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2b404aab-837f-4d8b-8123-b17d9b5cf79b
Mutation leading to sickle cell anemia? (a) Point mutation (b) Deletion (c) Crossover mutation (d) Frame shift
Crossover mutation
Frame shift
Deletion
Point mutation
3
single
Ans. is D i.e., Point mutation. Sickle cell anemia is a hereditary hemoglobinopathy, i.e., the type of disease characterized by production of defective hemoglobin. Sickle cell anemia results from mutation in b-globin gene. It is caused by a point mutation (Base substitution mutation) at the sixth position of the b-glob...
Pediatrics
null
(a) Point mutation
(a) Point mutation (b) Deletion (c) Crossover mutation (d) Frame shift
(a)
[ "(b)", "(c)", "(d)" ]
[ "(b) Deletion", "(c) Crossover mutation", "(d) Frame shift" ]
(b) Deletion
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Mutation leading to sickle cell anemia?\n\n(a) Point mutation\n(b) Deletion\n(c) Crossover mutation\n(d) Frame shift", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(a) Point mutation", "role": "assistant" } ]
0f33c843-ffde-4653-82f0-f8d2b26e9b00
Which one of the following activities cannot be formed by a 7 month old infant – [A] Enjoy mirror [B] Transfer objects [C] Cruise [D] Pivot
Pivot
Cruise
Transfer objects
Enjoy mirror
1
single
null
Pediatrics
null
[C] Cruise
[A] Enjoy mirror [B] Transfer objects [C] Cruise [D] Pivot
[C]
[ "[A]", "[B]", "[D]" ]
[ "[A] Enjoy mirror", "[B] Transfer objects", "[D] Pivot" ]
[B] Transfer objects
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Which one of the following activities cannot be formed by a 7 month old infant –\n\n[A] Enjoy mirror\n[B] Transfer objects\n[C] Cruise\n[D] Pivot", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[C] Cruise", "role": "assistant" } ]
6f63a8e7-577e-4d6c-9be0-c23f4537574c
True about VSD are all except - a) Pansystolic mormor b) Left atrial hyperophy c) Reverse spitting of S2 d) Left to right shunt
Left to right shunt
Pansystolic mormor
Reverse spitting of S2
Left atrial hyperophy
2
multi
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Reverse spliting of S2 Hemodynamics of VSD o A VSD results in shunting of oxygenated blood from left to right because left ventricle has more pressure than right Left to right shunt. o Blood flow from left to right ventricle due to high pressure gradient --> Pansystolic murmur and systolic thrill. o B...
Pediatrics
null
c) Reverse spitting of S2
a) Pansystolic mormor b) Left atrial hyperophy c) Reverse spitting of S2 d) Left to right shunt
c)
[ "a)", "b)", "d)" ]
[ "a) Pansystolic mormor", "b) Left atrial hyperophy", "d) Left to right shunt" ]
d) Left to right shunt
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "True about VSD are all except -\n\na) Pansystolic mormor\nb) Left atrial hyperophy\nc) Reverse spitting of S2\nd) Left to right shunt", "role": "user" }, { "content": "c) Reverse spitting of S2", "role": "assistant" } ]
b8d21b7e-9b8c-4e22-817f-1a9b9c6e7828
Among the following, which of the following is/are the greatest contributor/contributors to global warming as a consequence of human activities and life style ? (1) Methane (2) Chlorofluorocarbons (3) Carbon dioxide (4) Ozone
Carbon dioxide
Chlorofluorocarbons
Methane
Ozone
0
single
null
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
(3) Carbon dioxide
(1) Methane (2) Chlorofluorocarbons (3) Carbon dioxide (4) Ozone
(3)
[ "(1)", "(2)", "(4)" ]
[ "(1) Methane", "(2) Chlorofluorocarbons", "(4) Ozone" ]
(4) Ozone
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Among the following, which of the following is/are the greatest contributor/contributors to global warming as a consequence of human activities and life style ?\n\n(1) Methane\n(2) Chlorofluorocarbons\n(3) Carbon dioxide\n(4) Ozone", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(3) Carbon dioxide",...
8656b714-9f8e-4896-9a0f-0cb4d7a58398
Which of the following brain tumours is highly vascular in nature ? [1] Pituitory adenomas [2] CP angle epidermoid [3] Glioblastoma [4] Meningiomas
Glioblastoma
Meningiomas
CP angle epidermoid
Pituitory adenomas
0
single
.glioblastoma multiforma. It is very aggressive malignant tumour.and also highly vascular in nature. ref:SRB&;s manual of surgery,ed 3,pg no 1050
Surgery
Urology
[3] Glioblastoma
[1] Pituitory adenomas [2] CP angle epidermoid [3] Glioblastoma [4] Meningiomas
[3]
[ "[1]", "[2]", "[4]" ]
[ "[1] Pituitory adenomas", "[2] CP angle epidermoid", "[4] Meningiomas" ]
[4] Meningiomas
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Which of the following brain tumours is highly vascular in nature ?\n\n[1] Pituitory adenomas\n[2] CP angle epidermoid\n[3] Glioblastoma\n[4] Meningiomas", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[3] Glioblastoma", "role": "assistant" } ]
78f0844d-8862-4544-93b6-c3f635aec9fc
True statement about the drug of Administration is [1] Inhalation route produces delayed systemic bioavailability [2] I.M. administration needs sterile technique [3] 80% bioavailability by I.V. injection [4] I.D. injection produce local tissue necrosis and irritation
80% bioavailability by I.V. injection
I.M. administration needs sterile technique
I.D. injection produce local tissue necrosis and irritation
Inhalation route produces delayed systemic bioavailability
1
multi
1)100%. bioavailability is seen in case of IV route. 2)sterile technique is needed in case of I.V. and I.M. administration. 3)Irritation and loal tissue necrosis is seen in case of imetable routes like intramuscular or s.c. route. 4)In inhalational route, absorption of drugs takes place.from vast suaces of alveoli-so b...
