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End–tidal CO2 is increased to maximum level in –
The unanticipated doubling or tripling of end tidal CO2 is the earliest & most sensitive indicator of malignant hyperthermia. The earliest signs seen during anesthesia are masseter muscle rigidity (MMR), tachycardia, & hypercarbia.
2
Pul. embolism
Malignant hyperthermia
Extubation
Blockage of secretion
Anaesthesia
null
23afbe22-dbed-4b1f-820e-be119089ab26
single
Number of air changes in a drawing room per hour should be at least
null
3
5-Apr
4-Mar
3-Feb
6-May
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
9503559c-b468-4e9a-9f8f-18e2661dc4ba
single
About mallory weiss sydrome true is -
Answer is 'd' i.e. Seen in alcoholics
4
Gastrointestinal reflux
Obesity
Tumour at gastroesophageal junction
Seen in alcoholics
Surgery
null
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Which of the following is done for the quick diagnosis of Erythrasma ?
Ans is'd i.e. Wood's lamp examination(Ref. IADVL text book of dermatology 3d/e p. 236).Erythrasma is caused by infection by Coryneform bacteria.Wood's lamp examination is a commonly used test to diagnose Erythrasma.Lesion shows coral red fluorescence dre to coproporphyrin III production by the bacteria.
4
Biopsy
KOH examination
Culture and sensitivity
Wood's lamp examination
Skin
null
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Breast cancer mainly spreads to the vertebrae via -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Batsons venous plexus o Three principal groups of veins are involved in the venous drainage of the thoracic wall and the breast:1) Perforating branches of the internal thoracic vein,2) Tributaries of the axillary vein, and3) Perforating branches of posterior intercostal veins.o Metastatic emboli trave...
3
Arterial route
Direct Invasion
Batsons venous plexus
Via Axillary lymph nodes
Surgery
Breast Cancer - Prognosis and Follow-Up
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single
Females with vaginal atresia are characterized by all except
Vaginal atresia doesnot become apparent until menarche.
4
Lack lower portion of vagina.
Normal external genitalia.
Normal pubertal maturation.
Becomes apparent in 1st decade.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
1df10b32-8693-4ea8-a1a2-b85dd6206ebe
multi
RPR is done for diagnosis of:
Ans. is. 'b' i. e., Syphilis
2
Malaria
Syphilis
Leishmaniasis
null
Microbiology
null
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multi
A 34-year-old male patient visits a physician with complaints of fatigue, weight loss, night sweats, and "swollen glands." The physician also observes that he has an oral yeast infection. Which of the following tests would most likely reveal the cause of his problems?
A male patient with the presentation as outlined (fatigue, weight loss, and lymphadenopathy) must be tested for antibodies to HIV. While other antibody tests may be relevant after the primary diagnosis, they must be considered after HIV is ruled out. Ceainly, infectious mononucleosis is a possibility, but its occurrenc...
3
A test for CD8 lymphocytes
A human T-lymphotropic virus type I (HTLV-I) test
An HIV ELISA test
A test for infectious mononucleosis
Microbiology
Immunology
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Pantothenic acid is associated with following moiety
Pantothenic acid is called vitamin B5 It is ised to synthesis co enzyme A in body Ref:Guyton and Hall textbook of medical physiology 12th edition,page number:20,21,22
1
coenzyme A
Carboxyl
Hydroxyl
H+
Physiology
General physiology
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single
The following drug shows antiepileptic activity
(D) All of the above# Felbamate is an anticonvulsant drug used in the treatment of epilepsy.> It is used to treat partial seizures (with and without generalization) in adults and partial and generalized seizures associated with Lennox-Gastaut syndrome in children.> However, an increased risk of potentially fatal aplast...
4
Felbamate
Gabapenitine
Molindone
All of the above
Psychiatry
Miscellaneous
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multi
A most common cause of amoebic lung abscess is -
Amoebic lung abscess is a result of direct spread of infection from liver to lung. The infection spreads directly through the diaphragm. The most common area of the lung involved is right lower lobe. The amoebic liver abscess ruptures and then it can involve any of the following structures. Right lung (Most commonly...
1
Direct extension from liver
Hematogenous spread
Lymphatic spread
By inhalation
Surgery
null
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single
The inguinal canal is NOT bounded posteriorly by -a) Transversalis fascia b) Internal oblique tendonc) Conjoint tendond) Lacunar ligament
Inguinal canal- Posterior wall formation -        Medial 2/3- Conjoint tendon and reflected part of inguinal ligament -        Whole- Fascia transversalis, extraperitoneal connective tissue, parietal peritoneum.
1
bd
ab
acd
bcd
Anatomy
null
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single
Single base pair substitution is related to which of the following?
The term RFLP (Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphisms) refers to single base pair substitutions in germ line DNA of different individuals that either destroys or creates new recognition site for a given restriction enzyme. PCR is used to amplify a specific region of a DNA strand (the DNA target). FISH is atechnique ...
1
RFLP
PCR
FISH
Southern blot
Biochemistry
null
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single
An investigator is studying a potential new antiarrhythmic. Eighty healthy test subjects are receiving various doses of the drug. Adverse effects and the drug’s pharmacokinetics are assessed Which of the following steps in the drug development process does this represent?
null
2
New drug application (NDA)
Phase I
Phase II
Phase Ill
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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A 45-year-old woman undergoes an uneventful laparoscopic cholecystectomy for which she receives 1 dose of cephalosporin. One week later, she returns to the emergency room with fever, nausea, and copious diarrhea and is suspected of having pseudomembranous colitis. She is afebrile and has no peritoneal signs on abdomina...
