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Chronic urethral obstruction due to benign prismatic hyperplasia can lead to the following change in kidney parenchyma
Options: A. Hyperplasia B. Hyperophy C. Atrophy D. Dyplasia Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: C Subject Name: Anatomy Topic Name: Urinary tract
Chronic urethral obstruction because of urinary calculi, prostatic hyperophy, tumors, normal pregnancy, tumors, uterine prolapse or functional disorders cause hydronephrosis which by definition is used to describe dilatation of renal pelvis and calculus associated with progressive atrophy of the kidney due to obstructi...
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Which vitamin is supplied from only animal source:
Options: A. Vitamin C B. Vitamin B7 C. Vitamin B12 D. Vitamin D Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: C Subject Name: Biochemistry Topic Name: Vitamins and Minerals
Answer (c) Vitamin B12 Ref: Harrison's 19th ed. P 640* Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin) is synthesized solely by microorganisms.* In humans, the only source for humans is food of animal origin, e.g., meat, fish, and dairy products.* Vegetables, fruits, and other foods of nonanimal origin doesn't contain Vitamin B12 .* Daily req...
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All of the following are surgical options for morbid obesity except -
Options: A. Adjustable gastric banding B. Biliopancreatic diversion C. Duodenal Switch D. Roux en Y Duodenal By pass Metadata: Choice Type: multi Correct Answer: D Subject Name: Surgery Topic Name: Surgical Treatment Obesity
Answer is 'd' i.e., Roux en Y Duodenal Bypass Bariatric surgical procedures include:a. Vertical banded gastroplastyb. Adjustable gastric bandingc. Roux-en Y gastric bypass (Not - Roux-en Y Duodenal Bypass)d. Biliopancreatic diversione. Duodenal switcho The surgical treatment of morbid obesity is known as bariatric surg...
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Following endaerectomy on the right common carotid, a patient is found to be blind in the right eye. It is appears that a small thrombus embolized during surgery and lodged in the aery supplying the optic nerve. Which aery would be blocked?
Options: A. Central aery of the retina B. Infraorbital aery C. Lacrimal aery D. Nasociliary aretry Metadata: Choice Type: multi Correct Answer: A Subject Name: Ophthalmology Topic Name: None
The central aery of the retina is a branch of the ophthalmic aery. It is the sole blood supply to the retina; it has no significant collateral circulation and blockage of this vessel leads to blindness. The branches of this aery are what you view during a fundoscopic exam. Note: The infraorbital aery is a branch of the...
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Growth hormone has its effect on growth through?
Options: A. Directly B. IG1-1 C. Thyroxine D. Intranuclear receptors Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: B Subject Name: Physiology Topic Name: None
Answer is 'b' i.e., IGI-1GH has two major functions :-i) Growth of skeletal system :- The growth is mediated by somatomedins (IGF). Increased deposition of cailage (including chondroitin sulfate) and bone with increased proliferation of chondrocytes and osteocytes.ii) Metabolic effects :- Most of the metabolic effects ...
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Scrub typhus is transmitted by: September 2004
Options: A. Louse B. Tick C. Mite D. Milk Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: C Subject Name: Social & Preventive Medicine Topic Name: None
Answer C i.e. Mite
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Abnormal vascular patterns seen with colposcopy in case of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia are all except
Options: A. Punctation B. Mosaicism C. Satellite lesions D. Atypical vessels Metadata: Choice Type: multi Correct Answer: C Subject Name: Gynaecology & Obstetrics Topic Name: None
Abnormal vascular pattern include punctation, mosaicism and atypical vessels.
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Per rectum examination is not a useful test for diagnosis of
Options: A. Anal fissure B. Hemorrhoid C. Pilonidal sinus D. Rectal ulcer Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: C Subject Name: Surgery Topic Name: Urology
PILONIDAL SINUS/DISEASE (Jeep Bottom; Driver's Bottom) Pilus--hair; Nidus--nest It is epithelium lined tract, situated sho distance behind the anus, containing hairs and unhealthy diseased granula- tion tissue. It is due to penetration of hairs through the skin into subcutaneous tissue. It forms granuloma/unhealthy gra...
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Characteristics of Remifentanyl – a) Metabolised by plasma esteraseb) Short half lifec) More potent than Alfentanyld) Dose reduced in hepatic and renal diseasee) Duration of action more than Alfentanyl
Options: A. ab B. bc C. abc D. bcd Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: C Subject Name: Anaesthesia Topic Name: None
Remifentanil is the shortest acting opioid due to its metabolism by plasma esterase → dose adjustment is not needed in liver or kidney disease. It is more potent than alfentanil : Order of potency is Sufentanil > Fentanyl = Remifentanil > Alfentanil.
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Hypomimia is ?
Options: A. Decreased ability to copy B. Decreased execution C. Deficit of expression by gesture D. Deficit of fluent speech Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: C Subject Name: Psychiatry Topic Name: None
Answer C. Deficit of expression by gestureHypomimiaHypomimia or amimia is a deficit or absence of expression by gesture or mimicry.This is usually most obvious as a lack of facial expressive mobility (mask - like facies).This is a feature of frontal subcoical disease.
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Naglers reaction is shown by
Options: A. Clostridium tetani B. Clostridium botulinum C. Clostridium perfringens D. Clostridium septicum Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: C Subject Name: Microbiology Topic Name: Bacteriology
Nagler's reaction - when Clostridium perfringens is grown in media containing 6 % agar, 5% Fildes peptic digest of sheep blood and 20% human serum, with antitoxin spread on one half of plate, colonies in the other half without antitoxin will be surrounded by a zone of opacity. No opacity around the colonies on the half...
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Which of the following statements are True/False? 1. Hirsutism, which is defined as androgen-dependent excessive male pattern hair growth, affects approximately 25% of women. 2. Virilization refers to a condition in which androgen levels are sufficiently high to cause additional signs and symptoms. 3. Frequently, patie...
