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Snowstorm appearance on ultrasonography is seen in-
A. Hydatid cyst
B. Pyogenic liver abscess
C. Ectopic pregnancy
D. Molar pregnancy | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Molar pregnancy * "Snow storm appearance" or "bunch of grapes appearance" is characteristic of H. mole.
So the answer to this question is D |
Which of the following region of spine is most commonly affected in rheumatoid ahritis?
A. Cervical spine
B. Thoracic spine
C. Lumbar spine
D. Sacral spine | Rheumatoid ahritis principally involves atlantoaxial joint of cervical spine. Atlantoaxial involvement of the cervical spine result in compressive myelopathy and neurologic dysfunction. Rheumatoid ahritis does not affect thoracic and lumbar spine except in unusual circumstances. Reference: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 18e chapter 321.
So the answer to this question is A |
Compared to hydrocoisone, maximum glucocoicoid activity is seen in ?
A. Coisone
B. Prednisolone
C. Dexamethasone
D. Methylprednisolone | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Dexamethasone
So the answer to this question is C |
All are causes of primary amenorrhea EXCEPT
A. MRKH syndrome
B. Sheehan's syndrome
C. Kallmann's syndrome
D. Turner's syndrome | Sheehan's syndrome Post paum pitutary necrosis. Occurs as a result of ischemic pituitary necrosis due to severe postpaum hemorrhage Presents as failure to lactate or to resume menses (Secondary amenorrhea) Other presentation: genital and axillary hair loss, asthenia and weakness, fine wrinkles around the eyes and lips, signs of premature aging, dry skin, hypopigmentation and other evidence of hypopituitarism.
So the answer to this question is B |
Minimum interval between 2 live vaccine immunization -
A. 2 weeks
B. 4 weeks
C. 6 week
D. 8 weeks | Ans. is 'b1 i.e., 4 weeks Basic principle of immunezationMinimum 4 week interval recommended between 2 live vaccine adminstration except OPVand oral thyphoid.Two or more killed vaccine may be administrated simultaneously or at any given internalA live and killed vaccine given simultaneously but at different site.If immunisation status unknown, give age appropriate vaccineMixing of vaccine in same syringe not recommendedLive vaccine should be avoided in AIDS,
So the answer to this question is B |
Opsnins is -
A. C3a
B. 1gM
C. Carbothydrate binding proteins
D. Selections | Ans. is 'a' i.e., C3a Opsonin o A Substance capable of enhancing phagocytosis. o Complement (C3a) and antibodies are the two main opsonins.
So the answer to this question is A |
With a sensitive test, hCG can be detected in maternal serum or urine by ------ after ovulation?
A. 3 to 4 days
B. 8 to 9 days
C. 12 to 14 days
D. 20 to 21 days | Detection of hCG in maternal blood and urine is the basis for endocrine assays of pregnancy. Syncytiotrophoblasts produce hCG in amounts that increase exponentially during the first trimester following implantation. With a sensitive test, the hormone can be detected in maternal serum or urine by 8 to 9 days after ovulation. The doubling time of serum hCG concentration is 1.4 to 2.0 days. (Ref: William's Obstetrics; 25th edition)
So the answer to this question is B |
Normal respiratory minute volume is?
A. Tidal volume X Respiratory Rate
B. Tidal volume/ Respiratory Rate
C. TLC/ Respiratory Rate
D. FRC/ Respiratory Rate | Ans. (a) Tidal Volume X Respiratory RateRef: Ganong 25th ed. 1629RMV: Respiratory minute volume: 500ml X 12 breaths/ min= 6L
So the answer to this question is A |
Which of the following is known as the "guardian of the genome"-
A. p53
B. Mdm2
C. p14
D. ATM | The discovery of the tumor suppressor protein known as p53, and the process of uneahing its functions came about as a result the effos of thousands of scientists around the globe. In p53: The Gene that Cracked the Cancer Code, science writer Sue Armstrong takes a fresh look at the exciting breakthroughs and disappointing setbacks that characterized this endeavor. The result, according to reviewers Anna Mandinova and Sam W. Lee, is a brilliant narrative that captures the enthusiasm and excitement of scientific discovery, as well as the daily struggles and challenges faced by cancer researchers.
So the answer to this question is A |
Which of the following hormone does not act through c-AMP:
A. FSH
B. Progesterone
C. Estrogens
D. GH | GH
So the answer to this question is D |
Not a feature of Vogt Kayanagi Harada Syndrome is
A. Sensorineural hearing loss
B. Norma IQ
C. Vitiligo
D. Hyperpigmentation | Features of Vogt Kayanagi Harada Syndrome include Mental retardation.
So the answer to this question is B |
Most common site for carcinoid tumor in the abdomen
A. Appendix
B. Liver
C. Intestines
D. Pancreas | .CARCINOID TUMOUR It commonly occurs in appendix (65%), ileum (25%), other pas of GIT and rarely bronchus, testis, ovary. In the small intestine, carcinoids are most often seen within the terminal 2 feet of the ileum. * They arise from the enterochromaffin cells (Kulchitsky cells) found in the crypts of Lieberkuhn. * These cells are capable of APUD (Amine precursor uptake and Decarboxylation) and can secrete vasoactive peptides. * Carcinoid syndrome is seen in 40% of patients. * Carcinoid in appendix is usually single. But commonly it causes luminal obstruction and so presents with features of appendicitis. Common site is at tip/distal 2/3. ref:SRB&;s manual of surgery ,ed 3,pg no 812
So the answer to this question is A |
Which of the following drugs inhibit platelet cyclooxygenase reversibly?
A. Alprostadil
B. Aspirin
C. Ibuprofen
D. Prednisolone | NSAID'S Inhibit COX enzyme reversibly, Except Aspirin which is an irreversible inhibitor of this enzyme . Alprostadil -PGE1 and prednisolone do not inhibit cox enzyme .
So the answer to this question is C |
All of the following are bullous lesions except -
A. Pemphigus vulgaris
B. Dermatitis herpetiformis
C. Atopic dermatitis
D. Pemphigoid | Primary blistering disorder
Intraepidermal → Pemphigus vulgaris, P. foliaceous, P. vegetans, P. erythematosus.
Subepidermal → Bullous pemphigoid, Dermatitis herpe4formis, Epidermolysis bullosa acquisita.
So the answer to this question is C |
Not a dietary source of vit. B12-
A. Fish
B. Meat
C. Soya bean
D. Liver | Ans. is 'c' ie. Soyabean Vit B12 is present in foods of animal origin and is not present in foods of vegetable sources.
