Question
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| Explaination
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|
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
a
|
GS_Polity_unclassified
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:nan##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:a##Explaination:nan##Topic:GS_Polity_unclassified##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
nan
|
a
|
GS_Polity_unclassified
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:nan##Option_A:nan###Option_B:nan##Option_C:nan##Option_D:nan##Answer:a##Explaination:nan##Topic:GS_Polity_unclassified##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements:
1. The function of Public Account Committee is to examine the annual audit reports of the controller and auditor general of India (C&G).
2. Committee on Public Undertakings examines the reports of the CAG on public undertakings.
3. Business Advisory Committee regulates the functioning of big business houses in India to maintain business ethics.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
|
Only 3
|
2 and 3
|
All
|
Only 3
|
Business Advisory Committee regulates the programme and time table of the House (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) and is not concerned with business houses at all.
|
d
|
GS_Polity_unclassified
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements:
1. The function of Public Account Committee is to examine the annual audit reports of the controller and auditor general of India (C&G).
2. Committee on Public Undertakings examines the reports of the CAG on public undertakings.
3. Business Advisory Committee regulates the functioning of big business houses in India to maintain business ethics.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
##Option_A: Only 3 ###Option_B: 2 and 3
##Option_C: All ##Option_D: Only 3 ##Answer:d##Explaination:Business Advisory Committee regulates the programme and time table of the House (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) and is not concerned with business houses at all.##Topic:GS_Polity_unclassified##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements:
1. Jammu & Kashmir has adopted a bicameral legislature by its own state constitution.
2. A person cannot be appointed as Minister without being a member of either house of the Parliament or state legislature.
3. The judges of a high court are appointed by the Governor of the state concerned.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
Only 1
|
2 and 3
|
Only 3
|
Only 1
|
A person can be appointed as Minister without being a member of either house of the Parliament or state legislature for maximum of six month ONLY.
Governor is not involved in appointed of judges
|
a
|
GS_Polity_unclassified
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements:
1. Jammu & Kashmir has adopted a bicameral legislature by its own state constitution.
2. A person cannot be appointed as Minister without being a member of either house of the Parliament or state legislature.
3. The judges of a high court are appointed by the Governor of the state concerned.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: Only 1 ###Option_B: 2 and 3
##Option_C: Only 3 ##Option_D: Only 1 ##Answer:a##Explaination:A person can be appointed as Minister without being a member of either house of the Parliament or state legislature for maximum of six month ONLY.
Governor is not involved in appointed of judges##Topic:GS_Polity_unclassified##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
1. The Indian Constitution establishes an integrated and independent judicial system.
2. The ministers are individually responsible to Lok Sabha.
3. The members for Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) are drawn only from administrative streams.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
Only 1
|
2 and 3
|
1 and 3
|
Only 1
|
The ministers are collectively responsible to Lok Sabha.
The members for Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) are drawn from administrative as well judicial streams
|
a
|
GS_Polity_unclassified
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:1. The Indian Constitution establishes an integrated and independent judicial system.
2. The ministers are individually responsible to Lok Sabha.
3. The members for Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) are drawn only from administrative streams.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: Only 1 ###Option_B: 2 and 3
##Option_C: 1 and 3 ##Option_D: Only 1 ##Answer:a##Explaination:The ministers are collectively responsible to Lok Sabha.
The members for Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) are drawn from administrative as well judicial streams##Topic:GS_Polity_unclassified##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Which of the following is NOT used as a tool of legislative control over executive:
|
Closure motion and adjournment motion.
|
Resolutions to draw attention of the House.
|
Joint sitting of two Houses.
|
Closure motion and adjournment motion.
|
nan
|
c
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is NOT used as a tool of legislative control over executive:
##Option_A: Closure motion and adjournment motion.
###Option_B: Resolutions to draw attention of the House.
##Option_C: Joint sitting of two Houses.
##Option_D: Closure motion and adjournment motion.
##Answer:c##Explaination:nan##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements and choose the INCORRECT one:
1. Non-alignment is an important principle of ‘panchsheel’ embodied in the preamble of the Indo-China Treaty on Tibet.
2. The National Integration Council consisted of Prime Minister as Chairman.
|
1
|
2
|
1 and 2
|
1
|
Non-alignment is NOT a principle of ‘panchsheel’
|
a
|
GS_Polity_unclassified
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements and choose the INCORRECT one:
1. Non-alignment is an important principle of ‘panchsheel’ embodied in the preamble of the Indo-China Treaty on Tibet.
2. The National Integration Council consisted of Prime Minister as Chairman.
##Option_A: 1 ###Option_B: 2
##Option_C: 1 and 2 ##Option_D: 1 ##Answer:a##Explaination:Non-alignment is NOT a principle of ‘panchsheel’##Topic:GS_Polity_unclassified##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements: An independent elected member of a House becomes disqualified to remain a member if he joins any political party after election. Any question regarding disqualification arising out of defection is to be decided by the presiding officer of the House and cannot be questioned in any court, it is final. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2
|
Only 2
|
Only 1
|
1 and 2
|
The presiding officer, while deciding a question under the Tenth Schedule, functions as a tribunal. Hence such decision is subject to judicial review.
|
c
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: An independent elected member of a House becomes disqualified to remain a member if he joins any political party after election. Any question regarding disqualification arising out of defection is to be decided by the presiding officer of the House and cannot be questioned in any court, it is final. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2###Option_B: Only 2##Option_C: Only 1##Option_D: 1 and 2##Answer:c##Explaination:The presiding officer, while deciding a question under the Tenth Schedule, functions as a tribunal. Hence such decision is subject to judicial review.##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following are NOT correct regarding Central Administrative Tribunal Act? The CAT is not bound by the procedure laid down in the Civil Procedure Code but is guided by the principles of natural justice. An aggrieved public servant can approach Supreme Court directly against an order of the CAT.
|
1 and 2
|
Only 2
|
Only 1
|
1 and 2
|
An aggrieved public servant cannot approach supreme court directly against an order of the CAT without first going to the concerned High court
|
b
|
Tribunals
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following are NOT correct regarding Central Administrative Tribunal Act? The CAT is not bound by the procedure laid down in the Civil Procedure Code but is guided by the principles of natural justice. An aggrieved public servant can approach Supreme Court directly against an order of the CAT.##Option_A: 1 and 2###Option_B: Only 2##Option_C: Only 1##Option_D: 1 and 2##Answer:b##Explaination:An aggrieved public servant cannot approach supreme court directly against an order of the CAT without first going to the concerned High court##Topic:Tribunals##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Assertion (A): Twelfth schedule of Indian Constitution contains 18 functional items placed within the purview of municipalities.
Reason (R): Twelfth schedule provide for making grants-in-aid to the municipalities from the consolidated fund of the state.
|
a
|
b
|
c
|
a
|
Twelfth schedule does not mention anything for making grants-in-aid to the municipalities
|
c
|
GS_Polity_unclassified
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Assertion (A): Twelfth schedule of Indian Constitution contains 18 functional items placed within the purview of municipalities.
Reason (R): Twelfth schedule provide for making grants-in-aid to the municipalities from the consolidated fund of the state.
##Option_A: a ###Option_B: b
##Option_C: c ##Option_D: a ##Answer:c##Explaination:Twelfth schedule does not mention anything for making grants-in-aid to the municipalities##Topic:GS_Polity_unclassified##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Assertion (A): The form of oath of office and secrecy for the Prime Minister is similar to that for any other Union Minister. Reason (R): Prime Minister is described as ‘primus inter pares’ (first among equals).
|
Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A.
|
Both A and R is true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
|
A is true but R is false.
|
Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A.
|
nan
|
a
|
GS_Polity_unclassified
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Assertion (A): The form of oath of office and secrecy for the Prime Minister is similar to that for any other Union Minister. Reason (R): Prime Minister is described as ‘primus inter pares’ (first among equals).##Option_A: Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A.###Option_B: Both A and R is true but R is not the correct explanation of A.##Option_C: A is true but R is false.##Option_D: Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A.##Answer:a##Explaination:nan##Topic:GS_Polity_unclassified##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Assertion (A): Indian Parliament consists of The President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
Reason (R): The President is the head of the IndianState:
|
a
|
b
|
c
|
a
|
nan
|
b
|
GS_Polity_unclassified
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Assertion (A): Indian Parliament consists of The President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
Reason (R): The President is the head of the IndianState:
##Option_A: a ###Option_B: b
##Option_C: c ##Option_D: a ##Answer:b##Explaination:nan##Topic:GS_Polity_unclassified##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Assertion (A): UPSC serves as a Joint State Public Service Commission (JSPSC) on the request of state legislatures concerned. Reason (R): JSPSC is created by an Act of Parliament.
|
Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A.
|
Both A and R is true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
|
A is true but R is false.
|
Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A.
|
UPSC does not serve as Joint State Public Service Commission. JSPSC is separately setup by Parliament.
|
d
|
Miscellaneous Polity
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Assertion (A): UPSC serves as a Joint State Public Service Commission (JSPSC) on the request of state legislatures concerned. Reason (R): JSPSC is created by an Act of Parliament.##Option_A: Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A.###Option_B: Both A and R is true but R is not the correct explanation of A.##Option_C: A is true but R is false.##Option_D: Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A.##Answer:d##Explaination:UPSC does not serve as Joint State Public Service Commission. JSPSC is separately setup by Parliament. ##Topic:Miscellaneous Polity##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Assertion (A): An American citizen studying in India has the right to freedom of speech, expression and profession.
Reason (R): Some Fundamental Rights are available only to citizens and not to foreigners.
|
a
|
b
|
c
|
a
|
Fundamental Rights which are available only to citizens and not to foreigners are under Article 15,16,19,29 and 30
|
d
|
GS_Polity_unclassified
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Assertion (A): An American citizen studying in India has the right to freedom of speech, expression and profession.
Reason (R): Some Fundamental Rights are available only to citizens and not to foreigners.
##Option_A: a ###Option_B: b
##Option_C: c ##Option_D: a ##Answer:d##Explaination:Fundamental Rights which are available only to citizens and not to foreigners are under Article 15,16,19,29 and 30##Topic:GS_Polity_unclassified##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding the Fundamental Rights available in India 1. An American citizen studying in India has the right to freedom of speech, expression, and profession. 2. Some Fundamental Rights are available only to citizens and not to foreigners. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
nan
|
b
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding the Fundamental Rights available in India 1. An American citizen studying in India has the right to freedom of speech, expression, and profession. 2. Some Fundamental Rights are available only to citizens and not to foreigners. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:nan##Topic:Fundamental Rights ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
With reference to Worli revolt, consider the following statements :
1. Godavari Parulekar was an important figure of this revolt.
2. All India Kisan Sabha (AIKS) played an important role in this revolt.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Both statements are correct . The Warli revolt, a revolt in a tribal belt not far away from Bombay, was a struggle against the exploitation of forest contractors, money lenders, rich farmers and landlords on the tactical support of the British bureaucracy. The All India Kisan Sabha took up their cause and launched a struggle in May 1945. The revolt faced oppression by the police and government.
Godavari Parulekar was a freedom fighter, writer, and social activist. She was influenced by Marxist and Communist ideologies and spent her life fighting for the farmers and working class. She was married to Shamrao Parulekar, another freedom fighter and activist with the same ideologies. She was an active member of All India Kisan Sabha (AIKS). She led the Warli Adivasi Revolt from 1945 to 1947 along with her husband Shamrao. She documented the movements of this revolt in her book Jewha Manus Jaga Hoto (The Awakening of Man).
|
c
|
Tribal Movements
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Worli revolt, consider the following statements :
1. Godavari Parulekar was an important figure of this revolt.
2. All India Kisan Sabha (AIKS) played an important role in this revolt.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:
Both statements are correct . The Warli revolt, a revolt in a tribal belt not far away from Bombay, was a struggle against the exploitation of forest contractors, money lenders, rich farmers and landlords on the tactical support of the British bureaucracy. The All India Kisan Sabha took up their cause and launched a struggle in May 1945. The revolt faced oppression by the police and government.
Godavari Parulekar was a freedom fighter, writer, and social activist. She was influenced by Marxist and Communist ideologies and spent her life fighting for the farmers and working class. She was married to Shamrao Parulekar, another freedom fighter and activist with the same ideologies. She was an active member of All India Kisan Sabha (AIKS). She led the Warli Adivasi Revolt from 1945 to 1947 along with her husband Shamrao. She documented the movements of this revolt in her book Jewha Manus Jaga Hoto (The Awakening of Man).
##Topic:Tribal Movements##Subject:General Studies##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements with regards to Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP): The minimum Wages Act, child labor Prohibition Act, the Factories Act etc. are statutory provisions to give effect to Directive Principles. 73 rd Constitutional amendment Act has given a practical shape to Article 40 of the Constitution. Aggrieved person can approach court for the implementation of DPSP. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Only 3rd statement is incorrect. Grievances based on non implementation of Directive Principles cannot be challenged in Court.
|
a
|
Directive Principles
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with regards to Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP): The minimum Wages Act, child labor Prohibition Act, the Factories Act etc. are statutory provisions to give effect to Directive Principles. 73 rd Constitutional amendment Act has given a practical shape to Article 40 of the Constitution. Aggrieved person can approach court for the implementation of DPSP. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Only 3rd statement is incorrect. Grievances based on non implementation of Directive Principles cannot be challenged in Court.##Topic:Directive Principles ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Which of the following constitutional provisions ensure the independent and impartial functioning of the UPSC?
1. The Chairman of UPSC is not eligible for further employment in the Government of India or a state.
2. The conditions of service of the Chairman or a member cannot be varied to his disadvantage after his appointment.
|
1 and 2
|
only 2
|
only 1
|
1 and 2
|
nan
|
a
|
GS_Polity_unclassified
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following constitutional provisions ensure the independent and impartial functioning of the UPSC?
1. The Chairman of UPSC is not eligible for further employment in the Government of India or a state.
2. The conditions of service of the Chairman or a member cannot be varied to his disadvantage after his appointment.
##Option_A: 1 and 2 ###Option_B: only 2
##Option_C: only 1 ##Option_D: 1 and 2 ##Answer:a##Explaination:nan##Topic:GS_Polity_unclassified##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements:
1. 73 rd and 74 th Constitutional amendment bill provides for three tier system of Panchayati Raj and three types of municipalities in every state respectively.
