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{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Vaccine reaction", "Injection reaction", "Programme error", "Coincidental" ] }
[ "A" ]
You are the medical officer in charge of the immunisation programme at a sub-centre and you are informed by the local ASHA worker that one of the children who was immunised has has been dizzy. On fuher investigation it was confirmed that the symptoms were due to anxiety of pain of the injection and not as a result of t...
The following are the adverse effect following immunisation: Vaccine reaction - Here the event is caused by the inherent propeies of the vaccine when given correctly. Programme error - In this case the event is as a result of error in preparation, handling or administration of the vaccine. Coincidental - The event afte...
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Median cubital vein", "Radial nerve", "Brachial aery", "Anterior interosseous aery" ] }
[ "B" ]
Bicipital aponeurosis lies over which structure in cubital fossa:-
Bicipital aponeurosis lies superficial to the brachial aery and median nerve. -lies deep to superficial veins. -provides protection for the deeper structures during venepuncture at cubital fossa. -routinely released to decompress the median nerve
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Sublimation", "Suppression", "Humor", "Anticipation" ] }
[ "A" ]
Postponing paying attention of conscious impulse or conflict is a mature defence mechanism known as -
Suppression is pushing of unwanted feelings into unconscious which has reached conscious awareness.
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Caecum", "Hepatic flexure", "Splenic flexure", "Sigmoid colon" ] }
[ "C" ]
The commonest site of perforation during colonoscopy is -
• Risks of colonoscopy: Perforation and hemorrhage • MC site of bleeding after colonoscopy: Stalk after polypectomy. • MC site of perforation during colonoscopy: Sigmoid colon • Perforation can be caused by excessive air pressure, tearing of the antimesenteric border of the colon from excessive pressure on colonic loop...
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Perforator in competency", "Deep veins patency", "Saphenofemoral incompetency", "Site of perforators" ] }
[ "B" ]
Trendlenburg's test done for varicose veins is for detection of:
Ans: C (Saphenofemoral incompetency) Ref : 74 A Manual on Clinical Surgery S. DasExplanation:Clinical Examination of Varicose VeinsBrodie-Trendelenherg TestDone to determine the incompetency of Saphenofemoral valve.Patient is placed in recumbent position.Limbs are raised to empty the veins. Veins are milked proximally ...
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "D-C-A-B", "A-C-D-B", "B-A-D-C", "C-D-B-A" ] }
[ "A" ]
Arrange the following 4 enzymes of gluconeogenesis in sequence: A. Pyruvate carboxylase B. Glucose - 6 - phosphatase C. Phosphoenol pyruvate carboxy kinase D. Fructose 1,6 Bisphosphatase
null
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Cyanide", "Malonate", "Arsenite", "Fluoride" ] }
[ "A" ]
Specific poison for succinate dehydrogenase is ?
B i.e. Malonate
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Rabies", "Leptospirosis", "Brucella", "Anthrax" ] }
[ "A" ]
Most common widespread zoonotic disease in the world is -
<p> Leptospirosis is the most wide zoonotic disease in the world. Reference:Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine,K.Park,23rd edition,page no:291. <\p>
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Bronchiectasis", "Carcinoma bronchus", "Adenoma bronchus", "Pulmonary T.B." ] }
[ "B" ]
Blood stained sputum may be the only symptom in?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Adenoma bronchus
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Malate dehydrogenase", "Isocitrate dehydrogenase", "N-acetyl glutamate synthetase", "Succinate dehydrogenase" ] }
[ "B" ]
Inherited hyperammonemia is a result of deficiency of which enzyme of Krebs-Henseleit urea cycle?
Inherited hyperammonemias are a group of six diseases caused by inborn deficiencies of the enzymes of the Krebs-Henseleit urea cycle. The enzymes involved are: 1. N-acetyl glutamate synthetase 2. Arbamyl phosphate synthetase (CPS) 3. Ornithine transcarbamylase (OTC) 4. Argininosuccinic acid synthetase (citrullinemia) 5...
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "IPC102", "IPC324", "IPC302", "IPC300" ] }
[ "B" ]
Punishment for infanticide comes under -
Ref:Textbook of forensic medicine and toxicology (V.V.Pillay) 17th edition, page no.377 Infanticide refers to the deliberate killings of chlid below the age of one year.In England, Germany, UK, there is a clear-cut distinction between homicide and infanticides. In India, no such distinction exists, and accuse is punish...
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "USG", "CT", "MRI", "Doppler" ] }
[ "C" ]
Carotid artery stenosis screening invivo choice is -
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Doppler o Color doppler ultrasonography is the screening method of choice (not simple USG : option a is incorrect),o Carotid angiography is the investigation of choice for diagnosis,o MRI is the investigation of choice for demyelinating disorder, e.g. multiple sclerosis.Investigations in nervous syste...
