query stringlengths 1 1.57k | pos stringlengths 1 22.5k | idx int64 0 161k | task_name stringclasses 1
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Hypotension in acute spinal injury is due to: | • High spinal cord injuries can also result in systemic hypotension because of loss of sympathetic tone.
• The patient will usually have hypotension and relative bradycardia and will show evidence of good peripheral perfusion on physical examination.
• The term neurogenic shock is used but is somewhat of a misnomer bec... | 600 | medmcqa_train |
What overlies the lateral wall of the mastoid antrum? | BOUNDARIES: SUPERIORLY-Tegmen tympani and beyond it the temporal lobe of the cerebrum INFERIORLY-Mastoid process containing the mastoid air cells ANTERIORLY-It communicates with the epitympanic recess through the aditus. The aditus is related medially to the ampullae of the superior and lateral semicircular canals. and... | 601 | medmcqa_train |
Ferruginous bodies are seen in? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Asbestosis "Ferruginous bodies are most commonly seen in asbestosis". ------------Chandrasoma Taylor* Ferruginous bodies represent foreign inorganic or organic fibers coated by complexes of iron and glycoproteins.* While ferruginous bodies are most commonly seen in asbestosis they are not diagnostic b... | 602 | medmcqa_train |
Which type of cattle poisoning occurs due to ingestion of LINSEED plant? | Hydrocyanic acid is also used as cattle poison. Cattle poisoning has been known to occur from eating linseed plant because of the natural development of a cyanogenic glycoside which may liberate hydrocyanic acid. Ref: Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology By Dr K S Narayan Reddy, 27th Edition, Pages 559-60 | 603 | medmcqa_train |
A 40 year old female patient complains of excessive bleeding and drowsiness. Patient gives a history of road traffic accident 5 hours ago and had a lacerated wound on lower back region. General physical examination reveals-
Blood pressure-80/60mmHg.
Juglar venous pressure- low.
Pulsus paradoxus- present.
Cardiac output... | Includes anaphylactic shock, septic shock and spinal cord injury (neurogenic shock).
Inadequate organ perfusion is associated with vascular dilatation and hypotension, low systemic vascular resistance, inadequate afterload and a resulting abnormally high cardiac output.
In anaphylaxis, vasodilatation is due to excess h... | 604 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following induction agent produce cardiac stability- | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Etomidate Effects of Etomidate on cardiovascular systemEtomidate has minimal effects on the cardiovascular system.It causes mild reduction in peripheral vascular resistance which may cause a slight decline in arterial blood pressure.Myocardial contractility and cardiac output are usually unchanged. Et... | 605 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following statement regarding Septic tank is true ? | SEPTIC TANK It is water-tight masonry tank into which household sewage is admitted for treatment. It is satisfactory means of disposing excreta & liquid wastes from individual dwellings, small groups of houses & institutions which have adequate water supplies but do not have access to a public sewerage system. Main des... | 606 | medmcqa_train |
Following are adverse effects of Clofazimine except | Clofazimine is a brick red, fat-soluble crystalline dye. It has weakly bactericidal action against M. leprae It has an anti-inflammatory effect, which is useful in the management of ENL reactions. High drug concentrations are found in the intestinal mucosa, mesenteric lymph nodes and body fat. The most noticeable side ... | 607 | medmcqa_train |
Osteoblastic secondaries arises from: March 2003 | Ans. D i.e. Prostate carcinoma Metastases to bones are usually osteolytic. Osteoblastic lesions are uncommon. | 608 | medmcqa_train |
A 52 year old male presents to his physician with a chief complaint of a substantial increase in the size of his breasts over the past few months. Three months ago he was diagnosed with hypeension, and placed on antihypeensive medication. Which of the following medications was most likely prescribed? | All of the medications listed as answer choices can be effectively used in the treatment of hypeension. Spironolactone is a "potassium-sparing" diuretic that exes its action primarily as a competitive inhibitor of aldosterone receptors in the distal nephron. One of the repoed side effects of spironolactone is gynecomas... | 609 | medmcqa_train |
