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Which of the following characteristics is not of much impoance in a screening test
High specificity All are impoant attributes of screening test but among them high specificity is less impoant as Park states -'Screening test is not intended to be a diagnostic test. It is only an initial examination. Those who are found to have positive test results are refen-ed to a physician for fuher diagnostic wor...
4
Low cost
High safety margin
High sensitivity
High specificity
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
6a8cedf9-21c8-4a97-a4a3-2426d5352004
single
Causes of iron deficiency anemia are-a) CRFb) Young malec) Celiac sprued) Hook worme) Carcinoma cecum
null
2
bce
acde
abcd
abde
Medicine
null
96452419-6636-48c7-a6d0-e1d684b1cbf4
single
which of the following is a tri cyclic antidepressant
knowlede about the classes of antidepressents is very impoant as they are frequently asked in examinations amitriptilline is a tri cyclic antidepressent Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inibitor trazadone is a serotonin antagonist and reuptake inhibitor (SARI) Bupropion is a Noradrenaline and Dopamine reupt...
1
amitryptilline
fluoxetine
trazadone
bupropion
Anatomy
Pharmacotherapy in psychiatry
5b399597-9652-4958-8e90-3d218c133b7f
single
A 30–year old male presents with severe chest pain, breathlessness, hypotension and ECG shows ST elevation in V3, V4, V5 and. V6 leads. He will be best treated with:
null
4
Streptokinase
t–PA
Heparin
PTCA
Pharmacology
null
25f303c5-c69f-4dcd-be9e-4f3083767a78
single
thrombocytopenia is the side effect of which drug
LETHAL SIDE EFFECTS OF VALPROATE - Hyperammonemia - Pancreatitis - Hepatic failure - Neural tube defects - Thrombocytopenia MINOR SIDE EFFECTS OF VALPROATE - Hair loss - PCOD - WEIGHT GAIN - TREMORS Ref.kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no. 935
1
valproate
clonazepam
aripiprazole
amisulpride
Anatomy
Pharmacotherapy in psychiatry
c01abea7-7ffe-42eb-b6a9-34d15880b196
single
The intiating mechanism in endotoxic shock is
Ref Robbins. 9/e p132-133 Endothelial injury is also a cause..see the above questions In gram-negative sepsis, free LPS attaches to a circulating LPS-binding protein, and the complex then binds to the CD14 receptor on monocytes, macrophages, and neutrophils. Engagement of CD14 (even at doses as minute as 10 pg/mL) resu...
4
Peripheral vasodilation
Endothelial injury
Increased vascular permeability
Cytokine release
Anatomy
General anatomy
8fe21cce-6639-4ace-a59f-9c4b1a720bef
single
What % of drug is eliminated by first order kinetics after four half-life cycles?
Ans. a (93.75 %). (Ref. KDT, Pharmacology, 4th ed., 53)Elimination of drugsZero order eliminationRate of elimination is constant regardless of C (i.e., constant amount of drug eliminated per unit time). Cp linearly with time. Examples of drugs--ethanol., phenytoin aspirin (at high or toxic concentrations).First order e...
1
93.75%
87.50%
75.00%
50.00%
Pharmacology
General Pharmacology
b8225ec8-8461-4ede-b757-f651354feb30
single
Anti-DNAase B is used for diagnosis of
Antideoxyribonuclease B ( anti-DNA as B)antibody: serological test to determine streptococcal infection. Anti-DNAase B and antihyaluronidase test are very useful for retrospective diagnosis of streptococcal pyogenes infections, where ASO titer may be low. Ref: Textbook of Microbiology; Ananthanarayanan and Panicker; 10...
2
Staphylococcus
Streptococcus
Corynebacterium
Neiserria
Microbiology
Bacteriology
95ca07c4-e6bc-40cc-9bb7-3ecd6f517910
single
Which statement is not true about Perthes disease?
Ans. C. The bone age is same as that of the chronological ageThe bone age is typically lower than the chronological age by 1-3 years.Since the blood supply of the femoral capital epiphysis is affected, it is characterized by avascular necrosis and disordered enchondral ossification of the primary and secondary centers ...
3
It is characterized by avascular necrosis
More common in males
The bone age is same as that of the chronological age
All are true
Orthopaedics
Miscellaneous
3c494767-2e87-4648-a77e-f8386c5c2746
multi
Mostly granulosa cell tumors are benign. Marker for granulosa cell tumor is:
Granulosa Cell Tumor: Most are benign; however, between 5 and 25% are malignant. The tumors can produce estrogen, thus leading to endometrial hyperplasia and cancer. Microscopic morphology of granulosa cell tumor shows Call-Exner bodies (appear similar to ovarian follicle), and produce inhibin, which can be identified ...
2
CA 19-9
CA 50
Inhibin
Teratoma
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
a395398e-aa48-4b4e-81b2-24c909683872
single
Most common Paraneoplastic syndrome of HCC
Para neoplastic syndromes in HCC Hypocholesterolemia(most common) Hypoglycemia Erythrocytosis Hypercalcemia Ref:Sabiston 20th edition Pgno : 1458-1463
1
Hypoglycemia
Hypeension
Hypercalcaemia
Erythrocytosis
Anatomy
G.I.T
0585563f-db79-458c-a2b8-50540502f2ee
single
APGAR score includes following parameters except
Ans. c (Blood pressure) (Ref Text book of PSM by Park 22nd/492)APGARSCALE# In 1953, American anesthesiologist, Virginia Apgar, published her new method for evaluating the newborn infant. This scoring system which became known as the APGAR scale later evolved into the standard for medical practice.# The test is administ...
