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Increased permeability in acute inflammation is due to all except ?
|
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Lytic enzymes
| 3
|
Cell contraction
|
Endothelial injury
|
Lytic enzymes
|
Cytokines
|
Pathology
| null |
0dd81dbc-1265-491f-87a0-89438e1cd7e0
|
multi
|
Shoest incubation period is seen with
|
Influenza has an incubation period of 18 to 72 hours Incubation period of :- Hepatitis A : 10 to 50 days Hepatitis B : 30 to 180 days Rubella : 2 to 3 weeks Ref : Park&;s Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine; 23rd edition
| 1
|
Influenza
|
Hepatitis B
|
Hepatitis A
|
Rubella
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Communicable diseases
|
04f211c9-553b-4414-8d87-7efcc96cfce4
|
single
|
Pulsus paradoxus is seen in-
|
* Pulsus paradoxus describes an exaggeration of the normal variation in systolic aerial blood pressure seen with respiration (normally falls by <10 mm on inspiration). * It is seen in the presence of- Airway obstruction. - Pericardial tamponade. - Massive pulmonary embolism. * Some conditions associated with pulsus paradoxus are - Constrictive pericarditis, -Restrictive cardiomyopathy, - Cardiac tamponade.
| 3
|
Shock
|
Elderly
|
Emphysema/Asthma
|
High output state
|
Surgery
| null |
6f6e2bab-f320-4f43-9ada-1ddfc7bab41a
|
single
|
Which of the following is not a structural gene of HIV -
|
tat is a nonstructural and regulatory gene of HIV REF:ANANTHANARAYANAN TEXT BOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9EDITION PGNO.572
| 4
|
Gag
|
Polio
|
ENV
|
Tat
|
Microbiology
|
Virology
|
680e3f51-1011-4e03-ba4a-fa4dfb29b932
|
single
|
PAH is used to measure-
|
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Renal plasma flow * Imagine a substance that not only passes freely across the glomerular membrane but is also secreted by the tubules to such an extent that the plasma leaving the kidney does not contain that substance any more. In that case the entire plasma flowing through the kidney would be cleared of the subsance. Or, in other words, the clearance of the substance would give us the renal plasma flow (RPF). A substance which closely satisfies this description is para-aminohipporic acid (PAH). Therefore, PAH is used t o measure renal plasma flow.* The PAH clearance in a normal adult is about 625 ml/minute. This is a measure of effective renal plasma flow (ERPF). PAH is only 90% excreted in the urine in a single passage through the kidney, i.e., its extraction ratio is 0.9 (90%). Therefore, PAH understimates RPF by about 10% because it does not measure the plasma flowing through those portions of the kidney which do not secrete PAH, the renal medulla, perirenal fat, renal capsule, pelvis and calyces. Thus actual RPF is 10% more than ERPF i.e., 690 ml/min.Knowing RPF and hematocrit (RBCs), renal blood flow can be calculated.* In simple words, clearance of PAH is a measure of effective renal plasma flow and actual renal plasma flow is 10% more than the PAH renal clearance (or ERPF).
| 3
|
Extracellular fluid
|
Glomerular filtration rate
|
Renal plasma flow
|
Plasma value
|
Physiology
|
Kidneys and Body Fluids
|
5dd266cd-fedc-4a4a-aaab-805c4881bbf4
|
single
|
Presence of which of the following in the urine is diagnostic of glomerular injury-
|
Glomerular injury is characterised by the presence of RBC casts & dysmorphic erythrocytes in urine microscopy. Ref Harrison20th edition pg 292
| 2
|
Bright red cells
|
20% dysmorphic RBC's
|
100RBC per high power field
|
Beta 2 micro globulin
|
Medicine
|
Kidney
|
6e071360-322b-48f6-9d8f-d8b4302d044b
|
single
|
Thrombocytopenia, macerated skin lesions, rash and periostitis in a new born are seen in
|
In Syphilis, thrombocytopenia is often associated with platelet trapping in an enlarged spleen. Characteristic osteochondritis and periostitis and a mucocutaneous rash manifesting with erythematous maculopapular or vesiculobullous lesions followed by desquamation involving hands and feet are common. Reference : Nelson textbook of pediatrics 19th edition Page 1017 & 1018
| 3
|
Erythroblastosis fetalis
|
Cytomegalovirils infection
|
Syphilis
|
HIV infection
|
Pediatrics
|
Infectious disease
|
77087998-31ef-40cd-a18f-a1c8f301c0e0
|
single
|
In a high copper amalgam, the phase which is eliminated is:
|
A reaction between Cu3 Sn (ε phase) and γ2 occurs and yields Cu6Sn5 (η phase). Because of the low copper content, a majority of γ2 remains. The addition of more than 6% of copper by weight can reduce or eliminate the γ2 phase by the formation of Cu-Sn phase.
Reference: PHILLIPS’ SCIENCE OF DENTAL MATERIALS, 12th ed page no 344
| 2
|
Gamma 1
|
Gamma 2
|
Gamma 1 and 2
|
No phase is eliminated
|
Dental
| null |
db588a2d-f69d-4fbd-b6fa-038f09425a6a
|
single
|
Analysis of visual detail occurs in which secondary visual area?
|
Visual information from the primary visual coex (Brodmann's area 17) is relayed to Brodmann's area 18 and then into other areas of the cerebral coex for fuher processing. Analysis of three-dimensional position, gross form, and motion of objects occurs in the posterior midtemporal area and occipitoparietal coex. Analysis of visual detail and color occurs in the inferior ventral and medial regions of the occipital and temporal coex.
| 2
|
Brodmann's area 18
|
Inferior ventral and medial regions of the occipital and temporal coex
|
Frontal lobe
|
Occipitoparietal coex
|
Physiology
|
Special Senses
|
47ea7a4c-6029-4a48-9f9c-2ff118ba37e1
|
single
|
Dominant cell type in grey hepatization stage of community acquired pneumonia is
|
In the third phase grey hepatisation, no new erythrocytes are extravasating, and those already present have been lysed and degraded.
The neutrophil is the predominant cell, fibrin deposition is abundant, and bacteria have disappeared. This phase corresponds with successful containment of the infection and improvement in gas exchange.
| 2
|
Eosinophils
|
Neutrophils
|
Macrophages
|
Monocytes
|
Medicine
| null |
1458ec75-7090-4681-a33f-e353c835d448
|
single
|
A patient with diarrhea has a fecal smear that is negative for leukocytes. The patient&;s diarrhea is most likely caused by
|
The enterotoxigenic strain of Escherichia coli secretes a heat-labile toxin that stimulates adenylate cyclase, producing a cholera-like syndrome that is responsible for the majority of cases of traveler's diarrhea. Because the bowel mucosa is not invaded and there is no toxin-induced damage, the fecal smear is negative for leukocytes. Campylobacter enteritis, shigellosis, typhoid fever, and amebiasis are all invasive, and infected individuals have stools with inflammatory cells. Typhoid fever is unique because the inflammatory cells are not neutrophils, but mononuclear cells. Ref - Harrison's internal medicine 20e pg 1150t,1152-1153
| 4
|
Campylobacter enteritis
|
Shigellosis
|
Typhoid fever
|
Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli
|
Medicine
|
Infection
|
262a143a-7c71-4c39-a74f-98144bcfe521
|
single
|
Death of Poliomyelitis is due to -
|
Moality rate in 5-10% & is due to respiratory failure<\p> REF:MICROBIOLOGY ANANTHA NARAYANAN NINTH EDITION PAGE.487
| 4
|
Infection
|
Neurogenic shock
|
Cardiac failur
|
Respiratory paralysis
|
Microbiology
|
Virology
|
c7d8d3e6-c3d3-4842-ab0b-443308f56262
|
single
|
The following condition of GB is precancerous
|
Porcelain gallbladder is the pattern when the gallbladder wall is calcified and cracks like an egg-shell. Porcelain gallbladdder is paicularly likely to become cancerous. Risk factors for ca gallbladder includes: 1. Gallstones 2. Genetic factors. 3.carcinogen in bile acids 4.calcificatiin of gall bladder (porcelain gallbladder) 5.GI disorders like ulcerative colitis and polyposis syndrome. TEXTBOOK OF PATHOLOGY 6TH EDITION HARSH MOHAN PAGE NO:642,643
| 2
|
Cholesterosis
|
Porcelain gall bladder
|
Biliary atresia
|
Choledochal cyst
|
Pathology
|
G.I.T
|
ca015478-5158-4299-980c-4640b36e099d
|
multi
|
A patient with acute viral hepatitis should undergo the following tests except?