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Endoderm", "Mesoderm", "Surface ectoderm", "Neuroectoderm" ] }
[ "B" ]
Lens develops from?
Ans. c (Surface ectoderm). (Ref. Human Embryology by IB Singh, 6th/352)LENS# LENS develops from surface ectoderm.# Compared to the cornea, it has a much lower converging power of 17 diopters because of the relatively similar refractive indices of aqueous humor, lens, and vitreous body (cornea 42 D).# However, the lens ...
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "↑Peripheral resistance ↓ cardiac output", "↑ Venous return ↑ cardiac output", "↓Peripheral resistence↓cardiac output", "Venoconstriction ↓cardiac output" ] }
[ "B" ]
Features of neurogenic shock are
null
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Bacterial culture", "Biopsy", "KOH mount", "Patch test" ] }
[ "B" ]
A 7 years old boy presented with painful boggy swelling of scalp, multiple sinuses with purulent discharge, easily pluckable hairs and lymph nodes enlarged in occipital region. Which one of the following would be most helpful for diagnostic evaluation?
Ans. c. KOH mount
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Bacillus Anthracis", "Clostridia", "Corynebacterium", "Peptostreptococcus" ] }
[ "A" ]
Spore forming anaerobic gram positive bacilli ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Clostridia There are two medically impoant spore forming bacteria. Both of them are 'gram positive' `bacilli' :-Aerobic : BacillusAnaerobic (obligate anaerobes) : Clostridia.
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Chloroquine", "Mefloquine", "ACT", "Proguanil" ] }
[ "B" ]
Drug of choice for Falciparum Malaria is:-
DOC for Falciparum Malaria - ACT.( Aemisinin based Combination therapy ) In Noh Eastern states:- ACT-AL co-formulated tablet of Aemether-20 mg / Lumefantrine - 120 mg. Primaquine 0.75 mg/ kg Body weight on day 2. 2. In Other States:- ACT-SP -Aesunate 50 mg tablet for 3 days and Sulphadoxine (500mg) - Pyremethamine (25m...
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "2%", "3%", "10%", "70%" ] }
[ "C" ]
Maximum flow of Type1 inlay wax at 45degree
null
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Aflatoxin", "Pyruvic acid", "BOAA", "Sanguinarine" ] }
[ "B" ]
Neuro lathyrism results due to
null
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Alanine", "Arginine", "Glycine", "Glutamine" ] }
[ "A" ]
Factor V Leiden is caused due to a mutation that results in a substitution at position 506 glutamine to which of the following:
Mutation in factor V (called the Leiden mutation, after the city in the Netherlands where it was discovered) causes recurrent DVTs. The mutation results in a glutamine to arginine substitution at position 506 that renders factor V resistant to cleavage by protein C. As a result, an impoant antithrombotic counter-regula...
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Lead", "CuSO4", "CO", "Dhatura" ] }
[ "B" ]
Kunkel's test is done to demonstrate presence of ................. in blood.
Carbon monoxide (CO)
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Mfortuitum", "Mkansasi", "Mmarinum", "M leprosy" ] }
[ "B" ]
Fish tank granuloma is seen in -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., M. Marinum o Fish tank granulomaalso called ' swimming pool granuiomaf is caused by M. marinum.Principal types of opportunist mycobacterial disease in man and the usual causative agents.DiseasesUsual causative agentLymphadenopathyM. avium complexM. scrofulaceumSkin lesionPost-trauma abscessSwimming po...
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Active chronic gastritis", "Acute gastritis", "Autoimmune gastritis", "Chronic gastritis" ] }
[ "A" ]
A 49-year-old female taking ibuprofen for increasing joint pain in her hands presents with increasing pain in her midsternal area. Gastroscopy reveals multiple, scattered, punctate hemorrhagic areas in her gastric mucosa. Biopsies from one of these hemorrhagic lesions reveal mucosal erosions with edema and hemorrhage. ...
Gastritis is a nonspecific term that describes any inflammation of the gastric mucosa. Acute gastritis refers to the clinical situation of gastric mucosal erosions (not mucosal ulcers). Acute gastritis is also known as hemorrhagic gastritis or acute erosive gastritis. Acute gastritis is associated with the use of nonst...
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "7S", "8S", "11S", "20 S" ] }
[ "A" ]
Sedimentation coefficient of Ig E is:
Ans : b 8S Ref: Ananthanarayanan 8th editionSvedberg unit - a sedimentation constant of 1 x 1013sec. Sedimentation unit is studied by ultracentrifugation - for diversity of antibody moleculeIgG -7IgA -7IgM -19Ig D -7IgE -8
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "G1", "S", "G2", "M" ] }
[ "A" ]
In which phase of cell cycle, proof reading occurs?