2. CVC is the main agency for preventing corruption in the Central government. It was established by an executive resolution of the central government.
Which of the above given statement is/are correct?
|
only 1
|
only 2
|
1 and 2
|
only 1
|
74 th Constitutional amendment bill provides for three types of municipalities in every state namely-
A Nagar Panchayat.
A Municipal Council.
A Municipal Corporation
|
c
|
GS_Polity_unclassified
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements:
1. 73 rd and 74 th Constitutional amendment bill provides for three tier system of Panchayati Raj and three types of municipalities in every state respectively.
2. CVC is the main agency for preventing corruption in the Central government. It was established by an executive resolution of the central government.
Which of the above given statement is/are correct?
##Option_A:only 1 ###Option_B: only 2
##Option_C: 1 and 2 ##Option_D:only 1 ##Answer:c##Explaination:74 th Constitutional amendment bill provides for three types of municipalities in every state namely-
A Nagar Panchayat.
A Municipal Council.
A Municipal Corporation##Topic:GS_Polity_unclassified##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following is/are correct?
1. Zero hour’ is an important device to raise matters of public importance mentioned on Rules of Procedure of Parliament.
2. Question hour is the first hour of every parliamentary sitting.
3. Starred question requires written answer followed by supplementary question.
|
1
|
1 and 2
|
1, 2 and 3
|
1
|
Zero hour is not mentioned in Rules of Procedure of Parliament.
Starred questions require oral answer.
|
d
|
GS_Polity_unclassified
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is/are correct?
1. Zero hour’ is an important device to raise matters of public importance mentioned on Rules of Procedure of Parliament.
2. Question hour is the first hour of every parliamentary sitting.
3. Starred question requires written answer followed by supplementary question.
##Option_A: 1 ###Option_B: 1 and 2
##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3 ##Option_D: 1 ##Answer:d##Explaination:Zero hour is not mentioned in Rules of Procedure of Parliament.
Starred questions require oral answer.##Topic:GS_Polity_unclassified##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements and answer the wrong one:
|
Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners have a term of 6 years or till they are 65 years of age.
|
Chief Information Commissioner and Information Commissioners are appointed for a term of 5 years or till they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
|
Central Vigilance Commissioner can hold office for a term of 4 years or till the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
|
Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners have a term of 6 years or till they are 65 years of age.
|
High Court judges retire at the age of 62 years
|
d
|
High Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements and answer the wrong one:
##Option_A: Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners have a term of 6 years or till they are 65 years of age.
###Option_B: Chief Information Commissioner and Information Commissioners are appointed for a term of 5 years or till they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
##Option_C: Central Vigilance Commissioner can hold office for a term of 4 years or till the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
##Option_D: Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners have a term of 6 years or till they are 65 years of age.
##Answer:d##Explaination:High Court judges retire at the age of 62 years##Topic:High Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
According to the Delimitation Act 2002, the composition of the Delimitation Commission should be the following.
Answer the INCORRECT one:
|
Serving or retired Judge of Supreme Court is the Chairman
|
Second member is a serving or retired High Court Judge
|
Chief Election Commissioner or Election Commissioner of India as an ex officio member of the commission.
|
Serving or retired Judge of Supreme Court is the Chairman
|
nan
|
b
|
Election Commission, Elections and political parties: problems and processes
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:According to the Delimitation Act 2002, the composition of the Delimitation Commission should be the following.
Answer the INCORRECT one:
##Option_A: Serving or retired Judge of Supreme Court is the Chairman
###Option_B: Second member is a serving or retired High Court Judge
##Option_C: Chief Election Commissioner or Election Commissioner of India as an ex officio member of the commission.
##Option_D: Serving or retired Judge of Supreme Court is the Chairman
##Answer:b##Explaination:nan##Topic:Election Commission, Elections and political parties: problems and processes##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Constitution (42 nd Amendment) Act 1976 made the following changes on the Fundamental Rights:
|
Made Fundamental Rights secondary to Directive Principles of the State Policy (Part IV)
|
Deleted right to property from the Chapter on Fundamental Rights
|
Both
|
Made Fundamental Rights secondary to Directive Principles of the State Policy (Part IV)
|
44th Amendment deleted right to property from the Chapter on Fundamental Rights.
|
a
|
Fundamental Rights
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Constitution (42 nd Amendment) Act 1976 made the following changes on the Fundamental Rights:##Option_A: Made Fundamental Rights secondary to Directive Principles of the State Policy (Part IV)###Option_B: Deleted right to property from the Chapter on Fundamental Rights##Option_C: Both##Option_D: Made Fundamental Rights secondary to Directive Principles of the State Policy (Part IV)##Answer:a##Explaination:44th Amendment deleted right to property from the Chapter on Fundamental Rights.##Topic:Fundamental Rights##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
When the offices of both the Chairman and the Deputy Chairman are vacant, the duties of the office of the Chairman are performed by
|
One of the member of the panel of Vice Chairpersons
|
Chairman pro tem appointed by the President
|
Senior most member of the House
|
One of the member of the panel of Vice Chairpersons
|
When office is vacant then elections are held as soon as possible. Panel of Vice Chairperson is only in the case of absence of Chairman and Vice Chairman
|
b
|
GS_Polity_unclassified
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
When the offices of both the Chairman and the Deputy Chairman are vacant, the duties of the office of the Chairman are performed by
##Option_A: One of the member of the panel of Vice Chairpersons
###Option_B: Chairman pro tem appointed by the President
##Option_C: Senior most member of the House
##Option_D: One of the member of the panel of Vice Chairpersons
##Answer:b##Explaination:
When office is vacant then elections are held as soon as possible. Panel of Vice Chairperson is only in the case of absence of Chairman and Vice Chairman
##Topic:GS_Polity_unclassified##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Fundamental Rights are placed in the following Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
|
First Schedule
|
Second Schedule
|
Third Schedule
|
First Schedule
|
Fundamental Rights are placed in the Part III of the Indian Constitution and not in any Schedule.
|
d
|
GS_Polity_unclassified
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Fundamental Rights are placed in the following Schedule of the Indian Constitution.##Option_A:First Schedule###Option_B:Second Schedule##Option_C:Third Schedule##Option_D:First Schedule##Answer:d##Explaination:Fundamental Rights are placed in the Part III of the Indian Constitution and not in any Schedule.##Topic:GS_Polity_unclassified##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following Bills does NOT lapse on dissolution of the Lok Sabha ? Bills originating in and passed by Rajya Sabha and returned to that House by the Lok Sabha with amendments and still pending there on the date of dissolution. Bills introduced in the Rajya Sabha and pending. Bills passed by the Parliament and returned by the President for reconsideration. Bill passed by Rajya Sabha and sent to Lok Sabha and is pending in the Lok Sabha. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
nan
|
b
|
Types of bills and Legislative procedure
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following Bills does NOT lapse on dissolution of the Lok Sabha ? Bills originating in and passed by Rajya Sabha and returned to that House by the Lok Sabha with amendments and still pending there on the date of dissolution. Bills introduced in the Rajya Sabha and pending. Bills passed by the Parliament and returned by the President for reconsideration. Bill passed by Rajya Sabha and sent to Lok Sabha and is pending in the Lok Sabha. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only ##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:nan##Topic:Types of bills and Legislative procedure##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements regarding Electricity sector in India: Central Government and its holdings comprises the largest share in total installed capacity. The Plant Load Factor for power generation plants has decreased in recent years. There has been an excess of power units available at power exchanges in the current year. The availability vis-a-vis demand of energy has improved consistently for last 5 years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
The total installed capacity in the country is about 272 GW, of which 38.5% is in Private sector, 34.9% in State sector and 26.7% in Central Government sector, hence it has the lowest share amongst all three. Plant load factor is the capacity at which a plant operates - How much of its installed capacity is the plant producing. It has declined consistently during past 5 years. This is partly because of non-availability of fuel (mostly, coal) and lack of purchase by the state electricity boards (SEBs). Because of poor finances of SEBs, they are not in a position to purchase power from power exchanges, even though it is available and going waste and instead, prefer load shedding. The over all power generation has improved in previous years faster than demand, and therefore, overall deficit has decreased.
|
c
|
Economic Reforms since 1991
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Electricity sector in India: Central Government and its holdings comprises the largest share in total installed capacity. The Plant Load Factor for power generation plants has decreased in recent years. There has been an excess of power units available at power exchanges in the current year. The availability vis-a-vis demand of energy has improved consistently for last 5 years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 1, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:c##Explaination:The total installed capacity in the country is about 272 GW, of which 38.5% is in Private sector, 34.9% in State sector and 26.7% in Central Government sector, hence it has the lowest share amongst all three. Plant load factor is the capacity at which a plant operates - How much of its installed capacity is the plant producing. It has declined consistently during past 5 years. This is partly because of non-availability of fuel (mostly, coal) and lack of purchase by the state electricity boards (SEBs). Because of poor finances of SEBs, they are not in a position to purchase power from power exchanges, even though it is available and going waste and instead, prefer load shedding. The over all power generation has improved in previous years faster than demand, and therefore, overall deficit has decreased.##Topic:Economic Reforms since 1991##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements about the President of India and the Governor of a State: 1. President is elected while Governor is appointed 2. Conditions of service of neither can be altered to his disadvantage while he is in service 3. Governor has discretionary powers conferred by the Constitution while the President does not have 4. President can return the advice tendered to him by the Union Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister once while the Governor can not do so an advice tendered by the State Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
nan
|
d
|
President
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about the President of India and the Governor of a State: 1. President is elected while Governor is appointed 2. Conditions of service of neither can be altered to his disadvantage while he is in service 3. Governor has discretionary powers conferred by the Constitution while the President does not have 4. President can return the advice tendered to him by the Union Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister once while the Governor can not do so an advice tendered by the State Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only ###Option_B: 1, 2 and 4 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only ##Option_D: 1 and 2 only ##Answer:d##Explaination:nan##Topic:President##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements:
1. Religious instructions are not allowed in Government-funded educational institutions in the country.
2. Religious and linguistic minorities have special rights so that they can educationally advance.
3. Art. 29 applies only to the minorities-both linguistic and religious
4. Concept of minority is to be defined with reference to each state for access to seats in minority educational institutions
|
1, 2 and 3 are correct
|
1 and 4 are correct
|
2 and 4 are right
|
1, 2 and 3 are correct
|
nan
|
c
|
GS_Polity_unclassified
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements:
1. Religious instructions are not allowed in Government-funded educational institutions in the country.
2. Religious and linguistic minorities have special rights so that they can educationally advance.
3. Art. 29 applies only to the minorities-both linguistic and religious
4. Concept of minority is to be defined with reference to each state for access to seats in minority educational institutions
##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 are correct ###Option_B: 1 and 4 are correct
##Option_C: 2 and 4 are right ##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 are correct ##Answer:c##Explaination:nan##Topic:GS_Polity_unclassified##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements: Federal Constitutions provide for rigid procedures of Constitution amendment. Judicial review is a feature of American Constitutional system. In India, the Supreme Court cannot inquire into the legality of the procedure established by law while ruling with reference to Fundamental Rights. 44 th Constitution Amendment Act 1978 gave supremacy to all Directive principles of State Policy over all Fundamental Rights.
|
2 and 3 are correct
|
1, 2 and 3 are correct
|
1 and 2 are correct
|
2 and 3 are correct
|
nan
|
c
|
GS_Polity_unclassified
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: Federal Constitutions provide for rigid procedures of Constitution amendment. Judicial review is a feature of American Constitutional system. In India, the Supreme Court cannot inquire into the legality of the procedure established by law while ruling with reference to Fundamental Rights. 44 th Constitution Amendment Act 1978 gave supremacy to all Directive principles of State Policy over all Fundamental Rights.##Option_A: 2 and 3 are correct###Option_B: 1, 2 and 3 are correct##Option_C: 1 and 2 are correct##Option_D: 2 and 3 are correct##Answer:c##Explaination:nan##Topic:GS_Polity_unclassified##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following pairs: Type of fault Description 1. Normal Fault : When a section of land slides down along the fault line 2. Reverse Fault : When a section of land thrusts up along the fault line 3. Transform Fault : When a section of land moves horizontally along the fault line Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct. A normal fault is when a section of land slides down along the fault line. Statement 2 is correct. A reverse fault is when a section of land thrusts up along the fault line. Statement 3 is correct. A tear fault is when a section of land displaces horizontally.
|
d
|
No_topic
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following pairs: Type of fault Description 1. Normal Fault : When a section of land slides down along the fault line 2. Reverse Fault : When a section of land thrusts up along the fault line 3. Transform Fault : When a section of land moves horizontally along the fault line Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct. A normal fault is when a section of land slides down along the fault line. Statement 2 is correct. A reverse fault is when a section of land thrusts up along the fault line. Statement 3 is correct. A tear fault is when a section of land displaces horizontally.##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements: State Legislatures have no role in the election of the Vice President. President is removed by the Parliament. Vice President acts as the President when the term of the President expires. Three-member Election Commission was introduced in 1993. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 are correct
|
1, 2 and 3 are correct
|
1, 2 and 4 are correct
|
1 and 2 are correct
|
President hold the office till the next president assumes the charge. The 3 member Election Commission was first introduced in 1989 and in 1990 it was reverted to earlier position of single CEC. Then in 1993 again 2 more election commissioners were added to EC to make it a 3 member body.
|
a
|
Parliamentary & Presidential
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: State Legislatures have no role in the election of the Vice President. President is removed by the Parliament. Vice President acts as the President when the term of the President expires. Three-member Election Commission was introduced in 1993. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 are correct###Option_B: 1, 2 and 3 are correct##Option_C: 1, 2 and 4 are correct##Option_D: 1 and 2 are correct##Answer:a##Explaination:President hold the office till the next president assumes the charge. The 3 member Election Commission was first introduced in 1989 and in 1990 it was reverted to earlier position of single CEC. Then in 1993 again 2 more election commissioners were added to EC to make it a 3 member body. ##Topic:Parliamentary & Presidential##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Special leave petition power of the Supreme Court does not extend to the following judgment, decree etc.
|
Interim order
|
Any court or tribunal constituted by or under any law relating to the Armed Forces
|
Criminal cases
|
Interim order
|
nan
|
b
|
GS_Polity_unclassified
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Special leave petition power of the Supreme Court does not extend to the following judgment, decree etc.
