obese30.00-34.99 Obese class I35.00-39.99 Obese class II>= 40 Obese class IIIRef: Harrison's 18/e p608, 622, 630
So the answer to this question is C |
The following are predisposing factors for Esophageal carcinoma except
A. Plummer-Vinson syndrome
B. Tylosis palmaris
C. Tylosis palmaris
D. Benzene therapy | Answer is D (Benzene therapy) Benzene therapy has not been mentioned in the best of predisposing factors for carcinoma esophagus, and is the single best answer of exclusion. Predisposing factors for carcinoma esophagus : 1. Alcohol consumptionQ 2. Smoking cigarettes Q 3. Ingested Carcinogens Nitrates Q Smoked opiates Fungal toxins in pickled vegetables 4. Mucosal damage Chronic AchalasiaQ Lye ingestion / Hot tea Radiation induced strictures Q 5. Host Susceptibility 1. Patterson Kelley syndrome Q or Plummer Vinson syndrome Q 2. Esophageal web v + GlossitisQ + Iron deficiency 2. Tylosis palmaris et plantaris Q..Congenital hyperkeratosis Q and pitting ofpalms and soles Q 6. Chronic Gastric Reflux, ie. Barrett's esophagus for Adenocarcinoma Q
So the answer to this question is D |
Osteoporosis is seen in :
A. Thyrotoxicosis
B. Cushing's disease
C. Menopause
D. All of the above | Answer is D (All of the above) : Estrogen deficiency (Hypogonadal state) is known to cause osteoporosis. The most frequent estrogen deficient state is the cessation of ovarian function at the time of menopause. Thyrotoxicosis and Cushing's syndrome are known endocrine causes of osteoporosis.
So the answer to this question is D |
Thaliomide is used in all except ?
A. ENL
B. HIV neuropathy
C. HIV associated ulcer
D. Behcet's syndrome | Ans. is 'b' i.e., HIV neuropathy
So the answer to this question is B |
Abruptio placentae occurs in all except:
A. Smokers
B. Alcoholics
C. PET
D. Folic acid deficiency | Abruptio placenta is premature separation of normally situated placentaQ resulting in hemorrhage.
Risk factors:
Increased maternal age - Increased parity
Pre eclampsia - Chronic hypertension
Preterm ruptured membranes pregnancy - Sudden uterine decompression as in hydramnios and twin
Cigarette smoking - Thrombophilia
Cocaine abuse - Previous abruption
External trauma - Folic acid deficiency
Uterine leiomyoma
My – My- I pity all of you out there as you have to memorise so many lists (not only in gynae, obs but in other subjects as well). Even I have gone through the same phase. Friends I had devised a simple method to learn these lists. For some lists, I used to draw diagrams and then at the time of exam that diagram was reproduced in my mind. Try it out for yourself. e.g.
So the answer to this question is B |
Monogenic transmission of diabetes mellitus occurs in:
A. Insulin Dependent Diabetes Mellitus (IDDM)
B. Non-insulin Dependent Diabetes Mellitus (NIDDM)
C. Latent Autoimmune Diabetes in Adults (LADA)
D. Maturity Onset Diabetes of the Young (MODY) | d. Maturity Onset Diabetes of the Young (MODY)(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2760-2780, Ghai 8/e p 541-548)MODY refers to forms of diabetes are associated with monogenic defects in pancreatic b-cell function.
So the answer to this question is D |
Bone Density is best studied by –
A. CT scan
B. DEXA scan
C. MRI scan
D. Bone scan | DEXA scan is the gold standard test for screening of bone density (to rule out asteoporosis).
So the answer to this question is B |
Investigation of choice for lumbar prolapsed disc
A. X-ray
B. CT Scan
C. MRI
D. Myelogram Patt | Investigation of choice for PID at any level is MRI.
So the answer to this question is C |
An athletic male with itchy lesion at groin as shown below, causative agent can be all EXCEPT:
A. Trichophyton
B. Microsporum
C. Epidermophyton
D. Aspergillus | Ans. d. AspergillusThe itchy lesion in picture is a typical dermatophyte infection, and its known Jock's itch or Tineacruris. It is also known as Dhobi's itch. Since it is a dermatophyte infection, it cannot be caused by Aspergillus.