True about treatment of nocturnal enuresis | A i.e. Imipramine | 610 | medmcqa_train |
50 year old male with positive family history of prostate cancer has come to you for a screening test. The screening test done to pickup prostate cancer is | Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) and Digital rectal examination (DRE) Age 50 for men who are at average risk of prostate cancer and are expected to live at least 10 more years. Age 45 for men at high risk of developing prostate cancer. This includes African Americans and men who have a first-degree relative (father, bro... | 611 | medmcqa_train |
Refsum's syndrome is associated with ? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Retinitis pigmentosa Associations of retinitis pigmentosa Ocular associations : These include myopia, primary open angle glaucoma, microphthalmos, conical cornea and posterior subcapsular cataract. Systemic associations : These are in the form of following syndromes :- i) Laurence-Moon-Biedl syndrome ... | 612 | medmcqa_train |
All are synonyms for PM staining seen in dependant pas of the body during postmoem, except: PGI 13 | Ans. Algor mois | 613 | medmcqa_train |
All viruses can be cultured in | Viruses can be cultivated in living systems only. | 614 | medmcqa_train |
Bone marrow finding in myelofibrosis- | Dry tap is usually defined as a "failure to obtain bone marrow on attempted marrow aspiration". The diagnosis and management of many haematological diseases depends on examination of the bone marrow, which involves two separate specimens i.e. a cytologic and a histologic preparation.Bone marrow examination refers to th... | 615 | medmcqa_train |
40 yr old female presented with breast lump of size 4 cm with involvement of skin and mobile palpable axillary LN, FNAC of lesion showed intrductal carcinoma. What is the initial management of for this pt? | .Locally Advanced Carcinoma of Breast (LABC) * It means locally advanced tumour with muscle/chest wall involvement, extensive skin involvement or fixed axillary nodes. It will be T3, T4a, T4b, T4c or T4d or N2 or N3. * It is investigated by FNAC of tumor, mammography of opposite breast, chest CT, CT abdomen or whole bo... | 616 | medmcqa_train |
Pott's spine is commonest at which spine: | ANSWER: (A) ThoracolumbarREF: Apley 387-389, S M Tuli 3rd edition page 192Most common site of skeletal tuberculosis is spine followed by hip and knee SPINE (50%) > HIP > KNEECommonest spine involved in spine TB is Thoracolumbar/Dorsolumbar T12-L1 (Lower thoracic to be precise)LOWER THORACIC > LUMBAR > UPPER THORACICPar... | 617 | medmcqa_train |
A patient present with lower gastrointestinal bleed. Sigmoidoscopy shows ulcers inthe sigmoid. Biopsy from this area shows flask-shaped ulcers. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment - | This may be caused by haemorrhage from the colon, anal canal or small bowel. It is useful to distinguish those patients who present with profuse, acute bleeding from those who present with chronic or subacute bleeding of lesser severity .Severe acute lower gastrointestinal bleeding .This presents with profuse red or ma... | 618 | medmcqa_train |
Lalita, a female pt. presents with pigmentation of the lips and oral mucosa and intestinal polyps. Her sister also gives the same history. Most probable diagnosis is - | Ans. is 'd' ie. Peutz-jeghers syndrome Peutz-Jeghers syndorme consists of: hamaomatous polyps throughout the intestine with maximum density in the jejunum* melanosis of the oral mucous membrane and the lips. The melanosis takes the form of melanin spots sometimes presents on the digits and the perianal skin, but the pi... | 619 | medmcqa_train |
Tripod fracture is the name given for - | Ans. is 'a1 i.e., Zygomatic fracture o Zygoma fracture is also known as tripoid fracture.Clinical features of zygoma fractureo Considerable swelling over zygomatic arch is common and makes clinical diagnosis more difficult.o Flattening of malar prominence.o Step-deformit of infraorbital margin.o Anaesthesia in the dist... | 620 | medmcqa_train |