Treatment of C difficile colitis is metronidazole for firstline therapy and oral vancomycin as a second-tier agent. Recurrence appears in up to 20% of patients. Indications for surgical treatment are intractable disease, failure of medical therapy, toxic megacolon, and colonic perforation; surgical therapy consists of ...
4
Administration of an antidiarrheal agent
Exploratory laparotomy with left hemi-colectomy and colostomy
Exploratory laparotomy with subtotal abdominal colectomy and ileostomy
Administration of oral metronidazole
Anaesthesia
Preoperative assessment and monitoring in anaesthesia
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Antidote of choice for Belladonna poisoning -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Physostigmineo Antidote of choice for belladonna (atropa belladonna or atropine) poisoning - Physostigmine.PoisonAntidotesAcetominaphen (paracetamol)N-Acetyl cysteineNitrites, cyanidesAmyl nitrite + sodium nitrite + sodium thiosulphateOrganophosphates (anticholinesterase)Atropine and oximesDigoxinDizi...
3
Disulfiram
Atropine
Physostigmine
Flumazanil
Forensic Medicine
Forensic Toxicology - Concepts, Statutes, Evidence, and Techniques
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All of the following are true about amebic liver abscess except:
Ans. a. Trophozoites in stool are essential for clinical diagnosis
1
Trophozoites in stool are essential for clinical diagnosis
Mostly asymptomatic
More common in males than females
Rarely affects brain, eye and skin
Microbiology
null
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In superficial second degree burns, re-epithelialisation occurs around:
Characterstics of Superficial Second Degree Burns Involve upper layer of dermis ( Papillary dermis) Erythematous BLISTERS are seen Blanch on touch Painful Heals without scarring in 7-14 days
2
<1 week
2 weeks
3 weeks
4 weeks
Surgery
Burns
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A 20 years old nulliparous women is an oral contraceptives pills. She is currently diagnosed as having pulmonary tuberculosis. Which antituberculous drug decreases the effect of OCPs?
Because rifampin potently induces CYPs 1A2, 2C9, 2C19, and 3A4, its administration results in a decreased t1/2 for a number of compounds, including: HIV protease and non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors Digitoxin Digoxin Quinidine Disopyramide Mexiletine Tocainide Ketoconazole Propranolol Metoprolol Clofibra...
4
INH
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol
Rifampicin
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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Initial drug of choice in a child with status epilepticus
Prompt treatment with benzodiazepines is the first-line treatment of status epilepticus, but many patients will need additional treatment with additional medications including phenytoin, valproic acid, phenobarbital, or levetiracetam. The Neurocritical Care Society's guideline states that benzodiazepines remain the "em...
1
Lorazepam
Phenobarbitone
Valproate
Phenytoin
Pediatrics
Central Nervous system
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Marquios disease not seen is
Morquio syndrome is an inherited disease of metabolism in which the body is missing or doesn&;t have enough of a substance needed to break down long chains of sugar molecules called glycosaminoglycans (formerly called mucopolysaccharides).SymptomsAbnormal development of bones, including the spineBell-shaped chest with ...
2
Corneal opacity
Mental retardation
Stunted growth
Absent clavicle
Biochemistry
Metabolism of carbohydrate
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Corneal dystrophies are –a) Macularb) Granularc) Latticed) Moorense) Fuchs
Macular, granular and lattice dystrophies are stromal corneal dystrophies. Fuch's dystrophy is posterior (endothelial) corneal dystrophy.
4
bcde
abcd
acde
abce
Ophthalmology
null
7945820f-3d40-44d6-8968-1b422397529e
single
Leaving the capsule behind in cataract surgery is advantageous because it –a) Prevents cystoid macular edemab) Decreases endothelial damagec) Progressively improves visiond) Decreased chance of retinal detachmente) Decreased chance of endophthalmitis
First keep in your mind that any of the described complication can occur with either ICCE or ECCE. However, ECCE (leaving capsule behind) decreases the chances of many complications. Complications decreased by ECCE are :- Vitreous prolapse & loss Endophthalmitis      Cystoid macular edema Aphakic glaucoma        Fibr...
4
abcd
bcde
acde
abde
Ophthalmology
null
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Pointing index sign is seen in ---- nerve palsy -
Pointing index (oschner's clasp test) is seen in high median nerve palsy.
3
Ulnar
Radial
Median
Axillary
Orthopaedics
null
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Investigation of choice in upper GI bleeding is
"Upper endoscopy is the test of choice in patients with UGIB" "Whenever GI haemorrhage is thought to derive from a source proximal to the ligament of Treitz, or whenever the issue is in doubt, the first invasive diagnostic maneuvre should be upper GI flexible endoscopy. This technique has a diagnostic accuracy of appro...
3
Ba swallow
X-ray
Endoscopy
Ultrasound
Anatomy
G.I.T
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multi
Jack stone calculi is seen in which anatomic part -
null
4
Prostate
Kidney
Ureter
Bladder
Surgery
null
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A rapid method of chromosome identification in intersex is -
Ans is a. ie. FISH * The above-mentioned site writes about FISH- * "FISH can be used in interphase cells to determine the chromosome number of one or more chromosomes as well as to detect some specific chromosome rearrangements that are characteristic for certain cancers. The primary advantage of interphase FISH is tha...