3
Heart rate
Muscle tone
Blood pressure
Body tone
Social & Preventive Medicine
Obstetrics, Paediatrics and Geriatrics
3477d6c0-e927-4e15-9ea1-81921a376762
multi
Which of the following ion is absorption in proximal convoluted tubule?
Maximum sodium reabsorption occours in PCT. Ref: Ganong's review of medical physiology; 24th edition; page no: 681
1
Na+
Urea
K+
Mg+
Physiology
Renal physiology
2aa41409-8860-4856-b79b-f74cfcd45b11
single
The postoperative quality of life (QOL) scores of 200 prostate cancer patients have a mean of 60 and a standard detion of 10. How many patients are expected to have a QOL score between 40 and 80?
The values enclosed in a normal distribution curve are:Mean +- 1 SD 68% of data Mean +- 2 SD 95% of dataMean +- 3 SD 99% of dataIn the above question,Mean = 60SD = 10Hence, the range of values from 40 to 80 i.e. 60 +- 20 (Mean +- 2 SD) would include 95% of the readings.Therefore, the total number of readings in the giv...
1
190
136
120
140
Microbiology
All India exam
8000c837-6d44-4898-80c6-49e19de8a2a6
single
A 40 year old male patient came for routine checkup. Intra-oral examination reveal multiple teeth restored with silver amalgam restoration. Linear coefficient of thermal expansion of this restoration is?
Amalgam has a linear coefficient of thermal expansion that is 2.5 times greater than tooth structure, and it does not bond to tooth structure (unless an amalgam bonding agent is used).  Sturdevant’s Art and Science of Operative Dentistry, Mosby, 4th Edition, Page No: 155
4
5 times greater than tooth structure
2 times greater than tooth structure
3 times greater than tooth structure
2.5 times greater than tooth structure
Dental
null
30995109-2ebe-4b4d-b943-1bac84e778dd
single
which cranial nerve is present arround the origin of occipital aery of lower end of sternocleidomastoid muscle ?
hypoglossal nerve hooks arround the origin of occipital aery of lower end of sternocleidomastoid muscle ref : bd chaursia
3
spinal accesory cranial nerve
superior laryngeal nerve
hypoglossal nerve
petrosal nerve
Anatomy
All India exam
2a3a259d-d58a-4eeb-92f7-7b78c1fad52f
single
Husband having a suspicion that his wife is having affair with another man, diagnosis is
A delusion is false, firm (unshakeable) belief that is not accepted by other members of patient’s culture and society. Above is an example of delusion of infidelity (morbid jealousy, Othello syndrome) i.e. False belief that one's lover has been unfaithful. Persecutory delusions (paranoid) : The patient feels that he is...
1
Delusion
Illusion
Hallucination
Delirium
Psychiatry
null
89015da4-646e-473b-8dbd-4484e98deab0
multi
Good pasture's syndrome is characterised by -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Necrotizing hemorrhagic interstitial pneumonitis Goodpasture syndromeo Goodpasture syndrome is a rare condition characterized by rapid destruction of the kidney and diffuse pulmonary hemorrhage.o It is an autoimmune disease characterized by presence of circulating autoantibodies targeted against basem...
1
Necrotisting hemorrhagic interstitial pneumonitis
Alveolitis
Patchy consolidation
Pulmonary edema
Pathology
Glomerular Diseases
8b308da1-b9b5-41ed-98cb-4453ee1d11cc
single
Which of the following is the major site of erythropoietin production during the fetal stage?
Erythropoietin is produced in the fetal liver in the first and second trimester.After bih, the major site of production is in the kidney.(Refer: Nelson's Textbook of Pediatrics, SAE, 1st edition, pg no. 2305 - 2306)
1
Liver
Yolk sac
Bone
Spleen
Pediatrics
All India exam
f99295fa-7fb4-4cef-aad2-84f36fa583ff
single
Bristow elevator is used in:
null
1
Gillies approach.
Keen's technique.
Both of the above.
None.
Surgery
null
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multi
Parents of a 7 year old girl are concerned about the spacing between her front teeth. She has a habit of thumb sucking till date. Intra Oral Findings are skeletal Class I relation, overjet present & spacing in the anterior teeth. This child is expected to show which type of swallowing pattern
The mature or adult swallow pattern appears in some normal children as early as age 3 but is not present in the majority until about age 6 and is never achieved in 10% to 15% of a typical population.  Tongue thrust swallowing in older patients superficially resembles the infantile swallow and sometimes children or adul...
3
Retained infantile swallow
Mature or adult swallow
Classic tongue thrust swallow
Complex tongue thrust swallow
Dental
null
33166311-4058-4c88-a1ba-7d03f84ced96
multi
Which is the commonest abdominal mass in neonate :
The commonest intra - abdominal tumor in first two years of life → Neuroblastoma. The commonest intra - abdominal tumor between 2nd to 5th  year of life → Wilm’s tumor. The commonest intro - abdominal tumor in children (no age specification) → Neuroblastoma. (Wilm's tumor is the second most common abdominal tumor in c...
3
Wilm's tumor
Polycystic kidney
Neuroblastoma
Rhabdomyosarcoma
Pediatrics
null
1bc4d1f2-7093-4a15-bb44-1be1f63b5774
single
A married woman died in unnatural conditions within 5 years of her marriage. Her parents complained of frequent demand of dowry. Her autopsy will be conducted under which section: AI 10; Punjab 10
Ans. Sec. 176 CrPC
2
Sec. 174 CrPC
Sec. 176 CrPC
Sec. 302 IPC
Sec. 304B IPC
Forensic Medicine
null
0fa8fbe2-b593-45d7-80be-84cbbe8d12c2
single
child rolls over by ?