For diagnosis of carcinoma cervix, PAP smear screening is done to | C. i.e. (Prevents progress of the disease) (721- Basic pathology 8th)* PAP smear is highly effective screening tool in the detection of cervical dysplasia and carcinoma and has reduced the incidence of cervical carcinoma* Flow cytometry is used routinely in the classification of leukemias and lymphomas* Pap smear is 90... | 621 | medmcqa_train |
SLE like reaction is caused by | SLE like syndrome is caused due to S-SULPHONAMIDES H-HYDRALAZINE I-ISONIAZIDE P-PROCAINAMIDE Ref-KDT 7/e p66 | 622 | medmcqa_train |
The drug of choice in digitalis induced ventricular arrhythmias is: | (IV Lignocaine): Ref: 463-KDT (514-KDT 6th)Treatment of digitalis induced ventricular arrhythmias* Lignocaine IV repeated as required is the drug of choice. It suppresses the excessive automaticity but does not accentuate A V block* Phenytoin is also useful but not preffered now (sudden death occurs)* Quinidine and pro... | 623 | medmcqa_train |
Deformity in transient synovitis of Hip ? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of the above Transient synovitis of Hip Transient synovitis of hip is also known as observation hip, toxic synovitis or irritable hip. Its a self-limiting, inflammatory condition of the synovium, that lasts only a sho time (therefore known as transient) It is the most common cause of hip pain and ... | 624 | medmcqa_train |
Thin filament consists of all except: | Myosin is thick filament. All others in the options are thin filaments. | 625 | medmcqa_train |
A 1-year-old boy presents with a delay in motor development. Progressive muscle weakness and blindness ensue, and the patient dies within a year. The brain at autopsy shows swollen neurons that contain numerous lysosomes filled with lipid. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? | Tay-Sachs disease is a lethal, autosomal recessive disorder caused by an inborn deficiency of hexosaminidase A, which permits the accumulation of ganglioside GM1 in CNS neurons. The disease is fatal in infancy and early childhood. Retinal involvement increases macular transparency and is responsible for a cherry-red sp... | 626 | medmcqa_train |
Most common cause of neonatal meningitis- | Ans. is 'b' i.e., E. coli o E. coli & streptococcus agalactie (group B streptococci) are the two most common cause of neonatal sepsis and meningitis. | 627 | medmcqa_train |
R-factor in bacteria is transferred by | Conjugation
Bacterial conjugation is the transfer of genetic material between bacteria through direct cell to cell contact or through a bridge- like the connection between two cells.
Conjugation is a process whereby a donor (male) bacterium makes physical contact with a recipient (female) bacterium.
Donor status is de... | 628 | medmcqa_train |
CO2 is primarily transpoed in the aerial blood as | D i.e. Bicarbonate Transpo of CO2 in the form of bicarbonate ions accounts for approximately 70% of transpoed carbon dioxide from the tissues to lungs Q. So CO2 is transpoed as plasma HCO3 - > RBC > HCO3- > Carbamino compound > dissolved CO2 Q &Transpo of Carbon Dioxide Carbon dioxide is transpoed in the blood as: HCO3... | 629 | medmcqa_train |
What is the sequence of development of pubey in girls ? | The sequence of SPECIFIC events of Pubeal events in girls is thelarche, pubarche, linear growth spu, menarche. Please note: This is not to confuse with accelarated general physical growth which is the first event in pubey Pubey Specific events in girls Events in boys 1st Thelarche Testicular enlargement 2nd Pubarche Pe... | 630 | medmcqa_train |
A 70 - year- old man was administered penicilline intravenously. Within 5 minutes, he developed genralised urticaria, swelling of lips, hypotension and bronchospasm. The first choice of treatment is to administer: | Ans. is 'b' i.e. epinephrine injection Urticaria, swelling of lips, hypotension and bronchospasm within 5 minutes of i.v penicillin suggests anaphylactic reaction. It's a major problem with the use of penicillin.The t/t of choice for anaphylaxis is i.v epinephrine. | 631 | medmcqa_train |
Daily water requirement in child weighing 30 kgs, height 123 m and BSA of 1 m2 is- | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 1700 ml Fluid requirment in a child o It depends on the weight of a child :- Weight Water requirments < 10 kg o 100 ml/kg/day 10-20 kg o 100 ml / kg / day for first 10 kg (i.e. 1000 ml) + 50 ml / kg / d for every kg above 10 kg. >20 kg o 100 ml/kg/day for first 10 kg (i.e. 1000 ml) + 50 ml / kg / d fo... | 632 | medmcqa_train |
