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Treatment of Advanced Proliferative Diabetic Retinopathy with extensive vitreoretinal fibrosis and tractional retinal detachment involves all of the following except
Ans. (d) ExophotocoagulationRef: Oxford Textbook of Medicine 4/e, p. 350 current Geriatric Diagnosis & Treatment (2004)/127Treatment of advanced proliferative diabetic retinopathy (PDR) with extensive vitreoretinal fibrosis, tractional retinal detachment or dens recurrent vitreous hemorrhage requires a surgical procedu...
4
Reattachment of detached or torn retina
Removal of epiretinal membrane
Vitrectomy
Exophotocoagulation
Ophthalmology
Retina
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Pituitary gland enlargement causes
Pituitary gland enlargement affects optic chiasma leading to Bitemporal hemianopia.
1
Bitemporal hemianopia
Binasal hemianopia
Homonymous hemianopia
All the above
Ophthalmology
null
14d32b37-6d28-432a-8e9f-7be2f87b9b08
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Jaggery contains good amont of -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Iron Jaggery contains useful amount of carotene and Iron, derived from cooking pans.
3
Vitamin C
Calcium
iron
Vitanun D
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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Type I membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis is common associated with all except
Secondary MPGN(invariably type 1) is more common in adults and arises in following; Alpha 1 anti trypsin deficiency Malignant diseases paicularly CLL which have formation of autoantibodies Chronic immune complex disorder such as SLE, hepatitis b infection hepatitis c infection . Refer robbins 9/e p922
3
SLE
Persistent hepatitis c infection
Paial lipodystrophy
Neoplastic diseases
Pathology
Urinary tract
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Muscle spindle detects:
Length Muscle spindle and Golgi tendon organ both receptors are impoant component of intrinsic muscle control.Muscle spindle --> detects muscle length and rate of change in muscle lengthGolgi tendon organ --> detects muscletension and rate of change in muscle tension.Muscle spindles are specialized mechanoreceptors whi...
2
Tension
Length
Proprioception
Stretch
Physiology
null
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The clinical sign of hyaline membrane disease generally first appears -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., In the first 6 hours of life
1
In the first 6 hours of life
Between 12 and 24 hours of life
Between 36 and 48 hours of life
After 48 hours of lilfe
Pediatrics
null
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multi
Aerosol spread leading to epidemics is seen in infection with:
Ans. c. Influenza
3
Legionella
Hemophilus
Influenza
Mycoplasma
Microbiology
null
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Type of mutation seen in sickle cell anaemia:
Ans. (c) Point mutationRef: Harpers Biochemistry 30th Ed; Page No- 416* Mutations in DNA are transcribed into mRNA, and thus can cause changes in the encoded protein.* Severity of damage in mutation: Silent << Missense < Nonsense < Frameshift.* Basic point about mutation:* Transition# Pyrimidine to pyrimidine (eg, C to...
3
Insertion
Deletion
Point mutation
Frameshift mutations
Biochemistry
Molecular Genetics
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Multiple sinuses from infection of great toe is mainly caused by:September 2007
Ans. B: ActinomycetesMycetoma is a chronic localized granulomatous inflammatory lesion common in the tropics and sub-tropics.Multiple siAuses, soft tissue swelling and discharge of coloured granules characterize a mycetoma foot. Chronic sinuses discharging granules are caused by (1) Eumycetes (true fungi), (2) Schizomy...
2
Tuberculosis
Actinomycetes
Trichosporum
Histoplasmosis
Pathology
null
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A drug 'X' primarily reduces the static component of urinary obstruction in benign hyperophy of prostate and takes more than 3 months to exe its beneficial effect. Which of the following is 'X' ?
(Ref: KDT 6/e p294, 295) S-a-reductase inibitors are used to reduce the static component of urinary obstruction in BHP. It is delayed acting and takes more than 3 months to exe its beneficial effect. Selective a1 blockers are used to relieve the dynamic obstruction in BHP. These provide rapid symptomatic relief.
3
Tamsulosin
Terazosin
Finasteride
Amphetamine
Anatomy
Other topics and Adverse effects
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Which of the following statements about Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis is not true -
null
2
Foam cells are seen
Associated with tuberculosis
Yellow nodules are seen
Giant cells may be seen
Pathology
null
4edc7b16-4ac1-422a-9402-da030b5047f6
multi
'Bull's eye' maculopathy can be caused by which of the following?
Ans. b (Chloroquine). (Ref. KD Tripathi Pharmacology 5th ed. 239)CHLOROQUINE# Chloroquine is also found to induce remission in up to 50% patients of Rheumatoid arthritis. It is found to reduce monocyte interleukin I, consequently inhibiting B lymphocytes.# Chloroquine/hydroxychloroquine are employed in milder nonerosiv...
2
Quinine
Chloroquine
Amiodarone
Digoxin
Ophthalmology
Drugs
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The major ion in extracellular compartment
Ans: b (Na+) Ref: Ganong 22nd ed/ p. 30, 32Most abundant ion in ECF is Na+.ECFMost abundant ion - Na+Most abundant cation - Na+Most abundant anion - Cl-ICF:-Most abundant cation - K+Most abundant anion - PO43- (followed by protein).ECF contains more of Na+, Cl-, HCO3, Ca2+.ICF contains more of K+, PO4, organic anion, p...