So the answer to this question is C |
Intussusception is associated with:
A. Submucous lipoma
B. Subserosal lipoma
C. Intramural lipoma
D. Serosal lipoma | Ref: Bailey & Love's Short Practice of Surgery 25th Edition Chapter 66 Intestinal Obstruction Pages 1191-12 & Donald A, Antonio!i, " Gastrointestinal Autonomic Nerve Tumors, expanding the spectrum of gastrointestinal stromal tumors," Arch Pathol Lab Med: 1989: 113: 831-833.Explanation:IntussusceptionInvagination of an intestinal segment (the intussusception) into the next distal part of the intestine forms a sheath around it (the intussuscipiens) producing a form of intestinal obstruction called 'intussusception'.The most common cause is hypertrophy of the Peyer's patches in the terminal ileum from an antecedent viral infection.The hypertrophied lymphatic patch becomes drawn into the lumen of the terminal ileum and is moved progressively into the ascending and transverse colon.Other predisposing factors includePolypsMeckel's diverticulumBenign tumors like lipomaLeiomyomaMalignant tumors such as lymphoma which may act as lead points for intussusception.GI lipomas, most common in the ileum, are single intramural lesion, submucosal in location and usually small.One portion of the gut becomes invaginated within an immediately adjacent segment: almost invariably, it is the proximal into the distal.The condition is encountered most commonly in children, with a peak incidence between 5 and 10 months of age.About 90% of cases are idiopathic but an associated upper respiratory tract infection or gastroenteritis may precede the condition.It is believed that hyperplasia of Peyer's patches in the terminal ileum.Weaning, loss of passively acquired maternal immunity and common viral pathogens have all been implicated in the pathogenesis of intussusception in infancy.Children Pathological lead pointsMeckel's diverticulumPolypduplication,Henoch-Schonlein purpuraAppendixAdult cases lead pointA polyp (e.g. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome)A submucosal lipomaother tumoursPathologyAn intussusception is composed of three parts:The entering or inner tube (intussusceptum)The returning or middle tube:The sheath or outer tube (intussuscipiens).The part that advances is the apex, the mass is the intussusception and the neck is the junction of the entering layer with the mass.An intussusception is an example of a strangulating obstruction as the blood supply of the inner layer is usually impaired.The degree of ischaemia is dependent on the tightness of the invagination, which is usually greatest as it passes through the ileocaecal valve.Intussusception may be anatomically defined according to the site and extent of invagination.In most children, the intussusception is ileocolicIn adults, colocolic intussusception is commonIntussusceptionMost common in childrenPrimary or secondary to intestinal pathology, e.g. polypMeckel's diverticulumIleocolic is the commonest varietyCan lead to an ischaemic segmentRadiological reduction is indicated in most casesThe remainder require surgery
So the answer to this question is A |
'Shrinking lung' is a feature of
A. Rheumatoid ahritis
B. SLE
C. Systemic scleoris
D. Polymyosities | Shrinking lung syndrome (SLS) is a rare complication of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) characterized by unexplained dyspnea, a restrictive pattern on pulmonary function tests, and an elevated hemidiaphragm.. This disorder is seen primarily during the later stages of SLE Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 533
So the answer to this question is B |
A 40 years old patient who has been consuming cannabis regularly for last 20 years comes to you in withdrawal. What is the most frequently seen withdrawal symptom?
A. Yawning
B. Seizures
C. Irritability
D. Tremors | Irritability is the most common cannabis withdrawal syndrome Withdrawal symptoms- Irritability Depressed mood Sleep disturbances Headache
So the answer to this question is C |
True regarding comparison values of cow and human milk are all except: March 2012
A. Human milk has comparatively less of protein
B. Human milk has comparatively less of calcium
C. Human milk has comparatively less of minerals
D. Human milk has comparatively less of lactose | Ans: D i.e. Human milk has comparatively less of lactose Comparison of human and cow link Protein in human milk is 1.1 g, whereas in cow milk it is 3.2 Calcium in human milk is 28 mg, whereas in cow milk it is 120 mg Minerals in human milk is 0.1 g, whereas in cow milk it is 0.8 g Lactose in human milk is 7.4 g, whereas in cow milk it is 4.4 g
So the answer to this question is D |
Most impoant element in treatment of diphtheria ?
A. Antitoxin
B. Tetracycline
C. Erythromycin
D. Penicillin | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Antitoxin Treatment of diphtheria . Administration of diphtherial antitoxin is the most impoant element in the treatment of respiratory diphtheria. . The primary goal of antibiotic therapy is to eradicate C. diphtheriae. Drugs currently used are erythromycin or procaine penicillin G. alternatives are rifampicin or clindamycin. Prophylaxis of diphtheria . Diphtheria can be controlled by immunisation. The objective of immunisation is to increase protective level of antitoxin in circulation. Three methods of immunisation are available : 1) Active immunisation By administration of toxoid, either formal toxoid or adsorbed toxoid. It is the best method for prevention. . Usually intramuscular injection is given. . Provide herd immunity. . Primary immunization consists of 3 doses at four weeks interval. 2) Passive immunisation . By subcutaneous injection of antitoxin (antidiphtheric serum (ADS)). . This is an emergency measure to be employed when susceptibles are exposed to infection. 3) Combined immunization . Ideally, all cases that receive ADS prophylactically should receive combined immunisation. . This consists of administration of toxoid in one arm and antitoxin in the other.
So the answer to this question is A |
Which of the following drug is not needed to be present in tubular lumen for diuretic action?
A. Chlohiazide
B. Acetazolamide
C. Mannitol
D. Eplerenone | Aldosterone receptor antagonist Osmotic diuretics Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor Thiazides spironolactone, eplerenone inhibit the aldosterone channels located on the basal side cells of collecting tubule, so they are not secreted in lumen. They filter across the glomerulus and in the nephron it will attract water, so it needs to come in the lumen They are also filtered in the tubule and inhibit carbonic anhydrase They are also fitered in lumen and they inhibit the Na+ Cl- channels in the DCT So the answer is '4'.
So the answer to this question is D |
A patient presents to emergency with pinpoint pupil, salivation, lacrimation, tremors and red tears. Plasma cholinesterase level was 30% of normal. Most probable Diagnosis is:
A. Organophosphate poisoning
B. Datura poisoning
C. Opioid poisoning
D. Pontine hemorrhage | Ans. (A) Organophosphate poisoning(Ref: Katzung 12/e p110)These are characteristic features of anti-cholinestearse (organophosphate and carbamate) poisoning.Features of Organophosphate poisoning:* Muscarinic symptoms: Pin point pupil, salivation, lacrimation, urination, defecation, gastrointestinal distress, vomiting, bronchospasm, bradycardia* Nicotinic symptoms: Fasciculations and fibrillations of muscle, tachycardia, tachypnea* CNS symptoms: Temors, giddiness, ataxia, coma* Red tears: Due to accumulation of porphyrin in the lacrimal glands
So the answer to this question is A |
Mid day meal programme comes under ?
A. Ministry of Social Welfare
B. Ministry of education
C. Ministry of Human Resources Developments
D. None | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Ministry of education
So the answer to this question is B |
Two important byproducts of HMP shunt are
A. NADH and pentose sugars
B. NADPH and pentose sugars
C. Pentose sugars and 4 membered sugars
D. Pentose sugars and sedoheptulose | The HMP shunt pathway has oxidative and non-oxidative phases. During the oxidative phase, glucose-6-phosphate is oxidized with the generation of 2 molecules of NADPH, and one molecule of pentose phosphate, with the liberation of one molecule of CO2. During the non-oxidative phase, the pentose phosphates are converted to intermediates of glycolysis.
So the answer to this question is B |
Propronolol is useful in all except -
A. Atrial flutter
B. Parkinsonian tremor
C. Thyrotoxicosis
D. HOCM | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Parkinsonian tremor o Propranolol inhibits the tremors which are due to overactivity of adrenergic system b 2-receptor), e.g. in thyrotoxicosis. o But, parkinsonian tremor and intention tremor are not due to sympathetic overactivity --> b -blocker has no role. b -blockers are DOC for HOCM and for controling the ventricular rate in atrial fibrillation.
