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Increased permeability in acute inflammation is due to all except ?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Lytic enzymes
3
Cell contraction
Endothelial injury
Lytic enzymes
Cytokines
Pathology
null
0dd81dbc-1265-491f-87a0-89438e1cd7e0
multi
Shoest incubation period is seen with
Influenza has an incubation period of 18 to 72 hours Incubation period of :- Hepatitis A : 10 to 50 days Hepatitis B : 30 to 180 days Rubella : 2 to 3 weeks Ref : Park&;s Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine; 23rd edition
1
Influenza
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis A
Rubella
Social & Preventive Medicine
Communicable diseases
04f211c9-553b-4414-8d87-7efcc96cfce4
single
Pulsus paradoxus is seen in-
* Pulsus paradoxus describes an exaggeration of the normal variation in systolic aerial blood pressure seen with respiration (normally falls by <10 mm on inspiration). * It is seen in the presence of- Airway obstruction. - Pericardial tamponade. - Massive pulmonary embolism. * Some conditions associated with pulsus paradoxus are - Constrictive pericarditis, -Restrictive cardiomyopathy, - Cardiac tamponade.
3
Shock
Elderly
Emphysema/Asthma
High output state
Surgery
null
6f6e2bab-f320-4f43-9ada-1ddfc7bab41a
single
Which of the following is not a structural gene of HIV -
tat is a nonstructural and regulatory gene of HIV REF:ANANTHANARAYANAN TEXT BOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9EDITION PGNO.572
4
Gag
Polio
ENV
Tat
Microbiology
Virology
680e3f51-1011-4e03-ba4a-fa4dfb29b932
single
PAH is used to measure-
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Renal plasma flow * Imagine a substance that not only passes freely across the glomerular membrane but is also secreted by the tubules to such an extent that the plasma leaving the kidney does not contain that substance any more. In that case the entire plasma flowing through the kidney would be cleared of the subsance. Or, in other words, the clearance of the substance would give us the renal plasma flow (RPF). A substance which closely satisfies this description is para-aminohipporic acid (PAH). Therefore, PAH is used t o measure renal plasma flow.* The PAH clearance in a normal adult is about 625 ml/minute. This is a measure of effective renal plasma flow (ERPF). PAH is only 90% excreted in the urine in a single passage through the kidney, i.e., its extraction ratio is 0.9 (90%). Therefore, PAH understimates RPF by about 10% because it does not measure the plasma flowing through those portions of the kidney which do not secrete PAH, the renal medulla, perirenal fat, renal capsule, pelvis and calyces. Thus actual RPF is 10% more than ERPF i.e., 690 ml/min.Knowing RPF and hematocrit (RBCs), renal blood flow can be calculated.* In simple words, clearance of PAH is a measure of effective renal plasma flow and actual renal plasma flow is 10% more than the PAH renal clearance (or ERPF).
3
Extracellular fluid
Glomerular filtration rate
Renal plasma flow
Plasma value
Physiology
Kidneys and Body Fluids
5dd266cd-fedc-4a4a-aaab-805c4881bbf4
single
Presence of which of the following in the urine is diagnostic of glomerular injury-
Glomerular injury is characterised by the presence of RBC casts & dysmorphic erythrocytes in urine microscopy. Ref Harrison20th edition pg 292
2
Bright red cells
20% dysmorphic RBC's
100RBC per high power field
Beta 2 micro globulin
Medicine
Kidney
6e071360-322b-48f6-9d8f-d8b4302d044b
single
Thrombocytopenia, macerated skin lesions, rash and periostitis in a new born are seen in
In Syphilis, thrombocytopenia is often associated with platelet trapping in an enlarged spleen. Characteristic osteochondritis and periostitis and a mucocutaneous rash manifesting with erythematous maculopapular or vesiculobullous lesions followed by desquamation involving hands and feet are common. Reference : Nelson textbook of pediatrics 19th edition Page 1017 & 1018
3
Erythroblastosis fetalis
Cytomegalovirils infection
Syphilis
HIV infection
Pediatrics
Infectious disease
77087998-31ef-40cd-a18f-a1c8f301c0e0
single
In a high copper amalgam, the phase which is eliminated is:
A reaction between Cu3 Sn (ε phase) and γ2 occurs and yields Cu6Sn5  (η phase). Because of the low copper content, a majority of γ2 remains. The addition of more than 6% of copper by weight can reduce or eliminate the γ2 phase by the formation of Cu-Sn phase. Reference: PHILLIPS’ SCIENCE OF DENTAL MATERIALS, 12th ed page no 344
2
Gamma 1
Gamma 2
Gamma 1 and 2
No phase is eliminated
Dental
null
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single
Analysis of visual detail occurs in which secondary visual area?
Visual information from the primary visual coex (Brodmann's area 17) is relayed to Brodmann's area 18 and then into other areas of the cerebral coex for fuher processing. Analysis of three-dimensional position, gross form, and motion of objects occurs in the posterior midtemporal area and occipitoparietal coex. Analysis of visual detail and color occurs in the inferior ventral and medial regions of the occipital and temporal coex.
2
Brodmann's area 18
Inferior ventral and medial regions of the occipital and temporal coex
Frontal lobe
Occipitoparietal coex
Physiology
Special Senses
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single
Dominant cell type in grey hepatization stage of community acquired pneumonia is
In the third phase grey hepatisation, no new erythrocytes are extravasating, and those already present have been lysed and degraded.  The neutrophil is the predominant cell, fibrin deposition is abundant, and bacteria have disappeared. This phase corresponds with successful containment of the infection and improvement in gas exchange.
2
Eosinophils
Neutrophils
Macrophages
Monocytes
Medicine
null
1458ec75-7090-4681-a33f-e353c835d448
single
A patient with diarrhea has a fecal smear that is negative for leukocytes. The patient&;s diarrhea is most likely caused by
The enterotoxigenic strain of Escherichia coli secretes a heat-labile toxin that stimulates adenylate cyclase, producing a cholera-like syndrome that is responsible for the majority of cases of traveler's diarrhea. Because the bowel mucosa is not invaded and there is no toxin-induced damage, the fecal smear is negative for leukocytes. Campylobacter enteritis, shigellosis, typhoid fever, and amebiasis are all invasive, and infected individuals have stools with inflammatory cells. Typhoid fever is unique because the inflammatory cells are not neutrophils, but mononuclear cells. Ref - Harrison's internal medicine 20e pg 1150t,1152-1153
4
Campylobacter enteritis
Shigellosis
Typhoid fever
Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli
Medicine
Infection
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Death of Poliomyelitis is due to -
Moality rate in 5-10% & is due to respiratory failure<\p> REF:MICROBIOLOGY ANANTHA NARAYANAN NINTH EDITION PAGE.487
4
Infection
Neurogenic shock
Cardiac failur
Respiratory paralysis
Microbiology
Virology
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single
The following condition of GB is precancerous
Porcelain gallbladder is the pattern when the gallbladder wall is calcified and cracks like an egg-shell. Porcelain gallbladdder is paicularly likely to become cancerous. Risk factors for ca gallbladder includes: 1. Gallstones 2. Genetic factors. 3.carcinogen in bile acids 4.calcificatiin of gall bladder (porcelain gallbladder) 5.GI disorders like ulcerative colitis and polyposis syndrome. TEXTBOOK OF PATHOLOGY 6TH EDITION HARSH MOHAN PAGE NO:642,643
2
Cholesterosis
Porcelain gall bladder
Biliary atresia
Choledochal cyst
Pathology
G.I.T
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multi
A patient with acute viral hepatitis should undergo the following tests except?