##Option_A: Interim order
###Option_B: Any court or tribunal constituted by or under any law relating to the Armed Forces
##Option_C: Criminal cases
##Option_D: Interim order
##Answer:b##Explaination:nan##Topic:GS_Polity_unclassified##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Supreme Court can issue writs for enforcement of Fundamental Rights under Art. 32. Can the Supreme Court issue same writs for other purposes as well?
|
Yes it can, under certain circumstances if Parliament so empowers it
|
No it can not.
|
Art. 32 does not limit the writ power of the Supreme Court to enforcement of Fundamental Rights only
|
Yes it can, under certain circumstances if Parliament so empowers it
|
nan
|
a
|
GS_Polity_unclassified
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Supreme Court can issue writs for enforcement of Fundamental Rights under Art. 32. Can the Supreme Court issue same writs for other purposes as well?
##Option_A: Yes it can, under certain circumstances if Parliament so empowers it
###Option_B: No it can not.
##Option_C: Art. 32 does not limit the writ power of the Supreme Court to enforcement of Fundamental Rights only
##Option_D: Yes it can, under certain circumstances if Parliament so empowers it
##Answer:a##Explaination:nan##Topic:GS_Polity_unclassified##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements about the number of judges in the Supreme Court:
1. Supreme Court (number of Judges) Act, 1956 has been amended to increase the number of Judges from 8 in 1950 to present.
2. Presently, since 2008, the strength is 30 judges and the Chief Justice of India.
3. The Supreme Court (number of Judges) Act was amended in 2008 to make a provision for periodical review of the strength every five years.
4. A parliamentary committee is set up to recommend such changes in number of judges.
Which of the above given statement is/are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
The Union Cabinet and Parliament have almost no role to play in the appointment of judges to the Supreme Court or to any of India's twenty-four High Courts
|
c
|
GS_Polity_unclassified
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about the number of judges in the Supreme Court:
1. Supreme Court (number of Judges) Act, 1956 has been amended to increase the number of Judges from 8 in 1950 to present.
2. Presently, since 2008, the strength is 30 judges and the Chief Justice of India.
3. The Supreme Court (number of Judges) Act was amended in 2008 to make a provision for periodical review of the strength every five years.
4. A parliamentary committee is set up to recommend such changes in number of judges.
Which of the above given statement is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 and 3 only ###Option_B: 2, 3 and 4 only
##Option_C: 1 and 2 only ##Option_D: 1 and 3 only ##Answer:c##Explaination:The Union Cabinet and Parliament have almost no role to play in the appointment of judges to the Supreme Court or to any of India's twenty-four High Courts##Topic:GS_Polity_unclassified##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Art. 312 provides for Parliament to create new All India Services in pursuit of
|
National interest
|
Federal coordination
|
Administrative efficiency
|
National interest
|
nan
|
a
|
GS_Polity_unclassified
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Art. 312 provides for Parliament to create new All India Services in pursuit of##Option_A: National interest ###Option_B: Federal coordination##Option_C: Administrative efficiency ##Option_D: National interest ##Answer:a##Explaination:nan##Topic:GS_Polity_unclassified##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Comptroller and Auditor General of India is a Constitutional office which is the apex body for auditing government’s accounts. Following Article is irrelevant to it.
1. Art. 148
2. Art. 151
3. Art. 152
4. Art. 275
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
CAG-Art. 148 to 151
|
d
|
GS_Polity_unclassified
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Comptroller and Auditor General of India is a Constitutional office which is the apex body for auditing government’s accounts. Following Article is irrelevant to it.
1. Art. 148
2. Art. 151
3. Art. 152
4. Art. 275
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only ###Option_B: 2 and 4 only
##Option_C: 3 and 4 only ##Option_D: 1 and 2 only ##Answer:d##Explaination:CAG-Art. 148 to 151##Topic:GS_Polity_unclassified##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
State legislature makes a law on planning; Parliament also makes a law on the same subject. In case there is incompatibility between the two. State law is subject to the following doctrine in this context: 1. doctrine of harmonious construction 2. doctrine of eclipse 3. doctrine of parliamentary sovereignty 4. doctrine of federal supremacy
|
1 and 4 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
nan
|
b
|
GS_Polity_unclassified
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:State legislature makes a law on planning; Parliament also makes a law on the same subject. In case there is incompatibility between the two. State law is subject to the following doctrine in this context: 1. doctrine of harmonious construction 2. doctrine of eclipse 3. doctrine of parliamentary sovereignty 4. doctrine of federal supremacy##Option_A: 1 and 4 only ###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only ##Option_D: 1 and 4 only ##Answer:b##Explaination:nan##Topic:GS_Polity_unclassified##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
In the single transferable vote system which is adopted for elections to Rajya Sabha, the following circumstances may lead to transfer of vote from one contestant to another according to preferences expressed by each elector. Answer the right one:
|
When a candidate obtains more than the quota.
|
When a candidate obtains less than the quota
|
Both
|
When a candidate obtains more than the quota.
|
nan
|
c
|
GS_Polity_unclassified
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:In the single transferable vote system which is adopted for elections to Rajya Sabha, the following circumstances may lead to transfer of vote from one contestant to another according to preferences expressed by each elector. Answer the right one:
##Option_A: When a candidate obtains more than the quota.
###Option_B: When a candidate obtains less than the quota
##Option_C: Both
##Option_D: When a candidate obtains more than the quota.
##Answer:c##Explaination:nan##Topic:GS_Polity_unclassified##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
With reference to emergency provisions given in Indian Constitution, Choose the INCORRECT statement:
|
During the operation of a national emergency, the state governments are brought under the complete control of the centre.
|
During a national emergency, the Parliament becomes empowered to make laws on any subject mentioned in the state list.
|
During National Emergency, enforcement of Fundamental Rights is suspended under Article 359.
|
During the operation of a national emergency, the state governments are brought under the complete control of the centre.
|
Proclamation of Presidents Rule does require Parliamentary approval
|
d
|
GS_Polity_unclassified
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to emergency provisions given in Indian Constitution, Choose the INCORRECT statement:##Option_A: During the operation of a national emergency, the state governments are brought under the complete control of the centre.###Option_B: During a national emergency, the Parliament becomes empowered to make laws on any subject mentioned in the state list.##Option_C: During National Emergency, enforcement of Fundamental Rights is suspended under Article 359.##Option_D: During the operation of a national emergency, the state governments are brought under the complete control of the centre.##Answer:d##Explaination:Proclamation of Presidents Rule does require Parliamentary approval##Topic:GS_Polity_unclassified##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following statements regarding National Green Tribunal (NGT) is/are correct? It is guided by the principles of natural justice but not bounded by the code of civil procedure. It was enacted under the article 21 of the constitution. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
The National Green Tribunal has been established on 18.10.2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010 for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources including enforcement of any legal right relating to environment and giving relief and compensation for damages to persons and property and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. It is a specialized body equipped with the necessary expertise to handle environmental disputes involving multi-disciplinary issues. The Tribunal shall not be bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but shall be guided by principles of natural justice.
|
c
|
National Unclassified
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements regarding National Green Tribunal (NGT) is/are correct? It is guided by the principles of natural justice but not bounded by the code of civil procedure. It was enacted under the article 21 of the constitution. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:The National Green Tribunal has been established on 18.10.2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010 for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources including enforcement of any legal right relating to environment and giving relief and compensation for damages to persons and property and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. It is a specialized body equipped with the necessary expertise to handle environmental disputes involving multi-disciplinary issues. The Tribunal shall not be bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but shall be guided by principles of natural justice. ##Topic:National Unclassified##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
FIFA world cup 2014 is using goal-line technology to determine whether a ball crossed over the line. What is this technology?
|
When ball crosses the goal-line, it sends a signal to the referee.
|
Video cameras capture the movement of the ball and sends signal to computer for further analysis.
|
Goal-line is coated with a special chemical which starts glowing when ball touches it.
|
When ball crosses the goal-line, it sends a signal to the referee.
|
Goal-line technology is designed to quickly and definitively determine whether a ball crossed over the line. Video cameras mounted along the roof or catwalk of the stadiums capture the ball as it moves along the field and in the air. Those cameras are connected to computers that perform image analysis to precisely determine the position of the ball. When a goal is detected, referees receive an instantaneous vibration on a wristwatch, flashing with the word "GOAL."
|
b
|
National Unclassified
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:FIFA world cup 2014 is using goal-line technology to determine whether a ball crossed over the line. What is this technology?
##Option_A: When ball crosses the goal-line, it sends a signal to the referee.
###Option_B: Video cameras capture the movement of the ball and sends signal to computer for further analysis.
##Option_C: Goal-line is coated with a special chemical which starts glowing when ball touches it.
##Option_D: When ball crosses the goal-line, it sends a signal to the referee.
##Answer:b##Explaination:Goal-line technology is designed to quickly and definitively determine whether a ball crossed over the line. Video cameras mounted along the roof or catwalk of the stadiums capture the ball as it moves along the field and in the air. Those cameras are connected to computers that perform image analysis to precisely determine the position of the ball. When a goal is detected, referees receive an instantaneous vibration on a wristwatch, flashing with the word "GOAL."##Topic:National Unclassified##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
India established its first Rocket Launching Station in Thumba, a small town on the coast of Kerala. What could be the possible reason?
|
It is easy to launch satellites from the coastal regions.
|
It is near to geographic equator.
|
It is near to magnetic equator
|
It is easy to launch satellites from the coastal regions.
|
The angle by which the needle dips depends upon the latitude of the place. Similarly, in the southern hemisphere, the south-seeking end dips down. In between is a region where the needle does not dip at all. It remains strictly horizontal signifying that the dip is zero. The line joining all such points on earth where the dip is zero is called the magnetic equator.
|
c
|
National Unclassified
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:India established its first Rocket Launching Station in Thumba, a small town on the coast of Kerala. What could be the possible reason?
##Option_A: It is easy to launch satellites from the coastal regions.
###Option_B: It is near to geographic equator.
##Option_C: It is near to magnetic equator
##Option_D: It is easy to launch satellites from the coastal regions.
##Answer:c##Explaination:The angle by which the needle dips depends upon the latitude of the place. Similarly, in the southern hemisphere, the south-seeking end dips down. In between is a region where the needle does not dip at all. It remains strictly horizontal signifying that the dip is zero. The line joining all such points on earth where the dip is zero is called the magnetic equator.##Topic:National Unclassified##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
In 2010, Supreme Court gave judgment in a case (B.P. Singhal vs Union of India) regarding removal of Governors. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. President has to consult the Chief Minister of the concerned state.
2. Governor can move Supreme Court if he/she feels that removal is arbitrary.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
|
Only 1
|
Only 2
|
Both 1 and 2
|
Only 1
|
(i) Under Article 156(1), the Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President. Therefore, the President can remove the Governor from office at any time without assigning any reason and without giving any opportunity to show cause.
(ii) Though no reason need be assigned for discontinuance of the pleasure resulting in removal, the power under Article 156(1) cannot be exercised in an arbitrary, capricious or unreasonable manner. The power will have to be exercised in rare and exceptional circumstances for valid and compelling reasons. The compelling reasons are not restricted to those enumerated by the petitioner (that is physical/mental disability, corruption and behaviour unbecoming of a Governor) but are of wider amplitude. What would be compelling reasons would depend upon the facts and circumstances of each case.
(iii) A Governor cannot be removed on the ground that he is out of sync with the policies and ideologies of the Union Government or the party in power at the Centre. Nor can he be removed on the ground that the Union Government has lost confidence in him. It follows therefore that change in government at Centre is not a ground for removal of Governors holding office to make way for others favoured by the new government.
(iv) As there is no need to assign reasons, any removal as a consequence of withdrawal of the pleasure will be assumed to be valid and will be open to only a limited judicial review. If the aggrieved person is able to demonstrate prima facie that his removal was either arbitrary, malafide, capricious or whimsical, the court will call upon the Union Government to disclose to the court, the material upon which the President had taken the decision to withdraw the pleasure. If the Union Government does not disclose any reason, or if the reasons disclosed are found to be irrelevant, arbitrary, whimsical, or malafide, the court will interfere. However, the court will not interfere merely on the ground that a different view was possible or that the material or reasons were insufficient.
|
b
|
National Unclassified
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:In 2010, Supreme Court gave judgment in a case (B.P. Singhal vs Union of India) regarding removal of Governors. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. President has to consult the Chief Minister of the concerned state.
2. Governor can move Supreme Court if he/she feels that removal is arbitrary.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
##Option_A: Only 1 ###Option_B: Only 2
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2 ##Option_D: Only 1 ##Answer:b##Explaination:(i) Under Article 156(1), the Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President. Therefore, the President can remove the Governor from office at any time without assigning any reason and without giving any opportunity to show cause.
(ii) Though no reason need be assigned for discontinuance of the pleasure resulting in removal, the power under Article 156(1) cannot be exercised in an arbitrary, capricious or unreasonable manner. The power will have to be exercised in rare and exceptional circumstances for valid and compelling reasons. The compelling reasons are not restricted to those enumerated by the petitioner (that is physical/mental disability, corruption and behaviour unbecoming of a Governor) but are of wider amplitude. What would be compelling reasons would depend upon the facts and circumstances of each case.
(iii) A Governor cannot be removed on the ground that he is out of sync with the policies and ideologies of the Union Government or the party in power at the Centre. Nor can he be removed on the ground that the Union Government has lost confidence in him. It follows therefore that change in government at Centre is not a ground for removal of Governors holding office to make way for others favoured by the new government.