|
For Acute Viral hepatitis patient should evaluable for Hep A Hep B Hep C IgM anti HAV lgM anti HBcAg Anti-HCV antibody *If Hep A, B, C is negative then it is Hep D Impoant Diagnostic Test in Common Liver Disease DISEASE DIAGNOSTIC TEST Hepatitis A Anti-HAV IgM Hepatitis B Acute Chronic HBsAg and anti-HBc IgM HBsAg and HBeAg and/or HBV DNA Hepatitis C Anti-HCV and HCV RNA Hepatitis D (delta) Anti-HDV Hepatitis E Anti-HEV IgM and HEV RNA
| 4
|
IgM- anti HAV
|
IgM- anti- HBcAg
|
Anti-HCV antibody
|
Anti- HDV antibody
|
Medicine
|
Hepatitis
|
8db57cac-5845-4b6a-a4fa-2888072f5a5c
|
multi
|
All symptoms are included in diagnostic criteria of major depression, except-
|
Ans- D
| 4
|
Indecisiveness
|
Insomnia
|
Poor concentration
|
None of the above
|
Psychiatry
|
Major Depression
|
e4a243f9-2008-46c6-9d14-4e269e13d546
|
multi
|
Anti-A, anti-B, antibody appear in child -
|
Ans. is 'd' i.e.. After 6 months o litre of anti-A and anti-B antibodies is almost zero immedietly after birth.o Infants start producing anti-A and anti-B antibodies at age of 2-8 month when corresponding antigen is not present in cell.o Maximum titre rech at 8 to 10 years of age after that it started declinning.
| 4
|
Just after birth
|
1 week after
|
6 week after
|
After 6 months
|
Pediatrics
|
Blood Disorders
|
e57c7406-1794-41b2-84cb-64f3f71a7dd9
|
single
|
Drug of choice in Acute central anticholinergic syndrome is -
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Physostigmine Physostigmine penetrates blood-brain barrier and antagonizes both central and peripheral actions of anticholinergics in acute anticholinergic poisoning (belladonna poisoning). About other options o Neostigmine does not cross blood brain barrier. Thus it is ineffective for central anticholinergic actions. o Tacrine is used for chronic central anti-cholinergic syndrome (Alzhiemer's disease).
| 2
|
Neostigmine
|
Physostigmine
|
Tacrine
|
4-amino pyridine
|
Pharmacology
| null |
4f597b92-df01-4222-84d8-5a91312a40ad
|
single
|
Apparent volume of distribution of a drug exceeds total body fluid volume, if a drug is -
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Sequestrated in body tissues o Drug may have volume of distribution for in excess of total body water if it is sequestered in other tissues because most of the drug is present in tissues and plasma concentration is low.
| 1
|
Sequestrated in body tissues
|
Slowly eliminated from body
|
Poorly soluble in plasma
|
Poorly bound to plasma protein
|
Pharmacology
| null |
13780ba3-12ad-4419-9efa-aa5b3905bc0b
|
single
|
Abnormal a-fetoprotein is seen in
|
Answer is D (All of the above) All conditions mentioned in options are associated with abnormal Alpha fetoprotein levels. Open Neural tube defects and multiple gestations (twin pregnancy) are associated with elevated alpha protein levels Chromosomal trisomies (trisomy 18) show decreased alphaprotein levels.
| 4
|
Trisomy 18
|
Twin pregnancy
|
Neural tube defect
|
All of the above
|
Medicine
| null |
99f71932-91d6-4a58-987a-9c0ad501b68a
|
multi
|
The true statement regarding supracondylar fracture of the humerus in children?
|
There are two potential problem with close reduction and cast management of fracture supracondylar humerus. The first is loss of reduction and 2nd is increased swelling and potential development of compament syndrome, secondary to immobilization with the elbow in flexion. That's why admission to hospital is essential following reduction. Ref: Tachdjian's Pediatric Ohopedics 3/e, Page 2130-75, 2060; Rockwood and Green's Fracture in Children 6/e, Page 543-86.
| 1
|
Admission to hospital is essential following reduction
|
It is due to fall on the point of the elbow
|
It require open reduction
|
It is usually compound
|
Surgery
| null |
fe256afa-aa58-4dc2-97ed-2da4691aeae8
|
multi
|
Pelvic splanchnic nerve is formed by :
|
D. i.e. Ventral/ Anterior rami of Sz, S3, S4Parasympathetic supply of gastrointestinal tract from pharynx upto midgut (or proximal 2/3 transverse colon) is supplied by vagus nerve and parasympathetic supply of hindgut (i.e. distal 1/3 transverse colon onwards) is by pelvic splanchnic nerve.Vermiform appendix is derived from midgut and is supplied by vagus nerve (parasympathetic) and T9 -- Tip nerves through celiac plexus (sympathetic)Q.
| 4
|
Pelvic splanchnic nerve is formed by :
|
Posterior rami of S2-S3 S4
|
Anterior rami of L5 SI S2
|
Anterior rami of S2 Si S4
|
Anatomy
| null |
5d1998c6-c19e-4a6f-8356-d0f2b652f51c
|
single
|
Which of the following is not used as vector in genetics?
|
VECTORS : The gene is trasferred to acarrier ,known as a vector.Most commonly used vectors are plasmids.Plasmids are circular double -stranded DNA molecuels seen inside bacteria. Different vector systems used for gene delivery are : Retro viruses , Adenoviruses , Adeno associated viralvectors and Herpes simplex virruses.Non -virus systems include Liposomes , Plasmids and physical methods. Proteosomes are protein complexes which degrade unneeded or damaged proteins by proteolysis , a chemical reaction that breaks petide bonds.Enzymes that help such reactions are called proteolysis. REF :DM VASUDEVAN TEXTBOOK ,7th EDITION , Page no :629.
| 2
|
Adeno virus
|
Proteosome
|
Liposome
|
Retrovirus
|
Biochemistry
|
Metabolism of nucleic acids
|
53ae1d7b-d084-4a79-9871-81ec7abfc672
|
single
|
Murmur increasing with valsalva maneouvre aEUR'
|
HOCM EFFECT OF VARIOUS INTERVENTIONS ON SYSTOLIC MURMURS
| 2
|
Mitral stenosis
|
HOCM
|
VSD
|
Aoic stenosis
|
Surgery
| null |
e036cece-b323-4779-8a92-50e4d94331c7
|
single
|
Ring scotoma is seen in :
|
The hallmark symptoms of retinitis pigmentosa are night blindness (nyctalopia) and gradually progressive peripheral visual field loss as a result of increasing and coalescing ring scotomas. The most characteristic fundoscopic findings are attenuated retinal aerioles, waxy pale optic disk, mottling of the retinal pigment epithelium, and peripheral retinal pigment clumping, referred to as "bone-spicule formation. Ref : Fletcher E.C., Chong N., Augsburger J.J., Correa Z.M. (2011). Chapter 10. Retina. In P. Riordan-Eva, E.T. Cunningham, Jr. (Eds), Vaughan & Asbury's General Ophthalmology, 18e.
| 4
|
Papilledema
|
Macular edema
|
CRAO
|
Retinitis pigmentosa
|
Ophthalmology
| null |
9243456c-521e-4e43-8eeb-c22d05f5a7a5
|
single
|
Flap commonly used in breast reconstruction is?
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e. TRAM
| 2
|
Serratus anterior
|
TRAM
|
Flap from arm
|
Delto pectoral flap
|
Surgery
| null |
4332acff-4996-4dcf-8c8a-2d97808c2621
|
single
|
In transvaginal ultrasound, earliest detection of gestation sac is by :
|
Ans. is d i.e. 14 days after ovulation The first definitive sonographic finding to suggest early pregnancy is visualization of the gestational sac. Using transvaginal transducers with frequency of 5 MHz, the size threshold for sac detection is 2 - 3 mm, corresponding to 4 weeks + 1 day gestational age to 4 weeks + 3 days gestational age." To understand how many days after ovulation, you should first understand that gestational age is calculated from 1st day of last menstrual period. As is evident from above diagram gestational sac is visualised approximately 15-17 days after ovulation (or within 1-3 days of missed period) but since it is not given in options so the nearest possible answer is 14 days after ovulation.