So the answer to this question is B |
Vasa pre in a term gestation is managed by __________
A. Rapid induction and delivery by vaccum
B. Rapid induction and delivery by forceps
C. Immediate LSCS
D. Adopt vagos method and rapid vaginal delivery | Vasa Pre in a term gestation is managed by immediate LSCS. Management of vasa pre: Confirmed vasa pre not bleeding: Admit at 28-32 weeks, plan elective CS depending on fetal lung maturity Bleeding vasa pre: Delivery should be done by category 1 Emergency CS. (Categories based on urgency such as emergency, urgency, scheduled, elective) Neonatal blood transfusion may be needed. Vagos method: It is a management technique used in Umbilical cord prolapse, where Foley catheter is placed and the bladder provides upward pressure on the fetus, thus alleting the compression on the cord. Ref: DC Dutta&;s Textbook of Obstetrics 8th edition Pgno: 301
So the answer to this question is C |
Risk factor for bladder carcinoma is -
A. Clonorcis sinensis
B. Schistosoma hematobium
C. Plasmodium
D. None | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Schistosoma hematobium Risk factors for ca of BladderCigarette smoking is the main etiological factor and accounts for about 50% of bladder cancers.Occupational exposures to chemicalso The following compounds mav be carcinogenic # 2 naphthylamine-combustion gases and soot from coal# 4-aminobiphenyl-chlorinated aliphatic hydrocarbons# 4-nitrobiphenyl-certain aldehydes such as acrolein# 4-4-diaminobiphenyl (benzidine)-aniline dyes# 2-ami- 1-naphthol o Occupation reported to be associated with increased risk of bladder cancer# Autoworkers-metal workers# Painters-textile worker# Truck drivers-dye workers# Drill press operator-petrol workers# Leather workers-rodent exterminators & sevage workersSchistosoma haemotobium - Its a risk factor for both transitional cell ca & squamous cell ca.Drugs such as phenacetin & chlornaphazineCyclophosphamide therapyPelvic irradiationo Vitamin A supplements appear to be protective.
So the answer to this question is B |
most coomon benign tumor of parotid gland?
A. pleomrophic adenoma
B. wahins tumor
C. mucoepidermoid tumor
D. adenoid cystic tumor | Pleomorphic Adenoma : Epithelial Components Tubular and cord-like arrangements Cells contain a moderate amount of cytoplasm Mitoses are rare Stromal or "mesenchymal" Components Can be quite variable Attributable to the myoepithelial cells Most tumors show chondroid (cailaginous) differentiation Osseous metaplasia not uncommon Relatively hypocellular and composed of pale blue to slightly eosinophilic tissue. ref : bailey and love 27th ed
So the answer to this question is A |
All are example for randomised control trials except-
A. Natural experiments
B. Clinical trials
C. Risk factor trials
D. Preventive trials | .the major type of randomised controlled trials includes, 1.clinical trials 2.preventive trials. 3.risk factor trials 4.cessation experimnts 5.trial of aetiological agents. 6.evaluation of health services. ref:park&;s textbook,ed 22,pg no 82
So the answer to this question is A |
Stain used for the diagnosis of granulocytic sarcoma
A. Myeloperoxidase
B. Leucocyte alkaline phosphatase
C. Non specific esterase
D. Neuron specific esterase | .
So the answer to this question is A |
Six penny bruise is seen in ?
A. Manual strangulation
B. Hanging
C. Pedestrian injury
D. Head injury | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Manual strangulation Six penny bruiseThese are discoid shaped bruises of about 1 cm in diameter resulted from fingeip pressure usually seen in neck region because of manual strangulation. These are called six penny bruise because of resemblance with six penny.
So the answer to this question is A |
Which of the following is not a Deep Lymphoid tissue
A. MALT
B. GALT
C. BALT
D. DLT | Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT): Small numbers of lymphocytes may be present almost anywhere in the body, but signifi cant aggregations are seen in relation to the mucosa of the respiratory, alimentary and urogenital tracts. These aggregations are referred to as MALT. Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue in the respiratory system: In the respiratory system the aggregations are relatively small and are present in the walls of the trachea and large bronchi. The term bronchial-associated lymphoid tissue (BALT) is applied to these aggregations. Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue in the alimentary system: This is also called gutassociated lymphoid tissue (GALT) and includes Peyer's patches of ilium, adenoids (located in the roof of pharynx), lingual tonsils in posterior 1/3rd of tongue, palatine tonsils and lymphoid nodules in vermiform appendix. REF : Inderbir Singh's Textbook of Human Histology, Seventh edition, pg.no., 127, 128.
So the answer to this question is D |
On ECG, ST segment elevation is seen in all of the following conditions except: March 2012
A. Left ventricular aneurysm
B. Acute pericarditis
C. Myocardial infarction
D. Hypocalcemia | Ans: D i.e. Hypocalcemia ECG changes and conditions ST elevation may signify myocardial infarction, pericarditis or left ventricular aneurysm QT prolongation may occur with congenital long QT syndrome, low potassium, low magnesium, low calcium etc.
So the answer to this question is C |
Patient presented with loss of sensations in the lateral three and a half fingers. Which of the following will be an additional finding in this patient?
A. Opponens paralysis
B. Loss of sensation on hypothenar eminence
C. Atrophy of adductor pollicis
D. None of the above | This is the case of median nerve injury; sensation is lost over area supplied by median nerve. Findings: Injury or compression of median nerve at wrist (e.g. Carpal tunnel syndrome) can be tested by 1. Pen test for abductor pollicis brevis there is inability to touch the pen kept above the palm by thumb abduction 2. Ape thumb deformity (In median nerve palsy, the thumb is adducted and laterally rotated and lies in same plane as rest of finger, due to unopposed action of extensor pollicis longus (radial nerve) and adductor pollicis (ulnar nerve). 3. Loss of opposition 4. Sensory loss lateral 3 1/2 of digits and 2/3rd palm (autonomous zone is tip of index and middle finger) 5. Loss of sensation over thenar eminence 6. Anterior dislocation of lunate may cause median nerve compression.
So the answer to this question is A |
. In myocardial infarction, early light microscopic change is -
A. Waviness of fibres
B. Necrosis of fibres
C. Round cell infiltration
D. None | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Waviness of fibres
So the answer to this question is A |
The small intestine is characterized by basal crypts and superficial villi (Figure below). Where does cell division take place?Schematic representation of villi and crypts of Lieberkuhn
A. Submucosa
B. Crypts
C. Villi
D. Small-bowel lumen | Small-bowel turnover can be measured in rats by autoradiographic studies in which turnover of cells located in the crypts migrate along the villus toward the tip over a 2- to 3- day period. Intestinal villous mucosa undergoes hypertrophy and hyperplasia whenever an increased food load continuously enters the small intestine.
So the answer to this question is B |
Aschoff bodies in Rheumatic hea disease show all of the following features, except -
A. Anitschkow cells
B. Epitheloid cells
C. Giant cells
D. Fibrinoid necrosis | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Epitheloid cell
So the answer to this question is B |
Rituximab is used in all except
A. NHL
B. PNH
C. RA
D. SLE | Ans. is 'b' i.e. PNH Cancer cells express a variety of antigen.These antigens can be targeted by certain antibodies which are specifically directed towards those antigens. The antigen antibody reaction leads to death of the cancer cells.Antibodies {monoclonal antibodies) are now being prepared by immunizing mice against human tumour cells and obtaining.The antibodies so obtained have a short-half life and induce human anti-mouse antibody immune response. They are usually chimer zed or humanized when used as therapeutic reagents.Presently several monoclonal antibodies have received FDA approval for t/t of tumours. These includeRituximabAlemtuzumabTrastuzumabMechanism of action of the monoclonal antibodies:-The clinically relevant mechanism of action is not clear but certain other reasons have been postulated which areAntibody dependent cellular toxicityComplement dependent cytotoxicityDirect induction of apoptosisRituximabRituximab is a chimeric antibody that targets CD 20 B cell antigen.CD-20 is present on the cells from Pre-B cell stage and is expressed on 90% of B cell neoplasms.Rituximab is the first monoclonal antibody to receive FDA approval.It is primarily used in the t/t of lymphomas.Binding of Rituximab to CD20 generates transmembrane signals that produce autophosphorylation and activation of serine/tyrosine protein kinases.Uses of RituximabLymphoma (B cell lymphomas)Low grade lymphomasMantle cell lymphomasRelapsed aggressive B cell lymphomasChronic lymphocytic leukemiaSLE (Harrison 17th/e p 2082 Fig. 313.3)(used in patient with severe SLE)Rheumatoid arthritisRituximab has shown benefit in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis refractory to anti TNF agentsRituximab has been approved for the treatment of active rheumatoid arthritis when combined with methotrexate.