Options: A. 1, 2, 3 True & 4, 5 false B. 1, 3, 5 True & 2, 4 false C. 2, 4, 5 True & 1, 3 false D. 1, 2, 3, 4 True & 5 false Metadata: Choice Type: multi Correct Answer: C Subject Name: Medicine Topic Name: None
Here statement 1 & 3 are wrong. It is actually a direct pick from harrison, an impoant topic for entrance examinations hirsutism is seen in 10% of woman. Acromegaly rarely causes hirsutism. Ref: Harrisons Principles of Medicine, 18th Edition, Pages 380-382
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The pharmakokinetic change occurring in geriatric patient is due to
Options: A. Gastric absorption B. Liver metabolism C. Renal clearance D. Hypersensitivity Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: C Subject Name: Anatomy Topic Name: General anatomy
One of the most impoant pharmacokinetic changes associated with aging is decreased renal elimination of drugs. After age 40, creatinine clearance decreases an average of 8 mL/min/1.73 m2/decade; however, the age-related decrease varies substantially from person to person. Serum creatinine levels often remain within nor...
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True regarding lag phase is?
Options: A. Time taken to adpt in the new environment B. Growth occurs exponentially C. The plateau in lag phase is due to cell death D. It is the 2nd phase in bacterial growth curve Metadata: Choice Type: multi Correct Answer: A Subject Name: Microbiology Topic Name: general microbiology
Lag phase: Immediately following the seeding of a culture medium, there is no appreciable number, though there may be an increase in the size of the cells. This initial period is the time required for the adaptation to the new environment, during which the necessary enzymes and metabolic intermediates are built up in a...
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A 60 yr old chronic smoker presents with painless gross hematuria of 1 day duration. Investigation of choice to know the cause of hematuria
Options: A. USG B. X-ray KUB C. Urine routine D. Urine microscopy for malignant cytology cells Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: D Subject Name: Surgery Topic Name: None
Urine microscopy for malignant cytology "Painless haematuria is by far the most common symptom of bladder cancer and should be regarded as indicative of a bladder carcinoma until proven otherwise." Bailey & Love 25/e p1336 (24/e p1363) Cigarette smoking is the main etiological factor and accounts ,for about 50% of blad...
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With which of the following receptors theophylline has an antagonistic interaction ?
Options: A. Histamine receptors B. Bradykinin receptors C. Adenosine receptors D. Imidazoline receptors Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: C Subject Name: Pharmacology Topic Name: None
The correct answer is: 'Adenosine receptors'
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Hyper viscosity is seen in
Options: A. Cryoglobulinemia B. Multiple myeloma C. MGUS D. Lymphoma Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: A Subject Name: Anatomy Topic Name: General anatomy
Ref William hematology 6/e p1268 The term cryoglobulinemia refers to the presence in the serum of proteins that precipitate at temperatures below 37 degrees C and redissolve on rewarming. ... The elective treatment for hyperviscosity syndrome, whether associated with monoclonal, mixed, or polyclonalcryoglobulinemia, is...
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For a positively skewed curve which measure of central tendency is largest
Options: A. Mean B. Mode C. Median D. All are equal Metadata: Choice Type: multi Correct Answer: A Subject Name: Social & Preventive Medicine Topic Name: Biostatistics
A distribution is negatively skewed, or skewed to the left, if the scores fall toward the higher side of the scale and there are very few low scores. In positively skewed distributions, the mean is usually greater than the median, which is always greater than the mode. Ref :
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The process of hardening a cement matrix through hydration with oral fluids to achieve greater mechanical strength is known as:
Options: A. Maturation B. Setting C. Hardening D. Mineralization Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: A Subject Name: Dental Topic Name: None
Maturation (cement)—The process of hardening a cement matrix through hydration with oral fluids to achieve greater mechanical strength. Ref: Phillip’s Science of Dental Materials ed 12 pg 309
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Superior vena cava is derived from:
Options: A. Aortic arch B. Pharyngeal arch C. Cardinal vein D. Vitelline vein Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: C Subject Name: Anatomy Topic Name: Embryology
Answer C Cardinal veinRef; hangman's essesntial medical Embroyology pg. 57# During early embryonic development (through 4th week), paired cardinal veins drain the body. Anterior cardinal veins drain the head and upper limb buds, while posterior cardinal veins drain the body. Both the anterior and posterior veins on eac...
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Testicular artery usually arises from
Options: A. Abdominal aorta below renal artery B. Renal artery C. Internal iliac artery D. Ext iliac artery Metadata: Choice Type: multi Correct Answer: A Subject Name: Surgery Topic Name: Testis & Scrotum
Answer) a (Abdominal aorta ....) Ref Chaurasia vol 2 pg 186Testicular artery is a branch of abdominal aorta given off at the level of vertebrae L2.Venous drainageVeins emerging from the testis forms pampiniform plexus. Plexus condenses into 4 veins at the superficial inguinal ring & into 2 veins at the deep inguinal ri...
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Position of vocal cord in cadaver is:
Options: A. Median B. Paramedian C. Intermediate D. Full Abduction Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: C Subject Name: ENT Topic Name: None
The vocal fold of the excised larynx is known to be located at an intermediate position(the so-called cadaver position).
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Organisms that has not been cultured successfully so far is-
Options: A. Leptospira B. Treponema pallidum C. Bordetella D. Staphylococcus Metadata: Choice Type: multi Correct Answer: B Subject Name: Microbiology Topic Name: None
The correct answer is: 'Treponema pallidum'
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Normal waist hip ratio of a female is below
Options: A. 0.7 B. 0.8 C. 0.9 D. 1 Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: B Subject Name: Social & Preventive Medicine Topic Name: Non communicable diseases
WHO CUT-OFF POINTS OF WHR Indicator CUT-OFF points Risk of metabolic complications Waist circumference >94 cm (M) >80 cm (W) Increased Hip cirrcumference >102 cm (M) >88 cm (W) Substantially increased Waist-Hip ratio >= 0.95(M) >= 0.80(W) Substantially increased Ref: Park 23rd edition Pgno : 400 WC & WHR, WHO Consultat...
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The most common cause of renal scaring in a 3 year old child is -
Options: A. Trauma B. Tuberculosis C. Vesicoureteral reflux induced pyelonephritis D. Interstitial nephritis Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: C Subject Name: Medicine Topic Name: Kidney
Chronic pyelonephritis is characterized by renal inflammation and scarring induced by recurrent or persistent renal infection, vesicoureteral reflux, or other causes of urinary tract obstruction. VUR is a congenital condition that results from incompetence of the ureterovesical valve due to a sho intramural segment Ref...
