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Which of the following condition is associated with the development of sunflower cataract?
Sunflower cataract occur due to chalcosis. Chalcosis of the lens develop with the presence of copper containing intra ocular foreign bodies or as a pa of Wilson's disease. In this condition copper also gets deposited in basements membrane resulting in Kayser Fleischer ring. Retention of iron containing foreign bodies c...
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Lactic acidosis in thiamine deficiency is due to which enzyme dysfunction?
In Thiamine deficiency, PDH reaction is defective. So, pyruvate is converted to lactic acid. Causes of inhibition of PDH leading to lactic acidosis: Inherited PDH deficiency Thiamine deficiency Alcoholics due to thiamine deficiency Arsenite and Mercury poisoning Harper 30th edition
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Which of the following is excreted in saliva
(Lithium) (416-670 KDT) (435-KDT 6th)LITHIUM - is excreted in sweat and saliva also salivary concentration is proportional to serum concentration and may be usedfor non invasive monitoring* Lithium is excreted in breast milk, Mothers on lithium should not breast feed (416 - KDT)Tetracyclines - are concentrated in liver...
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32 year old man, presented with painless ulcer with a black eschar on his leg. Smears of exudate show non motile organisms which are in chains. Spores are absent in the smear. Most probable organism is:
Bacillus anthracis is a large gram-positive rod with square ends, frequently found in chains. It is non motile, whereas other members of the genus are motile. Spores are usually not seen in smears of exudate because spores form when nutrients are insufficient, and nutrients are plentiful in infected tissue. Also know: ...
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Not a component of DOTS
Components of DOTS Accountability Political commitment Uninterrupted drug supply Good quality sputum microscopy Directly observed treatment.
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After I.V drug administration , elimination of a drug depends on
elimination of drug depends on -volume of distribution -clearance Volume of distribution is more for high lipids solubility Ref-KDT 7/e p30-31
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The most common symptom of AIDS in an infant is
Clinical features in an HIV infected infant is:Recurrent GI infection and oral thrush is commonly foundClinical features in older children:Growth failureFeverDiarrheaSecondary infection(Refer: OP Ghai's Textbook of Pediatrics, 8th edition, pg no. 202)
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Colostrum contains more of _________
Colostrum is known to contain immune cells (as lymphocytes) and many antibodies such as IgA, IgG, and IgM. ... Other immune components of colostrum include the major components of the innate immune system, such as lactoferrin, lysozyme, lactoperoxidase, complement, and proline-rich polypeptides (PRP). Ref: guyton and h...
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DNA fragments formed by restriction enzymes are separated by
Agarose is the supp medium for the gel electrophoresis it is viscous liquid when hot but solidify to a gel on cooling.The gel is prepared in the buffer and spread over microscopic slides and allowed to cool.A small sample of serum or the biological fluid is applid by cutting into the gel with a sharp edge.The electroph...
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Which of the following is not the function of complements?
Ans: D (Toxin neutralization) Ref: Ananthanarayan, Paniker CJ. Textbook of microbiology. 8th Edition. London: John Wiley & Sons: 2009. Pg 120Explanation:Functions of ComplementIt mediates immunological membrane damage (cytolysis, bacteriolysis)It amplifies the inflammatory response and participates in the pathogenesis ...
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Thalidomide is useful in which of the following conditions?
Lepra Reaction TYPE 1 LEPRA REACTION TYPE 2 LEPRA REACTION - It is also known as reversal reaction. - It is seen in TT and BL cases of leprosy. - Drug of choice is coicosteroids. Alternative is clofazimine. - Thalidomide is ineffective. - It is also known as erythema nodosum leprosum. - It is seen in LL cases of lepros...
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The most common tumour of cerebellopontine angle is
Acoustic neuroma comprises 80% of all cerebellopontine angle tumours. Ref: Textbook of diseases of ENT, PL Dhingra, 7th edition, pg no. 125
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In community-acquired acute bacterial sialadenitis, the most common causative pathogen is:
In community-acquired acute bacterial sialadenitis, the most common causative pathogen is S. aureus, which can be eradicated using an antibiotic with Gram-positive coverage such as amoxicillin with clavulanate or clindamycin.
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DOC for ventricular arrhythmias due to digitalis toxicity is:
Ventricular arrhythmias due to digitalis toxicity Lidocaine i.v. repeated as required is the drug of choice It suppresses the excessive automaticity but does not accentuate A-V block Quinidine, Procainamide, and propafenone are contraindicated Note: Lignocaine is DOC but 2nd alternative option is Phenytoin for digitali...