Drug of choice for ADHD is | . | 633 | medmcqa_train |
Double bubble sign is seen in - | Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of the above o Double bubble sign is seen in duodenal atresia, duodenal web, deudenal stenosis, Ladd's band, Annular pancreas, Malrotation of gut, preduodenal vein.Single Bubble signCongenita] hypertrophic pyloric stenosisDouble Bubble signDuodenal atresiaDuodenal webDuodena] stenosisLadd's bandAn... | 634 | medmcqa_train |
A 16 year old boy does not attend school because of the fear of being harmed by school mates. He thinks that his classmates laugh at him and talk about him. He is even scared of going out of the market. He is most likely suffering from: | The history is suggestive of delusion of persecution (fear that schoolmates may "harm" him) and delusion of reference (belief that classmates laugh at him and talk about him). Had they not used the term "harm" and "scared" a diagnosis of social anxiety disorder could have been enteained. | 635 | medmcqa_train |
Bad trip is seen with which of the following drugs? | LSD is a type of hallicinogen LSD means lysergic acid diethylamide LSD was introduced and first used by ALBE HOFFMANNBad trip is seen with LSD and cannabis but common with LSD Ref: Essentials of postgraduate psychiatry By JN Vyas 1st ed Pg 330-336 | 636 | medmcqa_train |
Chromosome involved in Wilm's tumor is | WTl is the best characterized Wilms tumor gene. It is located at chromosome llp13 and encodes for a transcription factor that is critical for normal development of kidneys and gonads. WT2 is localized to a cluster of genes at llpl5. Reference: Essential paediatrics; O.P.Ghai; Childhood Malignancies; Page no: 617 | 637 | medmcqa_train |
Groove sign is seen in- | Ans. is 'c' i.e., LGV * 'Groove sign of Greenblatt' is pathognomonic of LGV (secondary stage) - when inguinal lymph nodes are enlarged, they are separated by Poupart's ligment, producing a groove.Lymphogranuloma venerum (lymphogranuloma inguinale)* LGV is caused by chlamydia trachomatis, serotypes LI, L2, L3. Serotype ... | 638 | medmcqa_train |
Hyperchloremic acidosis is seen in- | The combination of hyperkalemia and hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis is often present, even at earlier stages of CKD (stages 1-3).In patients with diabetic nephropathy or in those with predominant tubulointerstitial disease or obstructive uropathy; this is a non-anion-gap metabolic acidosis. | 639 | medmcqa_train |
A patient with cervix cancer is missed by a screening test and later diagnosed with advanced disease. This time interval is called ? | Ans. is 'a' i.e. Lead time | 640 | medmcqa_train |
The internal pudendal aery arises from which of the following aeries? | The internal iliac aery divides into an anterior and a posterior trunk near the greater sciatic foramen.Branches of ANTERIOR TRUNKUmbilical aeryObturator aeryUterine aeryInferior vesical and vaginal aery (females)Middle rectal aeryInternal pudendal aeryInferior gluteal aeryBranches of POSTERIOR TRUNKIliolumbar aeryLate... | 641 | medmcqa_train |
Increased Ig A levels are seen in | Serum IgA increased in - Alcoholic cirrhosis Serum IgM increased in -Primary biliary cirrhosis (Ref: Clin Exp Immunol.2009 Oct; 158(1): 115-124, Liver.1984 Jun;4(3): 214-8) | 642 | medmcqa_train |
Rituximab is a monoclonal antibody used for treatment of:- | Rituximab is a monoclonal antibody against CD20. It is used for treatment of: Non-Hodgkin lymphoma Chronic lymphoid leukemia Rheumatoid ahritis SLE Auto-immune hemolytic anemia Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura | 643 | medmcqa_train |
The least common type of intussusceptions is: | Types of Intussusceptions (in decreasing order) Ileocolic (77%) Ileo-ileo-colic (12%) Ilioileal (5%) Colocolic (2%): MC in adults Multiple (1%) Retrograde (0.2%) | 644 | medmcqa_train |
Most definitive diagnosis of sinusitis is by | Sinuscopy is a method of Endoscopic sinus observation or surgery using Nose telescope. It involves the evaluation of nasal and sinus passages using the endoscope called Sinuscope. The Sinuscope has a narrow tube with a built-in camera so that the physician can see the internal details of the sinuses. By observing the s... | 645 | medmcqa_train |