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A 6hours old snake bite patient comes to emergency with mild local edema at the injury site. On examination no abnormalities detected and lab repos are normal. Most appropriate management is
Options: A. Incision and suction B. Wait and watch C. Local subcutaneous antisnake venom D. Intravenous antisnake venom Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: B Subject Name: Forensic Medicine Topic Name: Poisoning
All patients with a history of snake bite should be observed for 8-12 h after the bite, if the skin is broken and the offending snake cannot be positively identified as non-poisonous. Ref: Krishnan vij ; 5th ed; Page no: 484
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Which of the following agents is most commonly associated with recurrent meningitis due to CSF leaks?
Options: A. Meningococci B. Pneumococci C. Hemophilus Influenza D. E. Coli Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: B Subject Name: Pediatrics Topic Name: None
Intracranial CSF leaks cause bacterial meningitis, about 80% are caused by S. Pneumoniae. Other causative organisms are meningococcus, Hemophilus species and S.aurues. Ref: Clinical Pediatric Neurology By Ronald B. David, Page 217
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Treatment of choice in traumatic facial nerve injury is:
Options: A. Facial sling B. Facial nerve repair C. Conservative management D. Systemic corticosteroids Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: B Subject Name: ENT Topic Name: Facial Nerve And Its Disorders
(b) Facial nerve repair(Ref. Scott Brown, 6th ed., 1404)Since generally following trauma the facial nerve injury occurs as sudden onset. Facial decompression should be the best option.
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What is the best method of informing the rural population about Oral rehydration technique: March 2013 (d, f)
Options: A. Chalk and talk/Lecture B. Demonstrations C. Role play D. Flash cards Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: B Subject Name: Social & Preventive Medicine Topic Name: None
Answer B i.e. Demonstrations Demonstration involves showing by reason or proof explaining or making clear by use of examples or experiments. Put more simply, demonstration means to clearly show
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Lymph vessel which drain the posterior 1/3 rd of the tongue:
Options: A. Basal vessel. B. Marginal vessel. C. Central vessel. D. Lateral vessel. Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: A Subject Name: Anatomy Topic Name: None
The correct answer is: 'Basal vessel.'
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Risk factors associated with post-operative nausea and vomiting following strabismus surgery are all except -
Options: A. Age < 3years B. Duration of anesthesia > 30 mins C. Personal or family history of post - op nausea and vomiting D. Personal or family history of motion sickness Metadata: Choice Type: multi Correct Answer: A Subject Name: Anaesthesia Topic Name: None
Answer is 'a' i.e., Age < 3 years Post operative nausea and vomiting (PONY) following strabismus surgery It can cause post - op wound dehiscence, hematoma, orbital hemorrhage and aspiration. 30 % of all procedures are associated with PONV. Major risk factors are: Age > 3years Duration of anesthesia > 30 mins Personal o...
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All are True about Acute Osteomyelitis except
Options: A. Common in children B. Severe pain C. Involves Epiphyseal plate D. Treatment involves 6 weeks of Antibiotics Metadata: Choice Type: multi Correct Answer: C Subject Name: Orthopaedics Topic Name: None
The correct answer is: 'Involves Epiphyseal plate'
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Anterolateral ahroscopy of knee is for:
Options: A. To see patellofemoral aiculation B. To see the posterior cruciate ligament C. To see the anterior poion of lateral meniscus D. To see the periphery of the posterior horn of medial meniscus Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: A Subject Name: Orthopaedics Topic Name: Spos Injury
Standard poals in knee ahroscopy Anterolateral poal Almost all the structures within the knee joint can be seen except- posterior cruciate ligament anterior poion of the lateral meniscus periphery of the posterior horn of the medial meniscus in tight knees. Anteromedial poal Additional viewing of lateral compament Post...
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Regarding vaginal candidiasis which one of the following is false:
Options: A. Cottage cheese like secretions are seen B. Intense pruritus C. Most common in non-pregnant women D. Buds and hyphae seen in KOH preparation Metadata: Choice Type: multi Correct Answer: C Subject Name: Gynaecology & Obstetrics Topic Name: Miscellaneous (Obs)
Answer C. Most common in non-pregnant womenCandidiasis is caused by Candida albinism which thrives in an acidic medium with an abundant supply of carbohydrates. It is found commonly in pregnancy, and in patients on oral contraceptives, antibiotics and. corticosteroids. It is also seen in patients with diabetes. It caus...
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25 year old patient Suspected to have a pneumoperitoneum. Patient is unable to stand. Best x-ray view is
Options: A. Left lateral decubitus view B. Right lateral decubitus view C. Supine D. Prone Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: A Subject Name: Radiology Topic Name: None
Left lateral decubitus view demonstrates the air between dense shadow of liver and the abdominal wall.
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What is the most probable poal of entry of Aspergillus?
Options: A. Puncture wound B. Blood C. Lungs D. Gastrointestinal tract Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: C Subject Name: Microbiology Topic Name: Mycology
Aspergillus species are widely distributed on decaying plants, producing chains of conidia. Aspergillus species unlike Candida species do not form the pa of normal flora of humAnswer They are ubiquitous in the environment; hence transmission of infection is mostly exogenous. Aspergillus transmission occurs by inhalatio...
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For TOF management in antenatal period includes ?
Options: A. Balloon valvotomy B. Open hea surgery C. Karyotyping D. Aspirin Metadata: Choice Type: multi Correct Answer: C Subject Name: Pediatrics Topic Name: None
Answer is 'c' i.e., KaryotypingTOF has been associated with untreated maternal diabetes, phenylketonuria, and intake of retinoic acid.Associated chromosomal anomalies occur in 30% cases and include trisomies 21, 18, 13 and 22q11 microdeletion, especially in pulmonary atresia and absent pulmonary valve syndrome (APVS).T...
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What change will be seen in vertebral column in ochronosis-
Options: A. Calcification of disc B. Bamboo spine C. Increased disc space D. None Metadata: Choice Type: multi Correct Answer: A Subject Name: Orthopaedics Topic Name: Anatomy of Bone & Fracture Healing
Answer is 'a' i.e., Calcification of discAlkaptonuria# It is due to deficiency of homogentisate oxidase. As a result homogentisic acid (homogentisate) is excreted execessively in urine, There are three important characteristic features in alkaptonuria-Urine becomes dark after being exposed to air. It is due spontaneous...