For Acute Viral hepatitis patient should evaluable for Hep A Hep B Hep C IgM anti HAV lgM anti HBcAg Anti-HCV antibody *If Hep A, B, C is negative then it is Hep D Impoant Diagnostic Test in Common Liver Disease DISEASE DIAGNOSTIC TEST Hepatitis A Anti-HAV IgM Hepatitis B Acute Chronic HBsAg and anti-HBc IgM HBsAg and HBeAg and/or HBV DNA Hepatitis C Anti-HCV and HCV RNA Hepatitis D (delta) Anti-HDV Hepatitis E Anti-HEV IgM and HEV RNA
4
IgM- anti HAV
IgM- anti- HBcAg
Anti-HCV antibody
Anti- HDV antibody
Medicine
Hepatitis
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multi
All symptoms are included in diagnostic criteria of major depression, except-
Ans- D
4
Indecisiveness
Insomnia
Poor concentration
None of the above
Psychiatry
Major Depression
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multi
Anti-A, anti-B, antibody appear in child -
Ans. is 'd' i.e.. After 6 months o litre of anti-A and anti-B antibodies is almost zero immedietly after birth.o Infants start producing anti-A and anti-B antibodies at age of 2-8 month when corresponding antigen is not present in cell.o Maximum titre rech at 8 to 10 years of age after that it started declinning.
4
Just after birth
1 week after
6 week after
After 6 months
Pediatrics
Blood Disorders
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Drug of choice in Acute central anticholinergic syndrome is -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Physostigmine Physostigmine penetrates blood-brain barrier and antagonizes both central and peripheral actions of anticholinergics in acute anticholinergic poisoning (belladonna poisoning). About other options o Neostigmine does not cross blood brain barrier. Thus it is ineffective for central anticholinergic actions. o Tacrine is used for chronic central anti-cholinergic syndrome (Alzhiemer's disease).
2
Neostigmine
Physostigmine
Tacrine
4-amino pyridine
Pharmacology
null
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single
Apparent volume of distribution of a drug exceeds total body fluid volume, if a drug is -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Sequestrated in body tissues o Drug may have volume of distribution for in excess of total body water if it is sequestered in other tissues because most of the drug is present in tissues and plasma concentration is low.
1
Sequestrated in body tissues
Slowly eliminated from body
Poorly soluble in plasma
Poorly bound to plasma protein
Pharmacology
null
13780ba3-12ad-4419-9efa-aa5b3905bc0b
single
Abnormal a-fetoprotein is seen in
Answer is D (All of the above) All conditions mentioned in options are associated with abnormal Alpha fetoprotein levels. Open Neural tube defects and multiple gestations (twin pregnancy) are associated with elevated alpha protein levels Chromosomal trisomies (trisomy 18) show decreased alphaprotein levels.
4
Trisomy 18
Twin pregnancy
Neural tube defect
All of the above
Medicine
null
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multi
The true statement regarding supracondylar fracture of the humerus in children?
There are two potential problem with close reduction and cast management of fracture supracondylar humerus. The first is loss of reduction and 2nd is increased swelling and potential development of compament syndrome, secondary to immobilization with the elbow in flexion. That's why admission to hospital is essential following reduction. Ref: Tachdjian's Pediatric Ohopedics 3/e, Page 2130-75, 2060; Rockwood and Green's Fracture in Children 6/e, Page 543-86.
1
Admission to hospital is essential following reduction
It is due to fall on the point of the elbow
It require open reduction
It is usually compound
Surgery
null
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multi
Pelvic splanchnic nerve is formed by :
D. i.e. Ventral/ Anterior rami of Sz, S3, S4Parasympathetic supply of gastrointestinal tract from pharynx upto midgut (or proximal 2/3 transverse colon) is supplied by vagus nerve and parasympathetic supply of hindgut (i.e. distal 1/3 transverse colon onwards) is by pelvic splanchnic nerve.Vermiform appendix is derived from midgut and is supplied by vagus nerve (parasympathetic) and T9 -- Tip nerves through celiac plexus (sympathetic)Q.
4
Pelvic splanchnic nerve is formed by :
Posterior rami of S2-S3 S4
Anterior rami of L5 SI S2
Anterior rami of S2 Si S4
Anatomy
null
5d1998c6-c19e-4a6f-8356-d0f2b652f51c
single
Which of the following is not used as vector in genetics?
VECTORS : The gene is trasferred to acarrier ,known as a vector.Most commonly used vectors are plasmids.Plasmids are circular double -stranded DNA molecuels seen inside bacteria. Different vector systems used for gene delivery are : Retro viruses , Adenoviruses , Adeno associated viralvectors and Herpes simplex virruses.Non -virus systems include Liposomes , Plasmids and physical methods. Proteosomes are protein complexes which degrade unneeded or damaged proteins by proteolysis , a chemical reaction that breaks petide bonds.Enzymes that help such reactions are called proteolysis. REF :DM VASUDEVAN TEXTBOOK ,7th EDITION , Page no :629.
2
Adeno virus
Proteosome
Liposome
Retrovirus
Biochemistry
Metabolism of nucleic acids
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single
Murmur increasing with valsalva maneouvre aEUR'
HOCM EFFECT OF VARIOUS INTERVENTIONS ON SYSTOLIC MURMURS
2
Mitral stenosis
HOCM
VSD
Aoic stenosis
Surgery
null
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single
Ring scotoma is seen in :
The hallmark symptoms of retinitis pigmentosa are night blindness (nyctalopia) and gradually progressive peripheral visual field loss as a result of increasing and coalescing ring scotomas. The most characteristic fundoscopic findings are attenuated retinal aerioles, waxy pale optic disk, mottling of the retinal pigment epithelium, and peripheral retinal pigment clumping, referred to as "bone-spicule formation. Ref : Fletcher E.C., Chong N., Augsburger J.J., Correa Z.M. (2011). Chapter 10. Retina. In P. Riordan-Eva, E.T. Cunningham, Jr. (Eds), Vaughan & Asbury's General Ophthalmology, 18e.
4
Papilledema
Macular edema
CRAO
Retinitis pigmentosa
Ophthalmology
null
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single
Flap commonly used in breast reconstruction is?
Ans. is 'b' i.e. TRAM
2
Serratus anterior
TRAM
Flap from arm
Delto pectoral flap
Surgery
null
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single
In transvaginal ultrasound, earliest detection of gestation sac is by :
Ans. is d i.e. 14 days after ovulation The first definitive sonographic finding to suggest early pregnancy is visualization of the gestational sac. Using transvaginal transducers with frequency of 5 MHz, the size threshold for sac detection is 2 - 3 mm, corresponding to 4 weeks + 1 day gestational age to 4 weeks + 3 days gestational age." To understand how many days after ovulation, you should first understand that gestational age is calculated from 1st day of last menstrual period. As is evident from above diagram gestational sac is visualised approximately 15-17 days after ovulation (or within 1-3 days of missed period) but since it is not given in options so the nearest possible answer is 14 days after ovulation.