| 4
|
21 days after ovulation
|
21 days after implantation
|
28 days post ovulation
|
14 days after ovulation
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
| null |
f0c65348-7306-4a67-b659-53c736176061
|
single
|
Human brain is more intelligent than monkey's brain due to:
|
A i.e. Larger brain The propoion of the various pas of the brain are similar in the brains of apes and human, but the human brain is largerQ, so the absolute size of the association area is greaterQ.* Brain size: Human >Chimpanzee > MonkeyQ.Weight of Human brain=1400 gm and Monkey brain = 100gmAssociation AreasAssociation areas: are pa of six- layered neocoical mantle of gray matter that spreads over the lateral surfaces of cerebral hemisphere from concentric allocoical & juxta coical rings around the hilum. The most prominent gross feature of the human brain is immense growth of three major association areasQ.i) Frontal in front of premotor areaii) Parietal temporal occipital - b/w somatesthetic & visual coex extending into posterior poion of temporal lobe.iii) Temporal - from the lower poion of temporal lobe to limbic system. Speech & other intellectual function are controlled by neocoex.The ratio b/w brain weight and body weight is more impoant than size of the brain as three species have brains larger than humans (the whale, elephant & porpoise)The right to left differentiation is seen in chimpanzee and human. In humans left brain > Right brain
| 1
|
Larger brain
|
Increased convulations
|
Increased brain area compared to body surface area
|
More blood supply
|
Physiology
| null |
0c65ecbe-dde9-40bb-b4dc-cb1d102cc76a
|
single
|
The Finnish type of congenital nephrotic syndrome occurs due to gene mutations the following protein:
|
Answer is C (Nephrin):"A mutation in the Nephrin gene causes a hereditary form of congenital Nephrotic syndrome (Finnish type) with minimal change glomerular morphology"- Nephrin is a key component of the slit diaphragmIt is a zipper like structure between podocyte foot processes that might control glomerular permeabilityThe Nephrin gene maps to chromosome 19q 13 and is termed as NPHSI.Several type of Mutations of the NPHSI gene have been identified and they give rise to congenital nephritic syndrome of the Finnish type.Podocin' has also been recognized as a component of the slit diaphragmPodocin is encoded by a gene termed as NPHS 2 and maps to chromosome.Mutation in the podocin gene or NPHS2 lead to an autosomal recessive form of focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
| 3
|
Podocin
|
Alpha - actinin
|
Nephrin
|
CD2 activated protein
|
Medicine
| null |
57240d1f-1005-423e-bc91-07d0e24ca924
|
single
|
A new born presents with deepening cyanosis at bih, with congestive hea failure and normal first hea sound. X-ray reveals cardiomegaly diagnosis is -
|
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Transposition of great vessels
| 3
|
Tetralogy of fallot's
|
Ebstein anomally
|
Transposition of great vessels
|
Tricuspid atresia
|
Pediatrics
| null |
8892c22b-7aca-4e2d-a3f7-7ca720b9808c
|
multi
|
Distal end of humerous develops from how many centres ?
|
Ans. is 'd' i.e., 4Pa of humerus OssificationShaft One primary centerUpper end Three secondary centers ?One for head (appears in 1" year).One for greater tubercle (appears in 2ndeg year).One for lesser tubercle (appears in 5th year).This three centers fuses together during 6th year and finally with shaft during 20th year.Lower end Four secondary centersOne for capitulum & lateral flange of trochlea (19t year).One for medial flange of trachlea (9th year).One for lateral epicondyle (12th year).These three fuse during 14th year to form one epiphysis which fuses with shaft at 16 years.One for medial epicondyle (4-6 years), which separately fuses with shaft during 20th year.
| 4
|
2
|
5
|
3
|
4
|
Anatomy
| null |
88bc2ef9-e7ff-4257-9ba1-12b8a8f1ec4e
|
single
|
Maximum coverage to distribute forces over a wide area
| null | 1
|
Snows shoe effect
|
Bezold-Brucke effect
|
Realeff effect
|
Spectral curve
|
Dental
| null |
1c3b38ea-f68f-4a48-8b8f-ce4892bbef5e
|
single
|
Transpo of neutral substances across the cell membrane occurs
|
D i.e. DiffusionTranspo simple passive diffusion is oured by small size, lipid solubility (hydrophobicity) absence of charge (neutrality), and absence of polarity (nonpolar nature)Q.
| 4
|
Porins
|
Lonophore
|
Lipopolysaccharides
|
Diffusion
|
Physiology
| null |
ec4a4744-d6ab-4e26-9fc5-307e1ac2536c
|
single
|
Which of the following is inherited as autosomal recessive form?
|
Autosomal Recessive Inheritance Cystic fibrosis Phenylketonuria Tay-Sachs disease Severe combined immunodeficiency a- and b-Thalassemias Sickle cell anemia Autosomal Dominant Inheritance Familial hypercholesterolemia Marfan syndrome Ehlers-Danlos syndrome Hereditary spherocytosis Neurofibromatosis, type 1 Adult polycystic kidney disease (Robbins Basic Pathology, 9 th edition. page :219 )
| 1
|
Sickle cell anemia
|
Hemophilia
|
Hereditary spherocytosis
|
Glucose 6-P04 dehydrogenase deficiency
|
Pathology
|
General pathology
|
4ddd23d8-c61a-4d26-a285-c41c2884a02a
|
single
|
Most common cause of Bronchiolitis is:
|
a. RSV(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2044-2047, Ghai 8/e p 381-382Acute bronchiolitisIt is predominantly a viral disease and RSV is responsible for more than 50% of casesOther agents include parainfluenza, adenovirus, rhinovirus, Mycoplasma, human metapneumovirus and bocavirus.
| 1
|
RSV
|
Adenovirus
|
Hospitalize and treat
|
Mycoplasma
|
Pediatrics
|
Respiratory System
|
7c6a626f-389e-4d25-a357-22c87b26178a
|
single
|
Red cell aplasia caused by:
|
(Chloramphenicol): Ref: 675-KDT (717-KDT 6th)* Chloramphenicol is the most important cause of aplastic anameia, agranulocytosis, thrombocytopenia or pancytopenia* PURE RED CELL APLASIA: (480-CMDT-06)Associated with -1. SLE, CLL, Lymphomas or thymoma2. Drugs - chloramphenicol, phenytoin3. Parvovirus infections* Most cases the treatment of choice is immunosuppressive therapy with a combination of antithymocyte globulin and cyclosporine (or tacrolimus)
| 2
|
Aminoglycosides
|
Chloramphenicol
|
Penicilline
|
Ciprofloxacin
|
Pharmacology
|
Anti Microbial
|
2b8b0288-6980-49bb-97cd-bfbc2ea72a2b
|
single
|
Which of the following medications is contraindicated in patients with allergy to sulphonamides?
|
Acetazolamide, Dorzolamide and Brinzolamide are sulfonamide derivatives which act by inhibiting carbonic anhydrase (carbonic anhydrase inhibitor). Being sulphonamide derivatives they are contraindicated in patients with allergy to sulphonamides. Ref: Essentials of Pharmacology By K D Tripathi, 5th Edition, Pages 188, 553; Medicinal Chemistry By Sriram, Page 227.
| 3
|
Levobunolol
|
Bimatoprost
|
Brinzolamide
|
Brimonidine
|
Pharmacology
| null |
993fd812-af77-4eba-b831-e804f7e616cf
|
multi
|
Adenosine deaminase in CSF is significantly higher in -
| null | 1
|
Tuberculosis meningitis
|
Bacterial meningitis
|
Viral meningitis
|
Syphilitic meningitis
|
Medicine
| null |
5a60fa78-ab64-4c05-bd35-13e7090cd81e
|
single
|
Drug which produces Steven Johnson's syndrome in HIV infected individuals is:
|
Thiacetazone (Tzn, Amithiozone) Thiacetazone was found to be the best out of many derivatives. It was tried in the west, formd to be hepatotoxic. and discarded. In India, interest in Tzn was revived in the 1960s for oral use along with INH as a substitute for PAS. Though, its impoance has declined, it continues to be used as a convenient low cost drug to prevent emergence of resistance to INH and more active agents. Thiacetazone is a tuberculostatic, low efficacy drug; does not add to the therapeutic effect of H, S or E, but delays resistance to these drugs. The major adverse effects of Tzn are hepatitis, exfoliative dermatitis, Stevens-Johnson syndrome and rarely bone marrow depression. The common side effects are anorexia, abdominal discomfo, loose motions and minor rashes. A mild anaemia persists till Tzn is given. Tzn is a reserve anti-TB drug, sometimes added to INH in alternative regimens. ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY K.D.TRIPATHI SIXTH EDITION PAGE NO:743
| 3
|
Paraaminosalicylate
|
Cycloserine
|
Thioacetazone
|
Rifampicin
|
Pharmacology
|
Chemotherapy
|
5de3f5ac-4a74-4f54-b7cb-1d5875e1a2bb
|
single
|
BRCA-1 gene is located at what location of the chromosome?
|
BRCA-1 is located at - 17q 21
BRCA-2 located at - 13q 12
| 4
|
13p 12
|
13q 12
|
17p 21
|
17q 21
|
Pathology
| null |
09569b7e-88c8-4387-a580-5b5dfa7a2cf7
|
single
|
According to the WHO criteria, anaemia in infants of 6 months age is defined as Hb less than –
| null | 3
|
100 gm/litre
|
105 gin/litre
|
110 gm/litre
|
115 gm/litre
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
| null |
1221c4f7-870b-41ab-a99e-108cdc87c6f5
|
single
|
What is the age of routine screening mammography?