Anatomy
General anatomy
[2] I.M. administration needs sterile technique
[1] Inhalation route produces delayed systemic bioavailability [2] I.M. administration needs sterile technique [3] 80% bioavailability by I.V. injection [4] I.D. injection produce local tissue necrosis and irritation
[2]
[ "[1]", "[3]", "[4]" ]
[ "[1] Inhalation route produces delayed systemic bioavailability", "[3] 80% bioavailability by I.V. injection", "[4] I.D. injection produce local tissue necrosis and irritation" ]
[4] I.D. injection produce local tissue necrosis and irritation
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "True statement about the drug of Administration is\n\n[1] Inhalation route produces delayed systemic bioavailability\n[2] I.M. administration needs sterile technique\n[3] 80% bioavailability by I.V. injection\n[4] I.D. injection produce local tissue necrosis and irritation", "role": "user" }...
d1acd1ab-ee9b-4c4e-bf59-0f45590fed43
HDL was called good cholesterol because: I. Activates lipoprotein lipase II. Causes transpo from extrahepatic tissues III. Stimulate hepatic TGs synthesis IV. Removes cholesterol from extrahepatic tissues
Activates lipoprotein lipase
Stimulate hepatic TGs synthesis
Causes transpo from extrahepatic tissues
Removes cholesterol from extrahepatic tissues
3
multi
HDL Good and Bad cholesterol terminology was used earlier. Now these terms 'good' & 'bad' cholesterol are discarded. HDL was called good cholesterol because of reverse cholesterol transpo i.e. it takes cholesterol from peripheral tissue to liver. HDL conves this cholesterol into cholesterol ester with the help of enzym...
Biochemistry
Cholesterol synthesis and bile acids
IV. Removes cholesterol from extrahepatic tissues
I. Activates lipoprotein lipase II. Causes transpo from extrahepatic tissues III. Stimulate hepatic TGs synthesis IV. Removes cholesterol from extrahepatic tissues
IV.
[ "I.", "II.", "III." ]
[ "I. Activates lipoprotein lipase", "II. Causes transpo from extrahepatic tissues", "III. Stimulate hepatic TGs synthesis" ]
III. Stimulate hepatic TGs synthesis
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "HDL was called good cholesterol because:\n\nI. Activates lipoprotein lipase\nII. Causes transpo from extrahepatic tissues\nIII. Stimulate hepatic TGs synthesis\nIV. Removes cholesterol from extrahepatic tissues", "role": "user" }, { "content": "IV. Removes cholesterol from extrahepatic...
a0054edb-ad39-4a4f-9c6f-583199c2c86c
Vitamin deficient in breast milk is? [1] Vitamin B complex [2] Vitamin A [3] Vitamin C [4] Vitamin D
Vitamin A
Vitamin B complex
Vitamin C
Vitamin D
2
single
<p> MILK:- Milk is good source of proteins , fats , sugars, vitamins and minerals. 1. Proteins: chief protein is casein. It occurs in combination with calcium as calcium caseinogenate. The other proteins are lactalbumin and lactoglobulin. Animal milk contains 3 times as much protein as human milk. Milk protein contain ...
Social & Preventive Medicine
Nutrition and health
[3] Vitamin C
[1] Vitamin B complex [2] Vitamin A [3] Vitamin C [4] Vitamin D
[3]
[ "[1]", "[2]", "[4]" ]
[ "[1] Vitamin B complex", "[2] Vitamin A", "[4] Vitamin D" ]
[2] Vitamin A
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Vitamin deficient in breast milk is?\n\n[1] Vitamin B complex\n[2] Vitamin A\n[3] Vitamin C\n[4] Vitamin D", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[3] Vitamin C", "role": "assistant" } ]
f5b9d8d6-72c3-48ab-94a9-fdcfcd8ce910
Hormone that stimulates gluconeogenesis is: [a] None of the above [b] Both of the above [c] Epinephrine [d] Glucagon
Glucagon
Epinephrine
None of the above
Both of the above
3
multi
Ans:D.)Both of the Above. Glucagon and epinephrine, hormones that are responsive to a decrease in blood glucose, inhibit glycolysis and stimulate gluconeogenesis in the liver by increasing the concentration of cAMP. This in turn activates cAMP-dependent protein kinase, leading to the phosphorylation and inactivation of...
Biochemistry
null
[b] Both of the above
[a] None of the above [b] Both of the above [c] Epinephrine [d] Glucagon
[b]
[ "[a]", "[c]", "[d]" ]
[ "[a] None of the above", "[c] Epinephrine", "[d] Glucagon" ]
[d] Glucagon
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Hormone that stimulates gluconeogenesis is:\n\n[a] None of the above\n[b] Both of the above\n[c] Epinephrine\n[d] Glucagon", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[b] Both of the above", "role": "assistant" } ]
c0e76926-af0c-49d7-b096-b981dd178bfb
Choose the most effective drug for mild intestinal amoebiasis and asymptomatic cyst passers: 1) Metronidazole 2) Emetine 3) Diloxanide furoate 4) Quiniodochlor
Metronidazole
Emetine
Quiniodochlor
Diloxanide furoate
3
single
-Diloxanide furoate is drug of choice for luminal ameobiasis and carriers. -Metronidazole is drug of choice for intestinal and extra-intestinal ameobiasis.