(iv) As there is no need to assign reasons, any removal as a consequence of withdrawal of the pleasure will be assumed to be valid and will be open to only a limited judicial review. If the aggrieved person is able to demonstrate prima facie that his removal was either arbitrary, malafide, capricious or whimsical, the court will call upon the Union Government to disclose to the court, the material upon which the President had taken the decision to withdraw the pleasure. If the Union Government does not disclose any reason, or if the reasons disclosed are found to be irrelevant, arbitrary, whimsical, or malafide, the court will interfere. However, the court will not interfere merely on the ground that a different view was possible or that the material or reasons were insufficient.##Topic:National Unclassified##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
Consider the following industries of India: 1. Steel 2. Construction 3. Cement 4. Textile 5. Natural Gas 6. Fertilizer 7. Telecom Which of the above is NOT among the eight core industries?
|
Only 2, 3, 6 and 7
|
Only 1, 4, 5 and 6
|
Only 2, 4 and 7
|
Only 2, 3, 6 and 7
|
Following are the eight core industries in India-
Coal, Crude Oil, Natural Gas, Petroleum Refinery Products, Fertilizers, Steel, Cement and electricity
|
c
|
National Unclassified
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following industries of India: 1. Steel 2. Construction 3. Cement 4. Textile 5. Natural Gas 6. Fertilizer 7. Telecom Which of the above is NOT among the eight core industries?##Option_A: Only 2, 3, 6 and 7 ###Option_B: Only 1, 4, 5 and 6##Option_C: Only 2, 4 and 7 ##Option_D: Only 2, 3, 6 and 7 ##Answer:c##Explaination:Following are the eight core industries in India-
Coal, Crude Oil, Natural Gas, Petroleum Refinery Products, Fertilizers, Steel, Cement and electricity##Topic:National Unclassified##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
Which of the following statements regarding Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana (RSBY) is/are correct?
1. Beneficiaries of RSBY are Below poverty Line (BPL) people only.
2. It is a smart card cashless health insurance scheme.
3. It is a centrally sponsored scheme with 100 per cent finance born by the centre.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
|
Only 2
|
Only 1 and 3
|
Only 1
|
Only 2
|
Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana (RSBY) was launched by Government of India in 2008 to provide health insurance cover to Below Poverty Line population and informal sector workers of India. The objective of the scheme is to protect these families from shocks related to catastrophic expenditures on health by improving access to health and reducing out of pocket expenditure. This is a Smart Card based cashless and paperless social health insurance scheme. 75 % of the cost (premium) of the scheme is borne by Central Government (90% in case of Jammu & Kashmir and North-Eastern States) and the rest is borne out by respective State government.
|
a
|
National Unclassified
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements regarding Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana (RSBY) is/are correct?
1. Beneficiaries of RSBY are Below poverty Line (BPL) people only.
2. It is a smart card cashless health insurance scheme.
3. It is a centrally sponsored scheme with 100 per cent finance born by the centre.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
##Option_A: Only 2 ###Option_B: Only 1 and 3
##Option_C: Only 1 ##Option_D: Only 2 ##Answer:a##Explaination:Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana (RSBY) was launched by Government of India in 2008 to provide health insurance cover to Below Poverty Line population and informal sector workers of India. The objective of the scheme is to protect these families from shocks related to catastrophic expenditures on health by improving access to health and reducing out of pocket expenditure. This is a Smart Card based cashless and paperless social health insurance scheme. 75 % of the cost (premium) of the scheme is borne by Central Government (90% in case of Jammu & Kashmir and North-Eastern States) and the rest is borne out by respective State government.##Topic:National Unclassified##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
Recently, Elephant poaching and ivory smuggling was in news. Consider the following statements regarding CITES (convention on International Trade in Endangered Species) : It accords varying degrees of protection to animals and plants. Any kind of trade in Species under highest degree of protection list, Appendix I, is prohibited. Each member country has its own management authority that authorizes the trade. Which of the above is/are correct?
|
Only 1
|
Only 2 and 3
|
Only 1 and 3
|
Only 1
|
CITES (the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora) is an international agreement between governments. Its aim is to ensure that international trade in specimens of wild animals and plants does not threaten their survival. CITES works by subjecting international trade in specimens of selected species to certain controls. Each Party to the Convention must designate one or more Management Authorities in charge of administering that licensing system. Appendix I includes species threatened with extinction. Trade in specimens of these species is permitted only in exceptional circumstances.
|
c
|
National Unclassified
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Recently, Elephant poaching and ivory smuggling was in news. Consider the following statements regarding CITES (convention on International Trade in Endangered Species) : It accords varying degrees of protection to animals and plants. Any kind of trade in Species under highest degree of protection list, Appendix I, is prohibited. Each member country has its own management authority that authorizes the trade. Which of the above is/are correct?##Option_A: Only 1###Option_B: Only 2 and 3##Option_C: Only 1 and 3##Option_D: Only 1##Answer:c##Explaination:CITES (the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora) is an international agreement between governments. Its aim is to ensure that international trade in specimens of wild animals and plants does not threaten their survival. CITES works by subjecting international trade in specimens of selected species to certain controls. Each Party to the Convention must designate one or more Management Authorities in charge of administering that licensing system. Appendix I includes species threatened with extinction. Trade in specimens of these species is permitted only in exceptional circumstances.##Topic:National Unclassified##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
What is core inflation?
|
A measure of inflation that excludes certain items that face volatile price movements.
|
A measure of inflation of eight core sectors of the economy.
|
It is same as CPI (Consumer Price Index).
|
A measure of inflation that excludes certain items that face volatile price movements.
|
A measure of inflation that excludes certain items that face volatile price movements. Core inflation eliminates products that can have temporary price shocks because these shocks can diverge from the overall trend of inflation and give a false measure of inflation. Core inflation is most often calculated by taking the Consumer Price Index (CPI) and excluding certain items from the index, usually energy and food products. Other methods of calculation include the outliers method, which removes the products that have had the largest price changes. Core inflation is thought to be an indicator of underlying long-term inflation.
|
a
|
National Unclassified
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:What is core inflation?
##Option_A: A measure of inflation that excludes certain items that face volatile price movements.
###Option_B: A measure of inflation of eight core sectors of the economy.
##Option_C: It is same as CPI (Consumer Price Index).
##Option_D: A measure of inflation that excludes certain items that face volatile price movements.
##Answer:a##Explaination:A measure of inflation that excludes certain items that face volatile price movements. Core inflation eliminates products that can have temporary price shocks because these shocks can diverge from the overall trend of inflation and give a false measure of inflation. Core inflation is most often calculated by taking the Consumer Price Index (CPI) and excluding certain items from the index, usually energy and food products. Other methods of calculation include the outliers method, which removes the products that have had the largest price changes. Core inflation is thought to be an indicator of underlying long-term inflation. ##Topic:National Unclassified##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
Which of the following statements regarding Women reservation bill is/are correct?
1. Bill seeks to reserve one-third (1/3) of the total seats for women in the Lok Sabha, Rajya sabha, state legislative assemblies, and state legislative council.
2. Bill has already been passed in one of the houses of the parliament.
3. Reservation for women shall cease to exist 15 years after the commencement of the amendment act.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
|
Only 1
|
Only 2 and 3
|
Only 1 and 3
|
Only 1
|
The Constitution (One Hundred and Eighth Amendment) Bill, 2008 seeks to reserve one-third of all seats for women in the Lok Sabha and the state legislative assemblies. Bill was passed in Rajya sabha during 15 th Lok sabha period. Reservation of seats for women shall cease to exist 15 years after the commencement of this Amendment Act.
|
b
|
National Unclassified
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements regarding Women reservation bill is/are correct?
1. Bill seeks to reserve one-third (1/3) of the total seats for women in the Lok Sabha, Rajya sabha, state legislative assemblies, and state legislative council.
2. Bill has already been passed in one of the houses of the parliament.
3. Reservation for women shall cease to exist 15 years after the commencement of the amendment act.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
##Option_A: Only 1 ###Option_B: Only 2 and 3
##Option_C: Only 1 and 3 ##Option_D: Only 1 ##Answer:b##Explaination:The Constitution (One Hundred and Eighth Amendment) Bill, 2008 seeks to reserve one-third of all seats for women in the Lok Sabha and the state legislative assemblies. Bill was passed in Rajya sabha during 15 th Lok sabha period. Reservation of seats for women shall cease to exist 15 years after the commencement of this Amendment Act.##Topic:National Unclassified##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
Which of the following statements regarding newly formed state Telangana is/are correct?
1. It shares border with Chhattisgarh state.
2. It was a part of a princely state before 1947.
3. Area of residual state Andhra Pradesh is more than that of Telangana
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
|
Only 1
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Only 2 and 3
|
Only 1 and 3
|
Only 1
|
Telangana is a land-locked state in South India. Its area of 114,840 km 2 makes it the twelfth-largest state in the country. It was ruled by the Nizams during the British Raj until 1947, and later until 1948, when it joined the Union of India. Area of Andhra Pradesh is 160,205 km 2
|
d
|
National Unclassified
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements regarding newly formed state Telangana is/are correct?
1. It shares border with Chhattisgarh state.
2. It was a part of a princely state before 1947.
3. Area of residual state Andhra Pradesh is more than that of Telangana
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
##Option_A: Only 1 ###Option_B: Only 2 and 3
##Option_C: Only 1 and 3 ##Option_D: Only 1 ##Answer:d##Explaination:Telangana is a land-locked state in South India. Its area of 114,840 km 2 makes it the twelfth-largest state in the country. It was ruled by the Nizams during the British Raj until 1947, and later until 1948, when it joined the Union of India. Area of Andhra Pradesh is 160,205 km 2##Topic:National Unclassified##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched? List I List II 1 Zygote : Fertilized egg 2.Tubectomy : Permanent Sterilization in females 3. Oviduct : where fertilization take place 4. Sperms : are produced at a temperature that is same as the body temperature Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
|
Only 1 and 3
|
Only 1 and 4
|
Only 2, 3 and 4
|
Only 1 and 3
|
The passageway from the ovaries to the outside of the body is known as the oviduct (or Fallopian tube). The eggs travel along the oviduct. These eggs will either be fertilized by sperm to become a zygote, or will degenerate in the body. Tubectomy also referred to, as Tubal Sterilization is a surgical procedure done on women as a permanent method of contraception. Sperms are produced at a temperature that is lower than the body
|
a
|
National Unclassified
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched? List I List II 1 Zygote : Fertilized egg 2.Tubectomy : Permanent Sterilization in females 3. Oviduct : where fertilization take place 4. Sperms : are produced at a temperature that is same as the body temperature Select the correct answer using the codes given below:##Option_A: Only 1 and 3 ###Option_B: Only 1 and 4##Option_C: Only 2, 3 and 4 ##Option_D: Only 1 and 3 ##Answer:a##Explaination: The passageway from the ovaries to the outside of the body is known as the oviduct (or Fallopian tube). The eggs travel along the oviduct. These eggs will either be fertilized by sperm to become a zygote, or will degenerate in the body. Tubectomy also referred to, as Tubal Sterilization is a surgical procedure done on women as a permanent method of contraception. Sperms are produced at a temperature that is lower than the body ##Topic:National Unclassified##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
Recently, ICMR and Department of Biotechnology released revised guidelines on stem cells research in India. Which of the following statements regarding stem cells is/are correct? 1. Stem cells are characterized by their ability for self-renewal (i.e., maintaining their undifferentiated state during several rounds of cell division). 2. Stem cells are characterized by their potency (i.e., the ability to differentiate into specialized cell types). 3. The use of adult stem cells in research and therapy is less controversial than embryonic Stem cells, because their production does not require the destruction of an embryo. 4. induced Pluripotent stem cell (iPSC) is an artificially created stem cell used to treat human diseases. Select the correct order using the codes given below:
|
Only 1,3 and 4
|
Only 1, 2 and 3
|
Only 2 and 4
|
Only 1,3 and 4
|
Embryonic stem cells are derived from very early embryos and can in theory give rise to all cell types in the body. It involves destruction of an embryo which is an ethical issue. Many adult tissues contain stem cells that can replace cells that die or restore tissue after injury. Skin, muscle, intestine and bone marrow, for example, each contain their own stem cells. Adult stem cells are tissue-specific, meaning they are found in a given tissue in our bodies and generate the mature cell types within that particular tissue or organ. Induced pluripotent stem cells (also known as iPS cells or iPSCs) are a type of pluripotent stem cell that can be generated directly from adult cells. The iPSC technology was pioneered by Shinya Yamanaka’s lab in Kyoto, Japan, who showed in 2006 that the introduction of four specific genes could convert adult cells into pluripotent stem cells.[1] He was awarded the 2012 Nobel Prize along with Sir John Gurdon "for the discovery that mature cells can be reprogrammed to become pluripotent."
|
a
|
National Unclassified
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Recently, ICMR and Department of Biotechnology released revised guidelines on stem cells research in India. Which of the following statements regarding stem cells is/are correct? 1. Stem cells are characterized by their ability for self-renewal (i.e., maintaining their undifferentiated state during several rounds of cell division). 2. Stem cells are characterized by their potency (i.e., the ability to differentiate into specialized cell types). 3. The use of adult stem cells in research and therapy is less controversial than embryonic Stem cells, because their production does not require the destruction of an embryo. 4. induced Pluripotent stem cell (iPSC) is an artificially created stem cell used to treat human diseases. Select the correct order using the codes given below:##Option_A: Only 1,3 and 4 ###Option_B: Only 1, 2 and 3##Option_C: Only 2 and 4 ##Option_D: Only 1,3 and 4 ##Answer:a##Explaination: Embryonic stem cells are derived from very early embryos and can in theory give rise to all cell types in the body. It involves destruction of an embryo which is an ethical issue. Many adult tissues contain stem cells that can replace cells that die or restore tissue after injury. Skin, muscle, intestine and bone marrow, for example, each contain their own stem cells. Adult stem cells are tissue-specific, meaning they are found in a given tissue in our bodies and generate the mature cell types within that particular tissue or organ. Induced pluripotent stem cells (also known as iPS cells or iPSCs) are a type of pluripotent stem cell that can be generated directly from adult cells. The iPSC technology was pioneered by Shinya Yamanaka’s lab in Kyoto, Japan, who showed in 2006 that the introduction of four specific genes could convert adult cells into pluripotent stem cells.[1] He was awarded the 2012 Nobel Prize along with Sir John Gurdon "for the discovery that mature cells can be reprogrammed to become pluripotent."##Topic:National Unclassified##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
Match the following List I List II (a) IP address 1. www.google.com (b) Operating System 2. 223.176.250.233 (c) Domain Name 3. Firefox (d) Web Browser 4. Android Select the correct answer:
|
A – 2, B – 3, C – 4, D – 1
|
A – 3, B – 1, C – 2, D – 4
|
A – 1, B – 2, C – 3, D – 4
|
A – 2, B – 3, C – 4, D – 1
|
An Internet Protocol (IP) address is a numerical label assigned to each device participating in a computer network that uses the Internet Protocol for communication. An operating system (OS) is software that manages computer hardware resources and provides common services for computer programs. The operating system is an essential component of the system software in a computer system. Application programs usually require an operating system to function. A domain name is an identification string that defines a realm of administrative autonomy, authority or control on the Internet. Domain names are formed by the rules Domain Name System (DNS). Any name registered in the DNS is a domain name. The functional description of domain names is presented in the Domain Name System article. A web browser (commonly referred to as a browser) is a software application for retrieving, presenting and traversing information resources on the World Wide Web. The major web browsers are Firefox, Internet Explorer, Google Chrome, Opera, and Safari.