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If solid line represent the rigid height, then the following diagram with excessive inter arch space is classified in?
Options: A. Class - 1 B. Class - 2 C. Class - 3 D. Class - 4 Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: B Subject Name: Dental Topic Name: None
The correct answer is: 'Class - 2'
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Pearsonian measure of skewness -
Options: A. Mode - Mean/ SD B. Mean - Mode/ SD C. SD/Mode - mean D. Mean - Mode/ SD Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: B Subject Name: Social & Preventive Medicine Topic Name: None
Answer is b' i.e., Mean-Mode Measures of Skewness o There are following measures of skewness 1. Karl pearson's measure The formula for measuring skewness is divided into a) absolute measure Skewness = Mean - Mode b) relative measure The relative measure is known as the Coefficient of Skewness and is more frequently use...
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Following are the causes of sudden loss of vision except ?
Options: A. Angle closure glaucoma B. Endophthalmitis C. Central serous retinopathy D. Corneal ulceration Metadata: Choice Type: multi Correct Answer: D Subject Name: Ophthalmology Topic Name: None
Answer is 'd' i.e., Corneal ulceration
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All of the following are features of Lymph node histology except
Options: A. Subcapsular sinus present B. Both Efferent and Afferent are present C. Coex and Medulla are present D. Red pulp and White pulp are present Metadata: Choice Type: multi Correct Answer: D Subject Name: Anatomy Topic Name: General anatomy
Red pulp and White pulp are present in spleenHistologically, a lymph node is subdivided into three regions: coex, paracoex, and medulla. All three regions have a rich supply of sinusoids, enlarged endothelially lined spaces through which lymph percolates.The afferent lymph vessels pierce the capsule on the convex surfa...
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During Sx for meningioma, the left paracentral lobule was injured. It would lead to paresis of
Options: A. Rt. Leg and perineus B. Left face C. Right face D. Right shoulder & trunk Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: A Subject Name: Anatomy Topic Name: Cerebrum
Answer is 'a' i.e Rt. Leg and perineum Paracentral lobule:On the medial surface of cerebral hemisphere, the U shaped gyrus around the end of the central sulcus is the paracentral lobule.Motor cortex is located in the precentral gyrus on the superolateral surface of the hemisphere and in the anterior part of the paracen...
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Which of the following bacterial meningitis is associated with sudural effusion?
Options: A. H. influenza B. Neisseria meningitits C. Streptococcus pneumonia D. Enterococcus Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: A Subject Name: Surgery Topic Name: Trauma
Chronic Subdural Empyema It may be primary infection of subdural space from sinusitis focus causing suppuration and pus formation. It can be complication of the chronic subdural haematoma. It is due to secondary bacterial infection of collected clot/fluid. Infection is from sinusitis scalp (common)/through earlier trau...
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All of the following statements are true regarding hyperophy, except:
Options: A. Occurs due to synthesis and assembly of additional intracellular components. B. There is an increase in the size of the cells. C. Cells capable of division respond to stress by hyperophy and hyperplasia. D. There is an increase in the number of cells. Metadata: Choice Type: multi Correct Answer: D Subjec...
The increased size of the cells is due to the synthesis and assembly of additional intracellular structural components. Hyperophy refers to an increase in the size of cells, which results in an increase in the size of the affected organ. Cells capable of division may respond to stress by undergoing both hyperplasia and...
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Glucose sympo occurs with:
Options: A. Na+ B. Ca++ C. K+ D. Cl- Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: A Subject Name: Physiology Topic Name: None
A i.e. Na+
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All are true about temporal arteritis except -
Options: A. Can leads to sudden bilateral blindness B. More corrunon in females C. Worsen on exposure to heat D. Mostly affects elderly Metadata: Choice Type: multi Correct Answer: C Subject Name: Medicine Topic Name: None
The correct answer is: 'Worsen on exposure to heat'
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Of the various modalities used in the treatment of re-threatening effects of hyperkalemia which one of the following as the most rapid onset of action ?
Options: A. Hemodialysis B. Sodium bicarbonate infusion C. Insulin and glucose infusion D. Intravenous calcium gluconate Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: A Subject Name: Medicine Topic Name: None
The correct answer is: 'Hemodialysis'
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In chronic alcoholism the rate limiting component for alcohol metabolism excluding enzymes is/are : (PGI Dec 2008)
Options: A. NADP B. NAD+ C. NADPH D. FADH Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: B Subject Name: Biochemistry Topic Name: Biosynthesis of Fatty Acids and Eicosanoids
Answer : B (NAD+) & C (NADPH) In chronic alcoholism rate limiting component for alcohol metabolism is NAD* & NADPHOxidation of ethanol by alcohol dehydrogenaseQ & NADQ leads to excess production of NADHSome metabolism of ethanol takes place via a cytochrome P450 dependent microsomal ethanol oxidising systme (MEOS) Q in...
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Minimum level of iodine iodized salt reaching the consumer level according to iodine programme should be:-
Options: A. 5 ppm B. 30 ppm C. 15 ppm D. 20 ppm Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: C Subject Name: Social & Preventive Medicine Topic Name: Other NHPs
National Iodine deficiency disorder programme , 1992: - National goitre control programme, 1962 is conveed to NIDDCP, 1992 - Impact indicators: Major indicator - Urinary iodine excretion levels ( generally measured in pregnant women over 24hrs) Others - Neonatal hypothyroidism , Goitre - Level of salt iodinisation: 30 ...
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True statement regarding specific death rates
Options: A. Specific for age and sex B. Identify particular group or groups "at risk" for preventive action C. Find out cause or disease specific D. All of the above Metadata: Choice Type: multi Correct Answer: D Subject Name: Social & Preventive Medicine Topic Name: Concept of Health and Disease
(A1I of the above) (54- Park 20th)Specific death rates - may be (a) cause or disease specific e.g. TB, cancer, accidents (b) Related to specific groups e.g. age specific, sex specific, age and sex specific etc.* Rates can also be made specific for many others variables such as income, religion, race, housing etc.* Spec...