2
K+
Na+
Cl-
HCO3-
Physiology
General
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A 61 year old Purushothom presented to the OPD with complaints of dyspnoea, chest pain and syncope. What is he most likely suffering from?
This patient is suffering from aoic stenosis, which usually manifests during 6th to 8th decade of life. Three cardinal symptoms of aoic stenosis are exeional dyspnea, angina pectoris and synchope. Patients with aoic stenosis become symptomatic when the valvular orifice is narrowed to approximately 1cm2. Reference: Harr...
2
MS
AS
MR
TR
Medicine
null
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Mechanism of aspirin action is
Aspirin inhibits the synthesis of thromboxane A2 by irreversible acetylation of the enzyme cyclooxygenase.Other salicylates and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs also inhibit cyclooxygenase but have a shoer duration of inhibitory action because they cannot acetylate cyclooxygenase; that is, their action is reversibl...
2
Conves inactive plasminogen into active plasmin
Inhibits COX and thus thromboxane synthesis
Enhances the interaction between antitrombin III and both thrombin and the factors involved in the intrinsic clotting cascade
Inhibits the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa complex
Pharmacology
Endocrinology
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All of the following are true about Rifampicin, EXCEPT:
Rifampicin is a bactericidal antibiotic. Rifampicin is an effective liver enzyme-inducer, promoting the upregulation of hepatic cytochrome P450 enzymes (such as CYP2C9 and CYP3A4), increasing the rate of metabolism of many other drugs. It reduces the efficacy of hormonal contraception. It is used in prophylactic therap...
2
Microsomal enzyme inducer
Useful for treatment meningiococcal meningitis
May cause OCP failure
Bactericidal in nature
Pharmacology
null
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Lactic acidosis is not seen in -
An increase in plasma l-lactate may be secondary to *poor tissue perfusion (type A)--circulatory insufficiency (shock, cardiac failure), severe anemia, mitochondrial enzyme defects, and inhibitors (carbon monoxide, cyanide) * aerobic disorders (type B)-- malignancies, nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitor...
4
Methanol poisoning
Respiratory failure
Circulatory failure
Tolbutamide
Medicine
Fluid and electrolytes
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Gitter cells are
Microglia are a type of neuroglia (glial cell) located throughout the brain and spinal cord. Microglia account for 10-15% of all cells found within the brain. As the resident macrophage cells, they act as the first and main form of active immune defense in the central nervous system (CNS). Microglia (and other neurogli...
1
Microglia
Modified macrophages
Astrocytes
Neutrophils
Anatomy
General anatomy
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In a viral infection, immunoglobulins are to be given in which of the following condition
, the FDA approved elapegademase (Revcovi) for treatment of adenosine deaminase severe combined immune deficiency (ADA-SCID) in adults and children. The drug had been available as an orphan drug prior to approval. Enzyme replacement helps prevent potentially serious, life-threatening infections in this patient populati...
1
SCID
HIV
Dengue
Severely malnourished
Medicine
Infection
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Which type of enzyme is Transaminase?
Transferase- Amino transferase or transaminase, e.g., SGOT (AST) and SGPT (ALT), kinases (Hexokinase glucokinase, pyruvate kinase etc), Transketolases, transaldolases, transcarboxylases
4
Xidoreductase
Isomerase
Ligases
Transferase
Biochemistry
null
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Sabin fieldman dye test is used for ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Toxoplasmosis Sabin-Feldman dye test A Sabin-Feldman dye test is a serologic test to diagnose for toxoplasmosis. The test is based on the presence of ceain antibodies that prevent methylene blue dye from entering the cytoplasm of Toxoplasma organisms. Patient serum is treated with Toxoplasma trophozoi...
1
Toxoplasmosis
Syphilis
Herpes genitalis
Gardenellavaginalis
Skin
null
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Hybridoma technique is used to obtain ?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Specific antibody Hybridomas are cells that have been engineered to produce a specific antibody in huge numbers. Hybridomas Hybridomas are cells that have been engineered to produce a specific antibody in huge numbers To achieve this, qualities of two types of cells have to be combined together i.e. C...
3
Specific antigen
Complement
Specific antibody
Interleukins
Microbiology
null
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Both glucogenic and ketogenic amino-acids are all except -
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Leucine
4
Phenylalanine
Tyrosine
Tryptophan
Leucine
Biochemistry
Amino Acids Basics
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All are impoant pathological features noted in ATP 7B gene mutation, EXCEPT:
ATP7B protein deficiency impairs Biliary copper excretion resulting in positive copper balance Hepatic copper accumulation Copper toxicity from oxidant damage It leads to low serum ceruloplasmin due to excess catabolism of apoceruloplasmin. Low serum copper is due to low ceruloplasmin level. Non ceruloplasmin bound cop...
2
Low serum ceruloplasmin
Low serum free copper
Low serum copper
Positive copper balance
Pathology
null
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Glucose transporter in myocyte stimulated by insulin is
GLUT 4 is the transporter in muscle and adipose tissue that is stimulated by insulin.