O.P. Ghai 7th ed, page7 Achild rolls over by 5 months
2
3 months
5 months
7 months
8 months
Anatomy
General anatomy
2c1722ef-950e-486c-aca8-450a1263b312
single
Platelet-activating factor is biochemically a
Platelet-activating factor (PAF) (I-alkyl-2-acetyl-sn-glycerol-3- phosphocholine) is synthesized from the corresponding 3-phosphocholine derivatives. It is formed by many blood cells and other tissues and aggregates platelets at concentrations as low as 10 mol/L.
3
Prostaglandin
Glycolipid
Glycerol ether phospholipid
Leukotrienes
Biochemistry
null
72e3ab3e-e6fb-4caf-931a-6c6209a1b385
multi
True about renal secretion----
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Glucose is reabsorbed in proximal tubule
3
Maximum reabsorption in distal tubule
Urea is absorbed 100%
Glucose is reabsorbed in proximal tubule
None
Physiology
null
4ff90cee-b556-4743-bff0-875845f6ed14
multi
World diabetes day is celebrated on ?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., 14th November8 May - World Red Cross Day8th March - International Women's Day14th November -/ World Diabetes Dayl' December - World AIDS Day
3
8th may
8th march
14th November
1" december
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
4811f36f-4846-4e80-ae5c-45fa6dafd801
single
Enzymatic markers of plasma membrane include all except
Markers of Plasma membrane - 5-Nucleotidase, Adenylyl cyclase, Na+K+ ATPase Marker of Endoplasmic reticulum - Glucose-6-phosphatase Markers of Golgi apparatus - GlcNAc transferase I, Golgi mannosidase II, Galactosyl transferase, Sialyltransferase Marker of Mitochondria - ATP synthase, Glutamate dehydrogenase Marker of ...
4
5'-nucleotidase
Adenylyl cyclase
Na+-K+-ATPase
Galactosyl transferase
Physiology
null
b8053c76-55ed-4f1a-aeae-8966957e86a9
multi
According to disabilities ACT 1995. Seventh disability is usually referred to as?
The definition of the term disability as per the provisions of the persons with disability act 1995 disability means :­ Blindness. Low vision. Leprosy cured. Hearing impairment. Locomotor disability. Mental retardation. Mental illness.
2
Neurological abnormality
Mental illness
Substance abuse
Diability due to road traffic accident
Psychiatry
null
e6106c75-74bf-4de0-9937-d5f748a3a282
multi
All are true about peripheral-neuropathy except :
Answer is B (Proximal Muscle Weakness): Symptoms and findings in Peripheral neuropathy whether motor or sensory are generally symmetric and 'graded distally' & not proximally. Involvement of the peripheral nerve explains both, defects in conduction as well as decreased reflexes.
2
Glove and stocking anaesthesia
Proximal muscle weakness
Nerve-conduction deficit
Decreased reflexes
Medicine
null
0441bfa2-bcf5-4cbd-85cc-1cdaa4733fcf
multi
Commonest complication of pancreatic pseudocyst ?
Answer is 'b' i.e. Infection "Other than pain, infection is the most common complication" - Maingot's 10/e, p 1929 Other complications are: Obstruction of GIT Hemorrhage Rupture Pseudoanetoysm - splenic aery is most frequently involved.
2
Rupture
Infection
Obstruction of GIT
Hemorrhage
Surgery
null
bf54dfd8-9b7b-484a-bd37-f4cbe1b77903
single
Which of the following anaesthetic agent causes adrenal suppression –
null
1
Etomidate
Thiopentone
Ketamine
Propofol
Anaesthesia
null
d456a161-f581-418e-8a4a-44f533a4ee81
single
Omeprazole effects are due to: March 2013
Ans. C i.e. Proton pump inhibitor Omeprazole It is a proton pump inhibitor used in the treatment of: - Dyspepsia, - Peptic ulcer disease (PUD), - Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GORD/GERD), - Laryngopharyngeal reflux (LPR) and - Zollinger-Ellison syndrome.
3
Prostaglandin analogue
H, antihistamines
Proton pump inhibitor
Ulcer protective mechanism
Pharmacology
null
3c4ede0e-5148-40ed-bb7f-5f5e6370e316
single
Blood supply of great toe are:
A . i.e. Dorsalis pedis aery
1
Dorsalis pedis aery
Dorsalis pedis aery
Matacarpal aery
Posterior tibial aery
Anatomy
null
389caf1e-08bc-4c0b-9f94-1b62b6276f5d
single
All of the following muscles are supplied by recurrent laryngeal nerve except
Cricothyroid is supplied by external laryngeal branch of superior laryngeal nerve
1
Cricothyroid
Arytenoid
Cricoarytenoid
None
Anatomy
null
7236c633-eb43-4305-8d5b-44076cb61b0f
multi
Uronic acid pathway does not have role in formation of which glycosaminoglycan proteoglycan?
Glycosaminoglycans are heteropolysaccharide (heteropolysaccharides are polysaccharides which contain two or more different monosaccharide unit or their derivates).Glycosaminoglycans are linear (unbranched) polysaccharides, with repeating diasaccharide units. Each disaccharide unit consists of an amino sugar and an acid...