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Pre-exposure prophylaxis for rabies is given on days
Options: A. 0, 3, 7, 14, 28, 90 B. 0, 3, 7, 28, 90 C. 0, 3 D. 0, 7, 28 Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: D Subject Name: Social & Preventive Medicine Topic Name: Communicable diseases
New recommended regimen/Schedule (New guidelines( Type of prophylaxis Regimen Post exposure Intramuscular Essen Regimen (1-1-1-1-1) Day 0,3,7,14,28 Post exposure intradermal Updated Thai Red Cross Regimen (2-2-2-0-2) Day 0,3,7,28 Post exposure in vaccinated individuals Day 0,3 Pre-exposure prophylaxis Day 0,7,21/28 Min...
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Regarding Sjogren's syndrome, all are true except: September 2010
Options: A. Keratoconjuctivitis sicca B. Rheumatoid ahritis C. Epiphora D. Autoimmune in nature Metadata: Choice Type: multi Correct Answer: C Subject Name: Ophthalmology Topic Name: None
Answer C: Epiphora SjOgren's syndrome (also known as "Mikulicz disease" and "Sicca syndrome", is a systemic autoimmune disease in which immune cells attack and destroy the exocrine glands that produce tears and saliva SjOgren's syndrome can exist as a disorder in its own right (Primary Sjogren's syndrome) or it may dev...
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Best indicator of antemoum drowning is :
Options: A. Froth in mouth and nostrils B. Cutis anserina C. Washerman's hand D. Water in nose Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: A Subject Name: Forensic Medicine Topic Name: None
A i.e. Fine froth in mouth & nostril
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Splenomegaly may be a feature of: March 2013
Options: A. Megaloblastic anemia B. Sickle cell anemia C. Thalassemia D. G6PD deficiency Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: B Subject Name: Pathology Topic Name: None
Answer B i.e. Sickle cell anemia Splenomegaly Splenomegaly refers strictly to spleen enlargement, and is distinct from hyperspineism , which connotes overactive function by a spleen of any size. Splenomegaly and hypersplenism should not be confused. Each may be found separately, or they may coexist. Clinically if a spl...
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Gp2b3A inhibitors are all except -
Options: A. Abciximab B. Eptifibatide C. Tirofiban D. Prasugrel Metadata: Choice Type: multi Correct Answer: D Subject Name: Pharmacology Topic Name: Antiplatelets and Fibrinolytics
Answer is 'd' i.e., Prasugrel Glycoproteins lIb / IIIa inhibitorso The platelet glycoprotein mediates platelet aggregation via binding of adhesive proteins such as fibrinogen and Von Willebrand factor.o GP lib / Ilia inhibitors, inhibit platelet aggregation by blocking GPIIb / IlIa.o They are more complete inhibitors t...
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True of case control studies -
Options: A. It proceeds from cause to effect B. Odds ratio can be calculated C. Incidence can be calculated D. Needs many patients Metadata: Choice Type: multi Correct Answer: B Subject Name: Social & Preventive Medicine Topic Name: None
The correct answer is: 'Odds ratio can be calculated'
The system should interpret the question and provide the most medically accurate answer.
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All of the following could include the mechanism or function of oxigenases, EXCEPT:
Options: A. Incorporate 2 atoms of oxygen B. Incorporate 1 atom of oxygen C. Required for hydroxylation of steroids D. Required for carboxylation of drugs Metadata: Choice Type: multi Correct Answer: D Subject Name: Biochemistry Topic Name: None
Carboxylation is a function of carboxylase enzymes which belong to the class of 'Ligases'. It is not a function of oxygenase enzymes. Monoxygenases incorporate one atom of oxygen and play an impoant role in hydroxylation of steroids. Dioxygenases incorporate 2 atoms of oxygen into the substrate. Ref: Harper's Illustrat...
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According to recent SC judgment, doctor can be charged for medical negligence under 304-A, only if: AIIMS 12
Options: A. He is from corporate hospital B. Negligence is from inadveent error C. Simple negligence D. Gross negligence Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: D Subject Name: Forensic Medicine Topic Name: None
Answer Gross negligence
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Which of the following is very difficult to induce antibody -
Options: A. Polysaccharide B. Protein C. Antigen D. Effector Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: A Subject Name: Microbiology Topic Name: Immunology
An antigen is any substance that causes an immune system to produce antibodies against it. Antigens are usually peptides, polysaccharides or lipids. In general, molecules other than peptides (saccharides and lipids) qualify as antigens but not as immunogens since they cannot elicit an immune response on their own. Ref:...
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Prevalence is a:
Options: A. Rate B. Ratio C. Propoion D. None of the above Metadata: Choice Type: multi Correct Answer: C Subject Name: Social & Preventive Medicine Topic Name: Epidemiology
Tools of measurement in epidemics: - Rate = x 1000/ 10000/ 100000 ; a is pa of b - Ratio = a/b ; a is not a pa of b - Propoion = x 100 = % ; a is pa of b Prevalence = No. of all current cases of a disease at a time /Estimated total population at that time X 100 Hence, Prevalence is a propoion (Prevalence is NOT a Ratio...
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S2 is best appreciated in -
Options: A. 3rd left intercostal space B. 2nd right intercostal space C. 4th left intercostal space D. 5th left intercostal space Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: A Subject Name: Medicine Topic Name: General
Answer is 'a' i.e., 3rd left intercostal space o Best areas to auscultate for both components of the second heart sound (A2 and P2) are either the left sternal border at the level of second intercostal space (Pulmonic area) or the left sternal border at the level of third intercostal space (Erb s point).
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Position of limb in posterior dislocation of hip -
Options: A. Flexion, abduction & external rotation B. Flexion, adduction & internal rotation C. Flexion, adduction & external rotation D. Flexion, abduction & internal rotation Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: B Subject Name: Orthopaedics Topic Name: Congenital Dislocation of Hip (C.D.H.)
Answer is 'b' i.e., Flexion, adduction & internal rotation Hip conditionDeformitySynovitisArthritisPosterior dislocationAnterior dislocationFemoral neck fractureIntertrochantric fractureFlexion, abduction, external rotation, apparent lengtheningFlexion, adduction, internal rotation, true shorteningFlexion, adduction, i...