4
GLUT 1
GLUT 2
GLUT 3
GLUT 4
Biochemistry
null
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Initial treatment of buphthalmos is -
In Buphthalmos medications are not effective and so treatment is primarily surgical. Incisional angle surgery by goniotomy or trabeculectomy Ref:Comprehensive ophthalmology-AK Khurana 6th edition chapter-10 page no:227
2
Laser trabeculolasty
Goniotomy
Topical pilocarpine
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
Ophthalmology
Glaucoma
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Which of the following is a feature of a lacerated wound?
Features of lacerated wound: Margins are irregular, ragged and uneven and their ends are pointed or blunt Bruising is seen either in the skin or subcutaneous tissue around the wound Deeper tissues are unevenly divided with tags of tissue at the bottom of wound bridging across the margin Hair bulbs are crushed Hair and ...
3
Clean cut wound
Regular margin
Irregular margin
Tapered margins
Forensic Medicine
null
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Which of the following techniques uses piezoelectric crystals?
Ans. Ultrasonography
1
Ultrasonography
NMR imaging
X-ray diffraction
Xeroradiography
Radiology
null
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Most sensitive method to diagnose thyroid function is:
Ans. (c) TSHRef: Bailey and Love Principles and Practice of Surgery, 26th ed p-743* Most sensitive and specific test to detect hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism is TSH ASSAY* Total T4: Reflects output from thyroid gland* Total T3: More indicative of peripheral thyroid metabolism, hence not useful for screening
3
T3
T4
TSH
Thyroglobulin
Surgery
Thyroid Gland
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This gene mapping indicates:
Down's syndrome, which is due to trisomy of chromosome 21 (XXX).
4
Klinefelter syndrome
Cri du chat syndrome
Eagle’s syndrome
Down’s syndrome
Pathology
null
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A man presents with fever, wt loss and cough: Mantoux reads an induration of 17 x 19 mm, Sputum cytology is negative for AFB. Most likely diagnosis is
null
1
Pulm tuberculosis
Fungal infection
Viral infection
Pneumonia
Medicine
null
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Mucocele is commonly seen is sinus -
A mucocele is an epithelial lined, mucus containing sac completely filling the sinus and capable of expansion: Mucocele are most commonly formed in Frontal sinus followed by ethmoid, sphenoid and maxillary sinuses. Mucocele of frontal sinus presents as a swelling in the floor of frontal sinus above the inner (medial) ...
1
Frontal
Maxillary
Ethmoid
Sphenoid
ENT
null
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Reservoir of HSV?
Reservoir of HSV is Man. HSV: HSV infections are exclusively human disease. Humans are the only natural reservoirs. An infected person is a life long source and reservoir of the virus. Vesicle fluid, saliva and vaginal secretions are the impoant sources of infection for both types of HSV. Transmission: Direct contact w...
1
Man
Monkey
Both
None
Microbiology
Virology (General Propeies, DNA Viruses)
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Weight of normal uterus is :
45 -- 60 gms
2
30 -- 45 gms
45 -- 60 gms
60 -- 70 gms
80 -- 100 gms
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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A 45-year-old man presents to his physician with hematuria. Renal biopsy demonstrates a focal necrotizing glomerulitis with crescent formation. The patient has a history of intermittent hemoptysis and intermittent chest pain of moderate intensity. A previous chest x-ray had demonstrated multiple opacities, some of whic...
While in real life, other diseases (or combinations of diseases) may occasionally cause concurrent pulmonary, sinus, and renal involvement, if you see this pattern on a test question, you should immediately think of Wegener's granulomatosis. This is a rare focal necrotizing vasculitis of still unclear etiology, which a...
4
Aspergillosis
Polyaeritis nodosa
Renal carcinoma metastatic to the lung
Wegener's granulomatosis
Pathology
null
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CSF examination of a patient shows high protein markedly low sugar, low chloride and increased neutrophils. The diagnosis is -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Meningococcal meningitis
2
Viral meningitis
Meningococcal meningitis
Tuberculous meningitis
Fungal meningitis
Pediatrics
null
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Pyroptosis is associated with which of the following cytokines?
Pyroptosis is a form of apoptosis that is accompanied by the release of the fever-inducing cytokine IL-1 (pyro refers to fever). Microbial products that enter infected cells are recognized by cytoplasmic innate immune receptors and can activate the multiprotein complex called the inflammasome. The function of the infla...
1
IL-1
IL-2
IL-5
IL-6
Pathology
Bilirubin Metabolism
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In addition to the effects of weight loss, the resolution of type 2 diabetes mellitus after the gastric sleeve procedure and RYGB is thought to be contributed to by ?
Gastrectomy removes much of the Ghrelin-producing poion of the stomach, leading to weight loss after both gastric sleeve and RYGB procedures. GLP-1, is dramatically increased after RYGB, and after gastric sleeve
4
Reduced ghrelin production
Increased secretion of glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1)
Appetite suppression
All of the above
Surgery
Robotics, Laparoscopy and Bariatric Surgery
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Irresistible urge to do a thing repeatedly is seen in-
OCD is an anxiety disorder, which is characterized by recurrent, unwanted thoughts (obsessions) and repetitive behaviors (compulsion).