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d
|
National Unclassified
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Match the following List I List II (a) IP address 1. www.google.com (b) Operating System 2. 223.176.250.233 (c) Domain Name 3. Firefox (d) Web Browser 4. Android Select the correct answer:##Option_A: A – 2, B – 3, C – 4, D – 1 ###Option_B: A – 3, B – 1, C – 2, D – 4##Option_C: A – 1, B – 2, C – 3, D – 4 ##Option_D: A – 2, B – 3, C – 4, D – 1 ##Answer:d##Explaination: An Internet Protocol (IP) address is a numerical label assigned to each device participating in a computer network that uses the Internet Protocol for communication. An operating system (OS) is software that manages computer hardware resources and provides common services for computer programs. The operating system is an essential component of the system software in a computer system. Application programs usually require an operating system to function. A domain name is an identification string that defines a realm of administrative autonomy, authority or control on the Internet. Domain names are formed by the rules Domain Name System (DNS). Any name registered in the DNS is a domain name. The functional description of domain names is presented in the Domain Name System article. A web browser (commonly referred to as a browser) is a software application for retrieving, presenting and traversing information resources on the World Wide Web. The major web browsers are Firefox, Internet Explorer, Google Chrome, Opera, and Safari.##Topic:National Unclassified##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
A special type of Bails was used in recently held World Twenty20 cricket game. What is special about it?
|
Bails contain a special type of chemical compound which glows when pressure is applied on it.
|
Bails glow when they lose contact with wickets and thus, both glow.
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Bails are fitted with LED which glows on slightest impact.
|
Bails contain a special type of chemical compound which glows when pressure is applied on it.
|
The wickets having the LED’s glow on the slightest impact, and the bails send the radio signals to the stumps which glow immediately on impact. They have been used in T20 leagues in Australia, New Zealand and the West Indies. ICC approved the use of LED (Light emitted Diode) zing bails in ODI and Twenty20 from Oct, 2013.
|
c
|
National Unclassified
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:A special type of Bails was used in recently held World Twenty20 cricket game. What is special about it?##Option_A: Bails contain a special type of chemical compound which glows when pressure is applied on it.###Option_B: Bails glow when they lose contact with wickets and thus, both glow.##Option_C: Bails are fitted with LED which glows on slightest impact.##Option_D: Bails contain a special type of chemical compound which glows when pressure is applied on it.##Answer:c##Explaination:The wickets having the LED’s glow on the slightest impact, and the bails send the radio signals to the stumps which glow immediately on impact. They have been used in T20 leagues in Australia, New Zealand and the West Indies. ICC approved the use of LED (Light emitted Diode) zing bails in ODI and Twenty20 from Oct, 2013. ##Topic:National Unclassified##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
Consider the following: 1. Extinct (Ex) 2. Critically Endangered (CR) 3. Not Evaluated (NE) 4. Extinct in the wild (EW) 5. Near Threatened 6. Data Deficient(DD) 7. Endangered (EN) 8. Vulnerable(VU) 9. Least Concern (LC) Which among the above are collectively described as threatened by the IUCN (International Union for Conservation of Nature)?
|
Only 1, 2, and 4
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Only 1, 3, 4, 6, 8 and 9
|
Only 2, 3, 5, 7 and 9
|
Only 1, 2, and 4
|
The IUCN Red List is based on an objective system for assessing the risk of extinction of a species. There are eight categories based on criteria linked to population trend, size and structure, and geographic range. Species listed as Critically Endangered, Endangered or Vulnerable are collectively described as threatened
|
d
|
National Unclassified
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following: 1. Extinct (Ex) 2. Critically Endangered (CR) 3. Not Evaluated (NE) 4. Extinct in the wild (EW) 5. Near Threatened 6. Data Deficient(DD) 7. Endangered (EN) 8. Vulnerable(VU) 9. Least Concern (LC) Which among the above are collectively described as threatened by the IUCN (International Union for Conservation of Nature)?##Option_A: Only 1, 2, and 4 ###Option_B: Only 1, 3, 4, 6, 8 and 9##Option_C: Only 2, 3, 5, 7 and 9 ##Option_D: Only 1, 2, and 4 ##Answer:d##Explaination:The IUCN Red List is based on an objective system for assessing the risk of extinction of a species. There are eight categories based on criteria linked to population trend, size and structure, and geographic range. Species listed as Critically Endangered, Endangered or Vulnerable are collectively described as threatened##Topic:National Unclassified##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
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Which one of the following groups of birds does NOT belongs to the category of critically endangered species under IUCN red list?
|
Baer’s Pochard, Siberian Crane, Spoon-billed Sandpiper and White-bellied Heron
|
Bengal Florican, Great Indian Bustard, Jerdon’s Courser and Sociable Lapwing,
|
Forest Owlet, Indian Vulture, Red-headed Vulture and White-backed Vulture
|
Baer’s Pochard, Siberian Crane, Spoon-billed Sandpiper and White-bellied Heron
|
The latest International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List of Birds (2013) shows that fifteen bird species in India continue to be Critically Endangered (CR). The species falling under the Critically Endangered category in India include migratory wetland species: Baer’s Pochard, Siberian Crane and Spoon-billed Sandpiper; non-migratory wetland species: White-bellied Heron; grassland species: Bengal Florican, Great Indian Bustard, Jerdon’s Courser and Sociable Lapwing; forest species: Forest Owlet and scavengers: Indian Vulture, Red-headed Vulture, White-backed Vulture and Slender-billed Vulture. Himalayan Quail and Pink-headed Duck are now considered Extinct for all practical purposes. The species that have been uplisted (facing greater danger) in 2013 IUCN list are River Lapwing and River Tern, both uplisted from Least Concern to Near Threatened and Long-tailed Duck uplisted from Least Concern to Vulnerable. Destruction of wetlands and riverine habitats has been the cause of decline of these species.
|
d
|
National Unclassified
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which one of the following groups of birds does NOT belongs to the category of critically endangered species under IUCN red list?##Option_A:Baer’s Pochard, Siberian Crane, Spoon-billed Sandpiper and White-bellied Heron###Option_B:Bengal Florican, Great Indian Bustard, Jerdon’s Courser and Sociable Lapwing,##Option_C:Forest Owlet, Indian Vulture, Red-headed Vulture and White-backed Vulture##Option_D:Baer’s Pochard, Siberian Crane, Spoon-billed Sandpiper and White-bellied Heron##Answer:d##Explaination:The latest International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List of Birds (2013) shows that fifteen bird species in India continue to be Critically Endangered (CR). The species falling under the Critically Endangered category in India include migratory wetland species: Baer’s Pochard, Siberian Crane and Spoon-billed Sandpiper; non-migratory wetland species: White-bellied Heron; grassland species: Bengal Florican, Great Indian Bustard, Jerdon’s Courser and Sociable Lapwing; forest species: Forest Owlet and scavengers: Indian Vulture, Red-headed Vulture, White-backed Vulture and Slender-billed Vulture. Himalayan Quail and Pink-headed Duck are now considered Extinct for all practical purposes. The species that have been uplisted (facing greater danger) in 2013 IUCN list are River Lapwing and River Tern, both uplisted from Least Concern to Near Threatened and Long-tailed Duck uplisted from Least Concern to Vulnerable. Destruction of wetlands and riverine habitats has been the cause of decline of these species.##Topic:National Unclassified##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
Recently, RBI (Reserve Bank of India) has granted extra time for the public to exchange currency notes printed before 2005. Which of the following statements regarding this policy is/are true? 1. Objective of this move is to reduce/eliminate counterfeiting of currency as 2005 onwards currency notes have added security features. 2. Public cannot use pre-2005 printed notes in the market after deadline. 3. Pre-2005 printed notes do not have on them the year of printing. 4. It is applicable to only Rs 500 and Rs 1000 currency notes. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
|
Only 1
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Only 2, 3 and 4
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Only 1 and 3
|
Only 1
|
The Reserve Bank of India has today advised that after March 31, 2014, it will completely withdraw from circulation all banknotes issued prior to 2005. From April 1, 2014, the public will be required to approach banks for exchanging these notes. Banks will provide exchange facility for these notes until further communication. The Reserve Bank further stated that public can easily identify the notes to be withdrawn as the notes issued before 2005 do not have on them the year of printing on the reverse side. The Reserve Bank has also clarified that the notes issued before 2005 will continue to be legal tender.
|
c
|
National Unclassified
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Recently, RBI (Reserve Bank of India) has granted extra time for the public to exchange currency notes printed before 2005. Which of the following statements regarding this policy is/are true? 1. Objective of this move is to reduce/eliminate counterfeiting of currency as 2005 onwards currency notes have added security features. 2. Public cannot use pre-2005 printed notes in the market after deadline. 3. Pre-2005 printed notes do not have on them the year of printing. 4. It is applicable to only Rs 500 and Rs 1000 currency notes. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:##Option_A: Only 1 ###Option_B: Only 2, 3 and 4##Option_C: Only 1 and 3 ##Option_D: Only 1 ##Answer:c##Explaination:The Reserve Bank of India has today advised that after March 31, 2014, it will completely withdraw from circulation all banknotes issued prior to 2005. From April 1, 2014, the public will be required to approach banks for exchanging these notes. Banks will provide exchange facility for these notes until further communication. The Reserve Bank further stated that public can easily identify the notes to be withdrawn as the notes issued before 2005 do not have on them the year of printing on the reverse side. The Reserve Bank has also clarified that the notes issued before 2005 will continue to be legal tender.##Topic:National Unclassified##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
Which of the following statements regarding MDGs (Millennium Development Goals) is/are correct? 1. MDGs were established by United Nations (UN) in 1990. 2. Poor countries are receiving financial aid from rich countries to achieve MDG targets. 3. Least Developed Countries (LDCs) are given relaxation of 5 years (till 2020) to attain MDG targets. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
|
Only 1
|
Only 2
|
Only 2 and 3
|
Only 1
|
The Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) are eight international development goals that were established following the Millennium Summit of the United Nations in 2000. MDG-8 talks about assistance to poor countries from rich countries.
|
b
|
National Unclassified
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements regarding MDGs (Millennium Development Goals) is/are correct? 1. MDGs were established by United Nations (UN) in 1990. 2. Poor countries are receiving financial aid from rich countries to achieve MDG targets. 3. Least Developed Countries (LDCs) are given relaxation of 5 years (till 2020) to attain MDG targets. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:##Option_A: Only 1 ###Option_B: Only 2##Option_C: Only 2 and 3 ##Option_D: Only 1 ##Answer:b##Explaination:The Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) are eight international development goals that were established following the Millennium Summit of the United Nations in 2000. MDG-8 talks about assistance to poor countries from rich countries. ##Topic:National Unclassified##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
Recently, Article 370 of the constitution was in news. Which of the following statements is/are true?
|
Article 370 was introduced with an amendment to the constitution in 1954.
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All the provisions of the constitution do not apply to the Jammu and Kashmir state.
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nan
|
Article 370 was introduced with an amendment to the constitution in 1954.
|
Article 370 is the original article in the constitution. Under article 370, Jammu and Kashmir state enjoys special status.
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b
|
National Unclassified
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Recently, Article 370 of the constitution was in news. Which of the following statements is/are true?##Option_A:Article 370 was introduced with an amendment to the constitution in 1954.###Option_B:All the provisions of the constitution do not apply to the Jammu and Kashmir state.##Option_C:nan##Option_D:Article 370 was introduced with an amendment to the constitution in 1954.##Answer:b##Explaination:Article 370 is the original article in the constitution. Under article 370, Jammu and Kashmir state enjoys special status.##Topic:National Unclassified##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
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What is twin deficit?
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Fiscal deficit at central as well as at states" level.
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revenue deficit and a simultaneous fiscal deficit.
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Current account deficits and a simultaneous fiscal deficit.
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Fiscal deficit at central as well as at states" level.
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The twin deficits hypothesis, also called the double deficit hypothesis or twin deficits anomaly, is a concept from macroeconomics that contends that there is a strong link between a national economy's current account balance and its government budget balance.