1
FISH
PCR
SSCP
Karyotyping
Unknown
null
31abfa6a-9836-457e-9f3d-db319fc2e842
single
Which one of the following statements about EEG is true?
(A) Alpha rhythm is most marked at parieto-occipital area # Alpha Rhythm > In adult humans who are awake but at rest with the mind wandering and the eyes closed, the most prominent component of the EEG is fairly regular pattern of waves at a frequency of 8-12 Hz and an amplitude of 50-100 uV when recorded from the scal...
1
Alpha rhythm is most marked at parieto-occipital area
Beta rhythm is most marked at region below mastoid
In REM sleep, patient is awake
EPSP and IPSP of the cortical cells acting as dipoles
Physiology
Nervous System
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multi
The vasodilator involved in autoregulation of the coronary blood flow is:
NO and adenosine both fit as the probable candidates. However, single best response would be adenosine, and NO could be taken as the mediator of the adenosine action. As per the Berne's hypothesis: When myocardial O2 demand increases (as during increased hea rate) -> increased breakdown of ATP in the myocardial cells -...
3
NO
ACh
Adenosine
CO2
Physiology
Circulation
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single
Which one of the following enzymes provides a link between glycolysis and the citric acid cycle?
PDH complex consist of 3 Enzymes and 5 Coenzymes Three enzymes are: Pyruvate Dehydrogenase bound to Thiamin Diphosphate Dihydrolipoyl Transacetylase, the prosthetic group is oxidised Lipomide Dihydrolipoyl  Dehydrogenase, contains FAD. Coenzymes (very important) Thiamine Diphosphate (TDP) Lipomide Coenzyme A FAD NAD...
4
Lactate dehydrogenase
Pyruvate Kinase
Citrate synthase
Pyruvate dehydrogenase
Biochemistry
null
c41356f4-8a47-4f6b-be6b-7fe60bed1c9e
single
Most common cause of knock knee
null
3
Osteo-arthritis
Rheumatoid arthritis
Idiopathic
Trauma
Orthopaedics
null
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A 30-year-old male HIV positive on antiretroviral therapy has pain in right hip region. Flexion, abduction and external rotation deformity of right hip for 2 months, what is the most likely diagnosis?
(b) TB hip in HIVAVN hip in HIVIncidenceMore CommonLess CommonDeformityFABER-stage of synovitis may be prolonged on treatment, then subsequently with onset of arthritis - FADIRLimitation of abduction and internal rotation so initially position is adduction and external rotation (opposite to movements limited) and than ...
2
Avascular necrosis
TB hip
Transient synovitis
Septic arthritis
Orthopaedics
TB of the Hip, Knee, Other Joints
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A 32 year old male is diagnosed of having acute myeloid leukemia. His total WBC count was less than normal initially. Which of the following factor has a bad prognosis in AML?
Prognostic factors of acute myeloid leukemia (AML): Advancing age is associated with a poorer prognosis, in pa because of its influence on the patient's ability to survive induction therapy. The leukemic cells in elderly patients more commonly express the multidrug resistance 1 (MDR1) efflux pump that conveys resistanc...
1
Monosomies of chromosomes
Young age
Patients with t(15;17)
Low WBC count
Pathology
null
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All of these are true about GnRH analogues used in treatment of endometriosis , EXCEPT?
GnRH is given continuously to downregulate and suppress pituitary gonadotropins and cause atrophy of endometriotic tissue. The risk of osteoporosis increases after prolonged use as the estrogen mediated osteoblastic action stops while the estrogen independent osteoclast action continues Add back therapy is given to red...
2
Continuous administration causes downregulation of pituitary gonadotropins
The risk of osteoporosis decreases with prolonged use as the estrogen mediated osteoblastic action continues
Add back therapy includes estrogens
Discontinuation causes recurrence
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Endometriosis, Adenomyosis
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Final common metabolism of atracurium, mivacurium and succinylcholine are by:
Ans: c (Hydrolysis) Ref: KDT, 6 ed, p.25, 345; Harper 27 ed, p.96The final common pathway in the metabolism of all the three involves hydrolysis by an esterase.The cleavage of a drug molecule by taking up a water molecule; occurs in liver, intestine, plasma and other tissues.E.g.: choline esters, lignocaine, procaine, ...
3
Conjugation
Reduction
Hydrolysis
Acetylation
Pharmacology
Anaesthesia
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A 24 year old male presents with altered sensorium and rapid shallow breathing. ABG shows:pH 7.2, sodium 140, bicarbonate 10 and chloride 98. Probable diagnosis is -
usually happens because your body doesn't have enough insulin. Your cells can't use the sugar in your blood for energy, so they use fat for fuel instead. Burning fat makes acids called ketones and, if the process goes on for a while, they could build up in your blood. That excess can change the chemical balance of your...
2
Renal tubular acidosis
DKA
Ethylene glycol poisoning
Amphetamine toxicity
Medicine
Toxicology
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The Colposcopic features suggestive of malignancy are all except :
White epithelium
4
Condyloma
Vascular atypia
Punctation
White epithelium
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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multi
A 25-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with symptoms of nausea and vomiting of 2 days duration. She is not on any medications and was previously well until now. The physical examination is normal except for a postural drop in her blood pressure from 110/80 mm Hg supine to 90/80 mm Hg standing. Her ser...