1
Keratan sulfate
Chondroitin sulphate
Hyaluronic acid
Heparan sulphate
Biochemistry
null
7e080e57-4eec-4fca-bb60-9211849b93de
single
15 months old child feeding on cow milk with water wih severe wasting and bipedal edema with poor appetite ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Kwashiorkar
1
Kwashiorkar
Marasmus
Both
None
Pediatrics
null
1d7ed2fb-68e3-450c-8474-54664af210de
multi
Which of the following has cytoplasmic receptor:
null
4
Epinephrine
Insulin
FSH
Cortisol
Pharmacology
null
66403b10-e00f-4673-870d-dd2bd4868698
single
The following pathological features are associated with Plasmodium falciparum except-
Pathology Red cells infected with malaria are prone to haemolysis. This is most severe with P. falciparum, which invades red cells of all ages but especially young cells; P. vivax and P. ovale invade reticulocytes, and P. malariae normoblasts, so that infections remain lighter. Anaemia may be profound and is worsened b...
4
Cytoadherence
Sequestration
Rosetting
Tissue phase
Medicine
Infection
09e82fa4-121e-45e9-abb4-a31ec9441348
multi
The most common presentation of a blue rubber bleb nevus syndrome is:
Blue rubber bleb nevus syndrome is a rare disorder characterized by the development of cavernous hemangiomas, most commonly involve the skin and the GI tract. The most common presentations of blue rubber bleb nevus syndrome are either the appearance of the skin lesions alone or iron deficiency anemia. Ref: American Gas...
1
Asymptomatic iron deficiency anemia
Cardiac conduction defects
Renal aminoaciduria
Painful peripheral neuropathy
Medicine
null
5a7144e1-c1c7-4459-8a65-953340a9eed6
single
Flumazenil is used for reversing the respiratory depression caused by which one of the following drugs?
null
2
Fentanyl
Midazolam
Propofol
Ketamine
Pharmacology
null
4c916921-6959-473f-9588-dc5d79e8b21c
single
Which test can detect facial nerve palsy occurring due to the lesion at the outlet of stylomastoid foramen -
Injury at stylomastoid foramen causes LMN palsy, so the face sags and drawn across to the opposite side. Chorda tympani is spared at this level, taste sensation over anterior 2/3 of tongue is preserved.
1
Deviation of angle of mouth towards opposite side
Loss of taste sensation in anterior 2/3 of tongue
Loss of sensation over right cheek
Deviation of tongue towards opposite side
ENT
null
54c559f3-0d2d-4a92-b9f4-593e4f0417f6
single
Conn's syndrome is associated with all the following, except:
Conn's syndrome is associated with metabolic alkalosis, not with metabolic acidosis. Conn's syndrome refers to primary hyperaldosteronism due to an adrenal adenoma. Increased aldosterone secretion results in hypokalemia from increased excretion of potassium and metabolic alkalosis due to increased hydrogen ion secretio...
4
Hypeension
Hypokalemia
Muscle weakness
Metabolic acidosis
Medicine
null
aa95c115-57a9-4049-8635-c4bbe40c3e76
multi
From 1st Jan 2007 to 30th June 2007, 22 new cases of tuberculosis were reported per 1,65,000 population. But during this period 120 suspected cases of TB were registered. What will be the incidence rate?
null
1
133 Per 10,00,000 population
90 Per 10,00,000 population
75 Per 10,00,000 population
270 Per 10,00,000 population
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
a8da7d91-75f5-450d-966f-d3a5ba9c6369
single
DNA is selected for genetic information compared to RNA because
The presence of the oxygen atom in the 2nd carbon of RNA make it more prone to spontaneous hydrolysis DNA is much more stable, the half-life of spontaneous hydrolysis is about 200 million years The possibility of mutations occurring and remaining unidentified is more with uracil since cytosine can be easily deaminated ...
1
It is stable
Double stranted compared to RNA
Two strands are complementary
I has genes
Biochemistry
Metabolism of nucleic acids
08f6efe6-812a-4e35-9669-43519a2c7f85
single
Least A-V O2 difference is seen in ?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Cyanide poisoning
4
Hypoxic hypoxia
Anemic hypoxia
Stagnant hypoxia
Cyanide poisoning
Physiology
null
ca90cc5d-eab9-4028-ab3e-c105b0fffe85
single
The complication least likely to occur in a pseudocyst of the pancreas
Pseudocyst complications Infection (MC) :14% Pain due to expansion Hemorrhage upto 10% Duodenal obstruction Rupture Abscess Ref: Shackelford 7th edition Pgno :1159
4
Hemorrhage
Rupture
Infection
Carcinomatous change
Anatomy
G.I.T
da9670b6-4737-40c6-bc39-ba1393755c18
single
Maximum dose of lignocaine with adrenaline is (in mg/ kg)
Ans. c (7). (Ref. Harrisons Medicine, 18th/735)LIGNOCAINE# Maximum safest dose 3 mg/kg or 200 mg and with adrenaline 7 mg/kg or 500 mg.# Duration of effect 45 to 60 min and with adrenaline it is 2-3 hours.# Should not be given in patients with history of malignant hyperthermia.# Concentration usedo Surface topical anal...