Pharmacology
Anti-Parasitic Drugs
3) Diloxanide furoate
1) Metronidazole 2) Emetine 3) Diloxanide furoate 4) Quiniodochlor
3)
[ "1)", "2)", "4)" ]
[ "1) Metronidazole", "2) Emetine", "4) Quiniodochlor" ]
4) Quiniodochlor
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Choose the most effective drug for mild intestinal amoebiasis and asymptomatic cyst passers:\n\n1) Metronidazole\n2) Emetine\n3) Diloxanide furoate\n4) Quiniodochlor", "role": "user" }, { "content": "3) Diloxanide furoate", "role": "assistant" } ]
0e525fe1-0b66-426a-9c3a-1dc70cc97603
In Hashimotos thyroiditis there is infiltration of [a] Neutrophiks [b] Leukocytes [c] Macrophages [d] Eosinophils
Macrophages
Neutrophiks
Leukocytes
Eosinophils
2
single
Robbins page no 1087MORPHOLOGY The thyroid is often diffusely enlarged, although more localized enlargement may be seen in some cases. The capsule is intact, and the gland is well demarcated from adjacent structures. The cut surface is pale, yellow-tan, firm, and somewhat nodular. There is extensive infiltration of the...
Anatomy
Musculoskeletal system
[b] Leukocytes
[a] Neutrophiks [b] Leukocytes [c] Macrophages [d] Eosinophils
[b]
[ "[a]", "[c]", "[d]" ]
[ "[a] Neutrophiks", "[c] Macrophages", "[d] Eosinophils" ]
[a] Neutrophiks
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "In Hashimotos thyroiditis there is infiltration of\n\n[a] Neutrophiks\n[b] Leukocytes\n[c] Macrophages\n[d] Eosinophils", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[b] Leukocytes", "role": "assistant" } ]
b25e323b-00ce-41f0-9823-bbb56ba7ee0d
A 43-year-old trauma patient develops acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) and has difficulty oxygenating despite increased concentrations of inspired O2 . After the positive endexpiratory pressure (PEEP) is increased, the patient's oxygenation improves. What is the mechanism by which this occurs? (1) Increasing...
Decreasing dead-space ventilation
Decreasing the minute ventilation requirement
Increasing tidal volume
Increasing functional residual capacity
3
single
PEEP improves oxygenation by increasing functional residual capacity by keeping the alveoli open at the end of expiration. Extravascular lung water is shifted from the alveolar to the interstitial space. The overall result is to increase surface area for diffusive exchange of gases. Potential negative effects of increa...
Anaesthesia
Miscellaneous
(2) Increasing functional residual capacity
(1) Increasing tidal volume (2) Increasing functional residual capacity (3) Decreasing the minute ventilation requirement (4) Decreasing dead-space ventilation
(2)
[ "(1)", "(3)", "(4)" ]
[ "(1) Increasing tidal volume", "(3) Decreasing the minute ventilation requirement", "(4) Decreasing dead-space ventilation" ]
(1) Increasing tidal volume
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "A 43-year-old trauma patient develops acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) and has difficulty oxygenating despite increased concentrations of inspired O2 . After the positive endexpiratory pressure (PEEP) is increased, the patient's oxygenation improves. What is the mechanism by which this o...
3e24045a-8fd6-4a12-9b56-151ebbe7c72d
Griseofulvin is not useful in i. Tinea pedis ii. Tinea versicolor iii. Tinea cruris iv. Tinea capitis
Tinea capitis
Tinea versicolor
Tinea cruris
Tinea pedis
1
single
griseofulvin and oral terbinafine are not usefu in the treatment of pityriasis versicolor iadvl textbook of dermatologypage 260
Dental
Fungal infections, Scabies, Pediculosis
ii. Tinea versicolor
i. Tinea pedis ii. Tinea versicolor iii. Tinea cruris iv. Tinea capitis
ii.
[ "i.", "iii.", "iv." ]
[ "i. Tinea pedis", "iii. Tinea cruris", "iv. Tinea capitis" ]
i. Tinea pedis
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Griseofulvin is not useful in\n\ni. Tinea pedis\nii. Tinea versicolor\niii. Tinea cruris\niv. Tinea capitis", "role": "user" }, { "content": "ii. Tinea versicolor", "role": "assistant" } ]
18810f92-5daf-4cc2-8fe8-45e2c0150765
In which order the airway of the neonates, who require suctioning, be suctioned during neonatal resuscitation? A. Pharynx followed by oral cavity followed by trachea B. Nose followed by mouth C. Mouth followed by nose D. Nose followed by Trachea
Nose followed by mouth
Mouth followed by nose
Pharynx followed by oral cavity followed by trachea
Nose followed by Trachea
1
single
The mouth is suctioned before the nose ('M' before 'N') To ensure that the infant does not aspirate, if he gasps when the nose is suctioned.
Pediatrics
Neonatal Resuscitation
C. Mouth followed by nose
A. Pharynx followed by oral cavity followed by trachea B. Nose followed by mouth C. Mouth followed by nose D. Nose followed by Trachea
C.
[ "A.", "B.", "D." ]
[ "A. Pharynx followed by oral cavity followed by trachea", "B. Nose followed by mouth", "D. Nose followed by Trachea" ]
A. Pharynx followed by oral cavity followed by trachea
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "In which order the airway of the neonates, who require suctioning, be suctioned during neonatal resuscitation?\n\nA. Pharynx followed by oral cavity followed by trachea\nB. Nose followed by mouth\nC. Mouth followed by nose\nD. Nose followed by Trachea", "role": "user" }, { "content": "...
59c0c7fa-89c7-438f-9c1a-37666cda324d
While doing sigmoidoscopy, if the rectum is inflated with gas increased peristalsis is seen in : i. Whole intestine ii. Distal colon iii. Proximal colon iv. Whole colon
Whole colon
Proximal colon
Distal colon
Whole intestine
2
single
C i.e. Distal colonThere are two types of defecation reflex.Intrinsic reflex mediated by local enteric nervous systemParasympathetic defecation reflex mediated by sacral segment of the spinal cord.In both these types, the reflex is initiated by distention of the rectum by the feces and causes increased peristalsis in t...
Physiology
null
ii. Distal colon
i. Whole intestine ii. Distal colon iii. Proximal colon iv. Whole colon
ii.