EVENTS PHASE of cell cycle Proofreading S phase Most repairs G1 phase Mismatch repair G2 phase
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "12", "24", "15", "30" ] }
[ "A" ]
The number of ATPs generated in krebs cycleare ?
Ans. is 'b' > b' i.e., 24 One turn of the TCA cycle, staing with acetyl CoA produces 10 ATPs. When the staing molecule is pyruvate, the oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate, the oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate yields 2.5 ATPs and therefore, 12.5 ATPs are produced when staing compound is pyruvate. Since, two mole...
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Piamater", "Pial vassels", "Duramater", "Brain matter" ] }
[ "B" ]
Pain-sensitive intracranial structure is:
C i.e.Duramater
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Magnesium hydroxide", "Desferrioxamine", "Gastric lavage", "Penicillamine" ] }
[ "C" ]
Not used for iron poison in: FMGE 09; NEET 13
Ans. Penicillamine
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "A series of meiotic divisions forming blastomeres", "Production of highly differentiated blastomeres", "An increased cytoplasmic content of blastomeres", "A decrease in size of blastomeres" ] }
[ "C" ]
Which of the following events is involved in cleavage of the zygote during week 1 of development?
Cleavage is a series of mitotic divisions by which the large amount of zygote cytoplasm is successively paitioned among the newly formed blastomeres. Although the number of blastomeres increases during cleavage, the size of individual blastomeres decreases until they resemble adult cells in size.
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "21α hydroxylase deficiency", "11 β hydroxylase deficiency", "3β hydroxylase deficiency", "Conn’s syndrome" ] }
[ "A" ]
A female child with virilization, hypertension with low plasma renin diagnosis is :
9] Congenital adrenal hyperplasia represents a group of autosomal recessive inherited, metabolic errors, each characterized by decency or total lack of a particular enzyme involved in the biosynthesis of cortical steroids, Steroidogenesis is then channelled into other pathways leading to increased production of androge...
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Linear abrasion", "Pressure abrasion", "Sliding abrasion", "Superficial bruise" ] }
[ "A" ]
'Patterned' abrasion is variety of:
Ans. is 'b' ie pressure abrasion (Ref: Parikh; 6/e, p4.3).An abrasion is a superficial injury involving only the superficial layers of the skin (epidermis only), caused by friction and / or pressure between the skin and some rough object or surface. It bleeds very slightly, heals rapidly in a few days and leaves no sca...
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Cephalexin", "Dicloxacillin", "Piperacillin", "Cloxacillin" ] }
[ "B" ]
Which of the following drugs is antipseudomonal penicillin?
null
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Aluminium phosphide", "Lead", "Arsenic", "Copper" ] }
[ "B" ]
Following poisoning retards putrefaction: NEET 13
Ans. Arsenic
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Chemical composition", "Self life", "Shape and size of particles", "Solubility in water" ] }
[ "B" ]
The main difference between dental stone and dental plaster is:
null
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Lymphatics", "Nervs", "Developmental", "Blood vessels" ] }
[ "B" ]
Lines of Blaschko&;s are along
Blaschko&;s lines, are lines of normal cell development in the skin. These lines are invisible under normal conditions.
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "E. histolytica", "Nageleria", "Giardia", "E.coli" ] }
[ "A" ]
"Acute Meningoencephalitis" is caused by:
Nageleria
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Subconjunctival hemorrhage", "Corneal edema", "Sympathetic ophthalmia", "Sudden loss of vision" ] }
[ "B" ]
Most serious complication seen in other eye after traumatic injury to one eye: March 2005, September 2008
Ans. C: Sympathetic ophthalmia Sympathetic ophthalmia (SO) is a condition in which serious inflammation attacks the sound eye after injury (including intraocular surgeries) to the other. It is the most dreaded complication of unilateral severe eye injury, as it can leave the patient completely blind. Symptoms may devel...
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Run away from home", "High risk sexual behavior", "Physical aggression", "Emotional bullying" ] }
[ "B" ]
Least commonly seen in conduct disorder seen in girls:-
Conduct disorder - Persistent pattern of antisocial behavior in which the individual repeatedly breaks social rules and carries out aggressive acts.in conduct disorder they do it deliberately usually characterized by aggression and violation of the rights of others boys with conduct disorder show physical & relationshi...