So the answer to this question is B |
Following are true about case control study except-
A. Retrospective study
B. Risk factor is present but not outcome
C. Both outcome and risk factors have occured
D. There is not risk to people in study | Case control studies often retrospective studies are common first approach to test causal hypothesis. In recent years, case control study has emerged as a permanent method of epidemiological investigation. Both exposure and outcome has occurred before the study. Study proceeds backwards from effect to cause. It uses a control or comparison group to suppo or refute an inference Ref: 25th edition, Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, Page no. 79
So the answer to this question is B |
Which of the following is a suicidal enzyme
A. Cyclooxygenase
B. Lipooxygenase
C. 5-nucleotidase
D. Thrombaxane synthase | Cyclooxygenase is a "Suicide Enzyme""Switching off " of prostaglandin activity is paly achieved by a remarkable propey of cyclooxygenase--that of self-catalyzed destruction; that is, it is a "suicide enzyme." Fuhermore, the inactivation of prostaglandins by 15-hydroxyprostaglandin dehydrogenase is rapid. Blocking the action of this enzyme with sulfasalazine or indomethacin can prolong the half-life of prostaglandins in the body.Ref: Harper&;s Biochemistry; 30th edition; Chapter 23; Biosynthesis of Fatty Acids & Eicosanoids
So the answer to this question is A |
The predominant symptom/sign of pheochromocytoma is:
A. Sweating
B. Weight loss
C. Ohostatic hypotension
D. Episodic hypeension | Answer is D (Episodic Hypeension): The predominant manifestation of Pheochromocytoma is Hypeension which classically presents as Episodic Hypeension (Sustained Hypeension and Ohostatic Hypotension may also be seen). 'The dominant sign is Hypeension. Classically patients have episodic hypeension, but sustained hypeension is also common' - Harrison
So the answer to this question is D |
Which of the following statements concerning the lateral horn of the spinal cord is true
A. It contains postganglionic parasympathetic neurons
B. . It gives rise to preganglionic sympathetic fibers
C. It gives rise to a spinothalamic tract
D. It is present at all spinal cord levels | It gives rise to preganglionic sympathetic fibers Lateral horns carry the autonomic neurons Posterior horns have sensory & anterior horns have motor neurons.
So the answer to this question is B |
Which one of the following immunoglobulins constitutes the antigen binding component of B-cell receptor -a) IgAb) IgDc) IgMd) lgG
A. a
B. bc
C. ac
D. ad | B cells display immunoglobulin molecules on their surface. These immunoglobulins serve as receptors for a specific antigen, so that each B cell can respond to only one antigen or a closely related group of antigens. All immature B cells carry Ig M immunoglobulins on their surface and most also early Ig D.
Combination of cell membrane bound Ig M or Ig D with the corresponding antigen leads to specific stimulation of the B cells - either activation and cloning to produce antibody, or suppression.
B cells also have surface receptors for the Fe portion of inununogloblins and for several complement components.
So the answer to this question is B |
The following marker is used to assess the monoclonality in T-cells -
A. Kappa and Lambda chain
B. TCR gene rearrangement
C. CD
D. CD34 | Molecular analysis of the rearrangement in T cell population can distinguish polyclonal lymphocyte proliferations from monoclonal expansions. Reference :Robbins basic pathology 9th edition pg no 100:
So the answer to this question is B |
All are features of septic tank except:
A. Ideal retention period-48 hours
B. Minimum capacity-500 gallons
C. Aerobic oxidation takes place outside
D. Sludge is solids setting down | SEPTIC TANK: Is a water-tight masonary tank into which household sewage is admitted for treatment Is a satisfactory method of disposing liquid and excreta wastes from individuals dwellings, small groups of houses or institutions which have &;adequate water supply but donot have access to a public sewerage system&; Design features of a septic tank: Ideal retention period: 24 hours Steps of purification in a septic tank: Anaerobic digestion: Takes place in septic tank proper Aerobic oxidation: Takes place in sub-soil (outside septic tank) Ref: Park 25th edition &; Pgno: 797
So the answer to this question is A |
a patient of age 65 years , who is obesity of bmi >40 , known diabetic and hypeensive .patient complaints of breathlessness , excessive sleeping during morning time with headache and with mood swings, what is drug that helps in resolving the symptoms ?
A. salbutamol
B. amoxitine
C. phenylephrine
D. modafinil | OSA-obstructive sleep apnea #Pathophysiology of OSA Tissue laxity and redundant mucosa Normal Anatomic abnormalities * Decreased muscle tone with REM sleep """&;"&;n * Airway collars, * Desaturation ( 02 ) * Arousal with restoration of airway * Sleep Fragmentation leading to Hypersomnoien, * Clinical features of Obstructive Sleep Apnea: #Excessive daytime sleepiness #Morning headache #Cardiopulmonary dysfunction -- hypeension -- cardiac arrhythmias -- hea failure #Impaired memory and concentration #Reduced intellectual ability #Disturbed personality and mood . *The dominant symptoms of OSA are excessive sleepiness, impaired concentration and snoring. Pharmacologic therapy * Modafinil is approved by the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) for use in patients who have residual daytime sleepiness despite optimal use of CRAP. * Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor agents such as paroxetine (Paxil) and fluoxetine (Prozac) have been shownto increase genioglossal muscle activity and decrease REM sleep (apneas are more common in REM), although this has not translated to a reduction in AHI in apnea patients ref : kd tripathi 8th ed
So the answer to this question is D |
in census literacy rate is assessed by:
A. Attended literacy classes for one year
B. Ability to write signature
C. Ability to read and write
D. Attended schooling | Ans: C (Ability to read and write) Ref: Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, K Park. 22nd edition. page no 44 7Explanation:Census is conducted once in 10 years in India.Literacy rate is assessed those above 7 years ageIn census it was first used in 1991 censusA person who can read and write with understanding in any language is considered as literateA person who can merely read but cannot write is not considered literate
So the answer to this question is C |
Influenza virus has?
A. 5 segments of SS RNA
B. 8 segments of ds DNA
C. 8 segments of ds DNA
D. 8 segments of ssRNA | Influenza virus jad ss RNA , it is segmented& exists ad right piece REF:ANATHANARAYANAN MICROBIOLOGY NINTH EDITION PAGE.497
So the answer to this question is D |
Chignon is:
A. Cephal hematoma
B. Artificial caput
C. Scalp laceration
D. Excessive moulding | A vacuum is applied (usually 0.2 kg/cm2 for vacuum extraction of a baby).
The scalp is sucked into the cup and an artificial caput is produced. This chignon usually disappears in a few hours.