Urea is filtered at the glomerulus, and thereafter, any movement in or out of tubules is a passive process depending on gradients, not secretion. Reabsorption of urea in the distal tubule and collecting duct, when urine flow is reduced, results in the disproportionate elevation of urea nitrogen over creatinine in prere...
4
potassium
sodium
bicarbonate
urea
Medicine
Oncology
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multi
Henoch Schnolein Purpura may rarely cause -
null
1
Intussuception
Volvulus
Atrial fibrillation
Hernia
Surgery
null
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All of the following are contrast radiographs except:
null
2
Arthrography
Tomography
Sialography
Arthrotomography
Radiology
null
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Definitive treatment of hypermagnesemia is?
Hemodialysis REF: Harrison's 17th ed chapter 346 HYPERMAGNESEMIA: TREATMENT Successful treatment of hypermagnesemia generally involves identifying and interrupting the source of magnesium and employing measures to increase magnesium clearance from the BCF. Use of magnesium-free cathaics or enemas may be helpful in clea...
3
Calcium gluconate
IV fluids
Hemodialysis
Exchange resins
Surgery
null
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Which of the following is not true of polymethylmethacrylate?
PMMA is a transparent resin of water-like clarity that is transparent to light in the visible and ultraviolet range down to a wavelength of 250 nm. It is a hard resin with a Knoop hardness number of 18 to 20 KHN. It has a tensile strength approximately 60 MPa, a density of 1.19 g/cm3 and a modulus of elasticity of appr...
4
Knoop hardness number 18 to 20
Tensile strength of 60 MPa
Density of 1.13 g/cm3
Modulus of elasticity of 3.4 GPa
Dental
null
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multi
Kaplan Meier method is used for -
null
1
Survival
Prevalence
Incidence
Frequency
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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Most common organism involving allograft transplant:
Ans. (c) VirusesRef: Bailey 26th edition, Page 1415* Most common infection in allograft transplant--Viral infection* Risk of infection is the greatest during first 6 months* Chemoprophylaxis is important for high-risk patients* Cytomegalovirus is a major problem* Most common malignancy after transplant: Post-transplant...
3
Bacteria
Fungi
Virus
Parasite
Surgery
Transplantation
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A young boy presents with dark patches with itching. On rubbing there is appearance of wheal. Diagnosis is -
Ans is 'b' i.e. Urticaria pigmentosa Urticaria pigmentosao Urticaria pigmentosa (also known as "Generalized eruption of cutaneous mastocytosis (childhood type)) is the most common form of cutaneous mastocytosiso Urticaria pigmentosa is most common in children. It can also occur in adultso Urticaria pigmentosa occurs wh...
2
Addison's disease
Urticaria pigmentosa
Chronic idiopathic urticaria
Erythema multiforme
Skin
Eosinophilic Dermatoses
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True about western blot:
A i.e. Separation of proteins are based on mass; B i.e. SDS-PAGE electrophesis is used for separation; C i.e. Enzyme linked antibodies are used
4
Separation of proteins are based on mass
SDS-PAGE electrophesis is used for separation
Enzyme linked antibodies are used
All
Medicine
null
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Adult polycystic kidney disease is-
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Autosomal dominant Summary of Renal cvstic disease InheritancePathologic featuresClinical features of ComplicationsTypical outcomeAdult polycystic kidney diseaseAutosomaldominantLarge multicystie kidneys, liver cysts, berry aneurysmsHematuria, flank, pain, urinary tract infection, renal stones, hypert...
1
Autosomal dominant
Autosomal recessive
X-linked
Mitochondria
Pathology
Chronic and Cystic Diseases
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Imiquimod is used in treatment of anogenital was acts mainly as:-
Topical immunomodulation with imiquimod 5% cream is used for treatment of: genital was superficial basal cell carcinoma actinic keratoses Acts on Toll-like receptor 7 (TLR-7). This is a cell surface receptor found on cells of monocyte lineage. Interaction of TLR-7 with ligands activates a signalling pathway, leading to...
3
Antifungal
Antiviral
Immunomodulator
Keratolytic
Dental
Viral infections
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The key enzyme in urea synthesis is -
Ans-B
2
Urease
Carbamoyl phosphate synthase-I
Arginase
Ornithine
Unknown
null
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single
Ovulation is presumed to have occurred if progesterone level is __________ on day 21
Ovulation can be safely assumed to have occurred if progesterone level exceeds 3 ng / mL on cycle day 21.
2
0.3 ng / mL
3 ng / mL
30 ng / mL
300ng / mL
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
30934853-dd57-4372-86ec-91a17451882c
single
A 37-year-old obese female presents with pain in her left wrist and abnormal sensations, numbness, burning and tingling in her left thumb, index, and middle fingers and some part of ring finger. The pain is severe and wakes her up at night. She works as a typist and pain increases with typing all day. Nerve conduction ...
Answer: b) Inability to oppose the thumb to other digits.Patient is suffering from "carpal tunnel syndrome".It is a medical condition in which the median nerve is compressed as it passes through the carpal tunnel deep to the flexor retinaculum at the wrist.The patient's occupation as typist may have predisposed the pat...