|
ANSWER: (C) 40 yearsREF: Schwartz 9th ed chapter 17, Sabiston 18th ed chapter 34, NCCN guidelines version 1.2014BREAST CANCER SCREENING NCCN GUIDELINES VERSION 1.2014Risk categoryScreening guidelinesAverage risk; age 25 to 40 yearsClinical breast examination every 1-3 yearsAverage risk; age > 40 yearsClinical breast examination annuallyScreening mammography annuallyHigh risk; Family history of breast cancer (> 20% lifetime risk)Begin at age of 30 yearsAnnual screening mammogram + clinical breast examination 6-12 monthsConsider annual breast MRI starting from 30 yrsRefer to genetic counseling if not already doneHigh risk; LCISBegin screening at diagnosisAnnual screening mammogram + clinical breast examination 6-12 monthsHigh risk; prior radiotherapy between age of 10-30 years; If < 25 yearsClinical breast examination annually to start 8-10 years after RTHigh risk; prior radiotherapy between age of 10-30 years; If > 25 yearsAnnual screening mammogram + Clinical breast examination 6-12 monthly to start 8-10 years after RT or age 40 years, which ever comes firstConsider annual breast MRIHigh risk; genetic predispositionRefer to genetic counseling (if Hereditary breast 8t ovarian cancer syndrome positive then)Clinical breast examination every 6-12 months starting at 25 yrs If age 25-30 yrs; annual breast MRI (preferred) or mammography if MRI is not availableIf age 30-75 yrs; annual mammography and breast MRIHigh risk; previous history of breast cancerClinical physical examination every 4-6 monthsfor first 5 years after primary therapy and annually thereafter + Annual mammographyAdd annual MRI (in bilateral disease 8t BRCA mutation)
| 3
|
20 years
|
30 years
|
40 years
|
50 years
|
Surgery
|
Breast Cancer - Prognosis and Follow-Up
|
98629bcd-7194-458d-8746-2cbf54d14bbe
|
single
|
Broca's area is present in
|
Broca&;s area 44 is in the frontal lobe immediately in front of the inferior end of motor coex which is the inferior frontal gyrus. Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology; 23rd edition; pg:297
| 4
|
Superior temporal gyrus
|
Precentral gyrus
|
Post central gyrus
|
Inferior frontal gyrus
|
Physiology
|
Nervous system
|
05f2cad2-9277-41f8-b1f8-a75df052a5f2
|
single
|
Smoking is a risk factor for all cancer except:
|
Smoking is not the risk factor for carcinoma gallbladder. Smoking is the risk factor for all gastrointestinal tract malignancies and hepatobiliary pancreatic tract malignancies except carcinoma gallbladder.
| 4
|
Esophagus
|
Urinary bladder
|
Pancreas
|
Gallbladder
|
Surgery
|
Oncology
|
b0327fb8-093d-4744-97e8-14afd17b1bb9
|
multi
|
Pelvic pain is mediated by
|
The anatomical structures that may give rise to pain in the pelvic region belong to the urinary, reproductive, and gastrointestinal systems and to their associated blood and lymphatic vessels. These structures, innervated by the somatic (T12-S5) and visceral (T10-S5) nervous system, create a complex anatomical and neurobiological network . The hypogastric plexus is the main autonomic neuronal center of the pelvis, while the somatic innervation is guaranteed by fibers travels in the pudendal nerve. This is the main nerve of the pelvis, involved in a great amount of pelvic pain conditions. It contains also sympathetic and parasympathetic efferents and visceral afferents. The pudendal nerve originates from the sacral plexus (S2-S4), then exits the pelvis through the greater sciatic foramen into the perineal area, through the pudendal (Alcock's) canal, and finally spreads into three main terminal branches: the inferior rectal nerve, the superficial perineal nerve, and the dorsal nerve of the clitoris, which innervates the pelvic structures and the external genitalia. In addition to sensory branches, the pudendal nerve provides motor innervation to anal and urethral sphincters, as well as to the bulbospongiosus and ischiocavernosus muscles (involved in the bulbocavernosus response and orgasm). Ref - pubmed.com
| 3
|
Pudendal nerve
|
Sciatic nerve
|
Autonomic nerves
|
None of the above
|
Anatomy
|
Lower limb
|
4724ed63-1864-4b6e-a384-1b20184a6d18
|
multi
|
Mark the wrong statement about Orbital Rhabdomyosarcoma
|
RHABDOMYOSARCOMA: Most Common orbital tumor in children with mean age of 5-7 years Pluripotent mesenchymal cell origin Most common site of origin: Eyelid Incidence Male > female Unilateral more common Well circumscribed homogenous tumor Superonasal quadrant is the most common location Rapidly developing proptosis is the usual presentation Hpe of RHABDOMYOSARCOMA-consist of sheets of both primitive round and spindled cells in a myxoid stroma.
| 4
|
Arise from pluripotent stem cell
|
Origin from skeletal muscle cell
|
Unilateral preponderance
|
More common in females
|
Ophthalmology
|
Orbit and Adnexa
|
2c0c1739-1434-4155-9779-8c778ce72552
|
multi
|
Most deaths involving placenta pre result from:
|
Hemorrhage
| 3
|
Infection
|
Toxemia
|
Hemorrhage
|
Thrombophlebitis
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
| null |
54d3e538-52d2-43e6-ab8b-b3b3030478cf
|
single
|
Blue sclera is feature of -
|
Osteogenesis imperfecta also known as Fragilitas ossium/ Vrolick&;s disease characterised by, Fragility of bones, deafness, Blue sclera, laxity of joints and tendency to improve with age. It results from defective collagen synthesis and thus affects other collagen containing soft tissues such as the skin, sclera, teeth, ligaments etc. Reference - TB of ohopaedics- Ebnezar-3rd edn-pg no 464
| 1
|
Osteogenesis imperfecta
|
Osteopetrosis
|
Cleidocranial dysostosis
|
Achendroplasia
|
Orthopaedics
|
Bony dysplasia and soft tissue affection
|
5d54599c-ed4c-4cbf-bba6-09f9721ddc30
|
single
|
Maximum IMR is seen in
|
State (2014)IMR / 1000Tamil Nadu20Orissa/Odisha49Maharashtra22Kerala12Madhya Pradesh52(Refer: K. Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social medicine, 24th edition, pg no:604)
| 2
|
Tamilnadu
|
Orissa
|
Maharashtra
|
Kerala
|
Pathology
|
All India exam
|
675d3f90-1b08-4834-840f-a9d3c96cfee1
|
single
|
All are surface anaesthetics except -
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Bupivacaine o Topical anaesthesia (surface anaesthesia) is produced by topical application of local anaesthetics to mucous membrane or abraded skin. o Surface anaesthetics are Dibucaine (Cinchocaine) Lignocaine Benoxinate Oxethazaine Prilocaine Tetracaine (Amethocaine) Cocaine Benzocaine Butamben o Procaine has very less potent surface anaesthetic action (1/10) --> not used as surface anaesthetic. o But amongst the given options best answer is bupivacaine, it does not have surface anaesthetic action.