So the answer to this question is B |
Gerlach tonsil is
A. Palatine tonsil
B. Lingual tonsil
C. Tubal tonsil
D. Nasopharyngeal tonsil | A collection of lymphoid tissue is present in the nasopharynx, behind the tubal opening. It is called the tubal tonsil, also known as Gerlach tonsil. It is continuous with the lateral pa of the pharyngeal tonsil. In Waldeyer's lymphatic ring, the most impoant aggregations are the right and left palatine tonsils. Posteriorly and above there is the pharyngeal tonsil; laterally and above there are the tubal tonsils, and inferiorly there is the lingual tonsil over the posterior pa of the dorsum of the tongue. Ref: BD Chaurasia's HUMAN ANATOMY, Volume 3, 4th edition.
So the answer to this question is C |
Structure related to deltopectoral groove ?
A. Axillary aery
B. Cephalic vein
C. Baselic vein
D. Radial nerve | Ans. is b' i.e., Cephalic veinDeltopectoral groove is a groove between deltoid muscle and pectoralis major muscle. It is traversed by cephalic vein
So the answer to this question is B |
Hypopigmented patches can be seen in :
A. Becker naevus
B. Freckles
C. Nevus Ito
D. Nevus anemicus | D i.e. Naevus anemicus
So the answer to this question is D |
Commonest presentation of congenital dislocation of the knee is -
A. Varus
B. Valgus
C. Flexion
D. Hyperextens ion | The patient presents with hyperextension deformity of the knee.
So the answer to this question is D |
Puscher retinopathy is seen in patients with -
A. Complication of chronic pancreatitis
B. Occlusion of anterior retinal aery
C. Head trauma
D. Diabetes mellitus | Putscher's retinopathy is a disease where pa of the eye (retina) is damaged. Usually associated with severe head injuries, it may also occur with other types of trauma, such as long bone fractures, or with several non-traumatic systemic diseases. However, the exact cause of the disease is not well understood. There are no treatments specific for Puscher's retinopathy, and the prognosis varies. The disease can threaten vision, sometimes causing temporary or permanent blindness.
So the answer to this question is C |
Mutation in which of the following gene is found in Marfan's syndrome?
A. Collagen I
B. Collagen IV
C. Fibrillin I
D. Fibrillin II | Marfan's syndrome is caused by recurrent de novo missense mutation in the fibrillin-1 gene. Fibrillin1 is a large glycoprotein that is a structural component of microfibrils. Fibrillin 1 is found in the zonular fibers of the lens, in the periosteum and elastin fibers of aoa. Defect in fibrillin gene accounts for the manifestations of marfans syndrome such as ectopia lentis, arachnodactyly and cardiovascular problems. Mutation of fibrillin 2 gene on chromosome 5 lead to causation of congenital contractural arachnodactyly.
So the answer to this question is C |
Select inappropriate statement regarding Cholera
A. Incubation period 1-2 days
B. Rice - watery diarrhoea
C. Azithromycin is treatment of choice in adults
D. It is a notifiable disease locally, nationally and internationally | Cholera: - Caused by Vibrio cholera - ELTOR - MC subtype in India now. - Route of transmission - FECO-ORAL ROUTE - I.P - 1-2 days - Clinical feature: Rice-watery diarrhea - It is a notifiable disease locally, nationally and internationally. Groups Antibiotic of choice for cholera Adults Doxycycline Children Azithromycin Pregnancy Azithromycin Chemoprophylaxis Tetracycline
So the answer to this question is C |
A 34-year-old man presents with a 5-month history of weakness and fatigue. There is no history of drug or alcohol abuse. A CBC shows megaloblastic anemia and a normal reticulocyte count. Further laboratory studies reveal vitamin B12 deficiency Anemia in this patient is most likely caused by which of the following?
A. Acute erosive gastritis
B. Autoimmune gastritis
C. Helicobacter pylori gastritis
D. Menetrier disease | Autoimmune gastritis refers to chronic, diffuse inflammatory disease of the stomach that is restricted to the body and fundus and is associated with other autoimmune phenomena. This disorder typically features diffuse atrophic gastritis, antibodies to parietal cells and the intrinsic factor, and increased serum gastrin due to G-cell hyperplasia. Immunologic destruction of parietal cells and antibody targeting of intrinsic factor interfere with intestinal absorption of vitamin B12 . As a result, all lineages of bone marrow precursors show asynchronous maturation between the nucleus and cytoplasm (megaloblastic cells), and the peripheral blood displays megaloblastic anemia. Megaloblastic anemia that is caused by malabsorption of vitamin B12 , occasioned by a deficiency of the intrinsic factor, is referred to as "pernicious anemia." The other choices are not causes of pernicious anemia.Diagnosis: Autoimmune atrophic gastritis, pernicious anemia
So the answer to this question is B |
Circumduction test is used for
A. Anterior shoulder instability
B. Posterior shoulder instability
C. Inferior shoulder instability
D. Either of above | Ref : essential ohopaedic maheshwari 9th ed
So the answer to this question is B |
Pulled up cecum is seen in
A. CA colon
B. Carcinoid
C. Ileocaecal tuberculosis
D. Crohn's disease | Pulled up conical caecum is the finding seen in ileocaecal TB in Barium study X ray (enteroclysis followed by barium enema or barium meal follow through X ray) Reference : page 584 SRB's manual of surgery 5th edition
So the answer to this question is C |
Sturge weber syndrome is associated with –a) Port wine stainb) Cavernous hemangiomac) Lymphangiomad) hemangiosarcoma
A. ab
B. a
C. ad
D. bc | Clinical feature of Sturge-weber's syndrome
Unilateral facial nerves (port-wine stain) on upper face and eye lid.
Cavernous hemangioma
Seizures --> Focal tonic-clonic and contralateral to the site of nerves.
Hemiparessis
Transient stroke like episodes
Visual defects
Buphthalmos and glaucoma -k Same side.
Mental retardation
Pheochromocytoma
So the answer to this question is A |
Concentration of which is inversely related to the risk of coronary hea disease
A. VLDL
B. LDL
C. HDL
D. None | Role of LDL and HDL Recent studies have shown that atherogenic significance of the total cholesterol concentration must be viewed with restrictions. From numerous studies, it is now concluded that LDL is the carrier of 70 percent of total cholesterol and it transpos cholesterol to tissues and thus is most potential atherogenic agent. On the other hand, an increase of second cholesterol-rich class HDL is not associated with 'risk' at all. An inverse relation between CHD and HDL concentration has been found. A raised HDL concentration is beneficial and protective against CHD. This protective mechanism is explained by the following two mechanisms operating in parallel: * "Reverse transpo" of cholesterol from peripheral tissues into the Liver by way of HDL which thus reduces the intracellular cholesterol content (scavenging action of HDL). * Control of catabolism of TG rich lipoproteins. High HDL concentrations are associated with a faster elimination from the plasma of TG rich lipoproteins and their atherogenic intermediate.Ref: Textbook of Medical Biochemistry, Eighth Edition, Dr (Brig) MN Chatterjea, page no: 441
So the answer to this question is C |
What is the most common site of an accessory spleen?
A. Greater curvature of the stomach
B. Gastrocolic ligament
C. Splenocolic ligament
D. Splenic hilum | Splenunculi- single or multiple accessory spleens MC site: near the hilum of the spleen > behind the tail of the pancreas The remainder are located in the mesocolon, greater omentum or the splenic ligaments. Significance- failure to identify and remove these at the time of splenectomy may give rise to persistent disease
So the answer to this question is D |
Linitis plastica is a feature of -a) Hiatus herniab) Chronic gastric ulcerc) Lymphoma of stomachd) Diffuse carcinoma stomach
A. ab
B. bc
C. bd
D. cd | Linitis plastica
Involvement of a broad region of the gastric wall or entire stomach by diffuse stomach cancer cause linitis plastica.
It is also known as Brinton's disease.