An 18 year old male patient presented to the clinic with pain and swelling in the lower jaw. Intraoral examination
revealed localized gingival bleeding in the right posterior region. On palpation, pulsations can be appreciated. Lesions are also appreciated on the frontal bone on a radiograph. Which condition is present... | Vascular malformation (VM) in bone occurs more frequently than the central hemangioma (CH) of bone. Some 35% of VMs occur in bone, whereas CHs of bone are rare. The CH of bone is a benign tumor that rarely occurs in the jaws; it occurs more frequently in the skull and vertebrae. It may be congenital or traumatic in ori... | 646 | medmcqa_train |
Most common anterior mediastinal tumor? | Ref: Bailey and Love, 26th edition, P 868Most common anterior mediastinum tumor is thymoma. Choice B is seen in posterior mediastinum. Choice C and D are found in middle mediastinum. | 647 | medmcqa_train |
Functional unit of Liver is | Anatomical unit of liver - Hepatic Lobule Functional unit of liver- Liver Acinus | 648 | medmcqa_train |
Grievous hurt is defined under: | Ans: a (320 IPC) Ref: Reddy, 21st ed, p. 244Grievous hurt is defined under IPC 320Some important IPC'sIPC 375 - definition of rapeIPC 376 - punishment of rapeIPC 320 - definition of grievous heartIPC 84 - deals with the criminal responsibility of insaneIPC304A - deals with criminal negligenceIPC 304B - dowry deathIPC 3... | 649 | medmcqa_train |
Glaucoma is caused by - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Raised intraocular pressure The most common risk factor known is increased intraocular pressure (lOP)o Glaucoma is a group of eye diseases causing optic nerve damage i.e., glaucoma is a chronic, progressive optic neuropathy caused by a group of ocular conditions which lead to damage of optic nerveo Op... | 650 | medmcqa_train |
Best indicator for nutritional status for a child is - | Rate of increase of height and weight is the best measure for nutritional status of a child. REF. PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICAL 21ST EDITION. 500,501 | 651 | medmcqa_train |
Amplification of DNA uses the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) technique. Cation used in PCR is: | PCR is an in vitro method for the polymerase-directed amplification of specific DNA sequences using two oligonucleotide primers that hybridize to opposite strands and flank the region of interest in the target DNA. The specificity and yield in amplifying a paicular DNA fragment by PCR reaction is affected by the proper... | 652 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following statements about mycosis fungoides is not true? | C i.e. It has indolent course and good prognosis | 653 | medmcqa_train |
Babesiosis is transmitted by - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Tick Babesiao Babesiosis is a protozoan disease caused by two species of Babesia : Babesia microti and Babesia divergens.o It is transmitted by loxdid tick.o Babesia infects the RBCs and resides inside the RBCs ( intraerythrocytic). Intraery throcytic infection of Babesiosis is characterised by maltes... | 654 | medmcqa_train |
Manifestation of Acute Dissection include all of the following, Except: | Answer is C (MR) Mitral Regurgitation is not a feature of Aoic dissection Aoic Regurgitation and Pericardial Tamponade may be seen in proximal dissection Hemopericardium and cardiac tamponade may complicate a dissection involving the ascending aoa (type A lesion with retrograde dissection): Acute Aoic Regurgitation (AR... | 655 | medmcqa_train |
Pancytopenia is most common after: | Hepatitis is the most common preceding infection, and post hepatitis marrow failure accounts for about 5% of etiologies in most series. Patients are usually young men who have recovered from a bout of liver inflammation 1 to 2 months earlier; the subsequent pancytopenia is very severe. The hepatitis is seronegative (no... | 656 | medmcqa_train |
Which is NOT a third generation Cephalosporin | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Cefuroxime Third generation cephalosporins include Parenteral OralCefotaxime - CefiximeCeftizoxime - Cefpodoxime proxetilCeftriaxone - CefdinirCeftazidime - Ceftibuten Cefoperazone Also knowFourth generation cephalosporinsCefepimeCefaparole | 657 | medmcqa_train |
Rigor moritis devolops ..... after death : | B i.e. 1 - 2 hours | 658 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following murmurs may be heard in patients with aoic regurgitation except: | Answer is D (Pansystolic murmur) | 659 | medmcqa_train |