3
4
2
7
10
Anaesthesia
Local and Regional Anesthesia
d86b98eb-c7ef-4052-ab4e-2b0c78dcdd58
single
Which of the following includes inflammatory bowel disease in children -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Regional ileitis Inflammatory bowel disease o Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is used to represent two distinct disorders of idiopathic intestinal inflammation : i) Crohn disease or regional ileitis ii) Ulcerative colitis
3
Coeliac disease
Tropical sprue
Regional ileitis
Cystic fibrosis
Pediatrics
null
510bb2c9-e6cc-46c4-b836-263b513f8c36
single
Which of the following serves as the MOST DIAGNOSTIC sign of Pregnancy?
Ans. C. Foetal heart soundsPresence of fetal heart sounds is considered to be one of the most diagnostic signs of pregnancy.Other absolute signs of pregnancy are mentioned as follows:* Perception of active fetal movements and Palpation of fetal parts.* Ultrasonographic evidence of gestational sac and embryo in early pr...
3
Amenorrhoea
Quickening
Foetal heart sounds
Distention of abdomen
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Diagnosis of Pregnancy
7cabe561-11cd-4a69-b653-abd9faa09928
single
Which one of the following patterns of visual disturbance would be predicted to be demonstrable on examination of this patient?
Answer A. Inferior hemifield lossDilated ophthalmoscopy of this left eye illustrates a nonrefractile plaque in the proximal superior retinal artery with retinal whitening in the superior macula signifying retinal ischemia. Superior retinal ischemia will result in a defect in the inferior visual field, as in this patien...
1
Inferior hemifield loss
Temporal quadrantanopsia
Uniocular blindness
Macular sparing hemianopia
Medicine
C.N.S.
c431288a-8db5-4886-a417-474f8e240dc8
single
Denominator while calculating the secondary attack rate includes -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., All susceptible amongst close contact Secondary attack rate (SAR) SAR is defined as "the number of exposed persons developing the disease within the range of incubation period, following exposure to primary case".
3
All the people living in next fifty houses
All the close contacts
All susceptible amongst close contact
All susceptible in the whole village
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
47f97c1f-a28e-4c5c-8ab0-34a63cbca798
multi
All of the following are therapeutic uses of penicillin G, except -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Rickettsial infection Antibacterial spectrum of Penicillin G (Benzyl Penicillin) o PnG is a narrow spectrum antibiotic o Activity is limited primary to gram positive bacteria (and few others). o Amongst gram negative organisms, penicillin has activity against gonococci, meningococci, few Ecoli & prote...
2
Bacterial meningitis
Rickettsial infection
Syphilis
Anthrax
Pharmacology
null
4db6f28c-a8a1-4469-8d2d-6e9f0a910264
multi
Sheehan syndrome is due to:
Ans: b (Pituitary haemorrhage) Ref:Harrison, 16th ed, p. 2078Sheehan syndrome refers to panhypopituitarism after postpartum pituitary apoplexy.Apoplexy is an endocrine emergency that may result in severe hvpoglycaemia. hypotension. CNS haemorrhage and death.The hyperplastic enlargement of the pituitary during pregnancy...
2
Adrenal haemorrhage
Pituitary haemorrhage
Hypothalaamic hemorrhage
Pancreatic haemorrhage
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Miscellaneous (Gynae)
467199b8-81d2-477c-aea5-7b59224bcf45
single
Lymes disease all are true except ?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Polymorphonuclear leucocytosis in C.S.F. suggests meningeal involvement Spread of infection and immune response in lyme disease Borrelia burgdorferi is transmitted to humans the bite of ixodes tick vector Borrelia burgdorferi is inoculated in the skin, where local replication takes place locally and o...
3
Borellia bourgdorferi replicates locally and invades locally
Infection progresses inspite of good humoral immunity
Polymorphonuclear lymphocytosis in CSF suggest meningial involvement
IgA intrathecally confirms meningitis
Microbiology
null
b11dfc3e-a1d5-4256-a29f-ddb08de8e380
multi
The ratio of concentration of drug in co-trimoxazole trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole is:
Trimethoprim is usually given orally, alone or in combination with sulfamethoxazole, which has a similar half-life. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole can also be given intravenously. Trimethoprim is well absorbed from the gut and distributed widely in body fluids and tissues, including cerebrospinal fluid. Because trimetho...
3
1:02
1:03
1:05
3:01
Pharmacology
null
e9841753-72a1-4f8c-8375-a967e4a0bf87
single
Which is the last organ to be dissected during autopsy in asphyxial death?
The autopsy in a case of a suspected asphyxial death has to be thorough including conventional neck dissection protocol. Dissection of the neck is performed after removal of the brain and thoracic organs in order to provide a clean bloodless field for the study of neck organs and prevents any aifactual seepage of blood...
1
Neck
Head
Abdomen
Thorax
Forensic Medicine
null
b1cf0dd3-bf12-41fe-8d87-ee8ada94a093
single
A young man back from leisure trip has swollen knee joints & foreign body sensation in eyes. Likely cause is -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Reiter's syndrome Arthropathy following a recent leisure trip suggests reactive arthritis.Eye involvement points towards Reiter's syndrome.Reactive arthritis refers to acute nonpurulent arthritis, complicating an infection elsewhere in the body.Reiter's syndrome is one of the classic forms of reactive...
1
Reiter's syndrome
Sarcoidosis
Behcet's disease
SLE
Medicine
Miscellaneous (Infection)
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single
Widest spectrum aminoglycoside is –
null
2
Streptomycin
Amikacin
Framycetin
Netilmicin
Pharmacology
null
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single
Cataract is seen in following except:
Ans. is 'b' i.e. Rheumatoid arthritis Aetiological classification of cataract:Senile CataractDevelopmental or congenitalComplicated cataractTraumaticMetabolicDiabetes*Tetany (hypoparathyroidism)Hypoglycemia*Galactosemia*Galactokinase deficiency*Lowe's syndrome*Wilson's disease*Maternal infectionRubella*Toxoplasma*CMV*T...