The appearance of stomach is like leather bottle.
The other cause of linitis plastica are :
Lye ingestion
Sarcoidosis
Metastatic infiltration of stomach
Non -hodgkin lymphoma of stomach
Syphilis
So the answer to this question is D |
The time duration for functioning of corpus luteum after ovulation in a nonpregnant female is:
A. 5 days
B. 10 days
C. 14 days
D. 30 days | Following ovulation, the corpus luteum develops from the remains of the dominant or Graafian follicle in a process referred to as luteinization. The human corpus luteum is a transient endocrine organ that, in the absence of pregnancy, will rapidly regress 9 to 11 days after ovulation. Luteolysis results from decreased levels of circulating LH in the late luteal phase and decreased LH sensitivity of luteal cells. Luteolysis is characterized by a loss of luteal cells by apoptotic cell death. Ref: Cunningham F.G., Leveno K.J., Bloom S.L., Hauth J.C., Rouse D.J., Spong C.Y. (2010). Chapter 3. Implantation, Embryogenesis, and Placental Development. In F.G. Cunningham, K.J. Leveno, S.L. Bloom, J.C. Hauth, D.J. Rouse, C.Y. Spong (Eds), Williams Obstetrics, 23e.
So the answer to this question is B |
Today vaginal sponge failure rate is?
A. 5%
B. 9%
C. 16%
D. 20% | Ans. (b) 9%Ref: Appendix-115 for "METHODS OF CONTRACEPTION"
So the answer to this question is B |
True-regarding DNA-replication:
A. Semi conservative
B. Sister Chromatids are formed.
C. Follow base pair rule
D. All of the above | All of the above
So the answer to this question is D |
Nipple confusion means?
A. Baby fed with a bottle finding it difficult and confusing to suckle at breast
B. Baby not able to suckle with bottle
C. Baby not able to feed with spoon
D. Baby not able to feed with paladin | Ans. (a) Baby fed with a bottle finding it difficult and confusing to suckle at breastRef: OP Ghai 8th ed./153* A problem that may beset a bottlefed baby in which it forgets how to nurse on mother' nipple* Breastfeeding requires far more vigorous mouth and tongue motions and greater muscle coordination than bottlefeeding.* On bottle nipples or even pacifiers, a newborn can forget how to nurse properly.* This confusion can lead to diminished or discontinued nursing. Nipple confusion is usually not a concern after the early weeks, once the baby is nursing well.
So the answer to this question is A |
Enzyme Transketolase requires ?
A. FAD
B. TPP
C. PLP
D. FMN | Transketolase reactions require thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP).Coenzyme can be classified according to the group whose transfer they facilitate.a) For transfer groups other than hydrogen :- Sugar phosphate, CoA-SH, thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP), Pyridoxal phosphate, Folate, Biotin.b) For transfer of hydrogen : - NAD+, NADP+, FMN, FAP, Lipoic acid,Coenzyme Q.
So the answer to this question is B |
What is seen earliest in USG?
A. Yolk sac
B. Fetal hea
C. Chorion
D. Placenta | Yolk sac is the first anatomic structure seen within gestational sac. By TVS, it can be seen as early as 5.5week By TAS, it is seen by 7 weeks. Ref:Datta Obs 9e pg 601.
So the answer to this question is A |
Tennis Racquet cells
A. Rhabdomyoma
B. Rhabdomyosarcoma
C. Histiocytoma
D. Eosinophilic granuloma | Rhabdomyosarcoma An adjectival description for a relatively elongated cell, lesion, structure or radiological density that is globose at one end and elongated at the other, alike to the device used in game of tennis. Tennis racquet cell: A tennis-racquet-shaped variant of rhabdomyoblast seen in sarcoma botryoides, a form of rhabdomyosarcoma affecting children. The key cell to recognize by routine microscopy is the rhabdomyoblast, a cell with an eccentric round nucleus and variable amounts of brightly eosinophilic cytoplasm. 'Tennis racquet' appearance: A descriptive term for the ping-pong paddle-like thickening of the mesangium in glomeruli affected by Kimmelstiel Wilson disease. Tennis racquet granule: Birbeck granule; Langerhans' granule. A subcellular paicle with a pentilaminar 'handle' and bulbous terminal dilation of unceain significance that is seen by electron microscopy in the antigen-presenting Langerhans cell and in histiocytes. 'Tennis racquet sign (radiology): The description for a finding in a 'blighted ovum' in which the ultrasonically empty gestational sac is compressed (the racquet's 'handle') and adjacent to a surrounding decidual reaction (the 'paddle'); aka Tadpole sign. 'Tennis racquet' spore (microbiology): A descriptive term for the morphology of the subterminal spores in the gram positive Clostridium tetani, as well as in C. diphtheriae.
So the answer to this question is B |
Hidebound disease is:
A. DLE.
B. Scleroderma.
C. Acrodermatitis enteropathica.
D. None. | Systemic Sclerosis: Scleroderma, dermatosclerosis, hidebound disease.
So the answer to this question is B |
Patient with head injuries with rapidly increasing intracranial tension without hematoma, the drug of choice for initial management would be:
A. Furosemide
B. Steroids
C. 20% Mannitol
D. Glycine | Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic. It is used for Increased intracranial or intraocular tension (acute congestive glaucoma, head injury, stroke, etc.): by osmotic action, it encourages the movement of water from brain parenchyma, CSF and aqueous humor; The dose is 1-1.5 g/kg is infused over 1 hour as 20% solution to transiently raise plasma osmolarity. It is also used before and after ocular /brain surgery to prevent the acute rise in intraocular/intracranial pressure. osmotic diuretics are excreted unchanged in the urine ( Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, K.D Tripathi,6th edition, page 572 ) eding
So the answer to this question is C |
Which is derived from thoracolumbar fascia -
A. Medial arcuate ligament
B. Lateral arcuate ligament
C. Lacunar ligament
D. Cruciate ligament | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Lateral arcuate ligament o Thoracolumbar fascia covers the deep muscles of back of the trunk, o It is composed of three fascial layers -i) Anterior layer# It is the thinnest layer# Medially it is attached to transverse process of lumbar vertebrae.# Laterally it fuses with fascia transversalis and aponeurosis of transversus abdominis# Inferiorly it is attached to iliolumbar ligament and iliac crest.# Superiorly it is attached to 12th rib and extends to transverse process of Lj forming the lateral arcuate ligament of diaphragm.ii) Middle layer# Medially it is attached to transverse process of lumbar vertebrae.# Inferiorly it is attached to iliac rest.# Superiorly it is attached to 12th ribiii) Posterior layer# It is the thickest layer and attached to spines of lumbar verterae.o Quadratus lomborum is enclosed between anterior and middle layers. Erector spinae (paraspinal muscle) is enclosed between middle and posterior layer.
So the answer to this question is B |
A patient with carcinoma lower 1/3 of oesophagus, receives chemo Radiotherapy and dysphagia shows complete response. What is the next step in management?
A. Reassure
B. Follow with CT scan every 6 months
C. Esophagectomy
D. EUS to look for residual disease | - Clinical trials and meta-analyses have shown that a C + surgery regimen could significantly improve the survival of locally advanced esophageal carcinoma patients compared to surgery alone - Endoscopic biopsy, endoscopic ultrasonography, MRI (at various sequences) and PET-CT all had shocomings for evaluating cCR and the therapeutic effect of cCR (concurrent chemoradiation) and nC (Neoadjuvant chemoradiation therapy)
So the answer to this question is C |
Dennie-Morgan fold is seen in -
A. Dermotomyositis
B. SLE
C. Psoriasis vulgaris
D. Atopic dermatitis | dennie morgan fold-accentuated grooves or lines below the lower eyelid margins. seen in atopic dermatitis. Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2534
So the answer to this question is D |
Stereotactic radiosurgery is used in which of the following conditions?