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c
|
National Unclassified
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:What is twin deficit?##Option_A: Fiscal deficit at central as well as at states" level.###Option_B: revenue deficit and a simultaneous fiscal deficit.##Option_C: Current account deficits and a simultaneous fiscal deficit.##Option_D: Fiscal deficit at central as well as at states" level.##Answer:c##Explaination:The twin deficits hypothesis, also called the double deficit hypothesis or twin deficits anomaly, is a concept from macroeconomics that contends that there is a strong link between a national economy's current account balance and its government budget balance.##Topic:National Unclassified##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
A traveler going eastwards crosses the international dateline. Which of the following statements about his/her present location is true?
|
He/She gains 12 hours
|
He/she loses 12 hours
|
He/she gains a full day
|
He/She gains 12 hours
|
If someone is moving towards international dateline (180 o W or 180 o E) in the eastward direction, he/she will be 12 hours ahead of G.M.T. Similarly in going westwards, he/she loses 12 hours when he reaches 180W or international dateline. There is thus a total difference of 24 hours or a whole day between the two sides of the 180 o meridian.
|
d
|
National Unclassified
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:A traveler going eastwards crosses the international dateline. Which of the following statements about his/her present location is true?##Option_A: He/She gains 12 hours ###Option_B: He/she loses 12 hours##Option_C: He/she gains a full day ##Option_D: He/She gains 12 hours ##Answer:d##Explaination:If someone is moving towards international dateline (180 o W or 180 o E) in the eastward direction, he/she will be 12 hours ahead of G.M.T. Similarly in going westwards, he/she loses 12 hours when he reaches 180W or international dateline. There is thus a total difference of 24 hours or a whole day between the two sides of the 180 o meridian.##Topic:National Unclassified##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
Which of the following statements regarding ‘fuse’ used in electric circuits is/are correct? 1. It is a low-resistance device. 2. It is arranged in parallel with the circuit. 3. Its melting point is high. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
|
Only 1
|
Only 2
|
Only 1 and 3
|
Only 1
|
A fuse is a type of low resistance resistor that acts as a sacrificial device to provide over-current protection. The fuse is arranged in series to carry all the current passing through the protected circuit. The resistance of the element generates heat due to the current flow. Its melting point is low to respond quickly to excess flow of current.
|
a
|
National Unclassified
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements regarding ‘fuse’ used in electric circuits is/are correct? 1. It is a low-resistance device. 2. It is arranged in parallel with the circuit. 3. Its melting point is high. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:##Option_A: Only 1 ###Option_B: Only 2##Option_C: Only 1 and 3 ##Option_D: Only 1 ##Answer:a##Explaination:A fuse is a type of low resistance resistor that acts as a sacrificial device to provide over-current protection. The fuse is arranged in series to carry all the current passing through the protected circuit. The resistance of the element generates heat due to the current flow. Its melting point is low to respond quickly to excess flow of current.##Topic:National Unclassified##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
Which of the following group of gases is a major constitute of the earth’s atmosphere?
|
Oxygen, Nitrogen and Argon
|
Nitrogen, Oxygen and Carbon dioxide
|
Oxygen, Carbon dioxide, and Hydrogen
|
Oxygen, Nitrogen and Argon
|
Table showing permanent gases of the earth’s atmosphere Constituent Percentage by volume Nitrogen 78.08 Oxygen 20.95 Argon 0.93 Carbon dioxide 0.036 Neon 0.002 Helium 0.0005 Krypto 0.001
|
a
|
National Unclassified
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following group of gases is a major constitute of the earth’s atmosphere?##Option_A: Oxygen, Nitrogen and Argon ###Option_B: Nitrogen, Oxygen and Carbon dioxide##Option_C: Oxygen, Carbon dioxide, and Hydrogen ##Option_D: Oxygen, Nitrogen and Argon ##Answer:a##Explaination:Table showing permanent gases of the earth’s atmosphere Constituent Percentage by volume Nitrogen 78.08 Oxygen 20.95 Argon 0.93 Carbon dioxide 0.036 Neon 0.002 Helium 0.0005 Krypto 0.001##Topic:National Unclassified##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
Which of the following statements regarding International Space Station (ISS) is/are correct? 1. It is a collaborative venture of five countries - USA, Russia, Canada, Japan and China. 2. Its orbital period is 24 hours. 3. It serves as a micro-gravity research laboratory. 4. It drives its energy from a small nuclear plant. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
|
Only 3
|
Only 1, 2 and 3
|
Only 2 and 4
|
Only 3
|
Orbit period of ISS is of around 90 minutes. The ISS serves as a microgravity and space environment research laboratory in which crew members conduct experiments in biology, human biology, physics, astronomy, meteorology and other fields.
|
a
|
National Unclassified
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements regarding International Space Station (ISS) is/are correct? 1. It is a collaborative venture of five countries - USA, Russia, Canada, Japan and China. 2. Its orbital period is 24 hours. 3. It serves as a micro-gravity research laboratory. 4. It drives its energy from a small nuclear plant. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:##Option_A: Only 3 ###Option_B: Only 1, 2 and 3##Option_C: Only 2 and 4 ##Option_D: Only 3 ##Answer:a##Explaination:Orbit period of ISS is of around 90 minutes. The ISS serves as a microgravity and space environment research laboratory in which crew members conduct experiments in biology, human biology, physics, astronomy, meteorology and other fields. ##Topic:National Unclassified##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
The aim of environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) is:
|
To study the impact of climate change gases (CO 2 , Methane etc.) on the environment.
|
To study the environmental degradation caused by a natural phenomenon like volcanic eruption.
|
To study the environmental impact of developmental projects and deciding the suitability of the project.
|
To study the impact of climate change gases (CO 2 , Methane etc.) on the environment.
|
An environmental impact assessment is a formal process used to predict the environmental consequences (positive or negative) of a plan, policy, program, or project prior the implementation decision, it proposes measures to adjust impacts to acceptable levels or to investigate new technological solution. Although an assessment may lead to difficult economic decisions and political and social concerns, environmental impact assessments protect the environment by providing a sound basis for effective and sustainable development.
|
c
|
National Unclassified
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The aim of environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) is:##Option_A: To study the impact of climate change gases (CO 2 , Methane etc.) on the environment.###Option_B: To study the environmental degradation caused by a natural phenomenon like volcanic eruption.##Option_C: To study the environmental impact of developmental projects and deciding the suitability of the project.##Option_D: To study the impact of climate change gases (CO 2 , Methane etc.) on the environment.##Answer:c##Explaination:An environmental impact assessment is a formal process used to predict the environmental consequences (positive or negative) of a plan, policy, program, or project prior the implementation decision, it proposes measures to adjust impacts to acceptable levels or to investigate new technological solution. Although an assessment may lead to difficult economic decisions and political and social concerns, environmental impact assessments protect the environment by providing a sound basis for effective and sustainable development.##Topic:National Unclassified##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
Other than astronomy, What are the prospects for which Doppler effect is used?
1. Temperature measurement
2. In construction of radar
3. Flow measurement
4. Satellite communication
5. For Medical purposes
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
|
Only 1, 2 and 3
|
Only 3 and 5
|
Only 1, 2, 4 and 5
|
Only 1, 2 and 3
|
The Doppler effect (or Doppler shift), named after the Austrian physicist Christian Doppler, who proposed it in 1842 in Prague, is the change in frequency of a wave (or other periodic event) for an observer moving relative to its source. It is commonly heard when a vehicle sounding a siren or horn approaches, passes, and recedes from an observer. Compared to the emitted frequency, the received frequency is higher during the approach, identical at the instant of passing by, and lower during the recession. Following are possible application area:
Sirens
Astronomy
Temperature measurement
Radar
Medical imaging and blood flow measurement
Flow measurement
Velocity profile measurement
Satellite communication
Underwater acoustics
Audio
Vibration measurement
|
d
|
National Unclassified
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Other than astronomy, What are the prospects for which Doppler effect is used?
1. Temperature measurement
2. In construction of radar
3. Flow measurement
4. Satellite communication
5. For Medical purposes
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
##Option_A: Only 1, 2 and 3 ###Option_B: Only 3 and 5
##Option_C: Only 1, 2, 4 and 5 ##Option_D: Only 1, 2 and 3 ##Answer:d##Explaination:The Doppler effect (or Doppler shift), named after the Austrian physicist Christian Doppler, who proposed it in 1842 in Prague, is the change in frequency of a wave (or other periodic event) for an observer moving relative to its source. It is commonly heard when a vehicle sounding a siren or horn approaches, passes, and recedes from an observer. Compared to the emitted frequency, the received frequency is higher during the approach, identical at the instant of passing by, and lower during the recession. Following are possible application area:
Sirens
Astronomy
Temperature measurement
Radar
Medical imaging and blood flow measurement
Flow measurement
Velocity profile measurement
Satellite communication
Underwater acoustics
Audio
Vibration measurement##Topic:National Unclassified##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
Which of the following statements is true?
|
Pyramid of energy can be inverted but pyramid of numbers can never be inverted.
|
Pyramid of numbers and Pyramid of Biomass can be inverted but pyramid of energy can never be inverted.
|
All three - Pyramid of numbers, Pyramid of Biomass and Pyramid of energy – can be inverted.
|
Pyramid of energy can be inverted but pyramid of numbers can never be inverted.
|
Pyramid of numbers shows the number of each organism at the different trophic levels (feeding levels ie. producers consumers and decomposers) in a food web. They may be upright (e.g. Grassland ecosystem), inverted (parasitic ecosystem) or dumbbell shaped (forest ecosystem).
Pyramid of biomass is the measurement of the dry mass of organisms in the different trophic levels. The pyramid of biomass may be "inverted". For example, in a pond ecosystem, the standing crop of phytoplankton, the major producers, at any given point will be lower than the mass of the heterotrophs, such as fish and insects. This is explained as the phytoplankton reproduce very quickly, but have much shorter individual lives.
The pyramid of energy shows the amount of energy at each trophic level. One of the Laws of Thermodynamics says that the amount of available energy decreases whenever energy is changed in form (which includes a transfer from one trophic level to another). So, as we go from the first trophic level to the top trophic level, the amount of available energy becomes less and less. The amount of energy available to one trophic level is limited by the amount stored by the level below. Because energy is lost in the transfer from one level to the next, there is successively less total energy as you move up trophic levels.
|
b
|
National Unclassified
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is true?
##Option_A: Pyramid of energy can be inverted but pyramid of numbers can never be inverted.
###Option_B: Pyramid of numbers and Pyramid of Biomass can be inverted but pyramid of energy can never be inverted.
##Option_C: All three - Pyramid of numbers, Pyramid of Biomass and Pyramid of energy – can be inverted.
##Option_D: Pyramid of energy can be inverted but pyramid of numbers can never be inverted.
##Answer:b##Explaination:
Pyramid of numbers shows the number of each organism at the different trophic levels (feeding levels ie. producers consumers and decomposers) in a food web. They may be upright (e.g. Grassland ecosystem), inverted (parasitic ecosystem) or dumbbell shaped (forest ecosystem).
Pyramid of biomass is the measurement of the dry mass of organisms in the different trophic levels. The pyramid of biomass may be "inverted". For example, in a pond ecosystem, the standing crop of phytoplankton, the major producers, at any given point will be lower than the mass of the heterotrophs, such as fish and insects. This is explained as the phytoplankton reproduce very quickly, but have much shorter individual lives.
The pyramid of energy shows the amount of energy at each trophic level. One of the Laws of Thermodynamics says that the amount of available energy decreases whenever energy is changed in form (which includes a transfer from one trophic level to another). So, as we go from the first trophic level to the top trophic level, the amount of available energy becomes less and less. The amount of energy available to one trophic level is limited by the amount stored by the level below. Because energy is lost in the transfer from one level to the next, there is successively less total energy as you move up trophic levels.
##Topic:National Unclassified##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
Recently, many parts of India received heavy hailstorms for days. What was the possible cause of these hailstorms?
|
Cold South westerly winds
|
Cold Westerly winds
|
Winds originated from cold Himalayas
|
Cold South westerly winds
|
The hailstorms were caused because of an unusual movement of cold westerly winds that come from the north and cause snowfall over the Himalayan region in January. The cold westerlies usually blow around 30 degree latitude, where Kashmir is located. But this year, they came down to about 15 degree latitude, bringing hailstorms. The situation intensified when the cold westerlies, after picking up moisture from the Arabian Sea, met the south westerlies, which, too, were moisture-laden. The winds could not move beyond the Bay of Bengal because of the presence of high pressure belt and started blowing clockwise over the central, western and part of northern India. They characteristically moved upwards and precipitated the moisture in the form of hail. In early January this year, polar vortex in the Arctic weakened and collapsed, allowing cold air to escape down to the mid-latitudes. The disturbed jet stream further pushed down cold air from the Arctic.
|
b
|
National Unclassified
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Recently, many parts of India received heavy hailstorms for days. What was the possible cause of these hailstorms?
##Option_A: Cold South westerly winds ###Option_B: Cold Westerly winds
##Option_C: Winds originated from cold Himalayas ##Option_D: Cold South westerly winds ##Answer:b##Explaination:
The hailstorms were caused because of an unusual movement of cold westerly winds that come from the north and cause snowfall over the Himalayan region in January. The cold westerlies usually blow around 30 degree latitude, where Kashmir is located. But this year, they came down to about 15 degree latitude, bringing hailstorms. The situation intensified when the cold westerlies, after picking up moisture from the Arabian Sea, met the south westerlies, which, too, were moisture-laden. The winds could not move beyond the Bay of Bengal because of the presence of high pressure belt and started blowing clockwise over the central, western and part of northern India. They characteristically moved upwards and precipitated the moisture in the form of hail. In early January this year, polar vortex in the Arctic weakened and collapsed, allowing cold air to escape down to the mid-latitudes. The disturbed jet stream further pushed down cold air from the Arctic.
##Topic:National Unclassified##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
Recently, Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) launched IRNSS-1B satellite as part of the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS). Which of the following statements regarding IRNSS is/are correct?
1. It is designed to provide accurate position information service in India and also 1500 km beyond India’s border.
2. All satellites under IRNSS would be put in geostationary orbit.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
|
Only 1
|
Only 2
|
Both 1 and 2
|
Only 1
|
I RNSS is an independent regional navigation satellite system being developed by India. It is designed to provide accurate position information service to users in India as well as the region extending up to 1500 km from its boundary, which is its primary service area. The IRNSS space segment consists of seven satellites, with three satellites in geostationary orbit and four satellites in inclined geosynchronous orbit.
|
a
|
National Unclassified
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Recently, Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) launched IRNSS-1B satellite as part of the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS). Which of the following statements regarding IRNSS is/are correct?
1. It is designed to provide accurate position information service in India and also 1500 km beyond India’s border.
2. All satellites under IRNSS would be put in geostationary orbit.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
##Option_A: Only 1 ###Option_B: Only 2
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2 ##Option_D: Only 1 ##Answer:a##Explaination:
I RNSS is an independent regional navigation satellite system being developed by India. It is designed to provide accurate position information service to users in India as well as the region extending up to 1500 km from its boundary, which is its primary service area. The IRNSS space segment consists of seven satellites, with three satellites in geostationary orbit and four satellites in inclined geosynchronous orbit.
##Topic:National Unclassified##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
Recently, Open Source Drug Discovery (OSDD) has been the buzz word in the context of drug discovery. Which of the following statements regarding OSDD is/are correct?