4
21 days after ovulation
21 days after implantation
28 days post ovulation
14 days after ovulation
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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Human brain is more intelligent than monkey's brain due to:
A i.e. Larger brain The propoion of the various pas of the brain are similar in the brains of apes and human, but the human brain is largerQ, so the absolute size of the association area is greaterQ.* Brain size: Human >Chimpanzee > MonkeyQ.Weight of Human brain=1400 gm and Monkey brain = 100gmAssociation AreasAssociation areas: are pa of six- layered neocoical mantle of gray matter that spreads over the lateral surfaces of cerebral hemisphere from concentric allocoical & juxta coical rings around the hilum. The most prominent gross feature of the human brain is immense growth of three major association areasQ.i) Frontal in front of premotor areaii) Parietal temporal occipital - b/w somatesthetic & visual coex extending into posterior poion of temporal lobe.iii) Temporal - from the lower poion of temporal lobe to limbic system. Speech & other intellectual function are controlled by neocoex.The ratio b/w brain weight and body weight is more impoant than size of the brain as three species have brains larger than humans (the whale, elephant & porpoise)The right to left differentiation is seen in chimpanzee and human. In humans left brain > Right brain
1
Larger brain
Increased convulations
Increased brain area compared to body surface area
More blood supply
Physiology
null
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single
The Finnish type of congenital nephrotic syndrome occurs due to gene mutations the following protein:
Answer is C (Nephrin):"A mutation in the Nephrin gene causes a hereditary form of congenital Nephrotic syndrome (Finnish type) with minimal change glomerular morphology"- Nephrin is a key component of the slit diaphragmIt is a zipper like structure between podocyte foot processes that might control glomerular permeabilityThe Nephrin gene maps to chromosome 19q 13 and is termed as NPHSI.Several type of Mutations of the NPHSI gene have been identified and they give rise to congenital nephritic syndrome of the Finnish type.Podocin' has also been recognized as a component of the slit diaphragmPodocin is encoded by a gene termed as NPHS 2 and maps to chromosome.Mutation in the podocin gene or NPHS2 lead to an autosomal recessive form of focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
3
Podocin
Alpha - actinin
Nephrin
CD2 activated protein
Medicine
null
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single
A new born presents with deepening cyanosis at bih, with congestive hea failure and normal first hea sound. X-ray reveals cardiomegaly diagnosis is -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Transposition of great vessels
3
Tetralogy of fallot's
Ebstein anomally
Transposition of great vessels
Tricuspid atresia
Pediatrics
null
8892c22b-7aca-4e2d-a3f7-7ca720b9808c
multi
Distal end of humerous develops from how many centres ?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., 4Pa of humerus OssificationShaft One primary centerUpper end Three secondary centers ?One for head (appears in 1" year).One for greater tubercle (appears in 2ndeg year).One for lesser tubercle (appears in 5th year).This three centers fuses together during 6th year and finally with shaft during 20th year.Lower end Four secondary centersOne for capitulum & lateral flange of trochlea (19t year).One for medial flange of trachlea (9th year).One for lateral epicondyle (12th year).These three fuse during 14th year to form one epiphysis which fuses with shaft at 16 years.One for medial epicondyle (4-6 years), which separately fuses with shaft during 20th year.
4
2
5
3
4
Anatomy
null
88bc2ef9-e7ff-4257-9ba1-12b8a8f1ec4e
single
Maximum coverage to distribute forces over a wide area
null
1
Snows shoe effect
Bezold-Brucke effect
Realeff effect
Spectral curve
Dental
null
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single
Transpo of neutral substances across the cell membrane occurs
D i.e. DiffusionTranspo simple passive diffusion is oured by small size, lipid solubility (hydrophobicity) absence of charge (neutrality), and absence of polarity (nonpolar nature)Q.
4
Porins
Lonophore
Lipopolysaccharides
Diffusion
Physiology
null
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single
Which of the following is inherited as autosomal recessive form?
Autosomal Recessive Inheritance Cystic fibrosis Phenylketonuria Tay-Sachs disease Severe combined immunodeficiency a- and b-Thalassemias Sickle cell anemia Autosomal Dominant Inheritance Familial hypercholesterolemia Marfan syndrome Ehlers-Danlos syndrome Hereditary spherocytosis Neurofibromatosis, type 1 Adult polycystic kidney disease (Robbins Basic Pathology, 9 th edition. page :219 )
1
Sickle cell anemia
Hemophilia
Hereditary spherocytosis
Glucose 6-P04 dehydrogenase deficiency
Pathology
General pathology
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single
Most common cause of Bronchiolitis is:
a. RSV(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2044-2047, Ghai 8/e p 381-382Acute bronchiolitisIt is predominantly a viral disease and RSV is responsible for more than 50% of casesOther agents include parainfluenza, adenovirus, rhinovirus, Mycoplasma, human metapneumovirus and bocavirus.
1
RSV
Adenovirus
Hospitalize and treat
Mycoplasma
Pediatrics
Respiratory System
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single
Red cell aplasia caused by:
(Chloramphenicol): Ref: 675-KDT (717-KDT 6th)* Chloramphenicol is the most important cause of aplastic anameia, agranulocytosis, thrombocytopenia or pancytopenia* PURE RED CELL APLASIA: (480-CMDT-06)Associated with -1. SLE, CLL, Lymphomas or thymoma2. Drugs - chloramphenicol, phenytoin3. Parvovirus infections* Most cases the treatment of choice is immunosuppressive therapy with a combination of antithymocyte globulin and cyclosporine (or tacrolimus)
2
Aminoglycosides
Chloramphenicol
Penicilline
Ciprofloxacin
Pharmacology
Anti Microbial
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single
Which of the following medications is contraindicated in patients with allergy to sulphonamides?
Acetazolamide, Dorzolamide and Brinzolamide are sulfonamide derivatives which act by inhibiting carbonic anhydrase (carbonic anhydrase inhibitor). Being sulphonamide derivatives they are contraindicated in patients with allergy to sulphonamides. Ref: Essentials of Pharmacology By K D Tripathi, 5th Edition, Pages 188, 553; Medicinal Chemistry By Sriram, Page 227.
3
Levobunolol
Bimatoprost
Brinzolamide
Brimonidine
Pharmacology
null
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multi
Adenosine deaminase in CSF is significantly higher in -
null
1
Tuberculosis meningitis
Bacterial meningitis
Viral meningitis
Syphilitic meningitis
Medicine
null
5a60fa78-ab64-4c05-bd35-13e7090cd81e
single
Drug which produces Steven Johnson's syndrome in HIV infected individuals is:
Thiacetazone (Tzn, Amithiozone) Thiacetazone was found to be the best out of many derivatives. It was tried in the west, formd to be hepatotoxic. and discarded. In India, interest in Tzn was revived in the 1960s for oral use along with INH as a substitute for PAS. Though, its impoance has declined, it continues to be used as a convenient low cost drug to prevent emergence of resistance to INH and more active agents. Thiacetazone is a tuberculostatic, low efficacy drug; does not add to the therapeutic effect of H, S or E, but delays resistance to these drugs. The major adverse effects of Tzn are hepatitis, exfoliative dermatitis, Stevens-Johnson syndrome and rarely bone marrow depression. The common side effects are anorexia, abdominal discomfo, loose motions and minor rashes. A mild anaemia persists till Tzn is given. Tzn is a reserve anti-TB drug, sometimes added to INH in alternative regimens. ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY K.D.TRIPATHI SIXTH EDITION PAGE NO:743
3
Paraaminosalicylate
Cycloserine
Thioacetazone
Rifampicin
Pharmacology
Chemotherapy
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single
BRCA-1 gene is located at what location of the chromosome?
BRCA-1 is located at - 17q 21 BRCA-2 located at - 13q 12
4
13p 12
13q 12
17p 21
17q 21
Pathology
null
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single
According to the WHO criteria, anaemia in infants of 6 months age is defined as Hb less than –
null
3
100 gm/litre
105 gin/litre
110 gm/litre
115 gm/litre
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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single
What is the age of routine screening mammography?