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Power of a study can be increased by-
<p> Decreasing ss error. Reference:Simple Biostatistics by Indrayan & Indrayan,1stbedition,page no: <\p>
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Note true about Japanese encephalitis
Ans. b. Caused by group A arbovirus
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All of the following statements are true about repair of groin hernias except:
Ans. (c) In shouldice repair, non absorbable mesh is usedRef: Sabiston 19/e p1120-1126* Lichtenstein uses Tension free prolene mesh (procedure of choice for Inguinal hernia)* TEP repair - Total Extra Peritoneal repair* Shouldice- Anatomical repair- Double breasting of Fascia transversalis done* Hernia Surgeries are don...
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A 23 years old female patient presented with sever diffuse hair fall for last 1 month. She had a major accident with severe blood loss 5months back for which she had to be hospitalized for 1 month. She is very anxious that all her hair will fall. Most likely diagnosis is?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Telogen effluvium Points in favor arei) Diffuse hair fallii) History of accident with blood loss (stress)iii) Hair loss after 5 months of accident
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Which of the following is not affected by a lesion in posterior column of spinal cord:
Answer is B (Temperature sense): Temperature sense is a feature of the spinothalamic tract and not the posterior column. Vibration & Joint position sense are transmitted the posterior column. Altered joint position sense may lead to Ataxia and a positive Romberg's sign.
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. A 45 year male with a history of alcohol dependence presents with confusion, nystagmus and ataxia. Examination reveals 6th cranial nerve weakness. He is most likely to be suffering from:
B i.e. Wernicke encephalopathy
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Post Kidney transplantation complication caused by CMV is?
The answer here is simple as the pyelonephritis is the only option related to kidney. The impoant point to revise here is that CMV in transplant patients is the a complication of immunosuppression SIDE EFFECTS OF NON SPECIFIC IMMUNOSUPPRESSION 1) INFECTION : bacterial and fungal infections are most common , risk greate...
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Total Iron required per day for pregnancy period:-
Group Recommended intake (mg/day) Man 17 Woman (non-pregnant) & lactating women 21 Pregnancy 35
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A study of peripheral blood smears shows that neutrophil nuclei of women have a Barr body, whereas those of men do not. The Barr body is an inactivated X chromosome. Which of the following forms of RNA is most likely to play a role in Barr body formation?
There are forms of noncoding RNA that play a role in gene expression. Long noncoding RNA (lncRNA) segments greater than 200 nucleotides in length can bind to chromatin to restrict access of RNA polymerase to coding segments. The X chromosome transcribes XIST, a lncRNA that binds to and represses X chromosome expression...
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Anti topoisomerase 1 is marker of
Ref Robbins 9/e p228 B cell activation also occurs, as indicated by the pres- ence of hypergammaglobulinemia and ANAs. Although there is no evidence that humoral immunity plays a signifi- cant role in the pathogenesis of SS, two of the ANAs are viually unique to this disease and are therefore useful in diagnosis (Table...
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The patient gives history of putting tobacco in buccal vestibule and chewing betel quid, the lesion is:
Tobacco pouch keratosis: A white, wrinkled change of the mucosa in the mandibular buccal vestibule secondary to the use of chewing tobacco. This lesion consists of a thick brownish black encrustation on the buccal mucosa at the site of placement of the buccal quid. It is often seen among heavily addicted betel quid che...
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Marker for granulocytic Sarcoma-
Answer is option 3,CD117 kit, a proto-oncogene, encodes the transmembrane tyrosine kinase receptor CD117 and is detected by flow cytometry in the majority of cases of acute myeloid leukemia. The prognostic significance of the presence of c-Kit in acute myeloid leukemia is debated. Granulocytic sarcoma is a primary or s...
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Thoracic duct does NOT drain:
Right upper quadrant of the body drains the lymphatics into the right lymphatic duct and rest of the body drains into thoracic duct Thoracic duct is continuation of cysterna chyli as it pass through aoic hiatus begin at lower border of T12 . At T5(angle of louis) it crosses to left side and drains at left Jugulo-subcla...
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All the following are seen at Transpyloric Plane except
The transpyloric plane is an imaginary transverse plane often referred to in anatomical descriptions.The transpyloric plane of Addison passes midway between the suprasternal notch and the pubic symphysis. It lies roughly a hand&;s breadth below the xiphisternal joint. Anteriorly, it passes through the tips of the ninth...