| 2
|
Lignocaine
|
Bupivacaine
|
Procaine
|
Cinchocaine
|
Pharmacology
| null |
4caf820a-b82b-4e32-bd44-9c522fc66e0b
|
multi
|
All are seen in morphine poisoning except:
|
Hypotension is a feature and not hypeension Features of Morphine Poisoning: Euphoria - Initial euphoria followed by period of sedation (nodding off) - Lethal - respiratory depression Slow respiration, hypothermia, hypotension bradycardia, cyanosis, pin point pupil, cyanosis
| 3
|
Cyanosis
|
Pinpoint pupil
|
Hypeension
|
Respiratory depression
|
Psychiatry
|
Substance Related and Addictive Disorders
|
15709e4e-89cb-4d66-b564-220c33285264
|
multi
|
Causes of cynosls-
|
Tetralogy of Fallot causes low oxygen levels in the blood. This leads to cyanosis (a bluish-purple color to the skin). The classic form includes four defects of the hea and its major blood vessels: Ventricular septal defect (hole between the right and left ventricles) Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 455
| 1
|
TOF
|
PDA
|
Tricuspid atresia
|
Eisonmenger's complex
|
Medicine
|
C.V.S
|
9dfd6e45-0a65-44de-82bc-78060fc30abc
|
single
|
Severity of acute pancreatitis correlate with levels of all of the following except
|
ASSESSMENT OF SEVERITY OF ACUTE PANCREATITIS It is impoant to define that group of patients who will develop severe pancreatitis, as they are the ones with poorer outcomes and therefore they require aggressive early management and possibly transfer to a specialist unit. A severe attack may be heralded by an initial clinical impression of a very ill patient and a worsening physiological state at 24-48 hours. Various prognostic scoring systems have been used, all aimed at predicting persistent organ failure, paicularly respiratory, cardiac and renal. Severity stratification assessments should be performed in patients at 24 hours, 48 hours and 7 days after admission. The Ranson and Glasgow scoring systems are specific for acute pancreatitis, and a score of 3 or more at 48 hours indicates a severe attack. Several other systems that are used in intensive care units can also be applied. These include the APACHE, SAPS, SOFA, MODS and modified Marshall scoring systems (the latter has the advantage of simplicity). Regardless of the system used, persisting organ failure indicates a severe attack. A serum C-reactive protein level >150 mg/L at 48 hours after the onset of symptoms is also an indicator of severity. Patients with a body mass index over 30 are at higher risk of developing complications. A revision in 2013 of the Atlanta classification of acute pancreatitis (1992) recommends that patients with acute pancreatitis be stratified into 3 groups: Mild acute pancreatitis: * no organ failure; * no local or systemic complications. Moderately severe acute pancreatitis: * organ failure that resolves within 48 hours (transient organ failure); and/or * local or systemic complications without persistent organ failure. Severe acute pancreatitis: * persistent organ failure (>48 hours); * single organ failure; * multiple organ failure. Ref: Bailey and love 27th edition Pgno : 1224
| 2
|
Glucose
|
Amylase
|
Transaminase
|
Calcium
|
Surgery
|
G.I.T
|
5a425fb8-970f-49a9-9dd1-154a70369122
|
multi
|
The indicators of the periodontal disease status measures all of the following by using CPI index in oral health surveys EXCEPT:
| null | 2
|
Bleeding
|
Bone loss
|
Calculus
|
Periodontal pocket
|
Dental
| null |
f473388e-82ba-4b35-866f-66dfad68933b
|
multi
|
Prominent corneal nerves are seen in all except -
|
Macular dystrophy (Groenouw type-II)It is an autosomal recessive dystrophy characterisedby appearance of dense grey opacity in the centralcornea. The condition results due to accumulation ofmucopolysaccharides owing to a local enzymedeficiency. It occurs in childhood (5 to 10 years) andleads to marked defective vision in early life, whichusually requires penetrating keratoplasty. REF:Comprehensive ophthalmology,AK Khurana,4th edition,pg no.118.
| 4
|
Ectodermal dysplasia
|
Ichythyosis
|
Refsum's syndrome
|
Macular dystrophy
|
Ophthalmology
|
Cornea and sclera
|
bd2435c5-385d-4d42-b0a6-89622e9b99eb
|
multi
|
Angiofibroma bleeds excessively because -
|
The characteristic of JNA is that the vessels are just endothelial - lined spaces with no muscle coat.
As the contractile component (muscle coat) of vessels is absent, vessels have no ability to contract, i.e. vasoconstriction does not occur, and this accounts for :-
Severe and recurrent epistaxis
Bleeding cannot be controlled by application of adrenaline, a potent vasoconstrictor.
| 2
|
It lacks a capsule
|
Vessels lack a contractile component
|
It has multiple sites of origin
|
All of the above
|
ENT
| null |
1d6eb7d2-c30d-41e8-8426-90af6c7127ba
|
multi
|
Which of the following is a common feature of NSAID induced allergic interstitial nephritis?
|
The classic presentation of allergic interstitial nephritis (AIN), include fever, rash, peripheral eosinophilia, and oliguric renal failure. But in nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)-induced AIN, fever, rash and eosinophilia are rare, but acute renal failure with heavy proteinuria is common. Ref: Harrisons principles of internal medicine, 18th edition, Page: 2368.
| 4
|
Fever
|
Rash
|
Eosinophilia
|
Heavy proteinuria
|
Medicine
| null |
0e639bce-ea31-4f3d-a680-2cb405f93172
|
multi
|
Not included in PQLI is
|
Ans. (a) IncomeRef. K. Park 23rded. /17Components/lndicators of PQLI* Literacy rate* Infant mortality rate* Life expectancy at age 1 year
| 1
|
Income
|
Literacy
|
Life expectancy at age 1
|
Infant mortality
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Indicators of Health
|
b00a11a5-75e0-4477-b62a-b1339131747a
|
single
|
Oxygen hemoglobin dissociation curve shifts to right in all of the following conditions EXCEPT:
|
Ans. C Decreased H+Ref: Ganottg, 25th ed. pg. 640-641OXYGEN HEMOGLOBIN DISSOCIATION CURVE* Oxygen- hemoglobin dissociation curve is sigmoid 'S' shaped because binding of one oxygen molecule to heme increases the affinity of second heme molecule for oxygen and so on.Factors affecting affinity of Hb for oxygen and causing the shift of curve are:Left shiftRight Shift* This means the affinity of oxygen to Hb is increased and oxygen is bound more tightly to hemoglobin* This means the affinity of O2 to Hb is decreased which favours release of oxygen to tissue.* Factors leading to left shift are# Alkalosis or | pH# |pCO2 (CO2 ) content of blood)# |Temperature (Hypothermia)#| 2,3 DPG* Factors leading to right shift are:# Acidosis or | pH# | PCO2 (CO2 content of blood)# | Temperature (Hypothermia)# | 2,3 DPG
| 3
|
Hyperthermia
|
Decreased pH
|
Decreased H+
|
Increase CO2
|
Physiology
|
Respiratory System
|
c7986c00-a006-45b6-be18-f8bbb459a549
|
multi
|
Enzyme alglucerase is used in the treatment of ?
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Gaucher's diseaseAlglucerase (ceredase) is used in the treatment of Gaucher's disease.
| 1
|
Gaucher's disease
|
Galactosemia
|
Niemann Pick disease
|
Pompe's disease
|
Biochemistry
| null |
44c79122-33b6-448b-9118-b5529fc0c70d
|
single
|
In hyperparathyroidism, which of the following is not seen
|
there is increased phosphate level in urine ( Harrison 17 pg 2382)
| 2
|
Normal alkaline phosphatase
|
Decreased phosphate in urine
|
Increased calcium
|
Hypophosphatemia
|
Medicine
|
Endocrinology
|
f82e1678-8333-4423-a3fc-83dae641b7b1
|
single
|
Pregnant women with obesity are at higher risk of following except?
|
Ans. is 'd' i.e.,InfectionsIn a prospective multicenter study, pregnant females with obesity (BMI of 30-39.9) was associated with an increased risk of the following compared to non obese females:Gestational diabetes mellitusPreeclampsiaGestational hypeensionFetal macrosomia
| 4
|
Fetal macrosomia
|
Fetal distress
|
Gestational hypeension
|
Infections
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
| null |
23b38f35-614f-44dc-8c09-58221d20da11
|
multi
|
A child is admitted to the pediatric unit with a diagnosis of suspected meningococcal meningitis. Which of the following nursing measures should the nurse do FIRST?
|
The initial therapeutic management of acute bacterial meningitis includes isolation precautions, initiation of antimicrobial therapy and maintenance of optimum hydration.
Nurses should take necessary precautions to protect themselves and others from possible infection.
| 3
|
Institute seizure precautions
|
Assess neurologic status
|
Place in respiratory isolation
|
Assess vital signs
|
Dental
| null |
01aeffa2-4a90-4afe-b0ad-71370447b2f2
|
single
|
Most common cause of intrauterine infection:
|
Ans. is d, i.e. CytomegalovirusRef. Williams Obs. 23/e, p 1216, 1217; Harrison 17/e, p 48Most common cause of intrauterine infection is cytomegalovirus.
| 4
|
Rubella
|
Toxoplasma
|
Hepatitis
|
Cytomegalovirus
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
|
Medical & Surgical Illness Complication Pregnancy
|
37907502-2158-4f0c-9b59-360c11c34d47
|
single
|
A 1.5 year-old girl is admitted to Pediatric ward with cough, fever, and mild hypoxia. At the time of her admission, on CXR left upper lobe consolidation is seen. Staphylococcus aureus is seen on blood culture within 24 hours. Suddenly the child's condition acutely worsened over the past few minutes, with markedly increased work of breathing, increasing oxygen requirement, and hypotension. On examination there was decreased air entry in left hemithorax and hea sounds were more audible on the right side of chest as compared to left. What could be the possible reason?