2
Atrophied adductor pollicis.
Inability to oppose the thumb to other digits.
Flattened hypothenar eminence
Paresthesia of thenar eminence
Orthopaedics
Peripheral Nerve Injuries
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Which of the following is a characteristic feature on culture of Streptococcus pneumoniae organism?
These findings are used to identify Streptococcus pneumoniae. Optochin sensitivity is used to differentiate the viridans streptococci (resistant) from S. pneumoniae (sensitive). Another test used to identify S. pneumoniae is the Quellung reaction. The only medically impoant optochin-sensitive organism that gives a posi...
1
Alpha-hemolytic colonies inhibited by optochin on blood agar and lysed by bile
Beta-hemolytic colonies that are bacitracin-resistant on blood agar
Beta-hemolytic colonies that are inhibited by bacitracin on blood agar
Catalase-negative organisms that hydrolyze esculin in 40% bile and 6.5% NaCI
Microbiology
null
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single
A person had an episode of dengue serotype 1, after 2 years with serotype 2. What will be effect of this episode?
Ans. b. Increased chances of DHFPATHOGENESIS OF DENGUE VIRUSPrimarily dengue infection occurs when a person is infected with dengue virus for the first time with any one serotype.Months to years later, a more severe form of dengue illness may appear (Called secondary dengue infection) due to infection with another seco...
2
Mild ds d/t neutralizing abs present
Increased chances of DHF
No chances of DHF
No effect on present illness
Medicine
Infection
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single
Insane paresis is associated with -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Syphilis General paresis of insane Is a form of neurosyphilis, peaks in incidence 10 to 20 years after untreated Treponemapalliduminfection.It often stas with subtle cognitive and emotional changes, such as problems with concentration and irritability, and, if untreated, can lead to memory loss, confa...
1
Syphilis
Leishmaniasis
Yellow fever
Nesseria meningitis
Pathology
null
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A two-month-old infant is brought to the hospital emergency with marked respiratory distress. On examination, the infant has cyanosis and bilateral crepitations. Hea rate is 180/min, respiratory rate 56/min and the liver span 7.5 cm. The child has had repeated episodes of fever, cough and respiratory distress since the...
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Transposition of great aeries
2
Congenital methemoglobinemia
Transposition of great aeries
Cystic fibrosis
Tetralogy of Fallot
Pediatrics
null
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multi
Facilitated diffusion is characterized by all except
This process is called passive transpo orfacilitated diffusion, and does not require energy. The solute can move "uphill," from regions of lower to higher concentration. This process is called active transpo, and requiressome form of chemical energy. Ref ganong's review of medical physiology 25e p102
3
Vmax
Competitive inhibition
Requires energy
Specificity
Physiology
All India exam
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multi
Which of the following is an enrichment media: September 2009
Ans. D: All of the above Culture media may be classified into several categories depending on their composition or use. A chemically-defined (synthetic) medium is one in which the exact chemical composition is known. A complex (undefined) medium is one in which the exact chemical constitution of the medium is not known...
4
Alkaline peptone water
Monsour's taurocholate Tellurite peptone water
Selenite F broth
All of the above
Microbiology
null
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multi
Which prostaglandin is used in NSAID induced ulcer?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Misoprostal o Misoprostol (PGE1 analogue) is used for prevention and treatment of NSAID induced ulcer, but DOC is PPI.
1
Misoprostol
Carboprost
Miazapine
Miprinone
Pharmacology
null
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multi
Which one of the following is not true regarding fibrolamellar carcinoma?
Unlike HCC, fibrolamellar Ca is not associated with HBV infection. Fibrolamellar carcinoma characteristically manifests as a large hepatic mass in adolescents or young adults. Most patients present in the 2nd or 3rd decade of life. Cirrhosis; elevated a-fetoprotein levels; and typical risk factors for hepatocellular ca...
3
Seen in young adults
Better prognosis than HCC
Associated with HBV infection
Elevated AFP is not seen
Medicine
null
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35 year old female diagnosed to have hyper thyroid disorder. Her thyroid follicle lined by
Normal thyroid follicle - simple cuboidal Hyper thyroid follicle - simple columnar Hypo thyroid follicle - simple cuboidal
1
Simple columnar
Simple squamous
Simple cuboidal
Ciliated columnar
Anatomy
Epithelial tissue
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Drugs used for treating schizophrenia are chiefly:March 2010
Ans. D: AntipsychoticAntipsychotics have been a mainstay of therapy for schizophrenia since the introduction of chlorpromazine in the mid-1950s, which revolutionized treatment.Atypical/second generation antipsychotic drugs, such as riseperidone, olanzapine, quetiapine. Aripiprazole, and ziprasidone, are more commonly u...
4
Antimaniac
Antidepressant
Antihistaminics
Antipsychotic
Psychiatry
null
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Most common glial tumor
Astrocytomas are the most common tumours among all other gliomas .....and in astrocytoma infiltrating type has an occurrence of 80 percent of all cases. REF : Robbins and cotrans , 9e , pg : 1306
2
Ependymomas
Astrocytoma
Meningioma
Neurofibroma
Pathology
Endocrinology
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The malunion of supracondylar fracture of the humerus most commonly leads to:
Ans. is 'b' i.e. Cubitus varus Repeat Q no. 146 Dec 1997Malunion is the most common complication of a supracondylar fracture and results in a cubitus varus deformity also k/a Gun stock deformity.Although cubitus varus is cosmetically unsightly, it does not have any significant functional disability, so it is corrected ...