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100% moality disease, incidence and prevalence relationship will be;
Prevalence = Incidence x Duration Duration= Prevalence/Incidence - longer the duration of the disease, the greater its prevalence. - if the disease is acute and of sho duration either because of rapid recovery or death, the prevalence rate will be relatively low compared with the incidence rate. (P < 1).
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Urinary anion gap is?
Urinary anion gap (Na+ + K+ ) - (Cl- ) = 0 Urine is electro neutral *Anion gap in Blood = (Na+) - (Cl- + HCO3-)
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Esophagus enters through
C. i.e. Muscular pa of diaphragm
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All can cause recurrent pulmonary infection except:
Answer is C (TOF) ASD, L VF and VSD are all associated with pulmonary congestion and hence predispose to pulmonary infections. TOF is associated with reduced pulmonary blood flow (oligenic lung fields) due to right ventricular outflow obstruction and hence does not predispose to recurrent pulmonary infections.
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All of the following structures are derived from mesonephric duct, EXCEPT:
The wolffian duct or mesonephric duct forms the epididymis, vas deferens and seminal vesicles. Testosterone directs the development of wolffian duct. Trigone of the bladder develop from the caudal end of the mesonephric duct. A pair of ureteric bud grow upwards from the distal mesonephric duct near its inseion into the...
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For each mol of substrate oxidized Complexes I, III, and IV in the respiratory chain NADH, --- mol of ATP are formed?
For each mol of substrate oxidized Complexes I, III, and IV in the respiratory chain (ie, NADH), 2.5 mol of ATP are formed per 0.5 mol of O2 consumed; ie, the P:O ratio = 2.5. On the other hand, when 1 mol of the substrate (eg, succinate or 3-phosphoglycerate) is oxidized Complexes II, III, and IV, only 1.5 mol of ATP ...
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All of the following are Eradicable disease except
Till date only one disease has been eradicated - SMALLPOX. Diseases that are amenable to eradication are measles, diphtheria, polio and guniea worm. Ref : Park&;s Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine; 23rd edition; Page 94
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In pyogenic liver abscess commonest route of spread is
Routes of spread 1st most common - Biliary tract 2nd most common - poal vein
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Which of the following organs is not involved in hemochromatosis?
Hereditary hemochromatosis is an adult-onset disorder that represents an error of iron metabolism characterized by inappropriately high iron absorption resulting in progressive iron overload and accumulation of iron in parenchymal organs, leading to organ toxicity.This is the most common inherited liver disease in whit...
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Most impoant component of Bishop score
The most impoant component of bishop score is dilatation of cervix
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Most sensitive investigation for diagnosis of asymptomatic chlamydial infection:aEUR'
Nucleic acid amplification Chlamydial infections are frequently asymptomatic. - Confirmation of chlamydial infection usually depends on taking an appropriate clinical sample .from the patient ,followed by the direct detection of the organism using a suitable laboratory-based diagnostic test. The demonstration of chlamy...
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The histologic entity that has the worst prognosis in interstitial lung disease is:
Ans: c (Acute interstitial pneumonia)Ref: Rosai and Ackerman's Surgical Pathology 9th ed Pg. 377, Harrison 18th ed chp 261Acute Interstitial Pneumonia (Hamman-Rich Syndrome)* A fulminant form of lung injury characterized by idiopathic ARDS and organizing diffuse alveolar damage by lung biopsy.* The onset is usually abr...
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JAK-2 mutation is strongly associated with?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Polycythemia vera * Janus kinase 2 (JAK2), a member of the Janus kinase family, is a non-receptor tyrosine kinase.* JAK2 fusions with the TEL(ETV6) (TEL-JAK2) and PCM 1 have found to be associated with leukemia, particularly clonal eosinophilia forms of the disease.* JAK-2 mutations are associated wit...
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A 32-year old adult male broke the jaw of another in an alleged fight. The investigating police officer:
Ans. b. Can arrest him without warrant Fracture or dislocation of mandible is a 'Grievous injury' for which punishment is defined under IPC 325. It is a 'cognizable offence' hence a police officer can arrest the accused without warrant. "Cognisable offence: An offence for which a police officer can arrest a person with...