1. It is a project of CSIR (Council for Scientific and Industrial research), India.
2. It provides platform for collaborate, discover and share the research work.
3. It focuses on neglected diseases.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
|
Only 1 and 3
|
Only 2 and 3
|
Only 1 and 2
|
Only 1 and 3
|
Open Source Drug Discovery (OSDD) is a CSIR led team India Consortium with global partnership with a vision to provide affordable healthcare to the developing world by providing a global platform where the best minds can collaborate & collectively endeavor to solve the complex problems associated with discovering novel therapies for neglected tropical diseases like Tuberculosis, Malaria, Leishmaniasis etc. OSDD is a translational platform for drug discovery, bringing together informaticians, wet lab scientists, contract research organizations, clinicians, hospitals and others who are willing to adhere to the affordable healthcare philosophy agreeing to the OSDD license.
|
d
|
National Unclassified
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Recently, Open Source Drug Discovery (OSDD) has been the buzz word in the context of drug discovery. Which of the following statements regarding OSDD is/are correct?
1. It is a project of CSIR (Council for Scientific and Industrial research), India.
2. It provides platform for collaborate, discover and share the research work.
3. It focuses on neglected diseases.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
##Option_A: Only 1 and 3 ###Option_B: Only 2 and 3
##Option_C: Only 1 and 2 ##Option_D: Only 1 and 3 ##Answer:d##Explaination:
Open Source Drug Discovery (OSDD) is a CSIR led team India Consortium with global partnership with a vision to provide affordable healthcare to the developing world by providing a global platform where the best minds can collaborate & collectively endeavor to solve the complex problems associated with discovering novel therapies for neglected tropical diseases like Tuberculosis, Malaria, Leishmaniasis etc. OSDD is a translational platform for drug discovery, bringing together informaticians, wet lab scientists, contract research organizations, clinicians, hospitals and others who are willing to adhere to the affordable healthcare philosophy agreeing to the OSDD license.
##Topic:National Unclassified##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
Which of the following statements regarding weather system is/are correct? If a warm air mass moves towards the cold air mass, its contact zone is called the warm front. Tropical cyclones are formed along the fronts. Fronts are formed over only oceans which are having uniform characteristics. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
|
Only 1
|
Only 1 and 2
|
Only 2 and 3
|
Only 1
|
When two different air masses meet, the boundary zone between them is called a front. There are four types of fronts: (a) Cold; (b) Warm; (c) Stationary; (d) Occluded. When the front remains stationary, it is called a stationary front. When the cold air moves towards the warm air mass, its contact zone is called the cold front, whereas if the warm air mass moves towards the cold air mass, the contact zone is a warm front. If an air mass is fully lifted above the land surface, it is called the occluded front. Extra-tropical cyclones have clear front system which is not present in the tropical cyclones. They cover a larger area and can originate over the land and sea.
|
a
|
The Atmosphere : Structure , Weather & Climate , Solar Radiation , Heat Balance & Temperature , Pressure & Wind , Water in the Atmosphere
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements regarding weather system is/are correct? If a warm air mass moves towards the cold air mass, its contact zone is called the warm front. Tropical cyclones are formed along the fronts. Fronts are formed over only oceans which are having uniform characteristics. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:##Option_A: Only 1###Option_B: Only 1 and 2##Option_C: Only 2 and 3##Option_D: Only 1##Answer:a##Explaination:When two different air masses meet, the boundary zone between them is called a front. There are four types of fronts: (a) Cold; (b) Warm; (c) Stationary; (d) Occluded. When the front remains stationary, it is called a stationary front. When the cold air moves towards the warm air mass, its contact zone is called the cold front, whereas if the warm air mass moves towards the cold air mass, the contact zone is a warm front. If an air mass is fully lifted above the land surface, it is called the occluded front. Extra-tropical cyclones have clear front system which is not present in the tropical cyclones. They cover a larger area and can originate over the land and sea.##Topic:The Atmosphere : Structure , Weather & Climate , Solar Radiation , Heat Balance & Temperature , Pressure & Wind , Water in the Atmosphere##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
In which of the following does CAT extend her original jurisdiction?
1. Civilian employees of defence services
2. Servants of Supreme Court
3. Secretarial Staff of the Parliament
|
1 only
|
1 and 2
|
2 and 3
|
1 only
|
nan
|
a
|
GS_Polity_unclassified
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:In which of the following does CAT extend her original jurisdiction?
1. Civilian employees of defence services
2. Servants of Supreme Court
3. Secretarial Staff of the Parliament
##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 1 and 2
##Option_C: 2 and 3 ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:a##Explaination:nan##Topic:GS_Polity_unclassified##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
The members of the SAT are appointed by
|
The Governor
|
The President
|
The Chief Minister
|
The Governor
|
nan
|
b
|
GS_Polity_unclassified
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The members of the SAT are appointed by
##Option_A: The Governor
###Option_B: The President
##Option_C: The Chief Minister
##Option_D: The Governor
##Answer:b##Explaination:nan##Topic:GS_Polity_unclassified##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which of the following statements is/are true about CAT?
1. CAT is bound by procedure laid down in CPC 1908
2. We can directly approach the Supreme Court against CAT order.
3. Its members are drawn from administrative streams only
|
1 and 2
|
2 and 3
|
1 and 3
|
1 and 2
|
d
|
GS_Polity_unclassified
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are true about CAT?
1. CAT is bound by procedure laid down in CPC 1908
2. We can directly approach the Supreme Court against CAT order.
3. Its members are drawn from administrative streams only
##Option_A: 1 and 2 ###Option_B: 2 and 3
##Option_C: 1 and 3 ##Option_D: 1 and 2 ##Answer:d##Explaination:##Topic:GS_Polity_unclassified##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
|
Which of the following is true about issuing ordinances in Delhi?
1. Lt. Governor promulgates it with permission of President
2. Ordinance cannot be promulgated when Assembly is suspended.
3. Ordinance must be approved by assembly within 6 months from its reassembly.
|
1 and 2
|
2 and 3
|
1 and 3
|
1 and 2
|
a
|
GS_Polity_unclassified
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is true about issuing ordinances in Delhi?
1. Lt. Governor promulgates it with permission of President
2. Ordinance cannot be promulgated when Assembly is suspended.
3. Ordinance must be approved by assembly within 6 months from its reassembly.
##Option_A: 1 and 2 ###Option_B: 2 and 3
##Option_C: 1 and 3 ##Option_D: 1 and 2 ##Answer:a##Explaination:##Topic:GS_Polity_unclassified##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
|
Which of the following statements about UTs are true? Parliament can make laws on state subject for Puducherry. Constitutional provisions for administration of UTs also apply to acquired territories. Chief Minister of Delhi is appointed by Lieutenant Governor. Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The Chief Minister of Delhi is the chief executive of the National Capital Territory of Delhi in north India. According to the Constitution of India, the lieutenant governor is Delhi's de jure head, but de facto executive authority rests with its chief minister. The President of India, on the advice of the lieutenant governor, appoints the chief minister, whose council of ministers are collectively responsible to the assembly.
|
a
|
The Union and its Territory
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements about UTs are true? Parliament can make laws on state subject for Puducherry. Constitutional provisions for administration of UTs also apply to acquired territories. Chief Minister of Delhi is appointed by Lieutenant Governor. Which of the statement given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only ##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The Chief Minister of Delhi is the chief executive of the National Capital Territory of Delhi in north India. According to the Constitution of India, the lieutenant governor is Delhi's de jure head, but de facto executive authority rests with its chief minister. The President of India, on the advice of the lieutenant governor, appoints the chief minister, whose council of ministers are collectively responsible to the assembly.##Topic:The Union and its Territory##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Which of the following is/are the features of the sixth schedule?
1. Governor can reorganize the autonomous districts
2. All the members of district council are elected by the adult franchise.
3. Laws made by district councils require the assent of the President
|
1 only
|
1 and 2
|
2 and 3
|
1 only
|
a
|
GS_Polity_unclassified
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is/are the features of the sixth schedule?
1. Governor can reorganize the autonomous districts
2. All the members of district council are elected by the adult franchise.
3. Laws made by district councils require the assent of the President
##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 1 and 2
##Option_C: 2 and 3 ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:a##Explaination:##Topic:GS_Polity_unclassified##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
|
Which of the following falls under the ambit of District Councils defined in the sixth schedule? Collecting land revenue Impose tax Constitute courts of trial Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
The district and regional councils administer the areas under their jurisdiction. Some of the important provisions are: The district and regional councils within their territorial jurisdictions can constitute village councils or courts for trial of suits and cases between the tribes. They hear appeals from them. The jurisdiction of the High Court over these suits and cases is specified by the governor. The district council can establish, construct or manage primary schools, dispensaries, markets, ferries, fisheries, roads and so on in the district. It can also make regulations for the control of money lending and trading by non-tribals. But, such regulations require the assent of the governor. The district and regional councils are empowered to assess and collect land revenue and to impose certain specified taxes. etc
|
d
|
Features and Significant Provisions
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following falls under the ambit of District Councils defined in the sixth schedule? Collecting land revenue Impose tax Constitute courts of trial Select the correct answer using the code given below. ##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The district and regional councils administer the areas under their jurisdiction. Some of the important provisions are: The district and regional councils within their territorial jurisdictions can constitute village councils or courts for trial of suits and cases between the tribes. They hear appeals from them. The jurisdiction of the High Court over these suits and cases is specified by the governor. The district council can establish, construct or manage primary schools, dispensaries, markets, ferries, fisheries, roads and so on in the district. It can also make regulations for the control of money lending and trading by non-tribals. But, such regulations require the assent of the governor. The district and regional councils are empowered to assess and collect land revenue and to impose certain specified taxes. etc##Topic:Features and Significant Provisions##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Republic means, government which is? 1. By the people 2. For the people 3. Of the people
|
1 and 2
|
2 and 3
|
1 and 3
|
1 and 2
|
“of the people” is defined by sovereignty
|
a
|
GS_Polity_unclassified
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Republic means, government which is? 1. By the people 2. For the people 3. Of the people##Option_A: 1 and 2 ###Option_B: 2 and 3##Option_C: 1 and 3 ##Option_D: 1 and 2 ##Answer:a##Explaination:“of the people” is defined by sovereignty##Topic:GS_Polity_unclassified##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Which of the following is/are part of the ‘ Liberty’ as defined in the Preamble as freedom of
1. Speech
2. Faith
3. Thought
|
1 and 2
|
2 and 3
|
1 and 3
|
1 and 2
|
Freedom of thought , expression, belief, faith and worship
|
b
|
GS_Polity_unclassified
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is/are part of the ‘ Liberty’ as defined in the Preamble as freedom of
1. Speech
2. Faith
3. Thought
##Option_A: 1 and 2 ###Option_B: 2 and 3
##Option_C: 1 and 3 ##Option_D: 1 and 2 ##Answer:b##Explaination:Freedom of thought , expression, belief, faith and worship##Topic:GS_Polity_unclassified##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which of the following is/are part of the Constitution to ‘promote world peace’? 1. Do not interfere in internal matters of other nations. 2. Encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration 3. Foster respect for international law
|
1 and 2
|
2 and 3
|
1 and 3
|
1 and 2
|
Art 51
|
b
|
GS_Polity_unclassified
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is/are part of the Constitution to ‘promote world peace’? 1. Do not interfere in internal matters of other nations. 2. Encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration 3. Foster respect for international law##Option_A: 1 and 2 ###Option_B: 2 and 3##Option_C: 1 and 3 ##Option_D: 1 and 2 ##Answer:b##Explaination:Art 51##Topic:GS_Polity_unclassified##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which of the following were not covered by Objective Resolution?
1. Safeguard for tribal areas
2. Equality of Status
3. Economic Justice
|
1 only
|
1 and 2
|
2 and 3
|
1 only
|
All are covered
|
d
|
Constitutional Development , Features & Philosophy
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following were not covered by Objective Resolution?
1. Safeguard for tribal areas
2. Equality of Status
3. Economic Justice
##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 1 and 2
##Option_C: 2 and 3 ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:d##Explaination:All are covered##Topic:Constitutional Development , Features & Philosophy##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements:
1. On SC"s order Amicus Curiae helps vulnerable people by appearing for them in the court.
2. The SITs is an institutional mechanism invented by the S.C. to address executive inaction in matter of Serious concerns to the country.
Which of the above statements are correct.
Option :
|
Both 1 and 2
|
Only 1
|
Only 2
|
Both 1 and 2
|
(ii) Amicus Curiae offers information that bear on the case.
|
c
|
GS_Polity_unclassified
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements:
1. On SC"s order Amicus Curiae helps vulnerable people by appearing for them in the court.
2. The SITs is an institutional mechanism invented by the S.C. to address executive inaction in matter of Serious concerns to the country.
Which of the above statements are correct.
Option :
##Option_A: Both 1 and 2 ###Option_B: Only 1
##Option_C: Only 2 ##Option_D: Both 1 and 2 ##Answer:c##Explaination:(ii) Amicus Curiae offers information that bear on the case.##Topic:GS_Polity_unclassified##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following Fundamental Rights available to foreigners in India. 1. Right to elementary education. 2. Freedom to manage religious affairs. 3. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour. Option:
|
1, 2, 3
|
2, 3
|
1, 3
|
1, 2, 3
|
nan
|
a
|
GS_Polity_unclassified
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following Fundamental Rights available to foreigners in India. 1. Right to elementary education. 2. Freedom to manage religious affairs. 3. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour. Option:##Option_A: 1, 2, 3 ###Option_B: 2, 3##Option_C: 1, 3 ##Option_D: 1, 2, 3 ##Answer:a##Explaination:nan##Topic:GS_Polity_unclassified##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements:
High Courts can"t refuse to exercise its writ Jurisdiction.
Territorial jurisdiction of Supreme Courts for the purpose of issuing writs is wider than that of High Courts.
Issuing writs only prerogative of Supreme Courts & High Courts & it can"t be extends to any other court in any circumstance.
Which of the above statements are correct?
|
1, 2, 3
|
2, 3
|
1, 3
|
1, 2, 3
|
HC can refuse.
Parliament can empower any other court to issue writs.
|
d
|
High Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements:
High Courts can"t refuse to exercise its writ Jurisdiction.
Territorial jurisdiction of Supreme Courts for the purpose of issuing writs is wider than that of High Courts.
Issuing writs only prerogative of Supreme Courts & High Courts & it can"t be extends to any other court in any circumstance.
Which of the above statements are correct?
##Option_A: 1, 2, 3
###Option_B: 2, 3
##Option_C: 1, 3
##Option_D: 1, 2, 3
##Answer:d##Explaination:
HC can refuse.