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Drug causing malignant hyperthermia:(Asked twice in the exam)
Options: A. Cisatracurium B. Suxamethonium C. Propofol D. Thiopentone Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: B Subject Name: Anaesthesia Topic Name: Complications Of Anaesthesia
Answer b. SuxamethoniumSuxamethonium is the drug most commonly responsible for causing malignant hyperthermia.'Drugs causing malignant hyperthermia are- succinylcholine (most common cause), halothane (MC inhalational agent), iso/des/sevo/methoxy- fluranes, lignocaine, TCA, MAO inhibitors and phenothiazines.''Thiopenton...
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Household insectiside used for malaria-
Options: A. Malathion B. Pyrethrum C. Paris green D. Permethrin Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: A Subject Name: Social & Preventive Medicine Topic Name: Environment and Health
Answer is 'a' i.e., Malathion* Insectisides used for control of malaria are-i) Residual sprapy-# In residual spray, spraying of houses with residual insectisides is done. Residual insectisides remains active over extended periods i.e., they have residual action even after the time of spray.# Commonly used residual inse...
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False about obstructive jaundice
Options: A. Unconjugated bilirubin B. Pruritus C. Pale stools D. Icterus Metadata: Choice Type: multi Correct Answer: A Subject Name: Anatomy Topic Name: G.I.T
Obstructive jaundice Most common surgical cause of obstructive jaundice is CBD stones Characterized by dark urine, pale coloured stools, icterus and Pruritus Presence of urobilinogen in urine rules out obstructive jaundice USG is the best test to differentiate medical from surgical jaundice Unconjugated bilirubin is no...
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All of the following structure lies outside the cavernous sinus except
Options: A. Sphenoidal air sinus B. Internal carotid aery C. Foramen lacerum D. Maxillary nerve Metadata: Choice Type: multi Correct Answer: D Subject Name: Anatomy Topic Name: Head and neck
structures outside the sinus: 1. Superiorly: optic tract, optic chiasma, olfactory tract, internal carotid aery and anterior perforated substance. 2.inferiorly: foramen lacerum and the junction of the body and greater wing of the sphenoid bone 3.medically: hypophysis cerebri and sphenoidal air sinus 4.laterally: tempor...
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Which of the following is the best procedure done for intrapaum fetal monitoring:
Options: A. Fetal echocardiography B. Fetal scalp pH C. Continuous electrical fetal hea monitoring D. Physical examination Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: C Subject Name: Gynaecology & Obstetrics Topic Name: Intra Uterine Growth Restriction, Intrapaum and Antepaum Fetal Surviellance
Electrical Fetal hea monitoring is useful as: (1) Provides accurate information, (2) Helpful in diagnosing fetal distress, (3) Directs about intervention to prevent fetal death or morbidity, (4) It is superior to intermittent monitoring methods.
The system should interpret the question and provide the most medically accurate answer.
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Which of the following is measured by the device, Bellow's spirometer?
Options: A. TLC B. RV C. Closing volume D. ERV Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: D Subject Name: Physiology Topic Name: None
The spirometer is a simple device for measuring gas volumes. The frequently used water spirometer, rolling seal spirometer and bellows spirometer. The last two are not water-filled and are more poable. The VT, IRV, ERV, IC, and VC can all be measured with a spirometer (as can the forced expiratory volume in 1 second , ...
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Which of the following is a newly emerging food poisoning organism
Options: A. Salmonella typhimurium B. Enterococcus C. Diphtheria D. Pseudomonas Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: A Subject Name: Microbiology Topic Name: Enterobecteriaceae
Answer: a (Salmonella typhimurium) Ref: Ananathanarayan,7th ed, p. 303Of the above given, S. typhimurium causes food poisoningSalmonella gastroenteritisS. typhimurium is the most common cause of food poisoning due to salmonella species.Incubation period--6-24 hrsFood poisoning is never caused by S. typhi. Source of tra...
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Atherosclerosis initiation by fibroblast plaque is mediated by injury to ?
Options: A. Smooth muscle B. Media C. Adventitia D. Endothelium Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: D Subject Name: Pathology Topic Name: None
Answer is 'd' i.e., Endothelium The most acceptable hypothesis for the pathogenesis of atherosclerosis is "the response to injury hypothesis". According to this hypothesis, atherosclerosis is a chronic inflammatory response of the aerial wall initiated by injury to endothelium. Pathogenesis of atherosclerosis Following...
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The WBC that is considered “second line of defence” is:
Options: A. Neutrophil B. Eosinophil C. Basophil D. Monocyte Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: D Subject Name: Physiology Topic Name: None
Monocyte is considered as the second line of defence.   Phagocytosis by Macrophages. Macrophages are the end-stage product of monocytes that enter the tissues from the blood. When activated by the immune system, they are much more powerful phagocytes than neutrophils, often capable of phagocytizing as many as 100 bacte...
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Mark the true statement regarding use of Lithium in maniac-depressive psychosis?
Options: A. Monotherapy for acute episodes B. Monitoring of serum concentration is not useful for guiding dose adjustment C. Can result in leucocytosis D. Can result in hypehyroidism on long term use Metadata: Choice Type: multi Correct Answer: C Subject Name: Pharmacology Topic Name: Psychiatric Illness
Lithium Use : Prophylaxis of mania alone, with sedatives in acute mania. Monitoring of S. concentration is significant to know the toxicity of drug S/E of Lithium Lithium use for a long time causes benign and reversible T-wave flattening Seizures Polyuria and compensatory polydipsia Dermatitis, folliculitis, vasculitis...
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Determination of Pulp vitality by pulse oximeter based on:
Options: A. Beer's law. B. Pascal's law. C. Doppler law. D. Poisslues law. Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: A Subject Name: Dental Topic Name: None
Pulse oxymetry- Based on Beer Lambert law Utilization of a probe that transmits red (640 mm) and infrared light Photo detector as a receptor site Different absorption ability of light by oxygenated and deoxygenated haemoglobin leads to changes in the amount of light differently absorbed by the vascular bed before reac...