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Paromomycin", "Streptomycin", "Amikacin", "Neomycin" ] }
[ "C" ]
Which of the following aminoglycosides has the highest nephrotoxicity?
null
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Crohn's disease", "Rheumatoid ahritis", "Sarcoidosis", "Ulcerative colitis" ] }
[ "B" ]
. Sulphasalazine is NOT used for the treatment of-
Sulhasalazine is not used for treatment of sarcoidosis As a treatment for sarcoidosis, these drugs are most likely to be effective in people who have skin symptoms or a high level of calcium in their blood. Hydroxychloroquine (Plaquenil) and chloroquine (Aralen) are antimalarial drugs that are used to treat sarcoidosis...
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Nightmares", "Re-living of past adverse event", "Hypervigilance", "Avoidance" ] }
[ "A" ]
Post traumatic stress disorder is differentiated from other anxiety disorders by which of the following symptoms?
This question is not about the diagnostic features of PTSD. This is about the differential diagnosis. PTSD is an anxiety disorder and it shares symptoms with other disorders. Impoant features in distinguishing the condition are given below. Differential diagnosis: Point 1: Etiologically significant trauma should be pre...
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Is coadministrator with azithromycin", "Is coadministrator with fluconazole", "Is given in higher doses", "Reduces QT interval" ] }
[ "B" ]
Polymorphic ventricular tachycardia can occur when terfenadine(antihistaminic):
Torsades de pointes (polymorphic ventricular tachycardia) occurs when terfenadine is taken in higher doses or when hepatic metabolism is impaired by disease or by drugs which inhibit the cytochrome P450 responsible for metabolism of terfenadine. Drugs include erythromycin, clarithromycin, ketoconazole and itraconazole....
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Trigeminal", "Mandibular", "Ariculo temporal", "Lingual" ] }
[ "B" ]
Which of the following nerve is involved in Frey's syndrome?
Syndrome (Gustatory Sweating) aka auriculotemporal syndrome: Frey's syndrome arises as a complication of parotid surgery usually manifesting several months after the operation. lt is characterised by sweating and flushing of the preauricular skin during mastication causing nuisance to the person or social embarrassment...
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Diabetes", "Hypertension", "Obesity", "Impaired liver function" ] }
[ "C" ]
In a young female of reproductive age an absolute contraindication for prescribing oral contraceptive pills is:
Ans-D i.e., Impaired liver function Repeat Q No 173 (Nov. 2004)Absolute contraindications include:A personal h/O thromboembolic venous, arterial or cardiac disease or severe or multiple risk factor for these. Transient cerebral ischaemic attacks without a headache.Infective hepatitis, until 3 months after liver functio...
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Ringer lactate", "Normal saline", "Balanced salt solution", "Balanced salt solution + glutathione" ] }
[ "C" ]
Which among the following is the BEST irrigating fluid during ECCE?
BSS plus a balanced salt solution enhanced with bicarbonate, dextrose and glutathione. It is specially used for surgeries requiring prolonged irrigation such as phacoemulsification, pars plana vitrectomy and automated extracapsular cataract extraction. Balanced sterile solution is a sterile physiologically balanced irr...
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Round worm", "Hook worm", "Pin worm", "Tape worm" ] }
[ "A" ]
Chandler's index is associated with: September 2006
Ans. B: Hook worm Morbidity and moality from hookworm infection depend much on the worm load. Chandler worked out an index on the basis of an average number of hookworm eggs per gram of feces for the entire community, Chandler's index is still used in epidemiological studies of hookworm disease. By this index, worm loa...
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Aminopeptidase", "ATPase", "Acid phosphatase", "Alkaline phosphatase" ] }
[ "A" ]
One of the following is the first enzyme to be released at the site of wound?
Ref - Krishan Vij textbook of forensic medicine and toxicology 5e pg - 202
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Loss of sweating", "Depression", "Dehydration", "Absent deep tendon reflexes" ] }
[ "B" ]
Sign of diabetic ketoacidosis is-
Physical findings of diabetic ketoacidosis are tachycardia, dehydration/hypotension, hypothermia, tachypnea/Kussmaul respirations/ respiratory distress, abdominal tenderness (may resemble acute pancreatitis or surgical abdomen), lethargy/obtundation/cerebral edema/possibly coma. Reference : page 2418 Harrison's Princip...
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Permethrin", "Retinoids", "Ivermectin", "Co-trimoxazole" ] }
[ "B" ]
Which of the following drug is used in scabies as single oral dose agent: March 2011
Ans. C: Ivermectin Ivermectin is used as single oral dose of 200 microgram/ kg body weight It can be repeated after 2 weeks It is indicated in epidemics of scabies in orphanages and Norwegian scabies Scabies: Incubation period: 4 weeks Pathognomic lesion: Burrow, which lies in stratum corneum MC site in infants: Scalp,...