|
Above clinical scenario suggestive of the diagnosis of Tension Pneumothorax In Tension pneumothorax, continuing leak causes increasing positive pressure in the pleural space, leading to compression of the lung, shift of mediastinal structures toward the contralateral side like kinking of Superior vena cava which cause decreases in venous return and cardiac output leading to hemodynamic instability like Hypotension. Staph is responsible for causing pneumatocele; so rupture ;ends to pneumothorax Treatment:- Immediate decompression + wide bore needle into 5th ICS - mid axillary line
| 2
|
Empyema
|
Tension pneumothorax
|
ARDS
|
Pleural effusion
|
Pediatrics
|
Neonatal Resuscitation
|
3b1b7c05-cf02-4660-b171-b0a5bd9989d2
|
single
|
What is stereopsis is -
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e. Perception of the depth of vision o Stereopsis is a term that is most often used to refer to the perception of depth and 3-dimensional structure obtained on the basis of the visual information deriving from two eyes by individuals with normally developed binocular visiono There are two distinct aspects to stereopsis: coarse stereopsis and fine stereopsis, and provide depth information of the different degree of spatial and temporal precision :# Coarse stereopsis (also called gross stereopsis) appears to be used to judge stereoscopic motion in the periphery. It provides the sense of being immersed in one's surroundings and is therefore sometimes also referred to as qualitative stereopsis.Coarse stereopsis is important for orientation in space while moving, for example when descending a flight of stairs.# Fine stereopsis is mainly based on static differences. It allows the individual to determine the depth of objects in the central visual area (Panum's fusional area) and is therefore also called quantitative stereopsis. It is typically measured in random-dot tests; persons having coarse but no fine stereopsis is often unable to perform on random-dot tests, also due to visual crowding which is based on interaction effects from adjacent visual contours. Fine stereopsis is important for fine-motorical tasks such as threading a needle.
| 2
|
Perception of different colours
|
Perception of depth of vision
|
Perception of Peripheral visual fields
|
Perception of size of an object
|
Unknown
| null |
178ed19c-07ea-4781-bf5c-ee17a9a3e512
|
single
|
Turner syndrome is
|
Ans. (a) 45 XORef: Shaws 15th ed. H10-111; Harrison 19/e 635; William's Gynecology Ch 16
| 1
|
45 XO
|
47 XXY
|
Trisomy 13
|
Trisomy 18
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
|
Choriocarcinoma
|
059329c7-1cb3-4a71-8339-d8e995c39d40
|
single
|
Clinical audit means -
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Measuring current patients care against explicit criteriao Clinical audit is a quality improving process, in which patients care is improved.o In this, current patients outcome and outcomes are measured against explicit audit criteria (against reference standards).
| 2
|
Measuring hospitai records
|
Measuring current patients care against explicit criteria
|
Measuring input-output analysis
|
Measuring shortest time needed to complete task
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
|
Health Planning and Management
|
7903b0e1-06e7-403b-870f-5aa4209ce7af
|
single
|
Drug which arrests mitosis in metaphase ?
|
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Vinca alkaloids M-phase inhibitors (Mitosis inhibitors) are vincristine, vinblastine, paclitaxel, docetaxel ixabepilone and extramustine.
| 3
|
Busulfan
|
5-fu
|
Vinca Alkaloids
|
Methotrexate
|
Pharmacology
| null |
e3129aea-be15-45b2-83a5-7216aeb327bb
|
single
|
Gall bladder adenocarcinoma is only involving lamina propria. What is the preferred treatment
|
Only invading lamina propria is T1a stage -simple cholecystectomy.
| 1
|
Simple cholecystectomy
|
Radical cholecystectomy
|
Chemotherapy alone
|
Radiotherapy
|
Surgery
| null |
f49e8125-5bd2-4432-9f11-63e645fc3121
|
multi
|
Carpal tunnel contains all except
|
FLEXOR RETINACULUMCarpal tunnel.Transverse carpal ligament.Strong fibrous band which bridges anterior concavity of carpus and conves it into osseofibrous tunnel called carpal tunnel for the passage of flexor tendons of the digits.Rectangular.Formed due to thickening of deep fascia in front of carpal bones.Attachments: medial-pisiform, hook of hamate.Lateral-tubercle of scaphoid and crest of trapezium.Structures passing superficial to flexor retinaculum:-(medial to lateral)1. Ulnar nerve 2. Ulnar aery 3. Posterior cutaneous branch of ulnar nerve.4. Tendon of palmaris longus.5. Palmar cutaneous branch of median nerve.6. Superficial palmar branch of radial aery.Structures passing deep to flexor retinaculum:-1. Tendon of FDS2. Tendon of FDP 3. Tendon of FPL.4. median nerve.Ulnar bursa-tendons of FDS&FDP.Radial bursa- tendon of flexor pollicis Flexor carpi radialis pass through separate canal.{Reference: Vishram Singh pg. no.196}
| 4
|
Median nerve
|
Flexor digitorum superficialis tendon
|
Flexor pollicus longus tendon
|
Flexor carpi ulnaris tendon
|
Anatomy
|
Upper limb
|
b776a5e7-27e9-4795-85b3-07268193a79b
|
multi
|
Following are recognized F/O Myositis ossificans EXCEPT:
|
C i.e. The complication is less likely in children
| 3
|
It is a post traumatic ossification
|
It follows either a posterior dislocation or a spuracondylar fracture of elbow joint
|
The complication is less likely in children
|
Diagnosis is made with ceainty by skiagraphy
|
Surgery
| null |
32282511-cd9d-4695-81c6-c98816789c55
|
multi
|
SAFE strategy is recommended for-
|
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Trachoma o SAFE strategy developed by the WHO is the key to the treatment of trachoma. This consists of Surgery (S) on the lids. Antibiotics to treat the community pool of infection (A), Facial cleanliness (F) ; and Environmental changes (E). Blindness From Trachoma Can Be Stopped At FourDifferent points: SAFES - Surgical correction for trichiasis. It is a simple operation that can turn out lashes which are scratching the cornea, patients can be operated on in a local dispensary or health center, or other community space if properly prepared.The surgical procedure can be performed by those who have had surgical training : eye doctors, eye nurses or eye care assistants.A - Antibiotic treatment of people with active trachoma infection.Regular detection and treatment of people with active trachoma is important. The recommended treatment is as follows:o Wash the face and clean the eyeso Apply tetracycline 1% ointment to both eyes two times daily for six weekso The ointment is sticky and may blur the vision for a few moments. This will only last a few moments. If possible, treat all the children in the family.F - Clean FacesFamilies and individuals can do something to protect themselves from infection by increasing the number of times a child washes his/her face. Regular face washing removes discharge so that flies are not attracted to faces. It does not require great quantities of water : one liter of water can wash up to 30 faces.E - Environmental Improvemento This question is a repeat from NEET 2012-13, All India & AIIMS.
| 3
|
Glaucoma
|
Cataract
|
Trachoma
|
Diabetic retinopathy
|
Ophthalmology
|
Inflammations of Conjunctiva - Infective
|
f9ebc8b6-0ec1-4110-bd7b-5e5825d5b13c
|
single
|
Which of these is true regarding CML –
| null | 1
|
Size of splenomegaly indicates prognosis
|
Phagocytic activity of WBC is reduced
|
Sudan black stain is specific for myeloblast
|
Myeloblast, granuloblast and lymphoblast become PH chromosome +ve, –ve following remission
|
Medicine
| null |
bcee6372-015b-442e-8635-6d22c5f9b388
|
multi
|
cat acts as reservoir in the following ?
|
Toxoplasma gondii * Worldwide * Zoonotic parasite; Toxoplasma is an oppounistic pathogen. * Infects animals, cattle, birds, rodents, pigs, and sheep. * and humans. * Causes the disease Toxoplasmosis. * Toxoplasmosis is leading cause of aboion in sheep and goats. * Intracellular parasite. * Final host (Felidae family, cat) * Intermediate host (mammals ) Toxoplasmosis 1. All parasite stages are infectious. 2. Risking group: Pregnant women, meat handlers (food preparation) or anyone who eats the raw meat ref : ananthanaryana 9rh ed
| 1
|
toxoplasma gondii
|
rabies
|
streptocerca infection
|
plague
|
Microbiology
|
All India exam
|
91df0224-1503-4c91-85f2-4b44ff619982
|
single
|
A fetomaternal transfusion of more than 30 ml has been found in what percentage of women at delivery:
|
10%
| 3
|
Less than 1%
|
5%
|
10%
|
15%
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
| null |
27b5c098-90f5-4a5d-8749-582f5c4975bf
|
single
|
Least failure in sterilization occurs with:
|
Female tubal sterilization methods-10 year cumulative failure rates:
Unipolar cauterisation – 0.75%
Postpartum tubal excision – 0.75%
Silastic ring/fallope ring – 1.77
Interval tubal exclusion – 2.01
Bipolar coagulation – 2.48
Hulka - clemens clips – 3.65
Note: Although unipolar cauterization has least failure rates, but is not preferred method for female steriliization as it leads to serious gastrointestinal burns.