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An Isograft indicates transfer of tissues between -
Options: A. Unrelated donors B. Related donors C. Monozygotic twins D. From the same individual Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: C Subject Name: Surgery Topic Name: None
The correct answer is: 'Monozygotic twins'
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All of the following are causes of congenital blindness Except
Options: A. Toxoplasmosis B. Congenital rubella C. Vitamin A deficiency D. Cataract Metadata: Choice Type: multi Correct Answer: C Subject Name: Pediatrics Topic Name: All India exam
Causes of congenital blindness:ToxoplasmosisCongenital cataractsGenetic diseaseCongenital rubellaCongenital glaucomaUsher syndrome(Refer: Nelson's Textbook of Pediatrics, SAE, 1st edition, pg no. 318 - 319)
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Hypersecretory glaucoma is seen in –
Options: A. Epidemic dropsy B. Marfan's syndrome C. Hypertension D. Diabetes Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: A Subject Name: Ophthalmology Topic Name: None
"In epidemic dropsy, glaucoma is wide angle glaucoma, with normal chamber and angle. Outflow is within normal limits. The queous shows raised level of histamin, prostaglandin and protein suggesting that glaucoma is hypersecretory". _ Mukherjee
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A 14-year-old girl presents with quadriparesis, facial palsy, winging of scapula and ptosis. There is h/o similar illness in father and brother but less severe. Her CPK level is also raised (500IU/L). She is probably suffering from?
Options: A. Emery-Dreifuss muscular dystrophy B. Becker muscular dystrophy C. Limb-girdle dystrophy D. Scapulofaciohumeral dystrophy Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: D Subject Name: Medicine Topic Name: Myasthenia Gravis and Muscular dystrophy
Facial muscle involvement is not seen with Becker and Limb-girdle muscular dystrophy Emery Dreifuss and Becker are XLR disease so can't be present in a girl child. Hence by exclusion the diagnosis is Dx: Scapulo-Faciohumeraldystrophy. Facio-Scapulo-humeral dystrophy Autosomal dominant inheritance and has an onset in ch...
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Which of the following is true statement regarding human eye
Options: A. Cornea cut off wavelength upto 400 nm B. Normal eye medium will permit wavelength of 400- 700 nm C. Even after cataract surgery UV rays are not penetrated D. Lens will not reflect light Metadata: Choice Type: multi Correct Answer: B Subject Name: Ophthalmology Topic Name: Anatomy
Answer b (normal rye medium will permit wavelength of 400- 700 ntn) Ref: yanoff 3rd ed p 383, internet sitesCornea and lens act as special filters absorbing the more energetic wavelength of the electromagnetic spectrum that can damage the retina. Cornea absorbs wavelength below 295nm where as lens absorbs strongly in t...
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Which of the following muscle is not a hybrid muscle
Options: A. Pectoralis major B. Extensor digitorum C. Flexor digitorum profundus D. Brachialis Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: B Subject Name: Surgery Topic Name: None
Extensor digitorum Hybrid muscles are the muscles having more than one nerve supply Pctoralis major: lateral & medial pectoral nerves Brachialis: additional proprioceptive fibres from radial nerve, in addition to its muscular nerve, musculocutaneous nerve. Extensor digitorum is supplied by the posterior interosseous ne...
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Delayed union of fracture of a bone follo-wing a surgical treatment may be due to
Options: A. Infection B. Inadequate circulation C. Inadequate mobilization D. All of the above Metadata: Choice Type: multi Correct Answer: D Subject Name: Surgery Topic Name: None
D i.e. All
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What is the pressure of inspiration?
Options: A. Intrapleuarl B. Transpulmonary C. Trans chest wall D. Alveolar pressure Metadata: Choice Type: multi Correct Answer: A Subject Name: Physiology Topic Name: Respiratory System
Answer: a (Intrapleural) Ref: Ganong,22nd ed,p. 6651The main pressure in lung related to inspiration is intrapleural pressure.Intrapleural pressure.The pressure in the intrapleural space between the lungs and chest wall is intrapleural pressure.Intrapleural pressure changes from -2.5 to -6 mmHg during inspiration. Duri...
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One standard detion in normal standard curev includes value-
Options: A. 50% B. 68% C. 95% D. 100% Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: B Subject Name: Social & Preventive Medicine Topic Name: Biostatistics
Ref:Parks 23rd edition pg 849. 1SD : confidence limit = 68% 2SD : confidence limit = 95% 3SD : confidence limit = 99.7%
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Foam cells are seen in infection with which virus ?
Options: A. Measles B. EBV C. Molluscum contagiosum D. RSV Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: B Subject Name: Microbiology Topic Name: None
Answer is 'b' i.e., EBV EBV encephalomyelitis shows :Abnormal white matter with perivascular infiltrates of inflammatory cells and foam cells.Some myelin is replaced by lipid-filled macrophages and hyperplastic astrocytes.
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During extraction of the upper first molar, the mesio buccal root is missing and is suspected to have been pushed into the maxillary sinus. The best position for the patient immediately after the incident is
Options: A. To position the patient upright B. To position the patients in a semi inclined posture to visualize the perforation C. Trendelenberg position D. Reverse trendelenberg position Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: A Subject Name: Surgery Topic Name: None
The correct answer is: 'To position the patient upright'
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Rescue P.C.I is done for which of the following?
Options: A. Persistent chest pain with ST elevation > 60 min after thrombolysis B. Persistent chest pain with ST elevation > 30 min after thrombolysis C. Persistent Chest pain with ST elevation >90 min after thrombolysis D. Pain with ST elevation for >120minutes after thrombolysis Metadata: Choice Type: single Corre...
Option C = Rescue P.C.I. After thrombolysis ST Elevation begin to reduce If ST Elevation persisting in spite of thrombolysis. So it's failure of thrombolysis | within 90 minutes Rescue PCI Types of PCI Primary PCI done for STEMI (Door to device time < 90 minutes). Delayed PCI done for Unstable Angina NSTEMI Rescue PCI ...
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Fever associated with infection
Options: A. Accelerates bacterial and viral replication B. Left shifts the oxygen dissociation curve C. Is due to interleukin-1 released from CD4 T-helper cells D. Increase oxygen release to tissue Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: D Subject Name: Physiology Topic Name: General physiology
Fever right shifts the oxygen dissociation curve, which allows for a greater release of oxygen to the tissue, making oxygen easily available to neutrophils and monocytes for use in the oxygen-dependent myeloperoxidase system of bactericidal killing. Having more oxygen available to tissue also enhances wound healing. In...
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Last organ to putrefy in females is?