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In an emphysematous patient with bullous lesions, which is the best investigation to measure lung volume:
Answer is A (Body Plethysmography): Body Plethysmography is the investigation of choice fir estimating lung volumes in the setting of COPD with bullous lesions (trapped air) Estimating Lung Volumes Gas Dil ion Technique (Helium / Nitrogen Dilution Method) Gas dilution methods are fairly accurate in measurement of lung ...
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Bisphosphonates are not used in:
Vitamin D intoxication
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A 20 yrs aged patient, presents in coma with pin point pupils and fasciculations but no fever. Most probable diagnosis is:
D i.e. Organophosphorus poisoning Pinpoint pupils (miosis) is seen in 'Bar Car OR Mor - Chlor' i.e. Barbiturates, Carbolic acid (Phenol), Organophosphorus, Morphine (Opioid), Choral hydrate.Q & Pontine haemorrhageQ So we are left with two options - Pontine haemorrhage & Organophosphorus. Not useful in Carbamate poisoni...
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In family welfare programme, score of 1 is given to:
Ans. is 'b' i.e. Net reproductive rate NRR of 1 is equivalent to attaining approx., the 2 child norm*The Govt, of India in 1983 adopted the policy of attaining a NRR of 1 by the year 1996 (now to be achieved by 2006).
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Foamy macrophage is formed by -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Oxidized LDLo Foam cells are lipid laden cells that derive predominantly from macrophages, but smooth muscle cells can also imbibe lipid to become foam cells.o Macrophages and endothelial cells generate oxygen free radicals that induce chemical change in LDL to yield oxidized (modified) LDL.o Oxidized...
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Dye for myelography is injected in?
Ans. c (Subarachnoid space). (Ref. Clark, Positioning in Radiography, 10th ed., 588)MYELOGRAPHY# Myelography is the radiographic investigation of the spinal canal for the diagnosis of space occupying & obstructive lesions & requires the contrast agent to be injected into the subarchnoid space (which lies between pia ma...
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Treatment for mild ptosis is-
*Fasanella-Servat operation. It is performed in cases having mild ptosis (1.5-2mm) and good levator function. In it, upper lid is eveed and the upper tarsal border along with its attached Muller's muscle and conjunctiva are resected. Ref: Khurana 7th/e p.395
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Rash is not caused by ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Shigella Salmonella (typhoid) and meningococci cause morbiliform rash. Staphylococcus causes scarlentiform rash in TS S and SSSS. Infections causing Exanthems (acute generalized rash) Morbilliform Viral : Measles (rubeola), rubella, erythema infectiosum, EBV, CMV, adenovirus, echovirus, early HIV, cox...
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Ligament preventing the displacement of humerus is
The area between the superior and middle glenohumeral ligament is a point of weakness in the capsule( foramen of Weitbrecht) which is a common site of anterior dislocation of humeral head. Reference : page no:147,BD chaurasia- upper limb& thorax, 7th edition.
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True about Dressler's syndrome is all, except :
Answer is A (Occurs with in hours after myocardial infarction) Dressler's syndrome develops after an interval of 1 to 4 weeks (or even month) following cardiac injury (MI) and not within hours. Dressler's syndrome / Post Cardiac Injury Syndrome Dressler's syndrome refers to an acute farm of pericarditis that develops a...
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Wide and fixed 2nd heart sound seen in -
(A) (ASD) 632. Davidson 21st (1922 - 24 - H 19th)Atrial septal defect* Wide fixed splitting of the second heart sound wide because of delay in right ventricular ejection (increased stroke volume and right bundle branch block) and fixed because the septal defect equalizes left and right atrial pressures throughout the r...
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Ivacaftor was approved by FDA in 2018 for
Ivacaftor is used for treating cystic fibrosis
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One of the most common side effects of inhaled beclomethasone dipropionate is:
(Ref: KDT 6/e p225) Most common adverse effect of inhaled coicosteroids is oropharyngal candidiasis. Pituitary adrenal suppression is less likey with inhalational route of coicosteroids than with oral route.
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All of the following are associated with proximal muscle weakness except –
The general rule in that : Myopathies have proximal muscle weakness. Neuropathies have distal muscle weakness. Myotonic dystrophy is an exception to this general rule and mainly involves the distal muscles. Also, know The difference between myopathy and muscular dystrophy. Myopathy Any skeletal muscle disorder that c...