Best investigation to see calcification is: | Ans: A (CT ?) Ref: Harrison !v Principles of internal medicine.18th edition.Explanation:CT is the best technique to detect pericardial calcification; however, overpenetrated films, conventional tomography, fluoroscopy, and MRI may be helpful.Plain radiographs have poor sensitivity for detection of coronary calcificatio... | 660 | medmcqa_train |
Maximum FiO2 which can be given through a nasal oxygen catheter:- | A nasal cannula is generally used wherever small amounts of supplemental oxygen are required, without rigid control of respiration, such as in oxygen therapy. Most cannulae can only provide oxygen at low flow rates--up to 5 litres per minute (L/min)--delivering an oxygen concentration of 28-44%. Rates above 5 L/min can... | 661 | medmcqa_train |
True about neuropraxia | Neuropraxia is due to compression of the nerve,the nerve conduction velocity is increased. It has good prognosis Ref:Guyton and Hall textbook of medical physiology 12th edition,page number:74,75,76 | 662 | medmcqa_train |
Agonistic action at which of the following adrenergic receptor result in the reduction of excess secretion | Ref-KDT 6/e p146 Stimulation of Alpha 2 receptors located on ciliary epithelium reduces secretion of aqueous humor. | 663 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following features are seen in the viral pneumonia except: | Typical Pneumonia Atypical pneumonia -Bacterial etiology -Alveolar exudate + neutrophilic infilitration -C/F - High grade fever productive Cough Pleuritis Signs of consolidation -Non - bacterial etiology (e.g. Virus) -Interstitial tissue inflammation -C/F- Low grade fever Dry cough Malaise no signs of consolidation | 664 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following causes BOTH superior and inferior rib-notching in a chest radiograph? | Superior rib notching -Polio -Restrictive lung disease -Neurofibromatosis -Connective tissue disease -Osteogenesis imperfecta Inferior rib notching -Thrombosis of aoa -Coarctation of aoa -Blalock Taussig shunt -Occlusion of subclan aery -Pulmonary AV malformation Both Superior and inferior rib notching -NF-1 -Hyperpara... | 665 | medmcqa_train |
The most accurate diagnostic test for Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (ZES) is | -All patients with gastrinoma have an elevated gastrin level, and hypergastrinemia in the presence of elevated basal acid output (BAO) strongly suggests gastrinoma. -Patients with gastrinoma usually have a BAO >15 mEq/h or >5 mEq/h if they have had a previous procedure for peptic ulcer. -Acid secretory medications shou... | 666 | medmcqa_train |
What is the average number of fleas of each species per rodent called - | <p> It is the average number of each species per rat/rodent. Reference:Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine,K.Park,23rd edition,page no:294. <\p> | 667 | medmcqa_train |
Periosteal reaction in a case of acute osteomyelitis can be seen earliest at: March 2012 | Ans: B i.e. 10 days The earliest sign to appear on the X-ray is a periosteal new bone deposition (periosteal reaction) at the metaphysis. It takes about 7-10 days to appear Osteomyelitis Earliest site of involvement: Metaphysis Diagnosis of acute OM: Blood culture (positive in 65% cases) Periosteal reaction seen in acu... | 668 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is not associated with zinc deficiency: March 2005 | Ans. C: Pigmentation Acrodermatitis enteropathica is a rare inherited form of zinc deficiency, characterized by periorificial and acral dermatitis, alopecia, and diarrhea. Symptoms of Zinc Deficiency Poor Immune system Weight loss Intercurrent infections Hypogonadism in males Lack of sexual development in females Growt... | 669 | medmcqa_train |
Preimplantataion genetic diagnosis is used for | Pre implantation genetic diagnosis is used for daignosis of single gene disorders such as cystic fibrosis, β - thalassemia and hemophilia. | 670 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following about phenytoin is true ? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., It follows zero order kinetics Phenytoin is metabolized in liver by hydroxylation and glucuranide conjugation (option 'c' is incorrect) o This drug follows saturation kinetics (kinetics changes from first order to zero order within therapeutic concentrations) Phenytoin is an enzyme inducer and induces... | 671 | medmcqa_train |