2
Glucocorticoid administration
Rheumatoid arthritis
Hypoparathyroidism
Galactosemia
Ophthalmology
Acquired Cataract
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All of the following are seen in digitals toxicity except
Ref-critical care toxicology 4/e p395 Digital characteristics cause atrial tachycardia with AV block, it does not cause at atrial tachycardia with fast Venturicular rate
2
Ventricular bigeminy
Paroxysmal arial tachycardia with fast ventricular rate
Regularization of atrial fibrillation
Bidirectional ventricular tachycardia
Pharmacology
Cardiovascular system
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multi
Iron absorption occurs from
Almost all iron absorption occur in duodenum & upper jejunum (proximal small intestine). Absorption of the majority of nutrients takes place in the jejunum, with the following notable exceptions: Vitamin B12 and bile salts are absorbed in the terminal ileum. Water and lipids are absorbed by passive diffusion throughout...
2
Ileum
Small intestine and jejunum
Stomach
Oesophagus
Physiology
null
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multi
Which of the following is an example of hyaline cailage?
Thyroid cailage is a type of hyaline cailage. Hyaline cailage is the most common type of cailage, in adults this is replaced by bone by a process called enchondral ossification. In the aicular surface of bone, costal cailage, nose, larynx, trachea and bronchi hyaline cailage persist throughout life and does not calcify...
2
Epiglottis
Thyroid cailage
Apex of Arytenoid Cailage
Pinna
Anatomy
null
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single
DEC (Di–ethyl–carbamazine) is used for the treatment of :
null
1
Filariasis
Dracunculiasis
Schistosomiasis
Taeniasis
Pharmacology
null
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single
Orthopnea is heart failure develops due to
When a normal individual lies down, the pulmonary blood volume increases by up to 400 mL When the person stands up this blood is discharged into the general circulation. This shift is the cause of the decrease in vital capacity in the supine position and is responsible for the occurrence of orthopnea in heart failure.
3
Reservoir function of pulmonary veins
Reservoir function of leg veins
Reservoir function of pulmonary arteries
Reservoir function of leg arteries
Physiology
null
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single
If APGAR score is 6, at 5 minutes of life, then what is the interpretation?
b. Moderate asphyxia(Ref: NNF & WHO guidelines)Apgar scoreInterpretation0-3Severe birth asphyxia4-7Moderate birth asphyxia>7Normal
2
Child is normal
Moderate asphyxia
Severe birth asphyxia
It requires immediate resuscitation
Pediatrics
New Born Infants
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All are true regarding Hodgkin's lymphoma, except :
Answer is A (CNS is the commonest site of involvement) CNS involvement is an uncommon feature of Hodgkins. disease CNS involvement is an uncommon feature with Hodgkins disease: This may occur as : Sudden spinal cord compression in advanced progressive disease. Headache and visual disturbance in very rare patients with ...
1
CNS is the commonest site of involvement
Characteristic cell is a Reed Sternberg cell
Mediastinal involvement is common in nodular--sclerosis type.
Eosinophils, plasma cells and neutrophils increase
Medicine
null
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multi
The index age group for deciduous teeth in year is:
null
2
12
5
35 - 44
65 - 74
Dental
null
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single
In organophosphorus compound poisoning, atropine can reverse all the following signs except -
Atropine given in organophosphorus poisoning has effects on muscarinic manifestations; it has no effect on nicotinic manifestations like muscle weakness, fasciculations, cramps, and areflexia.
4
Lacrimation
Diaphoresis
Diarrhea
Muscle weakness
Forensic Medicine
null
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multi
Which of the following is not involved in synthesis of pyrimidines?
The pyrimidine synthesis is a similar process than that of Purines(Purines Synthesis). In the de novo synthesis of Pyrimidines, the ring issynthesized first and then it is attached to a ribose-phosphate to for a pyrimidinenucleotide. Pyrimidine rings are assembled from bicarbonate, aspaate, and Ammoni
4
Glutamine
CO2
Aspaic acid
Glycine
Biochemistry
Metabolism of nucleic acids
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single
The closest pre-pubeal increase in height each year is
Length at bih - 50cms At the end of 1st year-75 cms Increase in length is 25cm/yr -1st year of bih At the end of 4yrs - 100cm. From there on till 12 yrs ( i.e, pre pubeal age) increase in height is 6cm per year. There is marked acceleration in height during pubey. Ref- Ghai , Chapter 2
3
1-2cm
3-4cm
5-7cm
8-10cm
Pediatrics
Growth and development
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Maximum liver toxicity is seen with which anti -TB drug?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Pyrazinamide Three first line antitubercular drugs are associated with hepatotoxicity :? i) Rifampicin ii) INH iii) Pyrazinamide Of the three, rifampicin is least likely to cause hepatocellular damage, although it is associated with cholestatic jaundice. Pyrazinamide is the most hepatotoxic of the fir...
3
Isoniazid
Rifampicin
Pyrazinamide
Streptomycin
Pharmacology
null
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single
A 20 year old college student working pa-time in a pediatric AIDS clinic develops a viral exanthem with a rash. Her blood is drawn and tested for specific antibodies to varicella-zoster (chickenpox). Anti-varicella immunoglobulin belonging to which of the following antibody classes would indicate that she is immune to ...