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Stroma", "Corpora albicans", "Corpora lutea", "Mature follicles" ] }
[ "B" ]
Progesterone production in the ovary is primarily by:
null
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Physiologic jaundice of the neonate", "Kernicterus Following Rhesus Incompatibility", "Gilbe's Syndrome", "Pancreatic head tumor" ] }
[ "C" ]
Which of the following clinical situations is associated with an increase in predominantly conjugated ("direct") bilirubin?
Of the conditions listed, only pancreatic head tumors are associated with an increase in conjugated ("direct") bilirubin (obstructive jaundice). Increased levels of unconjugated ("direct") bilirubin result from hemolysis over liver defects that impair uptake or conjugation mechanism in liver cells (Gilbe's syndrome, Cr...
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Thiopentone", "Propofol", "Lignocaine", "Sevoflurane" ] }
[ "C" ]
Which anaesthetic agent increases intracranial tension among the following
All inhalational anaesthetics directly act on cerebral blood vessels→vasodilatation→increase cerebral blood flow→ increase intracranial tension
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Stratum corneum", "Stratum lucidum", "Stratum spinosum", "Stratum basale" ] }
[ "A" ]
Granules of Eleidin are present in which of the following layer?
Stratum Lucidum - Also called clear cell layer. Present only in skin of palms and soles. Translucent due to presence of refractile Eleidin granules
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Albuterol", "Salmeterol", "Pirbuterol", "Orciprenaline" ] }
[ "A" ]
Which of the following drug is a long acting beta–2 agonist ?
null
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Administration of hypeonic saline solution", "Restriction of free water", "Plasma ultrafiltration", "Hemodialysis" ] }
[ "A" ]
Five days after an uneventful cholecystectomy, an asymptomatic middle-aged woman is found to have a serum sodium level of 125 mEq/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate management strategy for this patient?
The initial, and often definitive, management of hyponatremia is free-water restriction. Symptomatic hyponatremia, which occurs at serum sodium levels less than or equal to 120 mEq/L, can result in headache, seizures, coma, and signs of increased intracranial pressure and may require infusion of hypeonic saline. Rapid ...
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Alzheimer's disease", "Parkinsonism", "Hypothyroidism", "Vascular dementia" ] }
[ "B" ]
Reversible cause of dementia is -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Hypothyroidism Causes of dementiaReversible causesSurgically treatableMedically treatableo Normal pressure hydrocephaluso Brain tumors (frontal lobe tumor)o Meningiomao Subdural hematoma (Head injury)o Hydrocephaluso Hypothyroidismo Depressiono HIV infectiono Alcohol abuseo Vitamin B12, Folate, Niacin...
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Streptococcus viridans", "Staphylococcus aureus", "Candida albicans", "Salmonella typhi" ] }
[ "B" ]
In rheumatic heart disease, infective endocarditis is detected by echocardiogram and the largest vegetations seen are due to-
null
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "300 microgram", "500 microgram", "150 microgram", "50microgram" ] }
[ "B" ]
Iodine RDA is -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., 150 microgram o The RDA of iodine for adults is 150 microgram.GroupRecommended daily intakePreschool children (0-59 months)School children (6 - 12 years)Adults (>12 years)Pregnancy and lactation90 meg120 meg150 meg250 meg
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Bansdola", "Mugging", "Garrotting", "Hanging" ] }
[ "B" ]
Spanish windlass was practices in Spain as a method of execution. It is a type of:
Garrotting Garrotting: One of the methods of hemicidal strangulation The victim is attacked from behind without warning and strangled by grasping throat or by throwing a ligature over the neck and tightening it quickly. In this way a single assailant can kill a healthy robust adult. Garrotting was practices as a mode o...
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Dehydrogenation", "Oxidation", "Decarboxylation", "Acetylation" ] }
[ "C" ]
Panthothenic acid is coenzyme of which of the following reaction (s):
D i.e. Acetylation Pantothenic acid is necessary for synthesis of coenzyme A (CoA)Q, which functions as a coenzyme for acetylation reactionsQ
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Othello syndrome", "Capgras syndrome", "De clerambault syndrome", "Franklin syndrome" ] }
[ "B" ]
Delusion that someone from high socio economic status is loving you is in -
null
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Barium studies", "Endoscopy", "24 hour pH monitoring", "Manometry" ] }
[ "A" ]
Oesophageal motility disorder are best diagnosed by?
Answer is B (Endoscopy): Dysphagia for solids alone suggests a probable mechanical cause for dysphagia such as carcinoma, stricture or esophageal web. The investigation of choice for such cases is Endoscopy.