2
Flexion deformity
Cubitus varus
Cubitus valgus
Extension deformity
Orthopaedics
Supracondylar Fracture
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A good indicator of the availability, utilization and effectiveness of health care services in a country is?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Infant moality rate o IMR is considered a sensitive index of health services as it reflects maternal care, perinatal care, child rearing practices, nutritional practices, and socioeconomic conditions in which people live as well as availability, effectiveness and utilization of health care services. "...
4
Maternal moality rate
Hospital bed occupancy rate
Infant moality rate
DALY's
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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Following are complications of chicken pox except
Chicken pox is caused by varicella zoster virus ,a DNA virus of Herpes virus family . It is present in respiratory secretions and skin lesions of an affected child . The poal of entry is the respiratory tract. Secondary bacterial infections of skin lesions is fairly common and occasionally result in necrotising fasciti...
3
Meningitis
Pneumonia
Enteritis
Reyes Syndrome
Pediatrics
Infectious disease
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multi
One day after a casual sexual encounter with a bisexual man recently diagnosed as antibody-positive for HIV, a patient is concerned about whether she may have become infected. A negative antibody titer is obtained. To test for seroconversion, when is the earliest you should reschedule repeat antibody testing after this...
Persons at high risk for infection by human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) include homosexuals, bisexual males, women having sex with a bisexual or homosexual paner, intravenous drug users, and hemophiliacs. Antibody titer usually becomes positive 6 to 12 weeks after exposure, Because of occasional delayed appearance of ...
3
1 to 2 weeks
16 to 20 weeks
6 to 12 weeks
12 to 15 weeks
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Genital Tract Infections (Too hot to handle!)
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when Va/Q is INFINITY , it means
V/Q IS INFINITY WHEN DEAD SPACE IS 0 REF : HARISSONS 21ST ED
2
The pO2 of alveolar air is 159mmHg and PCO2 is40mmHg
paial pressure of alveolar gas is same as deadspae
Paial pressure of O2 and CO2 are equal
ALL TH E ABOVE
Medicine
All India exam
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multi
Dose of levonorgestrel used for emergency contraception:-
Levonorgestrel is Doc for emergency contraception 0.75 mg tablets ( 2 tablets) 12 hrs apa. 1.5 mg tablet ( 1 tablet ) within 72 hrs. This is the only method of emergency contraception approved for use by Drug Controller of India Note:- IUCD - used up to 5th day after intercourse.
2
0.75 mg within 72 hours
1.5 mg within 72 hours
1.5 ug within 72 hours
3 ug within 72 hours
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Contraceptives
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pANCA positive vasculitis is
Answer- b. Churg - Strauss syndromePANCATypically found in:MicroscopicpolyangiitisChurg-StrausssyndromeIdiopathiccrescenticglomerulonephritisGoodpasteur'ssyndrome.pANCA's are also associated with ceain non-vasculitic entities such as ceain rheumatic and nonrheumatic autoimmune diseases, Inflammatory bowel diseases, cea...
2
Wegener's granulomatosis
Churg - Strauss syndrome
Polyaeritis nodosa
All of the above
Medicine
null
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Earliest feature in Multiple sclerosis is -
null
1
Optic neuritis
Inter nuclear ophthalmologia
Ataxia
Weakness
Medicine
null
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Who proposed the nasal septum "theory of craniofacial growth"?
null
4
Mass
Sicher
Vander Linden
Latham
Dental
null
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single
Transmission of HIV infection from infected mother to child occurs most commonly during -
Ans. is 'c' i.e.. During labour
3
Antenatal stage
Before delivery
Duringlabour
During lactation
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Infectious Diseases
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The position adopted for tonsillectomy is also adopted for this procedure. -
The position of a patient during tonsillectomy is Rose's position, i.e. patient lies supine with head extended by placing a pillow under the shoulder. Rose's position is used in the ENT for : Tonsillectomy, Adenoidectomy, Tracheostomy.
3
Direct laryngoscopy
Bronchoscopy
Tracheostomy
Indirect laryngoscopy
ENT
null
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Ectopia lends is a feature of:
Ans. d (All of the above)CAUSES OF LENS DISLOCATIONDiseases that can be associated with subluxation or dislocation of the lens# Sharp and in particular blunt injuries (globe contusion)# Metabolic disorders- Marfan syndrome- Homocystinuria- Weil-Marchesani syndrome- Hyperlysinemia- Sulfite oxidase deficiency- Ehlers-Dan...
4
Marfan's syndrome
Homocystinuria
Weil-marchisani syndrome
All of the above
Ophthalmology
Lens
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Onset of post spinal headache is usually at___ hours after spinal anesthesia
Post spinal headache or post dural puncture headache has onset usually on second or third day post procedure. It is an occipital type of headache, aggravated on sitting and relieved in recumbent position
3
0-6
12-Jun
Dec-72
72-96
Anaesthesia
Regional anaesthesia
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multi
Indira Gandhi Matritva Sahyog Yojana is for ?
Ans. is d i.e., > 19 years old o The Indira Gandhi Matritva Sahyog Yojana (IGMSY) is a flagship program of the government of India introduced in 2010 under the Ministry of Women and Child Development. o It is a conditional cash transfer scheme that targets pregnant and lactating women 19 years of age and older who have...