[ "i.", "iii.", "iv." ]
[ "i. Whole intestine", "iii. Proximal colon", "iv. Whole colon" ]
iii. Proximal colon
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "While doing sigmoidoscopy, if the rectum is inflated with gas increased peristalsis is seen in :\n\ni. Whole intestine\nii. Distal colon\niii. Proximal colon\niv. Whole colon", "role": "user" }, { "content": "ii. Distal colon", "role": "assistant" } ]
54467774-4651-4859-97d0-dab6dc086d17
In obsessive - compulsive disorder, which is not given: A) Cabamazepine B) Cloimipramine C) Haloperidol D) Sealine
Cloimipramine
Haloperidol
Sealine
Cabamazepine
1
single
B. i.e. Haloperido
Psychiatry
null
C) Haloperidol
A) Cabamazepine B) Cloimipramine C) Haloperidol D) Sealine
C)
[ "A)", "B)", "D)" ]
[ "A) Cabamazepine", "B) Cloimipramine", "D) Sealine" ]
A) Cabamazepine
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "In obsessive - compulsive disorder, which is not given:\n\nA) Cabamazepine\nB) Cloimipramine\nC) Haloperidol\nD) Sealine", "role": "user" }, { "content": "C) Haloperidol", "role": "assistant" } ]
49cc3f73-df06-46ff-b008-f891b4e05b61
Bone marrow depression is seen with chronic administration of - [A] Isoflurane [B] Ether [C] Halothane [D] N2O
Isoflurane
N2O
Ether
Halothane
1
single
Ans. is 'b' i.e., N2O Nitrous oxide N2Oo It is colourless, odourless, heavier than air, nonirritating and noninflammable gas.o It is also called laughing gas.o MAC is 105% (least potent) - even pure N2O at 1 atmospheric pressure can not produce adequate anaesthesia.o It has good analgesic but poor muscle relaxant activ...
Anaesthesia
Complications Of Anaesthesia
[D] N2O
[A] Isoflurane [B] Ether [C] Halothane [D] N2O
[D]
[ "[A]", "[B]", "[C]" ]
[ "[A] Isoflurane", "[B] Ether", "[C] Halothane" ]
[B] Ether
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Bone marrow depression is seen with chronic administration of -\n\n[A] Isoflurane\n[B] Ether\n[C] Halothane\n[D] N2O", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[D] N2O", "role": "assistant" } ]
8d490c81-0fad-4d0d-96ee-738edc0c8a76
Triple assessment for carcinoma breast includes: A) Clinical examination, Mammography, biopsy/cytology B) History, clinical examination, biopsy/cytology C) History, clinical examination, Ultrasonography D) Observation, Ultrasonography, biopsy/cytology
History, clinical examination, biopsy/cytology
Clinical examination, Mammography, biopsy/cytology
History, clinical examination, Ultrasonography
Observation, Ultrasonography, biopsy/cytology
1
single
B i.e. Clinical examination, Mammography, biopsy/cytology In any patient who presents with a breast lump or other symptoms suspicious of carcinoma, the triple diagnostic approach is used to confirm the diagnosis. Triple assessmentQ comprises of :? - Clinical examination - Radiological imaging - mammography or ultrasoun...
Radiology
null
A) Clinical examination, Mammography, biopsy/cytology
A) Clinical examination, Mammography, biopsy/cytology B) History, clinical examination, biopsy/cytology C) History, clinical examination, Ultrasonography D) Observation, Ultrasonography, biopsy/cytology
A)
[ "B)", "C)", "D)" ]
[ "B) History, clinical examination, biopsy/cytology", "C) History, clinical examination, Ultrasonography", "D) Observation, Ultrasonography, biopsy/cytology" ]
C) History, clinical examination, Ultrasonography
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Triple assessment for carcinoma breast includes:\n\nA) Clinical examination, Mammography, biopsy/cytology\nB) History, clinical examination, biopsy/cytology\nC) History, clinical examination, Ultrasonography\nD) Observation, Ultrasonography, biopsy/cytology", "role": "user" }, { "conte...
a71968af-ee05-4897-bd46-b548d13250ca
An eight years old boy presents with progressive swelling around the knee joint of two months duration following mild trauma . Local examination reveals an irregular bony swelling over the upper end of tibia, with raised local temperature and of variable consistency and defined margins. The most likely diagnosis is - ...
Giant cell tumour
Ewing's sarcoma
Osteogenic sarcoma
Secondary metastasis
2
single
The clinical presentation in question can occur both in Ewing's sarcoma and osteosarcoma. History of trivial trauma Progressive swelling Raised local temperature Variable consistency ill defined margins. However, swelling is around the knee joint at upper end of tibia, which favours the diagnosis of osteosarcoma (m...
Orthopaedics
null
[d] Osteogenic sarcoma
[a] Secondary metastasis [b] Ewing's sarcoma [c] Giant cell tumour [d] Osteogenic sarcoma
[d]
[ "[a]", "[b]", "[c]" ]
[ "[a] Secondary metastasis", "[b] Ewing's sarcoma", "[c] Giant cell tumour" ]
[c] Giant cell tumour
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "An eight years old boy presents with progressive swelling around the knee joint of two months duration following mild trauma . Local examination reveals an irregular bony swelling over the upper end of tibia, with raised local temperature and of variable consistency and defined margins. The most l...
e7a8cccd-cff5-421c-91ad-7bd424df4d85
Which of the following is not a 'heterophile reaction': i. Paul Bunnell test ii. Cold agglutinin test iii. Frei's test iv. Weil Felix test
Weil Felix test
Paul Bunnell test
Frei's test
Cold agglutinin test
2
single
Frei's test is not a heterophile reaction Frie's test is used in the diagnosis of LGV. Antigen made from sterile pus aspirated from previously unruptured LGV abscesses, produces a reaction in patients with lymphogranuloma inguinale when injected intradermally. Heterophile reactiion Similar antigens on dissimilar organi...