| 3
|
Falope ring
|
Bipolar cautery
|
Unipolar cauterisation
|
Hulka clip
|
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
| null |
c5bb9ee4-c85e-443e-a9c3-144f5f1d0c47
|
single
|
Central nervous system manifestion in chronic renal failure are a result of all of the following except -
|
Chronic renal failure results in- Sodium and water retention leading to hyponatremia(not common and responds to water restriction). Decreased ca absorption -Hypocalcemia-increase in PTH -Hyperphosphatemia,increased bone resorption resulting in hypercalcemia-deposition of calcium in extraosseous sites such as vascular bed and soft tissues. Hyperkalemia Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis is present in early stages of ckd(1-3). Ref:HARRISON 20 th edition pg no. 2114,2115
| 1
|
Hyperosmolarity
|
Hyperparathyroidisn
|
Acidosis
|
Hyponatremia
|
Medicine
|
Kidney
|
cc4db430-144c-4d1e-80e8-5ddc18bec26c
|
multi
|
A patient comes to hospital with a history of sore throat, diarrhoea and sexual contact 2 weeks before. The best investigation to rule out HIV is-(
|
The standard blood screening test for HIV infection is the ELISA, also referred to as an enzyme immunoassay (EIA). This solid-phase assay is an extremely good screening test with a sensitivity of >99.5%. The fouhgeneration EIA tests combine detection of antibodies to HIV with detection of the p24 antigen of HIV. The most commonly used confirmatory test is the Western blot. (Harrison's Principles of internal medicine, 20 th edition, page 1538)
| 1
|
P24 antigen assay
|
ELISA
|
Western blot
|
Lymph node biopsy
|
Medicine
|
Infection
|
5bd3cf47-d36b-47d1-8cdf-7b8ff779b374
|
single
|
In spinal anaesthesia the drug is deposited between :
| null | 2
|
Dura and arachnoid
|
Pia and arachnoid
|
Dura and vertebra
|
Into the cord substance
|
Pharmacology
| null |
9cd9ba17-39f0-44cb-938c-fb3517252d37
|
single
|
CD marker of histiocytosis is-
|
Tumour cells in histiocytosis typically express HLA -DR,S-100,and CD1a. Reference : Robbins and Cotran Pathologic basis of disease.South Asia Edition volume 1.page no. 622
| 1
|
CD IA
|
CD 1B
|
CD1C
|
CD1D
|
Pathology
|
Haematology
|
cdab73a7-e2fd-461c-8ac1-57238ddcf964
|
single
|
Methotrexate is used in all except aEUR'
|
Sickle cell anemia Methotrexate in Rheumatoid ahritis Methotrexate is now considered the first line DMARD agent for most patients with Rheumatoid ahritis. - Methotrexate is effective in reducing the signs and symptoms of Rheumatoid ahritis as well as slowing or halting radiographic damage. - It has relatively rapid onset of action at therapeutic doses good efficacy, .ourable toxicity profile, ease of administration and relatively low cost. - The antiinflammaory effect of methotrexate in rheumatoid ahritis appears to be related at least in pa to interruption of adenosine and possible effect on TNF pathways. Which DMARD should be the drug of first choice remains controversial and trials have .failed to demonstrate a consistent advantage of one over the other. - Despite this, methotrexate has emerged as the DMARD of choice especially in individuals with risk factors for the development of bone erosions or persistent synovitis of > 3 months duration because of its relatively rapidity of action, its capacity to effect sustained improvement with ongoing therapy and the higher level of patient retention on therapy. Methotrexate in Psoriasis Methotrexate is a plate antagonist. It causes reduction in cells reproductive abilities. Methotrexate affects cells which divides quickly. - In psoriasis cells divide more than usual. - Methotrexate binds to these cells and inhibits enzymes involved in rapid growth of skin cells. It is commonly used to stop the progression of psoriatic ahritis and less commonly used in the tit of severe psoriasis with no ahritis component. Methotrexate is an effective antipsoriasis agent. It is especially useful in. - Acute generalized pustular psoriasis. - Psoriatic erythroderma - Psoriatic ahritis and - Extensive chronic plaque psoriasis Methotrexate in Ankvlosing spondylitis Methotrexate although widely used has not been shown benefit in ankylosing spondylitis. - There is not enough evidence to be ceain of the benefit and harms of methotrexate for ankylosing sponylitis and more research is needed. In ankylosing spondylitis the use of methotrexate is not recommended for the axial manifestations. - The drug may have some efficacy in the peripheral involvement. - For this disease there is lack of clinical trials and most of the trials did not show efficacy on the axial symptoms of the disease.
| 1
|
> Sickle cell anemia
|
>Psoriasis
|
> Rheumatoid ahritis
|
>Ankylosing spondylitis
|
Pharmacology
| null |
2932dfbf-52c5-4505-9292-a65d80f33210
|
multi
|
An elderly patient with hypeension with diabetes, proteinuria without renal failure, antihypeensive of choice is-
|
Among the currently popular antihypeensive agents, angiotensin-conveing enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, such as captopril and enalapril, have been blamed, albeit rarely, for hepatotoxicity (primarily cholestasis and cholestatic hepatitis, but also hepatocellular injury) .Malignant hypeension (whenIV therapy is indicated) - Labetalol, nicardipine, nitroprusside,enalaprilat are preferred.in case of elderly patients with hypeension,diabetes as well as proteinuria without renal failure,enalapril can be used. ref:Harrison&;s principles of internal medicine,ed 18,pg no 628
| 3
|
Furosemide
|
Methyldopa
|
Enalapril
|
Propranolol
|
Medicine
|
C.V.S
|
f26ab4f3-018f-451d-8f63-d3711b865423
|
single
|
All the following are true about Rheumatoid ahritis except:
|
Answer is D (C Reactive protein indicates better prognosis) Persons who present with high titers of Rheumatoid factor, C Reactive protein and Haptoglobin have a worse prognosis than the individuals who present with Subcutaneous nodules or Radiographic evidence of erosions
| 4
|
Positive for Anti-IgG antibody
|
Juxta-aicular osteoporosis
|
Morning stiffness
|
C Reactive protein indicates better prognosis
|
Medicine
| null |
4e01632f-ad55-4eeb-9d51-02ec0cc7fc68
|
multi
|
Only laryngeal muscle that is innervated bidirectionally is
|
- Interarytenoid muscle is an unpaired muscle in the centre between the 2 arytenoid cailages and is innervated bidirectionally.
| 4
|
Vocalis
|
Posterior cricoarytenoid
|
Lateral cricoarytenoid
|
Interarytenoid
|
ENT
|
Anatomy of Larynx
|
cec6fe41-7afa-45c9-8cbf-306e038a7a86
|
multi
|
Which of the following structures pass through aoic hiatus?
|
The aoic hiatus situated at the level of T12 veebra. Structures passing through aoic hiatus along with aoa are:Thoracic ductAzygos veinHemiazygos vein
| 1
|
Thoracic duct and azygos vein
|
Thoracic duct and gastric aery
|
Vagus nerve with oesophagus
|
Aorla with oesophagus
|
Anatomy
| null |
bc50c0eb-d69b-4ec7-9b2c-f1d1e8920904
|
single
|
Fracture of teeth and some bruises around mouth is: AIIMS 12
|
Ans. Grievous injury
| 2
|
Simple injury
|
Grievous injury
|
Dangerous injury
|
Assault
|
Forensic Medicine
| null |
ac7cd3ab-e6bf-46f5-9e5d-a551557db148
|
single
|
All of the following muscles of pollex are supplied by median nerve, EXCEPT:
|
Pollex means Thumb, which means strong in latin. There are four sho muscles of thumb (pollex), they are abductor pollicis brevis, opponens pollicis, flexor pollicis brevis and adductor pollicis. The first three of these muscles form the thenar eminence. All these muscles are supplied by median nerve except for adductor pollicis which is innervated by ulnar nerve.Ref: Snell's, Clinical Anatomy, 7th edition, Page 542, 543.
| 1
|
Adductor pollicis
|
Opponens pollicis
|
Abductor pollicis brevis
|
Flexor pollicis brevis
|
Anatomy
| null |
d106000c-daf3-4009-b9a6-fe30fe606826
|
multi
|
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor should not be given in : a) Sulfonamide hypersensitivity b) Glaucoma c) High altitude sickness d) Metabolic acidosis e) COPD
| null | 2
|
ace
|
ade
|
abcd
|
a
|
Pharmacology
| null |
2cbf0745-9f76-4ac5-8504-fd1f500dea82
|
single
|
A 50 year old male patient presents to the clinic for routine checkup. He is hypertensive and a type 2 diabetic. Lab investigations reveal plasma cholesterol levels 5.8 mmol/L and RBS 180 mg/dl. Which of the following agents can be used in this patient?
|
When diet changes fail, hypolipidemic drugs can reduce serum cholesterol & triacylglycerol. A family of drugs known as statins have proved highly efficacious in lowering plasma cholesterol and preventing heart disease.