ANSWER: (C) 40 yearsREF: Schwartz 9th ed chapter 17, Sabiston 18th ed chapter 34, NCCN guidelines version 1.2014BREAST CANCER SCREENING NCCN GUIDELINES VERSION 1.2014Risk categoryScreening guidelinesAverage risk; age 25 to 40 yearsClinical breast examination every 1-3 yearsAverage risk; age > 40 yearsClinical breast examination annuallyScreening mammography annuallyHigh risk; Family history of breast cancer (> 20% lifetime risk)Begin at age of 30 yearsAnnual screening mammogram + clinical breast examination 6-12 monthsConsider annual breast MRI starting from 30 yrsRefer to genetic counseling if not already doneHigh risk; LCISBegin screening at diagnosisAnnual screening mammogram + clinical breast examination 6-12 monthsHigh risk; prior radiotherapy between age of 10-30 years; If < 25 yearsClinical breast examination annually to start 8-10 years after RTHigh risk; prior radiotherapy between age of 10-30 years; If > 25 yearsAnnual screening mammogram + Clinical breast examination 6-12 monthly to start 8-10 years after RT or age 40 years, which ever comes firstConsider annual breast MRIHigh risk; genetic predispositionRefer to genetic counseling (if Hereditary breast 8t ovarian cancer syndrome positive then)Clinical breast examination every 6-12 months starting at 25 yrs If age 25-30 yrs; annual breast MRI (preferred) or mammography if MRI is not availableIf age 30-75 yrs; annual mammography and breast MRIHigh risk; previous history of breast cancerClinical physical examination every 4-6 monthsfor first 5 years after primary therapy and annually thereafter + Annual mammographyAdd annual MRI (in bilateral disease 8t BRCA mutation)
3
20 years
30 years
40 years
50 years
Surgery
Breast Cancer - Prognosis and Follow-Up
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single
Broca's area is present in
Broca&;s area 44 is in the frontal lobe immediately in front of the inferior end of motor coex which is the inferior frontal gyrus. Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology; 23rd edition; pg:297
4
Superior temporal gyrus
Precentral gyrus
Post central gyrus
Inferior frontal gyrus
Physiology
Nervous system
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single
Smoking is a risk factor for all cancer except:
Smoking is not the risk factor for carcinoma gallbladder. Smoking is the risk factor for all gastrointestinal tract malignancies and hepatobiliary pancreatic tract malignancies except carcinoma gallbladder.
4
Esophagus
Urinary bladder
Pancreas
Gallbladder
Surgery
Oncology
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Pelvic pain is mediated by
The anatomical structures that may give rise to pain in the pelvic region belong to the urinary, reproductive, and gastrointestinal systems and to their associated blood and lymphatic vessels. These structures, innervated by the somatic (T12-S5) and visceral (T10-S5) nervous system, create a complex anatomical and neurobiological network . The hypogastric plexus is the main autonomic neuronal center of the pelvis, while the somatic innervation is guaranteed by fibers travels in the pudendal nerve. This is the main nerve of the pelvis, involved in a great amount of pelvic pain conditions. It contains also sympathetic and parasympathetic efferents and visceral afferents. The pudendal nerve originates from the sacral plexus (S2-S4), then exits the pelvis through the greater sciatic foramen into the perineal area, through the pudendal (Alcock's) canal, and finally spreads into three main terminal branches: the inferior rectal nerve, the superficial perineal nerve, and the dorsal nerve of the clitoris, which innervates the pelvic structures and the external genitalia. In addition to sensory branches, the pudendal nerve provides motor innervation to anal and urethral sphincters, as well as to the bulbospongiosus and ischiocavernosus muscles (involved in the bulbocavernosus response and orgasm). Ref - pubmed.com
3
Pudendal nerve
Sciatic nerve
Autonomic nerves
None of the above
Anatomy
Lower limb
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multi
Mark the wrong statement about Orbital Rhabdomyosarcoma
RHABDOMYOSARCOMA: Most Common orbital tumor in children with mean age of 5-7 years Pluripotent mesenchymal cell origin Most common site of origin: Eyelid Incidence Male > female Unilateral more common Well circumscribed homogenous tumor Superonasal quadrant is the most common location Rapidly developing proptosis is the usual presentation Hpe of RHABDOMYOSARCOMA-consist of sheets of both primitive round and spindled cells in a myxoid stroma.
4
Arise from pluripotent stem cell
Origin from skeletal muscle cell
Unilateral preponderance
More common in females
Ophthalmology
Orbit and Adnexa
2c0c1739-1434-4155-9779-8c778ce72552
multi
Most deaths involving placenta pre result from:
Hemorrhage
3
Infection
Toxemia
Hemorrhage
Thrombophlebitis
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
54d3e538-52d2-43e6-ab8b-b3b3030478cf
single
Blue sclera is feature of -
Osteogenesis imperfecta also known as Fragilitas ossium/ Vrolick&;s disease characterised by, Fragility of bones, deafness, Blue sclera, laxity of joints and tendency to improve with age. It results from defective collagen synthesis and thus affects other collagen containing soft tissues such as the skin, sclera, teeth, ligaments etc. Reference - TB of ohopaedics- Ebnezar-3rd edn-pg no 464
1
Osteogenesis imperfecta
Osteopetrosis
Cleidocranial dysostosis
Achendroplasia
Orthopaedics
Bony dysplasia and soft tissue affection
5d54599c-ed4c-4cbf-bba6-09f9721ddc30
single
Maximum IMR is seen in
State (2014)IMR / 1000Tamil Nadu20Orissa/Odisha49Maharashtra22Kerala12Madhya Pradesh52(Refer: K. Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social medicine, 24th edition, pg no:604)
2
Tamilnadu
Orissa
Maharashtra
Kerala
Pathology
All India exam
675d3f90-1b08-4834-840f-a9d3c96cfee1
single
All are surface anaesthetics except -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Bupivacaine o Topical anaesthesia (surface anaesthesia) is produced by topical application of local anaesthetics to mucous membrane or abraded skin. o Surface anaesthetics are Dibucaine (Cinchocaine) Lignocaine Benoxinate Oxethazaine Prilocaine Tetracaine (Amethocaine) Cocaine Benzocaine Butamben o Procaine has very less potent surface anaesthetic action (1/10) --> not used as surface anaesthetic. o But amongst the given options best answer is bupivacaine, it does not have surface anaesthetic action.
2
Lignocaine
Bupivacaine
Procaine
Cinchocaine
Pharmacology
null
4caf820a-b82b-4e32-bd44-9c522fc66e0b
multi
All are seen in morphine poisoning except:
Hypotension is a feature and not hypeension Features of Morphine Poisoning: Euphoria - Initial euphoria followed by period of sedation (nodding off) - Lethal - respiratory depression Slow respiration, hypothermia, hypotension bradycardia, cyanosis, pin point pupil, cyanosis
3
Cyanosis
Pinpoint pupil
Hypeension
Respiratory depression
Psychiatry
Substance Related and Addictive Disorders
15709e4e-89cb-4d66-b564-220c33285264
multi
Causes of cynosls-
Tetralogy of Fallot causes low oxygen levels in the blood. This leads to cyanosis (a bluish-purple color to the skin). The classic form includes four defects of the hea and its major blood vessels: Ventricular septal defect (hole between the right and left ventricles) Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 455
1
TOF
PDA
Tricuspid atresia
Eisonmenger's complex
Medicine
C.V.S
9dfd6e45-0a65-44de-82bc-78060fc30abc
single
Severity of acute pancreatitis correlate with levels of all of the following except
ASSESSMENT OF SEVERITY OF ACUTE PANCREATITIS It is impoant to define that group of patients who will develop severe pancreatitis, as they are the ones with poorer outcomes and therefore they require aggressive early management and possibly transfer to a specialist unit. A severe attack may be heralded by an initial clinical impression of a very ill patient and a worsening physiological state at 24-48 hours. Various prognostic scoring systems have been used, all aimed at predicting persistent organ failure, paicularly respiratory, cardiac and renal. Severity stratification assessments should be performed in patients at 24 hours, 48 hours and 7 days after admission. The Ranson and Glasgow scoring systems are specific for acute pancreatitis, and a score of 3 or more at 48 hours indicates a severe attack. Several other systems that are used in intensive care units can also be applied. These include the APACHE, SAPS, SOFA, MODS and modified Marshall scoring systems (the latter has the advantage of simplicity). Regardless of the system used, persisting organ failure indicates a severe attack. A serum C-reactive protein level >150 mg/L at 48 hours after the onset of symptoms is also an indicator of severity. Patients with a body mass index over 30 are at higher risk of developing complications. A revision in 2013 of the Atlanta classification of acute pancreatitis (1992) recommends that patients with acute pancreatitis be stratified into 3 groups: Mild acute pancreatitis: * no organ failure; * no local or systemic complications. Moderately severe acute pancreatitis: * organ failure that resolves within 48 hours (transient organ failure); and/or * local or systemic complications without persistent organ failure. Severe acute pancreatitis: * persistent organ failure (>48 hours); * single organ failure; * multiple organ failure. Ref: Bailey and love 27th edition Pgno : 1224
2
Glucose
Amylase
Transaminase
Calcium
Surgery
G.I.T
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multi
The indicators of the periodontal disease status measures all of the following by using CPI index in oral health surveys EXCEPT:
null
2
Bleeding
Bone loss
Calculus
Periodontal pocket
Dental
null
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multi
Prominent corneal nerves are seen in all except -
Macular dystrophy (Groenouw type-II)It is an autosomal recessive dystrophy characterisedby appearance of dense grey opacity in the centralcornea. The condition results due to accumulation ofmucopolysaccharides owing to a local enzymedeficiency. It occurs in childhood (5 to 10 years) andleads to marked defective vision in early life, whichusually requires penetrating keratoplasty. REF:Comprehensive ophthalmology,AK Khurana,4th edition,pg no.118.