1
Obsessive - compulsive disorder
Schizophrenia
Schizoaffective disorder
Depression
Psychiatry
null
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Least common site involvement in psoriasis is:
Ans. c. CNS involvementScalp is a common site of involvement in psoriasis. Corona psoriatica is a band of psoriasis, projecting beyond hairline on forehead.Nail changes in psoriasis are pitting, onycholysis, subungual hyperkeratosis, splinter hemorrhages, uneven surface.
3
Scalp involvement
Nail involvement
CNS involvement
Arthritis
Skin
Papulosquamous Disorders
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The first window of infectivity as described by Caufield is between:
Initial acquisition of mutans streptococci by infants: Evidence for a discrete window of  infectivity. Caufield et al described a discrete “window  of infectivity” during which infants acquired mutans streptococci (MS) from their maternal host.  This “window” opened at 19 months and extended to 31 months, with a mean of...
3
0-6 months
7-16 months
19-31 months
32-52 months
Dental
null
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Recommended angle of root end resection is:
null
2
45 degree
0 degree
30 degree
15 degree
Dental
null
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Vitamin that participates as a coenzyme incarboxylation reactions of gluconeogenesis, fatty acid synthesis
null
4
Biotin
Vitamin B7
Anti egg white injury factor
All of the above
Biochemistry
null
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Which of the following do not increase the action of warfarin?
Reference: KDT, Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 7th ed., Pg. 623 and Katzung, Basic & Clinical Pharmacology, 13th ed., Pgs. 876 & 877.   Barbiturates (but not benzodiazepines), carbamazepine, rifampin and griseofulvin induce the metabolism of oral anticoagulants. The dose of anticoagulant determined during therapy ...
3
Cimetidine
Isoniazid
Rifampicin
Cotrimoxazole
Unknown
null
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Indication of in vitro feilization and implantation in uterus is all EXCEPT:
Tubal block REF: Shaw's 13th ed p. 206 See previous question for explanation
4
Azoospermia
Anovulation
Oligospermia
Tubal block
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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Anti-tubercular drug associated with psychosis is:
Ans. (A) INH(Ref: Goodman Gilman 12th/1556)Isoniazid can cause neuropsychiatric adverse effects like seizures, transient loss of memory and psychosis.
1
INH
Rifampicin
Ethambutol
Streptomycin
Pharmacology
Chemotherapy: General Principles
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single
All muscles of pharynx are supplied by pharyngeal plexus except -
All muscles of pharynx are supplied by cranial accessory through branches of vagus pharyngeal plexus except stylopharyngeus which is supplied by glossopharyngeal. The inferior constrictor receives an additional supply from the external and recurrent laryngeal nerves.
2
Palatopharyngngeus
Stylopharyngeus
Salpingopharyngeus
Superior constrictor
Anatomy
null
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Panniculus Adiposus is seen in
The panniculus adiposus is the fatty layer of the subcutaneous tissues, superficial to a deeper vestigial layer of muscle, the panniculus carnosus. Hence it is seen in orbit and protects the eye ball.
2
Scrotum
Orbit
Eyelid
Penis
Anatomy
General anatomy
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Which drug of anesthetics causes hallucination
Ketamine causes postoperative delirium and hallucinations. It is also contraindicated in delirium tremens and head injury. Ketamine increases cerebral metabolism, CBF, and ICP. So contraindicated in neurosurgeries. Ketamine, like other phencyclidines, produces undesirable psychological reactions, which occur during awa...
1
Ketamine
Trilene
Halothane
Trichioroethylene
Anaesthesia
General anaesthesia
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Which one of the following is detected by the antigen detection test used for the diagnosis of P. falciparum malaria -
Antigen detection tests [Rapid diagnostic tests (RDTs) or Immunochromatographic tests (ICTs) Rapid and simple but less sensitive, costly and may give false +ve in RA factor +ve cases pLDH and Aldolase: Common to all Plasmodium species HRP-2 Ag detection: Specific for P.falciparum
4
Circum-sporozoite protein
Merozoite surface antigen
Histidine-Rich-Protein I (HRP-I)
Histidine-Rich-Protein II (HRP-II)
Microbiology
null
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Most common cause of Cervical neoplasia is?
Ans. (c) HPV-16 style="font-size: 1.04761904761905em; font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif">(Ref: )At least 12 HPV types are considered oncogenic, including HPV16, 18, 31, 33, 35, 39, 45, 51, 52, 56, 58, and 59*HPV16 alone, though, accounts for approximately 50% of cervical cancers in the general population and H...
3
HPV-6
HPV-11
HPV-16
HHV
Pathology
Female Genital Tract
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True regarding febrile convulsion -
Ans. is 'b' i.e.. Patients with family h/o F.C. have increased incidence of recurrence Risk factors for recurrence o Positive family history o Atypical complex febrile convulsions o Neurodevelopmental retardation (e.g. cerebral palsy, mental retardation) o Early onset of febrile seizure (before 1 year) Treatment of feb...