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Insulin does not facilitate glucose uptake in the following except :
B i.e. Hea
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The electrical potential difference necessary for a single ion to be at equilibrium across a membrane is best described by the
At normal body temperature (37degC), the electrical difference that will balance a given concentration difference of univalent ions--such as Na+ ions--can be determined from the following formula, called the Nernst equation.Ref: Guyton; 13th edition; Chapter 4 Transpo of Substances Through Cell Membranes
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Which one of the following ligaments contains splenic artery -
Linorenal (splenorenal) ligament contains tail of pancreas, splenic vessels, lymph nodes and lymphatics and sympathetic nerve.
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The non poisoning Salt of cyanide is :
D i.e. Potassium ferrocyanide
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α - intercalated cells are present in _________ helps in __________
Intercalated cells are present in Collecting duct I cells are of 2 types. Alpha : acid secretion Beta : HCO3 secretion
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M.C. retroperitoneal tumour is -
Ans is 'b' ie Liposarcoma The most common primary malignancy of the retroperitoneum is sarcoma.(Ref Sabiston) "In the retroperitoneal location, well-differentiated and dedifferentiated liposarcoma and leiomyosarcoma are the most common histiotypes, whereas in the visceral location, GISTs are found most commonly."- Devi...
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Hydrolysis of which of the following compounds yield urea?
Arginine is an amino acid that is deaminated to form ornithine primarily in the liver as part of the urea cycle. Ornithine, argininosuccinate, aspartate and citrulline are generated in the urea cycle but do not provide free ammonia for urea synthesis.
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Mild mental retardation is defined when IQ is-
Ans. is 'a' i.e., 50-70 CategoryIQMild50-70Moderate35-49Severe20-34Profound<20
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Histology of acute rejection of renal transplant are-
Harshmohan textbook of pathology 7th edition. *in hyper acute rejection there are numerous neutrophils around dialated and obstructed capillaries which are blocked by fibrin and platelet thrombi. *in acute rejection there is extensive infilteration in interstitium of the transplant by lymphocytes and a few plasma cells...
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The hormone associated with cold adaption is:
B i.e. Thyroxine
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Which of the following does not cross a blood brain barrier
Ref-Katzung 11/e p121 Pralidoxime or 2-PAM, usually as the chloride or iodide salts, belongs to a family of compounds called oximes that bind to organophosphate-inactivated acetylcholinesterase. It is used to treat organophosphate poisoning in conjunction with atropine and diazepam
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Marker for Hairy cell Leukemia is:
CD 103
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All of the following drugs are used in Opioid dependence, except
(D) Nalorphine # Opioid dependence> Levomethadyl acetate> Levomethadyl acetate, also known as levo-a-acetylmethadol (LAAM) is a synthetic opioid similar in structure to methadone.> It has a long duration of action due to its active metabolites.> It was approved for use in the treatment of opioid dependence.> Indication...
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Platelet aggregation is caused by -
Robbins basic pathology 9th edition page no 46, Answer is option 2, thromboxaneA2 Thromboxane A2 is a potent platelet aggregating agent and a vasoconstrictor, is the major prostaglandin produced in these cells. Itvis an intrmediate produced in the cyclooxygenase pathway by the enzyme thromboxane synthase.
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Gold standard investigation for screening breast carcinoma in patients with breast implant -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., MRI o It can be useful to distinguish scar from recurrence in women who have had previous breast conservation therapy for cancer (although it is not accurate within 9 months of radiotherapy because of abnormal enhancement).o It is the best imaging modality for the breasts of women with implants,o It h...
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Murphy sign is seen in: March 2013 (g)
Ans. C i.e. Acute cholcystitis Murphy's sign It is useful for differentiating pain in the right upper quadrant. Typically, it is positive in cholecystitis, but negative in choledocholithiasis, pyelonephritis and ascending cholangitis.
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All of the following structures forms the boundary of the Hesselbach's triangle, EXCEPT?
Hesselbach's triangle is a region in the anterior abdominal wall. It is bounded inferiorly by the inguinal ligament, medially by the lateral border of the rectus muscles, and laterally by the inferior epigastric vessels.Base of the triangle is formed by pubic pecten and pectineal ligament.
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A young female patient came for routine examination. On examination a mid systolic click was found. There is no history of RHD. The histopathological examination is most likely to show
Ans. a. Myxomatous degeneration and prolapse of the mitral valve
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Most common testicular tumour
Seminoma is the most common germ cell tumor of the testis or, more rarely, the mediastinum or other extra- gonadal locations. It is a malignant neoplasm and is one of the most treatable and curable cancers, with a survival rate above 95% if discovered in early stages.