So the answer to this question is D |
True statement about treatment of intussusceptions
A. Air enema
B. Saline enema
C. Ba enema
D. Hydostatic reduction | In the infant with ileocolic intussusception, after resuscitation with intravenous fluids, broad-spectrum antibiotics and nasogastric drainage, non-operative reduction can be attempted using an air or barium enema (see Chapter 6, Fig. 6.14). Successful reduction can only be accepted if there is free reflux of air or barium into the small bowel, together with resolution of symptoms and signs in the patient. Ref: Bailey & Love&;s Sho Practice of Surgery,E25,Page-1198
So the answer to this question is A |
In comparison to breast milk, colostrum has higher content of:
A. Carbohydrates
B. Fat
C. Sodium
D. Potassium | Ans. is c, i.e. SodiumRef. Dutta Obs 7/e, p 148Colostrum is a deep yellow serous fluid secreted from breasts starting from pregnancy and for 2-3 days after delivery.CompositionIt has higher specific gravity and higher protein, Vitamin A, D, E, K, immunoglobulin, sodium and chloride content than mature breast milk.It has lower carbohydrate, fat and potassium than mature milk.AdvantagesAntibodies (IgA, IgG, IgM) and humoral factor (lactoferrin) provide immunological defence to the new born.Laxative action due to fat globules.It is an ideal natural starter food.Extra Edge ProteinFatCarbohydrateWaterColostrum8.62.33.286Breast milk1.23.27.587
So the answer to this question is C |
All of the following infections are sexually transmitted, except:
A. Candida albicans
B. Echinococcus
C. Molluscum contagiosum
D. Group B streptococcus | Candida albicans, molluscum contagiosum virus and group B streptococcus are sexually transmitted diseases. Echinococcus granulosus is spread through feco-oral route. Sexually transmitted pathogens include : Bacteria such as Neisseria Gonorrhea, Chlamydia trachomatis, Mycoplasma hominis, Treponema pallidum, Hemophilus ducreyi, Gardenella vaginalis, Group B streptococci. Fungi such as Candida albicans, Viruses such as HSV, Hepatitis B, CMV, HPV, Molluscum Contagiosum, Protozoa such as Trichomonas vaginalis and Entamoeba histolytica. Ref: Harrison's Principle of Internal Medicine, 16th Edition, Page 1095, 1762, Chapter 220; Blaustein's Pathology of the Female Genital Tract By Ancel Blaustein, 5th Edition, Page 161
So the answer to this question is B |
Lorenzo oil used in treatment of:
A. Gaucher disease
B. Adrenoleukodystrophy
C. Fabry's disease
D. Hurler disease | Adrenoleukodystrophy- Bone marrow transplant & Lorenzo oil Enzyme replacement therapy for- Gaucher disease- Human recombinant acid b-glucosidase (Imiglucerase) Velaglucerase alfa Taliglucerase alfa Fabry's disease- Agalsidase beta Hurler disease- Aldurazyme
So the answer to this question is B |
Surgery of choice for chronic duodenal ulcer is -
A. Vagotomy + antrectomy
B. Total gastrectomy
C. Truncal vagotomy + pyloroplasty
D. Highly selective vagotomy | Highly selective vagotomy Procedure of choice for chronic or intractable duodenal ulcers Nerves of Latarjet supplying the antrum are preserved (and hence gastric motility) Drainage procedure is not required Lowest Moality rate and side effects. Minimal chances of dumping Syndrome and gastric atony Relatively high recurrence. Ref: Maingot's 11/e chapter 11 & 12; Schwaz 9/e p913
So the answer to this question is D |
Right hepatic duct drain all, Except
A. Segment I
B. Segment III
C. Segment V
D. Segment VI | Right hepatic duct drains into segment V, VI, VII, VIII and left hepatic duct drains into segment I, II, III, IV, the segment I have an independent supply of poal and hepatic veins. Reference SRB edition :5 page:593
So the answer to this question is B |
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