2
Carbamazepine is good drug to treat it
Patient with family h/o F.C. have increased incidence of recurrence
Longterm neurological deficits are common
All
Pediatrics
null
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Gout is NOT caused by which of the following?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Sulfinpyrazone Sulfinpyrazone is a uricosuric drug which is used in the treatment of gout. Drugs causing hvperuricemia due to reduced uric acid excretion (Can cause gout) o Pyrazinamide o Diuretics o Alcohol o Nicotinic acid o Chlohalidone o Ethambutol o Cyclosporine o Levodopa o Aspirin (Low dose)
2
Chlohalidone
Sulfinpyrazone
Aspirin
Pyrazinamide
Pharmacology
null
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Validity of a test is based upon all except
Ref:Parks 23rd edition pg 138 Validity (accuracy): refers to what extend the test accurately measures which it purpos to measure. has two components: sensitivity and specificity. note: Precision / repeatability / reliability: that is test must give consistent redults when repeated more than once on the same individual ...
3
Sensitivity
Specificity
Precision
Accuracy
Social & Preventive Medicine
Screening
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Crown Height Space (CHS) for implant dentistry is measure from
null
3
prosthetic platform
junctional epithelium
crest of the bone
gingival margin
Dental
null
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Regions of "trinucleotide repeats" are seen in -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Huntington's disease Huntingtons disease is caused bv triplet repeat expansion nucleotideo Huntington disease (HD) is caused by expansion of the cytosine-adenin e-suanine (CA G) trinucleotide repeats in the HTT sene (also known as the HD or IT15 gene) located on chromosome 4pl6.3 that encodes the prot...
2
Parkinson's disease
Huntington's disease
Progressive supranuclear palsy
Alzheimer's deentia
Medicine
C.N.S.
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All the muscles are involved in accommodation reflex except:
- Lateral rectus is not involved in accomodation reflex. - Accommodation reflex involves : Convergence of eyeball - by medial rectus Constriction of pupil - by sphincter pupillae Increase in thickness of lens -by ciliaris muscle
2
Medial rectus
Lateral rectus
Ciliaris muscle
Sphincter pupillae
Anatomy
Eye, Nose and Ear
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Posterior lenticonus is seen in ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Lowe's syndrome Lenticonus refers to cone-shaped elevation of the anterior pole (anterior lenticonus) or posterior pole (posterior lenticonus) of the lens. Anterior lenticonus is seen in Alpo's syndrome. Posterior lenticonus is seen in Lowe's syndrome. On distant direct ophthalmoscopy, lenticonus pres...
2
Alpo's syndrome
Lowe's syndrome
Marfan syndrome
Homocystinuria
Ophthalmology
null
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single
Which of the following decreases appetite?
Food intake and appetite are regulated by various circulating hormones including ghrelin and glucagon-like-peptide 1 (GLP-1). Ghrelin, mainly released from the stomach, increases food intake, induces appetite, enhances adiposity as well as releases growth hormone Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 e...
4
Orexin
Neuropeptide Y
Ghrelin
Leptin
Physiology
G.I.T
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single
Prevalance of cataract at one point of time can be determined by:
Ans is 'b' i.e. Cross-sectional study RepeatCross-sectional or Prevalence study - in cross-sectional studies, we 'survey' several individuals at one point in time and collect information on health status, health-related behaviour, and other exposure factors. In this way we can estimate the burden of disease in a group ...
2
Longitudinal study
Cross-sectional study
Surveillance
Cohort study
Social & Preventive Medicine
Analytical Epidemiology
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single
Which of the following is not true about dura mater?
Ans. c. Dural venous sinuses lie inner to the meningeal layer
3
It is the outermost layer of the cranial meninges
It has periosteal and meningeal layer
Dural venous sinuses lie below the meningeal layer
It is supplied by a branch of the V cranial nerve
Anatomy
null
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multi
In civil negligence cases against the doctor, the onus of the proof lies with: AIIMS 11
Ans. Patient
2
Doctor
Patient
First class judicial magistrate
Police not below the rank of sub-inspector
Forensic Medicine
null
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single
Deficiency of E-cadherin is seen in?
E-cadherin (CDH-1) deficiency is seen in Gastric cancer and lobular breast cancer.
4
Intestinal carcinoma
Thyroid carcinoma
Colon cancer
Gastric cancer
Pathology
null
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Which of the following enzyme is affected in cyanide poisoning?
Cyanide inhibits the action of cytochrome oxidase and carbonic anhydrase. It blocks the final step of oxidative phosphorylation and prevents the formation of ATP and its use as energy source. Cyanide acts by reducing the oxygen carrying capacity of blood, and by combining with the ferric iron atom of intracellular cyto...
3
G-6-P dehydrogenase deficiency
Isomerase
Cytochrome oxidase
None of the above
Forensic Medicine
null
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The muscle which is not supplied by recurrent laryngeal nerve is
Adductor of vocal cordsThyroarytenoid muscle:- R and L muscles; attached to thyroid and arytenoid cailages on each side.Action shoens and relaxes vocal ligament.Note: deeper inner fibers referred to as "vocalis muscle".Lateral cricoarytenoid muscle: (R and L muscles):- Attached to cricoid and arytenoid cailage on each ...