A. Metastatic brain tumors
B. Aeriovenous malformations
C. Trigeminal neuralgia
D. All of the above | STEREOTACTIC RADIOSURGERY - SRS is a non-surgical radiation therapy used to treat functional abnormalities & small tumors of brain - Deliver precisely-targeted concentrated dose of radiation in fewer high-dose treatments to a defined volume in the brain Common uses of Stereotactic Radiosurgery (BAT) - Brain tumor(Benign, malignant, primary & metastatic tumors, single & multiple) - Benign lesions of cranial nerves - Aeriovenous malformations - Trigeminal neuralgia
So the answer to this question is D |
In MVP, you would expect the ejection click to be more accentuated and the murmur to move closer the first hea sound in a patient
A. With marked anxiety
B. Who is pregnant
C. Who is passive leg lifting in the supine position
D. On a beta blocker | Anxiety, with an increase in hea rate or decreasing venous return to the hea (standing), causes the click and murmur to occur earlier in systole (closer to S1). Lying down, squatting, sustained hand grip exercise, or passive leg lifting in the supine position increase venous return and cause the click and murmur to occur later in systole (less gravity and more venous return). The diagnosis is best made by echocardiography. -adrenergic blocking agents are frequently used for treatment of supraventricular tachycardias. Calcium channel blockers are also used in symptomatic cases. Ref - Harrison's internal medicine 20e pg 1821,1697
So the answer to this question is A |
Typhoid in first week of illness is best diagnosed by:-
A. Serum widal test
B. Stool culture
C. Urine test
D. Blood culture | Laboratory diagnosis of typhoid : 'BASU' mnemonic Test of diagnosis Time of diagnosis Remarks Blood culture 1st week Mainstay of diagnosis Antibodies (widal test) 2nd week Moderate sensitivity & specificity Stool culture 3rd week Useful for carries Urine test 4th week Useful for carries
So the answer to this question is D |
Prostaglandin causing renal vasodilation:
A. PGD2
B. PGE2
C. PGF2
D. All | B i.e. PGE2 Blood vesselsPlateletsBronchiKidneyUterusPGE2VasodilationVariable effectDilatationVasodilatationRenin releaseContractionSoftening of cervix ContractionSoftening of cervixPFF2aVasodilation-Constriction-PGI2VasodilationAntiaggregatoryDilatationVasodilationRenin release?TXA2VasoconstrictionAggregationConstrictionVasoconstriction-
So the answer to this question is B |
Cerberus is associated with development of:
A. Head
B. Lung
C. Liver
D. None of the above | The cells in the hypoblast (endoderm) at the cephalic margin of the disc form the anterior visceral endoderm, which expresses head forming genes, including OTX2, LIM1, and HESX1 and the secreted factor Cerberus. Ref: Langman's embryology 11th edition Chapter 5.
So the answer to this question is A |
Acute onset of cough, stridor and respiratory distress in the absence of fever is suggestive of:
A. Foreign body
B. Acute asthma
C. Aspiration Pneumonia
D. Primary complex | Ans. A. Foreign bodyImmediate symptoms of foreign body inhalation include choking, coughing, increasing respiratory distress or difficulty in speaking.
So the answer to this question is A |
Erythropoietin in kidney is secreted by
A. Juxtaglomerular cells
B. PCT cells
C. Interstitial cells in peritubular capillaries
D. Capillaries of glomerulus | Interstitial cells in paritubular capillaries releoses erythroportin in responce to hypoxia.
So the answer to this question is C |
What is the reason for Thyroid Storm after Total Thyroidectomy?
A. Due to Rough handling during Surgery.
B. Due to Inadequate preparation of patient
C. Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve Injury
D. Parathyroid Damage | Ans. (b) Due to Inadequate Preparation of PatientRef: Surgery Sixer 3rd Edition 229* It is a condition of hyperthyroidism accompanied by fever, central nervous system agitation or depression, cardiovascular dysfunction that may be precipitated by infection, surgery or trauma and occasionally by amiodarone administration.* It is common in inadequately prepared patient for surgery, accompanied by excess thyroid hormone release.
So the answer to this question is B |
'Alien limb' is characteristically seen in:
A. Coico basal degeneration
B. Diffuse Lewy body disease
C. Fronto temporal dementia
D. Alzheimer's disease | Coicobasal degeneration (CBD) is a slowly progressive dementing illness associated with severe gliosis and neuronal loss in both the coex and basal ganglia. CBD with unilateral onset presents with rigidity, dystonia, and apraxia of one arm and hand, sometimes called the alien limb when it begins to exhibit unintended motor actions. Ref: Harrisons principles of internal medicine, 18th edition, Page: 3312.
So the answer to this question is A |
Baby 20 year old female complains of sudden onset palpitation and apprehension. She is sweating for last 10 minutes and fears of impending death. Diagnosis is -
A. Hysteria
B. Generalized anxiety disorder
C. Cystic fibrosis
D. Panic attack | The information in this question are: - 1) Sudden (abrupt) onset, 2) Palpitation, 3) Apprehension, 4) Sweating, 5) Sense of impending doom, 6) Symptoms lasts for few minutes (10 minutes).
These are the features of panic disorder.
So the answer to this question is D |
Which of the following is not caused by over expression of a trinucleotide repeat?
A. Alzheimer's disease
B. Fragile X
C. Huntington disease
D. Spinocerebellar ataxia Type 2 | Ans: a (Alzheimer's disease) Ref: Ganong, 22nd ed, p. 215Alzheimer's disease is not caused by over expression of a trinucleotide repeat. The rest 3 options are examples of trinucleotide repeat diseases where as Alzheimer's is primarly a degenerative disease (Basal ganglia) resulting in movement disorder.Some examples of trinucleotide repeat diseases:-Huntington's disease -- CAGSpinocerebellar ataxia --CAG(Type 1, 2, 3, 63)Fragile X syndrome -- CGGMyotonic dystrophy -- CTGFrederich's ataxia -- GAA
So the answer to this question is A |
Irreversible dementia is caused due to:
A. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
B. Wilson's disease
C. Normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH)
D. Vascular dementia | Vascular dementia is a cause of progressive dementia due to impaired blood supply to the brain.
So the answer to this question is D |
A 64-year-old man, who is a chronic alcoholic, presents with fever, chills and increasing shoness of breath. The patient appears in acute respiratory distress and complains of pleuritic chest pain. Physical examination shows crackles and decreased breath sounds over both lung fields. The patient exhibits tachypnea, with flaring of the nares. The sputum is thick, mucoidy and blood-tinged. Which of the following pathogens is the most common cause of this patient's pulmonary infection?
A. Legionella pneumophila
B. Klebsiella pneumoniae
C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae | Klebsiella pneumoniae is the most frequent cause of gram-negative bacterial pneumonia. It commonly afflicts debilitated and malnourished people, paicularly chronic alcoholics. Thick, mucoid (often blood-tinged) sputum is characteristic because the organism produces an abundant viscid capsular polysac-charide, which the patient may have difficulty expectorating.