4
Ectodermal dysplasia
Ichythyosis
Refsum's syndrome
Macular dystrophy
Ophthalmology
Cornea and sclera
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multi
Angiofibroma bleeds excessively because -
The characteristic of JNA is that the vessels are just endothelial - lined spaces with no muscle coat. As the contractile component (muscle coat) of vessels is absent, vessels have no ability to contract, i.e. vasoconstriction does not occur, and this accounts for :- Severe and recurrent epistaxis Bleeding cannot be controlled by application of adrenaline, a potent vasoconstrictor.
2
It lacks a capsule
Vessels lack a contractile component
It has multiple sites of origin
All of the above
ENT
null
1d6eb7d2-c30d-41e8-8426-90af6c7127ba
multi
Which of the following is a common feature of NSAID induced allergic interstitial nephritis?
The classic presentation of allergic interstitial nephritis (AIN), include fever, rash, peripheral eosinophilia, and oliguric renal failure. But in nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)-induced AIN, fever, rash and eosinophilia are rare, but acute renal failure with heavy proteinuria is common. Ref: Harrisons principles of internal medicine, 18th edition, Page: 2368.
4
Fever
Rash
Eosinophilia
Heavy proteinuria
Medicine
null
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multi
Not included in PQLI is
Ans. (a) IncomeRef. K. Park 23rded. /17Components/lndicators of PQLI* Literacy rate* Infant mortality rate* Life expectancy at age 1 year
1
Income
Literacy
Life expectancy at age 1
Infant mortality
Social & Preventive Medicine
Indicators of Health
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single
Oxygen hemoglobin dissociation curve shifts to right in all of the following conditions EXCEPT:
Ans. C Decreased H+Ref: Ganottg, 25th ed. pg. 640-641OXYGEN HEMOGLOBIN DISSOCIATION CURVE* Oxygen- hemoglobin dissociation curve is sigmoid 'S' shaped because binding of one oxygen molecule to heme increases the affinity of second heme molecule for oxygen and so on.Factors affecting affinity of Hb for oxygen and causing the shift of curve are:Left shiftRight Shift* This means the affinity of oxygen to Hb is increased and oxygen is bound more tightly to hemoglobin* This means the affinity of O2 to Hb is decreased which favours release of oxygen to tissue.* Factors leading to left shift are# Alkalosis or | pH# |pCO2 (CO2 ) content of blood)# |Temperature (Hypothermia)#| 2,3 DPG* Factors leading to right shift are:# Acidosis or | pH# | PCO2 (CO2 content of blood)# | Temperature (Hypothermia)# | 2,3 DPG
3
Hyperthermia
Decreased pH
Decreased H+
Increase CO2
Physiology
Respiratory System
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multi
Enzyme alglucerase is used in the treatment of ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Gaucher's diseaseAlglucerase (ceredase) is used in the treatment of Gaucher's disease.
1
Gaucher's disease
Galactosemia
Niemann Pick disease
Pompe's disease
Biochemistry
null
44c79122-33b6-448b-9118-b5529fc0c70d
single
In hyperparathyroidism, which of the following is not seen
there is increased phosphate level in urine ( Harrison 17 pg 2382)
2
Normal alkaline phosphatase
Decreased phosphate in urine
Increased calcium
Hypophosphatemia
Medicine
Endocrinology
f82e1678-8333-4423-a3fc-83dae641b7b1
single
Pregnant women with obesity are at higher risk of following except?
Ans. is 'd' i.e.,InfectionsIn a prospective multicenter study, pregnant females with obesity (BMI of 30-39.9) was associated with an increased risk of the following compared to non obese females:Gestational diabetes mellitusPreeclampsiaGestational hypeensionFetal macrosomia
4
Fetal macrosomia
Fetal distress
Gestational hypeension
Infections
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
23b38f35-614f-44dc-8c09-58221d20da11
multi
A child is admitted to the pediatric unit with a diagnosis of suspected meningococcal meningitis. Which of the following nursing measures should the nurse do FIRST?
The initial therapeutic management of acute bacterial meningitis includes isolation precautions, initiation of antimicrobial therapy and maintenance of optimum hydration. Nurses should take necessary precautions to protect themselves and others from possible infection.
3
Institute seizure precautions
Assess neurologic status
Place in respiratory isolation
Assess vital signs
Dental
null
01aeffa2-4a90-4afe-b0ad-71370447b2f2
single
Most common cause of intrauterine infection:
Ans. is d, i.e. CytomegalovirusRef. Williams Obs. 23/e, p 1216, 1217; Harrison 17/e, p 48Most common cause of intrauterine infection is cytomegalovirus.
4
Rubella
Toxoplasma
Hepatitis
Cytomegalovirus
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Medical & Surgical Illness Complication Pregnancy
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single
A 1.5 year-old girl is admitted to Pediatric ward with cough, fever, and mild hypoxia. At the time of her admission, on CXR left upper lobe consolidation is seen. Staphylococcus aureus is seen on blood culture within 24 hours. Suddenly the child's condition acutely worsened over the past few minutes, with markedly increased work of breathing, increasing oxygen requirement, and hypotension. On examination there was decreased air entry in left hemithorax and hea sounds were more audible on the right side of chest as compared to left. What could be the possible reason?
Above clinical scenario suggestive of the diagnosis of Tension Pneumothorax In Tension pneumothorax, continuing leak causes increasing positive pressure in the pleural space, leading to compression of the lung, shift of mediastinal structures toward the contralateral side like kinking of Superior vena cava which cause decreases in venous return and cardiac output leading to hemodynamic instability like Hypotension. Staph is responsible for causing pneumatocele; so rupture ;ends to pneumothorax Treatment:- Immediate decompression + wide bore needle into 5th ICS - mid axillary line
2
Empyema
Tension pneumothorax
ARDS
Pleural effusion
Pediatrics
Neonatal Resuscitation
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single
What is stereopsis is -
Ans. is 'b' i.e. Perception of the depth of vision o Stereopsis is a term that is most often used to refer to the perception of depth and 3-dimensional structure obtained on the basis of the visual information deriving from two eyes by individuals with normally developed binocular visiono There are two distinct aspects to stereopsis: coarse stereopsis and fine stereopsis, and provide depth information of the different degree of spatial and temporal precision :# Coarse stereopsis (also called gross stereopsis) appears to be used to judge stereoscopic motion in the periphery. It provides the sense of being immersed in one's surroundings and is therefore sometimes also referred to as qualitative stereopsis.Coarse stereopsis is important for orientation in space while moving, for example when descending a flight of stairs.# Fine stereopsis is mainly based on static differences. It allows the individual to determine the depth of objects in the central visual area (Panum's fusional area) and is therefore also called quantitative stereopsis. It is typically measured in random-dot tests; persons having coarse but no fine stereopsis is often unable to perform on random-dot tests, also due to visual crowding which is based on interaction effects from adjacent visual contours. Fine stereopsis is important for fine-motorical tasks such as threading a needle.