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All except one ­are absorbed in the DCT:
Although K+ is also absorbed in DCT, secretion of K+ may exceed K+ absorption in this segment. So, B should be the most appropriate answer.
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Subarachnoid hemorrhage blood is collected mostly in which pa of the skull -
Answer- A. Basal cisterncausative factor-Exclude underlying aneurysmal ruptureTypical location-Basal cisternsClinical profileHeadache,meningismusdelayed manifestations,vasospasm
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Not a layer of retina:
Layers of the retina, from the outside inwards Retinal Pigment Epithelium Layer of rods and cones External (Outer) limiting membrane Outer nuclear layer Outer plexiform layer Inner nuclear layer Inner plexiform layer Ganglion cell layer Layer of optic nerve fibres Internal (Inner) limiting membrane The neural retina me...
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Which of the following statement regarding water reabsorption in the tubules?
Water reabsorption occurs along with sodium reabsorption.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology; 24th edition; page no: 685
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In a fetus, testis lies at superficial inguinal ring at:
Ans. C 8 monthsRef: Netter's Clinical Anatomy, 3rd ed. pg. 325Descent of testis3rd monthIliac fossa7th monthDeep inguinal ring7th monthTransits through inguinal canal8th monthSuperficial inguinal ring9th monthEnters the scrotum
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Which of the following is not a sequelae of trachoma?
Proptosis REF: Khurana 4th ed p. 66 Sequelae of trachoma: Lids : entropion, tylosis, ptosis, madarosis , ankyloblepharon Conjuctiva: concretions, pseudocyst, xerosis, symblepharon. Cornea: opacity, ectasia, xerosis. Others: Dacrocystitis, chronic dacryoadenitis.
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In open angle glaucoma investigation least done is :
Investigations to be done in open angle glaucoma are : Slit lamp examination Tonometry Gonioscopy Direct ophthalmoscopy Perimetry
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A 50-year-old man with fasting blood glucose >140 mg/ dL on two occasions is put on a restricted caloric diet and started on a glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1) receptor agonist. Which of the following laboratory studies is most likely to afford the best method of monitoring disease control in this man?
Nonenzymatic glycosylation refers to the chemical process whereby glucose attaches to proteins without the aid of enzymes. The degree of glycosylation is proportionate to the level of blood glucose. Many proteins, including hemoglobin, undergo nonenzymatic glycosylation. Because RBCs have a life span of about 120 days,...
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In case of xeropthalmia secondary to Vitamin A deficiency, what does X2 indicate according to WHO:
Ans.(c) Corneal xerosisRef: A.K. Khurana 6th ed. /468* Xeropthalmia: all the ocular manifestation of Vitamin A deficiency.* First clinical sign of Vitamin A deficiency: Conjunctival Xerosis* First clinical symptom of vitamin A deficiency: Night blindnessWHO Classification of XeropthalmiaCLASSSIGNSX1AConjunctival xerosi...
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All of the following can result in serotonin syndrome when combined with MAO inhibitors except
Tyramine containing foods along with MAO inhibitors produce cheese reaction that is develop severe hypeension. In serotonin syndrome hypehermia, sweating, restlessness, muscle rigidity, aggressive behavior, tremors, seizures and coma occur. Ref KD Tripati 8th ed.
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According to PALS 2010, all are components of initial impression of child except:
Ans: C (Airway) Ref: Pediatric Advanced Life Support 2010 Guidelines. Pediatric Advanced Life Support Provider Manual (A Modification of the Pediatric Assessment Triangle in the 2006 edition of the PALS textbook)Explanation:Consciousness, breathing, colour are seen in initial evaluation. Then Pulse and airway are seen ...
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Dhobi's itch is:
B. i.e. Tinea cruris
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Endolymphatic sac decompression is done in?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Menieres disease Treatment of Meniere's disease Most treatments are for symptoms believed to be caused by excess endolymphatic fluid. Treatment of Meniere's disease is of two types :? A) Medical management B) Surgical management Medical management: Treatment of Meniere's disease begins first with medi...
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CT Scan of head showing a 'Tram track5 appearance in
Ans. is 'd' i.e.,. Sturge Weber Syndrome. Sturge-Weber syndrome is characterized by -A large unilateral cutaneous angioma* (.Port wine stain*) of the faceA cerebral angioma involving the ipsilateral* cerebral hemisphere and meninges.Adrenal pheochromocytoma*.Cerebral angioma leads to cortical atrophy and epilepsy*.Char...