4
> 65 years old
> 50 years old
> 30 years old
> 19 years old
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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single
All of the following may be causes of precocious puberty in girls except –
Congenital 21 hydroxylase deficiency causes precocious puberty in male due to excess of androgens. In female, it results in virilization.
4
Hypothalamic harnartoma
Mc Cuone Albright syndrome
Granulosa cell tumor of human ovary
Congential 21–α hydroxylase deficiency
Pediatrics
null
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multi
Phencyclidine is also known by all except
Phencyclidine - other names - Cadillac, Peace pill, Rocket fuel, Hog, Goon, Angel dust, Super grass - It is used as psychedelic and hallucinogen. - LSD - White lightening - Phencyclidine also causes Dissociative Anaesthesia.
4
Cadillac
Peace pill
Rocket fuel
White lightning
Forensic Medicine
Toxicology - 1
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Death caused by exclusion of air from the lungs by means other than compression at neck and drowning.
Suffocation literally means to die as a result of not being able to breath or to have difficulty in breathing. Deprivation of oxygen can be by one of the following ways. By lack of oxygen in the atmosphere, so called environmental suffocation. From obstruction of air passages by means other than Compression of neck and...
1
Suffocation
Strangulation
Traumatic asphyxia
Sexual asphyxia
Forensic Medicine
Asphyxia
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Which of the following is classified under Grade II acute cholecystitis according to the Tokyo Consensus Guidelines?
Tokyo Consensus Guidelines for severity grading of acute cholecystitis: Grade I (mild) acute cholecystitis Acute cholecystitis in a healthy person with no organ dysfunction and mild inflammatory changes in the gallbladder Grade II (moderate) acute cholecystitis Associated with any one of the following:1. Elevated WBC c...
4
Presence of multiorgan dysfunction
WBC count > 11000/mm3
Mild local inflammation
Duration of complaints >72 hours
Surgery
Gallbladder
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Not true about Fuch's corneal dystrophy -
Fuchs dystrophy is frequently seen as a slowly progressive bilateral condition affecting females more than males, usually between fifth and seventh decade of life. Primary open angle glaucoma is its common association.Reference:Comprehensive ophthalmology,AK Khurana,4th edition,page no.118
3
Glaucoma is its common association
Endothelial dystrophy
Unilateral condition
Occurs in old age
Ophthalmology
Cornea and sclera
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multi
A lesion of the optic radiation involving the Meyer's loop causes -
Meyer's loops are the inferior most fibres of optic radiation. Damage to inferior fibres cause superior quadrantanopia.
2
Homonymus hemianiopia
Superior quadrantanopia
Inferior quadrantanopia
Central scotoma.
Ophthalmology
null
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single
300 diseased people were made to undergo a test of which only 60 were positive. 40 people were found to be false positive for the test. The positive predictive value of the test is:
Ans: b (60/100)Ref: Park, 20th ed. Pg. 126 19 ed., Pg. 119Screening test resultsDiagnosisTotalDiseasedNot diseasedPositiveNegativea (True positive)c (False negative)b (False positive)d (True negative)a+bc+dTotala+cb+da+b+c+dSensitivity = a/ (a+c) x 1 (X)Specificity = d/ (b+d) x 1 (M)Predictive value of positive test= a...
2
40/100
60/100
40/300
240/300
Social & Preventive Medicine
Biostatistics
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multi
Barrette's oesophagus is diagnosed by
(B) Intestinal metaplasia # Barrett's esophagus is a serious complication of GERD.> In Barrett's esophagus, normal tissue lining the esophagus changes to tissue that resembles the lining of the intestine(columnar epithelium).> Barrett's esophagus is marked by the presence of columnar epithelia in the lower esophagus, r...
2
Squamous metaplasia
Intestinal metaplasia
Squamous dysplasia
Intestinal dysplasia
Pathology
Misc.
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A 50-year-old HIV seropositive male presented to the ER with multiple episodes of generalized tonic-clonic seizures. Patient is not on HAA. CD4 count was done and it was 45/ microL. O/E, Mildly arousable Disoriented No nuchal rigidity or focal neurological deficits Gadolinium enhanced MRI and MR spectroscopy were condu...
This is a case of cerebral toxoplasmosis in the setting of HIV-AIDS. MRI shows a number of lesions in the brain parenchyma with surrounding edema - suggestive of toxoplasmosis. Increased lipid peak and decreased choline peak on spectroscopy differentiates it from primary CNS lymphoma. Patients of HIV with CD4 count < 1...
3
Caspofungin
Streptokinase
Pyrimethamine + Sulphadiazine
Voriconazole
Unknown
Integrated QBank
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The recent treatment of short bridle passable stricture of urethra in the penile and bulbous urethra is-
Campbell says “The data show that strictures at the bulbous urethra that are < 1.5 cm in length and not associated with dense, deep spongiofibrosis (i.e. straddle injuries) can be managed with internal urethrotomy, with a 74% moderately long-term success rate.” • Internal urethrotomy refers to any procedure that opens ...