2
Perception of different colours
Perception of depth of vision
Perception of Peripheral visual fields
Perception of size of an object
Unknown
null
178ed19c-07ea-4781-bf5c-ee17a9a3e512
single
Turner syndrome is
Ans. (a) 45 XORef: Shaws 15th ed. H10-111; Harrison 19/e 635; William's Gynecology Ch 16
1
45 XO
47 XXY
Trisomy 13
Trisomy 18
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Choriocarcinoma
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single
Clinical audit means -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Measuring current patients care against explicit criteriao Clinical audit is a quality improving process, in which patients care is improved.o In this, current patients outcome and outcomes are measured against explicit audit criteria (against reference standards).
2
Measuring hospitai records
Measuring current patients care against explicit criteria
Measuring input-output analysis
Measuring shortest time needed to complete task
Social & Preventive Medicine
Health Planning and Management
7903b0e1-06e7-403b-870f-5aa4209ce7af
single
Drug which arrests mitosis in metaphase ?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Vinca alkaloids M-phase inhibitors (Mitosis inhibitors) are vincristine, vinblastine, paclitaxel, docetaxel ixabepilone and extramustine.
3
Busulfan
5-fu
Vinca Alkaloids
Methotrexate
Pharmacology
null
e3129aea-be15-45b2-83a5-7216aeb327bb
single
Gall bladder adenocarcinoma is only involving lamina propria. What is the preferred treatment
Only invading lamina propria is T1a stage -simple cholecystectomy.
1
Simple cholecystectomy
Radical cholecystectomy
Chemotherapy alone
Radiotherapy
Surgery
null
f49e8125-5bd2-4432-9f11-63e645fc3121
multi
Carpal tunnel contains all except
FLEXOR RETINACULUMCarpal tunnel.Transverse carpal ligament.Strong fibrous band which bridges anterior concavity of carpus and conves it into osseofibrous tunnel called carpal tunnel for the passage of flexor tendons of the digits.Rectangular.Formed due to thickening of deep fascia in front of carpal bones.Attachments: medial-pisiform, hook of hamate.Lateral-tubercle of scaphoid and crest of trapezium.Structures passing superficial to flexor retinaculum:-(medial to lateral)1. Ulnar nerve 2. Ulnar aery 3. Posterior cutaneous branch of ulnar nerve.4. Tendon of palmaris longus.5. Palmar cutaneous branch of median nerve.6. Superficial palmar branch of radial aery.Structures passing deep to flexor retinaculum:-1. Tendon of FDS2. Tendon of FDP 3. Tendon of FPL.4. median nerve.Ulnar bursa-tendons of FDS&FDP.Radial bursa- tendon of flexor pollicis Flexor carpi radialis pass through separate canal.{Reference: Vishram Singh pg. no.196}
4
Median nerve
Flexor digitorum superficialis tendon
Flexor pollicus longus tendon
Flexor carpi ulnaris tendon
Anatomy
Upper limb
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multi
Following are recognized F/O Myositis ossificans EXCEPT:
C i.e. The complication is less likely in children
3
It is a post traumatic ossification
It follows either a posterior dislocation or a spuracondylar fracture of elbow joint
The complication is less likely in children
Diagnosis is made with ceainty by skiagraphy
Surgery
null
32282511-cd9d-4695-81c6-c98816789c55
multi
SAFE strategy is recommended for-
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Trachoma o SAFE strategy developed by the WHO is the key to the treatment of trachoma. This consists of Surgery (S) on the lids. Antibiotics to treat the community pool of infection (A), Facial cleanliness (F) ; and Environmental changes (E). Blindness From Trachoma Can Be Stopped At FourDifferent points: SAFES - Surgical correction for trichiasis. It is a simple operation that can turn out lashes which are scratching the cornea, patients can be operated on in a local dispensary or health center, or other community space if properly prepared.The surgical procedure can be performed by those who have had surgical training : eye doctors, eye nurses or eye care assistants.A - Antibiotic treatment of people with active trachoma infection.Regular detection and treatment of people with active trachoma is important. The recommended treatment is as follows:o Wash the face and clean the eyeso Apply tetracycline 1% ointment to both eyes two times daily for six weekso The ointment is sticky and may blur the vision for a few moments. This will only last a few moments. If possible, treat all the children in the family.F - Clean FacesFamilies and individuals can do something to protect themselves from infection by increasing the number of times a child washes his/her face. Regular face washing removes discharge so that flies are not attracted to faces. It does not require great quantities of water : one liter of water can wash up to 30 faces.E - Environmental Improvemento This question is a repeat from NEET 2012-13, All India & AIIMS.
3
Glaucoma
Cataract
Trachoma
Diabetic retinopathy
Ophthalmology
Inflammations of Conjunctiva - Infective
f9ebc8b6-0ec1-4110-bd7b-5e5825d5b13c
single
Which of these is true regarding CML –
null
1
Size of splenomegaly indicates prognosis
Phagocytic activity of WBC is reduced
Sudan black stain is specific for myeloblast
Myeloblast, granuloblast and lymphoblast become PH chromosome +ve, –ve following remission
Medicine
null
bcee6372-015b-442e-8635-6d22c5f9b388
multi
cat acts as reservoir in the following ?
Toxoplasma gondii * Worldwide * Zoonotic parasite; Toxoplasma is an oppounistic pathogen. * Infects animals, cattle, birds, rodents, pigs, and sheep. * and humans. * Causes the disease Toxoplasmosis. * Toxoplasmosis is leading cause of aboion in sheep and goats. * Intracellular parasite. * Final host (Felidae family, cat) * Intermediate host (mammals ) Toxoplasmosis 1. All parasite stages are infectious. 2. Risking group: Pregnant women, meat handlers (food preparation) or anyone who eats the raw meat ref : ananthanaryana 9rh ed
1
toxoplasma gondii
rabies
streptocerca infection
plague
Microbiology
All India exam
91df0224-1503-4c91-85f2-4b44ff619982
single
A fetomaternal transfusion of more than 30 ml has been found in what percentage of women at delivery:
10%
3
Less than 1%
5%
10%
15%
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
27b5c098-90f5-4a5d-8749-582f5c4975bf
single
Least failure in sterilization occurs with:
Female tubal sterilization methods-10 year cumulative failure rates: Unipolar cauterisation – 0.75% Postpartum tubal excision – 0.75% Silastic ring/fallope ring – 1.77 Interval tubal exclusion – 2.01 Bipolar coagulation – 2.48 Hulka - clemens clips – 3.65 Note: Although unipolar cauterization has least failure rates, but is not preferred method for female steriliization as it leads to serious gastrointestinal burns.