Microbiology
Immunology Pa 1 (Immune Response, Antigen-Antibody Reactions, Hypersensitivity, Structure of Immune System, Immunodeficiency Disorders)
iii. Frei's test
i. Paul Bunnell test ii. Cold agglutinin test iii. Frei's test iv. Weil Felix test
iii.
[ "i.", "ii.", "iv." ]
[ "i. Paul Bunnell test", "ii. Cold agglutinin test", "iv. Weil Felix test" ]
ii. Cold agglutinin test
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Which of the following is not a 'heterophile reaction':\n\ni. Paul Bunnell test\nii. Cold agglutinin test\niii. Frei's test\niv. Weil Felix test", "role": "user" }, { "content": "iii. Frei's test", "role": "assistant" } ]
cb9c1ead-a22f-48d8-90a5-ca7603590ffa
Which is not the action of TGF - (a) Inhibition of metalloproteinases (b) Anti -inflammatory (c) Proliferation of fibrous tissue (d) Anaphylaxis
Anti -inflammatory
Proliferation of fibrous tissue
Anaphylaxis
Inhibition of metalloproteinases
2
multi
Transforming Growth factor beta: Transforming growth factor-β(TGF-β) is the most important cytokine for the synthesis and deposition of connective tissue proteins. It is produced by most of the cells in granulation tissue, including alternatively activated macrophages. The levels of TGF-β in tissues are primarily regu...
Pathology
null
(d) Anaphylaxis
(a) Inhibition of metalloproteinases (b) Anti -inflammatory (c) Proliferation of fibrous tissue (d) Anaphylaxis
(d)
[ "(a)", "(b)", "(c)" ]
[ "(a) Inhibition of metalloproteinases", "(b) Anti -inflammatory", "(c) Proliferation of fibrous tissue" ]
(a) Inhibition of metalloproteinases
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Which is not the action of TGF -\n\n(a) Inhibition of metalloproteinases\n(b) Anti -inflammatory\n(c) Proliferation of fibrous tissue\n(d) Anaphylaxis", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(d) Anaphylaxis", "role": "assistant" } ]
fa24ad44-561e-44c6-ba9b-7375eba168f8
True about Pneumocystis carinii (Pneumocystis jerovecii) is the following EXCEPT (a) Cyanosis (b) | diffusion capacity (c) Respiratory alkalosis (d) | arterial O2 gradient (PAO2 - PaO2)
Respiratory alkalosis
| diffusion capacity
Cyanosis
| arterial O2 gradient (PAO2 - PaO2)
3
multi
Ans. d (| arterial O2 gradient (PAO2-PaO2)) (Ref: Harrison's Internal medicine 17th edition, p. 1267)ABG in PCP:# | alveolar arterial O2 gradient (Normal < 15 mm H2O 20-30 )# | PaO2 When,When,PAO2 - PaO2 < 35 mm Hg:- PAO2 - PaO2 > 35 mm Hg and PaO2 < 60 mm Hg:- Mild infection- Severe infection- No need to add steroids-...
Medicine
Infection
(d) | arterial O2 gradient (PAO2 - PaO2)
(a) Cyanosis (b) | diffusion capacity (c) Respiratory alkalosis (d) | arterial O2 gradient (PAO2 - PaO2)
(d)
[ "(a)", "(b)", "(c)" ]
[ "(a) Cyanosis", "(b) | diffusion capacity", "(c) Respiratory alkalosis" ]
(b) | diffusion capacity
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "True about Pneumocystis carinii (Pneumocystis jerovecii) is the following EXCEPT\n\n(a) Cyanosis\n(b) | diffusion capacity\n(c) Respiratory alkalosis\n(d) | arterial O2 gradient (PAO2 - PaO2)", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(d) | arterial O2 gradient (PAO2 - PaO2)", "role": "assi...
b21205c2-7f9b-4898-9300-58590e971fd3
What is the most effective treatment for accelerated phase of chronic myeloid leukaemia? [A] Chemotherapy [B] Allogeneic bone marrow transplantation [C] Hydroxyurea & interferon [D] Autologous bone marrow transplantation
Allogeneic bone marrow transplantation
Autologous bone marrow transplantation
Chemotherapy
Hydroxyurea & interferon
0
multi
Allogeneic SCT was considered first-line CML therapy before 2000. The maturing positive experience with TKIs has now relegated its use to after first-line TKI failures. An impoant question is the optimal timing and sequence of TKIs and allogeneic SCT (whether allogeneic SCT should be used as second- or third-line thera...
Medicine
CLL & CML
[B] Allogeneic bone marrow transplantation
[A] Chemotherapy [B] Allogeneic bone marrow transplantation [C] Hydroxyurea & interferon [D] Autologous bone marrow transplantation
[B]
[ "[A]", "[C]", "[D]" ]
[ "[A] Chemotherapy", "[C] Hydroxyurea & interferon", "[D] Autologous bone marrow transplantation" ]
[C] Hydroxyurea & interferon
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "What is the most effective treatment for accelerated phase of chronic myeloid leukaemia?\n\n[A] Chemotherapy\n[B] Allogeneic bone marrow transplantation\n[C] Hydroxyurea & interferon\n[D] Autologous bone marrow transplantation", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[B] Allogeneic bone marro...
94db41a4-0e72-4abb-89c0-bad8328d4caf
Intestinal biopsy is not diagnostic in [1] Agammaaglobinemia [2] Intestinal lymphagienctaisis [3] Tropical sprue [4] Abetalipoprotienemina
Abetalipoprotienemina
Tropical sprue
Intestinal lymphagienctaisis
Agammaaglobinemia
1
single
Refer Robbins page no 9/e 784 Small bowel biopsy is viually always abnormal when the tTG IgA antibody level is very high (more than five-fold the normal range), and EMA is positive. This is done in a procedure called a biopsy. The physician eases a long, thin tube called an endoscope through the mouth andstomach into t...