False about stagardt's disease | Stagardt's disease is autosomal recessive. | 672 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following are killed vaccines, EXCEPT: | 17-D vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine used to control yellow fever. Killed vaccines are used to control typhoid, cholera, peusis, plague, rabies, salk (polio), influenza, hepatitis A, B, japanese encephaltis and KFD. Ref: Park's Textbook Of Preventive and Social Medicine 20th edition page 98. | 673 | medmcqa_train |
Kerley B line are seen at | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Pleural surface Kerley's line Kerley's line is a linear opacity which, depending on its locaton, extent and orientation, may be be fuher classified as :? Kerley's A lines o These are thin, non-branching lines radiating from hilum. These lines are 2-6 cm in length. These lines are found in the mid and ... | 674 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following are true about BCG vaccine except. | Site of injection should be cleaned with soap but not with disinfectant or spirit. | 675 | medmcqa_train |
Commonest etiology of erythema multiforme is - | A. i.e. Viral | 676 | medmcqa_train |
Apex national institute of ophthalmology is | Dr RP Centre for Ophthalmic Sciences, New Delhi has been designated as the apex national institute of ophthalmology. | 677 | medmcqa_train |
Which laser is used in the management of after cataracts: | Ans. Nd-YAG | 678 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following statements about Kaposi sarcoma is not true? | Ans. A. The most common site is scalpKaposi sarcoma is mostly seen in extremities: most commonly on feet and occasionally on hands, ears, and nose.* Lesions are usually dark blue or purple and they may blanchewhen tumid (swollen).* Locally aggressive lesions can ulcerate, fungate or leave pigmented scars.* Lesions are ... | 679 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following veins lack valves except | Veins which do not have valves are:IVCSVCHepatic, ovarian, uterine, renal, emissary, cerebral, pulmonary, and umbilical veinsPoal venous system is a valveless system | 680 | medmcqa_train |
Risk factor for melanoma are all of the following EXCEPT: March 2013 | Ans. B i.e. Black people Melanoma is commoner in fair complexion Malignant melanoma/ MM Mode of spread of MM: Lymphatic channels or hematogenous Cutaneous melanoma arises from: Epidermal melanocytes MC site involved in lentigo maligna (least common): Face MC type of MM: Superficial spreading Most malignant type of MM: ... | 681 | medmcqa_train |
Preferred fluoroquinolone against m. leprae is - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Ofloxacin Drugs acting on M. leprae* Established agents used to treat leprosy include dapsone (50-100 mg/d), clofazimine (50-100 mg/d, 100 mg three times weekly, or 300 mg monthly), and rifampin (600 mg daily or monthly. Of these drugs, only rifampin is bactericidal.* The sulfones (folate antagonists)... | 682 | medmcqa_train |
When the patient fails to understand normal speech but can understand shouted or amplified speech the hearing loss is termed as | DEGREES OF HEARING LOSS 0-25dB-Not significant impairment- no significant difficulty with faint speech 26-40dB-Mild impairment-Difficult with faint speech 41-55dB-Moderate impairment -Frequently difficult with normal speech 56-70dB-Moderately severe impairment-Frequently difficult with loud sound 71-91dB-Severe impairm... | 683 | medmcqa_train |
A child with three days history of upper respiratory tract infection presents with stridor, which decreases on lying down postion. What is the most probable diagnosis - | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Laryngotracheobronchitis This child has : - i) 3 days history of upper respiratory tract infection. ii) Followed by stridor These features suggest the diagnosis of croup. Clinical manifestations of Croup Most patients have an upper respiratory tract infection with some combination of - Rhinorrhea Phar... | 684 | medmcqa_train |
Most common movemnet force involved in fractures of the spine is which of the following? | Flexion injury is the commonest spinal injury. Ref: Essential ohopedics by Maheshwari 3rd Edition, Page 144,259,260. | 685 | medmcqa_train |