3
Thyroarytenoid
Posterior cricoarytenoid
Cricothyroid
Lateral cricoarytenoid
Anatomy
null
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Elemental iron and folic acid content of paediatric iron folic acid tablet supplied under INCH programme are –
National nutritional anemia prophylaxis programme is based on daily administration of Iron & folic acid tablets to maintain rural child health. For anemia prophylaxis FOLIEFER tablets with 20 mg elemental iron and 100 microgram folic acid are given to children for 3 months. For treatment upto 6 mg/kg elemental iron sho...
1
20 mg iron & 100 micro gram folic acid
40 mg iron & 100 micro gram folic acid
40 mg iron & 50 micro gram folic acid
60 mg iron & 100 micro gram folic acid
Pediatrics
null
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All are autosomal recessive coagulopathies except
Von Willebrand disease is a autosomal dominant condition.
4
Bernad soulier syndrome
Glanzmann Thrombasthenia
Afibrinogenemia
Von Willebrand disease
Pathology
null
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A 50-year-old female patient presented with chief complaints of painless thyroid nodule. Fuher examination is insignificant. TSH levels are normal. FNAC reveals papillary changes with nuclear atypia. Total thyroidectomy is planned. However, during surgery, a nearby nerve is injured while ligating Superior thyroidal aer...
Marked structures are as follows: a- Posterior cricoarytenoid b- Thyroarytenoid c- Cricothyroid d- Oblique interarytenoid The external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve is most likely to be injured during ligation of Superior thyroid aery because both of them course together in a neurovascular bundle near the supe...
3
B
C
A
D
Unknown
Integrated QBank
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Sociology is
Sociology deals with the study of human relationships and of human behavior for a better understanding of the pattern of human life. It is also concerned with the effects on the individual of the ways in which other individuals think and act.Ref: Park; 23rd ed; Pg 670
3
Study of human relationship
Study of human behavior
Both
None of the above
Social & Preventive Medicine
Social science, Mental health & Genetics
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multi
A total of 5000 pts of glaucoma are identified and surveyed by pts. interviews regarding family history of glaucoma. Such a study design is called -
null
1
Case series report
Case control study
Clinical trial
Cohort study
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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multi
A 60-year-old man whose wife passed away 3 months back now believes his intestines have rotten away and that he is responsible for the death of his wife and should be sent to prison. Likely diagnosis is
(B) Psychotic depression > DSM-IV-TR Criteria for Major Depressive Episode> "The symptoms are not better accounted for by bereavement, i.e., after the loss of a loved one, the symptoms persist for longer than 2 months or are characterized by marked functional impairment, morbid preoccupation with worthlessness, suicida...
2
Delusional disorder
Psychotic depression
Grief psychosis
Schizophrenia
Psychiatry
Miscellaneous
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During renal rupture the nephrectomy is NOT attempted until
(Contra-lateral renal function is scertain)Nephrectomy is a possibility so it is important to establish that the contralateral kidney is functioning (1291- Bally & Love 25th)Injury to the Kideny * Haematuria is a cardinal sign of a damaged kidney *** Meterorism - abdominal distension comes on about 24-48 hours after th...
3
Fluid replacement
Antibiotics covers
Contralateral renal function is ascertain
Renal angiogram
Surgery
Kidney & Ureturs
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The right adrenal vein drains into -
Right suprarenal (adrenal) vein drains into IVC and left one into left renal vein.
2
Right renal vein
Inferior vena cava
Second right lumbar vein
Third right lumbar vein
Anatomy
null
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single
In MI following are used Except:
Answer is B (Plasminogen activator inhibitor) Plaminogen Activators are used in Ml and not inhibitors of Plasminogen activators. The management of MI requires fibrinolysis, which is achieved by Plasminogen activators and not by Plasminogen inhibitor.
2
Fibrinolytics
Plasminogen activator inhibitor
Anti thrombin
Platelet inhibitor
Medicine
null
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multi
All of the following are true about small bowel lymphoma except
Answer- C. It is a very uncommon tumour amongst small bowel malignanciesSmall bowel lymphomaLymphoma of the small bowel is the most common small bowel malignancy, accounting accounts for -25% of all primary small bowel malignancies.Predisposing conditions includes-AIDSCoeliac diseaseClinical presentationGastrointestina...
3
Treatment is resection of involved segment with chemoradiotherapy
AIDS and Celiac disease are predisposing conditions
It is a very uncommon tumour amongst small bowel malignancies
It may present with hemorrhage and perforation
Surgery
null
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In epidural lumbar puncture, all of these structures are pierced EXCEPT:
Ans. A Posterior longitudinal ligamentRef: Gray's, 38th ed. pg. 512; Keith Moore, 4th ed. pg. 483* Structures pierced during lumbar puncture (from outside in) are:- Skin - subcutaneous tissue - Supraspinous & interspinous ligament - Ligament flavum - Duramater - Arachnoid mater.