Anatomy
G.I.T
[3] Tropical sprue
[1] Agammaaglobinemia [2] Intestinal lymphagienctaisis [3] Tropical sprue [4] Abetalipoprotienemina
[3]
[ "[1]", "[2]", "[4]" ]
[ "[1] Agammaaglobinemia", "[2] Intestinal lymphagienctaisis", "[4] Abetalipoprotienemina" ]
[4] Abetalipoprotienemina
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Intestinal biopsy is not diagnostic in\n\n[1] Agammaaglobinemia\n[2] Intestinal lymphagienctaisis\n[3] Tropical sprue\n[4] Abetalipoprotienemina", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[3] Tropical sprue", "role": "assistant" } ]
c58c80b7-89d8-4be9-a179-4f79941ed714
Gennifer, a 4 years got her lower 2nd molar extracted due to caries, the possible Line of treatment is I. No active treatment is necessary II. Removable partial denture III. Band and loop between primary 1st molar and permanent 1st molar IV. Distal shoe space maintainer
Distal shoe space maintainer
Band and loop between primary 1st molar and permanent 1st molar
Removable partial denture
No active treatment is necessary
0
single
null
Dental
null
IV. Distal shoe space maintainer
I. No active treatment is necessary II. Removable partial denture III. Band and loop between primary 1st molar and permanent 1st molar IV. Distal shoe space maintainer
IV.
[ "I.", "II.", "III." ]
[ "I. No active treatment is necessary", "II. Removable partial denture", "III. Band and loop between primary 1st molar and permanent 1st molar" ]
II. Removable partial denture
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Gennifer, a 4 years got her lower 2nd molar extracted due\nto caries, the possible Line of treatment is\n\nI. No active treatment is necessary\nII. Removable partial denture\nIII. Band and loop between primary 1st molar and permanent 1st molar\nIV. Distal shoe space maintainer", "role": "user"...
622e130a-8881-4267-ad34-78cd538b7380
Hypogonadism with 47 XXY is a feature of (A) Turner's syndrome (B) Klinefelter's syndrome (C) Down's syndrome (D) Edward's syndrome
Down's syndrome
Turner's syndrome
Edward's syndrome
Klinefelter's syndrome
3
single
Ans. d (Klinefelter's syndrome) (Ref: Robbins 7th edition, p.179; Harisson's internal medicine 17th edition, p. 2317)Klinefelter syndrome (XXY)# Common cause of hypogonadism seen in infertility work-up# Dysgenesis of seminiferous tubules | inhibin | FSH.# Abnormal Leydig cell function | testosterone | LH | estrogen.# T...
Medicine
Genetics
(B) Klinefelter's syndrome
(A) Turner's syndrome (B) Klinefelter's syndrome (C) Down's syndrome (D) Edward's syndrome
(B)
[ "(A)", "(C)", "(D)" ]
[ "(A) Turner's syndrome", "(C) Down's syndrome", "(D) Edward's syndrome" ]
(D) Edward's syndrome
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Hypogonadism with 47 XXY is a feature of\n\n(A) Turner's syndrome\n(B) Klinefelter's syndrome\n(C) Down's syndrome\n(D) Edward's syndrome", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(B) Klinefelter's syndrome", "role": "assistant" } ]
8533ffc8-ffff-48db-a81d-cf13ce66dd3d
Treatment of choice of 28 weeks size H mole In 40 years parous woman is : [A] Hysterectomy [B] Hysterotomy [C] Vacuum extraction [D] Vaginal delivery
Vacuum extraction
Hysterectomy
Hysterotomy
Vaginal delivery
1
single
Hysterectomy
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
[A] Hysterectomy
[A] Hysterectomy [B] Hysterotomy [C] Vacuum extraction [D] Vaginal delivery
[A]
[ "[B]", "[C]", "[D]" ]
[ "[B] Hysterotomy", "[C] Vacuum extraction", "[D] Vaginal delivery" ]
[D] Vaginal delivery
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Treatment of choice of 28 weeks size H mole In 40 years parous woman is :\n\n[A] Hysterectomy\n[B] Hysterotomy\n[C] Vacuum extraction\n[D] Vaginal delivery", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[A] Hysterectomy", "role": "assistant" } ]
8169ff91-b3b7-4eab-9fec-8859bd2a79c1
Earliest detectable Congenital Malformation by USG is: 1) Encephalocele 2) Anencephaly 3) Cystic hygroma 4) Spina bifida
Spina bifida
Cystic hygroma
Anencephaly
Encephalocele
2
single
Anencephaly
Radiology
null
2) Anencephaly
1) Encephalocele 2) Anencephaly 3) Cystic hygroma 4) Spina bifida
2)
[ "1)", "3)", "4)" ]
[ "1) Encephalocele", "3) Cystic hygroma", "4) Spina bifida" ]
4) Spina bifida
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Earliest detectable Congenital Malformation by USG is:\n\n1) Encephalocele\n2) Anencephaly\n3) Cystic hygroma\n4) Spina bifida", "role": "user" }, { "content": "2) Anencephaly", "role": "assistant" } ]
c9d6f6a8-bdd1-4b98-b791-6018109a793b
Most common site of TB - a) Spine b) Hip c) Knee d) Shoulder
Spine
Knee
Hip
Shoulder
0
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Spine Skeletal tuberculosiso Tuberculous infection of bone (osteomyelitis) is a form of secondary osteomyelitis caused by hematogenous dissemination from a primary' infected visceral focus. The primary-focus may be active or quiescent, apparent or latent; either in the lungs, lymph glands or other vis...