Options: A. Liver B. Uterus C. Brain D. Breast Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: B Subject Name: Forensic Medicine Topic Name: Injuries
Answer is 'b' i.e., Uterus Order of putrefactiono Order of appearance of putrefaction from earliest to last is : larynx, trachea > stomach, intestine > spleen, liver > brain, lungs > heart > kidney, bladder > uterus/prostate > bone.o Amongst the soft tissues uterus in female and prostate in malesm are last to undergo p...
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Hamartomatous lung tissue is?
Options: A. Hypoplasia of lung B. Congenital cyst C. Lobar sequestration D. Congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: D Subject Name: Pathology Topic Name: Respiration
Answer (d) Congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 670; 8th/pg 679)Congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation (CCAM): Hamartomatous Q or dysplastic lung tissue, usually confined to one lobe.
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Test for diagnosis of pyogenic meningitis is?
Options: A. Widal B. CSF PCR C. CSF examination D. PET scan Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: C Subject Name: Microbiology Topic Name: Bacteria
Answer: (C) CSF examinationREF: Harrison 17th ed chapter 376The diagnosis of bacterial meningitis is made by examination of the CSF. The need to obtain neuroimaging studies (CT or MRI) prior to LP requires clinical judgment.A broad-range PCR can detect small numbers of viable and nonviable organisms in CSF and is expec...
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Causes of thickened gallbladder wall on ultrasound examination are all except:
Options: A. Postprandial state B. Cholecystitis C. Congestive cardiac failure D. Kawasaki disease Metadata: Choice Type: multi Correct Answer: D Subject Name: Radiology Topic Name: Abdominal Radiography
Answer: D (Kawasaki disease) Ref: Manual of Emergency Critical Care Ultrasound Vicke E Noble. 2nd ed. Pg 156Explanation:Kawasaki disease is associated with hydrops of gallbladder.Gallbladder Wall Thickening A gallbladder wall that is thickened is a sign of inflammation. This is a non-specific finding, and many other pa...
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In caloric test, cold water stimulation causes movement of eye -
Options: A. Some side B. Opposite side C. Up D. Do\vn Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: B Subject Name: ENT Topic Name: Assessment of Vestibular Function
Answer is 'b' i.e., Opposite side [Ref: Dhingra 5th/e p. 48}o Each ear is irrigated twice : once with cold water (70C below the body temperature, i. e. 300C) and then with warm water (70C above the body temperature, i.e. 440C).o Cold water provokes nystagmus towards the opposite ear, while warm water provokes nystagmus...
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Which of the following is not false about annual risk of TB
Options: A. ARI of 1% = 75 new cases B. Current ARI in India is 1.7% C. It is represents new cases of TB D. It is assessed by tuberculin conversion in previously non-vaccinated children Metadata: Choice Type: multi Correct Answer: D Subject Name: Social & Preventive Medicine Topic Name: Communicable diseases
Incidence of TB infection (Annual infection rate, Annual risk of Infection ARI) : Percentage of population under study who will be newly infected (not diseased or cases) with TB among Non-infected in 1 year. Expresses attacking force of TB in community In developing countries 1% ARI corresponds to: 50 SS +ve cases per ...
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A 12-year-old girl presents to the casualty with symptoms of fever, shoness of breath, and cough. A chest X-ray reveals complete consolidation of the lower lobe of the left lung. Cultures of the lower lobe of the left lung would most likely reveal which organism?
Options: A. Streptococcus pneumoniae B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Klebsiella pneumoniae D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: A Subject Name: Microbiology Topic Name: None
The history and findings are consistent with a lobar pneumonia. The most common etiologic agent of lobar pneumonia is Streptococcus pneumoniae. ESSENTIALS OF DIAGNOSIS Productive cough, fever, rigors, dyspnea, early pleuritic chest pain Consolidating lobar pneumonia on chest radiograph Lancet-shaped gram-positive diplo...
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IgA deposits on skin biopsy
Options: A. Henoch Schouleiln puspura B. Giant cell aeritis C. Microscopic polyangitis D. Wegener's granulomatosis Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: A Subject Name: Skin Topic Name: None
A.i.e. Henosch Schonlein purpura
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A Dentin 'Primer'?
Options: A. Etches the dentin B. It increases the surface energy & wets the dentin surface C. Removes the smear layer D. Conditions the dentin Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: B Subject Name: Dental Topic Name: None
The correct answer is: 'It increases the surface energy & wets the dentin surface'
The system should interpret the question and provide the most medically accurate answer.
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Which of the following hormonal activity is expected immediately prior to Ovulation?
Options: A. LH surge B. FSH surge C. Progestrone surge D. Estrogen surge Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: A Subject Name: Physiology Topic Name: None
Ovulation occurs due to the effect of increased concentration of LH. In the pre-ovulatory phase of the menstrual cycle, the ovarian follicle will undergo a series of transformations called cumulus expansion, which is stimulated by FSH. This is followed by LH surge.
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Following are fibrous joints :
Options: A. Pubic symphysis B. Fronto parietal suture C. Manubrio sternal joint D. Inf. radio ulnar joint Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: B Subject Name: Anatomy Topic Name: None
B. i.e. Frontoparietal sutureSkull sutures (except sphen-occipital), vomer- sphenoid rostrum schindylesisQ, inferior tibiofibular syndesmosis and dentoalveolar gomphosis (tooth socket) joints are fibrous joints. A Schindylesis is a specialized suture where a rigid bone fits into a groove on a neighbouring element eg a ...
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For exhumation the order should be passed by -
Options: A. Chief judicial magistrate B. Executive magistrate C. Police officer D. Session judge Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: B Subject Name: Forensic Medicine Topic Name: None
The body is exhumed only when, there is written order from the executive magistrate.
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The radiograph of a 32 year old patient is shown below. The patient is asymptomatic and the lesion revealed in the radiograph is an accidental finding. The most likely diagnosis is:
Options: A. Stafne’s bone cavity B. Radicular Cyst C. Dentigerous cyst D. Lateral periodontal cyst Metadata: Choice Type: single Correct Answer: A Subject Name: Radiology Topic Name: None
Radiological signs: The lesion presents as a chance radiographic finding. It is a round or an ovoid (<3 cm) uniform radiolucency with a well-defined, usually corticated, margin. Stafne’s bone cavity is non-expansile and is found below the mandibular canal just anterior to the angle of the mandible. The location of Staf...
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