So the answer to this question is B |
The protein synthesis site of the cell body of neurons
A. Nissl bodies
B. Dendrites
C. Axon
D. All | The nissl bodies are the protein synthesis site in a neuron They are equivalent to rough endoplasmic reticulum Ref:Guyton and Hall textbook of medical physiology 12th edition ,page number 676
So the answer to this question is A |
Bounderies of anatomical snuff box are all except
A. APL
B. EPL
C. EPB
D. ECU | Ans. is 'd' i.e., ECU Anatomical Snuffbox Triangular depression on the dorsal and radial aspect of the hand become visible when thumb is fully extended. Boundaries Medial/Posterior - Tendon of the extensor pollicis longus. Lateral/Anterior - Tendon of the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus. Roof Skin and - fascia with beginning of cephalic vein and crossed by superficial branch of the radial nerve. Floor - Styloid process of radius, trapezium, scaphoid and base of 1st metacarpal. Contents - The radial aery.
So the answer to this question is D |
Endemicity of a disease means:
A. Occurs clearly in excess of normal expectancy
B. Is constantly present in a population
C. Exhibits seasonal pattern
D. Is prevalent among animals | Endemic Is the constant presence of a disease agent in a defined geographical area ; refers to 'usual or expected frequency' of a disease in a population. For instance, common cold is endemic because somebody always has one. Endemic diseases in India are : Measles, mumps, rubella, chicken pox, peussis, TB, HIV, Cancers, diabetes, hypeension etc. Epidemics can arise from uncontrolled endemics also.
So the answer to this question is B |
Sulfasalzine is used in: March 2011
A. Gout
B. Irritable bowel disease
C. Ulcerative colitis
D. Idiopathic osteoahritis | Ans. C: Ulcerative Colitis The mainstay of drug therapy for mild and moderate ulcerative colitis is sulfasalazine and other aminosalicylic acid (ASA) compounds and coicosteroids Sulfasalazine It is a sulfa drug, a derivative of mesalazine (also called 5-aminosalicylic acid, or 5-ASA) Sulfasalazine is used in the treatment of inflammatory bowel disease, including ulcerative colitis and Crohn's disease. It is also indicated for use in rheumatoid ahritis and used in other types of inflammatory ahritis (e.g. psoriatic ahritis) where it has a beneficial affect. It is often well tolerated compared to other DMARDS. It is usually not given to children under 2 years of age. It yields the metabolite sulfapyridine which gives rise to side-effects such as agranulocytosis and hypospermia. The other metabolite of sulfasalazine, 5-aminosalicylic acid (5-ASA) is attributed to the drug's therapeutic effect. Therefore, 5-ASA and other derivatives of 5-ASA, are now usually preferred and given alone (as mesalazine), despite their increased cost, due to their more ourable side-effect profile. Sulfasalazine, and its metabolite 5-ASA, are poorly absorbed from the gut.
So the answer to this question is C |
True about sentinel surveillance is: March 2011
A. Continuous oversight of activities
B. Supplements routine notification system
C. Beneficial for malaria surveillance
D. Keeps a check over health in border regions | Ans. B: Supplements routine notification Sentinel surveillance helps in supplementing notified cases (those given through routine surveillance system- passive and active) Sentinel surveillance It is the collection and analysis of data by designated institutions selected for their geographic location, medical specialty, and ability to accurately diagnose and repo high quality data. For example, district hospitals may be required to repo specific conditions such as bacterial meningitis in order to quantify the burden of disease due to Haemophilus influenzae type b. Generally, sentinel surveillance is useful for answering specific epidemiologic questions, but, because sentinel sites may not represent the general population or the general incidence of disease, they may have limited usefulness in analyzing national disease patterns and trends.
So the answer to this question is B |
Paget's disease of the nipple is
A. Superficial manifestation of underlying breast Ca
B. Galactocele
C. Eczema
D. All of the above | Paget's disease of the nipple is superficial manifestation of an intraductal breast carcinoma. The malignancy spreads within the duct up to the skin of the nipple and down into the substance of the breast. It mimics eczema of nipple and areola. In Paget's disease, there is a hard nodule just underneath the areola, which later ulcerates and causes destruction of nipple. Histologically, it contains large, ovoid, clear Paget's cells with malignant features. Paget's hyperchromatic cells are located in rete pegs of epidermis containing intracellular mucopolysaccharides as clear halo in cytosol. Reference : page 533 SRB's manual of surgery 5th edition
So the answer to this question is A |
One of the following disorders is due to maternal disomy
A. Prader Willi syndrome
B. Angelman syndrome
C. Hydatidi form mole
D. Klinefelter syndrome | ref Robbins 9/e p173 Matetnal disomy is associated with disorders like prader Willi syndrome, angelman syndrome.
So the answer to this question is A |
Continuous murmur is seen in all the following except:
A. Aoic sinus of valsalva rupture
B. Coarctation of Aoa
C. AV malformations
D. Peripheral pulmonary stenosis | Answer is D (Peripheral Pulmonary Stenosis) The 'num:11r of pglmonary stenosis is harsh systolic ejection murmur typically preceded by a systolic ejection sound. It is not a continuous murmur. Continuous murmurs result from continuous flow between a high pressure and low pressure area that persists through the end of systole and beginning of diastole. Common Causes of continuous murmurs Systemic aeriovenous fistula Q (congenital /acquired) Coronary aeriovenous fistula Q Anomalous origin of Left coronary aery from pulmonary aery Communication between sinus of valsalva and right side of hea e (i.e.Ruptured sinus of valsalva into right side of hea) Coarctation of Aoa : Continuous murmur in the back Patent Ductus Aeriosus e (PDA) Surgically created shunts e.g. Blalock-Tausig shunt
So the answer to this question is D |
Looser's zones is seen in – a) Osteoporosis b) Hyperparathyrodismc) Osteomalacia d) Renal osteodystrophye) Paget's disease
A. bcde
B. abd
C. abcd
D. acde | Looser's zone or pseudofracture is pathognomonic for osteomalacia, However, it may occur rarely also in Paget's disease, Fibrous dysplasia, Hyperparathyroidism, Renal osteodystrophy, Hyperphosphatasia, and osteogenesis imperfecta.
So the answer to this question is A |
Acquired blue blindness is a feature of
A. Disease of optic nerve
B. Disease of macula
C. Increased sclerosis of the crystalline lens
D. All of the above | Acquired Colour Blindness Acquired blue colour defect (blue blindness) : It may occur in old age due to increased sclerosis of the crystalline lens. It is owing to the physical absorption of the blue rays by the increased a.ambercoloured pigment in the nucleus. Ref:- A K KHURANA; pg num:-305
So the answer to this question is C |
Most common cause for meningitis in adults: September 2009
A. H.Influenzae
B. N.meningitidis
C. Staph.aureus
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae | Ans. D: Streptococcus pneumoniae Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause of meningitis in adults of age over twenty years, accounting for nearly half of the cases. N. meningitidis accounts for nearly 25% of the cases. Staph.aureus and coagulase negative staphylococci are impoant causes of meningitis that occurs following neurosurgical procedures.
So the answer to this question is D |
False statement about post-dural puncture headache (PDPH):
A. Breach of dura
B. Onset of headache is usually 12-72 hours following procedure
C. Commonly occipito - frontal in location
D. Headache is relieved in sitting standing position | Post Dural puncture Headache Pathophysiology - CSF leak - ICP |es - Traction on nerve fibres originating from piamater Site - Occipital > Frontal > Retrorbital Duration - 7-10 days Pathognomic sign - Change in posture aggravates headache Predisposing conditions - Dura cutting needle (spinal needle)* Most commonly seen with 22G Quincke needle Wide bore needle * Multiple attempts * Pregnancy (In pregnancy dura mater is very fragile- venous engorgement fragility increases chances of PDPH is more) Note- Early ambulation never predispose to PDPH
So the answer to this question is D |
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