The immunoglobulin that represents past exposure to an antigen is IgG. It is the predominant antibody in the secondary response and is an impoant defense against bacteria and viruses. In the secondary response, a much larger amount of IgG antibody is produced than IgM, and the levels of IgG tend to persist for a much l...
4
IgA
IgD
IgE
IgG
Medicine
null
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single
Actinomyces viscous that initially colonises the PDL environment most likely attaches to the pellicle or saliva coated surface through?
null
3
Membrane protein
Heat sensitive protein
Fimbriae
Outer membrane protein
Microbiology
null
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multi
Unilateral breast involvement with scaly skin around the nipple and intermittent bleeding is suggestive of: September 2005
Ans. B: Pagets disease Paget's disease of the breast is an eczema-like change in the skin of the nipple, and is a superficial manifestation of an underlying breast cancer. The underlying breast cancer may be an invasive breast cancer or ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS). In DCIS, the cancer cells are completely contained...
2
Galactocoele
Pagets disease
Eczema
Sebaceous cysts
Surgery
null
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single
Pouches are lined by which germ layer?
Pouches inside are lined by Endoderm Clefts outside are lined by Ectoderm
1
Endoderm
Ectoderm
Mesoderm
Both Mesoderm and Ectoderm
Anatomy
Pharyngeal Arches
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multi
A 20 year old woman presents with bilateral conductive deafness, palpable purpura on the legs and hemoptysis. Radiograph of the chest shows a thin-walled cavity in left lower zone. Investigations reveal total leukocyte count 12000/mm3, red cell casts in the urine and serum creatinine 3mg/dL. What is the most probable d...
Answer is C (Wegener's granulomatosis) The patient in question has been depicted to have one manifestation each of the classical triad as mentioned below along with skin lesion in the _Pm of palpable purpura and hence the answer is clearly Wegener's granulomatosis. Wegener's granulomatosis in its classical form present...
3
Henoch-Schonlein purpura
Polyaeritis nodosa
Wegener's granulomatosis
Disseminated tuberculosis
Medicine
null
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multi
Progesterone of choice in emergency contraception is the following:
Postcoital contraceptive methods prevent implantation or cause regression of the corpus luteum and are highly efficacious if used appropriately. Levonorgestrel is more effective and is associated with fewer side effects than the combination estrogen-progestin regimens. Other hormone-based emergency contraception: Estro...
2
DMPA
Levonorgestrel
Norgestrel
Micronised progesterone
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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single
The best way to diagnose the degree of placenta pre is
Trans vaginal sonography
1
Trans vaginal sonography
Double set-up examination
Observation during C.S.
Examination of placenta after delivery
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
023c7862-ae74-4462-a686-d6f414132e1d
single
HLA HI gene codes for -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Complement
2
Immunological reaction in graft rejection
Complement
Graft versus host reaction
Immunoglobulins
Microbiology
null
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single
Which among the following is known as 'Eaton agent' which causes respiratory infection?
M. pneumoniae pneumonia is also referred to as Eaton agent pneumonia (the organism having first been isolated in the early 1940s by Monroe Eaton), primary atypical pneumonia, and "walking" pneumonia. A mild tracheobronchitis with fever, cough, headache, and malaise is the most common syndrome associated with acute M pn...
3
Corynebacterium
Pseudomonas
Mycoplasma
Streptococcus
Microbiology
null
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In type 4 thyroplasty, vocal cord is
Thyroplasty Isshiki divided thyroplasty procedures into 4 categories to produce a functional alteration of vocal cords. Type I: It is medial displacement of vocal cord as in achieved in Teflon paste injection. Type II: It is lateral displacement of the vocal cord and is used to improve the airway. Type III: It is used ...
3
Medially displaced
Laterally displaced
Lengthened
Shoened
ENT
Larynx
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multi
Reduvid bug transmitts-
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Chaga's disease Arthopods Arthropod borne diseases1) Mosquito:1) AnophelesMalariaFilaria (Not in India) 2) CulexJapanese encephalitisWest nile feverBancroftian filariasisViral arthritis 3)AedesYellow feverDengueDengue hemorrhagic feverChikangu nya feverRift valley feverFilaria (Not in India)Zika virus...
4
Kalaazar
Relapsing fever
Trench fever
Chagas disease
Social & Preventive Medicine
Communicable Diseases
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single
The most frequent direction in which the articular disc gets displaced is
null
3
Anterior and lateral direction
Posterior and lateral direction
Anterior and medial direction
Posterior and medial direction
Surgery
null
ce3ced3e-8b09-4d84-a037-3ca75d27c417
single
Initially renal aeries are branches of
Initially the renal aeries are branches of the common iliac aeries, then the distal end of aoa and when kidneys are located at a higher level, they receive new branches from the aoa. Normally the caudal renal vessels undergo involution and disappear. Ref - pubmed.com
2
Aoa
Common iliac aery
External iliac aery
Internal pudendal aery
Anatomy
Abdomen and pelvis
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multi
The following is/are true of a descending aoic dissection:
Descending Aoa dissections Almost always seen in hypeensive patients. Diagnosis is made by locating the tear in the aoa distal to the left subclan aery. Type III dissections may involve only the descending thoracic aoa but can extend the entire length of the aoa.
4
It originates distal to the subclan aery.
It is usually found in hypeensive patients.
It may extend the entire length of the aoa.