3
Falope ring
Bipolar cautery
Unipolar cauterisation
Hulka clip
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
c5bb9ee4-c85e-443e-a9c3-144f5f1d0c47
single
Central nervous system manifestion in chronic renal failure are a result of all of the following except -
Chronic renal failure results in- Sodium and water retention leading to hyponatremia(not common and responds to water restriction). Decreased ca absorption -Hypocalcemia-increase in PTH -Hyperphosphatemia,increased bone resorption resulting in hypercalcemia-deposition of calcium in extraosseous sites such as vascular bed and soft tissues. Hyperkalemia Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis is present in early stages of ckd(1-3). Ref:HARRISON 20 th edition pg no. 2114,2115
1
Hyperosmolarity
Hyperparathyroidisn
Acidosis
Hyponatremia
Medicine
Kidney
cc4db430-144c-4d1e-80e8-5ddc18bec26c
multi
A patient comes to hospital with a history of sore throat, diarrhoea and sexual contact 2 weeks before. The best investigation to rule out HIV is-(
The standard blood screening test for HIV infection is the ELISA, also referred to as an enzyme immunoassay (EIA). This solid-phase assay is an extremely good screening test with a sensitivity of >99.5%. The fouhgeneration EIA tests combine detection of antibodies to HIV with detection of the p24 antigen of HIV. The most commonly used confirmatory test is the Western blot. (Harrison's Principles of internal medicine, 20 th edition, page 1538)
1
P24 antigen assay
ELISA
Western blot
Lymph node biopsy
Medicine
Infection
5bd3cf47-d36b-47d1-8cdf-7b8ff779b374
single
In spinal anaesthesia the drug is deposited between :
null
2
Dura and arachnoid
Pia and arachnoid
Dura and vertebra
Into the cord substance
Pharmacology
null
9cd9ba17-39f0-44cb-938c-fb3517252d37
single
CD marker of histiocytosis is-
Tumour cells in histiocytosis typically express HLA -DR,S-100,and CD1a. Reference : Robbins and Cotran Pathologic basis of disease.South Asia Edition volume 1.page no. 622
1
CD IA
CD 1B
CD1C
CD1D
Pathology
Haematology
cdab73a7-e2fd-461c-8ac1-57238ddcf964
single
Methotrexate is used in all except aEUR'
Sickle cell anemia Methotrexate in Rheumatoid ahritis Methotrexate is now considered the first line DMARD agent for most patients with Rheumatoid ahritis. - Methotrexate is effective in reducing the signs and symptoms of Rheumatoid ahritis as well as slowing or halting radiographic damage. - It has relatively rapid onset of action at therapeutic doses good efficacy, .ourable toxicity profile, ease of administration and relatively low cost. - The antiinflammaory effect of methotrexate in rheumatoid ahritis appears to be related at least in pa to interruption of adenosine and possible effect on TNF pathways. Which DMARD should be the drug of first choice remains controversial and trials have .failed to demonstrate a consistent advantage of one over the other. - Despite this, methotrexate has emerged as the DMARD of choice especially in individuals with risk factors for the development of bone erosions or persistent synovitis of > 3 months duration because of its relatively rapidity of action, its capacity to effect sustained improvement with ongoing therapy and the higher level of patient retention on therapy. Methotrexate in Psoriasis Methotrexate is a plate antagonist. It causes reduction in cells reproductive abilities. Methotrexate affects cells which divides quickly. - In psoriasis cells divide more than usual. - Methotrexate binds to these cells and inhibits enzymes involved in rapid growth of skin cells. It is commonly used to stop the progression of psoriatic ahritis and less commonly used in the tit of severe psoriasis with no ahritis component. Methotrexate is an effective antipsoriasis agent. It is especially useful in. - Acute generalized pustular psoriasis. - Psoriatic erythroderma - Psoriatic ahritis and - Extensive chronic plaque psoriasis Methotrexate in Ankvlosing spondylitis Methotrexate although widely used has not been shown benefit in ankylosing spondylitis. - There is not enough evidence to be ceain of the benefit and harms of methotrexate for ankylosing sponylitis and more research is needed. In ankylosing spondylitis the use of methotrexate is not recommended for the axial manifestations. - The drug may have some efficacy in the peripheral involvement. - For this disease there is lack of clinical trials and most of the trials did not show efficacy on the axial symptoms of the disease.
1
> Sickle cell anemia
>Psoriasis
> Rheumatoid ahritis
>Ankylosing spondylitis
Pharmacology
null
2932dfbf-52c5-4505-9292-a65d80f33210
multi
An elderly patient with hypeension with diabetes, proteinuria without renal failure, antihypeensive of choice is-
Among the currently popular antihypeensive agents, angiotensin-conveing enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, such as captopril and enalapril, have been blamed, albeit rarely, for hepatotoxicity (primarily cholestasis and cholestatic hepatitis, but also hepatocellular injury) .Malignant hypeension (whenIV therapy is indicated) - Labetalol, nicardipine, nitroprusside,enalaprilat are preferred.in case of elderly patients with hypeension,diabetes as well as proteinuria without renal failure,enalapril can be used. ref:Harrison&;s principles of internal medicine,ed 18,pg no 628
3
Furosemide
Methyldopa
Enalapril
Propranolol
Medicine
C.V.S
f26ab4f3-018f-451d-8f63-d3711b865423
single
All the following are true about Rheumatoid ahritis except:
Answer is D (C Reactive protein indicates better prognosis) Persons who present with high titers of Rheumatoid factor, C Reactive protein and Haptoglobin have a worse prognosis than the individuals who present with Subcutaneous nodules or Radiographic evidence of erosions
4
Positive for Anti-IgG antibody
Juxta-aicular osteoporosis
Morning stiffness
C Reactive protein indicates better prognosis
Medicine
null
4e01632f-ad55-4eeb-9d51-02ec0cc7fc68
multi
Only laryngeal muscle that is innervated bidirectionally is
- Interarytenoid muscle is an unpaired muscle in the centre between the 2 arytenoid cailages and is innervated bidirectionally.
4
Vocalis
Posterior cricoarytenoid
Lateral cricoarytenoid
Interarytenoid
ENT
Anatomy of Larynx
cec6fe41-7afa-45c9-8cbf-306e038a7a86
multi
Which of the following structures pass through aoic hiatus?
The aoic hiatus situated at the level of T12 veebra. Structures passing through aoic hiatus along with aoa are:Thoracic ductAzygos veinHemiazygos vein
1
Thoracic duct and azygos vein
Thoracic duct and gastric aery
Vagus nerve with oesophagus
Aorla with oesophagus
Anatomy
null
bc50c0eb-d69b-4ec7-9b2c-f1d1e8920904
single
Fracture of teeth and some bruises around mouth is: AIIMS 12
Ans. Grievous injury
2
Simple injury
Grievous injury
Dangerous injury
Assault
Forensic Medicine
null
ac7cd3ab-e6bf-46f5-9e5d-a551557db148
single
All of the following muscles of pollex are supplied by median nerve, EXCEPT:
Pollex means Thumb, which means strong in latin. There are four sho muscles of thumb (pollex), they are abductor pollicis brevis, opponens pollicis, flexor pollicis brevis and adductor pollicis. The first three of these muscles form the thenar eminence. All these muscles are supplied by median nerve except for adductor pollicis which is innervated by ulnar nerve.Ref: Snell's, Clinical Anatomy, 7th edition, Page 542, 543.
1
Adductor pollicis
Opponens pollicis
Abductor pollicis brevis
Flexor pollicis brevis
Anatomy
null
d106000c-daf3-4009-b9a6-fe30fe606826
multi
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor should not be given in : a) Sulfonamide hypersensitivity b) Glaucoma c) High altitude sickness d) Metabolic acidosis e) COPD
null
2
ace
ade
abcd
a
Pharmacology
null
2cbf0745-9f76-4ac5-8504-fd1f500dea82
single
A 50 year old male patient presents to the clinic for routine checkup. He is hypertensive and a type 2 diabetic. Lab investigations reveal plasma cholesterol levels 5.8 mmol/L and RBS 180 mg/dl. Which of the following agents can be used in this patient?