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Salivary gland tumor exclusively seen in parotid gland
Answer-A. Wahin's tumor"Wahin's tumor arises only in the parotid gland" - Textbook of surgery"Wahin's tumor arises almost exclusively in the parotid gland (the only tumor viually restricted to the parotid)"Salivary gland tumor seen only it parotid gland- Wahins'tumor.
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A 60 year old male was diagnosed as carcinoma right lung. CECT of the chest shows a tumor of 5x5 cm in upper lobe and another 2x2 cm size tumor nodule in middle lobe. Which of the following is the treatment of choice?
Question does not indicate the type of lung cancer in the patient. Depending on the given size of the cancer (5cm) and absence of nodal involvement or metastasis, patient is in T2 N0 M0 or Stage I cancer. The current standard of treatment of stage I and II lung cancer is surgical resection, accomplished by lobectomy or...
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A most common cause of death due to burns in the early period is?
Srb's manual of surgery,4th edition Pathophysiology of burns: 1.Burns, 2.Loss of fluid, 3.Severe hypovolemia, 4.Reduced cardiac output, a.Decreased myocardial function. b.altered pulmonary resistance causing pulmonary edema, 5.Infection, 6.Systemic inflammatory response syndrome-SIRS, 7.Multiorgan dysfunction sy...
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What is the indication of using Indocyanine green angiography indication in eye?
ANSWER: (A) Occult choroidal neovascularizationREF: Vaughan & Asbury's General Ophthalmology 17th ed chapter 2, Kanski 5th Ed Ch 14, Khurana 4th EdPg275INDOCYANINE GREEN ANGIOGRAPHYThe principal use for fluorescein angiography in age-related macular degeneration is in locating subretinal choroidal neovascularization fo...
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Prokaryotes are characterized by -
Different between Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes PROKARYOTES EUKARYOTES Nuclear membrane absent Nuclear membrane well defined Cytoplasmic structures absent e.g. Mitochondria, Lysosomes, Golgi apparatus, and endoplasmic reticulum are absent. All these cell organelles are present In cell wall muramic acid & diaminopimelic ac...
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Fracture shaft of humerus can cause damage to which of the following nerves?
Radial nerve palsy associated with humeral shaft fractures is the most common nerve lesion complicating fractures of long bones. Radial nerve injury is commonly associated with: Fracture shaft of humerus Saturday night palsy Injection palsy
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Reliability of screening test does not mean ?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Validity Repeatability (reliability) Repeatability means, the test must give consistent results when it is repeated more than once on the same individual under same conditions. That means the results of test are precise (exact), So repeatability is some time called precision, reliability or reproducib...
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A newborn vomits after each feeding of milk-based formula, and does not gain weight. Biochemical testing reveals a severe deficiency of galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase, consistent with homozygosity. If this condition goes untreated, what is the likely outcome for this patient?
Galactosemia occurs in two very different clinical forms. Deficiency of galactokinase produces very mild disease with the only significant complication being cataract formation. In contrast, homozygous deficiency of galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase produces severe disease culminating in death in infancy. In addi...
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Structure passing through anterior pa of jugular foramen
Jugular foramen transmits Through anterior pa: 1. Inferior petrosal sinus 2. Meningeal branch of the ascending pharyngeal aery Notes: through the middle pa: 9th, 10th,11th cranial nerves Through the posterior pa: internal jugular vein and meningeal branch of the occipital aery. BDC 6th edition vol 3 page no:20
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Role of Fluorine in dental health is the following EXCEPT
Ans. a. (To make enamel harder than usual) (Ref. Guyton physiology 11th/994, 879)Role of Fluorine in Preventing Caries. Teeth formed in children who drink water that contains small amounts of fluorine develop enamel that is more resistant to caries than the enamel in children who drink water that does not contain fluor...
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A 50-year-old family physician has veical diplopia; the man feels unsure when descending stairs. He can eliminate the double vision by tilting his head toward the opposite side. Which of the following extraocular muscles is responsible for the ocular malalignment?
The superior oblique depresses, abducts, and intos the eye. Paralysis of this muscle results in extorsion and weakness of downward gaze. Head tilting compensates for extorsion. Chin depression would be seen in Superior oblique palsy
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