Which arm of tRNA binds it to vibosomal surface | Pseudoridine arm of tRNA is involved in binding of aminoacyl tRNA to ribosomal surface. | 686 | medmcqa_train |
Benefits of LNG lUCD are all except : | Mirena now used as first line of treatment of menorrhagia, in addition to the contraceptive effect. Another use is in providing progestogens component of hormone replacement therapy after menopause. THE TEXTBOOK OF GYNAECOLOGY SHEILA BALAKRISHNAN SECOND EDITION PAGE NO 379 | 687 | medmcqa_train |
Most common drug induced Extra Pyramidal Syndrome includes | (A) Dystonia # Drug Induced & Tardive Movement Disorders> Movement disorders secondary to pharmacological agents represent a large number of extrapyramidal disorders seen by neurologists and psychiatrists in the outpatient setting.> Involuntary movements, including tremor, chorea, athetosis, dyskinesias, dystonia, myoc... | 688 | medmcqa_train |
The earliest manifestation of increased intracranial pressure following head injury is: | Early signs of elevated iCP include drowsiness and a diminished level of consciousness (altered mental status). Coma and unilateral papillary changes are late signs and require immediate intervention. Ref: Harrison's Internal Medicine, 16th Edition, Page 1633; Clinical Hepatology: Principles and Practice of Hepatobilia... | 689 | medmcqa_train |
Function of external oblique muscle: | External oblique: Most superficial muscle which originates from the outer pa of the 5th to 12th ribs on each side of the rib cage. This muscle then runs diagonally down each side and connects to the iliac crest, linea alba, and the pubis. Function: External oblique contributes to the maintenance of abdominal tone, incr... | 690 | medmcqa_train |
P wave is absent in- | Absence of the P wave with a flat baseline may indicate: Fine atrial fibrillation Sinoatrial arrest (with a secondary escape rhythm ) in ventricular fibrilation ,ventriculat tachycardia and atrial asystole,a waves are present Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 1423 | 691 | medmcqa_train |
A Poly A base sequence would be most likely found at the | The addition of a poly A tail to the 3' end is one of the post-transcriptional modifications that occurs in the processing of eukaryotic messenger RNA (mRNA). A cap consisting of a guanosine derivative is attached to the 5' end. Intervening sequences (introns) are removed by splicing. All of these processing events occ... | 692 | medmcqa_train |
Type I RPGN is seen in | Type I RPGN is anti - GBM mediated and it is seen in Goodpasture's syndrome. | 693 | medmcqa_train |
Bradycardia is seen with: | Ans: C (Succinyl choline) Ref: Ajay Yadav, Short textbook of Pediatrics, 1st editionExplanation:Cardiac Sideeffects of Anesthetic DrugsDrugsCardiac Side effectsMidazolamMinimal reduction in Heart rate, Blood pressure and cardiac outputEpinephrineProduces tachycardia, hypertension and ventricular arrhythmiasSuccinyiChol... | 694 | medmcqa_train |
Failure of migration of neural crest cells is seen in: | Ans: b (Congenital megacolon)Ref: Bailey & Love, 24th ed, p.l 153 & 23rd ed, p. 1027 | 695 | medmcqa_train |
The signs of malignant transformation in osteochondroma are all except | Ans. b. Weight loss | 696 | medmcqa_train |
Drugs known to cause Steven Johnson syndrome include the following except: | Drugs that most commonly cause SJS/TEN Antibiotics Antifungals Antivirals Sulfonamides, e.g., cotrimoxizole; beta-lactams i.e. penicillins, cephalosporins Imidazole antifungals Nevirapine (non-nucleoside reverse-transcriptase inhibitor) Allopurinol Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAID) (oxicam type mainly) Napro... | 697 | medmcqa_train |
Best prognosis in nerve injury | Neurapraxia is a disorder of the peripheral nervous system in which there is a temporary loss of motor and sensory function due to blockage of nerve conduction, usually lasting an average of six to eight weeks before full recovery.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology 23rd edition | 698 | medmcqa_train |
Bedside test for mental status- | Ans. is 'a' i.e., MMSE o The most w idely used test for bedside evaluation of the mental status is folstein's mini mental state examination (MMSE). | 699 | medmcqa_train |
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