Parliament can empower any other court to issue writs.
##Topic:High Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Read the following features of Indian constitution borrowed from different sources.
1. Joint sitting of the two house of Parliament borrowed from British Constitution.
2. Procedure for amendment of the constitution borrowed from weimar constitution.
3. The feature of office of Governor borrowed from the U.S. Constitution.
Which of the above statements are correct.
Option :
|
1, 2, 3
|
2, 3
|
1, 3
|
1, 2, 3
|
(i) Joint Sitting : From Australia.
(ii) Procedure of Amendment : South Africa.
(iii) Office of Governor – Govt. of India Act 1935
|
d
|
GS_Polity_unclassified
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Read the following features of Indian constitution borrowed from different sources.
1. Joint sitting of the two house of Parliament borrowed from British Constitution.
2. Procedure for amendment of the constitution borrowed from weimar constitution.
3. The feature of office of Governor borrowed from the U.S. Constitution.
Which of the above statements are correct.
Option :
##Option_A: 1, 2, 3 ###Option_B: 2, 3
##Option_C: 1, 3 ##Option_D: 1, 2, 3 ##Answer:d##Explaination:(i) Joint Sitting : From Australia.
(ii) Procedure of Amendment : South Africa.
(iii) Office of Governor – Govt. of India Act 1935##Topic:GS_Polity_unclassified##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements:
1. NHRC recommendations are binding on government or the concerned authority.
2. NHRC has all the powers of both Civil and criminal court.
3. The chairman and members are eligible for further employment under central or a state government.
Which of the above statements are correct.
Option :
|
1, 2, 3
|
2, 3
|
1, 3
|
1, 2, 3
|
(i) NHRC's function/recommendations are not binding.
(ii) NHRC has all the powers of Civil court only.
(iii) They are not eligible for further employment.
|
d
|
GS_Polity_unclassified
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements:
1. NHRC recommendations are binding on government or the concerned authority.
2. NHRC has all the powers of both Civil and criminal court.
3. The chairman and members are eligible for further employment under central or a state government.
Which of the above statements are correct.
Option :
##Option_A: 1, 2, 3 ###Option_B: 2, 3
##Option_C: 1, 3 ##Option_D: 1, 2, 3 ##Answer:d##Explaination:(i) NHRC's function/recommendations are not binding.
(ii) NHRC has all the powers of Civil court only.
(iii) They are not eligible for further employment.##Topic:GS_Polity_unclassified##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following Constitutional positions are entitled for emoluments, allowances and privileges under Schedule Two of the Constitution?
President
Prime Minister
Governors of states
UPSC Chairman and Members
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Second Schedule includes: Salary of President, Governors, Chief Judges, Judges of High Court and Supreme court, Comptroller and Auditor General.
|
a
|
Central Council of Minister
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following Constitutional positions are entitled for emoluments, allowances and privileges under Schedule Two of the Constitution?
President
Prime Minister
Governors of states
UPSC Chairman and Members
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1 and 3 only
###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 1 and 4 only
##Option_D: 1 and 3 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:Second Schedule includes: Salary of President, Governors, Chief Judges, Judges of High Court and Supreme court, Comptroller and Auditor General. ##Topic:Central Council of Minister ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements:
1. Preamble is an integral part of the constitution.
2. Preamble forms the part of the basic structure of the constitution.
Option :
|
Both 1 and 2
|
Only 1
|
Only 2
|
Both 1 and 2
|
nan
|
a
|
GS_Polity_unclassified
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements:
1. Preamble is an integral part of the constitution.
2. Preamble forms the part of the basic structure of the constitution.
Option :
##Option_A: Both 1 and 2 ###Option_B: Only 1
##Option_C: Only 2 ##Option_D: Both 1 and 2 ##Answer:a##Explaination:nan##Topic:GS_Polity_unclassified##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Which of the following statements is/are correct? The Parliament can make law on any subject enlisted in all the three lists for UTs including Delhi and Pudducherry. The Lt. Governor of Delhi is empowered to promulgate ordinances. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
The Parliament can make law on any subject enlisted in all the three lists for UTs including Delhi and Pudducherry. The Lt. Governor of Delhi is empowered to promulgate ordinances during the recess of assembly which has the same force as an act of the assembly. Hence both the statements are correct.
|
c
|
The Union and its Territory
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are correct? The Parliament can make law on any subject enlisted in all the three lists for UTs including Delhi and Pudducherry. The Lt. Governor of Delhi is empowered to promulgate ordinances. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 2 only ##Option_C: Both 1 and 2 ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:c##Explaination:The Parliament can make law on any subject enlisted in all the three lists for UTs including Delhi and Pudducherry. The Lt. Governor of Delhi is empowered to promulgate ordinances during the recess of assembly which has the same force as an act of the assembly. Hence both the statements are correct. ##Topic:The Union and its Territory##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following officials take the oath in following lines – "To preserve, protect and defend the constitution". 1. President 2. Governor 3. Chief Justice of India 4. Attorney General of India.
|
1, 2, 3, 4
|
2, 3, 4
|
Only 1 and 2
|
1, 2, 3, 4
|
nan
|
c
|
GS_Polity_unclassified
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following officials take the oath in following lines – "To preserve, protect and defend the constitution". 1. President 2. Governor 3. Chief Justice of India 4. Attorney General of India.##Option_A: 1, 2, 3, 4 ###Option_B: 2, 3, 4##Option_C: Only 1 and 2 ##Option_D: 1, 2, 3, 4 ##Answer:c##Explaination:nan##Topic:GS_Polity_unclassified##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements: Attorney General of India holds office during the pleasure of the President Attorney General is debarred from private legal practice. Solicitor general of India is constitutional position. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1, 2 and 3
|
2 and 3
|
1 and 3
|
1, 2 and 3
|
AG not debarred from private legal practice. Solicitor General of India is not a constitutional position.
|
d
|
Attorney general of India/Advocate general of India
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: Attorney General of India holds office during the pleasure of the President Attorney General is debarred from private legal practice. Solicitor general of India is constitutional position. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3###Option_B: 2 and 3##Option_C: 1 and 3##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3##Answer:d##Explaination:AG not debarred from private legal practice. Solicitor General of India is not a constitutional position.##Topic:Attorney general of India/Advocate general of India##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements: 1. Though the constitution has fixed the maximum and the minimum limits, the actual strength is fixed by Parliament for Legislative council. 2. The maximum strength of the council is fixed at one third of the total strength of the concerned states Assembly and the minimum strength is fixed at 40. Option :
|
Both 1 and 2
|
Only 1
|
Only 2
|
Both 1 and 2
|
nan
|
a
|
GS_Polity_unclassified
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: 1. Though the constitution has fixed the maximum and the minimum limits, the actual strength is fixed by Parliament for Legislative council. 2. The maximum strength of the council is fixed at one third of the total strength of the concerned states Assembly and the minimum strength is fixed at 40. Option :##Option_A: Both 1 and 2 ###Option_B: Only 1##Option_C: Only 2 ##Option_D: Both 1 and 2 ##Answer:a##Explaination:nan##Topic:GS_Polity_unclassified##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements about Parliamentary privileges: Being integral part of Parliament, President enjoys Parliamentary privileges. Member of Parliament can"t be arrested in both the cases civil or criminal during the session or 40 days before and after the session. Attorney General of India enjoys Parliamentary privileges. Which of the above statements are correct ?
|
1, 2, 3
|
2, 3
|
1, 3
|
1, 2, 3
|
President doesn't enjoy Parliamentary privileges. In criminal case or preventive detention case privilege doesn't apply. The privilege is available not only to the Members of Parliament but also, under Article 105(4) of the Constitution, to persons like the Attorney General of India or Ministers who are not members but have a right to speak in the House.
|
d
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about Parliamentary privileges: Being integral part of Parliament, President enjoys Parliamentary privileges. Member of Parliament can"t be arrested in both the cases civil or criminal during the session or 40 days before and after the session. Attorney General of India enjoys Parliamentary privileges. Which of the above statements are correct ?##Option_A: 1, 2, 3 ###Option_B: 2, 3##Option_C: 1, 3 ##Option_D: 1, 2, 3 ##Answer:d##Explaination:President doesn't enjoy Parliamentary privileges. In criminal case or preventive detention case privilege doesn't apply. The privilege is available not only to the Members of Parliament but also, under Article 105(4) of the Constitution, to persons like the Attorney General of India or Ministers who are not members but have a right to speak in the House.##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements about Money Bill: Money Bill can be introduced by any member of the lower house but only in Lok Sabha. The defeat of Money Bill in the Lok Sabha leads to the resignation of the government. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct ?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Only 1st statement is incorrect because a Money Bill can be introduced only by a Minister (that is why it is also called a Government Bill) in the Lok Sabha only.
|
b
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about Money Bill: Money Bill can be introduced by any member of the lower house but only in Lok Sabha. The defeat of Money Bill in the Lok Sabha leads to the resignation of the government. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct ?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Only 1st statement is incorrect because a Money Bill can be introduced only by a Minister (that is why it is also called a Government Bill) in the Lok Sabha only.##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements: 1. Calling Attention Motion, Zero Hour, both are borrowed from British Parliament. 2. Adjournment motion is common device used by both the Houses of Parliament. Which of the above statements are correct ? Option :
|
Both 1 and 2
|
Only 1
|
Only 2
|
Both 1 and 2
|
(i) Calling Attention Motion & Zero Hour are Indian innovation.
(ii) Adjournment Motion involves an element of censure against the government and hence RajyaSabha isn't permitted to make use of this device.
|
d
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: 1. Calling Attention Motion, Zero Hour, both are borrowed from British Parliament. 2. Adjournment motion is common device used by both the Houses of Parliament. Which of the above statements are correct ? Option :##Option_A: Both 1 and 2 ###Option_B: Only 1##Option_C: Only 2 ##Option_D: Both 1 and 2 ##Answer:d##Explaination:(i) Calling Attention Motion & Zero Hour are Indian innovation.
(ii) Adjournment Motion involves an element of censure against the government and hence RajyaSabha isn't permitted to make use of this device.##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements:
1. Speaker resigns by writing to the President of India.
2. Whenever LokSabha is dissolved, the speaker too resigns with it.
3. The speaker & the Deputy speaker take and subscribe separate oath or affirmation(other than MP"s oath) when they occupy the office.
Option :
|
1, 2, 3
|
2, 3
|
1, 3
|
1, 2, 3
|
(i) Speaker resigns by writing to the Deputy Speaker.
(ii) Whenever the LokSabha is dissolved, the speaker doesn't vacate his office & continues till the newly LokSabha meets.
(iii) They don't take and subscribe separate oath or affirmation when they occupy the office.
|
b
|
GS_Polity_unclassified
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements:
1. Speaker resigns by writing to the President of India.
2. Whenever LokSabha is dissolved, the speaker too resigns with it.
3. The speaker & the Deputy speaker take and subscribe separate oath or affirmation(other than MP"s oath) when they occupy the office.
Option :
##Option_A: 1, 2, 3 ###Option_B: 2, 3
##Option_C: 1, 3 ##Option_D: 1, 2, 3 ##Answer:b##Explaination:(i) Speaker resigns by writing to the Deputy Speaker.
(ii) Whenever the LokSabha is dissolved, the speaker doesn't vacate his office & continues till the newly LokSabha meets.
(iii) They don't take and subscribe separate oath or affirmation when they occupy the office.##Topic:GS_Polity_unclassified##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements:
1. When the office of the Lok Sabha Speaker & Deputy Speaker falls vacant, the senior most member takes charge as Presiding Officer to run the House.
2. Supreme Court barred the repromulgation of ordinance by the President in one of its judgement.
Option :
|
Both 1 and 2
|
Only 1
|
Only 2
|
Both 1 and 2
|
(i) President can appoint any member of LokSabha in case vacancy to the office and speaker Deputy Speaker.
(ii) So far no case gone to the Supreme Court regarding repromulgation of ordinance by the President.
|
d
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements:
1. When the office of the Lok Sabha Speaker & Deputy Speaker falls vacant, the senior most member takes charge as Presiding Officer to run the House.
2. Supreme Court barred the repromulgation of ordinance by the President in one of its judgement.
Option :
##Option_A: Both 1 and 2 ###Option_B: Only 1
##Option_C: Only 2 ##Option_D: Both 1 and 2 ##Answer:d##Explaination:(i) President can appoint any member of LokSabha in case vacancy to the office and speaker Deputy Speaker.
(ii) So far no case gone to the Supreme Court regarding repromulgation of ordinance by the President.##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements:
1. Every child has a fundamental right of education and early chidhood care until they complete the age
of six years.
2. Ambedkar defined DPSPs as Novel features of the India Constitution.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
Option :
|
Both 1 and 2
|
Only 1
|
Only 2
|
Both 1 and 2
|
Early childhood care & education until age of six years in DPSP
|
c
|
GS_Polity_unclassified
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements:
1. Every child has a fundamental right of education and early chidhood care until they complete the age
of six years.
2. Ambedkar defined DPSPs as Novel features of the India Constitution.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
Option :
##Option_A: Both 1 and 2 ###Option_B: Only 1
##Option_C: Only 2 ##Option_D: Both 1 and 2 ##Answer:c##Explaination:Early childhood care & education until age of six years in DPSP##Topic:GS_Polity_unclassified##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following is Incorrect–
1. National Commission for women – 1992
2. National Commission for minorities – 1993
3. National Commission for backward classes – 1993
4. National Human Rights Commission – 1993
5. National Commission for protection of child rights – 2006
Option:
|
2, 3, 4
|
3, 4, 5
|
1, 2, 3, 4
|
2, 3, 4
|
National Commission for Protection of Child Rights formed in 2007.
|
d
|
GS_Polity_unclassified
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is Incorrect–
1. National Commission for women – 1992
2. National Commission for minorities – 1993
3. National Commission for backward classes – 1993
4. National Human Rights Commission – 1993
5. National Commission for protection of child rights – 2006
Option:
##Option_A: 2, 3, 4 ###Option_B: 3, 4, 5
##Option_C: 1, 2, 3, 4 ##Option_D: 2, 3, 4 ##Answer:d##Explaination:National Commission for Protection of Child Rights formed in 2007.##Topic:GS_Polity_unclassified##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
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