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Cinchonism", "Hyperglycemia", "Hypoglycemia", "Hypokalemia" ] }
[ "B" ]
Quinine given to a patient of falciparum malaria caused sweating and palpitation, the likely cause is?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Hypoglycemia o Sweating and palpitations suggest hypoglycemia; which can occur due to quinine. Cinchonism is characterized by ringing in ears, nausea, vomiting, veigo, headache, mental confusion, difficulty in hearing and vision. Hypotension and cardiac arrhythmias develop on rapid i.v. injection.
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Fat", "Glycogen", "Lactate", "Ketone" ] }
[ "A" ]
Main source of energy derived from
Glycogen is the reserve carbohydrate in animals. It is stored in liver and muscles.The phosphorylated enzyme is less sensitive to allosteric inhibitors. Thus even if cellular ATP and glucose-6-phosphate are high, Phosphorylase will be active. The glucose-1-phosphate produced from glycogen in the liver may be conveed to...
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Giant cell arteritis", "Takayasu arteritis", "Polyarteritis nodosa", "Microscopic polyangitis" ] }
[ "A" ]
Reverse Coarctation is seen in
Reverse Coarctation ;weak or absent pulse in upper limb + pulse present in lower limb.
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Heparin", "Warfarin", "Dicumarol", "Nicoumalone" ] }
[ "A" ]
Which of the following drug crosses placenta
(Warfarin) (601-KDT6th)* WARFARIN - It crosses placenta and is secreted in milk however quantity of active form is generally insufficient to affect the suckling infants* HEPARIN - does not cross BBB or placenta**- It is the anticoagulant of choice during pregnancy*** Bleeding due to overdose is the most serious complic...
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Wiskott Aldrich syndrome", "Digeorge syndrome", "IgA deficiency", "Agammaglobulinamia" ] }
[ "C" ]
Thymic hypoplsia is seen in which of the following
Ref Robbins 9/e p224 Thymic Hypoplasia: DiGeorge Syndrome DiGeorge syndrome results from a congenital defect in thymic development with deficient T cell maturation. T cells are absent in the lymph nodes, spleen, and peripheral blood, and infants with this defect are extremely vulnera- ble to viral, fungal, and protozoa...
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Niacin", "Biotin", "Carotene", "Vit D" ] }
[ "A" ]
Rett's syndrome occurs due to deficiency of ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Biotin
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Patella", "Femur medial condyle", "Tibial tubercle", "Femur lateral condyle" ] }
[ "B" ]
Osgood Schlatter disease is associated with osteochondritis of
Types of Osteochondritis and Nomenclature Traction apophysitis (chronic strain injuries) Tibial Tuberosity Osgood-Schlatter Calcaneum Sever The lower pole of patella Sinding-Larsen&;s
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Tenia Capitis", "Psoriasis", "DLE", "Alopecia Aereta" ] }
[ "B" ]
Cicatrial Alopecia is seen in:
C. i.e. DLE
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "3", "4", "2", "5" ] }
[ "B" ]
According to Spetzler-Main criteria, how much score is given for a 5 cm nidus with AV malformation?
Spetzler-Main AVM grading scale. Graded Feature Points Assigned Size of AVM < 3 cm 3-6 cm >6 cm 1 2 3 Eloquence1 of adjacent brain Noneloquent Eloquent 0 1 Venous drainage Superficial Deep 0 1 'Eloquent areas include: visual, language, and sensorimotor coex; the thalamus and hypothalamus; the internal capsule; the brai...
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Geiger counter", "Photographic film", "Scintillation counter", "Radiotracer" ] }
[ "B" ]
Which one of the following device conves radioactive emissions to light for detection?
Scintillation counter: It measures ionizing radiation. The sensor, called a scintillator, consists of a transparent crystal, usually phosphor, plastic, or organic liquid that fluoresces when struck by ionizing radiation. A sensitive photomultiplier tube (PMT) measures the light from the crystal. The PMT is attached to ...
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Duodenum", "Jejunum", "Ileum", "Caecum" ] }
[ "C" ]
Enterobius commonly inhabit the: September 2011
Ans. D: Caecum Adult Enterobius vermicularis worms inhabit the caecum, appendix and adjacent poions of the ascending colon, lying closely applied to the mucosal surface. Pinworm (genus En terobius)/Threadworm/Seatworm, It is a nematode (roundworm) and a common human intestinal parasite, especially in children. It inhab...
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Hypervolemia", "Hypeension", "Hypovolemia", "Decrease osmolarity" ] }
[ "B" ]
Which of the following results in increase in secretion of ADH?
Ans: C HypovolemiaRef: Guyton 12th/e p. 9051Hypovolemia (Decreased ECF) stimulates the release of ADH.Vasopressin secretion is increased by: - i) Increased osmolarity (osmotic pressure) of plasma; ii) Decreased ECF volume; iii) Pain, emotion, stress, exercise; iv) Nausea and vomiting; v) Standing; vi) Clofibrate, Carba...