Statins act by inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase and up-regulating LDL receptor activity. Examples currently in use include atorvastatin, simvastatin, fluvastatin and pravastatin.
Ezetimibe reduces blood cholesterol levels by inhibiting the absorption of cholesterol by the intestine by blocking uptake via the Niemann-Pick C-like 1 protein.
Other drugs used include fibrates such as clofibrate, gemfibrozil, and nicotinic acid, which act mainly to lower plasma triacylglycerols by decreasing the secretion of triacylglycerol and cholesterol-containing VLDL by the liver.
High plasma cholesterol levels are >5.2 mmol/L.
Reference: HARPERS ILLUSTRATED BIOCHEMISTRY30th ed Page no 276
| 4
|
Statins
|
Fibrates
|
Nicotinic acid
|
All of the above
|
Biochemistry
| null |
3688ce61-adb7-4696-8e8f-98e0ef95f476
|
multi
|
In which of the mentioned segments of a nephron, Na+ reabsorption primarily occurs by the Na+-H+ exchange?
|
In the PCT, the apical membrane has Na+/H+-antipoer, which couples H+ secretion with the Na+ movement across the apical membrane. In the TAL of loop of Henle:- The sympoer NKCC moves 1 Na+, 1 K+, 2 Cl- through the apical membrane into the cell. In DCT:- The sympoer is NCC. In the late distal tubule and collecting duct:- Na+diffuses across the apical membrane through the epithelial Na+ channel (ENaC).
| 1
|
PCT
|
loop of Henle
|
DCT
|
Collecting duct
|
Physiology
|
Excretory System (Kidney, Bladder) Acid-Base Balance
|
267094b6-c0e7-4c00-8088-ca29fdf50ca6
|
single
|
Antidepressant which is a Presynaptic a-2 receptor blocker which enhance secretion of both norepinephrine and serotonine ?
|
Ans. is'b'i.e., Miazapine MiazapineIt blocks alpha-2 auto-receptors (on NA neurons) and heteroreceptors ( on 5HT-neurons)
| 2
|
Trazodone
|
Miazapine
|
Mianserine
|
Bupropion
|
Pharmacology
| null |
2e13d600-38e1-4324-a7f1-40f456324270
|
multi
|
Perifollicular and petechial hemorrhages are characteristic of-
|
<img src=" /> Image ref Harrison 20th edition pg 67
| 3
|
Acrodermatitis enteropathica
|
Pellagra
|
Scurvy
|
Phrynoderma
|
Medicine
|
Nutrition
|
0ca9b748-d980-4d2f-b6f4-4d9dd7134872
|
single
|
During delivery A gives bih to a stillborn .A conceals the bih by secret disposal of dead .Which of the following statement is false regarding this situation
|
The act done by A the of the stillborn by secretly disposing of the dead and punishment for the same is defined under section ***IPC section 317-Exposure and abandonment of child 12 years by parents Punishment -up to 7 years of imprisonment or fine or both ***318 IPC -Concealment of bih by secret disposal of the body Punishment -up to 2 years of imprisonment or fine or both Reference :Textbook of Forensic Medicine and toxicology 5th edition pg no 156
| 4
|
A can be imprisoned for a maximum of 2 yrs
|
The punishment for the act done by A is defined under section 318 of IPC
|
A is guilty of offence
|
The act done by A is defined under Section of IPC
|
Forensic Medicine
|
Medical Jurisprudence
|
b08cea65-414e-4b6b-9d00-ca3ae7f310cd
|
multi
|
Imaging modality employed in PI-RAD repoing scheme for prostate glands is all except:-
|
PI-RADS is for prostate lesions based on multi-parametric MRI. It includes:- T2 weighted imaging for transitional zone of prostate - Diffusion weighted imaging/ADC score for peripheral zone of prostate- Dynamic contrast enhancement PI-RADS PI-RADS 1 = Very low (clinically significant cancer highly unlikely) PI-RADS 2 = Low (clinically significant cancer unlikely) PI-RADS 3 = Intermediate (clinically significant cancer equivocal) PI-RADS 4 = High (clinically significant cancer likely) PI-RADS 5 = Very high (clinically significant cancer highly likely)
| 1
|
MR spectroscopy
|
Dynamic contrast enhancement
|
Diffusion weighted MRI
|
T2W imaging
|
Radiology
|
Genitourinary radiology
|
f1c7b06f-fa9f-4aed-b571-c29537872560
|
multi
|
37-year-old female patient has a fracture of clavicle. The junction of inner and middle third of the bone exhibits overriding of medial and lateral fragments. The arm is rotated medially, but it is not rotated laterally. Which of the following conditions is most likely to occur secondary to the fractured clavicle?
|
The fractured clavicle may damage the subclan vein, resulting in a pulmonary embolism; cause thrombosis of the subclan aery, resulting in embolism of the brachial aery; or damage the lower trunk of brachial plexus.
| 2
|
A fatal haemorrhage from the brachiocephalic vein
|
Thrombosis of subclan vein, causing a pulmonary embolism
|
Thrombosis of the subclan aery, causing an embolism in ascending aoa
|
Damage to the upper trunk of the brachial plexus
|
Anatomy
|
Upper limb : Miscellaneous
|
410bcdbc-9cf4-4323-a536-5797f918a7c8
|
multi
|
Characteristic of mixed connective-tissue disease are all of the following except: March 2005
|
Ans. A: Hypogammaglobulinemia Manifestations of mixed connective-tissue disease (MCTD) can be variable. Most patients experience Raynaud phenomenon, ahralgia/ahritis, swollen hands, sclerodactyly or acrosclerosis, and mild myositis. The following may be revealed by history or physical examination: Raynaud phenomenon Ahralgia/ ahritis Esophageal hypomotility Pulmonary dysfunction Swollen hands Myositis Rash Leukopenia Sclerodactyly Pleuritis/ pericarditis Pulmonary hypeension Membranous glomerulonephritis Lab investigations shows features of inflammation with elevated ESR and hypergammaglobulinemia
| 1
|
Hypogammaglobulinemia
|
Membranous glomerulonephritis
|
Polyahritis
|
CNS involvement
|
Medicine
| null |
b5b7f7d6-d198-407e-8084-f1ea7d8e97ed
|
multi
|
All of the following statements are true about Frey's Syndrome except
|
FREY 'S SYNDROME (GUSTATORY SWEATING) - Frey's syndrome arises as a complication of parotid surgery usually manifesting several months after the operation.it is characterized by sweating and flushing of the preauricular skin during mastication causing nuisance to the person or social embarrassment. Treatment: -Tympanic neurectomy: Section of tympanic branch of CN IX will interrupt these fibers and give relief. -Antiperspirant: Aluminum chloride -Botulinum toxin: Injected into the affected skin. -Fascia Lata: between skin and underlying fat.
| 4
|
Gustatory sweating
|
Aberrant misdirection of parasympathetic fibers of auriculotemporal nerve
|
Botulinum toxin is one of the treatment suggested
|
Less chances with enucleation than parotidectomy
|
ENT
|
NEET 2019
|
d51b6726-5c50-49bc-9083-9a0b8e77f1a4
|
multi
|
Histopathology of chronic hepatitis shows -
|
Ans. (c) Bridging fibrosis(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 837)Hallmark of progressive chronic liver damage is deposition of fibrous tissue (scarring) Q bridgin fibrosis
| 3
|
Ballooning of hepatocytes
|
Councilman bodies
|
Bridging fibrosis
|
All of the above
|
Pathology
|
Liver & Biliary Tract
|
1e8f2619-9522-4396-a982-e0dbd16130fe
|
multi
|
Which of the following structure is not related to cavernous sinus:
|
Five structures in lateral wall of cavernous sinus
1. Oculomotor nerve
2. Trochlear nerve
3. Ophthalmic nerve
4. Maxillary nerve
5. Trigeminal ganglion
Note: Internal carotid artery wrapped in its venous and sympathetic plexus along with abducent nerve passes through the center of cavernous sinus.
| 2
|
Abducent nerve
|
Optic nerve
|
Ophthalmic nerve
|
Trochlear nerve
|
Unknown
| null |
8e9ec1f2-5bc5-41c8-bf34-abeb58cc083f
|
single
|
Sharp instruments may be sterilized with ?
|
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Hot air
| 3
|
Radiation
|
Lysol
|
Hot air
|
Any of the above
|
Social & Preventive Medicine
| null |
fc0ce44b-84c5-499d-a44b-3e305d9cb63f
|
multi
|
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