When diet changes fail, hypolipidemic drugs can reduce serum cholesterol & triacylglycerol. A family of drugs known as statins have proved highly efficacious in lowering plasma cholesterol and preventing  heart disease. Statins act by inhibiting HMG-CoA  reductase and up-regulating LDL receptor activity. Examples currently in use include atorvastatin, simvastatin, fluvastatin and pravastatin. Ezetimibe reduces blood cholesterol levels by inhibiting the absorption of cholesterol by the intestine by blocking uptake via the Niemann-Pick C-like 1 protein. Other drugs used include fibrates such as clofibrate, gemfibrozil, and nicotinic acid, which act mainly to lower plasma triacylglycerols by decreasing the secretion of triacylglycerol and cholesterol-containing VLDL by the liver.  High plasma cholesterol levels are >5.2 mmol/L. Reference: HARPERS ILLUSTRATED BIOCHEMISTRY30th ed Page no 276
4
Statins
Fibrates
Nicotinic acid
All of the above
Biochemistry
null
3688ce61-adb7-4696-8e8f-98e0ef95f476
multi
In which of the mentioned segments of a nephron, Na+ reabsorption primarily occurs by the Na+-H+ exchange?
In the PCT, the apical membrane has Na+/H+-antipoer, which couples H+ secretion with the Na+ movement across the apical membrane. In the TAL of loop of Henle:- The sympoer NKCC moves 1 Na+, 1 K+, 2 Cl- through the apical membrane into the cell. In DCT:- The sympoer is NCC. In the late distal tubule and collecting duct:- Na+diffuses across the apical membrane through the epithelial Na+ channel (ENaC).
1
PCT
loop of Henle
DCT
Collecting duct
Physiology
Excretory System (Kidney, Bladder) Acid-Base Balance
267094b6-c0e7-4c00-8088-ca29fdf50ca6
single
Antidepressant which is a Presynaptic a-2 receptor blocker which enhance secretion of both norepinephrine and serotonine ?
Ans. is'b'i.e., Miazapine MiazapineIt blocks alpha-2 auto-receptors (on NA neurons) and heteroreceptors ( on 5HT-neurons)
2
Trazodone
Miazapine
Mianserine
Bupropion
Pharmacology
null
2e13d600-38e1-4324-a7f1-40f456324270
multi
Perifollicular and petechial hemorrhages are characteristic of-
<img src=" /> Image ref Harrison 20th edition pg 67
3
Acrodermatitis enteropathica
Pellagra
Scurvy
Phrynoderma
Medicine
Nutrition
0ca9b748-d980-4d2f-b6f4-4d9dd7134872
single
During delivery A gives bih to a stillborn .A conceals the bih by secret disposal of dead .Which of the following statement is false regarding this situation
The act done by A the of the stillborn by secretly disposing of the dead and punishment for the same is defined under section ***IPC section 317-Exposure and abandonment of child 12 years by parents Punishment -up to 7 years of imprisonment or fine or both ***318 IPC -Concealment of bih by secret disposal of the body Punishment -up to 2 years of imprisonment or fine or both Reference :Textbook of Forensic Medicine and toxicology 5th edition pg no 156
4
A can be imprisoned for a maximum of 2 yrs
The punishment for the act done by A is defined under section 318 of IPC
A is guilty of offence
The act done by A is defined under Section of IPC
Forensic Medicine
Medical Jurisprudence
b08cea65-414e-4b6b-9d00-ca3ae7f310cd
multi
Imaging modality employed in PI-RAD repoing scheme for prostate glands is all except:-
PI-RADS is for prostate lesions based on multi-parametric MRI. It includes:- T2 weighted imaging for transitional zone of prostate - Diffusion weighted imaging/ADC score for peripheral zone of prostate- Dynamic contrast enhancement PI-RADS PI-RADS 1 = Very low (clinically significant cancer highly unlikely) PI-RADS 2 = Low (clinically significant cancer unlikely) PI-RADS 3 = Intermediate (clinically significant cancer equivocal) PI-RADS 4 = High (clinically significant cancer likely) PI-RADS 5 = Very high (clinically significant cancer highly likely)
1
MR spectroscopy
Dynamic contrast enhancement
Diffusion weighted MRI
T2W imaging
Radiology
Genitourinary radiology
f1c7b06f-fa9f-4aed-b571-c29537872560
multi
37-year-old female patient has a fracture of clavicle. The junction of inner and middle third of the bone exhibits overriding of medial and lateral fragments. The arm is rotated medially, but it is not rotated laterally. Which of the following conditions is most likely to occur secondary to the fractured clavicle?
The fractured clavicle may damage the subclan vein, resulting in a pulmonary embolism; cause thrombosis of the subclan aery, resulting in embolism of the brachial aery; or damage the lower trunk of brachial plexus.
2
A fatal haemorrhage from the brachiocephalic vein
Thrombosis of subclan vein, causing a pulmonary embolism
Thrombosis of the subclan aery, causing an embolism in ascending aoa
Damage to the upper trunk of the brachial plexus
Anatomy
Upper limb : Miscellaneous
410bcdbc-9cf4-4323-a536-5797f918a7c8
multi
Characteristic of mixed connective-tissue disease are all of the following except: March 2005
Ans. A: Hypogammaglobulinemia Manifestations of mixed connective-tissue disease (MCTD) can be variable. Most patients experience Raynaud phenomenon, ahralgia/ahritis, swollen hands, sclerodactyly or acrosclerosis, and mild myositis. The following may be revealed by history or physical examination: Raynaud phenomenon Ahralgia/ ahritis Esophageal hypomotility Pulmonary dysfunction Swollen hands Myositis Rash Leukopenia Sclerodactyly Pleuritis/ pericarditis Pulmonary hypeension Membranous glomerulonephritis Lab investigations shows features of inflammation with elevated ESR and hypergammaglobulinemia
1
Hypogammaglobulinemia
Membranous glomerulonephritis
Polyahritis
CNS involvement
Medicine
null
b5b7f7d6-d198-407e-8084-f1ea7d8e97ed
multi
All of the following statements are true about Frey's Syndrome except
FREY 'S SYNDROME (GUSTATORY SWEATING) - Frey's syndrome arises as a complication of parotid surgery usually manifesting several months after the operation.it is characterized by sweating and flushing of the preauricular skin during mastication causing nuisance to the person or social embarrassment. Treatment: -Tympanic neurectomy: Section of tympanic branch of CN IX will interrupt these fibers and give relief. -Antiperspirant: Aluminum chloride -Botulinum toxin: Injected into the affected skin. -Fascia Lata: between skin and underlying fat.
4
Gustatory sweating
Aberrant misdirection of parasympathetic fibers of auriculotemporal nerve
Botulinum toxin is one of the treatment suggested
Less chances with enucleation than parotidectomy
ENT
NEET 2019
d51b6726-5c50-49bc-9083-9a0b8e77f1a4
multi
Histopathology of chronic hepatitis shows -
Ans. (c) Bridging fibrosis(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 837)Hallmark of progressive chronic liver damage is deposition of fibrous tissue (scarring) Q bridgin fibrosis
3
Ballooning of hepatocytes
Councilman bodies
Bridging fibrosis
All of the above
Pathology
Liver & Biliary Tract
1e8f2619-9522-4396-a982-e0dbd16130fe
multi
Which of the following structure is not related to cavernous sinus:
Five structures in lateral wall of cavernous sinus 1. Oculomotor nerve 2. Trochlear nerve 3. Ophthalmic nerve 4. Maxillary nerve 5. Trigeminal ganglion Note: Internal carotid artery wrapped in its venous and sympathetic plexus along with abducent nerve passes through the center of cavernous sinus.
2
Abducent nerve
Optic nerve
Ophthalmic nerve
Trochlear nerve
Unknown
null
8e9ec1f2-5bc5-41c8-bf34-abeb58cc083f
single
Sharp instruments may be sterilized with ?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Hot air
3
Radiation
Lysol
Hot air
Any of the above
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
fc0ce44b-84c5-499d-a44b-3e305d9cb63f
multi