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Skin", "Liver", "Kidney", "Blood" ] }
[ "B" ]
1-a hydroxylation in Vitamin-D metabolism takes place in
Vitamin D is a fat-soluble vitamin molecule found in fish liver oils, and also produced in the skin when subjected to ultraviolet rays from sunlight. The main function of the vitamin is to increase the utilization of calcium and phosphorus in bones and teeth. A mixture of several forms of vitamin D: Vitamin D3 is synth...
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Magnesium hydroxide", "Magnesium hydroxide and calcium carbonate", "Magnesium hydroxide and Aluminium hydroxide", "Calcium carbonate and aluminium hydroxide" ] }
[ "B" ]
Magaldrate is conveed by gastric acid to ?
Ans. is `c' i.e., Magnesium hydroxide and Aluminium hydroxide Magaldrate: Magaldrateis a common antaciddrug that is used for the treatment of duodenal and gastric ulcers, esophagitis from gastroesophageal reflux. Magaldrate is a hydroxymagnesium aluminate complex that is conveed rapidly in gastric acid to Mg(OH), and A...
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Motor and sensory only", "Sensory and autonomic nerve only", "Sensory nerves only", "Sensory, autonomic and motor nerves" ] }
[ "C" ]
Which of the following nerves are affected after spinal anaesthetic block –
Local anesthetics block generation and conduction of nerve impulse at all part of neuron where they come in contact, without causing structural damage. Thus not only sensory but motor impulses and autonomic control is also interrupted.
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "6.67", "7.35", "9", "8.6" ] }
[ "A" ]
If hemoglobin status of a population with mean value is 10.3 gm % with SD 2 gm%, then 5% population will be below what value of Hb?
.
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "CD 19", "CD 20", "CD 134", "CD 10" ] }
[ "B" ]
Not a B cell marker -
. CD 134
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Tibia", "Mandible", "Scapula", "Femur" ] }
[ "A" ]
Actinomycosis is commonly seen in -
null
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Milia", "Acne", "Epidermoid cyst", "Miliaria" ] }
[ "A" ]
In sebaceous glands, accumulation of sebum leads to:
Ans. b. Acne4 steps in pathogenesis of Acne are:Sebum productionHyperkeratosis of pilosebaceous unitPropionibacterium acnes colonization of pilosebaceous unit Inflammation
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "40-50 cms", "60- 120 cms", "30-100 cms", "25-40 cms" ] }
[ "B" ]
Length of umbilical cord is?
ANSWER: (C) 30-100 cmsREF: Dutta 6th ed p. 40The normal length of umblical cord is around 50cms with usual variation between 30-100 cms
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Duodenum", "Ileum", "Jejunum", "Colon" ] }
[ "A" ]
Vitamin B12 intrinsic factor absorption occurs in
Most of the vitamins are absorbed in the upper small intestine, but vitamin B12 is absorbed in the ileum.Vitamin B12 binds to intrinsic factor and the complex is absorbed across the ileal mucosa.Vitamin B12 and folate absorption are Na+ independent.Other vitamins are absorbed by carriers that are Na+ cotranspoers.(Ref:...
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Before ferilisation", "During feilization", "5th day after feilization", "7th day after feilization" ] }
[ "B" ]
Zona Pellucida disappears by:-
Zona pellucida is thick membranous covering made up of glycoprotein, the microvilli of oocyte and follicular cells project into zona pellucida for nutrition. it prevent polyspermy and implantation. Blastocyst forms at 4th day and by the end of 5th day, zona pellucida disappears and implantation takes place at 6th -7th ...
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Tri-iodo tyrosine", "Tri - iodo thyronine", "Thyroglobulin", "Di-iodo tyrosine" ] }
[ "B" ]
Storage form of thyroid hormone-
The synthesis and storage of thyroid hormones occurs between the follicular cells and the colloid. The storage form of thyroid hormone is thyroglobulin. Thyroglobulin is a large glycoprotein synthesized in the follicular cells and has a molecular weight of around 650 000 with about 140 tyrosine residues, depending on t...
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Multicystic renal dysplasia", "ARPKD", "Familial juvenile nephronophthisis", "Medullary sponge kidney" ] }
[ "A" ]
Congenital hepatic fibrosis is a characteristic feature of
Infantile and Iuvenile forms are associated with congenital Hepatic fibrosis.
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Late systole", "Mid systole", "Late diastole", "Mid diastole" ] }
[ "C" ]
During cardiac imaging the phase of minimum motion of hea is:
D i.e. Mid diastole- During cardiac imaging (such as MRI, CT, electron beam tomography), mid diastolic phase (or diastasis) of cardiac cycle is usually (but not always) associated with lowest (minimum) mean motion of hea.Q- Optimum phase (i.e. with minimum cardiac motion) for cardiac and coronary vessel imaging is mid-...