Orthopaedics
TB of the Spine
a) Spine
a) Spine b) Hip c) Knee d) Shoulder
a)
[ "b)", "c)", "d)" ]
[ "b) Hip", "c) Knee", "d) Shoulder" ]
d) Shoulder
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Most common site of TB -\n\na) Spine\nb) Hip\nc) Knee\nd) Shoulder", "role": "user" }, { "content": "a) Spine", "role": "assistant" } ]
87b8680c-1924-4de3-99cc-7bdffa83261a
Keshan cardiomegaly - 1) Cu 2) Zn 3) Fe 4) Se
Se
Cu
Zn
Fe
0
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Se o Keshan disease is a disorder of selenium metabolism.
Social & Preventive Medicine
Nutrition and Health
4) Se
1) Cu 2) Zn 3) Fe 4) Se
4)
[ "1)", "2)", "3)" ]
[ "1) Cu", "2) Zn", "3) Fe" ]
3) Fe
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Keshan cardiomegaly -\n\n1) Cu\n2) Zn\n3) Fe\n4) Se", "role": "user" }, { "content": "4) Se", "role": "assistant" } ]
c7eed329-ea89-4b34-b01b-caad65cde872
The internal pudendal artery supplies which of the following [1] Distal vaginal walls [2] Posterior vaginal wall [3] Proximal vagina [4] Bladder trigone
Proximal vagina
Distal vaginal walls
Posterior vaginal wall
Bladder trigone
1
multi
Proximal vagina →  Cervical branch of uterine artery Vaginal artery Posterior vaginal wall → Middle rectal artery Distal vaginal wall → Internal pudendal artery.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
[1] Distal vaginal walls
[1] Distal vaginal walls [2] Posterior vaginal wall [3] Proximal vagina [4] Bladder trigone
[1]
[ "[2]", "[3]", "[4]" ]
[ "[2] Posterior vaginal wall", "[3] Proximal vagina", "[4] Bladder trigone" ]
[4] Bladder trigone
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "The internal pudendal artery supplies which of the following\n\n[1] Distal vaginal walls\n[2] Posterior vaginal wall\n[3] Proximal vagina\n[4] Bladder trigone", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[1] Distal vaginal walls", "role": "assistant" } ]
dbcf6367-b512-4df2-a95e-424b522bc4b8
Light microscopic characteristic features of apoptosis is [a] Condensation of the nucleus [b] Eosinophilic cytoplasm [c] Nuclear moulding [d] Intact cell membrane
Intact cell membrane
Eosinophilic cytoplasm
Nuclear moulding
Condensation of the nucleus
3
single
Ref, Robbins 8/ep41-15,26-27,9/ep53
Anatomy
General anatomy
[a] Condensation of the nucleus
[a] Condensation of the nucleus [b] Eosinophilic cytoplasm [c] Nuclear moulding [d] Intact cell membrane
[a]
[ "[b]", "[c]", "[d]" ]
[ "[b] Eosinophilic cytoplasm", "[c] Nuclear moulding", "[d] Intact cell membrane" ]
[c] Nuclear moulding
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Light microscopic characteristic features of apoptosis is\n\n[a] Condensation of the nucleus\n[b] Eosinophilic cytoplasm\n[c] Nuclear moulding\n[d] Intact cell membrane", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[a] Condensation of the nucleus", "role": "assistant" } ]
66321d24-88da-468e-8066-3766001b51e4
Best treatment of subdural haemotoma in a deteriorating patient- 1) By UV Mannitol 2) Oxygenation 3) Surgical evacuation 4) Use of steroids
By UV Mannitol
Oxygenation
Use of steroids
Surgical evacuation
3
single
null
Surgery
null
3) Surgical evacuation
1) By UV Mannitol 2) Oxygenation 3) Surgical evacuation 4) Use of steroids
3)
[ "1)", "2)", "4)" ]
[ "1) By UV Mannitol", "2) Oxygenation", "4) Use of steroids" ]
2) Oxygenation
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Best treatment of subdural haemotoma in a deteriorating patient-\n\n1) By UV Mannitol\n2) Oxygenation\n3) Surgical evacuation\n4) Use of steroids", "role": "user" }, { "content": "3) Surgical evacuation", "role": "assistant" } ]
2e8ffdcc-d1b5-48de-98d2-f3b1c2f73ecb
Which of the following vitamins contain sulfur in its structure? (1) Folic acid (2) Thiamine (3) Riboflavin (4) Niacin
Thiamine
Riboflavin
Folic acid
Niacin
0
single
Thiamine contains Sulphur in its structure. Structure of Thiamine: Thiamine contains a substituted pyrimidine ring connected to a substituted thiazole ring by means of methylene bridge. The vitamin is then conveed to its active co-enzyme form by addition of two phosphate groups, with the help of ATP (Fig. 34.1). It is ...
Biochemistry
vitamins
(2) Thiamine
(1) Folic acid (2) Thiamine (3) Riboflavin (4) Niacin
(2)
[ "(1)", "(3)", "(4)" ]
[ "(1) Folic acid", "(3) Riboflavin", "(4) Niacin" ]
(1) Folic acid
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Which of the following vitamins contain sulfur in its structure?\n\n(1) Folic acid\n(2) Thiamine\n(3) Riboflavin\n(4) Niacin", "role": "user" }, { "content": "(2) Thiamine", "role": "assistant" } ]
6ae5f7f9-f78f-433e-a47e-78c3595ca459
The study of smoking as a cause of lung cancer, 90 cases were taken, 75 were smokers and among 100 controls 40 were smokers. Calculate the odds ratio ? I. 10 II. 2 III. 4.5 IV. 7.5
2
4.5
7.5
10
2
single
Ans. is 'c' i.e., 7.5 Odds ratio is cross product of entries in the table. So, it is very impoant to make a correct table construct ? i) History of exposure (risk factor) is arranged on left column (row). ii) Disease is arranged on the top ? a) Cases in middle column (row) b) Controls in right column (row)
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
IV. 7.5
I. 10 II. 2 III. 4.5 IV. 7.5
IV.