2
Internal urethrotomy with Thompson-Walker's urethrotome
Optical internal urethrotomy
Syme's operation
Wheelhouse operation
Surgery
null
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single
Passavant ridge is formed by:
Some fibres of the palatopharyngeus muscle (arising from palatine aponeurosis) sweep horizontally backwards and join the upper fibres of the superior constrictor muscle to form a U-shaped muscle-loop in the posterior pharyngeal wall underneath the mucosa, which is pulled forward during swallowing to form the Passavant ...
2
Tensor veli palati and superior constrictor
Palatopharyngeus and superior constrictor
Palatopharyngeus and inferior constrictor
Palatoglossus and superior constrictor
Anatomy
null
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single
Which of the following structures develops from all the three germ layers?
null
3
Soft Palate
Mitral valve
Tympanic membrane
Tooth
Anatomy
null
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multi
An 8-yr old boy presents witha gadually progessing swelling and pain since 6 months over the upper tibia. On X-ray there is alytic lesion with scleotic margins in the upper tibial metaphysis. The diagnosis is
Lytic lesions with sclerotic margins in the upper end of tibia in an 8 yr old boy suggests the diagnosis of Brodie&;s abscess. lytic lesions with sclerotic margins are seen in: simple bone cyst brodie&;s abscess osteoblastoma chondroblastoma. ref : maheswari 9th ed
3
Osteogenic carcinoma
Osteoclastoma
Brodie's abscess
Ewing's sarcoma
Anatomy
Skeletal infections
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Treatment of paracetamol toxicity is
Ans. is 'd' i.e., N - acetyl cysteine Paracetamol poisoning* It is a potent hepatic toxin. A small part is converted by a liver enzyme into N - acetyl-p-benzoquinoneimine.* Glutathione and other sulphydryl compounds detoxify this substance, but in overdose NABP accumulates and causes severe centrilobular liver necrosis...
4
Alkaline diuresis
Hemoperfiision
Dialysis
N - acetyl cysteine
Forensic Medicine
Toxicology
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single
Laryngospasm under anaesthesia can be relieved by:
Suxamethonium is depolarizing relaxant, used to revert the spasm under anaesthesia.
4
Aminophylline
Salbutamol
Terbutaline
Succinylcholine
Unknown
null
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single
Bisecting angle technique is based upon?
The bisecting-angle technique is based on a simple geometric theorem, Cieszynski’s rule of isometry, which states that two triangles are equal when they share one complete side and have two equal angles. Dental radiography applies the theorem as follows. The receptor is positioned as close as possible to the lingual su...
3
Mara principle
SLOB rule
Rule of isometry
Convergence
Radiology
null
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single
Postpaum tubectomy in a hea disease patient is done at
Sterilization should be considered with the completion of the family at the end of first week in the puerperium under local anaesthesia throught abdominal route by minilap technique. If the hea is not well compensated the husband advised for vasectomy.
2
48 hours
1 week
2 weeks
Immediately
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Medical, surgical and gynaecological illness complicating pregnancy
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Liver synthesises all except
Immunoglobulins are synthesized by the B-lymphocytes.
4
C3 complement component
Haptoglobin
Fibrinogen
Immunoglobulin
Physiology
Gastrointestinal System
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Hereditory spherocytosis is due to deficiency of-
HS is caused by diverse mutations that lead to an insufficiency of membrane skeletal components. The pathogenic mutations most commonly affects ankyrin, band 3, spectrin, or band 4.2. Ref :Robbins pathologic basis of disease ; south east asia edition ;pg:633
1
Ankyrin
Actin
Selectin
Integrin
Pathology
Haematology
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single
How many incisions are used in the divided system approach of pars planavitrectomy?
It has the advantage of smaller instruments,easy handling,improved visualisation REF:khurana,pg no 261
3
1
2
3
4
Ophthalmology
Miscellaneous
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Commonest dislocation of elbow -
Ans. is 'b' i.e.. Posterior o The elbow dislocation is nearly always poserior or posterolateral.o In posterior elbow dislocation, elbow is flexed with exaggerated prominence of the olecranon.Dislocation of elbowo Dislocation of the elbow is usually caused by a heavy fall onto the outstretched hand.o The dislocation is ...
2
Anterior
Posterior
Both same
Medial
Orthopaedics
Dislocation of Elbow Joint
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multi
Branching posterior spoke like cataracts (Propeller) are seen in:
Ans. Fabry's disease
2
Down's syndrome
Fabry's disease
Neuro fibromatosis
Atopic keratoconjunctivitis
Ophthalmology
null
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All of the following drugs are non-selective Beta blockers EXCEPT:
Non-selective beta blocker are propranolol, sotalol, timolol. Non-selective beta blockers with additional alpha blocking propey are labetalol and carvedilol. From essential of medical pharmacology K D Tripati 7th edition page no 144
4
Propanolol
Timolol
Sotalol
Carvedilol
Pharmacology
Autonomic nervous system
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which of the following SNRI used in the management of stress urinary incontinence
SNRI * IMPOANCE Dual antidepressant like TCA but better than TCA has it has no dryness of mouth, hypotension, sedation * MECHANISM Inhibits the reuptake of both serotonin and dopamine * DRUGS VENLEFEXINE DESVENLEFEXINE DULOXETINE * USE Duloxetine===PAIN ASSOSIATED WITH DIABTIC NEUROPATHY and STRESS URINARY INCONTINENCE...
4
brofromine
citalopram
nefazodone
duloxetine
Psychiatry
Pharmacotherapy in psychiatry
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