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Metaplasia", "Anaplasia", "Dysplasia", "Hyperplasia" ] }
[ "B" ]
Reversible loss of polarity with abnormality in size and shape of cells is known as?
Dysplasia is reversible Anaplasia is irreversible
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Sodium chloride", "Alcohol", "Rectified spirit", "50% glycerine" ] }
[ "C" ]
During autopsy for virology study which agent is used for storing tissue: NEET 14
Ans. 50% glycerine
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Peptostreptococcus", "Lactobacillus", "Gardenella vaginalis", "E. coli" ] }
[ "A" ]
The protective bacterium in the normal vagina is:
Vagina has inhabitant bacteria called as Doderleins bacteria which is a lactobaccilli, and converts the glycogen present in vaginal epithelium into lactic acid. Thus, pH of the vagina is acidic The pH of the vagina in an adult woman is 4 -5.5 with an average of 4.5. The pH of vagina varies with age — for further detail...
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Alpha globulins", "Light chain globulins", "Gamma globulins", "Delta globulins" ] }
[ "A" ]
Bence jones proteinuria is derived from?
Ans. (b) Light chain globulins(Ref: R 9th/pg 598-602)Excretion of light chains in the urine has been referred to as Bence Jones proteinuria.Light chains includes k and l (kappa and lambda)
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "2003", "2006", "2007", "2008" ] }
[ "A" ]
Pradhan mantra swasthya suraksha yojana was launched in:
Pradhan mantra swasthya suraksha yojana was approved in 2006 with the objective of correcting imbalances in availability of affordable teiary level healthcare in the country. Ref: National Health Programmes in India, J.Kishore, 10th edition pg: 84
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Collection of blood under the pericranium", "Collection of sero-sanguineous fluid in the scalp", "Edema of the scalp due to grip of the forceps", "Varicose veins in the scalp" ] }
[ "A" ]
Caput succedaneum in a newborn is: Karnataka 07
Ans. Collection of sero-sanguineous fluid in the scalp
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Diuretics", "ACE inhibitors", "Calcium channel blockers", "Beta blockers" ] }
[ "A" ]
A Patient who is on antihypertensive drug develops a dry cough. Which of the following drug might be responsible for the condition:
The angiotensin-converting enzyme normally helps in conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, which acts as a vasoconstrictor in case of hypovolemia. In addition to that, ACE also helps in the breakdown of bradykinin. When ACE inhibitors (captopril) are given, it inhibits ACE and in addition inhibits the breakdown...
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Clonidine", "Beta blockers", "Calcium channel blockers", "Diuretics" ] }
[ "C" ]
A patient on lithium therapy was found to be hypeensive also. Which of the following antihypeensive drugs is contraindicated in a patient on lithium therapy in order to prevent toxicity?
Diuretics (thiazide, furosemide) by causing Na+ loss promote proximal tubular reabsorption of Na+ as well as Li+ --plasma levels of lithium rise. ref : KD Tripati 8th ed.
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Anterior", "Posterior", "Middle", "Anywhere" ] }
[ "A" ]
Most common pa of larynx involved in TB ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Posterior Essential otolaryngology 2"d/e p. 1139] Disease affects the posterior third of larynx more commonly than anterior pa. The pas affected in descending order of frequency are :- i) Interarytenoid fold, ii) Ventricular band, iii) Vocal cords, iv) Epiglottis.
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Gastric adenocarcinoma", "Pseudomonas infection", "Ulcerative colitis", "Intestinal tuberculosis" ] }
[ "B" ]
Pyogenic granuloma is associated with
Pyogenic granuloma is a misnomer as there is no granuloma. It is a benign vascular lesion that bleeds easily on trauma. It is associated with Inflammatory Bowel disease (Ulcerative colitis > Crohn's disease).
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Pulp", "Gingiva", "Periodontal Ligament", "Alveolar mucosa" ] }
[ "B" ]
Epithelial rests of Malassez are found in
null
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Ketamine", "Atracurium", "Pancuronium", "Fentanyl" ] }
[ "A" ]
Muscle relaxant used in renal failure -
As Atracurium and Cis-atracurium are inactivated by Hoffman's elimination, they are the muscle relaxants of choice for both liver and renal failure.
MedMCQA
{ "label": [ "A", "B", "C", "D" ], "text": [ "Internal iliac", "Para-aortic", "Superficial inguinal", "Coeliac" ] }
[ "A" ]
Lymphatics of suprarenal gland drain into lymph nodes -
Suprarenal glands drain into para-aortic nodes.
MedMCQA