1
Posterior longitudinal ligament
Ligamentous flavum
Interspinous ligament
Supraspinous ligament
Anatomy
Neuroanatomy
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multi
In the conventional finger rest, the finger rest is established on the
null
2
Other side of the same arch
Tooth surface immediately adjacent to the working area
Opposing arch
Index finger or thumb of the non operating hand
Dental
null
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single
Best virucidal disinfectant is?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Formaldehyde Among the options, formaldehyde is high level disinfectant. Categories of effective potency Sterilants :- are capable of completely eliminating or destroying in all forms of microbial life, including spores. Disinfectants :- Destroy some, but not necessarily all organisms. The category is...
4
Phenol
Hypochloe
BPL
Formaldehyde
Microbiology
null
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The most common malignant neoplasm of infancy is -
Robbins basic pathology. 7th edition. page no. 500. Chapter diseases of infancy and childhood. Neuroblastoma is the second most common solid malignancy after brain tumours. It accounted as much as 50% of neonatal malignancies.
2
Malignant teratoma
Neuroblastoma
Wilms' tumor
Hepatoblastoma
Pathology
Pediatrics, environment and nutrition
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single
Adductor tubercle gives attachement to
ADDUCTOR TUBERCLE:- Posterosuperior to medial epicondyl there is a projection called adductor tubercle. It gives attachment to the inseion of hamstring or ischial head of adductor Magnus. Adductor brevis inseed into the line extending from lesser trochanter to upper pa of linea aspera. Adductor longus inseed into the m...
1
Adductor magnus
Adductor brevis
Adductor longus
Vastus intermedius
Anatomy
Lower limb
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single
Irreversible cell injury is indicated by -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Accumulation of calcium in mitochondrion Large, flocculant, amorphous densities in mitochondrial matrix develop due to increased Ca+2 influx. Note : o Small (not large) phospholipid rich amorphous densities are found in reversible injury.
1
Accumulation of calcium in mitochondria
Myelin figures
ATP depletion
Shifting of ribosomes
Pathology
null
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single
Which is most economical and best screening-
Types of screening Three types of screening have been described : - a) Mass screening Mass screening means the screening of a whole population or subgroup. It is offered to all, irrespective of the particular risk individual may run of contracting the disease in question → So, it is not very useful preventive measure....
2
Mass screening
High risk screening
Multiphasic screening
Any of the above
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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multi
Disability-adjusted life expectancy (DALE) has been replaced by:
The name of the indicator used to measure healthy life expectancy has been changed from disability-adjusted life expectancy (DALE) to health-adjusted life expectancy (HALE).
3
DALY
QALY
HALE
DFLE
Social & Preventive Medicine
PQLI, HDI, MDPI, BPL
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single
Zoonotic diseases are all except
Man is the only natural host for S.typhi and paratyphi. In nature, anthrax is primarily a disease of cattle and sheep. Rabies is caused by the bite of mad dogs Q fever is caused by C. burnetii, which is transmitted by an infected tick. Ref: Textbook of microbiology; Ananthanarayan and paniker's; 10th edition; Pg: 248
1
Typhoid
Anthrax
Rabies
Q fever
Microbiology
Bacteriology
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multi
Trophic ulcers are caused by all of the following except: September 2007
Ans. B: Varicose veinsTrophic ulcer/neurogenic ulcer have punched out edge with slough in the floor thus resembling a gummatous ulcer. Bedsore and perforating ulcers are typical examples of trophic ulcers.These ulcers develop as a result of repeated trauma to the insensitive pa of the body.They are commonly seen in the...
2
Syringomyelia
Varicose veins
Leprosy
Prolonged recumbency
Pathology
null
2a63d681-013c-4235-83a1-7366662968d4
multi
Which of the following statement is False regarding Meckel's Diveiculum
Meckel&;s diveiculum is the persistent proximal pa of the vitellointestinal duct which is present in the embryo, and which normally disappears during the 6th week of intrauterine life. 1 It occurs in 2% subjects.2 Usually, it is 2 inches or 5 cm long.3 It is situated about 2 feet or 60 cm proximal to the ileocaecal val...
4
Persistant proximal pa of Vitello-Intestinal duct
Disappear during 6th week of intrauterine life
It occurs in 2% and 2 inches long
Its calibre is equal to Jejunum
Anatomy
Abdomen and pelvis
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multi
Which of the following congenital anomalies is seen with maternal use of cocaine:
Ans. C. Cerebral infarctionCocaine - use has been associated with MI, arrhythmias aortic rupture, strokes seizures, bowel ischemia, hyperthermia, and sudden deatha. Risk of vascular disruption within the embryo-fetus or placenta is highest after the first trimester and likely accounts for the increased incidence of sti...
3
Sacral agenesis
Hydrops
Cerebral infarction
Hypertrichosis
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Hydramnios and Oligo Hydramnios
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single
All are required for conversion of progesterone to estrogen except
11 - hydroxylase generates coisol from 11-deoxycoisol and coicosterone from 11-deoxycoicosterone.Ref: DM Vasudevan, 7th edition, page no: 665, fig 52.2 and 52.3
2
Lyase
11-hydroxylase
Reductase
Isomerase
Biochemistry
Endocrinology
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multi
Provided that one secondary oocyte is produced in each menstrual cycle. How many secondary oocytes are on an average produced during the reproductive life of a human female?