All of the above
Surgery
Aerial disorders
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multi
Eligible couple register is maintained at
null
1
Sub center
PHC
District hospital
Community Hospital
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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single
Which of the following develop first during dependence of a substance -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Psychological dependence Drug dependenceo Drug dependence, as the name suggests, is a state where a person becomes dependent on a drug despite knowing the harmful effect of the drug.o This state arises from repeated, periodic or continuous administration of a drug, that results in harm to the individu...
3
Tolerance
Physical dependence
Psychological dependence
Withdrawal symptoms
Pharmacology
Pharmacodynamics
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single
Which of the following is utmost important factor considered in balanced occlusion with little change in esthetics and change in inclination or amplitude leads to the loss of facial appearance?
null
3
Inclination of condyle guidance
Compensating curve of spec.
Inclination of incisal guidance
Cuspal height and angulation
Dental
null
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single
A 55 year old patient with disseminated tuberculosis is prescribed drugs. Which of the following might be seen in patient of TB, who has regularly been injecting intramuscular injection of streptomycin:
Deafness
4
Blindness
Increased AST levels
Impotence
Deafness
Pharmacology
null
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single
A 10 year old male child presents with pallor and h/o blood transfusion 2 months back. On investigation, Hb-4.5 gms, Total count-60,000,Platelet count-2 lakhs and CD 10+ve, CD 19+ve, CD 117 +ve, MPO +ve and CD 33 -ve. What is the most probable diagnosis?
. Mixed phenotypic a/c leukemia
4
ALL
AML
Undifferentiated leukemia
Mixed phenotypic a/c leukemia
Pathology
null
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multi
The severity of pelvic pain in endometriosis correlates best with :
Depth of invasion
2
Number of implants
Depth of invasion
Stage of disease
Ca 125 levels
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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single
Drugs that can enhance action of sulfonylurea include the following, except:
Drugs that enhance SU action (may precipitate hypoglycaemia) are- (a) Displace from protein binding: Phenylbutazone, sulfinpyrazone, salicylates, sulfonamides. (b) Inhibit metabolism/excretion: Cimetidine, ketoconazole, sulfonamides, warfarin, chloramphenicol, acute alcohol intake (also synergises by causing hypoglycae...
2
Salicylates
Diazoxide
Propranolol
Cimetidine
Pharmacology
null
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multi
All are true about Migratory motor complex except
Migratory motor complex resumes 90 - 120 mins after the meal and occurs at interval of 90 mins till next meal.
2
Also knows as Broom sticks of GIT
It starts immediately after meals
It is controlled by motilin hormone
It clears contents of stomach and small intestine in between the meals
Physiology
null
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multi
Diastatic fracture is
(Seperation of the cranial sutures) (222-Reddy's 29th)DIASTAT1C OR SUTURAL FRACTURES - separation of the sutures occurs only in young persons due to a blow on head with blunt weapon* It may occur alone but often is associated with fracture* It is usually seen in saggital sutures* These are particularly common in traffi...
1
Seperation of the cranial sutures
Also known case "Fracture a-la-signature"
There are two or more intersecting lines of fracture
A linear fracture involving the whole thickness of the bone
Forensic Medicine
Injuries
74bf3532-83e7-42a6-ae27-ac89b576e0cf
single
Which one of the following is the drug of choice for treating systemic fungal infection ?
Amphotericin B is an antifungal medication used for serious fungal infections and leishmaniasis. The fungal infections it is used to treat include aspergillosis, blastomycosis, candidiasis, coccidioidomycosis, and cryptococcosis. For ceain infections it is given with flucytosine Ref Harrison20th edition pg 1078
2
Griseofolvin
Amphotericins
Ketoconazole
trimoxazole
Medicine
Infection
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single
Normal anion gap is seen in all except
Ans: b) Methanol poisoning (Ref: Harrison 17th edition/ Page 291-292)Anion gap is the measure of unmeasured anions.AG = Na+-Normally anions = cationsAny increase in anions other than Cl- or HCO3- will cause decrease in Cl- or HCO2 so that total anions is same in quantity. Eg increase in acetate, lactate, methanol, phos...
2
Ureterosigmoidoscopy
Methanol poisoning
Renal tubular acidosis
Diarrhoea
Medicine
Fluid & Electrolyte
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multi
Which of the following amino acids is involved in one carbon pool?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Glycine* Goups, containing a single carbon atom are called one carbon groups. One carbon groups are formed from following amino acids during their metabolism:- Serine, glycine, histidine and tryptophan. One carbon groups formed during metabolism are: methyl (CH3), methylene (CH2), methenyl (C H), form...
1
Glycine
Proline
Threonine
Hydroxyproline
Biochemistry
Proteins and Amino Acids
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single
The ratio of anaerobe to aerobes in stool is
The mean number of bacteria in colon exceeds 10^11 bacteria/ gram of faecal matter. Approximately 99.9% of these bacteria are anaerobic in the colon. 300 to 400 different species or types of bacteria can be found. So the ratio of anaerobes to aerobes in the stool is 1000:01. Ref: Baveja textbook of microbiology; 4th ed...
3
10:01
100:01:00
1000:01:00
10000 : 1
Microbiology
general microbiology
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single
Antidiabetic drug with insulin independent action is ?
Ans. is'a'i.e., SGLT 2 inhibitor(Ref: KDT p.270)Sodium-glucose cotranspo-2 (SGLT-2) inhibitor: Dapagliflozin - antidiabetic drugs - action independent of insulin
1
SGLT2 inhibitor
DPP4 inhibitor
Meglitinide analogues
GLP1 agonist
Pharmacology
null
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single