[ "I.", "II.", "III." ]
[ "I. 10", "II. 2", "III. 4.5" ]
III. 4.5
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "The study of smoking as a cause of lung cancer, 90 cases were taken, 75 were smokers and among 100 controls 40 were smokers. Calculate the odds ratio ?\n\nI. 10\nII. 2\nIII. 4.5\nIV. 7.5", "role": "user" }, { "content": "IV. 7.5", "role": "assistant" } ]
a316efb7-2941-4b58-b88c-6dd363db52dc
All are true about 0-oxidation except: i. Carnitine palmitoyl trasferase II is present in mitochondrial matrix ii. FA activation requires 2ATP. iii. Carnitine palmitoyl transferase I is present in outer mitochondrial membrane iv. Activation of FA is a must
Activation of FA is a must
Carnitine palmitoyl transferase I is present in outer mitochondrial membrane
Carnitine palmitoyl trasferase II is present in mitochondrial matrix
FA activation requires 2ATP.
2
multi
C i.e. Carnitine palmitoyl trasf erase II is present in mitochondrial matrix Long chain activated fatty acid penetrate the inner mitochondria( membrane only in combination with carnitineQ. Carnitine, a carrier molecule, acts like a ferry boat and transpo long chain acyl- CoA across mitochondiral membrane otherwise inne...
Biochemistry
null
i. Carnitine palmitoyl trasferase II is present in mitochondrial matrix
i. Carnitine palmitoyl trasferase II is present in mitochondrial matrix ii. FA activation requires 2ATP. iii. Carnitine palmitoyl transferase I is present in outer mitochondrial membrane iv. Activation of FA is a must
i.
[ "ii.", "iii.", "iv." ]
[ "ii. FA activation requires 2ATP.", "iii. Carnitine palmitoyl transferase I is present in outer mitochondrial membrane", "iv. Activation of FA is a must" ]
iv. Activation of FA is a must
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "All are true about 0-oxidation except:\n\ni. Carnitine palmitoyl trasferase II is present in mitochondrial matrix\nii. FA activation requires 2ATP.\niii. Carnitine palmitoyl transferase I is present in outer mitochondrial membrane\niv. Activation of FA is a must", "role": "user" }, { "...
50109c84-dda0-47ad-983f-db06f35e7e4b
A 52-year-old man has suffered with chronic diarrhea for several years, but has refused to see a doctor. He finally comes because he is having trouble driving at night, because of difficulty seeing. Physical examination reveals a slender, pale, unwell-looking man. He has a microcytic anemia, slight elevation in the INR...
malabsorption
osmotic diarrhea
secretory diarrhea
inflammatory bowel disease
0
multi
His night blindness suggests vitamin A deficiency, which is more likely to occur with malabsorption. His anemia and general appearance are compatible with chronic inflammatory bowel disease as well, but the clinical and biochemical features of fat-soluble vitamin deficiency (in this case vitamin A, D, and K) suggest ma...
Medicine
G.I.T.
d) malabsorption
a) inflammatory bowel disease b) osmotic diarrhea c) secretory diarrhea d) malabsorption
d)
[ "a)", "b)", "c)" ]
[ "a) inflammatory bowel disease", "b) osmotic diarrhea", "c) secretory diarrhea" ]
c) secretory diarrhea
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "A 52-year-old man has suffered with chronic diarrhea for several years, but has refused to see a doctor. He finally comes because he is having trouble driving at night, because of difficulty seeing. Physical examination reveals a slender, pale, unwell-looking man. He has a microcytic anemia, sligh...
a9c8541e-91be-4c0d-a00c-8ebec38e0947
Characteristic feature of SLE is: 1) Joint deformity 2) Uveitis 3) Polyserositis 4) Cavitating lesion in lung
Uveitis
Joint deformity
Polyserositis
Cavitating lesion in lung
2
single
Answer is C (Polyserositis): Polyserositis is included as a diagnostic criteria for SLE and is the most characteristic feature of SLE amongst the options provided. Uveitis is not a characteristic feature of SLE Ocular manifestation include sicca syndrome, non specific conjunctivitis, episcleritis, retinal vasculitis an...
Medicine
null
3) Polyserositis
1) Joint deformity 2) Uveitis 3) Polyserositis 4) Cavitating lesion in lung
3)
[ "1)", "2)", "4)" ]
[ "1) Joint deformity", "2) Uveitis", "4) Cavitating lesion in lung" ]
2) Uveitis
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Characteristic feature of SLE is:\n\n1) Joint deformity\n2) Uveitis\n3) Polyserositis\n4) Cavitating lesion in lung", "role": "user" }, { "content": "3) Polyserositis", "role": "assistant" } ]
af4b5f25-ffca-4944-8d70-7fdf9d6830ac
Lipoprotein X is most likely to be seen with in - [1] Cholestasis [2] Increased intake of PUPA [3] Gilbe syndrome [4] Increased intake of trans fatty acids
Cholestasis
Gilbe syndrome
Increased intake of trans fatty acids
Increased intake of PUPA
0
single
Lipoprotein X is an abnormal lipoprotein that appears in the serum samples of patients with obstructive jaundice and is a marker of cholestasis. Lipoprotein X is primarily responsible for the unusual lipid composition and characteristic plasma lipid concentrations in obstructive jaundice Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 90...
Medicine
Miscellaneous
[1] Cholestasis
[1] Cholestasis [2] Increased intake of PUPA [3] Gilbe syndrome [4] Increased intake of trans fatty acids
[1]
[ "[2]", "[3]", "[4]" ]
[ "[2] Increased intake of PUPA", "[3] Gilbe syndrome", "[4] Increased intake of trans fatty acids" ]
[2] Increased intake of PUPA
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
[ { "content": "Lipoprotein X is most likely to be seen with in -\n\n[1] Cholestasis\n[2] Increased intake of PUPA\n[3] Gilbe syndrome\n[4] Increased intake of trans fatty acids", "role": "user" }, { "content": "[1] Cholestasis", "role": "assistant" } ]