ANSWER: (D) 420REF: This is a question of simple mathematical calculationAverage reproductive life is 35 years from puberty to menopause << There are 12 menstrual cycles every yearOne secondary oocyte is produced in each cycleSo the total number of secondary oocytes produced in female will beSec Oocyte = 35 x 12 x 1= 4...
4
4,20,000
42,000
4200
420
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
The Ovarian Cycle
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single
100 Core Health Indicators refers to
Global Reference list is a standard set of 100 core indicators prioritized by global community to provide concise information on the health situation and trends, including responses at National and Global levels.
3
Sustainable Developmental Goals
Millennium Developmental Goals
Global Reference List
Health for all
Social & Preventive Medicine
Concept of health and disease
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multi
Ohograde axonal transpo involves all except
"Ohograde transpo occurs along microtubules that run along the length of the axon and requires two molecular motors, dynein and kinesin. The ohograde transpo moves from the cell body toward the axon terminals." Features of Axoplasmic TranspoTranspo typeSpeed MechanismMaterial TranspoedFast Anterograde400Saltatory movem...
3
Kinesin and Dynein molecular motors
Ohograde transpo moves from the cell body toward the axon terminals
Nerve Growth Factor, toxins, viruses transpo using kinesin
Mitochondria, vesicles containing neurotransmitters using kinesin
Physiology
General physiology
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multi
An anganwadi worker is trained for-
Ans. is 'b' i.e.. 4 months
2
3 months
4 months
5 months
6 months
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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single
Inability to abduct left eye with LMN fascial palsy on same side. The lesion is in
(A) Left pons # Foville's syndrome following dorsal pontine injury includes lateral gaze palsy, ipsilateral facial palsy, and contralateral hemiparesis incurred by damage to descending corticospinal fibers.> Millard-Gubler syndrome from ventral pontine injury is similar, except for the eye findings. There is ipsilatera...
1
Left pons
Right pons
CP angle tumor
Cerebellar lesions
Medicine
Miscellaneous
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single
Which of the following is false about CT?
CT imaging of acute head trauma is performed to detect treatable lesions before secondary neurologic damage occurs. CT is highly accurate for the detection of acute intra and extra-axial hemorrhage, as well as skull, temporal bone, facial, and orbital fractures.CT is considered the gold standard for detecting calcifica...
2
Imaging modality of first choice for suspected acute subarachnoid hemorrhage.
Best for diagnosing Soft tissue pathology
Investigation of choice for skull trauma
Calcification is better visualized on CT than on MRI
Radiology
Fundamentals in Radiology
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multi
Enzyme-deficient in Alkaptonuria
.
3
Phenylalanine hydroxylase
Cystathionine synthase
Homogentisic acid oxidase
Tyrosinase
Pathology
All India exam
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single
The study of smoking as a cause of lung cancer, 90 cases were taken, 75 were smokers and among 100 controls 40 were smokers. Calculate the odds ratio ?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., 7.5 Odds ratio is cross product of entries in the table. So, it is very impoant to make a correct table construct ? i) History of exposure (risk factor) is arranged on left column (row). ii) Disease is arranged on the top ? a) Cases in middle column (row) b) Controls in right column (row)
3
2
4.5
7.5
10
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
6ae5f7f9-f78f-433e-a47e-78c3595ca459
single
A man presented with bilateral crepitations in the base of the lungs and signs of pneumonitis with a history of exposure to pigeon feces. Which of the following is true about this condition?
Ans. a. Diagnosis can be made on the basis of history
1
Diagnosis can be made on the basis of history
CT scan is investigation of choice
Chest X-ray will reveal characteristic changes
It is type I hypersensitivity reaction
Medicine
null
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multi
Wide QRS complex is typically seen in
The differential diagnosis of wide-complex tachycardia includes ventricular tachycardia , PSVT with bundle branch block aberrancy, and preexcited tachycardia (see above). In general, these should be managed as ventricular tachycardia until proven other- wise. If the tachycardia is regular and the patient is stable, a t...
1
Bundle branch block
Sick sinus syndrome
Mobitz Type I block
Mobitz Type II block
Anatomy
General anatomy
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multi
CSF Rhinorrhea is usually due to fracture of cribriform plate. Cribriform plate is a pa of:
Ethmoid
2
Vomer
Ethmoid
Maxilla
Zygomatic bone
Anatomy
null
cca19d02-c9e9-4c7c-be95-ad39fe853530
multi
A 7-year-old has a 4-mm maxillary midline diastema. Which of the following should be done?
When a large diastema greater than 2 mm is present, it will probably not close on its own. Diagnostic tests, such as a radiograph, should be accomplished to rule out the presence of a supernumerary tooth, usually a mesiodens.
2
Brackets should be placed to close it.
A radiograph should be taken to rule out the presence of a supernumerary tooth.
Nothing should be done. It will close on its own.
Nothing should be done. Treatment should be deferred until the rest of the permanent dentition erupts.
Dental
null
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single